28/06/2022

Morning

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Answers & Solutions

Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2022 (Online) Phase-1

(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.

(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out of
10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be rounded off
to the nearest integer.

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning

PHYSICS

SECTION - A 2 2 v2
Sol.=
ar k=rt
r
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
⇒ v 2 k=
= 2 2 2
r t or v krt
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
d |v |
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. and = kr
dt
Choose the correct answer : ⇒ at = kr
1. Given below are two statements : One is labelled ⇒ | F ⋅v | =
(mkr )(krt )
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R. = mk2r2t = power delivered
3. Motion of a particle in x-y plane is described by a
Assertion A : Product of Pressure (P) and time (t)
has the same dimension as that of coefficient of π 
=
set of following equations x 4 sin  − ωt  m and
viscosity. 2 
Reason R : Coefficient of viscosity y = 4sin(ωt) m. The path of the particle will be
(A) Circular (B) Helical
Force
= (C) Parabolic (D) Elliptical
Velocity gradient
Answer (A)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. π 
Sol.
= x 4 sin  − ωt 
2 
(A) Both A and R true, and R is correct explanation
of A. = 4cos(ωt)

(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct =y 4 sin(ωt )
explanation of A. ⇒ x2 + y2 = 42
(C) A is true but R is false. ⇒ The particle is moving in a circular motion with
(D) A is false but R is true. radius of 4 m.
Answer (C) 4. Match List-I with List-II

 Force   Distance  List-I List-II

Sol. [Pressure][ Time] =   
 Area   Velocity  A. Moment of inertia of I. 5
solid sphere of radius R MR 2
3
 Force   Distance  about any tangent
[Coefficient of viscosity] =   
 Area   Velocity  B. Moment of inertia of II. 7
hollow sphere of radius MR 2
Statement ‘A’ is true 5
(R) about any tangent.
But statement R is false are coefficient of viscosity
C. Moment of inertia of III. 1
Force circular ring of radius MR 2
= 4
Area × Velocity gradient (R) about its diameter.
2. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of D. Moment of inertia of IV. 1
circular disc of radius MR 2
constant radius r such that its centripetal 2
(R) about any
acceleration (a) is varying with time t as a = k2rt2, diameter.
where k is a constant. The power delivered to the
Choose the correct answer from the options given
particle by the force acting on it is given as
below.
(A) Zero (B) mk2r2t2 (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (B) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(C) mk2r2t (D) mk2rt (C) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer (C) Answer (A)

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
Sol. (A) Moment of inertia of solid sphere of radius R 6. A water drop of diameter 2 cm is broken into 64
2 7 equal droplets. The surface tension of water is
about a tangent = MR 2 + MR 2 = MR 2
5 5 0.075 N/m. In this process the gain in surface
energy will be
⇒ A – (II)
(A) 2.8 × 10–4 J (B) 1.5 × 10–3 J
(B) Moment of inertia of hollow sphere of radius R
(C) 1.9 × 10–4 J (D) 9.4 × 10–5 J
2 5
about a tangent = MR 2 + MR 2 = MR 2 Answer (A)
3 3
r
⇒ B – (I) Sol. r ′ =
4
(C) Moment of inertia of circular ring of radius (R)
⇒ ∆E = T(∆S)

about its diameter =

( MR 2 ) = T × 4π(nr′2 –r2), n = 64
2
= T × 4π × (4 – 1)r2
⇒ C – (IV) ⇒ ∆E = 0.075 × 4 × 3.142 (3) × 10–4 J
(D) Moment of inertia of circular ring of radius (R) = 2.8 × 10–4 J
about any diameter
7. Given below are two statements
2 2
MR / 2 MR Statement-I: When µ amount of an ideal gas
= = undergoes adiabatic change from state (P1, V1, T1)
2 4
to state (P2, V2, T2), then work done is
⇒ D – (III) µR(T2 – T1 ) Cp
W = , where γ == and R = universal
1– γ Cv
5. Two planets A and B of equal mass are having their
gas constant.
period of revolutions TA and TB such that TA = 2TB.
These planets are revolving in the circular orbits of Statement-II: In the above case, when work is
radii rA and rB respectively. Which out of the done on the gas, the temperature of the gas would
rise.
following would be the correct relationship of their
orbits? Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(A) 2rA2 = rB3 (A) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(B) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
(B) rA3 = 2rB3 (C) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
(D) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
(C) rA3 = 4rB3
Answer (A)

π2 3 µR(T2 – T1 )
(D) TA2 − T
=B
2
GM
(
rB − 4rA3 ) Sol. W =
1– r
for a polytropic process for

adiabatic process r = γ
Answer (C)
⇒ Statement I is true
Sol. TA = 2TB
In an adiabatic process
Now TA2 ∝ rA3 ∆U = –∆W

3 2 ⇒ If work is done on the gas

r  T 
⇒  A = A ⇒ ∆W is negative
 rB   TB 
⇒ ∆U is positive or temperature increases
⇒ rA3 = 4rB3
⇒ Statement II is true

