KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN

ĐỀ GIỚI THIỆU
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
LẦN THỨ XI, NĂM 2018
§

ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

LỚP 11
Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 14/4/2018

A. LISTENING (50 pts)

Part 1. Listen to the recording. For the following questions, choose the best
answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts)
1. The original cause of the school's decline was
A. the old-fashioned character of the school.
B. the transformation of the neighbourhood.
C. the number of families living in the area.
D. the low number of children in the area.
2. The school was not closed down thanks to
A. the parent's refusal to allow it.
B. The decision to follow the national curriculum.
C. the fact that the children were behaving better.
D. the bad conditions the children live on.
3. The traditional methods of teaching were abandoned because
A. the children were not able to read.
B. tests would be easier to mark.
C. they would have made things worse.
D. not enough research had been done.
4. The aim of the lesson involving the bear is to
A. teach the children drama.
B. make the children feel more at ease.

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C. teach the children about animals.
D. help the children to read and write.
5. The method is considered successful because
A. the Department of Education wants to use it.
B. children are interested in the arts.
C. it allows teachers to use their intuition.
D. there is better achievement in all subjects.
Part 2: You will hear a conversation between a mother and her son about
preparing for exams. Decide whether the following statements are true (T) or
false (F). (10 pts)
1. Richard thinks that last-minute studying is best. T/F
2. With his present system, Richard will be able to revise everything. T/F
3. Richard agrees that his present lifestyle is crazy. T/F
4. Coffee and chocolate help Richard to work better. T/F
5. Richard has been exercising properly. T/F
Part 3: Listen to the recording and answer the following questions. Write NO
MORE THAN FIVE WORDs for each answer. (10 pts)
1. When did Annold Gesell identify 22 stages in the development of crawling?
______________________________________________
2. What is the beginning stage out of 22 ones?
______________________________________________
3. According to the recording, what has led to the so-called "motor
development"?
______________________________________________
4-5. Apart from growing skeleton, what are TWO other parts of the body whose
change is crucial in growing infants?
______________________________________________
Part 4: Listen to a piece of news and write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS for each blank. (20 pts)

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1. The special edition of the show dives into an ocean of plastic, masses of waste
_____________________ on and around some remote islands in the Pacific. 
2-3. Scientists estimate that almost every piece of
_______________________has been in existence since 1970 as it takes a long
time to _______________________ in the environment.
Ways for plastic trash to the ocean:
4. * from the coast to be ______________________ sea
5. * from streets to _______________________.
* from rivers to the ocean.
6. Taking plastics out of the environment altogether is unlikely and
________________________
Solutions:
7. * ________________________ or jugs instead of throwaway water
bottles.
8. * reusable ________________________ rather than plastic ones.
9. * reusable steel drink bottles instead of ________________________
plastic cups.
10. Consideration taken into recycling may prevent the materials
________________________ the environment.
B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Part 1: Choose the word/ phrase that best completes each of the following
sentences. Write your answer in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
1. It took me several seconds to grasp the meaning of her statement but finally
the ________ dropped.
A. penny B. axe C. hammer D. stone
2. John's mean down in the ________ since his girlfriend ditched him for his
best friend.
A. pockets B. dumps C. heels D. carpets
3. Somebody who is foolish or stupid is________ .
A. soft in the head B. riding high

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C. over the moon D. pushing up daisies
4. The government is doing all it can to _______ war on dangerous driving.
A. launch B. wage C. stage D. battle)
5. She found the movie ________ funny.
A. comically B. jokingly C. humourously D. hilariously
6. Take care that your love for him doesn't _______ your judgment.
A. cloud B. darken C. shadow D. topple
7. Although the twins look identical, they have widely _______ opinions on
almost every topic under the sun.
A. distinct B. dissimilar C. divergent D. distinguished
8. The children's interest in playing the game soon _______.
A. flagged B. stumbled C. tottered D. thawed
9. The princess's nanny's autobiography really gives the _______ on life among
the royals.
A. show-down B. know-how C. low-down D. look-out
10. If you say you'd like _______ of cream on you're your strawberries then you
don't want very much cream.
A. a dash B. oodles C. a dollop D. lashings
Part 2: The text below contains 5 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write
the corrections in the space provided. (5 pts) There is an example at the
beginning (0)
With Europe facing the more serious flu epidemic in years, Line 1: most
the World Health Organization is warning the public, Line 2: _____
especially the sick and elderly, to do an inoculation now. Line 3: _____
Health experts warn that this winter's outbreak could be
as severe as the 1989 epidemic, which killed 25,000
people in Britain only.
WHO has stressed the importance of vaccination, and
several countries are already taking precautions to ensure
that those of high-risk categories such as diabetics and those

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with heart, or lung complaints, are vaccinated.
Nearly all previous strains of flu are known to originate
in China and Far East, and whereas in the past infection
spread slowly across the world, these days global
infection is a threat.

