X Social Science KVS Ernakulam

केंद्रीय विद्यालय संगठन क्षेत्रीय कायाा लय एर्ाा कुलम
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN REGIONAL OFFICE, ERNAKULAM
SUPPORT MATERIAL – TERM 1

SOCIAL SCIENCE – [087]
Based on Latest CBSE Exam Pattern for the

Session 2021-22
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SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

Sh. R Senthil Kumar
Deputy Commissioner
KVS RO, Ernakulam
Smt. Deepti Nair Sh. Santhosh Kumar N

Assistant Commissioner Assistant Commissioner
KVS RO, Ernakulam KVS RO, Ernakulam
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The Contributors
Chief Coordinator, Smt. Jeena T V

Sh. Satheesan P K Principal, KV2 Naval Base, Kochi Smt. Regimol Sebastian
TGT Social Science TGT Social Science
KV Kannur KV No.2 Naval Base
Smt. K Jaya
Sh. A Abdul Shumz TGT Social Science, Sh. Madhusoodanan M
KV Pangode, TVM TGT Social Science
TGT Social Science
KV Kanjikode, Palakkad KV Payyanur
Sh. Kuttiyachan T C
Smt. Geetha Nair TGT Social Science Sh. Shamsudhin V
TGT Social Science, KV, Kadavanthra TGT Social Science,
KV1 Calicut Payyanur
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Ms. Nivedita Sh. Naresh Kumar, Sh. Upendar Verma, Smt. Sabitha A T
TGT SST TGT SST TGT SST Computer Instructor
KV No.1 NB, Kochi
SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL
KV No.1,CPCRI ,Kasaragod SCIENCE (087)
KV Idukki TERM
KV1…………..2021-22
No.2 Naval Base
Content
 Term I Syllabus for Board Examination
2021-22 (Page 6 to 7)
 List of map items for term 1 (Page 8)
 Assessment strategy (Page 9 to 11)
 Internal Assessment (Page 12)
 Design of the question paper (Page 12)
 Course content (Page 15 to 134)
 CBSE Sample Question paper(Page 135 to 158)
 Sample question papers (Page 159 to 194)
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Term I Syllabus for Board Examination – 2021-22
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LIST OF MAP ITEMS CLASS X (2021-22) TERM –1
A. GEOGRAPHY
Chapter 1: Resources and Development
a. Major soil Types
Chapter 3: Water Resources
Dams:
a. Salal
b. Bhakra Nangal
c. Tehri
d. Rana Pratap Sagar
e. Sardar Sarovar
f. Hirakud
g. Nagarjuna Sagar
h. Tungabhadra
Note: The theoretical aspect of chapter ‘Water Resources’ to be assessed in the
Periodic Tests only and will not be evaluated in Board Examination. However,
the map items of this chapter as listed above will be evaluated in Board
Examination.
Chapter 4: Agriculture
a. Major areas of Rice and Wheat
b. Largest / Major producer States of Sugarcane, Tea, Coffee, Rubber,
Cotton and Jute
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Special Scheme of Assessment for Board Examination Classes X and
XII for the Session 2021-22
A. Academic session to be divided into 2 Terms with approximately 50% syllabus
in each term:
The syllabus for the Academic session 2021-22 will be divided into 2 terms by
following a systematic approach by looking into the interconnectivity of concepts
and topics by the Subject Experts and the Board will conduct examinations at the
end of each term on the basis of the bifurcated syllabus. This is done to increase
the probability of having a Board conducted classes X and XII examinations at the
end of the academic session
B. The syllabus for the Board examination 2021-22 will be rationalized similar to
that of the last academic session to be notified in July 2021. For academic
transactions, however, schools will follow the curriculum and syllabus released
by the Board vide Circular no. F.1001/CBSEAcad/Curriculum/2021 dated 31
March 2021. Schools will also use alternative academic calendar and inputs from
the NCERT on transacting the curriculum.
C. Efforts will be made to make Internal Assessment/ Practical/ Project work
more credible and valid as per the guidelines and Moderation Policy to be
announced by the Board to ensure fair distribution of marks.
3. Details of Curriculum Transaction
 Schools will continue teaching in distance mode till the authorities permit in
person mode of teaching in schools.
 Classes IX-X: Internal Assessment (throughout the year-irrespective of Term I

and II) would include the 3 periodic tests, student enrichment, portfolio and
practical work/ speaking listening activities/ project.
 Classes XI-XII: Internal Assessment (throughout the year-irrespective of Term I

and II) would include end of topic or unit tests/ exploratory activities/ practicals/
projects.
 Schools would create a student profile for all assessment undertaken over the
year and retain the evidences in digital format.
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 CBSE will facilitate schools to upload marks of Internal Assessment on the CBSE
IT platform.
 Guidelines for Internal Assessment for all subjects will also be released along
with the rationalized term wise divided syllabus for the session 2021-22. The
Board would also provide additional resources like sample assessments, question
banks, teacher training etc. for more reliable and valid internal assessments.
4. Term I Examinations:
 At the end of the first term, the Board will organize Term I Examination in a
flexible schedule to be conducted between November-December 2021 with a
window period of 4-8 weeks for schools situated in different parts of country and
abroad. Dates for conduct of examinations will be notified subsequently.
 The Question Paper will have Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) including case-
based MCQs and MCQs on assertion-reasoning type. Duration of test will be 90
minutes and it will cover only the rationalized syllabus of Term I only (i.e. approx.
50% of the entire syllabus).
 Question Papers will be sent by the CBSE to schools along with marking scheme.
 The exams will be conducted under the supervision of the External Center
Superintendents and Observers appointed by CBSE.
 The responses of students will be captured on OMR sheets which, after

scanning may be directly uploaded at CBSE portal or alternatively may be
evaluated and marks obtained will be uploaded by the school on the very same
day. The final direction in this regard will be conveyed to schools by the
Examination Unit of the Board.
 Marks of the Term I Examination will contribute to the final overall score of
students.
5. Term II Examination/ Year-end Examination:
 At the end of the second term, the Board would organize Term II or Yearend
Examination based on the rationalized syllabus of Term II only (i.e. approximately
50% of the entire syllabus).
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 This examination would be held around March-April 2022 at the examination
centres fixed by the Board.
 The paper will be of 2 hours duration and have questions of different formats
(case-based/ situation based, open ended- short answer/ long answer type).
 In case the situation is not conducive for normal descriptive examination a 90

minute MCQ based exam will be conducted at the end of the Term II also.
 Marks of the Term II Examination would contribute to the final overall score.
6. Assessment / Examination as per different situations
A. In case the situation of the pandemic improves and students are able to come
to schools or centres for taking the exams. Board would conduct Term I and Term
II examinations at schools/centres and the theory marks will be distributed
equally between the two exams.
B. In case the situation of the pandemic forces complete closure of schools during
November-December 2021, but Term II exams are held at schools or centres.
Term I MCQ based examination would be done by students online/offline from
home - in this case, the weightage of this exam for the final score would be
reduced, and weightage of Term II exams will be increased for declaration of final
result.
C. In case the situation of the pandemic forces complete closure of schools during
March-April 2022, but Term I exams are held at schools or centres. Results would
be based on the performance of students on Term I MCQ based examination and
internal assessments. The weightage of marks of Term I examination conducted
by the Board will be increased to provide year end results of candidates.
D. In case the situation of the pandemic forces complete closure of schools and
Board conducted Term I and II exams are taken by the candidates from home in
the session 2021-22. Results would be computed on the basis of the Internal
Assessment/Practical/Project Work and Theory marks of Term-I and II exams
taken by the candidate from home in Class X / XII subject to the moderation or
other measures to ensure validity and reliability of the assessment.
In all the above cases, data analysis of marks of students will be undertaken to
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ensure the integrity of internal assessments and home based exams.

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EVALUATION SCHEME
THEORY
Units Term I Marks
I India and the Contemporary World - II -
II Contemporary India - II -
III Democratic Politics - II -
IV Economics -
Total 40
Internal Assessment 10
Total 50
Design of the Question Paper

Total Number Number of questions Marks
of questions to be answered
Section A
MCQ Questions 24 Any 20 20
Section B
Assertion & 22 Any 18 18
Reason Based
questions
Section C 10
Case study 12 Any 10
Section D 2 2 2
Map
General Instructions given by CBSE:

1. The Question Paper contains four sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions (Case based). Attempt any 10 questions.
5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
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6. All questions carry equal marks.

7. There is no negative marking.
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India and the Contemporary
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world - II
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NATIONALISM IN EUROPE
Measures and practices introduced by the French revolutionaries to
create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.
Ans.The measures and practices introduced by the French revolutionaries to
create a sense of collective identity among the French people were as follows.
1.The idea of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen)
emphasised the idea of united people enjoying equal rights under a
constitution.
2.A new French flag, the tricolour, was chosen to replace the former royal
standard.
3.The Estates General was elected by the active citizens and renamed
the National Assembly.
4.New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated
in the name of nation.
5.Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and
written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.
6.A centralised administrative system was put in practice and it
formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.
7. Internal customs duties and dues were abolished and a uniform
system of weights and measures was adopted.
Main aim of the French revolutionaries
The aim of the French Revolutionaries was to transfer sovereignty from
the monarchy to a body of French citizens and to create a sense of
collective identity amongst the French people
Jacobin Clubs other parts of Europe
Jacobin clubs were the political clubs that were set up by educated
middle class in all over Europe to replace autocratic regimes in Europe
with democratic governments. They were inspired by the events in
France.
The activities and campaigns of these clubs paved the way for the French
armies which moved into Holland, Belgium and Switzerland and much
of Italy in 1790.
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Napoleonic code
The Civil Code of 1804, also known as Napoleonic Code, abolished all
the privileges based on birth, established equality before the law and
gave the right to property
Administrative reforms introduce by Napoleon in the conquered
territories
1.The Napoleonic code which was introduced in the regions under
French control, like Italy, Germany, Switzerland, simplified
administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed peasants
from serfdom and manorial dues,
3.In towns guild restrictions came to an end.
4.Uniform weights and measures were adopted. A common national
currency helped in the movement of goods and capital from one region
to another.
5.Transport and communication systems were improved.
The reaction of local people in the areas conquered by Napoleon to
French rule
The reactions of the local populations to French rule were mixed.
Although the economic reforms introduced by Napoleon were welcomed
by businessmen and small producers of goods.
Initially the French armies were welcomed in Holland, Switzerland and
in cities like Brussels, as messenger of liberty, but they soon realised
that administrative reforms did not go hand in hand with political
freedom.
The people reacted against increased taxation and censorship.
Local people had to serve in the French army to conquer other parts of
Europe, these all seemed to outweigh the advantages of administrative
changes.
Treaty of Vienna(1815)
Napoleon was defeated in 1815 by collective European powers i.e.
Britain, Russia, Prussia, and Austria. The representatives of European
powers drew up the Treaty of Vienna at a congress hosted by Austrian
Chancellor Duke Metternich with the objective of undoing the changes
that had come about the Europe during the Napoleonic wars. Following
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changes were brought about in Europe by this treaty:

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The Bourbon dynasty that was destroyed during the French Revolution
was restored. French lost the territories it has annexed under Napoleon.
A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent
French expansion in future.
The Netherlands which included Belgium was set up in the north. Genoa
was added to Piedmont in the south.
Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers.
Austria was given control of northern Italy.
Habsburg empire of Austria Hungary was a patchwork of many nations.
The Habsburg Empire that ruled over Austria-Hungary, for example, was
a patchwork ofmany different regions and peoples. It included the Alpine
regions – the Tyrol, Austria and the Sudetenland – as well as Bohemia,
where the aristocracy was predominantly German-speaking. It also
included the Italian-speaking provinces of Lombardy and Venetia. In
Hungary, half of the population spoke Magyar while the other half spoke
a variety of dialects. In Galicia, the aristocracy spoke Polish. Besides
these three dominant groups, there also lived within the boundaries of
the empire, a mass of subject peasant peoples – Bohemians and Slovaks
to the north, Slovenes in Carniola, Croats to the south, and Roumans to
the east in Transylvania. Such differences did not easily promote a sense
of political unity. The only tie binding these diverse groups together was
a common allegiance to the emperor.
Nation state
Nation-state IS one in which the majority of its citizens, and not only its
rulers, came to develop a sense of common identity and shared history
or descent.
MEANING OF LIBERALISM
Lliberalism in social economic and political spheres.
The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning free
During 19 century in social sphere the term liberalism stood for freedom
for the individual, right to secure property and equality of all before the
law.
In political sphere it stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges,
a constitution and representative government through parliament.
In economic sphere it stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition
of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital.
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Universal suffrage.
Equality before the law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage
in 19th century. In revolutionary France, which marked the first political
experiment in liberal democracy, the right to vote and to get elected was
granted exclusively to property-owning men. Men without property and
all women were excluded from political rights. Only for a brief period
under the Jacobins did all adult males enjoy suffrage. However, the
Napoleonic Code went back to limited suffrage and reduced women to
the status of a minor, subject to the authority of fathers and husbands.
Throughout the nineteenth and early twentieth century’s women and
non-propertied men organised opposition movements demanding equal
political right
During 19th century equality before the law did not necessarily stand for
universal suffrage
Equality before the law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage
in 19th century. In revolutionary France, which marked the first political
granted exclusively to property-owning men. Men without property and
all women were excluded from political rights. Only for a brief period
under the Jacobins did all adult males enjoy suffrage. However, the
Napoleonic Code went back to limited suffrage and reduced women to
the status of a minor, subject to the authority of fathers and husbands.
Throughout the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries women and
non-propertied men organised opposition movements demanding equal
political rights.
The conditions that were viewed as obstacles to the economic exchange
and growth by the new commercial classes during the 19th century in
Europe.
The conditions that were viewed as obstacles to the economic exchange
and growth by the new commercial classes during the 19th century in
Europe were:
There were many states imposed restrictions on the movement of
goods, capital and people.
Formation of Zollverein.
The German-speaking regions in the first half of the nineteenth century
were divided into hundreds of small kingdoms. Napoleon’s
administrative measures had reduced these countless number of small
principalities into a confederation of 39 states. Each of these possessed
its own currency, and weights and measures. A merchant travelling in
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1833 from Hamburg to Nuremberg to sell his goods would have had to
pass through 11 customs barriers and pay a customs duty of about 5
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per cent at each one of them. Duties were often levied according to the
weight or measurement of the goods. As each region had its own system
of weights and measures, this involved time consuming calculation. The
measure of cloth, for example, was the elle which in each region stood
for a different length. Such conditions were viewed as obstacles to
economic exchange and growth by the new commercial classes, who
argued for the creation of a unified economic territory allowing the
unhindered movement of goods, people and capital. In 1834, a customs
union or zollverein was formed at the initiative of Prussia and joined by
most of the German states. The union abolished tariff barriers and
reduced the number of currencies from over thirty to two. The creation
of a network of railways further stimulated mobility, harnessing
economic interests to national unification.
Conservatism
Conservatism is a political philosophy that stressed the importance of
tradition, established institutions and customs, and preferred gradual
development to quick change
Treaty of Vienna(1815)
Napoleon was defeated in 1815 by collective European powers i.e.
Britain, Russia, Prussia, and Austria. The representatives of European
powers drew up the Treaty of Vienna at a congress hosted by Austrian
Chancellor Duke Metternich with the objective of undoing the changes
that had come about the Europe during the Napoleonic wars. Following
changes were brought about in Europe by this treaty:
The Bourbon dynasty that was destroyed during the French Revolution
was restored. French lost the territories it has annexed under Napoleon.
A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent
French expansion in future.
The Netherlands which included Belgium was set up in the north. Genoa
was added to Piedmont in the south.
Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers.
Austria was given control of northern Italy.
The German confederation of 39 states set up by Napoleon was left
untouched. Russia was given part of Poland and Prussia was given part
of Saxony.
Monarchy was restored and a new conservative order was created in
Europe.
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Conservative regime formed in Europe after 1815
Conservative regimes set up in 1815 were autocratic. They did not
tolerate criticism and dissent, and sought to curb activities that
questioned the legitimacy of autocratic governments.
Most of them imposed censorship laws to control what was said in
newspapers, books, plays and songs and reflected the ideas of liberty
and freedom associated with the French Revolution.
Formation of Zollverein.
The German-speaking regions in the first half of the nineteenth century
were divided into hundreds of small kingdoms. Napoleon’s
administrative measures had reduced these countless number of small
principalities into a confederation of 39 states. Each of these possessed
its own currency, and weights and measures. A merchant travelling in
1833 from Hamburg to Nuremberg to sell his goods would have had to
pass through 11 customs barriers and pay a customs duty of about 5
per cent at each one of them. Duties were often levied according to the
weight or measurement of the goods. As each region had its own system
of weights and measures, this involved time consuming calculation. The
measure of cloth, for example, was the elle which in each region stood
for a different length. Such conditions were viewed as obstacles to
economic exchange and growth by the new commercial classes, who
argued for the creation of a unified economic territory allowing the
unhindered movement of goods, people and capital. In 1834, a customs
union or zollverein was formed at the initiative of Prussia and joined by
most of the German states. The union abolished tariff barriers and
reduced the number of currencies from over thirty to two. The creation
of a network of railways further stimulated mobility, harnessing
economic interests to national unification.
Giuseppe Mazzini in spreading revolutionary ideas in Europe.
Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini was born in Genoa in 1807. He
became a member of the secret society of the Carbonari. At the age of
24, he was sent into exile in 1831 for attempting a revolution in Liguria.
He founded two underground societies, first, Young Italy in Marseilles
and Young Europe in Berne. The members of the society were drawn
from Poland, France, Italy and the German states.
Mazzini strongly believed that God had intended nations to be the
natural units of mankind. So Italy could not continue to be a patchwork
of small states and kingdoms. It had to be forged into a single unified
republic within a wider alliance of nations. This unification alone could
be the basis of Italian liberty. Following his model, secret societies were
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set up in Germany, France, Switzerland and Poland. Mazzini’s relentless

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opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics frightened

the conservatives. Metternich described him as ‘the most dangerous
enemy of our social order’.
Giuseppe Garibaldi.
Giuseppe Garibaldi (1807-82) is perhaps the most celebrated of Italian
freedom fighters. He was a sailor in the merchant navy. In 1833 he met
Mazzini, joined the Young Italy movement and participated in a
republican uprising in Piedmont in 1834. The uprising was suppressed
and Garibaldi had to flee to South America, where he lived in exile till
1848. In 1854, he supported Victor Emmanuel II in his efforts to unify
the Italian states. In 1860, Garibaldi led the famous Expedition of the
Thousand to South Italy. His revolutionary army was popularly known
as Red Shirts. In 1867, Garibaldi led an army of volunteers to Rome to
fight the last obstacle to the unification of Italy. The Papal States where
under the protection of French army and Garibaldi failed in his attempt
to unite Papal States with Italy.
Greek war of independence

Greece had been part of the Ottoman Empire since the fifteenth century.
The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle
for independence amongst the Greeks which began in 1821. Nationalists
in Greece got support from other Greeks living in exile and also from
many West Europeans who had sympathies for ancient Greek culture.
Poets and artists lauded Greece as the cradle of European civilisation
and mobilised public opinion to support its struggle against a Muslim
empire. The English poet Lord Byron organised funds and later went to
fight in the war, where he died of fever in 1824. Finally, the Treaty of
Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation.
Features of Romanticism.
1. Romanticism was a cultural movement which sought to develop a
particular form of nationalist sentiment.
2. Romantic artists and poets generally criticised the glorification of
reason and science and focused instead on emotions, intuition and
mystical feelings.
3. Their effort was to create a sense of a shared collective heritage, a
common cultural past, as the basis of a nation.
Three examples to show the contribution of culture to the growth of
nationalism in Europe were:
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(i) Romanticism was a European cultural movement aimed at

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developing national unity by creating a sense of shared heritage and

common history. The Romantic artists' emphasis on emotions, intuition
and mystical feelings gave shape and expression to nationalist
sentiments. The strength of art in promoting nationalism is well
exemplified in the role played by European poets and artists in
mobilizing public opinion to support the Greeks in their struggle to
establish their national identity.
(ii) Folk songs, dances and poetry contributed to popularizing the spirit
of nationalism and patriotic favor in Europe. Being a part of the lives of
the common people, folk culture enabled nationalists to carry the
message of nationalism to a large and diverse audience.
Collecting and recording the different forms of folk culture was important
for building a national consciousness.
(iii) Language also played a distinctive role in developing nationalist
feelings in Europe. The emphasis on the use of vernacular language, the
language of the masses, helped spread the message of national unity.
During Russian occupation period, Polish language was forced out of
schools and Russian language was imposed everywhere. Following the
defeat of an armed rebellion against Russian rule in 1831, many
members of the clergy in Poland began using language as a weapon of
national resistance. They did so by refusing to preach in Russian, and
by using Polish for Church gatherings and religious instruction.
Johan Gottfried Herder
Johann Gottfried Herder (1744-1803) was a famous German romantic
philosopher. He claimed that true German culture was to be discovered
among the common people – das volk. It was through folk songs, folk
poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation
was popularised. So collecting and recording these forms of folk culture
was essential to the project of nation-building.
Polish nationalism
Karol Kurpinski used operas and music to keep alive the national spirit
among polish people .Folk dances like the polonaise and mazurka
became national symbols
During Russian occupation period, in the Polish territories, Polish
language was forced out of schools and Russian language was imposed
everywhere. Following the defeat of an armed rebellion against Russian
rule in 1831, many members of the clergy in Poland began using
language as a weapon of national resistance. They did so by refusing to
preach in Russian, and by using Polish for Church
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Unification of Germany
Nationalism in Europe moved away after 1848 and Germany and Italy came
to be unified as nation-states. Prussia took over the leadership of the
movement for national unification. The architect of this process was its chief
minister, Otto von Bismarck, carried out with the help of the Prussian army
and bureaucracy.
In January 1871, the Prussian King, William I, was proclaimed German
Emperor. An assembly was held to proclaim the new German Empire. The
process of nation-building demonstrated the dominance of Prussian state
power. The currency, banking, legal and judicial system in Germany were
modernised.
Unification of Italy
Italy was divided into seven states, in the middle of the nineteenth century,
and among all the seven states, Sardinia-Piedmont, was ruled by an Italian
princely house. All the regions were dominated by different kings. In the
1830’s Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called Young Italy.
The movement was led by Chief Minister Cavour. In 1859, Sardinia-Piedmont
defeated Austrian forces. In 1860, they marched into South Italy and the
Kingdom of the Two Sicilies and succeeded in winning the support of the
local peasants. In 1861 Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed king of united
Italy.
The Strange Case of Britain
Great Britain was the model of the nation and prior to the eighteenth century
there was no British nation. The nation became powerful as it steadily grew
in wealth, importance and power.
The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the
formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’ meant, in effect, that
England was able to impose its influence on Scotland. In 1801, Ireland was
forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom. The symbols of the new
Britain – the British flag (Union Jack), the national anthem (God Save Our
Noble King), the English language – were actively promoted.
Visualising the Nation
In the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries artists represented a country as a
person and nations as female figures. During the French Revolution, female
figures portray ideas such as Liberty, Justice and the Republic. Liberty is
represented as a red cap, or the broken chain, Justice a blindfolded woman
carrying a pair of weighing scales.`
Nationalism no longer retained after the last quarter of the nineteenth century.
After 1871, the most tensioned area was called the Balkans a region
comprising modern-day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia,
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Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro.