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
8. Given below are two statements 10. An infinitely long hollow conducting cylinder with
Statement-I: A point charge is brought in an radius R carries a uniform current along its surface.
electric field. The value of electric field at a point Choose the correct representation of magnetic field
near to the charge may increase if the charge is (B) as a function of radial distance (r) from the axis
positive.
of cylinder.
Statement-II: An electric dipole is placed in a
non-uniform electric field. The net electric force on
the dipole will not be zero.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (A)
below
(A) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(B) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
(C) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
(D) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
(B)
Answer (A)
Sol. As one moves closer to a positive charge (isolated)
the density of electric field line increases and so
does the electric field intensity
⇒ Statement I is true
As opposite poles of an electric dipole would (C)
experience equal and opposite forces so net force
on a dipole in a uniform electric field will be zero
⇒ Statement II is true
q q
9. The three charges , q and are placed at the
2 2 (D)
corners A, B and C of a square of side ‘a’ as shown
in figure. The magnitude of electric field (E) at the
corner D of the square is
Answer (D)
Sol. Inside a hollow cylindrical conductor with uniform
current distribution net magnetic field is zero in
hollow space.
1
But outside the cylindrical conductor B ∝
 1 1
q q  1  r
(A)  +  2
(B) 21 +  ⇒ Graph in option D would be a correct one
4π ∈0 a  2 2  4π ∈0 a  2
11. A radar sends an electromagnetic signal of electric
 q 1  q  1 1
(C) 2 
1–  (D) 2 
–  field (E0) = 2.25 V/m and magnetic field
4π ∈0 a  2 4π ∈0 a  2 2 
(B0) = 1.5 × 10–8 T which strikes a target on line of
Answer (A) sight at a distance of 3 km in a medium. After that,
kq /2 kq a part of signal (echo) reflects back towards the
Sol.
= E0 2+ radar with same velocity and by same path. If the
(a 2 )
2 2
a
signal was transmitted at time t = 0 from radar, then
after how much time echo will reach to the radar?
kq kq
= + (A) 2.0 × 10–5 s (B) 4.0 × 10–5 s
2a 2
2a 2
(C) 1.0 × 10–5 s (D) 8.0 × 10–5 s
kq  1 1  1 Answer (B)
= 2 +  , k=
a  2 2 4πε0
Sol. E0 = 2.25 V/m
⇒ Option A is correct B0 = 1.5 × 10–8 T

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
E0 (A) λ p ∝ λe2
⇒ =1.5 × 108 m/s
B0
(B) λ p ∝ λe
⇒ Refractive index = 2
(C) λ p ∝ λe
Distance to be travelled = 6 km

6 × 103 1
Time taken = = 4 × 10−5 s (D) λ p ∝
1.5 × 10 8 λe

⇒ Option (B) is correct Answer (A)

12. The refracting angle of a prism is A and refractive h hc

Sol. λ p = = …(i)
index of the material of the prism is cot (A/2). Then p E
the angle of minimum deviation will be : h
λe = …(ii)
(A) 180 – 2A (B) 90 – A 2mE
(C) 180 + 2A (D) 180 – 3A From (i) and (ii)
Answer (A) λ p ∝ λe2
δ + A
sin  m  ⇒ Option A is correct
Sol. µ
= =  2  cot A /2
15. The Q-value of a nuclear reaction and kinetic
sin ( A /2 )
energy of the projectile particle, Kp are related as :
δ + A (A) Q = Kp (B) (Kp + Q) < 0
sin  m
⇒ cos A /2 = 
 2  (C) Q < Kp (D) (Kp + Q) > 0

π A δm + A Answer (D)
⇒ − = Sol. Kp > 0
2 2 2
⇒ π – 2A = δm If Q is released ⇒ Q > 0

Option (A) is correct ⇒ Kp + Q > 0

13. The aperture of the objective is 24.4 cm. The If Q is absorbed ⇒ Q < 0
resolving power of this telescope, if a light of Even then particle has to be given kinetic energy
wavelength 2440 Å is used to see the object will be: greater than magnitude of Q to maintain momentum
conservation.
(A) 8.1 × 106
⇒ K+Q>0
(B) 10.0 × 107
⇒ Option D is correct
(C) 8.2 × 105
16. In the following circuit, the correct relation between
(D) 1.0 × 10–8
output (Y) and inputs A and B will be:
Answer (C)
1
Sol. R.P. =
1.22 λ /a

24.4 × 10−2
=
1.22 × 2440 × 10 −10
= 8.2 × 105
Option (C) is correct
14. The de Broglie wavelengths for an electron and a
photon are λe and λp respectively. For the same (A) Y = AB (B) Y = A + B
kinetic energy of electron and photon, which of the
(C) Y = AB (D) Y= A + B
following presents the correct relation between the
de Broglie wavelengths of two? Answer (C)

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
Sol. The shown circuit is a combination of AND gate and Sol. (A) is true as n-p-n transistor permits more current
a NOT gate than p-n-p transistor as electrons which are
majority charge carriers in n-p-n have higher
mobility than holes which are majority carriers in
p-n-p transistor
⇒ Statement R is correct explanation of statement
A
19. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(A) Television signal I. 03 KHz

(B) Radio signal II. 20 KHz

⇒ Y = AB (C) High Quality Music III. 02 MHz

Option (C) is a correct option. (D) Human speech IV. 06 MHz
17. For using a multimeter to identify diode from
electrical components, choose the correct Choose the correct answer from the options given
statement out of the following about the diode: below:
(A) It is two terminal device which conducts current (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
in both directions.
(B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(B) It is two terminal device which conducts current
in one direction only (C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(C) It does not conduct current gives an initial (D) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
deflection which decays to zero. Answer (C)
(D) It is three terminal device which conducts
Sol. Television signal ⇒ 6 MHz
current in one direction only between central
terminal and either of the remaining two Radio signal ⇒ 2 MHz
terminals.
High Quality music ⇒ 20 kHz
Answer (B)
Sol. A diode is a two terminal device which conducts Human speech ⇒ 3 kHz
current in forward bias only ⇒ Option (C) is correct.
⇒ Option (B) is correct. 20. The velocity of sound in a gas, in which two
18. Given below are two statements : One is labelled wavelengths 4.08 m and 4.16 m produce 40 beats
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason in 12 s, will be:
R.
(A) 282.8 ms–1
Assertion A : n-p-n transistor permits more current
than a p-n-p transistor. (B) 175.5 ms–1
Reason R: Electrons have greater mobility as a (C) 353.6 ms–1
charge carrier.
(D) 707.2 ms–1
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: Answer (D)
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is correct v v 40
Sol. – =
explanation of A. 4.08 4.16 12
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
40 4.08 × 4.16
explanation of A. v= ×
12 0.08
(C) A is true but R is false.
= 707.2 m/s
(D) A is false but R is true.
Answer (A) ⇒ Option (D) is correct.

