U-Like Science Class X Term - 1

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CCE SAMPLE PAPERS
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(WITH SOLUTIONS)
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MODEL TEST PAPERS

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(FOR REVISION)
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SCIENCE
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CLASS X
TERM -1
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BEST BOOK PUBLISHING HOUSE
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NEW DELHI
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Strictly according to the Latest Guidelines and
Sample Question Paper issued by CI3SE
CBSE
CCE SAMPLE PAPERS
(With Solutions)
&
MODEL TEST PAPERS
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{For Revision)
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SCIENCE
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CLASS X
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(FOR DELHI SECONDARY SCHOOLS, ALL INDIA SECONDARY SCHOOLS AND

JAWAHAR NAVODAYA VIDYALAYAS EXAMINATIONS)
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2014
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Published by :
BEST BOOK PUBLISHING HOUSE

PUBLISHERS & BOOKSELLERS
F-91, West Patel Nagar, New Delhi-110008
Phone : 2588 3565, 2588 7477
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COURSE STRUCTURE
SCIENCE
FIRST TERM (SA-I)
CLASS X
First Term Marks : 90
Units Marks
I. Chemical Substances-Nature and Behaviour 33
II. World of Living 21
HI. Effects of Current 29
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IV. Natural Resources 07
Total 90
THEME : MATERIALS
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(30 Periods)
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Unit I : Chemical Substances - Nature and Behaviour
Chemical reactions : Chemical equation. Balanced chemical equation, implications of a balanced
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chemical equation, types of chemical reactions : combination, decomposition, displacement, double
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displacement, precipitation, neutralisation, oxidation and reduction.
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Acids, bases and salts : Their definitions in terms of furnishing of H+ and OH- ions. General
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properties, examples and uses, concept of pH scale (Definition relating to logarithm not required),
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importance of pH in everyday life; preparation and uses of Sodium hydroxide. Bleaching powder.
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Baking soda. Washing soda and Plaster of Paris.

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Metals and non-metals : Properties of metals and non-metals, reactivity series, formation and
properties of ionic compounds, basic metallurgical processes, corrosion and its prevention.
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THEME : THE WORLD OF LIVING (20 Periods)

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Unit II : World of Living

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Life Processes : "Living being". Basic concept of nutrition, respiration, transport and excretion
in plants and animals.
Control and co-ordination in Animals and Plants : Tropic movements in plants; Introduction
of plant hormones; control and co-ordination in animals : nervous system; voluntary, involuntary
and reflex action, chemical co-ordination : animal hormones.
THEME : HOW THINGS WORK (32 Periods)

Unit III : Effects of Current
Electric current, potential difference and electric current. Ohm's law; Resistance, Resistivity,
Factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends. Series combination of resistors, parallel
combination of resistors and its applications in daily life. Heating effect of electric current and its
applications in daily life. Electric Power, Interrelation between P, V, I and R.
(i)
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(»)
Magnetic effects of current: Magnetic field, field lines, field due to a current carrying conductor,
field due to current carrying coil or solenoid; Force on current carrying conductor, Fleming's left
hand rule. Electromagnetic induction. Induced potential difference. Induced current. Fleming's
right hand rule. Direct current. Alternating current: frequency of A.C. Advantage of A.C. over D.C.
Domestic electric circuits.
THEME : NATURAL RESOURCES (8 Periods)
Unit IV : Sources of Energy

Different forms of energy, conventional and non-conventional sources of energy : fossil fuels,
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solar energy; bio-gas; wind, water and tidal energy; nuclear energy. Renewable versus non-renewable
sources of energy.
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PRACTICALS
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Practical should be conducted alongside the concepts taught in theory classes.
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LIST OF EXPERIMENTS
1. To find the pH of the following samples by using pH paper/universal indicator :
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(n) Dilute Hydrochloric acid f
(b) Dilute NaOH solution
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(c) Dilute ethanoic acid solution
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(d) Lemon juice

(e) Water
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(/) Dilute sodium bicarbonate solution.

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2. To study the properties of acids and bases (HC1 and NaOH) by their reaction with :
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(a) Litmus solution (Blue/Red)

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(b) Zinc metal

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(c) Solid sodium carbonate.

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3. To perform and observe the following reactions and classify them into :
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(a) Combination reaction

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(b) Decomposition reaction

(c) Displacement reaction
(d) Double displacement reaction
(/) Action of water on quick lime
(zz) Action of heat on ferrous sulphate crystals
(Hi) Iron nails kept in copper sulphate solution
(iv) Reaction between sodium sulphate and barium chloride solutions.
4. (a) To observe the action of Zn, Fe, Cu and A1 metals on the following salt solutions :
(/) ZnS04 (aq)
(z'z) FeS04 (aq)
(Hi) CuS04 (aq)
(iv) A12(S04)3 (aq)
(b) Arrange Zn, Fe, Cu and A1 (metals) in the decreasing order of reactivity based on the above
result. 4
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5. To study the dependence of potential difference (V) across a resistor on the current (I)
passing through it and determine its resistance. Also plot a graph between V and I.
6. To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in series.
7. To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in parallel.
8. To prepare a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show stomata.
9. To show experimentally that light is necessary for photosynthesis.
10. To show experimentally that carbon dioxide is given out during respiration.
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Question Paper Design for Science
Time : 3 Hours Class X Max. Marks : 90
S. Typology Learning Very Short Short Short Long %
No. of Outcomes Answer Answer l Answer II Answer Total Weigh-
Questions and Testing (VSA) (SA-I) (SA-II) (LA) Marks tage
Competencies (1 Mark) (2 Marks) (3 Marks) (5 Marks)
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1. Remembering • Reasoning
(Knowledge based Simple recall • Analytical
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questions, to know specific facts, Skills 3 1 1 11 15%
terms, concepts, principles, or theories. • Critical
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Identify, define, or recite, information) Thinking
Skills etc.
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2. Understanding
(Comprehension — to be familiar with
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meaning and to understand conceptually, 1 4 1 19 26%
interpret, compare, contrast, explain,
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paraphrase, or interpret information)
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3. Application
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(Use abstract information in concrete
situation, to apply knowledge to new 4 1 17 23%
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situations. Use given content to interpret
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a situation, provide an example, or
solve a problem)
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4. High Order Thinking Skills
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(Analysis & Synthesis - Classify, compare,
contrast, or differentiate between 2 1 9 12%
different pieces of information. Organise
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and/or integrate unique pieces of infor

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mation from a variety of sources)

5. Evaluation and Multi-Disciplinary
(Appraise, judge, and/or justify the value 3 2 19 25%
or worth of a decision or outcome, or
to predict outcomes based on values)
Total (Theory Based Questions) 3x1=3 3x2 = 6 12 x 3 = 36 6 x 5 = 30 75 (24) 100%
Practical Based Questions (PBQs) 9x1=9 3x2 = 6* 15 (12)
Total 12x1 = 12 6x2 = 12 12x3 = 36 6 x 5 = 30 90 (36)
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* One question of 3 marks will be included to assess tire values inherent in the texts.
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Contents
Sr. Topic Page
No. No.
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1. U-LIKE CCE Sample Question Paper 1 (With Solutions) A- 1
2. U-LIKE CCE Sample Question Paper 2 (With Solutions) A-12
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3. U-LIKE CCE Sample Question Paper 3 (With Solutions) A-23
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4. U-LIKE CCE Model Test Papers (1-5) (For Practice) A - 35
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5. Value Based Questions A-61
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6. Textbook
Chapter
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1. Chemical Reactions and Equations 1
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36
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2. Acids, Bases and Salts

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3. Metals and Non-metals 68

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4. Life Processes
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5. Control and Coordination 142

6. Electricity 164
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7. Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 218

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8. Sources of Energy 256
7. Practicals
1. Physics P- 1
2. Chemistry P - 23
3. Biology P - 55
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CCE SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 1
FIRST TERM (SA-I)
SCIENCE (Theory)
(With Solutions)
CLASS X
Time Allowed : 3 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 90
General Instructions :
(i) The question paper comprises of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
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(in) There is no overall choice.
(iv) All questions of section A and all questions of section B are to be attempted separately.
(v) Question numbers 1 to 3 in section A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word
or in one sentence.
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(vi) Question numbers 4 to 6 in section A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30
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words each.
(vii) Question numbers 7 to 18 in section A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about
50 words each.
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(viii) Question numbers 19 to 24 in section A are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about
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70 words each.
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(ix) Question numbers 25 to 33 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each
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question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four
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pwinded to you.
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(x) Question numbers 34 to 36 in Section B are two marks questions based on practical skills. These are
to be answered in about 30 words each.
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SECTION A
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1. A boy runs on seeing a stray dog. His breathing becomes very fast and blood pressure
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also increases. Name the hormone found to be high in his blood and the gland which produces
it.
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Ans. The hormone found to be high in his blood is adrenaline, which is produced by adrenal
gland.
2. Name the volatile liquid boiled with the warm surface water of oceans for running
ocean thermal energy plants.
Ans. Ammonia or CFC.
3. Balance the following chemical equation :
■ NaOH + H2S04 Na2S04 + H20
Ans. The balanced chemical equation is :
2NaOH + H2S04 Na2SG4 + 2H20
4. Define the term 'alloy7. Write constituent elements of 'Bronze'.
Ans. A homogeneous mixture of two metals or a metal and a non-metal is called 'alloy'.
Constituent elements of bronze are copper and zinc.
( A -1 )
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A-2 U-Like Science-X
5. Translate the following statement into chemical equation and then balance it :
"A metal in the form of ribbon bums with a dazzling white flame and changes into a
white powder."
Ans. Chemical equation : Mg + 02 -> MgO
Balanced equation : 2Mg + 02 2MgO
Magnesium oxide
(white powder)
6. Write any two properties of magnetic lines of force.
Ans. (i) Outside a magnet, the magnetic field lines start from north pole and end at the south
pole of magnet. However, inside the magnet the field lines are directed from south pole to north
pole.
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(«) No two magnetic field lines can ever intersect at any point.
7. Giving one example, name the gases liberated when :
(i) acid reacts with metals.
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(zz) acid reacts with carbonates.
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Write chemical equation of reactions.
Ans. (z) Acid reacts with metals :
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Zinc metal reacts with dilute sulphuric acid to liberate hydrogen gas.
Zn + H2S04-----> ZnS04 + H2
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Zinc sulphate
(zz) Acid reacts with carbonates :
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Hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium carbonate to liberate carbon dioxide gas.
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Na2C03 + 2HC1-----> 2NaCl + C02 + H2Q

8. What is meant by a skeletal gap chemical equation ? What does it represent ? Using
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the equation for electrolytic decomposition of water differentiate between a skeletal chemical
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equation and a balanced chemical equation.

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Ans. If the number of atoms of each element on the reactant and product side is not equal,
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then it is skeletal chemical equation.

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It represents the reactants and products of the reaction.

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H20-----» H2 + 02 Skeletal equation

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2H20-----> 2H2 + 02 Balanced chemical equation

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9. What is meant by concentration of an ore ? Why is it necessary to concentrate an ore

before processing ? Name an ore of mercury and copper.
Ans. Removal of impurities like soil, sand, etc., from an ore is called concentration. If the ore
is not concentrated, then the metal obtained will be impure.
Ore of mercury - Cinnabar
Ore of copper - Copper pyrite.
10. Give the chemical name and formula of :
(z) Washing Soda lv bp o
(zz) Plaster of Paris
(Hi) Baking soda.
Ans. (z) Sodium carbonate Na2CO3.10H2O
(zz) Calcium sulphate CaSO -h2o

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U-LIKE CCE Sample Question Paper 1 A-3
(Hi) Sodium hydrogencarbonate NaHC03

11. Find the current flowing through the following electric circuit :
3.6 0 60 30
---- TvWW- WvWA WWW-----
1o 30
-----A'WW'----- WWW1----
4.5 V
Ans. The effective resistance of 1 Q and 3 Q resistors joined in series R0 = l + 3 = 4 Q..
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As this resistance R0 = 4 Q is in parallel to a resistance of 6 Q., hence their effective resistance
R' is given as :
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J_ - I 1 _ 3 + 2 _ 5
R' ~ A 6 ~ 12 ~ 12
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12
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==> R'= — =2AQ
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Finally, this resistance R' = 2.4 Q. is connected in series with resistances of 3.6 and 3 Q,
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hence total resistance R of entire circuit
R = 2.4 + 3.6 + 3 = 9 Q
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As potential difference V = 4.5 V, hence current flowing through the circuit
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V_ 4.5 V
= 0.5 A
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R 9Q.
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12. An electric heater consumes energy at the rate of :

(a) 650 W when heating is maximum.
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(b) 420 W when the heating is minimum.

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If the voltage applied is 220 V, find the current and the resistance in each case.
Ans. (a) Here voltage V - 200 V and maximum power of heater P max = 650 W
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P.max
Current flowing l max — = — A or 2.95 A
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V 220 22
V 220
and resistance of heater coil Rmiri = = 74.5 Q
/ max (65/22)
(b) Here voltage V = 220 V and minimum power of heater Pmin = 420 W
p 420 21
Current flowing /Inin = —min = —A or 1.91 A
V 220 11
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and resistance of heater coil R max = 115.2 Q.
/ min (21/11)
13. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a cylindrical conductor depends and
hence write an expression for its resistance.
(b) How will the resistivity of a conductor change when its length is tripled by stretching
it?
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Ans. {a) At a given temperature the resistance ‘K of a cylindrical conductor (/) is directly
proportional to its length T, (n) is inversely proportional to its area of cross-section 'A', and
{Hi) depends on the nature of material of the conductor.
Mathematically, resistance ^ = where p is a constant depending on the nature of material
of given conductor and is known as the resistivity of the material of conductor.

{b) The resistivity of conductor remains unchanged because it is independent of the
dimensions of the conductor.
14. The inner lining of the small intestine has numerous finger like projections. What
are they called ? List their functions.
Ans. Numerous finger like projections on the inner lining of the small intestine are called as
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villi. They increase the surface area thereby facilitate increased absorption of digested food.
Secondly the intestinal glands are mostly present at the base of villi.
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15. Draw a neat labelled diagram of Excretory System and label (a) Kidney (b) Urinary
Bladder (c) Ureter (d) Urethra.
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Ans. Labelled diagram of Human Excretory System is given below :
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Kidney
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Ureter
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Urinary bladder
Urethra
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16. List any three advantages of using solar cells.

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Ans. Three advantages of using solar cells are as follows :

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1. Solar cells have no moving parts, require little maintenance and work quite satisfactorily
without the use of any focusing device.
2. Solar cells can be set up in remote and inaccessible hamlets or thinly inhabited areas
in which laying of a power transmission line may not be commercially viable.
3. There is no fuel cost in operating of solar cells.
17. Nikhil and Neha went to a remote village in Kerala to meet their grand mother.
They were surprised to see a bio-gas plant in Mr Hair's house in the neighbourhood. There
were plenty of livestocks and the household used cooking gas from the plant. Also their farm
had rich vegetation. They contacted sarpanch of the village and convinced him to set up a bio
gas plant for village community.
(a) Mention the values displayed by Mr Nair, Nikhil and Neha.
(b) Explain the possible arguments given by Nikhil and Neha to the sarpanch to convince
him to set up community bio-gas plant.
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Ans. (a) Mr Nair is a progressive agriculturist andus well aware of non-conventional sources
of energy. He has got installed a bio-gas plant in his house.
Neha and Nikhil persuaded the sarpanch of the village to set up a conununity bio-gas plant
for welfare of village.
(b) The possible arguments given by Nikhil and Neha might be :
1. The large scale utilisation of bio-waste and sewage material in a bio-gas plant provides
a safe and efficient method of waste disposal.
2. Bio-gas is an excellent fuel and burns without smoke and leaves no residue.
3. Heating capacity of bio-gas is high and it can be used for lighting too.
4. The slurry left in bio-gas plant is an excellent manure rich in nitrogen and phosphorus.
18. What are the advantages of connecting all electrical devices in parallel in the domestic
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electrical circuit ?
Ans. Main advantages of connecting all the electrical devices in parallel in a domestic circuit
are as follows :
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1. Voltage across each device is constant at 220 V and device may draw current as per its
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resistance.
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2. Separate on/off switches can be applied across each device.
3. Total circuit resistance in parallel arrangement decreases. Hence, a greater current may
be drawn from the mains.
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4. If one electrical device is damaged then other devices continue to work properly.
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19. It has been observed that dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue litmus red
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whereas hydrochloric acid does. Explain this observation with the help of an activity and state
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the reason behind it.

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Ans. 1. Take about 1 g solid NaCl in a clean test tube and set up the apparatus as shown
in the figure.
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Moist litmus
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paper s
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■*----- Delivery tube

--------Cork
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Conical flask
containing «----- Test tube
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cone. H2SO4
Test tube
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Sodium •°;-
chloride
Guard tube containing
calcium chloride
Preparation of HC1 gas
2. Add some concentrated sulphuric acid to the test tube.
3. Test the gas evolved with a dry blue litmus paper.
4. The paper does not turn red.
5. Now bring a wet blue litmus paper near the mouth of the test tube. It turns red.
It shows that dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue litmus paper red. When a wet
blue litmus paper is used, water in the paper converts hydrogen chloride gas into hydrochloric
acid and the paper is turned red.
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20. (a) Illustrate an activity along with a labelled diagram, to show that a change in the
state of matter and change in temperature takes place during a chemical reaction.
(b) Write balanced chemical equations for the following reactions :
(i) Natural gas bums and combines with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water,
(n) Ferrous sulphate crystals on heating break up into ferric oxide, sulphur dioxide and
sulphur trioxide.
Ans. (a) Take about 5 g of quick lime in a beaker and add to it about 50 mL of water. A brisk
reaction takes place and a lot of heat is evolved. "--Beaker
CaO + H,0 -> Ca(OH)2 + Heat
.Water
Quick lime is a white solid but after the reaction, calcium
hydroxide is formed which is soluble in water and a clear solution
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Calcium
is obtained. Thus, there has been a change in the state of matter oxide
and change in temperature.
Reaction of quick lime
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(b) (0 CH4 + 202 C02 + 2H20 with water
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(H) 2FeS04.7H20 * Fe203 + S02 + S03 + 14H20
21. (rt) Write three differences between D.C. and A.C.
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(b) State the frequency of A.C. supply in India and mention the potential difference
between neutral and live wire in domestic circuit.
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How many times does A.C. changes its direction in one second ?
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Ans. (a)
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Direct Current (D.C.) Alternating Current (A.C.)
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1. Direct current always flows in one 1. Alternating current reverses its direction
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direction only. periodically.

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2. The magnitude of current may or may 2. Magnitude of current continuously

not remain constant. changes with time.
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3. Current obtained from a battery and 3. Current obtained from an A.C. generator
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D.C. generator is D.C. and current in our domestic circuit are A.C.
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(b) Frequency of A.C. supply in India is 50 Hz and a potential difference of 220 V is

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usually maintained between the live wire and neutral wire in a domestic circuit.
A.C. changes its direction 100 times in 1 second.
22. (a) State the rule you would use to find the force acting on a current-carrying conductor
placed in a magnetic field.
(b) Name two devices based on interaction between magnetic field and current-carrying
conductor.
(c) Given below are three diagrams showing entry of an electron in a magnetic field.
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B B B
V
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XX e •-
(i) (ii) (iii)
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Identify the case in which the force on electron will be maximum and minimum
respectively. Give reason for your answer. Find the direction of maximum force acting on
electron.
Ans. (a) We shall use the Fleming's left-hand rule which states that stretch the forefinger, the
central finger and the thumb of your left hand mutually perpendicular to each other. If the
forefinger shows the direction of the magnetic field and the central finger that of the current, then
the thumb will point towards the direction of motion of the conductor (i.e., the thumb will point
in the direction of force F).
(b) Electric motor and electric generator are two common devices based on interaction
between magnetic field and current-carrying conductor.
(c) The force on electron is maximum in diagram (i) and minimum (rather zero) in diagram
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(Hi). It is because force is maximum when motion of electron is at right angles to the magnetic
field and zero when motion is along the direction of magnetic field.
The direction of maximum force acting on electron is directed into the plane of paper.
23. (/) Differentiate between the following :
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(a) Aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
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(b) Nervous and chemical control in human beings.
(ii) How are lungs designed to maximize the exchange of gases ?
Ans. (/) (a)
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Aerobic Respiration Anaerobic Respiration
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(1) A type of respiration that takes place (1) A type of respiration that takes place in
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in presence of oxygen. the absence of oxygen.

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(2) Complete oxidation of glucose takes (2) Incomplete oxidation of glucose takes
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place resulting in the release of C02, place resulting in the release of ethanol
H20 and energy. or lactic acid, C02 and energy.
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(3) More energy is produced in this type (3) Less energy is produced.
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of respiration.
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(b)
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Nervous Control Chemical Control

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(1) It comprises of nerve impulses (1) It comprises of endocrine system which

conducted by neurons from receptors secretes chemical messengers or
to effectors. hormones directly into the blood stream.
(2) Nerve impulses produce rapid, short (2) Endocrine system is comparatively slower
duration responses. but produces longer lasting responses.
(3) Neivous system is directly connected to (3) Action of hormones is highly specific
every part under its control, so they are (target organs).
not specific in action.
(ii) To maximize the exchange of gases lungs are designed in following ways :
(a) They have highly thin permeable membrane for quick diffusion and exchange of gases.
(b) Presence of large respiratory surface that is either in contact with environment directly
or receives air or water from outside.
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(c) Respiratory surface of lungs is highly vascular i.e., has abundant blood supply due to
presence of network of blood capillaries.
24. (a) Draw a diagram of a longitudinal section of a human heart. Name and label
(z) the chamber from which oxygenated blood leaves the heart.
(ii) vein which carry oxygenated blood.
(b) Give reasons for :
(z) Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood are separate in the heart of mammals.
(ii) Ventricles are thick walled.
Ans. (a)
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(ii) Pulmonary veins
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(i) Left ventricle
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Longitudinal section of a human heart

(b) (z) In mammals heart is four chambered. Separation of the right side and left side of
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the heart is useful as it does not allow oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to mix. The blood
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passes twice through the heart. The right hand side chambers pump deoxygenated blood whereas
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the left hand side chambers pump oxygenated blood.

(ii) Ventricles are thick walled as they have to pump the blood into various body organs.
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SECTION B
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25. The pH of a few samples of NaOH solution of different concentrations is given

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below. Which of these has highest OH- concentrations, when the pH value is
(a) 10.0 (b) 12.0
(c) 9.5 (d) 14
Ans. (d) Higher the pH value, higher is the basic nature or OH concentration.
26. Which one of the following solutions of equal concentration will have lowest pH
value ?
(a) Dil. NaOH (b) Water
(c) Dil. CH3COOH (d) Dil. HC1
Ans. (d) Acids have lower pH values. Out of CH3COOH and HC1, the latter will give more
hydronium ions and therefore it will have the lowest pH value.
27. When hydrochloric acid reacts with zinc
(a) surface of zinc becomes white. (b) surface of zinc becomes black and dull.
(c) zinc becomes powder. (d) the reaction mixture turns red.
Ans. (b) Zinc surface becomes black and dull on reaction with hydrochloric acid.
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28. To carry out the decomposition reaction of FeSO^ the compound has to be :
(a) in the form of solution (b) in molten form
(c) in crystalline form (d) in ionic form
Ans. (c) Crystals of FeS04 decompose to give Fe2C)3/ S02 and S03.
29. The resistance of an electric bulb drawing 1.2 A current at 6.0 V will be :
(a) 0.5 Q (b) sn
(c) 0.2 Q (d) 2Q
Ans. (b) 5 Q.
V 6.0 V
Hint : Resistance of electric bulb R = — = 5.0 Q.
I 1.2 A
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30. A cell, a resistor, an ammeter and a key are arranged in the circuit diagram as shown
below. The current recorded in the ammeter will be maximum in the circuit :
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1.5 V 15V
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2Q 2Q
VvWvW— ------ yAMAAM
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(A) (B) (C)
(a) A (b) B
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(C) C (d) Same in all cases
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Ans. (d) Same in all the cases.

B
V 1.5 V
Hint : Current in the circuit 1 = — = 0.75 A. The current does not depend on order
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R 2Q
of arrangement of devices in a series circuit.
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31. A student was measuring equivalent resistance of two equal resistances joined in
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parallel. His teacher joined one more resistance of same value in the parallel combination.
Now net resistence will
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(n) remain same {b) decrease

(c) increase
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{d) not be measurable

Ans. {b) Decrese.
Hint: Equivalent resistance of two resistances of R Q each joined in parallel is y. When one
such resistance is further connected in parallel, the resultant resistance will further decrease to
a value —.
3
32. Role of part (n) in plant is :
(a) Gaseous exchange
(b) Protection Part (a)
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (a) Role of part (a) in plant is gaseous exchange.
Part (n) is stomatal pore through which gases move in and out of the plant body.
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A - 10 U-Like Science-X
33. A destarched leaf on a potted plant was covered with black (A), white (B) and
transparent (C) strips of paper as shown in the figure.
After six hours of exposure to sunlight the leaf was removed from the plant and tested for
starch. Which one of the following will be the correct observation ?
(a) Whole leaf turned blue-black.

(b) Only B and C portions turned blue-black.
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(c) Only A and B portions remained colourless and the rest of the leaf turned blue-black,
(tf) A, B and C portions remained colourless and the rest of the leaf turned blue-black.
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Ans. (b) Only B and C portions turned blue-black is the correct observation.
When destarched leaf covered with different strips of paper was exposed to light then the
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visible light was absorbed by the portions covered with white and transparent strips of paper but
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black strip of paper reflected back visible light. So the process of photosynthesis occured only on the
portion of leaf covered with B and C strips arid they tested positive for starch which is the stored
or
end product of photosynthesis.
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34. Two students A and B connected the two resistors = 3 £2 and R2= 6 Cl, given to
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them, in the manners shown here and the arrangement was connected to a 6 V battery. In
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which arrangement the circuit current will be more and what it its value ?
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c,
a, b- d. ^ k
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X Y X
R R2 r2 Y
R,
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(A) (B)
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Ans. In arrangement (A) resistances = 3 £2 and R2 = 6 Q. are connected in series and so

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resultant resistance RA = R]+R2 = 3 + 6 = 90. and circuit current

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IA= - = — = -A = 0.67 A
^ Ra 9 0 3
In arrangement (B) resistances Ri and R2 are connected in parallel and so the resultant
resistance Rg is given as :
1 1 1 1 1 _ 2+1 _ 3 _ 1
3+6_ 6 _6~2 => Rr - 2 O
RB ^2
V 6V
.'. Circuit current Id = — =----- = 3.0 A
B Rb 2 0
Thus, circuit current in arrangement (B) is more having a value of 3.0 A.
35. Blue litmus indicator was added to a solution of acetic acid (A) and red litmus was
added to a solution of ammonium hydroxide (B). What changes in colour do you expect to take
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U-L1KE CCE Sample Question Paper 1 A - 11
place in the two solutions ? What will happen if we add blue litmus to solution (B) and red
litmus to solution (A) ?
Ans. Blue litmus turns red when added to acid and red litmus turns blue when added to
base. Therefore colour in solution (A) will become red and in solution (B) will turn blue. There
will be no change in colour if blue litmus is added to solution (B) and red litmus to solution (A).
36. In the experimental set up to show that C02 is released during respiration, Anand
saw the water level rising in the bent glass tube. What could be the plausible reason for the
observation made by Anand ?
Ans. C02 released by the respiring germinating seeds will be absorbed by KOH. This creates
partial vaccum in the flask which results in the rise of water level in the bent glass tube.
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A - 14 U-Like Science-X
(b) Her mother provided her some antacid tablet like milk of magnesia, which are basic
in nature. These medicines neutralise the acid and thus provide relief.
10. Complete and balance the following equations :
(0 nh3 + o2
(ii) NaOH + H2S04 ■»
(Hi) Pb(N03)2 + KI
Ans. (i) 4NH3 + 502 ^ 4NO + 6H20
(ii) 2NaOH + H2sb4 4 Na2S04 + 2H20
(Hi) Pb(N03)2 + 2K1 ^ Pbl2 + 2KN03
Lead iodide Pot. nitrate
11. What is an electric cell ? Explain how a cell maintains an electric current in a circuit.
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Ans. An electrical cell is a simple device used to maintain the current in a given electric
circuit.
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The chemical action within a cell generates a potential difference across its terminals, even
when no current is drawn from it. When the cell is connected to a conducting circuit element,
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the potential difference sets the charges in motion in the conductor and produces an electric
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current. In order to maintain the current in a given electric circuit, the cell has to expand its
chemical energy stored in it.
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12. Find the equivalent resistance of the following circuit :
2 LI
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3LI 1 il
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2 LI
1 £2
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3 £2 —v'VWW'/’—
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Ans. Effective resistance R] of parallel combination of resistances 1 and 1 is :
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L -1 I i i
" i+1 = - => R1 “ T
2
0.5 Q.
Similarly, effective resistance R2 of parallel combination of resistances 2 and 2 £2 is :
1 =I 1=’- = 1 => Rj = 1 Q
R2 2 2 2
Now, R4 and R2 are in series with two resistances of 3 f2 each. Hence, the equivalent resistance
of the circuit
R = Rj + R2 + 3 + 3 = 0.5 + 1 + 3 + 3 = 7.5 Q
13. Find
(a) the highest
(b) the lowest value of resistance that can be obtained by the combination of four resistors
of 4 £2, 8 A, 12 £2 and 24 Q.
Ans. Here R4 = 4 £2, R2 = 8 £2, R3 = 12 £2 and R4 = 24 £2
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U-LIKE CCE Sample Question Paper 2 A - 15
(a) The highest value of resistance can be obtained when all the four resistors are joined
in series and in that case
Rmax = Rs = Rl + R2+ R3 + R4 = 4 + 8 + 12 + 24 = 48 Q
(b) The lowest value of resistance can be obtained when the given four resistances are
joined in parallel and in that case
1 1111 11111 6+3+2+1 12 = 1
— =------ 1-------- 1---------1-------_ —i------ 1-------- 1------ _
^min Rp R2 r3 r4 4 8 12 24 24 24 2
^min ~ 2 Q
14. Amongst iron, silver, nichrome, tungsten, copper which metal/alloy should be used
to make the
(/) heating element of electric geysers.
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(ii) filament of incandescent bulbs.
An electric iron has rating of 750 W, 220 V. Calculate
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(/) current taken, and
(ii) its resistance when it is in use.
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Ans. Out of given metals/ailoys (/) nichrome should be used to make the heating element
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of electric geysers, and (ii) tungsten should be used to make the filament of incandescent bulbs.
Rating of electric iron is power P = 750 W and voltage V = 220 volt.
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(0 Current taken I = — = = 3.41 A f
V 220
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V2 220 x 220
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(ii) Resistance of iron when in use R = ---- = 64.5 Q

P 750
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15. Give reasons for the following :

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(a) Trachea never collapses.

(b) Rate of breathing is higher in aquatic animals as compared to terrestrial animals.
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(c) Veins have valves.

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Ans. (a) Trachea is supported by incomplete C-shaped cartilaginous rings that prevents it
from collapsing.
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(b) Tire organisms that live in water use the oxygen dissolved in water. Since the amount
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of oxygen in the water is fairly low as compared to the amount of oxygen in the air, the rate of
breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that seen in terrestrial organisms.
(c) Veins have valves that check the backflow of blood.
16. Name the following :
(a) The vessel that carry blood to the kidney.
(b) The vessel that drains filtered blood from the kidneys.
(c) Cup-shaped structure that collects the filtered urine.
(d) Structural and functional unit of kidney.
(e) Tubular structure that carries urine from kidneys to the urinary bladder.
Ans. (a) Renal artery
(b) Renal vein
(c) Bowman's capsule
(d) Nephron
(e) Ureter.
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Ammeters : A1 of range 0 to 3 A, least count 0.1 A

A2 of range 0 to 1 A, least count 0.05 A
Voltmeters : V1 of range 0 to 10 V, least count 0.5 V
V2 of range 0 to 5 V, least count 0.1 V
Choose the best combination of voltmeter and ammeter for finding the equivalent resistance
of the resistors in (z) series (ii) parallel.
Ans. (z) For finding the equivalent resistance of the resistors in series we shall use ammeter
A2 of range 0 to 1 A, least count 0.05 A and voltmeter V2 of range 0 to 5 V, least count 0.1 V.
(ii) For finding the equivalent resistance of the resistors in parallel we shall use ammeter
A1 of range 0 to 3 A, least count 0.1 A and voltmeter V2 of range 0 to 5 V, least count 0.1 V.
Hint : As maximum voltage of battery is 4 volt hence voltmeter V2 is preferred.
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In series arrangement equivalent resistance R = 16 Q. and maximum current Imax = 0.25 A.
Hence we prefer to use ammeter A2 of range 0 to 1 A and least count 0.05 A.
hr parallel arrangement equivalent resistance R' = 3 Q. and maximum current Imax iA

3
=
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1.33 A. Hence, we shall use ammeter A] of range 0 to 3 A and least count 0.1 A.
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36. Two substances P and Q react separately with zinc metal to liberate hydrogen gas.
Give the reaction when P and Q react with each other. Give one test for hydrogen gas.
for
Ans. P is HC1 and Q is NaOH. Both P and Q separately react with zinc metal to liberate
hydrogen gas. P and Q i.e., HC1 and NaOH will react with each other as follows :
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HC1 + NaOH -> NaCl + H20
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Hydrogen gas bums with a pop sound.
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MHH
CCE SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 3
FIRST TERM (SA-I)
SCIENCE (Theory)
(With Solutions)
CLASS X
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(v) Question numbers 1 to 3 in section A are one mark questions. These are to be ansivered in one word
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or in one sentence.
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(vi) Question numbers 4 to 6 in section A are two marks questions. These are to be ansivered in about 30
words each.
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50 words each.
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(viii) Question numbers 19 to 24 in section A arefive marks questions. These are to be answered in about
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70 words each.
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provided to you.
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SECTION A
d
1. State the observation made by Oersted on the basis of his experiment with current-
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carrying conductors.
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Ans. A magnetic compass needle gets deflected when current is passed through a conductor
placed nearby. Alternately, a magnetic field is established around a current-carrying conductor.
2. Potato chips manufacturers flush the packets of chips with nitrogen gas. Why ?
Ans. Flushing bags of chips with nitrogen drives away oxygen and protects the food from
getting rancid.
3. State the function of : (i) gustatory receptors, and (ii) olfactory receptors.
Ans. Gustatory receptors are specialised cells located in taste buds on tongue to detect taste
whereas olfactory receptors are located in the inner epithelial linning of nose to detect smell.
4. Explain the effect on the concentration of hydronium ion (H30)+ and pH of an acidic
solution on dilution.
Ans. Concentration of hydronium ion decreases on dilution. pH of the acidic solution increases
on dilution because pH and hydronium ion concentration are inversely related.
( A -23)
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5. List in tabular form two major differences between renewable and non-renewable
resources of energy.
Ans.
Renewable resources of energy Non-renewable resources of energy
1. These are the energy sources which 1. These are the energy sources which are
are inexhaustible. exhaustible.
2. These sources can be replenished and be 2. These sources cannot be replenished
used to produce energy again and again. after being consumed.
6. Give one example of each :
(0 Chemical reaction showing evolution of gas.
(n) Change in colour of a substance during chemical reaction.
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Ans. (z) Zinc metal reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to liberate hydrogen gas.
Zn + HC1 -> ZnCl2 + H2
(ii) Lead nitrate reacts with potassium iodide in solution to give a yellow precipitate of
lead iodide.
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Pb(N03)2 + 2KI rF-> Pbl2 + 2KN03
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Colourless Colourless Yellow
7. Complete and balance the following equations :
(fl) Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 ■»
for
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{b) CaS04.^H20 + H20
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(c) Na2CO3.10H2O —^ ->

B
Ans. {a) Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 ■> CaOCl2 + H20

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Bleaching
powder
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(b) CaS04. iH20 + |h20 ■> CaS04.2H20

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Plaster of Paris Gypsum

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Air
(C) Na2CO3.10H2O * Na2C03.2H20 + 8H2G
Washing soda
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Sodium carbonate
dihydrate
8. An acid X present in vinegar is used as preservative and is weak in nature. When
it reacts with Y, it forms salt and water. V is used in soaps and detergents.
(z) Identify X and Y.
(zz) Write chemical formula of X and Y.
{Hi) Write the chemical reaction between X and Y.
Ans. (z) X is acetic acid and Y is sodium carbonate (Washing Soda).
(zz) X = CH3COOH; Y = Na2CO3.10H2O
{in) 2CH3COOH + Na2C03 — * 2CH3COONa + C02 + H20
9. Define following terms :
(z) Corrosion
(zz) Rusting
{Hi) Rancidity.
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Ans. (0 Action of a metal with atmospheric moisture and carbon dioxide to form oxide or
carbonate is called corrosion.
(n) Corrosion of iron due to action of atmospheric moisture and gases is called rusting.
(Hi) Oxidation of food due to atmospheric oxygen is called rancidity.
10. (a) Compare the properties of a typical metal and a non-metal on the basis of the
following :
(i) Nature of the oxides formed by them.
(ii) Conductivity.
(b) Name a non-metal which is lustrous and a metal which is liquid at the room
temperature.
Ans. (a) (i) Metallic oxides are basic in nature, they dissolve in water to form bases. Non-
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metallic oxides are acidic in nature, they dissolve in water to form acids.
Na20 + H20 * 2NaOH
Sodium oxide Base
(basic)
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co2 + h2o * h2co3
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Carbon dioxide Acid
(acidic)
(ii) Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity. Non-metals are bad conductors of
heat and electricity. for
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(b) Lustrous non-metal - Graphite
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Liquid metal at room temperature - Mercury.
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11. (a) With the help of a circuit diagram show how can an electromagnet be made ?
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(b) Mention any two uses of magnets.

B
Ans. (a) An electromagnet is a rod of magnetic material (say soft iron) placed inside a
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solenoid coil. On passing current in solenoid coil, iron rod begins to behave as a magnet. On
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stopping the current flow, magnetisation of iron is lost. Thus, a soft iron piece behaves as an
electromagnet.
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Solenoid Coil
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r r r r
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Soft Iron Rod
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( )
—b-
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(b) Electromagnets are used in electric bell, electric cranes etc. Magnets are used in electric
motor, electric generator, microphone and speakers etc.
12. Name the three types of wires used in household circuits. Out of these three which
wire is used as a safety measure especially for those appliances that have metallic body. State
the colour of insulation used for this wire. How it ensures the safety of the user ?
Ans. Three types of wires used in household circuits are (i) live wire, (ii) neutral wire, and
(Hi) earth wire.
Earth wire is used as a safety measure in electrical circuits specially for those appliances
which have metallic body. The metallic body of the appliances is connected to the earth wire.
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which provides a low resistance conducting path for electric current. Thus, any leakage of current
to the metallic body of appliance keeps its potential same as that of earth and hence the user will
not get a severe electric shock.
The colour of insulation used for earth wire is of green colour.
13. A torch bulb is rated 5 V and 500 mA. Calculate its (z) power (z'z) resistance
(Hi) energy consumed, when it is lighted for 4 hours.
Ans. The torch bulb is rated as V = 5 V and I = 500 mA = 0.5 A
(z) .-. Power of bulb P = VT = 5 x 0.5 = 2.5 W
V
(z'z) .•. Resistance of bulb filament ^ = y —q r- = 10 Q.
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(iii) Energy consumed when used for time f = 4 h
E = Pf = 2.5 W x 4 h = 10 W h
14. (a) What is meant by electrical resistance of a conductor ?
(b) A wire of length 'l' and resistance 'R' is stretched so that its length is doubled and
the area of cross-section is halved. How will its resistance and the resistivity change ?
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Ans. (a) Electrical resistance of a conductor is a measure of its opposition for flow of electric
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charge through it. Mathematically, resistance of a conductor is defined as the ratio of the potential
difference (V) across its ends to the current (I) flowing through it. Thus,
potential difference V for
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resistance R
current I
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(b) The resistivity (p) of the wire remains unchanged because it depends only on the
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material of conductor and is independent of its dimensions.

B
pl
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Original resistance R= —
A.
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If length is doubled (Z'= 21) and area of cross-section is halved A' = yj, then new resistance
Y
of conductor
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R,= pP = y(20=4p/ =4R

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A' (A/l) A
15. What is geothermal energy ? Briefly describe the principle of harnessing this energy.
What is its advantage ?
Ans. Geothermal energy is a renewable form of energy.
The deeper regions of the earth's crust are very hot. This heat melts the rocks. The molten
rocks are pushed upward due to geological changes and are trapped in certain regions called the
'hot spots'. The underground water in contact with these hot spots turns into steam which gets
compressed to high pressure. In a geothermal power plant this high pressure steam is extracted
by sinking pipes through holes drilled up to hot spots and is used to turn the turbine of electric
generator.
The main advantage of the geothermal energy is that it can be harnessed round the clock
throughout the year.
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16. What is main constituent of bio-gas ? Why is bio-gas a better fuel than animal dung
cakes ?
Ans. The main constituent of bio-gas is methane gas.
Bio-gas is a better fuel than animal dung cakes on account of following advantages :
1. It is odourless and bums without smoke and does not produce any ash.
2. It can be used directly for heating as well as lighting purposes.
3. It is an efficient source of energy whose thermal efficiency is high.
17. An endocrine gland 'P' is located below the stomach in the human body. The gland
P secrets a hormone H. The deficiency of hormone H in the body leads to blood sugar due to
which a disease D is caused.
{a) Name the gland P and the hormone H.
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(b) State the function of hormone H.
(c) Name the disease D.
(d) Suggest two precautions that need to be taken by the person who is suffering from
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disease D.
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Ans. (a) The gland P refers to the Pancreas.
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(b) It secretes a hormone H called as insulin.
(c) The disease D referred in the question is diabetes caused due to the deficiency of insulin.
(d) The two precautions that need to be taken by the person who is suffering from diabetes is
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that he should curtail sweet/carbohydrates in his diet. Secondly he should regularly monitor his
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blood sugar level.
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18. (a) What is the role of HC1 in our stomach ?
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(b) What is emulsification of fats ?

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(c) Which protein digesting enzyme is present in pancreatic juice ?

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Ans. (a) HC1 facilitates the action of the enzyme pepsin which works best under acidic
conditions. Secondly it prevents fermentation of food and kills harmful microbes.
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(b) Fats are present in the form of large globules which makes it difficult for enzymes to
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act on them. So they are broken down into small fine globules by the bile juice. This process is
called as emulsification of fats.
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(c) Trypsin is a protein digesting enzyme which is present in pancreatic juice.

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19. (a) Design an activity to demonstrate that the metals are good conductors of electricity.
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Draw the necessary diagram and label its parts.

(b) Electric wires used in domestic wirings are coated with a rubber like material. State
the name of this material and write the purpose of this coating.
Ans. (a) An activity to show that metals are good conductors of electricity.
Materials required : Battery, bulb, switch, clips, samples of metals.
Procedure :
1. Set up an electric circuit as shown in figure. Battery
2. Place a piece of copper metal between the terminals Bulb
A and B.
3. We find that the bulb in the circuit glows.
This is because the copper metal passes on the current Clips
from the clip A to clip B. In other words, copper metal is a A f B <•:
Switch
good conductor of electricity. We observe the same phenom Insert sample
to be tested
enon with other metals also.
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(b) The rubber like material is polyvinylchloride (PVC). This is used to prevent short-
circuiting.
20. (a) An apparatus has been set up as shown in the figure.
6 volt battery Bulb
Switch
T
Beaker
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Nail
Dilute acid solution
mu Rubber cork
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State the observation made when electric current is passed through the solution in the
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beaker ? If the solution is replaced by glucose solution, what will be the observation on
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passing electric current ? Give reason for your observations in each case.
(b) In a gas jar containing hydrogen chloride gas, a dry blue litmus paper is dropped.
for
What change is observed ? Now a blue litmus paper is moistened and dropped into the gas
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jar. Giving reason, state what is observed ?
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Ans. {a) The bulb glows showing that conduction of electricity' is taking place. With glucose,
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the blub does not glow showing that conduction of electricity does not take place. The acid is
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ionic while glucose is not an ionic substance. Only ionic substance conduct electricity in solution.
(b) Dry blue litmus paper does not turn red but moistened litmus paper turns red. This is
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because hydrogen chloride gas does not react with blue litmus but hydrochloric acid reacts.
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Water present in moistened blue litmus paper converts hydrogen chloride gas into hydrochloric
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acid which turns blue litmus red.

21. What is meant by an induced current ? Describe with diagram two ways of producing
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an induced current in a loop.

Ans. An induced current is the electric current set up in a coil whenever the magnetic field
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around the coil is changing.

Two ways of producing an induced current in a loop/coil are as follows :
1. When a bar magnet is rapidly brought towards a coil or taken away from the coil, an
induced current is set up in the coil. Due to motion of magnet towards the coil or away from the
coil, the magnetic field lines passing through the coil change and hence an induced current is set
up in the coil.
A B
N S
L
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2. Let us have two coils of insulated copper wire wound on the same cardboard base and
set close to each other. If current flowing through coil number 1 is changed by switching it
on/off then an induced current is set up in coil number 2 also.
Coil-1 Coil-2
H H1—(•)-
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22. (a) Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines through and around a current-carrying
solenoid. What does the magnetic field pattern inside the solenoid indicate ?
(b) How does a solenoid behave like a magnet ? Can you determine the north and south
poles of a current-carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet ? Explain.
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Ans. (a) The pattern of magnetic field lines through and around a current-carrying solenoid
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is shown in the following diagram.
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The magnetic field pattern inside the solenoid indicates that it is behaving just like a bar
magnet.
(b) When current is passed through a solenoid coil, magnetic field produced due to each
turn of solenoid coil is in the same direction. As a result, the resultant magnetic field is very
strong and uniform. The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines
along the axis of solenoid. Thus, the solenoid behaves like a bar magnet. One end of solenoid
behaves as a magnetic north pole while the other end behaves as the south pole.
We can determine the magnetic poles formed in a solenoid. The end of the current-carrying
solenoid, which attracts north pole but repels south pole of a bar magnet, is behaving as south
magnetic pole. The other end, which attracts south pole of a bar magnet but repels the north pole,
is behaving as north magnetic pole. It is because like poles repel but unlike poles attract each
other.
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23. (z) What is reflex action ?

(n) Describe the mechanism of reflex action with the help of suitable diagram.
(Hi) What is the significance of reflex action ?
Ans. (z) Reflex actions are involuntary, instantaneous response to a stimulus perceived from
the environment. Examples of reflex action are salivation when food is eaten, wider opening of
pupil in dimlight and so on. Its components are
Stimulus Receptor Sensory

organ neuron
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Response Effector organ - Motor Central nervous system
(Muscles/gland) neurons (Spinal cord)
(zz) Withdrawal of hand after coming in contact with hot surface, thorn or needle is an
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example of spinal reflex arc. Sensation is received by receptors present in skin. It is passed
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through sensory neuron which then reaches to spinal cord. In the spinal cord the impulse is
transferred to motor neuron by relay neuron. Motor neuron then passes the message to the
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effector i.e., the muscles of the arm. In response to this information the muscles move the hand
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away.
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Message to
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Spinal cord brain
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(CNS)
*
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Reflex arc
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Sensory neuron
I ■ Motor
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neuron
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Relay neuron or inter neuron

Receptors = Heat/Pain
Receptors in skin Effector = Muscles in arm
Diagramatic representation of reflex action

(Hi) Reflex actions are important quick response to otherwise harmful stimuli without the
brain having analysed the same. Secondly there are certain conditioned reflexes by which we
perform number of our activities like reading, writing, pedalling. Reflex actions have survival
value. It checks overtaxing and overloading of brain.
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U-LIKE CCE Sample Question Paper 3 A - 31
24. (a) How guard cells regulate stomata opening and closures ?
(b) Explain holozoic nutrition.
Ans. (a) Epidermis bears numerous pore like structures called stomata. Each stomatal pore
is bordered by a pair of guard cells which regulates the opening and closing of stomata. During
stomatal opening guard cells withdraw water from the surrounding cells and become turgid. The
turgid guard cell swells up. As the outer wall is thin and elastic, guard cells bend outwardly
more than the inner region where wall is thick. However binding also occurs in inner walls and
a pore is created between them from which gases diffuse into and out of the leaf.
During closure of stomata, the guard cells sends water out. As a result the turgidity of guard
cells decreases and they contract. The thick inner walls come to touch each other and the stomatal
pore closes.
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(b) A mode of heterotrophic nutrition which involves engulfing of solid food material. It
is seen in animals as well as protozoans. Depending upon the source of food holozoic organisms
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are of three types - herbivores, carnivores and omnivores.
Herbivores are holozoic organisms which feed on plants or plant parts. Examples - Cow,
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buffalo.
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Carnivores are animals which feed on other animals. Examples - Lion, tiger.
Omnivores are holozoic organisms which feed on plants as well as animals. Examples -
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Crow, rat, dog, and so on.
SECTION B
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25. Equal pieces of zinc granules are dropped in four test tubes. Following substances
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are poured in all the four test tubes. The reaction will be vigorous with :
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(a) CH3COOH (b) HC1

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(c) sodium bicarbonate solution (d) lemon juice

Ans. (b) The reaction will take place vigorously with the substance which is strongest acid.
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It is HC1 in this case.

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26. The correct order of decreasing reactivity of Zn, Cu, Fe and A1 is :

{a) A1 > Zn > Fe > Cu (b) Zn > A1 > Fe > Cu
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(c) A1 > Fe > Zn > Cu (d) Zn > Fe > A1 > Cu

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Ans. (a) This is the correct order of decreasing reactivity.

27. When water is added to quick lime, the correct observation made is :
(a) a white precipitate forms.
(b) a white powder is formed with a pop sound.
(c) a white powder is formed with a loud crackling sound.
(d) a white substance is formed with a hissing sound.
Ans. (d) Quick lime reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide.
CaO + H20---- > Ca(OH)2
It produces a hissing sound.
28. Anindita took three metals labelled X, Y and Z. She carried out displacement reactions
with their salt solutions. She observed that :
X + YA >XA + Y
Z + XA * ZA + X
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The correct conclusion is :

(fl) Z is more reactive than Y and Y is more reactive than X.
(b) Z is more reactive than X and X is more reactive than Y.
(c) Y is more reactive than X and X is more reactive than Z.
{d) X is more reactive than Z and Z is more reactive than Y.
Ans. (b) From the first reaction X is more reactive than Y and from the second reaction Z
is more reactive than X.
29. Out of the four circuits shown for studying the dependence of the current on the
potential difference across a resistor, the correct circuit is :
(A) (B)
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(C) (D)
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Hint: The +ve and -ve terminals of ammeter as well as voltmeters are shown correctly only
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in Fig. B.
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30. The resistivity of a wire depends upon its :

(a) Length (b) Cross sectional area
(c) Dimensions (d) Material
Ans. (d) Material.
Hint : The resistivity of a wire depends only on its material and the temperature.
31. Two resistances joined in parallel with cell and voltmeter across the combination
the currents (i) in the circuit as shown in figure will be :
3V Ri
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ReadYourFlow.COM
(a) 3 A (b) 1.5 A

(c) 1A (d) 0.5 A
Ans. (a) 3 A
Hint : The equivalent resistance of circuit R = 1 D.
V 3
Current I = — = — = 3A
R 1
32. While preparing temporary mount of leaf peel to observe stomata, glycerine is added
to :
(a) allow entry of air bubbles.
(b) keep the tissues wet.
(c) give colour to the tissue.
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(d) make the mount more attractive.
Ans. (b) Keep the tissues wet.
33. Guard cells are usually :
(a) kidney shaped.
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(b) rectangular.
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(c) pear shaped.
(d) spherical.
Ans. (a) Kidney shaped.
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34. The rest positions of the needles in a milliammeter and voltmeter not in use are as
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shown in Fig. A. When a student uses these in his experiments, the readings of the needle are
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in the positions shown in Fig. B. Find the corrected values of current and voltage in the
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experiment.
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Fig. (A) Fig. (B)

Ans. The corrected value of current is 42 mA and that of voltage is 3.2 volt.
Hint : For milliammeter the least count is 2 mA, zero error is - 4 mA and the observed
reading is 38 mA.
.\ Corrected value of current = 38 - (- 4) = 42 mA
For voltmeter least count is 0.2 V, zero error is + 0.4 V and observed reading is 3.6 V.
.•. Corrected value of voltage = 3.6 - (0.4) = 3.2 V
ReadYourFlow.COM
35. Ferrous sulphate crystals on heating give iron oxide and a gas which is also obtained
when a match stick is burning. Identify the gas and give the complete reaction.
Ans. The gas evolved is S02 which is the same as obtained by burning sulphur. The complete
reaction is
2FeS04.7H20 Heat -> Fe203 + S02 + SO3 + 14H20
36. A student while setting up the experiment to show that C02 is evolved during
respiration, committed some errors shown in the figure.
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Water
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KOH solution
What changes should be made in the set up to get the desired results ?
Ans. Two changes need to be done for getting the desired result. Firstly KOFI solution
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should be taken in the small test tube inside the flask. Secondly water should be taken in the
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beaker.
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Explanation : The given set up demonstrates that C02 is produced during respiration.
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Germinating seeds in the conical flask on respiration produces C02. KOH is a C02 acceptor
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which should be present in the small test tube hanging inside the conical flask. So a partial
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vacuum will be created which would result in the rise of water level in the delivery tube.
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ReadYourFlow.COM
CCE MODEL TEST PAPER 1
FIRST TERM (SA-I)
SCIENCE (Theory)
(For Practice)
CLASS X
(z) The question paper comprises of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
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{Hi) There is no overall choice.
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or in one sentence.
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words each.
50 -words each.
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70 words each.
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provided to you.
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SECTION A
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1. Name the ultimate end parts of respiratory passages in mammalian lungs.

2. Name any two gases, which are constituents of bio-gas.
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3. What will happen to blue litmus when it is added to soda water ?

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4. A compound 'X' of sodium is commonly used for making crispy pakoras. It is also
used for curing acidity in the stomach. Identify 'X'. Write its formula and its chemical name. State
the reaction that takes place when it is heated.
5. What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution of Iron (II) sulphate ? Write
the chemical reaction that takes place.
6. Mention two ways to induce current in a coil.
7. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the table. If the current passes
through the loop clockwise, apply the right-hand rule to find out the direction of the magnetic
field inside and outside the loop. Explain how they will appear inside and outside the loop.
8. You are given the following materials :
(a) marble chips
(b) dilute hydrochloric acid
(c) Zinc granules.
( A - 35 )
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Identify the type of reaction when marble chips and zinc granules are added separately to
acid taken in two test .tubes. Write the chemical equation of reaction in each case.
9. Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue litmus red, whereas hydrochloric acid
does. Justify this statement giving reason and relevant chemical equation.
10. Nikita took Zn, Al, Cu, Fe, Mg and Na metals. She then observed their reaction with
(z) Cold water, (ii) Steam.
(a) Which of the above metals reacted with steam ?
(b) Name the metal which reacted with cold water.
(c) Arrange Al, Zn, Fe in increasing order of reactivity.
11. Ajay and Vijay were going with their father for the Diwali Mela. On the roadside, they
found many stalls of beautiful statues of different Gods. These were quite big in size. Ajay and
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Vijay asked their father to purchase one for Diwali Puja. Their father agreed. The children were
very happy to bring God's statue to home. It was very attractive and not very costly.
(0 What are such statues made of ?
(ii) Give the formula of the substance and the reaction applied to the process.
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(Hi) Describe in brief how to make statues.
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12. Two lamps rated 100 W, 220 V and 25 W, 220 V are connected in parallel to 220 V
supply. Calculate the total current through the circuit.
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13. Two identical resistors each of resistance 10 ohm are connected (i) in series and then
(ii) in parallel, in line to a battery of 6 volts. Calculate the ratio of power consumed in the
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combination of resistors in the two cases.
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14. State the function of an earth wire. Why is it necessary to earth the metallic appliances ?
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Mention the colour code of earth wire in domestic circuit.

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15. Name the parts of circulatory system in human beings and state their functions.
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16. Write about three plant hormones found in plants and write their functions.
17. (i) Explain the use of black painted surface in a solar cooker.
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(ii) Mention two hazards in production of nuclear energy.

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(in) Give any two disadvantages of generating hydroelectricity.

18. Raju's mother cooked food on traditional stove/chullah in the village. Raju's father
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brought a solar cooker from city and gave it to his mother. But his mother considered it be a
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useless box and a wastage of money. Raju explained to his mother its use and advantages. His
mother was convinced and happily started using it.
(a) List two advantages that would occur to his mother with the use of solar cooker.
(b) List the qualities that you would appreciate in Raju.
19. (a) Compounds like alcohol and glucose also have hydrogen but are not categorised as
acids. Describe an activity to prove it.
(b) Mixing of concentrated nitric acid with water must be done very carefully. Justify this
statement giving reasons and the precautions that must be taken.
20. (a) Write an activity to show that ionic compounds are good conductors of electric
current in their aqueous solution.
(b) Explain why do ionic compounds have high melting arid boiling points.
21. (a) Derive expression for equivalent resistance of a parallel combination of resistances.
(b) Calculate the ratio of equivalent resistance for a series combination of V number of
resistors to the parallel combination of the same type of 'x' number of resistors.
ReadYourFlow.COM
U-LIKE CCE Model Test Papers A-37
22. (a) State the rules to determine the direction of a

(0 magnetic field produced around a straight conductor-carrying current,
(ii) force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor placed in a magnetic field
which is perpendicular to it, and
(Hi) current induced in a coil when a magnet is brought near it.
(b) Draw magnetic field lines of the field produced by a current-carrying loop in which
current is flowing in anti-clockwise direction.
23. (i) Name the three major parts or regions of human brain and write function of each.
(ii) What protects our brain ?
24. (a) Draw a neat diagram of excretory system in human beings and label on it :
(0 Vena Cava
(ii) Urinary bladder.
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(b) What are nephrons ? Name two substances that are selectively re-absorbed.
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SECTION B
25. The correct increasing order of the pH values of solutions of HC1, NaOH and CH3COOH
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of same concentration is
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(a) HC1, NaOH, CH3COOH (b) HC1, CH3COOH, NaOH
(c) NaOH, HC1, CH3COOH (d) CH3COOH, HC1, NaOH
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26. The gas which is liberated when hydrochloric acid is added to solid sodium carbonate
is
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(a) carbon dioxide (b) carbon monoxide
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(c) chlorine (d) oxygen
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27. A student placed a clean iron nail in blue coloured copper sulphate solution for a
B
considerable time. He observes that :

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(a) iron nail gets green coating, (b) iron nail gets brown coating.
(c) iron nail gets no coating. (d) iron nail gets white coating.
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28. Four test tubes containing different solutions and different metals are shown in the
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given figure. The test tubes in which the reaction will take place are :
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FeSCU AI2(S04)3 FeS04 ■**- — CUS04
Zn Cu Al Fe
(I) (ID (HI) (IV)
(a) I, II, III (b) n. III, IV
(c) I, III, IV (d) I, II, IV
29. While studying Ohm's law in laboratory, a student was given an ammeter of least
count 0.1 A and a voltmeter of least count 0.5 V. On closing the circuit he notes that the pointer
in ammeter and voltmeter is at 12th and 6th division respectively. Correct current and potential
difference measured would be :
(a) 1.2 A, 3 V (b) 12 A, 6 V
(c) 0.12 A, 0.6 V (d) 0.83 A, 0.83 V
ReadYourFlow.COM
30. Four students A, B, C, D were asked to perform the experiment of study of Ohm's Law.
Circuits used by them were :
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(c) C (d) D
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31. Three students A, B, C were asked to connect three resistors in parallel with a voltmeter.
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The students who have joined these correctly are :
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(c) A and C (d) A, B, C all
32. Given below are the steps in the preparation of a temporary mount of a stained leaf
peel.
(z) Cover the material with the cover slip.
(zz) Transfer the stained peel to the clean glass slide and add a drop of glycerine.
(Hi) Remove the peel from the ventral surface of the leaf.
(iv) Drop it in the water in a petri dish and add a drop of safranin stain.
ReadYourFlow.COM
The correct sequence of steps is :

(a) (in), (iv), (ii), (i) (b) (i), (n), (Hi), (iv)
(c) (ii), (Hi), (iv), (i) (d) (Hi), (iv), (i), (ii)
33. The guard cells in diagram 'A' are different in shape and size from the guard cells in
diagram 'B'. Which of the following sentences gives the correct reason :
Guard Cells Guard Cells
(Swollen) (Shrunken)
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(a) Guard cells swell up during the day and shrink at night.
(b) Guard cells swell when water flows into them causing the stomatal pore to open. They
shrink when water moves out and the stomatal pore closes. for
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(c) The uneven thickness of cell wall of the guard cells enables them to open and close at
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regular intervals.
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(d) Guard cells become flaccid during night.

34. In an experiment to show that sunlight is necessary for photosynthesis, the leaf is
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boiled in alcohol for a few minutes using a water bath. Give reason why it is essential to use
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water bath ?
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35. In an experiment to find the equivalent resistance of a series combination of two resistors
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R] and R2, a student uses the circuit shown here. Will he be able to get correct readings of voltage
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and current ? Give reason.

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36. A student was provided with solutions of acetic acid, hydrochloric acid, sodium
hydroxide and water and was asked to report pH values using pH papers. He reported the pH
values for the above solutions as 3,1,13 and 3 respectively. What was the mistake he committed ?
Which colour is given by pH paper with water ?
ReadYourFlow.COM
PM
FIRST TERM (SA-I)
SCIENCE {Theory)
{For Practice)
CLASS X
(z) The question paper comprises of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
(zz) All questions are compulsory.
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or in one sentence.
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SECTION A
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1. The magnetic field in a given region is uniform. Draw a diagram to represent it.
2. Name one metal which reacts with neither cold water not hot water but reacts with
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steam Jxj-'produce hydrogen gas. . /

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J3v Name the essential element used in the synthesis of proteins.

v. 4. Why do silver articles turn black and copper items turn green after sometime ?
5. Give two uses of baking soda and washing soda each.
6. Define electric power. Express it in terms of V, I and R where V stands for potential
difference, resistance R and current I.
7. Find the number of equal resistances required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line. If the
combined resistance offered in the circuit is 176 Yl.
8. (a) 'Sodium is a highly reactive metal and it cannot be obtained from its oxide by
heating with carbon.' Give reason.
(b) How can sodium be obtained from sodium chloride ?
9. A student dropped a few pieces of marble in dilute hydrochloric acid contained in a
test tube, the evolved gas was then passed for a long time through lime water. What changes
would be observed in lime water ? Write balanced equations for both the changes observed.
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ReadYourFlow.COM
10. Two solutions A and B have pH values of 3.0 and 9.5 respectively. Which of these will
turn blue litmus red and which will turn phenolphthalein from colourless to pink ? Predict their
nature also. Give reasons for your answer.
11. Write chemical equations for the reaction of aluminium with the following :
(a) H20 (Steam) (b) 02
(c) HC1.
12. Suggest three ways to produce temporary magnetic field. Explain any one of them in
detail.
13. Two identical resistors are first connected in series and then in parallel. Find the ratio
of equivalent resistance in two cases.
14. Find the equivalent resistance across the two ends A and B of this circuit.
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15. Draw a diagram of reflex arc and label in it sensory neuron, motor neuron, relay
neurons, receptors.
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16. Sunita's father has been advised by a doctor to reduce his sugar intake.
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(i) Name the disease he is suffering from and name the hormone whose deficiency causes it.
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(n) Identify the gland that secretes it and mention the function of this hormone.
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(Hi) Explain how the time and amount of secretion of this hormone is regulated in human
system.
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17. Explain the function of digester in a bio-gas plant. List the two main components of
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bio-gas.
18. (a) Out of the two solar cookers one was covered by a plane glass slab and other was
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left open. Which of the two solar cookers will be more efficient and why ?
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(b) Discuss one limitation each for the extraction of energy from (i) winds, (ii) tides.
19. It has been observed that dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue litmus red
whereas hydrochloric acid does. Explain this observation with the help of an activity and state
the reason behind it.
20. (a) What is an alloy ? How is it made ? List two iniportance of alloying.
(b) Mention the constituents of each of the following alloys :
(i) Bronze (H) Solder
21. (a) Define electric resistance of a conductor.
(b) List two factors on which resistance of a conductor depends.
(c) Resistance of a metal wire of length 1 m is 104 D at 20 °C. If the diameter of the wire
is 0.15 mm, find the resistivity of the metal at that temperature.
22. (a) Explain any three properties of magnetic field lines.
(b) Give two uses of magnetic compass.
ReadYourFlow.COM
23. (i) Draw a well labelled diagram of human respiratory system.

