Disha NDA NA 16 Years English & General Knowledge Solved Papers (2006-2021)

EBD_7348
CONTENTS
TOPICWISE SOLVED PAPER FOR NDA/NA 2019-21 1-36
GENERAL ABILITY TEST
F PART A : ENGLISH
1. Synonyms E-1-14
2. Antonyms E-15-28
3. Fill in the Blanks E-29-39
4. Spotting Errors E-40-56
5. Selecting Words / Phrases E-57-64
6. Ordering of Sentences E-65-77
7. Ordering of Words in a Sentence E-78-94
8. Comprehension E-95-116
F PART B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

PHYSICS
1. Properties of Matter G-1-5
2. Mechanics G-6-25
3. Heat & Thermodynamics G-26-32
4. Waves G-33-38
5. Optics G-39-50
6. Electricity & Magnetism G-51-67
7. Modern Physics G-68-72

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CHEMISTRY
8. Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Atomic Structure G-73-82
9. Carbon and different forms, Carbon Dioxide G-83-87
10. Chemistry of Metal and Non-metals (H2, O2 and N2) G-88-95
11. Some Important Chemical Compounds G-96-105
12. Acids, Bases and Salts, Oxidation and Reduction G-106-111
BIOLOGY
13. Botany G-112-120
14. Zoology G-121-136
HISTORY
15. Ancient India G-137-142
16. Medieval India G-143-146
17. Modern India G-147-170
18. World History G-171-175
GEOGRAPHY
19. World & Physical Geography G-176-202
20. Geography of India G-203-223
POLITICAL SCIENCE
21. Indian Polity G-224-236
22. Indian Economy G-237-242
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
23. General Knowledge G-243-259
24. Current Affairs G-260-272

NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY EXAMINATION
The National Defence Academy (NDA) founded in 1957, is a Balloon, Pumps, Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask,
premier Inter Service training institution where future cadets Gramophone, Telegraphs, Telephone, Periscope, Telescope,
are trained. The training involves an exacting schedule of 3 Microscope, Mariner ’s Compass; Lightening Conductors, Safety
years before the cadets join their respective Service Academies, Fuses.
viz. Indian Military Academy, Naval Academy and Air Force
Academy. Section B - Chemistr y
The examination of the National Defence Academy is Physical and Chemical changes. Elements, Mixtures and
conducted by UPSC twice a year, after which the selected Compounds, Symbols, Formulae and simple Chemical Equations,
candidates are sent to National Defence Academy for training. Law of Chemical Combination (excluding problems). Properties
of Air and Water. Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen,
SYLLABUS Nitrogen and Carbondioxide, Oxidation and Reduction. Acids,
bases and salts. Carbon - different forms. Fertilizers - Natural
Part A - ENGLISH
and Artificial Material used in the preparation of substances
The question paper in English will be designed to test the like soap, Glass, Ink, Paper, Cement, Paints, Safety Matches,
candidate’s understanding of English and workman like use and Gun-Powder. Elementary ideas about the Structure of Atom,
of words. The syllabus covers various aspects like Grammar Atomic, Equivalent and Molecular Weights, Valency.
and usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in
extended text to test the candidate’s proficiency in English. Section C - General Science
Part B - GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Difference between the living and non- living. Basis of Life –
The question paper on General Knowledge will broadly cover Cells, Protoplasms and Tissues. Growth and Reproduction in
the subjects: Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Social Studies, Plants and Animals. Elementary knowledge of human Body
Geography and Current Events. and its important organs. Common Epidemics, their causes
The syllabus given below is designed to indicate the scope of and prevention. Food – Source of Energy for man. Constituents
these subjects included in this paper. The topics mentioned of food, Balanced Diet. The Solar System – Meteors and Comets,
are not to be regarded as exhaustive and questions on topics Eclipses. Achievements of Eminent Scientists.
of similar nature not specifically mentioned in the syllabus
may also be asked. Candidate’s answers are expected to show Section D - Histor y, Freedom Movement
their knowledge and intelligent understanding of the subject.
A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture
and Civilisation. Freedom Movement in India. Elementary study
Section A - Physics
of Indian Constitution and Administration. Elementary
Physical Properties and States of Matter, Mass, Weight, Volume, knowledge of Five Year Plans of India. Panchayati Raj, Co-
Density and Specific Gravity, Principle of Archimedes, Pressure operatives and Community Development. Bhoodan, Sarvodaya,
Barometer. Motion of objects, Velocity and Acceleration, National Integration and Welfare State, Basic Teachings of
Newton’s Laws of Motion, Force and Momentum, Parallelogram Mahatma Gandhi. Forces shaping the modern world;
of Forces, Stability and Equilibrium of bodies, Gravitation, Renaissance, Exploration and Discovery; War of American
elementary ideas of work, Power and Energy. Effects of Heat, Independence. French Revolution, Industrial Revolution and
Measurement of temperature and heat, change of State and Russian Revolution. Impact of Science and Technology on
Latent Heat, Modes of transference of Heat. Sound waves and Society. Concept of one World, United Nations, Panchsheel,
their properties, Simple musical instruments. Rectilinear Democracy. Socialism and Communism. Role of India in the
propagation of Light, Reflection and refraction. Spherical present world.
mirrors and Lenses. Human Eye. Natural and Artificial Magnets,
Properties of a Magnet, Earth as a Magnet. Static and Current Section E - Geoegraphy
Electricity, conductors and Non-conductors, Ohm’s Law, Simple
The Earth, its shape and size. Lattitudes and Longitudes,
Electrical Circuits, Heating, Lighting and Magnetic effects of
Concept of time. International Date Line. Movements of Earth
Current, Measurement of Electrical Power, Primary and
and their effects. Origin of Earth. Rocks and their classification;
Secondary Cells, Use of X-Rays. General Principles in the
Weathering – Mechanical and Chemical, Earthquakes and
working of – Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon, Levers,
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volcanoes. Ocean Currents and Tides Atmosphere and its INTELLIGENCE AND PERSONALITY TEST
composition; Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure, Planetary
In addition to the interview the candidates will be put to
Winds, cyclones and Anti-cyclones; Humidity; Condensation
Intelligence Tests both verbal and non-verbal, designed to
and Precipitation; Types of Climate. Major Natural regions of
assess their basic intelligence. They will also be put to Group
the World. Regional Geography of India – Climate, Natural
Tests such as group discussions, group planning, outdoor group
vegetation. Mineral and Power resources; location and
tasks, and asked to give brief lectures on specified subjects.
distribution of agricultural and industrial activities. Important
All these tests are intended to judge the mental calibre of a
Sea ports and main sea, land and air routes of India. Main
candidate. In broad terms, this is really an assessment of not
items of Imports and Exports of India.
only his intellectual qualities but also his social traits and
interests in current affairs.
Section F - Current Affairs
STAGE III : Medical Examination by the Service Medical Board.
Knowledge of Important events that have happened in India
TRAINING
in the recent years. Current important world events. Prominent
personalities – both Indian and International including those The selected candidates for the three services, viz., Army, Navy
connected with cultural activities and sports. and Air Force are given preliminary training both academic
and physical for a period of 3 years at the National Defence
v HOW TO APPLY Academy which is an Inter-Service Institution. The training
Candidates are required to apply online by using the during the first two and half years is common to the cadets of
website www.upsconline.nic.in. Brief instructions for filling three wings. The cadets on passing out will be awarded B.Sc./
up the online application form name been given in B.A. degree from Jawaharlal Nehru University, Delhi. On passing
advertisement itself. out from the National Defence Academy, Army Cadets go to the
Indian Military Academy, Dehra Dun, Naval Cadets to the Cadets
EXAMINATION PATTERN Trainingship and Air Force cadets to AFA, HYDERABAD/BFTS,
STAGE I : Written Examination held by the UPSC ALLAHABAD.
At the I.M.A. Army Cadets are known as Gentlemen Cadets and
The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and
are given strenuous military training for a period of one year
the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows
aimed at turning officer capable to leading infantry Sub-units.
: On successful completion of training Gentlemen Cadets are
Subject Code Duration Maximum Marks granted Permanent Commission in the rank of Lt. subject to
being medically fit in “SHAPE” one. The Naval cadets are
Mathematics 01 2-½ Hours 300
selected for the Executive, Engineering and Electrical Branches
General Ability Test 02 2-½ Hours 600
of the Navy, on passing out from the National Defence Academy
Total 900 and are given sea training.
EXAMINATION CENTRES
NOTE : The papers in all the subjects will consist of objective type Agartala, Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Allahabad, Bangalore, Bareilly,
questions only. The question papers (test booklets) of Mathematics Bhopal, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cuttack, Dehradun, Delhi,
and Part-B of General Ability Tests will be set bilingually in Hindi as Dharwar, Dispur, Gangtok, Hyderabad, Imphal, Itanagar, Jaipur,
well as English. Jammu, Jorhat, Kochi, Kohima, Kolkata, Lucknow, Madurai,
STAGE II : An interview by the Service Selection Board to assess Mumbai, Nagpur, Panaji (Goa), Patna, Port Blair, Raipur, Ranchi,
a candidate’s officer potentialities (Intelligence and Sambalpur, Shillong, Shimla, Sringar, Thiruvananthapuram,
personality test) – 900 marks Tirupati, Udaipur, V ishakhapatnam.
DETAILED BREAKUP OF QUESTIONS (2007-19)
PART ‘A’ - ENGLISH
2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019
I II I II I II I II I II I II I II I II I II I II I II I II I
S yn on ym s 8 9 8 9 8 8 8 6 10 10 10 10 10 10 0 10 4 0 10 5 5 10 10 5 10
An ton ym s 8 9 8 9 8 8 8 6 10 10 10 10 10 10 4 10 4 4 11 5 5 10 10 5 10
Fil l in th e Bl ank s 0 0 0 0 0 0 8 10 0 0 0 0 0 10 16 10 6 4 9 10 18 10 5 15 5
S potti n g Errors 8 5 7 5 11 8 8 10 10 15 10 10 10 10 23 20 30 23 20 23 5 5 5 5 10
S e le ctin g W ords /Ph ras es 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 20 0 0 0 0 12 0 0 10 0 5 5 5
O rde rin g of Se n te n ce s 8 8 9 0 7 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 6 0 0 6 0 0 7 0 5 5 0 2
O rde rin g of W ords in a S e n te n ce 8 8 8 8 7 6 8 6 10 8 10 12 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 9 0 0 5 3
C om pre h e ns ion 10 11 10 11 9 12 10 3 3 2 3 2 0 4 0 7 0 7 0 0 3 0 10 10 5
PART ‘B’ - GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

UNIT ‘I’ : PHYS IC S 25 26 24 24 25 21 27 25 23 24 24 23 23 25 26 30 19 22 25 23 25 21 24 25 22
Prope rtie s of Matte r 2 3 1 4 4 2 2 7 1 2 1 0 0 0 1 4 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 2 0
Me chan ics 5 4 7 3 3 4 6 7 4 7 6 7 2 7 13 9 2 2 3 2 6 6 8 4 6
He at & The rm odynam i cs 3 3 1 1 3 1 3 1 3 2 2 2 6 3 0 1 0 5 6 4 3 3 5 1 2
W ave s 3 2 1 4 3 3 5 1 2 3 2 2 2 1 0 1 4 3 1 3 2 4 4 4 1
O ptics 3 4 1 3 3 6 2 4 5 2 9 5 6 3 3 3 4 3 5 4 5 3 3 5 5
Ele ctricity & Magn e ti sm 7 7 8 7 6 4 6 5 5 7 4 6 6 9 7 7 4 3 3 2 9 2 3 6 6
Mode rn Ph ys ics 2 3 5 2 3 1 3 0 3 1 0 1 1 2 2 5 4 5 6 8 0 3 1 3 2
UNIT ‘II’ : C HEMIS TRY 15 15 16 16 15 17 19 16 12 15 16 18 16 14 9 12 18 19 17 16 14 14 13 13 14

Basi c con ce pts of C he m i stry, Atomic
7 4 9 4 4 5 6 3 1 3 1 5 7 3 2 6 9 8 5 3 6 5 0 5 2
S tru ctu re
C arbon an d di ffere n t form s, C arbon
2 2 2 2 0 2 3 4 2 1 3 2 0 1 2 0 1 2 4 4 3 1 4 1 1
dioxide
C h e m is try of Me tal s an d Non
2 4 0 2 3 3 5 3 6 4 7 5 5 3 2 3 0 1 1 3 3 1 3 1 4
Me tal s
S om e im portant C h e m ical
3 3 5 5 7 5 4 3 3 2 4 3 0 3 2 2 4 4 5 3 2 4 4 4 5
C om poun ds
Acids, Base s and S alts, O xidation
an d Re du ction 1 2 0 3 1 2 1 3 0 5 1 3 4 4 1 1 4 4 2 3 0 3 2 4 2
UNIT ‘III’ : BIO LO GY 10 9 10 11 10 7 11 9 10 10 7 10 10 10 10 10 7 9 10 11 10 9 12 11 11

Botan y 4 4 5 4 4 0 5 5 3 2 3 7 4 0 2 5 2 5 7 7 4 0 5 5 4
Zool ogy 6 5 5 7 6 7 6 4 7 8 4 4 6 10 8 5 5 4 3 4 6 9 7 6 7
UNIT ‘IV’ : HIS TO RY 13 10 15 7 8 10 14 13 11 12 13 12 14 18 12 18 13 12 8 7 14 16 15 15 16

An cie n t In di a 1 2 1 0 2 2 1 4 2 4 2 2 1 0 0 0 4 3 4 2 0 3 2 3 2
Me die val In dia 2 1 3 1 2 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 4 0 3 5 3 3 2 3 3 4 3 1
Mode rn Indi a 7 4 8 6 4 6 10 8 9 6 10 9 11 13 9 3 3 6 8 2 11 9 6 7 7
W orld Hi story 3 3 3 0 0 1 3 1 0 2 0 1 1 1 3 2 1 0 2 1 0 1 3 2 6
UNIT ‘V’ : GEO GRAPHY 19 20 19 20 12 18 20 19 18 19 18 17 12 18 17 16 9 20 19 19 12 21 17 18 19

W orld & Physical Ge ograph y 12 9 7 16 7 13 16 12 13 13 12 7 8 17 16 15 6 11 5 5 2 11 13 10 13
Ge ograph y of In di a 7 11 12 4 5 5 4 7 5 6 6 10 4 1 1 1 3 9 14 14 10 10 4 8 6
UNIT ‘VI’ : PO LITIC AL S C IENC E 4 8 4 10 12 11 5 6 9 4 4 7 7 0 5 2 3 5 10 10 7 5 6 7 5

In di an Poli ty 3 6 2 7 7 7 5 6 3 4 3 5 4 0 5 1 3 5 6 4 2 3 4 5 3
In di an Econ om y 1 2 2 3 5 4 0 0 6 0 1 2 3 0 0 1 0 0 4 6 5 2 2 2 2
UNIT ‘VII’ : GENERAL 14 11 12 13 8 10 11 12 11 9 12 13 11 12 22 24 23 13 13 14 18 15 13 11 13

KNO
Ge n eW
ralLEDGE
Kn owle dge 5 8 6 9 7 7 11 7 10 2 8 4 5 4 15 15 13 5 8 8 7 6 3 5 7
C u rre n t Affairs 9 3 6 4 1 3 0 5 1 7 4 9 6 8 7 9 10 8 5 6 11 9 10 6 6
EBD_7348
Topicwise Solved Paper For NDA/NA
2019-21
PART- A : ENGLISH
Synonyms 11. She got the divorce within no time.

(a) detachment (b) breaking down
DIRECTIONS : Each item in this section consists of a sentence (c) annulment (d) punishment
with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the 12. He was known for his gentle disposition.
option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and (a) harmful (b) amiable
mark your response in your answer sheet accordingly. (c) cunning (d) adjusting
[NDA 2019-II] 13. The harder we kick, the better the ball bounces back.
1. He is always anxious. (a) recoils (b) deflates
(a) worried (b) Dispassionate (c) inflates (d) ascends
(c) sluggish (d) torpid
14. I plan and execute.
2. The poems of Kabir are ecstatic in nature.
(a) efficacious (b) cerie (a) desire (b) debate
(c) rapturous (d) reverential (c) accomplish (d) discard
3. Ravi loves seclusion. Therefore, he lives in the mountains. 15. He listened to me with equanimity.
(a) nature (b) scripture (a) carelessly (b) excitedly
(c) seafaring (d) solitariness (c) patiently (d) half-heartedly
4. Hitler was a despot. 16. The whole thing was a futile exercise.
(a) conservative (b) dictator (a) costly (b) pointless
(c) passionate (d) monstrous
(c) indecisive (d) successful
5. The imagery used in the poem is vivid.
17. He was too cunning for her.
(a) lively (b) inert (c) ebullient (d) caustic
6. A human being is a always vulnerable to other human (a) capable (b) fit
beings. (c) intelligent (d) dodgy
(a) resilient (b) elastic (c) defenceless (d) crude 18. This decision is crucial for me.
7. His language is political and vitriolic. (a) momentous (b) natural
(a) imaginative (b) springhtly (c) primitive (d) inept
(c) vivacious (d) abusive 19. The media went into a frenzy about the case.
8. The Managing Director of the company declared that he (a) silent (b) creative
is broke and there is a need to seek support from the gov-
(c) berserk (d) wrong
ernment.
(a) bankrupt (b) rich 20. He has been yearning to go home.
(c) making profit (d) having liabilities (a) declining (b) demanding
9. He loves doing nasty things. (c) begging (d) hankering
(a) nice (b) fastidious (c) foul (d) finicky
10. He could not muster courage to speak the truth before his DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-30) : Each item in this section consists
of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words.
friend.
Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined
(a) injure (b) spoil (c) gather (d) main
word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-20): Each item in this section consists of [NDA 2021-I]
a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four 21. Her smile was contagious.
words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the (a) arrogant (b) disrespectful
underlined word and mark your response on your Answer Sheet
(c) sarcastic (d) catching
accordingly. [NDA 2020-I]
22. Her dynamic nature impressed everyone.
(a) enduring (b) attentive
(c) evolutionary (d) jealous
EBD_7348
2 Topicwise Solved Paper For NDA/NA 2019-21
23. She was lamenting her destiny. 7. Malaria is a widespread disease.

(a) celebrating (b) bemoaning (a) endemic (b) pervasive
(c) blaming (d) making (c) common (d) rare
24. Under his leadership the company grew in an organic 8. The bill received a vehement resistance from the opposi-
manner. tion party in the Parliament.
(a) natural (b) speedy (a) animated (b) apathetic
(c) unusual (d) disciplined (c) fervent (d) vigorous
9. He has been obstinate since his childhood.
25. His charm lies in his oratory.
(a) stubborn (b) dogged
(a) deceit (b) eloquence
(c) amenable (d) rigid
(c) looks (d) nobility 10. Mahatma Gandhi was one of the most prominent leaders
26. She is a patron of art and culture. of his times.
(a) entrepreneur (b) admirer (a) renowned (b) distinguishable
(c) critique (d) backer (c) eminent (d) unknown
27. Arrogance is a hallmark of his nature.
(a) concern DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-20) : Each item in this section consists
(b) unpretentiousness
Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined
(c) conceit word and mark your response on your Answer Sheet
(d) simplicity accordingly. [NDA 2020-I]
28. She undertook a reconnaissance of the entire issue.
(a) revaluation (b) ratification 11. He nodded absently throughout the meeting.
(c) investigation (d) regularisation (a) capably (b) alertly
29. My daughter is my replica. (c) agitatedly (d) dreamily
(a) pride (b) clone 12. I fullly believe that the cornerstone of good policy is an
(c) love (d) original electorate that is educated on the national issues.
30. The sardonic nature of her stories made her stand out (a) cerebral (b) enlightened
among the contemporary writers. (c) ignorant (d) erudite
(a) compassionate (b) insightful
13. For important medical decisions, even finding a doctor
(c) mocking (d) comic
you trust is not enough.
Antonyms (a) significant (b) trivial
(c) basic (d) probable
DIRECTIONS : Each item in this sections consists of a sentence 14. Planets move in their orbits.
with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the
option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word ond (a) push (b) rotate
mark your response in your answer sheet accordingly. (c) stall (d) flow
[NDA 2019-II] 15. Temperature is a measure of internal energy of an object
1. His conversations are always absurd. and is frequently expressed by physicists in units of Kelvin.
(a) farcical (b) foolish (a) found (b) told
(c) preposterous (d) rational (c) distributed (d) concealed
2. The politician was a dissident.
16. People argue about why Venus is so much warmer than
(a) agitator (b) rebel
the Earth.
(c) conformist (d) revolutionary
3. He wrote an incisive article on corruption in politics. (a) friendlier (b) colder
(a) vague (b) penetrating (c) wilder (d) heavier
(c) trenchant (d) precise 17. Scientists are concerned whether the oceans and land
4. Rakesh is an eccentric prodigal. biosphere will take up as much carbon in the future as
(a) extravagant (b) profligate they presently do.
(c) wasteful (d) thrifty
(a) worried (b) indifferent
5. Friendship is always reciprocal.
(a) mutual (b) one-sided (c) curious (d) puzzled
(c) shared (d) corresponding 18. The biggest debate among scientists today is about cloud
6. The debat was highly stimulating. feedback.
(a) arousing (b) invigorating (a) contend (b) moot
(c) boring (d) stirring
(c) wrangle (d) agreement
Topicwise Solved Paper For NDA/NA 2019-21 3
19. The Earth's climate sensitivity is conventionally defined vember 12 to December 7.

as the equilibrium temperature increase caused by a (a) pronounced (b) announced
doubling of carbon dioxide. (c) promulgated (d) issued
(a) imperviousness (b) willingness 2. The victims were fruit vendors and they were going in an
(c) responsiveness (d) closeness auto when they .................... an accident on the way.
(a) met with (b) ran into
20. The oceans carry a huge amount of heat from the tropics
(c) experienced (d) heard
to the high latitudes.
3. Scores of villagers are .................... a sit-in protest against
(a) significant (b) major the constructions of a new underpass.
(c) tiny (d) dormant (a) performing (b) sitting
(c) staging (d) standing
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-30) : Each item in this section consists 4. It is common for patients to stop ........................ medicine
as soon as they start feeling better.
Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined
(a) eating (b) gulping
(c) swallowing (d) taking
[NDA 2021-I]
5. A four-year-old girl got a new lease of life after doctors at
21. He found her extremely attractive and charming. a hospital ............. a cancerous tumour from one of her
(a) unnatural (b) modern kidneys.
(c) repulsive (d) disapproving (a) rejuvenated (b) removed
22. The sky is boundless. (c) displace (d) replaced
(a) high (b) vast
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10): Each item in this section has a
(c) expansive (d) finite
sentence with a missing preposition. Select the correct
23. The sky is clear today.
preposition from the given options and mark your response on
(a) bright (b) opaque
your Answer Sheet accordingly. [NDA 2020-I]
(c) cloudless (d) blue
24. I have a fascination for deep waters. 6. Simulations of the 20th century by climate models that
(a) dark (b) light exclude the observed increase ______ greenhouse gases
(c) dangerous (d) shallow fail to simulate the increase in temperature over the second
25. My boss has been too generous. half of the 20th century.
(a) stingy (b) rough (a) of (b) in
(c) evil (d) hostile (c) by (d) to
26. Spring is a time of plenty. 7. In extremely poor societies, children can be put to work
(a) ugliness (b) scarcity ______ a young age and are therefore a source of income.
(c) roughness (d) dryness (a) in (b) on
27. He is an industrious workman. (c) by (d) at
(a) active (b) productive 8. People who are averse ______ hard work, generally do
(c) lazy (d) disloyal not succeed in life.
28. Plants grow in abundance here. (a) to (b) about
(a) shrivel (b) stretch (c) at (d) on
(c) spread (d) enlarge 9. I have known her ______ a long time.
29. She rarely comes here. (a) since (b) for
(a) seldom (b) never (c) at (d) before
(c) always (d) frequently 10. I accepted the offer ______ certain conditions.
30. She is a rather crooked woman. (a) on (b) in
(a) polite (b) generous (c) by (d) within
(c) straightforward (d) happy 11. She is a woman ______ humble origin.
(a) off (b) of
Fill in the Blanks
(c) from (d) within
DIRECTIONS: Each of the following sentences in this section 12. There is no cure ______ the common cold.
has a blank space and four words or group of words given (a) for (b) of
after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider (c) to (d) on
most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response 13. I ran ______ John yesterday, and it was a pleasant surprise.
on the Answer Sheet accordingly. [NDA 2019-II] (a) by (b) off
1. The election Commission on Saturday .................. that the (c) beside (d) into
Assembly elections in five states will be held from No-
EBD_7348
14. My grandmother enjoyed boating ______ the lovely lake. corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error,
(a) in (b) on your response should be indicated as (d). [NDA 2019-II]
(c) beside (d) within 1. (a) He had arrived at Cairo
15. He visits the needy to relieve them ______ their sufferings (b) a few months before
and poverty. (c) Protests shook the Arab world
(a) from (b) off (d) No error
(c) of (d) on 2. (a) Most of us who are older competitive runners
(b) are not able to race anywhere at the same speed
DIRECTIONS : Each of the following sentences in this section (c) as we do when we were 30,
has a blank space and four words or group of words given after (d) No error
the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider 3. (a) Work hard (b) lest you do not
most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response (c) fail (d) No error
on the Answer Sheet accordingly. [NDA 2021-I] 4. (a) The Eastern Ghats are home of 2600 plant species
16. There was a time when West Germany was a distinct (b) and this habitat fragmentation
____________. (c) can pose a serious threat to endemic plants
(a) policy (b) polity (d) No error
(c) abstract (d) hierarchy 5. (a) Turbidity current is a fast-moving current
(b) that sweeps down submarine canyons
17. I was ___________ with the film; I had expected it to be
(c) carrying sand and mud into the deep sea
better.
(d) No error
(a) disappointed (b) disappointing
6. (a) Every one (b) of the boys
(c) annoying (d) prejudiced (c) love to ride (d) No error
18. It was a ________ experience. Everybody was shocked. 7. (a) Neither praise nor blame (b) Seem
(a) terrified (b) horrified (c) to affect him (d) No error
(c) terrifying (d) denouncing 8. (a) Many a man (b) has succumbed
19. Elephants ________ when they perceive danger. (c) to this temptation (d) No error
(a) trumpet (b) frolic 9. (a) A time slot of fifteen minutes
(c) whine (d) sing (b) are allowed
20. The first film on Tagore was such a success that now they (c) to each speaker
are going to make a ________ . (d) No error
(a) serial (b) sequence 10. (a) He asked
(b) whether either of the brothers
(c) sequel (d) sequential
(c) were at home
21. Th e United Nations had ________ 2020 as the (d) No error
International Year of Plant Health.
(a) ruled (b) ordered DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-20): Each item in this section has a
(c) foretold (d) declared sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and
22. My brother is ________ punctual, but he is late today. (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error
(a) normatively (b) primarily in any underlined part and indicate your response on the
Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b)
(c) normally (d) basically
or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated
23. My son is very ________ ; he trusts everyone. as (d). [NDA 2020-I]
(a) fallible (b) gullible
(c) sensible (d) credible 11. This building (a) / comprises of six houses,(b) / three
parking lots and one basement. (c) / No error. (d)
24. Mahatma Gandhi was a lover of humanity and a ________
believer in the goodness of human nature. 12. I look forward (a) / to meet (b) / you. (c) / No error. (d)
(a) staunch (b) powerful 13. I cannot (a) / cope up (b) / with this pressure. (c) / No error. (d)
(c) cheerful (d) hopeful 14. I came (a) / to this place (b) / by walk. (c) / No error.(d)
25. I wish I ________ her before we met. 15. What is (a) / the time (b) / in your watch? (c) / No error. (d)
(a) know (b) have known 16. The price of my dress (a) / is higher than that of (b) / yours.
(c) knew (d) known (c) / No error. (d)
17. My friend's (a) / daughter-in-laws (b) / have come. (c) / No
Spotting Errors error. (d)
18. I prefer (a) / seafood (b) / than Mediterranean food. (c) /
DIRECTIONS : Each item in this section has a sentence with No error. (d)
three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each 19. We were (a) / discussing about (b) / the issue. (c) / No error. (d)
sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined 20. Dispose off (a) / the garbage (b) / from the shelves. (c) / No
part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the error. (d)
DIRECTIONS : Each item in this section has a sentence with (b) Government reports published on yellow coloured
three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each papers
sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined (c) Writings in newspapers that try to influence people's
part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against opinion by using str ong language and false
the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). if you find no informationa
error, your response should be indicated as (d). [NDA 2021-I] (d) Journalism which agrees completely with the poli-
cies of the governments and capitalists
21. You don’t have (a) / a monopoly on suffering; (b) / other 5. To be in seventh heaven
people don’t have problems too. (c) / No error (d) (a) To fly in the air
22. If you say that someone (a) / you admire has feet of clay, (b) To be extremely happy
(b) / you mean that they have hidden faults. (c) / No error (c) To be completely alone
(d) (d) To visit a place which is in the list of the seven won-
23. He refused to change (a) / his decision; (b) / he refused it ders of the word
point out. (c) / No error (d)
24. The importance of trade in Mughal times reinforced (a) / DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10) : Given below are some idioms/
the cultural definition of wealth as something (b) / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose
comprising of movable property. (c) / No error (d) the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), whichever is the most
25. In the nineteenth century, (a) / most traditional scholars appropriate expression and mark your response in your Answer
(b) / tried to stay clear from the imperial Government. (c) / Sheet accordingly. [NDA 2021-I]
No error (d) 6. Overstep the mark
26. He began his discussion by pointing over (a) / that men (a) To tell people how successful you are
and women (b) / had different biological functions. (c) / (b) To step into someone else’s areas of expertise
No error (d)
(c) To upset someone by doing/saying more than you
27. Though he is poor, (a) / but he is (b) / honest. (c) / No error
should
(d)
28. My mother (a) / has been doing (b) / everything for the (d) To do something in an excited way
family. (c) / No error (d) 7. Palsy-walsy friends
29. When learning to dive (a) / it is important (b) / to relax in (a) Good friends
between and take breaks. (c) / No error (d) (b) Friends who help each other in difficult situations
30. I have the opportunity (a) / to study (b) / in America next (c) Friends by choice, and not by chance
year. (c) / No error (d) (d) Unfriendly
Idioms and Phrases 8. Open a Pandora’s box
(a) To do something that causes a lot of new problems
DIRECTIONS : Given below are some idioms phrase followed that you did not expect
by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response. (b) To do something out of compulsion
(a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression. (c) To do something beyond expectation
[NDA 2019-II] (d) To do something out of the box, that causes awards
1. Be over the hill and ceremonies for you
(a) To be on a mountain top 9. Pull your socks up
(b) To travel in the jungle (a) To get well-dressed for the occasion
(c) To be too old to do things (b) Improve your work or behaviour
(d) To do something in the most complete way (c) To speak in an honest way without hesitation
2. Bite your tongue (d) To be in control of an organization, often secretly
(a) To stop yourself from saying something because it 10. To get under somebody’s skin
would be better not ot (a) To deceive someone
(b) To bite off your tongue while eating (b) To admire someone
(c) To feel sorry
(c) To annoy someone
(d) To ask someone something that you want
3. Turn a blind eye (d) To support someone
(a) To run away 11. Turn topsy-turvy
(b) To begin to behave in a more positive manner (a) To completely change something
(c) To change a situation (b) To completely evaluate something
(d) To choose to ignore behaviour that you know is (c) To enjoy yourself greatly
wrong (d) To exhaust yourself completely
4. Yellow journalism. 12. A clarion call
(a) Paid storytelling (a) A trumpet call (b) An intimidating voice
(c) A strong request (d) An urgent order
EBD_7348
13. Fire in the belly

online is illegal and
(a) Fear and hatred
R
(b) Powerful ambition
(c) Love and dedication submitted that the sale of drugs and prescription medicines
(d) Lethargy and indifference S
14. A hunky-dory situation (a) R Q S P (b) Q S R P
(a) There are serious issues among people (c) Q R S P (d) P R S Q
(b) There are no problems and people are happy humans and machines have co-existed
(c) There is war and bloodshed all over 4.
P
(d) There is no work, only enjoyment
15. Give somebody a leg up dating back to the invention of
(a) To pull someone down Q
(b) To deceive and betray someone
the potter's wheel in ancient Mesopotamia
(c) To help someone for their livelihood
(d) To help someone to be successful R
at the physical level for millennia
Ordering of Words in a Sentence
S
DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items in this section (a) R S P Q (b) Q S P R
consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. (c) Q R P S (d) P S Q R
There parts have been labelled P, Q. R and S, Given below each a sell-off as US treasury yields
sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You 5.
P
are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence
and mark your purpose accordingly. [NDA 2019-II] surged to multi-year highs
Q
closely monitor the situation
1. on robust economic data
P
R
by the disturbing allegations
global markets also witnessed
Q
S
we are deeply concerned (a) R S Q P (b) P Q S R
R (c) Q S P S (d) S P Q R
and will continue to DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-10): Each of the following items in this
S section consists of a sentences(s), the parts of which have
(a) R Q S P (b) S P Q R been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and
(c) S P R Q (d) P R S Q S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a),
(b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled
relieve nausea, pain and stress parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
2.
P [NDA 2020-I]
aromatherapy may also help 6. P. several years ago,
Q Q. course on climate change at Texas A & M University
R. Professor Andrew Dessler created an introductory
using lavender oil on their skin
S. for freshmen and sophomores
R (a) PRQS (b) Q R P S
but patients are cautioned against (c) SQ RP (d) P Q R S
S 7. P. I realize that solving the climate change problem
(a) R Q P S (b) S Q P R Q. than solving
(c) Q P S R (d) R P S Q R. will be much harder
S. the ozone depletion problem
without any mandate of law
3. (a) PRQS (b) Q R P S
P (c) SQ RP (d) P Q R S
the plea filed through the advocate 8. P. although the temperature of this layer of the
Q Q. when directly comparing the satellite
R. measurements of temperature (a) P R S Q (b) Q R S P

S. atmoshphere should generally track the surface (c) S Q R P (d) R S Q P
temperature, we must be careful
(a) P R Q S (b) P S Q R Comprehension
(c) S Q R P (d) P Q R S
9. P. the element heats up, DIRECTIONS: In this section you have a short passage. After
Q. eventually reaching high temperatures the passage, you will find some items based on the passage.
First read the passage and then answer the items based on it.
R. glowing like a dark orange that radiates
You are required to select your answers based on the contents
S. the visible range,
of the passage and opinion of the author only. [NDA 2019-II]
(a) P Q R S (b) Q P S R
(c) S Q R P (d) P R S Q Studies serve for delight, for ornament, and for ability. Their
10. P. two people argue about why Venus is so much warmer chief use for delight, is in privateness and retiring; for ornament,
is in discourse; and for ability, is in the judgment, and disposi-
Q. to the Sun, so it absorbs more solar energy. The second
tion of business. For expert men can execute, and perhaps judge
argues
of particulars, one by one; but the general to counsels, and the
R. that it's because Venus has a think, greenhouse-gas
plots and marshalling of affairs, come best from those that are
rich atmosphere
learned. To spend too much time in studies is sloth; to use them
S. than the Earth. The first argues that it's because Venus too much for ornament, is affectation; to make judgment wholly
is closer by their rules, is the humor of a scholar. They perfect nature, and
(a) P S Q R (b) Q R P S are perfected by experience: for natural abilities are like natural
(c) S Q R P (d) P Q R S plants, that need pruning, by study; and studies themselves do
11. P. are now used by more than a thousand firms give forth directions too much at large, except they be bounded
Q. and are growing in popularity in by experience. Crafty men condemn studies, simple men ad-
R. in the United States and Europe mire them, and wise men use them; for they teach not their own
S. gain sharing-plans use; but that is a wisdom without them, and above them, won by
observation. Read not to contradict and confute; nor to believe
(a) P R Q S (b) Q R P S
and take for granted; nor to find talk and discourse; but to weight
(c) P R S Q (d) S P R Q and consider.
12. P. adversity without succumbing 1. According to the author, why should one study?
Q. to the clouds of doubt and jealousy (a) To gather information about the world
R. between friends which is subjected to both prosperity and (b) To pass the time in a creative way
S. the essay 'Of Friendship' by Francis Bacon celebrated (c) For pleasure, enhanced capability and holistic growth
the intimacy (d) To become only worldly wise
(a) P R Q S (b) Q R P S 2. Why does the author not recommend too much of stud-
(c) S R P Q (d) P Q R S ies?
13. P. friends without which the world is (a) Because it reflects idleness
(b) Because it requires too much money
Q. make friends and a person wills to want true
(c) Because it is dangerous for the health of the mind
R. it is miserable solitude that compels a person to (d) Because it makes men crafty
S. nothing other than a place of wilderness 3. According to the author, how can the studies be perfected?
(a) P R Q S (b) Q R P S (a) By reflection (b) By application
(c) R Q P S (d) P Q R S (c) By conversation (d) By experience
14. P. takes the longest Q. that never started 4. Which kind of human beings denounce studies?
R. the job S. to finish (a) Innocent (b) Cunning
(a) P R Q S (b) R Q P S (c) Stupid (d) Wise
(c) S Q R P (d) P Q R S 5. According to the author, one should read to
(a) only argue
15. P. to what you can create
(b) only believe
Q. control, shift your energy (c) evaluate and understand
R. intead of worrying about (d) preach and believe
S. what you cannot
EBD_7348
PART- B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

PHYSICS (a) depends on its initial velocity.
(b) is independent of its initial velocity.
Properties of Matter (c) increases linearly with time.
1. Two substances of densities r1 and r3 are mixed in equal. (d) depends on its initial displacement.
When they are mixed in equal masses, relative density is 5. A solid disc and a solid sphere have the same mass and
same radius. Which one has the higher moment of inertia
3. The values of r1 and r2 respectively are[NDA 2019-II]
about its centre of mass? [NDA 2019-II]
(a) 6, 2 (b) 3, 5
(a) The disc
(c) 12, 4 (d) 9, 3
(b) The sphere
2. A liquid is kept in a glass beaker. Which one of the (c) Both have the same moment of inertia
following statements is correct regarding the pressure (d) The information provided is not sufficient to answer
exerted by the liquid column at the base of the beaker ? the question
[NDA 2020-I] 6. A rigid body of mass 2 kg is dropped from a stationary
(a) The pressure depends on the area of the base of the beaker balloon kept at a height of 50 m from the ground. The
(b) The pressure depends on the height of liquid column speed of the body when it just touches the ground and
(c) The pressure does not depend on the density of the liquid the total energy when it is dropped from the balloon are
(d) The pressure neither depends on the area of the base respectively.
of the beaker nor on the height of liquid column (acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s2) [NDA 2019-II]
3. Which one of the following regarding density of water at (a) 980 m.s–1 and 980 J
atmospheric pressure is correct ? [NDA 2021-I] (b) –1
980 m.s and 980 J
(a) Density of water at 4°C is 1000 kg/m3.
(b) Density of water at 0°C is 1000 kg/m3. (c) 980 m.s–1 and 980 J
(c) Density of water at 0°C is 100 kg/m3. (d) –1
980 m.s and 980 J
(d) Density of water at 4°C is 10 kg/m3.
7. A car starts from Bengaluru, goes 50 km in a straight line
Mechanics towards south, immediately turns around and returns to
Bengaluru. The time taken for this round trip is 2 hours.
1. A thin disc and a thin ring, both have mass M and radius
The magnitude of the average velocity of the car for this
R. Both rotate about axes through their center of mass
round trip. [NDA 2019-II]
and are perpendicular to their surfaces at the same angular (a) is 0.
velocity. Which of the following is true? [NDA 2019-II] (b) is 50 km/hr.
(a) The ring has higher kinetic eneryg (c) is 25 km/hr.
(b) The disc has higher kinetic energy (d) cannot be calculated without knowing acceleration.
(c) The ring and the disc have the same kinetic energy 8. A student measures certain lengths using a meter scale
(d) Kinetic energies of both the bodies are zero since having least count equal to 1 mm. Which one of the
they are not in linear motion following measurements is more precise? [NDA 2019-II]
2. Let there be an object having some chemicals in it. It starts (a) 0.50 mm (b) 29.07 cm
moving with a uniform velocity v and a chemical reaction (c) 0.925 m (d) 910 mm
starts happening. In this case, which of the following 9. Two bodies of mass M each are placed R distance apart.
statement/s is/are correct? [NDA 2019-II] In another system, two bodies of mass 2M each are placed
1. Chemical reactions happening in the system cannot R/2 distance apart.
change the velocity v of the center of mass of the object. If F be the gravitational force between the bodies in the
2. Chemical reactions happening in the system cannot first system, then the gravitational force between the
change kinetic energy of the particles inside with bodies in the second system will be [NDA 2019-II]
respect to the center of mass of object (a) 16 F (b) 1 F
Select te correct answer using the code given below: (c) 4 F (d) None of the above
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 10. Which one of the following is NOT the unit of energy ?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [NDA 2020-I]
3. When a ball bounces off the ground, which of the (a) Joule (b) Watt-hr
following changes suddenly? [NDA 2019-II] (c) Newton-metre (d) kg-metre/sec2
(a) Its speed (b) Its momentum 11. Two planets orbit the Sun in circular orbits, with their radius
(c) Its kinetic energy (d) Its potential energy of orbit as R1 = R and R2 = 4R. Ratio of their periods
4. If an object moves at a non-zero constant acceleration for (T1/T2) around the Sun will be [NDA 2020-I]
a certain interval of time, then the distance it covers in (a) 1 / 16 (b) 1 / 8
(c) 1 / 4 (d) 1 / 2
that time [NDA 2019-II]
12. Consider the following statements about Light year : (a) 0° Celsius (b) – 073° Celsius
[NDA 2021-I] (c) – 173° Celsius (d) – 273° Celsius
1. Light year is a unit for measurement of very large 7. Numerically two thermometers, one in Fahrenheit scale
distances. and another in Celsius scale shall read same at
2. Light year is a unit for measurement of very large time [NDA 2021-I]
intervals. (a) – 40° (b) 0°
3. Light year is a unit for measurement of intensity of (c) – 273° (d) 100°
light.
Waves
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only 1. Compared to audible sound waves, ultrasound waves
(c) 1 and 2only (d) l only have [NDA 2019-II]
13. The statement “friction force is a contact force while (a) higher speed.
magnetic force is a non-contact force” is [NDA 2021-I] (b) higher frequency.
(a) always true. (c) longer wavelength.
(b) true only at 0°C. (d) Both higher speed and frequency.
(c) a false statement. 2. Which of the following are the characteristics of
(d) either true or false depending upon the temperature electromagnetic waves? [NDA 2019-II]
of the surroundings. 1. They are elastic waves.
2. They can also move in vacuum.
Heat & Thermodynamics 3. They have electric and magnetic components which
1. In which of the following phenomena do heat waves travel are mutually perpendicular.
along a straight line with the speed of light? 4. They move with a speed equal to 3 lakh meters per
[NDA 2019-II] second.
(a) Thermal conduction Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(b) Thermal convection (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) Thermal radiation (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
(d) Both thermal conduction and radiation 3. A pendulum clock is lifted to a height where the
2. The temperature of a place on one sunny day is 113 in gravitational acceleration has a certain value g. Another
Fahrenheit scale. The Kelvin scale reading of this pendulum clock of same length but of double the mass of
temperature will be [NDA 2019-II] the bob is lifted to another height where the gravitational
(a) 318 K (b) 45 K acceleration is g/2. The time period of the second
(c) 62.8 K (d) 335.8 K pendulum would be: (in terms of period T of the first
3. Radiations coming from the sun are mostly in the form of pendulum) [NDA 2019-II]
[NDA 2019-II]
1
(a) light only (a) 2 T (b) T
(b) light and long wavelength infrared 2
(c) light and short wavelength infrared (c) 2 2 T (d) T
(d) both short and long wavelength infrared
4. The loudness of sound depends upon the
4. If the work done on the system or by the system is zero,
[NDA 2019-II]
which one of the following statements for a gas kept at a
(a) velocity of sound waves in the medium.
certain temperature is correct? [NDA 2019-II]
(b) amplitude of the sound waves.
(a) Change in internal energy of the system is equal to
(c) frequency of the sound waves.
flow of heat in or out of the system.
(d) frequency and velocity of the sound waves.
(b) Change in internal energy of the system is less than
5. Which of the following statements is NOT correct
heat transferred.
regarding the travel of sound waves? [NDA 2020-I]
(c) Change in internal energy of the system is more than
(a) Sound waves can travel through water
the heat flow.
(b) Sound waves can travel through air
(d) Cannot be determined.
(c) Sound waves can travel through steel
5. 10 g of ice at –10°C is mixed with 10 g of water at 0°C. The
(d) Sound waves can travel through vacuum
amount of heat required to raise the temperature of mixture
6. Which one of the following statements about sound is
to 10°C is [NDA 2019-II]
NOT correct? [NDA 2020-I]
(a) 400 cal (b) 550 cal
(a) Sound travels at a speed slower than the speed of
(c) 1050 cal (d) 1200 cal
light
6. Which one of the following is the lowest possible
(b) Sound waves are transverse waves
temperature ? [NDA 2021-I]
(c) Sound waves are longitudinal waves
(d) Sound travels faster in moist air than in dry air
EBD_7348
7. The sound created in a big hall persists because of the 6. Name the scientist who first used a glass prism to obtain
repeated reflections. The phenomenon is called the spectrum of sunlight [NDA 2020-I]
[NDA 2021-I] (a) C. V. Raman (b) Lord Rayleigh
(a) Reverberation. (b) Dispersion. (c) Isaac Newton (d) S. Chandrasekhar
(c) Refraction. (d) Diffraction. 7. Light of uniform intensity impinges perpendicularly on a
8. Which one of the following cannot be the unit of frequency totally reflecting surface. If the area of the surface is halved,
of a sound wave ? [NDA 2021-I] the radiation force on it will become [NDA 2020-I]
(a) dB (b) s –1 (a) double (b) half
(c) Hz (d) min–1 (c) four times (d) one fourth
9. ‘Beats’ is a phenomenon that occurs when frequencies of 8. The Sun appears reddish during sunrise and sunset. The
two harmonic waves are [NDA 2021-I] phenomenon in optics which is responsible for this
(a) equal. appearance of the Sun is [NDA 2020-I]
(b) far apart. (a) Reflection (b) Total internal reflection
(c) multiples of each other. (c) Scattering (d) Interference
(d) nearly same. 9. A lens has a power of +2.0 Dioptre. Which one of the
following statements about the lens is true?[NDA 2020-I]
10. Which one of the following statements is true for a simple
(a) The lens is concave and has a focal length of 0.5 metre
harmonic oscillator ? [NDA 2021-I]
(b) The lens is convex and has a focal length of 2.0 metre
(a) Force acting is directly proportional to the displacement
(c) The lens is convex and has a focal length of 0.5 metre
from the mean position and is in same direction.
(d) The lens is concave and has a focal length of 2.0 metre
(b) Force acting is directly proportional to the displacement 10. The refractive index of fused quartz is 1.46 and that of
from the mean position and is in opposite direction. sapphire is 1.77. If vq is the speed of light in quartz and vs
(c) Acceleration of the oscillator is constant. is the speed of light in sapphire, then which one of the
(d) The velocity of the oscillator is not periodic. following relations is correct? [NDA 2020-I]
Optics vq
1. Which one of the following statements regarding lenses (a) vq > vs (b) vs > vq (c) vs = vq (d) vs =
2
is not correct? [NDA 2019-II] 11. In case of a concave mirror, if an object is kept between
(a) A convex lens produces both real and virtual images principal focus F and pole P of the mirror, then which one
(b) A concave lens produces both real and virtual images. of the following statements about the image is NOT
(c) A convex lens can produce images equal, greater correct? [NDA 2020-I]
and smaller than the size of the object. (a) The image will be virtual
(d) A concave lens always produces images smaller than (b) The image will be enlarged or magnified
the size of the object. (c) The image will be formed at infinity
2. Light rays move in straight lines. But through an optical (d) The image will be erect
fibre, they can move in any type of zigzag path because. 12. The image we see in plane mirror is [NDA 2021-I]
[NDA 2019-II] (a) real and thus can be photographed.
(a) the holes through the fibre are extremely fine. (b) virtual and nearer than the object.
(b) light rays are absorbed at the entry end and relieved (c) virtual and is laterally inverted.
at the exit end of the fibre. (d) real but cannot be photographed.
(c) scattering of light occurs inside the fibre. 13. Which one of the following colours may be obtained by
(d) successive total internal reflections occur as a ray combining green and red colours ? [NDA 2021-I]
moves through the fibre. (a) Blue (b) Magenta
3. The correct relation between the radius of curvature R and (c) Pink (d) Yellow
focal length f of a spherical mirror is [NDA 2020-I] 14. Which of the following are the primary colours of light ?
(a) R = f (b) R = 2 f [NDA 2021-I]
(c) R = 3 f (d) R = 4 f (a) Yellow, Red and Green
4. A lemon kept in water in a glass tumbler appears to be (b) Blue, Red and Green
(c) Violet, Red and Yellow
larger than its actual size. It is because of [NDA 2020-I]
(d) Indigo, Violet and Green
(a) reflection of light (b) scattering of light
15. According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, which
(c) refraction of light (d) polarization of light
one of the following is correct in respect of the formula
5. Light enters the eye through a thin mambrane called
(a) retina (b) cornea

[NDA 2020-I] 1
f
=1v +u1 , where symbols have their usual meanings ?
(c) pupil (d) iris [NDA 2021-I]
(a) It applies only to spherical mirrors. Electricity & Magnetism

(b) It applies only to spherical lenses.
1. Which one of the following statements regarding Ohm’s
(c) It applies to spherical mirrors as well as spherical
law is not correct? [NDA 2019-II]
lenses. (a) Ohm’s law is an assumption that current through a
(d) It is an invalid formula. conductor is always directly proportional to the
16. Which one of the following statements is not correct for potential difference applied to it.
light rays ? [NDA 2021-I] (b) A conducting device obeys Ohm’s law when the
(a) Light travels at different speeds in different media. resistance of a device is independent of magnitude
(b) Light travels at almost 300 million metres per second and polarity of applied potential difference.
in air. (c) A conducting material obeys Ohm’s law when the
(c) Light speeds down as it leaves a water surface and resistance of material is independent of the magnitude
enters the air. and direction of applied electric field
(d) Light speeds up as it leaves a glass surface and enters (d) All homogeneous materials obey Ohm’s law
irrespective of whether the field is within range or
the air.
strong
17. A glass prism splits white light into different colours. This
2. “The sum of emf’s and potential differences around a
phenomenon is called dispersion of light by prism. Which closed loop equals zero” is a consequence of
one of the following statements is correct? [NDA 2021-I] [NDA 2019-II]
(a) Red light will deviate the most and it is because of the (a) Ohm’s law.
reflection of light. (b) Conservation of charge.
(b) Violet light will deviate the most and it is because of (c) Conservation of momentum.
the refraction of light. (d) Conservation of energy.
(c) Red light will deviate the most and it is because of the 3. Consider the following part of an electric circuit:
refraction of light. The total electrical resistance in the given part of the
(d) Violet light will deviate the most and it is because of electric circuit is [NDA 2019-II]
the reflection of light.
18. When light is scattered by a molecule and the frequency
of the scattered light is changed, this phenomenon is called
2W
[NDA 2021-I]
4W 1 W
(a) Rayleigh scattering. (b) Raman effect.
8W
(c) Photoelectric effect. (d) Rutherford scattering.
19. Twinkling of stars is due to
(a) particular frequencies of the starlight.
(b) reflection of starlight from the oceanic surface. 15 15
(c) atmospheric refraction of starlight. (a) ohm (b) ohm
8 7
(d) magnetic field of Earth.
20. Light waves are incident on an air-glass boundary. Some 17
(c) 15 ohm (d) ohm
of the light waves are reflected and some are refracted in 3
the glass. Which one of the following properties is the 4. Water is heated with a coil of resistance R connected to
same for the incident wave and the refracted wave ? domestic supply. The rise of temperature of water will
[NDA 2021-I] depend on [NDA 2019-II]
1. Supply voltage
(a) Speed (b) Direction
2. Current passing through the coil.
(c) Brightness (d) Frequency
3. Time for which voltage is supplied.
21. If a ray of light enters from a rarer medium to a denser Select the correct answer from among the following:
medium at zero angle of incidence, it would [NDA 2021-I] (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) reflect back. (b) go straight. (c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(c) turn towards right. (d) bend at 45°. 5. Which one of the following statements regarding magnetic
22. Mirage is an illustration of [NDA 2021-I] field is NOT correct? [NDA 2020-I]
(a) only dispersion of light. (a) Magnetic field is a quantity that has direction and
(b) only reflection of light. magnitude
(c) only total internal reflection of light. (b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves
(d) both refraction and total internal reflection of light. (c) Magnetic field lines are open curves
(d) No two magnetic field lines are found to cross each other
EBD_7348
6. Consider the following image : [NDA 2020-I] 13. Which one of the following formulas does not represent
electrical power ? [NDA 2021-I]
Proton (a) I2R (b) IR2
(c) VI (d) V2/R
Magnetic field
Modern Physics
1. Which one of the following statements regarding cathode
A proton enters a magnetic field at right angles to it, as rays is not correct? [NDA 2019-II]
shown above. The direction of force acting on the proton (a) Cathode ray particles are electrons.
will be (b) Cathode ray particles start from anode and move
(a) to the right (b) to the left towards cathode.
(c) out of the page (d) into the page (c) In the absence of electrical and magnetic fields,
7. The cost of energy to operate an industrial refrigerator cathode rays travel in straight lines.
that consumes 5 kW power working 10 hours per day for (d) Television picture tubes are cathode ray tubes.
30 days will be 2. Which one of the following types of radiations has the
(Given that the charge per kW.h of energy = ` 4) smallest wavelength? [NDA 2020-I]
[NDA 2020-I] (a) Microwaves (b) Infra-red
(a) ` 600 (b) ` 6,000 (c) Visible light (d) X-rays
(c) ` 1,200 (d) ` 1,500 3. LED (a semi-conductor device) is an abbreviation that
8. Two equal resistors R are connected in parallel, and a stands for [NDA 2021-I]
battery of 12 V is connected across this combination. A dc (a) Licence for Energy Detector.
current of 100 mA flows through the circuit as shown below: (b) Light Energy Device.
(c) Light Emitting Diode.
R (d) Lost Energy Detector.
CHEMISTRY
100 mA R
Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Atomic Structure
1. Which one of the following compounds does not exhibit
12 V a different oxidation number of the same element?
[NDA 2019-II]
The value of R is [NDA 2020-I]
(a) Pb3O4 (b) Fe3O4
(a) 120 W (b) 240 W
(c) Fe2O3 (d) Mn3O4
(c) 60 W (d) 100 W
2. Which one of the following statements is correct?
9. A metallic wire having resistance of 20 W is cut into two
[NDA 2019-II]
equal parts in length. These parts are then connected in
(a) Both boiling and evaporation are surface phenomen.
parallel. The resistance of this parallel combination is equal
(b) Boiling is a surface phenomenon, but evaporation is
to [NDA 2020-I]
a bulk phenomenon.
(a) 20 W (b) 10 W
(c) Both boiling and evaporation are bulk phenomena.
(c) 5 W (d) 15 W
(d) Boiling is a bulk phenomenon, but evaporation is a
10. When the short circuit condition occurs, the current in the
surface phenomenon.
circuit [NDA 2020-I]
3. Which one of the following substances is not a mixture?
(a) becomes zero
[NDA 2019-II]
(b) remains constant
(a) Tin (b) Sea water
(c) increases substantially
(c) Soil (d) Air
(d) keeps on changing randomly
4. Net movement of water from a dilute to a concentrated
11. The instrument used for detecting the presence of electric
solution through a selectively permeable membrane is
current in a circuit is [NDA 2020-I]
called [NDA 2019-II]
(a) Refractometer (b) Galvanometer
(a) Diffusion (b) Dispersion
(c) Viscometer (d) Diffractometer
(c) Osmosis (d) Absorption
12. A current of 1.0 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb
5. Which one of the following is not a monatomic element?
for 10 minutes. The amount of electric charge that flows
[NDA 2019-II]
through the circuit is [NDA 2021-I]
(a) Copper (b) Helium
(a) 0.1 C (b) 10 C
(c) Iodine (d) Barium
(c) 600 C (d) 800 C
6. Which one of the following is the major constituent of Carbon and Different forms, Carbon Dioxide
biogas? [NDA 2019-II]
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Nitrous oxide 1. Which one of the following statements about diamond
(c) Methane (d) Oxygen and graphite is not correct? [NDA 2019-II]
7. The number of maximum electrons in N Shell is (a) Diamond has tetrahedral structure, whereas graphite
[NDA 2020-I] has a hexagonal planar structure.
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 18 (d) 32 (b) Both physical and chemical properties of diamond
8. Which one of the following is the most fundamental and graphite are different.
characteristic of an element? [NDA 2020-I]
(c) Graphite is soft but diamond is hard.
(a) Melting point (b) Atomic number
(d) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity while
(c) Colour (d) Atomic weight
9. Neutrons were discovered by [NDA 2020-I] diamond is not.
(a) James Chadwick 2. Which one of the following is termed as ‘Dry ice’?
(b) Ernest Rutherford [NDA 2019-II]
(c) J. J. Thomson (a) Ice present in ice-cream
(d) John Dalton (b) Solid water at Antarctica
10. Atomic mass of an element is equal to the sum of number of (c) Solid state of carbon dioxide
[NDA 2020-I] (d) Solid water of ionosphere
(a) electrons and protons only 3. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(b) protons and neutrons only [NDA 2020-I]
(c) electrons and neutrons only (a) Buckminsterfullerene is an allotrope of carbon
(d) electrons, protons and neutrons
(b) Diamond is a good conductor of electricity
11. Which one of the following element’s isotope is used in
(c) Graphite is a good conductor of electircity
the treatment of cancer? [NDA 2020-I]
(a) Uranium (b) Cobalt (d) In graphite, each carbon atom is linked to three other
(c) Sodium (d) Iodine carbon atoms
12. Which one of the following is the best example of 4. How many covalent bonds are present in a Chloropropane
desiccant? [NDA 2020-I] molecule having molecular formula, C3H7Cl?
(a) Silica gel (b) Polystyrene [NDA 2020-I]
(c) Sodium chloride (d) Sodium carbonate (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10
13. Which one of the following was the first mineral acid 5. Which one of the following is the largest composition in
discovered? [NDA 2020-I] biogas ? [NDA 2020-I]
(a) Sulphuric acid (b) Hydrochloric acid (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane
(c) Nitric acid (d) Phosphoric ácid (c) Hydrogen (d) Hydrogen sulphide
14. Which of the following pairs of physical phenomenon and
6. Which one of the following statements about the cleansing
the discoverer is/are correctly matched ? [NDA 2021-I]
action of soap is not true ? [NDA 2021-I]
1. James Chadwick : Photoelectric effect
2. Albert Einstein : Neutron (a) The oil and dirt gets collected in the centre of the
3. Marie Curie : Radium micelle.
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (b) Soap micelles scatter light.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) l and 2 only (c) Soaps are ammonium salts of long chain carboxylic
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only acids.
15. The composition of gases in exosphere is [NDA 2021-I] (d) Soap forms insoluble precipitates with the calcium and
(a) Helium and Hydrogen. magnesium ions in hard water.
(b) Neon and Oxygen. 7. Hydrogenation of vegetable oils using nickel catalyst is
(c) Neon and Hydrogen. an example of [NDA 2021-I]
(d) Helium and Neon. (a) Substitution reaction.
16. Which one of the following conclusions could not be
(b) Elimination reaction.
derived from Rutherford’s a-particle scattering experiment?
(c) Addition reaction.
[NDA 2021-I]
(a) Most of the space in the atom is empty. (d) Free-radical polymerization.
(b) The radius of the atom is about 105 times the radius of 8. Which one of the following materials is not an allotrope of
the nucleus. carbon ? [NDA 2021-I]
(c) Electrons move in a circular path of fixed energy called (a) Diamond (b) Graphene
orbits. (c) Fly ash (d) Fullerene
(d) Nearly all the mass of the atom resides in the nucleus.
EBD_7348
Chemistry of Metal and Non-metals (H2, O2 and N2) (c) Lime, silica and alumina
(d) Lime, silica and boric acid
1. A very large volume of hydrogen can be accommodated 3. A sample of ‘soft soap’ contains [NDA 2019-II]
by making [NDA 2019-II] (a) Caesium (b) Potassium
(a) non-metallic hydrides. (c) Calcium (d) Magnesium
(b) hydrogen peroxide. 4. Soaps clean surfaces on the principle based on
(c) non-stoichiometric hydrides. [NDA 2019-II]
(d) alkali metal hydrides. (a) Viscosity
2. Which one of the following represents the correct order (b) Floatation
of electron releasing tendency of metals? [NDA 2019-II] (c) Elasticity
(a) Zn > Cu > Ag (d) Surface tension
(b) Ag > Cu > Zn 5. Number of molecules of water of crystallization in copper
(c) Cu > Zn > Ag sulphate, sodium carbonate and Gypsum are
(d) Cu > Ag > Zn [NDA 2020-I]
3. In electrolytic refining of copper, the electrolyte is a solution (a) 5, 10 and 2 respectively
of [NDA 2021-I] (b) 10, 2 and 5 respectively
(a) acidified copper chloride. (c) 5, 2 and 10 respectively
(b) acidified copper sulphate. (d) 2, 5 and 10 respectively
(c) potassium chloride. 6. Which one of the following statements regarding
(d) sodium sulphate. Bleaching powder and D.D.T. is correct ? [NDA 2020-I]
4. Solder is an alloy of [NDA 2021-I] (a) Both are inorganic compounds
(a) Cu and Sn. (b) Fe and Zn. (b) Both are organic compounds
(c) Pb and Sn. (d) Ag and Zn. (c) Both contain chlorine
5. Which one of the following statements about dihydrogen (d) Both contain calcium
(H2) is not correct ? [NDA 2021-I] 7. Which one of the following is not used as a raw material in
(a) H2 is lighter than air and insoluble in water. the manufacture of glass ? [NDA 2021-I]
(b) H2 is inert at room temperature due to high H — H (a) Soda (b) Alumina
bond dissociation enthalpy. (c) Borax (d) Gypsum
(c) H2 reacts with alkali metals at high temperature to yield 8. Common salt (NaCl) is not used as a raw material for
metal hydrides. preparation of which one of the following compounds ?
(d) A mixture of NO2 and H2 is known as Syngas. [NDA 2021-I]
6. Which of the following sets of elements has the same (a) Bleaching powder (b) Baking soda
valency ? [NDA 2021-I] (c) Plaster of Paris (d) Washing soda
(a) Na, Mg, Ca
(b) Na, Mg, Al Acids, Bases and Salts, Oxidation and Reduction
(c) Mg, Ca, K 1. Which one of the following does not represent tha salt,
(d) Mg, Ca, Ba Calcium carbonate? [NDA 2019-II]
7. Which one of the following reactions does not result in (a) Lime water (b) Limestone
the evolution of hydrogen gas ? [NDA 2021-I] (c) Chalk (d) Marble
(a) Reaction of zinc metal with dilute sulphuric acid 2. Vinegar is also known as [NDA 2020-I]
solution (a) ethanoic acid (b) nitric acid
(b) Mixing water to Plaster of Paris (c) sulphuric acid (d) tartaric acid
(c) Heating zinc metal with sodium hydroxide solution 3. At nearly 70°C, sodium bicarbonate shows the property
(d) Reaction of potassium metal with water of gradually decomposing, which makes it usable in bakery
products. The product of decomposition responsible for
Some Important Chemical Compounds
this use of sodium bicarbonate is [NDA 2020-I]
1. Which one of the following statements about glass is not (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Hydrogen
correct? [NDA 2019-II] (c) Water vapour (d) Oxygen
(a) Glass is often said to be a supercooled liquid. 4. Which one of the following ís the correct sequence of
(b) Glass has no definite melting point. change in colours when a turmeric stain on white clothes
(c) Soda glass is harder than pyrex glass. is scrubbed by soap and then washed with water ?
(d) Boron is present in pyrex glass. [NDA 2020-I]
2. The raw materials used for the manufacture of Portland (a) Yellow - pink - blue
cement are [NDA 2019-II] (b) Yellow - reddish brown- yellow
(a) Lime, silica and sulphur dioxide (c) Yellow- reddish brown - blue
(b) Lime, silica and carbon dioxide (d) Yellow - blue - pink
5. Which one of the following is the chemical formula of (a) Style, Stigma, Ovary (b) Stigma, Style, Ovary
Hypobromous acid ? [NDA 2021-I] (c) Pistil, Stigma, Ovary (d) Ovary, Pistil, Style
(a) HBrO4 (b) HOBr 7. The major source of vitamins and minerals for vegetarians
(c) HBr (d) HBrO3 is [NDA 2021-I]
6. Which one of the following acids is predominantly found (a) black gram and wheat. (b) rice and mustard.
in tomatoes ? [NDA 2021-I] (c) vegetables and fruits. (d) soya bean and milk.
(a) Acetic acid (b) Tartaric acid Zoology
(c) Oxalic acid (d) Lactic acid
7. Reaction of quick lime (CaO) with water to produce slaked 1. Blood is a type of [NDA 2019-II]
lime (Ca(OH)2) is an example of [NDA 2021-I] (a) Epithelial tissue (b) Muscular tissue
(c) Nervous tissue (d) Connective tissue
(a) Displacement reaction.
2. Mitochondria are able to produce their own
(b) Endothermic reaction.
[NDA 2019-II]
(c) Decomposition reaction. (a) Nucleus (b) Proteins
(d) Exothermic reaction. (c) Chloroplastes (d) Digestive enzymes
BIOLOGY 3. Which one of the following statements is correct?
[NDA 2019-II]
(a) Xylem consists of tracheids, vessels, xylem
Botany
parenchyma and xylem fibres.
1. Which one of the following terms describes the practice (b) Flexibility in plants is due to selerenchyma.
of growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same (c) Parenchyma have no intercellular spaces.
piece of land? [NDA 2020-I] (d) Xylem consists of sieve plate sieve tube and
(a) Crop rotation (b) Mixed cropping companion cells.
(c) Intercropping (d) Mixed farming 4. Who among the following popularized the use of
2. Transformation of meristematic cells into specific embryological characters in taxonomy? [NDA 2019-II]
permanent tissues occurs by the process of [NDA 2021-I] (a) Carl Linnaeus
(a) Cell differentiation. (b) Cell division. (b) Panchanan Maheshwari
(c) Cell multiplication. (d) Cell regeneration. (c) Birbal Sahni
3. The gaseous product of a process in plants is a requirement (d) Bentham and Hooker
for another vital process that releases energy. Given below 5. Thyroid gland produces a hormone called “Thyroxine”
are four combinations of the process and product. which [NDA 2019-II]
Identify the correct answer. [NDA 2021-I] (a) controls blood glucose levels.
(a) Respiration and Nitric oxide (b) controls ovulation.
(c) controls metabolic rate.
(b) Transpiration and Water vapour
(d) maintains pregnancy.
(c) Photosynthesis and Oxygen
6. Which one the following is a bacterium that causes
(d) Germination and Carbon dioxide
diseases in the human body? [NDA 2019-II]
4. In a dicot pot herb, vaseline/vegetable oil was applied on (a) Varicella zoster
the upper surface of one leaf (Experimental leaf 1) and on (b) Trypanosoma gambiense
the lower surface of another leaf (Experimental leaf 2). (c) Salmonella typhi
Vaseline/Vegetable oil was not applied on the control leaf. (d) Plasmodium falciporum
The plant was deliberately not watered for several days. 7. Which one of the following statements regarding viruses
Which leaf will dry up last ? [NDA 2021-I] is not true? [NDA 2019-II]
(a) Experimental leaf 1 (a) Viruses need living cells to reproduce.
(b) Experimental leaf 2 (b) All viruses are parasites.
(c) Control leaf (c) Viruses can synthesize their food through
(d) All the leaves will dry up simultaneously photosynthesis.
5. During seed germination, the part of the embryo which (d) Viruses are similar to chemical substances outside
grows into root is [NDA 2021-I] the host.
(a) Radicle. (b) Plumule. 8. Which one of the following diseases may be caused by
(c) Cotyledon. (d) Epicotyl. the deficiency of vitamin C? [NDA 2019-II]
6. In a typical flower, germinating pollen grains pass through (a) Rickets (b) Rabies
several parts of the gynoecium before they reach the ovule. (c) Hepatitis (d) Securvy
A list of the parts of gynoecium is given below in different 9. Which one of the following cell organelles may play a role
combinations. Choose the combination that represents the in expelling excess water and wastes in case of unicellular
correct sequence of pollen tube pathway/journey : organisms? [NDA 2020-I]
[NDA 2021-I] (a) Lysosome (b) Vacuole
(c) Golgi body (d) Endoplasmic reticulum
EBD_7348
10. Which one of the following statements is correct about HISTORY

effects of antibiotics on viruses? [NDA 2020-I]
(a) Viruses are “non-living” entities but it can interact Ancient India
with antibiotics
1. The ruins of Vijayanagar a (Hampi) were brought to public
(b) Taking antibiotics cures viral infections
light in the year 1800 by the following British surveyor
(c) Viruses do not possess metabolic pathways on which
and engineer; [NDA 2019-II]
antibiotics can function, whereas bacteria have such
(a) James Prinsep (b) Colin Mackenzie
pathways
(c) James Rennell (d) Charles Metcalfe
(d) Viruses are resistant to antibiotics
2. Which one of the following Harappan sites was a
11. In prokaryotic organisms, nuclear region is not surrounded
specialised centre for making shell objects? [NDA 2021-I]
by a membrane. This undefined nuclear region is known
(a) Lothal (b) Balakot
as [NDA 2020-I]
(c) Amri . (d) Kot Diji
(a) Nucleic acid (b) Nucleoid
3. Which one of the following was not a part of the dhamma
(c) Nucleolus (d) Nucleosome
of King Ashoka ? [NDA 2021-I]
12. Which one of the following plant tissues has dead cells?
(a) Honouring the king
[NDA 2020-I]
(b) Tolerance of religions other than one’s own
(a) Epidermis (b) Parenchyma
(c) Respecting Brahmanas
(c) Collenchyma (d) Sclerenchyma
(d) Promoting the welfare of his subjects
13. Cartilage is NOT found in [NDA 2020-I]
4. At which one of the following places was a Shiva temple
(a) larynx (b) nose
not constructed under the patronage of the Chola rulers ?
(c) ear (d) urinary bladder
[NDA 2021-I]
14. The part of the human eye on which the image is formed is
(a) Chidambaram
[NDA 2020-I]
(b) Thanjavur
(a) pupil (b) cornea
(c) Gangaikonda Cholapuram
(c) retina (d) iris
(d) Naneghat
15. Which one of the following is NOT a component of human
male reproductive system ? [NDA 2020-I] Medieval India
(a) Cervix (b) Urethra 1. Which one of the following pairs of travellers and their
(c) Seminal vesicle (d) Vas deferens nationality is not correctly matched? [NDA 2019-II]
16. Movement of materials to different parts of cytoplasm and (a) Ibn Battuta - Moroccan
nucleus is generally carried out by [NDA 2021-I] (b) Duarte Barbosa - Portuguese
(a) Ribosomes. (b) Mitochondria. (c) Jean Baptiste Tavernier - Dutch
(c) Lysosomes. (d) Endoplasmic reticulum. (d) Niccolao Manucci - Venetian
17. In mitochondria, ATP synthesizing chemical reactions take 2. Which of the following statements about Saguna bhakti
place in the [NDA 2021-I] traditions is/are correct ? [NDA 2021-I]
(a) Outer membrane. (b) Matrix. 1. Saguna bhakti traditions focus on the worship of
(c) Inner membrane. (d) DNA of mitochondria. specific deities such as Vishnu or his avatars.
18. Squamous epithelial cells are found in the inner lining of 2. In Saguna bhakti traditions, Gods and Goddesses are
[NDA 2021-I] conceptualised in anthropomorphic forms.
(a) Oesophagus. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(b) Small intestine. (a) l only (b) 2 only
(c) Ducts of salivary gland. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Kidney. 3. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of
19. Which one of the following is not a bio-mass energy ziyarat ? [NDA 2021-I]
source? [NDA 2021-I] (a) Pilgrimage to the tombs of sufi saints
(a) Wood (b) Nuclear reactor (b) The practice of revenue farming
(c) Gobar gas (d) Coal (c) The death anniversary of a sufi shaikh
20. If human blood is placed in a 2% detergent solution, what (d) A form of Islamic divorce
will happen to the RBC ? [NDA 2021-I] 4. Which one of the following statements about the Ain-i-
(a) The RBC will shrink. Akbari is not correct ? [NDA 2021-I]
(b) The RBC will swell and become turgid. (a) It was written by Abu’l Fazl
(c) The RBC will swell and burst. (b) It is a part of a larger work called Akbar Nama.
(d) The RBC will lyse. (c) It describes the Mughal Empire as having a diverse
population and a composite culture.
(d) It was later revised by Sadullah Khan on the orders of
Shah Jahan.
Modern India (c) Under this system, land revenue was fixed for the peasant
(d) The ijaradar paid a fixed amount to the State treasury
1. The Munda language group belongs to which family? 9. During the Swadeshi movement, a National College was
[NDA 2019-II] started in Calcutta under the principalship of
(a) Austric (b) Dravidian [NDA 2019-II]
(c) Sino-Tibetan (d) Indo-European (a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Aurobindo Ghosh
2. Who among the following was the first Indian to qualify (c) Rajani Kant Sen (d) Syed Abu Mohammad
for the Indian Civil Service? [NDA 2019-II] 10. In the year 1928, a committee of Congress leaders drafted
(a) Satyenderanath Tagore a Constitution for India. The Committee was headed by
(b) Surendranath Banerjee [NDA 2020-I]
(c) R.C. Dutt (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) T. B. Sapru
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose (c) Motilal Nehru (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Who among the following died in exile? [NDA 2019-II] 11. Which one of the following statements about Jaipal Singh
(a) Rani Laxmibai (b) Bahadur Shah Zafar is NOT correct? [NDA 2020-I]
(c) Tantia Tope (d) Nana Saheb (a) He was a member of the Constituent Assembly
4. Which among the following struggles, based an Gandhi’s (b) He founded the Adivasi Maha Sabha
philosophy of Satyagraha, involved the industrial working (c) He was the captain of the first Indian national hockey
class? [NDA 2019-II] team
(a) Champaran (b) Kheda (d) He campaigned for a separate state of Chhattisgarh
(c) Ahmedabad (d) Bardoli 12. Where did Gandhiji initially forge the techniques of
5. Consider the following statements related to the Virashaiva Satyagraha? [NDA 2020-I]
tradition in Karnataka : [NDA 2019-II] (a) England (b) South Africa
1. The Virashaiva movement was led by a Brahmana (c) North Africa (d) India
named Basavnna, a minister in the court of the 13. Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of Gandhiji’s
Kalachuri ruler in the twelfth century. Dandi march? [NDA 2020-I]
2. The Virashaivas encouraged practices, approved by (a) Lord Irwin (b) Lord Linlithgow
the Dharamashastras, like post-puberty marriages (c) Lord Reading (d) Lord Willingdon
and remarrige of widows. 14. What was the consequence of Permanent Settlement on
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct? rural society in Bengal? [NDA 2020-I]
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) The zamindars invested capital and enterprise to
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 improve agriculture along lines of British yeoman
6. Consider the following statements related to Wellesley’s farmers
administration: [NDA 2019-II] (b) A group of rich peasants known as jotedars succeeded
1. In the six years of Wellesley’s administration, the in consolidating their position in the villages
army accounted for 42.5 percent of the Company’s (c) The ryots prospered as a result of fixed revenue levy
total expenditure. imposed on them
2. Wellesley’s administrative measures were restricted (d) The system of Collectorate introduced by the Company
to the affairs of the company and had nothing to do for exercising supervisory control on zamindars failed
with the commercial and military affairs of the Indian to take off
ruling families. 15. What was Damin-i Koh in Rajmahal area? [NDA 2020-I]
Which of the statement’s given above is/are correct? (a) A large area of land demarcated and declared to be the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only land of the Santhals
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) The land of the Paharias cultivated exclusively for
7. Consider the following statements related to Dayanand’s paddy
idea of social reform: [NDA 2019-II] (c) The British territory marked for their military camp
1. Dayanand’s reform envisaged a social order, where (d) The land earmarked for locating settled agriculturists
different castes performed functions suitable to their 16. Which one of the following statements about the Revolt
status determined by merit. of 1857 is correct? [NDA 2020-I]
2. Dayanand’s robust vedic counterpart challenged the (a) It was a Revolt carefully organised and planned by
masculine west that had enslaved the Aryavarta. the Rajas, Nawabs and Taluqdars
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct? (b) Rumours and prophecies did not play any role in its
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only outbreak and spread
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) The rebel proclamations in 1857 repeatedly appealed
8. Which one of the following statements is not true about to all sections of the population irrespective of their
Ijarah system? [NDA 2019-II] caste and creed.
(a) It was a system of revenue farming (d) The British succeeded in quickly and easily
(b) It encouraged the role of middlemen controlling the rebels
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17. Who among the following had organised, in 1904, a secret World History
society of revolutionaries named Abhinav Bharat?
[NDA 2020-I] 1. Which of the following was/were among the decisions
(a) Khudiram Bose (b) Shyamji Krishna Verma taken by the First Continental Congress held in
(c) Har Dayal (d) V D Savarkar Philadelphia in September 1774? [NDA 2019-II]
18. The principle that the framing of the new Constitution for 1. It rejected a plan for a colonial union under the British
independent India should be primarily (though not solely) authority.
the responsibility of Indians themselves, was for the first 2. It drew up a statement of grievances.
time conceded in the [NDA 2020-I] 3. It agreed upon a scheme to stop trade between the
(a) Government of India Act, 1935 colonies and England.
(b) August Offer of Viceroy Linlithgow Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(c) Cripps Proposals (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) Cabinet Mission (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
19. Which of the following statements about the Deccan Riots 2. Which among the following statement is not correct about
Commission is/are correct ? [NDA 2021-I] the Reign of Terror? [NDA 2019-II]
1. The Commission did not hold enquiries in the districts (a) The Jacobins dashed out the Girondists with the
which were not affected. help of sans-culottes.
2. The Commission did record the statements of ryots, (b) The jacobins were in league with the French clergy
sahukars and eye-witnesses. (c) The arrest for anti-revolutionary activities was by
Select the correct answer using the code given below : law restricted to the political class.
(a) l only (b) 2 only (d) The Reign of Terror came to an end with the execution
(c) Both1and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 of Robespierre by guillotine in July 1794.
20. Who among the following was considered to be the 3. Which among the following was/were among the factors
preceptor of Mirabai ? [NDA 2021-I] for England to experience the Industrial Revolution first?
(a) Dadu (b) Raidas [NDA 2019-II]
(c) Ramanand (d) Surdas 1. The scientific inventions had paved the way for
21. Swami Dayanand Saraswati . [NDA 2021-I] Industrial Revolution
1. was opposed to the worship of idols of Gods and 2. It had favourable social and politcial structures in place.
Goddesses. 3. Naviganble rivers had made inland transport easier.
2. regarded the Vedas as infallible. 4. It has seen the ascendancy of capitalist practices.
3. had met and had discussions with Ishwar Chandra Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Vidyasagar. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above are correct ? (c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only 4. Consider the following statements concerning the Russian
(c) l and 3 only (d) l and 2 only Revolution : [NDA 2019-II]
22. Consider the following statements : [NDA 2021-I] 1. The Bolsheviks believed that in a repressive society
1. Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College was founded like Tsarist Russia, the party should be disciplined
at Aligarh by Sayyid Ahmad Khan. and should control the number of its members.
2. Sayyid Ahmad Khan was a great believer in religious 2. The Mensheviks believed that the party should be
toleration, and Hindus, Parsis and Christians had opened to all (as in Germany).
contributed to the funds of his college. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) l only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. Consider the following statements concerning the
23. Where and when did Mahatma Gandhi make his first public American War of Independence: [NDA 2019-II]
appearance in India on coming back from South Africa 1. The Americans raised the slogan, ‘No taxation
after two decades ? [NDA 2021-I] without representation’.
(a) Champaran in 1917 2. The American merchants resorted to the boycott of
(b) Lucknow in 1916 the British products.
(c) Banaras Hindu University in 1916 Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(d) Ahmedabad in 1918 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
24. When and where was the demand for “Purna Swaraj” or (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
complete independence made by the Indian National 6. Which country among the following was not a part of the
Congress ? [NDA 2021-I] Third Coalition against Napoleon? [NDA 2019-II]
(a) Bombay, 1885 (b) Lahore, 1929 (a) Russia (b) Prussia
(c) Kheda, 1917 (d) Bombay, 1942 (c) Sweden (d) France
7. Which one of the following American newsmagazines was 8. The rivers of North-West Europe are good examples of
highly sceptical of Gandhiji’s Dandi march initially but [NDA 2019-II]
within a week completely changed its opinion and saluted (a) parallel pattern of drainage.
him as a Saint and Statesman? [NDA 2020-I] (b) radial pattern of drainage.
(a) Saturday Evening Post (b) Readers Digest (c) barbed pattern of drainag®e.
(c) Time (d) Life (d) trellis pattern of drainage.
8. In which of the following years were passengers trains 9. Which one of the following ocean currents is a cold
introduced in England? [NDA 2020-I] current? [NDA 2019-II]
(a) 1823 (b) 1825 (a) South Atlantic Drift
(c) 1848 (d) 1861 (b) Mozambique Current
9. At which of the following was the American Declaration (c) East Australian Current
of Independence adopted on 4 July, 1776 ? (d) Caribbean Current.
[NDA 2021-I] 10. Which one of the following hypothesis/theory explains
(a) Washington Conference the origin of the universe? [NDA 2019-II]
(b) San Francisco Conference (a) Nebular hypothesis
(c) Second Continental Congress (b) Binary theory
(d) First Continental Congress (c) Big Band theory
10. Who among the following was the head of the (d) Planetesimal hypothesis
Government that was overthrown by the Bolsheviks in 11. Lithosphere consists of [NDA 2019-II]
the 1917 Revolution ? [NDA 2021-I] (a) upper and lower mantle.
(a) Alexander Kerensky (b) Prince Lvov (b) crust and core.
(c) Grand Duke Sergei (d) Tsar Nicholas II (c) crust and uppermost solid mantle.
(d) mantle and core.
GEOGRAPHY 12. Chalk and marble are different forms of [NDA 2020-I]
(a) Calcium hydrogen carbonate
World & Physical Geography (b) Calcium carbonate
1. Which one of the following land territories of Indonesia (c) Calcium acetate
is not touched by the Equator? [NDA 2019-II] (d) Sodium carbonate
(a) Sumatra (b) Sulawesi 13. Dry land farming in India is largely confined to areas with
(c) Java (d) Kalimantan rainfall less than [NDA 2020-I]
2. Which one of the following sedimentary rocks is (a) 100 cm (b) 85 cm
organically formed? [NDA 2019-II] (c) 80 cm (d) 75 cm
(a) Shale (b) Chert 14. For an area to be excluded from the drought-prone
(c) Halite (d) Chalk category, what percentage of its gross cropped area should
3. In which one of the following folds is the axial plane found be under irrigation ? [NDA 2020-I]
to be virtually horizontal? [NDA 2019-II] (a) 10 per cent or more (b) 20 per cent or more
(a) Isoclinal (b) Anticlinal (c) 25 per cent or more (d) 30 per cent or more
(c) Recumbent (d) Monoclinal 15. Which one of the following is NOT a current of Pacific
4. The normal lapse rate of temperature of Earth’s atmosphere Ocean? [NDA 2020-I]
drops to 0°C at the [NDA 2019-II] (a) Oyashio current (b) Alaska current
(a) upper part of ionosphere. (c) Agulhas current (d) California current
(b) upper boundary of the tropopause. 16. Which one of the following is the natural vegetation of
(c) lower part of mesosphere. South east China? [NDA 2020-I]
(d) upper boundary of stratopause. (a) Subtropical broadleaf evergreen forest
5. Stalactite, stalagmite and pillars are the depositional (b) Tropical broadleaf evergreen forest
landforms of [NDA 2019-II] (c) Tropical deciduous forest
(a) running water. (b) wind. (d) Temperate evergreen forest
(c) glacier. (d) underground water. 17. Which one of the following is a cold local wind?
6. A deep valley characterized by steep step-like slope is [NDA 2020-I]
known as [NDA 2019-II] (a) Santa Ana (b) Chinook
(a) U-shaped valley. (b) Blind valley. (c) Mistral (d) Loo
(c) Gorge. (d) Canyon. 18. Which one of the following is a major environmental issue
7. Which one of the following is a major plate? in easterm Canada? [NDA 2020-I]
[NDA 2019-II] (a) Acid precipitation (b) Groundwater depletion
(a) Pacific plate (b) Cocos plate (c) Land degradation (d) Desertification
(c) Arabian plate (d) Philippine plate
EBD_7348
19. Which one of the following mountains lies in between 1. It was the name of a giant box of sweets distributed at
Caspian Sea and Black Sea ? [NDA 2020-I] the Mahanavami festival.
(a) Caucasus (b) Carpathians 2. It was the name of a massive platform with a base
(c) Apennine (d) Elburz covered with relief carvings.
20. Which of the following statements with regard to Biosphere Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Reserve is/are correct? [NDA 2020-I] (a) l only (b) 2 only
1. The idea of Biosphere Reserve was initiated by (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
UNESCO in 1973-74 30. Basket-of-eggs topography is related to [NDA 2021-I]
2. There are 18 designated Biosphere Reserves in India (a) Drumlins. (b) Eskers.
3. All Biosphere Reserves in India have been included (c) Cirques. (d) Moraines.
in world network of Biosphere Reserves of UNESCO 31. Which one of the following planets has the highest
Select the correct answer using the code given below: density? [NDA 2021-I]
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Mercury (b) Venus
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Jupiter (d) Earth
21. Which one of the following countries does NOT have 32. Point of Origin of Earthquake Wave is known as
direct access to the sea/ocean? [NDA 2020-I] [NDA 2021-I]
(a) Syria (b) Jordan (a) Epicentre. (b) Focus.
(c) Azerbaijan (d) Armenia (c) Photosphere. (d) Seismic Zone.
22. Which one of the following is NOT a reason of decrease in 33. The maximum depth of Lithosphere is found in the
biodiversity ? [NDA 2020-I] [NDA 2021-I]
(a) Large scale deforestation (a) Pacific Ocean. (b) Siberian Plain.
(b) Exploitation of forest produce (c) Patagonian Desert. (d) Himalayan Mountains.
(c) Maintaining sacred groves 34. A large body of magmatic material that cools in the deeper
(d) Encroachment in forest areas depth of the Earth’s crust and develops in the form of
23. Which one of the following is NOT a cause of depletion in large domes is known [NDA 2021-I]
groundwater? [NDA 2020-I] (a) Batholiths. (b) Lacoliths.
(a) Afforestation (c) Lopoliths. (d) Phacoliths.
(b) Loss of forests 35. Which one of the following is not a form of condensation?
(c) Excessive pumping of groundwater [NDA 2021-I]
(d) Construction of large scale concrete buildings (a) Dew (b) Fog
24. Keppel Island is completely bleached mainly due to the (c) Frost (d) Sleet
expansion of [NDA 2021-I] 36. Which one of the following clouds is a rain-bearing cloud?
(a) Starfish. (b) Blue whale. [NDA 2021-I]
(c) Octopus. (d) Sea horse. (a) Cumulus cloud (b) Stratus cloud
25. Which one of the following is not a minor plate ? (c) Nimbus cloud (d) Cirrus cloud
[NDA 2021-I] 37. In which one of the following countries is intensive
(a) Cocos Plate (b) Nazca Plate subsistence agriculture not predominantly practised ?
(c) Caroline Plate (d) Antarctic Plate [NDA 2021-I]
26. Advantage(s) of tectonic activity in Iceland include(s) : (a) India (b) Japan
[NDA 2021-I] (c) Canada (d) Indonesia
1. Source of natural geothermal energy
Geography of India
2. Creation of new land
3. Attraction of tourists 1. Loktak lake is situated in the Stat of [NDA 2019-II]
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) Sikkim (b) Manipur
(a) l only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) Odisha (d) Mizoram
(c) l and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Which one of the following is Rabi crop in the Northern
27. The process whereby certain minerals absorb water, States of India/ [NDA 2019-II]
expand and change is called as [NDA 2021-I] (a) Rice (b) Bajra
(a) Hydration. (b) Oxidation. (c) Barley (d) Ragi
(c) Hydrolysis. (d) Carbonation. 3. Paradeep Port is located on the delta of river
28. Which one of the following is the longest Latitude ? [NDA 2019-II]
[NDA 2021-I] (a) Rihand (b) Ganga
(a) 90 degree Latitude (b) 23.5 degree Latitude (c) Mahanadi (d) Baitarani
(c) 0-0 degree Latitude (d) 66.5 degree Latitude 4. Deendayal Port is located at [NDA 2020-I]
29. Consider the following statements about the Mahanavami (a) Kerala (b) Gujarat
Dibba : [NDA 2021-I] (c) Maharashtra (d) Goa
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

5. The duration of monsoon in India extends for an average (c) Maulanan Abul Kalam Azad
period of [NDA 2020-I] (d) Acharya Narendra Dev
(a) 80 - 140 days (b) 100 - 120 days 3. The provisions of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution
(c) 90 - 130 days (d) 100 - 140 days of India shall not apply to the administration and control
6. Bagalihar, Dulhasti and Salal hydro power projects have of the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in
been developed on which of the following rivers ? [NDA 2019-II]
[NDA 2020-I] 1. Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha
(a) Chenab and Jhelum (b) Chenab and Indus 2. Assam and Tripura
(c) Ravi (d) Chenab only 3. Meghalaya and Mizoram
7. Which one of the following rivers is not a tributary of river Select the correct answer using the code given below ;
Brahmaputra ? [NDA 2021-I] (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) River Manas (b) River Kameng (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) River Mahananda (d) River Subansiri 4. According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, which
8. If it is 12:00 Noon in India, on which meridian will it be 7:00 of the following is/are described as a part of Parliament of
am of the same day ? [NDA 2021-I] India? [NDA 2020-I]
(a) 7.5 degree E. Longitude 1. The House of the People
(b) 7.5 degree W. Longitude 2. The Council of States
(c) 75 degree E. Longitude 3. The President of India
(d) 75 degree W. Longitude Select the correct answer using the code given below:
9. Which one of the following Oil Refineries is not located in (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Assam ? [NDA 2021-I] (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Tatipaka (b) Numaligarh 5. Which one of the following Directive Principles was
(c) Bongaigaon (d) Digboi inserted by the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976?
10. Bharatmala Pariyojana is related to [NDA 2021-I] [NDA 2020-I]
(a) interlinking of Northern and Southern Indian rivers in (a) The State shall minimise inequalities in income
a garland shape. (b) Equal justice and free legal aid
(b) networks of National Highways in India. (c) Promotion of co-operative societies
(c) interlinking of all cities of India through Railways. (d) Provision for early childhood care
(d) interlinking of all industrial regions of India through 6. A common High Court for two or more states can be
pipelines. established by [NDA 2020-I]
11. The natural vegetation which covers the maximum (a) a law passed by the Parliament
geographical areas of India is [NDA 2021-I] (b) an order of the Supreme Court of India
(a) Tropical deciduous forests. (c) an order of the President of India
(b) Tropical thorn forests. (d) an amendment to the Constitution of India
(c) Montane forests. 7. Which one among the following was NOT a Panch Sheel
(d) Tropical evergreen forests. principle ? [NDA 2020-I]
12. River Beas, flowing from Himachal and Punjab, joins the (a) Peaceful Co-existence
river [NDA 2021-I] (b) Mutual respect for territorial integrity
(a) Indus. (b) Satluj. (c) Nuclear deterrence
(c) Chenab. (d) Ravi. (d) Non-interference in internal affairs
POLITICAL SCIENCE 8. Which one of the following provides for the complete
equality of men and women in India ? [NDA 2021-I]
Indian Polity (a) Articles 14 and 15 of the Constitution of India
(b) Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India
1. Article 46 of the Constitutions of India refers to the (c) The Indian Independence Act
promotion of educational and economic interests of (d) Article 20 of the Constitution of India
[NDA 2019-II] 9. Which of the following statements about the non-
(a) religious minorities. permanent members of the Security Council of the United
(b) Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other Nations is/are correct ? [NDA 2021-I]
weaker sections. 1. Their total number is now 10, but was originally only 6.
(c) displaced persons from large irrigation projects. 2. They are elected for a term of two years only.
(d) the economically deprived. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
2. Who was the Education Minister in the first Cabinet of (a) l only (b) 2 only
independent India? [NDA 2019-II] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
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10. With regard to the Constitution of India, which one of the 5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
following statements is not correct ? [NDA 2021-I] using the code given below the Lists : [NDA 2020-I]
(a) The words — Socialist and Secular, were not originally List I List II
part of the Constitution. (Major Objective) (Five Year Plan)
(b) The Preamble states the objects of the A. Faster and more 1. First
Constitution of India. inclusive growth
(c) The Preamble is enforceable in a Court of Law. B. Faster, more inclusive 2. Fifth
(d) A Republic refers to the people as the source of all and sustainable growth
authority under the Constitution. C. Correction of 3. Eleventh
11. Which one of the following is not a power of the Speaker disequilibrium caused
of the Lok Sabha ? [NDA 2021-I] by Second World War
(a) Speaker shall preside over the House of the People. D. Attaining self-reliance 4. Twelfth
(b) Speaker will cast vote in the first instance in the House. Codes :
(c) Speaker will have power to maintain order within the A B C D A B C D
House of the People. (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2
(d) Speaker can adjourn the House or suspend the (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 3
meeting till there is a quorum. 6. Land Revenue Records maintained in India have
categorized land-use into [NDA 2020-I]
12. Which one of the following is included in Article 51A
(a) 6 categories
(Part IV A) of the Constitution of India ? [NDA 2021-I]
(b) 9 categories
(a) Fundamental Duties
(c) 15 categories
(b) Suspension of Fundamental Rights
(d) 21 categories
(c) Special Powers of Governors
(d) Writs GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Indian Economy
General Knowledge
1. The principle component(s) of Nehru-Mahalanobis
1. According to the Koppen climatic classification, the letter
strategy of economic development was/were
code Cfa denotes [NDA 2019-II]
[NDA 2019-II]
(a) Tropical wet climate
1. Restructuring economic dependency on (b) Humid subtropical climate
metropolitan capitalism into independent economic (c) Tundra climate
development. (d) Tropical wet and dry climate
2. Transition from semi-feudal agriculture to capitalist 2. How many Ramsar conservation sites have been enlisted
farming from India so far? [NDA 2019-II]
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 12 (b) 16
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 27 (d) 62
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Which one of the following statements about the Suez
2. Which of the following statements with regard to Canal is not correct? [NDA 2019-II]
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) is/ (a) The Suez Canal was constructed in 1869.
are correct? [NDA 2020-I] (b) It links the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea.
1. PMKSY was launched during 2015-16 (c) It has a six lock system and ships cross the different
2. The basic aim of PMKSY is to enhance physical levels through these locks.
access of water on farm (d) It has given Europe a new gateway to the Indian
3. One of the main objectives of PMKSY is to achieve Ocean.
convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level 4. The headquarters of National Research Laboratory for
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Conservation of Cultural Property (NRLC) is located at
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only [NDA 2019-II]
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) New Delhi (b) Lucknow
3. The Five Year Plan was first launched in [NDA 2020-I] (c) Kolkata (d) Bhopal
(a) China (b) USSR 5. The first UDAY (Utkrisht Double Decker Air-Conditioned
(c) India (d) Bhutan Yatri) Express train runs between [NDA 2019-II]
4. The call for Garibi Hatao was incorporated in (a) Delhi and Kalka
[NDA 2020-I] (b) Bengaluru and Coimbatore
(a) Fourth Five Year Plan (b) Fifth Five Year Plan (c) Chennai and Visakhapatnam
(c) Sixth Five Year Plan (d) Seventh Five Year Plan (d) Chennai and Bengaluru
6. CORAS is a separate Commando Unit of MSG CISF RPF 18. The United Nations Charter was signed by 51 original
CRPF [NDA 2019-II] members of the United Nations in 1945 at the
(a) National Security Guard [NDA 2020-I]
(b) Central Industrial Security Force (a) Hague Conference
(c) Railway Protection Force (b) London Conference
(d) Central Reserve Police Force (c) San Francisco Conference
7. World Humanitarian Day is celebrated on [NDA 2019-II] (d) Berlin Conference
(a) 26th June (b) 17th July 19. The Headquarters of South-Eastern Railway is located at
th
(c) 19 August (d) 27th September [NDA 2021-I]
8. Aishwarya Pissay excels in which one of the following (a) Bilaspur. (b) Secunderabad.
sports? [NDA 2019-II] (c) Kolkata. (d) Bhubaneswar.
(a) Badminton (b) Boxing 20. Which one of the following statements is not correct in
(c) Motorsports (d) Chess respect of the ‘Legion of Merit’ award ? [NDA 2021-I]
9. New Zealand is considered part of which one of the (a) This award is conferred by the President of the United
following island groups ? [NDA 2020-I] States of America.
(a) Micronesia (b) Melanesia (b) This award was conferred to the Prime Minister of
(c) Polynesia (d) Hawaii Island chain India in December, 2020.
10. Which one of the following countries is called the ‘country
(c) This was also awarded to the Prime Minister of
of winds’ ? [NDA 2020-I]
Australia, Scott Morrison.
(a) India (b) China
(d) It is the highest civilian award of the United States of
(c) Denmark (d) Germany
America.
11. Which one of the following is the oldest scientific
department of Government of India ? [NDA 2020-I] Current Affairs
(a) Department of Biotechnology 1. Who among the following were selected for the Rajiv
(b) Survey of India
Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2019? [NDA 2019-II]
(c) India Meteorological Department
(a) Vijay Kumar and Yogeshwar Dutt
(d) DRDO
(b) Sakshi Malik and Jitu Rai
12. ‘Naseem-Al-Bahr’ is a bilateral naval exercise between India
(c) Virat Kohli and Mirabai Chanu
and [NDA 2020-I]
(d) Bajrang Punia and Deepa Malik
(a) United Arab Emirates (b) Iran
2. Betel leaf of which one of the following States has been
(c) Saudi Arabia (d) Oman
13. Koneru Humpy excels in which one of the following sports? accorded a GI taeg recently? [NDA 2019-II]
[NDA 2020-I] (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(a) Boxing (b) Table Tennis (c) Kerala (d) Mizoram
(c) Chess (d) Billiards 3. SAMARTH is a flagship skill development scheme of
14. Which one of the following cities is associated with which one of the following Ministries? [NDA 2019-II]
Biosafety Protocol to the Convention on Biological (a) Ministry of Textiles
Diversity (2000)? [NDA 2020-I] (b) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers welfare
(a) Geneva (b) Nairobi (c) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
(c) Cartagena (d) Rio de Janeiro (d) Ministry of Human Resource Development
15. Krishna Raja Sagara Dam / Reservoir is developed on 4. Which one of the following is the name given to the lander
[NDA 2020-I] of Chandrayaan-2? [NDA 2019-II]
(a) river Krishna (b) river Tungabhadra (a) Vigyan (b) Anusandhan
(c) river Godavari (d) river Kavery (c) Pragyan (d) Vikram
16. Which one of the following Indian states does NOT share 5. Along with Pranab Mukherjee, how many more persons
international border with two or more countries? were conferred the Bharat Ratna Award in the year 2019?
[NDA 2020-I] [NDA 2019-II]
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Assam (a) One (b) Two
(c) Mizoram (d) Tripura (c) Three (d) Four
17. The Panama Canal opened in 1914, links [NDA 2020-I] 6. Which one of the following films was adjudged as the
(a) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea Best Feature Film in the 66th National Film Awards?
(b) Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean [NDA 2019-II]
(c) Indian Ocean and Pacific Ocean (a) Bulbul Can Sing (b) Hellaro
(d) Adriatic Sea and Black Sea (c) Badhaai Ho (d) Uri
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7. What is ‘Tikki Mausi’ in the context of Malnutrition? 16. ‘Exercise Desert Knight — 21’ is a bilateral air exercise
[NDA 2020-I] between the Indian Air Force and the Air Force of which
(a) A specially packaged food item one of the following countries ? [NDA 2021-I]
(b) A mascot (a) USA (b) France
(c) Name of a scheme (c) Britain (d) Israel
(d) Name given to the healthcare providers 17. Tableau of which one of the following States/Union
8. Which one of the following was the theme of the World Territory was adjudged best in the Republic Day Parade,
Tourism: Day, 2019? [NDA 2020-I] 2021 ? [NDA 2021-I]
(a) Sustainable tourism (a) Ladakh (b) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Tourism and the digital transformation (c) Tripura (d) Uttarakhand
(c) Tourism responding to the challenge of climate change 18. In the recently concluded elections in December 2020,
(d) Tourism and jobs : a better future for all Faustin-Archange Touadéra has won a second term in
9. Which one of the following countries has hosted the Army office as President of one of the following countries.
Exercise TSENTR, 2019? [NDA 2020-I] Identify the country. [NDA 2021-I]
(a) Russia (b) China (a) Central African Republic
(c) Kazakhstan (d) Kyrgyzstan (b) Republic of South Africa
10. Which one of the following was the official mascot of (c) Republic of Ghana
Khelo India Youth Games, 2020? [NDA 2020-I] (d) Republic of Mozambique
(a) Vijaya (b) Yaya 19. Which one of the following statements is most appropriate
(c) Rongmon (d) Ammu about ‘Exercise Kavach’ ? [NDA 2021-I]
11. In January 2020, a passenger aircraft crashed in Iran soon (a) It is a military exercise of the Indian Army only.
after taking off from Tehran’s Imam Khomeini airport killing (b) It is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Army
about 170 people onboard. The airplane belongs to and the Indian Navy only.
[NDA 2020-I] (c) It is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Army,
(a) Qatar Airways the Indian Navy and the Indian Air Force only.
(b) Ukraine International Airlines (d) It is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Army,
(c) Singapore Airlines the Indian Navy, the Indian Air Force and also the
(d) Cathay Pacific Indian Coast Guard.
12. MILAN, a multilateral naval exercise, 2020 was hosted by 20. Recently a state of emergency has been declared in which
which one of the following cities? [NDA 2020-I] one of the following countries ? [NDA 2021-I]
(a) Port Blair (b) Kochi (a) Maldives (b) Bhutan
(c) Visakhapatnam (d) Panaji (c) Nepal (d) Myanmar
13. According to Census of India, 2011, which one among the 21. Which one of the following teams is the winner of the
following is the least populated state in India? Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy, 2021 ? [NDA 2021-I]
[NDA 2020-I] (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Punjab
(a) Maharashtra (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Baroda
(c) Odisha (d) Punjab 22. Which country has replaced Maldives to host the 2023
14. The speakers of major Indian languages belong to how Indian Ocean Island Games ? [NDA 2021-I]
many language families? [NDA 2020-I] (a) Madagascar (b) Sri Lanka
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Six (c) India (d) Mauritius
15. As per the data upto November, 2020, released by the 23. Identify the correct reason, out of the following, about
Union Finance Ministry, which one of the following Claire Polosak for being in the news : [NDA 2021-I]
countries ranks 1 in terms of ODI (Outward Direct (a) She has been honoured with the Pulitzer Prize.
Investment) for the year 2020 - 21? [NDA 2021-I] (b) She recently won a Grand Slam championship.
(a) USA (b) Singapore (c) She became the first female match official to conduct
(c) Mauritius (d) United Kingdom a men’s cricket test match.
(d) She has been conferred with the Gandhi Peace Prize.
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PART- A: ENGLISH
Synonyms an abstract concept and it does not have a body. So, it

cannot be contained "in" a watch or anything else.
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 16. (d) The sentence is correct.
7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b) 17. (b) Daughter-in-law is used to indicate one or single
13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) female married into a family. Its plural is daughters-in-law
19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) and not daughter-in-laws.
25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c) 18. (c) When comparing two things with prefer, use 'to' and
not 'than'. Some people prefer camping to staying in hotels.
Antonyms 19. (b) With discuss, the preposition 'about' is redundant.
20. (a) The correct phrase is dispose of and not dispose off.
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c)
Shyama will dispose of her old clothes. The old clothes
7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (c) have been disposed of.
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 21. (c) Here, (c) is the erroneous part. Here the sentence states
19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d) that you can’t have monopoly on suffering and other
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (c) people don’t have (monopoly) on problems too. Hence, C
is the right answer choice.
Fill in the Blanks
22. (d) The given sentence is error free and all the parts are
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b) correct. Hence, D ‘no error’ is the right answer choice.
7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a) 23. (c) Here, (c) is the erroneous part. The correct phrase will
13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (c) be ‘he refused to point it out’. Hence, C is the right answer
19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (d) choice.
24. (c) Here, part (c) is incorrect. ‘of’ should be removed after
25. (c) ‘comprising’ because ‘comprising’ itself means consist of;
be made up of. Therefore, using ‘of’ after it will be
Spotting Errors contextually and grammatically incorrect. Hence, (c) is the
1. (a) Use preposition 'in' before the city name (Cairo). right answer choice.
2. (c) 'We do' should be replaced with 'we did'. 25. (c) Here, (c) part is incorrect and needs correction. ‘of’
3. (b) 'Lest' is followed with 'should'. should be used instead of ‘from’ because to keep one's
Hence, 'do not' should be replaced with 'should'. distance from something, usually something dangerous.
4. (a) 'The homes' should be used at place of 'home'. Example:
5. (c) Please stay clear of me. I have the flu.
6. (c) 'Loves' verb should be used according to singular Stay clear of that machine.
subject 'everyone'. Hence, (c) is the right answer choice.
7. (b) The word 'seem' should be replaced with 'seems' as 26. (c) Here, part (c) is incorrect and needs correction. ‘Have’
the word 'blame' is singular. should be used instead of ‘had’ because we use the past
8. (c) 'This temptation' should be replaced with 'his simple for past events or actions which have no connection
temptation'. to the present. We use the present perfect for actions
9. (b) 'Are allowed' should be replaced with 'is allowed' as which started in the past and are still happening now OR
the subject 'a time slot' is taken as singular. for finished actions which have a connection to
10. (c) 'Were at home' should be replaced with 'was at home' the present. Plus, the part after that is a fact so it should be
as the word 'either' takes singular verb. in present tense. Hence, (c) is the right answer choice.
11. (b) The construction 'comprises of' is incorrect. It should 27. (d) The given sentence is error free and all the parts are
be either 'comprises' or 'is comprised of' (in passive). correct. Hence, D ‘no error’ is the right answer choice.
12. (b) The phrase 'look forward to verb +ing' is the correct 28. (b) The correct tense of the given sentence should be
construction. I'm looking forward to seeing you. present perfect and not present perfect continuous. It
13. (b) The correct phrase 'cope with something' and not 'cope should be ‘has done’ instead of ‘has been doing’ to make
up with something'. the sentence grammatically correct and contextually
14. (c) 'Walking' is the correct replacement of 'by walk.' meaningful. Hence, (b) is the right answer choice.
15. (c) The correct phrase/usage is "by your watch". Time is 29. (a) The error is in (a) part and it needs to be corrected.
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Instead of ‘when’, ‘while’ should be used. Hence, (a) is Part S is the second fragment relating 'co-existed' with
the right answer choice. preposition 'at'. Part Q is the next fragment as it is ending
30. (a) Here, the error is in (a) part and it needs correction. with 'invention of' and its answer is in the part R.
‘An’ will be used instead of ‘that’ to make the sentence Hence, the coherent sequence is PSQR.
grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. Hence, 5. (d) S is beginning with 'global market', which the subject
(a) is the right answer choice. of the sentence; hence, it should be the first fragment.
P is the next linkage as it is the answer of 'witnessed what'.
Idioms and Phrases Part Q is the third fragment as 'surged' means 'grew' which
is relevant with second fragment. Part R, then, will be the
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c)
last fragment.
7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (c) Hence, the coherent sequence is SPQR.
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d) 6. (a) PRQS. The sentence must start with (P) several years
Ordering of Words in a Sentence ago, then the subject (R) professor Andrew Dessler then
after introductory, there should be 'course' (Q), the last
1. (a) Part R should be the first fragment as it is having remains (S).
pronoun 'we' and we know that the subject of a sentence 7. (a) PRQS is the correct sequence.
should be a noun or a pronoun. 8. (b) At least three options start with P, hence starting with
Part Q should be the second fragment as it is the answer P is final which also meaningful. P ends with layer of
of 'deeply concerned about what'. the...hence connecting part must be S, then come Q and R.
Part S should be the third fragment as it another linkage 9. (d) PRSQ is the correct sequence which forms a
beginning with a conjunction (and). meaningful sentence.
And thus, the part P should be the last fragment. 10. (a) PSQR. P ends with the comparative 'warmer' so it must
So, the coherent sequence is RQSP. connect with the 'than' which is (S). Again S ends with
2. (c) Q is the first fragment as it is beginning with a noun 'closer' which connects the preposition 'to' Q, R is the last.
'aromatherapy', which is the subject of the sentence; and 11. (d) Only S part is independent and should be the beginning
also has the verb 'may also help'. of sentence. Then most suitable connecting part must be
Part P is the second fragment as it is the answer of 'in what P, then come R and Q respectively.
ailments aromatherapy helps'. 12. (c) SRPQ is the correct sequence which forms a
Part S is the next fragment as it is the transition sentence meaningful sentence.
beginning with the conjunction 'but'; and, also ending 13. (c) Only RQPS makes a substantive expression.
with 'against', which means R should the last fragment. 14. (b) RQPS. The sentence must start with R, the job. Then
So, the coherent sequence is QPSR. come Q, P and S respectively which form a correct sentence.
3. (b) Q should be the first fragment as it is subject (about 15. (d) RSQP. The sentence must start with R i.e. instead of
which something is being spoken) of the sentence. worrying about...then comes S part, after model cannot,
Part S is the next, mentioning about what the plea is all there must be a verb starting with and that is control in Q.
about. R should be the third fragment as it is ending with P is the last part.
'and'; it means it can't be the last sentence. P, then, will be
the last fragment. Comprehension
So, the coherent sequence is QSRP. 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c)
4. (d) Part P is the subject of the sentence and hence it
should be the first fragment.
PART- B: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
PHYSICS 3. (b) Density = mass/volume

Density of water is maximum at 4°C at atmospheric pressure
Properties of Matter i.e. 1000 kg/m3.
1. (a) According to question r1+r2/2 =4 and 2 (r1r2)/ Mechanics
(r1+r2)=3,solving both the equations the densities will 1. (a) kinetic energy of ring is 1/2 w2 MR2 while that of ring
be will be 6 and 2. is 1/4 w2 MR2 . Hence K.E of ring > K.E of disc.
2. (b) The pressure of liquid kept in a glass beaker depends 2. (b) Chemical reactions happening in the system cannot
upon the height of liquid column inside the beaker. change kinetic energy of the particles inside with respect
Pressure at different heights from the surface of liquid is to the centre of mass of object.
given by formula, P = PA + rgh 3. (b) The sudden change will be in momentum (P=mv) of
Where, P is total pressure, r = density of liquid, g is the ball as the velocity will change suddenly after the
acceleration due to gravity and h is height of the liquid bouncing off the ground.
from the surface.
4. (a) Initial velocity is the rate that the position of an negative. When net flow of energy is zero it shows heat
object changes relative to time. Forces acting on an object flowing inside the system is equal to heat going outside
cause it to accelerate. This acceleration changes the the system.
velocity. The initial velocity,vi is the velocity of the object 5. (c) Heat required for raising the temperature of water
before acceleration causes a change. qw= mw cw Tw= 418.6 J, Similarly, heat required for raising
5. (a) Moment of inertia of a solid sphere is less than that the temperature of ice qi=4381.2 J, thus the total heat in
of solid disc with same mass and diameter. calorie will be roughly 1050 calorie.
6. (d) Fitting the given values in equation for energy as 6. (d) –273 degree celsius is the lowest among the following
(mgh) and Velocity (v2) =u2 +2as, the velocity will be Sqrt given temperatures. Highest the number in the negative
(980) m/s and energy will be 980 J. scale, lower the temperature.
7. (a) The average velocity of an object is its total 7. (a)
displacement divided by the total time taken, since the • Celsius and Fahrenheit are two important temperature
displacement is zero,the average speed is also zero. scales. The Fahrenheit scale is used primarily in the
8. (c) The precision of a measuring tool reflected in United States, while Celsius is used throughout the
significant figures in the value. In the given answer this is world. The two scales have different zero points and
the most précised value among the given measurements. the Celsius degree is bigger than the Fahrenheit.
9. (a) Force of gravition between two bodies F=G M1M2/ • However, there is one point on the Fahrenheit and
R2,based on this the force of gravitation in the second Celsius scales where the temperatures in degrees are
case will be , F2= 16x G M1M2/R2= 16 F equal. This is -40°C and -40°F.
10. (d) A watt-hour (Wh) is a unit of energy; it's a way to
measure the amount of work performed or generated. Waves
Household appliances and other electrical devices perform 1. (b) Audible sounds differ in amount of frequencies being
"work" and that requires energy in the form of electricity. used. For human audible range is between 20Hz to
The joule (symbol J) is the SI unit of energy-a measure of 20,000Hz. Frequency of ultrasonic is above 20,000Hz.
the capacity to do work or generate heat. Newton-Meter 2. (c) In electromagnetic waves, the electric field is
(N-m) is a unit of energy. One joule equals the work done perpendicular to the magnetic field. Contrary to elastic
(or energy expended) by a force of one newton (N) acting waves these types of wave can travel through vacuum
over a distance of one meter (m). with speed of 3 X 108 m/s.
SI unit for force is Newton (N). 3. (a) T is inversely proportional to sqrt (g) and independent
1N=1 kg.m/s2 on mass,hence in this case it will be sqrt (2) T.
Thus, kg.m/s2 is the unit of Force not energy. 4. (b) The loudness of a sound depends upon the
11. (b) According to Kepler's law of planetary motion, amplitude. Loudness of a sound depends on the amplitude
T2 µ R3 of the vibration producing that sound. Greater is the
Therefore, the ratio of the time period is given by, amplitude of vibration, louder is the sound produced by it.
5. (d) Sound Wave travels only through a medium. It can
T12 R3 1 travel through solid, liquid, gas but cannot travel through
= =
T2 2 ( 4 R )3 64 vacuum where there is no medium available for its travel.
6. (b) The sensation felt by our ears is called sound. It is a
T1 1 form of energy which makes us hear. Sound travels in the
Þ T =8 form of wave.
2
Longitudinal Waves: A wave in which the particles of the
i.e., T1 : T2 is 1 : 8
medium vibrate back and forth in the 'same direction' in
12. (b) 13. (a) which the wave is moving. Medium can be solid, liquid or
Heat & Thermodynamics gases. Therefore, sound waves are longitudinal waves.
Sound is a longitudinal wave which consists of
1. (c) The energy emitted by a body, in the form of radiation compressions and rarefactions travelling through a medium.
on account of its temperature, is called thermal radiation. Transverse Waves: A wave in which the particles of the
These radiations are heat radiations and travel along medium vibrate up and down 'at right angles' to the
straight lines with the speed of light. direction in which the wave is moving. These waves are
2. (a) Equation used for the Fahrenheit to Celsius to Kelvin produced only in a solids and liquids but not in gases.
conversion; K = (y °F – 32) x 5/9 + 273.15=318 K 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (d)
3. (c) Sun emits different kinds of electromagnetic 10. (b) In simple harmonic motion, the acceleration of the
radiation. Most of its rays are in the form of visible light, system and therefore the net force is proportional to the
ultraviolet rays, and short wavelength infrared rays. displacement and acts in the opposite direction of the
4. (a) when the system does work on the surroundings it
displacement.
is termed as positive while in the opposite case it is termed
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Optics 21. (d) As angle is incidence is zero so ray of light along the
normal and undeviated.
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) When light travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium,
6. (c) Issac Newton was the first scientist who used a glass it bends away from the normal, as illustrated to the left.
prism to obtain the spectrum of Sunlight. In 1666, Issac This behavior follows from Snell's Law. As you saw before,
Newton performed this experiment which is famously the larger angle must be in the medium having the lower
known as Newton's prism experiment. White light was index of refraction.
scatte/sed into seven different colours as it exits from the 22. (b)
prism.
7. (b) We know that Electricity & Magnetism
1. (d) All homogeneous materials like conductors,
Dp 2 IA
force, F = = semiconductors obey Ohm’s law within limited range of
Dt C electric field. In the case of strong field, there are departures
Here, I = Intensity of light falling on the surface from Ohm’s law.
C = Speed of light 2. (d) Kirchhoff’s voltage law states that the sum of all
A = Area of surface. voltages around any closed loop in a circuit must equal
If A is halved, then zero. This is a consequence conservation of energy.
3. (b) The net resistance of the given circuit is calculated
A
2I by series combination of (1/2+ +1/4 +1/8)ohm and 1ohm=
F= 2 = IA (8/7+1) ohm =15/7 ohm
C C 4. (a) The heating effect generated inside a conductor
Thus, Force becomes half. depends upon the resistance of the conductor, the time, t
8. (c) It is due to scattering of light. During sunrise and for which current flows and the current itself.
sunset, the sun is at the longest position. Here blue light 5. (c) Magnetic field has both direction and magnitude, the
gets scattered off and due to larger wavelength of the red magnetic field lines are closed curves and no two magnetic
light it can travel a longer distance and hence reach our field lines are found to cross each other.
eyes. This we see the sun red. But at noon, the sun is at 6. (d) We know that both the directions are perpendicular,
the nearest point to earth. Hence all the colors get scattered thus for force direction = ?
almost equally and this you see white light. Using Fleming's left hand rule, Direction of force is
9. (c) A dioptre, is a unit of measurement of the optical perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field and current.
power of a lens, which is equal to the reciprocal of the Thus direction of force is opposite to electron motion
into the page at 90°.
focal length measured in meters (that is, 1/f metres). It is
7. (b) The total energy consumption in a month is given by,
thus a unit of reciprocal length.
5 × 10 × 30= 1500 Kwh. As the charge per kWh of energy is
Hence, P = 1/f Þ 2 = 1/f Þ f = 0.5 meter.
`4, hence for 1500 Kwh it will be 1500 × 4 = `6000.
As the value is positive, it is a positive lens, that is, convex. 8. (b) Let R' be the equivalent resistance of two resistors.
Hence, the option (c) is true. As they are connected in parallel
10. (a) Refractive index of medium
1 1 1
speed of light in vacuum = +
µmed = R' R R
speed of light in medium
R
µsapp > µquartz \ Vq > Vs R' = ....(i)
2
11. (c) Using ohm's law
V = IR'
B'
V 12
R' = =
I 100 ´10-3
B Image
Þ R' = 120W
A P A' R
F
object But, R ' =
2
\ R = 2 × R' = 2 × 120 = 240W
9. (c) The resistance of a wire depends directly on the length
Image formed virtual, erect, magnified and behind the mirror. of a wire. Thus if we reduce the length of a wire to half the
12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) resistance too will drop to half.
18. (b) 19. (c) Thus now two pieces will have 10 ohm resistance each
20. (d) Frequency is the one among the following given Thus let equivaent resistance in parallel connection be Rq :
options which applies to the demand of the question. It is Thus 1/Rq = 1/10 +1/10
same for the incident wave and refracted wave. Rq = 10/2 =5 ohm
10. (c) Normal Short Circuit is when a hot wire carrying 4. (d) Chloropropane molecule with molecular formula
current touches a neutral wire. When that happens, the C3H7Cl contains ten covalent bonds. In covalent bonds
resistance will go down instantly and a large volume of electron pairs are shared between atoms.
current will flow through an unexpected pathway. 5. (b) Biogas is produced by anaerobic digestion of
11. (b) A galvanometer is an electromechanical instrument fermentation of biodegradable materials such as biomass,
used for detecting and indicating an electric current. A manure, sewage, municipal waste, green waste, plant
galvanometer works as an actuator, by producing a rotary material and energy crops. This type of biogas comprises
deflection (of a "pointer"), in response to electric current primarily methane.
flowing through a coil in a constant magnetic field. Composition of biogas
12. (c) we are given Constituent Formula Concentration (v/v)
current = 1 A Methane CH4 40-75%
time = 10 min = 10 × 60 sec = 600 sec Carbon dioxide CO2 15-60%
using the formula Moisture H2O 1-5%
Q Nitrogen N2 0-5%
I= , where I is the current in Amperes and t is time in Hydrogen H2 Traces
t
Hydrogen sulfide H2S 0-5000 ppm
second Oxygen O2 < 2%
Q Trace gases – < 2%
1A = Þ Q = 1 × 600 = 600°C Ammonia – 0-500 ppm
600 sec.
6. (c) 7. (c)
2 8. (c)
V
13. (b) Electric power, P = VI = I2R =
R Chemistry of Metal and Non-metals (H2, O2 and N2)
[Q V = RI from ohm's law] 1. (c) Hydrides, hydrogen occupies interstices in the metal
Modern Physics lattice producing distortion without any change in its type.
Consequently, they were termed as interstitial hydrides.
1. (b) Cathode are produced by the negative electrode, or
Some of the metals (e.g., Pd, Pt) can accommodate a very
cathode, in an evacuated tube, and travel towards the large volume of hydrogen and, therefore, can be used as
anode. They travel in straight lines and cast sharp its storage media. This property has high potential for
shadows. They have energy and can do work. They are hydrogen storage and as a source of energy.
deflected by electric and magnetic fields and have a 2. (a) The electron releasing tendency of the metals, zinc,
negative charge.
copper and silver. Zinc has higher oxidation potential than
2. (d) 3. (c) copper , copper has higher oxidation potential than silver.
CHEMISTRY 3. (b) 4. (c)
5. (d) Syngas, or synthesis gas, is a fuel gas mixture
Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Atomic Structure consisting primarily of hydrogen, carbon monoxide, and
very often some carbon dioxide. The name comes from its
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) use as intermediates in creating synthetic natural gas (SNG)
7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (*) 11. (b) 12. (a) and for producing ammonia or methanol.
13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 6. (d)
Carbon and Different forms, Carbon Dioxide • Valency of Na is 1
• Valency of K is 1
1. (b) Since they are both made of carbon their chemical • Valncy of Mg is 2
properties are the same.Graphite has a layered sheet-like • Valency of Ca is 2
structure with each layer consisting of hexagonal rings, • Valency of Ba is 2
this is because all carbon atoms are sp2 hybridised. • Valency of Al is 3
Diamond has a tetrahedral structure since all carbon atoms
7. (b)
are sp3 hybridised.
2. (c) Dry Ice is the common name for solid carbon dioxide Some Important Chemical Compounds
(CO2). Carbon dioxide typically exists as a gas at room
1. (c) In terms of hardness, Borosilicate glass is harder,
temperature, but can also be frozen at very cold
stronger and more durable than Soda-lime glass. According
temperatures to form a solid known as dry ice.
to the Mohs scale of mineral hardness, diamond’s rate is
3. (b) Diamond is bad conductor of electricity. Electric
10, chalk is 1, borosilicate comes in at 7.5 and the other
current is due to flow of free electrons but in diamond
types of glass at 6.
four other carbon atoms are covalently bonded hence no
2. (c) Limestone and clay or shale (bulk of the silica,
free electrons are available to conduct electric current.
alumina and ferric oxide) are the main constituents of
Portland cement.
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3. (b) Soft soap is made using potassium hydroxide (KOH) These organelles are able to make their own proteins
rather than sodium hydroxide. In addition to being softer, because they have their own ribosomes and DNA.
this type of soap has a lower melting point. 3. (a) A tissue in vascular plants that carries water and
4. (d) It is due to surface tension. It is the force exerted dissolved minerals from the roots and provides support
upon the surface molecules of a liquid by the molecules for softer tissues. Xylem consists of several different types
beneath that tends to draw the surface molecules into the of cells: fibers for support, parenchyma for storage, and
bulk of the liquid and makes the liquid assume the shape tracheary elements for the transport of water.
having the least surface area. 4. (b) Panchanan Maheshwari popularized the use of
5. (a) Copper Sulphate: Cu SO4.5H2O embryological character in taxonomy. Due to his important
Sodium Carbonate: NA2CO3.10H2O contributions in this field he is regarded as father of Indian
Gypsum: CaSO4.2H2O Plant embryology.
The number of molecules of water of crystallization in Embryology is the study of micro- and mega-sporogenesis,
copper sulphate is 5, Sodium carbonate is 10 while in gametophyte development, fertilization, and development
Gypsum it is 2. of endosperm, embryo, and seed coats.
6. (c) 7. (d) 5. (c) Thyroxine is the main hormone secreted into the
8. (c) Sodium carbonate can be obtained by heating baking bloodstream by the thyroid gland. Thyroid hormones play
soda, recrystallization of sodium carbonate gives washing vital roles in regulating the body’s metabolic rate (BMR)
soda. It is also called basic salt. Plaster of Paris is obtained including muscle control, brain and maintenance of bones.
by heating gypsum. Thus NaCl is not used in formation of 6. (c) Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of typhoid
plaster of paris. fever. It is a gram-negative, shaped bacterium, which is
spread through feces, causes intestinal hemorrhage, high
Acids, Bases and Salts, Oxidation and Reduction fever, delirium and dehydration.
1. (a) Limewater is the common name for a dilute aqueous 7. (c) A virus is a small infectious agent that replicates
solution of calcium hydroxide only inside the living cells of an organism. Viruses can
2. (a) Vinegar is also known as ethanoic acid. It is a infect all types of life forms, from animals and plants to
colourless liquid with the chemical formula CH3COOH. It microorganisms.
contains 5% to 20% ethanoic acid by volume and 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (d)
characterised by its pungent smell. 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b)
3. (a) Above 70°C, sodium bicarbonate gradually decomposes 20. (a)
into sodium carbonate, water and carbon dioxide as follows
- 2 NaHCO3 – Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2 , In bakery, it reacts with HISTORY
other components or decomposes at higher temperature to
release carbon dioxide, which causes dough to rise. Ancient India
4. (b) 5. (b) 1. (b) Colin Mackenzie, the first Surveyor General of India.
6. (c) Tomatoes contain oxdic acid predominantly. discovered the Hampi ruins in 1800. He also prepared the
7. (d) first survey map of this site.
2. (b) The two centres for making shell objects in the
BIOLOGY Harappan Civilisation are Nageshwar and Balakot. Shell
objects like bangles, ladles and inlay were made at these
Botany specialized centres. Both the settlements are near the
1. (c) Practice of growing two or more crops simultaneously coast.
on the same piece of land is known as Intercropping. The 3. (c)
main purpose of intercropping is greater yield and maximum • Respecting the brahamanas was not the part of
utilization of available resources in the field. Ashoka’s Dhamma.
2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) • Dharma was not a particular religious faith or practice,
7. (c) Vegatables and fruits are the major source of vitamins or an arbitrary formulated royal policy.Dharma related
and minerals for the vegetarians. to generalized norms of social behavior and
activities; Ashoka tried to synthesize various social
Zoology norms which were current in his time.
1. (d) Blood is considered a connective tissue because it • It cannot be understood by assuming it is one of the
has a matrix. It contains different cells like RBCs,WBCs, various religions that existed at that time.
thrombocytes in addition to various other components • To understand why and how Ashoka formulated
like proteins and plasma. Dharma and its meaning, one must understand the
2. (b) Mitochondria is a double-membrane-bound characteristics of the time in which he lived and to
organelle found in most eukaryotic organisms. refer to Buddhist, Brahmanical and other texts where
norms of social behavior are explained.
4. (d) 4. (d)
• During the reign of the Satavahana (c. 200 BCE – 190 • The Ain-i-Akbari or the “Administration of Akbar”,
CE), the Naneghat pass was one of the trade routes. is a 16th-century detailed document recording the
It connected the Konkan coast communities with administration of the Mughal Empire under Emperor
Deccan high plateau through Junnar. It was made by Akbar, written by his court historian, Abu’l Fazl in
Satvahana Queen NAGANIKA. the Persian language. It forms Volume III and the
• The temple was constructed during the 10th Century final part of the much larger document, the
when Chidambaram used to be the capital of the Chola Akbarnama (Account of Akbar), also by Abu’l-Fazl,
dynasty. The Cholas considered Lord Shiva as and is itself in three volumes.It is now in the
Nataraj as their family deity. The Nataraj temple has Hazarduari Palace, India
undergone damage, renovation and expansion • The Ain-i-Akbari is divided into five books. The first
throughout the 2nd millennium. book called manzil-abadi deals with the imperial
• Brihadishvara temple, also called Rajarajeswaram or household and its maintenance, and the second
Peruvudaiyr KMvil, is a Hindu temple dedicated to called sipah-abadi, with the servants of the emperor,
Shiva located in South bank of Kaveri river in military and civil services. The third deals with
Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, India. It is one of the largest imperial administration, containing regulations for
South Indian temples and an exemplary example of a the judiciary and the executive. The fourth contains
fully realized Tamil architecture.It is called as information on Hindu philosophy, science, social
Dakshina Meru (Meru of south). Built by Tamil king customs and literature. The fifth contains sayings of
Raja Raja Chola I between 1003 and 1010 AD, the Akbar along with an account of the ancestry and
temple is a part of the UNESCO World Heritage Site biography of the author.
known as the “Great Living Chola Temples”, along Modern India
with the Chola dynasty era Gangaikonda Cholapuram
temple and Airavatesvara temple that are about 70 1. (a) Munda languages belong to the Austroasiatic family.
kilometres (43 mi) and 40 kilometres (25 mi) to its Some authors consider them as a subfamily coordinate
northeast respectively with Mon-Khmer.
2. (a) The elder brother of Rabindranath Tagore,
Medieval India Satyendranath Tagore, became the first Indian to qualify
1. (c) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (1605 – 1689) was a 17th- the ICS in 1863. Satyendranath was allotted Bombay
century French gem merchant and traveller. Tavernier was Presidency Cadre and retired after more than 30 years of
born in Paris of a French or Flemish Huguenot family that service.
had emigrated to Antwerp, to escape persecution, and 3. (b) Bahadur Shah Zafar was the last Mughal emperor.
which subsequently returned to Paris after the publication He was the second son of Akbar-II and became the
of the Edict of Nantes, which promised protection for successor to his father upon his death on 28 September
French Protestants 1837. He was a nominal Emperor, as the Mughal Empire
2. (c) existed in name only and his authority was limited only to
• The Saguna bhakti insists on worshiping as a. the walled city of Old Delhi (Shahjahanbad). Following
personal god. The worshipers believe in the his involvement in the Indian Rebellion of 1857, the British
reincarnation. of their loving god and they worship exiled him to Rangoon in British-controlled Burma (now
them in the form of. human being like Lord Krishna in Myanmar), after convicting him on several charge.
and Lord Rama. 4. (c) In 1918,Ahmedabad mill workers protested against
the owners and went to strike based on Satyagraha and
• Saguna is worship of God with form and nirguna is worship
demanded better wages and conditions.
of God without form. He or she is none other than God
5. (c) Basavvana led the Virashaiva movement during the
himself because God is a name attributed to the Supreme
reign of kalachuri ruler. They opposed the Brahmanical
Self when it chooses to assume name and form
notions of purity and several adopted emancipatory ideas
• saguna - it is worship of god with form. nirguna - it is like post-puberty marriages, the remarriage of widows,
worship of god without form. disregarding menstrual taboos among others,
3. (a) 6. (b) To achieve his political aims, Wellesley relied on three
• Ziyarat , means “to visit” in Arabic. In Islam it refers methods i.e. the system of subsidiary alliances; outright
to pious visitation, pilgrimage to a holy place, tomb wars; and assumptions of the territories of previously
or shrine. Iranian and South Asian Muslims use the subordinated rulers.
word ziyarat for both the Hajj pilgrimage to Mecca 7. (b) Swami Dayanad Saraswati’s aim was to educate the
as well as for pilgrimages to other sites such as nation to return to the teachings of the Vedas, and to
visiting a holy place. follow the Vedic way of life. He worked towards reviving
Vedic ideologies, promoting of the equal rights for women
and first among the few who called for Swaraj.
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8. (c) Izara is system in which tax collection authority given believed in armed revolution, and was responsible for the
by bidding process and highest bidder chosen. So, izaredar assassinations of some officers of the ruling British
essentially are a kind of contractor. It helps to improve government before being disbanded in 1952.
revenue. Under this system the government gave the right 18. (b) The Viceroy Linlithgow made a set of proposals called
to collect tax revenue on production to a third party (middle the 'August offer'. For the first time, the right of Indians to
man) and in return got an assured sum from the third frame their own constitution was acknowledged. As per
party. The third party could levy any percentage of tax on the terms of the August Offer, a representative Indian
the people. body would be framed after the war to frame a constitution
9. (b) Aurobindo Ghosh was appointed as the first for India. Dominion status was the objective for India.
principal of Bengal National College founded on 15th 19. (a)
August 1906. It was started with the aim to encourage • The Deccan Riots of 1875 targeted conditions of debt
patriotic thinking and providing education system based peonage (kamiuti) to moneylenders. The rioters’
on Indian value and culture. specific purpose was to obtain and destroy the
10. (c) In 1928 a committee of Congress headed by Motilal Nehru, bonds, decrees, and other documents in the
drafted a Constitution for India. It is known as Nehru Report. possession of the moneylenders.
The Committee worked on the principles of the Constitution • The peasants began a systematic attack on the
of India along with the problem of communalism and issue of moneylenders’ houses and shops. They seized and
dominion status and submitted its report in 1929. publicly burnt debt bonds and deeds signed under
11. (d) Jaipal Singh was a prolific sportsperson, a politician pressure, in ignorance, or through fraud and other
and a tribal activist. He was member of the Constituent documents dealing with their debts.
Assembly. He was the captain of Indian hockey team that
• They socially boycotted the moneylenders. Within
clinched Gold in the 1928 Summer Olympics in Amsterdam.
days the disturbances spread to other villages of
He also worked for the rights of tribals and creation of a
the Poona and Ahmednagar districts, although there
separate homeland in Chhota nagpur region.
was no anti-colonial consciousness among them.
12. (b) Mahatma Gandhi initially forge the techniques of
Satyagraha in South Africa. He initially advocated the • Indian nationalist Vasudeo Balwant Phadke launched
doctrine of Satyagraha or non-violent protest against racial a violent campaign against colonial rule in 1879,
discrimination practiced in South Africa. aiming to establish an Indian republic by driving
13. (a) Lord Irwin was the Viceroy of India at the time of them out. However, his insurrection met with limited
Gandhiji's Dandi march in 1930. This march is also known success. Someone betrayed Phadke to claim a
as salt satyagraha and was an act of non-violent civil bounty offered by the colonial government; he was
disobedience as a campaign of tax resistance and non- arrested and deported to Aden, where he died of a
violent protest against the British salt monopoly. hunger strike in 1883.
14. (b) The social outcome of permanent settlement in Bengal 20. (b) Guru Raidas
was that the society was divided into two mutually hostile Guru Raidas, a low caste leather worket was the
classes of Zamindars and Tenants. While Zamindars were preceptor of Mirabai. One main principle of her
favourite children of British Imperialism, they were few in philosophy was that one should abandon the
numbers in comparison to the other class of tenants. comforts of life and devote fully to her God for
15. (a) Damin-i-koh was the land of Santhals situated in attainment of peace and salvation.
Rajmahal hills. Rajmahal hills are located in the Santhal 21. (d)
Pargana division of Jharkhand. Damin-i-koh (or sometimes • Dayananda Saraswati was an Indian philosopher,
referred to simply as Damin) was the name given to the social leader and founder of the Arya Samaj, a reform
forested hilly areas of Rajmahal hills broadly in the area of movement of the Vedic dharma. He was the first to
present Sahebganj, Pakur and Godda districts in the Indian give the call for Swaraj as “India for Indians” in 1876,
state of Jharkhand. a call later taken up by Lokmanya Tilak.
16. (d) The revolt of 1857 or Indian Mutiny or Sepoy Mutiny • Prominent Hindu religious leader and a Vedic scholar
or First War of Independence was widespread but was the first Indian to voice his right for freedom of
unsuccessful rebellion against British rule in India in 1857-59. India from British rule in 1876.He was deeply devoted
It was begun in Meerut by Indian troops who were in the to God and translated the Vedas from Vedic Sanskrit
service of the British East India Company, it spread to to Sanskrit and Hindi so that the common man could
Delhi, Agra, Kanpur, and Lucknow. The British succeeded also read them.
in quickly and easily controlling the rebels. 22. (c) In 1877, Sir Syed founded the Muhammadan Anglo-
17. (d) Abhinav Bharat Society was a secret society founded Oriental College in Aligarh and patterned the college
by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and his brother Ganesh after Oxford and Cambridge universities that he had
Damodar Savarkar in 1904. The original organization visited on a trip to England.
23. (c) Banaras Hindu University 5. (c) The Stamp Act introduced a new principle of a direct
Gandhi’s first public address in India was on the internal tax. Americans condemned the tax because their
occasion of the opening ceremony of the Banaras rights as Englishmen protected them from being taxed by
Hindu University in February 1916, which was a Parliament in which they had no elected representatives.
distinguished by the presence of many magnets and Americans also passed a compact declaring a trade
princes and of the Viceroy himself. boycott against Britain. The non-consumption movement
24. (b) soon takes on a political hue as boycotts of British goods
• On December 31, 1929, Nehru hoisted the tricolour were encouraged both to save money and to force Britain
on the banks of the Ravi river and demanded “Poorna to repeal the duties.
Swaraj” or complete self-rule, and the date set for 6. (d) The third coalition comprised Prussia, England,
independence was January 26, 1930 Austria, Russia and Sweden
• It was also decided by Indian national congress that 7. (c) The Time magazine was highly sceptical of Gandhiji
26 January 1930, would be observed as the day of initially but within a week completely changed its opinion
complete or total independence and the people across and saluted him as a Saint and Statesman following Dandi
the nation celebrated this day as independence day March. Mahatma Gandhi was declared Time Person of
with zeal and enthusiasm. Poorna Swaraj was the year in 1930.
declared by pandit Jawaharlal Nehru in its Lahore 8. (b) In 1825 passenger trains were introduced for the first
session in Lahore. time in England. This was powered by steam.
9. (c) By issuing the Declaration of Independence, adopted
World History by the Continental Congress on July 4, 1776, the 13
1. (c) The Continental Congress was a meeting of delegates American colonies severed their political connections
from each of the thirteen American colonies. The First to Great Britain. The Declaration summarized the
Continental Congress took in 1774. During October 1774, colonists’ motivations for seeking independence.
the First Continental Congress issued the Declaration of 10. (a) The political group that proved most troublesome
Colonial Rights and Grievances. The declaration denied for Kerensky, and would eventually overthrow him,
Parliament’s right to tax the colonies and condemned the was the Bolshevik Party, led by Vladimir Lenin.
British for stationing troops in Boston. It characterized October Revolution
the Intolerable Acts as an assault on colonial liberties, • Bolsheviks Petrograd Soviet Left SRs Red Guards
rejected British attempts to circumscribe representative AND Russian Republic
government, and requested that the colonies prepare their Commanders and leaders
militias. They rejected the plan for a colonial union under • Vladimir Lenin Leon ,Trotsky Nikolai Podvoisky
British authority and they also drew up a statement of ,Vladimir Ovseyenko Pavel Dybenko
grievances. • Alexander Kerensky Pyotr Krasnov
2. (c) The Reign of Terror was a dark and violent period of
time during the French Revolution. Radicals took control GEOGRAPHY
of the revolutionary government. They arrested and
executed anyone who they suspected might not be loyal World & Physical Geography
to the revolution. It began on September 5, 1793 with a 1. (c) Java is part of the Sunda Island Arc, which includes
declaration by Robespierre that Terror would be “the order Sumatra to the Northwest and Bali to the east. Rest three
of the day.” It ended on July 27, 1794 when Robespierre given places are touched by equator.
was removed from power and executed. 2. (d) Chalk is a variety of limestone composed mainly of
3. (d) Britain was the world’s leading commercial nation, calcium carbonate derived from the shells of tiny marine
controlling a global trading empire with colonies in North animals known as foraminifera and from the calcareous
America and the Caribbean, and with major military and remains of marine algae known as coccoliths. Chalk forms
political hegemony on the Indian subcontinent, from a fine-grained marine sediment known as ooze which
particularly with the proto-industrialised Mughal Bengal, are organic debris.
through the activities of the East India Company.The 3. (c) A recumbent fold is one in which the axial plane is
development of trade and the rise of business were among essentially horizontal, with the limit of variation of axial-
the major causes of the Industrial Revolution. planar dip, and the resulting limit of plunge, being 10°. It
4. (c) Lenin was the leader of the Bolshevik group, while, is a sideways-closing neutral structure that is neither a
the Mensheviks were led by Julius Martov. The synformal nor an antiformal fold.
Mensheviks wanted to make their party should be open to 4. (d) The lapse rate is the rate at which an atmospheric
all (as in Germany ) and belief that it would attract the support variable, normally temperature in Earth’s atmosphere,
of the uneducated workers and peasants.The Bolsheviks changes with altitude. Lapse rate arises from the word
on the other hand insisted upon a highly centralized, lapse, in the sense of a gradual change. It corresponds to
disciplined and restricted number of its members. the vertical component of the spatial gradient of
temperature.
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5. (d) Stalactite and a stalagmite grown together.It is rather • California Current (Cold)
common that stalactites and stalagmites meet and join. • Peruvian or Humboldt Current (Cold)
But as they grow very slowly it takes hundred thousands • East Australia Current (Warm)
of years. After they met they are called a pillar. Stalactites, • Alaska Current
Stalagmites and Pillars are the most spectacular 16. (a) China covers a large spectrum of vegetation types,
underground features, found in the limestone caves. ranging from tropical rain forests and subtropical
6. (a) A deep valley characterised by steep step-like side evergreen broadleaf forests, thr ough temperate
slopes is known as U-shaped valley. deciduous broadleaf forests to boreal forests, and
7. (a) Pacific major plate is the largest which underlies the temperate and cold steppes and deserts.
Pacific Ocean. Specifically, it stretches all the way along 17. (c) Mistral is a cold wind blows in Rhone valley of France.
the west coast of North America to the east coast of Japan Santa Anas are dry, warm (often hot) winds that blow
and Indonesia. westward through Southern California toward the coast.
8. (c) The rivers of North-western Europe show barbed They're usually seasonal, and typically occur between
pattern of drainage. October and March and peak in December.
9. (a) South Atlantic drift is a cold water current and is Chinook winds - also known as Foehn winds in other
formed from the eastward continuation of the Brazil parts of the world - are a type of warm, dry wind that
Current. occur on the downward slope of a mountain when warm
10. (c) Big bang theory explains the origin of universe. air has lost its moisture.
11. (c) The lithosphere is Earth’s outermost layer, composed The Loo is a strong, dusty, gusty, hot and dry summer
of rocks in the crust and upper mantle. The rigid wind from the west which blows over the western Indo-
lithosphere sits on top of the asthenosphere, layers of Gangetic Plain region of North India and Pakistan. It is
the mantle in which rocks are hot and deformable. especially strong in the months of May and June.
12. (b) Chalk and marbles are different forms of Calcium 18. (a) A large amount of the Canadian population lives in
carbonate. Chemical formula of both Marble and Chalk is urban areas and cities are notorious for their poor air
quality. Environment Canada has singled out air pollution
CaCO3. Marble is metamorphosed limestone; Chalk is also
as a major concern as it affects wildlife, vegetation, soil
a form of limestone consists of soft, porous rocks.
and water. The government agency has said air pollution
13. (d) In India, the dryland farming is largely confined to
from urban areas causes acid rain and contributes to
the regions having annual rainfall less than 75 cm. These
climate change.
regions grow hardy and drought resistant crops such as
19. (a) The mountain range that lies between the Black and
ragi, bajra, moong, gram and guar (fodder crops) and
Caspian Seas is called the Caucasus Mountain Range, or
practise various measures of soil moisture conservation
just the Caucasus Mountains. The great historic barrier of
and rain water harvesting.
the Caucasus Mountains rises up across the wide isthmus
14. (d) Meteorological drought is classified based on rainfall separating the Black and Caspian seas in the region where
deficiency w.r.t. long term average - 25% or less is normal, Europe and Asia converge. Trending generally from
26-50% is moderate and more than 50% is severe. northwest to southeast, the mountains consist of two
Agricultural drought is identified by 4 consecutive weeks ranges-the Greater Caucasus (Russian: Bolshoy Kavkaz)
of meteorological drought, weekly rainfall is 50 mm from in the north and the Lesser Caucasus (Maly Kavkaz) in the
15/5/ to 15/10, 6 such consecutive weeks rest of the year south. Mount Elbrus in the Greater Caucasus range, at
and crop planted is 80% in kharif season. 18,510 feet (5,642 metres), is the highest peak.
In India, around 68% of the country is prone to drought in 20. (b) Biosphere reserves are sites established by countries
varying degrees. 35% which receives rainfall between 750 and recognized under UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere
mm and 1125 mm is considered drought prone while 33% (MAB) Programme to promote sustainable development
receiving less than 750 mm is chronically drought prone. based on local community efforts and sound science.
15. (c) The Agulhas Current is current of the south western Presently, there are 18 notified biosphere reserves in India
Indian Ocean. It flows down the east coast of Africa from where as there are total 11 biosphere reserves of India
27°S to 40°S. which have been recognized internationally under Man
Pacific Ocean Currents includes various cold and warm and Biosphere Reserve program. The programme of
current which moves clockwise circulation in Northen Biosphere Reserve was initiated by UNESCO in 1971.
Pacific Ocean and Anticlockwise circulation in South 21. (d) Asia has 12 landlocked countries: Afghanistan,
Pacific Ocean thereby influencing the climatic pattern in Armenia, Azerbaijan, Bhutan, Laos, Kazakhstan,
the coastal regions. The Pacific Ocean currents includes; Kyrgyzstan, Mongolia, Nepal, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan,
• North Equatorial Current (Warm) and Uzbekistan. Syria is located in Western Asia, north of
• South Equatorial Current (Warm) the Arabian Peninsula, at the eastern end of the
• Counter Equatorial Current (Warm) Mediterranean Sea. Jordan is almost entirely land-locked
• Kuroshio System (Warm) and only has a small (27 km) marine coast to the Red Sea,
• North Pacific Drift (Warm) cantered on the port of Aqaba. Azerbaijan has a coastline
• Oyashio Current (Cold) of 713 km on the Caspian Sea.
22. (c) The main cause of the loss of biodiversity can be hygroscopic materials are salts, but many other
attributed to the influence of human beings on the world's materials display the propery.
ecosystem, In fact human beings have deeply altered the 28. (c) The longest latitudes is quater, whose latitudes is
environment, and have modified the territory, exploiting the zero, while at the pole at latitude 90° north and 90°
species directly, for example by fishing and hunting, changing sourth (or – 90°) the circles shrinks to point.
the biogeochemical cycles and transferring species from one 29. (b) Dibba means a mound. Since this structure was
area to another of the Planet. Alteration and loss of the hidden underneath a mound, it came to be called as
habitats; Pollution; Climate change and Overexploitation of Mahanavami dibba. It was on this elevated platform,
resources are main threats of environment. the king used to sit and watch festivities during the
23. (a) The two main causes of Depletion of Water Table are ten day long Dasara festival.
Deforestation and Over-pumping of groundwater. 30. (a)
Constructions of large scale concrete buildings are also • The term ‘basket of eggs’ topography refers to
one of the causes of Depletion of Water. Drumlins which is a depositional landform formed
24. (a) by glaciers. They are forms of rounded hummocks
• Coral bleaching in Keppel Bay resulting from the deposition of glacial till which look
• In the shallow waters of Keppel Bay, coral bleaching like inverted boat or spoon
on a mass scale is infrequent and recovery is usually • Drumlins are oval-shaped hills, largely composed of
fast. glacial drift, formed beneath a glacier or ice sheet
• Coral bleaching occurs when warmer than usual water and aligned in the direction of ice flow.
combines with high levels of sunlight causing the • Drumlins are commonly found in clusters numbering
coral to expel the algae that live in its tissues. in the thousands. Often arranged in belts, they
• Without the algae, known as ‘zooxanthellae’, the coral disrupt drainage so that small lakes and swamps may
loses its energy source and its colour form between them. Large drumlin fields are located
• Keppel reefs can recover rapidly from bleaching in central Wisconsin and in central New York; in
because of the excellent growth rates of branching northwestern Canada; in southwestern Nova Scotia;
species and in Ireland.
31. (d) Earth is the densest planet with the averge density
• After the 2002 bleaching episode, coral cover
of 5.5 gm/cm3 while mercury stands at 2nd position
increased rapidly, reaching the highest coral cover
with the density 5.4 gm/cm3.
ever documented in 2004
32. (a) The location below the earth’s surface where the
25. (d) The Antarctic Plate is a tectonic plate containing the
earthquake starts is called the hypocenter, and the
continent of Antarctica, the Kerguelen Plateau and
location directly above it on the surface of the earth
extending outward under the surrounding oceans. It
is called the epicenter.
is the Earth’s fifth-largest plate. The Antarctic Plate’s
movement is estimated to be at least 1 cm (0.4 in) per
year towards the Atlantic Ocean .
26. (c) Volcanoes are some productive forces like onriching
the soils and creating new and masses.
• Icelanders have also reaped the benefits in the form
of vast resources of geothermal energy. Over 90% of
housing in Iceland is heated by natural geothermal
heat - one of the cheapest and cleanest forms of
energy in existence.
• Hot springs can be found almost everywhere, and
the melt water created by sub-glacial volcanoes
provides the country with a potential source of
hydroelectric power.
• All this clean energy has made Iceland one of the 33. (d)
least polluted countries in the world. • Lithosphere, rigid, rocky outer layer of the Earth,
27. (a) consisting of the crust and the solid outermost layer
• Hydration is the process whereby certain minerals of the upper mantle.
absorb water, expand and change. • There are two types of lithosphere oceanic
• A hygroscopic substance is able to absorb or adsorb lithasphere and continentas lithosphere. Oceanic
water from its surroundings. Typically, this occurs lithospere is the shightly denser and is associated
at or near ordinary room temperature. Most with coeanic crust, which makes up the sea floor.
34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (c)
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Geography of India 11. (a)

• Tropical Deciduous Forests are the most widespread
1. (b) Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast forests of India and are popularly as Monsoon Forests.
India and is famous for the phumdis (heterogeneous mass Tropical deciduous forests are found in the regions,
of vegetation, soil and organic matter at various stages of which receive rainfall between 70 and 200 cm.
decomposition) floating over it. The lake is located at • These are the most widespread forests in India. They
Moirang in Manipur state. are also called the monsoon forests. They spread
2. (c) Rabi crops are sown at the end of monsoon or at the over regions which receive rainfall between 70-200
beginning of winter (also known as winter crops). Barley cm. On the basis of the availability of water, these
is one of the Rabi crops in Northern India. forests are further divided into moist and dry
3. (c) Paradeep port is located on the delta of river deciduous.
Mahanadi.
• Top 5 states having highest forest cover as a
4. (b) Deendayal Port is located at Gujarat. It is present in
percentage of total geographical area:
Kutch district of Gujarat. It is also known as Kandla port.
It is located in the Gulf of Kutch at the western coast of • Mizoram (85.41%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.63%),
India. Meghalaya (76.33%), Manipur (75.46%) and
5. (b) According to the Indian Meteorological Department Nagaland (75.31%)
(IMD) reports, the southwest monsoon have an extended 12. (b)
stay of eight days this year. This means that the normal • Beas River in Himachal Pradesh, India. The Beas rises
duration of the entire monsoon in India, particularly over at an elevation of 14,308 feet (4,361 metres) at Rohtang
Mumbai across100 to 120 days. Pass in the western (Punjab) Himalayas (a section of
6. (d) Bagalihar, Dulhasti and Salal hydro power projects the vast Himalayas mountain range), in central
have been developed on Chenab river. Baglihar Dam is Himachal Pradesh.
built on Chenab River in the Doda district of Jammu & • Finally the Beas joins the river Sutlej at the south-
Kashmir. Dulhasti hydro power is located in Kishtwar western boundary of Kapurthala district of Punjab
district where as Salal power station is located in Reasi after a total course of 470 kilometres (290 mi). The
district of Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir. chief tributaries are Bain, Banganga, Luni and Uha
7. (c) Tributaries
POLITICAL SCIENCE
• left- Lhasa River, Nyang River, Parlung Zangbo, Lohit
River, Dhansiri River, Kolong River
Indian Polity
• right- Kameng River, Manas River, Beki River, Raidak
River, Jaldhaka River, Teesta River, Subansiri river 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a)
8. (d) 75 degree west latitude 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (a)
9. (a) The refinery has been set up at Tatipaka in the East
Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh. This is ONGC’s Indian Economy
first venture of producing petro-products through 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b)
distillation of crude oil. The refinery is designed to
produce naphtha, kerosene, diesel and reduced crude
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
oil.
10. (b) Bharatmala Pariyojana is a new umbrella program for General Knowledge
the highways sector that focuses on optimizing 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c)
efficiency of freight and passenger movement across 7. (c) 8. (c) 9.10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (d)
(c)
the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c)
through effective interventions like development of 19. (c) 20. (d)
Economic Corridors, Inter Corridors and Feeder
Routes, National Corridor Efficiency Improvement, Current Affairs
Border and International connectivity roads, Coastal 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b)
and Port connectivity roads and Green-field 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (c)
expressways. 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a)
19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c)
PART A : GENERAL ABILITY TEST ENGLISH
Synonyms 1
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-67) : Each of the following items consists of a word in capital letters followed by four words or groups of words.
Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.
1. DEBONAIR 12. PROBITY

(a) Bed -ridden (b) Candid (a) Integrity (b) Impudence
(c) Elegant (d) Thrifty [2006-I] (c) Profane (d) Preface [2006-II]
2. TO ASSUAGE 13. MUSTY
(a) To assume (b) To forget (a) Certainty (b) Stale
(c) To resolve (d) To mitigate [2006-I] (c) Modern (d) Mysterious [2006-II]
3. TO BROWBEAT 14. PLAUDIT
(a) To bully (b) To chase (a) Applause (b) Knowledgeable
(c) To give a hint (d) To revive old friendship (c) Lazy (d) Communicative [2006-II]
[2006-I] 15. TEMERITY
4. BEE IN ONE’S BONNET
(a) Innocence (b) Tendency
(a) Sickness (b) Obsession
(c) Audacity (d) Tenderness [2006-II]
(c) Misery (d) Freshness [2006-I]
16. RUMINATE
5. THE WORSE FOR WEAR
(a) Worrisome (b) Financially poor (a) To run fast (b) To reprimand
(c) Hostile (d) Shabby from use (c) To think deeply (d) To spend lavishly
[2006-I] [2006-II]
6. TO JETTISON 17. DEPRECATE
(a) To go on trekking (b) To sail (a) To repeat (b) To belittle
(c) To abandon (d) To fire a gun [2006-I] (c) To steal (d) To search [2006-II]
7. VICARIOUS 18. ENSCONCE
(a) Ambitious (a) To surround (b) To promote
(b) Not experienced personally (c) To honour (d) To settle comfortably
(c) Nostalgic [2007-I]
(d) Vindictive [2006-I] 19. INGRATIATE
8. FORTY WINKS (a) To regret
(a) A person beyond 40 years of age (b) To provoke
(b) A studious person (c) To place oneself in a favourable position
(c) Ordeals of life (d) To feel delighted [2007-I]
(d) A short nap [2006-I] 20. AUGURY
9. CRAVEN (a) Dispute (b) Altar
(a) Greedy (b) Cowardly (c) Place of refuge (d) Omen [2007-I]
(c) Flattering (d) Restless [2006-I] 21. TRANSGRESS
10. TEPID (a) To take loan
(a) Irreversible (b) Causing fatigue (b) To go beyond the limit
(c) Fast moving (d) Lukewarm [2006-II] (c) To discuss at length
11. TENUOUS (d) To show a clean pair of heels [2007-I]
(a) Contentious (b) Dark 22. FERRET OUT
(c) Slender (d) Malfunctioning (a) To search (b) To trap
[2006-II] (c) To hide (d) To flee [2007-I]
EBD_7348
E-2 NDA Topicwise Solved Papers - ENGLISH
23. USURP 40. CONTEMPORANEOUS [2008-I]
(a) To be lazy (a) Irritating
(b) To climb (b) Artificial
(c) To seize power or position illegally (c) A very complicated problem
(d) To yield [2007-I] (d) Happening at the same time
24. MERCURIAL 41. STRAFE [2008-I]
(a) Mechanical (b) Heavy (a) To punish (b) To stengthen
(c) Clownish (d) Quick-changing (c) To run away (d) To work very hard
[2007-I] 42. EXACTION [2008-I]
25. ALLEVIATE (a) Accuracy
(a) To release (b) To lessen (b) Left-over portion
(c) To deprive (d) To deceive [2007-I] (c) Act of demanding strictly
26. INNUENDO (d) Ignorance
(a) Enquiry (b) Indirect reference 43. PERPLEX [2008-II]
(c) Innovation (d) Inorganic [2007-II] (a) Distract (b) Intrigue
27. CANARD (c) Perspective (d) Baffle
(a) Story (b) Humid 44. HOSPITABLE [2008-II]
(c) Prison (d) Rumour [2007-II] (a) Convivial (b) Liberal
28. BAMBOOZLE (c) Congenital (d) Welcoming
(a) Musical (b) Mystify 45. GAIETY [2008-II]
(c) Thrash (d) Relinquish [2007-II] (a) Dexterity (b) Wonder
(c) Colourfulness (d) Jollity
29. MOROSE
46. SCARCELY [2008-II]
(a) Humble (b) Morsel
(a) Hardly (b) Always
(c) Sullen (d) Repugnant [2007-II]
(c) Sometimes (d) Frequently
30. NIMBLE
47. COUNTERFEIT [2008-II]
(a) Clamorous (b) Scrap
(a) Imitated (b) Duplicate
(c) Nippy (d) Urbane [2007-II]
(c) Fake (d) Foreign
31. VAUNT
48. DAZED [2008-II]
(a) Boast (b) Desire
(a) Shocked (b) Dreamy
(c) Ineptitude (d) Joke [2007-II] (c) Happy (d) Tired
32. VITUPERATION 49. DISDAIN [2008-II]
(a) Questionable (b) Resistance (a) Disown (b) Condemn
(c) Absurdity (d) Bitter criticism [2007-II] (c) Hate (d) Criticise
33. PASSE 50. BEWITCHING [2008-II]
(a) Lukewarm (b) Old-fashioned (a) Enchanting (b) Magical
(c) Energy (d) Fraud [2007-II] (c) Affected (d) Ensnaring
34. PROTAGONIST 51. RAPACITY [2008-II]
(a) Talented child (b) Reserved person (a) Anger (b) Cruelty
(c) Leading character (d) Fearless [2007-II] (c) Pride (d) Greed
35. DELECTATION 52. ABSURD [2009-I]
(a) Enjoyment (b) Envy (a) Senseless (b) Clean
(c) Inspiration (d) Astuteness [2008-I] (c) Abrupt (d) Candid
36. FACTITIOUS 53. PHILANTHROPY [2009-I]
(a) Humorous (b) Truthful (a) Generosity (b) Perversity
(c) Artificial (d) Causing fatigue [2008-I] (c) Perjury (d) Flaunting
37. MODICUM 54. INSCRUTABLE [2009-I]
(a) Basic (b) Pertaining to earlier times (a) Strange (b) Mysterious
(c) Small quantity (d) Annoying weather (c) Marvellous (d) Sublime
[2008-I] 55. EXACTLY ALIKE [2009-I]
38. EXACERBATE [2008-I] (a) United (b) Identical
(a) To make something more severe (c) Comparable (d) Regular
(b) To cause artificial shortage 56. MUTUAL [2009-I]
(c) To assume false importance (a) Reciprocal (b) Agreed
(d) To flatter (c) Common (d) Conjugal
39. HIATUS [2008-I] 57. IMBECILE [2009-I]
(a) Uphill task (b) Distant place (a) Astute (b) Cunning
(c) Fading memory (d) Gap (c) Stupid (d) Ludicrous
Synonyms E-3
58. WEIRD [2009-I] 74. The policemen kept on questioning the criminal but failed to
(a) Beastly (b) Unpleasant ELICIT the truth. [2010-I]
(c) Frightening (d) Unnatural (a) Evoke (b) Wrest
59. AVARICIOUS [2009-I] (c) Obtain (d) Extort
(a) Greedy (b) Jealous 75. Teaching in universities is now considered a LUCRATIVE
(c) Angry (d) Wicked job. [2010-I]
60. PESSIMISTIC [2009-II] (a) Risky (b) Profitable
(a) Indifferent (b) Ascetic (c) Honourable (d) Undignified
(c) Unsettle (d) Not hopeful 76. His descriptions are VIVID. [2010-II]
61. ANALOGOUS [2009-II] (a) Detailed (b) Categorical
(a) Unsuitable (b) Uncritical (c) Clear (d) Ambiguous
(c) Similar (d) Disproportionate 77. Friends have always DEPLORED my unsociable nature.
62. EXAGGERATE [2009-II] [2010-II]
(a) Bluff (b) Overstate (a) Deprived (b) Implored
(c) Explain (d) Underestimate (c) Denied (d) Regretted
63. EVIDENT [2009-II] 78. Despite his enormous wealth, the businessman was very
(a) Prominent (b) Seen FRUGAL in his habits. [2010-II]
(c) Observed (d) Quite clear (a) Reckless (b) Law-abiding
64. PENALIZE [2009-II] (c) Unpredictable (d) Economical
(a) Persecute (b) Punish 79. He was ENGROSSED in writing a story. [2010-II]
(c) Torture (d) Ruin (a) Absolved (b) Absorbed
65. REMEDIAL [2009-II] (c) Interested (d) Engaged
(a) Punitive (b) Stringent 80. People fear him because of his VINDICTIVE nature.
(c) Corrective (d) Strict [2010-II]
66. TRIVIAL [2009-II] (a) Violent (b) Cruel
(a) Unimportant (b) Transparent (c) Revengeful (d) Irritable
(c) Important (d) Unexpected 81. He always has a very PRAGMATIC approach to life.
67. INCREDIBLE [2009-II] [2010-II]
(a) Hard to believe (b) Considerable (a) Practical (b) Proficient
(c) Inconsistent (d) Unsatisfactory (c) Potent (d) Patronizing
82. The song had a SOPORIFIC effect on the child.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 68-131) : Each of the following items consists
[2011-I]
of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select
(a) Soothing (b) Terrific
the synonym of the word or group of words (occurring in the
(c) Supreme (d) Sleep-inducing
sentence in capital letters) as per the context.
83. His ALLEGIANCE to the party was suspect from the very
beginning. [2011-I]
68. The engineer ROUGHED OUT his ideas on a piece of paper (a) Servility (b) Obedience
while he talked. [2010-I] (c) Loyalty (d) Passivity
(a) Shaped roughly (b) Rejected 84. Sympathetic criticism has a SALUTARY effect. [2011-I]
(c) Drew a quick plan (d) Described inaccurately (a) Premature (b) Terrible
69. He fell into an ABYSS of despair. [2010-I] (c) Disastrous (d) Beneficial
(a) Well (b) Deep pit 85. His bad behaviour EVOKED punishment. [2011-I]
(c) Sea (d) Hollow (a) Escaped (b) Called for
70. He had the AUDACITY to interrupt the Governor of the (c) Produced (d) Summoned
State while the latter was addressing a gathering of 86. Please do not give any more FLIMSY pretexts for not having
academicians. [2010-I] done the work. [2011-I]
(a) Courage (b) Authority (a) Weak (b) Strong
(c) Foolishness (d) Arrogance (c) Justified (d) Impulsive
71. After weeks of FRENETIC activity, the ground was ready 87. He was the court appointed lawyer for fifty-six INDIGENT
for the big match. [2010-I] defendants. [2011-I]
(a) Strenuous (b) Hurried (a) Indian men (b) Poor
(c) Excited (d) Hectic (c) Guilty (d) Untried
72. The students took COPIOUS notes during the lecture 88. The boy said that pain had ABATED. [2011-I]
delivered by the visiting professor. [2010-I] (a) Reduced (b) Vanished
(a) Extensive (b) Exhaustive (c) Increased (d) Stabilised
(c) Bounteous (d) Abounding 89. He became known as an IMPLACABLE foe of
73. Very few people are IMPERVIOUS to criticism. [2010-I] fundamentalism. [2011-I]
(a) Impenetrable (b) Unaffected (a) Relentless (b) Pleasing
(c) Unstoppable (d) Unmindful (c) Dangerous (d) Courageous
EBD_7348
90. The queen was aware of the INSOLENT behaviour of the 106. He INDUCES human beings to want things they don’t want.
lords. [2011-I] [2012-I]
(a) Violent (b) Polite (a) Influences (b) Dictates
(c) Insulting (d) Frivolous (c) Persuades (d) Appreciates
91. Modern in man is PRAGMATIC in his dealings. [2011-I] 107. His information is not AUTHENTIC. [2012-I]
(a) Practical (b) Playful (a) Real (b) Reliable
(c) Causal (d) Clever (c) Believable (d) Genuine
92. The vehicle slowed down as they moved up the GRADIENT. 108. He is not CUT OUT to be a teacher. [2012-I]
[2011-II] (a) Trained (b) Suited
(a) road with sharp bends (b) bumpy, uneven path (c) Selected (d) Guided
(c) slope or incline (d) mountainous area 109. The Chief Minister REPRIMANDED the officers for their
93. It is DEPLORABLE that millions of people in India are below methods of handling the public. [2012-I]
the poverty line. [2011-II] (a) Adulated (b) Scolded severely
(a) hateful (b) regrettable (c) Disapproved of (d) Suspended
(c) undesirable (d) unpleasant 110. Sin is the sole calamity that a wise man should APPREHEND.
94. The government should PROSCRIBE that sort of literature. [2012-I]
[2011-II] (a) Give up (b) Discourage
(a) rusticate (b) excommunicate (c) Comprehend (d) Fear
(c) ban (d) outlaw 111. We must be proud of our cultural HERITAGE. [2012-I]
95. The volcano on the island is DORMANT. [2011-II]
(a) Things we make for ourselves
(a) cold (b) inactive
(b) Things we have lost
(c) dangerous (d) old
(c) Things we have from the past
96. A person who EQUIVOCATES should not be relied upon.
(d) Things we do for others
[2011-II]
(a) deceives others 112. MOMENTOUS changes are taking place in the social and
(b) tells lies economic life of India. [2012-II]
(c) gives misleading statements (a) notorious (b) momentary
(d) flatters (c) official (d) enormous
97. The newspaper reports were MENDACIOUS [2011-II] 113. His condition DETERIORATED day by day. [2012-II]
(a) mischievous (b) truthful (a) went bad (b) grew worse
(c) provocative (d) false (c) went down (d) grew bad
98. The priest pronounced BENEDICTION. [2011-II] 114. She is pretty INSIPID young lady. [2012-II]
(a) good wishes (b) blessings (a) clever (b) lazy
(c) punishment (d) appreciation (c) dull (d) lean
99. Her habits are INNOCUOUS. [2011-II] 115. It is the difficulty or SCARCITY of a thing that it makes it
(a) useful (b) injurious precious. [2012-II]
(c) causing no harm (d) bad (a) poverty (b) absence
100. I INVEIGHED her for her different outlook. [2011-II] (c) insufficiency (d) disappearance
(a) criticized (b) rebuked 116. We should not allow ADVERSITY to discourage us.
(c) disliked (d) appreciated [2012-II]
101. The youth was BEFOGGED when he was interrogated loudly (a) poverty (b) darkness
by the police inspector. [2011-II] (c) time of trouble (d) unfriendly criticism
(a) terrified (b) panicky 117. He is very OBLIGING by nature. [2012-II]
(c) surprised (d) puzzled (a) helpful (b) nice
102. The convict’s INGENUOUS explanation brought tears in (c) thankful (d) compelling
every eye. [2012-I] 118. She thought that RUNNING INTO her old friend was a stroke
(a) Candid (b) Secret of fate. [2012-II]
(c) Insincere (d) Consistent (a) meeting by chance (b) colliding
103. The ENORMITY of the population problem is irksome. (c) travelling with (d) quarrelling with
[2012-I] 119. He was a CHARISMATIC leader. [2012-II]
(a) Intensity (b) Vastness
(a) exceptionally fascinating (b) particularly popular
(c) Cruelty (d) Fragility
(c) compulsively pleasant (d) strangely haunting
104. EXAGGERATION of facts would always lead to confusion.
120. She was completely ENGROSSED in her work. [2012-II]
[2012-I]
(a) Simplification (b) Negation (a) disturbed (b) absorbed
(c) Emancipation (d) Amplification (c) fatigued (d) successful
105. After his father’s death, he became INSOLVENT. [2012-I] 121. He is an INDEFATIGABLE worker. [2012-II]
(a) Rich (b) Poor (a) tired (b) tireless
(c) Bankrupt (d) Nonchalant (c) brave (d) skilful
Synonyms E-5
122. One must live life with DIGNITY. [2013-I] (a) Alter (b) Obstruct
(a) Nobility (b) Eminence (c) Improve (d) Spoil
(c) Honour (d) Rank 136. The landscape changed ABRUPTLY after the snowfall.
123. Europe, America and Japan have taken to the field of science (a) Suddenly (b) Sharply
with SINGULAR vigour and activity. [2013-I] (c) Favourably (d) Slightly
(a) Peculiar (b) Outstanding 137. We saw a SCINTILLATING fireworks display.
(c) Familiar (d) Single (a) Fascinating (b) Unforgettable
(c) Beautiful (d) Sparkling
124. Our age is preeminently an AGE of science. [2013-I]
138. The PACT has been in effect for twenty years.
(a) Era (b) Date
(a) Treaty (b) Monarchy
(c) Generation (d) Moment (c) Lease (d) Trend
125. Ant is believed to be the most INDUSTRIOUS creature. 139. He had a reputation of being a PRUDENT businessman.
[2013-I] (a) Skilful (b) Wealthy
(a) Sensible (b) Successful (c) Careful (d) Dishonest
(c) Diligent (d) Punctual 140. There was a signpost where the two paths CONVERGE.
126. The schools insist on giving WHOLESOME food to the (a) Separate (b) Intersect
children for the proper growth of their mind and body. (c) Merge (d) Diverge
[2013-I] 141. The violence erupted because of the ZEALOT.
(a) Whole crops (b) Nourishing (a) Enthusiastic (b) Brave
(c) Fit (d) Sound (c) Timid (d) Fanatic
127. As I look around I see the crumbling ruins of a proud DIRECTIONS (Qs. 142-151): In this section, you find a number
civilization strewn like a vast heap of FUTILITY. [2013-I] of sentences, parts of which are underlined. For each underlined
(a) Irrelevance (b) Absurdity part, four words are listed below. Choose the word nearest in
(c) Pointlessness (d) Downtrodden meaning to the underlined part and indicate your response in
128. Mark Antony’s EULOGY of Caesar is finely recorded by the Answer Sheet.
Shakespeare in his play. [2013-I] [2014-II]
(a) Prayer (b) Honour 142. We should always try to maintain and promote communal
(c) Praise (d) Denunciation amity.
129. By 1918, Gandhiji had established himself as a leader with (a) bondage (b) contention
UNIQUE way of protesting exploitation and injustice. (c) friendship (d) understanding
[2013-I] 143. Many species of animals have become extinct during the
(a) Different (b) Exceptional last hundred years.
(a) aggressive (b) non-existent
(c) Excellent (d) Good
(c) scattered (d) feeble
130. Your INTERVENTION was required. [2013-I]
144. True religion does not require one to proselytise through
(a) Interference (b) Interruption guile or force.
(c) Disturbance (d) Connection (a) translate (b) hypnotise
131. It is difficult to DISCERN the sample on the slide without (c) attack (d) convert
adjusting the microscope. [2013-I] 145. That the plan is both inhuman and preposterous needs no
(a) Discard (b) Arrange further proof.
(c) Determine (d) Debate (a) heartless (b) impractical
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 132-141): Each of the following items (c) absurd (d) abnormal
consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. 146. The attitude of the Western countries towards the third-
Select the synonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in world countries is rather callous to say the least.
capital letters) as per the context. (a) passive (b) unkind
[2013-II] (c) cursed (d) unfeeling
132. A wise man puts past RANCOUR behind and moves ahead. 147. Whatever the verdict of history may be, Chaplin will occupy
(a) Dislike (b) Hatred a unique place in its pages.
(c) Division (d) Criticism (a) judgment (b) voice
133. Many of the villagers were ISOLATED by heavy showers of (c) outcome (d) prediction
rains. 148. He corroborated the statement of his brother.
(a) Destroyed (b) Separated from others (a) confirmed (b) disproved
(c) Battered (d) Devasted (c) condemned (d) seconded
134. A series of COLUMNS supporting a large porch is typical of 149. Whatever opinion he gives is sane.
medieval architecture. (a) rational (b) obscure
(a) Statues (b) Arches (c) wild (d) arrogant
(c) Pillars (d) Murals 150. The story is too fantastic to be credible.
135. Trees that BLOCK the view of oncoming traffic should be (a) believable (b) false
cut down. (c) readable (d) praiseworthy
EBD_7348
151. Catching snakes can be hazardous for people untrained in 164. He was greatly debilitated by an attack of influenza.
the art. (a) depressed (b) weakened
(a) tricky (b) harmful (c) worried (d) defeated
(c) difficult (d) dangerous 165. His efforts at helping the poor are laudable.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 152-156): Each item in this section consists (a) welcome (b) sincere
of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. (c) good (d) praiseworthy
Select the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined 166. His conduct brought him reproach from all quarters.
word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly (a) rebuke (b) sympathy
(c) indifference (d) remorse
[2015-II]
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 167-171): Each item in this section consists
152. Many of his acquaintances avoid him because he is so of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by
garrulous. four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of
(a) unreasonable (b) talkative words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.
(c) quarrelsome (d) proud
153. He bore the pain with great fortitude. [2016-II]
(a) resignation 167. Hospitality is a virtue for which the natives of the East in
(b) defiance general are highly admired.
(c) indifference (a) Duty of a doctor
(d) forbearance (b) Generosity shown to guests
154. He gave his tacit approval to the proposition. (c) Cleanliness in hospitals
(a) full (b) loud (d) Kindness
(c) clean (d) implied 168. House rent in cities like Mumbai or Delhi has risen to
155. In spite of hard work, the farmers could only get a meagre astronomical figures beyond the reach of even high-salaried
yield. people.
(a) satisfactory (b) scanty (a) exorbitant (b) commercial
(c) plenty (d) normal (c) planetary (d) illogical
156. He was exhilarated at the outcome of the election results. 169. Appropriate technology holds the key to a nation’s
(a) satisfied (b) surprised development.
(c) disappointed (d) overjoyed (a) Modern (b) Suitable
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 157-166): Each item in this section consists (c) Effective (d) Growing
of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is 170. He was enamoured of his own golden voice.
followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in (a) very fond of (b) concerned with
meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the (c) obsessed with (d) imbued with
Answer Sheet accordingly. 171. Some journalists are guilty of indulging in yellow journalism.
[2016-I] (a) misrepresentation (b) vulgarization
(c) sensational reporting (d) loud gestures
157. Suddenly there was a bright flash, followed by a deafening
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 172-176): In this section, each item consists
explosion. of a sentence with a word underlined and is followed by four
(a) dangerous (b) terrifying words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words
(c) mild (d) very loud that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and
158. He showed exemplary courage during the crisis. indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.
(a) usual (b) durable
[2017-I]
(c) commendable (d) some
172. It is unwise to sever diplomatic relations with a neighbouring
159. When the new teacher entered the classroom, he found the
country over small matters.
pupils restive. (a) engage (b) estrange
(a) at rest (b) idle (c) cut off (d) twist
(c) quiet (d) impatient 173. Bad tendencies are to be countered by good ones until all
160. There is no dearth of talent in this country. that is evil disappears.
(a) scarcity (b) availability (a) opposed (b) balanced
(c) plenty (d) absence (c) reduced (d) bypassed
161. The servants retired to their quarters. 174. The police fired indiscriminately at the crowd, killing many
(a) entered (b) went away innocent women and children.
(c) ran away (d) mobilised (a) continuously (b) without distinguishing
162. The navy gave tactical support to the marines. (c) foolishly (d) rapidly
(a) sensitive (b) strategic 175. Businessmen who lack acumen cannot be expected to be
(c) immediate (d) expert very successful.
163. A genius tends to deviate from the routine way of thinking. (a) fairness (b) sharpness
(a) dispute (b) disagree (c) boldness (d) righteousness
(c) distinguish (d) differ
Synonyms E-7
176. His candid opinions have won him many friends. (a) beckon (b) assault
(a) kind (b) courteous (c) belch (d) appreciate
(c) generous (d) frank 189. A local court granted bail to the criminal on Thursday.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 177-186): Each item in this section consists (a) confessed (b) donated
of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four (c) allowed (d) yielded
options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the 190. The judge told that he would analyze the evidence and then
underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer deliver the verdict.
Sheet accordingly. (a) liberate (b) surrender
[2017-II] (c) transfer (d) pronounce
177. The discussion was wound up after a long and fruitful 191. The growth and development of the peasant movement was
exchange of views. indissolubly linked with the national struggle for freedom.
(a) Postponed (b) cut short (a) firmly (b) vaguely
(c) interrupet (d) concluded (c) individually (d) steadily
178. He was fully alive to the need for making adjustments. 192. Weather conditions have been improving over the past few
(a) concerned about days.
(b) worried about (a) mending (b) amending
(c) aware of (c) becoming better (d) advancing
(d) indifferent about 193. The confusion on the interlocutor’s face was gratifying.
179. The police officer tried to intimidate the witness but in vain. (a) government officer (b) party worker
(a) inform (b) reward (c) dialogist (d) revolutionary
(c) frighten (d) persuade 194. He spends his money lavishly.
180. We must adopt drastic measures to control population (a) hesitatingly (b) generously
growth. (c) foolishly (d) carefully
(a) simple (b) dramatic 195. The government’s new policies will come into force from the
(c) realistic (d) severe next fiscal year.
181. He is extremely meticulous in his approach. (a) calendar (b) academic
(a) simple (b) careful (c) financial (d) leap
(c) fair (d) reasonable 196. Abundant food was available for the soliders in the mess.
182. The experts' minute examination brought to light some (a) little (b) plentiful
important clues. (c) delicious (d) wholesome
(a) quick (b) detailed DIRECTIONS (Qs. 197-201): Each item in this section consists
(c) superficial (d) prolonged of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words
183. The decision of the Union Government to repeal the Urban or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is
Land Ceiling Act has been welcomed by all. nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your
(a) suppress (b) amend response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
(c) cancel (d) withhold [2018-II]
184. This is his maiden apprearance on the screen. 197. The Industrial Revolution saw a massive rise in the
(a) first (b) last population of Europe.
(c) girlish (d) shy (a) enormous (b) erroncous
185. At the end of the marathon everybody was exhausted. (c) hazardous (d) perilous
(a) weakened (b) honoured 198. I had some deepest convictions reflected in my work.
(c) satisfied (d) tired (a) ideas and opinions
186. He gave me a counterfeit coin. (b) firm beliefs
(a) rare (b) fake (c) prejudices
(c) unmatured (d) inferior (d) biases
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 187-196): Each item in this section consists 199. This boys is very timid.
of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four (a) courageous (b) shy
words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the (c) clever (d) dull
underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer 200. My friend is as stubborn as a mule.
Sheet accordingly. (a) observant (b) obnoxious
[2018-I] (c) obstinate (d) corpulent
187. I do not want you to lead a life of sycophancy as you did 201. His behaviour was deliberately provocative.
during the foreign rule. (a) exciting desire
(a) admiration (b) love (b) infuriating
(c) appreciation (d) flattery
(c) pitiable
188. In India, it has become easy to attack cultural artefacts these
days. (d) creating frustration
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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 202-211): Each item in this section consists (a) depression (b) complaint
of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (c) abrasion (d) gratefulness
or group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning 207. Rakesh delivered a slanderous speech.
to the underlined word/ words and mark your response in your (a) abusive (b) praiseworthy
Answer Sheet accordingly. (c) moderate (d) inspiring
[2019-I] 208. Suddenly, the sky was darkened by a gigantic bird.
202. Some people complain when they encounter a small (a) winged (b) small
misfortune in the course of their thoroughly happy life. (c) tiny (d) enormous
(a) run into (b) run away 209. To abolish poverty would be to destroy the soil upon which
(c) run down (d) run with mankind produces the vir tues conducive to higher
203. This world is full of miseries. civilization
(a) indifferent love (b) perfect happiness (a) detest (b) eradicate
(c) great suffering (d) moderate sympathies (c) nurture (d) assimilate
204. A glance at a beautiful object gives us delight. 210. The Arabs who are not in the cities live in the desert
(a) wisdom (b) happiness throughout the year, shifting from one oasis to another.
(c) purity (d) peace (a) sandbank (b) mound
205. It is terrible for people to die of starvation. (c) dune (d) spring
(a) starch (b) staple 211. The various facets of life can be found reflected in a large
(c) plenty (d) hunger city.
206. The university has constituted a grievance redressal (a) several (b) similar
committee to look into the matter. (c) valuable (d) singular
A NSWER KEY
1 (c) 22 (a) 43 (d) 64 (b) 85 (b) 106 (c) 127 (c) 148 (a) 169 (b) 190 (d) 211 (a)
2 (d) 23 (c) 44 (d) 65 (c) 86 (a) 107 (d) 128 (c) 149 (a) 170 (c) 191 (a)
3 (a) 24 (d) 45 (d) 66 (a) 87 (b) 108 (b) 129 (b) 150 (a) 171 (c) 192 (c)
4 (b) 25 (b) 46 (a) 67 (a) 88 (a) 109 (b) 130 (a) 151 (d) 172 (c) 193 (c)
5 (a) 26 (b) 47 (c) 68 (c) 89 (a) 110 (d) 131 (c) 152 (b) 173 (a) 194 (b)
6 (a) 27 (d) 48 (a) 69 (c) 90 (c) 111 (c) 132 (b) 153 (d) 174 (b) 195 (c)
7 (b) 28 (b) 49 (c) 70 (a) 91 (a) 112 (d) 133 (b) 154 (d) 175 (b) 196 (b)
8 (d) 29 (c) 50 (a) 71 (d) 92 (c) 113 (b) 134 (c) 155 (b) 176 (d) 197 (a)
9 (b) 30 (a) 51 (d) 72 (a) 93 (b) 114 (c) 135 (b) 156 (d) 177 (d) 198 (b)
10 (d) 31 (a) 52 (a) 73 (b) 94 (c) 115 (c) 136 (a) 157 (d) 178 (c) 199 (b)
11 (c) 32 (a) 53 (a) 74 (c) 95 (b) 116 (c) 137 (d) 158 (c) 179 (c) 200 (c)
12 (a) 33 (a) 54 (b) 75 (b) 96 (c) 117 (c) 138 (a) 159 (d) 180 (d) 201 (a)
13 (b) 34 (c) 55 (b) 76 (c) 97 (d) 118 (a) 139 (c) 160 (a) 181 (b) 202 (a)
14 (a) 35 (a) 56 (a) 77 (d) 98 (b) 119 (a) 140 (c) 161 (b) 182 (b) 203 (c)
15 (c) 36 (c) 57 (c) 78 (d) 99 (c) 120 (b) 141 (d) 162 (b) 183 (c) 204 (b)
16 (c) 37 (c) 58 (d ) 79 (b) 100 (a) 121 (b) 142 (c) 163 (d) 184 (a) 205 9d)
17 (b) 38 (a) 59 (a) 80 (c) 101 (d) 122 (c) 143 (b) 164 (b) 185 (d) 206 (b )
18 (d) 39 (d) 60 (d ) 81 (a) 102 (a) 123 (a) 144 (d) 165 (d) 186 (b) 207 (a)
19 (c) 40 (d) 61 (c) 82 (d) 103 (b) 124 (a) 145 (c) 166 (a) 187 (d) 208 (d)
20 (d) 41 (a) 62 (b ) 83 (c) 104 (d) 125 (c) 146 (d) 167 (b) 188 (b) 209 (b)
21 (b) 42 (c) 63 (d ) 84 (d) 105 (c) 126 (b) 147 (a) 168 (a) 189 (c) 210 (d)
Synonyms E-9
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (c) The word 'Debonair' means 'courteous gracious, and have followings meanings: Contentious - quarrelsome;
having a sophisticated charm' which is nearest in Dark - little as no light; Malfunctioning - to fail to
meaning to elegant' which is option (c), therefore, (c) is function.
the correct answer. The other 3 words have following 12. (a) The word 'probity' means integrity or uprignt ness,
meanings : Candid - frank, outspoken; Thrifty - honesty' which is nearest in meaning to integrity which
prosperous; frugal; Bed-ridden - In bid for a long period is option (a), therefore, (a) is the correct answer. The
because of age on sickness. other 3 words have following meanings: Impudence -
2. (d) The word 'To Assuage' means 'to make milder or less insolence; Profane - irreligious; Preface - an
severe; relieve, ease, mitigate' which is nearest in introductory past.
meaning to 'mitigate' which means 'to lessen in force or 13. (b) The word 'Musty' means absolute, out dated or stale
intensity' grief, harshness or pain, which is option (d), food' which is nearest in meaning to 'stale' which is
therefore (d) is the correct answers. option (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. The other
3. (a) The word 'To Browbeat' means 'to intimidate by 3 words have following meanings: Certainty - something
overbearing looks or words; bully' which is nearest in certain; Modern - not ancient or remote; Mysterious -
meaning 'to bully' which is option (a), therefore, (a) is implying or suggesting a mystery.
the correct answer. 14. (a) The word 'Plaudit' means 'a demonstration or sound of
4. (b) The phrase' Bee in one's bonnet' means 'A chronic applause' which is nearest in meaning to 'Applause'
preoccupation, often fanciful or eccentric ' which is which is option (a), therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
nearest in meaning to 'obsession' which is option (b), 15. (c) The word 'Temirity' means 'reckless boldness; rash ness'
therefore, (b) is the correct answer. which is nearest in meaning to word Audacity which is
5. (a) The phrase ' The worse for wear' means ' becoming option (c), therefore, (c) is the correct answer. The other
worn out' which is nearest in meaning to 'shabby from 3 words have following meanings: Innocence -
use' which is option (d), therefore, (d) is the correct simplicity; Tendency - an inclination to something;
answer. Tenderness - not hard or though.
6. (a) The word ' To Jettison' means 'the act of getting rid of 16. (c) The word 'Ruminate' means 'to meditate or, ponder',
something useless or used up' which is nearest in which is nearest in meaning to 'think deeply' which is
meaning ' to abandon' which means 'to leave completely option (c), therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
or finally' which is option (c). Therefore, (c) is the correct
17. (b) The word Deprecate' means 'to depreciate' belittle'
answer.
which is nearest in meaning 'to belittle; which is option
7. (b) The word ' vicarious' means 'Endured or done by one (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
person substituting for another' which is nearest in
18. (d) The word 'Eusconce' means 'to settle securely or
meaning to phrase 'Not experienced personally' which
snugly' which is nearest in meaning to 'settle
is option (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. The
comfortably' which is option (d), therefore, (d) is the
other 3 words have following meanings: Ambitious -
correct answer. The other three words have following
strongly desirous; Nostalgic - homesickness; Vindictive
meanings: To surround - encompass; To promote - to
- vengeful.
help or encourage; To honour - to pay respect.
8. (d) The word 'forty winks' means 'sleeping for a short period
19. (c) The word ' Ingratiate' means ' to establish in the favour
of time' which is nearest in meaning to 'A short nap'
or good graces of others especially by deliberate efforts,
which is option (d), therefore, (d) is the correct answer.
which is nearest in meaning to 'place oneself in a
9. (b) The word 'craven' means 'cowardly, contemptibly timid favourable position' which is option (c), therefore, (c)
pusillaninuous which is nearest in meaning to cowardly' is the correct answer.
which is option (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answers.
20. (d) The word 'Angury' means 'an Omen taken or indication'
10. (d) The word ' Tepid' means moderately warm; Luke warm which is nearest in meaning to 'Omen' which is option
which is nearest in meaning to 'Lukewarm' which is (d), therefore, (d) is the correct answer. The other 3
option (d), therefore, (d) is the correct answer. The other answer choices have following meanings:Dispute - to
3 words have following meanings: Irreversible - engage in argument; Altar - a platform, at which
uncapable of being changed; Causing fatigue - religious rites are performed; Place of refuge - a place
something that leads to mental exertion; Fast moving - of shelter.
speedy.
21. (b) The word 'transgress' means 'to violate a law ' which is
11. (c) The word 'Tenuous' means thin or slender in form which nearest in meaning to ' go beyond the limit' which is
is nearest in meaning to 'slender' which is option (c), option (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
therefore, (c) is the correct answer. The other three words
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22. (a) The word ' feuret' means to 'search about' which is 37. (c) Modicum means, ‘small amount’ so small quantity
nearest in meaning to 'search' which is option (a), would be the right synonym. Other synonyms : atom,
therefore, (a) is the correct answer. crumb, iota, molecule, smidge, whit.
23. (c) The word 'usurp' means 'to seize and hold by force or 38. (a) Exacerbate means ‘infuriate, make worse to irritate’,
without legal right' which is nearest in meaning to 'seize so to make something more severe would be the right
power or position illegally', which is option (c), therefore, synonym. Other synonyms : fan the flames, inflame,
(c) is the correct answer. exasperate, provoke, embitter,
24. (d) The word 'mercurial' means 'changeable or volatile' 39. (d) Hiatus means ‘pause or interruption, any gap or lacuna.’
which is nearest in meaning 'to quick - changing' which So ‘Gap’ would be the right synonym. Other synonyms
is option (d), therefore, (d) is the correct answer. The : aperture, chasm, interim, rift, discontinuity
other three words have following meanings: Mechanical 40. (d) Contemporaneous means ‘contemporary or belonging
- operated by machinery; Heavy - of great weight; to the same period of time as another’. So ‘happening
Clownish - a comic performer. at the same time would be the right synonym. Other
25. (b) The word 'Alleviate' means 'to diminish or lessen ' which synonyms : Coetaneous, coeval, coexistent, concurrent,
is nearest in meaning to 'lessen' which is option (b), synchronic.
therefore, (b) is the correct answer. The other three 41. (a) Strafe means ‘to attack someone’, so ‘to punish’ would
words have following meanings: To release - to free be the right synonym.
from confinement; To deprive - to remove from the 42. (c) Exaction means ‘extortion or the act of demanding’.
possession; To deceive - delude, to be unfaithful to. So act of demanding strictly would be the right
26. (b) Innvendo means ‘a false or baseless, usually synonym. Other synonyms : claim, requisition.
derogatory story, report or rumor ’. Some other 43. (d) The word ‘perplex’ means puzzle, baffle, confuse.
synonyms of this words are : Allusion, Overtone,
44. (d) The word ‘hospitable’ means genial, welcoming,
Whisper, Hint, Imputation, Allusion.
congenial, friendly, convivial, but welcoming is the most
27. (d) Canard means ‘a false report or piece of news’. Some suitable word.
more synonyms : Fib, Hoax, Swindle, Lie, Rumour,
45. (d) The ‘gaiety’ means cheerfulness, happiness, jollity.
Spoof.
46. (a) The word ‘scarcely’ means hardly, barely, almost not,
28. (b) Bamboozle means ‘to fool, cheat, deception’. Some only just.
other synonyms are: Dupe, Confound, Baffle, Stump,
47. (c) The word ‘counterfeit’ means fake, imitation, spurious,
Puzzle, Perplex.
forged.
29. (c) Morose means ‘depressed and pessimistic’. Some more
48. (a) The word ‘dazed’ means shocked, bewildered.
synonyms are : Cantankerous, gloomy, in a bad mood,
mournful, moody, splenetic. 49. (c) The word ‘disdain’ means contempt, scorn, disrespect,
dislike. From the given options ‘hate’ is the most suitable
30. (a) Nimble means ‘dexterous, smart, quick to understand,
word.
agile and active’. Some more synonyms are : lively,
Proficient, Bright, Alert, Adept, Vigilant. 50. (a) The word ‘bewitching’ means cursing, possessing or
enchanting.
31. (a) Vaunt means ‘to speak boastfully or to taek with
51. (d) The word ‘rapacity’ means wanting more money or
excessive pride. Some more synonyms are : Brag, Crow,
goods than you need. Here ‘greed’ is the most suitable
Gasconade, Rodomontade.
word.
32. (a) Vituperation means verbal attack, castigation, violent
52. (a) The word ‘absurd’ means stupid not logical and
denun creation. Some more synonyms are : Criticism,
sensible which is nearest in meaning to senseless.
Blame, ,Slander, Blame, Bad-mouthing, Tirade.
53. (a) The word ‘philanthropy’ means the practice of helping
33. (a) Passe means ‘past, no longer fashionable, out of date’.
the poor and those in need especially by giving money.
Some more synonyms are: Bygone, Dated, Antique,
Hence generosity (willing to give somebody money,
Fusty, Old &, Old -time, Dowdy.
gifts etc) is nearest in meaning to it.
34. (c) Protagonist ‘means person who takes the lead or the 54. (b) If a person or their expression is inscrutable, it is hard
central figure of the narrative’. Some more synonyms to know what they are thinking. Hence, mysterious is
are: Central character, Prime mover, Exponent, Hero, the most similar in meaning to the given word.
Exemplar, Mainstay.
55. (b) The word ‘exactly alike’ refers to identical or similar in
35. (a) Delectation means ‘delight, enjoyment and pleasure. every detail.
So in the given option ‘enjoyment’ would be the right
56. (a) The word ‘mutual’ is used to describe feelings that two
synonym of delectation.
or more people have for each other equally. Hence,
36. (c) Factitous means ‘unnatural, false or artificial’ so in the reciprocal is similar word in meaning to it.
given option artificial would be the right synonym of
57. (c) The word ‘imbecile’ means a rude way to describe a
factitious. Other synonyms : false, artificial, sham.
person that you think is very idiot. Hence, stupid is the
most similar word.
Synonyms E-11
58. (d) The word ‘weird’ means very strange or unusual and no near meanings - direct or figuratively so it is easy to
difficult to explain which is similar in meaning to answer.
unnatural. 79. (b) Engross is to' be lost in whatever one is doing -
59. (a) The word ‘avaricious’ means money grubbing or absorbed. Engaged does not mean absorbed. It is just
extreme desire for wealth which is similar in meaning to a linkage. If someone is engrossed in an activity, he is
greedy. careless for what is happening around him.
60. (d) The word ‘pessimistic’ means bleak, distrustful, 80. (c) Vindictive is revengeful. Other options like violent and
hopeless, depressed etc. which is nearest in meaning cruel can be actions of revenge but not the right answer
to ‘not hopeful’. as synonym. Irritable is not correct clearly.
61. (c) The word ‘analogous’ means like, equivalent, related 81. (a) Pragmatic is practical. Pragmatic is replacing 'practical'
etc. which is nearest in meaning to ‘similar’. in English usage for common use.
62. (b) Thw word ‘exaggerate’ means amplify, inflate, elaborate 82. (d) Soporific means sleep inducing. It can not be replaced
etc. which is similar in meaning to ‘overstate’. with other options. There is not much use of context in
63. (d) The word ‘evident’ means obvious, clear, tangible, these types of words which have direct meaning with
distinct etc. which is nearest in meaning to ‘quite clear’. so clear options.
64. (b) The word ‘penalize’ means inflict a penalty on, which 83. (c) Allegiance is devotion or loyalty. Although option (b)
is quite similar in meaning to ‘punish’. and option (a) are close and in first sight seems to be
65. (c) The word ‘remedial’ means aimed at solving a problem right but a critical reasoning is required to reach at
which is similar in meaning to ‘corrective’. right option. As Loyalty is cause of obedience not the
66. (a) The word ‘trivial’ means not worth considering, vice-versa.
insignificant etc., which is similar in meaning to 84. (d) Salutary is 'healthy'. Something healthy is beneficial.
‘unimportant’. All other options are irrelevant. These type questions
67. (a) The word ‘ Incredible’ means beyond belief, with wide options are easy to do.
unbelievable, unimaginable etc. which is similar in 85. (b) Evoke means to 'call for' or 'to rise by a reason'. From
meaning to ‘hard to believe’. the options, (b) is the direct meaning of the word.
68. (c) The word ‘roughed out’ is a phrasal verb which means 86. (a) Flimsy is not true/ fabricated/in adequate/ without
to draw or write something without including all the solidarity and hence also means weak in the context.
details. Thus ‘drew a quick plan’ is the nearest in Impulsive can not be flimsy. Impulsive is without much
meaning to it. thought/instant.
69. (c) The word ‘abyss’ means cavity, void, a deep hollow. 87. (b) Indigent means Deprivation / poor /in need / paltry
Thus ‘sea’ is contextually nearest in meaning. means. This question can be tried with option method
70. (a) The word ‘audacity’ means daring, fearlessness, as well without actually knowing the meaning of the
bravery, spirit etc. which is the most similar in meaning word and going by the context of the sentence.
to ‘courage’. 88. (a) Abate is to reduce but not to completely remove. So
71. (d) The word ‘frenetic’ means ‘wildly excited or active’, Vanished as answer is rejected. Increased is just the
energetic, hectic, fast and furious etc. opposite in sense. Stabilized is to remain at same status
72. (a) The word ‘copious’ means abundant, plentiful, or as it is.
extensive, lavish etc. 89. (a) Implacable is stubborn / not relenting/ unappeasable/
73. (b) The word ‘impervious’ means untouched, resistant, not pleasing / inflexible/unbending. Now it is clear the
unaffected, unvulnerable etc. option (a) is the answer.
74. (c) The word ‘elicit’ means draw out, extract, obtain, 90. (c) Insulting behavior is insolent behavior. Violent behavior
provoke etc. can not be counted as disrespectful it is extreme
75. (b) The word ‘Lucrative’ means gainful, remunerative, well- one.Yes; disrespect can be a reason for violent behavior.
paid which is most similar in meaning to ‘profitable’. 91. (a) Pragmatic is fast replacing 'practical' in Standard English
76. (c) Vivid means presented in very clear/distinct way. From Usage. Cleverness may or may not be a part of pragmatic
the options detailed is the other option which can conduct.
replace but only if 'clear' as option is not available. 92. (c) Grades are different levels and gradient implies slope
Also 'detailed' can be confusing as well. So it is not the or inclination. Acclivity is another word for upward
gradient that appears in exams frequently.
best choice. Ambiguous is opposite for the Vivid.
93. (b) Deplorable is regrettable. The same word appeared in
'Categorical' is without any condition. 2010.
77. (d) Deplore means to disapprove /to condemn /to regret. 94. (c) Proscribe is to abstain/to ban /to restrict/to confine.
Deprive means lack of something. Implored is to beg Presence of direct meaning in the options makes it an
impatiently. Deny is to refuse. So clear choice is easy answer.
'regretted' as this is direct meaning of the word. 95. (b) Dormant is inactive/slow/passive. Have you ever heard
-Dormant partner in business.
78. (d) Frugal is someone who spends economically. Option
96. (c) Equivocate is to talk in confusing manner/giving
(d) is correct synonym for it. Other options are having misleading statements/ not explicit.
EBD_7348
97. (d) Mendacious is intentionally untrue or false. Options 125. (c) Industrious means diligent, busy, active or productive.
are not confusing either. Ants are one of the smallest creatures but they render
98. (b) Benediction is blessings given in the end of proceedings some of the biggest lessons of life; they are always
of church. A ceremonial divine prayer is also called busy in gathering food and finding shelter; they always
benediction. move in a queue and remain in groups.
99. (c) Innocuous is harmless /innocent/ blunt. 126. (b) Wholesome means nourishing, nutritious, natural or
100. (a) Inveigh is to attack with words /to use violent language healthy. Wholesome food containing nutrients such
/to criticize. Option (b) is only second best. as carbohydrates, proteins, minerals, vitamins and fats
101. (d) Befog is to muddle /to confuse/to deviate/to are necessary for all-round development of a child.
amalgamate/to puzzle. All other options are not correct. 127. (c) Futility means pointlessness, useless, vainness or
102. (a) Ingenuous means candid, frank, honest, innocent and ineffectiveness. It’s quite an agreeable fact that our
naive. ancient civilizations have guided us to this point but
103. (b) Enormity means vastness, huge, extent and large. we are only turning them into heaps of vainness.
104. (d) Exaggeration means amplification, overstatement, 128. (c) Eulogy means praise, tribute or acclamation.
hyperbole and embellishment. Shakespeare is a versatile genius of English Literature,
105. (c) Insolvent means bankrupt, ruined and in debt. who has written so many dramas; in one of the drama
106. (c) Induces means persuades, insist and provoke. he has revealed the tribute paid by Mark Antony to
107. (d) Authentic means genuine, real, valid and dependable. Julius Caesar; Mark Antony was a good friend, relative
108. (b) Cut Out means suited, suitable, appropriate, matched and successor of Julius Caesar.
and apt. 129. (b) Unique means exceptional, distinctive, inimitable or
109. (b) Reprimanded means scolded severely, warning, talking exclusive. Gandhi known as the ‘father of the nation’
to, telling off and slap on the wrist. stepped into the struggle for independence since 1918
110. (d) Apprehend means fear, catch, arrest, detain and after returning from South Africa.
capture. 130. (a) Intervention means interference, involvement, intrusion
or intercession. Positive involvement or participation
111. (c) Heritage means things we have from the past,
of another person is required to complete a work.
inheritance, legacy, tradition, birthright and custom.
131. (c) Discern means determine, detect, discriminate or
112. (d) Momentous means enormous, important, significant,
recognize. Microscope is an instrument which enlarges
historic or crucial.
the smallest objects when viewed through it; it has a
113. (b) Deteriorated means grew worse, decline, depreciate,
slide on which the objects are placed for detection.
go down or worsen.
132. (b) The word rancour (noun) means bitterness or
114. (c) Insipid means dull, bland, colourless, trite or
resentfulness which is long standing. Option (a) dislike
unexpecting. means to detest which is a verb. Option (b) hatred is a
115. (c) Scarcity means insufficiency, shortage, lack, dearth or noun and has a similar meaning to the word rancour.
paucity. Division means separation or partition. Criticism means
116. (c) Adversity means time of trouble, hardship, difficulty, condemnation. Thus, we see that out of the list
misfortune or danger. provided, the closest meaning to rancour is option (c),
117. (c) Obliging means thankful, considerate, willing, agreeable ‘hatred’.
or courteous. 133. (b) The word isolated is an adjective which means cut-off
118. (a) Running into means meeting by chance, interested on or lonely. Option (a), ‘destroyed’ is an adjective which
or keen on. means devastated. Option (b), ‘separated from others’
119. (a) Charismatic means exceptionally fascinating, alluring, also seems very close to the word lonely. Battered
enigmatic, captivating or charming. means shabby and tattered which has no connection
120. (b) Engrossed means absorbed, occupied, immersed, with the word lonely. The word devastated means
gripped or engaged. destroyed. Out of the given synonyms, the closest to
121. (b) Indefatigable means tireless, unflagging, remorseless isolated is option (b), ‘separated’ from others.
or inexorable. 134. (c) The word in question, ‘columns’ gives a picture of
122. (c) Dignity means honour, self-respect, pride or decorum. vertical straight lines. Another meaning would be an
It is one’s right to lead life with self-respect, dignity or upright pillar, typically cylindrical, supporting an arch,
pride. entablature, or other structure or standing alone as a
123. (a) Singular means peculiar, extraordinary, remarkable or monument. Option (a), ‘statue’ means a carved or cast
outstanding. Europe, America and Japan are the group figure of a person or animal, especially one that is life-
of nations who have achieved a lot remarkably in the size or larger. Option (b), ‘arches’ pertains to a curved
fields of science and technology with distinctive masonry construction for spanning an opening,
strength and action. consisting of a number of wedge like stones, bricks.
124. (a) Age means era, period, times or epoch. The period in Pillars means tall vertical structures of stone, wood, or
metal. Murals mean paintings or other works of art
which we live is preoccupied by the forces of science
executed directly on a wall. Thus, we derive from the
and technology. above explanations that pillars is the closest in meaning
to the word columns.
Synonyms E-13
135. (b) The word block is a verb which means to obstruct or 144. (d) 'Translate' means to express in another language.
jam, hinder etc. Alter means to change or modify. The 'Hypnotise' refers to capturing the attention or to
next option, obstruct means to hinder, block very similar fascinate. 'Attack' means to act against. All these words
to the word in question. The word" improve" means to do not relate to the meaning of the word 'Proselytise'.
make better which has no direct relation to the word Proselytise directly implies to convert or attempt to
block. Spoil means to mess up or ruin. Thus, we see convert from one religion to another. So, 'convert' is
that the correct answer is option (b), ‘obstruct’. the best answer.
136. (a) The word abruptly means suddenly and surprisingly, 145. (c) 'Preposterous' means unreasonable and 'absurd' is the
unexpectedly. Suddenly means again the same as nearest in the meaning of the word, fitting best to the
before, quickly and abruptly. Sharply means briskly or statement.
precisely. Favorably means suitably. Slightly means 146. (d) 'Callous' means not caring about other people' feelings
somewhat or to some extent. Thus, after inspecting all or suffering. The best synonym to the word is 'Unfeeling'
the items, we conclude that option (a), ‘suddenly’ is which means lacking sensitivity towards others.
the correct answer.
'Cursed' relates to hateful and 'Unkind' relates to harsh,
137. (d) The word in question, scintillating means sparkling or
so these do not fit best with the meaning of the word.
shining brightly. Fascinating means charming or
147. (a) 'Verdict' means a formal answer or decision of the jury
attractive. Unforgettable means memorable, treasured ,
cherished etc. beautiful means pretty or good looking. given to the court. 'Judgement' also means the decision
When we analyze the above words we notice that of a court. So, it is the nearest in the meaning of the
scintillating is closest in meaning to sparkling. word 'verdict'. Whereas 'Voice' is an (informal) supposed
138. (a) The word in this item, pact means a formal agreement utterance of words. 'Prediction' means to forecast which
between individuals or parties. Monarchy means is closer to the opposite of the word 'verdict'.
kingship or autocracy. Lease means a contract by which 148. (a) 'Disproved' and Condemned' are the opposite to the
one party conveys land, property, services, etc. to meaning of the word 'Corroborated'. Corroborated
another for a specified time, usually in return for a means to provide evidence to support a statement. So,
periodic payment. Trend means tendency or inclination. 'Confirmed' refers to the correct answer among the
Going through the words and meanings, we see that options.
pact means treaty. So, option (a) is the correct answer. 149. (a) 'Obscure' means not important. 'Wild' and 'Arrogant'
139. (c) Prudent means cautious or sensible. Skillful means do not relate to the word in the statement. Therefore,
expert or masterly. Wealthy means rich. Careful means 'Rational' meaning logical is the appropriate answer
vigilant, watchful. Dishonest means deceitful or among the options.
untruthful. It's clear that the synonym for prudent 150. (a) The statement has already praised the story by the
would be option (c), ‘careful’. word 'fantastic', so the answer cannot be 'praiseworthy'.
140. (c) Converge means meet or join. Separate means to part. 'Credible' directly relates to believable or convincing.
Intersect means to divide or cut. Merge means to join. So, 'Believable' is the appropriate answer.
Diverge means to move away. Thus, we see that 151. (d) 'Hazardous' means that can be dangerous or cause
converge is similar to ‘merge’. Therefore, ‘merge’ is the damage. 'Dangerous' relates to the possibility of causing
answer. harm and in the given statement, catching snakes by
141. (d) The word zealot means supporter or believer. Option untrained people is sure shot call for damage. So, it is
(a), ‘enthusiastic’ means excited or eager. Brave means the best answer.
courageous or heroic. Timid means nervous, shy or 152. (b) Garrulous means excessively talkative, especially on
fearful. Fanatic means extremist or uncompromising. unimportant matters. Therefore, talkative is the nearest
Now, when we look at the sentence, we see that violence in meaning or synonym of Garrulous.
is generally undertaken by fanatics. Thus, option (d) is 153. (d) Fortitude means mental and emotional strength in
the correct answer. facing difficulty, adversity, danger, or temptation
142. (c) 'Contention' means an angry agreement which is the courageously. Forbearance means being patient and
opposite of the word 'amity'. 'Bondage' means being keeping self-control. Therefore, forbearance is the
tied to, which does not relate to the meaning of the nearest in meaning or synonym of fortitude.
word 'amity'. 'Understanding' is closer to the meaning 154. (d) Tacit means something understood or implied without
being stated. Implied means suggested but not directly
of 'amity' but it rather means mutual understanding in a
expressed. Therefore, implied is the nearest in meaning
relation. 'Friendship' is the exact and appropriate
or synonym of tacit.
synonym of the underlined word 'amity'. 155. (b) Meagre means very small or not enough in amounts or
143. (b) Aggressive' is closer to the opposite of the word 'extinct'. numbers. Scanty means small or insufficient in quantity
'Scattered' means spread far apart. 'Feeble' means lacking or amount. Therefore, scanty is the nearest in meaning
strength. All of these are irrelevant to the meaning of or synonym of meagre.
the word 'extinct'. 'Non-existent' means having no living 156. (d) Exhilarate means to cause to feel happily refreshed and
members (like dinosaurs) which is exactly what the energetic. Overjoyed means to be extremely happy and
statement is talking about. So, 'non-existent' is the best joyous about something. Therefore, overjoyed is the
answer. nearest in meaning or synonym of exhilarated.
EBD_7348
157. (d) Deafening means a noise which is so loud as to make it 170. (c) Enamoured means impressed with or enthusiastic about
impossible to hear anything else. something.
158. (c) Exemplary refers to someone or something serving as a 171. (c) Yellow journalism is a type of journalism that presents
desirable model. Commendable means someone or little or no legitimate well-researched news and instead
something deserving praise. uses eye-catching headlines to sell more newspapers.
159. (d) Restive means unable to stay still, silent, or submissive, Techniques may include exaggerations of news events,
especially because of boredom or dissatisfaction. scandal-mongering or sensationalism.
Impatient means having or showing a tendency to be 172. (c) ‘Sever’ means to ‘cut off’.
quickly irritated or provoked. 173. (a) ‘Counter’ means ‘to oppose’.
160. (a) Dearth means a scarcity or lack of something. So in the 174. (b) Indiscriminately means ‘without distinguishing’.
given sentence dearth means that there is absolutely 175. (b) ‘Acumen’ means’ sharpness, ‘awareness or cleverness’.
no scarcity of talent in the country. 176. (d) ‘Candid’ means ‘straight forward or frank’.
161. (b) Retired in this sentence means to take a break from the 187. (d) 'Sycophancy' means 'obsequious behaviour towards
day's work. someone important in order to gain advantage' so,
162. (b) Tactical means relating to or constituting actions 'flattery' will be its correct synonym.
carefully planned to gain a specific military end. 188. (b) 'Attack' means 'to take aggressive action against
Strategic means relating to the gaining of overall or someone'. In this sentence, 'assault' is the best suited
long-term military advantage. synonym as its means 'a concerned attempt to do
163. (d) Deviate means to depart from an established course. something demanding or damage someone or
Differ means to be of different opinion. something'.
164. (b) Debilitated means to make (someone) very weak and 189. (c) 'Grant' means 'agree to give or allow (something
infirm. requested) to'. So 'allowed' will be its correct synonym.
165. (d) Laudable refers to an action, idea, or aim deserving 190. (d) 'Deliver' when used in sentence which talks about a
praise and commendation. Praiseworthy means statement or a verdict means 'state in a formal manner'
deserving approval and admiration. so, here, 'pronounce' which means 'declare or
166. (a) Reproach means to express someone one's disapproval announce in a formal or solemn way' will be the correct
of or disappointment in their actions. Rebuke means to synonym.
express sharp disapproval or criticism of (someone) 191. (a) 'Indissoluble' means 'unable to be destroyed' so, 'firmly'
because of their behaviour or actions. will be its correct synonym.
167. (b) Hospitality here refers to the friendly and generous 192. (c) 'Improving' means 'making or becoming better' so,
reception and entertainment of guests, visitors, or 'becoming better' will be its correct synonym.
strangers. 193. (c) 'Interlocutor' is a person who takes part in dialogue or
168. (a) Astronomical here refers to enormously or inconceivably conversation so, 'dialogist' will be its correct synonym.
large or great. Exorbitant means exceeding the bounds of 194. (b) 'Lavishly' means 'in a very generous or extravagant
custom, propriety, or reason, especially in amount or manner' so, 'generously' will be its correct synonym.
extent. Therefore, exorbitant is the synonym of 195. (c) The word 'fiscal' denotes a financial year so, 'financial'
astronomical. will be the correct synonym.
169. (b) Appropriate means suitable or proper in th e 196. (b) 'Abundant' means 'in large quantity' so, 'plentiful' will
circumstances. be its correct synonym.
Antonyms 2
DIRECTIONS : Each of the following items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words. Select the word that is most
nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.
1. INORDINATE 13. STOICAL