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Ottoman Empire made the Balkans region explosive and all through the
nineteenth century they strengthened themselves through modernisation and
internal reforms. Due to various conflicts the Balkan became an area of intense
conflict.
During this period, intense rivalry built among the European powers over trade
and colonies as well as naval and military might which led to a series of wars
in the region and finally the First World War.
Anti-imperial movements were developed but they all struggled to form
independent nation-states. But the idea of ‘nation-states’ was accepted as
natural and universal.
MCQ
1. Which of the following statements correctly describes European
conservative ideology?
a) Preservation of beliefs introduced by Napoleon
b) Preservation of two sects of Christianity
c) Preservation of socialist ideology in the economic sphere
d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society
2 Identify the purpose to convene the Vienna Congress in 1815 from the
following options?
a) To declare competition of German unification
b) To restore conservative regime in Europe
c) To declare war against France
d) To start the process of Italian Unification
3 After the Napoleon which dynasty was restored in France?
a) Bourbon
b) Mazzini
c) Both
d) None of the above
4. Who said „When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold
a) Garibaldi
b) Bismarck
c) Mazzini
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d) Duke Metternich
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5 Name the customs union formed by Prussia to abolish tariff barriers.
a) Elle
b) Zollverein
c) Zweibiicken
d)La Patrie
6. Who were the Junkers?
a) Soldiers
b) Large landowners’
c) Aristocracy
d) Nobility
7. Who among the following formed the secret society called ‘Young Italy’?
a) Otto von Bismarck
b) Giuseppe Mazzini
c) Metternich
d) Johann Gottfried Herder
8.Which of the following treaty gave Greece a recognition of an independent
nation?
a) Treaty of Vienna
b) Treaty of Versailles
c)Treaty of Lausanne
d)Treaty of Constantinople
9. Romanticism refers to which movement.
a) Political Movement
b) Religious Movement
c)Cultural Movement
d) Literary Movement
10. Which sentence best explains the Utopian Society
a) Society where everyone is equal
b) Society with a comprehensive constitution
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c) An idealist society which can never be achieved

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d) Democratic society
11.The first clear expression of nationalism came with:
a) The American Revolution
b) The French Revolution
c) The Russian Revolution
d) The Industrial Revolution
12. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Young Italy’ for the
dissemination of his goals?
a) Giuseppe Garibaldi
b) Giuseppe Mazzini
c)Count Cavour
d)Otto von Bismarck
13. Which of the following was not among the measures adopted by French
revolutionaries to create a sense collective identity?
a) Ideas of ‘la patrie’ and ‘le citoyen
b) Tricolour flag
c)Regional dialects were encouraged
d)Hymns composed
14. Which of the given factors led to the rise of nationalism in Europe?
a) Huge economic hardship in Italy
b) The spread of ideology of liberalism
c)Establishment of traditional institutions of state and society
d)Development of absolutist nations
15. Analyse the information given below, considering one of the following
correct options: He was perhaps the most celebrated of Italian freedom fighters.
He came from a family engaged in coastal trade and was a sailor in the
merchant navy. In 1833 he met Mazzini, joined the Young Italy movement and
participated in a republican uprising in Piedmont in 1834.
a) Otto von Bismarck
b) Cavour
c) Lord Byron
25
d) Giuseppe Garibaldi
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16. Which of the following countries did not attend the congress of Vienna?
a) Britain
b) Russia
c) Prussia
d) Switzerland
17. Elle, the measuring unit in Germany was used to measure
a) Cloth
b) Thread
c) Land
d) Height
18. The Ottoman Empire was ruled by the emperor of
a) Turkey
b) Russia
c) Britain
d) Prussia
19. Among the following which section was not included in the European
middle class
a) Professionals
b) Businessmen
c) Nobles
d) Industrialists
20. After the French Revolution (1789) the right to vote was given to
a) All adult population of the country
b) All property-owning male citizens of the country
c) All property owning male and women of the country देश

d) All adults excluding women of the country
21.Which of the following group of powers collectively defeated Napoleon?
a) England, France, Italy, Russia
b) England, Austria, Spain, Russia
26
c) Austria, Prussia, Russia, Britain

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d) Britain, Prussia, Russia, Italy

22.The liberal nationalism stands for:
a) freedom for the individual and equality before law.
b) preservation of autocracy and clerical privileges.
c) freedom for only male members of society and equality before law
d)To strengthen absolute monarchies in all the countries of Europe.
23. “In the initial stages, the French armies were welcomed as harbingers of
liberty. But the initial enthusiasm soon turned to hostility”. Identify the reason
from the following.
a) Increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the

French armies
b) Introduced uniform laws, standardised weights and measures
c) Secured equality before the law and the right to property
d) Simplified administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system
24. Which one of the following statements is not true of Aristocracy?
a) They owned estates in the countryside and also town-houses
b) They spoke French for purposes of diplomacy and in high society
c) Their families were often connected by ties of marriage
d) They often clashed with the ideas of the monarchs
25.Find out from the following, what economic liberalism stood for.
(i) Abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and
capital
(ii) End of autocracy and clerical privileges
(iii) Freedom for the individual and equality of all
(iv) Freedom of markets
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (i) and (iii) are correct
c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
d) (i) and (iv) are correct
26. ---------------- was the famous English poet, who organised funds and
27
later went to fight in the Greek War of Independence.

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a) Lord John Milton
b) Lord Byron
c) Lord Wellington
d) Lord Macaulay
27. Which of the following did the European Conservatives not believe in?
a) Traditional Institutions of state policy
b) Strengthened monarchy
c) A complete return to a society of pre-revolutionary days
d) Preservation of the Church
28. Name the event that mobilised nationalist feelings among the educated
elite across Europe.
a) Restoration of Bourbon kings to power.
b) Greek war of independence.
c) The July Revolution.
d) Installation of constitutional monarchy with Louis Philippe as its
head.
29. Which of the following aspect best signifies this image of ‘The courier of
Rhineland’?
a) Victories of Napoleon
28
b) Difficulties faced by Napoleon

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c) Losses of Napoleon
d) Journey of Napoleon
30. The painting “The Dream of worldwide Democratic and Social Republics”
was prepared by --------
a) Giuseppe Mazzini
b) Frederic Sorrieu
c) Henry Patullo
d) Duke Metternich
31 What type of conservative regimes were set up in 1815 in Europe?
a) Autocratic
b) Democratic
c) Aristocratic
d) Dictatorial
32. What happened to Poland at the end of 18th century. Which of the
following answers is correct?
a) Poland achieved independence at the end of the 18th century.

b) Poland came totally under the control of Russia and became part of
Russia.
c) Poland became the part of East Germany.
d) Poland was partitioned at the end of the 18th century by three Great
Powers: Russia, Prussia and Austria.
33. Who hosted the ‘Treaty of Vienna’?
a) Frédéric Sorrieu
b) Victor Emmanuel
c) Duke Metternich
d) Giuseppe Garibaldi
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34. The political and constitutional changes brought about by the French
Revolution were:
a) it ended the absolute monarchy.

b) It transferred power to a body of the French citizens.
c) It proclaimed that henceforth people would constitute the nation and
shape its destiny.
d) All the above.
35. What was the main intention behind ‘Treaty of Vienna of 1815’?
a) Restore republics
b) Restore democracies
c) Restore monarchies
d) None of these
36. Who was Giuseppe Mazzini?
a) French Revolutionary
b) Italian Revolutionary
c) Russian Revolutionary
d) None of above
37. What did ‘Das Volk’ stand for?
a) Democracy
b) Factory workers
c) Slum dwellers
d) Common people
38. Match the following. Find out the correct option
Column A Column B
1.Napoleonic Code a. 1832
2.Treaty of Vienna b.1815
3. Mazzini c. 1804
4.Treaty of Constantinople d. 1807
a) 1(d),2(c),3(a),4(b)
b) 1(c ),2(b),3(d),4(a)
c) 1(a),2(d),3(c),4(b)
d) 1(c),2(d),3(a),4(b)
30
39. Which of the following is not true with reference to Napoleon?

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a) He introduced Napoleonic Code.

b) He promoted democracy in France.
c) He made the administrative system more rational and efficient.
d) The Napoleonic Code was exported to all the regions under French
control.
40. Which of the following were /was the impact of peasant uprising of 1848
on France?
(i) A National Assembly proclaimed a Republic.
(ii) The Assembly granted suffrage to all adult males about 21.
a) Only (i)
b) Only (ii)
c) Both (i) and (ii)
d) Neither (i) Nor (ii)
41. Which among the following best signifies the idea of liberal nationalism of
nineteenth century Europe?
a) Emphasis on social justice
b) State planned socio-economic system
c) Freedom for individual and equality before law.
d) Supremacy of State oriented nationalism.
42. It was an artistic, literary and intellectual movement that originated in
the 18th century in Europe to develop a particular form of nationalist
sentiments
a) Liberalism
b) Romanticism
c) Conservatism
d) Imperialism
43. Which of the following is TRUE with respect to The French Revolution
and the idea of the Nation?
(i) The political and constitutional changes that came in the wake of the
French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a
body of French citizens.
31
(ii) The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth
constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
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a) Only (i)
b) Only (ii)
c) Both (i) and (ii)
d) Neither (i) Nor (ii)
44. Which among the following were the cause of great economic
hardship in Europe in1830s?
A. The first half of the nineteenth century saw an enormous increase in

population all over Europe.
B. In most countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment.
C. Populations from rural areas migrated to the cities to live in
overcrowded slums.
D. All of the Above
45. Name the brothers who spent six years travelling from village to
village, talking to people and writing down fairy tales, which were handed
down through the generations.
A. The Grim Brothers

B. The Wright Brothers
C. The Biro Brothers
D. The Lumiere Brothers
46. Mention the date on 831 elected representatives marched in a festive

procession to take their places in the Frankfurt parliament.
A. 8 May 1848
B. 18 May 1848
C. 8 June 1848
D. 28 june 1848
47. Which liberal politician, an elected member of the Frankfurt

Parliament expressed the following view? ‘Nature has created men and
women to carry out different functions ... Man, the stronger, the bolder
and freer of the two, has been designated as protector of the family
A. Frederich Lan
B. Wilhelm Loewe
C. Carl Welcker
D. Anton Ritter von Schmerling,
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48. Who were called Junkers of Prussia?
A. Landowners
B. Large landowners
C. Farmers
D. Industrialists
49. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.
Column A Column B
I. Broken chains 1. Readiness to fight
II. Crown of oak leaves 2. Being freed
III. Sword 3. Beginning of a new era
IV. Rays of the rising sun 4. Heroism
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
A. I - 2, II - 4, III - 4, IV - 3
B. I - 3, II - 4, III - 1, IV - 2
C. I - 2, II - 4, III - 1, IV - 3
D. 1- 4, II - 3, III - 2, IV - 1
50. Who amongst the following Italian leaders was neither a

revolutionary nor a democrat?
A. Mazzini
B. Cavour
C. Garibaldi
D. Victor Emmanuel II
51. During the middle of the nineteenth century, out of the seven
states, which only one was ruled by an Italian princely house?
A. Sardinia - Piedmont
B. Lombardy - Venetia
C. Sicily
D. Naples
52. Who among the following was proclaimed the first king of United
Italy in 1861?
A. William I
B. Kaiser William I
33
C. Victor Emmanual II
D. Victor Emmanuel III
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53. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE regarding the Act of
Union?
A) It was signed in 1707.
B) It was signed between England and Scotland.
B) It resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain.
D) It resulted in the establishment of democracy in Scotland.
54. Which one of the following was the effect of the Act of the Union,
1707 between England and Scotland?
A. England was able to impose the influence on Scotland.

B. Scotland was able to impose the influence on England.
C. The Scottish Highlanders were allowed to speak their
language.
D. They were also allowed to wear their national dress.
55. Identify the correct statement/s statements regarding the symbols

of New Britain?
I) The British Flag
II) The National Anthem(God Save Our Noble King)
III) Red Rose and Three Tiger Crest
IV) The English Language
Options:
A. I, II & III
B. II, III & IV
C. I, III & IV
D. I, II & IV
56. Identify the personality given in the caricature.
A) Otto von Bismarck
B) Victor Emmanuel II
C) Giuseppe Mazzini
34
D) Kaiser William I
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57. Which one of the following is the artist of the given below painting
‘The fallen Germania’?
A. Frederic Sorrieu
B. Lorenz Clasen
C. Philip Veit
D. Julius Hubner
58. The given below image ‘Germania’ was painted by the artist Lorenz
Clasen in 1860. Which one of the following was the inscription on
Germania’s sword?
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A. The German Sword protects the German people.
B. The German sword protects the German Rhine.
C. The German sword protects the German Nation.
D. None of the above
ASSERTION AND REASON BASEED QUESTIONS

DIRECTION: Mark the option which is most suitable:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
1: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and
Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): The development of nationalism did not come about only
through wars and territorial expansion.
Reason(R): Culture played an important role in creating the idea of nation:
art and poetry, stories and music helped to express and shape nationalism.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct Explanation of A.
c) A is True but R is False
d) A is False but R is True
2. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and
Assertion (A): The 1830’s were the years of great economic hardship in
Europe give reason.
Reason(R): National assembly of 1848 proclaimed France as a republic
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct Explanation of A.
c)A is True but R is False.
d) A is False but R is True.
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Assertion (A): The French revolution was an influential event that marked
the age of revolutions in Europe.
Reason (R): The French revolution transferred the sovereignty from the
people to the monarch
a) Both A and R are true, but R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Assertion. Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms,
duchies and cantons whose rulers had their autonomous territories.
Reason. They were closely bound to each other in spite of their autonomous
rule
Assertion. Giuseppe Mazzini worked against the monarchy
Reason. Italy had to continue to be a patchwork of small states and
kingdoms
Assertion. From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced
various measures and practices like the idea of la patrie and le citoyen.
Reason. This was done to create a sense of collective identity amongst the
37
French people.
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Assertion : During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was
divided into seven states, of which only one was ruled by an Italian
princely house.
Reason : The north was under the domination of the Bourbon kings of
Spain.
A. A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of
C. A is True but R is False
D. A is False but R is True
SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS

1: Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
When the news of the events in France reached the different cities of Europe,
students and other members of educated middle classes began setting up
Jacobin clubs. Their activities and campaigns prepared the way for the French
armies which moved into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy in
the 1790s. With the outbreak of the revolutionary wars the French armies
began to carry the idea of nationalism abroad. Within the wide swathe of
territory that came under his control, Napoleon set about introducing many of
the reforms that he had already introduced in France. Through a return to
monarchy Napoleon had, no doubt, destroyed democracy in France, but in the
administrative field he had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to
make the whole system more rational and efficient. The civil code of 1804-
usually known as the Napoleonic code did away with all privileges based on
birth, established equality before the law and secured the right to property.
This code was exported to the regions under French control. In the Dutch
Republic, in Switzerland, in Italy and Germany, Napoleon simplified
administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from
serfdom and manorial dues.in the towns too, guild restrictions were removed.
1.1. The civil code of 1804 in France is usually known as:
a) The French Revolutionary code
b) Napoleonic code
38
c) European Imperial code

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d) The French civil code

1.2. The Napoleonic code was exported to which of the following regions?
a) England
b) Spain
c) Regions under French control
d) Poland
1.3. Match the following
1. Civil code` (a) Napoleon
2 Jacobins (b) carried the idea of nationalism
3 Destroyed democracy (c) abolished privileges based
on birth
4. French Armies (d) Political club
Choose the correct option
a) 1-(c), 2(d), 3(a),4(b)
b) 1-(b),2-(c),3(a),4(d)
c) 1-(a),2-(d),3-(c),4(b)
d) 1-(b),2-(a),3-(d),4-(c)
1.4. Which one of the following was not the feature of Napoleonic code?
a) Equality before the law
b) Universal Adult Franchise
c) Right to property
d) Abolition of Privileges based on birth
2. Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were
driven by a spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established,
traditional institutions of state and society—like the monarchy, the Church,
social hierarchies, property and the family— should be preserved. Most
conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-
revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by
Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions
like the monarchy. It could make state power more effective and stronger. A
modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of
feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe.
In 1815, representatives of the European powers—Britain, Russia, Prussia and
39
Austria— who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a

settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor
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Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the
object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during
the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during
the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories
it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the
boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future.
2.1. Which of the following statements correctly describes about European
conservative ideology?
a) Preservation of beliefs introduced by Napoleon.
b) Preservation of two sects of Christianity.
c) Preservation of socialists’ ideology in economic sphere.
d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society.
2.2. Identify the purpose to convene the Congress of Vienna in 1815 from the
following options.
a) To declare completion of German unification.
b) To restore conservative regime in Europe
c) To declare war against France
d) To start the process of Italian unification.
2.3. What did conservatives focus on at the Congress of Vienna? Select the
appropriate option
a) undo the changes introduced by Napoleon
b) To establish socialism in Europe.
c) To introduce democracy in France.
d) To set up a new Parliament in Austria.
2.4. In which year Napoleon was defeated by the combined force of Britain,
Russia, Prussia and Austria
a) 1804
b) 1789
c) 1793
d) 1815
3. The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution
40
in 1789. The political and constitutional changes that came in the wake of the
Page
French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a

body of French citizens. The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who
would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny. From the very
beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and
practices that could create a sense of collective identity amongst the French
people. The ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen)
emphasized the notion of a united community enjoying equal rights under a
constitution. A new French flag, the tricolour, was chosen to replace the former
royal standard. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs
commemorated, all in the name of the nation. Regional dialects were
discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the
common language of the nation. The revolutionaries further declared that it
was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the peoples of
Europe from despotism, in other words to help other peoples of Europe to
become nations.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option
3.1. What did the Ideas of ‘la patrie’ and ‘le citoyen’ signify in the French
revolution?
a) The Motherland and the children
b) The Fatherland and the citizens
c) The community and the citizens
d)The state and the community
3.2. The first expression of nationalism came with:
a) The industrial revolution of England
b) The American war of independence
c) The French Revolution
d)The Russian revolution
3.3. The French revolutionaries declared that the mission and destiny of the
French nation was
a) To conquer the people of Europe.

b) To liberate the people of Europe from despotism
c) to establish conservative regime
d) to destroy democracy in Europe
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3.4. which among the following measures were not taken by French
revolutionaries to create common identity among French citizens?
a) introduced the ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the
citizen)
b) A new French flag, the tricolour, was chosen to replace the former
royal standard
c) New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs
commemorated
d) Regional dialects were encouraged
4. Ideas of national unity in early-nineteenth-century Europe were closely
allied to the ideology of liberalism. The term liberalism' derives from the Latin
root liber, meaning free. For the new middle classes liberalism stood for
freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law. Politically, it
emphasised the concept of government by consent. Since the French
Revolution, liberalism had stood for the end of autocracy and clerical
privileges, a constitution and representative government through parliament.
Nineteenth-century liberals also stressed the inviolability of private property
Yet, equality before the law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage.
You will recall that in revolutionary France, which marked the first political
granted exclusively to property-owning men
4.1. Which of the following is not true with respect to 19th century spirit of
nationalism in Europe?
(a) Universal suffrage
(b) End of autocracy
a) Only (a)
b) Only (b)
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
4.2. Which of the following did not stand for liberalism?
a) Equality before the law
b) Government by consent
c) Freedom for the individual
d) The citizen should not have right to private property.
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4.3. Which of the following feature of liberalism is not true for the French
Revolution?
a) End of autocracy
b) Representative government
c) Unified economy
d) End of Clergy privileges
4.4. Which country is considered as pioneer of liberal democracy?
a) Italy
b) France
c) Germany
d) England
5. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing
the most appropriate option:
The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the
area called the Balkans. The Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic
variation comprising modern-day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece,
Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro
whose inhabitants were broadly known as the Slavs. A large part of the
Balkans was under the control of the Ottoman Empire. The spread of the ideas
of romantic nationalism in the Balkans together with the disintegration of the
Ottoman Empire made this region very explosive. All through the nineteenth
century the Ottoman Empire had sought to strengthen itself through
modernisation and internal reforms but with very little success. One by one,
its European subject nationalities broke away from its control and declared
independence. The Balkan peoples based their claims for independence or
political rights on nationality and used history to prove that they had once
been independent but had subsequently been subjugated by foreign powers.
Hence the rebellious nationalities in the Balkans thought of their struggles as
attempts to win back their long-lost independence.
5.1 Who were the Slavs?
A. Inhabitants of Balkans
B. Inhabitants of Bulgaria, Albania and Macedonia
C. Inhabitants of Slovenia
D. None of the Above
5.2 What made the region of the Balkans to be described as explosive?
A. Disintegration of the Ottoman Empire

43
B. Spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism

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C. The diversification of identities
D. Both A and B
5.3 What were the reasons for the Balkans’ rebellious nature?
A. Their struggle for freedom from foreign power
B. Their notions on once being independent in the past
C. Big power rivalry amongst themselves
D. Both A and B
5.4 How had the Ottoman Empire sought to strengthen its power?
A. Through internal reforms
B. Through modernisation and internal reforms
C. Through addressing conflicted issues
D. All of the above
ANSWER KEY
1.d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society
2 b) To restore conservative regime in Europe
3 a) Bourbon
4. d) Duke Metternich
5 b) Zollverein
6. b) Large landowners’
7. b) Giuseppe Mazzini
8 d) Treaty of Constantinople
9. c) Cultural Movement
10. c) An idealist society which can never be achieved
11. b) The French Revolution
12. b) Giuseppe Mazzini
13. c) Regional dialects were encouraged
14. b) The spread of ideology of liberalism
44
15 d) Giuseppe Garibaldi
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16. d) Switzerland

17. a) Cloth
18. a) Turkey
19. c) Nobles
20. b) All property-owning male citizens of the country
21. c) Austria, Prussia, Russia, Britain
22. a) freedom for the individual and equality before law.
23.a) Increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the
French armies
24. d) They often clashed with the ideas of the monarchs
25. d) (i) and (iv) are correct
26. b) Lord Byron
27. c) A complete return to a society of pre-revolutionary days
28. b) Greek war of independence.
29. c) Losses of Napoleon
30. b) Frederic Sorrieu
31 a) Autocratic
32. d) Poland was partitioned at the end of the 18th century by three Great
Powers: Russia, Prussia and Austria.
33. c) Duke Metternich
34.d) All the above.
35. c) Restore monarchies

36. b) Italian Revolutionary
37. d) Common people
38. 1(c),2(b),3(d),4(a)
39.b) He promoted democracy in France.
40. c) Both (i) and (ii)

41. c) Freedom for individual and equality before law.
42. b) Romanticism
43. c) Both (i) and (ii)
45
44. D) All of the above

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45. A) The Grim Brothers

46. B) 18 May 1848
47. C) Carl Welcker
48. B) Large landowners
49. C) I - 2, II - 4, III - 1, IV - 3
50. B) Cavour
51. A) Sardinia - Piedmont
52. C) Victor Emmanuel II
53. D) It resulted in the establishment of democracy in Scotland.
54. A) England was able to impose its influence on Scotland.
55. D) I, II & IV
56. A) Otto Von Bismark
57. D) Julius Hubner
58. B) The German sword protects the German Rhine.
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

1: a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Explanation of A.
2. b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct Explanation of A.
3. c) A is true but R is false
6. a) Both A and R are true, but R is the correct explanation of A
7. C) A is True but R is False
SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS

1.1. b) Napoleonic code
1.2. c) Regions under French control
1.3.a) 1-(c), 2(d), 3(a),4(b)
1.4. b) Universal Adult Franchise
2.1. d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society.
2.2. b) To restore conservative regime in Europe
46
2.3. a) undo the changes introduced by Napoleon

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2.4. d) 1815

3.1 b) The Fatherland and the citizens
3.2. c) The French Revolution
3.3. b) To liberate the people of Europe from despotism
3.4. d) Regional dialects were encouraged
4.1. a) Only (a)
4.2. d) The citizen should not have right to private property.
4.3. c) Unified economy
4.4. b) France
5.1 A) Inhabitants of Balkans
5.2 D) Both A & B
5.3 D) Both A & B
5.4 B) Through modernisation and internal reforms
………………oOo……………..
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Contemporary India - II
48
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RESOURCES AND DEVELOPMENT
Everything available in our environment which can be used to satisfy our

needs, which are technologically accessible, economically feasible and
culturally acceptable
TYPES
On the basis of ORIGIN-Biotic and Abiotic.
On the basis EXHAUSTIBILITY-Renewable and Non-Renewable
On the Basis of OWNERSHIP-Individual, Community, National and
International.
On the basis of STATUS OF DEVELOPMENT-Potential, Developed, Stock
and Reserve.
SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT
Development that do not damage the environment.
Possible through Resource Planning.
Stages of Resource Planning

Identification and inventory of resource by Surveying and mapping.
Evolving a planning structure with technology, skill and institutional set
up.
Matching resource plans with national development plans.
Need for resource Conservation

For Future generation
To Ensure sustainable development
To Avoid over utilization
To Avoid pollution To Maintain ecological balances
Methods of conservation
Reduce the over use of resources.
Use of more renewable resource.
Recycle of the resources if possible.
Use of cheap and harmless substitutes.
Strict legislation Create public awareness
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IMPORTANT POINTS
 Resources are used as a function of human activities.