(ii) Differentiate between breathing and respiration.
24. What is lymph ? How is composition of lymph different from blood plasma ? What is
the direction of its flow ? List two functions of lymphatic system.
SECTION B
25. An iron nail is placed in a beaker containing CuS04 solution. Following reaction takes
place in beaker :
Fe + CuS04 FeS04 + Cu
In the above reaction, Cu2+ ions are
{a) oxidised (b) reduced
(c) neutralised Xd) not reacted
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26. A student heated ferrous sulphate crystals in a test tube, and tested the gases evolved
with a strip of filter paper dipped in acidified potassium dichromate solution. The correct way
of conducting the test is shown in :
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27. After separately conducting the action of each of Cu, Fe, A1 and Zn on salt solutions
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of the other metals, four students A, B, C and D arranged the metals in decreasing order of
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reactivity. The correct arrangement was done by :

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(a) A - A1 > Zn > Fe > Cu (b) B - Cu > A1 > Zn > Fe

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(c) C - Zn > A1 > Fe > Cu (d) D - A1 > Fe > Zn > Cu

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28. Sapna added a small strip of aluminium to ferrous sulphate crystals. Her observation
should be :
(n) no reaction takes place.
(b) formation of crystals of aluminium sulphate.
(c) ferrous sulphate crystals turn colourless.
(d) aluminium turns light green.
29. Which curve shows the dependence of current and potential difference ?
(«) 1 (b) t
—► V V
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(c) t (d) t
30. In the experiment on finding the equivalent resistance of two resistors connected in
series, the ammeter is correctly connected in
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31. A student was performing experiment to find equivalent resistance of a parallel
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combination of two resistance with the help of a battery of 6 V as per the circuit given below.
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He should choose a voltmeter to measure potential difference across the combination of range :
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32. In order to complete the diagram of stomatal apparatus given below, nucleus should
be drawn in the parts marked
ReadYourFlow.COM

(c) A and C (d) A, B and C
33. A destarched potted plant was taken by a student. He covered portion 'A' of the leaf
with a transparent sheet and portion 'B' with a black paper. After this he kept the potted plant
in sun for about 4 hours.
While performing the starch test on the experimental leaf he observed that :
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(a) both portions 'A' and 'B' turned blue-black.
(b) portion 'A' turned blue-black and portion 'B' did not change colour.
(c) portion 'B' turned blue-black and portion 'A! did not change colour.
(d) both portions did not change their colour.
34. Give appropriate reason for your answer in the experiment to show that "CO2 is given
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out during respiration". Why germinating seeds are only used ?
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35. A student is doing experiment to find the resistance of a parallel grouping of two
resistors. He uses the circuit shown here. The ammeter, the voltmeter and the resistances in the
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circuit shown have been checked and found to be correct. On plugging the key, he observes a
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reading of 4.5 V in voltmeter and a reading of 1.5 A in ammeter. Are the readings correct ? If
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not, what can be the possible cause ?
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36. What are two colours at the extreme ends of the pH chart ? Give two examples each
of substances that give these colours.
ReadYourFlow.COM
mMm
FIRST TERM (SA-I)
SCIENCE (Theory)
(For Practice)
CLASS X
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(Hi) There is no overall choice.
or in one sentence.
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-words each.
50 words each.
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(viii) Question numbers 19 to 24 in section A arefive marks questions. These are to be answered in about
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70 words each.
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provided to you.
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(j) Question numbers 34 to 36 in Section B are two marks questions based on practical skills. These are
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SECTION A
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1. Name the pigment which absorbs solar energy.

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2. Mention the main purpose of using a plane mirror in solar cookers.

3. What are the conditions that promote corrosion ?
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4. n electrons, each carrying a charge e~, are flowing across a unit cross unit section of a
metallic wire in unit time from east to west. Write an expression for electric current and also give
its direction of flow. Give reason for your answer.
5. (a) Define a redox reaction ?
(b) When magnesium is burnt in air, it combines with oxygen to form a white ash. Write
chemical equation for the reaction and identify the substance oxidised in the reaction.
6. What is baking powder ? How does it make the cake soft and spongy ?
7. Write chemical equations for the reaction of aluminium with the following :
(a) H20 (Steam)
(b) o2
(c) HC1.
8. Write balanced chemical equations for the reaction of dil. HC1 with :
(z) Zn metal
( A - 45 )
ReadYourFlow.COM
(//) Na2C03
(in) NaOH.
9. Silver is kept at the bottom of the 'reactivity series'. It does not react easily with air but
it becomes blackish in presence of air. Name the gas responsible for the corrosion of silver.
Identify the black coloured compound formed on the surface of silver and give equation for the
reaction involved.
10. Giving one example of each, define the following terms :
(/) corrosion
(ii) rancidity.
11. A nichrome wire has a resistance of 10 £1 Find the resistance of another nichrome wire.
whose length is three times and area of cross-section four times the first wire.
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12. Derive the relation for equivalent resistance when two resistances are connected in
parallel.
13. An electric kettle of 2 kW works for 2 h daily. Calculate the (i) energy consumed in SI
and commercial unit (ii) cost of running it in the month of June at the rate of ? 3.00 per unit.
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14. (a) An electric oven of 2 kW power rating is operated in a domestic electric circuit
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(220 V) that has a current rating of 5 A. What result do you expect ? Explain.
(b) What precaution should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits ?
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15. (a) How brain and spinal cord are protected in human beings ?
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(b) Name the master gland present in the brain.
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16. Animals exhibit movement and locomotion, caused due to change in position of
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contractile proteins. How do you think movement will be brought about in leaflets of Mimosa
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pudica which lacks such proteins ? Explain it with the help of a diagram.
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17. List in tabular form two distinguishing features, between renewable and non-renewable
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sources of energy. Give two examples of each.

18. (a) Describe how electric energy is generated in a hydropower plant.
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(b) Construction of dams submerges large areas of forests. How does this contribute to the
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greenhouse effect ?
19. Carbon cannot reduce the oxide of sodium, magnesium, calcium etc., to the respective
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metals. Justify the statement giving appropriate reason. State the method used for obtaining their
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metals from their salts. For obtaining sodium by this method :

(i) name the salt of sodium used and the rod at which sodium metal is deposited.
(ii) identify the gas produced during the process.
(in) show the chemical reactions taking place at both the electrodes.
(iv) suggest two other metals which can be obtained from their compounds using same
method.
20. Give reasons :
1
(a) Plaster of Paris is written as CaS04.—H20. How is it possible to have half water molecule
attached to CaS04 ?
(b) Why is sodium hydrogencarbonate an essential ingredient in antacids ?
(c) When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride, three
products are obtained. List the products. Why is this process called chlor-alkali ?
ReadYourFlow.COM
21. Describe an activity to find the combined resistance when three resistors R^, R2 and R3
are connected in parallel and obtain the relation for it using Ohm's law. State two advantages of
connecting household appliances in parallel arrangement.
22. What is a solenoid ? Draw the magnetic field pattern through and around a current-
carrying solenoid.
What does the pattern of field lines inside the solenoid indicate ? How can this field be
utilised to magnetise a piece of soft iron ?
23. (a) What are chemoautotrophs ?
(b) Explain the detailed mechanism of photosynthesis in higher green plants. Also mention
the site where it takes place.
24. What is double circulation ? Why is it found in birds and mammals and not in fishes ?
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How is oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in blood ?
SECTION B
25. On adding an aqueous solution of barium chloride to an aqueous solution of sodium
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sulphate, a white precipitate is formed : rF
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(a) instantly (b) after 30 seconds
(c) after 20 seconds (d) after 15 seconds
(a) red and blue

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26. The two colours seen at the extreme ends of the pH chart are
(b) red and green
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(c) green and blue (d) orange and green
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27. Which of the following will give a colourless gas that burns with pop sound, on reaction
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with dilute HC1 ?

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(a) Solid sodium carbonate (b) Zinc metal

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(c) Sodium hydroxide (d) Sodium bicarbonate

28. Copper metal displaces the metal from the solution of
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(a) FeS04 (b) ZnS04

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(c) A12(S04)3 (d) None of the above

29. An ammeter has 20 divisions between mark 0 and mark 1.0 on its scale. The least count
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of the ammeter is :
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(a) 0.02 A (b) 0.01 A

(c) 0.2 A (d) 0.05 A
30. What is the resistor value in the given circuit ?
| 26 v|
+<> 113 mA |
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(a) 200 Q. {b) IkD

(c) 2 k£> (d) 4kn
ReadYourFlow.COM
31. To determine the equivalent resistance of three resistors Rj, R2 and R3 which are
connected in parallel arrangement, four students, A, B, C and D connected are the resistors as
follows :
Ri
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Ri r2 r3 R2
X —►—-/vWW- WWW* •yvvWA
R3
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(A) (B)
r2 Ri
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r3 r2 r3
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(C) (D)
The correct arrangement of the resistors is that of student
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(a) A (&) B
(c) C (d) D
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32. Which structure is represented by 'X' in the following diagram :
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(a) Chloroplast (b) Nucleus

(c) Cytoplasm (d) Stomata
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33. Compensation point occurs at :

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{a) Noon
{b) Throughout the day
(c) Sunset and Sunrise
{d) Anytime when light intensity is very low
34. To show that C02 is released during respiration by germinating seeds, Ishita set up an
air tight apparatus. From where did the seeds obtained oxygen from ?
35. Draw the circuit diagram used to study the dependence of potential difference (V)
across a resistor on the current (I) passing through it. Also plot a graph between V and I.
36. Solution of a substance (A) turns milky when a gas (B) is passed through it. This gas
is produced by the reaction between sodium carbonate and hydrochloric acid. Identify (A) and
(B). Give the reactions.
ReadYourFlow.COM
M11S
FIRST TERM (SA-I)
SCIENCE (Theory)
(For Practice)
CLASS X
(0 The question paper comprises of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
O'O All questions are compulsory.
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m There is no overall choice.
(v) Question numbers 1 to 3 in section A are one mark questions. These are to be anszvered in one word
or in one sentence.
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(Vi) Question numbers 4 to 6 in section /I are two marks questions. These are to be anszvered in about 30
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50 words each.
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(viii) Question numbers 19 to 24 in section A are five marks questions. These are to be anszvered in about
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provided to you.
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SECTION A
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1. Name the two factors that completely define a magnetic field at a point.
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2. What are the conditions to promote corrosion ?

3. Give one example each of a plant hormone that (a) promotes cell division {b) inhibits
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growth.
4. The amount of charge passing through a cell in 4 seconds is 12 C. Find the current
supplied by the cell ? Which instrument is used to measure an electric current ?
5. (a) List any two changes which take place when oily foods get oxidised.
(b) Mention a measure which prevents or slows down its oxidation.
6. Out of two metals P and Q, P is less reactive than Q. Suggest an activity to arrange
these metals in the order of decreasing activity. Support your answer with a suitable equation.
7. The following table gives the resistivity of three samples :
Sample A B C
Resistivity 1.7 x 10“8 Q-m 5.2 x 10-8 ft-m 100 x 10"8 Q-m
Which of them is suitable for (z) heating elements of electrical appliances, and (zz) connecting
wires used in domestic circuits ? Give reason for your choice.
( A - 49 )
ReadYourFlow.COM
8. Study the given electric circuit and answer the following questions :
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(•)
K
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10 Q
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15 Q
(i) Wlrat is the type of combination of the two resistors in the circuit ?
(ii) How much current is flowing through 10 H and 15 H resistors ?
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(Hi) What is the ammeter reading ?
9. State the formula correlating the electric current flowing in a conductor and the voltage
applied across it. Also show this relationship by drawing a diagram.
What would be the resistance of a conductor if the current flowing through it is 0.35 A, when
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the potential difference across it is 1.4 V ?
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10. Distinguish between overloading and short-circuiting in a domestic circuit.
What colour code is followed for insulation cover of three wires used in domestic electric
circuit ? for
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11. List three energy sources that are considered to be inexhaustible. State three reasons in
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support of your answer.
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12. Increasing demand of fossil fuels has caused harm to our environment. List its three
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ill-effects. Suggest three measures to reduce the consumption of fossil fuels.

13. On heating green coloured crystals, a gas with characteristic odour by burning sulphur
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evolves and the colour of crystals changes.

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(0 Name the gas evolved with its chemical formula.

(ii) Identify the green crystals.
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(Hi) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place.

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14. 'Combination reaction is the reverse of decomposition reactioJustify this statement

with the help of appropriate chemical equation for each.
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15. Naman and Raghav perform an experiment in which they mix concentrated sulphuric
acid with water. Naman mixes water to acid and Raghav mixes acid to water slowly with
constant stirring. Mention the suitable reason for selecting the one which you find is a correct
method and discarding the one which is wrong.
16. (a) Compare the properties of a typical metal and a non-metal on the basis of the
following :
(i) Nature of the oxide formed by them.
(ii) Conductivity.
(b) Name a non-metal which is lustrous and a metal which is liquid at the room temperature.
17. With the help of a schematic flow chart show the breakdown of glucose in a cell to
provide energy :
(0 in the presence of oxygen.
ReadYourFlow.COM
(ii) in the absence of oxygen.

(Hi) when there is lack of oxygen.
18. (a) What happens at the synapse between two neurons ?
(b) How is brain protected ?
19. (a) Two identical resistors each of resistance 10 ohm are connected :
(/) in series
(ii) in parallel, in turn to a battery of 6 V. Calculate the ratio of power consumed in the
combination of resistors in the two cases.
(b) Establish the relationship between 1 kW h and SI unit of energy.
20. Two coils Cj and C2 are wrapped around a non-conducting cylinder. Coil Q is connected
to a battery and key and C2 with galvanometer G. On pressing the key (K), current starts flowing
in the coil Q. State your observation in the galvanometer :
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Ci C2
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K
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(i) When key K is pressed on. for
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(ii) When current in the coil C1 is switched off.
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(Hi) When the current is passed continuously through coil C1.
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(iv) Name and state the phenomenon responsible for the above observation.
Write the name of the rule that is used to determine the direction of current produced in the
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phenomena.
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21. (n) A liquid has a pH less than 7, which represents an acidic solution.
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(ii) Mention the ion whose concentration increases with the increase in pH value.
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(Hi) Suggest a method that is generally used for measuring pH value.

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(i) Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5.
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(ii) Antacids are used for treatment of indigestion.

22. State appropriate reasons for the following :
(a) Metals are electropositive in nature.
(b) Surface of some metals like copper and silver acquire a dull appearance after sometime.
Name the substance formed on the surface in each case.
(c) Ionic compounds in the solid state do not conduct electricity. However, they conduct
electricity in molten state or in the form of aqueous solution.
23. (a) Draw a sectional view of the heart and label :
(i) Blood vessel which carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs.
(ii) Blood vessels which bring oxygenated blood from lungs to the heart.
(Hi) Chamber of the heart which receives deoxygenated blood.
(iv) Largest blood vessel.
ReadYourFlow.COM
(b) Why do arteries have thick elastic walls ?

24. (a) "Bile does not contain any enzyme but it is essential for digestion." Explain the
statement.
(b) What is the mode of nutrition in fungi and cuscuta ?
(c) Differentiate between autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition.
SECTION B
25. When water is added in a vessel containing lumps of quick lime, it is observed that :
(a) the vessel becomes hot.
(b) a hissing sound is produced.
(c) lump of quick lime breaks and dissolves partially in water.
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{d) all the above take place.
26. The test tube (I) contains sodium hydroxide solution and test tube (II) contains ethanoic
acid. On introducing pH paper strip in both of them, it is observed that the pH paper turns
(a) blue in both (b) blue in (I) and red in (U)
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(c) red in both rF {d) green in (I) and red in (II)
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27. Two beakers A and B contain aqueous solutions of iron sulphate. A student places a
copper plate in beaker A and a zinc plate in beaker B. After sometimes he observes a grey deposit
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on zinc plate and not on the copper plate. From these observations, he may draw the following
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conclusions :
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(a) Zn is most reactive metal followed by Fe and Cu.
(b) Zn is most reactive metal followed by Cu and Fe.
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(c) Fe is most reactive metal followed by Zn and Cu.

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(d) Fe is most reactive metal followed by Cu and Zn.

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28. When zinc granules are added to aqueous solution of CuS04, the solution becomes
(a) blue in colour. (b) green in colour.
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(c) colourless. (d) red in colour.

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29. In the experiment on studying the dependence of current (I) on potential difference
(V), three students I, II and III took observations and plotted the following graphs between I-V.
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I I I
1 I 1
V V—►
(I) (II) (III)

The correct graph is of :
(a) student I only (b) student II only
(c) student III only (d) All three students
ReadYourFlow.COM
30. Following circuits are drawn by four students, to determine the equivalent resistance
of two resistors when connected in parallel :
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Ri Ri Ri
Ri R2
----p/VWVW-»VWWW^
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(I) (II) (III) (IV)

The correct circuit diagram is drawn by student :
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(a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) IV
31. While doing the experiment, on finding the equivalent resistance of two resistors
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connected in series, three students A, B and C set up their circuits as below :
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(c) C and A (d) All the three students

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32. Why do we place leaf peels in water ?

(b) Peels remain green.
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(a) Guard cells become turgid.

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(c) Peels don't dry up. (d) To wash the leaf peels.
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33. A star shaped black paper was used to cover an experimental leaf in a destarched plant
as shown. The plant was left in sunlight for four hours and then the leaf was plucked. The black
paper was removed arid the leaf was tested for the presence of starch. The areas which turned
blue-black when iodine solution was added were :
(a) I,II,III,IV (b) I, m, IV

(c) only II (d) Only IV
ReadYourFlow.COM
34. Before setting up an experiment to show that C02 is realesed by seeds during respiration
the seeds should be kept moist till they germinate. Why and give appropriate explanation for the
same ?
35. Arrange the following solutions in increasing order of pH :
sodium hydroxide, water, ammonium hydroxide, sodium chloride, acetic acid.
Which colour will be shown by pH paper in case of acetic acid and water ?
36. How are an ammeter and a voltmeter are connected in an electric circuit and why ?
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PUH
FIRST TERM (SA-I)
SCIENCE (Theory)
(For Practice)
CLASS X
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or in one sentence.
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words each.
or
50 words each. f
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SECTION A
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1. List two major hazards of nuclear power generation.

2. Why is respiration considered an exothermic process ?
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3. Why do we experience cramps on doing hard vigorous exercise ?

4. A 6 £2 resistance wire is doubled by folding. Calculate its new resistivity and resistance.
5. Write balanced chemical equation for the following chemical reactions, with state
symbols of the reactants and products :
(a) when dil. sulphuric acid is poured over magnesium ribbon, hydrogen gas bubbles out
and magnesium sulphate enters into solution.
(b) when potassium iodide solution is mixed with silver nitrate solution, insoluble silver
iodide separates out from the solution arid potassium nitrate remain in the solution.
6. Give reason for the following :
{a) Calcium floats on the surface of water.
(b) Iron cannot be used in pure state.
( A - 55 )
ReadYourFlow.COM
7. For the circuit shown, calculate :

10 Q
15 Q
—/VWvW—
30 Q
\>
6V
(0 the total effective resistance of the circuit,

(ii) the value of current through each resistor, and
(Hi) the total current drawn from the battery.
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8. What is heating effect of electric current ? Find an expression for the amount of heat
produced. Name two appliances based on heating effect of electric current.
9. Why does a current-carrying conductor kept in a magnetic field experience force ? List
the factors on which the direction of this force depend. Name and state the rule used for the
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determination of direction of this force.
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10. A student performs an experiment to study the magnetic effect of current around a
current-carrying straight conductor. He reports that :
(0 the direction of deflection of the north pole of a compass needle kept at a given point
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near the conductor remains unaffected even when the terminals of the battery sending current
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in the wire are inter-changed.
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(ii) for a given battery the degree of deflection of a N-pole decreases when the compass is
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kept at a point further away from the conductor.

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Which of the above observation of the student is incorrect and why ?

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11. (a) Name the four gases commonly present in bio-gas.

(b) List main advantages of bio-gas over fossil fuels.
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12. Name two semi-conductors used in solar cell. What is a solar cell panel ? State two
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main advantages of solar panel.

13. 2 g of ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube.
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(a) List any two observations.

(b) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place.
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(c) Write chemical equation of the reaction.

14. List three effects of oxidation in our daily life. Are these effects useful or harmful ?
Justify.
15. State reason for the following :
(i) Basic solution also have H+ (acj) ions, but they are not acidic.
(ii) Sodium chloride is a neutral salt.
(Hi) A solution of sulphuric acid conducts electricity while that of alcohol does not.
16. Write the chemical equation that takes place when
(/) cinnabar is heated in air.
(ii) zinc carbonate is calcinated.
(Hi) zinc sulphide is roasted.
ReadYourFlow.COM
17. What is lymph ? How is composition of lymph different from blood plasma ? What is
the direction of its flow ? List two functions of lymphatic system.
18. A boy runs on seeing a stray dog. His breathing becomes very fast and blood pressure
also increases. Name the hormone found to be high in his blood and the gland which produces
it. Why is this hormone also referred as fear or fight hormone ?
19. (a) (0 State the formula showing how the current / in a conductor varies when the
potential difference V applied across it is increased stepwise.
(n) Show this relationship on a schematic graph. ,
(Hi) Calculate the resistance of a conductor if the current flowing through it is 0.2 A when
the applied potential difference is 0.8 V.
(b) An electric lamp is marked 100 W, 200 V. It is used for 5 hours daily.
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Calculate (i) its resistance while glowing (n) energy consumed in kW h per day.
20. Draw a schematic diagram of a common domestic circuit.
(a) Explain the function of fuse and earth wire.
(b) Write two precautions that should be taken to avoid short-circuiting.
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21. Yogita was suffering from toothache. She was very fond of eating ice creams and
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chocolates. Also, she never brushed her teeth before sleeping at night. Always she was suffering
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from toothache in one tooth or the other.
(i) What is in general the cause of toothache ?
(ii) What are our teeth made of ? f or
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(Hi) How does toothpaste help in preventing toothache ?
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22. (a) When calcium metal is added to water, the gas evolved does not catch fire but the
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same gas evolved on adding sodium metal to water catches fire. Why is it so ?
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(b) Show the formation of MgCl2 from its elements by transfer of electrons.
(c) What is meant by refining of metals ? Describe the method used to refine copper.
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23. (a) Draw a diagram of human alimentary canal and label the following parts :
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Gall bladder, liver, pancreas, duodenum.

(b) Name the end products formed due to the digestion of proteins, carbohydrates and
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fats.
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(c) Explain the role of hydrochloric acid in the process of digestion in the stomach.
24. (a) What is feedback mechanism ? Explain with the help of an example.
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(b) Name the hormone released by thyroid gland. Also write the function of this hormone.
Which disease develops due to deficiency of iodine in our diet ? Give one of its symptoms.
(c) What are cranial nerves ? How many cranial nerves are present in our body ?
SECTION B
25. An iron nail was suspended in copper sulphate solution and kept for a while. The
solution
(a) remained blue and a coating was found on the nail.
(b) remained blue and no coating was found on the nail.
(c) turned pale green and a coating was found on the nail.
(d) turned pale green and no coating was found on the nail.
ReadYourFlow.COM
A-58 U-Like Scieiice-X
26. On adding quick lime to water in a beaker, a student would observe that the type of
reaction is
(a) combination and exothermic, (b) combination arid endothermic.
(c) decomposition and exothermic. (d) decomposition and endothermic.
27. A student observed that the colour of pH paper changed to green when she dipped in
water. She added a few drops of concentrated hydrochloric acid to water, the colour of pH paper
would turn to
(a) light red (b) apple green
(c) dark blue (d) lemon yellow
28. A student was given three test tubes (I), (II) and (III) containing ethanoic acid, sodium
bicarbonate solution and water respectively. On dipping a pH paper in them, he observed that
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the colour turned orange in (I), blue in (II) and green in (HI). If arranged in increasing order of
their pH, the sequence of three test tubes should be
(«) i,n,m (b) II, III, I
(c) III, I, II (d) i, m, n
29. The current flowing through conductor and the potential difference across the two
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conductor would be
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{a) 0.02 0 (b) 0.024 a

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(c) 20.0 a (d) 24.0 a

30. A student draws the following circuit diagram for the experiment on studying the
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dependence of current (/) on potential difference (V) across a resistor. The parts labelled X, Y, Z
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and W in this diagram are respectively :

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Px
(a) a resistor, a voltmeter, an ammeter and a rheostat.
(b) a rheostat, a voltmeter, a resistor, a voltmeter.
(c) an ammeter, a resistor, a voltmeter and a rheostat.
(d) a rheostat, a resistor, an ammeter and a voltmeter.
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31. Circuit I : Ammeter reads current and voltmeter reads Vl

Circuit II : Ammeter reads current I2 and voltmeter reads V2
~y2
VH
<2^ R3
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R2 R2
vWWvV— vWvVW—
R1 R1
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+
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The relationship between the readings is :
(a) I1>I2,V1 = V2
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(b) I1<I2,V1 = V2 rF
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(c) I, > I2, V, > V2
(d) Il<I2,V1<V2
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32. In order to complete the diagram of stomatal apparatus given below, nucleus should
f
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be drawn in the parts marked :
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(c) A and C (d) A, B and C

33. The best result for the experiment that light is necessary for photosynthesis would be
yielded by using leaves from a plant kept for over twenty four hours :
(a) in a pitch dark room.
(b) in a dark room with table lamp switched on.
(c) outside in the garden.
(d) outside in the garden covered by glass case.
34. State four main precautions followed by you while performing an experiment to study
the dependence of potential difference (V) across a resistor on the current (I) passing through it.
35. A substance X was added to dilute hydrochloric acid to liberate a gas which bums with
a pop sound. Identify X and the gas evolved. Also give the reaction of pop sound produced.
ReadYourFlow.COM
36. In the set up to study "C02 is released during respiration", colour is added to the water
in the beaker for what probable reason ? Explain.
Cork
KOH solution
Test tube
Coloured water
Germinating seeds
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Set up to demonstrate that C02 is released during respiration
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VALUE BASED QUESTIONS
1. CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS
Q.l. Sudha and Geetika were in the marriage procession of their brother. Fireworks were
being used freely. The rockets were producing dazzling white light in the sky. Sudha and
Geetika were very happy. Sudha asked Geetika, "You are a student of science. Tell me how
these sparkles and dazzling light are produced ?"
(z) Which component of fireworks produces white dazzling light ?
(ii) It is a physical or chemical reaction ? Give the reaction.
(Hi) Give a set up of the experiment to bum magnesium and collect the ash in the
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laboratory.
Ans. (0 Magnesium in the fireworks burns to give dazzling white light.
(ii) It is a chemical reaction.
(Hi) Tire set up of the experiment is given below :
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Tong.
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Magnesium ribbon
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Burner-
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Magnesium oxide
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Q.2. Neeti and Ankita were in a play mood. Neeti said to Ankita, "If you solve this
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puzzle, I shall take you for the movie." "What is that ?" said Ankita. Neeti said," We take zinc
granules in a conical flask and add something to it. A gas is evolved which bums with a pop
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sound. What is the substance that is added to zinc granules ? And what is the gas that is
evolved ?"
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(i) Reproduce the answer given by Ankita.

(ii) Give a set up of the apparatus to carry out their reaction. Give the reaction involved.
Ans. (i) We add dilute sulphuric acid to zinc granules and the gas produced is hydrogen
which bums with a pop sound.
(ii) The set up of the apparatus is given below :
Cork
Glass tube
Conical flask
Dilute sulphuric acid

Zinc granules
( A - 61 )
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The reactions is
Zn (s) + H2S04 (aq) ZnS04 (aq) + H2 (g)
Q.3. Whitewash was being done at Mukesh's house. Mukesh saw that the painter took
some water in a drum and poured quick lime to it. There was a violent reaction and a lot of
heat was produced. Mukesh touched the outer surface of the drum. It was unbelievably hot.
(i) Write the chemical equation for the above reaction.
(ii) What type of a reaction is it and why ?
(in) What is the utility of this reaction ?
Ans. (i) CaO (s) + H20 (/) -> Ca(OH)2 (aq)
Quick lime Slaked lime
(ii) It is a combination reaction. A reaction in which two or more substances combine to
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give a single product is called combination reaction.
(Hi) This reaction is carried out for white washing. The coating of slaked lime on the walls
combines with atmospheric carbon dioxide and gives a brilliant white colour.
Ca(OH)2 + C02-----> CaC03 + H20
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Calcium
rF carbonate
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(white)
Q.4. Salim was performing an experiment in the chemistry laboratory. He was heating a
or
salt in a test tube. Suddenly, his classmates in the neighbourhood started coughing. A smell
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similar to that of burning of sulphur was felt and light brown residue was left in the test tube.
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(0 Which substance was taken in the test tube ?
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(ii) Write the equation for the above reaction.
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(Hi) Which is the safest way to determine the smell of a gas ?

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(iv) Write a precaution to be observed while performing this experiment.

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Ans. (i) Hydrated ferrous sulphate (FeS04.7H20) was taken in the test tube.
Heat
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(H) 2FeS04.7H20 -> Fe203 + S02 + S03 + 14H20

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Ferric oxide
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(Light brown)
(Hi) The gas should be gently wafted towards nose. The test tube should not be directly
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brought near nose.

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(iv) Do not point the mouth of the tube towards the neighbours or towards yourself.
Q.5. "Do you know we can prepare hydrogen and oxygen gases from water ?" said the
teacher to the students of the class. "That is amazing! Water is freely available. That means
we shall get the gases for free." said the students. "No, nothing is available for free", said the
teacher.
(i) Give the equation for the conversion of water to hydrogen and oxygen.
(ii) How is the cost involved in the preparation of hydrogen and oxygen ?
(Hi) Give a set up of the apparatus for the above experiment. Give the ratio of the volume
of hydrogen and oxygen gases produced.
Electolysis
Ans. (i) 2H20 -> 2H2 + 02
H
(ii) Electricity is required to carry out electrolysis and electricity does not come free.
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Value Based Questions A-63
m Plastic mug
Oxygen - ^=r Hydrogen
Test tube _ Water

- ^— Water
Graphite rod
Rubber stopper
Anode------ Cathode
6 V Battery
Switch—------^
Hydrogen and oxygen gases are produced in the ratio of 2 : 1 by volume.
2. ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
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Q.l. Yogita was suffering from toothache. She was very fond of eating ice creams and
chocolates. Also, she never brushed her teeth before sleeping at night. Always, she was suffering
from toothache in one tooth or the other.
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(i) What is, in general, the cause of toothache ?
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(ii) What are our teeth made of ?
(Hi) How does toothpaste help in preventing toothache ?
Ans. (i) Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5. Bacteria present in
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the mouth produce acids by degradation of sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth after
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eating. The acid produced affects the teeth and produces cavities which cause pain.
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(ii) Our teeth are made of calcium phosphate, one of the hardest substances.
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(Hi) Toothpastes are generally basic, thus they help in neutralising the acids.
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Q.2. Rani was suffering from stomach pain. She had eaten excess of oily food in the
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marriage party. She was crying. Her father said, "Don't worry Rani, you will be alright soon
with this tablet." She took the tablet and felt fine after half an hour.
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(i) Why does excess eating cause pain in the stomach ?

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(ii) What was the medicine. Rani's father gave to her and how did it provide relief ?
(Hi) Give some trade names of antacids.
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Ans. (i) Our stomach produces hydrochloric acid which helps in the digestion of food without
harming the stomach. However, when we take excess of heavy or oily food, the stomach produces
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too much acid. This causes pain and irritation in the stomach.
(ii) Rani's father gave antacid tablet to her, which neutralised the excess acid and provided
relief.
(Hi) Digene and gelusil.
Q.3. Ajay and vijay were going with their father for the Diwali Mela. On the roadside,
they found many stalls of beautiful statues of different Gods. These were quite big in size.
Ajay and Vijay asked their father to purchase one for Diwali Puja. Their father agreed. The
children were very happy to bring the God's statue to him. It was very attractive and not very
costly.
(i) What are such statues made of ?
(ii) Give the formula of the substance and the reaction applied to the process.
(Hi) Describe in brief how to make statues.
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Ans. (i) These statues are made of plaster of Paris.

(ii) Formula of plaster of Paris is CaSO^FÔ. The reaction involved is
CaS04.-H20 + 1-H20 •> CaS04.2H20

4 2 2 2 2
Gypsum
(Hi) (a) A thick solution of plaster of Paris is made in water.
(b) It is poured into the mould of the desired statue and left undisturbed for sometime.
(c) The statue is removed carefully from the mould.
(d) It is painted with brush to give desired colours and then given finishing touch.
Q.4. It was a rainy day. The whole family of Rohit was at home as it was Sunday. Rohit
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proposed to his mother to prepare pakoras as he was getting similar smell from the
neighbourhood. His mother prepared pakoras and the whole family enjoyed eating it. Rohit
said to his mother, "Mom, what do you add to besan to make such tasty pakoras ?"
(0 What do you think Rohit's mother added to besan to make pakoras ? What is its
chemical formula ?
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(ii) Give the chemical equation for the preparation of this substance from common salt.
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(Hi) How does this substance act to increase the taste ?
(iv) Can we use this substance as antacid ?
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Ans. (i) Rohit's mother added baking soda. Its formula is NaHC03.
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(n) NaCl + H20 + C02 + NH3 4 NH4C1 + NaHC03
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(Hi) Baking soda on heating releases carbon dioxide which leave the besan paste making it
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porous. On frying the pakora, they become crispy and tasty.

(iv) As it is basic in nature, it can be used as antacid.
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Q.5. Mohit and his friends were taken around a textile industry by their teacher. An
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engineer from the factory was explaining to the students everything from the spinning to
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dyeing to finishing. They were taken to the bleaching unit. The clothes that was fed to the
bleaching tanks was creamish in colour but after the process it was dazzling white.
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(0 Which substance is used for bleaching the cloth ? Give its formula.
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(ii) How is this substance prepared ? Explain with the help of the reaction.
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(Hi) Give three different uses of bleaching powder.

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Ans. (i) Bleaching powder is used for bleaching the cloth. Its formula is represented as
CaOCl2.
(ii) Bleaching powder is prepared by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime, Ca(OH)2.
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 * CaOCl2 + H20
(Hi) Uses
(a) For bleaching cotton and linen in textile industry.
(b) To disinfect water to make it fit for drinking.
(c) As an oxidising agent in various processes.
3. METALS AND NON-METALS

Q.l. Zia and Mirza were engaged in performing experiments in chemistry laboratory.
They placed a zinc strip in a solution of copper sulphate in test tube number 1. In test tube
number 2, they placed a copper strip in the solution of zinc sulphate. They waited for a couple
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of hours. They noticed some change in test tube number 1 but no change in test tube number
2.
(i) What changes were seen in test tube number 1 ? Explain these changes.
(ii) Why was there no change in test tube number 2 ?
(Hi) Arange Mg, Zn and Cu in increasing order of reactivity.
Ans. (i) The blue colour of copper sulphate faded and a brownish red coating was formed
on zinc metal.
We explain it by saying that zinc is more reactive than copper. Therefore zinc displaces copper
from copper sulphate. The displaced copper is deposited in zinc as brown red coating.
Zn (s) + CuS04 (ncj) ZnS04 (aq) + Cu (s)
Blue Colourless Brown red
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(ii) As Cu is less reactive than Zn, it cannot displace Zn from the solution. Therefore, no
change is observed.
(Hi) Cu < Zn < Mg
Q.2. Neeti and Preeti were visiting Qutab Minar along with their classmates. After seeing
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Qutab Minar, they went to see the iron pillar nearby. Neeti said to Preeti, "Look this pillar was
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made around 400 BC, as History says. But this has not rusted, what could be the technology
behind this ?" Preeti replied, "Yes, that is amazing. Let us ask madam, how could the technicians
of that era make such a wonder."
or
(i) What possibly was stated by madam to the queries of Neeti and Preeti ?
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(ii) How do the electrical conductivity and melting point of metals change when they
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are mixed to form the alloy ?
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Ans. (0 The madam told Neeti and Preeti that ancient iron workers of India had developed
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a process which prevented wrought iron from rusting. A thin layer of magnetic oxide (Fe304)
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was formed on the surface as a result of finishing treatment given to the pillar. The pillar was
painted with a mixture of different salts, then heated and quenched.
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(ii) The electrical conductivity and melting point decrease on alloying the metals.
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Q.3. Gaurav went to the market to buy an aluminium pan for preparing tea. He was
preparing tea at home. Suddenly an idea crossed his mind. "Aluminium is a highly reactive
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metal, yet it is used to make utensils for cooking", he said to himself. He could not explore
the explanation for this. He consulted his elder brother regarding this.
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(i) Reproduce the reply given by his brother regarding the suitability of A1 for making
utensils.
(ii) How does AI2O3 react with the acids and bases ?
(Hi) What are such oxides called ?
Ans. (i) A1 being an active metal forms A1203 on the surface on heating. This oxide layer
resists further corrosion of the metal. Therefore A1 is used for making utensils.
(ii) Reaction with acid and alkali are given below :
A1203 + 6HC1 2A1C13 + 3H20
A1203 + 2NaOH 2NaA102 + H20
Sodium
aluminate
(Hi) Oxides that react with acids and alkalis both are called amphoteric oxides.
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Q.4. Dipit said to Nikit, "You are a student of science. I usually read from the newspaper
and learn from TV that such and such state government has banned the extraction of iron ore.
I have read only about minerals. Tell me the difference between a mineral and an ore." Nikit
said, "O.K. I shall explain to you the difference between the two."
(i) What explanation was given by Nikit to Dipit for the difference between a mineral
and an ore ?
(ii) Why is it that most metals exist as oxides under the earth's crust ?
(Hi) How do we extract active metals like Mg and A1 from their oxides ?
Ans. (z) The elements or compounds which occur naturally in the earth's crust are known
as minerals. At some places, minerals contain a very high percentage of a particular metal and
the metal can be profitably extracted from it. These minerals are called ores.
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(ii) This is because oxygen is abundantly available and is very reactive. This converts
metals into metal oxides.
(Hi) Active metals like Mg and A1 are extracted from their oxides by electrolytic reduction
in the molten state.
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Q.5. The teacher had completed the chapter on 'Metals and Non-metals'. He asked the
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students to come prepared with this chapter the next day. The teacher asked Ritu, "How can
you prove that a metal is a good conductor of heat ?" Ritu could not reply the question. He
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then repeated the questions to Sudhir. Sudhir gave the correct reply.
(i) Describe the experiment to prove that metals are good conductors of heat. Give the
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set up of the apparatus.
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(ii) Is lead a good conductor of heat ?
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Ans. (i)
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Stand—►
Metal wire
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Clamp—£j| Free end of wire

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Pin
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Wax
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Burner
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• Take an aluminium or copper wire. Clamp this wire on a clamp as shown in the figure
above.
• Fix a pin to the free end of the wire using wax.
• Heat the wire with a burner near the place where it is clamped.
• We find that after sometime the wax melts and the pin falls down. This proves that
metals are good conductors of heat.
(ii) Lead is a poor conductor of heat. The other end will become hot after a long time.
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4. LIFE PROCESSES
Q.l. Shyam developed a black spot in one of his tooth. He got worried and showed it to
his grand mother. She told him that your tooth is attacked by a worm. Since Shyam's grand
mother is illiterate, she could not give the correct scientific information and cause. How will
you being a science student explain following to Shyam ?
(a) The term used for such black spots.
(b) What is its cause ? What is its effect on tooth ?
(c) What advise you will give to Shyam to avoid such damage to his tooth ?
Ans. (a) Dental caries is the term used for these black spots on tooth. Commonly it is known
as tooth decay as it causes gradual softening of enamel and dentine.
(b) Dental caries begins when bacteria acting on . sugar produce acids that softens or
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demineralises the enamel. Masses of bacterial cell together with food particles stick to the teeth
to form dental plaque. Saliva cannot reach the tooth surface to neutralise the acid as plaque
covers the teeth.
(c) Brushing the teeth after eating removes the plaque before the bacteria produce acids.
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Q.2. Mridul's grand mother was not feeling well. She went to a doctor who after examining
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her told her that her blood urea level is high and advised her to undergo periodic dialysis.
(a) What is wrong with Mridul's grand mother ?
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(b) What doctor meant from dialysis ? How is it performed ?
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(c) Is there any other remedy that can help avoid Mridul's grandmother's periodic
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dialysis ?
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Ans. (a) Mridul's grand mother's kidney is not functioning properly. Blood urea level increases
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in such situation as kidney fail to filter urea from blood.

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(b) Dialysis is a process during which blood of patient is passed through a machine also
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called artificial kidney. It contains a number of tubes with a semi-permeable membrane lining.
These tubes are suspended in a tank filled with dialysing fluid. This fluid has the same osmotic
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pressure as blood except that it does not contain any nitrogenous waste. The patient's blood is
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passed through these tubes. During this passage the waste products from the blood passes into
dialysing fluid by diffusion. The purified blood is then pumped back into the body.
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(c) The only other remedy is kidney transplant. This can be done if a suitable kidney
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donor is available and his blood pathology matches with that of the patient.
Q.3. For last few days Rakesh has started cycling long distances. But on his way back he
feels cramps in his calf muscles.
(fl) What can be the possible cause of it ?
(b) Name the process involved and its equation.
(c) How can Rakesh have quick relief from muscle cramps ?
Ans. (a) The muscle cramps are caused due to accumulation of lactic acid in the muscles.
Lactic acid is produced due to partial break down of pyruvate in absence of oxygen.
{b) Anaerobic respiration is the term used for the partial oxidation of pyrutic acid.
In Lack
Glucose ^ Pyruvic acid > Lactic acid + C02 + Energy
Cytoplasm of
(c) Rakesh can get relief from muscle cramps by having a hot water bath and massage.
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Q.4. Manish on visiting the aquarium observed that fish in the aquarium continuously
opens and closes its mouth. He thought it to be a feeding process.
{a) Was Manish right in his judgment. Yes or No ?
{b) Justify your answer.
(c) Did you notice something strange when the fish closes its mouth ?
Ans. (n) No, Manish is not right. Actually the fish does so to get oxygen.
(b) For respiration, they gulp water which passes through gills and then comes out through
the operculum located behind the eyes. The oxygen dissolved in water is absorbed by blood
passing in capillaries of gills while carbon dioxide is released.
(c) When the fish opens its mouth the operculum remains closed. But when fish closes its
mouth the, operculum opens.
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5. CONTROL AND COORDINATION
Q.l. Mohan sowed some cucumber seeds in his kitchen graden. When the plants grew
up, he saw that the plants are not erect. To keep them erect he put some stakes (bamboo stick)
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in the soil in between the plants. Mohan surprised to see, thread like structures twining
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around the sticks to keep the plant erect.
(a) Name the thread like structures.
(b) What makes the thread like structure to twine around sticks ? Name the hormone
involved. f or
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(c) Name the plant organs which are negatively geotropic and positively geotropic.
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Ans. {a) Tendrils.
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(b) These tendrils are sensitive to touch. When they come in contact with any support, the
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part of the tendril in touch contact with the support does not grow as rapidly as the part away
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from the support. This causes the tendril to circle aroimd the support. Hormone auxin is responsible
for such movement.
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(c) Shoot is negatively geotropic and root is positively geotropic.

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Q.2. In Arun's class a thorough medical check up of all students was conducted by a team
of doctors which included physical examination as well as their blood and urine test was
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performed. On analysing the report, the doctor came to the conclusion that student A is suffering
from goitre, student B from diabetes and student C with dwarfism.
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What are the causes of ailment students A, B and C are suffuring from ? Was some thing
in students diet was missing ?
What can be the probable cause of the diseases ? Give symptoms of each disease.
Ans. The cause of disease of student A is deficiency of iodine in the diet which is an important
component of hormone thyroxin secreted by thyroid gland which is located in neck region.
The cause of disease of student B diabetes is less secretion of hormone insulin secreted by
pancreas. Patient suffering from this disease show symptoms like high blood sugar level and
sugar in urine.
Student C is also suffering from a hormonal disorder which results in stunted growth resulting
in dwarfism. This happens due to less secretion of growth hormone from the pituitary gland.
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6. ELECTRICITY
Q.l. Kishan Lai works as a night watchman in a colony. He uses a torch having three
cells. Usually he has to replace the cells after about one month. He was puzzled because the
used cells appear to be as good in appearance as new ones but do not produce light in torch.
His daughter Deepa is a student of class X in a Govt. School. She explained the action and
working of a cell to her father.
Answer the following questions :
(0 What is the function of a cell ? How does it act ?
(//) Why do we use more than one cell in a torch ? In which arrangement are these cells
connected to ?
(Hi) Why does one throw away the cell when light of torch becomes dim ?
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(iv) What qualities are being exhibited by Deepa ?
Ans. (i) For maintaining flow of current through the filament of electric bulb of torch a
potential difference is required across its ends. This difference of potential is produced by a cell.
The chemical action within a cell generates the potential difference across the terminals of the
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cell.
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(ii) We use a battery of more than one cell so that the potential difference produced across
the terminals of battery is more.
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(Hi) hi order to maintain the current in a given electric circuit, the cell has to expend its
chemical energy stored in it. When whole chemical energy stored in a cell is converted into
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electrical energy, the cell has no stored chemical energy left in it and now it should be thrown
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away.
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(iv) Deepa has a scientific bent of mind. She loves her father and is caring for him. She
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observed the dilemma faced by her father and decided to help him.
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Q.2. Amir Chand irons clothes throughout the day in front of the gate of a housing
society in Gurgaon. He owned an old type iron in which charcoal is burnt to heat up the iron.
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Mahesh got his clothes ironed by Amir Chand. One day Mahesh suggested the washerman to
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purchase an electric iron and approached the management of housing society to provide him
an electrical connection for operating the electric iron. The washerman showed his helplessness
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to purchase a good quality electric iron because of its price. Mahesh requested the residents
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of housing society to contribute so that Amir Chand can purchase a new electric iron. They all
contributed and the washerman purchased the electric iron. Now he was happy as the ironing
was fast and of better quality. Moreover it was economical and environment friendly too.
Now answer the following questions :
(i) What is the working principle of an electric iron ?
(ii) Why is an electric iron superior to an iron using charcoal ?
(Hi) Washerman's old iron required 0.8 kg of charcoal per hour and he used to pay ^ 12
per kg for charcoal. His new electric iron is of 750 watt rating and cost of electricity is ? 6 per
unit. What is the saving of the washerman per day if he used his iron for 8 hours daily ?
(iv) What quality/value was shown by Mahesh ? What by other residents of the housing
society ?
Ans. (?) An electric iron works on the heating effect of electric current. When electric current
is flown through the heating element of iron, heat is produced and iron can be used for ironing
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the clothes. By controlling the current flowing through the element, temperature of iron can be
controlled as per need.
(ii) An electric iron is superior because it is energy efficient, easy to handle and can be
operated quickly at any time. Moreover, it does not cause any damage to environment whereas
burning charcoal in an iron causes smoke, ash etc., and need wood.
(Hi) Cost of using charcoal for 8 hours a day = 8 x 0.8 x ? 12 = ? 76.8
750
Cost of using electric iron for 8 hours a day = 8 x x ^ 6 = ? 36
1000
Saving of washerman per day = ? 76.8 - ? 36 = ^ 40.8.
(iv) Mahesh was sympathetic to the problems of poor washerman. He gave him a good
suggestion and helped him financially too. He requested other residents too to contribute some
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money. Thus, he played the role of a socially responsible citizen and helped a poor fellow.
Other residents of the society were also carmg and helpful for a good cause and helped the
washerman.
Q.3. On the occasion of Diwali, Saurabh purchased a fancy light frill consisting of 120
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small sized coloured bulbs (each of 2 volt rating). He arranged the frill in balcony of his home.
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On switching on the frill gave beautiful light. His younger sister Surabhi could not understand,
how so many bulbs joined together in a frill can operate on a single switch and glow
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simultaneously. Saurabh explained the whole process to her and she was happy.
(i) In which arrangement are all the bulbs of the light frill are connected together and
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why ?
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(ii) If resistance of each bulb is 15 ohms then what current flows through each bulb
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when a voltage of 230 volts is applied across the ends of frill ?

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(Hi) How much electrical power is dissipated by the electric frill ?

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(iv) What quality was exhibited by Saurabh ?

Ans. (i) In the electric light frill all 120 bulbs are connected in series. As each bulb is of 2 volt
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rating, the bulb will get fused if connected directly to a.c. supply of 230 volts. However, when
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230
a frill of 120 bulbs has been prepared then potential difference across each bulb = volt
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= 1.92 V, which is within its rated voltage. Thus, bulbs of frill will glow without any risk of
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damage.
(ii) As resistance of each bulb = 15 £2
Hence total resistance of frill R = 15 x 120 = 1800 Q.
V 230 V
.•. Current flowing through each bulb of frill / = — = = 0.128 A
1800
t/2 x ?3f)
(Hi) Electrical power dissipated by the frill P = — = 29.4 W
1800
(iv) Saurabh has a technical and scientific attitude. He was able to arrange the electric frill
in his home without the help of an electrician. He was caring for her younger sister and explained
the working of electric frill to her, so that she may also develop a scientific temper.
Q.4. Murali Vijay had a small sweet shop in a village. He had electrical fittings in his
shop and had a sanctioned load of only 0.25 kW. There was a bulb holder fitted above his seat
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in which he used to fix a 60 W bulb. On the occasion of a fair in the village, he fitted an
adopter in the bulb holder having 4 plugs and a socket for fitting a bulb. He fixed a 200 W
bulb in the bulb socket and installed two 100 W bulbs through cord and shoe arrangement
into 2 plugs. From the remaining two plugs he connected two table fans. When he switched
on the circuit, he observed a sudden spark, crackling noise and some smoke too. He could not
understand the cause of it and started crying. Mukesh was passing from there. When he heard
the crackling noise and saw smoke he understood the cause of it. He immediately switched
off the electric supply of the shop. After few minutes there was no smoke in the room. Then
Mukesh pointed the fault of the shopkeeper and advised him not to use a number of electrical
appliances to a single socket.
(i) In your opinion what was the cause of spark and smoke in the shop ? Can you
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explain it ?
(ii) What step should be taken in such a situation ?
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(Hi) What value was exhibited by Mukesh ?
Ans. (/) The cause of spark and smoke was "overloading of electrical circuit". The shopkeeper
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had put on as many as five appliances from a single socket having a total load much greater than
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the sanctioned load for his shop. As a result of drawing a large current, the line wire was heated
up excessively and got short-circuited.
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(ii) First of all, we should switch off the main switch of electric supply so that there is no
electric supply and over heating of line wire may be controlled. Then we should try to find out
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the fault of electric circuit and get it rectified.
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(in) Mukesh has a scientific temperament. He is a responsible citizen and socially
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conscientious. Although he had no relationship with owner of sweet shop, yet he promptly acted
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at Iris own and controlled the situation.

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Q.5. Girdhari Lai runs a small shop selling tea and pakoras etc. Two electric bulbs of 100
watt each, one electric fan (of 75 watt rating) and a 35 cm colour TV (of 150 watt rating) are
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installed in his shop and all these appliances are operated continuously through out the day.
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For the months of May and June Girdhari Lai received a bill of about ? 1800 from the
electricity board. He felt the bill amount to be excessive and started abusing the electricity
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board. His nephew Mohan, who is a science student of class X, came to know about this. He
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came to his uncle's shop and calculated the consumption of electric energy by his uncle and
found the bill to be in order. He requested his uncle to install fluorescent tubes/CFLs instead
of electric bulbs and suggested him to switch off the light/fan/TV set when no body is sitting
inside the shop. In this way we can save electricity. Girdhari Lai accepted the suggestions of
Mohan and found the bill for July-August to be of lesser amount.
(a) If all electric appliances are being run for 10 hours daily, how much energy in kW h
is consumed in Girdhari Lai's shop during the months of May and June ?
(b) If electricity board charges ? 6.50 per kW h for commercial electric supply, what is
the cost of energy consumption in Girdhari Lai's shop during the months of May-June.
(c) What qualities/values were exhibited by Mohan ?
Ans. (a) Electric energy consumed per day = Energy consumed by bulbs + Fan + TV
= 10[2 x 100 + 75 + 150] W h = 4250 W h = 4.25 kW h
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Total electric energy consumed for 61 days (during the months of May and June)
£ = 61 x 4.25 kW h = 259.25 kW h = 259.25 units
(b) Bill for electricity consumed @ ? 6.50 per unit
= 259.25 x ? 6.50 = ^ 1685
(c) Mohan has a scientific temper. He is caring for his uncle and solved his problem.
Moreover, he gave good suggestions so as to save electricity consumption and consequently the
bill amount.
7. MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

Q.l. Raghav went to see a science fair. There he saw an arrangement. In a small glass case
there was a small iron rod pivoted at its centre and capable of rotation about a vertical axis
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in a horizontal plane. A small sized image of Sitaji was fixed at one end of rod. There was a
small sized photo frame with picture of Lord Rama on one side and Demon Ravan on the
other side. When the picture frame was brought near the glass case, image of Sitaji always
align itself so as to face the picture of Lord Rama only. Raghav was astonished to see it. After
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the science fair he asked his science teacher about it. His science teacher told him that it is due
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to magnetic force. Then Raghav himself assembled such an arrangement and demonstrated its
working to his teacher and the classmates.
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(0 What is the cause of Sitaji always aligning herself so as to face Lord Rama in your
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opinion ?
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(ii) What is a magnetic field ?
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(Hi) What qualities does Raghav possess ?

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Ans. (/) Actually the iron rod pivoted at its centre is a small sized magnetic needle. The
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photo frame has a magnet with north (N) pole on one side and south (S) pole on the other. The
polarity of magnet on the side of picture of Lord Rama is opposite to the polarity of the end of
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magnetic needle, where image of Sitaji is fixed. As unlike magnetic poles attract but like magnetic
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poles repel each other, Sitaji's end of magnetic needle is always attracted towards the Lord
Rama's side of magnet fitted inside photo frame and repelled from the picture of Demon Ravan.
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(if) Magnetic field of a magnet or a current-carrying coil is the region around it in which
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its magnetic force can be detected.

(Hi) Raghav was curious to know the real cause of his observations and did not believe in
superstitions. He was interested in scientific studies, due to which he visited science fair and later
on himself assembled the apparatus and successfully demonstrated its working.
Q.2. One day when Anil was studying in his room, the light went off. He found that the
fuse wire of the electricity line has burnt. He took a piece of thick copper wire and tried to
put it in the kitkat of fuse. Hov/ever, his friend Sunil asked Anil not to use a thick copper wire
as the fuse because thick copper wire will not bum even when current exceeds the safe limit
for the line. In this way basic purpose of fuse will be defeated. Then both of them went to
market, purchased a fuse wire of appropriate current capacity and applied it in the fuse socket.
(i) What is the function of a fuse wire ?
(ii) What should be the quality of material used as a fuse wire ?
(Hi) What quality was exhibited by Sunil ?
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Ans. (0 The fuse used in electric circuits protects circuits and appliances by stopping the
flow of any unduly high electric current. When a current larger than the specified value flows
through the circuit, the temperature of the fuse wire increases. This melts the fuse wire and
breaks the circuit.
(ii) Tire material used as a fuse wire should have high resistivity but low melting point.
(Hi) Sunil knew the function of fuse. He was caring for his friend Anil and gave him true
advice.
Q.3. Somnath studies in class VIII and has a table fan in his study room. One day by
chance his hand came in contact with running electric fan. He experienced a mild shock. He
tried to touch the fan again and he again experienced a shock. Now he was horrified and
switched off the fan. Next day in his school bus Somnath narrated the incident to other
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students. Naresh, who used to study in class X in same school, said that I shall come to your
residence in the evening. When Naresh visited Somnath's house, he found that the fan had a
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two pin plug only. On further observing he found that there was no proper earthing wire in
Somnath's room. He explained the whole thing to Somnath and his mother. They called an
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electrician and got the problem rectified.
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(i) What is an earth wire and what is its function ?
(ii) What quality was exhibited by Naresh ?
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Ans. (i) For electric supply in a circuit two wires are essential (i) live wire, and (ii) neutral
wire. However, as a safety measure a third wire, known as earth wire, is also used in electric
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circuit line and is usually connected to a metal plate deep in the earth near the house. This is a
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safety measure specially Tor appliances that have a metallic body e.g., electric iron, electric fan,
cooler, refrigerator etc.
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The metallic body of appliance is connected to the earth wire, which provides a low resistance
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conducting path for the current. If by chance there is any leakage of current to the metallic body of
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the appliance then in the presence of earth wire the user will not get a severe shock.
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Due to this very reason we must use a three pin plug and socket system.
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(ii) Naresh was sympathetic to Somnath. He came to Somnath's house, observed the electric
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circuit, analysed the problem and tendered correct advice to Somnath. He has a scientific and
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technical bent of mind and wants to help others.

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Q.4. Saarthak, who is a student of class X, was doing an activity about designing an
electromagnet and detect its magnetic field. Some how the solenoid coil slipped out of his
hands, fell on the floor and was damaged. Other students of the class asked Saarthak that he
should go away from the laboratory without bringing the fact of damage to solenoid coil to
the notice of their class teacher. However, Saarthak did not agree and immediately narrated
the whole thing to his teacher. The teacher was highly impressed by his behavior and concluded
that Saarthak has not damaged the apparatus willfully.
(i) What is an electromagnet ? How is it prepared ? What can you do to make a
electromagnet producing stronger magnetic field ?
(ii) What quality was exhibited by Saarthak ? What quality was exhibited by his teacher ?
Ans. (0 An electromagnet is basically a solenoid coil consisting of large number of turns of
enamelled copper wire wound close to each other over a hollow cylinder of cardboard. When
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current is passed through solenoid coil by connecting a battery across its ends, a magnetic field
is developed inside the hollow cylinder along its axis. The magnetic field depends on the number
of turns in solenoid coil and the current being flown through it. To produce a still stronger
magnetic field one should introduce a rod of soft iron inside the hollow cylinder.
(ii) Saarthak exhibited truthfulness and courage to tell his teacher about the accidental
damage done by him. Moreover, he has a scientific bent of mind.
The teacher is generous and caring for his students.
Q.5. Samir loves doing scientific activities/experiments. In one of his activity he took a
coil of conducting wire having a large number of turns and connected the ends of the coil to
a galvanometer. He took a strong bar magnet and moved it rapidly towards the coil. A
momentary deflection was observed in galvanometer. Then he moved the magnet away from
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the coil. Again a deflection was observed in galvanometer but in the opposite direction. His
younger brother Ashok was keenly observing this but could not understand the cause of
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deflection although no cell or battery was connected across the coil. Samir explained the
whole mechanism to Ashok.
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(i) What is the cause of deflection in galvanometer in the above activity ? Name a
device based on the principle of this activity.
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(ii) Which law predicts the direction of current produced in the coil ?
(in) What qualities are being shown by Samir and what by Ashok ?
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Ans. (i) The cause of deflection in galvanometer is a current induced in the coil of conducting
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wire when magnetic field in and around it was changed by moving powerful bar magnet to arid
fro about the coil. The phenomenon is known as "electro magnetic induction". Electric generator
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is a device based on this very principle.

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(ii) Fleming's right-hand rule gives the direction of the induced current in the coil.
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(Hi) Samir has a scientific attitude. He loves doing scientific activities and scientific
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experiment so that he can understand the basic principles of science. Moreover, he is caring and
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sympathetic towards other. He lovingly explained the whole phenomenon to his younger brother
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Ashok.
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Ashok too has a scientific bent of mind. He wanted to know the mechanism of experiment
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being performed by his elder brother Samir. When Samir told him about the phenomenon, he
keenly understood the whole phenomenon.
8. SOURCES OF ENERGY
Q.l. Shuchita is a student of class X. Her science teacher told students about renewable
and non-renewable sources of energy. Her teacher said that firewood obtained from trees is
a non-renewable source of energy but Shuchita could not understand it. At her home she
asked her elder brother that why firewood is considered a non-renewable source of energy
even though trees can be easily grown in forests. Her brother explained to her about the reason
of it.
Answer the following questions :
(0 What are renewable and non-renewable sources of energy ? Give two examples of
each kind.
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(ii) Why is firewood considered a non-renewable source of energy ?

(in) What value was shown by Shuchita ?
Ans. (/) Renewable sources of energy are those natural resources which are inexhaustible.
These resources can be used to produce energy again and again because these can be replenished.
Solar energy, wind energy are renewable sources of energy.
Non-renewable sources of energy are those natural resources which are exhaustible and cannot
be replenished once they have been consumed. Fossil fuels like coal, petroleum etc., are non
renewable sources of energy.
(ii) Although trees can be grown again but it takes more than 15 years for a tree to mature.
Due to this reason, firewood obtained by cutting trees from forests is considered a non-renewable
source of energy.
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(Hi) Shuchita has a scientific temper and wants to know the exact reason for any thing. As
she could not understand the statement of her teacher fully, she again asked the same question
from her elder brother. She was satisfied only when she knew the correct answer.
Q.2. Faisal is a student of class X. He knew the principle of conservation of energy. One
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day a declamation contest was held in his school. The topic was "Energy crisis and its possible
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solution". Faisal was confused. He thought when total energy of universe is constant then
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where is the question of energy crisis. Next day he posed the same question in his science
class. His science teacher was kind enough to explain the paradox.
(i) What do you mean by the term 'energy crisis' ? for
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(ii) Why do we talk about energy crisis inspite of the law of conservation of energy ?
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(Hi) What characteristic was exhibited by Faisal ?
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Ans. (i) We generally use fossil fuels liks coal, petroleum, CNG gas etc., for obtaining the
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energy for our daily needs. However, these fossil fuels are exhaustible (or non-renewable) in
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nature. As we use more and more quantities of these fossil fuels, their stock on our earth is
continuously decreasing and these fuels may be exhausted soon. This situation is called "energy
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crisis".
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(ii) Of course total energy of universe remains constant but a large part is in a form which
cannot be utilised by mankind. For example when we burn peti'ol/diesel, chemical energy is
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being converted into heat energy and total energy remains constant. Yet, this heat energy produced
goes to the atmosphere and cannot be extracted for our use. That's why we say that there is a
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fear of crisis of usable energy sources.