(a) Distant (b) Facile (a) Urbane (b) Flinching
(c) Moderate (d) Attractive [2006-I] (c) Worldly (d) Hostile [2006-II]
2. REDOUBTABLE 14. DISPARAGE
(a) Truthful (b) Crafty (a) To cause ambiguity (b) To add to confusion
(c) Widely travelled (d) Ordinary [2006-I] (c) To spread rumours (d) To adulate [2006-II]
3. CONSANGUINE
15. SWINGEING
(a) Of different kind (b) Invisible
(a) Tactful (b) Extremely hot weather
(c) Urbane (d) Untenanted [2006-I]
(c) Little in amount (d) Hindrance [2006-II]
4. ON THE BLINK
(a) Apologetically (b) Blindly 16. RICKETY
(c) Legally (d) In working order (a) Stable (b) Humid
[2006-I] (c) Rollicking (d) Pleasing [2006-II]
5. PREDILECTION 17. PINNACLE
(a) Analogy (b) Anticlimax (a) Discipline (b) Lowest point
(c) Antipathy (d) Argument [2006-I] (c) Delightful (d) Comfort [2006-II]
6. SENILE 18. PROTRACT
(a) Suspicious (b) Mentally alert (a) Not to display
(c) Corrupt (d) Affluent [2006-I] (b) To indulge in extravagance
7. BLITHESOME (c) Not to be careful about future
(a) Graceful (b) Sullen (d) To cut short [2007-I]
(c) Adventurous (d) Mammoth [2006-I] 19. DEBILITATE
8. ADULATION (a) To argue (b) To strengthen
(a) Confusion (b) Inertia (c) To guess (d) To conspire [2007-I]
(c) Consolidation (d) Condemnation [2006-I]
20. PERTINACIOUS
9. PREPOSSESSING
(a) Irretrievable (b) Insipid
(a) Incredible (b) Arousing envy
(c) Irresolute (d) Reproof [2007-I]
(c) Unattractive (d) Recent [2006-I]
21. IMPECUNIOUSNESS
10. REPUDIATE
(a) Smoothness (b) Carefree nature
(a) Explain (b) Criticize
(c) Affluence (d) Stability [2007-I]
(c) Accept (d) Weaken [2006-II]
22. INIMICAL
11. GIMCRACK
(a) Notorious (b) Outstanding (a) Supportive (b) Inquisitive
(c) Humour (d) Inccorrigible [2006-II] (c) Lack-lustre (d) Coarse [2007-I]
12. LACONIC 23. SCINTILLA
(a) Voluble (b) Jealous (a) Unscientific (b) Huge quantity
(c) Exhausted (d) Timid [2006-II] (c) Mealy-mouthed (d) Unpromising [2007-I]
EBD_7348
24. KNAVE 41. LACONIC
(a) Honest (b) Ignorant (a) Sullen (b) Handsome
(c) Timid (d) Belligerent [2007-I] (c) Verbose (d) Sharp memory [2008-I]
25. APOCRYPHAL 42. SLOTHFUL
(a) Credulous (b) Highly skilled
(a) Confusing (b) Modern
(c) Without resources (d) Sprightly [2008-I]
(c) True (d) Unsophisticated
[2007-I] 43. EPHEMERAL [2008-II]
26. SAGACIOUS (a) Temporal (b) Stable
(a) Timid (c) Permanent (d) Earthly
44. OBLIGATORY [2008-II]
(b) Lacking sense of enterprise
(a) Doubtful (b) Voluntary
(c) Financially poor (c) Sincerely (d) Faithfully
(d) Showing poor judgement [2007-II] 45. CIRCUMSPECT [2008-II]
27. CANTANKEROUS (a) Careless (b) Pusillanimous
(a) Convivial (b) Pliable (c) Reticent (d) Hostile
(c) Pessimistic (d) Bold [2007-II] 46. OBSCURE [2008-II]
28. GARRULOUS (a) Suitable (b) Apt
(a) Tiresome (b) Harsh (c) Thalamus (d) Clear
(c) Light (d) Quiet [2007-II] 47. REPULSIVE [2008-II]
29. PROFANE (a) Attractive (b) Colourful
(c) Unattractive (d) Striking
(a) Sacred (b) Artless
48. KINDLED [2008-II]
(c) Rigid (d) Aspersion [2007-II] (a) Extinguished (b) Reduced
30. ABSTRUSE (c) Weakened (d) Ignited
(a) Crazy (b) Calm 49. VITAL [2008-II]
(c) Obvious (d) Boundless [2007-II] (a) Trivial (b) Peripheral
31. ABHORRENT (c) Optional (d) Superficial
(a) Terse (b) Attractive 50. PENURY [2008-II]
(c) Mature (d) Usual [2007-II] (a) Education (b) Laziness
32. IMPERTINENT (c) Wealth (d) Ignorance
51. INHIBIT [2008-II]
(a) Polite (b) Perturbing
(a) Pamper (b) Breed
(c) Curious (d) Steady [2007-II] (c) Accept (d) Promote
33. EVANESCENT 52. EXPLOIT [2009-I]
(a) Scanty (b) Lasting (a) Utilize (b) Alert
(c) Anguish (d) Scattered [2007-II] (c) Support (d) Neglect
34. IMBROGLIO
53. DETRIMENTAL [2009-I]
(a) Pleasant situation (b) Critical
(a) Demolition (b) Aversion
(c) Ambiguity (d) Amnesty [2007-II]
(c) Beneficial (d) Bad
35. SINGULAR
54. SHARP [2009-I]
(a) Nearby (b) Ordinary
(c) Wide (d) Modern [2008-I] (a) Bleak (b) Blunt
36. RECLUSE (c) Bright (d) Blond
(a) Criminal (b) Wise 55. CONDEMN [2009-I]
(c) Gregarious (d) Timid [2008-I] (a) Censure (b) Approve
37. BE NO SLOUCH (c) Recommend (d) Praise
56. RELUCTANT [2009-I]
(a) Inefficient (b) Honest
(a) Avoiding (b) Anxious
(c) Saintly (d) Well-known [2008-I]
(c) Refuse (d) Eager
38. OPPROBRIUM
57. INTRICATE [2009-I]
(a) Very easy (b) Suspenseful
(a) Complicated (b) Simple
(c) Modern (d) Praise [2008-I]
(c) Colourful (d) Good
39. SOLICITOUS
58. PENURY [2009-I]
(a) Mild (b) Showing no concern for
(a) Pompous (b) Luxury
(c) Grateful (d) Cheerful [2008-I]
(c) Follow (d) Argue
40. UNDER DURESS
59. EXPOSTULATE [2009-I]
(a) Dry (b) Volition
(a) Protest (b) Agree
(c) Affluence (d) Lack of commitment
(c) Follow (d) Argue
[2008-I]
Antonyms E-17
60. RELUCTANT [2009-II] 76. What the critic said about this new book was ABSURD ?
(a) Optimistic (b) Unwilling [2010-II]
(c) Enthusiastic (d) Excited (a) Interesting (b) Impartial
61. SCARCITY [2009-II] (c) Sensible (d) Ridiculous
(a) Plenty (b) Prosperity 77. The issue raised in the form can be IGNORED. [2010-II]
(c) Facility (d) Simplicity (a) Removed (b) Considered
62. THICK SKINNED [2009-II] (c) Set aside (d) Debated
(a) Thankless (b) Sensitive 78. After swallowing the frog had become LETHARGIC.
(c) Pliant (d) Resolute [2010-II]
63. BLEAK [2009-II] (a) Aggressive (b) Dull
(a) Bright (b) Confusing (c) Active (d) Hungry
(c) Uncertain (d) Great 79. For the first time I saw him speaking RUDELY to her
64. STERN [2009-II] [2010-II]
(a) Violent (b) Generous (a) Softly (b) Gently
(c) Mild (d) Forgiving (c) Politely (d) Slowly
65. SUPERFICIAL [2009-II] 80. Dust storms and polluted rivers have made it HAZARDOUS
(a) Profound (b) Difficult
to breathe the air and drink the water. [2010-II]
(c) Secretive (d) Mystical
(a) Convenient (b) Risky
66. ELEGANCE [2009-II]
(c) Wrong (d) Safe
(a) Balance (b) Indelicacy
81. Only hard work can ENRICH our country. [2010-II]
(c) Clumsiness (d) Savagery
67. COARSE [2009-II] (a) Impoverish (b) Improve
(a) Pleasing (b) Rude (c) Increase (d) Involve
(c) Polished (d) Soft 82. All care is FUTILE in a cureless case. [2011-I]
(a) Waste (b) Expensive
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 68-131) : Each of the following items consists
of a sentence followed by four words. Select the antonym of the (c) Useful (d) Cheap
word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the 83. REVELATION of facts became very easy when I investigated
context. the case. [2011-I]
68. He is a man of EXTRAVAGANT habits. [2010-I] (a) Rejection (b) Elimination
(a) Sensible (b) Careful (c) Concealment (d) Introduction
(c) Economical (d) Balanced 84. The story you have just told is INCREDIBLE. [2011-I]
69. They employ only DILIGENT workers. [2010-I]
(a) Credible (b) Fantastic
(a) Unskilled (b) Lazy
(c) Careless (d) Idle (c) Probable (d) Believable
70. His success in the preliminary examination made him 85. His assignments have taken him to many EXOTIC locations
COMPLACENT. [2010-I] around the world. [2011-I]
(a) Discontented (b) Self-satisfied (a) Wonderful (b) Cosmopolitan
(c) Curious (d) Militant
71. In this competition, he has become the VICTOR. (c) Irrelevant (d) Common
[2010-I] 86. He has given up his VICIOUS habits. [2011-I]
(a) Beaten (b) Frustrated (a) Godly (b) Virtuous
(c) Disappointed (d) Vanquished (c) Sublime (d) Friendly
72. His behaviour at social gatherings is LAUDABLE.
[2010-I] 87. The doctor found the patient INERT. [2011-I]
(a) Condemnable (b) Impolite (a) Active (b) Lazy
(c) Unpleasant (d) Repulsive (c) Strong (d) Resolute
73. The characters in this story are not all FICTITIOUS.
88. The issue was raised TANGENTIALLY in the negotiations.
[2010-I]
(a) Common (b) Factual [2011-I]
(c) Real (d) Genuine (a) Partly (b) Forcefully
74. The RELUCTANCE of the officer was obvious. [2010-I] (c) Candidly (d) Fitfully
(a) Eagerness (b) Hesitation
(c) Enjoyment (d) Unwillingness 89. ESCALATING prices are causing hardship to the poor.
75. He is a GENEROUS man. [2010-I] [2011-I]
(a) Stingy (b) Uncharitable (a) Fixed (b) Fluctuating
(c) Selfish (d) Ignoble
(c) Falling (d) Reasonable
EBD_7348
90. I have MALICE towards none. [2011-I] 104. They spent a DISTURBED night after hearing the tragic
(a) Sympathy (b) Goodwill news. [2012-I]
(a) Restless (b) Sleepless
(c) Friendship (d) Attraction
(c) Mournful (d) Peaceful
91. The boy comes of an AFFLUENT family. [2011-I] 105. We have CREATED a beautiful new house from out of the
(a) Poor (b) Ordinary old ruin. [2012-I]
(c) Infamous (d) Backward (a) Destroyed (b) Built
(c) Constructed (d) Planned
92. A few heavenly talents DARKEN the world in each
106. A large number of designer clothes are REVOLTING.
generation. [2011-II]
[2012-I]
(a) brighten (b) please
(a) Inviting (b) Beautiful
(c) enlighten (d) glamorize
(c) Fashionable (d) Delightful
93. An ICY reception greeted the arrivals. [2011-II]
107. Though they are twins, they look very DIFFERENT.
(a) hostile (b) warm
[2012-I]
(c) pleasing (d) strange
(a) Regular (b) Same
94. The young athlete is ENERGETIC enough to run ten
(c) Similar (d) Uniform
thousand meters at a stretch. [2011-II]
108. RECESSION is a major cause of unemployment. [2012-I]
(a) inactive (b) dull
(a) Education (b) Inflation
(c) gloomy (d) lethargic
(c) Poverty (d) Computerization
95. He has a SECURE position in the entrance examination.
109. He finally CONCEDED that he was involved in smuggling.
[2011-II] [2012-I]
(a) rigid (b) precarious (a) Admitted (b) Accepted
(c) static (d) secondary (c) Denied (d) Concealed
96. The accused was ACQUITTED of the charge. [2011-II] 110. The accused emphatically DENIED the charge in the court.
(a) held guilty (b) betrayed [2012-I]
(c) involved (d) offended (a) Accepted (b) Agreed
97. It is COMPULSORY that all members of the board be present (c) Asserted (d) Affirmed
at the meeting. [2011-II] 111. This cloth is a COARSE of touch. [2012-I]
(a) optional (b) contrary (a) Delicate (b) Rough
(c) obligatory (d) conditional (c) Painful (d) Harsh
98. Events ultimately led to LUGUBRIOUS ending. [2011-II] 112. A small ALTERCATION between the children started off a
(a) happy (b) hopeful riot. [2012-II]
(c) helpful (d) reassuring (a) quarrel (b) friendly discussion
99. He ACCELERATED the speed of his car. [2011-II] (c) contest (d) race
(a) retarded (b) reviewed 113. He agreed reluctantly to sign the form but looked ILL AT
(c) recorded (d) restored EASE. [2012-II]
100. The criminal was known to the police by VARIOUS names. (a) embarrassed (b) comfortable
[2011-II] (c) welcome (d) easy
(a) separate (b) distinct 114. My mother has been working hard for the last two weeks
(c) identical (d) similar and she feels RUN DOWN. [2012-II]
101. The police praised the METICULOUS arrangements made (a) energetic (b) cold
by the organizers to receive the guest at the airport (c) emotional (d) morbid
[2011-II] 115. The three states signed a pact to have COLLECTIVE
(a) haphazard (b) random economy. [2012-II]
(c) ridiculous (d) shabby (a) distributive (b) disintegrative
102. The COMPLAINANT was not supportive of providing all (c) individual (d) divided
facts in the court. [2012-I] 116. He was deeply hurt by her CURT reply. [2012-II]
(a) Defendant (b) Advocate (a) abrupt (b) short
(c) Indulgence (d) Servant (c) expansive (d) rude
103. Living in a SOLITARY place brings in some kind of 117. He was asked to ACCELERATE the pace of work.
satisfaction. [2012-I] [2012-II]
(a) Limited (b) Exotic (a) check (b) control
(c) Healthy (d) Populous (c) slacken (d) supervise
Antonyms E-19
118. The child was ABDUCTED when he was going to school. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 132-141) :Each of the following items consists
[2012-II] of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select
(a) seized (b) set free the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital
(c) kidnapped (d) ransomed letters) as per the context.
119. The baby has a very DELICATE body. [2012-II] [2013-II]
(a) crude (b) strong 132. His CANDID remarks impressed the authorities
(c) hard (d) bony (a) Blunt (b) Guarded
120. The government has ENHANCED the tuition fees in schools (c) Sincere (d) Unconventional
and colleges. [2012-II] 133. The guilty appealed to the jury to CONDONE his punishment.
(a) magnified (b) aggravated (a) Accept (b) Forgive
(c) decreased (d) augmented (c) Condemn (d) Criticize
121. He aims at PERFECTION in whatever job he undertakes. 134. His family SEVERED ties with him for marrying inter-caste.
[2012-II] (a) Joined (b) Included
(a) deficiency (b) immaturity (c) Detached (d) Disrupted
(c) badness (d) completeness 135. It is easy to understand his FUZZY thoughts.
122. Her illness ENERVATED the whole family. [2013-I] (a) Misty (b) Vague
(a) Enhanced (b) Exhausted (c) Clear (d) Useful
(c) Weakened (d) Energized 136. He drove his car through SLIMY road to reach your office.
123. The teacher INSERTED another picture to illustrate the point. (a) Ugly (b) Clean
[2013-I] (c) Beautiful (d) Slippery
(a) Deducted (b) Added 137. We are ANXIOUS to avoid any problems with regard to this.
(c) Removed (d) Reclined (a) Cool (b) Composed
124. The committee rejected his LUDICROUS proposal. (c) Careless (d) Worried
[2013-I] 138. The railway lines are EXTENDED and we are quite happy
(a) Absurd (b) Reasonable about it.
(c) Farcical (d) Stupid (a) Protracted (b) Widened
125. Children ADORE the cricket players. [2013-I] (c) Curtailed (d) Elongated
(a) Discuss (b) Condemn 139. There was a fire this morning. They were lucky to ESCAPE it.
(c) Benefit (d) Check (a) Arrest (b) Elude
126. These people are sunk in abysmal ignorance and their (c) Evade (d) Conceive
140. Domestic violence is a very INHUMAN act.
illiteracy is simply COLOSSAL. [2013-I]
(a) Indifferent (b) Compassionate
(a) Intolerable (b) Huge (c) Terrible (d) Ferocious
(c) Small (d) Silly 141. His ELOQUENT speech helped him bag the award.
127. Previously per capita income used to INCREASE by seven (a) Lucid (b) Vivid
rupees per year. [2013-I] (c) Short (d) Inarticulate
(a) Dwindle (b) Diminish DIRECTIONS (Qs. 142-145) : Each question in this section
(c) Mitigate (d) Profit consists of a word printed in capital letters followed by words
listed as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Choose from these, the word that
128. In the modern times, we find that most social relationships has most nearly the meaning opposite to the word in capital
are rather ARTIFICIAL. [2013-I] letters and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet
(a) Decent (b) Genuine accordingly.
(c) Excellent (d) Adorable [2014-I]
129. Social LIBERTY may be instrumental in the emotional growth 142. FRAIL
of a person. [2013-I] (a) strong (b) big
(a) Constraint (b) Slavery (c) old (d) weak
143. INDIGENOUS
(c) Compulsion (d) Obligation
(a) genuine (b) foreign
130. Education is most ESSENTIAL for the all-round development (c) indigent (d) indignant
of a person. [2013-I] 144. POVERTY
(a) Unimportant (b) Disdainful (a) prosperity (b) adversary
(c) Customary (d) Redundant (c) adversity (d) diversity
131. He was extremely MODEST in company. [2013-I] 145. WHOLESOME
(a) complete (b) unhealthy
(a) Curious (b) Virtuous
(c) incomprehensible (d) few
(c) Unassuming (d) Immodest
EBD_7348
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 146-155) : In this section, each item consists 159. The answers to the question were coherent.
of a sentence with an underlined word. It is followed by four (a) relaxed (b) loose
words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the (c) consistent (d) disconnected
underlined word. Choose the word and indicate your response 160. It was no altruistic motive that prompted him to help her.
in the Answer Sheet. (a) selfish (b) inhuman
(c) brutal (d) wicked
[2014-II]
146. His short but pointed speech was applauded by all sections DIRECTIONS (Qs. 161-171) : Each item in this section consists
of the audience. of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is
followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly
(a) disapproved (b) misunderstood
opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
(c) praised (d) welcomed
147. In ancient India, scholars had no interest in political power [2016-I]
161. He handled the machine with deft fingers.
or material growth.
(a) delicate (b) sturdy
(a) internal (b) spiritual
(c) quick (d) clumsy
(c) psychic (d) celestial
162. I was deeply affected by his urbane behaviour.
148. A friendly dog met us at the farm gate.
(a) rural (b) rude
(a) helpful (b) understanding
(c) irrational (d) indifferent
(c) quiet (d) hostile
163. His timidity proved costly.
149. He is extremely intelligent but proud.
(a) arrogance (b) boldness
(a) dull (b) weak
(c) skilfulness (d) cunning
(c) ignorant (d) arrogant
164. Arrangements were made to handle the mammoth gathering
150. The young leader was reluctant to shoulder the tactfully.
responsibilities of the ministerial office. (a) significant (b) small
(a) wanting (b) willing (c) unruly (d) noisy
(c) anxious (d) eager 165. He was engrossed in his work when I walked in.
151. He abandoned his family. (a) occupied (b) inattentive
(a) supported (b) encouraged (c) engaged (d) absent
(c) pleased (d) saved 166. These are the main points of the preceding paragraph.
152. History abounds in instances of courage. (a) following (b) previous
(a) shines (b) lacks (c) first (d) last
(c) suffices (d) fails 167. He made a shrewd guess.
153. Adversity teaches man to be humble and self-reliant.
(a) clever (b) wild
(a) Sincerity (b) Animosity
(c) incorrect (d) discriminating
(c) Curiosity (d) Prosperity
168. He is suffering from a severe cough.
154. Like poverty, affluence can sometimes create its own
(a) violent (b) mild
problems.
(c) bad (d) continuous
(a) indigence (b) opulence
169. Cumulatively, the effect of these drugs is quite bad.
(c) sorrow (d) exuberance
(a) Individually (b) Obviously
155. The habit of squandering money should not be encouraged.
(c) Clearly (d) Collectively
(a) discarding (b) hoarding
170. He was conspicuous because of his colourful shirt.
(c) donating (d) stealing
(a) charming (b) ugly
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 156-160) : Each item in this section consists
(c) small (d) unnoticeable
171. He hates these continual arguments with his friend.
Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined
(a) repeated (b) irrational
(c) occasional (d) regular
[2015-II] DIRECTIONS (Qs. 172-176): Each item in this section consists
156. He concealed his thoughts very cleverly. of a sentence with an underlined ord or words followed by four
(a) emphasized (b) expressed words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words
(c) affirmed (d) revealed that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
157. The proposal was denounced by one and all. [2016-II]
(a) renounced (b) recommended 172. The culprit was sentenced by the Court.
(c) announced (d) commended (a) acquitted (b) punished
158. She was skeptical about the safety of the new drug. (c) relieved (d) pardoned
(a) doubtful (b) certain 173. Thrifty as he is, he can well afford to live within his means.
(c) hopeful (d) sanguine (a) careless (b) instinctive
(c) sentimental (d) extravagant
Antonyms E-21
174. Do not give him a responsible job, he is immature. 187. He is a loving father and takes great delight in his children.
(a) thoughtful (b) cautious (a) revolt (b) dissatisfaction
(c) calculating (d) seasoned (c) enjoyment (d) disgust
175. I was prepared to show my hand provided he agreed to do 188. He was quite concerned about his son's career.
the same. (a) unrelated (b) indifferent
(a) to yield (b) to shake hands (c) dispassionate (d) carefree
(c) to conceal my plan (d) to lose my ground 189. They are confident of success.
176. Akbar the great was a sagacious ruler. (a) imprudent (b) impatient
(a) haughty (b) cunning (c) diffident (d) reluctant
(c) rude (d) unwise 190. We carried on the search for the missing person.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 177-181): In this section, each item consists (a) delayed (b) reconsidered
of a sentence with a word underlined and is followed by four (c) broke up (d) called off
words. Select the word that is most opposite in meaning to the 191. This T.V. has many indigenous components.
underlined word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet (a) Indian (b) foreign
accordingly. (c) unnatural (d) genuine
[2017-I] DIRECTIONS (Qs. 192-201): Each item in this section consists
177. My first lecture in the classroom was a fiasco. of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four
(a) success (b) joy words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the
(c) fun (d) disaster underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer
178. It was indeed arduous to cross streets in New York. Sheet accordingly.
(a) pleasant (b) effortless [2018-I]
(c) interesting (d) risky 192. The country’s economy must be geared to wartime
179. Unlike his brother, he is affable. requirements.
(a) reserved (b) gullible (a) subordinated to (b) related to
(c) irritable (d) lovable (c) adjusted to (d) unlinked to
180. The birth of his child decidedly proved to be an auspicious 193. Why does fire attract insects?
event in his life.
(a) discharge (b) destroy
(a) precious (b) ominous
(c) useless (d) unforgettable (c) repel (d) remove
181. The witness corroborated word for word the statement of 194. The party was excellent, and I would like to thank all the
the victim. people concerned.
(a) accepted (b) confirmed (a) cared (b) attentive
(c) denied (d) repeated (c) dependable (d) uninvolved
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 182-191): Each item in this section consists 195. He is very serious by temperament.
of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four (a) grave (b) trivial
options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the (c) sober (d) stupid
underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer 196. There are a few miscellaneous items to discuss in this
Sheet accordingly. meeting.
[2017-II] (a) pure (b) mixed
182. My mother has been working hard for the last two weeks (c) homogenous (d) discordant
and she feels run down .
197. Due to the postal strike, the outgoing mail got delayed.
(a) morbid (b) energetic
(c) exhausted (d) emotional (a) urgent (b) incoming
183. The President condemned the act of violence during the (c) ordinary (d) speedy
celebration of the festival. 198. He had a fine ear for music.
(a) reason (b) instigation (a) small (b) close
(c) restraint (d) sobriety (c) coarse (d) smooth
184. The students made a generous contribution to the flood 199. There is no likeness between him and his brother.
relief fund.
(a) unlikeliness (b) unlikelihood
(a) niggard (b) selfish
(c) spendthrift (d) indecent (c) dissimilarity (d) disaffinity
185. He was just idle by temperament. 200. Cultural diversity in the working place is good for business.
(a) employed (b) occupied (a) uniformty (b) conformity
(c) industrious (d) happy (c) identify (d) similarity
186. Most of the decisions taken by the officer were unjust. 201. The company was liquidated within five years.
(a) serious (b) lenient (a) bankrupt (b) closed down
(c) correct (d) imbecile (c) flourishing (d) privatised
EBD_7348
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 202-206): Each item in this section consists 207. Ramesh is a very dubious character.
of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or (a) shady (b) suspicious
groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is (c) trustworthy (d) doubtful
opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your 208. Do not indulge in unmindful activities, please.
response in your Answer Sheet accordingly. (a) vigilant (b) careless
[2018-II] (c) stupid (d) fatuous
202. Too many cooks spoil the broth. 209. He is suffering from a curable disease.
(a) remediable (b) treatable
(a) tarnish (b) wreck
(c) terminal (d) operable
(c) embellish (d) upset 210. He was born on a very auspicious day.
203. He is biased against the students from cities. (a) propitious (b) fortunate
(a) open (b) prejudiced (c) ominous (d) opportune
211. He has deeper hostility towards Mohan.
(c) liked (d) impartial
(a) animosity (b) belligerence
204. It is easy to be an orthodox. (c) malice (d) friendship
(a) idolatrous (b) intelligent 212. His life is rather monotonous.
(c) malignant (d) heterodox (a) exciting (b) dreary
(c) tedious (d) uneventful
205. Permit me to present you with a book
213. Macbeth is a morally repulsive character.
(a) allow (b) enclose (a) abominable (b) attractive
(c) prohibit (d) persuade (c) obnoxious (d) ugly
206. None but the brave deserves the fair. 214. The serene beauty of Kashmir had a soothing effect on his
mind.
(a) ugly person (b) coward (a) placid (b) pleasing
(c) jealous person (d) weak person (c) tranquil (d) turbulent
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 207-216): Each item in this section consists 215. Life is transient in nature.
of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. (a) brief (b) momentary
Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined (c) eternal (d) short-lived
word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet 216. Sohan is a vain person.
accordingly. (a) modest (b) arrogant
[2019-I] (c) conceited (d) proud
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 23 (b) 45 (a) 67 (d) 89 (c) 111 (a) 133 (c) 155 (b) 177 (a) 199 (c)
2 (d) 24 (a) 46 (d) 68 (c) 90 (b) 112 (b) 134 (a) 156 (d) 178 (b) 200 (a)
3 (a) 25 (c) 47 (a) 69 (b) 91 (a) 113 (b) 135 (c) 157 (d) 179 (a) 201 (c)
4 (d) 26 (d) 48 (a) 70 (a) 92 (a) 114 (a) 136 (b) 158 (b) 180 (b) 202 (c)
5 (c) 27 (a) 49 (a) 71 (d) 93 (b) 115 (c) 137 (b) 159 (d) 181 (c) 203 (d)
6 (b) 28 (a) 50 (c) 72 (a) 94 (d) 116 (c) 138 (c) 160 (a) 182 (b) 204 (d)
7 (b) 29 (a) 51 (d) 73 (c) 95 (b) 117 (c) 139 (a) 161 (d) 183 (c) 205 (c)
8 (a) 30 (a) 52 (c) 74 (a) 96 (a) 118 (b) 140 (b) 162 (b) 184 (a) 206 (b)
9 (c) 31 (b) 53 (c) 75 (b) 97 (a) 119 (b) 141 (d) 163 (b) 185 (b) 207 (c)
10 (b) 32 (a) 54 (b) 76 (c) 98 (a) 120 (c) 142 (a) 164 (b) 186 (c) 208 (a)
11 (b) 33 (b) 55 (d) 77 (b) 99 (a) 121 (a) 143 (b) 165 (b) 187 (d) 209 (c)
12 (a) 34 (a) 56 (d) 78 (c) 100 (d) 122 (d) 144 (a) 166 (a) 188 (b) 210 (c)
13 (d) 35 (b) 57 (b) 79 (c) 101 (a) 123 (c) 145 (b) 167 (b) 189 (c) 211 (d)
14 (a) 36 (c) 58 (b) 80 (d) 102 (a) 124 (b) 146 (a) 168 (b) 190 (d) 212 (a)
15 (c) 37 (a) 59 (b) 81 (a) 103 (d) 125 (b) 147 (b) 169 (a) 191 (b) 213 (b)
16 (a) 38 (d) 60 (c) 82 (c) 104 (d) 126 (c) 148 (d) 170 (d) 192 (d) 214 (d)
17 (b) 39 (b) 61 (a) 83 (c) 105 (a) 127 (b) 149 (a) 171 (c) 193 (c) 215 (c)
18 (d) 40 (b) 62 (b) 84 (a) 106 (d) 128 (b) 150 (b) 172 (a) 194 (d) 216 (a)
19 (b) 41 (c) 63 (a) 85 (d) 107 (c) 129 (b) 151 (a) 173 (d) 195 (b)
20 (b) 42 (d) 64 (d) 86 (b) 108 (b) 130 (a) 152 (b) 174 (d) 196 (a)
21 (c) 43 (c) 65 (a) 87 (a) 109 (c) 131 (d) 153 (d) 175 (c) 197 (b)
22 (a) 44 (b) 66 (a) 88 (c) 110 (d) 132 (b) 154 (a) 176 (d) 198 (c)
Antonyms E-23
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1 (c) The word 'Inordinate' means 'not within proper or option (c), therefore, (c) is the correct answer. The other
reasonable limits, immoderate' which is nearest opposite 3 words have following meanings: Explain – to make
in meaning to 'moderate which is option (c), therefore, known in detail; Criticize – to censure or find fault with;
(c) is the correct answer. The other 3 words have Weaken – to make weak.
following meanings : Distant - for off or apart in space; 11. (b) The word 'Gimcrack' means showy but useless which
Facile - easy; Attractive - having the quality of is nearest opposite in meaning to 'outstanding', which
attracting. is option (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. The
2. (d) The word 'Redoubtable' means 'commanding or evoking other 3 words have following meanings: Notorious -
respect reverence or the like', which is nearest opposite widely and unfavourably known; Humour - Put into a
in meaning to 'ordinary' which is option (d), therefore, mood; Incorrigible - bad beyond connection or reform.
(d) is the correct answers. 12. (a) The word 'Laconic' means 'expressing much in few
3. (a) The word 'consanguine' means 'having the same words, concise' which is nearest opposite in meaning
ancestry or descent' which is nearest opposite in to voluble' which means garrulous or articulate.
meaning to 'of different kind' which is option (a), 13. (d) The word 'stoical' means impassive or in different' which
therefore, (a) is the correct answer. The other 3 words is nearest opposite in meaning to hostile which means'
have following meanings: Invisible - not perceptible warm or affectionate' which is option (d), therefore, (d)
by the eye; Urbane - reflecting elegance; Untenanted - is the correct answer. The other 3 words have following
not based or occupied by a tenant. meanings: Urbane - reflecting elegance; Worldly -
4. (d) The phrase' on the blink' means ' not in proper working experienced, sophisticated; Flinching - shrinking or
order; in need of repair which is nearest opposite in recoiling.
meaning to 'in working order' which is option (d), 14. (a) The word 'Disparage' means 'to redicule, mark or demean
therefore, (d) is the correct answer. The other 3 answer which is nearest opposite in meaning to 'adulate' which
choices have following meanings: Apologetically - means 'to show excessive admiration or devotion to
sorry; regretful; Blindly - with out seeing; Legally - flatter admire servilely' which is option (d), therefore,
lawful, permitted by law. (d) is the correct answer.
5. (c) The word 'Predilection' means 'a tendency to think 15. (c) The word 'swingeing' means 'enormous or thumping'
favourably of something in particular; partialilty; which is nearest opposite in meaning to 'little in amount
leaving which is nearest opposite in meaning to which is option (c), therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
'Antipathy' which means 'a natural, basic, or habitual 16. (a) The word 'Rickety' means likely to fail or collapse,
repugnance; aversion' which is option (c), therefore, shaky' which is nearest opposite in meaning to 'stable'
(c) is the correct answer. which is option (a), therefore (a) is the correct answer.
6. (b) The word 'senile' means 'relating to or exhibiting memory The other 3 words have following meaning: Humid -
loss or mental impairment associated with ageing' which noticeably moist; Rollicking - carefree and joyous;
is nearest opposite in meaning to 'mentally alert' which Pleasing - charming.
is option (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. The 17. (b) The word 'Pinnacle' means ' the highest to culminating
other 3 answer choices have following meanings : point' which is nearest opposite in meaning to ' lowest
Suspicious - questionable; Corrupt - decayed, crooked; point' which is option (b), therefore, (b) is the correct
Affluent - wealthy. answer.
7. (b) The word ' Blithesome' means ' light hearted; merry; 18. (d) The word 'protract' means 'to draw out or lengthen'
cheer ful' which is nearest opposite in meaning to 'sullen' which is nearest opposite in meaning to 'cut short'. So,
which means 'gloomy or dismal', morose' which is option (d) is the correct answer.
(b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. The other 3 19. (b) The word 'debilitate' means 'to make weak or feeble'
answer choices have following meanings: graceful - which is nearest opposite in meaning to 'to strengthen'.
elegance of form; adventurous - hazardous; So, (b) is the correct answer. The other three a-nswer
Mammoth - immensely large. choices have following meanings: To argue - to present
8. (a) The word 'Adulation' means 'to show excessive reasons for or against things; To guess - to estimate;
admiration or devotion to ; flatter or admire servicely' To conspire - to plot.
which is nearest opposite in meaning to 'condemnation' 20. (b) The word 'pertinacious' means 'stubborn or perversely
which means 'an expression of strong disapproval' persistent' which is nearest opposite in meaning to
which is option (d), therefore, (d) is the correct answer. 'insipid' which means 'without' distinctive, interesting
9. (c) The word 'Prepossessing' means 'that impresses or stimulating qualities". The other three words have
favourably engaging or attractive' which is nearest following meanings : Irretrievable - irreparable;
opposite in meaning to 'unattractive' which is option Irresolute - doubtful; Reproof - the act of reproving.
(c), therefore, (c) is the correct answer. 21. (c) The word 'impecuniousness' means 'poverty-stricken'
10. (b) The word 'Repudiate' means to cast off or disown' which is nearest opposite in meaning to word 'affluence'
which is nearest opposite in meaning 'accept' which is which means 'abundance of money'. Therefore, (c) is
EBD_7348
the correct answer. The other three word have following 37. (a) Be no slouch means ‘being very good at doing
meanings: Smoothness - not rough; Carefree nature - something’. So ‘inefficient’ would be the right antonym.
fun loving; Stability - firmness in position. 38. (d) Opprobrium means ‘infamy, the disgrace or the reproach
22. (a) The word 'Inimical' means 'unfriendly hostile' which is in curred by conduct considered outr ageously
nearest opposite in meaning to word 'supportive', so shameful’. So well know would be the right antonym.
(a) is the correct answer. 39. (b) Solicitous means ‘worried’. So showing no concern
The other three words have following meanings: for would be the right antonym.
Inquisitive - inappropriately curious; Coarse - lacking 40. (b) Under duress means ‘doing something under pressure
in fitness or delicacy of texture. or unwellingly’. Whereas ‘violation’ means ‘power to
23. (b) The word 'scintillo' means 'a minute particle' which is choose freely’ so option ‘b’ would be the right antonym.
nearest opposite in meaning to 'huge quantity'. 41. (c) Laconic means ‘short, to the point, concise or
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer. The other three expressing much in few words’, whereas ‘verbose’
words have following meanings: Unscientific - not means ‘wordy, or using or containing a great and
employed in science; Mealy-mouthed - excessive usually an excessive number of words’. So, option ‘c’
delicacy or hypocrisy; Unpromising - unlikely to be would be the right antonym.
favourable or successful. 42. (d) Slothful means ‘sluggordly, indolent and lazy’ whereas
24. (a) The word 'Kanve' means a 'dishonest person' which is ‘sprightly’ means ‘lively, vivacious or gay’. So option
nearest opposite in meaning to word honest. Therefore, ‘d’ would be the right antonym.
(a) is the correct answer. The other three words have 43. (c) The word ‘ephemeral’ means transitory, temporary and
following meanings: Ignorant - lacking in knowledge the word which is opposite to it would be permanent.
or training; Timid - lacking in self - assurance; 44. (b) The word ‘obligatory’ means compulsory, mandatory,
Belligerent - warlike. required whose opposite is optional or voluntary.
25. (c) The 'Apocryphal' means 'of doubtful authorship and 45. (a) The word ‘circumspect’ means wary, cautious, alert
autheneity' which is nearest opposite in meaning to whose opposite is careless.
'true' which is option (c). Therefore, (c) is the correct 46. (d) The word ‘obscure’ means unclear whose opposite is
answer. The other three words have following clear.
meanings: Confusing - causing confusion; Modern - 47. (a) The word ‘repulsive’ means repellent, nasty whose
not ancient or remote; Unsophisticated - simple artless. opposite is attractive.
26. (d) Sagacious means ‘shrewd, keen practical sense or a 48. (a) The word ‘kindled’ means ignited, awakened whose
person who can give right judgement’. Option ‘d’ is opposite is extinguished.
completely opposite to sagacious so that would be the 49. (a) The word ‘vital’ means essential, urgent while trivial
right antonym of this word. means insignificant.
27. (a) Cantankerous means ill-tempered and quarrelsome’. 50. (c) The word ‘penury’ means extreme poverty or beggary
Whereas option ‘a’ convivial means ‘cheerful’ so that whose opposite is wealth.
would be the right antonym of cantankerous. 51. (d) The word ‘inhibit’ means hinder, hold back whose
28. (a) Garrulous means ‘excessively talkative in a rambling, opposite word is encourage or promote.
round about manner, especially about critical issues 52. (c) The word ‘exploit’ means treat unfairly, utilize, misuse
and trivial issues’. or take advantage of which is opposite in meaning to
29. (a) Profane means ‘unholy, not devoted to holy or religious support.
purposes’. So option ‘a’ sacred would be the right 53. (c) The word ‘detrimental’ means harmful, damaging, bad,
antonym of this word. destructive etc. which is opposite in meaning to
30. (a) Abstruse means ‘difficult to understand, obsolete, beneficial.
secret or hidden’. 54. (b) The word ‘sharp’ means razor-edged, fierce, shrill etc.
31. (b) Abhorrent means ‘detestable, utterly opposed and also which is opposite in meaning to blunt.
remote in character’. So option ‘b’ would be the right 55. (d) The word ‘condemn’ means censure, criticize, blame
antonym of this word. etc. which is opposite in meaning to praise.
32. (a) Impertinent means ‘bold and disrespectful, insolently 56. (d) The word ‘reluctant’ means timid, resistant, opposed
rude’. So the option ‘a’ would be the correct antonym. etc. which is opposite in meaning to eager.
33. (b) Evanescent means ‘diagreement or a misunderstanding. 57. (b) The word ‘intricate’ means complex, complicated,
It also means a confused heap’. twisted etc. which is opposite in meaning to simple.
34. (a) Imbroglio means ‘a fight or misunderstanding’. So 58. (b) The word ‘penury’ means miserly, poverty-stricken etc.
option ‘a’’ would be the right option of this word. which is opposite to luxury in meaning.
35. (b) Singular means ‘extraordinary, remarkable or 59. (b) The word ‘expostulate’ means disagree, argue, protest,
exceptional’. So the antonym of singular would be raise objections etc. Hence, agree is the most suitable
‘ordinary’. word.
Other antonyms : normal, regular, usual 60. (c) The word ‘reluctant’ means timid, unenthusiastic,
36. (c) Recluse means ‘a person who does not want social hasitant, unwilling etc. Hence, ‘enthusiastic’ is the
contact or withdrawn from society; seeking solitude’. correct answer which is opposite in meaning to it.
So ‘Gregarious’ would be the right antonym of word 61. (a) The word ‘scarcity’ means shortage, lack, paucity,
Recluse. Gregarious means, sociable. meagreness, dearth etc. Its opposite word is ‘plenty’ in
the given options.
Antonyms E-25
62. (b) The word ‘thick skinned’ means not easily upset by which means to hide is clear choice as opposite. Other
criticism or unkind comments. Hence its opposite word options are not relevant.
will be ‘sensitive’. 84. (a) Credible is loyal or believable or something in which
63. (a) The word ‘bleak’ means bare, exposed, denuded, dim faith can be reposed. Incredible is just opposite of the
etc which is quite opposite in meaning to ‘bright’. word. Although from the options Believable is close
64. (d) The word ‘stern’ means serious, austere, unforgiving, but not the best one to choose. If credible is not in the
harsh etc. Its opposite word will be ‘forgiving’. options then this is the best among the rest.
65. (a) The word ‘superficial’ means shallow, casual, hasty, 85. (d) Exotic as used in context gives a sense that locations
trivial, silly, inane etc. which is opposite in meaning to discussed should be excited or enjoyable or wonderful.
‘profound’. So option (a) can be a synonym but not antonym.
66. (a) The word ‘elegance’ means grace, stylishness, charm, Cosmopolitan means free from prejudices/national
cleverness which is opposite in meaning to ‘balance’. ideas etc. This does not suit the context of sentence.
67. (d) The word ‘coarse’ means ugly, rough, ill-mannered, Irrelevant places are not travelled for assignments. This
rude, crude etc. which is opposite in meaning to ‘soft’ is called Option method - trying each and every option
from the given options. for the context. But if you know the meaning of the
68. (c) The word ‘extravagant’ means prodigal, lavish, costly word Exotic which means foreign/exciting/ not native/
etc. which is opposite in meaning to the word not common then you can directly answer the question.
‘economical’. 86. (b) Vicious means grossly immoral. This word carries with
69. (b) The word ‘diligent’ means industrious, hard-working, it a negative sense. Evil/spiteful/ill-will /malicious are
rigorous etc. which is opposite in meaning to the word all synonym for it. Now look for the most opposite of
‘lazy’. the word from the given options. Godly can be opposite.
70. (a) The word ‘complacent’ means smug, self-satisfied, Virtuous means full of virtues (good habits). Sublime is
proud etc. Its opposite word is ‘discontented’ from the a positive word which means prime/of good quality.
given options. Have you ever heard "Sachin has passed his sublime
71. (d) The word ‘victor’ means champion, winner etc. which form?" Friendly can be antonym. It is clear that fight is
is opposite in meaning to ‘vanquished’. between the friendly and virtuous but friendly is just a
72. (a) The word ‘laudable means worthy, commendable. Thus, subset of virtuous qualities.
‘condemnable is the right answer. 87. (a) Inert is without motion. From the options active is clear
73. (c) The word ‘fictitious’ means fake, spurious etc. Its choice. As Lazy is similar in meaning.While Resolute
opposite word will be genuine or real. (Firm) is irrelevant in context. Strong does not mean
74. (a) The word ‘reluctance’ means timid, unwilling, curious activeness or motion. He has very strong emotions for
etc. Hence eagerness is the opposite word. her.
75. (b) The word ‘generous’ means liberal, charitable, 88. (c) Recall 'tangent to the circle' from the mathematics - 'a
benevolent etc. Hence, uncharitable is the opposite line touching the circumference of the circle'. So
word. tangentially here means just touching or superficially
76. (c) Absurd is meaningless/irrational/incongruous /out of discussed. Now something candidly done is opposite
place. Proper opposite is Sensible. (a) And (b) are not to something done superficially.
right. Ridiculous can be synonym but the antonym. 89. (c) Although an escalator can go up and down but the
77. (b) Ignored is to overlook /to avoid /not considered/set meaning of the word 'escalate' in English is 'to rise'. So
aside. If something is ignored then it can be removed. don't confuse it with 'fluctuating' - going up and down.
So 'remove' gives the same sense as 'ignored'. Option (c) gives the right answer in the context of the
78. (c) Lethargic is slow/lazy/inactive/dull. Active is antonym. passage.
Aggressive is second best option. Hungry is to make a 90. (b) Malice and goodwill are shear opposite of each other.
guessing student go on sense of the sentence and Goodwill leads to friendship so can be considered as
deviate from the right answer. second step after goodwill (not having malice) but not
79. (c) Rude is unrefined/rough/being impolite/uncouth/ the direct opposite.
discourteous. 'Softly' is a quality of politeness but is 91. (a) Affluent is extra rich. If richness is a scale then Affluent
only a second best option not the best one. is on one end and poor is on the other. Ordinary lies in
80. (d) Hazardous is harmful/perilous/marked by danger/risky; between the two. Backwardness is just the result of
opposite for it is 'safe'. Other options are not confusing poorness. So 'poor' is the best option.
so it is easy to answer. 92. (a) Darken is to blemish/to mar and to defame (figuratively).
81. (a) Enrich is making richer /more valuable/more See the usage -'You have darkened the luminous record
meaningful/more nourished. The opposite of this word of our ancestors'.
is to make poor - impoverished. 93. (b) Ice is synonym of cold relationship and opposite is
82. (c) Futile means useless/of no value. Option (c) is the right warmness in relationship. Expression 'break the ice'
antonym for it. Waste is synonym. Expensive article indicates starting of long pending relationships. See
can be of use or of no use. If something is cheap it does the use - India and Pakistan should break the ice and
not mean that it is useless or futile. take the unprecedented (not taken before) measures.
83. (c) Reveal means to expose or to bring out the truth. Other 94. (d) Energetic is full of activity and lethargic means
words which are similar in meaning are Debunk, Spill inactivity/slowness/ laziness/dull. Gloomy is sadness.
the beans or disclose. From the options Concealment
EBD_7348
95. (b) Here secure means to make safe and precarious is having 118. (b) Abducted means kidnap, snatch or seize so its antonym
a sense of insecurity. So it can be a proper antonym for can be set free, release or freedom.
the word from the available options. 119. (b) Delicate means pampered, subtle, faint or elusive so its
96. (a) Acquit is to make free from the charge/to exonerate/to antonym can be strong, overpowering or sturdy.
vindicate/to hold innocent and opposite of acquit is 'to 120. (c) Enhanced means increase, augment, boost or amplify
held guilty'. so its antonym can be decreased, reduce or lessen.
97. (a) Difference of Compulsory subjects and Optional 121. (a) Perfection means excellence, precision, aptness or
subjects lies in the independence to make choices. accomplishment so deficiency, shortage, deficit, paucity
Compulsory -no choice; Optional - choice available. or scarcity.
98. (a) Lugubrious is disappointment/ gloomy/blue feelings/ 122. (d) Energized. Enervated means lethargic, indolent, and
sad - opposite is cheerful/happy/ chirping feelings. languid so its antonym can be energized or enthusiastic.
99. (a) Role of accelerated is to increase the rate. Retard is to 123. (c) Removed. Inserted means to put into so its antonym
decrease. can be removed or detached.
100. (d) 'Various' word derives from the variety. Variety is range 124. (b) Reasonable. Ludicrous means absurd, ridiculous and
of choices and similarity is opposite of it. farcical so its antonym can be reasonable or justifiable.
101. (a) Meticulous is perfect/precise/ excellent/orderly. 125. (b) Condemn. Adore means esteem, respect and admire so
Haphazard is disorderly and not in a definite pattern. its antonym can be disapprove, criticize, revile, attack
So these two words are antonym of each other. or condemn.
102. (a) Complainant means plaintiff, petitioner, appellant, 126. (c) Small. Colossal means huge, massive, immense and
litigant so its antonyms can be defendant. gigantic so its antonym can be small, tiny or meager.
103. (d) Solitary means private, lonely, introvert and single so 127. (b) Diminish. Increases means augment, boost, amplify,
its antonym can be populous and sociable. enlarge and enhance so its antonym can be reduce,
104. (d) Disturbed means troubled, bothered, anxious, worried lessen, weaken, shrink or ebb.
and distressed so its antonym can be peaceful, and 128. (b) Genuine. Artificial means false, fake, simulated and
unconcerned. imitation so its antonym can be authentic, indisputable,
105. (a) Created means built, constructed, planned and formed real, actual or valid.
so its antonym can be destroyed and demolished. 129. (b) Slavery. Liberty means freedom, emancipation,
106. (d) Revolting means disgusting, repulsive, horrendous, independence and liberation so its antonym can be
awful so its antonym can be delightful, pleasant, suppression, prison or slavery.
charming, wonderful and amusing. 130. (a) Unimportant. Essential means necessary, vital,
107. (c) Different means dissimilar, diverse, unlike, unusual so important, crucial and indispensable so its antonym can
its antonym can be similar, alike, parallel, analogous, be insignificant, inconsequential, trifling or irrelevant.
related and akin. 131. (d) Immodest. Modest means humble, reserved, reticent
108. (b) Recession means depression, slump, downturn, and diffident so its antonym can be boastful, arrogant
collapse, decline so its antonym can be inflation, boom, or conceited.
rise increase. 132. (b) In this item, we have to point out the correct antonym.
109. (c) Conceded means approve, accepted, passed, agreed Candid means frank, open or honest. Now the first
so its antonym can be denied, deprive, starve, unused, option, blunt means frank and straightforward. Option
shorn of. (b) guarded means defended or safeguarded or
110. (d) Denied means deprive, starve, unused, shorn of so its protected. Sincere means genuine and honest.
antonym can be affirmed, avowed, confirmed, declared, Unconventional means unusual. After going through
stated. the given list, we come to the conclusion that only
111. (a) Coarse means rough, hard, uncouth, crude, loutish so ‘guarded’ is the word which can be considered as the
its antonym can be delicate, smooth, polite, fragile, antonym of candid.
flimsy, subtle. 133. (c) The word in the sentence, condone means to forgive
112. (b) Altercation means argument, squabble, dispute or clash or pardon. Accept means to believe or recognize.
so its antonym can be friendly discussion, agreement Forgive means the same as condone. Condemn means
or responsive approach. to denounce or attack which seems opposite to the
113. (b) ILL AT EASE means easiness, comfortable or word condone. Criticize means to disapprove. The best
straightforwardness so its antonym can be difficulty, answer would be option (c) that condemn.
obscurity, trouble or intricacy. 134. (a) Severed means detached cut off. The word joined
114. (a) Run down means lack of spirit or energy so its antonym means attached which shows clearly that it could be
can be energetic, lively, vigorous, bouncy. the opposite of severed. The word included means built-
115. (c) Collective means together, mutually, group, joint or in or integrated. Detached has the same meaning as
cooperative so its antonym can be individual, single or severed. Disrupt means upset or interrupt. Thus, the
alone. answer is option (a) joined.
116. (c) Curt means abrupt, brisk, rude or terse so its antonym 135. (c) The word fuzzy means blurry or unclear. Option (a),
can be expansive, generous, friendly, liberal or ‘misty’ means hazy and foggy. Vague means unclear.
magnanimous. Clear is the only word which seems opposite to the
117. (c) Accelerate means speed up, hurry, hasten or step up word fuzzy. Useful has no negative or positive relation
so its antonym can be slacken, loosen or relax. with fuzzy. Thus, option (c) clear is the answer.
Antonyms E-27
136. (b) Slimy is the main word which means greasy or slippery. 155. (b) 'Squandering' means 'wasting', so 'hoarding' is correct
Ugly means not good looking or unattractive. Clean antonym which means 'to collecting'.
means clear and without any filth. Beautiful means 156. (d) Concealed means to keep something or someone as
good looking. Slippery is synonym for slimy. Here, the secret or hidden. Reveal means to make some previously
only word which seems opposite of slimy is clean. unknown or secret information known to others.
137. (b) The word anxious means nervous or worried. Cool Therefore, revealed is opposite in meaning or the
means calm and unruffled. Composed means calm and antonym of concealed.
relaxed. Careless means irresponsible. Worried is a 157. (d) Denounce means to publicly declare something or
synonym of anxious. Out of cool and composed, someone to be wrong or evil. Commended means praise
composed suits better as the antonym as it is more formally or officially. Therefore, commended is opposite
formal in use. in meaning or the antonym of denounce.
138. (c) The word extended means total or complete. Protracted 158. (b) Sceptical not easily convinced; having doubts or
means prolonged or extended. Widened means reservations. Certain means to able to be firmly relied
broadened. Curtailed means cut or shortened. Elongated on to happen to be the case. Therefore, certain is
means lengthened or extended. The most possible opposite in meaning or the antonym of sceptical.
antonym for extended would be option (c), curtailed. 159. (d) Coherent means logically or aesthetically ordered or
139. (a) In this item, the word in question is ‘escape’. The integrated. Disconnected means lacking a logical
meaning of escape is run away or get away. Arrest sequence. Therefore, disconnected is the opposite in
means detain or capture. Elude means escape or evade. meaning or the antonym of coherent.
Conceive means imagine or visualize. Thus, we analyze 160. (a) Altruistic means showing a disinterested and selfless
that proper antonym of escape would be option (a), concern for the well-being or advantage of others.
‘arrest’. Therefore, selfish is opposite in meaning or the antonym
140. (b) The word inhuman means brutal or heartless. of altruistic.
Indifferent means unconcerned or unsympathetic. 161. (d) Deft means neatly skilful and quick in one's movements
Compassionate means concerned and kind. Terrible whereas Clumsy means awkward in movement or in
means awful or dreadful. Ferocious means fierce or handling things or without any specific skills. Therefore,
violent. Now, the antonym of inhuman should be 'Clumsy' is the antonym of the word 'deft'.
humane , kind or sympathetic. The word matching this 162. (b) Urbane means courteous and refined manner of a
criterion is option (b), ‘compassionate’. person, especially a man whereas rude means
141. (d) Eloquent means clear and crisp in language, fluent, offensively impolite or bad-mannered. Therefore, 'Rude'
expressive etc. lucid is the synonym of eloquent. Vivid is the antonym of the word 'Urbane'.
means clear and bright. Short means small in length. 163. (b) Timidity means lacking in courage or self-confidence
Inarticulate means inexpressive or hesitant, thus, it is whereas boldness means not hesitating or fearful in
clear that ‘inarticulate’ is the antonym of the word the face of actual or possible danger. Therefore,
eloquent. 'Boldness' is the antonym of the word 'Timidity'.
142. (a) The word "frail" means timid, weak etc. After analyzing 164. (b) Mammoth in this case means something immense of its
the options, it is clearly visible that the correct antonym kind or huge. Therefore, 'small' is the antonym of
would be option (a) 'strong'. 'mammoth'.
143. (b) The word indigenous means local or native. Option 165. (b) Engrossed means absorb all the attention or interest
(b), 'foreign' is the correct answer. about someone or something whereas inattentive
144. (a) Poverty means scarcity or paucity. Option (a) which means not attentive or not paying attention. Therefore,
means "prosperity" is the correct antonym of poverty. 'inattentive' is the antonym of 'Engrossed'.
146. (a) 'Applauded' means 'praised' so, 'disapproved' is correct 166. (a) Preceding means existing, coming, or occurring
antonym which means 'not praised' or 'criticised'. immediately before in time or place whereas following
147. (b) 'Material' means 'Earthly' or 'related to wealth', so, means coming after or as a result of. Therefore,
'spiritual' is correct antonym which means 'divine'. 'following' is the antonym of 'preceding'.
148. (d) 'Friendly' means 'supportive', so, 'hostile' is correct 168. (b) Severe means causing great pain, difficulty, worry,
antonym which means 'unfriendly'. damage, etc. whereas mild means not severe, serious,
149. (a) 'Intelligent' means 'smart', so 'dull' is correct antonym or harsh. Therefore, 'mild' is the antonym of 'severe'.
which means 'stupid'. 169. (a) Cumulatively means increasing or increased in quantity
150. (b) 'Reluctant' means 'unwilling', so 'willing' is correct or degree whereas individually means relating to a
antonym which means 'ready'. single, separate person or thing. Therefore,
151. (a) 'Abandoned' means 'left', so 'supported' is correct 'individually' is the antonym of 'cumulatively'.
antonym which means 'defended'. 170. (d) Conspicuous means very noticeable or attracting
152. (b) 'Abound' means 'excessive', so 'lacks' is correct antonym attention, often in a way that is not wanted. Therefore,
which means 'deficit'. 'unnoticeable' is the antonym of 'conspicuous'.
153. (d) 'Adversity' means 'penury' or 'misery', so 'prosperity' is 171. (c) Continual means forming a sequence in which the same
correct antonym which means 'happiness' or 'wealth'. action or event is repeated frequently whereas
154. (a) Affluence' means 'state of richness', so 'indigence' is occasional means done infrequently and irregularly.
correct antonym which means 'extreme poverty'. Therefore, 'occasional' is the antonym of 'continual'.
EBD_7348
172. (a) Sentence here refers to declare the punishment decided 180. (b) ‘Auspicious’ means ‘pious’ ‘or’ ‘sacred’. So, ‘ominous’
for (an offender) whereas acquitted means free (someone) which means ‘unfavourable’ or ‘not pious’ will be its
from a criminal charge by a verdict of not guilty. Therefore, antonym.
acquitted is the antonym of sentenced. 181. (c) ‘Corroborated’ means ‘to confirm. So, ‘denied’ will be
173. (d) Thrifty means using money and other resources carefully its antonym.
and not wastefully whereas extravagant means lacking 192. (d) 'Geared to' means 'fitted with' so, 'unlinked to' which
restraint in spending money or using resources. means 'detached to' will be its correct antonym.
Therefore, extravagant is the antonym of thrifty. 193. (c) 'Repel' is the correct antonym of 'attract'.
174. (d) Immature means lacking the expected type of responsible 194. (d) 'Concerned' means 'worried, troubled, or anxious' so, '
behaviour for one's age whereas seasoned means having uninvolved' which means 'not connected or concerned
a lot of experience of doing something and therefore with someone or something' will be its correct antonym.
knowing how to do it well. Therefore, seasoned is the 195. (b) 'Serious' means 'demanding or characterized by careful
antonym of immature. consideration or application' so, 'trivial' which means
175. (c) 'To show my hand' here refers to allow people to know 'of little value or importance' will be its correct antonym.
about intentions that you had previously kept secret. 196. (a) 'Miscellaneous' means 'of various types or from different
Therefore, 'to conceal my plan' is its most opposite in source' so 'pure' which means 'without any extraneous
meaning. and unnecessary elements' will be its correct antonym
176. (d) Sagacious means having or showing keen mental 197. (b) 'Incoming' is the correct antonym of 'outgoing'.
discernment and good judgement. Therefore, unwise is 198. (c) 'Fine' means 'worthy of or eliciting admiration' so,
the antonym of sagacious. 'coarse' which means rough or harsh' will be its correct
177. (a) ‘Fiasco’ means a complete failure’. So, ‘success’ is its antonym.
antonym. 199. (c) 'Dissimilarity' is the correct antonym of 'likeness'.
178. (b) ‘Arduous’ means ‘difficult’. So, its antonym will be 200. (a) 'Uniformity' is the correct antonym of 'diversity'.
‘effortless’. 201. (c) 'Liquidated' means 'wind up the affairs of (a business)
179. (a) ‘Affable’ means ‘friendly’. So, its antonym will be by ascertaining liabilities and apportioning assets' so,
‘reserved’. 'flourishing' which means 'developing rapidly and
successfully' will be its correct antonym.
Fill in the Blanks 3
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-18) : Each of the following items is followed (a) hatred (b) obstinacy
by four words or group of words. Fill in the blanks with the (c) remorse (d) anger
appropriate word or group of words. 12. It is inconceivable that in many schools children are
subjected to physical _________ in the name of
1. Although I was _________ of his plans, I encouraged him, discipline. [2010-II]
because there was no one else who was willing to help. (a) violation (b) exercise
[2010-I] (c) violence (d) security
(a) sceptical (b) remorseful 13. We have not yet fully realised the _________ consequences
(c) fearful (d) excited of the war. [2010-II]
2. You have no business to _________ pain on a weak and (a) happy (b) pleasing
poor person. [2010-I] (c) grim (d) exciting
(a) inflict (b) put 14. Happiness consists in being _________what we have?
(c) direct (d) force [2010-II]
3. Her uncle died in a car accident. He was quite rich. She (a) contented to (b) contented with
suddenly _________ all her uncle’s money. [2010-I] (c) contented for (d) contented in
(a) succeeded (b) caught 15. His rude behaviour is a _________ his organization.
(c) gave (d) inherited [2010-II]
4. There was a major accident. The plane crashed. The pilot (a) disgrace for (b) disgrace on
_________ did not see the tower. [2010-I] (c) disgrace upon (d) disgrace to
(a) likely (b) probably 16. No child is _________ understanding. One has to wait and
(c) scarcely (d) hurriedly provide proper guidance. [2010-II]
5. The car we were travelling in _________ a mile from home. (a) dull to (b) dull in
[2010-I] (c) dull of (d) dull for
(a) broke off (b) broke down 17. I am fully _________ the problems facing the industry.
(c) broke into (d) broke up [2010-II]
6. What are you _________ in the kitchen cupboard? (a) alive with (b) alive to
[2010-I] (c) alive for (d) alive on
(a) looking in (b) looking on 18. The Romans were _________ science. [2010-II]
(c) looking to (d) looking for (a) bad in (b) bad to
7. I did not see the point of _________ waiting for them, so I (c) bad for (d) bad at
went home. [2010-I]
(a) hanging around (b) hanging on DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19-28) : Apply suitable preposition/phrasal
(c) hang together (d) hanging up verb in the blank of each item.
8. He lost confidence and _________ of the deal at the last [2013-II]
minute. [2010-I] 19. Universities in Germany and Denmark will have an input
(a) backed out (b) backed on _______ the project.
(c) backed down (d) backed onto (a) for (b) into
9. Your present statement does not _________ what you said (c) about (d) at
last week. [2010-II] 20. He gave me a leg _______ when I was completely new to
(a) accord to (b) accord in the business.
(c) accord with (d) accord for (a) up (b) down
10. I had a vague _________ that the lady originally belonged (c) off (d) for
to Scotland. [2010-II] 21. You should have nothing to do with those criminals; they all
(a) notion (b) expression have violent attitudes and long records. They are men
(c) imagination (d) theory _______ the same kidney.
11. The prisoner showed no _________ for his crimes. (a) with (b) in
[2010-II] (c) of (d) on
EBD_7348
22. He didn’t have the guts to stand _______ his friend when item L, (c) is the correct answer. Notice that to solve the first
he was in trouble. item K, you have to read the rest of the sentence and then
(a) with (b) for see what fits the best.
(c) by (d) beside PASSAGE
23. He broke out of the prison _______ dressing as a woman. Drobny defied the critics. He had played through the Wimbledon
(a) in (b) as fortnight and reached the final. Could he win just one more match
(c) by (d) with and take the crown, or would he fail again at the last test and
24. When electricity failed, emergency generators _______. justify those who said that he lacked that little extra something
(a) cut out (b) cut off that makes the champion? His opponent was the Australian Ken
(c) cut on (d) cut in Rosewall, 33. (a) that/ (b) a/ (c) the brilliant youngster and
25. We need two more hands to _______ the heavy rush of already a master 34. (a) with / (b) of/ (c) for world experience
work. behind him. Jaroslav Drobny, 35. (a) a/ (b) that/ (c) the son of
(a) cope up (b) cope with a Czech carpenter who 36. (a) had/ (b) was/ (c) has started the
(c) cope to (d) cope in boy off at the 37. (a) age/ stage/ (c) career of five with a
26. Twenty-five candidates _______ each other for the first wooden ‘bat’ in lieu 38. (a) for/ (b) of/ (c) to a racquet, went
prize. on 39. (a) to/ (b) for/ (c) with the famous Centre Court at
(a) compete for (b) compete with Winbledon 40. (a) in/ (b) on/ (c) that day with the full
(c) compete to (d) compete on knowledge that this 41. (a) can/ (b) must/ (c) would be the
27. We must eliminate the ___________ rich and poor. game of his 42. (a) life/ (b) age / (d) day He had kept on typing,
(a) disparity between and 43. (a) he/ (b) one/ (c) you could keep on trying, but 44.
(b) disparity for (a) games/ (b) matches/ (c) opportunities would become fewer
(c) disparity in and fewer. He knew that he had to gain an advantage from the
(d) disparity from start, and he had this young rival set off against him.
28. As an innovator, he __________ the beaten track and DIRECTIONS (Qs. 45-54): In this section, each of the following
explored new religions. sentences has a black space and four words are given after the
(a) deviated from (b) deviated to sentence. Select whichever word you consider the most
(c) deviated in (d) deviated for appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 29-32) : Each of the items in this section the Answer Sheet.
contains a blank followed by words listed as (a), (b), (c) and [2014-II]
(d). Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank and
45. You haven’t had your lunch yet, _____ you?
indicate your response in the answer sheet accordingly.
(a) are (b) aren’t
[2014-I] (c) have (d) haven’t
29. When the police arrived, the thief ______ away. 46. Life is to death as pleasure is to _____.
(a) strolled (b) moved (a) poverty (b) suffering
(c) galloped (d) ran (c) anguish (d) pain
30. His ______ as an officer was not quite satisfactory. 47. The French ____ reputed to have a very good sense of
(a) acting (b) doing humour.
(c) deed (d) record (a) is (b) was
31. The two children stood at the ______ of the table. (c) are (d) will be
(a) conclusion (b) terminal
48. ‘Please’ and ‘Thank you’ are the little courtesies by which
(c) end (d) termination
we keep the ____ of life oiled and running smoothly.
32. The old man was ______ weak to open the door.
(a) path (b) machine
(a) very (b) far
(c) much (d) too (c) garden (d) river
49. Many of the advances of civilization have been conceived
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 33-44): In the following passage at certain
by young people just on the _____ of adulthood.
points, you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b)
and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage. Choose (a) boundary (b) threshold
the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c) peak (d) horizon
(c), relating to this word on your answer sheet. Examples K and 50. The more your action and thought are allied and _____, the
L have been solved for you. happier you grow.
(a) divergent (b) unravelled
[2014-I] (c) integrated (d) invincible
The K. (a) boy was in the school in Shimla. L. (a) She was 51. He _____ in wearing the old fashioned coat in spite of his
homesick. wifes disapproval.
(a) boy (b) Horse
(a) insists (b) persists
(c) dog
(c) desists (d) resists
Explanation: One of the list given in item K, only ‘boy’ is the
correct answer because usually, a boy, and not a horse or a 52. It is not what you say that _____, but what you do.
dog, attends school. So (a) is to be marked on the Answer (a) matches (b) implies
Sheet for item K. A boy is usually referred to as ‘he’, so for (c) matters (d) moves
Fill in the Blanks E-31
53. Physically we are now all neighbours, but psychologically DIRECTIONS (Qs. 65-68): Each item in this section consists of a
we are _____ to each other. sentence with an underlined word, followed by four words. Select
(a) primitive (b) complementary the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the
(c) strangers (d) cowards underlined word.
54. The old ‘Nature’ versus _____ debate regarding crime
[2015-I]
continues even today.
65. John is always shabbily dressed.
(a) ‘Man’ (b) ‘Universe’
(a) decently (b) beautifully
(c) ‘Culture’ (d) ‘Nurture’
(c) extravagantly (d) scantily
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 55-60): In the following passage at certain 66. The new manager of the Bank is urbane in his manners.
points you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (a) civilised (b) slow
(c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage, Choose the best (c) rude (d) foolish
word out of the three Mark the letter, viz (a), (b) or (c), relating 67. It is necessary to develop thrifty habits to be able to lead a
to this word on your Answer Sheet. Examples K and L have been comfortable life.
solved for you. (a) expensive (b) extravagant
[2015-I] (c) economical (d) good
K L 68. Many people suffer because of pride.
The (a) boy was in the school (a) She was home sick. (a) lowliness (b) submission
in Simila. (c) humility (d) obedience
(b) horse (b) It DIRECTIONS (Qs. 69-83 ): Each of the following sentences in
(c) dog (c) He this section has a blank space and four words or group of words
Explanation: Out of the list given in item K, only ‘boy’ is the given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words
correct answer because usually, a boy, and not a horse or a dog, you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate
attends school. So ‘(a)’ is to be marked on the Answer Sheet for your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
item K. A boy is usually referred to as ‘he’, so for item L, ‘(c)’ is the [2015-II]
correct answer. Notice that to solve the first item K you have to 69. Man has won his dominant position on this planet by his
read the rest of the sentence and then see what first best.
________ of technology.
Passage
(a) command (b) emphasis
After having slept for an hour, Bond decided to go out into the
(c) belief (d) stress
city and try to find his contact. After changing his suit, he carefully
locked his room and stepped out of the hotel. No one was around. 70. The day was extremely hot and, in no time, my back was
But he had walked only for a few minutes when it suddenly drenched with ________ .
55. (a) felt/ (b) occurred/ (c) happened to him that he was (a) prickly heat (b) perspiration
being 56. (a) followed/ (b) shot/ (c) looked by someone. There (c) sores (d) fatigue
was really no 57. (a) reason/ (b) cause/ (c) evidence for it except 71. The Government is encouraging village upliftment ________
a very slight 58. (a) weight/ (b) sound./ (c) hurting. of footsteps. in the country.
He was now walking 59. (a) from/ (b) down/ (c) over the main (a) programmes (b) designs
street, which was crowded 60. (a) with/ (b) by/ (c) in people. He (c) talks (d) propaganda
became extremely aware of the danger of people threatening him. 72. Satish was endowed _________ a natural talent for music.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 61-64): Each item in this section consists of a (a) in (b) by
sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or (c) for (d) with
group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most 73. Mr. Ghosh is very happy ________ his son's excellent result.
similar in meaning to the underlined word. (a) for seeing (b) to see
(c) by seeing (d) see
[2015-I] 74. Sunlight filtering ________ the stained glass window
61. He was fired for negligence on duty. created a mosaic of colours on the floor.
(a) relieved of his job (b) scolded
(a) in (b) through
(c) rebuked (d) attacked
(c) at (d) into
62. Democracy is not the standardising of everyone so as to
obliterate all peculiarity. 75. Are you feeling doubtful ________ your decision?
(a) demolish (b) extinguish (a) about (b) upon
(c) erase (d) change (c) at (d) for
63. Divine grace is truly ineffable. 76. I want to study Geology now for I ________ Zoology for
(a) that which cannot be rubbed out the last three years.
(b) incapable of being understood (a) am studying (b) have been studying
(c) that which is too great to the expressed in words (c) had studied (d) had been studying
(d) too powerful to be defeated 77. Increase in storage facilities has made it possible to store
64. The convocation address was very edifying. goods at places ___________ to people all over the country.
(a) tedious (b) in need of editing (a) safe (b) easy
(c) instructive (d) exciting (c) proper (d) convenient
EBD_7348
78. To say that we were surprised at the cleverness of the child 92. The enemy had captured him and his life was at stake, still
is an understatement; we were really___________ he refused to _________ the state secrets.
(a) annoyed (b) astounded (a) divulge (b) divert
(c) flattered (d) confused (c) indulge (d) invert
79. In spite of the old woman's repeated entreaties, he remained DIRECTIONS (Qs. 93-102): Each of the following sentences
___________. has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select
(a) ashamed (b) docile whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank
(c) indifferent (d) lethargic space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
80. There was ________ competition for electoral seats.
[2016-II]
(a) diligent (b) rapid
93. She has been lying in bed for the last fortnight. I hope she
(c) cut-throat (d) sparse
will__________.
81. The cricket team ________ mainly of State players.
(a) come out (b) pull out
(a) composed (b) consist
(c) pull through (d) go out
(c) made with (d) comprises
94. The path of progress is beset_____________difficulties.
82. His love for money is the only ________ that drives him to
(a) with (b) by
work so hard.
(c) through (d) along
(a) programme (b) plan
95. I feel __________ for those who are cruel to their children.
(c) reason (d) greed
(a) sympathy (b) contempt
83. According to ________ sources, the Chief Minister did not
(c) admiration (d) craving
consult his Cabinet Members on this issue.
96. Both the parties were keen to have an________settlement
(a) intelligent (b) simple
of the dispute.
(c) reliable (d) fundamental
(a) enviable (b) inimical
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 84-92): In this section, each of the following (c) worthy (d) amicable
sentences has a blank space and four words given after the 97. I have come to know that the two brothers have ________.
sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate (a) fallen through (b) fallen out
for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer (c) fallen for (d) fallen short
Sheet accordingly. 98. Everybody finds his own work _____whereas he feels that
[2016-I] others have delightful jobs.
84. When the bus was at full speed, its brakes failed and an (a) tedious (b) fabulous
accident was __________. (c) unprofitable (d) indecent
(a) inevitable (b) undeniable 99. The accident took place because of the criminal _____of the
(c) fatal (d) miserable driver.
85. To explain his design to his visitors, the architect _________ (a) performance (b) disregard
a simple plan on the blackboard. (c) negligence (d) slackness
(a) built (b) finalised 100. The belief in the_______of vaccination is gaining ground.
(c) sketched (d) arranged (a) immunity (b) prevalence
86. Though Bonsai, a well-known art form, originated in China, (c) efficacy (d) workability
it was ___________ by the Japanese. 101. Our new leader is a_________young man and will take us
(a) cultivated (b) finished forward.
(c) perfected (d) enlarged (a) haughty (b) intoxicated
87. He is greatly admired for his _____________ behaviour. (c) fanciful (d) dynamic
(a) decrepit (b) decadent 102. They found a world of _______ between what he said and
(c) decorative (d) decorous what he did.
88. Would you mind _____________ to the Principal how the (a) chaos (b) bitterness
trouble started? (c) difference (d) hope
(a) remarking (b) saying DIRECTIONS (Qs. 103-112): Each of the following items in
(c) explaining (d) talking this section has a sentence with a blank space and four words
89. Vaccination will make people immune ____________ certain or groups of words given after the sentence. Select whichever
diseases for a given period. word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the
(a) against (b) to blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet
(c) with (d) for accordingly.
90. The two boys looked so alike that it was impossible to
[2017-I]
____________ between them.
103. I __________ you to be at the party this evening.
(a) discriminate (b) discern
(a) look forward to (b) hope
(c) distinguish (d) identify
(c) expect (d) think
91. The campers ____________ their tents at the base of the
104. When I met John yesterday, it was the first time I
mountain.
__________ him since Christmas.
(a) installed (b) dug
(a) saw (b) have seen
(c) pitched (d) established
(c) had seen (d) have been seeing
105. He __________ to listen to my arguments and walked 113. (a) hardly (b) barely
away. (c) merely (d) rarely
(a) denied (b) disliked 114. (a) out (b) away
(c) prevented (d) refused (c) off (d) on
106. The flow of blood was so __________ that the patient 115. (a) by (b) near
died. (c) with (d) at
(a) intense (b) adequate 116. (a) jumping (b) bursting
(c) profuse (d) extensive (c) dancing (d) singing
107. You have never __________ me about your experiences in 117. (a) could (b) would
America. (c) should (d) ought
(a) said (b) told 118. (a) experimented (b) shown
(c) explained (d) spoken (c) felt (d) heard
108. I always felt hungry __________ I heard the dinner bell. 119. (a) at (b) in
(a) as much as (b) as well as (c) on (d) into
(c) as soon as (d) as close as 120. (a) light (b) glow
109. Although they took every precaution, they could not (c) sense (d) hope
__________ the accident. 121. (a) comes (b) appears
(a) defer (b) allow (c) rises (d) shows
(c) avoid (d) block 122. (a) starved (b) starving
110. The ambitious nobleman __________ to marry the king's (c) hungry (d) satisfied
daughter. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 123-132): Each of the following sentences
(a) transpired (b) perspired in this section has a blank space and four words or group of
(c) aspired (d) expired words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of
111. The dictator of that country was a monster of wickedness, words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and
insatiable in his __________ for blood and plunder. indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
(a) idea (b) vision
[2017-II]
(c) lust (d) intention
123. He looks as if he __________ weary.
112. Please don't give me any more, I have had __________.
(a) is (b) was
(a) few (b) too little
(c) would be (d) were
(c) little (d) enough
124. My house is insured ____________ theft and fire.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 113-122) : In the following passage, at
(a) for (b) against
certain points you are given a choice of four words marked (a),
(c) in (d) towards
(b), (c) and (d) one of which fits the meaning of the passage.
125. The result of the prolonged discussion was __________.
Choose the best word out of the four. Mark the letter, viz., (a),
(b), (c) or (d), relating to this word on your Answer sheet. (a) disappointment (b) disappointing
(c) dissappointed (d) to disappoint
[2017-II] 126. You are lucky __________ in the 20th century.
Examples K and L have been solved for you. (a) by being born (b) to have been born
K (c) for being born (d) to have born
The (a) boy was in the school in Shimla. 127. Sita is true to ___________.
(b) horse (a) word (b) her words
(c) dog (c) the words (d) words
(d) cow 128. Years ___________ since I saw her last.
L
(a) have passed (b) had passed
(a) She was homesick. (b) It
(c) had been passing (d) have been passing
(c) He (d) Her
129. When he heard the terrible noise he asked me what was
Explanation : Out of the list given in item K, only, 'boy' is the
_________ on.
correct answer because usually, a boy and not a horse , a dog or
(a) happeing (b) being
a cow, attends school. So '(a)' is to be marked on the Answer
Sheet for item K. A boy is usually referred to as 'he', so for item L, (c) getting (d) going
'(c)' is the correct answer. Notice that to solve the first item K you 130. Could you lend me some money? I am very __________ of
have to read the rest of the sentence and then see what fits best. cash at the moment.
Passage (a) down (b) low
After this incident I went to Nainital, and returned after (c) short (d) scarce
nearly a month. I had 113. __________ taken 114. ___________ 131. I saw her when she was standing ____________ the side
my clothes when I saw Gangu standing 115. _________ a new of the old statue.
baby. He was 116. __________ with joy. Even Nanda 117. (a) by (b) at
_________ not have 118. _________ such joy 119. _________ (c) in (d) beyond
getting Krishna. His face had the same 120. __________ that 132. True friends never _________ their loved ones in adversity
121. _________ on the face of a 122. __________ man after a (a) abuse (b) criticize
full meal. (c) befool (d) desert
EBD_7348
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 133-137): Each of the following sentences 146. I would not commit myself _______ that course of action.
in this section has a blank space and four words or group of (a) of (b) to
words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of (c) by (d) with
words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and 147. The soldiers waiting to go into battle for the first time were
indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. full of _______.
(a) apprehension (b) consideration
[2018-I]
(c) anticipation (d) frivolity
133. The tired traveller ____________ on in the hope of finding
some resting place. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 148-152): In the following passage there are
(a) strolled (b) scurried some blank spaces with four words or groups of words given.
(c) paraded (d) plodded Select whichever word or group of words you consider most
134. The car was damaged beyond repair in the ___________ appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on
accident. the Answers Sheet accordingly.
(a) outrageous (b) ghastly [2018-II]
(c) nasty (d) heinous 148. The honeybee is a very unusual kind of insect. _______
135. They gave a ____________ dinner to celebrate the occasion, other insects which live
which impressed every guest. (a) Unlike (b) Similar to
(a) austere (b) public (c) With (d) Like
(c) sumptuous (d) summary 149. alome, the honeybee lives as a/an ____ These bees live
136. Once the ____________ manuscript is received by the
(a) group of a community (b) individual
publishers, it is typed in double space.
(c) member (d) troop
(a) total (b) full
(c) complete (d) filled 150. together in what is known as a bee ______ The head of the
137. I am used to ____________ in queues. bees is called the
(a) stand (b) standing (a) hous (b) home
(c) stand up (d) standing still (c) army (d) colony
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 138-147): Each of the following sentences in 151. queen bee, She is ______ than the rest of the bees. Her main
this section has a blank space and four words or groups of words task
given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of (a) heaviest (b) heavier
words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and (c) largest (d) larger
indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. is to _______ eggs.
[2018-II] 152. (a) lay (b) hatch
138. We fall to understand your reasons for ________ the college (c) make (d) bear
without completing the degree. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 153-157): Each of the following sentences
(a) attending (b) joining in this section has a blank space and four words or group of
(c) leaving (d) refusing words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you
139. She _________ her energy and started shouting only when consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your
she heard the noise of bulldozers and cranes. response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
(a) checked (b) conserved [2019-I]
(c) maintained (d) controlled 153. ______ forests prevent erosion.
140. The British ________ all over Africa and Asia collapsed in (a) Lean (b) Dense
the first half of the twentieth century. (c) Sparse (d) Tidy
(a) hegemony (b) domicile
154. Three people were arrested and an illegal arms unit was
(c) residence (d) inheritance
______ by the police in a raid.
141. The football match has to be ______ because of the weather.
(a) revealed (b) searched
(a) called off (b) continued
(c) put off (d) turned off (c) discovered (d) busted
142. If I were rich, _______ a lot. 155. A woman got into the car and ______.
(a) I'll travel (b) I can travel (a) drove off (b) broke down
(c) I would travel (d) I travelled (c) rode in (d) drove in
143. They apologized _______ me for what happened. 156. The lecture was not very interesting. In fact I ______ in the
(a) to (b) at middle of it.
(c) for (d) with (a) showed off (b) put off
144. If you are tired of swimming, just ______ for a while. (c) dozed off (d) plugged off
(a) struggle (b) stroke 157. The cops ______ murder by kin.
(c) floast (d) streak (a) suspect (b) afford
145. He had _______ spoken for two minutes when there was a (c) manage (d) administer
commotion in the crowd.
(a) even (b) hardly
(c) often (d) little
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 17 (b) 33 (b) 49 (b) 65 (a) 81 (d) 97 (b) 113 (b) 129 (d) 145 (b)
2 (a) 18 (d) 34 (a) 50 (c) 66 (c) 82 (c) 98 (a) 114 (c) 130 (c) 146 (b)
3 (d) 19 (a) 35 (c) 51 (b) 67 (b) 83 (c) 99 (c) 115 (c) 131 (a) 147 (a)
4 (b) 20 (a) 36 (a) 52 (c) 68 (c) 84 (a) 100 (c) 116 (a) 132 (d) 148 (a)
5 (b) 21 (c) 37 (a) 53 (c) 69 (a) 85 (c) 101 (d) 117 (a) 133 (d) 149 (c)
6 (d) 22 (c) 38 (a) 54 (d) 70 (b) 86 (c) 102 (c) 118 (c) 134 (c) 150 (d)
7 (a) 23 (c) 39 (a) 55 (b) 71 (a) 87 (d) 103 (c) 119 (c) 135 (c) 151 (d)
8 (a) 24 (b) 40 (c) 56 (a). 72 (d) 88 (c) 104 (a) 120 (b) 136 (c) 152 (a)
9 (c) 25 (b) 41 (b) 57 (c) 73 (b) 89 (b) 105 (d) 121 (b) 137 (b) 153 (b)
10 (a) 26 (b) 42 (a) 58 (b) 74 (b) 90 (c) 106 (c) 122 (b) 138 (c) 154 (c)
11 (c) 27 (a) 43 (a) 59 (b) 75 (a) 91 (c) 107 (b) 123 (a) 139 (b) 155 (a)
12 (c) 28 (a) 44 (c) 60 (a) 76 (b) 92 (a) 108 (c) 124 (b) 140 (a) 156 (c)
13 (c) 29 (d) 45 (c) 61 (a) 77 (d) 93 (c) 109 (c) 125 (b) 141 (a) 157 (a)
14 (b) 30 (d) 46 (d) 62 (c) 78 (c) 94 (a) 110 (c) 126 (b) 142 (c)
15 (d) 31 (c) 47 (c) 63 (c) 79 (c) 95 (b) 111 (c) 127 (b) 143 (a)
16 (b) 32 (d) 48 (b) 64 (c) 80 (c) 96 (d) 112 (d) 128 (a) 144 (c)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (a) The word ‘sceptical’ means suspicious or doubtful. 13. (c) War is a negative word and it is synonym with mass
2. (a) The word ‘inflict’ means burden someone with or destruction, death hence certainly has grim
impose. consequences. Happy, Pleasing, exciting all have
3. (d) The word ‘inherit’ means become heir to or take over. positive sense; so can not be linked with war.
4. (b) The word ‘probably’ means likely (very/most). 14. (b) 'With' is used for 'contentment'. All other options are
5. (b) The word ‘broke down’ means collapse. not valid and do not have any sense.
6. (d) The word ‘looking for’ means in search of. 15. (d) 'Disgrace to' is perfect as per Standard English Usage.
7. (a) The word ‘hanging around’ means linger or wait around. 'for' can be used with disgrace as -
8. (a) The word ‘backed out’ means go back on or withdraw 'His behaviour is a disgrace for all the love showered
from. by society to his acts.' In this type of question it is very
9. (c) For statements, phrase 'accord with' is used. See the important to read and reread the sentence to get the
use of phrase in one of the judgments of a court - true sense of the situation described in the statement.
'However, the evidence suggests that the 16. (b) 'dull of' and 'dull for' can be out rightly rejected as they
administration of complaints does not always accord do not fit well with the word 'understanding'. 'Dull in' is
with established procedures.' Use of 'Accord to' is not correct. When we understand it enters --- in ---- our
right in this sentence. mind so with understand 'in' is used.
10. (a) Vague notion is a right choice. Imagination is in itself 17. (b) The verb 'alive 'exclusively takes 'to' with it. Alive to
vague (unclear). While expressions cannot be vague. means -' interested in' /having a lively interest
Theory is out of place for the context. Thoughts can be 18. (d) Suppose you do not know exact meaning of all the
vague or unclear or unstable. options. Let us try solving it with critical reasoning
11. (c) Remorse is an emotion/action/feeling after the crime is approach. 'Bad for science' does not look sense full.
done. Hatred is for the other people who saw/hear/ 'Bad to' does not suit. 'Bad in science' looks convincing
gone through crime but certainly not for the prisoner. but it is slang not the right answers. People usually
Crime is done in anger and a cause. Obstinacy is use - I am bad in mathematics but not in science. This
stubbornness. Only emotion that suits the context is is not right as per Standard English. With subjects 'at'
Remorse. is used as connector.
12. (c) If it would have been 'security' then it would have been 19. (a) For this question , the blank should be filled by option
'provided' in the statement not 'subjected'. Exercise does a, "for" as it is pointed out that universities in Germany
not fit. Violation (to breech) is also out of place. Use of and Denmark have some input belonging to the project.
'physical' in statement indicates 'violence'. It fits best 20. (a) The correct answer would leg up as leg up is a phrasal
in the blank. verb which means a push to help someone to climb an
obstacle upwards, to boost. This phrasal verb fits best
EBD_7348
as it is concerned about someone being boosted up in inappropriate. 'Deed' is an action that is performed
a new business. Other options are nullified as with leg intentionally or consciously. Also it is a one time thing,
no other prepositions are used i.e. for, down and off. while his run as an officer is a prolonged activity.
21. (c) They are men of the same kidney. This phrasal verb is 'Record', meaning the sum of the past achievements or
generally used in places where similar mindset is performance of a person, organization or thing fits most
defined. perfectly here. Hence, option (d) is the answer.
22. (c) Stand by, means to be present while something bad is 31. (c) 'Conclusion' means the end or finish of an event,
happening but fail to take any action to stop it, which process, or text and not a table or similar furniture.
best suits the message of the sentence. 'Terminal' is the end or extremity of something, either
23. (c) When a person breaks out of a prison, he will do it by for a disease or a track, etc. Termination is the act of
any means. Here, he escapes by dressing as a woman. ending or finishing something, a noun form not suitable
Thus, ‘by’ is the preposition which fits here. ‘With’ in the sentence. Option (c) 'end' fits the sentence most
does not suit here because it is used to indicate having simply and well.
or being together. ‘As’ is used in matters of comparison 32. (d) In this sentence, a man's inability to open the door due
and moreover as has already been used before a woman. to weakness is emphasized. The option much (adv.) is
In does not fit well here also. Thus option (c), ‘by’ is used toemphasize a comparative adjective.Whereas too
the correct answer. is used to modify an adjective creating the meaning of
24. (b) Going by the meanings of these phrases, we come to an unacceptable, excessive degree. Option 'very' is used
conclusion that ‘cut off’ would be the most apt option in cases to intensify an adjective . 'Far' is again used
as electricity supply is cut off, makes sense. where comparative degree of adjectives are used. Here,
25. (b) It should be noticed that whenever we use phrasal verb, the sentence highlights the inability of the man due to
cope, we use "with" with it. Any other preposition is excessive weakness; it needs an adverb to highlight
never used with cope. So when we deal with a situation, the severity of the problem. Thus, option (d) is correct.
we cope with it. Thus, option (b), ‘with’ is the answer. 33. (b) Out of the list of options provided for question 39, 'a'
26. (b) When the verb "compete" is used in any sentence, we suits best with the remaining phrase because when we
use "with" with it. When there is competition among talk about youngster, it's a generic word , suggesting
group of people, they compete with each other. lot of people are young. 'That brilliant' does not sound
‘Compete for’ is used when an object of competition is appropriate as the person in question is directly being
indicated. ‘Compete’ to is used when the purpose of talked about. He is not far off or is not in a particular
competing is defined. ‘Compete on’ is used when direction. 'The' can also be not used as it is used with a
platform of completion is talked about. Thus, here option specific or exclusive word or group. Thus, option (b) is
(b), ‘with’ is the perfect answer. the answer.
27. (a) In this question, disparity means difference; the two 34. (a) Here, we must notice that preposition is used for the
objects of differentiation are rich and poor. When two word experience. Option (a) "with" is a preposition used
groups of objects are differentiated, we use "between" to indicate "having". Option (b) "of" isused for
with them. For, in and from are not correct prepositions belonging to, relating to, or connected with. Option (c)
to use in this sentence. Thus option (a), "between" is for is used to indicate the use of something. Out of all
the answer. three options, option (a) is the best and correct answer
28. (a) First, we should understand the meaning of deviate. It as experience is something one has or possesses.
means to divert or diverge. The preposition generally 35. (c) In this sentence, it is mentioned about the son of
used with deviate is form as from is used when parting Jaroslov Drobny, a Czech carpenter. Now, Jaroslov
from a part of the sentence or differentiating. ‘To’ is Drobny is a particular man with an exclusive identity,
used with deviate when the purpose for deviating is so his son is also a particular person being referred to.
pointed out. Generally, ‘deviate in’ can be used when So, in this case before son "the" should be used not
medium in which deviation took place is defined. "a" or "that". Thus, "the" is the answer.
‘Deviated for’ is used when the purpose of deviation is 36. (a) If we closely look at the sentence, we find that it is
defined. Thus, option (a) "from" is the answer. indicating the starting point of play in his career. When
29. (d) 'Stroll' means to walk in a leisurely way. 'Move' means we say about starting something by a second person
go in a specified direction or manner; change position. then has or had is used. 'Has' for present tense and
'Gallop' means the fastest pace of a horse or other 'had' for past tense. Here, option (a) is "had". 'Was'
quadruped, with all the feet off the ground together in cannot be used here as it does not refer to the starting
each stride. While the first two options do not convey of just playing. Since the sentence is referring to an
the intensity with which the thief would react on seeing incident of the past 'has' cannot be used. Thus, we are
the police, the third option, 'gallop' is used only for left with the option (a) i. e., 'had'.
horses or other quadruped. Hence, option (d) 'ran' seems 37. (a) The boy started playing at the age of five. 'Age' fits the
most appropriate. blank perfectly as the next word is anumerical value.
30. (d) 'Acting' is the art of performing fictional roles while We generally refer to someone's age by a number. Now,
becoming an officer is real as given in sentence. This for 'stage' we cannot use a number. Similarly for career,
rules out option (a). 'Doing' is present continuous verb, a number cannot be used. Thus, option (a) is the answer.
not suiting the flow of the sentence and highly 38. (a) In English grammar, it is known that with 'in lieu', always'
of' is used not "for" or "to". Thus, 'in lieu of' is a phrase
which is generally used. Therefore option (b) is the be used because it gives opposite sense; 'unravelled'
answer. and 'invincible' have also not suitable meanings
39. (a) We always go 'to' a place. We don't go 'for' or 'with' a according to sentence, so use of 'integrated' is correct.
place. Thus, the most suitable preposition would be 51. (b) Use of 'persists' is proper as it gives required sense.
option (a) "to". We cannot use 'insists' as it means 'to demand'.
40. (c) If we look at the option (a), "in", it should be noted that Likewise, 'desists' cannot be used because it means 'to
'in' cannot be used with 'day', grammatically. So, this hate' and 'resists' means 'to protest' which gives no
option is nullified. It is a common practice that when sense here. So, use of 'persists' is most suitable.
we use 'on' to denote a day or a date then we use 'the' 52. (c) Use of 'matters' gives a proper sense here. Use of
before the word 'day'. But here, in the sentence, "the" 'implies' is not suitable here because it is not according
has not been used. Now, we are left with the option (c), to context of sentence. 'Matches' and 'moves' also give
'that', which fits well when we direct towards a particular non-contextual meaning here, so, we should use
day in the past. 'matters' for complete sense.
41. (b) It is evident that the person has full knowledge of his 53. (c) According to sense of the sentence, we need a word
mental state and he is driving himself to do the best. opposite to 'neighbours' which is 'strangers'. 'Primitives',
Going by the mental situation of the subject, it hints 'Complementary' and 'Cowards' cannot be used because
that the work he is doing is extremely necessary for him they don't give opposite sense of 'neighbours'.
without a doubt. In places where full willingness and 54. (d) Best suitable phrase would be "Nature versus nurture"
authority is represented then 'can' or 'would' should when it is related to crime. Nature is something that
not be used as these words suggest capability and reflects the internal motto while Nurture reflects the
politeness in attitude respectively. But option (b), 'must' idea of upbringing.
define the person's stance that he has to complete the 55. (b) Occurred is the most appropriate word.
work whatsoever. 56. (a). Followed is the most appropriate word.
42. (a) From the previous item, we know that how much 57. (c) Evidence is the most appropriate word.
important this game is for the subject. It was his dream 58. (b) Sound is the most appropriate word.
to play in Wimbledon. Seeing the importance of this 59. (b) down is the most appropriate word.
match, it should be noted that this match is not just 60. (a) With is the most appropriate word.
important for this particular day but for his life. Option 61. (a) Fired means dismiss (an employee) from a job. Its
(b), 'age' also does not lend edge to the statement. Thus, synonym is relived from the job. Rebuke and scolded
option (a) 'life' is the best and correct answer. means express sharp disapproval or criticism of
43. (a) In this sentence, the subject is the player and "he" has (someone) because of their behaviour or actions.
been used as a pronoun. The second part of the Attacked means criticize.
sentence also keeps talking about the player only not 62. (c) Obliterate means destroy utterly; wipe out. Its synonym
for a general person. Thus, 'you' or 'one' cannot be is erase. Demolish means to destroy( it is used generally
used in this sentence. However, 'he' fits the bill as the for buildings). Extinguish means to wipe out.
sentence is in continuation with the person's actions. 63. (c) Ineffable means too great for words.
44. (c) From the previous item, we get the hint that the person 64. (c) Edifying means providing moral or intellectual
has played an important match and wants to excel from instruction. Therefore its synonym is instructive.
the very beginning as he knows that life is dynamic
Tedious means monotonous. Exciting means appealing.
and the same person does not always get unlimited
65. (a) Shabbily means showing signs of wear and tear;
chances although games and matches would always
threadbare or worn-out. Its antonym is decently dressed
happen. So, the sentence becomes a little philosophical
meaning appropriately. Extravagant means indulgent
and hints more at number of opportunities available
than at games and matches, thus, option (c), and scantily means hardly dressed.
opportunities seems the most correct answer. 66. (c) Urbane means courteous and refined in manner,
45. (c) Here, question tag is required in Present Tense. So, use civilised. Its antonym is rude meaning uncivilised and
'have'. disrespectful. Foolish means stupid. Slow means dumb.
46. (d) Here, use of 'pain' is suitable as in first pair also 67. (b) Thrifty means economical. Its antonym is extravagant
antonymous analogy words are used. meaning indulgent and wasteful. Expensive means
47. (c) Here, a complete race is addressed which is obviously costly. Good means fine.
a plural subject, so, we will use plural helping verb 68. (c) Pride means consciousness of one's own dignity. Its
according to the subject for proper sentence formation. antonym is humility meaning humbleness. Lowliness
48. (b) Use of 'machine' is proper here because it needs oiling means bashfulness, submission means compliance and
for smooth run. Path cannot be oiled, likewise there is obedience means good behaviour.
no means of oiling river or garden. So, use of machine 69. (a) Command here refers to the ability to use or control
is suitable. something. Therefore, it is the most appropriate word
49. (b) We get the sense of beginning phase of the stated out of the given options to fill the blank.
stage of life so, we should use word 'threshold' here. 70. (b) Perspiration here refers to the process of sweating.
50. (c) According to sense of sentence, here, we should use a Therefore, it si the most appropriate word out of the
collective term which can show the coupled relation of given options to fill the blank.
both words (action and thought). 'Divergent' cannot
EBD_7348
71. (a) Programmes here means a planned series of future 105. (d) Both ‘denied’ and ‘refused’ can be used to fill the blank
events or performances. Therefore, it is the most but ‘refused’ seems to be more appropriate.
appropriate word out of the given options to fill the 106. (c) Profuse which means ‘very plentiful (especially of
blank. something discharged)’ fits in the blank correctly and
77. (d) Convenient here refers to a location situated so as to makes the sentence contextually correct.
allow easy access to everyone. Therefore, it is the most 107. (b) Since there is no preposition after the blank. ‘Said’
appropriate word out of the given options to fill the explained’ and ‘spoken’ are eliminated there making
blank. ‘total’ the only suitable option to fill the blank correctly.
78. (c) Astounded means to get shocked or greatly surprised. 108. (c) ‘As soon as’ is used to express two simultaneous
Therefore, it is the most appropriate word out of the actions. Rest of the options are incorrect in the context
given options to fill the blank. of the sentence.
79. (c) Indifferent means having no particular interest or 109. (c) ‘Avoid’ is the most appropriate usage in the blank for
sympathy or to be unconcerned. Therefore, it is the it gives the sense of making all the possible efforts to
most appropriate word out of the given options to fill null the change.
the blank. 110. (c) ‘Ambition’ and ‘Aspiration’ have the same collocation.
80. (c) Cut-throat here means a competitive situation or activity Hence, ‘aspire’ is the suitable option to fill the blank
which is fierce and intense or involving the use of correctly. moreover, rest of the options areinappropriate
ruthless measures. Therefore, it is the most appropriate in the context of the sentence.
word out of the given options to fill the blank. 111. (c) ‘Lust’ is the most appropriate word as it is used to
81. (d) Comprises means to be composed of or contain. For denode extreme vices and negativities.
example: The staff comprises of eight physicians, two 112. (d) (Enough) is used when things are more than required.
dozen nurses, and various administrative people. 113. (b) barely or ‘only just’
Therefore, it is the most appropriate word out of the 114. (c) off (shows detachment)
given options to fill the blank. 115. (c) with (shows togetherness)
83. (c) Here, Reliable refers to someone or something capable 116. (a) jumping (jumping with/for joy is an idiom)
of being relied on or dependable. For example : a reliable 117. (a) could (shows ability)
assistant; a reliable car. 118. (c) felt (joy is felt)
84. (a) Here, Inevitable refers to a situation that is unavoidable. 119. (c) on (‘at’ is for one moment/position/place etc.; ‘on’ is
85. (c) Sketch means a quick or undetailed drawing or painting used for possession/achievement)
often made as a preliminary study or for a brief general 120. (b) glow (face glows with some positive emotion)
account or presentation. 121. (b) appears (means ‘is visible’)
87. (d) Decorous means behaving politely and in a controlled 122. (b) starving (the sentence is in present tense as ‘appears’
way. suggests; ‘starved’ which would also mean the same
90. (c) Distinguish means to recognize or treat (someone or is eliminated as it shows past tense)
something) as different. 123. (a) The sentence will take ‘is’ as it is in present tense.
92. (a) Divulge means to disclose or reveal (something private, 124. (b) The word ‘insured’ will take ‘against’.
secret, or previously unknown). 125. (b) The sentence will take the adjective ‘disappointing’.
93. (c) Pull through refers to get through an illness or other 130. (c) Short of means ‘not having enough of something’.
dangerous or difficult situation. 131. (a) ‘standing’ will take ‘by’.
94. (a) Be set 'with' is the most appropriate choice. 132. (d) ‘desert’ means ‘to abandon (a person, cause, or
95. (b) Contempt means a strong feeling of disliking and organization) in a way considered disloyal or treacherous.
having no respect for someone or something. 133. (d) 'Plodded' which means 'walked doggedly and slowly
96. (d) Amicable means relating to behaviour between people with heavy steps' will be correct word to fill the black.
that is pleasant and friendly, often despite a difficult 134. (c) 'Nasty' which means 'very bad or unpleasant' fills the
situation. blank contextually.
97. (b) Falling out is defined as a disagreement or something 135. (c) 'Sumptuous' which means 'splendid and expensive-
that causes two people to no longer be friendly with looking’ is the most appropriate word to fill the blank
one another. correctly.
98. (a) Tedious means tiresome because of length or dullness. 136. (c) 'Complete' is the most appropriate word which fills the
99. (c) Negligence means failure to exercise the care that a blank correctly.
reasonably prudent person would exercise in like 137. (b) The sentence requires a noun to fill the blank correctly
circumstances. hence, 'standing' is the correct word to fill the blank
100. (c) Efficacy means the power to produce a desired result correctly.
or effect. 138. (c) One meaning of "leaving" is "departing from a place
101. (d) Dynamic here refers to a person positive in attitude permanently"
and full of energy and new ideas. 139. (b) In this sentence, "conserved" means "prevented the
103. (c) In case of an informal anticipation, the word, ‘expect’ wasteful overuse of (a resource)".
is used. 140. (a) One meaning of "hegemony" is "leadership or
104. (a) Since the principal clause of the sentence is in past dominance, especially by one state or social group
tense, the following clause will also be in past tense. over others".
So, ‘saw’ is the appropriate word to be used.
141. (a) The phrasal verb "call off" means "cancel an event or 149. (c) The noun "member" refers to a person, animal, or plant
agreement". belonging to a particular group.
142. (c) The sentence is a Conditional sentence. When the verb 150. (d) In biology, the noun "colony" refers to a community of
in the if clause is in the past tense, the verb in the main animals or plants of one kind living close together or
clause is in the conditional tense. The modals will, can forming a physically connected structure.
are not used in this type of conditional sentence. 151. (d) Note the use of "than". It implies that the adjective
Similarly, the simple past tense is not used in the main should be in comparative degree. This rules out
clause. The past tense in the if-clause is not a true options (a) and (c) from consideration. A queen bee is
past but a subjunctive, which indicates unreality or 'larger' than other bees in the hive.
improbability. 152. (a) One meaning of the verb "lay" with an ensuing object
143. (a) Remember that you apologise to someone to convey refers to a female bird, insect, reptile, or amphibian
that you are sorry that you have done something that produces an egg.
wrong. 153. (b) ‘Dense’ which means thick fits the blank correctly.
144. (c) One meaning of the verb "float" is "rest or move on or
near the surface of a liquid without sinking". 155. (a) ‘Drive off’ is a phrasal verb which means ‘to leave in a
145. (b) The adverb "hardly" means "only a very short time car’.
before". 156. (c) ‘Doze off’ is a phrasal verb which means ‘to start to
146. (b) You commit yourself to (doing) something.
sleep, especially during the day and without intending
147. (a) The noun "apprehension" means "anxiety or fear that
something bad or unpleasant will happen". to’.
148. (a) Here, the preposition "unlike" means "different from; 157. (a) ‘Suspect’ which means ‘a person thought to be guilty
not similar to". of a crime or offence’ fits the sentence contextually.
EBD_7348
Spotting Errors 4
DIRECTIONS :
(I) In this Section a number of sentences is given. The sentences are in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read
each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in
any one of the parts (a), (b), (c), indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that
there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
(II) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer
will be considered wrong.) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word
which should be removed.
(III) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
Examples ‘P’ and ‘Q’ have been solved for you.
P : The young child (a) / singed (b) / a very sweet song (c) / No error (d).
Q : We worked (a) / very hard (b) / throughout the season (c) / No error (d).
Explanation :
In item P, the word ‘singed’ is wrong. The letter indicate this part is (b); so (b) is the correct answer. Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the
correct answer, as the sentence does not contain any error.
1. An unit is an abstract idea, (a) / defined either by reference 9. The two books are the same (a) / except for the fact that his
to (b) / a randomly chosen material standard or to a natural (b) / has an answer in the back. (c) / No error (d). [2006-I]
phenomenon. (c) / No error (d). [2006-I] 10. The Prime Minister’s good looks won him (a) / the election
2. Microwaves are the principle carriers (a) / of television, but he has still to prove (b) / that he’s not a just pretty face.
telephone and data transmissions (b) / between stations on (c) / No error (d). [2006-I]
earth and between the earth and satellites. (c) / No error (d). 11. She stood off (a) / from the crowd (b) / because of her height
[2006-I] and flaming red hair. (c) / No error (d). [2006-II]
3. Mahavira was an advocate of nonviolence and 12. The data on (a) / the divorce case is (b) / on the judge’s desk.
vegetarianism, (a) / who revived and recognized the Jain (c) / No error (d). [2006-II]
doctrine (b) / and established rules for their monastic order. 13. There is a beautiful moon out tonight (a) / and Neeta and I
(c) / No error (d). [2006-I] are going for a stroll (b) / would you like to come along with
4. Amit has been deceiving Mona (a) / for many years but she she and I ? (c) / No error (d). [2006-II]
(b) / has not still tumbled to it. (c) / No error (d). [2006-I] 14. Your husband doesn’t (a) / believe that you are older (b) /
5. A major contribution of Mathura sculptors (a) / of that period than I. (c) / No error (d). [2006-II]
were the creation and popularization (b) / of the Buddha’s 15. You should be cautious (a) / and make a few discrete enquires
image in human form. (c) / No error (d). [2006-I] about (b) / the firm before you sign anything. (c) / No
6. I will try to put over (a) / some feelers to gauge (b) / people’s error (d). [2006-II]
reactions to our proposal. (c) / No error (d). [2006-I] 16. I will need several weeks (a) / to invent the lie of the land
7. The modern office block (a) / sticks out like a sore thumb before (b) / I can make any decision about the future of the
(b) / among the old building sin the area. (c) / No error (d). business. (c) / No error (d). [2006-II]
[2006-I] 17. The salesman gave us (a) / a big spiel about why (b) / we
8. He estimated his income tax bill (a) / by extrapolation over should buy his product. (c) / No error (d). [2006-II]
figures (b) / submitted in previous years. (c) / No error (d). 18. With the crisis deepening, (a) / the critics sense an
[2006-I] opportunity (b) / about putting in place a more radical
strategy. (c) / No error (d). [2006-II]
Spotting Errors E-41
19. It’s stupid to go (a)/ to the expense of taking (b)/ music 42. I could not (a)/ answer to (b)/ the question. (c) No error (d)
lessons if you never practice (c)/ No error. (d) [2007-I] [2008-II]
20. You will find it difficult (a)/ to explain of your use (b)/ of 43. Two years passed (a)/ since (b)/ my cousin died. (c)/ No
such offensive language (c)/ No error. (d) [2007-I] error (d) [2008-II]
21. Because of the (a)/ extenuating circumstances, (b)/ the court
acquitted him out of the crime (c)/ No error (d). [2007-I] 44. He hesitated to accept the post as he did not think
22. The carpet was badly stained, (a)/ to such an extent that (b)/ (a) (b)
you couldn’t tell its original colour. (c)/ No error. (d)
that the salary would not be enough for a man with a
[2007-I]
(c)
23. It is greatly to Amit’s credit (a)/ that he gave back the money
he found; (b)/ his honesty does for him credit (c)/ No family of three No Error. [2009-I]
error. (d) [2007-I] (d)
24. A terrific hue and cry (a)/ was raised (b)/ at the new tax
proposals (c)/ No error. (d) [2007-I] Have you gone through either of these three chapters
45.
25. The former General was (a)/ exiled of his country because of (a) (b)
(b)/ his part in the plot against the government (c) / No that have been included in this volume? No Error.
error. (d) [2007-I]
(c) (d)
26. The company has (a)/ set off itself some stiff production (b)/
goals for this year (c)/ No error. (d) [2007-I] [2009-I]
27. The music was so loud (a) / that we had bellow over each 46. I am learning English for ten years [2009-I]
(b) / other to be heard. (c) / No error (d). [2007-II] (a) (b)
28. When this beautiful girl arrived (a) / all the men in the room
without much effect No Error.
(b) / gravitated over her. (c) / No error (d). [2007-II]
(c) (d)
29. The children are (a) / really in their element (b) / playing on
the beach. (c) / No error (d). [2007-II] Ramesh has agreed to marry with the girl
47. [2009-I]
30. The refugees are (a) / badly off for blankets (b) / and even (a) (b)
worse for food. (c) / No error (d). [2007-II]
31. From their vintage – point on the cliff, (a) / the children of his parent's choice. No Error.
could watch (b) / the ships coming and going (c) / No (c) (d)
error (d). [2007-II] The pity is that no sooner. he had left the place
32. Some women admit that (a) / their principle goal in life (b) / is 48. [2009-I]
(a) (b)
to marry a wealthy man. (c) / No error (d). [2008-I]
33. Take two spoonsful (a) / of this medicine (b) / every three than the fire broke out No Error.
hours. (c) / No error (d). [2008-I] (c) (d)
34. The film was so disjointed (a) / that I could not tell you (b) /
When he was arriving the party was
what the story was about. (c) / No error (d) [2008-I] 49. [2009-I]
(a) (b)
35. He had been (a) / saved of death as if (b) / by divine
intervention. (c) / No error (d). [2008-I] in full swing. No Error.
36. A cogent remark (a) / compels acceptance because (b) / of (c) (d)
their sense and logic. (c) / No error (d) [2008-I]
37. Credit cards have (a) / brought about a revolutions (b) / in 50. The dean wrote that he constituted a committee of experts
people’s spending habits. (c) / No error. (d) [2008-I] (a)
38. In financial matters (a) / it is important to (b) / get disinterested comprising five members
advice. (c) / No error. (d) [2008-I]
(b)
39. I informed the principal (a)/ that I was running temperature
(b)/ and therefore could not attend the meeting. (c) / No before the next meeting took place. No Error.
error (d). [2008-II] [2009-I]
(c) (d)
40. The lady was broken with grief (a)/ when she heard the sad
51. I can't help to sneeze I got drenched yesterday
news of the train disaster (b)/ in which her brother was killed.
(c) / No error (d) [2008-II] (a) (b)
41. The farmer is irrigating (a)/ his fields (b)/ since morning. (c)/ No and have a bad cold. No Error.
error (d) [2008-II] [2009-I]
(c) (d)
EBD_7348
68. Rekha is (a)/ enough old (b)/ to get married (c)/ No error (d)
52. I have lived from the hand to the mouth [2009-I] [2010-I]
(a) (b)
69. As far as I am concerned, (a)/ I shall do everything (b)/
for all these fifty years though nobody knows it. No Error. possible to help you (c)/ No error (d) [2010-I]
(c) (d) 70. The person in the seat of justice (a)/ should be absolutely
partial (b)/ and not treat his nearest and dearest with favour.
(c)/ No error (d) [2010-I]
53. Both he as well as his friend worked in close harmony
(a) (b) Let us congratulate him for his success
71.
on this same project. No Error. (a) (b)
[2009-I]
(c) (d) in the examination No error
[2010-II]
The Monk loved riding and hunting (c) (d)
54. [2009-I]
(a) Many people prefer to travel by the road
72.
(a) (b)
and refused to conform by rules and regulations
(b) because it is less expensive No error
[2010-II]
(c) (d)
of the ancient monastic order. No Error.
(c) (d) 73. She was beside herself in joy
(a)
55. Inflation and shortages (a)/ have made it very difficult for
him (b)/ to make his both ends meet (c)/ No error (d). when she came to know
[2009-II] (b)
56. The most studious boy (a)/ in the class (b) was made as the
that she had been selected for the job
captain (c)/ No error (d). [2009-II]
(c)
57. I am participating (a) / in the two-miles race (b) / tomorrow
morning (c)/ No error (d). [2009-II] No error
58. The sum and substance (a)/ of his speech (b)/ were [2010-II]
(d)
essentially anti-establishment (c)/ No error (d). [2009-II]
59. It has been such a wonderful evening, (a)/ I look forward to Mother tongue is as natural
74.
meet you again (b)/ after the vacations (c)/ No error (d). (a)
[2009-II] for the development of man's mind
60. When the body committed a mistake, (a)/ the teacher made (b)
him to do (b)/ the sum again (c)/ No error (d). [2009-II]
61. Unless the government does not revise its policy of
liberalization (a)/ the growth of the indigenous technology as mother's milk is for the development of the infant's body
(b)/ will be adversely affected (c)/ No error (d). [2009-II] (c)
62. Supposing if you get (a)/ a seat in the plane (b)/ you will not No error
take more than two hours to reach Mumbai (c)/ No error (d). [2010-II]
(d)
[2009-II]
The Prime Minister as well as his secretary were expected to
63. Whenever a person lost anything (a)/ the poor folk around 75.
(a)
(b)/ are suspected. (c)/ No error (d) [2010-I]
64. Still impressive is that (a)/ we achieve this selective arrive in Chennai on Saturday morning.
attention (b)/ through our latent ability to lip-read (c)/ No (b) (c)
error (d) [2010-I]
65. As I entered the famous gallery (a)/ my attention was at No error
[2010-II]
once drawn (b)/ to the large sculpture in the corner (c)/ No (d)
error (d) [2010-I]
The speaker was not only slow
66. Everyday before (a)/ I start work for my livelihood 76.
(a) (b)
(b)/ I do my prayer (c)/ No error (d) [2010-I]
67. Pooja went to her friend’s house at the appointed hour; but also inaudible as well No error
but (a)/ she was told (b)/ that her friend left half an hour [2010-II]
(c) (d)
earlier (c)/ No error (d) [2010-I]
The crowd surged forward to have a glimpse 92. The doctor advised me that
77. (a) (b)
(a) (b)
of their favourite leader. No error I am going on a salt free diet. No error. [2011-II]
[2010-II] (c) (d)
(c) (d)
93. It can't be true
There is a distinctive possibility (a)
78.
(a)
that he has never done something wrong
that he will leave the job (b)
(b)
in his entire career. No error. [2011-II]
once the investigation is over No error (c) (d)
[2010-II]
(c) (d)
94. He told that his brother was singer. No error. [2011-II]
Many a star are (a) (b) (c) (d)
79.
(a) (b) 95. When we reached at the station
twinkling in the sky. No error (a)
[2010-II]
(c) (d) I fought my way through people and luggage
(b)
80. We discussed the problem so throughly that and secured a place next to the window. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
I found it easy to work it out. No error [2011-II]
[2010-II]
(c) (d) 96. The managing director along with his for
(b)
81. We are meeting today afternoon/(a) to discuss the matter/ staff members were present
(b) and reach a compromise./(c) No error/(d) [2011-I] (a)
82. Either Ram or /(a) you is responsible/(b) for this action./(c)
No error/(d) [2011-I] the annual general body meeting. No error.
(c) (d) [2011-II]
83. The student flatly denied/(a)that he had copied/(b) in the
examination hall./(c) No error/(d) [2011-I]
97. If you will follow my instructions,
84. By the time you arrive tomorrow/(a) I have finished/(b) my
(a)
work./(c) No error/(d) [2011-I]
85. The speaker stressed repeatedly on/(a) the importance of you will definitely score high marks
improving/(b) the condition of the slums/(c) No error/(d) (b)
[2011-I]
86. The captain with the members of his team/(a) arereturning/ in the entrance examination. No error.
(c) (d) [2011-II]
(b) after a fortnight./(c) No error/(d) [2011-I]
87. After returning from/(a) an all-India tour/(b) I had to describe 98. In many respects, India is different
about it./(c) No error /(d) [2011-I] (a) (b)
88. The teacher asked his students/(a) if they had gone
through/(b) either of the three chapters included in the than western countries. No error. [2011-II]
prescribed text./(c) No error/(d) [2011-I] (c) (d)
89. Although they are living in the country/(a) since they were
99. The members of the family soon became [2011-II]
married/(b) they are now moving to the town. /(c) (b)
(a)
No error/(d) [2011-I]
90. Do you know/(a) how old were you/(b) when you came here?/ aware what had taken place No error.
(c) No error/(d) [2011-I] (c) (d)
91. It was really smart of him
100. I have met him on Monday last
(a) (a) (b)
to have chosen the right course, is n 't it? No error.
(b) (d) and had a long discussion. No error. [2011-II]
(c) (d)
(c)
[2011-II]
EBD_7348
101. It is time we decide not to play cricket, 111.

Despite of continuing pain
(a) (b) (a)
for the next two years. No error she worked at her temporary summer job
(c) (d) [2011-II]
(b)
102. He likes the sceneries of the hills No error. [2011-II]
(a) (b) (c) (d) most of the week. No error
[2012-I]
(c) (d)
103. I did not know
(a) As soon the film started I developed
112.
that you have left your handbag in our office (a) (b)
(b)
an irritating headache. No error
[2012-I]
when you came to see me last Friday. No error. (c) (d)
(c) (d) [2011-II]
He applied for an employment in an office.
113.
104. He wanted me to bring two breads and some butter (a) (b) (c)
(a) (b)
No error
for breakfast. No error. [2012-I]
(c) (d) [2011-II] (d)
105. The parents are happy to know Though we drove fast, the train left,
114.
(a) (a)
that a number of summer programmes before we could reach the station. No error
have been arranged (b) (c) (d)
[2012-I]
(b)
One Indian virtue that has impressed me greatly
for the benefit of their children. No error. 115.
[2011-II] (a)
(c) (d)
and touched me deeply
Let us bring this discussion to close. No error
106. [2012-I] (b)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
was the Indian people's freedom of rancour. No error
Each of them have a different version of the crime.
107. (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c)
[2012-I]
No error None of the applicants have turned up for the interview
[2012-I] 116.
(d) (a) (b)
I and Gopal went to the meeting together. No error on time. No error.

108. [2012-II]
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d)
[2012-I] Her mother did not reply when I asked her
117.
Latin is not only hard to write but also to read. (a) (b)
109.
(a) (b) (c) why was she weeping. No error.
[2012-II]
(c) (d)
No error
[2012-I]
(d) 118. The oxygen content of Mars is not
(a)
In most villages the roads are rough; isn't it?
110. sufficient enough to support life as we know it.
(a) (b) (c)
(b) (c)
No error
[2012-I] No error.
(d) [2012-II]
(d)
He told his friends that each of them 128. Many a boy were happy dancing at the victory
119. (a) (b) (a) (b)
should be able to carry out the orders oneself. of our cricket team in Australia No error
(c) [2013-I]
(c) (d)
No error.
(d)
[2012-II] 129. Imagine living with someone who never stops talk.
(a) (b) (c)
If the police would have worked in time
120. No error
(a) (b)
(d)
[2013-I]
the riot would not have occurred. No error.
[2012-II]
(c) (d) 130. I was shocked when he told me
The flag is risen in the morning and taken down at night (a) (b)
121.
(a) (b)
that the old woman died by cancer. No error
by the guards. No error. (c) (d)
[2013-I]
(c)
[2012-II]
(d)
131. To the men who worked so hard in the project,
I have seen him going to the theatre (a)
122.
(a) (b)
the news was profound disappointing No error
with his friends yesterday evening. No error. (b) (c) (d)
[2012-II]
(c) (d)
[2013-I]
123. He was charged of murder [2012-II] Even though she lost the beauty contest,
(a) 132.
(a)
though the evidence did every thing
(b) she was still more prettier than the other girls. No error
(b) (c) (d)
to convince the judge of his innocence. No error.
[2013-I]
(c) (d)
133. The novel is interesting, informative
is a good student
124. Neither he nor his brother (a) (b)
(a) (b)
but both are good players. No error. and it is easy to read No error
[2012-II] (c) (d)
[2013-I]
(c) (d)
He has taken charge as principal of our college The differential attractions of the sun and the moon
125. 134.
(a) (b) have a direct effect
three years ago. No error. (a)
[2012-II]
(c) (d)
in the rising and falling and it is easy to read No error
126. If you will work hard you will always succeed (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c)
[2013-I]
No error 135. Despite of the pills which are available,
[2013-I]
(d) (a) (b)
127. She has been teaching dancing at the victory many people still have trouble sleeping No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
since five days No error [2013-I]
[2013-I]
(c) (d)
EBD_7348
DIRECTIONS: (Qs. 136-145) : in the underlined parts. No sentence has more than one error.
(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The Letters (a), (b) and (c) have been placed beneath the underlined
sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each parts for their identification. When you find an error in any one
one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out of the underlined parts, indicate your response on the separate
whether there is an error in any underlined part. No Answer Sheet in the relevant column. You may feel that there is
sentence has more than one error. When you find an error no erro in the sentence. In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No
in any one of the underlined part (a), (b) or (c) indicate error’ response.
your responses on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate [2014-I]
space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In 146. The pile of books are missing. No error
that case, (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be 147. Either he or I are wrong . No error
a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required 148. Please tell to him to do his work. No error
only to indicate your response on the answer sheet. (a) (b) (c) (d)
149. Though he is good he is mischievous . No error
[2013-II]
(a) (b) (c) (d)
136. Suppose if you were left alone to live on a desert island
150. The thief hit me suddenly and hardly . No error
(a) (b)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
what would you do?. No error. 151. The number of books in our library is less. No error
(c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
137. He wondered that what would be the next move of his 152. The general said, “Soldiers, do not fire till I will give the
(a) (b) (a) (b) (c)
opponents who had vowed to see him dislodged from power. order” . No error
(c) (d)
No error. 153. Neither of the candidates are good . No error
(d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
138. The nation should be greatful to the armed forces for 154. This machine is more efficient than any other equipments
(a) (b) (a) (b) (c)
protecting them. No error. in the workshop. No error
(c) (d) (d)
139. I do not know what is he doing to solve the problem. 155. The tin deposits in that area would probably be exhausted
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b)
No error. in to near future . No error
(d) (c) (d)
140. For so many years it is almost his habit to go to the bed at 156. The operation of this machine is different to that of the
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c)
10 p.m. daily. No error. other . No error
(d) (d)
141. He took down after his father. No error. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 157-166) : In this section, each question
(a) (b) (c) (d) has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and
142. His honesty has never been called the question. No error. (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in
(a) (b) (c) (d) any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer
143. I see her most weekends but not very often between. Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If
(a) (b) (c) you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
No error. [2014-II]
(d) 157. It was nearly thirty years ago, since this magazine was
144. The chancellor was present on both occasions. No error. (a) (b)
(a) (b) (c) (d) first published. No error
145. The deliberations by the committee are completely (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) 158. Ten years ago he was having an income of over ten
confidential. No error. (a) (b)
(d) thousand rupees a monthly; he must indeed be a wealthy
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 146-156) : In this section, you have to spot (c)
errors in sentences. Read each sentence to find out whether man by now. No error
there is an error in any underlined part. Errors, if any, are only (d)
159. In spite of the fact that the meeting was about to end , he 170. It is an established fact that the transcendental American
(a) (b) poets and philosophers,
insisted to ask several questions. No error (a)
(c) (d) who lived in the latter half of the nineteenth century,
160. Hardly had he entered into the room and taken his seat, (b)
(a) (b) were more influenced by Indian philosophy, in particular by
when the girls began to giggle. No error Upanishadic Philosophy. No error.
(c) (d) (c) (d)
161. I was disappointed when I came for seeing you last evening 171. No sooner did I open the door
(a) (b) (a)
but could not find you at home. No error when the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in
(c) (d) (b)
162. The number of jobs that would be satisfactory in all respects making us shiver from head to foot. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
are small. No error 172. After opening the door we entered into the room
(c) (d) (a) (b)
163. I have found the man whom I know is the thief. No error next to the kitchen. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d)
164. There is no reason why he should not come since he is in 173. When the dentist came in my tooth was stopped aching
(a) (b)
(a) (b) (c)
out of fear that I might lose my tooth. No error.
town and is free. No error (c) (d)
(d) 174. Emphasis on equality of life ensures for the health and
165. It is high time we cried a halt to the existing corrupt practices (a) (b)
(a) (b) happiness of every individual. No error.
followed in the educational sphere. No error (c) (d)
(c) (d) 175. The students were awaiting for the arrival of the chief
166. The situation in perilous but if we are prepared promptly to (a) (b) (c)
(a) (b) guest. No error.
act, there is still one chance of escape. No error (d)
176. You will come to my party tomorrow, isn't it? No error.
(c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 167-181) : In this section, a number of 177. Having read a number of stories about space travel
sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three parts (a) (b)
and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find his dream now is about to visit the moon. No error.
out whether there is error in any underlined part. No sentence (c) (d)
has more than one error. When you find an error in one of the 178. The meeting adjourned abruptly by the Chairman after
underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the (a) (b)
Answer Sheet at appropriate space. You may feel that there is no about three hours of deliberation. No error.
error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a 'No error' response. (c) (d)
179. Not one of the hundreds of striking workers were allowed
[2015-I]
(a) (b)
167. Unless you stop to make noise at once, I will have no option but to to go near the factory. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
bring the matter to the attention of the police. No error. 180. If I had known this earlier I will have helped him. No error.
(c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
168. He couldn't but help 181. Mr. Smith was accused for murder but the court found him
(a) (a) (b)
shed tears at the plight of the villagers not guilty and acquitted him. No error.
(b) (c) (d)
rendered homeless by a devastating cyclone. No error. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 182-190) : Each item in this section has a
(c) (d) sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c).
169. Since it was his first election campaign, the candidate was Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any
(a) underlined part and indicate your answer in the Answer Sheet
confused; none could clearly understand either the against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c) . If you find
(b) no error, your response should be indicated as (d). [2015-II]
principles he stood for or the benefits the promise . No error.
(c) (d)
EBD_7348
182. I am told John is ill since Monday. No error. in her sleep. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
183. I shall leave school as soon as I shall find a job. (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) I asked him that why he was angry
No error. 195.
(d) (a) (b)
184. He is a rich man: he is owning but he did not answer. No error.
(a) (b)
a number of buildings in Bombay. No error. (c) (d)
(c) (d)
185. We were able to make it in spite of a bad weather. 196. Had I not taken ill, I would have sent you my research
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b)
No error.
(d) paper much earlier. No error.
186. Neither of the two letters of credit were useful (c) (d)
(a) (b)
when he needed it. No error. 197. The barn owl helps the farmer by destroying rats which could,
(c) (d) (a)
187. Little he realized that he wouldn't live
(a) (b) if left unchecked do a lot of damage to the crops.
to see his grandson married. No error (b) (c)
(c) (d)
188. A difficult syllabus is supposed to hurt No error.
(a) (b) (d)
juvenile mind. No error.
(c) (d) 198. He had gone home three weeks ago and was exp ected back
189. The voice of sanity and patriotism (a) (b)
(a)
are important to dispel the prevailing confusion yesterday, but he has not come yet. No error.
(b) (c)
No error. (c) (d)
(d) 199. We must sympathize for others in their troubles.
190. You were going to explain your late arrival,
(a) (b) (a) (b) (c)
isn't it? No error. No error.
(c) (d)
(d)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 191-200) : Each question in this section
has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and 200. The scientists in America are trying for long
(c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in (a) (b)
any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer
Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If to discover the genes responsible for ageing. No error.
you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d). (c) (d)
[2016-I] DIRECTIONS (Qs. 201-210) : Each question in this section has
a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c).
191. She said that she was understanding his point of view Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any
(a) (b) underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet
against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no
very well. No error. error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(c) (d) [2016-II]
192. All the houses having been washed away by the floods, 201. My friend was habitual to drive a car at very high speed.
(a) (b) (c)
(a) (b) No error.
the villagers sought shelter in the panchayat office. (d)
201. Being a day of national mourning the offices were closed
(c)
( a) (b)
No error. and the national flag flew half mast. No error.
(d) (c) (d)
203. If you are wanting to watch the birds nesting you must
193. It is necessary for us to familiarize with and get used to
(a) (b)
(a) (b) not let them see you. No error.
the ways of the people among whom we live. No error. (c) (d)
204. He does not listen to what I say, although I am
(c) (d) (a) (b) (c)
194. The mother asked the child why did she cry out advising him for a long time. No error.
(d)
(a) (b)
205. It is most essential for us to reach the station before noon

218. There was great deal that had to be scrapped,
(a) (b)
lest we should miss the train. No error. that must be scrapped;
(c) (d) (a)
206. I asked him what had brought him there. No error. but surely India could not have been what
(a) (b) (c) (d)
207. The guards dare not to harm him. No error. she undoubtedly was,
(a) (b) (c) (d) (b)
208. The principal looks very worried because students are on and could not have continued a cultured existence
(a) (b)
strike for the last fifteen days as a protest against for thousands of years
his disciplinary action against some miscreants. No error. (c)
(c) (d) No error
209. The king was embarrassed to find evidences against his
(a) (b) (d)
own queen. No error. 219. With regard to interior decoration, it is the
(c) (d)
attention given to the less overt aspects of using space
210. As I prefer coffee than tea my friends always take the trouble
(a) (b) (a)
to get me a cup of coffee whenever I visit them. No error that give it life, an identity, a quality
(c) (d) (b)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 211-215) : Each item in this section has a that makes it exciting and unusual No error
sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). (c) (d)
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any
underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet A small parcel of novels is better than none No error
against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find 220.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
no error, your response should be indicated as (ds).
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 221-225) : Each item in this section has a
[2017-I] sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c).
211. I can fly if I will be a bird No error. Read each sentences to find out whether there is any error in
(a) (b) (c) (d) any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer
212. As soon as the train arrived the passengers entered the Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If
(a) (b) (c) you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
compartments No error.
(d) [2018-I]
213. Never I have seen such a town No error. The politician lost face in his constituency
(a) (b) (c) (d) 221.
214. He goes to his office by bicycle every day No error. ( a)
(a) (b) (c) (d) when he broke the pre - election promises
215. Far from being appreciated, his conduct was discussed
(a) (b) ( b)
and sharply commented No error. he made to his people. No error.
(c) (d)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 216-220) : Each item in this section has a
( c) (d)
sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). 222. At the request of the Defence Attorney,
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any
underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet
(a)
against the corresponding letter i.e, (a) or (b) or (c). If you find the jury were called
no error, your response should be indicated as (d). ( b)
[2017-II] and their individual verdicts were recorded. No error.
An electrical circuit is the complete path ( c) (d)
216.
(a) (b)
has been acclaimed by colleagues
traversed by electric current No error 223. Frank Lloyd Wright
(a) ( b)
(c) (d)
as the greater of all modern architects. No error.
217. He waved us a by-by as he boarded the train
( c) (d)
(a) (b)
at a stretch.
224. In my younger days I could run four miles
which disappeared into the tunnel (a) ( b) ( c)
(c) No error.
No error (d)
(d)
EBD_7348
The owner as well as his servants is honest No error. 232. He was my school - friend but becoming a great man,
225.
( a) ( b) ( c) (d) (a ) ( b)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 226-230) : Each item in this section has a he has grown proud enough to forget his old friends
sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c).
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any ( c)
underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet No error
against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a), (b) or (c). If you find no
error, your response should be indicated as (d). ( d)
[2018-II] Rabindranath Tagore, a Nobel laureate and the author
233.
He appears to be a honest man No error
( a) (c)
226.
(a) ( b) ( c) ( d) of the national anhem found Shanthiniketan No error
( c) ( d)
227. One of the members expressed doubt if the
(a) ( b) 234. The art of printing was introduced into England
(a)
Minister was atheist No error
during the reign of Edward IV
( c) ( d)
( b)
228. This view has been taken by one of the ablest person by William Caxton
(a) ( b) a native of Kent No error
( c) ( d)
who has written on this subject No error From thirty years he devoted himself to public affairs
( c) ( d) 235.
( a) ( b)
Slow and steady owns the race as the wise would say without taking a holiday No error
229.
(a) ( b) ( c) ( c) ( d)
No error If Ramesh will be promoted he will get
236.
( d) (a) ( b)
a higher salary No error
230. We often hear people say
( a) ( c) ( d)
that most human beings have not evolved My brother goes to the office five day week
237.
( b) (a) ( b) ( c)
or grow up enough to stick to truth or non - violence No error
(c) ( d)
If you lend Mohan a pen
No error 238.
( d) (a)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 231-240) : Each item in this section has a he will lend it to someone else
sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). (b)
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any and never you will get it back
underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet ( c)
against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no No error
error, your response should be indicated as (d). ( d)
[2019-I] One of most widely spread bad habits
239.
Opening his letters (a) ( b)
231.
(a) is the use of tobacco No error
reading them carefully and sending for this clerk ( c) ( d)
(b) A great part of Arabia is desert No error
240.
he dictated answers with them No error ( a) ( b) ( c) ( d)
( c) (d)
AN SWER KEY
1 (a) 21 (c) 41 (a) 61 (a) 81 (a) 101 (d) 121 (a) 141 (b) 161 (b) 181 (a) 201 (b) 221 (a)
2 (a) 22 (a) 42 (b) 62 (a) 82 (b) 102 (b) 122 (a) 142 (c) 162 (c) 182 (b) 202 (a) 222 (b)
3 (b) 23 (c) 43 (a) 63 (b) 83 (b) 103 (b) 123 (a) 143 (c) 163 (b) 183 (c) 203 (a) 223 (c)
4 (c) 24 (c) 44 (b) 64 (c) 84 (b) 104 (b) 124 (d) 144 (d) 164 (b) 184 (b) 204 (c) 224 (d)
5 (b) 25 (b) 45 (b) 65 (d) 85 (a) 105 (d) 125 (a) 145 (c) 165 (c) 185 (c) 205 (a) 225 (c)
6 (a) 26 (b) 46 (a) 66 (c) 86 (b) 106 (c) 126 (a) 146 (b) 166 (b) 186 (b) 206 (d) 226 (c)
7 (d) 27 (b) 47 (b) 67 (c) 87 (c) 107 (b) 127 (c) 147 (c) 167 (a) 187 (a) 207 (c) 227 (b)
8 (b) 28 (c) 48 (b) 68 (b) 88 (c) 108 (a) 128 (a) 148 (b) 168 (b) 188 (c) 208 (b) 228 (c)
9 (c) 29 (d) 49 (a) 69 (b) 89 (a) 109 (a) 129 (c) 149 (d) 169 (c) 189 (b) 209 (b) 229 (b)
10 (c) 30 (c) 50 (a) 70 (b) 90 (d) 110 (c) 130 (c) 150 (c) 170 (b) 190 (c) 210 (a) 230 (c)
11 (a) 31 (a) 51 (c) 71 (b) 91 (c) 111 (a) 131 (c) 151 (c) 171 (b) 191 (a) 211 (b) 231 (c)
12 (c) 32 (b) 52 (b) 72 (b) 92 (c) 112 (a) 132 (b) 152 (c) 172 (b) 192 (c) 212 (d) 232 (b)
13 (c) 33 (a) 53 (a) 73 (a) 93 (b) 113 (a) 133 (c) 153 (d) 173 (b) 193 (d) 213 (b) 233 (c)
14 (c) 34 (b) 54 (b) 74 (d) 94 (c) 114 (a) 134 (b) 154 (c) 174 (b) 194 (b) 214 (d) 234 (a)
15 (b) 35 (b) 55 (c) 75 (a) 95 (a) 115 (c) 135 (c) 155 (c) 175 (b) 195 (a) 215 (c) 235 (a)
16 (b) 36 (c) 56 (c) 76 (c) 96 (a) 116 (a) 136 (a) 156 (c) 176 (c) 196 (a) 216 (c) 236 (a)
17 (b) 37 (d) 57 (b) 77 (d) 97 (a) 117 (c) 137 (a) 157 (a) 177 (c) 197 (d) 217 (a) 237 (c)
18 (c) 38 (d) 58 (c) 78 (a) 98 (c) 118 (b) 138 (a) 158 (c) 178 (a) 198 (a) 218 (a) 238 (c)
19 (b) 39 (b) 59 (c) 79 (b) 99 (c) 119 (c) 139 (b) 159 (c) 179 (c) 199 (b) 219 (c) 239 (d)
20 (b) 40 (c) 60 (d) 80 (c) 100 (a) 120 (a) 140 (c) 160 (a) 180 (c) 200 (b) 220 (d) 240 (d)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (a) In the following question the use of article 'an' before 5. (b) The word 'were' is wrongly used. The letter under this
'unit' is wrong. The letter under this part is (a) ; so (a) is part is (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. The
the correct answer. The reason being 'an' is used before correct form would be ' of that period was the creation
singular countable nouns which begin with a vowel and popularization' the reason being the subject of
sound (a, e, i, o, u). The vowel 'u' in unit sound like 'you' 'were' in the sentence is 'A major contribution', which is
i.e. this word sounds as if it begins with the consonant singular. So, 'was' should be used to make the sentence
'y'. So we use 'a' before them. grammatically correct.
2. (a) In this question the word 'principle' is wrongly spelt. 6. (a) The word 'over' is wrongly used. The letter under this
The letter under this part is (a), therefore, (a) is the part is (a), therefore, (a) is the correct answer. The correct
correct answer. The correct form would be "Microwaves form would be – "I will try to put out ". The reason
are the principal carriers", "which means microwaves being the correct phrase is 'to put out feelers" which
are the chief or main carriers". The word principle is not means to check the opinion of other people regarding
used because it means – a basic general truth that is something.
the foundation of something. 7. (d) The sentence does not contain any error, therefore (d),
3. (b) The word 'who' is wrongly used. The letter under this is the correct answer.
part is (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. The 8. (b) The word ' over' is wrongly used. The letter under this
correct form would be "Mahavira who was an advocate part is (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. The
of nonviolence and vegetarianism, revived and correct form will be 'by extrapolation from figures. The
reorganized ___". The reason being, the position of reason being the preposition 'from ' will be used to
'who' as a relative pronoun is wrong as it come just make the sentence gramatically correct.
after the antecedenthere Mahavira. 9. (c) The preposition 'in' is wrongly used. The letter under
4. (c) The word 'still' is wrongly used. The letter under this this part is (c), therefore, (c) is the correct answer. The
part is (c), therefore, (c) is the correct answer. The correct correct form will be – "how an answer at the back".
form would be – " has not yet tumbled to it. The reason 10. (c) The error lies in part (c) of the sentence, therefore, (c) is
being the sentence is negative perfect sentence in which the correct answer. The correct form will be – that he's
yet will be used and not still. not just a pretty face".
EBD_7348
11. (a) In the question, the word 'off ' is wrongly used. The 24. (c) The error lies in part (c) of the sentence, so, (c) is the
letter under this part is (a) therefore (a) is the correct correct answer. The correct form of sentence will be 'A
answer. The correct form of sentence will be "the stood terrific hue and cry was raised at the new tax proposal'
apart from the crowd hair." the word 'proposal' is to be used instead of proposals
12. (c) In the question, the word 'on' is wrong. The letter under also.
this part is (c), therefore, (c) is the correct answer. The 25. (b) The error lies in part (b) of the sentence, so, (b) is the
correct sentence will be "the data about the divorce correct answer. The correct form of sentence will be
case is on the judges desk". 'exciled from his country because of 'the word 'from'
13. (c) In this particular question, the phrase 'she and I' it will be used instead of word 'of '. 'Exile from' means 'to
wrongly used. The letter under this part is (c), therefore, expel out of country.'
(c) is the correct answer. The correct sentence will be. 26. (b) The error lies in part (b) of the sentence. So, (b) is the
"There is beautiful moon out tonight and Neeta and I correct answer. The correct form of sentence will be
are going for a stroll would you like to come along 'the company has set itself some production. The word
with us?" 'off ' is to be removed.
14. (c) In this particular question, 'I' is wrongly used. The letter 27. (b) In this ‘over’ need to be replaced by ‘at’. Since we
under this part is (c), therefore, (c) is the correct answer. need to see it “below” is being used as verb, it is
The correct form of sentence will be "Your husband usually in present participle ( - ing) form preceded by
doesn't believe that you are older than me" “been” or in part perfect form following a verb such as
15. (b) The word 'and' is used wrongly. The letter under this had. (like had been bellowing or had belowe’ . But here
part is (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. The it is not used as verb so to correct this sentence, ‘over’
correct sentence will be "You should be cautions 'to' will be replaced by ‘at’.
make a few discrete answers about .... any thing" 28. (c) Even in this sentence ‘over’ will be replaced by at.
16. (b) The word 'invent' is wrongly used. The letter under 29. (d) This is grammatically correct sentence.
this part is (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answers. 30. (c) There is no need to use ‘even worse’ since ‘badly off’
The correct sentence will be "I will need several weeks has been already used to show the picture of refugees
to detect the lie of the man before I can make any decision conditions.
........ business. 31. (a) Usually a modifier such as “vintage” is not joined to
17. (b) The word 'about' is wrongly used. The letter under this the noun if modifies (“point”) by a hypen.
part is (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. The
32. (b) Here word ‘principle’ in option (b) need to be replaced
correct sentence will be 'The salesman gave us a big
by ‘principal’ since, this principal indicates main aim
spiel as to why ......... product".
which suggests the right meaning of the sentence.
18. (c) The word 'about' is wrongly used. The letter under this
33. (a) Here ‘spoonsful’ word need to be replaced with
part is (c), therefore, (c) is the correct answer. The correct
sentence will be 'with the crisis deepening, the critics ‘spoonfuls’. Since there is no word like spoonsful, it
sense an opportunity of putting an place a more radical does not make any sense in the sentence.
strategy. 34. (b) Here ‘could’ need to be replaced by ‘can’. Since ‘could’
19. (b) The error lies in part (b) of the sentence, so, option (b) in option (b) is grammatically incorrect.
is the correct answer. The correct form of sentence will 35. (b) Here ‘of’ need to be replaced with ‘from’. Since a person
be "It's stupid to go to the extent of taking ... " can be saved from death, not of death.
The word ' extent' and not expense is to be used. 36. (c) Here ‘their’ needs to be replaced with ‘its’.
'Expense' means no regard of cost'. 'Extent' means - the 37. (d) There is no error in this sentence. It’s grammatically
size range or scale of something. correct.
20. (b) The error lies in part (b) of the sentence. So option (b) 38. (d) There is no error in this statement as well. The sentence
is the correct answer. The correct form of sentence will is grammatically correct.
be ' to explain away your use". The word 'always' here 39. (b) It should be ‘that I was running a temperature’.
means 'to give an excuse for a wrong action'. The 40. (c) It should be ‘had been killed’ in past perfect tense.
preposition 'of' is not to be used. 41. (a) It should be ‘has been irrigating’ in present perfect
21. (c) The error lies in part (c) of the sentence, so, (c) is the continuous tense.
correct answer. The correct form of sentence will be 42. (b) It should be ‘answer’ instead of ‘answer to’.
'the court acquitted him of the crime' the word 'out' is 43. (a) It should be ‘two years have passed’ in present perfect
not to be used. The word 'Acquit' means to free from a tense.
charge.
44. (b) Replace ‘did not think’ with the word thought.
22. (a) The error lies in part (a) of the sentence. So, (a) is the
45. (b) ‘Either’ refers to each one of a number while ‘any’ tells
correct answer. The correct form of sentence will be
us how many or denotes order in a series. So, replace
'the carpet was stained' word 'badly' is not to be used.
either with any.
23. (c) The error lies in part (c) of the sentence, so, (c) is the
correct answer. The correct form of sentence will be 46. (a) Being present perfect continuous tense, replace ‘am’
'his honesty does credit for him'. This part of sentence with have been.
was grammatically incorrect. 47. (b) The connector ‘with’ should be remove.
48. (b) ‘No sooner .............. had’. Use had he instead of ‘he 77. (d) There in no error in the sentence.
had’. 78. (a) 'Distinct' should be used in place of 'distinctive'. Distinct
49. (a) The past continuous tense is used for an action that means separate.
was still going on at a particular moment in the past. 79. (b) 'many a…' takes singular verb.
The past continuous is often used in combination with 80. (c) 'Found it easy to work out' should be used. Repetitive
the simple past. So, Replace ‘was arriving’ with arrived. use of 'it' is not right. Another way to write it is like -
50. (a) The past perfect is used for an action completed before 'found easy to work it out'
a certain point in the past or before another action 81. (a) In part (a) 'today in afternoon' is better to use than that
happened. Add had after the subject ‘he’. of 'today afternoon'. Neither are clauses, but "today in
51. (c) Have + verb. Use go after have. the afternoon" is grammatical (adverbial phrase of time),
52. (b) Remove ‘the’ article in ‘from hand to mouth’. while "today afternoon" is not. We would also suggest
53. (a) The conjunction ‘Both’ is followed by ‘and’. Replace "this afternoon" as a more succinct and idiomatic
‘as well as’ with and. alternative to "today in the afternoon". Although in
54. (b) Replace ‘by’ with the preposition with or to. part (c) 'reach a compromise' looks doubtful but it is
55. (c) In item ‘c’, the word ‘his’ is wrong. So, remove this acceptable phrase in modern usage.
word. 82. (b) When 'either' and 'or' combination is used then helping
56. (c) In item ‘c’, the word ‘as’ is wrong and there is no need verb with subject after 'or' is used.
of it. So, remove this word. See example -
57. (b) In item ‘b’, the word ‘the two-miles’ is wrong. Replace Either Ram or I am …..
it with ‘a two-mile’. Either you or he is…….
58. (c) In sentence ‘the sum and substance’ signifies one thing Either Ram or you are……
and hence followed by a singular verb. So replace 83. (b) 'Had been copying' or copied can be used. As the act
‘were’ with ‘was’. was not completed.
59. (c) Replace ‘vacations’ with ‘vacation’. 84. (b) Action is about to happen in future hence 'would have'
60. (d) It has no error in the sentence. should replace 'have finished'.
61. (a) Since ‘unless’ is already in use to forbid, we should 85. (a) If you put stress on something then definitely you are
not use ‘does not revise’. So, Replace it with ‘revises’. repeating saying/doing/practicing /preaching that
62. (a) Supposing and if cannot be used together. Hence thing repetitively. So Use of; 'repeatedly' is redundant.
remove ‘supposing’ word. 86. (b) Verb with Captain will be used. As other members are
63. (b) It should be ‘poor folk’ as we refer to plural verb ‘are’ now attached to him. And 'captain' is singular so 'are'
according to subject -verb-agreement. should be replaced with 'is'.
64. (c) It should be ‘with’ instead of ‘through’. 87. (c) 'After returning' in part (a) indicates for future, while
65. (d) It has no error in the sentence. 'had' in part (c) indicates something happened in past
so for time agreement 'would have to' would be better
66. (c) It should be ‘I say my prayer’. Remove ‘do’ as it has no
than 'had to'.
need here.
88. (c) 'Either' is used for two. Not for more than two.
67. (c) It should be ‘friend had left’ in the past perfect tense.
89. (a) 'Have been' should be used as sentence is in continuous
68. (b) It should be ‘old enough’ because the adverb ‘enough’
sense. Action is still continuing.
comes after the adjective to describe it.
90. (d) There is no error in the sentence. Although it has been
69. (b) It should be ‘I will do’ because modals ‘shall’ is used
presented in confusing manner.
for obligation.
91. (c) Sentence is in past tense and it should be continued in
70. (b) It should be ‘absolutely impartial’ in the context of
the same tense. So part (c) is not correct. 'Wasn't it'
meaning of the sentence.
should replace ' isn't it'.
71. (b) 'his' is not required as it is understood that success is
92. (c) In the part (c) an advice is given by doctor so either
related to him and redundancy is not acceptable for
'should' or 'must' to be used in place of present tense
correctness.
helping verb 'am'.
72. (b) Road is a mean to reach somewhere. So we reach
93. (b) Use of 'something' is doubtful; if 'anything' is used in
through the road. A Road remains at its place as it is.
place of it .It would be a better usage.
'By' can be used for a vehicle but not roads.
94. (c) 'a' should be used before 'singer'. Use of 'a' put
73. (a) Replace 'beside herself' with 'beside her'.
emphasis on the profession of his brother. It is must to
74. (d) make the sentence correct.
75. (a) 'as well as' takes the verb of second subject ,so replace 95. (a) 'Reached' should be replaced with 'arrived' as mode of
'were' with 'was' in part (a). transportation is not given.
76. (c) 'But also' and 'as well' carry the same sense and use of 96. (a) Prime subject is managing director and 'along with' takes
both at single place does not add value to sentence. So the verb of the prime subject. So use 'was' instead of
avoid redundancy by using one of them only. 'were'.
EBD_7348
97. (a) There is no certainty and only possibility is expressed 116. (a) 'None of the applicants has turned up.....'. Here
in future tense. So use of 'would' should be done in according to the rules of agreement of verb with the
place of 'will' which expresses definiteness. subject 'none' followed by any number of noun, the
98. (c) In this type of comparison 'from' is also used in place of verbs has to be singular.
'than'. 117. (c) '.....why she was weeping'. This should be the correct
99. (c) 'aware to' gives sense to sense as a good connector for order of words here because the questioning is being
what had taken place. done in a statement form.
100. (a) Meeting was in the past. So start the sentence with 118. (b) Here the word 'enough' has to be deleted because
'met' and use a combination of past indefinite and past 'sufficient' also means the same in this context.
perfect. 119. (c) '.....carry out the orders themselves'. Here 'friends' and
101. (d) The sentence is correct. 'them' reveal plural words so 'oneself' is not applicable.
102. (b) Correct word is 'scenery' not 'sceneries' as scenery is 120. (a) 'If the police had worked in time......'. When two actions
itself plural in sense. are told in a sentence both of which happened in past
103. (b) Handbag was already left there; use of past perfect is then 'past perfect' should be used in the first part.
necessary. Use 'had left'. 121. (a) 'The flag was risen in the morning......'. Here the past
participle form of verb 'rise' is used so 'was' should be
104. (b) ' bread pieces' is right not 'breads'. Bread is a variety of
added here to make it meaningful that the event took in
food that comes in pieces.
simple past.
105. (d) Sentence is right. 122. (a) 'I had seen him.....'. here the word 'yesterday' is referred
106. (c) Let us bring this discussion to a closure. Here in the later part of the sentence so it is clear that the
'discussion' and 'close' represents noun and the noun event took in past.
form of 'close' is 'closure'. 123. (a) 'He had been charged of murder.....'. Here past perfect
107. (b) Each of them has a different version of the crime. In continuous tense should be used because the action
case of agreement of verb with the subject 'each of' took in the past and still continuing to be solved.
with plural noun or pronoun takes singular verb. 124. (d) According to the agreement of verb with the subject
108. (a) Gopal and I went to the meeting together. If pronouns 'neither...nor' should always be followed by a singular
of different persons are to be used together in a sentence verb but when 'both' is used then plural verb is used.
to provide good and normal sense the serial order 125. (a) 'He took charge.....'. Here simple past should be used
should be second person, third person, and first person. because the action took place three years ago.
109. (a) Latin is hard not only to write but also to read. The 126. (a) 'If you work hard…', 'will' is omitted here because of
word 'hard' is applicable both for 'write' and 'read' it repetition. It is a conditional sentence where the action
should be used prior to 'not only'. starts in present but ends in future.
110. (c) In most villages the roads are rough; aren't they?. As 127. (c) 'for five days.' Here 'since' cannot be used because it
'are' is used in the statement part so 'are' should only be refers to some period of time whereas 'five days' a point
used in the question tag. of time is given so 'for' is used.
128. (a) 'Many boys were happy…' here 'a' is removed because
111. (a) Despite of continuous pain she worked at her temporary
it cannot go with 'many' which itself denotes plural
summer job most of the week. Here 'pain' is a noun and
number.
'continuous' is an adjective that describes the pain
129. (c) '…who never stops talking.' Since the words 'stops'
whereas 'continuing' is a verb which will not be
and 'talk' both are in simple present tense so there will
appropriate here. be a wrong repetition. Here in the context of the sentence
112. (a) As soon as the film started I developed an irritating an action is referred which is going on at the time of
headache. Here 'as soon as' is the correct conjunction speaking so present continuous tense is used.
to be used. 130. (c) '…that the old woman died of cancer.' Here cause of
113. (a) He applied for a post in an office. Here 'employment' is the death is referred so 'of' should be used.
grammatically not the correct word to be used here. 131. (c) '…profound disappointed.' Since the previous part of
114. (a) Though we had driven fast, the train left, before we the sentence is in simple past tense so the continuous
could reach the station. If two actions happened in the form cannot be used in the end.
past, it may be necessary to show which action 132. (b) '…..she was still prettier…..' here the word 'prettier' itself
happened earlier than the other. The past perfect is is comparative form of adjective so 'more' cannot be
mainly used in such situations. The simple past is used used as it would be double repetition.
in one clause and the past perfect in the other. 133. (c) '…and easy to read.' here only one noun 'novel' is
115. (c) One Indian virtue that has impressed me greatly and denoted with adjectives 'interesting, informative and
touched me deeply was the Indian's freedom of rancor. easy' so 'it is' is not required here.
Here 'Indian people's' is an exaggeration or repetition 134. (b) '…in the rise and fall…' here the differential attractions
so 'Indian's' only means ' the people of India'. of the sun and the moon are universal actions so simple
present tense should be used.
135. (c) '…many people still have trouble in sleeping.' As personal object (the person that we are speaking to)
'trouble sleeping' is wrong usage and meaningless so right after it and do not accompany any other word like
'in' preposition is inserted in between to make it 'to'. Option (a) and (c) have no error.
meaningful. 149. (d) The correct answer is option (d). 'No error' as the
136. (a) Remove ‘if’. sentence makes a complete sense.
137. (a) In this sentence, he wondered that what seems totally 150. (c) Option (c) is absolutely wrong. Here, the usage of 'hardly'
wrong as in English grammar what is never used after is in wrong form. The word hardly is an adverb, learners
that. It does not seem necessary as directly what can be often imagine that 'hardly' is related to the word 'hard'
used after wondered. Other phrases don't have any error.
and is its adverbial form. This leads to errors. Its main
138. (a) There is no such word as ‘greatful’.
139. (b) In this particular sentence, it is to be noted that the use is to say that something is almost not true or almost
sentence is of assertive type. Thus, in an assertive does not happen at all.
type sentence, any phrase cannot be in interrogative 151. (c) The option (c) "is less" has been used in an
form. Thus, ‘what is he doing’ sounds more like a inappropriate manner, so it's wrong. 'Number of books
question than a statement. Thus, it is clear that error is in our library' depicts the noun to be countable in nature.
in option (b). However, 'less' is used in sentences where the noun
140. (c) In this item, option c has error as it suggests a person cannot be counted or it's not in plural form (for eg:
going to "the" bed. We cannot use ‘the’ for bed in music, air, rain, etc).
general sense. It is not about a particular or exclusive 152. (c) Option (c) is the answer, as the phrase "till I will give
bed that we are talking about or he goes to for the last the order" has been used incorrectly because in English
ten years. Thus, option (c) is the answer.
grammar, after till or until we use present tenses to talk
141. (b) Here, option (b) has the error in the usage of ‘took
down’. Here, the sentence means that soon he has about the future so the correct form would be till I give
inherited his father's position. But for inheriting you the order.
someone's position, we use the phrasal verb took up, 153. (d) No error.
not took down. ‘Took down’ does not make any sense 154. (c) In this sentence, last phrase that is option (c) has an
in this sentence. Thus, option (b) is the answer. error. The usage of 'any equipments' with 'than' does
142. (c) ‘Called to question’ is an absolutely wrong phrase. not completely make sense. In a comparative form of
‘Called for questioning’ should be the correct alternative sentence, "than" is generally used when comparing
as a person is called for an activity not "called" to as two objects or persons. Moreover, when using 'any', it
"for" relates to the purpose of calling. To hints out suggests depicting one object out of many so, the
addressing someone. Thus, to is not appropriate; correct usage would be "any of the other equipments"
suggesting option (c) to be the correct answer.
or "any other equipment".
143. (c) In this question, option (c) has error as between does
not have a preposition before it. And it looks a little 155. (c) In option (c), "in to near future", usage of "to" seems
vague. We are referring to the space in between the unnecessary. 'In' is already a preposition which fits well
weekends, not just weekends itself. Thus, ‘in’ should in this phrase. So, it could be simply in near future.
be used before between. Thus option (c) is the answer. "To" is generally used when defining relationship
144. (d) This question has no error. Thus option (d) is the answer. between two parts of a sentence, indicate a limit, indicate
145. (c) In this sentence, unnecessary usage of the word the place, person, or thing that someone or something
‘completely’ has been done. When a document is moves toward etc.
confidential, it is understood that it is confidential on the 156. (c) Again in this question, preposition 'to' has been
whole. No clauses whatsoever. Thus, completely incorrectly used in option (c). Here, "to that" does not
confidential is incorrect itself. Thus option (c) is the answer. fit aptly as the sentence indicates differentiating
146. (b) Option (a) "the pile of books" is correct in every sense.
between the working of objects not just the traits. Thus,
Pile is always used with books, sheets, etc. Option (c),
the right form of usage would be "from the other".
'missing' is one word describing that the action is in
Hence, option (c) is the answer.
continuation. Option (b) though has the usage of 'are',
157. (a) Use 'about' in place of 'nearly'. 'Nearly' is used when
which is incorrect. 'Are' should be replaced with 'is' to
the sense is vague, incomplete and uncertain but here,
make the sentence correct. Option (b) being incorrect
the duration has been definite as to be thirty years. So,
rules out option (d).
use of 'about' is appropriate which gives the sense of
147. (c) Option (c) is the answer. 'are wrong' is a wrong form of
'definite nature'.
usage. When alternative subjects are joined by "or" or
158. (c) Use of 'indeed' is not required here as it is superfluous.
"nor" (including "either . . . or" and "neither . . . nor"
Using 'must' alone gives the proper sense here.
correlatives) the verb agrees with the closest part of
159. (c) Use 'intended' in place of 'insisted'. Use of 'insisted' is
the compound. Thus, the correct form is- Either he or I
wrong as it gives no proper sense here.
am wrong. Or to be on the safer side, one could also
160. (a) Use of 'into' is not required here as we know that 'enter'
use 'either he is wrong or I am'.
agrees with no preposition.
148. (b) Option (b) has an error and hence is the answer. 'tell to'
is incorrect form of usage. We usually follow tell with a
EBD_7348
161. (b) Use of infinitive is required here, so according to the 214. (d) No error.
structure of sentence, use 'to see' in place of 'for seeing' 215. (c) Use preposition ‘upon’ after ‘commented’.
to make sentence completely correct. 216. (c) Add ‘the’ before ‘electric’.
162. (c) Here, subject is singular. So, use helping verb according 217. (a) The correct spelling should be ‘bye-bye’.
to the subject The number of jobs which 'is' not 'are'. 218. (a) Add ‘a’ before ‘great deal’.
163. (b) Use 'who' in place of 'whom' as the sentence is in need 219. (c) Remove ‘s’ from ‘makes’.
of adjective clause to make it correct. 220. (d) No error
164. (b) Use 'why should he' in place of 'why he should' for 221. (a) The correct part will be 'The politician lost face in his
proper framing of sentence and grammatical accuracy. constituency'.
165. (c) Use being' before 'followed' because a complete sense 222. (b) The correct part will be 'The jury was called'.
can be given only by using this word. 223. (c) The correct part will be 'the greatest of all modern
166. (b) Use 'prepared to act promptly' in place of 'prepared architects'.
promptly to act' which gives a proper meaning here. 224. (d) No error
167. (a) Unless you stop making noise at once I will have no 225. (c) The correct part will be 'are honest'.
option but to bring the matter to the attention of the 226. (c) Replace the article 'a' with 'an'. We use 'an' before words
police. that start with a vowel sound.
168. (b) Instead of ‘shed’ it should be ‘shedding’. 227. (b) The correct phrase should be 'expressed doubt that'.
169. (c) Whether the principles he stood for or the benefits ..... 228. (c) Replace 'has' with 'have'. In the sentence, the relative
170. (b) ‘Later’ half of the nineteenth century. pronoun 'who' refers to the preceding plural noun
171. (b) No sooner did I open the door than the rain, heavy and 'persons'. So, the plural verb 'have' is required to make
stormy, rushed in making us shiver from head to foot. the sentence correct.
172. (b) After opening the door we entered the room next to the 229. (b) Replace 'owns' with 'wins'. The proverb is 'Slow and
kitchen. steady wins the race'. The wordings of a proverb are
173. (b) When the dentist came in my tooth stopped aching never changed.
out of fear that I might lose my tooth. 230. (c) Replace 'grow' with 'grown'. The auxiliary verb "have"
174. (b) Emphasis on equality of life ensures the health and is used only before a past participle. So, the verb
happiness of every individual. "grow" should be changed to "grown". Part (C) of the
175. (b) The students were awaiting the arrival of the chief guest. sentence means "or (have) grown up enough ..."
176 (c) You will come to my party, won't you?
231. (c) Replace ‘with’ with the preposition ‘to’.
177. (c) Having read a number of stories about space travel he
now dreams of visiting the moon. 232. (b) Insert the preposition ‘after’ before ‘becoming’.
178. (a) The meeting was abruptly adjourned by the Chairman 233. (c) Use the past form of ‘found’ i.e., ‘founded’.
after about three hours of deliberation. 234. (a) Replace the preposition ‘into’ with ‘in’.
179. (c) Not one of the hundreds of striking workers was
allowed to go near the factory. 235. (a) Replace the preposition ‘from’ with ‘for’.
180. (c) If I had known this earlier I would have helped him. 236. (a) Replace ‘will be’ with ‘is’ or ‘gets’.
181. (a) Mr.Smith was accused of murder but the court found 237. (c) Replace ‘five day’ with ‘five days a’.
him not guilty and acquitted him.
211. (b) The sentence is indicating an imaginary condition; so, 238. (c) The part has a structural error; use ‘you will’ before
‘will be’ should be replaced with ‘were’. ‘never’.
212. (d) No error 239. (d) No error
213. (b) The sentence requires the form of inversion. Hence, ‘I 240. (d) No error
have’ will be written as ‘have I’.
Selecting
Words/Phrases 5
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-20) : Supply suitable word in the blank of 13. between it and the sea and [2013-I]
each item which is followed by four words or groups of words. (a) moved (b) pointed
(c) waved (d) watched
1. In a few seconds we ran the boat into a little bay, where we 14. his stick in its face. But this [2013-I]
made her fast to a piece of coral, and running up the beach,
(a) appeared (b) happened
entered the ranks of the penguins armed with our sticks and
(c) proved (d) seemed
spears. We were greatly surprised to [2013-I]
15. to be a determined old [2013-I]
(a) find (b) learn
(a) bird (b) animal
(c) hear (d) understand
(c) creature (d) pet
2. that instead of attacking us or [2013-I]
16. it would not go back; in fact, it [2013-I]
(a) showing (b) giving (a) should (b) would
(c) revealing (d) conveying (c) could (d) must
3. sings of fear at our [2013-I] 17. not cease to advance, but [2013-I]
(a) arrival (b) entry (a) battled (b) struggled
(c) approach (d) alight (c) contested (d) snugged
4. these strange birds do not have [2013-I] 18. with Peterkin bravely, and [2013-I]
(a) in (b) at (a) chased (b) drove
(c) from (d) on (c) moved (d) lashed
5. their places until we took hold [2013-I] 19. him before it until it [2013-I]
(a) off (b) of (a) touched (b) arrived at
(c) from (d) on (c) reached (d) jumped
6. them, merely [2013-I] 20. the sea. Had Peterkin used his [2013-I]
(a) opened (b) turned (a) baton (b) stick
(c) closed (d) showed (c) spear (d) club
7. their eyes on us [2013-I] he would have easily killed it.
(a) with (b) out of DIRECTIONS: (Qs. 21-32): Look at the underlined part of
(c) in (d) on each sentence. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions
8. wonder as we passed. There [2013-I] are given for the underlined part. If one of them, i.e., (a), (b) or
(a) lived (b) existed (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on
the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the
(c) was (d) persisted substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your
9. one old penguin, however that [2013-I] response on the Answer Sheet.
(a) commenced (b) began
[2014-I]
(c) continued (d) stalked
21. I don’t remember exactly when did I go to Shimla last year.
10. to walk slowly towards the sea, and Peterkin [2013-I]
(a) when I did go (b) when I was going
(a) carried (b) bore (c) when I went (d) No improvement
(c) took (d) thought 22. Even he worked hard, he failed in the examination.
11. it into his head that he [2013-I] (a) Since (b) Although
(a) would (b) could (c) For (d) No improvement
(c) should (d) won't 23. He was asked to arbitrate with two merchants in a dispute.
12. try to stop it, so he [2013-I] (a) to arbitrate between (b) to arbitrate at
(a) interposed (b) ran (c) to arbitrate (d) No improvement
(c) arrived (d) jumped
EBD_7348
24. He is definitely the cleverer among the two. 38. Please ask your son to turn off the radio so that it is not
(a) in (b) of quite so loud.
(c) than (d) No improvement (a) in (b) back
25. He is resembling his father. (c) down (d) No improvement
(a) has resembled (b) was resembling 39. He said that when I have worked for him for six months, I
(c) resembles (d) No improvement would get a pay rise.
26. Would you mind closing the window? (a) had worked (b) have had worked
(a) to close (b) in closing (c) did work (d) No improvement
(c) for close (d) No improvement 40. I am looking forward to joining your organization.
27. I can be grateful if you could write to me about it. (a) join (b) join in
(a) would be (b) should be (c) having joined (d) No improvement
(c) must be (d) No improvement 41. I am not sure why she is wanting to see him.
28. A majority of the passengers could have been saved if the (a) she wants (b) is she wanting
driver had applied the brakes in time (c) she want (d) No improvement
(a) have been saved (b) may have been saved 42. Everyone who finished writing can go home.
(c) could have saved (d) No improvement (a) had finished (c) have finished
(c) has finished (d) No improvement
29. He is living in this house for the past ten years.
(a) was living (b) had been living DIRECTIONS (Qs. 43-57): Look at the underlined part of each
(c) has been living (d) No improvement sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible
30. He is knowing the secret. substitutions for the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or
(a) knows (b) has been knowing (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response
(c) was knowing (d) No improvement on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or
31. The meeting has been put off to Friday next. (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate
(a) put on (b) put out (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a 'No
improvement' response will be signified by the letter (d).
(c) put for (d) No improvement
32. If you will come with me I shall be happy. [2015-I]
(a) come with me (b) had come with me 43. Although India is still by far a poor country, it can become
(c) came with me (d) No improvement rich if its natural and human resources are fully utilised.
(a) few and far between (b) by and large
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 33-42) : In this section, look at the underlined
part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three (c) by and by (d) No improvement
possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, 44. The more they earn, more they spend.
i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate (a) More they earn, more they spend
your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding (b) More they earn, the more they spend
letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the (c) The more they earn, the more they spend
sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. (d) No improvement
Thus a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). 45. But in all these cases conversion from one scale to another
[2014-II] is easy because scales have well-formulated.
(a) can be well-formulated (b) are well-formulated
33. As the parties failed to reach any agreement, the meeting (c) well-formulated (d) No improvement
broke through.
46. Five years ago on this date, I am sitting in a small Japanese
(a) broke out (b) broke away car, driving across Poland towards Berlin.
(c) broke up (d) No improvement (a) was sitting (b) sat
34. If I have reached there by this time tomorrow, I will write to (c) have been sitting (d) No improvement
you immediately.
47. The old man felled some trees in the garden with hardly no
(a) reached (b) reach effort at all.
(c) am reaching (d) No improvement (a) hard effort (b) hardly any effort
35. My friend met me, unexpectedly, when I looked for a taxi, (c) a hardly any effort (d) No improvement
desperately.
48. She says she's already paid me back, but I can't remember,
(a) had looked (b) was looking so I'll have to take her word.
(c) had been looking (d) No improvement (a) to take her word true (b) to take her at her word
36. Her learning makes up towards her want of beauty. (c) to take her word for it (d) No improvement
(a) for (b) to 49. The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them.
(c) against (d) No improvement (a) hell bent on getting (b) hell bent for getting
37. If he got his enemy in his hand, he would have crushed him (c) hell bent to getting (d) No improvement
to death. 50. You are warned against committing the same mistake again.
(a) has got (b) was getting (a) to commit (b) for committing
(c) had got (d) No improvement (c) against to commit (d) No improvement
Selecting Words/Phrases E-59
51. While we would like that all Indian children to go to school, 62. Only when you left I did sleep.
we need to ponder why they do not. (a) I slept (b) did I sleep
(a) that all the Indian children (c) had I slept (d) No improvement
(b) if all the children of India 63. I will be happy if you will buy me apples.
(c) all Indian children (a) buy (b) bought
(d) No improvement
(c) will be buying (d) No improvement
52. Due to these reasons we are all in favour of universal
compulsory education. 64. After I saved some money, I shall go abroad.
(a) Out of these reasons (b) For these reasons (a) shall save (b) should have save
(c) By these reasons (d) No improvement (c) having saved (d) No improvement
53. When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain 65. Can you arrange the car to be ready this evening ?
their freedom from serfdom, the Protestant leaders joined (a) arrange with the car (b) arrange for the car
the princes at crushing them. (c) arrange that the car (d) No improvement
(a) into crushing (b) in crushing 66. Hardly had he reached home when the telephone rang.
(c) without crushing (d) No improvement (a) he had reached (b) did he reach
54. In India, today many of our intellectuals still talk in terms of (c) he reached (d) No improvement
the French revolution and the Rights of Man, not 67. He is likely to win the elections by the sweeping majority.
appreciating that much has happened since them.
(a) with the sweeping majority
(a) much has been happening
(b) much had happened (b) in sweeping majority
(c) much might happen (c) by a sweeping majority
(d) No improvement (d) No improvement
55. Taxpayers are to be conscious of their privileges. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 68-77) : In this section, look at theunderlined
(a) have to (b) need part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three
(c) ought to (d) No improvement possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a),
56. I would have waited for you at the station if I knew that your (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your
would come. response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter
(a) had known (b) was knowing (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence,
(c) have known (d) No improvement indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No
57. No one could explain how a calm and balanced person like improvement” response will be signified by the letter (d).
him could penetrate such a mindless act on his friends.
(a) perpetuate (b) perpetrate [2016-I]
(c) precipitate (d) No improvement 68. When he heard the rhetorical speech of the leader, he was
carried along by his enthusiasm.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 58-67) : In this section, look at the underlined
part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three (a) carried aloft (b) carried down
possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (c) carried away (d) No improvement
(b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your 69. After the heavy rains last week, the water in the lake raised
response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter another two feet.
(a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, (a) rose another two feet
indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a "No (b) arisen another two feet
improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d). (c) would raise another two feet
[2015-II] (d) No improvement
70. One can live and work in a town without being aware of the
58. Had she been hungry, she would have devoured the whole
daily march of the sun across the sky without never seeing
lot of it.
the moon and stars.
(a) Unless she had been hungry
(b) However she had been hungry (a) seldom (b) hardly
(c) As if she had been hungry (c) ever (d) No improvement
(d) No improvement 71. Applications of those who are graduates will be considered.
59. Until you don't finish the work, you won't be given leave. (a) whom are graduates
(a) Until you must finish (b) Until finishing (b) whose are graduates
(c) Until you finish (d) No improvement (c) whom are only graduates
60. The names of the defaulters have been cut off the register. (d) No improvement
(a) cut out (b) struck out 72. It is raining heavily all through this week.
(c) struck off (d) No improvement (a) has rained (b) rains
61. This is a matter I'd rather not talk about.
(c) rained (d) No improvement
(a) of which I'd rather not talk about
(b) I rather not talk about 73. The sparrow took no notice about the bread.
(c) than I'd rather not talk about (a) notice of (b) notice from
(d) No improvement (c) notice to (d) No improvement
EBD_7348
74. As he spoke about his achievements, his high claims amused 84. The table needs to be painted.
us. (a) paint
(a) big (b) tall (b) painting
(c) long (d) No improvement (c) having paint
75. We ought to stand for what is right. (d) NO IMPROVEMENT
(a) stand at (b) stand on 85. It began to rain heavily just when I prepare to go out.
(c) stand up (d) No improvement (a) prepared
76. He enjoys to tell stories to children. (b) was preparing
(a) how to tell stories (b) telling stories (c) have prepared
(c) to narrate stories (d) No improvement (d) NO IMPROVEMENT
77. In a few minutes’ time, when the clock strikes six, I would be 86. The couple seemed to love one another very much.
waiting here for an hour. (a) every other
(a) shall be waiting on (b) shall have been waiting (b) each
(c) shall wait (d) No improvement (c) each other
(d) NO IMPROVEMENT
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 78-90) : Look at the underlined part of each 87. It is high time that we did something.
sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible (a) had done
substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (b) would do
(c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on
(c) have done
the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or
(d) NO IMPROVEMENT
(c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate
(d) as your response on the Answer Sheet Thus a "No 88. If I were a millionaire, I would have helped the poor.
improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d). (a) am capable of helping
(b) could have helped
[2016-II] (c) would help
78. My old teacher gave many poor students money in spite of (d) NO IMPROVEMENT
he was poor. 89. The training programme was extended for a month.
(a) even though (a) from
(b) as if (b) until
(c) however (c) since
(d) NO IMPROVEMENT (d) NO IMPROVEMENT
79. You should to read the newspapers regularly if you want to 90. The painting which they were looking at was done by my
be well informed. sister.
(a) what
(a) ought
(b) that
(b) have to
(c) whom
(c) should be (d) NO IMPROVEMENT
(d) NO IMPROVEMENT
80. If he had listening to me he would not have got lost. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 91-100) : In this section, look at the
(a) listened me underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given
three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of
(b) listened to me
them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate
(c) listen me your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding
(d) NO IMPROVEMENT letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the
81. He asked for a bank loan also he didn’t have sufficient sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
resources. Thus a 'No improvement' response will be signified by the letter (d).
(a) because
[2017-I]
(b) even if 91. I disliked him not so much for his meanness but for his
(c) requiring dishonesty.
(d) NO IMPROVEMENT (a) as for (b) but because
82. I went to the shop to buy some stationeries. (c) but due to (d) No improvement
(a) Stationery 92. He preferred death rather than imprisonment.
(b) stationary (a) for (b) to
(c) stationarics (c) than (d) No improvement
(d) NO IMPROVEMENT 93. They kept the idea secretly.
83. I have been waiting here for the last two hours. (a) secretive (b) secret
(a) from (c) secretively (d) No improvement
(b) since 94. He ought not to tell me your secret, but he did.
(a) telling (b) have told
(c) by
(c) having told (d) No improvement
(d) NO IMPROVEMENT
95. If I don't know the meaning of a word, I look it after in the 106. A red letter day
dictionary. (a) a trivial day
(a) look it out (b) look it for (b) a very important or significant day
(c) look it up (d) No improvement (c) a day of bloodshed and violence
96. Mr. and Mrs. Rao stay in their home every evening. (d) a mourning day
(a) at home (b) inside home 107. The gift of the gab
(c) within their home (d) No improvement (a) ability to speak easily and confidently
97. When we saw him last, he ran to catch a bus. (b) ability to spoil something
(a) has run (b) had run (c) ability to sell things
(c) was running (d) No improvement (d) gift from a sacred institution
98. She cut a sad figure in her first performance on the stage. 108. Walk a tightrope
(a) made a sorry figure (b) cut a sorry face (a) to be forced to leave your job
(c) cut a sorry figure (d) No improvement (b) to be ready to fall
99. Last evening I went to the optician and bought spectacles. (c) to act very carefully
(a) a spectacle (b) two spectacles (d) to invite danger
(c) a pair of spectacles (d) No improvement 109. To be in a fix
100. I would like to avail a fifteen day's holiday this summer. (a) to receive strong criticism
(a) to avail of (b) to avail lmyself of (b) to support oneself
(c) to avail myself (d) No improvement (c) to fix problems
(d) to be in a difficult situation
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 101-105) : Given below are some idioms/
110. To fish in troubled waters
phrases followed by four alternatives meaning to each. Choose the
(a) to borrow money
response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.
(b) to steal belongings of
[2018-I] (c) to get benefit in bad situation
101. Cry over spilt milk (d) to extend a helping hand
(a) Complaning about a loss in the past
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 111-115) : Given below are some idioms/
(b) Too much inquisitive about something
phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose
(c) When something is done badly to save money the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate
(d) Dealing with a problem only in an emergency situation expression.
102. Cut the mustard
(a) Prepare spices out mustard seeds [2019-I]
111. A dark horse
(b) To come up to expectations
(a) a black coloured horse
(c) Making absurd expectations
(d) Very enthusiastic (b) a person who wins a race or competition although no
one expected him to
103. Devil’s advocate
(c) a person who keeps secrets
(a) A dangerous person
(d) an ignorant person
(b) To present a counter argument
112. A show-stopper
(c) Very argumentative person
(a) someone who stops the show
(d) Creating an unpleasant situation
(b) someone who organizes the show
104. Don’t count yout chickens before the eggs have hatched
(c) a performance that is extremely good
(a) If you are not good at something, better to avoid that (d) a fashionable person
(b) Don’t make plans for something that might not happen 113. A jack of all trades
(c) Not to come up to expectations
(a) someone who has many skills
(d) Don’t put all your resources in one possibility (b) a confident and not very serious young man
105. Give the benefit of doubt (c) someone who has hit the jackpot
(a) To be partial to someone (d) a great businessman
(b) To be judgemental 114. Fight tooth and nail
(c) Regard someone as innocent until proven otherwise (a) to quarrel with someone
(d) Say something exactly right (b) to attack someone with a lot of force
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 106-110) : Given below are some idioms/ (c) to try hard to prevent something from happening
phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose (d) to try very hard to achieve something
the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate 115. Fair and square
meaning and mark your response on the Answer Sheet (a) in an honest way
accordingly. (b) in a critical way
[2018-II] (c) neither very good nor very bad
(d) in a foolish way
EBD_7348
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 13 (b) 25 (c) 37 (c) 49 (a) 61 (d) 73 (a) 85 (a) 97 (c) 109 (d)
2 (a) 14 (c) 26 (d) 38 (c) 50 (d) 62 (b) 74 (b) 86 (c) 98 (c) 110 (c)
3 (a) 15 (c) 27 (a) 39 (a) 51 (c) 63 (a) 75 (d) 87 (d) 99 (c) 111 (b)
4 (c) 16 (b) 29 (d) 40 (d) 52 (b) 64 (c) 76 (b) 88 (c) 100 (b) 112 (c)
5 (b) 17 (b) 30 (c) 41 (a) 53 (b) 65 (b) 77 (b) 89 (d) 101 (a) 113 (a)
6 (b) 18 (c) 21 (a) 42 (c) 54 (d) 66 (d) 78 (a) 90 (d) 102 (b) 114 (c)
7 (b) 19 (c) 31 (d) 43 (b) 55 (a) 67 (c) 79 (b) 91 (a) 103 (b) 115 (a)
8 (c) 20 (c) 32 (a) 44 (c) 56 (a) 68 (c) 80 (b) 92 (b) 104 (b)
9 (b) 21 (c) 33 (b) 45 (b) 57 (b) 69 (a) 81 (a) 93 (b) 105 (c)
10 (d) 22 (b) 34 (b) 46 (b) 58 (d) 70 (c) 82 (a) 94 (b) 106 (b)
11 (b) 23 (a) 35 (b) 47 (b) 59 (c) 71 (d) 83 (d) 95 (c) 107 (a)
12 (d) 24 (b) 36 (a) 48 (c) 60 (c) 72 (a) 84 (d) 96 (a) 108 (c)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (a) find; the writer and his friends are on an adventurous 17. (b) struggled; since penguin is a creature so it cannot 'battle',
tour where they were surprised to see the penguins; 'contest' or 'snug'.
learn, hear or understand will not be the appropriate 18. (c) moved; the old penguin helped the writer's friend to
words to be used in this context. move before him as 'chase', 'drove' or 'lash' are not the
2. (a) showing; signs of fear are shown; not given, revealed correct words used in this context.
or conveyed. 19. (c) reached; here 'reached the sea' is grammatically correct.
3. (a) arrival; entry, approach or alight are not the correct 20. (c) spear; here 'baton' and 'club' are never referred in the
words used in this context. context whereas stick was used to point out and 'spear'
4. (c) from; 'these strange birds do not move from their is left the only weapon which can be used for killing a
places…'; when 'places' is referred then preposition creature.
'from' is used with move. 21. (c) Option (a) is incorrect as did followed by I is mostly to
5. (b) of; 'took hold of' is a phrasal preposition means to held lay stress on the verb/action while the actual emphasis
or catch something. is on the first part of sentence. Option (b) is incorrect as
6. (b) turned; 'turned their eyes' is a phrasal verb means to the word 'going' brings the sentence in present
look at. continuous while the actual sentence is in the past tense.
7. (b) out of; 'out of wonder' is a phrasal preposition means Use of verb 'do' twice is not preferred over the 'went'.
in surprise or astonishment. Hence, option (c) is correct.
8. (c) was; since 'one penguin' is referred so singular past 22. (b) 'Even' is a word used to express surprise, as
tense is used. comparatives or for balance. You use 'although' to
introduce a subordinate clause in which you mention
9. (b) began; as the penguin started moving on that point of
something that contrasts with what you are saying in
time so 'began' is used.
the main clause. 'Since' gives the starting point of
10. (d) thought; past tense of 'think' as the event took place actions, events or states. It refers to when things began.
in past. We use 'For' when we measure the duration - when we
11. (b) could; past form of auxiliary verb 'can'. say how long something lasts. Out of all these options,
12. (d) jumped; between the penguin and the sea. 'although' seems more appropriate.
13. (b) pointed; it is used for the object stick; as stick is 23. (a) 'Arbitrate' means to mediate to settle differences
generally used for pointing out something and not for "between" two parties. 'Arbitrate' is usually followed
moving, waiving or watching. by 'between' and not 'with or at', ruling out option (d)
14. (c) proved; as it is the exact word used with 'determination'. and (b). It necessarily needs a preposition to follow,
15. (c) creature; it is referred to the old penguin; as penguin ruling out option (c) as well. Here, option (a), 'between'
here is not a pet, animal or bird, it is a flightless bird. fits well as there are two persons involved in the dispute.
16. (b) would; it is the past form of 'will'; in corresponding Hence, answer option (a).
with the previous sentence 'would' is used. 24. (b) The underlined word 'among' is used to indicate group
of people, more than two. Option a, "in" is a preposition
used when denoting something inside. Thus, it gets 34. (b) According to proper tense structure, if any sentence
rejected. Option (b), 'of' is used to indicate reference, contains condition, then we should use Present and
showing something, belonging something. Option (c) Future Tenses. So, use of 'reach' is proper here, rest all
can be out rightly rejected as "than" differentiates one are not in Simple Present, so we should omit them.
from the other. But here,"than" is followed by both 35. (b) When two actions in the past are simultaneous
persons collectively. Thus, option (b) of is the best then the syntax used is as follows : When + Subject
option. + Was/Were + (V1 + ing) + Object + Subject + V2
25. (c) It's natural that when comparing or relating a father + Object
and his son, the usage of tense has to be in present 36. (a) Use 'make up for' as it gives proper sense. We should
tense. This is because if a son resembles his father, he take care of rules of preposition and except 'for', all
will always resemble him, not for a specific period of other prepositions are not suitable here.
time. Thus, option (c) resembles suits best in this
37. (c) Use of 'had got' is suitable here because here Past
sentence as it is in present tense.
Perfect Tense is required. Rest words are not useful as
26. (d) Option (d), no improvement, is the correct answer as
they are not in Past Perfect Tense.
the original sentence makes perfect sense.
38. (c) 'Turn off ' means to switch the radio off. Here, there is a
27. (a) Option (a) "would" is more polite, because it expresses
sense of low sound with radio still playing. Hence, 'turn'
the idea of probability, and of willingness, and of the
down is suitable because it means to lower the volume.
desire that something be done. Rest of the options are
eliminated. 39. (a) If two actions, out of which, if one is of near past we
28. (d) No improvement. should use Simple Past and if the another is of remote
past we should use Past Perfect. Hence, 'had worked'
29. (c) In this sentence, we get the idea that the action is in
which is of Past Perfect Tense is suitable.
continuation from the past 10 years. The underlined
phrase 'is living' is in present continuous form. Whereas, 40. (d) No improvement
option (a), 'was living' is in past continuous form both 41. (a) We should use 'she wants' because sense related verbs
of which do not suit the situation. However, option (c) are always used in Present Tense, not in progressive.
'has been living' is in present perfect which indicates Only 'she wants' is correct from grammar point of view,
the continuation of the action from the said period. so it is correct option.
Thus, of all the options, option (c) is the correct answer. 42. (c) Use Present Perfect Tense here because it is the
30. (a) 'Know' is a verb which can be used with different requirement of sentence. Use of 'has finished' is
tenses. Here, the noun 'secret' is abstract noun and appropriate.
suggests the action is being performed in the present 43. (b) Although India is still by and large a poor country, it
form. The underlined phrase 'is knowing' is in present can become rich if its natural and human resources are
continuous tense and does not fit here as a secret fully utilised.
cannot be known(verb) continuously. "Has been
44. (c) The more they earn, the more they spend.
knowing"i.e., option (b) indicates present perfect tense
which again does not make meaningful sense. Option 45. (b) But in all these cases conversion from one scale to
(c) "was knowing" is in past continuous form and one another is easy because scales are well-formulated.
cannot stop knowing a secret after some time. However, 46. (b) Five years ago on this date, I sat in a small Japanese
option (a) 'knows' completely makes sense as it car, driving across Poland towards Berlin.
establishes the fact that the person is well aware of the 47. (b) The old man felled some trees in the garden with hardly
secret at present and every time he will be aware of it. any effort at all.
Thus, option (a) is the answer. 48. (c) She says she's already paid me back, but I can't
31. (d) No improvement. remember, so I 'll have to take her word for it.
32. (a) The sentence shows very clearly that the sentence is 49. (a) The workers are hell bent on getting what is due to
in present form and the person is being asked to come them.
at that present moment. Option (a), 'come with me'
50. (d) You are warned against committing the same mistake
suggests present form of the sentence. Option (b), 'had
again.
come with me' is in past perfect which will not go with
the word shall in the sentence which depicts future 51. (c) While we would like all Indian children to go to school,
tense. Option (c), 'came with me' can be rejected as it is we need to ponder why they do not.
in past tense again. The underlined word 'will come 52. (b) For these reasons we are all in favour of universal
with me' can be replaced with option (c), 'come with compulsory education.
me', making better sense. Thus, option (a) is the answer. 53. (b) When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and
33. (b) Use of 'Broke away' is suitable as it is a phrase which gain their freedom from serfdom, the protestant leaders
means 'to stop something', 'break out', 'break up' have joined the princes in crushing them.
no sense here.
EBD_7348
54. (d) In India today many of our intellectuals still talk in terms 102. (b) The phrase 'cut the mustard' means 'come up to
of the French Revolution and the Rights of Man, not expectation; reach the required standard'.
appreciating that much has happened since then. 103. (b) The idiom 'devil's advocate' is used for a person who
55. (a) Taxpayers have to be conscious of their privileges. expresses a contentious opinion in order to provoke
56. (a) I would have waited for you at the station if I had known debate or test the strength of the opposite arguments.
that you would come. 104. (b) The idiom 'don't count your chickens before the eggs
57. (b) No one could explain how a calm and balanced person have hatched' means don't make plans for something
like him could perpetrate such a mindless act on his that is doubtful to happen.
friends. 105. (c) The phrase 'give the benefit of doubt' means 'a
91. (a) ‘As for’ is the correct usage in the context of the concession that a person of fact must be regarded as
sentence. correct or justified, if the contrary has not been proven'.
92. (b) ‘Prefer’ is followed by preposition ‘to’. 106. (b) A red-letter day is a day that you always remember
93. (b) The adjective ‘secret’ makes the sentence correct. because something good happens to you then. The
expression refers to a memorably happy or noteworthy
94. (b) The sentence requires present perfect tense as the
day.
effect is onto present. So, ‘have told’ is the suitable
choice. 107. (a) If someone has "the gift of (the) gab", the individual is
able to speak confidently, clearly, and in a glib way.
95. (c) ‘Look it up’ gives the meaning ‘to search’ which is in
The informal expression refers to an individual's talent
the context of the sentence.
for verbal fluency, especially the ability to talk
96. (a) ‘Stay’ is followed by the preposition ‘at’. persuasively.
97. (c) Sentences that are joined by ‘when’ take simple past 108. (c) The idiom 'walk a tightrope' means 'to do something
and past continuous tense. Hence, ‘was running’ will that requires extreme care and precision; to navigate a
be used. situation that allows very little or no error'.
98. (c) Structure of an idiom / phrase are never changed. So, 109. (d) The idiom 'to be in a fix' means 'to be in a difficult
the correct idiom ‘cut a sorry figure’ will be used. situation'. If someone is "in a fix", the person is in a
99. (c) We always use ‘a pair of spectacles’ or ‘a pair of glasses’. difficult, troublesome, dangerous or awkward situation
100. (b) ‘Avail’ is followed by preposition ‘of’ Also, it takes a from which it is hard to extricate oneself.
reflexive pronoum. So, the correct replacement will be 110. (c) The idiom 'to fish in troubled waters' means 'to try to
‘to avail myself of’. capitalize on or benefit from a situation, circumstance,
101. (a) The idiom 'cry over split milk' means 'to express regret or experience that is fraught with disorder, difficulty,
about something that has already happened or cannot confusion, stress, etc.'.
be changed'.
Ordering of Sentences
6
DIRECTIONS : In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence(S1) and the sixth sentence (S6 ) are
given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You
are required to find out the correct sequence of the four sentences.
Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack.
S6 : At last she turned him out of the house.
P : So the mother asked him to find work.
Q : They were very poor .
R : He lived with his mother.
S : But Jack refused to work.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?:
(a) RQPS (b) SPQR
(c) RPQS (d) SQPR
Explanation :
The correct sequence in this example is RQPS which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
1. S1 : Political empowerment apart, the state should recognise 3. S1 : Sachin has scored centuries against all oppositions, in
the right to life of every citizen. all countries.
S6 : The state should prepare for the seasons ahead, not S6 : But largely, he has been the dictator, giving nightmares
just winter, and create shelters on a war footing.
to quality bowlers of the world.
P : Places of religious worship play an important role in
P : There have been those rare occasions when he looked
this respect, providing food and shelter.
Q : Where lives are at stake, resource crunch cannot work entangled at the crease.
as an excuse. Q : In fact, some of his most memorable essays came in
R. : It can still intervene to save lives, by ensuring that adverse conditions.
offices, schools and other institutions that function R : Gavaskar called him “the closest thing to batting
only during the day are used as night shelters. perfection this game has ever seen”.
S. : However, civil society organisations cannot be S : Sachin has established his stamp over all types of attack.
expected to compensate for state neglect. Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) P - Q - S - R (b) R - Q - S - P
(a) S - Q - R - P (b) R - P - S - Q (c) P - S - Q - R (d) R - S - Q - P [2006-I]
(c) S - P - R - Q (d) R - Q - S - P [2006-I] 4. S1 : Jagan has been working in our home for over 25 years.
2. S1 : This is the age of knowledge. S6 : Then came the question of raising his children on the
S6 : Not surprisingly then that we Indians are often labelled paltry sum of money he earned washing cars and
as being overly superstitious.
sweeping homes.
P : Logic and intuition are no longer enemies.
P : And another.
Q : It is also the Age of Aquarius.
R : The two live together comfortably in every Indian Q : Till finally his wife delivered a son and he declared his
household. innings.
S : So why should superstitions be considered out of place R : I remember the day his first daughter was born.
in this age of nanotechnology and computers? S : And then came another.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) Q - P - S - R (b) R - S - P - Q (a) R - P - S - Q (b) Q - S - P - R
(c) Q - S - P - R (d) R - P - S - Q [2006-I] (c) R - S - P - Q (d) Q - P - S - R [2006-I]
EBD_7348
5. S1 : Diabetes is a silent killer and because it does not seem 9. S1 : The debate on whether women leaders are better than
as potent as cancer or AIDS is very often overlooked men cannot be conclusive.
without too much heed by patients. S6 : Educating the girl-child, especially in the rural areas,
S6 : Though diabetes can never be totally cured it can be could go a long way in empowering women.
definately controlled from causing serious P : Though they constitute about 50 per cent of the
consequences. population, women’s representation in the elected
P : Worse, as many as a third of them don’t even know it. bodies is grossly inadequate.
Q : Untreated diabetes can lead to heart and kidney failure, Q : If there are a few good men leaders, there are a few
amputations and even death. good woman leaders too.
R : Millions of people suffer from diabetes. R : Drawing gender differences in leadership or
S : The early symptoms of diabetes are often confused management is unnecessary.
with other less grave conditions. S : However, very few women have entered politics, which
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? is largely a man’s world.
(a) S - Q - R - P (b) R - P - S - Q [2006-I] Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(c) S - P - R - Q (d) R - Q - S - P
(a) R - Q - S - P (b) P - S - R - Q
6. S1 : Ships, built in dry docks, are launched amidst chanting
(c) R - Q - P - S (d) P - S - Q - R [2006-II]
of Atharva Veda.
S6 : The latest INS Mumbai is the tenth reincarnation of its 10. S1 : Any discussion on human rights is incomplete without
original INS Bombay. reference to the security and terrorist threats facing
P : Even now newer warships are given names of old the country.
decommissioned warships. S6 : It is necessary to underline that it will be wrong to treat
Q : One of the enduring superstitions of the Navy is that all such violent movements as pure law and order
old ships don’t die. problems.
R : In Europe, they break champagne bottles on the bow; P : The police as also the armed forces are facing an uphill
in India we break coconuts. task in containing these violent activities and
S : It derives from the animistic belief that a ship has a soul maintaining peace and order.
that lives on and that it is reborn. Q : It must be appreciated that there is an imperative need
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? for such special legislations as the normal laws are not
(a) R - Q - S - P (b) S - P - R - Q adequate to deal with the situation.
(c) R - P - S - Q (d) S - Q - R - P [2006-I] R : An important issue which has come up in this context
7. S1 : Jaswant Singh of 4 Garhwal Rifles was apparently relates to the need for special legislation to cope with
relaxing at 10,000 feet when he spotted a whole battalion the situation.
of Chinese troops advancing towards an Indian Army S : Several parts of the country have been rocked violence,
post. terrorism, secessionist movement and insurgency.
S6 : Versions of the story vary. Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
P : They surrounded him, captured the three and beheaded (a) S - P - Q - R (b) P - S - Q - R
them. (c) S - P - R - Q (d) P - S - R - Q [2006-II]
Q : Finally the enemy sent a scout party to ascertain the 11. S1 : What are the outstanding features of the Indian
real strength of the Indian defence and they found just
Freedom Struggle?
a rifleman and two girls.
S6 : It not only permitted but encouraged free expression
R : After the war, the Chinese, impressed by the rifleman’s
valour, gave his head back to the Indian’s who set up of opinion within the party and the movement.
a temple for him. P : The movement popularized democratic ideas and
S : With just one 303 and ammunition supplied by two institutions in India.
girls from an abandoned dump, he mowed down about Q : The Indian National Congress was organized on a
50 enemy troopers. democratic basis and in the form of a parliament.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? R : The nationalists fought for the introduction of a
(a) P - Q - S - R (b) S - R - P - Q representative government.
(c) P - R - S - Q (d) S - Q - P - R [2006-I] S : A major aspect is the value and modern ideals on which
8. S1 : Each creature of the sea has its own significance for the movement itself was based and the broad socio-
seamen. economic and political vision of its leadership.
S6 : A dead dolphin is a bad omen. Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
P : One reason could be that dolphins and sharks do not (a) P - S - R - Q (b) S - P - R - Q
cohabit. (c) P - S - Q - R (d) S - P - Q - R [2006-II]
Q : Sighting a dolphin is supposed to bring luck. 12. S1 : Indian media still has not matured as far as election
R : A dolphin swimming with the ship brings good luck. coverage goes.
S : Upon sighting the first dolphin on a voyage even the S6 : There is nothing wrong in the demand for unbiased,
admiral will come up on deck to watch it. non-casteist and noncommunal reporting.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? P : Today, it is common for public relations firms to
(a) S - R - Q - P (b) Q - P - S - R cultivate journalists and planting stories.
(c) S - P - Q - R (d) Q - R - S - P [2006-I]
Ordering of Sentences E-67
Q : At the same time, nobody has addressed to the menace Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
of corruption in the media itself. (a) P - R - Q - S (b) R - P - S - Q
R : In such a scenario, the reader feels shortchanged as (c) P - R - S - Q (d) R - P - Q - S [2007-I]
unbiased election coverage is not available. 17. S1 : Savages believe firmly in magic.
S : Press conferences are used openly for giving gifts and S6 : Accordingly, much magic is practised in the hope of
bribes to journalists. curing diseases.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? P : Some of these are supposed to make the crops grow or
(a) P - Q - S - R (b) Q - P - R - S to bring rain.
(c) P - Q - R - S (d) Q - P - S - R [2006-II] Q : Death is always supposed to be due to some sort of
13. S1 : Over decades, we have made things a lot worse. magic or witchcraft.
S6 : In the end, it can destroy the entire village. R : A great deal of their lives is concerned with performing
P : It has proved quite disastrous. logical rites.
Q : The unregulated spread of borewells was an early form S : In some parts of Africa, even today, death is not
of water privatisation. attributed to any natural causes.
R : Many poor farmers have seen their dug wells sucked Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
dry as neighbours collar all the ground-water. (a) S - P - R - Q (b) R - Q - S - P
S : The richer you are, the more wells you can sink, the (c) S - Q - R - P (d) R - P - S - Q [2007-I]
deeper you can go. 18. S1 : We drove first to the foot of the mountains.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? S6 : It seemed at times that we were climbing almost
(a) Q - S - P - R (b) P - Q - R - S perpendicularly.
(c) Q - P - R - S (d) P - S - Q - R [2006-II] P : A watercourse rushed down the mountain beside us,
14. S1 : The fact is that good writing is a craft which can be and a bright hot sun burst through the clouds.
acquired like any other craft. Q : Then with one guide in front, and the other behind, we
S6 : In short, he has to become a wordsmith. set off on foot along an uncompromising track.
P : Much the same is the case with the one who aspires to R : But after the first few minutes I gave up looking at any
become a good craftsman of English. of these splendid things.
Q : Let’s take examples. S : Instead I kept my head resolutely downwards,
R : A young man, who wants to become a goldsmith or a concentrating upon the next step ahead.
silversmith, becomes an apprentice with a seasoned Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
man in that craft. (a) P - Q - S - R (b) Q - P - S - R
S : After a few years of apprenticeship, he learns the ins (c) P - Q - R - S (d) Q - P - R - S [2007-I]
and outs of it and becomes a skillful craftsman. 19. S1 : If I could find him I might find a clue which would help
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? me to discover what was at the bottom of the mysteries
(a) S - P - Q - R (b) Q - R - S - P which surrounded us.
(c) S - R - Q - P (d) Q - P - S - R [2006-II] S6 : It would indeed be a triumph for me if I could succeed
15. S1 : Yet, things are not that bad. where my master had failed.
S6 : Fortune, after all, favours the brave, not the complainers. P : Holmes, my master, had missed him in London.
P : Some of the successful people started out with more Q : If this man were inside I should force him to reveal who
handicaps than us. he was, and why he had pursued us so long.
Q : It is time we stopped feeling sorry for ourselves and R : Then and there, I determined to explore every hut upon
got over our doubts and fears to face the world. the moor until I found the right one.
R : If we look around ourselves, we find people who had S : And if I found the right hut, but without its occupant,
less than us but went on to make their fortunes. I must wait there, howsoever long it might be, till he
S : Perhaps we can replicate what they did for themselves. returned.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) R - Q - S - P (b) S - P - R - Q (a) S - P - R - Q (b) R - Q - S - P
(c) R - P - S - Q (d) S - Q - R - P [2006-II] (c) S - Q - R - P (d) R - P - S - Q [2007-I]
16. S1 : Several times in the history of the world, some countries 20. S1 : The man who is described as “the first truly modern
and cities, have attained a high degree of civilization. scientist” was an Italian astronomer, Galileo Galilei, who
S6 : For the barbarians are always liable to break in on you was born in Pisa, in the year 1564.
and with their greater numbers and rude vigour, scatter S6 : Galileo saw, too, that all the planets, including the earth,
your civilization to the winds. travel round the sun.
P : One of the reasons why they did not last was that they P : On the sun he saw dark spots that moved slowly across
were confined to a very few people. its surface; and this proved that the sun, like the earth,
Q : Now it is no good being civilized if everybody around spins round itself.
you is barbarous. Q : With these he studied the heavens, and there he saw
R : Yet none of these civilizations, important as they were, many wonderful things that men had never seen
have lasted. before.
S : They were like little oases of civilization in deserts of
barbarism.
EBD_7348
R : He studied at Pisa University, and became a professor 24. S1 : What makes a productive leader?
of Mathematics there, and afterwards at Padua. S6 : Skill in handling these complexities is important in
S : Galileo made many important scientific discoveries, and achieving high productivity.
from the year 1609 onwards, he was the maker of the P : He must be adept at dealing with problem and new
first good telescopes. concepts.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? Q : In my opinion, a productive leader must be very
(a) R - S - Q - P (b) P - Q - S - R competent in staffing.
(c) R - Q - S - P (d) P - S - Q - R [2007-I] R : The problems encoun tered by a Research and
21. S1 : As soon as we loosened the string the lid of the basket Development organization typically involve trade-offs
flew into the air. among a wide variety of complex entities.
S6 : The boys stood up on their desks and yelled S : He should continually introduce new blood into the
hysterically. organization.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
P : The teacher pushed himself back on the chair and fell
(a) Q - R - P - S (b) P - S - Q - R
over.
(c) Q - S - P - R (d) P - R - Q - S [2007-II]
Q : With a loud hiss he attacked the teacher’s face.
25. S1 : What is grid computing?
R : There was Black Cobra, whose eyes burnt like red-hot
S6 : The problem is that grid has been used as a buzzword
coal and its hood was tight and undamaged.
and applied to a number of entirely different things.
S : He landed on the floor and stared at the Cobra, P : According to many in the computer industry, grid
paralysed with fear. computing which roughly means the harnessing of the
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? collective processing power of many computers in
(a) R - S - P - Q (b) P - Q - R - S different places is already widespread.
(c) R - Q - P - S (d) P - S - R - Q [2007-I] Q : Yet according to others, grid computing, while
22. S1 : While English must be actively promoted, it would be promising, is still years away from becoming a reality.
foolhardy to let regional languages fall off the radar. R : It depends upon whom you ask.
S6 : In the 21st century marketplace, languages are the new S : Who is right?
bargaining chips. Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
P : To be able to integrate socially and excel in great Indian (a) R - P - Q - S (b) P - R - S - Q
marketplace, it makes good sense to be conversant with (c) R - P - S - Q (d) P - R - Q - S [2007-II]
regional languages other than just one’s mother tongue. 26. S1 : Organizations are made of people.
Q : Indeed, most urban Indians are bilingual and speak a S6 : This ability of organizations takes the shape of strategic
smattering of at least a third language. and competitive advantage, when you begin to consider
that we compete in a world full of knowledge.
R : A willingness to adopt and adapt to another language
will enrich the individual. P : In other words, organizations can do and learn, since
their people can and do learn.
S : Migration to where opportunity beckons is the order
Q : The learning may be good or bad, but it happens all the
of the day and Indians are constantly shifting base
same
within the country.
R : Where people are involved, some learning always takes
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? place.
(a) R - P - S - Q (b) Q - S - P - R S : Without people, there can be no organisation.
(c) R - S - P - Q (d) Q - P - S - R [2007-I] Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
23. S1 : It takes years to build trust. (a) Q - R - S - P (b) S - P - Q - R
S6 : The company takes periodic litigation and non-litigation (c) Q - P - S - R (d) S - R - Q - P [2007-II]
actions against errant resellers who indulge in the sale 27. S1 : Henry Ford grinned at his wife Clara while wiping his
of pirated or unlicensed software. greasestained hands on a piece of cloth.
P : After all, your customers come back to you only, S6 : The noise was deafening, but it was sweet music to
because they trust you to give them the best. Henry and Clara.
Q : And just one wrong to undo it. P : Ford whipped the engine out of its slumber by triggering
R : They follow your advice as you have consistently the mechanism.
showcased true quality in every aspect of your Q : But, soon it spluttered and as the fuel nudged, it roared
relationship. loudly.
S : Our company respects this and is working towards R : Clara smiled while holding the cup with the gasoline,
ensuring that only its genuine software is available to steady at an angle, so that the fuel could flow at a
customers. regular pace.
S : The engine seemed reluctant to start.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) Q - S - R - P (b) R - P - Q - S
(a) S - Q - R - P (b) R - P - S - Q
(c) Q - P - R - S (d) R - S - Q - P [2007-I]
(c) S - P - R - Q (d) R - Q - S - P [2007-II]
28. S1 : Historically, China has adopted an inward-looking 32. S1 : Radio and television are the two most accessible media.
strategy to its economic development. S6 : Many of them are led to buy and use cosmetics and
S6 : Any shortage in the domestic economy could be edibles they do not need.
compensated for by imports. P : Their taste and choice have been affected by commercial
P : These can hold back the growth of an economy. advertisements that come with sponsored programmes.
Q : Successive Chinese Governments thought that the Q : The most vulnerable to the influence of this wave are
economy could grow purely through self-reliance. children.
R : By contrast, countries like the USA were achieving R : This is mainly because of the advertisement wave it
significant economic growth because they were has created .
practising foreign trade policies which facilitated free S : Of the two, television has greater impact.
trade. Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
S : However, there are limitations to what a country can (a) S-P-Q-R (b) Q-R-S-P
do by itself. (c) S-R-Q-P (d) Q-P-S-R [2008-I]
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? 33. S1 : Some experts believe that we must change our criminal
(a) Q - S - P - R (b) S - Q - R - P codes to conform to new concepts of punishment.
(c) S - Q - P - R (d) Q - S - R - P [2007-II] S6 : The new scientific approach is that punishment should
29. S1: Global warming is agitating our minds. fit the man.
S6 : A period of extreme climate was the mediaeval warming P : The new scientific approach is the punishment shold
period much before industrial emission of greenhouse fit the man.
gases. Q : Assume that two persons are charged with the same
P : We must not fall prey to extreme positions. offence: assault with a bat.
Q : Scientists believe that the 20th century is probably not R : Should botgh of them receive equal punishment if their
the warmest nor a uniquely extreme climate period. backgrounds differ?
R : A large number of scientists disagree with the view S : The idea of making punishment fit the crime is the old
that a climate catastrophe is looming. eye for-an-eye concept.
S : Instead of having a dispassionate debate, global Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
warming has suddenly taken on an alarmist hue. (a) S-R-P-Q (b) Q-P-R-S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (c) S-P-R-Q (d) Q-R-P-S [2008-I]
(a) R - P - S - Q (b) S - Q - R - P 34. S1 : The main lasting impression of the factory is its size.
(c) R - Q - S - P (d) S - P - R - Q [2007-II] S6 : The noise is made by the fans that cool the piles
30. S1 : To listen rightly means to listen obediently. themselves.
S6 : Truth is self-evident. P : The pile buildings themselves stand on a concrete man
P : You will not need any decision on your part. ten feet thick.
Q : This word obedience is beautiful. Q : It spreads over nearly 400 acres.
R : If you listen totally you will obey. R : From the building comes a gentle hum.
S : You will be surprised to know that the original root S : The tower began at one of them.
from which the word obedience comes is obedire—it Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
means a ‘thorough listening’. (a) Q-P-S-R (b) R-S-P-Q
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (c) Q-S-P-R (d) R-P-S-Q [2008-I]
(a) Q - S - R - P (b) P - R - S - Q 35. S1 : Entreainment televised into people’s homes has special
(c) Q - R - S - P (d) P - S - R - Q [2007-II] difficulties to overcome.
31. S1 : The common man spends 50 percent of his income on S6 : The size of the screen also alters the nature of the
food. presentation.
S6 : This will also act as a check on organized retail and P : There is no mass excitement, no real tension for the
deter the sector from overcharging consumers. curtain to rise.
P : Therefore, food prices would have to top our long- Q : The show must conquer the dispersed, unkeyed
term approach to combating inflation. attention of people at home.
Q : Despite rising food prices, farmers starve while R : There is no means of conditioning to make the audience
middlemen thrive. receptive, as they are in a theatre or a cinema.
R : These prices have risen as a result of rising population S : It is, of course, quite capable of doing this, but the
and falling productivity. techniques of writing and production must take account
S : We should encourage direct marketing by farmers to of their limitations.
consumers. Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) S-P-Q-R (b) R-P-Q-S
(a) Q - S - P - R (b) P - R - Q - S (c) S-P-Q-R (d) R-Q-P-S [2008-I]
(c) Q - R - P - S (d) P - S - Q - R [2007-II]
EBD_7348
36. S1 : Ancient India was a rich and prosperous country. P : He has his own logic fo it.
S6 : In fact, material wealth and social through grew side by Q : He advanced an argument that after the war, efforts
side. should be made tgo prevent the recurrence of an arms-
P : Education and culture were equally well-developed. race.
Q : The standard of living of the people was very high. R : In this essay Kennedy tried to draw the lessons from
R : Development was not confined to economy alone. the ghastly experiences of the war.
S : Travellers from foreign lands reported of general com S : It was published in February 1945, aptly titled: “;Let
comforts prevailing here. ‘s try an Experiment in peace.” .
(a) R-P-Q-S (b) Q-S-R-P (a) P-Q-R-S (b) S-R-Q-P
(c) R-S-Q-P (d) Q-P-R-S [2008-I] (c) P-R-Q-S (d) S-Q-R-P [2008-I]
37. S1 : The removal of corruption prevalent in our country is a P : He has his own logic fo it.
difficult problem. 41. S1 : When you have to study for examination, you have
S6 : Corruption can be removed only when we improve our many things to do.
character. S6 : The final aim, of course, is to pass the examination that
P : None is ready and willing to perform this Herculean is two months away.
task. P : Suppose you have only two months to do it.
Q : It is difficult to prove that Mr. X is corrupt. Q : The time-table tells you what you have to do everyday
R : The legal system of the country provides no solution to it. and for how many hours.
S : The investigating officer is himself corrupt and allows R : You have to read a number of books, learn tables and
the man to remain unpunished. formulas.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? S : Then the best way is to make a time-table for yourself.
(a) Q-R-P-S (b) P-S-Q-R Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(c) Q-S-P-R (d) P-R-Q-S [2008-I] [2008-II]
38. S1 : A boy used to play pranks with his mother by hiding (a) R P S Q (b) S R Q P
himself in a wooden box. (c) Q R S P (d) P S Q R
S6 : Thus the box he used to hide in turned out to be his 42. S1 : The umpire has to do a lot of hard work before qualifying
coffin. to surpervise a match.
P : The latch accidentally got locked and the boy, unable S6 : So an umpire must keep abreast of time and apply the
to open it, died of asphyxiation. rules as occasion demands.
Q : One day the playful boy, studying in the fifth standard, P : However, umpires are human and are sometimes prone
refused to go to scholl. to make mistakes.
R : In a bid to surprise his mother he got into the empty Q : The rules of the game are being constantly changed.
wooden box and pulled down the lid. R : The players should gracefully and sportingly accept
S : His mother was so upset by this that she locked him up these mistakes.
in the house and went to work. S : He is aware of the responsibilities that go with the job.
(a) Q - S- R - P (b) S - Q - R - P [2008-II]
(c) Q - S - P -R (d) S - Q - P - R [2008-I] (a) Q P R S (b) S P R Q
39. S1 : Abha, along with Gandhi and Patel,hesitated to (c) S R P Q (d) Q R P S
interrupt. 43. S1 : Mohan came to the city to meet a friend.
S6 : He leaned his forearms on the shoulders and moved S6 : He should not have behaved so rudely.
forward. P : Mohan asked her to join them for tea.
P : Abha, the young wife of Kanu Gandhi, grandson of Q : Mohan's friend who had some grudge against Shiela
the Mahatma’s cousin, and manu the grand daughter quickly got up and left the restaurant without saying a
of another cousin, accomaied him. word.
Q : Finally, therefore, she picked up the Mahatma’s nickel- R : While they were having tea at a restaurant Sheila, a
plated watch and showed it to him. former fellow student of theirs, came in.
R : “ I must go away”. Gandhi remarked, and so saying he S : Though Sheila knew Mohan's friend was a bad fellow,
rose, went to the adjoining both-room and then started she accepted the invitation.
towards the prayer ground. Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
S : But she knew Gandhi’s attachment to punctuality. [2008-II]
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) P R S Q (b) R P S Q
(a) S-P-R-Q (b) R-Q-S-P (c) P R Q S (d) R P Q S
(c) S-Q-R-P (d) R-P-S-Q [2008-I] 44. S1 : When the Romans invaded Britain about 2,000 years
40. S1 : Soon after he returned to the civilian life, kennedy wrote ago, their calendar was calculated on the phases of the
a short essay. moon.
S6 : Such a recurrence would mean increased taxation which, S6 : The astronomer's name was Sosigenes and his calendar
ints turn, would hamper the functioning of free had a year of 365 days.
enterprise and afffect the chances of full employment.
P : This calender had gradually become so out of line with Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
the seasons that it was two or three months behind. [2008-II]
Q : The Emperor Julius Caesar was determined to correct (a) Q R S P (b) Q P S R
it. (c) S R Q P (d) S P Q R
R : Caesar had been to Egypt and seen the advantages of 49. S1 : I last visited Kandy almost 10 years ago.
a calender which used only the sun.
S6 : Set around low, forested hills, with the Mahavelli river
S : So he sought help from a Greek astronomer who lived
flowing nearby, the landscape has an instance yet
in the Egyptian city of Alexandria
tranquil beauty.
P : The bomb blasts and ugly face of ethnic conflict have
[2008-II]
not robbed the place of its gracious pace of life.
(a) R Q P S (b) P Q R S
(c) P S R Q (d) R S P Q Q : The artificial lake, which dominates the landscape of
45. S1 : Education is in great demand today in India. the city, was built by its last king in 1806.
S6 : Things have changed considerably now. R : Located in central Sri Lanka, at an elevation of about
P : These people were accustomed to applying their 1,600 ft, Kandy was the last Sinhala outpost of
intelligence to the profession of their fathers. autonomy, resisting both Portuguese and Dutch rule
Q : Since independence it has spread to backward classes. before it succumbed to the British in 1818.
R : They had no idea that they could train themselves to S : Most famous for its Temple of the Tooth, a golden
do something else. pagoda housing a sacred relic of the Buddha, Kandy is
S : Besides this training they had little book learning. a gentle, elegant, and imperturable city.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? The proper sequence should be [2009-I]
[2008-II] (a) R-P-Q-S (b) S-P-R-Q
(a) P Q R S (b) Q P R S (c) Q -P-S-R (d) P-S-Q-R
(c) P Q S R (d) Q P S R 50. S1 : The status of women in our country is, on the whole,
46. S1 : There was once a king in India. far from high.
S6 : The three sons did not know what to do and where to S6 : Education can lift these women out of the depths of
go. misery and ignorance into which they have sunk.
P : The captain of the king's army wanted the kingdom for P : But the plight of women in villages is still miserable.
himself. Q : The educated women in cities enjoy equality with the
Q : He died leaving three sons. men folk.
R : The eldest of the three sons would have become the R : The Movement for the Freedom and Rights of women
king. has certainly been steadily gaining momentum.
S : So he drove the three sons away and took everything S : Their education has been thoroughly neglected.
in the kingdom in his possession. The proper sequence should be [2009-I]
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) R-P-Q-S (b) R-Q-P-S
[2008-II] (c) S-Q -P-R (d) S-P-Q-R
(a) P R Q S (b) P S Q R 51. S1 : Edison was an inventor of great ability.
(c) Q S P R (d) Q R P S S6 : In the other he pinned the bills owed to him.
P : But he had two big books in his office.
47. S1 : An old man died and left his son a lot of money.
Q : In one of them he stuck the bills he owed.
S6 : He became sad and lonely.
R : He did not keep account books.
P : Soon he had nothing left. S : But he was not a very good businessman.
Q : The son was a foolish young man. The proper sequence should be [2009-I]
R : All his friends left him. (a) P-Q-R-S (b) S-R-Q-P
S : He quickly spent all his money. (c) S-R-P-Q (d) R-P-Q-S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? 52. S1 : I never knew my father or my mother.
[2008-II] S6 : There were no children nearby, and so I wandered
(a) S Q R P (b) Q S P R around in ‘lonely way.
(c) S Q P R (d) Q S R P P : I was brought up by my sister, much older than I.
48. S1 : Siberian crane is a migratory bird. Q : They died when I was very young.
S6 : They return to Siberia at the onset of summer in India. R : When Gul Mohammad was working at his forge, used
to spend as much time as possible out of doors.
P : They remain here for four five months.
S : She married the village blacksmith, Gul Mohammad and
Q : Migrating birds are those which travel to other places I must say that he was kinder to me than she was.
for a period of time and then return.
The proper sequence should be [2009-I]
R : They can't sustain in the severe winter of Siberia. (a) Q -P-S-R (b) S-R-Q-P
S : So during winters they travel thousands of miles to (c) Q-S-R-P (d) P-Q-R-S
reach the bird sanctuary in Rajasthan in India.
EBD_7348
53. S1 : We voyaged for many months, stopping at islands 57. S1 : Corruption has been accepted as a way of life in India.
barter our goods. S6 : I think no serious effort has been made to eradicate the
S6 : Presently I rested under a shady tree, had my meal and wide-spread evil in India.
fell asleep by a murmuring brook. P : It is quite rampant in our country.
P : My companions and I went ashore surprised by Q : But it is pity that no one hesitates to accept it when he
abundance of fruit and water and the land. gets a chance.
Q : But I strolled on leaving them behind. R : They criticize and condemn others for taking bribe.
R : One day winds guided our ships to an uninhabited S : It is not uncommon to find people talking against
island. corruption.
S : The men wandered around enjoying the delights of The proper sequence should be [2009-II]
place. (a) P–Q–S–R (b) P–S–R–Q
The proper sequence should be [2009-I] (c) S–P–Q–R (d) R–Q–S–P
(a) P-R-S-Q (b) R-P-S-Q 58. S1 : During college, Pamela Johnson had the opportunity
(c) P-R-Q-S (d) R-P-Q-S to work with a famous anthropologist.
54. S1 : Ashoka became an ardent Buddhist and tried utmost S6 : She earned a doctorate and today holds a key
to spread the Dharma. government position.
S6 : Buddhism thus introduced the elements of peace P : When her son was three, she undertook the
tolerance in many societies. four-year hard work of post-graduate studies.
P : It was only by winning men’s hearts that he sought Q : But then she married, had a baby and became a
make converts. full-time mother.
Q : The Buddhists attracted followers by their example of R : None the less, Pamela never lost sight of her desire to
peace and non-violence. study and assists tribal people.
R : But there was no force or compulsion. S : She enjoyed the experience and decided to major in
S : Thus Ashoka helped in spreading Buddhism far wide Anthropology.
in the world. The proper sequence should be [2009-II]
The proper sequence should be [2009-I] (a) Q–P–R–S (b) S–R–Q–P
(a) R-P-Q-S (b) Q-P-R-S (c) R–S–Q–P (d) S–Q–R–P
(c) R-P-S-Q (d) P-S-Q-R
59. S1 : My friend Peter went to live in a village.
55. Sl : Some people prefer country life to city life.
S6 : It did not like to work.
S6 : For these reasons more and more people are leaving
P : But it was a very slow animal.
the country to live in the city. Q : So Peter bought a donkey for five pounds.
P : Country people live longer and generally seem to be R : One day his new neighbour told him that he must buy
healthier and happier. a donkey.
Q : And a chance to meet more and more people. S : Every family there had a donkey to carry things for
R : Life in the country is quieter, cleaner and less hectic. them.
S : However, the city offers more excitement and job The proper sequence should be [2009-II]
opportunities. (a) S–R–Q–P (b) S–P–R–Q
The proper sequence should be [2009-I] (c) Q–S–R–P (d) Q–R–S–P
(a) P-R-Q-S (b) R-P-Q-S 60. S1 : Miss Sullivan brought Helen Keller a doll.
(c) P-Q-R-S (d) R-P-S-Q S6 : Her heart was filled with pleasure and pride.
56. S1 : Solar hot water systems that can supply hot water at P : After some efforts, she succeeded in making the letters
an approximate temperature of 60°C continuously, have correctly.
recently been introduced. Q : When she had played with it for some time, Miss
S6 : Larger quantities of water can be heated by increasing Sullivan spelt into her hand the letters doll.
the number of solar collectors. R : The child’s attention was arrested by the gentle
P : A similar 200-litre system, but with two collectors, ideal movement of the finger on her hand.
for a family of five or six, would cost around ` 7250. S : She tried to imitate the finger’s motion.
Q : A 100-litre per day system, suitable for a family of two The proper sequence should be [2009-II]
or three, would cost around ` 4270. (a) Q–R–S–P (b) R–Q–P–S
R : These rates, however, do not include the plumbing (c) P–S–R–Q (d) S–R–Q–P
acquired to connect the system to the kitchen, bathroom 61. S1 : When she was not yet an adult, Mother Teresa knew
or toilet of the building, transportation, installation and that she had a vocation to help the poor.
taxes. S6 : She received permission for this after two years.
S : This includes the price of solar collector, a 100-litre P : At the age of 18; she left her home to become a nun.
insulated storage tank with fittings and an automatic Q : There she taught at a convent high school and became
water heater to be used during the monsoons or in an its Principal.
emergency. R : She felt that she must leave the job and go into slums
The proper sequence should be [2009-II] to serve the poor.
(a) R–P–Q–S (b) Q–S–P–R S : After training at Dublin, she was sent to Kolkata where
(c) S–R–Q–P (d) Q–P–S–R she took her final vows.
The proper sequence should be [2009-II] 66. S1 : The body can never stop.
(a) S–R–P–Q (b) P–Q–S–R S6 : It comes from food.
(c) R–S–Q–P (d) P–S–Q–R P : To support this endless activity, the body needs all
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 62-67): In items in this section, each passage the fuel for action.
consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are Q : Sometimes it is more active than at other times, but it is
given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences always moving.
in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled R : Even in the deepest sleep we must breathe.
P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper order for S : The fuel must come from somewhere.
the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet. The proper sequence should be
(a) P Q R S (b) P R Q S
62. S1 : At the roadside the driver will be asked to blow through
(c) Q R P S (d) S R Q P
a small glass tube into a plastic bag.
67. S1 : American idealism is essentially a belief in the idea of
S6 : The driver will be asked to go to the police station.
progress.
P : And if the colour change does not reach the line the
S6 : This sense they have inherited from the English.
driver cannot be punished under the new law.
P : Therefore, he believes that, because of human effort,
Q : Inside the tube are chemically treated crystals which
the future will be better than the past.
change colour if the driver has alcohol on his breath.
Q : But if American are usually optimistic, they are not
R : But if the colour change does reach the line, then the
wholly unrealistic.
test has proved positive.
R : The American tends to view history as a record of
S : If the colour change goes beyond a certain line marked
human achievement.
on the tube this indicates that the driver is probably
over the specified limit. S : They have some common sense practicality.
The proper sequence should be The proper sequence should be
(a) P S Q R (b) S Q R P (a) P Q R S (b) P Q S R
(c) R P S Q (d) Q S P R (c) R P Q S (d) P R Q S
63. S1 : Hope springs eternally in the heart of man. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 68-72): Each of the following items in this
S6 : This is the central idea of the poem. section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been
P : But hope is everlasting. jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given
Q : Love, friendship and youth perish. below each sentence are four sequence namely (a), (b), (c) and
R : It is nursed by the glorious elements of nature. (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the
S : Man derives hope from nature in his gallant struggle sentence and mark your response accordingly.
after some noble ideal. [2017-II]
The proper sequence should be 68. The spirit of man
(a) Q P R S (b) S R Q P
has slowly and painfully surmounted
(c) R S Q P (d) Q P S R
64. S1 : Mr Sherlock Holmes and Doctor Watson were P
spending a weekend in a University town. and his growing intelligence
S6 : It was clear that something very unusual happend. Q
P : One evening they received a visit from an all the obstacles that have come in his way
acquaintance, Mr Hilton Soames.
R
Q : On that occasion he was in a state of great agitation.
has faced all kinds of dangers
R : They were staying in furnished rooms, close to the
library. S
S : Mr Soames was a tall, thin man of a nervous and (a) Q P S R (b) S Q P R
excitable nature. (c) R P Q S (d) P R Q S
The proper sequence should be 69. After our school boys had won a well-contested hockey
(a) P R S Q (b) R P S Q match
(c) P Q R S (d) R P Q S so that they might communicate the news
65. S1 : The machines that drive modern civilisation derive their of their victory to the headmaster
power from coal and oil.
S6 : Nuclear energy may also be effectively used in this P
who is a keen sportsman
respect.
P : But they are not inexhaustible. Q
Q : These sources may not be exhausted very soon. they came to school in high spirits
R : A time may come when some other sources have to be R
tapped and utilised.
S : Power may, of course, be obtained in future from and takes a very lively interest in school games
forestes, water, wind and withered vegetables. S
The proper sequence should be (a) Q P S R (b) S Q P R
(a) P Q R S (b) Q P R S (c) R P Q S (d) P R Q S
(c) S R Q P (d) S P Q R
EBD_7348
70. Even a leisurely game like cricket R: either of the British ally or of the Britishers
S: This enabled them to fight wars far away from their
demanding grace rather than strength
own territories
P The proper sequence should be
and over the rough tactics of the (a) P Q R S (b) P S Q R
Australian team that visited England in 1921 (c) Q R P S (d) S R P Q
Q 74. S1 : In reality, by signing a Subsidiary Alliance, an Indian
state virtually signed away its independence.
as we saw in the controversy over body - line bowling S6 : In fact, the Indian ruler lost all vestiges of sovereignty
R in external matters.
can cause much ill-will P : of maintaining diplomatic relations
Q : It lost the right of self defence
S
R : with its neighbours
(a) P S R Q (b) R S P Q S : and of setting its disputes
(c) S R Q P (d) Q P R S
The proper sequence should be
71. Scientists point out
(a) P Q R S (b) R S P Q
of sunspot activity (c) Q P S R (d) Q S R P
P 75. S1 : A mighty popular Revolt broke out in Northern and
Central India in 1857.
that it is an aftermath that
S6 : Millions of peasants, artisans and soliders fought
Q heroically and wrote a glorious chapter.
has now reached its peak P : Sepoys, or the Indian soliders of the Company’s army
Q : but soon engulfed wide regions and involved the
R
masses
of the eleven-year cycle R : and nearly swept away the British rule
S S : It began with a mutiny of the
(a) R S P Q (b) P Q S R The proper sequence should be
(c) Q R P S (d) Q S P R (a) R S P Q (b) P Q R S
72. As the ship streams from San Diego (c) S R P Q (d) Q R P S
as walls of gray water from a distant storm 76. S1 : The Indian Civil Service gradually developed into one
of the most efficient and powerful civil services in the
in the north Pacific world.
P S6 : though these qualities obviously served British, and
making the greener among us miserable not Indian interests.
with sea sickness P : and often participated in the making of policy
Q : independence, integrity and hard work
Q R : They developed certain traditions of
rock and toss the ship S : Its members exercised vast power
R The proper sequence should be
those of us aboard have a personal demonstration (a) P Q R S (b) Q R S P
of powerful ocean movement (c) R S Q P (d) S P R Q
77. S1 : The ruin of Indian handicrafts was reflected in the ruin of the
S towns and cities which were famous for their manufactures.
(a) P Q R S (b) S R P Q
S6 : Centres were developed and laid waste.
(c) S P R Q (d) Q S R P
P : Dacca, Surat, Murshidabad and many other rising
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 73-77): In this section each item consist of
industrial
six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are
Q : ravages of war and plunder, failed to
given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences R : survive British conquest
in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You S : Cities which had withstood the
are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences The proper sequence should be
and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet. (a) P Q R S (b) S Q R P
[2018-I] (c) S R P Q (d) Q R S P
73. S1 : The Subsidiary Alliance system was extremely DIRECTIONS (Qs. 78-79): In this section each item consists of
advantageous to the British. six sentences of a passage. Thc first and sixth sentences are
S6 : The controlled the defence and the foreign relations given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences
of the protected ally. in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You
P : They could now maintain a large army at the cost of are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences
Indian states and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
Q : If any war occurred in the territories [2019-I]
78. S1 :We do not know what to do with our knowledge. 79. S1 : The British rule in India has brought about moral,
S6 :In the course of time they may rule over us altogether. material, cultural and spiritual ruination of this great
P: For example, we are unable to manage our machines. country.
Q: We already find it difficult to do without machines. S6 : We are not to kill anybody but it is our dharma to see
R: Machines should be fed properly and waited upon that the curse of this Government is blotted out.
attentively; otherwise they refuse to work or cause P : I regard this rule as a curse.
destruction.
S : Science has given us superhuman powers, which we Q : Sedition has become my religion.
do not use properly. R : Ours is a non-violent battle.
The proper sequence should be S : I am out to destroy this system of Government.
(a) S P R Q (b) P S Q R The proper sequence should be
(c) Q R P S (d) S R P Q (a) S P R Q (b) P S Q R
(c) Q R P S (d) S R P Q
ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 9 (a) 17 (d) 25 (a) 33 (b) 41 (a) 49 (d) 57 (b) 65 (c) 73 (b)
2 (a) 10 (c) 18 (d) 26 (d) 34 (a) 42 (b) 50 (b) 58 (d) 66 (c) 74 (c)
3 (d) 11 (b) 19 (b) 27 (b) 35 (a) 43 (b) 51 (c) 59 (a) 67 (c) 75 (a)
4 (c) 12 (d) 20 (a) 28 (a) 36 (b) 44 (b) 52 (a) 60 (a) 68 (d) 76 (d)
5 (b) 13 (a) 21 (c) 29 (d) 37 (d) 45 (d) 53 (b) 61 (d) 69 (c) 77 (b)
6 (a) 14 (b) 22 (b) 30 (a) 38 (a) 46 (d) 54 (c) 62 (d) 70 (a) 78 (a)
7 (d) 15 (c) 23 (c) 31 (b) 39 (c) 47 (b) 55 (d) 63 (c) 71 (d) 79 (b)
8 (b) 16 (b) 24 (c) 32 (c) 40 (b) 48 (a) 56 (d) 64 (b) 72 (c)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (b) The correct sequence is R – P – S – Q which is marked 15. (c) The correct sequence is RPSQ which is marked by (c),
by (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
2. (a) The correct sequence is Q – P – S – R which is marked 16. (b) The proper sequence is RPSQ which is marked in option
by (a), therefore, (a) is the correct answer. (b), therefor, 'b' is the correct answer.
3. (d) The correct sequence is R – S – Q – P which is marked 17. (d) The proper sequence is RPSQ which is marked in option
by (d), therefore, (d) is the correct answer. 'd', therefore, 'd' is the correct answer.
4. (c) The correct sequence is R – S – P – Q which is marked 18. (d) The proper sequence is QPRS which is marked in option
by (c), therefore, (c) is the correct answer. 'd', therefore, 'd' is the correct answer.
5. (b) The correct sequence is R – P – S – Q which is marked 19. (b) The proper sequence is RQSP which is marked in option
by (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. (b), therefore, 'b' is the correct answer.
6. (a) The correct sequence is R – Q – S – P which is marked 20. (a) The proper sequence is RSQP which is marked in option
by (a), therefore, (a) is the correct answer. (a), therefore, 'a' is the correct answer.
7. (d) The correct sequence is S – Q – P – R which is marked 21. (c) The proper sequence is RQPS which is marked in option
by (d), therefore, (d) is the correct answer. (c), therefore, 'c' is the correct answer.
8. (b) The correct sequence is Q– P – S – R which is marked 22. (b) The proper sequence is QSPR which is marked in option
by (d), therefore, (d) is the correct answer. 'b' therefore, 'b' is the correct answer.
9. (a) The correct sequence is RQSP which is marked by (a), 23. (c) The proper sequence is QPRS which is marked in option
therefore, (a) is the correct answer. 'c', Therefore, 'c' is the correct answer.
10. (c) The correct sequence is SPRQ which is marked by (c), 24. (c) Q introduces on opinion of author about the qualitives
therefore, (c) is the correct answer. of a productive leader. While S states that what a leader
11. (b) The correct sequence is SPRQ which is marked by (b), must be doing. P states that he must be adept at dealing
therefore, (b) is the correct answer. with problem and new concepts. Where as R supports
12. (d) The correct sequence is QPSR which is marked by (d), the conclusion of the entire paragraph.
Therefore (d) is the correct answer. 25. (a) R introdues the introduction of answer, since it talks
13. (a) The correct sequence is QSPR which is marked by (a), that answer depends upon the people whom you ask
therefore, (a) is the correct answer. the questions. P talks about the opinion of many people
14. (b) The correct sequence is QRSP which is marked by (b), in computer industry. Q describes the counter part
therefore, (b) is the correct answer. opinion of others. S puts forth a question that who is
EBD_7348
right ? And this statement is being supported by the 36. (b) Q explains the standard of loving of rich and prosperous
conclucing lines of this paragraph. ancient India while S talks that even travellers from
26. (d) S introdues the sentence and puts forth the importance foreign land has also described about the comforts
of people in an organisation. R talks about learning which prevailed here, R explains about the development
where people are involved. Where as Q explains that which was not confined to economy alone. P concludes
learning might be good or bad. P talks that if a people the paragraph by stating that education and culture
can do and learn so does any organizations and were also developed. And it also support the concluding
itsupports the conclusion as well. lines which describes the growth of material and social
27. (b) R introduces the paragraph. P is the logical sequence growth side by side.
and explains that ford whipped the engine out of its 37. (d) P supports the introduction. Corruption is a problem.
slumber by triggering the mechanism. S talks about Removal of corruption is described as a herculean task.
difficulty in starting of engine, while Q explains how No one has even got the willingness to remove this. R
the engine all of sudden started and made a noise. explains that even our legal system does not have any
28. (a) Q introduces the sentence and talks about the solution of it. Q explains that how difficult it is to prove
introspection of chinease government’s growth of their that Mr. X is corrupt, while S talks that the invistigating
economy through selt reliance. S talks about limitation officer himself is corrupt and he also allows the man to
of a country as well that what a country can do by itselt? remain unpunished.
While P talks about the factors which can also hold 38. (a) Q supports the sequence that what happened, when
back the economy. R talks about contrast and supports the boy refused to go to school. S talks about the anger
the explanation with examples as well. of mother and her punishment to that boy while R
29. (d) S introdues the para that how global warming has describes that the kid repeated the same prank to
become an alarming issue. Plespite of being a debate, P surprise his mother but P explains that what went
States that we must not fell into extreme position, R wrong? how he died of asphyxiation.
with logical sequence. Q talks about the opinion of 39. (c) S explains about Gandhi’s attachment to punctuality
scientist about global warming in 20th century. while Q states that how Abha reminded Gandhi of time,
30. (a) Q introdues the sentence and talks about the beauty of showing his nickle plated watch. R further explains that
word obidience, S is the logical sequence and explains what Gandhi did? P talks about who else accompanied
the root of that wood. R talks how listening plays on Gandhi to the prayer ground.
important role in obeying. P supports the conclusion. 40. (b) S talks about the topic on which Kennedy wrote an essay,
31. (b) P describes how prices have to play an important role R describes the experience of Kennedy in ghastly war.
in combating inflation. R explains, the price and growing While Q starts an argument, that what efforts must be
population is directly proportional to each other. Where made on recurrence of arms-race after war, while P explains
as Q talks about the effect of rising food prices. S his logic, Kennedy’s logic is explained in concluding lines.
concludes that what we should do ? 41. (a) Here, many things include to read a number of books,
32. (c) S talks about the impact created by television and also learn tables etc. It gives clue. R is thus the qualifier of
followed by R which further explains how television S1 and is followed by P.
has created an advertisement wave, but again the logical 42. (b) ‘He’ is the pronoun which stands for ‘the umpire’. Thus
sequence P talks about the vulnerable influence of these S is the qualifier of the sentence S1 and is followed by
waves on children since these kids have become choosy R and P.
after being influenced by these commercial 43. (b) ‘They’ is the pronoun that stands for Mohan and his
advertisements. P is the right concluding support of S6. friend. Thus R is the qualifier of the sentence S1 and
33. (b) Why we must bring some change in our criminal codes also followed by P and S.
is being explained by Q an hypothetical situation of 44. (b) ‘This’ is the pronoun that stands for Romans calendar.
same crime committed by two which is being followed Thus P is the qualifier of the sentence S1 and also
by P which explains the different background or you followed by Q and R respectively.
can track record of these offenders. A question raised 45. (d) ‘It’ is the pronoun that stands for ‘education’. Thus Q
in R that what should be the punishment, should it be is the qualifier of sentence S1 and is followed by P and
equal? S asks should we stick to our old concept or, S and finally by R.
should we go for some scientific approach which is on 46. (d) ‘He’ is the pronoun that stands for King. Thus Q is the
concluding sentence. qualifier of sentence S1 and also followed by R and P.
34. (a) The lasting impression of factory which is its size, size 47. (b) ‘Son’ is the clue of the sentence which is followed by
is explained in option Q. Then it has been explained in pronoun ‘he’. Thus Q is the qualifier of sentence S1
sequence P about piles of building, S talks about tower and is followed by S and P.
while R explains about the gentle humming sound 48. (a) ‘Migrating birds’ is the clue which connects itself with
coming from those buildins. the pronoun they. Thus Q is the qualifier of sentence
35. (a) S supports the introduction while Q talks about the S1 and is followed by R and S.
unkeyed attention of people at home, P explains about 49. (d) The proper sequence is PSQR which is marked by (d).
the failure of these televised entertainment which do Here The bomb blasts is the clue which connects itself
not have any mass excitement, R concludes that there with the visit 10 years ago and helps us to find the
is no means to condition audience which can be done qualifier and also the correct answer.
in a theatre or cinema.
50. (b) The proper sequence is RQPS which is marked by (b). 64. (b) The correct sequence is RPSQ. The sentence S1
Here, the movement is the clue; it helps us conclude describes that Mr. Sherlock Holmes and Dr. Watson
that our answer will close with S. Since there are two are spending a weekend in University town. The next
choices ending with S, the sense of sequence helps us sentence should be R because it is in continuation of
to find the correct answer. S1 and describes where they are staying. The next
51. (c) The proper sequence is SRPQ which is marked sentence should be P because it describes the event
by (c). Here, the bills he owed may work as a clue. It helps that they get visited by Mr. Soames. Next sentence
us conclude that our answer will close with Q. Thus the should be S because it describes Mr. Soames. The next
answer will begin with S. There are two choices with S. sentence should be Q because it describes his state of
The sence of sequence helps us locate the correct answer. mind and is in continuation of the S6 sentence.
52. (a) The correct sequence is QPSR. The pronoun ‘They’ 66. (c) The correct sequence is QRPS. The sentence S1 talks
stands for ‘my mother’. Thus Q is the qualifier of S1. about how our body never stops. The next sentence
Our answer begins with Q = (A). should be Q because it describes that the body is
53. (b) The correct sequence is RPSQ. Here, R is the qualifier continuously moving. The next sentence should be R
of S1 because ‘One day’ is followed by the sentence because it describes that even while we are sleeping
begin with ‘my companions’. But there are two choices our body moves when we breathe. Following this
which begin with R. Therefore we have to decide by sentence should be P which tells that fuel is needed for
sequence and option (b) will be correct answer. all these activities. Sentence S and S6 are in sync and
54. (c) The proper sequence is RPSQ. Here R is the qualifier of continuation.
S1 because the word Dharma connects itself with the 67. (c) The correct sequence is RPQS. The sentence S1 talks
word But. Thus, P will come after R and then followed about the American idealism. The next sentence should
by S and Q. be a continuation of the same describing the American
55. (d) The correct alternative is RPSQ. Here, life is the clue idealism and hence R. The next sentence should be in
which connects itself with S1 and thus helps us find continuance and thus P because it describes the
the qualifier and also the correct answer. idealism of American. The next sentence should be Q.
56. (d) Here, A 100-litre per day is a clue which connects Sentence S and S6 are in sync and continuation.
itself with P. Hence Q is the qualifier of the sentence S1 68. (d) The spirit of man has slowly and painfully surmounted
and thus it helps us find the correct sequence QPSR. all the obstacles that have come in his way and his
57. (b) Here, country is the clue of the noun India. Thus P is growing intelligence has faced all kinds of dangers.
the qualifier of the sentence. Thus the correct sequence 69. (c) After our school boys had won a well-contested
would be PSRQ. hockey match they came to school in high spirits so
58. (d) Here, She is the pronoun that stands for Pamela that they might communicate the news of their victory
Johnson. Thus S is the qualifier of S1. Our answer begin to the headmaster who is a keen sportsman and takes
with S = (d). a very lively interest in school games.
59. (a) Here, there is the pronoun that stands for village. 70. (a) Even a leisurely game like cricket demanding grace
Thus S is the qualifier of S1 and the correct squenc rather than strength can cause much ill-will as we saw
would be SRQP. in the controversy over body-line bowling and over
60. (a) Here, She is the pronoun that stands for Helen Keller. the rough tactics of the Australian team that visited
Thus Q is the qualifier of S1 and the correct sequence England in 1921.
would be QRSP. 71. (d) Scientists point out that it is an aftermath that of the
61. (d) Here, she is the pronoun that stands for mother Teresa. eleven-year cycle of sunspot activity has now reached
Thus P is the qualifier of S1 and the correct sequence its peak.
would be PSQR. 72. (c) As the ship streams from San Diego those of us aboard
62. (d) The correct sequence is QSPR. The sentence S1 tells have a personal demonstration of powerful ocean
us about a small glass tube. The next sentence should be movement as walls of gray water from a distant storm
a description about the tube and hence Q. Now S should in the North Pacific rock and toss the ship making the
come next because it gives the introduction of the color greener among us miserable with sea sickness.
change followed by Sentence P. Sentence S6 is in sync 73. (b) The correct sequence will be S1PSQRS6.
with Sentence R because they tell what will happen if the 74. (c) The correct sequence will be S1QPSRS6.
line is crossed. Thus R should come before S6. 75. (a) The correct sequence will be S1RSPQS6.
63. (c) The correct sequence is RSQP. The sentence S1 76. (d) The correct sequence will be S1SPRQS6
describes how hope springs eternally in the heart of 77. (b) The correct sequence will be S1SQRPS6.
man. The next sentence should be R because it 78. (a) S which starts with the noun ‘Science’ will come first
describes the elements of hope and how they are nursed as it continues the conversation started in S1. P will
by nature. Thus the next sentence should be S which come next as it talks about the example of what has
describes the nature and ideal of hope. The following been said in S. Only one option starts with S followed
sentence should be Q because it describes love, by P i.e., option (a); so, it is the answer.
friendship and youth perish and is in continuation of 79. (b) P Will come first as it considers the ‘British Rule’
S. The next sentence should be its continuity that all (discussed in S1) as a curse only one option starts
these perish but hope remains and hence P. It is in with p i.e., option (b); so it is the answer.
continuation of S6.
EBD_7348
Ordering of Words in
A Sentence 7
DIRECTIONS: In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts
which are labelled P, Q, R, and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your Answer sheet
accordingly.
Example ‘Z; has been solved for you.
Z. It is well-known that
P : the effect
Q : is very bad
R : on children
S : of cinema
(a) P S R Q (b) S P Q R
(c) S R P Q (d) Q S R P
Explanation:
The proper way of writing the sentence is “It is well-known that the effect of cinema on children is very bad.” This is indicated
by the sequence PSRQ and so the option (a) is the correct answer.
1. Many Which one of the following is the correct sequence?