 Everything available in our environment which can be used to satisfy
our needs, is called a resource. It should be technologically accessible,
economically feasible and culturally acceptable.
 Resources are classified into four main categories: on the basis of
origin, exhaustibility, ownership and status of development.
 Development of resource depends on technology and level of their
feasibility.
 Excessive and indiscriminate use of resources has created major
problems.
 Therefore, resource planning is essential for sustainable existence of all
forms of life.
 Sustainable existence is a component of sustainable development.
 The Rio convention endorsed the Global Forest Principle and adopted
Agenda 21 for achieving sustainable development in the 21st century.
 Sustainable development means using available resources judiciously
without compromising the need of the present and future generations.
 Planning is a widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources.
 Land is a vital natural resource which support natural vegetation , wild
life , human life , economic activities , transport and communication
system.
 Utilisation of land resources is in the following:
a. Forests
b. Land not available for cultivation
c. Other cultivated land excluding fallow land
d. Fallow land
e. Net sown area
 Net sown area: Area sown once in an agricultural year.
 Gross cropped area: Area sown more than once in an agricultural year
plus net sown area is known as gross cropped area.
 Soil is the most important renewable natural resources.
 Important factors in the formation of soil are: relief, parent rock,
climate, vegetation and other forms of life.
 These factors contribute in the development of various types of soils:
Alluvial, Black, Red and Yellow, Laterite, Arid, Forest soil.
 The removal of top fertile soil is called soil erosion.
 Effective measures to control soil erosion are: Contour Ploughing,
Terrace cultivation, Strip cropping, Shelter belts.
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Q 1: Why is resource planning necessary in India?
a. Due to large availability of resources
b. Due to limited availability of resources
c. Due to enormous diversity in the availability of resources ‘
d. Due to corruption and mismanagement
Q2: “There is enough for everybody’s need but not for anybody’s greed”. Who
said this?
a. Jawahar Lal Nehru
b. Atal Bihari Vajpai
c. M K Gandhi
d. Sunder Lal Bahuguna
Q3: Which one of the following statements is true about the term resources?
a. Everything available in our environment
b. Everything available in our environment which can be used to satisfy
our needs
c. Everything available in our environment which can be used to satisfy
our needs, provided it is technologically accessible, economically
feasible and culturally acceptable.
d. All of these
Q4: What was the main cause of colonization?

a. Rich resources in colonies
b. Higher technological know- how in colonizing countries which helped
them to exploit those resources
c. Both of these
d. None of these
Q5: The process of creation of resources involves which of the following ?
a. Nature
b. Technology
c. Institutions
d. All of these
Q6: The ocean resources beyond 200kms are classified under which zone?
a. Exclusive Economic Zone
b. Export-processing Zone
51
c. Special Economic Zone

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d. None of these

Q7: Which of the following is not classified on the basis of status of
development?
a. Potential resource
b. Developed stock resource
c. Reserves resource
d. Renewable resource
Q8: Which of the following is essential for sustainable existence of all forms
oflife?
a. Resource planning
b. Resource management
c. Resource extraction
d. Resource generation
Q9: Which of the following is correctly matched?

A B
i) Individual Resources: A) Village commons, grazing
grounds, burial ground
ii). Community Owned Resources B) own plots, houses, cars
iii) National Resources: C) roads, canals, railways
iv). International Resources D) open ocean
a. i)-A
b. ii)-B
c. iii)-C
d. iv)-D
Q10: Observe the following image given below:-
Transformation of things available in our environment involves an interactive

relationship between ………………………………………… ?
a. Nature and technology
b. Nature, technology and institutions
c. Nature and institutions
52
d. Environment and human beings

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Q11: Where was the first international Earth Summit held?
a. Rio de Janeiro
b. Geneva
c. Switzerland
d. Philippines
Q12: Identify the correct statement about resource planning in India.

1. Recourse planning is a complex process.
2. It involves identification and inventory of resources across regions of
the country .
3. It also involves matching the resource development plants with overall
national development plans.
a. 1&2
b. 2&3
c. Only 3
d. 1,2 & 3
Q13: Study the following pie diagram and answer the following:
What percentage increase is seen in area under forest in the year 2014-15
from base year 1960-61?
a. 5.19
b. 3
c. 4.1
d. 5.16
Q14: TRUE/ FALSE

53
Statement 1- Potential resources are a type of natural resource that exist in a

region and may be used in the future.
Page

Statement 2- Potential resources are the subset of the stock, which can be
put into use with the help of existing technical ‘know-how’ but their use has
not been started.
a. Both statements are false
b. Both statements are true
c. Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
d. Statement 2 is true but Statement 1 is false
Q15: Name the piedmont plains where alluvial soils is commonly found in
India.
a. Bangar
b. Mahanadi plains
c. Duars, Chos and Terai
d. None of the above
Q16:The lower horizon of soil are occupied by Kankar due to increasing____

a. Calcium content
b. Magnesium content
c. Potash and lime
d. Phosphoric
Q17: RAVINES refers to the_____________

a. Bad land created at Kullu valley
b. Bad land created at Chambal valley
c. Bad land created at Godavari valley
Q18: Identify the type of soil with the help of clues given below:
 Made up of extremely fine clayey material.
 Well- known for capacity to hold moisture.
 Develop deep cracks during hot weather, helping in aeration of soil.
a. Forest soil
b. Laterite soil
c. Red soil
d. Black soil
Q19: Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
54
1. Red soils are red not because of the diffusion of iron.

2. Black soils can retain moisture for a long time.
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3. Laterite soils is a result of intense leaching owing to heavy rains
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. All the above
Q20: Match the following Items given in Column A with those in Column B.
Column A Column B
1.Terrace farming (i)Western India
2.Gullies (ii) Rajasthan
3.Arid soil (iii) Chambal
4.Shelter belts (iv) Western Himalayas
a. 1-(iv),2-(iii),3-(ii),4-(i)
b. 1-(iv),2-(i),3-(ii),4(iii)
c. 1-(i),2(iv),3-(iii),4(iv)
d. 1-(iii),2(ii),3(iv),4(i)
ASSERTION AND REASONING

DIRECTION: Mark the option which is most suitable:
a. If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the
correct explanation of assertion (A).
b. If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the
c. Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
d. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are false.
Q21. ASSERTION (A) Sustainable development means development should

take place without damaging the environment, and development in the
present should not compromise with the needs of the future generation.
REASON(R): Agenda 21 aims at achieving global sustainable development.
Q22: ASSERTION (A): The Arid Soil is mainly found in parts of Western
Rajasthan, Haryana, and Punjab and extends up to the Rann of Kutch in
Gujarat.
REASON(R) : These areas have dry climate and high temperature.
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Q23: ASSERTION (A ): Alluvial soils is the most widely spread and important
soil.
REASON (R) :The entire northern plains are made of black soil.
Q24: ASSERTION (A): Terrace cultivation is done in plains.

REASON(R) : Running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep
channels as gullies. The land becomes good for cultivation of crops.
Q25: ASSERTION (A): Economic Development of a nation depends mainly on
the richness, development and management of resources.
REASON(R): Over-population results in over-exploitation of resources.
CASE STUDY QUESTIONS

Q26: Read the text given below and answer the questions that follow:
Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has
importance in a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the
availability of resources. There are regions which are rich in certain types of
resources but are deficient in some other resources. There are some regions
which can be considered self-sufficient in terms of the availability of resources
and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources.
For example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are
rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh as abundance of water
resources but lacks in infrastructural development. The state of Rajasthan is
very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources.
The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. It
has very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and
some vital minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national,
state, regional and local levels.
26.1 In which among the following States of India, coal deposits are NOT
available?
a. Madhya Pradesh
b. Chhattisgarh
c. Jharkhand
d. Rajasthan
26.2 In which among the following States you may find suitable amount of
Water Deposits.
a. Rajasthan
b. Laddakh
c. Arunachal Pradesh
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26.3 Which state lacks water resources?
a. Madhya Pradesh
b. Haryana
c. Punjab
d. Rajasthan
26.4 Rajasthan is very well endowed with

a. Wave energy
b. Solar and wind energy
c. Geothermal energy
d. Tidal energy
26.5 Why do we need resource planning?

a. Because of enormous diversity in the availability of resources
b. Because we need to think of future generations
c. We need to consider materials in the environment which have
the potential to satisfy human needs
d. The need to collect materials and resources and then using them
accordingly
26.6 Strategy for judicious use of resources is ….

a. Resources Development
b. Resources Management
c. Resources Conservation
d. Resources Planning.
Potential Resources: Resources which are found in a region, but have not
been utilised. For example, the western parts of India particularly Rajasthan
and Gujarat have enormous potential for the development of wind and solar
energy, but so far these have not been developed properly.
Developed Resources: Resources which are surveyed and their quality and
quantity have been determined for utilisation. The development of resources
depends on technology and level of their feasibility.
Stock: Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy
human needs but human beings do not have the appropriate technology to
access these, are included among stock. For example, water is a compound of
two inflammable gases; hydrogen and oxygen, which can be used as a rich
source of energy. But we do not have the required technical ‘know-how’ to use
them for this purpose. Hence, it can be considered as stock
57
27.1 Potential and development resources are categories under which type
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of resources?

a. On the basis of origin
b. On the basis of exhaustibility
c. On the basis of ownership
d. On the basis of status of development
27.2 If a person knows about the presence of a resource in abundance at a

place but is not able to harness it due to lack of technical know-how
use or any other problem then that resource would be known as which
of the following resources?
a. Abiotic resource
b. International resource
c. Community resource
d. Stock resource
27.3 Coal , natural gas , petroleum , water etc are example of which type of
given resources ?
a. Potential resource
b. Community owned resource
c. Developed resource
d. Biotic resource
27.4 Which are the main factors that determine creation of a resource?
Identify the correct options.
a. Nature and technology
b. Nature and human beings
c. Nature, human beings and technology
d. Technology and human beings
27.5 There are some regions of India where availability of resources is

sufficient, but in some regions, there are acute shortage of important
resources. Identify which of the following region is deficient in water
resources.
a. Jharkhand
b. Rajasthan
c. Ladakh
d. Arunachala Pradesh
27.6 In the question given below , there are two statements marked as
Assertion ( A) and Reason(R) . Read the statement and choose the
correct option.
Assertion (A) :Rajasthan and Gujarat have enormous potential for
development of wind and solar energy.
58
Reason ( R ): Both the states have good percentage of barren land .

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d. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are false.
At the international level, the Club of Rome advocated resource conservation
for the first time in a more systematic way in 1968. Subsequently, in 1974,
Gandhian philosophy was once again presented by Schumacher in his book
Small is Beautiful. The seminal contribution with respect to resource
conservation at the global level was made by the Brundtland Commission
Report, 1987. This report introduced the concept of ‘Sustainable Development’
and advocated it as a means for resource conservation, which was
subsequently published in a book entitled Our Common Future. Another
significant contribution was made at the Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro,
Brazil in 1992.
28.1 Who wrote the book ‘Small is Beautiful’?
a. M K Gandhi
b. Schumacher
c. G. Brundtland
d. J L Nehru
28.2 What did Club of Rome advocate ?

a. Resources utilisation
b. Resources development
c. Resources conservation
d. Resource exploitation
28.3 What is the theme of the book “Our Common Future”?
a. Resources exploitation
e. Resources development
a. Resources planning
b. Sustainable development
28.4 Which of the following statements about Brundtand Commission

Report is correct?
a. It was published in 1987.
b. It made seminal contribution with respect to resource
conservation at global level.
c. This report introduced the concept of Sustainable development.
59
d. All of these.
Page

28.5 In which country was the first Earth Summit held?
a. India
b. USA
c. Brazil
d. Argentina
28.6 Assertion (A) : The Rio Convention adopted Agenda 21 for achieving
sustainable development.
Reason (R) : It is the declaration signed by world leaders at the
UNCED, held at Rio de Janerio.
d. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are false
29. Read the text given below and answer the questions that follow:
This is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire northern
plains are made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important
Himalayan river systems– the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These
soils also extend in Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial
soil is also found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the
Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.
29.1 Name the soil which is being described in the above paragraph.
a. Black soil
b. Alluvial soil
c. Laterite soil
d. Forest soil
29.2 The soil mentioned in the para is ______
a.Very dry
b.Rocky
c.Very fertile
d.Red in colour
29.3 This soil is mainly good for cultivation of
a. Sugar cane
b. Paddy
c. Wheat
d. All of the above
29.4 This soil is found in
a. Northern coastal plains
b. Eastern coastal plains
60
c. Southern coastal plains

d. Western coastal plains
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29.5 This soil have been deposited by which river system?
a. Godavari – Krishna – loin
b. Chambal- Yamuna – Narmada
c. Brahmaputra – Godavari – Banas
d. Brahmaputra - Ganga – Indus
29.6 Where do deltas form?
a. At the start of a river
b. Where a river empties into a larger body of water
c. Where rivers carve deep into the Earth's surface
d. At the point where two rivers join together
MAP
On the given outline map of India, Identify the location with the help of
specified information .
Q30 Identify the type of soil marked as A and choose the correct option.
a. Black soil
b. Arid soil
c. Alluvial soil
d. Red and yellow soil
Q31 Identify the type of soil marked as B and choose the correct option.
a. Black soil
b. Arid soil
61
c. Alluvial soil
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d. Laterite soil

On the given outline map of India, Identify the location with the help of
specified information.
Q32 Identify the type of soil marked as A and choose the correct option.
a. Black soil
b. Arid soil
c. Alluvial soil
d. Laterite soil
Q33 Identify the type of soil marked as B and choose the correct option.
a. Black soil
b. Arid soil
c. Alluvial soil
d. Red and yellow soil
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ANSWER KEY
Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS

1 C 21 B 28.4 D
2 C 22 A 28.5 C
3 C 23 C 28.6 A
4 C 24 D 29.1 B
5 D 25 A 29.2 C
6 A 26.1 D 29.3 D
7 D 26.2 C 29.4 B
8 A 26.3 D 29.5 D
9 D 26.4 B 29.6 B
10 B 26.5 A 30 B
11 A 26.6 D 31 D
12 D 27.1 D 32 C
13 A 27.2 D 33 A
14 C 27.3 C
15 C 27.4 C
16 A 27.5 B
17 B 27.6 B
18 D 28.1 B
19 A 28.2 C
20 A 28.3 D
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Chapter 4
AGRICULTURE
CROPPING SEASON TECHNO-INSTITUTION

TYPES OF FARMING REFORMS
 Kharif
 Primitive Subsistence  Rabi
 Intensive Subsistence  Zaid
 Land Reforms
 Commercial
 Abolition of Zamindari system
 Green Revolution
 KCC, PAIS
 Loan to farmers, MSP
 Research and developments
 Weather Bulletin
(a) Natural
Commercial
Primitive
Farming
Subsistence Intensive  Use of higher
Farming Subsistence Farming doses of modern
 Practiced on small  Practiced in areas inputs, such as
patches of land of high population High Yielding
with the help of  Labour intensive Variety (HYV)
primitive tools farming Seeds, chemical
 Depend on  High doses of fertilizers etc.
Monsoon biochemical
 It’s ‘Slash and  Plantation is a
inputs and type of
Burn’ agriculture irrigation are used commercial
farming
Types of Farming
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Sl.No. Crop Geographical requirement Areas of Production
Staple Crop in India, Kharif crop, Plains of north and north-eastern

Rice- requires25º C temperature, and India, coastal areas and the
1. Kharif high humidity with annual rainfall deltaic regions.
Crop above 100 cm. West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh,
Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Kerala
Temperature 15º C-20º C Ganga-Satluj plains in the north-
2. Wheat- 50-75 cm annual rainfall, cool west
Rabi Crop growing season and bright Black soil region of the Deccan
Sunshine at the time of ripening. Punjab, Haryana, Uttar, Pradesh
i)Jowar, i)Rain-fed crop – grown in moist i) Maharashtra, Karnataka,
areas Andhra Pradesh
3. ii)bajra ii)Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh,
ii)sandy soils and shallow black Maharashtra,
ii)ragi soil. iii)Karnataka, Tamil Nadu,
Himachal Pradesh
iii)Crop of dry regions and grows
well on red, black, sandy, loamy
and shallow black soils
Sugarcane- Tropical as well as a subtropical
4. source of crop. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra,
sugar, gur It grows well in hot and humid Karnataka, Tamil Nadu,
(jaggary), climate with a temperature of 21°C
khandsari to 27°C and an annual rainfall
and between 75cm. and 100cm
molasses.
Grows in tropical and subtropical
5. climates, require warm and moist Assam, West Bengal,
Tea- frost-free climate all through the Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
Beverage year, fertile well drained soil,
crop Temperature 20º C to 30º C.
Rainfall 150-300cm.
6. Coffee- Temperature 15º C to 28º C Karnataka, Kerala and

Beverage Rainfall 150-200cm Tamil Nadu.
crop
Cotton- Black soil, high temperature,210
7. Fibre frost free days and bright sunshine Maharashtra, Gujarat,
Crop for its growth. Madhya Pradesh,
Grows well on well drained fertile

8. Jute- soils in the floodplains where soil is West Bengal, Bihar, Assam,
‘Golden renewed every year, High Odisha
Fibre’ temperature during its growth.
Maize - kharif crop which requires

9. Food and temperature between 21°C to 27°C Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh,
Fodder and grows well in old alluvial soil. Uttar Pradesh,
65
Crop
Page

Cropping Seasons –
 Kharif- Grown with onset of monsoon, harvested in September-

October,
Crops-Rice (Paddy), Maize, Jowar, Bajra, Tur, Cotton, Jute,
Groundnut, Soyabean
 Rabi- Sown in winter from October to December and harvested in
summer from April to June.
Crops – Wheat, Barley, Peas, Gram, Mustard.
 Zaid- Between Kharif and Rabi seasons, short season,
Crops- watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables, and
fodder crops.
Multiple Choice Questions

1) Which of the following type of economic activity is agriculture?
(a) Secondary
(b) Primary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Organized
2) ‘Slash and Burn’ agriculture is –

(a) Shifting agriculture
(b) Commercial agriculture
(c) Intensive agriculture
(d) None of these
3) Hoe, dao digging sticks are associated with

(a) Primitive subsistence farming
(b) Green Revolution
(c) Commercial farming
(d) Industrial revolution
4) Which of the following conditions is not a feature for primitive

subsistence farming?
(a) Fertility of soil
(b) Monsoon
(c) Favourable atmosphere
(d) Sufficient capital
(5) Name the type of farming, which has an interface of agriculture

and industry.
(a) plantation agriculture
(b) Slash and Burn agriculture
66
(c) Intensive Subsistence

(d) None of the above
Page

(6) What is Primitive subsistence farming called in Bastar district of
Chattisgarh and in Andaman and Nicobar Island?
(a) Ray
(b) Valre
(c) Khil
(d) Dipa
(7) Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture
where a single crop is grown on a large area?
(a) Shifting Agriculture
(b) Plantation Agriculture
(c) Horticulture
(d) intensive Agriculture.
(8) Which of the following oil-seeds is a Rabi crop?

(a) Sesamum
(b) Linseed
(c) Groundnut
(9) Karnataka is famous for which plantation crops

(a) Coffee
(b) Tea
(c) jute
(d) Wheat
(10) Name the crop grown with the onset of monsoon in different
parts of the country.
(a) Kharif Crop
(b) Rabi Crop
(c) Zaid
(11) Which of the following are plantation crops?

(a) Rice and maize
(b) Wheat and pulses
(c) Tea, coffee, banana and sugarcane
(d) Rice and Wheat
(12) Rabi crops are:

(a) sown in winter and harvested in summer
(b) sown during rainy season and harvested in winter
(c) sown in summer and harvested in winter
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(13) A short season between the rabi and kharif season is known
as:
(a) Aus
(b) Boro
(c) Zaid
(14) The two main wheat growing regions are:

(a) The Ganga-Sutlej plains and the Deccan Trap
(b) North-eastern part and eastern-coastal plains
(c) Deccan plateau and Konkan coast
(15) Which of the following crop is a major source of protein in a

vegetarian diet?
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Pulses
(d) Oilseeds
(16) Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk fibre is known
as:
(a) Sericulture
(b) Aquaculture
(c) Viticulture
(d) Pisciculture
(17) Ragi is rich in

(a) Zinc
(b) Iodine
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Iron
(18) Which of the following was the main focus of our First Five
Year Plan
(a) Cost of Food
(b) Globalisation
(c) Land Reforms
(d) Industrialisation
(19) Which type of agriculture is famous in North Eastern States like

Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Nagaland
(a) Commercial
(b) Intensive
68
(c) Jhumming
Page
(d) Commercial Subsistence

(20) Choose the correct option for the Puzzle
“It requires high doses of biochemical. It is practiced in areas of
high population. It produces good Yield with irrigation
facilities.”
(a) Intensive Subsistence farming
(b) Primitive subsistence farming
(d) All of the above
(21) Name the type of agriculture shown in the picture below-
(a) Primitive subsistence farming

(b) Intensive subsistence farming
(d) Slash and burn farming
(22) Name the crop given in the picture, which is a source of

Gur, Khandasari, Molasses –
(a) Cotton
(b) Rubber
(c) Jute
(d) Sugarcane
(23) KCC stands for _______

(a) Kissan Credited Card
(b) Kissan Credit Carding
(c) Kissan Crediting Card
(d) Kissan Credit Card
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Page

(24) Bhoodan- Gramdan movement was initiated by __________
(a) Government of India
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Vinoba Bhave
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
(25) Complete the following table with correct information with

regard to cultivation of Rice crop.
Temperature
Type of Annual
required for its
cropping Rainfall
Rice growth
season
A -? Above 100 cm B -?
(a) A-Kharif: B- Above 40°C

(b) A- Kharif: B- Above 25°C
(c) A- Rabi: B- Above 35°C
(d) A- Zaid: B- Above 20°C
(26) Facilities like irrigation, awareness about modern techniques of

agriculture, Kissan credit cards, provision of crop insurance, personal
accident insurance scheme, special weather bulletins and minimum
support price are all a part of____________.
(a) Technical and institutional measures
(b) Input measures
(c) Physical measures
(d) Human resources
(27) Match the following items given in column I with those in column
II.
Sl.No. Column I Column II

1. Jute a) Oilseed
2. Coffee b) Food and Fodder crop
3. Maize c) Beverage Crop
4. Sesamum d) Fibre Crop
(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

70
(B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

(C) 2-a, 1-b. 3- c, 4-d
Page
(D) 3-a, 4-b, 1-c, 2-d

(28) Why is the share of agriculture in the GDP declining
(a) Small size of land holdings;

(b) Inadequate use of modern technology;
(c) Lack of infrastructure
(29) ______ is a coarse grain grown in India.