(Hi) Faisal is having an analytical ability of very high order. He correlated the topic of
declamation contest with the law of science and tried to get the correct answer. He was satisfied
only when he got the correct answer of his doubt from his science teacher.
Q.3. Nikhil and Neha went to a remote village in Kerala to meet their grand mother.
They were surprised to see a bio-gas plant in Mr Nair's house in the neighbourhood. There
were plenty of livestocks and the household used cooking gas from the plant. Also their farm
had rich vegetation.
They contacted sarpanch of the village and convinced him to set up a bio-gas plant for
village community.
(a) Mention the values displayed by Mr Nair, Nikhil and Neha.
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(b) Explain the possible arguments given by Nikhil and Neha to sarpanch to convince
him to set up a community bio-gas plant. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. (a) Mr Nair is a progressive farmer and is well aware of non-conventional sources of
energy. By installing a bio-gas plant he is getting cooking gas as well as good quality manure
without any cost.
Nikhil and Neha know non-conventional and renewable sources of energy and persuaded
the village sarpanch to get a bio-gas plant for village community.
(b) The possible arguments are :
(0 A bio-gas plant will use only animal dung and other vegetable waste material. Thus,
there will be no cost for fuel etc.
(ii) A bio-gas plant will prevent pollution problem caused by burning dry cakes of animal
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dung and by rotting of other vegetable waste.
(Hi) Bio-gas is a good source of energy and the slurry left in bio-gas plant is an excellent
manure. Village community will be able to use them without any cost.
Q.4. Government decided to install a hydropower plant at a suitable site on a rivulet in
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a remote hilly village. Some people started the propaganda that the water released from
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hydropower plant will be useless for drinking and for watering the plants in their fields.
Mohan, a resident of that village, used to study in class X in Navodaya Vidyalaya and lived
in school hostel. When he visited the village during his vacations, he came to know about the
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propaganda. He requested the village Sarpanch to fix a meeting of village Panchayat. In the
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meeting Mohan explained the complete process to all the villagers and emphasised that the
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project is for our benefit as the electricity generated will be available for village people. The
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villagers thanked Mohan for his suggestions.

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(i) What is hydropower plant ? Briefly explain its working principle.

(ii) Is hydropower an exhaustible or a non-exhaustible source of energy ?
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(Hi) What values were exhibited by Mohan ?

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Ans. (i) Energy of flowing water in a river is utilised to produce electricity in hydropower
plant. A dam is constructed at a suitable place in hilly area to collect water in an artificial lake
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by obstructing the river flow. The stored water thus possesses potential energy. Water from the
dam is made to fall through underground pipes over the turbine blades at the bottom of the dam
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and make the turbine rotate. Moving turbine rotates the armature coil of electric generators to
produde electricity.
(ii) Hydropower is a non-exhaustible source of energy because water drained out of dam
is replenished during the rainy season.
(Hi) Mohan has a scientific temper. He knows his social responsibility as a good citizen. He
persuaded his village folk not to oppose the establishment of hydropower plant. Thus, he
contributed his might in development of the area.
Q.5. Department of rural development of the state government announced a scheme of
50% subsidy for installation of a "gobar gas plant" by the farmers in their village. Bansidhar
was a progressive farmer. He decided to install a gobar gas plant near his animal yard. Other
residents of villages criticised him. However, Bansidhar got the gobar gas plant installed. Now
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his fuel bill was reduced to almost nil and he could get good quality manure.Villagers were
now impressed by his initiative.
(0 What is bio-gas ? What are its constituents ?
(ii) Briefly describe the action of a bio-gas plant.
(Hi) What qualities were exhibited by Bansidhar ?
Ans. (z) Bio-gas is produced during the decay of bio-mass, i.e., animal dung and other bio
waste, in the absence of oxygen. Bio-gas is a mixture of methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and
hydrogen sulphide but the main constituent is methane gas, which is an excellent fuel and burns
without smoke.
(ii) Basically a bio-gas plant is a digester in which slurry of animal dung and other bio
waste is allowed to undergo anaerobic decomposition in the absence of oxygen gas. Due to this
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decomposition bio-gas is produced, which can be used as an excellent fuel. The waste slurry left
after production of bio-gas is a very good quality manure.
(Hi) Bansidhar is a progressive farmer and believes in doing farming on scientific basis as
per instructions of agricultural scientists. He is ready to implement new innovative ideas and do
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not mind criticism from orthodox people.
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Q.6. Subramanyam is a progressive farmer and entrepreneur of Salem District, Tamil
Nadu. Once he went to "Agriculture Fair" where he saw a working model of windmill. He was
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highly impressed to see that and decided to install a windmill in his farm. His relatives and
friends advised him not to venture into this because it will require lot of money and there is
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no guarantee of its successful working. However, Subramanyam was determined and got a
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windmill installed. Now he could produce sufficient electric power needed for his factory as
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well as farming activities. Not only this he could supply power to other villagers too.
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(z) What do you mean by wind energy ?

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(ii) Briefly explain the working of a windmill to produce electricity.

(Hi) What values and qualities were shown by Subramanyam ?
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Ans. (z) Wind energy is the kinetic energy possessed by moving air. Wind energy can be
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converted into mechanical or electrical energy by means of a windmill.

(H) A windmill basically consists of a structure similar to a large electric fan that is erected
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at some height on a rigid support. To generate electricity, the rotatory motion of the windmill is
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used to turn turbine of the electric generator.

(Hi) Subramanyam is a man of firm determination and conviction. He believes in scientific
and technological innovations and does not fear from risk of failure of new technology. He is
courageous and is not worried by the criticisms made by others.
Q.7. Mr Kumar visited the newly built bungalow of his friend Mr Kamat. There he
observed that a big solar geyser was installed on the roof. Mr Kumar told his friend that he
was unable to appreciate why he was miser in spending money on installation of electric
geysers in each bath room. Mr Kamat not only explained him the reason rather convinced
Mr Kumar too to install one in his house.
(a) Explain the values exhibited by Mr Kamat.
(b) List the advantages of solar geyser that convinced Mr Kumar to adopt it.
[CBSE 2013]
ReadYourFlow.COM
Ans. (a) Mr Kamat is a progressive citizen who adopts non-exhaustible and non-conventional
source of energy in his bungalow. Thus, he helps in saving electricity. He also convinced his
friends to do the same.
(b) Advantages of solar geysers are :
(i) As solar energy is freely available, there is no cost of fuel.
(ii) It is environment friendly and there is no residue like ash etc.
(Hi) It helps in saving electricity consumption in our houses.
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1
Chemical Reactions and Equations
[NCERT CHAPTER 1]
CHAPTER AT A GLANCE (Important Points to Remember)
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1. Chemical Reaction : Whenever a chemical change occurs, we say that a chemical reaction
has taken place. For example, cooking of food, respiration, digestion of food, exposure of
iron to humid atmosphere. Chemical change involves change of state, change of colour,
evolution of a gas or change of temperature. Cooking of food, fermentation of sugar and
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respiration are some examples of chemical change.
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Activity 1. Perform an activity to show that a chemical reaction has taken place (change
in state and change in colour).
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Materials required : Magnesium ribbon, pair of tongs, burner, watch-glass.
Procedure :
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Magnesium ribbon
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Burner
- Watch-glass
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Magnesium oxide
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Fig. 1.1 Burning of a magnesium ribbon in air and collection of

magnesium oxide in a watch-glass
1. Take a piece of Mg ribbon about 2 cm long.
2. Rub it clean with the help of a sand-paper.
3. Hold it with a pair of tongs as shown in Fig. 1.1.
4. Bum it using a burner (or a spirit lamp), keeping it safely away from your eyes.
Collect the matter falling from the pair of tongs on a watch-glass.
5. You observe that Mg ribbon burns with a dazzling light and produces a white ash
consisting of magnesium oxide.
(1 )
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Result : This activity illustrates that a chemical reaction has taken place. There has been
a change of state arid change of colour in this activity. Silvery Mg ribbon has changed into
powdery white MgO.
Activity 2. Perform an activity to show that a chemical reaction has taken place (evolution
of a gas and change of temperature).
Materials required : Conical flask (250 mL), cork, glass tube, zinc granules, dilute sulphuric
acid.
Procedure :
1. Set up the apparatus as shown in Fig. 1.2.
2. Remove the cork and glass tube. Place some dilute sulphuric acid into it.
3. Add a few small granules of zinc and immediately close the flask with the cork.
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4. We observe that hydrogen gas is evolved which is indicated by the bubbles.
5. On touching the flask, we find that it is hotter now than before.
Cork
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Glass tube
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Conical flask
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Dilute sulphuric acid
Zinc granules
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Fig. 1.2 Formation of hydrogen gas by the action of dilute sulphuric acid on zinc
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2. Chemical Equations : Description of a chemical reaction in a short form is called chemical
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equation. Word-equation for the reaction shown in activity 1 is :

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Magnesium + Oxygen---- > Magnesium oxide

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(Reactants) (Product)
Magnesium and oxygen which react are called reactants and magnesium oxide is formed
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after the reaction is called product. The reactants are written on the left-hand side (LHS)
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with a plus sign between them. Similarly the products are written on right-hand side
(RHS) with a plus sign between them. The arrow head points towards the product and
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shows the direction of the reaction.

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3. Skeletal Chemical Equation : A chemical equation written in the form of symbols and
formulae is called skeletal chemical equation. Such an equation may not be balanced. For
example.
Mg + 02---- > MgO
In this equation, there are two oxygen atoms on the LHS while there is only one oxygen
atom on RHS.
4. Balanced Chemical Equation : A chemical equation in which the number of atoms of each
element on LHS and RHS is equal, is called balanced chemical equation. For example,
Zn + H2S04 ZnS04 + H2
is a balanced equation because the number of atoms of Zn, H, S and O is equal on the
reactant (LHS) and product (RHS) sides.
5. Balancing of Chemical Equation : Let us illustrate the balancing of chemical equation by
taking the example of :
Fe + H20 Fe304 + H2
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Chemical Reactions and Equations 3
The following steps are involved :

Step I. Draw boxes around each formula.
[Fi] + [TTp]---- >|Fe304| + p-Q
Step II. We find that number of Fe and O atoms on the reactant and product sides are
different. So the equation needs to be balanced.
Step III. Select the compound which has maximum number of atoms. It may be a reactant
or product. In that compound, select the element which has the maximum number of
atoms. Using these criteria, we select Fe304 as the compound and oxygen as the element.
There are four O atoms on RHS and one O atom on the LHS. Hence, multiply H20
(containing O) by four to balance O.
Atoms of oxygen In reactants In products
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(i) Initial 1 (in H20) 4 (in Fe304)
(ii) To balance 1 x4 4
The partly balanced equation becomes :
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[Fg + 4 [HÔ---- -> Fgpii+jHg
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Step IV. Fe and H are still to be balanced. Take either now for balancing. Let us take H.
There are eight H atoms on LHS and two H atoms on RHS. Multiply H2 by four to
or
equalize H atoms.
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Atoms of hydrogen In reactants In products
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(i) Initial 8 (in 4H20) 2 (in H2)
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(ii) To balance 8 2x4

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The equation would become

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HE] + 4|HP]--- >\F^\ + 4[g

Step V. Fe is left to be balanced. There is one Fe atom on LHS and three Fe atoms on RHS.
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Multiply Fe on LHS by three to equalise.

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Atoms of iron In reactants In products

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(i) Initial 1 (in Fe) 3 (in Fe304)

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(ii) To balance 1 x3 3
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We can write the equation now as :

3[gi] + 4|Hp|---> |Fe3041 + 4[iHl
Step VI. Finally we write the equation, after removing boxes and check whether it is
balanced or not.
3Fe + 4H20---- » Fe304 + 4H2
This method of balancing equations is known as hit and trial method as we complete the
balancing by making trials for different elements.
Step VII. To make the equation more informative, we write the physical states of different
substances on LHS and RHS. Thus,
3Fe (s) + 4H20 (g)---- > Fe304 (s) + 4H2 (g)
Notations (s), (/) and (g) are used for solid, liquid and gaseous states respectively. In the
above equation (g) after H20 means H20 is in the form of steam (gaseous), (aq) is written
for aqueous solution.
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TYPES OF CHEMICAL REACTIONS

Chemical reactions involve breaking and making of bonds between atoms to produce new
substances.
6. Combination Reactions : A reacbon in which a single product is formed from two or more
reactants is called combination reaction. For example,
(0 Burning of coal C (s) + 02 (g)---- > C02 (g)
(ii) Formation of water from H2 and 02. 2H2 (g) + 02 (g)---- > 2H20 (/)
Activity 3. Perform an activity to illustrate combination reaction.
Materials required : Beaker (500 mL), water, calcium oxide (quick lime).
Procedure :
1. Take a clean 500 mL pyrex glass beaker (Fig. 1.3).
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2. Take about 50 g quick lime in it.
3. Add about 100 mL water to it carefully.
4. Quick lime (calcium oxide) reacts vigorously with water to form a single product
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slaked lime Ca(OH)2 and a large amoimt of heat is evolved.
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CaO (s) + H20 (/) -----> Ca(OH)2 (aq)
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\ h'Beaker
.Water
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Calcium
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oxide
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Fig. 1.3 Formation of slaked lime by the reaction of calcium oxide with water
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7. White Washing of Buildings : A solution of slaked lime Ca(OH)2 is applied on the walls
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and roofs. After 2 or 3 days, slaked lime reacts with atmospheric carbon dioxide and it
changes into calcium carbonate.
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Ca(OH)2 (aq) + C02 (#)----- > CaC03 (s) + H20 (/)

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Calcium carbonate gives a shiny white finish to the walls.

8. Exothermic Reactions : Reactions which take place with the evolution of heat (increase of
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temperature) are called exothermic reactions. For example, burning of natural gas and
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respiration are exothermic reactions.

CH4 (g) + 202 (g)---- » C02 (g) + 2H20 (g) (Burning of natural gas)
C6H1206 (aq) + 602 (g)---- > 6C02 (g) + 6IT20 (/) (Respiration)
Glucose
Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is also an exothermic reaction.
9. Endothermic Reactions : Reactions which take place with absorption of heat (lowering of
temperature) are called endothermic reactions.
Example : N2 (g) + 02 (£)---- > 2NO (g)
Nitric oxide
10. Decomposition Reactions : When a single reactant breaks down to give simpler products,
it is called decomposition reaction. For example, decomposition of FeS04.7H20 and CaC03.
Activity 4. Perform an activity to illustrate decomposition reaction.
Materials required : Boiling tube, ferrous sulphate crystals, test tube holder, burner.
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Procedure :
1. Take about 5 g FeSO^TÔ crystals in a dry boiling tube. Clamp it in a test tube
holder (Fig. 1.4). Note the colour of ferrous sulphate crystals.
2. Heat the test tube gently over the flame of the burner.
3. Waft the gas carefully towards your nose and smell it.
4. Green colour of ferrous sulphate crystals vanishes after the decomposition takes
place. Also burning of sulphur smell (due to S02 and S03) is noticed in this experiment.
Heat
2FeS04 (s) ■> Fe203 (s) + S02 (g) + S03 (y)
Ferric oxide
Wafting gas
gently towards nose
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Do not point
the mouth of -------
boiling tube
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at your neighbours Boiling tube
or yourself
Ferrous sulphate
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crystals
Burner
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Fig. 1.4 Correct way of heating the boiling tube containing crystals of ferrous
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sulphate and of smelling the odour
Thus, a single substance FeS04 has decomposed into three substances Fe203, S02 and S03.
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hr a similar mariner, we can perform an activity to illustrate that heating of lead nitrate
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to give lead oxide is a decomposition reaction. Here a brown nitrogen dioxide gas is
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evolved with a cracking sound.

Activity 5. Perform the electrolysis of water experiment to illustrate decomposition reaction.
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Materials required : A plastic mug, two graphite rods, two test tubes, 6 V battery, switch,
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two rubber stoppers, sulphuric acid.

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Procedure :
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Plastic mug
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Oxygen - Hydrogen
Water
Test tube
- Water
Graphite rod
Rubber stopper
Cathode
Anode —
J6 V Battery
Switch-
Fig. 1.5 Electrolysis of water

2. Fill the mug with water such that graphite rods are immersed. Add a few drops of
sulphuric acid.
3. Connect the electrodes to 6 V battery and switch on the current. Leave the apparatus
undisturbed for some time.
4. Formation of bubbles at both electrodes will take place.
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5. The reaction that takes place is as follows :

2H20 (/) —2H2 (^) + 02 (g)
Hydrogen gas is collected in the test tube over the cathode while oxygen gas is collected
in the test tube over the anode. It is interesting to note that volume of hydrogen collected
is twice the volume of oxygen as explained by the above chemical equation. Hydrogen and
oxygen gases can be identified as under :
Bring a burning candle near the tube placed over the cathode. A pop sound is produced
(hydrogen is a combustible gas).
Again, bring the burning candle near the tube placed over the anode. The flame gets
brighter (oxygen is a supporter of combustion).
Activity 6. Perform an activity (decomposition of silver salt) to illustrate decomposition
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reaction.
Materials required : China dish, silver chloride.
Procedure :
1. Take about 2 g silver chloride in a china dish (Fig. 1.6).
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Sun
light
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China dish
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— Silver chloride
Fig. 1.6 Silver chloride turns grey in sunlight to form silver metal
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2. Place the china dish in sunlight for some time.

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3. You will observe that silver chloride becomes grey after some time.
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This is because silver chloride undergoes decomposition by the action of sunlight (sunlight
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is also a form of energy).

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Sunlight
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2AgCl (s) -> 2Ag (s) + Cl2 (g)

11. Displacement Reaction : A reaction in which one substance displaces another from the
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aqueous solution is called displacement reaction. A general reaction of this type may be
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represented as :
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AB + C * AC + B
Thus C has displaced B in the above reaction.
Activity 7. Perform an activity to illustrate displacement reaction.
Materials required : Test tube, thread, stand with clamp, copper sulphate solution, iron
nails.
Procedure :
1. Take three iron nails clean them by rubbing with sand paper.
2. Take two test tubes. Mark them A and B. In each test tube take about 10 mL copper
sulphate solution.
3. Tie two nails with a thread and immerse them in the copper sulphate solution in test
tube B for about 20 minutes Fig. 1.7(a).
Keep one nail aside for comparison.
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Stand.
-Test tube
Thread
4
Copper sulphate
solution
Iron nail
cy>
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Fig. 1.7 (a) Iron nails dipped in copper sulphate solution
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-Test tube
Iron nail M ^ Iron nail taken
rF Copper
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out from copper sulphate Test tube stand
8 sulphate solution solution
I (blue colour)
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(test tube A)
for Reaction mixture
(Faded colour)
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(test tube B)
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Fig. 1.7 (b) Iron nails and copper sulphate solutions compared before and after the experiment
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4. Take out the iron nails from the copper sulphate solution in test tube B.
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B
5. Compare the colour of copper sulphate solution in the two test tubes. It will be
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observed that the intensity of blue colour has decreased in test tube B compared to
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that in test tube A.

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Also compare the colours on the nails.

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It will be seen that nail removed from copper sulphate solution has a brown coating
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of Cu on it.
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The following reaction takes place in the above experiment :

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Fe (s) + CuS04 (aq) •> FeS04 {aq) + Cu (s)

Iron Copper sulphate Ferrous sulphate Copper
Zinc and iron are more reactive than copper. They displace copper from the solution of
copper salt.
Zn (s) + CuS04 {aq) ZnS04 {aq) + Cu (s)
Pb (s) + CuCl2 {aq) PbCl2 {aq) + Cu (s)
12. Double Displacement Reaction : Reactions in which there is an exchange of ions between
the reactants are called double displacement reactions.
Activity 8. Perform an activity to illustrate double displacement reaction.
Materials required : Two test tubes, sodium sulphate solution, barium chloride solution.
Procedure :
1. Take two 20 mL clean test tubes.
2. Take 5 mL barium chloride solution in one test tube and 5 mL sodium sulphate
solution in the other test tube.
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3. Add sodium sulphate solution to the test tube containing barium chloride solution
as shown in Fig. 1.8.
4. It will be observed that a white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed as a result
of exchange of ions between the two substances.
BaCl2 + Na2S04 -> BaS04 + 2NaCl

Barium
sulphate
(ppt.)
Any reaction that produces a precipitate can be called precipitation reaction.
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Test tube
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containing solution
of sodium sulphate
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&
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Test tube
containing solution
of barium chloride
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Fig. 1.8 Formation of barium sulphate and sodium chloride
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13. Oxidation and Reduction : Reactions in which a substance gains oxygen or loses hydrogen
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is called oxidation reaction.

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Similarly, a reaction in which a substance loses oxygen or gains hydrogen is called reduc
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tion reaction.
If a substance gains oxygen during a reaction, it is said to be oxidised. Similarly if a substance
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loses oxygen during a reaction, it is said to be reduced. One reactant gets oxidised while
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the other gets reduced during a reaction. Such reactions are called reduction-oxidation
reactions or redox reactions.
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Activity 9. Perform an activity to illustrate oxidation.

Materials required : China dish, copper powder, wire gauze, tripod stand, burner.
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Procedure :
1. Take about 2 g copper powder in a clean china dish (Fig. 1.9).
China dish-----
containing Wire gauze
copper powder
Tripod stand
Burner
Fig. 1.9 Oxidation of copper to copper oxide
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2. Place it on a wire gauze supported on a tripod stand.

3. Heat it for about 15 minutes.
4. It will be observed that copper powder becomes black because of the formation of
copper oxide (oxidation).
Heat
2Cu + 02 * 2CuO
We say that copper has been oxidised to copper oxide. Now, if we pass hydrogen gas over
heated CuO, we obtain Cu (Brown colour) back. This is because CuO has been reduced
to Cu.
CuO + H2 -»Cu + H20
It may be schematically represented as under :
Oxidation
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CuO + H2
1
Heat ■» Cu + H20
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Reduction
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14. Corrosion : When a metal is attacked by substances around it such as moisture, acids, etc.,
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it is said to corrode and this process is known as corrosion.
Iron articles are shiny when new. But with the passage of time, they get coated with
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reddish brown powder called rust. Silver articles become black and copper articles become
green on the surface due to corrosion.
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Corrosion causes damage to car bodies, bridges, iron railings, ships, etc.
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15. Rancidity : When fats and oils are oxidised (or kept in open for some days), their smell
and taste changes. We say that they have gone rancid. This phenomenon is called rancidity.
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Antioxidants are added to foods containing oils and fats to prevent rancidity.
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TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS
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[A] QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 6 OF THE TEXTBOOK

Q.l. Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air ?
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Ans. This is done to remove the layers of magnesium oxide and magnesium carbonate from
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the surface of magnesium ribbon. These layers are formed as a result of reaction with atmospheric
oxygen and carbon dioxide. Magnesium ribbon is cleaned by rubbing with sand-paper after
which magnesium ribbon burns smoothly.
Q.2. Write the balanced equation for the following chemical reactions :
(0 Hydrogen + Chlorine---- > Hydrogen chloride
(ii) Barium chloride + Aluminium sulphate---- > Barium sulphate + Aluminium chloride
(Hi) Sodium + Water---- > Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen.
Ans. Balanced equations in the symbolic form are given as under :
(0 H2 + Cl2---- > 2HC1
(ii) 3BaCl2 + A12(S04)3---- > 3BaS04 + 2A1C13
(Hi) 2Na + 2H20---- > 2NaOH + H2
Q.3. Write a balanced chemical equation with state symbols for the following reactions:
(i) Solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble
barium sulphate and the solution of sodium chloride.
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(ii) Sodium hydroxide solution (in water) reacts with hydrochloric acid solution (in water)
to produce sodium chloride solution and water.
Ans. Balanced equations in symbols and formulae with state symbols for the above reactions
are given as under :
(/) BaCl2 (aq) + Na2S04 (aq) ----- > BaS04 (s) + ZNaCl {aq)
Barium Sodium Barium Sodium
chloride sulphate sulphate Chloride
(ii) NaOH (aq) + HC1 (aq) v NaCl (aq) + h2o (/)
Sodium Hydrochloric Sodium Water
hydroxide acid chloride
[B1 QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 10 OF THE TEXTBOOK

Q.l. A solution of a substance 'X' is used for white washing.
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(i) Name the substance 'X' and write its formula.
(ii) Write the reaction of the substance 'X' named in (i) above with water.
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Ans. (i) Substance 'X' used for white washing is calcium oxide (or quick lime). Its formula
is CaO.
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(ii) Calcium oxide reacts with water as under :
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CaO (s) + H20 (/) ---- > Ca(OH)2 (aq)
Calcium Water Calcium
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oxide hydroxide
Q.2. Why is the amount of gas collected in one of the test tubes in Activity 5 double of
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the amount collected in the other ? Name this gas.
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Ans. In Activity 5, electrolysis of water is carried out. Electric current is passed through
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water acidulated with sulphuric acid.

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The gas collected over the cathode is hydrogen and the gas collected over anode is oxygen.
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The volume of gas collected over cathode i.e., H2 gas is double the volume of gas collected over
anode i.e., 02 gas.
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Oxygen - —^=r Hydrogen

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Test tube Water

Graphite rod -y-—• Water
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Rubber stopper
Anode Cathode
]6 V Battery
Switch-—-—^
Fig. 1.10 Electrolysis of water
This can be explained with the help of the chemical reaction that takes place.
2H20 (/) * 2H2 (£) + 02 (£)
Volume of the gas is proportional to the number of molecules of the gas as indicated in the
balanced equation. There are two molecules of hydrogen and one molecule of oxygen in the
balanced equation. Hence, hydrogen collected has twice the volume of oxygen collected.
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[C] QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 13 OF THE TEXTBOOK

Q.l. Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped
in it ?
Ans. Fe (s) + CuS04 (aq) FeS04 (aq) + Cu (s)
Iron Copper Ferrous Copper
sulphate sulphate
(Blue colour) (Very light green)
Displacement reaction takes place. Copper is deposited and ferrous sulphate solution is ob
tained which is very light green in colour compared to dark blue colour of copper sulphate.
Hence a colour change is noticed.
Q.2. Give an example of a double displacement reaction other than the one given in
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Activity 8.
Ans. Pb(N03)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq) -> Pbl2 (S) + 2KN03 (aq)
Lead Potassium Lead Potassium
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nitrate iodide iodide nitrate
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When we mix aqueous solutions of lead nitrate, Pb(N03)2 and potassium iodide, KI, we
obtain a precipitate of lead iodide and a solution of potassium nitrate. In this reaction, the cations,
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Pb2+ and K+ exchange their anions, N03 and 1“ to give the new substances Pbl2 and KNQ3.
Q.3. Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced in the
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following reactions :
(0 4Na (s) + 02 (g) 2Na20 (s)
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(ii) CuO (s) + H2 (g) Cu (s) + HzO (/)
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Ans. (/) 4Na (s) + o2 (g) 2Na20 (s)

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Sodium Oxygen Sodium oxide

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In this reaction, sodium is oxidised because it combines with oxygen to form sodium oxide.
Oxygen is reduced because it is converted into sodium oxide.
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(H) CuO (s) + H2 (g) Cu (s) + H2o (/)

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Copper Hydrogen Copper Water

oxide
In this reaction, CuO is reduced because it loses oxygen. H2 is oxidised because it combines
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with the oxygen of CuO to form water.

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TEXTBOOK EXERCISES
Q.l. Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect ?
2PbO (s) + C (s) 2Pb (s) + C02 (g)
(a) Lead is getting reduced.
(b) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised.
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised.
(d) Lead oxide is getting reduced.
(i) (a) and (b)
(ii) (a) and (c)
(Hi) (a), (b) and (c)
(iv) All.
Ans. (a) Lead is getting reduced is incorrect answer.
(b) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised is incorrect answer.
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(c) Carbon is getting oxidised is correct answer.

(d) Lead oxide is getting reduced is correct answer.
As statements {a) and (b) are incorrect, answer (i) is correct.
Q.2. Fe203 + 2A1 A1203 + 2Fe
The above reaction is an example of a
(a) combination reaction.
(b) double displacement reaction.
(c) decomposition reaction.
(d) displacement reaction.
Ans. This is an example of displacement reaction because Fe in Fe^C^ has been displaced by
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Al. Thus, the correct answer is (d).
Q.3. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron fillings ? Tick the
correct answer.
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(fl) FJydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced.
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(c) No reaction takes place.
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(d) Iron salt and water are produced.
Ans. Fe + 2HC1 ■» FeCl2 + H:
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Iron
chloride
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Thus, answer (a) is correct.
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Q.4. What is a balanced chemical equation ? Why should chemical equations be balanced ?
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Ans. Air equation in which the number of atoms of each element are equal on the reactant
B
side and product side is called balanced equation. For example,

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Fe203 + 2A1---- > A1203 + 2Fe

Chemical equations should be balanced because only a balanced equation tells us the relative
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quantities of different reactants and products involved in the reaction.

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Q.5. Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them:
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
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(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas bums in air to give water and sulphur dioxide.
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(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and a
precipitate of barium sulphate.
(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Ans. (a) H2 (g) + N2 (g)---- >NH3(s) (Unbalanced equation)
3H2 (g) + N2 (g)---- > 2NH3 (g) (Balanced equation)
(b) H2S (g) + 02 (g) —> h2o (/) + so2 (g) (Unbalanced equation)
(from air)
2H2S (g) + 302 (g) 2H20 (/) + 2S02 (g) (Balanced equation)
(c) BaCl2 (aq) + A12(S04)3 (aq) A1C13 (aq) + BaSG4 (s) (Unbalanced equation)
3BaCl2 {aq) + A12(S04)3 (aq) 2A1C13 (aq) + 3BaSQ4 (s) (Balanced equation)
(d) K (s) + H20 (/) KOH (aq) + H2 (g) (Unbalanced equation)
2K (s) + 2H20 (/) 2KOH (aq) + H2 (g) (Balanced equation)
Q.6. Balance the following chemical equations :
(«) HN03 + Ca(OH)2---- > Ca(N03)2 + H2Q
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(b) NaOH + H2S04 Na2S04 + H20

(c) NaCl + AgN03 AgCl + NaN03
(d) BaCl2 + H2S04 BaS04 + HC1
Ans. Balanced chemical equations are given as under :
(n) 2HN03 + Ca(OH)2 4 Ca(N03) + 2H20
(b) 2NaOH + H2S04 4 Na2S04 + 2H20
(c) NaCl + AgN03 4 AgCl + NaNQ3 (Already balanced)
(d) BaCl2 + H2S04 4 BaS04 + 2HC1
Q.7. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions :
(«) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide Calcium carbonate + Water
(b) Zinc + Silver nitrate 4 Zinc nitrate + Silver
(c) Aluminium + Copper chloride Aluminium chloride + Copper
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(d) Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate 4 Barium sulphate + Potassium chloride
Ans. Balanced chemical equations for the reactions are given as under :
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(<?) Ca(OH)2 + C02 4 CaC03 + H20
(b) Zn + 2AgN03 Zn(N03)2 + 2Ag
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(c) 2A1 + 3CuC12 2A1C13 +^3Cu
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(d) BaCl2 + K2S04 4 BaS04 + 2KC1
Q.8. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following and identify the type of
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reaction in each case :
(a) Potassium bromide (aq) + Barium iodide (aq) 4 Potassium iodide {aq)
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+ Barium bromide (s)
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(b) Zinc carbonate (s) Zinc oxide (s) + Carbon dioxide (g)
(c) Hydrogen (g) + Chlorine (g) 4 Hydrogen chloride (g)
B
(d) Magnesium (s) + Hydrochloric acid (aq) 4 Magnesium chloride (aq)

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+ Hydrogen (g)
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Ans. (a) Balanced equation :

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2KBr (aq) + Bal2 (aq)---- > 2KI (aq) + BaBr2 (s)

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This is an example of double displacement reaction because the cations K+ and Ba2+ have
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exchanged their anions, BC and S047

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(b) Balanced equation :

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ZnC03 (s) 4 ZnO (s) + C02 (g)

This is an example of decomposition reaction.
(c) Balanced equation :
H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) ■> 2HC1 (g)
This is an example of combination reaction.
(d) Balanced equation :
Mg (s) + 2HC1 (aq) MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)
This is an example of displacement reaction because H in HC1 has been displaced by Mg.
Q.9. What does one mean by exothermic and endothermic reactions ? Give examples.
Ans. A reaction in which energy is released in the form of heat or light is called exothermic
reaction.
Examples of exothermic reactions are :
(0 Burning of methane gas
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Examples :
(0 2Cu + 02---- > 2CuO
(n) 4A1 + 302---- > 2A1203
{b) Reduction : Addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen in a reaction is called reduction.
Examples :
(i) CuO + H2---- > Cu + H20
Oxygen has been removed from CuO in the above reaction.
(ii) H2S + Cl2---- > 2HC1 + S
Hydrogen has been added to Cl2 in the above reaction.
Q.17. A shiny brown coloured element 'X' on heating in air becomes black in colour.
Name the element 'X' and the black coloured compound formed.
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Ans. The brown coloured element 'X' is copper. On heating in air it forms copper oxide
which is black in colour.
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2Cu (s) + 02 {g) 2CuO (s)
Copper Oxygen Copper oxide
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(Brown colour) (Black)
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Q.18. Why do we apply paint on iron articles ?
Ans. We apply paint on iron articles to prevent rusting (corrosion). Iron articles do not come
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into contact with atmospheric oxygen and moisture and thus rusting is prevented.
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Q.19. Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why ?
Ans. Oil and fat containing items get rancid (bad smell and taste) due to oxidation with
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atmospheric oxygen. To prevent that, such items are flushed with nitrogen. Nitrogen does not
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react with oil and fat containing articles.

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Q.20. Explain the following terms with one example each :

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(a) Corrosion
(b) Rancidity
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Ans. (a) Corrosion : Metals are attacked by atmospheric oxygen, carbon dioxide and moisture
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and are converted into metal oxides and carbonates. This phenomenon is called corrosion. In the
case of iron, corrosion is called rusting.
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Green coating on copper and black coating on silver are examples of corrosion. Corrosion
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reduces the strength of the metal. Thus, it causes damage to car bodies, bridges, railings, ships,
etc. Corrosion can be prevented by applying paints on metal articles.
(b) Rancidity : Oil and fat containing articles when kept for some time in the open, start
giving bad smell and taste. We say that these articles have gone rancid. This phenomenon of
reaction of atmospheric oxygen with oils and fats is called rancidity. Rancidity can be prevented
by flushing oil and fat containing articles with nitrogen. As a simple measure, oils and fats, and
foods containing oils and fats are kept in airtight containers.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q.l. Mark the incorrect statement :
Substances appearing on the left hand side of the equation are called products.
(b) Substances appearing on the right hand side of the equation are called products.
(c) Substances appearing on the left hand side of the equation are called reactants.
(d) Reactants and products are separated by an arrow mark.
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Q.2. What is the number of iron atoms and hydrogen atoms in the balanced equation for
the reaction of steam on iron ?
(a) 3Fe and 8H (£>) 3Fe and 4H
(c) 3Fe and 6H (d) 3Fe and 10H
Q.3. The shiny finish to the walls is because of
(a) calcium oxide (b) calcium hydroxide
X<f) calcium carbonate (d) calcium phosphate
Q.4. Which of the following is not an example of combination reaction ?
(a) 2H2 (g) + 02 (g)-----> 2H20 (/)
{b) AgN03 (aq) + NaCl (aq)-----> AgCl (s) + NaN03 (aq)
(c) C (s) + 02 {g)-----> C02 (g)
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(d) CH4 (g) + 202 (s)-----> C02 (2) + 2H20 (g)
Q.5. On heating ferrous sulphate crystals, we obtain
{a) a mixture of ferric oxide and sulphur dioxide.
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(b) a mixture of ferrous oxide and sulphur trioxide.
J€) a mixture of ferric oxide, sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide.
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{d) a mixture of ferrous oxide, sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide.
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Q.6. Which of the following are exothermic processes ?
(z) Reaction of water with quick lime
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(z'z) Dilution of an acid
(Hi) Evaporation of water
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(iv) Sublimation of camphor (crystals)
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'(a) (z) and (z'z) (b) (it) and (Hi)

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(c) (z) and (iv) (d) (Hi) and (iv)

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Q.7. The following reaction is an example of a

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(z) displacement reaction.

(z'z) combination reaction.
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(Hi) redox reaction.

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(iv) neutralisation reaction.

4NH3 (g) + 502 (g) * 4NO (g) + 6H20 (g)
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(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (z'z) and (Hi)

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,, (c) (z) and (Hi) (d) (Hi) and (iv)

Q.8. Which of the following is (are) an endothermic process(es) ?
(i) Dilution of sulphuric acid
(z'z) Sublimation of dry ice
(Hi) Condensation of water vapours
(iv) Evaporation of water
(a) (i) and (Hi) (b) (z'z) only
(c) (Hi) only Jd) (z'z) and (iv)
Q.9. Solid calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form calcium hydroxide
accompanied by liberation of heat. This process is called slaking of lime. Calcium hydroxide
dissolves in water to form its solution called lime water. Which among the following is (are)
true about slaking of lime and the solution formed ?
(z) It is an endothermic reaction.
(z'z) It is an exothermic reaction.
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18 U-Like Science-X
(Hi) Tlie pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven.

(iv) The pH of the resulting solution will be less than seven.
(a) (i) and (H) ^ (b) (ii) and (Hi)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (Hi) and (iv)
Q.10. Which among the following is (are) double displacement reaction(s) ?
(i) Pb + CuCl2 PbCl2 + Cu
(ii) Na2S04 + BaCl2 BaS04 + ZNaCl
(Hi) C + 02 co2
(iv) CH, + 202 COz + 2H20
(a) (?) and (iv) (b) (ii) only
(c) (?) and (if) (d) (Hi) and (iv)
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Q.11. Which of the following gases can be used for storage of fresh sample of an oil for
a long time ?
(n) Carbon dioxide or oxygen (b) Nitrogen or oxygen
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(c) Carbon dioxide or helium , (d) Helium or nitrogen
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Q.12. Which one of the following processes involve chemical reactions ?
(a) Storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a gas cylinder.
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(b) Liquefaction of air.
(c) Keeping petrol in a china dish in the open.
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,(d) Heating copper wire in presence of air at high temperature.
Q.13. Which of the following are combination reactions ?
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Heat
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(?) 2KC103 * 2KC1 + 302
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(ii) MgO + H20 -> Mg(OH):

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(???) 4A1 + 302 — -> 2A1203

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(iv) Zn + FeS04 - —> ZnS04 + Fe

(a) (?) and (???) (b) (Hi) and (iv)
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(c) (ii) and (iv) ^ (d) (H) and (???)

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Q.14. The following reaction is used for the preparation of oxygen gas in the laboratory
Heat
2KCIO3 (s) ^ 2KC1 (s) + 302 (^)
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Catalyst
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Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct about the reaction ?

(ci) It is a decomposition reaction and endothermic in nature.
(b) It is a combination reaction.
(c) It is a decomposition reaction and accompanied by release of heat.
(d) It is a photochemical decomposition reaction and exothermic in nature.
Q.15. In which of the following chemical equations, the abbreviations represent the correct
states of the reactants and products involved at reaction temperature ?
(a) 2H2 (/) + 02 (/)-----> 2H20 (g) (b) 2H2 (g) + 02 (/) - 2H20 (/)
(c) 2H2 (y) + 02 (g)-----> 2H20 (/) ^(d) 2H2(g) + 02(g) ^ 2H20 (g)
Q.16. Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. The mole ratio of hydrogen and
oxygen gases liberated during electrolysis of water is
(a) 1:1 Ah) 2:1
(c) 4:1 (d) 1:2
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Q.17. Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and
ammonium chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of the reaction
involved ?
(i) Displacement reaction
(ii) Precipitation reaction
(Hi) Combination reaction
(iv) Double displacement reaction
(a) (/') only (b) (ii) only
(c) (iv) only (d) (ii) and (iv)
Q.18. In the double displacement reaction between aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous
lead nitrate, a yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. While performing the activity if lead
nitrate is not available., which of the following can be used in place of lead nitrate ?
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(n) Lead sulphate (insoluble) s(b) Lead acetate
(c) Ammonium nitrate (d) Potassium sulphate
Flo
Q.19. Three beakers labelled as A, B and C each containing 25 mL of water were taken. A
small amount of NaOH, anhydrous CuS04 and NaCI were added to the beakers A, B and C
ee
respectively. It was observed that there was an increase in the temperature of the solutions
Fr
contained in beakers .4 and B, whereas in case of beaker C, the temperature of the solution
falls. Which one of the following statement(s) is (are) correct ?
for
ur
(/) In beakers A and B, exothermic process has occurred.
(ii) In beakers A and B, endothermic process has occurred.
ks
(Hi) In beaker C exothermic process has occurred.
Yo
(iv) In beaker C endothermic process has occurred.
oo
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only

B
(c) (i) and (iv) ^ (d) (ii) and (Hi)

re
Q.20. Which among the following statement(s) is (are) true ? Exposure of silver chloride
to sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to
ou
ad
< (i) the formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride.

Y
(H) sublimation of silver chloride.

(Hi) decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride.
nd
Re
(iv) oxidation of silver chloride.

Fi
'(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (Hi)

(c) (ii) and (Hi) (d) (iv) only
Q.21. A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually added to the beaker containing
acidified permanganate solution. The light purple colour of the solution fades and finally
disappears. Which of the following is the correct explanation for the observation ?
(a) KMnOyis an oxidising agent, it oxidises FeS04.
(b) FeS04 acts as an oxidising agent and oxidises KMn04.
(c) The colour disappears due to dilution; no reaction is involved.
(d) KMn04 is an unstable compound and decomposes in presence of FeS04 to a colourless
compound.
Q.22. Which of the following statements about the given reaction are correct ?
3Fe (s) + 4H20 (g) Fe304 (s) + 4H2 (£)
(i) Iron metal is getting oxidised.
(ii) Water is getting reduced.
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20 U-Like Science-X
(Hi) Water is acting as reducing agent.

(iv) Water is acting as oxidising agent.
(a) (i), (ii) and (Hi) (b) (Hi) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
23. Which of the following is not a physical change ?
(a) Boiling of water to give water vapour.
(b) Melting of ice to give water.
(c) Dissolution of salt in water.
s'
(d) Combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG).
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
w
1. (a) "The statement that substances appearing on the left hand side of the equation are called
products" is incorrect.
2. (a) The balanced equation for the reaction is
Flo
3Fe + 4H20 Fe304 + 4H2
ee
3. (c) Ca(OH)2 + C02 4 CaC03 + H20
Calcium
Fr
Carbonate
4. (b) This is an example of double displacement reaction
for
ur
AgNG3 + NaCl-----> AgCl (s) + NaNQ3
5. (c) Tire reaction takes place as under
ks
Heat
2FeS04 (s) -> Fe203 (s) + S02 (£) + S03 (g)
Yo
oo
Ferric oxide
6. (a) Heat is evolved only when water reacts with quick lime and when the acid is diluted with
B
water.
re
7. (c) In NH3/ H has been displaced by O. Thus it is a displacement reaction. Also NH3 has been
oxidised to NO and 02 has been reduced to H20. This is redox reaction also.
ou
ad
8. (d) Heat is absorbed when dry ice sublimes and water evaporates. Therefore, cooling is
Y
produced.
9. (b) Heat is liberated when solid calcium oxide reacts with water. Calcium hydroxide produced,
nd
Re
being a base, has pH more than 7.

Fi
10. (b) The anions and cations are exchanged in the reaction (ii) only.
11. (d) Carbon dioxide and oxygen might react with the oil. Helium and nitrogen gases do not
react.
12. (d) Copper wire on heating in presence of air at high temperature forms copper oxide,
which is a chemical reaction. Processes in (a), (b) and (c) do not involve any chemical
change.
13. (d) Combination reactions are those in which two or more reactants react to give one
product only.
14. (a) Heating is required for this reaction, i.e., it is an endothermic reaction.
15. (d) Water is obtained in vapour phase when gaseous hydrogen and oxygen react together.
16. (b) Hydrogen and oxygen gases are produced in the molar ratio of 2 : 1 on electrolysis of
water
Electrolysis
2H20 » 2H2 + 02
ReadYourFlow.COM
tVjJcmno., ts^soî- ioFe.s<5^ 14^+2
9ô- 1
17. (d) It is a double displacement reaction but at the same time precipitation of BaS04 also
takes place.
18. (b) Lead sulphate being insoluble will not dissociate to give lead ions. Hence precipitation
of lead iodide will not be possible with lead sulphate.
19. (c) Increase of temperature means exothermic process and fall of temperature means
endothermic process.
20. {a) Silver chloride turns grey due to the formation of silver by decomposition of silver
chloride.
^H21. (n) KMn04 is an oxidizing agent. It oxidizes ferrous sulphate to ferric sulphate and is itself
reduced to manganese sulphate which is colourless.
22. (c) Fe is oxidized to Fe304 and H20 is reduced to H2. Thus Fe is acting as reducing agent
w
and H20 is acting as oxidizing agent.
23. (d) Combustion of LPG involves a chemical change.
Flo
#
OTHER IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
ee
Fr
(A) Very Short Answer Type Questions (One Mark Each)
Q.l. Balance the following chemical equation : [CBSE 20081
for
ur
Fe (s) + H20 (g) Fe304 (s) + H2 (g)
Ans. The balanced chemical equation is :
ks
Yo
3Fe (s) + 4H20 (g) - Fe304 (s) + 4H2 (g)
oo
jJ, Q.2. What happens chemically when quick lime is added to water ? [CBSE 200$1
B
Ans. Quick lime reacts vigorously with water to produce calcium hydroxide releasing a
re
large amount of heat.

CaO (s) + H20 (/) * Ca(OH)2 (aq)
ou
ad
Quick Calcium hydroxide

lime (Slaked lime)
Y
Q.3. On adding dilute hydrochloric acid to copper oxide powder, the solution formed is
nd
blue-green. Predict the new compound formed which imparts a blue-green colour to the solution.
Re
[CBSE 2008]
Fi
Ans. The new compound formed is cuprous chloride. It imparts a blue-green colour to the
solution.
CuO (s) + 2HC1 (aq)---- » CuCl2 (aq) + H2G
Cuprous
chloride
(Blue-green colour)
Q.4. Why is respiration considered an exothermic process ? [CBSE 2008]
Ans. We need energy to stay alive. We get this energy from the food we eat. During digestion,
the food is broken down to simple substances. For example, rice, potatoes etc., contain starch
which is broken down to glucose. During respiration, glucose is oxidised to C02 and H20 with
the help of oxygen inhaled during respiration. Energy is evolved in this process.
C6H1206 (aq) + 602 (g)---- > 6C02 (g) + 6H20 (/) + Heat
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j.
22 U-Like Science-X
Q.5.
Which of the following processes represent a chemical reaction ?
(a)
Grapes get fermented.
(b)
Lighting of an electric bulb.
(c)
Passing electricity through acidulated water.
(d)
Magnetising an iron bar.
Ans.
(n) Grapes get fermented and
(c)
Passing electricity through acidulated water are examples of chemical reaction.
Q.6.
What happens when a magnesium ribbon is ignited ? Give chemical reaction.
Ans.
2Mg + 02---- > 2MgO
Magnesium ribbon burns with a dazzling light.
Q.7. Potato chips manufacturers fill the packet of chips with nitrogen gas. Why ?
w
[CBSE 20111
Ans. Flushing bags of chips with nitrogen cuts off oxygen and protects the food from rancidity.
Flo
Q.8. Write the equation in the symbolic form with state symbols for the following reaction :
Zinc + Sulphuric acid---- » Zinc sulphate + Hydrogen
ee
Ans. Zn (s) + H2S04 (aq) ZnS04 (aq) + H2 (y)
Fr
Q.9. Balance the following equation :
Fe + H20 Fe304 + H2
for
ur
Ans. 3Fe + 4FLO -> Fe304 + 4H2
Q.10. Why do we mb magnesium ribbon with a sand-paper before igniting ?
ks
Ans. To remove the layer of oxide and carbonate from the surface of magnesium ribbon.
Yo
oo
u Q.ll. Rewrite the following equation after putting reaction conditions :

T CO (g) + 2H2 (g) CH3OH (/)
B
6C02 (ntj) + 6H,0 (/) C6H1206 (aq) + 602 (aq)

re
Glucose
ou
340 atm
ad
Ans. CO (g) + 2H2 (g) CH3OH (/)

Y
Sunlight
6C02 (aq) + 6H20 (I) -> C6H12°6 (al) + 602 (aq)
Chlorophyll
nd
Re
Glucose
Q.12. N2 + 3H2 2NH3/ name the type of reaction. [CBSE 2011]
Fi
Ans. It is a combination reaction.

Q.13. Tell whether heat is evolved or absorbed when quick lime is added to water.
Ans. Heat is evolved i.e., solution becomes hot.
Q.14. Tell whether respiration is exothermic or endothermic. Why ?
Ans. Respiration is exothermic because heat is evolved due to oxidation of glucose with
oxygen that we inhale from the atmosphere.
Q.15. Which colour change and smell are observed when crystals of ferrous sulphate are
heated ? Give chemical reaction also.
Ans. Green colour of ferrous sulphate disappears and a smell of burning sulphur is noticed.
2FeS04.7H20 —Fe203 + S02 + S03 + 14H20
Ferrous sulphate Ferric Burning
(Green) oxide sulphur
smell
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Q.16. Lead nitrate on heating gives lead oxide, nitrogen oxide and oxygen. Write balanced
equation with state symbols for this reaction.
Ans. 2Pb(N03)2 (s) Heat * 2PbO (s) + 4N02 (g) + 02 (g)
Q.17. If copper metal is heated over a flame it develops a coating. What is the colour and
composition of coating ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. We get a black coating of CuO, copper oxide.
Q.18. Hydrogen and oxygen gases are produced at the cathode and anode respectively in
the electrolysis of acidulated water. What is the ratio of the volumes of hydrogen and oxygen
gases ?
Ans. Hydrogen and oxygen gases are produced in the ratio of 2 : 1.
Q.19. Silver chloride on photochemical decomposition produces silver and chlorine. What
w
is the application of this reaction ?
Sunlight -> 2Ag (s) + Cl2 (g)
Ans. 2AgCl (s)
Flo
This reaction finds application in black and white photography.
Q.20. What are exothermic and endothermic reactions ?
ee
Ans. Reactions in which energy is evolved are called exothermic reactions. For example,
Fr
burning of carbon.
Reactions in which energy is absorbed are called endothermic reactions. For example, com
for
ur
bination of nitrogen and oxygen to give nitric oxide.
Q.21. Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the following reaction :
ks
Carbon monoxide reacts with hydrogen gas at 340 atm to form methyl alcohol
Yo
oo
[CBSE 2011]
340 atm
B
Ans. CO (g) + 2H2 (g) 4 CH3OH (/).

re
Q.22. Which one is a chemical change — fermentation of fruit juice or diluting fruit juice ?
[CBSE 2011]
ou
ad
Ans. Fermentation of fruit juice is a chemical change.

Y
• Q.23. Which of the following reactions is oxidation and which is reduction ?

(n) 2Cu + 02 2CuO
nd
Re
Heat
(b) CuO + H2 -> Cu + H20
Fi
Ans. Reaction (a) represents oxidation while reaction (b) represents reduction.
Q.24. In the following reactions, which reactants undergo oxidation and which reactants
undergo reduction ?
(fl) ZnO + C Zn + CO
(b) MnOz + 4HC1 MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H,0
Ans. (fl) ZnO undergoes reduction as it loses O to change into Zn. C undergoes oxidation as
it gains O to change into CO.
(b) Mn02 undergoes reduction as it loses O. HC1 undergoes oxidation as it loses H.
Q.25. What are the conditions that promote corrosion ?
Ans. Substances such as oxygen, carbon dioxide, moisture and acids promote corrosion.
Q.26. What do we mean when we say that a substance has gone rancid ?
Ans. It means that the smell and taste of the substance have changed.
Q.27. Is burning of a candle wax a physical change or a chemical change ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. It is a chemical change. The hydrocarbon of wax bums to produce C02 and H20.
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24 U-Like Science-X
Q.28. State one basic difference between a physical change and a chemical change. 4
[CBSE 20111
Ans. No new substance is formed in a physical change while a new substance is formed in
a chemical change.
Q.29. Name and state the law which is kept in mind when we balance a chemical equation.
[CBSE 2012]
Ans. While balancing a chemical equation, we follow the law of conservation of mass which
states : matter can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
Q.30. AgN03 (aq) + NaCl (aq) AgCl (s)i + NaN03 (aq)
4 FeS + H2S04 FeS04 + H2ST
Consider the above mentioned two chemical equations with two different kinds of arrows
w
(T) and (i) along with products. What do these two different arrows indicate ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. The upward arrow (T) indicates that the product is a gas while the downward arrow
(i) indicates that the product is insoluble and appears as precipitate.
Flo
Q.31. Complete and balance the following equation :
ee
Fe203 + A1 [CBSE 2010]
Fr
Ans. Fe203 (s) + 2A1 (s) * A1203 (s) + 2Fe (s)
Q.32 Define oxidation and reduction. [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Ans. Oxidation is addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen. Reduction is addition of
or
ur
hydrogen or removal of oxygen. f
Q.33. Give an example of double displacement reaction (only reaction with complete
ks
[CBSE 2010, 2011]
Yo
balanced equation).
oo
Ans. NaCl (aq) + AgNQ3 (aq)---- > AgCl (s)-l + NaN03 (aq)
B
(B-l) Short Answer Type Questions (Two Marks Each)

re
Q.l. What is an oxidation reaction ? Identify in the following reaction :

ou
ad
(?) the substance oxidized and

(ii) the substance reduced
Y
ZnO + C Zn + CO [CBSE 2008]

nd
Ans. Oxidation reaction is one which involves gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen.
Re
In the reaction
Fi
ZnO + C * Zn + CO
(i) C is oxidised to CO
(ii) ZnO is reduced to Zn.
Q.2. Give an example of decomposition reaction. Describe an activity to illustrate such a
reaction by heating. [CBSE 2008]
Ans. Aii example of decomposition reaction is decomposition of lead nitrate to give lead
oxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen on heating.
Heat
2Pb(N03)2 (s) > 2PbO (s) + 4N02 (g) + 02 (g)
Lead nitrate Lead Nitrogen Oxygen
oxide dioxide
Activity.
To illustrate this reaction :
Take about 2 g lead nitrate powder in a boiling tube.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Hold the boiling tube with a pair of tongs and heat it over a flame. (Fig. 1.11)
Test-tube holder
Boiling tube
Lead nitrate
ft
Burner
00
Fig. 1.11 Heating of lead nitrate and emission of nitrogen dioxide
w
We observe that brown fumes of N02 are emitted. This illustrates decomposition reaction by
heating.
Flo
Q.3. When potassium iodide solution is added to a solution of lead (II) nitrate in a test
ee
tube, a precipitate is formed.
(0 What is the colour of this precipitate ?
Fr
(ii) Name the compound precipitated.
(Hi) Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
for
ur
(iv) What type of reaction is this ? [CBSE 2008]
Ans. (i) The colour of the precipitate is yellow.
ks
(ii) The compound precipitated is lead iodide (Pbl2).
Yo
oo
(Hi) The balanced chemical equation for the reaction is :

B
Pb(N03)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq)---- > Pbl2 (s) + 2KN03 (aq)

re
(iv) It is a double displacement reaction.

Q.4. A small amount of ferrous sulphate were heated in a hard glass test tube.
ou
ad
(i) Write the equations involved in the reaction.

Y
(ii) What type of reaction is taking place ? [CBSE 2011]

Heat
Ans. (i) FeS04 -> Fe203 + S02 + S03
nd
Re
(ii) It is a thermal decomposition reaction.

Fi
Q.5. Select (/) combination reaction and (ii) decomposition reaction from the following
chemical equations :
(a) C + 02 co2
(b) NaBr + AgN03 AgBr + NaN03
(c) CaC03 —^ CaO + C02
(d) H2S + Cl2 2HC1 + S
Ans. (i) Reaction (a) is combination reaction.
(ii) Reaction (c) is decomposition reaction.
Q.6. Consider the following displacement reactions :
(i) Fe (s) + CuS04 (aq) FeS04 (aq) + Cu (s)
(ii) Zn (s) + FeS04 (aq) ZnS04 (aq) + Fe (s)
State, out of three metals Zn, Cu and Fe which is the least reactive and which is the most
reactive ?
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26 U-Like Science-X
Ans. In reaction (i), Fe displaces Cu from CuS04 solution. Hence, Fe is more reactive than
Cu. In reaction (ii), Zn displaces Fe from FeS04 solution. Hence, Zn is more reactive than Fe.
From reactions (z) and (ii), we conclude that Zn is more reactive than Fe which is more reactive
than Cu.
Thus, Zn is the most reactive while Cu is least reactive of the three.
Q.7. Write balanced equation for each of the following :
(z) Chlorine gas bums in hydrogen gas to give hydrogen chloride.
(ii) Hydrogen sulphide bums in air to give water and sulphur oxide.
Ans. (z) Cl2 + H2---- > 2HC1
(ii) 2H2S + 302---- > 2H20 + 2S02
Q.8. Translate the following statements into balanced chemical equations :
w
if (z) Potassium permanganate on heating gives potassium manganate, manganese dioxide
and oxygen.
(ii) Magnesium reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Flo
Ans. (z) 2KMn04 (s) —^ K2Mn04 (s) + Mn02 (s) + 02 (g)
ee
(ii)
Mg (s) + 2H20 (g) —* Mg(OH)2 (aq) + H2 (g)
Fr
Q.9.
Fill in the blanks :
(z)
The reaction, CaC03---- > CaO + COz is a ........ reaction.
for
ur
(ii)
The solution in water is known as ........ solution and is denoted by.........
Ans. (z) endothermic
ks
(ii)
aqueous, (aq).
Yo
Q.10.
What is a redox reaction ? Write down a chemical equation representing it.
oo
[CBSE 2011]
B
Ans. A reaction in which one reactant gets oxidised while the other gets reduced is called
re
redox reaction.
Reduction
ou
ad
r
Y
ZnO + C Zn + CO
L
Oxidation
nd
Re
Q.ll. We know that magnesium is more reactive than copper or iron, but iron is more
Fi
reactive than copper. Which of the following pots will get damaged and why ?
(i) A solution of magnesium sulphate is kept into copper pot.
(ii) A solution of copper sulphate is kept in iron pot.
(Hi) A solution of magnesium sulphate is kept into iron pot.
Ans. (i) Cu + MgS04
No reaction takes place because Cu is less reactive than Mg. Hence, Cu pot will not be
damaged.
(ii) Fe + CuS04 •> FeSQ4 + Cu
The reaction will take place because Fe is more reactive than Cu. Hence, Fe pot will be
damaged.
(Hi) Fe + MgS04 ->
No reaction takes place because Fe is less reactive than Mg. Hence, Fe pot will not be damaged.
Thus, out of the three cases as given above, only in reaction (ii), Fe pot will be damaged.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.12. What change will you observe if white silver chloride is placed in sunlight ? Write
an equation for the reaction and the type of reaction. [CBSE 20111
Ans. White silver chloride turns grey due to the following reaction :
Sunlight
2AgCl * 2Ag + Cl2
Photo decomposition reaction takes place.
Q.13. Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and a
precipitate of barium sulphate.
(z) Translate the above statement into a chemical equation.
(zz) State two types in which this reaction can be classified. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. (z) The chemical equation can be written as
3BaCl2 + A12(S04)3 2A1C13 + 3BaS04
w
(zz) The reaction can be classified as
(zz) Double displacement.
Flo
{b) Precipitation.
Q.14. When a green compound is heated strongly, its colour changes to black and odour
ee
of burning sulphur is given out.
Fr
(zz) Name the compound.
(b) State the type of reaction.
for
ur
(c) Write the chemical equation involved. [CBSE 2011]
Or
ks
A small amount of ferrous sulphate was heated in a hard glass test tube,
Yo
(z) Write the equations involved in the above reaction.

oo
(zz) What type of reaction is taking place ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]

B
Ans. (a) The green compound is FeS04.

re
(b) It is thermal decomposition reaction.

Heat ■> Fe203 (s) + S02t + S03T
ou
ad
(c) 2FeS04 (s)

Q.15. A white compound on heating decomposes to give brown fumes and a yellow residue
Y
is left behind. Name the compound. Write the chemical equation of the reaction stating its
nd
Re
type. [CBSE 2011]

Or
Fi
A white salt on heating decomposes to give brown fumes and a residue is left behind,
(z) Name the salt.
(zz) Write the equation for the decomposition reaction. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. The compound is lead nitrate, Pb(N03)2.
The reaction involved is
Heat
2Pb(N03)2 > 2PbO + 4N02 + 02
Lead oxide Brown
(yellow residue) gas
f Q.16. A light sensitive compound 'X' of silver is used in black and white photography. On
exposure to sunlight its colour changes to grey.
(zz) Identify 'X'.
(b) Write a chemical equation to express the above change.
(c) Identify the type of chemical reaction. [CBSE 2011]
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28 U-Like Science-X
Ans. (a) The compound X is silver bromide, AgBr.

(b) The chemical equation for the change is
Sunlight
2AgBr (s) ■» 2Ag (s) + Br2 (g)
(c) It is a photochemical decompostion reaction.
Q.17. Why do we store silver chloride in dark coloured bottles ? Explain in brief.
ICBSE 2010]
Or
A small quantity of silver chloride is kept in the sunlight in a china dish for about half
an hour.
(i) State the change you would observe in the colour of silver chloride. Suggest a reason
for this change.
w
(ii) Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place in this case.
[CBSE 2012]
Flo
Ans. Silver chloride on exposure to sunlight decomposes according to the following equation :
Sunlight
2AgCl (s) 2Ag (s) + Cl2 (g)T
ee
■»
That is why silver chloride is kept in dark coloured bottles.
Fr
Q.18. Identify the type of each of the following reactions :
(a) A reaction in which a single product is formed from two or more reactants.
for
ur
(b) The reaction mixture becomes warm.
(c) An insoluble substance is formed.
ks
(d) External surface of the container in which reaction takes place becomes freezing
Yo
oo
cold. [CBSE 2012]

Ans. (a) Combination reaction (b) Exothermic reaction
B
(c) Precipitation reaction (d) Endothermic reaction

re
Q.19. "A solution of potassium chloride when mixed with silver nitrate solution, an
insoluble white substance is formed."
ou
ad
(0 Translate the above statement into a chemical equation.