P : way to fuel growth (a) R - P - Q - S (b) Q - S - R - P
Q : economists argue that (c) R - S - Q - P (d) Q - P - R - S [2006-I]
R : and alleviate poverty 5. The difference
S : free trade is a magic bullet - the quickest P : and development on the other affects
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? Q : in the relationship between death and birth rates on
(a) Q - P - S - R (b) R - S - P - Q the one hand
(c) Q - S - P - R (d) R - P - S - Q [2006-I] R : but the age structure of the population
2. As a S : not just the rate of population growth
P : maestro appeared to be enjoying every bit of it Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
Q : and followed every composition the (a) S - R - Q - P (b) Q - P - S - R
R : thunderous applause from (c) S - P - Q - R (d) Q - R - S - P [2006-I]
S : an appreciative audience preceded 6. Here
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? P : another supposed discovery of 29-inch footprints
(a) P - Q - S - R (b) R - S - Q - P Q : claim to have found in Kerala
(c) P - S - Q - R (d) R - Q - S - P [2006-I] R : we go again with yet
3. Keeping S : which a group of amateur anthropologists
P : farmers to smoke their fields during Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
Q : in view the prevailing weather conditions (a) R - Q - S - P (b) S - P - R - Q
R : agricultural experts have advised (c) R - P - S - Q (d) S - Q - R - P [2006-I]
S : the night to protect vegetables from cold 7. Creative
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? P : world of reality
(a) S - R - P - Q (b) Q - P - R - S Q : writers and artists, through their imagination
(c) S - P - R - Q (d) Q - R - P - S [2006-I] R : transform the details of the
4. It is S : into the world of art
P : stressful or joyful Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
Q : with the belief in the evanescence of life itself (a) S - P - R - Q (b) Q - R - P - S
R : necessary to rise above the situations
(c) S - R - P - Q (d) Q - P - R - S [2006-I]
S : and in the philosophical of the purpose of life
Ordering of Words in A Sentence E-79
8. Thus Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?

P : against the state through the courts (a) R - P - S - Q (b) Q - S - P - R
Q : of one’s privacy against arbitrary intrusion by the police (c) R - S - P - Q (d) Q - P - S - R [2006-II]
R : the court emphasized that the security 15. With six of its neighbours
S : is basic to a free society and enforceable P : there is a renewed warning for India
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? Q : and safeguard its own strategic interests
(a) P - Q - S - R (b) R - S - Q - P R : ranking high on global roster of failed states
(c) P - S - Q - R (d) R - Q - S - P [2006-I] S : to reassess its policy towards them
9. The preference Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
P : responsibilities of looking after parents in their old age (a) P - R - S - Q (b) R - P - Q - S
Q : despite the fact that in a growing number of families (c) P - R - Q - S (d) R - P - S - Q [2006-II]
R : at least in urban India, daughters are taking on the 16. Faced with the
S : for the male child continues P : traditional culture in the pre-independence India
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? Q : challenge of the intrusion of colonial culture and
(a) S - Q - R - P (b) R - P - S - Q ideology
(c) S - P - R - Q (d) R - Q - S - P [2006-I] R : developed during the nineteenth century
10. The producer must S : at attempt to reinvigorate traditional institutions and
P : give enough information so that the consumer realize the potential of
Q : will understand how the product differs the competition Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
R : about the product but to buy it, the producer must (a) P - R - Q - S (b) Q - S - P - R
S : inform the consumer of his product and if he wants the (c) P - S - Q - R (d) Q - R - P - S [2006-II]
consumer not only know 17. Looking back,
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? P : two wars I had been through
(a) P - R - S - Q (b) S - Q - P - R Q : life in the Army had all along been truly joyous
(c) P - Q - S - R (d) S - R - P - Q [2006-II] R : and the innumerable postings and below par
11. The bigoted accommodation at many stations
P : reality that additional hands also mean additional S : despite the vicissitudes and hardships of the
mouths to feed, clothe and house Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
Q : in order to augment their incomes, plead for more (a) S - R - P - Q (b) Q - P - R - S
children, ignoring the resultant (c) S - P - R - Q (d) Q - R - P - S [2006-II]
R : not only to the national interests but also to those 18. A diversified use
families which P : as a heating or power generation fuel by converting
S : belief – the more, the merrier – has done immense harm gas into
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? Q : adding a new dimension to the traditional use of gas
(a) S - Q - R - P (b) P - R - Q - S R : of natural gas is emerging
(c) S - R - Q - P (d) P - Q - R - S [2006-II] S : amongst other products, high quality diesel
12. Critics transportation fuel virtually free of sulphur
P : cover up the essentially inequalitarian Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
Q : and unjust nature of a Third World State (a) R - P - Q - S (b) S - Q - P - R
R : has been basically a sugar-coated concept that tries to (c) R - Q - P - S (d) S - P - Q - R [2007-I]
S : also point out that development administration 19. As things stand,
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? P : but a majority still does not have access to English
(a) P - Q - S - R (b) S - R - P - Q Q : linguistic edge they are equipped with
(c) P - R - S - Q (d) S - Q - P - R [2006-II] R : after globally because of the
13. For S : Indian professionals are much sought
P : are determined by nature and which by nature Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
Q : about two decades now (a) R - S - P - Q (b) S - R - Q - P
R : aspects of cognition and behaviour in the human brain (c) R - S - Q - P (d) S - R - P - Q [2007-I]
S : scientists have been trying to figure out which 20. While advocates
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? P : of its provisions with the
(a) S - Q - R - P (b) Q - S - P - R Q : there is some misguided concern about a possible clash
(c) S - Q - P - R (d) Q - S - R - P [2006-II] of some
14. A school of psychology argues that R : of social reform have generally hailed the new
P : is one of the manifestations of impulse control disorder, legislation
a condition in which S : religious and customary practices in vogue in the
Q : an act harmful oneself or others country
R : motorcycling — like gambling or skydiving – Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
S : an individual cannot resist the impulse or temptation (a) R - Q - P - S (b) Q - R - S - P
to perform (c) R - Q - S - P (d) Q - R - P - S [2007-I]
EBD_7348
21. Public Interest Litigations, Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
P : as they are subjected to massive misuse (a) Q - P - S - R (b) R - S - P - Q
Q : but today they contribute to the backlog (c) Q - S - P - R (d) R - P - S - Q [2007-II]
R : were instituted as a means to help ordinary people 28. Thus,
sidestep judicial delays to secure justice P : international surveys would henceforth record
S : also called postcard petitions Q : if dirt - poor people in the developing world
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? R : their wealth of happiness alongside their material
(a) R - S - Q - P (b) S - R - P - Q poverty
(c) R - S - P - Q (d) S - R - Q - P [2007-I] S : display a general sense of well - being
22. Among Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
P : the soldier’s mindset from fighting (a) S - Q - R - P (b) Q - S - P - R
Q : the doctrine’s other directives is the need to reorient (c) S - Q - P - R (d) Q - S - R - P [2007-II]
29. The way
R : namely terrorists hiding among civilians
P : processes that govern their actions
S : the enemy to fighting his own people
Q : nutrients become integral parts
R : depends on the physiological and biochemical
(a) P - Q - R - S (b) Q - P - S - R S : of the body and contribute its functions
(c) P - Q - S - R (d) Q - P - R - S [2007-I] Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
23. Indeed, (a) Q - R - S - P (b) P - S - R - Q
P : on how to nurture young talent at the grassroots level (c) Q - S - R - P (d) P - R - S - Q [2007-II]
Q : as the powerhouse of women’s hockey 30. With all the crime and sleaze
R : is an instructive lesson for Indian hockey bosses P : I am not sure how many parents will be able to
S : the non-descript town’s emergence Q : how many will have to courage to satisfy the child’s
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? uncomfortable queries
(a) Q - S - R - P (b) S - Q - P - R R : that dominates the front page of the newspapers today
(c) S - Q - R - P (d) Q - S - P - R [2007-I] S : read out the headlines their children, and if they do so
24. With pressure Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
P : to submit a report on the retreat of glaciers in Uttranchal (a) R - P - S - Q (b) S - Q - R - P
and also its impact (c) R - Q - S - P (d) S - P - R - Q [2007-II]
Q : mounting from every corner 31. I bow my head
R : a committee comprising scientists, geologists and P : for their sense of the beautiful in
technical experts Q : nature and for their foresight in investing beautiful
S : the state government has finally constituted R : manifestations of nature with a religious significance
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? S : in reverence to our ancestors
(a) Q - S - P - R (b) S - Q - R - P Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(c) Q - S - R - P (d) S - Q - P - R [2007-I] (a) Q - R - S - P (b) S - P - Q - R
25. This could (c) Q - P - S - R (d) S - R - Q - P [2007-II]
P : while out on sea-right from an engine breakdown to a 32. Markets, cities, civilization
human problem P : on the verge of globalization; poised to
Q : they shoulder great responsibility and have to take Q : the slow ascent to where he is today, poised
care of any eventuality R : it is in this order that primitive man made
S : achieve universal prosperity and abundance
R : because while seafarers do look forward to some fun
on the decks
(a) R - Q - P - S (b) P - S - R - Q
S : not be further from the truth
(c) R - S - P - Q (d) P - Q - R - S [2007-II]
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? 33. Russia’s test firing
(a) P - R - Q - S (b) S - Q - R - P P : to US steps that have sparked an arms race
(c) P - Q - R - S (d) S - R - Q - P [2007-I] Q : of an intercontinental ballistic missile on
26. Developing countries R : and undermined world security
P : along the equator, which S : Tuesday was in response
Q : could become leaders in energy production Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
R : are expected to face the brunt of global warming (a) S - Q - P - R (b) Q - S - R - P
S : with a solar energy breakthrough (c) S - Q - R - P (d) Q - S - P - R [2007-II]
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? 34. There have been
(a) Q - S - P - R (b) P - R - Q - S P : a day after high intensity violence left at least 50 person
(c) Q - R - P - S (d) P - S - Q - R [2007-II] Q : sporadic clashes betwen
27. It’s R : dead in the northern city of Tripoli
P : someone who’s grieving but S : the Lebanese army and militants.
Q : natural to feel uncomfortable Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
R : don’t let that prevent you from being there (a) Q-S-R-P (b) S-Q-R-P
S : or awkward when you have to help (c) Q-S-P-R (d) S-Q-P-R [2008-I]
35. Although Which one of the following is the correct sequence?

P : of non-owner managers came to be widely appreciated (a) R-S-P-Q (b) Q-P-S-R
Q : political freedom from the British masters (c) R-P-S-Q (d) Q-S-P-R [2008-I]
R : came to us in 1947 it was not until 42. It is a privilege / to pay tax (P)/ of every citizen (Q)/ as well as
S : well into the following decade that the role the duty (R)/ who is well-placed. (S)
(a) S-P-Q-R (b) Q-R-S-P [2008-II]
(c) S-R-Q-P (d) Q-P-S-R [2008-I] (a) R P S Q (b) S P R Q
36. Conditions (c) R Q S P (d) S Q R P
P : for marketing in the US and Canada 43. It is not good / of the wicked persons (P)/ to overthrow (Q)/
Q : Mexico as a manufacturing base to accept the help (R)/ the righteous persons. (S)
R : that Indian companies aspiring to tap
[2008-II]
S : would have to fulfil include the complex rules of origin
(a) R S Q P (b) Q S R P
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (c) R P Q S (d) Q P R S
(a) R-Q-P-S (b) S-P-Q-R 44. Life is judged / and not by (P)/ of work done (Q)/ the longevity
(c) R-P-Q-S (d) S-Q-P-R [2008-I] of years (R)/ by the quality. (S)
37. Aside Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
P : of the same three-storey building in the military [2008-II]
academy (a) Q S P R (b) S Q R P
Q : from eating in the same dining hall (c) Q S R P (d) S Q P R
R : half to the north of the entrance half to the south 45. When he learns that (P)/ you have passed the examination
S : the 206 troops live side by side on the ground floor (Q)/ in the first division (R)/ your father will be delighted. (S)
(a) R-P-S-Q (b) Q-S-P-R [2008-II]
(c) R-S-P-Q (d) Q-P-S-R [2008-I] (a) Q P S R (b) S P Q R
38. For fear (c) Q R S P (d) S R Q P
P : that may or may not afffect perhaps at first 46. The journalist (P)/ saw (Q)/ countless number of the dead
Q : of upsetting young people (R)/ driving across the field of battle. (S)
R : only healthy people over 80 should be sequenced Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
S : about their genetic propensities [2008-II]
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) P Q S R (b) P Q R S
(a) S-Q-P-R (b) Q-S-R-P (c) P S Q R (d) S R Q P
(c) S-Q-R-P (d) Q-S-P-R [2008-I] 47. Jane planned (P)/ some stamps (Q)/ to buy (R)/ this afternoon.
39. While traditional (S)
P : under made-up Americans aliases pretending familiarity Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
with a culture and climate [2008-II]
Q : India sleeps a dynamic young cohort of highly skilled (a) P R Q S (b) P S Q R
articulate professionals (c) Q R P S (d) Q S P R
48. Her mother / when she was (P)/ hardly four years old (Q)/
R : they’ve never actually experienced earning salaries that
began to teach to Neha (R)/ English. (S)
were undreamt of by their elders Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
S : works through the night in the call centres functioning [2008-II]
on US time (a) R S Q P (b) S R P Q
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (c) R S P Q (d) S R Q P
(a) P-R-Q-S (b) Q-S-P-R 49. Bill had (P)/ a friend (Q)/ an appointment (R)/ to meet. (S)
(c) P-S-Q-R (d) Q-R-P-S [2008-I] Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
40. IITs are [2008-II]
P : of great self-confidence and competitive advantage for (a) P S R Q (b) P R S Q
India today (c) Q S R P (d) Q R S P
Q : in science and technology which has become a source
50. in estimating the size of the earth but they were
R : as they epitomize his creation of an infrastructure for
excellence P
S : perhaps Jawaharlal Nehru’s most consequential legacy hampered by the lack of instruments of precision
Q
(a) Q-P-S-R (b) S-R-Q-P
(c) Q-R-S-P (d) S-P-Q-R [2008-I] ancient astronomers
41. As India R
P : from nearly 250 years of the British rule in India
Q : first major struggle for independence from the British used methods which were theoretically Valid
rule S
R : celebrates the Diamond Jubilee of its independence Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
S : it also observes simultaneously the 150th Anniversary [2009-I]
of the Great India Mutiny (a) R-P-Q-S (b) P-R-Q-S
(c) R-S-Q-P (d) R-P-S-Q
EBD_7348
it is a pity that 57. About 200 years ago, in the south of India (P)/an old king
51. (Q)/ ruled over a kingdom (R)/ called Rajavarman (S).
P The correct sequence should be [2009-II]
by offering a handsome dowry (a) Q – S – R – P (b) P – Q –R –S
Q (c) Q – P – S – R (d) Q – S – P – R
58. His land (P)/ a wooden plough (Q)/ the Indian peasant still
a number of parents think that uses (R)/ to cultivate (S).
R The correct sequence should be [2009-II]
(a) R – Q – P– S (b) Q – P – S – R
they will be able to ensure the happiness of their daughters (c) S – R – Q – P (d) R – Q – S – P
S 59. He was a man even if he had to starve (P)/ who would not
[2009-I] beg (Q)/ borrow or steal (R)/ from anyone (S).
(a) S-Q-R-P (b) P-R-S-Q The correct sequence should be [2009-II]
(c) P-S-R-Q (d) P-R-Q-S (a) P – Q – R – S (b) P – R – Q – S
(c) Q – R – S – P (d) Q – P – R – S
52. The common man in nurturing a more active role
60. In the progress of (P)/ universities play a crucial role (Q)/
P Q our civilization (R)/ in the present age (S).
communal harmony should play The correct sequence should be [2009-II]
(a) S – Q – P – R (b) Q – R – S – P
R S (c) Q – R – P – S (d) S –Q – R – P
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? 61. Far out into the sea (P)/ for the next two weeks there were
[2009-I] further explosions (Q)/ which hurled (R)/ ashes and debris (S).
(a) P-R-S-Q (b) S-Q-P-R The correct sequence should be [2009-II]
(c) S-Q-R-P (d) P-R-Q-S (a) Q–R–P–S (b) R–S–P–Q
53. The doctor able to find out what had caused [2009-I] (c) Q–R–S–P (d) S–R–P–Q
Q 62. William Shakespeare in his lifetime (P)/ the great English dramatist
P
(Q)/ wrote thirty-five plays (R)/ and several poems (S).
the food poisoning had not been The correct sequence should be [2009-II]
R S (a) P–Q–R–S (b) R–S–P–Q
What one of the following is the correct sequence? (c) Q–S–R–P (d) Q–P–R–S
(a) S -P-R-Q (b) P-R-Q-S 63. Whenever I am with an old friend of mine (P)/ in New Delhi
(c) P-R-S-Q (d) S-P-Q-R (Q)/ to have dinner (R)/ I always try (S).
The correct sequence should be [2009-II]
was suspended the officer being corrupt (a) S–Q–P–R (b) Q–S–R–P
54.
P Q (c) R–P–S–Q (d) P–R–Q–S
64. I don’t know (P)/must have thought (Q)/ what people sitting
before his dismissal from service next to me (R)/ but I came away (S).
R S The correct sequence should be [2009-II]
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? (a) R–S–Q–P (b) R–Q–S–P
[2009-I] (c) P–Q–R–S (d) P–R–Q–S
(a) Q-P-S-R (b) Q-P-R-S 65. We are doing to the people/P to give relief/Q all we can /R
(c) R-S-Q-P (d) R-S-Q-P but more funds are needed/S [2010-I]
The correct sequence should be
55. With an unsteady hand on my desk from his pocket
(a) P-Q-R-S (b) R-Q-P-S
P Q (c) Q-P-R-S (d) S-P-Q-R
he took an envelope and threw it 66. The man when he was /P in the office last evening /Q could
not finish/R all his work /S [2010-I]
R S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) P-Q-R-S (b) Q-R-S-P
[2009-I] (c) R-Q-P-S (d) R-S-P-Q
(a) Q-R-P-S (b) Q-R-S-P 67. The people decided they were going /P how much /Q to
(c) R-Q-P-S (d) R-Q-S-P spend /R on the construction of the school building /S
she gave her old coat to a beggar The correct sequence should be [2010-I]
56. [2009-I] (a) Q-P-R-S (b) P-Q-R-S
P Q
(c) P-R-Q-S (d) S-Q-P-R
the one with the brown fur on it shivering with cold 68. The man said that those workers /P would be given a raise
R S /Q who did not go on /R strike last month /S [2010-I]
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? The correct sequence should be
(a) S-Q-R-P (b) S-P-R-Q (a) P-Q-R-S (b) P-R-S-Q
(c) P-R-Q-S (d) P-S-Q-R (c) Q-P-R-S (d) R-S-P-Q
69. I think the members /P are basically in agreement /Q of the

like seeing one's reflection
group /R on the following points /S [2010-I] 76. It seemed to him
The correct sequence should be P
(a) R-Q-P-S (b) S-Q-R-P an endless quest two mirrors
(c) P-R-Q-S (d) P-Q-S-R Q R
70. While it was true that I had /P to invest in industry /Q some
lands and houses /R I did not have ready cash /S while standing between
The correct sequence should be [2010-I] S
(a) P-Q-R-S (b) P-R-S-Q The correct sequence should be [2010-II]
(c) S-Q-P-R (d) Q-P-R-S
71. But for your help /P to finish this work /Q it would not have (a) P-R-S-Q (b) S-P-Q-R
been possible /R in time /S [2010-I] (c) R-S-P-Q (d) Q-P-S-R
The correct sequence should be is known as earthquake
77. A series of shocks
(a) P-R-Q-S (b) S-P-Q-R P
(c) R-P-Q-S (d) P-Q-R-S
which can be recognised through seismic waves
72. The boy in the competition /P who was wearing
spectacles /Q won many prizes /R held in our college /S. Q
[2010-I] that result from sudden earth movements or tremors
The correct sequence should be R
(a) P-Q-R-S (b) R-P-S-Q
causing Widespread destruction of life and property
(c) Q-R-P-S (d) Q-P-S-R
73. At the door that he would have the door broken open S
P
(a) P-Q-R-S (b) R-P-Q-S
the guard shouted (c) R-S-P-Q (d) R-Q-S-P
Q in this world a man has
78.
P Q
if the persons inside did not heed his call
R it is possible that the best friend
R
at the top of his voice
may turn against him
S [2010-II]
The correct sequence should be [2010-II] S
(a) S-P-R-Q (b) Q-S-P-R
(a) Q-P-R-S (b) P-Q-R-S
(c) P-R-S-Q (d) P-Q-R-S (c) R-Q-P-S (d) Q-R-S-P
by bandits were driving through a desert area 79. In the Middle Ages,
74. there was little progress/(P) either intellectual or social/(Q)
P Q
with the result that/(R) teaching became the exclusive
a man and his daughter was they were held up prerogative of the church/(S). [2011-I]
R S
(a) PQRS (b) SRPQ
The correct sequence should be [2010-II] (c) PRSQ (d) QPRS
(a) S-P-R-Q (b) R-Q-S-P 80. A scientist has shown that when anyone holds/(P) a burning
(c) S-R-P-Q (d) P-Q-R-S cigarette/(Q) near their leaves/(R) plants react with fear/(S).
and toil [2011-I]
75. Our finest contemporary achievement Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
P
(a) PQRS (b) QRSP
in the provision of higher education (c) SPQR . (d) PQSR
Q 81. Because the driver lost control/(P) and hit a lamp post/(Q)
the bus fell into a ditch/(R) at a turning/(S). [2011-I]
is our unprecedented expenditure of wealth Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
R (a) RQPS (b) RPSQ
(c) PQSR (d) SPRQ
for all 82. We want every country/(P) or a foreign policy/(Q) to have a
S population policy/(R) as it has an economic policy/(S).
The correct sequence should be [2010-II] Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) P-Q-R-S (b) R-Q-P-S [2011-I]
(a) PQRS (b) QRSP
(c) R-P-Q-S (d) P-R-Q-S
(c) PRSQ (d) RQPS
EBD_7348
83. The teacher and the pupils .continued likewise with their The correct sequence should be [2011-II]
repetition/(P) read the sentence again/(Q) the pupils knew (a) PRQS (b) PSRQ
the sentence by heart/(R) until the teacher thought/(S). (c) RSPQ (d) RPSQ
[2011-I] 92. Our educationalists are to teach children
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? P
(a) PQSR (b) PSRQ too often anxious without any utility
(c) QPSR (d) QSRP Q R
84. For dropping kilos, it is safe to cut your fat intake/(P) and
maintaining weight loss/(Q) to 20% of your calories/(R) even so many languages
S
further/(S). Which one of the following is the correct
sequence ? [2011-I] The correct sequence should be [2011-II]
(a) PRQS (b) QSPR (a) PQRS (b) QRSP
(c) SRQP (d) QPSR
(c) SPRQ (d) QPRS
85. His uncle after he joined/(P) did not send/(Q) the college/(R) 93. the rain did not prevent from being played
money for his expenses/(S). [2011-I] P Q
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? to a finish the match
(a) QRSP (b) RSQP R S
(c) QSPR (d) SRPQ The correct sequence should be [2011-II]
86. Language is (a) PQRS (b) PSQR
to the other person/(P) communicating/(Q) only a means (c) PSRQ (d) SQPR
of /(R) one’s thoughts and emotions/(S). [2011-I] 94. It has been like inheriting some money
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? P
(a) PQSR (b) RQSP
(c) QRSP (d) SPQR and afterwards marrying for love through the wife
87. Whenever I see the model Q R S
who started it/(P) is the face of the man/(Q) of our factory/ The correct sequence should be [2011-II]
(R) what comes to my mind/(S). [2011-I] (a) RQPS (b) PSQR
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? (c) SPQR (d) PQSR
(a) SRQP (b) RSQP 95. His mother when he was hungry
(c) QPRS (d) PQRS P
88. I bought from your shop/(P) a week ago/(Q) to send the
books/(R) you have not cared/(S). [2011-I] last evening could not feed the baby
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ? Q R S
(a) QPSR (b) QPRS The correct sequence should be [2011-II]
(c) SRPQ (d) PQSR (a) RSPQ (b) PQRS
89. they marched for a while under a tree (c) SPQR (d) QPRS
Q
P 96. Whenever he heard the question the old man
P
often they had rested on to their journey
R S answered who lived in that house
The correct sequence should be [2011-II] Q R
(a) SRQP (b) PSRQ
that the Earth is flat
(c) QRPS (d) RQPS S
90. as the President entered the hall The correct sequence should be [2011-II]
P (a) PQRS (b) PQSR
to greet him everyone got up (c) PRQS (d) SPQR
from his seat
Q R S even when are well informed
97.
The correct sequence should be [2011-II] P Q
(a) RQPS (b) QPRS
(c) PSQR (d) SQRP people engaged in a conversation
91. he took shelter near the lake R
P Q their conversation may be dull
when there was a heavy downpour S
R The correct sequence should be [2012-I]
under the large mango tree (a) QSPR (b) PRQS
S (c) SRQP (d) SQRP
a pressure cooker fits tightly on the top he would like to see some changes
98. 104.
P Q P
consists of a very strong vessel but as a junior lecturer he does not cut much ice
R Q R
made of an aluminium alloy with a lid that in the curriculum
S S
The correct sequence should be [2012-I] The correct sequence should be [2012-I]
(a) PRSQ (b) RSPQ (a) PQRS (b) QPSR
(c) QSPR (d) PQSR (c) QRPS (d) PSQR
is to convince your reader he simply starves even when there are good crops
99. 105.
P P Q
the aim of an argumentative essay but if the crops fail he lives from hand to mouth
Q R S
you have taken on a subject is right The correct sequence should be [2012-I]
(a) SQRP (b) PQRS
R (c) SRQP (d) SPQR
that the position providence had helped me
S 106.
P
The correct sequence should be [2012-I]
(a) SQPR (b) RQSP to retain my true identity and
(c) PQSR (d) QPSR Q
there is only one way the world can be in which changed the course of my life in the process
100.
P Q R R S
made safe from the war The correct sequence should be [2012-I]
(a) PSQR (b) PQSR
S (c) RSQP (d) PRQS
‘no’ to him
(a) RQSP (b) PRQS 107. he had such a winning smile
(c) PQSR (d) SPRQ P Q R
the conspiracy got wind of the Government that I could not say
101.
P Q R S
against the king’s life (a) Q P R S (b) R P Q S
S (c) S P Q R (d) P R S Q
(a) PQRS (b) RQPS he nodded he understood as though everything
108.
(c) PSQR (d) SPQR P Q R S
to death penalty is that in preventing the crime The correct sequence should be [2012-II]
102. (a) P R Q S (b) P S Q R
P Q (c) Q R S P (d) S P R Q
the important objection it has not succeeded the house by playing
109. the child burned down
R S P Q R
The correct sequence should be [2012-I] with matches
(a) PRSQ (b) PSRQ
(c) RPSQ (d) QSPR S
choice carefully when you want to use make your (a) R S P Q (b) Q S P R
103.
P Q R (c) R P S Q (d) Q P S R
a graphic representation for your data in his innocence I believed of the charge and aquittal
110.
S P Q R S
The correct sequence should be [2012-I] The correct sequence should be [2012-II]
(a) QRSP (b) SRQP (a) S Q R P (b) Q P S R
(c) PRQS (d) QSRP (c) P R S Q (d) R P Q S
EBD_7348
instead of reading books of getting a good response so that

111. My little sister in school 118. You had better
P Q P Q
who was quite intelligent played with dolls we will be sure work hard
R S R S
The correct sequence should be [2012-II] The correct sequence should be [2012-II]
(a) P R S Q (b) R S P Q (a) R S Q P (b) S Q R P
(c) Q P S R (d) P R Q S (c) S Q P R (d) R P Q S
for having stood first last year DIRECTIONS: (Qs. 119-124) In the following sentences, some
112. parts of the sentences have been jumbled up. You are required to
P Q
rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R, S to produce the
at the B.A. examination he was awarded gold medal correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your
R S answer sheet accordingly.
(a) P Q R S (b) S P R Q [2013-II]
(c) P R Q S (d) S R Q P 119. she and neither have I the assignment yet hasn’t finished
as our chief guest our Mayor P Q R S
113. We are proud that The correct sequence should be
P Q
(a) QRSP (b) QPSR
is a former student of this college (c) PQSR (d) PSRQ
R 120. himself a child can usually feed by the age of six months
who is presiding over today's function P Q R S
S The correct sequence should be
The correct sequence should be [2012-II] (a) QPRS (b) SRQP
(a) P Q R S (b) Q P S R (c) PQRS (d) QRPS
(c) P Q S R (d) Q S P R 121. Every experience in life makes
on some of the cells or other nerve centres of the brain
the soldiers
114. At the end of the morning exercise, P Q R
P
an impression
to get ready to leave were asked S
Q R The correct sequence should be
for an unknown destination (a) SPRQ (b) QRSP
(c) RSPQ (d) PSQR
S
122. You’ll
(a) P Q R S (b) R S P Q know how to do it have to because she does not help her
(c) S R Q P (d) P R Q S P Q R S
the Magistrate
115. After having got up from bed (a) QSPR (b) SRPQ
P (c) QPRS (d) QSRP
to bring coffee ordered the attendant immediately 123. Would you
Q R S like to come on Saturday at the International House
The correct sequence should be [2012-II] P Q R
(a) P Q R S (b) S P Q R to a concert
(c) S P R Q (d) P R Q S S
to resolve it than it is easier to talk about a problem The correct sequence should be
116. (a) PQRS (b) PSQR
P Q R S
(c) RSPQ (d) PQSR
(a) R P Q S (b) Q P R S 124. It is
(c) P Q S R (d) R S Q P to be admitted not necessary that to an engineering college
P Q R
to my client that I speak immediately it is important you qualify an entrance examination
117.
P Q R S S
The correct sequence should be [2012-II] The correct sequence should be
(a) S R Q P (b) S Q P R (a) SRQP (b) QSPR
(c) S P Q R (d) P S Q R
(c) QRPS (d) SRPQ
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 125-130): Each of the following items in this 130. Everyone acknowledges when he considers the case calmly
section consists of a sentence the arts of which have been Jumbled. (P) (Q)
These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each who knows you that you have been wronged
sentence are four sequences namely (a), b), (c) and (d). You are (R) (S)
required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and The proper sequence should be:
select the correct sequence. (a) RSQP (b) RPQS
[2015-II] (c) PQRS (d) QRPS
125. His uncle for success in life, always advised his son, DIRECTIONS (Qs. 131-137): Each of the following items in
this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been
(P) (Q) jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given
who was a self-made man to depend on his own efforts below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and
(R) (S) (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the
The proper sequence should be: sentence and mark your response accordingly.
(a) SQPR (b) RQSP [2016-II]
(c) PRSQ (d) QPSR 131. The statement therefore you must listen carefully what the
126. The doctor did not like the behavior of the patients speaker has said P Q
(P) in order to understand will be made just once
who was very competent in his profession R S
(Q) The proper sequence should be
when they talked at length about their problems (a) S P R Q (b) S R Q P
(c) R S P Q (d) S P Q R
(R) (S)
132. The small boy who broke his leg fell down and
The proper sequence should be:
climbed the wall P Q R
(a) RPSQ (b) SRPQ S
(c) QPRS (d) PRQS The proper sequence should be
127. from leadership in culture (a) P S R Q (b) S Q R P
(P) (c) Q S R P (d) S P R Q
in military situations and in face-to-face small groups 133. According to an engineer might hit the market next year
(Q) P
leadership has wide range of expressions a newly developed air-cooler system that employed in
(R) Q R
to leadership in politics conventional room coolers which is based on a principle
S
(S)
radically different from
The proper sequence should be:
(a) RSQP (b) PQRS (a) S Q R P (b) R S Q P
(c) RPSQ (d) SQRP (c) Q S R P (d) P Q R S
128. He sat glancing occasionally peering through the window 134. The clerk on the desk left the money in the safe
(P) (Q) P Q R
at the figure of the old woman which he should have locked up
(R) S
until he was chilled with the cold The proper sequence should be
(a) S R Q P (b) Q R S P
(S)
(c) P Q R S (d) Q P S R
The proper sequence should be: 135. Hardly had my brother descended from the plane when the people
(a) PSRQ (b) QRPS P
(c) SPRQ (d) PRSQ waved and cheered who had come to receive him
129. After the earthquake tremors, the TV showed a haggard Q R
man shaking his fist at the sky from the lounge
(P) S
clambering over the ruins The proper sequence should be
(a) P Q R S (b) R S P Q
(Q)
(c) R P Q S (d) P R S Q
and collapsing with a howl of revolt
136. The essay like that of the human face because its
(R)
P Q
of his house and factory
variety is infinite is a literary form which is not easy to define
(S) R S
The proper sequence should be: The proper sequence should be
(a) SRQP (b) QSPR (a) P Q R S (b) P Q S R
(c) PQRS (d) RPSQ (c) R S Q P (d) R S P Q
EBD_7348
137. The exhibition committee attractive and useful to make 145. They should implant in the minds of young children
P Q P Q R
exhibition making efforts has been sound principles
R S S
(a) Q S R P (b) S R Q P
(c) Q P S R (d) S P Q R (a) P Q R S (b) P Q S R
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 138-146): Each of the following items in (c) R P Q S (d) P R Q S
this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been 146. When I was a student I learnt swimming at the age of 15
jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given P Q
below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and of class X in a government school
(d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the R S
sentence and mark your response accordingly.
[2017-I]
138. Farm workers spend outdoors most of their time
P Q R S (c) Q P R S (d) Q S P R
The proper sequence should be DIRECTIONS (Qs. 147-151): Each of the following items in this
(a) P Q R S (b) P R Q S section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been
jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given
(c) P Q S R (d) R P Q S
below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and
139. He shuffled the papers in a drawer together
(d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the
P Q R S
sentence and mark your response on the Answer Sheet
accordingly.
(a) P Q S R (b) P Q R S
(c) P S Q R (d) R S P Q [2018-II]
147. Domestic fires in Indian villages
140. Do you think will this soap shrink woollen clothes ?
P. as the heat is dispersed
P Q R S
Q. an unhealthy smoke accumulates in unventilated houses
R. are wasteful
S. lit in Chulhas
(c) Q R P S (d) Q P R S The correct sequence should be
141. We advised the hijackers to surrender to the police (a) PQSR (b) PQRS
P Q R (c) SPQR (d) SRPQ
themselves 148. Bold rocks near at hand
S P. makes a fine forest for the imagination
The proper sequence should be Q. than distant Alps
(a) P Q R S (b) P R Q S R. are more inspiring
(c) P Q S R (d) R P Q S S. and the thick fern upon a heath
142. Sports cars appeal to some motorists only with noisy The correct sequence should be
P Q R S (a) QRSP (b) RSQP
exhausts (c) RQSP (d) SRQP
The proper sequence should be 149. Newton discovered that
(a) R Q S P (b) P S Q R P. due to the gravitational pull
(c) R S P Q (d) P Q S R Q. of the earth
143. He almost planned the entire strategy of operation single- R. the apple falls
P Q R S S. on the ground
handed The correct sequence should be
The proper sequence should be (a) QPRS (b) RSPQ
(a) R S P Q (b) P R Q S (c) QSPR (d) SQRP
(c) S Q R P (d) P R S R 150. The knocking
144. She has more intelligence than we suspected her to P. were still in the house
P Q R S Q. for some time
R. although the echoes of it
possess
S. ceased
(a) SRPQ (b) SQRP
(c) P S Q R (d) R Q R S
(c) PQSR (d) RSPQ
151. The history of mankind is (a) QS RP (b) P Q S R

P. and steady progress (c) SP RQ (d) R P S Q
Q. continuous change 153. P. both intense political and
R. the history of Q. this state has a history of
S. from barbarism to refinement R. of syncretic accomplishments
The correct sequence should be S. religious contestation and
(a) PQRS (b) RQPS (a) SQPR (b) P Q S R
(c) QSPR (d) SQRP (c) SQ RP (d) Q P S R
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 152-154): Each of the following items in 154. P the father also
this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been Q in his quest for justice
jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given R by the system
below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and S feels let down
(d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the (a) SQPR (b) P S R Q
sentence and mark your response accordingly. (c) SQ RP (d) P Q R S
[ 2019-I]
152.. P. the urban local body elections
Q. unidentified gunmen
R. and injured another during
S. shot dead two workers
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 17 (c) 33 (d) 49 (b) 65 (a) 81 (b) 97 (b) 113 (d) 129 (b) 145 (b)
2 (b) 18 (c) 34 (c) 50 (c) 66 (a) 82 (c) 98 (a) 114 (d) 130 (b) 146 (c)
3 (d) 19 (b) 35 (b) 51 (b) 67 (a) 83 (c) 99 (d) 115 (d) 131 (d) 147 (d)
4 (a) 20 (a) 36 (a) 52 (b) 68 (b) 84 (b) 100 (b) 116 (d) 132 (b) 148 (c)
5 (b) 21 (d) 37 (d) 53 (d) 69 (c) 85 (c) 101 (b) 117 (b) 133 (c) 149 (b)
6 (c) 22 (b) 38 (d) 54 (a) 70 (c) 86 (b) 102 (c) 118 (b) 134 (d) 150 (a)
7 (b) 23 (c) 39 (b) 55 (d) 71 (c) 87 (b) 103 (d) 119 (d) 135 (d) 151 (b)
8 (d) 24 (c) 40 (b) 56 (c) 72 (a) 88 (c) 104 (d) 120 (d) 136 (c) 152 (a)
9 (a) 25 (d) 41 (c) 57 (a) 73 (b) 89 (b) 105 (a) 121 (a) 137 (b) 153 (d)
10 (d) 26 (b) 42 (c) 58 (d) 74 (b) 90 (c) 106 (b) 122 (d) 138 (c) 154 (b)
11 (c) 27 (c) 43 (c) 59 (c) 75 (c) 91 (d) 107 (d) 123 (b) 139 (a)
12 (b) 28 (b) 44 (d) 60 (a) 76 (d) 92 (d) 108 (a) 124 (b) 140 (b)
13 (d) 29 (c) 45 (b) 61 (c) 77 (d) 93 (b) 109 (a) 125 (b) 141 (c)
14 (a) 30 (a) 46 (c) 62 (d) 78 (c) 94 (a) 110 (b) 126 (c) 142 (b)
15 (d) 31 (b) 47 (a) 63 (b) 79 (b) 95 (a) 111 (b) 127 (c) 143 (b)
16 (b) 32 (a) 48 (c) 64 (d) 80 (c) 96 (c) 112 (b) 128 (c) 144 (d)
EBD_7348
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (c) The people way of writing the sentence is "Many if he wants the consumer not only know about the
economists argue that free trade is a magic bullet – the product but to buy it, the producer must give enough
quickest way to full growth and alleviate property". information so that the consumer will understand how
This is indicated by the sequence Q–S–P–R which is the product differs the competition." This is indicated
option (c), therefore, (c) is the correct answer. by the sequence SRPQ and so, (d) is the correct answer.
2. (b) The proper way of writing the sentence is "As a 11. (c) The proper way of writing the sentence is "the biogoted
thunderous applause from an appreciative audience belief the more, the merrier – has done immense harm
preceded and followed every composition the maestro not – only to the national interests but also to these
appeared to be enjoying every bit of it." This is families which in order to augment their incomes, plead
indicated by the sequence R – S – Q – P which is option for more children ignoring the resultant reality that
(b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. additional hands also mean additional moudles to feed,
3. (d) The proper way of writing the sentence is "Keeping in clothe and house.' This is indicated by the sequence
view the prevailing weather conditions agricultural SRQP and so, (c) is the correct answer.
experts have advised farmers to smoke their fields 12. (b) The proper way of writing the sentence is "Critics also
during the right to protect vegetables from cold. " This point out that development administration has been
is indicated, by the sequence Q – R – P – S which is basically sugar – coated concept that tries to cover up
option (d), therefore, (d) is the correct answer. the essential in equalitarian and just nature of a third
4. (a) The proper way of writing the sentence is "It is world state. "This is indicated by the sequence SRPQ
necessary to rise above the situations stressful or joyful and so, (b) is the correct answer.
with the belief in the evanescence of life itself in the 13. (d) The proper way of writing the sentence is " For about
philosopical purpose of life. "This is indicated by two decades now scientists have been trying to figure
sequence R – P – Q – S which is option (a), therefore, out which aspects of cognition and behaviour in the
(a) is the correct answer. human brain are determined by nature and which not
5. (b) The proper way of writing the sentence is "The by nature". This is indicated by the sequence QSRP
difference in the relationship between death and birth and so, (d) is the correct answer.
rates on the one hand and development on the other 14. (a) The proper way of writing the sentence is "A school of
affects not just the rate of population growth but the psychology argues that motorcycling – like gambling
age structure of the population". This is indicated by or sky diving – is one of the manifestations of impulse
the sequence Q – P – S – R which is option (b), therefore, control disorder., a condition in which an individual
(b) is the correct answer. cannot resist the impulse or temptation to perform an
6. (c) The proper way of writing the sentence is "Here we go act harmful for oneself or other' This is indicated by the
again with yet another supposed discovery of 29 – sequence RPSQ and so, (a) is the correct answer.
inch foot prints which a group of amateur 15. (d) The proper way of writing the sentence is "with six of
anthropologists claim to have found in Kerala'! This is its neighbours ranking high on a global roster of failed
indicated by the sequence R – P – S – Q which is option states there is a renewed warning for India to reassess
(c), therefore, (c) is the correct answers. its policy towards them and safeguard its own strategic
7. (b) The proper way of writing the sentence is "Creative interests". This is indicated by the sequence RPSQ
writers and artists, through their imagination transform and so, (d) is the correct answer.
the details of the world of reality into the world of art" 16. (b) The proper way of writing the sentence is "faced with
This is indicated by the sequence Q – R – P – S which the challenge of the intrusion of colonial culture and
is option (b), therefore, (b) is the correct answer. ideology at attempt to reinvigorate traditional
8. (d) The proper way of writing the sentence is "Thus the institutions and realize the potential of traditional
court emphasized that the security of one's primary culture in the pre– independence India developed
against arbitrary intrusion by the police is basic to a during the nineteenth century. This is indicated by the
free society and enforceable against the state through sequence QSPR and so, (b) is the correct answer.
the courts" This is indicated by the sequence R – Q – 17. (c) The proper way of writing the sentence is "Looking
S – P which is option (d), therefore, (d) is the correct back, despite the vicissitudes and hardships of the two
answer. wars I had been through and the innumerable postings
9. (a) The proper way of writing the sentence is "The and below par accommodation at many stations life in
preference for the male child continues despite the fact the Army had all along been truly joyous" This is
that in a growing number of families at least in urban indicated by the sequence SPRQ and so, (c) is the
India daughters are taking on the responsibilities of correct answer.
cooking after parents in their old age ". This is indicated 18. (c) The proper way of writing the sentence is 'A diversified
by the sequence S – Q – R – P which is option (a), use of natural gas is emerging adding a new dimension
therefore, (a) is the correct answer. to the traditional use of gas as a heating or power
10. (d) The proper way of writing the sentence is "The generation fuel by converting gas into amongst other
producer must inform the consumer of his product and
products, high quality diesel transportation fuel overpower you to help some one.
virtually free of sulphur.' This is indicated by the 28. (b) Q describes the introduction and talks about the kind
sequence RQ PS and so, option (c) is the correct answer. of the people in the developing world. S is the logical
19. (b) The proper way of writing the sentence is " As things sentence whereas P explains about international
stand, Indian professional are much sought after surveys. R concludes the statement.
generally because of the linguistic edge they are 29. (c) Q describes the introduction and explains how nutrients
equipped with but a majority still did not have access become integral parts, S is very logical part of this entire
to English. This is indicated by the sequence 'SRQP' paragraph. R talks about the physiological and
and so, the option (b) is the correct answer. biochemical proces. P concludes the statement since
20. (a) The proper way of writing the sentence is "While these process govern their actions.
advocates of social reform have generally hailed the 30. (a) R supports the introductroy line and describes about
new legislation there is some misguided concern about the topics which dominates the front page of a nespaper.
a possible clash of some of the provisions with the P puts forth a questions. Where as S explains that even
religious and customary practies in vogue in the children’s read those headlines and if So, ‘Q’ concludes
country. This is indicated by the sequence RQPS and with a questions only that how many parent’s do have
so, the option (a) is the correct answer.' the courage to satisfy the and give suitable answer to
21. (d) The proper way of writing the sentence is "Public the kid’s question.
interest legislations, also called postcard petitions were 31. (b) S absolutely supports the introduction. P talks about
instituted as a means to help ordinary people sidestep the beautiful sense of their ancestors. Q explains about
judicial delays to secure justice but today the contribute nature and their visionary investment in beautiful things.
the black log as they are subjected to massive misuse. Whereas R talks about those manifestations of nature
This is indicated by the sequence SRQP and so, option with a religious significance.
(d) is the correct answer. 32. (a) R explains the introductory line and states further that
22. (b) The proper way of writing the sentence is " Among the in which order primitive man made markets, cities,
doctrine's other directives is the need to reorient the civilization. Q talks about the slow acent where men is
soldiers mindset from fighting the enemy to fighting today. P further adds men’s growth on the verge of
his own people namely terrorists hiding among globalization. S concludes the statement and it also
civilians.' This is indicated by the sequence QPSR and talks about universal prosperity.
so, option (b) is the correct answer. 33. (d) Q describes the supporting line of introduction about
23. (c) The proper way of writing the sentence is ' Indeed the Russia’s test firing of an intercontinental ballistic
non-descript town's emergencies as the powerhouse missile, S talks about the day and also why did they
of women's hockey is an instructive lesson for Indian test fire? P is the real response ‘how US has started an
hockey bosses or how to nurture young talent, at the arms race’. R concludes the statement with a fact that
grass roots level. This is indicated by the sequence how this arm race undermined the world security.
SQRP and so, the option (c) is the correct answer. 34. (c) Q is the opening part which introdues the incident/
24. (c) The proper way of writing the sentence is 'With pressure cause/clash. Q will be followed by S which contains
mounting from every corners the state government has subject. S will be further followed by P (describes the
finally constituted a committee comprising scientist, intensity of violence) and then it would be followed by
geologists and technical experts to submit a report on Q (which describes the aftermath of that violence
the retreat of glaciers in the Uttranchal and also its between two.)
impact. 'This is indicated by the sequence QSRP and 35. (b) Q introduces the main topic, (political freedom from the
so, the option (c) is the correct answer. British masters) which will be followed by R, which
25. (d) The proper way of writing the sentence is 'This could further describes the era of freedom S comes into the
not be further from the truth because while seafarers logical sequence which talks about the following
do look forward to some fun on the decks they shoulder decade while P concludes the sentence.
great responsibility and have to take care of any 36. (a) R talks about the aspiration of Indian companies while
eventuality while out on sea-sight from an engine Q follows R which explains that if these companies
breakdown to a human problem. 'This is indicated by really want to market in US and Canada, they need to
the sequence SRQP and so, the option (d) is the correct meet the conditions. While S concludes the complex
answer. rules of origin.
26. (b) P supports the introduction. R talks about those 37. (d) Q introduces the eating in the same dining hall, P
developing countries which are expected to face the continues the description of the building of that
burnt of global warming. Q explains about those academy, while S talks about the other 206 troops which
countries who could become the leaders in energy like side by side, on the other hand R concludes the
production. S talks about the reason of being leader in statement.
energy production. 38. (d) Q begins the paragraph of upsetting young people,
27. (c) Q starts the production, and talks about the feeling of which is further explained by S about their genetic
discomfort, while S being logical sequence taks about propensities of P follows the cause while R concludes
the same feeling of awkwardness when someone has that only healthy people over 80 should be sequences.
to help. P explains about the kind of people one has to 39. (b) Q is introductory sentence which starts the paragraph of
help. Where as R concludes that don’t let that feeling Indians articulate professionals who really work at US
EBD_7348
timings which is followed by S. P is the logical sequence 57. (a) Here, an old king is a clue which is followed by called
while R explains the undreamt dreams of their elders and in S. Hence, Q is the qualifier of sentence. It helps us
concludes the paragraph in convincing manner. conclude that our answer will close with P. Thus, the
40. (b) S supports the introduction of IIT’s as most correct sequence will be QSRP.
consequential legacy of Jawaharlal Nehru which is 58. (d) Here, the Indian peasant is a clue which connects itself
followed by the logical sequence of R which talks about with a wooden plough and thus helps us to find the
IIT as an epitome of infrastructure for excellence, Q qualifier and also the correct answer. So, the correct
explains the field which has become source of great sequence is RQSP.
self-confidence and competitive advantage for today’s 59. (c) Here, who is a clue which is followed by R and then S
India. It’s being concluded by P. and it helps us conclude that our answer will close with
41. (c) R introdues the celebration of India’s diamond jubilee P. Thus, the correct sequence is QRSP.
which is follow by P which describes the british role of 60. (a) Here, universities is the clue; it helps us conclude that
250 years over India. Then being followed by S which our answer will close with R. Thus S is the qualifier of a
also reminds us the 150th anniversary of Indian mutiny, sentence and the correct sequence will be SQPR.
with concluding option as Q. Indian mutiny reminds us 61. (c) Here, for the next two weeks is the clue and it is followed
about the first major struggle. by which hurled and thus Q is the qualifier and the
42. (c) Here, who is the clue that stands for citizen, but privilege sentence ends with P. So, the correct sequence will be
and duty are joined by conjunction as well as. Thus R QRSP.
is the qualifier of the sentence and it is also followed 62. (d) Here, the great is the clue which connects itself with
by Q. the noun ‘william shakespeare’ and hence Q is the
43. (c) Here, R is the qualifier of the sentence and also followed qualifier of a sentence and it helps us conclude that
by P. our answer will close with S. Thus, the correct sequence
44. (d) Here, S is the qualifier of the given sentence and also is QPRS.
followed by Q and ends at R. 63. (b) Here, the qualifier of a sentence is Q which is followed
45. (b) Here, S is the qualifier of the given sentence which is by S and thus it helps us to locate our correct sequence
followed by P and Q. as QSRP.
46. (c) Here, P is the qualifier of given sentence which is 64. (d) Here, P is the qualifier of a sentence which connects
followed by S. itself with R and thus helps us to find the correct
47. (a) Here, P is the qualifier of the given sentence which is sequence as PRQS.
followed by R and then by Q and S. 65. (a) Here, to give relief is the clue. Thus, P is the qualifier of
48. (c) Here, R is the qualifier of sentence which is followed the sentence which is followed by Q and end
by S and P and again by Q. with S.
49. (b) Here, P is the qualifier of sentence and followed by R 66. (a) Here, P is the qualifier of the sentence which is followed
and S. by Q and then by R.
50. (c) Here, the verb used is the clue which connects itself 67. (a) Here, Q is the qualifier of the sentence which is followed
with ancient and thus helps us to find the qualifier and by P.
also the correct answer. Hence the correct sequence is 68. (b) Here, the pronoun ‘who’ stands for the ‘workers’. Thus,
RSQP. P is the qualifier of the sentence which is followed by
51. (b) Here, a number of parents is the clue; It helps us R.
conclude that our answer will close with Q. Hence the 69. (c) Here, the preposition ‘of’ stands for ‘members’ to explain
correct sequence is PRSQ. the sentence and joined by them. Thus P is the qualifier
52. (b) Here, the verb should is the clue which connects itself of the sentence which is followed by R.
with the subject the common man and followed by Q. 70. (c) Here, S is the qualifier of the sentence which is followed
Hence the correct sequence is SQPR. by Q.
53. (d) Here, the verb had is followed by the subject the doctor. 71. (c) Here, R is the qualifier of the sentence which is followed
It helps us conclude that our answer will close with R. by P.
Hence the correct sequence is SPQR. 72. (a) Here, P is the qualifier of the sentence which is followed
54. (a) Here, the officer is the clue which is followed by verb by Q.
was and ends with R. Hence the correct sequence is 73. (b) 'Shouted' in the Q and 'top of the voice' in the S can be
QPSR. linked to give a sensible combination QS. Further, 'he'
55. (d) Here, he may work as a clue. The sentence R qualifies in P and 'his' in R is used for the 'guard' of Q. So Q
sentence I because he reverses the word hand. Thus follows the given statement and is a starter.
the answer will begin with R. There are two choices 74. (b) P cannot fit anywhere but at last. And the only option
with R. The sense of sequence helps us locate RQSP with P as the finisher is (b). So this question can be
as the correct answer. quickly solved by using options. Otherwise, 'they' of S
56. (c) Here, the one is followed by old coat which acts as the is used for 'man and daughter' of R. So it should be…
clue and helps us to locate the qualifier and through R…S…. not …S…..R...by this logic option (a) and (d)
that the correct answer. Thus our answer will begin can be rejected.
with P and end with S. Hence the correct sequence is 75. (c) Opening given statement requires a helping verb to
PRQS. connect. R provides it. P follows with 'and'. S is best at
last. Hence RPQS is right sequence.
76. (d) 'Between the two mirrors' gives a sub sequence of SR. 90. (c) A sequence of events is given. Pr esident
Opening statement is more like a question -it seemed entered…Everyone got up… (purpose) is to greet. So
….What is 'it' here? This question is answered by find out the linkages and get the answer.
'endless quest' of Q. 91. (d) See the logical sequence of events - 'downpour' in R
77. (d) A sequence of events is given in question. Shocks ………shelter (P)…….under the tree (S)…(which
(result) ........... result from sudden earth movements was)…. Near the lake (Q).
(Cause) ........... recognized from ........... causing wide 92. (d) Opening statement ends with 'are' which can connect
spread (after effects)…… known as earth quake. This with the P or S only. But with P there is no further valid
sequence is followed in the option (d). link is available. So staring part is Q. P follows Q
78. (c) Q and R are true linkages. Q cannot be linked with naturally. Key words 'teach' and 'languages' hints a
other parts. RQ is a sub sequence. S is obviously best connection.
at last as it finishes the sentence with a verdict. See for 93. (b) P is best to start with. R is best at last. Find the option
these findings in options. with such a combination. SQ is obvious link.
79. (b) Q can be used in between the passage but can not be 94. (a) Pick the easiest part R. Can R be linked with S? - No .it
the starting sentence. Hence reject option (d). P or S is not logical; marrying through wife. So reject the option
both can start. To eliminate the confusion, a critical which has this link. Now find the linkage in 'inheriting',
reasoning is required. 'afterwards' & 'through'. This completes the sequence
Sense of the passage can be - RQPS.
Teaching becomes the right of church --- so…… little 95. (a) The given statement gives a subject and the verb is
progress in either intellectual or social. Option (b) provided by R. S follows naturally with 'baby' in it. P
Little progress intellectual or social ------- so …….. elaborates the situation and Q tells the time of event.
teaching becoming right of church only. Option (a) 96. (c) 'Old man' of P lives in the 'house' of R. Hence PR. S is a
Second one seems illogical. First one gives true sense finisher. Q precedes it. Option (c) gives these
of passage. subsequences.
80. (c) 'Plants' in S can be liked with 'their leaves' in R. 'Hold' in 97. (b) Even when people engaged in a conversation are well
P and 'cigarette' in Q is linkable. Another sub sequence informed their conversation may be dull.
is PQ. Right option is PQRS. Also P is best starter. 98. (a) A pressure cooker consists of a very strong vessel
81. (b) 'Lost control at a turning' gives sequence PS. PS is made of an aluminum alloy with a lid that fits tightly on
given in option (b) only. See the sequence of events. the top.
82. (c) Something is wanted and only available one is 'every 99. (d) The aim of an argumentative essay is to convince your
country' from the P so P is the best one to start with. reader that the position you have taken on a subject is
Eliminate option (b) and (d). R follows P and SQ is right.
obvious choice. So answer is PRSQ. 100. (b) There is only one way in which the world can be made
83. (c) 'Likewise' in P indicates that pupils are following what safe from the war.
the teacher is doing and teacher is repeating a sentence 101. (b) The government got wind of the conspiracy against
as given in the Q. We have QP. This sequence of the king's life.
repletion continued till teacher thought that pupils have 102. (c) The important objection to death penalty is that it has
learnt it by heart. So SR is another mini sequence. not succeeded in preventing the crime.
84. (b) Q follows main given sentence as 'and' is given in it. S 103. (d) When you want to use a graphic representation for
further gives sense to sentence. R is best at last. your data make your choice carefully.
85. (c) Send…..money and joined….college gives linkages 104. (d) He would like to see some changes in the curriculum
which lead to option (c). but as a junior lecturer he does not cut much ice.
86. (b) As the main part ends with helping verb 'is', look for 105. (a) He lives from hand to mouth even when there are good
proper connection. P can not connect. Q can connect crops but if the crops fail he simply starves.
but would not give further linkages. Best one to link 106. (b) Providence had helped me to retain my true identity
with main part is R. Now 'of' in R connects with and in the process changed the course of my life.
'communicating' of Q. S follows with 'thoughts and 107. (d) He had such a winning smile that I could not say 'no' to
emotions'. P ends logically. him.
87. (b) A model as introduced in given starting sentence can 108. (a) He nodded as though he understood everything.
not be related to anything but 'factory' of R. So R is the 109. (a) By playing with matches the child burned down the
best to start with. Only option is (b). On going through house.
option it gives a logical and coherent sentence. 110. (b) I believed in his innocence and acquittal of the charge.
88. (c) A week ago can be put in two different ways - 'not 111. (b) My little sister who was quite intelligent played with
cared a week ago 'or 'bought a week ago'. Second one dolls in school instead of reading books.
is better to go with. So this logic gives PQ. In two 112. (b) He was awarded gold medal for having stood first at
options PQ is present. But option (c) only gives sensible the B.A. examination last year.
sequence. 113. (d) We are proud that our Mayor who is presiding over
89. (b) 'marched' in the P and 'journey' in the S are key point to today's function as our chief guest is a former student
provide us with a link PS. This link is given in 3 out of of this college.
4 options hence option method cannot use. 'rest' of R 114. (d) At the end of the morning exercise the soldiers were
can be done under the 'tree' of Q. asked to get ready to leave for an unknown destination.
EBD_7348
115. (d) After having got up from the bed the Magistrate 142. (b) The correct sentence will be – Sports car with noisy
ordered the attendant to bring coffee immediately. exhausts appeal to some motorists only.
116. (d) It is easier to talk about a problem than to resolve it. 143. (b) The correct sentence will be – He planned the entire
117. (b) It is important that I speak to my client immediately. strategy of operation almost single – handed.
118. (b) You had better work hard so that we will be sure of 144. (d) The given parts of the sentence are in correct order.
getting a good response. 145. (b) The correct sentence will be – They should implant
119. (d) The sentence cannot begin with an 'and' or 'haven't', sound principles in the minds of young children.
therefore the first part should be she. This rules out 146. (c) The correct sentence will be – I learnt swimming at the
option (a) and (b) completely. Now, she can only be age of 15 when I was a student of class X in a
followed by the auxiliary verb hasn't as the other option government school.
of using 'neither have I' will render part S useless. Thus, 147. (d) SRPQ. The sentence can easily be understood by
the correct sentence formation should be; She hasn't inserting the words "which are" before part (S). The
finished the assignment yet and neither have I. original question has a typographical error. "An" in
120. (d) The sentence cannot begin with 'can' (as it is not a part (Q) should be replaced by "and". The sentence
question) or 'himself' or 'by'. Thus, it begins with 'a becomes meaningful now. Part (P) does not fit after
child', i.e part Q. This leaves us with options (a) and the introductory part. Part (R) does not fit after part
(d). this subject should be followed by a verb to give (Q). This eliminates option (c) from consideration.
the flow to the sentence, which is 'can feed'. So, the 148. (c) RQSP. "More inspiring" is a comparative degree
proper structuring is ' a child can feed himself by the adjective. It is followed by "than". The part sequence
age of six months. RQ exists only in option (c). The sentence is read by
121. (a) The given part 'every experience in life makes' must be using option (c) and is found to be both meaningful
followed by a subject that answers what is made. This and grammatically correct.
is given only by part S,i.e, an impression. While the 149. (b) RSPQ. The "gravitational pull" is exerted by the earth.
answer is clear from here itself, we can still confirm by So, it is logical to place part (Q) after (P). Part-sequence
looking at other parts. As only cells are found in brain PQ is mentioned only in option (b). The complete
and not nerve centres, this confirms the flow- 'on some sentence is read by using option (b). The sentence is
of the cells of the brain'-PR. Thus, the sequence is meaningful. The adverb phrase of place "on the
SPRQ. ground" is positioned after the verb "falls". It is
122. (d) 'You'll’ needs to be either followed by have to or 'help followed by part (P) which mentions the reason.
her'. However, if we use help her right after, the part 150. (a) SRPQ. The subject of the sentence is "the knocking".
'have to' would remain useless rendering the remaining It is required to be followed by a verb. So, the focus is
sentence meaningless. This suggests that the first ‘to’ on options starting with a verb i.e. (S) and (P).
come in sequence is part Q. This ‘to’ should be followed Consequently, option (d) is not considered.
by a verb, that is, help,given in the question. As the "Knocking" is a singular noun and cannot take the
part 'because she does not' needs to have a predicate plural verb "were". So, option (c) is also not considered.
to follow, 'know how to do it' makes the best sense out The sense of the sentence is that first the knocking
the given question. Thus sequence is QSRP. ceased. Thereafter, the echoes continued to exist for
123. (b) 'would you' is always followed by a verb which among some time before eventually fading away. This
the options is only 'like to come' that is part P. In english sequence of actions does not fit with option (b). A
language, the minute details are always given in the final reading of the sentence is done by using option
end to give a proper flow to the sentence. Therefore, (a). The sentence has a flow and the sequence of
the general information 'concert' needs to be given first. events is correct.
This leads to our answer as only option (b) has a 151. (b) RQPS. The verb "is" in the opening part cannot be
sequence of PS. followed by the conjunction "and". This eliminates
124. (b) The only part that makes sense after the sentence option (a) from consideration. Part (R), which ends
begins with it is - is part Q 'not necessary that'. That with a preposition, cannot be placed at the end of the
must be followed by the condition introduced in the sentence. This eliminates option (c) from
first part of sentence clarifying what is not necessary. consideration. Neither does part (S) fit after the opening
That is given in part S - about qualifying the entrance part nor does (R) fit after (Q). This eliminates option
exam. 'to be admitted' must be followed by its subject (d) from consideration. The only remaining option (b)
which answers where or when or how. This is done is used to complete the sentence and it is found to be
through part R(engineering college). Thus, the grammatically correct.
sequence should be QSPR, option (b). 152. (a) Unidentified gunmen shot dead two workers and
138. (c) The correct sentence will be – Farm workers spend injured another during the urban local body elections.
most of their time outdoors. 153. (d) This state has a history of both intense political and
139. (a) The correct sentence will be – He shuffled the papers religious contestation an d of syncretic
together in a drawer. accomplishments.
140. (b) The correct sentence will be – Do you think this soap 154. (b) The father also feels let down by the system in his
will shrink woollen clothes? quest for justice.
141. (c) The correct sentence will be – We advised the hijackers
to surrender themselves to the police.
Comprehension 8
DIRECTIONS : In this Section you have a short passage. After this passage, you will find four questions based on the passage.
First, read the passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of
the passage and opinion of the author only.
Examples ‘I’ and ‘J’ are solved for you.
PASSAGE
In our approach to life be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakably is the desire for
peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours.
And, no matter whether they belong to higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings primarly
seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against
dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and note to die, so do all other creatures.
I. Tha author’s main point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(d) even the weakest creatur struggles to preserve its life
J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in developing the author’s position?
(a) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower gorups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death
Explanation :
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is “peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings”, which is
response (c). So (c) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is “ The will to sruvive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace”, which is
response(b). So (b) is the correct answer.
PASSAGE-1
Today, India looks to be on course to join the league of consumption demand is enough to propel India to double-digit
developed nations. It is beginning to establish a reputation economic growth for decades. This opportunity also represents
not just as the technology nerve-centre and back-office to the greatest threat to India’s future. If the youth of India are not
the world, but also as its production centre. India’s secularism properly educated and if there are not enough jobs created,
and democracy serve as a role model to other developing India will have forever lost its opportunity.
countries. There is great pride in an India that easily integrates India’s Information Technology and Business Process
with a global economy, yet maintains a unique cultural identity. Outsourcing industries are engines of job creation, but they
still account for only 0.2 per cent of India’s employment.
But what is breathtaking is India’s youth. For despite an
The country has no choice but to dramatically industrialise
ancient civilization that traces itself to the very dawn of
and inflate its economy. According to a recent survey, more
human habitation, India is among the youngest countries in
than half of India’s unemployed within the next decade could
the world. More than half the country is under 25 years of
be its educated youth. [2006-I]
age and more than a third is under 15 years of age.
1. Consider the following statements :
Brought up in the shadow of the rise of India’s service industry 1. India’s rich cultural heritage prevents India from surging
boom, this group feels it can be at least as good if not better ahead to become an active partner in the global economy.
than anyone else in the world. This confidence has them 2. By and large, India’s youth still believe in a thrifty
demonstrating a great propensity to consume, throwing away lifestyle.
ageing ideas of asceticism and thrift. The economic activity Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
created by this combination of a growing labour pool and rising (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
EBD_7348
2. What is the approximate number of people in India who are America’s inner cities and other supposedly ‘hardship’
in the age group 15-25 years? stations. Along with nuclear deals and technology transfer,
(a) 500 million (b) 350 million the two largest English-speaking democracies must realise
(c) 210 million (d) 180 million that they could mutually benefit from bilateral employment
3. In the recent past, which sector has witnessed a phenomenal agreements. India, with its one-billion plus and growing
growth? population, has the potential of supplying First World
(a) Heavy industry (b) Service industry nations with declining birth rates much-needed labour.
(c) Petrochemical industry (d) Textile industry Based on the passage given above, answer to the questions
4. Consider the following statements : which follow : [2006-II]
1. Rising consumption demand will retard economic 6. Consider the following statements :
growth. 1. Besides for high technology areas, India can be an
2. India’s youth are its greatest opportunity as well as effective source of manpower in the health and
threat. education sectors of the United States of America.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. Only those illegal immigrants can file an application for
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only getting status of legal residents who have stayed in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the US for over five years.
5. Consider the following statements : Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1. Information Technology sector provides a relatively (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
large proportion of jobs in India. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. In the coming decade only uneducated youth will 7. Consider the following statements :
remain deprived of employment opportunity. 1. The number of farm workers in the US is between 12 to
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 15 million.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. The types of jobs which engage the immigrants are not
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 sought after by the Americans.
PASSAGE-2 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
The US Senate’s approval of an immigration Bill has been (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
welcomed in India as well as in the IT industry in America 8. Consider the following statements :
because of the proposal of double H1-B visas for skilled 1. One of the shortcomings of the immigration Bill is that
foreign workers. However, the more important bit in the illegal immigrants will still be deprived of is that illegal
legislation, if approved by the House of Representatives, is immigrants will still be deprived of social security
the lifeline to millions of illegal immigrants in the US. Some benefits.
of the key proposals in the Bill include allowing illegal 2. India contributes the largest number of immigrants to
immigrants, who have been in America for five years, to the United States of America.
become legal residents by paying a certain amount in fines Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
and back taxes. Those who have been in the country between (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
two and five years can go to a point of entry at the US (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
border and file an application. There is also a provision for 9. Consider the following statements :
creating a guest worker programme especially meant for farm 1. The basic premise of the immigration Bill is a concern
workers. These are welcome moves to recognise the huge of the Federal Government of the United States of
presence—according to some estimates 12 to 15 million — America for welfare of the mankind.
of illegal immigrants in the US and legitimising their existence. 2. Both Mexican and Indian immigrants enjoy an
But it must be understood that the US is not considering advantage of good communication skills in English.
this legislation out of a sense of altruism. The truth is that Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
the bulk of immigrants are doing jobs that Americans simply (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
don’t want to do. They are employed in jobs that pay (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
minimum wages and entail long working hours. But giving
illegal immigrants the opportunity to become legal residents PASSAGE-3
will at least ensure that they are not exploited by employers The art of effective presentation is the fruit of persistent
and that they are covered by social security benefits. efforts and practice. Your personality is reflected in your
American legislators, however need to go beyond this. They presentation. Adequate planning and preparation are
must recognise that the US needs trained people in various essential for a successful presentation. A thorough
fields, particularly in schools and hospitals. India with its preparation is the best antidote for nervousness. If a person
vast population of educated youth is a natural source of is not successful in presenting his views and ideas then it
such personnel. Instead of just targeting India for its best will become the greatest obstacle in his career and life. People
brains, The US should open up its labour market for more form a perception about how competent you are by how
school teachers, nurses and technicians from India. you present yourself when you stand and speak.
Compared to Mexicans, the largest component of immigrants A successful presentation can help a person in winning
to the US, Indians have a natural advantage in that they orders for the company he works for. Most people who work
know English. They would also be willing to work in in organizations find that their effectiveness and success
Comprehension E-97
depend on their ability to organize their ideas and present Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
them effectively. Delivering your message in person provides (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
immediate feedback that helps you clarify points and answer (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
questions. 14. Consider the following statements :
Oral presentations are often more persuasive. As far as 1. Presentations are not meant to change point of view of
possible, one should never read a presentation or memorize the audience about subject of the presentation.
it. Then the presentation will lose flexibility and 2. Recounting of quotations in the presentation should
communication will suffer. The spoken word wields great be avoided as it makes the presentation appear
power. Face-to-face interaction demands thinking and superficial.
speaking. Anecdotes, quotations and humorous touches Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
often make a presentation interesting. One may consult his (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
notes frequently when he is making his presentation. This (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
may create a feeling among listeners that the speaker has 15. Consider the following statements :
taken pains to prepare for the occasion. A positive response 1. One of the drawbacks of presentations is that they
will be generated and the speaker will be heard with respect. fails to provide a feedback from the audience.
Speaker’s enthusiasm and confidence can influence people 2. While making a presentation one should, at times, refer
to accept to reject an idea in a way that a written document to his written material.
cannot. A presentation should be persuasive and should Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
change the audience’s attitude. The topic of the presentation (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
must be interesting to the audience. The topic should be of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
interest to the speaker also otherwise he will go through the 16. Consider the following statements :
motions of making a presentation. No perfunctory approach 1. An effective presentation about the product of a
should ever be resorted to while making a presentation. It is company can help in increasing sales volumes.
very important that the speaker is perceived by the audience 2. Impromptu presentation can leave a more forceful
as credible and qualified to speak about the topic. Speaker impact on the audience.
must adapt to intellectual level of the audience. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Based on the passage given above, answer to the questions (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
which follow : [2006-II] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
PASSAGE-4
1. Persuasive skill-set is a prerequisite to an effective
presentation. The young are those to whom we look for future strength
2. At the end of a presentation, offering small gifts to the and for future good; and the longer we live, the more anxious
audience by the speaker is a good strategy. we become that they who are to be the fresh recruits should
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? be morally of right stature. Around them are peculiar
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 temptations and trials, witching, cunning, insidious and
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 forceful: and we are obliged to see thousands falling by the
11. Consider the following statements : way, whose fall seems needless. They, like ourselves, are to
1. Innate stage fright of a speaker can be countered by have but one chance in life. We who are somewhat advanced
meticulous preparation of his presentation. in years, seeing how many perils there are round about that
2. Confidence of a speaker is generally taken by the one chance, feel an earnest desire that every advantage
audience as a sign of arrogance. should be given to those who are coming onto fill our places.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? We can live but once; and life is usually moulded and takes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 its shape very early. [2007-I]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 17. Which one of the following is correct? The author looks
12. Consider the following statements : upon the young as :
1. Topic of the presentation must be of relevant interest (a) handsome and healthy
to the audience to induce their responses. (b) an embodiment of possibilities
2. Topic of the presentation may or may not be of intimate (c) strong and hardworking
interest to the speaker. (d) a group of boys and girls who are obedient and dutiful
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 18. What does the phrase “morally of right stature” mean?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Being highly educated
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Having a good personality
13. Consider the following statements : (c) Having rectitude
1. A speaker must memorize his talk so as to introduce (d) Feeling superior to others
more flexibility. 19. Which one of the following is correct?
2. A written document is more efficacious than an oral The failure of many a young men and women is
presentation as it leaves a lasting impression on the (a) well deserved (b) unwarranted
reader. (c) fortuitous (d) sad
EBD_7348
PASSAGE-5 (b) Some place on the border of a country having beautiful
There are a great many people who have all the material natural scenery
conditions of happiness, i.e., health, sufficient income and (c) A borderline that has been naturally chosen by two
clout, but who nevertheless, are profoundly unhappy. In neighbouring countries
such cases it would seem as if the fault must lie with a wrong (d) A sudden gift of land by nature because of sudden
theory as to how to live. We imagine ourselves more different change in the course of a river
from the animals than we are. Animals live on impulse and 26. Which one of the following is correct? ‘Military advantages’
are happy as long as external conditions are favourable. and ‘economic advantages’ :
Your needs are more complex than those of your pets but (a) are the same for a country
they still have their basis in instinct. In civilised societies, (b) may or may not be the same but the rulers make them
this is too apt to be forgotten. People propose to themselves appear to be the same
some paramount objective and restrain all impulses that do
(c) are completely different for a country
not minister to it. A businessman may be so anxious to grow
(d) go against each other
rich that to this end he sacrifices health and private affection.
When at last he has become rich, no pleasure remains to him PASSAGE-7
except harrying other people by exhortations to initiate his When a bee, or an ant, beetle, moth or butterfly visits a
noble example. [2007-I] flower for food, it simultaneously, and without knowing it,
20. Which one of the following is correct?
performs another vital function by carrying pollen from one
The “material conditions of happiness” do not include
plant to another. But not all flowers are visited by insects. A
(a) health (b) money
reliable guide to those that are, is their flamboyance. If the
(c) power (d) hope
21. Which one of the following is correct? Modern man is very petals are large and colourful, if they smell sweet, it is because
unhappy because he the plant needs to attract insects. Some plants have flowers
(a) is always busy making money which are graceful but not showy and therefore of no interest
(b) feels alienated from his fellow beings to insects. In this case the pollen is carried by the wind.
(c) cannot communicate with animals Most flowers manufacture these minute grains called pollen
(d) suppresses his inner urges which must be transferred to another flower of the same
22. Which one of the following is correct? The author is of the type before they can make seeds. [2007-II]
opinion that 27. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) we are superior to animals Plants that do not have showy flowers
(b) animals are more impulsive than us (a) get their pollen transferred to other flowers by wind
(c) we are really not very different from animals (b) produce more pollen than others
(d) we have the unique ability to control our impulses (c) don’t reproduce easily
23. What does the phrase “do not minister to it” mean? (d) are very few in number
(a) Do not support it (b) Do not oppose it 28. Which one of the following is correct?
(c) Are ignorant about it (d) Are careless about it The fact that some flowers are flamboyant implies
PASSAGE-6 (a) that some plants do not need pollination
(b) that we can distinguish between flowers pollinated by
The first of the political causes of war is war itself. Many
wars have been fought, among other reasons, for the sake insects and those that are not
of seizing some strategically valuable piece of territory, or in (c) that flowers are more important to some plants than
order to secure a ‘natural’ frontier, that is to say, a frontier they are to others
which is easy to defend and from which it is easy to launch (d) that bright colours are important to all flowers
attacks upon one’s neighbours. Purely military advantages 29. Which one of the following is correct?
are almost as highly praised by the rulers of nations as When insects carry pollen from one flower to another
economic advantages. The possession of an army, navy (a) they help the flowers to make seeds
and air force is itself a reason for going to a war. “We must (b) the flowers become colourful and smell sweet
use our forces now’, so runs the militarist’s argument, ‘in (c) the insects find it easy to take food from the flowers
order that we may be in a position to use them to better (d) they help the plants to grow beautiful flowers
effect next time.’ [2007-I] 30. Which one of the following is correct?
24. Why have wars been fought? Insects carry pollen from one flower to another
(a) To use weapons and make room for fresh purchase (a) deliberately (b) unconsciously
(b) Because people want to show their neighbours that (c) reluctantly (d) with extreme care
they are strong 31. Which one of the following is correct?
(c) To capture some areas of another country which are of Insects visit flowers because they
strategic importance (a) want to carry pollen from one flower to another
(d) To each neighbouring countries a good lesson (b) are attracted by the bright colours
25. What does a ‘natural’ frontier mean? (c) wish to obtain food
(a) An area on the border from where you can keep watch (d) are in search of a mate
on or attack your enemy
Comprehension E-99
PASSAGE-8 36. Which one of the following is correct?

Not all sounds made by animals serve for communication, Extension of the suffrage indicates
and we have only to turn to that extraordinary discovery of (a) spread of suffering
echo-location in bats to see a case in which the voice plays (b) suffering of the common man
a strictly utilitarian role. To get a full appreciation of what (c) right of vote for more and more people
this means we must turn first to some recent human (d) spread of crime in politics
inventions. Everyone knows that if a person shouts in the 37. What does ‘economic democracy’ stand for?
vicinity of a wall or a mountainside, an echo will come back. (a) Equal distribution of wealth
The further off this solid obstruction, the longer time will (b) Equal economic opportunity for all
elapse for the return of the echo. A sound made by tapping (c) Application of democratic process in economic
on the hull of a ship will be reflected from the sea bottom, institutions
and by measuring the time interval between the taps and the (d) Importance of money in political activities
receipt of the echoes, the depth of the sea at that point can PASSAGE-10
be calculated. So was born the echo-sounding apparatus,
now in general use in ships. Every solid object will reflect a For more than 3 decades, I achieved great success as a
sound, varying according to the size of and nature of the lawyer, till a stroke left my right side totally paralysed. Despite
object. A shoal of fish will do this. So it is a comparatively the doctor’s encouragement, I was consumed by rage and
simple step from locating the sea bottom to locating a shoal self-pity. I yearned to be active again. But what could a
of fish. With experience, and with improved apparatus, it is middle-aged cripple like me do? One day, glancing at some
now possible not only to locate a shoal, but to tell if it is paintings I owned, I thought suddenly, “ What about
herring, cod, or other well-known fish, by the pattern of its painting ? In fact, I had always wanted to paint, but had
echo. never had the time. Now, I had plenty of time. In the last 25
A few years ago it was found that certain bats emit squeaks years, I have completed 300 paintings-one of them appeared
and by receiving the echoes they could locate and steer on the cover of the Reader’s Digest. The stroke, I realize,
clear of obstacles or locate flying insects on which they has helped me develop a latent talent and enjoy life.
feed. This echo-location in bats is often compared with radar, [2008-I]
the principle of which is similar. [2007-II] 38. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
32. Which one of the following is correct? While in the hospital, the author was
Echo-location was first discovered in (a) angry with himself for falling ill
(a) bats (b) cods (b) relieved at the successful treatment
(c) navigation (d) radars
(c) frustrated at his helpless situation
33. Which one of the following is correct?
An echo will come back if you shout near (d) resentful at being hospitalized
(a) solid obstruction (b) only wall 39. Why did the author consider himself a cripple?
(c) only a mountainside (d) the sea (a) He could not go back to work
34. Which one of the following is correct? (b) He could not longer use his right hand
In the first paragraph, the writer says that bats use sound (c) He could not use his time properly
for (d) He could not lead an active life
(a) communicating with one another 40. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(b) communicating with animals in general The paralytic stroke helped the author
(c) some practical purpose (a) to face challenges in life successfully
(d) fun
(b) to realize his latent talent
PASSAGE-9 (c) to learn a new hobby
Perhaps the best political epigram of recent years is the saying (d) to earn more money
that this is the century of the common man. The coming of
this century can be seen far back in the extension of the PASSAGE-11
suffrage and later in the development of social legislation. Wesward Ho!” we shouted as the sail of our crudely
For many years all men have been equal before the law, constructed raft, the Kon-Tiki caught the sind. The sail
every adult man and woman has the vote. We are slowly quickly filled and the Kon-Tiki began to move. The six of us
creating economic democracy, that is, such a measure of were off to our great adventure.
economic freedom that poverty prevents no one from taking As night fell, the troughs of the sea grew gradually deeper
his part in public affairs or enjoying the facilities, educational and our first duel with the elements began. Each time we
and other which the state provides for all. It might seem that heard the sudden deafening hiss of a roller close by and
when this is achieved our work is done. In facts, it is only saw a white crest come towards us out of the darkness, we
the beginning. [2007-II] held on tight and waited for the worst. But invariably the
35. What does the term ‘epigram’ mean? Kon-Tiki calmly swung up her stern and rose skyward
(a) A flattering remark unperturbed. [2008-I]
(b) An unsuitable remark 41. What does the word ‘duel’ in the passage mean?
(c) A caustic remark (a) A battle (b) A fortification
(d) A short and precise remark (c) A two-side contes (d) Divided in two
EBD_7348
42. Which one of the following is correct? When big waves PASSAGE-13
struck the raft the six people in it We have built up an energy intensive society such that hundreds
(a) started crying of daily acts are dependent on having energy at our ready command.
(b) showed courage and patience Most of that energy comes from fossil fuels. Yet, within two
(c) acted in a rash manner centuries we will have used up nearly all of the fossil fuel that has
(d) showed passiveness been built up over millions of years of earth time. Furthermore, the
43. How was the Kon-Tiki’s performance on the high seas? extraction and consumption of fossil fuels is a major polluter of
(a) Very shaky our environment. Our appetite for energy is seemingly insatiable.
(b) Extremely poor We are now searching for it in different places and using methods
(c) Stable and resolute that inevitably upset and pollute the environment. Since fossil
(d) Unpredicatable energy will soon be gone we are searching for alternative sources.
[2008-II]
PASSAGE-12
48. Today we are dependent on energy for everything. What is
It was Sunday. As usual, there was a great rush of merry the most likely factor that contributes to this situation?
makers who had come to the river to swim or to bathe. Those (a) Sufficient quantity of energy is available at present
who knew how to swim were jumping into the water from the (b) We have developed a society which makes intensive
high bridge or the banks of the deep river. Mohan did not use of energy
know how to swim so he was merely watching others who (c) Energy is most convenient and easy to use
were enjoying the fun of swimming. However on the (d) We have no alternatives
insistence of his friend Swarn, he sat on his shoulders and 49. The author seems to disapprove further extraction and
both jumped into the water. Unable to carry Mohan along, consumption of fossil fuels. Which of the following is the
Swarn left him in the flowing water. Mohan shouted for help. most likely reason for that?
There were so many swimmers but nobody came to his rescue (a) Further extraction of fossil fuel is a costly affair
since they were indifferent to the plight of a stranger. I has (b) Further extraction and consumption of fossil fuel may
just reached there, so I was in my full dress. Without lead to conflict between countries
undressing I jumped into the river and swam up to the (c) We do not have the technical know-how for further
drowning boy. Holding his left arm, I brought him out of extraction of fossil fuels
water in a way that he might not hinder me from swimming (d) Further extraction and consumption of fossil fuels will
safely. The boy was saved which won me great applause lead to worldwide environmental pollution.
from the people. I had jumped into the water without any 50. According to the author, we are searching for alternative
fear or hesitation as I knew the art of saving drowning sources of energy. What is the most likely reason for this?
persons. I has already saved a few lives from drowing. (a) Alternative sources of energy are cheaper
[2008-I] (b) It is feared that fossil energy will soon be exhausted
44. Why did Swarn jump into the water carrying Mohan on his (c) A number of alternative energy sources are easily
shoulders ? available
(a) Mohan had insisted to swim (d) Alternative sources of energy will not cause any
(b) He wanted to enjoy the fun of seeing a drowning man environmental problems
(c) He simply wanted to drown him in the river PASSAGE-14
(d) Swarn felt that his friend should also enjoy the fun of
Books are by far, the most lasting product of human effort. Temples
swimming in the river
crumble into ruins, pictures and statues decay, but books survive.
45. Why did Swarn leave his friend Mohan in the waters?
Time does not destroy the great thoughts which are as fresh today
(a) Mohan wanted to learn how to swim
as when they first passed through their author's minds ages ago.
(b) He wanted Mohan to learn how to swim
The only effect of time has been to throw out of currency the bad
(c) Because he has sure that Mohan would be able to swim
products, for nothing in literature can long survive but what is
across the river really good and of lasting value. Books introduce us into the best
(d) Because he found it difficult to in the river with his society; they bring us into the presence of the greatest minds that
friend on his shoulders. have ever lived, we hear what they said and did; we see them as if
46. Although ther were many swimmers, why did nobody come they were really alive, we sympathise with them, enjoy with them
forward to save the drowning boy ? and grieve with them. [2008-II]
(a) They wanted some financial reward 51. According to the passage, books live for ever because-
(b) They did not know the art of saving a drowning person (a) they have productive value
(c) They were not experts in the art of swimming (b) time does not destroy great thoughts
(d) The river was very deep and they did not want to take (c) they are in printed form
a risk for a stranger (d) they have the power to influence people
47. Why did the writer jump into the river without any fear or 52. According to the passage, temples, pictures and statues
hesitation? belong to the same category because-
(a) He was acquainted with Mohan (a) all of them are beautiful
(b) He could not bear the sight of a drowning person (b) all of them are substantial
(c) He knew how to save a drowning person (c) all of them are likely to decay
(d) He was called by the people present there (d) all of them are fashioned by men
Comprehension E-101
53. "Lasting value" in the passage means- grown into a miser. By the age of forty he has a substantial bank
(a) something which has survived the passage of time account. But he persuades himself that he is so poor that he never
(b) something which has been lost with the passage of goes to the theatre, never invites a friend to dinner. But sixty he is
time a rich man and is convinced that he is all but a pauper.
(c) something which has relevance for the present [2009-I]
(d) something which had relevance for the past 59. Some people enjoy saving money because
PASSAGE-15 (a) they are able to live a happy life
The pre-historic man preferred this area as three of his primary (b) saving is a passion with them
needs-water, raw material for tool making and game in the thick (c) they are able to enjoy the pleasures of life
jungles, were available here in plenty. Mr. Sharma found sites on (d) they can entertain others
top of hills where huge boulders have been cut flat. These flat 60. If a money-box is given to a child, what should accompany
rocks were found in the round formation. Probably they sat on it?
these and there was a fire in the middle. It was also a site where the (a) Tips on the advantages of saving money
tools were made. It was like a national pastime. They made tools to (b) Guidelines to preserve it
throw at animals. There was little chance of killing them with one (c) Instructions on when and how to open it
tool. Mr. Sharma says there are strong chances of finding fossils (d) A box of tools to open it
in the area. [2008-II] 61. A miserly man of forty does not go to the theatre because
54. Mr. Sharma is most probably working as- (a) he has no liking for plays
(a) a Civil Engineer (b) a Geographer (b) he does not want to waste his valuable time
(c) an Archaeologist (d) a Tourist officer (c) he persuades himself that he is very poor
55. "There was little chance of killing them with one tool" implies (d) he is frightened by the darkness of the theatre hall
that-
PASSAGE-18
(a) the animals were too clever
(b) the men did not know how to hunt In the fete, for a ticket costing eight annas you stood a chance of
(c) the tools were not sophisticated enough acquiring a variety of articles-pin-cushions, sewing machines,
(d) the hunters wanted to use more than one tool cameras or even a road engine. One evening they drew ticket
56. Which of the following does not describe the activities of number 1005, and I happened to own the other half of the ticket.
the man as mentioned in the passage? They declared that I became the owner of a road engine! Don’t
(a) Hunting animals (b) Lighting fires ask me how a road engine came to be included among the prizes.
(c) Cutting stones (d) Cultivating land It is more than I can tell you. I looked stunned. People gathered
round and gazed at me as if were some curious animal. ‘Fancy
PASSAGE-16 anyone becoming the owner of a road engine!’ some persons
A whole generation of Indians gave up everything and spent muttered and giggled. [2009-I]
their lives in fighting in British in Gandhi’s way without hurting, 62. The writer purchased a ticket
without violence, without hatred. The hope that India would one (a) to win a prize
day be free kept them going through very difficult times and gave (b) to enter the fete
them courage. When millions of people want the same thing very (c) to buy some eatables in the fete
much, it is a great force which even the most powerful army cannot (d) to play some games
oppose. [2008-II] 63. ‘they’ in the paragraph stands for
57. The demand for freedom became a 'great force'. What is the (a) the writer’s friends
most likely reason for it? (b) the organisers of the fete
(a) Great leaders gave the call for freedom (c) the stall owners in the fete
(b) Millions of people wanted to get freedom (d) the onlookers
(c) The British rule did not permit any freedom 64. The writer was stunned because
(d) Freedom is a noble ideal (a) he did not win a prize
58. Which is the 'most powerful army' referred to in the passage? (b) he was at a loss as to what to do with the prize
(a) The powerful army of the Government of India (c) people giggled
(b) The powerful army of the British (d) the fete organisers were rude to him
(c) Any powerful army fighting against the wishes of
PASSAGE-19
millions of people
(d) The army formed by the freedom fighters A holiday in Uttarakhand is about supporting the economy
PASSAGE-17 and ecology of this fledgling state with your heart, mind and
There are eccentric people who enjoy saving money for no muscle. Being at the camp with your family is a great bonding
other reason than the pleasure of saving money. It is a passion experience combined with a grand taste of wild life and adventure.
like drinking, and a hobby like collecting of china. Does it usually First comes the walk from the lakeside to the camp. It’s one of the
begin with a money-box? Imagine a painter drawing the Miser’s best indicators here to ‘figure’ out how in or out of shape you are.
Progress in a number of scenes, with the first scene showing a Anything upwards of 15 minutes means it is time to start taking
benevolent grandfather holding out a harmless looking tin money- your body and fitness levels more seriously. To cool off there is
box to an infant scarcely able to walk. The gift should always be always the lake where you can swim or learn how to kayak.
accompanied by a box of tools. As a young man the infant has [2009-I]
EBD_7348
65. The word which is used with a double meaning is does not play an essential part. Water is, of course, necessary for
(a) figure (b) fitness animal life, while moisture in the soil is equally imperative for the
(c) shape (d) indicators life and growth of plants and trees, though the quantity necessarily
66. ‘It’ in the second paragraph refers to varies enormously with the species. The conservation and
(a) camp (b) lake utilization of water is thus fundamental to human life. Apart from
(c) holiday (d) walk artesian water, the ultimate source in all cases is rain or snowfall.
67. If you take about twenty minutes to walk from the lakeside [2009-II]
to the camp it means that you 72. Water is the basis of life, because
(a) are not healthy enough (a) it is seen everywhere on the earth
(b) walk too slowly (b) it is obtained from the sea and rain
(c) need practice in walking (c) it helps living things to exist
(d) must get used to the exercise (d) it is necessary for the birth and growth of all living
things
PASSAGE-20 73. No kind of physiological activity is possible without water,
No doubt, the ‘green revolution’ has led to self-sufficiency in because
food production but it has also brought with it the formidable (a) water is a fluid
problem of poisoning of food grains and other eatables. This is (b) water plays very important role in it
caused by excessive use of chemicals on crops and pesticide (c) water flows easily
residues. It has also created havoc by exterminating the species (d) water does not play any role at all
of useful parasites and viruses which keep pests under control. 74. The passage is on
Scientists are now worried about the resurgence of such formidable (a) the use of water in day-to-day life
pests in menacing proportions which seem to undermine all that (b) the use of water in agriculture
they have achieved in agricultural production. [2009-II] (c) the use of wastewater
68. From the reading of the passage, which one of these (d) the importance of water in human life
statements do you think is correct? PASSAGE-22
(a) The ‘green revolution’ has solved all problems in
agriculture The importance of early detection of tuberculosis (TB), regular
(b) Application of chemical has resulted in everlasting treatment and nutritious food are just not known widely enough.
preservation of grains Often TB victims discontinue the treatment when the symptoms
(c) The ‘green revolution’ is a mixed blessing disappear, without waiting for a complete, cure; the next attack is
(d) Scientists are satisfied with achievements in agricultural more virulent from bacteria which have thus become drug-resistant.
production Anti- TB drugs are produced in India. The capability to meet the
69. The statement that “the green revolution has also created country’s requirements of anti- TB drugs in full already exists. Yet
havoc by exterminating the species of useful parasites millions of Indians suffer from TB and thousands of them die
and viruses” means every year. Voluntary organizations and government agencies
(a) all parasites and viruses keep pests under control are doing commendable work. But we have so far tackled only the
(b) Pesticides and chemicals kill parasites and viruses, fringe of the problem. What is now needed is a nation-wide
which control pests determination to fight TB. India eradicated smallpox with a national
(c) the pests are controlled by parasites campaign. We can eradicate TB too. [2009-II]
(d) application of chemicals to grains has created havoc 75. Treatment is discontinued by TB victims, when
70. Which one of the following statements best reflects the (a) they think that the disease is completely cured
underlying implication of the passage? (b) the apparent signs of TB are no longer visible to them
(a) Man’s effort to control nature to his advantage has (c) they run out of resources like money or medicine
always created unseen dangers side by side (d) they are attacked by drug-resistant bacteria
(b) Research in one area leads to a challenge for further 76. Millions of Indians suffer from TB, because
research in the same field (a) people discontinue the treatment too soon or do not
(c) At present, research in preservation of agricultural start the treatment early enough
production is at the cross-roads (b) India does not produce anti-TB drugs of the required
(d) The excessive use of chemicals and pesticides is quality
dangerous (c) anti-TB drugs are not available at a reasonable price
71. Which one of these phrases best helps to bring out the (d) people do not have nutritious food
precise meaning of ‘menacing proportions? 77. When the treatment of TB is discontinued too early
(a) To and extent which becomes threatening (a) the old symptoms reappear
(b) Assuming dimension that cause concern (b) the patient gradually gets better, although slowly
(c) Unimagined dangerous proportion (c) the disease appears in a new, more dangerous form
(d) Harmful size (d) the patient must get good, nutritious food
78. ‘The fringe of the problem’ means
PASSAGE-21 (a) the basic cause of the problem
Water is the basis of life. Every animal and every plant contains a (b) the root of the problem
substantial proportion of free or combined water in its body, and (c) the side effects of the drugs
no kind of physiological activity is possible in which this fluid (d) the edge of the problem, not the main point
Comprehension E-103
79. Who or what become ‘drug-resistant’, according to the 85. Old age is generally a depressing period because
passage? (a) old people worry more than others
(a) TB patients who are treated for a long time (b) old people tend to regret their past
(b) People who do not want to take medicine for their illness (c) various organs of the body function less efficiently
(c) TB bacteria that have not been fully eradicated (d) old people do very little work
(d) Patients who have discontinued the treatment 86. The strength of bones can be increased by exercise, because
it
PASSAGE-23 (a) increases the amount of blood pumped by the heart
When we talk of education in our present age, we think largely in (b) increases calcium content in bones
terms of schools and colleges. The man who is well-to-do spends (c) increases the amount of air exhaled by a person
money in sending his son to foreign lands, in the belief that some (d) lessens the stiffness of the chest wall
wonderful process will take place there transforming a dull fellow 87. The word ‘exhale’ means
into a genius. Yet the products of expensive schools and (a) breathe in (b) breathe out
universities often fail to make good. On the other hand, the poor (c) breathe slowly (d) breathe fast
man who has struggled against adversity often earns the highest 88. ‘Which one of the following statements is correct?
honour. The fact is that the true background of early education is (a) Exercise delays natural decay of old age
the home. The home, the influence of the mother, the inspiring (b) Old age problems increase due to exercise
examples that are held before the child at an age while he is (c) Exercise increases the heart-beat which is dangerous
impressionable, are the true groundwork of character. (d) Exercise creates stress which is harmful to bones
[2010-I] 89. The chest wall becomes stiff in old age, because
80. According to the passage, who helps in our character- (a) the heart’s ability to pump blood to it drops about one
building? per cent
(a) A foreign university (b) the blood flow to various organs decreases
(b) A well-to-do man (c) the resting heart-rate becomes high
(c) Examples that inspire (d) the person’s ability to exhale sufficient air lessens
(d) A man who has earned honour PASSAGE-25
81. The proper background of early education is
(a) a school (b) a college An old man with steel-rimmed spectacles and very dusty clothes
(c) a religious institution (d) the home sat by the side of the road. There was a pontoon bridge across the
82. From the passage, we get an impression that the highest river and carts, trucks, and men, women and children were crossing
honour is earned by it. The mule-drawn carts staggered up the steep bank from the
(a) a man who has received education in a foreign country bridge with soldiers helping to push against the spokes of the
(b) a man who has struggled against adversity wheels. The trucks wound up and away heading out of it all. The
(c) a man who has seen prosperity alone peasants plodded along in the ankle-deep dust. But the old man
(d) the son of a prosperous man sat there without moving. [2010-II]
83. A well-to-do man sends his son to foreign lands 90. The term "pontoon bridge" means
(a) because it is the fashion of the day (a) a temporary bridge constructed with the help of ropes
(b) in the belief that his dull son will be transformed into a (b) a bridge made by soldiers during a war
genius (c) a bridge supported by floating flat bottomed boats
(c) so that the son may learn the customs of those countries (d) a bridge made with wooden planks
(d) in order to make his son familiar with the persons and 91. The soldiers were "helping to push against the spokes of
places of those countries the wheels" because
84. The expression “the products of expensive schools and (a) they wanted to stop the carts
universities often fail to make good” means (b) the spokes of the wheels were broken
(a) they fail to make a mark in life (c) the mules refused to draw the carts
(b) they fail to become intelligent
(d) there was a steep elevation
(c) they fail to earn proper living
92. The mule-drawn carts staggered up because
(d) they do not earn good reputation
(a) there were too many mule-carts
PASSAGE-24 (b) the mules were indisciplined
The functional declines of advancing age are depressing. The (c) it was a steep uphill journey
heart’s ablity to pump blood drops about one per cent: blood flow (d) the carts were blocked by the peasants
to arms and legs decreases by thirty to forty per cent in old age. 93. The reference to the old man in the beginning and the end of
The amount of air a person can exhale after a deep breath lessens the passage indicates that
and the chest wall stiffens with age. However, recent studies have (a) the writer wants to compare between the bridge and
shown that most of these age-associated declines can be delayed motionless old man
by exercise. Exercise lowers the resting heart-rate and increases (b) the description that takes place between the first
the amount of blood pumped with each beat in older people. When sentence and the last sentence is irrelevant
stress is placed on bones through exercise, calcium content rises, (c) there is an unnecessary repetition in the reference to
with the result that resistance to fracture is improved. the old man
[2010-I] (d) the figure of the old man is brought under a sharp focus
EBD_7348
PASSAGE-26 101. There were not many people outside because
When vegetation sprouts in the desert, it is a good sign but when (a) it was a rainy evening
the ice in the Arctic and Antarctic begins to turn green, there is (b) it was a cold evening
something terribly wrong. Reports say that an iceberg, (c) it was a dark evening
approximately the size of New York city, has broken off from the (d) there was heavy snow outside
icy continent. An Argentine team discovered huge cracks in the
polar ice caps. These developments can have serious implications. PASSAGE-28
If polar ice fields melt, our coastal cities might be submerged, and Gandhi was not born great. He was a blundering boy, a mediocre
sea levels across the world could rise between 3.65 and 6.09 metre student, a poor lawyer, 'an ordinary individual until he remade
in different parts of the earth. This is probably due to global himself. He was a self-remade man. He had faith in himself, But
warming. [2010-II] above all, he had a deep, touching faith in the peasants, miners,
94. What can be considered as a "good sign" in the desert? labourers and young unformed men and women whom he drew
(a) When shrubs and trees grow there into his work. He fed them all an elixir of growth which often
(b) When it snows in the desert· transformed nameless, uneducated people into leonine heroes.
(c) When ice caps melt and there is water The elixir was fearlessness. [2011-I]
(d) When there is vegetation found in the desert 102. Consider the following assumptions.
95. The melting of ice fields in the Arctic and Antarctic regions 1. Gandhi was a great man throughout his life.
is dangerous because 2. Men are not born great, but they are made great by self
(a) the ice will turn green and poisonous effort.
(b) it will cause huge floods which will destroy coastal 3. Gandhi liked the ordinary people and neglected the
regions rich?
(c) it will create global warming and will badly affect our 4. Gandhi transformed the ordinary masses into great
climate heroes.
(d) huge cracks will develop all over the world Which of the above assumptions can be drawn from the
96. Polar ice caps develop huge cracks because above passage?
(a) of the movement of the earth (a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(b) of the breaking off of icebergs
(c) 3 and 4 (d) None of these
(c) of the crowding of cities like New York
103. Gandhi transformed the uneducated people by teaching them
(d) of rising temperatures
97. What do you think the intention of the author is ?
(a) work-mindedness (b) self confidence
(a) To describe strange phenomena in nature
(b) To report findings of research teams working in the (c) fearlessness (d) heroism
polar regions 104. Gandhi's attitude to the labour class was one of
(c) To make us aware of the dangers of global warming (a) generosity (b) pity
(d) To compare developments in deserts and Arctic regions (c) compassion (d) fearlessness
caused by global warming 105. The word ‘leonine’ in the passage means
(a) lean (b) courageous
PASSAGE-27 (c) timid (d) learning
It was a very cold evening and so few people were seen out on the PASSAGE-29
streets. I did not go out myself although it was my habit not to
keep indoors after sunset. So I closed all the doors and windows The dog fence in Australia has been erected to keep out hostile
of my room, took the book which had been lying opened on the invaders, in this case hordes of yellow dogs called dingoes. The
table, and tried to read it. The cold was getting so severe that I empire it preserves is that of wool growers. Yet the fence casts a
started shivering, so I wrapped myself up with a bigger blanket. much broader ecological shadow. For the early explorers, a
But I could continue reading the book because I was nearly kangaroo or a wallaby sighting marked a noteworthy event. Now
rendered incapable of turning the pages. [2010-II] try not to see one. Without a native predator there is no check on
98. The author's habit was to the marsupial population. The kangaroos are now cursed more
(a) read in the evening (b) sleep in the evening than the dingoes. They have become rivals of sheep, competing
(c) go out in the evening (d) play in the evening for water and grass. The State Governments now cull more than
99. If it was not so cold the author would have three million kangaroos a year to keep Australia's natural symbol
(a) liked to work from over running the pastoral lands. [2011-I]
(b) liked to sit and look out to the streets 106. The ‘fence’ is meant to keep the
(c) liked to read (a) kangaroo in and the dingo out
(d) liked to have a stroll (b) kangaroo in and the sheep out
100. Th e author could not continue reading the book (c) sheep in and the kangaroo out
because (d) sheep in and the dingo out
(a) he did not like to 107. Australia’s national symbol is
(b) he, was feeling tired (a) kangaroo (b) wallaby
(c) he was feeling very cold (c) sheep (d) dingo
(d) the lights had gone off
Comprehension E-105
108. What has led to the unchecked growth of the marsupial PASSAGE-32
population ? One day my brother brought home a new song-bird. It was the
(a) The building of fences smallest of them all, a tiny creature of a blue and a red that. sparkled
(b) The absence of native predator when brushed by the sun. But there was a problem: while the
(c) The culling of kangaroos others sang, this new bird remained silent. My brother tried coaxing
(d) The availability of water and grass music out of him, in vain. He tried attacking with a stick, but the
109. The marsupial population is up in Australia because bird was unmoved. My brother first tried withholding food, but
(a) both wallaby and kangaroo count as marsupials later when the incentive was offered the bird ignored it, and twice
(b) the kangaroo consumes the water and grass of the he knocked over his dish, scattering the seed. [2011-II]
sheep 116. One day the writer’s brother brought home a bird
(c) the dingo cannot get at the kangaroo (a) which never ate food
(d) the kangaroos are fenced out (b) which flew so high it seemed to touch the sun
PASSAGE-30 (c) whose colours shone brightly in the sunlight
Not all nocturnal animals have good eyesight. Many of them (d) which was the largest of all the birds in his collection
concentrate on the other senses for finding their way about and 117. At first his brother tried to get the bird to sing by
for finding food. The sense of touch is very developed in many (a) tempting with food
nocturnal animals, whether they have good eyes or not. The large (b) placing it in the company of the other birds while they
hairs or whiskers on the faces of cats and mice are sense organs sang
and the animals react rapidly if these whiskers are touched. The (c) singing to the bird himself
sense of smell is also very important for nocturnal animals such as (d) with holding food
hedgehogs and field mice. The moist night air holds scent much 118. What does the word “coaxing” mean?
better than dry air does. [2011-I] (a) to behave rudely (b) to use violent means
110. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (c) to gently persuade. (d) to beg repeatedly
(a) All nocturnal animals are blind PASSAGE-33
(b) Many nocturnal animals do not have good eyesight Even in the most primitive societies, the great majority of people
(c) Most nocturnal animals can not see any thing in the
satisfy a large part of their material needs by exchanging goods
dark
and services. Very few people indeed can make for themselves
(d) No nocturnal animals has good eyesight
everything they need—all their food, their clothes, their housing,
111. The cat's whiskers are organs associated with the sense of
their tools. Ever since men started living in communities, they
(a) taste (b) touch
(c) hearing (d) smell have been satisfying their needs by means of specialization and
exchange; increasingly each individual has concentrated on what
PASSAGE-31 he can do best, and has produced more of the special goods or
Elephants spray water over their ears to stay cool. The rhythm of services in which he has concentrated, than he can consume
an elephant’s day is set largely by its watering routine. An adult himself. The surplus he has exchanged with other members of the
needs about thirty gallons of water a day. When water is abundant community, acquiring, in exchange the things he needs that others
there is no problem. But during droughts, elephants resort to an have produced. [2012-I]
intriguing. technique: digging wells. In a dried- up river bed they 119. According to the passage, the great majority of people can
scoop out holes with their forefeet until they reach water. After satisfy their needs today by
waiting patiently for the sand to settle, they drink in order of
(a) providing things for themselves
seniority, calves last. [2011-II]
(b) exchanging goods and services
112. According to the passage, water is
(a) quite important for the elephant (c) concentrating on what they can do best
(b) vital for the elephant’s survival (d) individual specialization
(c) occasionally useful for the elephant 120. Exchange of goods becomes possible only when
(d) often a problem for the elephant (a) there is no specialization
113. According to the passage, elephants spray water over (b) goods are produced in surplus
themselves (c) primitive societies become modern
(a) to have fun (b) to ward off the heat (d) individuals make things for themselves
(c) to cool their heels (d) to quench their thirst 121. Specialization and exchange began when men started
114. During droughts, elephants (a) big industries
(a) burrow in the sand to avoid heat (b) concentrating on their work
(b) find water in rivers (c) producing things for individual use
(c) dig holes in the river bed to reach the water (d) living in communities
(d) find new water holes 122. Exchange of goods and services becomes necessary because
115. When the elephants find water (a) man is a social being
(a) the baby elephants drink first (b) reciprocity is the law of life
(b) the oldest adult drinks first (c) trade and commerce are means of progress
(c) the largest elephant drinks first
(d) we cannot produce everything we need ourselves
(d) the youngest adult drinks first
EBD_7348
PASSAGE-34 (d) in Mrs. West's house where a theft has taken place the
What interests many people is the possibility of finding an Earth- night before
like planet, and many science fiction stories have been woven 127. The questions the Inspector asks are
around the possibility of there existing a planet somewhere in the (a) inquisitive (b) foolish
universe which is an exact replica of the Earth. There are too many (c) disturbing (d) searching
variable quantities for this to be a possibility worth considering. 128. “You see, they hated each other.” “What do you mean?”
What is possible, if planetary systems are common as they seem The Inspector seems
to be, is the existence of planets where the conditions are similar (a) to know Doctor West’s secret
to conditions on the Earth and to which our form of life could (b) surprised to get the information
rapidly adapt. If life had gained a foothold on such a planet, it is (c) not to have understood Miss Smith
possible that life closely paralleling our own planet could have (d) not impressed by Miss Smith’s information
developed. PASSAGE-36
What sort of conditions is necessary for life as we know it to There was a farewell ceremony on her last day at school, to
develop? First of all of course a suitable planetary body is essential. which my parents and I were invited. It was a touching
Given this, then two vital conditions must be satisfied. The ceremony in a solemn kind of way. The City Corporation
temperature must be neither too hot nor too cold, since intense sent a representative and so did the two main political parties.
heat breaks down organic molecules and severe cold prevents There were many speeches and my grandmother was
activity from going on. Too much short-wave radiation also upsets garlanded by a girl from every class. Then the head-girl, a
living organisms. The other prerequisite is a suitable atmosphere particular favourite of hers, unveiled the farewell present
sufficiently dense to give protection from radiation and meteorites the girls had bought for her by subscription. It was a large
and containing oxygen and water vapour in reasonable quantities. marble model of the Taj Mahal; it had a bulb inside and
[2012-I] could be lit up like a table lamp. My grandmother made a
123. This passage suggests that there speech too, but she couldn't finish it properly, for she began
(a) cannot be another planet like the Earth to cry before she got to the end of it and to stop to wipe
(b) are other planets like the Earth mentioned only in stories away her tears. I turned away when she began dabbing at
(c) may be other planets like the Earth in this universe her eyes with a huge green handkerchief, and discovered, to
(d) is a planet which is exactly like the Earth my surprise, that many of the girls sitting around me were
124. The hypothesis about the possibility of planets parallel to wiping their eyes too. I was very jealous, I remember. I had
the Earth gets its strength from the fact that always taken it for granted that it was my own special right
(a) the scientists have discovered them to love her; I did not know how to cope with the discovery
(b) books have been written about them that my right had been infringed by a whole school.
(c) the planetary system exists [2012-II]
(d) many people have shown interest in it 129. The farewell ceremony described in the passage is for the
125. The statement, “If life had gained a foothold on such a (a) author's mother used to teach at his/her school
planet” means that (b) mother of head-girl teaching at her school
(a) if there is life on the planet, it would be like ours (c) grandmother of head-girl no longer teaching at her
(b) if we go there, we can develop it like this Earth school
(c) even if we try, we cannot go and live there (d) grandmother of the author who used to teach at his/
(d) it is impossible for life to develop there her school
130. The farewell ceremony made everyone feel
PASSAGE-35
“The doctor’s coming in a minute, Inspector”, said Miss Smith. (a) sad (b) unhappy
“Yes, thank you for phoning, Miss Smith. It was very kind of you (c) happy (d) bad
..... the lady's name is Mrs. West, you say, .....” 131. Before the writer attended the ceremony he/she had thought
“Yes, that's right.” (a) he/she was the only child who loved his/her
“And what about Mr. West?” grandmother
“Doctor West, Inspector.” (b) all the girls in the school loved his/her grandmother
“Oh, I see ..... Well, Doctor West, then. Do you know where he (c) only a few girls in the school loved his/her grandmother
is?” (d) only his/her parents loved his/her grandmother
“Not exactly, Inspector. He never told Mrs. West where he was PASSAGE-37
going. You see, they hated each other.” It is no doubt true that we cannot go through life without
“What do you mean?” sorrow. There can be no sunshine without shadow, we must
“Well, Doctor West thought that Mrs. West was in love with not complain that roses have thorns but rather be grateful
another man, and everyone knows Doctor West went to see that thorns bear flowers. Our existence here is so complex
another woman.” [2012-I] that we must expect much sorrow and suffering. Yet it is
126. The conversation appears to be taking place certain that no man was ever discontented with the world
(a) in a street where an accident has just occurred who did his duty in it. The world is like a looking glass; if
(b) in a hotel where Mrs. West suddenly became ill you smile, it smiles; if you frown, it frowns back. Always try,
(c) in Mrs. West's house where the police are enquiring then, to look at the bright side of things. There are some
into lady's murder persons whose very presence seems like a ray of sunshine
Comprehension E-107
and brightens the whole room. Life has been described as a (a) Indian (b) Greek
comedy to those who think and a tragedy to those who feel. (c) Chinese (d) Roman
[2012-II] 139. The expression “India, on the other hand was blessed by a
132. The author says that we cannot go through life without bounteous nature _________________ means
sorrow because (a) Indian soil is fertile
(a) it is our fate (b) India is a land of flora and fauna
(b) we are always discontented (c) Indian people have been rewarded more generously
(c) life is a tragedy by nature in proportion to their efforts
(d) human life is very complex (d) Indian soil is suited for growing a variety of crops
133. According to the author no man can be discontented with 140. Which trait of Indian character has been formed by the
the world if he monsoon?
(a) is determined to be happy (a) Fatalism (b) Sturdiness
(b) is sincere in discharging his duties (c) Asceticism (d) Epicureanism
(c) has a healthy attitude to life DIRECTIONS (Qs. 141-143): Read the following short passage.
(d) likes sunshine After each passage, you will find several questions based on
134. The expression “life is a tragedy to those who feel” means what is stated or implied in the passages. Answer the questions
that it is a tragedy to those who that follow each passage.
(a) think about the world [2014-I]
(b) believe in fate PASSAGE - 39
(c) do not understand the world In a free country, the man who reaches the position of leader is
(d) are sensitive and emotional usually one of the outstanding character and ability. Moreover, it
135. The author says, “There are some persons whose very is usually possible to foresee that he will reach such a position,
presence seems like a ray of sunshine and brightens the since early in life one can see his qualities of character. But this is
whole room”. The reason for this is that they not always true in the case of a dictator; often he reaches his
(a) have the capacity to love position of power through chance, very often through the
(b) talk more of roses and less of thorns unhappy state of his country. It is possible that Hitler would
(c) are happy and spread happiness never have become the leader of Germany if that country had not
(d) look good and behave well been driven to despair. [2014-I]
136. What is the author's message in this passage ? 141. In a free country, one who becomes a leader
(a) Look at the bright side of things (a) must be of outstanding character and ability
(b) Our existence is so complex (b) must show qualities of character from an early age
(c) The world is a looking glass (c) is generally of a remarkable character and ability
(d) Expect much sorrow and suffering (d) must see that his country is free from despair
142. Hitler became a leader because
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 137-140): Read the passage and answer the (a) he exhibited leadership qualities
questions that follow: (b) Germany was a free country
PASSAGE-38 (c) Germany was in despair
It has often been said that the scale of natural phenomenon in (d) Germans wanted a dictator
India and her total dependence on the monsoon, have helped to 143. The passage seems to suggest that
form the character of her people. Even today, major disasters, (a) despair sometimes leads to dictatorship
such as flood, famine and plaque, are hard to check, and in older (b) Hitler was no leader
times, their control was almost impossible. Many other ancient (c) a leader is chosen only by a free country
civilizations, such as those of the Greeks, Romans and Chinese, (d) a leader foresees his future position
had to contend with hard winters which encouraged sturdiness PASSAGE - 40
and resourcefulness. India, on the other hand, was blessed by a
The dog is a very intelligent animal and it can be trained for many
bounteous nature, who demanded little of man in return for
sustenance, but in her terrible anger could not be appeased by duties. Some dogs work with the police and the army as sentries
any human effort. Hence it has been suggested, the Indian and trackers, and there are medals that are awarded to dogs for
character has tended to quietism, accepting fortune and bravery in action. Other dogs act as seeing-eyes for the blind,
misfortune alike without complaint. [2013-II] and some breeds are specially trained for rescue work among
137. The author’s main argument is mountains and snow. Jobs like herding sheep and cattle and
(a) description of natural phenomena of India guarding homes are also done by them. Whenever man lives and
(b) unpredictability of Indian monsoon
works in the Arctic Circle, in the desert, in the jungle, in the moors
(c) correlation between the climate and the character of
the inhabitants of a region or mountains, the dog is his faithful companion and help. A common
(d) hardships caused by natural calamities mongrel may possess these qualities just as much as the
138. Which one of the following civilizations did not have to face aristocratic bloodhound. [2014-I]
hardships due to bad winter?
EBD_7348
144. The passage tells us that dogs PASSAGE-42
(a) can be trained to do different kinds of work The rule of the road means that in order that the liberties of all
(b) are capable of difficult work may be preserved, the liberties of everybody must be curtailed.
When the policeman, say, at a road-crossing steps into the middle
(c) are of different types
of the road and puts out his hand, he is the symbol not of tyramy
(d) alone are a great help to man but of liberty. You have submitted to a curtailment of private
145. Medals are awarded to some dogs for liberty in order that you may enjoy a social order which makes
(a) their brave deeds your liberty a reality. We have both liberties to preseve — our
(b) working with the police individual liberty and our social liberty. That is, we must have a
(c) serving as sentries judicious mixture of both. I shall not permit any authority to say
(d) being able to perform difficult work that my child must go to this school or that, shall not permit any
146. The passage implies that authority to say that my child must go to this school or that, shall
(a) only dogs are faithful but not man specialize in science or arts. These things are personal. But if I
(b) man would have felt helpless without dogs say that my child shall have no education at all, then society will
firmly tell me that my child must have education whether I like it
(c) the dog has certain qualities that make it man’s or not.
trustworthy companion 151. According to the author, the “rule of the road” implies
(d) dogs can do almost anything (a) the role regulating the traffic on the road
147. The phrase ‘aristocratic bloodhound’ in the passage means (b) the principle on which a road is constructed to ensure
(a) the dog kept by wealthy people safe traffic
(c) unrestricted freedom for all to lead a happy life
(b) a pedigree dog (d) restricted individual freedom to ensure freedom for all
(c) a dog fond of blood 152. The author thinks that when a policeman signals you to
(d) any big dog stop on a road-crossing, he is
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 148-150) : In this section, you have two (a) behaving in a whimiscal manner
short passages. Read the passages and answer the items that (b) interfering with your freedom to use the road
follow. You are required to select your answers based on the (c) protecting the liberty of all to use the road
contents of the passage and opnion of the author only. (d) mischievously creating hurdles in your way from some
personal motive
[2017-I]
153. The author is of the view that we should
PASSAGE-41
(a) have absolute individual liberty without any restrictions
We had just passed Tenali, where I roused myself in
imposed by the society
order to hear the name of the station. As I was falling asleep
again, a violent jolt shot me into the arms of somebody in the seat (b) have everything controlled by the society without any
opposite. The engine with one wheel broken was lying across kind of individual liberty
the track and beside it was the luggage van, likewise, derailed. (c) try to strike a sensible balance between our individual
Groaning, wheezing, gasping, sputtering in its death agony, the liberty and our social liberty
engine was like a fallen horse which, snorting, trembling in every (d) have more of social liberty than individual liberty
limb, its flanks heaving, its chest labouring, seems incapable of 154. The author holds that
making the smallest effort to struggle on to its legs again. (a) educating or not educating his child is a matter of
148. The author had roused himself as he wanted to personal liberty
(a) get off (b) educating or not educating his child is also a matter of
(b) meet someone social liberty
(c) know the name of the station (c) choosing the school for his child is a matter of social
(d) keep himself awake liberty
149. The engine stopped because (d) choosing the subject of study for his child is a matter
(a) the driver had stopped it of social liberty
(b) one of the wheels ws broken 155. The most suitable title of the passage would be
(c) there was a halting place (a) The Policeman at a Road Crossing
(d) there was no fuel (b) The Laws of the Road
150. The engine is compared to a fallen horse because. (c) Importance of Liberty
(a) it was groaning like a horse (d) Education of Children
(b) it was lying across the track PASSAGE-43
(c) it could make no effort to stand upright My most interesting visitor comes at night, when the lights are
(d) it had a broken wheel still burning — a tiny bat who prefers to fly in through the open
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 151-155): In this section you have few short door, and will use the window only if there is no alternative. His
passage. After each passage, you will find some items based on object in entering the house is to snap up the moths that cluster
the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on around the lamps. All the bats I have seen fly fairly high, keeping
it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents near the ceiling; but this particular bat flies in low, like a dive-
of the passage and opinion of the author only. bomber, zooming in and out of chair legs and under tables. Once,
[2018-I] he passed straight between my legs. Has his radar gone wrong, I
Comprehension E-109
wondered, or is he just plain crazy? The brow of the conjuror was clouded with a gathering frown.
156. Consider the following statements: "I will now," he continued, "show you a most amusing trick by
1. The tiny bat flew in low like a dive-bomber. which I am enabled to take any number of eggs from a hat. Will
2. The tiny bat like all bats keeps near the cieling. some gentleman kindly lend me his hat? Ah, tank you- Presto!"
3. It has lost direction because its radar has gone wrong.
He extracted seventeen eggs, and for thirty-five seconds the
4. It wants to entertain the author with its skill in the
audience began to think that he was wonderful. Then the Quick
flying.
Man whispered along the front bench, "He-has-a-hen-up-his-
Which of the above statements may be assumed to be true
sleeve," and all the people whispered it on. "He-has-a-lot-of-hens-
from the information given in the passage?
up-his-sleeve."
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 The egg trick was ruined.
157. The bat entered the room It went on like that all through. It transpired from the whispers of
(a) because there was no alternative the Quick Man that the conjuror must have concealed up his
(b) to eat the moths round the lamps sleeve, in addition to the rings, hens, and fish, several packs of
(c) as it had gone mad cards, a loaf of bread, a doll's cradle, a live guinea pig, a fifty-cent
(d) as it preferred to fly in through the open door piece, and a rocking chair.
158. After comparing the habits of the tiny bat with those of 161. "The brow of the conjuror was clouded with a gathering
other bats, the author was frown." The sentence means that the conjuror
(a) sure that this bat had lost its direction
(a) was very pleased
(b) not sure of its preferences
(c) surprised to find that it was an expert flier (b) was very sad
(d) unable to give the correct explanation for its behaviour (c) was rather angry
159. The author calls the tiny bat an “interesting visitor”. This (d) was very afraid
means
162. "The egg trick was ruined." This means that
(a) the bat visits him at night
(b) the bat is interested in the moths (a) eggs were all broken
(c) this bat has peculiar qualities (b) people were unconvinced
(d) this bat surprises him by zooming in and out like a (c) conjuror was disappointed
dive-bomber
(d) the trick could not be performed
160. What, according to you, can be the most suitable title for
the passage? 163. According to the Quick Man, the conjuror
(a) Someone visits me (b) Night of Mysteries (a) had everything bought for production
(c) My Nocturnal Visitor (d) A Funny Visitor (b) produced things with the magic he knew
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 161-170): In this section, you have two short (c) had things in the large sleeves of his coat
passages. after each passage, you will find some items based on (d) created an illusion of things with his magic
the passage. First read a passage and answer the items based on
it and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. You 164. The author believes that the Quick Man was really
are required to select your answers based on the contents of the (a) foolish (b) clever
passage and opinion of the author only. (c) wrong (d) right
165. The conjuror extracted seventeen eggs from the hat of
[2018-II]
(a) the Quick Man
"Now, ladies and gentleman," said the conjuror, "having shown
you that the cloth is absolutely empty, I will proceed to take from (b) his own
it a bowl of goldfish. Presto!" (c) one gentleman from the audience
All around the hall people were saying, "Oh, how wonderful! (d) None of the above
How does he do it?" Magda :
But the Quick Man on the front seat said in a big whisper to the Good morning, Mrs. Smiles. It's wet, isn't it?
people near him, "He-had-it-up-his-sleeve." Mrs. Smiles :
Then the people nodded brightly at the Quick Man and said, "Oh Yes, it is, isn't it? How are you today? All right?
of course", and everybody whispered round the hall, He-had-it- You haven't been studying too hard have you?
up-his-sleeve."
You look a bit pale.
'My next trick," said the conjuror, "is the famous Hindostanee Magda :
rings, You will notice that the rings are apparently separate; at a
blow they all join (clang, clang, clang)-Presto!" I don't do I? Well, I haven't been out much lately. I don't
like this weather a bit. Why we haven't had a dry day for
There was a general buzz of stupefaction till the Quick Man was weeks, have we?
heard to whispper, "He-must-have-had-another-lot-up-his-sleeve."
Mrs. Smiles :
Again everybody nodded and whisperd, "The-rings-were-up-his-
No, I don't think we have, Let's see, you'll be going back
sleeve."
home next month won't you?
EBD_7348
Magda : one another’s languages and there was no aloofness amongst
Oh no, I'm not going back yet. My sister's coming over them. What do you think could have been the intention of those
first.
Mrs. Smiles : farseeing ancestors of ours who established Setubandha
Oh, is she? You're looking forward to that, I expect. How (Rameshwar) in the South, Jagannath in the East and Haridwar in
long is it since you saw her. the North as places of pilgrimage ? You will admit they were no
Magda : fools. They knew that worship of God could have been performed
Nearly a year now, Yes I am looking forward to it very just as well at home. They taught us that those whose hearts
much. were aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes.
Mrs. Smiles : But they saw that India was one undivided land so made by
nature. They, therefore, argued that it must be one nation. Arguing
She's coming over here to study?
thus, they established holy places in various parts of India, and
Magda :
fired the people with an idea of nationality in a manner unknown
Yes, that's right. I shan't go back home until she's settled
in other parts of the world. And we Indians are one as no two
down I don't think I ought to, ought I?
Englishmen are. Only you and I and others who consider ourselves
Mrs. Smiles :
civilized and superior persons imagine that we are many nations.
Well, no, she's younger than you are, is she?
It was after the advent of railways that we began to believe in
Magda : distinctions, and you are at liberty now to say that it is through
Yes, she's only eighteen. the railways that we are beginning to abolish those distinctions.
166. Magda had not been out much lately because An opium-eater may argue the advantage of opium-eating from
(a) she had not been keeping well the fact that he began to understand the evil of the opium habit
(b) she was busy with her studies after having eaten it. I would ask you to consider well what I had
(c) the weather had been unpleasant said on the railways.
(d) her sister had come over to stay 171. According to the author, India
167. Magda was not going back home yet because
(a) has never been one nation
(a) it had been raining heavily
(b) has been an aggregate of several nations
(b) her sister was coming over
(c) has always been one nation along with differences
(c) her studies were not completed
(d) she was not feeling well (d) became a nation after the British came
168. Mrs. Smiles says, "You're looking forward to that." This 172. Why did the great sages of India establish pilgrimages in
the different corners of the country ?
means, Magda was _______ her sister's arrival.
(a) expecting with pleasure (a) Because they wanted to push people to travel to
different places
(b) preparing hard for
(c) thinking greatly about (b) Because they could observe the underlying unity of
the country as made by nature
(d) watching with joy
169. Magda's sister was coming to (c) Because they themselves had travelled to these places
(a) visit her sister (d) Because they wanted people to be religious
everywhere
(b) help Mrs. Smiles
(c) settle down in England 173. In the passage, the author’s attitude towards the railways
is
(d) pursue her studies
170. Mrs. Smiles and Magda are (a) critical
(a) classmates (b) sympathetic
(b) school friends (c) indifferent
(c) neighbours (d) apathetic
(d) sisters-in-law 174. What does the author mean when he says that “whose
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 171-175) : In this section you have a hearts were aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in
passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on their own homes” ?
the passage. First, read the passage and answer the items based (a) One need not visit the Ganges to take holy bath
on it. You are required to select your answers based on the (b) The Ganges has been polluted, so one should bath at
home
contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
(c) One should take a holy dip in the Ganges to purity
[2019-I] one’s heart
PASSAGE-44 (d) The purity of heart is superior to observance of any
I do not wish to suggest that because we were one nation we had ritual
no differences, but it is submitted that our leading men travelled 175. The paragraph is written in a
throughout India either on foot or in bullock-carts. They learned (a) dialogic style (b) prescriptive style
(c) descriptive style (d) analytical style
Comprehension E-111
AN SWER KEY
1 (d) 19 (b) 37 (b) 55 (d ) 73 (b ) 91 (d) 109 (a) 127 (d) 145 (a) 163 (c)
2 (d) 20 (d) 38 (c) 56 (d ) 74 (d ) 92 (c) 110 (b) 128 (b) 146 (c) 164 (a)
3 (b) 21 (d) 39 (d) 57 (b ) 75 (b ) 93 (a) 111 (b) 129 (d) 147 (b) 165 (c)
4 (b) 22 (c) 40 (b) 58 (b ) 76 (a) 94 (d) 112 (a) 130 (a) 148 (c) 166 (c)
5 (d) 23 (a) 41 (a) 59 (b ) 77 (c) 95 (b) 113 (b) 131 (a) 149 (b) 167 (b)
6 (d) 24 (c) 42 (d) 60 (d ) 78 (d ) 96 (d) 114 (c) 132 (d) 150 (c) 168 (a)
7 (b) 25 (a) 43 (c) 61 (c) 79 (c) 97 (c) 115 (b) 133 (b) 151 (d) 169 (d)
8 (a) 26 (b) 44 (d) 62 (a) 80 (c) 98 (c) 116 (c) 134 (d) 152 (c) 170 (c)
9 (a) 27 (a) 45 (d) 63 (b ) 81 (d ) 99 (c) 117 (c) 135 (c) 153 (c) 171 (c)
10 (a) 28 (b) 46 (d) 64 (b ) 82 (b) 100 (c) 118 (c) 136 (a) 154 (b) 172 (b)
11 (a) 29 (a) 47 (c) 65 (a) 83 (b ) 101 (b) 119 (b) 137 (c) 155 (c) 173 (a)
12 (a) 30 (b) 48 (b) 66 (d ) 84 (a) 102 (a) 120 (b) 138 (a) 156 (a) 174 (d)
13 (d) 31 (c) 49 (d) 67 (a) 85 (c) 103 (c) 121 (d) 139 (c) 157 (b) 175 (c)
14 (d) 32 (a) 50 (b) 68 (c) 86 (b ) 104 (c) 122 (d) 140 (c) 158 (d)
15 (b) 33 (a) 51 (b) 69 (b ) 87 (b ) 105 (b) 123 (c) 141 (c) 159 (c)
16 (a) 34 (c) 52 (c) 70 (d) 88 (a) 106 (d) 124 (c) 142 (c) 160 (c)
17 (b) 35 (d) 53 (c) 71 (a) 89 (d ) 107 (a) 125 (a) 143 (a) 161 (c)
18 (c) 36 (c) 54 (c) 72 (d ) 90 (d ) 108 (b) 126 (c) 144 (a) 162 (b)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (d) Neither of the two statements are correct according to line of the passage 'India is among the youngest
the passage, therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. countries in the world. "If the youth of India are not
The clue regarding this lies in the following lines of the properly educated and if there are not enough jobs
passage – "There is a great pride in an Indian that created, India will have forever loss its opportunity.
easily integrates with a global economy, yet maintains 5. (d) Neither (1) nor (2) statement is correct according to the
a unique cultural identity". This line contradicts the passage, which is option (d), therefore, (d) is the correct
idea mentioned in the first statements. The next clue is answer.
"this confidence has them demonstrating great 6. (d) Neither 1st nor 2nd statement is correct which is marked
propensity to consumer, throwing away ageing ideas option (d), therefore, (d) is the correct answer. The clue
of asceticism and thrift" This line contradicts the idea regarding this lies in the following lines of the passage
in the second statement. "They must recognise that the US needs trained people
2. (d) The approximate no : of people in India who are in the in various fields "which implies that Indian can be a source
age group of 15 – 25 years is 180 million which is option of manpower, in any field be it high technology areas
(d), therefore, (d) is the correct answer. The clue also. The second statement states that only those
regarding this lies in the following line of the passage – immigrants can file application who have stayed in the US
"more than half the country is under 25 years of age for over five years. But the passage states" those who
and more than a third under 5 years of age". have been in the country between two and five years.
3. (b) In the recent past the service industry sector has 7. (b) Option (b) states that the types of jobs which engage
witnessed a phenomenal growth which is option (b), the immigrants are not sougut after by the Americans.
therefore, (b) is the correct answers. The clue regarding The clue regarding this lies in the following lines of the
this lies in the following line of the passage –'Brought passage "the truth is that the bulk of immigrants are
up in the shadow of the rise of India's service industry doing jobs that Americans simply don't want to do",
boom this group …world." therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
4. (b) According to the given information in the passage , 8. (a) Neither 1st nor 2 nd statement is correct which is marked
the information given in the first statement finds no by option (d), therefore, (d) is the correct answer. The
mention in the passage. The second statements is clue regarding this lies in the following lines of the
correct which is option (b), therefore (b) is the correct passage – "But giving illegal immigrants gralts the
answer. The clue regarding this lies in the following opportunity to be come legal residents will at least ensure
EBD_7348
that they are not exploited by employers and that they first line 'The young are those to whom we look for
are covered by social security benefits". The second future strength and for future good.'
statement states that India contributes the largest 18. (c) The phrase 'morally of right stature" means having
number of immigrants to the United States of America. rectitude' which is option 'c'. The line of the passage
But the passage says – "compared to Mexicans, the which gives clue regarding this is 'that they who are to
largest component of immigrants to the U.S, Indians be the fresh recruits should be morally of right stature,
have–––". this means that the youngsters should have rectitude
9. (a) Neither 1st nor 2nd statement is correct which is marked which is moral and truth futures and spirit of go -
by option (a), therefore, (a) is the correct answer. The getters.
clue regarding this lies in the following lines of the 19. (b) The failure of many a young men and women is
passage – "In US senate's approval of an immigration unwarranted, which is option (b). The clue regarding
bill has been welcomed in the IT industry in America this is mentioned in the following line of passage 'we
because of the proposal of double H1 – B visas for skilled are obliged to see thousands falling by the way whose
foreign workers. Not for welfare of the mankind which is fall seems headless. 'The word 'unwarranted' means
stated in the 1st statement. The second statement states 'unknowingly or without any justification or
that both Mexian and Indian immigrants enjoy good unnecessary.'
communication skills in English. But the passage states 20. (d) The "material conditions of happiness" does not
that – "that they know English" which means they have include hope. This is mentioned in very first line of the
knowledge not good communication skills in English. passage. There are a great many people who have all
10. (a) Option (a) states that 'Persuasive skill - set is a the material conditions of happiness i.e. health,
prerequisite to an effective preseutation' The clue sufficient income and clout ...!. The word 'hope' is not
regarding this lies in the following lines of the passage mentioned.
"The art of effective presentation is the fruit of persistent 21. (d) Modern man is very unhappy because he "suppresses
efforts and practice, therefore, (a) is the correct answer. his inner urges, which is option (d). The clue regarding
11. (a) Option (a) states that" innate stage fright of a speaker this lies in the following lines of the passage. 'Your
can be countered by meticulous preparation of his needs are more compare than those of your pets but
presentation. The clue regarding this lies in the they still have their basic in instict. 'In civilised societies,
following lines of the passage – "A thorough this is too apt to be forgotten.
preparation is the best antidote for nervousness" 22. (c) The author is of the opinion that 'we are really not very
therefore, (a) is the correct answer. different from animals', which is option (c). The clue
12. (a) Option (a) states "Topic of the presentation must be of regarding this is in the following line of the passage -
relevant interest to the audience to induce there 'Animals live on impulse, your needs are more compare
responses," The clue regarding this lies in the following than those of your pets but still they have their basis in
lines of the passage – The topic of the presentation instinct'. The line shows that man is not very different
must be interesting to the audience " therefore, (a) is form animals.
the correct answer. 23. (a) The phrase "do not minister to it" means do not support
13. (d) Neither (1) nor (2) statement is correct according to the it' which is option (a). The writer gives the clue regarding
information given in the passage, therefore, option (d) it when he says that 'people prose to themselves some
is the correct answer. paramount or important objective and restrain or stop
14. (d) Neither (1) nor (2) statement is correct according to the all impulses that do not minister or support to it.'
information given in the passage, therefore, option (d) 24. (c) Wars have been fought 'to capture some areas of
is the correct answer. another country which are of strategic importance'
15. (b) Option (b) states that "while making a presentation which is option 'c', therefore, 'c' is the correct answer.
one should, at times, refer to his written material," The The clue regarding this is given in the following line of
clue regarding this lies in the following lines of the the passage 'for the sake of seizing some strategically
passage "one may consult his notes frequently when valuable piece of territory'.
he is making his presentation. Therefore, (b) is the 25. (a) The 'natural' frontier means 'An area on the border from
correct answer. where you can keep watch on or attack your enemy
16. (a) Option (a) states that "An effective presentation about which is option (a), so (a) is the correct answer. The
the product of a company can help in increasing sales writer has explained it in the following lines of the
volumes" The clue regarding this lies in the following passage -
lines of the passage "A successful presentation can 'natural frontier is frontier which is easy to defend and
help a person in winning orders for the company he from which it is easy to launch attacks upon one's
works for," therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. neighbours."
17. (b) The author looks upon the young, as an embodonient 26. (b) Military advantages and economic advantages may or
of possibilities, which is option (b). The line of the may not be the same but the rulers make them appear to
passage which gives clue regarding this is the very be the same' which is option (b), so 'b' is the correct
Comprehension E-113
answer. The lines from the passage which give the clue hospital, the author was frustrated at his helpless
regarding this are 'purely military advantages are almost situation.
as highly praised by the rulers of nations as economic 39. (d) In advancing paragraph author expresses his wish that
advantages.' ‘I yearned to be active again.’ refer line 4 & 5. He is
27. (a) Plants that do not have showy flowers, get their pollen questioning himself that what could a middle-aged
transferred to other flowers by winds since insects do cripple like me do? So the answer would be ‘he could
not get attracted towards them. They get attracted to not lead an active life’.
those flowers whose petals are large and beautiful and 40. (b) In the concluding paragraph author says that the stoke
also smells sweet. (which paralysed him and got him hospitalised) made
28. (b) The fact that some flowers are flamboyant implies that him realize, and helped him develop his latent talent
we can distinguish between flowers pollinated by (painting). So the correct statement would be, the
insects and those that are not. Flamboyance is a trait of paralytic stoke helped the author to realize his talent.
insects which helps us in understanding pollination 41. (a) In the second line of second para author says that ‘our
done by insects or by winds. first duel with the elements began’ which suggests of
29. (a) When insects carry pollen from one flower to another fight with the tides. So the word ‘duel’ in the passage
they help the flowers to make seeds. That’s what author mean ‘a battle’.
of this para suggest, when insects carry pollen from 42. (d) When author further describes the situation on the
one flowerplant to another it can help in developing adventure trip, he says that all the six people on the raft
seeds, through the pollen must be carried by insects to held on tight and waited for the worst whenever they
the same type of flower or insect. heard the sudden deafening hiss of a roller close by
Refer the last sentence for better understanding. and saw a white crest came towards them. They did not
30. (b) Insects carry pollen from one flower to another do anything.
unconsciously. Since insects visit plants/flowers in 43. (c) Author says that the performance of the Kon-Tiki was
search of food and simultaneously they carry pollen unperturbed. Since that raft sailed through all the
grains from one flower to another. Option ‘b’ suggests/ adversities.
explains it all so, that would be the correct answer. 44. (d) Swarn jump into the water carrying Mohan on his
‘Refers without knowing it’ which means shoulders since Mohan was his friend and he did not
unconsciously’. know how to swim. And Swarn felt that his friend should
31. (c) Insects visit flowers because they are in search of food. also have fun of swimming in the water. So option ‘d’
That’s how they obtain their food from visiting one would be the right answer.
flower to another. Option ‘c’ explains it all so that would 45. (d) Refer line 9-10, Authors says that unable to carry Mohan
be the correct answer. Just go through first sentence of along, swarn left him in the flowing water. Which
this para. explains the question of (Swarn leaing his friend in the
32. (a) Writer explains in the intro of this passage that the water. So option ‘d’ would be the right answer.
extra-ordinary discovery of echo location was 46. (d) Refer line 11-12, In these lines author says clearly that
experienced in bats. So option ‘a’ would be correct there were so many swimmers but nobody came to his
answer. rescue since they were indifferent to the plight of a
33. (a) An echo comes back if a person shouts in the vicinity stranger.
of a wall or solid obstruction. Though the further off 47. (c) In the concluding line of this passage author says that
this solid obstruction, the longer time will elapse for he jumped into the water without any fear or hesitation
the return of the echo. as he knew the art of saving drowning persons. He had
34. (c) In the first paragraph, the writer says that bats use already saved few lives from drawning in the past.
sound for some practical purpose. Option ‘c’ explains 48. (b) Refer to the first line of the passage.
it all so that would be the correct answer. 49. (d) Refer to the third line of the passage.
35. (d) Epigram means a short, crisp and precise remark. Option 50. (b) Refer to the last line of the passage.
‘d’ has it all so that would be the correct answer. 51. (b) Refer to the third line of passage.
36. (c) The dictionary meaning of suffrage is right to vote. So 52. (c) Refer to the second line of passage.
the extension of suffrage will certainly indicate the right 53. (c) ‘Lasting value’ means something which has relevance
to vote for more and more people. So option ‘c’ would for the present.
be the correct answer. 54. (c) An archaeologist is a person who deals with the
37. (b) Democracy means, equal opportunity for everyone, so cultures of the past by examining the remains of
economic democracy would stand for equal economic buildings.
opportunities for everyone. So option ‘b’ would be the 55. (d) Refer to the second last line of the passage.
correct answer. 56. (d) Cultivating land is not mentioned in the passage.
38. (c) Author clearly says in 3rd line that when he was in the 57. (b) Refer to the last line of the passage.
hospital, he was consumed by rage and self pity. So 58. (b) Refer to the line that states ‘it is a great ......... oppose’.
the correct statement would be like ‘while in the 59. (b) Refer to the second sentence ‘It is a passion ..............
China’.
EBD_7348
60. (d) Refer to the sentence ‘The gift should always be 93. (a) A difficult blinder- option (b) is not correct as some
accompanied by a box of tools’. relevance is evident, it cannot be completely negated,
61. (c) Refer to the second last sentence ‘But he persuades and this relevance is the purpose of passage. Option
himself .............. dinner. (c) also is incorrect as ample examples are needed to
62. (a) Refer to the fourth sentence ‘Don’t ask me .............. depict the scene. (d) is true but question is not about
prizes’. the focus. It about the comparison between the bridge
63. (b) Refer to the third sentence ‘They declared .............. and the old man.
engine!’. 94. (d) First sentence of passage in itself is satisfactory to
64. (b) Refer to the para ‘They declared that I became the answer the question.
.............. looked stunned’. 95. (b) Option (a) is not mentioned in passage; option (b) can
65. (a) Refer to the second sentence of the second para that be inferred from the passage. Word - coastal regions to
‘It’s one .............. you are’. get submerged by melting ice is clearly written in
66. (d) Refer to the second para that ‘first comes the .............. passage. Global warming is the cause not the creation.
seriously’. Option (d) also is not the answer as cracks will develop
67. (a) Refer to the third sentence of the second para that before melting. Not after melting.
‘Anything .............. seriously’. 96. (d) Rising temperature although not written in the passage
68. (c) Refer to the first sentence that begins with ‘No doubt is the cause melting as ice melts only when the
............food production’. temperature rises.
69. (b) Refer to the third sentence that ‘It has created 97. (c) Author has, at last, described Global Warming as the
.........under control ‘. cause of everything detailed in the passage so it can
70. (d) Refer to the fourth sentence that begins with ‘scientists be his intention to warn against the dangers of global
are now..........’. warming.
71. (a) Refer to the last sentence of the passage. 98. (c) Second sentence of the passage is clearly about the
72. (d) Refer to the second sentence of the passage. author's habit of not be indoors after the sunset
73. (b) Refer to the second sentence of the passage that ‘no (evening).
kind of ..........part’. 99. (c) His habit was to remain outdoors but having a stroll (a
74. (d) Refer to the second last sentence of the passage. leisure walk) is not mentioned. Second activity which
interests him was 'reading' -hinted in passage from
75. (b) Refer to the second sentence of the passage that begins
with ‘often TB victims.............cure’. reference to 'opened book lying on his table' and he
tried for it but due to so cold (shivering in blanket) he
76. (a) Refer to the second sentence of first para and third
was unable to do that. Hence it is best option.
sentence of the second para of the passage.
100. (c) Shivering due to cold rendered him incapable for reading
77. (c) Refer to the last sentence of the first para of the passage.
as described in the passage. Being tired, no light, aversion
78. (d) Refer to the fifth sentence of the second para of the
to book has not been discussed in the passage.
passage.
101. (b) The passage begins on this note and reasons very
79. (c) Refer to the third last sentence of the second para of
cold outside for not coming out.
the passage.
102. (a) Taking the example of Gandhi, it can be assumed that
80. (c) Refer to the last sentence of the passage.
men are not born great but self effort can make them
81. (d) Refer to the second last sentence of the passage.
great. Second last sentence of the passage certifies
82. (b) Refer to the middle part of the given passage. what is given in (4). Assumption (1) is not true as per
83. (b) Refer to the second sentence of the passage. passage. And Assumption (3) is not even hinted in
84. (a) Refer to the third sentence of the passage. passage.
85. (c) Refer to the first sentence of the passage. 103. (c) Passage ends on this note. Fearlessness is described
86. (b) Refer to the last sentence of the passage. as the greatest virtue.
87. (b) The word ‘ex-’means out. Hence, exhale means to 104. (c) This is best of the options. Although it is not clearly
breathe out. mentioned in the passage. Option (a) and (b) is out of
88. (a) Refer to the middle part of the passage. context. Faith is direct word used. He taught them
89. (d) Refer to the second sentence of the passage. fearlessness not have a attitude of fearlessness for
90. (d) Pontoon Bridge is a bridge made with wooden planks; them.
usually it is a floating type of bridge of short length. 105. (b) Leonine means like a lion. A lion is synonym to courage.
91. (d) Soldiers were pushing against the steep elevation as See other words - vulpine (Like a wolf), Canine (like a
mentioned in the passage. Carts were staggering on dog), Asinine (Like an ass).
steep bank. 106. (d) First sentence of the passage clears that fence was
92. (c) Again the same sentence of the passage as in earlier meant to keep dingoes out. Second sentence clears
question is having the answer. This is very easy that sheep (wool growers) are protected.
question and direct one from the passage. 107. (a) Last sentence of the passage refers to the Kangaroos
as the national symbol of Australia.
Comprehension E-115
108. (b) It has been written in the passage clearly. 138. (a) It is clearly noted in the passage that Chinese, Greek
109. (a) Only this can be inferred from the passage other options and Roman civilizations had to undergo hardships due
are not true or irrelevant. to bad winter. But India did not have to face such
110. (b) Only option (b) is stated in the passage in the first harsh winters as we have a sub-tropical climate. Thus,
sentence. This option is just presents the same thing option (a) Indian is the correct answer.
in second way. 139. (c) There is no mention of fertile soil or availability of flora
111. (b) Sense organs are which sense from the touch and and fauna specifically in this passage but it conveys
obviously hairs or whiskers can not taste, hear or smell. that we were blessed with bounteous nature which
112. (a) 30 gallons/day is a large quantity; also it can be inferred asked for man's little efforts. This very sentence
that the lack of water creates problem. On this logical establishes that option c is closest to the real meaning
deduction, option (c) can be rejected. (d) is also not of the passage. Thus, option (c) is the correct answer.
true. (b) is not clearly written, although might be true. 140. (c) The word used in the passage for conveying India's
113. (b) First sentence of the passage gives the answer. character is quietism. Now, fatalism is related to being
114. (c) What elephants do in the droughts - is explicitly given dangerous. And sturdiness means strength and
in the passage. Author calls it an intriguing technique durability. Ascetism is related to being quiet. Whereas
- digging wells/holes. Epicureanism means devotion to pleasure, comfort, and
115. (b) If they are drinking in order of seniority and seniority is high living. Thus, the closest and exclusive meaning
counted according to age as per last two words of for quietism in this list is "Ascetism".
passage, definitely, oldest would drink first. 151. (d) From the first sentence of the passage, it can easily be
116. (c) Option (a) is not mentioned. Option (d) is opposite of inferred that 'rule of the road' implies restricted
what is mentioned in the passage. Option (b) is also individual freedom to ensure freedom for all.
not relevant. Only option (c) can be inferred from the 152. (c) It is inherited in the second sentence fo the passage
passage. that when a policeman signals you to stop on a road-
117. (c) Coaxing in the passage is used to indicate that the crossing, he is protecting the liberty of all to used the
brother of the author sings himself for inspiring music road.
from the bird. 153. (c) It can be interred from the passage that the author is of
118. (c) Coaxing is to flatter/to persuade gently/ sycophancy / the view that we should try to strike a sensible balance
cajoling. between our individual and social libety.
119. (b) exchanging goods and services 154. (b) It can be inferred from the last sentence that educating
120. (b) goods are produced in surplus or not educating his child is also a matter of social
121. (d) living in communities liberty.
122. (d) we cannot produce everything we need ourselves
155. (c) Since the whole passage talks about the concept of
123. (c) may be other planets like the Earth in the universe
liberty therefore, ' Importance of Liberty' appears to be
124. (c) the planetary system exists the most suitable title for this passage.
125. (a) if there is life on the planets, it would be like ours
156. (a) Statements 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect. Only statement 1 is
126. (c) in Mrs West's house where the police are enquiring
correct.
into lady's murder
157. (b) It can be inferred from the sentence 'His object in
127. (d) searching
entering the house is to snap up the moths that cluster
128. (b) surprised to get the information
around the lamp'.
129. (d) grandmother of the author who used to teach at his/
158. (d) It is clearly mentioned in the last line of the passage.
her school.
130. (a) The farewell ceremony made everyone feel sad. 159. (c) The author calls the tiny bat an 'interesting visitor'
because of its peculiar qualities like it prefers to fly in
131. (a) he/she was the only child who loved his/her
grandmother. trough the open door and uses the window only if
there is no alternative and it flies low unlike other bats
132. (d) human life is very complex.
etc.
133. (b) is sincere in discharging his duties.
160. (c) The entire passage is based on the bat which is an
134. (d) are sensitive and emotional.
interesting visitor to the author's home. Hence, 'My
135. (c) are happy and spread happiness.
Nocturnal Visitor' is the best suited title passage.
136. (a) Look at the bright side of things.
161. (c) The verb 'clouded' is occasionally used to refer to
137. (c) When we read the passage, we come across the
someone's face or eyes to mean 'show an emotion such
discussion over the Indian climate and its positive and
as worry, sorrow, or anger'.
negative relation with the civilizations and their attitude
towards life. The passage does not talk just about 162. (b) The conjuror was endeavouring to make the magic
climate or its impact on people. It tells about the impact show enjoyable for the audience. The "egg" trick was
of climate including rainfall and natural calamities on ruined because the audience were swayed by the
people and their culture. Thus, keeping this in mind we explanations provided by Quick Man.
feel that option (c) is the most probable answer.
EBD_7348
163. (c) Quick Man gave the explanation of each trick by saying 167. (b) It has clearly been mentioned in the passage.
"He-had-it-up-his-sleeve." This is possible if the 168. (a) The phrasal verb "look forward to" means "await
sleeves are large. Also refer the last sentence of the eagerly".
paragraph. 169. (d) To Mrs. Smiles query, Magda replies in the affirmative
164. (a) The constant comments by the Quick Man made the by saying "Yes, that's right. I shan't go back home
audience feel that the tricks were nothing special. The until she's settled down. ..."
Quick Man was a heckler; he wanted to embarrass the 170. (c) Note the first sentence wherein Magda says "Good
conjuror who was performing in public. This was a morning, Mrs. Smiles". This is not the way to address
foolish action as while the conjurer was making efforts ones classmates or school friends or for that matter
to make his magic shows enjoyable for the audience, even one's sister-in-law. The use of "Mrs." Before the
the Quick Man was constantly trying to pull him down name "Smiles" provides the clue that the two are
by adopting a fault – finding and doubt creating neighbours. The use of "Mrs" provides the required
approach. degree of formality.
165. (c) The conjuror requested for a hat from someone in the 171. (c) It is clearly mentioned in the first sentence of the
audience and thanked the giver of the hat. Refer the passage.
sentence "Will some gentleman kindly lend me his hat? 172. (b) It is clearly mentioned in the 7th, 8th and 9th sentence of
Ah, thank you – Presto!" the passage.
166. (c) Refer the second dialogue of Magda wherein she says 174. (d) It can clearly be inferred from the sentence.
"Well, I haven't been out much lately. I don't like this
weather a bit. ..."
PART B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE PHYSICS
Properties of Matter 1
1. Why doesn't Archimedes' principle hold for a vessel under 7. A cylinder of mass m and radius R floats vertically in a
a free fall ? liquid of density d. What is the height of the submerged
(a) The effective value of g increases region?
(b) The effective value of g decreases
(c) The body immersed in the vessel will become m pR 2 d
(a) 2 (b)
weightless pR d m
(d) The density of air increases [2006-I]
2. A block of weight W floats in a lake. If the apparent weight m r
of the floating block is W', then which one of the following (c) 2 (d) [2007-II]
R d 2
is correct ? 8. Consider the following statements :
W The fraction of a ball floating inside the liquid depends upon
(a) W ' > W (b) W ' =
2 1. density of the liquid.
(c) W '= W (d) W' = 0 [2006-I] 2. mass of the ball.
3. The specific gravity of a substance is measured by a 3. density of the ball.
hydrometer at the sea level. If the measurement is done at Which of the statements given above are correct?
the top of a mountain, what would be the specific gravity ? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Zero (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 [2008-I]
(b) More than that measured at the sea level 9. Cosider the following statements:
(c) Less than that measured at the sea level An extermal pressure p0 is applied to the surface of a liquid
(d) Same as that measured at the sea level [2006-II] in a container. Then,
4. Consider the following statements: 1. the pressure on all side-wells increases by p0
If there were no capillarity, 2. the pressure on the bottom wall increases by p0.
1. it would be impossible to use a kerosene lamp. 3. the pressure at all points inside the liquid increases by
2. one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft p 0.
drink. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. the blotting paper would fail to function.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
4. there would have been no plants on the earth.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only [2008-I]
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3, 4 10. Let us assume that air density(0.0013g/ cm 3) remians
(c) 2, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 [2007-I] constant as we go up in the atmosphere. In such a
5. A solid cube of iron (specific gravity = 8) is melted into hypothetical case, what is the approximate height of
sheets. The side of the cube is 1m. The sheets are used to atmosphere to have 1 atmospheric pressure?
make a hollow cube. This cube floats such that its whole (a) 4 km (b) 8 km
volume is inside water. What should be the minimum length (c) 40 km (d) 80 km. [2008-I]
of side of such a cube? 11. Flow velocities in an incompressible fluid can be measured
(a) 2.0 m (b) 2.5 m with which one of the following?
(c) 2.75 m (d) 3.0 m [2007-II] (a) Barometer (b) Venturi tube
6. A block of ice is floating in a beaker containing liquid of (c) Strain gauge (d) Manometer [2008-II]
specific gravity greater than one. When ice melts completely 12. A syringe is a hollow glass tube with lower end tapered to a
what happens to the level of liquid in the beaker? nozzle. Due to which one of the following liquid can be
(a) It will remain the same as before drawn into a syringe?
(b) It will go down (a) Partial vacuum produced inside the glass tube
(c) It will rise up (b) Diffusion
(d) It may or may not change depending upon size of beaker (c) Surface tension effect
[2007-II] (d) Capillary action [2008-II]
EBD_7348
G-2 NDA Topicwise Solved Papers - GENERAL ABILITY TEST
13. The mass of water vapour per unit volume of air is known
Water
[2009-I] level
(a) relative humidity 21. B [2010-II]
A
(b) specific humidity
(c) absolute humidity
(d) variable humidity Two identical blocks of ice, A and B,float in water as shown
14. Kinetic viscosity of a given liquid is the ratio of the in the figure given above. Which one among the following
[2009-II] statements in this regard is correct?
(a) coefficient of viscosity to the density (a) Block A displaces a greater volume of water since the
(b) coefficient of viscosity to the surface tension pressure acts on a smaller bottom area
(c) density to the coefficient of viscosity (b) Block A displaces a greater volume of water since its
(d) surface tension to the coefficient of viscosity submerged end is lower in the water
15. When oil floats on water, the surface tension of water (c) Block B displaces a greater volume of water since its
[2009-II] submerged end has a greater area in water
(a) vanishes immediately (d) The two blocks displace equal volumes of water since
(b) decreases considerably they have the same specific gravity and same mass
(c) increases considerably 22. When a ship floats on water [2010-II]
(d) remains unaffected (a) it displaces no water
16. Consider two hollow glass spheres, one containing water (b) the mass of water displaced is equal to the mass of the
and the other containing mercury. Each liquid fills about ship
one-tenth of the volume of the sphere. In zero gravity (c) the mass of water displaced is lesser than the mass of
environment [2009-II] the ship
(a) water and mercury float freely inside the sphere (d) the mass of water displaced is greater than the mass of
(b) water forms a layer on the glass, while mercury floats the ship
(c) mercury forms a layer on the glass, while water floats 23. A liquid rises to a certain length in a capillary tube. The tube
(d) water and mercury both form a layer on the glass is inclined to an angle of 45°. The length of the liquid column
17. The density of cast iron having specific gravity 7.20 is will [2011-I]
[2009-II] (a) increase
3 3 (b) decrease
(a) 7.20 kg/m (b) 720 kg/m
(c) remain unchanged
(c) 72 kg/m3 (d) 7200 kg/m3
(d) first decrease and then increase
18. A vessel contains oil of density 0.8 gm/cm3 over mercury of
density 13.6 gm/cm3. A homogeneous sphere floats with 24. Specific gravity of silver is 11 and specific gravity of iron is 8.
half of its volume immersed in mercury and the other half in Which one among the follwing is the approximate relative
density of silver with respect to iron? [2013-I]
oil. The density of the material of the sphere in CGS unit is
[2009-II] (a) 1.4 (b) 0.7
(a) 3.3 (b) 6.4 (c) 3.0 (d) 2.8
(c) 7.2 (d) 12.8 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 25 - 30) : The following questions consist of
19. Water flows out of the hole of a bucket and follows a two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other as
parabolic path. If the bucket falls freely under gravity, the 'Reason (R), You are to examine these two statements carefully
water flow (ignoring air resistance) [2009-II] and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
(a) follows a straight-line path relative to the falling bucket (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
(b) follows a parabolic path relative to the falling bucket explanation of A
(c) stops (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct
(d) decreases but continues to flow explanation of A
20. A vessel contains oil (density r1) over a liquid of density (c) A is true but R is false
r2; a homogeneous sphere of volume V floats with half of (d) A is false but R is true
its volume immersed in the liquid and the other half in oil. 25. Assertion (A) : If a barometer carries water instead of
The weight of the sphere is [2010-I] mercury, the height of the column for a pressure equivalent
(a) V(r2 – r1) /2 (b) V(r2 + r1)g /2 to 76 cm of mercury increases.
(c) V(r2 + r1) (d) V(r2 + r1)/ 2 Reason (R) : The specific heat of water is greater than that
of mercury. [2006-II]
Properties of Matter G-3
26. Assertion (A) : Diameter of one of the limbs of a U-tube (a) pressure (b) angular momentum
manometer is twice that of its other limb. The limbs are open (c) work (d) linear momentum
to atmosphere at their free ends. If mercury is added to the DIRECTION (Q. 35) : The following item consist of two
manometer, the level of mercury in the wider limb will be half statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine
of that in the narrower limb. these two statements carefully and select the answers to these
items using the code given below : [2015-I]
Reason (R) : Liquids always maintain the same level under
same pressure. [2006-II] Code :
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement
1
27. Assertion (A) : A test tube is filled up with
of its volume II is the correct explanation of Statement I
4 (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement
with water and immersed in a glass of water. The upper
II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
portion of the test tube looks bright. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Reason (R) : This is due to dispersion of light. [2007-II] (d) Statement I is true but Statement II is true
35. Statement I : While putting clothes for drying up, we spread
28. Assertion(A) : When water flows in a uniform horizontal them out.
pipe, there is a fall in pressure of water along the pipe. Statement II : The rate of evaporation increases with an
Reason(R): Force is required to maintain the motion of the increase in surface area.
liquid against friction. [2008-I] 36. Which one among the following does not wet the walls of
the glass vessel in which it is kept ? [2015-I]
29. Assertion(A) : In summer a block of iron is hotter than a (a) Water (b) Alcohol
block of wood. (c) Mercury (d) Phenol
Reason(R): The relative density of iron is more than the 37. A container is first filled with water and then the entire water
relative density of wood. [2009-I] is replaced by mercury. Mercury has a density of 13.6 × 103
kg/m3. If X is the weight of the water and Y is the weight of
30. Assertion (A): On a wet floor of a bathroom, a small circular the mercury, then [2016-I]
area around a pinch of foam appears to be dry. (a) X = Y (b) X = 13.6 Y
Reason (R): Soap molecules reduce surface tension and (c) Y = 13.6 X (d) None of the above
increase surface area of the thin layer of water on the wet 38. Density of water is [2016-I]
(a) maximum at 0°C (b) minimum at 0°C
floor. [2009-II]
(c) maximum at 4°C (d) minimum at –4°C
31. The latest discovered state of matter is [2014-I] 39. The S.I. unit of acceleration is [2016-I]
(a) solid (a) ms–1 (b) ms–2
(b) Bose-Einstein condensate (c) cms–2 (d) kms–2
(c) plasma 40. Which one of the following is the correct relation between
(d) liquid A and nm? [2018-II]
32. A balloon filled up with gas would only go up in air if it is (a) 1 nm = 10–1A (b) 1 nm = 10 A
filled up with [2014-I] (c) 1 nm = 1 A (d) 1 nm = 10–2 A
(a) a gas whose density is lower than air
41. Which one of the following statements about the law of
(b) a gas whose density is higher than air
conservation of mass is correct? [2018-II]
(c) cold air
(d) water vapour (a) A given compound always contains exactly same
33. Kerosene oil rises in a wick of lantern because of proportion of elements.
[2014-II] (b) When gases combine in a reaction, they do so in a
(a) buoyancy of air simple ratio by volume, provided all gases are at room
(b) diffusion of the oil through the wick temperature.
(c) capillary action in the wick
(d) gravitational pull of the wick (c) Matter can neither be created nor destroyed.
34. The dimension of ‘impulse’ is the same as that of (d) Equal volumes of all gases at same temperature and
[2014-II] pressure contain equal number of molecules.
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 6 (c) 11 (b) 16 (b) 21 (d) 26 (c) 31 (c) 36 (c) 41 (c)
2 (d) 7 (a) 12 (a) 17 (d) 22 (b) 27 (c) 32 (a) 37 (c)
3 (c) 8 (c) 13 (c) 18 (c) 23 (a) 28 (d) 33 (c) 38 (c)
4 (b) 9 (a) 14 (c) 19 (b) 24 (a) 29 (b) 34 (d) 39 (b)
5 (a) 10 (b) 15 (b) 20 (b) 25 (b) 30 (a) 35 (a) 40 (b)
EBD_7348
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (c) According to Archimedes principle, 16. (b) In zero gravity environment water forms a layers on
‘A body submerging wholly or partially in a fluid is the glass, while mercury floats.
buoyed by a force equal to the weight of the displaced 17. (d) The density of cast iron
fluid’. = 7.20 × 103 = 7200 kg/m3
When the system falls freely, effective value of g 18. (c) As the sphere floats in the liquid. Therefore its weight
becomes zero, and so the body immersed in the vessel will be equal to the upthrust force act on it.
will become weightless. Hence, Archimedes’ principle 4
fails. = pR 2rg ...(i)
3
2. (d) Apparent weigh = Actual weight — upthrust Upthrust due to oil and mercury
If the block is floating with fully submerged in fluid
2 3 2
then actual weight = upthrust pR ´ soilg + pR 3sHg g ...(ii)
\ Apparent weight, w' =0 3 3
4. (b) To use a straw to consume a soft drink is happened Equating equations (i) and (ii)
due to the principle of pressure. 4 2 2 2
pR rg = pR 3 0.8g + pR 313.6g
5. (a) height of hollow cube = weight of displaced water 3 3 3
V1 r g = V2 rg Þ 2r = 0.8 + 13.6 = 14.4
3
or l ´ 1000g = (1)3 ×8 × 1000 × g Þ r = 7.2
19. (b) If the bucket falls freely under gravity, the water flow
or l3 = 8 follows a parabolic path relative to the falling bucket.
or l = 2m 20. (b) Weight of homogeneous sphere = weight of liquid/oil
6. (c) The specific gravity of liquid is greater than one and as displaced
the specific gravity of water is 1 hence the level of r2 + r1
liquid in the beaker will rise up. mean density of (liquid + oil) =
2
7. (a) Let h be the height of the submerged portion of the
cylinder . r2 + r1
Weigh (mg) = V g
Volume of submerged part of cylinder = Volume of water 2
displaced. 21. (d) Since the two blocks of ice are identical it means they
have same mass therefore they will displace equal
2 m m
pR2h = V or pR h = or h = volume of water.
d pR 2 d 22. (b) According to Archimede’s principle when a body is
8. (c) The fraction of a ball floating inside the liquid depends immersed fully or partially in a liquid, it experiences an
only upon density of the liquid and the ball. upward force that is equal to the weight of the fluid
9. (a) According to Pascal's law, the increase in pressure at displaced by it therefore the mass of water displaced is
any point of a fluid at rest is transmitted without loss equal to the mass of the ship.
to all other parts of the fluid. 23. (a) The length of the liquid column will increase.
10. (b) Pressure exerted by the atmosphere, Let the liquid in capaillary tube rises to height h
P = hrg According to question
1.01 × 105 = h × 1.3 × 9.8 Tube is inclined to an angle of 45°
1.01 ´ 105 h
=
h
= 2h
h= = 7951 m » 8km \ Length of liquid column =
1.3 ´ 9.8 cos 45° 1
11. (b) Barometer, Venturimeter, Strain Gauge and Manometer 2
are used to measure atneospheric pressure, velocity of Therefore length of the liquid column will increase.
an incompressible fluid, strain and pressure respectively. 24. (a) Density of silver w.r.t. iron = Relative density of silver
12. (a) When piston is pulled, partial vacuum is created inside
the tube due to which pressure becomes negligible density of silver
= Specific gravity of silver is
and hence the liquid enters into the tube as a result of density of iron
its pressure.
11
13. (c) The absolute humidity may be defined as the mass of = @ 1.4
water vapour per unit volume of air. 8
14. (c) Kinetic viscosity of a given liquid is the ratio of the
density to the coefficient of viscosity. 27. (c) The upper portion of the test tube looks bright due to
15. (b) When oil floats on water, the surface tension of water the total internal reflection of light.
decrease considerably. 28. (d) When water flows in a uniform horizontal pipe, the
pressure of water at all points along the pipe is same.
Properties of Matter G-5
Force is required to maintain the motion of the liquid 36. (c) Mercury in a glass flask is a good example of the effects
against friction. of the ratio between cohesive and adhesive forces.
29. (b) Iron is a good conductor of heat whereas wood is a Because of its high cohesion and low adhesion to the
bad conductor of heat. Therefore, in summer a block glass, mercury does not spread out to cover the top of
of iron is hotter than a block of wood. The relative the flask, and if enough is placed in the flask to cover
density of pure iron is more than relative density of the bottom, it exhibits a strongly convex meniscus,
wood. whereas the meniscus of water is concave. Mercury
30. (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct will not wet the glass, unlike water and many other
explanation of A. liquids, and if the glass is tipped, it will 'roll' around
31. (c) There are four states of matter- solid, liquid, gas and inside.
plasma. A plasma can be created by heating a gas or 38. (c) Water has its maximum density of 1g/cm3 at 4 degrees
subjecting it to a strong electromagnetic field applied Celsius. When the temperature changes from either
with a laser or microwave generator. greater or less than 4 degrees, the density will become
32. (a) A body floats, if its density is less than fluid i.e. floating less then 1 g/cm3.
medium. 39. (b) The SI unit of acceleration is the metre per second
33. (c) The kerosene oil rises in a wick of lantern because of squared (m s–2).
capillary action in the wick. Capillary action is the 40. (b) 10 nm =10–9 m = 10 × 10–10 m = 10 A° (since 1 A° = 10–10 m)
movement of liquid along a surface of a solid caused 41. (c) The law of conservation of mass states that mass in an
by the attraction of molecules of the liquid to the isolated system is neither created nor destroyed by
molecules of the solid. For example, plants use capillary chemical reactions or physical transformations.
action to bring water up the roots and stems to the rest According to the law of conservation of mass, the
of the plant. mass of the products in a chemical reaction must equal
34. (d) Impulse = Change in linear momentum the mass of the reactants. The law of conservation of
Hence, the dimension of impulse is same as linear mass is useful for a number of calculations and can be
momentum. used to solve for unknown masses, such the amount
35. (a) An increased surface area means that more liquid will of gas consumed or produced during a reaction.
be exposed to air at one time, and therefore, more water
can evaporate in a given time period.
EBD_7348
Mechanics 2
1. m
2m F
x x
A block of mass 2 m is pulled along a horizontal frictionless
surface by a rope of mass m as shown in the figure given
above. What force is exerted by the rope on the block ?
F F 0 3 6 0 3 6
(a) (b) t t
3 2 (a) (b)
2F
(c) (d) F [2006-I]
2
2. How does the weight of a body vary while moving from the x x
earth to the moon ?
(a) It gradually decreases till it reaches the moon surface.
(b) It gradually increases till it reaches the moon surrace.
(c) First it gradually decreases to zero value and then
increases till it reaches the moon surface 0 3 6 0 3 6
(c) t (d) t
(d) First it gradually increases and then decreases till it
reaches the moon surface. [2006-I] [2006-I]
3. Consider the following statements: 6. Which one of the following correctly represents the
variation between linear momentum (P) and kinetic energy
1. The gravitational force exerted by the sun on the moon (E) of a body ?
is greater than the gravitational force exerted by the
earth on the moon.
2. A heavy body falls at a faster rate than a light body in E E
vaccum.
Which of the following statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2006-I]
4. A stone is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity p
O p O (b)
(a)
2
12u
u from the top of a tower of height . With what velocity
g
does the stone reach the ground ? E E
(a) u (b) 4u
(c) 5u (d) 2 6u [2006-I]
5. A particle starts from rest, accelerates uniformly for 3 seconds
and then decelerates uniformly for 3 seconds and comes to
rest. O p O p
(c) (d)
Which one of the following displacement (x)-time (t) graphs
represents the motion of the particle? [2006-II]
Mechanics G-7
7. A mass m1 is moving on a plane surface along a straight Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
path under the action of a force F. Another mass m2 is (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
added on to m1 and the acceleration drops to 1/5 of the (c) 1 and 3 (d) 4 only [2007-I]
earlier value of the acceleration. Assuming that F remains 13. The value of which one of the following quantities remains
constant, what is the ratio m1 : m2 ? same in all systems of units?
(a) 1/6 (b) 1/5 (a) Acceleration due to gravity
(b) Specific gravity
(c) 1/4 (d) 4/5 [2006-II] (c) Pressure
8. In the system shown, the masses are released from rest. (d) Density [2007-I]
What shall be the acceleration of the moving masses ? 14. What would be the power of an engine which supplies
18 kJ of energy per minute?
Smooth Pulley (a) 200 W (b) 250 W
(c) 300 W (d) 1080 W [2007-I]
15. If the linear momentum of a body is increased by 5%, by
what percentage shall the kinetic energy increase(approx.) ?
(a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 25% (d) 50% [2007-I]
16. A bus moving at a speed of 24m/s begins to slow at a rate of
3 m/s each second. How far does it go before stopping?
(a) 96 m (b) 72 m
5 kg (c) 60 m (d) 48 m [2007-II]
17. A bullet travelling horizontally hits a block kept at rest on a
horizontal surface and gets embedded into it, the two
together then move with a uniform velocity. Which one of
the following conservation laws holds?
(a) Conservation of angular momentum
10 kg (b) Conservation of kinetic energy
(c) Conservation of linear momentum
(a) g (b) 2g/3 (d) Conservation of velocity [2007-II]
(c) g/3 (d) g/2 [2006-II] 18. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M through
9. A motorcycle, a car and a bus all have the same kinetic g
energy. If equal braking forces are applied to them, they a distance d at a constant downward acceleration
4
come to a halt after travelling x, y and z units of distance Consider the following statements:
respectively. Which one of the following is correct ? 1. The block is freely falling under gravity.
(a) x < y < z 2. The cord is doing work one the block.
(b) x > y > z
(c) x = y = z (3Mgd)
3. The amount of work done is .
(d) Relationship between x, y and z cannot be determined 4
on the basis of given data [2006-II] (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
10. Two teams are pulling a rope with equal and opposite forces (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 [2007-II]
each of 5 kN in a tug of war so that a condition of equilibrium 19. A body starting from the the rest moves along a straight
exists. What will be the tensile force in the rope? line with constant acceleration. Which one of the following
(a) Zero (b) 2.5 kN graphs represents the variation of speed(v) and distance(s)?
(c) 5 kN (d) 10 kN [2007-I]
11. Consider the following statements. Work is not done, when:
1. a man is walking on a horizontal road.
2. a man is climbing up a hill. v v
3. a man with a load on his head is walking on a horizontal (a) (b)
road.
4. moon is revolving round the earth. s s
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 [2007-I]
12. Consider the following statements:
v v
A body weighs less at the equator than at the poles because: (c) (d)
1. earth rotates about its axis.
2. the ice cap at the poles increases gravitational pull.
s s
3. equatorial diameter is greater than the polar diameter.
4. of some unknown facts. [2008-I]
EBD_7348
20. A rubber ball dropped from 24 m height loses its kinetic 31. The weight of a body is 9.8 N at the place where
energy by 25%. What is the height to which it rebounds? g = 9.8 ms–2. Its mass is [2009-II]
(a) 6 m (b) 12 m (a) zero (b) 9.8 kg
(c) 18 m (d) 24 m [2008-I] (c) 10 kg (d) 1 kg
21. A car accelerates from rest with acceleration 1.2 m/s2. A bus 32. If a light body and a heavy body have equal momentum,
moves with constant speed of 12 m/s in a parallel lane. How then [2009-II]
long does the car take from its start to meet the bus? (a) the lighter body has greater kinetic energy than the
(a) 17 s (b) 8 s heavier body
(c) 20 s (d) 12 s [2008-I] (b) the lighter body has lesser kinetic energy than the
22. If a body travels half the distance with velocity v1 and next heavier body
half with velocity v2, then which one of the following will be (c) the kinetic energy of the lighter body is equal to the
the average velocity of the body? kinetic energy of the heavier body
v1 + v 2 (d) the kinetic energy of both the bodies are independent
(a) v1v 2 (b)
2 of momentum
v2 2v1 v 2 33. An object of mass 5 kg is attached to the end of a rope. If the
(c) v1 (d) v1 + v 2 [2008-II] rope is pulled upward with an acceleration 0.30 ms–2, what
23. What is the correct sequence in which the lengths of the is the tension in the rope? [2009-II]
following units increase? (a) 30.5 N (b) 40.5 N
1. Angstrom 2. Micron 3. Nanometer (c) 50.5 N (d) 60.5 N
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 34. When a mass m is hung on a spring, the spring stretched by
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 1, 2 6 cm. If the loaded spring is pulled downward a little and
(c) 1, 3, 2 (d) 2, 3, 1 [2008-II] released, then the period of vibration of the system will be
24. Which one of the following remains constant while throwing [2009-II]
a ball upward ? (a) 0.27 s (b) 0.35 s
(a) Displacement (b) Kinetic energy (c) 0.49 s (d) 0.64 s
(c) Acceleration (d) Velocity [2008-II] 35. A book is kept on the surface of a table. If the gravitational
25. Consider the following statements: If the net external torque pull of the earth on the book is the force of action, then the
acting on an object is switched off, then – force of reaction is exerted by [2009-II]
1. Linear momentum will remain unchanged.
(a) the book on the table
2. Angular momentum will remain unchanged.
(b) the book on the earth
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) the table on the book
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2008-II] (d) the table on the earth
26. One light year is equal to [2009-I] 36. In the relation a = bt + l, a and l are measured in meter (m)
(a) 9.46×10–15m (b) 9.46 × 1015m and t is measured in second (s). The SI unit of b must be
(c) 9.46×10–13m (d) 9.46 × 1013m [2009-II]
27. Which one of the following statements correctly defines (a) m (b) ms
power? [2009-I] (c) s (d) ms–1
(a) Energy supplied per unit time 37. A spring has length ‘l’ and spring constant ‘k’. It is cut into
(b) Energy of an object due to its motion two pieces of lengths l1 and l2 such that l = nl2. The force
(c) Energy of an object due to its position constant of the spring of length l is
1
[2009-II]
(d) None of the above 1
(a) k(l + n) (b) k
28. A long jumper runs before jumping because he [2009-I]
(a) covers a greater distance k k (n + l )
(b) maintains momentum conservation (c) (d)
(n + 1) n
(c) gains energy by running
(d) gains momentum 38. A body is thrown vertically upwards and then falls back on
29. Which among the following is the necessary condition for the ground. Its potential energy is maximum [2010-I]
simple harmonic motion ? [2009-I] (a) on the ground
(a) Constant period (b) at the maximum height
(b) Constant acceleration (c) during the return journey
(c) Displacement and acceleration are proportional (d) both on the ground and at the maximum height
(d) Displacement and torque are proportional 39. Which one of the following pairs does not have the same
30. On planet Earth, there is no centrifugal force at the dimension? [2010-I]
[2009-I] (a) Potential energy and kinetic energy
(a) Equator (b) Tropic of Cal1cer (b) Density and specific gravity
(c) Focal length and height
(c) Tropic of Capricorn (d) Poles
(d) Gravitational force and frictional force
Mechanics G-9
40. Which one of the following graphs represents motion? (a) the force is too small to move the ball
[2010-I] (b) air friction holds the ball back
(c) of action and reaction
(d) the ball has inertia
velocity
velocity
(a) (b) 46.
Velocity
time time
disp lacement
displacement
(c) (d)
time time
0 Time
41. For a simple pendulum in simple harmonic motion, which
of the following statements is/are correct? Which one of the following characteristics of the particle
1. The kinetic energy is maximum at the mean position. does the shaded area of the velocity-time graph shown above
2. The potential energy is maximum at the mean position. represent? [2010-II]
3. Acceleration is maximum at the mean position. (a) Momentum (b) Acceleration
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) Distance covered (d) speed
Code: [2010-I] 47. A body is at rest on the surface of the earth. Which one
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 among the following statements is correct regarding this?
42. A man is sitting on a rotating stool with his arms (a) No force is acting on the body [2010-II]
outstretched. If suddenly he folds his arms the angular (b) Only weight ofthe body acts on it
velocity of the man would [2010-II] (c) Net downward force is equal to the net upward force
(a) increase (b) decrease (d) None of the above
(c) become zero (d) remain constant 48. A pendulum beats, faster than a standard pendulum. In order
43. For a particle revolving in a circular path, the acceleration of to bring it to the standard beat, the length of th pendulum is
the particle is [2010-II] to be [2010-II]
(a) along the tangent
(b) along the radius (a) reduced
(c) zero (b) increased
(d) along the circumference of the circle (c) reduced and the mass of the bob increased
(d) reduced and also the mass of the bob reduced
44. T [2010-II] 49. A body initially at rest is acted upon by a constant force.
The rate of change of its kinetic energy varies [2011-I]
Wire (a) linearly with square root of time
(b) linearly with time
(c) linearly with square of time
A circus performer of mass M is walking along a wire as (d) inversely with time
shown in the figure given above. The tension T in the wire 50. A jet plane flies through air with a velocity of 2 Mach. While
is (g = acceleration due to gravity) the velocity of sound is 332 m/s, the air speed of the plane is
(a) approximately Mg [2011-I]
(b) less than Mg (a) 166 m/s (b) 66.4 km/s
(c) more than Mg (c) 332 m/s (d) 664 m/s
(d) depends on whether the performer stands on one or 51. A man is at rest in the middle of a horizontal plane of perfectly
two feet
smooth surface of ice. He can move himself to the shore by
45. [2010-II] making use of Newton’s [2011-I]
Upper string (a) first law of motion
(b) second law of motion
(c) third law of motion
(d) first, second and third laws of motion
Lower string 52. When a moving bus suddenly applies brakes, the passengers
sitting in it fall in the forward direction. This can be explained
A heavy ball is suspended as shown in the figure given by [2011-I]
above. A quick jerk on the lower string will break that string
but a slow pull on the lower string will break the upper string. (a) the theory of relativity (b) Newton’s first law
The first result occurs because (c) Newton’s second law (d) Newton’s third law
EBD_7348
53. A jet engine works on the principle of conservation of 62. An object is in uniform circular motion on a plane. Suppose
[2011-I] that you measure its displacement from the centre along
(a) linear momentum (b) angular momentum one direction, say, along the x-axis. Which one among the
(c) energy (d) mass following graphs could represent this displacement (x)?
54. Mass of B is four times that of A.B moves with a velocity [2012-I]
half that of A. Then, B has [2011-I] x
(a) kinetic energy equal to that of A
(b) half the kinetic energy of A t
(c) twice the kinetic energy of A (a)
(d) kinetic energy one-fourth of A
55. The position– time (x – t) graph for motion of a body is
given below: x
t
(b)
x
x
(c) t
0 t
x
Which one among the following is depicted by the above
graph? [2011-II] t
(d)
(a) Positive acceleration (b) Negative acceleration
(c) Zero acceleration (d) None of the above
56. Momentum of a body is 63. A body attached to a spring balance weighs 10 kg on the
1. a vector quantity. Earth. The body attached to the same spring balance is
2. a conserved quantity in an isolated system. taken to a planet where gravity is half that of the Earth. The
3. same as force in linear motion. [2011-II] balance will read [2012-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 20 kg (b) 10 kg
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 5 kg (d) 2.5 kg
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 64. Consider the following figure :
57. If the ratio of the weight of a man in a stationary lift and
when it is moving downwards with uniform acceleration ‘a’ C
is 3 : 2, then the value of ‘a’ is [2011-II] A
Potential Energy
(a) 3g/2 (b) g/3