Part 3: Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or

particle. Write your answer in the corresponding numbered boxes. (5 pts)
1. Mike is so quick ________ the uptake that you never have to repeat the
instructions twice.
2. I can vouch ________ Sandra's integrity, so I recommend we included her in
our discussions.
3. Clara is unswerving ________ her determination to become a lawyer.
4. The boy ran down to the garden and vaulted ________ the fence at the
bottom.
5. The prison officer is very unjust ________ the prisoners, denying them their
basic rights.
Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in corresponding
numbered boxes. (10 pts)
PENGUINS IN PERIL
Penguins, whose torpedo-shaped bodies and self-important waddles we adore,
are the latest on a (0) growing list of species threatened by changing 1.
CLIMATE_______ conditions. This 2. DISRUPT_______ in climate is being
brought about by heatwaves and floods in places as far 3. FIELD_______ as
Texas and India.
Such 4. STABLE_______ in weather patterns has been increasing in 5.
FREQUENT_______ although the reasons for this are not yet fully understood.
As a result, ocean currents that bring the nutrients to feed plankton are being
disrupted and because plankton feeds the krill which form the basis of the
penguin's diet, the penguin is fast becoming a 6. CASUAL_______. The death

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rate of penguin chicks is soaring and could ultimately prove 7.
CATASTROPHE_______ to the entire species. The one positive aspect of this
lies in its potential to force people to examine the LOOM_______ threat posed
to the fragile Antarctic eco-system. The 9. REALIZE_______ that we could lose
one of the most 10. LOVE_______ creature on the planet should be a wake-up
call for all of us.
C. READING (60pts)
Part 1: For questions 1–10, read the following passages and decide which
answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D)
in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
Sydney’s Harbour Bridge Our group fell silent at the base of a narrow steel
ladder that rose vertically through the maze of girders at the south-eastern end
of Australia’s Sydney Harbour Bridge. We 1._________ worried about the
first part of the climb. Up to this 2._________ , our guided tour had been little
more than a stroll, but now our task was to face the ladder. It must have been at
least 50 feet high. There were handrails and our safety belts would be 3.
_________ a cable to break a fall, but the 4._________ couldn’t have been
more daunting.
What 5._________ at the top was stepping out on to the exposed upper arch of
the bridge, with blue sky all round and the water almost 262 feet below. We
ought to have found this out before embarking on what now seemed a 6.
_________ reckless mission! My own fear of heights was extreme, but, on this
sparkling morning, I saw no option but to climb to the summit of one of the
world’s 7._________ icons — a miracle of engineering recognized by people
everywhere. As I climbed, the tension 8.__________ out of me, and I was
driven by an exhilarating feeling of conquest. At the top, I dropped my
9._________ to the vast pool of the harbour below. It might just as well have
been a millpond from this height. We stood on a small viewing deck in the warm
sunshine, 10._________ with excitement and arms raised as our guide took a
celebratory photograph.

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1. A shouldn't have B. needn’t have C. can't have D. ought to have
2. A. position B. period C. point D. place
3. A tethered to B. stuck to C. strapped around D. plugged in
4. A. perspective B. proposal C. probability D. prospect
5. A lied B. lain C. laid D. lay
6. A. singularly B. uniquely C. very D. rarely
7. A well-loved B. mostly loved C. much-loved D. best-loved
8. A. exuded B. drained C. came D. leaked
9. A. stare B. glance C. gaze D. glimpse
10.A. flushed B. burned C. drenched D. flamed
Part 2: Read the text below and think of one word which best fits each space.
Use only ONE WORD for each space. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (15 pts)
FLOWER POWER
Flower grow everywhere in the world, but when people think of tulips, they
think of the Netherlands. The Dutch have a saying: “Flowers love people”. If
(1)__________________________is true, then flowers really love the Dutch
(2)____________________________ flowers have been cultivated in the
Netherlands for hundreds of years. In fact, the flower industry has been so
profitable that it has been boosting the Dutch economy (3)
__________________________the seventeenth century.
Recently, however, the Dutch flower (4) ____________________________have
been having difficulties in coping with the tough competition from
(5)_____________________________. The Colombians, for instance, have (6)
________ the Dutch by surprise. Their flowers are now
(7)____________________________demand all over the world due to the
simplest (8) _______________________________that they are cheaper. Within
a few short years, the Colombians have brought Holland’s (9)
___________________________of the flower industry to an end.