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning

SECTION - B Sol.
43 + 2 57
=
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 15 R
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five 57 × 15
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a =
R = 19 Ω
45
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, 3. Current measured by the ammeter Ⓐ in the
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g. reported circuit when no current flows through 10 Ω
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the resistance, will be ___ A.
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
place designated to enter the answer.
1. A pendulum is suspended by a string of length
250 cm. The mass of the bob of the pendulum is
200 g. The bob is pulled aside until the string is at
60° with vertical as shown in the figure. After
releasing the bob, the maximum velocity attained
by the bob will be ___ ms–1. (if g = 10 m/s2)

Answer (10)
Sol. For I10 = 0
R 4
=
3 6
⇒ R=2Ω

Answer (5) 36 × ( 6 + 9 )
⇒ IA =
6×9
1
Sol.
= mv 2 mgl (1– cos θ )
2 36 × 15
= = 10 A
6×9
=
⇒ v 2gl (1– cos θ )
4. An AC source is connected to an inductance of
1 100 mH, a capacitance of 100 µF and a resistance
= 2 × 10 × 2.5 ×
2 of 120 Ω as shown in figure. The time in which the
resistance having a thermal capacity 2 J/°C will get
= 5 m/s
heated by 16°C is ___ s.
2. A meter bridge setup is shown in the figure. It is
used to determine an unknown resistance R using
a given resistor of 15 Ω. The galvanometer (G)
shows null deflection when tapping key is at 43 cm
mark from end A. If the end correction for end A is
2 cm, then the determined value of R will be ___ Ω.

Answer (15)
Sol. L = 100 × 10–3 H
C = 100 × 10–6 F
R = 120 Ω
ωL = 10 Ω
1 1
Answer (19)
= = 100 Ω
ωC 104 × 10 –6

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
⇒ XC – XL = 90 Ω Answer (6)

⇒ Z = 902 + 1202 =150 Ω Mg g

Sol. a
= = (in upward direction)
4M + M 5
20 2
⇒ I=
rms = A
150 15  g  6Mg
T = M  g + =
For heat resistance by 16°C heat required = 32 J  5 5
2 ⇒ x=6
 2 
⇒   × (120 ) × t =32
 15  8. The total internal energy of two mole monoatomic
ideal gas at temperature T = 300 K will be _____ J.
32 × 15 × 15
t= (Given R = 8.31 J/mol.K)
4 × 120
= 15 Answer (7479)

5. The position vector of 1 kg object is =
r ( 3iˆ − jˆ ) m 3 
Sol. U = 2  R  300
 2 
and its velocity =
v ( 3 jˆ + kˆ ) ms –1
. The magnitude
= 3 × 8.31 × 300
of its angular momentum is x Nm where x is
= 7479 J
Answer (91)
 9. A singly ionized magnesium atom (A = 24) ion is
 
Sol. i = r × ( mv ) accelerated to kinetic energy 5 keV, and is
projected perpendicularly into a magnetic field B of
= (3iˆ – jˆ ) × (3 jˆ + kˆ ) the magnitude 0.5 T. The radius of path formed will
be ________ cm.
= – iˆ – 3 ˆj + 9kˆ
Answer (10)
= 91 mv
Sol. R =
6. A man of 60 kg is running on the road and suddenly qB
jumps into a stationary trolly car of mass 120 kg.
Then, the trolly car starts moving with velocity 2m KE
R=
2 ms–1. The velocity of the running man was qB
_____ ms–1, when he jumps into the car.
Answer (6) 2 × 24 × 1.67 × 10 –27 × 5 × 1.6 × 10 –16
=
1.6 × 10 –19 × 0.5
(120 + 60 ) vT
Sol. v m =
60 = 10.009 cm = 10 cm
180 × 2 10. A telegraph line of length 100 km has a capacity of
= = 6 m/s
60 0.01 μF/km and it carries an alternating current at
7. A hanging mass M is connected to a four times 0.5 kilo cycle per second. If minimum impedance is
bigger mass by using a string-pulley arrangement, required, then the value of the inductance that
as shown in the figure. The bigger mass is placed needs to be introduced in series is_______ mH.
on a horizontal ice-slab and being pulled by 2 Mg (if π = 10 )
x Answer (100)
force. In this situation, tension in the string is Mg
5
Sol. Total capacitance = 0.01 × 100 = 1 µF
for x = __________. Neglect mass of the string and
friction of the block (bigger mass) with ice slab. ω = 500 × 2π = 1000π rad/s
(Given g = acceleration due to gravity) 1
ωL =
ωC

1 1 1
⇒=L =2 6 2
= –6
H = 100 mH
ω C 10 π × 10 10

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 4. Given are two statements one is labelled as
Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R.
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices Assertion A : Magnesium can reduce Al2O3 at a
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. temperature below 1350°C, while above 1350°C
aluminium can reduce MgO.
Choose the correct answer :
Reason R : The melting and boiling points of
1. The incorrect statement about the imperfections in
magnesium are lower than those of aluminium.
solids is:
In light of the above statements, choose most
(A) Schottky defect decreases the density of the
substance. appropriate answer from the options given below :

(B) Interstitial defect increases the density of the (A) Both A and R are correct, and R is correct
substance. explanation of A.
(C) Frenkel defect does not alter the density of the (B) Both A and R are correct, but R is NOT the
substance. correct explanation of A.
(D) Vacancy defect increases the density of the (C) A is correct R is not correct.
substance.
(D) A is not correct, R is correct.
Answer (D)
Answer (B)
Sol. Vacancy defect causes decrease in density
Sol. Magnesium can reduce Al2O3 at a temperature
2. The Zeta potential is related to which property of
below 1350°C while above 1350°C aluminium can
colloids?
reduce MgO because below 1350°C G of MgO
(A) Colour
(formation) is more negative and above 1350°C G
(B) Tyndall effect of Al2O3 (formation) is more negative.
(C) Charge on the surface of colloidal particles
The melting and boiling point of magnesium are
(D) Brownian movement lower than those of aluminium but it is not the
Answer (C) correct reason.
Sol. The potential difference between the fixed layer and 5. Dihydrogen reacts with CuO to give
the diffused layer of opposite charges is called zeta
(A) CuH2 (B) Cu
potential.
(C) Cu2O (D) Cu(OH)2
It is related with the charge on the surface of
colloidal particles. Answer (B)
3. Element “E” belongs to the period 4 and group 16 Sol. CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
of the periodic table. The valence shell electron
6. Nitrogen gas is obtained by thermal decomposition
configuration of the element, which is just above “E”
of
in the group is
(A) Ba(NO3)2
(A) 3s2, 3p4 (B) 3d10, 4s2, 4p4
(C) 4d10, 5s2, 5p4 (D) 2s2, 2p4 (B) Ba(N3)2