(c) g (d) 2g/3
58. A body is thrown upward against the gravity ‘g’ with initial
velocity ‘u’. Which one among the following is the correct
expression for its final velocity when attains the maximum
height? [2011-II] B D
(a) u2/(2g) (b) 2g/u2 Position
(c) u2g/ 2 (d) None of the above
59. Which one among the following is the correct value of the Which of the following labelled points in the figure given
gravitational force of the Earth acting on a body of mass above indicate unstable state of an object ? [2012-II]
1 kg? [2011-II] (a) Point A only (b) Point B only
(a) 8. 9 N (b) 9. 8 N (c) Points A and C (d) Points B and D
65. One feels heavier in a lift when the lift [2012-II]
(c) 89 N (d) 98 N
(a) is going down steadily
60. It is impossible for two oscillators, each executing simple
(b) just begins to go up
harmonic motion, to remain in phase with each other if they
(c) is moving up steadily
have different [2011-II] (d) descends freely
(a) time periods (b) amplitudes 66. A swinging pendulum has its maximum acceleration at
(c) spring constants (d) kinetic energy [2012-II]
61. Which one among the following is correct for resultant of (a) the bottom of the swing
balanced forces? [2011-II] (b) the two extremities of the swing
(a) It is zero (b) It is non-zero (c) every point on the swing
(c) It varies continuously (d) None of the above (d) no particular portion of the pendulum
Mechanics G-11
67. An iron ball and a wooden ball of the same radius are released (c) The speed is uniform and the particle is moving on a
from a height ‘H’ in vacuum. The time taken to reach the circular path
ground will be [2012-II] (d) The speed is non-uniform and the particle is moving
(a) more for the iron ball on a straight line path
(b) more for the wooden ball 75. A car is moving with a uniform speed. However its momentum
(c) equal for both is changing. Then the car [2013-I]
(d) in the ratio of their weights (a) may be on an elliptical path
68. A body weighs 5 kg on equator. At the poles it is likely to
(b) is moving on a straight path without acceleration
weigh [2012-II]
(c) is moving on a straight path with acceleration
(a) 5 kg
(b) less than 5 kg but not zero (d) is moving without any acceleration
(c) 0 kg 76. An ant is moving on thin (negligible thickness) circular wire.
(d) more than 5 kg How many coordinates do you require to completely
69. A staircase has 5 steps each 10 cm high and 10 cm wide. describe the motion of the ant ? [2013-I]
What is the minimum horizontal velocity to be given to the (a) One (b) Two
ball so that it hits directly the lowest plane from the top of (c) Three (d) Zero
the staircase ? (g = 10 ms–2) [2012-II] r
77. If d denotes the distance covered by a car in time t and s
(a) 2 ms–1 (b) 1ms–1
denotes the displacement by the car during the same time,
1 -1
(c) 2 ms-1 (d) ms then : [2013-I]
2 r r
70. For a simple pendulum, the graph between T 2 and L (a) d £ | S | (b) d = | S | only
(where T is the time period & L is the length) is [2012-II] r r
(a) straight line passing through origin (c) d ³ | S | (d) d < | S |
(b) parabolic 78. If an object undergoes a uniform circular motion, then its
(c) circle (a) acceleration remains uniform [2013-I]
(d) none of the above (b) velocity changes
71. The displacement of a particle is given by x = cos2 wt. The (c) speed changes
motion is [2013-I]
(d) velcoity remains uniform
(a) simple harmonic
(b) periodic but not simple harmonic 79. A force F is applied on a body (which moves on a straight
(c) non-periodic line) for a duration of 3 s. The momentum of the body
(d) None of the above changes from 10 g cm/s to 40 g cm/s. The magnitude of the
72. A motor vechicle is moving on a circle with a uniform speed. force F is [2013-I]
The net acceleration of the vehicle is [2013-I] (a) 10 dyne (b) 10 newton
(a) zero (c) 120 dyne (d) 12 dyne
(b) towards the centre of circle 80. A particle is moving freely. Then its [2013-I]
(c) away from the centre along the radius of the circle (a) kinetic energy is always greater than zero
(d) perpendicular to the radius and along the velocity
(b) potential energy is greater than zero and kinetic energy
73. An object is undergoing a non-accelerated motion. Its rate
of change of momentum is [2013-I] is less than zero
(a) a non-zero constant (b) zero (c) potential energy is less than zero and kinetic energy is
(c) not a constant (d) None of the above greater than zero
74. The motion of a particle is given by a straight line in the (d) potential energy is zero and kinetic energy is less than
graph given above drawn with displacement (x) and time (t). zero
Which one among the following statements is correct ? 81. The displacement of a particle at time t is given by
[2013-I]
r c
x = ai$ + bt $j + t 2 k$ [2013-I]
2
where a, b and c are positive constants. Then the particle is
(a) accelerated along k$ direction
(b) decelerated along k$ direction
(c) decelerated along $j direction

(a) The velocity of the particle is uniform (d) accelerated along $j direction
(b) The velocity of the particle is non-uniform
EBD_7348
82. Gravitational force shares a common feature with 89. Motion, of a particle can be described in x-direction by
electromagnetic force. In both cases, the force is x = a sin wt, and y-direction by y = b cos wt. The particle is
moving on [2013-II]
[2013-I]
(a) a circular path of radius ‘a’.
(a) between massive and neutral objects (b) a circular path of radius ‘b’.
(b) between charged objects (c) an elliptical path.
(c) a short range (d) a straight line.
(d) a long range
90. x
83. The spread in colours in a rainbow on sky is primarily due to
(a) dispersion of sunlight
(b) reflection of sunlight
(c) refraction of sunlight
(d) total internal reflection of sunlight [2013-I]
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 84-85) : Each of the next two items consists
of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the t
other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements
carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes The plot given above represents displacement ‘x’ of a particle
given below : with time ‘t’. The particle is [2013-II]
Codes: (a) moving with uniform velocity.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct (b) moving with acceleration.
explanation of A (c) moving with deceleration.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct (d) executing a periodic motion.
explanation of A
91. A bullet of mass 20 gm is fired in the horizontal direction
(c) A is true but R is false
with a velocity 150 m/s from a pistol of mass 1 kg. Recoil
(d) A is false but R is true
84. Assertion (A) : An inflated rubber balloon with different loads velocity of the pistol is [2013-II]
tied at the bottom can float at different depths inside water. (a) 3 m/s (b) 3 km/s
Reason (R) : At a particular depth its weight is equal to the (c) 300 m/s (d) 1/3 m/s
weight of the water displaced. [2007-I] 92. v
85. Assertion (A) : Two artificial satellites having different
masses and revolving around the Earth in the same circular
orbit have same speed. [2009-I]
Reason (R) : The speed of a satellite is directly proportional
to the radius of its orbit.
86. The weight of an object may be assigned by using Newton’s
[2013-II]
(a) first law of motion. (b) second law of motion.
(c) third law of motion. (d) laws of gravitation.
87. Power required by a boy of mass 30 kg to run up a staircase t
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
of 40 steps in 10 seconds is [2013-II]
(Height of each step is 15 cm) The plot given above represents the velocity of a particle
(Take g = 10 m/s2) (in m/s) with time (in seconds). Assuming that the plot
(a) 1800 Watt (b) 180 Watt represents a semi-circle, distance traversed by the particle
at the end of 7 seconds is approximately. [2013-II]
(c) 18000 Watt (d) 18 Watt
(a) 19 m (b) 7 m
88. A piece of paper and a coin both having the same mass are (c) 3.2 m (d) 4.75 m
dropped from the 10th floor of building. The piece of paper 93. Suppose we have an iron nail and an iron ball of same mass.
would take more time to reach the ground because
When submerged in water, the iron ball may float but the
[2013-II] nail alway sinks. This is because [2013-II]
(a) gravitational pull on the paper is less than the coin. (a) buoyant force on the ball is larger than that of the nail
(b) buoyant force on the piece of paper is more than that due to their shapes.
on the coin. (b) viscous force on the ball is higher.
(c) buoyant force on the coin is more and acts in the (c) viscous force on the nail is higher.
downward direction. (d) gravitational force affects the ball differently from the
(d) the piece of paper takes a longer path to reach the ground. nail.
Mechanics G-13
(b) Heavier on Planet B than on Planet A

94. v (c) Same on both the Planets
(d) Cannot be measured on Planet B
99. A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin upward which
falls behind him. It implies that the motion of the train is
[2014-I]
(a) accelerated (b) uniform
(c) retarded (d) along the circular tracks
100. How many cubic centimeters (cm3) are in a cubic metre (m3)?
[2014-I]
(a) 103 (b) 106
t (c) 109 (d) 1012
t=0 101. If the distance S covered by a moving car in rectilinear motion
with a speed v in time t is given by S = vt, then the car
Which one among the following situation is best
undergoes [2014-I]
represented by the velocity - time plot shown above?
(a) a uniform acceleration
[2013-II]
(b) a non-uniform acceleration
(a) Uniform motion of a particle on a circle
(c) a uniform velocity
(b) Accelerated motion of a particle which has a non-zero
(d) a non-uniform velocity
initial velocity
(c) Decelerated motion of a particle which has an initial DIRECTION(Q. 102): The following item consists of two
non-zero velocity statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine
(d) Decelerated motion of a particle which has no initial these two statements carefully and select the answers to these
velocity items using the code given below. [2014-II]
DIRECTION(Q. 95): The following item consist of two Code:
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these the correct explanation of Statement I.
items using the code given below: [2014-I] (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is
not the correct explanation of Statement I.
95. Statement I: The acceleration due to gravity decreases with (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
increase in height from the surface of the Earth. (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Statement II: The acceleration due to gravity is inversely 102. Statement I: A body moving in a circular path is acted upon
proportional to the square of the distance from the centre of by the centripetal force.
the Earth. Statement II: Centripetal force acting on the body is doing
96. Bernoulli’s principle is based on which one among the work to keep it rotating in the circular path.
following laws? [2014-I] 103. If the motion of an object is represented by a straight line
(a) Conservation of mass parallel to the time axis in a distance-time graph, then the
(b) Conservation of momentum object undergoes [2014-II]
(c) Conservation of angular momentum (a) an acceleration motion
(d) Conservation of energy (b) a decelerated motion
(c) a uniform non-zero velocity motion
97. (d) a zero velocity motion
x r
104. A force F acting on an electric charge q, in presence of an
electromagnetic field, moves the charge parallel to the
t r r ur
magnetic field with velocity v . The F is equal to (where E
ur
The displacement (x)-time (t) graph given above and B are electric field and magnetic field respectively)
approximately represents the motion of a [2014-I]
ur r ur
(a) simple pendulum placed in a vacuum (a) qE (
(b) q v ´ B ) [2014-II]
(b) simple pendulum immersed in water
(c) simple pendulum placed in outer space r ur ur
(d) point mass moving in air (c) (
q v´E ) (d) qB
98. Planet A has double the radius than that of Planet B. If the 105. Two bodies A and B having masses m and 4m respectively
mass of Planet A is 4 times heavier than the mass of Planet B, are moving with equal linear momentum. The ratio of kinetic
which of the following statements regarding weight of an energies between A and B is [2014-II]
object is correct? [2014-I] (a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1
(a) Heavier on Planet A than on Planet B (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
EBD_7348
106. A force apllied on a body is represented as Code :
r
F = 6iˆ - 8jˆ + 10kˆ and accelerates it at 1 m/s2. The mass of (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement
II is the correct explanation of Statement I
the body is [2014-II]
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement
(a) 10 kg (b) 10 2kg II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(c) 2 10kg (d) 8 kg (d) Statement I is true but Statement II is true
107. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r at a constant 113. Statement I : A body weighs less on a hill top than on earth's
speed v. Which one of the following graphs correctly surface even though its mass remains unchanged.
represents its acceleration a? [2014-II] Statement II : The acceleration due to gravity of the earth
a a decreases with height.
114. If radius of the earth were to shrink by 1%, its mass remaining
the same, g would decrease by nearly [2015-I]
(a) 1% (b) 2% (c) 3% (d) 4%
(a) (b) 115. The displacement-time graph of a particle acted upon by a
constant force is [2015-I]
r r
(a) a straight line
a a (b) a circle
(c) a parabola
(d) any curve depending upon initial conditions
116. Which one of the following is not a result of surface tension?
(c) (d)
[2015-I]
r r (a) Nearly spherical drop of rain
108. Two cars A and B have masses mA and mB respectively, with (b) Capillary rise
mA > mB. Both the cars are moving in the same direction with (c) Removal of dirt by soap or detergent
equal kinetic energy. If equal braking force is applied on (d) Flow of a liquid
both, then before coming to rest [2014-II] 117. A person stands on his two feet over a surface and experiences
(a) A will cover a greater distance a pressure P. Now the person stands on only one foot. He
(b) B will cover a greater distance
would experience a pressure of magnitude [2015-I]
(c) both will cover the same distance
(d) distance covered by them will depend on their 1
respective velocities (a) 4 P (b) P (c) P (d) 2 P
2
109. If the length of the Equator is about 40000 km and the velocity 118. A deep sea diver may hurt his ear drum during diving because
of rotation is about 1700 km per hour, what would be the of [2015-I]
velocity of rotation at the Pole? [2014-II] (a) lack of oxygen (b) high atmospheric pressure
(a) Zero (b) 850 km/hr
(c) high water pressure (d) All of these
(c) 1700 km/hr (d) 3400 km/hr
119. A brass ball is tied to a thin wire and swung so as to move
110. A bullet is fired vertically up from a 400 m tall tower with a
speed 80 m/s. If g is taken as 10 m/s2, the time taken by the uniformly in a horizontal circle. Which of the following
bullet to reach the ground will be [2014-II] statements in this regard is/are true? [2015-II]
(a) 8 s (b) 16 s 1. The ball moves with constant velocity
(c) 20 s (d) 24 s 2. The ball moves with constant speed
111. The densities of three liquids are D, 2D and 3D. What will be 3. The ball moves with constant acceleration
the density of the resulting mixture if equal volumes of the 4. The magnitude of the acceleration of the ball is
three liquids are mixed? [2014-II] constant
(a) 6D (b) 1.4D Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) 2D (d) 3D (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
112. A particle is moving with uniform acceleration along a straight (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 only
line ABC, where AB = BC. The average velocity of the particle 120. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
from A to B is 10 m/s and from B to C is 15 m/s. The average [2015-II]
velocity for the whole journey from A to C in m/s is (a) If the velocity and acceleration have opposite sign,
[2014-II] the object is slowing down
(a) 12 (b) 12.5 (b) If the velocity is zero at an instant, the acceleration
(c) 13 (d) 13.5 should also be zero at that instant
DIRECTION(Q. 113): The following item consist of two (c) If the velocity is zero for a time interval; the acceleration
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine is zero at any instant within the time interval
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these (d) If the position and velocity have opposite sign, the
items using the code given below : [2015-I] object is moving towards the origin
Mechanics G-15
121. The following figure represents the velocity-time graph of a distance of separation between them unchanged, the force
moving car on a road: [2015-II] would become [2016-I]
1
(a) F (b) 2F (c) 4F (d) F
4
128. A body has a free fall from a height of 20 m. After falling
Velocity (m/s)
through a distance of 5 m, the body would [2016-I]

A B (a) lose one-fourth of its total energy
D (b) lose one-fourth of its potential energy
(c) gain one-fourth of its potential energy
C (d) gain three-fourth of its total energy
129. Mass of a particular amount of substance [2016-I]
OTime (s) 1. is the amount of matter present in it.
2. does not vary from place to place.
Which segment of the graph represents the retardation? 3. changes with change in gravitational force.
(a) AB (b) BC (c) CD (d) None Select the correct answer using the code given below:
122. A man is sitting in a train which is moving with a velocity of (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
60 km/hour. His speed with respect to the train is: (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
[2015-II] 130. Two bodies A and B are moving with equal velocities. The
(a) 10/3 m/s (b) 60 m/s (c) infinite (d) zero mass of B is double that of A. In this context, which one of
123. Conservation of momentum in a collision between particles the following statements is correct? [2016-I]
can be understood on the basis of: [2015-II] (a) Momentum of B will be double that of A.
(b) Momentum of A will be double that of B
(a) Newton 's first law of motion
(c) Momentum of B will be four times that of A.
(b) Newton 's second law of motion only (d) Momenta of both A and B will be equal.
(c) Both Newton's second law of motion and Newton's 131. A glass vessel is filled with water to the rim and a lid is fixed
third law of motion to it tightly. Then it is left inside a freezer for hours. What is
(d) Conservation of energy expected to happen ? [2016-I]
124. Two forces, one of 3 newton and another of 4 newton are (a) The water freezes to ice and the level of ice comes down
applied on a standard 1 kg body, placed on a horizontal and (b) The water in the glass vessel simply freezes to ice
frictionless surface, simultaneously along the x-axis and the (c) The glass vessel breaks due to expansion as water
y-axis, respectively, as shown below: [2015-II] freezes to ice
(d) The water does not freeze at all
132. A racing car accelerates on a straight road from rest to a
y-axis
speed of 50 m/s in 25 s. Assuming uniform acceleration of

the car throughout, the distance covered in this time will be
[2016-I]
(a) 625 m (b) 1250 m (c) 2500 m (d) 50 m
F1 = 3N 133. A man weighing 70 kg is coming down in a lift. If the cable of
x-axis the lift breaks suddenly, the weight of the man would
become [2016-I]
F2 = 4N (a) 70 kg (b) 35 kg (c) 140 kg (d) zero
134. The impulse on a particle due to a force acting on it during
a given time interval is equal to the change in its [2016-I]
The magnitude of the resultant acceleration is: (a) force (b) momentum
(a) 7 m/s2 (b) 1 m/s2 (c) 5 m/s2 (d) 7 m/s2 (c) work done (d) energy
125. In SI unit of force 'Newton' (N) is given by (where m stands 135. The motion of a car along a straight path is shown by the
following figure: [2016-I]
for metre and S stands for second): [2015-II]
(a) lN = 1kg/ms2" (b) 1N = 1 kgm/s2 O A B C
(c) 1N = 1 kg s2/m (d) 1N = 1 kg m s2 km
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55 60
126. The acceleration due to gravity 'g' for objects on or near the
surface of earth is related to the universal gravitational The car starts O and reaches at A, B and C at different
constant 'G' as ('M' is the mass of the earth and 'R' is its instants of time. During its motion from O to C and back to
radius): [2015-II] B, the distance covered and the magnitude of the
displacement are, respectively
M M
(a) G = g 2 (b) g = G 2 (a) 25 km and 60 km (b) 95 km and 35 km
R R (c) 60 km and 25 km (d) 85 km and 35 km
gG gG 136. The speed of a car travelling on a straight road is listed
(c) M= 2 (d) R = below at successive intervals of 1 is : [2017-I]
R M2 Time (s) 0 1 2 3 4
127. Suppose the force of gravitation between two bodies of Speed (m/s) 0 2 4 6 8
equal masses is F. If each mass is doubled keeping the
EBD_7348
Which of the following is/are correct? (a) The centripetal acceleration of the object is smaller for
The car travels a gentle curve (i.e., curve of larger radius) than that for
1. with a uniform acceleration of 2 m/s2. a sharp curve (i.e., curve of smaller radius).
2. 16 m in 4 s. (b) The centripetal acceleration is greater for a gentle
3. with an average speed of 4 m/s. curve than that for a sharp curve.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) The centripetal acceleration is the same for both, the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only gentle and sharp curves.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only
(d) The centripetal acceleration causes the object to slow
137. The following figure shows displacement versus time curve
for a particle executing simple harmonic motion : [2017-I] down.
143. The force acting on a particle of mass m moving along the
x-axis is given by F (x) = Ax2 – Bx.
Displacement
Which one of the following is the potential energy of the

particle? [2017-II]
x2
(a) 2Ax – B (b) - (2Ax - B)
0 2 4 6 8 10 6
Time (s)
(c) Ax3 – Bx2 (d) Zero
144. In a vacuum, a five-rupee coin, a feather of a sparrow bird
and a mango are dropped simultaneously from the same
height. The time taken by them to reach the bottom it t1, t2
and t3 respectively. In this situation, we will observe that
Which one of the following statements is correct? [2017-II]
(a) Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 1 s (a) t1>t 2>t 3 (b) t1>t 3>t 2
and t = 3 s (c) t3>t 1>t 2 (d) t1=t 2=t 3
(b) Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 2 s 145. If some object is weighed when submerged in water, what
and t = 8 s will happen to its weight compared to its weight in air?
(c) Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 3 s
[2017-II]
and t = 7 s
(d) Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 4 s (a) Increase
and t = 10 s (b) Decrease
138. The time period of a simple pendulum made using a thin (c) Remain exactly the same
copper wire of length L is T. Suppose the temperature of (d) Increase or decrease cannot be predicted
the room in which this simple pendulum is placed increases 146. Which one of the following statements about energy is
by 30°C, what will be the effect on the time period of the correct? [2017-II]
pendulum? [2017-I] (a) Energy can be created as well as destroyed.
(a) T will increase slightly (b) Energy can be created but not destroyed.
(b) T will remain the same (c) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
(c) T will decrease slightly (d) Energy cannot be created but can be destroyed.
(d) T will become more than 2 times 147. If an object moves with constant velocity then which one of
139. Which one of the following physical quantity has the same
the following statements is NOT correct? [2018-I]
unit as that of pressure? [2017-I]
(a) Angular momentum (b) Stress (a) Its motion is along a straight line
(c) Strain (d) Work (b) Its speed changes with time
140. Which one of the following statements is true for the (c) Its acceleration is zero
Gm1m 2 (d) its displacement increases linearly with time
relation F = ? (All symbols have their usual 148. An object is moving with uniform acceleration a. Its initial
r2 velocity is u and after time t its velocity is v. The equation of
meanings) [2017-I]
its motion is v = u + at. The velocity (along y-axis) time
(a) The quantity G depends on the local value of g,
acceleration due to gravity (along x-axis) graph shall be a straight line [2018-I]
(b) The quantity G is greatest at the surface of the Earth (a) passing through origin (b) with x-intercept u
(c) The quantity G is used only when earth is one of the (c) with y-intercept u (d) with slope u
two masses 149. Which one of the following has maximum inertia? [2018-I]
(d) The quantity G is a universal constant (a) An atom (b) A molecule
141. Why is it difficult to measure the coefficient of expansion (c) A one-rupee coin (d) A cricket ball
of a liquid than solid? [2017-I] 150. Which one of the following statements about gravitational
(a) Liquids tend to evaporate at all temperatures force is NOT correct? [2018-I]
(b) Liquids conduct more heat
(a) It is experienced by all bodies in the universe
(c) Liquids expand too much when heated
(d) Their containers also expand when heated (b) It is a dominant force between celestial bodies
142. An object moves in a circular path with a constant speed. Which (c) It is a negligible force for atoms
one of the following statements is correct? [2017-II] (d) It is same for all pairs of bodies in our universe
Mechanics G-17
151. Whether an object will float or sink in a liquid, depends on

(a) q = sin -1 (1/ 9.8 ) (b) q = sin -1 (1/ 20)
[2018-I]
(a) mass of the object only (c) q = sin -1 (1/ 80 ) (d) q = sin -1 (1/100 )
(b) mass of the object and density of liquid only
158. The coefficient of a real expansion of a material is 1.6 × 10 –5
(c) difference in the densities of the object and liquid
K–1. Which one of the following gives the value of
(d) mass and shape of the object only
coefficient of volume expansion of this material? [2018-II]
152. Which one of the following statements about the mass of a
(a) 0.8 × 10–5 K–1 (b) 2.4 × 10–5 K–1
body is correct? [2018-I]
(c) 3.2 × 10 K
–5 –1
(d) 4.8 × 10–5 K–1
(a) It changes from one place to another
159. Which one of the following energy is stored in the links
(b) It is same everywhere
between the atoms ? [2019-I]
(c) It depends on its shape
(d) It does not depend on its temperature (a) Nuclear energy (b) Chemical energy
153. A ball balanced on a vertical rod is an example of (c) Potential energy (d) Thermal energy
[2018-I] 160. The correct sequence of energy transfer that occurs when
(a) stable equilibrium (b) unstable equilibrium an apple falls to the ground is [2019-I]
(c) neutral equilibrium (d) perfect equilibrium (a) Gravitational potential energy ® heat energy to air
154. Which of the following statements about a fluid at rest in a ® kinetic energy ® heat energy to ground and apple
cup is/are correct? [2018-I] ® sound energy
1. Pressure is same at all the points in the fluid. (b) Gravitational potential energy ® sound energy
2. Pressureis exerted on the walls. ® kinetic energy ® heat energy to air ® heat energy
3. Pressure exists everywhere in the fluid. to ground and apple
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) Gravitational potential energy ® kinetic energy ® heat
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only energy to air ® heat energy to ground and apple
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 ®sound energy
(d) Gravitational potential energy ® kinetic energy
155. A planet has a mass M1 and radius R1. The value of acceleration
®sound energy ® heat energy to air ® heat energy
due to gravity on its surface is g1. There is another planet 2,
to ground and apple
whose mass and radius both are two times that of the first
planet. Which one of the following is the acceleration due to 161. Which one of the following forces is non-central and non-
gravity on the surface of planet 2? [2018-II] conservative ? [2019-I]
(a) Frictional force (b) Electric force
(a) g1 (b) 2g1 (c) g1/2 (d) g1/4 (c) Gravitational force (d) Mechanical force
156. Consider the following velocity and time graph: 162. Suppose there are two planets, 1 and 2, having the same
Velocity density but their radii are R1 and R2 respectively, where
(m/s) R1 > R2. The accelerations due to gravity on the surface of
5 these planets are related as [2019-I]
(a) g1 > g2 (b) g1 < g2
4 (c) g1 = g2 (d) Can’t say anything
163. 1 dyne (a unit of force in CGS system) equals to [2019-I]
4 8 (a) 103 g cm/s2 (b) 10–3 g cm/s2
12 16 Time (s)
(c) 105 kg cm/s2 (d) 10–5 kg cm/s2
Which one of the following is the value of average
acceleration from 8 s to 12 s? [2018-II] V
164.
(a) 8 m/s 2
(b) 12 m/s 2
(Velocity)
(c) 2 m/s 2
(d) –1 m/s2 A D
157. A ball is released from rest and rolls down an inclined
plane, as shown in the following figure, requiring 4s to
cover a distance of 100 cm along the plane: B C
t
(time)
In the given velocity (V) versus time (t) graph, accelerated

and decelerated motions are respectively represented by
q line segments [2019-I]
Which one of the following is the correct value of angle q (a) CD and BC (b) BC and AB
that the plane makes with the horizontal? (g = 1000 cm/s2) (c) CD and AB (d) AD and CD
[2018-II]
EBD_7348
ANSWER KEY
1 (d) 18 (c) 35 (c) 52 (b) 69 (b) 86 (d) 103 (d) 120 (b) 137 (c) 154 (d)
2 (c) 19 (c) 36 (d) 53 (a) 70 (a) 87 (b) 104 (a) 121 (b) 138 (a) 155 (c)
3 (a) 20 (c) 37 (d) 54 (a) 71 (a) 88 (b) 105 (b) 122 (d) 139 (b) 156 (d)
4 (c) 21 (c) 38 (b) 55 (c) 72 (b) 89 (c) 106 (b) 123 (c) 140 (d) 157 (c)
5 (c) 22 (d) 39 (b) 56 (c) 73 (b) 90 (b) 107 (d) 124 (c) 141 (d) 158 (b)
6 (b) 23 (c) 40 (d) 57 (b) 74 (a) 91 (a) 108 (b) 125 (b) 142 (a) 159 (b)
7 (c) 24 (c) 41 (a) 58 (d) 75 (a) 92 (a) 109 (a) 126 (b) 143 (b) 160 (c)
8 (c) 25 (b) 42 (a) 59 (b) 76 (b) 93 (a) 110 (c) 127 (c) 144 (d) 161 (a)
9 (c) 26 (b) 43 (b) 60 (a) 77 (c) 94 (c) 111 (c) 128 (b) 145 (b) 162 (a)
10 (c) 27 (a) 44 (b) 61 (a) 78 (b) 95 (a) 112 (a) 129 (b) 146 (c) 163 (d)
11 (d) 28 (b) 45 (d) 62 (a) 79 (a) 96 (d) 113 (a) 130 (a) 147 (a) 164 (c)
12 (d) 29 (c) 46 (c) 63 (b) 80 (a) 97 (b) 114 (*) 131 (c) 148 (c)
13 (b) 30 (d) 47 (c) 64 (d) 81 (a) 98 (c) 115 (c) 132 (a) 149 (d)
14 (c) 31 (d) 48 (a) 65 (b) 82 (d) 99 (a) 116 (d) 133 (d) 150 (d)
15 (a) 32 (c) 49 (d) 66 (b) 83 (a) 100 (b) 117 (d) 134 (b) 151 (c)
16 (a) 33 (c) 50 (d) 67 (c) 84 (a) 101 (c) 118 (c) 135 (d) 152 (b)
17 (c) 34 (c) 51 (c) 68 (d) 85 (c) 102 (c) 119 (d) 136 (a) 153 (a)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (d) Since the surface is frictionless, force exerted by the 6. (b) We know that,
rope on the block is the pulling force i.e., F. 1 2 2 2
2. (c) The weight W of a body is given by, W = mg E= mn2 Þ E = m n = p
2 2m 2m
Where m is the mass of the body which remains
constant everywhere and g is the acceleration due to Þ p = 2mE Þ p a E
gravity which varies as the place where the body is
available. a1
7. (c) Given that, a 2 =
On moving upwards from earth surface, g gradually 5
decreases and becomes zero where the forces of Here force will remains constnat, then,
attraction of earth and of moon cancel each other. This
results that the weight of body is zero. Further, moving a1
Þ m1a1 = (m1 + m2) a2 Þ m1a1 = (m1 + m 2 )
to the moon, g gradually increases till it reaches the 5
moon surface. Þ 4m1 = m2
3. (a) Thus, the gravitational force F between two bodies is
directly proportional to the product of masses of those \ Required ratio = m1 = 1
bodies. Here, since the product m 1m2 is greater for the m2 4
sun and the moon than that of the earth and the moon 8. (c)
(because mass of the sun is greater than that of earth),
therefore F exerted by the sun on the moon is greater
than the F exerted by the earth on the moon.
4. (c) We know that when a particle is thrown vertically T a
upward with a velocity u from a point A, the particle
T
returns the point A with the same velocity u.
Now, using the fact n 2 = u2 + 2gh, we obtain a
12u 2 5g
n 2 = u 2 + 2g ´ 2 2 2
g Þ n = u + 24u 10g
Þ n = 5u For 10 kg mass
5. (c) Graph (c) shows that the particle starts from rest in 10g – T = 10 a ...(i)
circular motion such that the displacement is zero. For 5 kg mass
Mechanics G-19
T – 5g = 5a ...(ii) 21. (c) Let the car takes t seconds from its start to meet the
From (i) and (ii), we get bus. Distance travelled by the bus in t seconds,
s = 12 t
5g g
a= = distance travelled by the car in t seconds,
15 3
1 2 1
10. (c) In tug of war between two teams, if equilibrium exists, s= at = ´ 1.2 ´ t 2
then tensile force is equal to either of two equal forces. 2 2
11. (d) Workdone is given by, w = F s cos q 1 12 ´ 2
where q is the angle between the directions of force Hence, 12 t = ´ 1.2 ´ t 2 or, =t
applied and displacement. 2 1.2
In cases 1 and 3, q = 0 or, t = 20 seconds.
\ work done = 0 22. (d) Let the total distance covered by the body be S. Then
In case 2., w = f s cos 0 = mgh, h being height covered. time taken to cover half the distance with
In case 4, force is always perpendicular to motion velocity v1 is
i.e., q = 90°, hence w = 0 (S/ 2) S
12. (d) For a given point on the surface of earth, g decreases t1 = =
v1 2v1
as w increases. Hence, body weighs less at the equator
than at the poles also equatorial diameter is greater Also, time taken to cover next half distance with velocity
than polar diameter, v2 is
GM (S/ 2) S
, value of g decreases. t2 = =
so according to g = v2 2v2
R2
13. (b) Specific gravity remains same in all systems of units. Now,
Total distance S
W 18kJ 18 ´103 Average velocity = =
14. (c) We know P = = = = 300W Total time taken t1 + t 2
t 60 60
15. (a) p = 2ME S 2 2v1v 2
= = =
S S 1 1 v 1 + v2
Dp 1 æ DE ö + +
\ ´ 100 = ç ´ 100 ÷ Þ 5 = 1 æç DE ´ 100 ö÷ 2v1 2v 2 v1 v2
p 2è E ø 2è E ø 23. (c) The multiplier for the given units are as follows :
\ AE × 100 = 10% Angstrom 10– 10
16. (a) u = 24m/s, a = –3m/s2 Micron 10–6
Using the relation, u2 = x2 +2as Nanometer 10– 9
576 Hence, the order in which the lengths of the given
0 = (24)2 + 2(–3)s or 0 = 576 – 65 or = 96m units increase is given by
6
Angstrom, Nanometer, Micron
17. (c) In this case only linear momentum is conserved.
Therefore, the correct sequence is 1, 3, 2.
18. (c) As the mass M is accelerating downwards
24. (c) When a ball is thrown upward, its acceleration always
Hence, the net force,
remains constant which is equal to the acceleration
Mg 3 due to gravity.
F = Mg –Ma = Mg - = Mg
4 4 25. (b) The net external torque ( rt ) is defined as the rate of
Thus the work done by the cord on the block in moving r
change of angular momentum ( L ). That is
the distance d. r
r dL
3 t=
W = F. S = Mgd. dt
4 r
r
19. (c) Using the equation of uniformly accelerated motion, Thus, if t becomes zero, L remains constant.
v2 = u2 + 2as 26. (b) Distance covered by light in vacuum in 1year is
As the body starts from rest, u = 0 called light year.
1 ligth year = 9.46 × 1015m
Thus v2 = 2as or v2 µ s or v µ s
27. (a) Energy supplied per unit time is called power. i.e.,
Hence, the graph between v and s is a rectangular
hyperbola. energy
power =
20. (c) Let h be the height upto which the ball rebounds after Time
loosing 25% of its kinetic energy. 28. (b) A long jumper runs before jumping because to maintain
75 momentum conservation or to increase initial speed.
mgh' = (mgh) 29. (c) In simple harmonic motion, acceleration µ
100
displacement.
75 75
or, h' = ´h = ´ 24 = 18 m.
100 100
EBD_7348
Hence, the necessary condition for simple harmonic 45. (d) The first result occurs because the ball has inertia.
motion is that displacement and acceleration should 46. (c) The product of velocity and time ie, distance covered
be proportional. represents the area of the shaded portion.
30. (d) There is no centrifugal force at the poles. 47. (c) The body is at rest on the surface of earth because net
9.8 downward force is equal to the net upward force.
31. (d) Required mass = = 1kg 48. (a) By reducing the length of the pendulum we can bring it
9.8
to the standard beat.
32. (c) If a light body and a heavy body have equal momentum,
49. (d) According to Newtons II nd law of motion
the kinetic energy of the lighter body is equal to the
kinetic energy of the heavier body. m (v - u )
33. (c) T = m(g + a) = 5 (9.8 + 0.3) = 50.5N F = ma Þ F =
t
\ The rate of change of its kinetic energy varies
inversely with time.
x 6 ´ 10 –2
34. (c) We know, T = zp = 2p = 0.49s Speed of body in any medium
g 10 50. (d) Mach Number =
35. (c) If the gravitational pull of the earth on the book is the Speed of sound in that medium
force of action, then the force of reaction is exerted by According to question
the table on the book. velocity of jet plane
36. (d) a = bt + l [a-meter, t-second] 2=
332
m 664 m/s = Velocity of jet plane.
b= = ms –1
s 51. (c) Newtons third law of motion apply here because as the
37. (d) The spring constant k is inversely proportional to the person move to the shore in forward direction, the force
spring length on the boat moves it backwards.
1 52. (b) This is due to moment of inertia which is explained by
kµ Newtons first law of motion. With the application of
l
brakes, the bus slows down but our body tends to
When a spring of length l is cut in two pieces of length
l1 and l2 such that l1 = nl2 continue in the same rate of motion because of its
The constant of spring is k, then spering constant of inertia.
first part 54. (a) Let mass of A = m
\ mass of B = 4 m
k (n + 1) Similarly velocity of A = v
k1 =
n
v
38. (b) We know that \ Velocity of B =
Potential energy = m g h 2
Hence potential energy is maximum at the maximum 1 2
height. K.E. of A = mv ...(i)
2
39. (b) Specific gravity or relative density
2
density of body 1 æ vö
= K.E. of B = 4m ç ÷
density of water 2 è 2ø
So, it has neither unit nor dimension,
1 v2 1
mass [M] = ´ 4m = mv 2 ...(ii)
while density = = 3 = [ML–3 ] 2 4 2
volume [L ] From (i) & (ii) it is clear that
40. (d) Graph in option(d) shows an object moving at a K.E of A = K.E of B.
constant velocity. 55. (c) From the given (x –t) graph it is clear that velocity is
41. (a) Velocity is maximum at mean position and acceleration constant. Therefore, acceleration is zero.
is zero at mean position. r
42. (a) The angular velocity of the man would increases 56. (c) Momentum ( p) is a vector given as
because radius of gyration is decreases. r r
p = mv
43. (b) When a particle revolve in a circular path its acceleration It is conserved for an isolated system i.e. a system on
will be along the radius. which no external force is acting.
44. (b) Tension in the given figure is occurring on two end of Force is given by
wire r r
According to the figure. F = ma
2 T cos q = mg mg
So, momentum and force are different.
mg
57. (b) In a stationray lift, weight of the man
T= W = mg where m is the mass of the man
2cos q When the lift is moving downwards with uniform
\ It is clearly understood that tension will be less than mg. acceleration ‘a’ than weight
Mechanics G-21
W1 = m (g – a)
1 1
Given, Þ x= + cos 2wt
2 2
W 3 This is the equation of S.H.M.
=
W1 2 72. (b) Acceleration acting on the object undergoing uniform
circular motion is called centripetal acceleration
mg 3
Þ = v2
m ( g - a) 2 ac =
r
Þ 2g = 3g – 3a
A particle moving in a circle require centripetal force.
g This is always towards the centre.
Þ a=
3 v 2 - v1
58. (d) At maximum height velocity is zero. 73. (b) As acceleration i.e. rate of change of velocity
t
59. (b) Force acting on a body of mass m is given by
F = mg is zero so force is zero. Thus rate of change of
Here, m= 1 kg (v 2 - v1 )
\ F= g momentum M is zero. Thus momentum is
t
= 9.8 N constant.
60. (a) Two simple harmonic oscillators remain in phase if they 74. (a) Slope is constant, and the slope of x, t graph gives
have equal time periods. velocity, so velocity is constant i.e. uniform.
61. (a) Forces are said to be zero if their resultant is zero. 75. (a) As momentum (p = m.v) is changing so velocity is
62. (a) As the body moves in uniform circular motion so crests changing.
and troughs are visible in curves. Here speed is constant, so direction of velocity
63. (b) Mass is independent of gravity. It remains constant changes. Thus it cannot be a straight line path and it
everywhere. Hence the balance will read the same 10 kg. should be accelerated.
64. (d) Points B and D 76. (b) Circular motion is a two dimensional motion. Hence two
65. (b) One feels heavier in a lift when the lift just begins to go coordinates require to describe the motion of that ant.
up because our body gains inertia from the position of 77. (c) Displacement is the shortest distance. The magnitude
rest and pushes up against the gravity so here the of displacement is always less than or equal to distance
weight becomes zero and our mass makes us feel r
heavier. i.e. | S | £ d (distance).
66. (b) Pendulum, an object connected to a fixed support in 78. (b) In uniform circular motion direction of velocity changes
such a way that it is free to swing back and forth under but magnitude remains constant. Due to change in
the influence of gravity. The typical pendulum consists direction velocity changes. Velocity is a vector
of a weight, or bob, and a wire or slender rod by which quantity.
the bob is suspended. At rest, the bob hangs directly Pf - Pi 40 - 10
below the point of support; if the bob is moved from 79. (a) The magnitude of force F = = = 10 dyne
this position and released, gravity causes it to swing t 3
back and forth along a circular arc at the end of the wire 80. (a) As the particle is moving so, kinetic energy (Ek 1/2 mv2)
or rod. When the bob reaches the end of one swing, is always positive i.e. EK > 0.
gravity causes it to begin to fall and gain speed as it 81. (a) x coordinate = a
moves downward. After it passes the lowest point in ycoordinate = bt
the swing, the bob begins to move upward along the c 2
arc. Gravity then causes the bob to slow down until it zcoordinate = t
2
stops and begins to fall again.
67. (c) equal for both dx
velocity along x-axis i.e. is zero
68. (d) A body weighs more at the poles than at the equator, dt
because the earth is not a perfect square, but it is
dy
flattened at the poles. The distance between the velocity along y-axis i.e. is constant
equator and the centre of the earth and the poles; dt
therefore the force of gravitation is more at the poles dz
than at the equator; and so it weighs more at the poles velocity along z-axis i.e. is changing
dt
than equator.
70. (a) straight line passing through origin c
d t2
71. (a) x = cos2wt dz c
= 2 = 2 t = ct
1 + cos 2wt dt dt 2
Þ x= 82. (d) Out of four fundamental forces these two i.e.
2
gravitational force and electromagnetic force are long
1 1 range force whereas weak nuclear force and strong
Þ x– = cos 2wt
2 2 nuclear force are short range force.
EBD_7348
83. (a) Rainbow (a band of seven colours – VIBGYOR) is a 92. (a) Area of the velocity-time plot (graph): represents the
natural spectrum. It is caused by dispersion (i.e. splitting displacement of that object.
of white light into seven constituent colours VIBGYOR)
7
of sunlight by tiny droplete of water present in the Radius of the semi-circle = m
atmosphere. 2
84. (a) The floatotion of a body is dependent upon its density 1 2
with respect to that of the fluid. The density of volume Area of the semi-circle = pr
2
is less that of the load. As increasing the load, the = displacement of the particle
depth of floation of the balloon will be increased. In
other words, at a particular depth its weight is equal to 1 22 7 7
= ´ ´ ´ m = 19.25m
the weight of the water displaced. 2 7 2 2
85. (c) Orbital velocity is independent of the mass of the or- 93. (a) The iron ball, when submerged in water, may float, but
biting body and is always along the tangent of the the nail always sinks. This is because buoyant force
orbit i.e., satellite of different masses have same orbital on the ball is larger than that of the nail due to their
velocity, if they are in the same orbit. For a given planet, shapes.
(v µ 1/ r ). 94. (c) From the graph it is clear that at t = 0 particle has non-
zero velocity and after some time its velocity is zero,
86. (d) Newton’s law of universal gravitation states that every
hence the motion of the particle is decelerated.
point mass in the universe attracts every other point
96. (d) Bernoulli's principle is based on the principle of
mass with a force that is directly proportional to the
conservation of energy. This states that, in a steady
product of their masses and inversely proportional to
flow, the sum of all forms of energy in a fluid along a
the square of the distance between them.
streamline is the same at all points on that streamline.
mm This requires that the sum of kinetic energy, potential
F=G 1 2
r2 energy and internal energy remains constant.
97. (b) When a simple pendulum immersed in water then its
where, F = Force between the masses
oscillations are damped and its wave is cosine wave.
G = Gravitational constant
m1 = First mass GM
m2 = Second mass 98. (c) As we know, g =
R2
r = Distance between the centre of the masses
From question, RA = 2RB and MA = 4MB
87. (b) Force applied = mg = 30 × 10 Newton = 300 Newton.
\ gA = gB
Distance covered in the direction of the force
Hence weight of the object (w = mg) is same on both
= 400 × 15 cm = 6 metres
the planets.
W = F.S
99. (a) It implies that the motion of the train is accelerated.
= 300 Newton × 6 metres
101. (c) As the body moves with a constant speed v along a
= 1800 Newton - metre
straight line or rectilinear path hence body undergoes
= 1800 J
a uniform velocity. Here direction of the moving body
Work is unchanged.
Power = 103. (d) Distance time graph parallel to the time axis.
Time
1800J
=
10seconds
Distance
= 180 joule/second
= 180 watt.
88. (b) The piece of paper would take more time to reach the
ground than a coin because buoyant force on the piece
of paper is more than that on the coin. If piece of paper Time (t)
and coin having the same mass are droped from the
same height in vacuum then both will take the same It is clear from the graph that the position of the object
time to reach the ground. is not changing with the change in time, hence the
object is at rest or in other words we can say that it is
x2 y2 a zero velocity motion.
89. (c) sin 2 wt + cos2 wt = + =1 r
a2 b2 104. (a) Force on the charge q due to electric field E ,
91. (a) 20 gm = 0.02 kg r r
Momentum of the pistol = Momentum of the bullet FE = q E
Þ m1v1 = m2v2 and force on the charge q due to magnetic
Þ 1 × v1 = 0.02 × 150 v
Þ v1 = 3 m/s field B,
B
Mechanics G-23
r r r r Þ DPA < DPB Þ Fext DtA < Fext DtB
FB = q(v ´ B) Þ FB = qvB sin θ
Þ DtA < DtB [equal braking force is hence on
r r comparing time DtA and DtB]
In the given case v || B
r we can say that car B will cover a greater distance.
Þ q = 0° Þ FB = 0 109. (a) Using Ve = ReW
r 1700 km/h = 20000 × W
Hence, the force F acting on the charge q is equal to
r r 1700 17
FE = qE W= = rotation/hour
20000 200
105. (b) The relation between linear momentum (P) and kinetic Velocity of rotation of pole,
P2 Vp = Rp
energy (K) is K = RP = 0 Þ VP = 0
2m
110. (c) Total time taken to reach the ground T = t1 + t2 + t3
P2 P2 u = 80 m/s
K A = A and K B = B
2m 2(4m)
A
K A P 8m 2 t1 t2
= ´ A
[PA = PB, given] u = 80 m/s
K B 2m PB2
B
KA 4 u = 80 m/s
= = 4 :1
KB 1
r 400 m t3
106. (b) F = 61ˆ - 8jˆ +10kˆ
r
| F |= (6) 2 + ( -8) 2 + (10) 2
C Ground
= 36 + 64 + 100 = 10 2 N
r Velocity of the bullet at point A,
| a |= 1 m / s 2
VA = 0 m/s.
using F = ma a = – 10 m/s
Þ 10 2 = m ´ 1 V = u + at
0 = 80 – 10 t1
m = 10 2 kg t1 = 8s
107. (d) The given situation is uniform circular motion. In this t2 = t1 (as there is no air resistance)
Calculation for t3
v2 r
case, the centripetal acceleration a c = as | v | is Velocity of the bullet at point B,
r VB = u = 80 m/s
1 h = 400m
constant Þ a µ . Hence, the graph between 'a' and
r 1 2
'r' is Using s = ut + at
2
1
Þ 400 = 80 × t3 + ´10 ´ t3
2
2
Þ 5t32 + 80t3 - 400 = 0
a
Þ t32 + 16t3 - 80 = 0
Þ t3 (t3 + 20) - 4(t3 + 20) = 0
r t3 = – 20s or t3 = 4s
Time cannot be negative hence neglecting t 3 = – 20s
P2 Total time T = 8 + 8 + 4 = 20 s
108. (b) Using KE =
2m 111. (c) If equal volume of liquids of density r1, r2 ....rn are
mixed the density of the mixture is equal to the
PA2 P2
= B [KEA = KEB given ] arithmetic mean of liquid densities r1, r2 ....rn.
2 m A 2 mB i.e., rmix = r1 + r2 + --- + rn
PA < PB [as, mA > mB] x
Now from Newton's second law 112. (a)
DP A B C
Fext = Þ DP = Fext Dt V1= 10 m/s V2 = 15 M/S
Dt
EBD_7348
Average velocity of whole journey force which is directly proportional to the product of
their masses and inversely proportional to the square
x
Vav = of the distance between them. Therefore mass is
T doubled then the force acting between them F, will
x x x become 4F.
Vav = = = 128. (b) According to law of conservation of energy total
t AB +t BC x x x x
+ + energy remains conserved.
2V1 2V2 20 30
P.E. = mgh = 20 mg
20 ´ 30 600 Loss in potential energy is observed, as
Vav = = = 12 m/s (P.E.)1 = mgh = 5mg
20 + 30 50 (P.E)1/(P.E) = 5mg/20mg = 1/4
113. (a) Mass is an invariant quantity. Acceleration due to (P.E.)1 = 1/4 P.E
gravity (g) decreases with altitude as one rises above 129. (b) Mass of a particular amount of substance depends on
the Earth's surface because greater altitude means the amount of matter present in it and it does not vary
greater distance from the Earth's centre. from place to place.
Weight , w = mass (m) × acc. due to gravity (g) 130. (a) As we know
2 Momentum P = mv
æ hö
gheight = g / ç1+ ÷ . Since, VA= VB= V, and m0 = 2mA
è Rø for A, PA = mAvA
Hence body weighs less on hill top than on earth's for B PB = (2mA) vA
surface. PB = 2PA
114. (*) If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, 131. (c) When water freezes to ice its volume increases, so if it
mass remaining the same, the value of g will increase is kept in glass vessel in a freezer it may break the
by 2%. vessel.
GM 132. (a) a = v/t = 50/25 = 2m/s2
g= S = Ut + 1/2at2
R2 = 0 + 1/2 × 2 × 25 × 25
1 = 625 m
If mass remains constant, then g µ 133. (d) If the cable of the lift breaks suddenly the weight of the
R2 man would become zero because the system would all
% increase in g = 2 (% decrease in R) begin to accelerate downward due to the force of
= 2 × 1% = 2% gravity. All objects in the freefall accelerate downward
Therefore value of g will increase by 2%. with the same magnitude.
115. (c) Constant force means constant acceleration. 134. (b) The impulse-momentum theorem states that the change
Now s = ut +1/2 at2. in momentum of an object equals the impulse applied
It represents a parabola. to it.
116. (d) Surface tension is the elastic tendency of liquids which 135. (d) Distance covered by the car = OA + AB + BC + CB
makes them acquire the least surface area possible. (a) = 25 + 10 + 25 + 25 = 85Km
(b) and (c) are due to surface tension. Displacement by the car = OB = 35Km
117. (d) Pressure, P= F/A; P' = F/A/2 = 2F/A; P' = 2P 137. (c) Phase of oscillating particle at any instant is a physical
118. (c) As you descend, water pressure increases, and the quantity which completely expresses the position and
volume of air in your body decreases. This can cause direction of motion of particle at that instant with
problems such as sinus pain or a ruptured ear drum. respect to its mean position. Phase of the oscillating
119. (d) Velocity is the vector quantity so it get changed as the particle is same at t = 3 s and t = 7 s.
direction changes. The ball will move with constant 142. (a) The centripetal acceleration of the object is smaller for
speed and magnitude of acceleration of the ball will a gentle curve (i.e., curve of larger radius) than that
also be constant. for a sharp curve (i.e., curve of smaller radius).The
121. (b) BC centripetal acceleration is greater for the sharp curve
122. (d) Zero than for the gentle curve.Centripetal Acceleration,
123. (c) Conservation of momentum in a collision between
ac = v2/r
particles is dependent on both Newton's second law
of motion and Newton's third law of motion. 143. (b) Potential Energy = – ò F(x) dx
124. (c) Final force will be along the Z axis. U(x) = – ò (Ax2 – Bx) dx
F = Ö(3)2 + (4)2
= Ö9 + 16 = Ö25 = 5 x3 x2
Acceleration(a) = F/m = 5/1 = 5m/s2 U(x) = –A +B
3 2
125. (b) SI unit of force kg.m/s2
126. (b) g = GM/R2 U(x) = –x2/6 (2Ax – 3B)
127. (c) According to the universal law of gravitation, 144. (d) In a vacuum, a five-rupee coin, a feather of a sparrow
everybody in the universe attract other body with a bird and a mango are dropped simultaneously from
the same height. The time taken by them to reach the
Mechanics G-25
the same height. The time taken by them to reach the acceleration = g sinq
bottom is t1, t2 and t3 respectively. In this situation, we or, g sinq = 12.5
will observe that - t1 = t2 = t3. or, sinq =12.5/1000 =125/10000 =1/80
145. (b) Decrease q = Sin–1 (1/80)
146. (c) Energy is the quantitative property that must be 158. (b) The increase in the Volume of a body due to the
transferred to an object in order to perform work on, or increase in its temperature is called thermal expansion
to heat, the object. Energy is a conserved quantity; (Volume).
the law of conservation of energy states that energy Coefficient of volume expansion is given by, 3/2 × Coeff.
can be converted in form, but not created or destroyed. of areal expansion
= 3/2 × 1.6 × 10–5 K–1
147. (a) An object has constant velocity means that it is moving
= 2.4 × 10–5 K–1
along a straight line, and as every second of time goes 159. (b) Chemical energy is stored in the links between the
by, the object travels through the same number of meters. atoms. Chemical energy may be released during a
148. (c) An object is moving with uniform acceleration a. Its chemical reaction, often in the form of heat; such
initial velocity is u and after time t its velocity is v. The reactions are called exothermic. Batteries, biomass,
equation of its motion is v = u + at. The velocity (along petroleum, natural gas, and coal are examples of stored
y-axis) time (along x-axis) graph shall be a straight line chemical energy.
with y-intercept u. 160. (c) The correct sequence of energy transfer that occur
when an apple falls to the ground is :
149. (d) A cricket ball has maximum inertia.
Gravitational potential energy ® Kinetic energy
150. (d) The gravitational force is a force that attracts any ® Heat energy to air ® Heat energy to ground and
objects with mass. This is called Newton’s Universal apple ® Sound energy.
Law of Gravitation. The gravitational force on Earth is 161. (a) Non-conservative forces are dissipative forces such
equal to the force the Earth exerts on you. At rest, on as friction or air resistance. These forces take energy
or near the surface of the Earth, the gravitational force away from the system as the system progresses,
equals your weight. energy that you can’t get back. These forces are path
151. (c) Whether an object will float or sink in a liquid, depends dependent; therefore it matters where the object starts
on difference in the densities of the object and liquid. and stops.
153. (a) A ball balanced on a vertical rod is an example of GM
162. (a) Acceleration due to gravity g =
unstable equilibrium. R2
154. (d) Fluid statics or hydrostatics is the branch of fluid
4
mechanics that studies “fluids at rest and the pressure G r pR 2
g= 3
in a fluid or exerted by a fluid on an immersed body”. It
R2
encompasses the study of the conditions under which
fluids are at rest in stable equilibrium as opposed to 4
g= pG rR
fluid dynamics, the study of fluids in motion. 3
155. (c) The acceleration experienced by the mass M1, on planet Þg µR
1 is given by As R1 > R2
g1= GM1/R12, g1 > g 2
similarly the g2= G2M1/4 R12, 163. (d) 1 dyne = 1 g cm s–2
hence, g1/ g2= 2/1 or (10–3 kg) (10–2 m) (s–2)
g2= g1/2 10–5 kgm s–2
156. (d) Acceleration is defined as rate of change of velocity 164. (c) In path A ® B velocity is decreasing with time,
with time, hence therefore AB represents deceleration.
a = 4 – 8/4 In path B ® C velocity is constant with time.
= –1 m/s2 In path C ® D velocity is increasing with time,
157. (c) s = ut +1/2 at2 therefore CD represents acceleration.
100 = 0 + ½ a x 42
a = 200/8 = 12.5 cm/s2
EBD_7348
Heat & Thermodynamics

3
1. The thermal capacity of a substance is 5 cal/°F. What is 8. Evening Sun is not as hot as the mid day sun. What is the
water equivalent of the substance ? reason?
(a) 5g (b) 9 g (a) In the evening, radiation travel slowly
(b) In the evening, the temperature of the sun decreases
25
(c) g (d) 5 kg [2006-I] (c) Ozone in atmosphere absorbs more light in the evening
9 (d) In the evening, radiations travels larger distance
2. Which of the following properties are most desirable for a through atmosphere [2008-I]
cooking pot ? 9. When water is heated from 0°C to 20°C, how does its volume
(a) High specific heat capacity and low conductivity change ?
(b) Low specific heat capacity and high conductivity (a) It shall increase
(c) High specific heat capacity and high conductivity (b) It shall decrease
(d) Low specific heat capacity and low conductivity (c) It shall first increase and then decrease
[2006-II] (d) It shall first decrease and then increase [2008-I]
3. A Centigrade thermometer and Fahrenheit thermometer are 10. A solid is melted (above the melting point) and allowed to
dipped in boiling water. The temperature of water is lowered cool down at normal condition.Its variation of temperature
till the Fahrenheit thermometer registers half of its upper as a function of times is as shown in the figure given below.
fixed point. What is the corresponding fall temperature What is the reason for the plateau(flat position) in the central
registered by the Centrigrade thermometer? region of the cooling curve as shown in the figure?
(a) Half of its range of temperature between the upper and
the lower fixed points
(b) Approximately 41°C Plateau
(c) Approximately 59°C
(d) 18°C [2006-II]
4. Which zone of a candle flame is the hottest ? Temp.
(a) Dark innermost zone (b) Outermost zone
(c) Middle luminous zone (d) Central zone [2006-II]
5. Two spheres of the same metal have radii in the ratio 1 : 2.
Their heat capacities are in what ratio?
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4 Time
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 8 [2007-I] (a) Latent heat of fusion of the solid
6. Two equal amounts of water are mixed by gently pouring (b) Specific heat of the solid
both into an insulated cup. One part is initially at 90°C, and (c) Thermal conductivity of the solid
the other part is initially at Ti °C. If the final temperature of (d) Thermal capacity of the solid. [2008-II]
the mixture is 131°C, what is the value of T ? 11. Which among the following thermometers is preferred for
(a) 90° (b) 68 measuring temperature around 125ºC? [2009-I]
(c) 20 (d) 0 [2007-II] (a) Mercury thermometer
7. Why do two ice blocks join to form one block when pressed (b) Constant volume gas thermometer
together? (c) Optical pyrometer
(a) Melting point of ice is lowered with increase in pressure (d) Platinum resistance thermometer
12. Which one of the following is the amount of heat given up
(b) Melting point of ice increases with increase in pressure
when 20g of stream at 100°C is condensed and cooled to
(c) Melting point of ice remains unchanged with increase
20°C? [2009-I]
in pressure (a) 10000 cal (b) 11400 cal
(d) Melting point of ice is 0°C [2008-I] (c) 12400 cal (d) 13600 cal
Heat & Thermodynamics G-27
13. Which one of the following is the mode of heat transfer in 23. Thermometer A and B have ice points marked at 15° and 25°
which warm material is transported so as to displace a cooler and steam points at 75° and 125° respectively. When
material ? [2009-I] thermometer A measures the temperature of a bath as 60°,
(a) Conduction only the reading of B for the same bath is [2011-II]
(b) Convection only (a) 60° (b) 75°
(c) Radiation (c) 90° (d) 100°
(d) Both conduction and convection
14. 1 gm of ice at 0°C is mixed with 1 gm of steam at 100°C. After D E
24. t
thermal equilibrium, the temperature of the mixture is
B C
[2009-II]
(a) 0 °C (b) 50 °C
A Q
(c) 80 °C (d) 100 °C
15. A fan produces a feeling of comfort during hot weather,
The graph given above indicates change in temperature
because [2010-I]
(Dt) when heat (Q) was given to a substance. Which among
(a) our body radiates more heat in air
(b) fan supplies cool air the following parts of the graph correctly depict the latent
(c) conductivity of air increases heat of the substance? [2012-I]
(d) our perspiration evaporates rapidly (a) AB and BC (b) BC and DE
16. A man with a dark skin, in comparison with a man with a (c) CD and DE (d) DE and AB
white skin, will experience [2010-I] 25. When a solid object is immersed in water, there is a loss in
(a) less heat and less cold its weight. This loss is [2012-I]
(b) less heat and more cold (a) equal to the weight of the water displaced
(c) more heat and less cold (b) less than the weight of the water displaced
(d) more heat and more cold (c) greater than the weight of the water displaced
17. Which one among the following denotes the smallest (d) not related to the weight of the water displaced
temperature? [2010-I] 26. Body A of mass 2 kg and another body B of mass 4 kg and
of same material are kept in the same sunshine for some
(a) 1° on the Celsius scale
interval of time. If the rise in temperature is equal for both
(b) 1° on the Kelvin scale
the bodies, then which one among the following in this
(c) 1° on the Fahrenheit scale
regard is correct? [2012-I]
(d) 1° on the Reaumur scale
(a) Heat absorbed by B is double because its mass is
18. The sun is constantly radiating energy and yet its surface double
temperature is nearly constant at 6000°C. The constancy of (b) Heat absorbed by A is double because its mass is half
solar temperature is due to [2010-II] (c) Heat absorbed by both A and B is equal because the
(a) fission (b) radioactivity quantity of heat absorbed does not depend upon mass
(c) fusion (d) black hole evaporation (d) Heat absorbed by B is four times than the heat absorbed
19. Metal pipes used to carry water sometimes burst in the by A because the quantity of heat absorbed is
winter. This is because [2010-II] proportional to square of the mass
(a) water expands when it freezes 27. For a steel boat floating on a lake, the weight of the water
(b) metal contracts more than water displaced by the boat is [2012-I]
(c) outside of the pipe contracts more than inside (a) less than the weight of the boat
(d) metal expands more than water (b) more than the weight of the boat
20. The surface temperature of the Sun is nearly [2011-I] (c) equal to the weight of the part of the boat which is
(a) 2000 K (b) 4000 K below the water level of the lake
(c) 6000 K (d) 8000 K (d) equal to the weight of the boat
21. In a pressure cooker, cooking is faster because the increases 28. The thermal conductivity of copper is 4 times that of brass.
in vapour pressure [2011-I] Two rods of copper and brass having same length and cross-
(a) increases the specific heat section are joined end to end. The free end of copper is at
(b) decreases the specific heat 0°C and the free end of brass is at 100°C. The temperature of
(c) decreases the boiling point the junction is [2012-I]
(d) increases the boiling point (a) 20°C (b) 40°C
22. The phenomenon of ‘trade winds’ takes place due to (c) 60°C (d) 10°C
29. Which one among the following statements about thermal
[2011-II]
conductivity is correct ? [2012-II]
(a) conduction of heat (b) convection of heat
(a) Steel > Wood > Water (b) Steel > Water > Wood
(c) radiation (d) None of the above
(c) Water > Steel > Wood (d) Water > Wood > Steel
EBD_7348
30. A hot object loses heat to its surroundings in the form of The figure given above shows the temperature (T) - time (t)
heat radiation. The rate of loss of heat depends on the plot when we start heating a piece of naphthalene. The
[2012-II] temperature (T*) at the plateau of the curve signifies
(a) temperature of the object [2013-II]
(b) temperature of the surroundings (a) boiling point of naphthalene.
(c) temperature difference between the object and its (b) freezing point of naphthalene.
surroundings (c) melting point of naphthalene.
(d) average temperature of the object and its surroundings (d) the temperature when naphthalene undergoes a
chemical change upon heating.
31. A bucket full of water is kept in a room and it cools from 75°C
36. A pressure cooker works on the principle of [2013-II]
to 70°C in time T1 minutes, from 70°C to 65°C in timeT2 minutes,
(a) elevation of boiling point of water by application of
and from 65°C to 60°C in time T3 minutes, then [2012-II]
pressure.
(a) T1=T2 = T3 (b) T1 < T2 < T3
(b) making the food-grains softer by application of
(c) Tl > T2 > T3 (d) T1 < T3 < T2
pressure.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 32 - 33) : The following questions consist of (c) making the food-grains softer by application of
two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other pressure and temperature.
as 'Reason (R), You are to examine these two statements carefully (d) keeping the food-grains inside steam for a longer time.
and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: 37. Pressure of a gas increases due to increase of its temperature
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct because at higher temperature [2013-II]
explanation of A (a) gas molecules repel each other more.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct (b) potential energy of the gas molecules is higher.
explanation of A (c) kinetic energies of the gas molecules are higher.
(c) A is true but R is false (d) gas molecules attract each other more.
(d) A is false but R is true 38. Heat given to a body which raises its temperature by 1°C is
known as [2014-II]
32. Assertion (A) : Ice melts at a temperature lower than 0°C at
(a) water equivalent (b) thermal capacity
a pressure higher than the normal pressure.
(c) specific heat (d) temperature gradient
Reason (R) : The melting point of a substance always 39. A thermodynamic process where no heat is exchanged with
decreases with increase in pressure. [2006-I] the surroundings is [2014-II]
33. Assertion (A) : Water gets heated quickly although it is a (a) isothermal (b) adiabatic
bad conductor of heat. (c) isobaric (d) isotropic
Reason (R) : Water gets heated mainly by the mode of 40. Fahrenheit and Celsius are the two scales used for measuring
convection. [2006-I] temperature. If the numerical value of a temperature recorded
in both the scales is found to be same, what is the
34. This question consist of two statements, Statement I and temperature? [2014-II]
Statement II. You are to examine these two statements (a) – 40° (b) + 40°
carefully and select the answer to these items using the (c) + 72° (d) – 72°
codes given below. 41. A solid is melted and allowed to cool and solidify again. The
Statement I : A thermos flask is made of double-walled temperature is measured at equal intervals of time. The graph
glass bottles. below shows the change of temperature with time.
[2015-I]
Statement II : Metals are good conductors while gas and
air are poor conductors of heat. [2012-I]
(a) Both the statements individually true and Statement II
Temp.
is the correct explanation of Statement I.
II is not correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
35. T
0
Time
The part of the curve that is practically horizontal due to
(a) latent heat given away by the liquid
T* (b) specific heat given away by the liquid
(c) thermal capacity changes with time keeping
temperature constant
t (d) change in density during transformation
42. Thermal conductivity of aluminium, copper and stainless 51. Which one of the following statements with regard to
steel increases in the order [2015-I] expansion of materials due to heating is not correct?
(a) Copper < Aluminium < Stainless Steel [2016-I]
(b) Stainless Steel < Aluminium < Copper (a) As ice melts, it expands uniformly up to 4°C.
(c) Aluyminium < Copper < Stainless Steel (b) Mercury thermometer works using the principle of
(d) Copper < Stainless Steel < Aluminium expansion due to heating.
43. The absolute zero, i.e., temperature below which is not (c) Small gap is kept between two rails to allow for
achievable, is about: expansion due to heating.
(a) 0°C (b) –273 K (d) The length of metallic wire increases when its
(c) –273 °C (d) –300°C temperature is increased.
44. The silvering in thermos flasks is done to avoid heat transfer 52. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
by: [2015-II] [2017-I]
(a) Convection (a) In the conduction mode of transference of heat, the
(b) Conduction molecules of solid pass heat from one molecule to
(c) Radiation another without moving from their positions
(d) Both convection and conduction (b) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature
45. Which one of the following statements is not correct? of a substance is called its specific heat capacity
[2015-II] (c) The process of heat transfer in liquids and gases is
(a) The Kelvin scale of temperature is called the Absolute scale through convection mode
(b) Visible light radiation has wavelength range of (d) The process of heat transfer from a body at higher
400-700 nm temperature to a body at lower temperature without
(c) The capacity to do work is called power heating the space between them is known as radiation
(d) The wavelength of Gamma rays is less than that of 53. The amount of heat required to change a liquid to gaseous
X-rays state without any change in temperature is known as
46. Which one of the following is the SI unit of the thermal [2017-I]
conductivity of a material? [2015-II] (a) specific heat capacity
(a) Wm-1K-1 (b) Wm/K (b) mechanical equivalent of heat
(c) Wm-1/K-1 (d) Js-1m-1K (c) latent heat of vaporization
47. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (d) quenching
[2015-II] 54. A Kelvin thermometer and a Fahrenheit thermometer both
(a) Conduction can occur easily in solids, less easily in give the same reading for a certain sample. What would be
liquids but hardly at all in gases the corresponding reading in a Celsius thermometer?
(b) Heat energy is carried by moving particles in a [2017-I]
convection current (a) 574 (b) 301
(c) Heat energy is carried by electromagnetic waves in (c) 273 (d) 232
radiation 55. Water boils at a lower tempature at high altitudes, because
(d) The temperature at which a solid changes into a liquid [2017-II]
is called the boiling point (a) the air pressure is less
48. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (b) outside temperature is less
[2015-II] (c) latest heat is less
(a) Temperatures decrease from the equator to poles (d) None of the above
(b) Temperatures in equatorial regions change 56. The statement that 'heat cannot flow by itself from a body
substantially from January to July at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature', is
(c) Large land masses located in the subarctic and arctic zones known as [2017-II]
(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
develop centres of extremely low temperatures in winter
(b) First law of thermodynamics
(d) Highlands are always colder than surrounding low
(c) Second law of thermodynamics
lands (d) Third law of thermodynamics
49. When a solid is heated, it turns directly into a gas. This 57. Which one of the following statements is correct?
process is called [2016-I]
[2018-I]
(a) Condensation (b) Evaporation
(a) Any energy transfer that does not involve temperature
(c) Sublimation (d) Diffusion
50. The temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at difference in some way is not heat
the atmospheric pressure is called its melting point. The (b) Any energy transfer always requires a temperature
melting point of a solid is an indication of [2016-I] difference
(a) strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction (c) On heating the length and volume of the object remain
(b) strength of the intermolecular forces of repulsion exactly the same
(c) molecular mass (d) Whenever there is a temperature difference, heat is
(d) molecular size the only way of energy transfer
EBD_7348
58. Which one of the following is the value of 1 kWh of energy (c) density of the body
converted into joules? [2018-I] (d) mass, shape and temperature of the body
(a) 1.8 × 106 J (b) 3.6 × 106 J 62. The absolute, zero temperature is 0 Kelvin. In °C unit, which
(c) 6.0 × 106 J (d) 7.2 × 106 J one of the following is the absolute zero temperature?
59. Which of the following statements about latent heat for a
[2018-II]
given substance is/are correct? [2018-I]
1. It is fixed at a given temperature. (a) 0 °C (b) –100°C
2. It depends upon the temperature and volume. (c) –273.15°C (d) –173.15°C
3. it is independent of temperature and volume. 63. Which one of the following statements regarding a thermos
4. It depends on the temperature but independent of flask is NOT correct? [2019-I]
volume. (a) The walls of flask are separated by vacuum and made
Select the correct answer using the code given below: of glass which is a poor conductor of heat
(a) 2 (b) 1 and 3 (b) The glass walls themselves have shiny surfaces
(c) 4 only (d) 1 and 4 (c) The surface of inner wall radiates good amount of heat
60. Which of the following statements about specific heat of a and the surface of outer wall absorbs some of the heat
body is/are correct? [2018-I] that is radiated from the inner wall
1. It depends upon mass and shape of the body (d) The cork supports are poor conductors of heat
2. It is independent of mass and shape of the body 64. The formula for conversion between Fahrenheit and Celsius
3. It depends only upon the temperature of the body is [2019-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below: °F = X + (1.8 × °C)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 What is factor X ?
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only (a) 32 (b) 22
61. Thermal capacity of a body depends on the [2018-I] (c) 98 (d) 42
(a) mass of the body only
(b) mass and shape of the body only
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 8 (d) 15 (d) 22 (b) 29 (b) 36 (a) 43 (c) 50 (a) 57 (a) 64 (a)
2 (b) 9 (d) 16 (c) 23 (d) 30 (d) 37 (c) 44 (b) 51 (a) 58 (b)
3 (b) 10 (a) 17 (b) 24 (b) 31 (b) 38 (c) 45 (c) 52 (b) 59 (d)
4 (c) 11 (c) 18 (c) 25 (a) 32 (a) 39 (b) 46 (a) 53 (c) 60 (a)
5 (d) 12 (c) 19 (a) 26 (a) 33 (a) 40 (a) 47 (d) 54 (b) 61 (a)
6 (d) 13 (b) 20 (c) 27 (d) 34 (a) 41 (a) 48 (b) 55 (a) 62 (c)
7 (a) 14 (d) 21 (c) 28 (a) 35 (c) 42 (b) 49 (c) 56 (c) 63 (c)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (a) Water equivalent is the quantity of water whose thermal 7. (a) Melting point of ice decreases with increase in pressure.
capacity is same as that of the given body. So, water 8. (d) In evening, the radiations from the sun travel larger
equivalent of substance is 5g. distance through atmosphere that’s why evening sun
4. (c) Middle luminous zone of a candle flame is the hottest. is not as hot as the mid day sun.
5. (d) DQ = mcDT 9. (d) Water contractsfrom 0°C to 4°C, hence its volume
decreases and after 4°C the volume increases.
æ 4 3ö 10. (a) When the melted solid is allowed to cool down, it
pr r
DQ1 m1 çè 3 1 ÷ø 1 reaches at the stage where it gets solidified by releasing
\ = =
DQ 2 m 2 æ 4 3 ö heat equal to the latent heat of fusion. At this stage
ç 3 p r2 ÷ r2 temperature remains constant. Therefore, there is a
è ø
plateau (flat position) in the central region of the cooling
Here, r1 = r2 curve.
11. (c) Optical pyrometer is instrument which can be used to
DQ1 æ r13 ö 1 1
\ DQ = ç 3 ÷ = 3 = 8 measure temperature ranging between 800ºC and
2 è r2 ø 2 6000ºC.
12. (c) At 20ºC water will be in liquid state the fluid will be held up (buoyed). They will float in a
Total evolved = mCW Dq + mLV given liquid or rise within a volume of a given gas.
= 20 × 1 × (100 – 20) + 20 × 540 = 12400 calories 26. (a) Absorption of heat is directly proportional to mass.
13. (b) Mode of transfer of heat by means of migration of 27. (d) It is due to buoyancy that the upward force exerted by
material particles of medium is called convection. a fluid on an object that is immersed in it.
14. (d) Heat taken by ice to melt at 0ºC water 28. (a) Temperature of the junction,
Q = mL = 1 × 80 = 80 cal/gºC æ K1T1 + K 2T2 ö
Heat given by steam T0 = çè K + K ÷
1 2 ø
Q = mL = m × s × Dt = 540 + 1 × 1 × 100ºC
Q = 640º cal/ºC æ KCn TCn + KBr TBr ö 4KBr (273) + KBr 373
Because heat of steam more than heat of ice. So the Þ T0 = çè KCn + KBr ÷ø = 4KBr + KBr
temperature of the mixture is remain 100ºC.
15. (d) A fan produces a feeling of comfort during hot weather 1465 K Br
because our perspiration evaporates rapidly. Þ = 293K = 293 – 273 = 20°C
5K Br
16. (c) We know that reflected amount of radiation in light
object is more than that of dark object. 29. (b) Steel has better thermal conductivity than water
17. (b) The relation between Celsius (C), Kelvin (K), whereas wood is a bad conductor of heat.
Fahrenheit (F) and Reaumur (R) is as follows: 30. (d) The rate of loss of heat of the hot object depends on the
average temperature of the object and the surroundings.
C – 0 F – 32 K – 272 R – 0 32. (a) Ice melts at 0°C at a normal pressure. But on increasing
= = =
100 180 100 80 pressure, melting point of a substance decreases, so
18. (c) The constancy of solar temperature is due to the fusion ice melts at a temperature lower than 0°C at a pressure
of proton inside the sun’s nucleus. higher than the normal pressure.
19. (a) In winter condition due to freezing water expands in 33. (a) Water is a bad conductor of heat although it is heated
pipe which results in bursting of pipe. by mode of convection i.e, actual movement of heated
21. (c) Cooking is faster because due to increase in vapour particles of water. Hence option (a) is true.
pressure boiling point increases. 34. (a) Glass fairly strong and rigid, and 2 thin layer of glass
22. (b) Winds that blow steadily from east to west and towards can withstand the pressure differences created by the
the equator are called trade winds. They are caused by vacuum. It is also easy to manufacture the required
hot air rising at the equator. shape, and keep it airtight. Also it is almost perfectly
23. (d) We have, transparent, meaning that once the surface is mirrored,
it will reflect almost all of the radiated heat. Plastics
A - 15 B - 25 would be too flexible to contain the vacuum effectively,
=
75 - 15 125–25 and metals would be too conductive, and the mirrored
Where A = reading taken by A surface would not be so good.
B = reading taken by B 35. (c) The melting point of a substance is the temperature at
which its state changes from solid to liquid.
60 - 15 B - 25 Melting point of naphthalene is 80.26ºC.
Þ =
75 - 15 125 - 25 36. (a) A pressure cooker works on the principle of elevation
of boiling point of water by application of pressure.
45 B - 25 37. (c) Pressure of a gas increase due to increase of its
Þ =
60 100 temperature because at higher temperature kinetic
3 energies of the gas molecules are higher.
Þ B – 25 = ´ 100 38. (c) Specific heat is the amount of heat needed to raise the
4
temperature of a certain mass 1 degree Celsius.
Þ B = 100
39. (b) An adiabatic process is one that occurs without
\ Reading taken by thermometer B is 100º.
transfer of heat or matter between a system and its
24. (b) Latent heat is the heat released or absorbed by a body surroundings.
or a thermodynamic system during a constant- 40. (a) Relation between Fahrenheit and Celsius scale is
temperature process. A typical example is a change of
state of matter, meaning a phase transition such as the C - 0° F - 32
=
melting of ice or the boiling of water. 5 9
25. (a) Buoyancy is the relative tendency of an object to Given that numercial value of a temperature recorded
displace a fluid, that is to either float or sink in a liquid, in both the scales are same.
or to rise or sink within a gas. Buoyancy is the upward Þ °C = F = x
force exerted by a fluid on an object that is immersed in
it. It is caused by the displacement of the fluid by the x x - 32
Þ =
object. Objects that have less average density than 5 9
Þ 9x = 5x – 32 × 5
EBD_7348
Þ 4x = – 32 × 5 56. (c) The Second Law of Thermodynamics is one of three
32 ´ 5 Laws of Thermodynamics. The Second Law of
x= - Thermodynamics is commonly known as the Law of
4
Increased Entropy. While quantity remains the same
x = – 40°
(First Law), the quality of matter/energy deteriorates
41. (a) Latent heat is the energy absorbed or released at
gradually over time. How so? Usable energy is
constant temperature per unit mass for change of state.
42. (b) Among the three aluminium, copper and stainless steel inevitably used for productivity, growth and repair. In
copper is the best conduction of heat. Thermal the process, usable energy is converted into unusable
conductivity (in W/m K) for copper, aluminium and energy. Thus, usable energy is irretrievably lost in the
stainless steel is 385, 205 and 50.2 respectively. form of unusable energy.
43. (c) At the physically impossible-to-reach temperature of 57. (a) Any energy transfer that does not involve temperature
zero kelvin, or minus 459.67 degrees Fahrenheit (minus difference in some way is not heat.
273.15 degrees Celsius), at which atoms would stop 58. (b) kWh (kilowatt-hour) and Joules are two energy units.
moving. 1 watt is defined as 1 joule/second. So if you multiply
44. (b) Silvering in thermos flask is done to avoid heat transfer
by conduction. a watt times seconds, you get Ws which is also a
45. (c) Capacity to do work is called energy. joule.
46. (a) In SI units, thermal conductivity is measured in watts So 1kW is 1000W, and an hour is 60 seconds x 60
per meter kelvin (W/(m. K)). minutes.
47. (d) The temperature at which a solid changes into a liquid So 1kWh = 3600kWs = 3,600,000Ws = 3,600,000J
is called the melting point. So 1kWh = 3. 6×106J
49. (c) Sublimation is the transition of a substance directly
from the solid to the gas phase without passing through 59. (d) Latent heat, energy absorbed or released by a
the intermediate liquid phase. substance during a change in its physical state (phase)
50. (a) The melting point is an important physical property of that occurs without changing its temperature. It is fixed
a compound. The melting point can be used to identify at a given temperature. It depends on the temperature
a substance and as an indication of its purity. The but independent of volume.
melting point of solid is defined as the temperature at 60. (a) The specific heat is an intensive property that
which the solid exists in equilibrium with its liquid under describes how much heat must be added to a particular
an external pressure of one atmosphere. substance to raise its temperature. It is depends of
Melting point also depends upon the intermolecular mass and shape of the body.
force of attraction between the molecule. 61. (a) The thermal capacity of an object, is defined as the
51. (a) Most solids expand when heated and contract when
Energy in Joules required to raise the temperature of a
cooled. Water/ice is anomalous in that it expands when
cooled, at least near its freezing point. given object by 1º C. This is the ‘specific heat’ of the
52. (b) The specific heat is the amount of heat required to object multiplied by its mass and the change in
raise the temperature of 1 g of substance by one degree temperature.
Celsius or one Kelvin. 62. (c) Absolute temperature is –273.15° C or 0 K. At this
Q temperature the fundamental particles of nature have
Specific heat = minimal vibrational motion, retaining only quantum
mDT
53. (c) The amount of energy needed to change one gram of a mechanical, zero-point energy-induced particle motion.
liquid substance to a gas at constant temperature is 63. (c) The walls of thermos flask are separated by vacuum
called latent heat vaporization. and made of glass which is poor conductor of heat.
55. (a) High-altitude cooking is the opposite of pressure The glass walls themselves have shiny surfaces. The
cooking in that the boiling point of water is lower at radiation emitted by inner wall and that absorbed by
outer wall, both are negligible.
higher altitudes due to the decreased atmospheric
The cork supports are poor conductors of heat.
pressure. This may require an increase in cooking
64. (a) The relation between Fahrenheit and Celsius is
times or temperature and alterations of recipe
F = 32 + (1·8 × C°)
ingredients.
Waves G-33
Waves 4
1. The turntable of a gramophone is rotated at a constant 6. How does time period (T) of a seconds pendulum vary with
speed of x revolutions/minute. Which one of the following length (l)?
values of the revolutions per minute is not used ?
(a) 78 r.p.m. (b) 56 r.p.m. (a) T µ l (b) T µ l 2
(c) 45 r.p.m. (d) 33 r.p.m. [2006-I] (c) T µ l (d) T does not depend on l
2. C K [2007-I]
D L
B J 7. Which one of the following properties distinguishes
I ultrasound from normal audible sound?
A E M (a) Intensity (b) Speed of propagation
F H (c) Frequency (d) Quality [2007-II]
G 8. The time period of a simple pendulum oscillating in a
Figure given above shows the part of a long string in which laboratory at north pole is 4s. Accounting for earth’s rotation
transverse waves are produced. Which pair of points is in only, what will be the time period of this pendulum oscillating
phase? in a laboratory at equator?
(a) A and E (b) B and J
(a) Less than 4s (b) More than 4s
(c) D and J (d) C and G [2006-I]
3. Why is sound heard with more intensity through CO2 than (c) Equal to 4s (d) Infinity [2007-II]
through the air ? 9. Consider the following statements :
(a) Density of CO2 is more than that of air If the same note is played on a flute and a sitar, one can still
(b) Density of CO2 is less than that of air distinguish between them because they differ in
(c) Air is bad conductor of heat 1. frequency 2. intensity
(d) CO2 is a compound, but air is a mixture of gases. 3. quality
[2006-I]
4. Consider the following statements for a simple harmonic
motion: (a) 1 and only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. The magnitude of the velocity of the body is (c) 3 only (d) 2 only [2007-II]
proportional to its displacement from the mean position. 10. Consider the following statements :
2. The magnitude of the acceleration of the body is Sound waves can undergo
proportional to its displacement from the mean position. 1. reflection 2. refraction
3. The sum of the kinetic energy and potential energy of 3. interference
the body is always constant.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 [2007-II]
(c) Only 3 (d) Only 2 [2006-II] 11. If the length of second’s pendulum is increased by 2%, how
5. Consider the following statements with reference to many seconds will it lose per day?
observations made by an astronaut on the surface of moon: (a) 3600 s (b) 3456 s
1. The astronaut finds that a simple pendulum continues (c) 1728 s (d) 846 s [2008-I]
to oscillate for a much longer time, than that on the 12. A man standing between two parallel hills fires a gun and
earth.
hears two echoes, one 2.5 s and the other 3.5 s after the
2. No atmosphere exists there.
firing. If the velocity of sound is 330 ms–1, how long will it
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 take him to hear the third echo?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 4 s (b) 5 s
[2006-II] (c) 6s (d) 8s [2008-I]
EBD_7348
13. Some common mediums in which speed of sound waves is
20.
measured are mentioned below?
1. Air 2. Steel
3. Copper 4. Water
What is the correct increasing order of the speed of sound ?
(a) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3 (b) 4 < 1 < 2 < 3
60 cm
(c) 1 < 4 < 3 < 2 (d) 4 < 1 < 3 < 2 [2008-I]
14. The simple harmonic motion of a particle is given by The standing wave pattern along a string of length 60 cm is
y = 3 sin wt + 4 cos wt. Which one of the follwing is the shown in the above diagram. If the speed of the transverse
amplitude of this motion? waves on this string is 300 m/s, in which one of the following
(a) 1 (b) 5 modes is the string vibrating ? [2009-I]
(c) 7 (d) 12 [2008-II] (a) Fundamental (b) First overtone
15. A pendulum clock is set to give correct time at the sea level. (c) Second overtone (d) Third overtone
The clock is moved to a hill station at an altitude ‘h’ above 21. A sonometer wire having a length of 50 cm is vibrating in
sea level. In order to keep correct time on the hill station the fundamental mode with a frequency of 100Hz. Which of
which one of the following adjustments is required? the following is the type of propagating wave and its speed?
(a) The length of the pendulum has to be reduced [2009-I]
(b) The length of the pendulum has to be increased (a) Longitudinal, 50 m/s (b) Transverse, 50 m/s
(c) The mass of the pendulum has to be increased (c) Longitudinal, 100 m/s (d) Transverse, 100 m/s
(d) The mass of the pendulum has to be reduced 22. The audible frequency range of a human ear is [2009-II]
[2008-II] (a) 20 Hz to 200 Hz (b) 2 Hz to 20 Hz
(c) 200 Hz to 2000 Hz (d) 20 Hz to 20000 Hz
16. In a sitar wire which one of the following types of vibration
23. ‘Pitch’ is a characteristic of sound that depends upon its
is produced? [2008-II] [2010-I]
(a) Progressive longitudinal (a) intensity (b) fequency
(b) Stationary longitudinal (c) quality (d) None of these
(c) Progressive transverse 24. Which one of the following pairs of rays is electromagnetic
(d) Stationary transverse in nature? [2010-I]
17. Consider the following parts of spectra [2009-I] (a) Beta rays and gamma rays
1. Visible 2. Infrared (b) Cathode rays and X-rays
3. Ultraviolet 4. Microwave (c) Alpha rays and beta rays
Which one of the following is the correct sequence in which (d) X-rays and gamma rays
their wavelengths increase ? 25. Sound moves with higher velocity if [2010-II]
(a) pressure of the medium is decreased
(a) 4 – 3 – 1 – 2 (b) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
(b) temperature of the medium is increased
(c) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4 (d) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4 (c) humidity of the medium is increased
18. Which one of the following is not electromagnetic in nature? (d) Both (b) and (c) above
[2009-I] 26. The Visible light has a wavelength range from about 380 nm
(a) Cathode-rays (b) X-rays (violet) to 780 nm (red). If an excited object emits light with
(c) Gamma-rays (d) Infrared-rays wavelength of 15 nm, to which one of the following ranges
does it belongs? [2010-II]
19. List I List II (a) X-ray (b) Gamma ray
(Types of (Approximate (c) Infrared (d) Ultraviolet
Electromagnetic Wavelength in 27. Microwave oven consumes less power due to [2010-II]
Radiation) Metre) (a) small frequency of radiation
A. Infraredradiation 1. 10 –12 (b) short wavelength of radiation
B. X-rays 2. 10–5 (c) large frequency as well as wavelength of radiation
C. Ultavoilet radiation 3. 10 –10 (d) small frequency as well as wavelength of radiation
28. Which one among the following statements is not correct?
D. Gamma rays 4. 10–8 [2011-I]
(a) In progressive waves, the amplitude may be constant
and neighbouring points are out of phase with each
[2009-I]
other
Codes : (b) In air or other gases, a progressive antinode occurs at
A B C D a displacement node and a progressive node occurs at
(a) 2 3 4 1 a displacement antinode
(b) 1 4 3 2 (c) Transverse wave can be polarised while longitudinal
(c) 1 3 4 2 wave cannot be polarised
(d) 2 4 3 1 (d) Longitudinal wave can be polarised while transverse
wave cnanot be polarised
Waves G-35
29. Bats can ascertain distance, directions, nature and size of (c) Both potential and kinetic energy decrease
the obstacles at night. This is possible by reflection of the (d) Both potential and kinetic energy increase
emitted [2011-I] 41. A spring can be used to determine the mass m of an object in
(a) ultrasonic waves from the bat two ways: (i) by measuring the extension in the spring due
(b) ultrasonic waves from the distant objects to the object; and (ii) by measuring the oscillation period for
(c) supersonic waves from the bat the given mass. Which of these methods can be used in a
(d) supersonic waves from the distant objects space-station orbiting Earth ? [2015-I]
30. Which one among the following waves are called waves of (a) Both
heat energy? [2011-II] (b) Only the extension method
(a) Radio waves (b) Infrared waves (c) Only the oscillation method
(c) Ultraviolet waves (d) Microwaves (d) Neither
31. Ultrasonic waves are those sound waves having frequency 42. The loudness of sound is related to: [2015-II]
[2011-II] (a) its frequency (b) its amplitude
(a) between 20 hertz and 1000 hertz (c) its speed (d) its pitch
(b) between 1000 hertz and 20000 hertz 43. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(c) more than 20 kilohertz [2015-II]
(d) less than 20 hertz (a) In steady flow of a liquid, the velocity of liquid particles
32. Which one among the following is not produced by sound reaching at a particular point is the same at all points
waves in air? [2012-I] (b) Steady flow is also called streamlined flow
(a) Polarization (b) Diffraction (c) In steady flow, each particle may not follow the same
(c) Reflection (d) Refraction path as taken by a previous particle passing through
33. SONAR is mostly used by [2012-II] that point
(a) Doctors (b) Engineers (d) Two streamlines cannot intersect each other
(c) Astronauts (d) Navigators
44. The speed of a body that has Mach number more than 1 is
34. The ceilings of a concert hall are generally curved [2013-II]
[2017-I]
(a) because they reflect the sound to the audience.
(a) supersonic (b) subsonic
(b) because they can absorb noise.
(c) to have better aeration in the hall. (c) 300 m/s (d) about 10 m/s
(d) as any sound from outside cannot pass through a 45. Which one of the following is the correct relation between
curved ceiling. frequency f and angular frequency w? [2017-I]
35. If the length of a simple pendulum is being increased by (a) f = pw (b) w = 2pf
4-fold, time period of oscillation will be [2013-II] (c) f = 2w/p (d) f = 2pw
(a) decreased by 4-fold. 46. Which one among the following waves carries the maximum
(b) increased by 4-fold. enery per photon? [2017-II]
(c) decreased to half of the initial value. (a) X-rays (b) Radio waves
(d) increased by a factor of 2 of its initial value. (c) Light waves (d) Microwaves
36. Sound waves are similar to the waves [2014-I] 47. Bats detect obstacles in their path by receiving the reflected
(a) of laser light passing through air [2017-II]
(b) generated in a stretched wire by hitting or plucking (a) Infrasonic waves (b) Ultrasonic waves
the wire (c) Radio waves (d) Microwaves
(c) generated in a pipe filled with air by moving the piston 48. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
attached to the pipe up and down [2017-II]
(d) generated by the mobile phone towers (a) Ultrasonic waves cannot get reflected, refracted or
37. A sound wave has frequency of 2 kHz and wavelength of absorbed.
35 cm. If an observer is 1.4 km away from the source, after what (b) Ultrasonic waves are used to detect the presence of
time interval could the observer hear the sound? [2014-I] defects like cracks, porosity, etc. in the internal
(a) 2 s (b) 20 s (c) 0.5 s (d) 4 s structure of common structure materials.
38. Which one among the following waves bats use to detect (c) Ultrasonic waves can be used for making holes in very
the obstacles in their flying path? [2014-I] hard materials like diamond.
(a) Infrared waves (b) Electromagnetic waves (d) Ultrasonic waves cannot travel through vacuum.
(c) Ultrasonic waves (d) Radio waves 49. If T is the time period of an oscillating pendulum, which one
39. Ultrasonic waves of frequency 3 × 105 Hz are passed through of the following statements is NOT correct? [2018-I]
a medium where speed of sound is 10 times that in air (Speed (a) The motions repeats after time T only once
of sound in air is 300 m/s). The wavelength of this wave in (b) T is the least time after which motion repeats itself
that medium will be of the order of [2015-I] (c) The motion repeats itself after nT, where n is a positive
(a) 1 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 100 cm (d) 0.1 cm integer
40. Which one among the following happens when a swing (d) T remains the same only for small angular
rises to a certain height from its rest position ? [2015-I] displacements
(a) Its potential energy decreases while kinetic energy 50. Which one of the following frequency ranges is sensitive
increases to human ears? [2018-I]
(b) Its kinetic energy decreases while potential energy (a) 0 – 200 Hz (b) 20 – 20,000 Hz
increases (c) 200 – 20,000 Hz only (d) 2,000 – 20,000 Hz only
EBD_7348
51. Which one of the following is an example of the force of 53. Statement I : The pitch of the sound wave depends upon
gravity of the earth acting on a vibrating pendulum bob? its frequency.
[2018-I] Statement II : The loudness of the sound wave depends
(a) Applied force (b) Frictional force upon its amplitude.
(c) Restoring force (d) Virtual force 54. Statement I : Sound wave cannot propagate in vacuum.
52. Which of the following statements about electromagnetic Statement II : Sound waves are elastic waves and require a
waves, sound waves and water waves is/are correct? medium to propagate.
[2018-I] 55. The frequency of ultrasound waves is [2018-II]
1. They exhibit reflection (a) less than 20 Hz
2. They carry energy (b) between 20 Hz and 2 kHz
3. They exert pressure (c) between 2 kHz and 20 kHz
4. They can travel in vacuum (d) greater than 20 kHz
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 56. The time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum having
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 length L and mass off the bob m is given as T. If the length of
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only the pendulum is increased to 4L and the mass of the bob is
increased to 2m, then which one of the following is the new
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 53-54): The following Two (2) items consist period of oscillation? [2018-II]
of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these (a) T (b) 2T
two statements carefully and select the correct answer using (c) 4T (d) T/2
the code given below. [2018-II] 57. At 20°C, the speed of sound in water is approximately
code: [2019-I]
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement (a) 330 m/s (b) 800 m/s
II is the correct explanation of Statement I (c) 1500 m/s (d) 5000 m/s
(c) Statement I is the true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 7 (c) 13 (c) 19 (a) 25 (d) 31 (c) 37 (a) 43 (c) 49 (a) 55 (d)
2 (b) 8 (b) 14 (b) 20 (c) 26 (a) 32 (a) 38 (c) 44 (a) 50 (b) 56 (b)
3 (a) 9 (c) 15 (a) 21 (d) 27 (b) 33 (d) 39 (a) 45 (b) 51 (c) 57 (c)
4 (b) 10 (d) 16 (d) 22 (d) 28 (a) 34 (a) 40 (b) 46 (a) 52 (a)
5 (c) 11 (d) 17 (d) 23 (b) 29 (a) 35 (d) 41 (c) 47 (b) 53 (b)
6 (a) 12 (c) 18 (a) 24 (d) 30 (b) 36 (c) 42 (b) 48 (d) 54 (a)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

2. (b) Point B and J are in same phase on string. dn
3. (a) Intensity of sound is directly proportional to density, Acceleration, A = = –aw2 sin(wt + f) = – w2y
dt
i.e., I µ r
Hence |A| µ y
where r is density of gas. Total energy in SHM is given by
Since the density of CO2 is more than that of air,
therefore sound is heard with more intensity through 1 2 2
E = PE + KE = EP+ EK = mw a = a constant
CO2 than through the air. 2
4. (b) Let the displacement (y) of a particle executing SHM at 5. (c) Due to less gravity on moon, then that on the earth,
an instant be given by. time period will increase on the moon.
y = a sin (wt + f) 6. (a) Here g and 2p are constant. Time period of a second
pendulum is given by
velocity, n = dy = aw cos(wt + f)
dt ælö
T = 2p ç ÷ , l being length
Hence, magnitude of velocity of body is n ot ègø
proportional to its displacement from the mean position.
\ T µ l.
Waves G-37
7. (c) The frequency of ultrasound waves is different from Infrared – 1000 nm

normal audible sound. Ultraviolet – 300 nm
8. (b) Time period of a simple pendulam is given by Microwave – 120 mm
18. (a) Cathode-rays are not electromagnetic in nature
l l
T = 2p Tµ whereas x-rays, Gamma-rays and Infrared-rays are part
g Þ g of electromagnetic spectrum.
The value of g is greater at poles and less at equator,
hence the time period of pendulam will be more than 4s. 19. (a) Radiation Wavelength
9. (c) The difference in music from both the instruments is
due to quality difference. X-rays 10 –10 m
10. (d) Sound waves can undergo reflection, refraction and Ultraviolet radiation 10 –8m
interference.
11. (d) Time Period of second's pendulum, Gamma rays 10 –12 m
Infrared radiation 10 –5m
l
T = 2p
g
3l
dT 1 d l dl 20. (c) From visual observation of diagram, l = .
or, = ´ (given that = 2%) 2
T 2 l l Hence, vibration is in the second overtone or third
dT 1 2 1 harmonic.
or, = ´ =
T 2 100 100 21. (d) Since sonometer wire is vibrating in the fundamental
mode then,
1
or, dT = ´T
100 T
v= = 2l n = 2 ×5 10–2 × 100 = 100 m/s
m
1
= ´ 24 ´ 60 ´ 60 = 864 seconds. 22. (d) The audible frequency range of a human ear is 20 Hz to
100
20000Hz.
12. (c) The third echo will be heard after time,
23. (b) Pitch is a characteristic of sound that depends upon
t = 2.5 + 3.5 = 6 second.
its frequency. Higher the frequency higher will be pitch
13. (c) The speed of sound is maximum in solids
and shriller will be sound.
Vsolid > Vliquid > Vgas.
24. (d) x-rays and gamma rays are high energy photons or
Steel is more elastic than copper, hence the speed of electromagnetic in nature.
sound is greater in steel than copper.
25. (d) The speed of sound depends on the properties of the
14. (b) We have, medium through which it travels. If we increased the
y = 3 sin wt + 4 cos wt temperature & humidity of the medium the sound
= a cos q . sin wt + a sin q. cos wt waves moves with higher velocity. When we go from
or y = a sin (wt + q) ...(i) solid to gaseous state the speed of sound decreases.
Where, a cos q = 3 and a sin q = 4 26. (a) Wavelength range of X-rays lies between
Squaring and adding, we get 1× 10–10 – 3 × 10–8 m
a2 cos2q + a2sin2q = 32 + 42 \ 15 nm wavelength will be of X-rays.
or a2 (sin2q + cos2q) = 25 27. (b) Microwave oven consumes less power due to short
or a2. 1 = 25 wavelength of radiation.
or a= 28. (a) In progressive waves, the amplitude may be constant
25 = 5
and neighbouring points are out of phase with each
Thus, amplitude of the motion is 5. other. In air or other gases, a progressive antinode
15. (a) The time-period of a simple pendulum is given by occurs at a displacement node and a progressive node
occurs at a displacement antinode.
l
T = 2p Transverse waves can be polarised while longitudinal
g waves cannot be polarised. So option (d) is the right
At an altitude ‘h’ above sea level, the value of g answer of this question.
decreases. Hence, to keep the value of T constant, l 29. (a) Bat emitted ultrasonic sounds specifically to produce
must be reduced. echoes. By comparing the outgoing pulse with the
17. (d) The wavelength of given radiation is as follows: returining echoes the brain and auditory nervous
Visible – 420 – 700 nm system can produce detail image of surrounding.
EBD_7348
30. (b) Infrared waves are known as waves of heat energy. 47. (b) Ultrasonic waves are sound waves transmitted above
31. (c) Ultrasonic waves are those sound waves having the human-detectable frequency range, usually above
frequency more than 20,000 Hz or 20 kHz. 20,000 Hz. Bats use high-frequency sounds to navigate
32. (a) Polarization is a term related to electrical charging. and catch prey. The animals emit ultrasonic waves
while moving at high speed and in pitch darkness.
33. (d) astronauts
When the sounds are reflected back, bats can tell what
34. (a) They are made curved so that the sound after reflecting
exactly is in front of them.
form the ceiling reaches every corner of the concert
48. (d) Ultrasonic waves cannot get reflected, refracted or
hall and the audience listens the sound clearly. absorbed, Ultrasonic waves are used to detect the
l presence of defects like cracks, porosity, etc. in the
35. (d) T = 2x . internal structure of common structure materials,
g
After the length is increased by 4-fold. Ultrasonic waves can be used for making holes in very
hard materials like diamond.
4l
T¢ = 2p. 49. (a) The motions repeats after time T only once
g
50. (b) Hearing is one of the five senses of the body. The ears
l help the body to pick up sound waves and vibrations.
2 × 2p. =2×T The number of vibrations that are produced per second
g
is called frequency. Frequency varies for each sound
37. (a) f = 2 kHz = 2× 103Hz
and is measured in hertz. Humans cannot hear sounds
l = 35cm = 35 × 10 –2m
d = 1.4km = 1.4 × 103 m; v = fx = 2 × 103 × 35 × 10–2 of every frequency. The range of hearing for a healthy
= 700m/s young person is 20 to 20,000 hertz.
51. (c) The restoring force is a function only of position of
d 1.4 ´ 103 the mass or particle. The restoring force is often referred
t== =2
v 700 to in simple harmonic motion.
38. (c) Bats use a variety of ultrasonic ranging (echolocation) 52. (a) electromagnetic radiation refers to the waves of the
techniques to detect obstacles in their flying path. They electromagnetic field, propagating through space,
can detect frequencies beyond 100 kHz, possibly up to carrying electromagnetic radiant energy. sound is a
200 kHz.
vibration that typically propagates as an audible wave
39. (a) Given : Frequency, f = 3 × 105HZ
of pressure, through a transmission medium such as a
Speed of sound in medium = 10 × Vair
= 10 × 300 = 3000 m/s gas, liquid or solid. Water waves are surface waves, a
As we know, V = f l mixture of longitudinal and transverse waves.
53. (b) The pitch of a sound depends on the frequency while
3000
or, l = V/f = = 10–2 m = 10–2 ´ 100 = 1cm loudness depends upon the amplitude of sound waves.
3 ´105 54. (a) Sound waves are type of elastic waves in which
40. (b) As the swing rises, its kinetic energy changes to particles are displaced and need a medium to propagate.
potential energy; as with height potential energy In vacuum since there is no medium hence sound
P.E. = mgh increases. And according to law of cannot be transferred from one place to another in
conservation of energy total energy E = K.E + P. E absence of medium.
constant. 55. (d) The frequency of ultrasonic waves is greater than
42. (b) Loudness of sound is related to amplitude. 20000 (20k) Hz.
43. (c) In stream line each particle may not follow the same 56. (b) Time period of a pendulum is given by T = 2p l / g
path as taken by a previous particle passing through
that point. If length is now 4l then the new time period T2 will be
44. (a) Mach number (M) is the ratio of the speed of a body to 2p 4l / g
the speed of sound in the surrounding medium. If the Hence, the new time period of oscillation T2 = 2 T
body has Mach number greater than 1, the speed of 57. (c) Sound is a type of longitudinal, mechanical wave. They
the body is greater than the speed of the sound.
need a medium to propagate and will not travel through
For Subsonic, M < 1
For Supersonic, M > 1 a vacuum. Sound travels at different speed in different
For Sonic, M = 1 media. The speed of sound is determined by the density
For Hypersonic, M > 5 (r) and compressibility (K) of the medium. According
46. (a) X-rays are types of electromagnetic radiation probably to the World Book Encyclopedia, Chicago: World Book,
most well-known for their ability to see through a 1999. 601, “The speed of sound in Distilled Water at 77
person’s skin and reveal images of the bones beneath °F (25 °C), 1496 m/s, 4908 ft/s” or 1496 m/s (1500 m/s).
it. X-rays carries the maximum energy per photon
Optics 5
1. Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle q to one another. (c) A terrestrial telescope forms an erect image while an
A ray of light incident on the first mirror and parallel to the astronomical telescope forms an inverted image
second mirror is reflected from the second mirror parallel to (d) A terrestrial telescope forms an inverted image while
the first mirror. What is the value of q ?
an a stronomical telescope forms an erect image
(a) 0° (b) 45°
(c) 60° (d) 90° [2006-I] [2006-II]
6. A beam of light travelling at a velocity of v m/s is incident at
2. m2
m1 an angle 45° on a glass slab of refractive index 1.5. What is
m3 m4 the velocity of the beam of light inside the slab ?
m5
(a) v (c) 2 v/3
(c) v/ 2 (d) None of these [2006-II]
5
1
4 7. L1 L2
3
2
In the figure shown ml, m2, m3, m4 and m5 are the refractive
indices of the mediums 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively. Consider
the following:
1. ml = m2 2. m3= m4 = m5
3. m2 <m3 4. m4 > m5
Which of the above are correct ? In the figure shown above, L1 and L2 are two lenses and are
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1,2 and 3 only kept along the same axis. A parallel beam of light falling on
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only [2006-I] L1 leaves L2 as a parallel beam:
3. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
Consider the following statements.
In an astronomical telescope of refracting type,
(a) the objective and the eyepiece have the same focal 1. Both L1 and L2 can be convex lenses.
length 2. The distance between the two lenses can be equal to
(b) the focal length of the objective is less than that of the sum of their focal lengths.
eyepiece Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(c) the focal length of the objective is more than that of (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
the eyepiece
(d) the aperture of the eyepiece is more than that of the
objective [2006-I] [2006-II]
4. What is the phenomenon of the moon to appear bigger in 8. Which one of the following is used to remove Astigmatism
size as it approaches the horizon, called ? for a human eye?
(a) Atmospheric refraction of light (a) Concave lens (b) Convex lens
(b) Diffraction of light
(c) Cylindrical lens (d) Prismatic lens [2007-I]
(c) Scattering of light
(d) Total internal reflection of light by water vapours 9. When light waves travel from air to glass, which variables
[2006-II] are affected?
5. What is the essential difference between a terrestrial (a) Wavelength, frequency and velocity
telescope and an astronomical telescope? (b) Velocity and frequency only
(a) One of the lenses in a terrestrial telescope is concave (c) Wavelength and frequency only
(b) The final image formed in a terrestrial telescope is
(d) Wavelength and velocity only [2007-II]
virtual
EBD_7348
10. Which on of the following is correct? 16. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding a
Large aperture telescopes are used for light wave travelling from air to glass?
(a) greater resolution 1. Its frequency remains unchanged.
(b) greater magnification 2. Its speed changes.
(c) reducing lens aberration Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(d) ease of manufacture [2007-II]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Nither 1nor 2 [2008-II]
17. When an optician prescribes a – 5D lens, what does it mean?
1. The focal length of the objective of a microscope is
(a) Concave lens of 20 cm focal length
less than the focal length of the eyepice.
(b) Convex lens of 5 cm focal length
2. The minimum distance between an object and its real (c) Concave lens of 5 cm focal length
image formed by a convex lens of focal length f is equal
(d) Convex lens of 5 cm focal length [2008-II]
to 4 f.
18. If a substance is behaving as convex lens in air and concave
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only lens in water then which one of the following is its refractive
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 index?
[2008-I] (a) Smaller than air
12. A far-sighted person has a near point at 100 cm. What must (b) Greater than both air and water
be the power of the correcting lens? (c) Greater than air but lesser than water
(a) – 0.8 D (b) – 3.0 D (d) Almost equal to water [2008-II]
(c) + 0. 8 D (d) + 3.0 D [2008-I] 19. The sun is visible a little before the actual sunrise because
13. In a simple microscope, the lens is held at a distance d from of which one of the following?
the eye and the image is formed at the least distance (D) of (a) Atmospheric reflection
the distinct vision from the eye. What is the magnifying (b) Atmospheric dispersion
power of the microscope ? (c) Atmospheric diffraction
(a) D/f (b) 1 + (D /f ) (d) Atmospheric refraction [2008-II]
(c) 1 + (D – d )/f } (d) 1+ { (D + d)/f } 20. In vacuum, the speed of light [2009-I]
Where f is the focal length of the lens. [2008-I] (a) depends on its wavelength
(b) depend on its frequency
14. A ray of ligh is incident normally on one of the faces of right
(c) depend on its intensity
angled isosceles prism as shhown above. It undergoes total
(d) neither depend on its wavelength, frequency nor
internal reflection from hypotenuse. Which one of the intensity
following is the minimum refractive index of the material of
21. How far must a girl stand in front of a concave spherical
the prism? mirror of radius 120 cm to see an erect image of her face four
times its natural size? [2009-I]
(a) 40 cm from the mirror
(b) 45 cm from the mirror
(c) 50 cm from the mirror
(d) 55 cm from the mirror
22. An object is kept 5 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal
length 15 cm. What will be the nature of the image?
[2009-II]
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.33 (a) Virtual, not magnified
(c) 1.414 (d) 1.6 [2008-II] (b) Virtual, magnified
15. Consider the following statement: (c) Real, not magnified
The principle of total internal reflection is applicable to (d) Real, magnified
explain the 23. What is the telescope designed to search for earth-size
1. Formation of mirage in desert. planets in the nearby region of our galaxy, termed as ?
2. Formation of image in microscope. [2009-II]
3. Colour of evening sky.
(a) Hubble telescope
4. Operation of optical fibres.
Which of the statement given above are correct? (b) Kepler telescope
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 (c) Copernicus telescope
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 [2008-II] (d) Newton telescope
Optics G-41
24. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens 31. Which one of the following four glass lenses is a diverging
on its principal axis and a virtual image of certain size is lens? [2010-II]
formed. If the object is moved further 8 cm away from the
lens, a real image of the same size as that of the virtual image
is formed. Which one of the following is the focal length of
the lens? [2009-II] (a) (b)
(a) 15 cm
(b) 18 cm
(c) 16 cm
(d) 20 cm
(c) (d)
25. Different objects at different distances are seen by the eye.
The parameter that remains constant is [2009-II]
(a) the focal length of the eye lens 32. Which one among the following statements is correct?
(b) the object distance from the eye lens [2011-I]
(c) the radii of curvature of the eye lens (a) Convex mirrors are used by doctors to examine oral
cavity
(d) the image distance from the eye lens
(b) Concave mirrors are used as reflectors
26. The ratio of the focal length of the objective to the focal
(c) Convex mirrors are used as reflectors
length of the eyepiece is greater than one for [2010-I]
(a) a microscope (d) Convex mirrors should be used for shaving
(b) a telescope 33. Light travels in optical fibre irrespective of its shape because
(c) both microscope and telescope it is a device by which signals can be transferred from one
(d) neither microscope nor telescope location to another. It is based on the phenomenon of
27. The radius of curvature of a plane mirror [2010-I] [2011-I]
(a) diffraction of light
(a) is zero
(b) refraction of light
(b) is infinity
(c) polarisation of light
(c) can be anywhere between zero and infinity
(d) total internal reflection of light
(d) None of the above
34. Which one among the following is the major cause of
28. A coin in a beaker filled with water appears raised. This blurring and unsharp images of objects observed through
phenomenon occurs because of the property of [2010-I] very large telescopes at the extreme limit of magnification ?
(a) reflection of light [2011-I]
(b) refraction of light (a) Air turbulence of earth's atmosphere
(c) total internal reflection of light (b) Poor optical polish achievable on large mirrors
(d) interference of light (c) Poor tracking capacities of telescopes
29. A ray of light falls on a transparent glass plate. A part of it (d) Varying density of air in the Earth's atmosphere
is reflected and a part is refracted. The reflected and refracted 35. Suppose you are standing 1 m in front of a plane mirror.
rays can be perpendicular to each other for What should be the minimum vertical size of the mirror so
[2010-I] that you can see your full image in it ? [2011-I]
(a) angle of incidence equal to 90° (a) 0.50 m (b) 2 m
(b) angle of incidence equal to zero (c) Half of your height (d) Twice your height
36. Light travels slower in glass than in air because [2011-I]
(c) only one angle of incidence
(a) refractive index of air is less than that of glass
(d) more than one angle of incidence
(b) refractive index of air is greater than that of glass
30. Which one of the following is the correct angle between the
(c) density of glass is greater than that of air
incident and reflected rays when a ray of light incident
(d) density of glass is less than that of air
normally on a plane mirror? [2010-II]
37. A spherical air bubble is embedded in a piece of glass. For a
(a) 180°
ray of light passing through the bubble, it behaves like a
(b) 90° [2011-I]
(c) 45° (a) converging lens (b) diverging lens
(d) 0° (c) plano-converging lens (d) plano-diverging len
EBD_7348
38. ‘The stars seem to be higher on the sky than they actually 48. Consider the following statements :
are’. This can be explained by [2011-I] Hypermetropia is a defect of vision in which
(a) atmospheric refraction (b) dispersion of light 1. a person cannot see the distant objects clearly
(c) total internal reflection (d) diffraction of light 2. a person cannot see the near objects clearly
39. When a ray of light is going from one medium to another its 3. the near point of the eye gets shifted away from the
[2011-I] normal position
(a) wavelength remains same 4. the far point of the eye gets shifted towards the eye
(b) frequency remains same [2012-I]
(c) frequency increases Which of the statements given above are correct?
(d) wavelength increases (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
40. The image formed by a convex mirror of a real object is (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
larger than the object [2011-II] 49. To obtain the powerful parallel beams of light from a
(a) when u < 2f (b) when u > 2f vehicle’s headlight, one must use [2012-I]
(c) for all values of u (d) for no value of u (a) front surface silvered plane mirror
(u = object distance, f = focal length) (b) back surface silvered plane mirror
41. Refractive index of an optical medium changes with (c) concave mirror
1. the nature of the medium. (d) convex mirror
2. the change in the angle of incidence of the ray. 50. Yellow colour light is used as fog light because yellow colour
3. colour of the incident ray. [2011-II] [2012-II]
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) light is most scattered by fog
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (b) has the longest wavelength among all colours
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) has the longest wavelength among all colours except
42. A one-rupee coin is placed at the bottom of a vessel. Water red and orange but the red colour is already used for
is then poured into the vessel such that the depth of water brake light and stop light whereas orange colour is
becomes 20 cm. If water has refractive index 4/3, the coin avoided due to its similarity with red
would be seen at a depth of [2011-II] (d) has the shortest wavelength among all colours not
(a) 20 cm (b) about 26 cm already reserved for other purpose
(c) 15 cm (d) 25 cm 51. The mirror used for the head light of a car is [2012-II]
43. Which one among the following is used to make periscope? (a) spherical concave (b) plane
[2011-II] (c) cylindrical (d) parabolic concave
(a) Concave lens (b) Concave mirror 52. Telescopes are placed in space to view distant galaxies
(c) Plane mirror (d) None of the above primarily to [2012-II]
44. What is the power of the lens, if the far point of a short- (a) get closer to the observed objects
sighted eye is 200 cm? [2011-II] (b) avoid the absorption of light or other radiations in the
(a) – 0. 5 D (b) 2 D atmosphere of the earth
(c) 1 D (d) – 1.5 D (c) avoid light pollution from the earth’s populated areas
45. A refracting telescope consists of [2012-I] (d) avoid steering the telescope against the earth’s motion
(a) one concave mirror and one convex lens 53. The human eye is like a camera and hence it contains a
(b) two convex lenses of equal focal length system of lens. The eye lens forms [2013-I]
(c) two concave mirrors of different focal lengths (a) a straight or upright, real image of the object on the
(d) two convex lenses of unequal focal lengths retina
46. If the focal length of the biconvex lens is 25 cm, then the (b) an inverted, virtual image of the object on the retina
power of the lens will be [2012-I] (c) an inverted, real image of the object on the retina
(a) + 4 dioptre (b) – 4 dioptre (d) a straight or upright, real image of the object on the iris
(c) + 0.04 dioptre (d) – 0.04 dioptre 54. An object is placed at the focus of a concave mirror. The
47. Two thin convex lenses of focal lengths 4 cm and 8 cm are image will be [2013-I]
separated by a distance of 4 cm in air. The combination will (a) real, inverted, same size at the focus
have the focal length [2012-I] (b) real, upright, same size at the focus
(a) 4 cm (b) 8 cm (c) virtual, inverted, highly enlarged at infinity
(c) 12 cm (d) 32 cm (d) real, inverted, highly enlarged at infinity
Optics G-43
55. An optician prescribes a lens of power = – 0.5 dioptre. The 61. Rays of light get refracted while passing from air to glass
corresponding lens must be a [2013-I] because [2013-II]
(a) convex lens of focal length 2 m (a) density of glass is higher than that of air.
(b) they cannot be reflected from a glass surface.
(b) convex lens of focal length 50 cm
(c) glass absorbs energy from the light rays.
(c) concave lens of focal length 2m (d) speed of light in glass is less than the speed of light in air.
(d) concave lens of focal length 50 cm 62. White light while passing through a glass prism breaks up
56. The following question consist of two statements, one into light of different colours because [2013-II]
labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other as 'Reason (R), (a) refractive index of glass for different colours of light is
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select different.
the answer : (b) glass prism absorbs white light and emits lights of
several colours in different directions.
Assertion (A) : A person stands at a distance of 1m in front of (c) of total internal reflection of white light on surfaces of
a concave mirror. If the radius of curvature of the mirror is 4m, the prism.
the image of the person lies at a distance 2m behind the mirror. (d) of the interference of different colours inside the prism.
Reason (R) : The general mirror equation confirms the location 63. Consider the following statements: [2014-I]
of the image from the mirror and it could be a real image. A real image
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct 1. can be formed on a screen
explanation of A 2. is always magnified and inverted
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false 64. If speed of light in air is 3 × 108 m/s, the speed of light in
(d) A is false but R is true [2007-II] glass (with refractive index 1.5) would be [2014-I]
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 57 - 58) : The following questions consist of (a) 2 × 108 m/s (b) 4.5 × 108 m/s
two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine (c) 3 × 108 m/s (d) 1.5 × 108 m/s
these two statements carefully and select the answer to these 65. While looking at an image formed by a convex lens (one half
items using the codes given below. of the lens is covered with a black paper), which one of the
following will happen to the image?
Codes : [2014-I]
(a) Both the statements individually true and Statement II is (a) Half of the image will be visible
the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Intensity of the image will be diminished
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is (c) Image will be inverted now
not correct explanation of Statement I. (d) One can see an image of smaller size
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. 66. In optical instruments, the lenses are used to form image by
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. the phenomenon of [2014-I]
(a) reflection (b) refraction
57. Statement I : A myopic person is advised to use concave lens. (c) scattering (d) diffusion
Statement II : The eye lens of a myopic person focuses the 67. A ray of light travels from a medium of refractive index n1 to
parallel rays coming from distant objects in front of the retina. a medium of refractive index n2. If angle of incidence is i and
[2011-I] sin i
58. Statement I : Convex mirror is used as a driver mirror. angle of refraction is r, then is equal to [2014-II]
sin r
Statement II : Images formed by convex mirror are
diminished in size. [2012-I] n2 n1
(a) n1 (b) n2 (c) (d)
59. A beautiful rainbow on the sky is due to the [2013-II] n1 n2
(a) dispersion of sunlight from a water droplet only. 68. Light waves projected on oil surface show seven colours
(b) reflection of sunlight from a water droplet only. due to the phenomenon of [2014-II]
(c) reflection and refraction of sunlight from a water droplet (a) polarization (b) refraction
only. (c) reflection (d) interference
(d) refraction, dispersion and reflection of sunlight from a 69. Which one of the following processes explains the splitting
water droplet. of a beam of white light into its constituent colours?
60. During sunrise and sunset, sun appears reddish-orange [2014-II]
because [2013-II] (a) Dispersion (b) Reflection
(a) during that time sun emits only reddish-orange light. (c) Diffraction (d) Polarization
(b) all other colours are absorbed by the atmosphere.
70. Optical glass used in the construction of spectacles is made
(c) reddish-orange light is least scattered by the atmosphere.
by [2014-II]
(d) all other colours apart from reddish-orange are
reflected back by the atmosphere. (a) flint glass (b) Crookes glass
(c) quartz glass (d) hard glass
EBD_7348
71. Light waves are [2014-II] 4. The image produced in a normal optical microscope is
(a) electro-mechanical waves virtual
(b) electro-magnetic waves Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) electro-optical waves (a) 1 only (b) l and 4
(d) magneto-optical waves (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 72-73): The following 2 (Two) items consist 78. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to [2015-II]
examine these two statements carefully and select the answers (a) The radius of curvature of a concave mirror is twice its
to these items using the code given below : [2015-I] focal length
(b) Power of a convex lens is negative and that of a
Code : concave lens is positive
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement (c) The radius of curvature of a plane mirror is infinity
II is the correct explanation of Statement I (d) When a ray of light passes from an optically denser
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement medium to an optically rarer medium, the angle of
II is not the correct explanation of Statement I refraction is greater than the corresponding angle of
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false incidence
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is true 79. Which one of the following statements is correct?
72. Statement I : Diamond is very bright. [2015-II]
Statement II : Diamond has very low refractive index. (a) The image formed by a concave mirror for an object
73. Statement I : Due to diffused of irregular reflection of light, lying at infinity is at the principal focus, highly
a closed room gets light even if no direct sunlight falls inside diminished, real and inverted
the room. (b) A ray of light parallel to the principal axis after reflection
Statement II : Irregular reflection, where the reflected rays from a concave mirror appears to diverge from the
are not parallel, does not follow the laws of reflection. principal focus of the mirror
74. Optical fibres, though bent in any manner, allows light to pass (c) The focal length of a spherical mirror is double of its
through. What is the inference that one can draw from it ? radius of curvature
[2015-I] (d) A ray of light travelling from a rarer medium to a denser
(a) The concept that light travels in straight path is wrong medium bends away from the normal
(b) Light can flow through the optical fibres 80. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave
(c) Light can travel through the fibres because of their mirror of focal length 16 cm. If the object iis shifted by 8 cm
ductility towards the focus, the nature of the image would be
(d) Light can travel through the fibres due to multiple total [2016-I]
internal reflections (a) real and magnified (b) virtual and magnified
75. A ray of light when refracted suffers change in velocity. In (c) real and reduced (d) virtual and reduced
this context, which one among the following statements is
81. A pencil is placed upright at a distance of 10 cm from a
correct ? [2015-I]
convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The nature of the image
(a) Velocity increases as the ray passes from a rarer to a
denser medium of the pencil will be [2016-I]
(b) Velocity decreases as the ray passes from a denser to a (a) real, inverted and magnified
rarer medium (b) real, erect and magnified
(c) Velocity decreases as the ray passes from a rarer to a (c) virtual, erect and reduced
denser medium (d) virtual, erect and magnified
(d) Change of velocity does not depend on the nature of 82. A lady is standing in front of a plane mirror at a distance of
medium 1 m from it. She walks 60 cm towards the mirror. The distance
76. An object placed 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal of her image now from herself (ignoring the thickness of the
length 15 cm. The image produced will be [2015-I] mirror) is [2016-I]
(a) Real and magnified (a) 40 cm (b) 60 cm
(b) Virtual and magnified (c) 80 cm (d) 120 cm
(c) Virtual and reduced in size 83. The brightness of a star depends on its [2016-I]
(d) Real and reduced in size (a) size and temperature only
77. In case of a compound microscope which of the following (b) size and distance from the earth
statements is/are correct? [2015-II] (c) size, temperature and mass
1. The focal length of the eye piece is larger than the (d) size, temperature and distance from the earth
focal length of the objective 84. An optical illusion which occurs mainly in deserts during
2. The focal length of the eye piece is smaller than the hot summer is based on the principle of [2017-I]
focal length of the objective (a) Reflection
3. The image produced in a normal optical microscope is (b) Interference
real (c) Dispersion
(d) Total internal reflection
Optics G-45
85. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using 1. Both the eyepiece and the objective of a microscope
the code given below the Lists : [2017-I] are convex lenses.
Lists I Lists II 2. The focal length of the objective of a telescope is
(Disease) (Remedy) larger than the focal length of its eyepiece.
A. Hypermetropia 1. Concave lens 3. The magnification of a telescope increases with the
B. Presbyopia 2. Bifocal lens increases in focal length of its objective.
C. Myopia 3. Surgery 4. The magnification of a microscope increases with the
D. Cataract 4. Convex lens increases in focal length of its objective.
Code Which of the statements given above are correct?
A B C D (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4
(a) 4 2 1 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 4 1 2 3 95. If the focal length of a convex lens is 50 cm, which one of the
(c) 3 1 2 4 following is its power? [2018-II]
(d) 3 2 1 4 (a) +2 dioptre (b) +0.02 dioptre
86. Which one of the following statements is correct about the (c) –0.5 dioptre (d) +0.5 dioptre
magnification of an optical microscope? [2017-I] 96. The refractive indices of two media, are denoted by n 1 and
(a) Magnification increases with the increase in focal n2 , and the velocities of light in these two media are
length of eyepiece respectively v1 and v2. If n2/n1 is 1.5, which one of the
(b) Magnification increases with the increase in focal following statements is correct? [2018-II]
length of objective (a) v1 is 1.5 times v2. (b) v2 is 1.5 times v1.
(c) Magnification does not depend upon the focal length (c) v1 is equal to v2. (d) v1 is 3 times v2.
of eyepiece 97. Which one of the following statements is correct for a plane
(d) Magnification decreases with the increase in focal mirror? [2018-II]
length of eyepiece (a) Its focal length is zero.
87. The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex lens (b) The size of the image of an object placed in front of
are 10 cm and 20 cm. The refractive index of the glass is 1.5. the mirror is sightly less than that of the object.
What is the power of this lens (in units of dioptre)? (c) The image is virtual, erect and laterally inverted.
[2017-I] (d) Its focal length is 200 cm.
(a) +7.5 D (b) –7.5 D (c) +2.5 D (d) +5.0 D 98. An object is placed in front of a convex mirror. Which one
88. If the absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 3/2 of the following statements is correct? [2018-II]
and 4/3 respectively, what will be the ratio of velocity of (a) It will never form an inverted image.
light in glass and water? [2017-I] (b) The image moves towards the focus when the object
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 8 : 7 (d) 8 : 9 moves towards the mirror.
89. The mirrors used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles are (c) Depending on the position of the object with respect
[2017-II] to the mirror, the image can be inverted and real.
(a) concave (b) convex (d) The size of the image becomes larger than that of the
(c) cylindrical (d) plane object when the object is placed at a distance equal to
90. Concave mirror is used in headlights of vehicles, because half the focal length.
it [2017-II] 99. The light energy escaping from the Sun can be spread by
(a) focuses light from the bulb onto nearby vehicles (a) a shower of rain drops [2019-I]
(b) sends parallel rays (b) a plane mirror
(c) fits well into the shape of the headlight (c) a convex lens
(d) is cheaper than other mirrors (d) a combination of a convex lens and a concave lens
91. Which one of the following is the natural phenomenon 100. The focal length of the objective lens of a telescope is 50
based on which a simple periscope works? [2018-I] cm. If the magnification of the telescope is 25, then the
(a) Reflection of light focal length of the eye-piece is [2019-I]
(b) Refraction of light (a) 12.5 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 2 cm (d) 10 cm
(c) Dispersion of light 101. The Sun is seen little before it rises and for a short while
(d) Total internal reflection of light after it sets. This is because of [2019-I]
92. Which one of the following statements about the refractive (a) total internal reflection
index of a material medium with respect to air is correct? (b) atmospheric refraction
[2018-I] (c) apparent shift in the direction of Sun
(a) It can be either positive or negative (d) dispersion
(b) It can have zero value 102. When a beam of white light passes through a glass prism,
(c) It is unity for all materials the colour of light beam that deviates the least is [2019-I]
(d) It is always greater than one (a) Blue (b) Red (c) Green (d) Violet
93. Two convex lenses with power 2 dioptre are kept in contact 103. LIGO stands for [2019-I]
with each other. The focal length of the combined lens (a) Laser Interferometer Gravitational wave Observatory
system is [2018-I] (b) Light Interferometer Gravitational wave Observatory
(a) 0.10 m (b) 2 m (c) 4 m (d) 0.25 m (c) Light Induced Gravity Observatory
94. Consider the following statements about a microscope and a (d) Laser Induced Gaseous Optics
telescope [2018-II]
EBD_7348
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 12 (d) 23 (a) 34 (a) 45 (d) 56 (c) 67 (c) 78 (b) 89 (c) 100 (c)
2 (b) 13 (b) 24 (b) 35 (c) 46 (a) 57 (a) 68 (b) 79 (a) 90 (a) 101 (b)
3 (c) 14 (c) 25 (c) 36 (a) 47 (a) 58 (b) 69 (a) 80 (a) 91 (d) 102 (b)
4 (a) 15 (a) 26 (b) 37 (b) 48 (d) 59 (d) 70 (a) 81 (d) 92 (d) 103 (a)
5 (c) 16 (c) 27 (b) 38 (a) 49 (c) 60 (c) 71 (b) 82 (c) 93 (d)
6 (b) 17 (a) 28 (b) 39 (b) 50 (c) 61 (a) 72 (c) 83 (d) 94 (d)
7 (c) 18 (c) 29 (d) 40 (d) 51 (d) 62 (a) 73 (a) 84 (d) 95 (a)
8 (c) 19 (d) 30 (d) 41 (d) 52 (b) 63 (c) 74 (d) 85 (a) 96 (a)
9 (d) 20 (d) 31 (a) 42 (c) 53 (c) 64 (a) 75 (c) 86 (d) 97 (c)
10 (a) 21 (b) 32 (c) 43 (c) 54 (d) 65 (b) 76 (b) 87 (a) 98 (a)
11 (c) 22 (b) 33 (d) 44 (a) 55 (c) 66 (b) 77 (b) 88 (d) 99 (a)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (c) The situation is shown in figure. Here OM1 and OM2 9. (d) When light waves travel from air glass, its velocity change
are mirrors. in the wavelenth as the frequency remains unchanged.
M2 d
10. (a) The resolving power of a telescope is given by .
1.22l
Where d is the diameter of the objective lens. Thus for
A greater resolution large operture telescopes are used.
C q D 11. (c) (1) In a compound microscope, the focal length of
q the objective is small and the focal length of the
eye-piece is large.
q q (2) When object is placed at the centre of curvature
O M1 (2F) of convex lens of focal length (f) then its real
B
image is formed at distance of 2F on the other
AB and CD are incident and reflected rays respectively. side of the lens. Thus the distance between real
Also, AB || OM2 and CD || OM1 image and the object is 4F.
In DOCB, q + q + q = 180° 12. (d) Given near point = 100 cm.
\ q = 60°. [since DOCB is equilateral triangle] \ v = – 100 cm and u = – 25 cm
2. (b) As the rays to not deviate on passing through concave 1 1 1 1 1
lens, so µ1 = µ2. = - = -
f v u -100 -25
After passing through concave lens, rays bend
uniformaly to a single point, so µ3 = µ4 = µ5, also µ2 < µ3. 1 1 1 -1 + 4 3
= + = = cm.
3. (c) In an astronomical telescope, for better magnification, f -100 25 100 100
the focal length of the objective lens must be more 1 100 3
than that of the eyepiece. Power, P =or, P = D = 100 ´ D = 3D
f f 100
5. (c) In astronomical telescope final image with respect to 13. (b) Magnifying power of the simple microscope is given
object is inverted, enlarged and at a distance of least
distant of distinct vision while in terrestrial telescope D
by m = 1 +
final image will be erect with respect to object. f
6. (b) Here light is passing from one medium to other medium 14. (c) From the geometry of figure, the value of critical angle
Then, refractive index of medium 2 relative to 1 C is 45°.
µ2 n1 n
1µ2 = = Þ 1.5 = 45°
µ1 n 2 n2
45°
n n 2n
Þ n2 = = = C
1.5 (3 / 2) 3
8. (c) In Astigmatism, eye cannot see objects in two
orthogonal directions clearly simultaneously. This 45°
abnormality is removed by using cylindrical lens.
Optics G-47
We have, 1 1 1
+ =
1 1 1 +20n 20 f
m = = = = 2 = 1.414. 8 12
sin C sin 45° æ 1 ö 1 20
çè ÷ 1+ = 20
2ø n f
...(ii)
15. (a) The principle of total internal reflection is applicable to From equations. (i) and (ii)
explain the formation of image in desert and operation
12 20 32
of optical fibres. The formation of image in microscope 2= + =
and colour of evening sky are based on refraction of f f f
light. 32
16. (c) When a light wave passes from one medium to other, 2=
f
its frequency remains constant but its speed and
wavelength change. 32
f = = 16cm
17. (a) Negative sign shows that the lens is concave. 2
Here, P = – 5D 25. (c) The parameter that remains constant is the radii of
1 -1 curvature of the eye lens.
\f = = m = – 0.2 m = – 20 cm 26. (b) In telescope, the objective is a convex lens of large
P 5
focal length and eyepiece is a convex lens of small
18. (c) If the refractive index of the lens is greater than the
focal length i.e., fo > fe
refractive index of the surrounding medium then the
lens behaves as a convex lens otherwise as a concave fo
lens. Hence, f > 1 .
e
19. (d) It is due to atmospheric refraction.
27. (b) The radius of curvature of a plane mirror is infinity.
20. (d) In vacuum, the speed of light neither depend on its
28. (b) We know that, the apparent depth is m times less than
wavelength, frequency nor intensity. In vacuum,
the actual depth. i.e.,
speed of light is constant i.e., 3 × 108 m/s.
21. (b) Given, m = + 4 dactual
dapparent =
f m
We know that m = 29. (d) The reflected and refracted rays can be perpendicular
f –u
to each-other for more than one angle of incidence.
– 60 30. (d) When a ray of light incident normally on a plane mirror.
Þ =4 \ u = – 45 cm. The ray will revert back to its path as a result both
– 60 – u
angle of incidence & reflection will be zero.
22. (b) When the object is kept in between concave mirror 31. (a) There are two types of lens, converging (convex lens)
and its focal length, then nature of image would be lens are thick at middle & thin at the edges, another
virtual and magnified. one is diverging (concave lens) which are thinner at
23. (a) Hubble telescope is designed to search for earth-size middle and thicker at edges.
planets in the nearby region of our galaxy. 32. (c) Convex mirror are used as reflectors because they
24. (b) Let f be the focal length of the lens and n be the always give on erect image with a wider field of view.
magnitude of magnification. 33. (d) Optical fibre works on the phenomenon of total internal
Case-I : When object is placed at a distance of 12 cm. reflection of light.
u = – 12 34. (a) Due to air turbulence of earth's atmosphere blurred &
unsharp images are formed by very large telescope.
v = – 12 n
35. (c) The vertical size of mirror should be half of height of
1 1 1 the object to see its full size image.
– = 36. (a) Speed of light depends upon the refrective index of
v u f 12
medium, higher the refrective index slower is the speed
1 1 1 of light. Hence due to higher refrective index of glass
+ =
–12n 12 f than air light travels slower in glass medium.
37. (b) Bubble will behave as diverging lens because refrective
1 12 index of air is less than that of a glass.
1– = ...(i)
n f 38. (a) Due to atmospheric refraction the twinkling of star,
Case-II : When the object is moved further 8cm away and their position appear higher than the normal.
from the lens. 39. (b) When a ray of light travels from one medium to another
u = – (8 + 12) = – 20 its frequency remains same.
40. (d) For all position of object the image formed by a convex
lens is smaller than the size of the object.
EBD_7348
41. (d) Refractive index of a medium depends on its nature. 48. (d) The medical n ame for long-sightedness is
Refractive index (m) is also given by hypermetropia, sometimes called hyperopia. Eyesight
problems, such as hypermetropia, are also known as
sin i
m= refractive errors. Long sight leads to problems with
sin r near vision, and the eyes may commonly become tired.
where i = angle of incidence Distance vision (long sight) is, in the beginning, often
r = angle of refraction clear. Long sight can be corrected by glasses or contact
Thus, m depends on the angle of incidence. lenses, or sometimes 'cured' with laser eye surgery.
C0 49. (c) Because a parabola allows the light rays to be focused
Again, m = where C0 is the velocity of light in as a single beam and give more power to the light, so it
c
vacuum and c is the velocity in a medium. We know is more efficient for seeing and being seen. If the mirror
that frequency remains constant when light passes were spherical, the light would be scattered much more,
from one medium to other, therefore, which wasted energy and reduces efficiency.
50. (c) Yellow colour is used as fog light because of its longest
l
m= 0 wavelength it 63.33 penetrates well through dense fog.
l 51. (d) Parabolic reflectors are used to collect energy from a
The colour of light depends on wavelength. distant source (for example sound waves or incoming
Thus, m depends on the colour of the incident ray. star light) and bring it to a common focal point, thus
4 correcting spherical aberration found in simpler spherical
42. (c) Here, m = reflectors. Since the principles of reflection are reversible,
3
parabolic reflectors can also be used to project energy
real depth = 20 cm
apparent depth = ? of a source at its focus outward in a parallel beam, used
in devices such as spotlights and car headlights.
real depth 52. (b) The atmosphere prevents correct observation due to
We have, m = apparent depth
refraction and along with light pollution. Telescopes
in space are able to provide accurate important details
real depth 20 ´ 3 so there for you can see much better.
Þ apparent depth = = = 15 cm.
m 4 53. (c) Real and inverted image is formed on retina byt the eye
43. (c) In a Periscope plane mirrors are used. lens.
44. (a) For point, x = 200 cm
54. (d) M
=2m
Power of lens is given by
E
1 1 D
P=- = - = – 0.5 D P
x 2 C F
45. (d) A refracting or refractor telescope is a type of optical
telescope that uses a lens as its objective to form an
image (also referred to a dioptric telescope). All N
refracting telescopes use the same principles. The For concave mirror if u = f, v = ¥
combination of an objective lens 1 and some type of
eyepiece 2 is used to gather more light than the human 1
55. (c) P =
eye is able to collect on its own, focus it 5, and present f (in metre)
the viewer with a brighter, clearer, and magnified virtual
image 6. 1
Þ – 0.5 =
46. (a) Power of a lens P f
1 1 1
= = (f +ve as lens is biconvex) Þ f= - = -2m
f (in metre) 25 0.5
100 –ve sign shows the lens is concave.
= + 4 dioptre R 4
47. (a) From formula, 56. (c) f=- = - = -2m
2 2
1 1 1 d x = – 1m
= + -
f f1 f2 f1f2 using the mirror formula
1 1 1 4 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= + - = or f = 4 cm = + Þ = +
f 4 8 4´8 4
f v u -2 v -1
Optics G-49
71 (b) Light waves are electromagnetic waves. Electromagnetic

1 1 1 1
+1 = or = or v = 2 m waves are formed by the vibrations of electric and
-2 v v 2 magnetic fields. These fields are perpendicular to one
As v is postive, the image formed is virtual. another in the direction the wave is travelling.
57. (a) In myopia, power of the eye lens increases; thus here 72. (c) The refractive index of diamond is very high (2.417) .
image does not form on the retina but at the front of 73. (a) Diffuse reflection is the reflection of light from a rough
it. surface such that an incident rays are reflected at many
58. (b) Convex mirrors are used as driving mirrors because angles rather than at just one angle. In diffused reflection
they give drivers a much larger field of view without reflect rays are not parallel but obey laws of reflection
needing to move their heads from side to side. 74. (d) Once the light enters the end of the tube or fibre, it
60. (c) Blue colour rays are small and scattered to a larger experiences total internal reflection because of the large
areas while red colour rays are larger and scattered to a angle of incidence.
smaller area. 75. (c) As we know refractive index
61. (a) Rays of light get refracted while passing from air to velocityof light in vaccum . The velocity of light
glass because density of glass is higher than that of air m=
velocityof light in medium
refraction is the change in direction of a wave due to
change in its transmission medium. decreases as the ray passes from a rarer to a denser
64. (a) Given that medium.
C = 3 × 108m/s, H = 1.5 76. (b) When the object is located between F and optical
centre, the image produced is virtual and magnified.
C 3 ´ 108 78. (b) When the image and object are at the two different
then V = = = 2 ´108 m / s sides of a lens the then focal length is positive. When
H 1.5
the object and images are at the same side (one side
66. (b) Refraction is the change in direction of propagation of only) then the focal length is negative.
a wave due to a change in its transmission medium. 79. (a) The image formed by the concave mirror for an object
67. (c) According to Snell's law, lying at infinity is at the principal focus highly
n1 × sin i = n2 × sin r diminished, real and inverted.
80. (a) Image formed by concave mirror when object is placed
sin i n2
= between centre of curvature and focus will be real and
sin r n1 magnified.
81. (d) Image formed by covex mirror when object is placed
between focus and optical centre will be virtual, erect
Medium of and magnified.
i refractive index n1 82. (c) In plane mirror, distance of object from mirror = distance
of image from mirror.
Medium of So the distance between mirror and object = 40 + 40 =
r refractive index n2 80 cm.
83. (d) The brightness of a star depends on its composition
i.e. size and temperature (energy light radiation e.g. X-
68. (b) Refraction is the change in direction of propagation of ray, etc.) and how far it is from the planet.
a wave due to a change in its transmission medium.
84. (d) In physics, Total internal reflection (TIR), complete
Thus, light waves projected on oil surface show seven
reflection of a ray of light within a medium such as
colours.
water or glass from the surrounding surfaces back into
69. (a) A white light (sunlight) splits into its seven constituent
the medium. Here, the ray of light continues to be
colours VIBGYOR due to dispersion. reflected within the medium (glass, water etc.) without
A being refracted off. TIR occurs not only with
electromagnetic waves such as light waves and
microwaves, but also with other types of waves,
including sound and water waves.
i R 85. (a) Hypermetropia, sometimes called hyperopia, is the term
used to define being longsighted. Myopia is the term
V used to define being shortsighted.
A myopic person has clear vision when looking at
objects close to them, but distant objects will appear
B C blurred. Presbyopia is when your eyes gradually lose
70. (a) Flint glass, also called lead crystal, heavy and durable the ability to see things clearly up close. It is a normal
glass characterized by its brilliance, clarity, and highly part of aging. Contaract is a condition in which the
refractive quality is used in the construction of clarity of the natural lens reduces. Lens of the eye
spectacles. becomes Opaque.
EBD_7348
86. (d) A telescope operates with an object at infinity (or close 95. (a) Power of a lens is always reciprocal to the focal length.
to it), and the angular magnification is given by the So, a convex lens with 50cm focal length has a power
ratio between objective and eyepiece focal lengths. So of (1/0.5) Dioptre (D) or 2D. Since, a convex lens is a
increasing the objective focal length increases the converging lens, the power of the convex lens is +2D.
magnification - but it also makes the telescope tube 96. (a) Refractive index of medium 2 w. r. t. medium1 is given
longer, which can be awkward. So, normally, you by
increase magnification by switching to a shorter focal n2= Speed of light in medium 1 / Speed of light in medium 2
length eyepiece, not a longer focal length objective = v1 /v2 = 1.5
and Vice versa. hence, v1 = 1.5 × v2
88. (d) Given, µg = 3 / 2 vw = 4 / 3 97. (c) The image formed by a plane mirror is always virtual,
µg = c/ vg µw = c/vw upright, and of the same shape and size as the object it
µg/ µw = vw/ vg 3/2/4/3 = vw/ vg is reflecting. A virtual image is a copy of an object
formed at the location from which the light rays appear
9/8 = vw/ vg or vg/ vw = 8/9 to come.
Vg : vw = 8:9 98. (a) An object is placed in front of a convex mirror. It will
89. (c) An image formed in a convex mirror is smaller than an never form an inverted image.
image in a plane mirror, so a convex mirror provides for 99. (a) The light energy escaping from the sun can be spread
a larger field of view than a plane mirror. The rear view by a shower of rain drops.
mirrors in vehicles use convex mirror.
90. (a) Concave mirror is used in headlights of vehicles, f0
because it focuses light from the bulb onto nearby 100. (c) Magnification M = f
e
vehicles.
91. (d) Total internal reflection complete reflection of a ray of 50
fe = = 2 cm
light within a medium such as water or glass from the 25
surrounding surfaces back into the medium. The 101. (b) Due to refraction, rays from sun bends along the
phenomenon occurs if the angle of incidence is greater atmospheric layers and gives the illusion of early
than a certain limiting angle, called the critical angle. sunrise and late sunset. The sunrise or the sunset is
92. (d) Refractive index of a medium with respect to air is the early and delayed by nearly 2 minutes.
ratio of the velocity of light in air to the velocity of the 102. (b) In refraction through a glass prism, the emergent ray
light in the medium. It is also the ratio of the refractive is deviated from its original direction by a certain angle.
index of the medium with respect to vacuum to the This angle is the angle of deviation. During dispersion
refractive index of air with respect to vacuum. of white light, the colour which deviates the least is
93. (d) 0.25 m. red.
94. (d) In case of compound microscope both the eyepiece 103. (a) The Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave
and the objective of are made up of convex lenses. Observatory (LIGO) is a large-scale physics experiment
The focal length of the objective of a telescope is larger and observatory to detect cosmic gravitational waves
than the focal length of its eyepiece. and to develop gravitational-wave observations as an
The magnification of a telescope increases with the astronomical tool.
increase in focal length of its objective since m = fo/fe
while the magnification of microscope decreases with
increase in focal length of its objective.
Electricity & Magnetism G-51
Electricity & Magnetism

6
1. Why does a tower appear larger and larger to a person 7. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
approaching it ? The space surrounding a charge in uniform motion has
1. The angle subtended by the tower at the eye increases. (a) only an electric field
2. The focal length of eye lens increases. (b) only a magnetic field
3. The size of the image on the retina of eye increases. (c) both electric and magnetic fields
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (d) neither an electric field nor a magnetic field
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only [2006-I]
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 [2006-I] I I
8.
1. The magnetic pole in the northern hemisphere is the
north magnetic pole.
A r1 r2 A
2. At all points on a magnet, an iron bar gets attracted.
Which one of the following statements given above
is/are correct ?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2006-I] Two rods having equal lengths and equal cross-sections
3. The effective resistance of two wires is 2 x. The resistance but different specific resistances r1 and r2 are joined at one
of one wire is two times that of the other wire and is three end as shown in the figure given above. What is the effective
times the effective resistance. Which one of the following is specific resistance of the combination ?
correct in respect of value of x ? r1 r2 r1 + r2
(a) x can take only one value. (a) (b)
r1 + r2 2
(b) x must only be greater than or equal to 1
(c) x can take any positive real value r1 r2
(d) The information given above is inconsistent [2006-I] (c) r1 + r2 (d) 2(r1 + r2 ) [2006-II]
4. The function of a safety fuse of a given material is
9. What is the number of neutral points for a bar magnet with
independent of which one of the following?
its north pole pointing geographical north?
(a) Radius of the fuse wire
(a) Zero (b) One
(b) Resistivity of the fuse wire (c) Two (d) Infinite [2006-II]
(c) Length of the fuse wire 10. Two charged spheres of radii 10 cm and 15 cm are connected
(d) Current flowing through the fuse wire [2006-I] by a thin wire. Current will flow through them if they have
5. The mass of a copper wire of resistance R1 and length l1 is the same
four times the mass of another copper wire of length l2 and 1. charge on each 2. energy
resistance R2. If R1 = R2, which one of the following is 3. potential
correct ? Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) l1 = l2 (b) l1 = 4l2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) l1 = 2l2 (d) 2l1 = l2 [2006-I] (c) Only 3 (d) Both 1 and 2 [2006-II]
6. Why does one experience a strong shock when one 11. A current is passed through a vertical spring from whose
accidentally touches a live wire of, say, 220 V ? lower end a weight is hanging. What will happen to the
(a) The resistance of human body is very low weight ?
(b) The resistance of human body is very high (a) The weight shall go up
(c) The human body is sensitive to even feeble currents (b) The weight shall go down
(d) The human body is sensitive to large currents only (c) The position of the weight will remain the same
[2006-I] (d) The weight shall oscillate [2006-II]
EBD_7348
12. 16. A hollow sphere of radius 50 cm is charged, such that the
R1 S1 R2 S2 potential on its surface is 500 V. What is the potential at the
centre of sphere?
(a) Zero (b) 10 V
(c) 200 V (d) 500 V [2007-I]
V C 17. When an electric bulb breaks, what is the reason for a mild
bang?
(a) A chemical reaction between the enclosed gases
(b) Compressed gases rush out suddenly
(c) The air rushes in to fill the evacuated space
In the circuit shown above, when do the condenser (C) get (d) None of the above [2007-I]
fully charged to volts ? 18. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) Both S1 and S2 are closed For an open circuit, the value of load,
(b) Both S1 and S2 are opened (a) would be infinite (b) would be zero
(c) S1 is closed but S2 is opened (c) depends on the voltage of the source
(d) S1 is opened but S2 is closed [2006-II] (d) depends on other components of circuit [2007-I]
19. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
13. 6V A fairly uniform magnetic field is produced
(a) inside a horse-shoe magnet
(b) inside a cylindrical conductor
3W x R (c) inside a solenoid
Y
(d) between two parallel conductors [2007-I]
20. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
If pieces of copper and germanium are cooled from room
B temperature to liquid nitrogen temperature, then the
(a) resistance of each increases
B is a 1.5 V, 0.30A, 5.0 W torch bulb working in the circuit as (b) resistance of each decreases
shown above. What is the combined resistance of R and B (c) resistance of copper decreases while that of germanium
between the points X and Y ? increases
(a) 3.0 W (b) 0.45 W (d) resistance of copper increases while. that of germanium
(c) 1.0 W (d) 5.0 W [2006-II] decreases [2007-I]
21. A wire of resistance 16 W is bent in the form of a circle.
14. What is the effective resistance between diametrically
opposite points?
+
(a) 1 W (b) 2 W
(c) 4 W (d) 8 W [2007-I]
2W
G 100V
22.
8W
– 3A 4W 3A
1W
60A
A generator G having a terminal voltage of 100 V is delivering If an input current 3 A flows through the circuit shown above,
a total current of 60 A to a load comprising N number of 50 what is the value of the current flowing through the 4W resistor?
W, 100 V lamps connected in parallel as shown in the circuit (a) 1.6 A (b) 0.8 A
given above. What is the value of N ? (c) 0.75 A (d) 0.4 A [2007-I]
(a) 30 (b) 40 23. Which one of the following is correct?
(c) 60 (d) 120 [2006-II] Lightning is formed, when
15. Which one of the following does not affect the motion of a (a) similar charges of electricity rush towards each other
moving electron? and then get repelled
(a) Electric field applied in the direction of motion (b) clouds strike against impurities in air and hte friction
(b) Magnetic field applied in the direction of motion burns up these impurities
(c) Electric field applied perpendicular to the direction of (c) strong opposite charges in different clouds break
motion down the resistance offered by intervening air
(d) Magnetic field applied perpendicular to the direction (d) water vapour produces electricity in the clouds [2007-II]
of motion [2007-I]
24. Which one of the following is correct? 34. A wire has a resistance of 32 W. It is melted and drawn into
Electrical lines of forces a wire of half of its original length. What is the resistance of
(a) exist everywhere the new wire?
(b) exist in the immediate vicinity of positive charge (a) 32 W (b) 16 W
(c) exist in the immediate vicinity of negative charge (c) 8 W (d) 4 W [2008-I]
(d) are imaginary [2007-II] 35. In which one of the folliwng cases Ohm’s law is not valid?
25. Two similar poles repel each other with a force of 0.005 N (a) Wire bound resistor (b) Potentiometer
when placed 16 cm apart. If they are placed 8 cm apart, what (c) Junction diode (d) Electric bulb [2008-II]
will be the repulsing force? 36. A proton and an electron having equal velocity are allowed
(a) 0.001 N (b) 0.002 N to pass through a uniform magnetic field. Which one of the
(c) 0.01 N (d) 0.02 N [2007-II] following statements is correct in this connection?
26. Which one of the following is correct? (a) The proton and the electron experience equal and
A negatively charged glass rod has always opposite force
(a) less electrons than protons (b) The proton experiences greater force then does the
(b) less electrons than neutrons electron
(c) The electron experiences more force than does the
(c) less protons than electrons
proton
(d) less neutrons than protons [2007-II]
(d) No moving charged particle experiences a force in a
27. The dimensions of a rectangular block of carbon are
magnetic field [2008-II]
2 cm × 2 cm × 10 cm cm. If the resistivity of the carbon is
37. Consider the following: Heat produced in a conductor
2 × 10–5 W m, what is the resistance measured between the
carrying current is independent of
two square surfaces?
1. Current passing through it.
(a) 5 × 10–3 W (b) 2 × 10–3 W
2. Thermal conductivity. 3. Specific resistance.
(c) 5 × 10 W –2 (d) 2 × 10–2 W [2007-II]
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
28. Which one of the following is correct? [2008 II]
One unit of electric power is consumed when (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
(a) 1 A of current flows for 1 sec at 220 V (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
(b) 1 A of current flows for 1 sec at 10 V 38. DC current can be controlled by which one of the following
(c) 100 A of current flows for 1 sec at 10 V components? [2008-II]
(d) 10 A of current flows for 1 hour at 100 V [2007-II] (a) Impedance (b) Resistance
29. In our houses we get 200 VAC What does the value 220 V (c) Capacitance (d) Inductance
represent? 39. The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of [2009-I]
(a) Constant voltage (b) Effective voltage (a) 1 mm (b) 1 cm
(c) Average voltage (d) Peak voltage [2007-II] (c) 1 micron (d) 1 angstrom
30. If the current is flowing through a 10 ohm resistor, then in 40. The electric charge is stored in a device called [2009-I]
which one of the following cases maximum heat will be (a) Inductor (b) Capacitor
generated? (c) Resister (d) Transformer
(a) 5 A in 2 min (b) 4 A in 3 min
(c) 3 A in 6 min (d) 2 A in 12 min [2008-I] V=10V
31. The rating of an electric lamp is 110V. To use it on 220 V, one 41.
will have to use which one of the following? I
(a) Transistor (b) Resistor
(c) Transformer (d) Generator [2008-I] R1=1W
32. A bar magnet is placed inside a uniform magnetic field. What
does it experience?
(a) A force (b) A torque R2=2W
(c) Both a force and a torque
(d) Neither a force nor a torque [2008-I]
Which one of the following is the value of current I in the
33. 3A 2A circuit shown above? [2009-I]
l (a) 5 A (b) 10 A
1.5 A (c) 15 A (d) 20 A
1A 42. The force experienced by a unit positive test charge placed
The figure shows current in a part of electrical network. at a point is called [2009-I]
What is the value of current I? (a) magnetic field at that point
(b) gravitational field at that point
(a) 0.2 A (b) 0. 1 A
(c) electrical field at that point
(c) 0.3 A (d) 0.5 A [2008-I]
(d) nuclear field at that point
EBD_7348
43. Non-conductors, whose polarization is caused by an electric 51. The magnetic lines of force due to the bar magnet [2010-I]
field, are known as [2009-I] (a) intersect inside the body of the magnet
(a) Semi-conductors (b) Super-conductors (b) intersect at neutral points only
(c) Dielectrics (d) Resistive conductors (c) intersect only at north and south poles
44. The resistance of a Wire that must be placed parallel with a (d) cannot intersect at all
120 resistance to obtain a combined resistance of 4W is 52. The specific resistance of a conducting wire depends upon
[2009-I] [2010-I]
(a) 2W (b) 4W (a) length of the wire, area of cross-section of the wire and
(c) 6W (d) 8W material of the wire
45. A current I in a lamp varies with voltage V as shown in the (b) length of the wire and area of cross-section of the wire
figure given below. Which one of the following is the but not on the material of the wire
variation of power P with current I ? [2009-II] (c) material of the wire only but neither on the length of
the wire nor on the area of cross-section of the wire
(d) length of the wire only but neither on the area of cross-
section of the wire nor on the material of the wire
53. Which one of the statements given below is not correct?
V
[2010-I]
(a) A vertical plane passing through the axis of a freely
l suspended magnet is called the magnetic meridian
(b) A vertical plan passing through the axis of rotation of
the Earth is called the geographical meridian
(c) The degree to which the magnetic field can penetrate a
(a) P (b)
P
medium is known as the relative permeability of the
medium
I
(d) The relative permeability is not a dimensionless
I quantity
54. How many sixty watt (60 W) bulbs may be safely used in a
240-V supply with 4-ampere fuse? [2010-I]
(a) 4 (b) 8
(c) P (d) P (c) 12 (d) 16
55. Magnetism of a bar magnet can be destroyed if it is
I I. kept in the magnetic meridian. [2010-II]
I
II. placed in a direction opposite to that of the Earth's
46. Net charge in a current-carrying conductor is [2009-II] horizontal intensity.
(a) always positive III. heated to a temperature known as Curie temperature.
(b) always negative Select the correct answer using the code given below
(c) zero (a) I and III only (b) II only
(d) either positive or negative (c) II and III only (d) I, II and III
47. Which one of the following is the resistance that must be 56. Capacity of a parallel plate condenser can be doubled by
placed parallel with 12W resistance to obtain a combined I. doubling the areas of the plates. [2010-II]
resistance of 4W ? [2009-II] II doubling the distance of separation between the
(a) 2 W (b) 4 W plates.
(c) 6 W (d) 8 W III. reducing the distance of separation between the plates
48. An electric iron of resistance 20 W takes a current of 5 A. to half the original separation.
The heat developed in joules in 30 s is [2009-II] IV. doubling both the areas of the plates and the distance
(a) 5 kJ (b) 10 kJ of separation between the plates.
(c) 15 kJ (d) 20 kJ Select the correct answer using the code given below
49. A house, served by a 220 V supply line, is protected by a 9A (a) I and IV (b) I and III
fuse. What is the maximum number of 60 watt bulbs that can (c) III only (d) II and III
be turned on in parallel ? [2009-II] 57. If two conducting spheres are separately charged and then
(a) 11 (b) 22 brought in contact [2010-II]
(c) 33 (d) 44 (a) the total energy of the two spheres is conserved
50. The effective resistance of three equal resistances, each of (b) the total charge on the spheres is conserved
resistance r, connected in parallel, is [2010-I] (c) both the total energy and charge are conserved
(a) 3/r (b) r/3 (d) the final potential is always the mean of the original
(c) 3r (d) r3 potential of the two spheres
58. Two pieces of metallic wire having equal lengths and equal 68. Potential at a point due to a point charge is V. The charge is
volume placed in air have different resistances. The two doubled and also the distance of the point from the charge
wires must [2010-II] is doubled. The new potential is [2011-II]
(a) have different cross-sections (a) V/2 (b) 4 V
(b) have different temperatures (c) V (d) 2 V
69. Kilowatt- hour is the unit of [2011-II]
(c) be of different materials
(a) potential difference (b) electric power
(d) be of same density (c) electric energy (d) electric potential
59. If a heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part 70. Three resistance coils of 1 W, 2 W and 3 W are connected in
is used in the heater, the heat generated will be [2010-II] series. If the combination is connected to a battery of 9 V,
(a) doubled (b) four times what is the potential drop across the resistance coil of 3 W ?
(c) one-fourth (d) halved [2011-II]
60. The direction of magnetic field at a point due to an infinitely (a) 2.0 volt (b) 3.0 volt
long wire carrying current is [2010-II] (c) 4.5 volt (d) 6.0 volt
(a) parallel to the current 71. An electric lamp of 100 watt is used for 10 hours per day.
(b) antiparallel to the current The ‘units’ of energy consumed in one day by the lamp is
(c) along the perpendicular drawn from a point on the wire [2011-II]
(d) perpendicular to the plane containing the conductor (a) 1 unit (b) 0.1 unit
and the point (c) 10 units (d) 100 units
72. Two similarly charged bodies are kept 5 cm apart in air. If the
61. A hollow metal ball carrying an electric charge produces no
second body is shifted away from the first by another 5 cm,
electric field at points [2010-II] their force of repulsion will be [2012-I]
(a) outside the sphere (b) on its surface (a) doubled (b) halved
(c) inside the sphere (d) only at the centre (c) quadrupled (d) reduced to one-fourth
62. The material used for electric fuse is an alloy of tin and lead. 73. The main power supply in India is at 220 V, whereas that in
This alloy should have [2011-I] the US is at 110 V. Which one among the following
(a) high specific resistance and low melting point statements in this regard is correct? [2012-I]
(b) low specific resistance and high melting point (a) 110 V is safer but more expensive to maintain
(c) low specific resistance and low melting point (b) 110 V is safer and cheaper to maintain
(d) high specific resistance and high melting point (c) 110 V leads to lower power loss
63. The lines of force of uniform magnetic field [2011-I] (d) 110 V works better at higher latitudes
(a) must be convergent 74. The resistance of a wire is 10 W. If it is stretched ten times,
(b) must be divergent the resistance will be [2012-I]
(a) 1 W (b) 10 W
(c) must be parallel to each other
(c) 100 W (d) 1000 W
(d) intersect 75. The torque on a rectangular coil placed in a uniform magnetic
64. If the electrical resistance of a typical substance suddenly field is large when the [2012-I]
drops to zero then the substance is called [2011-I] (a) number of turns is large
(a) superconductor (b) semiconductor (b) number of turns is less
(c) conductor (d) insulator (c) plane of the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field
65. Magnets attract magnetic substances are iron, nickel, cobalt, (d) area of the coil is small
etc. They can also repel [2011-I] 76. Two metallic wires A and B are of same material and have
(a) paramagnetic substances equal length. If the cross-sectional area of B is double that
of A, then which one among the following is the electrical
(b) ferromagnetic substances
resistance of B? [2012-I]
(c) diamagnetic substances (a) Twice that of A (b) 4 times that of A
(d) non-magnetic substances 1
66. Two copper wires A and B of length l and 2l respectively, (c) 1 that of A (d) that of A
4 2
have the same area of cross- section. The ratio of the
resistivity of wire A to the resistivity of wire B is [2011-II] 77. For which among the following house appliances, magnet
is an essential part? [2012-I]
(a) 4 (b) 2 (a) Calling bell (b) Fan
(c) 1 (d) 1/2 (c) Washing machine (d) All of the above
67. A neural (uncharged) metal ball is suspended using a non- 78. Which one among the following is the correct order of power
magnetic string. A positively charged insulating rod is consumption for light of equal intensity ? [2012-II]
placed near the ball which is observed to be attracted to the (a) CFL tube < Fluorescent tube < Incandescent bulb <
rod. This is because [2011-II] Light emitting diode
(a) the ball becomes positively charged by induction (b) Light emitting diode < CFL tube < Fluorescent tube <
(b) the ball becomes negatively charged by induction Incandescent bulb
(c) CFL tube < Fluorescent tube < Light emitting diode <
(c) there is a rearrangement of the electrons in the ball Incandescent bulb
(d) the number of electrons in the ball is more than the (d) Incandescent bulb < Light emitting diode < Fluorescent
number of electrons on the rod tube < CFL tube
EBD_7348
79. Which one among the following is the true representation 85. Consider the following circuit :
of (i) variable DC potential (ii) rheostat and (iii) AC ammeter
3W
respectively ? [2012-II]
(a) (i) (ii)

3W
(iii) A
~
(b) (i) (ii)

K
6V
(iii) A
The current flowing through each of the resistors connected
(c) (i) (ii) in the above circuit is [2012-II]
(a) 2A (b) 1A
(iii) A
~ (c) 9A (d) 4A
86. When an electrical safety fuse is rated (marked) as 16 A, it
(d) (i) (ii) means it [2012-II]
(a) will not work if current is less than 16 A
(iii) A (b) has a resistance of 16 W
(c) will work if the temperature is more than 16°C
80. In India, distribution of electricity for domestic purpose is
done in the form of [2012-II] (d) will be blown (break) if current exceeds 16 A
(a) 220 V; 50 Hz (b) 110 V; 60 Hz 87.
(c) 220 V; 60 Hz (d) 110 V; 50 Hz
81. The earth’s magnetic field is approximately [2012-II]
(a) 1 Tesla (b) 2 Gauss
(c) 104 Tesla (d) 1 Gauss
82. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the Lists : [2012-II] The motion of an electron in presence of a magnetic field is
List I List II depicted in the figure. Force acting on the electron will be
(Magnet) (Property) directed [2013-I]
A. Artificial magnet 1. Long lived (a) into the page
B. Permanent magnet 2. Last for infinitely (b) out of the page
long period (c) opposite to the motion of the electron
(d) along the motion of the electron
C. Temporary 3. Short lived
88. Imagine a current carrying wire with the direction of current
magnet downward or into the page. The direction of magnetic field
D. Earth as a magnet 4. Induced magnet lines is [2013-I]
Code : (a) clockwise (b) anti-clockwise
A B C D (c) into the page (d) out of the page
(a) 3 1 4 2 89. Ohm’s law defines [2013-I]
(b) 3 4 1 2 (a) a resistance
(c) 2 1 4 3 (b) current only
(d) 2 4 1 3 (c) voltage only
(d) both current and voltage
83. The polarity of an unmarked horse shoe magnet can be 90. A current-carrying wire is known to produce magnetic lines
determined by using [2012-II] of force around the conducting straight wire, the direction
(a) a charged glass rod of the lines of force may be described by : [2013-I]
(b) a magnetic compass (a) left-hand thumb rule for up-current and right-hand
(c) an electroscope thumb rule for down current
(d) another unmarked bar magnet (b) right-hand thumb rule for up-current and left-hand
84. Consider the following statements : thumb rule for down current
1. If a piece of bar magnet is broken into two equally long (c) right-hand thumb rule for both up and down currents
pieces, the pieces will not lose the magnetic properties. (d) left-hand thumb rule for both up and down currents
91. Metal used to make wires for safety fuses must have
2. Magnetic properties of a substance lie in the atomic
[2013-I]
level. [2012-II] (a) very low resistivity and high melting point
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (b) high resistivity and low melting point
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) low resistivity and low melting point
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) high resistivity and high melting point
92. A positively charged particle projected towards west is What should be the reading of the voltmeter in the circuit
deflected towards north by a magnetic field. The direction given above? [2013-II]
of the magnetic field is [2013-I] (All the resistance are equal to 1 W and the battery is of 1.5
(a) towards south volt)
(a) 1.5 volt (b) 0.66 volt
(b) towards east
(c) 1 volt (d) 2 volt
(c) in downward direction 99. An electric heater is rated 1500 watt. If electric power costs
(d) in upward direction ` 2 per kilo-watt-hour, then the cost of power of 10 hours
93. A current I flows through a potential difference V in an running of the heater is [2013-II]
electrical circuit containing a resistance R. The product of V (a) ` 30 (b) ` 15
(c) ` 150 (d) ` 25
and I, i.e., VI may be understood as [2013-I]
100. When long dry hair is brushed the strands often move away
(a) resistance R from each other because while brushing [2013-II]
(b) heat generated by the circuit (a) air is being blown through the strands.
(c) thermal power radiated by the circuit (b) static electric charges are being induced on the hair.
(d) rate of change of resistance (c) mechanical energy is being transferred into heat energy.
(d) the gravitational attraction among the strands becomes
94. This question consist of two statements, one labelled as
smaller.
the Assertion (A) and the other as 'Reason (R), You are to
101. Two conducting wires A and B are made of same material. If
examine these two statements carefully and select the
the length of B is twice that of A and the radius of circular
answers to these items using the codes given below:
cross-section of A is twice that of B, then their resistances
Assertion(A) : If the filament of a light bulb is not uniform
RA and RB are in the ratio [2014-I]
horizontal its life is shortened.
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
Reason(R) : Resistance of glowing light bulb is less than
(c) 1 : 8 (d) 1 : 4
that of bulb at room temperature. [2013-I]
102. During short-circuiting, the current flowing in the electrical
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct circuit [2014-I]
explanation of A (a) reduces substantially
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the (b) does not change
correct explanation of A (c) increases instantaneously
(c) A is true but R is false (d) varies continuously
(d) A is false but R is true 103. Van de Graaff generator is used for [2014-I]
95. A current of 0.5A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb (a) accelerating charged particles
for 20 minutes. The amount of electric charge that flows (b) generating large currents
through the circuit is [2013-II] (c) generating electric field
(a) 1 C (b) 10 C (d) generating high-frequency voltage
(c) 600 C (d) 300 C
96. Which one among the following properties of a proton may 104. I
change while it moves freely in a magnetic field? [2013-II]
(a) Speed (b) Charge
(c) Mass (d) Velocity
97. Ohm’s law can also be taken as a statement for [2013-II]
(a) conservation of energy.
(b) conservation of electric charge.
(c) conservation of angular momentum. O V
(d) non-conservation of momentum of the flowing
charges. The current (I)-voltage (V) plot of a certain electronic device
is given above. The device is [2014-I]
(a) a semiconductor
98. V
(b) a conductor which obeys Ohm’s law
1.5 volt
(c) a superconductor
1W (d) an insulator
105. A fuse is used in an electric circuit to [2014-I]
(a) break the circuit when excessive current flows through
1W the circuit
(b) break the circuit when power gets off
(c) indicate if the current is flowing uninterrupted
(d) complete the circuit for flow of current
1W
EBD_7348
106. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction implies a 114. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
production of induced [2014-I] the code given below the Lists : [2015-I]
(a) resistance in a coil when the magnetic field changes List I List II
with time (Physical quantity) (Unit)
(b) current in a coil when an electric field changes with A. Distance 1. Mole
time B. Amount of material 2. Coulomb
(c) current in a coil when a magnetic field changes with C. Amount of electrical 3. Light year
time change
(d) voltage in a coil when an electric field changes with D. energy 4. Watt hour
time Code :
A B C D
DIRECTION(Q.107) : The following item consists of two (a) 3 1 2 4
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine (b) 3 2 1 4
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these (c) 4 2 1 3
items using the code given below. [2014-II] (d) 4 1 2 3
115. When you walk on a woolen carpet and bring your finger
Code: near the metallic handle of a door an electric shock is
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is produced. This is because [2015-I]
the correct explanation of Statement I. (a) charge is transferred from your body to the handle
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is (b) a chemical reaction occurs when you touch the handle
not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) the temperature of the human body is higher than that
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false of the handle
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (d) the human body and the handle arrive at thermal
107. Statement I: It is not necessary that every bar magnet has equilibrium by the process
one North Pole and one South Pole. 116. The product of counductivity and resistivity of a conductor
Statement II: Magnetic poles occur in pair. [2015-I]
108. Which of the following are the correct parameters for the (a) depends on pressure applied
common domestic power supply in India? [2014-II] (b) depends on current flowing through conductor
(a) 220 V, 110 Hz (c) is the same for all conductors
(b) 220 V, 50 Hz (d) varies from conductor to conductor
(c) 110 V, 220 Hz 117. We use CFL to save electrical energy and to provide
(d) 110 V, 50 Hz surfficient light. The full form of CFL is [2015-I]
109. Which one of the following circuit elements is an active (a) Condensed filament light
component? [2014-II] (b) Compact filament lamp
(a) Resistor (b) Transistor (c) Condensed fluorescent lamp
(c) Inductor (d) Capacitor (d) Compact fluorescent lamp
110. The working of a microwave oven involves [2014-II] 118. Two long wires each carrying a d.c. current in the same
(a) absorption of microwaves by matter direction are placed close to each other. Which one of the
(b) reception of microwaves by optical fibre following statements is correct? [2015-II]
(c) microwave amplification by stimulated emission of (a) The wires will attract each other
radiation (b) The wires will repel each other
(d) transmission of microwaves through a metal (c) There will be no force between the wires
111. A cyclotron accelerates particles of mass m and charge q. (d) There will be a force between the wires only at the
The energy of particles emerging is proportional to moment when the current is switched ON or OFF
[2014-II]
119. Three equal resistances when combined in series are
(a) q2/m (b) q/m2
equivalent to 90 ohm. Their equivalent resistance when
(c) q2/m2 (d) q
combined in parallel will be: [2015-II]
112. The electric field inside a perfectly conducting hollow object is
[2014-II] (a) 10 ohm (b) 30 ohm
(a) 4p (c) 270 ohm (d) 810 ohm
(b) infinite 120. Which of the following are the properties of an electron?
(c) zero [2015-II]
(d) dependent upon the shape of the object 1. Electron is a constituent of cathode ray
113. If a charged particle (+q) is projected with certain velocity 2. Electron is a negatively charged particle
parallel to the magnetic field, then it will [2015-I] 3. The mass of the electron is equal to the mass of the proton
(a) trace helical path 4. Electron is deflected by the electric field but not by
(b) trace circular path magnetic field
(c) continue its motion without any change Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(d) come to rest instantly (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
121. The resistance of a wire of length l and area of cross-section 130. In a solenoid, the current flowing through the wire is I and
a is x ohm. If the wire is stretched to double its length, its number of turns per unit length is n. This gives a magnetic
resistance would become: [2015-II] field B inside the solenoid. If number of turn per unit length
(a) 2 x ohm (b) 0.5 x ohm is increased to 2n, what will be the value of magnetic field
(c) 4 x ohm (d) 6 x ohm in the solenoid? [2017-I]
122. Magnetic meridian is an imaginary: [2015-II] (a) B (b) 2 B
(a) line along north-south (c) B / 2 (d) B / 4
(b) point 131. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard
(c) vertical plane to the material of electrical insulators? [2017-I]
(d) horizontal plane (a) They contain no electrons
123. A simple circuit contains a 12 V battery and a bulb having 24 (b) Electrons do not flow easily through them
ohm resistance. When you turn on the switch, the ammeter (c) They are crystals
connected in the circuit would read [2016-I] (d) They have more number of electrons than the protons
(a) 0.5 A (b) 2 A on their surface
(c) 4 A (d) 5 A 132. Which one of the following physical quantities does NOT
124. Three resistors with magnitudes 2, 4 and 8 ohm are connected affect the resistance of a cylindrical resistor? [2017-I]
in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the system would be (a) The current through it
[2016-I] (b) Its length
(a) less than 2 ohm (c) The resistivity of the material used in the resistor
(b) more than 2 ohm but less than 4 ohm
(d) The area of cross-section of the cylinder
(c) 4 ohm
(d) 14 ohm 133. Suppose a rod is given a negative charge by rubbing it
125. Consider the following circuit: [2016-I] with wool. Which one of the following statements is correct
2W in this case? [2017-I]
(a) The positive charges are transferred from rod to wool
(b) The positive charges are transferred from wool to rod
i 4W 8W i (c) The negative charges are transferred from rod to wool
(d) The negative charges are transferred from wool to rod
134. If the potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is
doubled while keeping the separation between the filament
6W
The equivalent resistance of the circuit will be and the target as same, what will happen to the cutoff
wavelength? [2017-I]
11
(a) 12 W (b) 8 W (a) Will remain same
12 (b) Will be doubled
1 24 (c) Will be halved
(c) 9 W (d) W
11 25 (d) Will be four times of the original wavelength
126. A given conductor carrying a current of 1 A produces an 135. A positive charge +q is placed at the centre of a hollow
amount of heat equal to 2000 J. If the current through the metallic sphere of inner radius a and outer radius b. The
conductor is doubled, the amount of heat produced will be electric field at a distance r from the centre is denoted by E.
[2016-I] In this regard, which one of the following statements is
(a) 2000 J (b) 4000 J correct? [2017-I]
(c) 8000 J (d) 1000 J (a) E = 0 for a < r < b
127. Which one of the following devices changes low voltage (b) E = 0 for r < a
alternating current to high voltage alternating current and (c) E = q/4pe0r for a < r < b
vice versa? [2017-I] (d) E = q/4pe0a for r < a
(a) Generator (b) Motor 136. The symbol of SI unit of inductance is H. It stands for
(c) Transformer (d) Vibrator [2017-II]
128. At which place Earth's magnetic field becomes horizontal? (a) Holm (b) Halogen
[2017-I] (c) Henry (d) Hertz
(a) Magnetic meridian (b) Magnetic equator 137. The majority charge carriers in a p-type semiconductor are
(c) Geographical pole (d) Tropic of Cancer [2017-II]
129. A circular coil of single turn has a resistance of 20 W. (a) free electrons (b) conduction electrons
Which one of the following is the correct value for the (c) ions (d) holes
138. Step-up transformers are used for [2017-II]
resistance between the ends of any diameter of the coil?
(a) increasing electrical power
[2017-I]
(b) decreasing electrical power
(a) 5 W (b) 10 W (c) decreasing voltage
(c) 20 W (d) 40 W (d) increasing voltage
EBD_7348
139. What is the net force experienced by a bar magnet placed in 146. The graphs between current (l) and voltage (v) for three
a uniform magnetic field? [2018-I] linear resistors 1, 2 and 3 are given below:
(a) Zero 1
(b) Depends upon length of the magnet
(c) Never zero 3
(d) Depends upon temperature I
140. Which one of the following devices is non-ohmic?[2018-I] 2
(a) Conducting copper coil
(b) Electric heating coil
(c) Semi conductor diode V
(d) Rheostat If R1, R2 and R3 are the resistances of these resistors, then
141. Which one of the following statements about magnetic field which one of the following is correct? [2018-II]
lines is NOT correct? [2018-I] (a) R1 > R2 > R3 (b) R1 < R3 < R2
(a) They can emanate from a point
(c) R3 < R1 < R2 (d) R3 > R2 > R1
(b) They do not cross each other
(c) Field lines between two poles cannot be precisely 147. A circular coil of radius R having N number of turns carries a
straight lines at the ends steady current I. The magnetic induction at the centre of the coil
(d) There are no field lines within a bar magnet is 0.1 tesla. If the number of turns is doubled and the radius is
halved, which one of the following will be the correct value for
142. The magnetic field strength of a current- carrying wire at a
the magnetic induction at the centre of the coil? [2018-II]
particular distance from the axis of the wire [2018-II]
(a) 0.05 tesla (b) 0.2 tesla
(a) depends upon the current in the wire
(c) 0.4 tesla (d) 0.8 tesla
(b) depends upon the radius of the wire 148. Which one of the following can charge an insulator ?
(c) depends upon the temperature of the surroundings [2019-I]
(d) None of the above (a) Current electricity (b) Static electricity
143. If a free electron moves through a potential difference of (c) Magnetic field (d) Gravitational field
1 kV, then the energy gained by the electron is given by 149. Let us consider a copper wire having radius r and length l.
Let its resistance be R. If the radius of another copper wire
[2018-II]
is 2r and the length is l/2 then the resistance of this, wire
(a) 1.6 × 10 J
–19
(b) 1.6 × 10 J
–16
will be [2019-I]
(c) 1 × 10 J
–19
(d) 1 × 10–16J (a) R (b) 2R (c) R/4 (d) R/8
144. Consider the following circuit: [2018-II] 150. Two metallic wires A and B are made using copper. The
radius of wire A is r while its length is l. A dc voltage V is
R
R applied across the wire A, causing power dissipation, P.
The radius of wire B is 2r, and its length is 2l and the same
A B dc voltage V is applied across it causing power dissipation
R P1. Which one of the following is the correct relationship
between P and P1 ? [2019-I]
R (a) P = 2P1 (b) P = P1/2
(c) P = 4P1 (d) P = P1
Which one of the following is the value of the resistance 151. Consider the following statements about a solenoid :
between points A and B in the circuit given above? [2019-I]
2 3 1. The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends
(a) R (b) R upon the number of turns per unit length in the
5 5
solenoid.
3 2. The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends
(c) R (d) 4R
2 upon the current flowing in the wire of the solenoid.
145. The connecting cable of electrical appliances like electric 3. The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends
iron, water heater or room heater contains three insulated upon the diameter of the solenoid.
copper wires of three different colours-red, green and black. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Which one of the following is the correct colour code? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
[2018-II]
152. A fuse wire must be [2019-I]
(a) Red-live wire, Green-neutral wire, Black-ground wire (a) conducting and of low melting point
(b) Red-neutral wire, Green-ground wire, Black-live wire (b) conducting and of high melting point
(c) Red-live wire, Green-ground wire, Black-neutral wire (c) insulator and of high melting point
(d) insulator and of low melting point
(d) Red-ground wire, Green-live wire, Black-neutral wire
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 17 (c) 33 (d) 49 (c) 65 (c) 81 (d) 97 (a) 114 (a) 130 (b) 148 (b)
2 (d) 18 (a) 34 (c) 50 (b) 66 (b) 82 (a) 98 (c) 115 (a) 131 (b) 149 (d)
3 (c) 19 (c) 35 (c) 51 (d) 67 (b) 83 (b) 99 (a) 116 (c) 134 (b) 150 (b)
4 (c) 20 (c) 36 (a) 52 (c) 68 (c) 84 (c) 100 (b) 117 (d) 135 (a) 151 (d)
5 (a) 21 (c) 37 (d) 53 (d) 69 (c) 85 (a) 101 (c) 118 (a) 136 (c) 152 (a)
6 (b) 22 (d) 38 (b) 54 (d) 70 (c) 86 (d) 102 (c) 119 (a) 137 (d)
7 (c) 23 (c) 39 (d) 55 (c) 71 (a) 87 (b) 103 (d) 120 (a) 138 (d)
8 (c) 24 (d) 40 (b) 56 (b) 72 (d) 88 (b) 105 (b) 121 (c) 139 (a)
9 (c) 25 (d) 41 (c) 57 (b) 73 (a) 89 (a) 105 (a) 122 (c) 140 (c)
10 (d) 26 (c) 42 (c) 58 (c) 74 (d) 90 (c) 106 (c) 123 (a) 141 (d)
11 (d) 27 (a) 43 (c) 59 (a) 75 (a) 91 (b) 107 (d) 124 (a) 142 (a)
12 (c) 28 (d) 44 (c) 60 (d) 76 (d) 92 (d) 108 (b) 125 (c) 143 (b)
13 (c) 29 (b) 45 (b) 61 (c) 77 (d) 93 (c) 109 (a) 126 (c) 144 (b)
14 (d) 30 (c) 46 (c) 62 (a) 78 (b) 94 (c) 110 (c) 127 (c) 145 (c)
15 (d) 31 (b) 47 (c) 63 (c) 79 (c) 95 (c) 111 (a) 128 (a) 146 (b)
16 (d) 32 (b) 48 (c) 64 (a) 80 (a) 96 (d) 113 (c) 129 (a) 147 (c)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

3. (c) Let the resistance of one wire be R1 and the second
wire be R2. l1
2
According to the question, R1 r12 l1 æ r2 ö R1 l2 l1
\ = = ´ç ÷ Þ = ´
And R1 = 3 × effective resistance R 2 l2 l2 è r1 ø R 2 l2 l2
or R1 = 3 × 2x = 6x
r22
Since, effective resistance is less than resistance of
either wire, so the two wires are connected in parallel. But R1 = R2
1 1 1 1 1 3 R \ l12 = l22 or, l1 = l2
\ = + = + = Þx= 2
2x R1 R 2 2R 2 R 2 2R 2 3 7. (c) A uniformly moving charge has both electric and
magnetic fields in its surrounding space.
Also, x = R1 9. (c) If the north pole of the magnet points towards
6
geographical north, the fields of the magnet and the
Hence, x can take any positive real value.
earth will point in opposite directions along the
4. (c) Fuse wire acts like a safety device and saves the
equatorial line of the magnet we get two neutral points
equipment from being damaged due to short-circuiting.
on the equatorial line which are equidistant from the
The function of a safety fuse of a given material is
axis of the magnet.
independnet of length of the fuse wire.
5. (a) Mass of wire is given by 6V
13. (c)
M = pr2 l r E Z
But M1 = 4M2
i
pr12l1l = pr22 l2 l 3W X R
A Y
\ r12 l1 = r22 l2 0.30
2
ær ö l B
\ç 1÷ = 2
è r2 ø l1
Applying Kirchhoff’s second law to loop EAXYZ
Now, resistance is given by
3i + Ri1 = 6 ...(i)
rl l (Q A = pr2) Applying Kirchhoff’s second law to loop EAXBZ
R= ,R ¥
A r2 3i + 0.30 × 5 = 6 ...(ii)
EBD_7348
From equ. (i) and (ii) we get
1 1 1 1 1
Ri1 – 1.5 = 0 22. (d) Equivalent resistance = + + +
R 2 8 4 1
Ri1 = 1.5
\ 3i = 6 – 1.5 8
\R= W
or i = 1.5A 15
As R and B are in parallel, so potential difference across And potential difference of each branch,
R will be 1.5 V,
\ 1.5 = (i – 0.30) R 8 8
V = iR = ´ 3 = volt
or 1.5 = (1.5 – 0.30) R = 1.20 R 15 5
\ R = 5/4 W \ Current through 4p resistance
So, combined resistance of R and B between x and y 8
1 1 1 1 4 V 5 8
= + = + i= = = = 0.4A
R C 5 (5 / 4) 5 5 R 4 5´ 4
24. (d) Electrical lines of force are imaginary. They do not exist
\ RC = 5/5 = 1W
in reality.
14 . (d) Effective resistance of circuit
25. (d) Force between two magnetic poles is
V 100 5
R eff = = = W m m ´ m2 1
i 60 3 given by, F = 0 1 or F µ
4p r 2
r2
Now, resistance of each lamp
2 2
V 2 100 ´100 F1 r22 æ 8 ö æ 1ö F1 1
Thus = = =ç ÷ or =
R=
P
=
50
= 200W F2 r11 çè 16 ÷ø è 2ø F2 4
As, N number of lamps are in parallel, so or F2 = 4×F1 = 4 × 0.005 = 0.02 N.