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Despite this fact, the Netherlands is still in control of over sixty per cent of the
world’s flower (10) ________________________.
Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D)
according to the text. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding
numbered boxes. (10 pts)
THE CREATORS OF GRAMMAR
No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By
changing word sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes,
we are able to communicate tiny variations in meaning. We can turn a statement
into a question, state whether an action has taken place or is soon to take place,
and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning.
Nor is this complexity inherent to the English language. All languages, even
those of so-called 'primitive' tribes have clever grammatical components. The
Cherokee pronoun system, for example, can distinguish between 'you and I',
'several other people and I' and 'you, another person and I'. In English, all these
meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun 'we'. Grammar is universal
and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is. So the
question which has baffled many linguists is - who created grammar?
At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out
how grammar is created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language's
creation, documenting its emergence. Many historical linguists are able to trace
modern complex languages back to earlier languages, but in order to answer the
question of how complex languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to
observe how languages are started from scratch. Amazingly, however, this is
possible.
Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At
that time, slaves from a number of different ethnicities were forced to work
together under colonizer's rule. Since they had no opportunity to learn each
other's languages, they developed a make-shift language called a pidgin.
Pidgins are strings of words copied from the language of the landowner. They

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have little in the way of grammar, and in many cases it is difficult for a listener
to deduce when an event happened, and who did what to whom. [A] Speakers
need to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning understood. [B]
Interestingly, however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is
for a group of children to be exposed to it at the time when they learn their
mother tongue. [C] Slave children did not simply copy the strings of words
uttered by their elders, they adapted their words to create a new, expressive
language. [D] Complex grammar systems which emerge from pidgins are
termed creoles, and they are invented by children.
Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf.
Sign languages are not simply a series of gestures; they utilize the same
grammatical machinery that is found in spoken languages. Moreover, there are
many different languages used worldwide. The creation of one such language
was documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all deaf people were
isolated from each other, but in 1979 a new government introduced schools for
the deaf. Although children were taught speech and lip reading in the
classroom, in the playgrounds they began to invent their own sign system, using
the gestures that they used at home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child used
the signs differently, and there was no consistent grammar. However, children
who joined the school later, when this inventive sign system was already around,
developed a quite different sign language. Although it was based on the signs of
the older children, the younger children's language was more fluid and compact,
and it utilized a large range of grammatical devices to clarify meaning. What is
more, all the children used the signs in the same way. A new creole was born.
Some linguists believe that many of the world's most established languages were
creoles at first. The English past tense –ed ending may have evolved from the
verb 'do'. 'It ended' may once have been 'It end-did'. Therefore it would appear
that even the most widespread languages were partly created by children.
Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their brains, which
springs to life when they are first trying to make sense of the world around them.

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Their minds can serve to create logical, complex structures, even when there is
no grammar present for them to copy.
1. In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee
language?
A. To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar
structures
B. To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar
C. To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees.
D. To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language
2. What can be inferred about the slaves' pidgin language?
A. It contained complex grammar.
B. It was based on many different languages.
C. It was difficult to understand, even among slaves.
D. It was created by the land-owners.
3. All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true
EXCEPT:
A. The language has been created since 1979.
B. The language is based on speech and lip reading.
C. The language incorporates signs which children used at home.
D. The language was perfected by younger children.
4. In paragraph 3, where can the following sentence be placed?
It included standardised word orders and grammatical markers that existed in
neither the pidgin language, nor the language of the colonizers.
A B C D
5. 'Make-shift' in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:
A. complicated and expressive B. simple and temporary
C. extensive and diverse D. private and personal
6. Which sentence is closest in meaning to the highlighted sentence?
Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how
widespread it is.