Answer (A) (C) NaNO2

Sol. Element E is Selenium (D) NaNO3

The element which is just above ‘E’ in periodic table Answer (B)
is sulphur, its electronic configuration is 1s2, 2s2, 
Sol. Ba(N3 )2 ⎯⎯→ Ba + 3N2
2p6, 3s2, 3p4

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
7. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The pentavalent oxide of group-15
element, E2O5, is less acidic than trivalent oxide,
E2O3, of the same element.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below :
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Statement II : The acidic character of trivalent
oxide of group 15 elements, E2O3, decreases down
the group.
In light of the above statements, choose most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I true, but Statement II is false
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Answer (B)
Sol. [Ni(CN)4 ]2– is square planar and diamagnetic with
=0
its hybridisation is dsp2
Ni(CO)4 is tetrahedral but diamagnetic.
10. Which amongst the following is not a pesticide?

(D) Statement I false, but Statement II is true (A) DDT (B) Organophosphates

Answer (D) (C) Dieldrin (D) Sodium arsenite

Answer (D)
Sol. Statement I is false, as E2O5 is more acidic than
E2O3 Sol. Sodium arsenite is a herbicide.
11. Which one of the following techniques is not used
Statement II is correct.
to spot components of a mixture separated on thin
8. Which one of the lanthanoids given below is the layer chromatographic plate?
most stable in divalent form?
(A) I2 (Solid)
(A) Ce (Atomic Number 58) (B) U.V. Light
(B) Sm (Atomic Number 62 ) (C) Visualisation agent as a component of mobile
(C) Eu (Atomic Number 63) phase

(D) Yb (Atomic Number 70) (D) Spraying of an appropriate reagent

Answer (C)
Answer (C)
Sol. The function of mobile phase is to carry the
Sol. Eu+2 is 4f7
components present on TLC.
Yb+2 is 4f14
12. Which of the following structures are aromatic in
but Eu+2 is more stable than Yb+2 because nature?
E  E
Eu|Eu+2 Yb|Yb+2

9. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: [Ni(CN)4]2– is square planar and
(A) A, B, C and D (B) Only A and B
diamagnetic complex, with dsp2 hybridization for Ni
(C) Only A and C (D) Only B, C and D
but [Ni(CO)4] is tetrahedral, paramagnetic and with
Answer (B)
sp3-hybridization for Ni.
Sol. are aromatic as they are
Statement II: [NiCl4]2– and [Ni(CO)4] both have
same d-electron configuration, have same
cyclic, planar and has 4n + 2  e– (n = 1)
geometry and are paramagnetic.

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
13. The major product (P) in the reaction
(C)

is

(D)

(A)

Answer (A)

Sol.
(B)

(C)

15. Which one of the following compounds is inactive

(D)
towards SN1 reaction?

Answer (C) (A)

Sol.

(B)

(C)
14. The correct structure of product ‘A’ formed in the
following reaction,

(Ph is - C6H5) is (D)

(A) Answer (C)

Sol. is inactive towards SN1 as

(B)
halogen is attached to bridge head carbon atom,
where formation of carbocation is not possible.

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
16. Identify the major product formed in the following 18. Which one of the following is NOT a copolymer?
sequence of reactions: (A) Buna-S
(B) Neoprene
(C) PHBV
(D) Butadiene-styrene
Answer (B)
Sol. Monomer of neoprene is 2-chloro-1,3-butadiene,
(A) and it is not a copolymer.

19. Stability of -Helix structure of proteins depends

upon

(B) (A) dipolar interaction

(B) H-bonding interaction
(C) van der Walls forces

(D) -stacking interaction

(C)
Answer (B)
Sol. Mostly H-bonding is responsible for the stability of
-helix form.
20. The formula of the purple colour formed in
(D) Laissaigne’s test for sulphur using sodium
nitroprusside is
(A) NaFe[Fe(CN)6]
Answer (C)
(B) Na[Cr(NH3)2(NCS)4]
(C) Na2[Fe(CN)5(NO)]
Sol.
(D) Na4[Fe(CN)5(NOS)]
Answer (D)

Sol. S2– + [Fe(CN)5NO)]2– → [Fe(CN)5(NOS)]4–

Purple

SECTION - B
17. A primary aliphatic amine on reaction with nitrous Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
acid in cold (273 K) and there after raising contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
temperature of reaction mixture to room questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
temperature (298 K), gives NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
(A) nitrile (B) alcohol correct numerical value (in decimal notation,

(C) diazonium salt (D) secondary amine truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
Answer (B)
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
Sol. place designated to enter the answer.

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
1. A 2.0 g sample containing MnO2 is treated with HCl hc
Sol. E=

liberating Cl2. The Cl2 gas is passed into a solution
of KI and 60.0 mL of 0.1 M Na2S2O3 is required to 6.63  10 −34  3  108
6.63  10 −19 =
titrate the liberated iodine. The percentage of MnO2 

in the sample is ______. (Nearest integer)

 = 3  10−7 m
[Atomic masses (in u) Mn = 55; Cl = 35.5; O = 16, I
= 300 × 10–9 m
= 127, Na = 23, K = 39, S = 32]
= 300 nm
Answer (13)
3. The hybridization of P exhibited in PF5 is spxdy. The
Sol. MnO2 + 4HCl ⎯⎯→ MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2 value of y is _______

Answer (1)
Cl2 + KI ⎯⎯→ Cl− + I2
Sol. PF5 is sp3d hybridised
2Na2S 2O3
y=1

4. 4.0 L of an ideal gas is allowed to expand

Na2S4O6 + 2NaI
isothermally into vacuum until the total volume is
Equivalent of MnO2 = HCl = Cl2 = I2 = Na2S2O3 20 L. The amount of heat absorbed in this

2 × number of moles of MnO2 = 1 × number of expansion is ____ L atm.

moles of Na2S2O3 Answer (0)