26. (c) A glass rod becomes negatively charged when it gains
1 1 1
= + + ..... + N terms electrons and hence it has always more electrons and
R eff 200 200 hence it has always more electrons than protons.
27. (a) l = 2 cm, b = 2cm, h = 10cm,
1 N 1 N
Þ = Þ = Resistivity r = 2 × 10 –5 W m
R eff 200 (5 / 3) 200
Resistance between two square sufaces,
200 ´ 3 h 10 ´ 10 -2
N= = 120
5 R=r = 2 ´ 10-5 ´ W = 5 × 10 – 3 W
l´b (2 ´ 2)10 -4
16. (d) Potential is same inside and on the surface of sphere.
28. (d) One unit of electric power = kWh = 1000 watt hour
17. (c) When an electric bulb breaks, the air rushes in to fill
P = V.I.t = 100 v × 10A × 1 hour = 1000 W hour
the evacuated space.
Thus 10 A of current flowing for 1 hour at 100 V is
18. (a) Value of load will be infinite in open circuit. equal to one unit of electric power.
29. (b) The 220 V AC represent virtual or effective voltage of
21. (c) 8W AC.
30. (c) Heat generated,
(a) H = I2Rt = (5)2 × 10 × 2 × 60 = 30000 J
X Y (b) H = (4)2 × 10 × 3 × 60 = 28800 J
(c) H = (3)2 × 10 × 6 × 60 = 32400 J
(d) H = (2)2 × 10 × 12 × 60 = 28800 J
Hence, maximum heat will be generated when 3A current
8W flows for 6 minutes.
31. (b) To use the electric lamp (rating 110 V) on 220V, we
Equivalent resistance between X and Y should combine resistors in series with the lamp.
32. (b) A bar magnet placed inside a uniform magnetic field
1 1 1
= = + = 4W experiences a torque.
R XY 8 8 33. (d) According to kirchhoff's junction rule, the algebraic
sum of current at a junction is zero. 46 (c) Net charge in current-carrying conductor is always
Thus, 2 – I – 1.5 = 0 or I = 0.5 A negative as flow of electrons.
l R
34. (c) R= r
A
47. (c)
when the length of the wire is halved its area of gross-
section is doubled as the volume is the same. 12W
Hence, new resistance,
Let RW Resistance placed parallel with 12W
l/2 1 æ l ö 1 1
R' = r = ç r ÷ = ´ R = ´ 32 = 8 W 1 1 1
2A 4 è A ø 4 4 Then equivalent resistance = + =
35. (c) Ohm’s law doesn’t hold good in case of non-ohmic R 12 4
resistor such as junction diode.
12 + R 1
36. (a) The force experienced by a particle having charge 9 Þ =
r 12R 4
moving with a velocity v in a uniform magnetic field
r r r r Þ 48 + 4R = 12 R
B is given by F = 9(v × B)
Þ 8R = 48
From above expression it is clear that both electron
\ R =6W
and proton will experience equal but opposite force as
they have equal but opposite charges. 48. (c) Required heat would be 15 kJ
38. (b) Except resistance, other components are the 49 (c) We know P = V × I
components of AC. Let maximum number of 60 watt bulb be x.
39. (d) The wavelength of x-ray is 1 angstrom.
Then 60x = 220 × 9
40. (b) Capacitor is a device which stors electric charge.
41. (c) Given circuit shows the parallel combination of \ x = 33
resistance. 50. (b) Let the effective resistance of three equal resistance,
each of resistance r, connected parallel is R
1 1 1
Hence equivalent resistance = = +
R R1 R 2 1 1 1 1 3
Then = + + = .
R r r r r
1 1 1 2
Þ = + \ R= W
R 1 2 3 r
\ R=
According to Ohm’s V = IR 3
V 10 ´ 3 51. (d) The magnetic lines of force due to bar magnet cannot
\ I= = = 15 A
R 2 intersect each- other at point, the field has one direction
42. (c) The force experienced by a unit positive test charge only.
placed at a point is called electric field at that point. 52. (c) The specific resistance of a conducting wire depends
43. (c) Dielectric may not conduct electricity through it but an on the nature of material of the body and independent
applying electric field, induced charges are produced
on its faces. of shape and size of the body.
44. (c) Let the resistance of the wire be R1 m
53. (d) Relative permeability =
R1R 2 mo
Now, Rcomb = R + R
1 2
It is unitless and hence no dimension.
12 ´ R1 54. (d) We know Power = Voltage × Current
4+
12 + R1 Þ R1 = 6W Þ P = 240 × 4 = 960 w
45. (b) We know that P = VI
960
Hence variation of power P with current would show \ Required number of bulbs = = 16 bulbs
60
same graph as given in question
55. (c) Magnetism of a bar magnet can be destroyed if it is
placed in a direction opposite to that of the Earth’s
horizontal intensity and heating it to a temperature
known as Curie temperature.
V
56. (b) Capacity of a parallel plate condenser is given by the
l e A
formula C = 0 . By this we can clearly conclude
d
EBD_7348
that capacity of the condenser can be doubled by 69. (c) Kilowatt-hour (kWh) is the unit of electric energy. This
doubling the areas of the plate as C µ A and reducing unit is generally used by electricity board to measure
the distance of separation between the plates to half the electricity consumed in our houses. The board
name it as ‘unit’.
1 70. (c) The equivalent resistance of the three resistors is
the original separation as C µ .
d R = (1 + 2 + 3) W = 6 W
57. (b) If two conducting spheres are separately charged and
then brought in contact, the total charge on the sphere 1W 2W 3W
is conserved because loss of energy occur in the form
of heat due to flow of charge.
58. (c) The two wires must be of different materials. I
59. (a) The heat generated will be doubled.
60. (d) The direction of magnetic field at a point due to an
infinitely long wire carrying current is perpendicular to 9V
the plane containing the conductor and the point.
61. (c) A hollow metal ball carrying an electric charge produces \ Current following through each resistor is
no electric fields inside the sphere. V 9
62. (a) For electric fuse we always use material with high I= = = 1.5 A
R 6
specific resistance & low melting point, an alloy of tin Hence, potential droop across 3W resistor is
& lead is one of them. V´ = IR = 1.5 ´ 3 = 4.5 V
63. (c) In a uniform magnetic field lines of force are parallel to
each other. 100 ´ 10
71. (a) Unit consumed = =1
64. (a) Superconductors are made by dropping their electrical 1000
resistance to zero. 72. (d) The attractive or repulsive interaction between any two
65. (c) Magnets can repel diamagnetic substances. charged objects is an electric force. Like any force, its
66. (b) Resistivity (r) of a wire is given by affect upon objects is described by Newton's laws of
motion. The electric force – F(elect)- joins the long list
l of other forces that can act upon objects.
R=r
A 73. (a) 110 V is safer but more expensive to maintain.
74. (d) If a wire stretched to ‘n’ times then
RA
Þr = New resistance R¢ = n2R = (10)2 × 10W = 1000 W
l
75. (a) Since, Torque t = nIAB sin q
rA l B Hence Torque is large when no. of turns (n) is large
\ =
r B lA (Q R and A are constant) l
76. (d) Q R µ
A
2l
= =2 \ RA = constant
l
RAAA = RBAB = constant
67. (b) When the positively charged rod is brought near the
uncharged ball, the latter becomes negatively charged R A AA R A AA R A
or, RB = = =
due to induction. Due to this reason the ball is observed AB 2A A 2
to be attracted towards the rod. Therefore the electrical resistance of ‘B’ will be ½ that
68. (c) Potential at a point due to a charge Q is given by of A
1 Q 77. (d) Magnets are usually used in appliances with spinning
V= . motors such as a sewing machine or a fan. They are also
4p Î0 r
used in heat induction stoves. There is a magnet under
where r is the distance of the point from the charge. the surface which also serves as a heating element.
When the charge is doubled and also the distance of Wherever the pan makes contact, that's where the plate
the point from the charge is doubled then new potential heats up. In a spinning motor, there are 2 rotating
1 2Q 1 Q magnets, one regular magnet and one electro-magnet.
V ´= . = . = V When electricity travels through the electro-magnet,
4p Î0 2r 4p Î0 r
both magnets will spin because either the south or north
\ Potential does not change.
poles align and then repel each other. The normal magnet 93. (c) Thermal power (P) = Potential difference (V) × current (I)
is attached to a shaft which spins a gear which eventually 94. (c) If the filament of wire is not uniform, the amount of
will spin whatever it is attached to. heat produced due to flow of current will be different in
78. (b) Light emitting diode< CFL tube< fluorescent tube< the different parts of wire and hence, it will be damaged.
incandescent bulb. The resistance of filament increases with increase in
80. (a) 220 V; 50 Hz temperature.
81. (d) Earth’s magnetic field (also known as the geomagnetic 95. (c) It is given that current (I) = 0.5 A Time (t) = 20 min
field) is the magnetic field that extends from the Earth's = 1200 s
inner core to where it meets the solar wind, a stream of We know that charge (Q) = I × t = 0.5 × 1200 = 600C
96. (d) When some electrical charge moves in a magnetic field,
energetic particles emanating from the Sun.
a force acts on it. This force is called Lorentz force.
Its magnitude at the Earth’s surface ranges from This force changes the velocity of the proton.
25 to 65 µT (0.25 to 0.65 G). 97. (a) Ohm’s law follow the law of conservation of energy.
82. (a) Properties of different types of magnets are; Artificial According to ohm’s law,
magnet- short lived, permanent magnet- long lived, Voltage (V)
Temporary magnet- induced magnet, earth as a magnet- Electric current (I) =
Resistance (R)
last for infinitely long period.
98. (c) Both the lower resistances are in parallel.
83. (b) A magnetic compass can be used to determine the
polarity of any type of magnet. 1 1 1
\ = +
84. (c) Broken pieces of magnet never lose their magnetic R 1 1
properties. 1
86. (d) will be blown if current exceeds 16A. Þ R= W
2
r r ur
87. (b) F = qv ´ B Entire external resistance of the circuit
The disection of force is perpendicular to the direction 1
= + 1 = 1.5W
of mangnetic field and current as given by Fleming’s 2
left hand rule. The direction of current is opposite to E
the direction of motion of electrons. Hence the force is Current in the circuit = i =
R
directed out of the page.
1.5
88. (b) According to right hand thumb rule, if thumb = = 1Å
1.5
represents the direction of current flows, then the
Reading of the voltmeter = V = i.R
direction of folding fingers will represent the direction
= 1 × 1 volt
of magnetic lines of force. = 1 volt
89. (a) According to Ohm’s law resistance
3
V 1 volt 99. (a) Power = 1500 watt = kilowatt
R = I ; 1 ohm = 1 ampere 2
Time = 10 Hrs
90. (c) This is according to right-hand thumb rule – if thumb
Electrical energy consumed
represents the direction of current flows, then the
= Power × Time
direction of folding fingers will represent the direction
of magnetic lines of force. 3
= kilowatt × 10 Hrs.
91. (b) The fuse wire is used in series with the electrical 2
installations. If strong current flows, the fuse wire melts = 15 kilowatt hour
away causing breakage in the circuit thereby saving Cost of electricity consumed = ` 15 × 2 = ` 30
the electrical appliances. 101. (c) Given that lB = 2lA and r A = 2rB
l
N Now, from R = r
A
Magnetic field (B)
R A l A rB2 l r 2 1
92. (d) W E = ´ = A ´ B =
R B l B r 2 2l A (2rB )2 8
+vely charged A
particle(q) = 1:8
S
102. (c) During short circuiting, the current flowing in the
r ur electrical circuit increase instantaneously.
F = qv ´ B
i.e., the direction of magnetic field is in upward direction.
EBD_7348
103. (d) A Van de Graaff generator is an electrostatic generator 114. (a) Large distance is measured in light year. Amount of a
which uses a moving belt to accumulate electric charge material is measured by mole. Amount of electrical
on a hollow metal globe on the top of an insulated charge is measured in coulomb. Energy is measured in
column, creating very high electric potentials. It watt hour.
produces very high voltage direct current (DC) 115. (a) All materials are made up of negatively- and positively-
electricity at low current levels. A tabletop version charged particles. These usually exist in equal amounts,
can produce on the order of 100,000 volts and can balancing each other out. But when two materials come
store enough energy to produce a visible spark. It into contact, one may 'steal' negatively-charged
was invented by Robert J. Van de Graaff in 1929. electrons from the other. One material ends up with
105. (b) Ohm's Law is the linear proportionality between more negative charges than positive ones, meaning
current and voltage that occurs for most conductors that it becomes negatively-charged overall, whilst the
of electricity. A graph of voltage against current is a other becomes positively-charged. If the charges
straight line. cannot move away as they are produced, they
105. (a) A fuse is used in an electric circuit to break the circuit accumulate in the material as static charge, or electricity.
when excessive current flows through the circuit. Once you have built up a big enough static charge, an
106. (c) According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic electric shock is almost inevitable. The moment you
touch a conducting material such as metal, the excess
df electrons jump between your hand and the conductor,
induction, emf induced, e = -
dt giving you a shock.
where, df = change in magnetic flux 116. (c) Conductivity (s) is the reciprocal of resistivity.
107. (d) It is necessary that every bar magnet has one North 1
Pole and one South Pole. With a compass we can i.e., s =
r
always tell which direction is north and if you know
north, then you know all of the other directions. 117. (d) Compact Fluorescent Lamp is the energy saving lamp,
Magnetic poles always exist in pairs. designed to reduce the electric power consumption.
118. (a) When wire carrying d.c. current in the same direction
108. (b) The correct parameters of domestic power supply in are placed close to each other, the wire will attract each
India are voltage 220 V and frequency of AC 50 Hz. other.
109. (a) As Pav = Vrms × Irms cos f is zero in case of pure 119. (a) Three equal resistance in series are 90 ohm. therefore
capacitor and inductor circuits, and in a resistor there resistance is 30 ohm.
is a power loss. Hence it is consider as active Three resistance each with 30 ohm in parallel gives
component of a circuit. 10 ohm.
110. (c) A microwave oven is based on maser.' Maser' is a 120. (a) Cathode rays are composed of negatively charged
device that produces coherent electromagnetic waves particle electron.
through amplification by stimulated emission. 121. (c) Resistance is directly proportional to length(l)
r µ l , r µ 1/a
mV 2 wire is stretched to double its length the resistance will
111. (a) As we know, for cyclotron qVB = become
r
r µ l, r µ 1/a/2 Combining these two r µ 4l/a
qBR 123. (a) i = V/R = 12/24 = 0.5A
=V
m 124. (a) 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3
=1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8
1
KE= mv 2 =7/8
2 R=8/7, It is more than one and less than 2.
1 q 2 B2 r 2 q 2 B2 r 2 125. (c) 1/R = 1/R1+1/R2 + 1/R3
Þ KE = m = =1/2+1/4+1/6
2 m2 2m
=11/12
q2 R=12/11
KE µ
m Total resistance =12/11+8=9 1/11ohm.
112. (c) The electric field inside a perfectly conducting hollow 126. (c) Heat produced by the wire, W = I2R
object is zero as there is no charge inside the object W1/W2 = (I1)2/(I2)2
electrostatic shielding. 2000/W2 =(1)2/(2)2
W2 = 2000X4/1
qinside
And from Gauss' law ò E.ds = W2 = 8000J
e0 127. (c) A transformer is an electrical device which, by the
principles of electromagnetic induction, transfers
Therefore electric field inside Einside = 0
electrical energy from one electric circuit to another,
113. (c) If the charged particle is moving along the magnetic without changing the frequency. It works on the
field – parallel or antiparallel to the magnetic field–then principle of mutual induction of two coils or Faraday
there would be no force on it as F = qv B sin q
Law's Of Electromagnetic induction. Transformers are The energy can be given by the formula E=VQ, where
used for increasing or decreasing the alternating 'E' represents potential energy in joules, and 'Q'
voltages in electric power applications, and for coupling represents charge in coulombs.
the stages of signal processing circuits. E = (1 kV) (1.6 × 10–19 J)
128. (a) The magnetic meridian is an equivalent imaginary line E = 1.6 × 10–16 J
connecting the magnetic south and north poles and 144. (b) 1/R1 = 1/R + 1/R
can be taken as the horizontal component of magnetic R1= R/2
force lines along the surface of the earth. R2 = R/2 + R = 3/2 R
129. (a) Each of the two semicircles between the two ends of 1/RAB= 2/3 R + 1/R = 5/3R
the diameter has a resistence of 20/2 = 10. ???? parallel RAB = 3/5 R
between the 2 ends of the diameter. Thus the effective 145. (c) The correct combination is,
resistance R = R1 × R2/R1 + R2 = 10 × 10 Red-live wire,
130. (b) A long solenoid is the one which has a larger length in Black-neutral wire
comparison to the radius. It consists of a long wire Green-ground wire or earth
wound in the form of a helix where the neighboring 146. (b) According to Ohm's law, the resistance and current are
turns are closely spaced. So each turn can be regarded inversely proportional to each other and the factor IR
as a circular loop. The net magnetic field is the vector remains constant at a specific voltage. Since the current
sum of the fields due to all the turns. Enamelled wires i1 > i3 > i2 hence the corresponding resistance will be
are used for winding so that turns are insulated from R1 < R3 < R2
each other. 148. (b) Insulator can be charged by methods of friction and
The magnetic field inside a long solenoid is: B = ?o nI induction. Charge stored in this process will be static.
……….(1) where n = number of turns per unit length
and I = current flowing through the solenoid. The rl
149. (d) Resistance R =
magnetic field at a point on one end of the long solenoid A
is:
B = (µ0 nI/2) rl
R1 = =R
135. (a) E = 0 for a < r < b A
136. (c) The henry (H) is the Standard International ( SI ) unit
of inductance. Reduced to base SI units, one henry is ælö
rç ÷
2 rl R
the equivalent of one kilogram meter squared per R 2 = è ø2 = =
second squared per ampere squared (kg m 2 s -2 A -2 ). p ( 2r ) 8A 8
137. (d) The majority charge carriers in a p-type semiconductor
are holes. P-type semiconductors are created by doping l l
an intrinsic semiconductor with acceptor impurities. 150. (b) Resis tance of wire R = r =r· 2
A pr
The term p-type refers to the positive charge of the
If R0 is resistance of first wire, the resistance of second
hole.
wire.
138. (d) Set up transformers are used for increasing voltage.
139. (a) The net force experienced by a bar magnet placed in a 2l 1 l R
R =r· = ·r 2 = 0
p · ( 2r )
2
uniform magnetic field is zero. 2 pr 2
140. (c) The device that does not follow ohm’s law is known
as a non-ohmic device. Examples of non ohmic devices V2 V2
R= and P1 = = 2P
are: thermistors, crystal rectifiers, vacuum tube, bulb, R0 R 0/2
Semi conductor diode etc.
151. (d) The magnetic field inside a solenoid is proportional to
141. (d) Magnetic field lines are a visual tool used to represent both the applied current and the number of turns per
magnetic fields. They describe the direction of the unit length. There is no dependence on the diameter
magnetic force on a north monopole at any given of the solenoid, and the field strength doesn’t depend
position. on the position inside the solenoid, i.e., the field inside
142. (a) The magnetic field in space around an electric current is constant.
is proportional to the electric current in it Similarly, In 152. (a) A fuse wire is an electrical instrument used for reducing
the given statement, the magnetic field strength of a the damage of electrical appliances when a high current
current carrying wire at a particular distance from the passes into the wire. A fuse wire should have more
axis of the wire depends upon the current in the wire.
resistance and a low melting point.
143. (b) Since the electron moves through a potential difference,
the gain in kinetic energy will be equal to the Potential
energy lost by the electron.
EBD_7348
Modern Physics 7
1. Which type of cell can be used if a device requires 75 A of 10. Which one of the following is correct?
current for 15 seconds ? The wavelength of the X-rays
(a) Simple voltaic cell (b) Daniel cell (a) is longer than the wavelength of sound waves
(c) Leclanche cell (d) Lead-acid cell [2006-I]
(b) is longer than the wavelength of the yellow sodium
2 Consider the following statements:
light
1. X-rays show transverse wave characteristics.
2. X-rays can eject electrons from certain metal surfaces (c) is longer than the wavelength of radio waves
3. X-rays of 0.1 Å are harder than X-rays of 0.2 Å. (d) is of the order of 0.1 nanometer [2007-II]
Which of the statements given above is/are, correct ? 11. Electromagnetic radiations are emitted by which of the
(a) 1 only (b) l and 2 only following?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 [2006-I] (a) Only by radio and television transmitting antennas
3. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the (b) Only by bodies at temperature higher than their
wavelengths of radiations ? surroundings
(a) UV > Green> IR > Hard X-rays
(c) Only by red-hot bodies
(b) IR > Green> UV > Hard X-rays
(c) UV > Hard X-rays> IR > Green (d) By all bodies [2007-II]
(d) IR > Hard X-rays> Green> UV [2006-II] 12. Which one among the following radiations carries maximum
4. Repeaters used in telephone links are: energy?
(a) Rectifiers (b) Oscillators (a) Ultraviolet rays (b) Gamma-rays
(c) Amplifiers (d) Transformers [2006-II] (c) X-rays (d) Infra-red rays [2008-I]
5. Nuclear fusion reactions require very temperatures so as to 13. The neutron, proton, electron and alpha particle are moving
overcome: with equal kinetic energies. How can the particles be arranged
(a) van der Waals' forces (b) Nuclear forces in the increaseing order of their velocities?
(c) Gravitational forces (d) Coulomb forces
(a) alpha particle-neutron-proton-electron
[2006-II]
6. Which one of the following is the most effective carrier of (b) proton-electron-neutron-alpha paraticle
information? (c) electron-proton-neutron-alpha paraticle
(a) Cables (b) Microwaves (d) neutron-proton-electron-alpha paraticle [2008-I]
(c) Radio waves (d) Optical fibres [2007-I] 14. Which one of the following is a good conductor of
7. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of electricity?
X-rays?
(a) No medium is required for their propagation (a) Shellac (b) Human body
(b) They obey laws of reflection (c) Glass (d) Ebonite [2008-I]
(c) They travel with the speed of light waves 15. Which one of the following is the unit of activity of a
(d) They are longitudinal in nature [2007-I] radioactive source?
8. How long does it take light from the sun to reach to the (a) Lux (b) Becquerel
earth (approximately) ?
(a) 2 min (b) 4 min (c) Tesla (d) Siemens [2008-II]
(c) 8 min (d) 16 min [2007-I] 16. Which of the following is the range of frequency used in
9. Which of the following nuclei undergo fission when struck optical communication? [2008-II]
by thermal neutrons? 3
(a) 10 – 10 Hz4 8 9
(b) 10 – 10 Hz
1. U235 2. U238 (c) 1013– 1014 Hz (d) 1016– 10 17Hz
3. Pu239 17. Propagation of light quanta may be described by [2009-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) Photons (b) Protons
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Neutrons (d) Electrons
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 [2007-I]
Modern Physics G-69
18. Consider the following four particles : [2009-I] 27. The process of nuclear fusion in the sun requires
1. Alpha particle 2. Proton [2012-II]
3. Electron 4. Neutron (a) very high temperature and very high pressure
Which of the following is the correct sequence in which (b) low temperature and high pressure
their rest-masses increase? (c) high temperature and low pressure
(a) 3-4-2-1 (b) 4-2-3-1
(d) very high temperature and no pressure
(c) 3-2-4-1 (d) 2-3-1-4
28. Radioactive decay provides an internal source of heat for
19. If an a-particle is projected normally through a uniform the earth. This helps in the formation of which type of rocks?
magnetic field, then the path of the a-particle inside the
field will be [2009-I] [2013-I]
(a) circular (b) parabolic (a) Igneous (b) Sedimentary
(c) elliptical (d) a straight line (c) Metamorphic (d) All of the above
20. Which one of the following statements is correct? 29. Sun emits energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation.
[2010-I] The following help in the generation of solar energy. Arrange
(a) Only electrons reside inside the nucleus of an atom them in the right sequence beginning from the starting of
(b) Both electrons and protons reside inside the nucleus the cycle : [2013-I]
of an atom 1. Hydrogen is converted to helium at very high
(c) Only neutrons reside inside the nucleus of an atom temperatures and pressures.
(d) Both protons and neutrons can reside inside the 2. The energy finds its way to sun's surface.
nucleus of an atom 3. A vast quantity of energy is generated by nuclear
21. The ratio of velocity of X-rays to that of gamma rays fusion.
[2010-I] Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) is < 1 (a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-3-1
(b) is > 1 (c) 3-2-1 (d) 1-3-2
(c) is 1
(d) depends upon the ratio of their frequencies 30. This question consist of two statements, one labelled as
the Assertion (A) and the other as 'Reason (R), You are to
22. When X-rays are produced [2010-I]
examine these two statements carefully and select the
(a) heat is generated at the target answers to these items using the codes given below:
(b) heat is absorbed at the target
(c) the temperature of the target remains constant Assertion (A) : Radio does not work in a moving train unless
(d) brilliant light is seen at the target aerial is put outside the window. [2013-I]
23. Internet communication uses optical fibre cables because Reason (R) : The train compartment acts as a hollow cylinder
of [2010-II] and charge is centred which does not allow radio to work.
(a) low cost (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) free from virus threat
(c) high data carrying capacity (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the
(d) faster than light communication of signals
(c) A is true but R is false
24. A stable nucleus (light with A < 10) has [2011-II]
(a) exactly the same number of neutrons and protons (d) A is false but R is true
(b) more neutrons than protons 31. A semiconducting device is connected in a series circuit
with a battery and a resistance. Current is found to pass
(c) no neutrons
through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed,
(d) no protons the current drops to zero. The device may be [2014-I]
25. The penetrating power of X-rays can be increased by (a) p-type semiconductor
[2012-I] (b) n-type semiconductor
(a) increasing the current in the filament (c) an intrinsic semiconductor
(b) decreasing the potential difference between the cathode (d) p-n junction
and the anode
32. X-rays are electromagnetic radiation whose wavelengths
(c) decreasing the current in the filament are of the order of: [2015-II]
(d) increasing the potential difference between the cathode (a) 1 metre (b) 10-1 metre
and the anode
(c) 10–5 metre (d) 10-10 metre
26. Which one among the following transitions is associated
33. Which one of the following is not a form of stored energy?
with the largest change in energy in hydrogen atom ?
[2016-I]
[2012-II]
(a) Nuclear energy (b) Potential energy
(a) n = 5 to n = 3 (b) n = 2 to n = 1
(c) Electrical energy (d) Chemical energy
(c) n = 3 to n = 2 (d) n = 4 to n = 2
EBD_7348
34. Electron emission from a metallic surface by application of 39. Consider the following statement about visible light, UV light
light is known as [2017-II] and X-rays: [2018-II]
(a) Thermionic emission 1. The wavelength of visible light is more than that of
(b) Photoelectric emission X-rays.
(c) High field emission
2. The energy of X-ray photons is higher than that of UV
(d) Autoelectronic emission
light photons.
35. Radioactivity is measured by [2017-II]
(a) GM Counter (b) Polarimeter 3. The energy of UV light photons is less than that of
(c) Calorimeter (d) Colorimeter visible light photons.
36. Which one of the following waves is used for detecting Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
forgery in currency notes? [2017-II] (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Ultraviolet waves (b) Infrared waves (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
(c) Radio waves (d) Microwaves
40. The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of [2018-II]
37. Who among the following built a model steam engine in
1698 called “Miner’s Friend” to drain mines? [2018-I] (a) 1A (b) 1 µ m
(a) Thomas Savery (c) 1 mm (d) 1 cm
(b) Thomas Newcomen 41. Basic scientific principle behind a nuclear reactor is
(c) James Watt [2019-I]
(d) Richard Arkwright (a) Nuclear fusion
(b) Controlled nuclear fusion
38. The full form of LED is [2018-II] (c) Uncontrolled nuclear fission
(a) Light Emitting Diode (d) Controlled nuclear fission
(b) Light Emitting Device 42. Who among the following has explained the phenomenon
of photoelectric effect ? [2019-I]
(c) Light Enhancing Device (a) Max Planck (b) Albert Einstein
(d) Light Enhancing Diode (c) Neils Bohr (d) Ernest Rutherford
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 6 (d) 11 (d) 16 (c) 21 (c) 26 (a) 31 (d) 36 (a) 41 (d)
2 (d) 7 (d) 12 (b) 17 (a) 22 (a) 27 (a) 32 (d) 37 (a) 42 (b)
3 (b) 8 (c) 13 (a) 18 (c) 23 (c) 28 (a) 33 (c) 38 (a)
4 (c) 9 (c) 14 (b) 19 (a) 24 (b) 29 (d) 34 (b) 39 (b)
5 (d) 10 (d) 15 (b) 20 (d) 25 (d) 30 (c) 35 (a) 40 (a)
Modern Physics G-71
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (c) For 75A of current for short duration, we must use 17. (a) Propagation of light quant may be described by
Leclanche cell. photons. Light propagates in the bundles (quanta) of
2. (d) 1. X-rays have vibrations perpendicular to their energy, each bundle being called a photon and
propagation, and so show transverse wave possessing energy.
characteristics. 18. (c) The correct sequence in which their rest-masses
2. They can eject electrons from certain thin metal increase is
surfaces. Electron < Proton < Neutron < Alpha particle
3. X-rays of smaller wavelength is harder than 19. (a) If an a-particle is Projected normally through a uniform
X-rays of longer wavelength. magnetic field, then the path of the a particle inside the
Hence, option (d) is correct. field will be circular.
4. (c) Microwaves transmission on the surface of earth is 20. (d) Protons and neutrons reside inside the nucleus of an
made possible by erecting a number of microwave atom.
towers with antennas at suitable distances. The 21 (c) Velocities of x-rays and g-rays are equal to velocity of
antennas installed between the transmitting and light.
receiving antenna are called the repeaters. Each repeater 22. (a) When heat is generated at the target, x-rays are
receives the transmitted signal amplifier and then relays produced. It occurs due to huge heating voltoge
to the next repeater. applied to produce large number of electrons
5. (d) Nuclear fusion is not possible at ordinary temperature (thermoions) emitted from filament.
and ordinary pressure. The reason is that when the 23. (c) In internet communication optical fibres are used
nuclides approach each other, due to their positive because of their large data carrying capacity. It can
charge the electrosatic force of repulsion between them carry data with a speed upto 1.6 Tb/s in field deployed
becomes too strong that they do not fuse. Hence, to system and upto 10 Tb/s in lab systems.
make the fusion possible a high temperature (= 107K)
n
and high pressure is required. At such a high 24. (b) For stable nuclei > 1.
temperature the nuclides due to thermal agitations p
acquire sufficient kinetic energy, so as to overcome 25. (d) X ray: electromagnetic radiation of short wavelength
the force of repulsion between them when they produced when high-speed electrons strike a solid
approach each other and so they get fused. target.
6. (d) In optical fibres losses are the most effective carrier 26. (a) n = 5 to n = 3
because there are less, secret information more secure 27. (a) Nuclear fusion is a nuclear reaction in which two or
because optical signals are confined to the inside of more atomic nuclei collide at very high speed and join
fibre and cannot be leak easily. to form a new type of atomic nucleus (e.g. The energy
7. (d) X-rays are electromagnetic waves, and they are that the Sun emits into space is produced by nuclear
transverse in nature. reactions that happen in its core due to the collision of
8. (c) Light takes about 8 minutes from the sun to reach to hydrogen nuclei and the formation of helium nuclei).
the earth. During this process, matter is not conserved because
9. (c) U235 and Pu239 are fissioned by thermal neutrons. some of the mass of the fusing nuclei is converted to
10. (d) The wavelength of X-rays is very short. The photons which are released through a cycle that even
wavelength range of X-ray is 10 – 10 on to 10 – 8 m. our sun uses.
11. (d) Electromagnetic radiations are emitted by all bodies. 28. (a) Igneous means made from fire or heat. Igneous rocks
12. (b) The frequency of Gamma rays is highest hence, its are formed by the agency of fire out of molten matter.
energy is maximum. About 50% of the heat given off by the Earth is
13. (a) All particles have same kinetic energy. generated by the radioactive decay of elements such
As massa-particle > massn > massp > masse as uranium and thorium, and their decay products. The
Hence, Va < Vn < Vp < Ve most popular model of radioactive heating is based on
14. (b) Human body is a good conductor of electricity. the bulk silicate Earth (BSE) model, which assumes that
15. (b) The given units and their corresponding physical radioactive materials, such as uranium and thorium,
quantities are given below : are found in the Earth's lithosphere and mantle – but
Unit Physical quantity not in its iron core. The BSE also says that the
Lux Illuminance abundance of radioactive material can be estimated by
Becquerel Activity of radioactive source studying igneous rocks formed on Earth, as well as the
Tesla Magnetic field composition of meteorites.
Siemens Conductance
EBD_7348
29. (d) The high temperature of sun generates sufficient 37. (a) The first steam engine to be applied industrially was
energy for the light nuclei to fuse. the “fire-engine” or “Miner’s Friend”, designed by
Thomas Savery in 1698.
In nuclear fusion, 12 H + 12 H ® 32 He + n + 3.27 Mev.
38. (a) Light Emitting Diode or LED is a semiconductor device
The huge amount of energy generates in this process that emits light when an electric current is passed
of nuclear fusion. through it.
31. (d) The device is a pn junction. When a current flows 39. (b) Only statements, the wavelength of visible light is
across the junction, it is forward biased. On reversing, more than that of X-rays and the energy of X-ray
the polarity of the battery, it is reverse biased and photons is higher than that of UV light photons is
current drops to almost zero. correct.
32. (d) X-rays electromagnetic radiation having wavelength While the energy of UV light photons is greater than
10–10 metre. that of visible light photons and not less than as
33. (c) Nuclear, potential and chemical energies implies the mentioned in the statement 3
stored form of energy. But electrical energy is not a
40. (a) The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of 1 angstrom.
form of stored energy.
1 angstrom is equal to 1.0 × 10–10 meters.
34. (b) Electron emission from a metallic surface by the
41. (d) Nuclear reactors operate on the principle of nuclear
application of light is known as photoelectric emission.
fission, the process in which a heavy atomic nucleus
35. (a) A Geiger counter (Geiger-Muller tube) is a device used
splits into two smaller fragments. The nuclear
for the detection and measurement of all types of
fragments are in very excited states and emit neutrons,
radiation: alpha, beta and gamma radiation. Basically
other subatomic particles, and photons.
it consists of a pair of electrodes surrounded by a gas.
36. (a) Ultraviolet waves are used for detecting fake and 42. (b) Albert Einstein explained the phenomenon of
forged currency. The paper currency has a strip that is photoelectric effect. The photoelectric effect is a
embedded in the note. This strip cannot be forged like phenomenon where electrons are emitted from the metal
that in the original currency. So, to check for detecting surface when the light of sufficient frequency is
forgery in currency notes, Ultraviolet waves are used. incident upon.
CHEMISTRY
8
Basic Concepts of Chemistry,
Atomic Structure
1. An oxide of nitrogen has molecular weight 30. What is the 10. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the
number of electrons in one molecule of the compound ? given elements in the increasing order of their reactivity ?
(a) 14 (b) 15 (a) Iodine-Bromine-Chlorine-Fluorine
(c) 22 (d) 23 [2006-I] (b) Bromine-Iodine-Chlorine-Fluorine
2. How many gram atoms of hydrogen are present in 0.04 mole (c) Bromine-Iodine-Fluorine-Chlorine
of CuSO4 . 5H2O ? (d) Iodine-Bromine-Fluorine-Chlorine [2006-II]
(a) 0.04 (b) 0.2 11. At NTP, the least volume will be occupied by 15 g of which
(c) 0.4 (d) 4 [2006-I] one of the following ?
3. Why is helium preferred over hydrogen for use in airships ? (a) NH3 (b) O2
(a) Helium has a low density (c) N2 (d) Ne [2007-I]
12. At 30°C, which 3 metals are all liquids ?
(b) Helium has a high density
(a) Hg, Fe, Zn (b) Hg, Sn,Pb
(c) Helium is chemically less reactive
(c) Zn, Pb, Sn (d) Hg,Ga, Cs [2007-I]
(d) Helium is chemically more reactive. [2006-I]
13. Which one of the following noble gases is not found in the
4. One litre of an unknown gas weighs 1.25 g at STP. Which atmosphere?
one of the following can be the formula for the gas ? (a) Argon (b) Krypton
(a) O2 (b) CO (c) Radon (d) Xenon [2007-I]
(c) CO2 (d) SO2 [2006-I] 14. Which one of the following is the correct statement ? The
5. Consider the following statements: force binding the nucleons inside the nucleus is :
1. Maximum covalency of carbon is 4, whereas maximum (a) charge dependent
covalency of silicon is 6. (b) strong and highly repulsive
2. The maximum covalency of an element is limited to 6. (c) a central force
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (d) charge independent [2007-I]
15. What is the weight of one atom of Hydrogen in grams?
6. Which one of the following substances does not have a (a) 6.023 × 10–23 (b) 1.66 × 10–24
(b) 6.62 × 10 –24 (d) None of these [2007-I]
melting point?
(a) Bromine (b) Sodium chloride 16. Which one of the following elements shows variable
(c) Mercury (d) Glass [2006-I] equivalent mass?
7. Which one of the following metals occurs in nature in free (a) Zinc (b) Silver
(c) Calcium (d) Iron [2007-I]
state ?
(a) Gold (b) Sodium 17. An element A has valencies equal to 3 and 5. It combines
(c) Aluminium (d) Copper [2006-II] with another element B having valency equal to 2. What are
8. An ionic compound when dissolved in water has produced formulae of the compounds thus formed?
(a) A5B3 and A2B5 (b) A3B2 and A5B2
m An–, n Bm– ions. What is the formula of the compound ?
(c) A2B3 and A2B5 (d) A2B3 and A3B5 [2007-I]
(a) Am Bn (b) An Bm
18. The atomic weights are expressed in terms of atomic mass
(c) A mB m (d) An Bn [2006-II]
unit. Which one of the following is used as a standard?
9. What are the types of bonds present in CuSO4.5H2O ?
(a) 1 H1 (b) 12 C6
(a) Electrovalent and covalent 16
(c) O8 (d) 35Cl17 [2007-I]
(b) Electrovalent and coordinate covalent
19. The octet rule is not valid for which one of the following
(c) Electrovalent, covalent, coordinate covalent and
molecules?
hydrogen bonds (a) CO2 (b) H2S
(d) Covalent and coordinate covalent [2006-II] (c) NH3 (d) BF3 [2007-I]
EBD_7348
20. Which is the rarest naturally occurring element of earth? 32. The deficiency of which one of the following leads to dental
(a) Gold (b) Antimony caries?
(c) Germanium (d) Astatine [2007-II] (a) Iron (b) Copper
21. Which one of the following elements is a metalloid? (c) Fluorine (d) Zinc [2008-II]
(a) P (b) Al
(c) As (d) Po [2007-II] 33. What is the term used to denote the critical temperature at
22. Analysis shows that a binary compound of X (atomic mass which the air becomes saturated with vapour and below
= 10) and Y (atomic mass = 20) contains 50% X. What is the which the condensation is likely to begin ? [2009-I]
formula of the compound? (a) Condensation point
(a) XY (b) X2Y (b) Evaporation point
(c) XY2 (d) X2Y3 [2007-II] (c) Dew point
23. What is the correct increasing order of electronegativity for (d) Point of critical temperature
the most common oxidation states among the following 34. What is the mass of one litre of cottonseed oil of density
elements ? 926kg/m3 [2009-I]
(a) F < O < N < C (b) C < N < C < F (a) 926 kg (b) 92·6 kg
(c) C < N < F < O (d) C < N < O < F [2007-II] (c) 0·926 kg (d) 9260 kg
24. Which one of the following mixtures is homogeneous? 35. Which among the following is a chemical change?
(a) Starch and sugar [2009-I]
(b) Methanol and water (a) A wet towel dries in the sun
(c) Graphite and charcoal (b) Lemon juice added to tea causing its colour to change
(d) Calcium carbonate and calcium bicarbonate [2008-I] (c) Hot air rises over a radiator
25. Which one of the following laws explains the formation of (d) Coffee is brewed by passing steam through ground
carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide from carbon and coffee
oxygen? 36. Consider the following equation for the formation of
(a) Law of conservation of mass ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen: [2009-I]
(b) Law of multiple proportions N2 + 3H2 = 2NH3
(c) Law of reciprocal proportions How many hydrogen molecules are required to react with
(d) Law of difinite proportions [2008-I] 100 molecules of nitrogen?
26. In which one of the following is the valence electronic (a) 100 (b) 200
(c) 300 (d) 400
configuration, ns2np3 found ?
37. Which one of the following contains maximum percentage
(a) Carbon (b) Oxygen
of nitrogen by mass? [2009-I]
(c) Nitrogen (d) Argon [2008-I]
(a) Urea
27. The molecular weight and equivalent weight of which one
(b) Ammonium cyanide
of the following is the same ?
(c) Ammonium carbonate
(a) H2SO4 (b) KMnO4
(d) Ammonium nitrate
(c) H2C2O4 (d) NaOH [2008-I] 38. According to which one of the following laws it is indicated
28. Which of the following sets of substance can exist as that when two or more gases react with one another, their
molecular crystalline solids? volumes bear a simple ratio? [2009-II]
(a) Nickel, Zinc, Manganese (a) Law of mass action
(b) Glass, Cement, Rubber (b) Law of multiple proportions
(c) Polyethene, Polyvinyl Chloride, Graphite (c) Law of reciprocal proportions
(d) Iodine, Sulphur, H2O. [2008-II] (d) Law of combining volumes
29. Which of the statements with regard to Isotopes and Isobars 39. Which of the following is the best example of the law of
is/are correct? conservation of mass? [2009-II]
1. Isotopes have same mass number. (a) When 12 gm of carbon is heated in vacuum, there is
2. Isobars have same atomic number. no change in mass
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (b) Weight of platinum wire is the same before and after
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only heating
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2008-II] (c) A sample of air increases in volume when heated at
30. What is the number of water molecules present in a tiny constant pressure but mass remains unchanged
drop of water ( volume 0.0018 ml ) at room temperature? (d) 12 gm of carbon combines with 32 gm of oxygen to
(a) 4.84 × 1017 (b) 4.184 × 1018 give 44 gm of carbondioxide.
(c) 6.023 × 10 19 (d) 6.023 × 1023 [2008-II] 40. Which one of the following is not a mixture? [2009-II]
31. In which one of the following situations a chemical reaction (a) Air (b) Mercury
does not occur? (c) Milk (d) Cement
(a) Common salt is exposed to air
(b) Coal is burnt in air 41. The number of neutrons in 7Al27 is [2010-I]
(c) Sodium is placed in water (a) 40 (b) 27
(d) Iron is kept in moist air [2008-II] (c) 14 (d) 13
Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Atomic Structure G-75
42. As compared to covalent compounds, electrovalent 50. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
compounds, generally have [2010-II] 1. Isotopes : Atoms with same atomic number but different
(a) low melting point and low boiling point atomic mass
(b) low melting point and high boiling point 2. Isobars : Atoms with same number of neutrons but
(c) high melting point and low boiling point different atomic number
(d) high melting point and high boiling point 3. Isotones : Atoms with same mass number but different
43. Calcium carbonate is naturally available as limestone and atomic number [2012-I]
can also be synthesized from quick lime. It is seen that the Select the correct answer using the code given below :
compositions of the elements in both the natural and Code :
synthetic calcium carbonate are same. The validity of which (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
one among the following laws is confirmed by this (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 only
observation? [2010-II] 51. The nucleus of a singly ionized carbon atom contains
(a) Law of conservation of mass [2012-I]
(b) Law of definite proportion (a) 6 protons and 6 neutrons
(c) Law of multiple proportion (b) 5 protons and 6 neutrons
(d) Avogadro's law (c) 6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons
44. Which one among the following statements regarding the (d) 12 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons
properties of mixtures and compounds is not correct? 52. Which one among the following nitrogen compounds has
[2010-II] the least percentage of nitrogen by mass? [2012-I]
(a) A mixture shows the properties of its constituents but (a) (NH4)3PO4 (b) NH3
the properties of a compound are entirely different from (c) NH4OH (d) NH4NO3
its constituents 53. Which one among the following transitions of electron of
(b) A mixture may be homogeneous or heterogeneous but hydrogen atom emits radiation of the shortest wavelength?
a compound is a homogeneous substance [2012-I]
(c) The constituents of a mixture can be separated (a) n = 2 to n = 1 (b) n = 3 to n = 2
by physical methods but those of a compound cannot (c) n = 4 to n = 3 (d) n = 5 to n = 4
be separated by physical methods 54. Which one among the following is the most appropriate
(d) Energy is either absorbed or evolved during the statement with respect to the atomic weight of an element?
preparation of a mixture but not in the preparation of a [2012-I]
compound (a) The atomic weight of an element is the sum total of the
45. Protons and neutrons are bound in a nucleus by the number of protons and neutrons present in the atom of
[2011-II] the element
(a) short range ‘weak interaction’ (b) Unlike mass number, the atomic weight of an element
(b) short range ‘strong interaction’ can be a fraction
(c) long range ‘electromagnetic interaction’ (c) The atomic weight of an element is a whole number
(d) long range ‘gravitational interaction’ (d) The atomic weight of all the atoms in an element is the
46. Which one among the following most correctly determines same
the atomic number of an element? [2011-II] 55. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
(a) Number of protons the code given below the Lists : [2012-II]
(b) Number of protons and electrons List I List II
(c) Number of ions (Scientist) (Discovery)
(d) Number of nucleons A. Goldstein 1. Atomic theory
47. The number of protons in a negatively charged atom (anion) B. Chadwick 2. Proton
is [2011-II] C. JJ Thomson 3. Neutron
(a) more than the atomic number of the element D. John Dalton 4. Electron
(b) less than the atomic number of the element Code :
(c) more than the number of elecrons in the atom A B C D
(d) less than the number of electrons in the atom (a) 2 3 4 1
48. Which one among the following is not a mixture? [2011-II] (b) 2 4 3 1
(a) Graphite (b) Glass (c) 1 4 3 2
(c) Brass (d) Steel (d) 1 3 4 2
49. Which one among the following is correct regarding 20Ne, 56. Which one among the following equations is correctly
23Na+, 19F– and 24Mg2+? [2012-I] balanced ? [2012-II]
(a) They are isomers of each other (a) NaOH + Al + H2O ® 2H2 + NaA1O2
(b) They are isotopes of each other (b) 2NaOH + 2A1 + 2H2O ® 3H2 + 2NaA1O2
(c) They are isoelectronic with each other (c) 2NaOH + 2A1 + 3H2O ® 4H2 + 2NaA1O2
(d) All of the above (d) 2NaOH + 2A1 + H2O ® H2 + 2NaA102
EBD_7348
57. Which one among the following is the equivalent weight of 65. Which of the following pairs represents isoelectric ions?
sulphuric acid ? [2014-I]
(Atomic weight : H = 1, S = 32, O = 16) [2012-II] (a) Na+, K+ (b) K+, Mg2+
(a) 98 (b) 60 (c) Mg2+, Ca2+ (d) Ca2+, S2–
(c) 100 (d) 49 66. Which of the following statements about hydrogen is/are
58. The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by correct? [2014-I]
[2013-I] 1. Hydrogen has three isotopes of which protium is the
(a) Marie Curie (b) Pierre Curie most common.
(c) Henri Becquerel (d) J.J. Thomson 2. Hydrogen ion (H+) exists freely in solution.
59. Which one among the following is not a chemical change ? 3. Dihydrogen, H2, acts as a reducing agent.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
(a) Curdling of milk (b) Ripening of fruit
(c) Evaporation of water (d) Burning of coal
67. The most of the mass of the atom can be found in
60. The following questions consist of two statements, one
[2014-I]
labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other as 'Reason (R), (a) electrons (b) charges
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select (c) nucleus (d) electron cloud
the answers to these items using the codes given below: 68. The pressure of an ideal gas undergoing isothermal change
Assertion (A) : Atomic weights of most of the elements are is increased by 10%. The volume of the gas must decrease
not whole numbers. by about [2014-I]
Reason (R) : Atoms of most of the elements contain mixture (a) 0.1% (b) 9%
of isotopes having different atomic weights. [2006-I] (c) 10% (d) 0.9%
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct 69. The mass number of an atom is determined by [2014-I]
explanation of A (a) adding the number of neutrons and number of electrons
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the (b) adding the number of protons and number of electrons
correct explanation of A (c) the number of protons only
(c) A is true but R is false (d) adding the number of neutrons and number of protons
70. Consider the following reaction: [2014-II]
xAs2S3 + yO2 ® zAs2O3 + wSO2
61. This question consist of two statements, Statement I and
Statement II. You are to examine these two statements What is y (the coefficient for O2) when this equation is
carefully and select the answer to these items using the balanced using whole number coefficients?
codes given below. (a) 5 (b) 7
Statement I : Conversion of blue copper sulphate to black (c) 9 (d) 11
71. How many grams of MgCO3 contain 24.00 g of oxygen?
cupric oxide on heating is a physical change.
(The molar mass of MgCO3 is 84.30 g mol–1) [2014-II]
Statement II : A change in which chemical composition
(a) 42.15 g (b) 84.30 g
does not change is called physical change. [2012-I] (c) 126.00 g (d) 154.00 g
(a) Both the statements individually true and Statement II 72. A monatomic species that has 18 electrons and a net charge
is the correct explanation of Statement I. of 2– has [2014-II]
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement (a) the same number of electrons as a neutral argon atom
II is not correct explanation of Statement I. (b) more protons than electrons
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (c) 2 unpaired electrons
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (d) 20 protons
62. A mixture of sodium chloride and naphthalene can be 73. A sample of carbon dioxide that undergoes a transformation
separated by [2013-II] from solid to liquid and then to gas would undergo
[2014-II]
(a) extraction with hot water
(a) a change in mass
(b) extraction with cold water (b) a change in density
(c) sublimation (c) a change in composition
(d) steam distillation (d) no change in physical properties
63. The number of valence electrons in the O2– ion is 74. A compound X2O3 contains 31.58% oxygen by weight. The
[2014-I] atomic mass of X is [2014-II]
(a) 4 (b) 6 (a) 34.66 g mol–1 (b) 45.01 g mol–1
(c) 8 (d) 10 (c) 52.00 g mol–1 (d) 104.00 g mol–1
75. Which one among the following contains the most neutrons?
64. Which one of the following is the correct electronic
[2014-II]
configuration of chlorine? [2014-I]
(a) 2, 7, 8 (b) 2, 8, 7 (a) 59 (b) 61
26 Fe 29 Cu
(c) 2, 8, 8 (d) 7, 8, 2 61 60 2+
(c) 30 Zn (d) 30 Zn
76. If the reaction of 1.0 mol NH3(g) and 1.0 mol O2 (g) 83. Which one of the following statements is correct? [2015-II]
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) ® 4NO(g) + 6H2O(l) [2014-II] (a) Rutherford's alpha-particle scattering experiment led
is carried to completion, then to the discovery of electron
(a) all the O2(g) is consumed (b) J J Thomson suggested that the nucleus of an atom
(b) 4.0 mol NO (g) is produced contains protons
(c) 1.5 mol H2O (l) is produced (c) The atomic number of an element is the same as the
(d) all the NH3(g) is consumed number of protons in the nucleus of its atom
77. Consider the following reaction: [2015-II] (d) The mass number of an atom is equal to the number of
1270K
CH4(g) + H2O(g) ¾¾¾¾ electrons in its shells
® CO(g) + 3H2(g)
In the reaction given above, the mixture of CO and H2 is: 84. Which one of the following is not a chemical change?
(a) natural gas (b) water gas [2016-I]
(a) Ripening of fruits (b) Curdling of milk
(c) producer gas (d) industrial gas
(c) Freezing of water (d) Digestion of food
78. Ammonia (NH3) obtained from different sources always has
85. An atom of carbon has 6 protons. Its mass number is 12.
same proportion of Nitrogen and Hydrogen. It proves the
How many neutrons are present in an atom of carbon?
validity of law of: [2015-II]
[2016-I]
(a) Reciprocal proportion
(a) 12 (b) 6
(b) Constant proportion
(c) 10 (d) 14
(c) Multiple proportions
86. What is the number of mole(s) of H2(g) required to saturate
(d) None of the above one mole benzene? [2016-I]
79. Which of the following statements regarding heavy water (a) 1 (b) 2
are correct? [2015-II] (c) 3 (d) 4
1. It is extensively used as a moderator in nuclear reactors 87. Rutherford's alpha-particle scattering experiment was
2. It cannot be used in exchange reaction to study responsible for the discovery of [2017-I]
reaction mechanism (a) Electron (b) Proton
3. Viscosity of heavy water is relatively smaller than that (c) Nucleus (d) Helium
of ordinary water 88. A homogeneous mixture contains two liquids. How are they
4. The dielectric constant of heavy water is smaller than separated? [2017-I]
that of ordinary water (a) By filtration (b) By evaporation
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) By distillation (d) By condensation
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 89. 20 g of common salt is dissolved in 180 g of water. What is
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 the mass percentage of the salt in the solution? [2017-I]
80. To weld metals together, high temperature is required. Such (a) 5% (b) 9%
a high temperature is obtained by burning: [2015-II] (c) 10% (d) 15%
(a) Acetylene in oxygen 90. The valency of an element depends upon the [2017-I]
(b) LPG in oxygen (a) total number of protons in an atom
(c) Methane in oxygen (b) mass number of an atom
(d) Acetylene in nitrogen (c) total number of neutrons is an atom
81. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using (d) total number of electrons in the outer most shell of an
the code given below the Lists: [2015-II] atom
List I List II 91. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
(Element) (Use) the code given below the Lists : [2017-I]
A. Li 1. Time keeper in List I List II
atomic clocks (Noble gas) (Use)
B. Na 2.. Batteries A. Argon 1. In lights for advertising
C. K 3. Transfer of nerve display
impulses B. Neon 2. Airport landing lights
D. Cs 4. Control of the water and in light houses
content in the blood C. Krypton 3. Light in photographer's
Code: flash gun
A B C D D. Xenon 4. In tungsten filament to
(a) 2 3 4 1 last longer
(b) 1 2 3 4 Code :
(c) 2 4 3 1 A B C D
(d) 1 3 2 4 (a) 3 1 2 4
82. The symbol of the element 'Tungsten' is: [2015-II] (b) 3 2 1 4
(a) Ta (b) W (c) 4 2 1 3
(c) TI (d) Tc (d) 4 1 2 3
EBD_7348
92. Radon is [2017-I] 98. Which one of the following is a heterogenous mixture?
(a) an inert gas (b) an artificial fibre [2018-II]
(c) an explosive (d) a metal
(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Vinegar
93. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state
is [2017-II] (c) Milk (d) Soda water
(a) 13.6 MeV (b) 13.6 eV 99. What is the formula mass of anhydrous sodium carbonate?
(c) 13.6 Joule (d) Zero (Given that the atomic masses of sodium, carbon and oxy-
94. The species that has the same number of electrons as 35Cl gen are 23 u, 12 u and 16 u respectively) [2018-II]
17
is [2017-II] (a) 286 u (b) 106 u
35 34 + (c) 83 u (d) 53 u
(a) 16 S (b) 16
S
100. A stainless steel chamber contains Ar gas at a temperature T
40 + 35 2 - and pressure P. The total number of Ar atoms in the chamber
(c) 18 Ar
(d) S
16 is n. Now Ar gas in the chamber is replaced by CO2 gas and
95. Which one of the following is a chemical change? the total number of CO2 molecules in the chamber is n/2 at
[2017-II] the same temperature T. The pressure in the chamber now is
(a) Cutting of hair P'. Which one of the following relations holds true? (Both
(b) Graying of hair naturally the gases behave as ideal gases) [2018-II]
(c) Swelling of resin in water
(a) P' = P (b) P' = 2P
(d) Cutting of fruit
(c) P' = P/2 (d) P' P/4
96. The atomic number of an element is 8. How many electrons
101. The equivalent weight of oxalic acid in C2H2O4.2H2O is
will it gain to form a compound with sodium? [2018-II]
[2019-I]
(a) one (b) Two (a) 45 (b) 63
(c) Three (d) Four (c) 90 (d) 126
97. A sample of oxygen contains two isotopes of oxygen with 102. Which one of the following substances is NOT a mixture?
masses 16 u and 18 u respectively. The proportion of these [2019-I]
isotopes in the sample is 3 : 1. What will be the average (a) Ice (b) lce-cream
atomic mass of oxygen in this sample? [2018-II] (c) Air (d) Honey
(a) 17.5 u (b) 17 u
(c) 16 u (d) 16.5 u
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 12 (d) 23 (d) 34 (c) 45 (b) 56 (b) 67 (c) 78 (b) 89 (c) 100 (c)
2 (c) 13 (c) 24 (b) 35 (d) 46 (a) 57 (d) 68 (b) 79 (d) 90 (d) 101 (b)
3 (c) 14 (d) 25 (b) 36 (c) 47 (d) 58 (c) 69 (d) 80 (a) 91 (d) 102 (a)
4 (b) 15 (b) 26 (c) 37 (b) 48 (a) 59 (c) 70 (c) 81 (a) 92 (a)
5 (a) 16 (d) 27 (d) 38 (b) 49 (c) 60 (a) 71 (a) 82 (b) 93 (b)
6 (c) 17 (c) 28 (d) 39 (a) 50 (b) 61 (d) 72 (a) 83 (c) 94 (c)
7 (a) 18 (b) 29 (d) 40 (b) 51 (a) 62 (c) 73 (b) 84 (c) 95 (b)
8 (a) 19 (d) 30 (c) 41 (c) 52 (a) 63 (d) 74 (c) 85 (b) 96 (b)
9 (c) 20 (d) 31 (a) 42 (d) 53 (a) 64 (b) 75 (a) 86 (c) 97 (d)
10 (a) 21 (c) 32 (c) 43 (b) 54 (b) 65 (d) 76 (a) 87 (c) 98 (c)
11 (b) 22 (c) 33 (c) 44 (d) 55 (a) 66 (b) 77 (b) 88 (c) 99 (b)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

2. (c) The important oxides of nitrogen are N2O, NO, N2O3, 1
15. (b) Weight of one atom of Hydrogen = g
NO2, N2O4, N2O5. 6.02 ´1023
Oxide of nitrogen having molecular weight 30 is NO (14 = 1.66 × 10–24g
+ 16 = 30)
16. (d) Iron shows the variable equivalent mass.
No. of e– = Atomic number
3.
\ Number of e– in one molecule of NO = 7 + 8 = 15
(c) Though H2 has a lower density and is cheaper but 17. (c)
Elements A
Valencies 3 Z
^2
B
} compound is A 2 B2
Helium is preferred in filling of balloons and air ships
since it ia non-inflammable. Thus, on safety grounds
He is used in preference to H2 in airships.
Elements A
Valencies 5 Z
^2
B
} compound is A 2 B5
4. (b) 1l of unknown gas at STP weight = 1.25 g 18. (b) 12C used as a standard in the expression of atomic
6
1.25 weights in term of amu.
22.4l of unknown gas weights = ´ 22.4 = 28g 19. (d) Octate rule is invalid for BF3
1
20. (d) It is a radioactive element.
\ The gas is CO.
5. (a) Carbon and Silicon both is belongs to IVth group and 21. (c) As (Arsenic) is a metalloid. In this group both As and
carbon have maximum valency of 4. Sb are mettalloids.
C : 2, 4 22. (c) According to analysis, Atomic mass of Y is twice of
Si : 2, 8, 4 Atomic mass of X but X contain 50% in binary
But Si have vacant d-orbitals and can be used to compound. Therefore the formula of compound will be
accomodate more electrons. Thus, the maximum XY2.
covalency of Si can be 6. 23. (d) In a period the electronegativity increases from left to
6. (c) Mercury exists in liquid state hence, it has no melting right. It is due to increase of nuclear charge and
point. decrease in atomic radius that occurs when we move
7. (a) Gold is a stable noble metal and resists the action of from left to right in a period.
the atmosphere and occurs in free state. 24. (b) A mixture of methanol (a liquid) and water (a liquid) is
8. (a) Ionic compound : homogeneous.
25. (b) Law of multiple proportions explains the formation of
A B
CO and CO2, in these same weight of carbon that
Valency : n m combines with weights of oxygen are in simple rate of
\ The formula of he compound is AmBn 1 : 2.
9. (c) CuSO4.5H2O has ionic, covalent, coordinate and 26. (c) Nitrogen (z = 7) has the electronic configuration
hydrogen bonds 4H2O molecules are linked to Cu2+ 1s2 2s2 2px1 2py1 2pz1 (i.e. ns2 np3)
crtion by coordinate bonds whereas fifth H2O molecule 27. (d) Both the molecular weight and equivalent weight for
linked by hydrogen bonds. NaOH is 40.
10. (a) Relativity of halogens decreases as we move down the Molecular weight of NaOH = 23 + 16 + 1 = 40
group. i.e. fluorine is most reactive and iodine is least Equivalent weight of NaOH
reactive, since there is successive increase in size,
Molecular weight of NaOH 40
decrease in electronegativity and decrease in = = = 40
dissociation energy of X-X bonds. Acidity of NaOH 1
11. (b) At NTP the least volume will be occupied by 15 g of 29. (d) The correct statements are
O2. (i) Isotopes have same atomic number.
(ii) Isobers have same mass number.
15
Volume of O2 = ´ 22.4 = 10.5 Mass
32 30. (c) Density =
12. (d) At room temperature (30°C), Hg, Ga, Cs metals are Volume
liquids. Q Density of water = 1
13. (c) Randon (Rn) is not found in the atmosphere. \M=V
14. (d) Nuclear forces between protons and protons between 0.0018 ml = 0.0018 gm
neutrons and neutrons and between protons and 0.0018
neutrons are all essentially the same in magnitude. No. of moles = = 1× 10– 4
18
Thus, we can say that nuclear forces are charge \ no. of molecules = 6.023 × 1023× 10–4 = 6.023 × 1019
independent.
33. (c) The critical temperature at which air becomes saturated
with vapour and below which the condensation is likely
to begin is called a dew point.
EBD_7348
34. (c) Given, 46. (a) In chemistry and physics the atomic number is also
Volume of cottonseed oil, 1L = 10–3 m3 called the proton number. It is number of protons found
Density of cottonseed oil, d = 926 kg/m3 in the nucleus of an atom and is identical to the charge
\ Mass of cottonseed oil, m = v, d number of the nucleus.
= 10–3m3 5 926 kg/m–3 47. (d) In case of a neutral atom
= 0.926 kg Number of protons = Number of electrons
35. (d) Chemical change is defined as the change by which
Anion is formed by gain of electron (s) by a neutral
chemical composition of substance gets changed.
atom. Thus in case of anion.
Chemical changes are irreversible and permanent hence
option (d) is correct. Number of electrons > Number of protons
48. (a) Graphite is an allotrope of carbon. Hence this is an
36. (c) 2NH 3
N 2 + 3H 2 element not mixture.
1 mol 3 mol 2mol 49. (c) Isoelectronic ions are those ions which have same
Q 1 × N0 molecules of N2 react with molecules of number of electrons in their respective ions. For eg:-
H2 = 3 N0 N –3 , O –2 , F –1 ,Na +1 , Mg +2 and Al +3 all have
\ 100 molecules of N2 react with molecules of H2 10 electrons each. If two ions have the same number of
electrons, they are referred to as isoelectronic. For
3N0 ´ 100
= = 300 instance, neutral copper has 29 electrons, while neutral
1N 0 nickel has 28. If the copper lost two electrons and the
37. (b) In Urea (NH2CONH2,) nickel lost one, you'd have Cu2+ and Ni+, each with 27
electrons. These two ions are isoelectronic.
23
% of nitrogen = ´ 100 = 46.6% 50. (b) Isotopes are variants of a particular chemical element:
60
while all isotopes of a given element share the same
In ammonium cyanide NH4CN,
number of protons and electrons, each isotope differs
28 from the others in its number of neutrons. For example,
% of nitrogen = ´100 = 63.6%
carbon-12, carbon-13 and carbon-14 are three isotopes
44
In ammonium carbonate, (NH4)2CO3 of the element carbon with mass numbers 12, 13 and 14
respectively. The atomic number of carbon is 6, which
28
% of nitrogen = ´ 100 = 29.2% means that every carbon atom has 6 protons, so that
96 the neutron numbers of these isotopes are 6, 7 and 8
In ammonium nitrate, (NH2)2 NO3, respectively.
42 51. (a) The charged carbon atom in a carbocation is a "sextet",
% of nitrogen = ´100 = 42.8%
i.e. it has only six electrons in its outer valence shell
98
Hence, ammonium cyanide contains maximum instead of the eight valence electrons that ensures
percentage of nitrogen by mass. maximum stability (octet rule). Therefore carbocations
38. (b) Law of multiple proportion. are often reactive, seeking to fill the octet of valence
electrons as well as regain a neutral charge.
39. (a) According to the law of conservation of mass “In any
chemical reaction mass reactants remains always equal 52. (a) Ammonium phosphate has the least percentage of
to the mass of product”. i.e. O, mass remain conserve. nitrogen by mass.
40. (b) Mercury (Hg) is an elements. 53. (a) n = 2 to n = 1 Electrons undergoing acceleration emit
radiation in a synchrotron.
41. (c) Number of neutrons = Mass number – atomic number
54. (b) The atomic weight of an element can be in fraction.
= 27 – 13 = 14
55. (a) Goldstein discovered proton, Chadwick- Neutron, JJ
42. (d) Electrovalent compounds have high melting and Thomson- Electron and John Dalton- Atomic Theory.
boiling points because the force of attraction between
the ions of an electrovalent compound is very strong. 56. (b) Sodium hydroxide, aluminium and water reacts to form
Hence, a large amount of energy is required to break sodium aluminium oxide and hydrogen gas.
the bond. 57. (d) 1 + 32 + 16 = 49
43. (b) According to law of definite proportion, a chemical 59. (c) Evaporation of water is a physical change as no new
compound is always found to be made up of the same product form during the process.
element combined together in the same fixed proportion 60. (a) Element is a mixture of isotopes, the atomic weights are
by mass. not whole numbers but fractional integral values.
44. (d) The compound is always formed by absorption or 61. (d) On heating blue copper sulphate turns to a white
evolution of energy but no energy is released or residue which is called anhydrous copper sulphate
absorbed during the formation of mixture. because the water of crystallization disappears on
45. (b) The force between protons and neutrons in the nucleus heating.
is short range strong interaction.
62. (c) The mixture of naphthalene and sodium chloride can 2x

be separated by the process of sublimation as ´ 100 = 68.42
2x + 48
naphthalene is a sublime, i.e. it turns into vapour without
\ x = 50
changing in liquid and its vapour change into solid
So, atomic mass of 'X' is 52 g mol–1.
without changing into liquid, while sodium chloride is
not a sublime. 59
75. (a) Number of neutrons in Fe = 59 – 26 = 33
63. (d) No. of valence electron in one O atom = 8 26
O2– represents gain of two electrons
\ No. of valence electrons = 8 + 2 = 10 61
Number of neutrons in Cu = 651 – 29 = 32
64. (b) We know that, 29
atomic number of chlorine = 17
61
Therefore, the chlorine configuration 1s2 2s22p6 3s2 Number of neutrons in Zn = 61 – 30 = 31
3p5 30
So, 2, 8, 7 is correct answer.
60 2 +
65. (d) When two elements and/or ions have the same Number of neutrons in Zn = 60 – 30 = 30
electronic configurations, it is said that they are 30
"isoelectronic" with one another. 76. (a) 4NH3 + 5O2 ® 4NO + 6H2O
66. (b) Hydrogen has three naturally occurring isotopes 4 mol 5 mol
denoted by 1H(Protium), 2H (Deuterium) and 3H
5
(Tritium). Protium is the most prevalent hydrogen 1mol = 1.25mol
isotope, with an abundance of 99.98%. It consists of 4
one proton and one electron. Since, for 1 mol of NH3, 1.25 mol of O2 are required,
therefore, O2 is the limiting factor (here O2 is only 1
10 mol). Hence, all O2 will be consumed in reaching with 1
68. (b) Given that Dp = ´ p = 0.1p
100 mol of NH3.
Now (p + Dp) = 11p. 77. (b) Water gas is a fuel gas consisting mainly of carbon
monoxide and hydrogen, made by passing steam over
æ v – v¢ ö incandescent coke.
From Dv = ç ÷ ´ 100
è v ø 78. (b) Ammonia (NH3) obtained from different sources always
has same proportion of Nitrogen and Hydrogen and it
proves the validity of law of constant proportion.
æ 10 ö 79. (d) Most commercial nuclear reactors use normal water
= ç1 – ÷ ´ 100 = 9%
è 11 ø (also called light water) as a neutron moderator.
Dielectric constant of heavy water is smaller than that
69. (d) The atomic mass is determined by adding the number
of ordinary water.
of protons and neutrons in the atom. 80. (a) Oxy-fuel welding (commonly called oxyacetylene
70. (c) Balanced chemical equation is welding, oxy welding, or gas welding) and oxy-fuel
2As2S3 + 9 O2 ® 2 As2 O3 + 6SO2. So y is 9. cutting are processes that use fuel gases and oxygen
71. (a) In MgCO3, there are 3 oxygen atoms in each mole. to weld and cut metals.
Atomic mass of oxygen 16g/mol. So there are (16×3) 81. (a) Lithium batteries are batteries that have lithium as an
= 48 anode. These types of batteries are also referred to as
grams of oxygen in one mole of = 84.30 g/mol–1 lithium-metal batteries. The membrane get polarized with
48g of O 24g O the movement of Na+ ion and crate appropriate
= potential across membrane. K control the water balance
84.3MgCO3 xg MgCO3
in blood. Caesium clocks are the most accurate &
x = 42.15 g commercially produced time and frequency standards,
72. (a) A monatomic species has the same number of electrons and serve as the primary standard for the definition of
as a neutral argon atom. the second in SI (the metric system).
Mass 82. (b) Symbol of Tunguston is W.
73. (b) Density = 83. (c) In any atom atomic number represent the number of
Volume
electrons which is equal to the number of proton.
Change in state of a substance does not involve change
84. (c) Freezing of water is not a chemical change as ice when
in mass, composition and physical properties instead of
melt changes back to water showing physical change.
involves charge in volume which alter density.
85. (b) Mass number = number of proton + number of neutron
74. (c) In compound X2O3,
12 = 6+number of neutron
Percentage of oxygen by weight = 31.58
12 – 6 = number of neutron
Percentage of X by weight = 68.42
number of neutron= 6
Let the atomic mass of 'X' = x
87. (c) Rutherford's alpha-particle scattering experiment was
responsible for the discovery of Nucleus.
EBD_7348
88. (c) The homogeneous mixtures that are represented by a 95. (b) A chemical change (chemical reaction) is a change of
single uniform phase, throughout the entire mixture, materials into other, new materials with different
can be separated using the properties of the properties, and one or more new substances are
components that participate in mixture. The method of formed. These processes are, in general, are not
separation of homogeneous mixtures is called distillation reversible except by further chemical reactions. Hence,
and it is based on the various boiling points of the graying of hair is the correct answer as that cannot be
component of mixture. Heating the mixture, the reversed.
component that has the lowest boiling point will 96. (b) It will gain two electrons to form a compound with
evaporate and the separation can be done. sodium. When the element with atomic number 8 that
89. (c) Mass of solute (salt) = 20g is oxygen reacts with sodium, each sodium atom loses
Mass of solvent (water) = 180g an electron and sodium is oxidized, and each oxygen
Mass of solution = 20+180= 200g
gains two electrons.
Concentration = mass of solute/mass of solution x 100
4 Na + O2 ® 2 Na2O
=20 × 100/ 200 = 2000/200= 10%
97. (d) Isotope 1 ® 16 u
90. (d) Valency is the measure of the combining capacity of Isotope 2 ® 18u
atoms or molecules. Therefore, it is the capacity of an Proportion of Isotopes = 3: 1
atom of a single element to react and combine with Now, Average atomic Oxygen = (16 × 3) + (18×1)/3+1
particular numbers of atoms of another element. The = 16.5 u
electrons present in the outermost shell/orbit of an atom 98. (c) Milk is a heterogeneous mixture of differ ent
are called valence electrons. The valence electrons take components like fat, carbohydrate, proteins, vitamins,
part in any chemical reaction because the outermost solid-not-fats etc.
orbit usually contains more energy than the electrons 99. (b) Formual mass of anhydrous Sodium Carbonate
present in other orbits. The valency of an element Na 2CO3 is 23 × 2 + 12 + 16 × = 106
depends upon the total number of electrons in the outer
100. (c) The increase in pressure is caused by the number of
most shell of an atom.
particles hitting against the walls of the container. Since
number of molecules is reduced to half hence the
92. (a) Radon (Rn), chemical element, a heavy radioactive gas pressure will also be decreased accordingly as per the
of Group 18 (noble gases) of the periodic table, formula PV = nRT, hence P' = P/2
generated by the radioactive decay of radium.
102. (a) • Ice is a pure substance, as it is simply frozen water.
93. (b) the ionization energy of hydrogen atom in the ground
• Ice is a pure substance, as it is simply frozen water.
state is 13.6 eV. • Air is a mixture of primarily Nitrogen and Oxygen
94. (c) Number of electrons = Number of protons = Atomic gas.
number. • Honey is a homogeneous mixture of various types
of sugar compounds.
9
Carbon and Different
Forms, Carbon Dioxide
1. How many milligrams is 1 carat of diamond equal to ? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, and 4
(a) 100 mg (b) 150 mg (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 200 mg (d) 250 mg [2006-I] 10. The major combustible component of gobar (cow-dung)
2. Which gas is responsible for the swelling of bread ? gas is [2009-II]
(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon monoxide (a) methane (b) carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Ammonia [2006-I] (c) hydrogen (d) propane
3. Which one of the following is the correct statement ? 11. Dry ice is used for making cold-baths in laboratories by
Graphite can be used as lubricant because it has: mixing with volatile organic solvents. Identify the form of
dry ice from the following. [2009-II]
[2007-I]
(a) Gaseous carbon dioxide
(a) a rigid structure (b) low viscosity
(b) Liquid carbon dioxide
(c) layered structure (d) low melting point
(c) Solid carbon dioxide
4. The oxide of which of the following elements is used as a
(d) Solid hydrogen oxide
coolant?
12. Diamond is a [2009-II]
(a) Silicon (b) Nitrogen
(a) good conductor and soft
(c) Carbon (d) Phosphorus [2007-I]
(b) non-conductor and soft
5. Which one of the following pairs of elements is most
(c) non-conductor and hard
essential for building cells in the human body?
(d) good conductor and hard
(a) Nitorgen and aluminium
13. Following statements are made in connection with carbon
(b) Carbon and calcium
dioxide (CO2) [2009-II]
(c) Nitrogen and carbon
1. CO2 is a poisonous gas.
(d) Calcium and phosphorus [2007-II]
2. CO2 is an acidic oxide.
6. Which one of the following is not an allotrope of carbon? 3. CO2 turns limewater milky.
(a) Soot (b) Graphite Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Diamond (d) Carborundum [2007-II] (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
7. Which of the statements regarding carbon dioxide is /are (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3
correct? [2007-II]
14. Vinegar is produced from [2010-I]
1. It is prepared on large scale by the action of water on
(a) ethanoic acid (b) valeric acid
lime.
(c) methanoic acid (d) butanoic acid
2. In the solid form it can be used as a refrigerant. 15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
Select the correct answer using the code given below: the code given below the lists: [2010-I]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 List-I List-II
8. Vinegar is the trade name of [2009-I] A. Ozone gas 1. Combines with haemoglobin
(a) acetic acid (b) chloroform B. Nitrous oxide 2. Ultraviolet radiation
(c) carbon tetrachloride (d) ethyl alcohol C. Carbon dioxide 3. Component of air in small
quantity
9. Consider the following statements regarding diamond:
D. Carbon monoxide 4. Visible radiation
[2009-I]
5. Infrared radiation
1. It is an allotrope of silicon.
Code:
2. It is a bad conductor of heat and electricity. A B C D
3. It is the hardest substance. (a) 1 4 5 3
4. It burns to produce carbon dioxide. (b) 2 3 5 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
Which of the statements given above are correct ? (d) 2 5 3 1
EBD_7348
16. Which one among the following statements is not correct 24. Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide is a compound
about graphite? [2010-II] Reason (R): Carbon and Oxygen combine together in the
(a) It is the most stable allotrope of carbon ratio 3: 8 by mass. [2008-II]
(b) It is an electrically conducting material 25. Assertion (A): Diamond is a good conductor of electricity.
(c) Crystalline spherical beads of graphite have very good
Reason (R): Diamond and graphite are two allotrope of
lubricating property under dry conditions
carbon and graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
(d) It is the higher grade of coal
17. A bee-sting leaves an acid which causes pain and irritation. [2008-II]
The injected acid is [2011-I] 26. Assertion (A): Carbon can form more compounds than any
(a) acetic acid (b) sulphuric acid other element. [2009-I]
(c) citric acid (d) methanoic acid Reason (R) : Carbon can exist in various allotropes.
18. A student by chance mixed acetone with alcohol. This DIRECTION (Q. 27): The following item consist of two
mixture of acetone and alcohol can be separated by statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine
[2011-I] these two statements carefully and select the answers to these
(a) filtration (b) separating funnel items using the code given below.
(c) fractional crystallisation (d) fractional distillation [2013-II]
19. Which of the following statements about diamond are
correct? Code:
1. It is used as a gem in jewellery because of its ability to (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is
reflect light. the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is
2. It is good conductor of electricity.
not correct explanation of Statement I
3. It is used for cutting glass, marble stones and other (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
hard materials. (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
4. It is used for drilling of rocks. [2011-I] 27. Statement I:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Limestone decomposes when it is heated in air.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Statement II:
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 Increase in the content of CO2 in the atmosphere in recent
20. The main constituent of vinegar is [2011-II] years is mainly due to the using of limestone in the
(a) Citric acid (b) Acetic acid manufacture of cement.
(c) Ascorbic acid (d) Tartaric acid 28. Biogas consists of mainly [2013-II]
21. Consider the following statements : (a) Methane (b) Ethane
1. Diamond is hard and graphite is soft. (c) Butane (d) Carbon dioxide
2. Diamond is soft and graphite is hard. 29. The most stable form of carbon is [2014-I]
3. Diamond is a bad conductor but graphite is a good (a) diamond (b) graphite
conductor. (c) fullerene (c) coal
4. Diamond is a good conductor but graphite is a bad 30. Which of the following statements is correct? [2014-I]
conductor. [2012-II] (a) Fullerenes have only six-membered carbon rings
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (b) Fullerenes are cage-like molecules
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 only (c) Diamond is thermodynamically the most stable allotrope
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 of carbon
22. The pure form of carbon is [2013-I] (d) Graphite is slippery and hard, and is therefore used as
(a) diamond (b) graphite a dry lubricant in machines
(c) charcoal (d) fullerene 31. Why is Graphite used in electrolytic cells ? [2015-I]
23. The acid contained in vinegar is [2013-I] (a) Graphite is soft and can be easily moulded into
(a) acetic acid (b) ascorbic acid electrodes
(b) Graphite is made of layers of carbon atoms which can slide
(c) citric acid (d) tartaric acid
(c) Graphite is inert to most of the chemicals and remains
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 24 to 26) : The following questions consist of intact in electrolytic cells
two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other (d) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity
as 'Reason (R), You are to examine these two statements carefully 32. Graphite is a much better conductor of heat and electricity
and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: than diamond. This is due to the fact that each carbon atom
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct in graphite: [2015-II]
explanation of A (a) undergoes sp2 hybridization and forms three sigma
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct bonds with three neighbouring carbon atoms
explanation of A (b) undergoes sp3 hybridization
(c) A is true but R is false (c) is tetrahedrally bonded
(d) is free from van der Waals force
Carbon and Different Forms, Carbon Dioxide G-85
33. Molecules of which of the following has cage like structure? 38. How is carbon black obtained? [2018-I]
[2017-I] (a) By heating wood at high temperature in absence of air
1. Diamond (b) By heating coal at high temperature in absence of air
2. Graphite (c) By burning hydrocarbons in a limited supply of air
3. Fullerenes (d) By heating coal at high temperature in presence of air
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 39. Which one of the following properties is NOT true for
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only graphite? [2018-I]
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only (a) Hybridisation of each carbon atom of sp3
34. Which one of the following elements forms highest number (b) Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp2
of compounds? [2017-I] (c) Electrons are delocalized over the whole sheet of atoms
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (d) Each layer is composed of hexagonal rings.
(c) Chlorine (d) Carbon 40. Which one of the following is the purest form of Carbon?
35. Which one of the following elements is used in [2018-I]
pencil-lead? [2017-I] (a) Charcoal (b) Coke
(a) Zinc (b) Lead (c) Fullerene (d) Carbon black
(c) Carbon (Graphite) (d) Tin 41. The Poisonous nature of Carbon monoxide (CO) is due to
36. How much CO2 is produced on heating of 1 kg of carbon? its [2018-I]
[2017-II] (a) insolubility in water
(b) ability to form a complex with haemoglobin
11 3
(a) kg (b) kg (c) ability to reduce some metal oxides
3 11 (d) property of having one sigma bond
4 3 42. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(c) kg (d) kg [2018-II]
3 4
(a) All carbons in diamond are linked by carbon-carbon
37. Consider the following reaction: [2017-II] single bond.
CH 4 + 2O 2 ¾¾ ® CO 2 + 2H 2 O (b) Graphite is layered structure in which layers are held
together by weak van der Waals forces.
Which of the following about the reaction given above
(c) Graphite layers are formed by hexagonal rings of
is/are correct?
carbon atoms.
1. Carbon is oxidized.
(d) Graphite layers are held together by carbon-carbon
2. Hydrogen is oxidized.
single bond.
3. Hydrogen is reduced.
43. Which one of the following will NOT produce carbon
4. Carbon is reduced.
dioxide on reacting with an aqueous solution of hydrochloric
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
acid ? [2019-I]
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Limestone (b) Quick Lime
(c) Chalk (d) Marble
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 6 (d) 11 (c) 16 (d) 21 (a) 26 (b) 31 (d) 36 (a) 41 (b)
2 (c) 7 (c) 12 (c) 17 (d) 22 (a) 27 (c) 32 (a) 37 (b) 42 (d)
3 (c) 8 (a) 13 (b) 18 (d) 23 (a) 28 (a) 33 (d) 38 (c) 43 (c)
4 (c) 9 (b) 14 (a) 19 (a) 24 (a) 29 (a) 34 (d) 39 (a)
5 (c) 10 (a) 15 (b) 20 (b) 25 (d) 30 (d) 35 (c) 40 (c)
EBD_7348
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (c) 1 carat = 200 mg swelling.
2. (c) Carbon dioxide is responsible for swelling of bread. 18. (d) Acetone and alcohol both are liquids. These two have
3. (c) Graphite can be used as lubricant because it has layer different boiling points. So, they are separated from
structure. their mixture by fractional distillation.
5. (c) The most abudant substance in a living cell is water 19. (a) Diamond, an allotrope of carbon, has very high
(approx. 70% of weight). In addition to water cell refractive because of which it is used as a gem in
contains a large number of carbon compounds which jewellery. It is used for cutting glass, marble stones
include small molecules and macro molecules such and other hard materials and for drilling of rocks. It is a
as carbohydrates, proteins, liquids and nucleic acids. bad conductor of electricity. It is the hardest material
6. (d) Carborundum is SiC (silicon carbide). known.
7. (c) Solid CO2 is used as a refrigerant under the commercial 20. (b) Acetic acid is commonly known as vinegar.
name tricol. 21. (a) Diamond is hard and bad conductor but Graphite is
8. (a) Acetic acid is commonly known as vinegar. soft and good conductor.
9. (b) Diamond is an allotrope of carbon not silicon. 22. (a) Diamond is considered as the purest form of carbon.
10. (a) The major combustible component of gobar gas is 24. (a) A compound is a substance made up two or more
methane. Gober gas is produced by anaerobic elements chemically combined in a fixed proportion by
breakdown of cow dung with the help of methanogenic mass. Hence both (A) and (R) are true and R is the
bacteria. correct explanation of (A).
11. (c) Solid carbon dioxide is commonly known as dry i.e. 25. (d) Diamond is a bad conductor of heat and electricity.
Hence (A) is false. Diamond and graphite are allotrope
12. (c) In diamond, each carbon atom is in sp3 hybridized state of carbon and graphits is a good conductor of elecricity.
and linked to four other carbon atoms tetrahedrally by Hence (R) is true.
covalent bonds. This gives a giant three dimensional
26. (b) Since carbon-carbon bond strength is very high due
polymeric structure.
to small size of carbon, it has maximum tendency of
As the atom are held firmly by strong covalent bonds, catenation (i.e., has a higher tendency of self-linking
dimond is the hardest substance diamond is non- to form long chain of rings). That's why carbon can
conductor of electricity. form more compounds than any other element, known.
13. (b) (i) CO2 is an acidic oxide. It dissolve in water formic Carbon can also exist in different crystalline structure,
unstable carbonic acid. i.e., it exhibits allotropy and exist in various allotropes
H 2O + CO 2 H 2CO3 such as diamond, graphite etc.
(ii) Limewater Ca (OH)2 is turned milky on passing CO2 28. (a) Biogas typically refers to a gas produced by the
breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen.
Ca(OH) 2 + CO 2 ¾¾
® CaCO 3 + H 2 O Methane is the main constituent (63%) of the biogas
insohible
14. (a) Ethanoic acid or acetic acid is a source of vinegar. and CO2 is approx 30% and may have small amounts of
hydrogen sulphide (H2S), moisture and siloxanes.
15. (b) Ozone layer acts as a shield and does not allow
ultraviolet radiation from sun to reach earth. It does 29. (a) Diamond is the most stable form of carbon.
not prevent infrared radiation from Sun to reach earth. 30. (d) Graphite is slippery and hard and is therefore used as a
Nitrous oxide is present in small quantity (0.5 ppm) in dry lubricant in machines. Graphite is a good conductor
air. Carbon dioxide causes green house effect. It does of heat and electricity. This is because, like metals,
not allow infrared radiations to pass trough it and thus, graphite contains delocalized electrons. These
it maintains the temperature of the earth. Carbon electrons are free to move through the structure of the
monoxide combines more readily with hemoglobin as graphite.
compared to oxygen and hence reduces it oxygen 31. (d) Graphite contain free electrons in their structures and
carrier capacity. is thus a good conductor of electricity.
16. (d) Graphite is thermodynamically most stable form of 32. (a) Undergoes sp2 hybridization and forms three sigma
carbon. It is a good conductor of heat and electricity bonds with three neighbouring carbon atoms.
and can be used as a good lubricant in dry conditions. 33. (d) Fullerenes are molecules of carbon atoms. Fullerenes
17. (d) The acid in bee sting is formic acid which is also known that have a cylindrical shape are called carbon
as methanoic acid. However it is not really the acid that nanotubes, because of their tubular shape and hollow
center core. Their structures are based on hexagonal
causes the pain. Most active ingredients in bee venom
rings of carbon atoms joined by covalent bonds. Some
is melittin & apamin both of which cause pain &
fullerenes include rings with five or seven carbon atoms.
Carbon and Different Forms, Carbon Dioxide G-87
34. (d) Carbon is the element which forms the highest number 39. (a) The hybridization of each carbon atom is sp3, this
of compounds especially organic compounds due to statement is not right for graphite. The electronic
its catenation(long chain formation) ability. . Carbon, configuration of carbon is 1s22s22p2. It is unique in
with 4 valence atoms and by virtue of being in the 1st
that it has properties of both a metal and a non-metal.
row of the periodic table is most suited to form the
highest number of compounds. 40. (c) Fullerene is the purest form of carbon. A fullerene is
35. (c) Pencils contain a form of solid carbon known as an allotrope of carbon in the form of a hollow sphere,
graphite. ellipsoid, tube, and many other shapes and sizes.
36. (a) C + O2 = CO2 41. (b) The poisonous nature of carbon monoxide is due to
12 + 32 = 44 its ability to form a complex with haemoglobin. Carbon
From 12 kg carbon 44 kg CO2 is produced. monoxide is harmful when breathed because it
From 1 kg carbon 44 ÷12 = 3.66 kg carbon di oxide is displaces oxygen in the blood.
produced. 42. (d) In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other
So, correct answer is 11/3 carbon atoms in the same plane giving a hexagonal
array. One of these bonds is a double-bond, and thus
37. (b) Oxidation: Gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen; Loss the valency of carbon is satisfied. Graphite structure is
of electrons or increase in oxidation state Reduction: formed by the hexagonal arrays being placed in layers
Gain of hydrogen or loss of oxygen; Gain of electrons one above the other.
or decrease in oxidation state In the combustion of
43. (c) In the given options, marble, limestone, and baking
methane, carbon loses hydrogen and gains oxygen,
soda are all either metal carbonates or bicarbonates.
so it is being oxidized. Oxygen gains hydrogen (and
All these when react with a dilute acid then they
carbon), so it is being reduced. Hydrogen gains oxygen
produce carbon dioxide. Whereas lime which is calcium
(and loses carbon), so it is being oxidized. oxide when react with a dilute acid then they do not
38. (c) Carbon black is obtained by bunning hydrocarbons produce carbon dioxide.
in a limited supply of air. Carbon black particles are For example, CaO + dil. 2HCl ® CaCl2 + H2O
usually spherical in shape and less regularly crystalline Thus, lime when reacts with an acid then it produces
than graphite. salt and water but it does not produce carbon dioxide.
EBD_7348
10
Chemistry of Metal and
Non-metals (H2, O2 and N2)
1. Which are the most abundant elements in the universe ? 8. Yellow colour of usual nitric acid is due to the presence of
(a) Oxygen and Nitrogen (b) Hydrogen and Oxygen which one of the following?
(c) Hydrogen and Helium (d) Carbon and Nitrogen (a) N2O (b) NO
[2006-I] (c) N2O5 (d) NO2 [2007-II]
2. Consider the following statements: 9. When iron is left exposed in open air, it gets rusted. Which
Nitrogen is an essential constituent of [2006-I] constituent(s) of air is /are responsible for rusting iron?
1. soils 2. animals
1. Oxygen gas present in air
3. plants
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 2. Moisture present in air
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only 3. Carbon dioxide gas present in air
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given below :
3. What is the colour of oxygen in solid state ? [2006-II] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Pale yellow (b) Pale blue (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 [2008-I]
(c) Light green (d) Greenish yellow 10. Which one of the following elements cannot displace
4. H2O is a liquid and H2S is a gas because: hydrogen gas from a dilute acid?
(a) Oxygen forms stronger hydrogen bond than sulphur (a) Zinc (b) Copper
(b) Oxygen is less electronegative than sulphur (c) Magnesium (d) Iron [2008-I]
(c) Atomic radius of oxygen is less than that of sulphur
11. When an alkali-metal reacts with water, which one of the
(d) Atomic radius of oxygen is greater than that of sulphur
following gases is produced ?
[2006-II]
5. In chemical terms, what are alums used for purifying water (a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen
for drinking purposes ? (c) Hydrogen peroxide (d) Ozone [2008-I]
(a) Hydrated chlorides (b) Double nitrate 12. Which of the following is not a nitrogenous fertilizer?
(c) Double sulphates (d) Nitrates of aluminium (a) Ca(CN)2 (b) CaCN2
[2006-II] (c) NH4NO3 (d) Urea [2008-II]
6. Match the List-I and the List-II and select the correct answer 13. Which one of the following is the correct order in which the
using the codes given below the lists: gases H2, Ne, O2 and N2 are evolved on fractional distillation
List-I List-II of liquid air?
(Compounds of (Valency) (a) H2, Ne, O2, N2 (b) H2, Ne, N2, O2
Nitrogen) (c) N2, O2, Ne, H2 (d) O2, N2, H2, Ne [2008-II]
A. N2O 1. 1 14. Which of the following is an element which never exhibits
B. NO 2. 2 positive oxidation state in any of its compounds?
C. N2O5 3. 3 (a) Oxygen (b) Chlorine
D. NO2 4. 4
(c) Fluorine (d) Carbon [2008-II]
5. 5
15. The metal compound commonly found in Sindhoor or
Codes :
Kumkum is based on [2009-I]
A B C D
(a) 1 4 5 2 (a) tin (b) lead
(b) 5 2 3 4 (c) copper (d) zink
(c) 1 2 5 4 16. Which among the following elements (metals) pollutes the
(d) 5 4 3 2 [2006-II] air of a city having large number of automobiles? [2009-I]
7. Why is nitrogen molecule chemically less active? (a) Cadmium (b) Lead
(a) It has small atomic radius (c) Chromium (d) Nickel
(b) It has high electronegativity 17. Oxygen and ozone are [2009-I]
(c) It has high dissociation energy (a) allotropes (b) isomers
(d) It has stable electronic configuration [2007-II] (c) isotopes (d) isobars
Chemistry of Metal and Non-metals (H2, O2 and N2) G-89
18. Which among the following is an element? [2009-I] 29. Consider the following statements with regard to the
(a) Alumina (b) Brass properties of water [2010-II]
(c) Graphite (d) Silica I. Water is a good solvent for ionic compound but poor
19. Which one among the following is used as a moderator in solvent for covalent compound.
nuclear reactors? [2009-I] II. Water is a good solvent for covalent compound but
(a) Ozone (b) Heavy hydrogen poor solvent for ionic compound.
(c) Heavy water (d) Hydrogen peroxide III. Water has maximum density at the temperature 277 K.
20. Which one of the following elements exists in liquid state at Which of the statements given above are correct?
room temperature? [2009-II] (a) I and III only (b) II and III only
(a) Mercury (b) Lead (c) I and II only (d) I, II and III
(c) Sodium (d) Calcium 30. When aqueous solutions of two salts are mixed, the third
21. Aluminium is more reactive than iron but aluminium is less salt formed may appear as a solid precipitate or a clear
easily corroded than iron, because [2009-II] solution depending upon the solubility of its ions. It is
(a) oxygen forms a protective oxide layer observed that all salts of Na, K, NH4 are soluble. All nitrates
(b) it is a noble metal and bicarbonates are also soluble. All halides (chlorides,
(c) iron undergoes reaction easily with water bromides, iodides) are soluble except those of Ag, Hg (I)
(d) iron forms ions and Pb. All sulphates are soluble except those of Ag, Ca, Ba
22. Equal quantities (50 ml) of the following four samples of and Pb. Which one among the following combinations of
water are placed in four beakers of 100 ml capacity. Their solutions will produce a solid precipitate?
boiling points are determined accurately using the same (a) Sodium sulphate and barium chloride
thermometer. Which sample of water will have the lowermost (b) Magnesium sulphate and barium bicarbonate
boiling point as compared to other three samples? (c) Lithium iodide and barium chloride
[2009-II] (d) Ammonium sulphate and potassium bromide
(a) Distilled water (b) Bottled mineral water 31. A mixture containing SiO2, NaCl and NH4Cl is taken for
(c) Well water (d) Seawater separating the constituents. The suitable steps required for
23. Which one among the following metals is more reactive this are [2010-II]
than hydrogen? [2010-I] (a) Sublimation-dissolution-filtration-crystallisation
(a) Mercury (b) Copper (b) Dissolution-filtration-crystallisation-distillation
(c) Silver (d) Tin (c) Sublimation-evaporation-dissolution-decomposition·
24. Which one of the following is a transition metal? [2010-I] (d) Dissolution-distillation-decomposition-evaporation .
(a) Aluminium (Al) (b) Manganese (Mn) 32. Which one among the following is a chemical process?
(c) Magnesium (Mg) (d) Calcium (Ca) (a) Distillation of sea (salty) water [2010-II]
25. Which one of the following gases, present in the air near (b) Crystallisation of impure salt (NaCl)
the surface of the Earth, has maximum concentrations? (c) Production of Iodine (I2) from sea-weeds
[2010-I] (d) Sublimation of iodine (I2)
(a) Oxygen (O2) (b) Hydrogen (H2) 33. Iron nails are dipped into blue copper sulphate solution.
(c) Nitrogen (N2) (d) Methane (CH4) After sometime iron nails are [2011-I]
26. Which one of the following elements will replace hydrogen (a) dissolved and blue colour is discharged
from acids to form salts? [2010-I] (b) dissolved but blue colour is not discharged
(c) not dissolved and blue colour is not discharged
(a) Sulphur (S) (b) Silicon (Si)
(d) not dissolved but blue colour is discharged
(c) Zinc (Zn) (d) Phosphorus (P)
34. Silverware turns black after a period of time due to formation
27. Which of the following represent a chemical change? of [2011-I]
1. Magnetization of iron [2010-I] (a) nitrate coating on silver
2. Condensation of liquid (b) sulphide coating on silver
3. Burning of fuel (c) chloride coating on silver
4. Rusting of iron (d) oxide coating on silver
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 35. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
Code: Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of
soluble.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
1. chloride of calcium
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
2. bicarbonate of calcium
28. Which one among the following is the correct order of
3. sulphate of magnesium
reactivity of the elements? [2010-I]
4. bicarbonate of magnesium [2011-I]
(a) Cu > Mg > Zn > Na
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(b) Na > Zn > Mg > Cu
(c) Cu > Zn > Mg > Na
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Na > Mg > Zn > Cu
EBD_7348
36. Which one among the following methods is not effective in 44. A glass of water does not turn into ice as it reaches 0 °C. It
removing arsenic from contaminated ground water ? is because [2012-I]
[2011-I] (a) water does not solidify at 0°C
(a) Boiling (b) a certain amount of heat must be supplied to the glass
(b) Reverse osmosis of water so as to solidify
(c) Ion exchange (c) a certain amount of heat must be taken out from the
(d) Coagulation adsorption glass of water so as to solidify
37. Bronze is often used to make statues and medals whereas (d) water solidifies at 0 K only
brass is used in making utensils, scientific apparatus and 45. Which one among the following is the major constituent of
cartridges. Both brass and bronze are copper containing soda lime glass? [2012-I]
alloys, yet they differ in their chemical composition for (a) Sodium oxide (b) Calcium oxide
additionally containing [2011-I] (c) Calcium carbonate (d) Silica
(a) zinc in brass and tin in bronze 46. Which one among the following does not have an allotrope ?
(b) chromium in brass and nickel in bronze [2012-II]
(c) nickel in brass and tin in bronze (a) Oxygen (b) Sulphur
(d) iron in brass and nickel in bronze (c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon
38. Solutions in test tubes containing H2O and aqueous NaOH 47. Deionised water is produced by [2012-II]
can be differentiated with the help of [2011-I] (a) Calgon process
(a) red litmus (b) blue litmus (b) Ion-exchange resin process
(c) Na2CO3 (d) HCl (aqueous) (c) Clark's process
(d) Permutit process
39. A student heated some sulphur in a spatula and collected
the gas ‘X’. Which one among the following is correct about 48. Which one among the following is a double salt ?
‘X’? [2011-I] [2012-II]
(a) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(a) X is SO2 and it turns moist litmus to blue
(b) K2SO4· A12(SO4)3·24H2O
(b) X is SO3 and it turns moist litmus to red
(c) CuSO4·5H2O
(c) X is SO2 and it turns moist litmus to red
(d) NaCl
(d) X is SO3 and it turns dry litmus to blue
49. The acid in gastricjuice is [2013-I]
40. All the elements in a group (family) have a common valency.
(a) acetic acid (b) nitric acid
For example, all the elements of the carbon family (carbon,
(c) hydrochloric acid (d) sulphuric acid
silicon, germanium, tin and lead) have common valency four.
However, some of these elements can also have valency DIRECTIONS (Qs. 50-53) : The following questions consist of
two. Which of the following can have valency two? two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine
[2011-II] these two statements carefully and select the answer to these
(a) Silicon, germanium and tin items using the codes given below.
(b) Only germanium and tin (a) Both the statements individually true and Statement II is
(c) Germanium, tin and lead the correct explanation of Statement I.
(d) Only tin and lead (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is
41. When a copper rod is dipped in aqueous silver nitrate not correct explanation of Statement I.
solution, the colour of the solution changes to blue. This is (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
because [2011-II] (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(a) Cu is more easily reduced than Ag 50. Statement I : The blue colour of copper sulphate crystal
(b) Ag is more easily reduced than Cu disappears when it is heated strongly.
(c) Nitrate ion acts as an oxidizing agent Statement II : Due to heating, water of crystallization of
(d) Nitrate ion acts as a reducing agent crystal is lost. [2012-I]
42. The metal constituent of chlorophyll is [2011-II] 51. Statement I : At high temperature, hydrogen can reduce
(a) Iron (b) Potassium PbO to elemental lead.
(c) Manganese (d) Magnesium Statement II : Hydrogen has great affinity to oxygen.
43. During explosion of gunpowder, which of the following [2012-I]
gases are evolved in the proportion of 1 : 3 ? [2011-II] 52. Statement I : Water is a high boiling point liquid.
(a) Oxygen : Nitrogen Statement II : Hydrogen bonding in water is responsible
(b) Nitorgen : Oxygen for high boiling point of water. [2012-I]
(c) Nitrogen : Carbon dioxide 53. Statement I : Hard water does not give lather with soap.
(d) Carbon dioxide: Nitrogen Statement II : Calcium and magnesium salts present in hard
water form precipitate with soap. [2013-I]
54. Oxygen on reaction with non-metals forms oxides, which 63. If a charged particle (+q) is projected with certain velocity
are [2013-II] parallel to the magnetic field, then it will [2015-I]
(a) basic oxides (b) acidic oxides (a) trace helical path
(c) amphoteric oxides (d) neutral oxides (b) trace circular path
55. A gas is evolved when a piece of zinc metal placed in dilute (c) continue its motion without any change
sulphuric acid (H2SO4). What is the gas? [2013-II] (d) come to rest instantly
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen 64. In the reaction ZnO + C ® Zn + CO, ‘C’ acts as [2015-I]
(c) Water vapour (d) Sulphur dioxide (a) an acid (b) a base
56. Metalloids are [2013-II] (c) an oxidising agent (d) a reducing agent
(a) alloys of alkali metals with other metals. 65. The alkali metals have relatively low melting point. Which
(b) colloids of metals. one of the following alkali metals is expected to have the
(c) elements having some properties of both metals and highest melting point? [2015-II]
non-metals. (a) Li (b) Na
(d) metals heavier than lead. (c) K (d) Rb
57. Two reactants in a flask produce bubbles gas; it turns lime 66. Which one of the following oxides dissolves in water?
water into milky. The reactants in the flask are [2013-II] [2016-I]
(a) Zinc and hydrochloric acid (a) CuO (b) Al2O3
(b) Magnesium carbonate and hydrochloric acid. (c) Fe2O3 (d) Na2O
(c) Magnesium nitrate and hydrochloric acid. 67. Matter around us can exist in three different states, namely,
(d) Magnesium sulphate and hydrochloric acid. solid, liquid and gas. The correct order of their
58. The number of aluminium ions present in 54g of aluminium compressibility is [2016-I]
(atomic weight 27) is [2014-I] (a) Liquid < Gas < Solid (b) Solid < Liquid < Gas
(a) 2 (b) 18 (c) Gas < Liquid < Solid (d) Solid < Gas < Liquid
(c) 1.1 × 1024 (d) 1.2 × 1024 68. Temporary hardness in water is due to which one of the
59. Which of the following is correct regarding the reaction of following of Calcium and Magnesium? [2017-I]
fluorine with water? [2014-I] (a) Hydrogencarbonates (b) Carbonates
2F2(g) + 2H2O(l) ® 4H+ (aq) + 4F– (aq) + O2(g) (c) Chlorides (d) Sulphates
(a) Fluorine is oxidized to F – 69. Which one of the following elements is least reactive with
(b) Water is oxidized to O2. water? [2017-I]
(c) Water is reduced to H+ (a) Lithium (b) Sodium
(d) Oxidation state of fluorine does not change (c) Potassium (d) Cesium
60. The very high heat of vaporization of water is mainly a result of 70. Which one of the following elements corrodes rapidly?
[2014-II]
[2017-I]
(a) van der Waals forces (b) covalent bonds
(c) interionic attraction (d) hydrogen bonding (a) Aluminium (b) Iron
(c) Zinc (d) Silver
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 61-62) : The following 2 (Two) items consist
of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to 71. The proposition 'equal volumes of different gases contain
equal numbers of molecules at the same temperature and
examine these two statements carefully and select the answers
pressure' is known as [2017-II]
to these items using the code given below :
(a) Avogadro's hypothesis
[2015-I] (b) Gay-Lussac's hypothesis
Code : (c) Planck's hypothesis
(d) Kirchhoff's theory
72. Zinc is used to protect iron from corrsion because zinc is
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement [2017-II]
II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (a) more electropositive than iron
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (b) cheaper than iron
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is true (c) a bluish white metal
61. Statement I : Colour of nitrogen dioxide changes to (d) a good conductor of heat and electricity
colourless at low temperature. 73. Which one of the following alkali metals has lowest melting
Statement II : At low temperature Nitrogen tetroxide (N2O4) point? [2018-I]
is formed which is colourless. (a) Sodium (b) Potassium
62. Statement I : Oxygen gas is easily produced at a faster rate (c) Rubidium (d) Caesium
by heating a mixture of potassium chlorate and manganese 74. Which one of the following metals is alloyed with sodium to
dioxide than heating potassium chlorate alone. transfer heat in a nuclear reactor? [2018-I]
Statement II : Manganese dioxide acts as a negative (a) Potassium (b) Calcium
catalyst. (c) Magnesium (d) Strontium
EBD_7348
75. Which one of the following metals is used in the filaments 77. Which one of the following could be the melting point of
of photo-electric cells that convert light energy into electric iron ? [2019-I]
energy? [2018-I] (a) 25°C (b) 37°C
(a) Tungsten (b) Copper (c) 500°C (d) 1500°C
(c) Rubidium (d) Aluminium 78. Dinitrogen (N2) and dioxygen (O2) are the main constituents
of air but they do not react with each other to form oxides
75. Permanent hardness of water cannot be removed by which of nitrogen because [2019-I]
one of the following methods? [2018-II] (a) the reaction requires initiation by a catalyst
(a) Treatment with washing soda (b) oxides of nitrogen are unstable
(b) Calgon's method (c) the reaction is endothermic and requires very high
temperature
(c) Boiling
(d) the stoichiometry of N2 and O2 in air is not ideal for the
(d) Ion exchange method reaction to take place
76. Which one of the following metals does NOT react with 79. On exposure to moist air, copper gains a green coat on its
cold water ? [2019-I] surface due to formation of which one of the following
(a) Calcium (Ca) (b) Potassium (K) compounds ? [2019-I]
(c) Magnesium (Mg) (d) Sodium (Na) (a) Copper carbonate (b) Copper oxide
(c) Copper sulphate (d) Copper nitrate
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 9 (c) 17 (a) 25 (c) 33 (d) 41 (b) 49 (c) 57 (b) 65 (d) 73 (a)
2 (c) 10 (b) 18 (a) 26 (c) 34 (b) 42 (d) 50 (a) 58 (d) 66 (b) 74 (c)
3 (a) 11 (a) 19 (c) 27 (c) 35 (b) 43 (c) 51 (b) 59 (b) 67 (a) 75 (c)
4 (a) 12 (a) 20 (a) 28 (d) 36 (a) 44 (c) 52 (a) 60 (d) 68 (a) 76 (c)
5 (c) 13 (b) 21 (d) 29 (a) 37 (a) 45 (d) 53 (a) 61 (a) 69 (b) 77 (d)
6 (c) 14 (c) 22 (a) 30 (a,b) 38 (a) 46 (c) 54 (b) 62 (c) 70 (a) 78 (c)
7 (c) 15 (b) 23 (d) 31 (a) 39 (c) 47 (b) 55 (a) 63 (d) 71 (a) 79 (b)
8 (d) 16 (b) 24 (b) 32 (c) 40 (c) 48 (b) 56 (c) 64 (a) 72 (d)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (a) Oxygen & nirogen are most abundant elements in the 11. (a) Alkali metals are better reducing agents than hydrogen.
universe. When alkali metals react with water hydrogen gas is
2. (c) Nitrogen is a essential constituent of all vegetables liberated.
and animal proteins. Soil contains nitrogen as 12. (a) Except Ca(CN)2 all are nitrogenous fertilizers.
ammonium salts. 13. (b) Fractional distillation is a process used to separate a
4. (a) H2O exists in liquid state under ordinary conditions mixture of two or more miscible liquids which have
while H2S in gaseous sate as hydrogen bonding exists boiling point close to each other. The lesser is the
in H2O. Oxygen forms stronger hydrogen bonds than boiling point faster will be its distillation. Since the
sulphur. No hydrogen bonding exist in H2S. order by boiling point of given gases are H2 > Ne > N2
5. (c) Alum is used for all the double sulphates having the > O2 hence same will be the order in which the gases
composition M2SO4. M2 (SO4)3. 24H2O are evolved on tractional distillation.
Where M stands for monovalent basic radicals. Alums 14. (c) Oxidation number of oxygen in OF2 is +2.
have Germicide properties and thus used in purification Oxidation number of carbon in most of its compound is
of water. positive.
7. (c) The dissociation energy is higher for nitrogen molecule Chlorine in ClF3 shows + 3 oxidation state.
which in responsible for less activity of nitrogen Fluorine due to its highest electro negativity does not
molecule. show positive oxidation state.
8. (d) The impure nitric acid is generally yellow due to the 15. (b) Pb3 O4 Commonly known as Red lead is used as
presence of nitrogen dioxide as impurity. sindhoor.
9. (c) Both oxygen and moisture present in air cause rusting 16. (b) Tetra ethyl lead (C2H5)4Pb is used as an antiknock
of iron. compound. It is mixced with petrol to improve its
10. (b) Copper lies below hydrogen in the electromotive quality. Therefore automobile exhausts lead, which
series. So it can not displace hydrogen gas from dilute pollutes city.
acids.
17. (a) Allotropes differ in number of atoms. The formula of 31. (a) A mixture containing SiO2, NaCl and NH4Cl can be
oxygen is O2 and of oznoe is O3 hence they are separated by sublimation, dissolution filtration and
allotropes of oxygen. crystallisation proceses respectively.
18. (a) Graphite (c) is an allotrope of carbon. Alumina 32. (c) Distillation, crystallisation and sublimation all are the
(Al2O3) and silica (SiO2) are oxides and Brass is an method of purification but the production of iodine
alloy of Cu and Zn. from sea-weeds is a chemical process.
19. (c) In nuclear reactor heavy water (D2O) used to slow down 33. (d) Iron is more reactive than copper, thus displaces copper
the speed of neutron i.e., act as moderator. from copper sulphate solutions.
20. (a) Mercury exists in liquid state at room temperature. Fe + CuSO4 -® Fe SO4 + Cu
21. (d) Aluminium is less easily corroded than iron, because blue green red-brown
iron forms ion. The copper formed get deposited over the iron nail
22. (a) Distilled water. and blue colour of the solution gradually disappears
23. (d) According to the reactivity basis metals are arranged and removed from the solution.
with respect to the hydrogen in a series which is known 34. (b) Silver comes in contact with H2S of air and forms silver
as electrochemical series. In this series metals which sulphide which is black in colour.
are more reactive than hydrogen are placed above 2Ag + H2 S -® Ag2S + H2
hydrogen and those which are less reactive than black
hydrogen are placed below hydrogen. In this series, 35. (b) Chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium
tin is present above hydrogen while all other given are responsible for permanent hardeness of water.
metals are placed below it. Hence, is more reactive than Note: Bicarbonates are responsible for temporary
hydrogen. hardness of water.
24. (b) In the transition elements, the last differentiating 36. (a) Boiling is not effective in removing arsenic from
electron is accommodated on penultimate d-orbiral. contaminated ground water.
The electronic configuration of Mn is 37. (a) Brass is Cu (80%) + Zn (20%) and bronze is Cu (90 %)
Mn = [Ar] 3d54S2 + Sn (10% ).
As the last electron goes in to the d subshell hence,
Mn is a transition metal. 38. (a) H2O is neutral while aqueous NaOH is basic. Thus,
25. (c) Air contains 78.08% nitrogen, 20.94% oxygen and 1.9% H2O has no effect on red litmus while aqueous NaOH
traces of other elements and gas. Thus concentration turns it blue.
of nitrogen is maximum in air.
26. (c) Among the given option only zinc is more reactive 39. (c) S + O 2 ¾¾®SO2 ; SO 2 + H 2O ¾¾® H 2SO3
X Sulfurous acid
than hydrogen hence it will replace hydrogen from acid
to form salt.i.e, 40. (c) Ge – + 2 , + 4
Zn + H2SO4 ® NnSO4 + H2 . Sn – + 2 , + 4
27. (c) During a chemical, change a substance loses its identity Pb – + 2 , + 3
and changes into a new substance whose chemical Oxidation
composition and properties are different. 41. (b) +1
Based on above fact, burning of fuel and rusting of º + Ag
+1
º
Cu No3+ Ag
Cu NO3
iron show chemical change.
28. (d) According to the electrochemical series the correct
order of reactivity is Na > Mg > Zn > Cu. Reduction
29. (a) Water is a polar solvent hence, ionic compounds are 42. (d) Chlorophyll is a chlorine pigment in which at the centre
soluble in this whereas covalent compounds are not. of the chlorine ring is a magnesium ion. Chlorine ring
Water has maximum density at 4ºC or 277 K. Above or also bears a long phytol chain.
below this temperature the density will decrease. 43. (c) 2KNO3 + S + 3 C ® K2S + N2 + 3CO2
30. (a,b) According to the given data hence, nitrogen and carbon dioxide evolve in 1:3 ratio.
Na 2SO4 + BaCl 2 ® 2NaCl + BaSO 4 ¯ 44. (c) It is because a certain amount of heat must be taken
Sodium Barium (Solub le) (p p t) out of glass so as to solidify.
sulphate chloride 45. (d) Glass is made exclusively from natural or nature-
identical inorganic raw materials, the majority of which
MgSO 4 + Ba (HCO3 ) 2 ® Mg ( HCO3 ) + BaSO4 ¯ exist or can be produced in Germany. Essentially, a
2
Magnesium Barium (So luble) (p p t) total of six natural raw materials are necessary to
sulphate bicarbonate produce soda-lime glass (sheet glass and container
Both the above given combinations of solution will glass): approx. 70 percent quartz sand (SiO2), 13 percent
produce a precipitate of BaSO4. Hence, options (a) soda (Na2CO3), 10 percent lime (CaCO3) and small
white and (b) both are correct answer. quantities of dolomite, feldspar and potash.
EBD_7348
46. (c) Unstable allotropes of nitrogen consisting of more than The six commonly recognised metalloids are boron,
two nitrogen atoms have been produced in the silicon, germanium, arsenic, antimony and tellurium.
laboratory, like N3 and N4.[1] Under extremely high Elements less commonly recognised as metalloids
pressures (1.1 million atm) and high temperatures include carbon, aluminium, selenium, polonium, and
(2000 K), as produced under diamond anvil conditions, astatine.
nitrogen polymerizes into the single bonded diamond 57. (b) The reactant in the flash are magnesium carbonate and
crystal structure, an allotrope nicknamed “nitrogen hydrochloric acid the reactions are
diamond”. MgCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) ® MgCl2(aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
47. (b) Deionised water is water which has no solids dissolved 58. (d) Number of aluminium ions present in 54g of aluminium
in it. One way to make it is to distil the water. The water
which comes over is called the distillate and it has no 6.203 ´ 1023 ´ 54
= = 1.2 ´1024
ions in it hence is deionised water. A second way to 27
make deionised water is to pass water through an ion- 59. (b) In the given reaction F2 is an oxidising agent which
exchange column. The latter is composed of insoluble oxides H2O to O2. Oxidation state of fluorine changes 0
chemicals which remove both positive and negative to – 1.
ions from the water leaving the resulting water without 60. (d) The very high heat of vaporisation of water is mainly a
ions. result of hydrogen bonding.
48. (b) Double salts are salts containing more than one cation 61. (a) NO2 exists in equilibrium with the colourless gas
or anion, obtained by combination of two different salts dinitrogen tetroxide
which were crystallized in the same regular ionic lattice. (N2O4). At higher temperature NO2 is favoured while at
50. (a) Copper sulphate is normally found in the form of blue low temperature N2O4 predominates.
crystals, copper (II) sulphate pentahydrate. When you 62. (c) Heating a mixture of potassium chlorate and manganese
heat copper sulphate pentahydrate it turns white as dioxide produces oxygen gas and manganese dioxide
the water which is driven off by the heat. The white acts as a positive catalyst.
solid remaining is anhydrous copper sulphate. If you 63. (d) 'C' acts as a reducing agent in this reaction. A reducing
add water to the anhydrous copper sulphate an agent is a substance that loses electrons, making it
exothermic reaction occurs, you can feel the test-tube possible for another substance to gain electrons and
getting hot, as the blue copper sulphate pentahydrate be reduced. The oxidized substance is always the
is re-formed. reducing agent.
51. (b) It is due to reduction reaction hydrogen reduces the Reduction
oxygen of lead oxide to elemental lead.
+2 0 +2
52. (a) In the case of water, hydrogen bonding, which is a 0
Zn + CO
ZnO + C
special case of polar dipole forces exerts a very strong
effect to keep the molecules in a liquid state until a Oxidation
fairly high temperature is reached. Water boils at +100 64. (a) Li is the alkali metal which has highest melting point.
C, which is very abnormal. The major reason for this 65. (d) Oxides of Sodium readily dissolved in water as it has
abnormal behavior is the strong attractions afforded ionic bond which breaks in water easily other oxides
by the hydrogen bonds. It takes a lot more kinetic energy have covalent bond which do not break easily.
in an increased temperature to break the hydrogen 66. (b) The atoms and molecules in gases are much more
bonds to free the water molecules as the gas. spread out than in solids or liquids. They vibrate and
53. (a) When hard water is beated with soap solution, Ca++ move freely at high speeds. A gas will fill any container,
and Mg++ ions present in hard water react with anions but if the container is not sealed, the gas will escape.
of fatty acids present in soaps to form scum or Gas can be compressed much more easily than a liquid
precipitate. As a result, hard water does not produce or solid.
lather with soap. 67. (a) Temporary hardness is due to the presence of calcium
54. (b) Oxides of non-metals are usually acidic, e.g., CO2, SO2, hydrogencarbonate Ca(HCO3)2(aq) and magnesium
SO3,..... hydrogencarbonate Mg(HCO3)2(aq). Both calcium
hydrogencarbonate and magnesium hydrogen-
CO2 + H2O ® H2CO3 (Carbonic acid)
carbonate decompose when heated.
SO2 + H2O ® H2SO3 (Sulphurous acid) 68. (a) Lithium reacts intensely with water, forming lithium
55. (a) Hydrogen gas is evolved when a piece of zinc metal is hydroxide and highly flammable hydrogen. The
placed in dilute sulphuric acid (H2SO4). The chemical colourless solution is highly alkalic. The exothermal
reaction is reactions lasts longer than the reaction of sodium and
Zn + H2SO4 ® ZnSO4 + H2. water.
56. (c) A metalloid is a chemical element with properties in 69. (b) Iron corrodes rapidly, because of its non-stable
between, or that are a mixture of, those of metals and corrosion products on the surface. Rust occurs when
non-metals. There is no standard definition of a metals containing iron react with the oxygen in the air
metalloid, nor is there complete agreement as to which or in water and form a compound called iron(III) oxide
elements are appropriately classified as such. (ferric oxide). This compound contains water molecules,
so we call it a hydrated compound. Both oxygen gas is the element used in the filament of photoelectric cell
and water must be present for the iron to rust. that convert light energy into electric energy.
Chemically and very simply speaking, iron atoms lose 75. (c) The permanent hardness of water is due to presence of
a few electrons to oxygen atoms. This process by which chloride and sulphates salts of calcium and magnesium.
electrons are removed from atoms is called oxidation. This type of hardness can be removed by Calgon's
When oxidation occurs, it produces a chemical reaction method, Ion-exchange method and treatment with
that creates iron(III) oxide-or rust. washing soda. Boiling can remove only the temporary
70. (a) The law is named after Amedeo Avogadro who, in 1811, hardness of water but not the permanent hardness.
hypothesized that two given samples of an ideal gas, 76. (c) Magnesium is a chemical element with the symbol Mg.
of the same volume and at the same temperature and Magnesium is the ninth most abundant element in the
pressure, contain the same number of molecules. universe. Its use as a structural material is limited since
71. (a) Zinc metal is used to protect iron from corrosion it burns at relatively low temperatures. Magnesium is
because zinc is more electropositive than iron. The frequently alloyed with aluminum, which makes
process of coating the iron surface by zinc is called aluminum easier to roll, extrude and weld.
galvanisation. Zinc metal present on the surface of 77. (d) The temperature at which a solid and liquid phase may
iron forms a thin protective layer of basic zinc carbonate coexist in equilibrium. The term applies to pure liquids
due to the reaction between zinc, oxygen, CO2 and and solutions. It is also known as Freezing Point. The
moisture in air. Since, standard redcuction potential of melting point of the iron is 2,800°F (1537.77778 Celsius
zinc is less than iron, hence iron will not undergo (°C).
corrosion. 78. (c) It is because:
72. (d) Alkali metals Caesium has lowest melting (i) the reaction is endothermic and requires very high
point.Caesium is a chemical element with symbol Cs temperature.
and atomic number 55. Alkali metals are very reactive, (ii) the reaction can be initiated only in presence of a
electropositive, monovalent metals forming strongly catalyst.
alkaline hydroxides. (iii) oxides of nitrogen are unstable.
(iv) N2 and O2 are unreactive.
73. (a) Potassium is alloyed with sodium in order to transfer
79. (b) Copper metal when exposed to air turns green in colour
heat in nuclear reactor. Their combination is denoted
due to corrosion. When copper vessel is exposed to
as NaK. Special precautions are required while using air in rainy season, the metal reacts with gases and
them as both are alkali metals and may explode in case moisture and atmospheric gases to form a mixture of
of exposure to air. Sodium is the most important metal copper carbonate and copper hydroxide. This gives a
for nuclear reactions green colour to the surface of copper metal.
74. (c) Photoelectric cell an electronic device whose electrical The reaction is as follows:
properties are modified by the action of light. Rubidium 2Cu + H2O + CO2 + O2 ® Cu(OH)2 + CuCO3
EBD_7348
Some Important Chemical
Compounds 11
1. Consider the following statements : (c) They prevent the polymerization and condensation
1. An alloy is a mixture of two or more metals (d) They provide elasticity to the film and minimize its
2. An alloy is a mixture of a metal or metals with a non- cracking [2007-I]
metal. 11. Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) Super phosphate (b) Nitrolim
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Muriate of Potash (d) Humus [2007-I]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2006-I] 12. Among the following sedimentary rocks, which one is of
2. Which one of the following is used as a fertilizer ? organic origin?
(a) NH4OH (b) NH4Cl (a) Gypsum (b) Limestone
(c) NH4NO3 (d) (NH4)2SO4 [2006-I] (c) Nitre (d) Rock salt [2007-II]
3. What is the percentage of lead in lead pencil ? 13. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) 0% (b) 25% (a) Major components of air Nitrogen and oxygen
(c) 50% (d) 100% [2006-I] gases
4. Which one of the following fertilizers has the maximum (b) Components of air Carbon dioxide and water
percentage of nitrogen ? responsible for vapours Photosynthesis
(a) Ammonium sulphate (c) Components of air Rare gases
(b) Urea responsible for air pollution
(c) Calcium cyanamide (d) Component of air Nitrogen gas
(d) Calcium ammonium nitrate [2006-II] essential for growth and development of plants
5. Which one of the following is not contained in Portland [2007-II]
cement ? 14. Consider the following statements :
(a) Ca3Al2O6 (b) Ca3SiO5 1. Among the fertilizers used, urea contains maximum
(c) Ca2SiO4 (d) Ca3(PO4)2 [2006-II] percentage of N.
6. Which one of the following acids is used for etching glass? 2. The mixture of calcium sulphate and calcium
(a) H2SO4 (b) HNO3 dihydrogen phosphate is known as superphosphate
(c) HF (d) HCl [2006-II] of lime.
7. What is the reason for white cement to be white? 3. Potassium magnesium sulphate is called the muriate of
(a) It does not contain carbon potash.
(b) It does not contain silicon Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) It does not contain iron (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) It does not contain calcium [2007-I] (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 [2007-II]
8. What is iodised table salt? 15. Which one of the following is not present in cement?
(a) An element (a) Clay (b) Alumina
(b) A compound (c) Alum (d) Gypsum [2007-II]
(c) A heterogeneous mixture 16. Which raw material is used in the preparation of soft glass ?
(d) A homogeneous mixture [2007-I] (a) K2CO3, Sio2, CaCO3 (b) K2CO3, SiO2, PbCO3
9. Mildness of shaving cream is enriched by which one of the (c) Na2CO3, SiO2, CaCO3 (d) Na2CO3, SiO2, PbO
following? [2007-I] [2007-II]
(a) Sodium silicate (b) Free fatty acid 17. Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire
(c) Potassium carbonate (d) Sodium chloride extinguishers?
10. What is the purpose of adding plasticizers in paint (a) Aluminium sulphate (b) Copper sulphate
manufacturing process? (c) Cobalt sulphate (d) Nickel sulphate [2008-I]
(a) They act as a film-forming constituent 18. Talc contains which of the following?
(b) They reduce the viscosity (a) Zinc, calcium and oxygen
(b) Calcium, oxygen and tin
Some Important Chemical Compounds G-97
(c) Magnesium, silicon and oxygen 29. Alum is used as [2009-I]

(d) Zinc, tin and sulphur [2008-I] (a) an analgesic (b) a fertilizer
19. Which one of the following is the most important (c) a disinfectant (d) a purifier for water
characteristic of water to act as a good solvent? 30. When applied to the affected area, which one of the following
(a) Purity fo water will relieve the pain due to ant-bite or bee-sting? [2009-I]
(b) Ionizing power of water (a) Lemon juice (b) Vinegar
(c) Polar nature of water (c) Baking soda (d) Caustic soda
(d) Dissolving power of water [2008-I] 31. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
20. What is the composition of nitrolim – a chemical fertilizer ? the codes given below the lists [2009-I]
(a) Nitrogen and limestone
(b) Calcium carbide and nitrogen List I List II
(c) Calcium carbide and carbon (Substance) (Raw Material)
(d) None of the above [2008-I] A. Glass 1. Fat and Caustic alkali
21. Which one of the following glasses is used in bullet proof B. Soap 2. Cellulose fibre and gelatin
screens? C. Paper 3. Silicate of calcium and
(a) Soda glass (b) Pyrex glass aluminium
(c) Jena glass (d) Reinforced glass [2008-I] D. Cement 4. Silica
22. Which substance is used to retard the setting action of Codes:
cement? A B C D
(a) CaO (b) Al2O3 (a) 3 2 1 4
(c) CaSO4, 2H2O (d) Na2O + K2O [2008-I] (b) 4 2 1 3
23. What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal (c) 3 1 2 4
and sulphur called ? (d) 4 1 2 3
(a) Glass (b) Cement 32. Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty
(c) Paint (d) Gun power [2008-I] parlours for hair-setting? [2009-I]
24. Flint glass is obtained from which of the following ? (a) Sulphur based (b) Phosphorus based
(a) Zinc and barium borosilicate (c) Silicon based (d) Iron based
(b) Sand, red lead and potassium carbonate 33. Consider the following statements [2009-II]
(c) Sodium aluminum borosilicate 1. Soap cannot be used in acidic water.
(d) Pure silica and zinc oxide [2008-II] 2 Ionic part of a soap is —COO–· Na+.
25. Which one of the following correctly defines the state of 3. Soap dissolves in water faster then detergent.
glass? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Crystalline solid (b) Super cooled liquid (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Condensed gas (d) Liquid crystal [2008-II] (c) 3 only (d) 1 only
26. Match List-I with List-II and slect the correct answer using 34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the lists: the code given below the Lists [2009-II]
List-I List-II
List I List II
(Substance added) (Colour imparter to glass) (Material) (Important Ingredient)
A. Chromium (III) oxide 1. Red A. Cement 1. Sodium
B. Cobalt (II) oxide 2. Violet B. Glass 2. Carbon Black
C. Cuprous oxide 3. Green C. Ink 3. Silica in the form of quartz
D. Managanese dioxide 4. Blue D. Soap 4. Alumium and silicates of
Codes: calcium
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 Codes:
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3 A B C D
[2008-II] (a) 4 3 2 1
27. Which one of the following materials is suitable for water (b) 1 2 3 4
purification? (c) 1 3 2 4
(a) Silicones (b) Zeolites (d) 4 2 3 1
(c) Asbestos (d) Quartz [2008-II] 35. Consider the following statements regarding aluminium paint
28. Consider the following: [2009-II]
Crude oil is a direct source of 1. It is fairly good heat-resistant.
1. Asphalt 2. Paraffin wax 2. It possesses good electrical resistance.
3. Fatty acids 4. Gas oil 3. It cannot be used for hot water pipe.
Which of the above are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 [2008-II] (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
EBD_7348
36. The metal atom, which is present in superphosphate, is (a) silver (Ag) and lead (Pb)
[2010-I] (b) copper (Cu) and aluminium (Al)
(a) sodium (Na) (b) potassium (K) (c) silver (Ag) and gold (Au)
(c) calcium (Ca) (d) magnesium (Mg) (d) copper (Cu) and gold (Au)
37. The best and the poorest conductors of heat are
respectively [2010-I]
DIRECTIONS (Q. 38-41) : The following four items are based on the table given below. You are to match List-I with List-II, List-III
and List-IV and select the correct answer using the code given below :
[2010-I]
List-I List-II List-III List-IV

(Element) (Property) (Property/Composition) (Property/Composition)
A Diamond 1. Thermosetting I. Rigid structure i. Non-conductor of heat
polymer
B Graphite 2. Monomer II. Sheet-like structure ii. Ester
C Rayon 3. Soft III. Cellulose iii. Conductor of heat
D Nylon 4. Viscose process IV. Soft on heating iv. Ether
E Carbon Fibre 5. Synthetic fibre V. Unreactive v. Silk-like thread
F Polyvinyl 6. High Strength VI. Corrosion vi. Spacecraft
chloride
G Terylene 7. Thermoplastic VII. Melts instead of burning vii. Chlorine atom replaces hydrogen atom
H Bakelite 8. Polyester VIII. Ethylene glycol viii. Cross-linked
9. Hardest natural IX. Phenol and formaldehyde ix. Terephthalic acid
substance
38. List-I List-II List-III List-IV 43. Iodized salt is a [2010-II]

(a) A 9 I i (a) mixture of potassium iodide and common salt
(b) B 3 IV iv (b) mixture of molecular iodine and common salt
(c) compound formed by combination of potassium iodide
(c) A 9 I ii
and common salt
(d) B 3 II v
(d) compound formed by combination of molecular iodine
39. List-I List-II List-III List-IV and common salt
(a) C 4 II i 44. Which of the statements about glass are correct?
(b) D 5 VII v 1. glass is a super-cooled liquid having infinite viscosity.
(c) C 6 V vi 2. violet coloured glass is obtained by adding MnO2.
(d) D 5 II iv 3. glass is a man-made silicate.
40. List-I List-II List-III List-IV 4. glass is a crystalline substance. [2011-I]
(a) E 6 I vi Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(b) F 7 IV ix (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) E 6 VI vi (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
(d) F 3 VI iv 45. Which one among the following is the main ingredient in
cement? [2011-I]
41. List-I List-II List-III List-IV
(a) Gypsum (b) Limestone
(a) G 8 I ix (c) Clay (d) Ash
(b) H 4 IV iii 46. Glass is actually [2011-I]
(c) G 8 VIII ix (a) a crystalline solid (b) an ionic solid
(d) H 1 VI viii (c) an elastic solid (d) a vitrified liquid
42. By which one among the following mechanisms, soap 47. When concentrated H2SO4 spills on a surface, it should be
removes dirt (soil) from cloth? [2010-II] immediately cleaned [2011-I]
(a) Soap dissolves the soil as such (a) with a piece of cloth (b) by adding cold water
(b) Soap reacts with soil and converts them into soluble (c) by adding solid Na2CO3 (d) by adding solid BaCl2
silicates 48. The major component used in preparation of different types
(c) Soap takes away the oily part of the soil and thus of glasses is [2011-II]
separates the soil from the cloth
(a) Silica (b) Sodium borate
(d) The soap molecules bind with the soil, lift the soil and
keep it suspended which can then be rinsed away (c) Calcium silicate (d) Sodium silicate
49. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using Code:
the code given below the lists: [2011-II] (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is
List I List II the correct explanation of Statement I
(Metallic oxide) (Colour imparted (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is
to glass)
A. Uranium oxide 1. Red (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
B. Cuprous oxide 2. Blue
[2013-II]
C. Cobalt oxide 3. Green 56. Statement I:
D. Chromium oxide 4. Yellow Glass is not considered as a true compound.
Code: Statement II:
(a) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3 (b) A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4 Glass does not have a definite melting point.
(c) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3 (d) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4 57. The presence of sulphur in gunpowder. [2013-II]
50. The reaction that takes place in soap making is called (a) decreases the ignition temperature.
saponification. Basically soap is sodium or potassium (b) increases the final temperature.
salts of [2011-II] (c) increases explosiveness of the gunpowder.
(a) long chain monocarboxylic acids (d) makes the powder smokeless.
(b) glycerol 58. Calcium ammonium nitrate (CAN) is a popular nitrogen
(c) long chain dicarboxylic acids fertilizer because it is [2013-II]
(d) long chain tricarboxylic acids (a) slow supplier of nitrogen.
51. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using (b) having more percentage of nitrogen in it.
the code given below the Lists : [2012-II] (c) fixing the nitrogen in the soil.
List I List II (d) capable of making the soil acidic.
(Compound) (Use) 59. Chromium oxide is used as an ingredient in paints to obtain
A. Cellulose nitrate 1. Soft soap [2013-II]
B. Potassium sulphate 2. Gun powder (a) green colour
C. Potassium salt 3. Fertilizer (b) blue colour
of fatty acids (c) red colour
D. Calcium oxide 4. Glass (d) violet colour
Code : 60. Dihydrogen can be prepared on a commercial scale by the
(a) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4 (b) A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4 action of steam on hydrocarbons, when a mixture of CO and
(c) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3 (d) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4 H2 gas is formed. It is known as [2014-I]
52. The most important raw materials used in the manufacture (a) water gas (b) producer gas
of cement are [2012-II] (c) industrial gas (d) fuel gas
(a) Potassium nitrate, charcoal and sulphur 61. The temperature of water at the bottom of a lake whose
(b) Limestone, clay and gypsum upper surface has frozen to ice would be around [2014-I]
(c) Transition metal oxides, sodium hydroxide or potassium (a) –10°C (b) 0°C
hydroxide (c) 4°C (d) – 4°C
(d) Limestone, sodium carbonate and silica 62. Which of the following acids is a mineral acid? [2014-I]
53. Given below is an approximate composition of a substance : (a) Citric acid (b) Hydrochloric acid
CaO 60-70% (c) Ascorbic acid (d) Tartaric acid
SiO2 20-25% 63. A fertilizer contains 20% nitrogen by mass. To provide a
Al2O3 5-10% fruit tree with an equivalent of 1 kg of nitrogen, the quantity
Fe2O3 2-3% of fertilizer required is [2014-I]
The substance is [2012-II] (a) 20 kg (b) 0.20 kg
(a) Plaster of Paris (b) Cement (c) 0.05 kg (d) 5 kg
(c) Marble stone (d) Quartz 64. Which one of the following substances is most likely to be
54. The principle of cleaning by soap is [2013-I] used as soap? [2014-II]
(a) surface tension (b) floatation (a) CH3(CH2)12COOCH3 (b) CH3(CH2)5O(CH2)5CH3
(c) viscosity (d) elasticity (c) CH3(CH2)12COONa (d) CH3(CH2)12CHCl2
55. Sodium stearate is a salt and is used [2013-I] 65. A sample of gas is to be identified by means of its behaviour
(a) in gunpowder (b) in paint in the presence of a glowing splint. Which of the following
(c) to make soap (d) to make fertilizer gases will neither itself burn nor cause the splint to burn?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 56-57): The following 2 (Two) items consist [2014-II]
of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine (a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these (c) Hydrogen (d) Methane
items using the code given below.
EBD_7348
66. Turpentine oil in paints is used as a [2014-II] Code:
(a) pigment (b) film-forming material (a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II
(c) thinner (d) drier is the correct explanation of Statement I.
DIRECTION (Q. 67) : The following item consist of two (b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine not the correct explanation of Statement I.
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
items using the code given below : (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Code : [2016-I]
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement 76. Statement I: Petroleum is a mixture of many different
II is the correct explanation of Statement I hydrocarbons of different densities.
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement Statement II: The grade of petroleum depends mainly on
II is not the correct explanation of Statement I the relative proportion of the different
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false hydrocarbons.
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is true 77. The phosphorus used in the manufacture of safety matches
[2015-I] is [2016-I]
(a) Red phosphorus (b) Blank phosphorus
67. Statement I : The granules of modern gunpowder (also called
black powder) are typically coated with Graphite. (c) White phosphorus (d) Scarlet phosphorus
Statement II : Graphite prevents the build-up of electrostatic 78. Which of the commonly used household item(s) release
charge. Bisphenol A(BPA) which is an endocrine disruptor and bad
68. Which one among the following is used in making for human health? [2016-I]
gunpowder ? [2015-I] 1. Steel utensils
(a) Magnesium sulphate (b) Potassium nitrate 2. Plastic coffee mugs
(c) Sodium stearate (d) Calcium sulphate 3. Aluminium utensils
69. The chemical used as a fixer/developer in photography is 4. Plastic water strorage bottles
[2015-I] Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Sodium sulphate (b) Sodium sulphide
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Sodium thiosulphate (d) Sodium sulphite
70. Washing Soda is the comon name for [2015-I] 79. Which one of the following oxides of nitrogen is known as
(a) Calcium Carbonate (b) Magnesium Carbonate ‘anhydride’ of nitric acid? [2016-I]
(c) Sodium Carbonate (d) Potassium Carbonate (a) N2O (b) N2O3
71. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of [2015-I] (c) NO2 (d) N2O5
(a) sulphates of sodium and potassium 80. Which one of the following is the chemical name for baking
(b) sulphates of magnesium and calcium soda? [2016-I]
(c) carbonates of sodium and magnesium (a) Sodium bicarbonate (Sodium hydrogen carbonate)
(d) bicarbonates of magnesium and calcium (b) Sodium carbonate
72. Addition of gypsum to cement: [2015-II] (c) Potassium bicarbonate (Potassium hydrogen
(a) reduces setting time to cement carbonate)
(b) produces very light colour cement (d) Potassium carbonate
(c) increases setting time of cement 81. Which one of the following is water gas? [2016-I]
(d) shining surface is formed (a) Mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
73. The main constituent of Vinegar is: [2015-II] (b) Mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen
(a) Acetic acid (b) Ascorbic acid (c) Mixture of carbon dioxide and water vapour
(c) Citric acid (d) Tartaric acid (d) Mixture of carbon monoxide and water vapour
74. White Phosphorus glows in the dark due to: [2015-II] 82. Which one of the following carbon compounds will not give
(a) amorphous character a sooty flame? [2016-I]
(b) slow oxidation (a) Benzene (b) Hexane
(c) high ignition temperature (c) Naphthalene (d) Anthracene
(d) good conducting property of electricity 83. Glass is a [2017-I]
75. Which one of the following is useful in paper manufacturing (a) liquid
industry? [2015-II] (b) colloid
(a) Fibrous plants (c) non-crystalline amorphous solid
(b) Orchids (d) crystalline solid
(c) Non-flowering plants 84. The chemical name of baking soda is [2017-I]
(d) Plants growing in high altitude (a) Na2CO3 (b) NaHCO3
DIRECTION (Q. 75): The following item consist of two (c) CaCO3 (d) NaOH
statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two 85. Which compound, when dissolved in water, conducts
statements carefully and select the answers to these items using electricity and forms a basic solution? [2017-II]
the code given below: (a) HCI (b) CH3COOH
(c) CH3OH (d) NaOH
86. The principal use of hydrofluoric acid is [2017-II] 94. Which one of the following is called syngas? [2018-II]
(a) in etching glass (a) C(s) + H2O(g) (b) CO(g) + H2O(g)
(b) as a bleaching agent
(c) CO(g) + H2(g) (d) NO2(g) + H2(g)
(c) as an extremely strong oxidizing agent
(d) in the preparation of strong organic flourine 95. Which one of the following is called dry ice? [2018-II]
compounds (a) Solid carbon dioxide
87. The compound C6H12O4 contains [2017-II] (b) Liquid carbon dioxide
(a) 22 atoms per mole
(c) Liquid nitrogen
(b) twice the mass precent of H as compared to the mass
percent of C (d) Liquid ammonia
(c) six times the mass percent of C as compared to the 96. Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer?
mass percent of H [2018-II]
(d) thrice the mass percent of H as compared to the mass
(a) Ammonium nitrate
percent of O
88. Which one among the following chemical is used as (b) Ammonium sulphide
washing soda? [2017-II] (c) Ammonium phosphate
(a) Calcium carbonate (b) Calcium bicarbonate (d) Ammonium sulphate
(c) Sodium carbonate (d) Sodium bicarbonate
97. Which one of the following is the chemical formula of
89. Why is potassium permanganate used for purifying
gypsum? [2018-II]
drinking water?
(a) It kills germs (a) CaSO4. 2H2O (b) Ca2SiO4
(b) It dissolves the impurities (c) 2CaSO4. H2O (d) CaSO4
` (c) It is a reducing agent 98. Which one of the following minerals is used as a fuel in
(d) It is a oxidizing agent nuclear power stations ? [2019-I]
90. Brine is an aqueous solution of [2018-I] (a) Bauxite (b) Quartz
(a) NaCl (b) NaOH (c) Feldspar (d) Pitchblende
(c) NaHCO3 (d) Na2CO3 99. Which one of the following is NOT a synthetic detergent ?
91. Which one of the following is the chemical formula of [2019-I]
Washing Soda? [2018-I] (a) CH3(CH2)10CH2O SO–3 Na+
(a) NaHCO3 (b) Na2CO3.10H2O (b) [CH3(CH2)15–N–(CH3)3]+ Br–
(c) Na2CO3.5H2O (d) NaOH (c) CH3(CH2)16COO–Na+
92. Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching
(d) CH3(CH2)16COO(CH2CH2O)nCH2CH2OH
powder? [2018-I]
(a) It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries 100. Which one of the following is an example of a clean fuel ?
(b) It is used for bleaching wood pulp in paper factories [2019-I]
(c) It is used for disinfecting drinking water (a) Coke (b) Propane
(d) It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry (c) Petrol (d) Wax
93. Which one of the following is the number of water molecules 101. Which one of the following is used as a binder in paints ?
that share with two formula unit CaSO4 in plaster of Paris? [2019-I]
[2018-I] (a) Titanium dioxide (b) Novolac
(a) One (b) Two (c) Phthalocyanine (d) Silicones
(c) Five (d) Ten 102. Which one of the following is an organic acid ? [2019-I]
(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Nitric acid
(c) Acetic acid (d) Sulphuric acid
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 12 (b) 23 (d) 34 (a) 45 (b) 56 (b) 67 (a) 78 (c) 89 (d) 100 (b)
2 (d) 13 (c) 24 (b) 35 (a) 46 (c) 57 (a) 68 (b) 79 (d) 90 (a) 101 (d)
3 (a) 14 (a) 25 (b) 36 (c) 47 (d) 58 (a) 69 (c) 80 (a) 91 (b) 102 (c)
4 (b) 15 (c) 26 (b) 37 (a) 48 (a) 59 (a) 70 (c) 81 (a) 92 (a)
5 (d) 16 (c) 27 (b) 38 (a) 49 (a) 60 (b) 71 (b) 82 (b) 93 (a)
6 (c) 17 (a) 28 (d) 39 (b) 50 (d) 61 (c) 72 (c) 83 (c) 94 (c)
7 (c) 18 (c) 29 (d) 40 (a) 51 (a) 62 (b) 73 (a) 84 (b) 95 (a)
8 (d) 19 (c) 30 (c) 41 (c) 52 (b) 63 (d) 74 (b) 85 (d) 96 (b)
9 (c) 20 (d) 31 (d) 42 (d) 53 (b) 64 (c) 75 (a) 86 (a) 97 (a)
10 (d) 21 (d) 32 (c) 43 (a) 54 (a) 65 (b) 76 (b) 87 (c) 98 (d)
11 (c) 22 (c) 33 (a) 44 (d) 55 (c) 66 (c) 77 (a) 88 (c) 99 (d)
EBD_7348
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (a) A homogeneous mixture of two or more metals is known
as alloys. CaC2 + N 2 ¾¾
® CaCN 2 + C
14243
2. (d) (NH4)2 SO4 is known as sindri fertilizer. It is colourless Cal.Carbide Nitro lim
and highly soluble in water. NH4NO3 is also used as a 21. (d) Reinforced glass is used in bullet proof covers.
fertilizer by mixing with other substances like nitro chalk 22. (c) CaSO4. 2H2O (Gypsum) is added to cement clinker to
NH4NO3 + CaCO3, Luena saltpetre retard setting action of cement.
NH4NO3 + (NH4)2SO4 23. (d) Gun powder is a powdered explosive containing
3. (a) Lead pencil contains only graphite and has 0% lead. potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur.
4. (b) Urea has maximum percenage of nitrogen (46%). 24. (b) Flint glass is obtained from red lead and potatassium
5. (d) A typical composition for portland cement is CaO, SiO2, carbonate.
Al2O3, Fe2O3, CaSO4.2H2O. 25. (b) Glass is an amorphous, hard, brittle, super coold liquid.
\ Ca3 (PO4)2 is not contained in portland cement. 26. (b) Chromium oxide (Cr2O3) – Green
6. (c) Hydrofluoric acid (HF) is used in the etching of glass. Cobalt oxide (CoO) – Blue
7. (c) White cement is white since it does not contain Iron.
Cuprous oxide (Cu2O) – Red
8. (d) Iodised table salt is homogeneous mixture.
Monganese dioxide (MnO2) – Purple
9. (c) Mildness of shaving cream is enriched by potassium
27. (b) Permanent hardness of water can be removed by
carbonate.
permutit method. It includes the use of complex
10. (d) Th e purpose of adding plasticizers in pain t inorganic salts like Na2 Al2 Si2O8.xH2O.
manufacturing process is provided elasticity to the film
(zeolites) which have property of exchanging cations
and minimise its cracking.
such as Ca++ , Mg++ with sodium salt ions.
11. (c) Muriate of potash is assimilated directly by the plant.
29. (d) Alum is used to purify water, as it has the property to
12. (b) Due to erosian of earth’s crust caused by water, air
coagulate mud particles. It is also antiseptic in nature.
and carbondioxide, the sedimentary materials (much
30. (c) Ants contain formic acid hence, during antbite or bee-
as clay, sand and mud) were produced. The materials
sting formic acid is released out which causes pain.
deposited in rivers, lakes and oceans which resulted in
formic acid is a weak acid hence a weak base e.g sodium
the formation of sedimentary rocks such as lime stone
bicarbonate (baking soda) will neutralise it and give
chalk and sand stone.
relief from pain.
13. (c) Rare gases (eg. Argon) are found approximately 1% in
the air, these are not responsible for air pollution. 31. (d) List I (Substance) Liss II (Raw materials)
14. (a) Statement (1) and (2) are correct. Glass Silica
Urea contains maximum percentage of N among various Soap Fat+caustic alkali
fertilizers used. Paper Cellulose fibre and gelatin
The mixture of Ca(H2PO4)2 and CaSO4 is sold as “super Cement Silicates of Ca and Al
phosphate”.
Hence, A – 4, B – 1, C – 2, D – 3
Statement (3) is wrong. Muriate is obsolete name for
chloride e.g. KCl. 32. (c) Polysiloxanes are silicon compounds which have an
15. (c) Gypsum is added in calculated quantity in order to affinity for hair and form a film at the hair’s surface.
adjust the rate of setting of cement. Alum is NOT Due to this property these are used in hair seetting in
present in cement. parlours.
16. (c) Soft glass of which bottles are made, is prepared by 33. (a) Detergent dissolves in water faster than soap.
heating together silica (SiO2 ), sodium carbonate 34. (a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(Na2CO3) and lime stone (CaCO3). 35. (a) Aluminium is good conductor of heat and electricity.
17. (a) Aluminium sulphate is used in ‘foam’ fire extinguishers, 36. (c) The formula of calcium superphate or superphosphate
which contains radium bicarbonate and aluminium of lime is
sulphate in separate receptacles on being mixed they Ca2 (H2PO4)2 H2O + 2 (CaSO4. 2H2O)
form the foam of bubbles of CO2. 37. (a) Silver is the best conductor of head and lead is the
18. (c) Talc is Mg3(OH)2Si4O10. poorest conductor of heat.
19. (c) Due to polar character of its molecule, water has high 38. (a) In Urea NH2CONH2,
dielectric constant (82).
23
20. (d) Calcium cyanamide (CaCN2) mixed with carbon (C) is % of nitrogen = ´100 = 46.6%
called nitrolim. 60
In ammonium cyanide NH4CN, 49. (a) Cobalt oxide – Deep blue

28 Copper oxide – Red
% of nitrogen = ´100 = 63.6% Uranium oxide – Fluroscent yellow (glows)
44
In ammonium carbonate, (NH4)2CO3 Cromimum oxide – Dark green
50. (d) Vegetable oils and animal fats are the main materials
28
% of nitrogen = ´ 100 = 29.2% that are saponified. These greasy materials, triesters
96
called triglycerides, are mixture derived from diverse
In ammonium nitrate, (NH2)2 NO3, long chain tricarboxylic acid.
42 51. (a) These compounds are used in the manufacture of the
% of nitrogen = ´100 = 42.8%
98 following products. Cellulose nitrate- Gun powder,
Hence, ammonium cyanide contains maximum Potassium Sulphate- Fertiliser , Potassium salts of fatty
percentage of nitrogen by mass. acids- Soft soap, Calcium oxide- Glass.
39. (b) Nylon is a synthetic fibre which melts instead of 52. (b) Cement is manufactured with limestone, clay and
burning. These are also silk like threads. gypsum. These raw materials are extracted from the
40. (a) Carbon fibre are high strength, rigid fibres. These are quarry crushed to a very fine powder and then blended
used in spacecraft. These are corrosion resistant. in the correct proportions. This blended raw material is
Polyvinyl chloride is a theronoplastic i.e, becomes soft- called the ‘raw feed’ or ‘kiln feed’ and is heated in a
on heating. In it chlorine atom replaces H-atoms. rotary kiln where it reaches a temperature of about 1400
41. (c) Terylene is a polymer of ethylene glycol and terephthali C to 1500 C. In its simplest form, the rotary kiln is a tube
acid. up to 200 metres long and perhaps 6 metres in diameter,
with a long flame at one end. The raw feed enters the
NHOCH2—CH 2OH+NHOOC COOH kiln at the cool end and gradually passes down to the
hot end, then falls out of the kiln and cools down.
ethylene glycol terephthalic acid
53. (b) Cement is made up of calcium oxide, silicon dioxide,
aluminium tetra oxide and iron tetra oxide.
O O 54. (a) Soaps form surface films, reduce surface tension of
¾¾¾¾
– NH O
® — OH2C–CH2–O–C– C— solution and help in removing dirt and dust by
2
n emulsifying grease.
55. (c) Soaps are sodium salts of higher fatty acids such as
Due to the presence of ester linkage, terylene is also
palmitic, stearic, oleic etc.
called polyester fibre.
57. (a) Constituents of gun powder are–Potassium nitrate,
42. (d) The soap molecules form micelle around the dirt
particles prevents them from coming together and form charcoal and sulphur. Sulphur serves : as a fuel, lowers
aggregates, which form emulsion in water. The hand the ignition temperature and increases the rate of
rubbing or the agitation cause dispersion of the dirt combustion.
particles throughout the soapy water. These are washed 58. (a) Calcium Ammonium Nitrate (CAN) fertilizer is almost
away with water along with dust particles. In this way neutral and can be safely applied even to acid soils. Its
dirt are removed from the surface of the cloth. total nitrogen (N) content is higher and may vary from
43. (a) Potassium iodide and common salt combine to form a 25 to 28% N content. Half (12.5% N) of this total nitrogen
mixture is known as iodized salt. is in the ammonical form and rest half (12.5% N) in nitrate
44. (d) Among all the given options only Glass is an form. This is a good fertilizer applied in Agriculture.
amorphous solid. 60. (b) Producer gas, mixture of flammable gases (principally
45. (b) The composition of cement is GaO (lime) or limestone carbon monoxide and hydrogen) and non-flammable
62%, silica (SiO2) 22%, alumina (Al2O3) 7.5%, magnesia gases (mainly nitrogen and carbon dioxide) is made up
(MgO) 2.5%, etc. Thus, limestone is the major raw throughby the partial combustion of carbonaceous
material for cement. substances, usually coal, in an atmosphere of air and
46. (c) Glass is actually an elastic solid. steam.
H2O and aqueous NaOH can be differentiated with the 61. (c) The temperature of water at the bottom of a lake whose
help of red litmus. upper surface has frozen to ice would be around 4
47. (d) When concentrated H2SO4 spills on a surface, it should degree Celsius.
be immediately cleared by adding solid BaCl2, because 62. (b) A mineral acid is an acid derived from one or more
BaCl2 forms solid BaSO4 and HCl. inorganic compounds. Examples of mineral acids are
Hydrochloric acid, nitric acid, sulphuric acid phosphoric
48. (a) The major component used in the preparation of
acid, boric acid, and hydrofluoric acid.
different types of glasses is silica.
EBD_7348
79. (d) Two oxides of nitrogen are acid anhydrides; that is,
63. (d) Mass % = (mass of nitrogen) ´100 they react with water to form nitrogen-containing
(mass of fertiliser) oxyacids. Dinitrogen trioxide is the anhydride of
nitrous acid, HNO2, and dinitrogen pentoxide is the
1kg 100
Þ 20 = ´100 Þ x = = 5kg anhydride of nitric acid, HNO3.
x 20
80. (a) Sodium bicarbonate is a chemical compound with the
64. (c) CH3(CH2)12 COONa is most likely to be used as soap. formula NaHCO3.
A soap is the sodium salt (or potassium salt) of a long 81. (a) A fuel gas consisting mainly of carbon monoxide and
chain carboxylic acid (or fatty acid). hydrogen, made by passing steam over incandescent
65. (b) Nitrogen neither itself burns nor causes the splint to coke.
burn because Nitrogen is an inert gas and an inert gas 82. (b) Hexane do not give sooty flame as it is alkane and
does not undergo chemical reactions under a set of saturated compound where as Benzene, Naphthalene
given conditions. and Anthracene are aromatic and unsaturated so they
66. (c) Turpentine oil is made from the resin of certain pine give sooty flame.
trees. Turpentine oil in paints is used as a thinner. 84. (b) The chemical name of baking soda is NaHCO3 and as it
67. (a) Commercial black powder looks black because the little suggests it is made up of Sodium and bicarbonate ions.
lumps of the stuff are coated with graphite. In the 85. (d) Strong electrolyte is an ionic compound that
manufacturing process, the powder's mixed with water dissociates completely in water & conducts electricity.
or some other liquid binder, pressed into cakes and From the given options, only NaOH and HCl are strong
dried, then crushed and screened into powders of electrolytes and NaOH alone would form a basic
various particle size, larger particles producing a slower solution when dissolved in water. NaOH is a strong
burn. The graphite serves no chemical purpose, but it electrolyte. It is an alkali-a water soluble strong base.
lubricates the particles, and also makes the bulk powder 86. (a) The principal use of hydrofluoric acid is in etching
electrically conductive enough that it is unlikely to glass. Hydrofluoric (HF) acid, one of the strongest
initiate proceedings unexpectedly because of a static- inorganic acids, is used mainly for industrial purposes
electricity spark. (eg, glass etching, metal cleaning, electronics
68. (b) Gunpowder is a mixture of sulfur, charcoal, and manufacturing).
potassium nitrate (saltpeter). 87. (c) There are 6.022×1023 entities in 1 mole.Atomic mass
69. (c) Fixation is commonly achieved by treating the film or
of Carbon = 12 Atomic mass of Hydrogen = 1| Atomic
paper with a solution of thiosulfatesalt. Popular salts
mass of Oxygen = 16 Molecular mass = (6 × 12) + (12 ×
are sodium thiosulfate-commonly called hypo-and
1) + (4 × 16)= 72 + 12 + 64 = 148\ Mass percentage of
ammonium thiosulfate–commonly used in modern rapid
fixer formulae. carbon = 72/148 = 49% Mass percentage of hydrogen
70. (c) Sodium carbonate is also known as washing soda, soda = 12/148 = 8% Mass percentage of oxygen = 64/148 =
ash and soda crystals. 43%
71. (b) Permanent hardness of water is usually caused by the 88. (c) The chemical formula for washing soda is Sodium
presence of calcium sulfate and/or magnesium sulfates carbonate (Na2CO3). It is a salt of carbonic acid, a
in the water. chemical which produces a wide range of salts
72. (c) During the cement manufacturing process, upon the collectively known as carbonates.
cooling of clinker, a small amount of gypsum is 89. (d) Potassium Permanganate is a purplish colored
introduced during the final grinding process. Gypsum crystalline solid. It turns out, this chemical not just
is added to increase the "setting of cement". useful for making fires. Here are the 7 best uses for
73. (a) The main constituent of vinegar is acetic acid; the other Potassium permanganate:
constituents will depend on the nature of the raw (1) Purifying water
material that has undergone fermentation. (2) Creating an antiseptic solution
74. (b) White phosphorous when exposed to oxygen it get (3) As an anti-fungal treatment for the hands and feet
oxidized and produce light. (4) As a cholera disinfectant
76. (b) Both the statements are individually true but statement
(5) Treating canker sores
II is not the correct explanation of the statement I.
(6) Marking snow as an emergency signal.
77. (a) Red phosphorus is used in the safety matches because
(7) General disinfectant agent
it shows phosphorescence and cannot be converted
to white phosphorous on heating. 90. (a) Sodium chloride (NaCl) and water (H2O) solution is
called as brine solution. The brine use in electrolysis
78. (c) Endocrine disruptors are chemicals (Bisphenol A)
released from coffee mugs plastic water storage bottles, involves using an electric current to bring about a
that may interfere with the body's endocrine system chemical change and make new chemicals.
and produce adverse developmental, reproductive, 91. (b) The chemical formula of washing soda is
neurological, and immune effects in both humans and Na2CO3.10H2O, and its chemical name is Sodium
wildlife. Carbonate. It is also known as soda ash or soda
crystals.
92. (a) Bleaching powder is not used as a reduction agent in the element uranium, UO2, and UO3. It is also known
chemical industries. Reducing agent a substance that by the name uraninite. Pitchblende is used as a fuel in
tends to bring about reduction by being oxidized and nuclear power stations.
losing electrons. 99. (d) A synthetic detergent is the sodium salt of sulphonic
93. (a) The number of water molecules that share with two acid which has cleansing properties in water. It consists
of a long hydrocarbon chain which is hydrophobic
formula unit CaSO4 in plaster of paris one. The chemical
and a short ionic part which is hydrophilic. Examples:
formula of plaster of Paris is CaSO4.1/2H2O. CaSO4.1/
(i) Sodium lauryl sulphate and (ii) Sodium n-dodecyl
2H2O means that two formula units of CaSO4 shares sulphate.
one molecule of water. 100. (b) Clean fuel, is a Natural fuel, like compressed natural
94. (c) Syngas or synthesis gas is a mixture comprising of gas or liquefied petroleum gas, or a blend like gasohol.
carbon monoxide (CO), and hydrogen gas (H2). It also It produces less pollution than the alternatives and it
contains little percentage of carbon dioxide (CO2), N2,
is used as a substitute for fossil fuels. Examples of
char, ashes, tars, and oils. It is produced by gasification
of a biomass (carbon containing fuel) to a gaseous clean fuels include most types of ethanol, biodiesel,
product with heating value. natural gas, biogas, electricity, propane and hydrogen.
95. (a) Solid CO2 is known as Dry ice. It is used for storage of 101. (d) Binder refers to substances that hold the particles of
different heat sensitive materials like medicines and pigment together in paint.
biological samples. 102. (c) Organic acid is a type of organic compound that
96. (b) Ammonium sulfide solutions are used occasionally in typically has acidic properties. A common example of
photographic developing, to apply patina to bronze, organic acids are called carboxyl acids, which are
and in textile manufacturing. Also, due to its offensive generally known as weak acids and do not totally
smell, it is the active ingredient in a variety of pranks dissociate in a medium such as water, unlike with strong
including the common stink bomb. minerals.
97. (a) Gypsum is a soft sulfate mineral composed of calcium The simplest form of organic acids, such as acetic and
sulfate dihydrate, with th e chemical formula formic, are typically used in stimulation treatments
CaSO4.2H2O. It is widely mined and is used as a fertilizer against corrosion for gas and oil, since these are less
and as the main constituent in many forms of plaster, reactive compared to hydrochloric acid and other
blackboard chalk and wallboard.
strong acids.
98. (d) Pitchblende is a mineral comprised mainly of oxides of
EBD_7348
Acids, Bases and Salts,

Oxidation and Reduction 12
1. In surgery, metal pins are used for joining together broken which of the statements given above is/are correct?
bones. These metal pins remain uncorroded in the body. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
What is the material of these pins ? (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 [2008-II]
(a) Copper (b) Iron 8. Which one of the following is the correct order of oxidation
(c) Aluminium (d) Titanium [2006-II] number of Iodine(I) in I2, HI, HIO4 and ICI?
2. In a redox reaction, Na2S2O3 changes to Na2S4O6. What is (a) HIO4< HI < ICI < I2 (b) HI < I2 < ICI < HIO4
the equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 ? (c) I2< ICI< HIO4 < HI (d) ICI < HIO4< HI < I2
(a) Same as its molecular weight [2008-II]
(b) 1/2 × (its molecular weight) 9. Two elements gallium and oxygen combine to form a
(c) 1/3 × (its molecular weight) compound Ga2O3. Which among the following is the valency
(d) 1/4 × (its molecular weight) [2006-II] of gallium ? [2009-I]
3. What is the correct order of oxidation states of sulphur in (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
anions SO32 - , S2 O 42 - and S2 O62 - ?
10. Acid turns blue litmus red and base turns red litmus blue. A
(a) S2 O 42 - < SO32 - < S2 O62 - student tested a liquid with a red litmus paper which
remained red with no change. This shows that the liquid
(b) S2 O62 - < S2 O 24 - < SO32 - [2009-II]
(a) is not a base
(c) SO32 - < S2 O 24 - < S2 O62 -
(b) is not an acid
(d) S2 O 24 - < S2 O62 - < SO32 - [2007-II] (c) is neither an acid nor a base
(d) must be pure water
4. Which one of the following salts when dissolved in water
makes the solution basic? 11. Arrange the following bases in increasing order of their,
(a) Sodium chloride (b) Copper sulphate basic strength [2009-II]
(c) Ferric chloride (d) Sodium acetate [2007-II] 1. Sodium hydroxide
5. Which one of the following is correct? 2. Magnesium hydroxide
Due to continuous use of calcium superphosphates as 3. Aluminium hydroxide
fertilizer in soil, the pH of soil becomes 4. Ammonium hydroxide
(a) more than 7 (b) less than 7 Select the correct answer using the code given below
(c) equal to 7 (d) Cannot be predicted Codes:
[2007-II] A B C D
6. Which of the following salts are insoluble in water ? (a) 4 2 1 3
(a) Chlorides of Fe and Mn (b) 4 1 2 3
(b) Nitrates of Ag and Pb
(c) 4 3 2 1
(c) Carbonates of Pb and Cu
(d) 1 2 3 4
(d) Phosphates of Na and NH4 [2008-I]
12. The concentration of hydrochloric acid in a given solution
7. Consider the following:
is 10–8 M. What is the value of pH for this solution ?
The concentrat in of hydrogen ions in an aqueous solution
is expressed by its [2009-II]
1. pH 2. pOH (a) 7 (b) > 7 but not 14
3. pKa 4. pKw (c) < 7 (d) 14
Acids, Bases and Salts, Oxidation and Reduction G-107
13. Which one among the following is not a property of salt? 20. In oxidation
[2010-II] 1. Hydrogen is displaced from a substance.
(a) Salts have ordered packing arrangements called lattices 2. an electropositive element is added to or proportion of
(b) Salts have low melting points but high boiling points electropositive element increases in a substance.
(c) Salts are brittle [2011-II]
(d) Salts conduct electricity when dissolved in water or Select the correct answer using the code given below:
even in the molten state (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
14. Which among the following statements with regard to pH (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
scale is/are correct? [2010-II] 21. Which of the following statements regarding oxidation and
I. It is a logarithmic scale. reduction are correct?
II. The scale is limited to 0-14 because the ionic product 1. In oxidation, loss of electron takes place whereas in
of water is about 10–14 reduction, gain of electron takes place.
III. The lower the value of pH, the greater is the acidity of 2. In oxidation, gain of electron takes place whereas in
the solution. reduction, loss of electron takes place.
Select the correct answer using the code given below 3. Oxidizing agent decreases the oxidation number but
reducing agent increases the oxidation number.
(a) I and II only (b) I, II and III
4. Oxidizing agent increases the oxidation number but
(c) I and III only (d) II only
reducing agent reduces the oxidation number.
15. An oxidising agent is a substance which [2010-II]
[2012-I]
(a) increases the oxidation number of an element in a given
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
substance
Code :
(b) decreases the oxidation number of an element in a given
substance (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
(c) is oxidised itself in an oxidation reduction reaction
22. Sometimes, indigestion is caused by the secretion of too
(d) loses electrons in an oxidation-reduction reaction
much hydrochloric acid in the stomach. To ease the pain
16. Neutral water with pH about 7 becomes slightly acidic when
caused, a tablet can be taken that reacts to reduce the
aerated. This is because [2010-II]
amount of acid present. Which one among the following
(a) oxygen from air is dissolved in the water which makes would be inappropriate for a manufacturer to include as a
the water acidic major reactant in the tablet? [2012-I]
(b) dirt, which get contaminated with the water during (a) CaCO3 (b) MgCO3
aeration makes the water acidic (c) NaOH (d) Mg(OH)2
(c) ultraviolet radiation dissociates water molecules and 23. The following equation is an example of a redox reaction, in
makes water acidic which Cl2 is the oxidizing agent and FeBr3 is the reducing
(d) carbon-dioxide from air is dissolved agent :
17. In the reaction 4Fe+3O 2 ® 4Fe3+ + 6O 2 - [2010-II] 2FeBr3 (aq) + 3Cl2 (g) = 2FeCl 3(aq) + 3Br2 (1)
Which one among the following statements is incorrect for
Which of the following statements is incorrect? this redox reaction? [2012-I]
(a) It is a redox reaction (a) Oxidizing agents are themselves reduced
(b) Metallic iron acts as a reducing agent (b) Reducing agents gain or appear to gain electrons
(c) O2 acts as an oxidising agent (c) Reducing agents are themselves oxidized
(d) Metallic iron is reduced to Fe3+ (d) Oxidizing agents oxidize other substances
18. Human stomach produces acid ‘X’ which helps in digestion 24. Three elements Na, S and O combine to form a compound
of food. Acid ‘X’ is [2011-I] Na2SO3. What is the valency of S in this compound ?
(a) acetic acid (b) methanoic acid [2012-II]
(c) hydrochloric acid (d) citric acid (a) 2+ (b) 4+
19. Bases turn red litmus blue and acids turn blue litmus red. A (c) 6+ (d) 8+
student tested a liquid with a red litmus paper and it stayed 25. Which one among the following is the correct order of
red with no change. This shows that the liquid [2011-II] strength of acids ? [2012-II]
(a) must be pure water (a) H2SO4 > H3PO3 > CH3COOH
(b) must be an acid (b) H3PO3 > H2SO4 > CH3COOH
(c) is not a base (c) CH3COOH > H3PO3 > H2SO4
(d) is neither a base nor an acid (d) CH3COOH > H2SO4 > H3PO3
EBD_7348
26. In KMnO4 molecule, the oxidation states of the elements (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Potassium (K), Manganese (Mn) and Oxygen (O) are (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
respectively [2012-II] 32. Statement I: Very little hydrogen is produced when sulphuric
(a) +1, +5, – 2 (b) +1, +7, – 2 acid is added to calcium.
(c) 0, 0, 0 (d) +1, +7, 0 Statement II: The salt that is produced, calcium sulphate, is
27. Which one among the following is an electrochemical cell insoluble.
that cannot be charged ? [2012-II] 33. The pH of the solution obtained by dissolving pure sodium
(a) Electrolytic cell (b) Storage cell chloride in water is [2013-II]
(c) Primary cell (d) Fuel cell (a) acidic
28. The pH of fresh milk is 6. When it turns sour, the pH (b) basic
[2013-I] (c) neutral
(a) becomes < 6 (d) dependent on the amount of sodium chloride dissolved
(b) remains the same i.e., 6 in water
(c) becomes > 6 34. Turmeric (Haldi) rapidly becomes colourless on addition of
(d) becomes neutral, i.e., 7 [2013-II]
29. The following questions consist of two statements, one (a) Baking soda (b) Vinegar
labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other as 'Reason (R), (c) Lemon juice (d) Alcohol
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select 35. Which of the following is/are amphoteric? [2014-I]
the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Al(OH)3 (s) and Fe(OH)3 (s)
Assertion (A) : Most coloured flowers when exposed to (b) Al(OH)3 (s) and HCO–3 (aq)
chlorine get bleached. [2006-I] (c) Ba(OH)2 (s) and NaOH (aq)
Reason (R) : HCl produced by the action of chlorine on (d) Al(OH)3 (s) only
water oxidises coloured matter to colourless compound. 36. Note the following balanced chemical equation: [2014-I]
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A 2CO + O2 2CO2
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the Which one of the following statements is significant in
correct explanation of A relation to the above chemical equation?
(c) A is true but R is false (a) One can add to a vessel only 2 mol of CO for each mol
(d) A is false but R is true of O2 added
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30-31) : This question consist of two (b) No matter how much of these two reagents are added
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine to a vessel, 1 mol of O2 is consumed
these two statements carefully and select the answer to these (c) When they react, CO reacts with O2 in a 2 : 1 mol ratio
items using the codes given below. (d) When 2 mol of CO and 1 mol of O2 are placed in a
vessel, they will react to give 1 mol of CO2
(a) Both the statements individually true and Statement II is
37. What is the oxidizing agent in the following equation?
the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is HAsO2(aq) + Sn2+ (aq) + H+ (aq) ® As (s) + Sn4+ (aq) + H2O (l)
not correct explanation of Statement I. [2014-II]
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (a) HAsO2(aq) (b) Sn2+ (aq)
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (c) H+ (aq) (d) Sn4+ (aq)
30. Statement I : Metal ions are Lewis acids. 38. The burning sensation of bee sting can be stopped by
Statement II : Metal ions are electron pair acceptors. rubbing the affected area with soap. This is because
[2011-II] [2014-II]
31. Statement I : After cutting an apple or a banana, the colour (a) a bee sting is acidic and soap, an alkali, neutralizes it
of the cut surface becomes brown. (b) a bee sting is alkaline and soap, an acid, neutralizes it
Statement II : Polyphenolic compounds present in fruits (c) soap cleans the affected area and removes the sting
get oxidized in air and show colour. [2012-I] (d) soap acts as an anesthetic and dulls the sensation
39. Which of the following element combinations will form ionic
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 32-33) : The following 02 (Two) items consist
compounds? [2014-II]
of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these 1. Ca (Z = 20) and Ti (Z = 22)
items using the code given below. 2. Si (Z = 14) and Br (Z = 35)
3. Mg (Z = 12) and Cl (Z = 17)
[2013-II] Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Code: (a) 2 only (b) 3 only
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
the correct explanation of Statement I
not correct explanation of Statement I the code given below the Lists : [2015-I]
List I List II 48. Which of the following properties is true for a tooth paste?
(Compound) (Nature) [2018-I]
A. Sodium hydroxide 1. Strong acid (a) It is acidic
B. Calcium oxide 2. Alkali (b) It is neutral
C. Acetic acid 3. Weak acid (c) It is basic
D. Hydrochloric acid 4. Base (d) It is made up of Calcium phosphate, the material of
Code: tooth enamel
A B C D 49. Which one of the following gives the highest amount of
(a) 2 3 4 1 hydrogen ions (H+)? [2018-I]
(a) Sodium hydroxide solution
(b) 2 4 3 1
(b) Milk of magnesia
(c) 1 4 3 2
(c) Lemon juice
(d) 1 3 4 2
(d) Gastric juice
41. The cleaning action of soap and detergent in water is due to
the formation of [2015-I] 50. Which one of the following reactions will give NO (nitric
(a) Micelle (b) Salt oxide) gas as one of the products? [2018-II]
(c) Base (d) Acid (a) 3 Cu + 8HNO3 (dilute)®
42. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule: [2015-II] (b) Cu + 4HNO3 (conc.)®
(a) accepts OH– from water releasing proton
(b) combines with proton from water molecule (c) 4Zn + 10HNO3 (dilute)®
(c) contains replaceable H+ ion (d) Zn + 4HNO3 (conc.)®
(d) gives up a proton 51. Which one of the following is a tribasic acid? [2018-II]
43. Which one of the following is a reduction reaction? (a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Nitric acid
[2016-I]
(c) Sulphuric acid (d) Phosphoric acid
(a) 2 Mg(s) + O 2 (g) ¾¾
® 2 MgO (s) 52. The solution of which one of the following will have pH less
than 7? [2018-II]
(b) S(s) + O2 (g) ¾¾
® SO 2 (g)
(a) NaOH (b) KCl
heat
(c) 2 HgO (s) ¾¾¾ ® 2 Hg (l ) + O 2 (g) (c) FeCl3 (d) NaCl
(d) Mg (s) + S(s) ¾¾ ® MgS(s) 53. Which one of the followings an oxidation-reduction reaction?
44. Suppose you have four test tubes labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, [2018-II]
and ‘D’. ‘A’ contains plain water, ‘B’ contains solution of an (a) NaOH + HCl ® NaCl + H 2O
alkali, ‘C’ contains solution of an acid, and ‘D’ contains
solution of sodium chloride. Which one of these solutions (b) CaO + H 2 O ® Ca ( OH ) 2
will turn phenolphthalein solution pink? [2016-I]
(a) Solution ‘A’ (b) Solution ‘B’ (c) 2Mg + O 2 ® 2MgO
(c) Solution ‘C’ (d) Solution ‘D’
45. Which one of the following elements will not react with (d) Na 2SO4 + BaCl2 ® BaSO 4 + 2NaCl
dilute HCl to produce H2? [2016-I] 54. In which of the following pairs are the ions isoelectronic ?
(a) Hg (b) Al [2019-I]
(c) Mg (d) Fe (a) Mg2+, Ar (b) Na+, O2–
46. Which one of the following is a cause of acid rains? (c) A13+, Cl– (d) K+, Ne
[2017-II] 55. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for
(a) Ozone (b) Ammonia the given reaction ? [2019-I]
(c) Sulphur dioxide (d) Carbon monoxide Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) ® FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
47. The desirable range of pH for drinking water is (a) Iron is the reducing agent
[2017-II]
(b) The solution turns green in colour after the reaction
(a) 6.5 to 8.5 (b) 5.0 to 6.5
(c) Copper is a more reactive metal than iron
(c) 6.5 to 7.0 (d) 7.0 to 8.5
(d) The reaction is an example of a redox reaction
ANSWER KEY
1 (d) 6 (c) 11 (c) 16 (d) 21 (d) 26 (b) 31 (a) 36 (c) 41 (a) 46 (c) 51 (d)
2 (a) 7 (a) 12 (c) 17 (d) 22 (c) 27 (c) 32 (a) 37 (a) 42 (a) 47 (a) 52 (c)
3 (a) 8 (b) 13 (b) 18 (c) 23 (b) 28 (a) 33 (c) 38 (a) 43 (c) 48 (c) 53 (c)
4 (d) 9 (c) 14 (b) 19 (a) 24 (b) 29 (c) 34 (c) 39 (b) 44 (b) 49 (d) 54 (b)
5 (b) 10 (d) 15 (a) 20 (c) 25 (a) 30 (a) 35 (d) 40 (b) 45 (a) 50 (a) 55 (c)
EBD_7348
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (d) Ti metal is important for its strength, low density and = 11 × 10–8 + 10–8 = 11 × 10–8
corrosion resistance. It has bitter corrosion resistance Now p4 = – log [H+]
and less reactivity than aluminium. Hence, Titanium = – log 11 × 10–8 = 8 – log11 = 6.95
pins remains uncorroded in the body. 13. (b) Salts are ionic compounds in which the constituent
2. (a) In redox reaction, ions have a fixed position ie, arranged in a definite
2– 2– geometric pattern. They are brittle (ie, can be broken
2S2O3 S4O6
– 2e – into pieces) and can conduct electricity in aqueous
Oxidation solution or in the molten state. Being ionic, they have
Molecular mass high melting and boiling points.
Equivalent weight = 14. (b) pH is the negative logarithm of the reciprocal of H+ ion
No. of e – gained of 1 mole
concentration of a solution.
= Molecular mass pH = – log [H+]
2+ The pH range is taken to 0 to 14 and the acidity of the
H H solution increases with decrease in the value of pH.
H O O H H O O 15. (a) An oxidising agent is a substance
Cu
O
S (i) which oxidises some other species and is itself
H reduced
H O O H O O
(ii) which gains one or more electrons ie, as electron-
H H acceptor.
CuSO 4 .5H 2O
16. (d) During aeration carbon dioxide present in air dissolves
4. (d) Sodium acetate when dissolved in water from sodium in neutral water having pH = 7 and thus, the water
hydroxide (strong base) and acetic acid (weak acid) so becomes slightly acidic due to the formation of weak
the solution is basic in nature. carbonic acid (H2CO3).
5. (b) The pH of soil become acidic i.e. less than 7. º º
6. (c) Carbonates of lead and copper are insoluble in water. 17. (d) 4 Fe + 3O2 ® 4Fe3+ + 6O 2 -
8. (b) Oxidation of Iodinine in the give spicies are This reaction is a redox reaction. In this reaction metallic
o –1 +1 +7 Fe is oxidised to Fe3+ and O2 is reduced to O2–.
I2 , H I , I Cl , H I O4 18. (c) Hydrochloric acid secreted by oxyntic cell activates
Hence the correct order is proenzyme pepsinogen to pepsin and also provides
the acidic pH optimal for pepsins.
HI < I2 < ICl < HIO4
19. (a) A pure water has pH = 7 ie. neutral. Thus has no effect
9. (c) Formula of any compound can be formed by on litmus.
Interchanging the valencies of cation and anion and
20. (c) Oxidation is process which shows addition of oxygen
then written as subscript. i.e
or any other electropositive element, or removal of
Ga O hydrogen or any other electronegative element.
Ga3O2
+3 –2 21. (d) Oxidation and reduction are two types of chemical
hence the valency of Gallium is + 3. reactions that often work together. Oxidation and
10. (d) Pure water is neutral i.e neither acidic hor basic hence reduction reactions involve an exchange of electrons
does not show change colour of litmus. between reactants. Oxidation and reduction reactions
are common when working with acids and bases and
11. (c) The increasing order of the base strength of the given
other electrochemical processes.
bases is.
22. (c) Calcium carbonate, magnesium carbonate and
NH 4OH < Al(OH)3 < Mg(OH) 2 < NaOH magnesium hydroxide are important chemicals used in
Sod.
Amm.hydroxide Alu.hydroxide magnesium
hydroxide hydroxide the making of antacids to reduce indigestion.
23. (b) Here the reducing agent FeBr 3 gets oxidized and turns
12. (c) Given [H+] = 10–8 M into aqueous solution of FeCl3.
\ p4 should be 8 but the p4 an acid cannot be greater 24. (b) Valency of S in this compound is 4+
than 7 hence the correct answer will be < 7. 25. (a) H2SO4 > H3PO3 > CH3COOH
Note : Mathametically it can be calculated as. 26. (b) Oxidation is any chemical reaction that involves the
[H+] total = [H+]water + [H+] acid moving of electrons. Specifically, it means the side
= 10–7 + 10–8 = 10 × 10–8 10–8 that gives away electrons.
27. (c) Attempts to extend the life of primary cells, for example 40. (b) Sodium hydroxide is an alkali hydroxide. Calcium oxide
by recharging alkaline batteries, meet with variable is a base. Acetic acid is a weak acid and hydrochloric
results. Third-party devices are manufactured and acid is a strong acid.
represented as being able to recharge primary cells. 41. (a) A spherical aggregate of soap molecules in the soap
The internal chemical reactions of a primary cell are not solution in water is called micelle. When soap is
easily reversed by externally applied currents, so dissolved in water, it forms a colloidal suspension in
reactants do not entirely return to their initial state and which the soap molecules cluster together to form
location. Recharged primary cells will not have the life spherical micelles.
or performance of secondary cells. Primary cell 42. (a) Boric acid, also called hydrogen borate, is a week
manufacturers often warn against recharging. monobasic acid which accepts OH from water releasing
28. (a) As will get acidic hence the pH will decrease. i.e pH will proton.
be less than 6. 43. (c) Mercuric oxides got reduced to mercury and its
oxidation number changes from +2 to 0. Whereas in
29. (c) In presence of moisture, chlorine acts as an oxidising
other reaction are showing oxidation reaction.
and bleaching agent. Chlorine reacts with water
46. (c) Acid rain is caused by a chemical reaction that begins
forming HCl, nascent oxygen which changed coloured
when compounds like sulfur dioxide and nitrogen
matter to colourless matter.
oxides are released into the air.
Cl2 + H2O ® 2HCl + O
47. (a) The pH of pure water is 7. The normal range for pH in
Coloured matter + Nascent oxygen surface water systems is 6.5 to 8.5, and the pH range
® Colourless matter
for groundwater systems is between 6 to 8.5.
30. (a) All simple metal ions e.g. Na+, Ag+, Cu2+, Al3+, Fe3+ etc
48. (c) Properties of tooth paste is basic. Toothpaste is a paste
are Lewis acids as they can combine with electron pair
used as an accessory to clean and maintain health of
+
e.g. Ag + 2 : NH3 ® ( H3 N : Ag : NH3 )
+
teeth.
31. (a) Polyphenols are secondary metabolites of plants and 49. (d) Gastric juice gives the highest amount of the hydrogen
are generally involved in defense against ultraviolet ions. Gastric juice is responsible for breaking down
radiation or aggression by pathogens. Polyphenols are foods you eat so digestion can continue in the small
naturally occurring compounds found largely in the intestine.
fruits, vegetables, cereals and beverages. Fruits like 50. (a) Dilute nitric acid reacts with copper to release nitric
grapes, apple, pear, cherries and berries contains up to oxide.
200-300 mg polyphenols per 100 grams fresh weight. 3Cu(s) + 8HNO3(aq) ¾® 3Cu(NO3)2(aq)
32. (a) Both the statements are true. The chemical reaction + 2NO(g) + 4H2O(l)
can be expressed as: 51. (d) A tribasic acid has three replaceable hydrogen atoms
to donate to a base during an acid-base reaction.
Ca(s) + H 2 SO 4 (aq) ¾¾
® CaSO 4 + H 2 Phosphoric acid is a tribasic acid.
SulphuricAcid Insoluble
(calcium sulphate)
Hydrogen
52. (c) FeCl3 is an acid salt because Fe (OH)3 is weak base and
HCl is a strong acid. pH is less than 7.
33. (c) The common salt (NaCl) is netural in nature so, it 53. (c) An oxidation-reduction (redox) reaction is a type of
doesn’t change the pH. chemical reaction that involves a transfer of electrons
34. (c) Turmeric (Haldi) rapidly becomes colourless on between two species. An oxidation-reduction reaction
adulation of lemon juice. is any chemical reaction in which the oxidation number
36. (c) This is according to law if definite proportions. In this of a molecule, atom, or ion changes by gaining or losing
reaction, CO reacts with O2 in 2:1 mol ratio.Option (c) is an electron.
the correct answer. 54. (b) Isoelectronic refers to two atoms, ions or molecules
37. (a) In the given reaction, HAsO2 (aq) is the oxidising agent that have the same electronic structure and the same
since the oxidation number of As decreases from + 3 number of valence electrons. Isoelectronic ions are
to 0. ions that have the same number of electrons. There
38. (a) The burning sensation of a beesting can be stopped are many ions that are isoelectronic. Examples of
by rubbing the affected area with soap because a bee Isoelectronic Ions and Elements: He, Li+, He, Be2+, Ar,
sting is acidic and soap is an alkali. That is why it S2–, Na+, Mg2+.
neutralizes the acid injected by bee sting in to a 55. (c) Copper is not more reactive than iron. Cu +FeSO4–
person's skin. Cu+FeSO4
39. (b) An ionic bond is formed when one of the atoms can As you can see, copper does not displace iron from its
donate electrons to achieve the inert gas electron solution since it is less reactive than iron. A more
configuration, and the other atom need electron to reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its
achieve the inert gas electron configuration. Ionic bond solution.
is formed between metals and non-metals.
EBD_7348
BIOLOGY
Botany 13
1. Which one of the following is a fungus ? 11. Which one of the following types of plants produces spores
(a) Agaricus (b) Funaria and embryo, but without seeds and vascular tissues?
(c) Rhizobium (d) Spirogyra [2006-I] (a) Gymnosperms (b) Pteridophytes
2. The oxygen released during photosynthesis of green plants. (c) Bryophytes (d) Angiosperms [2007-I]
comes from the breakdown of which one of the following ?
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Fatty acids
1. Brinjal is a good source of iron.
(c) Carbohydrates (d) Water [2006-I] 2. Pumpkin is a good source of vitamin A.
3. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Beans are richer source of proteins than potatoes. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Apples are richer source of carbohydrates than (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2007-I]
bananas. 13. In a living cell, what is the site of ribosome formation?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) Golgi bodies (b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Plasma membrane (d) Nucleolus [2007-I]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2006-I] 14. Who are the first time saw bacteria through a microscope
4. Which one of the following causes the disease Syphilis ? made by himself ?
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungus (a) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
(c) Protozoan (d) Virus [2006-I] (b) Louis Pasteur
5. Which one of the following contains powerful oxidative (c) Robert Hooke
enzymes and helps in removing toxic substances from cells? (d) Robert Virchow [2007-II]
(a) Plastids (b) Lysosomes 15. Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular
(c) Dictyosomes (d) Peroxisomes [2006-II] respiration?
6. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Dictyosomes (b) Endoplasmic reticula
(c) Lysosomes (d) Mitochondria [2007-II]
(a) Funaria : Bryophyta (b) Chlorella : Pteridophyte
16. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(c) Spirogyra : Algae (d) Cycas : Gymnosperm
A seed is a ripened
[2006-II] (a) ovary (b) flower
7. Consider the following statements : (c) gynoecium (d) ovule [2007-II]
1. In algae, the reproductive organs are single-celled. 17. Who of the following invented the cotton gin that separates
2. Fern plants lack true vascular system. the seeds from cotton three hundred times faster than by
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? hand?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Eli Whitney (b) George Stephenson
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2006-II] (c) McAdam (d) James Watt [2007-II]
8. In plants, which one of the following tissues is dead ? 18. Which one of the following cell organelles is responsible
(a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma for cellular respiration ?
(c) Sclerenchyma (d) Phloem [2006-II] (a) Endoplasmic reticulum (b) Golgi body
9. Which one of the following is considered as a cell within a (c) Lysosomer (d) Mitochondrium [2008-I]
cell ? 19. Consider the following statements :
(a) Ribosome (b) Chloroplast In fern plants,
(c) Lysosome (d) Golgi complex [2007-I] 1. vascular system is absence.
10. Which one of the following is the principal structural 2. reproductive organs are multi-cellular.
element of a living cell ? Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Carbon (d) Nitrogen [2007-I] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2008-I]
Botany G-113
20. Consider the following plants : 31. Which part of saffron plant is used to obtain the spice
1. Jasmine 2. Sugarcane ‘saffron’ ? [2009-II]
3. Turmeric (a) Dry stigma (b) Leaves
Which of the above is / are propagated by vegetative (c) Fruits (d) Petals
method ? 32. To which one of the following types of organism do
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 mushrooms belong? [2010-I]
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 [2008-I] (a) Algae (b) Ferns
21. Which one of the following diseases is caused by bacteria? (c) Fungi (d) Lichens
(a) Chicken Pox (b) Poliomyelitis
33. Which one among the following produces seeds but not
(c) Influenza (d) Tuberculosis [2008-I]
flowers? [2010-I]
22. The natural dye present in turmeric is known as [2009-I]
(a) Cashewnut (b) Coffee
(a) Cinnamin (b) Phenolphthalein
(c) Methyl orange (d) Curcumin (c) Groundnut (d) Pine
23. Which of the following organelles of a cell is/are involved 34. Which among the following is not a true fruit? [2010-I]
in photosynthesis ? [2009-I] (a) Apple (b) Date
(a) Chloroplast (c) Grape (d) Plum
(b) Mitochondrion 35. When dried raisins are put in plain water, they swell up. If
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum put again in brine solution, they shrivel up. This
(d) Golgi bodies phenomenon indicates the property of [2010-II]
24. Which one of the following processes takes place in lakes (a) diffusion (b) perfusion
during entrophication? [2009-I]
(c) osmosis (d) fusion
(a) Rapid destruction of algal growth
36. Which one among the following statements regarding cell
(b) Execessive availability of dissolved oxygen
is not correct? [2011-I]
(c) Loss of dissolved nutrients from water
(d) Excessive entry of nutrient into water (a) Shape and size of cells are related to specific function
25. Consider the following statements : [2009-I] (b) Some cells have changing shapes
1. Different plant species grow together. (c) Each cell has its own capacity to perform
2. Light cannot penetrate into the lower strata full of (d) Same type of cells are present in all body tissues
undergrowth. 37. Which one among the following Indian scientists proposed
Which of the following types of vegetation is characterised a theory for long distance transport of water in plants?
by the above ? [2011-I]
(a) Equatorial moist evergreen (a) JC Bose (b) Birbal Sahni
(b) Tropical deciduous (c) P Maheshwari (d) NS Parihar
(c) Mediterranean 38. Sandalwood tree is considered a [2011-I]
(d) Warm temperate broad leaved deciduous (a) total root parasite (b) total stem parasite
26. From which one of the following is the percentage of reflected (c) stem parasite (d) partial root parasite
amount of radiation highest? [2009-I] 39. The common edible mushroom is a [2011-II]
(a) Wet ground (b) Thick cloud (a) mass of fungal spores
(c) Forest (d) Snow cover (b) type of hypha
27. Which of the following crops would be preferred for sowing
(c) tightly packed mycelium
in order to enrich the soil with nitrogen ? [2009-II]
(d) structure used for producing asexual spores
(a) Wheat (b) Mustard
40. A biogeographic region with significant reservoir of
(c) Sunflower (d) Gram
28. Which of the following plants is referred to as a living biodiversity that is under threat from humans is called as
fossil ? [2009-II] [2011-II]
(a) Ephedra (b) Cycas (a) bioendangered region
(c) Ginkgo (d) Adiantum (b) biodiversity hotspot
29. Which one of the following vegetables is not obtained from (c) biodiversity reservoir
wild cabbage? [2009-II] (d) environmentally endangered region
(a) Lettuce (b) Broccoli 41. The main function of the inner bark of a woody plant is to
(c) Kale (d) Kohlrabi [2011-II]
30. Softening of mature ripe fruits is due to [2009-II] (a) transport minerals and water from the roots to the leaves
(a) dissolution of middle lamella (b) act as a membrane impermeable to water and gas
(b) degradation of primary wall (c) transport food from the leaves to the other parts of the
(c) delignification plant
(d) removal of suberin deposits in the cell wall (d) protect the plant from herbivorous animals
EBD_7348
42. Birds like Flamingos can stand on one leg. Which among 50. Which of the following statements about sexual
the following statements relating to this is/are correct? reproduction in flowering plants are correct ? [2013-I]
1. Stamen is present in the centre of a flower.
1. By standing on one leg Flamingos can conserve body
2. Stamen produces pollen grains in the ovary.
heat and energy because they can reduce great deal of 3. The swollen bottom part of carpel is the ovary.
surface area for the loss of heat. 4. The fusion of germ cells gives rise to zygote.
2. By standing on one leg, one Flamingo makes a Select the correct answer using the code given below.
courtship display, which is a part of ritual prior to (a) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only
reproduction. [2011-II] (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
51. Consider the following statements in relation to plant tissue
chlorenchyma : [2013-I]
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. It is formed by the palisade and spongy mesophyll.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. It is a form of parenchyma which contains chloroplasts.
43. Which one of the following processes of weathering 3. It serves to transport organic solutes made by photo-
belongs to both mechanical and chemical weathering? synthesis.
[2011-II] 4. It is a thin transparent layer which has chiefly a
(a) Crystallization (b) Exfoliation protective function.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) Hydration (d) Carbonation
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
44. With regard to animal breeding, which one among the 52. The next items consist of two statements, statement I and
following is not correct? [2011-II] statement II. You are to examine these two statements
(a) In-breeding: Mating of more closely related animals carefully and select the answers to these items using the
within the same breed for 1 – 2 generations code given below.
(b) Out- breeding : Breeding of unrelated animals of the Code :
same breed without common ancestors for 4 – 6 (a) Both the statements are individually true and statement
generations II is the correct explanation of statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but statement
(c) Cross- breeding: Superior males of one breed are mated
II is not the correct explanation of statement I
with superior females of another breed (c) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(d) Out- crossing: Offspring is called an ‘out-cross’ (d) Statement I is false but statement II is true
45. Which one among the following cell organelles is semi- Statement-I : Autotroph plants contain the pigment
permeable? [2011-II] chlorophyll for meeting their requirement of carbon and
(a) Cell membrane (b) Plasma membrane energy.
(c) Cell wall (d) Nucleus Statement-II : Photosynthesis is the process of converting
46. Which one among the following nutrients is a structural water into food using sunlight and oxygen. [2013-I]
component of the cell wall of plants? [2012-I] 53. From which part of turmeric, is the turmeric powder obtained?
[2013-II]
(a) Manganese (b) Potassium
(a) Dried rhizome (b) Dried root
(c) Phosphorus (d) Calcium
(c) Dried fruit (d) Seed
47. Certain parts of a plant can be bent easily without breaking. 54. Leaves of which of the following plants are not used for the
This flexibility in certain parts, like leaf and stem, can be rearing of silkworms? [2014-I]
attributed to the abundance of [2012-I] (a) Mulberry (b) Castor
(a) parenchyma (b) collenchyma (c) Oak (d) Teak
(c) sclerenchyma (d) xylem and phloem 55. Which of the following statements about vitamins are
48. Which of the following is not a micronutrient for a plant? correct? [2014-I]
1. Vitamin C is essential to make connective tissue in body.
[2012-I]
2. Vitamin D is needed for synthesis of eye pigment.
(a) Iron (b) Magnesium 3. Vitamin B12 helps in maturation of RBC.
(c) Molybdenum (d) Manganese 4. Vitamin C is required to make use of calcium absorbed
49. Cell membrane is selectively permeable because from the intestine.
(a) it is made up of selected organic molecules (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(b) it does not allow transport of some substances from (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
region of higher concentration to the region of lower DIRECTIONS (Qs. 56-58) : The following items consists of two
concentration statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine
(c) the movement of organic molecules occurs only at these two statements carefully and select the answers to these
specific concentration items using the code given below.
(d) it allows the movement of certain molecules in and out
[2014-II]
of the cell while the movement of other molecules is
Code:
prevented (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is
the correct explanation of Statement I.
Botany G-115
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is (c) Cotyledons
not the correct explanation of Statement I. (d) Zygotes
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 66. Which of the following are the characteristics of organic
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. farming ? [2015-I]
56. Statement I: 1. Use of chemical fertilizers to improve soil fertility.
Amoeba is a unicellular organism and the single cell 2. Frequent decomposing and fallowing.
performs all functions of a living organism. 3. Use of herbs to control pests.
Statement II: 4. Higher productivity per hectare.
Cell is the fundamental unit of living organism. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
57. Which one among the following is a plant hormone? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4
[2014-II] (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
(a) Insulin (b) Thyroxin 67. When heat rays are reflected from Earth, gases like Carbon
(c) Gibberellin (d) Estrogen dioxide, Nitrous oxide do not allow them to escape back to
58. Which of the following groups of plants can be used as the space causing our planet to heat up. These gases are
indicators of SO2 pollution of air? [2014-II] known as [2015-I]
(a) Ferns (b) Mentha (a) Noble gas (b) Green-house gas
(c) Lichens (d) Hornworts (c) Hot gas (d) Blue gas
DIRECTION(Q. 59): The following item consist of two 68. Precursor of which one of the following vitamins comes
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine from b-carotene ? [2015-I]
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C
items using the code given below : [2015-I] (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K
Code : 69. Who among the following discovered the antibiotic
producing fungus from Penicillium genus? [2015-II]
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement (a) Louis Pasteur
II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Sir Alexander Fleming
(c) Stanley Prusiner
(d) Robert Hooke
70. Which one of the following is not an example of eukaryotic
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is true
organism? [2015-II]
59. Statement I : Growth of plants is smooth with a complete
fertilizer. (a) Yeast (b) Bacteria
Statement II : A complete fertilizer always contains N, P, K. (c) Plant (d) Human being
60. Energy is required for maintenance of life. It is obtained by 71. Carbon and energy requirements of autotrophic organisms
a process called [2015-I] are fulfilled by: [2015-II]
(a) Metabolism (b) Phagocytosis (a) Photosynthesis (b) Gluconeogenesis
(c) Glycogenesis (d) External sources
(c) Photorespiration (d) Decomposition
72. Stung by hairs of nettle leaves causes burning pain. This is
61. All life forms contain "molecules of life". These are
due to the injection of [2017-I]
[2015-I]
(a) Acetic acid (b) Methanoic acid
(a) Carbohydrates (b) Proteins (c) Sulphuric acid (d) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Nucleic acids (d) All of these 73. Cell wall of any fungus is different from plants in having
62. Which one of the following is the smallest unit showing the [2017-I]
properties of life such as capacity for metabolism, response (a) cellulose (b) chitin
to the environment, growth and reproduction ? (c) cholesterol (d) glycogen
[2015-I] 74. Sugarcane is one of the important cash crops in India. It is
(a) Gene (b) Chromosome grown to obtain [2017-I]
(c) Nucleus (d) Cell (a) Starch (b) Glucose
63. In plants, which one of the following gases is released during (c) Fructose (d) Sucrose
Photosynthesis ? [2015-I] 75. The colourful part of the Sunflower or Marigold plant is
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Oxygen [2017-I]
(c) Hydrogen (d) Methane (a) Flower (b) Inflorescence
64. Gametophytes of sexually reproducing flowering plants are (c) Fruit (d) Seed
[2015-I] 76. The accidental touch of Nettle leaves creates a burning
(a) Haploid (b) Diploid sensation, which is due to inject of [2018-I]
(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Methanoic acid
(c) Tetraploid (d) Polyploid
(c) Citric acid (d) Sulphuric acid
65. The seeds of flowering plants are made up of [2015-I]
77. Which one of the following is an organelle that is NOT
(a) Ovary and ovary wall found in prokaryotic cells? [2018-I]
(b) Embryo, food reserves and coat
EBD_7348
(a) Cell wall 82. Damage to the apical meristem of a growing young plant will
(b) Mitochondria affect the [2018-II]
(c) Plasma membrane (a) length of the plant
(d) Ribosome
(b) colour of the flower
78. Which one of the following statements about classification
of plants is correct? [2018-I] (c) colour of the leaves
(a) Thallophytes have well differentiated body design (d) taste of the fruits
(b) Funaria is a fungus 83. Which of the following kingdoms has/have only unicellular
(c) All Pteridophytes are Phanerogams organisms? [2018-II]
(d) Vascular system is not found among Bryophytes
(a) Monera only
79. Which one of the following statements about meristematic
tissues in plants is correct? (b) Protista only
[2018-I] (c) Monera and Protista both
(a) These are dead tissues and form wood (d) Protista and Fungi both
(b) They provide flexibility to plant due to their thickened 84. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from
walls splitting of [2018-II]
(c) These are present in the bark of a tree only
(d) Growth occurs in plants due to division of cells of (a) water (b) carbon dioxide
these tissues (c) oxygen (d) light
80. Who among the following first discovered cell? 85. In one set of chromosomes for a given plant is represented
[2018-I] as N, in case of double fertilization, the zygote and the
(a) Robert Brown (b) Robert Hooke endosperm nucleus of a diploid plant would have how many
(c) Leeuwenhoek (d) Rudolf Virchow sets of chromosomes respectively? [2018-II]
DIRECTION (Q. 81) : The following item consist of two (a) N and 2N (b) 2N and 2N
statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two (c) N and 3N (d) 2N and 3N
statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code 86. Which one of the following cell organelles does NOT
given below. possess nucleic acid ? [2019-I]
[2018-II] (a) Nucleolus (b) Chloroplast
code: (c) Ribosome (d) Plasma Membrane
87. Which one of the following cell organelles does NOT
(a) Both the statements are individually true and State-
possess its own genetic material encoding proteins ?
ment II is the correct explanation of Statement I
[2019-I]
(b) Both the statements are individually true but State- (a) Ribosome (b) Nucleus
ment II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast
(c) Statement I is the true but Statement II is false 88. Which one of the following is NOT a component of
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true conducting tissue in plants ? [2019-I]
(a) Fibres (b) Tracheids
81. Statement I : Phytoplankton produce most of the organic
(c) Pericycle (d) Sieve tubes
carbon in the ocean.
89. Which one of the following organisms has vascular
Statement II : Algae are produced in the cold water biome. tissues? [2019-I]
(a) Cladophora (b) Penicillium
(c) Marsilea (d) Anabaena
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 10 (c) 19 (b) 28 (c) 37 (d) 46 (d) 55 (b) 64 (a) 73 (b) 82 (a)
2 (d) 11 (c) 20 (d) 29 (a) 38 (d) 47 (b) 56 (a) 65 (b) 74 (d) 83 (c)
3 (a) 12 (c) 21 (d) 30 (a) 39 (c) 48 (b) 57 (c) 66 (c) 75 (b) 84 (a)
4 (a) 13 (d) 22 (d) 31 (a) 40 (b) 49 (d) 58 (c) 67 (b) 76 (b) 85 (d)
5 (d) 14 (a) 23 (a) 32 (c) 41 (c) 50 (c) 59 (b) 68 (a) 77 (b) 86 (d)
6 (b) 15 (d) 24 (d) 33 (d) 42 (a) 51 (b) 60 (a) 69 (b) 78 (d) 87 (a)
7 (a) 16 (d) 25 (c) 34 (a) 43 (b) 52 (b) 61 (d) 70 (b) 79 (d) 88 (c)
8 (c) 17 (a) 26 (d) 35 (c) 44 (c) 53 (c) 62 (d) 71 (a) 80 (b) 89 (c)
9 (b) 18 (d) 27 (d) 36 (d) 45 (d) 54 (b) 63 (b) 72 (b) 81 (c)
Botany G-117
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (a) Agaricus is an edible, gilled fungus belonging to class moschata) is a good source of vitamin A which is
Basidiomycetes. It is commonly known as field essential for synthesis of visual pigment and against
mushroom or dhingir. infection.
2. (d) The oxygen released during photosynthesis of green 13. (d) Nucleolus receives the ribosomal proteins from the
plants comes from the breakdown of water i.e., cytoplasm, and the rRNAs and ribosomal proteins
photolysis of water during light phase of combine to form ribosomal subunits. So, it is also called
photosynthesis. ribosome producing machine or factory.
3. (a) Beans are highly rich in proteins, potatoes and bananas 14. (a) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek are first time saw bacteria
are carbohydrate rich. Banana provides an amount of through a microscope made by himself. He took samples
sugar, minerals and vitamins and some acids (mainly of plaque from his own teeth and mixed them with water.
malic acid). When he looked at the mixture through his microscope
4. (a) Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by a he saw what he called “many very little living
spirochaete (bacterium), Treponema pallidium. animalcules.” These were some of the first recorded
5. (d) Plastids are double membrane bound organelle observations of what today we would call bacteria.
containing chlorophyll for trapping power. Lysosomes Leeuwenhoek found that these were killed when he
contain hydrolytic enzymes which help in intracellular drank hot coffee.
and extracellular digestion. 15. (d) Mitochondria contain enzymes for cellular respiration.
6. (b) Cycas are naked seed plant, placed in Gymnosperm. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the
Spirogyra are algae which have chlorophyll, so make cell. They are organelles that act like a digestive system
their food. Funaria is Bryophyte rise in moist soils. which takes nutrients, breaks them down, and creates
Their body is differentiated into rhizoid, cauloid and energy for the cell. The process of creating cell energy
phylloid. Chlorella is a algae, rich in protein, fats and is known as cellular respiration. Most of the chemical
carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals. Chlorella purifies reactions involved in cellular respiration happen in the
the air in nuclear submarines, space vehicles. Astronaut mitochondria. A mitochondrion is shaped perfectly to
use this algae as food and moreover. maximize its efforts.
7. (a) Fern plants are related to pteriodphyta which have true 16. (d) A seed is an ripened ovule. The typically enlarged,
vascular system i.e. xylem and phloem present. Vessels bottom part of the pistil where ovules are produced.
are absent in xylem and campanion cells are absent in The egg-containing structures within the ovary that
phloem. develop into seeds.
8. (c) Sclerenchyma tissues are found in hard parts of plant 17. (a) Eli Whitney invented the cotton gin that separates the
body, in cortex, pith, hypodermis, in the pulp of fruits. seeds from cotton three hundred times faster than by
Young cells are living and they have protoplasm. But hand. American inventor, pioneer, mechanical engineer,
matured cells becomes dead due to deposition of and manufacturer Eli Whitney is best remembered as
secondary walls. They give mechanical support, the inventor of the cotton gin. Whitney saw that a
strength and rigidity to the plant body. machine to clean the seed from cotton could make the
South America prosperous and make its inventor rich.
9. (b) Chloroplast is considered as cell within a cell because
it contains its own DNA. Hence, it is a semiautonomous 18. (d) Mitochondria contain enzymes for cellular respiration.
organelle. It helps in photosynthesis. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the
cell. They are organelles that act like a digestive system
10. (c) Carbon is the principal structural element of a living
which takes nutrients, breaks them down, and creates
cell. C, N, O and H are the main elements of living cell
energy for the cell. The process of creating cell energy
and constitute about 98-99% of living substance i.e.,
is known as cellular respiration. Most of the chemical
of protoplasm.
reactions involved in cellular respiration happen in the
11. (c) Bryophytes includes simplest and primitive land plants. mitochondria. A mitochondrion is shaped perfectly to
They are called amphibians of plant kingdom. Its body maximize its efforts.
is differentiated into rhizoid, cauloid and phylloid. They
19. (b) In Ferns, vascular system is present and reproductive
produce spores and embryo but lack seeds and vascular
organs are multicellular. Most ferns are leafy plants
tissues.
that grow in moist areas under forest canopy. They are
12. (c) Both statements are true, Brinjal (Solanum melongena) “vascular plants” with well-developed internal vein
is a good source of iron and pumpkin (Cucurbita structures that promote the flow of water and nutrients.
EBD_7348
Unlike the other vascular plants, the flowering plants 28. (c) Ginkgo is a living fossil. Its ancestors are unchanged
and conifers, where the adult plant grows immediately for the last many hundred years. However its relatives
from the seed, ferns reproduce from spores and an have got extinct.
intermediate plant stage called a gametophyte. 29. (a) Lettuce is obtained from the leaves of Lactuca Sativa,
20. (d) Jasmine is propagated through stem cutting. Sugar while Broccoli, Kale and Kohlrabi are obtained from
cane propagation is through stem cuttings of immature wild cabbage.
canes 8-12 months old. These are called “setts”, “seed”, 30. (a) Softening of mature ripe fruits is due to dissolution of
“seed- cane” or “seed-pieces”. Turmeric is propagated middle lamella. Middle lamella acts as a cementing layer
through rhizome. between two cells, there by providing rigidity to cells.
21. (d) Tuberculosis (TB) is an infection caused by two Ethylene promotes maturation and ripening of fruits.
species of Mycobacteria - “Mycobacterium 31. (a) Dry stigma of safron plant is used to obtain the spice,
Tuberculosis and Mycobacterium Bovis”. Though, it Saffron.
can cause disease involving every organ system in the 32. (c) Mushroom is a fungi that belongs to class basidiomycetes.
body, it commonly affects the lungs. The disease was They are heterotrophic organisms.
in existence even in the Neolithic period and till the
33. (d) Pine belongs to class gymnosperm. The gymnosperms
early 20th century, the only treatment was rest in the
are plants in which ovules are not enclosed by any
open air in specialised sanitoria. Currently, around 1.7
ovary wall and remain exposed. Hence, they are naked
billion people world-wide, a third of the world’s
seeded plants. They produce microspores and
population, are infected by Mycobacterium
megaspores that are produced in microsporangia and
tuberculosis and 3 million deaths a year are attributable
megasporangia respectively borne on the sporophylls.
to tuberculosis.
These sporophylls forms male and female cones.
22. (d) Turmeric, the most popular spices of India, belongs to
34. (a) Apple is not a true fruit. It is a false fruit. A fruit is said
genus 'Curcuma' due to the presence of a yellow
to be false when it develops from the ovary along with
pigment 'Curcumin' which imparts yellow colour to it.
adjoining accessory floral parts like sepals, petals,
The chemical structure of 'curcumin' is
thalamus etc. Example, apple, fig etc.
O OH A true fruit is that fruit that develops from ovary part
H3CO OCH3 of the flower. Example, mango, maize etc.
35. (c) Diffusion of water across a semi permeable membrane
is called osmosis. Due to osmosis raisins when put in
HO OH plain water swells up whereas when put again in brine
23. (a) Chloroplast is a double membranous structure involved solution, they shrivel up.
in photosynthesis. Chloroplast has a green substance 36. (d) In general body of a multicellular organisms are made
called chlorophyll that can trap energy from the sun to up of different type of cells.
make food. 37. (d) NS Parihar
24. (d) Eutrophication is the natural ageing of a lake due to 38. (d) Sandalwood tree is a partial root parasite because roots
excessive entry of nutrients into water. The streams develop haustoria that make contact with roots of
draining into the lake introduce nutrients such as Dalbergia, Eucalyptus etc.
nitrogen and phosphorus that encourages the growth 39. (c) Common edible mushrooms are fruiting body of the
of algae at the surface of water or pond. The excessive fugus that bear fungal spores.
acummulation of algae at the surface of pond is called
40. (b) A biogeographic region with significant reservoir of
algae bloom. Later due to death of these algae, their
biodiversity that is under threat from humans is called
organic matter get decomposed due to which oxygen
as biodiversity hotspot.
gets depleted and thereby aquatic animals die. If these
activities keeps on occuring for a long time, then the 41. (c) Inner bark of a woody plant is phloem & function of
pond may have more organic matter and less water. phloem is to transport food from the leaves to the other
parts of the plant. Xylem is another transporting duct
25. (c) Mediterranean vegetation exists.
of plant that transport minerals & water from the roots
26. (d) Percentage of reflected amount of radiation is highest to the leaves.
in snow cover.
42. (a) Flamingos stand on one leg to conserve body heat &
27. (d) Gram would be preferred for sowing in order to enrich
energy. The courtship display of Flamingo includes
the soil with nitrogen. It is because gram is a
raising neck, followed by calling with head flagging &
leguminous crop. The root nodules of leguminous crop
then wing flapping.
contains Rhizobium, a symbiotic bacterium that helps
in fixing of nitrogen from atmosphere.
Botany G-119
43. (b) Exfoliation is a term used in geology, botany and flowering, sex expression, enzyme induction, and leaf
material sciences. and fruit senescence.
58. (c) Lichens can be used as environmental indicators as
44. (c) Outcross is used to describe a type of crossbreeding they are very sensitive to sulphur dioxide pollution.
used within a pure breed to increase the genetic Sulphur dioxide (SO2) is a gas which is produced when
diversity within the breed, particularly when there is a a material containing sulphur is burned. If the air is
need to avoid inbreeding. badly polluted with sulphur dioxide, there may be no
45. (d) Among the given example only nucleus is a cell lichens present. The most tolerant lichens are those
organelle and rest are not cell organelle therefore that are crusty in appearance whereas the leafy lichens
are not very pollutant tolerant.
nucleus is the correct answer.
59. (b) Complete fertilisers are usually defined as fertilizers
46. (d) Calcium activates enzymes, is a structural component containing all three macronutrients: nitrogen,
of cell walls, influences water movement in cells and is phosphorus and potassium (N, P, K)
necessary for cell growth and division. Some plants 60. (a) Metabolism refers to all the physical and chemical
must have calcium to take up nitrogen and other processes in the body that convert or use energy, such
minerals. Calcium is easily leached. Calcium, once as breathing, circulating blood, controlling body
temperature, food digestion etc.
deposited in plant tissue, is immobile (non-
61. (d) The basic types of molecules are carbohydrates, lipids,
translocatable) so there must be a constant supply for proteins and nucleic acids.
growth. Deficiency causes stunting of new growth in 62. (d) Cells are the smallest unit of life that can replicate
stems, flowers and roots. Symptoms range from independently, and are often called the “building blocks
distorted new growth to black spots on leaves and of life”
fruit. Yellow leaf margins may also appear. 63. (b) In photosynthesis, oxygen is also released as a waste
product.
47. (b) Collenchymas provides malleability and flexibility to
64. (a) The gametophyte is the multi-cellular structure (plant)
certain parts of the plants. that is haploid, containing a single set of chromosomes
48. (b) There are about seven nutrients essential to plant in each cell. The gametophyte produces male or female
growth and health that are only needed in very small gametes (or both) by a process of cell division called
quantities. These are manganese, boron, copper, iron, mitosis.
chlorine, molybdenum, and zinc. Though these are 65. (b) Seeds are the package of food. It contains embryo and
present in only small quantities, they are all necessary. is covered with a coat.
66. (c) In organic farming, weed and pest control is based on
49. (d) Cell membrane is partially permeable. methods like crop rotation, biological diversity, natural
50. (c) Stamen produces pollen grains in the anther which is a predators, organic manures and suitable chemical,
bilobed structure and placed terminally. Mammalian thermal and biological intervention.
germ cells give rise to spermatozoa and ova which fuse 67. (b) A greenhouse gas (sometimes abbreviated GHG) is a
gas in an atmosphere that absorbs and emits radiation
during fertilisation to produce a cell called a xygote,
within the thermal infrared range. This process is the
which develops into an embryo. fundamental cause of the greenhouse effect. The
51. (b) Parenchyma containing chloroplasts are called primary greenhouse gases in the Earth's atmosphere
chlorenchyma and is found in green leaves and some are water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous
green aerial organs. The cells of chlorenchyma tissues oxide, and ozone.
68. (a) The human body converts beta-carotene into vitamin
contain chloroplast and hence perform the function of
A (retinol) - beta-carotene is a precursor of vitamin A.
photosynthesis. It provides mechanical strength and 69. (b) First antibiotic was obtained from genus Penicillium
flexibility to the plant. discovered by Sir Alexander Fleming.
70. (b) Yeast plant and human being all are eukaryotic, only
d
53. (c) sin (sin x) = cos (sin x). cos x bacteria is a prokaryotic.
dx 71. (a) Photosynthesis is a process in which carbon is taken
54. (b) Castor plants are not used for rearing of silkworms. from the atmosphere is taken in form of carbon di oxide.
Castor oil has many uses in medicine and other Energy is also synthesized in light reaction is
applications. subsequent steps.
56. (a) Amoeba is a unicellular organism and the single cell 72. (b) Stung by hairs of nettle leaves causes burning pain.
performs all functions of a living organism because This is due to the injection of methanoic acid.
Methanoic acid is the simplest carboxylic acid. It is
cell is the fundamental unit of living organism.
also known as Formic acid. It's molecular formula is
57. (c) Gibberellins are plant hormones that regulate growth
HCOOH or CH2O2. It occurs naturally in a variety of
and influence various developmental processes,
including stem elongation, germination, dormancy, sources, such as stinging ants, nettles, pine needles,
and sweat.
EBD_7348
73. (b) The cell wall of a fungus is made up of a three-part 81. (c) Phytoplanktons use the dissolved CO2 and convert it
matrix of chitin, glucans, and proteins. One of the main into different organic carbon metabolites. The rate, at
differences between plants and fungi is that fungi have which planktons consume carbon dioxide and convert
chitin as a component of their cell walls instead of it into sugars for producing tissue and energy, varies
cellulose. Both chitin and cellulose are comprised of enormously.
polysaccharide chains. Algae are not produced in the cold water biome.
74. (d) Sugarcane is generally grown to obtain sucrose. 82. (a) Damage to the apical meristem of a plant will affect the
75. (b) Marigolds are hardy, annual plants and are great plants upward growth of the plant since it is the apical
for cheering up any garden. Broadly, there are two meristem that is present in tip portion of shoot, roots
genuses which are referred to by the common name, and leaves.
Marigolds viz. Tagetes and Celandula. The colourful 83. (c) All single-celled or unicellular organisms are placed
part of Marigold is Inflorescences. These are clusters under either Monera or Protista
of flowers on a branch or a system of branches. They 84. (a) Oxygen is evolved during the photosynthesis by a
are categorized generally on the basis of the timing of process known as photolysis. During this process,
their flowering and by their arrangement on an axis. water molecules split to release oxygen.
76. (b) Nettle leaves are rich in vitamins A and C, potassium, 85. (d) In plant during double fertilization the zygote is diploid
manganese etc. The Accidental touch of nettle leaves (2n) and the endosperm is triploid (3n).
creates a burning sensation because it injects formic 86. (d) Plasma membranes are subcellular structures,
acid (also called called methanoic acid), acetylcholine approximately 10 nm thick, that form a protective
boundary around the cell as well as the cell’s
and histamine when it comes in contact.
organelles. It is also called the cell membrane. The
78. (d) Mosses and liverworts are lumped together as
plasma membrane consists of a lipid bilayer that is
bryophytes, plants lacking true vascular tissues, and semipermeable. The plasma membrane regulates the
sharing a number of other primitive traits. They also transport of materials entering and exiting the cell.
lack true stems, roots, or leaves, though they have 87. (a) The ribosome is a complex made of protein and RNA
cells that perform these general functions. and which adds up to numerous million Daltons in
Bryophytes do not have a true vascular system and size and assumes an important part in the course of
are unable to pull water and nutrients up from the decoding the genetic message reserved in the genome
ground at any significant distance. Lacking this into protein. In 1955, George E. Palade discovered
specialised system distinguishes bryophytes from ribosomes. Ribosomes can be found floating within
ferns and flowering plants. It is for this reason that the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic
they are considered to be rather primitive plants. reticulum.
79. (d) Meristematic tissues, or simply meristems, are tissues 88. (c) The pericycle is a cylinder of parenchyma or
sclerenchyma cells. The pericycle is located between
in which the cells remain forever young and divide
the endodermis and phloem in plant roots. The
actively throughout the life of the plant. Cells within
pericycle regulates the formation of lateral roots by
the meristematic tissues are self-renewing, so that each rapidly dividing near the xylem elements of the root.
time they divide, one cell remains identical to the parent Pericycle is not a component of conducting tissue in
while the other can specialize and become part of plants.
another plant structure. The meristematic tissue is 89. (c) Marsilea is a genus of approximately 65 species of
therefore self-sustaining. aquatic ferns of the family Marsileaceae. Marsilea has
80. (b) The cell was first discovered by Robert Hooke in 1665 vascular tissue. The species of Marsilea are generally
using a microscope. The first cell theory is credited to aqua-tic or amphibious in nature with their roots
the work of Theodor Schwann and Matthias Jakob embedded in mud or damp soil.
Schleiden in the 1830s.
Zoology
14
1. Which one of the following is the largest phylum in the 10. Which one of the following glands produces insulin in
animal kingdom ? human body ?
(a) Annelida (b) Arthopoda (a) Liver (b) Pancreas
(c) Chordata (d) Protozoa [2006-I] (c) Spleen (d) Pituitary [2006-II]
2. Consider the following diseases: 11. Which one of the following is a hereditary disease ?
(1) Hepatitis-B (2) Influenza (a) Cataract (b) Haemophilia
(3) Rabies (4) Scabies (c) Pellagra (d) Osteoporosis [2006-II]
Which of the above are caused by virus? 12. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only Cretinism is a human disorder which is due to the under
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 [2006-I] secretion of :
3. In human beings, the digestion of proteins starts in which (a) Adrenalin hormone (b) Cortisone hormone
part of the alimentary canal? (c) Glucagon hormone (d) Thyroxin hormone
(a) Mouth (b) Stomach [2006-II]
(c) Doudenum (d) Ileum [2006-I] 13. A surge of which hormone stimulates ovulation in human
4. Which one of the following statements is correct? females?
The enzyme present in the saliva of human beings breaks (a) Luteinizing hormone
(a) starch into maltose (b) Estrogen
(c) Follicle stimulating hormone
(b) proteins into peptides
(d) Progesterone [2007-I]
(c) peptides into amino acids
14. Which one of the following carries out the function in human
(d) fats into fatty acids [2006-I]
beings similar to the one which Malpighian tubules perform
5. The involvement of which one of the following is essential in cockroaches and other insects?
in the control of blood sugar ?
(a) Lungs (b) Kidneys
(a) Adrenal (b) Pancreas
(c) Heart (d) Reproductive organs
(c) Parathyroid (d) Spleen [2006-I]
[2007-I]
6. During the anaerobic respiration that takes place in our
15. Lobsters belong to which one of the following classes of
muscles while doing rigorous exercise, what is the end
organisms?
product formed in the muscles ?
(a) Arachnids (b) Crustaceans
(a) Acetic acid (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Insects (d) Myriopods [2007-I]
(c) Ethanol (d) Lactic acid [2006-I]
16. Contaminated water can cause the following diseases except
7. Which among the following is the largest phylum in the which one of the following?
Animal Kingdom in respect to number of species ?
(a) Hepatitis A (b) Typhoid
(a) Annelida (b) Platyhelminthes
(c) Measles (d) Cholera [2007-I]
(c) Chordata (d) Arthropoda [2006-II] 17. Which one of the following diseases is caused by bacteria
8. Which one of the following enzymes is found in human saliva? and spreads through faecal matter by houseflies?
(a) Pepsin (b) Ptyalin (a) Pertussis (b) Typhoid
(c) Renin (d) Erepsin [2006-II] (c) Diphtheria (d) Chickenpox [2007-I]
9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched : 18. To which of the following types of animals are Salamanders
(a) Loop of Henle : Kidney closely related?
(b) Fallopian tube : Female reproductive system (a) Dolphins and Whales (b) Frogs and Toads
(c) Epididymis : Male reproductive system (c) Prawns and Crabs (d) Seals and Walruses
(d) Cowper's gland : Intestine [2006-II] [2007-II]
EBD_7348
19. Which one of the following is not a disease caused by virus? 34. All enzymes are
(a) Bird-flu (b) Chickenpox (a) Alkaloids (b) Proteins
(c) Cholera (d) Dengue [2007-II] (c) Carbohydrates (d) Lipids [2008-II]
20. In terms of the evolution of organisms, which one among 35. Which one of the following diseases is not caused by virus?
the following is the most advanced? (a) Chicken pox (b) Measles
(a) Bat (b) Pigeon (c) Poliomyelitis (d) Tetanus [2008-II]
(c) Shark (d) Vulture [2007-II] 36. A typical human ribcage consists of how many ribs?
21. Which one of the following is not a genetic disorder?
(a) 12 (b) 14
(a) Colour blindness (b) Down's syndrome
(c) 16 (d) 24 [2008-II]
(c) Haemophilia (d) Xerophthalmia [2007-II]
37. Beri-Beri is caused due to lack of which one of the following
22. Which one of the following is an enzyme? types of nutrients?
(a) Gastrin (b) Keratin (a) Fats (b) Water
(c) Trypsin (d) Vasopressin [2007-II] (c) Vitamins (d) Minerals [2008-II]
23. In human body, which one of the following secretes 38. Which of the following are the possible blood groups of the
hormones as well as digestive enzymes? offspring of the parents with blood group O and A B ?
(a) Oesophagus (b) Pancreas [2009-I]
(c) Spleen (d) Large intestine [2007-II] (a) O, A, B and A B (b) A and B
24. In human body, which one of the following store/stores (c) A, B and A B (d) O and AB
extra blood for release when shortages occur? 39. Among the given nutrients, milk is a poor source of
(a) Liver (b) Pancreas [2009-I]
(c) Spleen (d) Lymph nodes [2007-II] (a) Calcium (b) Protein
25. In which one of the following animals, is skin a respiratory (c) Carbohydrate (d) Vitamin C
organ ? 40. Which one of the following is not a mammal ? [2009-I]
(a) Cockroach (b) Frog (a) Dolphin (b) Shark
(c) Shark (d) Whale [2008-I] (c) Seal (d) Whale
26. In human body which one among the following is the largest 41. The wounds of face bleed profusely because [2009-I]
in size ? (a) of its rich vascularity
(a) Thyroid (b) Liver (b) it is close to the heart
(c) Pancreas (d) Spleen [2008-I] (c) its skin is soft
27. Which one of the following glands in human body is enlarge (d) of fast contraction of facial muscle
due to goiter ? 42. Oral Rehydration Therapy is recommended for patients
(a) Adrenal cortex (b) Adrenal medulla suffering from [2009-I]
(c) Pituitary (d) Thyroid [2008-I] (a) tuberculosis (b) typhoid
28. From the evolutionary point of view, which one among the (c) tetanus (d) cholera
following is the most primitive animal ? 43. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
(a) Dolphin (b) Otter the codes given below the lists: [2009-I]
(c) Turtle (d) Walrus [2008-I]
List I List II
29. Which one of the following insects spreads Kala-azar ?
(Disease) (Diagnosis)
(a) Fruit fly (b) Tsetse fly
A. AIDS 1. Widal Test
(c) Sand fly (d) Mosquito [2008-I]
B. Plague 2. Wayson Sta in Test
30. Which one among the following is blind ? C. Typhoid 3. ELISA Test
(a) Bat (b) Echidna 4. Mantoux Test
(c) Flying squirrel (d) Slow Loris [2008-I]
31. Due to accumulation of which one of the following, joggers Codes:
experience pain in their leg muscles after running? A B C A B C
(a) Lactic acid (b) Acetic acid (a) 4 3 2 (b) 3 2 1
(c) Malic acid (d) Citric acid [2008-II] (c) 1 2 3 (d) 3 2 4
32. Stem Cell Therapy (SCT) is not useful for the treatment of 44. Crocodiles store fats in [2009-I]
which one of the following ailments? (a) head (b) stomach
(a) Kidney failure (b) Cancer [2008-II] (c) tail (d) arteries
(c) Brain injury (d) Vision impairment 45. Release of which one of the following chemicals is
33. In which one of the following antibody formations takes responsible for causing fatigue after muscular activity in
place? human beings? [2009-II]
(a) RBCS (b) Blood Platelets [2008-II] (a) Glucuronic acid (b) Uric acid
(c) Blood Plasma cells (d) Donnan’s membrane (c) Pyruvic acid (d) Lactic acid
Zoology G-123
46. Jaundice in human beings is the result of [2009-II] DIRECTIONS (Qs . 57-60): The next four (04) items are based on
(a) incomplete metabolism of biliverdin the following Table :
(b) complete metabolism of biliverdin Match List I with List II, List III and List IV and select the correct
(c) incomplete metabolism of bilirubin answer using the code given below : [2010-II]
(d) complete metabolism of bilirubin
47. Which of the following regions/cells in the human body is List I List II List III List IV
involved in controlling blood sugar level ? [2009-II] (Body system ) (Organ) (Structure) (Function of the system)
1. Blood circulation A. Bone I. Alveoli i. Clot formation
(a) Pituitary gland (b) Islets of Langerhans 2. Excretory marrow
B. Thymus II. T-lymphocyteii. Perfusion of tissues
(c) Hypothalamus (d) Spleen 3. Alimentary C. Intestine III. Myocardium iii. Support and protect of body
48. The Haffkine Institute, Mumbai, is known for its work on 4. Skeletal D. Lung IV. Matrix frame
iv. Oxygenation
the production of [2009-II] 5. Blood E. Bone V. Nephron v. Filtration of body waste
(a) plague vaccine (b) leprosy vaccine 6. Respiratory F. Heart VI. Villi vi. Absorption of nutrients
(c) tetanus vaccine (d) polio vaccine 7. Neurological G. Kidney VII. Axon vii. Fighting infection and foreign
8. Immunological H. Neuron VIII. Platelets invasion
viii. Transmission of electrical
49. Which part of brain controls fine movement, maintains impulse
balance and equilibrium of the body and muscle tone in a
human being? [2010-I] 57. List I List II List III List IV
(a) Cerebrum (b) Thalamus (a) 1 A III ii
(c) Cerebellum (d) Hypothalamus (b) 7 B IV v
50. Leishmania, the causative agent of kala-azar, multiplies (c) 6 A III ii
asexually by [2010-I] (d) 2 B V v
(a) budding (b) binary fission 58. List I List II List III List IV
(c) multiple fission (d) sporogony (a) 3 C IV iii
51. Administering a vaccine provides protection by inducing (b) 1 D V iii
synthesis of antibodies (proteins) specific of the vaccine. (c) 2 C VII vi
The cell in the body responsible for the production of (d) 5 D IV vii
antibodies is [2010-I] 59. List I List II List III List IV
(a) granulocyte (a) 1 E I i
(b) lymphocyte (b) 2 F I iv
(c) erythrocyte (red blood cell) (c) 4 E IV iv
(d) platelet (d) 4 F II iv
52. Biological catalysts in living organisms are known as 60. List I List II List III List IV
[2010-I] (a) 8 B VIII i
(a) hormones (b) vitamins (b) 2 H II iv
(c) steroids (d) enzymes (c) 8 G VI vii
53. Among the following elements, which one is essential for (d) 1 H II vii
the transmission of impulses in the nerve fibre? [2010-I]
(a) Calcium (b) Iron 61. Consider the following statements regarding the recent
(c) Sodium (d) Zinc global outbreak of ‘Swine flu’ [2010-II]
54. Cure to spinal injury is likely to emerge from [2010-I] I. The agent of infection is not well identified
(a) gene therapy (b) stem cell therapy II. The risk is higher in those who consume pork
(c) xenograft (d) transfusion III. It has a propensity to spread from contact with an
infected person
55. Food wrapped in newspaper is likely to get contaminated
IV. Absence of an effective treatment or vaccine makes it
with [2010-I]
risk for a global pandemic
(a) lead (b) aluminium
(c) iron (d) magnesium
(a) I, II and IV (b) III and IV
56. Consider the following items. [2010-II]
(c) II and III (d) III only
I. Proteins, carbohydrates and fats
62. Which one among the following statements about stomach
II. Vitamins
is not correct? [2011-I]
IlI. Minerals
(a) Stomach acts as a temporary reservoir
IV. Water (b) Stomach mixes food with gastric juice
Which of the above are considered as the constituents of (c) Stomach secretes lipase and amylase in gastric juice
food ? (d) Rate of stomach emptying depends on the type of food
(a) I, II and IV only (b) I and III only 63. Which one of the following organs breaks down fat to
(c) II and III only (d) I, II, III and IV produce cholesterol? [2011-I]
EBD_7348
(a) Intestine (b) Liver 73. Carbohydrates are stored in plants and animals in the form
(c) Lungs (d) Kidneys of [2012-I]
64. An individual whose blood type is B may in an emergency (a) cellulose and glucose respectively
donate blood to a person whose blood type is [2011-I] (b) starch and glycogen respectively
(a) B or A (b) AB or A (c) starch and glucose respectively
(c) A or O (d) AB or B (d) cellulose and glycogen respectively
65. Which one among the following is the largest monkey? 74. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
[2011-II] 1. Ligaments are highly flexible.
(a) Spider monkey (b) Baboon 2. Ligaments connect muscles and bones.
(c) Gorilla (d) Howler monkey 3. Ligaments contain very little matrix. [2012-I]
66. A man was trapped in a room of a building which was up in Select the correct answer using the code given below :
flames. Fire- fighters had to break window panes which were
Code :
filled in smoke to take him out. Once the injured person is
out, he should be observed/ treated for [2011-II] (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) Superficial burn wound (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
(b) Electric burn wound 75. Which one among the following waterborne diseases is
(c) Respiratory burn not caused by a bacteria ? [2012-II]
(d) Internal organ injury (a) Cholera (b) Typhoid
67. AIDS is caused by Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV) (c) Bacillary dysentery (d) Hepatitis A
which is [2011-II] 76. The process of conventional earlobe piercing does not lead
(a) Retro virus (b) Lente virus to bleeding. This is because the [2012-II]
(c) Arbo virus (d) Immune virus (a) heart does not supply blood to earlobes
68. Which one among the following statements regarding heart (b) cartilage found in earlobe has lesser blood supply unlike
sound is correct? [2011-II] other body parts
(a) Heart sounds are caused by the internal blood flow (c) earlobes consist of dead non-dividing tissue
inside the heart (d) needle used for ear piercing is sterilized
(b) Heart sounds are caused by the external blood flow 77. After entering the human body through mosquito bite, the
outside the heart malarial parasite (plasmodium) shows initial multiplication in
(c) Heart sounds are caused by opening and closing of [2012-II]
heart valves (a) Spinal chord (b) Blood
(d) Normal sounds are called ‘murmurs’ (c) Liver (d) Spleen
69. Balanced diet should have approximately [2012-I] 78. Which one among the following parts of blood carries out
(a) 1/5 protein, 3/5 fat and 1/5 carbohydrate the function of body defence ? [2012-II]
(b) 3/5 protein, 1/5 fat and 1/5 carbohydrate (a) Platelets (b) White Blood Cells
(c) 1/5 protein, 1/5 fat and 3/5 carbohydrate (c) Haemoglobin (d) Red Blood Cells
(d) 1/2 protein, 1/4 fat and 1/4 carbohydrate 79. Which one among the following is not included in the major
70. Which one among the following statements is correct? clinical sign as a case definition of AIDS in children < 12
[2012-I] years of age ? [2012-II]
(a) All arteries carry oxygenated blood (a) Persistent cough for more than 1 month
(b) All veins carry oxygenated blood (b) Loss of weight
(c) Except the pulmonary artery, all other arteries carry (c) Chronic diarrhoea
oxygenated blood
(d) Prolonged fever
(d) Except the pulmonary vein, all other veins carry
80. Polio disease is caused by [2012-II]
oxygenated blood
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi
71. What are cold-blooded animals? [2012-I]
(a) Animals with blood without haemoglobin (c) Virus (d) Worm
(b) Animals who are not ferocious 81. Which one among the following is the hardest part of our
(c) Animals whose body temperature remains constant body ? [2012-II]
(d) Animals whose body temperature varies according to (a) Skull bones of head (b) Thumb nails
the temperature of atmosphere (c) Enamel of teeth (d) Spinal vertebra
72. Sickle-cell anemia is a disease caused due to the abnormality 82. Which of the following group is present in animal cells ?
in [2012-I] [2012-II]
(a) white blood cells (a) Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
(b) red blood cells (b) Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
(c) thrombocytes (c) Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
(d) blood plasma composition (d) Vacuole, Cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
Zoology G-125
83. Which one among the following statements is correct ? 3. It is important to maintain a constant water potential
In digestive system of living organisms [2012-II] inside the animal body.
(a) glucose is broken down into glycerol 4. In animal cells, water potential far exceeds the solute
(b) glucose is converted into glycogen potential.
(c) glucose is broken down into carbon dioxide and water Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) proteins are broken down into amino acids
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
84. The main thinking part of the brain is [2013-I]
(c) 4 only (d) 2 and 3
(a) midbrain (b) hypothalamus
(c) forebrain (d) hindbrain 92. The following question consist of two statements, one
85. Which one among the following hormones stimulates the labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other as 'Reason (R),
plant cells to grow in a manner such that the plant appears You are to examine these two statements carefully and select
to be bent towards light ? [2013-I] the answers to these items using the codes given below:
(a) Cytokinin (b) Auxin Assertion (A) : Though carbohydrates are covalent
(c) Gibberellin (d) Abscisic acid compounds, they are soluble in water.
86. The complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats Reason (R) : Compounds which form hydrogen bond with
occurs in [2013-I] water are generally soluble in water. [2006-II]
(a) stomach (b) liver (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
(c) small intestine (d) large intestine explanation of A
87. Which one among the following statements about a healthy
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the
diet is correct? [2013-I]
(a) Regular eating of high-energy snacks between meals
is healthy since it provides energy and vitamins in (c) A is true but R is false
plenty. (d) A is false but R is true
(b) Fruits and vegetables make a good choice because
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 93-96) : The next four (04) items consist of
their energy content is high.
(c) A balanced diet must contain plenty of fat and protein two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine
with little carbohydrates and fibre. these two statements carefully and select the answers to these
(d) An optimal quantity of fat, protein carbohydrate with items using the code given below.
adequate amount of water and fibre makes a healthy
Code :
diet.
(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is
88. The Nobel Prize in Medicine for the year 2012 has been
awarded to John B. Gurdon and Shinya Yamanaka for the the correct explanation of statement I
discovery that [2013-I] (b) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is
(a) mature specialized cells can be reprogrammed to become not the correct explanation of statement I
immature cells (c) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(b) stem cells can be programmed to develop individual (d) Statement I is false but statement II is true
body organs
93. Statement-I : Reproduction is the process by which living
(c) dendritic cells have a critical role in the development of
adaptive immunity organisms produce young ones of their species. There are
(d) thymus cells have a critical role in the development of different forms of reproduction.
innate immunity Statement-II : Sex organs, male and female, are mandatory
89. The sex of a newborn baby is determined by the chromosome for reproduction. [2010-II]
inherited from [2013-I] 94. Statement-I : Human beings have 23 pair of chromosomes,
(a) the mother (b) the father one of which is the sex chromosome and the remaining 22
(c) mother's mother (d) father's father autosomes. The X-linked diseases are related to mutations
90. Consider the following diseases : [2013-I] on a sex chromosome.
1. Cholera 2. Tuberculosis Statement-II : Colour blindness results from a mutation in
3. Filariasis 4. Typhoid
X-chromosome.
Which of the above diseases are caused by bacteria?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only 95. Statement I : Oxidation in our body cells releases dangerous
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 free radicals.
91. Consider the following statements regarding osmosis in Statement II : Our body itself produces antioxidants to
animal cells : [2013-I] neutralise harmful free radicals. [2011-I]
1. If the water potential of the solution surrounding the 96. Statement I : Red blood cells burst when placed in water.
cell is too high, the cell shrinks.
Statement II : Due to the phenomenon of osmosis water
2. If the water potential of the solution surrounding the
cell is too low, the cell swells and bursts. enters into red blood cells. [2012-II]
EBD_7348
97. Presbyopia is a visual defect caused by [2013-II] (a) Sucrose (b) Fructose
(a) Elongation of the eye ball. (c) Galactose (d) Maltose
(b) Shortened curvature of the eye lens. 109. What is ‘breakbone fever’ most commonly known as?
(c) Weakening of the ciliary muscles. [2014-I]
(d) Gradually increasing flexibility of the eye lens. (a) Typhoid (b) Rhinitis
98. Which one among the following animals does not undergo (c) Yellow fever (d) Dengue
periodic moulting of their external body covering? 110. The summer and winter seasons in a year are caused by
[2013-II] [2014-I]
(a) Cockroach (b) Cobra (a) aphelion (farthest) and perihelion (nearest) positions
(c) Earthworm (d) Dragonfly of the Earth from the Sun during the annual revolution
99. Which one among the following organs in humans is not (b) rotation of the Earth on its axis
involved in elicitation of immune response? [2013-II] (c) variation in solar insolation
(a) Thymus (b) Brain (d) revolution of the Earth on its inclined axis.
(c) Spleen (d) Lymph Nodes 111. After diagnosis of disease in a person, the doctor advises
100. Which one among the following substances is never the patient iron and folic acid tablets. The person is suffering
excreted out through urine under normal circumstances in from [2014-I]
any healthy individual? [2013-II] (a) osteoporosis
(a) Urea (b) Sodium (b) anaemia
(c) Amino acid (d) Potassium (c) goitre
101. Which one among the following animals gives birth to the (d) protein-energy malnutrition
biggest baby? [2013-II] 112. Dropsy is a disease caused due to adulteration in [2014-I]
(a) Elephant (b) Rhinoceros (a) ghee (b) arhar dal
(c) Blue whale (d) Hippopotamus (c) mustard oil (d) turmeric powder
102. Muscles of which one among the following body parts 113. Which one among the following groups is the most
contract slowly but can remain contracted for a longer time? abundant in terms of number of species identified? [2014-I]
[2013-II] (a) Fungi (b) Green plants
(a) Face (b) Arms (c) Bacteria (d) Insects
(c) Intestine (d) Legs 114. The site of cellular respiration in animal cell is [2014-I]
103. Solutions of three enzymes were prepared namely lipase, (a) ribosome (b) mitochondria
trypsin and amylase, in order to remove stains from a piece (c) endoplasmic reticulum (d) lysosome
of cloth. Out of these three enzyme solutions, only lipase 115. Growth and repair of damaged tissue involve [2014-II]
could completely remove the stain. This indicates that the (a) mitotic cell division only
stain was due to: [2013-II] (b) both mitotic and meiotic cells divisions
(a) Oil (c) meiotic cell division only
(b) Protein (d) amitotic cell division only
(c) Mixture of protein and oil 116. Which one of the following is not a function of liver?
(d) Starch containing plant pigment [2014-II]
104. Which one among the following diseases is not caused by (a) Conversion of glucose into glycogen
polluted water? [2013-II] (b) Production of urea
(a) Dysentery (b) Jaundice (c) Destruction of dead and worn-out red blood cells
(c) Typhoid (d) Tuberculosis (d) Absorption of food and excess water from the
105. Which one among the following animals is a mammal? undigested food
(a) Great Indian Bustard (b) Gharial 117. What one of the following is not a part of female
(c) Platypus (d) Hornbill reproductive system? [2014-II]
106. Bats can know about their prey at a distance even in the (a) Fallopian tube (b) Cervix
night by emitting [2013-II] (c) Urethra (d) Vagina
(a) infra-red lights. 118. Which one of the following animals is cold-blooded?
(b) ultraviolet lights. [2014-II]
(c) chemicals from their body. (a) Dolphin (b) Shark
(d) ultrasonic sounds. (c) Whale (d) Porpoise
107. Within an animal cell, the most abundant inorganic 119. Leprosy is caused by [2014-II]
constituent of protoplasm is [2014-I] (a) virus (b) bacteria
(a) sodium and potassium salt (c) protozoa (d) retrovirus
(b) water 120. Consider the following statements: [2014-II]
(c) iron 1. Carbohydrates are the only source of energy to
(d) phosphate humans.
108. In honey, which one among the following sugars 2. Fats give maximum energy on oxidation as compared
predominates? [2014-I] to other foods.
Zoology G-127
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. Workers are sterile and diploid.