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A. All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people,
contain grammar.
B. Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a
little.
C. Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common that languages
that contain a little.
D. The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages
evolved.
7. All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language
EXCEPT:
A. All children used the same gestures to show meaning.
B. The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language.
C. The hand movements were smoother and smaller.
D. New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities.
8. Which idea is presented in the final paragraph?
A. English was probably once a creole.
B. The English past tense system is inaccurate.
C. Linguists have proven that English was created by children.
D. Children say English past tenses differently from adults.
9-10. Which TWO ideas best sum up the main ideas of the passage?
A. Some children are better at grammar than others.
B. Children have the mental capacity to create complex languages.
C. Children are better at learning grammar than adults.
D. Children prefer to invent their own grammar rules than to copy existing rules.
E. All creole languages were perfected by children.

Part 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. Write your
answer in the space provided. (10 pts)

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 HURRICANES
A. A hurricane is a tropical cyclone, an area of intense low pressure in the
tropics surrounded by a violent rotating storm. It is called a hurricane in the
North Atlantic, the Northeast Pacific east of the dateline, and the South Pacific
Ocean east of 160E; west of the dateline it is called a typhoon, and in the Indian
Ocean, a cyclone. It becomes a hurricane officially if its wind speeds reach
75kmh, or force 12 on the Beaufort scale; below that it is a tropical storm. Every
year, there are about 100 tropical storms and about 50 of them reach hurricane
strength. The name comes from "Hurican", the Carib god of evil.
B. Hurricanes need precise meteorological conditions to form: the sea surface
temperature needs to be above 26.50C. They are formed over the tropic ocean
when strong clusters of thunderstorms drift over warm water. Warm air from the
storm and the ocean surface combine and begin to rise, creating an area of low
pressure on the ocean surface. Rising warm air causes pressure to decrease at
higher altitudes. Air rises faster and faster to fill the low pressure, in turn
drawing more warm air up off the sea and sucking cold air downwards. The
cluster of thunderstorms merge to become a huge storm, which moves west with
the trade winds. While it remains over warm water the tropical wave begins to
grow. Wind speeds increase as air is sucked into the low pressure centre. If the
depression strengthens and its wind speed climbs above 40mph it becomes a
tropic storm and is named by the US National Hurricane Centre. Once the
sustained winds exceed 74kmp, the storm becomes a hurricane. It can take as
long as several days or only a few hours for a depression to develop into a full-
blown hurricane. The fully developed hurricane is made up of an eye of calm
winds surrounded by a spinning vortex of high winds and heavy rainstorms.
C. Hurricanes produce the highest wind speeds, up to 200mph in the most
extreme cases, which only the strongest structures can withstand. They produce
enormous amounts of rain which can lead to catastrophic flash floods.
Sometimes most seriously, they produce a phenomenon known as a storm surge.
This is a huge raising of the sea level, caused jointly by the huge winds and the

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very low atmospheric pressure. In the most extreme cases it can be as much as
25ft above normal. The hurricane pushes this heightened sea along in front of its
path and when it hits the coastline, especially the low-lying coasts, there can be
disastrous inundations, especially when the surge combines with torrential rain.
Once a hurricane reaches land, it tends t die out fairly quickly as there is no
more warm water to supply heat, but out in the open ocean it can last for a
fortnight or more.
D. Hurricanes are now measured between strengths 1 and 5 on the Saffir-
Simpson scale, formulated in 1969 by Herbert Saffir, a consulting engineer, and
Dr Bob Simpson, the director of the US national Hurricane Center. The scale
was devised in the aftermath of Hurricane Camille in 1969, one of the most
violent storms ever to hit the continental United States. Its categories run like
this.
Category one (minimal): winds 75 to 95mph, minor flooding, slight structural
damage, storm surge up to 1.5m.
Category two (moderate): winds between 96 and 110mph, roof and tree damage,
storm surge 1.8 to 2.4m.
Category three (extensive): winds between 111 and 130mph, houses damaged,
severe flooding, storm surge 2.7 to 3.7m.
Category four (extreme): winds of between 131 and 155mph, major structural
damage to houses and some roofs destroyed, storm surge of between 4 and
5.5m.
Category five (catastrophic): winds above 155mph, many buildings destroyed,
smaller ones blown away completely, severe inland flooding, storm surge of
more than 5.5m.
E. Although global warming is confidently expected to produce more violent
storms, scientists cannot yet prove a link between current hurricane rates and
climate change. There does seem to have been an increase in the number of
category five hurricanes worldwide. 2004 was more active than 2003 and 2002
but less active than the four years before that.