Y
(ii) State two types for this reaction. [CBSE 2010]

Or
nd
Re
A solution of potassium chloride when mixed with silver nitrate solution, an insoluble
Fi
white substance is formed. Write the chemical reaction involved and also mention the type of
the chemical reaction. [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Ans. (i) The chemical equation involved in the reaction can be written as
KC1 (aq) + AgN03 (aq) -> AgCl (s) + KN03 (aq)
(ii) Two types associated with the reaction are
(a) Double displacement reaction
(b) Precipitation reaction.
Q.20. Solutions of lead nitrate and potassium iodide are mixed in a test tube.
(a) Write the chemical equation involved in a balanced form. [CBSE 2011] *
(b) What is the colour of the precipitate ? Name the precipitate. [CBSE 2010] ‘
Or
When a solution of potassium iodide is added to a solution of lead nitrate taken in a test
tube, a reaction takes place.
What type of reaction is this ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]
ReadYourFlow.COM
Or *
Identify the type of the reaction, when lead (II) nitrate solution is mixed with potassium
iodide solution.
Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the above reaction. [CBSE 2010]
Ans. (a) The chemical equation involved is
Pb(N03)2 H) + KI (aq)-----> Pbl2 (s) + KN03 (aq)
ppt.
(b) Colour of the precipitate is yellow. It is lead iodide, Pbl2.
Q-21- "Oxidation and reduction processes occur simultaneously." Justify this statement
with the help of an example. [CBSE 2010]
Ans. Consider the following reaction
w
2H2S + S02 3S +
l 4
Flo
Reduced
Oxidised
ee
H2S has been oxidised to H20 while S02 has been reduced to S. Therefore oxidation and
Fr
reduction processes occur simultaneously.
Q.22. Write the balanced equations for the following reactions and identify the type of
reaction in each case :
for
ur
(0 Potassium bromide + Barium iodide Potassium iodide + Barium bromide.
(ii) Hydrogen (g) + Chlorine (Cl2) Hydrogen chloride (g) [CBSE 2011]
ks
Yo
Ans. (i) 2KBr + Bal2 2KI + BaBr2
oo
It is a double decomposition and precipitation type of reaction.

B
(H) H2 (?) + Cl2 (g) •> 2HC1 (g)

re
It is a photochemical combination type of reaction.

4|> Q.23. (i) When a metal 'X' is added to salt solution of a metal 'Y, following chemical
ou
ad
reaction takes place :

Y
Metal X + Salt solution of 'Y Salt solution of 'X' + Metal 'Y'

(ii) Mention the inference you draw regarding the reactivity of metal 'X' and 'Y and also
nd
Re
about the type of reaction. State the reason of your conclusions. [CBSE 2012]
Fi
Ans. The following inference is drawn from the reaction.

(i) Metal X is more reactive than metal Y.
(n‘) A more reactive metal (which is higher on the reactivity series) displaces a less reactive
metal (which is lower on the reactivity series). It is a displacement reaction.
Q.24. Give one example of each :
(0 Chemical reaction showing evolution of gas.
(ii) Change in colour of a substance during chemical reaction. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. 0) Evolution of gas
Zn (s) + H2S04 (aq) ZnS04 (aq) + H2 (g)T
(ii) Change in colour
Sunlight
2AgCl 4 2Ag + Cl2
White Grey
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'Jf Q.25. Why do silver articles turn black and copper items turn green after sometime ?
[CBSE 2013]
Ans. Silver articles turn black and copper items turn green after sometime.
This is because these metals are attacked by moisture, acids etc. present in the atmosphere.
The black colour on silver is due to the formation of Ag2S and the green colour on copper items
is due to the formation of CuC03.
Q.26. Translate the following statement into chemical equation and then balance it :
"A metal in the form of ribbon burns with a dazzling white flame and changes into a
white powder." [CBSE 20131
Ans. It is the magnesium ribbon which burns with a dazzling white light and produces a
white powder of MgO.
low
Bum
2Mg + 02 * 2MgO
(B-ll) Short Answer Type Questions (Three Marks Each)
Q.l. Name the type of chemical reaction represented by the following equations :
ee
Heat rF
(i) CaC03 (s) 4 CaO (s) + C02 (g)
Fr
(ii) CaO (s) + H20 (/) -----> Ca(OH)2 (aq)
(Hi) Zn (s) + H2S04 — ZnS04 (aq) + H2 (g) [CBSE 2011]
Heat for
u
Ans. (z) CaC03 (s) -> CaO (s) + C02 (£)
ks
This is a decomposition reaction.
Yo
(ii) CaO (s) + H20 (I) -> Ca(OH)2 (aq)

oo
This is a combination reaction.

B
(in) Zn (s) + H2S04 ZnS04 (aq) + H2 (g)

re
This is a displacement reaction.

Q.2. Translate the following into balanced chemical equations : t
ou
ad
(i) Chlorine reacts with oxygen to form chlorine heptoxide.

Y
(ii) Lead nitrate reacts with sulphuric acid to form a precipitate of lead sulphate and
nitric acid.
nd
Re
(Hi) Magnesium bums in the presence of nitrogen to form magnesium nitride.

Fi
Ans. (i) 2C12 (g) + 702 (g)---- > 2C1207 (s)

(ii) Pb(N03)2 (aq) + H2S04 (aq)---- > PbS04 (s) + 2HN03 (aq)
(in) 3Mg (s) + N2 (g) Mg3N2 (s)
Q.3. Name the substances oxidised and reduced, and also identify the oxidizing agents
and reducing agents in the following reactions :
(2) Fe203 + 3CO 2Fe + 3CO,
(ii) 3Mn02 + 4A1 3Mn + 2A1203
(Hi) H2S + S02 S + h2o
Ans. (/) Pe203 + 3CO ---- > 2Fe + 3C02
Fe203 is reduced because oxygen has been reduced and CO is oxidised because O has been
added to it. Pe203 has acted as oxidizing agent and CO has acted as reducing agent.
(ii) 3Mn02 + 4A1---- > 3Mn + 2A1203
Mn02 is reduced because O has been removed from it to give Mn. A1 has been oxidised
because O has been added to it to obtain A1203. Mn02 is the oxidising agent while A1 is reducing
agent.
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(Hi) 2H2S + S02 * 3S + 2H20

H2S has lost H to change into S. Thus, it has been oxidised. S02 has lost O to change into S.
Thus, it has been reduced. H2S has acted as reducing agent while S02 has acted as oxidizing agent.
Q.4. A, B and C are three elements which undergo chemical reaction according to the
following equations :
A2O3 + 2B B2O3 + 2A
3CS04 + 2B 62(804)3 + 3C
SCO + 2A A2O3 + 3C
Answer the following questions with reasons :
(fl) Which element is the most reactive ?
(b) Which element is the least reactive ?
low
(c) What is the type of reactions listed above ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. (a) B is the most reactive element.
B displaces both A and C from their solutions.
(b) C is the least reactive element.
ee
C is displaced both by A and B. rF
Fr
(c) The reactions given above are all displacement reactions.
Q.5. Balance the following chemical reactions :
for
(z) KMn04 (aq) + HC1 (aq)---> KC1 (aq) + MnCl2 (aq) + Cl2 (g) + H20 (/)
(n) CaCl2 (aq) + K3P04 (aq)--> Ca3(P04)2 (s) + KC1 (aq)
u
ks
(Hi) NaOH (aq) + H2S04 (aq)-» Na2S04 (aq) + H20 (/)
Yo
(iv) K (s) + 02 (£)---- > K20 (s)

oo
(v) CaC03 (s) + HC1 (aq)---- > CaCl2 (s) + H20 (l) + C02 (g)
B
(vi) A1 (s) + HC1 (aq)---- > A1C13 (s) + Cl2 (^)

re
Ans. (z) 2KMn04 (aq) + 16HC1 (aq)---- ■> 2KC1 (aq) + 2MnCl2 (aq) + 5C12 (g) + 8H20
(ii) 3CaCl2 (aq) + 2K3PO4 (aq)----> Ca3(P04)2 (s) + 6KC1 (aq)
ou
ad
(in) NaOH (aq) + H2S04 (aq)---> Na2S04 (aq) + H20 (/) (Already balanced)
Y
(iv) 4K (s) + 02 (g)---- > 2K20 (s)

(v) CaC03 (s) + 2HC1 (aq)---- > CaCl2 (s) + H20 (I) + C02 (g)
nd
Re
(vi) 2A1 (s) + 6HC1 (aq)---- > 2A1C13 (s) + 3H2 (g)
Fi
Q.6. (zz) A solution of a substance 'X' is used for testing carbon dioxide. What will be the
reaction of 'X' with carbon dioxide ? Write balanced equation for this reaction.
(b) How is 'X' obtained ? Give chemical equation. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. (a) 'X' is calcium hydroxide or slaked lime.
'X' reacts with carbon dioxide to form calcium carbonate which appears as a white precipitate.
The balanced equation for this reaction is :
Ca(OH)2 (aq) + C02 (g)---- > CaC03 (s) + H20 (/)
Precipitate
(b) 'X' i.e., calcium hydroxide is obtained by adding water to quick lime (CaO) as per the
following equation :
CaO (s) + H20 (/)---- > Ca(OH)2 (aq)
Q.7. A small amount of quick lime is added to water in a beaker.
(a) Name and define the type of reaction that has taken place.
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32 U-Like Science-X
(b) Write balanced chemical equation for the above reaction. Write the chemical name
of product obtained.
(c) State two observations that you will make in the reaction. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. {a) It is a combination reaction.
When two or more reactants combine to give a single product, it is termed as combination
reaction.
(b) CaO (s) + H20 (/) —> Ca(OH)2 (aq)
Calcium Calcium
oxide hydroxide
(c) (i) Quick lime reacts vigorously with water producing calcium hydroxide.
(ii) A large amount of heat is produced.
w
Q.8. In the electrolysis of water :
(0 Name the gas collected at the cathode and the anode.
(ii) Why is the volume of gas collected at one electrode is double of the other ?
Flo
(Hi) Why are a few drops of dil. H2S04 added to the water ? [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
ee
Ans. (i) The following gases are collected :
Fr
At cathode : Hydrogen At Anode : Oxygen
(ii) H : O = 2 : 1
(Hi) Pure water does not conduct electricity. A few drops of dil. H2S04 are added to make
for
ur
water conducting.
Q.9. Write balanced chemical equation for the reactions that take place during respiration.
ks
Yo
Identify the type of combination reaction that takes place during this process and justify the
oo
name. Give one more example of this type of reaction. [CBSE 2012]
B
Ans. (i) The carbohydrates that we take in our food are oxidised to carbon dioxide and
re
water.
C6Hi2°6 H) + 602 (aq) 6COz (aq) + 6H20
ou
ad
Carbon of carbohydrate and oxygen combine to form C02.

Y
(ii) It is an exothermic combination reaction.

(Hi) Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is another example of this type of
nd
Re
reaction.
Fi
Q.10. An aqueous solution of metal nitrate 'P reacts with sodium bromide solution to
form yellow precipitate compound 'Q' which is used in photography. 'Q' on exposure to
sunlight undergoes decomposition reaction to form metal present in along with a reddish
brown gas. Identify 'P' and 'Q'. Write balanced chemical equation for the chemical reaction.
List two categories in which this reaction can be placed. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. (i) P is silver nitrate, AgN03.
Q is silver bromide, AgBr.
Sunlight
(ii) AgN03 (aq) + NaBr (aq) ■» AgBr (s) + NaNQ3 (aq)
Silver bromide
(Q)
Sunlight
2AgBr -» 2Ag + Br2
Bromide
(Brown gas)
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(Hi) Decomposition of silver bromide can be put under two categories :

(a) Decomposition reaction.
(b) Photochemical reaction.
v Q.ll. Complete and balance the following equations :
(0 nh3 + o2
(ii) NaOH + H2S04
(Hi) Pb(N03)2 + KI [CBSE 20131
Ans. (i) 4NH3 + 502 ■» 4NO + 6H20
(ii) 2NaOH + H2S04 * Na2S04 + 2H20
(Hi) Pb(N03)2 + 2KI ■» Pbl2 + 2KN03
Q.12. Define the following terms :
low
(0 Corrosion (ii) Rusting (Hi) Rancidity.' [CBSE 20131
Ans. (i) Corrosion : When a metal is attacked by substances around it such as moisture,
acids, etc., it is said to corrode and this process is called corrosion.
(ii) Rusting : Corrosion of iron is given the special name rusting. When exposed to moist
ee
air for a long time, iron acquires a coating of brown flaky substance called rust.
rF
Fr
(Hi) Rancidity : When oils and fats are exposed to air for a long time, they are oxidized.
Their smell and taste change. This phenomenon is called rancidity.
(C) Long Answer Type Questions (Five Marks Each) for
u
Q.l. (a) Give examples of decomposition reactions carried out with the help of
ks
Yo
(i) electricity (ii) radiation
oo
Give balanced chemical equations.

B
(b) Define displacement reaction. Which of the two is correct ?

re
(i) Copper can displace silver from the solution of silver nitrate.
(ii) Silver can displace copper from the solution of copper nitrate.
ou
ad
Ans. (a) Decomposition reaction carried out with the help of electricity.
Y
Electric
2H20 (/) current
2H2 (s) + 02 (£)
nd
Re
Decomposition reaction carried with the help of radiation (sunlight).

Fi
Sunlight
2AgCl (s) * 2Ag (s) + Cl2 (S)
(b) A reaction in which an element displaces another is called displacement reaction. For
example, Zn displaces Cu from a solution of CuS04.
Zn (s) + CuS04 (aq) ---- » ZnS04 (aq) + Cu (s)
Out of the two options (i) and (ii), (i) is correct because Cu is more reactive than Ag.
Cu (s) + 2AgN03 (aq) ---- > Cu(N03)2 (aq) + 2Ag (s)
Q.2. (a) What colour changes do you observe when :
(i) you add Zn to a solution of copper sulphate ?
(ii) you add Pb to a solution of cupric chloride ?
Write balanced equations.
(b) Complete and balance the following equations :
(0 HgCl2 + KI ■>
(ii) A1 + Cr203 ■»
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34 U-Like Science-X
(Hi) CuS04 + H2S —

(iv) (NH4)2Cr207 —
Ans. (a) (/') Blue colour of copper sulphate disappears.
Zn (s) + CuS04 (acj)---- > ZnS04 (aq) + Cu (s)
(ii) Green colour of cupric chloride disappears.
Pb (s) + CuCl2 (aq)---- > PbCl2 (aq) + Cu (s)
(b) (i) HgCl2 (aq) + 2KI (aq) —> Hgl2 (aq) + 2KC1 (aq)
(ii) 2A1 (s) + Cr203 (s) A1203 (s) + 2Cr (/)
(Hi) CuS04 (aq) + H2S (g)---- > CuS (?) + H2S04 (aq)
(iv) (NH4)2Cr207 (s) N2 (g) + 4H20 (g) + Cr203 (s)
w
Q.3. (a) Define corrosion.
(b) What is the name given to the corrosion of iron ?
Flo
(c) What is the colour of coating formed on silver and copper ?
(d) What damage is caused by corrosion ?
ee
(e) How can we prevent corrosion ?
Fr
Ans. (a) Surface of a metal reacts with atmospheric oxygen, moisture and carbon dioxide to
form a coating on the surface. This phenomenon is called corrosion.
for
ur
(b) When the metal involved is iron, the phenomenon of corrosion may be called rusting.
(c) Silver forms a black coating and copper forms a green coating on the surface when
ks
exposed to the atmosphere for a long time.
Yo
oo
(d) Corrosion weakens the metal. A great deal of damage is caused to car bodies, bridges,
iron railings and ships.
B
(e) Corrosion can be prevented by coating metal surface with paint.

re
Q.4. (i) Account for the following :

ou
(a) White silver chloride turns grey in sunlight.

ad
(b) Brown coloured copper powder on heating in air turns into black coloured substance.
Y
(ii) What do you mean by :

nd
(a) Displacement reaction ?

Re
(b) Reduction reaction ?

Fi
(c) Combination reaction ?

Write balanced chemical equations. [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Ans. (i) (a) Silver chloride turns grey on exposure to sunlight because of the following
reaction :
Sunlight
2AgCl * 2Ag + Cl2
Metallic silver
(grey)
(b) Oxidation of copper powder takes place. The oxide formed has a black colour.
Heat
2Cu + 02 * 2CuO
Brown Black
(ii) (a) Displacement reaction : A reaction in which a more reactive metal displaces a less
reactive metal from its salt solution is called displacement reaction. For example,
Zn (?) + CuS04 (aq) ZnS04 (aq) + Cu (?)sl
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(b) Reduction reaction : A reaction in which hydrogen is added or oxygen is removed is

called reduction reaction. For example,
ZnO + C----> Zn + CO
In this reaction reduction of ZnO to Zn has taken place.
(c) Combination reaction : A reaction in which two or more reactants combine to give a
single product is called combination reaction. For example,
CaO (s) + H20 (/)----> Ca(OH)2 (aq)
(Slaked lime)
Q.5. Observe the given figure and answer the following questions :
(0 Write the complete balanced reaction.
(H) What is the type of reaction involved ?
w
(Hi) Is there any precipitate formed ?
(iv) If any precipitate is formed, write the colour of the precipitate. [CBSE 2012]
Flo
ee
Fr
Test tube
containing solution
of sodium sulphate
for
ur
►1
Test tube
ks
containing solution
Yo
oo
of barium chloride
B
re
Fig. 1.12
Ans. (i) The complete balanced equation is
ou
ad
Na2S04 (aq) + BaCl2 (aq)----■» BaS04 (s) + 2NaCl (aq)

Y
(«) It is a double displacement reaction.

m A precipitate of barium sulphate, BaS04 is formed in the reaction.
nd
Re
(iv) Colour of the precipitate formed is white.

Fi
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2
Acids, Bases and Salts
[NCERT CHAPTER 2]
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1. Acids are sour in taste, they change the colour of blue litmus to red. Bases are bitter, they
change the colour of red litmus to blue. Phenolphthalein and methyl orange are other
Flo
indicators to test for acids and bases.
2. A stain of curry on a white cloth becomes reddish-brown when soap is scrubbed on it. This
ee
is because soap is alkaline in nature. The stain again becomes yellow when the cloth is
Fr
washed with water.
3. Preparation of litmus solution : Litmus solution is a purple dye which is extracted from
for
ur
a plant called litchen. This dye is used as an indicator to test for acids and bases. When
litmus solution is neither acidic nor basic, its colour is purple. Acids change the colour of
ks
blue litmus to red. Bases change the colour of red litmus to blue.
Yo
oo
4. Other indicators : Natural materials like red cabbage leaves, turmeric paper, coloured
petals of some flowers such as Hydrangea, Petunia and Geranium also act as indicators to
B
test for acids and bases.

re
5. Understanding the chemical properties of acids and bases.

ou
ad
Activity 1. Perform an activity to test for the acidic or basic nature of substances.
Materials required : Hydrochloric acid (HC1), sulphuric acid (H2SO4), nitric acid (HNO3),
Y
acetic acid (CH3COOH), sodium hydroxide (NaOH), potassium hydroxide (KOH), cal
nd
Re
cium hydroxide [Ca(OH)2], magnesium hydroxide [Mg(OH)2], ammonium hydroxide

(NH4OH).
Fi
Procedure :
1. Put a drop of each of the above solutions on a watch glass.
2. Test each of the solution with red litmus solution, blue litmus solution,
phenolphthalein and methyl orange indicators.
3. The observations are tabulated in following table :
Sample Red litmus Blue litmus Phenolphthalein Methyl orange
solution solution solution solution solution
indicator indicator indicator indicator
HC1 Red Red Colourless Pink
h2so4 Red Red Colourless Pink
HN03 Red Red Colourless Pink
CH3COOH Red Red Colourless Pink
NaOH Blue Blue Pink Yellow
(36)
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Acids, Bases and Salts 37
KOH Blue Blue Pink Yellow

Ca(OH)2 Blue Blue Pink Yellow
Mg(OH)2 Blue Blue Pink Yellow
NH4OH Blue Blue Pink Yellow
6. Reaction of Acids with Metals.
Activity 2. Perform an activity to show the reaction of acids and bases on metals.
Materials required : Iron stand, test tube, zinc granules, dil. sulphuric acid, dil. hydrochlo
ric acid, dil. nitric acid, rubber stopper with hole, delivery tube, glass trough, soap solu
tion, water, candle, match box.
Procedure :
1. Set up the apparatus as shown in Fig 2.1.
w
2. Take 5 mL of dilute sulphuric acid in the test tube and add a few pieces of granu
lated zinc to it.
Flo
3. Gas bubbles are produced on the surface of zinc pieces.
4. Pass the gas through soap solution taken in the glass trough.
ee
Delivery tube
Fr
Stand
for
ur
Burning of hydrogen
K gas with a pop sound
ks
Candle
Yo
Test tube —
oo
Dilute —
sulphuric acid £
Hydrogen
gas
o
B
bubbles
o
re
Zinc granules Soap bubble filled

with hydrogen
U
ou
ad
o
O 0 o
Y
0o
35!
- Soap
nd
Re
solution
Fi
Fig. 2.1 Reaction of zinc granules with dilute sulphuric acid

and testing hydrogen gas by burning
5. Bring a burning candle near the soap bubbles.
Observations :
We observe that hydrogen gas filled in the soap bubbles bums with a pop sound.
If we repeat the experiment with dilute hydrochloric acid or dilute nitric acid in place of
dilute sulphuric acid, we again observe that hydrogen gas is produced as a result of
reaction between the metal and the acid. The reaction in general can be written as :
Metal + Acid ^ Salt + Hydrogen gas
The bubbles containing hydrogen gas rise up because hydrogen gas is lighter than air.
The reactions of zinc with sulphuric acid in the symbolic form can be written as :
Zn + H2S04 ZnS04 + H2
Dil. Zinc sulphate
Metals like A1 and Zn also react with strong alkalies and liberate hydrogen gas.
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38 U-Like Science-X
7. Reaction of Metal Carbonates and Metal Hydrogencarbonates with Acids.

Activity 3. Demonstrate an experiment to show the reaction of metal carbonates and metal
hydrogencarbonates with acids.
Materials required : Iron stand, cork, thistle funnel, dil. HC1, delivery tube, sodium
carbonate, sodium hydrogencarbonate. Another test tube containing calcium hydroxide
solution.
Procedure :
1. Set up the apparatus as shown in Fig 2.2.
2. Take 0.5 g sodium carbonate in a test tube. Add 2 mL of dil. hydrochloric acid to
it through the thistle funnel.
3. Pass the gas evolved through the delivery tube into a test tube containing lime
w
water (calcium hydroxide) as shown in the figure.
Thistle funnel
Flo
Stand-
Cork Delivery tube
ee
K
Fr
Test tube
for 11
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Carbon dioxide gas
■ Calcium
hydroxide
Dilute — Test tube
solution
ks
hydrochloric
Yo
acid Sodium carbonate

oo
B
Fig. 2.2 Passing carbon dioxide gas through calcium hydroxide solution
re
4. Repeat the experiment by replacing sodium carbonate by sodium hydrogen-

carbonate.
ou
ad
Observations :
Y
1. In both cases, we find that lime water turns milky. It is due to the evolution of C02
in both cases. Carbon dioxide is evolved when sodium carbonate or sodium
nd
Re
hydrogencarbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.

Fi
2. Carbon dioxide reacts with lime water or calcium hydroxide to produce calcium
carbonate which appears as precipitate and is responsible for milkiness of the
solution. Tire reactions can be written as under :
Na2C03 (s) + 2HC1 (at/) * 2NaCl (aq) + H2Q (/) + C02 (g)
Sodium
carbonate
NaHC03 (s) + HC1 {aq) * NaCl {aq) + H2G (/) + C02 (g)
Sodium
hydrogencarbonate
Carbon dioxide evolved reacts with lime water to produce milkiness.
Ca(OH)2 {aq) + C02 {g) CaC03 (s) + H20 (/)
Lime water Calcium
carbonate (ppt.)
milkiness
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If we pass excess of C02 through lime water, milkiness disappears due to the
formation of soluble calcium hydrogencarbonate.
CaC03 (s) + C02 (g) + H20 (/)-----> Ca(HC03)2 (aq)
Calcium
hydrogencarbonate
8. Reaction of Acids and Bases with each other.
Activity 4. Demonstrate an experiment to show the reaction of acids with bases.
Materials required : Sodium hydroxide solution, hydrochloric acid solution, test tubes,
phenolphthalein.
Procedure :
1. Take 2 mL of dilute NaOH solution in a test tube.
2. Add 2 drops of phenolphthalein indicator. The solution becomes pink.
w
3. Now add dil. HC1 to the above solution drop by drop.
4. The solution becomes colourless.
Flo
5. Now add a few drops of NaOH to the colourless solution. The solution becomes
pink again.
ee
The reaction taking place can be written as under :
Fr
NaOH (aq) + HC1 (aq) ■> NaCl (aq) + H20 (/)
The reaction between an acid and a base to give salt and water is called neutralisation
for
ur
reaction.
In general, an acid-base neutralisation can be expressed as :
ks
Base + Acid -» Salt + Water
Yo
oo
9. Reaction of Metallic Oxides with Acids.

Activity 5. Demonstrate an activity to show the reaction of metallic oxides with acids.
B
Materials required : Beaker, copper oxide, dilute hydrochloric acid.

re
Procedure :
ou
1. Take a small amount of copper oxide in a beaker.

ad
2. Add dilute hydrochloric acid and stir.

Y
3. Copper oxide dissolves in HC1 and we obtain a blue-green solution.

nd
Blue-green colour of the solution is due to the formation of copper chloride.

Re
CuO (s) + 2HC1 (aq) ■> CuCl2 (aq) + H20 (/)

Fi
Copper chloride
In general, a reaction between a . metal oxide and acid can be written as :
Metal oxide + Acid -> Salt + Water
Just as a base reacts with an acid, the metal oxide also reacts with an acid to form salt and
water. Therefore, metallic oxides are said to be basic oxides.
10. Reaction of a Non-metallic Oxide with Bases.
We have seen in Activity 3 that carbon dioxide reacts with lime water (calcium hydroxide)
to form salt and water. This reaction is similar to the reaction between an acid and base.
Therefore, we conclude that non-metal oxides are acidic in nature.
11. All acids have hydrogen ions (H+) in common.
All acids generate hydrogen gas on reacting with metals. Therefore, it appears that hydro
gen is common to all acids.
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40 U-Like Science-X
Activity 6. Demonstrate an activity to show that all acids have H+ ions.

Materials required : Beaker, dil. HC1, dil. h^SC^, 2 nails, rubber cork, 6 V battery, bulb,
switch, connecting wire, solutions of glucose, alcohol.
Procedure :
2. Pour some dilute hydrochloric acid in the beaker and switch on the current.
3. The bulb located in the circuit glows.
6 volt battery Bulb
Switch
T
w
Beaker
Flo
Nail
Dilute HCI solution
ee
Fr
Rubber cork
V- - £=7
Fig. 2.3 Acid solution in water conducts electricity
for
ur
4. Repeat the experiment with dilute sulphuric acid.
5. Again, we find a glow in the bulb.
ks
6. Now replace sulphuric acid with glucose solution. No glow is observed with glucose
Yo
solution.
oo
7. Repeat the experiment with alcohol in the beaker. Again, we do not observe a glow
B
in the bulb.
re
Glowing of bulb indicates that there is a flow of current in the circuit. Electric
current is carried through the solution by ions.
ou
ad
As the current flows in the case of dilute HCI and dilute H2SO4, this suggests the
Y
presence of H+ in these acids. As the current does not flow in the case of glucose
solution and alcohol, these substances do not contain H+ ions, although hydrogen
nd
Re
is a constituent of glucose and alcohol.

Fi
12. All bases have hydroxyl ions (OH-) in common.

Just as all acids have H+ ions in common, all bases have hydroxyl ions (OH-) in common.
Thus, sodium hydroxide, potassium hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide, ammonium
hydroxide have OH- ions in common. This can be proved by performing an experiment
similar to that in Activity 6. By taking solutions of sodium hydroxide and potassium
hydroxide in the beaker, we find that there is a glow in tire bulb. That means there is a
flow of current. This is due to the presence of hydroxyl ions in NaOH and KOH.
13. Acids produce ions only in aqueous solution.
Activity 7. Perform an experiment to prove that acids produce ions in aqueous solution.
Materials required : Test tube, conical flask, cone. H2SO4, sodium chloride, delivery tube,
cork, litmus paper.
Procedure :
1. Take about 1 g solid NaCl in a clean and dry test tube and set up the apparatus
as shown in Fig 2.4.
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Moist litmus
paper '
•«----- Delivery tube

------- Cork
Conical flask
containing Test tube
cone. H2SO4
Test tube M
Sodium v°;.
chloride
Guard tube containing
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calcium chloride
Fig. 2.4 Preparation of HC1 gas
Flo
2. Add cone. H2SO4 to the test tube.
ee
3. An effervescence takes place. A gas is seen coming out of the test tube.
Fr
4. Test the gas coming out of the test tube with the help of litmus paper. There is no
effect on the litmus paper.
for
ur
5. Now test the gas with the help of moist litmus paper. It turns red.
It proves that hydrochloric acid gas gives out H+ ions only in the presence of water.
ks
Hydrochloric acid gas in the dry state cannot give out H+ ions.
Yo
HC1 + H20 * h3o+ + cr
oo
Hydrogen ions cannot exist alone. They combine with water and form hydronium
B
ions (H30+).
re
H+ + H20 *h3o
When a base is dissolved in water, the following ions exist :
ou
ad
h2o
NaOH (s) ■» Na+ (aq) + OH (aq)
Y
H2Q
Mg(OH)2 (s) Mg2-^ {aq) + 20H" {aq)
nd
Re
Difference between an alkali and base :

Fi
An alkali is a base that dissolves in water. It is soapy to touch, bitter and corrosive.
As H+ {aq) are released by acids and OH“ {aq) are released by bases, neutralisation between
acid and base can be expressed as follows :
Acid + Base * Salt + Water
H X + M OH ■> MX + HOH
H+ {aq) + OH {aq) -> H20 (/)
14. Process of dissolving acids or bases in water is exothermic : If water is added to a
concentrated acid, a lot of heat is generated. The heat generated may cause the mixture to
splash out. When it is required to dilute the acid, concentrated acid should always be
added in smaller amounts to water.
15. Strength of acid and base : We can estimate the strength of acid or base making use of
universal indicator which is a mixture of several indicators. The universal indicator shows
different colours at different concentrations of hydrogen ions in the solution.
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42 U-Like Science-X
16. pH scale : pH scale is a scale for measuring hydrogen ion concentration. pH ranges
between 0 to 14. Thus, pH is a number which indicates the acidic or basic nature of a
solution. Higher the hydronium ion (H30+) concentration, lower is the pH value. pH of
a neutral solution is 7. A value of less than 7 on the pH scale represents an acidic solution,
while a value of more than 7 represents a basic solution.
17. Strong and weak acids : Strength of acids and bases depends on the number of H+ ions
and OH“ ions produced respectively. Acids that give rise to more H+ ions are strong acids
and acids that give less H+ ions are called weak acids. Out of one molar hydrochloric acid
and one molar acetic acid, hydrochloric acid gives out more H+ ions because it is a stronger
acid than acetic acid.
18. Importance of pH in everyday life :
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Plants and animals are pH sensitive. Living organisms can survive in the narrow range
(7.0 to 7.8) of pH. When acid rain flows into the rivers, it lowers the pH value and makes
survival of aquatic life difficult.
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pH of soil in the backyard. Every plant requires a specific pH for healthy growth. The
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optimum pH required for growth of a plant can be known by finding the pH of the place
where such plants grow.
Fr
pH of our digestive system. Our stomach produces HC1 which helps in the digestion of
food. When the stomach produces too much acid, we feel pain and irritation which are the
for
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indication of indigestion. To face this problem, we take antacids which neutralise excess
acid produced and bring relief. One such antacid is milk of magnesia (magnesium
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hydroxide).
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pH change as cause of tooth decay. Tooth enamel is calcium phosphate and is the hardest
substance in the body. It does not dissolve in water but gets corroded at pH below 5.5.
B
Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by degradation of food particles left in the
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mouth after eating and thus spoil the teeth. To get rid of this, we must clean the mouth
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and teeth after meals.

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19. Some naturally occurring acids : Certain acids particularly organic acids appear in natural
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form as under :
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Natural source Acid

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Vinegar Acetic acid

Orange Citric acid
Tamarind Tartaric acid
Tomato Oxalic acid
Sour milk (curd) Lactic acid
Lemon Citric acid
Ant sting Methanoic acid
Nettle sting Methanoic acid
Activity 8.
1. Write the formulae of the salts given below :
Potassium sulphate, sodium sulphate, calcium sulphate, magnesium sulphate, cop
per sulphate, sodium chloride, sodium nitrate, sodium carbonate and ammonium
chloride.
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2. Identify the acids and bases from which the above salts may be obtained.
3. How many families can you identify among the salts given above ?
Ans. 1. Name of salt Formula Name of salt Formula
Potassium sulphate k2so4 Sodium chloride NaCl
Sodium sulphate Na2S04 Sodium nitrate NaN03
Calcium sulphate CaS04 Sodium carbonate Na2C03
Magnesium sulphate MgS04 Ammonium chloride NH4C1
Copper sulphate CuS04
2. Name of Salt Acid part Base part

h2so4
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Potassium sulphate KOH
Sodium sulphate h2so4 NaOH
Calcium sulphate h2so4 Ca(OH)2
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Magnesium sulphate h2so4 . Mg(OH)2
h2so4
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Copper sulphate Cu(OH)2
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Sodium chloride HC1 NaOH
Sodium nitrate hno3 NaOH
Sodium carbonate h2co3 NaOH
or
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Ammonium chloride HC1 NH4OH
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3. Potassium sulphate
k
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Sodium sulphate
Calcium sulphate Family of sulphate salts
B
Magnesium sulphate
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Copper sulphate
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Sodium sulphate
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Sodium chloride
Family of sodium salts
Sodium nitrate
nd
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Sodium carbonate
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Sodium chloride
Ammonium chloride Family of chloride salts
Activity 9.
1. Collect the following salt samples :
Sodium chloride Copper sulphate
Potassium nitrate Sodium acetate
Aluminium chloride Sodium carbonate
Zinc sulphate Sodium hydrogencarbonate
2. Check their solubility in water (in distilled water only).
3. Check the action of these solutions on litmus and find the pH using a pH paper.
4. Which of the salts are acidic, basic or neutral ?
5. Identify the acid or base used to form the salt.
Ans. It is observed that :
Salts of strong acids and strong base are neutral with pH value of 7.
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44 U-Like Science-X
Salts of strong acid and weak base (like NH4OH) are acidic with pH value less than 7.
Salts of strong base and weak acid (like CH3COOH) are basic in nature with pH value
more than 7.
The observations are recorded in the table below :
Solubility in Action on Acidic, basic
Salt pH
water litmus paper or neutral
Sodium chloride Soluble No action 7 Neutral
Potassium nitrate Soluble No action 7 Neutral
Aluminium chloride Insoluble Blue litmus <7 Acidic
turns red.
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Zinc sulphate Soluble Blue litmus <7 Acidic
turns red.
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Copper sulphate Soluble Blue litmus <7 Acidic
turns red.
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Sodium acetate Soluble Red litmus > 7 Basic
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turns blue.
Sodium carbonate Soluble Red litmus > 7 Basic
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turns blue.
Sodium Soluble Red litmus > 7 Basic
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hydrogencarbonate turns blue.
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Acids and bases used in the above salts are given in the following table :
B
Salt Acid used Base used

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Sodium chloride HC1 (Strong acid) NaOH (Strong base)

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Potassium nitrate HN03 (Strong acid) KOH (Strong base)

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Aluminium chloride HC1 (Strong acid) Al(OH)3 (Weak base)

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Zinc sulphate H2S04 (Strong acid) Zn(OH)2 (Weak base)

nd
Copper sulphate H2S04 (Strong acid) Cu(OH)2 (Weak base)

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Sodium acetate CH3COOH (Weak acid) NaOH (Strong base)

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Sodium carbonate H2C03 (Weak acid) NaOH (Strong base)

Sodium H2C03 (Weak acid) NaOH (Strong base)
hydrogencarbonate
20. Common salt : Seawater contains many salts from which common salt is separated. De
posits of solid salt are found in many parts of the world. This salt is called rock salt. Beds
of rock salt were formed when the old time seas dried up. Chemicals like sodium hydroxide,
baking soda, washing soda and bleaching powder are manufactured from common salt.
21. Sodium hydroxide : When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium
chloride, it decomposes to form sodium hydroxide. This process is called chlor-alkali
process. The reaction involved is :
2NaCl (aq) + 2H2Q (/) ■> 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
Chlorine and hydrogen gases are given off at anode and cathode respectively. Sodium
hydroxide is formed near the cathode.
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Hydrogen gas finds use in fuels, margarine and manufacture of ammonia.

Chlorine gas is used in water treatment, swimming pools, manufacture of PVC, disinfect
ant, CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons) and pesticides.
Sodium hydroxide finds use in degreasing metals and manufacture of soaps, detergents,
paper making and artificial fibres.
22. Bleaching powder : Bleaching powder is produced by the action of chlorine on dry slaked
lime, Ca(OH)2 as shown by the following equation :
Bleaching
powder
Bleaching powder is used for bleaching cotton, linen, wood pulp and for bleached washed
clothes. It is used as an oxidising agent and for disinfecting drinking water.
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23. Baking soda : The chemical name of baking soda is sodium hydrogencarbonate (NaHC03).
It is produced by the following reaction :
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NaCl + H20 + C02 + NH3 *NH4C1 + NaHC03
• Sodium
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hydrogencarbonate
Fr
It is a mild non-corrosive base. It is used in making breads and cake spongy. It is also an
ingredient of antacids. It is also used in soda acid fire extinguisher. On heating sodium
hydrogencarbonate decomposes liberating carbon dioxide which is responsible for making
for
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breads and cakes soft and spongy.
2NaHC03 Heat -> Na2C03 + H20 + C02
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24. Washing soda : Sodium carbonate (Na2C03) can be obtained by heating sodium
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hydrogencarbonate as shown above. Recrystallisation of sodium carbonate gives washing

B
soda (Na2CO3.10H2O).
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Sodium carbonate is used in the manufacture of glass, soap, paper and borax. It is used
as a cleansing agent for domestic purposes and for removing permanent hardness of
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water.
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25. Crystals contain water of crystallisation : The shape and colour of crystals is due to water
molecules which are present as water of crystallisation.
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Activity 10. Perform an activity to show that crystals contain water of crystallisation.
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Materials required : Burner, boiling tube, test tube holder, copper sulphate crystals.
Procedure :
1. Heat a few crystals of copper sulphate in a boiling tube (Fig. 2.5).
Test tube holder
Boiling tube
Water droplets
■Copper sulphate crystals
Burner
7
Fig. 2.5 Removing water of crystallisation
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46 U-Like Science-X
2. We observe that the blue colour of the crystals vanishes and water droplets are
noticed on the walls of the boiling tube.
3. Add 2-3 drops of water on the dehydrated crystals.
4. We observe that blue colour of the crystals returns. The activity shows that copper
sulphate crystals contain water of crystallisation. On heating, the water molecules
are lost from the crystal and water droplets appear on the wall of the tube. On
adding 2-3 drops of water on the dehydrated crystal, the colour is obtained back.
Actually, the chemical formula of hydrated copper sulphate is CuS04.5H20. Thus,
five water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper sulphate.
Similarly, the chemical formulae of washing soda is Na2CO3.10H2O and that of
gypsum is CaS04.2H20.
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26. Plaster of Paris (CaSO^PÔ) : Plaster of Paris has the formula CaS04.^H20. It is
obtained by heating gypsum at 373 K as under :
A
1
CaS04.2H20 373 K > CaS04. 1 H20 + 1^H20
ee
rF
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Gypsum Plaster of Paris
Plaster of Paris is used in supporting fractured bones. On mixing it with water, it changes
to gypsum which is a hard solid mass.
CaS04.iH20 + 1^H20
for
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-> CaS04.2H20
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Plaster of Paris Gypsum
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Due to this property, plaster of Paris is used for making toys, materials for decoration and
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B
for making smooth surface.

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TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS
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[A] QUESTION GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 18 OF THE TEXTBOOK

Q. You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water
nd
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and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution, respectively. If you are given
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only red litmus solution, how will you identify the contents of each test tube ?
Ans. Add a few drops of red litmus solution to each test tube. Red colour will become light
in the test tube containing water. Colour will turn blue in the test tube containing basic solution.
Red colour will become dark in the test tube containing acidic solution.
[B] QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 22 OF THE TEXTBOOK
Q.l. Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels ?
Ans. Brass which contains copper and zinc metals, reacts with the organic acids present in
curd and sour substances forming soluble salts. These salts are poisonous in nature and make
curd and sour substances unfit for consumption.
Q.2. Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal ? Illustrate with an
example. How will you test for the presence of this gas ?
Ans. Usually hydrogen gas is liberated when an acid reacts with a metal. This is illustrated
by taking examples of zinc and iron metals.
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Zn (s) + 2HC1 {aq) ■» ZnCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)

Fe (s) + H2SO4 (aq) > FeS04 (aq) + H2 (g)
Test for Hydrogen gas
Hydrogen gas bums with a pop sound. It is lighter than air. When hydrogen gas is passed
through soap solution, soap bubbles are formed which being lighter than air rise up.
The pop sound is due to the combustion of hydrogen producing water.
2H2 + 02 -> 2H20
Q.3. Metal compound 'A' reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence.
The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced chemical equation for the
reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride.
Ans. 1. As one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride, it means metal compound 'A'
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is a salt of calcium.
2. A burning candle is extinguished by carbon dioxide. This means carbon dioxide is
produced by the reaction of 'A' with hydrochloric acid.
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3. Carbon dioxide is produced by the action HC1 on a carbonate that means 'A' is calcium
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carbonate.
The reaction can be written as under :
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CaC03 (s) + 2HC1 (aq) -> CaCl2 (aq) + C02 (#) + H20 (/)
or
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sf
Q.l. Why do HC1, HNO^ etc., show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solu
tions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character ?
k
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Ans. Compounds like HC1 and HNO3 release H+ ions in solution. Therefore, they show
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acidic properties.
B
Compounds like alcohol and glucose do not release H+ ions in solution. Therefore, they do
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not show acidic properties.

Q.2. Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct electricity ?
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Ans. Electricity is conducted in a solution by ions. An acid releases H+ ions in solution,

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therefore, aqueous solution of an acid conducts electricity.

Q.3. Why does dry HC1 gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper ?
nd
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Ans. Colour of litmus paper changes only when it comes into contact with H+ ions. Hydro
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gen ions are produced only when HC1 gas comes into contact with water. Therefore, dry HC1 gas
does not change the colour of dry litmus paper.
Q.4. While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to
water and not water to the acid ?
Ans. Addition of water to acid is an exothermic process. If we add water to the acid, a lot
of heat is produced. Acid being in bulk spurts out. When the acid is added to water, it being
heavier settles down at the bottom. Water being in bulk, no spurting takes place. Due to this
reason, a small amount of acid is added to water with constant stirring in order to dilute the acid.
Q.5. How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H30+) affected when a solution of an
acid is diluted ?
Ans. Concentration of hydronium ions is decreased when the solution of an acid is diluted.
Q.6. How is the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) affected when excess base is
dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide ?
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52 U-Like Science-X
Q.14. What is a neutralisation reaction ? Give two examples.

Ans. The reaction between an acid and base to give salt and water is called neutralisation
reaction.
Examples :
NaOH + HC1 NaCl + H20
KOH + HNO3 kno3 + h2o
It can also be viewed as a reaction between H+ (aq) ions produced by the acid and OH" (aq)
ions produced by the base.
H+ (aq) + OH (aq) * h2o (/)
Q.15. Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.
Ans. Uses of washing soda :
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(/') As a cleansing agent for domestic purposes and for removing permanent hardness of
water.
(ii) It is used in glass, soap and paper industries.
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Uses of baking soda :
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(i) For making baking powder which is a mixture of sodium hydrogencarbonate and a
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mild edible acid like tartaric acid.
(ii) As an ingredient of antacid.
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Q.l. An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of the
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following solution would reverse the change ?

B
(a) Baking powder (b) Lime

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(c) Ammonium hydroxide solution (d) Hydrochloric acid

Q.2. One of the constituents of baking powder is sodium hydrogencarbonate, the other
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constituent is
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(a) hydrochloric acid (b) tartaric acid (c) acetic acid (d) sulphuric acid
Q.3. A sample of soil is mixed with water and allowed to settle. The clear supernatant
nd
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solution turns the pH paper yellowish-orange. Which of the following would change the
colour of this pH paper to greenish-blue ?
Fi
(a) Lemon juice (b) Vinegar (c) Common salt (d) An antacid
Q.4. Which of the following statements are true for acids ?
(a) Bitter and change red litmus to blue. (b) Sour and change red litmus to blue.
(c) Sour and change blue litmus to red. (d) Bitter and change blue litmus to red.
Q.5. Which of the following are present in a dilute aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid ?
(a) H30+ + C1- (b) H30+ + 0H (c) cr + OH- (d) Unionised HC1
Q.6. Which of the following gives the correct increasing order of acidic strength ?
(a) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid (b) Water < Hydrochloric acid < Acetic acid
(c) Acetic acid < Water < Hydrochloric acid (d) Hydrochloric acid < Water < Acetic acid
Q.7. Calcium phosphate is present in tooth enamel. Its nature is
(fl) basic (b) acidic
(c) neutral (d) amphoteric
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Q.8. Which one of the following can be used as an acid-base indicator by a visually impared
student ?
{a) Litmus (b) Turmeric
(c) Vanilla essence (d) Petunia leaves
Q.9. Common salt besides being used in kitchen can also be used as the raw material for
making
(i) washing soda (n) bleaching powder
(Hi) baking soda (iv) slaked lime
(a) (i) and (ii) {b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (?) and (???) (d) (i), (Hi) and (iv)
Q.10. Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of
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(a) strong acid and strong base (b) weak acid and weak base
(c) strong acid and weak base (d) weak acid and strong base
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Q.ll. Which of the following statements is correct about an aqueous solution of an acid and
of a base ?
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(?) Higher the pH, stronger the acid (ii) Higher the pH, weaker tire acid
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(???) Lower the pH, stronger the base (iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base
(a) (?) and (???) (b) (ii) and (???)
(c) (?) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
for
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Q.12. Which of the following salts does not contain water of crystallisation ?
(a) Blue vitriol (b) Baking soda
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(c) Washing soda (d) Gypsum

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Q.13. During the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas on a humid day, the gas is usually
B
passed through the guard tube containing calcium chloride. The role of calcium chloride taken
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in the guard tube is to

(a) absorb the evolved gas (b) moisten the gas
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ad
(c) absorb moisture from the gas (d) absorb CL ions from the evolved gas
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Q.14. Identify the correct representation of reaction occurring during chloralkali process
(a) 2NaCl (/) + 2H2G (/.)----> 2NaOH (!) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
nd
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(b) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2G (aq)-----> 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
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(c) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2G (/)----> 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2 (aq) + H2 (aq)
(d) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H20 (/)---- > 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (#)
Q.15. What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test
tube ?
(?) The temperature of the solution increases.
(ii) Tire temperature of tire solution decreases.
(???) The temperature of the solution remains the same.
(iv) Salt formation takes place.
(??) (?) only (b) (?) and (???)
(c) (ii) and (???) (d) (?) and (iv)
Q.16. Which of the following is (are) true when HC1 (#) is passed through water ?
(?) It does not ionise in the solution as it is a covalent compound.
(ii) It ionises in the solution.
(???) It gives both hydrogen and hydroxyl ion in the solution.
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54 U-Like Science-X
(iv) It forms hydronium ion in the solution due to the combination of hydrogen ion with water
molecule.
(a) (i) only (b) (in) only
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (Hi) and (iv)
Q.17. Which of the following is used for dissolution of gold ?
(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Nitric acid (d) Aqua regia
Q.18. Which of the following substance will not give carbon dioxide on treatment with
dilute acid ?
(a) Marble (b) Limestone
(c) Baking soda (d) Lime
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Q.19. If a few drops of a concentrated acid accidentally spills over the hand of a student,
what should be done ?
Flo
(a) Wash the hand with saline solution.
(b) Wash the hand immediately with plenty of water and apply a paste of sodium
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hydrogencarbonate.
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(c) After washing with plenty of water apply solution of sodium hydroxide on the hand.
(d) Neutralise the acid with a strong alkali.
Q.20. The pH of the gastric juices released during digestion is
for
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(a) less than 7 (b) more than 7
(c) equal to 7 (d) equal to 0
ks
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Q.21. Which of the following is acidic in nature ?
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(a) Lime juice (b) Human blood

B
(c) Lime water (d) Antacid

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Q.22. Sodium hydrogencarbonate when added to acetic acid evolves a gas. Which of the
following statements are true about the gas evolved ?
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ad
(i) It turns lime water milky.

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(ii) It extinguishes a burning splinter.

(Hi) It dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide.
nd
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(iv) It has a pungent odour.

(a) (/) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (Hi)
Fi
(c) (ii), (Hi) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)

Q.23. To protect tooth decay we are advised to brush our teeth regularly. The nature of the
tooth paste commonly used is
(a) acidic (b) neutral
(c) basic (d) corrosive

1. (d) As the solution turns red litmus solution blue, it must be basic. To reverse the change,
we must add an acid.
2. (b) To decompose sodium hydrogencarbonate, we require an acid. Since it is used in food,
we use a mild organic acid which is not toxic to human system.
3. (d) Only a basic solution will change the colour of pH paper to greenish-blue.
4. (c) Acids possess sour taste and turn blue litmus paper red.
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5. (a) Hydrochloric acid ionises as follows :

HC1-----> H+ + cr
H+ ions combine with water molecules to form H30+. Therefore, the ions present in dilute
aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid are H30+ and Cl-.
6. (a) Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid (inorganic), acetic acid is a weak acid (organic).
7. (a) Calcium phosphate is a salt of strong base Ca(OH)2 and weak acid, phosphoric acid.
Therefore, it is basic.
8. (c) Vanilla essence makes use of smell. Therefore, it can be used by a visually impaired
student.
9. (c) We can prepare washing soda and baking soda from common salt.
10. (d) Salts of weak acid and strong base behave as basic salts.
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11. (d) Acidic solutions have pH less than 7 and basic solutions have pH more than 7.
12. (b) Blue vitriol is CuS04.5H20, washing soda is Na2CO3.10H2O and gypsum is CaS04.2H20.
Flo
Baking soda does not contain water of crystallisation.
13. (c) Calcium chloride has the property of absorbing water vapours.
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14. (d) The correct physical states of NaCl, H20, NaOH, Cl2 and H2 are {aq), (/), (aq), (g) and
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(g) respectively.
15. (d) Mixing of an acid and a base is an exothermic process and is accompanied by the
for
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formation of a salt.
16. (c) Adthough HC1 is a covalent compound but it ionises in the solution. H+ combines with
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water to give hydronium ion.
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17. (d) Aqua regia which is a mixture of HC1 and HN03 is used to dissolve gold.
B
18. (d) Carbonates and hydrogencarbonates react with dil. HC1 to give C02. Lime is Ca(OH)2.
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19. (b) Sodium hydroxide is corrosive to skin. Therefore it cannot be applied. Paste of sodium
hydrogencarbonate is weakly basic and safe to apply on hand after washing with water.
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ad
20. {a) Gastric juices are acidic in nature, hence the pH is less than 7.
Y
21. (a) Out of the substances given, only lime juice is acidic in nature.
22. (b) The gas evolved is C02 which turns lime water milky extinguishes fire and dissolves
nd
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in NaOH solution forming Na2C03.

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23. (c) To fight acidity in the mouth, we require a toothpaste which is basic.

Q.l. How will you test a gas which is liberated when hydrochloric acid reacts with an
active metal ? [CBSE 2008]
Ans. The gas produced when hydrochloric acid reacts with an active metal is hydrogen gas.
The gas is passed through soap solution when soap bubbles are formed. Hydrogen gas being
lighter than air, these bubbles rise up. When a burning candle is brought near soap bubbles
containing hydrogen gas, a pop sound is heard due to the combustion of hydrogen to form water.
2H2 + 02 2H20
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56 U-Like Science-X
Q.2. Why does the flow of acid rain water into a river make the survival of aquatic life
in the river difficult ? [CBSE 2008]
Ans. When acid rain water flows into the river, it makes the river water acidic. Animals
need a pH of 7 - 7.8 for survival. When acid rain water flows into the river, the pH of river water
becomes less than 7. This makes the survival of aquatic life in the river difficult.
Q.3. At what pH in the mouth is tooth decay faster and why ? [CBSE 2008]
Ans. At pH lower than 5.5 in the mouth, tooth decay becomes faster because the acid
produced reacts with the enamel of the teeth and corrodes it.
Q.4. Why should water be never added dropwise to concentrated sulphuric acid ?
[CBSE 2007]
Ans. Addition of water to sulphuric acid is an exothermic process. On addition of water to
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acid, a large amount of heat is liberated which results in splashing out of the acid, which is in
bulk.
Q.5. Name the gas evolved when dilute sulphuric acid acts on sodium carbonate.
Flo
[CBSE 2006]
ee
Ans. Carbon dioxide gas is evolved as per the equation given below :
Fr
Na2C03 (s) + H2SO4 {aq) ■> Na2S04 (aq) + C02 (g) + H20 (l)
Q.6. Dry ammonia has no action on litmus paper but a solution of ammonia in water
for [CBSE 2005]
ur
turns red litmus paper blue. Why is it so ?
Ans. Dry ammonia produces no hydroxide ions (OH-). Therefore, red litmus paper does not
turn blue. A solution of ammonia in water contains (OH-) ions.
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NH3 (g) + h2o (/) * NH+4 (aq) + OH- (aq)

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Therefore, red litmus turns blue.

B
Q.7. Which will be more acidic and why ?

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(i) A solution with pH value of 6.0 or

(ii) A solution with pH value of 5.0. [CBSE 2010]
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ad
Ans. Lower the pH value, more acidic the solution is.

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Hence, a solution with pH value of 5.0 will be more acidic.

Q.8. Write balanced chemical equations for the reactions taking place when dry blue
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crystals of copper sulphate are dropped into concentrated sulphuric acid. [CBSE 2004]
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Ans. Concentrated sulphuric acid is a powerful dehydrating agent. It takes out water of
crystallisation from the crystals of copper sulphate leaving behind anhydrous white powder of
CuS04.
CuS04.5H20 ■>
CuS04 + 5H20
Copper sulphate crystals Anhydrous (Absorbed by
(Blue) copper sulphate conc.HoSO.,)
(White powder)
Q.9. What are indicators ?
Ans. Substances used to find out pH of a solution are called indicators.
Q.10. What will happen to blue litmus when it is added to soda water ?
Ans. Soda water contains carbonic acid (C02 + H20 -> H2C03). Hence, the colour of
litmus will turn red.
Q.ll. How does HC1 help in the digestion of food ?
Ans. Starch and sugar are broken down to glucose.
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Q.12. What is the colour of methyl orange in baking soda ?

Ans, Baking soda provides a basic medium. Hence, colour of methyl orange will be yellow.
Q.13. What is the colour of phenolphthalein in soap solution ?
Ans. Soap solution provides an alkaline medium. Hence, colour of phenolphthalein will be
pink.
Q.14. Which one is a stronger acid, with pH = 5 or with pH = 2 ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. The acid with pH = 2 is stronger. Lower the pH, stronger is the acid.
Q.15. Why does C02 turn lime water milky ? What happens when excess of C02 is passed
and why ?
Ans. C02 reacts with lime water to form insoluble CaC03 which appears as a white precipi
tate.
w
Ca(OH)2 + C02 * CaC03 + H20
Lime water
On passing excess of C02, Ca(HC03)2 is formed which is a soluble compound.
Flo
CaC03 + C02 + H20 * Ca(HC03)2
ee
Calcium hydrogen
carbonate
Fr
Q.16. When cone, acid is added to water, whether the process is exothermic or endothermic ?
Ans. Exothermic (heat is evolved).
for
ur
Q.17. A compound which is prepared from gypsum has the property of hardening when
mixed with proper quantity of water. Identify the compound and write its chemical formula.
ks
ICBSE 2011]
Yo
oo
1
Ans. The compound is Plaster of Paris, CaS04- — H20.
B
Q.18. When concentrated acid is diluted, whether the pH gets higher or lower ?
re
Ans. pH gets higher.

ou
Q.19. Which by-product of chlor-alkali process is used for manufacture of bleaching

ad
powder ?
Y
Ans. Chlorine.
nd
Q.20. What is milk of magnesia ? Is it a strong or mild base ?

Re
Ans. Milk of magnesia is Mg(OH)2. It is a mild base.

Fi
Q.21. What are strong acids ? Give two examples.

Ans. Acids which give a large concentration of H+ ions in water are strong acids.
Examples: H2S04 and HC1.
Q.22. What are weak acids ? Give two examples.
Ans. Acids which give a small concentration of H+ ions in water are weak acids.
Examples : acetic acid and tartaric acid.
Q.23. A bud of petunias becomes reddish purple after first shower of rain. What does it
indicate ?
Ans. Colour of petunia becomes reddish purple in acidic medium. It indicates that first
showers of rain contained acidic impurities.
Q.24. Is toothpaste acidic or alkaline ?
Ans. Toothpaste is alkaline. It neutralises the acids in the mouth and prevents the decay of
teeth.
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Q.25. What is the role of tartaric acid in baking powder ?

Ans. When baking powder is mixed with water, the following reaction takes place :
NaHC03 + Tartaric acid -> C02 + H20 + Sodium salt of tartaric acid
Carbon dioxide produced during the reaction makes bread and cake soft and spongy.
Q.26. What is litmus solution ?
Ans. It is a purple dye which is extracted from a plant called lichen. It is used as indicator
to test acidic and basic substance.
Q.27. Which chemicals are used in soda-acid fire extinguishers ?
Ans. Sodium hydrogencarbonate (NaHC03) and sulphuric acid (H2S04).
Q.28. There are two jars A and B containing food materials. Food in jar A is pickled with
acetic acid while B is not. Food of which jar will stale first ? Explain.
Ans. Food in jar B will stale first because the microorganism will cause oxidation of food
w
material. In jar A, the microorganisms will be destroyed by acetic acid and oxidation of food
material (staleness) will be prevented.
Flo
Q.29. What happens when magnesium carbonate reacts with dil. hydrochloric acid ? Give
chemical reaction.
ee
Ans. Magnesium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to form magnesium chlo
Fr
ride, carbon dioxide and water.
MgCOg (s) + 2HC1 (aq) * MgCl2 (aq) + C02 (g) + H2G (/)
for
ur
Q.30. Name an indicator which tells various levels of H+ ion concentration.
Ans. Universal indicator which is a mixture of a number of indicators.
ks
Q.31. If soil is acidic, which compound would you spread to treat the soil ?
Yo
oo
Ans. Calcium oxide, CaO or slaked lime, Ca(OH)2 or calcium carbonate, CaC03.
B
Q.32. What is meant by the term pH of a solution ? The pH of rain water collected from
re
two cities A and B were found to be 6.0 and 5.0 respectively. The water of which city is more
acidic ? [CBSE 2011]
ou
ad
Ans. pH is a measure of the H' concentration in a solution. Smaller the pH value, more
Y
acidic is the solution. Therefore, rain water of B is more acidic.

Q.33. Name the acids present in (i) nettle sting (ii) curd. [CBSE 2010]
nd
Re
Ans. The acids present are as under :

Nettle sting - Methanoic acid
Fi
Curd - Lactic acid

Q.34. Name a salt which does not contain water of crystallisation. [CBSE 2010]
Ans. Sodium hydrogencarbonate (NaHC03) does not contain water of crystallisation.
Q.35. Write the names of two salts belonging to sodium family. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. 1. Sodium carbonate
2. Sodium hydrogencarbonate.
Q.l. What is 'baking powder' ? How does it make the cake soft and spongy ?
[CBSE 2008]
Ans. Baking powder is a mixture of sodium hydrogencarbonate and a mild edible acid like
tartaric acid.
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When baking powder is heated or mixed with water, the following reaction takes place :
NaHC03 + H -> C02 + H20 + Sodium salt of acid
(From the acid)
Carbon dioxide evolved makes the cake soft and spongy.
Q.2. Write the chemical formula for washing soda. How may it be obtained from baking
soda ? Name an industrial use of washing soda other than washing clothes. 1CBSE 2008]
Ans. Chemical formula for washing soda is Na2CO3.10H2O. On heating baking soda, so
dium carbonate is obtained which on recrystallisation give washing soda.
Heat Na2C03 + H20 + C02
2NaHC03
Na2C03 + 10H2O -> Na2CO3.10H2O
Washing soda is used in glass, soap and paper industries.
w
Q.3. Write the chemical formula for bleaching powder. How is bleaching powder pre-
pared ? For what purpose is it used in paper factories ? [CBSE 2008]
Flo
Ans. Chemical formula for bleaching powder is CaOCl2. It is prepared by the action of Cl2
on dry slaked lime, Ca(OH)2.
ee
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 -> CaOCl2 + H20
Fr
In paper industry, bleaching powder is used for bleaching wood pulp.
Q.4. What is the chemical formula for Plaster of Paris ? How is it prepared ? State the
for
ur
common and chemical names of the compound formed when Plaster of Paris is mixed with
water. [CBSE 2008]
ks
Ans. The chemical formula for Plaster of Paris is CaS04.^H20. It is prepared by heating
Yo
oo
gypsum at 373 K as shown by the following equation :

B
373 K -> CaS04.^H20 + |h20

CaS04.2H20
re
A
Gypsum Plaster of Paris
ou
ad
When Plaster of Paris is mixed with water, gypsum (common name) is formed again. Chemi
Y
cally it is known as calcium sulphate dihydrate.

CaS04.-|H20 + |H20
nd
* CaS04.2H20
Re
Fi
Gypsum
Q.5. How is bleaching powder prepared ? Why does bleaching powder
(/) smell strongly of chlorine ?
(n) not dissolve completely in water ? [CBSE 2008]
Ans. Bleaching powder is prepared by the action of Cl2 on dry slaked lime.
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 CaOCl2 + H20
Bleaching powder smells strongly of chlorine because it is loosely bound to slaked lime
Carbon dioxide present in the air combines with bleaching powder liberating chlorine.
CaOCl2 + C02 > CaC03 + Cl2t
Bleaching powder reacts with water as under :
CaOCl2 + H20 ■> Ca(OH)2 + Cl2
Ca(OH)2 + C02 -» CaC03 + H20
(From air) Calcium
Carbonate
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Calcium carbonate is an insoluble substance. Hence, bleaching powder does not dissolve in
water completely.
Q.6. A chemical compound having a strong smell of chlorine is used to disinfect water.
Name the compound and write a chemical equation to show its preparation. Give its one use.
[CBSE 2011]
Ans. The compound is bleaching powder CaOCl2. The reaction is
It is used as a disinfectant.
Q.7. Most metals do not react with bases, but zinc metal does. Suggest a reason. Write an
equation for the reaction between Zn and NaOH. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. Zinc is amphoteric in nature. It reacts with NaOH to give the following reaction :
low
Zn + 2NaOH -> Na2Zn02 + H2
Q.8. Name the acids present in the following foodstuffs which attribute a sour taste to
them :
Lemon juice, vinegar, vitamin C tablet, tamarind, sour milk
ee
Ans. Lemon juice contains citric acid.
rF
Fr
Vinegar contains acetic acid.
Vitamin C tablet contains ascorbic acid.
Tamarind contains tartaric acid.
Sour milk contains lactic acid.
f or
ou
Q.9. Hold one moist and one dry strip of blue litmus paper over dry hydrochloric acid
ks
gas. Which strip of litmus paper will turn red and why ?
oo
Ans. Moist strip of blue litmus paper will turn red. This is because H+ ions are produced
Y
eB
only when HC1 gas comes into contact with water. Moist strip contains water and it turns red.
Q.10. A metal is treated with dil. H2SO4. The gas evolved
r
is collected by the method shown in the Fig. 2.7. Answer the

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ad
following :
Y
(0 Name the gas.