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Queen develops from diploid larvae that fed on royal
121. Which endocrine gland requires iodine to synthesize a jelly.
particular hormone whose deficiency may cause goitre 4. Honey is collected/made by males.
disease ? [2015-I] Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Hypothalamus (b) Pancreas (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Thymus (d) Thyroid gland (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only
122. Which one of the following is not a part of nerves? 133. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
[2015-I] the code given below the Lists: [2016-I]
(a) Axons (b) Connective tissues List I List II
(c) Schwann cells (d) Smooth muscles (Molecule) (Product of digestion)
123. ‘Lub-dup’ sound is produced due to action of [2015-I] A. Proteins 1. Nitrogenous bases and
(a) Large intestine (b) Lungs pentose sugars
(c) Heart (d) Oesophagus B. Carbohydrates 2. Fatty acids and glycerol
124. Perspiration cools the body because [2015-I] C. Nucleic acids 3. Monosaccharides
(a) presence of water on the skin is cooling D. Lipids 4. Amino acids
(b) evaporation requires latent heat Code:
(c) water has a high specific heat A B C D
(d) water is a poor conductor of heat (a) 2 3 1 4
125. Muscle fatigue is due to the accumulation of : [2015-II]
(b) 2 1 3 4
(a) Cholesterol (b) Lactic acid
(c) 4 1 3 2
(c) Lipoic acid (d) Triglycerides
126. Living things are grouped into subgroups like plant kingdom/ (d) 4 3 1 2
animal kingdom. Which one of the following is not correct 134. Sleeping sickness is a parasitic disease of humans and other
for animal kingdom? [2015-II] animals. It is caused by [2017-I]
(a) Cannot make their own food (a) Histomonas (b) Trypanosoma
(b) Body contains cellulose (c) Angomonae (d) Naegleria
(c) Do not have chlorophyll 135. Dengue virus causes high fever, rashes and reduces the
(d) Migrate from one place to another number of a particular type of blood cells. Those blood
127. Which one of the following vitamins is synthesized in our cells are [2017-I]
own skin? [2015-II] (a) Monocytes (b) Platelets
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Eosinophils (d) Neutrophils
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D 136. Kidney secretes an enzyme, which changes plasma protein
128. In blood, platelets are required for: [2015-II] angiotensinogen into angiotensin. The enzyme is
(a) transporting oxygen [2017-I]
(b) transporting carbon dioxide (a) Renin (b) Nitrogenase
(c) initiating blood clotting (c) Hydrolase (d) Mono-oxygenase
(d) initiating degradation of urea 137. Red blood cells (RBCs) have [2017-I]
129. Which one of the following is not a site of action in human (a) no nucleus, no mitochondria and no endoplasmic
body for the malarial parasite plasmodium? [2015-II] reticulum
(a) Liver (b) Kidney (b) nucleus, mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Red blood cell (d) Brain (c) nucleus, mitochondria but no endoplasmic reticulum
130. In Egypt, ancient mummies can be found to have their (d) no mitochondria but endoplasmic reticulum is present
138. Colour vision in human eyes is the function of
arteries intact due to well preserved: [2015-II]
photoreceptor cells named [2017-I]
(a) mineralized blood (b) fibroblasts fibre
(a) Rods (b) Cones
(c) elastic fibre (d) brown fat
(c) Blind spot (d) Fovea
131. Which of the following statements about DNA is/are correct?
139. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
[2016-I]
[2017-I]
1. DNA is the hereditary material of all living organisms.
(a) All proteins are enzymes
2. All segments of DNA code for synthesis of proteins. (b) Mostly enzymes are proteins
3. Nuclear DNA is double helical with two nucleotide (c) All fats are energy rich compounds
chains which run anti-parallel. (d) Glucose is a common carbohydrate
4. DNA is also found in mitochondria. 140. Tendons through which muscles are connected to bones
Select the correct answer using the code given below: are tightly compacted bundles of which one of the following
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only long fibrous protein? [2017-II]
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only (a) Fibrin (b) Collagen
132. Which of the following statements are correct? [2016-I] (c) Elastin (d) Cellulose
In honey bees 141. Which one of the following is the scientific name of the
1. Males are haploid. causal organism of elephantiasis ? [2017-II]
EBD_7348
(a) Ascaris lumbricoides 151. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of levels
(b) Culex pipiens of hierarchy of classification of organisms from higher to
(c) Wuchereria bancrofti lower? [2018-I]
(d) Fasciola hepatica (a) Phylum – Class – Order – Family – Genus
142. Melanin is the natural pigment that gives colour to human (b) Phylum – Class – Family – Order – Genus
skin, hair and the iris. It provides protection against (c) Family – Order – Class – Species – Genus
[2017-II] (d) Class – Family – Order – Species – Genus
(a) Ultraviolet radiation
152. Which one of the following elements is needed in the human
(b) Infrared radiation
body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells? [2018-I]
(c) x-ray radiation
(d) short wave radio rediation (a) Lithium (b) Sodium
143. Intake of which one of the following food components (c) Rubidium (d) Caesium
should be minimized by patients having Gouty Arthritis 153. Which one of the following group of organisms forms a
due to elevated serum uric acid level ? [2017-II] food chain? [2018-I]
(a) Food fibres (b) Nucleic acids (a) Grass, human and fish
(c) Lipids (d) Carbohydrates (b) Grass, goat and human
144. Which one of the following statements about microbes is (c) Tree, tree cutter and tiger
not correct ? [2017-II] (d) Goat, cow and human
(a) They are used in sewage treatment plants. 154. Which one of the following types of tissues will have
(b) They are used in industrial fermenters for the contractile proteins? [2018-I]
production of beverages. (a) Nervous tissue (b) Muscle tissue
(c) No antibiotic has been obtained from any microbe.
(c) Bone tissue (d) Blood tissue
(d) They are used to get many bioactive molecules for the
treatment of diseases. 155. If by an unknown accident the acid secreting cells of the
145. Which one of the following vitamins has a role in blood clotting? stomach wall of an individual are damaged, digestion of
[2017-II] which one of the following biomolecule will be affected to a
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D greater extent? [2018-I]
(c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin K (a) Protein only
146. The term 'Probiotic' is applied to [2017-II] (b) Lipid
(a) Organic food (c) Carbohydrate only
(b) Antacid (d) Protein and Carbohydrate
(c) Antibiotic
(d) Live microbial food supplement 156. Which one of the following groups of cellular organelles
147. Which one of the following microbes causes acidification contains DNA? [2018-II]
and curding of milk? [2017-II] (a) Mitochondria, nucleus, chloroplast
(a) Lactic Acid Bacillus (b) Mitochondria, Golgi bodies, nucleus
(b) Clostridium botulinum
(c) Vibrio cholerae (c) Mitochondria, plasma membrane, nucleus
(d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (d) Chloroplast, nucleus, ribosomes
148. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 157. One of the additional functions of Smooth Endoplasmic
[2017-II] Reticulum (SER) is [2018-II]
(a) Human eye is a refracting system containing a
diverging lens. (a) protein synthesis
(b) The retina of the human eye contains millions of light (b) lipid synthesis
sensitive cells, called rods and cones, which convert (c) storage of biomolecules
the light into electrical messages.
(c) Every image that is focused on the retina is upside (d) detoxification of toxic substances
down. 158. Which one of the following is a waterborne disease?
(d) We need both eyes to judge the relative positions of [2018-II]
objects accurately.
149. AIDS is caused by a virus whose genetic material is (a) Jaundice (b) Tuberculosis
[2018-I] (c) Rabies (d) Arthritis
(a) single stranded circular DNA 159. The acidic semidetached food coming out of the stomach is
(b) double stranded DNA neutralized by [2018-II]
(c) single stranded RNA
(d) double stranded RNA (a) pancreatic juice
150. Which one of the following parts of body does NOT take (b) duodenal secretion
part in the process of breathing? [2018-I] (c) large intestine secretion
(a) Bronchi (b) Bowman’s capsule
(c) Diaphragm (d) Trachea (d) bile juice
Zoology G-129
160. The oxygenated blood from the lungs is received by the (a) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of
[2018-II] electrical activity of cornea
(a) left auricle (b) left ventricle (b) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of
activity of kidney
(c) right auricle (d) right ventricle
(c) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of
161. Which one of the following depicts the correct circuit of a activity of brain
reflex are? [2018-II] (d) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of
(a) Effector-sensory neuron-spinal cord-motor neuron- electrical activity of heart
receptor 166. Which one of the following statements regarding Penicillin
(b) Receptor-sensory neuron-spinal cord-motor neuron- is correct ? [2019-I]
effector (a) Penicillin resistant bacteria can store this antibiotic in
vacuole
(c) Receptor-sensory neuron-brain-motor neuron-effector
(b) Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic
(d) Sensory neuron-receptor-brain-effector - motor neuron by an enzyme called b-lactamase
162. Which one of the following organisms represents the (c) Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic
primary consumer category in an ecosystem? [2019-I] by an enzyme called lactic acid dehydrogenase
(a) Caterpillar (b) Crabapple tree (d) Penicillin is not absorbed by bacteria; so most bacteria
(c) Frog (d) Sparrowhawk are resistant
163. Tooth enamel is made up of which one of the following 167. Which one of the following organelles of mammalian cell is
calcium compounds ? [2019-I] rich in hydrolytic enzymes ? [2019-I]
(a) Calcium carbonate (b) Calcium sulphate (a) Mitochondria (b) Ribosomes
(c) Calcium hydroxide (d) Calcium phosphate (c) Lysosome (d) Nucleus
164. As per the code of the nomenclature, which one of the 168. Which one of the following statements regarding Cholera
following is the correct way of writing a biological name? is correct ? [2019-I]
[2019-I] (a) Cholera is a disease that causes loss of memory
(a) Amoeba Proteus (b) Amoeba proteus (b) Cholera is a disease of muscles due to consumption of
(c) amoeba proteus (d) Amoeba Proteus alcohol
165. Which one of the following statements regarding (c) Cholera is a disease due to consumption of
Electrocardiogram is correct ? [2019-I] contaminated food or water
(d) Cholera is a genetic disease
AN SWER KEY
1 (b) 18 (b) 35 (d) 52 (d) 69 (c) 86 (c) 103 (a) 120 (b ) 137 (a) 154 (b )
2 (a) 19 (c) 36 (a) 53 (c) 70 (c) 87 (d ) 104 (d ) 121 (d ) 138 (b ) 155 (a)
3 (b) 20 (a) 37 (c) 54 (b) 71 (d ) 88 (a) 105 (c) 122 (d ) 139 (a) 156 (a)
4 (a) 21 (d) 38 (b) 55 (a) 72 (b ) 89 (b ) 106 (d ) 123 (c) 140 (b ) 157 (d )
5 (b) 22 (c) 39 (d) 56 (d) 73 (b ) 90 (d ) 107 (b ) 124 (b ) 141 (c) 158 (a)
6 (d) 23 (b) 40 (b) 57 (c) 74 (b ) 91 (b ) 108 (b ) 125 (b ) 142 (a) 159 (a)
7 (d) 24 (c) 41 (a) 58 (a) 75 (d ) 92 (c) 109 (d ) 126 (b) 143 (b ) 160 (a)
8 (b) 25 (b) 42 (d) 59 (c) 76 (d ) 93 (c) 110 (c) 127 (d ) 144 (c) 161 (b )
9 (d) 26 (b) 43 (b) 60 (a) 77 (c) 94 (b ) 111 (b ) 128 (c) 145 (d ) 162 (a)
10 (b) 27 (d) 44 (c) 61 (a) 78 (b ) 95 (b ) 112 (c) 129 (b ) 146 (d ) 163 (d )
11 (b) 28 (a) 45 (d) 62 (d) 79 (a) 96 (a) 113 (d ) 130 (c) 147 (a) 164 (b )
12 (d) 29 (c) 46 (c) 63 (b) 80 (c) 97 (c) 114 (b ) 131 (b ) 148 (a) 165 (d )
13 (a) 30 (a) 47 (b) 64 (b) 81 (c) 98 (c) 115 (a) 132 (c) 149 (c) 166 (b )
14 (b) 31 (a) 48 (d) 65 (b) 82 (c) 99 (b ) 116 (d ) 133 (d ) 150 (b ) 167 (c)
15 (b) 32 (d) 49 (c) 66 (c) 83 (d ) 100 (c) 117 (c) 134 (b ) 151 (a) 168 (c)
16 (c) 33 (c) 50 (b) 67 (a) 84 (c) 101 (c) 118 (b ) 135 (b ) 152 (b )
17 (b) 34 (b) 51 (b) 68 (c) 85 (b ) 102 (c) 119 (b ) 136 (a) 153 (b )
EBD_7348
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (b) Arthropoda is the largest phylum in the animal kingdom sex organs and Low BMR along with slow pulse
in terms of both number of taxa and bomass. and respiration rate.
2. (a) Hepatitis-B is caused by a DNA-virus, influenza is 13. (a) In women luteinizing hormone stimulates the last stage
caused by Myxovirus, rabies or hydrophobia is caused of oogenesis, ovulation, development of corpus luteum
by rabies virus while scabies is caused by the tiny mite and secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum.
Sacroptes scabiei burrowing under the skin to lay its Ovulation is controlled by the increased level of LH in
eggs. the blood.
3. (b) In human, the digestion of protein starts in the stomach 14. (b) Excretion are the removal of waste products of
region of alimentary canal where pepsin hydrolyzes metabolism from body. The excretory organs in
proteins into proteases and peptones. cockroach and other insects are Malpighian tubules.
4. (a) The saliva of human contains water, mucous and Likwise in man, kidney is a part of excretory system.
digestive enzyme-salivary a-amylase (ptyalin) and Excretory system consists of a pair of kidney, a pair of
maltase. Ptyalin splits starch and other complex ureter, a urinary bladder and a urethra.
carbohydrates into maltose which is broken down by 15. (b) Lobsters belong to class Crustacea of phylum
maltase into glucose. Arthropoda. Phylum Arthropoda is the largest phylum.
5. (b) Involvement of pancreas is essential in the control of 16. (c) Measles is caused by virus.
blood sugar. Pancreas produces the hormone insulin 18. (b) Frogs and Toads are Salamander’s closely related.
which checks the blood sugar level and glucagon which because they belong to amphibian. Some Salamander
tends to increase the level of blood glucose. species are fully aquatic throughout life, some take to
6. (d) Lactic acid is an alpha hydroxy carboxylic acid the water intermittently, and some are entirely terrestrial
produced as an end product during anaeroboic as adults.
respiration that takes place in our muscles while doing 19. (c) Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria
strenuous exercise when oxygen is also limited. It (Vibriocholerae).
causes cramp like pains and loss in muscle efficiency. 20. (a) Shark belongs to pisces while Bat belongs to mammalia.
7. (d) Arthropoda is the largest phylum in respect to number 21. (d) Xerophthalmia is not a genetic disorder. Xerophthalmia
of species. Annelida, Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda is a severe drying of the eye surface caused by a
are invertebrates which have ‘no notochord’ a stiff rod malfunction of the tear glands. Also found in people
like structure which serves as an internal skeleton while with immune disorders, it occurs most commonly
chordates have notochord. because of decreased intake or absorption of vitamin
8. (b) Ptyalin is starch splitting enzyme secreted by salivary A. symptoms include night blindness and eye irritation.
gland, most active at pH 6.7. Pepsin and Renin are found In addition to the eyes being very dry, there is a loss of
in gastric juice. luster on their surface. At later stages, the corneas
become soft, with increased opacity.
9. (d) Cowper’s gland are accessory sex glands in males are
22. (c) Trypsin is an enzyme. The pancreas adds a collection
located on the floor of the pelvic cavity. Their secretions
of protein-cutting enzymes, with trypsin playing the
contain mucus for lubrication of reproductive tract.
central role, that chop the protein chains into pieces
10. (b) Pancreas secretes two hormone insulin and glucagon. just a few amino acids long. Then, enzymes on the
Insulin increases combustion of sugar in tissues and surfaces of intestinal cells and inside the cells chop
help in transport of glucose into the cell. them into amino acids, ready for use throughout the
11. (b) Haemophilia is gentic disorder disease in which blood body. Trypsin uses a special serine amino acid in its
clotting not easily takes place because of recessive X protein-cutting reaction, and is consequently known
linked chromosome. as a serine protease.
12. (d) Thyroxine deficiency in childhood or infancy results 23. (b) Pancreas secretes hormones as well as digestive
in a condition called cretinism. Its symptoms are : enzymes. Pancreas completes the job of breaking down
(i) Lack of skeletal development resulting in deformed protein, carbohydrates, and fats using digestive juices
bones and stunted body growth. of pancreas combined with juices from the intestines
and secretes hormones that affect the level of sugar in
(ii) Mental deficiency, retardation of development of
the blood.
Zoology G-131
24. (c) Spleen serves as blood bank in human body. It stores The term enzyme was used by willy kuhne in 1878.
the RBCs and liberate the RBCs during emergency. 35. (d) Tetanus is caused by clostridium tetnai bacterium while
25. (b) In Frog, skin is a respiratory organ. Amphibians use other are caused by virus.
their skin as a respiratory surface. Frogs eliminate 36. (a) Human ribcage consists of 12 pairs of ribs. The upper
carbon dioxide 2.5 times as fast through their skin as seven pairs of ribs are attached infront directly to the
they do through their lungs. Whale (a fish) obtain 60% sternum by hyaline cartilage. There are called true ribs.
of their oxygen through their skin. Humans exchange The next three pairs of ribs attach indirectly to sternum.
only 1% of their carbon dioxide through their skin. They are termed false ribs. The ribs protect the heart,
Constraints of water loss dictate that terrestrial animals large blood vessels and lungs. They bear respiratory
must develop more efficient lungs. muscle .
26. (b) In human body liver is the largest in size. The liver is 37. (c) Beri-Beri is caused due to lack of Vitamins B, (thiamine).
th e largest organ in th e human body. During Rich sources of Vit B, is Branrice, whole wheat flour,
development, liver size increases with increasing age, egg, meat, liver, yeast etc. Symptoms of Beri-Beri are
averaging 5 cm span at 5 years and attaining adult size loss of appetite and weight, retarded growth, muscular
by age 15. The size depends on several factors: age, dystrophy.
sex, body size and shape, as well as the particular
38. (b) The possible blood groups of the offspring of the
examination technique utilized
parents with blood group O and AB will be A and B.
27. (d) The term non-toxic goiter refers to enlargement of the
thyroid which is not associated with overproduction I° I° ´ I A I B Parents
of thyroid hormone or malignancy. The thyroid can ¯
become very large so that it can easily be seen as a
I° IA I° I B I° I A I° I B
mass in the neck. There are a number of factors which
may cause the thyroid to become enlarged. A diet Thus, offspring will be of blood group A and B.
deficient in iodine can cause a goiter but this is rarely 39. (d) Milk is a poor source of vitamin C. Citrus, amla, etc are
the cause because of the readily available iodine in our rich source of vitamin C.
diets.
40. (b) Shark is a fish. It belongs to class chondrichthyes.
28. (a) Dolphin is the most primitive animal. Dolphins are marine
Dolphin, seal and whale are mammals.
mammals that are closely related to whales and
41. (a) The wounds of face bleed profusely because of rich
porpoises.
blood supply i.e rich vascularity.
29. (c) Sand fly insects spreads Kala-azar. Kala-azar is a chronic
42. (d) Oral Rehydration Therapy is recommended for patients
and potentially fatal parasitic disease of the viscera
suffering from cholera. It is a diarrhoel disease caused
(the internal organs, particularly the liver, spleen, bone
by a bacterium called vibrio cholerae. The disease can
marrow and lymph nodes) due to infection by the
lead to dehydration, loss of minerals, muscular cramps
parasite called Leishmania donovani. Leishmania etc in the body.
donovani, the agent of kala-azar, is transmitted by
43. (b) ELISA (Enzyme linked Immuno Sorbent Assay) is used
sandfly bites.
for diagnosis of AIDS. Plague is detected by Wayson
30. (a) Bat is blind. It can fly in dark due to presence of stair test while typhoid fever can be diagnosed by widal
echolocation apparatus which helps to locate objects test.
during flights. 44. (c) Crocodiles store fats in their tail, because of which
31. (a) During strenous exercise, the muscle does not get they can survive for a ling time without food.
sufficient oxygen to meet its energy needs immediately. 45. (d) Due to strenous exercise, our muscles get fatigued due
So, it contracts anaerobically and accumulates lactic to accumulation of lactic acid. Lactic acid is produced
acid. due to anaerobic breakdown of food.
33. (c) Blood plasma cells forms 55 – 60% by volume of blood. 46. (c) Jaundice in human beings is the result of incomplete
Antibodies and some other substances such as metabolism of bilirubin. Bilirubin is a bile pigment that
lysozyme and properdin always occur in the plasma. is metabolised and excreted out as sterco-bilinogen in
They serve to destroy bacteria, viruses and toxic faeces. However when a pathological process interferes
substances that may enter into the blood from outside with its normal functioning, it leads to jaundice. The
or from body tissues. symptoms of jaundice is yellowing of skin and eyes
34. (b) Enzymes are proteinaceous substances which are due to deposition of bile pigments.
capable of catalysing chemical reactions of biological 47. (b) The a and b cells of islets of Langerhans in pancreas is
origins without themselves undergoing any change. responsible for controlling the blood-sugar level in
body. The secretion of glucagon by a-cells increases
EBD_7348
the blood glucose level while secretion of insulin by b- 52. (d) Enzymes are biological catalysts that increases the rate
cells decreases the blood glucose level. Thus, these of reaction without altering its structure.
two hormones together play an important role in 53. (c) Sodium, chloride and potassium ions are essential for
homeostas is of blood sugar level in body. the transmission of nerve impulses.
48. (d) The Haffkine Institute of Mumbai is known for its work 54. (b) Cure to spinal injury is likely to emerge from stem cell
on the production of polio vaccine. therapy. Stem cell therapy is a technique that involves
49. (c) Cerebellum, a part of hindbrain, controls fine movement, replacement of diseased cells with healthy and
maintains balance and equilibrium of the body and functional cell. This technique is being used for a wide
muscle tone in human beings. range of human disorders like cancer, parkinson,
50. (b) Leishmania reproduces asexually by binary fission. It diabetes etc.
is a causative agent of kala-azar. 55. (a) Food wrapped in n ewspaper is likely to get
51. (b) Lymphocyte is a type of white blood cell (WBC). They contaminated with lead.
produce a protein called antibodies in the presence of 56. (d) Th e constituents of food include proteins,
foreign molecules called antigens. carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, minerals, water and
roughage.
Sol. (57-60) List I List II List III List IV

(Body system) (Organ) (Structure) (Function of the system)
1. Blood circulaton A. Bone marrow I. Alveoli i. Oxygenation
2. Excretory B. Thymus II. T-lymphocyte ii. Fighting infection and foreign
invasion
3. Alimentary C. Intestine III. Myocardium iii. Perfusion of tissues
4. Skeletal D. Lung IV. Matrix iv. Support and protect of body frame
5. Blood E. Bone V. Nephron v. Filtration of body waste
6. Respiratory F. Heart VI. Villi vi. Absorption of nutrients
7. Neurological G. Kidney VII. Axon vii. Transmission of electrical impulse
8. Immunological H. Neuron VIII. Platelets viii.Clot formation
57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (a) 66. (c) If a man is trapped in a burning room, he would be
61. (a) Swine flue is an infection by Swine influenza Virus, inhaling hot gas and buring particles. Which is the
(SIV or S-OIV) is any strain of the influenza family of case in a fire.
viruses that is endemic in pigs. As of 2009, the known 67. (a) HIV is a member of retrovirus family that causes
SIV strains include influenza C and the subtypes of Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.
influenza A (H1N1,H1N2 68. (c) Heart sounds are produced by the closing & opening
of the AV valves & semilunar valves.
H3N1, H3N2 and H2N3).
69. (c) A balanced diet is a diet, which provides sufficient
Swine influenza virus is common throughout pig
amounts of carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins and
populations worldwide. People with regular exposure
minerals nutrients to maintain good health and with a
to pigs are at increased risk of swine flue infection. In
small provision for periods of leanness or scarcity.
August 2010 the World Health Organization declared
the swine flu pandemic officially all over. 70. (c) The pulmonary arteries transport deoxygenated blood
62. (d) Rate of stomach emptying does not depends on the to the left and right lungs. And interesting fact is that
type of food. the pulmonary arteries are the only arteries that carry
deoxygenated blood. All other arteries deliver blood,
63. (b) Liver cells secrete bile, biles help in emulsification of
enriched with oxygen and other nutrients to our body's
feet i.e. breaking down of fats into small micelles.
tissues. Conversely, the pulmonary veins transport
64. (b) As AB is the universal recipient & B is the same blood
oxygenated blood from the left and right lungs to the
group therefore can donate blood to these two groups
heart, while all other veins carry deoxygenated blood
of people.
and waste products. Pulmonary arteries carry
65. (b) Baboon is the largest monkey, it is 47 inch long & deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs.
weight around 90 pounds.
Zoology G-133
71. (d) Cold blooded animals are called ectotherms. 83. (d) In digestive system of living organisms proteins are
72. (b) Sickle cell anemia is an inherited blood disorder that broken down into amino acids which also acts as
causes chronic anemia, periodic episodes of pain, and enzymes.
other complications. In sickle cell anemia, the red blood 84. (c) Cerebrum (a major part of forebrain) is the main thinking
cells become rigid and shaped like crescents, or sickles, part of brain. It has sensory, motor and association
rather than being flexible and round. This change in areas.
shape prevents red blood cells from getting into small 85. (b) Darwin (1881) found that bending movement of
blood vessels. As a result, the tissues do not get enough coleoptile of canary grass (Phalaris canariensis) was
oxygen. Lack of oxygen can cause pain and damage in due to exposure of tip to unilateral light. Boysen-Jensen
the arms, legs, and organs (e.g., spleen, kidney, brain). (1910, 1911) found that the tip produces a chemical
73. (b) The most important carbohydrate is glucose, a simple which was later named Auxin.
sugar (monosaccharide) that is metabolized by nearly 86. (c) Small intestine is the principal organ for absorption of
all known organisms. Glucose and other carbohydrates nutrients. The digestion is completed here and the final
are part of a wide variety of metabolic pathways across products of digestion such as glucose, fructose, fatty
species: plants synthesize carbohydrates from carbon acids, glycerol and amino acids are absorbed through
dioxide and water by photosynthesis storing the the mucosa into the blood stream and lymph.
absorbed energy internally, often in the form of starch 87. (d) A healthy diet involves consuming primarily fruits,
or lipids. vegetables, and whole grains to satisfy caloric
74. (b) A ligament refers to a band of tough, fibrous dense requirements, provide the body with essential nutrients,
regular connective tissue comprising collagenous phytochemicals, and fibre, and provide adequate water
intake.
fibers. Ligaments connect bones to other bones to form
a joint. They do not connect muscles to bones; that is 88. (a) The Nobel Prize in Medicine for the year 2012 has been
the job of tendons. Some ligaments limit the mobility of awarded to John B. Gurdon and Shinya Yamanaka for
articulations, or prevent certain movements altogether. their discovery that "mature, specialised cells can be
reprogrammed to become immature cells capable of
75. (d) Hepatitis A is caused by infection with the hepatitis A
developing into all tissues of the body."
virus. The hepatitis virus is usually spread when a
person ingests tiny amounts of contaminated faecal 89. (b) In case the ovum (female) fertilises with a sperm (male)
matter. The hepatitis A virus infects the liver cells and carrying X-chromosome the zygote develops into a
causes inflammation. The inflammation can impair liver female (XX) and the fertilisation of ovum with Y-
function and cause other signs and symptoms of chromosome carrying sperm results into a male
hepatitis A. offspring (XY). Thus, it is evident that it is the genetic
makeup of the sperm (male/father) that determines the
76. (d) The needle used for ear piercing is sterilised so that it
sex of the child.
does not lead to bleeding.
90. (d) Filariasis is a parasitic disease that is caused by thread-
77. (c) Plasmodium shows initial multiplication in lever.
like nematodes (round worms) while cholera,
78. (b) White blood cells are blood components that protect
tuberculosis and typhoid caused by bacteria Vibrio
the body from infectious agents. Also called leukocytes,
cholerae Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Salmonella
white blood cells play an important role in the immune
typhi respectively.
system by identifying, destroying, and removing
91. (b) Osmosis is defined as the movement of solvent
pathogens, damaged cells, cancerous cells, and foreign
molecules through a semi-permeable membrane to a
matter from the body. Leukocytes originate from bone
region tht has a higher solute concentration. Osmosis
marrow stem cells and circulate in blood and lymph
helps animal cell by bringing about a state of balance
fluid.
between important minerals and body solutions.
79. (a) Persistent cough for more than 1 month is not a clinical
93. (c) Reproduction are of two types.
sign of AIDS in children below 12 years of age.
(a) Sexual Reproduction : In th is type of
80. (c) Polio (poliomyelitis) is a highly infectious disease
reproduction two parents are involve & fusion of
caused by a virus. It invades the nervous system and
male & female gametes occur to produce a young
can cause irreversible paralysis in a matter of hours.
one.
Polio can strike at any age, but it mainly affects children
under five years old. (b) Asexual Reproduction : In this type of
reproduction offspring is produced by a single
81. (c) Enamel of teeth is the hardest part of our body.
parent with or without the formation of gametes.
82. (c) Nucleus, cell membrane, mitochondria and cytoplasm
95. (b) Some antioxidants are produced by our body whereas
are present in animal cell.
those the body cannot produce are obtained from the
diet.
EBD_7348
96. (a) Osmosis is the spontaneous net movement of solvent less than 12.0 gram/100 ml. Vitamin supplements given
molecules through a partially permeable membrane into orally (folic acid or vitamin B12) or intramuscularly
a region of higher solute concentration, in the direction (vitamin B12) will replace specific deficiencies. So,the
that tends to equalize the solute concentrations on the doctor advices advises the patient iron and folic acid
two sides. tablets.
97. (c) Presbyopia is a condition where, with age, the eye 112. (c) Dropsy is a disease, which means swelling of the body.
exhibits a progressively diminished ability to focus Main symptoms of 'Dropsy' are: (i) swelling of the whole
on near objects. It is caused by weakening of the ciliary body especially legs (ii) gastrointestinal symptoms like
muscles (the muscles that bend and straighten the vomitting, diarrhoea, loss of appetite (iii) tingling
lens) sensation in the skin (iv) tenderness in the calf muscles
98. (c) Earthworm does not undergo periodic moulting of their (v) increased intra-occular (inside the eye) pressure which
external body covering. Rest all the animals are is known as glaucoma.It is caused by adulteration in
examples of arthropods which undergo periodic mustard oil.
ecdysis (casting of skin). 113. (d) Insects are abundant in terms of number of species
99. (b) Brain is not involved in elicitation of immune response. identified.
Lymph nodes are oval shaped organs of lymphatic 114. (b) Mitochondria are fascinating structures that create
system, distributed widely throughout our body and energy to run the cell. It is the site of cellular respiration
are garrisons of B, T and other immunity cells. The in animal cell.
thymyus is on specialised organ of immune system 115. (a) Mitosis is used for growth and repair of the tissues.
within which the T-cell nature. The spleen is on During mitosis, a cell makes an exact copy of itself and
cymphatic organ that plays an important role in splits into two new cells. Each cell contains an exact
protecting the body from invading pathogens. copy of the original cell's chromosomes in their 23
100. (c) Amino acid is an organic compound, which, repelled pairs. This is the reason why all the cells in an organism
by Glomenuli cells of Nephrox in Kidney . are genetically identical.
So, it is not present is urine.
116. (d) The small intestine is the location in the body where
101. (c) Blue whale is largest baby at the time of birth weight
the majority of the nutrients from ingested food are
(approximately 1 ton).
absorbed. The large intestine is the final processing
102. (c) Muscles in the intestine, stomach etc, are smooth
muscles as opposed to muscles in the face, arms and area for digested food. The main things left to do are
legs which are known as skeletal muscles. Smooth to dry out the undigested food remnant by absorbing
muscles are involuntary muscles which contract slowly water and eliminate the useless waste from the body.
and remain contracted for a longer time without tiring. 117. (c) In both genders, the urethra works as a tube
104. (d) Tuberculosis (TB) is a common and in many cases connecting the urinary bladder to the genitals. The
lethal, infectious disease caused by various strains of bladder collects and stores urine until when it is ready
mycobacterium. TB typically attacks the lungs, but to be discharged through the urethra. It is not a part of
can also affect other parts of the body. reproductive system of female.
105. (c) Duckbilled platypus is egg lying mammals, which is 118. (b) Most sharks are cold-blooded. Partially warm-blooded
also called orinitho-rynchus or platypus animals.
Sharks are the Mako and the Great white shark.
107. (b) The most abundant inorganic constituent of protoplasm
119. (b) Leprosy is a disease caused by bacteria called
is water. Mycobacterium Leprae. It affects mainly the skin and
108. (b) Fructose, predominates in Honey. the nerves. Leprosy is also known as Hansen's disease
109. (d) Dengue fever is also known as breakbone fever. after the scientist M. leprae who discovered it in 1873.
Symptoms of the disease include headache, fever, Leprosy is spread between people. This is believed to
prostration, severe joint and muscle pain, swollen glands occur through a cough or contact with fluid from the
(lymphadenopathy) and rashes. nose of an infected person.
110. (c) Scurvy is a disease caused by a diet that lacks vitamin C 120. (b) Carbohydrates are not the only source of energy to
(ascorbic acid). Patients develop anemi, debility, humans. They need carbohydrates, fats, proteins,
exhaustion, edema (swelling) in some parts of the body, water, vitamins, and minerals for energy. Fats give
and sometimes ulceration of the gums and loss of teeth. maximum energy on oxidation as compared to other
Humans cannot synthesize vitamin C, which is necessary foods.
for the production of collagen and iron absorption. We 121. (d) Thyroid gland requires iodine to produce its hormone.
have to obtain it from external sources, i.e. from fruits 122. (d) A nerve is an enclosed, cable-like bundle of axons (the
and vegetables. long, slender projections of neurons) in the peripheral
111. (b) Anaemia is a medical condition in which the red blood nervous system. Neurons are sometimes called nerve
cell count or haemoglobin is less than normal. For men, cells, though this term is potentially misleading since
anaemia is typically defined as haemoglobin level of less many neurons do not form nerves, and nerves also
than 13.5 gram/100 ml and in women as haemoglobin of include non-neuronal Schwann cells that coat the axons
in myelin. Finally, the entire nerve is wrapped in a layer
Zoology G-135
of connective tissue called the epineurium. cells. It carries oxygen. Red blood cells also remove
123. (c) In healthy adults, there are two normal heart sounds carbon dioxide from human body. Foods rich in iron
often described as a lub and a dub (or dup) that occur help you maintain healthy red blood cells. Vitamins are
in sequence with each heartbeat. These are the first also needed to build healthy red blood cells.
heart sound (S1) and second heart sound (S2) produced 138. (b) Cone cells, or cones, are photoreceptor cells in the
by the closing of the AV valves and semilunar valves, retinas of vertebrate eyes (e.g. the human eye). They
respectively. respond differently to light of different wavelengths,
124. (b) This is because when we sweat, the liquid (sweat) and are thus responsible for color vision and function
present on our body takes the heat equivalent to the best in relatively bright light, as opposed to rodcells,
which work better in dim light.
latent heat of vaporisation from our body and therefore
139. (a) Proteins are biological macromolecules that are diverse
we feel cool.
in shape size and function. Proteins is the larger set of
125. (b) Lactic acid is formed and accumulated in the muscle
molecules to which enzymes belong as subsets.
under conditions of high energy demand at the time of
vigorous exercise and rapid fluctuations of the energy Therefore All proteins are not enzymes but mostly
requirement and insufficient supply of O2. enzymes are proteins.
126. (b) Animal body do not contain cellulose. 140. (b) Tendons are made up of long fibrous protein called
127. (d) Dermal synthesis of vitamin D from cholesterol is collagen.
dependent on sun exposure. These are inelastic fibres of great tensile strength.
128. (c) Platelets are responsible for blood clotting. 141. (c) Wuchereria bancrofti is a human parasitic roundworm
129. (b) Kidney is not a site of action in human body for malarial which causes elephantiasis. It is carried from person
parasite Plasmodium. to person by mosquitoes.
130. (c) Arteries of mummies are intact with the elastic fibre 142. (a) Melanin is a protective pigment in skin, blocking UV
when they are preserved. radiation from damaging DNA and potentially causing
131. (b) Not all viruses have DNA e.g. HIV virus. It is double skin cancer.
helical structure with two nucleotide chain which runs 143. (b) Gout is a type of arthritis, an inflammatory condition
anti-parallel. DNA is also present in mitochondria. Only of the joints. Gout symptoms or "attacks" occur when
some segments of DNA code for proteins. there is too much uric acid in the blood. Uric acid is a
132. (c) The queen is the only fertile female in the colony. waste product made by the body when it digests certain
133. (d) Proteins - amino acid foods. Fortunately, research shows that restricting
Carbohydrates - monosaccharide high-purine foods an d takin g the appropriate
Nucleic acids - nitrogenous bases and pentose sugar medication can prevent gout attacks. Gout patients
Lipids - fatty acids and glycerol should avoid meats such as liver, kidney and
134. (b) Trypanosoma is a genus of kinetoplastids, a sweetbreads, which have high purine levels and
monophyletic group of unicellular parasitic flagellate contribute to high blood levels of uric acid.
protozoa. Trypanosomes infect a variety of hosts and 144. (c) No antibiotic has been obtained from any microbe.
cause various diseases, including the fatal human Some clinically important antibiotics
diseases sleeping sickness. Sleeping sickness is an Antibiotic Producer organism Activity
insect-born parasitic disease of human and other Polymyxin B Bacillus polymyxa Gram-negative
animals. bacteria
135. (b) Dengue virus (DENV) is the cause of dengue fever. It
Amphotericin B Streptomyces nodosus Fungi
is a mosquito-borne single positive-stranded RNA virus
Erythromycin Streptomyces erythreus Gram-positive
of the family Flaviviridae; genus Flavivirus. This virus
causes bone marrow suppression leading to reduction bacteria
in number of blood platelets. A typical person has a Streptomycin Streptomyces griseus Gram-negative
platelet count of between 150,000 and 250,000 per bacteria
microlitre of blood. About 80 to 90 per cent of patients Tetracycline Streptomyces rimosus Broad spectrum
with dengue will have levels below 100,000, while 10 to Hence, various antiobiotics are obtained from
20 per cent of patients will see critically low levels of microbes.
20,000 or less. 145. (d) Vitamin-K plays on essential role in clotting of blood.
136. (a) Renin is an aspartic protease protein and enzyme It act as a cofactor for the enzyme to bind with calcium
secreted by the kidneys. Renin is a proteolytic enzyme ions required for activation of coagulation factors such
that cleaves to the circulating substrate as prothrombin.
angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which has little 146. (d) The term 'Probiotic' is applied to live microbial food
intrinsic pharmacologic activity. supplement . These are the live micro-organism which
137. (a) Red blood cells (RBCs) are cells that circulate in the provides health benefits when consumed.
blood and carry oxygen throughout the body. It is also 147. (a) The lactic acid curdles the milk that then separates to
called erythrocytes. Red blood cells (RBCs) have no
form curds, which are used to produce cheese and
nucleus, no mitochondria and no endoplasmic
whey. Acidification of milk means lowering its pH. It
reticulum. Hemoglobin is the protein inside red blood
causes the milk proteins to unwind and unfold in a
EBD_7348
process known as protein denaturing. Lactic Acid does in which there is alteration in normal functioning of
the process in case of milk. liver and associated enzymes or metabolites. It can also
148. (a) Human eye is a refracting system containing a be transmitted through contaminated water.
diverging lens. 159. (a) The acidic semidigested food i.e. chyme, coming out
of stomach is neutralized by the action of bicarbonates
149. (c) Aids is caused by HIV Virus. HIV is a retrovirus, which from the pancreatic juice.
means it carries single-stranded RNA. Its genetic 160. (a) The oxygenated blood from the lungs is received by
material rather than the double-stranded DNA human left auricle. It is then circulated to different parts of the
cells carry. body.
150. (b) Fluid and small solutes are forced under pressure to 161. (b) The reflex arc is a type of neural circuit that begins with
flow from the glomerulus into the capsular space of a sensory neuron at a receptor and ends with a motor
the glomerular capsule. The Bowman's capsule is the neuron at an effector. Sensory neuron sends electrical
impulses to a relay neuron, which is located in the spinal
filtration unit of the glomerulus and has tiny slits in cord of the CNS. Relay neurons connect sensory
which filtrate may pass through into the nephron. neurons to motor neurons. In this reflex action brain is
151. (a) Grouping of organism according to similarities and not involved.
differences is termed classification. When an organism 162. (a) Caterpillars are the larval stage of members of the order
is classified into various categories, a hierarchy is Lepidoptera. Caterpillars, is a organism represent the
maintained. primary consumer category in an ecosystem. Most
Accordingly, an organism belongs to Kingdom, caterpillars have cylindrical bodies consisting of
Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus and Species in multiple segments, with three pairs of true legs on the
hierarchical order. thorax and several pairs of short, fleshy prolegs on
152. (b) HCL breaks down proteins in your stomach to prepare the abdomen.
163. (d) Tooth enamel is the hardest, most highly mineralized
them for digestion and kills bacteria that enter your
substance in the body. It forms the outer, most visible
stomach. It converts the inactive enzyme pepsinogen
layer of each tooth. Enamel is composed of
into the active enzyme pepsin, which is responsible hydroxyapatite, a mineral compound of calcium and
for digesting proteins in your stomach. HCL also helps phosphate Enamel plays a very important role in
digest other foods in your stomach. protecting teeth from decay. Tooth enamel forms a
153. (b) The term food chain refers to the sequence of events strong barrier that shields the inner layers of teeth
in an ecosystem, where one organism eats another from the effects of acids and plaque.
and then is eaten by another organism. It starts with 164. (b) The text of a scientific name is usually italicized to
the primary source like the sun or hydrothermal vents clarify that it is a scientific name written in binomial
where producers make food, continues with consumers nomenclature. The generic epithet is always
or animals who eat the food, and ends with the top capitalized, while the specific epithet is written in lower-
predator. case.
154. (b) Muscal And Skeletal Tissues Have Contractile 165. (d) An electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) is a test that
checks how your heart is functioning by measuring
Proteins.
the electrical activity of the heart. With each heart beat,
155. (a) Hydrochloric acid breaks down proteins in the stomach
an electrical impulse (or wave) travels through your
to prepare them for digestion and kills bacteria that heart. This wave causes the muscle to squeeze and
enter your stomach. It converts the inactive enzyme pump blood from the heart.
pepsinogen into the active enzyme pepsin, which is 166. (b) Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic
responsible for digesting proteins in the stomach. by an enzyme called b –lactamase.
156. (a) Mitochondria, Nucleus and Chloroplast are cellular 167. (c) Lysosome organelles of mammalian cell is rich in
organelles which contain own set of DNA. hydrolytic enzymes.
157. (d) The smooth ER is normally involved in the synthesis 168. (c) Cholera is an infectious disease that causes severe
of lipids, like cholesterol and phospholipids. watery diarrhea, which can lead to dehydration and
Additionally it is involved in the detoxification of toxic
even death if untreated. It is caused by eating food or
substances like drugs and harmful compounds.
drinking water contaminated with a bacterium called
158. (a) There are various factors behind the onset of jaundice
Vibrio cholerae.
HISTORY
Ancient India 15
1. Which one of the following dynasties was associated with 11. Which one of the following is the correct chronological
Gandhara School of Art ? order of the given rulers of ancient India?
(a) Chalukyas (b) Guptas (a) Ashoka—Kanishka—Milinda
(c) Kushanas (d) Mauryas [2006-I] (b) Milinda—Ashoka—Kanishka
2. Where did Gautam Buddha give his first sermon? (c) Ashoka—Milinda—Kanishka
(a) Gaya (b) Rajgriha . (d) Milinda—Kanishka—Ashoka [2007-II]
(c) Sarnath (d) Sanchi [2006-I] 12. Who of the following is a contemporary of Gautama
3. 'Mushika Vamsha' written by Atula in the eleventh century Buddha? [2008-I]
gives an account of the dynasty which ruled a part of a (a) Ashvaghosa (b) Nagarjuna
modern Indian state. Which state is this? (c) Parsvanath (d) Vardhmana Mahavira
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala 13. Who among the following was a contemporary of Gautam
(c) Maharashtra (d) Orissa [2006-I] Buddha? [2009-I]
4. Which of the following rulers checked Harshavardhana's (a) Nagarjuna (b) Kanishka
expedition in South India? (c) Kautila (d) Mahavir
(a) Pulakesin I (b) Pulakesin II 14. Where did Buddha attain Parinirvana ? [2009-I]
(c) Vikramaditya I (d) Vikramaditya II [2006-I]
(a) Bodh Gaya (b) Kushinagara
5. Among the following who was the earliest visitor to India ?
(c) Rajgriha (d) Vaisali
(a) Alberuni (b) Fa-Hien
15. Which one of the following statements about Chandragupta
(c) Hiuen-Tsang (d) Megasthanes [2006-II]
II is not correct ? [2009-II]
6. Kalhana’s well-known work 'Rajatarangini' is an important
(a) Kalidas and Amarsingh were famous scholars in his
source material for the study of which one of the following?
court
(a) Ancient Kamarupa (b) Post-Mauryan Magadha
(b) He expanded his empire both through matrimonial
(c) Medieval Rajasthan (d) Early medieval Kashmir
alliances and conquests
[2006-II]
(c) He married a Naga princess, named Kubera Naga
7. The king Pulakesin II belonged to which Dynasty ?
(a) Cholas (b) Cheras (d) He married his daughter Prabhawati to an Ahom prince
(c) Chalukyas (d) Chedis [2006-II] 16. Which one of the following was the official language of
8. Which one of the following chronological orders of the given Gupta period ? [2009-II]
dynasties of India is correct ? [2006-II] (a) Pali (b) Magadhi
(a) Maurya-Nanda-Kanva-Sunga (c) Prakrit (d) Sanskrit
(b) Nanda-Maurya-Sunga-Kanva 17. The notion of saptanga that was introduced in Arthashastra
(c) Nanda-Maurya-Kanva-Sunga includes [2010-I]
(d) Maurya-Nanda-Sunga-Kanva (a) kings, territory, administration and treasury
9. Who of the following was a contemporary of Alexander, the (b) music, dance, ragas and wrestling
Great? (c) ministers, civil servants, subalterns and those involved
(a) Bimbisara (b) Chandragupta Maurya in espionage
(c) Ashoka (d) Pushyamitra Sunga (d) aristocrats, acharyas, traders and monks .
[2007-I] DIRECTIONS (Qs. 18-21) : The next four (4) items are based on
10. Gautam Buddha delivered his first sermon at which one of the Table given below
the following places?
(a) Kushinagar (b) Sarnath Match List I with List II, List III and List IV and select the correct
(c) Bodh Gaya (d) Lumbini [2007-II] answer using the code given below :
EBD_7348
List I List II List III

(Ruler ) (Important Battle) (Dynasty) (Significant work)
A. Ashoka 1. Against several rulers of I. Kushana i. Writer and poet, patron of
Northern and southern India learning besides an empire builder
B. Samudragupta 2. Kalinga war II. Maurya ii. Political conquest, patron of

learning
C. Kanishka 3. Battle of Pundravardhana III. Pushpavati iii. Holding the 4th Buddhist Council
and patron of learning
D. Harshavardhana 4. Against the Chinese and the IV. Gupta iv. Spread of Dharma, ahimsa and
Parthians welfare activities
18. List I List II List III List IV [2010-II] 24. Which one among the following is not the characteristic
(a) A 1 II (iv) feature of the Harappan settlement? [2011-II]
(b) A 2 II (iv) (a) Doorways and windows generally faced the side lanes
(c) B 1 IV (iii) and rarely opened onto the main streets
(d) B 2 IV (iii) (b) Houses generally had separate bathing areas and
19. List I List II List III List IV [2010-II] toilets
(a) C 4 I (iii) (c) The citadel was walled but the lower town was not
(b) D 3 III (i) walled
(c) C 4 I (i) (d) Drains and water chutes from the second storey were
(d) D 3 III (ii) often built inside the wall
20. List I List II List III List IV [2010-II] 25. Which one among the following is not true with regard to
(a) B 1 aIII (i) Rig Veda Samhita? [2011-II]
(b) C 4 IV (ii) (a) There are about 300 non-Indo- European words in Rig
(c) B 1 IV (ii) Veda
(d) C 4 III (i) (b) There is a reference to dasarajna (battle of ten kings)
21. List I List II List III List IV [2010-II] in the Rig Veda
(a) A 1 II (iii) (c) It is mentioned in the Rig Veda that the Bharata chief
(b) D 3 III (ii) Sudas fought against a confederacy of ten tribes
(c) A 1 II (iii) (d) Purus sided with Bharata in the battle of ten kings
(d) D 3 III (i)
26. Which of the following statements relating to the
22. Consider the following statements [2011-I]
Government of India Act of 1935 are correct? [2011-II]
1. The Buddhists in Deccan excavated rock-cut Chaityas
1. It introduced provincial autonomy.
and the Vaishnavas, Shaivas and Jainas imitated these
in later centuries. 2. It proposed a federation of India.
2. The Vaishnavas, Shaivas and Jainas excavated temples 3. It proposed for the establishment of a Federal Court.
at sites far distant from rock-cut Chaityas. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 27. The themes of the murals of the Ajanta Caves are
23. Which one among the following statements is not correct? 1. Decorative designs which include a variety of animals,
[2011-I] trees and flowers.
(a) Gandhara School of Arts owed its origin to the Indo- 2. Portraits of various Buddhas and Bodhiysattvas.
Greek rulers but the real patrons of the school were the 3. Narrative scenes portraying Jataka stories. [2011-II]
Kushans, especially Kanishka Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b) Rich carving, elaborate ornamentations and complex (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
symbolism were not the main features of the Gandhara
sculpture
28. The terra-cotta plough of the Harappan civilization was
(c) The Graeco-Roman architectural impact modified the
found at [2012-I]
structure of the Buddhist Stupas
(d) The artists of the Amravati School of Arts mainly used (a) Mohenjo-daro (b) Banawali
white marble (c) Kalibangan (d) Lothal
Ancient India G-139
29. Consider the following statements relating to Jain literature : Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[2012-I] (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. The sacred books of the Jainas are known as Siddhanta (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
or Agama. 36. Megasthenes was a [2014-II]
2. The language of the earliest Jain texts is eastern dialect (a) Greek ambassador to the court of Chandragupta
of Pali known as Ardha Magadhi. Maurya
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Greek trader during Ashoka’s time
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Greek trader in the Gupta period
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Chinese pilgrim during Harsha’s time
30. Which one among the following cities was the best producer 37. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
of silk cloth under Gupta reign ? [2012-II] appearance of the poet-saints of the Bhakti-Sufi tradition?
(a) Pataliputra (b) Murshidabad [2014-II]
(c) Ghazipur (d) Varanasi (a) Basavanna–Appar (b) Appar – Mira Bai
31. Which one among the following is not correct about the – Mira Bai – Lal Ded – Lal Ded–Basavanna
cave paintings at Ajanta ? [2012-II] (c) Appar – Basavanna (b) Basavanna – Mira Bai
(a) Scenes have no dividing frame and blend into each – Lal Ded–Mira Bai – Lal Ded–Appar
other 38. Harappan crafts display an amazing degree of
(b) Scenes are both religious and secular in nature standardization. According to Kenoyer, what was the
(c) The influence of the Gandhara art is seen possible reason for such an achievement ?
(d) Scenes mostly depict tales from Jatakas (a) Availability of raw materials at local level
32. The greatest stylistic forms of temple architecture during (b) Centralized markets for crafts
the early medieval period were the Nagara, the Dravida and (c) Specialized training centres for craftsmen
the Vesara. Which of the following was the geographical (d) State control
spread of the Dravida style? [2013-I]
39. Consider the following statements about Ashokan rock
(a) Between Vindhyan and Krishna river edicts :
(b) Between Krishna and Kaveri rivers 1. Major Rock Edict XIII records Ashoka's remorse at the
(c) Between Vindhyan and Kaveri river sufferings caused by his Kalinga campaign.
(d) Between Godavari and Krishna rivers 2. Major Rock Edict X records Ashoka's visit to Lumbini.
DIRECTION (Qs. 33): The following items consists of two 3. Major Rock Edict XII refers to Dhamma Mahamattas
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine as a new category of officers instituted by Ashoka.
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these 4. Major Rock Edict XII speaks about showing tolerance
items using the code given below. towards all sects.
[2014-II] Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Code: (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4
the correct explanation of Statement I. 40. Which one of the following is the common element among
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is Rajagriha, Vaishali and Pataliputra ?
not the correct explanation of Statement I. (a) Pali canon of the Sthaviravadins was compiled there
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (b) Ashokan Major Rock Edicts were found there
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (c) Places where Buddhist Councils were held
33. Statement I: (d) Places associated with the compilation of Buddhist
The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were canons of the Mahasanghikas
issued by the Kushanas. 41. Which one among the following sects was associated with
Statement II: Gosala Maskariputra ?
The first gold coins were issued by the Kushanas. (a) Vajrayana (b) Ajivikas
34. Who among the following was associated with the (c) Sthaviravadins (d) Mahasanghikas
formulation of the basic ideas of the Mahayana Buddhism? 42. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
[2014-II] the code given below the Lists: [2015-II]
(a) Nagarjuna (b) Kashyapa Matanga List I List II
(c) Menander (d) Kanishka (Dynasty) (Architecture)
35. Consider the following statements about Harappan Culture: A. Chalukyas 1. Sun Temple, Konark
[2014-II] B. Hoysalas 2. Pattadakal Temples
1. The Harappan Culture matured in Sind and Punjab. C. Pandyas 3. Kesava Temple,
2. It spread from there to Southwards and Eastwards Somnathpur
3. The area, where it spread, was bigger than Egypt and D. Eastern Gangas 4. Eastern gopura of
Mesopotamia. Chidambaram Temple
EBD_7348
Code: 2. The most striking feature of this style is its pyramidal
A B C D shikhara.
(a) 1 3 2 4 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) 1 2 3 4 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 4 3 1 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 2 3 4 1 47. Ashoka's connection with Buddhism is evident from which
43. Consider the following statements about Rashtrakuta kings: one of the following edicts? [2017-II]
(a) Major Rock Edict 13 (b) Rock Edict 6
[2016-I]
(c) Minor Rock Edict 1 (d) Pillar Edict 4
1. They were ardent patrons of Shaivism and did not
48. In the Mesopotamian records, which one of the following
support other forms of religion.
terms was used for the Indus Valley (Harappans)?
2. They promoted only Sanskrit scholars and gave them
[2017-II]
large grants
(a) Dilmun (b) Meluha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Magan (d) Failaka
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 49. Which of the following is/are NOT historical biography/
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 biographies? [2018-I]
44. Consider the following statements: [2016-I] 1. Dipavamsa 2. Harshacharita
1. The Arthashastra is the first Indian text to define a 3. Vikramankadevacharita 4. Prithvirajavijaya
State. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
2. The main concerns of the Arthashastra are theoretical (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
issues like the origins of the state. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 50. Which of the following clans are included in the Agnikula
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Rajputs? [2018-I]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Pratiharas 2. Chaulukyas
45. Consider the following statements: [2016-II] 3. Paramaras 4. Chahamanas
1. Periplus is a Greek word meaning sailting around. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
2. Erythraean was the Greek name for the Mediterranean (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Sea. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 51. Which one of the following rivers was earlier known as
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only “Vitasta” ? [2019-I]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Tista (b) Jhelum
46. Consider the following statements about the Nagara style (c) Tungabhadra (d) Bharatpuzha
of temple architecture : [2017-II] 52. In the Manusmriti which form of marriage results from the
“Voluntary union of a maiden and her lover” ? [2019-I]
1. This style of temples are commonly found in the areas
(a) Eighth form (b) Fifth form
between Himalayas and Vindhyas.
(c) Seventh form (d) Sixth form
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 7 (c) 13 (d) 19 (a) 25 (a) 31 (a) 37 (c) 43 (d) 49 (a)
2 (c) 8 (b) 14 (b) 20 (c) 26 (a) 32 (d) 38 (d) 44 (a) 50 (c)
3 (b) 9 (b) 15 (b) 21 (b) 27 (a) 33 (c) 39 (a) 45 (a) 51 (b)
4 (b) 10 (b) 16 (c) 22 (a) 28 (b) 34 (a) 40 (c) 46 (a) 52 (d)
5 (d) 11 (c) 17 (a) 23 (c) 29 (a) 35 (d) 41 (b) 47 (c)
6 (d) 12 (d) 18 (b) 24 (b) 30 (b) 36 (a) 42 (d) 48 (b)
Ancient India G-141
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (c) Gandhara sculpture art is associated to Kushanas and 24. (b) Harrapa is an archaeological site in Punjab, Pakistan. It
it was developed during the period of Kanishka. This is ruin of bronz age satisfied city It had 23,500
style is also called as Greek Buddh style. Its main centre inhabitates which was very large for its times people
is Bamian Swats Afghanistan. from this civilization had common toilets and bathing
4. (b) Chalukya ruler Pulkesin II checked Emperor areas.
Harshavardhan’s expedition in South India. Pulkesin II 25. (a) Rigveda Samhita is an ancient Indian sacred collection
had not let Harshavardhan come across Narmada of vedic sanskrit hymns. It is among the worlds oldest
accoding to its Ahole inscrption. religions texts. The question of non-Indo Europeqan
5. (d) The chronological order of these visitor is as follows: world being included in the original text does not arise.
Megasthanes (4th century BC); Fa-Hien (4th century 26. (a) The Act was actually very long and had to be split into
AD); Huen-Tsang (7th century AD); Alberuni (12th 2 parts. The section relating to Burma were seperated.
century AD) The provinces did become autonomous but the
6. (d) Kalhana was the courtier of Kshmandera of Kashmir. governers and the British authorities had the power to
7. (c) Pulkesin II was the greatest Chalukya king. He defeated suspend the provincial government.
Harsh on bank of Narmada. 27. (a) Ajanta caves are 29 rock cut cave monuments which
8. (b) Ruling period of given dynasties is as follows : date from 2nd century B.C. They have Buddhist
religions art and depict Jataka tales. In 1819, John Smith
Nanda (344 BC-323 BC); Maurya (323 BC-184 BC);
a British army officer rediscovered the cave while on a
Sunga (184 BC- 75 BC) and Kanva (75 BC- 30BC)
hunting expedition. Paintings cover every surface
9. (b) Chandra Gupta Maurya was the founder of Maurya except the floor.
dynasty. Megosthenes, the Greek ambaseddor lived in
28. (b) "Cotton was woven and dyed for clothing; wheat, rice,
her court.
and a variety of vegetables and fruits were cultivated;
10. (b) After enlighted, Buddha journeyed to the Sarnath and a number of animals, including the humped bull,
where he preached his first sermon to his five disciples. were domesticated," as well as "fowl for fighting".
12. (d) The twenty-fourth and last Tirthankara was 29. (a) Agam Literature-This consists of original scriptures
Vardhamana Mahavira born in 540 BC. In 468 BC, he complied by Gandharas and Srut-kevalis. They are
died at the age of 72. Gautam born about 566 BC and written in the Prakrit language. Non-agam Literature-
died at the age of 80 (about 487 BC). This consists of commentary and explanation of Agam
13. (d) Both Gautam Buddha and Vardhman Mahavir were literature and independent works, complied by elder
contemporary to each other and founded their monks, nuns, and scholars. They are written in many
respectrive religions better known as Buddhism and languages such as Prakrit, Sanskrit, Old Marathi,
Jainism in India. Gujarati, Hindi, Kannad, Tamil, German, and English.
14. (b) Buddha attained Parinirvana at Kushinagar in Uttar 30. (b) The Gupta Empire was ruled by members of the Gupta
Pradesh. dynasty from around 320 to 550 AD and covered most
15. (b) Chandragupta Maurya-II expanded his kingdom/empire of North-central India, Gupta Empire (never included
through matrimonial relationship and conquests. Pakistan); and what is now western India and
16. (c) During Gupta period, Sanskrit was the official language. Bangladesh. The time of the Gupta Empire is referred
17. (a) Kautilya wrote Arthashastra in which the notion of to as Golden Age of India in science, mathematics,
saptanga is mentioned including kings, territory, astronomy, religion and philosophy.
administration and treasury. 31. (a) The Ajanta Caves in Aurangabad district of
18. (b) Maurya dynasty came into force in 321 BC. to 185 BC. Maharashtra, India are about 30 rock-cut Buddhist cave
in Magadha. The empire was formed by Chandragupta monuments which date from the 2nd century BCE to
Maurya after assessinating Ghananada. Kaling war (261 about 480 or 650 CE.
BC) is most remarkable event in the Ashoka’s reign. 32. (d) Dravidian style temples consist almost invariably of
After this devastaling war the empire experienced half the three following parts, arranged in differing manners,
a century of peace and security under Ashoka. but differing in themselves only according to the age
20. (c) Samudragupta (335-380 AD) is the second ruler in Gupta in which they were executed: porches or Mandapams,
Dynasty. which always cover and precede the door leading to
21. (b) Harshvardhan was the renowned king of Vardhan the cell. Gate-pyramids, Gopurams, which are the
dynasty. He was the last ancient ruler who unified the principal features in the quadrangular enclosures that
north India in one segment. Bana Bhatta wrote surround the more notable temples. Gopurams are very
Harshcharita. common in Dravidian temples. Pillared halls (Chaultris
22. (a) A Chaitya is a Buddhist shrine including a stupa. or Chawadis) are used for many purposes and are the
EBD_7348
invariable accompaniments of these temples. Besides 44. (a) The title "Arthashastra" is often translated to "the
these, a temple always contains tanks or wells for water science of politics", but the book Arthashastra has a
– to be used for sacred purposes or the convenience broader scope. It includes books on the nature of
of the priests – dwellings for all the grades of the government, law, civil and criminal court systems,
priesthood are attached to it, and other buildings for ethics, economics, markets and trade, the methods for
state or convenience. screening ministers, diplomacy, theories on war, nature
33. (c) The Indo Greek coins issued by the Greek rulers of peace, and the duties and obligations of a king.
between the second century BC to second century 46. (a) Ancient Indian temples are classified in three broad
A.D were bilingual in Greek and Arabic and carried types. Three main style of temple architecture are the
legends in Greek. The Kushan Dynasty introduced Nagara or the Northern style, the Dravida or the
gold coins for the first time in Indian coinage. Southern style and the Vesara or Mixed style.
34. (a) Nagarjuna was a Buddhist philosopher who is The temples of North an d South India were
considered to be the founder of the distinguished on the basis of some specific features
Madhyamaka(Madhyamika) school of Mahayana like sikhara and gateways. In the north Indian temples,
Buddhism. the sikhara remained the most prominent component
35. (d) Harappan culture developed and matured in to man while the gateway was generally unassuming. The
urban civilization that developed in Sind and most prominent features of South Indian temples were
Punjab.From there it spread southwards Southwards enclosures around the temples and the Gopurams (huge
and estwardsEastwards.Its area was 1,299,600 sq gateways).
km,which is a larger area than that of Pakistan and 47. (c) The Edicts of Ashoka are a collection of more than
certainly larger than Egypt and Mesopotamia. thirty inscriptions on the pillars as well as boulders
36 (a) Megasthenes was a Greek ambassador to the court of and cave walls, made by Emperor Ashoka of the
Chandragupta Maurya. He was also the author of the Mauryan Empire during his reign, from 268 BCE to 232
book Indica. BCE. Ashoka used the expression DhaCma Lipi to
37. (c) The correct sequence is- describe his own Edicts.
Appar- 7th century CE In the Major Rock Edict I, King prohibited animal
Basavanna- 1134- 1196 CE slaughter especially during the festive gatherings.
Lal Ded- 1320-1392 CE 48. (b) The Meluhha were most probably the inhabitants of
Mira Bai- 1498- 1557 CE the Indus Valley Civilization. They traded with the
38. (d) Kenoyer has suggested that state control may have Mesopotamian Sumer civilization.
been responsible for high level of standardisation in 49. (a) Dipavamsa is not a historical biography. It is the
crafts that were considered to have a value in earliest extant chronicle of Sri Lanka, of unknown
maintaining the socio-economic or ritual order and authorship, deals with the history of the island from
which used non-local raw materials and highly complex earliest times up to the reign of Mahasena (325-352).
technologies.
50. (c) The term Rajput starts coming in use from the 6th
39. (a) The statements 1 and 4 are correct.
Century AD. They rose to prominence from the 6th
40. (c) The First Buddhist council immediately following the
century till 12th century and kept ruling in different
death of the Buddha and the Second Buddhist council
in the reign of Ashoka occurred in Patliputra and parts of the country from Sultanate to Mughal Era and
Rajgira. The Second Buddhist Council occurred in as rulers of the princely states till the departure of
Vaisali. British from the country in 1947. This theory of
41. (b) Makkhali Gosala (Pali; Sanskrit Gosala Maskariputra, Agnikula comes from th e Prithvirajraso of
c. 484 BCE) as the founder of the Ajivika sect; other Chandarbardai. This theory says that the forefathers
sources state that Gosala was only a leader of a large of the Rajputs were born at Mount Abu. The four
Ajivika congregation of ascetics, but not the founder Rajput clans from Agnikunda are Chauhans,
of the movement himself. Chalukyas, Parmaras and Pratiharas.
42. (d) Pattadakal, also spelled Pa??adakallu, is an UNESCO 51. (b) The river Jhelum is called Vitasta in the Rigveda. The
inscribed World Heritage site. It is 22 km from Badami, Vitasta is mentioned as one of the major rivers by the
and about 10 km from Aihole, both of which are well holy scriptures of the Indo-Aryans- the Rigveda. It
known for Chalukya monuments. The Keshava temple has been speculated that the Vitasta must have been
is one of the finest and most complete examples of one of the seven rivers (Sapta Sindhu) mentioned so
Hoysala architecture and is also one of the best many times in the Rigveda.
preserved Hoysala temples. Konark Sun Temple is a
13th-century Sun Temple at Konark in Orissa, India. It
is believed that the temple was built by king
Narasimhadeva I of Eastern Ganga Dynasty in 1255
CE.
Medieval India 16
1. Who was the Delhi Sultan when the threat of invasion by (a) Ahadis (b) Mansabhdars
Mongols under Changez Khan loomed over India ? [2006-I] (c) Muhtasibs (d) Walashuhis
(a) Illtutmish (b) Balban 9. Which one of the following dynasties built the Khajuraho
(c) Jalauddin Khalji (d) Alauddin Khalji temple? [2008-I]
2. Who fought the battle of Waihand ? [2006-I] (a) Chandellas (b) Chauhans
(a) Anandapala and Mahmud Ghazni (c) Paramaras (d) Tomars
(b) Jayapala and Muhammad Ghori 10. Between whom was the Battle of Khanwa (1527) fought?
(c) Prithviraj Chauhan and Muhammad Ghori [2008-I]
(d) Jaichandra and Bakhtuyar Khalji (a) Ibrahim Lodi and Rana Sanga
3. Which of the following Mughal emperors spent a greater (b) Babar and Rana Sanga
part of his reign to overthrow the Deccan Kingdoms? (c) Humayun and Sher Khan
[2006-I] (d) Humayun and Nusrat Shah
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir 11. Which Sultan declared himself as Sikandar-i Sani, the
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb second Alexander? [2008-I]
4. Consider the following statements: [2006-II] (a) Balban (b) Kaiqubad
1. A war of succession started among the four sons of (c) Iltutmish (d) Alauddin Khalji
the Emperor Shahjahan in 1657 A.D. 12. Who among the following had constructed the Red Fort in
2. There was no codified Law of Succession for the Delhi ? [2008-II]
Mughal dynasty. (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (c) Shah-Jahan (d) Aurangzeb
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 13. Who among the following was the author of Tarikh-i-Alai,
which contains the details of the first few years of Sultan
Alauddin Khilji ? [2009-I]
5. Who among the following Sultans of Delhi was the first to
(a) Ziauddin Barani (b) Shams Siraj Afif
have paid to his soldiers in cash ? [2006-II]
(c) Amir Khusrau (d) Yahiya Bin Ahmad
(a) Iltutmish
14. Match List I wht List II and select the correct answer using
(b) Alauddin Khalji
the correct codes given below the lists : [2009-I]
(c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(d) Feroz Tughlaq List I List II
6. Between whom was the Battle of Chausa fought? [2007-I] (Battle) (Year)
(a) Bahadur Shah of Gujarat and Humayun A 1st Battle of Panipat 1 1565
(b) Humayun and Sher Khan B Battle of Plassey 2 1526
(c) Akbar and Rana Pratap C Battle of Haldighati 3 1757
(d) Jehangir and Rana Amar Singh D Battle of Thalikota 4 1576
7. During the reign of Alauddin Khilji, who were amils ? Codes:
[2007-I] (a) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1 (b) A-2; B-4; C-3; D-1
(a) Local landlords at village level (c) A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2 (d) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
(b) Government agents to collect land revenue 15. Who among the following was the first Muslim Military
(c) Khurasani and Multani traders of foodgrains Commander who annexed Bihar and Bengal by overthrowing
(d) Banjaras who carried the food-grains from villages to the Sena dynasty ? [2009-II]
towns. (a) Mahmud Gawan (b) Bakhtiyar Khilji
8. During Aurangzeb’s reign, whose duty was it to see that (c) Adil Shahis (d) Shams-ud-din
people lived their lives in accordance with the ‘Sharia’? 16. Muhammad bin Tughlaq's experiment of introducing token
[2007-II] currency could not succeed on account of [2012-I]
EBD_7348
(a) rejection of token coins by foreign merchants 23. Name the calligrapher in Akbar's court who was honoured
(b) shortage of copper for minting token coins with the title "Zarrin Kalam" or Golden Pen [2017-I]
(c) large-scale minting of spurious coins (a) Abul Fazl
(d) poor quality of token currency (b) Tansen
17. Consider the following statements : [2013-I] (c) Muhammad Husayn
(1) The Ain-i Akbari is the third book in the Akbarnama (d) Muhammad Kasim
written during the reign fo the Mughal Emperor, Akbar. 24. Who among the following was the author of the Badshah
(2) Abul Fazl was was the author of the first two books of Nama? [2017-I]
the Akbarnama while Akbar was the author of the third. (a) Abdul Hamid Lahori (b) Abul Fazal
(3) The best known accounts of illustrated Mughal offical (c) Shah Jahan (d) Sadullah Khan
25. Which one of the following statements about Fatehpur Sikri
reports are the Akbarnama and the Babarnama.
is NOT correct? [2017-I]
(a) It was located on the direct road to Ajmer
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (b) Akbar commissioned the building of a marble tomb for
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Sheikh Salim Chisti next to the Friday mosque at
DIRECTION (Q. 18): The following items consists of two Fatehpur Sikri
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine (c) The arched gateway or Bulund Darwaza was meant to
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these remind visitors of the Mughal victory in Gujarat
items using the code given below. (d) In 1585, the capital of the Mughal emperor shifted from
Code: Fatehpur Sikri to Delhi
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is 26. Who among the following was the founder of the Avadh
the correct explanation of Statement I. Kingdom in the 18th century? [2017-II]
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is (a) Murshid Quli Khan (b) Saadat Khan
not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Alivardi Khan (d) Sarfaraz Khan
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 27. Which one of the following travelogues has given an
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. insight on the reign of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq? [2017-II]
[2014-II] (a) Ibn Battuta's Rihla
18. Statement I: Jahandar Shah’s reign came to an early end in (b) Francois Bernier's Travels in the Mogul Empire
(c) Niccolao Manucci's Storia do Mogor
January 1713.
(d) Tavernier's Travels in India
Statement II: He was defeated at Agra by Farrukhsiyar, his
28. Which one of the following was not a Chishti Sufi saint?
nephew. (a) Khwaja Moinuddin [2017-II]
19. Who among the following was associated with the Mughal (b) Baba Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar
Court as a physician to Prince Dara Shukoh'? [2015-II] (c) Nizamuddin Auliya
(a) Hakim Afzal Khan (b) lbn Battuta (d) Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya
(c) Francois Bernier (d) Duarte Barbosa 29. Who gifted the Badshah Nama to King George in 1799?
20. The Vijayanagara Empire received its death blow at the battle [2018-I]
of: [2015-II] (a) Abul Fazl
(a) Talikota in 1565 (b) Panipat in 1661 (b) Abdul Hamid Lahori
(c) Talikota in 1665 (d) Raichur in 1510 (c) Nawab of Awadh
21. Consider the following statements about the travellers who (d) William Jones
visited India: [2015-II] 30. What is the name of the award given to meritorious men in
1. Abdur Razzaq Samarqandi from Herat visited Delhi the Mughal Court in the form of a robe of honour that was
and Daulatabad. once worn by the Emperor? [2018-I]
2. Ibn Battuta provides detailed accounts of both Delhi (a) Sarapa (b) Patka
and Daulatabad. (c) Padma murassa (d) Khilat
3. According to Francois Bernier there was no private 31. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
property in land in Mughal India. [2018-I]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Traveller Country from
1. Marco Polo Italy
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
2. Ibn Battuta Morocco
3. Nikitin Russia
22. Consider the following statements about Sufism in India: 4. Seydi Ali Reis Turkey
1. Pilgrimage called ziyarat to tombs of Sufi saints is an (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
important feature. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only
2. The most influential group of Sufis in India were the 32. Who among the following was the author of Humayun
Chishtis. Nama? [2018-I]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Roshanara Begum
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) Ruquaiya Sultan Begum
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Gulbadan Begum
(d) Gauhara Begum
Medieval India G-145
DIRECTION (Q. 33) : The following items consist of two 35. Who among the following travelers was from Italy and vis-
statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two ited Vijayanagar Kingdom in the fifteenth century? [2018-II]
statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code (a) Nikitin (b) Fa-Hien
given below.
Code: (c) Bernier (d) Nicolo Conti
DIRECTION (Q.36) : The following 3 (three) items consist of
two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these
two statements carefully and select the correct answer using
(b) Both the statements are individually true but State- the code given below :
ment II is not the correct explanation of Statement I Code :
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (a) Both the statements are individually true and
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
[2018-II] (b) Both the statements are individually true and
33. Statement I : Mughal Painting reached its climax during the Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of
reign of Jahangir. Statement I
Statement II : Aurangzeb's Court was adorned by some of (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
the best known artists of the Mughal School of Painting. (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
34. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? [2019-I]
[2018-II]
Bhakti Saint Philosophy 36. Statement I : Abul Fazl shaped, represented and articulated
(a) Shankara : Avadhuta the ideas associated with the reign of Akbar
(b) Ramananda : Kevaladvaita Statement II : The qualities of Abul Fazl impressed Akbar
(c) Ramanuja : Vishishtadvaita who found the former suitable as an adviser and
(d) Chaitanya : Advita spokesperson for his policies
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 5 (b) 9 (a) 13 (c) 17 (d) 21 (d) 25 (d) 29 (c) 33 (c)
2 (a) 6 (b) 10 (b) 14 (a) 18 (a) 22 (c) 26 (b) 30 (d) 34 (c)
3 (d) 7 (b) 11 (d) 15 (b) 19 (c) 23 (c) 27 (a) 31 (c) 35 (d)
4 (c) 8 (c) 12 (c) 16 (c) 20 (a) 24 (a) 28 (b) 32 (c) 36 (a)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (a) Mangol ruler Changez Khan came to Indian border 9. (a) Khajuraho is a village in the Indian state of Madhya
chasing Jalaluddin Mangbarni of Khwarizm due to Pradesh, located in Chhatarpur District, about 385 miles
which India feared Mangol invasion. At that time southeast of Delhi, the capital city of India. The
Illtutamish was the emperor of Delhi Sultnate. He did Khajuraho group of monuments has been listed as a
not accept to give help to Mangbarni. UNESCO World Heritage site. Khajuraho temples were
3. (d) Aurangzeb spent most of his time in defeating the constructed between 950 and 1050 AD. During the
south dynasties and died at Burhanpur in 1707 A.D. reign of Chandel Empire.
4. (c) In the absnece of a well-defined law of succession a 10. (b) The Battle of Khanwa (1527) was the second of the series
terrible civil war broke out among Shah Jahan’s four of three major battles. The first battle of Panipat was the
sons. Shah Jahan favoured the succession of his eldest first of the series, the battle of Ghaghra was the last.
son, the liberal-minded Dara Shikoh. Aurangzeb, the This battle was fought near the village of Khanwa, about
third son, opposed Shah Jahan. Arriving at Delhi, after 60 km west of Agra on March 17, 1527. Babur defeated a
imprisoning his father at Agra, he crowned himself king formidable army raised by Rana Sanga of Mewar in this
in 1658. battle and firmly established his rule over North India.
5. (b) He was the first ruler of Delhi Sultanate who established 11. (d) The accession of Alauddin Khalji hold on 22nd Oct.,
permanent Army. He is famous for his market reforms. 1296 and some time, he declared himself as Sikandar-i-
6. (b) The Battle of Chausa was fought between Mughal rular Sani, the second Alexander.
Humaun and Sher Khan in 1539. In this battle Sher 13. (c) The author of ‘Tarikh-i-Alai’ was Amir Khusrau. He
Khan defeated Humayun and became India’s emperor. adopted Indian themes and also the first muslim
7. (b) Alauddin taken 50% land tax from farmers. He was the writer who used Hindi words.
first Sultan who measured land for collecting actual 14. (a) First battle of Panipat (1526), Battle of Plassey (1757),
amount of revenue. Battle of Haldighati (1576) and Battle of Thalikota
(1565).
EBD_7348
15. (b) Bakhtiyar Khilji was the first muslim military commander 27. (a) In 1334, Ibn Battuta arrived in India all the way through
who annexed Bihar and Bengal by overthrowing the the mountains of Afghanistan, during the time when
sena dynasty. Tughlaq dynasty was at its height.
16. (c) The large influx of gold from his plundering of south 28. (b) Baba Fariduddin Ganj-i-shakar was not a Chishti Sufi
Indian campaign led him to increase coinage weights. saint. The Chishtti Order is a Sunni Sufi order within
He enlarged the gold dinar from 172 grains to 202 grains. the mystic Sufi tradition of Islam. It began in Chisht, a
He introduced a silver coin, the adlis, which was small town near Herat, Afghanistan about 930 CE.
discontinued after seven years due to lack of popularity 29. (c) Badshanama also referred as Padshanama translated
and acceptance among his subjects. as "chronicler of Emperor" were a number of books
17. (d) The first volume of Akbarnama deals with the birth of which recorded the reign of Mughal Emperor Shah
Akbar, the history of Timur's family and the reigns of Jahan. It became a genre in itself. The most important
Babur and Humayun and the Suri sultans of Delhi. The Badshanama is written by Abdul Hamid Lahori which
second volume describes the detailed history of the was completed by Mohammad Waris by adding third
reign of Akbar till 1602, and records the events during volume to it. The Padshanama was gifted to King
Akbar's reign. The third volume is named Ain-i-Akbari George by Nawab of Avadh in 1799 which is now
and details the administrative system of the Empire as preserved in the Royal Library of United Kingdom.
well as containing the famous "Account of the Hindu 30. (d) The granting of titles to men of merit was an important
Sciences". It also deals with Akbar's household, army,
aspect of Mughal polity. The title Asaf Khan was given
the revenues and the geography of the empire. It also
for one of the highest ministers. Other awards included
produces rich details about the traditions and culture
the robe of honour (khilat), a garment once worn by
of the people living in India. It is famous for its rich
the emperor and imbued with his benediction. One
statistical details about things as diverse as crop yields,
prices, wages and revenues. Baburnama (alternatively gift, the Sarapa ("head to foot"), consisted of a tunic,
known as Tuzk-e Babri) is the name given to the a turban and a sash (patka). Jewelled ornaments were
memoirs of Zahir ud-Din Muhammad Babur (1483 – often given as gifts by the emperor. The lotus blossom
1530), founder of the Mughal Empire and a great-great- set with jewels (padma murassa) was given only in
great-grandson of Timur. exceptional circumstances.
19. (c) François Bernier was a French physician and traveller. 31. (c) All pairs are correctly matched.
He was briefly personal physician to Mughal prince 32. (c) Humayun Nama, the History of Humayun was written
Dara Shikoh, the elder son of the Mughal emperor Shah by Gul-badan Begam, Humayun' s sister. She wrote
Jahan. Humayun nama at the behest of her nephew and at the
20. (a) The Vijayanagara Empire (also called Karnata Empire, emperor of India Jalal-ud-din Muhammad Akbar. Her
and the Kingdom of Bisnegar by the Portuguese) was account of the life and accomplishments of Humayun
based in the Deccan Plateau region in South India. It
is considered very genuine and thorough.
was established in 1336 by Harihara I and his brother
33. (c) Mughal painting reached its climax of glory during the
Bukka Raya I of Sangama Dynasty. It lasted until 1646,
reign of Jahangir. Aurangzeb did not encourage art and
although its power declined after a major military defeat
in 1565 by the Deccan sultanates. thus much of the quality of the Mughal painting was
21. (d) Abd-ur-Razzaq was the ambassador of Shah Rukh, the lost and mass migration of court artists took place.
Timurid dynasty ruler of Persia to Calicut, India, from 34. (c) Ramanuja was an Indian theologian, philosopher.
January 1442 to January 1445. He wrote a 45-page Ramanuja's guru was Yadava Prakasa, a scholar who
narrative of this mission to India. was a part of the more ancient Advaita Vedanta monastic
23. (c) Muhammed Husayn was one of the most famous artists tradition. Ramanuja is famous as the chief proponent
of calligraphy of Akbar's court, who came from Kashmir of Vishishtadvaita subschool of Vedanta, and his
and taught the Mughal Prince. disciples were likely authors of texts such as the
24. (a) The author of the "Badshah Nama" was Abdul Hamid Shatyayaniya Upanishad. Vishishtadvaita is one of the
Lahori. most popular schools of the Vedanta school of Hindu
25. (d) The capital of the Mughal empire shifted from Fatehpur philosophy.
Sikri to Lahore in 1585 due to the exhaustion of the 35. (d) An Italian traveller, Nicolo Conti (1420-1421 AD) visited
small supply of water to city. Again in the year 1598 the Vijayanagar empire during the reign of Devaraya-I
capital shifted to Agra. (theTuluva dynasty ruler). He gave a comprehensive
26. (b) Saadat Ali Khan was the Subahdar Nawab of Awadh account of the Hindu kingdom of Vijayanagar. The
Vijayanagara Empire was based in the Deccan Plateau
from 26 January 1722 to 1739 and the son of
region in South India. It was established in 1336 by
Muhammad Nasir. Harihara I and his brother Bukka Raya I of Sangama
Dynasty.
Modern India 17
1. Who issued firman granting Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and 8. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Orissa to the english ? [2006-I] [2006-II]
(a) Ahmad Shah (b) Bahadur Shah (a) Lord Cornwallis : Subsidiary Alliance
(c) Farrukh Siyar (d) Shah Alam II (b) Lord Dalhousie : Permanent Settlement of Bengal
2. Which one of the following Acts introduced communal (c) Lord Lytton : Doctrine of Lapse
electorate in India? [2006-I] (d) Lord Curzon : Partition of Bengal
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1861 9. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1892 the codes given below the lists : [2006-II]
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1909 List-I List-II
(d) Government of India Act, 1935 (Place of 1857 Revolt) (Leader of Revolt)
3. Consider the following statements: [2006-I] A. Lucknow 1. Maulavi Ahmadullah
1. The East India Company for the first time through the B. Kanpur 2. Kunwar Singh
Charter Act of 1813, adopted a provision to spend one C. Bihar 3. Nana Sahib
lakh rupees per annum for the spread of education in D. Rohilkhand 4. Beghum Hazrat Mahal
India.
A B C D A B C D
2. The Wood's Dispatch of 1854 recommended the
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 1 2 3
establishment of one university each in Calcutta,
Bombay and Madras on the model of the London (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
University. 10. Disciples of which one of the leaders in Bengal during the
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct ? Indian freedom struggle were called Yound Bengal?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only [2006-II]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Keshab Chandra Sen
4. Who founded the Fort William College at Calcutta? (b) Henry Derozio
(a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Ellenborough (c) Surendra Nath Banerjee
(c) Lord Macaulay (d) Lord Wellesley [2006-I] (d) Madhusudan Datta
5. Where was the first Peasant Movement launched by 11. Who among the following leaders was instrumental in the
Mahatma Gandhi ? [2006-I] formation of the Congress Socialist Party ? [2006-II]
(a) Bardoli (b) Dandi (a) P.C. Joshi (b) Subhas Chandra Bose
(c) Champaran (d) Wardha (c) Acharya Narendra Dev (d) Ram Manohar Lohia
6. Who of the following was a founder of the Punjab Naujawan 12. Consider the following:
Bharat Sabha in 1926 ? [2006-I] 1. Bardoli Satyagraha 2. Champaran Satyagraha
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Sardar Bhagat Singh 3. Rowlatt Satyagraha
(c) Lala Hardyal (d) Sohan Singh Bakhna Which one of the following is the correct chronological
7. Consider the following statements: [2006-I] order of the above? [2006-II]
1. The Indian National Congress was formed during the (a) 2 - 3 - 1 (b) 3 - 2 - 1
Viceroyalty of Lord Dufferin. (c) 2 -1 - 3 (d) 1 - 2 - 3
2. The first President of Indian National Congress was 13. Who was the Governor General of India during the Revolt
Woomesh Chandra Banerji. of 1857 ? [2006-II]
3. The first session of the Indian National Congress was (a) Lord Canning (b) Lord Dalhousie
held in Calcutta.
(c) Lord Dufferin (d) Lord Hardinge
4. In the first session of the Indian National Congress
14. Consider the following statements : [2006-II]
some government officials were also present.
1. Consequent to the recommendations of the Simon
Which of the following statements given above are correct ?
Commission, Three Round Table Conferences were
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
held in Simla, Delhi and Calcutta.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EBD_7348
2. The Government of India Act, 1935 contained support 24. Who of the following was associated with the August Offer?
towards self-government which was first proposed in [2007-II]
the Montagu-Chelmsford Report. (a) Lord Wavell (b) Lord Irwin
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (c) Lord Linlithgow (d) Lord Mountbatten
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 25. Which one among the following was fought earliest?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Battle of Ambur (b) Battle of Buxar
15. Which one among the following newspapers was published (c) Battle of Plassey (d) Battle of Wandiwash
first? [2007-I] [2007-II]
(a) The Madras Mail 26. Other than Annie Besant, who among the following also
(b) The Indian Social Reformer launched a Home Rule Movement in India? [2008-I]
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) The Bengal Gazette (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) The Times of India (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
16. Who was the first Indian native ruler to accept the system (d) Moti Lal Nehru.
of Subsidiary Alliance? [2007-I] 27. Who prescribed the separate electorates for India on the
(a) Scindia of Gwalior (b) Nizam of Hyderabad basis of the Communal Award in August, 1932?
(c) Dalip Singh of Punjab (d) Gaikwad of Baroda [2008-I]
17. Who among the following was a founder of the Swaraj (a) Lord Irwin (b) Ramsay MacDonald
Party ? [2007-I] (c) Lord Linlithgo (d) Winston Churchill
(a) Vallabbhai Patel (b) Rajendra Prasad 28. Which one of the following movements started from Dandi?
(c) C. R. Das (d) Narendra Dev [2008-I]
(a) Swadeshi Movement
18. Who among the following national leaders did not opt to
(b) Non-cooperation movement
defend the case dealing with the trial of the soldiers of the
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
Indian National Army in 1945 ? [2007-I]
(d) Quit India Movement
(a) Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru (b) Bhulabhai Desai 29. Consider the following statements: [2008-I]
(c) C. Rajagopalachari (d) Jawaharlal Nehru 1. Panchsheel was signed between People’s Republic of
19. Aruna Asaf Ali was associated with which one of the China and India after the Sino-Indian War in 1962.
following? [2007-I] 2. India and China supporting each other in international
(a) Bardoli Satyagraha forum is one of the principles of Panchsheel.
(b) Quit India Movement (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Khilafat Movement 30. Who among the following annuled the Partition of Bengal?
20. Who was the Governor General of India during the launch [2008-I]
of Civil Disobedience Movement? [2007-I] (a) Lord Chelmsford (b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Minto (d) Lord Hardinge
(a) Lord Chelmsford (b) Lord Reading
31. Who was the first Foreign Minister of free India? [2008-I]
(c) Lord Irwin (d) Lord Wavell
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Gulzari Lal Nanda
21. With reference to the Indian Freedom struggle, which one (c) Lal Bahadur Shastri (d) John Mathai
of the following is the correct chronological order of the
32. Who among the following established Fergusson College
given events ? [2007-I]
at Pune in the Year 1885? [2008-I]
(a) Partition of Bengal - Lucknow Pact - Surat split of (a) Deccan Education society
Congress (b) Bhartiya Sewak Samaj
(b) Partition of Bengal - Surat split of Congress - Lucknow (c) Samaj Sewa Sangh
Pact (d) Theosophical Society
(c) Surat split of Congress - Partition of Bengal- Lucknow 33. By virtue of which Act, dyarchy was introduced in India ?
Pact [2008-I]
(d) Surat split of Congress - Lucknow Pact - Partition of (a) Government of India Act, 1909
Bengal (b) Government of India Act, 1919
22. Due to the leadership and success in which one of the (c) Government of India Act, 1935
following did Vallabhbhai Patel get the title of ‘Sardar”? (d) Government of India Act, 1947
[2007-II] 34. Who among the following first imparted a mass character to
(a) Kheda Satyagraha the Indian National Congress? [2008-II]
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Bardoli Satyagraha (c) Subhash Chadra Bose (d) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement 35. Match List_I with List-II and select the correct answer using
23. Who of the following started Swaraj Party? [2007-II] the code given below the lists: [2008-II]
(a) Bipin Chandra Pal and Rajendra Prasad List-I List-II
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal and Subhash Chandra Bose A. Ryotwari Settlement 1. Singapore
(c) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru B. Formation of Azad 2. Allahabad
(d) C.R. Das and Madan Mohan Malaviya Hind Fauj
Modern India G-149
C. All party conference 3. North-western 1. The Champaran Satyagraha marked Mahatma Gandhi’s
resolution to boycott frontier province first appearance in Indian politics as a leader of the
school, college and law masses.
court in 1920. 2. Young nationalists like Rajendra Prasad and J.B.
D. Referendum held for 4. Madras and Kriplani and worked with Mahatma Gandhi at
provinces to join Pakistan. Bombay presidency Champaran.
A B C D 3. It was during this movement that Mahatma Gandhi
(a) 4 1 2 3 formulated his philosophy of Satyagraha.
(b) 1 2 3 4 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) 4 2 1 3 (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2
(d) 1 3 2 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
36. Who among the following was not associated with the 46. The Passive Resistance Association was first formed by
Mahatma Gandhi in South Africa in 1906 to organize a
Lahore conspiracy case? [2008-II]
campaign against the introduction of [2009-II]
(a) Bhagat Singh (b) Surya Sen
(a) Poll Tax
(c) Rajguru (d) Sukhdev
(b) Certificate of Registration
37. Who among the following had repealed the Vernacular Press
(c) Legislations against Indian Businessmen
Act? [2008-II] (d) Legislations to disenfranchise the Indians
(a) Loard Lytton (b) Lord Ripon 47. What was the effect of the Government of India Act of 1935
(c) Lord Dufferin (d) Lord Lansdowne on the national movement? [2009-II]
38. What is the correct sequence of the following? (a) It strengthened the movement
1. Wavell Plan 2. Radcliff Award (b) It weakened the movement by satisfying the people
3. Cripps Mission 4. Cabinet Mission (c) It weakened the movement, because separate electorate
Select the correct answer using the code given below: for the Muslims and Hindus created dissensions
[2008-II] (d) It weakened the movement, because the Act introduced
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 1, 4, 2 federal system
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 48. The agenda for the London was to [2009-II]
39. Who among the following first used the word’ Swarajya’? (a) discuss the report of the Simon Commission
[2008-II] (b) form a Constitution for India
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (c) find a solution of the communal problem in India
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Swami Vivekananda (d) find a solution for the problems of the ‘depressed
classes’ of India
40. Sati was declared illegal and punishable by the Regulation 49. Consider the following statement and identify with the
XVII during the Governor Generalship of [2009-I] help of the code given below the Viceroy who made the
(a) Lord William Bentinck (b) Lord Canning statement and when:
(c) Lord Ripon (d) Lord Dalhousie In my belief, Congress is tottering to its fall and one of my
41. Which one of the following slogans is attributed of great ambitions while in India is to assist it to a peaceful
Subhash Chandra Bose ? [2009-I] demise. [2010-I]
(a) Jai Jawan Jai Kisan (b) Bande Mataram Code:
(c) Jai Hind (d) Inqilab Zindabad (a) Lord Curzon, in a letter to the Secretary of States in
42. Bande Mataram, the nationalist song, was a part of 1900
[2009-I] (b) Lord Curzon, while announcing the partition of Bengal
(a) Durgesh Nandini (b) Saraswati Chandra (c) Lord Dufferin, during the farewell speech at Calcutta
(c) Grihadaha (d) Anand Math (d) Lord Minto, while addressing the Muslim delegation
43. Who among the following has authored the book Hind which met him at Shimla in 1906
Swaraj ? [2009-I] 50. Which one of the following with regard to the Poona Pact,
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 1932 is not correct? [2010-I]
(b) Mahatma Gandhi (a) Adequate representation of depressed sections in
government jobs
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(b) Reservation of seats for the depressed classes in the
(d) M.G. Ranade
provincial legislature
44. Mahatma Gandhi undertook ‘fast unto death’ against the (c) Acceptance of joint electorate system
Communal Award. He, however, discontinued the fast, (d) Reservation of seats for the depressed classes in the
because [2009-II] central legislature
(a) the Congress leaders successfully prevailed upon 51. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on
Mahatma Gandhi to accept the Award [2010-I]
(b) the British Government with drew the Communal Award (a) the principle of federation and parliamentary system
(c) of the conclusion of the Poona Pact (b) the principle of secession of the British Indian
(d) the weaker classes openly opposed the Award provinces
45. Consider the following statements with regard to Champaran (c) acceptance of independence of India
(d) acceptance of the idea of a constituent assembly to
Satyagraha (1917) [2009-II]
draft a constitution
EBD_7348
52. Which of the following statements with regard to freedom II. The entire political process of S-T-S was an upward
struggle are correct ? [2010-I] spiraling one, which also assumed that the freedom
1. The British rule could prevail in India on the basis of struggle would pass through several stages, ending
the consent or acquiescence of many sections of Indian with the transfer of power by the colonial regime itself.
people. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. The social basis of the colonial regime was among the (a) I only (b) II only
Zamindars and upper classes. (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
3. The Indian National Army forced the British to 59. Consider the following statements relating to Jawaharlal
withdraw from India. Nehru's attitude towards science and technology.
4. The Hindu Mahasabha supported the partition of I. Nehru was convinced that science and technology
India. were crucial to the solution of India's problems relating
Select the correct answer using the code given below: to underdevelopment and poverty
Code:
II. To emphasize the importance of science and scientific
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
research, Nehru himself became the Chairman of the
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
53. Which one of the following statements with regard to ‘Direct
Action Day’ is correct? [2010-I]
(a) Hasan Suhrawardy presided over the ‘Direct Action (a) I only (b) II only
Day’ (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
(b) ‘Direct Action’ took place in Delhi 60. Which among the following statements with regard to Raja
(c) ‘Direct Action Day’ led to the Bihar riot Rammohan Roy are correct? [2010-II]
(d) ‘Direct Action’ was endorsed by the Congress Party I. He started the Atmiya Sabha
54. Planning in India drew on [2010-I] II. He wrote the Gift of Monotheist
(a) the New Economic Programme of Lenin III. He published the Precepts of Jesus
(b) the Fabian Socialism of Sidney and Beatrice Webb IV. He founded the Brahmo Sabha
(c) the British welfare mechanism Select the correct answer using the code given below
(d) new democratic development packages (a) II, III and IV only (b) I, II, and III only
55. The Haripura Congress (1938) remains a milestone in Indian (c) I, III and IV only (d) I, II, III and IV
freedom struggle, because [2010-I] 61. Which one among the following was not a demand of the
(a) it declared war on the British Empire early congress (1885-1905)? [2010-II]
(b) it anointed Jawahar Lal Nehru as the future Prime (a) Indianization of the superior grades of the
Minister of India administrative services
(c) of the introduction of the idea of a planning commission
(b) Purna Swaraj/complete independence
(d) of the acceptance of the Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Abolition of the Arms Act
by the Congress
56. In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi was critical of railways, (d) Autonomy within the empire
because they are [2010-I] DIRECTIONS (Qs. 62-64) : The next three (03) items are based
1. carriers of plague germs on the passage given below.
2. instruments for frequency of famines
The myth is that the Indian National Congress was started by
3. responsible for creating class division in the society
A.O. Hume and others under the official direction, guidance and
4. accident-prone
advice of no less a person than Lord Dufferin, the Viceroy, to
provide a safe, mild, peaceful and constitutional outlet of safety-
Code: valve for the rising discontent among the masses, which was
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 inevitably leading towards a popular and violent revolution.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 Consequently, the revolutionary potential was nipped in the bud.
57. Mahatma Gandhi and Rabindranath Tagore did not define Most writers accept the core of the myth, that a violent revolution
India as a ‘nation’, because they were [2010-I] was on the cards at the time and was avoided only by the
(a) appreciative of cultural divisiveness foundations of the congress,........ All of them agree that the manner
(b) opposed to the idea of homogeneity of its birth affected the basic character and future work of the
(c) supportive of ‘oneness’ congress in a crucial manner. [2010-II]
(d) critical of hegemonic culture 62. The colonial rulers, according to the safety valve thesis,
58. Consider the following statements relating to Gandhian were trying to use congress as
strategy of Satyagraha [2010-II] (a) a constitutional outlet for the mass discontent against
I. Under the Gandhian strategy, which may be described the authorities
as Struggle-Truce-Struggle (S-T-S), phase of a vigorous (b) an instrument for the spread of British culture in India
extra-legal mass movement and confrontation with (c) an instrument to expand the Indian market for the
colonial authority alternate with phases, during which products of British industries
direct confrontation is withdrawn. (d) an agency· for social change in India.
Modern India G-151
63. The author describes the safety-valve thesis as a myth 69. The Rowlatt Act was passed to [2011-I]
because (a) bring about agrarian reforms
(a) evidence are insufficient to establish the validity of (b) curtail the nationalist and revolutionary activities
the thesis. (c) have a favourable balance of trade
(b) the author has concluded that in the light of available (d) put Second World War criminals on trial
materials the thesis does not hold ground. 70. Consider the following statements. [2011-I]
(c) the congress was a nationalist organization right from 1. The Champaran Satyagraha marked Gandhiji’s second
the start. appearance in Indian politics as a leader of the masses.
(d) the violent anti-colonial movements did not come to 2. The Champaran Satyagraha was launched to address
an end with the foundation of the congress. the problems faced by Indigo plantation workers.
64. The core of the safety-valve thesis rests on the assumption [2011-I]
that Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) a violent anti-colonial revolution was bound to occur (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
unless a constitutional platform like the congress was (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
founded. 71. Consider the following statements.
(b) the congress would assist the British in administering 1. Charles Wood’s Despatch of 1854 laid exclusive
the colony. emphasis on the development of higher education in
(c) the congress leaders would constitute the colonial elite. India and neglected primary and secondary education.
(d) the congress as a party would assist the colonial rulers 2. The Carlyle Circular issued by RW Carlyle sought to
to implement political and social reforms. check the spread of revolutionary activities in
65. Which among the following statements are correct with educational institutions. [2011-I]
regard to the Portuguese in India? [2010-II] Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. They had the monopoly over the Eastern trade in the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
16th Century (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
II. They possessed Mumbai in the beginning 72. Consider the following statements about Gandhiji’s thinking
III. They had trading settlements at Cochin, Diu and Daman on environment. [2011-I]
IV. The Mughals denied them any trading concessions 1. His environmental thinking is rooted in his larger
Select the correct answer using her code given below philosophical and moral thinking.
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV 2. He preferred sustainable environmental practices to
(c) I, II and IV (d) I and III only nourish the soil and the natural world.
66. Consider the following declaration and identify the person 3. He laid emphasis on the rigorous ethic of non-injury in
who made it using the codes given below. The times has our treatment of animals.
come when badges of honour make our shame glaring in their Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
incongruous context of humiliation and I, for my part, wish to (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
stand shorn of all special distinction, by the side of my (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
countrymen who, for their so-called insignificance are liable 73. Which one among the following is common to the Treaty of
to suffer degradation not fit for human beings. [2011-I] Yandaboo (1826) the Treaty of Salbai (1782) and the Treaty
Codes : of Gandamak (1879)? [2011-I]
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (a) With these treaties, various Indian powers formed
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) Rabindranath Tagore alliances to defeat the British
67. Identify, using the codes given below, the nationalist leader (b) These treaties enabled the British to control the South
who was sentenced in the words outlined below. Asian powers
“The fact that in the eyes of millions of your countrymen (c) These treaties expedited the spread of Indian culture
you are a great patriot and great leader but as a man subject abroad
to the law, who has, by his own admission broken the law (d) These treaties gave an essential boost to enhanced
you are subject to six years imprisonment.” [2011-I] trade in South Asia.
Codes : 74. Which one among the following was the major demand of
(a) CR Das (b) Mahatma Gandhi the Bardauli Satyagraha (1928) organised under the
(c) Subhash Bose (d) Jawaharlal Nehru leadership of Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel? [2011-I]
68. Consider the following statement. (a) Land to the Tiller
“We believe that it is the inalienable right of the Indian (b) Increase in the rates of labour wage
people as of any other people, to have freedom and to enjoy (c) Rollback of newly enhanced revenue rate
the fruits of their toil and have the necessities of life so that
(d) Supply of agricultural inputs to the farmers at
they may have full opportunities of growth.”
subsidised rate
Identify the correct context of this statement from below.
[2011-I] 75. Tipu Sultan’s major interest in building ships was to
(a) Pledge of independence to be publicly taken all over. [2011-II]
India on 26 January 1930 (a) fight the English at sea
(b) Preamble of the Constitution of India adopted in 1950 (b) promote trade and commerce
(c) Congress Working Committee Resolution adopted at (c) maintain diplomatic relations with Muscat (Oman)
the Special Calcutta Congress Session in 1920 (d) establish an overseas settlement at port Basra (Iraq),
(d) Part of Speech delivered by Subhash Bose at the launch which would be under his control, on lines of the
of ‘Azad Hind Fauj’. European companies
EBD_7348
76. Identify the correct sequence of the following events of 2. The Bombay Plan was prepared by the Indian
Indian history: industrialists.
1. Foundation of the Indian Muslim League 3. Acharya Kripalini prepared the Gandhian Plan.
2. Surat Split
3. Partition of Bengal Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
4. Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi [2011-II] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1– 2– 3 – 4 (b) 2 – 3 – 4 – 1 84. Which one among the following statements regarding the
(c) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4 (d) 4 – 3 – 2– 1 Government of India Act, 1935 is not correct? [2012-I]
77. Neel Darpan is a play based on the story of Indigo Rebellion (a) Provincial Autonomy came into existence
of Bengal of 1860 – 61. Who authored it? [2011-II] (b) Bicameral legislatures were provided in six provinces
(a) Dinabandhu Mitra (c) The principles of communal electorates and weightages
were further extended
(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya
(d) The States were compelled to enter the Federation
(c) Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh jointly 85. Which one among the following was a newspaper founded
(d) Madhusudan Dutta and edited by Raja Rammohan Roy? [2012-I]
78. The First Anglo- Burmese War was concluded by a treaty. (a) The Calcutta Gazette (b) Mirat-ul Akhbar
Which one among the following is that? [2011-II] (c) Harijan (d) The Bharat Mihir
(a) Treaty of Bharma (b) Treaty of Tamu 86. Which among the following about Mahatma Gandhi’s Non-
(c) Treaty of Bhamo (d) Treaty of Yandaboo Cooperation Movement are correct? [2012-I]
79. Consider the following statements about Cripps Proposals 1. Refusal to attend Government Durbars and official
of 1942 : functions
1. Provision was to be made for participation of Indian 2. Participation in elections
States in the Constitution-making body. 3. Participation in rallies for the boycott of foreign goods
2. British Government undertook to accept and implement 4. Surrender of titles
the Constitution. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
3. All provinces of British India were to give an Code :
undertaking about the acceptance of the Constitution. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
4. In the ongoing World War, no resources of British (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only
India would be used. [2012-I] 87. Gandhiji's call for breaking Salt Laws was in response to the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [2012-I]
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (a) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (b) Civil Disobedience Movement
80. Which one among the following was not one of the causes (c) Khilafat Movement
of the Third Anglo-Maratha War? [2012-I] (d) Quit India Movement
(a) The Maratha Chiefs, particularly the Peshwa desired 88. Which one among the following statements relating to the
to throw off the restrictions imposed on them by the Home Rule movement is not correct ? [2012-II]
treaties with the English (a) The movement, instead of going forward after its great
(b) The determination of the English to give a finishing advance in 1917, gradually declined in 1918
blow to the Maratha power (b) Annie Besant, the leader of the movement did not
(c) The Pindari designs to seek support from the Marathas oppose the entry of Extremists
to drive the English away from India (c) The movement became weaker and weaker because of
(d) The attack of Peshwa Baji Rao on the residency at the continuous differences of opinion among the
Khirki nationalist leaders
81. William Bentinck attempted to reform Hindu society by (d) The movement was again revived by Mahatma Gandhi
suppressing/abolishing social evils. Which one among the 89. Why did Gandhiji go to Champaran ? [2012-II]
following was not included in them? [2012-I] (a) To launch a Satyagraha movement
(a) Sati (b) Infanticide (b) To launch a non-cooperation movement
(c) Thugi (d) Slavery (c) To enquire into the grievances of the indigo cultivators
82. Which one among the following works of Mahatma Gandhi (d) To fight against the zamindars
provides a critique of modern machine-oriented civilization? 90. Which one among the following was the fundamental cause
[2012-I] of the first Karnataka War between the British and the French?
(a) The Story of My Experiments with Truth [2012-II]
(b) Hind Swaraj
(a) Participation of the English and the French in the native
(c) Constructive Programme politics of Karnataka
(d) Anasakti Yoga (Commentary on ‘Gita’)
(b) The ambition of Dupleix to drive out the English from
83. Consider the following statements relating to planning in
the South
India : [2012-I]
1. In the year 1938, the National Planning Committee was (c) The trade rivalry between the English and the French
set up in India under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal (d) The war of Austrian succession because of which
Nehru. Britain and France became each others enemy in every
part of the world
Modern India G-153
91. Which one among the following wars ended by the Treaty 98. Consider the following statements about Periyar
of Salbai ? [2012-II] E. V. Ramaswamy : [2013-I]
(a) First Maratha War (b) Second Maratha War 1. He was a politician, social activist and an important
(c) Third Maratha War (d) Fourth Mysore War figure in the dravidian movement in South India.
92. The Jury Act of 1827 was opposed by many Indians. One of 2. He championed the cause of caste upliftment,
the grounds for opposing it was that it denied both to the nationalism and the rights of women.
Hindus and Mohammedans the honor of a seat on the Grand 3. He was contemporay of the Maharashtran anti-caste
Jury. Which among the following was known for his reformer, Jyotiba Phule.
opposition to the Jury Act ? [2012-II] Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (b) Lord Sinha (a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan (d) Raja Rammohan Roy (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
93. Plan Balkan was [2012-II] 99. Which one among the following statements is not true about
Bahadur Shah Jafar II? [2013-I]
(a) A plan devised by Mountbatten to transfer power to
(a) The rebels of 1857 proclaimed their loyalty to him
separate provinces or confederation of provinces, with
(b) He was killed by Lt. Hodson a cavalry officer in Delhi
the Bengal and Punjab Assemblies being given the
(c) He was reluctant to lead the Revolt of 1857 in the
options to vote for partition of their provinces
beginning
(b) The plan devised by Pethick Lawrence to give
(d) He was a poet
autonomy to Indian princes and provinces
100. Which one among the following statements is true about
(c) A plan devised by the Muslim League and the Congress Lord Curzon? [2013-I]
to provide autonomy to Indian provinces to form (a) He had full sympathy for the Congress
confederations (b) He introduced th eSubsidiary Alliance
(d) A plan devised by Mountbatten to allow Indian princes (c) He succeeded Lord Canning as the Viceroy of India
the freedom to either be independent or to join either (d) He separated the divisions of Dacca, Chittagong and
India or Pakistan Rajshahi from the province of Bengal and annexed them
94. Which one among the following prominently rose in revolt to Assam.
against the British in 1857 ? [2012-II] 101. Which one among the following statements about Civil
(a) Punjab Army (b) Madras Regiment Disobedience Movement is correct? [2013-I]
(c) Bengal Army (d) Awadh Regiment (a) It started with Gandhiji's march to champaran
95. The first Prime Minister of India in 1947 was appointed by (b) Under Gandhi-lrwin agreement the Congress agreed to
[2012-II] give up Civil Disobedience Movement
(a) the Governar General (c) The British Government was quite soft towards the
(b) the President of India movement from the beginning
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) There were no violent incidents during the movement
(d) a committee headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad 102. Consider the following statement
96. Arrange the following events that took place in the first No Indian could have started the Indian National congress..
decade of the 20th century in chronological order; [2013-I] If the founder of the congress had not been a great
1. Indian National Congress, Bombay Session Englishman and a distinguished ex-official, such was the
2. Establishment of All India Muslim Lengue distrust of political agitation in those days that the authority
3. Partition of Bengal would have at once found some way or the other to suppress
4. Indian National Congress, Surat Session the movement.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Who among the following gave the statement on the
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 1-3-2-4 establishment of Indian National Congress? [2013-I]
(c) 4-3-2-1 (d) 2-4-1-3 (a) W. Wedderburn (b) G.K Gokhale
97. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using (c) R. Palme Dutt (d) Allan Octavian Hume
the code given below the lists : [2013-I] 103. Consider the following statements : [2013-I]
List-I List-ll (1) Gandhiji's Salt Satyagraha in 1930 was against the State
(Peasant Movement) (Region) monopoly of the manufacture and sale fo salt.
A. Mappila outbreak 1. Maharashtra (2) The American news magazine Time' covered the
B. Ramosi peasant force 2. Bengal progress of Gandhiji's walk to Dandi on the Salt
C. Kuka revolt 3. Malabar Satyagraha.
D. Pabna revolt 4. Punjab (3) The Vicerory of India at the time of the Salt Satyagraha
Code : was Lord Ripon.
A B C D (4) Gandhiji did not complete the Dandi March due to ill-
(a) 3 1 4 2 health.
(b) 3 4 1 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(c) 2 4 1 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 4
(d) 2 1 4 3 (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 2 only
EBD_7348
104. Consider the following statements : [2013-I] Code:
(1) Gandhiji's launched the Rowlatt Satyagraha in 1919 (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement
because of the British measures to impose censorship II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
on the Press. (b) Both the statements ‘are individually true but Statement
(2) Gandhiji launched The Rowlatt Satyagraha bacause of II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
the British policy of permitted detention without trial. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) The rowlatt Act was restricted to Bombay and Madras (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
presidency. 109. Statement I: In order to create linguistic provinces in India,
(4) The agitation against the Rowlatt Act reached climax the Congress Party constituted Motilal Nehru Committee
with the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in Amritsar. in 1928.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Statement II: The Motilal Nehru Committee suggested
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only creation of linguistic provinces in India. [2010-I]
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only 110. Statement I : Mahatma Gandhi launched the Rowlatt
105. Consider the following statements about the Indo-Saracenic Satyagraha as an all- India mass protest.
archi tecture : [2013-I] Statement II : Rowlatt Act was passed by the British
1. It combined the Indian with the European style, of Government in 1919 to authorize the government to imprison
architecture in the beginning of the 20th century. any person without trial. [2011-II]
2. The Gateway of India in Mumbai is the most famous 111. Statement I : The private trade of the East India Company’s
example of this style. officials in the 18th century had flowered with the indirect
3. There are many famous examples of this style in the patronage of the authorities of the Company.
colonial cities of Bombay (Mumbai) and Madras Statement II : The extra- legal power enjoyed by the foreign
(Chennai). merchants and the duty-free nature of their private trade
4. It takes its imputation from ancient Greece. virtually edged the indigenous merchants out of competition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [2011-II]
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only 112. Statement I : In the year 1946, the Council of the Muslim
League accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 4 Only
Statement II : The Muslim League proposed to join the
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 106-108) : The following questions consist Interim Government. [2012-I]
of two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the 113. Statement I : Indigo formed the basis of a flourishing sector
other as 'Reason (R), You are to examine these two statements of commercial agriculture by the beginning of the 19th
carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes century.
given below: Statement II : The Indigo Commission was set up to enquire
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct into the grievances of the indigo cultivators in 1860.
explanation of A [2012-II]
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct 114. Statement I : Intellectual criteria which informed the reform
explanation of A movements were rationalism and religious universalism.
(c) A is true but R is false Statement II : Social relevance was not judged by a
(d) A is false but R is true rationalist critique. [2012-II]
106. Assertion (A) : The Government of India Act of 1858 DIRECTION (Q. 115) : The following items consist of two
transferred the governance of India from the East India statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine these
Company to the Crown. two statements carefully and select the answers to these items
Reason (R) : The East India Company was unwilling to using the code given below.
administer India any more. [2006-I] Code:
107. Assertion (A) : Shah Alam II joined hands with Shuja-ud- (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is
daulah to fight against the English. the correct explanation of Statement I
Reason (R) : Marathas joined the English forces to invade (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is
the territories of Shuja-ud-daulah. [2006-II] not correct explanation of Statement I
108. Assertion (A) : There was a country-wide agitation against (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
the Simon Commission. [2009-II] (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Reason (R): The members of the Simon Commission [2013-II]
discontinued their work in face of the country-wide agitation. 115. Statement I: In the 19th century, India was the largest British
DIRECTIONS (Q. 109-114) : The following six items consist of colony.
two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine Statement II: India became a big market for British
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these manufactured goods and a field of investment for foreign
items using the code given below: capital in the 19th century.
Modern India G-155
116. Which of the following statements with regard to the ‘Fifth 122. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
Report’ is/are correct? [2013-II] the code given below the Lists: [2013-II]
1. It was submitted to the British Parliament in 1813 for List I List II
consideration. (Book/Journal) (Author/Editor)
2. It became the basis of intense parliamentary debates A. Bande Mataram 1. Aurobindo Ghosh
on the nature of the East India Company’s rule in India. B. New India 2. Mahatma Gandhi
3. It was primarily on the economic conditions of the C. India Today 3. Bipin Chandra Pal
urban and industrial centres of India. D. Young India 4. R. P Dutt
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only A B C D
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 4 3 2
117. Consider the following statements about Salt Satyagraha: (b) 1 3 4 2
[2013-II] (c) 2 3 4 1
1. It was a form of Civil Disobedience. (d) 2 4 3 1
2. It was the first nationalist activity in which women 123. For Mahatma Gandhi, Satyagraha is [2013-II]
1. a political force.
participated in large numbers.
2. a philosophy of life.
3. Gandhiji first experimented with Salt Satyagraha in
3. an ideology of action.
South Africa.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 124. What was the common element among the following three
118. Which of the following statements about Ryotwari system newspapers? [2013-II]
is/are correct? [2013-II] (i) The Servant of India
1. The government collected the revenue directly from (ii) Dnyan Prakash
the individual cultivators. (iii) Hitawad
2. The cultivators were not recognized in law as the (a) They were newspaper brought out by the Indian
owners of the land. National Congress
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (b) They were newspapers under the influence of socialism
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) They were newspapers of moderate views brought out
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 by the Servants of India Society
119. Consider the following statements: [2013-II] (d) They represented the Trade Union Movement in India
1. Dadabhai Naoroji first put forward ‘the theory of drain 125. “... it has reduced us politically to serfdom. It has sapped
of wealth’. the foundations of our culture ... it has degraded us
2. The Indian National Congress adopted a resolution to spiritually.’ This was Mahatma Gandhi complaining of the
criticize the drain of wealth in its annual session at ill-effect on Indians of which action/policy of the colonial
Calcutta in 1896. government? [2013-II]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Salt tax (b) Inadequate franchise
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Press Act (d) Rowlatt Act
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 126. The Indian National Congress was founded during the
120. Which of the following statements about Quit India Viceroyalty of [2013-II]
Movement of 1942 is/are correct? [2013-II] (a) Lord Lytton (b) Lord Ripon
1. The movement was massive in character. (c) Lord Dufferin (d) Lord Mayo
2. One of the unique features of the movement was the 127. Kandh Revolt against the British was led by [2013-II]
participation of the communists at the local level (a) Chakra Bishoyi (b) Dandasena
defying the official stand of the Communist Party. (c) Tomma Dora (d) Birsa Munda
3. It was a completely non-violent movement. 128. The implementation of factory legislation in India in the
Select the correct answer using the code given below: nineteenth century was a result of the pressure on the
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 Government of India from [2013-II]
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 (a) the trade unionists in India
121. Consider the following statements: [2013-II] (b) the socialists in India
1. Annie Besant was the first woman President of the (c) the manufacturers from Lancashire and Manchester
Indian National Congress. (d) the Indian National Congress
2. The historic Lucknow session of the Congress in 1916 129. Who among the following was the President of Indian
was presided by Madan Mohan Malviya. National Congress when India attained independence?
3. Mahatma Gandhi presided over the annual session of [2013-II]
Congress only once at Belgaum in 1924. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Vallabhbhai Patel
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Maulana Azad (d) Acharya Kripalani
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only 130. Who among the following has described the uprising of
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only 1857 as the First Indian War of Independence? [2013-II]
EBD_7348
(a) S. N. Sen (b) R. C. Majumdar 138. Which of the following was/were the new feature/features
(c) B. G. Tilak (d) V. D. Savarkar visible in the Quit India Movement (1942)? [2014-I]
131. Arrange the following events of Indian freedom movement 1. Large-scale movements in some of the industrial areas.
in correct sequence beginning from the earliest: [2013-II] 2. Large-scale mass involvement in some of the Princely
1. Second Round Table Conference States
2. Communal Award 3. Increase in the activities of the Kisan Sabha
3. Poona Pact Select the correct answer using the code given below.
4. Simon Commission (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 4-3-2-1 139. The Swadeshi Movement evoked serious responses in
(c) 4-1-2-3 (d) 3-2-1-4 [2014-I]
132. Consider the following statements: [2013-II]
(a) Madras and Hyderabad
1. Morley-Minto reforms ended the official majority in
(b) Bengal and Maharashtra
state legislative assemblies.
(c) Bihar and Orissa
2. Despite the Government of India Act, 1909 the non-
officials were elected to local bodies indirectly. (d) The Princely States
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 140. Who among the following was associated with the Gudem-
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Rampa Rebellion? [2014-I]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Birsa Munda (b) Kushal Konwar
133. No Indian “shall by reason only of his religion, place of (c) Alluri Sitarama Raju (d) Mangal Pandey
birth, descent, colour or any of them be disabled from 141. The ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ was a policy that aimed to
holding any office or employment under the company”. This [2014-I]
was a pledge first given by the [2013-II] (a) control the rebellions in the Princely States
(a) Charter Act of 1813 (b) extend the military strength of the British
(b) Charter Act of 1833 (c) regulate the landlords
(c) Queen’s Proclamation of 1858 (d) extend the territorial boundaries of the English East
(d) Indian Civil Service Act of 1861 India Company
134. E. V. Ramaswami Naicker was associated with 142. The Permanent Settlement of 1793 introduced [2014-I]
[2014-I] (a) peasant rights
1. reforming Brahminism (b) bourgeois property rights in land to Zamindars
2. the Self-Respect Movement (c) shipping rights for the English East India Company
3. the Low Caste Movement (d) rights for women to have property rights
4. the Communist Movement 143. Who among the following was associated with the
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Hindustan Socialist Republican Association? [2014-I]
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 only (a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only (b) Mahatma Gandhi
135. Gandhiji’s ‘Harijan Campaign’ sought to [2014-I]
(c) Bhagat Singh
1. attack caste system as a whole
(d) Laxmi Sehgal
2. open wells, road, temples, etc to Harijans
144. The Indian National Army was organized to fight against
3. encourage social work among Harijans
Select the correct answer using the code given below. [2014-I]
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) Germany and Japan
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only (b) the British in India
136. The Salt Satyagraha called by Mahatma Gandhi saw the (c) Japan
[2014-I] (d) Russia
1. violation of salt laws along coastal India 145. The Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn for the
2. participation of women [2014-I]
3. upward swing when it came to the working class joining (a) First World War
in (b) Chauri-Chaura Incident
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Bardoli Satyagraha
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (d) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 146. Which one among the following is not true about Bal
137. During the Civil Disobedience Movement, tribals in Chota Gangadhar Tilak? [2014-I]
Nagpur [2014-I] (a) He started the New English School in Poona
1. gave up opium consumption (b) He founded the Shri Shivaji Fund Committee for
2. wore Khadi celebration of Shiv Jayanti
3. gave up drinking liquor and eating meat. (c) He preached the cult of self-reliance
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (d) He transformed the household worshipping of Ganesha
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 only into a public event
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
Modern India G-157
DIRECTION (Q. (147) ): The following items consists of two 153. Soon after the formation of Indian National Congress, the
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine British became suspicious of nationalists. Who among the
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these following called Congress representing only the elite — ‘a
items using the code given below. microscopic minority’ ? [2015-I]
Code: (a) Lord Napier (b) Lord Dufferin
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is (c) Lord Ripon (d) Lord Lytton
the correct explanation of Statement I. 154. What is the common element among Ram Prasad Bismil,
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is Roshan Singh and Rajendra Lahiri ? [2015-I]
not the correct explanation of Statement I. (a) They threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false on 8 April, 1929
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (b) They were the founder members of Swaraj Party
[2014-II] (c) They were the founders of Hindustan Republican
147. Statement I: The defects of the Regulating Act and the Association
exigencies of British politics necessitated the passing of the (d) They were associated with Kakori Conspiracy case
Pitt’s India Act. 155. Mahatma Gandhi's Hindu Swaraj is essentially [2015-I]
Statement II: The Pitt’s India Act gave the British Government (a) a critique of Western modernity
supreme control over the Company’s affairs and its administration (b) an outline of his philosophy of Satyagraha
in India. (c) an invocation to Indians to free themselves from the British
148. By the late 19th century, India was one of the largest (d) a blueprint of Gram Swaraj
producers and exporters of [2014-II] 156. Pochampally in Nalgonda district of Telengana became
(a) cotton yarn and wheat (b) sugar and rice famous in April, 1951 because [2015-I]
(c) sugar and alcohol (d) iron and steel (a) the Bhoodan movement was launched there by Vinoba
149. The Factory Act of 1891 in India was enacted to [2014-II] Bhave
(a) improve the condition of labour in India (b) the landless peasants rose up in arms against the
(b) ensure greater governmental control over industry in landlords
India. (c) it witnessed violent anti-Hindi agitation
(c) provide a level playing field for English manufacturers (d) Silk weavers’ cooperative was formed for the first time
(d) enable greater political control over Indian industry in India
150. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the 157. Who among the following was not associated with the
working of the Permanent Settlement in Bengal? [2014-II] Sarvodaya movement ? [2015-I]
1. The traditional Zamindars lost their lands. (a) Jaya Prakash Narayan (b) Acharya Vinoba Bhave
2. The reason for the Zamindars’ inability to pay up land (c) Dhirendra Mazumdar (d) G V Apparao
revenues was that the Ryots defaulted on payment of 158. Which one of the following statements about Subsidiary
revenue. Alliance devised by Lord Wellesley in the year 1798 is not
3. A new group of farmers – the Jotedars – became correct? [2015-II]
influential. (a) The territories entering into a subsidiary alliance with
4. The Collector replaced the Zamindars as the alternative the British were responsible for their own internal and
focus of authority external protection
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (b) In the territory of the ally, a British armed, contingent
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4 only would be stationed
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) The ally would have to provide the resources for
151. Consider the following statements about the early modern maintaining the British contingent in the territory
technology in India : [2015-I] (d) The permission of the British was needed for the ally
1. The Portuguese brought European movable metal to enter into agreements with other rulers
types to Goa in 1550. 159. Which one of the following statements about Khilafat
2. The first Indian script of which types were prepared Movement is not correct? [2015-II]
was Tamil. (a) The Khilafat Movement demanded that the Khalifa
3. The English Company's first experiment with printing must retain control over Muslim holy places
press was at Calcutta. (b) The radical trend in the Khilafat Movement was
4. The English Company imported printing press to India represented by younger leaders like Muhammad Ali,
in 1674-75 at the request of Bhimji Parak. Shaukat Ali, and Maulana Azad
Which of the statements given above are correct ? (c) Indian Muslim leaders used Khilafat as a symbol that
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 could unite the Indian Muslim community
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 (d) The Delhi conference of the Central Khilafat
152. While opposing the Public Safety Bill ,1928 who among the Committee in 1920 decided to launch a massive Non-
following said that it was ‘a direct attack on Indian Cooperation Movement
nationalism, on the Indian National Congress’ and as ‘the 160. The British Officer who was a representative of the Governor
Slavery of India, Bill No. 1’ ? [2015-I] General and who lived in a State which was not under direct
(a) Motilal Nehru (b) Lala Lajpat Rai British rule was called: [2015-II]
(c) T Prakasam (d) Diwan Chaman Lal
EBD_7348
(a) Collector (b) Viceroy 1. They were ardent patrons of Shaivism and did not
(c) Resident (d) Agent support other forms of religion.
161. Which of the following features of the Permanent Settlement 2. They promoted only Sanskrit scholars and gave them
of 1793 is / are correct? [2015-II] large grants
1. The Permanent Settlement vested Land ownership Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
rights in the peasants (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. The Permanent Settlement vested land ownership (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
rights in the Zamindars 169. Which of the following statements about the first act of the
3. The Zamindars had to pay a fixed amount of rent by a Revolt of 1857 is/are true? [2016-I]
particular date 1. It occurred in Meerut, when two sepoys stole a superior
4. The Zamindars benefited hugely from the Permanent officer’s rifle.
Settlement while the peasants suffered 2. It began when the Rani of Jhansi declared war on the
Select the correct answer using the code given below: British.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 3. It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European
(c) 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 officer in Meerut.
162. The 'Basic Structure Doctrine' was enunciated by the 4. It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European
Supreme Court during the: [2015-II] officer in Barrackpore.
(a) Golak Nath case Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b) Maneka Gandhi case (a) 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Kesavananda Bharati case (c) 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
(d) S R Bommai case 170. Which of the following statements about Gandhiji’s Hind
163. Which of the following statements about hill stations of Swaraj written in 1909 is/are true? [2016-I]
colonial India is/are correct? [2015-II] 1. Hind Swaraj offers a civilizational concept of the Indian
1. The architecture of hill stations sought to recreate the nation.
European style 2. Hind Swaraj states that Parliamentary democracy was
2. Hill stations were developed as sanitariums where necessary for the amelioration of the sufferings of
soldiers were treated for illness Indians.
3. Shimla became the official residence of the Commander 3. Hind Swaraj argues that Industrial capitalism was
in Chief of the Indian Army responsible for the immorality of society.
4. In 1864, Shimla had to be evacuated because of a Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Typhoid epidemic (a) 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 171. Who among the following is/was associated with
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 only ‘Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti’? [2016-I]
164. The Senia tradition is: [2015-II] (a) Chandi Prasad Bhatt (b) Narendra Dabholkar
(a) musical tradition that emerged from the colonial army (c) G..D. Agrawal (d) Kailash Satyarthi
(Sena) 172. Which of the following thinkers and movements influenced
(b) dance drama written by Keshab Chandra Sen the development of Gandhiji’s politial ideas ? [2016-I]
(c) textile tradition of eastern UP 1. Henry David Thoreau
(d) musical tradition that invoked the name of Tansen, 2. John Ruskin
the celebrated musician of Akbar's Court 3. John Milton
165. Who among the following founded the Rajahmundri Social 4. Jainism
Reform Association in 1878 in support of widow remarriage? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
[2015-II] (a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) Vishanshastri Pandit (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar 173. Which of the following statements about Brahmo Samaj is/
(c) Pandita Ramabai are correct? [2016-I]
(d) Veeresalingam Pantulu 1. The Brahmo Marriage Act of 1872 allowed inter-caste
166. The 19th Century Faraizi Movement in eastern Bengal and widow re-marriage only if the contracting parties
developed under the leadership of: [2015-II] declared themselves to be non-Hindus.
(a) Titu Rai (b) Haji Shariatullah 2. Keshub Chandra Sen arranged the marriage of his minor
(c) Shah Sayyid Ahmad (d) Dudu Miyan daughter with the Maharaja of Burdwan.
3. Keshub Chandra Sen’s followers broke away to form
167. The Indian States Committee was formed in 1928 under:
the Naba Brahmo Samaj.
[2015-II]
4. The Brahmo Samaj grew from a small elite group to a
(a) The Raja of Junagadh (b) Ian Copland
mass movement in the 19th century.
(c) Sir Harcourt Butler (d) Motilal Nehru Select the correct answer using the code given below:
168. Consider the following statements about Rashtrakuta kings: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
[2016-I]
Modern India G-159
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) This group had prepared an action plan to occupy the
174. Subsidiary Alliance was a system devised by [2016-II] armouries in Chittagong
(a) Lord Wellesley (b) Lord Dalhousie 182. Which one of the following was a significant feature of the
(c) Lord Canning (d) Lord Ripon Quit India Movement? [2017-I]
175. Who among the following was the author of ‘Neel Darpan’ (a) Women did not play an important role in the movement
published in 1860 ? [2016-II] (b) Nasik in Maharashtra was an important regional base
(a) Reverend James Long during the movement
(b) Michael Madhusudan Dutta (c) It was marked by anti-zamindar violence
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (d) It was marked by the emergence of parallel
(d) Dinbandhu Mitra governments in different parts of India
176. Which one of the following organizations was started by 183. Which one of the following characteristics does NOT
Jyotirao Phule in 1873 ? [2016-II] describe the Khilafat movement? [2017-I]
(a) Prarthna Samaj (b) Bahujan Samaj (a) Mahatma Gandhi sought to link it to the Non-
(c) Justice Party (d) Satyashodhak Samaj Cooperation movement
177. Which of the following statements with regards to the Civil (b) It was not supported by the Congress
Disobedience movement is/are correct ? [2016-II] (c) It demanded that the Turkish Sultan must retain control
1. The movement received massive response from over Muslim sacred spaces in the erstwhile Ottoman
business groups and peasantry empire
2. The movement coincided with large scale labour
(d) It was led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali
upsurge in Maharashtra
184. Which one of the following was NOT a feature of railways
3. The movement was marked by the mass participation
in colonial India? [2017-I]
of lawyers and students
(a) The main purpose of the setting up of railways in India
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only was to serve the interest of the empire
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) British capital investments were invited with 15%
178. Which one of the following was NOT a cause of the Revolt guaranteed interest to be paid if necessary from Indian
of 1857? [2017-I] revenues
(a) The rumour that the British had mixed the bone dust (c) The construction work disturbed ecology
of cows and pigs into the flour being sold in the market (d) The construction of the railways was planned in such
(b) The prophecy that British rule would come to an end a way that it connected the internal markets with the
on the centenary of the Battle of Plassey on 23rd June, ports, but provided no interconnection between
1857 internal market cities
(c) Popular discontent with British rule 185. Which colonial administrator made the following declaration
(d) The prophecy that the end of British rule would lead about the partition of Bengal in 1904? "Bengal united is a
to the end of the Kali Yuga and the return of Ram power. Bengal divided will pull in different ways. That is
Rajya perfectly true and one of the merits of the scheme"
179. Which one of the following was NOT a feature of the [2017-I]
Subsidiary Alliance of Lord Wellesley? [2017-I] (a) Lord Curzon (b) H. H. Risley
(a) The British were responsible for protecting the ally (c) Lord Minto (d) Sir Lancelot Hare
from any external threats 186. Who launched the Bardoli Satyagraha on 4th February,
(b) All internal threats were to be handled by the ally alone, 1928? [2017-I]
with no help from the British (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) They ally was to provide resources for maintaining a (c) Rajendra Prasad (d) Kalyanji Mehta
British armed contingent stationed in its territory 187. Which one of the following Princely States did NOT support
(d) The ally could not enter into any agreement with other the Congress during the course of the Civil Disobedience
rulers without the permission of the British Movement? [2017-I]
180. Who among the following is one of the authors of the book (a) Bhavnagar (b) Mysore
"Philosophy of the Bomb"? [2017-I] (c) Junagadh (d) Kathiawar
(a) Bhagat Singh (b) Jawaharlal Nehru 188. Which one of the following is a feature of thought and
(c) Surya Sen (d) Yashpal philosophy of the Kandukuri Viresalingam? [2017-I]
181. Which of the following statements about the Chittagong (a) He believed that science and morality were
group is NOT correct? [2017-I] unconnected to truth
(a) Its membership included a large number of youth (b) He believed in universal education
including Ganesh Ghosh, Lokenath Baul and Anant (c) He believed that language had no role in inculcating
Singh morality in students
(b) Its leader Surya Sen had been a lawyer in Dhaka before (d) He did not attempt to build a national consciousness
joining the group on a cultural base
(c) Surya Sen and his group were closely associated with 189. Who among the following is the author of the book 'The
Congress work in Chittagong
EBD_7348
Indian Struggle, 1920–1934' ? [2017-II] 198. Who among the following social reformer started a society
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam for the encourgement of widow remarriage in 1866 in
(b) Jayprakash Narayan Maharashtra? [2018-I]
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (b) Jyotirao Phule
(d) Manabendra Nath Roy (c) Vishnushashtri Pandit (d) Pandita Ramabai
190. Which one of the following about the Swadeshi Campaign 199. Name the first major voluntary association representing
in 1896 is not correct? [2017-II] primarily Indian landlord interests that was set up in Calcutta
(a) Its centre was Maharashtra in 1851? [2018-I]
(b) Its main participants were students (a) British Indian Association
(c) It opposed the levy of tariff on imports
(b) Landholder’s Society
(d) It publicly burnt foreign clothes
191. Which one of the following associations was founded in (c) Madras Native Association
London by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866? [2017-II] (d) Bombay Association
(a) The Bengal British India Society 200. Who among the following introduced the Permanent
(b) The East Indian Association Settlement of Bengal in 1793? [2018-I]
(c) The British Indian Association (a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Ripon
(d) The Madras Native Association (c) Robert Clive (d) John Adam
192. Which one of the following statements about the IIbert Bill 201. Name the rebel who fought against the British in the battle
is correct? [2017-II] of Chinhat in the course of the 1857 Revolt? [2018-I]
(a) It proposed that the Indian magistrates would try
(a) Ahmadullah Shah (b) Shah Mal
Europeans in criminal cases.
(b) It allowed Indians to fild criminal cases against (c) Mangal Pandey (d) Kunwar Singh
Europeans. 202. Who among the following are the two civil servants who
(c) It authorized Indian ICS officers to try Europeans in assisted the Constituent Assembly in framing the
courts. Constitution of India? [2018-I]
(d) It was an agitation led by IIbert in support of the (a) B.N. Rau and K.M. Munshi
nationalists. (b) S.N. Mukherjee and Alladi Krishna swamy Aiyar
193. Who among the following was believed to be a leader of the (c) B.N. Rau and S.N. Mukherjee
Sanyasis and Fakirs conspiring against the British in 1857? (d) K.M. Munshi and Alladi Krishna swamy Aiyar
[2017-II]
203. Which member of the constituent Assembly proposed the
(a) Mangal Pandey (b) Bahadur Shah II
resolution that the National Flag of India be a “horizontal
(c) Queen Zeenat Mahal (d) Nana Sahib
194. Who among the following was the founder of the Young tricolour of saffron, white and dark green in equal
Bengal Movement? [2017-II] proportion”, with a wheel in navy blue at the centre?
(a) Henry Vivian Derozio [2018-I]
(b) David Hare (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dwarkanath Tagore (b) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Prasanna Kumar Tagore (c) Rajendra Prasad
195. Which one of the following statements about the quit India (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Movement is not correct? [2017-II]
(a) It broke out in August 1942. DIRECTION (Q. 204) : The following items consist of two
(b) Ahmedabad Textile Mills went on strike for more than statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two
three months. statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code
(c) Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha actively given below.
participated in the movement. Code:
(d) Communist Party did not support the movement.
196. Consider the following movements: [2017-II] (a) Both the statements are individually true and State-
1. Moplah Rebellion ment II is the correct explanation of Statement I
2. Bardoli Satyagraha (b) Both the statements are individually true but State-
3. Champaran Satyagraha ment II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
4. Salt Satyagraha (c) Statement I is the true but Statement II is false
Which one of the following is the correct chronological
order of the above in ascending order? (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(a) 1-3-4-2 (b) 3-1-2-4 [2018-II]
(c) 2-3-1-4 (d) 4-2-1-3 204. Statement I : The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced
197. The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a [2017-II]
Dyarchy at the Centre.
(a) Federation
(b) Confederation Statement II : The provincial autonomy was granted to the
(c) Unitary form of Government Provinces
(d) Union of States
Modern India G-161
205. Where did the French East India Company first establish its 211. The Azamgarh Proclamation of August 25, 1857 stressed
factory in India? [2018-II] on which one of the following issues ? [2019-I]
(a) Hindu-Muslim divide
(a) Calicut (b) Surat
(b) Support to the English Government
(c) Pondicherry (d) Masulipatnam (c) The return of the Badshahi
206. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using (d) The imposition of heavy Jumas (revenue demand)
the code given below the Lists: [2018-II] 212. Which Viceroy had made the observation, “It’s a beautiful
world if it wasn’t for Gandhi .......” ? [2019-I]
List-I List-II
(a) Lord Irwin (b) Lord Wavell
(Author) (Block) (c) Lord Mountbatten (d) Lord Willingdon
A. Bal Gangadhar 1. The Arctic Home 213. Which Indian businessman favoured ‘healthy capitalism’
Tilak in the Vedas in helping Gandhiji to work towards a ‘common object’ ?
B. Dadabhai Naoroji 2. Hind Swaraj [2019-I]
(a) Ghanshyam Das Birla
C. Mahatma Gandhi 3. The Discovery of
(b) Ambalal Sarabhai
India (c) Sir Biren Mookerjee
D. Jawaharlal Nehru 4. Poverty and Un- (d) T. T. K. Krishnamachari
British Rule in 214. Who among the following historians have described the
Quit India movement as a ‘spontaneous revolution’ ?
India
[2019-I]
Code : (a) Gordon Johnson (b) David Arnold
A B C D (c) F G Hutchins (d) Peter Robb
(a) 3 4 2 1 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 215-216): The following items consist of
(b) 3 2 4 1 two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these
(c) 1 4 2 3 the code given below :
(d) 1 2 4 3 Code :
207. Who among the following leaders started the Indian Home (a) Both the statements are individually true and
Rule League? [2018-II] Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (b) Both the statements are individually true and
(b) Mahatma Gandhi Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of
Statement I
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) J. B. Kripalani (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
208. The place of English East India Company settlement in [2019-I]
Madras was known as [2018-II] 215. Statement I : The Kisan manifesto adopted by the All India
(a) Fort william Kisan Sabha in August 1936 contained radical demands
Statement II : The All India Kisan Sabha was a part of the
(b) Fort st. George
Congress and maintained close relationship with the
(c) Elphinstone circle Provincial Congress Committees
(d) Marble Place 216. Statement I : The British ruled India through a modern
209. The Theosophical Society was led by [2018-II] bureaucracy headed by the Indian Civil Service, whose
members were recruited through merit based on open
(a) A. O. Hume
competition
(b) Arthur Griffith Statement II : The Indian Civil Service was based on the
(c) Annie Besant whole hearted participation of Indians
(d) Lord Dufferin 217. The Karachi resolution of Congress in 1931 advocated
which one of the following issues ? [2019-I]
210. Which one of the following statements about Bipin Chandra
(a) State shall not own or control key industries and
Pal is correct? [2018-II]
services
(a) He was a member of the moderate group of Congress. (b) State shall handover the key industries and services
(b) He was a member of the extremist group of Congress. to the Indian business groups
(c) He was the Minister of Defence in the first Government (c) State should allow the Indian business group to invest
of independent India. fifty per cent of the capital
(d) State shall own or control key industries and services
(d) He was the Chief Minister of West Bengal.
EBD_7348
ANSWER KEY
1 (d ) 23 (c) 45 (b) 67 (b) 89 (c) 111 (a) 133 (b) 155 (a) 177 (d) 199 (a)
2 (c) 24 (c) 46 (b) 68 (a) 90 (d) 112 (b) 134 (d) 156 (a) 178 (d) 200 (a)
3 (c) 25 (a) 47 (a) 69 (b) 91 (a) 113 (b) 135 (b) 157 (d) 179 (b) 201 (a)
4 (d ) 26 (b) 48 (a) 70 (b) 92 (d) 114 (d) 136 (d) 158 (a) 180 (d) 202 (c)
5 (c) 27 (b) 49 (a) 71 (c) 93 (d) 115 (a) 137 (c) 159 (d) 181 (b) 203 (a)
6 (b ) 28 (c) 50 (a) 72 (c) 94 (c) 116 (c) 138 (a) 160 (c) 182 (d) 204 (a)
7 (b ) 29 (b) 51 (a) 73 (b) 95 (d) 117 (c) 139 (b) 161 (b) 183 (b) 205 (b)
8 (d ) 30 (d) 52 (a) 74 (c) 96 (b) 118 (a) 140 (c) 162 (c) 184 (b) 206 (c)
9 (d ) 31 (a) 53 (a) 75 (a) 97 (a) 119 (a) 141 (d) 163 (b) 185 (b) 207 (c)
10 (b ) 32 (a) 54 (a) 76 (c) 98 (d) 120 (b) 142 (b) 164 (d) 186 (b) 208 (b)
11 (c) 33 (b) 55 (c) 77 (a) 99 (b) 121 (c) 143 (c) 165 (d) 187 (b) 209 (c)
12 (a) 34 (b) 56 (d) 78 (d) 100 (d) 122 (b) 144 (b) 166 (b) 188 (b) 210 (b)
13 (a) 35 (a) 57 (d) 79 (a) 101 (b) 123 (d) 145 (b) 167 (c) 189 (c) 211 (c)
14 (b ) 36 (b) 58 (c) 80 (c) 102 (d) 124 (c) 146 (c) 168 (b) 190 (c) 212 (b)
15 (c) 37 (b) 59 (c) 81 (d) 103 (d) 125 (a) 147 (b) 169 (c) 191 (b) 213 (a)
16 (b ) 38 (b) 60 (d) 82 (b) 104 (c) 126 (c) 148 (a) 170 (c) 192 (a) 214 (c)
17 (c) 39 (b) 61 (d) 83 (c) 105 (b) 127 (a) 149 (a) 171 (b) 193 (d) 215 (b)
18 (c) 40 (a) 62 (a) 84 (d) 106 (c) 128 (a) 150 (d) 172 (c) 194 (a) 216 (c)
19 (b ) 41 (c) 63 (d) 85 (b) 107 (c) 129 (d) 151 (d) 173 (a) 195 (c) 217 (d)
20 (c) 42 (d) 64 (a) 86 (b) 108 (c) 130 (d) 152 (a) 174 (a) 196 (b)
21 (b ) 43 (b) 65 (a) 87 (b) 109 (d) 131 (c) 153 (b) 175 (d) 197 (a)
22 (c) 44 (c) 66 (d) 88 (d) 110 (a) 132 (b) 154 (d) 176 (d) 198 (c)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (d) According to the Allahabad Treaty in 1765 the Mughal 17. (c) Swaraj Party was founded by C.R. Das and Motilal
emperor Shah Alam issued farman to hand over civil Nehru
rights to the English after the war of Buxar (1764). 18. (c) C. Rajagopalachari presented a formula for peaceful
4. (d) Lord Wellesley founded Fort William College at division of India in 1944. He was the first Indian
Calcutta. governor general of free India.
5. (c) Mahatma Gandhi launched first Peasant Movement 19. (b) Aruna Asaf Ali gave the leadership to the movement
from Champaran in Bihar. by living underground.
10. (b) Henary Vivian Derozio’s followers were called young 20. (c) In 1930, Gandhiji inaugurated the Civil Disobedience
Bengal : Derozio was an anglo-Indian and he was the Movement.
teacher of Hindu College at Calcutta. 21. (b) The correct chronological order of the given events is
11. (c) Acharya Narendra Dev, Jay Prakash Narayan and as follows :
Minoo Massani was instrumental in the formation of Partition of Bengal (1905); Surat Split (1907) and
the Congress Socialist Party in 1934. Lucknow Pact (1916).
12. (a) The correct chromological order and year is as follows: 22. (c) Sardar Vallabhbai Patel was termed as 'Iron Man of
Champaran Satyagraha - 1917 India '. He was an important congress leader and trusted
Rowlatt Satyagraha - 1919 lieutenants of Mahatma Gandhi . During 1928 in Bardoli,
Bardoli Satyagraha - 1928 Vallabhbai Patel along with peasants organised a non
revenue campaign against Bombay Government
14. (b) All three Round Table Conference were held in London.
increased revenue by 22 percent even after a decline in
Gandhi Ji participated in Second Round Table
prices of cotton. During this satyagraha, Vallabhbai
Conference as a representative of Indian National
got the title of 'Sardar'.
Congress.
26. (b) Two home Rule leagues were started in 1915-16 – one
15. (c) Bengal Gazette was published by James Augustus
under the leadership of Lokmanya Tilak at Poona and
Hikkey in 1780.
other under the leadership of Anne Basent and S.
16. (b) Nizam of Hyderabad accepted subsidiary Alliance in Subramanya Iyer at Madras.
1798. Wellesely was founder of subsidiary Alliance
policy.
Modern India G-163
27. (b) The communal Award was declared by then British dian people. The social basis of the colonial regime
Prime Minister R. Mac Donald on 16th August, 1932. was among the Zamindars and upper classes.
Under this Muslim, Sikh, Christian and Harijan had 53. (a) Hasan Suhrawardy presided over the ‘Direct Action
separated arrangement for election. Day’.
28. (c) Mahatma Gandhi launched the Salt Satyagraha on 54. (a) In 1924, Lenin the president of USSR, started a new
March 12, 1930, when he marched from his Sabarmati economic policy that has resulted in a new economic
Ashram (Ahmedabad) with some eighty hand-picked policy with the formation of planning in India.
followers. After a 24-day long march he symbolically 55. (c) The Haripura session (1938) of congress is regarded
broke the Salt Laws at Dandi on April 5, 1930. The as the milestone in the freedom struggle of India be-
breaking of the Salt Laws formally inaugurated the Civil cause it was presided over by Netaji Shubhash Chandra
Disobedience Movement. Bose and the idea of a planning commisssion was in-
29. (b) Panchsheel was signed between people's Rebublic of troduced.
China and India in 1954. 56. (d) In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi was critical of rail-
30. (d) Lord Hardinge annuled the partition of Bengal in 1991 ways, because they are carriers of plague germs and
on the occasion of Delhi Darbar. accident-prone.
32. (a) Deccan Education Society established Fergusson 57. (d) Mahatma Gandhi and Rabindranath Tagore did not
College at Pune in 1885. define India as a ‘nation’, because they were critical of
33. (b) By Government of India Act, 1919, dyarchy was hegemonic culture.
introduced in India. This act is also known as 58. (c) Satyagraha term originated in 1906. Satyagraha word
Montague-Chelmsford Reforms. made by sanskrit word satya (Truth) and Agraha
40. (a) Lord william Bentinck declared Sati Pratha illegal and (insistence or holding firmly to). Gandhi became strong
punishable in 1829. in practising non-violent methods by satyagraha. In
his words-
41. (c) ‘Jai Hind’ slogan is raised by Subhash Chandra Bose.
Truth emplies lone and firmness engenders and
42. (d) Bande Mataram, the nationalist song, was a part of
therefore serves as a synonys for force. I Thus began
famous Novel ‘Anand Math’ which was written by
to call the Indian movement satayagraha, that is to
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.
say, the force which is born of Truth and Love or non-
43. (b) The book ‘Hind Swaraj’ was written by Mahatma violence and gave up the use of the phrase “ Passive
Gandhi. resistance” in connection with it, so much so that even
44. (c) Mahatma Gandhi undertook ‘Fast unto death’ against in English writing we often avoided it and used instead
the communal award and discontinued when the Poona the word satyagraha itself or some other equivalent
Pact was included. English phrase.
45. (b) Mahatma Gandhi started satyagraha (Revolt against 60. (d) Raja Ram Mohan Ray born in Brahmin family in Bengal
British) at Champaran district of Bihar followed by the on 22nd of May 1772 and died 27 September 1833. He
young nationalists like Dr. Rajendra Prasad and J.B. advocated the study of English, Science, Western
Kriplani. Medicine and Technology. He was given the title ‘Raja’
46. (b) The campaign against the introduction of certificate of by the Mughal Emperor.
registration was organised by Mahatma Gandhi in 61. (d) Purna swaraj or Declaration of Independence came into
South Africa in 1906 under the Passive Resistance force on December 31, 1929 in Calcutta session of
Association. congress.
47. (a) The Government of India Act, 1935 resulted in 66. (d) It declaration made by Ravindra Nath Tagore at the
strengthening the movement against British. time of Jalianwallah massacre.
48. (a) To discuss on th e report presented by Simon He renounced his knighthood for protest. He recieved
commission was the agenda for London. this title from the British Government in 1915.
49. (a) Lord Curzon was the viceroy of India in 1898. He was 67. (b) This sentence is given by Mahatma Gandhi at
mainly famous for the partition of Bengal. He was very Ahmedabad Trial.
much keen to supress the Indian national movement. 68. (a) This statement is beloved to the 1929 congress session
50. (a) The Poona pact is a historical agreement between Dr. declared Independence of India or Purna Swaraj was
B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi. It took place in promulgated on 26 January 1930. The flag of India had
1932. Under this pact, it was decided for depressed been hosted by Jawahar Lal Nehru on December 31,
classes to have a reserve seats both in provincial and 1929 on the banks of the Ravi river in Lahore and
central legislature. Similarly, a joint electorate system observed 26 January as Independence day.
was accepted. 69. (b) Rowlatt act was a law passed by the British in colonial
51. (a) The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on the Indian in March, 1919. This act authorized the
principle of federation and parliamentary system. government to imprison for two years only person
suspected of terrorism without trial. The Rowlatt Act
52. (a) The British rule could prevail in India on the basis of
came into force in March 1919.
the consent or acquiescence of many sections of In-
EBD_7348
70. (b) The first Satyagraha revolutions inspired by Mahatma 82. (b) Hind Swaraj or Indian Home Rule is a book written by
Gandhi in Kheda district and the Champaran district of Mohandas K. Gandhi in 1909. It is a book in which he
Bihar between the year of 1918 and 1919. expresses his views on Swaraj, Modern Civilization,
71. (c) The Wood’s dispatch proposed several Mechanisation etc. Mohandas Gandhi wrote this book
recommendation in order to improve the system of in his native language, Gujarati, while traveling from
education. It recommended promotion of the western London to South Africa onboard SS Kildonan Castle
education in India. between November 13 and November 22, 1909. In the
74. (c) The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) was a major event of book Gandhi gives a diagnosis for the problems of
Civil Disobedience was presided by Sardar Patel. This humanity in modern times, the causes, and his remedy.
was against the raised land revenue. 83. (c) In October 1938, at a conference of Ministers of
75. (a) Tipu Sultan wanted to defeat the East India Company Industries held under the Chairmanship of Shri Subhash
by all available means. As British had a strong navy, Chander Bose, the then President of the Indian National
Tipu had to have an equally strong feet. In 1796, he Congress, a resolution was passed which stated "the
had ordered building of 40 worships and maintained a problems such as of poverty and unemployment, of
naval force of 10,000 individuals. national Defense and of economic regeneration in
76. (c) The correct sequence is 3-1-2-4 which is option (c) in general cannot be solved without industrialization. As
the answer. a step towards such industrialization, a comprehensive
scheme of National Planning should be formulated."
77. (a) Neel Darpan also called the mirror of Indigo was written
This was followed by the formulation of “National
by Dinabandhu Mitra about the Indigo Revolt of 1859.
Planning Committee” under the Chairmanship of Pandit
78. (d) British and the Burmese empire fought 3 wars for Jawahar Lal Nehru. The committee consisted of 15
possession of north-eastern India. The treaty to end members.
the first Anglo-Burmese war was called treaty of
84. (d) The Government of India Act 1935 was originally
Yandaboo. Which was signed on 24th Feb. 1826.
passed in August 1935, and is said to have been the
79. (a) The Cripps mission was an attempt in late March 1942 longest (British) Act of Parliament ever enacted by that
by the British government to secure Indian cooperation time.
and support for their efforts in World War II, after
85. (b) In 1822, A Persian paper called Mirat-ul-Akbar
facing some initial military setbacks in the War, when
contained a tract entitled "Brief Remarks on Ancient
the Japanese became involved and headed towards
Female Rights".
South Asia. The mission was headed by Sir Stafford
Cripps, a senior left-wing politician and government 86. (b) The Non-Cooperation Movement was a significant
minister in the War Cabinet of Prime Minister Winston phase of the Indian struggle for freedom from British
Churchill. Cripps discussed matters with the Indian rule. It was led by Mahatma Gandhi and was supported
leaders and published his proposals on March 30, 1942. by the Indian National Congress. After Jallianwala Bagh
Both the major parties, the Congress and the League incident Gandhi started Non Cooperation movement.
rejected his proposals and the mission proved a failure. It aimed to resist British occupation in India through
non-violent means. Protestors would refuse to buy
80. (c) The Pindaris were dispersed throughout the Maratha
British goods, adopt the use of local handicrafts, picket
states and were countenanced and protected by the
liquor shops, and try to uphold the Indian values of
Maratha chiefs to whom they acted as agents for
honour and integrity. The ideals of Ahimsa or non-
supplying all the commissariat required by their armies.
violence, and his ability to rally hundreds of thousands
They were composed of differen t tribes who
of common citizens towards the cause of Indian
congregated solely for purposes of plunder. They came
independence, were first seen on a large scale in this
into existence during the 18th century when the Mughal
movement. Through the summer 1920, they feared that
Empire was breaking up. The Pindaris were loosely
the movement might lead to popular violence.
organized under self-chosen leaders, and each group
was usually attached to one or other of the Maratha 87. (b) Civil disobedience is the active, professed refusal to
leaders. Their main characteristic was that they received obey certain laws, demands, and commands of a
no pay, but rather purchased the privilege of plundering government, or of an occupying international power.
on their own account. Civil disobedience is commonly, though not always,
defined as being nonviolent resistance. It is one form
81. (d) Bentinck showed great courage and humanity by his
of civil resistance. In one view (in India, known as
decision to abolish suttee (sati), the Hindu custom of
ahimsa or Satyagraha) it could be said that it is
burning widows alive with the corpses of their
compassion in the form of respectful disagreement.
husbands. He was also responsible for the measures
taken to suppress the murder of unwanted children, 88. (d) Between 1916 and 1918, when the world war I was
human sacrifice, and the thags–bands of robbers, closing, prominent Indians like Joseph Baptista, Bal
bound together by oaths and ritual, who murdered Gangadhar Tilak, G. S. Khaparde, Sir S. Subramania
unsuspecting travelers in the name of the goddess Kali. Iyer and the leader of the Theosophical Society, Annie
Flogging in the Indian army was also abolished, long Besant decided to organize a national alliance of leagues
before it ended in the British army. across India, specifically to demand Home Rule, or self-
Modern India G-165
government within the British Empire for all of India. agendas & protect the position of upper class Muslims
Tilak founded the first League in the city of Pune, in India.
Maharashtra. With its national headquarters in Delhi, Indian National Congress, Surat session – The 23rd
the main cities of activity were Bombay, Calcutta and Session of the Congress was held at Surat in 1907. It
Madras. very important from points of view. There was an open
89. (c) Gandhiji went to Champaran to inquire into the clash between the Moderates and the Extremists and
grievances of indigo cultivators. ultimately it led to a split in the Congress. The Extremists
90. (d) The First Carnatic War (1746-1748) was the Indian wanted to hold the session at Nagpur as was decided
theatre of the War of the Austrian Succession and the at the Calcutta Session of the Congress but the
first of a series of Carnatic Wars that established early Moderates wanted to hold the session at Surat.
British dominance on the east coast of the Indian 97. (a) Mappila outbreak – Malabar, Ramosi peasant force-
subcontinent. In this conflict the British and French Maharashtra, Kuka revolt-Punjab, Pabna revolt-Bengal.
East India Companies vied with each other on land for Mappila outbreak – Mappila Riots or Mappila
control of their respective trading posts at Madras, Outbreaks refers to a series of riots by the Mappila
Pondicherry, and Cuddalore, while naval forces of (Moplah) Muslims of Malabar, South India in the 19th
France and Britain engaged each other off the coast. century and the early 20th century (c.1836-1921) against
91. (a) The First Anglo-Maratha War (1775-1782) was the first native Hindus and the state.
of three Anglo-Maratha wars fought between the Ramosi peasant force – Vasudev Balwant Phadke, an
British East India Company and Maratha Empire in educated clerk, raised a Ramosi peasant force of about
India. The war began with the Treaty of Surat and 50 in Maharashtra during 1879, and organized social
ended with the Treaty of Salbai. banditry on a significant scale.
92. (d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy was born in a famous family of Kuka revolt – The Kuka Revolt in Punjab was led by
Bengal in 1772 A.D. He was a great scholar of Sanskrit, Baba Ram Singh and had elements of a messianic
Persian, and English and knew Arabic, Latin and Greek. movement. It was crushed when 49 of the rebels were
93. (d) Upon arriving in India to negotiate terms for an blown up by cannon in 1872.
independent India, Mountbatten soon concluded that Pabna revolt – In May 1873, an agrarian league or
transfer of power to one central representative combination was formed in Yusufshahi Parganah in
constituency assembly for India would be impossible Pabna district to resist the demands of the zamindars.
to achieve as neither the Indian National Congress nor The league organized mass meetings of peasants. Large
the Muslim League could agree terms, and he crowds of peasants would gather and march through
accordingly came up with 'Plan Balkan', separate villages frightening the zamindars and appealing to
dominions for Pakistan, the Princely states and the rest other peasants to join them.
of British India with certain key areas of administration 98. (d) Erode Venkata Ramasamy (17 September 1879 – 24
run by a central Government. December 1973), affectionately called by his followers
94. (c) Bengal Army as Periyar, Thanthai Periyar or E. V. R., was a
businessman, politician, Indian independence and
95. (d) a committee headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad. social activist, who started the Self-Respect Movement
96. (b) Indian National Congress, Bombay session – On 28 or the Dravidian Movement and proposed the creation
December 1885, the Indian National Congress was of an independent state called Dravida Nadu,
founded at Gokaldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay, comprising the states of South India.
with 72 delegates in attendance. Hume assumed office 99. (b) Mirza Abu Zafar Sirajuddin Muhammad Bahadur Shah
as the General Secret2ary, and Womesh Chandra Zafar, better known as Bahadur Shah Zafar, on 24
Bonnerjee of Calcutta was elected President. October 1775 – died 7 November 1862) was the last
Partition of Bengal – The decision to effect the Partition Mughal emperor and a member of the Timurid Dynasty.
of Bengal was announced in July 1905 by the Viceroy Zafar was the son of Mirza Akbar Shah II and Lalbai,
of India, Lord Curzon. The partition took effect in who was a Hindu Rajput, and became Mughal Emperor
October 1905 and separated the largely Muslim eastern when his father died on 28 September 1837. Bahadur
areas from the largely Hindu western areas. The Hindus Shah Zafar presided over a Mughal empire that barely
of west Bengal who dominated Bengal's business and extended beyond Delhi's Red Fort. The East India
rural life complained that the division would make them Company was the dominant political and military power
a minority in a province that would incorporate the in mid-nineteenth century India. Outside Company
province of Bihar and Orissa. Partition was promoted contr olled India, hundreds of kin gdoms an d
for administrative reasons. principalities, from the large to the small, fragmented
Establishment of All India Muslim League – It was the land. The emperor in Delhi was paid some respect
founded at the All India Muhammadan Educational by the Company and allowed a pension, the authority
Conference at Dhaka (now Bangladesh), in 1906, in the to collect some taxes, and to maintain a small military
midst of the protests over the Partition of Bengal in force in Delhi, but he posed no threat to any power in
1905. The goal was to define and advance Muslim India.
EBD_7348
100. (d) The decision to effect the Partition of Bengal was stone was locally obtained, and the perforated screens
announced in July 1905 by the Viceroy of India, Lord were brought from Gwalior. The gateway faces out to
Curzon. The partition took effect in October 1905 and Mumbai Harbour from the tip of Apollo Bunder.
separated the largely Muslim eastern areas from the 107. (c) Shah Alam II, Shuja-ud-daulah and Mir Kasim were
largely Hindu western areas. united against British in the battle of Buxor in 1764 but
101. (b) In March 1931, the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed, and they were defeated by British Army.
the government agreed to set all political prisoners free 108. (c) The slogan “Go back, Simon” was raised and Indians
(Although, some of the key revolutionaries were not agitated against it countrywide.
set free and the death sentence for Bhagat Singh and 109. (d) The Nehru Report (1928) is based on the committee
his two comrades was not taken back which further headed by Motilal Nehru. It has recommended the
intensified the agitation against Congress not only formation of new state on the basis of language.
outside it but within the Congress itself). In return,
110. (a) Rowlatt Act was an extension of Defence of India.
Gandhi agreed to discontinue the civil disobedience
Regulation Act. An individual under the act could be
movement and participate as the sole representative of
detained without trial for 2 years. In 1922 the act was
the Congress in the second Round Table Conference,
repeated by the British. In April the congress party
which was held in London in September 1931. However,
organised a ‘hartal’ against the act.
the conference ended in failure in December 1931.
Gandhi returned to India and decided to resume the 111. (a) Officials of the East India Company carried out private
civil disobedience movement in January 1932. trade together with trading of the company. They paid
no taxes and pushed the native traders out of the market
103. (d) The Salt March, also mainly known as the Salt
Rulers of Bengal suffered and fought many wars with
Satyagraha, began with the Dandi March on March 12,
the East India Company.
1930, and was an important part of the Indian
independence movement. It was a direct action 112. (b) The Cabinet Mission Plan in 1946 held talks with the
campaign of tax resistance and nonviolent protest representatives of the Indian National Congress and
against the British salt monopoly in colonial India, and the All-India Muslim League, the two largest political
triggered the wider Civil Disobedience Movement. This parties in the Constituent Assembly of India. The two
was the most significant organized challenge to British parties planned to determine a power-sharing
authority since the Non-cooperation movement of 1920- arrangement between Hindus and Muslims to prevent
22, and directly followed the Purna Swaraj declaration a communal dispute and to determine whether British
of independence by the Indian National Congress on India would be better-off unified or divided. The interim
January 26, 1930. Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi government of India, formed on 2 September 1946 from
(commonly called Mahatma Gandhi) led the Dandi the newly elected Constituent Assembly of India, had
march from his base, Sabarmati Ashram near the task of assisting the transition of India and Pakistan
Ahmadabad, to the sea coast near the village of Dandi. from British rule to independence. It remained in place
As he continued on this 24 day, 240 mile (390 km) march until 15 August 1947, the date of the independence of
to produce salt without paying the tax, growing the two new nations of India and Pakistan.
numbers of Indians joined him along the way. When 113. (b) Indigo was the colour used as a dye in textile industry
Gandhi broke the salt laws at 6:30 am on April 6, 1930, by the Britishers.
it sparked large scale acts of civil disobedience against 116. (c) 5th Report, 1812 a famous document prepared by a
the British Raj salt laws by millions of Indians. The select committee set-up in 1810 by the British Parliament
campaign had a significant effect on changing world to look into the affairs of the East India Company.
and British attitude towards Indian independence and 117. (c) Under the leadership of Gandhiji the Civil Disobedience
caused large numbers of Indians to join the fight for Movement was launched in AD 1930. It began with the
the first time. Dandi March on 12 March, 1930. Gandhiji with some of
105. (b) The Indo-Saracenic Revival (also known as Indo- his followers left the Sabarmati Ashram at Ahmedabad
Gothic, Mughal-Gothic, Neo-Mughal, Hindoo or Hindu- and made their way towards Dandi, the group reached
Gothic) was an architectural style movement by British Dandi on 6 April, 1930. Here Gandhiji protested against
architects in the late 19th century in British India. It the salt Law by making salt sail himself and throwing
drew elements from native Indo-Islamic and Indian up a challenge to the British government. The Dandi
architecture, and combined it with the Gothic revival March signified the start of the Civil Disobedience
and Neo-Classical styles favoured in Victorian Britain. Movement.
The architect George Wittet combined the elements of 118. (a) Ryotwari System was a way of collecting tax revenues
the Roman triumphal arch and the 16th century (in British-controlled areas in India) directly from
architecture of Gujarat in the Gateway of India. Its cultivators of farmland.
design is a combination of Hindu and Muslim 119. (a) Dadabhai Naoroji was the first man to say that internal
architectural styles; the arch is of Muslim style while factors were not the reasons of poverty in India, but
the decorations are of Hindu style. The gateway is poverty was caused by the colonial rule that was
built from yellow basalt and reinforced concrete. The draining the wealth and prosperity of India. In 1867,
Modern India G-167
Dadabhai Naoroji put forward the ‘Drain of wealth’ movement, people of Bengal had boycotted the British
theory in which he stated that the British was products and advocated the Swadeshi products.
completely draining India. He mentioned this theory in 140. (c) Alluri Sitarama Raju was associated with the Gudem-
his book poverty and Un-British Rule in India. Rampa Rebellion.
120. (b) The Quit India Movement or the August Movement 141. (d) The Doctrine of Lapse was devised by Lord Dalhousie
was a Civil Disobedience Movement launched in and that aimed to extend the territorial boundaries of
August, 1942 in response to Mahatma Gandhi’s call the English East India Company.
for Satyagraha (Independence). 142. (b) The Permanent Settlement was introduced by Lord
121. (c) Ambika Charan Majumdar presided over the Congress Cornwallis.It was an agreement between the British East
Session of Lucknow in 1916. This session was important India Company and the Landlords of Bengal to settle
for two reasons the Land Revenue to be raised. The landlords were
(i) The extremists rejoined Congress. given the right to transfer or sell their lands if they
(ii) Congress and Muslim League formed a pact. liked.
123. (d) Satyagraha (or ‘truth force’) is a particularly philosophy 143. (c) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was a
and practice within the broader overall category revolutionary organization. It was established in 1928.
generally, known as non-violent resistance or civil Bhagat Singh, Chandrasekhar Azad, Sukhdev were
resistance. The term Satyagraha was coined and associated with it.
developed by Mahatma Gandhi. 144. (b) The Indian National Army was organized to fight
126. (c) Lord Dufferin was the viceroy of India when the Indian against British in India. The Indian National Army (INA)
National Congress was founded in 1885. was originally founded by Capt Mohan Singh in
127. (a) In l840, Kandh uprising broke out against British efforts Singapore in September 1942. It was revived with the
to put an end to Kandh's practice of human sacrifice. arrival of Subhash Chandra Bose in the Far East in
This revolt was led by Chakra Bishoyi. 1943.
129. (d) J B Kripalani, popularly known as Acharya Kripalani, 145. (b) The non-cooperation movement was withdrawn after
was an Indian politician, noted particularly for holding the Chauri Chaura incident in February 1922.
the presidency of the Indian National Congress during 146. (c) Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak, in 1895, founded the
the transfer of power in, 1947. Shri Shivaji Fund Committee for celebration of 'Shiv
130. (d) The term 'First War of Independence' was first used by Punya Tithi' and for the reconstruction of the Samadhi
Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in his 1909 book ‘The of Shivaji Maharaj. In 1894, Tilak transformed
History of the War of Indian Independence’ which was household worshipping of Ganesha into Sarvajanik
originally written in Marathi. Ganeshotsav. New English School was founded by Shri
Vishnushastri Chiplunkar along with Lokmanya Bal
131. (c) Simon Commission – November, 1927
Gangadhar Tilak, in year 1880. Ravindra Nath Taigore
Second Round Table Conference – September, 1931 preached the cult of self reliance or atmashakti.The
Communal Award – August, 1932 cult of atmashaki included assertion of national dignity,
Poona Pact - September, 1932 honour, confidence and working towards social and
133. (b) The pledge was first given in the charter Act 1833 clause economic regeneration of Indian villages.
87. 148. (a) By the late 19th century India was one of the largest
134. (d) E. V. Ramaswami Naicker was a social activist who producers and exporters of Cotton cotton Yarn yarn
started the Self-Respect Movement or the Dravidian and wheat. The export of Indian wheat progressed after
Movement. He was anti-Brahmin activist and Suez Canal opened in 1869. About 17% of India's wheat
supported low caste Movement. He was born in Erode, was exported by 1890s.
Madras Presidency to a wealthy family of Balijas. 149. (a) The factory Act of 1891 in India was enacted to improve
135. (b) Gandhi confined the Harijan campain to limited social the condition of labour in India. It provided some
reform-opening of wells, road and particularly temples specific rules and regulations including-the age of child
plus humatarian work-delinking it from any economic labour to be established from nine to twelve,child labour
demands- through many Harijans were agricultural could work maximum of six hours,women were given
labourers and also refusing to attack caste as a whole. halfgiven half an hour break etc.
137. (c) During the Civil Disobedience Movement,tribals in 151. (d) Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Chota Nagpur wore Khadi gave up opium consumption, 152. (a) Motilal Nehru narrated his experiences in the Soviet
drinking liquor and eating meat. Union and condemned anti-soviet propaganda. He
138. (a) On 8 August 1942 at the All-India Congress Committee described the Public Safety Bill as' a direct attack on
session in Bombay, Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi the Indian nationalism, on Indian National Congress'
launched the 'Quit India' movement. It was a civil and as ' Slavery of India, Bill No.1".
disobedience movement. 153. (b) Lord Dufferin initially called Congress as representative
139. (b) The Swadeshi movement was started to oppose the of "microscopic minority of India" but later in the fourth
British decision to partition Bengal. During the session of Allahabad, the Government servants were
EBD_7348
disallowed to take part in the proceedings of the Indian Classical Music. The word "Gharana" implies a
Congress. style of music. The followers of Tansen's school of
154. (d) Kakori Revolution was a train robbery plan executed music are widely known as the followers of "Senia
by Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, Rajendra gharana".
Lahiri, Chandrashekhar Azad, Sachindra Bakshi, 165. (d) In 1878, the Rajahmundry Social Reform Association
Keshab Chakravarty, Manmathnath Gupta,Murari was founded that emphasized on Anti-n autch
Sharma (fake name of Murari Lal Gupta) Mukundi Lal movement to discontinue the hiring of nautch girls.
(Mukundi Lal Gupta) and Banwari Lal. Roshan Singh However, the association started concentrating on
had not taken part in the Kakori conspiracy, yet he was widow remarriage at a later stage. Under this
arrested and confined to capital punishment of death association, Kandukuri Veeresalingam organized the
sentence by the then British Government. first widow remarriage on December 11, 1881 of
155. (a) Hind Swaraj or Indian Home Rule is a book written by Gogulapati Sreeramulu and Gowramma.
Mohandas K. Gandhi in 1909. In the book Gandhi gives 166. (b) The Faraizi Movement was founded in 1818 by Haji
a diagnosis for the problems of humanity in modern Shariatullah to give up un-Islamic practices and act
times, the causes, and his remedy . upon their duties as Muslims. The movement protected
156. (a) On 18 April 1951, Vinoba Bhave started his land donation the rights of tenants to a great extent.
movement at Pochampally of nalgonda district 167. (c) The Indian states committee appointed a committee
Telangana, the Bhoodan Movement. under the Chairmanship of Sir Harcourt Butler which
157. (d) Acharya Vinoba Bhave, Jaya Prakash Narayan, Dada was popularly known as 'the Butler Committee' to
Dharmadhikari, Dhirendra Mazumdaar, Shankarrao Deo, investigate and clarify the relationship between the
K. G. Mashruwala were active members of the Sarvodaya paramount powers and the princely states in 1928.
movement. 171. (b) Narendra Achyut Dabholkar was an Indian rationalist
158. (a) According to the terms of a subsidiary alliance, princely and author from Maharashtra, India. In 1989 he founded
rulers were not allowed to have an independent armed and became president of the Maharashtra
force. They were to be protected by the East India Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti (MANS), (the
Company, but had to pay for the 'subsidiary forces' Committee to Eradicate superstition in Maharashtra).
that the company was supposed to maintain for the 173. (a) After the controversy of underage marriage of Keshub
purpose of this protection. If the Indian rulers failed to Chandra Sen's daughter, the Special Marriages Act of
make the payment, then part of their territory was taken 1872 was enacted to set the minimum age of 14 years
away as penalty. for marriage of girls. All Brahmo marriages were
159. (d) The Khilafat movement (1919-22) was a pan-Islamic, thereafter solemnised under this law. The 1872 Act was
political protest campaign launched by Muslims in repealed by the Special Marriage Act, 1954 under which
British India to influence the British government. The any person of any religion could marry. The Hindu
movement became the reason for separation from Marriage Act, 1955 applies to all Hindus including
mainland India of an Islamic Pakistan, in the process followers of the Brahmo Samaj.
unleashing tremendous separation-trauma, mainly upon 180. (d) Authors of the book "Philosophy of the Bomb" was
ethnic Punjabis. The movement was a topic in Yashpal.
Conference of London (February 1920); however, Arabs 181. (b) The Chittagong armoury raid also known as the
saw it as threat of continuation of Turkish dominance Chittagong uprising, was an attempt on 18 April 1930
of Arab lands. to raid the armoury of police and auxiliary forces from
160. (c) A Resident, or in full Resident Minister, is a government the Chittagong armoury in the Bengal Presidency of
official required to take up permanent residence in British India (now in Bangladesh) by armed Indian
another country. Instead of being a representative to a independence fighters led by Surya Sen.
single ruler, a Resident could be posted to more than 182. (d) The significant feature of the quit India Movement was
one native state, or to a grouping of states which the marked by the emergence of parallel governments in
European power decided for its convenience. This different parts of India.
could create an artificial geographical unit, as in 183. (b) It was not supported by the Congress.
Residency X in some parts of the British Indian Empire.
184. (b) British capital investments were invited with 15%
162. (c) The Kesavananda Bharati case was the culmination of guaranteed interest to be paid if necessary from Indian
a serious conflict between the judiciary and the revenues.
Government, which was headed by Mrs Indira Gandhi.
185. (b) H. H. Risley
Though, the phrase 'basic structure' was introduced
for the first time by M.K. Nambiar and other counsels 186. (b) Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, in the state of Gujarat, India
while arguing for the petitioners in the Golaknath case, during the period of the British Raj, was a major episode
it was only in the Kesavanada Bharati's case that the of civil disobedienceand revolt in the Indian
concept surfaced in the text of the apex court's verdict. Independence Movement. The movement was
eventually led by Vallabhbhai Patel, and its success
164. (d) The word "Senia" is related to Tansen, the father of
Modern India G-169
gave rise to Patel becoming one of the main leaders of respectively. Other members of the Association
the independence movement. included Ramgopal Ghosh, Peary Chand Mitra and
187. (b) Mysore Princely States did NOT support the Congress Krishnadas Pal. Its membership was kept exclusive to
during the course of the Civil Disobedience Movement. Indians. It was created after amalgamating the
188. (b) Rao Bahadur Kandukuri Veeresalingam Pantulu was a "Landholders Society" and "British India Society".
social reformer and writer of Andhra Pradesh, India. He This was the first political organization that brought
is considered as the father of renaissance movement in
the Indian Together.
Telugu. He was one of the early social reformers who
encouraged women education, remarriage of widows 200. (a) The Permanent Settlement of Bengal was introduced
which was not supported by the society during his by the Governor-General Lord Cornwallis in 1793. This
time and fought against dowry system. He also started was basically an agreement between the company and
a school in Dowlaiswaram in 1874. He constructed a the Zamindars to fix the land revenue. First enacted in
temple as 'Brahmo Mandir' in 1887 and the 'Hithakarini Bengal, Bihar and Odisha, this was later followed in
School' in 1908 in Andhra Pradesh.
northern Madras Presidency and the district of
189. (c) This book was written by our great leader Netaji Varanasi.
Subhash Chandra Bose.
201. (a) The Battle of Chinhat was fought on the morning of 30
190. (c) The Swadeshi Movement campaign was officially
June 1857, between British forces and Indian rebels,
proclaimed on August 7, 1905 at the Calcutta Town
Hall, in Bengal. Boycott movement was also launched at Ismailganj, near Chinhat (or Chinhut), Oude (Awad/
along with the Swadeshi movement. The movements Oudh). The British were led by The Chief Commissioner
included using goods produced in India and burning of Oude, Sir Henry Lawrence. Maulvi Ahmaddulah
British-made goods. Shah was the Indian rebel.
191. (b) The East India Association was founded by 202. (c) Two civil servants, B.N. Rau and S.N. Mukharjee
DadabhaiNaoroji in 1866, in collaboration with played an important role in framing the constitution of
Indians and retired British officials in London. India. B.N. Rau, Constitutional Advisor to the
192. (a) The Ilbert Bill was a bill introduced in 1883 during the Government of India, who prepared a series of
Viceroyship of the Marquess of Ripon, which was
background papers based on a close study of the
written by Sir Courtenay Peregrine Ilbert.
political systems obtaining in other countries. S.N.
193. (d) Nana Sahib was the leader of sanyasi and fakirs
Mukherjee had the ability to put complex proposals in
conspiring against the British in 1857.
clear legal language.
194. (a) Young Bengal Movement was launched by Henry
Louis Vivian Derozio (1809-1831), who had come to 203. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru ,the member of the constituent
Calcutta in 1826 and was appointed in the Hindu assembly proposed the resolution that the national
College. flag of India be a "horizontal tricolour of saffron, white
195. (c) By early 1944, India was mostly peaceful again, while and dark green in equal proportion", with a wheel in
the entire Congress leadership was incarcerated. A navy blue at the centre.
sense that the movement had failed depressed many 204. (a) Government of India Act 1935 was passed by British
nationalists, while Jinnah and the Muslim League, as
Parliament in August 1935, this act ended the system
well as Congress opponents like the Communists and
Hindu extremists, sought to gain political mileage, of dyarchy introduced by GOI Act 1919 and provided
criticizing Gandhi and the Congress Party. establishment of a Federation of India to be made up of
196. (b) The correct chronology of the rebellion in ascending provinces of British India and some or all of the Princely
order are Champaransatyagraha, 1917, Moplah states. The most remarkable feature of the Act was the
Rebellion 1921, The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928 and provincial autonomy. Provincial Governments were
Salt Satyagraha 1930. wholly, responsible to the provincial legislatures and
197. (a) The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a free from outside control.
Federation. 205. (b) The French East India Company was formed in 1664
198. (c) VishnuShastri Pandit is very active in Widow Marriage AD during the reign of King Louis XIV to trade with
[Vidhava Vivah] Movement. They started Punar
India. In 1668 AD the French established their first
Vivahtojak Mandal for Widow Women to get married
again. They have written Bramhan Kanya Vivah, factory at Surat and in 1669 AD established another
English - Marathi Dictionary, Vidhava Vivah, Sanskrit French factory at Masaulipatam. In 1674, the Francois
Dictionary, & Smrutishastra etc Grantha's. Martin of French East India Company established a
199. (a) British Indian Association were founded on October trading center at Pondicherry, which eventually became
29, 1851 at Calcutta with Radhakant Dev and the chief French settlement in India.
Devendranath taigore as its President and Secretary
EBD_7348
206. (c) List - I List - II events during his tenure were Great Famine of Bengal
(Author) (Book) (1943), Rajagopalachari Formula (1944), Simla
Bal Gangadhar Tilak - The Arctic Home in the conference (1945).
Vedas 213. (a) Ghanshyam Das Birla was the man who laid the
Dadabhai Naoroji - Poverty and Un-British Rule foundations of the Birla Empire. He was a close
in India associate of Mahatma Gandhi and advised Gandhiji
on economic policies. He was the founder of the
Mahatma Gandhi - Hind Swaraj
Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and
Jawaharlal Nehru - The Discovery of India Industry (FICCI). Ghanshyam Das Birla favoured
207. (c) Indian Home Rule movement was a movement in British “healthy capitalism” in helping Gandhiji to work
India on the lines of Irish Home Rule movement and towards a “common object”.
other home rule movements. Home Rule League, either 214. (c) On 8 August 1942 at the All-India Congress Committee
of two short-lived organizations of the same name in session in Bombay, Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
India established in April and September 1916, launched the ‘Quit India’ movement. F G Hutchins
respectively, by Indian nationalist Bal Gangadhar Tilak wrote India’s Revolution: Gandhi and the Quit India
and British social reformer and Indian independence Movement. He published this book from Harvard
leader Annie Besant. The objectives of the Home Rule University on 26th 1973. He described this revolution
Movement were as follows: The primary objective of as a ‘spontaneous revolution.
the Home Rule Movement was to achieve self-
215. (b) The Kisan Manifesto that was adopted by the All-
government within the British Empire through the use
India Kisan Committee in August 1936 voiced such
of constitutional means.
radical demands as abolition of zamindari, a limited tax
208. (b) Fort St George is the first English fortress in India, on agricultural incomes, cancellation of debts and the
founded in 1644 at the coastal city of Madras, the like. The first all India based peasant organization was
modern city of Chennai. All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS), which was originally
209. (c) The Theosophical Society was officially formed in New called All India Kisan Congress and since its inception
York City, United States, on 17 November 1875 by Helena it was mainly dominated by the communists and
Petrovna Blavatsky, Colonel Henry Steel Olcott, William socialists. Thus both the statements are individual true
Quan Judge, and others. In December 1878, Blavatsky and Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of
and Olcott travelled to Mumbai, where they arrived in Statement I.
February 1879. and established the headquarters of 216. (c) A competitive examination was organized in 1853, but
the Society at Adyar near Madras. In 1888, Mrs. Annie the Indians could not seek entry. However, the system
Besant joined the Society in England. Her membership of reserving principal posts for the members of the
proved an asset of greatest value to the Society. covenanted service (means British) was introduced in
210. (b) Bipin Chandra Pal (1858-1932) was a noted politician, 1858.
journalist, an eminent orator and one of the three famous 217. (d) The Karachi session was presided by Sardar Patel.
patriots, known as the trilogy of Lal Bal Pal. The other The congress adopted a resolution on Fundamental
two were Lala Lajpat Rai and Bal Gangadhar Tilak. He Rights and Economic Policy which represented the
was one of the main architects of the Swadeshi Party’s Social, Economic and Political programme. It
movement. He stood against the partition of West was later known as Karachi Resolution. Some
Bengal. He was a member of the Brahmo Samaj and important aspects of these resolutions were: Basic civil
believed in the equality of men and women. He rights of freedom of speech, Freedom of Press, Freedom
encouraged widow marriages and female education. of assembly, Freedom of association, Equality before
211. (c) The Azamgarh Proclamation of August 25, 1857 law Elections on the basis of Universal Adult
stressed on the return of the Badshahi. This Franchise Free and compulsory primary education.
proclamation was published in the Delhi Gazette in the Substantial reduction in rent and taxes better
midst of the “Great Mutiny” of 1857. The author was conditions for workers including a living wage, limited
most probably Firoz Shah, a grandson of the Mughal hours of work. Protection of women and peasants
emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar. Government ownership or control of key industries,
212. (b) Lord Wavell, who remained 23rd Viceroy of India from mines, and transport. Protection of Minorities.
1 October 1943 to 21 February 1947. The most important
World History 18
1. 'Bostan Tea Party' is associated with which one of the 11. Which one of the following political theories advocates the
following ? [2006-I] withering away of the State? [2008-I]
(a) French Revolution (b) American Revolution (a) Capitalism (b) Fascism
(c) English Revolution (d) Russian Revolution (c) Marxism (d) Democratic Socialism
2. Rousseau’s study greatly contributed to which one of the 12. With which one of the following is the ‘Tennis Court oath’
following ? [2006-I] associated ? [2008-I]
(a) Glorious Revolution in England (a) English Revolution (b) American Revolution
(b) American War of Independence (c) French Revolution (d) Russian Revolution
(c) The Bolshevik Revolution in Russia 13. Which one of the following countries is “Orange
(d) The French Revolution Revolution” associated ? [2008-I]
3. What is the reason for July 4, 1776 to be significant in the (a) Brazil (b) Sudan
American history? [2006-II] (c) Turkey (d) Ukraine
(a) Abolition of slavery 14. Who among the following was the author of ‘Common Sense’
(b) Adoption of Constitution the revolutionary pamphlet of the American Revolution?
(c) End of the American War of Independence [2008-I]
(d) Declaration of Independence (a) Thomas Paine (b) Thomas Jefferson
4. Which one of the following is the central theme of ‘The (c) George Washington (d) Samuel Adams
Communist Manifesto’ written by Marx and Engels ? 15. Which of the following were the watch words of the French
[2006-II] Revolution? [2008-I]
(a) Tools of production (b) Theory of State (a) Right, Liberty and Equality
(c) Abolition of State (d) Class Struggle (b) Liberty, Equality and Justice
5. Which one of the following political theories advocates the (c) Liberty, Equality and Fraternity
“Dictatorship of Proletariat” ? [2007-I] (d) Rights, Equality and Justice
(a) Democratic socialism (b) Fabian socialism 16. The immediate cause of the revival of human rights in post-
(c) Liberalism (d) Marxism Second World War period was [2010-I]
6. Who authored the Declaration of Independence (USA)? (a) massive loss of lives in the War
[2007-I] (b) nuclear bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki by the
(a) George Washington (b) Benjamin Franklin
Americans
(c) Thomas Jefferson (d) Calvin Coolidge
(c) growing knowledge of brutal atrocities of Nazis over
7. In which country did the Industrial Revolution begin in the
the Jews
year 1750? [2007-I]
(d) emergence of Soviet Union as a Superpower
(a) France (b) Italy
17. Socialism refers to [2010-I]
(c) Germany (d) England
(a) State-controlled economy
8. In which country did the first Marxist revolution take place?
(b) liquidation of the bourgeoisie
[2007-II]
(c) removal of peasantry from administration
(a) Germany (b) Italy
(d) establishment of military dictatorship
(c) Great Britain (d) Russia
18. According to Karl Marx, attainment of communism is
9. Historical materialism is a tenet of which one of the following
possible only after [2010-I]
political theories? [2007-II]
(a) resolution of tension between the leader and led
(a) Capitalism (b) Liberalism
(b) completion of permanent revolution
(c) Fascism (d) Marxism
(c) emergence of exploitation-free society
10. Who of the following published a famous pamphlet known
(d) disappearance of difference between urban and rural
as ‘Right of Mass’ and urged the people in England, America
areas
and France to fight for their liberty? [2007-II]
19. "No Taxation without Representation" was the popular
(a) Thomas Jefferson (b) Thomas Paine
(c) John Locke (d) Jean Jacques Rousseau slogan of [2010-I]
EBD_7348
(a) Indian freedom struggle Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b) American war of independence (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Russian revolution (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) French revolution 26. Who among the following did not bring trading ships to the
20. Which among the following is/are the impact/ impacts of port of Surat in pre-British times? [2014-II]
industrial revolution in England? [2011-II] (a) Portuguese and English
1. Cottage industry was replaced by the factory system (b) Russian and German
of production using machines. (c) English and Arab
2. It led to the overpopulation of villages. (d) French and Arab
3. It led to the emergence of working class movements. 27. Who among the following was not a member of the ‘Big
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Four’ in the Congress of Vienna (1815)? [2014-II]
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (a) Great Britain (b) Russia
(c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 only (c) Austria (d) France
21. The international body which was formed in Europe (in 1889) 28. The Stamp Act Congress consisting of delegates from nine
to coordinate the efforts of socialists all over Europe was of the thirteen colonies met in 1765 at [2014-II]
called [2011-II] (a) Philadelphia (b) New York City
(a) Social Democratic Party (b) Commune (c) Boston (d) Providence
(c) Second International (d) Labour Party 29. Which of the following American colonies did not attend
22. Which one among the following countries is not touched the first Continental Congress held in Philadelphia?
by the Stilwell Road constructed during the World War II? [2014-II]
[2012-II] (a) Rhode Island (b) Connecticut
(a) Myanmar (b) Thailand (c) Georgia (d) Maryland
(c) China (d) India 30. The Bolshevik Revolution started in Russia during the reign
DIRECTION (Q. 23) : The following questions consist of two of [2014-II]
statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other as (a) Czar Alexander I (b) Czar Alexander II
'Reason (R), You are to examine these two statements carefully (c) Czar Alexander III (d) Czar Nicholas II
and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: 31. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for Olympe
de Gouges ? [2015-I]
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct 1. She was one of the most important politically active
explanation of A woman in revolutionary France.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct 2. She was one of the memebers of the Committee that
explanation of A drafted the Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen.
(c) A is true but R is false 3. She wrote the Declaration of the Right of Woman and
(d) A is false but R is true Citizen.
23. Assertion (A) : The Americans refused to pay taxes imposed Select the correct answer using the code given below :
by the British Parliament during the American War of (a) 1 only (b) 3 only
Independence. [2009-II] (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
Reason (R): The Americans has no representation in the DIRECTIONS (Qs. 32-33) : The following two items consist of
British Parliament. two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these
DIRECTION (Q. 24): The following item consist of two
the code given below:
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these Code :
items using the code given below : (a) Both the statement are individually true and Statement
24. Statement I : The Russian Revolution of 1917 inspired the
Indian working class movement. [2013-I]
Statement II : The Non-Cooperation Movement (1921-22)
saw the involvement of the Indian working class.
[2016-II]
32. Statement I : The city of Rome revived in a spectacular
way in the 15th century.
Statement II : From the 15th century onwards, artists were
known individually by name, not as member of a group or a
guild, in Roman society.
25. Which of the following statements about Russia is/are
33. Statement I : Chartism was the political reform campaign
correct? [2013-II]
for democratic rights which swept over Britain between
1. Russia emerged as the first socialist state in the world.
1838 and 1848.
2. Socialist state in Russia was established by Bolsheviks
Statement II : The trade union movement declined by the
in 1917.
1830s as it failed to fulfill the aspirations of the working class.
World History G-173
34. Which of the following was/were the feature(s) of Lenin’s (a) Harappan (b) Egyptian
New Economic policy (NEP) for the Soviet Union ? (c) Roman (d) Mesopotamian
[2016-II] 41. Who among the following used the term Industrial
1. Private retail trading was strictly forebidden Revolution for the first time in English to describe the
2. Private enterprise was strictly forbidden changes that occurred in the British industrial development
3. Peasants were not allowed to sell their surplus between 1760 and 1820? [2017-II]
4. To secure liquid capital, concessions were allowed to (a) Friedrich Engels (b) Eric Hobs bawn
foreign capitalists, but the state retained the option of (c) Arnold Toynbee (d) Georges Michelet
purchasing the products of such concerns 42. Who among the following first used the term ‘Industrial
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Revolution’ in English to describe the changes that occurred
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 in British industrial development between 1760 and 1820?
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 4 only [2018-I]
35. Which of the following was/were the reasons for the defeat (a) Karl Marx (b) Georges Michelet
of British during the American War of Independence ? (c) Amold Toynbee (d) Friedrich Engles
[2016-II] 43. Which one of the following statements about the Olympe
1. The remoteness of the American continent and the de Gouges (1748-1793) is correct? [2018-I]
lack of good roads (a) She declared that although citizens should have equal
2. The British authorities failed to rally the loyalist rights, they are not entitled to the same honours by
Americans the State
3. The Americans benefited from the extraordinary
(b) She was a supporter of the Jacobin government
military leadership of George Washington
(c) She was jailed for treason by the National Assembly
4. The Americans had access to superior arms and
(d) She declared that the nation is the union of woman
ammunition
and man
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 3 only 44. Which one of the following statements about Renaissance
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Humanist culture is NOT true? [2018-I]
36. The industrial revolution in England had a profound impact (a) It slackened the control of religion over human life
on the lives of people. Which of the following statements (b) It believed that human nature was many-sided
are correct about that ? [2016-II] (c) It was concerned with good manners
1. Women were the main workers in the silk, lace-making (d) It criticized material wealth, power and glory
and knitting insustries 45. Consider the following statements about merchant guilds of
2. Factory managers were well aware of the health risks South India: [2018-II]
of industrial work on children 1. Ayyavole merchant guild was originally established in
3. Children were often employed in textile factories Aihole.
4. The novel ‘Hard Times’ by Charles Dickens was a
severe critique of the horrors of industrialization 2. Manigraman merchant guild was subordinated to the
Select the correct answer using the code given below : Anjuvannam merchant guild in the 13 th century.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
37. Consider the following statements: [2016-II]
1. British colonialism continued to grow steadily in the
18th and 19th centuries 46. When did the Stamp Act Congress consisting of delegates
2. Raw cotton for the textile industry in Britain during from 9 of the 13 colonies of America meet in New York City?
the industrial revolution needed to be imported [2018-II]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1763 (b) 1764
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1765 (d) 1766
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 47. The treaty of Schonbrunn (1809) was signed after which
38. Although used earlier by French and German writters, the one of the following battles ? [2019-I]
term industrial Revolution in English was first popularized (a) Battle of Austerlitz (b) Battle of Tilsit
by [2016-II] (c) Battle of Wagram (d) Battle of Lisbon
(a) Adam Smith (b) Amonld Toynbee 48. Which of the following statements about The New Model
(c) James Mill (d) Bertned Russell Unions is/are correct ? [2019-I]
39. In the 19th century, the majority of the workers in Japan’s 1. The New Model Unions were formed in the 1850s
modern industries were mainly [2016-II] 2. The New Model Unions were formed in the 1880s
(a) Japanese men and children
3. The New Model Unions comprised a Labour Party idea
(b) Japanese women and Chinese men
4. The New Model Unions excluded women in the 1920s
(c) Women
(d) Japanese and Chinese men
(a) 1 (b) 2
40. The cylindrical stone seals were used in which civilization?
(b) 3 and 4 (d) 3 only
[2016-II]
EBD_7348
49. The Truman Doctrine of 1947 was announced to achieve Select the correct answer using the code given below:
which one of the following ? [2019-I] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Containment of the USSR (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Increasing agricultural production in the USA 51. Who among the following presented ‘The April Theses’ to
(c) Offering friendship to Europe the Russian people in 1917 ? [2019-I]
(d) Strengthening the UNO
(a) Stalin (b) Trotsky
50. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
[2019-I] (c) Bukharin (d) Lenin
1. In 1948, Burma was admitted to the United Nations 52. The treaty of Yandabo was signed in [2019-I]
and immediately supported the USA in the Cold War (a) 1826 (b) 1825
2. In 1948, Burma joined the United Nations but refused (c) 1824 (d) 1823
to denounce China as the aggressor in the Korean
War
ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 7 (d) 13 (c) 19 (b) 25 (c) 31 (d) 37 (a) 43 (d) 49 (a)
2 (d) 8 (d) 14 (a) 20 (a) 26 (b) 32 (a) 38 (b) 44 (d) 50 (c)
3 (d) 9 (d) 15 (c) 21 (c) 27 (d) 33 (a) 39 (c) 45 (a) 51 (d)
4 (d) 10 (b) 16 (c) 22 (c) 28 (b) 34 (d) 40 (d) 46 (c) 52 (a)
5 (d) 11 (b) 17 (a) 23 (a) 29 (c) 35 (c) 41 (c) 47 (c)
6 (c) 12 (c) 18 (c) 24 (b) 30 (d) 36 (c) 42 (c) 48 (a)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