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F. All tropical storms are named, to provide case of communication between
forecasters and the general public about forecast, watches and warnings. Since
the storms can often be long lasting and more than one can be occurring in the
same region at the same time, names can reduce the confusion about which
storm is being described. Before the 20th century, especially in the Caribbean,
hurricanes were sometimes named after the saint's day on which they struck
land. During the Second World War, US Navy meteorologists gave them the
female names of wives and loved ones, but by 1950 a formal naming strategy
was in place for North Atlantic cyclones, based on the phonetic alphabet of the
time (Able, Baker, Charlie and so on.) In 1953 the US Weather Bureau decided
to switch to female first names, and with the agreement of the World
Meteorological Association, included male first names in the list in 1979. Each
meteorological region of the world now has an agreed list of names. The letters
Q, U, X, Y and Z are not used because few names begin with these letters. Quite
a few hurricane names, including Andrew, Betsy, Bob, Camille, Hugo and
Hilda, have been officially retired because the storms concerned caused damage
on a scale unlikely to be repeated. About 50 names have been retired; a country
can request retirement.
The reading passage has six sections A-F. Choose the correct heading for
sections B-F from the list of headings below.
List of headings Your answers
i. Process of formation 0. Section A iii
ii. Effect of a storm surge 1. Section B ___________
iii. Defining characteristics 2. Section C ___________
iv. Systems for identifying 3. Section D ___________
v. Damaging effects 4. Section E ___________
vi. History of hurricanes 5. Section F ___________
vii. System for classification
viii. Speculation about cause
ix. Effect of low pressure

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x. The Carib god of evil
Complete the summary. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the
passage for each answer. Write the words in the space provided.
Hurricanes, also known as cyclones and typhoons, commonly occur in the
6.___________. The lowest 7. ___________ hurricane may cause only minor
damage, while the most severe will see many buildings destroyed or even blown
away completely. No proof yet exists of a connection between an increased
number of severe hurricanes and 8.___________ . Various systems have been
used for identifying hurricanes, but only since 1979 have they been described
using 9.___________. Hurricane names are allocated to a meteorological region
and in special circumstances can be 10.___________.
Part 5: Read the text below and answer the questions. (15 pts)
THE NEW URBANISM ARCHITECTURAL MOVEMENT
A. The Congress for the New Urbanism (CNU) was founded two decades ago
by a group of talented architects in the USA, who were looking to create
sustainable, walkable, mixed-use neighbourhoods. One of their most ambitious
projects, by founder member Peter Calthorpe, was Laguna West, south of
Sacramento. However, during the grim California recession of the 1990s, the
original developer for this scheme went bankrupt and the entire project was
taken over by a less sympathetic developer, who contravened virtually all of
CNU's principles. Had Laguna West been completed as Calthorpe planned it, it
would have been one of the great conventional, car-dependent suburb. And the
current extent of New Urbanist communities in terms of population absorption
implies that if they are regarded as a solution to metropolitan problems, all the
usual clichés, fiddling the deckchairs on the Titanic, fiddling while Rome burns,
etc. - must apply.
B. The key principles of the CNU remain unchanged. They seek to promote
neighbourhoods that are diverse in terms of use and have mixed populations in
terms of age, race and income. They believe in giving communities
transportation alternatives - especially walking, cycling and public transit. They

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have a strong preference for "infill" development - that is, the use of land within
a built-up area, especially as part of a community redevelopment project - rather
than the endless expansion of cities sometimes referred to as "urban sprawl".
They give some priority to accessible public spaces, community institutions and
a variety of parks and other green spaces, in order to foster exemplary civic
behaviour.
C. New Urbanist communities are intended to be more than residential
subdivisions, with shops, a wide range of personal and consumer services, and
workplace sites all conveniently accessible on foots. This is one of the plans for
Kentlands, perhaps the most successful of the NU communities to date, and yet
commercial development in terms of employment opportunities is lagging far
behind. The same idea of "self-containment" was one of the principles behind
the creation of the British new towns of the 1960s, such as Milton Keynes and
Telford. Job prospects were certainly good in these towns, though unfortunately
the vacancies did not cater to the resident population, due to skill mismatch and
other reasons. The overwhelming tendency was for residents to work elsewhere,
with the job available in the new towns filled by commuters from outside, with
the net result being more use of fossil fuels rather than less.
D. Critics of the CNU say that it embraces pie-in-the-sky social engineering
based on a false diagnosis of society's urban problems, and excessive faith in the
ability to change the world, and the prescription of policies that are
implementable only under very special circumstances. Urban capital stock is
already largely in place and remains a constant, while much of the residential
housing in the US has been built in the last 40 years, so innovation through
renewal is off the agenda for the time being. Hence, the practical consequences
of New Urbanism continue to be a small number of relatively small
communities accommodating a miniscule proportion of metropolitan population
growth. The US government-sponsored company Fannie Mae's research into
housing preferences shows that up to 80% of US households would hope to live
in a single-family dwelling with a garden, regardless of income, race or current