(n) Name the method of collection of the gas.
nd
ef-r-
Re
(Hi) Is the gas soluble or insoluble in water ? -TT-

Fi
(iv) Is the gas lighter or heavier than air ? [CBSE 2011]

Ans. (i) H2 gas is produced.
(ii) Downward displacement of water.
(Hi) Insoluble in water. Fig. 2.7
(iv) Lighter than air.
Q.ll. What is Plaster of Paris ? How is it obtained from Gypsum ? Write chemical reaction.
Give its one use. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate. It is obtained by heating gypsum.
CaS04-2H20 ------- > CaS04 -H,0 + -H?0

373 K 2 2 2 2
Uses :
1. Plastering fractured bones.
2. In makmg statues, toys etc.
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Acids, Bases and Saits 61
Q.12. 'Sweet tooth' may lead to tooth decay. Explain, why ? What is the role of toothpastes
in preventing cavities ?
Ans. When a person eats too much sugary substances, we say that he/she has a sweet tooth.
Bacteria present in the mouth convert sugar into acid. Acid produced affects the enamel of tooth
and causes cavities.
Toothpastes contain alkaline ingredients which neutralise the acid produced in the mouth
and thus prevent cavities.
Q.13. The formula of Plaster of Paris is CaS04.iH20 and that of gypsum is CaS04.2H20.
Is it possible for a salt to have half a water molecule as water of crystallisation ? Justify your
answer.
w
Ans. hi fact two molecules of CaS04 are associated with one molecule of H20. Thus, Plaster
of Paris may be represented as 2CaS04.H20.
We can say that half water molecule is associated with one formula unit of CaS04.
Flo
Q.14. A knife, which is used to cut a fruit, was immediately dipped into water containing
ee
drops of blue litmus solution. If the colour of the solution is changed to red, what inference
Fr
can be drawn about the nature of the fruit and why ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. The fruit is a citrus fruit because citrus fruits contain an acid. The acid sticking to the
knife turns blue litmus into red.
for
ur
Q.15. You might have seen lemon or tamarind juice being used to clean tarnished surface
of copper vessels. Explain why these sour substances are effective in cleaning the vessels.
ks
Yo
[CBSE 2011]
oo
Ans. Lemon juice contains citric acid while tamarind contains tartaric acid. These acids act
B
as cleansing agents. They react with the layer of copper carbonate on the surface of vessels to
re
form soluble salts which are washed away by water.

Q.16. Why should curd and other sour foodstuffs not to be kept in brass or copper vessels ?
ou
ad
Or
Y
Why is it advised not to use copper or brass vessels to store pickles or curd ?
[CBSE 2010]
nd
Re
Ans. Curd and other sour foodstuffs contain acids which react with copper metal to form
Fi
poisonous salts, which may cause food poisoning. Hence it is not advisable to keep curd and sour
foodstuffs in brass or copper vessels.
Q.17. How will you prove that the given salt is a carbonate of metal ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. Take about 1 g of the salt in a test tube. Add about 1 mL of dilute H2S04. Pass the
vapours produced through lime water taken in another test tube. If the lime water turns milky,
the salt is a carbonate of a metal.
Q.18. What are antacids ? Name two compounds which are used as antacids. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. Antacids are mild bases which are used to neutralise the effect of excess acid produced
in the stomach as a result of indigestion.
Q.19. Dry HC1 gas does not change the colour of dry blue litmus paper. Give reason.
[CBSE 2011]
Ans. Dry HC1 gas does not contain H+ ions. These ions are produced when HC1 gas comes
into contact with water.
HC1 + H20 -> H30+ + OH"
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The H30+ ions or H+ (aq) react with blue litmus and the colour is changed to red.
Q.20. Though the compounds such as glucose and alcohol have hydrogen atoms in their
molecule, yet they are not categorised as acids. Why ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. Substances which furnish H+ ions on dissolving in water act as acids. Glucose and
alcohol do not furnish H+ ions in water. Hence they are not categorised as acids.
Q.21. Classify the following salts into acidic, basic or neutral :
Potassium sulphate, ammonium chloride, sodium carbonate, sodium chloride.
[CBSE 2011]
Ans. Acidic salts : Ammonium chloride
Basic salts : Sodium carbonate
Neutral salts : Potassium sulphate, sodium chloride
low
Q.22. A white powder A is a mild non-corrosive base and is used in the preparation of
cakes. When the powder is heated, it gives another powder B. The powder B is re-crystallised
to get a substance C which has detergent properties. Identify A, B and C and also write
balanced chemical equations for the conversions of A to B. [CBSE 20111
ee
Ans. Substance A is baking soda, NaHC03rF
Fr
Substance B is sodium carbonate, Na2C03
Substance C is washing soda, Na2CO3.10H2O
2NaHC03
Heat
for
-> Na2C03 + C02 + H20
u
04) (B)
ks
Q.23. In one of the industrial processes used for manufacture of sodium hydroxide, a gas
Yo
X is formed as by-product. The gas X reacts with dry slaked lime to give a compound Y which
oo
is used as a bleaching agent in chemical industry. Identify X and Y. [CBSE 2010]

B
Ans. During the manufacture of sodium hydroxide by electrolysis of sodium chloride, chlorine
re
gas is formed as a by-product. It reacts with dry slaked lime, Ca(OH)2 to form bleaching powder
CaOCl2, which is used as a bleaching agent in chemical industry.
ou
ad
Q.24. A dry pellet of a common base B, when kept in open, absorbs moisture and turns
Y
sticky. The compound is also a by-product of Chlor-alkali process. Identify B. What type of
reaction occurs when B is treated with an acidic oxide ? [CBSE 2010]
nd
Re
Ans. Sodium hydroxide is produced as a by-product in chlor-alkali process, along with Cl2
Fi
and H2. Pallet of NaOH when kept in open absorbs moisture and turns sticky.
Acidic oxides react with a base to form salt and water.
2NaOH (aq) + C02 (?) 4 Na2C03 (aq) + H20 (/)
Q.25. A white powder is added while baking breads and cakes to make them soft and
fluffy. What is the name of the powder ? What are the main ingredients in it ? What are the
functions of each ingredient ? [CBSE 20111
Ans. The white powder is baking powder.
Main ingredients : Baking soda (NaHC03) and an edible acid like tartaric acid.
Functions : Baking soda reacts with tartaric acid to release C02. Tartaric acid is added to
avoid the bitter taste by reacting with Na2C03 formed by the decomposition of NaHC03.
Q.26. State in brief the preparation of washing soda from baking soda. Write balanced
chemical equation of the reaction involved. [CBSE 2011]
Or
How washing soda is prepared from baking soda ? [CBSE 2010]
ReadYourFlow.COM
Ans. The first step in the preparation of washing soda from baking soda is the heating of
baking soda to obtain sodium carbonate, Na2C03 which on crystallisation give washing soda.
The reactions are given as under :
Heat
2NaHC03 -> Na2C03 + C02 + H20
Crystallisation
Na2C03 + 10H2O ■» Na2CO3.10H2O
Washing soda
Q.27. Crystals of a substance changed their colour on heating in a closed vessel but regained
it after sometime, when they were allowed to cool down.
(a) Name one such substance.
(b) Explain the phenomenon involved. [CBSE 2012J
w
Ans. (rt) Copper sulphate is one such substance with formula CuS04.5H20. It has a blue
colour.
Flo
(b) On heating in a closed vessel, hydrated copper sulphate loses water of crystallisation.
The anhydrous copper sulphate is white in colour. On keeping for sometime, it absorbs moisture
ee
(water) and again becomes hydrated and regains the blue colour.
Fr
Heat Keep for
CuS04.5H20 ■> CuS04 ■> CuS04.5H20
sometime
for
ur
Blue White Blue
Q.28. Explain the effect on concentration of hydronium ion [H30]+ and pH of an acidic
ks
solution on dilution. [CBSE 2013]
Yo
Ans. Concentration of hydronium ion [H30]+ decreases on dilution of an acidic solution
oo
because the same number of [H30]+ are present in a larger volume.

eB
pH of the acidic solution increases on dilution because the concentration of H+ ions decreases.
Lower the H+ ion concentration, higher the pH value.
r
Q.29. Give two uses of baking soda and washing soda each. [CBSE 2013]
ou
ad
Ans. Uses of baking soda :

Y
(0 For making baking powder.

(ii) Soda-acid fire-extinguishers.
nd
Re
Uses of washing soda :

Fi
(i) It is used in glass, soap and paper industries.

(ii) It is used for removing permanent hardness of water.
Q.30. A compound X of sodium is commonly used for making crispy Pakoras. It is also
used for curing acidity in the stomach. Identify X. Write its formula and its chemical name.
State the reaction that takes place when it is heated. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. The compound X is NaHC03. Its chemical name is sodium hydrogencarbonate.
It is a mild base. Therefore it is also used for curing acidity in the stomach. On heating, the
following reaction takes place :
Heat
2NaHC03 Na2C03 + C02 + H20
Sodium Sodium
hydrogencarbonate carbonate
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Q.l. Five solutions A, B, C, D and E showed pH as 4, 7, 1, 11 and 9 respectively when
tested with universal indicator. Which solution is
(?) Neutral
(ii) Strongly alkaline
(Hi) Strongly acidic
(iv) Weakly acidic and
(i?) Weakly alkaline ?
Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. (i) Solution B is neutral.
w
(ii) Solution D is strongly alkaline.
(Hi) Solution C is strongly acidic.
(iv) Solution A is weakly acidic.
Flo
(u) Solution E is weakly alkaline.
ee
Increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration : D, E, B, A and C.
Q.2. Indicate with the help of a diagram the variation of pH with change in concentration
Fr
of H+ (aq) and OH- (aq) ions showing
(i) increase of acidic and basic nature.
for
ur
(ii) increase and decrease of H+ ion concentration.
Ans.
ks
Acidic nature Neutral Basic nature
Yo
increasing increasing
oo
0 14
B
re
Increase in H‘ ion Decrease in H+ ion

concentration concentration
ou
ad
Fig. 2.8 Variation of pH with the change in concentration of H+ (aq) and OH~ (aq) ions
Y
Q.3. On passing excess C02 through lime water, it first turns milky and then becomes
nd
Re
colourless. Explain why ? Write the chemical reactions. [CBSE 2011]

Ans. Lime water dissolves carbon dioxide and forms a precipitate of CaC03 which appears
Fi
as milkiness.
Ca(OH)2 (aq) + C02 (*) ■> CaC03 (s) + H20 (/)
pPt.
On passing excess of C02 through the solution, we obtain calcium bicarbonate Ca(HC03)2
which is a soluble compound.
CaC03 (s) + C02 (g) + H20 (/) ■> Ca(HC03)2 (aq)
Soluble
Q.4. Write the names of five hydrated salts with their colours.
Ans. Names of five hydrated salts alongwith their formulae and colours are given below :
Calcium sulphate CaS04.2H20 White
Copper sulphate CuS04.5H20 Blue
Ferrous sulphate FeS04.7H20 Green
Magnesium sulphate MgS04.7H20 White
Barium chloride BaCl2.2H20 White
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Q.5. How are bases different from alkalis ? Are all bases alkalis ?
Ans. Bases which are soluble in water and produce OH- ions are called alkalis. Some examples
are :
Sodium hydroxide NaOH > Na+ + OH-
Potassium hydroxide KOH * K+ + OH-
All alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis.
For example, Al(OH)3 is a base but not an alkali.
Q.6. Which of the following substances in water will not show acidic properties ?
Sugar, alcohol, acetic acid, urea, nitric acid and carbon dioxide
Ans. Substances which give off H+ ions in solution show acidic properties.
Out of the substances given, sugar, alcohol and urea do not produce H+ ions in solution.
w
Hence, they will not show acidic properties.
Carbon dioxide in water gives carbonic acid which is dissociated as :
co2 + h2o * h2co3
Flo
2H+ + CO?-
Hence, it shows acidic properties.
ee
Q.7. Name the gas that liberates when an acid reacts with a metal. Illustrate your answer
Fr
with an example giving the balanced equation for the reaction involved. How would you test
the gas evolved ? ICBSE 20111
for
ur
Ans. (i) Hydrogen gas is liberated when an acid reacts with a metal.
(ii) Zinc metal reacts with sulphuric acid to liberate hydrogen
Zn (s) + H2S04 (aq) ZnS04 (aq) + H2 (g)
ks
Yo
(Hi) Hydrogen gas can be tested by bringing a burning splinter near the gas. It burns with
oo
a pop soimd.
B
Q.8. You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water
re
and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution respectively. If you are given
only red litmus paper, how will you identify the contents of each test tube ? [CBSE 2011]
ou
ad
Ans. (i) Put red litmus papers one by one in each test tube. The test tube in which the red
Y
litmus paper turns blue contains a basic solution. There will be no effect on the red litmus paper
in the other two test tubes.
nd
Re
(ii) Remove the litmus paper which turned blue and put it one by one in the other test
Fi
tubes. The tube that turns blue litmus red contains acidic solution.
(Hi) The tube which has no effect on the litmus paper contains distilled water.
Q.9. While constructing a house, a builder selects marble flooring and marble table top
for the kitchen where vinegar and juices of lemon tamarind etc., are more often used for
cooking. Will you agree to this selection and why ? [CBSE 2010]
Ans. No, this selection is wrong.
Vinegar and juices of lemon, tamarind etc., are acidic solutions. Acids react with marble
flooring and marble table top. Marble is calcium carbonate which reacts with acids. For example,
CaC03 + 2CH3COOH (CH3COO)2Ca + C02 + H20
Vinegar Calcium acetate
Q.10. (a) Write the formula and chemical name of bleaching powder.
(b) Write the chemical equation to represent the action of atmospheric C02 gas on
bleaching powder when exposed in open.
(c) Why is bleaching powder used in water-treatment plants ? [CBSE 2013]
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66 U-Like Science-X
Ans. (a) Formula of bleaching powder is CaOCl2 and the chemical name is calcium
oxychloride.
(b) Bleaching powder has a tendency to decompose on exposure to atmospheric C02.
CaOCl2 + C02 -> CaC03 + Cl2
It releases chlorine gas and loses its activity as a bleaching agent.
(c) It releases chlorine gas which kills bacteria in water and makes it safe for drinking.
Q.ll. A student dropped a few pieces of marble in dilute hydrochloric acid, contained in
a test tube, the evolved gas was then passed for a long time through lime water. What changes
would be observed in lime water ? Write balanced equations for both the changes observed.
[CBSE 2013]
Ans. (/) On adding pieces of marble in the test tube containing dil. HC1, a brisk evolution
w
of C02 takes place. Carbon dioxide when passed through lime water turns it milky because of
the formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.
CaC03 (s) + 2HC1 (aq)
Flo
* CaCl2 (aq) + C02 (g) + H20 (/)
Marble
ee
Ca(OH)2 + C02 ■> CaC03 + H20
Lime water Calcium
Fr
carbonate
(milky)
for
ur
(//) If C02 is continuously passed for a long time, the milkiness disappears due to the
formation of soluble sodium hydrogencarbonate.
CaC03 + C02 + H20
ks
Ca(HC03)2
Yo
Soluble
oo
Q.12. Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue litmus red, whereas hydrochloric acid
B
does. Justify this statement giving reason and relevant chemical equation. [CBSE 2013]
re
Ans. Dry hydrogen chloride does not ionise to give hydrogen ions which are necessary to
change blue litmus into red. On the other hand hydrochloric acid, which is obtained by passing
ou
ad
hydrochloric acid gas in water, gives hydrogen ions (or hydronium ion) and thus changes blue
Y
litmus into red.

HC1 + H20 -> h3o+ + cr
nd
Re
or HC1 + H20 -> H+ (aq) + cr

Fi
(C) Long Answer Type Questions (Five Marks Each)

Q.l. A compound which is prepared from gypsum has the property of hardening when
mixed with proper quantity of water. [CBSE 2011]
(0 Identify the compound/substance.
(ii) How this substance is prepared ? [CBSE 2012]
(Hi) Write an equation to show reaction between Plaster of Paris and water.
[CBSE 2010]
(iv) Mention two applications of this property of Plaster of Paris. [CBSE 2010]
Ans. (/) The compound is Plaster of Paris (Calcium sulphate hemihydrate) having the formula
CaS04. —H20.
2
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<\cids, Bases and Salts 67
(ii) Plaster of Paris is prepared by heating gypsum at 373 K.

373 K
CaS04.2H20 > CaSO -H.O + 1 1 h7o
4 22 “ 2 "
Gypsum
Plaster of Paris
(Hi) On mixing with water, it changes to gypsum once again, giving a hard solid mass.
1 I
CaSO4- -H2G + 1 HÔ 4 CaS04.2H20
(iv) (a) It is used for plastering fractured bones.
(b) It is used in making toys.
Q.2. What is water of crystallisation ? Write the common name and chemical formula of
a commercially important compound which has ten water molecules as water crystallisation.
w
How is this compound obtained ? Write the chemical equation also. List any two uses of this
compound. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. Water of crystallisation is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula
Flo
unit of the compound.
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The compound having ten water molecules as water of crystallisation in Na2CO3.10H2O. Its
Fr
name is washing soda.
Washing soda is obtained by heating baking soda and recrystallising the sodium carbonate
or
obtained.
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Heat
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2NaHC03 Na2C03 + H2G + C02
Na2C03 + 10H2O -> Na2CO3.10H2O
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Uses of washing soda :
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(/') It is used in removing permanent hardness of water.

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(ii) It is used in the manufacture of glass, soap and paper.

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ad
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3
Metals and Non-metals
[NCERT CHAPTER 3]
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1. Metals : Metals show metallic lustre, are generally hard, malleable and ductile. They are
good conductors of heat and electricity. The following activities prove the above points :
Activity 1. Perform an activity to prove that metals are malleable (can be beaten into sheets)
Flo
and that they are ductile (can be drawn into wires).
ee
Materials required : Metals such as iron, copper, aluminium, hammer.
Fr
Procedure :
1. Take a small piece of iron metal. Place it on an iron block.
2. Strike the iron piece with a hammer about ten times. We observe that iron piece is
for
ur
flattened into a thin sheet. This property is known as malleability. Most of the metals
are malleable. Gold and silver are most malleable metals.
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Similarly, we find that most of the metals are ductile i.e., they can be drawn into wires, using
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a suitable mechanical device. It is surprising that one gram of gold can be drawn into thin
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wire measuring two kilometers.

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Activity 2. Perform an activity to show that metals are good conductors of heat.
Materials required : Iron stand, clamp, iron wire, pin, wax, burner.
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ad
Procedure :
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1. Take a long straight iron wire about 30 cm long.

2. Clamp it to an iron stand as shown in Fig. 3.1.
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3. Fix a pin to the free end of the wire using wax.

4. Heat the wire using a burner near the place where it is clamped.
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Metal wire
Stand----- ►
Clamp — Free end of wire

Pin
Wax
Burner
Fig. 3.1 Metals are good conductors of heat

(68)
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Metals and Non-metals 69
We observe that after some time, the pin that was fixed to the free end of wire with
wax falls down. We observe the same with other metals.
This is because the wax gets melted because of heat. This proves that metals are good
conductors of heat. The best conductors of heat are silver and copper. Lead and
mercury are comparatively poor conductors of heat.
Activity 3. Perform an activity to show that metals are good conductors of electricity.
Materials required : Battery, bulb, switch, clips, samples of metals.
Procedure :
1. Set up an electric circuit as shown in Fig. 3.2.
2. Place a piece of copper metal between
the terminals A and B.
3. We find that the bulb in the circuit
w
glows.
This is because the copper metal
Flo
passes on the current from the clip A
to clip B. In other words, copper metal
ee
Switch
is a good conductor of electricity. We
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Insert sample
observe the same phenomenon with to be tested
other metals also. Fig. 3.2 Metals are good conductors of electricity
for
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2. Metals are sonorous : Metals produce a sound when they strike a hard surface. We express
it by saying that metals are sonorous. That is why school bells are made of metals.
ks
3. Non-metals : Substances like carbon, sulphur and iodine are non-metals. They are either
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solids or gas with the exception of bromine which is a liquid.

B
Non-metals, in general, do not possess metallic lustre, do not conduct heat and electricity
and are not sonorous. They are comparatively softer substances.
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4. Exceptions :
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(i) Metals in general have high melting points. But mercury, gallium and cesium have low
melting points and are liquids at room temperature.
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(n) Iodine, a non-metal, shows lustre.

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(Hi) Diamond, an allotrope of carbon, is the hardest natural substance known. Graphite,
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another allotrope of carbon, is a conductor of electricity.

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(iv) Alkali metals like sodium and potassium (metals) are soft and can be cut with a knife.
They have low densities and low melting points.
Chemical Properties of Metals
5. Reaction of metals with oxygen : Magnesium bums in air easily to produce magnesium
oxide. But not all metals combine with oxygen easily. Some metals require heating for
combination with oxygen.
For example :
2Cu + 02 -> 2CuO
Copper (II) oxide
Black
4A1 + 302 2A1203
Aluminium oxide
6. Amphoteric oxides : Some metal oxides such as aluminium oxide and zinc oxide show both
acidic as well as basic behaviour. Such metal oxides react with both acids as well as bases
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is because hydrogen gas gets oxidised to water by nitric acid and some oxide of
nitrogen is produced.
5. Take very dilute nitric acid in two test tubes. In one test tube add a small piece of
magnesium and in the other, a small piece of manganese. We observe that hydrogen
gas is evolved in the two test tubes.
13. Aqua regia : It is the only reagent that is capable of dissolving metals like gold and platinum.
It is obtained by mixing concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the
ratio of 3 : 1. Aqua regia is a Latin word meaning 'royal water'. Aqua regia is highly corrosive
and fuming.
14. Reaction of metals with solutions of other metal salts
Activity 6. Perform an experiment to compare the reactivity of metals.
w
Materials required : Iron nail, copper wire, copper sulphate solution, iron sulphate solution,
two test tubes, test tube stand, corks, thread.
Flo
Procedure :
1. Take a clean copper wire and an iron nail.
ee
2. Suspend the copper wire in one test tube and iron nail in the other tube with the help
Fr
of a piece of thread.
3. Fill upto half the test tube containing copper wire with a solution of iron sulphate and
for
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test tube containing iron nails with a solution of copper sulphate.
4. Wait for about 20 minutes.
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Cork
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Thread
B
Test tube
stand
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Test tube
Iron nail Copper wire
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ad
Copper- Iron nail

Iron sulphate
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sulphate
solution
solution
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Fig. 3.4 Reaction of metals with salt solutions

5. We find that a chemical change has occurred in test tube containing iron nail and
copper sulphate solution while there is no change in the tube containing copper wire
and iron sulphate solution.
6. We say that a displacement reaction has taken place in the test tube containing
Fe + CuS04 solution.
Fe (s) + CuS04 (aq) •> FeS04 (aq) + Cu (s)
Due to this reaction, the blue colour of copper sulphate has disappeared and reddish
brown deposit of copper is observed. Actually more reactive metal iron has displaced
less reactive metal copper from its solution.
We can, thus, generalise that :
Reactive metals can displace less reactive metals from their compounds in solutions
or molten form.
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15. The reactivity series : It is a list of metals arranged in decreasing order of reactivity (See
Table 3.1).
Table 3.1 Activity series or relative reactivities of metals
K Potassium Most reactive
Na Sodium
Ca Calcium
Mg Magnesium
A1 Aluminium
Zn Zinc Reactivity decreases
Fe Iron
Pb Lead
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H Hydrogen
Cu Copper
Mercury
Flo
Hg
H Silver
ee
Au Gold Least reactive
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16. Reaction between metals and non-metals : Before we discuss reaction between metals and
non-metals, let us look at the electronic configuration of some noble gases, metals and non-
for
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metals as given in Table 3.2.
Table 3.2 Electronic configuration of some elements
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Number of
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Type of Atomic
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Element electrons in shells

Element Number
eB
K L M N
Noble gases Helium (He) 2 2
r
Neon (Ne) 10 2 8
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Argon (Ar) 18 2 8 8
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Metals Sodium (Na) 11 2 8 1

Magnesium (Mg) 12 2 8 2
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Aluminium (Al) 13 2 8 3
2 8
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Potassium (K) 19 8 1
Calcium (Ca) 20 2 8 8 2
Non-Metals Nitrogen (N) 7 2 5
Oxygen (O) 8 2 6
Fluorine (F) 9 2 7
Phosphorus (P) 15 2 8 5*
Sulphur (S) 16 2 8 6
Chlorine (Cl) 17 2 8 7
Noble gases which have a completely filled valence shell (outermost shell), have no tendency
to take part in the reaction. Eight electrons (2 electrons in case of helium) in the outermost
shell is considered to be a stable configuration. Other elements react because they also want
to attain stable configuration or we can say that chemical reactions take place because of the
tendency of elements to attain noble gas configuration (eight electrons in the valence shell).
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Let us consider why sodium reacts with chlorine to form sodium chloride.
From table 3.2, we find that sodium has 1 electron in the outermost M shell. If it loses the
electron in the M shell then L shell will become the outermost shell, which shall have 8
electrons i.e., inert gas configuration. Thus, it has a tendency to lose 1 electron.
Chlorine has 7 electrons in M shell which is the outermost shell. If it gains 1 electron, then
tire number of electrons will become 8, i.e., it will acquire noble gas configuration. Thus, it
will have a tendency to gain one electron.
Now, sodium loses one electron and gives it to chlorine to form sodium chloride. In this way,
both the elements aquire stability by possessing noble gas configuration.
Formation of sodium chloride can be represented as under :
Na -> Na+ + e~
2, 8, 1 2, 8
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(Sodium
cation)
ci + <r -> cr
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2, 8, 7 2, 8, 8
(Chloride anion)
ee
The transfer of electron from sodium to chlorine can be represented as under :
Fr
Na +';cjxx------ [Na+] [;Cp]
or
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Sodium and chloride ions being oppositely charged attract each other and are held by strong
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electrostatic forces of attraction.
Formation of magnesium chloride can be represented as under :
k
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Mg Mg2+ + 2e~
■>
2, 8, 2 2, 8
B
(Magnesium
re
cation)
Cl + e" -> cr
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2, 8, 7 2, 8, 8
(Chloride anion)
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Mg: + ;; ----- [Mg2+] [;ci:]2

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C_yCi;
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17. Properties of ionic substances : Ionic substances possess the following properties :
(a) Physical nature : Ionic compounds are solid and hard because of the strong forces of
attraction between tire ions.
(b) Melting and boiling points : Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points.
This is because considerable amount of energy is required to overcome inter-ionic
attraction.
(c) Solubility : Ionic compounds are generally soluble in water and insoluble in organic
solvents such as kerosene, petrol, etc.
(d) Conduction of electricity : Solutions of ionic compounds conduct electricity due to the
presence of ions. Ions move to the oppositely charged electrodes and thus conduct
electricity. They also conduct electricity in the molten state because ions become slightly
free in the molten state.
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Activity 7. Perform an experiment to prove that salts impart colour to the flame.
Materials required : Burner, spatula, sodium chloride, potassium chloride and barium
chloride.
Procedure :
1. Take a metal spatula. Clean it thoroughly.
Spatula
2. Take some sodium chloride and heat it containing
sample
1
directly on the flame of the burner
(Fig. 3.5). We observe that a golden yellow
flame is produced. Burner
3. Repeat the experiment by taking potassium
chloride salt on another clean spatula. This
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time we observe a violet flame. II
4. Again repeat the experiment by taking
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barium chloride salt on a clean spatula.
We observe a green flame this time. Fig. 3.5 Heating a salt sample on a spatula
ee
Thus, many salts produce flame when ignited with a flame. We also observed that
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none of the salts melted during heating proving that ionic salts have high melting and
boiling points.
for
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Activity 8. Perform an experiment to prove that salt solutions conduct electricity.
Materials required : A beaker, battery, bulb, switch, graphite rods, sodium chloride solution.
ks
Procedure :
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Battery
t ------ Bulb
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1. Set up the apparatus as shown in Switch

Fig 3.6.
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2. Take sodium chloride solution in the

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beaker.
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We observe that the bulb glows Beaker

proving that the ions conduct
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Graphite rod
electricity.
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We can repeat the experiment by

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taking another salt. Salt solution

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under test
18. Occurrence of metals : Elements or
compounds which occur naturally in the
earth's crust are known as minerals. Fig- 3-6 Testing the conductivity of a salt solution
Minerals from which metals can be
extracted profitably are called ores. Seawater also contains some soluble salts such as
sodium chloride, magnesium chloride, etc.
19. Extraction of metals : On the basis of reactivity, we can group the metals into three categories :
(0 Metals of low reactivity. For example, gold, silver, platinum and copper. •
(ii) Metals of medium reactivity. For example, zinc, iron, lead, etc.
(Hi) Metals of high reactivity. For example, potassium, sodium, calcium, magnesium and
aluminium.
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K
Na
Ca Electrolysis
Mg
Al
Zn
Fe Reduction using carbon
Pb
Cu
low
Ag
Found in native state
Au
Fig. 3.7 Activity series and related metallurgy

Ores of many metals are oxides. This is because oxygen is a very reactive element and is
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very abundant. rF
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Different techniques are to be used for obtaining the metals falling in each category.
Several steps are involved in the extraction of pure metal from the ores. Summary of these
steps is given in Fig 3.8. for
u
Ore
I
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Concentration of ore
B
re
1 1
Metals of
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Metals of Metals of
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high reactivity medium reactivity low reactivity

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I I i
f I Sulphide ores
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Electrolysis of
molten ore Carbonate ore Sulphide ore I
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I l i Roasting
Pure metal Calcination Roasting

I
Metal
I
Oxide of metal 1
Refining
i
Reduction to metal
J
Purification of metal
Fig. 3.8 Steps involved in the extraction of metals from ores
20. Enrichment of ores : Ores are generally contaminated with impurities, such as soil, sand,
etc., called gangue. These impurities must be.removed from the ores before proceeding to
extraction. The method used for removing gangue depends upon the physical and chemical
properties of the gangue and the ore.
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21. Extracting metals low in the activity series : Such metals are very unreactive. For example,
cinnabar (HgS) is an ore of mercury. When heated, it is first converted to mercury oxide
which on further heating changes to metallic mercury.
2HgS (s) + 302 (g) Heat > 2HgO (s) + 2S02 (g)
2HgO (s) Heat 2Hg (/) + 02 (g)

Similarly copper which occurs in nature as Cu2S can be obtained by just heating in air.
2Cu2S (s) + 302 (g) Heat * 2Cu2S (s) + 2S02 (g)
2Cu20 + Cu2S Heat * 6Cu (s) + S02 (g)

22. Extracting metals in the middle of activity series : Such metals (Fe, Zn, Pb, Cu, etc.) are
usually present in the form of sulphides and carbonates, which are both converted into
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oxide first.
Tire sulphide ore is converted into oxide ore by heating strongly in the presence of excess
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air. This process is known as roasting. The carbonate ore is changed into oxide by heating
strongly in limited supply of air. The equations for the two processes are given below :
ee
Roasting:
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2ZnS (s) + 302 (g) Heat -> 2ZnO (s) + 2S02 (g)
Calcination:
or
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Heat ■> ZnO (s) + C02 (g)
sf
ZnC03
Tire metal oxides are then subjected to reduction with carbon.
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Heat * Zn (s) + CO (g)
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ZnO (s) + C (s)

B
Reduction can also be brought about by reactive metals like sodium, calcium, aluminium etc.
When manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium, the following reaction takes place :
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3Mn02 (s) + 4A1 (s) -> 3Mn (/) + 2A1203 (s) + Pleat
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ad
In the above reaction Mn is getting reduced while A1 is getting oxidised. A1 is higher on the
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activity series than Mn.

The amount of heat evolved is so large that the metal is obtained in the molten state.
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23. Thermit process : The reaction of iron (III) oxide (Fe203) with aluminium is an exothermic
process. Iron is obtained in molten state which is used to join railway tracks or cracked
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machine parts. This reaction is known as thermit reaction and the process is known as
thermit process.
Fe203 (s) + 2A1 (s) * 2Fe (/) + A1203 (s) + Heat
24. Extraction of metals towards the top of activity series : The metals at the higher end of the
activity series are very reactive. Their oxides cannot be reduced with carbon because the
metals have greater affinity for oxygen than carbon. Such metals are obtained by electrolytic
reduction. Sodium, magnesium and calcium are obtained by the electrolytic reduction of
their molten chlorides. The metals are obtained at the cathode while chlorine is liberated at
the anode. The reactions may be represented as :
Na+ + e~ Na At cathode
2cr * Cl2 + 2e~ At anode
Aluminium is obtained by electrolytic reduction of aluminium oxide.
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25. Refining of metals : Electrolytic refining. Key e-
Metals such as copper, zinc, tin, nickel,

+
silver, gold, etc., are refined electro- Cathode Anode
lytically. In this process, impure metal is
made anode and a thin strip of pure metal Acidified copper
is made the cathode. A solution of metal sulphate solution
-*"^Cu2+
salt is used as the electrolyte. The :
apparatus is shown in Fig. 3.9. Cu2+
Tank
On passing the current, the pure metal
from the anode dissolves into the Impurities
(anode mud)
electrolyte. An equivalent amount of pure
w
metal from the electrolyte is deposited on Fig. 3.9 Electrolytic refining of copper. The
electrolyte is a solution of acidified copper sulphate.
the cathode. Insoluble impurities settle
The anode is impure copper, whereas, the cathode
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down at the bottom of the anode and are is a strip of pure copper. On passing electric
known as anode mud. current, pure copper is deposited on the cathode.
ee
26. Corrosion:
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(0 Silver articles turn black when exposed to air. This is because it reacts with hydrogen
sulphide in ait to form silver sulphide which is black.
or
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(ii) Similarly copper articles turn green due to reaction with atmospheric carbon dioxide
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forming green copper carbonate.
(Hi) Iron gets rusted when exposed to moist air form brown oxide of iron.
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These are all examples of rusting.
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Activity 9. Perform an experiment to find (A) (B) (C)

B
out conditions which cause rusting of iron.

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Materials required : Three test tubes with

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corks, iron nails, anhydrous calcium

ad
chloride, oil.
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*•----- Air Air «----- Dry

Procedure : air
1. Take three test tubes. Place iron nails
nd
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in each of them (Fig. 3.10). .i ||§§- Layer of

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oil
2. Label these tubes A, B and C. (prevents
ft
Rusty air
3. Pour some water in test tube A and iron dissolving
cork it. nails in the
4. Pour boiled water in test tube B. Add water)
1 mL of oil and cork it. The oil will
form the upper layer and prevent the Water
air from dissolving in water.
5. Put some anhydrous calcium Boiled distilled Anhydrous calcium
chloride in test tube C and cork it. water (boiled chloride
to remove any (drying agent)
Anhydrous calcium chloride will dissolved air)
absorb the moisture from the air. Fig. 3.10 Investigating the condition under which
6. Leave these test tubes for a few days. iron rusts. In tube A, both air and water are
present. In tube B, there is no air dissolved
in the water. In tube C, the air is dry.
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It is observed that iron nails rust in test tube A but they do not rust in test tubes B and C.
This is because iron nails are exposed to both water and air in test tube A.
In test tube B, the nails are exposed to only water and in test tube C, the nails are exposed
to only air.
This means presence of both water and air necessary for rusting to take place.
27. Prevention of corrosion : Rusting of iron can be prevented by the following methods :
(i) by painting the surface.
(if) by oiling or greasing the surface.
(in) galvanizing, chrome plating, anodising or making alloys.
28. Galvanisation : It is a method of protecting steel and iron from rusting. The article is coated
with a thin layer of zinc. Galvanised article is protected against rusting even if zinc coating
w
is broken.
29. Alloying : It is a method of improving the properties of a metal. If iron is mixed with a small
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amount of carbon (about 0.5 %), it becomes hard and strong. When iron is mixed with nickel
and chromium, we obtain stainless steel which is hard and does not rust.
ee
An alloy is a mixture of two or more metals, or a metal and a non-metal. It is prepared by
Fr
first melting the primary metal and then dissolving the other elements in a definite proportion.
It is then cooled at room temperature.
for
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30. 22-carat gold : Pure gold which is 24-carat gold is very soft and is not suitable for making
ornaments. It is alloyed with either copper or silver to make it hard. Generally, in India, 22-
ks
carat gold is used for making jewellery, it means 22 parts of gold is alloyed with 2 parts
Yo
of copper or silver.
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31. Properties of alloys : Alloy of a metal with mercury is known as amalgam. It has been
B
observed that melting point and electrical conductivity of an alloy are lower than those of
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the constituent metals. For example, brass which is an alloy of copper and zinc, and bronze
which is an alloy of copper and tin are not as good conductors of electricity as copper.
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ad
Solder which is an alloy of lead and tin has a low melting point and is used for welding
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electrical wires.
32. The wonder of ancient Indian metallurgy : The iron pillar near Qutub Minar in CBSE was
nd
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made around 400 bc i.e., around 2400 years back. It has not shown any signs of rusting even
Fi
after such a long period. That means ancient iron workers of India had developed a method
to prevent iron from rusting. This was done by forming a thin film of magnetic oxide (Fe304)
on the surface of iron. This involved painting it with a mixture of different salts and then
heating and quenching.
TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS
[A] QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 40 OF THE TEXTBOOK
Q.l. Give an example of a metal which
(i) is a liquid at room temperature.
(ii) can be easily cut with a knife.
(Hi) is the best conductor of heat.
(iv) is a poor conductor of heat.
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Ans. (0 Mercury
(ii) Sodium
(Hi) Silver
(iv) Lead.
Q.2. Explain the meanings of malleable and ductile.
Ans. A substance that can be beaten into sheets is said to be malleable. For example, iron,
copper, etc.
A substance that can be drawn into wires is called ductile. For example, gold, silver, etc.
Q.l. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil ?
Ans. Sodium reacts so vigorously with oxygen that it catches fire when kept in the open.
w
Hence, to protect accidental fires, it is kept immersed in kerosene oil. It cannot be immersed in water
because there is a violent reaction.
Flo
Q.2. Write equations for the reactions of
(z) iron with steam
ee
(ii) calcium and potassium with water.
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Ans. (I) 3Fe (s) + 4H20 (g) * Fe304 (s) + 4H2 (g)
(H) Ca (s) + 2H20 (/) -> Ca(OH)2 (acj) + H2 (g)
for
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2K (s) + 2H20 (/) -> 2KOH (aq) + H2 (g)
Q.3. Samples of four metals A, Bf C and D were taken and added to the following solution
ks
one by one. The results obtained have been tabulated as follows :
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Metal Ironjll) sulphate Copperdl) sulphate Zinc sulphate Silver nitrate

B
A No reaction Displacement
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B Displacement No reaction
C No reaction No reaction No reaction Displacement
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ad
D No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction

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Use the Table given above to answer the following questions about metals A, B, C and D.
nd
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(0 Which is the most reactive metal ?

(ii) What would you observe if B is added to a solution of Copper(II) sulphate ?
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(Hi) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in the order of decreasing reactivity.

Ans. (i) Out of iron, copper, zinc and silver, zinc is at the top of activity series. Then comes
iron. B gives displacement reaction with iron(II) sulphate, therefore, B is most reactive metal.
(ii) If B is added to a solution of copper(II) sulphate, displacement reaction will take place.
Blue colour of copper sulphate will fade and red-brown particles of copper will settle down.
B + CuS04-----> BS04 + Cu
(Hi) The decreasing order of reactivity is :
B>A> C>D
Q.4. Which gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal ?
Write the chemical reaction when iron reacts with dilute sulphuric acid H2S04.
Ans. Hydrogen gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal.
Metal + Dil. Hydrochloric acid -----> Metal chloride + Hydrogen
Fe (s) + H2S04 (aq) — FeS04 (aq) + H2 (g)
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Q.5. What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution of iron(II) sulphate ? Write
the chemical reaction that takes place.
Ans. As zinc is more reactive than iron, displacement reaction will take place.
Zn (s) + FeS04 (aq) ZnS04 {aq) + Fe (s)
Iron(II) sulphate Zinc sulphate
Q.l. (i) Write the electron-dot structures for sodium, oxygen and magnesium.
(z'z) Show the formation of NazO and MgO by the transfer of electrons.
{in) What are the ions present in these compounds ?
Ans. (z) Electron-dot structures for sodium, oxygen and magnesium are
Na o: Mg
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(zz) Formation of Na20
Na/^v
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o;—*- [Na+]2[:o;]2~
Na^—^
ee
Formation of MgO
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Mg: Ox [Mg2+][:ox«]2_
or
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{Hi) Ions present in Na20 are Na+ and O2 .
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Ions present in MgO are Mg2+ and O2-.
Q.2. Why do ionic compounds have high melting points ?
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Ans. There are strong forces of attraction between oppositely charged ions in ionic compounds.
Considerable amount of energy is required to break strong inter-ionic attraction. Therefore, they
B
have high melting points.

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[D1 QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 53 OF THE TEXTBOOK

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Q.l. Define the following terms :

ad
(z) Mineral (zz) Ore and {in) Gangue.

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Ans. (z) Mineral : The elements or compounds which occur naturally in the earth's crust are
nd
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known as minerals.
(zz) Ore : Minerals from which metal can be extracted profitably are called ores.
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{Hi) Gangue : Impurities such as soil and sand which are present in the minerals are called
gangue.
Q.2. Name two metals which are found in nature in the free state.
Ans. Gold and platinum.
Q.3. What chemical process is used for obtaining a metal from its oxide ?
Ans. A metal is obtained from its oxide by the process of reduction.
[E] QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 55 OF THE TEXTBOOK
Q.l. Metallic oxides of zinc, magnesium and copper were heated with the following metals :
Metal Zinc Magnesium Copper
Zinc oxide
Magnesium oxide
Copper oxide
In which cases will you find displacement reactions taking place ?
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(ii) Wet litmus paper will turn red.

(b) The balanced chemical equation can be written as under :
S (s) + 02 (?) * S02 (*)
Q.10. State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.
Ans. Rusting of iron can be prevented by
(2) by applying grease or paint. (ii) by galvanising.
Q.ll. What type of oxides are formed when non-metals combine with oxygen ?
Ans. Acidic oxides are formed when non-metals combine with oxygen.
Q.12. Give reasons :
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
(b) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil.
w
(c) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it is used to make utensils for cooking.
(d) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of
extraction.
Flo
Ans. (a) These metals are unreactive. They do not react with oxygen and other gases present
in air and with moisture. Thus, their shine is maintained. That is why these metals are used to
ee
make jewellery.
Fr
(b) Reaction of sodium, potassium and lithium with oxygen is so violent that they catch fire.
Also we cannot store them under water because there is a brisk reaction. Hence, they are stored
for
ur
under oil.
(c) This is because aluminium is a good conductor of electricity. Aluminium forms a layer of
ks
aluminium oxide at high temperature after which it resists corrosion and does not react with food.
Yo
oo
(d) It is easier to reduce oxide than the carbonates and sulphides to the metal.
Q.13. You must have seen tarnished copper vessels being cleaned with lemon or tamarind
eB
juice. Explain, why these sour substances are effective in cleaning the vessels.
Ans. Copper, on keeping in air, reacts with atmospheric carbon dioxide to form a green layer
r
ou
of copper carbonate. Copper carbonate reacts with citric acid present in lemon or tartaric acid
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present in tamarind to form soluble copper citrate or copper tartarate. The vessels are thus cleaned
Y
using water.
> Copper citrate + Carbon dioxide + Water
nd
Copper carbonate + Citric acid

Re
Copper carbonate + Tartaric acid > Copper tartarate + Carbon dioxide + Water
Fi
Q.14. Differentiate between metal and non-metal on the basis of their chemical properties.
Ans. Metals and non-metals can be differentiated on the basis of following chemical properties :
Metals Non-metals
1. Metals displace hydrogen from water. 1. Non-metals do not displace hydrogen
from water.
2. Metals form basic oxides. 2. Non-metals form acidic oxides.
3. Metals displace hydrogen from dilute 3. Non-metals do not displace hydrogen
acids. from dilute acids.
4. Metals form ionic chlorides with chlorine. 4. Non-metals form covalent chlorides with
The ionic chlorides are non-volatile. chlorine. These chlorides are generally
volatile.
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Q.15. A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promised to bring back the glitter
of old and dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold bangles to him which
he dipped in a particular solution. The bangles sparkled like new but their weight was reduced
drastically. The lady was upset but after a futile argument the man beat a hasty retreat. Can you
play the detective to find out the nature of the solution he had used ?
Ans. Aqua regia which is a mixture of 3 parts of concentrated hydrochloric acid and 1 part
of concentrated nitric acid dissolves gold. The man put the gold bangles in this solution. The outer
dirty layer of gold bangles dissolved in aqua regia bringing out the shining bangles.
As the outer layer of bangles dissolved in aqua regia, the weight was reduced drastically.
Q.16. Give reasons why copper is used to make hot water tanks and not steel (an alloy of
iron).
w
Ans. Electrical conductivity' of a metal is decreased when it is alloyed with another metal or
non-metal. Thus, the electrical conductivity of steel (which is an alloy) is much less than that of
Flo
pure copper. That is why copper is used to make hot water tanks and not steel.
ee
Fr
Q.l. What happens when calcium is treated with water ?
(/) It does not react with water.
or
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(ii) It reacts violently with water.
sf
(Hi) It reacts less violently with water.
k
(iv) Bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium.
Yo
oo
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (Hi)

(d) (Hi) and (iv)
B
(c) (i) and (ii)

Q.l. The ability of the metals to be drawn into thin wires is known as
re
(a) ductility (b) malleability

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(c) sonorousity (d) conductivity

ad
Q.3. Which of the following metals exist in their native state in nature ?
Y
(0 Cu (it) Au
nd
(Hi) Zn (iv) Ag
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(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (Hi)

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(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (Hi) and (iv)

Q.4. Galvanisation is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating with a thin layer of
(a) gallium (b) aluminium
(c) zinc (d) silver
Q.5. Stainless steel is very useful material for our life. In stainless steel, iron is mixed with
(a) Ni and Cr (b) Cu and Cr
(c) Ni and Cu (d) Cu and Au
Q.6. Generally, non-metals are not lustrous. Which of the following non-metal is lustrous ?
(a) Sulphur (b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen (d) Iodine
Q.7. The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are X — 2, 8; Y— 2, 8, 7 and
Z — 2,8,2. Which of the following is correct ?
(a) X is a metal. (b) Y is a metal.
(c) Z is a non-metal. (d) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal.
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Q.8. Which of the following are not ionic compounds ?

(0 KC1 (ii) HC1
(in) CC14 (iv) NaCl
(o) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (Hi)
(c) (Hi) and (iv) (d) (i) and (Hi)
Q.9. Although metals form basic oxides, which of the following metals form an amphoteric
oxide ?
(a) Na (b) Ca
(c) A1 (d) Cu
Q.10. Generally metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen gas. Which of the following
acids does not give hydrogen gas on reacting with metals (except Mn and Mg) ?
(a) H2S04 (b) HC1
low
(c) HNO3 (d) All of these
Q.ll. Electrical wires have a coating of an insulating material. The material, generally used is
(a) Sulphur (b) Graphite
(c) PVC (d) All can be used.
ee
Q.12. Which one of the following properties is not generally exhibited by ionic compounds ?
rF
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(a) Solubility in water (b) Electrical conductivity in solid state
(c) High melting and boiling points (d) Electrical conductivity in molten state
for
Q.13. Which one of the following metals do not react with cold as well as hot water ?
(a) Na
ou
(b) Ca
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(c) Mg (d) Fe
Q.14. Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal ?
oo
(a) It bums in oxygen with a dazzling white flame.

Y
B
(b) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
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(c) It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(d) It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
ou
ad
Q.15. Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of
Y
aluminium are responsible for the same ?

(i) Good thermal conductivity (ii) Good electrical conductivity
nd
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(Hi) Ductility (iv) High melting point

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (Hi)
Fi
(c) (ii) and (Hi) (d) (i) and (iv)

Q.16. Silver articles become black on prolonged exposure to air. This is due to the formation of
(a) AgaN (b) Ag20
(c) Ag2S (d) Ag2S and Ag3N
Q.17. During electrolytic refining of zinc, it gets
(a) deposited on cathode (b) deposited on anode
(c) deposited on cathode as well as anode (d) remains in the solution
Q.18. An alloy is
(a) an element (b) a compound
(c) a homogeneous mixture (d) a heterogeneous mixture
Q.19. Generally, metals are solid in nature. Which one of the following metals is found in liquid
state at room temperature ?
(a) Na (b) Fe
(c) Cr (d) Hg
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Q.20. Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of a metal with a metal or non-metal. Which among the
following alloys contain non-metal as one of its constituents ?
(a) Brass (b) Bronze
(c) Amalgam (d) Steel
Q.21. An electrolytic cell consists of
(0 positively charged cathode (ii) negatively charged anode
(Hi) positively charged anode (iv) negatively charged cathode
(a) (/) and (ii) (b) (Hi) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (Hi) (d) (ii) and (iv)
Q.22. Which of the following metals are obtained by electrolysis of their chlorides in molten
state ?
(i) Na (ii) Ca
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(Hi) Fe (iv) Cu
(n) (i) and (iv) (b) (Hi) and (iv)
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(c) (i) and (Hi) (d) (i) and (ii)
Q.23. An element A is soft and can be cut with a knife. This is very reactive to air and cannot be
ee
kept open in air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element from the following
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(«) Mg (b) Na
(c) P (d) Ca
for
ur
Q.24. Which among the following alloys contain mercury as one of its constituents ?
(a) Stainless steel (b) Alnico
(c) Solder (d) Zinc amalgam
ks
Yo
Q.25. Reaction between X and Y, forms compound Z. X loses electron and Y gains electron.
oo
Which of the following properties is not shown by Z ?

B
(a) Has high melting point. (b) Has low melting point.
re
(c) Conducts electricity in molten state. (d) Occurs as solid.

Q.26. 2 mL each of concentrated HC1, HN03 and a mixture of concentrated HC1 and concentrated
ou
ad
HN03 in the ratio of 3:1 were taken in test tubes labelled as A, B and C. A small piece of metal was
Y
put in each test tube. No change occurred in test tubes A and B but the metal got dissolved in test
tube C respectively. The metal could be
nd
Re
(a) A1 (b) Au
(c) Cu (d) Pt
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Q.27. Generally, non-metals are not conductors of electricity. Which of the following is a good
conductor of electricity ?
(a) Diamond (b) Graphite
(c) Sulphur (d) Fullerene
Q.28. If copper is kept open in air, it slowly loses its shining brown surface and gains a green
coating. It is due to the formation of
(a) CuS04 (b) CuC03
(c) Cu(N03)2 (d) CuO
Q.29. Which one of the following four metals would be displaced from the solution of its salts by
other three metals ?
(a) Mg (b) Ag
(c) Zn (d) Cu
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Q.30. Metals are refined by using different methods. Which of the following metals are refined
by electrolytic refining ?
(0 Au (ii) Cu
(Hi) Na (iv) K
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (Hi)
(c) (ii) and (Hi) (d) (Hi) and (iv)
Q.31. Which of the following oxide(s) of iron would be obtained on prolonged reaction of iron
with steam ?
(a) FeO (b) Fe203
(c) Fe304 (d) Fe203 and Fe304
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1. (d) Calcium reacts comparatively less violently with water and floats on the surface due to
hydrogen gas sticking to the surface of the metal.
Flo
2. (a) The ability of a metal to be drawn into wires is called ductility.
3. (c) Au and Ag are unreactive metals and therefore exist in their native state.
ee
4. (c) Coating a metal with zinc is called galvanisation.
Fr
5. (a) Nickel and chromium are added to iron to make stainless steel.
6. (d) Iodine is a lustrous substairce.
for
ur
7. (d) Element X is a noble gas, Y is short of one electron, it is a non-metal. Z has two electrons
more than the inert gas structure.
ks
8. (b) CC14 is non-ionic, HC1 becomes ionic only in water.
Yo
oo
9. (c) Aluminium oxide reacts both acids and alkalis.

10. (c) Metals (except Mn and Mg) do not give hydrogen gas with nitric acid.
B
11. (c) Graphite conducts electricity and sulphur cannot be coated on electrical wires because
re
of reaction between Cu and S.

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12. (b) Ionic compounds conduct electricity only in the molten state and not in solid state.
ad
13. (d) Iron reacts with steam only.

Y
14. (b) Magnesium does not react with cold water.

nd
15. (d) The properties that are expected from a metal for use as cooking utensils are good thermal
Re
conductivity and high melting point.

Fi
16. (c) Silver reacts with H2S present in the air to form Ag2S which is black in colour.
17. (a) Zinc ions are positively charged. They are deposited at the cathode.
18. (c) An alloy is a mixture of two metals (or a metal and a non-metal) mixed homogeneously.
19. (d) Mercury is very well known to be a liquid at room temperature.
20. (d) Steel is an alloy of iron (metal) with carbon (non-metal).
21. (b) Anode is connected to positive pole and cathode is connected to negative pole of battery.
22. (d) Active metals Na and Ca are obtained by the electrolysis of their chlorides in molten state.
23. (b) Sodium is a soft and reactive element.
24. (d) Alloys with mercury as one of the metals are given the name amalgam.
25. (b) It is an ionic compound. Ionic compounds have high melting points.
26. (d) Gold (Au) does not dissolve in either cone. HC1 or cone. HNG3. But it dissolves in aqua
regia which is a mixture of the above two acids in the ratio of 3 : 1.
27. (b) Graphite is well known to be a conductor of electricity.
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28. (b) Copper reacts with atmospheric carbon dioxide to form copper carbonate.
29. (b) Silver (Ag) is tire least reactive of the four metals.
30. (a) Au and Cu are refined by electrolytic method whereas Na and K are isolated (not refined)
by electrolytic reduction method.
31. (c) Iron reacts with steam to form Fe304.
3Fe (s) + 4H20 (g) . Fe304 (s) + 4H2 (g)

Q.l. From amongst the metals sodium, calcium, aluminium, copper and magnesium, name
low
the metal
(0 which reacts with water only on boiling, and
(ii) another which does not react even with steam. [CBSE 2008]
Ans. (i) Magnesium reacts with water only on heating.
ee
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(ii) Copper does not react even with steam.
Fr
Q.2. Balance the following chemical equation :
Fe (s) + H20 (g) Fe304 (s) + H2 (g) [CBSE 2008]
Ans. 3Fe (s) + 4H20 (g) -> Fe304 (s) + 4H2 (g). f or
ou
Q.3. Name any one metal which reacts neither with cold water nor with hot water but reacts
ks
with steam to produce hydrogen gas. [CBSE 2006]
oo
Ans. Iron.
Y
3Fe (s) + 4H20 (g)-----> Fe304 (s) + 4H2 (g)

B
Q.4. A green layer is gradually formed on a copper plate left exposed to air for a weak in
re
a bathroom. What could this green substance be ? [CBSE 2005]

ou
ad
Ans. It is due to the formation of copper carbonate.

Q.5. Write the chemical equation to represent the reaction taking place between sodium
Y
metal and cold water. [CBSE 2005]

nd
Ans. 2Na (s) + 2F120 (/)-----> 2NaOH (aq) + H2 (g)

Re
Q.6. What is seen to happen when a piece of sodium metal is dropped into water ?
Fi
[CBSE 2005]
Ans. Sodium metal catches fire because of violent reaction.
2Na (s) + 2H20 (/) -> 2NaOH (aq) + H2 (g)
Q.7. What would happen to iron railings on the roadside if they are not painted ? Why does
it happen so ?
Ans. Iron railings get rusted. Iron reacts with moisture and air to form the oxide layer.
Q.8. An element A forms two oxides AO and AOz. The oxide AO is neutral whereas the
oxide A02 is acidic in nature. Would you call element A a metal or a non-metal ?
[CBSE 2011]
Ans. Element A is a non-metal. Only non-metals form neutral and acidic oxides.
Q.9. A non-metal X exists in two different forms Y and Z. Y is the hardest natural substance,
whereas Z is a good conductor of electricity. Identify X, Y and Z. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. X = Carbon
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Y = Diamond
Z = Graphite
Q.10. Identify the most reactive and the least reactive metal amongst the following :
Al, K, Cu, Au.
Ans. Potassium (K) is the most reactive.
Gold (Au) is the least reactive.
Q.ll. Give an example of a metal which is a liquid at room temperature. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. Mercury.
Q.12. Why do silver ornaments lose their shine when kept for sometime ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. They get tarnished by reacting with atmospheric gases to produce silver sulphide.
Q.13. Identify the most reactive and least reactive metals from the reaction below :
w
CuS04 + Fe FeS04 + Cu
FeS04 + Zn ZnS04 + Fe
Ans. Zinc is most reactive and copper is least reactive.
Flo
Q.14. Which method is used to reduce the oxides of highly reactive metals ?
ee
Ans. By electrolysis of the oxides in the molten state.
Q.15. Why do we use copper and aluminium wire for transmission of electric current ?
Fr
[CBSE 2011]
Ans. They have got low resistivity and are good conductors of electricity.
for
ur
Q.16. What is an ore ?
Ans. Minerals from which a metal can be extracted profitably are called ores.
ks
Q.17. Name a non-metal which conducts electricity.
Yo
oo
Ans. Graphite, a form of carbon, conducts electricity.

eB
Q.18. An element X on reacting with oxygen form, an oxide X20. This oxide dissolves in
water and turns blue litmus red. State whether element X is metal or non-metal.
Ans. The element X is a non-metal.
r
ou
ad
Q.19. Name one metal and one non-metal which exist in the liquid state at room temperature.
Y
[CBSE 2012]
Ans. Metal : Mercury
nd
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Non-metal : Bromine
Q.20. Name the metal which has very low melting point and can melt with the heat of your
Fi
palm. [CBSE 2012]

Ans. Gallium/Caesium.
Q.21. Choose the amphoteric oxides amongst the following :
Na20, ZnO, AÔ^ CO2, H20 [CBSE 2012]
Ans. ZnO and AI2O3
Q.22. Name one metal which reacts with very dilute HN03 to evolve hydrogen gas.
[CBSE 2010]
Ans. Magnesium and manganese react with very dilute HNO3 to evolve hydrogen gas.
Q.23. How do we know whether a given element is a non-metal if we know its electronic
configuration ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. If there are four or more than four electrons in the valence cell of the given element, it
is a non-metal.
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Q.24. What kind of compounds are called ionic compounds ? [CBSE 2012]
Or
How are ionic compounds formed ?
Ans. Compounds formed by the transfer of electrons from one atom to the other, are called
ionic compounds.
Q.25. In nature, aluminium is found in combined state whereas silver/gold is found in free
state. Give reason. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. Aluminium is a reactive metal while silver and gold are unreactive metals.
Q.26. Define metallurgy. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. The process of extraction of a metal from its ore is called metallurgy.
Q.27. Which property makes solder suitable for welding electrical wires ? [CBSE 2010]
w
Ans. Low melting point makes solder suitable for welding electrical wires.
Flo
Q.l. Give reasons for the following :
0) Gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
ee
(ii) Carbonate and sulphide ores are generally converted into oxide ores prior to reduction
Fr
during the process of extraction. [CBSE 2008]
Ans. (z) Gold and silver are the most malleable and ductile metals. They are the least reactive
for
ur
and hence retain their shine on exposure to the atmosphere.
(ii) Metal oxide is easier to reduce to the metal than the metal sulphide or metal carbonate.
ks
Q.2. Choose a metal out of the following which reacts with hot water but not with cold
Yo
oo
water :
Sodium, Magnesium, Iron.
B
Mention the products formed during the reaction. [CBSE 2006]

re
Ans. Magnesium reacts with hot water producing magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen.
ou
ad
Mg + 2H20 Hot -> Mg(OH)2 + H2

Y
Magnesium Hydrogen
hydroxide
nd
Q.3. Choose the metal (from the list below) which can displace zinc from zinc sulphate
Re
solution:
Fi
Lead, Copper, Magnesium, Silver.

Write the equation of chemical reaction involved. [CBSE 2006]
Ans. Magnesium can displace zinc from the solution of zinc sulphate.
Mg (s) + ZnS04 (aq) MgS04 (aq) + Zn (s)
Magnesium
sulphate
Q.4. What is the activity series of metals ? Rearrange the following metals in an increasing
order of reactivity :
Aluminium, Zinc, Mercury. [CBSE 2005]
Ans. The list of metals arranged in the order of their increasing or decreasing activities is called
activity series.
The given metals can be arranged in increased order of reactivity as :
Mercury < Zinc < Aluminium
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Q.5. Write chemical equations for reactions taking place when

(i) manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium powder.
(n) steam is passed over red hot iron.
Ans. (/) 3Mii02 (s) + 4A1 (s) 3Mn (/) + 2A1203 (s) + Heat
(ii) 3Fe (s) + 4H20 (^)---- > Fe304 (s) + 4H2 (g) '
Q.6. Define the term alloy. Write two advantages of making alloys.
Ans. An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal.
Iron can be made hard by mixing carbon with it. Stainless steel can be made by alloying nickel
and chromium with iron. Alloys are resistant to corrosion.
Q.7. Why do we make alloys ? State any two reasons.
Ans. We make alloys to improve the qualities of a metal and to prevent it from corrosion.
Q.8. What are the constituents of bronze ? Write its two main uses. Name the common
w
constituents of brass and bronze.
Ans. Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin.
Flo
Uses : 1. It is used for making medals.
2. It is used for making statues.
ree
Copper is the common metal in brass and bronze.
Q.9. A copper plate was dipped into a solution of AgN03. After sometime, a black layer
F
was deposited on the copper plate. State the reason for it. Write the chemical equation of the
or
ur
reaction involved.
sf
Ans. Black layer was deposited due to the formation of silver.
2AgN03 (aq) + Cu (s)-----> Cu(N03)2 (aq) + 2Ag (s)
k
Yo
Black
oo
Q.10. Differentiate between roasting and calcination processes giving one example of each.
eB
ICBSE 2011]
Ans. Roasting : Sulphide ore is strongly heated in the presence of air into metal oxide.
r
Heat
ou
2ZnS + 302 2ZnO + 2S02T

ad
Calcination : Carbonate ore is strongly heated in the absence of air into metal oxide.
Y
Heat
ZnC03 ZnO + C02T
nd
Re
Q.ll. The oxide X203 is unaffected by water. Outline a method by which a sample of metal
Fi
X can be obtained from its ore. Give one reason as to why have you chosen this method.
Ans. As X203 is unaffected by water, it must be A1203. Aluminium metal can be obtained by
electrolysis of molten A1203. This is beacause A1203 cannot be reduced by carbon.
Q.12. A substance X which is an oxide of a metal is used intensively in the cement industry.
This element is present in bones also. On treatment with water it forms a solution which turns
red litmus blue. Identify X and also write the chemical reactions involved. ICBSE 2011]
Ans. The substance X is calcium oxide, CaO.
The element calcium is present in bones.
On treatment with water, it produces calcium hydroxide as under :
CaO + H20-----> Ca(OH)2
Calcium
hydroxide
Calcium hydroxide is a base. It turns red litmus blue.
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Q.13. The reaction of metal X with Fe203 is highly reactive and is used to join railway tracks.
Identify the metal X. Write the chemical equation of its reaction with Fe203.
Ans. The metal X is Al. The reaction that takes place is as under :
Fe203 (s) + 2A1 (s) * 2Fe (/) + A1203 (s) + Heat
Q.14. A metal A which is used in thermite process, when heated with oxygen gives an oxide
B, which is amphoteric in nature. Identify A and B. Write down the reactions of oxide B with
HC1 and NaOH. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. The metal A is aluminium Al.
The substance B is A1203 which is amphoteric because it reacts with both acid and base.
A]203 + 6HC1-----> 2A1203 + 3H20
A1203 + 2NaOH-----» 2NaA102 + H20
w
Q.15. Name the reducing agent in the following reaction :
3Mn02 + 4A1-----> 3Mn + 2A1203
Flo
State which is more active, Mn or Al and why ?
Ans. Aluminium is reducing agent in the given reaction. Aluminium is more active because
ee
it lies higher than Mn in the activity series.
Fr
Q.16. Which one of the methods given in Column I are used for extraction of each of the
metals given in Column II.
for
ur
Column I Column II
1. Reduction with carbon Al, Zn, Na
ks
Yo
2. Electrolytic reduction Fe, Mn
oo
3. Reduction with Al
B
Ans. Reduction with carbon Zn, Fe

re
Electrolytic reduction Al, Na

ou
Reduction with Al Mn.

ad
Q.17. What is 24 carat gold ? How will you convert it into 18 carat gold ?
Y
Ans. 24 carat gold is pure gold. 18 carat gold is obtained by mixing 18 parts of gold with 6
parts of copper or silver metal.
nd
Re
Q.18. Explain why the surface of some metals acquire dull appearance when exposed to air
Fi
for a long time.