(a) Jowar
(b) Hemp
(c) Rice
(d) Coffee
(30) White Revolution, related to ______ production

(a) Cotton
(b) Milk
(c) Oil seeds
(d) Fruits
Assertion and Reason
1. Assertion(A): India’s primary activity is Agriculture

Reason(R): Two thirds of its population is engaged in agricultural
activities
2. Assertion(A): Crops are grown depending upon variations in soil,

climate and cultivation practices
Reason(R): Crops are also grown according to availability of water.
3. Assertion (A): Organic farming is much in vogue.

Reason(R): In organic farming crops are grown using high doses of
chemical fertilisers and insecticides.
4. Assertion (A): Indian Farmers should diversify their cropping pattern

Reason (R): Diversification of agriculture will increase income and
reduce environmental degradation
5. Assertion (A): Pulses are leguminous crops
Reason (R): These help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from
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air
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Source Based Question
Read the text given below and answer the questions that follow:
(A) The Government of India embarked upon introducing agricultural

reforms to improve Indian agriculture in the 1960s and 1970s. The
Green Revolution based on the use of package technology and the
White Revolution (Operation Flood) were some of the strategies
initiated to improve the lot of Indian agriculture. But this too led to
the concentration of development in few selected areas. Therefore, in
the 1980s and 1990s, a comprehensive land development
programme was initiated, which included both institutional and
technical reforms. Provision for crop insurance against drought,
flood, cyclone, fire and disease, establishment of Grameen banks,
cooperative societies and banks for providing loan facilities to the
farmers at lower rates of interest were some important steps in this
direction.
1) Package technology refers to –

(a) High Yielding Variety of Seeds,
(b) Modern equipment’s of tilling the soil,
(c) Fertilizers and pesticides
(d) All the above
2) Farmers are provided insurance in case of ________.

(a) Change of regional party
(b) Restructuring of bank
(c) Natural disasters
(d) Technological reforms
3) Which of the following is associated with Operation flood?

(a) Green revolution
(b) White Revolution
(c) Gene Revolution
(d) Blood less revolution
(4) What is the aim directly associated with Comprehensive land

development?
(a) Industrial development
(b) Farmers’ development
(c) Development of banking1
(d) Political development
(5) How are Grameen Bank beneficial for the farmers?

(a) Always offer interest free loan
(b) Offer loans at low interest rate
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(c) To provide grain storage

(d) Banks have branches in every town
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(B) It is an equatorial crop, but under special conditions, it is also grown
in tropical and Sub-tropical areas. It requires moist and humid climate
with rainfall of more than 200 cm. and temperature above 25°C. It is an
important industrial
raw material. It is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka
and Andaman and Nicobar and Garo hills of Meghalaya.
(1) The Crop discussed in the extract above-

(a) Jute
(b) Cotton
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Rubber
(2) It is an example of ______ Crop.

(a) Food
(b) Plantation
(c) Beverage
(d) Horticulture
(3) Name the island of India where this crop is grown

(a) Lakshadweep
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Andaman Nicobar
(4) The crop is in great demand for ______ raw material.

(a) Industrial
(b) Agricultural
(c) Plantation
(5) The crop is grown in ________.

(a) Tropical
(b) Sub-tropical
(c) Dry areas
(d) Both A and B
(C) Under globalisation, particularly after 1990, the farmers in India have
been exposed to new challenges. Despite being an important producer of
rice, cotton, rubber, tea, coffee, jute and spices our agricultural products
are not able to compete with the developed countries because of the
highly subsidised agriculture in those countries.
Today, Indian agriculture finds itself at the crossroads. To make
agriculture successful and profitable, proper thrust should be given to
the improvement of the condition of marginal and small farmers. The
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green revolution promised much. But today it’s under controversies. It

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is being alleged that it has caused land degradation due to overuse of

chemicals, drying aquifers and vanishing biodiversity. The keyword
today is “gene revolution”, which includes genetic engineering. Genetic
engineering is recognised as a powerful supplement in inventing new
hybrid varieties of seeds.
(1) Farmers in India have been exposed to new challenge under

globalisation. Identify one such challenges based on given
paragraph?
(a) Stiff Competition
(b) Stability in Prices of crops
(c) Land distribution
(d) None of these
(2) What was the main objective of the Green Revolution?

(a) Improvement in the conditions of the farmers
(b) Political stability
(c) Crop insurance against theft
(d) Right of inheritance
(3) The key word today is “gene revolution” which includes genetic
engineering. Which of the following is recognized as genetic
engineering?
(a) Inventing insecticides and pesticides
(b) Inventing biological inputs and fertilisers
(c) Inventing new hybrid varieties of seeds
(d) Inventing organic and inorganic farming
(4) Why is green revolution under controversies?

(a) loss of soil fertility.
(b) vanishing biodiversity
(c) Increasing yield
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(5) Farming done without using any type of chemical fertilisers, or

insecticides is known as _____________.
(a) Organic farming
(b) Inorganic farming
(c) Mixed farming
(d) Collective farming.
(D) Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu in
Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and
burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the
fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the nearby spring. She
loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this
little girl has no idea about the declining fertility of the soil and her family’s
search for fresh a patch of land in the next season.
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Page
(1) Can you name the type of farming Rinjha’s family is engaged in?

(a) Shifting Agriculture
(b) Commercial Agriculture
(c) Bamboo Plantation
(d) None of these
(2) One can infer from the above information that the primary disadvantage
of this cultivation is -
(a) Deforestation
(b) Causes soil erosion
(a) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
(3) Why do the family go in search fresh patch of land for cultivation
(a) for seasonal fruits
(b) due to loss of soil fertility
(c) for sight seeing
(d) for trade
(1) In this type of cultivation, fertility of the soil is through _______

process.
(b) Natural
(c) Artificial
(d) Government agencies
(e) None of these.
**************************************
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Distribution of Rice- Major and Minor Areas in India
Distribution of Wheat – Major and Minor areas in India
76
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MAP BASED QUESTION.
Mark the states known for the following crops on the map of India.
(a) Sugarcane plantation
(b) Coffee plantation
(c) Tea cultivation
(d) Rubber cultivation
(e) Cotton cultivation
(f) Jute cultivation
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Chapter 3: Water Resources- (Locating and Labelling)
Map items of this chapter as listed will be evaluated in Board

Examination.
a. Salal b. Bhakra Nangal

c. Tehri d. Rana Pratap Sagar
e. Sardar Sarovar f. Hirakud
g. Nagarjuna Sagar h. Tungabhadra
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ANSWERS
Answers - Multiple Choice Questions -
Q.No. Answers Q.No. Answers Q.No. Answers

1. b 11. c 21. c
2. a 12. a 22. d
3. a 13. c 23. d
4. d 14. a 24. c
5. a 15. c 25. b
6. d 16. a 26. a
7. b 17. d 27. b
8. b 18. c 28. d
9. a 19. c 29. a
10. a 20. a 30. b
Answers- Assertion Reason
Ans1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(Explanation of assertion- Agriculture is a primary activity,
which produces most of the food that we consume.
Two-thirds of India’s population is involved in agricultural activities and
earns livelihood through it).
Ans2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(Explanation of assertion- Variety of food and non – food crops are
Grown in different parts of the country depending upon the variations
is soil, Climate and cultivation practices. Major crops grown in India
are rice, wheat, millets, pulses, tea, coffee, sugarcane, oil seeds, cotton
and jute, etc).
Ans3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(Explanation of assertion – Organic farming is much in vogue
today because it is practiced without factory made chemicals such as
fertilizers and pesticides. Hence, it does not affect environment and human
beings in a negative manner)
Ans4) Both are true.

Ans5) Both are true
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Answers - Source Based Questions
(A) Ans1) (d) All of these

Ans2) (c) Natural disasters
Ans3) (b) White Revolution
Ans4) (b) Farmers’ development
Ans5) (b) Offer loans at low interest rate
(B) Ans1) (d) Rubber

Ans2) (b) Plantation
Ans3) (d) Andaman Nicobar
Ans4) (a) Industrial
Ans5) (d) Both A and B
(C) Ans1) (a) Stiff Competition

Ans2) (a) Improvement in the conditions of the farmers
Ans3) (c) Invention new hybrid varieties of seeds
Ans4) (d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans5) (a) Organic farming
(D) Ans1) (a) Shifting Agriculture

Ans2) (d) Both a and b
Ans3) (b) due to loss of soil fertility
Ans4) (a) Natural
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Democratic Politics - II
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POWER SHARING
BELGIUM
 A SMALL EUROPEAN COUNTRY with Brussels as its capital.
.  The people speak three languages: Dutch (59%), French (40%) and German
(1%)
 It has boarders with FRANCE, the NETHERLANDS, GERMANY, and
LUXEMBOURG
 The minority French speaking community was relatively rich and powerful.
 BRUSSELS: 80% French speaking and 20% Dutch speaking.
SRI LANKA
.
 74% people speak Sinhala and 18% people speak Tamil.
 Sinhala is the official language of Sri Lanka.
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MAJORIARIANISM IN SRI LANKA
 Sri Lanka was independent in 1948.

 Sinhala community dominate the government.
 1956 act recognise Sinhala as the only official language.
 The state shall protect and foster Buddhism.
 Political organisation formed – (Tamil Eelam).
 Eelam means State
ACCOMMODATION IN BELGIUM
 Belgium followed a community government, which was elected by people
belonging to one language community – Dutch, German and French
speaking.
 Between 1970 and 1993, the constitution of Belgium was amended four
times.
 Tension between the Dutch –speaking and French – speaking communities

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 During the 1950s and 1960s.

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Power Sharing Reason
Prudential:
 Reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
Ensure stability of Political order.
Imposing the will of majority community over others
In the long run undermine the unity of the Nation.
Moral:
 The spirit of democracy.
 A Legitimate government is one where citizens, through participation,
acquire stake in the system.
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85
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POWER SHARING - MCQ
1.Identify the picture
A. European Union parliament in Belgium

B. Indian Parliament
C. Parliament of Sri Lanka
D. None of these
2 Which one of the following countries adopted majoritarianism in their

Constitution?
A. Belgium
B. India
C. Germany
D. Sri Lanka
3 Consider the following statements on power sharing and select the answer using
the codes given below:
I. It is the very spirit of democracy.
II. II. It reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups
III. III. It brings transparency in the governance.
IV. IV. It brings socio-political competition among parties.
Options:
A. I, II & III
B. II, III & IV
C. I, III & IV
D. I, II & IV
4 Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes below in the
lists
List 1 List 2
1 Sri Lanka as an Independent nation a.1950s and 1960s
2 Belgium constitution amended b.1948
3 Tension between Dutch speaking and c.1970-1993
French speaking communities
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4 Sinhala as the only official language d.1956

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A. 1.b, 2.c, 3. d ,4. a
B. 1.c, 2.b, 3. d ,4. a
C. 1.c, 2.a, 3. b ,4. d
D. 1.b, 2.c, 3. a ,4. D
5 Look at the given Sri Lanka map and mention the colour of the region where Sri-
Lankan Tamils lived?
A. Orange colour region

B. Yellow colour region
C. Dark brown colour region
D. Dotted region
6. An intelligent sharing of power among legislature, executive and judiciary is very

important to the design of -------
A. Democracy
B. Political parties
C. Ethnic groups
D. Majoritarianism
7 The population of Sri Lanka is divided into ___________.

A. Sinhala 59 % and Tamil 40%.
B. Sinhala 68 % and Tamil 28%.
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C. Sinhala 74 % and Tamil 18%.

D. Sinhala 80 % and Tamil 20%
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8 Which one of the following communities is not related to Sri Lanka?
A. Indian Tamil
B. Sri Lankan Tamils
C. Sinhalese
D. French
9 Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B
Column A Column B
I. Ethnic 1 Power shared among
different organs of Government
II Vertical division of powers. 2. Power shared among different
levels of Government
III. Community government 3.A social division based on
shared culture
IV.Horizontal distribution of 4. Power shared by different

powers.
social groups

A. I-3, II-2, III-4, IV-1
B. I-3, II-4, III-1, IV-2
C. I-4, II-1, III-3, IV-2
D. I-4, II-2, III-1, IV-3
10 Belgium has borders with the Netherlands, France, Luxembourg and--------

A. Haryana
B. Rome
C. Germany
D. Lebanon
11 Which one of the following systems of power sharing is called checks and
89
balances?
A. Horizontal distribution of powers
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B. Federal division of powers

C. Vertical power sharing
D. Power shared among different levels of government
12 In which continent is Belgium located?

A. America
B. Africa
C. Europe
D. None of these.
13 The term Eelam stands for

A. Democracy
B. State
C. Judiciary
D. Government
14
1%
DUCH SPEARKERS IN
FLEMISH REGION
40%
59% FRENCH SPEAKERS IN
WALLONIA
GERMAN SPEASKERS
The above pie chart shows the ethnic composition of Belgium. Analyse the pie
chart and state the correct statement.
(a) Majority of the Belgians are German speakers
(b) The majority community in Belgium were Dutch speakers with more power
(c) The majority Dutch speakers were less powerful than the minority French
speakers
(d) None of these
In Sri Lanka most of the Sinhala speaking people are ____, while most of the
Tamils are ____ or____
A. Buddhists, Hindus, Muslims
B. Hindus, Buddhists, Muslims
15 C. Muslims, Buddhists, Hindus
D. Hindus, Muslims, Buddhist
16 What does the given picture represent? Choose the correct one.
A. It refers to German Engineering

B. It refers to problems of running a coalition government of Germany.
C. It refers to problems of education
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D. It refers to poblems of ordinary people

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17 When European countries came together to form the European Union ………. was
chosen as the headquarters.
A. Belgium
B. Germany
C. Netherlands
D. Brussels
18 The people whose forefathers came from India to Sri Lanka as plantation
workers during the colonial period are called…….
A. Sri Lankan Tamils
B. Indian Tamils
C. Tamil Indians
D. Indian Sri Lankans
19
In Belgium……
1.
A. The State Governments are not subordinate to the Central Government
B. The State Governments are subordinate to the Central Government
C. The State Governments have no say before the central Government
D. The Central Government is subordinate to the State Governments.
Identify the two languages written below(Notice that place names and
directions In two languages)
A. French and German

B French and Dutch
C. French and Sinhala
D. None of these
20
ASSERTION AND REASONING

CHAPTER-POWER SHARING
Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Options
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
91
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

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C. A is true but R is false.

D. A is false but R is true
1 Assertion(A): Power sharing is good for democracy.

Reason(R): It leads to ethical tension
2 Assertion(A): The minority French –speaking community was relatively rich and
powerful in Belgium.
Reason(R): Paris is the capital city of France
3 Assertion(A): In 1956 an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official
language of Sri Lanka.
Reason(R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to establish the supremacy of
Sinhala community.
4 Assertion(A): In Belgium, the leaders realized that the unity of the country is
possible by respecting the feelings and interest of Sri-Lankan people.
Reason(R): The social disparity led to tensions between Dutch and French
speaking communities during 1950’s and 1960’s.
5 Assertion(A): Power sharing among different organs of government such as the

legislature executive and judiciary is known as horizontal distribution of power.
Reason(R): It allows different organs of government placed at the same level
to exercise different powers.
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus
disregarding Tamil. The governments followed preferential policies that favoured
1. Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs. A new constitution
stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism. All these government
measures, coming one after the other, gradually increased the feeling of alienation
among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of the major political parties led
by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their language and culture. They
felt that the constitution and government policies denied them equal political rights,
discriminated against them in getting jobs and other opportunities and ignored their
interests. As a result, the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities
strained over time. The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the
recognition of Tamil as an official language, for regional autonomy and equality of
opportunity in securing education and jobs. But their demand for more autonomy
to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied. By 1980s several
political organisations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam in
northern and eastern parts of Sri Lanka.
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1.What is the moral reason behind power sharing?

Page
A. It gives absolute power to the government

B It gives absolute power to the people.
C. It is the very spirit of democracy
D. It ensures development.
2.Which is the official language of Sri-Lanka?
A Hindi
B Tamil
C Sinhala
D None of these
3.Sri-Lanka emerged as an independent country in----
A.1956
B.1948
C .1947
D.1951
4.Sri-Lanka is an island nation, just a few kilometres off the southern coast of
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Kerala
C. Goa
D. Karnataka
5.Population of Sri-Lankan Tamils is concentrated in- regions of Sri-Lanka.
A. North and East

B. North and south
C. North and West
D. South and west
2 “In the city of Beirut there lived a man called Khalil. His parents came from different
communities. His father was an Orthodox Christian and mother a Sunni Muslim.
This was not so uncommon in this modern, cosmopolitan city. People from various
communities that lived in Lebanon came to live in its capital, Beirut. They lived
together, intermingled, yet fought a bitter civil war among themselves. One of
Khalil’s uncles was killed in that war. At the end of this civil war, Lebanon’s leaders
came together and agreed to some basic rules for power sharing among different
communities. As per these rules, the country’s President must belong to the
Maronite sect of Catholic Christians. The Prime Minister must be from the Sunni
Muslim community. The post of Deputy Prime Minister is fixed for Orthodox
Christian sect and that of the Speaker for Shi’a Muslims. Under this pact, the
Christians agreed not to seek French protection and the Muslims agreed not to seek
unification with the neighbouring state of Syria. When the Christians and Muslims
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came to this agreement, they were nearly equal in population. Both sides have
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continued to respect this agreement though now the Muslims are in clear majority.

Khalil does not like this system one bit. He is a popular man with political ambition.
But under the present system the top position is out of his reach. He does not
practise either his father’s or his mother’s religion and does not wish to be known
by either. He cannot understand why Lebanon can’t be like any other ‘normal’
democracy. “Just hold an election, allow everyone to contest and whoever wins
maximum votes becomes the president, no matter which community he comes from.
Why can’t we do that, like in other democracies of the world?” he asks. His elders,
who have seen the bloodshed of the civil war, tell him that the present system is the
best guarantee for peace…”
The story was not finished, but they had reached the TV tower where they stopped
every day. Vetal wrapped up quickly and posed his customary question to Vikram:
“If you had the power to rewrite the rules in Lebanon, what would you do? Would
you adopt the ‘regular’ rules followed everywhere, as Khalil suggests? Or stick to the
old rules? Or do something else?” Vetal did not forget to remind Vikram of their
basic pact: “If you have an answer in mind and yet do not speak up, your mobike
will freeze, and so will you”.
1. As per the agreed basic rule the President of the country must belong to which
community?
A. Sunni Muslims
B. Shia Muslims
C. Maronite sect of Catholic Christians
D. Orthodox Christians
2. How does Power sharing occur in a democratic country like India?
A By voting (universal adult franchise)

B By majoritarian rule
C By certain basic rules as in Lebanon
D All of the above
3.What is the capital city of Lebanon?
A. Meerut
B. Beirut
C. Syria
D. Paris
4.Which type of Government does Lebanon have?

A. Democratic Government
B. Primary Government
C. Community Government
D. Coalition Government
5. Under the pact from which country did Christians in Lebanon agree not to
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seek Protection from and which country did Lebanon Muslims agree not to seek
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Unification with?

A. France and Belgium
B. Syria and Brazil
C Brazil and Belgium
D France and Syria
3 The Belgian leaders took a different path. They recognized the existence of regional
differences and cultural diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their
constitution four times to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to
live together within the same country. The arrangement they worked out is different
from any other country and is very innovative. • Constitution prescribes that the
number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the central
government. Some special laws require the support of majority of members from
each linguistic group. Thus, no single community can make decisions unilaterally.
• Many powers of the central government have been given to state governments of
the two regions of the country. The state governments are not subordinate to the
Central Government. • Brussels has a separate government in which both the
communities have equal representation. The French speaking people accepted equal
representation in Brussels because the Dutch-speaking community has accepted
equal representation in the Central Government. • Apart from the Central and the
State Government, there is a third kind of government. This ‘community
government’ is elected by people belonging to one language community – Dutch,
French and German-speaking – no matter where they live. This government has the
power regarding cultural, educational, and language-related issues.
1. How many times did the Belgian Government amend their constitution during
the period 1970-1993?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 2
D. 4
2.The constitution of Belgium prescribes that the number of Dutch and French
speaking ministers ........ in the central government
A. Shall be equal
B. Dutch speaking shall be more
C. French speaking will be more
3.Who elects the community government in Belgium?
A. People belonging to one language community only.

B. By the leaders of Belgium.
C. The citizens of Luxembourg.
95
D. The community leaders of Belgium.

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4. In what all areas do the community government has power?
A. Cultural affairs
B. Education
C. Language related issues
D. All of these
5. Brussels has a separate government in which
A. Both the communities have equal representation

B. Both the communities have different representation
C. French speakers have more representation
D. Community government have more representation
4 Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature,
executive and judiciary. Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it
allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different
powers. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited
power. Each organ checks the others. This results in a balance of power among
various institutions. Last year, we studied that in a democracy, even though
ministers and government officials exercise power, they are responsible to the
Parliament or State Assemblies. Similarly, although judges are appointed by the
executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the
legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of checks and balances. 2 Power
can be shared among governments at different levels – a general government for the
entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level. Such a general
government for the entire country is usually called federal government. In India, we
refer to it as the Central or Union Government. The governments at the provincial
or regional level are called by different names in different countries.
1.Indian parliament consists of------
A. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

B. Executive and Judiciary
C Legislature and Judiciary
D. Lok Sabha and Judiciary.
2.A general government for the entire country in India is called

A. Central government
B. State government
C. Provincial government
D. Federal government
3.How many members are nominated to the upper house of the parliament by the
President of India?
A. 22
B.18
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C. 12
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D.28

4.Who can check the functioning of executive or laws made by
the legislatures?
A. Ministers
B. Judges
C. Governor
D. None of these
5.The provincial or regional Government in India is known as-----
A. Union Government
B. Self-Government
C. State Government
D. All of these
ANSWER KEY OF POWER SHARING

1 A. European Union parliament in Belgium
2 D. Sri Lanka
3 A. I, II & III
4 D 1.b, 2.c, 3. a ,4. D
5 A. Orange colour region
6 A. Democracy
7 C. Sinhala 74 % and Tamil 18%.
8 D. French
9 A. I-3, II-2, III-4, IV-1
10 C. Germany
11 A. Horizontal distribution of powers

12 C. Europe
13 B. State
14 C The majority Dutch speakers were less powerful than the

minority French speakers
97
15 A. Buddhists, Hindus, Muslims

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16 B It refers to problems of running a coalition government of
Germany
17 D. Brussels
18 B. Indian Tamils
19 A. The State Governments are not subordinate to the
Central Government
20 B French and Dutch
Assertion and Reason
1 Ans. C
2 Ans. B
3 Ans. A
4 Ans. D
5 Ans. A
Case studies
1 1. C. It is the very spirit of democracy
2. C Sinhala
3. B.1948
4. A. Tamil Nadu
5. A. North and East
2 1 C. Maronite sect of Catholic Christians
2 A By voting
3 B. Beirut
4 C. Community Government
5 D. France and Syria
3 1 D. 4
2 A. Shall be equal
3 A. People belonging to one language community only.
4 D. All of these
5 A. both the communities have equal representation
4 1 A. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
2 A. Central government
3 C. 12
4 B. Judges
5. C. State Government
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CHAPTER: FEDERALISM
Summary
What is federalism?
Federalism is a system of government in which power is divided between a
central authority and various constituent units of the country.
A federation has two levels of government. Both these levels of governments
enjoy their power independent of the other.
1. One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible
for a few subjects of common national interest.
2. Governments at the level of provinces or states that look after much of
the day-to-day administering of their state.
Key Features of Federalism

Some of the key features of federalism system are:
1. There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.

2. Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has
its own JURISDICTION in specific matters of legislation, taxation and
administration.
3. The existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally
guaranteed.
4. The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally
changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent
of both the levels of government.
5. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of
different levels of government.
6. Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to
ensure its financial autonomy.
7. The federal system has dual objectives: i) To safeguard and promote the
unity of the country ii) Accommodate regional diversity.
Different Routes Through Which Federations Can be Formed

Two aspects are crucial for the institutions and practice of federalism: mutual
trust between the government of different levels and agreement to live together.
There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed.
1. The first route involves independent States coming together on their own
to form a bigger unit. This kind of “coming together” federations is
formed in the USA, Switzerland and Australia.
2. The second route is that a large country decides to divide its power
between the constituent States and the national government. This kind
of ‘holding together’ federations is followed in India, Spain and Belgium
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countries.
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How is Federalism Practised?
The real success of federalism in India is attributed to its nature of democratic
politics. Have a look at some of the major ways in which federalism is practised
in India.
Linguistic States
The creation of linguistic States was the first and a major test for democratic
politics in India. From 1947 to 2017, many old States have vanished and many
new States have been created. Areas, boundaries and names of the States have
been changed. Some States have been formed of the people who speak the
same language. These states are known as Linguistic States.
Language Policy
A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Hindi was identified
as the official language. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised
as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. States too have their own official
languages and government work takes place in the official language of the
concerned State.
Centre-State relations
Restructuring the Centre-State relations is one more way in which federalism
has been strengthened in practice. If no single party gets a clear majority in
the Lok Sabha, the major national parties can alliance with many parties
including several regional parties to form a government at the Centre. This led
to a new culture of power sharing and respect for the autonomy of State
Governments.
Decentralisation in India
A major step towards decentralisation was taken in 1992. The Constitution
was amended to make the third-tier of democracy more powerful and effective.
Here are the key features of 3-tier democracy:
1. It is constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local

government bodies.
2. Seats are reserved in the elected bodies and the executive heads of these
institutions for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other
Backward Classes.
3. At least one-third of all positions are reserved for women.
4. State Election Commission has been created in each State to conduct
panchayat and municipal elections.
5. The State governments are required to share some powers and revenue
with local government bodies. The nature of sharing varies from State to
State.
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MCQ
1. Tamil leaders want Sri Lanka to become________system
A. Unitary system
B. Federal system
C. Monarchy
2. Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier
has its own ………….. in specific matters.
A. Administration
B. Jurisdiction
C. Execution
D. Policies
3. When independent states come together on their own to form a bigger

unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can
increase their security. These types of ‘coming together’ federations are
practiced by which countries?
A. Switzerland & Canada
B. USA and Britain
C. USA, Australia and Switzerland
D. Britain, Canada, USA
4. Which one comes under the Union List in India?
A. Police
B. Agriculture
C. Banking
D. Trade
5. On which given subject can both the Union as well as the State
Governments make laws?
A. Currency
B. Defence
C. Trade Unions
D. Agriculture
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6. What is meant by residuary subjects?

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A. Subjects under union list
B. Subjects under state list
C. Subject under both state and union list
D. Subjects which are not under any list
7. The distinguishing feature of a federal government is
A. National government gives some powers to the provincial governments.

B. Power is distributed among the legislature, executive and judiciary.
C. Elected officials exercise supreme power in the government.
D. Governmental power is divided between different levels of government.
8. Consider the following two statements
1. In a federation the powers of the federal and provincial governments are

clearly demarcated.
2. India is a federation because the powers of the Union and State
Governments are specified in the Constitution and they have exclusive
jurisdiction on their respective subjects.
3. Sri Lanka is a federation because the country is divided into provinces.
4. India is no longer a federation because some powers of the States have
been devolved to the local government bodies.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
9. The system of Panchayati Raj involves
A. Village, State and Union levels

B. Village, District and State levels
C. Village and State levels
D. Village, Block and District levels
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10. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India.

Identify those which hold true for decentralisation after 1992.
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A. Local governments did not have any power or resources of their own.
B. It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local
government bodies.
C. The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue
with local government bodies.
D. No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for scheduled castes,
scheduled tribes and other backward classes.
(A) B and C
(B) A and C
(C) A and D
(D) B and D
11. In a ‘Holding together federation’

A. A large country divides its power between constituent states and the
national government.
B. The Central government tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis the States.
C. All the constituent states usually have equal powers.
D. Constituent states have unequal powers.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) A, B, C and D
(B) A and D
(C) B and C
(D) A, B and D
12. Indian federalism generally known as unitary bias. Why?

A. Central govt. has more powers
B. Central govt. has more subjects
C. Residuary powers controlled by central govt.
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D. All the above

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13. Decentralisation of administration was implemented for
A. Strengthening of democracy
B. Rural development
C. Women empowerment
D. All the above
14.Choose the correct statement regarding language policy of the India
Government
A. English is our national language
B. Citizens are free to choose any language as national language
C. Hindi is our national language
D. Constitution of India did not declare any language as national language
15. Which one is not the part of three tier system of Panchayatiraj?
A. Municipality
B. Village panchayat
C. Block samiti
D. Zila parishad
16. Who is the head of a Municipal Corporation?
A. Mayor
B. Collector
C. Sarpanch
D. Block Development Officer
17. What is the government at block level called?

A. Panchayat Samiti
B. Gram sabha
C. Gram Panchayat
D. Zilla Parishad
18. Which period saw the rise of regional political parties in many states of
the country?
A. Period after 1980
D. Period after 1970
B. Period after 1990
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C. Period after 2000

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19. Look at the cartoon and choose the correct answer that followsThe States
Plead for More Powers
A. State government is the subordinate to the centre
B. Union government enjoys more powers
C. Coming together federalism
D. Holding together federalism
20. Which one of the following countries has the federal form of government?
A. Egypt
B. Sri Lanka
C. Australia
D. England
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ANSWER KEY
1. B. Federal system
2. B. Jurisdiction
3. C. USA, Australia and Switzerland
4. C. Banking
5. C. Trade Unions
6. D. Subjects which are not under any list
7. D. Governmental power is divided between different levels of government
8. C. 1 and 2 only
9. D. Village, Block and District levels
10. (A) B and C
11. D. Constituent states have unequal powers.
12. D. Constituent states have unequal powers.
13. D. All the above
14. D. Constitution of India did not declare any language as national
language
15. A. Municipality
16. A. Mayor
17. A. Panchayat Samiti
18. B. Period after 1990
19. B. Union government enjoys more powers
20. C. Australia
……………oOo…………..
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Class X
Chapter I Development
Different Income Income

Comparing
People and National and Public Sustainable
Different
Different other Development other Facilities Development
Countries
Goals Goals Criteria
Development is a Comprehensive term which includes:
 Economic Growth
 Social Growth
 Political Growth
 Sustainability
 Clean Environment
Different People – Different Goals

 Landless Labourer:
Better Wages, education for children, social equality
 Rich Farmer: high income, support price, cheap labour, cheap inputs
 Women: economic equality, freedom, education
 Adivasi: Protection of forests, no dams
Conflicting Goals
 Rich Farmer: Cheap labour, Cheap power

 Labourer: High Wages
 Industrialist: Regular and Cheap Power supply and more dams
 Tribe: No displacement due to construction of dams
Income and Other Goals

 Besides better income:
 Equal treatment
 No discrimination
 Friends
 Good working environment
 Regular Employment
 Security and Freedom
 Respect
 Job Security
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National Development
 Improvement in standard of living for all
 Fair and just use of resources
 Taking Economic decisions which benefit the under privileged
 Providing basic amenities like education, health, water to all
Comparing Countries
UNDP WORLD BANK
(i) UNDP has taken education, health, (i) World Bank has taken per capita income
life expectancy as the basis of as the basis for measuring economic
development development
(ii) It is a broad concept as it takes into

(ii) It is a narrow concept as it takes into
account all the important components
account only income
of human development
(iii) UNDP has ranked countries on the

(iii) World Bank has divided the countries
basis of different components of
into Low, Upper and Higher Income Countries
development; for example, India has
( Report 2017) For example, India comes
been awarded the 130th rank (Report
under Lower Middle Income Group.
2017)
Public Facilities
 Money in your pocket cannot buy all the goods and services that we need
to live well.
 Pollution free environment
 Community Services like schools, parks and hospitals
 Public Distribution system for food
 Public transport
Sustainable Development
 Development not affecting the environment
 Development not affecting the needs of future generation
 Judicious use of resources
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1. The Developmental goal for a Landless agricultural labour is

______________.
A. More days of work and better wages
B. Assured a high family income through higher support prices for
their crops
C. they should be able to settle their children abroad.
D. Proper and developed Irrigational facilities for their crops.
2. If women are engaged in paid work, what difference does it make?
A. Their dignity in the household and society decreases
B. Household work of women decreases.
C. Income of the family is reduced.
D. their dignity in the household and society increases
3. Which of the following things money cannot buy?
a. Building
b. Flowers
c. Pollution free environment
d. Book
4. Which one of the following is not a measure of development in the Human
Development Report of the UNDP?
a. Per capita income in US$
b. Education Levels of the people
c. Body Mass Index
d. Life expectancy at birth
5. In which state of India infant mortality rate is the lowest?
a. Kerala
b. Bihar
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Punjab
6. Which of the following neighbour of India ranks higher on the Human
110
Development Index
a. Nepal
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b. Sri Lanka
c. Bhutan
d. Pakistan
7. In order to get more income people need: -
a. Regular work
b. Better wages
c. Decent price for their crops
d. All of these
8. The total number of children attending school as a percentage of total
number of children in the same age group is called
(a) Net attendance ratio
(b) Literacy rate
(c) Gross enrolment ratio
(d) Level of education
9. Human Development Report is published by
(a) UNDP
(b) World Bank
(c) IMF
(d) WHO
10. For calculating Body Mass Index (BMI), weight of the person is divided by
the:
(a) Square of the weight
(b) Square of the height
(c) Square root of the height
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11. Match the following
CATEGORY OF PERSONS DEVELOPMENT GOALS

a. Farmer who depends only on rain for i. To get good and proper education for
irrigation. her children
ii. Assured higher support prices for their
b. An unemployed urban youth
crops
iii. Improve irrigational facilities for his
c. Rich farmers with large land holdings
farm
d. A rural woman from a land-owning
iv. Regular job with a high income
family
A. a- iii B. a- ii, C. a- iv, D. a-i
b- iv b- iii, b- i, b-ii
c- ii c-iv, c-iii, c-i
d- i d-iii, d-iv, d-ii
12. Look at the picture given below. What should be the development goal for
such an area?
A. Removing slums from this area

B. Resettling the poor in the outskirts of the city
C. Improving the living and sanitation conditions of the poor living in this
area
D. Constructing multi-storeyed building in this area
13. Read the following data and information carefully and select the
most appropriate answer from the given options:
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TABLE FOR COMPARISON OF THREE COUNTRIES
Monthly income of citizens in 2020

Countries
I II III IV V
Country A 9500 10500 9800 10000 10200
Country B 500 500 500 500 48000
Country C 5000 1000 15000 4000 25000
Sheela is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to

different countries after every three years of service. She has been given an
opportunity to choose any one out of the three countries mentioned in the table
above as her next job location. She calculates average income of all these
countries as per the given data and chooses to be transferred to country A..
Identify the reason for which Sheela has chosen country A.

(a) Most of its citizens are rich and stable
(b) Has most equitable distribution of income
(c) National income of its citizens is higher
(d) Average income of its citizens lower
14. Based on the conflicting developmental goals, which of the following pairs
are not correctly matched?
a. More wages to workers - against the interests of the

entrepreneur.
b. Rich farmers want to sell food grains at high prices -
poor workers want to purchase it at low prices.
c. Construction of a dam means more and cheaper power
for people - The tribals do not want to leave the place.
d. Expansion of roads in the city - good for reducing traffic
congestion.
15. Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate option.

The per capita income of different countries is counted and calculated in
..............
a. Pound Sterling
b. Rouble
113
c. Rupees
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d. US Dollars

16. “Suppose the average income of a country is not getting increased over
time, but the records of the National Income shows a rise” what does this
situation signify?
a. Increase in population
b. Decrease in population
c. Fall in resources
d. Increase in poverty
17. Infant Mortality Rate indicates
a. Literate population in the seven years and above age-group
b. The number of children who die before the age of one year as a proportion of 1000
live children.
c. The total number of children attending school
d. The number of children born in a year.
18. Human Development Report prepared by UNDP compares countries based on

their .............
i. Per Capita Income
ii. Health and education
a. Only ( i)
b. Only (ii)
c. Both (i) & (ii)
d. Neither (i) or (ii)
19. Which one of the following is not a feature of a developing country?
a. Agriculture as the major occupation
b. High technological development
c. Disguised unemployment
d. Mass poverty
20. Which among the following enhances environmental degradation?
a. Planting of trees
b. Prevention of factory waste getting mixed up with river water.
c. Ban on the use of plastics
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d. Allowing increase in the level exhaust fumes emitted by cars, buses, trucks, etc.
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Assertion - Reason Type Questions
In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as

Assertion ( A ) and Reason ( R ). Read the statements and choose the
correct code.
1. Assertion ( A ): Different people have different developmental goals.

Reason ( R ): The capitalist approach to development is detrimental to the
poor section of the society.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c A is correct but R is wrong .
d. A is wrong but R is correct
2. Assertion ( A ): Per Capita Income is not an adequate indicator of economic

development of a country .
Reason ( R ) : Per Capita Income does not tell us how this income is
distributed and it might not be the income of every individual in the state.

3. Assertion ( A ) : Environment must be conserved while development is

taking place.
Reason ( R ) : Resources must be used in such a way that they are conserved
for future generations
.
4. Assertion (A) : Human development index mentions how socio-economic

development has happened in a country.
Reason (R) Comparison of national income of two countries explains Human
Development Index
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5. Assertion (A) : Money cannot buy all the goods and services that one needs
to live well.
Reason (R) It cannot buy pollution-free environment, unadulterated
medicines, happiness, peace, etc.
Source based/ case study questions
Q1, Read the source given below and answer the following questions:
You will notice a common thing: What people desire are regular work, better
wages and fair prices for their crops or other products they produce. In other
words, they want more income. Apart from earning more income in some form
or the other, people also look for things like equal treatment, freedom, security
and respect of others. They oppose discrimination. In fact, in some cases,
these may be more important than higher income or higher consumption
because material goods are not all that you need to live. Money, or the material
things one can buy with it, is a factor on which our lives depend. But the
quality of our life also depends on the non-material things mentioned above.
If this isn't clear to you, think about the role your friends play in your life. You
can wish for their friendship. Similarly there are many things which cannot
be easily measured but they mean a lot to our life. These are often ignored.
However, it would be wrong to conclude that what cannot be measured is not
important. Consider another example. If you get a job in a remote location,
you'll try to consider a number of factors besides income, such as facilities for
your family, working environment, or learning opportunities, before accepting
it. In another case, the job may pay you less but offer regular employment
that enhances your sense of security. Another job, however, may offer a higher
salary but does not have job security and does not leave time for your family
as well. This will reduce your sense of security and independence. Similarly,
people look at a mix of goals for development. It is true that if women are
employed in wage work, their prestige increases at home and in society.
However, it is also the case that if there is respect for women there will be more
participation in household chores and more acceptance of women working
outside. A safe and secure environment can allow more women to do a variety
of jobs or run businesses. Therefore, people's development goals are not only
about better income but also about other important things in life.
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Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option :
1. The source given above relates to which of the following options ?

(a) Employment
(b) Development
(c) Income
(d ) Selling of produce
2. ) As per the passage which of the following is the desire of people ?
( a) Regular work
(b ) Better wages
( c) Decent price for their crops
( d) All of the above
3. What other things people desire besides seeking more income for
them ?
(a) Equal treatment
(b) Freedom
(c) Security
(d) All of these
4. For development, people:
(a) desire to have regular work
(b) desire to get better wages
(c) look at a mix of goals
Q2. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
How is it that the average person in Haryana has more income than the average
person in Kerala but lags behind in these crucial areas? The reason is money
in your pocket cannot buy all the goods and services that you may need to live
well. So, income by itself is not a completely adequate indicator of material
goods and services that citizens are able to use. For example, normally, your
money cannot buy a pollution free environment or ensure that you get
unadulterated medicines, unless you can afford to shift to a community that
already has all these things. Money may also not be able to protect you from
infectious diseases, unless the whole of your community takes preventive
steps. Actually for many of the important things in life the best way, also the
cheapest way, is to provide these goods and services collectively. Just think,
will it be cheaper to have collective security for the whole locality or for each
house to have its own security guard? What if no one , other than you in your
village or locality is interested in studying would you be able to study? Not
117
unless your parents could afford to send you to some private school elsewhere.
So you are actually able to study because many other children also want to
Page
study and because many people believe that the government should open

schools and provide other facilities so that all children have a chance to study.
Even now, in many areas, children, particularly girls, are not able to go to high
school because the government / society has not provided adequate facilities .
Kerala has a low Infant Mortality Rate because it has adequate provision of
basic health and educational facilities. Similarly, in some states, the Public
Distribution System (PDS) functions well. Health and nutritional status of
people of such states is certainly likely to be better.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option :

1 The source given above relates to which of the following options ?
(a) Health
(b) Education
(c) Public facilities
(d) Poverty
2. Which of the following is true about money ?

(a) Money cannot buy a pollution free environment
(b) Money cannot ensure that you get unadulterated medicines
(c) Money cannot protect from infectious diseases
3. Even now, in many areas, children, particularly girls are not able to go
to high school because:
(a) parents do not allow children to go to school
(b) children are not willing to go to school
(c) the government / society has not provided adequate facilities for school .
(d) None of the these
4. Which among the following states has a low infant mortality rate?
(a) Haryana
(b) Kerala
(c) Bihar
(d) Odisha
Q3. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Suppose at present a particular country is quite developed. We would certainly
like this level of development to go up further or at least be maintained for
future generations. This is obviously desirable. However, since the second half
of the twentieth century, a number of scientists have been warning that the
present type and levels of development are not sustainable. Groundwater is an
118
example of renewable resources which are replenished by nature as in the case

of crops and plants. However, even these resources may be overused. For
Page
example, in the case of groundwater, if we use more than what is being

replenished by rain then we would be overusing this resource. Non-renewable
resources are those which will get exhausted after years of use. We have fixed
stock on earth which cannot be replenished. We do discover new resources
that we did not know of earlier. New sources in this way add to the stock.
However, over time, even this will get exhausted. Consequences of
environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries; This
issue is no longer region or nation specific. Our future is linked together.
Sustainability of development is comparatively a new area of knowledge in
which scientists, economists, philosophers and other social scientists are
working together. In general, the question of development or progress is
perennial. At all times as a member of society and as individuals we need to
ask where we want to go, what we wish to become and what our goals are. So
the debate on development continues.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
1. The source given above relates to which of the following ?

(a) Poverty
(b) Per Capita Income
(c) Sustainable Development
(d) Health care
2. Which of the following is an example of renewable resources ?

(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Groundwater
(d) Natural gas
3. Consequences of which of the following do not respect national or state

boundaries ?
(a) Poverty
(b) Unemployment example of renewable
(c) Deforestation
(d) Environmental degradation
4. Non - renewable resources are those resources which :

(a) Can be renewed by physical and chemical processes .
(b) Get exhausted after years of use
(c) Are subsets of stock
(d) Found in a region but have not been utilized.
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Q.4 Read the text given below and answer the questions that follow:
For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most
important attributes. Countries with higher income are more developed than
others with less income. This is based on the understanding that more income
means more of all things that human beings need. Whatever people like, and
should have, they will be able to get with greater income. So, greater income
itself is considered to be one important goal Intuitively, the income of the
country is the income of all the residents of the country. This gives us the total
income of the country. However, for comparison between countries, total
income is not such an useful measure. Since, countries have different
populations, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is
likely to earn. Hence, we compare the average income which is the total income
of the country divided by its total population. The average income is also called
per capita income. In World Development Reports, brought out by the World
Bank, this criterion is used in classifying countries. Countries with per capita
income of US$ 12056 per annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries
and those with per capita income of US$ 955 or less are called low-income
countries. India comes in the category of low middle income countries because
its per capita income in 2017 was just US$ 1820 per annum. The rich
countries, excluding countries of Middle East and certain other small
countries, are generally called developed countries.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

1. Why is total income not a useful measure for comparison between two
countries?
(a) total income is not such an useful measure since countries have different
populations
(b) Comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to
earn.
(c) Comparing average income will not tell us what an average person is likely
to earn.
(d) Both a and b
2. According to World Bank Report, the minimum per capita income (in
dollars) for a country to be called a low-income country?
(a) $ 12056 and above
(b) $ 955 or above
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(c) $ 955 or less

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3. Which of the given equation is incorrect?
(a) Total Income = Per Capita Income x Total Population
(b) Per Capita Income = Total Income / Total Population
(c) Per Capita Income = Total Income x Total Population
(d) Total Population = Total Income / Per Capita Income
4. .................. determines that the economy of a given country is developed
or developing
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) United Nations
(c) World Bank
(d) World Trade Organisation
Answer Key
1. A
2. D
3. C
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. A
10. C
11. A. a- iii, B. b- iv, C. c- ii, D. d- i,
12. C. Improving the living and sanitation conditions of the poor living
in this area
13. (b) Has most equitable distribution of income
14. d Expansion of roads in the city - good for reducing traffic
congestion
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15. d. US Dollars
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16. a. Increase in population
17. b. The number of children who die before the age of one year as a
proportion of 1000 live children.
18. c. Both (i) & (ii)
19. b. High technological development
20. d. Allowing increase in the level exhaust fumes emitted by cars,
buses, trucks, etc.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
1. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
2. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
3. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
4. c A is correct but R is wrong .
5. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Source based/ case study questions
Q1.
1. (c) Income
2. (d) All of the above
3. (d) All of these
Q2
1. (c) Public facilities
3. c) the government / society has not provided adequate facilities for
school.
4. (b) Kerala
Q3.
1. (c) Sustainable Development
2. (c) Groundwater
3. (d) Environmental degradation
4. (b) Get exhausted after years of use
Q 4.
1. (d) both (a) and (b)
2. (c) $ 955 or less
3. (c) Per Capita Income = Total Income x Total Population
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4. (c) World Bank

……………oOo………….
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SECTORS OF THE INDIAN ECONOMY
SUMMARY:
Primary sector:
When we produce goods by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of
the primary sector.
Secondary sector:
Covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms
through ways of manufacturing, it is also called as industrial sector.
Tertiary sector:
These are the activities that help in the development of the primary &
secondary sector. These activities by themselves do not produce good but they
are an aid and support to the production process. Example: Transportation-
Goods that are produced in the primary sector need to be transported by
trucks or trains and than sold in the wholesale and retail shops; Storage—at
times it is necessary to store these products in godowns, which is also a service
made available. Communication -talking to others on telephone); Banking-
borrowing money from the banks. Since these activities are generate services
rather than goods it is also called Service sector.
Gross Domestic Product (GDP):
The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a
particular year provides the total production of the sector for that year. And
sum of production in three sectors give Gross Domestic Product—GDP of the
country. It is the value of all final goods and services produced within the
country during a particular year.
Underemployment:
This is the situation of where people are apparently working but all of them
are made to work less than their potential. This kind of underemployment is
hidden in contrast to someone who does not have a job. Hence, it is also
called disguised unemployment.
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005,

(MNREGA 2005):
Under NREGA 2005, all those who are able to, and are in need of, work have
been guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year by the government. If the
government fails in its duty to provide employment, it will give unemployment
123
allowances to the people.