60  0.1 10−3 Sol. Work done = –Pext v

Moles of MnO2 =
2
Pext = 0 (vacuum)
= 3 × 10–3 mole
 w = 0, U = 0 (as the process is isothermal)
Mass of MnO2 = 0.261 g
So, q = 0

0.261
% of MnO2 =  100 13% 5. The vapour pressures of two volatile liquids A and
2
B at 25°C are 50 Torr and 100 Torr, respectively. If
2. lf the work function of a metal is 6.63 × 10–19 J, the the liquid mixture, contains 0.3 mole fraction of A,
maximum wavelength of the photon required to then the mole fraction of liquid B in the vapour
remove a photoelectron from the metal is ______ x
phase is . The value of x is _______.
nm. (Nearest integer) 17

[Given : h = 6.63 × 10–34 J s, and Answer (14)

c = 3 × 108 m s–1] Sol. PT = PA0 .x A + PB0 .xB

Answer (300) = 50 × 0.3 + 100 × 0.7

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
= 85 mm Hg A0
Sol. kt = ln
A
70 x
yB = =
85 17
ln2 A0
t 67% = ln
x t1 0.33A 0
= 14 2
17

6. The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt log2 1

t 67% = log
A2X3 is 1.1 × 10–23. If specific conductance of the t1 0.33
2
solution is 3 × 10–5 S m–1, the limiting molar
conductivity of the solution is x × 10–3 S m2 mol–1. t67% = 1.566 t1/2
The value of x is _______.
x = 15.66
Answer (3)
Nearest integer = 16
A 2 X3 2A + 3X
Sol.
2S 3S
9. Number of complexes which will exhibit synergic
Ksp = (2s)2(3s)3 = 1.1 × 10–23 bonding amongst, [Cr(CO)6], [Mn(CO)5] and

S  10−5 [Mn2(CO)10] is ________.

For sparingly soluble salts Answer (3)

m = mo
Sol. CO ligand shows synergic bonding, so all
k complexes can show synergic bonding.
m =
S  103
10. In the estimation of bromine, 0.5 g of an organic
3  10−5
=  10−3 compound gave 0.40 g of silver bromide. The
10−5
percentage of bromine in the given compound is
−3 −1
= 3  10 2
Sm mol _____% (nearest integer)
7. The quantity of electricity of Faraday needed to
(Relative atomic masses of Ag and Br are 108 u
reduce 1 mol of Cr2O72− to Cr3+ is
and 80 u, respectively).
Answer (6)
Answer (34)
+6
Sol. Cr2O72− ⎯⎯
→ 2Cr 3 +
Sol. 188 g AgBr has 80 g of Br
Each Cr is converting from +6 to +3
80
 6 faradays of charge is required  0.4 g AgBr =  0.4
188
8. For a first order reaction A → B, the rate constant,
% of Br in given organic compound
k = 5.5 × 10–14 s–1. The time required for 67%
completion of reaction is x × 10–1 times the half life
80  0.4
=  100
of reaction. The value of x is _____ (Nearest 188  0.5
integer)
 34%
Answer (16)

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning

MATHEMATICS

SECTION - A n +1
Sol. When n = 1, 5, 9, 13 then will give all odd
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 2
numbers.
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
When n = 3, 7, 11, 15 …
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
n – 1 will be even but not divisible by 4
Choose the correct answer : When n = 2, 4, 6, 8, …

 ( 31Ck )( 31Ck −1 ) −  ( 30Ck )( 30Ck −1 ) = (30!)(31!) ,

31 30
(60!) Then 2n will give all multiples of 4
1. If
k =1 k =1 So range will be N.
where   R, then the value of 16 is equal to And no two values of n give same y, so function is
(A) 1411 one-one and onto.

(B) 1320 3. If the system of linear equations

(C) 1615 2x + 3y – z = –2
x+y+z=4
(D) 1855
x – y + ||z = 4 – 4
Answer (A)
where   R, has no solution, then
31 30
Sol.  31
Ck Ck −1 − 
31 30
Ck 30
Ck −1 (A)  = 7
k =1 k =1
(B)  = –7
31 30
=  31Ck  31C32−k −  30Ck  30C31−k (C)  = 8
k =1 k =1
(D) 2 = 1
= 62C
32 – 60C
31
Answer (B)
60!  62  61  60! 2822 2 3 −1
=  − 1 =
31!29!  32  30  31!29! 32  30
Sol.  = 1 1 1 = 0  || = 7
2822 1 −1 ||
=  16 = 1411
32
But at  = 7, Dx = Dy = Dz = 0
2. Let a function ƒ : N → N be defined by P1 : 2x + 3y – z = –2
 P2 : x + y + z = 4
 2n, n = 2, 4, 6, 8,.....
 P3 : x – y + ||z = 4 – 4
ƒ(n ) =  n − 1, n = 3, 7, 11, 15,.....
n +1 So clearly 5P2 – 2P1 = P3, so at  = 7, system of
 , n = 1, 5, 9, 13,.... equation is having infinite solutions.
 2
So  = –7 is correct answer.
then, ƒ is
4. Let A be a matrix of order 3 × 3 and det (A) = 2.
(A) One-one but not onto
Then det (det (A) adj (5 adj (A3))) is equal to
(B) Onto but not one-one ______.
(C) Neither one-one nor onto (A) 512 × 106 (B) 256 × 106
(D) One-one and onto (C) 1024 × 106 (D) 256 × 1011
Answer (D) Answer (A)

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
Sol. |A| = 2 1
 −8x + 6 x − 1dx
2
Sol.
||A| adj(5 adj A3)| 
0
= |25|A| adj(adj A3)|
= 253 |A|3  |adj A3|2
= 253  23  |A3|4
= 253  23  212 = 106  512
5. The total number of 5-digit numbers, formed by
using the digits 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 without repetition,
which are multiple of 6, is
(A) 36 (B) 48
(C) 60 (D) 72
1 3 3 3 + 17
Answer (D) 4 4 4 8 1
Sol. Number should be divisible by 6 and it should be =  ( −1) dx +  0dx +  −1dx +  −2dx +  −3dx
even. 0 1 1 3 3 + 17
4 2 4 8
Total sum = 1 + 2 + 3 + 5 + 6 + 7 = 24
So number removed should be of type 3. 1 1  3 + 17 3   3 + 17 
=− − − 2 −  − 3 1− 
4 4  8 4  8
C-1 : excluding 3 _ _ _ _ = 4! × 2 = 48   