Ans. This is because of corrosion. Iron acquires a dull brown colour due to formation of iron
oxide.
Copper acquires a green colour due to the formation of copper carbonate. Silver acquires a black
colour due to the formabon of sulphide.
Q.19. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. Sodium reacts with air so vigorously that it catches fire if kept in the open. Hence to
protect it and prevent accidental fires, it is kept immersed in kerosene oil. Sodium also reacts with
water to evolve hydrogen gas.
Q.20. What are amphoteric oxides ? Give two examples of amphoteric oxide with balanced
chemical equation. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. An oxide which reacts with acids as well as bases to produce salt and water is called
amphoteric oxide.
A1203 + 6HC1 -> 2A1C13 + 3H20
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A1203 + 2NaOH -> 2NaA102 + H20

Sod. aluminate
Q.21. Zinc does not evolve hydrogen gas on reacting with HN03. [CBSE 2010]
Ans. Nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent. It oxidises hydrogen produced to form water and
is itself reduced to oxide of nitrogen.
Q.22. If a strip of aluminium with scratched clean surface is dipped into an aqueous solution
of copper sulphate for little time, the surface of the strip becomes brownish. What is the reason
for this ? Write the balanced chemical equation for this. [CBSE 2010]
Ans. Aluminium being more reactive than copper displaces it from the solution of copper
sulphate. The displaced copper is deposited on the surface of aluminium as brown deposit.
2A1 (s) + 3CuS04 (aq) -> A12(S04)3 {aq) + Cu (s)
low
Q.23. Explain why calcium metal after reacting with water starts floating on its surface. Write
the chemical equation for the reaction. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. Calcium reacts with water to form hydrogen gas. Tire bubbles of hydrogen formed stick
to the surface of calcium. Hydrogen gas being lighter, calcium starts floating on water.
ee
Ca + 2H20 * Ca(OH)2 + H2
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Q.24. State four general properties of ionic compounds. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. Properties of ionic compounds are as given below :
(i) They are hard, brittle and crystalline solids.
(n) They are soluble in water.
for
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(Hi) They have high melting and boiling points.
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(iv) They are good conductors of electricity in solution and molten states.
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Q.25. Why is carbon not used for reducing aluminium oxide to obtain aluminium ?
B
[CBSE 2010]
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Or
Metals placed high in the reactivity series cannot be obtained from their compounds by
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heating with carbon. [CBSE 2011]

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Ans. Carbon cannot reduce oxide of aluminium because aluminium has higher affinity for
oxygen than for carbon.
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Q.26. How do properties of iron change when

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(i) a small quantity of carbon is mixed with it ?

(n) nickel and chromium are mixed with it ? [CBSE 2012]
Ans. (z) Iron becomes hard and strong when a small quantity of carbon is mixed with it.
(zz) Iron becomes hard and rustfree on mixing nickel and chromium with it.
Q.27. Write four important purposes of making alloys. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. Purposes of making alloys are :
(z) To increase hardness.
(zz) To increase resistance towards corrosion.
(Hi) To modify reactivity.
(iv) To lower melting point.
Q.28. Define the term 'alloy'. Write constituent elements of bronze. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. Mixture of two metals or a metal and a non-metal is called alloy.
Constituents of bronze are copper and tin.
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Q.29. Why do silver articles turn black and copper items turn green after sometime ?
[CBSE 2013]
Ans. Silver articles turn black after sometime due to the formation of silver sulphide, Ag2S
layer on it.
Copper items turn green after sometime due to the formation of copper carbonate layer on it.
Q.l. (a) Show the formation of NaCl from sodium and chlorine atoms by the transfer of
electrons.
(b) Why has sodium chloride a high melting point ?
(c) Name the anode and the cathode used in electrolytic refining of impure copper metal.
[CBSE 2008]
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Ans. (a) Formation of NaCl from sodium and chlorine atoms by the transfer of electrons is
shown as under :
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Na ■>
Na+ + e~
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2, 8, 1 2, 8
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Cl + c" * cr
2, 8, 7 2, 8, 8
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Na + ;ch----* [Na+] [;ci‘]
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{b) Sodium and chlorine ions attract each other and are held by strong force of attraction. A
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considerable amount of energy is required to overcome force of attraction. Therefore, sodium

chloride has a high melting point.
B
(c) Impure copper is made the anode and a thin strip of pure copper is made the cathode.
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Q.2. (a) Show the formation of Na20 by transfer of electrons between the combining atqms.
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(b) Why are ionic compounds usually hard ?

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(c) How is it that ionic compounds in the solid state do not conduct electricity and they
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do so when in molten state ? [CBSE 2008]

nd
Ans. (a) Formation of Na20 is shown below :

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Ox.
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Na O [Na+]2 [ :b«]2- -----► Na20

A
Na''—' x x
(b) Ionic compounds are usually hard because of strong force of attraction between the ions.
(c) Due to rigid structure in the solid state, movement of ions is not possible. Hence, ionic
compounds do not conduct electricity in the solid state. In the molten state, ions become mobile
and conduct electricity.
Q.3. (a) What are amphoteric oxides ? Choose the amphoteric oxides from amongst the
following oxides :
Na20, ZnO, A1203/ CO^ H20
(b) Why is it non-metals do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids ? [CBSE 2008]
Ans. (a) Metal oxides which react both with acids and bases to form salt and water are known
as amphoteric oxides. Out of the given list, ZnO and A1203 are amphoteric oxides.
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(b) Elements which lie higher than hydrogen in the activity series are capable of displacing
hydrogen from dilute acids. Non-metals lie below hydrogen in the activity series. Therefore, they
do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids.
Q.4. Name two metals which react violently with cold water. Write any three observations
which you would make when such a metal is dropped into water. How would you identify the
gas evolved, if any, during the reaction ? [CBSE 2008]
Ans. Sodium and potassium metals react violently with cold water.
Three observations that we make are :
(0 The metal floats on the surface of water.
(ii) The reaction is exothermic.
(Hi) Hydrogen gas evolved catches fire.
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To identify the gas evolved, we pass the gas through soap solution. Soap bubbles are formed
which rise up. When a burning candle is brought near the bubbles, hydrogen gas bums with a
'pop' sound.
Q.5. (a) Name a metal for each case :
(i) It does not react with cold as well as hot water but reacts with steam.
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(ii) It does not react with any physical state of water.
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(b) When calcium metal is added to water, the gas evolved does not catch fire but the
same gas evolved on adding sodium metal to water catches fire. Why is it so ? [CBSE 2008]
for
Ans. (a) (i) Al, Fe and Zn do not react with cold as well as hot water but react with steam.
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(ii) Lead, copper, silver, gold, etc., do not react with any physical state of water.
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(b) The reaction of calcium with water is less violent. The heat evolved is not sufficient for
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hydrogen gas evolved to catch fire.
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Q.6. Give reasons for the following :

B
(i) Zinc can displace copper from copper sulphate solution.

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(ii) Silver articles become black after some time when exposed to air.
(Hi) A metal sulphide is converted to its oxide to extract the metal from a sulphide ore.
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[CBSE 2008]
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Ans. (i) Zinc can displace copper from copper sulphate solution because zinc is more reactive
than copper.
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(ii) Silver articles become black after some time when exposed to air. This is because silver
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reacts with sulphur present in air (in the form of H2S gas), to form silver sulphide which is black.
(Hi) It is easier to reduce an oxide than the sulphide to extract the metal from the ore.
(i) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
(H) To make hot water tanks, copper is used and not steel (an alloy of iron).
(Hi) Lemon is used for restoring the shine of tarnished copper decorations.
Ans. (i) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery because these are the least
reactive metals. They are least corroded and maintain their shine when exposed to atmosphere.
(ii) Copper is better conductor of heat than steel. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon. Alloys
are poor conductors of heat, that is why copper is used to make hot water tanks.
(Hi) Copper articles wear a green coating of copper carbonate. This layer of copper carbonate
is removed by rubbing the surface with lemon. Citric acid present in lemon reacts with copper
carbonate to form soluble copper citrate and the shine of the copper article is restored.
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(0 Sodium and potassium are stored under kerosene.
(ii) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal. Even then, it can be used for making utensils
for cooking.
(Hi) Ionic compounds have in general high melting points. [CBSE 20081
Ans. (i) Sodium and potassium are highly reactive metals. They catch fire when kept in the
open. That is why they are stored under kerosene to prevent contact with air.
(ii) Although aluminium is a highly reactive metal, it is still being used to make cooking
utensils. In fact, it is coated with a layer of aluminium oxide. The protective oxide layer prevents
aluminium from further oxidation. Thus, it can be safely used for cooking.
(in) Ionic compounds have high melting points because inter-ionic attractive forces are strong
and a considerable amount of energy is required to break this attraction.
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Q.9. Explain the following terms :
(i) Mineral (ii) Ore (Hi) Gangue. [CBSE 2006]
Ans. (i) Mineral : Elements or compounds which occur in their natural form in the earth's
crust are called minerals.
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(ii) Ores : Minerals from which a metal can be extracted profitably are called ores.
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(Hi) Gangue : Impurities such as soil and sand which are present in the minerals or ores are
called gangue.
Q.10. State reasons for the following :
(i) Metals are good conductors of heat.
f or
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(ii) Addition of some silver to pure gold for making ornaments.
(Hi) Inability of non-metals for displacing hydrogen from dilute sulphuric acid.
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Ans. (i) Metals possess free or mobile electrons which are responsible for conduction of heat.
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eB
(ii) Addition of some silver to pure gold makes it hard which is necessary for making
ornaments.
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(Hi) Non-metal cannot provide electrons to convert H+ ions to hydrogen gas.

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Q.ll. State reasons for the following :

Y
(i) Aluminium oxide is called an amphoteric oxide.

(ii) Sodium and potassium metals are kept immersed under kerosene.
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(Hi) Hydrogen gas is not evolved when most metals react with nitric acid. [CBSE 2005]
Ans. (i) An oxide which reacts with an acid as well as with a base is called amphoteric oxide.
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Aluminium oxide also reacts with an acid and a base both. Therefore, it is an amphoteric oxide.
A1203 + 6HC1 2A1C13 + 3H20
A1203 + 2NaOH 2NaA102 + H20
(ii) Sodium and potassium metals catch fire when kept in the open. This is because the
reaction with oxygen is violent. The metals catch fire due to the energy produced in the reaction.
To prevent this, these metals are kept immersed under kerosene.
(Hi) This is because, the hydrogen produced initially reacts with nitric acid to produce oxides
of nitrogen.
(i) Zinc oxide is considered an amphoteric oxide.
(ii) Non-metals in general do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids.
(Hi) Metals conduct electricity.
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Ans. (i) Zinc oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis. Therefore, it is an amphoteric oxide.
ZnO + HC1-----» ZnCl2 + H20
ZnO + 2NaOH-----> Na2Zn02 + H20
Sodium zincate
(ii) Non-metals camiot provide electrons to convert H+ ions into hydrogen gas.
(in) Metals conduct electricity with the help of free or mobile electrons.
Q.13. (a) Why metals are not found in their free state generally ?
(b) If a strip of aluminium with scratched clean surface is dipped into an aqueous solution
of copper sulphate for little time, the surface of the strip becomes brownish. What is the reason
for this ? Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. (a) Metals are reactive atoms as they are highly electropositive. They readily react with
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other atoms during their formation in earth and become compounds.
(b) Displacement reaction takes place as A1 is more reactive than Cu. Copper displaced will
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stick on the A1 rod making it brownish.
2A1 (s) + 3CuS04 (aq)-----» A12(S04)3 (aq) + 3Cu (s)
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Q.14. Explain how the following metals are obtained from their compounds by reduction
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process :
(a) Metal X which is low in reactivity series.
for
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(b) Metal Y which is in middle of series.
(c) Metal Z which is high in the reactivity series.
Ans. (a) Metal X is obtained simply by heating their oxides. For example, mercury can be
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obtained by heating mercuric oxide.
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2HgO (s) Heat * 2Hg (/) + 02 (g)

B
(b) Metals in the middle of series can be obtained by heating their oxides with carbon. For
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example.
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ZnO (s) + C (s) Heat * Zn (s) + CO (g)

Y
(c) The metals high in the reactivity series cannot be obtained by reduction of their oxides,
with carbon. These are obtained by the electrolytic reduction of molten chlorides (in case of sodium,
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potassium, magnesium and calcium) and molten oxides in case of say aluminium. The reaction in
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case of NaCl is as follows :

Na+ + e Na At cathode
2cr Cl2 + 2e~ At anode
Q.15. (a) What do you see when a magnesium ribboVt is burnt ? Is magnesium oxidised or
reduced in this reaction ?
(b) Define corrosion. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. (a) Magnesium burns with a dazzling light producing white ash of magnesium oxide.
2Mg + 02 ■» 2MgO
Magnesium is oxidised because it combines with oxygen.
(b) Corrosion is defined as the combination of a metal with atmospheric oxygen, carbon
dioxide and moisture to form an oxide, carbonate, etc. Corrosion causes damage to car bodies,
bridges, etc.
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Q.16. List in a tabular form, the changes in colour observed and the name of the compound
formed when silver, copper and iron are said to be corroded. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. The information in the tabular form is given as under :
Metal Change in colour when they corrode Compound formed
Silver Black Silver sulphide, Ag2S
Copper Green Copper carbonate, CuC03
Iron Reddish Brown Iron oxide, Fe203.xH20
Q.17. With reference to the electrorefining of impure copper, answer the following :
(a) What is the electrolyte used ?
(b) Name the cathode and anode used.
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(c) What happens at cathode and anode ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. (a) The electrolyse used in the refining of copper is acidified CuS04 solution.
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(b) Anode consists of impure copper.
Cathode consists of a strip of pure copper.
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(c) Pure copper is deposited at cathode.
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Cu2+ + 2e~ * Cu
Copper dissolves into the solution at the anode.
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Cu > Cu2+ + 2e~
Q.18. A metal M found in nature as sulphide ore (M2S) is one of the good conductors of heat
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and electricity and used in making electric wires.
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(z) Identify the metal M.

(n) Write the balanced chemical equations involved in the process of extraction of the
B
metal. [CBSE 2010]

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Ans. (z) The metal M is copper, Cu.

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(u) Balanced chemical equations for the extraction of copper are :

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Heat
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(a) Cu2S (s) + 302 (s) — -> 2Cu20 (s) + 2S02 (g)
O’) 2Cu20 (s) + Cu2S (s) ■> 6Cu (s) + S02 (g)
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Q.19. In a thermit reaction, a compound of iron reacts with a metal.

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(0 Name the metal used in this reaction.

(») After completion of this reaction a metal is obtained in the molten state. Identify the
metal.
m Represent this reaction in the form of a balanced chemical equation.
m Mention the most common use of this reaction. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. (z) The metal is aluminium, Al.
(«) Iron, Fe is obtained in the molten state.
(Hi) Fe203 + 2A1 2Fe + A1203 + Pleat
The reaction is most commonly used in to join railway tracks or cracked heavy machine
parts.
Q.20. What is concentration of an ore ? Why is it necessary to concentrate an ore before
processing ? Name an ore of mercury and copper. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. The process of removing unwanted impurities like sand, soil, etc., present in an ore is
called concentration of the ore.
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100 U-Like Science-X
We need to concentrate the ore so that the impurities do not interfere in the extraction of the
metal.
Ore of mercury : cinnabar (HgS)
Ore of copper : copper pyrite (Cu2S)
Q.21. Give reasons :
(0 Silver metal does not easily combine with oxygen but silver jewellary tarnishes after
sometime.
(n) Iron grills are frequently painted.
(Hi) Gold ornaments retain their luster even after several years of use. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. (i) Silver metal reacts with the H2S gas present in traces in the atmosphere to form silver
sulphide which tarnishes the metal.
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00 Iron forms a layer of rust (Fe203.xH20) on combination with oxygen and moisture
present in the atmosphere. This weakens the metal. To prevent this loss iron grills are frequently
painted.
(Hi) Gold is an unreactive metal. It does not react with atmospheric oxygen and acids. So the
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lustre of gold jewellery is retained even after several years.
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Q.22. (a) Sodium is a highly reactive metal and it cannot be obtained from its oxide by
heating with carbon. Give reason.
(b) How can sodium be obtained from sodium chloride ?
for [CBSE 2013]
Ans. (a) Sodium has a greater affinity for oxygen than carbon. Therefore carbon cannot reduce
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sodium oxide to sodium metal.
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(b) Sodium is obtained by the electrolytic reduction of molten sodium chloride. Sodium metal
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is deposited at the cathode and chlorine gas at the anode.

B
Na+ + e~-----» Na At cathode

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cr----» Cl + e~
At anode
Cl + Cl * Cl2
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Q.23. (a) Compare the properties of a typical metal and a non-metal on the basis of the
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following:
(i) Nature of the oxide formed by them.
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(ii) Conductivity.
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(b) Name a non-metal which is lustrous and a metal which is liquid at room temperature.
[CBSE 2013]
Ans. (a), (i) Sodium is a metal, it forms basic oxide while carbon is a non-metal. It forms acidic
oxide.
(ii) Copper is a metal. It is a good conductor of heat and electricity. Sulphur is a non-metal.
It is a non-conductor of heat and electricity.
(b) Graphite, a form of carbon is a non-metal and is lustrous. Mercury, (Hg) a metal is a
liquid at room temperature.
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Q.l. Sample pieces of 5 metals A, B, C, D and E were added to the tabulated solution
separately. The results observed are shown in the table :
Solution
Metal
FeSQ4 CuS04 ZnS04 AgN03 A12(S04)3
A No change No change No change A coating No change
on the metal
B A grey deposit A brown No change A coating No change
on the metal coating on on the metal
the metal
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C No change No change No change No change No change
D No change No change A coating No change
on the metal
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£ Brown coating New coating New coating No change
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Based on the observations recorded in the table, answer the following :
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(z) Which is the most reactive metal ?
(zz) Which is the least reactive metal ?
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(Hi) What would be observed if metal D were added to a solution of Copper(II) sulphate ?
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(iv) What would be observed if metal E were added to a solution of iron(II) sulphate ?
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(v) Arrange the metals A, B, C, D and E in order of decreasing activity.
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Ans. (z) E is the most reactive metal.

(zz) C is the least reactive metal.
B
(Hi) A brown coating will be formed if the metal is more reactive than Cu, for example, Sn,
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Pb, etc.
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(iv) A grey deposit on the metal will take place.

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(n) E<B<D<A<C
Q.l. (i) Define the term 'alloy' and 'amalgam'. Name the alloy used for welding electric
nd
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wires together. What are its constituents ?

(zz) Name the constituents of the following alloys :
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(a) Brass (b) Stainless steel

(c) Bronze.
State one property in each of these alloys, which is different from its main constituents.
ICBSE 2005]
Ans. (z) A homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal in definite
proportion is called an alloy.
If one of the constituents of an alloy is mercury, then that alloy is called amalgam.
Solder which is an alloy of lead and tin is used for welding electrical wires together.
(zz) (a) Constituents of brass are copper and zinc.
(b) Constituents of stainless steel are iron, nickel and chromium.
(c) Constituents of bronze are copper and tin.
Brass and bronze has lower electrical conductivity than their constituents.
Stainless steel does not get corroded easily as iron does.
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Q.3. (a) Differentiate between metals and non-metals on the basis of any two physical
properties.
(b) Explain why metals have a tendency to loose electrons.
(c) Name the type of compounds formed by the transfer of electrons between metals and
non-metals by giving one example. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. (a) Metals can be differentiated from non-metals on the basis of the following two
properties :
(i) Lustre
(ii) Conductivity
For example, copper, a metal shows metallic lustre and is a good conductor of heat and
electricity. Sulphur, a non-metal, does not have lustre and is not a good conductor of heat and
low
electricity.
(b) Metals have 1, 2 or 3 electrons in the outermost orbit. After losing these electrons, they
get the stable inert gas structure.
(c) Ionic compounds are formed when a metal donates its electron to the non-metal. For
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example, sodium having the electronic configuration 2, 8,1, donates one electron to chlorine which
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has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 7 thereby giving inert (noble) gas stable structure to both.
Na Cl Na+ cr
2, 8, 1 2, 8, 7 2, 8
for 2, 8, 8
Q.4. Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium, calcium etc., to the respective
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metals. Justify the statement giving appropriate reason. State the method used for obtaining
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these metals from their salts. For obtaining sodium by this method.
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(i) Name the salt of sodium used and the rod at which sodium metal is deposited.
B
(ii) Identify the gas produced during the process.

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(Hi) Show the chemical reactions taking place at both the electrodes.
(iv) Suggest two other metals which can be obtained from their compounds using same
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method. [CBSE 2013]

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Ans. Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of active metals like sodium, magnesium, calcium, etc.,
because these active metals have greater affinity for oxygen than carbon. These metals would
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therefore not lose oxygen and be reduced to the metal. These metals are obtained by electrolytic
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reduction of their salts in molten state.

(i) Sodium chloride is used for extraction of sodium and it is obtained at cathode.
(ii) Chlorine gas is produced in the process.
(iii) Na+ + e~ ■> Na At cathode
cr * ci + <r At anode
Cl + Cl * Cl2
(iv) Potassium and calcium can be obtained from their salts by similar method.
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4
Life Processes
[NCERT CHAPTER 6]
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1. The various life processes which takes place in the living organisms are called metabolic
activities or metabolism. These life processes can either be anabolic or catabolic in nature.
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2. Nutrition, respiration, transportation and excretion are some of the life processes that are
dealt in this chapter. These life processes are essential for the functioning as well as
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maintenance of living organisms.
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3. Energy is needed to maintain a state of order in any living organism.
4. Nutrition is defined as a process by which living organisms procure food or synthesize it
for
and convert it into simple absorbable form by a series of biochemical processes.
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5. Nutrient can be defined as the substance which an organism obtains from its surroundings
and use it as a source of energy as well as provides raw materials for the biosynthesis of
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body constituents.
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6. There are two basic modes of nutrition : autotrophic and heterotrophic.

B
7. In autotrophic nutrition organisms manufacture their own food from simple inorganic raw
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materials. Majority of higher green plants are capable of manufacturing their own food in
the presence of light by using water and carbon dioxide.
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8. Heterotrophic organisms cannot prepare their own food by themselves. They are dependent
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on plants, animals or on dead decaying organic materials for their food. Saprophytes
derive their nourishment from dead decaying matter.
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9. Holozoic nutrition is a mode of nutrition which envolves swallowing of solid food material.
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Ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation and egestion are the various steps involved
in holozoic nutrition.
10. Photosynthesis can be defined as the synthesis of organic compound (carbohydrates) from
C02 and H20 using radiant energy or solar energy by chlorophyll molecules. The process
of photosynthesis involves two phases : Light Reaction and Dark Reaction.
11. The following events occur during the process of photosynthesis :
(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
(ii) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy as well as splitting of water molecules
into hydrogen and oxygen.
(Hi) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.
12. In animals, procurement of food is highly variable. The process of mode of nutrition
becomes more complex in multicellular organism as compared to unicellular organisms.
In single-celled organisms like Amoeba, the food is taken in through the general body
surface.
(103)
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13. In humans, the digestive system consists of a long alimentary canal and digestive glands.
Various parts of alimentary canal in sequence are mouth, buccal cavity, oesophagus,
stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum and anus.
14. hr mouth, food is crushed by teeth and mixed with saliva, secreted by salivary glands.
Saliva contains an enzyme called salivary amylase that breaks down starch into sugar.
15. When we swallow the food, it is further pushed forward by rhythmic contraction and
relaxation of muscles present in lining of alimentary canal. These movements are called
peristaltic movements. Thus, the food is carried to stomach through food-pipe or
oesophagus.
16. Stomach is a large C-shaped hollow organ which expands when food enters it. The muscular
walls of the stomach help in mixing the food thoroughly.
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17. The gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach secrete hydrochloric acid, a protein
digesting enzyme called pepsin and mucus.
18. Hydrochloric acid facilitates the action of the enzyme pepsin as this enzyme works in
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acidic medium. Apart from it, hydrochloric acid prevents fermentation of food and also
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kills harmful microorganisms present in the food. Mucus protects the inner wall of stomach
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from excoriation by highly acidic HC1.
19. From stomach, the food enters the small intestine. The exit of food from the stomach is
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regulated by a sphincter muscle which releases it in small amounts into the small intestine.
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20. The length of the small intestine differs in various animals depending on the feeding habit.
Herbivores have longer small intestine (due to high bulk of vegetal matter) as compared
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to carnivores (due to smaller bulk of animal food).
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21. The small intestine is the site of complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
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The proximal part of small intestine referred as duodenum receives partially digested
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acidified food from stomach. Duodenal glands secrete an alkaline mucus containing juice
that helps in neutralising the chyme and protects the duodenal wall from corrosion.
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22. A common hepatopancreatic duct opens into duodenum. It is formed of common bile duct
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from liver and gall bladder as well as a pancreatic duct from pancreas.
23. Fats are present in the form of large globules in small intestine which makes it difficult for
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enzymes to act on them. Bile juice from the liver contains bile pigments and bile salts. Bile
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salts break fats into small fine globules by a process called emulsification and thus increases
the efficiency of enzyme action (lipase).
24. Pancreas secretes slightly alkaline pancreatic juice which contains three major following
enzymes :
(0 Trypsin which digests proteins.
(ii) Lipase which digests fats.
(Hi) Amylase which digests carbohydrates.
25. The walls of the small intestine contain glands which secrete intestinal juice. The enzymes
present in it, finally convert the proteins into amino acids, complex carbohydrates into
glucose and fats into fatty acids and glycerol.
26. The inner lining of the small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called villi
which increase the surface area for absorption of digested food. The villi are richly supplied
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Life Processes 105
with blood vessels which take the absorbed food to each and every cell of the body, where
it is utilised for obtaining energy, building up new tissues and the repair of the old ones.
27. The undigested food is sent into the large intestine where water is reabsorbed from
undigested food. The rest of the undigested food material is removed from the body via
anus. The exit of this waste material is regulated by the anal sphincter.
^ 28. The food material taken in during the process of nutrition is used by cells to provide
energy for various life processes.
29. Some organisms use oxygen to bring about complete break-down of glucose in cells into
carbon dioxide and water (Aerobic respiration). Respiration is a biochemical catabolic
process that involves (/) intake of molecular oxygen from environment (//') stepwise oxidation
of food with incoming oxygen (Hi) elimination of carbon dioxide produced during oxidation
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and (iv) release of energy.
30. Organisms like yeast do not use oxygen and incomplete break-down of glucose into ethanol,
carbon dioxide and energy takes place. Such kind of respiration is referred as anaerobic
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respiration.
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31. Similarly, during vigorous exercise in our body muscles, anaerobic respiration takes place
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resulting in formation of lactic acid and energy. Accumulation of lactic acid causes muscle
cramps.
32. Glycolysis - the first step in the break-down of glucose - a six-carbon molecule, into a
or
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three-carbon molecule called pyruvate. It is a common step for both aerobic and anaerobic
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respiration which takes place in the cytoplasm of cell.
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33. However, the break-down of pyruvate in presence of oxygen takes place in mitochondria
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resulting in release of energy. Hence, mitochondria are also known as power-house of the
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cell.
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34. The energy released during cellular respiration is used to synthesise, a molecule called
ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) which is the energy currency of living organism. When the
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terminal phosphate linkage in ATP is broken using water, the energy equivalent to
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30.5 kj/mol is released. ATP is used in body for muscles contraction, protein synthesis,
conduction of nerve impulses and many other activities.
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35. Aerobic organisms need to ensure that there is sufficient intake of oxygen.
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36. Plants exchange gases through stomata by the process of diffusion. In plants, during night
C02 is released while during day time the C02 released is used in photosynthesis, hence
only 02 is released.
37. Animals have evolved different organs for the uptake of 02 and release of C02. The
organisms that live in water use the oxygen dissolved in water. Since the amount of
oxygen in the water is fairly low compared to the amount of oxygen in the air, the rate
of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that seen in terrestrial organisms.
38. Fishes take in water through their mouths and force it past the gills where the dissolved
oxygen is taken up by blood.
39. Terrestrial organisms use the oxygen in the atmosphere for respiration. This oxygen is
taken in by different organs in different animals.
40. Respiratory system of all organisms have following features :
(i) Large, fine, delicate and thin surface area.
(//) Respiratory surface should be richly supplied with blood capillaries.
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(Hi) There should be a provision for carrying oxygen to respiratory surface and carrying
away C02 from the respiratoiy surface. So respiratory surface must be permeable to
respiratory gases.
41. In human beings, the air is taken into the body by nostrils. The air while passing through
the nostrils is filtered by fine hairs that line the passage so that the air going into the body
is free of dust and other impurities. The passage is also lined with mucus which helps in
cleansing the air by trapping microbes.
42. From nostril, the air passes through pharynx into lungs via trachea. Incomplete C-shaped
rings of cartilage are present in the trachea which ensure that the air-passage does not
collapse when there is no air in it.
43. The trachea branches into bronchi and bronchioles in lungs which finally terminate in
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balloon-like structures called alveoli. The alveoli provide a surface where the exchange of
gases can take place. The walls of alveoli contain an extensive network of blood-vessels.
44. When we breathe in air our chest cavity becomes larger. Contraction of external intercostal
muscles pushes the rib cage in outward and upward direction. The volume of chest cavity
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increases and pressure decreases. So the air rushes into the lungs through external nostrils.
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This process is referred as inspiration or inhalation.
45. During expiration or exhalation expulsion of foul air rich in carbon dioxide takes place. It
is caused due to relaxation of inspiratory muscles. It pulls the rib cage inwardly and
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downwardly. Reduction in size of thoracic cavity causes compression of lungs and the
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diaphragm comes back to original position.
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46. During the breathing cycle, when air is taken in and let out, the lungs always contain a
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residual volume of air so that there is sufficient time for 02 to be absorbed and for the C07
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to be released.
j- #47. In humans, a respiratory pigment haemoglobin is present in the RBC (Red Blood Corpuscles)
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which has a very high affinity for 02.

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48. Carbon monoxide when binds with haemoglobin a stable compound carboxyhaemoglobin
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is formed and can cause death as no haemoglobin is left for the transport of oxygen.
49. The transport of substances like oxygen, food, water, enzymes, hormones inside the body
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of organisms is called internal transport.

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50. Blood transports many substances like salts, vitamins, hormones, waste products. We thus
need a pumping organ to push blood around the body. The transport system in human
beings consist of heart, blood vessels (arteries, veins and capillaries) and circulatory fluid
N (blood and lymph).
51. Heart is a muscular organ which is as big as our fist. A mammalian heart is four chambered.
The upper chambers are called auricles or atria and lower chambers are referred as
ventricles.
52. Double circulation occurs in humans. It refers to the passage of same blood twice through
the heart. The right side receives deoxygenated blood whereas the left chambers of the
heart pump oxygenated blood. There is no intermixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated
blood.
53. The oxygenated blood from lungs comes to left auricle through pulmonary veins.
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Life Processes 107
54. Simultaneously, the deoxygenated blood comes to right auricle through two large veins
superior and inferior vena cava.
55. When the left and right atrium contracts, the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood reaches
the respective ventricles.
56. Contraction of ventricles results in transfer of blood from them into lungs and various
body parts. Precisely left ventricle on contraction sends oxygenated blood to body through
the largest artery Aorta. While the right ventricle pumps the blood into lungs for oxygenation
through pulmonary artery.
57. The walls of ventricle are thicker than auricle as they have to pump the blood into various
body organs.
58. Valves present in between auricle and ventricle as well as at the opening of major arteries,
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and veins to check the back flow of blood.
59. In mammals and birds separation of the right side and left side of the heart is useful as
it does not allow oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to mix. Hence, the heart is four-
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chambered in birds and mammals.
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60. Amphibians and reptiles (except crocodiles, turtles) have three-chambered heart, two
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auricles and one ventricle.
61. Fishes have two-chambered heart - one ventricle and one auricle. The blood is pumped
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into gills where it is oxygenated and supplied directly to body parts from gills. Thus blood
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goes only once through the heart.
62. Arteries are the vessels which carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the various organs
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of the body except pulmonary artery. Since the blood emerges from the heart under high
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pressure, the arteries have thick, elastic walls.

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63. Veins collect deoxygenated blood from various organs and bring it back to the heart. They
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do not need thick walls, instead they have valves that ensure the blood flows only in one
direction i.e., from organs to heart except pulmonary vein.
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64. On reaching an organ or tissue, the artery divides into small fine vessels to bring the blood
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in contact with all the individual cells. The smallest vessels are known as capillaries.
Capillaries have walls which are one-cell thick to allow exchange of material between the
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blood and surrounding cells.

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65. The capillaries then join together to form veins that convey the blood away from the
organs or tissues back to the heart.
66. Blood pressure is the force that the blood exerts against the wall of a vessel. This pressure
is much greater in arteries than in veins. Contraction of heart is termed as systole and
relaxation of heart is called diastole. Blood pressure during systole is termed systolic
pressure and during diastole, it is called diastolic pressure. The normal systolic pressure
is 120 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure is 80 mm of Hg. The instrument used to measure
blood pressure is called sphygmomanometer. If the blood pressure is more than the specified
limit i.e., 120/80 mm of Hg, it is termed as high blood pressure or hypertension and if it
is below the specified limit, it is termed low blood pressure or hypotension. High blood
pressure is caused by the constriction of arterioles which results in increased resistance to
blood flow. It can lead to the rupture of an artery and internal bleeding.
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Q.3. How is the amount of urine produced regulated ?

Ans. Total urine excreted per day is about 1.6 - 1.8 litres. The quantity increases with large
intake of fluids and decreases with lesser intake of them. If the amount of water and dissolved
wastes in body are more than prescribed limit the amount of urine will be more and if water and
dissolved wastes are less in body, the amount of urine will be less.
TEXTBOOK EXERCISES $
Q.l. The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system for
(a) nutrition, (b) respiration.
(c) excretion. (d) transportation.
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Ans. (c) excretion.
Q.2. The xylem in plants are responsible for
{a) transport of water, (b) transport of food.
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(c) transport of amino acid. (d) transport of oxygen.
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Ans. (a) transport of water.
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J23- The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires
(«) carbon dioxide and water. {b) chlorophyll.
(c) sunlight. (d) All the above.
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Ans. {d) All the above.
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The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place in
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(a) cytoplasm. (b) mitochondria.
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(c) chloroplast. (d) nucleus.

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Ans. (b) mitochondria (therefore, they are known as power house of a cell).
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Q.5. How are fats digested in our bodies ? Where does this process take place ?
Ans. Digestion of fats takes place in the small intestine.
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Fats entering in intestine are in the form of large globules. Bile juice breaks down these large
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globules into small, fine globules by the process known as emulsification. Afterwards fat digesting
enzyme lipase present in the pancreatic juice and intestinal juice converts it into fatty acids and
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glycerol.
^Q.6. What is the role of saliva in the digestion of food ?
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Ans. Saliva contains digestive enzyme called salivary amylase that breaks down complex
starch into dixtrin and maltose.
What are the necessary conditions for autotrophic nutrition and what are its by
products ?
Ans. Autotrophic nutrition or photosynthesis is a process by which organic food is
manufactured from inorganic raw materials. The basic requirements for the photosynthetic process
are chlorophyll, carbon dioxide, water and light. During this process oxygen and water are
produced as by-products.
c-Q.8. What are the differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration ? Name some
organisms that use the anaerobic mode of respiration.
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Life Processes 115
Ans. Differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration :

Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
(/) A type of respiration that takes place (/) A type of respiration that takes place in
in presence of oxygen. absence of oxygen.
(ii) Complete oxidation of glucose takes (ii) Incomplete oxidation of glucose takes
place resulting in release of C02/ place resulting in release of ethanol or
energy and water. lactic acid, C02 and energy.
(Hi) More energy is produced (36 ATP). (Hi) Less energy is produced (2 ATP).
(iv) It occurs partly in cytoplasm and (iv) It takes place in cytoplasm.
mitochondria as well.
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Anaerobic respiration occurs in yeast, certain bacteria and internal parasites like tapeworm.
How are the alveoli designed to maximise the exchange of gases ?
Ans. The walls of the alveoli is folded and has large surface area. It contain an extensive
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network of blood-vessels which provide a surface where the exchange of gases can take place.
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Q.10. What would be the consequences of a deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies ?
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Ans. Haemoglobin is a pigment present in RBC. It has a high affinity for oxygen. It carries
02 from lungs to various tissues which are deficient in oxygen. Presence of less haemoglobin will
result in less supply of 02 to oxygen deficient tissues. A person having less haemoglobin will get
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tired soon and will have a pale look.
Q.ll. Describe double circulation in human beings. Why is it necessary ?
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Ans. In mammal and birds the blood goes through the heart twice during each cycle. This
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is known as double circulation.

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Deoxygenated blood which enters right auricle and then it enters right ventricle from where
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it is pumped to lungs for oxygenation. From lungs after oxygenation it comes to left auricle and
then enters left ventricle from where it is pumped to various parts of body.
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Such system of circulation does not allow mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
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which allows efficient supply of oxygen to the body.

Q.12. What are the differences between the transport of materials in xylem and phloem ?
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Ans. Differences between transport in xylem and transport in phloem :

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Transport in xylem Transport in phloem

(i) Xylem transports mineral and water (i) Phloem transports food from leaves
from root to leaves through stem. to root and storage organs.
(ii) Xylem consists of tracheids and vessels. (ii) Phloem consists of sieve tubes, sieve cells
and companion cells.
(Hi) Transport is unidirectional from (Hi) Transport is bidirectional.
root to leaves.
Compare the functioning of alveoli in the lungs and nephrons in the kidneys with
respect to their structure and functioning.
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Ans. Distinction between alveoli and nephron :

Alveoli Nephron
Alveoli have thin-walled balloon-like Nephron is a cluster of very thin-walled
structure. The alveoli provide a large filtering units found in kidney. Each nephron
surface area extensively supplied with comprises of cup-shaped structure called
blood capillaries for exchange of gases in Bowmans capsule, convoluted tubules and
lungs. C02 is released in the cavity of collecting duct. Nephron collects the filtered
alveoli and 02 present in breathed air is urine, as well as at the same time the useful
taken by haemoglobin present in RBC of substances present in the filtrate are
blood. reabsorbed.
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Q.l. In which group of the organism listed below food material is broken down outside
the body and absorbed ?
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(a) Tapeworm, Amoeba, Paramecium (b) Cuscuta, Mosquito, Tapeworm
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(c) Rhizopus, Mushroom, Yeast (d) Mushroom, Rhizopus, Green plants
Q.2. Movement of food through the oesophagus is due to :
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(a) lubrication by saliva (b) peristalsis
(c) diffusion (d) turgor pressure
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Q.3. Oxygen released during photosynthesis is derived from
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(a) water (b) carbon dioxide

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(c) glucose (d) chlorophyll

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Q.4. The common step between aerobic and anaerobic respiration takes place in :
(a) cytoplasm (b) mitochondria
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(c) chloroplast (d) golgi complex

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Q.5. Which is the first enzyme to mix with food in digestive tract ?
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(a) Pepsin (b) Cellulose

(c) Amylase (d) Trypsin
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Q.6. In which part of human digestive tract common bile duct opens ?
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(a) Large intestine (b) Duodenum

(c) Stomach (d) Liver
Q.7. Which of the following protects inner lining of stomach from hydrochloric acid secreted
by gastric glands ?
(a) Pepsinogen (b) Pepsin (c) Bile juice (d) Mucus
Q.8. When few drops of iodine were poured on a potato slice, the potato turned blue-black
in colour. This indicates that potato contains
(a) sugar (b) starch (c) glycogen (d) proteins
Q.9. Salivary amylase secreted by salivary glands is responsible for which event in mouth ?
(a) Break-down of protein in amino acid (b) Break-down of fat in lipids
(c) Break-down of starch in sugar (d) Both (b) and. (c)
Q.10. In which part of the alimentary canal complete digestion and absorption of food takes
place ?
(a) Duodenum (b) Small intestine (c) Colon (d) Stomach
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Life Processes 117
Q.ll. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of anaerobic respiration in muscles
during vigorous exercise ?
Cytoplasm Mitochondria
(a) Glucose -7* Pyruvate ■> Ethanol + C02
Cytoplasm Cytoplasm
(b) Glucose -> Pyruvate * Lactic acid + C02
Cytoplasm Mitcx:hondria
(c) Glucose -> Pyruvate + C02 -> Lactic acid
(d) Glucose 4 Pyruvate •> Lactic acid + C02
Q.12. Which one of the following is the most correct sequence in respect of aerobic
respiration ?
(a) Glucose ^ Pyruvate + Energy * C02 + H20 + Energy
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{b) Glucose -t> Pyruvate + Energy * co2 + h2o
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(c) Glucose ■> Pyruvate -> C02 + Energy
Mitochondria Cytoplasm
(d) Glucose Pyruvate C02 + H20 + Energy
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Q.13. Which is the correct sequence of parts/organs through which air passes during
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inhalation ?
(rt) Nostril--- > Pharynx----- > Larynx----> Trachea----- > Alveoli
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{b) Larynx--- > Nostril------> Pharynx----> Lungs
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(c) Trachea passage-----■> Nasal---- > Pharynx-----> Larynx-----> Alveoli
(d) Nostril---- > Larynx------> Pharynx----> Trachea----- > Lungs
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Q.14. In our body during the process of respiration exchange of gases takes place in
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{n) lungs and throat (b) alveoli and throat

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(c) alveoli of lungs (d) larynx and lungs

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Q.15. First step in photosynthesis is

(a) release of 02 and absorption of C02 (b) breakdown of water
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(c) formation of Glucose (d) absorption of light energy by chlorophyll

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Q.16. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about respiration ?

(/') During exhalation, ribs move inwards and diaphragm is lowered.
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(ii) Exchange of gases takes place in alveoli.

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(Hi) During inhalation, ribs move outwards and diaphragm is lowered.

(iv) Haemoglobin has greater affinity for carbon dioxide.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (Hi) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (Hi) and (iv)
Q.17. Backflow of blood inside the heart is prevented during contraction by
(a) thick muscular wall of left ventricle (b) thin walls of atria
(c) valves present in heart (d) All of the above
Q.18. Extra cellular fluid in our tissues is also known as
(a) plasma (b) serum (c) lymph (d) albumin
Q.19. Four statements are given below about human heart. Which one of them is/are correct ?
(i) Right auricle receives deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body while left
ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different parts of body.
(ii) Left auricle sends oxygenated blood to right ventricle which pumps it to different parts of
body.
(Hi) Left auricle receives oxygenated blood from different parts of body while right auricle
receives deoxygenated blood from lungs.
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(iv) Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different body parts while right ventricle
pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs.
(a) (0 and (iv) (b) (0 (c) (/) and (Hi) (d) (ii) and (iv)
Q.20. In which vertebrate group(s), heart does not pump oxygenated blood to various parts
of body ?
(a) Pisces (b) Pisces and amphibians
(c) Amphibians (d) Amphibians and reptiles
Q.21. Which of the following statements is true about arteries ?
(a) Arteries possess thick elastic wall without valves inside, blood flows under high pressure
and carry blood away from the heart to different parts of the body.
(b) Thin walls of arteries have valves inside and blood flows with low pressure and carry it
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away from the heart to different organs.
(c) They possess thick elastic walls, blood flows under low pressure; carry blood from the
heart to various parts of the body.
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(d) They possess thick elastic walls, blood flows under high pressure; collect blood from
different organs and bring it back to the heart.
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Q.22. Which of the following events does not take place during photosynthesis ?
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(a) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy.
(b) Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide.
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(c) Reduction of C02 to carbohydrates.
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(d) Splitting of water.
Q.23. The food reserve for energy in producers (autotrophs) is
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(a) fat (b) protein (c) starch (d) glycogen

Q.24. Tracheal respiration occurs in :
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(a) earthworm (b) insects (c) protists (d) fish

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Q.25. Urea is a nitrogenous excretary product which is formed in

(a) kidney
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(b) liver (c) pancreas (d) intestine

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Q.26. The blood leaving the kidney has

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(a) more urea and less oxygen (b) less urea and more oxygen
(c) less urea and less oxygen (d) less urea and less carbon dioxide
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Q.27. To prevent the entry of food into the trachea the opening is guarded by
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(a) glottis (b) hard palate

(c) epiglottis (d) soft palate
Q.28. Oxygen liberated during photosynthesis comes from
(*) co2 (b) water (H20)
(c) glucose (d) breakdown of chlorophyll
Q.29. The opening and closing of stomata is regulated by
(a) oxygen concentration in stomata. (b) water in guard cells.
(c) temperature. (d) C02 concentration in stomata.
Q.30. Which one of tne following is the first enzyme to mix with food in digestive tract ?
(a) Lipase (b) Pepsin (c) Trypsin (d) Amylase
Q.31. In which form most of the plants absorb nitrogen from soil ?
(/) Amino acid (ii) Nitrates and Nitrites
(Hi) Ammonia gas (iv) Urea
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (Hi)
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Life Processes 119
Q.32. Sometimes after vigorous exercise you feel cramps in muscles due to
(a) non conversion of glucose to pyruvate. (b) conversion of glucose to pyruvate.
(c) conversion of pyruvate to ethanol. (d) conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid.
Q.33. Blood pressure is measured by an instrument called
(a) Manometer (b) Barometer
(c) Anemometer (d) Sphygmomanometer
Q.34. Which of the following helps in clotting of blood ?
(a) Erythrocytes (b) Leucocytes (c) Platelets (d) Serum
Q.35. Which one of the following statement is not correct about lymph ?
(a) It is also known as tissue fluid.
(b) It carries digested and absorbed fat.
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(c) It is similar to blood plasma, colourless and containing less protein.
(d) It is similar to blood plasma, red coloured and has more protein.
Q.36. The effect of root pressure in transport of water is more effective
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(a) during day (b) during both day and night
(c) during night (d) none of the above
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1. (c) All organisms are saprophytes.
2. (b) Peristalsis is the rythmic contraction and relaxation of muscles of alimentary canal that
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propels the food in downward direction.
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3. (a) Water.
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4. (a) Cytoplasm.
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5. (c) Amylase.
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6. (b) Duodenum is first part of small intestine where common bile duct opens.
7. (d) Mucus is secreted by cells of gastric gland which forms a slimy layer over inner wall of
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stomach.
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8. (b) Starch test is done by iodine solution which turns colour of starch blue-black.
9. (c) Salivary amylase converts starch into sugar. Proteins are digested by pepsin and trypsin
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while fats are digested by lipase.

10. (b) Complete digestion and absorption of food takes place in small intestine. Villi present on
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the surface of inner lining of small intestine increase the absorptive surface.
11. (b) hr mitochondria only aerobic respiration takes place.
12. (ti) In aerobic respiration pyruvate is formed in cytoplasm and is further broken down in
mitochondria. During both steps, energy is released.
13. (a) Nostril opens into pharynx, pharynx into larynx and larynx into trachea and finally air
passes to alveolar sacs of lungs.
14. (c) Exchange of gases takes place in alveolus of lungs as they are richly supplied with blood
capillaries.
15. (d) First step of photosynthesis is absorption of light energy by chlorophyll followed by
breakdown of water and release of 02.
16. (b) During inhalation, diaphragm is lowered and ribs move outward resulting in increased
volume of lungs so air rushes in. Exchange of gases occur in alveoli.
17. (c) Function of valves in circulatory system is to prevent backflow of blood.
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18. (c) Extra cellular fluid is present in between cells of tissues and is also known as tissue fluid
or lymph.
19. (a) Right auricles receives deoxygenated blood from different body parts passes it to right
ventricle which pumps it to lungs through pulmonary artery for oxygenation. Left auricle
receives oxygenated blood from lungs passes it to left ventricle which pumps it to various
body parts.
20. (a) Fishes have two chambered heart. It only pumps deoxygenated blood to gills for
oxygenation. Oxygenated blood goes directly to body organs from gills.
21. {a) They have thick elastic walls and they carry blood away from the heart while veins have
thin walls and they have valves. They carry blood from body organs back to heart. They
have valves to prevent backflow of blood.
22. (b) C02 is reduced during dark phase of photosynthesis to form carbohydrates.
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23. (c) Food reserves for energy purpose in plants is starch and in animals glycogen.
24. (b) Insects have network of tubes called tracheae which communicates with outside air
through spiracles.
25. (b) Urea is formed in liver by deamination of proteins (amino acids) and excreted by kidney.
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26. (c) Blood entering the kidney through renal artery will have more and more oxygen while
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the blood leaving the kidney through renal vein will have less urea as urea will be filtered
in kidney and less oxygen as kidney tissue will use the oxygen for respiration.
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27. (c) Epiglottis prevent the entry of food in the trachea.
28. (b) During light reaction of photosynthesis water splits to produce 02 and reducing power.
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29. (b) When water enters guard cells, stomata open and when water leaves guard cells, stomata
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close. The degree of opening of stomata! aperture depends on turgidity of guard cells.
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30. (d) Saliva contains amylase and it mixes with food in mouth the first part of digestive tract.
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31. (b) Plants cannot absorb proteins and ammonia gas. They always abosorb nitrogen from soil
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in the form of nitrite, nitrate, ammonium ion and urea through their root along with
water.
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32. (d) Due to lack of oxygen during exercise anaerobic respiration occurs in muscles, lactic acid
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produced during it causes pain and cramps.

33. (d) Manometer is used to measure pressure of gases and liquids. Barometer measures
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atmospheric pressure and Anemometer measures wind velocity.

34. (c) Erythrocytes are red blood cells, leucocytes are white blood cells while serum is straw
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coloured liquid formed after proteins are removed from blood plasma.
35. (d) Lymph is similar to blood except that it is colourless and has less proteins.
36. (c) During day transpiration pull is responsible but during night due to closure of stomata
transpiration does not take place hence root pressure plays main role in upward movement
of water.

(A) Very Short Answer Type Questions (One Mark Each) ~
Why in single-celled organism, specific organs for taking in food, exchange of gases
or removal of waste are not required ?
Ans. In single-celled organism, specific organs for taking in food, exchange of gases or
removal of waste are not required because the entire surface of organism is in contact with the
environment and simple diffusion meet all the requirements.
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Life Processes 121
Define nutrition.
Ans. Nutrition is a process of intake as well as utilisation of nutrients by an organism.
JQ3V Fill in the blanks:
(0 are organisms which obtain nutrition from dead decaying organic matter,
(») are organisms which obtain nutrients from the body of other living
organism and harm them.
Ans. (/) Saprophytes.
(n) Parasites.
Name a plant parasite.
Ans. Amarbel (cuscuta) is an example of parasitic plant.
Q.5. What is the mode of nutrition in fungi ?
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Ans. Saprophytic or parasitic mode of nutrition is seen in the members of kingdom fungi.
Q.6. What is the mode of nutrition in Plasmodium ?
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Ans. Plasmodium exhibits parasitic mode of nutrition.
J2<7: Why plants appear green in colour ?
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Ans. Plants appear green in colour due to presence of green pigment chlorophyll. Secondly
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it reflects green light of the visible spectrum.
Write full name of
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(0 ADP
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(«) ATP
Ans. (/) ADP = Adenosine Di Phosphate.
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(ii) ATP = Adenosine Tri Phosphate.
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Name the factors which affect photosynthesis.

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Ans. Light, C02 concentration, temperature and water are the factors which affect
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photosynthesis.
^ Q.10. How many pairs of salivary glands are present in human beings ?
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Ans. Three pairs of salivary glands are present in human beings.

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Name the digestive enzyme present in saliva.

Ans. Ptyalin or salivary amylase is present in saliva.
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, Q.12. In which type of medium pepsin and gastric lipase work ?

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Ans. Pepsin and gastric lipase work best in acidic medium.

Q.13. What are villi ?
Ans. Finger-like projections present on the inner lining of small intestine are called villi.
Where bile is stored ?
Ans. Bile is stored in gallbladder.
j£LT5. Where pancreas is located ?
Ans. Pancreas is located beneath the stomach in between the limbs of the 'U' shaped
duodenum.
vj@Tl6. Name the hormones secreted by pancreas.
Ans. Insulin and glucagon are the hormones secreted by pancreas.
v_^Q717. What is succus entericus ?
Ans. Juice secreted by glands present in intestinal wall is known as succus entericus. It contains
digestive enzymes.
ReadYourFlow.COM
wjQ^f8. Why land plants die if their roots remain water logged ?
Ans. Land plants die if their roots remain water logged because roots do not get oxygen for
respiration as the lenticels present on bark of root get choked.
^Q.19. Name the chemical which change the acidic medium of food into alkaline in the
intestine.
Ans. Bicarbonate ion secreted by the duodenal wall and bile make the medium alkaline.
^ Q.20. Water is absorbed from undigested food in which part of alimentary canal ?
Ans. Large intestine is the part of alimentary canal which is the site for reabsorbtion of water
from undigested food.
Q.21. Name the chemical energy released during respiration.
Ans. ATP (Adenosine Tri Phosphate).
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Q.22. What is the breathing rate under normal condition ?
Ans. 16 to 20 times per minute is the breathing rate under normal condition.
Q.23. Name the structure, which separates abdominal and thoracic cavity.
Flo
Ans. Diaphragm separates abdominal and thoracic cavity.
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Q.24. Name the cell organalle in which cellular respiration takes place.
Ans. Mitochondria is the site for cellular respiration.
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Q.25. Name the equipments which are used to facilitate respiration in persons who fail to
breath normally.
for
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Ans. Oxygen masks and ventilator are equipments which are used to facilitate respiration
in persons who fail to breath normally.
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Q.26. In which part of body new RBC's are formed ?
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Ans. New RBC's are formed in bone marrow from specialised cells called stem cells.
Q.27. Name the special muscle cells of heart.
B
Ans. Cardiac muscles are referred as the muscle cells of hecjrt.

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Q.28. Name the major veins which pour blood into right atrium.
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Ans. Superior and inferior vena cava pour blood into right atrium.
Q.29. Name a circulatory fluid other than blood.
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Ans. Lymph is an other circulatory fluid other than blood.

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Q.30. Why lymph is called extracellular fluid ?

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Ans. Lymph is called extracellular fluid as all body cells bathe in it and it lies outside the
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cells. So it is called as extracellular fluid.

Q.31. Name the excretory organs of amoeba.
Ans. Contractile vacuole is the excretory organ in amoeba.
Q.32. Name the procedure used in the working of an artificial kidney.
Ans. Dialysis is the process used in the working of an artificial kidney.
Q.33. Which term is used for gradual softening of enamel and dentine of teeth ?
Ans. Dental caries is the term used for gradual softening of enamel and dentine of teeth.
Q.34. Why brushing the teeth after eating is a good habit ?
Ans. Brushing the teeth after eating removes the plaque before the bacteria can produce acid
and daprage teeth enamel and dentine.
Q.35. Why aquarium fish open and close their mouths at regular intervals ?
Ans. They gulp water by opening mouth and when they close it, the water moves out from
operculum which covers the gill. This they do to breathe, as the dissolved 02 in water is absorbed
by blood capillaries present in gills and C02 is given out.
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Life Processes 123
Q.36. What is the normal range of haemoglobin content in human beings ?

Ans. Male - 14 to 16 g per 100 mL of blood
Female - 12 to 14 g per 100 mL of blood is the normal range of haemoglobin content in
human beings.
Q.37. What is systole ?
Ans. Contraction of heart chambers is termed systole.
Q.38. What is diastole ?
Ans. Relaxation of heart chambers is termed diastole.
Q.39. Name the instrument used to measure blood pressure.
Ans. Sphygmomanometer is an instrument used to measure blood pressure.
Q.40. Name the instrument used to hear heart sounds.
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Ans. Stethoscope is an instrument used to hear heart sounds.
Q.41. What is the range of normal systolic and diastolic blood pressure ?
Flo
Ans. Systolic - 120 mm of Hg.
Diastolic - 80 mm of Hg is the range of normal systolic and diastolic blood pressure.
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Q.42. What is meant by high blood pressure (Hypertension) ?
Fr
Ans. When the blood pressure rises above the normal range 120/80 mm of Hg, the condition
is termed high blood pressure.
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Q.43. How high blood pressure can harm us ?
Ans. High blood pressure can lead to the rupture of an artery and internal bleeding and
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damage to brain and kidneys.
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Q.44. What is the volume of initial kidney filtrate each day ?
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Ans. 180 L is the volume of initial kidney filtrate each day.

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Q.45. What is the volume of urine produced each day ?

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Ans. Only a litre or two is the volume of urine produced each day.
Q.46. Though the volume of kidney filters 180 L then, why the volume of urine is only one
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to two litres ?
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Ans. Though the volume of blood filtered by the kidney is 180 L the volume of urine is just
1-2 litres because the remaining nutrients and water are reabsorbed in the kidney tubules.
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Q.47. What will happen to a plant if its xylem is removed ? [CBSE 20091
Fi
Ans. Movement of water and mineral from soil to other parts of plant will stop and the
plant will ultimately die if its xylem is removed.
' Q.48. Name the green dot like structures in some cells observed by a student when a leaf
peel was viewed under a microscope. What is this green colour due to ? [CBSE 2010]
Ans. The green dots indicate chloroplast and the green colour is due to chlorophyll pigment
present in chloroplast.
Give one reason why multicellular organisms require special organs for exchange of
gases between their body and their environment. [CBSE 2010]
Ans. In multicellular organisms all the cells are not in direct contact with the surrounding
environment. Thus simple diffusion does not meet the requirement of all the cells.
^5^50. What are catabolic reactions ?
Ans. Catabolic reactions or destructive reactions are those in which complex organic molecules
are broken down into two or more simple inorganic molecules. Example : Respiration.
QHi206 + 602 > 6C02 + 6H20 + Energy T
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.51. Stomata of desert plants remain closed during daytime. How do they take up C02
and perform photosynthesis ?
Ans. Desert plants take up C02 at night and prepare an intermediate molecule. This
intermediate molecule is acted upon by the energy absorbed by the chlorophyll during the day.
Q.52. Two green plants are kept separately in oxygen free containers, one in the dark and
the other in continuous light. Which one will live longer and give appropriate reason for the
same ?
Ans. Plant kept in continuous light will live longer because it will be able to provide oxygen
required for its respiration, by the process of photosynthesis.
Q.53. Define peristalsis and give its significance.
Ans. Rhythmic contraction and relaxation of muscles of alimentary canal with the help of
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which food is propelled in forward direction are called as peristaltic movements.
Q.54. When a sportsman runs, he gets muscle cramps. Why ?
Flo
Ans. During running, the sportsman requires large amount of energy instantly. In order to
release more energy, pyruvate is converted into lactic acid in the absence of oxygen. Accumulation
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of lactic acid in the muscles causes cramps.
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Q.55. Leakage of blood from vessels reduces the efficiency of pumping system. How is the
leakage prevented ?
for
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Ans. Leakage of blood from vessels reduces the efficiency of pumping system. To avoid
leakage the cellular component of blood has platelet cells. In the region of injury these platelets
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rupture and releases a substance called thromboplastin. In presence of calcium thromboplastin
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acts on prothrombin to form a proteolytic enzyme thrombin. Thrombin further acts on fibrinogen
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(soluble protein) and converts it into fibrin. The fibrin fibres forms a network over the damaged
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wall of blood vessel and entraps blood corpuscles. This is referred as blood clot.
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Q.56. What would be the consequence of deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies ?

Ans. Haemoglobin is a carrier of oxygen. Deficiency of haemoglobin will adversely affect
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the supply of oxygen to the cells, causing anaemia. Secondly aerobic respiration will be affected
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leading to weakness, pain and improper metabolism.

Q.57. Name the factors on which the amount of water reabsorbed along the tubular part
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of nephron depends.
Fi
Ans. Amount of water reabsorbed by nephron depends on following two factors :

(0 How much excess water is present in the body.
(n) How much dissolved waste is to be excreted out of the body.
Q.58. What is the structural and functional unit of kidney and tell about its role in our
body ?
Ans. Nephron is the structural and functional unit of kidney. It plays a vital role in filtration
of blood, reabsorption of useful components like sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, bicarbonate
and water as well as secretion of waste products from blood.
Q.59. Give the functional aspect of an artificial kidney.
Ans. The functional aspect of artificial kidney is that it helps in removing toxins from tire
body before they are able to damage the body permanently. It also maintains the balance of
sodium and potassium salts in a patient whose kidneys have failed.
Q.60. What is the primary toxic waste in our blood filtered by the kidneys ?
Ans. Urea and uric acid are the primary toxic wastes in our blood filtered by the kidneys.
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Life Processes 125
0:61. Which protein digesting enzyme is present in pancreatic juice ?