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Organised sector:
It covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment
are regular and therefore, people have assured work.
Unorganized sector:
It is characterized by small and scattered units which are largely outside the
control of the government. There are rules and regulations but these are not
followed.
Public sector:
In this sector government owns most of the assets and provides all the
services.
Growing importance of Tertiary sector:
 In any country several services such as hospitals , educational

institutions, post and telegraph services, police stations, courts, village
administrative offices, municipal corporations, defense, transport, banks,
insurance companies etc. are required.
 The development of the agriculture and industrial leads to the
development of services such as transport, trade, storage and the like.
Greater the development of primary and secondary sectors more will be
demand of such services.
 As the income level rise, certain sections of people start demanding
many more services like
eating out, tourism, shopping , private hospitals, professional training
etc. This is found especially in the big cities.
 Over the past decade or so certain new services such as those based on
the information and communication technology have become important
& essential.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS:
no Questions
1.
Choose the correct meaning of organised sector:
(a) It covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular.
(b) It is outside the control of the government.
(c) Jobs are not regular.
(d) It provides low salaries.
2.
The value of all final goods and services produced within a country during
a particular year is called as:
124
(a) Gross Domestic Product

(b) Net Domestic Product
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(c) National Product
(d) Production of Tertiary Sector
3.
A situation in which more persons are employed on a job than are
optimally required is:
(a) Structural unemployment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Cyclical unemployment
(d) Seasonal unemployment
4.
GDP stands for Gross Domestic Product. What does it show? Pick up the
correct statement given below:
(a) It shows how big is the economy of a country in a given year in terms of
its total output.
(b) It shows what the total product of a country in a given year without
counting the country’s total resources.
(c) It shows the number of people involved in production in a particular
year.
(d) It shows the total value of trade trans-actions of a country in a
particular year.
5.
Study the graph given below and answer the questions that followed:
1. Which was the largest producing sector in 1973?

2. Which was the largest producing sector in 2003?
125
3. What is the contribution of secondary sector (%) to total GDP in 2003?

4. What is the approximate share of tertiary sector in GDP (%) in 1973?
Page

6.
Where will you find the disguised unemployment most? Select the correct
option from those given below:
(a) Among agricultural workers working for small farm lands
(b) Among part-time industrial workers
(c) In most of the government offices
(d) In big private companies
7.
____________ refers to the activities which are undertaken by people with
the object of earning money.
(a) Organised activities
(b) Unorganised activities
(c) Economic activities
(d) Noneconomic activities
8.
A housewife looking after the household is an example of ____________ .
(a) Organised activities
(b) Unorganised activities
(c) Economic activities
(d) Noneconomic activities
9.
---------------------------------------are those goods which are used up in the
production process to make final goods and services.
(a) Primary goods
(b) Secondary goods
(c) Intermediary goods
(d) Private goods
10.
GDP is the total value of ............ …………………….produced during a
particular year.
1. all goods and services
2. all final goods and services
3. all intermediate goods and services
4. all intermediate and final goods and services
11.
Who among the following fall under the organized sector?
(a) Raghu, a daily wage labourer working in a dam site under a
contractor.
(b) Nafeesa, a doctor getting all employment benefits.
(c) Purushothaman, a cleaning staff in a private bank.
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(d) Ammini, a tailor stitching clothes at his home.

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12.
Choose the correct option from the following:
List I (Example) List II (Sectors)

A. Taxi driver Tertiary Sector
B. Flower producer Secondary Sector
C. Cartoonist Primary Sector
D. Insurance Secondary Sector
advisor
13.
Aruna is undernourished as her weight is 40 kgs and her height is 1.62
meters. Find out his Body Mass Index (BMI) from the following options.
A. 12.6
B. 13.5
C. 14.7
D. 15.2
14.
Match the following:
Problems faced by farming

Some possible measures
sector
1. Unirrigated land (a) Setting up agro-based mills
(b) Cooperative marketing
2. Low prices for crops
societies
(c) Procurement of food grains
3. Debt burden
by government
(d) Construction of canals by
4. No job in the off season
the government
5. Compelled to sell their (e) Banks to provide credit
grains to the local with low
A. 1(d) 2(c) 3(e) 4 (a) 5 (b)
B. 1(a) 2(d) 3(e) 4 (b) 5 (a)
C. 1(d) 2(e) 3(c) 4 (a) 5 (b)
D. 1(b) 2(c) 3(e) 4 (a) 5 (d)
15.
Find the odd one out and say why.
(i) Tourist guide, dhobi, tailor, potter
(ii) Teacher, doctor, vegetable vendor, lawyer
(iii) Postman, cobbler, soldier, police constable
127
(iv) MTNL, Indian Railways, SAIL, SAHARA Airlines, All India Radio
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16. The following table gives the GDP in Rupees (Crores) by the three
sectors:
Year Primary Secondary Tertiary
2000 52,000 48,500 1,33,500
2013 8,00,500 10,74,000 38,68,000
(i) Calculate the share of the three sectors in GDP for 2000 and 2013.
(ii) Show the data as a bar diagram similar to Graph 2 in the chapter.
(iii) What conclusions can we draw from the bar graph?.
17. Radha works at a pappad making shop in her village on a contract basis
and gets meagre salary after working the entire day. She doesn’t get any
holidays or paid leave, rather her employer deducts her salary whenever
she is absent from work.
Find out in which of the following sectors she is working?
A. Primary Sector
B. Service Sector
C. Organized Sector
D. Unorganised Sector
18.
According to 2017-2018 data, the share of different sectors in employment
(percentage) in India was
 Primary Sector - 44%
 Secondary Sector - 25%
 Tertiary Sector - 31%
Out of the three sectors, in which sector the ratio of employment is growing
and why?
Select the most suitable option from the following:
A. Primary sector – Where more people in villages are depending
B. Secondary sector- because of industrialisation
C. Tertiary sector- Because of the growing demand for goods or services
D. all the sectors- because of the outsourcing of job opportunities
Reasoning (R).
Assertion (A): The share of tertiary sector in employment has not increased
in proportion to its increase in production.
Reason (R): Still more than half of the workers in the country are working
in the primary sector.
Options:
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20.
Jerald is employed in a sugar processing farm where he has to do a lot of
manual work. His wife and son also help him in his work on the farm at
that time of sugarcane production.
Which type of employment is this an example?
A. Under employment
B. Seasonal employment
C. Over employment
D. Cyclical employment
21. Which one of the following is an activity performed by the primary sector
A) Milling
B) Farming
C) Banking
D) Transportation
22.
Which of the following measures the proportion of children that die before
the age of 1 year as a
proportion of 1000 live children born in that particular year?
A- IMR - Infant mortality rate

B - Literacy rate
C - Net attendance ratio
D - Drop out ratio
23.
Employment figures of a country are based on the data collected from 5-
yearly survey on employment and unemployment.
_______________ conducts this survey in India.
A. NSSO—National Sample Survey Organisation
B. NREGA 2005—National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
C. ILO — International Labour Organisation
D. NSSO—National Social Survey Organisation
24.
Choose the correct option from the following
Column 1 Column 2
A:Tertiary sector Diary Farming
b:Public sector Railways
C:Private sector Agriculture
D:Secondary sector IT & communication
25.
129
Kamal is a daily wage labourer in a grocery shop. He goes the shop at 7.30
in morning and
works till 8.00pm in the evening. He gets no other allowances apart from
Page
his wages. He is not

paid for the days he does not work. He has therefore no leave or paid
holidays. He can be asked
to leave anytime by his employer. In which sector Kamal work?
A. Unorganized sector
B. Organized sector
C. Underemployment sector
D. Primary sector
26.
(percentage) in India was?
● Primary sector- 39%
● Secondary sector- 12%
● Tertiary sector- 49%
Out of these three sectors, why did the ratio of employment in Tertiary
sector high?
Select the most suitable option from the following
A. Tertiary sector has wide range of products
B. Low job opportunities in primary sector
C. Efforts of labour are not equivalent in all the sectors
D. Outsourcing of job opportunities in Primary sector
27. Give an example of an activity performed by the secondary sector.

A) Ore processing
B) Mining
C) Banking
D) Fishing
28. Choose the correct option from the following
List 1 List 2
A: Primary sector 71% employment in 1977-78

B:Tertiary sector 11% employment 2017-18
C:Primary sector 18% employment in 1977-78
D:Secondary sector 71% employment in 1977-78
29. Kanta works in an office. She attends her office from 9.30am to
5.30pm.She gets her salary
regularly at the end of every month. She also gets provident fund as per the
rules laid down by
government .She also gets paid leave, medical and other allowances. In
which sector Kanta
work?
A. Underemployment sector
130
B. Organized sector
C. Unorganized sector
D. Tertiary sector
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30. Which of the following is a tertiary-sector activity?
A) Animal Husbandry
B) Papad-making
C) Baking
D) Shipping
List 1 List 2
A:Unorganised sector Fixed working hours
B:Organised sector No job security
C:Unorganised sector Largely outside the control of government
D:Organised sector no extra benefits or paid leave
Read
32.
The following data and information carefully and select the most
appropriate answer from the given options:
TABLE FOR COMPARISON EARNINGS FROM DIFFERENT CROPS.
ANNUAL INCOME FROM EACH TYPE OF CROP IN RUPEES.

Crop type
2016 2017 2018 2019 2020
SUGARCANE 52000 58000 68000 64000 62000
RICE 60000 52000 43000 48000 64000
WHEAT 58000 62000 64000 69000 78000
Ranveer is a farmer in Haryana, who leased 30 acres of land from a

landlord and cultivated three different crops in 10 acres each for five years.
The yield from each type of crop is given in the table above. After the fifth
year he decided to concentrate only on wheat cultivation and used the
entire land for it.
Identify the reason for which Ranveer has opted wheat as the only crop for
his cultivation.
A. Wheat cultivation was more profitable in the entire period.

131
B. Wheat is easy to cultivate.

C. Wheat is mostly cultivated in that region.
D. Wheat gave him more income than other crops.
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33.
A small farmer, Lakshmi, owning about two hectares of unirrigated land
dependent only on rain. All members of her family work in the plot
throughout the year. Each one is doing something but no one is fully
employed. Which type of employment is this an example?
A. Seasonal employment
B. Over employment
C. Under employment
34.
(percentage) in India was?
● Primary sector- 49%
● Secondary sector- 24%
● Tertiary sector- 27%
Out of these three sectors, why did the ratio of employment in Primary
sector high?
A. Low job opportunities in Secondary Sector
B. Outsourcing of job opportunities in Tertiary sector
C. Efforts of labour are not equivalent in all the sectors
D. Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed
SECTORS OF THE INDIAN ECONOMY

ANSWER KEY
no ANSWERS
1. (a) It covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular.
2. (a) Gross Domestic Product
3. (b) Disguised unemployment
4. (a) It shows how big is the economy of a country in a given year in terms of
its total output.
5. 1. Primary sector.
2. Tertiary sector.
3. 25% approximately.
4. 45% approximately.
6. (a) Among agricultural workers working for small farm lands

7. (C) Economic activities
8. (d) Noneconomic activities
9. c. -Intermediary goods
10. 2. all final goods and services
11. (b) Nafeesa, a doctor getting all employment benefits.
12. a.
132
A. Taxi driver Tertiary Sector

13. d. 15.2
Page
14.

Problems faced by farming
Some possible measures
sector
(d) Construction of canals by the
1. Unirrigated land
government
(c) Procurement of food grains by
2. Low prices for crops
government
3. Debt burden (e) Banks to provide credit with lowc
4. No job in the off season (a) Setting up agro-based mills
5. Compelled to sell their
(b) Cooperative marketing societies
grains to the local
15.
(i) Tourist guide
He is appointed by the government, while the other three belong to the private
sector.
(ii) Vegetable vendor
He is the only profession that does not require a formal education while the
rest are professionally qualified.
(iii) Cobbler
He works in the private sector while the other three work for the public sector.
(iv) SAHARA Airlines
It is a private enterprise, while the rest are owned by the Government of India.
16.
(i) In 2000,
Share of primary sector = 22.22%
Share of secondary sector = 20.73%
Share of tertiary sector = 57.04%
In 2013,
Share of primary sector = 13.94%
Share of secondary sector = 18.70%
Share of tertiary sector = 67.36%
(ii)
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(iii) We can draw the conclusion that the share of the tertiary sector in the
GDP has increased by 10%, while that of the primary sector has almost
halved. The secondary sector has grown by about 2% in the last 13 years.
17. Unorganised Sector
18. C. Tertiary sector- Because of the growing demand for goods or services
19. B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
20. B. Seasonal employment
21. B) Farming
22. (A) IMR – Infant mortality rate
23. NSSO—National Sample Survey Organisation
24. b:Public sector Railways
25. A. Unorganized sector
26. A. Tertiary sector has wide range of products
27. A) Ore processing
28. A: Primary sector 71% employment in 1977-78
29. B. Organized sector
30. D) Shipping
31. C:Unorganised sector Largely outside the control of government
Rea32. D. Wheat gave him more income than other crops.
33. C. Under employment
34. D. Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed
******************************
134
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SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2021-22
TERM I
CLASS X
SOCIAL SCIENCE - CODE 087
TIME-90 MINUTES MM-40M---
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
General Instructions:
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SECTION – A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions)
1. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Young Europe’ underground secret society
in Berne?
A. Giuseppe Garibaldi
B. Giuseppe Mazzini
C. Count Cavour
D. Otto von Bismark
2. Which of the following was the result of the Act of Union, 1707?
A. Unification of Germany
B. Unification of the kingdom of Great Britain
C. Unification of Italy
D. Unification of Vietnam
3. Identify the correct statement with regard to the ‘Zollverein’ from the following options:
A. It was a coalition of Prussian states formed to manage political alliances.
B. Its aim was to bind the Prussia politically into an association.
C. It was a Custom Union at the initiative of Prussia.
D. It helped to awaken and raise national sentiment in Europe.
4. Which of the following countries were involved in the Three Wars with Prussia and ended
with victory and unification of Germany?
A. Austria, Poland and France
B. Austria, Denmark and France
135
C. Austria, Turkey and France

Page
D. Austria, England and France

5. Identify the ideology under which people demanded freedom of markets in early-
nineteenth-century Europe.
A. Romanticism
B. Liberalism
C. Socialism
D. Rationalism
6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in:
A. Groundnut- Assam
B. Tea- Gujarat
C. Coffee- Karnataka
D. Sugarcane – Chhattisgarh
7. The piece of land left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years is called
_________.
Choose the correct option:
A. Barren land
B. Forest land
C. Grazing land
D. Fallow land
8. Which one of the following conferences was convened to discuss environmental protection
and socio-economic development at the global level in 1992?
A. Kyoto Protocol
B. Montreal Protocol
C. Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit
d. World Summit on Sustainable Development
9. India has land under a variety of relief features. Which of the following features ensure
perennial flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects?
A. Plains
B. Plateaus
C. Islands
D. Mountains
10. Which one of the following human activities has contributed significantly in land
degradation?
A. Deforestation
B. Crop rotation
C. Shelter belts
136
D. Ploughing
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11. Which one of the following countries adopted majoritarianism in their Constitution?
Nepal
India
Sri Lanka
Bangladesh
12. Identify the significant reason of power sharing from the following options.
Reduces socio-economic conflicts
Provides ethnic -cultural development
Allows people to enjoy specific rights
Restricts supremacy of one party
13. Apart from the Central and the State Government, Belgium has a third kind of government
as well. Identify this third kind of government from the following options:
A. Democratic Government
B. Socialist Government
C. Community Government
D. Liberal Government
14. Which of the following countries is an example of ‘Coming Together Federation’?

India
Sri Lanka
USA
Belgium
15. Why is the power shared amongst different organs of government called as horizontal
distribution of power? Identify the correct reason.
It gives judiciary more power than legislature and executive.
It allows different organs of government to be placed at the same level.
It gives representation to different ideologies at political level.
It influences and coordinates in the decision-making process.
16. In India’s federal system, the Central and the State governments have the power to
legislate on all those subjects which are included in the:
A. Union list
B. State list
C. Concurrent list
D. Residuary subjects
17. Which of the following states of India enjoy special powers under Article 371A of the
Constitution of India?
A. Nagaland
137
B. Rajasthan
C. Himachal Pradesh
Page
D. Tamil Nadu

18. Which one the following is an example of Primary Sector activity?
A. Baking
B. Outsourcing
C. Farming
D. Banking
19. Which of the following measures the proportion of literate population in the seven and
above age group?
A. Net Attendance Ratio
B. Enrolment Rate
C. Literacy Rate
D. Drop out Ratio
20. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Average Income’?
A. The total income of the country divided by its earning population.
B. The total income of the country divided by its total population.
C. The total income of all the residents of the country.
D. The total income from the domestic and foreign sources.
21. Which one of the following best describes Human Development Index (HDI)?
A.Improvement in science, information and technology
B. Improvement in health, education and income
C. Improvement in information and communication
D. Improvement in investment, finance and technology
22. “Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries.”
Which of the following is the essence of this statement?
A. Economic development
B. Human Development
C. Sustainable Development
D. National Development
23. Which of the following examples fall under an organized sector?

A. A daily wage labourer working for a contractor.
B. An engineer getting all employment benefits.
C. A cleaning staff in a private school
D. A tailor stitching clothes at his home
24. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 states a guarantee of
minimum 100 days of employment per year. If government is unable to fulfil these 100 days
of an employment, the government would have to-----------------------------------
Choose the correct option:
Pay the compensation in lieu of these days
138
Provide another scheme for the same

Pay at least 1/3 percent allowance
Page
Provide health care as compensation

SECTION – B
25. Following image is the personification of Germany commonly associated with the Romantic
Era and the Revolutions of 1848. Identify its name from among the following options.
Options:
A. Marianna
B. Philip Viet
C. Germania
D. La Italia
NOTE: Following question is for Visually impaired candidates in lieu of Q25.
Identify the name of the Prussian King who was proclaimed German Emperor in a
ceremony held at Versailles.
A. William I
B. William II
C. Henry VII
D. Louis IV
26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about Balkan nationalism?
I. The Balkan region became part of the conflict because of the Ottoman Empire.
II. The region comprised of ethnic groups included Greeks, Serbs, Montenegro, etc.
III. British and ethnic nationalities struggled to establish their identity.
Options:
A. I&II
B. II & III
139
C. Only II
D. Only 1
Page

27. Why did the weavers in Silesia revolt against contractors in 1845? Identify the appropriate
reason from the following options.
A Contractors did not pay their dues
B Contractors appointed few on high posts
C Contactors used government policies
D Contractors gave them loans on high interests
28. Identify the major aspect that helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain.
A In 1688, the monarch of Britain fought war with English Parliament.
B The Parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy.
C The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Ireland and Wales.
D The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of many revolts.
29. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below –
develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall

is low in humus content

found in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu

B Forest soil
C Yellow soil
D Black soil
E Laterite soil
30. Which of the following categories of resources can we put Tidal energy in?
A Renewable resources
B Non-renewable resources
C Actual resources
D Potential resources
31. Consider the following statements on power sharing and select the answer using the codes
given below:
I. It is good for democracy.
II. It creates harmony in different groups III.
It brings transparency in the governance.
IV. It brings socio-political competition among parties.
Options:
A. I, II & III
B. II, III & IV
C. I, III & IV
140
D. I,II&IV
Page

32. How does Judiciary act as an umpire in a federal nation?
A Judiciary rules over Centre and State
B Centre and Judiciary work collectively
C Courts can change structure of Constitution
E. Courts use the power to interpret the Constitution
33. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read
the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Sri Lanka adopted Sinhala as the only official language of the state.
Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to foster their culture, language and
religion.
Options:
A Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false.
D A is false but R is true
Column A Column B
I. Information Technology 1. Concurrent List
II. Police 2. Union List
III. Education 3. State List
IV. Defence 4. Residuary Subjects

A. I-4, II-3, III-1, IV-2
B. I-3, II-4, III-1, IV-2
C. I-4, II-1, III-3, IV-2
D. I-4, II-2, III-1, IV-3
34. Anita is appearing in an examination conducted for recruitment to Central Government

positions. In how many languages as mentioned in the 8th Schedule can she opt to take the
exam? Select the appropriate option.
A. 18
B. 21
C. 22
141
D. 25
Page

35. Identify the administrative system of Indian Government with the help of the following
information.
 Power shared between Central and State Governments to Local

Governments.
  It is called as a third tier of the Government.
 The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue
with them.
36. Select the appropriate option from the following

A. Federal system
B. Unitary Federal system
C. Decentralised system
D. Unitary system
37. Which of the following options prove that India is a quasi-federal state?
I.More powers with Centre
II. Residuary subjects with Centre
III. Equal subjects with Centre and States IV.
Currency and Railways with Centre
Options:
A. I, III & IV
B. I,II&IV
C. II, III & IV
D. II, III & IV
38. Identify the correct statement/s about the theory of Federalism in the Indian Constitution.
I. The Constitution declared India as a Union of States.
II. Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is
basic to the structure of the Constitution.
III. It is easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement.
IV. The Parliament can on its own change this arrangement.
Options:
A. I &II
B. II & III
C.I&III
D. II&IV
142
Assertion (A): Human Development mentions how much socio-economic development

has happened in a country.
Page

Reason (R): Comparison of national income of two countries explains Human
Development Index.
Options:
A Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false.
D A is false but R is true.
A List 1 (Example) List II (Sectors)

B Courier Tertiary Sector
C Fisherman Secondary Sector
D Carpenter Primary Sector
Transporter Secondary Sector
41. Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer
from the given options:
Monthly income of citizens in 2007 (in
Rupees)
Countries I II III IV V
Country A 9500 10500 9800 10000 10200

Country B 500 500 500 500 48000
Country C 5000 1000 15000 4000 25000
Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different countries
after every three years of service. She has been given an opportunity to choose any one out
of the three countries mentioned in the table above as her next job location. She calculates
average income of all these countries as per the given data and chooses to be transferred to
Country A.
Identify the reason for which Rita has chosen country A.
A. Most of its citizens are rich and stable
B. Has most equitable distribution of income
C. National income of its citizens is higher
D. Average income of its citizens is lower
42. Vijay is undernourished as his weight is 45 kgs and his height is 1.78 meters. Find out
143
his Body Mass Index (BMI) from the following options.

A. 12.6
B. 13.5
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C. 14.7
D. 15.2
43. A woman works at a sweet shop in her village on a contract basis and gets meagre
salary after working the entire day. She doesn’t get any holidays or paid leave, rather
her employer deducts her salary whenever she is absent from work. Find out in which
of the following sectors she is working?
A. Primary Sector
B. Service Sector
C. Organized Sector
D. Unorganised Sector
Assertion (A): Crude oil reserves in the entire world are depleting, we need to find a
sustainable substitute for it.
Reason (R): Oil and petrol prices are increasing day by day.
Options:
46. A man is employed on a food processing farm where he has to do a lot of manual work. His
wife and daughter also help him in his work on the farm every day. Which type of
employment is this an example?
A. Under employment
B. Seasonal employment
C. Over employment
SECTION – C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in this section.
Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)
Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most
appropriate option:
Grimms’ Fairy Tales is a familiar name in Germany. The brothers Jacob and Wilhelm Grimm
were born in the German city of Hanau. While both of them studied law, they soon developed
144
an interest in collecting old folktales. They spent six years travelling from village to village,
talking to people and writing down fairy tales, which were handed down through the
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generations. These were popular both among children and adults.