17 − 13
C-2 : excluding 6 _ _ _ _ = 4! = 24 =
8
Total cases = 48 + 24 = 72
6. Let A1, A2, A3, … be an increasing geometric 8. Let ƒ : → be defined as
progression of positive real numbers. If A1A3A5A7 =
1 7  e x  , x 0
and A2 + A4 = , then, the value of A6 + A8   
1296 36  x
ae +  x − 1, 0  x  1
+ A10 is equal to ƒ(x) = 
b + sin ( x )  , 1  x  2
(A) 33 (B) 37   
(C) 43 (D) 47  e − x  − c, x2
  
Answer (C)
A4 A4 Where a, b, c  and [t] denotes greatest integer
1
Sol. . .A4 r .A4 r 3 = less than or equal to t. Then, which of the following
3 r 1296
r
statements is true?
1
A4 = (A) There exists a, b, c  such that ƒ is
6
continuous on .
7 1 1
A2 = − =
36 6 36 (B) If ƒ is discontinuous at exactly one point, then
So A6 + A8 + A10 = 1 + 6 + 36 a+b+c=1
= 43 (C) If ƒ is discontinuous at exactly one point, then
7. Let [t] denote the greatest integer less than or equal a+b+c  1
to t. Then, the value of the integral
(D) ƒ is discontinuous at atleast two points, for any
1
 −8x + 6x − 1dx is equal to
2 values of a, b and c
0 Answer (C)
−5 x 0
(A) –1 (B)  0
4  x
ae − 1 0  x  1

(C)
17 − 13
(D)
17 − 16 Sol. ƒ ( x ) =  b x =1
8 8 
 b −1 1 x  2
Answer (C)  −c x2
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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
To be continuous at x = 0 10. Let the solution curve y = y(x) of the differential
equation
a–1=0
 y  y
 x dy x
to be continuous at x = 1 + ex  x = x+ + ex y
 x2 − y 2  dx  x2 − y 2 
   
ae – 1 = b = b – 1  not possible
pass through the points (1, 0) and (2, ),  > 0.
to be continuous at x = 2 Then  is equal to
b–1=–cb+c=1 1   1  
(A) exp  + e − 1 (B) exp  + e − 1
If a = 1 and b + c = 1 then f(x) is discontinuous at
2  6  2  3 
   
exactly one point (C) exp  + e + 1 (D) 2exp  + e − 1
6  3 
9.  
The area of the region S = ( x, y ) : y 2  8 x, y  2x, x  1
Answer (A)
is    
 y   y 
13 2  1  dy  1 y
(A) Sol.  + ex  dx = 1 +  + e x
x
6  y2   y 2

 1 −   1− 2 
 x2   x 
11 2
(B) Putting y = tx
6
 1  dt   1 
 + et   t + x = 1 +  + e t
t
dx 
5 2
(C)  2   2 
6  1− t   1− t 
 1  dt
19 2  x + et  =1
(D)  2  dx
6  1− t 

Answer (B)  sin–1 t + et = lnx + C

y
 sin−1   + e y / x = ln x + C
Sol. x
at x = 1, y = 0
So, 0 + e0 = 0 + C  C = 1
at (2, )
y
sin−1   + e y / x = ln x + 1
x
1
Required area 
 + e 2 − 1 = ln ( 2 )
4 6
= ( 8 x − 2x dx )  1 
  + e 2 −1
1  
1  6 
 = e
3 4 2
2
2 8 x
= x2 − 11. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
3 21
equation x 1 − x 2(dy
dx
) ( )
+ 3 x 2 y − y − 4 x 3 = 0, x  1,
16 3 16 2 8 1
= − − + with y(2) = –2. Then y(3) is equal to
3 2 3 2
(A) –18 (B) –12
11 2 (C) –6 (D) –3
= sq. units
6 Answer (A)

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning

dy y (3 x 2 − 1) 4x3 b2 5 b2 3
Sol. + = Sol. 1 + =  =
2
dx x(1 − x 2 ) x(1 − x 2 ) a 2 a2 2

3 x 2 −1 2b2 3
 dx 3 3 = 6 2  2. .a = 6 2
IF = e x − x3 = e − ln|x − x| = e − ln( x − x ) a 2

1  a = 2 2, b 2 = 12
=
x3 − x
c 2 = a2 m 2 − b2 = 8.4 − 12 = 20
Solution of D.E. can be given by
14. If the tangents drawn at the points O(0, 0) and

y.
3
1
=
4x 3
.
2
1
2
dx (
P 1 + 5, 2 ) on the circle x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y = 0
x −x x(1 − x ) x( x − 1) intersect at the point Q, then the area of the triangle
y −4 x OPQ is equal to

