Part Test-Ii: Junior All India Test Series

JUNIOR ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
for
Student of Class IX
PART TEST- II
TEST DATE: 20-12-2020
Time: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 240
Instructions:
1. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet.

2. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic devices, in any form, are not allowed.
4. Write your Name, Enrollment No. and Test Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this
sheet.
5. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry, Part-III is Biology and Part-IV is Mathematics.
Question no. 01 – 20, 21 – 40, 41 – 60, 61 – 80 contains 80 multiple choice questions which
have only one correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1
mark for wrong answer.
Name of the Candidate :
Enrollment Number :
Date of Examination : Centre:
Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
JAITS-2020-22-Class IX-PT-II-S&M(2202A)-2
PART – I: PHYSICS
Single Correct Answer Type
This part contains 20 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 20. Each question has four choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A body of mass 120 kg is moving with a uniform velocity of 108 km/hr. The force (magnitude)
required to stop it in 20 sec is:
(A) 120 N (B) 150 N
(C) 180 N (D) 200 N
2. When a car starts suddenly a driver in a car leans backwards. This is an example of:
(A) Law of conservation of momentum (B) Newton’s first law of motion
(C) Newton’s second law of motion (D) Newton’s third law of motion
3. A light string passes over a frictionless pulley. To one of its ends a mass of 10 kg is attached. To
2
the other end mass of 15 kg. The magnitude of acceleration of the system will be. (g = 10 m/s )
2 2
(A) 2 m/sec (B) 4.7 m/sec
2 2
(C) 8.4 m/sec (D) 1.1 m/sec
4. When we move from equator to pole then the value of acceleration due to gravity:
(A) Remains same (B) Decreases
(C) Increases (D) Increases then decreases
5. If the distance between the earth and the sun becomes four times, then time period of earth
becomes:
(A) 5 times (B) 6 times
(C) 7 times (D) 8 times
6. A tunnel is dug along a diameter of the earth of mass Me and Radius Re. The force on a particle
of mass m placed in the tunnel at a distance r from the centre is:
GMem GMem 3
(A) 3 2
(B) r
Rer R2e
GMemr GMem
(C) (D)
R3e R3e r 3
Space for rough work
7. A Block of mass 3 kg is placed on a smooth surface. P and Q forces are applied on block as
shown. The net horizontal force on the block will be:
P = 20 N 3 kg Q = 10 N
(A) 10 N (B) 20 N
(C) 30 N (D) 40 N
8. Two satellites are orbiting around the earth in circular orbits of same radius. Mass of one of them
is 20 times greater than mass of the other, their speeds of revolution are in ratio:
(A) 1 : 100 (B) 100 : 1
(C) 40 : 10 (D) 1 : 1
9. A ball thrown upward with a speed 3 u from the top of the tower reaches the ground with a
velocity 9u. The height of tower is:
4u2 10u2
(A) (B)
g g
30u2 36u2
(C) (D)
g g
10. A man of mass 100 kg is in an elevator and its cable broke. If the elevator falls freely. The force
exerted by the floor on the man is:
(A) 100 N (B) 10 N
(C) Zero (D) None of these
11. The time period of a satellite in a circular orbit around a planet depends on.
(A) mass of satellite (B) mass of planet
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these
12. A block rests on an incline plane making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The coefficient of
static friction between the block and plane is 0.6. If the friction force on the block is 20 N, the
2
mass of the block is approximately (Take g = 10 m/sec )
(A) 7.8 kg (B) 9 kg
(C) 4 kg (D) 8.8 kg
13. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, acceleration due to gravity on
the surface of a planet whose mass is four times that of the earth and radius is twice that of the
earth is:
(A) 2g (B) 8g
(C) g (D) g/2
14. As per kepler’s law the relation between time period and distance from the sun of a planet is:
2 –3 3 3
(A) T R = constant (B) T R = constant
2
(C) T R = constant (D) None of these
15. What will be the time period of a simple pendulum whose mass of bob is 5 kg and length of the
2
string is 10 m. (g = 10 m/s )
5
(A) 2  (B)
2
(C) 7  (D) 10 
16. Mass of a man on earth is 60 kg. What will be the mass of man on moon:
(A) 10 kg (B) 60 kg
(C) 600 kg (D) 3600 kg
17. A block of mass 10 kg is placed on a rough surface. Whose coefficient of friction is 0.5, 25 N
external force is applied on block. The frictional force on the block is:
(A) 50 N (B) 30 N
(C) 25 N (D) 20 N
12 10
18. The distances of two planets from the sun are 10 and 10 respectively. Find ratio of their time
periods.
(A) 1000 : 1 (B) 1 : 1000
(C) 10 : 1 (D) 100 : 1
19. Calculate the escape velocity for a body projected from a point on the earth’s surface using the
24
following details as mass of earth is 6 × 10 kg, radius of the earth is 6400 km and G = 6.67 ×
–11 2 –2
10 Nm kg .
(A) 11.1 km/sec(approx) (B) 13.2 km/sec(approx)
(C) 17.1 km/sec(approx) (D) 14.1 km/sec(approx)
20. A solid sphere of 2 kg is suspended from a horizontal beam by