In 1812, they published their first collection of tales. Subsequently, both the brothers
became active in liberal politics, especially the movement for freedom of the press. In
the meantime, they also published a 33-volume dictionary of the German language.
The Grimm brothers also saw French domination as a threat to German culture and
believed that the folktales they had collected were expressions of a pure and authentic
German spirit. They considered their projects of collecting folktales and developing the
German language as part of the wider effort to oppose French domination and create a
German national identity.
47. Why did the Grimm brothers give the tales a readable form without changing their
folkloric character? Choose the correct option from the following:
A. The collection enjoyed wide distribution in Germany.
B. It became a model for the collecting of fantasy tales.
C. It formed the basis for the science of the language.
D. People easily accepted their written adventurous tales.
48. The impact of literary contributions of Grimm brothers was widespread. Identify the
best suitable option depicting the same from the following:
A. Development of cities and towns
B. Setting up of new political parties
C. Promotion of ethnic belonging
D. Emergence of socialist ideology
49. Fill in the blank from the given options

The work of the Grimm Brothers influenced and inspired people to collect tales. They
believed in a spirit of ____________ and considered it essential for the reflection of
national identity.
A. Culturalism
B. Conservatism
C. Extremism
D. Liberalism
50. Why the foreign domination was considered a threat to nation building? Select the best
suitable option from the following in reference to the context.
A. Exploitation of natural resources
B. Erosion of native values and ethos
C. Violence and mass killing of people
D. Spread of new diseases in the country
51. How were the Germans able to connect with their culture? With reference to the above
context, infer the appropriate option.
A. Through the feeling of formal way of communication
145
B. Through the feeling of oneness as European community

C. Through the feeling of collective belonging among nationals
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D. Through the feeling of coherence in reference to mannerism

52. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Assertion A: Regimes of 1815 did not tolerate criticism and dissent.
Reason (R): Conservative regimes were
autocratic. Options:
D. A is false but R is true.
Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate
option:
There has been a gradual shift from cultivation of food crops to cultivation of fruits, vegetables,
oil-seeds and industrial crops. This has led to the reduction in net sown area under cereals and
pulses. With the growing population of India, the declining food production puts a big question
mark over the country’s future food security.
The competition for land between non-agricultural uses such as housing etc. and agriculture has
resulted in reduction in the net sown area. The productivity of land has started showing a
declining trend. Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are
now being held responsible for degrading the soils. Periodic scarcity of water has led to reduction
in area under irrigation. Inefficient water management has led to water logging and salinity.
53. One can infer from the above given information that marginal and small farmers have
been pushed out of cultivation. Which one of the following is the prominent cause?
A. Food and fruit crops are expensive in market
B. Shift to multifarious crops according to demand
C. Periodic scarcity of water in many regions
D. Soil degradation and extensive Green Revolution
54. Read the following statements and find the correct from the given options:
I. Indian farmers are diversifying their cropping pattern.
II. They are shifting production from cereals to fruits, vegetables, etc.
III.Jute is in high demand in the Indian market.
Options:
A. I&II
B. II&III
C. III Only
D. II Only
55. According to the information given above, there has been reduction in the net sown area
under cereals and pulses. Identify the reason.
A. Lack of markets to sell cereals and pulses
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B. Earn more income from non-agricultural sector

C. Need of huge labour in cultivating cereals and pulses
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D. Availability of more profits from commercial crops

56. ‘Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are now
being held responsible for degrading the soil.’ Infer the positive effects of these inputs
noticed earlier from the following statements.
A. These inputs have shown increased outputs and productivity.
B. These are integral to the process of reducing agrarian losses.
C. These inputs can cut the amount of harvestable produce.
D. These are the leading causes of mortality and health problems
57. There are states in India which are using fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides at
excessive level to increase their agricultural production. Identify the states which are at
prominent level from the following options.
A. Karnataka and Kerala
B. Haryana and Punjab
C. Punjab and Gujarat
D. Haryana and Telangana
58. Food production provides the base for food security and is a key determinant of food
availability. Why is this trend shifting towards industrial crops? Choose the correct
option in reference to the context.
A. To improve the land use pattern
B. To use intensive farming techniques
C. To improve the fertility of soil
D. To fetch more income and high earnings
Section D
(Attempt both the Map based questions)
On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified
information.
147
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59. On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a Dam. Identify it from the following
options.
A. Salal
B. Bhakra-Nangal
C. Tehri
D. Rana Pratap Sagar
60. On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as a major Tea cultivating state. Identify it from
the following options.
A. Assam
B. Punjab
C. Bihar
D. Gujarat
NOTE- The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates in lieu
of questions 59 and 60.
59. Which of the following dam is located in Uttarakhand?
A. Salal
B. Bhakra Nangal
C. Tehri
D. Rana Pratap Sagar
60. Which one of the following is a principal cereal crop?

A. Rice
B. Wheat
C. Jowar
D. Bajra
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SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2021-22
TERM I - CLASS X
MARKING SCHEME
1. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Young Europe’ underground secret
society in Berne?
Ans. B. Giuseppe Mazzini (Pg. 20)
2.
Which of the following was the result of the Act of Union, 1707?
Ans. B. Unification of the kingdom of Great Britain (Pg. 22)
3.Identify the correct statement with regard to the ‘Zollverein’ from the following
options:
Ans. C. It was a Custom Union at the initiative of Prussia (Pg. 10)

4.Which of the following countries were involved in the Three Wars with Prussia and
ended with victory and unification of Germany?
Ans. B-Austria, Denmark and France (Pg. 19)
5. Identify the ideology under which people demanded freedom of markets in

early-nineteenth-century Europe.
Ans. B-Liberalism (Pg. 9)
6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown
in:
Ans. C. Coffee- Karnataka (Pg. 41)
7. The piece of land left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years is
called
_________.
Ans. D- Fallow land (Pg. 10)
8. Which one of the following conferences was convened to discuss

149
environmental protection and socio-economic development at the global level in

1992?
Page

Ans. C-Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit (Pg. 3)
9. India has land under a variety of relief features. Which of the following features ensure
perennial flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects?
Ans. D-Mountains (Pg. 5)
10. Which one of the following human activities has contributed significantly in land
degradation?
Ans. A-Deforestation (Pg. 10)
11. Which one of the following countries adopted majoritarianism in their Constitution?
Ans. C-Sri Lanka (Pg. 6)
12. Identify the significant reason of power sharing from the following options.
Ans. A.-Reduces socio-economic conflicts (Pg. 6 )
13.
Apart from the Central and the State Government, Belgium has a third kind of government as
well. Identify this third kind of government from the following options:
Ans. C-Community Government (Pg. 5 )
14. Which of the following countries is an example of ‘Coming Together Federation’?

Ans. C-USA (Pg. 15 )
15. Why is the power shared amongst different organs of government called as horizontal
distribution of power? Identify the correct reason.
Ans. B. It allows different organs of government to be placed at the same level. (Pg. 8)
16. In India’s federal system, the Central and the State governments have the power to legislate
on all those subjects which are included in the:
Ans. C- Concurrent list (Pg. 17)
17. Which of the following states of India enjoy special powers under article 371(A) of the
150
Constitution of India?
Page

Ans. A. Nagaland (Pg. 17)
18. Which one of the following is an example of Primary sector activity?

Ans. C-Farming (Pg. 20)
19. Which of the following measures the proportion of literate population in the seven and
above age group?
Ans. C-Literacy Rate (Pg. 10)
20. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Average Income’?
Ans. B. The total income of the country divided by its total population. (Pg. 8)
21.
Which one of the following best describes Human Development Index (HDI)?
Ans. B. Improvement in health, education and income (Pg. 13)
22. “Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries.”
Which of the following is the essence of this statement?
Ans. C. Sustainable Development (Pg. 15)
23. Which of the following examples fall under an organized sector?

Ans. B. An engineer getting all employment benefits. (Pg. 30)
24.
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 states a guarantee of
minimum 100 days of employment per year. If government is unable to fulfil these 100 days of an
employment, the government would have to-----------------------------------
Ans. A. Pay the compensation in lieu of these days (Pg. 29)
SECTION – B
25. Following image is the personification of Germany commonly associated with the Romantic
Era and the Revolutions of 1848. Identify its name from among the following options.
Ans. C. Germania (Pg. 23)

151
26. Identify the name of the Prussian King who was proclaimed German Emperor in a
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ceremony held at Versailles.

Ans. A. William I (Pg. 19)
27. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about Balkan nationalism?
Ans. A. I & II (Pg. 23)
28. Why did the weavers in Silesia revolt against contractors in 1845? Identify the appropriate
reason from the following options.
Ans. A. Contractors did not pay their dues (Pg. 16)
29. Identify the major aspect that helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain.
Ans. B. The Parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy. (Pg.
20)
30. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below –
Ans. D. Laterite soil (Pg. 10)
31. Which of the following categories of resources can we put Tidal energy in?
Ans. A-Renewable Resources (Pg. 5)
32. Consider the following statements on power sharing and select the answer using the codes
given below:
Ans. A. I, II & III (Pg. 7)

33.
How does Judiciary act as an umpire in a federal nation?
Ans. D. Courts use the power to interpret the Constitution. (Pg. 24)
Ans. A-Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (Pg. 3)
Column A Column B
I. Information Technology 1. Concurrent List
II. Police 2. Union List
III. Education 3. State List
IV. Defence 4. Residuary Subjects
Ans. A. I-4, II-3, III-1, IV-2 (Pg-15)
36. Anita is appearing in an examination conducted for recruitment to Central Government

positions. In how many languages as mentioned in the 8th Schedule can she opt to take the exam?
152
Select the appropriate option.

Page

Ans. C-22 (Pg. 21)
37.
Identify the administrative system of Indian Government with the help of the following
information.
 Power shared between Central and State Governments to Local Governments.

  It is called as a third tier of the Government.
 The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with them.
Ans. C. Decentralised system (Pg-24)
38. Which of the following options prove that India is a quasi-federal state?
I. More powers with Centre

II. Residuary subjects with Centre
III. Equal subjects with Centre and State IV. Currency

and Railways with Centre
Ans. B. I, II & IV (Pg. 16-23)

39. Identify the correct statement/s about the theory of Federalism in the Indian Constitution.
I. The Constitution declared India as a Union of States.
II. Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic to the
structure of the Constitution.
III.It is easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement.
IV. The Parliament can on its own change this arrangement.
Ans. A. I & II (Pg. 17)
Assertion (A): Human Development mentions how much socio-economic development has happened
153
in a country.
Page

Reason (R): Comparison of national income of two countries explains Human Development Index.
Ans. C. A is true but R is false. (Pg. 8)
41. Choose the correct option from the following:
List I (Example) List II (Sector)
A. Courier Tertiary Sector

B. Fisherman Secondary Sector
C. Carpenter Primary Sector
D. Transporter Secondary Sector
Ans. A. Courier Tertiary Sector (Pg. 17)
42. Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer
from the given options:
Monthly income of citizens in 2007 (in Rupees)

Countries
I II III IV V
Country A 9500 10500 9800 10000 10200

Country B 500 500 500 500 48000
Country C 5000 1000 15000 4000 25000
Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different countries after every
three years of service. She has been given an opportunity to choose any one out of the three countries
mentioned in the table above as her next job location. She calculates average income of all these
countries as per the given data and chooses to be transferred to Country A.
Identify the reason for which Rita has chosen country A.
Ans. B. Has most equitable distribution of income. (Pg. 24)
43.
Vijay is undernourished as his weight is 45 kgs and his height is 1.78 meters. Find out his Body
Mass Index (BMI) from the following options.
Ans. A-12.6 (Pg. 13)

154
44. A woman works at a sweet shop in her village on a contract basis and gets meagre salary after
working the entire day. She doesn’t get any holidays or paid leave, rather her employer deducts her
Page
salary whenever she is absent from work. Find out in which of the following sectors she is working?

Ans. D- Unorganised Sector (Pg. 22)
45.
According to 2017-2018 data, the share of different sectors in employment (percentage) in India
was
  Primary Sector - 44%


 
 Secondary Sector - 25%
 
Tertiary Sector - 31%
Out of the three sectors, why did the ratio of employment in Primary Sector high?
Select the most suitable option from the following:
Ans. A- Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed (Pg. 25)
Assertion (A): Crude oil reserves in the entire world are depleting, we need to find a sustainable
substitute for it.
Reason (R): Oil and petrol prices are increasing day by day. Options:
Ans. B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (Pg. 19)
47. A man is employed on a food processing farm where he has to do a lot of manual work. His
wife and daughter also help him in his work on the farm every day. Which type of employment is
this an example?
Ans. A. Under employment (Pg. 26)
SECTION – C
47.
Why did the Grimm brothers give the tales a readable form without changing their folkloric
character? Choose the correct option from the following
155
Ans. A. The collection enjoyed wide distribution in Germany. (Pg. 15)

48.
The impact of literary contributions of Grimm brothers was widespread. Identify the best suitable
Page
option depicting the same from the following:

Ans. C.-Promotion of ethnic belonging (Pg. 15)
49.
Fill in the blank from the given options
The work of the Grimm Brothers influenced and inspired people to collect tales. They believed in
a spirit of ____________ and considered it essential for the reflection of national identity.
Ans. A.-Culturalism (Pg. 15)
50.
Why the foreign domination was considered a threat to nation building? Select the best suitable option
from the following in reference to the context.
Ans. B. Erosion of native values and ethos (Pg. 15)
51.
How were the Germans able to connect with their own culture? With reference to the above context,
infer the appropriate option.
Ans. C. Through the feeling of collective belonging among nationals (Pg. 15)
52.
Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the
statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion A: Regimes of 1815 did not tolerate criticism and dissent.
Reason (R): Conservative regimes were autocratic. Options:
Ans. A.-Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (Pg. 15)
53.
One can infer from the above given information that marginal and small farmers have been pushed
out of cultivation. Which one of the following is the prominent cause?
Ans. D.-Soil degradation and extensive Green Revolution ( Pg-45)
54.
Read the following statements and find the correct from the given options:
I. Indian farmers are diversifying their cropping pattern.

II. They are shifting production from cereals to fruits, vegetables, etc.
III.Jute is in high demand in the Indian market.
Ans. A-I &II. (Pg. 45)

156
Page

55.
According to the information given above, there has been reduction in the net sown area under
cereals and pulses. Identify the reason.
Ans. D. Availability of more profits from commercial crops (Pg45.)
56.
‘Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are now being held
responsible for degrading the soil.’ Infer the positive effects of these inputs noticed earlier from the
following statements:
Ans. A. These inputs have shown increased outputs and productivity. (Pg. 45)
57.
There are states in India which are using fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides at excessive level to
increase their agricultural production. Identify the states which are at prominent level from the
following options.
Ans. B. Haryana and Punjab (Pg. 45)
58.
Food production provides the base for food security and is a key determinant of food availability.
Why is this trend shifting towards industrial crops? Choose the correct option in reference to the
context.
Ans. D.-To fetch more income and high earnings (Pg. 45)
Section D
On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.
B
157
Page

59.
On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a Dam. Identify it from the following options.
Ans. B-Bhakra Nangal
60. On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as a major Tea cultivating state. Identify it from the
following options.
Ans. A. Assam
NOTE- The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates in lieu of questions
59 and 60.
59. Which of the following dam is located in Uttarakhand?
Ans. C. Tehri
60. Which one of the following is a principal cereal crop?
Ans. A. Rice
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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN SST21127
ERNAKULAM REGION
TERM 1 EXAMINATION SOCIAL
SCIENCE (CODE 087)CLASS X
MARKS - 40 TIME 90 MINUTES

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..................General Instructions-
1. The Question paper comprises four sections.
4. Section C has 12 questions (case based).Attempt any 10 questions.
5. Section D-contains 2 Map based questions.Attempt both the questions
………...………………………………..………………………………………………………………….
SECTION – A
1. Who among the following led an army of volunteers called Red shirts ?
(a) Mazzini
(b) Count Cavour
(c) Garibaldi
(d) Otto Von Bismark
2. Which of the following treaty drew up a settlement for Europe under the
leadershipof Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich.
(a) Treaty of Vienna

(b) Treaty of Constantinople
(c) Act of Union
(d) None of these
3. Identify the correct statement about the advantages of Napoleanic administration
fromthe following options:

159
(a) Increased taxation

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(b) Forced conscription into army

(c) Censorship
(d)Introduced civil code
4. Which of the following countries collectively defeated Napoleon
(a) Russia, Prussia, Britain, Austria

(b) Russia, Prussia, Britain, France
(c) Russia, Poland Britain, Austria
(d) England Prussia, Britain, Austria
5. Identify the ideology under which reflects Political liberalism
(a) Romanticism
(b) Freedom of market
(c) Universal suffrage
(d) None of these
6. Which is not the correctly matched pair about the crops
(a) Millets-Coarse grains

(b) Rice-staple food
(c) Jute -Golden fibre
(d) Wheat-Zaid
7. The area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is
(a) Net sown

area( b)Barren
land
(c) Gross cropped area
(d) Fallow land
8. Where was the first international earth summit held
(a) India
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Brazil
160
9. Identify the land relief feature which possesses rich reserves of minerals, fossil
Page
fuelsand forests

(a) Plateaus
(b) Mountains
(c) Plains
(d) Island
10. Land degradation in Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha is mainly due to
(a) Mining
(b) Over grazing
(c) Over irrigation
(d)Water logging
11. Which one of the following statement is correct about accommodation in Belgium?
(a) Leaders respected the feelings and interests of different communities.

(b) Mutually acceptable arrangements for power sharing.
(c) Helped to avoid civil strife
(d) All of these
12. Identify the prudential reason of power sharing from the following options
(a) Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy.

(b) People have right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.
(c) Citizens through participation acquire a stake in the system.
(d) Power sharing is good because it helps reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
13. Identify the languages belonging to one language community
(a) Dutch, French, English

(b) French, German, Spanish
(c) Dutch, French, German
(d) French, Dutch, Spanish
14. Which of the following countries is not an example of Holding together federation
(a) India
(b) Spain
161
(c)Belgium
(d) Australia
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15. Horizontal division of power is called a system of checks and balances because
(a) Each organ can check functioning of the other.

(b) Supports all social group
(c) State government can participate
(d) Have freedom to choose
16. Who has the special power in administering the Union Territories in
India?(a)Central Government
(b) President
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Governor
17. Under Article 371 (A) Constitution of India, which of the following states enjoy
special provisions due to their peculiar social and historical circumstances?
(a) Punjab
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Nagaland
(d) Andhra Pradesh
18. Which one of the following is an example of Tertiary activity?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Forestry
(d) Banking
19. The average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth is referred to as
(a) Net attendance ratio

(b) Life expectancy
(c) Per capita income
(d) Gross Enrolment ratio
20. The income of all the residents of the country is known
162
as(a)Per capita income
(b) Gross income

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(c) National Income
(d) None of these
21. Human Development Report is published by
(a) HDI
(b) World Bank
(c) UNDP
(d) WHO
22. What kinds of development should be achieved by making a
sincereattempt of Preserving the environment and resources?
(a) Economic Development

(b) Eco-Friendly development
(c) Sustainable development
(d) Both B and C
23. Which of the following is not correct about unorganized
sector?(a)Small, and scattered units
(b) Deprived of various facilities

(c) Regular Employment.
(d) Unregistered units.
24. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA 2005) is also known as
(a) Right to Education

(b) Right to Information
(c) Right to life
(d) Right to Work
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Page

SECTION B
25. Identify the following image with the help of the given options
(a) A map explaining the sea routes used in 18th century by Europeans.
(b) A map celebrating the British Empire
(c ) A map showcasing the importance of British Empire
(d ) A map expressing the British ambitions of conquering the world
26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about the formation of United Kingdom
ofGreat Britain?
I. The identity of people who inhabited the British Isles were ethnic ones.
II. The English parliament, was instrumental for the formation of a nation
statewith England at its Centre.
III. The English helped the Catholics of Ireland to establish their dominance.
(a) I&II
(b) II&III
(c) only II
(d) only I
27. The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe. Identify the appropriate reason from
thefollowing options
(a) Enormous (increase in population and more job seekers
164
(b) Enormous increase in food production

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(c) Low competition

(d) All of these
28. Identify the major aspect that helped in the making of Germany?
(a) Prussia took the leadership of the movement for national unification
underOtto Von Bismarck
(b) Nationalist feelings were widespread among middle class German.

(c) The initiative to the nation building was repressed by monarchy and Junkers.
(d) German confederation was formed
29. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below.
 Ideal for growing Cotton

 Found in Deccan trap region
 Made up of clayey material and well known for their capacities to hold moisture
(a) Forest soil
(b) Yellow soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Laterite soil.
30. Which of the following categories of resources can we put under
communityowned resources?
(a) Territorial water

(b) Houses
(c) Grazing grounds
(d) Plantation
31. Consider the following statements on power sharing and select the answer which
iscorrect about democracy, using the codes given below.
I. People are not the source of political power.

II. In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self-governance.
III. Power sharing ensures stability of political order.
IV. In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse groups in the
society.Options
165
A. I, II, &III
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B. II, III & Iv

C, I, III &IV
D. I, II, &IV
32. What makes India a federal country?
(a) The distribution of powers between the union and the state government.
(b) The distribution of powers between the two-state government
(c) The distribution of powers between the state and union territory.
(d) None of these.
33. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning. Read the
statementsand choose the appropriate option.
Assertion: The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of
Tamil as official language
Reason: All the government measures adopted by Sri Lankan government increased the
feeling of alienation among Sri Lankan Tamils
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b).Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c). A is true but R is false

(d). A is false but R is true.
34. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B
Column A Column B
1. Banking a. Concurrent List

2. Computer software b. State list
3. Police c. Union List
4.Trade union d. Residuary
(a) 1-c, 2-d,3-b, 4-a
(b) 1- c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
(c) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b,4-a
(d) 1-d, 2-c,3-a, 4-b
166
Page

35. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes below in the lists
LIST I LIST II
1. Kannada language a) Jammu Kashmir
2. Maithali b) Meghalaya
3. Bodo c) Jharkand
4. Dogri c) Karnataka
(a) 1- c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
(b) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b,4-a
(c) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b,4-c
(d) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
36. Identify the administrative system of Government with the help of
thefollowing information
 Power is shared between two levels of government

 Power is shared between central authority and constituent units.
 Enjoy independent power of each
other.Select the appropriate option from the
following:
(a) Local Government

(b) Unitary Government
(c ) Federal Government
(d) None of these
37. The first and the major test for democratic politics in our country was
(a) Caste Problem
(b) language problem
(c) problems of union Territories
(d) Creation of linguistic states. 167
Page

38. Which major step towards decentralization was not taken in 1992.
(a) it is constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies.
(b) At least 1/3 of all positions are reserved for women.
(c) The State governments are required to share some powers and revenue
withlocal government bodies

(d) 2/3 seats are reserved for Other Backward classes.
39. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning. Read the
statementsand choose the appropriate option.
Assertion: A high average income is not indicative of the overall well-being or human development in
a country.
Reason: Average income does not cover indicators like level of literacy rate, health facilities
and public facilities in a country.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
40. Which of the following is correctly matched?
List I (Examples) List II Sectors
A. Storage 1. Tertiary sector

B. Forestry 2. Secondary sector
C. Carpenter 3. Primary sector
D. Agriculture 4. Secondary sector
(a) A-1 (b) B-2 (c) C-3 (d) D-4

41. If there are five persons in a family and their total income is Rs.20000/-What would be the
averageincome
of each person?
(a) Rs.6000/-
168
(b) Rs.5000/-
(c) Rs.4000/-
Page

(d) Rs.10000/-
42. If Rohit is 29 years of age and 65 kg of body weight and 1.4 metres tall,calclate BMI?
(a) 33.16
(b) 32.16
(c) 13.16
(d) 12.16
43. Kanta works in an office from 9.30 am to 5.30 pm.She gets her salary regularly and also
getsmedical and other allowances.She does not go to office on Sundays,but it is a paid
holiday. Find out in which of the following sectors she is working.