3. (d) Boston Tea Party was the turning point in the history 20. (a) Industrial revolution was use of steam and machinery
of American Independent. to produce goods and services. Earlier manual labour
6. (c) American declared their independence in 1776. George an d draft based an imals were being used for
Washington became the first president of America. production.
7. (d) Industrial Revolution was responsible for flourishing 21. (c) Second International (1889-1916) was the original
capitalism in Britain. socialist international. It was an organisation of labour
8. (d) Marxist revolution takes place in 1917 in Russia. It and socialist parties which was formed in Paris in 1889.
established the ideology of Marxism and set up a new 22. (c) The Ledo Road (from Ledo, Assam, India to Kunming,
society on the basis of communist principles. Lenin Yunnan, China) was built during World War II so that
emerged as a great revolutionary leader and power came the Western Allies could supply the Chinese as an
into the hands of the public and landlords, traders and alternative to the Burma Road which had been cut by
the clergy were reduced to destitution. the Japanese in 1942. It was renamed the Stilwell Road
9. (d) Marxism is established as a social system in Russia (named after General Joseph Stilwell of the U.S. Army)
after 1917 revolt. in early 1945 at the suggestion of Chiang Kai-shek. It
10. (b) Thomas Paine published a famous pamplet known as passes through the Burmese towns of Shingbwiyang,
‘Right of Mass’ and urged the people to fight for their Myitkyina and Bhamo in Kachin state.
liberty. 23. (a) During the American war of independence, people of
11. (b) Fascism is a political system or attitudes which is in America refused to pay taxes which was imposed by
favour of strong central government and which does British parliament as they have no representation in
not allow any opposition. the British parliament.
16. (c) During the post second world war, the revival of human 25. (c) The Russian Revolution is the collective term for a
rights have resulted in growing knowledge of brutal series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which dismantled
atrocities of Nazis over the Jews. the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of Russian
17. (a) Socialism refers to the economy which is controlled by SFSR (Soviet Federative Socialist Republic.
a state. 26. (b) Russian and German did not bring trading ships to the
18. (c) Marx argued that socio-economic change occurred port of Surat in pre-British times.
through organized revolutionary action. He argued that 27. (d) The Congress of Vienna was a conference of
capitalism will end through the organized actions of an
ambassadors of European states, and held in Vienna
international working class: “Communism is for us not
a state of affairs which is to be established, an ideal to from September 1814 to June 1815. The goal was not
which reality will have to adjust itself”. simply to restore old boundaries, but to resize the main
19. (b) The American war of Independence (1756-63) ended powers so they could balance each other off and remain
European control of both North and south America. at peace. The "Big Four" Mmembers included the "Big
World History G-175
Four" and France are Austria, England, Prussia and Renaissance era from the earlier ones. It did not criticize
Russia. Later on, France was also invited to join. material wealth, power and glory.
28. (b) The Stamp Act Congress met in a Federal Hall building 45. (a) Ayyavole were a merchant guild from Aihole that
was a meeting held between October 7 and 25, 1765 in provided trade links between trading communities in
Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. They have
New York City. iIt was the first gathering of elected
been mentioned in inscriptions from the 9th century.
representatives from several of the American colonies Aihole was formerly a major city of the Chalukyas of
to devise a unified protest against new British taxation. Badami and a place with many temples and brahmans,
29. (c) The first Continental Congress met in Carpenter's Hall some of whom seem to have become involved in the
in Philadelphia, from September 5, to October 26, 1774. trading activities. Manigramam guilds were localized
All of the colonies except Georgia sent delegates. merchant body which first appeared along the Kerala
Countries which sent their delegates are New coast in the 9th century A.D and gradually flourished
in Tamil Nadu in the Pallava and Chola periods.
Hampshire, Massachusetts Bay, Rhode Island,
46. (c) The Stamp Act of 1765 was an Act of the Parliament of
Connecticut, New York, New Jersey, Pennsylvania, Great Britain that imposed a direct tax on the British
Delaware, Maryland, Virginia, North and south colonies in North America and required that many
Carolina. printed materials in the colonies be produced on
30. (d) The Bolshevik Revolution started in Russia during the stamped paper produced in London, carrying an
reign of Czar Nicholas ll (1894–1917). Nicholas II was embossed revenue stamp. The Stamp Act was passed
the last Emperor and the last Czar of Russia. He was by Parliament on 22 March 1765 with an effective date
of 1 November 1765.
executed along with his family by the Bolsheviks.
47. (c) Treaty of Schönbrunn, (Oct. 14, 1809), agreement
31. (d) The statements (1) and (3) are correct. signed at the Schloss Schönbrunn in Vienna after
41. (c) The Industrial Revolution was the transition to new
Austria’s premature war of liberation against Napoleon
manufacturing processes in Europe and the US, in the
collapsed with its defeat at Wagram and its failure to
period from about 1760 to sometime between 1820 and
get the Prussian support it had expected.
1840.
48. (a) New Model Trade Unions (NMTU) were a variety of
42. (c) The term 'Industrial Revolution' was used for the first Trade Unions prominent in the 1850s and 1860s in the
time in English by the philosopher and economist UK. The term was coined by Sidney and Beatrice Webb
Arnold Toynbee (1852-1883) to describe the changes in their History of Trade Unionism (1894), although
that occurred in British industrial development later historians have questioned how far New Model
between1760 and 1820. Trade Unions represented a ‘new wave’ of unionism,
43. (d) Olympe de Gouges was French social reformer and as portrayed by the Webbs.
writer who challenged conventional views on a number 49. (a) The Truman Doctrine was an American foreign policy
of matters, especially the role of women as citizens. In whose stated purpose was to counter Soviet
her pamphlet she asserted not only that women have geopolitical expansion during the Cold War. It was
the same rights as men but also that children born announced to Congress by President Harry S. Truman
outside of marriage should be treated as fairly as on March 29, 1947.
51. (d) Vladimir Lenin presented ‘The April Theses’ to the
"legitimate" children in matters of inheritance.
Russian people in 1917.
44. (d) Renaissance humanism is referred to as classical
52. (a) The Treaty of Yandabo was signed by Gen. Campbell
humanism that began in Italy during the renaissance
from the British side and Governor of Legaing Maha
era and spread across Europe from the 14th to 16th Min Hla Kyaw Htin from the Burmese side on 24
centuries. Renaissance humanism was used to
February 1826.
differentiate the development of humanism during the
EBD_7348
GEOGRAPHY
19
World & Physical
Geography
1. Consider the following statements with reference to doldrums: 7. Consider the following statements in respect of temperate
1. Doldrums comprise the equatorial belt of low cyclones:
atmospheric pressure. 1. They rise in the belt of trade winds.
2. The trade winds converge at doldrums. 2. They move from west to east.
3. There is strong upward movement of air in doldrums. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
4. Doldrums are characterized by turbulent weather. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Which of the statements given above are correct ? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2[2006-II]
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only 8. Which one of the following experiences the least annual
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 [2006-I] range of temperature ?
2. Match List-I (Volcano) with List-II (Country) and select the (a) Equator (b) Tropic of Cancer
correct answer using the code given below the Lists: (c) Tropic of Capricorn (d) Arctic Circle [2006-II]
List-I (Volcano) List-II (Country) 9. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
A. Semeru 1. Indonesia (a) Buran : Canada
B. Cotopaxi 2. Equador (b) Hurricane : Caribbean Islands
C. Etna 3. Italy (c) Tornado : Southeast USA
D. Kilimanjaro 4. Kenya (d) Typhoon : Philippines [2006-II]
5. India 10. Consider the following statements :
Codes : 1. The Labrador current is a cold current in the North
A B C D A B C D Atlantic Ocean.
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 4 5 2 2. The Falkland current is a warm current that flows along
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 3 2 5 4 the Chile coast of South Pacific Ocean.
[2006-I] Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
3. The 'Agulhas' water current flows through which one of the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
following oceans ? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2006-II]
(a) South Atlantic Ocean (b) North Atlantic Ocean 11. In which country is the active volcano Mount Merapi located?
(c) Indian Ocean (d) North Pacific Ocean (a) Philippines (b) Japan
[2006-I] (c) Indonesia (d) Italy [2007-I]
4. Consider the following statements : 12. Consider the following statements:
1. Rainfall in the doldrums is of convectional type. 1. All cyclones develop an eye at the centre.
2. In China type climate, rainfall occurs throughout the year. 2. The temperature inside the eye is nearly 10°C lesser
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? than that of the surroundings.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2006-I] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
5. In which one of the following regions of the world, are the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2007-I]
grasslands called Campo found ? 13. Consider the following statements:
(a) Brazil (b) China 1. The approach of a cyclone is characterised by a rise in
(c) Eurasia (d) North America [2006-I] baromenic reading.
6. Consider the following statements : 2. In the cyclones of the nonthern hemisphere, the winds
1. Half the water vapour in the air in atmosphere lies below circulate in anticlockwise direction.
an altitude of 1000 m. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. The amount of precipitable water in the atmosphere (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
increases from the equator to the poles. (c) Both1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2007-I]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 14. Which one of the following cities is located on the bank of
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 the Irrawady river?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2006-II] (a) Bangkok (b) Hanoi
(c) Manila (d) Yangon [2007-I]
World & Physical Geography G-177
15. Granite and Basalt are the examples of which of the following? (a) Stratosphere (b) Troposphere
(a) Sedimentary rocks (b) Metamorphic rocks (c) Ionosphere (d) Mesosphere [2007-II]
(c) Igneous rocks (d) Calcareous rocks 27. In which one of the following areas is monsoon climate found?
[2007-I] (a) Pacific Coast of Columbia
16. Which region of the Earth’s surface is called doldrums? (b) South-Eastern United States
(a) Equatorial low pressure belt (c) Southern Part of South Africa
(b) Sub-tropical high pressure belt (d) Central California [2007-II]
(c) Between 10° to 23.5° North and South Latitudes 28. In which one of the following regions does the Indus river
(d) Sub-polar low pressure belt [2007-I] originate?
17. Which one of the following is a low cloud? (a) Ladakh (b) Lahaul
(a) Cirrocumulus (b) Cirrostratus (c) Nepal (d) Tibet [2007-II]
(c) Altocumulus (d) Nimbostratus [2007-I] 29. What is the term used to denote the temperature at which
18. Consider the following statements: the water vapour present in the atmosphere is sufficient to
1. International Date Line lies on the Greenwich Meridian. saturate? [2007-II]
2. The date of Alaska is ahead of the date of Siberia. (a) Condensation point (b) Dew point
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Sublimation point (d) Saturation point
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 30. The earth’s reflectivity of solar radiation, termed albedo, is
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2007-I] highest in which one of the following?
19. Which of the following two countries are separated by the (a) Cropland (b) Forest area
49th Parallel? (c) Sand desert (d) Snow area [2007-II]
(a) North Korea and South Korea 31. What is the name given to an almost circular coral reef inside
(b) South Africa and Zimbabwe which there is a lagoon ?
(c) USA and Canada (a) Fringing reef (b) Barrier reef
(d) France and Germany [2007-I] (c) Atoll (d) Isthmus [2008-I]
20. Which one of the following pairs of oceans and currents is 32. Consider the following statements :
not correctly? 1. Coal is a sedimentary rock.
(a) North Atlantic Ocean: Canaries current 2. Basalt is an igneous rock.
(b) Eastern Pacific Ocean: Kuroshio current (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) South Atlantic Ocean: Falkland current (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2008-I]
(d) Indian Ocean: Agulhas current [2007-I] 33. In which one of the following region are the Andes
21. Savanna natural region is characterized by which one of the mountains located?
following? (a) East Europe (b) West Europe
(a) A distinct wet and dry season with annual range of (c) South Africa (d) South America [2008-I]
temperature between 3°C – 8°C 34. Which one of the following soils is most suitable for cotton
(b) Broad-leaf evergreen forests and grasses cultivation?
(c) Uniformly high temperature throughout the year (a) Red soil (b) Black soil
(d) No spatial variation in mean annual rainfall [2007-I] (c) Loamy soil (d) Laterite soil [2008-I]
35. What are the Westerlies?
22. Which forests lie in the Amazon Basin in South America?
(a) Permanent winds (b) Seasonal winds
(a) Montane forests
(c) Local winds (d) Variable winds [2008-I]
(b) Tropical rain forests
36. El Nino current appears along the coast of which one of the
(c) Wet deciduous forests
following? [2008-I]
(d) Subtropical mixed forests [2007-I]
(a) Brazil (b) Peru
23. The Victoria Falls in Africa is located on which river?
(c) Alaska (d) Western Australia
(a) Zaire (b) Orange
37. Which one of the following regions on the surface of Earth
(c) Zambezi (d) Niger [2007-II]
has Horse Latitudes?
24. Mount Merapi is located on which one of the islands? (a) Equatorial low pressure belt
(a) Java (b) Sumatra (b) Sub-tropical high pressure belt
(c) Borneo (d) Celebes [2007-II] (c) Sub-polar low pressure belt
25. Consider the following statements: (d) Polar high pressure belt [2008-I]
1. In tropical grassland regions, rainfall mainly occurs in 38. Which one of the following is produced by rain water
the short summer season with a long dry season. action?
2. In Mediterranean region, the winter rainfall is caused (a) Gorge (b) Cliff
by the passage of cyclones in the westerly wind belt (c) Gully (d) Dome [2008-II]
which lies over this area. [2007-II] 39. Which one of the following statements is/are correct with
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? regard to lines of latitude?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. They are concentric circles numbered from 0° to 90°.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. They are circles on a globe which are parallel to the
26. Injurious ultraviolet radiations are mostly prevented from Equator and which are to the North and South of the
reaching the land surface as these are absorbed mostly by Equator.
which one of the following?
EBD_7348
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 49. Starting from the best quality of iron ore, Which one of the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only following is the correct sequence of the iron ore based on
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2008-II] the contents of pure iron?
40. Which one of the following statements is/ are correct with (a) Magnetite__Hematite__Limonite__Siderite
regard to Milky Way? (b) Hematite__Magnetite__Limonite__Siderite
1. It is a spiral galaxy. (c) Magnetite__Hematite__Siderite__Limonite
2. The solar system resides in one of its spiral arms. (d) Hematite__Magnetite__Siderite__Limonite [2008-II]
50. How much of a time period 15° of longitudes account for?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2008-II] (a) 4 minutes (b) 15 minutes
41. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (c) 30 minutes (d) 60 minutes [2008-II]
Month Position of Sun 51. Who among the following was first to measure the
(a) June Midday Sun overhead at circumference of the Earth?
Tropic of Cancer (a) Eratosthenes (b) Aristotle
(b) December Midday Sun overhead at (c) Hecataeus (d) Herodotus [2008-II]
Tropic of Capricorn 52. Detroit is famous for which one of the following industries?
(c) March Midday Sun overhead on (a) Textile (b) Food Processing
Equator (c) Automobiles (d) Locomotives [2008-II]
(d) September Midday Sun overhead at 53. Kiel Canal connects
Arctic Circle [2008-II] (a) Baltic Sea and North Sea
42. Foucault experiment is proof of which one of the following?
(b) Red Ocean and Mediterranean Sea
(a) Revolution of Earth (b) Rotation of Earth
(c) Caribbean Sea and Pacific Sea
(c) Rotation of Moon (d) Revolution of Moon
[2008-II] (d) Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean [2008-II]
43. Which one of the following is the time required for the earth 54. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
to return to a given point in its orbit with reference to fixed the codes given below the lists : [2009-I]
stars called ? List I List II
(a) Lunar year (b) Solar year (Fishing Bank) (Coast)
(c) Tropical year (d) Sidereal year [2008-II] A. Dogger Bank 1. Newfoundland Coast
44. Which of the following statements characterize B. Grand Bank 2. Australia Coast
convectional rainfall? C. Great Barrier Reef 3. North Sea
1. It occurs daily in the afternoon in the eqatorial regions. D. Tonga Trench 4. East of Fiji Island
2. It is of very short duration.
3. It occurs through Cumulonimbus clouds. Codes :
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A B C D
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1and 3 only (a) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only [2008-II] (b) 4 2 1 3
45. Which of the following statements characterize the (c) 3 2 1 4
anticyclones? (d) 4 1 2 3
1. Anticyclones are low pressure systems. 55. Dry point settlements are common in [2009-I]
2. They are characterized by divergent wind circulation. (a) Deserts (b) Plateaus
3. They are indicative of dry weather conditions. (c) Mountain regions (d) Deltas
Select the correct answer using the code given below? 56. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only the codes given below the lists: [2009-I]
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only [2008-II]
46. Sunda Trench lies in List I List II
(a) Atlantic Ocean (b) Pacific Ocean (Volcano) (Country)
(c) Indian Ocean (d) Antarctic Ocean A. Mount Etna 1. India
[2008-II] B. Kilinanajaro 2. USA
47. If there are four place on the same meridian 500 km apart and C. Katmai 3. Tanzania
the local time at one place is 12.00 noon, what will be the D. Barren Island 4. Italy
time at the three other places?
(a) 12.00 noon (b) 1.00 pm Codes:
(c) 2.00 pm A B C D
(d) Different time at different places [2008-II] (a) 1 3 2 4
48. Which of the following features is the product of (b) 4 2 3 1
vulcanicity? (c) 1 2 3 4
(a) Fold Mountain (b) Escarpment (d) 4 3 2 1
(c) Geosynclines (d) Caldera [2008-II]
57. Which among the following planets is smaller in size than 67. Consider the following statements related to stratification
the earth ? [2009-I] of atmospheric layers [2009-II]
(a) Neptune (b) Venus 1. All storms and cloudiness are restricted to stratosphere.
(c) Saturn (d) Uranus 2. Cirrus clouds are formed on the top layers of
58. Which of the following is not correctly matched? troposphere.
[2009-I] 3. Stratosphere is also an ‘isoclinal layer’.
(a) Prime Meridian : 0° Which of the statements given above are correct?
(b) International Date Line : 180° (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
1o (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Arctic Circle : 66 N
2 68. What is the process that tends to build up the land surface
by deposition of solid material in its lower areas, known as?
1o [2009-II]
(d) Tropic of Cancer : 3 S
2 (a) Abrasion (b) Agglomeration
59. Which one of the following is different in local time between (c) Aggradation (d) Attrition
the places located at 165° East and 165° West? 69. The below diagram is of a mushroom rock. In which of the
[2009-I] points in the diagram is the intensity of wind strongest?
(a) 0 hours (b) 12 hours [2009-II]
(c) 22 hours (d) 24 hours
60. In which one of the following is a great dark plain called
“Maria” found? [2009-I] C
(a) Earth (b) Mars
(c) Jupiter (d) Moon
61. Consider the following statements [2009-II] D
1. The vernal equinox falls on March 21. B
2. On equinox, the sun is directly overhead at the equator.
3. The changes in the day length on equinox result from A
the changes in the tilt of the earth with respect to the
sun. (a) A (b) B
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) C (d) D
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 only 70. What does the imaginary line passing through Lake Ontario,
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 Lake Erie, Lake Huron and Lake Superior represent?
62. Tropical cyclone of Philippines is termed as [2009-II] [2009-II]
(a) Typhoon (b) Willy-willy
(a) The southern boundary of Canada
(c) Hurricane (d) Baguio
(b) The northern limit of iron and steel industry of USA
63. Which one of the following separates North and South
Islands of New Zealand? [2009-II] (c) The internal waterway route to USA
(a) Foveaux Strait (b) Bass Strait (d) The internal waterway route to Canada
(c) Cook Strait (d) Torres Strait 71. What is the reason for the major hot deserts of the world
64. Consider the following statements [2009-II] lying in the western part of the tropical latitude ?
1. The earth’s rotation axis is not at 90° to its orbital plane. [2009-II]
2. The earth’s rotation axis is inclined at 23.5°. (a) They are influenced by trade winds
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) They lie in the rain-shadow area of the mountains
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) They are influenced by monsoon winds
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) They are influenced by dry winds
65. Consider the following statements [2009-II] 72. Consider the following statements [2009-II]
1. The difference between the moisture-holding capacity 1. International Date Line is drawn zigzag to avoid
of air and its actual humidity is called saturation deficit. landmass.
2. The temperature to which air has to be cooled in order 2. International Date Line is 180° W as well as 180° E of
to reach saturation is called dew point. Greenwich.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. A ship sailing westward from Greenwich when crossing
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only International Date Line would put back the date by a day.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
66. Which one of the following is the correct order in which the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
gases from the atmosphere disappear as one moves away (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
from the surface of the earth ? [2009-II] 73. The earth’s crust is the thinnest [2009-II]
(a) Carbon dioxide–Oxygen–Nitrogen (a) under the mountain ranges
(b) under continental masses
(b) Oxygen–Nitrogen–Carbon dioxide
(c) at ocean bottoms
(c) Carbon dioxide–Nitrogen–Oxygen
(d) at mid-oceanic ridges
(d) Nitrogen–Oxygen–Carbon dioxide
EBD_7348
74. Cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights because of 3. Lunar eclipse takes place when the Sun comes directly
[2010-I] between the Earth and the Moon
(a) greenhouse effect 4. Solar eclipse happens when the Earth comes directly
(b) depletion of ozone layer between the Sun and the Moon [2010-I]
(c) insolation Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(d) terrestrial radiation Code:
75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
the code given below the Lists: [2010-I] (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 only
List-I List-II 85. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. In a cyclone, the area of low pressure is at the centre
(Landform) (Agent of Erosion/deposition)
surrounded by the areas of high pressure
A. Inselbergs 1 River
2. In a cyclone, the areas of low pressure surround the
B. Stalagmite 2 Glacier area of high pressure
C. Delta 3 Underground water 3. In an anti-cyclone, the area of high pressure is
D. Moraines 4 Wind surrounded by the areas of low pressure
Code: 4. In an anti-cyclone, the area of low pressure is
A B C D surrounded by the areas of high pressure [2010-I]
(a) 4 2 1 3 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b) 3 1 2 4 Code:
(c) 1 2 3 4 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1and 3
(d) 4 3 1 2 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
76. If it is 12 noon in a city located on 90° W longitude, what 86. Which among the following statements characterized EI
would be the time in a city located on 105° W longitude? Nino? [2010-II]
[2010-I] I. It occurs at irregular intervals
(a) 13:00 hours (b) 12:30 hours II. It carriers warmer water
(c) 11:30 hours (d) 11:00 hours III. It carries less saline water
77. As we proceed from equator to poles, the daily range of IV. Its atmospheric equivalent is southern oscillation.
temperature tends to [2010-I] Select the correct, answer using the code given below
(a) decrease (b) increase (a) I and II only (b) II and III only
(c) be constant (d) fluctuate (c) III and IV only (d) I, II, III and IV
78. Doldrums are characterized by [2010-I] 87. Consider the following statements regarding Andaman and
(a) uniform low pressure Nicobar Islands [2010-II]
(b) uniform high pressure I. It enjoys equatorial climate
(c) high wind velocity
II. This is the only place in India where a volcano is located
(d) low humidity
III. This is the only place in India where coral bed is found
79. Glaciated regions are associated with [2010-I]
(a) V-shaped valley (b) U-shaped valley Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) sand dunes (d) stalactites (a) I, II and III (b) I and II only
80. Which one of the following is generally found in (c) II and III only (d) I only
sedimentary rocks? [2010-I] 88. Consider the following statements [2010-II]
(a) Basalt (b) Silica I. In a cyclone, the direction of wind flow is counter
(c) Shale (d) Magnesium clockwise in the northern hemisphere
81. The interval between two high tides is approximately II. The tropical cyclone fades away when it reaches land
[2010-I] because there is no large supply of warm moist air.
(a) 4 hours (b) 6 hours Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) 12 hours (d) 24 hours (a) I only (b) II only
82. Xerophytes thrive in [2010-I] (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
(a) hot and arid condition 89. Which among the following statements about the North
(b) cool and wet condition Atlantic Drift is/are correct? [2010-II]
(c) hot and wet condition
I. It keeps the west coast of Northern Europe ice free
(d) cool and arid condition
83. Biodiversity is highest in [2010-I] II. It is responsible for the warm air mass which interacts
(a) Tundra zone (b) Prairie zone with the cold air mass from the Polar region and causes
(c) Torrid zone (d) Tropic zone rainfall in Western Europe
84. Which of the following statements is/are correct? III. It meets the Labrador current near Vancouver Island
1. Lunar eclipse takes place when the Earth comes directly and causes dense fog
between the Sun and the Moon Select the correct answer using the code given below
2. Solar eclipse happens when the Moon comes directly (a) I, II and III (b) I and II only
between the Sun and the Earth (c) II only (d) I and III only
90. Which one among the following explains the earthquakes Codes
of the eastern margins of Asia? [2010-II] (a) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1 (b) A-4; B-2; C-3; D-1
(a) Subduction of Pacific plate under Asiatic plate (c) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4 (d) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4
(b) Subduction of African plate below European plate 98. Jet streams are usually found in the [2011-I]
(c) Subduction of Indian plate under Asiatic plate (a) ozonosphere (b) mesosphere
(d) Subduction of American plate under the Pacific plate (c) tropopause (d) ionosphere
91. Unlike other Meridians International Date Line is drawn 99. The exceptionally high and low tides that occur at the time of
zigzag in order to [2010-II] the new moon or the full moon when the Sun, the Moon and
(a) permit certain land areas and groups of islands to have the Earth are approximately aligned is called [2011-I]
the same calendar day (a) Spring (b) Fall
(b) facilitate the sailors to adjust time in their watch (c) Neap (d) Diurnal
(c) adjust the day in calendar while sailing from east to 100. What is the general direction of cyclones formed in the Bay
west and vice versa of Bengal? [2011-I]
(d) make 180°E and 180°W coterminous (a) East to West (b) West to East
92. The time difference between the two cities city A (30' N 60' (c) West to South (d) North to South
E) and city B (30' N 80' B) would be [2010-II] 101. No trees are found in Tundra biome near polar region of
(a) 80 min (b) 0 min northen hemisphere. This is due to [2011-I]
(c) 20 min (d) 34 min (a) snowfall inhibits plant respiration
93. Consider the following statements. [2010-II] (b) frozen ice beneath the surface soil (permafrost) restricts
I. The tropical year is shorter than the sidereal year root growth
II. The solar day is longer than the sidereal day Which of (c) less wind movement and inadequate sunlight
the statements given above is/are correct? (d) low temperature which restricts development
(a) I only (b) II only reproductive organs
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II 102. If the Earth's axis were perpendicular to the plane of its
94. Consider the following statements about rocks [2010-II] orbit, which one among the following would not have
I. Shale becomes slate through metamorphosis happened? [2011-I]
II. Shale is converted to slate when it is subjected to (a) The North Pole will always lie in dark
tremendous pressure and high temperature (b) Days and nights would be equal throughout the year
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) No change of seasons will take place
(a) I only (b) II only (d) The sun will be perpendicular to the equator
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II 103. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
95. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the the code given below the Lists. [2011-I]
four stages of water movement in a hydrological cycle?
[2010-II] List - I List - II
(a) Evaporation-Condensation-Precipitation-Infiltration (Peak in the Easter (Location in the Map)
(b) Evaporation-Precipitation-Condensation-Infiltration Himalaya)
(c) Infiltration-Evaporation-Condensation-Precipitation A. Makalu 4
(d) Condensation-Precipitation-Evaporation-Infiltration 1 23
96. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using B. Kanchenjunga
the code given below the lists : [2010-II]
List I List II C. Namcha Barwa
(Agents of erosion) (Topographical feature)
(A) Running water 1. Cirque D. Mt. Everest
(B) Glacier 2. Barchan
(C) Wind 3. Rift Valley
(D) Underground Water 4. Doline Codes
5. Gorge (a) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1 (b) A-2; B-4; C-3; D-1
Codes : (c) A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2 (d) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
(a) A-5; B-1; C-2; D-4 (b) A-5; B-2; C-1; D-3 104. Which one among the following is the best reason for the
(c) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-5 (d) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2 marked increase in the agricultural production in India in
97. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the past decades? [2011-I]
the code given below the lists [2010-II] (a) Increases in the area under cultivation
List-I (Grassland) List-II (Country) (b) Conversion of barren land into agricultural land
(A) Pampas 1. Venezuela
(c) Use of improved agricultural methods and technologies
(B) Veld 2. Australia
(C) Downs 3. South Africa (d) Priority status given by the successive governments
(D) Llanos 4. Argentina to agricultural sector over the industry sector
EBD_7348
105. Which of the following statements regarding the Deccan 112. The current produced by upwelling of cold water off the
Traps is/are correct? coast of Chile and Peru is known as [2011-II]
1. Intense volcanic activity in the form of fissure eruption (a) El Nino (b) Humboldt current
took place towards the end of Cretaceous period. (c) Agulhas current (d) Canary current
2. The volcanic lava spread out in horizontal sheets. 113. Rain shadow effect is associated with [2011-II]
3. The regur soil found here is rich in nitrogen. (a) Cyclonic rainfall (b) Orographic rainfall
[2011-I] (c) Convectional rainfall (d) Frontal rainfall
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 114. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 the code given below the lists: [2011-II]
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only List I List II
106. Hot deserts like Sahara, Arabia, etc, receive very negligible (Current) (Feature)
amount of rainfall. This is because they [2011-I] A. Kuroshio current 1. Warm current in
(a) do not receive moisture-bearing wind from the oceans Atlantic Ocean
(b) are the most rocky and barren areas of the Earth B. Peru 2. Cold current in the
(c) are located on the tropical high pressure belt of the current Atlantic Ocean
atmosphere C. Labrador 3. Warm current in the
(d) are not on the path of the monsoons current Pacific Ocean
107. The latitude is the angular distance of a point of the Earth D. Florida current 4. Cold current in
surface, North or South, of the equator as measured from the Pacific Ocean
the [2011-I] Code:
(a) centre of the Earth (a) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1 (b) A-3; B-2 C-4; D-1
(b) equator (c) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3 (d) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3
(c) Tropic of Cancer or Capricorn 115. The intensity of insolation depends on [2011-II]
(d) Poles (a) Altitude (b) Nature of terrain
108. Sirocco is a name used to mean [2011-II] (c) Wind (d) Latitude
(a) a local wind (b) a volcano 116. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(c) an island (d) an ocean current 1. Cyclone is a low pressure system.
109. Which of the following is/are the chief characteristics of 2. The wind movement is clockwise in the cyclone of
commercial grain farming of the middle latitude grasslands? northern hemisphere. [2011-II]
1. The size of farms are generally large. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. Cultivation is highly mechanized. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. It is a type of extensive farming. [2011-II] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 117. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only [2011-II]
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only 1. The major constituent mineral of granite rock is quartz.
110. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using 2. The major constituent mineral of sandstone rock is
the code given below the lists: [2011-II] feldspar.
List I List II 3. The major constituent mineral of limestone rock is
(Desert) (Country) dolomite.
A. Kalahari 1. Angola Select the correct answer using the code given below:
B. Namib 2. Sudan (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
C. Nubian 3. Botswana (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
D. Atacama 4. Chile 118. Which one among the following is a primary rock?
Code: [2011-II]
(a) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3 (b) A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4 (a) Sedimentary (b) Igneous
(c) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3 (d) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4 (c) Metamorphic (d) None of the above
111. Which one among the following statements relating to an 119. Which one among the following is the largest temperate
anticyclone is correct ? [2011-II] desert of the world? [2011-II]
(a) Anticyclone is a wind system with a high pressure (a) Patagonian desert (b) Taklamakan desert
centre (c) Iranian desert (d) Turkmen desert
(b) In anticyclone the movement of wind is inward 120. Doldrums is a [2011-II]
(c) The contribution of an anticyclone towards (a) Tropical wind belt
determining weather of an area is quite significant (b) Tropical wind deflection belt
(d) The movement of wind is clockwise in an anticyclone (c) Sub-tropical wind belt
of southern hemisphere
(d) Tropical no-wind belt
121. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using 127. The largest number of temperate cyclones originate mostly
the code given below the Lists : [2012-I] over the [2012-I]
List-I List-II (a) Indian Ocean (b) North Atlantic Ocean
(Map showing ocean current) (Name of (c) North Pacific Ocean (d) Arctic Ocean
ocean current) 128. Which one among the following statements is not correct?
[2012-I]
1. Kuroshio (a) More than 50% of world's animal species are found in
tropical rain forest
(b) One-third of land surface is arid or semi-arid
(c) Floating plants (phytoplankton) in the ocean produce
2. Humboldt over half the world’s oxygen
3. Benguela (d) World’s important deserts are located across the
4. Oyashio equator
Code : 129. Which one among the following statements regarding
(a) A B C D (b) A B C D Chinook winds is not correct? [2012-I]
2 1 3 4 4 3 1 2 (a) They rise from the Pacific Ocean
(c) A B C D (d) A B C D (b) After crossing the Rockies, they descend to ' the east
4 1 3 2 2 3 1 4 of the mountains
122. The equatorial rain forest is also known as [2012-I] (c) They bring rainfall in the Prairies
(a) Savanna (b) Campos (d) These winds are beneficial to wheat cultivation
(c) Selva (d) Lanose 130. The cyclonic storm occurring over Caribbean Sea is known
123. The Earth’s surface receives maximum energy at 12 noon as [2012-I]
but the maximum temperature never occurs at 12 noon. State (a) Typhoon (b) Willy-Willy
which of the following reasons are correct. (c) Hurricane (d) Cyclone
1. Transformation of solar energy into heat requires some 131. Where do you find the Isle of Youth? [2012-I]
time. (a) Near Cuba (b) Near Bahamas
2. The loss of energy through long-wave radiations from (c) Near Jamaica (d) Near Saint Lucia
the Earth's surface exceeds the energy received from 132. The Suez Canal, the Strait of Hormuz and the Strait of
the Sun at 4:00 p.m. Gibraltar are important because they[2012-I]
3. Energy received by the Earth from solar radiations (a) prevent attacks on bordering nations
continues to exceed the energy lost by outgoing long- (b) prohibit the movement of ships carrying nuclear
wave radiations from the Earth's surface up to 4:00 p.m. weapons
[2012-I] (c) unite Russian access to warm water points
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (d) control access to vital trade routes
Code : 133. Which one among the following rocks does not belong to
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only the same group ? [2012-II]
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Shale (b) Limestone
124. Which one among the following agricultural crops/groups (c) Slate (d) Sandstone
of crops may be grown in abundant in lowlands and river 134. Wide range and variability in rainfall, torrential in character,
deltas of fertile alluvial soil where there is high summer reversal of winds and uncertain arrival are the characteristics
temperature and rainfall varies from 180 cm to 250 cm? of [2012-II]
[2012-I] (a) Westerlies (b) Trade winds
(a) Wheat and sugarcane (b) Cotton (c) Monsoon (d) Anti trade winds
(c) Maize and coarse crops (d) Rice, jute and tea 135. Mackeral sky is associated with cloud type [2012-II]
125. Arrange the following tropical forest groups in the correct (a) Cumulo-nimbus (b) Strato-cumulus
order of sequence based on area covered in India beginning (c) Alto-cumulus (d) Cirro-cumulus
from the largest covered area : [2012-I] 136. The average surface temperature of the earth's surface is
1. Moist deciduous 2. Dry deciduous [2012-II]
3. Wet evergreen 4. Semi-evergreen (a) 10°C (b) 15°C
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (c) 8°C (d) 5°C
Code : 137. Ferral's law is related to deflection of [2012-II]
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 3-4-2-1 (a) cold air-mass
(c) 1-3-2-4 (d) 4-3-2-1 (b) hot air-mass
126. In which one among the following areas of South-East Asia, (c) monsoon air-mass
there is largest concentration of peasant population? (d) trade wind and ocean currents
[2012-I] 138. The grassland region of South Africa is known as
(a) Areas of intensive shifting cultivation [2012-II]
(b) Highland areas where the climate is cooler and healthier (a) Selvas (b) Downs
(c) Cleared lowlands in forest areas (c) Veldt (d) Llanos
(d) Areas where the grain farming is practised
EBD_7348
139. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using Select the correct answer using the code given below.
the code given below the Lists : [2012-II] (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Code : (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A B C D 146. The President of India is elected by proportional
(a) 1 4 2 3 representative system by a single transferable vote. This
(b) 1 2 4 3 implies that [2013-I]
(c) 3 2 4 1 (a) elected MPs and MLAs of States have different number
(d) 3 4 2 1 of votes
140. Which of the following statements is/are true ? [2013-I] (b) all MPs and MLAs of States have one vote each
1. The angle of the axis in relation to the plane in which (c) all MPs and MLAs of States have equal number of
the earth revolves around the sun is not constant. votes
2. The amount of energy given off by the sun changes (d) MPs of the Lok Sabha have equal number of votes
with the transparency of the atmosphere. Select the DIRECTIONS (Qs. 147 to 149) : The following questions consist
correct answer using the code given below. of two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only other as 'Reason (R), You are to examine these two statements
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes
141. Which of the following statements regarding hurricanes is/ given below:
are correct? [2013-I]
1. They develop over the ocean between 8° – 15° N.
explanation of A
2. They are almost absent in the South Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct
3. They do not develop close to the equator.
explanation of A
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) A is true but R is false
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (d) A is false but R is true
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
142. Radioactive decay provides an internal source of heat for 147. Assertion (A) : The Steppe climate is most widespread in
the earth. This helps in the formation of which type of rocks? North America and Eurasia.
[2013-I] Reason (R) : The Steppe climate is characterized by wet
(a) Igneous (b) Sedimentary summers as well as wet winters. [2006-II]
148. Assertion (A) : Major natural regions of the world possess
(c) Metamorphic (d) All of the above
similar topography.
143. When the winds blow from all sides to the central low in an
Reason (R) : Climate is a major influencing factor in a natural
anticlockwise direction, then this phenomenon is known as
region. [2006-II]
[2013-I]
149. Assertion (A) : The tidal effect of Moon on the surface of
(a) anti-tropical cyclones of southern hemisphere
Earth is less than that of Sun.
(b) temperate cyclones of northern hemisphere
Reason (R) : Moon’s gravitational pull at Earth’s surface is
(c) tropical cyclones of northern hemisphere less compared to Sun’s gravitational pull. [2007-II]
(d) tropical cyclones of southern hemisphere
144. The diagram given below shows the schematic relations of DIRECTIONS (Qs. 150-157) : The following four items consist
temperature and precipitation of tropical climatic type over of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to
land: [2013-I] examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to
these items using the code given below:
Decreasing Code:
Temperature (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II
1 2 3 4 (b) Both the statements ‘are individually true but Statement II
Increasing Precipitation is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
Arrange the climatic types in the correct sequence from left (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
to right: (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
1. Monsoon topics 2. Wet and dry tropics 150. Statement I: During the day, winds blow from sea to land.
3. Arid and semiarid 4. Rainy tropics Statement II: The land gets more heated than the
Select the correct answer using the code given below. surrounding sea, hence lower pressure develops over land
(a) 1-4-3-3 (b) 4-3-2-1 as compared to sea. [2010-I]
(c) 2-1-3-4 (d) 3-2-1-4 151. Statement I: Winds are deflected to their right in the
145. Which of the following statements relating to tsunami is/ northern hemisphere and to their left in the southern
are correct? [2013-I] hemisphere.
As the tsunamis leave the deep water of the open sea and Statement II: The Earth’s axis is inclined. [2010-I]
travel towards shallow water 152. Statement I: Pressure gradients determine the velocity of
1. the speed considerably winds.
2. they attain enormous height is reduced Statement II: When isobars (lines or equal atmospheric
3. they appear as a gentle rise and fall of the sea pressure) are closely spaced, the wind velocity would be
gentle. [2010-I]
153. Statement I: Temperatures of countries like United 162. The rigid lithospheric slabs are known as ‘Plates’. What
Kingdom, Norway, the Netherlands and Denmark are would be the result, if the oceanic plate collides with the
higher as compared to places located on similar latitudes continental plate? [2013-II]
during the winter. 1. Oceanic plate is forced below the continental plate.
Statement II: United Kingdom, Norway, the Netherlands 2. Continental plate is forced below the oceanic plate.
and Denmark are located on the coast. [2010-I] 3. Continental and oceanic plates never collide.
154. Statement I : Oxidation in our body cells releases dangerous Select the correct answer using the code given below:
free radicals. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Statement II : Our body itself produces antioxidants to (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
neutralise harmful free radicals. [2011-I] 163. Consider the following layers of the atmosphere: [2013-II]
155. Statement I : The Mediterranean climate is highly suitable 1. Troposphere
for fruit production. 2. Stratosphere
Statement II : Cool and moist winters in Mediterranean 3. Mesophere
regions enable ample production of fruits. [2011-I] 4. Thermosphere
156. Statement I : In the northen hemisphere, the ocean currents Which one among the following is the correct sequence of
flowing from equator towards the north pole and from pole the layers with increasing altitude from the Earth’s surface?
towards the equator are deflected to their right. (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-1-3-4
Statement II : This happens due to rotation of the Earth on (c) 3-2-1-4 (d) 4-2-3-1
the axis from west to east. [2011-I] 164. What would be the date and local time of a place located at
157. Statement I : There is a large-scale fluctuation of oil flow 88°30¢ E longitude when the local time at 0° longitude is
from oil wells prior to earthquakes. [2013-I] 19.00 hrs. of 28th February 2013? [2013-II]
Statement II : Tectonic stress accumulates to a certain level, (a) 23-54 hrs. of 28th February
the pore pressure within a deep oilbearing stratum reaches (b) 00-54 hrs. of 1st March
its breaking strength causing oil to sprout along the oil wells. (c) 23-30 hrs. of 28th February
DIRECTION (Q. 158): The following item consist of two (d) 00-44 hrs. of 1st March
statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine 165. Which of the following statements about tornadoes are
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these correct? [2013-II]
items using the code given below. Tornadoes usually spin
1. anticlockwise in the northern hemisphere.
[2013-II]
2. clockwise in the southern hemisphere.
Code:
3. clockwise in the northern hemisphere.
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is
4. anticlockwise in the southern hemisphere.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
166. Which one among the following terms is used to describe a
plant that grows only in a mountainous environment?
158. Statement I: [2013-II]
Doldrums is a calm belt between 5°N and 5°S of the equator. (a) Orophyte (b) Geophyte
Statement II: (c) Epiphyte (d) Bryophyte
The sun rays strike almost vertically over the equator 167. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
throughout the year. [2013-II]
159. Which of the following are the results of EI Nino? 1. Air close to the Earth’s surface is heavier.
[2013-II] 2. Air close to the Earth’s surface contains larger quantity
1. Reduction in the amount of planktons which further of water vapour and dust particles.
reduces the number of fish in the sea. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. Irregularities in the evaporation of sea water. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. Distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 168. The term ‘albedo’ implies the [2013-II]
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) capacity to absorb solar radiation.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) capacity to modify the path of solar radiation
160. ‘Esker’ is a geomorphic feature developed by [2013-II] (c) proportion of the shortwave solar radiation reflected
(a) mechanical weathering by a surface.
(b) river action (d) amount of solar radiation returned to air by a surface.
(c) glaciofluvial deposits 169. Which of the following is the main characteristic of
(d) aeolian deposits Mediterranean climate? [2013-II]
161. It is known that the atmosphere is divided into some layers. (a) High temperature throughout the year
In which one among the following layers, is the percentage (b) Rainfall throughout the year
composition of Helium gas maximum? [2013-II] (c) Rain in winter season
(a) Troposphere (b) Stratosphere (d) Convectional rain
(c) Exosphere (d) Ionosphere
EBD_7348
170. Which one, among the following atmospheric gases, filters 2. Hydration causes granular disintegration.
out most of the ultraviolet radiation of the Sun? [2013-II] 3. Frost action is synonymous with freeze-thaw action.
(a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) Helium (d) Ozone (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
171. Which one among the following is not a factor that affects (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
direction of wind? [2013-II] 180. Lapland is a cultural region largely within the Arctic Circle
(a) Pressure gradient (b) Friction in the north of the Scandinavian Peninsula. Who inhabited
(c) Magnetism (d) Coriolis effect the Lapland? [2014-I]
DIRECTIONS (Qs.172-175) : The following four (4) items (a) Sami people (b) Padaung people
consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are (c) Hamar people (d) Himba people
to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers 181. What is the correct sequence from the smallest to the largest
to these items using the code given below: grain of the following types of clastic rocks? [2014-I]
[2014-I] (a) Shale, sandstone, conglomerate, siltstone
Code: (b) Shale, siltstone, sandstone, conglomerate
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is (c) Conglomerate, sandstone, shale, siltstone
the correct explanation of Statement I (d) Sandstone, siltstone, conglomerate, shale
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is 182. The Faroe is a group of islands lying in the Atlantic Ocean
not the correct explanation of Statement I between Scotland and Iceland. This island group is also
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false known as [2014-I]
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (a) Island of Sheep (b) Island of Goats
172. Statement I: Minerals are formed by slow cooling of the (c) Island of Cows (d) Island of Buffaloes
magma. 183. Tuareg is a pastoral nomad living in the desert of [2014-I]
Statement II: Very small crystals are formed when lava cools (a) Kalahari (b) Sahara
quickly on the surface. (c) Arabia (d) Patagonia
173. Statement I: The hills with dense vegetation cover do not
184. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using
experience heavy soil erosion.
the code given below the Lists: [2014-I]
Statement II: The vegetation cover helps infiltration of
List - I List - II
rainwater and binding of soils.
174. Statement I: The decrease of air temperature with increasing (Region) (Characteristic vegetation)
altitudes in the atmosphere is called the vertical temperature A. Selvas 1. Tropophytes
gradient. B. Savanna 2. Mosses and lichens
Statement II: In Troposphere, air temperature decreases with C. Tundra 3. Epiphytes
increasing altitude due to radiation from the Earth. D. Monsoon land 4. Grasses and trees
175. Statement I: Chemical weathering processes are found more Code:
active in hot and humid environment. A B C D
Statement II: High temperature and rainfall help in the (a) 3 2 4 1
process of decomposition of rocks. (b) 1 4 2 3
176. The summer and winter seasons in a year are caused by (c) 1 2 4 3
[2014-I] (d) 3 4 2 1
(a) aphelion (farthest) and perihelion (nearest) positions 185. Why is hydrolysis an effective form of chemical
of the Earth from the Sun during the annual revolution decomposition of bedrock in humid tropics? [2014-I]
(b) rotation of the Earth on its axis 1. Humid tropics experience high temperature and
(c) variation in solar insolation humidity.
(d) revolution of the Earth on its inclined axis. 2. There is high diurnal range in temperature.
177. Consider the following surface winds: [2014-I] Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. Doldrums (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Trade winds (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Westerlies
DIRECTION (Q. 186): The following item consists of two
4. Polar winds
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine
Which one among the following is the idealized global
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these
pattern of these winds from the Equator to the Pole?
items using the code given below.
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 1-3-2-4
(c) 2-1-4-3 (d) 3-1-2-4 [2014-II]
178. Taungup Pass is a mountain corridor connecting India with Code:
[2014-I] (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is
(a) Afghanistan (b) China the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Pakistan (d) Myanmar (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is
179. Consider the following statements: [2014-I] not the correct explanation of Statement I.
1. Crystallization is a form of mechanical weathering. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
186. Statement I: 197. Which of the following sequences is correct for rainfall?
Grand Banks are one of the major fishing grounds of the [2014-II]
world due to the presence of a vast continental shelf. (a) Slow ascent of air ® slow condensation ® heavy
Statement II: downpour
Planktons grow in the shallow waters. (b) Rapid ascent of air ® large raindrops ® heavy
187. Which of the following statements is/are correct? downpour
[2014-II] (c) Pressure decreased ® air compressed ® heavy
1. The tropical cyclones of China Sea are called downpour
typhoon’s. (d) Descent of air ® air warmed ® heavy downpour
2. The tropical cyclones of the West Indies are called 198. What would be the total population at the end of the year if
tornadoes. population at the beginning of the year is 5000 and population
3. The tropical cyclones of Australia are called williywillies. changed during the year is – birth 250, death 60, immigration
4. Formation of an anticyclone results in stormy weather 30 and emigrant 15? [2014-II]
condition. (a) 5205 (b) 5235
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) 5310 (d) 5180
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only 199. To a perpendicular to the plane of ecliptic, Earth's axis of
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only 1
188. Rotterdam of Netherlands is largely famous for [2014-II] rotation makes an angle of 23 degrees. Had this angle
(a) textiles (b) dairying 2
(c) shipbuilding (d) paper industry been zero degree, which one among the following would
189. If a news is broadcast from London at 1:45 p.m. on Monday, result ? [2015-I]
at what time and on what day it will be heard at Dhaka (a) There would have been no season
(90° E)? [2014-II] (b) The length of day and night would have been the same
(a) 7:45 p.m. on Monday (b) 7:45 a.m. on Monday throughout the year
(c) 7:45 p.m. on Tuesday (d) 7:45 a.m. on Sunday (c) The length of the day and night would have been the
190. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using same all over the earth
the code given below the Lists: [2014-II] (d) All of the above
List-I List-II 200. 'Yakuts' are the nomadic herders of [2015-I]
(Geographical feature) (Type of geographic process) (a) Gobi (b) Sahara
A. Cirque 1. Erosional feature of wind (c) Tundra (d) Kalahari
B. Yardang 2. Depositional feature of 201. A farmer in a semi-arid area claims that his farming practice
glacier is very environment friendly. Which of the following
C. Barkhan 3. Depositional feature of wind practices on his farm can justify his claim ? [2015-I]
D. Drumlin 4. Erosional feature of glacier 1. Planting a tree belt.
Code: 2. Practising crop rotation.
A B C D A B C D 3. Carrying out a large scale irrigation system.
(a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 4 1 3 2 4. Using organic fertilizers.
A B C D A B C D Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 2 1 3 4 (a) 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4
191. A topographical map with scale 1 : 50000 indicates 1 cm to (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only
[2014-II] 202. The luxuriant growth of natural vegetation in tropical
(a) 50 km (b) 500 m rainforest is due to [2015-I]
(c) 50 m (d) 5 km 1. fertile soil.
192. Quartzite is metamorphosed from [2014-II] 2. hot and wet climate throughout the year.
(a) limestone (b) plutonic rock 3. intense sunlight for photosynthesis.
(c) sandstone (d) shale 4. seasonal change to facilitate nutrient absorption.
193. The permanent wind that blows from the horse latitude to Select the correct answer using the code given below :
the equatorial region is known as [2014-II] (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) westerly (b) trade wind (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) doldrum (d) easterly 203. When the sun is 30° above the horizon, shadow of one tree
194. Which one of the following is a warm ocean current? is 17.3 m long. What is the height of this tree ? [2015-I]
[2014-II] (a) 20 m (b) 17.30 m
(a) Labrador current (b) Kuroshio current (c) 10 m (d) 1.73 m
(c) Peru current (d) Benguela current 204. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
195. In the term GIS, ‘G’ stands for [2014-II] the code given below the Lists : [2015-I]
(a) Global (b) Geographical List I List II
(c) Goodness (d) Geological (Region) (Vegetation)
196. Movements of tides are mostly determined by [2014-II] A. Selvas 1. Conifers
(a) albedo effect (b) wind velocity B. Savannas 2. Mosses and Lichens
(c) rotation of the Earth (d) revolution of the Earth C. Taiga 3. Epiphytes
D. Tundra 4. Grasses and trees
EBD_7348
Code : 209. The concept of demographic transition provides a model
A B C D for [2015-I]
(a) 4 1 2 3 (a) analyzing government responses to changing pattern
(b) 3 2 1 4 of population growth
(c) 3 4 1 2 (b) explaining major patterns of global population
(d) 4 2 1 3 movement throughout the history
205. Which one of the following weather conditions indicates a (c) analyzing spatial variations in the distribution, growth
sudden fall in barometer reading ? [2015-I] and movement of population over time
(a) Stormy weather (b) Calm weather
(d) examining the relationship between economic
(c) Cold and dry weather (d) Hot and sunny weather
development and natural population change
the code given below the Lists : [2015-I] 210. The radius of the Moon is about one-fourth that of the
List I List II Earth and acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is about
(Island) (Location) one-sixth that on the Earth. From this, we can conclude that
A. Continental island 1. Mauritius the ratio of mass of Earth to the mass of the Moon is about
B. Coral island 2. Madagascar [2015-I]
C. Volcanic island 3. Andaman and Nicobar (a) 10 (b) 100
islands (c) 1,000 (d) 10,000
D. Mountain island 4. Maldives 211. Arrange the following inventions in the field of cotton
Code: industry in chronological order (starting with the earliest) :
A B C D [2015-I]
(a) 2 4 1 3 1. James Hargreaves's Spinning Jenny
(b) 2 1 4 3 2. John Kay's Flying Shuttle
(c) 3 1 4 2 3. Samuel Crompton's Mule
(d) 3 4 1 2
4. Richard Arkwright's Water Frame
207. Consider the following diagram : [2015-I]
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 2, 4, 1, 3
212. Which one of the following combinations of stalactites and
stalagrnites occurrences is correct? [2015-II]
A B (a) Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters and
stalagmites hang from the floor of the caves
(b) Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters and
stalagmites rise up from the floor of the caves
(c) Stalactites rise up from the floor of the caves and
stalagmites hang as icicles of different diameters
C (d) Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters and
stalagmites also hang as icicles of different diameters
213. Which one of the following is the correct sequence about
various levels of organization of Biosphere? [2015-II]
D
(a) Eco system -Biosphere - Community -Population
In which one among the following lettered area of the diagram (b) Population - Organism - Eco system - Biosphere
would erosion most likely change the shapes of the riverbad?
(c) Organism - Community - Population - Biosphere
(a) A (b) B
(d) Organism - Population - Eco system - Biosphere
(c) C (d) D
208. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using 214. Which one of the following describes the Lithosphere?
the code given below the Lists : [2015-I] [2015-II]
List I List II (a) Upper and lower mantle
(Cloud) (Characteristic) (b) Crust and upper mantle
A. Cirrus 1. Rain giving (c) Crust and core
B. Stratus 2. Feathery appearance (d) Mantle and core
C. Nimbus 3. Vertically growing 215. An up fold in rock is: [2015-II]
D. Cumulus 4. Horizontally spreading (a) graben (b) horse
Code : (c) anticline (d) syncline
A B C D 216. Which one of the following gases is found in highest
(a) 3 1 4 2 quantity in Exosphere? [2015-II]
(b) 3 4 1 2
(a) Hydrogen (b) Helium
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 1 4 3 (c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen
217. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
the code given below the Lists: [2015-II] (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
List I List II 221. Statement I: There is high salinity in Red Sea.
(Low-Latitude Climate) (Characteristic) Statement II: Rate of evaporation is high in Red Sea.
A. Wet Equatorial 1. Uniform temperatures, 222. Statement I: Volcanic eruption is accompanied by
mean near 27 °C earthquakes.
B. Monsoon and trade 2. Marked temperature Statement II: Volcanoes erupt water vapours and dust
wind coastal cycle with very high particles in the atmosphere.
temperature before the 223. Statement I: Plantation farming has mostly been practised
rainy season in humid tropics.
C. Wet-dry tropical 3. Temperatures show an Statement II: The soil of humid tropics is highly fertile.
annual cycle with high 224. During solar eclipse [2016-I]
temperature in the high- (a) the earth comes in between the sun and the moon.
Sun season (b) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth.
D. Dry tropical 4. Strong temperature (c) the moon comes exactly halfway between the earth
cycle, with intense and the sun.
temperature during (d) the sun comes in between the earth and the moon.
high-Sun season 225. Which of the following statements in the context of northern
Code: hemisphere is/are correct? [2016-I]
A B C D 1. Vernal equinox occurs on March 21.
(a) 2 3 4 1 2. Summer solstice occurs on December 22.
(b) 1 2 3 4 3. Autumnal equinox occurs on September 23.
(c) 2 4 3 1 4. Winter solstice occurs on June 21.
(d) 1 3 2 4 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
218. Which one of the following pairs of properties of typical air (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
masses is correct? [2015-II] (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3only
Air Mass Source Region 226. Spruce and Cedar are tree varieties of [2016-I]
(a) Maritime : Warm oceans in (a) Equatorial forest
Equatorial the equatorial zone (b) Temperate coniferous forest
(b) Maritime Polar : Warm oceans in the tropical (c) Monsoon forest
zone (d) Temperate deciduous forest
(c) Continental : Less warm oceans 227. ‘Sal’ tree is a [2016-I]
Tropical in the tropical zone (a) Tropical evergreen tree
(d) Continental : Moist oceans in (b) Tropical semi-evergreen tree
Polar the polar zone (c) Dry deciduous tree
219. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (d) Moist deciduous tree
[2015-II] DIRECTION (Q. 228): The following items consist of two
(a) Application of lime makes the soil acidic statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two
(b) High acidity in soil is typical of humid climate statements carefully and select the correct answer using the
(c) Increasing soil acidity results in declining soil fertility code given below:
(d) Arid climate is characterized by alkaline soil
220. According to the Geo-scientists, the shape of the earth is: [2016-II]
[2015-II] Code :
1. round (a) Both the statement are individually true and Statement
2. spherical II is the correct explanation of Statement I
3. close to that of a sphere (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement
4. an oblate ellipsoid II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only 228. Statement I : Ozone is a tri-atomic molecule of oxygen.
DIRECTIONS (Qs 221-223): The following 03(Three) items Statement II : Ozone is concentrated mainly in stratosphere.
consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine 229. ‘Sahel’ region of Sahara desert is associated with
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these (a) core area of Sahara desert
items using the code given below: (b) southern moving edge of Sahara desert
(c) northern fringe of Sahara desert bordering
[2016-I] Mediterrancan sea
Code: (d) another name of Sahara desert
(a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II 230. In which one of the following countries, the Mediterranean
is the correct explanation of Statement I. type of Biome is found? [2016-II]
(b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is (a) Chile (b) Kenya
not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Argentina (d) Bolivia
EBD_7348
231. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using 2. Isotherms are parallel to latitude in Southern
the code given below the Lists: Hemisphere in oceans
List I List II 3. Minimum temperature during winter is recorded in
(River) (Mouth of the river) Northern Canada
A. Danube 1. North sea Select the correct answer using the code given below :
B. Rhine 2. Black sea (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
C. Rhone 3. Bay of Biscay (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 only
D. Loire 4. Mediterranean sea 237. Which of the following statement(s) concerning natural
Code : regions of the world is/are correct ? [2016-II]
A B C D 1. Equatorial climate regions have less urbanization
(a) 2 1 4 3 2. Meditarranean climatic reigon have high level of
(b) 3 4 1 2 urbanization
(c) 2 4 1 3 3. Equatorial limatic regions have high concentration of
(d) 3 1 4 2 human population
232. With reference to biodiversity, which of the following 4. Mediterranean climate regions practice plantation
statements is/are correct? [2016-II] farming
1. Species richness and high degree of endernism are
select the correct answer using the code given below :
important criteria for identifying biodiversity hot spots.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
2. Species diversity is highest in the tropics and
decreases down the poles. (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 only
3. Biodiversity conservation may be in situ as well as ex 238. Consider the following statements pertaining to Coffee
situ. plantation in India : [2017-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1. Need warm and moist climate with a spell of dry
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only weather during the ripening period
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only 2. Rolling fields having good drainage
233. Which of the following statements concerning Mediterranean 3. Strong sunshine over hilly slopes exceeding
climatic region are correct ? [2016-II] temperature 35°C
1. It is found in the latitude range 300 to 450 northern and 4. Karnataka is the leading producer in India
southern hemisphere Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. Mediterranean climate experiences extreme temperature (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
conditions. (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
3. In Mediterranean climate, rainfall occurs mainly during 239. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
summer season the code given below the Lists : [2017-I]
4. Mediterranean climate, rainfall is mainly due to westerlies. List I List II
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (Place) (Mineral)
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only A. Lakwa 1. Copper
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 B. Malanjkhand 2. Petroleum
234. Which one of the following is the correct descending order C. Kalakot 3. Zinc
of countries in terms of per capita availability of arable D. Zawar 4. Coal
land? [2016-II] Code :
(a) India- China - Brazil (b) China - Brazil - India A B C D
(c) Brazil - China - India (d) Brazil - India - China (a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 1 4 2
the code given below the Lists : [2016-II]
(c) 2 1 4 3
List I List II
(Geomorphic Agent) (Feature) (d) 2 4 1 3
A. Ground water 1. Plunge pool 240. Mariana Trench is located in the ocean floor of [2017-II]
B. Running water 2. Horns (a) Southern Atlantic Ocean
C. Glacier 3. Playas (b) Western Pacific Ocean
D. Wind 4. Lapies (c) Eastern Pacific Ocean
Code : (d) Northern Atlantic Ocean
A B C D 241. Taklamakan Desert is situated in [2017-II]
(a) 4 1 2 3 (a) Western Asia
(b) 3 2 1 4 (b) Southern fringe of Sahara in Africa
(c) 3 1 2 4 (c) South America
(d) 4 2 1 3 (d) Central Asia
236. Which of the following statements concerning temperature 242. Golden rice is a genetically-modified crop plant where the
is/are correct ? [2016-II] incorporated gene is meant for biosynthesis of [2017-II]
1. In winter season isotherms in Northern Hemisphere (a) Omega-3 fatty acids (b) Vitamin A
are more or less circular on continents. (c) Vitamin B (d) Vitamin C
243. The shortest day length that occurs in the Northern Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
hemisphere is on [2017-II] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 21st March (b) 23rd September (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 22nd November (d) 22nd December 253. Consider the following statements: [2018-I]
244. Which of the following statements about magnetite ore of 1. The doldrums is a low pressure area around Equator
iron is/are correct? [2017-II] where the prevailing winds are calm.
1. It is known as black ore. 2. Chinook is a hot and dry wind that blows in winter and
2. It contains 60% to 70% of pure iron. therefore raises the temperature in a short time.
3. It possesses magnetic properties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 254. Which one of the following is the driest desert of the world?
245. Light year is a measure of [2017-II] [2018-I]
(a) time (a) Atacama (b) Gobi
(b) distance (c) Sahara (d) Kalahari
(c) total amount of light falling on the Earth in a year 255. Which one of the following devices is used to measure
(d) average intensity of light falling on the Earth in a year atmospheric pressure? [2018-I]
246. Which one of the following statements about a satellite (a) Ammeter (b) Barometer
orbiting around the Earth is correct? [2017-II] (c) Potentiometer (d) Lactometer
(a) Satellite is kept in orbit by remote control from ground 256. Which one of the following is NOT a coastal depositional
station. feature? [2018-I]
(b) Satellite is kept in orbit by retro-rocket and solar energy (a) Tombolo (b) Sand bar
keeps it moving around the Earth. (c) Stack (d) Spit
(c) Satellite requires energy from solar panels and solid 257. Which of the following is/are coastal erosional feature(s)?
fuels for orbiting. [2018-I]
(d) Satellite does not require any enery for orbitin. 1. Notch 2. Sea Arch
247. Which one of the following gases is placed second in 3. Cliff 4. Hook
respect of abundance in the Earth's atmosphere? [2017-II] Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon dioxide (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
248. Which one of the following is not an igneous rock? [2017-II] 258. Chemical weathering of rocks is much greater in a place with
(a) Gabbro (b) Granite [2018-I]
(c) Dolomite (d) Basalt (a) cold and dry climate
249. The Coriolis effect is the result of [2017-II] (b) hot and humid climate
(a) Pressure gradient (c) hot and dry climate
(b) Earth's axis of inclination (d) cold and humid climate
(c) Earth's rotation 259. Which of the following statements about Ring of Fire is/are
(d) Earth's revolution correct? [2018-I]
250. Where is Mekong Delta located? [2017-II] 1. It is a zone of convergence plate boundaries
(a) Thailand (b) Cambodia 2. It is an active seismic and volcanic zone
(c) Myanmar (d) Vietnam 3. It is associated with deep trench
251. Consider the following characteristics of a tropical cyclone: Select the correct answer using the code given below:
[2017-II] (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. A warm sea temperature of > 26 ° C (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. High relative humidity of atmosphere at a height of > 700 m 260. Which one of the following Himalayan vegetation species is
3. Atmospheric instability found between the altitudes of 1800 to 2600 metres? [2018-I]
The above mentioned characteristics are associated with (a) Saal (b) Chir
which one of the following cycles of its development? (c) Spruce (d) Deodar
(a) Formulation and initial stage 261. Which of the following conditions is/are essential for tea
(b) Modification stage cultivation? [2018-I]
(c) Full maturity 1. Tropical and sub-tropical climate
(d) Decay 2. Heavy rainfall ranging from 150 cm to 250 cm
252. Consider the following statements about Roaring Forties : 3. Soil should contain good amount of lime
1. They are strong Westerly winds found in the oceans (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
of Southern Hemisphere. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
2. The strong east to west air currents are caused by the 262. Which one of the following is a local wind that blows out
combination of air being displaced from the Equator from Siberia? [2018-I]
towards the South Pole and the earth’s rotation and (a) Bora (b) Purga
abundance of landmasses to serve as wind breaks. (c) Mistral (d) Blizzard
EBD_7348
263. Which of the following are essential pre-requisites for 270. Which one of the following types of cloud is characterized
establishment of a thermal power station? [2018-I] by continuous precipitation ? [2018-II]
1. Availability of fossil fuels (a) Cirrocumulus (b) Cumulus
2. Proximity to a river, lake or sea
(c) Nimbostratus (d) Cumulonimbus
3. Good transport network
4. Proximity to an urban centre 271. Which one of the following is not an agent of metamorphism?
Select the correct answer using the code given below: [2018-II]
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (a) Heat (b) Compression
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only (c) Decomposition (d) Solution
264. Light year is a unit for measurement of [2018-I]
272. Match List -I with List-II and select the correct answer using
(a) age of universe (b) very small time intervals
the code given below the lists: [2018-II]
(c) very high temperature (d) very large distance
DIRECTION(Q. 265) : The following items consist of two List-I List-II
statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two (Koppen's Climatic Type) (Letter Code)
statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code (A) Tropical wet 1. Af
given below. (B) Mid-latitude desert 2. Cs
[2018-II] (C) Mediterranean 3. Df
Code:
(D) Humid continental 4. BWk
Code :
A B C D
(b) Both the statements are individually true but State- (a) 1 4 2 3
ment II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) Statement I is the true but Statement II is false (c) 3 2 4 1
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (d) 3 4 2 1
265. Statement I : Geostrophic wind blows above a height of 273. Steppe (temperate continental) climate is not experienced in
600 metres, parallel to the isobars. which one of the following places? [2018-II]
Statement II : Geostrophic wind is the horizontal wind
velocity, in which the Corialis force balances the horizontal (a) Pretoria (b) Saskatchewan
pressure force. (c) Perth (d) Buenos Aires
266. Which one of the following is known as uplands of delta 274. Which one of the following is not a process of chemical
region? [2018-II] weathering? [2018-II]
(a) Bef (b) Bils (c) Peh (d) Chars (a) Solution (b) Carbonation
267. Which one of the following statements about temperature is (c) Oxidation (d) Exfoliation
correct? [2018-II] 275. Spring tides refer to [2019-I]
(a) Temperature decreases with height in the stratosphere. (a) greatest difference in the sea level at high and low
(b) Temperature is constant at different heights in the tides
stratosphere. (b) lowest difference in the sea level at high and low tides
(c) Temperature increases with height in the troposphere (c) no difference in the sea level at high and low tides
at an average rate of 6.5°C per kilometer. (d) counteraction of gravitational pull of the Sun to that
(d) Temperature decreases with height in the troposphere of Moon
eat an average rate of 6.4°C per kilometre. 276. Which one of the following is NOT true in reference to Air
268. Which one of the following is known as a zone of sharp mass ? [2019-I]
salinity change in the vertical section of ocean? [2018-II] (a) Air mass forms either in tropical or in polar region
(a) Thermocline (b) Halocline (b) Air mass develops on continents as well as over ocean
(c) Photic zone (d) Pycnocline (c) Air mass develops in a cyclonic condition
269. Match-list-1 with List-II and select the correct answer using (d) Air mass changes the weather conditions
the code given below the Lists: [2018-II] 277. “Campos” and “Llanos”, Tropical Savanna grasslands are
List-I (Local-Wind) List-II (Place) generally found in [2019-I]
A. Yamo 1. Sudan (a) Australia (b) Central Africa
B. Black Roller 2. France (c) South America (d) East Asia
C. Bise 3. Japan 278. “Shamal” warm and dry wind is a “Local” wind found in
D. Haboob 4. North America (a) East Asia (b) West Coast of Africa
Code : (c) Sahara of Africa (d) Mesopotamia
A B C D 279. “Inversion of Rainfall” is associated with [2019-I]
(a) 1 4 2 3 (a) Orographic rainfall
(b) 1 2 4 3 (b) Convectional rainfall
(c) 3 4 2 1 (c) Cyclonic rainfall (Tropical)
(d) 3 2 4 1 (d) Cyclonic rainfall (Temperate)
280. Which of the following is/are environmental effects of (a) Canary current (b) California current
Rotation of the Earth ? [2019-I] (c) Kuroshio current (d) Oyashio current
1. Daily or diurnal rhythm in day-light and air temperature 285. What is the time gap in occurrence of two successive tides
2. Flow path of both air and water are turned consistently at a given place on the ocean surface ? [2019-I]
in a side-ward direction (a) 12 hours (b) 12 hours 26 minutes
3. The movement of the tides (c) 24 hours (d) 24 hours 52 minutes
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 286. ‘Black hole’ is a [2019-I]
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (a) huge black star which has zero acceleration due to
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only gravity on its surface
281. Light year is a unit of measurement of [2019-I] (b) star which has moderate acceleration due to gravity
(a) very large distances on its surface
(b) time interval in years (c) star which has collapsed into itself and has large
(c) amount of light received on earth in a year acceleration due to gravity on its surface
(d) mass of atoms (d) star which has collapsed into itself and has zero
282. Which one of the following is an example of Salt-Crystal acceleration due to gravity on its surface
growth ? [2019-I] 287. Which one of the following can be said to be essentially
(a) Chemical weathering (b) Physical weathering related to ‘Polar Front Theory’ ? [2019-I]
(c) Biological weathering (d) Bio-chemical weathering (a) Anticyclone (b) Tropical Cyclone
283. Consider the following statements relating to Richter scale : (c) Temperate Cyclone (d) Inter Tropical Convergence
[2019-I] 288. Brahmaputra and Indus rivers are antecedent rivers. Which
1. It was devised in 1935 by Charles F. Richter one of the following may be the true definition of an
2. It describes the quantity of energy released by a single antecedent drainage ? [2019-I]
earthquake (a) Which follows the initial slope of the Himalaya
3. Richter Scale has no upper limit (b) Which existed before the Himalayan range came into
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? existence
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) Which followed the dip or rock beds of the Himalaya
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Which followed the strikes of rock beds of the
284. Which one of the following ocean currents is NOT a cold Himalaya
ocean current ? [2019-I]
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 30 (d) 59 (b) 88 (c) 117 (c) 146 (b) 175 (b) 204 (c) 233 (a) 262 (b)
2 (a) 31 (c) 60 (d) 89 (b) 118 (b) 147 (c) 176 (d) 205 (a) 234 (d) 263 (a)
3 (c) 32 (c) 61 (c) 90 (a) 119 (a) 148 (d) 177 (a) 206 (a) 235 (b) 264 (d)
4 (c) 33 (d) 62 (a) 91 (a) 120 (d) 149 (d) 178 (d) 207 (d) 236 (c) 265 (a)
5 (a) 34 (b) 63 (a) 92 (a) 121 (d) 150 (a) 179 (d) 208 (c) 237 (c) 266 (b)
6 (d) 35 (a) 64 (c) 93 (a) 122 (c) 151 (b) 180 (a) 209 (c) 238 (d) 267 (d)
7 (b) 36 (b) 65 (c) 94 (c) 123 (c) 152 (a) 181 (b) 210 (b) 239 (c) 268 (b)
8 (d) 37 (b) 66 (b) 95 (a) 124 (d) 153 (a) 182 (a) 211 (b) 240 (b) 269 (c)
9 (a) 38 (c) 67 (d) 96 (a) 125 (a) 154 (b) 183 (b) 212 (*) 241 (d) 270 (d)
10 (a) 39 (c) 68 (b) 97 (a) 126 (d) 155 (c) 184 (b) 213 (d) 242 (b) 271 (c)
11 (c) 40 (c) 69 (b) 98 (c) 127 (c) 156 (a) 185 (c) 214 (b) 243 (d) 272 (a)
12 (a) 41 (d) 70 (a) 99 (a) 128 (d) 157 (a) 186 (b) 215 (c) 244 (d) 273 (a)
13 (c) 42 (b) 71 (d) 100 (a) 129 (c) 158 (b) 187 (c) 216 (a) 245 (b) 274 (d)
14 (d) 43 (d) 72 (c) 101 (b) 130 (c) 159 (c) 188 (c) 217 (d) 246 (c) 275 (a)
15 (c) 44 (a) 73 (d) 102 (b) 131 (a) 160 (c) 189 (a) 218 (a) 247 (a) 276 (c)
16 (a) 45 (a) 74 (c) 103 (d) 132 (d) 161 (c) 190 (b) 219 (a) 248 (c) 277 (c)
17 (d) 46 (c) 75 (d) 104 (c) 133 (c) 162 (a) 191 (b) 220 (d) 249 (c) 278 (d)
18 (d) 47 (a) 76 (d) 105 (b) 134 (c) 163 (a) 192 (c) 221 (a) 250 (d) 279 (b)
19 (c) 48 (d) 77 (a) 106 (a) 135 (d) 164 (b) 193 (b) 222 (b) 251 (a) 280 (d)
20 (b) 49 (a) 78 (a) 107 (b) 136 (b) 165 (b) 194 (b) 223 (a) 252 (a) 281 (a)
21 (c) 50 (d) 79 (b) 108 (a) 137 (d) 166 (a) 195 (b) 224 (b) 253 (c) 282 (b)
22 (b) 51 (a) 80 (c) 109 (c) 138 (c) 167 (c) 196 (c) 225 (b) 254 (a) 283 (b)
23 (c) 52 (c) 81 (c) 110 (d) 139 (c) 168 (c) 197 (c) 226 (b) 255 (b) 284 (c)
24 (a) 53 (a) 82 (a) 111 (d) 140 (a) 169 (c) 198 (a) 227 (d) 256 (c) 285 (b)
25 (c) 54 (a) 83 (b) 112 (a) 141 (a) 170 (d) 199 (a) 228 (b) 257 (a) 286 (c)
26 (a) 55 (d) 84 (a) 113 (c) 142 (a) 171 (c) 200 (c) 229 (a) 258 (b) 287 (c)
27 (a) 56 (d) 85 (b) 114 (a) 143 (d) 172 (b) 201 (b) 230 (a) 259 (d) 288 (b)
28 (d) 57 (b) 86 (d) 115 (d) 144 (d) 173 (a) 202 (b) 231 (c) 260 (d)
29 (b) 58 (d) 87 (c) 116 (a) 145 (b) 174 (a) 203 (c) 232 (d) 261 (b)
EBD_7348
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

2. (a) A. Semeru Volcano is situated in Indonesia. 20. (b) Ocean currents are streams of water crossing the ocean
B. Cotopaxi Volcano is situated in Equador. in the direction of prevailing winds.
C. Etma Voplcano is situated in Italy. 21. (c) Sovanna subtropical grassland are prevailing in both
D. Kilomanjaro Vaolcano is situated in Kenya. hemisphere from 5° to 20° latitudes. The main countries
3. (c) Different types of cold and worm water currents flows of this area are South Africa, Sudan, Venezuela and
in sea. ‘Agulhas’ water current flows through Indian Brazil. Hanoi is the Capital of Vietnam.
ocean through African banks. It is a permanent warm 22. (b) The largest expanse of tropical rain forest is found in
water current. the Amajon basin of Brazil, extending from the Atlantic
6. (d) Half the water vapour in the air in atmosphere lies below Coast of the foot hills of the Ande and from the Guiana
an altitude of 2 kilometer and 90 per cent of water vapour Highlands in the north to the tropic of capricorn in the
lies below an altitude of 5 kilometer. Amount of South.
precipitable water in atmosphere increases from the 23. (c) Lake Victoria is the largest lake in Africa and is the
poles to the equator. source of River Nile, the longest river in the world.
7. (b) Temperatre cyclone rises in middle latitude between 25. (c) Tropical grassland located mainly in the continental
35° and 65° latitudes. This region is the belt of western areas of tropical latitudes where rains fall during the
winds. summer season which lasts for about five months. In
8. (d) The sun’s rays are concentrated more directly in the Mediterranean region, the winter rainfall due to middle
region round the equator. So the temperature is higher latitude fronts and cyclones.
in these regions. When we move from the equator, due 26. (a) Injurious ultraviolet radiations are mostly prevented
to the curvature of the earth, the sun’s rays strike the from reaching the land surface as these are mostly
earth surface at an angle and are also spred over a absorbed by ozone which are formed in stratosphere.
larger area. So these regions do not heat to the same 27. (a) Monsoon type climate is found in Pacific Coast of
extent as do the quatorial regions Columbia .
9. (a) Buran originate around the Russia and middle asian 28. (d) Indus river originate form Tibet.
region. 29. (b) Dew point is the temperature at which the air is fully
10. (a) The Falkand curren is a cold current. It flows along the saturated and below which condensation normally
Argentina’s coast in South Atlantic Ocean. occurs, water vapour starts to condense to form water
11. (c) Mount Merapi is an active volcano situated at a height droplets.
of 2,911 metres. 30. (d) The percentage of radiant energy reflected back by a
12. (a) At the centre of a cyclone is an area of calm called the surface is called the albedo. The total amount of energy
eye. The eye is usually about 40 km in diameter. lost by scattering and reflection of various kinds and
Air in the centre of a cyclone is less dense than air returned to space is called earth's albedo.
around it because the temperature inside the eye is 32. (c) Sedimentary rocks are formed from sediments that have
greater than that of the surroundings. been pressed together. Sediments may come from plant
13. (c) Cyclone is a mass of air whose isobars form an oval or or animal remains, from minerals that were once
circular shape, with low pressure at the centre. The air dissolved in water, or form large rocks that have been
converge at the centre and rises to disposed off. In a broken up into smaller pieces by water, wind or ice.
dipression, the winds rotate anticlockwise in northern Igneous rocks are rocks formed from molten rock
hemisphere. While in the southern hemisphere, the material as it cools and hardens.
circular movement of winds is in clockwise direction. 33. (d) Andes mountains are located in the western part of South
15. (c) Igneous rocks are rocks formed from molten rock America, streth for about 7200 kilometers from Venezuela
material as it cools and hardens. Besalt, Andesite, in the north to Tierra del Fuego in the south.
Granite etc. are the some examples of egneous rock. 35. (a) Westerlies blow from subtropical high pressure area
16. (a) The air at the equator is generally rising. For this reason, (Horse Latitude) to subpolar law pressure area and lie
there is little wind in the region. This region of light between 35° and 60° north and south latitudes.
shifting winds near the equator is called the doldrums. 36. (b) El Ninos are major warnings of the surface waters of
17. (d) Low cloud group includes clouds occupying height of the ocean. It's current appears along the coast of Peru
up to 2100 metres. This group consists the stratus, the in Pacific Ocean.
nimbostratus and the stratocumulus types. 37. (b) Horse Latitudes are the subtropical belts of variable
18. (d) Maridian is 0° longitude and international date line is winds and columns that is between the latitudes 25°
180° longitude. A person travelling wastwards of the and 35° south and north. They coincide with sub-
Prime Meridian up to 180° W will put his watch back by tropical high-pressure belts.
12 hours and the other person eastwards upto 180° will 39. (c) The latitude of a place defined as the arc, measured in
have to put his watch 12 hours forward. Alaska is in degree, north or south of the meridian between the
west and Siberia is in East. So, the date of Siberia is place and the equator. The equator is given the value
head of the date of Alaska. of 0º. The latitudes thus range from 0º at the equator to
90° north or south at the poles.
40. (c) The Milky Way glaxy is the home of our solar system. 66. (b) The correct order is
It is very difficult to study this glaxy because the solar Oxygen – Nitrogen – Carbondioxide
system is located within it. It seems to be a spiral glaxy. 67. (d) All the given statements are correct.
41. (d) The parallel at which the sun is overhead at midday is 68. (b) Attrition is the process that level to build up the land
shown in the following diagram : surface by deposition of solid material in its lower area.
September 23 69. (b) The intensity of wind is strongest at the B point.
August October 70. (a) This imaginary line represents the southern boundary
of Canada.
71. (d) The major hot deserts of the world lie in the western
July November
part of the tropical latitude due to dry winds.
72. (c) International date line lies between 180°W and 180ºE
of Greenwitch. It is drawn zigzag to avoid landmass.
June 21 December 22 There is a difference in 1 day if a ship sails westward
from Greenwitch by crossing the date line.
Sun 73. (d) The earth’s crust is the thinnest at mid-oceanic ridges.
74. (c) Cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights because of
insolation.
75. (d) Rivers, glacier, underground water and wind are the
agents of erosion of delta, moraines, stalagmite and
May January
icebergs respectively.
76. (d) If it is 12 noon in a city located on 90° W longitude, it
February
would be 11 hrs in a city located on 105° W longitude.
April
March 21 77. (a) The daily range of temperature decreases on
proceeding equator to poles.
45. (a) Areas that have higher air pressure than the 78. (a) Doldrums is the name for the equatorial belt of low
surrounding area are called anticyclones. pressure lying between 5° south and 5° North latitude.
50. (d) One hour of time is equivalent to 15° of longitude. This 79. (b) U-Shaped valley forms in the region which is associated
can be calculated and from the fact that the earth with the Glacier.
completes one rotation on its axis in 24 hours, so in 80. (c) Sedimentary rocks are formed from the sediment
each hour, it covers 15° of longitude to cover 360° of deposits on the ocean beds. For example-Chalk, Shale,
longitude in total. Gypsum etc.
51. (a) The earth’s circumference was first determined around 81. (c) Tides means rise and fall in the level of the oceans and
240 B.C. by Eratosthenes. seas due to the gravitational pull of the moon. A rise in
54. (a) Dogger Bank (North sea), Grand Bank (Newfoundland the water level is called high tide and a fall is called low
Coast), Great Barrier Reef (Australia Coast) and Tonga or ebb tide. The interval between two high tides is
Trench (East of Fiji island). approximately 12 hrs.
55. (d) Dry point settlements are common in deltas. 82. (a) A xerophyte (xero meaning dry, phyte meaning plant)
56. (d) Mount Etna (Italy), Kilimanjaro (Tanzania), Katmai is a plant which is able to survive in an environment
(USA) and Barren Island (India-Andaman & Nicobar with little available water or moisture.
island) 83. (b) Biodiversity is the degree of variation of life forms
57. (b) The planet venus is smaller in size than the earth. within a given ecosystem. It is highest in prairie zone.
1 84. (a) Lunar eclipse takes place when the Earth comes directly
58. (d) Tropic of cancer is situated in 23°27’ N or 23 °N. between the Sun and the Moon. Solar eclipse happens
2
when the Moon comes directly between the Sun and
59. (b) The places located at 165° east and 165° west has 12
the Earth. Lunar eclipse takes place when the Sun
hours difference in local time.
comes directly between the Earth and the Moon.
60. (d) Maria is a great dark plain which is found on the moon.
85. (b) In a cyclone, the area of low pressure is at the centre
61. (c) The vernal equinox means equal day and night. It falls
surrounded by the areas of high pressure. In an anti-
on march 21 when the sun is directly overhead at the
cyclone, the area of high pressure is surrounded by
equator. The tilting of the earth causes the changes in
the areas of high pressure.
the day length.
86. (d) EL Nino, an unusual warning of surface ocean waters
62. (a) The tropical cyclone of Philippines is known as
in the eastern tropical Pacific is the part of southern
Typhoon.
oscillation. Scientists do not know exactly how El Nino
63. (a) Cook straight separates North and South islands of
forms. It is said that El Nino may have contributed to
New Zealand.
the 1993 Mississipi and 1995 California floods. The
64. (c) The earth rotates at 23½° on its axis and 66½° on orbital
average period length of EL Nino is 5 years.
plane.
87. (c) Barren Island (Andaman sea) is the only active volcano
65. (c) The difference between the saturation thickness and
Island in even south Asia. It is the part of Indian Union
the actual thickness defines saturation deficit. While
Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
dew point is the temperature at which the air is fully
88. (c) Cyclone is the synonym of Hurricane. The air moves in
saturated and below which condensation normally
the cyclone inwards in an anti-clock wise direction in
occurs.
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the northern hemisphere and clock-wise in the southern 102. (b) Days and Nights are not equal length all around the
hemisphere. Cyclones are divided as - equator due to the angle of the earth in relation to the
1. Extra tropical cyclones or temperate cyclones sun because the earth tilts toward the sun for six months
2. Tropical cyclones and away from the sun for six months.
89. (b) The North Atlantic current or Drift or sea movement is 103. (d) Eastern Himalaya is located between central Nepal in
a powerful warm ocean current that continues the gulf the west to Myanmar in the east.
stream northeast, which stretches from Florida to north- Makalu is the fifth highest mountain in the world in
western Europe. It moderates the chilled climate of Nepal at 8,481 metres. Kanchenjunga as is the third
western Europe. highest mountain in the world located along the India-
90. (a) In 1906, Montessus de Bailore described th e Nepal border in the Himalaya.
earthquakes and their characteristics within a specific Namcha Barwa is a mountain of the Tibetan Himalaya.
region. It generally occurs by subduction of pacific Mt. Everest is the world highest mountain with a peak
plate under Asiatic plate and triggered a series of at 8,848 metres.
devastating Tsunamis. 104. (c) The Deccan Traps are a large igneous province, one
91. (a) The International Date line is an imaginary line which of the largest volcanic features on Earth. It is located
go through the North pole to the South pole. It is 180º on the Deccan Plateau of west-central India.
away from the Greenwich Meridian. 108. (a) Sirocco is a local Mediterranean wind that comes from
92. (a) Time difference = (80–60) ´ 4 min = 80 min Sahara and can achieve Hurricane speed in North Africa
because time increases by 4 min at each longitude. and Europe. Its Arabic name is Quibli.
93. (a) 1 Sidereal year = 365.2564 days 109. (c) Middle latitude grassland farming have very large farms,
1 Tropical year = 365.2422 days are mechanised and fall in the category of extensive
So difference is 0.0142 days. cultivation. Grassland are found all across the globe.
94. (c) Slate is a fine grained rock, which is formed by 110. (d) A. Kalahari – Botswana
metamorphosed shale by great pressure. B. Namib – Angola
95. (a) Hydrological cycle is also known as water cycle. It is C. Nubian – Sudan
journey of water. It circulates from the loud to the sky and D. Atacama – Chile.
back again. First and formost transpiration occurs. In this 111. (d) An anticyclone is a large scale circulation of wind
process water evaporates from oceans, rivers, lakes and around a central region of high atmospheric pressure.
even puddles by sun’s heat. When the air currents reach It is clockwise in northern hemisphere but anticlockwise
the cooler layers of the atmosphere, the water vapour in the Southern Hemisphere.
condenses around and clings on to fine partices in the air. 112. (a) El Nino is a cold water current which runs along the
This is called condensation and be returned to the earth coast of Peru and Chile. It is also a climate pattern
as precipitation. In this case some of the precipitation which occurs every five years.
(rain fall) absorbed into the ground, called infiltration. 113. (c) Rain shadow is a dry area on the lee side of a mountain.
96. (a) Agents of erosion Topographical features There is a shadow of dryness as the mountain blocks
Running water - Gorge the passage of rain producing clouds.
Glacier - Cirque 114. (a) a. Kuroshio current - warm Pacific current
Wind - Barchan b. Peru current - cold current in Pacific ocean
Underground water - Delive c. Labrador current - cold current in Atlantic ocean
97. (a) Grass land Country d. Florida current - Warm current in Atlantic ocean
A. Pampas 1. Argentina 115. (d) Insolation is the measure of solar radiation energy
B. Veld 2. South Africa recieved on a given surface area in a given time. Some of
C. Downs 3. Australia the solar radiation is absorbed and the rest is reflected.
D. Llanos 4. Venezuela Insolation is largest when the surface faces the sun.
98. (c) Jet streams are fast flowing, narrow air current found in 116. (a) Cyclones are moving bodies of air in an enclosed area
the atmospheres of some planets including Earth. The rotating in the same direction as earth. The air inside the
main jet streams are located near the tropopause, the cyclone moves anticlockwise in the Northern Hemisphere.
transition between the tropopause, the transition 117. (c) Limestone is composed of mineral calcite and aragonite
between the troposphere and the stratosphere. which are different forms of calcium carbonate. Limestones
99. (a) Spring tides occur when the sun and moon are directly in may be formed from skeletons of corals and foraminifera.
line with the earth and their gravitational pulls reinforce It is a sedimentary rock easily soluble in water.
each other, consequently a great flood or rush as of emotion. 118. (b) Primary rocks are igneous rocks. It forms underground
100. (a) Bay of Bengal is the largest bay in the world. It finds a with original rocks. They are primary rocks as they
triangle in a shape and its bordered mostly by the were created before sedimentary and metamorphic rock.
eastern coast of India, Southern west of Bangladesh 119. (a) A desert is a region which recieves very low amount of
and Sri Lanka to the west and Burma and the Andaman precipitation. Potagonian desert is located both in
and Nicobar Islands to the east. Argentina and Chile. The desert has a population
101. (b) In Tundra biome due to the frozen ice beneath the density of around 2 persons per km.
surface soil restricts root growth. There is a region 120. (d) Doldrums are noted for their calm periods when winds
beneath the top layer of soil which is permanently frozen disappear totally. They are a low pressure area around
& called permafrost. the equator.
121. (d) HUMBOLDT-South Pacific Cool in somewhat regular waves and showing blue sky in
BENGUELA-South Atlantic Warm/Cool the gaps. The pattern resembles the scales on a
KUROSHIO-North Pacific Warm mackerel, thus, the name. In Germany and France they
OYASHIO-North Pacific Cool are known as ‘sheep cloud’, as their pattern resembles
122. (c) Dense equatorial forest, in the Amazon basin, a flock of sheep, also they are sometimes called
characterized by tall broad-leaved evergreen trees, buttermilk sky, regionally.
epiphytes, lianas, etc. 136. (b) Average surface temperature of the earth's surface is
123. (c) Transformation of solar energy into heat requires some 15°.
time, energy received by the earth from solar radiations 137. (d) Ferrel's law, named after American meteorologist W.
continues to exceed the energy lost by outgoing long- Ferrel, is the rule that air or water moving horizontally
wave radiations from the earth's surface from 4.00p.m. in the Northern Hemisphere is deflected or pushed to
124. (d) Rice, jute and tea grow mainly in tropical climate. the right of its line of motion while air or water moving
125. (a) The main areas of tropical forest are found in the horizontally in the Southern Hemisphere is deflected
Andaman and Nicobar Islands; the Western Ghats, to the left of its line of motion. Ferrel's law, which
which fringe the Arabian Sea coastline of peninsular predicts the directions of the large-scale circulations
India; and the greater Assam region in the north-east. of the earth's atmosphere and oceans, is a restatement
Small remnants of rain forest are found in Orissa state. in global terms of the action of the Coriolis force.
Semi-evergreen rain forest is more extensive than the 138. (c) The grassland region of South Africa is known as
evergreen formation partly because evergreen forests Veldt.
tend to degrade to semi-evergreen with human 139. (c) Volga falls into Caspian sea, Dnieper into Black sea,
interference. There are substantial differences in both Rhine into Mediterranean sea and Don into Sea of Azov.
the flora and fauna between the three major rain forest 140. (a) For the poles latitude = 90° and for equator latitude
regions. = 0°. Latitude at a point on the surface of the earth is
126. (d) Grain farming is very labor intensive so peasant defined as the angle, which the line joining that point
concentration is more in those places. to the centre of earth makes with equatorial plane.
127. (c) Temperate cyclones are depressions caused by the 141. (a) Hurricanes develop over the oceans between 8°-15° N.
meeting of the warm tropical air and the cold polar air at The term "tropical" refers to the geographical origin of
latitudes 40 to 60 N and S. When cold polar air moves these systems, which usually form over the tropical
in a general westerly direction and warm tropical air oceans. The term "cyclone" refers to their cyclonic
moves in a general easterly direction, a wave develops. nature, with wind blowing counterclockwise in the
128. (d) Worlds important deserts are generally located on the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern
western parts of the continents. Hemisphere. The opposite direction of circulation is
129. (c) Chinook winds have been observed to raise winter due to the Coriolis force. Depending on its location
temperature, often from below -20°C (-4°F) to as high and strength, a tropical cyclone is referred to by names
as 10-20°C (50-68°F) for a few hours or days, then such as hurricane, typhoon, tropical storm, cyclonic
temperatures plummet to their base levels. The greatest storm, tropical depression and simply cyclone.
recorded temperature change in 24 hours was caused 142. (a) Igneous means made from fire or heat. Igneous rocks
by Chinook winds on January 15, 1972, in Loma, are formed by the agency of fire out of molten matter.
Montana; the temperature rose from -48 to 9°C (-54 to About 50% of the heat given off by the Earth is
48°F). generated by the radioactive decay of elements such
130. (c) A hurricane is a type of tropical cyclone or severe as uranium and thorium, and their decay products. The
tropical storm that forms in the southern Atlantic Ocean, most popular model of radioactive heating is based on
Caribbean Sea, Gulf of Mexico, and in the eastern Pacific the bulk silicate Earth (BSE) model, which assumes that
Ocean. A typical cyclone is accompanied by radioactive materials, such as uranium and thorium,
thunderstorms, and in the Northern Hemisphere, a are found in the Earth's lithosphere and mantle – but
counterclockwise circulation of winds near the earth's not in its iron core. The BSE also says that the
surface. abundance of radioactive material can be estimated by
131. (a) Isla de la Juventud also known as Isle of Youth is the studying igneous rocks formed on Earth, as well as the
second-largest Cuban island and the seventh-largest composition of meteorites.
island in the West Indies. The island was called the 145. (b) Tsunami waves do not resemble normal sea waves,
Isle of Pines until it was renamed in 1978. because their wavelength is far longer. Rather than
132. (d) Suez Canal joins Asia and Africa, Strait of Hormuz joins appearing as a breaking wave, a tsunami may instead
Gulf of Oman and Persian Gulf, Strait of Gibraltar joins initially resemble a rapidly rising tide, and for this
Europe and Africa. reason they are often referred to as tidal waves.
133. (c) Slate belongs to the category of igneous rocks which Tsunamis generally consist of a series of waves with
are form due to the solidification of molten lava after periods ranging from minutes to hours, arriving in a
eruption. so-called "wave train".[4] Wave heights of tens of
134. (c) The given characteristics belong to the Tropical metres can be generated by large events. Although
rainfalls or Monsoons. the impact of tsunamis is limited to coastal areas, their
135. (d) Mackerel sky is a popular term for a sky covered with destructive power can be enormous and they can affect
extensive cirrocumulus or altocumulus clouds arranged entire ocean basins.
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146. (b) The new President is chosen by an electoral college of the equatorial current and leads to an increase of
consisting of the elected members of both houses of surface water temperatures of 10ºC and a decrease in
Parliament(M.P.), the elected members of the State Plankton which thrive in colder current. El Nino occurs
Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan Sabha) of all States and every seven to fourteen years and result forms a
the elected members of the legislative assemblies weakening of S.E. Trade Winds in the Pacific.
(M.L.A.) of two Union Territories i.e., National Capital 160. (c) Esker – A narrow, sinuous ridge of partly stratified
Territory(NCT) of Delhi and Union Territory of coarse sand and gravel of glaciofluvial origin.
Pondicherry. Each elector casts a different number of 161. (c) The structure of Exosphere say, height of volume
votes. The general principle is that the total number of sphere is above 500 km, having maximum hydrogen
votes cast by Members of Parliament equals the total and helium and the researches are being done for its
number of votes cast by State Legislators. Also, specific situation of sphere. Since, structure of
legislators from larger states cast more votes than those Atmosphere is divided into 6 spheres say–
from smaller states. Finally, the number of legislators in (i) Troposphere (upto 11 km), (ii) Tropopause,
a state matters; if a state has few legislators, then each (iii) Stratosphere, (iv) Ozonosphere, (v) Ionosphere
legislator has more votes; if a state has many legislators, and (vi) Exosphere (above 500 km.)
then each legislator has fewer votes. 162. (a) When two rigid slabs of lithospheric, known as plate
147. (c) The Steppes are areas of comparatively lower collid with an another. The plate made of heavier
temperature and slightly more precipitation. Here material is tend to below the plate made of lights
annual average temperature is approximately 21°C. material (SIAG).
Temperate grasses are main vegetation of these regions. 163. (a) Correct sequence of the layers given in Question is
Norhern America’s Prairies and the steppes of Eurasia Troposphere – Stratosphere – Mesosphere (in
are the major areas of thesee grassland. between Stratosphere–Ionosphere). Thermosphere
148. (d) Major natural regions of the world have not same type (Above the Mesosphere or synonymous Ionosphere.
of climates. The different climates make different 164. (b) There is a time difference of 4 minutes at Eurg 1º. Hence
topographies. the following calculation will be done.
150. (a) During the day the land gets warmer than the sea Long Time difference
producing low pressure over the land into which cooler 8803¢ – 80-30¢ × 4 = 5 hrs 54 minutes,
air moves from over the sea. Thus the local wind blows Countries in E of Greenwich Meridian, will get more
from sea to land which is called sea breeze. time i.e., in East time will be added, while in West time
151. (b) Winds are deflected to their right in the northern will be less. At 0º longitude is 19 hrs of 28th Feb.
hemisphere while to the left in southern hemisphere. 19 hrs + 5 hrs 54 minutes = 24 hrs–54 minutes the date
152. (a) When isobars are closely spaced, the wind velocity will change at 24.01 hrs. So it will be 0-54 minutes of
would be gentle as the pressure gradients determine 1st March.
the velocity of winds. 165. (b) Tornado–A rapidly rotating column of the air
153. (a) Since United Kingdom, Norway, Netherland and developed around a very intense low pressure area,
Denmark are located on the coast, their temperature is associated with a dark funnel shaped cloud, originate
higher than the places located on similar latitudes during at USA.
the winter. The air is anticlockwise in the northern hemisphere
154. (b) Some antioxidants are produced by our body whereas and clockwise in southern hemisphere.
those the body cannot produce are obtained from the 166. (a) Orophyte : A plant that will grow only in a mountainous
diet. environment
157. (a) We have been observing the flow of oil from wells in Geophyte : One of the six major floral life from classes
the Gulf of Suez and have noticed that remarkable recognized by Danish Botanist Raunkiaer.
fluctuations in flow occurred near the time of certain Epiphyte: Plant grows an another plant not in a parasitic
nearby earthquake events. The Gulf of Suez is way Bryophyte–A flower less green plant.
considered to be an opening tensile region with Sinai 167. (c) At higher altitude air is lighter while close to earth
moving away from the African continent. The surface its heavier. In Troposphere the dust particles
earthquakes occurred close to the bifurcation point of and water is more than upperlayer.
the Gulf of Suez and Eilat and the wells are about 100 168. (c) The short wave solar energy reflected by any surface
km north from this point in the Gulf of Suez. The oil was (i.e., saud, snow, atmosphere etc.) without heating the
driven up by natural pore pressure and was not surface is called Albedo.
pumped. Measurements of oil flow were made once a 169. (c) In Mediterranean Region most of the rainfall occurs in
month. winter season. Normally summer's leap is moderate.
158. (b) Doldrums a zone of light, calm (westerly) winds in 170. (d) Ultra-violet rays are filtered by ozone gas present in
equatorial latitude, applicably largly to occens, moves the atmosphere.
few degress N and S of the equator seasonally sun fall 172. (b) If the magma cools quickly, the crystals do not have
vertically over the equator, causing 12 hour day 12 much time to form, so they are very small. If the magma
hour night. cools slowly, then the crystals have enough time to
159. (c) El-Nino a name given to the occasional development grow and become large. Mineral crystals that form
of a warm occean current along the Peru Coast as a when magma cools slowly are larger than crystals that
temporary replacement of the cold. It is an extension form when lava cools rapidly.
173. (a) ( a) is correct and statement II is the correct explanation 70) throughout the year. Humid Subtropical climate is
of statement I . known for hot humid summers. During the summer
174. (a) (a) is correct and statement II is the correct explanation the average temperature is between 70 and 80 degrees.
of statement I. 186. (b) The Grand Banks is a large area of submerged
175. (b) Both statements are correct but statement II is not the highlands southeast of Newfoundland and east of the
correct explanation of statement I. Laurentian Channel on the North American continental
176. (d) The summer and winter seasons in a year are caused shelf. It is in this area that the cold Labrador Current
by revolution of the earth on its inclined axis. mixes with the warm waters of the Gulf Stream. The
177. (a) Doldrums are a low pressure area around equator after mixing of these waters and the shape of the ocean
which come the trade wind whose expanse is from bottom lifts nutrients to the surface. These conditions
tropic of cancer to tropic of capricorn. They move in created one of the richest fishing grounds in the world.
North-East direction in the Northern hemisphere and Plankton are organisms that live in the water. They are
North-East in the Southern hemisphere. They are carried by waves, tides and currents. They are usually
followed by westerlies that prevail in mid latitude found in the shallow surface waters.
between 30 and 60 degrees latitude. As the name 187. (c) A typhoon is the name of a strong tropical cyclone
suggests polar winds are closer to the poles. The whose development is common in the Western North
correct answer is (a). Pacific Ocean and South China Sea. The vast majority
178. (d) Taungup Pass is a mountain corridor connecting India of tornadoes occur in the Tornado Alley region of the
with Myanmar. Taungup is situated located in United States although they can occur nearly anywhere
Sandoway district of Myanmar. in North America. Willy willies is a severe tropical
179. (d) Crystallisation is a form of mechanical weathering. It cyclone of Australia. Formation of an anti cyclone
is operative especially in arid climates. Due to dry results in calm and settled weather.
weather, moisture is drawn to the surface of rocks. 188. (c) Rotterdam of Netherlands is largely famous for
Hydration is another process which involves water, Shipbuilding. Rotterdam's economy is still almost based
but there is no chemical change whatsoever. Hydration on shipping. The port lies at the heart of the densely
causes granular disintegration. populated and industrialized triangle of London, Paris,
Frost action is also termed as synonymous with freeze- and the German Ruhr district and at the mouths of two
thaw action. important rivers (the Rhine and the Meuse).
180. (a) The Sami people are an indigenous Finno-Ugric people 189. (a) When a news is broadcast from London at 1:45 pm on
inhabiting the Arctic area of Sápmi, which today Monday, it will be heard at Dhaka (90 Degree E) at 7:45
encompasses parts of far northern Norway, pm.
Sweden,Finland, the Kola Peninsula of Russia, and 190. (b) A cirque is an amphitheatre-like valley head, formed at
the border area between south and middle Sweden the head of a valley glacier by erosion. Yardang is a
and Norway. keel-shaped crest or ridge of rock, formed by the action
181. (b) Clastic sedimenatry rocks form by weathering of the wind usually parallel to the prevailing wind
processes which break down rocks into pebble, sand, direction.Barkhan is a crescent-shaped shifting
or cla particles by exposure to wind, ice, and water. sanddune convex on the windward side and steeper
Clastic sedimentary rockes are names according to and concave on the leeward. It is an erosional feature
the grain size of the sediment particles. of wind.Drumlin is a long, narrow or oval, smoothly
Conglomerate = coarse (64 mm to > 256 mm), rounded rounded hill of unstratified glacial drift. Drumlins are
grains generally found in broad lowland regions, with their
Breccia = coarse (2mm to 64 mm), angular grains long axes roughly parallel to the path of glacial flow.
Sandstone = grains ranging in size from 2 mm to 1/16 mm 191. (b) Topographic maps are detailed, accurate graphic
Shale = grains ranging in size from 1/16 mm to representations of features that appear on the Earth's
182. (a) The Faroe Islands are an archipelago between the surface. A topographical map with scale 1:50000
Norwegian Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean. The indicates 1 cm to 500 m.
Faroese sheep is a breed of domestic sheep native to 192. (c) Sandstone is converted into quartzite through heating
the Faroe Islands. Thus, this group of islands is also and pressure. Thus, Quartzite is metamorphosed from
known as Island of Sheep. sandstone.
183. (b) The Tuareg is a pastoral nomad living in the desert of 193. (b) Blowing from the subtropical highs or horse latitudes
Sahara. They are found in Algeria, Mali and Niger. toward the low pressure of the ITCZ are the trade
184. (b) Selvas- Tropophytes winds. They are named by their ability to quickly propel
Savanna- Grasses and Trees trading ships across the ocean. They blow from 30
Tundra- Mosses and Lichens degree north and south the Equator.
Mansoon land - Epiphytes 194. (b) Kuroshio current is a warm current in the Pacific Ocean
185. (c) Hydrolysis is the weathering reaction that occurs when along the southern and eastern shores of Japan.
the two surfaces of water and compound meet. It 195. (b) In the term GIS, 'G' stands for Geographic. A
involves the reaction between mineral ions and the geographic information system (GIS) is a system
ions of water (OH- and H+), and results in the designed to capture, store, manipulate, analyze,
decomposition of the rock surface by forming new manage, and present all types of spatial or
compounds. Temperatures usually stay high (above geographical data. GIS applications are tools that allow
EBD_7348
users to create interactive queries (user-created sufficiently widely spaced so that the canopy does
searches), analyze spatial information, edit data in not close.
maps, and present the results of all these operations. 205. (a) A rapid fall of barometer reading means stormy
196. (c) Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the conditions.
combined effects of gravitational forces exerted by 206. (a) Maldives consists of 1,192 coral islands. The island
the Moon, Sun, and rotation of the Earth. of Mauritius is relatively young geologically, having
197. (c) There is negative relationship between rainfall and been created by volcanic activity some 8 million years
pressure. When the air pressure is lower, more rainfall ago. Madagascar is a special type of continental island
occurs. When there is low pressure in the atmosphere, is the microcontinental island, which results when a
the air bubbles that is rising, are always hotter than continent is rifted.
the air around. If the ground is heated then air will rise. 208. (c) Cirrus is a genus of atmospheric cloud generally
The cool air will produce condensation that will characterized by thin, wispy strands. Stratus clouds
ultimately lead to rainfall. are a genus of low-level cloud characterized by
198. (a) Total population = horizontal layering with a uniform base, as opposed
Population at the begining of the year + to convective or cumuliform clouds that are formed
[Birth + Immigration] – [Death + Emigration] by rising thermals. nimbus indicates a precipitating
5000 + [250 + 30] – [60 + 15]= 5205 cloud. Cumulus clouds, being low-stage clouds, are
199. (a) In astronomy, axial tilt (also called obliquity) is the generally less than 1,000 m (3,300 ft) in altitude unless
angle between an object's rotational axis and the they are the more vertical cumulus congestus form.
perpendicular to its Orbital plane, both oriented by Cumulus clouds may appear by themselves, in lines,
the right hand rule. At an obliquity of 0°, these lines or in clusters.
point in the same direction i.e. the rotational axis is 209. (c) Demographic transition (DT) refers to the transition
perpendicular to the orbital plane. Axial tilt differs from from high birth and death rates to low birth and death
inclination. Over the course of an orbit, the angle of rates as a country develops from a pre-industrial to an
the axial tilt does not change, and the orientation of industrialized economic system.
the axis remains the same relative to the background 210. (b) Rm = Re /4 ; gm = ge /6
stars. This causes one pole to be directed toward the g = GM/R2
Sun on one side of the orbit, and the other pole on the ge / gm = (Me/ Re2) / (Mm / Rm2)
other side, the cause of the seasons on the Earth. ge / gm = (Me/ Mm) / (Rm/ Re)2
200. (c) Yakuts are the nomadic reindeer herder of Tundra. (Me/ Mm) = (ge / gm ) X (Re / Rm)2
201. (b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct. = (6 gm/ gm) X (4 Rm / Rm)2
202. (b) What makes humid tropical forests so productive is = 6 X 4 X 4 = 96 » 100
the combination of high temperatures, light, and rainfall
211. (b) James Hargreaves spinning jenny was invented in
year-round (good growing conditions) coupled with
1764. John Kay's flying shuttle was invented in 1733.
especially efficient nutrient recycling.
Samuel Crompton's mule was invented in 1779. Richard
height of free AB Awkwart's water frame was patented in 1769.
203. (c) From trigonometry tan 30º = 213. (d) Organism ® Population ® Ecosystem ® Biosphere
BC
214. (b) Lithosphere consists of crust and upper mantle.
1 216. (a) Hydrogen is present throughout the exosphere, with
\ Height of tree, AB = tan 30ºBC = ´ 17.3
some helium, carbon dioxide, and atomic oxygen near
3
= 10 cm its base.
220. (d) The simplest model for the shape of the entire Earth is
Sun a sphere. The Earth's radius is the distance from Earth's
A
center to its surface, about 6,371 kilometers (3,959 mi).
Earth is only approximately spherical, so no single
value serves as its natural radius. Since the Earth is
flattened at the poles and bulges at the equator,
Tree geodesy represents the shape of the earth with an
oblate spheroid. The oblate spheroid, or oblate
30º ellipsoid, is an ellipsoid of revolution obtained by
C B
17.3m rotating an ellipse about its shorter axis.
221. (a) Both the statements are individually true and
204. (c) Selva is dense equatorial forest, in the Amazon basin, statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
characterized by tall broad-leaved evergreen trees, Higher the rate of evaporation, higher is salinity. The
epiphytes, lianas, etc Taiga also known as boreal forest Highest evaporation has been recorded along the
or snowforest, is a biome characterized by coniferous tropic of Cancer and that is one of the reasons that
forests consisting mostly of pines, spruces and region of Red Sea and Persian Gulf has one of the
larches. In Tundra, the vegetation is composed of highest salinity.
dwarf shrubs, sedges and grasses, mosses, and 223. (a) Both the statements are individually true and
lichens. A Savannah or Savannah is a grassland statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
ecosystem characterised by the trees being
Plantation agriculture is confined within tropical areas, coastal environment weaken and can no longer support
i.e. both sides of the equator. Plantations exist on every the sediment. Depending on how and where the
continent possessing a tropical climate. Highly sediment is deposited, a variety of landforms such as
productive soil is found in the tropics which help Sand bar, Tombolo and Spit can be produced.
plantation to grow. 257. (a) Notch, Sea arch and Cliff are the coastal erosional
224. (b) Solar eclipse happens when the moon moves in front features, while hook is one of the depositional features.
of the Sun as seen from a location on Earth. 258. (b) Chemical weathering typically increases as
226. (b) Spruce and Cedar are tree varieties of temperate temperatures rise and rain falls, which means rocks in
coniferous forest. hot and wet climates experience faster rates of chemical
227. (d) Dominant species of Moist deciduous tree are Teak weathering than do rocks in cold, dry climates. Wet
and Sal. climates accelerate the rates of chemical weathering,
230. (a) Chile hae mediterranean type of Climate. caused when CO2 in dirt mixes with air and water to
232. (d) Biodiversity hot spot region. form a weak acid. The weak acid breaks down rocks
240. (b) Mariana Trench is located in the floor of Western more rapidly in wet climates compared with dry ones.
Pacific Ocean. 259. (d) The Ring of Fire, also referred to as the Circum-Pacific
241. (d) Taklamakan desert is situated in Central Asia Belt, is a path along the Pacific Ocean characterized
(Northwest China). by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes. Its
242. (b) Golden rice is a variety of rice produced through length is approximately 40,000 kilometers (24,900
genetic engineering to biosynthesize beta-carotene, a miles). It traces boundaries between several tectonic
precursor of vitamin A, in the edible parts of rice. plates–including the Pacific, Juan de Fuca, Cocos,
243. (d) 22nd December Indian-Australian, Nazca, North American, and
244. (d) Magnetite in known as black ore. It contains 60% to Philippine Plates. 75 % of Earth's volcanoes–more than
70% of pure iron. Magnetite (Fe 3O4 ) ore possesses 450 volcanoes–are located along the Ring of Fire. 90
magnetic properties % of Earth's earthquakes occur along its path, including
245. (b) The light-year is a unit of length used to express the planet's most violent and dramatic seismic events.
astronomical distances and measures about 9.46 trillion 260. (d) Deodar/devdar/devadar is a species of cedar native to
kilometres or 5.88 trillion miles. As defined by the the western Himalayas in Eastern Afghanistan,
International Astronomical Union, a light-year is the Northern Pakistan and India, Southwestern Tibet and
distance that light travels in vacuum in one Julian year. Western Nepal, occurring at 1,500–3,200 m altitude.
246. (c) Satellite requires energy from solar panels and solid 261. (b) Heavy rainfall up to 250 cm and tropical to sub-tropical
fuels for orbiting. climatic conditions favour tea plantations. Tea
247. (a) In Earth's atmosphere nitrogen is most abundant while cultivation also needs acidic pH and thus lime is not
oxygen is the second most abundant. needed for its growth.
248. (c) Igneous rocks form from when hot, molten rock 262. (b) Purga is a violent cold wind with drifting snow. It blows
crystallizes and solidifies. The melt originates deep out from Siberia.
within the Earth near active plate boundaries or hot 263. (a) Thermal power station are power stations which
spots, then rises toward the surface. Igneous rocks convert heat energy into electric energy. The basic
are divided into two groups, intrusive or extrusive, mechanism is that: Use the heat energy to boil water,
depending upon where the molten rock solidifies. producing steams, The steam turbine spins and then
Examples of intrusive igneous rocks are diorite, gabbro, drives the electric generator, Condense the steam into
granite, pegmatite, and peridotite. Extrusive igneous water for reusing, Repeat the cycle.
rocks erupt onto the surface, where they cool quickly 264. (d) The light-year is a unit of length used to express
to form small crystals. astronomical distances. 9.46 trillion kilometres
249. (c) Coriolis effect is due to the rotation of Earth. = 9.46 × 1012 kms or 5.88 trillion miles = 5.88 × 1012 miles.
250. (d) The Mekong Delta in southern Vietnam is a vast maze 265. (a) A geostrophic wind flows parallel to the isobars. In
of rivers, swamps and islands, home to floating markets, this model of wind flow in the Northern Hemisphere,
Khmer pagodas and villages surrounded by rice wind begins as a flow of air perpendicular to the isobars
paddies. under the primary influence of the pressure gradient force.
251. (a) A average warm sea temperature of around 26 Degree As the movement begins, the Coriolis force (CF) begins
Celcius, high relative humidity of atmosphere at a to influence the moving air causing it to deflect to the
height of more than 700 m and an atmospheric right of its path. This deflection continues until the
instability are conducive factors for the formation of a pressure gradient force and Coriolis force are opposite
cyclone. and in balance with each other.
252. (a) Roaring Forties are strong westerly winds in the oceans 266. (b) The upland In the delta region, is called Chars. It is
of Southern Hemisphere. known as Bils in the marshy areas.
253. (c) Both the statements are correct. 267. (d) With increasing height, air temperature drops uniformly
254. (a) Atacama is the driest desert of the world. It is in the with altitude at a rate of approximately 6.4° C per Km in
territorial region of Chile. the troposphere.
256. (c) In a coastal environment, deposition results in the 268. (b) The vertical zone in the oceanic water column in which
accumulation of sediment. This happens when the salinity changes rapidly with depth, is known as
forces responsible for transporting sediment in a Halocline.
EBD_7348
269. (c) The correct pairs are, 280. (d) The earth rotates on its axis taking approximately 24
Yamo-Japan hours to complete one rotation. It has some important
Black Roller -North America environmental consequences:
Bise- France i. Rotation creates a diurnal cycle of light and darkness,
Haboob - Sudan temperature, and humidity changes.
271. (c) The agents of metamorphism include heat, pressure ii. Rotation requires the creation of standardized time zones.
(stress), an d chemically active fluids. During There are 24, one for each hour of the earth’s rotation.
metamorphism, rocks are often subjected to all three iii. Rotation causes the tides - the twice daily rise and
metamorphic agents simultaneously. However, the fall of sea level. Tides are complicated because they
degree of metamorphism and the contribution of each are the result of both the gravity of the moon and the
agent vary greatly from one environment to another. gravity of the sun. Sometimes the sun and the moon
Decomposition is not the agent of metamorphism. are lined up with the earth, but most of the time they
272. (a) Correct matching are as follows: are not. Tides are highest when the earth, sun and
moon are in a straight line.
Type Letter Code Characteristics
281. (a) A light-year is a unit of very large distance. It is the
Tropical wet Af No dry season distance that light can travel in one year. Light moves at
Mid-latitude Mid-latitude arid a velocity of about 300,000 kilometers (km) each second.
BWk So in one year, it can travel about 10 trillion km.
desert or dry
Mediterranean Cs Dry hot summer 282. (b) Salt crystallization, the weathering by which is known
as haloclasty, causes disintegration of rocks when
Humid No dry season, saline solutions seep into cracks and joints in the rocks
Df
continental severe winter and evaporate, leaving salt crystals behind. These salt
273. (a) Steppe climate is mostly found in Great Plains of North crystals expand as they are heated up, exerting
America, Kyrgys Steppe, Australia and Sudan in Africa. pressure on the confining rock. Physical weathering is
274. (d) Chemical weathering is the weakening and subsequent a term used in science that refers to the geological
disintegration of rock by chemical reactions. These process of rocks breaking apart without changing their
reactions include oxidation, hydrolysis, and chemical composition.
carbonation. Solution is also a chemical process but 283. (b) The Richter magnitude scale was developed in 1935
Exfoliation is a physical process. by Charles F. Richter of the California Institute of
275. (a) A spring tide refers to the ‘springing forth’ of the tide Technology as a mathematical device to compare the
during new and full moon, at these times the high tides size of earthquakes. The magnitude of an earthquake
are higher and the low tides are lower. Spring tides are is determined from the logarithm of the amplitude of
especially strong tides. This is due to the position of waves recorded by seismographs. It is a logarithmic
the moon and the sun in relation to the Earth and the scale that runs from 1 to 9, though no upper limit exists,
resulting gravitational attraction at various stages in a magnitude 7 quake is 10 times more powerful than
the lunar cycle. magnitude 6 quake.
276. (c) Air mass is a volume of air defined by its temperature 284. (c) The Kuroshio is a warm northeasterly ocean current off
and water vapor content. Where an air mass receives the coast of Japan. This current is also called the gulf
it’s characteristics of temperature and humidity is called stream of the Pacific or Japan Current. It originates from
the source region. Air masses are slowly pushed along the greater part of North Equatorial current, which divides
by high-level winds, when an air mass moves over a east of the Philippines. The Kuroshio is the current running
new region. Air masses are characterized by their from Formosa to about 35 degrees N latitude.
temperature and humidity properties. 285. (b) The periodical rise and fall of the sea level, once or
277. (c) Campos and Llanos grasslands are found in South twice a day, mainly due to the attraction of the sun and
America. Campos and Llanos are tropical savanna the moon, is called a tide. The most common tidal
grassland. The Campos, grassland with few trees or pattern featuring two high tides and two low tides each
shrubs except near streams, lies between 24°S and 35°S; day. The successive high or low tides are approximately
it includes parts of Brazil, Paraguay and Argentina, and of the same height. Although tides occur twice a day,
all of Uruguay. Llanos grassland plain situated to the their interval is not exactly 12 hours. Instead, they occur
east of the Andes in Colombia and Venezuela, in at regular intervals of 12 hours and 25 minutes.
northwestern South America. It is an ecoregion of the 286. (c) A black hole is a region of space time exhibiting
flooded grasslands and savannas biome. gravitational acceleration so strong that nothing—no
278. (d) Shamal northwesterly warm and dry wind is a local particles or even electromagnetic radiation such as
wind found in Iraq (Mesopotamia). This weather effect light—can escape from it.
occurs anywhere from once to several times a year, 288. (b) Antecedent streams existed before the upliftment of
mostly in summer but sometimes in winter. upland or mountain across which they have maintained
279. (b) “Inversion of Rainfall” is associated with convectional their present courses through continuous down-
rainfall. The convectional rainfall occurs due to the cutting of their valleys.
thermal convection currents caused due to the heating Many of the major Himalayan rivers are examples of
of ground due to insolation. The convectional rainfall antecedent streams e.g. the Indus, the Sutlej, the Ganga,
is prevalent in equatorial regions. the Ghagra, the Kali, the Gandak, the Kosi, the Brahmaputra.
Geography of India 20
1. Which one among the following is nearest to the Tropic of Codes :
Cancer ? A B C D A B C D
(a) Patna (b) Ranchi (a) 1 6 4 2 (b) 1 4 6 2
(c) Rourkela (d) Varanasi [2006-I] (c) 5 6 4 3 (d) 5 4 6 3
2. Match List-I (Type of Rocks) with List-II (Example) and 6. In the map given below four thermal power plants are marked
select the correct answer using the codes given below the as 1, 2, 3 and 4, and their names are given in the list given
Lists: here. Match them and select the correct answer using the
List-I (Type of Rocks) List-II (Example) codes given below the list :
A. Igneous Rocks 1. Basalt and Granite List:
B. Metamorphic Rocks 2. Limestone A. Balimela
and Sandstone B. Koradi
C. Sedimentary Rocks 3. Marble and Quartzite C. Ramagundam
Codes : D. Talcher
A B C A B C Codes :
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 1 3 2 A B C D A B C D
(c) 2 3 1 (d) 3 1 2 (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2
[2006-I] (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 2 1
3. In India, in which one of the following areas are the tropical [2006-I]
evergreen forests found ? 7. Match List-I (Town) with List-II (Factory/Plant) and select
(a) The Western Ghats (b) The Eastern Ghats the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
(c) The Western Himalaya (d) The Central Himalaya List-I (Town) List-II (Factory/Plant)
[2006-I] A. Namrup 1. Aluminium Plant
4. Match List-I (Location) with List-II (Industry) and select B. Vishakhapatnam 2. Steel Plant
the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: C. Perambur 3. Fertilizer Plant
List-I (Location) List-II (Industry) D. Renukoot 4. Integral Coach Factory
A. Moradabad 1. Cotton Textile Industry Codes :
B. Mathura 2. Iron and Steel Industry A B C D A B C D
C. Salem 3. Oil Refinery (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 4 2 3
D. Coimbatore 4. Copper & Brass industry (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1
Codes :
[2006-I]
A B C D A B C D
8. Which one of the following towns is well-known for its
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 2 3 1 aluminimum industry ? [2006-I]
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 1 2 3 4
(a) Coimbatore (b) Koraput
[2006-I]
(c) Ranchi (d) Rourkela
5. Match List-I (Atomic Power Plant) with List-I (State) and
9. At which one of the following towns do National Highways
select the correct answer using the codes given below the
Nos. 6 and 7 cross each other?
Lists: [2006-I]
(a) Bhopal (b) Gwalior
List-I List-II
(c) Jhansi (d) Nagpur [2006-I]
(Atomic Power Plant) (State)
A. Kalpakkam 1. Karnataka 10. As per the census of 2001, which one of the following is the
correct sequence of states in descending order of their
B. Narora 2. Madhya Pradesh
population? [2006-I]
C. Rawatbhata 3. Maharashtra
(a) Andhra Pradesh -Karnataka-Tamil Nadu
D. Tarapur 4. Rajasthan
(b) Andhra Pradesh-Tamil Nadu-Karnataka
5. Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka-Tamil Nadu-Andhra Pradesh
6. Uttar Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu-Andhra Pradesh-Karnataka
EBD_7348
11. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Town River 17.
(a) Bharuch Narmada
(b) Surat Tapi
(c) Vijaywada Krishna
(d) Vishakhapatnam Godavari [2006-I]
12. In which one of the following states is Zojila pass
located?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Sikkim [2006-I]
13. Match List-I (Town) with List-Il (River) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Town) List-II (River)
A. Nanded 1. Godavari
B. Nellore 2. Tungbhadra
C. Hospet 3. Musi
D. Hyderabad 4. Penneru In the map given above, out of the four areas represented
Codes : by number 1 to 4, which of them represent tobacco growing
A B C D A B C D areas?
(a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 1 2 4 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2 and 4
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 [2006-II]
[2006-I] 18. Consider the following statements on the basis of Census
14. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ? 2001 :
1. Hirakund Reservoir: Sambalpur 1. In Kerala, the sex ratio is in favour of females.
2. Ukai Reservoir: Amravati 2. Next to Kerala, Mizoram has the highest literacy rate in
3. Tawa Reservoir: Pachmarhi India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 [2006-I] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2006-II]
15. Consider the following statements : 19. Which one of the following National Highways links
1. In the coastal regions, the land breeze blows over to Jabalpur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Bangalore and Madurai ?
the sea during night. (a) NH 5 (b) NH 7
2. In the coastal regions, during night, the air over the (c) NH 9 (d) NH 11 [2006-II]
sea is warmer than the air over land. 20. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) Indus : Shyok
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (b) Ganga : Gandak
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Godavari : Musi
[2006-II] (d) Krishna : Tungabhadra [2006-II]
21. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using
16. the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(Product) (Major Producer)
A. Tea 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Jute 2. Kerala
C. Rubber 3. Orissa
D. Tobacco 4. Tamil Nadu
Codes :
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
[2006-II]
22. Where is the Nanda Devi peak located ?
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand
In the map given above, what is the population density in (c) Sikkim (d) Nepal [2006-II]
the region represented by the shaded area ? 23. The river Sone is a tributary of which one of the following
(a) Below 100 persons per sq. km rivers ?
(b) 100 to 300 persons per sq. km (a) Ganga (b) Yamuna
(c) 300 to 500 persons per sq. km (c) Narmada (d) Mahanadi [2006-II]
(d) Above 500 persons per sq. km [2006-II]
Geography of India G-205
24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using 30. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists : the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Mineral Ore) List-II (Location) List-l List-II
A. Bauxite 1. Kolhapur (Mineral) (Mine)
B. Iron 2. Mayurbhanj A. Bauxite 1. Balaghat
C. Manganese 3. Nellore B. Copper 2. Korba
D. Mica 4. Shimoga C. Iron ore 3. Singareni
Codes: D. Coal 4. Keonjhar
A B C D A B C D Codes :
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 2 4 3 A B C D A B C D
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 4 2 3 (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2
[2006-II] (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
25. Sandstone is a [2007-I]
(a) Extrusive igneous rock 31. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
(b) Intrusive igneous rock the code given below the Lists :
(c) Metamorphic rock List-I List-II
(d) Sedimentary rock [2006-II] (Industry) (Industrial Centre)
26. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of passes
A. Aluminium 1 Coimbatore
when one travels along the Himalayas from Kashmir to
B. Heavy Electricals 2. Renukoot
Sikkim?
C. Petrochemicals 3. Vadodara
(a) Zozila-Nathula-Shipkila
(b) Nathula-Shipkila-Zozila D. Cotton Textiles 4. Jagdishpur
(c) Nathula-Zozila-Shipkila Codes :
(d) Zozila-Shipkila-Nathula [2006-II] A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2
27. (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 2 3 4 1
[2007-I]
the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(National Highway No.) (Cities connected)
A. NH 5 1. Bhopal-Jaipur
B. NH 7 2. Bhubaneswar- Chennai
C. NH 9 3. Nagpur-Varanasi
D. NH 12 4. Pune-Hyderabad
Codes :
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 1 2 3
In the above map, the marked area shows which one of the [2007-I]
following ranges of annual rainfall received by that area? 33. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Less than 50 cm Rivers Major Tributaries
(b) Between 50 and 100 cm (a) Godavari: Pairi, Hasdo, Tel
(c) Between 100 and 200 cm (b) Maha: Puma, Penganga, Wain ganga
(d) More than 200 cm [2007-I] (c) Krishna: Manjra, Dudhana, Indravati
28. Consider the following statements: (d) Cauvery: Kabani, Hemavati, Amaravati
1. Ranjit Sagar Dam is on the river Beas. [2007-I]
2. Hirakud Dam is on the river Damodar. 34. When it is 12 Noon at Allahabad, the time at Wellington
3. The reservoir Gandhi Sagar is on the river Chambal. (New Zealand) would be close to which one of the following?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 4:30 pm of the same day
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (b) 4:30 pm of the previous day
(c) 6:30 pm of the same day
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 [2007-I]
(d) 6:30 pm of the previous day [2007-II]
29. Which one among the following states has more population
than the other three?
1. Alamatti dam is on the Cauvery river.
(a) Gujarat (b) Madhya Pradesh
2. Mettur dam in on the Krishna river.
(c) Orissa (d) Rajasthan [2007-I] 3. Gandhi Sagar Reservoir is on the Chambal river.
EBD_7348
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 46. Mahatma Gandhi Hydroelectric project is on which river ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (a) Godavari (b) Sharavati
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only [2007-II] (c) Cauvery (d) Krishna [2008-I]
36. Which National Highway connects Delhi and Mumbai? 47. For which one of the following is Lamba in Gujarat, famous?
(a) NH 6 (b) NH 8 (a) Cultivation of oil yielding plants
(c) NH 10 (d) NH 12 [2007-II] (b) Wind power plant
37. Which one among the following peaks is the highest? (c) Oil refinery
(a) Dhaula Giri (b) Namcha Barwa (d) Uranium enrichment plant [2008-I]
(c) Nanda Devi (d) Nanga Parvat [2007-II] 48. Consider the following statements :
38. From West to East, which one of the following is the correct 1. Kandla port is situated at the head of Gulf of khambhat.
sequence of Hills? 2. Paradeep Port is situated in the Mahanadi Delta.
(a) Mahadeo Hills—Maikala Hills—Garhjat Hills Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(b) Mahadeo Hills—Garhjat Hills—Maikala Hills (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Maikala Hills—Mahadeo Hills—Garhjat Hills (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2008-I]
(d) Maikala Hills—Garhjat Hills—Mahadeo Hills 49. Match List-I with List -II and select the correct answer using
[2007-II] the codes given below the lists:
39. Haridwar is well-known for which one of the following List-I List-II
industries? (Coal fields of India) (State)
(a) Fertilizers (b) Cement A. Jharia 1. Tamil Nadu
(c) Heavy Electricals (d) Silk Textiles [2007-II] B. Raniganj 2. Orissa
40. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which one of the C. Talcher 3. Jharkhand
following? D. Korba 4. West Bengal
(a) Assam (b) Manipur 5. Chhattisgarh
(c) Mizoram (d) Nagaland [2007-II] Codes :
41. In which of the following Hills is tea cultivated? A B C D A B C D
(a) Maikala Hills (b) Nallamalai Hills (a) 3 4 2 5 (b) 2 5 1 4
(c) Nilgiri Hills (d) Shivalik Hills [2007-II] (c) 3 5 2 4 (d) 2 4 1 5
42. India is comparatively not rich in which one of the following [2008-I]
minerals compared to the other three? 50. The National Highway No. 7 connects which of the
(a) Bauxite (b) Copper following?
(c) Iron (d) Manganese [2007-II] (a) Mumbai with Varanasi
43. Among the following, which one has recorded the highest (b) Mumbai with Bhubaneshwar
population growth rate during 1991-2001? (c) Delhi with Kanyakumari
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Manipur (d) Varanasi with Kanyakumari [2008-I]
(c) Nagaland (d) Sikkim [2007-II] 51. Port Blair-the capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is
44. In the given map, three areas are marked with numbers. located in which one of the following islands?
(a) North Andaman (b) Little Andaman
(c) Middle Andaman (d) South Andaman
[2008-I]
52. Among the following, which state has highest level of
literacy?
(a) Mizoram (b) West Bengal
(c) Gujarat (d) Punjab [2008-I]
53. Which among the following is the major item of export from
Paradeep Port?
(a) Rice (b) Tea
(c) Fish (d) Iron ore [2008-I]
54. Indian Standard Time refers to the local time of which one of
the following places in India?
(a) Allahabad (b) Bhopal
(c) Delhi (d) Lucknow [2008-I]
Which of them represent(s) sugarcane growing area(s)? 55. Consider the following rivers:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 1. Betwa
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 [2007-II] 2. Kosi
45. The Nuclear Power Station Rawatbhata is in which State? 3. Gandak
(a) Maharashtra (b) Uttar Pradesh Which of the above join(s) Yamuna river?
(c) Rajasthan (d) Tamil Nadu [2008-I] (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 [2008-I]
56. Which one of the following types of forest covers the 64. Chambal river is a part of [2009-II]
maximum area in India? (a) Sabarmati basin (b) Ganga basin
(a) Tropical rain forest (c) Narmada basin (d) Godavari basin
(b) Tropical moist deciduous forest 65. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
(c) Tropical dry deciduous forest the code given below the Lists [2009-II]
(d) Tropical dry evergreen forest [2008-II]
57. Which one of the following rivers flow between Vindhyan List I-(Institute) List-II (Location)
and Satpura ranges?
A. Petrochemicals 1. Ranchi
(a) Narmada (b) Son
B. Aluminium 2. Hyderabad
(c) Mahe (d) Netravati [2008-II]
58. Amravati, Bhavani, Hemavati and Kabini are tributaries of C. Electronics 3. Varodara
which one of the following rivers? D. Heavy Engineering 4. Koraput
(a) Mahanadi (b) Godavari Codes:
(c) Kaveri (d) Krishna [2008-II] A B C D
59. Which one of the following sets of States does not receive (a) 3 4 2 1
most of its rainfall from SW monsoon during the months of (b) 1 2 4 3
June to September? [2009-I] (c) 3 2 4 1
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (d) 1 4 2 3
(b) Assam and Karnataka 66. What is the reason for India being a major producer of
(c) Himachal Pradesh and Rajasthan different varieties of fruits and vegetables? [2009-II]
(d) Tamil Nadu and Jammu & Kashmir (a) Its large population size
60. Match list I with List II and select the correct answer using (b) Its large land area
the codes given below the lists: [2009-I] (c) Variation in its agro-climatic conditions
List I List II (d) Diversity in socio-cultural phenomenon
(Peak) (State) 67. What is the sequential order of vegetation types observed
A. Dodabetta 1. Maharashtra while moving from Assam Valley to Rajasthan Plains?
B. Guru Shikhar 2. Madhaya Pradesh [2009-II]
C. Kalsubai 3. Tamil Nadu (a) Tropical Wet Evergreen
D. Dhupgarh 4. Rajasthan Tropical Moist Deciduous
Tropical Dry Deciduous
Codes: Tropical Thorn Forest
A B C D (b) Tropical Thorn Forest
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
Tropical Moist Deciduous
(c) 3 4 1 2
Tropical Wet Evergreen
(d) 2 4 1 3
(c) Tropical Moist Deciduous
Tropical Wet Evergreen
the codes given below the lists: [2009-I]
List I List II Tropical Thorn Forest
(Himalayan Peaks) (States) (d) Tropical Dry Deciduous
A. Nanga Parbat 1. Jammu & Kashmir Tropical Thorn Forest
B. Nanda Devi 2. Sikkam Tropical Moist Deciduous
C. Kanchanjunga 3. Uttarakhand Tropical Wet Evergreen
Codes : 68. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through [2009-II]
A B C (a) Orissa (b) Tripura
(a) 1 2 3 (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Rajasthan
(b) 1 3 2 69. Iron ore from Kudremukh is most likely to be exported
(c) 2 3 1 through [2010-I]
(d) 3 1 2 (a) Goa (b) Kochi
62. Which among the following is the correct sequence of rivers (c) Mangalore (d) Ennore
starting from North to South ? [2009-I] 70. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
(a) Bhima–Godavari–Penganga–Tungabhadra the code given below the Lists : [2010-I]
(b) Godavari–Penganga–Tungabhadra–Bhima
(c) Penganga–Godavari–Bhima–Tungabhadra List-I List-II
(d) Penganga–Bhima–Godavari–Tungabhadra (Type of vegetation) (State)
63. Shimsha, Hemavati, Arkavati are the tributaries of which A. Mangrove 1 Madhya Pradesh
one of the following rivers? [2009-I] B. Scrub 2 Karnataka
(a) Tapti (b) Tungabhadra C. Teak 3 Rajasthan
(c) Cauvery (d) Krishna D. Coniferous 4 Arunachal Pradesh
EBD_7348
Code: 77. Which one of the following does not characterise the
A B C D Himalayas? [2010-II]
(a) 4 1 3 2 (a) Various parallel ranges of the Himalayas form a convex
(b) 2 1 3 4 arc
(c) 4 3 1 2 (b) There exist syntaxial bends at both the terminals of the
(d) 2 3 1 4 Himalayas .
71. Arrange the following States on the basis of ascending (c) Indus, Sutlej and Brahmaputra rivers are examples of
dates of the onset of monsoon: antecedent drainage
1. Uttar Pradesh 2. West Bengal (d) The Himalayas are wider in the east than in the west
3. Kerala 4. Rajasthan [2010-I] 78. Which among the following statements provides the best
Select the correct answer using the code given below: evidence that a river is flowing through a rift valley?
Code: [2010-II]
(a) 2, 3, 1, 4 (b) 3, 2, 1, 4 (a) The Chambal valley is marked by bad land topography
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) River Tapi does not have Delta but Estuary only
72. Which of the following are west flowing rivers? (c) River Mahanadi flows through a gorge at Satkosia
1. Krishna 2. Narmada (d) River Colorado has the Grand Canyon along its valley
3. Mahanadi 4. Sabarmati [2010-I] 79. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
Select the correct answer using the code given below: the code given below the lists [2010-II]
Code:
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
73. Which of the following has/have been declared as national
waterways in India ? [2010-II]
I. The Allahabad-Haldia stretch of river Ganga 3
1
II. The Sadiya-Dhubri stretch of river Brahmaputra
III. The Cherla-Rajamundry stretch of river Godavari
Select the correct answer using the code given below 2
(a) I and II oniy (b) II and III only
(c) I only (d) I, II and III
74. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
[2010-II]
I. Mumbai receives more rainfall than Pune because it is List-I List-II
located at the windward side of Western Ghats (Places indicated in the map) (Seismic zone)
II. Vidarbha region experiences semi-arid climate as it is (A) 1 1. ZoneV
located in a rain shadow region (B) 2 2. Zone IV
III. In India monsoon reaches Kashmir valley at the last (C) 3 3. Zone III
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (D) 4 4. Zone II
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II only Codes
(c) II and III only (d) I only (a) A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4 (b) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4
75. Which of the following statements regarding south-west (c) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2 (d) A-4; B-1; C-3; D-2
monsoon in India is/are correct? [2010-II] 80. The Narmada river in the Peninsular plateau flows westward
I. Monsoon reaches the Malabar coast first with a remarkably straight channel. It is because the
II. Rajasthan does not get rainfall from south west [2011-I]
monsoon (a) slope gradient in this part controls the river channel
III. South-west monsoon retreats when the permanent wind pattern
belts start shifting to the south (b) river carries a huge amount of water which has created
Select the correct answer using the code given below : a straight channel course
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II only (c) river forms the boundary between the Central Highlands
(c) III only (d) I and III only and the Deccan Plateau
76. Consider the following statements [2010-II] (d) river flows through the trough of a rift valley inclined
I. In India, the largest concentration of roads is found in westward
the northern plains 81. Why the summer monsoon winds blow from south-western
direction in the northen hemisphere? [2011-I]
II. The ratio of surfaced road to the total road length is
lower in the northern plains . (a) The general direction of wind from the Indian ocean is
south-western
(b) The presence of the doldrums around the equator
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) The low pressure conditions in north-west India
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II (d) Due to the effect of Coriolis force
82. Consider the following statements. 88. The western coasts of India receive very high rainfall in
1. The Himalayan vegetation varies according to both summer mainly due to [2011-II]
altitude and climatic conditions. (a) Tropical location (b) Nearness to sea
2. There are mainly two types of tropical forests that are (c) Western Ghats (d) Himalayas
found in the Himalayas—the tropical rainforests and 89. The Gulf of Mannar is situated along the coast of
the tropical deciduous forests. [2011-I] [2011-II]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 90. The river with highest tidal bore in India is [2011-II]
83. Which one among the following is not a reason for (a) Cauvery (b) Mahanadi
practising tank irrigation in Peninsular India? [2011-I] (c) Hoogli (d) Krishna
(a) The undulating relief and hard rocks 91. The Indian Standard Time (1ST) is based on [2012-I]
(b) Little percolation of rain water due to impervious rock (a) 90° E meridian (b) 82½° E meridian
structure (c) 75° E meridian (d) 0° meridian
(c) Most of the rivers of Peninsular India are perennial 92. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
(d) There are many streams which become torrential during the code given below the Lists : [2012-I]
rainy season List-I List-II
84. Identify from the following states of India through which (Port) (Special feature)
the Tropic of Cancer passes and arrange them from East to A. Kandla 1. Deepest landlocked
West. protected port
1. Gujarat 2. West Bengal B. Kochi 2. Located at mouth
of lagoon
2. Uttar Pradesh 4. Jharkhand
C. Vishakhapatnam 3. Tidal port
5. Madhya Pradesh 6. Bihar D. Kolkata 4. Inland riverine
7. Chhattisgarh [2011-I] port
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. Code :
(a) 2-5-7-4-1 (b) 2-4-7-5-1 (a) A B C D
(c) 3-2-6-7-5 (d) 3-7-4-6-2 3 1 2 4
85. Which one among the following is a correct sequence of (b) A B C D
the Indian ports from north to south? [2011-II] 3 2 1 4
(c) A B C D
(a) Haldia – Kandla – Paradeep – Kochi
4 1 2 3
(b) Kandla – Haldia – Paradeep – Kochi (d) A B C D
(c) Kandla – Haldia – Kochi – Paradeep 4 2 1 3
(d) Kochi – Kandla – Haldia – Paradeep 93. Consider the following coal mines of India :
86. Which one among the following is a correct sequence of 1. Bokaro 2. Adilabad
production of coal in the Indian States in descending order? 3. Raniganj 4. Bishrampur [2012-I]
[2011-II] Select the correct sequence of the above from east to west.
(a) Jharkhand – Madhya Pradesh – West Bengal – (a) 1-3-4-2 (b) 3-1-4-2
Meghalaya (c) 3-1-2-4 (d) 1-3-2-4
94. Which one among the following is the major reason for low
(b) West Bengal – Madhya Pradesh – Jharkhand – agricultural productivity in dry regions of India?
Meghalaya [2012-I]
(c) Jharkhand – West Bengal – Meghalaya – Madhya (a) Constraints of financial resources
Pradesh (b) Rural indebtedness
(d) Madhya Pradesh – Jharkhand – West Bengal – (c) Dependence on erratic monsoon
Meghalaya (d) Small size of landholdings
87. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using 95. Which one among the following is the most important
the code given below the lists: [2011-II] source of fish catch in India? [2012-I]
List I List II (a) Deep-sea fisheries
(Mineral) (State) (b) Coastal fisheries
(c) Inland natural fisheries
A. Bauxite 1. Andhra Pradesh
(d) Inland cultural fisheries
B. Mica 2. Orissa 96. The Damuda series of Gondwana system has three stages,
C. Copper 3. Madhya Pradesh namely, Raniganj, Barren Rocks and Barakar. The middle
D. Zinc 4. Rajasthan stage is called Barren because [2012-I]
Code: (a) it consists of coal and not iron
(a) A-4; B-1; C-3; D-3 (b) A-2; B-1 C-3; D-4 (b) it consists of iron and not coal
(c) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2 (d) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4 (c) it consists of neither coal nor iron
(d) it is a sedimentary layer consisting of shale and clay
EBD_7348
97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using (b) Rolling and dotted hilly terrain of North-East India
the code given below the Lists : [2012-I] (c) Soft alluvium of the Northern Plains
List-I List-II (d) Confined aquifer below the normal water table
(Mountain pass) (State) 103. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
A. Zoji La 1. Himachal Pradesh 1. The local time of Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh) is about
B. Lipulekh 2. Sikkim two hours ahead than Dwarka (Gujarat).
C. Shipki La 3. Uttarakhand 2. The local time at Chennai (Tamil Nadu) and Lucknow
D. Nathu La 4. Jammu and Kashmir (Uttar Pradesh) is almost same.
Code : 3. The local time of Mumbai (Maharashtra) is one hour
(a) A B C D ahead than Kolkata (West Bengal). [2012-II]
2 1 3 4 Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(b) A B C D (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
2 3 1 4 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) A B C D 104. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
4 1 3 2 the code given below the Lists : [2012-II]
(d) A B C D List-I List-II
4 3 1 2 (Atomic power station) (Position in map)
98. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using A. Narora
the code given below the Lists : [2012-II] B. Rana Pratap Sagar
List I List II C. Tarapur
(Himalayan Peak) (State) D. Kalpakkam
A. K2 1. Uttarakhand
B. Nanda Devi 2. Jammu & Kashmir
C. Tara Pahar 3. Sikkim Code :
D. Kanchenjunga 4. Himachal Pradesh A B C D
Code: (a) 2 4 3 1
A B C D (b) 1 3 4 2
(a) 2 4 1 3 (c) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 1 4 2 105. In India, the Tropical Savanah (AW) type of climate prevails
(d) 3 4 1 2 largely in [2012-II]
99. The Deccan Trap Formation was caused by [2012-II] (a) Rajasthan desert region
(a) Shield eruption (b) Composite eruption (b) Peninsular plateau region
(c) Caldera eruption (d) Flood basalt eruption (c) Jammu & Kashmir region
100. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? (d) North-Eastern region
1. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone is a low pressure belt 106. The Nokrek biosphere reserve is located in [2012-II]
which forms an important zone of contact over Northern (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Assam
India and Pakistan.
(c) Sikkim (d) Meghalaya
2. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone invites inflow of
107. Where is Aghil Pass located ? [2012-II]
winds from different directions. [2012-II]
(a) Nepal Himalayas (b) Sikkim Himalayas
(c) Eastern Himalayas (d) Trans Himalayas
108. The ‘Golden Quadrilateral’ which connects Delhi, Mumbai,
Chennai and Kolkata passes through [2013-I]
101. Consider the following statements regarding El Nino effect
on Indian Monsoon : (a) Amritsar - Ahmedabad - Pune - Patna
1. The surface temperature goes up in the Southern (b) Jaipur - Porbandar- Hyderabad- Varnasi
Pacific Ocean and there is deficient rainfall in India. (c) Vadodara-Pune- Visakhapatnam- Varanasi
2. The Walker Circulation shifts eastward from its normal (d) Nagpur- Bhopal- Surat-Amritsar
position and reduces monsoon rainfall in India. 109. Delhi Mumbai Industrial Corridor connects the political and
[2012-II] business capital of India. Arrange the States from highest
Which of the statements given above is are correct ? to lowest in terms of the length of the corridor passing
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only through them. [2013-I]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Maharashtra-Gujarat-Rajasthan-NCR-of Delhi
102. In which among the following terrains the bore wells and (b) NCR of Delhi-Uttar Pardesh- Rajasthan-Maharashtra
canals can be dug easily ? [2012-II] (c) Rajasthan-Gujarat-Maharashtra-NCR of Delhi
(a) Gneiss, granites and basaltic terrain of Peninsular India (d) Maharashtra-Rajasthan-Uttar Pradesh - NCR of Delhi
110. Which among the following areas is conducive for well Code:
irrigation? [2013-I] A B C D
(a) Rocky land uneven surface of Peninsular India (a) 2 3 1 4
(b) Dry tracts of Rajsthan and Gujarat (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) Brackish groundwater region of Uttar Pradesh (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 4 1 3 2
(d) Geltaic regions of Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna
116. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
111. In India, increase in population and diversion of agricultural
the code given below the list. [2013-II]
land for non-agricultural purposes have resulted in the
decrease of [2013-I]
List I List II
(a) forested land (b) cultivable wasteland
(Mineral) (Location in Map)
(c) net sown area (d) double-cropped area
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 112 -113) : The following questions consist A. Mica
of two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the
other as 'Reason (R), You are to examine these two statements
carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes B. Chromite 1
given below:
3
explanation of A C. Magnesite
4
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A 2
(c) A is true but R is false D. Zinc
112. Assertion(A) : The cotton industry in India suffered a major Code:
recession soon after the independence. A B C D
Reason(R) : Most of the cotton mills had gone to West (a) 1 2 3 4
Pakistan, India retaining the cotton growing areas. [2008-I] (b) 1 3 2 4
113. Assertion (A): Narmada and Tapti rivers do not form deltas. (c) 4 2 3 1
Reason (R): These rivers form estuaries. [2008-II] (d) 4 3 2 1
114. The following item consist of two statements, Statement I 117. Which of the following statements are correct? [2013-II]
and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements 1. Assam produces nearly 80% of jute in India.
carefully and select the answers to these items using the 2. Jute grows well on loamy soil.
code given below: 3. Hot and humid conditions are ideal for growing jute.
Statement-I : The semi-arid tracts of India stretching from 4. Jute is commonly cultivated with wheat in rotation.
eastern Rajasthan in the north to south central Tamil Nadu Select the correct answer using the code given below:
are agriculturally less productive. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
Statement II : The semi-arid tracts are homeland to a large (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only
number of central Indian Scheduled Tribes population. 118. The Indian Standard Time is ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by
[2011-I] [2013-II]
(a) 3 hrs and 30 minutes
(a) Both the statements individually true and Statement II
(b) 4 hrs and 30 minutes
(c) 5 hrs and 30 minutes
(d) 6 hrs and 30 minutes
II is not correct explanation of Statement I.
DIRECTION (Q. 119): The following item consist of two
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. these two statements carefully and select the answers to these
115. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using items using the code given below:
the code given below the lists: [2013-II]
Code:
List I List II
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is
(Landform of (Predominant rock)
peninsular India)
A. Marwar upland 1. Quartzites
not the correct explanation of Statement I
Shales, Schists
B. Bundelkhand 2. Sandstone,
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true [2014-I]
upland Shale, Limestone
119. Statement I: The Kullu Valley in Himachal Pradesh receives
C. Meghalaya 3. Granite and
copious snowfall during winter.
upland Gneiss
Statement II: The Kullu Valley receives moisture-bearing
D.. Maharashtra 4. Basalt
wind of the Western Disturbances during winter.
plateau
EBD_7348
120. Which one among the following is the coral group of islands Code :
of India? [2014-I] A B C D
(a) Andaman (b) Nicobar (a) 3 4 1 2
(c) Minicoy (d) Lakshadweep (b) 2 1 4 3
121. Considering the locations of mountains in India, which one (c) 2 4 1 3
among the following is in right sequence from south to (d) 3 1 4 2
north? [2014-I] 129. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) Doddabetta, Kailash, Dhaulagiri, Vindhyachal [2015-I]
(b) Doddabetta, Vindhyachal, Dhaulagiri, Kailash (a) Kerala is the largest producer of natural rubber in India
(c) Dhaulagiri, Kailash, Doddabetta, Vindhyachal (b) Neyveli is an important thermal power generating area
(d) Dhaulagiri, Vindhyachal, Doddabetta, Kailash of Tamil Nadu
122. Which one among the following lakes is situated on the (c) Ratnagiri Bauxite mining area is located in Karnataka
west coast of India? [2014-I] (d) Assam is the largest tea producing state in India
(a) Chilika (b) Ashtamudi 130. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
(c) Pulicat (d) Kolleru the code given below the Lists : [2015-I]
123. Which of the following is/are the most likely cause/causes List I List II
of sheet-flood found in western part of Rajasthan? (Paper industry centre) (State)
[2014-I] A. Kamptee 1. Karnataka
1. Scanty rainfall B. Rajahmundry 2. Maharashtra
2. Sudden high intensity rain C. Shahdol 3. Andhra Pradesh
3. Loose sandy soil with scanty vegetation D. Belagola 4. Madhya Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Code :
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only A B C D
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 4 3 2
124. Mulching, an agronomic measure of soil conservation, is (b) 2 3 4 1
very effective because it [2014-I] (c) 1 3 4 2
1. protects soil from gully erosion (d) 2 4 3 1
2. protects soil from sheetwash and wind erosion 131. The newly formed state of Telengana is surrounded by
3. helps soil to retain moisture and nutrients [2015-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 5 States (b) 4 States
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 6 States (d) 3 States
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 132. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
125. The place located at the confluence of Alaknanda and the code given below the Lists : [2015-I]
Bhagirathi rivers is [2014-II] List I List II
(a) Badrinath (b) Rishikesh (Place) (Industry)
(c) Rudraprayag (d) Devprayag A. Jabalpur 1. Petro-chemical industry
126. Which one of the following pairs of power projects is not B. Bengaluru 2. IT industry
correctly matched? [2014-II] C. Mathura 3. Paper industry
(a) Papanasam-Hydropower D. Ballarpur 4. Automobile industry
(b) Neyveli-Hydropower Code :
(c) Ukai-Thermal power A B C D
(d) Rana Pratap Sagar-Hydropower (a) 4 1 2 3
127. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of oil (b) 3 2 1 4
refineries in India in respect of their time of establishment (c) 4 2 1 3
(starting from the earliest)? [2014-II]
(d) 3 1 2 4
(a) Barauni–Haldia (b) Barauni–Mathura
133. Which one of the following irrigation canals is the most
– Guwahati–Mathura – Guwahati–Haldia
important in terms of area coverage in Haryana ? [2015-I]
(c) Guwahati–Haldia (d) Guwahati–Barauni
(a) Bhakra canal
– Mathura–Barauni – Haldia–Mathura
(b) The Western Yamuna canal
128. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru canal
the code given below the Lists: [2014-II]
(d) Gurgaon canal
List - I List-II
134. Which one of the following Indian states has the highest
(Textile industry) (Place)
A. Woolen textile 1. Sualkuchi proportion of area under forest cover ? [2015-I]
B. Cotton textile 2. Rishra (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Sikkim
C. Silk textile 3. Ludhiana (c) Meghalaya (d) Mizoram
D. Jute textile 4. Davangere 135. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the Lists : [2015-I]
List I List II 143. The term 'Regur' is used to mean: [2015-II]

(National Park/ (State) (a) Laterite soil (b) Deltaic soil
Wildlife Sanctuary) (c) Red soil (d) Black cotton soil
A. Chandra Prabha 1. Uttarakhand DIRECTION (Q. 144): The following item consist of two
B. Silent Valley 2. Chhattisgarh statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two
C. Valley of flowers 3. Uttar Pradesh statements carefully and select the answers to these items using
D. Indravati 4. Kerala the code given below:
Code :
A B C D Code:
(a) 2 1 4 3 (a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II
(b) 3 4 1 2 is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) 2 4 1 3 (b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is
(d) 3 1 4 2 not the correct explanation of Statement I.
136. Which of the following statements with regard to the western (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
coastal plain of India are correct ? [2015-I] (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
1. It is a narrow belt. [2016-I]
2. It is an example of submerged coastal plain. 144. Statement I: India has wide variation in population density.
3. It provides natural conditions for development of ports. Statement II: Factors like agricultral productivity and history
4. It has well developed deltas. of settlements have greatly influenced the population
Select the correct answer using the code given below : density pattern in India.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only 145. In India, glacial terraces known as ‘Karewas’ are found in
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 only [2016-I]
137. Which one of the following sea routes is the shortest from (a) Sapt Kosi Valley (b) Jhelum Valley
point to point? [2015-II] (c) Alakananda Valley (d) Teesta Valley
(a) Kolkata to Yangoon (b) Kolkata to Chennai 146. Structurally, the Meghalaya region is a part of [2016-I]
(c) Chennai to Port Blair (d) Mumbai to Colombo (a) Shiwalik Range (b) Deccan Plateau
138. Which one of the following is not a sea port? [2015-II] (c) Greater Himalaya (d) Aravalli Range
(a) Paradeep (b) Haldia 147. The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is located on which one of the
(c) Diamond Harbour (d) Dhamra following rivers? [2016-I]
139. Identify the place that is not an oil field: [2015-II] (a) Godavari (b) Krishna
(a) Naharkatiya (b) Kalol (c) Kavery (d) Mahanadi
(c) Ledo (d) Ankleshwar
148. Consider the following statements: [2016-I]
140. The IST meridian 82½°E passes through a number of States
1. Rajmahal highlands consist of lava flow deposits.
in India. Which one of the following sets of States is correct
in this respect? [2015-II] 2. Bundelkhand gneiss belong to the oldest Achaean
(a) Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Chhatisgarh and Andhra rocks of India.
Pradesh Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(b) Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhatisgarh and Odisha (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Chhatisgarh 149. The Amarkantak Hills is the source of which of the following
(d) Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Chhatisgarh rivers? [2016-I]
141. Which one among the following places is not an iron-ore 1. Narmada 2. Mahanadi
mining area? [2015-II] 3. Tapti 4. Son
(a) Badampahar (b) Zawar Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) Bailadila (d) Anantpur (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
142. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
the code given below the Lists: [2015-II] 150. To prevent heart problems, blood of a normal healthy person
List I List II should have [2016-I]
(Place) (Normal vegetation type) 1. low cholesterol level.
A. Western Ghats 1. Tropical Moist 2. high HDL level.
Deciduous 3. high VLDL level.
B. Himachal Pradesh 2. Tropical Evergreen 4. high LDL level.
C. Haryana and 3. Himalayan Moist Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Punjab Forest (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
D. Chhotanagpur 4. Tropical Thorny (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Plateau Forest 151. Which of the following pairs of vector and disease is/are
Code: correctly matched ? [2016-I]
A B C D Vector Disease
(a) 2 3 4 1 1. Anopheles : Malaria
(b) 1 4 3 2 2. Aedes aegypti : Chikungunya
(c) 2 4 3 1 3. Tsetse fly : Filariasis
(d) 1 3 4 2 4. Bed bugs : Sleeping sickness
EBD_7348
Select the correct answer using the code given below: List I List II
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (Mineral) (Leading State)
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 only A. Manganese 1. Uttarakhand
152. Consider the following statements: [2016-I] B. Gypsum 2. Karnataka
1. All Echinoderms are not marine. C. Limestone 3. Rajasthan
2. Sponges are exclusively marine. D. Magnesite 4. Odisha
3. Insects are found in all kinds of habitats. Code :
4. Many primates are arboreal. A B C D
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 3 2 4
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 3 2 1
153. Deserts, fertile plains and moderately forested mountains
161. Which one among the following is the correct order of tiger
are the characteristic features of which one of the following
reserves situated from North to South in India? [2017-I]
regions of India? [2016-I]
(a) Corbett – Simlipal – Sariska – Periyar
(a) South-Western border along Arabian Sea (b) Periyar – Sariska – Simlipal – Corbett
(b) Coromandel Coast (c) Corbett – Sariska – Simlipal – Periyar
(c) North-Eastern Frontier (d) Periyar – Simlipal – Sariska – Corbett
(d) North-Western India 162. Which of the following are correct with regard of Indian
154. In Thar region, the shifting sand dunes are locally known as Monsoonal Rainfall? [2017-I]
[2016-I] 1. Largely governed by the topographical features
(a) Dhrian (b) Daurs 2. Regional and seasonal variation in the distribution of
(c) Dhoros (d) Dhaya rainfall
155. Jelep La pass is located in [2016-I] 3. Heavy downpour resulting in considerable runoff
(a) Punjab Himalaya (b) Sikkim Himalaya 4. Beginning and end of rain is regular and on time
(c) Kumaon Himalaya (d) Kashmir Himalaya Select the correct answer using the code given below :
DIRECTION (Q. 156) : The following items consist 2 (two ) of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
two statements carefully and select the correct answer using 163. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below: the code given below the Lists : [2017-I]
List I List II
Code :
(Type of climate) (State)
(a) Both the statement are individually true and Statement
A. Monsoon with Short 1. Uttar Pradesh and
Dry Season (Amw) Bihar
B. Cold Humid Winter 2. Tamil Nadu Coast
with Shorter Summer
(Dfc)
C. Monsoon with Dry 3. Arunachal Pradesh
[2016-II]
Winter (Cwg)
156. Statement I : Variability of annual rainfall is very high in
D. Monsoon with Dry 4. Kerala and
western part of Rajasthan.
Summer (As) Karnataka Coast
Statement II : Average annual rainfall is extremely low in
Code :
western Rajasthan.
A B C D
157. Statement I : The laterite soils develop in areas with high
(a) 4 3 1 2
temperature and high rainfall.
(b) 4 1 3 2
Statement II : Laterite soils are the result of intense
(c) 2 1 3 4
leaching process.
(d) 2 3 1 4
158. Which one of the following pairs of a river and its tributary
164. Which one of the following Himalayan rivers does NOT
is not correctly matched? [2016-II]
originate from across the Himalayas? [2017-I]
(a) Godavari : Wainganga (b) Cauvery : Bhavani (a) Indus (b) Satluj
(c) Narmada : Amaravati (d) Krishna : Bhima (c) Ganga (d) Brahmaputra
159. Arrange the following states in decreasing order of their 165. Which of the following are the major coral reef areas of
total area under forest cover : [2016-II] India? [2017-I]
1. Jharkhand 2. Chhattisgarh 1. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Arunachal Pradesh 4. Madhya Pradesh 2. Gulf of Mannar
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 3. Lakshadweep
(a) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1 (b) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1 4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) 3 - 4 - 1 - 2 (d) 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 Select the correct answer using the code given below :
160. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
the code given below the Lists : [2017-I] (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
166. Which one of the following sections of the Golden 173. Which part of India has the Kalakot tertiary coal field?
Quadrilateral Highway in India is the longest in terms of [2017-II]
route distance? [2017-I] (a) Brahmaputra river basin of Assam
(a) Delhi – Kolkata (b) Kolkata – Chennai (b) Damodar river basin of Jharkhand and West Bengal
(c) Chennai – Mumbai (d) Mumbai – Delhi (c) Himalayan mountain region
167. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using (d) Cardamom hills in Kerala
the code given below the Lists : [2017-I] 174. The Indian Railways have gone in for qualitative improvements
List I List II since independence. Which of the following have taken place
(Classification of (Example) in recent years? [2017-II]
resources) 1. Gauge conversion
A. Basic inexhaustible 1. Hydel power 2. Track electrification
resource 3. Automatic signals
B. Conventional 2. Coal Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
non-renewable resource (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
C. Non-conventional 3. Solar energy (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
renewable resource 175. In India, maximum amount of rainfall is received from
D. Non-conventional 4. Natural gas [2017-II]
non-renewable resource (a) Western Disturbances
Codes : (b) North-east Monsoon
A B C D (c) South-west Monsoon
(a) 3 2 1 4 (d) Retreating Monsoon
(b) 3 1 2 4 176. Which set of the following biosphere reserves in india is
(c) 4 1 2 3 included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves?
(d) 4 2 1 3 [2017-II]
168. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using (a) Gulf of Manner, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Simlipal
the code given below the Lists : [2017-I] (b) Gulf of Manner, Kanchanjunga, Nokrek and Seshachalam
List I List II (c) Nilgiri, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Panna
(Mineral deposit) (State) (d) Nilgiri, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Seshachalam
A. Gypsum 1. Odisha 177. Sunrise in eastern Arunachal Pradesh would be about how
B. Graphite 2. Gujarat many hours before the sunrise in western Gujarat?
C. Fluorspar 3. Arunachal Pradesh
[2017-II]
D. Nickel 4. Rajasthan
(a) One hour (b) Two hours
Code :
A B C D (c) Three hours (d) Four hours
(a) 1 3 2 4 178. Consider the following States of India in terms of percentage
(b) 1 2 3 4 of forest area in relation to the total area of the States
(c) 4 3 2 1 [2017-II]
(d) 4 2 3 1 1. Karnataka 2. Odisha
169. Which one of the following pairs of Tribe and State is NOT 3. Kerala 4. Andhra Pradesh
correctly matched? [2017-I] Which one of the following is the correct descending order?
(a) Tharu : Madhya Pradesh (a) 1-2-4-3 (b) 3-1-2-4
(b) Adi : Arunachal Pradesh (c) 3-2-1-4 (d) 2-3-1-4
(c) Irula : Kerala 179. Which one of the following States in India has the longest
(d) Shaharia : Rajasthan coastline? [2017-II]
170. Rudraprayag is situated at the confluence of rivers (a) Odisha (b) Tamil Nadu
Alaknanda and [2017-II] (c) Karnataka (d) West Bengal
(a) Bhagirathi (b) Mandakini 180 Which one of the following States in India has the largest
(c) Nandakini (d) Dhauliganga area under forest cover? [2017-II]
171. Arrange the following Indian cities according to their (a) Maharashtra (b) Chhattisgarh
locations from west to east : [2017-II] (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Andhra Pradesh
1. Bilaspur 2. Jodhpur 181. Which one of the following pairs of rivers and tributaries is
3. Bhopal 4. Ranchi not correctly matched? [2017-II]
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) Godavari : Indravati
(a) 3-2-1-4 (b) 2-3-1-4 (b) Ganga : Penganga
(c) 4-1-2-3 (d) 2-1-3-4 (c) Krishna : Bhima
172. The Kashmir region receives additional amount of (d) Luni : Sukri
precipitation during the winter brought by [2017-II] 182. Which one of the following is NOT a tributary of Indus
(a) South-west Monsoon River? [2018-I]
(b) Western Disturbances (a) Beas (b) Ravi
(c) Retreating Monsoon (c) Chenab (d) Tawi
(d) Temperate Cyclone
EBD_7348
183. Which one among the following is the largest tiger reserve 191. Match List-1 with List-II and select the correct answer using
of India in terms of area of the core/critical tiger habitat? the code given below the Lists: [2018-II]
[2018-I] List-I List-II
(Major-Port) (Location)
(a) Manas
A. Kolkata 1. Landlocked area
(b) Pakke B. Mormugao 2. In the delta region
(c) Nagarjunasagar Srisailam C. Visakhapatnam 3. On the riverside
(d) Periyar D. Paradip 4. On the entrance of
184. Which one of the following rivers is NOT a tributary of river the estuary
Cauvery? [2018-I] Code :
(a) Hemavati (b) Arkavati A B C D
(c) Indravati (d) Amravati (a) 3 1 4 2
185. Bharatmala Project is related to [2018-I] (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(a) Improving road connectivity
(d) 2 1 4 3
(b) Interlinking ports and railways 192. Which one of the following is the correct descending order
(c) Interlinking of rivers of Indian States in terms of sex ratio as per Census 2011?
(d) Interlinking major cities with gas pipelines [2018-II]
186. Consider the following places of India: [2018-II] (a) Mizoram-Manipur- Tripura-Meghalaya
1. Itanagar 2. Imphal (b) Tripura-Manipur-Meghalaya-Mizoram
3. Agartala 4. Aizawl (c) Meghalaya-Manipur-Mizoram-Tripura
Which one of the following is the correct chronological (d) Manipur-Meghalaya-Tripura-Mizoram
order of the above places in terms of sunrise time? 193. Which one of the following cropa was introduced by the
Portuguese in India? [2018-II]
(a) 3-2-1-4 (b) 2-1-4-3
(a) Opium (b) Coffee
(c) 1-4-3-2 (d) 4-3-2-1 (c) Betel leaf (d) Chili
187. Consider the following Wildlife Sanctuaries of India: 194. Which one of the following is NOT a west flowing river ?
[2018-II] [2019-I]
1. Shikari Devi 2. Bhadra (a) Periyar (b) Bharatpuzha
3. Similipal 4. Pachmarhi (c) Pamba (d) Tamraparni
Which one of the following is the correct order of the 195. River Sarda drains in the Northern Plains of Uttar Pradesh.
above Wildlife Sanctuaries in terms of their location from Before entering in the Plains, Sarda is known as [2019-I]
(a) Saraswati (b) Bhagirathi
south to north?
(c) Kali (d) Pindar
(a) 1-2--3-4 (b) 2-4-3-1 196. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
(c) 2-3-4-1 (d) 3-1-2-4 proved coal reserves in the Indian States in decreasing
188. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using order ? [2019-I]
the code given below the lists: [2018-II] (a) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, West Bengal
List-I List-II (b) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal
(River-Basin) (Town) (c) Odisha, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
A. Bhagirathi 1. Lansdowne (d) Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Jharkhand
B. Alkananda 2. Narendra Nagar 197. Kamarajar Port was commissioned in 2001 to handle thermal
coal requirements. It is situated along the coast of which
C. Nayar 3. Uttarkashi
Indian State ? [2019-I]
D. Ganga 4. Pauri (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Odisha
Code : (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka
A B C D 198. Which one of the following Union Territories of India is the
(a) 3 1 4 2 smallest in terms of geographical area ? [2019-I]
(b) 3 4 1 2 (a) Daman and Diu
(c) 2 4 1 3 (b) Chandigarh
(d) 2 1 4 3 (c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
189. 'Majuli', the river island, is located in which one of the (d) Lakshadweep
199. Which of the following pairs of old names and new names
following rivers? [2018-II]
of islands in India is/are correctly matched ? [2019-I]
(a) Jamuna (b) Padma 1. Ross Island : Shaheed Dweep
(c) Ganga (d) Brahmaputra 2. Neil Island : Netaji Subhas Chandra
190. Which one of the following Indian States has recorded nega- Bose Dweep
tive growth of population as per Census 2011? [2018-II] 3. Havelock Island : Swaraj Dweep
(a) Manipur (b) Mizoram Select, the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) Tripura (d) Nagaland (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 21 (d) 41 (c) 61 (b) 81 (c) 101 (c) 121 (b) 141 (b) 161 (c) 181 (b)
2 (b) 22 (b) 42 (b) 62 (d) 82 (a) 102 (c) 122 (b) 142 (a) 162 (b) 182 (d)
3 (a) 23 (a) 43 (c) 63 (c) 83 (c) 103 (a) 123 (c) 143 (d) 163 (a) 183 (c)
4 (a) 24 (b) 44 (b) 64 (b) 84 (b) 104 (c) 124 (d) 144 (a) 164 (c) 184 (c)
5 (c) 25 (d) 45 (c) 65 (a) 85 (b) 105 (b) 125 (d) 145 (b) 165 (d) 185 (a)
6 (a) 26 (d) 46 (b) 66 (c) 86 (a) 106 (d) 126 (b) 146 (b) 166 (b) 186 (a)
7 (c) 27 (a) 47 (b) 67 (a) 87 (b) 107 (d) 127 (d) 147 (b) 167 (a) 187 (b)
8 (b) 28 (d) 48 (b) 68 (a) 88 (c) 108 (c) 128 (a) 148 (c) 168 (c) 188 (a)
9 (d) 29 (b) 49 (a) 69 (c) 89 (a) 109 (c) 129 (c) 149 (d) 169 (a) 189 (d)
10 (b) 30 (b) 50 (d) 70 (c) 90 (c) 110 (d) 130 (b) 150 (a) 170 (b) 190 (d)
11 (d) 31 (a) 51 (d) 71 (b) 91 (b) 111 (c) 131 (b) 151 (b) 171 (b) 191 (b)
12 (b) 32 (c) 52 (a) 72 (a) 92 (b) 112 (a) 132 (c) 152 (b) 172 (b) 192 (c)
13 (a) 33 (d) 53 (d) 73 (a) 93 (b) 113 (c) 133 (b) 153 (d) 173 (c) 193 (d)
14 (a) 34 (c) 54 (a) 74 (a) 94 (c) 114 (b) 134 (d) 154 (a) 174 (d) 194 (d)
15 (c) 35 (d) 55 (a) 75 (a) 95 (b) 115 (a) 135 (b) 155 (b) 175 (c) 195 (c)
16 (b) 36 (b) 56 (c) 76 (c) 96 (b) 116 (c) 136 (b) 156 (d) 176 (a) 196 (b)
17 (c) 37 (a) 57 (a) 77 (d) 97 (d) 117 (c) 137 (c) 157 (a) 177 (b) 197 (c)
18 (c) 38 (a) 58 (c) 78 (d) 98 (b) 118 (c) 138 (c) 158 (c) 178 (c) 198 (d)
19 (b) 39 (c) 59 (d) 79 (c) 99 (d) 119 (a) 139 (c) 159 (a) 179 (b) 199 (d)
20 (c) 40 (c) 60 (c) 80 (d) 100 (b) 120 (d) 140 (d) 160 (d) 180 (c)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (b) Tropic of Cancer comes across Jharkhand and Ranchi 15. (c) Land heats and cools more rapidly than the sea. During
is nearest of it. the day the land gets heated and the air over the land
5. (c) A. Kalpakkam Atomic Power Plant is situated in being hotter and lighter than that over the sea, a low
Tamil Nadu. pressure area is created over the land.The hot air rises
B. Narora Atomic Power Plant is situated in Uttar and cool air from the see ruches in towards the land,
Pradesh. which is referred as sea breeze.At night the land rapidly
loses its heat faster than the sea. The air over the sea is
C. Rawatbhata Atomic Power Plant is situated in
therefore warmer and lighter than over the land and a
Rajasthan.
breeze blows but from the land towards the sea.
D. Tarapur Atomic Power Plant is situated in 16. (b) Population density is defined as the number of persons
Maharashtra. per square kilometre. In 2001, the density of population
7. (c) A. Namrup has a Fertilizer plant. in India was 324 persons per kilomtre. Shaded area
B. Vishakhapatnam has a steel plant. shows the regions of Madhya Pradesh Chattisgarh and
C. Perambur has a integral Coach factory. Orissa.
D. Renukoot has an Aluminium plant. 17. (c) In the given map number 1, 2 and 4 represent Karnataka,
11. (d) Godawari river not flows from Vishakhapatnam, Sileru Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat respectively. These areas
river forms its outer border. Viyawada is a big city. represeents tobacco growing area.
12. (b) Zojila Pass is situated in Jasker range in Jammu and 18. (c) In Kerala sex ratio is 1058 female on per 1000 male and
Kashmir state. It passes through Srinagar-Leh National Mizoram hold the second position in literacy rate with
Highway. the percentage of 88.80.
13. (a) A. Nanded town is situated on the banks of river 19. (b) National Highway (NH 7) deals with Varansi and
Godavari. Kanyakumari. It is the longest Highway of India.
B. Nellore town is situated on the banks of river 20. (c) Musi is the tributary of Krishna, Panganga, Wanganga,
Penneru. Wardha, Indiravati, Pravada etc. are the tributaries of
C. Hosper town is situated on the banks of river Godavari.
Tungbhadra. 21. (d) Chief Producer States
D. Hyderabad town is situated on the banks of river Tea — Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu
Munsi. Hyderabad is a unique Islamic sculptor city. Jute — West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Orissa
14. (a) Ukai reservoir is situated in Surat. Rubber — Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka
Tawa reservoir is situated in Tava of Hoshangabad. Tobacco — Andhra Praesh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Tamil
Nadu
EBD_7348
22. (b) Nanda Devi Peak (7817 m) is situated in Uttarakhand. 31. (a) Industry
23. (a) Ramganga, Gomit, Ghaghra, Gundak, Kosi, Son, Aluminium : Alwaye (Kerala), Asansol (West Bengal),
Mahananda are the tributaries of Ganga. Renukoot (U.P.), Belur (Karnataka), Hiradud (Orissa).
25. (d) Sedimentary rocks are formed from sediments that have Petrochemical : Indian Refineries Ltd (Barauni) Bihar
been pressed together. Sandstone, shale, limistine, coal Noohamati (Assam), Koyali oil Refinery, Koyali
etc. are some examples of sedimentary rocks. (Gujrat), Chochin oil Refinery Kochi (Kerala).
Cotton Textiles : Ahmedabad (Gujrat) Bangalore,
26. (d) The correct sequence of passes given in the question
Mumbai, Kolkata, Coimbtore (Tamilnadu), Kanpur (UP),
is shown in the following diagram.
Ludhiana and Amritsar (Punjab), Indore (MP).
Heavy Electricals : Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd
Ranipur Hardwar (Uttrakhand)
Heavy Electricals India Ltd (Bhopal)
32. (c) N H No. Cities connected
NH 1 Delhi and Amritsar
NH 2 Delhi and Kolkata
NH 3 Agra and Mumbai
NH 4 Thane and Chennai
NH 5 Behragoda and Chennai
NH 6 Dhulia and Kolkata
NH 7 Varanasi and Kanyakumari
NH 8 Delhi and Mumbai
NH 9 Pune and Vijaywada
NH 10 Delhi and Fazilka
27. (a) The distribution of rainfall in India is shown below:
33. (d) Godavari is the largest in the peninsular region. It has
formed an extensive delta in Andhra Pradesh. It rises
near Nasik in Maharashtra.
Cauvery is known as the Ganga of the South. It rises in
the Coorg district of Karnataka.
Krishna rises in the Western Ghat near Mahabaleshwar
and flows through Andhra Pradesh.
35. (d) Gandhi Sagar Reservoir on Chambal river, jointly
executed by Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
36. (b) National Highways No-8 connect Delhi to Mumbai Via
Rajasthan -Gujarat. It is 1428 km in length.
37. (a) Dhaulagiri is some of highest peak in great Himalaya
range. Its height is approximately 8172 m. Height of
Nanda devi is 7816 m.
38. (a) From West to East The sequence of Hills : Nanda Devi
Hills — Maikala Hills — Grahjat hills
39. (c) Heavy electric equipments plants was set up with
Soviet assistance at Ranipur (Hardwar) with the
28. (d) Hirakud Dam is situated on the river Mahanandi. capacity of producing 2.7 lakh KW of steam and water
turbines and generators and 5.2 lakh KW of industrial
29. (b) Population of these states is in chronological order is
electric motors.
as follows:
40. (c) Tropic of cancer passes through Mizoram.
Madhya Pradesh 48,577,242 > Rajashtan 41. (c) In India, tea growing areas are Darjeeling in West
44,005,990 > Gujrat 41,309,582 > Orissa 31,659736 Bengal, the Nilgiri in the South Wynaad, Cochin and
30. (b) Minerals Malabar in Kerala.
Bauxite : Palamu (Jharkhand) Kaira (Gujarat), Kanti, 42. (b) India is deficient in copper ores and thus depends to a
Jabalpur (M.P.) salem (Tamilnadu), Kolhapur large extent on imports . USA , Russia, Chile, Zambia
(Maharashtra) are its largest producer. In India Copper is mined in
Copper : Singhbum, Hazaribagh (Jharkhand), Khetri Khetri complex in Rajasthan, Kho-Dhariba area.
Alwer, Bhilwara, Jhunhunu, Sirohi (Rajasthan) 43. (c) Highest population growth rate during 1991 to 2001 in
Coal : Raniganj (West Bengal) Thariya, Bokaro, Giridiih Nagaland.
(Jharkhand), Desgarh, Talcher (Orissa) Singreni (A.P.) 48. (b) Kandla Port is not situated at the head of Gulf of
Khambat. It is clear from the following map.
Iron Ore : Sanai, Mayurbhanj, Keonjhar (Orissa),
Singhbhum, Hazaribagh, Palamau (Jharkhand).
65. (a) Vadodara-Petrochemicals, Koraput-Aluminium,