Ans. Trypsin is a proteolytic enzyme present in the pancreatic juice.
Q.62i Name the element used in the synthesis of proteins and is taken up in the form of
nitrates and nitrites.
Ans. Nitrogen is the element involved in the synthesis of proteins and is taken up in the
absorbable form of nitrates and nitrites.
Q.l. What is the importance of nutrition ?
Or
What are the functions of food that we eat ?
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Ans. (i) Food provides us energy which is needed to maintain a state of order in our body.
(ii) It helps us to grow, develop synthesises proteins and other substances needed in the
body.
Flo
(Hi) Food provides immunity to fight against diseases.
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(iv) It helps in reproduction.
Q&: If you chew a piece of bread for a long time it tastes sweet. Why ? hJ
Fr
Ans. The saliva in our mouth contains an enzyme called salivary amylase that breaks down
starch into glucose hence the bread tastes sweeter.
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Qs3. Tslame two enzymes present in pancreatic juice and give their functions.^
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Ans. Pancreatic juice contains protein digesting enzyme trypsin and fat digesting enzyme
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lipase.
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Q.4. What is meant by assimilation of food

Ans. Assimilation means utilisation of food for release of energy, building up new tissues
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and repair and replacement of worn out tissues.

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^Q:5. What is difference between breathing and respiration ? ^

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Ans. Differences between breathing and respiration :

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Breathing Respiration
nd
(0 The mechanism by which an organism (i) It involves the mechanism of exchange

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obtains oxygen from the environment of gases - Ch and C02.

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and release carbon dioxide is termed

breathing.
(ii) Breathing is a physical process. (ii) Oxidation of food occurs in the cells
resulting in release of energy which
is utilised for carrying out various
functions.
How exchange of gases takes place in roots of plants ? i

Ans. Root cells take up oxygen from soil by the process of diffusion. Root hair remain in
contact with 02 present in between the soil particles. 02 diffuses into the root hair and passes into
other cells of root. Simultaneously, C02 moves out into the soil. Older portions of root do not
have root hair. In such areas tiny openings called lenticels are present through which gaseous
exchange takes place.
Note : In older stem, also lenticels are present for gaseous exchange while in young herbaceous
stems, stomata are present for this purpose.
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Q.7. Name the water and minerals conducting element of flowering plants. Also mention
how conduction takes place through it ? ~X
Ans. Tracheids and vessels present in xylem are the conducting cells of flowering plants.
They are long, thin, spindle shaped cells having pits in their thick cell walls. Water flows from
one tracheid to other through these pits.
Q.8. What is meant by excretion and osmoregulation ? \
Ans. The process involved in removal of toxic substance and wastes from body is termed as
excretion.
The process of maintaining the right amount of water and proper ionic balance in the body
is termed osmoregulation.
Q.9. How dental caries is caused ? t\
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Ans. Dental caries is initiated when bacteria acting on sugars produce acids that softens or
demineralises the enamel. Masses of bacterial cells together with food particles stick to the teeth
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to form dental plaque. Saliva cannot reach the tooth surface to neutralise the acid as plaque
covers teeth as a result dental caries is caused.
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\ J2-10r Which is larger - your body surface area or alveolar surface area ? Give reasons for
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your answer.^,
Ans. The alveolar surface area is larger than body surface area. It covers about 80 nr. Large
or
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surface area of alveoli allows efficient exchange of gases.
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Q.ll. In the test tubes A and B shown below, yeast was kept in sugar solution. Which
products of respiration would you expect in tubes A and B ? ^
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Oil film
B
Sugar
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solution
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Yeast
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----
Test tube A Test tube B
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Fig. 4.3
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Ans. In test tube A, carbon dioxide and alcohol (anaerobic respiration will take place because
the oil layer will not allow air to enter the solution).
hi test tube B, carbon dioxide and water (aerobic respiration will take place).
Q.12. A graph was plotted to show the energy output of two types of respiration. Identify
the types of respiration denoted by curves A and B. j
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O
>.
c
LU
O Time
Fig. 4.4
ReadYourFlow.COM
Life Processes 127
Ans. Curve A - Anaerobic respiration (less energy).

Curve B - Aerobic respiration (more energy).
^ Q.13: How are the fats digested in our bodies ? Where does this process take place ? \
[CBSE 2011]
Ans. Fats are digested in small intestine. When food enters small intestine bile juice secreted
by liver emulsifies fat and then the enzyme lipase which is secreted by pancreas converts fat into
fatty acid and glycerol.
^Qrl4. How do the guard cells regulate opening and closing of stomatal pore Tlv)
Ans. Opening and closing of stomata occurs due to turgor changes in guard cells. Moreover
guard cells have differentially thickened walls i.e.r outer walls are thin and inner walls are thick.
Absorption of water causes guard cells to swell up and get curved out resulting in the opening
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of stomatal pore whereas during flaccid conditions, shrinking of guard cells takes places that
causes closure of stomatal pore.
Which is the largest digestive gland in human body ? What is the name and function
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of its secretion ? h)
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Ans. Liver is the largest digestive gland in human body. It secrets bile juice which helps in
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emulsification of fats.
Q.16. Give reasons why : (Do any 2 out of 4)
(/) Herbivores have longer small intestine as compared to carnivores.
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(ii) Mucus is secreted along with hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
(Hi) Rings of cartilage are present in trachea.^
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(iv) Lungs always contain a residual volume of air.j^
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Ans. (0 Herbivores have longer small intestine so as to facilitate digestion of cellulose.

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(ii) Mucus is secreted along with HC1 so as to protect the inner lining of stomach from
excoriation.
(in) Incomplete C-shaped rings of cartilage present in trachea ensures that the air passage
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does not collapse when there is no air in it.

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(iv) Lungs always contain a residual volume of air to provide sufficient 02 to be absorbed
and C02 to be released.
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Differentiate between aerobic and anaerobic respiration, fc'

Ans.
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Aerobic Respiration Anaerobic Respiration

(1) A type of respiration that occurs in (1) A type of respiration that occurs in absence
presence of oxygen. of oxygen.
(2) Complete oxidation of food takes place. (2) Incomplete oxidation of food takes place.
(3) End-products are C02, H20 and energy. (3) End-products are C02 lactic acid or
alcohol and energy.
(4) More amount of energy is released (36-38 (4) Less amount of energy is released (i.e., 2
ATP molecules). ATP molecules).
(5) It occurs partly in cytoplasm, and partly (5) It occurs in cytoplasm.
in mitochondria.
Q.18. Which mechanism plays an important role in transportation of water in plants :
(i) during day time (ii) at night ?
ReadYourFlow.COM
Ans. (a) During day time, water and minerals in plants are absorbed from the soil. They are
pulled and pushed up by various forces to reach each and every cell. Transpiration pull is the
driving force in the upward movement of absorbed water from the root to the top of the plant.
(b) During night time the root hairs pick up water which is transferred inwardly due to
high osmotic concentration. Salts accumulate in the basal part of xylem that results in the entry
of water molecules into the xylem to form a long continuous column of water. This results in a
development of positive pressure known as root pressure.
Q.19. The separation of the right side and left side of the heart is useful to prevent the
intermixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. Give appropriate reason for the same.'y'
Ans. The partition between the right and left sides of the heart provides a highly efficient
mechanism to supply oxygen to all body parts. This occurs in animals having high energy needs
low
like birds and mammals. They spend a lot of extra energy for keeping the body temperature
constant.
Q.20. During one cycle how many times blood goes to heart of a fish and why ? J”
Ans. Fish have 2-chambered heart which pumps only venous blood. It is oxygenated in gills
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from where the blood flows to the rest of the body. So during one cycle the blood goes to the
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heart only once.
Q.21. Draw a neat diagram of human excretory system and label the following parts :
(0 Kidney (ii) Left renal artery (Hi) Left renal vein (iv) Urinary bladder (v) Ureter
for
(vi) Urethra (vii) Right renal artery (viii) Aorta (ix) Vena cava,
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Ans.
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Left renal
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/' vein
B
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- Kidney
- Left renal artery
Right renal artei I
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- Aorta
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Ureter
nd
Vena cava
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Urinary bladder
Urethra
Fig. 4.5
Q.22. "Bile juice do not contain any enzyme but is essential for digestion." Justify the
statement. (\)
Ans. Bile is a yellowish green alkaline fluid secreted by liver. It contains bile pigments
(bilirubin and biliverdin) and bile salts. Although it does not contain any digestive enzyme but
is still essential due to following reasons :
(1) Bile neutralises the acidity of chyme and protects the duodenal wall from corrosion.
(2) It makes the food alkaline for the action of pancreatic juice.
(3) It breaks down complex fat into fine small globules for the action of lipase of pancreatic
juice. Breaking of fat into fine small globules is referred as emulsification.
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Life Processes 129
Q.23. Draw a well-labelled diagram of excretory unit of human kidney and label the
following parts :
(0 Glomerulus (//) Bowman's capsule (Hi) Renal artery (iv) Collecting duct. ' C'
Ans.
Glomerulus
Bowmans Tubular part of
capsule nephron
Branch
of renal
artery
Renal
r
artery
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I
Branch of
renal vein
1
Flo
■Collecting
duct
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1
for
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(0 1
1B1
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Fig. 4.6 Structure of a nephron
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Q.24. State the importance of lymph in human transport system. P

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Ans. Lymph is a light yellow viscous fluid formed from tissue fluid by special lymph
capillaries.
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It facilitates exchange of materials between blood and tissue fluid. Lymph also helps in
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maintenance of blood volume. Thirdly lymphocytes mature inside the lymph nodes and therefore
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helps in immunity to fight against foreign material. Lymph is specialised to carry secretions which
cannot pass directly into blood like hormones, plasma proteins, fats. Last but not the least it carries
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waste products before they are poured into blood for separation in kidneys.
Q.25. Define the following terms : (Do any two out of three)
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M Jjt) Holozoic nutrition (fr) Emulsification (c) Dialysis, f

Ans. (a) Holozoic nutrition - A mode of nutrition in which solid food material is engulfed.
It is seen in unicellular organism like amoeba as well as in multicellular organism like human
beings. This mode of nutrition involves five steps namely ingestion, digestion, absorption,
assimilation and egestion.
(b) Emulsification - It is the process of breaking down complex fat molecules into small
fine globules of fatty acids for action of enzyme lipase.
(c) Dialysis - A principle or process on which artificial kidney is based. It is a process of
separation of smaller solutes and ions from large sized molecules by means of ultrafiltration.
Q.26. What is blood pressure ? Name the instrument used to measure blood pressure.' I
Ans. Blood pressure is the pressure exerted by forceful flow of blood on the elastic walls of
the arteries. It is measured in mm of Hg by an instrument called sphygmomanometer.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.27. How does blood clotting occur ? ]

Ans. Blood clotting is a phenomenon brought about by blood platelets which prevents
excessive loss of blood at the time of injury or leakage from a blood vessel.
Platelets rupture to release a substance called thromboplastin.
Thromboplastin + Ca 2+
Acts on
Prothrombin Thrombin
Ca2+ Acts on fibrinogen
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Soluble fibrinogen Insoluble fibrin
Flo
Undergoes
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Entrapped blood Network of polymerisation
+
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| corpuscles long fibres |
Blood clot
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(B-ll) Short Answer Type Questions (Three Marks Each)^Q^T—b
UQTLName the various heterotrophic mode of nutrition.

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Ans. The various heterotrophic mode of nutrition are :
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(i) Saprophytic e.g., fungi.

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(it) Parasitic e.g., tapeworm.

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(Hi) Holozoic e.g., amoeba, man.

Q.2. Why plants appear green in colour ?
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Ans. Chlorophyll pigment absorbs mostly the red and blue light regions of the visible
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spectrum. It reflects the green colour as it is not capable of absorbing the green region of spectrum.
Hence, the plants appear green in colour.
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Q.3. Name the various digestive glands associated with human digestive system. Also
give the name of secretion of these glands along with their functions.
Fi
Ans. Tire various digestive glands associated with human digestive system are :
S.No. Name of glands Name of secretion Function of secretion

1. Salivary gland Saliva which contains Ptyalin digests starch and converts
enzyme ptyalin/salivary it to sugar maltose. Mucus present
amylase. in saliva makes the food slipery
so that it can be easily swallowed.
2. Gastric glands HC1 and Pepsin HC1 makes the food acidic and
pepsin digests protein.
3. Liver Bile juice Emulsifies fat and bicarbonates
present in it, turn the acidic food
into alkaline.
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Life Processes 131
4. Pancreas Pancreatic juice. It contains Trypsin digests protein. Lipase

enzyme trypsin, lipase and digests fat and amylase digests
amylase. starch.
5. Intestinal glands succus entericus Completes the digestion of starch
protein and fat.
Q.4. In experimental set up (a) air is being passed by pichkari/syringe in freshly prepared
lime solution. While in experimental set up (b) air is being exhaled in lime water. By doing
so we observe that lime water in set up (b) turns milky immediately while in set up (n) it does
not turn milky immediately. Explain giving reasons. ^
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low
Pichkari
Rubber Tube
tube
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Lime -Test tube containing
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water lime water
(a) (b)
for
Fig. 4.7 (fl) Air being passed into lime water with a piclikari/syringe
(b) Air being exhaled into lime water
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Ans. Because the exhaled air contains high percentage of C02 as compared to normal air, hence
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the lime water in experimental set up (b) turns milky immediately as compared to set up (a).
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Enumerate the events that occur during the process of photosynthesis, [sj
B
Ans. Photosynthesis is formation of organic food from carbon dioxide and water with the
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help of sunlight inside chlorophyll containing cells.

The various events that occur during this process are as follows :
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(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.

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(n) Light energy splits water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen. Secondly conversion of
light energy into chemical energy i.e., synthesis of ATP from ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and
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inorganic phosphate takes place.

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(Hi) Reduction of carbon dioxide into carbohydrates takes place. This process is light
independent reaction which can occur in day time as well as night.
Q.6. Transpiration is a necessary evil. Justify the statement by highlighting the harmful
and useful aspects of this process."]-
Ans. "Transpiration is a necessary evil." This statement can be justified by listing the
significance of transpiration which outweighs its harmful impacts.
Significance of transpiration :
(i) Transpiration creates transpiration pull for absorption and transport of water up through
the xylem in plants.
(ii) It supplies water for photosynthesis.
(Hi) It transports minerals from the soil to all parts of the plant.
(it?) As evaporation causes cooling, assists in cooling of leaves. Not all the solar radiations
absorbed by leaves are used in photosynthesis, but some will cause heating of leaves. Transpiration
however reduces the heating of leaves.
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(v) Transpiration maintains the shape and structure of the plants by keeping the cells
turgid.
(vi) Transpiration removes excess amount of water.
Transpiration as evil :
(1) Since transpiration involves removal of excess amount of water, it causes flaccidity in
cells.
(2) At high temperatures stomatal closure occurs due to transpiration.
(3) Plants exhibit wilting if transpiration exceeds the amount of water absorbed.
Q.7. Draw a labelled diagram of cross-section of a leaf. f\J
Ans.
Lamina or
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Midrib leaf blade
\ Vein
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Phloem Xylem
Vascular bundle. Waxy
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cuticle
L__Upper
Epidermis
or
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Chloroplast
f
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Air spaces
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Guard cell
B
Lower
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epidermis
Fig. 4.8 Cross Section of a Leaf
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Q.8. Draw a neat diagram of human respiratory system and label following parts :
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(0 Pharynx (ii) Larynx (Hi) Trachea (iv) Alveoli (v) Bronchi (vi) Bronchioles
(vii) Diaphragm.^
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Ans.
Fi
Nasal passage^^^- V
Mouth cavity.
Trachea
Pharynx
Larynx Rings of cartilage
Alveoli
Respiratory
—^ V bronchioles Lung
' .
Bronchi Ribs
Bronchioles
Alveolar sa< Diaphragm
Fig. 4.9 Human Respiratory System
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Life Processes 133
Q.9. Differentiate between arteries, veins and capillaries.

Ans.
Arteries Veins Capillaries
1. Blood vessels that carries 1. Blood vessels that carries 1. Very narrow fine blood
oxygenated blood from deoxygenated blood from vessels that are red in
heart to various organs various organs back to colour and bring about
except pulmonary artery. heart except pulmonary exchange of materials
vein. between blood and
surroundings.
2. Arteries are deeply 2. Veins are superficially 2. Capillaries form a
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seated. located. network inside body
organs.
3. Blood flows with a great 3. Blood flows with a low
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3. Blood flows very slowly
pressure in arteries. pressure in veins. in the capillaries so as to
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facilitate exchange of
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substances.
4. So wall of arteries are 4. Walls of veins are 4. Capillaries have one cell
thick and elastic. They
or
comparatively thinner
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thick cell wall and a
have a narrow lumen. and little elastic. They
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narrow Imnen.
have a wider lumen.
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Q.10. Draw a sectional view of human heart and label the following :
B
Aorta, left atrium, right ventricle, vena cava, pulmonary vein, pulmonary artery.
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Ans.
Aorta
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VA Pulmonary arteries
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Vena Cava-
(from upper,
iHtV) Pulmonary veins
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body)
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Right atrium Left atrium
Vena Cava-
(from lower
body)
Right —
ventricle Left ventricle
Septum ------
(dividing wall)
Fig. 4.10 Cross Section of Human Heart

Q.ll. Give reasons for the following : f"
(/) The muscular walls of ventricles are thicker than the walls of atria.
(ii) Arteries have thick elastic walls.
(Hi) Veins have valves.
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Ans. (/) The walls of ventricles are thick and muscular as compared to the walls of atria as
they are required to pump blood to various organs. Right ventricle sends deoxygenated blood to
lungs through pulmonary artery whereas left ventricle sends oxygenated blood to all parts of the
body through aorta.
(ii) Since the blood emerges from the heart under high pressure, the arteries have thick,
elastic walls.
(Hi) Veins have valves to ensure that the blood does not flow backward when the atria or
ventricles contract.
J^0.i2. During respiration pyruvic acid is produced as end-product of glycolysis. State the
end-products formed from it on further breakdown in each of the following cases :D
(a) Yeast in absence of oxygen.
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(b) Lack of oxygen in muscles.
(c) Presence of oxygen in mitochondria.
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Ans. (a) hr yeast, pyruvate is converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide in the absence of
oxygen. A small amount of energy is also released.
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(b) In our skeletal muscles pyruvate is converted into lactic acid and energy where there
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is deficiency of oxygen. Accumulation of lactic acid results in muscular cramps.
(c) Aerobic oxdation of pyruvate occurs in the mitochondria where pyruvate molecule
or
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gives rise to three molecules of C02 and water and energy is released in the form of Adenosine
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tri phosphate (ATP).
Q.13. Write one feature which is common to each of the following pairs :
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Glycogen and starch ^
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(b) Chlorophyll and haemoglobin^

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Gills and lungs.

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Ans. (a) Glycogen and starch both are complex (carbohydrates) macromolecules made up of
glucose units.
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(b) Chlorophyll and haemoglobin are pigments. Chlorophyll is a plant pigment that aids
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in photosynthesis, whereas haemoglobin is a red colour pigment found in human blood which
is a carrier of oxygen.
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(c) Gills and lungs are respiratory organs. Gills occur in aquatic organisms like fish whereas
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lungs are seen in terrestrial organisms like mammals and birds.

^Pdf4. How are alveoli designed in human beings to maximize the exchange of gases ? ^
Ans. Alveoli are the ultimate respiratory units in human beings where gaseous exchange
occurs. They are designed in the following ways to maximise the exchange of gases :
(1) Alveoli provides large surface area for gaseous exchange. It is 80 m2.
(2) The epithelial lining of alveoli is extremely thin, permeable, single layered moist wall.
(3) Alveolar walls are invested with an extensive network of blood capillaries that facilitate
easy and quick diffusion.
Q.15. (a) Transport of food in plants require living tissues and energy. Justify the statement.
(b) Name the component of food translocated by living tissues. ~T"
Ans. (a) Food materials are translocated from the region of their manufacture or storage, to
the region of their utilisation via a complex tissue known as phloem. Phloem comprises of four
types of tracheary elements - sieve tubes, companion cell, phloem parenchyma and phloem
fibres. Only phloem fibers are dead cells while rest are living.
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Life Processes 135
Food moves into sieve tubes which are the conducting channels of phloem. They are elongated
tubular channels formed by end to end union of numerous sieve tube elements. Tire end walls of
sieve tubes have pores and are called as sieve plates. Their functioning is controlled by adjacent
nucleated companion cells as it produces the force required for translocation. The direction of
translocation can be downward, upward or both.
(b) The bulk of the translocating nutrients consist of soluble carbohydrate i.e., sucrose.
Amino acids, organic acids, hormones and other organic solutes are also translocated by sieve
tubes.
Q.16. Differentiate between xylem and phloem. T”
Ans.
Xylem Phloem
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1. A complex tissue that conducts water and 1. A complex tissue that transports
minerals from soil to the aerial parts of manufactured food from the region of
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plant. availability (leaf, storage organs) to the
areas of utilisation (all living cells, growing
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apices, developing fruits).
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2. Xylem comprises of four types of tracheary 2. Phloem comprises of four types of
elements namely, tracheids, vessels, xylem tracheary elements namely sieve tubes,
or
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fibres and xylem parenchyma. companion cell, phloem parenchyma and
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phloem fibres.
3. Sieve tubes are the only conducting
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3. Tracheids and vessels are the conducting
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elements of xylem. element of phloem.

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4. Conduction of water and minerals occur 4. Translocation of manufactured food takes

in upward direction due to transpiration place either in downward or upward
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pull. direction or both ways.

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(C) Long Answer Type Questions (Five Marks Each) STfej-x, tAui-S Tt-h
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^Q^f. Describe the process of digestion of food in man. n )

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Ans. Process of digestion starts in mouth where secretion of three pairs of salivary glands
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known as saliva mixes with food. Saliva contains an enzyme ptyalin (Amylase) which digests
starch and converts it into maltose.
From mouth food reaches the stomach where gastric glands are present having three types
of cells. These cells secrete hydrochloric acid, protein digesting enzyme (Pepsin) and mucus
respectively. Small amount of gastric lipase is also present in the gastric juice secreted by these
glands. Pepsin digests protein and converts it into peptones. Hydrochloric acid kills bacteria
present in the food, prevents fermentation of semidigested food and provides acidic medium
which is essential for digestion of protein in stomach by the enzyme pepsin as it can act only in
acidic medium. Gastric lipase partially breaks down lipids (fat) into glycerol and fatty acids.
From stomach semidigested food reaches the first part of small intestine called duodenum.
It is a U shaped structure and receives the secretion of common duct. It brings secretions of liver
(Bile) and pancreas (Pancreatic juice) to small intestine.
Bile emulsifies fat and converts fat molecules into small globules and changes the medium
of food from acidic to alkaline.
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Pancreatic juice contains following enzymes :

(0 Trypsin;
(ii) Amylase;
(in) Lipase.
Trypsin digests protein and converts it into peptone and peptides.
Amylase digests starch and converts it into simple sugar.
Lipase digests fat and converts it into fatty acid and glycerol.
Wall of small intestine also have glands, a secretion of these glands is known as succus
entericus. This intestinal juice completes the digestion of fat, protein and carbohydrate, hr small
intestine the final end product of protein is amino acid, of starch is glucose, and fat is finally
converted into fatty acid and glycerol in small intestine.
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Finally, the digested food is absorbed by the wall of intestine which contains abundant
finger-like projections called villi which have rich supply of blood.
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Q.2. Describe the working of artificial kidney. ~Y
Ans. Artificial kidneys contain a number of tubes with a semi-permeable lining suspended
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in a tank filled with dialysing fluid. This fluid has the same osmotic pressure as blood, except that
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it is devoid of nitrogenous wastes. The patient's blood is passed through these tubes. During this
passage, the waste products from the blood pass into dialysing fluid by diffusion. The purified
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blood is then pumped back into the patient. This is similar to the function of the kidney, but it
is different since there is no reabsorption involved.
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Tubing made of a
Line from artery
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selectively permeable
to pump
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membrane
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Dialysing ^
Line from y Vsolution^jV
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apparatus
to vein 0
Fresh Used dialysing

dialysing solution (with
solution urea and excess salts)
Fig. 4.11 A person on dialysis
Q.3. Complete the glucose breakdown pathway in case of aerobic respiration by filling
the blanks.
In cytoplasm
Glucose
Energy
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Life Processes 137
(a) Name the molecule in the cell which stores the energy produced at the end of the
path-way.
(b) Why do we get cramps during sudden muscular activity ?
Ans. 1
2
Pyruvate •
Glucose In cytoplasm + Energy
(6 carbon molecules) (3 carbon molecules)
Absence of
oxygen 3 4
Presence of oxygen In mitochondria
5 6
Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy
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(a) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
(b) Due to oxygen deficiency during sudden muscular activity anaerobic respiration takes
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place in muscles resulting in formation of lactic acid accumulation of which causes cramps.
Describe an experiment to show that carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis. |\J
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Ans. (0 Take two healthy potted plants of nearly same size.
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(it) Keep them in darkness for three days.
(in) Place a watch glass containing potassium hydroxide by the side of one of the plants.
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(iv) Cover both the potted plants with separate bell jars as shown in the given figure.
n
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Bell jar
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B
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^KOH
Potted plant A Potted plant B
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Watch glass
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Setup B
Setup A
Fig. 4.12
(v) Use vaseline to seal the bottom of the jars to the glass plate so that the setup is air tight.
(vi) Keep the plants in sunlight for about two hours.
(vii) Pluck a leaf from each plant and test for the presence of starch.
(vui) The leaf of the plant in setup B kept without potassium hydroxide turned blue-black. '
This confirmed the presence of starch formed during photosynthesis.
(ix) The leaf of plant in setup A did not show protein test for starch indicating that C02 is
necessary for photosynthesis. KOH is used to absorb C02- Due to non-availability of C02
photosynthesis did not occur in setup A.
^^5. Explain the process of nutrition in Amoeba. Supplement it with a well-labelled
diagram.
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Ans. Amoeba is a unicellular eukaryotic organism that exhibits holozoic mode of nutrition.
Five steps are involved in this mode of nutrition namely ingestion, digestion, absorption,
assimilation and egestion.
Ingestion - Amoeba feeds on microscopic organisms. It takes in food using finger like projections
called pseudopodia. It encircles the food and engulfs or ingests it by a process called phagocytosis.
The food comes to lie in a vesicle called phagosome or food vacuole.
Digestion - A lysosome fuses with phagosome and complex substances are broken down into
simpler ones. Such type of digestion which occurs within a cell is referred as Intra cellular
digestion. The digested food then diffuses into cytoplasm.
Absorption and Assimilation - Tire digested food which has diffused into the cytoplasm are
quickly absorbed by the organism and converted into various constituents of protoplasm.
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Egestion - The undigested food material reaches the rear end of the organism and is thrown
out by the process of exocytosis. The membrane of the vesicle fuses with the surface membrane.
Cytoplasm
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Pseudopodia
Nucleus
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— Food particle
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B
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Encircle food particle

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Food vacuole
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Digested food absorbed

and assimilated in cytoplasm
Ingestion
Undigested food
Food broken
down into r :;vr
small pieces
* J
••."^.Undigested
*•* ^ food thrown out
Absorption and assimilation Egestion
Fig. 4.13 Steps involved in nutrition in Amoeba

Draw a well-labelled diagram to show open stomatal pore. State two functions of
stomata.
Ans. Stomata are the respiratory organs of plant. They play a vital role in exchange of gases
as well as transpiration.
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Life Processes 139
- Subsidiary cell
O Pa -Nucleus
Inner thick walls n O' •Epidermal cell

of guard cells 0 - Stomatal pore
0 o
o? Chloroplast
v0 o.
Outer thin walls $o0N o.
of guard cells
Kidney shaped
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guard cell
Fig. 4.14 Structure of a stomata with an open stomatal pore
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Q.7. Draw diagram of human alimentary canal and label the following :
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(z) Part in which starch digestion is initiated.
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(ii) Organ in which bile is stored.
(Hi) The gland that secretes digestive enzymes as well as hormones.
(iv) Part of alimentary canal where water is reabsorbed.
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(v) Part of gut where finger like projections are present to facilitate absorption of digested
food.
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Ans. (z) Mouth (ii) Gall Bladder (Hi) Pancreas (iv) Large Intestine (v) Small intestine.
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Mouth
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Gall bladder Small intestine

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Liver-
Pancreas
Large intestine
Fig. 4.15
Q.8. Briefly describe any five functions of blood. "T”
Ans. Blood is a fluid connective tissue which plays a vital role in human beings. The important
functions are listed as follows :
(1) Blood helps in transport of nutrients. Sugars, amino acids, minerals, vitamins are picked
up by blood from intestine and transported to various parts of the body.
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(2) It transports oxygen and carbon dioxide.

(3) Blood helps in regulation of body temperature. It distributes heat to all parts of the
body.
(4) Blood contains leukocytes which are helpful in fighting against microbes.
(5) In the region of injury the blood coagulates and seals the region to prevent the loss of
body fluids and check the entry of germs.
Q.9. Describe double circulation in human beings. Why is it necessary ? T
Ans. Double circulation is the passage of the same blood twice through the heart; first on the
right side then on the left side in order to complete one cycle. Double circulation has two
components :
Pulmonary circulation and systemic circulation.
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Pulmonary circulation - It is the movement of blood from heart to the lungs and back.
Deoxygenated blood of the body enters the right auricle, passes into rights ventricle which pumps
it into pulmonary arch. With the help of two separate pulmonary arteries the blood passes into the
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lungs. Here the arteries break up into arterioles and then capillaries for oxygenation. Capllaries join
to form venules and then veins. Oxygenated blood comes back to the left auricle of heart through
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pulmonary veins.
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Systemic circulation - It is the circulation of blood between heart and different parts of the
body except lungs. Oxygenated blood received by left auricle passes into left ventricle. The left
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ventricle pumps it into aorta for supply to different body parts. Inside the organs the arteries break
up into arterioles and then capillaries. Capillaries provide oxygen and nutrients to tissues. They
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receive carbon dioxide and wastes from the tissues. Capillaries unite to form venules which join to
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produce veins. Veins take the deoxygenated blood to the heart but now into the right- auricle.
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Significance of double circulation - It ensures quick and efficient supply of oxygenated blood
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to all body parts for meeting higher energy needs and for thermoregulation of body in mammals
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and birds.
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Pulmonary arteries Pulmonary veins

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Pulmonary
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Right ventricle circulation Left auricle
Right auricle Aorta
Systemic
circulation
Arteries
Vena cava
All body organs
except lungs
Veins
Fig. 4.16 Double circulation of blood in human heart
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Life Processes 141
Q.10. Briefly describe the process of transport of water and minerals in extremely tallT
plants.
Ans. In higher plants water is absorbed through root hair, which are in contact with soil
water. From root hair, the water moves through cortex and to the xylem elements. Once the
water reaches root xylem, transpiration drives the water to move to the leaves through the stem.
The upward movement of water from stem base to the tree top is called as "ascent of sap".
Cohesion - adhesion theory proposed by Henry Dixon in 1914 is the most accepted theory of
water movement in extremely tall plants.
According to this theory the steps involved can be summarised as follows :
(1) The evaporation of water from the stomata present in the leaves results in the movement
of water from the neighbouring cells i.e., the xylem vessels in the leaf. So evaporation of water
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molecules from the cells of a leaf creates a suction which pulls water from the xylem cells of
roots.
(2) The suction pressure works against the gravitational pull and is able to pull the water
passively from the soil as a continuous water column due to cohesive-adhesive properties of
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water molecules from roots to the leaves.
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(3) Cohesive force develops due to mutual attraction between water molecules. Adhesive
force develops due to the attraction of water molecules to the lignocellulosic walls of xylem.
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Thus transpiration helps in the absorption and upward movement of water and minerals
dissolved in it from roots to leaves in extremely tall plants.
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L^QTll. Describe the mechanism of breathing in man.
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Ans. Breathing is a physical process involving inflow (inspiration) and outflow (expiration)
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of air between abnosphere and the alveoli of the lung.

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During inspiration, the intercostal muscles contract and pull the ribcage upwards and outwards.
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At the same time, the diaphragm contracts and flattens. These movements increase the volume and
therefore lower the pressure in the thorax/chest cavity. As the pressure in the chest cavity falls
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below that of the atmosphere, air is forced into it.

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During expiration (breathing out), relaxation of intercostal muscles and diaphragm takes place.
The ribs move downwards and inwards. The volume of the lungs decreases, squeezing the air
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inside them. Diaphragm comes back to its original C- shaped position.

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5
Control and Coordination
[NCERT CHAPTER 7]
mmtamm—mm
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1. Control is the power of regulation by which something can be started, slowed down,
expedited or stopped. Working together of various systems in a body to adjust the vital
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activities of life is called coordination.
2. Integration is the process which makes two or more organs to work as a functional unit
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in harmony.
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3. The coordination and integration in animals is brought about by nervous and endocrine
system. In plants it is brought about by certain chemicals known as phytohormones or
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plant hormones.
4. Movement is an attempt by living organisms to bring about a change of position either
due to growth or changes in their environment to their advantage.
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5. Some movements like germination in seed flowering are caused due to growth.
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6. Movements like running of a cat, children playing on swings, buffaloes chewing cud are
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growth independent movements.

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7. When we touch a hot object, we detect the change in the environment and respond to it,
in order to protect ourselves, by immediately withdrawing our hand.
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8. Stimulus is an agent, factor, chemical or change in external or internal environment which

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brings about reaction in the organism.

9. All information from the environment is detected by the specialised tips of some nerve
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cells present in tissues and organs. These are called receptors. They are located in our
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sense organs like nose, tongue, skin, eye and inner ear.
10. Sensory receptors are of different types. Photoreceptors, phonoreceptors, olfactoreceptors,
gustatoreceptors, thermoreceptors and so on. They detect light, sound, smell, taste, heat
and cold respectively.
11. The above mentioned receptors initiate electrical impulses to be picked up by sensory
nerves. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body, and then along the axon
to its end. Axon ending of one neuron are placed close to dendrites of the next neuron.
This junction is called synapse or gap. As soon as the impulse reaches the end of neuron
it sets off release of some chemicals (Neurotransmitters). These chemicals cross the gap or
synapse and start a similar electrical impulse in dendrite of next neuron. Finally, the
impulse reaches a muscle or a gland.
12. Effectors are muscles, glands, tissues or cells which act in response to a stimulus received
from the nervous system.
(142)
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Control and Coordination 143
13. Nervous system comprises of sense organs, nerves and neurons that form a network
throughout the body for conducting information via electrical impulses. Nerve cell or
neuron is the structural and functional unit of nervous system.
14. Human nervous system consists of three divisions : central nervous system (CNS), peripheral
nervous system (PNS) and autonomic nervous system (ANS).
Human Nervous System
I
Central Nervous System
1
Peripheral Nervous System
I i
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Brain
1
Spinal cord
f
Voluntary Nervous
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System
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Cranial Nerves
I Involuntary or
Spinal Nerves Autonomic Nervous
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(12 pairs) (31 pairs) System
1
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1
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[
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Sympathetic Nervous Parasympathetic

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System Nervous System

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15. Brain and spinal cord constitute the central nervous system (CNS). The nerves arising
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from the brain (cranial nerves) and nerves arising from the spinal cord (spinal nerves)
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constitute the peripheral nervous system.

16. Human brain is protected by a bony skull, also called as cranium. Internal to the skull it
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is covered from outside by three membranes called meninges. In between the meninges
there is a fluid called as cerebrospinal fluid. Beneath the membranes brain is subdivided
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into three major parts namely fore-brain, midbrain and hind brain.
17. Fore-brain is the main thinking part of the brain. It has different regions or areas such as :
(0 Sensory area — It receives sensory impulses from various receptors.
(ii) Auditory area — It is concerned with hearing.
(Hi) Olfactory area — It is concerned with smell.
(iv) Gustatory area — It is concerned with taste.
(v) Optic area — It is concerned with sight.
(vi) Association area — This area interprets various sensory informations and makes
decision how to respond.
(vii) Motor area — Decisions made by association area is passed on to this area which
control the movement of voluntary muscles.
18. Midbrain comprises of four lobes. So it is also known as copra quadrigemina. Actions of
involuntary muscles are controlled by the mid-brain and hind-brain.
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19. Hind-brain comprises of cerebellum, pons varolii and medulla oblongata. Cerebellum is
the second largest part of brain that coordinates muscular activity of the body as well as
maintains body equilibrium or posture. Pons connects cerebellum and medulla oblongata
and functions as a relay centre among different parts of brain. It possesses pneumotaxic
area of respiratory centre. Medulla oblongata lies bellow cerebellum and continues behind
spinal cord. Involuntary actions like blood pressure, salivation and vomiting are controlled
by the medulla in the hind-brain.
20. Spinal cord is also well protected by vertebral column as it runs within a canal located in
the centre of each vertebrae. Spinal cord is a centre of many reflex activities apart from
conducting sensory and motor impulses to and from brain.
21. Reflex action is a nerve mediated automatic involuntary response to a stimulus acting on
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a specific receptor without consulting the will. The pathway followed by reflex action is
called as reflex arc.
22. Reflex arc can be schematically represented as follows :
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Organ Neuron
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Response Effector Organ
for
Motor Neuron Central Nervous
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System
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23. Reflex actions play a vital role in checking overloading and overtaxing of brain. Since the
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response is immediate in case of reflex actions therefore have a survival value.

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B
24. Nervous system generally operates through muscles. Muscles have contractile protiens,
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actin and myosin. The neurotransmitter sensitizes the chemoreceptor sites of membrane of
muscle fibres. These proteins change shape during muscle contraction to effect movement.
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25. Plants do not have nervous system and muscles. Even then they exhibit well coordinated
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and controlled movements.

26. Plants possess chemical coordination. They respond to stimuli by secreting chemical
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substances called as plant growth regulators. They either stimulate or retard growth. Five
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major types of plant growth hormones are auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins, abscisic acid
and ethylene.
27. Auxin is synthesized at shoot apices in response to light. Unidirectional exposure to light
at shoot apex results in diffusion of auxin towards the shaded region of the shoot. This
thereby leads to more growth on the shaded side as compared to the illuminated region.
So the stem bends towards the source of light.
28. Gibberellins are formed in leaves of buds, developing embryos and root tips. They promote
growth in stems and leaves. If they are applied to genetically dwarf plants like cabbage
then it indices growth of stem.
29. Cytokinin are synthesized in root tips from where they reach shoots. Coconut milk is a
rich source of cytokinin. It promotes cell division, delays ageing and is required for
differentiations of cells and tissues.
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30. Ethylene is a gaseous hormone that promotes ageing and abscission of leaves and flowers.
It is essential for ripening of fruits and nowadays is commercially exploited for this feature.
31. Abscisic acid is a growth inhibitor also referred as stress hormone as it overcomes stress
conditions. It promotes ageing, causes abscission of leaves and flowers, checks excessive
transpiration by causing stomatal closure and inhibits growth.
32. The effect of daily duration of light hours or photoperiods on growth and development of
plants especially seed germination and flowering is called photoperiodism. Plants respond
to photoperiodic stimulus by a specialized pigment called phytochrome.
33. The stimulus oriented movement of plant or plant part is called tropism. The direction of
movement is related to the direction of stimulus. These movements are always growth
oriented movements. They are of different types namely phototropism (growth movement
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in response to light), hydrotropism (water), geotropism (force of gravity), thigmotropism
(contact) and chemotropism (chemicals).
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34. Roots are positively geotropic and negatively phototropic. Shoots are positively phototropic
and negatively geotropic. Growth of pollen tube inside the style, ovary and ovule in
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response to the chemicals produced by them is an example of chemotropism. Thigmotropism
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is found in twines and tendrils. After initial contact with support the tendril show less
growth in the region of contact and more growth on the other side. Positive hydrotropic
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response of roots is stronger than their geotropic response.
35. Certain changes in the orientation of plant parts in relation to other parts caused by
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intrinsic or external stimuli are non-directional, growth independent movements. They are
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referred as nastic movements.

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36. Folding of leaves of touch me not plant or sensitive plant {Mimosa pudica or Chhui-Mut) on
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being touched is an example of nastic movement. The movement is directed neither towards
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nor away from the stimulus. This movement is due to change in the turgor pressure of
cells.
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37. In animals, apart from nervous coordination, chemical coordination also exists. It is
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maintained by hormones which are secreted by endocrine glands (ductless glands).

38. Hormones are chemical informational molecules that are required in minutes quantities
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and are directly poured in the blood stream. They act on a specific organ called target
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organ. So their site of production varies from site of action.

39. The various endocrine glands in our body are :
(/) Pituitary
(/;) Pineal
(Hi) Hypothalamus
(iv) Thyroid
(v) Parathyroid
(vi) Thymus
(vii) Pancreas
(viii) Adrenal
(ix) Testis in males and ovary in females.
40. The secretion of hormone is regulated by feedback mechanism. It's a regulatory mechanism
in which presence of certain level of substance promotes or inhibits its further formation.
For example, presence of excess glucose in blood, as after meals stimulates [3-cells of islets
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of langerhans in pancreas to secrete insulin. Insulin promotes glucose absorption by

individual cells, absorption and formation of glycogen in liver and muscles. This reduces
glucose level in blood. As soon as the blood sugar comes to normal the pancreatic cells
stops secretion of insulin.
41. Adrenaline hormone is secreted by adrenal gland in response to fear, anger, joy, cold and
emotional stress. Its target organ include heart and arteries. This hormone increases blood
supply to heart and skeletal muscles. It constricts arterioles. There is increased rate of
breathing. So it is called as emergency hormone.
42. Thyroxine secreted by thyroid regulates metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
Iodine is essential for the synthesis of thyroxine. Deficiency of iodine in our diet causes
enlargement of thyroid gland resulting in swelling of neck, a condition known as goitre.
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43. Anterior pituitary secretes a hormone called growth hormone. Its over-secretion during
growing period causes gigantism and its under-secretion results in dwarfism.
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44. Testis in males secrete a hormone testosterone and ovary secretes estrogen in females.
These hormones are responsible for various changes in body of males and females during
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puberty.
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TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS
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[A1 QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 119 OF THE TEXTBOOK
Q.l. What is the difference between a reflex action and walking ?
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Ans. Reflex action is a nerve mediated, automatic involuntary response to a stimulus without
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consulting the will. It is controlled by spinal cord. It needs an instantaneous response to a

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stimulus where delay can be harmful.

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On the other hand, walking in a straight line is a conscious, voluntary response. It is controlled
by a part of hind-brain called cerebellum. It does not need an instantaneous response.
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Q.2. What happens at the synapse between two neurons ?

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Ans. At synapse, the electrical impulse generated at dendrite of a neuron is passed on to

dendrite of another neuron by axon ending of the first neuron or it is passed on to a muscle or
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gland to act as ordered by brain or spinal cord. This transmission at synapse is carried out by
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chemicals known as neurotransmitter.

Q.3. Which part of the brain maintains posture and equilibrium of the body ?
Ans. Cerebellum is the part of hind-brain that maintains posture and equilibrium of the
body.
Q.4. How do we detect the smell of an agarbatti (inscense stick) ?
Ans. Smell of a agarbatti is initially detected by olfactory receptors located in our nose. They
then send impulses to the olfactory centres in the forebrain.
Q.5. What is the role of brain in reflex action ?
Ans. Reflex arc are formed in the spinal cord itself although the information also goes on to
reach brain where the encounter remains in the memory and make us aware of our action.
Secondly there are certain reflex actions under the control of brain known as cerebral reflex.
Closure of eyes exposed to flash of light, salvation at sight or smell of food, peristalsis, inspiration
and expiration are few examples of cerebral reflexes.
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Q.l. What are plant honnones ?
Ans. Plant hormones or phytohormones are chemicals which help to regulate growth,
development, differentiation, flowering and other physiological processes with or without
translocation to other sites.
Q.2. How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plant different from the movement
of a shoot towards light ?
Ans. Difference between movement of leaves of sensitive plants and movement of shoot
towards light :
Movement of leaves of sensitive plants Movement of shoot towards light
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(0 Growth independent movement. (/) Growth dependent movement.
(ii) Movement is non-directional i.e., it {ii) Movement is towards the source of
is neither towards nor away from stimulus (light). So it is a directional
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the stimulus. movement.
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{Hi) Such movements are referred as {Hi) Such movements are referred as tropic
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nastic movements. movements.
Q.3. Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes growth.
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Ans. Auxin promotes growth of cells.
Gibberellins promote elongation of stem.
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Cytokinins promote cell division.
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Q.4. How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a support ?

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Ans. When tendrils come in contact with any support, the tip of the tendril in contact with
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the object does not grow as rapidly as the part of the tendril away from the object. This is due
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to the fact that auxin secreted in the tip diffuses towards the side opposite to the point of contact.
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So this induces more growth on the side opposite to the point of contact. Thereby causing the
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tendril to circle around the object.

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Q.5. Design an experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism.

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Ans. Take a tin box with numerous holes at the bottom. Fill it with moist saw dust. Sow
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some gram seeds in it. Keep the tin box in a tilted position as shown in the diagram. When seeds
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start germinating, moisten the saw dust again. You will observe that the radicle from the
germinating seeds come out of the holes under the influence of gravity. However after some
growth they bend back and enter the moist saw dust. This experiment demonstrates that roots
are positivley hydrotropic. Secondly hydrotropic response is stronger than geotropic response.
Tin box
Germinating seed
3o°
Wet saw dust

Support
Roots moving towards moist saw dust
Fig. 5.1
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Q.l. How does chemical coordination take place in animals ?
Ans. Chemical coordination in animals is brought about by hormones. These are secreted
by endocrine glands. These hormones are directly poured into the blood via which they reach the
target tissue or organ to act.
Q.2. Why is the use of iodised salt advisable ?
Ans. Iodine is necessary for the production of thyroxine hormone by the thyroid gland. In
case, iodine is deficient in our diet, there is a possibility that we might suffer from goitre. Iodised
common salt is a source of iodine. So as to avoid deficiency of iodine, iodised salt is recommended.
Q.3. How does our body respond when adrenaline is secreted into the blood ?
Ans. When adrenaline is secreted into the blood stream by adrenal gland in response to
low
cold, joy, anger, fear and emotional stress. The hormone increases the blood supply to heart and
skeletal muscles. The small arteries around digestive system and skin constricts thus diverting
tire blood to our muscles. The breathing rate also increases because of the contractions of diaphragm
and the rib muscles. All these responses together enable our body to deal with an emergency
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situation. rF
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Q.4. Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin ?
Ans. Diabetes is caused due to deficiency or less secretion of insulin by pancreas. In such
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person, the blood sugar level is high. Insulin converts excess sugar present in blood into glycogen.
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Patients suffering from diabetes are given insulin injection to control their blood sugar level.
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TEXTBOOK EXERCISES
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B
Q.l. Which of the following is a plant hormone ?

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(a) Insulin {b) Thyroxin (c) Oestrogen (d) Cytokinin.

Ans. (d) Cytokinin.
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Q.2. The gap between two neurons is called a

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(a) dendrite. (b) synapse. (c) axon. (d) impulse.

Ans. {b) Synapse.
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Q.3. The brain is responsible for

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(a) thinking. (b) regulating the heart beat.

(c) balancing the body. {d) all the above.
Ans. (d) All the above.
Q.4. What is the function of receptors in our body ? Think of situations where receptors
do not work properly. What problems are likely to arise ?
Ans. Receptors are cells, tissues and organs which are capable of receiving particular stimuli
and initiate impulses to be picked up by sensory nerves. These receptors are located in our sense
organs such as the inner ear, nose, tongue, eye, skin etc.
In case any of the receptors do not work properly we will not be able to perceive that
particular information. For example, if our gustatory receptors located in tongue do not work we
will not perceive the taste of food such as sour, sweet, salty or bitter.
Q.5. Draw the structure of a neuron and explain its function.
Ans. Neurons are the structural and functional unit of nervous system that is specialised to
receive, conduct and transmit impulses. A neuron can be sensory, motor or connector in nature.
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Neuron acquires particular information through dendrite located on its cell body. This information
is then passed on to the axon, finally, the axon endings passes the information into next neuron
at the synapse. As soon as the impulse reaches the dendrite, an electrical impulse is generated
due to certain chemical change in neuron. When the impulse reaches axon ending some chemicals
are released which pass on the impulse to next neuron. These chemicals are known as
neurotransmitters. A similar synapse filially allows delivery of such impulses from neurons to
other cells, such as muscles cells or gland.
Nucleus
Dendrite
u. Nissl granules
Nerve ending
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Myelin sheath
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Node of ranvier
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jl I
Cell body Axon
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Fig. 5.2 Structure of neuron.
Q.6. How does phototropism occur in plants ?
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Ans. Phototropism is a directional growth
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movement which occurs in response to unidirectional

exposure to light. The region of photoreception is shoot
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apex where auxin is produced.' Auxin moves from

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illuminated region to the shaded region. This causes

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more growth on the dark side of stem causing it to

bend towards the source of light. Movement of shoot
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towards light is called phototropism. This movement

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Fig. 5.3 Response of the plant to the

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is caused due to more growth of cells towards the

shaded side of the shoot as compared to the side of direction of light.
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shoot towards light. More growth of cells is due to secretion of auxin towards the shaded side.
Q.7. Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury ?
Ans. (/) Reflex action.
(ii) Impulses from various body parts will not be conducted to brain.
(Hi) Message from brain will not be conducted to various organs.
Q.8. How does chemical coordination occur in plants ?
Ans. Chemical coordination in plants is brought about by plant hormones also known as
phyto-hormones. These hormones either promote growth or inhibit it. Five major types of plant
hormones are auxin, gibberellin, cytokinin, abscisic acid and ethylene.
Auxin, gibberellin and cytokinin are referred as growth promoters whereas abscisic acid and
ethylene are growth inhibitors.
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Certain physiological processes like seed germination and flowering respond to the daily
duration of light hours or photoperiods. Plants respond to this photoperiodic stimulus by a
speciahsed pigment called phytochrome.
Q.9. What is the need for a system of control and coordination in an organism ?
Ans. An organism have different organs which perform various functions. Tire survival of
an organism depends on integrated and coordinated functions of these organs. Nervous and
endocrine system of an organism make them work together like parts of one machine to accomplish
homoestasis or coordination.
Q.10. How are involuntary actions and reflex actions different from each other ?
Ans. Difference between involuntary actions and reflex actions are as follows :
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Involuntary actions Reflex actions
It is a set of muscle movement over It is rapid, spontaneous and involuntary
which we do not have thinking control. activity that is produced in response to a
Such actions are controlled by brain. stimulus. It is controlled by spinal cord.
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Example : Contraction of muscle of Example : Removal of hand with a jerk
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our digestive tract. Beating of heart when someone touches a hot object
muscle. accidentally.
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Q.ll. Compare and contrast nervous control and hormonal mechanisms for control and co
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ordination in animals.
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Ans. Difference between nervous control and hormonal control :
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Nervous control Hormonal control

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B
(/) It consists of nerve impulses (/) It consists of endocrine system which

conducted by neurons from one secretes chemical messengers hormone
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specific structure to another. secreted directly in blood.

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(ii) Nerve impulses produce rapid short (ii) Hormones produce longer lasting
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lasting responses. responses.

(Hi) Nerve impulses are not specific in (Hi) Action of hormones is highly specific.
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their action.
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Q.12. What is the difference between the manner in which movement takes place in a
sensitive plant and the movement in our legs ?
Ans. Difference between movement in a sensitive plant and movement in our legs :
Movement in a sensitive plant Movement in our legs
(i) There is no specialised tissue in plants (i) There is specialised nervous tissue in
for conduction of information. animals for conduction of information
and muscle cells to help in movement.
(ii) Plant cells change shape by changing (ii) Muscle cells contract or relax to effect
the amount of water in them. movement.
(Hi) Plant cells do not have specialised (Hi) Muscle cells have specialised protein
proteins. which help muscles to contract or relax.
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Q.l. Artificial ripening of fruits is carried out by
(a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin
(c) Ethylene (d) Gibberellin
Q.2. Inter neuron junction where neurotransmitters are released
(a) cell body (b) axon
(c) dendrite (d) synapse
Q.3. Which of the following endocrine glands is unpaired ?
(a) Ovary (b) Testes (c) Pancreas (d) Adrenal
Q.4. Which of the following is not an example of cerebral reflex ?
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(a) Salivation at the sight of food
(b) Peristalsis
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(c) Blinking of eye when bright light is focussed on them.
(d) Withdrawal of hand after coming in contact with hot object.
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Q.5. Gigantism results due to "*x.
(a) excess secretion of thyroxine. (b) less secretion of thyroxine.
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(c) excess secretion of growth hormone. (d) less secretion of growth hormone.
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Q.6. In humans, number of spinal nerves is
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(a) 31 pairs (b) 32 pairs
(c) 33 pairs (d) 36 pairs
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Q.7. Which of the following statements is not true about thyroid gland ?
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(a) It is located in the neck region.

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(b) Iron is essential for the synthesis of thyroxine.

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(c) Its secretion regulate metabolism of fat, protein and carbohydrates.

(d) Less secretion of thyroid hormone in children causes stunted growth (cretinism).
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Q.8. Select the correct direction of flow of nerve impulse.

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nd
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Q.9. In a neuron, conversion of electrical signal to a chemical signal occurs at/in

(a) axon (b) dendrite end
(c) synapse (d) cyton or cell body
Q.10. Balance and posture of the body is controlled by
(fl) medulla (b) pons (c) cerebrum (d) cerebellum
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Q.ll. Spinal cord originates from
(a) medulla (b) pons (c) cerebrum (d) cerebellum
Q.12. Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which of the following hormone ?
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(a) Auxin (b) Thyroxine (c) Adrenaline (d) Insulin
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Q.13. Taste receptors are :
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(a) tangoreceptors (b) gustatoreceptors
(c) olfactoreceptors (d) photoreceptors
Q.14. In cucurbita growth of the tendril towards support is due to
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(a) effect of gravity. f
(b) effect of light.
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(c) rapid cell division in tendril cells which are in contact with support.
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(d) rapid cell division in tendril cells which are away from the support.
B
Q.15. Select the mis-matched pair from the following :

(a) Ovary - Estrogen (b) Pancreas - Insulin
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(c) Testes - Thyroxine (d) Pituitary gland - Growth hormone

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Q.16. In flowering plants the growth of the pollen tube toward ovules is an example of :
(b) chemotropism
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(a) hydrotropism
(c) phototropism (d) geotropism
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Q.17. Which of the following hormone is responsible for the fall of mature leaves and
ripened fruits from plants ?
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(a) Auxin (b) Cytokinins (c) Abscisic acid (d) Gibberellins

Q.18. Which of the following glands has both exocrine and endocrine part ?
(a) Pancreas (b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal (d) Pituitary
Q.19. Which one of the following is a voluntary action ?
(a) Vomiting (b) Beating of heart
(c) Salivation (d) Chewing
Q.20. The hormone responsible for the fertility in males is
(a) oestrogen (b) insulin
(c) growth hormone (d) testosterone
Q.21. Which one of the following pairs is a mis-match ?
(a) Elongation of cells - Auxin (b) Growth of stem - Gibberellin
(c) Promotion of cell division - Cytokinin (d) Photoperiod ism - Ethylene
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Q.22. Photoperiodism is controlled and regulated by :

(a) ethylene (b) phytochrome
(c) cytokinin (d) abscisic acid
Q.23. Part of the brain which controls muscular coordination is :
(a) cerebrum (b) cerebellum
(c) pons (d) medulla oblongata
Q.24. Sensory nerve carries the message to
(a) sensory organs (b) effector organs
(c) brain and spinal cord (d) receptors
Q.25. Diabetes mellitus is caused due to deficency of
(a) glucagon (b) insulin
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(c) prolactin (d) oestrogen
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1. (c) Ethylene.
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2. (d) Neuromuscular junctions are between axon ending and muscles and junction between
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axon ending of one neuron and dendrites of another neuron is termed synapse.
3. (c) All other glands except pancreas are paired. Pancreas is located in the duodenum (first
for
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part of intestine), loop.
4. (d) Withdrawal of hand after coming in contact with hot object.
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5. (c) Excess secretion of growth hormone by pituitary gland causes gigantism while its deficiency
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causes dwarfism.
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6. (a) 31 pairs.
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7. '(b) For secretion of thyroid, iodine is essential and not iron.

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8. (b) During transmission of nerve impulse the dendrites of one neuron receives the stimulus
which passes on to the dendrites of another neuron through axon endings of first neuron
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at synapse.
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9. (c) When the electrical impulse reaches the axon ending at synapse chemicals are released
which on reaching the dendrite of next neuron again give rise to electrical impulse.
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10. (d) Cerebellum is responsible for maintenance of body balance and posture.
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11. (a) Medulla is the last part of hind-brain, spinal cord arises from it.
12. (b) Iodine is an unportant constituent of hormone thyroxine. Its deficiency causes enlargement
of thyroid gland (Goitre).
13. (b) Gustatoreceptors.
14. (d) Rapid growth in cells of tendril cells away from support results in bending of tendril
towards support.
15. (c) Thyroxin is secreted by thyroid gland. Testes secrete male hormone testosterone.
16. (b) The tissues of style secrete certain chemicals and the pollen tube moves toward these
chemicals.
17. (c) Abscisic acid therefore it is also known as growth inhibitor. It cause ageing of plant parts.
18. (a) Pancreas.
19. (d) Chewing is a voluntary activity and we have control over it while all other activities are
involuntary as we do not have any control on them.
20. (d) Testosterone hormone secreted by testis is required for formation of sperms.
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21. (d) Phytochrome is responsible for photoperiodism.

22. (b) Phytochrome.
23. (b) Cerebellum.
24. (c) Brain and spinal cord.
25. (b) Insulin.

Q.l. Name the longest cell present in the human body. [CBSE 2008]
Ans. Neuron is the longest cell present in human body.
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Q.2. Which group of multicellular animals does not possess neurons ?
Ans. Phylum Porifera is a group of multicellular organism that does not possess neurons.
Q.3. What is the structural and functional unit of nervous system ?
Ans. Neuron is the structural and functional unit of nervous, system.
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Q.4. Apart from nervous system which other system is involved in control and
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coordination ?
Ans. In addition to nervous system endocrine system also plays a vital role in control and
coordination.
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Q.5. Give the expanded form of ABA.
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Ans. Abscisic Acid is the expanded form of ABA.
Q.6. Define phototropism.
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Ans. Directional growth movement in plants in response to unidirectional exposure to light

Y
B
is referred as phototropism.
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Q.7. Give one example of nastic movement.

Ans. Drooping of leaves on being touched in Mimosa pudica.
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Q.8. What is synapse ?

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Ans. Inter neuron junction where nerve endings of one neuron is in contact with the dendrites
of successive neuron. At this junction certain neurotransmitters are released.
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Q.9. Name the two components of central nervous system in humans.

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Ans. (/) Brain (ii) Spinal cord are the two components of central nervous system in humans.
Q.10. What are meninges ?
Ans. The three membranes that cover brain are known as meninges.
Q.ll. What is cranium ?
Ans. The bony box or skull in which brain is located is known as cranium.
Q.12. Where do we find cerebrospinal fluid ? Give its function.
Ans. Cerebrospinal fluid is found between the meninges (membranes that surround the
brain and spinal cord). This fluid protects the brain and spinal cord from mechanical and electrical
shocks.
Q.13. Which part of brain gives rise to spinal cord ?
Ans. Medulla oblongata gives rise to spinal cord.
Q.14. How many pairs of spinal nerves are present in human body ?
Ans. 31 pairs of spinal nerves are present in human body.
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Q.15. Name the two hormones secreted by pancreas.

Ans. Insulin and glucagon are the two hormones secreted by pancreas.
Q.16. Which hormone regulates the metabolism of carbohydrate, fat and protein ?
Ans. Thyroxine regulates the metabolism of carbohydrate, fats and protein.
Q.17. Name three glands which are endocrine as well as exocrine in nature.
Ans. Pancreas, testis and ovary exhibit both endocrine and exocrine part.
Q.18. Define synapse.
Ans. Synapse is an intemeuron junction filled with fluid where an axon of one neuron
comes in contact with the dendrite of next neuron.
Q.19. Name the sensory receptors found in the nose and on the tongue.
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Ans. Sensory receptors found in nose and on tongue are olfactory and gustatory receptors.
Q.20. Which part of the brain controls posture and balance of the body ?
Ans. Cerebellum controls posture and balance of the body.
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Q.21. State one function each of cerebellum and pons.
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Ans. Cerebellum coordinates the muscular activity of the body. It also maintains the
equilibrium of the body as during walking, jumping, lifting catching, bending and so on.
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Pons possesses pneumotaxic area of respiratory centre.
Q.22. What do we call the movement of shoot towards light ?
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Ans. Movement of shoot towards light is referred as 'Phototropism'.
f
Q.23. List two important functions of abscisic acid in plants.
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Ans. Abscisic acid is a growth inhibitor. It
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(a) causes wilting of leaves.

B
(b) checks excessive transpiration by causing closure of stomata.

Q.24. Name a plant hormone which is gaseous in nature.
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Ans. Ethylene is a plant hormone which is gaseous in nature.

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Q.25. Which plant hormone causes elongation of cells ?

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Ans. Auxin causes elongation of cells.

Q.26. Name the organ which secretes adrenaline and also mention its target organ.
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Ans. Adrenaline is secreted by an endocrine gland named as adrenal gland. The main target
organ is heart, skeletal muscles and lungs.
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Q.27. What will happen if the intake of iodine in our diet is low ?
Ans. If intake of iodine is low in our diet then the hormone thyroxine will not be produced.
Deficiency of thyroxine disturbs physical and metabolic activities besides causing goiter.
Q.28. Which hormone is injected to a diabetic patient and why ?
Ans. Diabetic patient is injected with an hormone named "insulin". This hormone regulates
blood sugar level.
Q.29. What are hormones ?
Ans. Hormones are secretions of endocrine glands that are directly poured into the blood
stream. They are required in small quantities which are translocated to a specific target region
for inducing a physiological response.
Q.30. List two primary functions of testosterone.
Ans. Testosterone is a male hormone that
(i) stimulates the development of male secondary sex organs at puberty.
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(ii) also helps in development of male secondary sexual characters like beard, moustache,
deep voice and growth of bones.
Q.31. State the role played by ovaries in a human female.
Ans. Ovaries produce mature ova which in turn produces a female sex hormone called
estrogen. Estrogen is essential for development of secondary sex organs in female as well as
secondary sexual characters like high pitch voice, development of mammary glands.
Q.32. Deficiency of which hormone leads to dwarfism ?
Ans. Deficiency of growth hormone leads to dwarfism.
Q.l. Differentiate between receptors and effectors with reference to nervous system.
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Ans.
Receptors Effectors
(1) Receptors are cells, tissues and organs Effectors are muscles, glands, tissues or
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which are capable of receiving particular cells which acts in response to a stimuli
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stimuli. received from the nervous system.
(2) Phonoreceptors, photoreceptors, gustato-
receptors, olfactoreceptors are a few
examples of receptors which are located
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in our sense organs.
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Q.2. What is the role of brain in reflex action ?

Y
Ans. Reflex actions which are under the control of brain are referred as cerebral reflexes.
B
Sahvation, vomitting, closure of eyes when exposed to flash of light are a few examples of
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cerebral reflexes. The sensory area of the brain receives information interprets it and makes a
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ad
rapid decisions. The message is instantly transmitted to the motor area. The motor neuron sends
information to the effector (muscles or glands). The entire process is controlled by medulla in the
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hind-brain. Moreover, the memory of such incidents is registered in the brain.

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Q.3. Draw a well labelled diagram of a neuron.

Ans.
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Nucleus
Dendrite
Nerve ending
Myelin sheath
Nodes of ranvier
Cyton or Axon
Cell body
Fig. 5.4
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Q.4. List the functions regulated by forebrain.