x −x3
=  ( x 2 − 1)2 dx 3+ 5 4+2 5
(A) (B)
2 2
y 2
 = +c
x −x3 2
( x − 1) 5+3 5 7+3 5
(C) (D)
2 2
at x = 2, y = –2
Answer (C)
−2 2
= + c  c = −1 Sol.
6 3
y 2
at x = 3  = − 1  y = −18
24 8
12. The number of real solutions of x7 + 5x3 + 3x + 1 =
0 is equal to ______.
2 tan 
tan2 = 2  =2
(A) 0 (B) 1 1 − tan2 
(C) 3 (D) 5
5 −1
Answer (B) tan  = (as  is acute)
2
Sol. 1 2 1 5
Area = L sin2 = . .2sin  cos 
2 2 tan2 
5 sin  cos 
= .cos2 
sin2 
= 5cot.cos2
f ( x ) = 7 x 6 + 15 x 2 + 3  0 x  R
2 1
f(x) is always increasing = 5. .
5 −1  5 − 1
2
So clearly it intersects 1 +  
 2 
x-axis at only one point
10 4
13. Let the eccentricity of the hyperbola = .
5 −1 4 + 6 − 2 5
x2 y2 5
H: − = 1 be and length of its latus
2 2 2 40 4 5
a b = =
rectum be 6 2 , If y = 2x + c is a tangent to the 2 5( 5 − 1) 2 6−2 5
hyperbola H. then the value of c2 is equal to 4 5(6 + 2 5)
=
(A) 18 (B) 20 16
(C) 24 (D) 32
5(3 + 5)
Answer (B) =
2
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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
15. If two distinct points Q, R lie on the line of Sol. Family of Plane’s equation can be given by
intersection of the planes –x + 2y – z = 0 and 3x – (5 + 8)x + (8 – 7)y + (13 + ) z – (29 + 20) = 0
5y + 2z = 0 and PQ = PR = 18 where the point P
P1 passes through (2, 1, 3)
is (1, –2, 3), then the area of the triangle PQR is
 (10 + 16) + (8 – 7) + (39 + 3) – (29 + 20) = 0
equal to
7
2 4  –8 + 28 = 0   =
(A) 38 (B) 38 2
3 3
d.r, s of normal to P1
8 152
(C) 38 (D) –33 33 1 1
3 3 33, , or 1,– ,
2 2 2 2
Answer (B)
P2 passes through (0, 1, 2)
Sol.
 8 – 7 + 26 + 2 – (29 + 20) = 0
 5 – 25 = 0

1
 =
5
d.r, s of normal to P2
Line L is x = y = z
33 33 66
PQ.(iˆ + ˆj + kˆ ) = 0 , , or 1, 1, 2
5 5 5
 ( – 3) +  + 2 +  – 1 = 0
Angle between normals
2  2 2 2
  = so, T =  , , 
3  3 3 3
ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ
( ˆ
 i – 2 j + 2 k   i + j + 2k
 
)
=
38 3
PT = 6
3 2
1
4 1– +1
 QT = 2 1
3 cos  = =
3 2
1 4 38  
So, Area =     .2 =
2 3 
 3 3

4 38 17. Let the plane P : r  a = d contain the line of

= sq units
3
( )
intersection of two planes r  iˆ + 3 jˆ − kˆ = 6 and
16. The acute angle between the planes P1 and P2,
when P1 and P2 are the planes passing through the
( )
r  −6iˆ + 5 jˆ − kˆ = 7 . If the plane P passes through

intersection of the planes 5x + 8y + 13z – 29 = 0  1 | 13 a |2

the point  2, 3,  , then the value of is
and 8x – 7y + z – 20 = 0 and the points (2, 1, 3) and  2 d2
(0, 1, 2), respectively, is equal to

  (A) 90
(A) (B)
3 4 (B) 93

  (C) 95
(C) (D)
6 12 (D) 97
Answer (A) Answer (B)
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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
Sol. P1: x + 3y – z = 6 19. Let AB and PQ be two vertical poles, 160 m apart
from each other. Let C be the middle point of B and
P2: –6x + 5y – z = 7 
Q, which are feet of these two poles. Let and 
Family of planes passing through line of 8
be the angles of elevation from C to P and A,
intersection of P1 and P2 is given by x(1 – 6) + y(3
respectively. If the height of pole PQ is twice the
+ 5) + z (–1 – ) – (6 + 7) = 0 height of pole AB, then tan2 is equal to
 1 3–2 2 3+ 2
It passes through  2,3,  (A) (B)
 2  2 2

1 3–2 2 3– 2
So, 2(1– 6 ) + 3(3 + 5 ) + (–1– ) – (6 + 7) = 0 (C) (D)
2 4 4
Answer (C)
1 
 2 − 12 + 9 + 15 – – – 6 – 7 = 0
2 2

9 9
 – = 0   =1 Sol.
2 2
Required plane is
–5x + 8y – 2z – 13 = 0

Or r  (–5iˆ + 8 ˆj – 2kˆ ) = 13 = tan  …(i)

80
2
13a 132 2 
= a
2
= 93 = tan …(ii)
2 80 8
d (13)2
From (i) and (ii)
18. The probability, that in a randomly selected 3-digit
1 tan  1 
number at least two digits are odd, is =  tan2  = tan2
2  4 8
tan
19 15 8
(A) (B)
36 36 2 –1 3–2 2
 tan2  = =
(C)
13
(D)
23 4 ( 2 +1 ) 4
36 36
20. Let p, q, r be three logical statements. Consider
Answer (A) the compound statements
Sol. Required cases = Total – all digits even – exactly S1 : ((p)  q)  (( p)  r) and
one digit even S2 : p → (q  r)
Total = 900 ways Then, which of the following is NOT true?
(A) If S2 is True, then S1 is True
All even 
(B) If S2 is False, then S1 is False
(C) If S2 is False, then S1 is True
One digit odd 
(D) If S1 is False, then S2 is False
Answer (C)
Sol. S1: (~p  q)  (~ p  r)
 (~ p  q  r)
S2: ~p  (q  r)
Both are same
900 – 425 19
Required probability = = So, option (C) is incorrect.
900 36
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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
SECTION - B xi2
Sol. − 82 = 9  xi2 = 15  73 = 1095
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 15
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five Let x c be corrected mean xc = 9
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
xc2 = 1095 – 25 + 400 = 1470
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
1470
− ( 9 ) = 98 − 81 = 17
2
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, Correct variance =
15
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
4. If a = 2iˆ + jˆ + 3kˆ, b = 3iˆ + 3 jˆ + kˆ and
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the c = c1iˆ + c2 jˆ + c3 kˆ are coplanar vectors and

place designated to enter the answer. a  c = 5, b ⊥ c , then 122(c1 + c2 + c3) is equal to