Hyderabad-Electronics and Ranchi-Heavy Engineering.
66. (c) The variation in agro-climatic conditions is the reason
for India being a major producer of different varieties
of fruits and vegetables.
67. (a) The sequential order of vegetation types observed
while moving from Assam valley to Rajasthan is :
Tropical wet evergreen ® Tropical moist deciduous
Teropical dry deciduous ® Tropical thorn forest.
68. (a) The tropic of cancer passes thr ough tr ipura,
Chhattisgarh and Rajasthan states in India.
69. (c) Iron ore from Kudremukh is most likely to be exported
through Mangalore.
70. (c) Mangrove, Scrub, teak and coniferous are the various
types of vegetations found in Karnataka, Rajasthan,
Madhya Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh respectively.
71. (b) Kerala, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan are
the states on the basis of ascending dates of the onset
of monsoon.
72. (a) Narmada and Sabarmati are the west flowing rivers.
51. (d) Port Blair is the largest town and a municipal council in 73. (a) India has 6 national water ways–
Andaman district in the Andaman Islands and the First one is Allahabad to Haldia in the river Ganga (1620
capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, a Union km). Second is Sadiya to Dhubri in the river Brahamputra
Territory of India. It lies on the east coast of South (891 km). Third is Kollam to Kottapuram in the river west
Andaman Island and is the main entry point to the coast and canal (205 km). Fourth is Kakinada to
islands. Puducherry in the river Godavari (1095 km). Fifth is
52. (a) Mizoram is one of the seven sister states in North- Talcher to Dhamra in the river Brahmani (623 km) and
eastern India on the border with Myanmar. Its sixth one is Lakhipur to Bhanga in the river Barak (121km).
population at the 2001 census stood at 888,573. 74. (a) Pune is on the leeward side of the western ghats, it
Mizoram's 90.27 per cent literacy rate is the second means that it lies on a rain shadow area. But Mumbai
highest among Indian states after Kerala. lies on the windward side and receives heavy rainfall.
54. (a) The standard time in India is the local time of a place at 75. (a) Monsoon may be considered as large scale sea breejes,
82.5° E longitude near Mirzapur. This meridian also because of seasonal heating. The south west monsoon
divides India approximately into half. brings rain towards the end of summer. It arrives in two
56. (c) Tropical dry deciduous forests run from the Himalayan branches - The way of Bengal branch and the Arabian
foot hills to Kanyakumari and comprise important trees sea branch.
like bijasal, teak, tendu, amaltas, khair, palas, rosewood 76. (c) The Northern Plains of India are expanded mainly in
and axlewood. the state of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, UP and
58. (c) The Kaveri rises from the Brahmagiri hills in the Coorg Eastern Bihar. Here the total road length is more than
district at 1,341 m above sea level and drain the Maysore total surface roads.
plateau before flowing into the plain. 78. (d) The Colorado river is the primary river of the American
Southwest. The original name of this river is Rio
59. (d) The north-eastern part of India gets the maximum
Colorado or Red River by the Spanish.
rainfall (Mawsynram) by the inflow of the south-west
79. (c) India earlier has 5 seismic zones but now 1st and
monsoon into India, while Tamil Nadu receives
2nd zone have been merged.
rainfall from the retreating monsoon. 80. (d) The Narmada river (Rewa) is the fifth largest river in
60. (c) Dodabetta (Tamil Nadu), Guru Shikhar (Rajasthan), the Indian subcontinent. It is third largest river which
Kalsubai (Maharashtra) and Dhupgarh (Madhya is completely flows in India after Ganga and Godavari.
Pradesh). 82. (a) In the Himalayas the forest range from tropical
61. (b) Nanga parbat (8126 m)-Jammu & Kashmir, Nanda deciduous forests in the foot hills, to temperate forests
Devi (7817 m) – Uttrakhand and Kanchenjunga (8598 in the middle altitudes. Higher up coniferous. Sub-alpine
m) Sikkim. & alpine forest spring up. These finally give way to
62. (d) The rivers flowing from North to south : alpine grasslands & high altitude meadows. They are
Penganga & Bhima (Maharashtra), Godavari (Andhra followed by scrublands which lead to the permanent
Pradesh) and Tungbhadra (Karnataka). snowline.
85. (b) The sequence is Kandla - Haldia - Paradeep and Kochi.
63. (c) Shimsha and Arkavati (Karnataka) and Hemavati
87. (b) Bauxite - Orissa
(Tamilnadu) are the tributaries of Cauveri river.
Mica - Andhra Pradesh
64. (b) Chambal river is a part of Ganga basin. It rises from Copper - Madhya Pradesh
semi-arid areas, has shorter courses and does not carry Zinc - Rajasthan
much water with them.
EBD_7348
88. (c) The western ghats are a barrier in the path of the extent of India is vast so a time difference of two hours
monsoons and cause a very high rainfall in the of found in the local time. Local time of Lucknow and
summer. Nearness to the sea also enables the wind Chennai are almost same because they lie along the
patterns to acquire moisture. The Himalayas being same longitude.
the tallest mountain chain in the world contain the 104. (c) Narora- Uttar Pradesh, Rana Pratap Sagar- Rajasthan,
monsoon and act as a barrier to the north. The best Tarapur- Maharashtra, Kalpakkam-Tamil Nadu.
answer is option (c).
105. (b) Most of the plateau of peninsular India enjoys this
89. (a) The Gulf of Mannar is a shallow bay situated between
south eastern tip of India and Sri Lanka draining into climate, except a semi-arid tract to the east of the
the gulf. It has 3600 species of flora and fauna. Western Ghats. Winter and early summer are long dry
90. (c) Hugli is a remarkable example of tidal bore with a periods with temperature above 18°C. Summer is very
maximum of 20 feet 10 inches and an average 16 feet in hot and the temperatures in the interior low level areas
March, April and May. can go above 45°C during May. The rainy season is
91. (b) Indian Standard Time is five and half hours ahead of from June to September and the annual rainfall is
Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). between 75 and 150 cm. Only central eastern Tamil Nadu
92. (b) Kandla-tidal port, Kochi-located at mouth of lagoon, falls under this tract and receives rainfall during the
Vishakhapatnam-deepest land-locked protected port, winter months of late November to January.
Kolkata-inland riverine port. 106. (d) The Nokrek biosphere reserve is located in Meghalaya.
93. (b) Ranigang-Bokaro-Bishrampur-Adilabad. 107. (d) Aghil pass is located in Trans Himalayas.
94. (c) Indian agriculture is a vagaries of monsoons.
95. (b) Fishing in India is a major industry in its coastal states, 108. (c) The 'Golden Quadrilateral' which connects Delhi,
employing over 14 million people. Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata passes through
96. (b) In the Damodar series of Gondwana system Raniganj Vadodara, Pune, Vishakhapatnam and Varanasi. Four
and Barakar has coal reserves whereas Barren Rocks other cities among the top ten metropolises namely
have iron reserves. Bangalore, Pune, Ahmadabad, and Surat are also
97. (d) Zoji La-Jammu-Kashmir, Lipulekh-Uttaranchal, Shipki connected by the network. The largest highway project
La-Himachal Pradesh, Nathu La-Sikkim. in India and the fifth longest in the world, it is the first
98. (b) K2-Jammu and Kashmir, Nanda Devi-Uttarakhand, Tara phase of the National Highways Development Project
Pahar-Himachal Pradesh, Kanchenjunga-Sikkim. (NHDP), and consists of building 5,846 km (3,633 mi)
99. (d) The Deccan Traps were created by what is known as four/six lane express highways at a cost of 600 billion
"flood basalts". That is, the crust split creating a fissure. (US$11 billion). The project was launched in 2001 by
From the fissure tremendous quantities of very fluid Atal Bihari Vajpayee under the NDA government, and
basalt flowed. The eruption did not create a mountain was planned to complete in January, 2012.
like volcano; instead it created just the extensive lava 109. (c) Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, NCR of Delhi. The
flow. The vents, or fissures, that created the Deccan Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor Project is a State-
Traps were not single events. Many eruptions were Sponsored Industrial Development Project of the
responsible for the Traps. Government of India. It is an ambitious project aimed
100. (b) The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), known at developing an Industrial Zone spanning across six
by sailors as the doldrums, is the area encircling the states in India. The project will see major expansion of
earth near the equator where the northeast and Infrastructure and Industry – including industrial
southeast trade winds come together. The ITCZ clusters and rail, road, port, air connectivity – in the
appears as a band of clouds, usually thunderstorms states along the route of the Corridor. Length of
that circle the globe near the equator. In the Northern western DFC:- 1540-km Distribution of DFC in six States
Hemisphere, the trade winds move in a south-western Uttar Pradesh 22 km (1.4%) NCR of Delhi 115 km (7.5%)
direction from the northeast, while in the Southern
Haryana 130 km (8.5%) Rajasthan 553 km (36%) Gujarat
Hemisphere, they move north-westward from the
565 km (36.8%) Maharashtra 150 km (9.8%).
southeast.
101. (c) El Nino is a shift in ocean temperatures and atmospheric 110. (d) Deltaic regions of Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna
conditions in the tropical Pacific that disrupts weather are conducive to well irrigation. The rain-water sinks
around the world. It is a poorly understood recurrent down easily in the areas where the soil is soft and
climatic phenomenon that primarily affects the Pacific porous. So water is available at a lower depth when
coast of South America, but has dramatic impacts on wells are dug and it helps irrigation.
weather patterns all over the world. In the Indian Ocean, 111. (c) Second largest population in the world, third largest
it affects the movement of the monsoon winds. economy, fourth largest agricultural sector. In reference
102. (c) In the soft alluvium of Northern Plains bore wells and to India, superlatives abound. And yet, 400 million
canals can be dug easily due to the loose knit texture Indians live on less than a dollar a day, 212 million are
of the soil. undernourished and the United Nations Development
1 Programme has ranked India 127th (out of 177) in terms
103. (a) Indian Standard Time is based on 82 °E longitude
2 of the human development index.
which passes through Allahabad. Since the east-west
113. (c) Narmada and Tapti – the west-flowing rivers, forms 128. (a) Woolen textile- Ludhiana(Punjab)
narrow and elogated catchment areas. Their great Cotton textile - Davanagere (Karnataka)
velocity and higher gradient make delta formation Silk textile - Sualkuchi(Assam)
impossible. The east-flowing rivers, greater in number, Jute textile - Rishra(West Bengal)
have wide catchment area and form large deltas. 129. (c) Ratnagiri Bauxite mines are located in Maharashtra.
116. (c) Mica–Gutur (Andhra Pradesh) 130. (b) Kamptee is a city and a municipal council in Nagpur
Chromite – Namakkal and Tiruchengode (Tamil Nadu) district in the Indian state of Maharashtra. Rajahmundry
Magnesite – Hindustan Produce Company (Kolkata) is one of the major cities in the Indian state of Andhra
Zinc – Zawar (Rajasthan) Pradesh. Shahdol is a city in Shahdol district in the
117. (c) In India, Jute (corchorus spp) is produced about 75% Indian state of Madhya Pradesh. Belagola is a village
in West Bengal (Ist rank}, 16% in Bihar (IInd rank) and in the southern state of Karnataka, India.
about 5% in Assam (III rank) as per the statistical Data 131. (b) Telangana is bordered by the states of Maharashtra,
of year 2011-12. Jute grow well in loamy soils under hot Chhattisgarh to the north, Karnataka to the west, and
Andhra Pradesh to the south, east and north east.
and humid conditions-as ideal climatic condition.
132. (c) Jabalpur is the place of commercial automobiles.
Generally Maize/Moong/Urd (spring season)-Jute-Rice
Bangalore is the IT hub. Mathura is famous for its petro-
crop rotation is followed, while Jute Rice-Wheat rotation
chemical industries. Ballarpur has paper industries.
is followed on less amount.
133. (b) The total length of the canal along with its
118. (c) Greenwich is 0º meridian, while Indian standard time is distributaries is 3,200 km and it irrigates about 4 lakh
governed by 82½° East Long. The time difference shall hectares in Ambala, Kurukshetra, Kamal, Panipat,
be 5 hrs 30 minutes e.g., 82½º × 4 = 330 minutes or 5 hrs Rohtak, Hissar, Sirsa, Faridabad and Jind districts. It's
30 minutes. important branches are, the Delhi, the Hansi and the
119. (a) (a) is correct and statement II is the correct explanation Sirsa branch.
of statement I. 134. (d) In terms of percentage of forest cover with respect to
120. (d) Lakshadweep is about 220 to 440 Kms away from the total geographical area, Mizoram with 90.38 percent
cost of Kerala, lying one of the world's most spectacular had the highest forest cover in terms of percentage of
tropical Islands systems in a scattered group of 36 coral forest cover to Geographical area
islands. All these islands have been built up by corals 135. (b) The Chandra Prabha Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in
and have fringing coral reefs very close to their shores. the eastern region of Uttar Pradesh. Silent Valley
121. (b) Doddabetta is the highest mountain in the Nilgiri Hills National Park is in Kerala. Valley of flowers is in
(Tamil Nadu)at 2,637 metres. Uttarakhand. Indravati National Park is the finest and
The Vindhyas run across most of central India. most famous wildlife parks of Chhattisgarh.
The Dhaulagiri massif in Nepal extends 120 km from 136. (b) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
the Kaligandaki River west to the Bheri. 142. (a) Western ghats – Tropical evergreen
Mt. Kailash peak is standing in the remote south-west Himachal Pradesh – Himalayan moist forest
corner of Tibet in the Himalayan Mountains. Haryana and Punjab – Tropical thorny forest
122. (b) Ashtamudi lake is situated in the Kollam District of Chhotanagpur Plateau – Tropical moist deciduous
Kerala. 143. (d) Regur is a black soils are found in lava-covered areas
124. (d) Mulches are materials placed over the soil surface to of Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Northern Karnataka, etc.
maintain moisture and improve soil conditions. and this soil is very good for cotton.
Mulching has proven to be an effective soil 144. (a)
conservation practice, reducing both wind and water 145. (b) Karewas are lacustrine deposits (deposits in lake) in
erosion during the winter period. the Valley of Kashmir and in Bhadarwah Valley of the
125. (d) Devprayag is located in Tehri Garhwal district in Jammu Division also known as Jhelum valley.
Uttarakhand. At this place, Alaknanda and Bhagirathi 146. (b) The hilly Meghalaya plateau lies in the south of the
rivers meet and take the name Ganga. Brahmaputra valley. It, in fact, covers the entire
126. (b) Neyveli Thermal Power Station is a set of power plants Meghalaya state. The Meghalaya plateau is a part of
situated near lignite mines of Neyveli (Tamil Nadu). It the Deccan plateau and it is formed of hard ancient
is operated by NLC (Neyveli Lignite Corporation). It rocks.
consists of two distinct units: Neyveli Thermal Power 147. (b) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is located 150 kilometers from
Station I -1020 MW and Neyveli Thermal Power Station- Hyderabad, on the Krishna River.
2 - 1,970 MW. 148. (c) Rajmahal hills of Jharkhand is the type area of this
127. (d) Sequence of oil refineries in India according to their province. Multiple layers of solidified lava made 608 m
time of establishment is as follows:- (1,995 ft) thick Rajmahal hill. The chief characteristic of
1. Guwahati Refinery - 1962 the geology and rocks of India arid-zone is noticed in
2. Barauni Refinery- 1964 its remarkable succession of pre-Cambrian rocks which
3. Haldia Refinery - 1975 go far down towards the base of the Archaean. This
4. Mathura Refinery- 1982 sequence commences for the Bundelkhand gneiss,
which is one of the oldest granites exposed anywhere
upon the earth' surface.
EBD_7348
149. (d) River Narmada emerges from Amarkantak Hill of Maikal 167. (a) Correct matching is;
Range. The mighty Narmada river as well the Son, the List I List II
Mahanadi, and Arnadoh which is a major tributary of (Classification (Example)
the Godavari all arise in the Amarkantak plateau. Son of resources)
river is largest of southern tributaries of Ganga that A. Basic inexhaustible 1. Solar energy
originates near Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh near resource
the source of Narmada River. B. Conventional non- 2. Coal
150. (a) Your blood lipids include the LDL and VLDL both are renewable resource
considered as bad cholesterol. HDL (good cholesterol; C. Non-conventional 3. Hydel power
remember as "Healthy cholesterol") and triglycerides. renewable resource
The lower your LDL and the higher your HDL, the D. Non-conventional 4. Natural gas
non-renewable resource
better your prognosis.
168. (c) Correct matching is;
151. (b) Female Anopheles mosquito is the vector which spread
List I List II
malaria. Chikungunya virus is most often spread to
(Mineral deposit) (State)
people by Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus A. Gypsum 1. Rajasthan
mosquitoes. B. Graphite 2. Arunachal Pradesh
152. (b) Insects are the most diverse group of animals and are C. Fluorspar 3. Gujarat
found in all types of environment. Primates evolved D. Nickel 4. Odisha
from their ancestors by adapting to arboreal life. Primates 169. (a) Tharu people are an ethnic group of Nepal Terai
are thought to have developed several of their traits including Indian Terai of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh
and habits initially while living in trees. and Bihar.
153. (d) Deserts, fertile plains and moderately forested 170. (b) Rudraprayag is one of the sacred Panch Prayags. It is
mountains are the characteristics features of North- the confluence point of Alaknanda and Mandakini.
Western India. 171. (b) West to east location of the given Indian cities is
154. (a) In Thar desert the shifting sand dunes are locally known Jodhpur-Bhopal-Bilaspur-Ranchi.
as Dhrian. 172. (b) Western disturbances play an important role in
155. (b) Jelep La or Jelep Pass elevation 4,267 m or 13,999 ft, is inducing additional rain during winter season in
a high mountain pass between East Sikkim District, Kashmir and adjoining region.
Sikkim, India and Tibet Autonomous Region, China. 173. (c) Kalakot tertiary coal field is in Kashmir, hence in the
158. (c) Amaravati river is the longest tributary of Kaveri river. Himalayan mountain region.
160. (d) Orissa is the largest producer and produces over 37 % 174. (d) Option d is Correct
175. (c) South-west Monsoon is the main factor that is
manganese ore of India. Rajasthan is by far the largest
responsible for inducing maximum rainfall in Indian
producer of gypsum in India and it produces almost
region
99% of the total production Gypsum in India. Major
176. (a) Gulf of Mannar, Nokrek, Pachmarhi and Simlipal
deposits of magnesite are found in Uttaranchal. biosphere reserves in India are included in the list of
161. (c) The given national parks, Corbett, Sariska, simlipal and World network of Biosphere reserves (Asia and pacific
Periyar are situated at Uttarakhand, Rajasthan, Odisha region). Other biosphere in the list include
and Kerala respectively. Nilgiri,Nanda Devi, Sunderbans etc.
162. (b) Monsoon rains usually arrive on the southern tip of 177. (b) Sunrise in eastern Arunachal Pradesh would be about
Kerala state around June 1 and retreat from Rajasthan 2 hrs before the sunrise in western Gujarat.
by September. But this year (2019) it arrived on June 8. 178. (c) The states in the decreasing order of larger to smaller
Thus beginning and end of rain is neither regular nor ratio of forest cover/total state area Kerala (52.3%),
on time. Odisha (32.98%), Karnataka (19.58%) and Andhra
163. (a) Amw Monsoon with short dry season covers West Pradesh (17.27%).
coast of India upto south of Goa Cwg - Monsoon with 179. (b) Among the given Indian states, Tamil Nadu is the state
dry winter covers Ganga plain, eastern Rajasthan, with longest coast line.
northern Madhya Pradesh, most of North-east India. 180. (c) Madhya Pradesh (77,414 Sq. Km) is the state with
As - Monsoon with dry summer covers Coromandel largest area under forest cover among the given states
Coast of Tamil Nadu. Cwg - Monsoon with dry winter 181. (b) The correct combination of river and its tributary is,
covers almost all Ganga plain, eastern Rajasthan, Godavari- Indravati Krishna- Bhima Luni-Sukri
northern Madhya Pradesh, most of North-east India. Penganga is one of the tributaries of wardha river.
Dfc - Cold humid winter with short summer covers 182. (d) Tawi is a river that flows through the city of Jammu,
Arunachal Pradesh and nearby areas. Kashmir. Tawi river is a major left bank tributary of
166. (b) It is a 1684 km stretch from Kolkata to Chennai. It Chenab River. The river originates from the lapse of
Kali Kundi glacier and adjoining area south-west of
consists of NH6 (Kolkata to Kharagpur), NH60
Bhadarwah in Doda District.
(Kharagpur to Balasore) and NH5 (Balasore to Chennai).
183. (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR) is the 195. (c) Sarda River rises as the Kali River in far northern
largest tiger reserve in India . The reserve spreads Uttarakhand state in the Great Himalayas on the eastern
over five districts, Nalgonda District, Mahbubnagar slopes of the Nanda Devi massif. The river then flows
district, Kurnool District, Prakasam District and Guntur generally south-southwest, where it constitutes the
District. The total area of the tiger reserve is 3,568 km2 border between Uttarakh and state and Nepal.
(1,378 sq mi). The core area of this reserve is 1,200 km2 Descending from the mountains, it enters the Indo-
(460 sq mi). Gangetic Plain at Barmdeo Mandi (Nepal), widening
184. (c) Indravati River is a tributary of the Godavari River. Its there above the Sarda Barrage. Below that point it is
starting point is found to be the Ghats of known as the Sarda River. The Sarda then continues
Dandakaranya range, in the Kalahandi district of the southeastward into India through northern Uttar
state of Odisha, The River follows a westerly path and Pradesh state before joining the Ghaghara River
enters Jagadalpur in the state of Chhattisgarh. The southwest of Bahraich, after a course of about 300
river moves from here in a southern route, before miles (480 km).
eventually uniting with the Godavari at the borders of 196. (b) As a result of exploration carried out up to the maximum
three states of Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and Andhra depth of 1200m by the GSI, CMPDI, SCCL and MECL
Pradesh. etc, a cumulative total of 319.02 Billion tonnes of
185. (a) Bharatmala project is related to improving road Geological Resources of Coal have so far been
connectivity across India. Under this project it is estimated in the country as on 1.4.2018. The details of
proposed to develop ring roads around 28 major cities state-wise geological resources of Coal (in million
across the country. tonnes) are given as under:
186. (a) The chronological order of sunrise time is Agartala,
Imphal, Itanagar and Aizawl.
187. (b) The south to north order of the wildlife sanctuaries is State Proved Indicated Inferred Total
Bhadra, Pachmarhi, Similipal, Shikari Devi. Total 148787 139164 31069 319020
188. (a) The correct combination is JHARKHAND 45563 31439 6150 83152
Bhagirathi-Uttarkashi
ODISHA 37391 34165 7739 79295
Alaknanda-Lansdowne
Nayar -Pauri CHHATTISGA
Ganga-Narendra Nagar RH 20428 34576 2202 57206
189. (d) Majuli River Island is located in Brahmaputra, Assam. WEST
190. (d) Nagaland is the only state which recorded negative BENGAL 14156 12869 4643 31667
population growth as per census-2011. MADHYA
192. (c) As per the census of 2011, the correct descending order PRADESH 11958 12154 3875 27987
of Indian States in terms of sex ratio is given below.
[pSource: http://censusindia.gov.in/2011-prov-results/ TELANGANA 10475 8576 2651 21702
data_files/mizoram/Provisional_Population_Mizoram.pdf]
197. (c) Kamarajar Port Limited (Erstwhile & Ennore Port
S tates S ex ratio as per cens us 2 011 Limited), the 12th Major Port is situated on the East
M anip ur 987 Coast of India about 20 km north of Chennai Port along
M egh alaya 989 the coastline, in the State of Tamil Nadu. Kamarajar
Port is the first and presently only Corporatized Major
M izoram 976
Port under the management control of Kamarajar Port
Tripu ra 960 Limited (KPL). The port was declared as Major Port
193. (d) Portuguese made good impact in Indian Agriculture in under the Indian Ports Act, 1908 in March 1999 and
ancient times. They introduced many crops in India incorporated as Ennore Port Limited under the
and their cultivation becomes very popular, the main Companies Act, 1956 in October 1999. It was
crops they introduced to us were Tobacco, Pineapple, commissioned in 2001 to handle thermal coal
Papaya, Cashew nuts and Chili. requirements.
194. (d) The Thamirabarani River (Porunai) is a perennial river 198. (d) Lakshadweep is the India’s smallest Union Territory
that originates from the Agastyarkoodam peak of which consists of 36 islands with an area of 32 sq km.
Pothigai hills of the Western Ghats, above Papanasam It is a uni-district Union Territory and is comprised of
in the Ambasamudram taluk. It flows through 12 atolls, 3 reefs, 5 submerged banks and 10 inhabited
Tirunelveli and Tuticorin districts of the Tamil Nadu islands.
state of southern India into the Gulf of Mannar. This 199. (d) Correct Matching is:
river flows towards north direction initially. However, Ross Island Subhash Chandra Bose Island
it changes to east direction later.
Neil Island Shaheed Dweep
Havelock Island Swaraj Dweep
EBD_7348
POLITICAL SCIENCE
Indian Polity 21
1. Consider the following statements: 6. What is the term of a Member of the Rajya Sabha ?
1. The President of India cannot appoint a person as (a) Three years (b) Four years
Prime Minister if he/she is not a member of either Lok (c) Five years (d) Six years [2007-I]
Sabha or Rajya Sabha. 7. The Union Executive of India consists of:
2. The candidate for the office of Prime Minster must have (a) The President; Vice-President, Lok Sabha Speaker and
the support of the majority members of both Lok Sabha the Council of Ministers
and Rajya Sabha.
(b) The President, Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha,
Lok Sabha Speaker and the Prime Minister
(c) The President and the Council of Ministers only
(d) The President, Vice-President and the Council of
Ministers only [2007-I]
1. It is on the advice of the Speaker of Lok Sabha that the
8. Which one among the following has the power to regulate
President of India summons and prorogues Parliament
the right of citizenship in India?
and dissolves Lok Sabha .
(a) The Union Cabinet (b) The Parliament
2. The resignation of the Prime Minister means the
resignation of the entire Council of Ministers. (c) The Supreme Court (d) The Law Commission
3. A vote of confidence against one Minister. in Lok [2007-I]
Sabha means the vote of confidence against the entire 9. As per the Constitution of India, what is the limit prescribed
Council of Ministers. for the number of members in the Legislative Assembly of a
Which of the following statements given above are correct ? State?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 350 members (b) 400 members
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 [2006-I] (c) 450 members (d) 500 members [2007-II]
3. Who among the following decides whether a bill is a Money 10. Who among the following appoints the Judges of a High
Bill or not ? Court?
(a) Union Finance Minister (a) The President of India
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs (c) The Governor of the State concerned
(d) President of India [2006-II] (d) The Union Minister of Law [2007-II]
4. Consider the following statements : 11. Who among the following chooses the Speaker of the
1. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the House of People?
Governor of the state. (a) The Prime Minister of India
2. Every Judge of a High Court including the Chief Justice (b) The Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
holds office until he/she attains the age of 65 years. (c) The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
(d) The House of People [2007-II]
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
12. What is the number of Judges (including Chief Justice) in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2006-II] the Supreme Court of India as provided in the Constitution
5. While Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the term of of India?
the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period not exceeding?
(a) 20 (b) 24
(a) Six weeks (b) Three months
(c) 26 (d) 28 [2007-II]
(c) Six months (d) One year [2006-II]
Indian Polity G-225
13. In the Union Government, under whose charge is the Cabinet (a) Article 19 (b) Article 21
Secretariat? (c) Article 40 (d) Article 246 [2008-II]
(a) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs 21. Consider the following statements:
(b) The President of India 1. No person is eligible for appointment as Governor
(c) The Prime Minister of India unless he has completed the age of thirty years.
(d) The Union Home Minister [2007-II] 2. The same person can be appointed as Governor for
14. Which one of the following Amendments of the three States.
Constitution of India deals with the issue of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
strengthening of the Panchayati Raj? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 42nd (b) 44th (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2008-II]
(c) 73rd (d) 86th [2008-I] 22. Consider the following statements:
15. Consider the following statements: 1. A bill pending in the Legislature of a State shall not
1. Salary and allowances of the Speaker of Lok Sabha are lapse by reason of the prorogation of the House or
charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. House thereof.
2. In the Warrant of Precedence, the Speaker of Lok Sabha 2. A bill pending in the Legislative Council of a State
ranks higher than all the Union Cabinet Ministers other which has not been passed by the Legislative Assembly
than Prime Minister. shall not lapse on dissolution of the Assembly.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither1 nor 2 [2008-I] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2008-II]
16. Which one of the following is not a feature of part IX of the 23. The entry “Public health and Sanitation” is included in the
Constitution of India? Constitution of India in [2009-I]
(a) Five year tenure for panchayats (a) Union List (b) State List
(b) Reservation of seats for Schedule Castes and Schedule (c) Concurrent List (d) None of these
Tribes for Panchayat membership 24. The Instrument of Instructions on the Government of India
(c) Indirect election for all panchayat seats (village/ Act 1935 has been incorporated in the Constitution of India
intermediate level) in the year 1950 as [2009-I]
(d) Reservation for not less than one-third of the seats for (a) Fundamental Rights
women [2008-II] (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
17. Which one of the following statements is/are correct with (c) Fundamental Duties
regard to the Vice-President of India? (d) Emergency Provisions
1. He must be a member of Parliament. 25. Who among the following was the advisor of the Drafting
2. He is elected by proportional representation. Committee of the Constituent Assembly? [2009-I]
3. He is Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. (a) B. Shiva Rao (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Select the correct answer unsig the code given below: (c) Sachidananda Sinha (d) B.N. Rao
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 26. On which of the following grounds can a Judge of the
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 [2008-II] Supreme Court or a High Court be impeached? [2009-I]
18. Which among the following statements is/are the feature(s) 1. Violation of the Constitution
of a Federal state ? 2. Proved misbehaviour
1. The power of the central and the state (Constituent 3. Incapacity
Unit) Government are clearly laid down. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
2. It has an unwritten constitution. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer unsig the code given below: (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 27. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments have
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2008-II] added Article 15 (5) in the Constitution of India providing
19. Which of the following are the principles of the Panchsheel? for reservation in educational institutions in the private
1. Peaceful co-existence sector also ? [2009-I]
2. Mutual protection of the environment (a) 81st Amendment (b) 86th Amendment
3. Mutual protection of indigenous population. (c) 9lst Amendment (d) 93rd Amendment
4. Mutual non-aggression. 28. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not,
Select the correct answer using the code given below: whose decision shall be final? [2009-I]
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (a) The Supreme Court of India
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only [2008-II] (b) The President of India
20. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India (c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
makes a specific mention of village panchayats? (d) Joint Parliamentary Committee
EBD_7348
29. The idea of including the Emergency provisions in the 38. Which of the following statements is/are not violative of
Constitution of India has been borrowed from the [2009-I] the principle of federalism?
(a) Constitution of Canada 1. The President of India takes over administration of
(b) Weimar Constitution of Germany provinces under the emergency provisions.
(c) Constitution of Ireland 2. The Parliament of India has exclusive power to make
(d) Constitution of the USA any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in
30. Which one of the following statements about Trusteeship’s the Concurrent List or State List.
is not correct? [2009-II] 3. The distribution of powers between the Union and
(a) ‘Trusteeship, provides a means of transforming the Provinces is done through three different lists
capitalist order of society into an egalitarian one enumerated in the Constitution of India. [2010-I]
(b) It is based on the faith that human nature is never Select the correct answer using the code given below:
beyond redemption Code:
(c) It does not recognize any right of private ownership of (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
property, except so far as it may be permitted by society (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3
for its own welfare 39. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) may be linked with [2010-I]
(d) It excludes legislative regulation of the ownership and (a) judicial review
use of wealth (b) judicial activism
31. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can resign his office by (c) judicial intervention
addressing his resignation to [2009-II] (d) judicial sanctity
(a) the President 40. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(b) the Prime Minister [2010-II]
(c) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha (a) Power of : Creating a new
(d) the Chief Justice of India Parliament State
32. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the (b) Power of State : Altering the name
President of India ? [2009-II] Legislature of a State
(a) Only Lok Sabha (c) Equality before : Both Indian and
(b) Only Rajya Sabha the law non-Indian citizens
(c) Either House of the Parliament (d) Equality of : Indian citizen
(d) Any Legislative Assembly opportunity
33. Which among the following is the exclusive jurisdiction of 41. The Legislative Council in a State in India can be created or
the State Government? [2009-II] abolished by the [2010-II]
(a) Corporation tax (b) Customs duty (a) Parliament on the recommendation of a Governor of
the state.
(c) Sales tax (d) Income tax
(b) Parliament alone
34. Consider the following statements [2009-II]
(c) Parliament after the state assembly passes the
1. Report of the Administrative Reforms Commission,
resolution of that effect.
headed by late Morarji Desai, recommended the
(d) Governor of the state on the recommendation of the
establishment of Lokpal and Lokayukta institutions.
Council of Ministers.
2. Lokpal is the highest institution in India to investigate
42. The Government Bill means a bill introduced by a [2010-II]
corruption at higher places in Government.
(a) Member of the Treasury bench in the Lok Sabha
(b) Member of the Parliament who is not a Minister
(c) Minister in the Lok Sabha
(d) Minister in any House of the Parliament.
35. Which among the following is an extraconstitutional growth 43. Right to Information in India is a [2010-II]
in Indian democracy ? [2009-II]
(a) Fundamental Right
(a) Attorney General of India (b) Legal Right
(b) Autonomous Districts (c) Both Fundamental and Legal Rights
(c) Political Parties (d) Neither Fundamental nor Legal Right
(d) Deputy Chairman of the Council of States 44. Which among the following statements with respect to the
36. Freedom of the press in India is [2009-II] Comptroller and Auditor General of India is/are correct?
(a) available to the people under the law of the Parliament [2010-II]
(b) specifically provided in the Constitution I. The procedure and grounds for his removal from the
(c) implied in the right of freedom of expression office are the same as of a Judge of Supreme Court.
(d) available to the people of India under executive order II. He prescribes the form in which accounts of the Union
37. The Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act deals with [2010-I] and the States are to be kept.
(a) local self-government Select the correct answer using the code given below
(b) extension of reservation in educational institutions (a) I only (b) II only
(c) basic structure of the Constitution of India (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
(d) appointment of judges in the Supreme Court of India
Indian Polity G-227
45. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both 51. The Parliament can legislate on the subjects in the State List
the Houses of Indian Parliament, it has to be passed by a if the [2012-I]
[2011-I] (a) President issues an order authorizing it to do so
(a) simple majority of the total number of members of both (b) Supreme Court gives authority to the Parliament in this
the Houses present and voting regard
(b) two-third majority of the total number of members of (c) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds of its
members present and voting, declaring it expedient to
both the Houses
legislate on a State matter in the national interest
(c) simple majority of the total number of members of both (d) Prime Minister issues a special order
the Houses 52. The writ of certiorari is issued by a superior court to
(d) two-third majority of the total number of members of [2012-I]
both the Houses present and voting (a) an inferior court to stop further proceedings in a
46. Which one among the following features of the Constitution particular case
of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power (b) an inferior court to transfer the record of proceedings
is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime in a case for review
Minister? [2011-I] (c) an officer to show his/her right to hold a particular
(a) Federalism office
(b) Representative legislature (d) a public authority to produce a person detained by it
(c) Universal adult franchise before the court within 24 hours
(d) Parliamentary democracy 53. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
47. In which among the following cases, the joint session of 1. The Speaker immediately vacates his/her office
both the Houses of Parliament can be summoned? whenever the State Legislative Assembly is dissolved.
2. No Member of a State Legislative Assembly shall be
[2011-I]
liable to any proceeding in any court in respect of
1. To amend the Constitution. anything said or any vote given by him/her in the
2. When a Bill has been pending with one House for more legislature. [2012-I]
than six months after it was passed by the other Select the correct answer using the code given below :
3. When both the Houses disagree on the amendments Code :
to be made in a Bill. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
4. When a bill is passed by one House and is rejected by (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the other. 54. Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. of the Constitution of India is/are correct ? [2012-II]
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 1. The Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 2. The words 'secular' and 'socialist' have been a part of
48. Which of the following statements with regard to the Federal the Preamble since its inception.
System is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. In a federation, two sets of governments coexist and (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
there is distribution of power. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. There is a written constitution. [2011-II] 55. Normally the Parliament can legislate on the subjects
enumerated in [2012-II]
(a) the Union List
(b) the Concurrent List
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 or 2 (c) the State List
49. The Supreme Court of India has expanded the meaning of (d) the Union as well as Concurrent List
the Right to Life to include the following derivative rights. 56. Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college
Which one among the following is not included in the consisting of [2012-II]
Court’s definition? [2011-II] (a) members of both Houses of Parliament
(a) Right to food and adequate livelihood (b) members of Rajya Sabha only
(b) Right to education (c) elected members of both Houses of Parliament
(c) Right to live in a healthy environment (d) elected members of Lok Sabha only
(d) Right to health and information 57. Who among the following has a right to speak and otherwise
take part in proceedings of either House of Parliament and
50. Which one among the following pairs is not correctly
to be a member of any parliamentary committee but is not
matched? [2011-II] entitled to vote ? [2012-II]
(a) Union List : Banking (a) Chairman, Finance Commission
(b) State List : Agriculture (b) The Attorney General
(c) Concurrent List : Marriage (c) The Comptroller and Auditor General
(d) Residuary List : Education (d) The Chief Election Commissioner
EBD_7348
58. Which one among the following statements is correct ? Code:
[2012-II] (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II
The press in democracy must is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(a) be free and impartial
(b) Both the statements ‘are individually true but Statement II
(b) be committed to the policies of the government
is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) highlight the achievement of the government without
criticizing its policies (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) criticize the policies of the government (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
59. Joint Parliamentary Sessions in India are chaired by the
63. Statement-I: Coalition in India is always a post-poll
[2013-I]
(a) President of India phenomenon.
(b) Vice-President of India who is the Chairman of the Rajya Statement-II : The United Progressive Alliance was formed
Sabha after the Lok Sabha Election of 2004. [2010-I]
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha 64. Statement I : The Constitution of India is a liberal
(d) Prime Minister of India Constitution.
60. Which one among the following is not a function of the Statement II : It provides Fundamental Rights to
Comptroller and Auditor General of India? [2013-I] individuals. [2010-I]
(a) Auditing the transactions of Centre and state
Governments relating to contingency funds and public 65. Statement-I : Sarkaria Commission recommended that
accounts Governor of a state should be a non-political person
(b) Compiling the accounts of Defence appointed after consultation with the Chief Minister of the
(c) Auditing the accounts of institutions financed by the state.
Government Statement-II : This could be achieved through amending
(d) Compiling the accounts of States Article 165 of the Constitution of India. [2010-I]
61. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 66. Statement I : A public expression of dissatisfaction with
[2013-I] democracy indicates the success of the democratic project
Under Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor
: it transforms people from the status of a subject into that
of a State may
of a citizen.
1. withhold his assent to a bill passed by the State
Legislature Statement II : The fact that people are complaining is
2. reserve the bill passed by the State Legislature for itself an affirmation of the success of democracy: it shows
reconsideration of the President that people have developed awareness and the ability to
3. return th e bill, other than a money bill, for look critically at the government. [2011-II]
reconsideration of the Legislature 67. Which of the following statements are true for the
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Fundamental Right to Life and Personal Liberty as
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 [2014-I]
62. Point out the difference between the local government in 1. The Right is available to citizens as well as aliens.
India before and after the Constitutional Amendments in 1992: 2. It covers protection against arbitrary executive and
legislative action.
[2013-I]
3. It includes the right to live with human dignity.
1. It has become mandatory to hold regular elections to 4. It can be taken away according to the procedure
the local government bodies. established by law.
2. 1/3rd positions are reserved forwomen. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
3. Elected officials exercise supreme power in the (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
government. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only
68. Which one among the following is not a characteristic of a
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
federal system? [2014-I]
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (a) There are two distinct levels of government
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only (b) The responsibilities and powers of each level of
government are clearly defined in a written Constitution
(c) There is no separation of powers between the
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 63-66) : The following items consist of two legislative and executive branches of government
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine (d) A Supreme Court is entrusted with the responsibility
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these of interpreting these provisions and arbitrating in
items using the code given below: matters of dispute
Indian Polity G-229
69. The Constitution of India guarantees the Fundamental Right 76. The Second Five Year Plan that called for the establishment
to Freedom of Religion to all its citizens. Which among the of Socialist pattern of society was commonly referred to as
following is not true for this Rights? [2014-I] the [2015-I]
(a) It gives freedom of conscience and freedom to profess,
practice and propagate any religion (a) Harrod-Domar Plan (b) Mahalanobis Plan
(b) It gives freedom to establish and maintain institution (c) Nehru Plan (d) Peoples Plan
for religious and charitable purposes 77. Which of the following is/are not fundamental right(s) under
(c) The Right is subject to public order, morality and health the Constitution of India ? [2015-I]
(d) The State cannot make any law which abrogates this 1. Right to education.
Right for citizens 2. Right to work.
70. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention 3. Right to form associations.
of Atrocities) Act, 1989 may be seen as giving effect to
4. Right to practise any profession.
which of the following Fundamental Rights? [2014-I]
1. Equality before the Law Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. Right against Discrimination (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
3. Abolition of Untouchability (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3
4. Right to Freedom of Religion 78. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains
Select the correct answer using the code given below. [2015-I]
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List
71. Which of the following statements is correct? [2014-II]
(c) a list of recognized languages
(a) The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected
every year (d) provisions about the disqualification of Members of
(b) The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected for Legislatures on grounds of defection
a term of 5 years 79. Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with [2015-I]
(c) The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected for (a) the powers of the Parliament of India to amend the
a term of 6 years Constitution
(d) The Vice President of India is the Ex Officio Presiding (b) financial emergency
Officer of the Rajya Sabha (c) reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and
72. Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha
Committee of the Constitution of India? [2014-II] (d) Official Language of the Union of India
(a) B. R. Ambedkar (b) K. M. Munshi 80. Which among the following is not a basic feature of the
(c) Krishnaswamy Iyer (d) M. K Gandhi
73. Which of the following is/are not related to fundamental Constitution of India ? [2015-I]
duties? [2014-II] (a) Fundamental rights
1. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired (b) Independence of judiciary
our national struggle for freedom (c) Federalism
2. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our (d) The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend
composite culture any part of the Constitution
3. To promote the educational and economic interests of 81. Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty ?
the weaker sections of the people, especially the [2015-I]
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. (a) To abide by the Constitution of India and respect the
4. To protect all monuments of historic interest and national flag and national anthem
national importance.
(b) To safeguard public property
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) To protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 only (d) To render compulsory military service
74. Joint sittings of the two Houses of Indian Parliament are 82. Which of the following are the basic features of the
held to [2014-II] Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act ? [2015-I]
(a) elect the President of India 1. Provides for a three-tier structure of panchayats in the
(b) elect the Vice President of India village, intermediary and district levels.
(c) adopt a Constitution Amendment Bill 2. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and
(d) consider and pass a Bill on which the two Houses Scheduled Tribes and women in all the tiers of
diagree panchayats.
75. The President of India can issue proclamation of Emergency 3. Election to panchayats under the supervision of the
[2014-II]
State Election Commissions.
(a) on the advice of the Prime Minister
4. Introduction of the 11th Schedule to the Constitution.
(b) on the advice of the Council of Ministers
(c) in his own discretion
(d) when the decision of the Union Cabinet for the issue (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
of such proclamation has been communicated to him (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 only
in writing
EBD_7348
83. The word 'Secular' was inserted into the Constitution of Select the correct answer using the code given below:
India by: [2015-II] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 44th Amendment Act (b) 52nd Amendment Act (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 42nd Amendment Act (d) 34th Amendment Act 92. Consider the following statements: [2016-I]
84. The two provisions of the Constitution of India that most 1. The Amendment procedure has been provided in
clearly express the power of Judicial review are: [2015-II] Artical 368 of the Constitution of India.
(a) Article 21 and Article 446 2. The consent of the States is mandatory for all
(b) Article 32 and Article 226 Amendments to the Constitution of India.
(c) Article 44 and Article 152 Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(d) Article 17 and Article 143 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
85. An emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
can be declared only during: [2015-II]
93. Which of the following statements relating to the comptroller
(a) War, external aggression or internal disturbance.
(b) War, external aggression or armed rebellion. and Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct? [2016-I]
(c) Failure of Constitutional Machinery in the State. 1. The CAG can attend the sittings of the Committee on
(d) Financial instability in the country. Public Accounts.
86. The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with: 2. The CAG can attend the sittings of Lok Sabha and
[2015-II] Rajya Sabha.
(a) provisions related to the administration of tribal areas. 3. The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers
(b) allocation of seats in the Council of States. of the Union Governement.
(c) the Union List, The State List and the Concurrent List. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(d) recognized languages of the Union of India. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
87. The Panchayati Raj system under Part-IX of the Constitution (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
of India does not apply of the States of : [2015-II] 94. Which of the following statements relating to election as
(a) Assam, Mizoram and Nagaland the President of India is/are correct? [2016-I]
(b) Nagaland, Meghalaya and Tripura 1. A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible
(c) Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram for election as the President of India.
(d) Sikkim, Tripura and Meghalaya 2. The President of India is eligible for re-election for more
88. Which one of the following pairs of the Schedule in the than one term.
Constitution of India and its Content is not correctly 3. A person is not eligible for election as the President of
matched? [2016-I] India if the person holds an office of profit.
Schedule Content Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Eighth Schedule : Languages (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) Second Schedule : The forms of oaths and (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
affirmations 95. The citizens of India do not have which one of the following
(c) Fourth Schedule : Allocation of seats in the Fundamental Rights? [2016-I]
Council of States (a) Right to reside and settle in any part of India
(d) Tenth Schedule : Provisions as to
(b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property
disquialification on the
ground of defection (c) Right to practice any profession
89. Consider the following statements: [2016-I] (d) Right to form co-operative societies
1. The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to 96. Consider the following statements about the Constitution
form new States and to alter the areas, boundaries or of India : [2016-II]
names of existing States by passing a resolution in 1. A Member of Parliament enjoys freedom of speech in
simple majority. the Parliament as a Parliamentary privilege protected
2. Jammu and Kashmir has been given special status by the Constitution of India .
under Article 370 of the Constitution of India. 2. The Constitution has vested the power to armed the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Constitution in the Parliament
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
90. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
writing, addressed to the [2016-I] 97. Which one of the following statements about the Union
(a) President of India Executive in India is correct ? [2016-II]
(b) Prime Minister of India (a) According to the Constitution of lndia, the total
(c) Vice President of India number of member of the Council of Ministers cannot
(d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha exceed 20% of the total number of Members of the
91. The Election Commission recognizes a political party as a house of the People
national party if [2016-I] (b) The rank of different Ministers is determined by the
1. it secures at least six percent of the total valid votes president
polled in four or more States in a general election to (c) The Ministers is appointed by the president on the
the Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assemblies. advice of the Prime Minister
2. it wins at least four seats in a general election to the (d) Only a member of either House of Paliament can be
Lok Sabha from any State or States. appointed as a Minister.
Indian Polity G-231
98. Which one of the following statements about Money Bill 103. Which among the following can attend the meeting of both
is correct ? [2016-II] Houses of Parliament while not being a member of either
(a) A Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill only if it House? [2017-II]
Provides for imposition of fines or penalties (a) The Solicitor General of India
(b) A Money Bill shall be introduced in the Rajya Sabha (b) The Vice-President of India
(c) The Rajya Sabha can reject the Money Bill. (c) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha finally decides if it is a (d) The Attorney General of India
Money Bill, should any dispute about it arise 104. The creation of the institution of Lokpal was first
99. Which one of the following powers of the Prime Minister recommended by [2017-II]
of India is codified in the Constitution of India itself? (a) Law Commission
[2016-II]
(b) Santhanam Committee
(a) The power of advising the president as regards the
(c) Shah Commission
appointment of other Ministers
(b) The power to allocate business amonst the Ministers (d) Administrative Reforms Commission
(c) The power of summon the meeting of the cabinet 105. Which one of the following about the Parliament of India is
(d) The power of transfer of Minister from one Department NOT correct? [2018-I]
to another department (a) The Parliament consists of the President, the Lok
100. By fulfilling which of the following conditions can a political Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
party claim the status of a national party? [2017-I] (b) There are no nominated members in the Lok Sabha
1. It secures at least six per cent (6%) of the valid votes (c) The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
polled in any four or more states, at a general election (d) Some members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by
to the House of the people or, to the State Legislative the President
Assembly. 106. Which one of the following statements with regard to the
2. It wins at least four seats in the House of the People Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is NOT
from any State or States or wins at least two per cent correct? [2018-I]
(2%) seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in (a) He is appointed by the President of India
the existing House having 543 members), and these (b) He can be removed from office in the same way as the
members are elected from at least three different States. judge of the Supreme Court of India
3. The party in question has got recognition as a state (c) The CAG is eligible for further office under the
party in at least two states. Government of India after he has ceased to hold his
4. It must have its headquarters in New Delhi.
office
(d) The salary of the CAG is charged upon the Consolidated
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 Fund of India
101. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using 107. The Superintendence, direction and control of elections in
the code given below the Lists : [2017-I] India is vested in [2018-I]
List I List II (a) The Supreme Court of India
(Amendment to the (Subject) (b) The Parliament of India
Constitution of India) (c) The Election Commission of India
A. 52nd Amendment Act, 1. Reduction of (d) The Chief Election Commissioner
Act, 1985 voting age from 21 108. Which of the following provision(s) of the Constitution of
to 18 India became effective from 26th November 1949? [2018-I]
B. 73rd Amendment Act, 2. Right to Education 1. Elections
1992 2. Citizenship
C. 61st Amendment Act, 3. Panchayati Raj 3. Emergency provisions
1988 4. Appointment of the Judges
D. 86th Amendment Act, 4. Disqualification on Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2006 grounds of (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
defection (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Codes :
A B C D 109. Which one among the following is not a Fundamental Right
(a) 4 1 3 2 under the Constitution of India? [2018-II]
(b) 4 3 1 2 (a) Right to equality (b) Right to freedom
(c) 2 3 1 4 (c) Right to citizenship (d) Right against exploitation
(d) 2 1 3 4
110. Every Judge of the Supreme Court of India is appointed by
102. Which one of the following is not a subject that has been
devolved to the Panchayat Raj Institutions by the 11th [2018-II]
Schedule of the constitution of India? [2017-II] (a) the Supreme Court Collegium
(a) Non–conventional energy resources (b) the Cabinet
(b) Roads (c) the President of India
(c) Higher eduction
(d) Libraries (d) the Lok Sabha
EBD_7348
111. Which one of the following is not a part of the Directive 114. Article 352 of the Constitution of India contains provisions
Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of related to [2018-II]
India? [2018-II] (a) financial emergency
(a) Equal justice and free legal aid (b) failure of constitutional machinery in States
(b) Protection of monuments and places and objects of (c) suspension of the enforcement of right conferred in
national importance. Part III of the Constitution
(c) Protection of personal law (d) general emergency
(d) Separation of Judiciary from Executive 115. An Election Commissioner can be removed from office on
112. The word socialist was inserted into the preamble to the the recommendation of [2019-I]
constitution of India through which one of the following (a) The Chief Justice of India
Amendment Acts? [2018-II] (b) The Chief Election Commissioner
(c) The President of India
(a) 41st Amendment Act
(d) The Parliament
(b) 42nd Amendment Act 116. Which one of the following statements regarding the Rajya
(c) 43rd Amendment Act Sabha is NOT correct ? [2019-I]
(d) 44th Amendment Act (a) Its members are elected by the elected members of the
Legislative Assembly of a State
113. Who among the following is the ex officio Chairman of the
(b) The election follows the system of proportional
North Eastern Council? [2018-II]
representation by means of a single transferable vote
(a) The President of India
(c) 1/3rd of its members retire after every two years
(b) The Prime Minister of India (d) It is a permanent body, but can be dissolved earlier by
the President
(c) The Union Home Minister
117. Fundamental right guaranteed under which one of the
(d) The Union Minister of State (Independent Charge), following Articles of the Constitution of India is available
Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region only to the citizens of India ? [2019-I]
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 20
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 22
ANSWER KEY
1 (d) 13 (c) 25 (d) 37 (b) 49 (*) 61 (d) 73 (c) 85 (b) 97 (c) 109 (c)
2 (b) 14 (c) 26 (d) 38 (b) 50 (d) 62 (b) 74 (d) 86 (b) 98 (d) 110 (c)
3 (b) 15 (c) 27 (d) 39 (b) 51 (c) 63 (b) 75 (d) 87 (c) 99 (a) 111 (c)
4 (d) 16 (c) 28 (c) 40 (b) 52 (b) 64 (d) 76 (b) 88 (b) 100 (c) 112 (b)
5 (d) 17 (c) 29 (b) 41 (c) 53 (b) 65 (c) 77 (c) 89 (c) 101 (b) 113 (c)
6 (d) 18 (a) 30 (a) 42 (d) 54 (a) 66 (a) 78 (b) 90 (d) 102 (c) 114 (c)
7 (c) 19 (d) 31 (c) 43 (b) 55 (b) 67 (c) 79 (a) 91 (c) 103 (d) 115 (b)
8 (b) 20 (c) 32 (c) 44 (c) 56 (a) 68 (c) 80 (d) 92 (a) 104 (d) 116 (d)
9 (d) 21 (b) 33 (c) 45 (a) 57 (b) 69 (d) 81 (d) 93 (a) 105 (b) 117 (a)
10 (a) 22 (c) 34 (c) 46 (d) 58 (a) 70 (a) 82 (c) 94 (c) 106 (c)
11 (d) 23 (b) 35 (d) 47 (c) 59 (d) 71 (d) 83 (c) 95 (b) 107 (c)
12 (c) 24 (d) 36 (c) 48 (c) 60 (b) 72 (d) 84 (b) 96 (c) 108 (b)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

3. (b) Article 110 of Indian constitution defines a Money 6. (d) The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house, not subject to
Bill. The speakers decision as to whether a bill is a disolution, one third of its members retiring after every
Money Bill is final. two years. Thus every member enjoys a 6-year tenure.
4. (d) The Chief Justice of the High Court is appointed by 7. (c) The Union Executive of India, as in parliamentary type
the President in consultaion with the chief justice of of government, consist of president and the council of
India and Governor of the state concerned (Article 217). ministers.
Every judge of a High Court including the Chief Justice 8. (b) The parliament may regulate the right of citizenship of
holds office until he/she attain the age of 62 years. India through the amendment of citizenship act.
5. (d) While proclamation of Emergency is in operation be 9. (d) The Legislative Assembly (the Vidhan Sabha) is the
extended by parliament by law for a period not eceeding popular House of the State Legislative and its member
one year at a time and not extending in any case are chosen by direct election on the basis of adult
beyond a period of six months after the proclamation suffrage from territorial constituencies (Article 170).The
has ceased to operate [Article 83 (2)] number of members ranges between 60 and 500.
Indian Polity G-233
11. (d) The presiding officer of the Lok Sabha is the Speaker 38. (b) The Parliament of India has exclusive power to make
who is elected by the member from amongst themselves. any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in
12. (c) The Supreme Court originally consisted of a Chief- the Concurrent List or State List. The distribution of
Justice and seven other judges. In 1985, the strength powers between the Union and Provinces is done
was increased. It comprises the chief justice and not through three different lists enumerated in the
more than 25 other judge. Constitution of India.
13. (c) Cabinet Secretariat is under the charge of the Prime 39. (b) Public Interest litigation (PIL) may be linked with judicial
Minister of India. activism in India.
14. (c) The 73rd Amendment (1992) of Indian constitution 40. (b) In the case of altering the name of a state, requires
provided for constitution of municipalities, reservation approval of Union Cabinet and Parliament under article
of seats in every municipality for the SC and ST women 3 and 4 of the constitution.
and backward classes. 45. (a) Joint session is presided over by the speaker of Lok
15. (c) Parliament may by law fix the salaries and allowances Sabha or in his absence by the Deputy Speaker.
of the officers of Parliament (Article 97). The salaries
48. (c) Federal government is the common government of a
are charged on the consolidated fund of India.
federation. There is more than one level of government
23. (b) The entry “public health and sanitation” is included in
which run according overlapping and shared power is
the state list of the constitution of India.
prescribed by a constitution.
24. (d) The instrument of instructions on the government of
India act 1935 has been incorporated in the 49. (*) There is no specific answer to this question. Right to
constitution of India in the year 1950 as an emergency education became a part of Right to Life in the Unni
provisions. Krishnan case. Other right are ensured by the
25. (d) The advisor of the drafting committee of the constituent government under various acts.
assembly was Sir B.N. Rao. 50. (d) Education is included in the concurrent list. Also
26. (d) The Judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court can residuary list/powers are matters not included the
be impeached on the basis of proved misbehaviour Union list, state list or the concurrent list. These are
and incapacity. powers under the judiciary.
27. (d) The reservation in educational institutions in the private 51. (c) State list consists of 61 items (previously 66 items).
sector was provided in the 93rd Amendment under the Uniformity is desirable but not essential on items in
article 15 (5) of the constitution of India. this list: maintaining law and order, police forces,
28. (c) If any question arises whether a Bill is a money bill or healthcare, transport, land policies, electricity in state,
not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha shall
village administration, etc. The state legislature has
be final under the article 110 of the constitution of India.
exclusive power to make laws on these subjects. But in
29. (b) the idea of including the emergency provisions in the
certain circumstances, the parliament can also make
Constitution of India has been borrowed from the
Weimar Constitution of Germany. laws on subjects mentioned in the State list. Then the
30. (a) Trusteeship is based on the fact that human nature is parliament has to pass a resolution with 2/3rd majority
never beyond redemption. It does not recognize any that it is expedient to legislate on this state list in the
right of private ownership of property except so far as national interest. Though states have exclusive powers
it may be permitted by society for its own welfare. It to legislate with regards to items on the State list, articles
also excludes the use of wealth as well as legislative 249, 250, 252, and 253 state situations in which the
regulation. federal government can legislate on these items.
31. (c) The speaker of the Lok sabha can resign from his office 52. (b) Literally 'certiorary' means 'to be certified'. It can be
by addressing his resignation to the deputy speaker of issued by the Supreme Court or the High Court for
the Lok Sabha. quashing the order already passed by an inferior court,
32. (c) Either house of the parliament can initiate impeachment tribunal or quasi-judicial authority.
proceedings against the president of India.
53. (b) Members of state legislative assembly are not liable to
33. (c) State government has exclusive right/jurisdiction over
any proceeding in any court.
the sales tax.
34. (c) Lokpal and Lokayukta are established under the report 54. (a) The preamble to the Constitution of India is a brief
of the administrative reforms commission headed by introductory statement that sets out the guiding
Morarji Desai to investigate corruption at higher places purpose and principles of the document.
in government. 55. (b) The Concurrent List or List-III is a list of 52 items
35. (d) Deputy Chairman of the council of states is an extra- (previously 47 items) given in Part XI of the Constitution
constitutional growth in Indian democracy. of India, concerned with relations between the Union
36. (c) Freedom of the press in India is implied in the right of and States. This part is divided between legislative
Freedom of Expression. and administrative powers.
37. (b) The constitution (93rd amendment) Act deals with the
56. (a) members of both houses of parliament.
extension of reservation in educational institutions.
EBD_7348
57. (b) The Attorney General for India is the Indian 65. (c) Article 165 is related to the Advocate General for the
government's chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer state. The Governor of each state shall appoint a person
in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High
President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution court to be Advocate General for the state.
and holds office during the pleasure of the President. 66. (a) In democracy all adult citizens have an equal day in the
He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a decision making process. A public expression of
Judge of the Supreme Court. dissales fraction means that people are willing to express
their opinions. They now have the ability to look
58. (a) A press in democracy must be free and impartial. critically at the government.
59. (d) Joint Parliamentary sessions in India are chaired by 67. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer.
the Speaker of Lok Sabha. In India, if a bill has been 68. (c) One of the features of the federal system is the
rejected by any house of the parliament and more than distribution of power between the federal government
six months have lapsed, the President may summon a and the government of the states.Some powers are
joint session for passing the bill. The bill is passed by given to the federal government and some other
simple majority of a joint sitting. Since the lower house remaining powers are given to the government of
(Lok Sabha) has more than twice the members in upper states. The federal government is powerful over the
house, group commanding majority in lower house i.e. matter of national (or) general importance. Both federal
Govt of India can get such a bill passed although it and state governments functioning strictly within the
was rejected by the upper house. Until now, only three sphere demarcated for them.
bills namely the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, the 69. (d) The state can make laws which abrogate the right in
case there is a threat to public order, morality and health.
Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill, 1978 and the
70. (a) The Scheduled Castes and Tribes (Prevention of
Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 have been passed at Atrocities) Act, 1989, an Act of the Parliament of India
joint sessions. enacted to prevent atrocities against scheduled castes
60. (b) The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is and scheduled tribes. It extends to the whole of India
an authority, established by the Constitution of India except the State of Jammu & Kashmir. It may be seen as
under Chapter V, who audits all receipts and expenditure giving effect to equality before law, right against
of the Government of India and the state governments, discrimination and abolition of Untouchability. Freedom
including those of bodies and authorities substantially of religion in India is a fundamental right guaranteed
financed by the government. The CAG is also the by Article 15 to Article 25 of the Constitution of India.
external auditor of government-owned companies. 71. (d) The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman
of Rajya Sabha. He is elected by the members of an
61. (d) When a Bill has been passed by the Legislative electoral college consisting of members of both Houses
Assembly of a State or, in the case of a State having a of Parliament. Rajya Sabha also elects one of its
Legislative Council, has been passed by both Houses members to be the Deputy Chairman.
of the Legislature of the State, it shall be presented to 72. (d) The Drafting Committee for framing the constitution
the Governor and the Governor shall declare either that was appointed on 29th August 1947.The committee
he assents to the Bill or that he withholds assent there comprised of a chairman and six other members. The
from or that he reserves the Bill for the consideration committee members were:- Dr B. R. Ambedkar (Chairman),
of the President: Provided that the Governor may, as K M Munshi, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, N Gopalaswami
soon as possible after the presentation to him of the Ayengar, B L Mitter, Md. Saadullah and D P Khaitan.
Bill for assent, return the Bill if it is not a Money Bill. 73. (c) Article 51(A), Part IV(A) of the Indian Constitution,
62. (b) Not less than one-third (including the number of seats specifies the list of fundamental duties of the citizens.
reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes According to it "to promote the educational and
and the Scheduled Tribes) of the total number of seats economic interests of the weaker sections of the
to be filled by direct election in every Municipality people, especially the Scheduled castes and
shall be reserved for women and such seats may be Scheduled Tribes" and "To protect all monuments of
allotted by rotation to different constituencies in a historic interests and national importance" are not
Municipality. fundamental duties.
63. (b) Coalition government works both at central and state
74. (d) In case of a deadlock due to disagreement between the
level. It is running in india since two decades. Currently,
two Houses on a Bill, an extraordinary situation arises
the UPA had been formed after the parliamentary
election held in 2004. which is resolved by both the Houses sitting
64. (d) A constitution may be rigid or flexible, but rigid together.which is resolved by both the Houses sitting
constitution cann’t be amended easily. Indian together.The Constitution empowers the President to
constitution is a mixture of both because laws/ acts are summon a 'joint sitting' of both the Houses. Article 108
made and amended by adopting the legislative of the constitution deals with the Joint sitting of both
procedures. Houses.
Indian Polity G-235
75. (d) Article 352 of the Indian Constitution mentions the 100. (c) For any political party to be eligible for recognition as
National Emergency in India can be declared by . Tthe a National Party, it has to satisfy any of the three
President can declare such an emergency only on the conditions listed below:
basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers i. Secure at least 6% of the valid vote in an Assembly
headed by the Prime Minister. or a Lok Sabha General Election in any four or
76. (b) The Second Plan was particularly in the development more states and won at least 4 seats in a Lok Sabha
of the public sector. The plan followed the Mahalanobis General Election from any State or States.
model, an economic development model developed by ii. Win at least 2% of the total Lok Sabha seats in a
Lok Sabha General Election and these seats have
the Indian statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
to be won from at least 3 states.
in 1953. iii. The party is recognized as a State Party in at least
77. (c) The seven fundamental rights are Right to equality, four states.
Right to freedom, Right against exploitation, Right to 102. (c) The 11th Schedule of Indian Constitution was added
freedom of religion, Cultural and Educational rights,
in 1992 by the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act. This
Right to constitutional remedies and Right to life. schedule contains 29 subjects. This schedule covers
78. (b) The Seventh Schedule is given under Article 246 and important topics such as Panchayat’s powers, rural
includesThe union (central government) state, and development, poverty alleviation, market, roads and
concurrent lists of responsibilities. drinking water etc.
79. (a) The Article 368 deals with power of Parliament to amend 103. (d) He has the right to speak and to take part in the
the Constitution and its procedure. proceedings of both houses of parliament or their joint
80. (d) The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend sitting.
any part of the Constitution is not a basic feature of 104. (d) The Administrative Reforms Commission is the
the Constitution of India. committee appointed by the Government of India for
giving recommendations for reviewing the public
81. (d) To render compulsory military service is not a administration system of India. The first ARC was
fundamental duty of the Indian Citizens. established on 5 January 1966.
82. (c) All of these are correct. 105. (b) The Lok Sabha, as per the Constitution, consists of
83. (c) Secularism in India means equal treatment of all religions
by the state. With the 42nd Amendment of the not more than five hundred and thirty Members chosen
Constitution of India enacted in 1976, the Preamble to by direct election from territorial constituencies in the
the Constitution asserted that India is a secular nation. States, not more than twenty Members to represent
However, neither India's constitution nor its laws define the Union Territories [Article 81] and not more than
the relationship between religion and state. two Members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be
84. (b) Legislature, executive and judiciary under the nominated by the President, if he/she is of the opinion
Constitution are to exercise powers with checks and
balances, but not in water-tight rigid mould. In India, that the Anglo-Indian Community is not adequately
on the basis of Articles 32 and 136, the Supreme Court represented in the Lok Sabha [Article 331].
can exercise the power of judicial review. 106. (c) The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India
85. (b) National emergency under article 352, emergency can or the CAG is an authority, established by Article 148
be declared on the basis of external aggression or armed of the Constitution of India, which audits all receipts
rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. and expenditure of the Government of India and the
Such an emergency was declared in India in 1962 (Indo-
China war), 1971 (Indo-Pakistan war), and 1975 state governments, including those of bodies and
(declared by Indira Gandhi). authorities substantially financed by the government.
86. (b) The Fourth Schedule (Articles 4(1) and 80(2)) of the The CAG is not eligible for further office, either under
Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats the GOVT. of India or of any state, after he ceases to
in the Rajya Sabha (the upper house of Parliament) per hold his office.
State or Union Territory. 107. (c) The Constitution of India has vested in the Election
87. (c) In the history of Panchayati Raj, in India, on 24 April
Commission of India the superintendence, direction
1993, the Constitutional (73rd Amendment) Act 1992
came into force to provide constitutional status to the and control of the entire process for conduct of
Panchayati Raj institutions. Currently, the Panchayati elections to Parliament and Legislature of every State
Raj system exists in all the states except Nagaland, and to the offices of President and Vice President of
Meghalaya and Mizoram, and in all Union Territories India.
except Delhi. 108. (b) Though, the constitution came into force on 26 January
90. (d) On the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, although the
Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, she does 1950, some provisions relating to Citizenship, Elections,
not vacate her office. The Speaker may, at any time, provisional parliament, temporary & transitional
resign from office by writing under her hand to the provisions were given immediate effect on 26 November
Deputy Speaker. The Speaker can be removed from 1949. The articles which came into force on 26th Nov
office only on a resolution of the House passed by a 1949 include articles 5, 6, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 372, 388,
majority of all the then members of the House. 391, 392 and 393.
EBD_7348
109. (c) There are six fundamental rights in India. They are Right 114. (c) National Emergency (Article 352):
to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right against If the president of the state is not satisfied with a grave
Exploitation, Right to Freedom of Religion, Cultural and emergency exists whereby the security of India or any
Educational Rights, and Right to Constitutional part is threatened whether by war or external aggression
Remedies. Right to Citizenship is not a fundamental or an armed rebellion, then he may proclaim a state of
right. national emergency for the whole of India or a part of
110. (c) The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by a India.
collegium headed by the Chief Justice of India and the
Such a proclamation of emergency may be revoked by
4 senior-most puisne judges of the Supreme Court. After
the president subsequently.
their recommendations are made, the President appoints
them officially. The proclamation of emergency made under article 352
111. (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is a may be subjected to the judicial review and its
guideline in the Constitution of India to the State. They constitutionally can be questioned in a court of law on
are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Article the grounds of malafide.
36 to Article 51. These principles are meant for the State The proclamation made must be approved by both the
to follow them in matters of administration and in making houses of parliament within one month after the
of laws. Because the basic aim behind these principles proclamation.
is establish a welfare State. Dr. B R Ambedkar described The effect of the proclamation of emergency is the
these principles as 'novel features' of the Constitution. emergence of the full-fledged Unitary Government.
112. (b) The 42nd Amendment brought during the National 115. (b) An Election Commissioner can be removed from office
Emergency said that the union government could use on the recommendation of The chief Election
article 368 and amend the Constitution as per it's wish Commissioner.
and even the fundamental rights. The 44th amendment 116. (d) The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at
seeks to protect the people of India from such an 250, out of which, 238 are to be the representatives of
injustice as the fundamental rights are truly necessary. the states and union territories (electedindirectly) and
The three words which were added in the PREAMBLE 12 are nominated by the president. Rajya Sabha has an
TO THE Constitution of India by the 42nd indefinite term and not subject to dissolution (Article
Constitutional Amendment Act 1976 are Socialist, 83.1). The term of an Individual Rajya Sabha member is
secular and integrity. It is also known as "mini 6 years and one third of its members retire every two
constitution". years, in accordance with the rules as prescribed by
113. (c) NEC is the nodal agency for economic and social the parliament of India.
development of North Eastern Region (NER) which 117. (a) Fundamental Rights available to only citizens and not
consists of eight states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, foreigners: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds
Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article
Tripura. It was constituted in 1971 under North Eastern 15). Equality of opportunity in matters of public
Council (NEC) Act, 1971 (Thus NEC is statutory body). employment (Article 16). Six basic freedoms subject to
In June 2018, the chairmanship of NEC was transferred reasonable restrictions (Article 19). Protection of
by Union Cabinet to Home Minister from Minister of language, script and culture of minorities (Article 29).
Development of NER.
Right of minorities to establish and administer
educational institutions (Article 30).
Indian Economy G-237
Indian Economy 22
1. Match List-I (Place of Economic Importance) with List-II 7. In which one the following Five Year Plans the actual growth
(State) and select the correct answer using the code given performance in India in respect of GDP(at factor cost) was
below the Lists : less than the target set ?
List-I List-II (a) Sixth Five Year Plan
(Place of Economic (State)
(b) Seventh Five Year Plan
Importance)
(c) Eighth Five Year Plan
A. Alwaye 1. Gujarat
B. Kaiga 2. Jharkhand (d) Ninth Five Year Plan [2008-II]
C. Giridih 3. Karnataka 8. Which among the following is not correct with regard to
D. Kakrapar 4. Kerala Sampoorna Garmeena Rozgar Yojana?
Codes : 1. The cash component of the programme is borne
A B C D A B C D exclusively by the Central Government.
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 2. Foodgrains are provided free of costs to the States/
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 4 3 2 1 Union Territories.
[2006-I] Select the answer unsing the code given below:
2. Which Five-Year Plan had an objective of “Rapid (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
industrialization with particular emphasis on development
(c) Both1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor [2008-II]
of basic and heavy industries” ?
(a) First (b) Second 9. Which of the following bodies is responsible for the
(c) Third (d) Fourth [2007-I] distribution of revenues between the Cente and the state?
3. Whose duty is it to recommend to the President of India on (a) Planning Commission
the issue of the distribution and allocation of the net (b) Finance Commission
proceeds of taxes in the context of Centre-State fiscal (c) Inter-State Council
relations? (d) National Development Council [2008-II]
(a) Planning commission 10. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the
(b) National Development Council Finance Commission of India ? [2009-I]
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
1. Making recommendations as to the principles
(d) Finance Commission [2007-II]
governing grant-in-aid of the revenues of the States.
4. Which Five-Year Plan had an objective of “Rapid
Industrialization with particular emphasis on development 2. To suggest measures to augment Consolidated Fund
of basic and heavy industries? of India?
(a) First (b) Second Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(c) Third (d) Fourth [2007-II] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
5. In which of the following years was the planning (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
commission set up in India ? 11. The current Economic Census of India, the fifth in the series,
(a) 1947 (b) 1948 was conducted in the year [2009-I]
(c) 1949 (d) 1950 [2008-I] (a) 2005 (b) 2006
6. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning (c) 2007 (d) 2008
Commission of India ? 12. Which among the following States/UT is the latest to
(a) Vice-President of India introduce VAT (Value Added Tax) in India? [2009-I]
(b) The Prime Minister of India (a) Gujarat (b) Puducherry
(c) The Finance Minister of India (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
(d) The Law Minister of India [2008-I]
EBD_7348
13. Who among the following was the Chairman of the High 21. Which one among the following statements regarding the
Level Committee on Competition Policy and Law ? Eighth five year plan in India is not correct? [2011-I]
[2009-I] (a) The plan was postponed by two years because of
(a) Bimal Jalan (b) C. Rangarajan political upheavals at the centre
(c) Y.V. Reddy (d) S.V.S Raghavan (b) It aimed at high growth of both agriculture and
14. In India, public expenditure on education (Centre and States) manufacturing sectors
as a percentage of GDP at present is between (c) Its emphasis was on growth in export and import,
[2009-I] improvement in trade and current account deficit
(a) 2 to 3 per cent (b) 3 to 4 per cent
(d) It set before itself the two principal objectives of
(c) 4 to 5 per cent (d) 5 to 6 per cent
‘growth with stability’ and ‘growth with justice’
15. The highest body that approves Five-Year Plans in India is
22. Which among the following statements is/are true with
(a) Planning Commission [2009-II]
regard to WTO membership?
(b) National Development Council
1. All WTO members automatically receive the ‘most
(c) Interstate Council
favoured nation’ status.
(d) Union Cabinet.
16. Which one of the following theories of Communism is not a 2. Over 75% of WTO members are from developing
doctrine of Karl Marx ? [2009-II] countries, WTO membership allows them access to
(a) Dialectical Materialism developed markets at the lower tariff. [2011-I]
(b) Historical Materialism Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(c) Class Struggle (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) Theory of New Democracy (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. Socialism is opposed to [2009-II] 23. TRIPS (Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights)
(a) social security scheme agreements is administered by [2011-I]
(b) equal distribution of wealth (a) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(c) unrestricted competition (UNCTAD)
(d) collective ownership and management (b) United Nations Organization (UNO)
18. Which of the following regarding Revised Macro (c) World Trade Organization (WTO)
Management of Agriculture Scheme (2008-2009) is/are
(d) World Bank (WB)
correct? [2009-II]
24. Consider the following statements. [2011-I]
1. Allocate funds to States and Union Territories on a
criterion based on gross cropped area and area under 1. The G20 was established in 2008 in the wake of the
small and marginal holdings. global financial crisis led by the USA.
2. The assistance is provided to the States and Union 2. It brings together the major advanced and emerging
Territories as 100% grant. economies to stabilise the global financial market.
Select the correct answer using the code given below 3. India’s stand on Mutual Assessment Process (MAP)
Codes: for measuring imbalances between surplus and deficit
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only economies in the Seoul Conference of G20 in the year
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2010 was firmly endorsed by all the nations.
19. Which one among following led to the Greekeconomic crisis Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
of 2010 ? [2011-I] (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(a) Excessive borrowing from IMF (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
(b) Sudden depreciation of Euro 25. During the discussion on the Demands for Grants, motions
(c) Unrestricted spending and cheap loans can be moved to reduce the amount of a demand. Such a
(d) Outflow of foreign capital due to political unrest motion is called a ‘cut-motion’. Which of the following
20. The ‘Bombay Plan’ drafted by GD Birla and JRD Tata categories are classified as ‘cut-motion’?
emphasized: [2011-I]
1. Disapproval of policy cut
(a) that the economy should be left to the dynamic
2. Economy cut
investments by the private sector in heavy industries,
etc. 3. Token cut [2012-I]
(b) the public sector investment in infrastructure and heavy Select the correct answer using the code given below :
industries Code :
(c) annual planning (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) that the private sector should foot the Bill for intensive (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
and low return investments in the industrial sector.
26. Consider the following characteristics of industries : (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement
1. They can be located in a wide variety of places. II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
2. They are not dependent on any specific raw material. (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement
3. They are generally not polluting industries. II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
4. The most important factor in their location is (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
accessibility. (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Which one of the following types of industries has the above 31. Under which of the following Acts is the National Population
Register being created? [2014-I]
characteristics ? [2012-II] (a) The Citizenship Act of India, 1955 as amended in 2004
(a) Market oriented (b) Foot loose (b) The Census Act, 1948
(c) Sunset (d) Sunrise (c) The UID Act, 2010
(d) None of the above
27. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using 32. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
the code given below the Lists : [2012-II] economic sectors in terms of their contribution to the GDP
of India in decreasing order? [2014-II]
List I List II (a) Service–Industry–Agriculture
(Place) (Industry) (b) Agriculture–Industry–Service
(c) Industry–Service–Agriculture
A. Jabalpur 1. Petro-chemical (d) Agriculture–Service–Industry
B. Bengaluru 2. Information 33. Which one of the following is not correct in the context of
technology balance of payments of India during 2013-2014? [2015-II]
(a) India's exports were less than its imports
C. Modinagar 3. Paper (b) Trade balance was negative
D. Ballarpur 4. Automobile (c) Net invisibles were positive
Code : (d) Capital account balance was negative
34. Which one of the following continents accounts for the
A B C D A B C D maximum share in exports from India? [2015-II]
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 3 1 2 4 (a) Asia (b) Europe
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 2 1 3 (c) Africa (d) North America
35. During the Eleventh Five Year Plan (FYP), agriculture sector
28. Humid climate, ready market and availability of cheap and in India witnessed a growth rate of 3.3 per cent per annum
skilled labour are the conditions conducive for the which is higher than 2.4 per cent per annum in the previous
production of cotton cloth. Which of the following States FYP. This is largely due to better performance of: [2015-II]
of India will have the highest cotton cloth production? (a) Crops and Livestock
(b) Oilseeds and Fibres
[2013-I]
(c) Fishing and Oilseeds
(a) Gujarat (b) Karnataka (d) Fibres and Fishing
(c) Maharashtra (d) Punjab 36. The First Five Year Plan (1951-1956) was drafted by :
[2015-II]
29. The requirement of water is highest in which one among the
(a) P C Mahalanobis (b) K N Raj
following industries? [2013-I] (c) J C Kumarappa (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
(a) Iron and steel (b) Oil refining 37. Areas which are engines for economic growth supported
(c) Paper from wood (d) Rayon by quality infrastructure and complemented by an attractive
fiscal package are known as [2016-I]
DIRECTION (Q. 30): The following items consist of two (a) Export Processing Zones
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine (b) Duty Free Tariff Zones
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these (c) Special Economic Zones
items using the code given below: (d) Technology Parks
38. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Nehru-
30. Statement I : Indian economy has experienced slower growth Mahalanobis model of development strategy ? [2016-I]
rate during the years 2010-11 and 2011-12. [2013-I] (a) Development of capital goods industries
(b) Major involvement of the State in the economy
Statement II : Indian economy has experienced weakening (c) Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public
industrial growth during the period. sector
(d) Enhancing the scope and importance of the public
sector
EBD_7348
39. Which of the following best explains the stated broad vision 45. Which of the following statements about Krishi Kalyan
and aspirations of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012-2017)? Cess (KKC) is/are correct ? [2016-II]
[2016-I] 1. KKC is calculated in the same way as Service Tax is
(a) Faster, Substainable and More Inclusive Growth calculated.
(b) Modernisation of Industries and Strengthening 2. The current rate of KKC is 0.50%
Infrastructure. 3. KKC is similar to the KKS (Krishi Kalyan Surcharge).
(c) Enchancing Agricultural and Rural Incomes Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(d) Checking Inflation and Strengthening non-economic (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
variables like Nutritional Requirements, Health and (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
Family Planing 46. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
40. Division of labour often involves [2016-I] the code given below the Lists : [2016-II]
1. specialized economic activity. List I List II
2. higly distinct productive roles. (Ultra mega power project at (State)
3. involving everyone in many of the same activities. different stages of development)
4. individuals engage in only a single activity and are A. Sasan 1. Gujarat
dependent on others to meet their various needs. B. Munda 2. Madhya pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below: C. Tilaiya 3. Andhra pradesh
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only D. Krishnapattam 4. Jharkhand
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only Code :
41. Which of the following is/are not FDI policy change(s) after A B C D
2010? [2016-I] (a) 2 4 1 3
1. Permission of 100 percent FDI in automotive sector. (b) 3 4 1 2
2. Permitting foreign airlines to make FDI up to 49 percent (c) 2 1 4 3
3. Permission of up to 51 percent FDI under the (d) 3 1 4 2
government approval route in multi-brand retailing, 47. As per census 2011, which one of the following states has
subject to specified conditions the highest number of inhabitated villages ? [2016-II]
4. Amendment of policy on FDI in single-brand product (a) Uttar pradesh (b) Odisha
retail trading for aligning with global practices (c) Rajasthan (d) Maharashtra
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 48. Surge pricing takes place when a service provider [2017-I]
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only (a) raises the price of its product or service as demand
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only outstrips supply
42. Arrange the following states in order of their decreasing (b) follows preset prices immune to demand and supply
population size as per the census 2011: [2016-II] dynamics
1. West Bengal 2. Bihar (c) fixes a minimum price for its services
3. Maharashtra 4. Andhra Pradesh (d) fixes an average price on the basis of transactions
Select the correct answer using the code given below : carried over a day
(a) 2 - 3 - 1 - 4 (b) 3 - 2 -1- 4 49. In its emphasis on enhancing human capabilities, which
(c) 1 - 4 - 3 - 2 (d) 3 - 1 - 4 - 2 one among the following does NOT figure in the Twelfth
43. Which of the following statements concerning Scheduled Five-Year Plan? [2017-I]
(a) Life and longevity
Castes (SC) population in India are correct ? [2016-II]
(b) Education
1. The highest percentage of SC population out of the
(c) Delivery of Public Service
total population of the state is found in Punjab.
(d) Skill development
2. Bihar is the second largest state in respect of total SC
50. Which one of the following is NOT a target of the 12th
population in India
Five-Year Plan? [2017-I]
3. Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of SC population
(a) Real GDP Growth Rate of 8 per cent
in India
(b) Agriculture Growth Rate of 5 per cent
4. Among the Indian states, the lowest percentage of SC
(c) Manufacturing Growth Rate of 10 per cent
population out of the total population of the state is
(d) Increase in green cover by 1 million hectare every year
found in Goa
during the Plan period
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 51. Which of the following regions is/are NOT known for
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only cotton-textile industry? [2017-I]
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 1. Mumbai – Pune region
44. As per the RBI guidelines, which one of the following is 2. Madurai – Coimbatore region
the minimum tenure of Masala Bonds that an Indian
3. Dhanbad – Jamshedpur region
Company can issue offshore ? [2016-II]
4. Indore – Ujjain region
(a) Five years (b) Four years
(c) Three years (d) Two years
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 only
52. Consider the following Indian States : [2017-I] (a) Bhadravati (b) Salem
1. Bihar 2. Rajasthan (c) Vishakhapatnam (d) Renukoot
3. Jammu and Kashmir 4. Haryana 57. The Nehru-Mahalanobis Strategy of Development was
Which one of the following is the correct ascending order implemented for the first time by which one of the following
of the above States on the basis of percentage of State's Five-Year Plans? [2018-II]
population to total population of India (based on census
(a) First Five-Year Plan
2011)?
(a) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2 (b) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3 (b) Second Five-Year Plan
(c) 3 – 4 – 2 – 1 (d) 2 – 3 – 4 – 1 (c) Third Five-Year Plan
53. Koradi Thermal Power Station is located in [2017-II] (d) Seventh Five-Year Plan
(a) Nagpur (b) Raipur
58. 'Seva Bhoj Yojana', a scheme of the Government of India that
(c) Mumbai (d) Secunderabad
54. SAMPADA scheme is being implemented by the Ministry seeks to reimburse Central share of CGST and IGST on Food/
of [2017-II] Prasad/Langar/Bhandara offered by religious institutions, is
(a) Finance introduced recently by which one of the following Ministries?
(b) Housing and Urban Affairs [2018-II]
(c) Food Processing Industies (a) The Ministry of Culture
(d) Earth Sciences (b) The Ministry of Home Affairs
55. Which one of the following Union Territories has the highest
female literacy rate? [2018-I] (c) The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public
(a) Chandigarh Distribution
(b) Lakshadweep (d) The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands 59. “Mission Indradhanush” is related to [2019-I]
(d) Puducherry (a) Bullet train project
56. Which one of the following centres is NOT known for iron (b) Agriculture development
and steel industry? [2018-I] (c) Women empowerment
(d) Full immunization
ANSWER KEY
1 (d) 7 (d) 13 (d) 19 (c) 25 (c) 31 (c) 37 (c) 43 (b) 49 (c) 55 (b)
2 (b) 8 (b) 14 (c) 20 (b) 26 (b) 32 (a) 38 (c) 44 (c) 50 (b) 56 (d)
3 (d) 9 (b) 15 (b) 21 (c) 27 (d) 33 (d) 39 (a) 45 (b) 51 (d) 57 (b)
4 (b) 10 (c) 16 (d) 22 (b) 28 (c) 34 (a) 40 (b) 46 (c) 52 (c) 58 (a)
5 (d) 11 (a) 17 (c) 23 (c) 29 (a) 35 (a) 41 (a) 47 (a) 53 (a) 59 (d)
6 (b) 12 (c) 18 (c) 24 (c) 30 (a) 36 (b) 42 (b) 48 (a) 54 (c)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (d) A. Alwaye is situated in Kerala. 10. (c) The functions of the finance commission of India are
B. Kaiga is situated in Karnataka. following :
C. Giridih is situated in Jharkhand. (i) Making recommendations as to the principles
D. Kakrapar is situated in Gujarat. governing grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states.
2. (b) The Second Five Year Plan’s broad objective was (ii) To suggest measures to augment Consolidated Fund
establishment of a socialistic pattern of society. It aimed of India.
at rebuilding rural India, development of basic and 11. (a) The Fifth Economic Census of India was conducted in
heavy industries and enlarging scope of public sector. 2005.
3. (d) An instrument which the constitution has evolved for 12. (c) Uttar Pradesh was the latest state that introduced value
the purpose of distributing financial resources between added tax (VAT) in India.
the centre and the states is the finance commission. 13. (d) Mr. S.V.S. Raghavan was appointed as the chairman of
According to Article 280 of the constitution, it is to be the High Level Committee on Competition Policy and
constituted by the president once five year and consist Law.
of a chairman and four other members appointed by 14. (c) In India, public expenditure on education (centre and
the president. states) as a percentage of GDP at present is between 4
5. (d) In March 1950, Government of India constituted a to 5 percent.
statutory body with the Prime Minister of India as its 15. (b) National Development Council is the highest body that
chairman called Planning Commission of India. approves five-year plans under the ex-afficio
7. (d) The revised targeted annual rate of growth of 9th plan chairmanship of Prime Minister in India.
was 6.5% while the actual growth rate was 5.5%.
EBD_7348
16. (d) New democracy is a maoist concept based on Mao 48. (a) "Surge pricing" occurs when a company raises the price
Zedong’s ‘Bloc of four social classes” theory in post- of its product or service if there is an increase in demand
revolutionary China, while other three options are given but supply is not enough to fulfill it.
by Karl Marx. 50. (b) Main targets of five year plans were:
17. (c) Socialism is opposed to unrestricted competition. i. This five year plan aim to achieve 8.2% growth.
18. (c) Under the revised macro management of agriculture ii. Achieve 4 % (not 5% ) growth in agriculture.
scheme, the funds are allocated and assisted to the state iii. Reduce poverty by 10 % points, by 2017.
and union territories on the basis of gross cropped area. iv. Health, education and skill development,
24. (c) G-20 was established in 1999 in the wake of the global environment and natural resources and
financial crisis led by the USA. infrastructure development are the main focus area
25. (c) Disapproval of policy cut, economy cut, token cut. of this plan.
26. (b) The given characteristics belong to the footloose
industries. 52. (c) Population
State
27. (d) Jabalpur- Automobile, Bengaluru- Information (Census- 2011)
Technology, Modinagar- Petrochemical, Ballarpur-Paper. Jammu and Kashmir 1,25,41,302
28. (c) Cotton, the most important fibre crop of India plays a Haryana 2,53,51,462
dominant role in its agrarian and industrial economy. It
is the backbone of our textile industry, accounting for Rajasthan 6,85,48,437
70% of total fibre consumption in textile sector, and Bihar 10,40,99,452
38% of the country's export, fetching over Rs. 42,000
crores. Area under cotton cultivation in India (8.9 million 53. (a) Koradi Thermal Power Station is located in Koradi near
ha) is the highest in the world, i.e., 25% of the world Nagpur.
area and employs seven million people for their living. 54. (c) The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has given
Five to seven decades ago, most of the cotton its approval for re-structuring the schemes of the
cultivated in the country was 'eco-friendly' with little Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI) under
or no use of toxic chemicals in its production. Even new Central Sector Scheme – SAMPADA (Scheme for
today, there are many pockets in India, where it is Agro-Marine Processing and Development of Agro-
produced without the use of agrochemicals, e.g., areas Processing Clusters) for the period 2016-20
growing Wagad cotton in Gujarat, Y-1 desicotton of coterminous with the 14th Finance Commission cycle.
Khandesh region of Maharashtra, Maljari in Madhya 55. (b) Highest female literacy (88.25) is reported in
Pradesh, part of areas growing Jayadhar and Suyodhar Lakshadweep among all the Union Territories.
in Karnataka, Nandicum in Andhra Pradesh and parts 56. (d) Renukoot is a famous industrial town in Sonbhadra
of cotton areas in north eastern hill region. district of Uttar Pradesh famous for Aluminium plant
29. (a) Water requirement is highest in iron and steel industry. (Hindalco). Except Renukoot all other places are famous
The Iron & Steel sector is water intensive industry. In for Iron and steel industry.
India, approximately 80-85 percent freshwater 57. (b) Nehru-Mahalanobis model was created as an analytical
consumed in this sector is discharged as effluent. framework for India's Second Five Year Plan in 1955 by
30. (a) India's growth rate for 2010-11 has been lowered by a appointment of Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, as
notch to 8.4 per cent on account of changes made India felt there was a need to introduce a formal plan
recently to the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), the model after the First Five Year Plan (1951–1956). This
statistics ministry said. The growth rate for financial model is known to have set the statistical foundations
year 2009-10 has been increased to account for the for state-directed investments and created the
same changes in IIP. In 2009-10, the economy grew by intellectual underpinnings of the license-raj through
8.4 per cent, higher by 40 basis points (a basis point is an elaborate input-output model.
one-hundredth of a percentage point) in relation to the 58. (a) The Ministry of Culture, Government of India has
original estimate. The growth data for 2008-09 was introduced a new scheme namely 'Seva Bhoj Yojna'
lowered by 10 basis points to 6.7 per cent, according to with a total outlay of Rs. 325.00 Crores for Financial
the statistics ministry statement. Years 2018-19 and 2019-20. The scheme envisages to
31. (c) The national Population Register was created by the reimburse the Central Government share of Central
UID Act 2010. The Unique Identification Authority of Goods and Services Tax (CGST) and Integrated Goods
India (UIDAI) was established in January 2009 and is a and Service Tax (IGST)so as to lessen the financial
part of the Planning Commission of India. UIDAI aims burden of such Charitable Religious Institutions who
to provide a unique 12 digit ID number to all residents provide Food/Prasad/Langar (Community Kitchen)/
in India on a voluntary basis. The number will be known Bhandara free of cost without any discrimination to
as AADHAAR. Public/Devotees.
32. (a) The correct sequence is Service sector- Industry- 59. (d) Mission Indradhan ush aims to increase full
Agriculture. immunization coverage in India to at least 90% children
36. (b) Kakkadan Nandanath Raj was a veteran Indian by December 2018. It also aims to cover unvaccinated
economist. He is popularly known as K. N. Raj. He and partially vaccinated children in areas with low
played an important role in India's planned immunization coverage, in both urban and rural areas.
development, drafting sections of India's first Five Year
Plan.
General Knowledge G-243
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
General Knowledge 23
1. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ? 9. Which one amongst the following is nearest to the Sun ?
UN Organisation Headquarters
(a) Earth (b) Mars
(a) UNESCO : Geneva
(b) IMF : Paris (c) Mercury (d) Venus [2006-II]
(c) ILO : Washington 10. How is Shobhana Chandrakumar well known as ?
(d) UNIDO : Vienna [2006-I] (a) Dancer
2. Where is Baikonur Cosmodrome located ? (b) Environmentalist
(a) Belarus (b) Kazakhstan (c) Educationist and a member of the National knowledge
(c) Russia (d) Ukraine [2006-I] Commission
3. What is Shenzhou VI, that was recently in the news ?
(d) Sportsperson [2006-II]
(a) A Chinese new Intercontinental Ballistic Missile
(b) A Chinese manned spacecraft to orbit the earth 11. Which one among the following is not one of the G-4 group
(c) A Taiwanese indigenously developed satellite of countries that are aspiring for permanent membership in
(d) A North Korean missile fitted with nuclear warheads the Security Council of the United Nations ?
[2006-I] (a) Brazil (b) Germany
4. Which one of the following plants yields bio-diesel and (c) Australia (d) Japan [2006-II]
bio-fuel ? 12. Nokia-one of the leading cellular phone producers in the
(a) Hevea braziliensis (b) Jatropha curcas world originates from which one of the following countries ?
(c) Juniperus verginiana (d) Parthenium argentatum
(a) Japan
[2006-I]
5. Anup Sridhar, a well-known sportsperson, is associated (b) Sweden
with which one of the following games/sports ? (c) United States of America
(a) Badminton (b) Shooting (d) Finland [2006-II]
(c) Table Tennis (d) Boxing [2006-I] 13. S.R. Nathan is the President of which one of the following
6. Who among the following is well-known as a sportsperson countries?
in shooting ?
(a) Mauritius (b) Singapore
(a) Shikha Tandon (b) Soundaminee Gavankar
(c) Arjun Murlitharan (d) Rehan Poncha [2006-I] (c) Fiji (d) Trinidad and Tobago
7. Who is author of One Night @ the Call Centre ? [2006-II]
(a) Vikram Seth (b) Chetan Bhagat 14. In the United Nations, who decides the quantum of
(c) Anurag Mathur (d) Robin Sharma [2006-II] contribution of each member to the income resources of the
8. Match List-I with List-II and seled the correct answer using UN?
the codes given below the lists : [2006-II] (a) Trusteeship Council
List-I List-II (b) Economic and Social Council
(Asian Games) (Held In)
A. Asian Games, 1990 1. Thailand (c) Security Council
B. Asian Games, 1994 2. South Korea (d) General Assembly [2006-II]
C. Asian Games, 1998 3. China 15. What is the number of the permanent members of the UN
D. Asian Games, 2002 4. Japan Security Council?
Codes : (a) Five (b) Six
A B C D A B C D (c) Ten (d) Fifteen [2007-I]
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2 16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 4 1 2 the codes given below the Lists : [2007-I]
EBD_7348
List-I List-II 24. The famous artist Uma Sharma is an exponent of which one
(U N Bodies) (Headquarters) of the following forms of dance?
A. International 1. Geneva (a) Bharatnatyam (b) Kathak
Court of Justice (c) Kuchipudi (d) Manipuri [2007-II]
B. Food and Agriculture 2. Rome 25. Which one of the following is mixed with petrol by the
Organization Government of India in its nationwide programme of blended
C. UNESCO 3. Washington petrol?
D. WHO 4. The Hague (a) Butanol (b) Ethanol
5. Paris (c) Methanol (d) Propanol [2007-II]
Codes : 26. In which one of the following One-Day Cricket World Cups,
A B C D A B C D did India lose in the Finals?
(a) 2 3 5 4 (b) 1 2 3 5 (a) World Cup, 1992 (b) World Cup, 1996
(c) 3 4 1 5 (d) 4 2 5 1 (c) World Cup, 1999 (d) World Cup, 2003
17. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the [2007-II]
hills of Meghalaya, from east to west? 27. How is Asafa Powell well-known as?
(a) Garo – Khasi – Jaintia (b) Jaintia – Khasi – Garo (a) Swimmer (b) Football Player
(c) Khasi – Jaintia – Garo (d) Jaintia – Garo – Khasi (c) Boxer (d) 100m Sprinter [2007-II]
[2007-I] 28. What is ‘Look East Policy’ often in the news?
18. With which one of the following games is the Hopman Cup (a) Government of India’s initiative for the infrastructural
associated? development in the North-Eastern States
(a) Badminton (b) Lawn Tennis (b) India’s search for oil and gas in its Eastern shoreline
(c) Hockey (d) Football [2007-I] (c) India’s collaboration with some East Asian countries
19. Who of the following is an accomplished vocalist? in the exploration of oil and gas
(a) Monu Mazumdar (b) Shiv Kumar Sharma (d) India’s continuing pursuit of close relations with South-
(c) Satish Gujral (d) Dinanath Mishra [2007-I] East Asian countries [2007-II]
20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using 29. India is not a member of which one of the following?
the codes given below the Lists : [2007-II] (a) Commonwealth of Independent States
List-I List-II (b) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
(Specialized Agency of UN) (Headquarters) (c) South Asian Free Trade Agreement
A. International Bank for 1. Montreal (d) World Trade Organization [2008-I]
Reconstruction and 30. Where is the headquarters of the International Bank of
Development Reconstruction and Development located ?
B. International Civil 2. London (a) Geneva (b) Washington DC
Aviation Organization (c) London (d) Paris [2008-I]
C. International Maritime 3. Rome 31. Consider the following statements?
Organization 1. Hariyali is a watershed development project sponsored
D. International Labour 4. Washington DC by the Central Government.
Organization 2. Hariyali also aims at enabling the urban population to
Codes : conserve rain water.
A B C D A B C D Which of the statements gtiven above is/are correct ?
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 1 2 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2008-I]
21. The Governments of which one of the following pairs of 32. Where is the Counterinsurgency and Jungle Warfare School
countries are planning to build a rail tunnel link between (CIJWS), a training institution of the Indian Army specializing
Europe and Africa? in unconventional warfare, specially guerilla warfare,
(a) Algeria and France (b) Egypt and Greece located ?
(c) Morocco and Spain (d) Libya and Italy [2007-II] (a) Vairengte, Mizoram (b) Kirkee, Pune
22. How is Leila Seth known as? (c) Raiwala, Dehradun (d) Dighi Hills, Pune
(a) First Woman Chairperson of the Union Public Service [2008-I]
Commission 33. In which city is the Flushing Meadow. Corona Park-the
(b) First Woman Election Commissioner of India venue of Us Open Tennis Tournament located?
(c) First Woman Chief Justice of a High Court in India (a) Chicago (b) New York
(d) First Woman Governor of a State in India [2007-II] (c) Washington DC (d) Los Angeles [2008-I]
23. The 1770 km long Baku Tbilisi-Ceyhan (BTC) oil pipeline 34. Which country won the 2006 FIFA Cup (World Football
connects which of the following seas? [2007-II] Cup) ?
(a) Aral Sea and Mediterranean Sea (a) France (b) Brazil
(b) Caspian Sea and Mediterranean Sea (c) Italy (d) Germany [2008-I]
(c) Black Sea and Baltic Sea 35. Match ListI with List-II and slect the correct answer using
(d) Caspian Sea and Arabian Sea the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II (a) Sri Lanka (b) China

(Date) (Event) (c) India (d) Vietnam
A. 24 th October 1. Human Rights day 43. In which one of the following periods did India experience a
B . 10 th December 2. Commonwealth day negative population growth?
C. 24th May 3. United Nations day (a) 1901-1911 (b) 1911-1921
D. 21st September 4. International day of peace (c) 1921-1931 (d) 1931-1941 [2008-II]
Codes: 44. In which one among the following States is the percentage
A B C D A B C D of Scheduled Tribes population to its total population
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 3 1 2 4 highest? [2009-I]
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 2 1 3 (a) Chhattisgarh (b) Madhya Pradesh
[2008-II] (c) Mizoram (d) Rajasthan
36. Which one of the following pairs are correctly matched? 45. Which one of the following is the international aircraft
1. Arundhati Roy : The God of small Things identification mark (registration prefix) for India?
2. Krin Desai : The Inheritance of Loss. [2009-I]
3. Jhumpa Lahiri : The Name-sake (a) AT (b) VT
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) IX (d) VX
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only 46. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only [2008-II] the codes given below the lists : [2009-I]
37. Match ListI with List-II and slect the correct answer using
the code given below the lists: [2008-II] List I List II
List-I List-II (Winner of Booker (Novel)
(Jnanpith Laureate) (Language) Prize)
A. Birendra Kumar 1. Bengali A. Arundati Roy 1. In a Free State
Bhattacharya B. Kiran Desai 2. The God of Small Things
B. Rahman Rahi 2. Marathi C. Salman Rushdie 3. The White Tiger
C. Vinda Karandikar 3. Kashmiri D. V. S. Naipal 4. The Inheritance of Loss
D. Mahasweta Devi 4. Assamese
5. Midnight’s Children
Codes:
A B C D A B C D Codes:
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 A B C D
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1 (a) 1 5 3 2
38. Who among the following is not a Dada Saheb Phalke (b) 1 3 4 2
awardee? (c) 2 5 3 1
(a) Shyam Benegal (b) Adoor Gopalakrishnan (d) 2 4 5 1
(c) Mrinal Sen (d) J.P. Dutta [2008-II] 47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
39. Which one of the following is the highest mountain peak? the codes given below the lists : [2009-I]
(a) Nanga Parbat (b) Nanda Devi
(c) Kanchanjunga (d) K 2 [2008-II] List I List II
40. Who among the folloinwg sports personalities is known as (Exponent) (Dance form)
the payyoli Express? A. Surendranath Jena 1. Kathakali
(a) Shiny Abraham (b) P.T. Usha B. Pushpa Bhuyan 2. Kathak
(c) Jyotimoyee Sikdar (d) K.M. Beenamol [2008-II] C. Birju Maharaj 3. Bharat Natyam
41. Match ListI with List-II and slect the correct answer using D. Sankaran Embranthiri 4. Odissi
the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II Codes:
A. Explanation of the 1. J.J. Thomson A B C D
photo-electric effect (a) 1 2 3 4
B. Discovery of a comet 2. Robert Millikan (b) 4 3 2 1
C. Measurement of the 3. Einstein (c) 1 3 2 1
electronic charge (d) 4 2 3 1
D. Thermoelectricity 4. Edmund Halley 48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
5. Seebeck the codes given below the lists: [2009-I]
Codes:
A B C D A B C D List I List II
(a) 3 2 4 5 (b) 5 1 4 3 (Person) (Industrial Unit)
(c) 5 4 1 3 (d) 3 4 2 5 A. Indira Nooyi 1. Airtel
[2008-II] B. Mukesh Ambani 2. Wipro
42. In which one of the following countries is the infant mortality C. Sunil Mittal 3. Pepsi
rate (per 1000 live births) highest? [2008-II] D. Azim Premji 4. Reliance
EBD_7348
Codes: 54. Areawise, which one of the following is the largest Lok
A B C D Sabha constituency ? [2009-II]
(a) 3 1 4 2 (a) Kutch (b) Kangra
(b) 2 1 4 3 (c) Ladakh (d) Patna Sahib
(c) 2 4 1 3 55. Indian Military Training Team (IMTRAT) imparts training
(d) 3 4 1 2 to army officers of [2009-II]
(a) Nepal (b) Bangladesh
(c) Maldives (d) Bhutan
the codes given below the lists: [2009-I]
56. Consider the following statements [2009-II]
1. The Green Governance Awards have been instituted
List I List II
by Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS).
(Institute) (Location) 2. Tata Chemicals has won the Green Governance Award,
A. National Institute of 1. Pune 2008 for its project on conservation of the whale shark.
Immunology Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
B. National Center of Cell 2. Manesar (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Science (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
C. Center for DNA 3. Hyderabad 57. The tourism phrase Paradise Unexplored refers to
Fingerprinting and [2009-II]
Diagnostics (a) Jammu and Kashmir
D. National Brain Research 4. New Delhi (b) North-East India
Centre (c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Uttarakhand
Codes:
58. The Copenhagen Summit for Climate Change, 2009 saw
A B C D [2010-I]
(a) 2 3 1 4 (a) an agreement among the participants over CO2
(b) 4 1 3 2 emission
(c) 4 3 1 2 (b) unanimity of views among the developed and BASIC
(d) 2 1 3 4 bloc of countries
50. Consider the following statements : [2009-I] (c) rise of African countries as a bloc
1. Lamba in Gujarat is famous for wind power plant. (d) acceptance of the US as a leader to attain the objective
2. Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh is famous for
of the Copenhagen Summit
geothermal energy plant.
59. Consider the following paragraph and identify with the help
of the code given below the writer referred to therein:
She is the winner of the Sahitya Akademi Award, the Jnanpith
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2.
Award and is also India’s first Principal Prince Claus laureate.
51. Consider the following statements with respect to the
One of the most celebrated writers of contemporary Indian
Radar Imaging Satellite (RISAT-2) [2009-II] literature, she is noted for her novels which include The
1. This is the first Indian satellite with microwave imaging Moth-Eaten Howdah of the Tusker, Pages Stained with Blood
configuration of board and The Man from Chinnamasta. [2010-I]
2. The satellite will boost India’s defence capabilities. Code:
3. It can take images of the earth day and night, even (a) Anita Desai (b) Indira Goswami
under rainy and cloudy conditions. (c) Mahasweta Devi (d) Chitra Mudgal
60. Consider the following paragraph and identify with the help
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
of the code given below the Church referred to therein:
52. Consider the following statements about Astra:
Considered as one of the best examples of baroque
1. This anti-aircraft missile is procured by India from
architecture in India, this World Heritage Monument is
Russia.
dedicated to Infant Jesus. It houses the sacred relics of St.
2. It is a single-stage, smokeless, solid-propelled missile.
Francis Xavier, the patron saint, who died in 1552. [2010-I]
3. It may be launched from different altitudes. Code:
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) Santa Cruz Basilica
[2009-II] (b) St. Francis Church
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Church of the Holy Cross
(c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 (d) Basilica of Bom Jesus
53. Which one of the following is not a component of the 61. Ms. Reena Kaushal Dharmshaktu is the first Indian woman
scheme Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research
[2010-I]
(INSPIRE) launched by the Union of India? [2009-II]
(a) to reach Antarctica
(a) Scheme for early attraction of talents for science
(b) pilot inducted in Indian Air Force
(b) Scholarship for higher education
(c) to ski to the South Pole
(c) Assured opportunity for research careers
(d) to win the gold medal in Asian Boxing Championship
(d) Vocational training after higher education
62. Which one among the following is the latest milestone of I. Indian Military Academy [2010-II]
Doordarshan, the public broadcaster of India? [2010-I] II. Officers Training Academy
(a) Launch of enrichment/cultural channel-DD Bharati III. National Defence Academy
(b) Launch of 24 hours news channel-DD News IV. National Defence College
(c) Launch of sports channel-DD Sports V. College of Defence Management
(d) Formation of Prasar Bharati (Broadcasting Corporation Select the correct answer using the code given
of India) below
63. START (Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) is a treaty (a) I, III, V, IV, II (b) I, IV, III, V, II
between/among [2010-I] (c) IV, V, III, II, I (d) III, IV, I, II, V
(a) China and Japan 70. Rajmohan Gandhi's book 'A Tale of Two Revolts’ (2009)
(b) USA and Russia deals with the. [2010-II]
(c) USA and European Union (a) Taiping and Indigo revolts
(d) China, India, USA and Russia
(b) Revolt of 1857 and the American Civil War
64. Which one of the following is not a member of BASIC bloc
(c) Revolt of 1857 and the Deccan Uprising
of countries? [2010-I]
(a) South Africa (b) China (d) American Civil War and Santhal Uprising
(c) India (d) Australia 71. Consider the following statements.
65. Which of the following is/are instance(s) of violation of I can only thank a genius director like Guru Dutt for giving
human rights? me an opportunity to work in his films and translate his
1. A person was detained by the security forces while conceptions on screen. I was able to involve (myself) in
going for casting vote in Parliamentary Election. many innovative experiments he had tried. The best example
2. A civilian was killed by the army while undertaking is the making of 'Kagaz Ke Phool' (1959) , which is the first
combing operation. [2010-I] cinemascope venture in the Indian film industry. On receipt
Select the correct answer using the code given below: of a Prestigious Award of India the above statement was
Code: made recently by [2010-II]
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Santhosh Sivan (b) Ravi K. Chandran
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Ramachandra Babu (d) V.K. Murthy
66. Consider the following paragraph about one of the 72. Consider the following statements about General V.K. Singh
prominent personalities of India and identify him/her using I. He is the first trained commando to take over as the
the code given below: Chief of the Army Staff of Indian Army.
One of the founder members of the Progressive Artists II. He belongs to the Rajputana Rifles regiment of Indian
Group, he/she painted several important series of paintings Army.
like the Mahabharata and Ramayana, Christ and the Lamb, III. General Singh succeeded General Deepak Kappor
Peace Doves, Women with Roosters and Mother Teresa. Which among the statements given above is/are correct?
He/She made a symbolic film, Through the Eyes of a Painter, (a) I, II and III (b) I and III only
which won him/her the Golden Bear Award at the Berlin (c) III only (d) I and II only
Film Festival. [2010-I] [2010-II]
Code: 73. Consider the following passage and identify the form of
(a) Dhiraj Choudhaury dance theatre referred thereto using the code given below.
(b) Satish Gujral This is a uniquely traditional form of dance theatre of India
(c) M.F. Hussain with a formidable classical background. The main essence
(d) Amrita Shergil of this form of dance drama is its attachment with religion,
67. Operation Vajraprahar is the joint counter-terrorism which provides the most common theme for its plays. The
exercise between Indian Army and [2010-I] performance begins with a prayer offering to the Lord
(a) US Army (b) Chinese Army Ganesha, which is followed by a comedy act, accompanied
(c) Russian Army (d) Nepalese Army by the background music of the Chenda and the Maddale,
68. India’s ‘Look East Policy’ and a tala (cymbals) played by a team of three. The narrator,
1. was articulated during the reign of H.D. Deve Gowda who is also a part of the team is called Bhagavata, and is the
as India’s Prime Minister producer, the director, and the head of the ceremony. His
2. is directed towards South-East Asian countries primary task involves the narration of the story through
3. is about controlling terrorism songs, introduction of the characters, and occasionally
4. seeks to develop a bond among various countries on conversing with them. Another unique feature of it is the
the basis of economic cooperation [2010-I] totally unrehearsed and unwritten use of dialogues. which
Select the correct answer using the code given below: makes it so special. [2010-II]
Code: Code
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) Cheraw (b) Yakshagana
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (c) Devarattam (d) Jatra
74. Which amongst the following statements is/are correct about
69. Arrange the following Military Training Institutes in India
the INS Arihant? [2010-II]
in terms of their geographical location form North to South
EBD_7348
I. It is India's first nuclear submarine.
II. It is India's first aircraft carrier. List- I(Ship) List-II (Type)
III. It has been indigenously built in India. A. INS Arihant 1 Aircraft Carrier
(a) I only (b) II and III only B INS Vikrant 2 Landing Platform Dock
(c) I and III only (d) II only
75. Which among the following statements about the Zaranj- C INS Shiwalik 3 Nuclear Submarine
Delaram road is/are correct? [2010-II] D INS Airavat 4 Stealth Frigate
I. It was constructed by Border Road
Organization in Afghanistan. Codes
II. It links India with Afghanistan via Pakistan (a) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2 (b) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
III. The road will open up market for Indian goods in (c) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3 (d) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3
Afghanistan via Iran. 80. ‘Milan’ is
Select the correct answer using the code given below 1. an annual gathering of Navies of Indian Ocean
(a) III only (b) I and III only countries
(c) I and II only (d) II only 2. conducted at Chennai
76. India by becoming a full-fledged member of the Financial 3. a joint anti terrorism exercise
Action Task Force [2011-I] 4. aimed an enhancing inter-operability among navies
(a) will be able to access information on suspect accounts
[2011-I]
in nations such as Switzerland and UK.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(b) will play an important role in law enforcement matters,
investigations. or prosecutions of terrorist activities at (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
an international level (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
(c) has also become a member of Organization for Economic 81. Consider the following pairs.
Cooperation and Development 1. Pinaka : Multi Barrel Rocket Launcher System
(d) All of the above 2. Nag : Anti Tank Missile System
77. The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), a mechanism 3. Lakshya : Unmanned Aerial Vehicle
to reduce greenhouse gas emission as per Kyoto Protocol [2011-I]
implies that [2011-I] Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) industrial countries receive carbon credits by funding (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
carbon saving projects in another relatively affluent
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
nation
(b) industrial countries reduce their carbon emission by 82. Which one among the following is the unit raised to protect
using environment friendly technology in production the naval assets ? [2011-I]
(c) developed countries invest in carbon reduction in (a) Sagar Rakshak Bal (b) Sagar Suraksha Bal
developing countries and receive carbon credit in return (c) Sagar Prahari Bal (d) Sagar Nigrani Bal
(d) developed nations purchase carbon credit from other 83. Consider the following statements with regard to the
nations Renewable Energy Certificate (REC) mechanism launched
78. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using in November 2010 by the Government of India.
the codes given below the lists. [2011-I] 1. It enables the obligated entities to meet their renewable
purchase obligation.
List-I (Joint 2. It is one of the pioneering efforts in any developing
List II (Type) country for mainstreaming the renewable energy
exercise)
generation through market mechanism. [2011-I]
A Indra 1 Joint anti-terrorism Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
exercise (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
B Cope India 2 Joint air force (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
exercise 84. Consider the following statements with regard to the Global
C Ind-Indo Corpat 3 Coordinated Hunger Index.
1. India ranks within the top ten among the developing
maritime patrolling
countries in the Global Hunger Index 2010.
D Yuddhabhyas 4 Joint arm exercise 2. According to the Global Hunger Index 2010, the
proportion of undernourished in India is decreasing.
Codes : 3. Normally, economic progress of a country measured
(a) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4 (b) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4 by its gross national income and the hunger level are
(c) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1 (d) A-4; B-2; C-3; D-1 inversely correlated. [2011-I]
79. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
the code given below the Lists. [2011-I] (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
85. Venkataraman Ramkrishnan was jointly awarded Nobel Prize 92. Which among the following islands in the South China Sea
in Chemistry in the year 2009 for the [2011-I] are the source of conflict between several countries?
(a) theory of electron transfer [2012-I]
(b) studies of the structure and function of the ribosome (a) Marshall Islands (b) Solomon Islands
(c) palladium catalysed cross couplings in organic (c) Kuril Islands (d) Spratly Islands
synthesis 93. The only operational Naval Base exclusively controlled by
(d) work in the area of olefin metathesis the Indian Navy is located at [2012-I]
86. Indian Army’s counterinsurgency school is situated in (a) Puducherry (b) Okha
[2011-II] (c) Karwar (d) Kakinada
(a) Kanker (b) Srinagar 94. Who among the following led India to their first overseas
(c) Tezpur (d) Vairengte test victory in cricket? [2012-I]
87. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using (a) C. K. Nayudu (b) M. A. K. Pataudi
the code given below the lists: [2011-II] (c) Sunil Gavaskar (d) Bishen Singh Bedi
List-I List-II
95. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(Name of the Shipyard) (Location)
[2012-I]
A. Hindustan Shipyard 1. Kolkata
Limited 1. The Indian Army is organized into five Regional
B. Garden Reach 2. Vasco-da-Gama Commands.
Shipbuilders & 2. The Headquarters of Northern Command is located at
Engineers Limited Lucknow.
C. Goa Shipyard 3. Mumbai Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Limited Code :
D. Mazagon Dock 4. Visakhapatnam (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Limited (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Code: 96. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
(a) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3 (b) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4 the code given below the Lists : [2012-II]
(c) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3 (d) A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4 List-I List-II
88. Schemes run under the National Rural Employment (World Heritage Site) (State)
Guarantee Act are sponsored [2012-I] A. Brihadisvara Temple 1. Maharashtra
(a) by the Central Government alone B. Ellora Caves 2. Karnataka
(b) partly by the Central Government and partly by the C. Hampi 3. Tamil Nadu
State Government D. Mahabodhi Temple 4. Bihar
(c) by Centre, State and Panchayat bodies together Code :
(d) on public-private partnership basis A B C D
89. The World Bank was created immediately after the Second (a) 4 1 2 3
World War. Its activities are focused on the developing (b) 4 2 1 3
countries. Which among the following are the activities of (c) 3 2 1 4
the Bank? [2012-I] (d) 3 1 2 4
1. Human development 97. Consider the following statements :
2. Agriculture and rural development The state government shall appoint a Finance Commission
3. Environmental protection and governance to review the financial position of the Panchayats and to
4. Loans and grants to the member countries make recommendations as to
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1. the distribution between the state and Panchayats of
Code : the net proceeds of taxes, tolls and fees leviable by the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only states.
(b) 3 and 4 only 2. the determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees
(c) 2 and 4 only which may be assigned to the Panchayats.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. the principles that will determine grant-in-aid to the
90. Karam is a festival celebrated to worship Karam Deuta, the Panchayats. [2012-II]
God of power. Which one among the following tribal Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
communities in India traditionally celebrates this festival? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
[2012-I] (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Santhals (b) Karbi 98. Which one among the following monuments was earlier
(c) Meenas (d) Bhils known as 'All India War Memorial' ? [2012-II]
91. Which one among the following is the largest exporter of (a) Gateway of India (b) India Gate
small arms in the world? [2012-I] (c) Charminar (d) Lai Quila
(a) Russia (b) The United States 99. Navroze is a festival celebrated in India by the [2012-II]
(c) China (d) France (a) Hindus (b) Muslims
(c) Parsis (d) Christians
EBD_7348
100. Which one among the following countries was least affected 109. Which of the following is/are true relating to Nelson
by the tsunami that hit the Indonesian Ocean on 26th Mandela? [2014-I]
December, 2004? [2013-I] 1. He was the first President of South Africa.
(a) Indonesia (b) Malaysia 2. Mandela spent 18 years in prison on Robben Island.
(c) Sri Lanka (d) India 3. Mandela became the President in 1990 after his release
101. Ward Cunningham is famous for developing for the first from the prison.
time [2013-I] Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) the free encyclopedia on Internet (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) a computer language called 'Java' (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) a digital camera 110. Which of the following books was written by B. R.
(d) a software which can take Hebrew language as input Ambedkar? [2014-I]
(a) The Discovery of India
102. Catch me if you can is a Hollywood movie made on the life
(b) My Life
of Frank Abagnalc who was [2013-I]
(c) Buddha or Karl Marx
(a) a famous lawyer (b) a famous swimmer
(d) Hind Swaraj
(c) a famous sprinter (d) an infamous imposter 111. Consider the following statements about grand slam tennis
103. Anthony De Mello Trophy is associated with test cricket tournaments: [2014-I]
series played between [2013-I] 1. There are four grand slam annual tennis tournaments.
(a) Australia and India (b) England and India 2. The first grand slam of a year is the US Open.
(c) England and Australia (d) South Africa and India 3. The Australian and the US tournaments are played on
104. Which one among the following European countries has grass court.
the maximum number of running nuclear reactors? [2013-I] Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Germany (b) Switzerland (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) France (d) Norway (c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 only
105. Identify the person from the information given below: 112. Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member?
He was a popular Urdu poet and Hindi lyricist, who worked [2014-II]
extensively in Hindi films. He was a Padma Shri and won (a) Cambodia (b) Laos
two Filmfare awards. The President of India recently released (c) Myanmar (d) Taiwan
a commemorative postage stamp on his birth anniversary at 113. Consider the following statements: [2014-II]
Rashtrapati Bhavan. [2013-II] 1. China won both Thomas Cup and Uber Cup Badminton
(a) Khayyam (b) Sahir Ludhianvi Tournaments, 2014.
(c) Ali Sardar Jafri (d) Salik Lucknawi 2. The Uber Cup is the World Team Championship for
106. Which of the following statements about the Progressive women and the Thomas Cup is for men.
Writers’ Association, which created a generation of creative
people, is/are correct? [2014-I]
1. It thought critically about the poverty and hunger of
114. Consider the following statements about Drishti system:
the Indian people. [2014-II]
2. It brought out of the positive developments of 1. It is a sophisticated instrument to assess the runway
colonialism. visual range.
3. Its creative pursuit began with a critical evaluation of 2. This system is developed by Airports Authority of
Gandhian politics. India.
4. It planned India’s development model. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 115. Which of the following about Malavath Poorna is correct?
107. Consider the following statements about ‘Param Vir Chakra’: [2014-II]
[2014-I] (a) First Indian swimmer to cross Suez Canal
1. It is the highest peacetime gallantry award. (b) Youngest woman to scale Everest
2. It is the replacement of British Victoria Cross. (c) First Indian to win FIDE World Junior Championship
3. It can be awarded to civilians. (d) Winner of Young Scientist Award, 2014
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 116. Consider the following statements about Indian Regional
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS): [2014-II]
1. IRNSS is a constellation of five satellites, which were
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
launched by PSLV.
108. What was the code name for the Indian Air Force operations
2. It is an independent regional navigation satellite system
during the Kargil Conflict of 1999? [2014-I]
designed to provide position information in the Indian
(a) Operation Vijay
region.
(b) Operation Meghdoot
(c) Operation Indradhanush
(d) Operation Safed Sagar
117. The National Defence Academy has foreign cadets from Select the correct answer using the code given below:
which of the following countries? [2014-II] (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
1. Bhutan 2. Bangladesh (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Nepal 4. Afghanistan 125. Which one of the following is not correct in the current
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Indian scenario? [2015-II]
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) Life expectancy is on the increase and is about 67
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 2 only years as of now
118. Which one among the following books is centered around (b) Infant mortality rate is on the decline and has reached
‘environment’ ? [2015-I] 47 per thousand
(a) The Late, Great Planet Earth (c) Maternal mortality rate (MMR) is on the rise due to
(b) Silent Spring lack of medical facilities
(c) Here I Stand (d) Percentage of women giving birth in health institutions
(d) And Then One Day is on the rise
119. The first Indian Satellite, Aryabhatt, was launched in the 126. The SAARC Secretariat is located at: [2015-II]
year: [2015-II] (a) New Delhi (b) Colombo
(a) 1972 (b) 1975 (c) Kathmandu (d) Karachi
(c) 1976 (d) 1979 127. Who among the following is the author of the book,
120. Which one of the following is not a Green House Gas?
"Pakistan Paradox: Instability and Resilience [2015-II]
[2015-II]
(a) Christophe Jaffrelot (b) G Parthasarthy
(a) Water vapours (b) Methane
(c) Ozone (d) Carbon Monoxide (c) Imran Khan (d) Mamnoon Hussain
121. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using 128. Which one of the following was the theme of the "International
the code given below the Lists: [2015-II] Day of United Nations Peacekeepers" for the year 2015 ?
List I List II [2015-II]
(Manufacturing site) (Industry) (a) Peacekeeping in a Global Partnership
A. Ludhiana 1. Auto parts (b) UN 70 and UN Peacekeeping; Past, Present and Future
B. Kanpur 2. Woollen garments (c) Women in Peacekeeping
C. Varanasi 3. Leather (d) A Force for the Future
D. Vijayawada 4. Handloom 129. Indian athlete Vikas Gowda is associated with : [2015-II]
Code: (a) Wrestling (b) Sprint
A B C D (c) Discus throw (d) Archery
(a) 1 4 3 2 130. One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is emissions
(b) 2 3 4 1 from vehicles like cars and trucks. Cars emit various
(c) 2 4 3 1 pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled,
(d) 1 3 4 2 like [2016-I]
122. The Manas National Park is situated in the State of: [2015-II] 1. Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Jharkhand
2. Carbon monoxide (CO)
(c) Assam (d) West Bengal
123. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using 3. Carbon dioxide (CO2).
the code given below the Lists: [2015-II] 4. Benzone
List I List II Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human
(Forest Conservation (Place) beings even at very low levels?
Type) (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only
A. National Park 1. Dudhwa (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
B. Sanctuary 2. Bhitarkanika 131. Arrange the following centres of AIIMS from East to West:
C. Biosphere Reserve 3. Chilka [2016-I]
D. Tiger Reserve 4. Nokrek 1. Rishikesh
Code: 2. New Delhi
A B C D 3. Patna
(a) 2 3 4 1 4. Bhubaneswar
(b) 1 4 3 2 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) 2 4 3 1 (a) 4-3-1-2 (b) 4-1-3-2
(d) 1 3 4 2 (c) 3-4-2-1 (d) 3-2-1-4
124. Which of the following statements about the Livestock
132. Which of the following substances are harmful for health if
sector in India is/are correct ? [2015-II]
present in food items? [2016-I]
1. Livestock contributed about 25 per cent of gross value
1. Pesticide residues
added in agriculture
2. Lead
2. It provides self employment to a large segment of
population 3. Metanil yellow
3. Rapid growth of livestock sector can be egalitarian 4. Mercury
and inclusive Select the correct answer using the code given below:
EBD_7348
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only 2. To achieve international co-operation in solving
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 problems of an economic, social, cultural, or
133. Which one of the following is a conventional energy source? humanitarian character
[2016-I] 3. To foster relations between scholars and academics in
(a) Tidal energy (b) Geothermal energy different countries
(c) Solar energy (d) Biomass energy 4. To organize international conferences
134. Which organisation prepares the topographical maps of Select the correct answer using the code given below:
India? [2016-I] (a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) Geological Survey of India (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Archaeological Survery of India 142. Who among the following invented the powerloom that
(c) Survery of India revolutionized the cotton textile industry? [2016-II]
(d) National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation (a) Edmund Cartwright (b) Samuel Crompton
135. Which one of the following is not an international boundary (c) Richard Arkwright (d) james Hargreaves
line ? [2016-I] 143. Who are Bhawana kanth, Avani Chaturvedi and Mohana
(a) Dresden Line (b) Durand Line Singh ? [2016-II]
(c) Maginot Line (d) 38th Parallel (a) Sprinters (b) Rock climbers
136. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? (c) Fighter Pilots (d) Mountainers
[2016-I] 144. Which one of the following agencies enforces the laws on
(National Park) (Famous for) food security in India? [2017-I]
1. Ranthambhore : Tiger (a) FDA (b) WHO
(c) FSSAI (d) FAO
2. Periyar : Elephant
145. Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is
3. Manas : Lion
located in [2017-I]
4. Gir : Rhinoceros (a) Washington
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (b) Geneva
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) Moscow
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 only (d) London
137. Who among the following is the founder of the ‘Bachpan 146. Match List I List II and select the correct answer using the
Bachao Andolan’? [2016-I] code given below the Lists : [2017-I]
(a) Shantha Sinha (b) Kailash Satyarthi List I List II
(c) Aruan Roy (d) Anil Agarwal (Industry) (Place)
138. Which of the following are the features of Pradhan Mantri A. Petrochemical 1. Coimbatore
Jan Dhan Yojana? [2016-I] B. Aircraft 2. Pinjore
1. Ensuring financial inclusion of the poor C. Machine tools 3. Bengaluru
2. Enhancing financial literacy D. Cotton textiles 4. Bongaigaon
3. Provision for accidental insurance to account holders Code :
4. Allowing bank accounts with zero balance A B C D
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 4 3 2 1
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 2 3 4
139. Nabhah Sprsain Diptam is the motto of [2016-I] (d) 1 3 2 4
(a) Central Industrial Security Force 147. The World Humanitarian Day is being observed every year
(b) Indian Air Force on which date? [2017-I]
(c) ISRO (a) 24 October (b) 19 August
(d) Indian Navy (c) 10 December (d) 8 March
140. After a ban on unscientific coal mining and transportation 148. The Headquarters of Eastern Railway Zone of Indian
of coal in this region by the National Green Tribunal, many Railway is located at [2017-I]
of those engaged in the activity have been switching to (a) Bhubaneswar (b) Kolkata
turmeric farming for their livelihood. The region referred (c) Hajipur (d) Guwahati
above is [2016-I] 149. Which one of the following statements regarding King
(a) Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya Krishnadevaraya is NOT correct? [2017-I]
(b) Koriya, Chhattisgarh (a) He was a great scholar of Telugu and Sanskrit
(c) Angul, Odisha (b) Foreign travellers Paes and Nuniz visited his court
(d) Bardhaman, West Bangal (c) Barbosa praised him for the great justice and equity
141. Which of the following statements about the aims of the prevailing in his empire
United Nations is/are ture? [2016-I] (d) He wrote his magnum opus Amuktamalyada in Sanskrit
1. To foster a mutual appreciation of each other’s culture 150. Which one of the following States does NOT have the
and literature among nations Headquarters of any Railway Zone? [2017-I]
(a) Jharkhand (b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Odisha (d) Bihar
151. Who among the following shared the Nobel Prize in 1962 158. Who among the following is not a member of G7? [2018-II]
along with Francis Crick and James Watson for their (a) France (b) Germany
discoveries concerning the molecular structure of nucleic
(c) Russia (d) Japan
acids? [2017-II]
(a) Erwin Chargaff 159. Which one of the following is the theme of the World Blood
(b) Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins Donor Day, 2018? [2018-II]
(c) Rosalind Franklin (a) Blood connects us all
(d) Phoebus Levene (b) Be there for someone else. Give blood. Share life
152. In which one of the following places, Headquarters of a
(c) Give blood. Give now. Give often
Railway Zone is located? [2018-I]
(a) Kanpur (b) Lucknow (d) Thank you for saving my life
(c) Hajipur (d) New Jalpaiguri 160. National Water Academy, a centre of excellence in training
153. Which of the following statements about Indian Academy and capacity building in water resource, is located at
of Highway Engineers is/are correct? [2018-I] [2019-I]
1. It is a registered society. (a) New Delhi (b) Kolkata
2. It is a collaborative body of both Central Government (c) Pune (d) Chennai
and State Governments. 161. “Viticulture” is a common feature of which one of the
Select the correct answer using the code given below: following Australian cities ? [2019-I]
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Adelaide (b) Darwin
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Hobart (d) Brisbane
154. Who among the following Indians did NOT hold the title of 162. Who was the author of the book ‘History of British India’ ?
Miss World? [2018-I] [2019-I]
(a) Reita Faria (b) Sushmita Sen (a) Charles Grant (b) John Stuart Mill
(c) Diana Hayden (d) Yukta Mookhey (c) James Mill (d) William Jones
155. Which one of the following greenhouse gases is in largest 163. The art piece “In Memoriam” was a creation of which one
concentration in the atmosphere? [2018-II] of the following European painters ? [2019-I]
(a) Chlorofluorocarbon (b) Nitrous oxide (a) Thomas Jones Barker
(b) Joseph Noel Paton
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Methane
(c) Thomas Daniell
156. Match List- with List-II and select the correct answer using (d) Charles D’Oyly
the code given below the lists: [2018-II] 164. Consider the following description of the Samadhi of a
List-I List-II former Prime Minister of India : [2019-I]
(Railway Zone) (Headquarters) Central Samadhi platform comprises nine square black
A. West Central 1. Jabalpur polished granite solid stone blocks, capped with a ‘Diya’ in
the centre. The number nine holds significance and
B. South East Central 2. Gorakhpur
represents the navarasas, navaratras and navagrahas. Then
C. East Central 3. Bilaspur placement of the nine-square Samadhi is in a circular lotus
D. North Eastern 4. Hajipur shaped pattern. The nine-square platform is accessed in
Code : four cardinal directions by pathways made in white
A B C D composite tiles so that the floor does not get heated.
Identify the Samadhi :
(a) 2 3 4 1
(a) Shakti Sthal (b) Shantivan
(b) 1 4 3 2 (c) Sadaiv Atal (d) Veer Bhumi
(c) 2 4 3 1 165. IMBEX is a joint exercise conducted regularly between
(d) 1 3 4 2 Armies of India and [2019-I]
157. The Central Vigilance Commission was established on the (a) Malaysia (b) Maldives
recommendation of which one of the following Committees? (c) Mauritius (d) Myanmar
[2018-II] 166. India’s first private sector Howitzer gun-making unit is
(a) Santhanam Committee located at [2019-I]
(a) Jamshedpur (b) Kolkata
(b) Dinesh Goswami Committee
(c) Hazira (d) Gwalior
(c) Tarkunde Committee
(d) Narasimham Committee
EBD_7348
ANSWER KEY
1 (d) 18 (b) 35 (b) 52 (a) 69 (b) 86 (d) 103 (b) 120 (d) 137 (b) 154 (b)
2 (b) 19 (a) 36 (a) 53 (d) 70 (b) 87 (c) 104 (c) 121 (b) 138 (d) 155 (c)
3 (b) 20 (d) 34 (a) 54 (c) 71 (d) 88 (a) 105 (b) 122 (c) 139 (b) 156 (d)
4 (b) 21 (c) 37 (d) 55 (d) 72 (a) 89 (d) 106 (d) 123 (a) 140 (a) 157 (a)
5 (a) 22 (c) 38 (d) 56 (a) 73 (b) 90 (a) 107 (b) 124 (d) 141 (b) 158 (c)
6 (b) 23 (b) 40 (b) 57 (b) 74 (c) 91 (b) 108 (d) 125 (c) 142 (a) 159 (a)
7 (b) 24 (b) 41 (d) 58 (a) 75 (c) 92 (d) 109 (c) 126 (c) 143 (c) 160 (c)
8 (d) 25 (b) 42 (c) 59 (b) 76 (a) 93 (c) 110 (c) 127 (a) 144 (c) 161 (a)
9 (c) 26 (d) 43 (b) 60 (d) 77 (b) 94 (b) 111 (c) 128 (b) 145 (b) 162 (c)
10 (a) 27 (d) 44 (c) 61 (c) 78 (a) 95 (a) 112 (d) 129 (c) 146 (b) 163 (b)
11 (c) 28 (d) 45 (b) 62 (b) 79 (b) 96 (d) 113 (b) 130 (d) 147 (b) 164 (c)
12 (d) 29 (a) 46 (d) 63 (b) 80 (c) 97 (d) 114 (a) 131 (a) 148 (b) 165 (d)
13 (b) 30 (b) 47 (b) 64 (d) 81 (d) 98 (b) 115 (b) 132 (d) 149 (d) 166 (c)
14 (d) 31 (c) 48 (d) 65 (c) 82 (c) 99 (c) 116 (b) 133 (d) 150 (a)
15 (a) 32 (a) 49 (b) 66 (c) 83 (c) 100 (d) 117 (b) 134 (c) 151 (b)
16 (d) 33 (b) 50 (c) 67 (a) 84 (b) 101 (a) 118 (b) 135 (a) 152 (c)
17 (a) 34 (c) 51 (c) 68 (c) 85 (b) 102 (d) 119 (b) 136 (b) 153 (c)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (d) A. The headquarter of UNESCO is in Paris (France). The International Labour Organization (ILO) was set
B. The headquarter of IMF is in Washington (United up in 1919 as an autonomous body within the League
States of America). It controls montery fund. of Nations. Its headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland,
C. The headquarter of ILO is in Geneva (Switzerland). ICAO was set up on April 4, 1947. The headquarter of
D. The headquarter of UNIDO is Vienna (Austria). the ICAO is in Rome, Italy.
2. (b) Baikonur Cosmodroms is situated in Kazakhastan. IMO was established in 1948. The headquarter is in
3. (b) Chinese manned spacecraft launch in the orbit of earth. London, the U.K.
4. (b) Biodiesel is a liquid fuel that is produced from the oil of 21. (c) Government of Morocco and Spain are planning to
the seed of Jatropha sp. and some other members of build a rail tunnel link between Europe and Africa.
family Euphorbiaceae. 22. (c) Leela Seth know as first women chief justice of a High
9. (c) According to the distance from sun the planets are Court in India.
situated – Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, 23. (b) Baku Tbilisi - Ceylan (BTC) oil pipeline connects
Uranus, Neptune respectively Caspian sea and Mediterranean sea.
15. (a) America, Russian, China, Britain and France are the 24. (b) Uma Sharma, a famous Kathak performer. Kathak was
five permanent members of the UN Security Council. originated in Uttar Pradesh from the Rasleela of
16. (d) United Nations Organisation was organised in 1945 in Brijbhoomi. It was influenced by Vaishnavism and later
San Francisco (America). The head quarters of it is a Persian Castumes and dancing styles.
New York. WHO is world health organization. UNESCO 25. (b) Ethanol is mixed with petrol by Govt. of India in its
head quarters lies in Paris. nationwide programme of blended petrol to decrease
17. (a) The branches of Himalaya can be divided into two parts its on import of petrol revenue expenditure.
North West Branches and North East Branches. One 26. (d) In 2003 one day cricket World Cup India lose final.
of its branch is extensively prevailing from east to west. 27. (d) Asafa Powell well known for 100 m Sprinter.
Garo, Khasi, Jyantiya and Lushai are its main hills. 29. (a) The Commonwealth of Independent States is the
18. (b) Four top tournament of Tennis are Wimbledon, US Internatinoal Organization, or alliance.
Open, French Open and Australian Open are Davis 32. (a) The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School
Cup Federation Cup are also related with Tennis. (CIJWS), in Vairengte, Mizoram, India is a training
19. (a) Satish Gujral is a sculptor and Pandit Deenath Mishra institution of the Indian Army specializing in
is a musician. Shiv Kumar Sharma is a Santoor Master. unconventional warfare specially guerrilla warfare. The
20. (d) International Bank for Reconstruction and development motto of CIJWS is "fight the guerrilla as a guerrilla".
(IBRD) is head quarterd at Washington D.C, USA. Its The idea to set up the Jungle Warfare School was
main objectives to offer loans to member developing conceived by former Indian Army Chief Field Marshal
countries willing to engage in projects that will increase S.H.F.J. 'Sam' Manekshaw.
their productive capacities and reduce poverty.
34. (c) The 2006 FIFA World Cup was the 18th instance of Moth Eaten Howdah of a Tusker, Pages Stained With
the FIFA World Cup, the quadrennial International Blood and The Man from Chinnamasta.
Football World Championship Tournament. It was held 60. (d) The Basilica of Bom Jesus is located in Goa, India is a
from 9 June to 9 July 2006 in Germany. The tournament UNESCO World Heritage Site. The basilica holds the
was won by Italy, who claimed their fourth World Cup mortal remains of St. Francis Xavier. The church is
title. It defeated France 5-3 in a Penalty shootout in the located in Old Goa, which was the capital of Goa in the
final, after extra time had finished in a 1-1 draw. early days of Portuguese rule.’Bom Jesus’ (literally,
41. (d) Explanation of the – Einstein Holy Jesus) is the name used for the infant Jesus. The
photoelectric effect Jesuit church is India’s first Minor Basilica, and is
Discovery of a comet – Edmund Halley . considered as one of the best examples of baroque
Measurement of the – Robert Millikan architecture in India.
electronic charge 61. (c) Ms. Reena Kaushal Dharmshaktu was born into a
Hindu family from Punjab and grew up in Darjeeling,
Thermoelectricity – Seebeck
where she attended mountaineering courses at the
42. (c) Infant mortality rates of these countries are as follows Himalayan Mountaineering Institute. She has taken
Sri Lanka 14, China 27, India 74 and Vietnam 19. Hence part in and led several expeditions in the Himalayas.
India’s IMR is highest. On December 29, 2009, Reena made the historic ski-run
44. (c) The percentage of scheduled tribes is highest (94.5%) as part of an eight-woman Commonwealth team
in Mizoram as per 2001-census. (Kaspersky Commonwealth Antarctic Expedition)
45. (b) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) which crossed a 900 km Antarctic ice trek to reach the
maintains the standards for aircraft registration. It is South Pole.
VT for India. 62. (b) Doordarshan has started Digital Terrestrial
46. (d) Arundhati Roy (The God of Small Things), Kiran Desai Transmitters. It operates 21 channels – two All India
(The Inheritance of Loss), Salman Rushdie (Midnight’s channels-DD National and DD News, 11 Regional
children) and V.S. Naipaul (In a Free State) are Indian languages Satellite Channels (RLSC), four State
authors who won the Booker prize. Networks (SN), an International channel, a Sports
47. (b) Surendranath Jena (Odissi), Pushpa Bhuyan (Bharat Channel (DD sports) and two channels (DD-RS & DD-
Natyam), Birju Maharaj (Kathak) and Shankaran LS) for live broadcast of parliamentary proceedings.
Embranthiri (Kathakali) are the world fame dancers of 63. (b) START (stands for Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty)
India. was a bilateral treaty between the United States of
48. (d) Indira Nooyi (Pepsi), Mukesh Ambani (Reliance group America and the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics
of companies), Sunil Mittal (Airtel) and Azim Premji (USSR) on the Reduction and Limitation of Strategic
(Wipro). Offensive Arms. The treaty was signed on 31 July 1991
49. (b) NIM (New Delh i), NCCS (Pune), CDNAFD and entered into force on 5 December 1994.
(Hyderabad) and NBRC (Manesar). 64. (d) The BASIC countries (G4) are a bloc of four large
50. (c) Both the statements are correct. developing countries – Brazil, South Africa, India and
54. (c) Ladakh is the largest Lok Sabha constituency (in China – formed by an agreement on 28 November 2009.
areawise). The four committed to act jointly at the Copenhagen
55. (d) The army officers of Bhutan get training at/by Indian climate summit, including a possible united walk-out if
Military Raining Team (IMTRAT). their common minimum position was not met by the
developed nations.
56. (a) Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) has instituted
the Green Governance Award. 65. (c) Human rights are “rights and freedoms to which all
humans are entitled”. All human beings are born free
57. (b) The tourism phrase ‘Paradise Unexplored’ refers to the
and equal in dignity and rights. They are endowed
North-East states of India.
with reason and conscience and should act towards
58. (a) In 2012, Kyoto Protocol to prevent climate changes one another in a spirit of brotherhood.
and global warming runs out. To keep the process on
66. (c) Maqbool Fida Husain is a Qatari artist of Indian origin.
the line there is an urgent need for a new climate
After controversy over his paintings in his home
protocol. At the conference in Copenhagen 2009 the
country, he was on a self imposed exile from 2006. In
parties of the UNFCCC meet for the last time on
January, 2010, he was offered the citizenship of Qatar,
government level before the climate agreement need to
which he accepted. Husain first became well-known as
be renewed. It saw an agreement among the participants
an artist in the late 1940s. In 1947, he joined the
over CO2 emission.
Progressive Artists’ Group, founded by Francis
59. (b) Mamoni Raisom Goswami was born on 14 November Newton Souza.
1942. She is an Assamese editor, poet, professor,
67. (a) Indian and American armed forces have begun joint
scholar and writer.She is the winner of the Sahitya
maneuvres on counter-terrorism in Mizoram. The three
Akademi Award (1983),the Jnanpith Award (2000) and
week-long ‘Operation Vajraprahar’ will be the fourth
is also India’s first Principal Prince Claus Laureate
round of joint exercises between the special forces of
(2008). She is noted for her novels which include The
the two countries.
EBD_7348
68. (c) Post-Cold War, India has an improved interest in South 82. (c) Sagar Prahari Bal was developed by Indian Navy to
East Asia. India has to compete against a formidable protect Naval bases and patrol the coastline areas.
rival, China, on many fronts.India depends largely on Basically Sagar Prahari Bal to secure India's coastline.
itself on promoting its Look East Policy, having the 84. (b) Global Hunger Index shows global hunger has declined
need to compete against a great regional rival, China. since 1990. India got 67th rank in 2010 GHI.
69. (b) Institutes North to South are - IMA situated in 85. (b) Venkatraman Ramakrishnan won joint Noble Prize in
Dehradoon (Uttarakhand). National Defence College Chemistry (2009) with Thomas. A steity and Ada F.
is in New Delhi. National Defence Academy is in Yonath.
Khadakwasla (Pune). 86. (d) The counter in surgency school is located at. Vairengle
College of Defence Management is in Secundrabad in Mizoram. It was established in 1967 and also teaches
(Andhra Pradesh). Officers Training Academy is in jungle warfare.
Chennai (Tamil Nadu). 87. (c) A. Hindustan Shipyard - Vishakhapattnam
70. (b) In this book Rajmohan Gandhi brings two wars, the Limited
1857 revolt (India) and the American civil war onto one
B. Garden Reach Ship Builders - Kolkata
stage.
& Engineers Limited.
71. (d) Guru Dutt Padukone was born in Mysore in1925. After
completing his education he joined Prabhat studios. In C. Goa shipyard Limited - Vasco-da-Gama
1954 Guru Dutt established as a film director. ‘Kaagaz D. Mazagon Dock Limited - Mumbai
ke phool’ was the abysmal failure at the box office and 88. (a) The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
a dejected Guru Dutt never directed film again. Guarantee Act aims at enhancing the livelihood
73. (b) The Chenda cylindrical percussion instrument used in security of people in rural areas by guaranteeing
the Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka in India. The hundred days of wage-employment in a financial year
Chenda is mainly played in Hindu Temple festivals. to a rural household whose adult members volunteer
76. (a) The Financial Action Task Force (FATE) is an Inter- to do unskilled manual work.
governmental body whose purpose is the development 89. (d) The World Bank is an international financial institution
and promotion of policies, both at national and that provides loans to developing countries for capital
international levels, to combat money laundering and programs. The World Bank's official goal is the
terrorist financing. It was established by the G-7 summit reduction of poverty. According to its Articles of
was held in Paris in 1989. Agreement (as amended effective 16 February 1989),
77. (b) The Kyoto protocol is a protocol to the United Nations all its decisions must be guided by a commitment to
Framework convention on climate change aimed at the promotion of foreign investment and international
fighting global warming. This protokol adopted on 11 trade and to the facilitation of capital investment.
December 1997 in Kyoto, Japan. Under the protocol 37 90. (a) Santhals mainly celebrate the Karam festival which falls
countries commit themselves to a reduction of four in the month of September and October. They celebrate
greenhouse gases and two groups of gases. this festival to please the God to increase their wealth
78. (a) A - Indra — Joint anti-terrorism exercise and free them from all the enemies. It is the tradition
B - Cope India — Joint air force exercise among the Santhals to grow the Karam tree outside
their house after the purification process.
C - Ind - Indo corpat — Coordinates maritime patrolling
91. (b) The United States is the Largest exporter of small arms
D - Yuddha bhyas — Joint army exercise. in the world.
79. (b) Ship Type 92. (d) The Spratly Islands dispute is a territorial dispute over
A - INS Arihant — Nuclear submarine the ownership of the Spratly Islands, a group of islands
B - INS Vikrant — Aircraft carrier located in the South China Sea. States staking claims
C - INS Shiwalik — Stealth frigate to various islands are: Brunei, China (People's Republic
D - INS Airavat — Landing platform dock of China), Malaysia, the Philippines, Taiwan (Republic
81. (d) Pinaka is a multiple rocket launcher produced in India of China), and Vietnam. All except Brunei occupy some
and developed by the Defence Resear ch and of the islands. The Spratly Islands are important for a
Development Organization (DRDO) for the Indian number of reasons: the Spratly area holds significant
Army. Pinaka used during the Kargil war. reserves of oil and natural gas, it is a productive area
for world fishing and commercial shipping, and coastal
Nag is the fourth generation anti-tank missile developed
countries would get an extended continental shelf. But
by the DRDO under the Integrated Guided Missile
only some states, such as China (PRC), Taiwan (ROC),
Development Programme (IGMDP).
and Vietnam have made claims based on historical
Lakshya is an Indian remotely piloted aircraft developed sovereignty of the islands.
by Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE) of
93. (c) INS Kadamba is an Indian Navy base located near
DRDO. Indian Air force had received the aircraft in
Karwar in Karnataka. The first phase of construction
September 1999 and Indian Navy received its first
of the base, code-named Project Seabird, was completed
deliveries in November 2000.
in 2005. Development of Phase II commenced in 2011.
INS Kadamba is the third largest Indian naval base.
94. (b) Mansoor Ali Khan Pataudi led India to its first overseas 102. (d) 'Catch Me If You Can' is a 2002 American biographical
Test victory and first overseas series victory - against crime film based on the life of Frank Abagnale, who,
New Zealand in 1967/68 season. before his 19th birthday, successfully performed cons
95. (a) The Indian Army is organized into five regional worth millions of dollars by posing as a Pan American
commands: World Airways pilot, a Georgia doctor, and a Louisiana
HQ Central Command, Lucknow; parish prosecutor. His primary crime was cheque fraud;
HQ Eastern Command, Calcutta; he became so skillful that the FBI eventually turned to
HQ Northern Command, Udhampur; him for help in catching other cheque forgers. The film
was directed by Steven Spielberg and stars Leonardo
HQ Western Command, Chandimandir; and
Di Caprio and Tom Hanks, with Christopher Walken,
HQ Southern Command, Pune.
Amy Adams, Martin Sheen, and Nathalie Baye in
In addition, there is a Army Training Command at Shimla supporting roles.
for the purpose of laying down the training policy for 105. (b) The President of India, Shri Pranab Mukherjee released
the Army. a Commemorative Postage Stamp on late Shri Sahir
96. (d) Brihadiswara temple is located at Tanjore in Tamil Nadu. Ludhianvi on the occasion of his birth anniversary I.E.
Ellora Caves are situated in the district of Aurangabad March 8, 2013 at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
in Maharashtra. Hampi is a historical city in Karnataka. 106. (d) The Progressive Writers' Association was established
Mahabodhi Temple is located at Gaya district of Bihar. in London in 1935 by Indian writers and intellectuals,
97. (d) The Finance Commission of India came into existence with the encouragement and support of some British
in 1951. It was established under Article 280 of the literary figures. It was a group of writers, including
Indian Constitution by the President of India. It was Mulk Raj Anand, Sajjad Zaheer and Jyotirmaya Ghosh.
formed to define the financial relations between the It thought critically about the problems of hunger and
centre and the state.
poverty, social backwardness, and political subjection
98. (b) The India Gate is the national monument of India. of Indian people. Gandhi became the central theme of
Situated in the heart of New Delhi, it was designed by these writers.
Sir Edwin Lutyens. Built in 1931, the monument was 107. (b) Ashok Chakra Award is the peace time award. The
inspired by the Arc de Triomphe in Paris, which in turn
Param Vir Chakra (PVC) is India's highest military
was inspired by the Roman Arch of Titus. Originally
decoration awarded for the highest degree of valour or
known as the All India War Memorial, it is a prominent
self-sacrifice in the presence of the enemy and cannot
landmark in Delhi and commemorates the 90,000 soldiers
of the British Indian Army who lost their lives in World be awarded to civilians. It replaced the former British
War I and the Third Anglo-Afghan War. It is composed colonial Victoria Cross.
of red and pale sandstone and granite. 108. (d) Operation Safed Sagar was the code name assigned to
99. (c) Parsis the Indian Air Force's strike to support the ground
troops during Kargil war.
100. (d) The 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake was an undersea
109. (c) Nelson Mandela was the first black president of South
mega thrust earthquake that occurred at 00:58:53 on
Africa (1994-99). Mandela spent 18 years(From 1964 to
Sunday, 26 December 2004, with an epicenter off the
west coast of Sumatra, Indonesia. The quake itself is 1982) in prison on Robben island.
known by the scientific community as the Sumatra- 110. (c) Buddha or Karl Marx was written by B.R Ambedkar.
Andaman earthquake. The resulting tsunami was given 111. (c) The Grand Slam itinerary consists of the Australian
various names, including the 2004 Indian Ocean Open (mid January), the French Open (May/June),
tsunami, South Asian tsunami, Indonesian tsunami, Wimbledon (June/July) and the US Open (August/
and the Boxing Day tsunami. The earthquake was September.). First grand slam of the year is Australian
caused when the Indian Plate was sub ducted by the Open.
Burma Plate and triggered a series of devastating 112. (d) ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) was
tsunamis along the coasts of most landmasses founded on 8 August 1967 with five members:
bordering the Indian Ocean, killing over 230,000 people Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore and
in fourteen countries, an d inundating coastal Thailand. ASEAN has 10 Members which are Brunei
communities with waves up to 30 meters (98 ft) high. It Darussalam, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia,
was one of the deadliest natural disasters in recorded Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and
history. Indonesia was the hardest-hit country, Vietnam. Taiwan is not a member of ASEAN.
followed by Malaysia, Sri Lanka, India and Thailand. 113. (b) Japan won the Thomas Cup 2014 of badminton 2014.
101. (a) Howard G. "Ward" Cunningham (born May 26, 1949) China won Uber Cup 2014 of badminton. Thomas Cup
is an American computer programmer who developed is for men and Uber Cup is related to Women.
the first wiki. A pioneer in both design patterns and 114. (a) Drishti is an indigenously developed runway visibility
Extreme Programming, he started programming the measuring instrument. It will help pilots during landing
software WikiWikiWeb in 1994 and installed it on the and takeoff. The system is developed jointly by the
website of his software consultancy, Cunningham & National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL) Bengaluru and
Cunningham (commonly known by its domain name, Indian Meteorological Department. IMD is responsible
c2.com), on March 25, 1995, as an add-on to the Portland for providing navigation services at the airports.
Pattern Repository.
EBD_7348
115. (b) Malavath Purna (13 years old) from Telangana became 134. (c) Survey of India is India's central engineering agency
the youngest female climber in the world to scale the which prepares topographical maps.
Mount Everest. 135. (a) Dresden line
116. (b) The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System 136. (b) Ranthambore national park is famous for Tigers, Periyar
(IRNSS) was developed by the Indian Space Research national park is famous for elephant, Manas Sanctuary
Organisation (ISRO). It is designed to provide accurate is famous for Rhinoceros and Gir forest is famous for
position information service to users in India as well as lion.
the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, 137. (b) Bachpan Bachao Andolan was founded in 1980 by
which is its primary service area. The IRNSS would Kailash Satyarthi, who has since become a worldwide
provide two services, with the Standard Positioning acclaimed anti-child labour activist.
Service open for civilian use, and the Restricted Service 138. (d) Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is National
(an encrypted one) for authorized users (including the Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to
military). IRNSS-1A, IRNSS-1B, IRNSS-1C, IRNSS-1D financial services, namely, Banking/ Savings & Deposit
were launched by PSLV but IRNSS-1E, IRNSS-1F, Accounts, Remittance, Credit, Insurance, Pension in
IRNSS-1G have not been launched so far. an affordable manner. Account can be opened in any
117. (b) The National Defence Academy has trained 700 cadets bank branch or Business Correspondent (Bank Mitr)
from the 28 friendly countries including Afghanistan, outlet. PMJDY accounts are being opened with Zero
Bhutan , Ethiopia, Ghana , Fiji, Nepal etc.Bangladesh is balance. However, if the account-holder wishes to get
not in the list. cheque book, he/she will have to fulfill minimum balance
118. (b) The Late, Great Planet Earth is a religious book of criteria
Christianity. Silent Spring is an environmental science 139. (b) The Motto of Indian Air Force is Nabha sparsham
book written by Rachel Carson. Here I stand has been Deeptam. It has been taken from eleventh chapter of
described as part manifesto, part autobiography of the Gita, the Discourse given by Lord Krishna to Arjuna
writer Paul Robeson. And then One day is the on the battlefield of Kurukshetra during the Great War
autobiography of Naseerudin Shah. of Mahabharata. The Lord is showing His Supreme
120. (d) Green house gas consists of methane, water vapours, Divine form to Arjuna and the great form of the Lord is
ozone and CFCs gases. reaching the sky with glory, evoking fear and loss of
122. (c) Manas National park is situated at the base of the foot self-control in the mind of Arjuna.
hills of Bhutan-Himalayas in the state of Assam. 142. (a) A power loom is a mechanised loom powered by a line
123. (a) Bhitarkanika – National Park shaft, and was one of the key developments in the
Chilka – Sanctuary Industrial Revolution. Edmund Cartwright the
Dudhwa – Tiger reserve powerloom which revolutionaries the textile industry.
Nokrek – Biosphere Reserve 144. (c) The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
126. (c) The SAARC Secretariat is based in Kathmandu, Nepal. (FSSAI) has been established under the Food Safety
It coordinates and monitors implementation of and Standards Act, 2006 which is a consolidating
activities, prepares for and services meetings, and statute related to food safety and regulation in India. It
serves as a channel of communication between the is responsible for protecting and promoting public
Association and its Member States as well as other health through the regulation and supervision of food
regional organisations. safety.
127. (a) The Pakistan Paradox: Instability and Resilience is 147. (b) To increase public awareness about humanitarian
authored by Christophe Jaffrelot. assistance activities worldwide and the importance of
129. (c) Vikas Gowda is an Indian thrower and Shot putter. He international cooperation, the United Nations' (UN)
won his first gold medal in Asian Championships in World Humanitarian Day is held on August 19 each
2013 in Pune, with a throw of 64.90 meters. year. The day honors all humanitarians who have
130. (d) Nitrogen oxide is one of the major pollutants emitted worked in the promotion of the humanitarian cause,
from cars and trucks in cities causes air pollution. Other and those who have lost their lives in the cause of
air pollutant which are carbon monoxide and benzene. duty.
131. (a) Bhubaneshwar > Patna > Rishikesh > New Delhi. 148. (b) The Headquarters of Eastern Railway Zone of Indian
132. (d) Pesticides are chemicals used in agriculture to protect Railway is Located at Kolkata. It comprises four
crops against insects, fungi, weeds and other pests divisions-Howrah, Malda, Sealdah and Asansol, is one
and potentially toxic to human. Lead poisoning is a of the ma jor rail way zone of India.
type of metal poisoning caused by lead in the body. 151. (b) Maurice Huge Frederick Wilkins Shared the Noble Prize
The brain is the most sensitive to lead. Metanil yellow in 1962 along with Francis Crock and James Watson
is a principal non-permitted food colour used for their discoveries concerning the molecular
extensively in India. Th e effect of long-term structure of nucleic acids.
consumption of metanil yellow on the developing and 152. (c) Hajipur is the Headquarters of East Central Railway
adult brain causes neurotoxicity. which is one of the 18 railway zones in India. It is
133. (d) Biomass energy is considered as conventionl energy comprises Sonpur, Samastipur, Danapur, Mughalsarai,
source as it has been used from ancient times. and Dhanbad divisions.
153. (c) The Academy was registered as a Society in January facilitate shared macroeconomic initiatives by its
1983.It started operations in Delhi since April 1985 with members in response to the collapse of the exchange
changed name of NITHE. It continued to operate in rate 1971, during the time of the Nixon shock, the 1970s
Delhi till Sept, 2001 and thereafter shifted to its own energy crisis and the ensuing recession.
campus at NOIDA, UP w.e.f. Oct, 2001.Now the 159. (a) Blood connects us all.
Academy organizes training for Highway Sector 160. (c) National Water Academy was set up in Central Water
Engineers and professionals of Central / State Govts., Commission by the Ministry of Water Resources, RD
Public & Private sectors. It also imparts training to and GR, Govt. of India in the year 1988. It was
Highway Professionals from Abroad under various established under USAID assistance and strengthened
training programs in SAARC countries, Colombo Plan with the subsequent assistance received from the World
countries and Afro-Asian countries, etc. Bank. National Water Academy is located at Pune.
154. (b) Sushmita Sen is an Indian film actress and model who 161. (a) Viticulture is the cultivation and harvesting of grapes.
was crowned Femina Miss India Universe in 1994 and It is a branch of the science of horticulture.
she later won the Miss Universe 1994 contest at the 162. (c) James mill was a Scottish economist and political
age of 18. Sen is the first Indian woman to win the philosopher. In his work, he divided the Indian history
competition. into three periods of Hindu, Muslim and British. James
155. (c) Greenhouse gases are those that absorb and emit Mill published a three-volume work, A History of
infrared radiation in the wavelength range emitted by British India in 1817, in which he describes the
Earth. In order, the most abundant greenhouse gases acquisition of the Indian Empire by England and later
in Earth's atmosphere are: Water vapor (H2O), Carbon the United Kingdom.
dioxide (CO2), Methane (CH4), Nitrous oxide (N2O), 164. (c) “Sadaiv Atal’, the Samadhi of Bharat Ratna & former
Ozone (O3), Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), Hydro PMSh Atal Behari Vajpayee which will be dedicated to
fluorocarbons (incl. HCFCs and HFCs) the nation on 25th Dec, 2018– reflects Atalji’s
personality as a poet, humanist, statesman & a great
156. (d) Railway Zones Headquarters leader. The central Samadhi platform comprises of nine
West Central Jabalpur square black polished granite solid stone blocks,
South East Central Bilaspur capped with a ‘diya’ in the center. The number nine
holds significance and represents the navarasas,
East Central Hajipur
navaratras and navagrahas. The placement of the nine
North Eastern Gorakhpur square Samadhi is in a circular lotus shaped pattern.
157. (a) The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the The nine-square platform is accessed in four cardinal
Government in February,1964 on the recommendations directions by pathways made in white composite tiles
of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed so that the floor does not get heated. The Samadhi is
by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central enclosed by nine bas-relief walls which have
Government agencies in the field of vigilance. CVC is inscriptions of the prose/ poetry of Atalji which can
conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of be read by the visitor while taking a pradakshina on
control from any executive authority, monitoring all the outer circular path.
vigilance activity under the Central Government and 165. (d) India-Myanmar bilateral army exercise, IMBEX 2018-
advising various authorities in Central Government 19, has begun at Chandimandir Military Station which
organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and houses the headquarters of the Western Command.
reforming their vigilance work. 166. (c) On 19th January, Prime Minister Narendra Modi
158. (c) The Group of Seven is a group consisting of Canada, inaugurated the India’first Armoured Systems Complex
France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and (ASC) built by a private company – Larsen & Toubro
the United States. The organization was founded to (L&T) – at Hazira in Surat, Gujarat.
EBD_7348
Current Affairs 24
1. Recently India has made a huge investment in Sakhalin-I (a) Ghana (b) Ukraine
Oilfield. Where is it located ? (c) Angola (d) Australia [2006-II]
(a) Indonesia (b) Russia 10. The film director of which country won the Best Film Award
(c) Sudan (d) Vietnam [2006-I] and Golden Peacock at the 37th International Film Festival
2. What is the nickname of the recently discovered planet in of India held recently in Goa ?
our solar system ? (a) China (b) Iran
(a) Diana (b) Mona (c) Bangladesh (d) Russia [2007-I]
(c) Tina (d) Xena [2006-I] 11. In which country was the recent NAM Summit held?
3. Who is Benjamin Carson who was recently in the news ? (a) Philippines (b) Indonesia
(a) The World Bank expert to examine the dispute on (c) Cuba (d) Brazil [2007-I]
Bhaglihar Hydro Project 12. According to International Astronomical Union which one
(b) The latest US Ambassador to India of the following has lost its status as a planet?
(c) The neuro-surgeon who separated the conjoined twins (a) Jupiter (b) Uranus
(d) Recipient of Jamnalal Bajaj Award for promoting (c) Neptune (d) Pluto [2007-I]
Gandhian values outside India [2006-I] 13. Who among the following was recently presented with the
4. In the 52nd National Film Awards, whom did the President Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development
of India confer the Nargis Dutt Award for Best Feature Film for the year 2005 ? [2007-I]
on National Integration ? (a) Hamid Karzai (b) Hu Jintao
(a) Adoori Gopalakrishnan (c) Mahinda Rajapakse (d) Gloria Macapagal Arroyo
(b) D. Rama Naidu 14. In which game does Suman Bala represent India? [2007-I]
(c) Shyam Benegal (d) Yash Chopra [2006-I] (a) Chess (b) Women’s Hockey
5. Which country won the Hockey Champions Trophy held in (c) Shot-put (d) Women’s Cricket
Chennai in December, 2005 ? 15. Who among the following have scored more than 3000 runs
(a) Netherlands (b) Australia in cricket test matches and taken more than 300 test wickets?
(c) Germany (d) Spain [2006-I] 1. Kapil Dev 2. Shane Warne
6. How is Harold Pinter well known as ? 3. Imran Khan 4. Shaun Pollock
(a) Film director in the Hollywood Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(b) Nobel Laureate in literature (a) 1,2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Leading industrialist in telecommunication industry (c) 1 and 4 only (d) All Four [2007-I]
(d) Nuclear scientist of the United Kingdom [2006-II] 16. The Parliament of which one of the following proclaimed its
7. Consider the following statements : country as an Independent State in the year 2006 after taking
1. Asian Games-2010 will be held in China. the referendum of its people?
2. The First Asian Games were held in Jakarta, Indonesia. (a) Macedonia (b) Montenegro
3. Chess has been included for the first time as an event (c) Belarus
having medals in the 15th Asian Games-2006 to be held (d) Democratic Republic of Congo [2007-I]
in Doha. 17. Where was the last meeting of Asia-Pacific Economic
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Cooperation (APEC) held?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 (a) Kuala Lumpur (b) Manila
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 3 [2006-II] (c) Hanoi (d) Jakarta [2007-I]
8. Which one of the following countries has won the Football 18. On one Sunday in December 2006, what was the reason for
World Cup twice but did not participate in the 2006 FIFA hundreds of thousands of agitators to gather in downtown
World Cup held in Germany ? Beirut?
(a) Belgium (b) Denmark (a) To protest against US support to Israel in Lebanon’s
(c) Colombia (d) Uruguay [2006-II] conflict with Israel
9. Which one of the countries who participated in the 2006 (b) To protest against the US interference in Iraq and
FIFA World Cup was not the first time participant in the Afghanistan
World Football Cup?
Current Affairs G-261
(c) To demand their Prime Minister to step down or cede 31. Who among the following was the Director of the film Kaal
power to the opposition Purush, which was adjudged as the best feature film in the
(d) To show their solidarity with the Palestenians in their 53rd National Film Awards( 2007)?
conflict with Israel [2007-I] (a) Ritwik Ghatak (b) Buddhadev Dasgupta
19. Who won the French Open Tennis Tournament, 2007 (c) J.P. Dutta (d) Asit Sen [2008-II]
(Men’s Singles)? 32. Who among the following is the winner of the Wimbledon
(a) Carlos Moya (b) Andy Roddick Men’s Singles title 2008 ? [2009-I]
(c) Rafael Nadal (d) Roger Federer [2007-II] (a) Roger Federer (b) Rafael Nadal
20. Where were the Olympic Games, 2004 held? (c) Novak Djokovic (d) Andy Roddick
(a) Madrid (b) Buenos Aires 33. Who among the following has been presented the Leontief
(c) Athens (d) Rome [2007-II] Award, 2009 for his/her outstanding contributions to the
21. The President of which one of the following countries has field of economic theory ? [2009-II]
been awarded the Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International (a) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
Understanding, 2006? (b) Prof. Bina Agarwal
(a) Argentina (b) Brazil (c) Prof. Amartya Sen
(c) Mexico (d) Venezuela [2007-II] (d) Jagdish Bhagwati
22. Which one of the following has recently made it to the 34. Consider the following statements [2009-II]
Guinness Book of World Records for being the world’s 1. M uhammad Hamdulla Sayeed, elected from
largest Hindu temple complex? Lakshadweep parliamentary constituency, is the
(a) Sri Venkateshvara Templex Complex, Tirupati\ youngest MP in the 15th Lok Sabha.
(b) The ISKCON Temple Complex, New Delhi 2. Agatha K. Sangma is the youngest Union Minister in
(c) Swaminarayan Akshardham Temple complex, New the 15th Lok Sabha who represents Shillong
Delhi parliamentary constituency.
(d) Lingaraja Temple Complex, Bhubaneshwer [2008-I] Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
23. How is Ban-ki Moon known as ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) President of Sount Korea (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Head of World Bank 35. Consider the following statements about the accident of
(c) A famouns scientist of Genetic Engineering AF 447, which crashed over the Atlantic Ocean on 1st June,
(d) Secretary General of UN [2008-I] 2009 [2009-II]
24. Who among the following has been declared as best 1. The Airbus A330-200 was on its way to Rio de Janeiro
footballer for the year 2007by FIFA ? from Paris.
(a) Ronaldo (b) Kaka 2. The scheduled flight usually crosses the Tropic of
(c) Ronaldinho (d) Roberto Carlos [2008-I] Cancer on its way to its destination.
25. In the year 2007, in which one of the following place was Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
the “UN Framework Convention on Climate Change” Held? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Bali (b) Guam (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Hawaii (d) Seychelles [2008-I] 36. Which among the following statements about Nirupam Sen
26. Recently, the Inter-Governmental Panel on Climate Change is/are correct? [2010-II]
shared the Nobal Prize with who of the following? I. In the year 2009 he was appointed as Special Senior
(a) Al Gore (b) Ban-ki-Moon Adviser to the President of the UN General Assembly
(c) Bill Clinton (d) John Howard [2008-I] on the world financial and economic crisis.
27. Recently, in which one of the following countries did a II. He was formerly the Indian Ambassador to the UK.
large number of monks make protest marches against the Select the correct answer using the code given below
government? (a) I only (b) II only
(a) Cambodia (b) Japan (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
(c) Myanmar (d) Vietnam [2008-I] 37. In a rare case, a record number of about 20000 employees of
28. Who among the following was awarded the Ramon the Government of Kerala retired on a single day (on 31
Magsaysay award in the category of Journalims, Literature March 2010). Which among the following statements is/are
and Creative Communication in 2007? correct in this respect? [2010-II]
(a) A. Kejriwal (b) P. Sainath I. The mass retirement follows the Kerala government's
(c) L. Ramdas (d) V. Shanta [2008-II] move to allow employees retiring any day during the
29. According to the International Food Policy Research year to work till March 31.
Institute Report 2007, India is on which one of the following II. In a recent bid to reduce burden on the state exchequer,
positions on global hunger index? the Government of Kerala reduced the retirement age
(a) 94 (b) 95 of government employees from 59 to 58 years.
(c) 96 (d) 97 [2008-II] III. More than 50% of those retired were from the Education
30. Who among the following Indian origin immigrants has department.
become the Governor of Louisiana province of the USA in Select the correct answer using the code given below
2007? (a) I, II and III (b) I and III only
(a) Swaraj Paul (b) Laxmi Mittal (c) II and III only (d) I only
(c) Vikram Pandit (d) Bobby Jindal [2008-II]
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38. Car manufacturer Maruti has stopped selling its popular 1. India registered a 20 per cent decline in tiger population
brand Maruti 800 in some major cities of India from 1st of over the last survey in the year 2006. [2011-II]
April 2010. Which among the following statements is/are 2. The report warns that tigers are in danger due to an
correct in this regard? [2010-II] overall more than 12 per cent loss of habitat.
I. The engine of the car is unable to meet the stricter Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Bharat Stage IV norms that become mandatory in some (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
major cities of India from that date. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
II. The company has decided to promote another brand 45. Government of India in July 2011 gave its nod for accepting
of car in the small car segment in some select cities. international regulations for the prevention of air pollution
III. The company wants to shorten its product line. Select emanating from ships. In this regard, which of the following
the correct answer using the code given below statements is/are correct?
(a) I, II and III (b) I only 1. According to the regulations, limits have been set on
(c) II and III only (d) II only Sulphur oxide and Nitrogen oxide emissions from ship
39. In a major eco-friendly step towards renewable energy exhausts.
generation in India, in June 2010 seaweed sourced ethanol 2. India is the first country to ratify to the Convention for
(ethyl alcohol), a biofuel additive in transport fuel, has been the Prevention of Pollution from Ships of the
used to run a car for the fIrst time. With regard to this which International Maritime Organisation. [2011-II]
of the following statements is/are correct? [2010-II] Select the correct answer using the code given below:
I. Experiment in this direction was carried out by the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
scientists of Central Salt and Marine Chemicals (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Research Institute (CSMCRI), Bhavnagar. 46. The Supreme Court of India on July 29, 2011 directed the
II. India has become the first country in the world to suspension of all mining operations and transportation in
produce and use green fuel to run cars. Bellary district of Karnataka till further orders. In this respect,
Select the correct answer using the code given below which of the following statements is/are correct? [2011-II]
(a) I only 1. The Court was convinced that over- exploration of the
(b) II only area had caused large- scale environmental degradation.
(c) Both I and II 2. The Court felt that Article 21 of the Constitution (Right
(d) Neither I nor II to life) was violated by such exploration.
40. Which of the following aspects with regard to the 3. The Court directed the Central Government to prepare
T-20 world cup (Men's) cricket and T-20 world cup rehabilitaion scheme for restoration of the forest wealth.
(Women’s) cricket touranaments held in the year 2010 was/ Select the correct answer using the code given below
were common (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
[2010-II] (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
I. Both the tournaments were won by England. 47. Which one among the following statements regarding South
II. The tournaments were held in West Indies. Sudan, who officially joined the international community as
III. Here was a tie match each in both the tournaments. an independent nation of July 9, 2011, is not correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below [2011-II]
(a) I only (b) II only (a) The capital of the new nation os Juba
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III only (b) It is Africa’s first post- colonial nation
41. Which one among the following films won the Nargis Dutt (c) India has stationed peacekeepers in South Sudan
Award for best feature film on national integration in the (d) The Nile flows through Sudan before entering South
57th National Film Award given in the year 2010 ? [2011-I] Sudan and then flowing into Egypt
(a) Well done Abba (b) Lahore 48. Why was Sucheta Kadethankar in the news recently?
(c) Delhi-6 (d) Paa [2011-II]
42. Consider the following statements about the visit of Indian (a) She secured highest rank among women in Civil
President Smt. Pratibha Patil to Mongolia in July 2011: Services Examination 2010
1. She became the first Indian President to make an official (b) She is the first Indian to cross the Gobi Desert
visit to the country. (c) She is the first Indian to cross the English Channel
2. In the area of defence, India and Mongolia agreed to (d) She is the first Indian to climb Mount Everest twice
expand collaboration through increased level of joint
49. In recent past, the Indian Navy has deployed its fleet ships
exercises and training. [2011-II]
to patrol near the Gulf of Aden to [2012-I]
(a) show off its naval might to neighbouring countries
(b) indicate dominant intentions in the Indian Ocean region
43. Who, among the following, is the latest Indian to win the (c) carry out anti-piracy role
Pulitzer Prize for literature? [2011-II] (d) exercise operational readiness in international water
(a) Jhumpa Lahiri (b) Geeta Anand 50. Who among the following was conferred the highest
(c) Gobind Behari Lal (d) Siddhartha Mukherjee Bangladesh award-the Bangladesh Swadhinata Sammanona
44. Consider the following statements about a report on ‘Status in the year 2011? [2012-I]
of Tigers, Co-predators and Prey in India, 2010’ released by (a) Indira Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi
the Ministry of Environment and Forests in July 2011: (c) Jyoti Basu (d) Satyajit Ray
51. Dhanush, a missile inducted into the Indian Navy (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
[2012-I] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) is a customized and naval variant of Prithvi missile 58. Suppose, the Naxalites have kidnapped a Deputy
(b) has a range of 700 km Commissioner from Baster region in Chhattisgarh and taken
(c) can be launched from an aircraft him to the Abujmad area. In return for his release, the Naxals
(d) cannot carry nuclear warheads demand that all Naxal prisoners must be released from jails
52. India commissioned its first indigenously built stealth across India. In such a situation which among the following
warship INS Shivalik and inducted into the Indian Navy may be the best conflict resolution mechanism ?
recently, thus joining the elite group of countries capable of 1. The paramilitary and local police attack the Naxalites
constructing such vessels. Which among the following other and attempt to release the kidnapped.
countries are in the elite group? [2012-I] 2. The state forces offer huge sums of money to the
1. Russia Naxals as ransom and release all Naxal prisoners.
2. The United States 3. The state forces engaged the Naxals in a dialogue while
simultaneously sending in a commando force to release
3. Germany
the prisoners.
4. The United Kingdom 4. The state forces utilize local mediators to engage with
Select the correct answer using the code given below : the Naxals to workout a resolution process for release
Code : of the kidnapped. [2012-II]
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
53. Who among the following was recently (May 2012) elected (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only
as Chairman of the Asian Development Bank's Board of 59. The UN has recently passed a resolution against human
Governors ? [2012-II] right violation in a South Asian country. Which of the
(a) Pranab Mukherjee following was the country ? [2012-II]
(b) Montek Singh Ahluwalia (a) Nepal (b) India
(c) Duvvuri Subbarao (c) Pakistan (d) Sri Lanka
(d) Aditya Puri 60. Prof. Vijay Raghavan, an Indian scientist, who has been elected
54. Consider the following statements : Fellow of Royal Society in the year 2012, is a renowned
1. Justice Dalveer Bhandari was recently elected as the (a) Biotechnologist (b) Chemist [2012-II]
President of Internationad Court of Justice. (c) Agricultural scientist (d) Missile engineer
2. Justice Bhandari was a senior Judge of the Supreme 61. ‘Operation Cactus’ is the name given to Indian Military
Court of India. [2012-II] intervention in [2012-II]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) Maldives (b) Sri Lanka
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Bangladesh (d) Bhutan
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 62. Which one among the following films won the prestigious
55. Consider the following names in the field of Indian cinema : Golden Globe Award, 2013 in the best motion picture—
Vidya Balan Drama category? [2013-I]
Soumitra Chatterjee (a) Life of Pi (b) Argo
Tapan Sinha (c) Lincoln (d) Les Miserables
VK Murthy 63. Who among the following is a sports-person who has won
Which of the following statements is/are correct ? the maximum number of gold medals in Summer Olympic
Games? [2013-I]
1. All of them are winners of Dadasaheb Phalke award.
2. While Tapan Sinha is a film director VK Murthy is (a) Paavo Nurmi (b) Carl Lewis
known for cinematography (c) Michael Phelps (d) Mark Spitz
3. Soumitra Chatterjee was the last to get the Dadasaheb 64. Which one among the following has completed thirty years
Phalke award. [2012-II] of its development on 1st January, 2013? [2013-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (TCP/IP)
(b) Computer Network
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
56. Who among the following was awarded the first Tagore (c) Social Networking Sites
Award for Cultural Harmony for the year 2012 ? [2012-II] (d) Network Control Protocol (NCP)
(a) Jasraj (b) Ravi Shankar 65. Which of the following statements is/are correct? [2013-I]
(c) Nikhil Banerjee (d) Bhimsen Joshi 1. The 14th Finance Commission was constituted under
the Chairmanship of Shri Vijay Kelkar.
57. Consider the following about the budget proposals for the
year 2012-2013 : 2. The 14th Finance Commission has been specifically
asked also to recommend how non-priority PSUs be
1. Service tax rate raised and covers all services including
relinquished.
those in the negative list.
2. Increase in defence allocation over the previous year. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
[2012-II]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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66. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
[2013-I] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. UN General Assembly in November 2012 adopted a (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
resolution banning death penalty. 75. Who among the following is the author of the book Pax
2. India voted against the resolution. Indica: India and the World of the 21st Century? [2013-II]
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) Shashi Tharoor (b) Salman Khurshid
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) S. M. Krishna (d) Pranab Mukherjee
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 76. Which one among the following about Prof. C.N.R. Rao is
67. Which one among the following stock exchanges was not correct? [2013-II]
closed for two continuous days in October 2012 due to the (a) He worked mainly in solid-state and structural
devastating effects of Hurricane Sandy? [2013-I] chemistry
(a) New York Stock Exchange (b) He is the head of the Scientific Advisory Council to
(b) Toronto Stuck Exchange the President of India
(c) National Stock Exchange of Australia (c) He was conferred with China’s top science award for
(d) London Stock Exchange the year 2013 for his contributions in boosting Sino-
68. Consider the following statements about the National Cyber Indian scientific cooperation
Security Policy, approved by the Union Cabinet in May 2013: (d) He is a member of the US National Academy of Sciences.
[2013-II] 77. Jawahar tunnel on Jammu-Srinagar highway passes through
1. The policy focuses on manpower training. [2013-II]
2. It aims to create a secured computing environment (a) Pir Panjal range (b) Karakoram range
across the country. (c) Zaskar range (d) Dhauladhar range
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 78. The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission report
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only submitted recently, among others, contained which of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 following proposals? [2014-I]
69. Which of the following statements about Dr. Aparajita Datta 1. All regulators will have an empowered board, the role
is/are correct? [2013-II] of each of the members has been defined.
1. She is a wildlife biologist. 2. The Commission envisages an important process of
2. She has been working for the conservation of hornbills judicial review of the regulations.
in the dense tropical forests of Arunachal Pradesh. 3. The draft code does not mention about executive
3 She was honoured with the Whitley Award, also known powers.
as Green Oscar, in the year 2013 in London. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 only 79. The Bali Ministerial Declaration and the ministerial decisions
70. Who among the following won the Men’s Singles title of that were adopted on 7th December, 2013 contained several
the Madrid Open Tennis Tournament, 2013? [2013-II] issues. Which of the following are related to the Least-
(a) Novak Djokovic (b) Rafael Nadal Developed Countries? [2014-I]
(c) Roger Federer (d) Stanislas Wawrinka 1. Preferential Rules of Origin for Least-Developed
71. Which one among the following films was presented the Countries
Best Feature Film award in the 60th National Film Awards? 2. Operationalization of th e Waiver Concerning
[2013-II] Preferential Treatment to Services
(a) Dekh Indian Circus (b) Vicky Donor 3. Duty-Free and Quota-Free (DFQF) Market Access for
(c) Paan Singh Tomar (d) Chittagong Least-Developed Countries
72. Which one among the following is an indigenously built Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Weapon System Integrated helicopter handed over to the (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
Indian Army in February 2013 by Hindustan Aeronautics (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ltd.? [2013-II] 80. Which of the following is/are true relating to the Lokpal Bill,
(a) Varun (b) Indra 2013, which was assented to by the President on 1st January,
(c) Rudra (d) Shiva 2014? [2014-I]
73. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Fourteenth 1. It provides for creation of antigraft ombundsman to
Finance Commission? [2013-II] investigate corruption charges against public
(a) Abhijit Sen functionaries including the Prime Minister, Ministers
(b) Y. V. Reddy and Members of the Parliament.
(c) Amartya Sen 2. The Bill makes it incumbent upon States to make within
(d) Montek Singh Ahluwalia a year their own law for setting up Lokayuktas on the
74. Which of the following statements about ‘Chit Fund’ in India lines of the Lokpal Bill.
is/are correct? [2013-II] 3. States are free not to set up Lokayuktas, if they do not
1. It is a kind of savings scheme. so desire.
2. There are no Acts regulating the activities relating to States the correct answer using the code given below.
Chit Funds in India. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
81. Which of the following is/are correct relating to the North- 88. From which one among the following countries has India
Eastern Region Community Resources Management Project recently (May 2014) recalled its troops, who went for a joint
for upland areas? [2014-I] combat exercise in the country? [2014-II]
1. It is a livelihood and rural development project aimed (a) Malaysia (b) Thailand
to transform the lives of the poor and marginalized (c) Egypt (d) Singapore
tribal families in North-East India. 89. Which of the following country/countries successfully
2. This Project is initiated exclusively by the North-Eastern inserted a spacecraft into Mars orbit by maiden attempt ?
Council. [2015-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) USA (b) USA and Russia
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) India (d) China
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 90. The European Space Agency (ESA) successfully landed a
82. Consider the following statements: [2014-I] spacecraft on a speeding comet that lies 310 million miles
1. ‘SAMRATH 2014’ a national festival for showcasing away from Earth. As a result, the scientists may find out
the abilities of persons with disabilities, was organized [2015-I]
recently in New Delhi by the Ministry of Culture. (a) the age of the Sun
2. India is a party to the United Nations Convention on (b) the age of the Universe
the Rights of Persons with Disabilities. (c) new fundamental atomic particles
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (d) the role of the comets in bringing organic matter and
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only water to Earth
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 91. Who among the following Nobel laureates has recently
83. Consider the following statements about ‘Sahayog Kaijin’: announced to put his Nobel Medal under auction ?
[2014-I] [2015-I]
1. It is a joint exercise of the Coast Guards of India and (a) Kailash Satyarthi (b) J D Watson
Japan. (c) Mikhail Gorbachev (d) Jody Williams
2. Its 13th edition was held recently off Chennai Port. 92. Which one among the following statements with regard to a
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? climate deal adopted between USA and China in November
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2014 is not correct? [2015-I]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) China committed to cap its output of carbon pollution
84. Which one among the following countries was the top by the year 2030 or earlier
contributor to India’s FDI for the year 2013-14? [2014-II] (b) China committed to increase its use of zero emission
(a) Mauritius (b) Singapore energy to 20% by the year 2030
(c) USA (d) Japan (c) USA agreed to reduce its emissions by 26% – 28%
85. Which of the following statements about SIMBEX below its year 2005 levels in the year 2025
14 is/are correct? [2014-II] (d) Both the countries agreed to completely phase out coal
1. It was a bilateral naval exercise between Indian navy technologies by the year 2020
and Sri Lankan navy. 93. Who among the following cricket players has not died while
2. It was the 21st in the series. playing a match ? [2015-I]
3. It was conducted in the Andaman Sea. (a) Wasim Raja (b) Phillip Hughes
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Raman Lamba (d) Vijay Hazare
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only 94. Which one among the following films was conferred the
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only ‘Golden Peacock’ award in the 45th International Film
86. Consider the following statements: [2014-II] Festival of India (2014) ? [2015-I]
1. Mobile Seva, the National Mobile Governance (a) Ek Hazarachi Note (b) A Short Story
Initiative of Department of Electronics and Information (c) Leviathan (d) Ajeyo
Technology of India, has won the United Nations 95. Which one among the following films was awarded the best
Public Service Award, 2014. motion picture (Drama) in the 72nd Golden Globe Awards ?
2. The innovative initiative is aimed at mainstreaming [2015-I]
mobile governance in the country. (a) The Theory of Everything
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Boyhood
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Still Alice
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Birdman
87. Consider the following statements about Prithvi-II Missile: 96. East Zone won the prestigious Deodhar Trophy cricket
[2014-II] tournament 2014-15 by defeating [2015-I]
1. It is a nuclear-capable ballistic missile. (a) South Zone (b) Central Zone
2. It has a maximum range of 100 km (c) West Zone (d) North Zone
3. It is India’s first native made ballistic missile. 97. Which one of the following books won the Man Booker
Prize 2014 ? [2015-I]
(a) History of the Rain
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
(b) The Lives of Others
(c) The Narrow Road to the Deep North
(d) How to be Both
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98. The 19 th Federation Cup National Senior Athletic 108. The world’s largest biomass cookstove system for cooking
Championships (2015) was held in: [2015-II] in community kitchen has been installed at [2016-II]
(a) Karnataka (b) Haryana (a) Tirupati (b) Amritsar
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Kerala (c) Shirdi (d) Udupi
99. Which one of the following nations adopted its first 109. Which of the following statements with regard to coverage
democratic constitution in September 2015? [2016-I] rate of Aadhar cards during 2015 is/are correct ?[2016-II]
(a) Bhutan (b) Myanmar 1. The coverage rate of Aadhar cards in western India is
(c) Nepal (d) Singapore quite high and it is above 90 percent in Gujarat.
100. Who among the following was defeated by Novak Djokovic 2. The coverage rate of Aadhar cards is the highest in
in the final of the US Open Tennis Tournament Men’s Singles southern India and it is almost 100 percent in the states
event (2015)? [2016-I] of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
(a) Tommy Robredo (b) Fabio Fognini 3. The penctration of Aadhar cards has been very low in
(c) Roger Federer (d) Pablo Cuevas north-eastern part of India and it is the lowest in Assam
101. Which of the following is/are the component/components and Meghalay.
of the Integrated Power Development Scheme launched by Select the correct answer using the code given below :
the Government of India recently ? [2016-I] (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
1. Strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
networks in the urban areas 110. The United Nations proclaimed 21 june as [2016-II]
2. Metering of distribution transformers/feeders/ (a) International Mother Language Day
consumers in the rural areas (b) International widow’s Day
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) International Day of yoga
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) International Day against Drug Abuse and illicit
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Trafficking
102. Who among the following was defeated by Saina Nehwal 111. According to the Census 2011, the density of population
to win the women’s title of the Australian Open Super Series in which one among the following States in the lowest?
Badminton Tournament, 2016? [2016-II] [2017-I]
(a) Sun Yu (b) Caroline Marin (a) Sikkim (b) Nagaland
(c) Wang Yihan (d) Sung Ji Hyun (c) Manipur (d) Mizoram
103. Consider the following statements: 112. Dr. Urjit Patel, who has been appointed recently as
He was an Indian journalist, editor and author. He was Governor of Reserve Bank of India, was holding which
associated with the Statesman, the Guardian, the Times of position immediately prior to this appointment? [2017-I]
India etc. He received the Ramnath Goenka Lifetime (a) Chief Economist, IMF
Achievement Award in 2013. He died in june 2016. (b) Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India
[2016-II] (c) Chief Economic Advisor to the Government of India
The person referred to above is (d) Professor of Economics at Harvard University
(a) B K Karanjia (b) K M Mathew 113. Who among the following personalities is NOT a Governor
(c) Inder Malhotra (d) Nanasaheb Parulckar of any Indian State? [2017-I]
104. Achyut Lahkar, who died recently, was a [2016-II] (a) Najma Heptulla
(a) sports administrator (b) wildlife photographar (b) Ram Nath Kovind
(c) mobile theatre personality (d) bureaucrat (c) Acharya Dev Vrat
105. Recently Microsoft announced its 26.2 billion dollar (d) Arvind Subramaniam
acquisition of which one of the following professional 114. Which of the following cricket teams was defeated by India
networking sites? [2016-II] to lift the Women's Twenty 20 Asia Cup 2016? [2017-I]
(a) Partner Up (b) Perfect Business (a) Bangladesh (b) Sri Lanka
(c) Startup Nation (d) Linked In (c) Pakistan (d) Afghanistan
106. Which of the following statements regarding recent 115. Which one of the following was the venue of 2nd BRICS
developments in international affairs is/are correct ? [2016-II] Youth Summit of the Ministers, Officials and Youth
1. NATO’s defence ministers agree to boost support for Delegations? [2017-I]
Ukraine with a comprehensive package of assistance (a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai
which will help it strengthen defence and to modernize (c) Shillong (d) Guwahati
its armed forces. 116. Which one among the following States of India has recently
2. Israel announces plans for construction of dwelling proposed to frame the first Internal Security Act to deal wih
units for Jewish settlers in a palestinian neighbourhood the challenges of terrorism, insurgency, communalism and
of East Jerusalem. caste violence? [2017-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 117. Which one among the following countries is the largest
107. Which countr y won the Thomas cup Badminton trading partner of India in external trade for the year
Championship, 2016 ? [2016-II] 2015-2016? [2017-I]
(a) Indonesia (b) Denmark (a) United States of America (b) United Kingdom
(c) China (d) Malaysia (c) United Arab Emirates (d) China
118. Which one of the following cities hosted the 3rd World (a) Secretary, Department of Financial Services
Trauma Congress recently? [2017-I] (b) Special Secretary, Department of Revenue
(a) New Delhi (b) Dacca (c) Special Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Singapore (d) Bangkok (d) Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India
119. Which one of the following is NOT one of the objectives of 127. In April 2017, India celebrated 100 years of Mahatma
Look East Policy? [2017-I] Gandhi's [2017-II]
(a) To promote economic cooperation, cultural ties and (a) Satyagraha in Kheda
develop strategic relationship with countries in the (b) Dandi March
Asia-Pacific region (c) Satyagraha in Champaran
(b) To promote peace and amity with the neighbouring
(d) Return from South Africa
countries of Asia
128. According to the Travel and Tourism Competitiveness
(c) To place emphasis on India- ASEAN cooperation in
India's domestic agenda Index (TTCI) 2017 released by the World Economic Forum,
(d) To provide enhanced connectivity to the North East among the 136 economies across the world, India ranked
of India [2017-II]
120. Arrange the following countries in ascending order on the (a) 50th (b) 40th
basis of the total medals earned by them in Rio Olympic (c) 30th (d) 20th
2016 : [2017-I] 129. Which one of the following is the theme of the World Health
1. United States 2. China Day, 2017 celebrated by the World Health Organization?
3. Great Britain 4. Russia [2017-II]
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) Diabetes (b) Food Safety
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4 (c) Depression: Let's Talk (d) Ageing and Health
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2 130. Which one of the following Ministries has launched a new
121. Which one of the following is NOT an objective of the programme on Interdisciplinary Cyber Physical Systems
National Civil Aviation Policy 2016? [2017-I] (ICPS) to foster and promote R&D? [2017-II]
(a) Establish an integrated eco-system which will lead to (a) Ministry of Earth Sciences
significant growth of civil aviation sector (b) Ministry of Science and Technology
(b) To promote tourism, increase employment and lead to (c) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
a balanced regional growth
(d) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(c) Ensure safety, security and sustainability of all sectors
through the use of technology 131. Which of the following statements about ‘Aadi Mahostav’
(d) Enhance regional connectivity through fiscal support held recently in New Delhi is/are correct? [2018-I]
and infrastructure development. 1. The theme of the festival was ‘A Celebration of the
122. Which one of the following was set as a target of average Spirit of Tribal Culture, Cuisine and Commerce’
growth of GDP of Indian over the plane period 2012–2017 2. The festival was organized by the Ministry of Tourism,
by the Approach Paper to the Twelfth Five Year Plan? Government of India
[2017-II] Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 7 percent (b) 8 percent (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 9 percent (d) 10 percent (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
123. Who among the following is the winner of the Singapore 132. Which of the following statements regarding construction
Open Superseries Badminton Men's Singles title 2017? of Rohtang tunnel is NOT correct? [2018-I]
[2017-II] (a) It is located at an altitude of 5,000 feet
(a) Kidambi Srikanth (b) Lin Dan (b) It will provided all-year connectivity to Lahaul and Spiti
(c) B. Sai Praneeth (d) Kento Momota Valley
124. Which one of the following is the theme of the International (c) The tunnel is being built by the Border Roads
Day for Monuments and Sites (World Heritage Day) 2017? Organization
[2017-II] (d) It will reduce the length of the Leh-Manali highway by
(a) The Heritage of Sport approximately 50 km
(b) Cultural Heritage and Sustainable Tourism
133. Who among the following recently became the first woman
(c) Past and Present Heritage
pilot in Indian Navy? [2018-I]
(d) Heritage and Science
125. In April 2017, USA dropped MOAB (Massive Ordnance (a) Astha Segal
Air Blast popularly known as the Mother of all Bombs) in (b) Roopa A
the suspected hideouts of militants in which one of the (c) Sakthi Maya S
following countries? [2017-II] (d) Shubhangi Swaroop
(a) Iran (b) Syria 134. Which one of the following countries has failed to quality
(c) Afghanistan (d) Somalia for the first time in 60 years for the FIFA World Cup to be
126. Who among the following is the Chairman of the held in Russia in the year 2018? [2018-I]
Interdisciplinary Committee constituted recentlly by the (a) Mexico (b) Iran
Government of India to examine framework for virtual (c) Saudi Arabia (d) Italy
currencies ? [2017-II]
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135. The Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI) is a (a) Chhattisgarh (b) Manipur
forum for dialogue on defence partnership between India (c) Kerala (d) West Bengal
and [2018-I] 143. Sentosa island, which was in news recently, is located in
(a) Russia [2018-II]
(b) United States of America (a) Singapore (b) China
(c) Israel (c) Australia (d) Sri Lanka
(d) France 144. India, in June 2018, asserted that any mega connectivity
136. As per the policy applicable in 2017, how much Foreign project must respect sovereignty and territorial integrity of
Direct Investment (FDI) is permitted in the defence sector in the countries. The project referred to above is [2018-II]
India? [2018-I] (a) North-South Corridor Project
(a) 49 per cent through the automatic route (b) Belt and Road Initiative
(b) 26 per cent through the government route (c) Chabahar Port
(c) 26 per cent through the automatic route and beyond (d) Panama Canal Expansion
that up to 49 per cent through the government route 145. Which one of the following Indian States (other then
(d) 75 per cent through the automatic route Himalayan or NE States) ranked first in the Composite Water
137. Which one of the following countries did NOT participate Management Index as per the report issued by the NITI
in the 21st edition of Exercise Malabar? [2018-I] Aayog in June 2018? [2018-II]
(a) United States of America (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Karnataka
(b) Japan (c) Gujarat (d) Maharashtra
(c) India 146. Dr. Bindeshwar Pathak, who was awarded Nikkei Asia Prize,
(d) Australia 2018 for Culture and Community, is the founder of [2018-II]
138. Justice Dalveer Bhandari of India was recently re-elected to (a) Bachpan Bachao Andolan
the International Court of Justice after Christopher (b) PRS Legislative Research
Greenwood pulled out before 12th round of voting. (c) Sulabh Sanitation and Social Reform Movement
Christopher Greenwood was a nominee of [2018-I] (d) Smile Foundation
(a) Canada (b) Russia 147. Who among the following was awarded The Hindu Prize in
(c) Britain (d) USA Fiction category for the year 2018 ? [2019-I]
139. In order to review the Income Tax Act, 1961 and to draft a (a) Neelum Saran Gour (b) N Kalyan Raman
new Direct Tax Law in consonance with economic needs of (c) Manoranjan Byapari (d) Arunav Sinha
the country, the Government of India in November 2017 has 148. Who among the following was appointed as head of the
constituted a Task Force. Who among the following is made seven member committee to look into revenue shortfall
the convenor of it? [2018-I] being faced by the states after the GST roll-out in India and
(a) Shri Arvind Subramanian suggest steps for augmenting collections ? [2019-I]
(b) Shri Arbind Modi (a) Himanta Biswa Sharma (b) Thomas Isaac
(c) Shri Amitabh Kant (c) Sushil Modi (d) Capt Abhimanyu
(d) Dr. Bibek Debroy 149. The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, 2019 was held in
140. The 5th Global Conference on Cyber Space (GCCS) was [2019-I]
held in New Delhi in November 2017. Which of the following (a) New Delhi (b) Gandhi Nagar
statements about GCCS is/are correct? [2018-I] (c) Prayagraj (d) Varanasi
1. The 4th version of GCCS was held in London. 150. Which one of the following cities was named by UNESCO
2. The main theme of GCCS 2017 is ‘Cyber4All: A Secure as World Capital of Architecture for 2020 ? [2019-I]
and Inclusive Cyberspace for Sustainable (a) Tokyo (b) Johannesburg
Development’. (c) Rio de Janerio (d) New Delhi
3. ‘Bindu’ is the logo of GCCS 2017. 151. Who among the following was named ICC’s emerging
Select the correct answer using the code given below: player of the year 2018 ? [2019-I]
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Rishabh Pant (b) Josh Hazlewood
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Hasan Ali (d) Mustafizur Rahman
141. Which one of the following is the Official Mascot of the 152. Who among the following was posthumously conferred
FIFA World Cup, 2018? [2018-II] with the Ashoka Chakra, India’s highest peacetime gallantry
(a) Fuleco (b) Zakumi award, in 2019 ? [2019-I]
(c) Pille (d) Zabivaka (a) Jyoti Prakash Nirala (b) Nazir Ahmad Wani
142. The Headquarters of the proposed National Sports (c) Hangpan Dada (d) Mohan Nath Goswami
University (as per the National Sports University Ordinance,
2018) will be set up in [2018-II]
ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 16 (b) 31 (b) 46 (b) 61 (a) 76 (b) 91 (b) 106 (c) 121 (c) 136 (a) 151 (a)
2 (d) 17 (c) 32 (c) 47 (b) 62 (b) 77 (a) 92 (d) 107 (b) 122 (c) 137 (d) 152 (b)
3 (a) 18 (c) 33 (b) 48 (b) 63 (c) 78 (a) 93 (d) 108 (c) 123 (c) 138 (c)
4 (c) 19 (c) 34 (c) 49 (c) 64 (a) 79 (a) 94 (c) 109 (b) 124 (b) 139 (b)
5 (b) 20 (c) 35 (b) 50 (a) 65 (d) 80 (a) 95 (b) 110 (c) 125 (c) 140 (c)
6 (b) 21 (b) 36 (c) 51 (a) 66 (c) 81 (a) 96 (c) 111 (d) 126 (c) 141 (d)
7 (d) 22 (c) 37 (b) 52 (b) 67 (a) 82 (b) 97 (c) 112 (b) 127 (c) 142 (b)
8 (d) 23 (d) 38 (b) 53 (a) 68 (c) 83 (a) 98 (a) 113 (d) 128 (b) 143 (a)
9 (d) 24 (c) 39 (c) 54 (b) 69 (a) 84 (b) 99 (c) 114 (c) 129 (c) 144 (b)
10 (a) 25 (a) 40 (b) 55 (b) 70 (b) 85 (b) 100 (c) 115 (d) 130 (b) 145 (c)
11 (c) 26 (a) 41 (c) 56 (b) 71 (c) 86 (c) 101 (a) 116 (a) 131 (a) 146 (c)
12 (d) 27 (c) 42 (c) 57 (d) 72 (c) 87 (c) 102 (a) 117 (d) 132 (a) 147 (a)
13 (a) 28 (b) 43 (d) 58 (c) 73 (b) 88 (b) 103 (c) 118 (a) 133 (d) 148 (c)
14 (b) 29 (c) 44 (c) 59 (d) 74 (a) 89 (c) 104 (c) 119 (b) 134 (d) 149 (d)
15 (d) 30 (d) 45 (a) 60 (a) 75 (a) 90 (d) 105 (c) 120 (c) 135 (b) 150 (c)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

4. (c) The President of India confer the Nargis Dutt Award 34. (c) Both the given statements are true.
for the Best Feature Film on National Integration to 35. (b) The scheduled flight usually crosses the tropic of
Shyam Benegal for his Hindi feature film ‘Subhash cancer on its way to its destination.
Chandra Bose’. The forgotten Hero in fifty second 40. (b) World cup T- 20 - Man - won by England
National Film Award function. World cup T - 20- Woman - won by Australia
6. (b) Harold Pinter is the recepient of Noble Literature prize 41 (c) The Nargis dutt award is given for Best Feature Film
2005. on National Integration.
7. (d) The first Asian Games were held in New Delhi in 1951. 42. (c) Ms Pratibha Patil was the first Indian President to visit
11. (c) Cuba is a communist country. Mongolia in July, 2011. She signed a defence
12. (d) Pluto was the smallest planet in solar system. It was cooperation agreement with Mongolia.
the slowest planet in our solar system Pluto is farthest
from sun. 43. (d) Siddhartha Mukherjee is an Indian born physician,
scientist and writer who wrote the emperor at all
13. (a) Hamid Karzai is the first President of Afghanistan.
maladies. A Biography of CANCEL in 2010. Which won
15. (d) Kapil Dev, Imran Khan and Shaun Pollock are Fast
bowler and batsman but Shane Warne is a Spinner. He Puliter Prize.
had taken highest wickets in Test Cricket. He is belong 44. (c) The sates report of 2010 shows that the tiger population
to Australia. has gone upto 1706 from 1411. However the tiger
19. (c) French open tennis tournament, 2007 (men's singles) habitat has declined by 12.6% which is a sign of
was won by Rafael Nadal. potential danger.
20. (c) Olympic games, 2004 held in Athens. 45. (a) The convention has been ratified by 53 countries, So
21. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru award for International understanding India is not the first country to ratify to the convention.
2006 given to President of Brazil. 46. (b) The central government was only asked it submit date
22. (c) Swaminarayan Akshardham Temple Complex, New Delhi about steel requirements of the country and the
has made it to the Guinness Book of World Records for contribution of these to the total output the state
being the world’s largest Hindu temple complex. government was asked to prepare a plan to restore the
23. (d) Ban Ki-Moon is the current Secretary-General of the forests.
United Nations. Before becoming Secretary-General Ban 47. (b) South Sudan was created in July 2011. There are other
was a career diplomate in South Korea's Ministry of nations in Africa which became much earlier.
Foreign Affairs and in the United Nations. On October 48. (b) Sucheta Kadethankar is an Indian IT developer from
13, k06, he was elected to be the eighth Secretary-General Pune. In July 2011 she became the first Indian to walk
by the United Nations General Assembly. On January 1, across the Gobi desert.
2007, he succeded Kofi Annan. 49. (c) The waterway is part of the important Suez canal
27. (c) Recently in Mayanmar, a large number of monks made shipping route between the Mediterranean Sea and
protest marches against the government in favour of the Arabian Sea in the Indian Ocean with 21,000 ships
Aung Sang Su Ki. crossing the gulf annually. The gulf is known by the
30. (d) On October 20, 2007, Bobby Jindal was elected Governor nickname "Pirate Alley" due to the large amount of
of Louisiana. pirate activity in the area.
32. (c) Noval Djokovic, the tennis player of Serbia won the 50. (a) Former Indian Prime Minister Indira Gandhi was
Wimbledon Men’s single title 2008 honoured posthumously with the highest Bangladesh
33. (b) Prof. Bina Agarwal has been awarded the Leontief award – the Bangladesh Swadhinata Sammanona
Award - 2009 for her remarkable contribution in the (Bangladesh Freedom Honour) on 25 July 2011. The
field of economic theory. award was meant to honour Indira Gandhi's for her
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outstanding contributions to Bangladesh's Liberation to become a notorious bandit. It is directed by
War fought in 1971. During the tumultuous days of Tigmanshu Dhulia.
1971, the great Indian leader Indira Gandhi had taken a 72. (c) The HAL Rudra is an armed version of HAL Dhruv.
firm, principled stand to side with the oppressed people Rudra is equipped with forward looking infra red and
of then East Pakistan. thermal imaging sights interface, a 20 mm turret gun, 70
51. (a) Dhanush is a variant of the surface-to-surface Prithvi mm rocket pods, anti-tank guided missiles and air-to-
II missile, which has been developed for the Indian air missiles.
Navy. It is capable of carrying both conventional as 73. (b) The government on January 2nd, 2013 announced the
well as nuclear warheads with pay-load capacity of 500 Constitution of the 14th Finance Commission under
kg and can strike targets in the range of 350 km. The the chairmanship of former RBI Governor YV Reddy.
Missile was test-fired successfully on October 5, 2012 74. (a) A chit fund is a kind of savings scheme practiced in
from a naval ship in the Bay of Bengal off the Orissa India. A chit fund company is a company that manages,
coast. The Dhanush missile can be used as an anti- conducts, or supervises a chit scheme—as defined in
ship weapon as well as for destroying land targets Section of the Chit Funds Act, 1982. According to
depending on the range. Section 2(b) of the Chit Fund Act, 1982:
52. (b) INS Shivalik (F47) is the lead ship of her class of stealth 75. (a) Shashi Tharoor is the author of the book ‘Pax Indica:
multi-role frigates built for the Indian Navy. She is the India and world of the 21st century’.
first stealth warship built by India. She was built at the 76. (b) Chintamani Nagesa Ramachandra Rao FRS, also known
Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) located in Mumbai. as C.N.R. Rao, is an Indian chemist who has worked
Construction of the vessel began in 2001 and was mainly in solid-state and structural chemistry. He
completed by 2009. currently serves as the Head of the Scientific Advisory
53. (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional Council to the Prime Minister of India. On 16 November
development bank established on 22 August 1966 to 2013, the Government of India announced his selection
facilitate economic development of countries in Asia. for Bharat Ratna, the highest civilian award in India,
54. (b) Justice Bhandari was a senior judge of the supreme making him the third scientist after C.V. Raman and A.
court of India. P. J. Abdul Kalam to receive the award.
55. (b) The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India's highest award 77. (a) Jammu-Srinagar Highway passes through Banihel pass
in cinema given annually by the Government of India in Pir Panjal range.
for lifetime contribution to Indian cinema. 78. (a) Option (a) is the correct choice.
56. (b) Pt Ravi Shankar 80. (a) The Lokpal Act, 2013, officially 'The Lokpal and
59. (d) Sri Lanka Lokayuktas Act, 2013', is an anti-corruption Act of
60. (a) Biotechnologist Indian Parliament in India which "seeks to provide for
61. (a) The 1988 Maldives coup d'état, whose rescue efforts the establishment of the institution of Lokpal to inquire
were code-named Operation Cactus by the Indian armed into allegations of corruption against certain public
forces, was the attempt by a group of Maldivians led functionaries and for matters connecting them".
by Abdullah Luthufi and assisted by armed mercenaries According to the Act,Lokpal will be applicable at the
of a Tamil secessionist organisation from Sri Lanka, Centre and Lokayukta at the States.
the People's Liberation Organisation of Tamil Eelam 81. (a) North Eastern Region Community Resource
(PLOTE), to overthrow the dictatorship in the island Management Project(NERCORMP) is a livelihood and
republic of Maldives. The coup d'état failed due to the rural development project aimed to transform the lives
intervention of the Indian Army. of the poor and marginalized tribal families in North
62. (b) Argo. The Hollywood Foreign Press Association's 70th East(NE) India. NERCORMP is a joint developmental
Annual Golden Globes honored the best and brightest initiative of the North Eastern Council(NEC), Ministry
talent in film and television. Les Misérables stole the night of DONER(Ministry of Development of North Eastern
on the film side, with three awards for best motion picture/ Region) Govt. of India and International Fund for
musical or comedy, best actor/musical or comedy for Hugh Agricultural Development(IFAD).
Jack man and best supporting actress for Anne Hathaway. 82. (b) SAMARTH 2014 was organized by the Department of
Argo followed close behind with wins as best motion Disability Affairs under the Ministry of Social Justice
picture/drama and best director for Ben Affleck. and Empowerment, Government of India. The
68. (c) The government approved the National Cyber Security Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
policy on 8th May, 2013 that aims to create a secure is an international human rights treaty of the United
computing environment in the country and build Nations intended to protect the rights and dignity of
capacities to strengthen the current set-up with focus persons with disabilities. India is a party to the
on manpower training. convention.
69. (a) Dr. Aparajita Dutta is a wildlife biologist. She has been 83. (a) The 13th edition of joint exercise by the Indian Coast
working in the forests of India for more than two Guard and its Japanese counterpart held approximately
decades. Now, she is one of the board members of the at 20 nautical miles off Kochi.
Nature Conservation Foundation, a non-governmental 84. (b) As per the data of the Department of Industrial Policy
wildlife conservation organisation. and Promotion (DIPP), during the financial year 2013-
70. (b) Rafael Nadal and Serena Williams won the Men’s and 14, India received $5.98 billion in FDI from Singapore.
Women’s single title respectively of the Madrid Open With this, Singapore has replaced Mauritius as the top
Tennis Tournament, 2013. contributor to India's FDI during 2013-14.
71. (c) Paan Singh Tomar is an Indian biographical, sports 85. (b) SIMBEX 14 was a bilateral naval exercise between
film based on the true story of an athlete Paan Singh Indian Navy and the Republic of Singapore Navy. It
Tomar employed by the Indian Army and who won a was the 21st in the series. It was conducted in the
Gold Medal at Indian National Games, but was forced Andaman Sea from 22 May to 28 May 2014.
86. (c) India's Mobile Governance Initiative (Mobile Seva) 99. (c) On 20 September 2015, a new constitution, the
bags United Nations Public Service Award for 2014. It "Constitution of Nepal 2015" was announced by
was launched by Department of Electronics and President Ram Baran Yadav in the constituent assembly.
Information Technology (DeitY), Government of India. The constituent assembly was transformed into a
The "Mobile Seva" initiative of Government of India legislative parliament by the then-chairman of that
aims at mainstreaming mobile governance in the country assembly. The new constitution of Nepal has changed
as a compelling new paradigm for delivery of public Nepal practically into a federal democratic republic by
services electronically through the mobile platform. making 7 unnamed states.
87. (c) Prithvi-II is a nuclear capable surface-to-surface missile. 100. (c) World number one Novak Djokovic beat Roger Federer
With a strike range of 350 km, Prithvi-II is capable of in four dramatic sets to win his second US Open and
carrying 500 kg to 1,000 kg of warheads and is thrusted 10th Grand Slam title at the US Open 2015 in New York.
by liquid propulsion twine engines. 111. (d) According to the Census 2011, Mizoram is the 2nd
88. (b) In May, 2014, India recalled its troops sent to Thailand least populous State in the country.
for a joint combat exercise in the South-East Asian 116. (a) To deal with the challenges of terrorism, insurgency,
country. India withdraw the troops and called for an communalism and caste violence, the Home Ministry
early restoration of demoncracy in Thailand. of Maharashtra has proposed to enact a stringent law
89. (c) India scripted space history as the Indian Space
- Maharashtra Protection of Internal Security Act.
Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully inserted
its low-cost Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) spacecraft, 118. (a) India (New Delhi) hosted the 3rd World Trauma
or Mangalyaan, into an orbit around the Red Planet in Congress (WTC) in 2016, the first and second one's
its very first attempt. being held at 'Rio de Jenario' and 'Frankfurt'.
90. (d) The scientific goals of the mission focus on "elemental, 119. (b) The 5th ministerial conference of 'Heart of Asia' aims to
isotopic, molecular and mineralogical composition of promote amity, enhanced cooperation for countering
the cometary material, the characterization of physical security threats with neighbouring countries of Asia.
properties of the surface and subsurface material, the 120. (c)
large-scale structure and the magnetic and plasma Country Gold Silver Bronze Total
environment of the nucleus. United
91. (b) James Watson, one of the scientists credited with 46 37 38 121
discovering the structure of DNA, recently made States
history when he became the first-ever living Nobel China 26 18 26 70
laureate to put his prize medal up for auction. On Dec. Great
4, 2014 his little gold medal is sold for a record-breaking 27 23 17 67
Britain
$ 4.76 million.
92. (d) The two countries have created the U.S.-China Clean Russia 19 18 19 56
Energy Research Center, which facilitates collaborative 121. (c) The most striking feature of National Civil Aviation is
work in carbon capture and storage technologies, its Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS) which seeks
energy efficiency in buildings, and clean vehicles. It to encourages airlines to fly on regional routes. The
includes continued funding for three existing tracks new policy focus upon competition, consumers,
on building efficiency, clean vehicles and advanced connectivity and investment.
coal technology and launching a new track on the 122. (c) The theme of the Approach Paper to the Twelfth Five
energy-water nexus. Year Plan is “faster, sustainable and more inclusive
93. (d) Vijay Hazare died in December 2004 following prolonged growth”. The Approach Paper has proposed a target
illness caused by intestinal cancer. Wasim Raja died of of 9 per cent growth for the Twelfth Plan. The period
a heart attack in Marlow, Buckinghamshire, England in of 12th Five Year Plan is 2012-2017.
August 2006 while playing cricket for the Surrey over- 123. (c) B. Sai Praneeth
50s side. Phillip Hughes died because of sport-related 124. (b) Cultural Heritage and Sustainable Tourism
blunt cerebro-vascular injury during the match at the 125. (c) Afghanistan
Sydney Cricket Ground on 25 November 2014. Raman 126. (c) Special Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs
Lamba died after slipping into coma due to internal 127. (c) Satyagrah in Champaran.
haemorrhage, three days after being hit on the temple 129. (c) Depression: Let’s Talk
by a cricket ball while fielding in Bangladesh's league 130. (b) Ministry of Science and Technology has launched a
cricket. new programme “Interdisciplinary Cyber Physical
94. (c) Russian film Leviathan won the prestigious Golden Systems (ICPS)” to foster and promote R&D in this
Peacock Award for the best film at the 45th International emerging field of research. CPS is a mechanism
Film Festival Of India. con trolled or monitored by computer -based
95. (b) Boyhood, wins the Best Motion Picture Drama award algorithms, tightly integrated with internet and its users.
at the 72nd Golden Globe Awards. It is an engineered system that are built from and
96. (c) East Zone won the Deodhar Cricket tournament after depend upon, the seamless integration of
beating the defending champions West Zone in the
computational algorithms and physical components.
final by 24 runs.
97. (c) Richard Flanagan on 14 October 2014 was announced 131. (a) "Aadi Mahotsav" a National Tribal Festival was being
as the winner of the 2014 Man Booker Prize for Fiction organized in New Delhi by the Ministry of Tribal
for The Narrow Road to the Deep North, published by Affairs and TRIFED to celebrate, cherish and promote
Chatto & Windus. the spirit of tribal craft, culture, cuisine and commerce.
98. (a) The 19th National Senior Athletic Championship for The theme of the festival was "A Celebration of the
the Federation Cup was held at the Mangala stadium, Spirit of Tribal Culture, Craft, Cuisine and Commerce".
Mangalore City, Karnataka from April 30 to May 4. 132. (a) The tunnel is at an elevation of 10171 ft (3,100 meters).
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133. (d) Shubhangi Swaroop became the first woman to be international practices by signing Memoranda of
inducted into the Indian Navy as a pilot. Shubhangi, a Understanding (MoU) with international universities.
native of Bareilly, Uttar Pradesh, was part of the first 143. (a) Sentosa is an island resort off Singapore's southern
batch of female officers to graduate from the Indian coast.
Naval Academy, Ezhimala, Kannur. A biotechnology 144. (b) China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) is an ambitious
engineer from VIT, she is also a national taekwondo programme to connect Asia with Africa and Europe via
champion. land and maritime networks along six corridors with
134. (d) Italy failed to qualify for first World Cup in 60 years the aim of improving regional integration, increasing
after play-off defeat to Sweden. trade and stimulating economic growth. It was known
135. (b) The defense technology and trade Initiative (DTTI) is as the One Belt One Road (OBOR) and the Silk Road
forum for dialogue on defense partnership between Economic Belt and the 21st-century Maritime Silk Road
India and USA. As part of Indo-US bilateral defense until 2016 when the Chinese government considered
cooperation, the 7th Defence Technology and Trade the emphasis on the word "one" was prone to
Initiative, DTTI meeting was held between India and misinterpretation.
the US delegation in New Delhi in July, 2018. 145. (c) The NITI (National Institution for Transforming India)
136. (a) As per the extant FDI policy, foreign investment up to Aayog launched Composite Water Management Index
49% is permitted under the automatic route. foreign as useful tool to assess and improve performance in
investment beyond 49% and upto 100% is permitted efficient management of water resources. The index
through Government approval. aims to inspire States/UTs towards efficient and optimal
137. (d) The 21st edition of Ex Malabar was conducted at/ off utilization of water and recycling thereof with sense of
the port of the East Coast of India from 09-17 July urgency.
2017. IN, US Navy and the Japan Maritime Self - Gujarat topped the list followed by Madhya Pradesh,
Defence Force (JMSDF) participated in the exercise. Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra.
The primary objective of the exercise was to enhance Jharkhand, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar were
maritime cooperation and interoperability amongst the worst performers among general States.
participating navies. 146. (c) Noted social reformer and founder of Sulabh
138. (c) India's nominee to the International Court of Justice International Bindeshwar Pathak was honoured with
(ICJ) Dalveer Bhandari was re-elected to the fifth and Japan's prestigious 'Nikkei Asia Prize for Culture and
the last seat of the world court after Britain withdrew Community' for his significant work in tackling poor
its candidate from the election. hygiene and discrimination.
139. (b) The Union Government has recently constituted a task 147. (a) The Hindu Literary Prize 2018 was awarded during The
force to review the Income Tax Act 1961 and draft a Hindu Lit for Life 2019. The winners under different
new direct tax law in consonance with current economic categories are mentioned below: English writer Neelum
needs. CBDT member Arbind Modi will be the convener Saran Gour, author of Requiem in Raga Jankibagged
of task force while Chief Economic Adviser Dr. Arvind The Hindu Prize 2018 for Fiction. Vinayak Varma’s
Subramanian will be a permanent Special Invitee. The Angry Akku received The Hindu Young World-
task force will draft an appropriate direct tax legislation Goodbooks Award for Best Picture Book: Story.
keeping in view the direct tax system in various Activist Manoranjan Byapari, author of Interrogating
countries, international best practices and economic my Chandal Life: An Autobiography of a Dalit, bagged
needs of the country. It will submit its report within six The Hindu Prize 2018 for non-fiction.
months. 148. (c) The GST Council has decided to set up a seven-member
140. (c) India, for the first time ever hosted the 5th Global committee to look into revenue shortfall being faced
Conference on Cyber Space (GCCS), one of the world's by the states after the GST roll-out, and suggest steps
largest conferences in the field of Cyber Space and for augmenting collections. The committee would be
related issues, on 23 & 24 November 2017, at Aerocity, headed by Deputy Chief Minister and Finance
New Delhi. Minister of Bihar Sushil Modi.
141. (d) The 2018 FIFA World Cup was the 21st FIFA World 149. (d) The Prime Minister, Narendra Modi inaugurated the
Cup. It took place in Russia from 14 June to 15 July 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas on January 22, 2019 in
2018. It was the first World Cup to be held in Eastern his parliamentary constituency, Varanasi, Uttar
Europe, and the 11th time that it had been held in Europe. Pradesh. In the history of Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas, the
The final took place on 15 July at the Luzhniki Stadium event is being held for the first time in Varanasi, the
in Moscow, between France and Croatia. France won cultural and spiritual capital of India.
the match 4-2 to claim their second World Cup title. 150. (c) The Brazilian city of Rio de Janeiro has been named as
Zabivaka is the official mascot of the 2018 FIFA World the World Capital of Architecture for 2020 by the
Cup, which was held in Russia. UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific, and
142. (b) National Sports University is a sports university in Cultural Organization). Rio will be the first city to
Manipur in India. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has receive the title under a program launched together by
laid foundation stone for National Sports University UNESCO and the International Union of Architects
on 16 March 2018. The University, once developed, (UIA) in 2018.
will be the first one of its kind to promote sports 151. (a) Rishabh Pant was names ICC’s emerging player of the
education in the areas of sports sciences, sports year 2018.
technology, sports management, and sports coaching. 152. (b) Lance Naik Nazir Ahmad Wani, who laid down his life
It will also function as the national training centre for during an anti-terror operation at Batagund village in
selected sports disciplines by adopting the best J&K’s Shopian in November last year, will be
posthumously conferred with the Ashoka Chakra.

Disha NDA NA 16 Years English & General Knowledge Solved Papers (2006-2021)

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EBD_7348

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

3. Fill in the Blanks E-29-39

4. Spotting Errors E-40-56

5. Selecting Words / Phrases E-57-64

6. Ordering of Sentences E-65-77

7. Ordering of Words in a Sentence E-78-94

F PART B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

3. Heat & Thermodynamics G-26-32

6. Electricity & Magnetism G-51-67

7. Modern Physics G-68-72

9. Carbon and different forms, Carbon Dioxide G-83-87

10. Chemistry of Metal and Non-metals (H2, O2 and N2) G-88-95

11. Some Important Chemical Compounds G-96-105

12. Acids, Bases and Salts, Oxidation and Reduction G-106-111

14. Zoology G-121-136

16. Medieval India G-143-146

17. Modern India G-147-170

18. World History G-171-175

20. Geography of India G-203-223

22. Indian Economy G-237-242

24. Current Affairs G-260-272

PART ‘B’ - GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

UNIT ‘II’ : C HEMIS TRY 15 15 16 16 15 17 19 16 12 15 16 18 16 14 9 12 18 19 17 16 14 14 13 13 14

UNIT ‘III’ : BIO LO GY 10 9 10 11 10 7 11 9 10 10 7 10 10 10 10 10 7 9 10 11 10 9 12 11 11

UNIT ‘IV’ : HIS TO RY 13 10 15 7 8 10 14 13 11 12 13 12 14 18 12 18 13 12 8 7 14 16 15 15 16

UNIT ‘V’ : GEO GRAPHY 19 20 19 20 12 18 20 19 18 19 18 17 12 18 17 16 9 20 19 19 12 21 17 18 19

UNIT ‘VI’ : PO LITIC AL S C IENC E 4 8 4 10 12 11 5 6 9 4 4 7 7 0 5 2 3 5 10 10 7 5 6 7 5

UNIT ‘VII’ : GENERAL 14 11 12 13 8 10 11 12 11 9 12 13 11 12 22 24 23 13 13 14 18 15 13 11 13

Synonyms 11. She got the divorce within no time.

23. She was lamenting her destiny. 7. Malaria is a widespread disease.

19. The Earth's climate sensitivity is conventionally defined vember 12 to December 7.

13. Fire in the belly

R. measurements of temperature (a) P R S Q (b) Q R S P

PART- B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

(a) retina (b) cornea

(a) It applies only to spherical mirrors. Electricity & Magnetism

10. Which one of the following statements is correct about HISTORY

(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

Synonyms an abstract concept and it does not have a body. So, it

PART- B: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

PHYSICS 3. (b) Density = mass/volume

Geography of India 11. (a)

1. DEBONAIR 12. PROBITY

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. INORDINATE 13. STOICAL

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

101. It is time we decide not to play cricket, 111.

I and Gopal went to the meeting together. No error on time. No error.

205. It is most essential for us to reach the station before noon

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. Many Which one of the following is the correct sequence?

8. Thus Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?

35. Although Which one of the following is the correct sequence?

69. I think the members /P are basically in agreement /Q of the

instead of reading books of getting a good response so that

151. The history of mankind is (a) QS RP (b) P Q S R

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PASSAGE-8 36. Which one of the following is correct?