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tenure status. It is only possible to meet these preferences through high-density
developments in the suburbs.
E. As for the idea that somehow New Urbanism can contribute to the stability, if
not revival, of city centers, it remains just that - an idea. Most NU communities
are being built on green field sites some distance away from the central city, and
infill development has been limited - probably of necessity because of land
scarcity - to tiny pockets. Hence, there is no identifiable relationship between
NU communities and the fate of central cities and those who live there. If there
is some consensus for tackling the social problems found in the central cities
(and it is by no means clear that this consensus exists), it would be far better to
deal with these problems via direct, tightly-targeted measures rather than via
land use controls and social experiments on the metropolitan fringe. The real
issue for the city of today is how to counter or accommodate the obvious loss of
commercial investment from its heart to its suburbs, which has created run-down
central neighbourhoods supported by few amenities. The New Urbanists are
largely silent on this.

In which section are the following mentioned?

1. the interrelationship between metropolitan amenities and good 1._____

conduct
2. the failure to see through a project according to its original design 2._____
3. an indication of the expectations held by a majority of citizens 3._____
4. the lack of trans ort infrastructure in one development 4._____
5. the avoidance of urban development on the periphery 5._____
6. the apparent failure to foster sufficient urban renewal 6._____
7. an experiment in mixed-use communities prior to the CNU 7._____
8. an inability to identify adequate sites of a certain type 8._____
9. the slow pace of change due to relatively recent construction 9._____
10. an unforeseen environmental consequence of planning policy 10._____

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D. WRITING
Part 1. Read the following extract and use your own words to summarise it.
Your summary should be about 130 words long.
Being overweight makes many of us unhappy. There may be many reasons for
our weight problem. Weight problems often run in the family. It could be a case
of us overeating to make ourselves feel better when we are sad, stressed or
lonely.
Weight management is about long-term success. People who lose weight
quickly by crash dieting or other extreme measures usually gain back all, if not
more, of the pounds they lost because they have not permanently changed their
habits. Therefore, the best weight management strategies are those that you can
maintain for a lifetime.
A new diet may help you lose weight for a little while. However, the weight
often comes back unless you find new ways to deal with the problems that are
leading to your weight gain. This may mean learning new ways to handle stress,
finding ways to feel less lonely or talking with a counselor about your feelings.
Most diets are designed to make you lose a great deal of weight in the
beginning. This is to encourage you. In actual fact, what you lose is mostly
water and muscle. The water comes right back when you eat salty or processed
food again. Losing weight is an uphill task and also takes time. So try not to get
discouraged. Your effort will be worth it.
The key is to keep trying to eat the right food. The following are a few
suggestions to help you change your diet. Make small, slow changes. Then, it
will be easier to make the changes a part of your everyday life. For every few
days, write down what you eat and drink that day. Use this record to help you
see if you need to eat more from any food group such as fruits, vegetables or
low-fat dairy products.
If you have a medical problem that requires a special diet, make sure you ask for
help from your family doctor or a nutritionist. It is not advisable to do it on your
own.

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Part 2. The information below shows the number of customers and the
number of popular fruits purchased in one greengrocer's in England over one
summer weekend. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the
main features, and make comparisons where relevant. You should write about
150 words.

DAY
CUSTOME

Part 3. Write an essay of about 350 words on the following topic:

Many people feel strongly that health services should be provided by the
government and should be freely available. Others argue that only
privatised health care can provide good quality health services. To what
extent do you believe that health and medical services should be privatised?
Present your argumentation to highlight your opinion on this matter. Give
reasons and specific examples to support your opinion(s).

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