two supporting wires as shown. Tension in each wire is 30° 30°
approximately.
(A) 5 N (B) 10 N
(C) 30 N (D) 20 N T T
PART – II: CHEMISTRY

This part contains 20 multiple choice questions numbered 21 to 40. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. The chemical symbol for nitrogen gas is:

(A) Ni (B) N2
+
(C) N (D) N
22. The chemical symbol for sodium is:

(A) So (B) Sd
(C) NA (D) Na
23. Which of the following would weigh the highest?

(A) 0.2 mole of sucrose (C12H22O11) (B) 2 moles of CO2
(C) 2 moles of CaCO3 (D) 10 moles of H2O
24. Which of the following has maximum number of atoms?

(A) 18 g of H2O (B) 18 g of O2
(C) 18 g of CO2 (D) 18 g of CH4
25. Which of the following correctly represents 360 g of water?

(i) 2 moles of H2O
(ii) 20 moles of water
23
(iii) 6.022 × 10 molecules of water
25
(iv) 1.2044 × 10 molecules of water
(A) (i) (B) (i) and (iv)

(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
26. The number of oxygen atoms in 32 g of oxygen gas is

23 23
(A) 6.023  10 (B) 2  6.023  10
23 23
(C) 3  6.023 × 10 (D) 4  6.023  10
27. A change in the physical state can be brought about:

(A) Only when energy is given to the system
(B) Only when energy is taken out from the system
(C) When energy is either given to, or taken out from the system
(D) Without any energy change
28. The relative molecular mass of Na2S2O3.5H2O is:

(A) 250 amu (B) 250 g
(C) 248 amu (D) 248 g
29. Which of the following has maximum number of molecules?

(A) 18 g H2O (B) 18 g of O2
(C) 18 g of CO2 (D) 18 g of CH4
30. Percentage of calcium in calcium carbonate is:

(A) 40 (B) 30
(C) 48 (D) 36
31. Which has maximum number of molecules?

(A) 1 g of CO2 (B) 1 g of N2
(C) 1 g of H2 (D) 1 g of CH4
23
32. What mass of carbon dioxide (CO2) will contain 3.011 × 10 molecules?
(A) 11.0 g (B) 22.0 g
(C) 4.4 g (D) 44.0 g
33. The value of Avogadro’s constant is:

24 22
(A) 6.0 × 10 (B) 6.01 × 10
23 -23
(C) 6.022 × 10 (D) 6.022 × 10
34. How many times an atom of sulphur is heavier than an atom of carbon?
(A) 32 times (B) 12 times
(C) 8/3 times (D) 12/32 times
35. The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of CO2 is approx:

22
(A) 6 × 10 (B) 6
23 23
(C) 12 × 10 (D) 1.2 × 10
36. Which of the following represents 12 u?

(A) Mass of 1 hydrogen atom (B) Mass of C-12 atom
(C) Mass of 0-16 atom (D) 1/12th of mass of C-12 atom.
37. Which of the following would have same number of molecules?

(A) 1 g CO and 1 g CO2 (B) 1 g CO and 1 g N2O
(C) 1 g CO2 and 1 g NO (D) 1 g CO and 1 g N2
38. The molecule having an atomicity of 4 is:

(A) Sulphate molecule (B) Ozone molecule
(C) Phosphorus molecule (D) Methane molecule
39. The element whose gram-atomic mass and gram-molecular mass are the same is:
(A) argon (B) nitrogen
(C) oxygen (D) hydrogen
40. The accepted unit of atomic mass and molecular mass is:
(A) amu (B) g
-1
(C) kg (D) g mol
PART – III: BIOLOGY

41. Which of the following types of plastid does not contain stored food material?
(A) Chromoplasts (B) Elaioplasts
(C) Aleuroplasts (D) Amyloplasts
42. Centromere is required for:

(A) Movement of chromosomes towards poles (B) Cytoplasmic cleavage
(C) Crossing over (D) Transcription
43. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle:

(A) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell
(B) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell
(C) Chromosome number is increased
(D) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell
44. How many mitotic divisions are needed for a single cell to make 128 cells?
(A) 28 (B) 32
(C) 7 (D) 14
45. The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of:
(A) Ligament (B) Areolar tissue
(C) Bone (D) Cartilage
46. Mast cells of connective tissue contain:

(A) Vasopressin and relaxin (B) Heparin and histamine
(C) Heparin and calcitonin (D) Serotonin and melanin
47. Grass stem elongates by the activity of:

(A) Secondary meristem (B) Intercalary meristem
(C) Apical meristem (D) Primary meristem
48. Haversian canals occur in:

(A) Humerus (B) Pubis
(C) Scapula (D) Clavicle
49. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying:

(A) helper T-lymphocytes (B) Thrombocytes
(C) B-lymphocytes (D) Leucocytes
50. Match the disease in column I with the appropriate items (pathogen / prevention / treatment) in
column II.
Column I Column II
(a) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidum
(b) Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized food and water
(c) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
(d) Syphilis (iv) Use oral rehydration therapy
(A) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (iv) (B) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (iv), d – (i)
(C) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii), d – (iv) (D) a –(ii), b – (iv), c – (i), d – (iii)
51. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother’s milk to
the infant is categorised as:
(A) Active immunity (B) Passive immunity
(C) Cellular immunity (D) Innate non-specific immunity
52. The blood cancer is known as:

(A) Haemolysis (B) Haemophilia
(C) Leukaemia (D) Thrombosis
53. ‘Himgiri’ developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens
is a variety of:
(A) Chilli (B) Maize
(C) Sugarcane (D) Wheat
54. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamins and proteins is called:
(A) Somatic hybridisation (B) Biofortification
(C) Biomagnification (D) Micropropagation
55. Which one of the following is the correct percentage of the two (out of the total 4) green house
gases that contribute to the total global warming?
(A) N2O 6%, CO2 16% (B) methane 20%, N2O 18%
(C) CFCs 14%, methane 20% (D) CO2 40%, CFCs 30%
56. When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, its B.O.D will:
(A) Slightly decrease (B) Remain unchanged
(C) Increase (D) Decrease
57. Which of the following plant kingdom is called ‘Amphibians’?

(A) Pteridophyta (B) Thallophyta
(C) Tracheophyta (D) Bryophyta
58. Planaria possesses high capacity of:

(A) Metamorphosis (B) Regeneration
(C) Alternation of generation (D) Bioluminescence
59. The characteristics of Class Reptilia are:

(A) Body covered with moist skin which is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by a
tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca.
(B) Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton, air-bladder to regulate buoyancy.
(C) Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton, body covered with placoid scales.
(D) Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales over the body are epidermal, they do not
have external ears.
60. Ascaris is characterized by:

(A) Presence of true coelom but absence of metamerism
(B) Presence of true coelom and metamerism (metamerisation)
(C) Absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism
(D) Presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism
PART – IV: MATHEMATICS

61. In figure, ABCD is a parallelogram and DAB = 60°. If D P C

the bisectors AP and BP of angles A and B
respectively, meet at P, then
1
(A) DP = PC 30°
3 60°
1 30° 60°
(B) PC = DC
3 A B
1
(C) DP = AB
3
1
(D) DP = AB
2
62. In a triangle, P, Q and R are the mid points of sides BC, CA and AB respectively. If AC = 21cm,
BC = 29cm and AB = 30cm, then the perimeter of quadrilateral ARPQ is
(A) 61 cm (B) 60 cm
(C) 58 cm (D) 51 cm
2
63. The altitude of a parallelogram one of whose sides is 10 cm, the area being 0.5 m is equal to:
(A) 5 m (B) 15 m
(C) 7 m (D) 9 m
64. A floral design on the floor of a building consists of 280 titles. Each tile is in the shape of a
parallelogram of altitude 3 cm & base 5 cm. Then the cost of polishing the design at the rate of 50
2
paise per cm is equal to:
(A) 1900 (B) 2100
(C) 3100 (D) 2200
65. In the adjoining figure, ABCD is a parallelogram and P is any point on BC. then ar(ABP) +
ar(DPC) is equal to:
1
(A) ar(PDA) (B) ar(PDA)
2
2
(C) ar(PDA) (D) None of these
3
66. In figure, AOB = 90, AC = BC, OA = 12 cm & OC = 6.5 A

cm. Then the area of AOB.
2
(A) 40 cm
2 C
(B) 20 cm
2
(C) 30 cm
2
(D) 25 cm
O B
67. If the medians of  ABC interests at G, Then ar(AGB) is equal to:

(A) ar(AGC) (B) ar(BGC)
1
(C) ar(ABC) (D) all of above
3
68. If the line 2x + 3y + k = 0 passes through the point (3, 2). Then the value of K is:
(A) 12 (B) – 12
(C) 6 (D) 0
x y
69. The points that have both coordinate as positive integers on the line   1 , is equal to:
21 3
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) more then 3
70. The difference between the sides at right angles in a right-angled triangle is 14 cm. The area of
2
the triangle is 120 cm . Then the perimeter of the triangle is equal to:
(A) 30 cm (B) 45 cm
(C) 60 cm (D) 75 cm
71. In the figure, if area of the triangle AOB, is 100 square units.
Then the co-ordinate of A is: A(0, a)
(A) (0, 20)
(B) (5, 20)
(C) (1, 15)
(D) (0, – 20)
O B(10, 0)
72. The perimeter of a triangular field is 450 m and its sides are in the ratio 13 : 12 : 5. Then the area
of the triangle is:
2 2
(A) 5750 m (B) 6750 m
2 2
(C) 5680 m (D) 6570 m
73. The percentage increase in the area of a triangle if its each side is doubled is equal to:
(A) 200% (B) 100%
(C) 300% (D) 250%
74. The triangular side walls of a flyovers have been used for
advertisements. The sides of the walls are 122 m, 22 m
22 m
and 120 m (as shown in figure). The advertisements yield 122 m
2
an caring of Rs 5000 per m per year. A company hired
both walls for 3 months. Then the rent did it pay is:
5 120 m
(A) 33  10
4
(B) 33  10
5
(C) 43  10
4
(D) 43  10
75. The three consecutive numbers such that twice the first, 3 times the second and 4 times the third
together make 191. Then the sum of these three numbers is:
(A) 67 (B) 57
(C) 63 (D) 80
76. The triangle whose vertices are (0, –3), (4, 0) and (–4, 0) is a/an:
(A) scalene
(B) isosceles
(C) equilateral triangle
(D) none of these
77. The area of the trapezium formed by the lines x = 0, x = 2, y = 4 and x + y = 2 is

(A) 6 sq. units (B) 8 sq. units
(C) 10 sq. units (D) 12 sq. units
78. The angle bisectors of a parallelogram form a/an:

(A) square (B) rhombus
(C) rectangle (D) parallelogram
D
79. In the given figure ABCD is a parallelogram and E C
is the mid point of side BC. If DE and AB when

produced meet at F. Then
(A) AF = 2AB E
G
(B) AF = 1.8AB
(C) AE = 2BE + AB
(D) none of these
F
A B
80. ABCD is a parallelogram in which P is the midpoint of DC and Q is a point on AC such that CQ
= 1/4AC. If PQ produced meets BC at R, Then which is true:
1 1
(A) PQ = DO (B) PR = DB
2 2
(C) BR = RC (D) AB = BD

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JUNIOR ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

1. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet.

Name of the Candidate :

Date of Examination : Centre:

20. A solid sphere of 2 kg is suspended from a horizontal beam by

Space for rough work

PART – II: CHEMISTRY

21. The chemical symbol for nitrogen gas is:

22. The chemical symbol for sodium is:

23. Which of the following would weigh the highest?

24. Which of the following has maximum number of atoms?

25. Which of the following correctly represents 360 g of water?

(A) (i) (B) (i) and (iv)

26. The number of oxygen atoms in 32 g of oxygen gas is

27. A change in the physical state can be brought about:

28. The relative molecular mass of Na2S2O3.5H2O is:

29. Which of the following has maximum number of molecules?

30. Percentage of calcium in calcium carbonate is:

31. Which has maximum number of molecules?

33. The value of Avogadro’s constant is:

35. The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of CO2 is approx:

36. Which of the following represents 12 u?

37. Which of the following would have same number of molecules?

38. The molecule having an atomicity of 4 is:

PART – III: BIOLOGY

42. Centromere is required for:

43. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle:

46. Mast cells of connective tissue contain:

47. Grass stem elongates by the activity of:

48. Haversian canals occur in:

49. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying:

52. The blood cancer is known as:

57. Which of the following plant kingdom is called ‘Amphibians’?

58. Planaria possesses high capacity of:

59. The characteristics of Class Reptilia are:

60. Ascaris is characterized by:

PART – IV: MATHEMATICS

61. In figure, ABCD is a parallelogram and DAB = 60°. If D P C

66. In figure, AOB = 90, AC = BC, OA = 12 cm & OC = 6.5 A

67. If the medians of  ABC interests at G, Then ar(AGB) is equal to:

77. The area of the trapezium formed by the lines x = 0, x = 2, y = 4 and x + y = 2 is

78. The angle bisectors of a parallelogram form a/an:

is the mid point of side BC. If DE and AB when

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