_________.
1. Let R1 and R2 be relations on the set {1, 2, ....., 50}
Answer (150)
such that
Sol. 2C1 + C2 + 3C3 = 5 …(i)
R1 = {(p, pn) : p is a prime and n  0 is an integer} and
3C1 + 3C2 + C3 = 0 …(ii)
R2 = {(p, pn) : p is a prime and n = 0 or 1}.
2 1 3
Then, the number of elements in R1 – R2 is ______. abc  = 3 3
  1
Answer (8) C1 C2 C3
Sol. R1 – R2 = {(2, 22), (2, 23), (2, 24), (2, 25), (3, 32)
= 2(3C3 – C2) – 1(3C3 – C1) + 3(3C2 – 3C1)
(3, 33), (5, 52), (7, 72)}
= 3C3 + 7C2 – 8C1
So number of elements = 8
2. The number of real solutions of the equation  8C1 – 7C2 – 3C3 = 0 …(iii)
e 4 x + 4e3 x − 58e2 x + 4e x + 1 = 0 is _____. 10 −85 225
C1 = , C2 = , C3 =
Answer (2) 122 122 122
Sol. Dividing by e2x So 122(C1 + C2 + C3) = 150
e2x + 4ex – 58 + 4e–x + e–2x = 0 5. A ray of light passing through the point P(2, 3)
reflects on the x-axis at point A and the reflected
 (ex + e–x)2 + 4(ex + e–x) – 60 = 0
ray passes through the point Q(5, 4). Let R be the
Let ex + e–x = t  [2, ) point that divides the line segment AQ internally into
 t2 + 4t – 60 = 0 the ratio 2 : 1. Let the co-ordinates of the foot of the
 t = 6 is only possible solution perpendicular M from R on the bisector of the angle
PAQ be (, ). Then, the value of 7 + 3 is equal
ex + e–x = 6  e2x – 6ex + 1 = 0
to ___________.
Let ex = p,
Answer (31)
p2 – 6p + 1 = 0
Sol.
3+ 5 3− 5
 p= OR
2 2
3+ 5  3− 5 
So x = ln 
 2 
OR ln 
 2 
   
4 3
3. The mean and standard deviation of 15 =  4 − 8 = 15 − 3
5− −2
observations are found to be 8 and 3 respectively.
On rechecking it was found that, in the 23
=
observations, 20 was misread as 5. Then, the 7
correct variance is equal to _______.
 23 
A =  , 0  Q = ( 5, 4 )
Answer (17)  7 
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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
 23  Sol. If we write the elements of A + A, we can certainly
 10 + 7 8  find 39 distinct elements as 1 + 1, 1 + a1, 1 + a2,…..1
R = , 
 3 3 + a18, 1 + 77, a1 + 77, a2 + 77,……a18 + 77, 77 + 77.

  It means all other sums are already present in these
39 values, which is only possible in case when all
 31 8 
= ,  numbers are in A.P.
 7 3
Let the common difference be ‘d’.
23
Bisector of angle PAQ is X = 77 = 1 + 19d  d = 4
7
18
18
 23 8  So,  a1 = 2a1 + 17d  = 9 10 + 68 = 702
 M = ,  i =1 2
 7 3
8. The number of positive integers k such that the
So, 7 + 3 = 31 constant term in the binomial expansion of
12
6. Let l be a line which is normal to the curve y = 2x2  3 3 
 2x + k  , x  0 is 2  , where  is an odd
8

+ x + 2 at a point P on the curve. If the point Q(6, 4)  x 

lies on the line l and O is origin, then the area of the integer, is______.
triangle OPQ is equal to ___________. Answer (2)
Answer (13) r

( )  3 
12 − r
Sol. Tr +1 = 12
Cr 2x 3  k
x 
Sol.
= 12
Cr 212−r 3r x 36 −3r −kr
For constant term 36 – 3r – kr = 0
36
r=
3+k
So, k can be 1, 3, 6, 9, 15, 33
In order to get 28, check by putting values of k and
corresponding in general term. By checking, it is
y1 − 4 1
=− possible only where k = 3 or 6
x1 − 6 4 x1 + 1
9. The number of elements in the set


2 x12+ x1 − 2
=−
1 z = a + ib  : a, b  and 1  z − 3 + 2i  4 is
x1 − 6 4 x1 + 1
__________.
 6 − x1 = 8 x13 + 6 x12 − 7 x1 − 2 Answer (40)
Sol.
 8 x13 + 6 x12 − 6 x1 − 8 = 0

So x1 = 1  y1 = 5

0 0 1
1
Area = 6 4 1 = 13 .
2
1 5 1

7. Let A = {1, a1, a2…a18, 77} be a set of integers with

1 < a1 < a2 <….< a18 < 77. Let the set A + A =
{x + y : x, y  A} contain exactly 39 elements. Then,
the value of a1 + a2 +…+ a18 is equal to _____.
at line y = –2, we have (5, –2) (6, –2) (1, –2) (0, –2)
Answer (702)  4 points

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 JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-1 (28-06-2022)-Morning
at line y = –1, we have (4, –1) (5, –1) (6, –1) (2, –1) Sol. L1 : y + 2 x = 11 + 7 7
(1, –1) (0, –1)  6 points
L2 : 2y + x = 2 11 + 6 7
at line y = 0, we have (0, 0) (1, 0) (2, 0) (3, 0) (4, 0)
(5, 0) (6, 0)  7 points Point of intersection of these two lines is centre of
at line y = 1, we have (1, 1), (2, 1), (3, 1), (4, 1), (5, 1) 8 5 
circle i.e.  7, 11 + 7
i.e. 5 points  3 3 
symmetrically
 5 77 
at line y = –5, we have 5 points ⊥ r from centre to line 3 x − 11y +  + 11 = 0
 3 
 
at line y = –4, we have 7 points
is radius of circle
at line y = –3, we have 6 points
5 5 77
So Total integral points = 2(5 + 7 + 6) + 4 8 7 − 11 − 77 + + 11
 r = 3 3
= 40
20
10. Let the lines y + 2 x = 11 + 7 7 and
2y + x = 2 11 + 6 7 be normal to a circle
7 7
= 4 = 4 units
C : (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = r2. If the line 5 5
5 77
11y − 3 x = + 11 is tangent to the circle C, So (5h – 8K)2 + 5r2
3
2
then the value of (5h – 8k)2 + 5r2 is equal to  40 40  7
= 7 − 8 11 − 7  + 5.16.
_______.  3 3  5
Answer (816) = 64 × 11 + 112 = 816.

❑ ❑ ❑

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