(a) Primary Sector
(b) Unorganised Sector.
(c) Organised Sector
(d) None of these
44. According to the following graph given , compare the share of employment by three
sectors.in the year 1977-78 and 2017-18. Which sector contributed considerably
Select the option from the following

(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
169
(c) Tertiary sector

(d) None of these
Page

thestatements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion: In Kerala the literacy rate in 2011 was 94%
Reason: More than half of the students are going to other states for elementary education.
46. Laxmi is a small farmer owning about two hectares of unirrigated land dependent only on rain and
growing crops like Jowar and arhar. All five members of her family work in the plot throughout the
yearsince they have nowhere else to go for work. What is this situation referred to?
(a) Over employment.
(b) Under employment
(c) Seasonal employment.
(d) None of these.
SECTION C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any
10 questions from this section)
Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option:
The revolutionaries in France declared that it was the mission and destiny of French nation to
liberate the people of Europe from despotism, in other words to help other people of Europe to become
nations. When the news of the events in France reached the different cities of Europe, students and other
members of educated middle classes began setting up Jacobin clubs. Their activities and campaigns
prepared the way for the French armies which moved into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy
in the 1790s. With the outbreak of the revolutionary wars, the French armies began to carry the idea of
nationalism abroad.
Within the wide swathe of territory that came under his control, Napoleon set about introducing many of
the reforms that he had already introduced in France. Through a return to monarchy Napoleon had, no
doubt, destroyed democracy in France, but in the administrative field he had incorporated revolutionary
principles in order to make the whole system more rational and efficient. The Civil Code of 1804 – usually
known as the Napoleonic Code – did away with all privileges based on birth, established equality before
the law and secured the right to property. This Code was exported to the regions under French control. In
the Dutch Republic, in Switzerland, in Italy and Germany, Napoleon simplified administrative divisions,
abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues. In the towns too, guild
170
restrictions were removed.

Page

47. The civil code of 1804 in France is usually known as:
(a) The French Revolutionary code
(b) Napoleonic code
(c) European Imperial code
(d) The French civil code
48. The Napoleonic code was exported to which of the following regions?
(a) England
(b) Spain
(c) Regions under French control
(d) Poland
49. Which one of the following was not the feature of Napoleonic code?
(a) Equality before the law
(b) Universal Adult Franchise
(c) Right to property
(d) Abolition of privileges based on birth
50. What did the revolutionaries of France declare as their miss
(a) To introduce reforms
(b) To set up clubs
(c) To liberate the people of Europe from despotism
(d) None of these.
51. When was the first clear expression of nationalism noticed in
Europe?(a) 1787
(b) 1759
(c) 1789
(d) 1769
52. What are guilds?
(a) Merchants and craft persons union
171
(b) custom union

(c) Economic union
Page

(d) None of these
Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most
appropriate option:
Sustained uses of land without compatible techno-institutional changes have hindered the pace
of agricultural development. Inspite of development of sources of irrigation most of the farmers
in large parts of the country still depend upon monsoon and natural fertility in order to carry on
their agriculture. For a growing population, this poses a serious challenge. Agriculture which
provides livelihood for more than 60 per cent of its population, needs some serious technical and
institutional reforms. Thus, collectivisation, consolidation of holdings, cooperation and abolition
of zamindari, etc. were given priority to bring about institutional reforms in the country after
Independence. ‘Land reform’ was the main focus of our First Five Year Plan. The right of inheritance
had already lead to fragmentation of land holdings necessitating consolidation of holdings. The
laws of land reforms were enacted but the laws of implementation was lacking or lukewarm. The
Government of India embarked upon introducing agricultural reforms to improve Indian
agriculture in the 1960s and 1970s. The Green Revolution based on the use of package technology
and the White Revolution (Operation Flood) were some of the strategies initiated to improve the
lot of Indian agriculture. But, this too led to the concentration of development in few selected
areas. Therefore, in the 1980s and 1990s, a comprehensive land development programme was
initiated, which included both institutional and technical reforms. Provision for crop insurance
against drought, flood, cyclone, fire and disease, establishment of Grameen banks, cooperative
societies and banks for providing loan facilities to the farmers at lower rates of interest were some
important steps in this direction.
53. In order to tackle the various problems faced by the Indian agriculture especially the
pressure of growing population, various and reforms
have been initiated.
(a) political, institutional
(b) technological, institutional
(c) administrative, judicial

(d) executive, organisational
54. Which of the following is associated with Operation flood?
(a) Green revolution
(b) White Revolution
172
(c) Gene Revolution

(d) Blood less revolution
Page

55. What was the main objective of the Green Revolution?
(a) Improvement in the conditions of the farmers

(b) increase in irrigated area.
(c) increase in the agricultural production
(d) mechanisation of farming.
56. Which of the following measures is not introduced by the government to improve agriculture.
(a) abolition of zamindari system
(b) consolidation of land holdings
(c) crop insurance
(d) maximum support price.
57. Choose the correct option for the following
statement.“I require high doses of biochemical inputs.

I am practiced in areas of high population.
I produce good Yield with irrigation facilities.”
(a) Intensive farming
(b) Primitive subsistence farming
( c) Commercial farming
58. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning. Read
thestatements and choose the appropriate option.

Assertion: Biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher production.
Reason: Doses of biochemical input are used to grow crops rapidly.
173
Page

SECTION D

On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.
59. On the political map of India A is marked as a dam.identify it from the following options.
(a) Salal
(b) Hirakud
(c) Sardar sarovar
(d) Tehri
60. On the same map B is also marked as a major Coffee cultivating state.Identify it from the
folowingoptions
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(c)Tamil nadu
(d) Telaangana
174
Page

SST 21127
TERM I PRACTICE TEST - SCORING KEY – CLASS X-
SECTION A
1) (C) Garibaldi
2. (a) Treaty of Vienna

3. (a) Increased taxation
4. (a) Russia, Prussia, Britain ,Austria.
5. (c) Universal suffrage
6. (d) Wheat-Zaid
7. (c) Gross cropped area
8. (d) Brazil
9. (a)Plateaus
10. (a) Mining
11. (d) All of these
12. (d) Power sharing is good because it helps reduce the possibility of conflict
between social groups
13. c) Dutch ,French ,German
14. (d) Australia
15. (a) Each organ can check functioning of the
other. 16 (a)Central Government
17. (c) Nagaland

18. (d) Banking
19 (b) Life expectancy
20. (c) National Income
21 (c ) UNDP
175
22. [d] both B and C

Page
23. c ) Regular

Employment. 24.( d) Right
to Work
SECTION B
25 (b) A map celebrating the British

Empire
26 . (a) I&II
27 a) Enormous (increase in population and more job seekers

28 ( a) Prussia took the leadership of the movement for national unification
under Otto Von Bismarck
29 .( c) Black soil
30. ( c) Grazing
grounds 31 .B.II,III & Iv
32. ( a) The distribution of powers between the union and the state government.
33. a ) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A 34. A .1c,2d,3b,4a
35. B.1d),2c), 3b),4a)
36 .C. Federal Government
37 (d) Creation of linguistic

states.
38 D. 2/3 seats are reserved for Other Backward classes.
39. a Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
A
40. a. A-1
41. C.Rs.4000/-
42 A.33.16
176
43.C. Organised Sector

44. a) Primary sector
Page

45 c. A is correct and R is wrong
46 B) Under employment
SECTION C
47.b) Napoleonic code

48. c) Regions under French
control
49. (b) Universal Adult Franchise

50.C. To liberate the people of Europe from
despotism
51 C.1789
52.A. Merchants and craftpersons
union
53 B. technological, institutional
54 B. White Revolution
55. C. increase in the agricultural
production
56. D. maximum support price.

57 a) Intensive farming
58 a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
SECTION D
59 C)Sardar sarovar
60. (B) .Karnataka
177
Page

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, ERNAKULAM REGION 2021-22
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
TERM- I - CLASS X
TIME-90 MINUTES MM-40
General Instructions:
SECTION- A
1. Who remarked “When France sneezes the rest of Europe Catches cold”?
A. Otto Von Bismarck
B. Grimm Brothers
C. Duke Metternich
D. Giuseppe Mazzini
2. Which empire were having control over a large part of the Balkans?
A. Habsburg empire
B. Ottoman empire
C. Bourbon empire
D. None of Above
3. _______ helped the Protestants of Ireland to establish their dominance
over a largely country?
A. The French
178
B. The German
C. The British
Page
D. Indians
SUPPORT MATERIAL ………..CLASS X……………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087)…………….2021-22

4. The Frankfurt Parliament convened in the church of St. Paul on….
A. 15 May 1848
B. 8 May 1848
C. 18 May1848
D. 28 May 1848
5. Whose image were remarked on coins and stamps?
A. Germania
B. Marianne
C. Garibaldi
D. All of the above
6. Which soil is ideal for growing cotton?
A. Regur soil
B. Red soil
C. Arid soil
D. Sandy soil
7. Which one of the following is not an example of renewable resources?
A. Water energy
B. Petroleum
C. Solar energy
D. Wind energy
8. Which one is the example of Kharif crop?
A. Wheat
B. Maize
C. Mustard
D. Gram
9. Which crop is known as the golden fibre?
A. Bajra
B. Wheat
179
C. Jute
D. Cotton
Page

10. Land that is left uncultivated for more than five agricultural years is
called:
A. Pasture land
B. Culturable waste land
C. Barren land
D. Current fallow
11. Power sharing is desirable because it helps:
A. To increase pressure on government.
B. To reduce possibilities of conflicts.
C. To generate awareness among people.
D. To increase percentage of voters.
12. The word ‘Civil War’ signifies:
A. Different religions.
B. Social division on shared culture.
C. A violent conflict between opposite groups.
D. A careful calculation of gains and losses.
13. Which one of the following is not correct regarding the System of ‘Checks
and Balances’?
A. Horizontal distribution of powers.
B. Separation of powers.
C. Put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the organs of
government by maintaining a balance of power among various
institutions.
D. Federal division of powers
14. Which is the example of Coming together federation?
A. India
B. Spain
C. Belgium
180
D. Switzerland
15. In which list subjects like marriage, trade unions, adoption and
Page
succession is included.

A. Union List
B. State List
C. Concurrent List
D. Residuary List
16. What is the third tier of government known as?
A. Central government
B. State government
C. Local self-government
D. Linguistic government
17. The number of seats reserved for women in the panchayats and
municipalities are-
A. One-fourth
B. One-third
C. Half
D. One-fifth
18. Average Income is also known as?
A. Per Capita income
B. National income
C. Gross income
D. Personal income
19. Which one of the following has prepared human Development Report?
A. UNO
B. WHO
C. IMF
D. UNDP
20. As per MNREGA 2005 (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act 2005) the number of days of employment guaranteed by
government is:
181
A. 100 days B. 80 days

C. 150 days D. 120 days
Page

21. In which sector the subjects like agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry
are included?
A. Primary sector
B. Secondary sector
C. Tertiary sector
D. None of these
22. Which sector is also called the Service sector?
A. Primary
B. Public
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
23. Which one is an example of Public Sector?
A. TATA
B. AIRTEL
C. BHEL
D. RELIANCE
24. Developmental goal for urban unemployed youth is -
A. Buying a land
B. To pursue his/her studies abroad
C. More days of work and better wages
D. To get job and handsome salary
SECTION- B
25. By whom the following picture was made?
182
Page

A. Frederic Sorrieu
B. Philip Veit
C. Julius Hubner
D. Mazzini
26. Assertion (A): Nationalism, aligned with imperialism, led Europe to
disaster in 1914.
Reason (R): Many countries in the world which had been colonised by
the European powers in the nineteenth century began to
oppose imperial domination
A. Both A and R are True, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are True, and R is not the correct explanation of A
C.A is true but R is false.
27. Choose the correctly matched pair about the symbols and their
meanings
A. Rays of rising sun - Independence
B. Broken chain - Being freed
C. Sword - Slavery
D. Black, Red, Gold tricolour - Clothes
28. The steps taken by French revolutionaries were-

I. A New Tricolour French flag
II. New hymns were composed
III. French became common language of the nation
IV. Frederic Sorrieu was a French artist
A. Only I
B. I and III
C. I, II and III
183
D. I, II, III and IV

29. Identify the soil on the basis of the following features.
Page
I. It is the result of intense leaching due to heavy rain

II. It is useful for growing tea and coffee
III. It is suitable for cultivation with adequate doses of manures and
fertilizers
IV. It is found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Assam.
A. Black soil
B. Alluvial soil
C. Laterite soil
D. Red and Yellow soil
30. Choose the correct pair from the following:
List I List II
A. Fruits & Vegetable Horticulture
B. Cotton Millets
C. Tea Oil seeds
D. Wheat Fibre
31. Consider the following statements about power sharing arrangements in
Belgium and Sri Lanka.
I. In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their
domination on the minority French-speaking community.
II. In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the
dominance of the Sinhala-speaking majority.
III. The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power
sharing to protect their- culture, language and equality of opportunity in
education and jobs.
IV. The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one
prevented a possible division of the country on linguistic lines.
Which of the statements is correct?
A. Only I
B. I, II and IV
184
C. III and IV
D. II, III and IV
Page
32.Assertion(A): Power sharing is good for democracy.

Reason(R): It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social
groups.
33.Which of the following countries Belgium shares its borders?
A. France, The Netherlands, and England
B. Norway, France and Luxembourg
C. France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg
D. Italy, Germany, France
34. When many countries of Europe came together to form the European
Union, ………. was chosen as the headquarter?
A. Paris B. Brussels
C. Paris D. London
35.Match the followings
Part -A (subjects) Part-B (List)
a. Foreign Affairs (i) Residuary
b. Commerce (ii) State
c. Education (iii) Union
d. Computer (iv) Concurrent
A. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
B. a-iii, b -ii, c-iv, d-i
C. a-ii, b -i, c-iii, d-iv
D. a-i, b -ii, c-iv, d-iii
36. Which agency is responsible for conducting elections of local bodies?
A. Election commission of India
B. Central Election commission
C. State Election commission
185

37. Which statement is not correct regarding the decentralisation?
Page
A. To hold regular elections to local government bodies

B. One third seats are reserved for women
C. The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be changed by one
level of government.
D. State government are required to share some powers and revenue with
local government bodies
38.Which language is recognised as the national language by Indian
constitution?
A. Hindi
B. English
C. Urdu
39.Which of the following statements is correct about the GDP?
A. It shows how big the economy of a country is in terms of purchasing
power.
B. It shows the total product of a country in a given year without
calculating the national income.
C. It shows the number of people involved in production in the tertiary
sector in a year.
D. It is the value of all final goods and services produced in a country in a
year.
40. Life expectancy at birth means:
A. Average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth
B. Average expected length of life of a person at the time of death
C. Average expected length of a child at the time of birth
D. All of the above
41.Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in
terms of human development than India?
A. Nepal
186
B. Sri Lanka
C. Bangladesh
Page
D. Pakistan

42. Human Development Index compares countries based on which of the
following levels of the people?
A. Educational level
B. Health status
C. Per Capita Income
D. All the above
43. The economy is classified into public and private sectors on the basis of-
A. employment conditions
B. the nature of economic activity
C. ownership of enterprises
D. number of workers employed in the enterprise
44. Which of the following is not applicable for a worker, who works in the
unorganised sector?
A. She gets a regular salary at the end of the month
B. She is not paid for leave
C. She is not paid medical reimbursement.
D. She didn’t get an appointment letter stating the terms and conditions of
work when she joins work
45. In which type of unemployment more people are employed than

required?
A. seasonal unemployment
B. disguised unemployment
C. educated unemployment
D. all the above
46. The sectors are classified into public and private sector on the basis of:
A. Employment conditions
187
B. The nature of economic activity

C. Ownership of enterprises
Page
D. Number of workers employed in the enterprise

SECTION – C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in this
section. Attempt any 10 questions in this section.)
Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the
most appropriate option:
One such individual was the Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini. Born in
Genoa in 1807, he became a member of the secret society of the Carbonari.
As a young man of 24, he was sent into exile in 1831 for attempting a
revolution in Liguria. He subsequently founded two more underground
societies, first, Young Italy in Marseilles, and then, Young Europe in Berne,
whose members were like-minded young men from Poland, France, Italy and
the German states. Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be
the natural units of mankind. So Italy could not continue to be a patchwork
of small states and kingdoms. It had to be forged into a single unified
republic within a wider alliance of nations. This unification alone could be
the basis of Italian liberty. Following his model, secret societies were set up
in Germany, France, Switzerland, and Poland. Mazzini’s relentless
opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics frightened
the conservatives. Metternich described him as ‘the most dangerous enemy
of our social order’.
47. To whom Metternich described as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our
social order’?
A. Garibaldi
B. Mazzini
B. Victor Emmanuel II
D. Napoleon
48. In which year Mazzini sent to exile for attempting a revolution in
Liguria?
188
A. 1804
B. 1815
Page
C. 1831

D. 1904
49. The secret societies were set up __________.
A. To establish constitutional monarchy
B. To unify Germany
C. To restructure conservatism
D. To train revolutionaries and spread their ideas
50. Which of the following best signifies Mazzini’s ideology about the nation
state?
A. The strength of a nation lies in its unity
B. Secret societies are the pillars of a nation
C. The strength of a nation lies in its resources
D. Liberalisation should be the utmost aim of any political party.
51. Which of the following secret societies formed by Mazzini?
A. Young Italy
B. Young Europe
C. Both A and B
52.Assertion(A): Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be the
natural units of mankind
Reason(R): Metternich described him as ‘the most dangerous enemy of
our social order’
Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the
most appropriate option:
189
The Green Revolution was a period when agriculture in India was converted
into an industrial system due to the adoption of modern methods and
Page
technology, such as the use of high yielding variety seeds, tractors, irrigation

facilities, pesticides, and fertilizers. Mainly led by agricultural scientist M. S.
Swaminathan in India, this period was part of the larger Green Revolution
endeavour initiated by DR. Norman E Borlaug, which leveraged agricultural
research and technology to increase agricultural productivity in the
developing world.
Under premiership of Congress leader Lal Bahadur Shastri the Green
Revolution within India commenced in 1965, leading to an increase in food
grain production, especially in Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh. Major
milestones in this undertaking were the development of high-yielding
varieties of wheat and rust resistant strains of wheat. However, certain
social activists like Vandana Shiva are of the opinion that it caused greater
long term sociological and financial problems for the people of Punjab and
Haryana
The main development was higher-yielding varieties of wheat, for developing
rust resistant strains of wheat. The introduction of high-yielding varieties of
seeds and the improved quality of fertilizers and irrigation techniques led to
the increase in production to make the country self-sufficient in food grains,
thus, improving agriculture in India. Also, other varieties such as Kalyan
Sona and Sonalika were introduced by cross breeding of wheat with other
crops. The methods adopted included the use of high-yielding varieties of
seeds with modern farming methods.
The production of wheat has produced the best results in fuelling self-
sufficiency of India. Along with high-yielding seeds and irrigation facilities,
the enthusiasm of farmers mobilized the idea of agricultural revolution. Due
to the rise in use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers, there was a negative
effect on the soil and the land (e.g., land degradation)
53. Assertion (A): Green revolution increased the production of wheat and
190
rice.
Reason (R): It is due to adoption of modern methods and technology
Page
such as HYV seeds, tractors, fertilizers etc.

D. A is false, but R is true
54. When was the Green Revolution commenced in India?
A. 1968
B. 1969
C. 1965
D. 1967
55.What is the negative impact of Green Revolution?
A. Air pollution
B. Noise pollution
C. Land Degradation
D. None of these
56. What are the varieties of wheat developed during the Green
Revolution?
A. Sona
B. Kalyan
C. Sonalika
D. All of the above
57.Who led the Green Revolution in India?
A. Jawar Lal Nehru
B. DR. Norman E Borlaug
C. DR. Varghese Kurian
D. M. S. Swaminathan
58. Production of which major food crops increased due to Green
Revolution?
A. Wheat, Rice
191
B. Tea, Coffee
C. Cotton, Jute
Page
D. Rubber

SECTION-D
On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of
specified information
59. On the political map of India, “A” is marked as a Dam. Identify it from
the following options.
A. Rana Pratap Sagar

B. Sardar Sarovar
C. Hirakud
D. Tehri
60. On the same map, “B” is also marked as a major tea cultivating state.
Identify if from the following options.
A. Assam
192
B. West Bengal
C. Meghalaya
Page
D. Manipur

Answer Key
1. C. Duke Metternich
2. B. Ottoman empire
3. C. The British
4. C. 18 May1848
5. B. Marianne
6. A. Regur Soil
7. B. Petroleum
8. B. Maize
9. C. Jute
10. B. Culturable waste land
11. B. To reduce possibilities of conflicts.
12. C. A violent conflict between opposite groups.
13. D. Federal division of powers.
14. D. Switzerland
15. C. Concurrent List
16. C. Local self-government
17. B. One-third
18. A. Per Capita income
19. D. UNDP
20. A. 100 days
21. A. Primary sector
22. D. tertiary
23. C. BHEL
24. D. To get job and handsome salary
25. B. Philip Veit
26. B. Both A and R are True but R is not the correct explanation of A
27. B. Broken chain - Being freed
193
28. C. I, II and III

29. C. Laterite soil
Page
30. A. Fruits & Vegetable Horticulture

31. D. II, III and IV
32. A. Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation of A
33. C. France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg
34 B. Brussels
35. B. a-iii, b -ii, c-iv, d-i
36. C. State Election commission
37. C. The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be
changed by one level of government.
38. D. None of the above
39. D. It is the value of all final goods and services produced in a
country in a year
40. A. Average expected length of life of a person atthe time of birth
41. B. Sri Lanka
42. D. All the above
43. C. ownership of enterprises
44. A. She gets a regular salary at the end of the month
45. B. disguised unemployment
46. C. Ownership of enterprises
47. B. Mazzini
48. C. 1831
49. D. To train revolutionaries and spread their ideas
50. A. The strength of a nation lies in its unity
51. C. Both A and B
52. B. Both A and R are True and R is not the correct explanation of
A.
53. A. Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation of A.
54. C. 1965
55. C. Land Degradation
56. D. All of the above
57. D. M. S. Swaminathan
58. A. Wheat, Rice
59. C. Hirakud
60. A. Assam
194
Page
…………………….oOo…………………

All the Best
195
Page

X Social Science KVS Ernakulam

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केंद्रीय विद्यालय संगठन क्षेत्रीय कायाा लय एर्ाा कुलम

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN REGIONAL OFFICE, ERNAKULAM

SUPPORT MATERIAL – TERM 1

Based on Latest CBSE Exam Pattern for the

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

Smt. Deepti Nair Sh. Santhosh Kumar N

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

Chief Coordinator, Smt. Jeena T V

 List of map items for term 1 (Page 8)

 Assessment strategy (Page 9 to 11)

 Internal Assessment (Page 12)

 Design of the question paper (Page 12)

 Course content (Page 15 to 134)

 CBSE Sample Question paper(Page 135 to 158)

 Sample question papers (Page 159 to 194)

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

 Classes IX-X: Internal Assessment (throughout the year-irrespective of Term I

 Classes XI-XII: Internal Assessment (throughout the year-irrespective of Term I

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

 The responses of students will be captured on OMR sheets which, after

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

 In case the situation is not conducive for normal descriptive examination a 90

ensure the integrity of internal assessments and home based exams.

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

Design of the Question Paper

General Instructions given by CBSE:

6. All questions carry equal marks.

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

changes were brought about in Europe by this treaty:

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

set up in Germany, France, Switzerland and Poland. Mazzini’s relentless

opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics frightened

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

Greek war of independence

(i) Romanticism was a European cultural movement aimed at

developing national unity by creating a sense of shared heritage and

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro.

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

c) An idealist society which can never be achieved

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

c) All property owning male and women of the country देश

c) Austria, Prussia, Russia, Britain

d) Britain, Prussia, Russia, Italy

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

a) Increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the

later went to fight in the Greek War of Independence.

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

b) Difficulties faced by Napoleon

SUPPORT MATERIAL …………….CLASS X………………SOCIAL SCIENCE (087) TERM 1…………..2021-22

a) Poland achieved independence at the end of the 18th century.