Ans.. Forebrain is the main thinking part of the human brain.
(z) It has association centres for hearing, smell, sight, hunger, thirst, touch, pain, sleep.
emotions.
(ii) It also aids in movement of voluntary muscles.
(Hi) Forebrain also stores the information. Different sensory informations are integrated
and interpreted on the basis of all inputs and information stored in the brain.
Q.5. What is cranium and tell about its function ?
Ans. Brain is housed inside a bony box or skull. It is also referred as cranium. Cranium
protects the brain from any external or internal injuries.
Q.6. Briefly state the events in sequence that takes place when electrical impulse travels
low
from a dendritic tip of a nerve cell to an another neuron.
Ans. The information acquired at the dendritic tip of a nerve cell sets off a chemical reaction
that creates an electrical impulse. This impulse travels through the axon and at the end of the
axon sets off the release of some chemicals. These chemicals or neurotransmitters cross the fluid
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filled synaptic space between the two neurons. It functions as a stimulus and produces an impulse
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in the dendritic part of the second neuron.
Q.7. Differentiate between sensory and motor neuron.
Ans.
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Sensory neuron Motor neuron
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(1) A neuron that picks up sensation from the (1) A neuron that carries message to the
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receptors and transmits the same to other muscle, gland or an organ to perform its
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B
parts like central nervous system. function.

(2) It conducts impulses towards central
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(2) It carries impulses away from central

nervous system. nervous system.
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Q.8. How do muscle cells respond to electrical impulses ?

Y
Ans. Muscle cells have special proteins that change their shape and arrangement in the cell
in response to electrical impulse. This leads to the excitation of the muscle cells which then
nd
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spreads over the whole muscle fibre thereby causing it to shorten or contract.
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Q.9. What is the significance of peripheral nervous system ? Name the components of
this nervous system.
Ans. Peripheral nervous system comprises of nerves that directly arise from central nervous
system connecting different parts of the body for voluntary control of the brain. It consists of
cranial nerves and spinal nerves.
Q.10. What causes tendril to encircle or coil around the object in contact with it ? Explain
the process involved.
Ans. The tendrils are spiral, wiry structures that are sensitive to touch. As these tendrils
come iir contact with support, the auxin present at the tip diffuses towards the other side away
from the support. So this part grows more rapidly than the region which is towards the support.
This is the reason why tendrils circle around the support and climb upwards.
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Q.ll. How does feedback mechanism regulate the hormone secretion ? Explain with the
help of an example.
Ans. Feedback system is a regulatory mechanism in which presence of certain level of hormone
promotes or inhibits its further formation.
Regulation of thyroxine production by its concentration in blood is an example of hormonal
feedback system. If the level of thyroxine is more in the blood, this is detected by hypothalamus,
which stops producing thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). Non-availability of TSH results in
failure of thyroid to produce thyroxine. This automatically results in reduction of thyroxine in
blood.
But if concentration of thyroxine is low in the blood, hypothalamus produces-TSH which
then passes into circulatory system and reaches thyroid gland. Thyroid now begins to secrete
low
more thyroxine.
Q.12. Which organ secretes a hormone when blood sugar rises in our body ? Name the
hormone and the enzyme released by this organ.
Ans. When blood sugar level rises in blood, a hormone named 'insulin' is produced by
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(3-cells of islet of Langerhans in the organ Pancreas. Pancreas also produces pancreatic juice
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which contains pancreatic enzymes such as trypsin, pancreatic amylase and pancreatic lipase.
Q.13. Explain how the human body responds when adrenaline is secreted into the blood.
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Ans. Adrenaline is also called as emergency hormone. It is produced in response to cold, joy,
anger, fear and emotional stress. Tire hormone increases blood supply to heart and skeletal
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muscles.
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It constricts arterioles and blood supply to skin and gastrointestinal tract, is highly reduced.
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Bronchioles dilate resulting in the increased rate of breathing, oxygenation and heart beat to
Y
B
meet any emergency.

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Q.14. Brain and spinal cord are two vital organs of our body. How is our body designed
to protect them ?
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Ans. Brain and spinal cord are two vital organs of our body which are protected from
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mechanical injury and shock by bony cases around them. Brain is covered by cranium or brain box.
Spinal cord is protected by vertebral column. Additional protective covering called meninges lines
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brain and spinal cord. They are three in number and the space between it is filled with a
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cerebrospinal fluid which protects them from electrical and mechanical shocks.
Q.15. Name the hormone which is responsible for the changes noticed in males at puberty.
Also list the changes that occurs in adolescent boys.
Ans. Testosterone is the male hormone that induces changes in males at the time of puberty.
It stimulates the development of external genital organs, beard, moustache, deep voice, growth
of bones and muscles.
Q.l. If you happen to touch a hot object what would be your response ? With the help
of well labelled diagram explain how this response happen.
Ans. If we happen to touch a hot object unknowingly, then our hand will be retraced back
away from it. This happens as it is a nerve mediated, automatic, involuntary and a spontaneous
response acting without consulting the will. Such a response is referred as a reflex action. The
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pathway taken by a stimulus to travel from receptor organ to effector organ is known as reflex
arc. Its components are
organ neuron
Response — Effector ■*- Motor Central nervous system

(Muscles/gland) neuron (Spinal cord)
Message to
Spinal cord
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brain
(CNS)
Reflex arc
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Sensory neuron
1 • Motor
neuron
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Relay/connector neuron
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Receptors = Heat/Pain
Receptors in skin Effector = Skeletal muscle in arm
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Fig. 5.5 Diagramatic representation of reflex action

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Q.2, Ram has met with an accident and after that he lost the capacity to
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(a) walk in a straight line (b) smell anything (c) feel full after eating.
Which part of brain is damaged in each case ?
Ans. (a) Ram has met with an accident and if he loses the capacity of walk in straight line
then this indicates that cerebellum - a part of hind-brain has got damaged.
(b) If Ram loses the capacity of smell anything then his forebrain has got damaged.
(c) If Ram loses the capacity to feel full after eating then this indicates that his forebrain
has got damaged.
Q.3. If you keep the potted plant horizontally for 2-3 days, what type of movement would
be exhibited by the shoot and root after two or three days ?
Ans. If we keep the potted plant horizontally for 2-3 days, shoots grow upwards and away
from the earth while growth of roots is directed in downward direction. This occurs as shoots are
positively phototropic and negatively geotropic while roots are positively geotropic in nature.
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-j’'. I Shoots are positively phototropic

mi so directed in upward direction
Roots are positively geotropic

i
so directed in downward direction
Fig. 5.6
Q.4. Name the plant growth hormone which is synthesized at shoot tip. Explain with the
help of a diagram why does a plant bend towards light during growth.
Ans. (i) Auxin is a phytohormone which is synthesized at shoot tip.
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(ii) When a plant is exposed to light coming from one side of the plant then auxin located
at the shoot tip diffuses towards the shaded side of the shoot. High concentration of auxin in the
shaded region stimulates the cells to grow longer in comparison to the region exposed to light.
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So the shoot tends to bend towards the light.
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Shaded
region
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Light
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Shaded Side exposed to Side exposed to
region unidirectional light unidirectional light
.\v.v.vLr>.\£^j
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, 7
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(A) (B)
Fig. 5.7
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Q.5. Design an experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism with the help of a diagram.

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Ans. Hydrotropism is a directional growth movement of curvature which occurs in response

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to unilateral stimulus of water. Roots are positively hydrotropic. This can be demonstrated by a
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simple experiment.
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Place germinating seeds in a moist saw dust contained in a sieve. The radicles will grow and
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pass down out of the sieve pores under the influence of gravity. However after some growth,
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they bend back and enter the saw dust depicting that hydrotropic response is stronger than
geotropic response.
Moist saw dust
.0°,
Germinating seeds
Trough Radicle bending back

into moist trough
Fig. 5.8
Q.6. {a) What is tropism ?
(b) Mention the differences between tropism and nastic movement in tabulated form.
Ans. (a) Tropism or tropic movements are directional growth movements in which the
direction of movement is determined by the direction of stimulus. Geotropism, phototropism,
hydrotropism, chemotropism are different types of tropic movements.
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(b)
Tropism Nastic Movement
(1) It is a growth dependent process that is (1) It is a growth independent process.
determined by the direction of stimulus.
(2) It is directional in nature. (2) It is non-directional in nature.
(3) Such movements exhibit a slow . (3) Such movements exhibit an immediate
response towards any stimulus. response towards a stimulus.
Q.7. Give one example each of a plant hormone that :
(a) Promotes cell division (b) Promotes cell elongation
(c) Promotes fruit ripening (d) Delays ageing
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(e) Causes wilting of leaves (f) Causes stem elongation.
Ans. (a) Cytokinin (b) Auxin
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(c) Ethylene (d) Cytokinin
(e) Abscisic acid (/) Gibberellin
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Q.8. (a) Name the disease by which a person is likely to suffer due to the deficiency of
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iodine. Also mention its symptoms.
(b) Name the hormone secreted by thyroid gland and state its function.
or
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Ans. (a) Deficiency of iodine causes goitre. This disorder is commonly prevalent in northern
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hilly areas. It causes enlargement of thyroid gland which results in swelling of neck region.
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(b) Thyroid gland secretes iodine containing hormone called thyroxine. Thyroxine controls
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basal metabolic rate. It regulates carbohydrates, protein and fat metabolism in the body. The
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hormone also controls physical development, mental development, muscular activity, nervous
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activity and sexual activity.

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Q.9. Draw a well labelled diagram of human brain and label

(rt) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) Medulla (d) Hypothalamus (e) Cranium (f) Mid-brain.
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Ans.
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Cerebrum Meninges
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Cranium (skull)
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Mid-brain
Cerebellum
Hypothalamus
Pituitary gland — T Pons /
Hind-braini Medulla oblongata
I Cerebellum Spinal cord
Fig. 5.9 Cross-section of a human brain
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Q.l. (i) Identify the endocrine glands a, b, c, d in the given diagram,
(n) List the functions of parts'd' and V.
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(d)
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B
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Fig. 5.10
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Ans. (i) (a) Pituitary

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{b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal
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(d) Pancreas
{e) Testis
(n) Pancreas - secretes insulin which regulates blood glucose level.
Testis - secretes testosterone which stimulates development of external genitilia, secondary
sexual characters in males as well as production of sperms.
Q.2. Draw a diagram of cross-sectional view of human brain as given below on your
answer sheet and label :
(a) The part that helps in performing voluntary actions.
(b) The part that controls salivation and vomiting.
(c) The largest part of forebrain.
(d) A fluid that protects the brain.
(e) Meninges.
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Ans. (a) Cerebrum

(b) Medulla
(c) Cerebrum
(d) Cerebrospinal fluid
(e) Meninges or three membrane covering the brain.
Cerebrum Meninges
Cerebrospinal fluid
A
low
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rPons x /
Hind-braini Medulla oblongata
I Cerebellum for
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Fig. 5.11
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6
Electricity
[NCERT CHAPTER 12]
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1. Electricity is one of the most convenient and widely used forms of energy in the world.
It is extremely convenient to use electrical energy for different applications in domestic,
industrial and commercial fields.
2. Conductors are those substances in which electric charge can flow freely. Metals are electric
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conductors. Copper and aluminium are two most commonly used metals in electricity.
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3. Electrical insulators are those materials in which electric charges do not move freely.
Rubber, glass and plastic are examples of insulators.
4. Current electricity is that part of electricity which describes the physical effects observed
due to charges in motion. for
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5. A continuous and closed path of an electric current is called an electric circuit.
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6. Electric current is defined as the amount of electric charge flowing through a particular
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cross-section area of a conductor in unit time. Alternately it is the rate of flow of electric
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charges.
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Charge flown Q
Electric current I =
Time t
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7. SI unit of electric current is 1 ampere (1 A) and it is equivalent to flow of 1 coulomb of

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charge per second through a section of a conductor.

8. Direction of flow of electric current is taken as opposite to the direction of the flow of
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negatively charged electrons. In other terms, direction of conventional current is taken as

the direction along which positive charges will move, if allowed to do so.
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9. In conductors flow of electric current is due to flow of electrons, it is found that flow of
6.25 x 1018 electrons per second across a cross-section of a conductor constitutes a current
of 1 ampere.
10. The flow of electric charge in a circuit is very much similar to water flow in a pipe. The
water pipe is analogous to electric conductor and the amount of water flowing across a
section per second corresponds to electric current. As water flows from higher pressure
(level) to lower pressure (level), the electric current flows from higher electric pressure
(higher electric potential) to lower electric pressure (lower electric potential).
The potential difference across a conductor is maintained by using a cell or battery. The
chemical action within a cell generates the potential difference between its electrodes, due •
to which current flows through the circuit.
(164)
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Electricity 165
11. Potential difference between two points in an electric circuit carrying current is defined as
the work done to move a unit positive charge from one point to another.
Potential difference VA-VB = B

Q
12. The SI unit of electric potential difference is 1 volt (1 V), where
1 joule (J)
1 volt (1 V) = = 1 J c-1.
1 coulomb (C)
13. George Simon Ohm established a relationship between the electric current flowing through
a conductor and the potential difference across its ends, due to which current flows.
14. According to Ohm's law, temperature remaining constant, the current passing through a
low
conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference across its ends, i.e.,
V oc lor V=IR
Here, R is known as the resistance of given conductor. It is a property of the conductor
which resists the flow of current through it. For a given conductor its resistance is constant
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at a given temperature.
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15. Electrical resistance of a conductor may be considered as a measure of the opposition
offered by it for flow of electric charge through it.
Mathematically, resistance
for
H - V (potential difference)
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/ (current)
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16. SI unit of electrical resistance is 1 ohm (1 Q), where
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IV
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1 il =
B
1A
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17. At a given temperature resistance of a conductor depends on its (i) length L, (ii) cross-
section area A, and (Hi) nature of the material of conductor. It is found that R °c L and
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R oc 1
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A
Mathematically, R=^
nd
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A
where p is a constant known as resistivity of the material of conductor. Its value depends
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only on the nature of material of the conductor and the temperature and is independent
of the dimensions (i.e., length and cross-section area) of the conductor.
18. The resistivity of a given material is defined as the resistance offered by a cube of that
material of side 1 m, when current flows perpendicular to the opposite faces. Its unit is
ohm-metre (£2 m).
19. Metals and alloys have low resistivity in the range of 1(T8 Q m to KT6 £2 m and are good
conductors of electricity.
Insulators like rubber and glass have resistivity of the order of 1012 to 1017 £2 m.
20. Resistance as well as resistivity of a material vary with temperature.
21. Resistivity of pure metals is very-very low. On account of this reason metals like copper
and aluminium are used for electrical transmission lines.
22. Resistivity of alloys is somewhat greater than pure metals. However, alloys do not oxidise
easily at high temperatures, and their change in resistivity with rise in temperature is
small. Due to these properties, they are used in most of the electric appliances.
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23. Generally, nichrome elements are used in electric iron, heater, radiator, geyser etc.
24. Tungsten filaments are used in electric lamps because melting point of tungsten is extremely
high.
25. A rheostat is a variable resistance device used in electrical circuits. It is used to regulate
current in the circuit without changing the voltage source.
26. An ammeter is an instrument which can measure the electric current flowing in an electric
circuit directly in amperes.
27. A voltmeter is an instrument which is used to measure potential difference across two
given points in an electrical circuit directly in volts.
28. In an electric circuit resistances may be connected (i) in series, (ii) in parallel arrangement.
29. In series grouping of resistances, (i) the current flowing through all the resistances is same,
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(ii) the total voltage across the combination is equal to the sum of the voltage drops across
the individual resistors and (Hi) the total resistance of the combination is equal to the sum
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of the individual resistances.
If Rlf R2, R3... be the individual resistors joined in series then the equivalent resistor Rs
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is given by
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Rs — R\ + R2 + 1^3 +
30. In parallel grouping of resistances, (i) the voltage across each resistor is same and is also
for
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equal to the voltage across the whole combination, (ii) the currents in various resistors are
inversely proportional to tire resistances and the total current is the sum of the currents
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flowing through different resistances.
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31. In parallel grouping the sum of the reciprocals of the separate resistances is equal to the
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reciprocal of equivalent resistance Rp. Thus, mathematically

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1 1 1 1
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— = — + — + — + ...
rp Ri R2 r3
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32. Practical electrical circuits may involve the combinations of basic series and parallel circuits.
33. In household electric circuits, series circuit is not followed. It is because if one component
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of series circuit fails, the entire circuit is broken and none of the components works.
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Moreover, same current flows through all the components irrespective of their operating
needs.
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34. A parallel circuit divides the current in various components (appliances) and each
component can draw current as per its appropriate operation. Separate on/off switch can
be put with each component in parallel circuit. Moreover, total resistance in parallel circuit
arrangement decreases.
35. When a current is passed through a resistance wire, heat is produced. Amount of heat
produced depends on (i) current flowing /, (ii) resistance R of that wire, and (in) time t for
which current is being flown.
36. If on applying, a potential difference V across the ends of a conductor of resistance R, the
current I flows for a time t, then as per Joule's law of heating the electric energy consumed
is given by
V2f
W=QV= Vlt = I2Rt =
R
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Electricity 167
Generally, it is convenient to use the formula W = I2Rt for series connected circuits because
the current I is same in all resistors. For parallel arrangement we prefer to use the relation
V2t
W = -----, because here V is same across all branches of the circuit.
R
The dissipated electrical energy reappears as heat. Thus, heat produced
V2t ,
H = Vlt = fRt = R ^
37. Time rate of doing electric work is called the electric power. Thus,
V2
Electric power P = -y- = VI = I2R =
R
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SI unit of electric power is 1 watt (1 W), where
1 watt = 1 volt x 1 ampere
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38. A watt hour and kilowatt hour are practical units of electric energy.
Tire commercial unit of electric energy is kilowatt hour (kW h), where
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1 kW h = 1000 W h = 3.6 x 106 J.
39. Heating effect of electric current is used in large number of devices like electric iron,
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electric toaster, electric oven, electric kettle, electric heater, electric radiator, geyser etc.
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40. Electric heating is also used to produce light in electric bulbs. As bulb filament operates
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at very high temperature, the filament should be thermally insulated. Bulb is filled with
chemically inactive nitrogen and argon gases to prolong the life of bulb filament.
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41. Electric fuse protects an electric circuit or appliance by stopping the flow of any unduly
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high electric current. Fuse consists of a piece of wire of a metal or an alloy of appropriate
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melting point and is placed in series with the circuit. If a current larger than specified
value flows through the circuit, temperature of fuse wire rises beyond its melting point
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and fuse melts. As a result, circuit breaks. Fuse of appropriate current capacity is used in
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an electric circuit.
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TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS
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Q.l. What does an electric circuit mean ?
Ans. An electric circuit is a continuous and closed path for flow of an electric current. If the
electric circuit is complete, electric current can flow through the circuit. If the circuit is broken
anywhere or switch of the circuit is turned off, the current stops flowing.
Q.2. Define the unit of current. [CBSE 2010, 2012]
Ans. SI unit of electric current is 1 ampere. Current is said to be 1 ampere (1 A), if 1 coulomb
charge flows per second across a cross-section of a conductor.
Q.3. Calculate the number of electrons constituting one coulomb of charge.
Ans. We know that value of charge on an electron e = 1.6 x ICT19 C.
.-. Number of electrons constituting 1 C of charge
Q ic = 6.25 x 1018.
n= —
e 1.6 x 10"19 C
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Q.l. Name a device that helps to maintain a potential difference across a conductor.
Ans. Potential difference across a conductor can be maintained by means of a battery
consisting of one or more cells.
Q.2. What is meant by saying that the potential difference between two points is
1 V? [CBSE 2011, 2012]
Ans. The potential difference between two points is said to be 1 volt, if 1 joule of work is
to be done for moving a charge of 1 coulomb from one point to another.
Q.3. How much energy is given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 6 V battery ?
Ans. Given that potential difference V= 6 V
Charge Q = 1 C
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Energy given = Total work done W = Q.V =1Cx6V = 6J.
Q.l. On what factors does the resistance of a conductor depend ?
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Ans. Hie resistance of a conductor depends on (/) its length, (zY) its area of cross-section, and
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{Hi) the nature of the material of the conductor.
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In fact, resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its length {R L) and is inversely
proportional to its cross-section area (R °c — . Thus,
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A
1 V P'L
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R oc — or R= -— , where p is a constant indicating the nature of the material of conductor
A A
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and is known as the resistivity of material of conductor.

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Q.2. Will current flow more easily through a thick wire or a thin wire of the same material,
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when connected to the same source ? Why ?

Ans. The current flows more easily through a thick wire as compared to a thin wire of the
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same material, when connected to the same source. It is due to the reason that resistance of a
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thick wire is less than that of a thin wire.

Q.3. Let the resistance of an electrical component remains constant while the potential
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difference across the two ends of the component decreases to half of its former value. What
change will occur in the current through it ?
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Ans. It is given that resistance R of the electrical component remains constant but the potential
difference across the two ends of the component decreases to half of its value i.e., V' = ^-.
V' V/2 V I
Hence, as per Ohm's law new current I' = — =----- = — = —.
R R 2R 2
So, the new current also decreases to half of its original value.
Q.4. Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a
pure metal ? [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Ans. Coils of electric toasters and electric irons are made of an alloy (generally nichrome)
due to the following two reasons :
(0 Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of pure metals, hence for a given
resistance we need a coil of lesser length.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 169
(ii) At high temperatures, an alloy does not oxidise (bum) readily. Hence, coil of an alloy
has longer life.
Q.5. Use the data in Table 12.2 (NCERT Textbook) to answer the following :
(a) Which among iron and mercury is a better conductor ?
(b) Which material is the best conductor ?
Ans. (a) Iron is a better conductor than mercury because resistivity of iron is less than that
of mercury.
(b) Silver is the best conductor because its resistivity is the least.
[D] QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 213 OF THE TEXTBOOK
Q.l. Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of three cells of 2 V
each, a 5 O resistor, an 8 O resistor, and a 12 D resistor, and a plug key, all connected in series.
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Ans. The schematic diagram of the circuit is shown in following Fig. 6.1.
V-i = V2 = V3 = 2 V
R, = 5 Q
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—AA/vVV— ■+-
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R3 = 12n R2 = 80
-WWW ■WWW
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Fig. 6.1
Q.2. Redraw the circuit of Question 1, putting in an ammeter to measure the current
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through the resistors and a voltmeter to measure the potential difference across the 12 Q,
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resistor. What would be the readings in the ammeter and the voltmeter ?
Ans. The redrawn circuit is shown in Fig. 6.2. Here,
B
Vt = V2 = V3 = 2 V
ammeter A has been joined in series of the circuit and
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voltmeter V is joined in parallel to 12 Q. resistor.

H H - *— -WWW--------♦
Rt = 5 S2
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Here total voltage of battery V=3x2V = 6V

Total resistance of series arrangement
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R2 = 8 Q
R = Ri + R2 + R3 —www----- ►
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= 5 + 8 + 12 = 25 D
Ammeter reading = Current flowing in the circuit
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v=ev_
= 0.24 A
R 25 Q.
Voltmeter reading = Potential difference across 12 12 resistor
V' = IR3 = 0.24 x 12 = 2.88 V
[E] QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 216 OF THE TEXTBOOK
Q.l. Judge the equivalent resistance when the following are connected in parallel :
(a) 1 12 and 106 12 (b) 1 12 and 103 12 and 106 12.
Ans. When resistances Rlf R2, R3 are joined in parallel, the resultant resistance in paraUel
arrangement Rp is given by
1111
— = —+— +— +
% R] R2 R3
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(a) When = \ Q. and R2 = 10h Q

J_=l J_
Rp 1 + 106 = 1 + IQ-6 = 1
Rr = 1 Q.
(b) When Rl = lQ,R2 = 103 Q. and R3 = 106 £1
J_ _ 1 K =1 + 10"3 + lO-6 = 1
Rp 1 103 106
Rp=lQ.
Q.2. An electric lamp of 100 £2, a toaster of resistance 50 Q and a water filter of resistance
500 £2 are connected in parallel to a 220 V source. What is the resistance of an electric iron
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connected to the same source that takes as much current as all three appliances, and what is
the current through it ?
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Ans. Here voltage of given voltage source V = 220 V.
As three gadgets of resistances Rj = 100 £2, R2 = 50 Q. and R3 = 500 £2 have been connected
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in parallel across the voltage source, hence their equivalent resistance Rp is given by
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_L - J_ J_ J_- 1 J_ 1 _ 5 + 10 + 1 _ 16
Rp R\ Ri R3 100 50 500 _ 500 " 500
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=> ^£2
Rv = = 31.25 £2
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v 16
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Resistance of electric iron, which draws as much current as all three appliances (lamp,
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toaster and water filter) taken together = R = Rp = 31.25 £2.

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V 220 V
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Current passing through electric iron / = — = 7.04 A.

31-25 £2
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Q.3. What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with the battery
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instead of connecting them in series ?

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Ans. Advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with the battery are as follows :
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(i) Voltage across each electrical device is same and the device can take current as per its
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resistance.
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(») Separate on/off switches can be applied across each device.

(Hi) Total resistance in parallel circuit decreases, hence, a greater current may be drawn
from the cell.
(iv) If one electrical device is damaged, then other devices continue to work properly.
Q.4. How can three resistors of resistances 2 £2, 3 £2 and 6 £2 be connected to give a total
resistance of (a) 4 £2, (fr) 1 £2 ?
Ans. (a) If we connect resistances of 3 £2 and 6 £2 in parallel and then resistance of 2 £2 is
connected in series of the combination, the total resistance of combination is 4 £2 as shown in
Fig. 6.307). If combined resistance of the parallel grouping of 3 £2 and 6 £2 resistances be R', then
J_ = 1 1 = 2 + 1 ^ 3 ^ 1
R' 3 6 6 6 2
R'= 2 £2
and total resistance of entire combination
R = 2£2 + R' = 2 + 2 = 4£2.
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Electricity 171
{b) If all the three resistances are joined in parallel as shown in Fig. 63(b), we have
J_ = ^ 1 1 _ 3+2+1 6 1
R ~ 2 3 6_ 6 6 1
R = 1 Q..
3Q 20.
VvVsV ■wvVv
2O 3O
VvV/v---- ■wVvV
A B A B
6 Si 6Q
AVvV •TWVv
(a) (b)
Fig. 6.3
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Q.5. What is (a) the highest, (b) the lowest total resistance that can be secured by combi
nations of four coils of resistances 4 Q, 8 £2, 12 Q and 24 £2 ?
Ans. (a) To obtain highest resistance, all the four resistances must be connected in series
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arrangement. In that case resultant resistance Rs is given by :
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R. = ]?! + R2 + R3 + K4 = 4 + 8 + 12 + 24 = 48 £1
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(b) To obtain lowest resistance, all the four resistances must be connected in parallel
arrangement, hi that case the resultant resistance R,, is given by :
JL = J_
for
J_ J__! 2 J_ J__6 + 3 + 2 + l 12
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Rp R1 R2 r3 R4 _ 4 8 12 24 " 24 24
24
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R„ = — Q = 2 £1
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p 12
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[F] QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 218 OF THE TEXTBOOK

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Q.l. Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow while the heating element does ?
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[CBSE 2010, 2011]

Ans. Cord and the electric heater are joined in series and carry same current when joined
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to voltage source. As resistance of cord is extremely small as compared to that of heater element,
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hence, heat produced H - I2Rt is extremely small in cord but much larger in heater element. So,
the heating element begins to glow but cord does not glow.
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Q.2. Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000 coulomb of charge in one hour
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through a potential difference of 50 V. [CBSE 2012]

Ans. Here charge transferred Q = 96000 C, time t = 1 hour = 60 x 60 s = 3600 s and potential
difference V = 50 V
.-. Heat generated H= Vlt = VQ = 50 x 96000 = 4800000 J
= 4.8 x 106 J.
Q.3. An electric iron of resistance 20 £2 takes a current of 5 A. Calculate the heat developed
in 30 s.
Ans. It is given that resistance of electric iron R = 20 £2, current drawn by electric iron 1 = 5
A and time f = 30 s.
.-. Heat generated H = l2Rt = (5)2 x 20 x 30 = 15000 J.
[G] QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 220 OF THE TEXTBOOK
Q.l. What determines the rate at which energy is delivered by a current ?
Ans. Electric power determines the rate at which energy is delivered by a current.
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Q.2. An electric motor takes 5 A from a 220 V line. Determine the power of the motor and
the energy consumed in 2 h.
Ans. It is given that current drawn by electric motor I = 5 A, the line voltage V = 220 V and
time f = 2 h.
Power of the motor P = VI = 220 V x 5 A = 1100 W
and the energy consumed £=Pf = 1100W x2h = 2200 W h or 2.2 kW h.
TEXTBOOK EXERCISES
Q.l. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. These parts are then
connected in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this combination is R', then the ratio
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is :
(*) (c) 5 (d) 25

25
ee
Ans. (d) 25.
rF
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[Hint : When a wire of resistance R is cut in five equal parts, resistance of each part Rj =
— Q.. Now, all these pieces are joined in parallel, hence

5
for
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111
= — + — +....5 times = — or R' = ~ =1 -=—
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5 ”5X 5 25
R' Ri Ri
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R R = 25.]
B
R' (R/25)
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Q.l. Which of the following terms does not represent electrical power in a circuit ?
V2
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(«) i2r (b) IR2 (c) VI

(d)if
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Ans. (b) 1R2.

nd
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V2
[Hint : Electrical power P = VI = I2R = . However, IR2 does not represent the power.]
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Q.3. An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power
consumed will be :
(a) 100 W (b) 75 W (c) 50 W (d) 25 W
Ans. (d) 25 W.
V2
[Hint : As rating of bulb is 220 V, 100 W, hence P = VI =
R
V2 220 x 220
.-. Resistance of bulb filament R = — = 484 Cl.
P 100
When the bulb is operated at a voltage V' = 110 V, the power consumed is
V -2 110x110
P' = = 25 W.]
R 484
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 173
Q.4. Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal diameters
are first connected in series and then parallel in a circuit across the same potential difference.
The ratio of heat produced in series and parallel combinations would be :
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:4 (d) 4:1
Ans. (c) 1 : 4.
[Hint: As two conducting wires have equal lengths, equal diameters (i.e., equal cross-section
area) and are of the same material, their resistances are same. Thus, = R2 = R (say). In
series arrangement, Rs = R^ + R2 = 2R and in parallel arrangement —

_L J__! J___2
Rp R2~ R R~ R
orRp = f
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When joined across a voltage source in series heat produced in time t
V2 V2t
Hq=----- 1 = v2t
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RS (2R) 2R
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and heat produced in parallel arrangement
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V2 V2t 2 V2t
Hvv =-----
p t = R R
for
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Rr
2
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V2t
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_ 1
2R = - or Hs : Hp = 1:4]
B
Hp 2V2t
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R
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ad
Q.5. How is a voltmeter connected in the circuit to measure the potential difference
[CBSE 2010, 2011]
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between two points ?

Ans. A voltmeter is always connected in parallel to the circuit across those two points,
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potential difference between which is to be measured.

Q.6. A copper wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity of 1.6 x 10-8 £2 m. What will be
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the length of this wire to make its resistance 10 £2 ? How much does the resistance change if
the diameter is doubled ?
Ans. It is given that diameter of wire D = 0.5 mm = 5 x lO-4 m, resistivity p = 1.6x!0 s£2m
and resistance R = 10 £2.
kDzR
As R=2L = iPk , hence L =
A 71D2 4p
22 x (5 x 10~4)2 x 10
Length of wire L = = 122.5 m
7x4x1-6x10 -8
nD'2
If the diameter of wire is doubled D' = 2D and hence. A' = -(2D2)=4x — = 4 A.
4 4V 4
ReadYourFlow.COM
For a given length and given material resistance is inversely proportional to the cross-section
1
area of the wire i.e., R —.
A
K=A RA RA R 10
or R' = — = 2.5 n.
R A' A' 4A 4 4
Q.7. The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of
potential difference V across the resistor are given below :
I (amperes) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
V (volts) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
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Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of that resistor. [CBSE 2010]
Ans. From the given data the I-V graph has been plotted, which is a straight line as shown
in Fig. 6.4.
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4
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I3 for
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E
.S 2
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t
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1
B
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0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
V (volts)
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Fig. 6.4
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To find resistance of the given resistor we take two points A and B on the graph, then
nd
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_ 12 V-6 V 6V
Resistance of resistor R = = 3.3 Q.
3.6 A-1.8 A 1.8 A
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1a ~h
Q.8. When a 12 V battery is connected across an unknown resistor, there is a current
of 2.5 mA in the circuit. Find the value of the resistance of the resistor. [CBSE 2010]
Ans. Given that voltage of battery V = 12 V
Circuit current I = 2.5 mA = 2.5 x 1CT3 A
V 12
Value of resistance R= — = 4800 Q = 4.8 x 103 £1 = 4.8 k£2
/ 2.5 x 103
Q.9. A battery of 9 V is connected in series with resistors of 0.2 Q, 0.3 ft, 0.4 ft, 0.5 ft and
12 ft respectively. How much current would flow through the 12 ft resistor ?
Ans. Here potential difference V = 9 V
Resistance joined in series are Rl = 0.2 ft, R2 = 0.3 ft, R3 = 0.4 ft, R4 = 0.5 ft and R5 = 12 ft
.-. Total series resistance Rs = Rl + R2 + R3 + R4 + R5
= 0.2 + 0.3 + 0.4 + 0.5 + 12 = 13.4 ft
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 175
9V
Current in the circuit 1 = — = = 0.67 A.
Ks 13.4 Q
In a series circuit same current flows through all the resistances, hence current of 0.67 A will
flow through 12 Q resistor.
Q.10. How many 176 £1 resistors (in parallel) are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line ?
[CBSE 20131
Ans. Let n resistors of 176 £2 are joined in parallel. Then their combined resistance Rf) is given
by
1 1 1 n n 176 n
+ .... n times = ---- or R„ = -----£2
176 176 176 p n
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It is given that V = 220 V and 7 = 5 A.
^ orlZ6 220
= 44
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RV =
7 n 5
ee
176
=> n= = 4 i.e., 4 resistors should be joined in parallel.
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44
Q.ll. Show how you would connect three resistors, each of resistance 6 £2, so that the
[CBSE 2012]
combination has a resistance of (i) 9 Q, (ii) 4 Q.
for
ur
Ans. It is given here that R1 = R2 = R3 = 6 £2
(/) To get a net resistance of 9 £2 we join three resistances as shown in Fig. 6.5(a). Here
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resistance of parallel combination of two 6 £2 resistors is
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J_ 1 1 2 1
B
+ => R' = 3 £2
R' 6 6 6 3
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Net resistance = R' + 6 = 3 + 6 = 9£2

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ad
6Q 6Q 6Q
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6 £2
B A B
nd
6Q 6Q
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VvVvV vWW
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(«) (b)
Fig. 6.5
(ii) To get a net resistance of 4 £2 we join three resistances as shown in Fig. 6.5(7>). Here the
combination of two resistors in series, having a combined resistance R0 = 6 + 6 = 12 £2, is joined
in parallel with the third resistance of 6 £2. Hence, the net resistance will be
1 1 1 1+2 A = I^r = 4(^.
+
R 12 6 12 12 4
Q.12. Several electric bulbs designed to be used on a 220 V electric supply line, are rated
10 W. How many lamps can be connected in parallel with each other across the two wires of
220 V line if the maximum allowable current is 5 A ?
Ans. As each bulb is rated as 10 W, 220 V, it draws a current
10W 1
i=l = —A.
V 220 V 22
ReadYourFlow.COM
As the maximum allowable current is I max = 5 A and all lamps are connected in parallel.
hence, maximum number of bulbs joined in parallel with each other
I max 5A
n= = 5 x 22 = 110.
I —A
22
Q.13. A hot plate of an electric oven connected to a 220 V line has two resistance coils A
and B, each of 24 £2 resistance, which may be used separately, in series, or in parallel. What
are the currents in the three cases ?
Ans. It is given that potential difference V = 220 V.
Resistance of coil A (RA) = Resistance of coil B (RB) = 24 Q
(i) When either coil A or B is used separately, the current
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V V 220 V
I= = 9.2 A
ra rb 24 £2
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(ii) When the two coils are used in series, total resistance
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Rs = RA + RB = 24 + 24 = 48 Q.
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V 220 V
Current flowing I = — = = 4.6 A
48 £2
for
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(Hi) When the two coils are used in parallel, total resistance Rp is given by
1 1 i 1 1 2 1
+ +
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Ra Rb 24 24 24 12
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Rp = 12 £2
B
220 V
Current flowing / = — = 18.3 A.
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RP 12 a
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Q.14. Compare the power used in the 2 £2 resistor in each of the following circuits :
ad
(0 a 6 V battery in series with 1 £2 and 2 £2 resistors, and (ii) a 4 V battery in parallel with 12 £2
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and 2 £2 resistors.
nd
Ans. (/) When a 2 £2 resistor is joined to a 6 V battery in series with 1 £2 and 2 £2 resistors,
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total resistance of the combination Rs=2 + l+ 2 = 5£2

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6V
Current in the circuit L = ---- = 1.2 A
1 5 £2
Power used in the 2 £2 resistor Pj = I^R = (1.2)2 x 2 = 2.88 W.
(ii) When 2 £2 resistor is joined to a 4 V battery in parallel with 12 £2 and 2 £2 resistors,
current flowing in 2 £2 resistor is independent of the other resistors.
4V
.•. Current flowing through 2 £2 resistor I2 = =2 A
Power used in the 2 £2 resistor P2 = /fR = (2)2 x 2 = 8 W

P
11 _ Z88 W
= 0.36 : 1.
?2 8W
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 177
Q.15. Two lamps, one rated 100 W at 220 V, and the other 60 W at 220 V, are connected in
parallel to electric mains supply. What current is drawn from the line if the supply voltage is
220 V ?
Ans. Current drawn by 1st lamp rated 100 W at 220 V
r _ Pl=m = lA
1 ”
220 V Li L2
V 220 11 100 w 60 W
and current drawn by 2nd lamp rated 60 W at 220 V

Fig. 6.6
,=E2=_60_ = Aa
2 V 220 11
5 3 8
In parallel arrangement the total current ^ = ^ + ^2=yj + ^y = —A = 0.73 A.
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11
Q.16. Which uses more energy, a 250 W TV set in 1 hour, or a 1200 W toaster in 10
minutes ?
Flo
Ans. Energy used by a TV set of power P1 = 250 W in time ^ = 1 h
E1 = = 250 W x 1 h = 250 Wh
ee
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10 1
and energy used by a toaster of power P2 = 1200 W in time t2 = 10 min - — h = — h
60 6
for
ur
E2 = P2t2 = 1200 W x i h = 200 Wh
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Thus, it is evident that TV set has used more energy.
Yo
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Q.17. An electric heater of resistance 8 Q draws 15 A from the service mains for 2 hours.
Calculate the rate at which heat is developed in the heater.
B
Ans. Given that resistance of electric heater R = 8 Q

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Current drawn by heater / = 15 A

ou
ad
H I2R t
.-. Rate at which heat is developed in the heater = — = I2R
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t t
= (15)2 x 8 = 1800 W.
nd
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Q.18. Explain the following :

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(a) Why is the tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps ?
(b) Why are the conductors of electric heating devices, such as bread-toasters and electric
irons, made of an alloy rather than a pure metal ?
(c) Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic circuits ? [CBSE 2008]
(d) How does the resistance of a wire vary with its area of cross-section ?
(e) Why are copper and aluminium wires usually employed for electricity transmission ?
[CBSE 2010, 2012]
Ans. (n) For filament of electric lamp we require a strong metal with high melting point.
Tungsten is used exclusively for filament of electric lamps because its melting point is extremely
high (3380 °C).
(b) Conductors of electric heating devices are made of an alloy rather than a pure metal
due to the following reasons :
(i) Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of pure metals, hence for a given
resistance we need a conductor of less length.
ReadYourFlow.COM
(ii) At high temperatures, an alloy does not oxidise (bum) readily. Hence, heating element
prepared from an alloy has longer life.
(c) Series arrangement is not used for domestic circuits due to the following reasons :
(/) In series arrangement same current will flow through all the appliances, which is not
required.
(ii) Total resistance of domestic circuit will be sum of the resistances of all appliances and
hence current drawn by the circuit will be less.
(Hi) We cannot use independent on/off switches with individual appliances.
(iv) All appliances are to be used simultaneously even if we do not need them.
(d) Resistance (R) of a wire is inversely proportional to its cross-section area (A). Thus :
l
Roc —
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A
(e) Copper and aluminium wires are usually employed for electricity transmission because
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these are extremely good conductors having a low value of resistivity. Moreover, these are ductile
and can be drawn in the form of fine wires.
ee
Fr
for
Q.l. The correct relation between current T and amount of charge flown 'q' during a time
ur
't' through a conductor is
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(d) I=£
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(a) 1 = qt (b) q = I2t (c) q = It
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t
Q.2. SI unit of resistivity is
B
(a) ohm/metre (b) ohm-metre

re
(c) ohm/(metre)3 (d) ohm/(metre)2

ou
Q.3. If four resistors each of 1 Q are connected in parallel, the effective resistance will be
ad
[CBSE 2011]
Y
(a) 0.5 Q (b) 0.25 a

(c) 4Q (d) 2 a
nd
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Q.4. Resistivity of a given conductor depends on [CBSE 2013]

Fi
(a) length of conductor.

(b) length as well as cross-section area of conductor.
(c) material and dimensions of conductor.
(d) material of conductor and temperature.
Q.5. A combination of three resistances has been shown in
A 2Q 2 £5 B
Fig. 6.7. Effective resistance between the points A and B is -•——WvW—yvWW-r-*-
(a) 8Q
A/sA/v\A
(b) 4 £2
(c) 2 a Fig. 6.7
(d) ia
Q.6. Which alloy is used to prepare the heating element of an electric iron ?
(a) Constanton (b) Tin-lead alloy
(c) German silver (d) Nichrome
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 179
Q.7. Two electric lamps are rated as 220 V, 100 W and 220 V, 40 W respectively. Their
electric resistances are
(a) 484 Q, 1210 Q. (b) 2.2 Q., 5.5 0.
(c) 45.5 Q, 7.3 Q. (d) 100 W, 40 W
Q.8. A wire of resistance 8 ft is bent in the form of a closed circle.
What is the effective resistance between the two points A and B, at the
ends of any diameter of the circle ?
(a) 8 0
(b) 4ft
(c) 2ft
(d) 1ft
Q.9. The rheostat is used in the circuit to : [CBSE 2012]
low
(a) increase the magnitude of the current.
(b) decrease the magnitude of the current.
(c) increase or decrease the magnitude of the current.
(d) change the current in the resistor without changing the potential difference across its two
ee
ends. rF
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Q.10. The graph between current I and potential difference V in the experimental verification
of Ohm's law were drawn by four students. Which one is correct ?
for
u
tI tI tI
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I
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(*) (b) (c) (d)

B
V—► V—► V V
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Fig. 6.9
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Q.ll. All elements of an electric circuit are connected in series except : [CBSE 2012]
ad
(a) voltmeter (b) ammeter

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(c) rheostat (d) resistor

nd
Q.12. A resistance wire is stretched so as to double its length. Its new resistivity will have
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a magnitude
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(a) 2 times its original value (b) 4 times its original value
(c) 8 times its original value (d) same as its original value
Q.13. The resistance of an alloy : [CBSE 2010]
(a) increases with temperature (b) decreases with temperature
(c) is constant with rise in temperature (d) is zero
Q.14. Three resistors of 1 ft, 2 ft and 3 ft are connected Vi V2 V3
in series with a battery of 12 V as shown in figure. Values ---- www- WWAA WWW—
of potential differences Vlr Vy V3 across the three resistors in 2Q 3n
have respective values :
(a) 2 V, 4 V, 6 V (b) 6 V, 4 V, 2 V
12 V
(c) 3V,2V, IV (d)
( ) _L
12 v
V, —
12 vv, —
12 v
v Fig. 6.10
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.15. The diagram [Fig. 6.11] shows a network of four

resistors which is connected to an electric source. Identify the
resistors which are connected in series in this network :
[CBSE 2011, 2012]
(a) B, A and D
(b) B, C and D
(c) C, D and A
(d) A, B and C
Fig. 6.11
Q.16. A student was given three resistances of 5 Q, 2 £2 and 3 £2. He experimentally obtained
the equivalent resistance of their series combination. The correct value will be :
low
[CBSE 2013]
(a) 0.9 £2 (b) 10 Q
(c) 1.03 £2 {d) 10.9 £2
Q.17. The equivalent resistance of a series combination of two resistances is X £2. If the
resistances are of 10 £2 and 40 £2 respectively, the value of X will be : [CBSE 2013]
ee
(a) 10 £2 rF (b) 20 £2
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(c) 50 £2 (d) 40 a
6
for
Q.18. Two resistance wires, when joined in parallel, give an effective resistance of — £2.
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When one of the resistance wires is disconnected, the effective resistance changes to 2 £2. The
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resistance of the disconnected resistance wire is
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(«) |n (b) m (c) 6 a (d) 3 £2

B
Q.19. The SI unit of resistance is : [CBSE 2013]

re
(«) volt (b) ampere

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ohm
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(c) (d) joule

Q.20. The resistance of an electric bulb drawing 1.2 A current at 6.0 V will be :
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[CBSE 2013]
nd
0.5 £2 (b) sa
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(*)
(c) 0.2 a (d) 2 a
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Q.21. Which of the following experimental set up is correct for verification of Ohm's law ?
[CBSE 2011]
—(gh—i-j i—\»y
-ww
-VWv
(A) (B)
Fig. 6.12
(a) A (b) B
(c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 181
Q.22. What is the resistor value in the given circuit [Fig. 6.13] ? [CBSE 2013]
| 26 V|
113 mA|
Fig. 6.13
w
(a) 200 £2 (b) 1 kQ.
(c) 2 k£2 (d) 4k£2
Q.23. In a circuit four resistors of 1 £2, 2 £2, 6 £2 and 12 £2 respectively are connected in series
Flo
combination. The maximum resistance that can be obtained is : [CBSE 2013]
ee
(a) 21 £2 (b) 18 £2
(c) 6 £2 (d) 4 £2
Fr
Q.24. In an electric circuit, three resistors Rlf R2 and R3 are connected in series such that
R2 = R3. If Vlf V2 and V3 are the voltages across Rv R2 and R3 respectively, then [CBSE 2011]
for
ur
(«) V1 = V2 (b) V2=V3
(c) Vi = V3 (d) Vl = V2=V3
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Q.25. If the resistance in a circuit with constant voltage increases, the current will :
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[CBSE 2013]
(b) decrease
B
(a) increase
(c) stay the same (d) not enough information
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Q.26. What will happen to current passing through a conductor if potential difference across
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[CBSE 2011, 2012]

ad
it is doubled and the resistance is halved ?

(a) remains unchanged (b) becomes double
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(c) becomes halved (d) becomes four times

nd
Q.27. « resistors, each of resistance R, are first connected in series so as to give an effective
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resistance Rs. Subsequently these resistors are connected in parallel so as to give an effective
Fi
resistance Rp. Then the ratio will be
{a) n : 1 (b) n2:1 (c) 1 : n2 (d) l:n

Q.28. Two resistances are joined in parallel with a cell and
a voltmeter V across the combination as shown in Fig. 6.14. The
current i in the circuit will be [CBSE 2013] 3 V _IZ_ R1 5 2 Q r2<2Q ©
{a) 3 A 5 > T+
(b) 1.5 A
(c) 1 A
(d) 0.5 A Fig. 6.14
Q.29. 1 kW h is equal to
(a) 3.6 x 106 J (b) 3.6 x 103 J (c) 3600 J (d) 1000J
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.30. Three resistors each having same resistance are connected in parallel. Their equivalent
resistance is 1 £2. If they are connected in series, their equivalent resistance will be :
[CBSE 2011]
(a) 3Q (b) 1 £2
(c) 6 Q (d) 9 £2
Q.31. The equivalent resistance of a series combination of two resistors is 20 Q. If one of
the resistor is 10 £2, the other resistor will be of : [CBSE 2013]
(a) 20 £2 (b) 10 £2
(c) 50 £2 (d) 40 £2
low
Total charge flown q
1. (c) Correct relation is current 1 =
Total time t
q = It
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2. {b) As resistivity of the material of a resistor of length l, cross-section area A and resistance R
rF
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R-A
is given by : p = , hence SI unit of resistivity is ohm-metre (£2 m).
/
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3. (b) If four resistors each of 1 £2 are connected in parallel, the effective resistance will be 0.25 £2.
u
4. (d) Resistivity of a given conductor depends only on its material and the temperature.
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Resistivity does not depend on the dimensions of the conductor.
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5. (c) Value of series combination of 2 £2 and 2 £2 resistances = 4 £2. As it is now connected in

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parallel to 4 £2 resistance, hence the effective resistance R between the points A and B will
B
be
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=- + - = -=>R = 2£2.
R 4 4 2
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6. (d) An alloy 'nichrome' is used to prepare the heating element of an electric iron because its
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resistivity is high, its melting point is high and it does not oxidise easily.
nd
V2
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7. (a) Resistance R = where V = voltage/potential difference and P = power

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electrical resistance of 100 W lamp, R1 = x ^0

= 484 £2
100
V2 220 x 220
and electrical resistance of 40 W lamp, R2 = — = = 1210 £2
40
8. (c) When a wire of 8 £2 resistance is bent in the form of a closed circle, resistance of each half
8
(semicircular) part is — £2 = 4 £2. As these two parts are connected in parallel across points
A and B, hence effective resistance will be 2 £2.
9. (c) A rheostat is used to increase or decrease the magnitude of the current flowing through
a circuit without change in the voltage source.
10. (b) I-V graph shown in figure (b) is correct because 1 ^ V.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 183
11. {a) In an electric circuit all other elements are connected in series but a voltmeter is connected
in parallel.
12. (d) When a wire is stretched, its resistivity remains unchanged. It is because resistivity of a
conductor depends only on its material and is independent of its length or cross-section
area.
13. (a) The resistance of an alloy increases with increase in temperature.
14. (a) In series grouping current I is same throughout and potential differences are directly
proportional to respective resistances.
12 V
ha given circuit I = =2A
(1 + 2 + 3) ft
V1 = IR1 = 2Axin = 2V,V2 = IR2 = 2Ax2Cl = 4V andV3 = IR3 = 2Ax3Q = 6V.
low
15. (b) ha the circuit shown, the resistors B, C and D are connected in series.
16. (b) In series arrangement net resistance R = R1 + R2 + R3 = 5 + 2 + 3 = 10 Q
17. (c) In series arrangement X = R1 + R2 = 10 + 40 = 50 Q.
18. (d) It is given that Rj = 2 ft and resistance of parallel grouping of two resistances Rf, = 4 £2.
ee
rF
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As per parallel arrangement =
RP Ra R2
=>
1 1 1 5 1_ 5-3 for
-=- => R2 = 3 ft
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r2 rp Ri 6 2_ 6 6 3
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19. (c) SI unit of resistance is 'ohm'.
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V 6.0 V
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= 5.0 ft.
B
20. (b) Resistance of bulb ^ = j

1.2 A
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21. (b) Experimental set up B is correct for verification of Olam's law.

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............................... „ V_ 26 V = 26 V
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22. (c) Value of resistor R = — = 2 x 103 ft = 2 kft.

/ " 13 mA 13 x10~" -3
Y
A
23. (a) In series resistance the resistance of the combination is
nd
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R = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4 = (1 + 2 + 6 + 12) ft = 21 ft.
24. (b) Since R2 = R3 and in a series circuit same current 1 flows through the entire circuit hence
Fi
V2 = V3.
voltage V
25. (b) In an electric circuit, current 1 = . If the resistance R in the circuit is increased
resistance R
keeping voltage V constant, then obviously current I will decrease.
V' 2V
26. (d) New current I' = — = 4 — =41
R' (R/2) R
27. (b) In series arrangement Rs = R + R + R .... n times = riR
ha parallel arrangement -J- = 1
= — + — + —.....n times = or R = —
Rp R R R R p n
Rs _ nR
= n2.
Rp
ReadYourFlow.COM
28. (a) The equivalent resistance of the circuit is given as

1 _ 1 J__ 1 1 _ — => Rea =in
R-eq r2 " 2+ 2 _ 2 ecl
V _ 3V
Current i = =3A
^
29. (fl) 1 kW h = 1000 W h = (1000 W) x (60 x 60 s) = 3.6 x 106 W s = 3.6 x 106 J
30. (d) Since Rl = R2 = R^ = R
1 1113 r, k _ D
Hence 1 Q = — or R = 3 Q.
RP R R R R 1 3 3
w
.•. In series Rs = R^ +R2 + R2l = R + R + R = 3R = 3x3Q. = 9Q.
31. (b) Here Rj = 10 and equivalent resistance of series combination Rs = 20 Q.
As Rs = Ra + R2/ hence R2 = Rs - Rl = (20 - 10) ^ = 10 ^
Flo
ee
Fr
for
ur
Q.l. What is the SI unit of electric charge ?
Ans. A coulomb (1 C).
ks
Q.2. Give symbols of (/) an electric cell, (ii) battery of cells.
Yo
oo
Ans.
hhi
B
re
(0 An electric cell (ii) Battery of cells

Fig. 6.15
ou
ad
Q.3. Identify the following symbols of commonly used components in a circuit diagram :
Y
nd
Re
(b)
Fi
Fig. 6.16
Ans. (a) a cell, (b) an ammeter.
Q.4. Define electric current. [CBSE 20121
Ans. Time rate of flow of charge through any cross-section of a conductor is called electric
current.
Q.5. State the SI unit of electric current and define it. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. An ampere (A), which is defined as the rate of flow of 1 coulomb of charge per second.
Q.6. In an electric circuit, state the relationship between the direction of conventional
current and the direction of flow of electrons. [CBSE 2011, 2012]
Ans. In an electric circuit, the direction of conventional current is taken as opposite to the
direction of flow of electrons.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 185
Q.7. Define potential difference between two points in a conductor. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. Potential difference between two points A and B, in an electric field, is defined as the
amount of work done in order to move unit positive charge from point B to point A. Thus,
W„A
B
Va-Vb =
<7
Q.8. What is the SI unit of electric potential ? [CBSE 2007]
Ans. A volt (1 V).
Q.9. What is meant by the statement "potential difference between points A and B in an
electric field is 1 volt" ? [CBSE 2007, 2010, 2011]
Ans. Amount of work done to bring 1 C charge from point B to point A in the electric field
is 1 joule.
w
Q.10. What is the unit of electrical resistance ?
1 volt
Ans. An ohm (1 £2), where 1 ohm =
Flo
1 ampere
ee
Q.ll. What is the name of physical quantity which is equal to y ? [CBSE 2007]
Fr
Ans. Electrical resistance.
Q.12. When do you say that the resistance of a wire is 1 £2 ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]
for
ur
Ans. Resistance of a wire is said to be 1 £2, if for flow of 1 A current through the wire one
has to maintain a potential difference of 1 volt across its ends.
ks
Q.13. The potential difference across the terminals of a cell is 1.5 volt. It is connected with
Yo
[CBSE 2013]
oo
a resistance of 30 ohms. Calculate the current flowing through the circuit.

Potential difference V 1.5 V
B
Ans. Current I - = 0.05 A

Resistance R 30 £2
re
Q.14. Which material is the best conductor ? [CBSE 2005]

ou
ad
Ans. Silver.
Y
Q.15. The following table gives the value of electrical resistivity of some materials :
Material Copper Silver Constanton
nd
Re
Electrical resistivity 1.62 x 10-8 1.6 x 10-8 49 x 10-8

Fi
(in £2-m)
Which one is the best conductor of electricity out of them ? [CBSE 2008]
Ans. Silver, because its electrical resistivity is least out of the given materials.
Q.16. What is meant by electric resistance of a conductor ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Or
Define resistance of a conductor. [CBSE 2012, 2013]
Ans. The electric resistance of a conductor is its property to oppose flow of electric charge
through it and is measured by the potential difference being applied across the conductor so as
to maintain the flow of one ampere current through it.
Q.17. What is the shape of V-I graph for a metallic wire ? Why ? [CBSE 2010]
Ans. A straight inclined line passing through the origin because for a metallic wire V I.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.18. The resistance of a resistor is kept constant and the potential difference across its
two ends is decreased to half of its former value. State the change that will occur in the current
flowing through it. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. The current flowing through the conductor is reduced to one-half of its previous value
V
in accordance with the relation l - —.
R
Q.19. Keeping the potential difference constant, the resistance of an electric circuit is
doubled. State the change in the reading of an ammeter connected in the circuit.
[CBSE 2011]
Ans. The reading of ammeter (i.e., current flowing in the circuit) is reduced to one-half of
its previous value.
w
Q.20. How are given resistances connected so that the equivalent resistance is increased ?
Ans. hi series.
Q.21. The length of a wire is doubled and its cross-sectional area is also doubled. What is
Flo
the change in its resistivity ? [CBSE 2009, 2011]
ee
Ans. There is no change because resistivity of a material depends only on its nature and is
Fr
independent of its dimensions.
Q.22. What is electrical resistivity ? [CBSE 2010]
Ans. The electrical resistivity of a material is the resistance offered by unit cube of that
for
ur
material.
Q.23. On what factors does the resistivity of a conductor depend ?
ks
Yo
Ans. On the material of conductor only (provided the temperature does not change).
oo
Q.24. What happens to resistance when length of conductor is doubled without affecting
B
the thickness of conductor ? [CBSE 2005]

re
Ans. Resistance is doubled because it is directly proportional to length.

Q.25. On what factors does the resistance of a conductor depend ? [CBSE 2010, 2012]
ou
ad
Ans. Resistance of a conductor (z) is directly proportional to its length, (n) inversely
Y
proportional to its cross-section area and depends on the material of the conductor. Resistance
also depends on the temperature.
nd
Re
Q.26. Mention any two factors on which the resistance of a cylindrical conductor depends.
Fi
[CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]

Ans. See answer of question number 25 above.
Q.27. The combination shown has resistance of 5 £2, what is the value of R ?
2a R
-----MAW------ WW-----
Fig. 6.17
Ans. As 2 + R = 5 Q. =>R = 5- 2 = 3£l.
Q.28. The combination shown has resistance of 5 ft, what is the value of R ?
1012
vvWW
R
Fig. 6.18
1 1 1 1
Ans. In parallel — + — = —, hence — = = => R = 10 ft.
10 R 5 R 5 10 10
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 187
Q.29. You have two metallic wires of resistances 6 Q and 3 fl How will you connect these
wires to get the effective resistance of 2 £2 ? [CBSE 2010]
Ans. In parallel, because then - = — + - = - —= — = — and hence R = 2 Zl.

R 6 3 6 6 2
Q.30. What happens to the resistance of a conductor when the length of the conductor is
reduced to half ? [CBSE 2010]
Ans. The resistance of conductor is reduced to one-half of its previous value because
R « length L.
Q.31. What happens to resistance of a conductor when its temperature is increased ?
[CBSE 2010]
Ans. On increasing the temperature, the resistance of given conductor also increases.
w
Q.32. Give an example of resistances joined in series from your daily life.
Ans. Electric frill used for festival lighting.
Flo
Q.33. In which arrangement, series or parallel, are various electrical devices connected in
the domestic lighting circuit ?
ee
Ans. In parallel.
Fr
Q.34. Should the heating element of an electric iron be made of iron, silver or nichrome
wire ?
for
ur
Ans. Nichrome wire, because its resistivity and melting point are high and it does not
oxidise easily.
ks
Q.35. How does the resistance of a wire depend on its radius ?
Yo
Ans. The resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to the square of its radius.
oo
1 1 1
B
Hint: R °c — and A = nr , hence R °c — orR^-j.

/I nr r J
re
Q.36. A given length of a wire is doubled on itself. By what factor does the resistance of
ou
ad
the wire change ? [CBSE 20111

Y
L
Ans. When given length of wire is doubled on itself, its new length L' = — and new cross-
nd
Re
section area A' = 2A Hence, its new resistance

Fi
L
PL/ = v 2 J _ 1 ph _ R
R' =
A' (2A) 4 A 4
Thus, resistance is reduced to one-fourth of its original value.
Q.37. What is the effective resistance in the given circuit ? [CBSE 2008]
---------- -AMMT -WWW'-
2Q 2Q
^HF <•>
Fig. 6.19
Ans. As two resistances are connected in series, hence the effective resistance R-2 + 2 = 4Z2.
Q.38. Draw a schematic diagram of an electric circuit consisting of a battery of two cells
each of 1.5 V, 5 £2, 10 £2 and 15 £2 resistors and a plug key, all connected in series. [CBSE 2009]
ReadYourFlow.COM
Ans. Schematic diagram is shown here.

WWW’—►—WWW—WWW"-
R-i = 5 Q R2=10Q R3=15Q
Battery of 2 cells Plug key

<•)
+
3V K
Fig. 6.20
Q.39. A current of 0.2 A passes through a resistance of 20 ft, what is the potential difference
across it ?
Ans. V = 1R = (0.2 A) x (20 ft) = 4 V.
w
Q.40. What is an ammeter ?
Ans. A measuring instrument used to measure electric current.
Q.41. Name the instrument/device used to measure electric current in a circuit.
Flo
[CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
ree
Ans. Art ammeter.
Q.42. How is an ammeter connected in a circuit to measure current flowing through it ?
F
[CBSE 2011, 2012]
Ans. In series of the electric circuit.
or
ur
Q.43. What is a voltmeter ?
sf
[CBSE 2006]
Ans. A measuring instrument used to measure potential difference between two points in an
k
Yo
electric circuit.
oo
Q.44. Name the instrument used to measure (i) electric current in a circuit, (ii) potential
B
difference between two points in a circuit. [CBSE 2011, 2012]

re
Ans. (/) Ammeter, (ii) Voltmeter.

Q.45. What is the SI unit of resistivity ? [CBSE 2012]
ou
ad
Ans. A ohm-metre (ft m).

Y
Q.46. In a circuit if resistors of 5 ft and 10 ft are connected in series, compare the current
passing through the two resistors. [CBSE 2011]
nd
Re
Ans. In series arrangement of resistances, same current flows through all the resistors.
Fi
Q.47. Two resistors of 30 ft and 60 ft are connected in parallel in an electric circuit. How
does the current passing through the two resistors compare ? [CBSE 2010]
Ans. In parallel arrangement current flowing through different resistors are in the inverse
ratio of their resistances. Hence, current passing through 30 ft resistor is double of the current
passing through 60 ft resistor.
Q.48. What is the lowest resistance that can be obtained by combining four coils of resistors
of 4 ft, 8 ft, 12 ft and 24 ft ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. To obtain lowest resistance given four coils must be connected in parallel. Then the
equivalent resistance will be
! = J_ + _L + _L + _L-i + ! J_ 6+3+2+1 12 1
R R1 r2 r3 R4 ~ 4 8 12 24 ~ 24 24 2
R = 2 ft.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 189
Q.49. Write the relation between electric power (P) in watt of a device with potential
difference (V volt) across it and current (I ampere) flowing through it. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. Power (P) = Potential difference (V) x Current (I).
Q.50. How much heat energy is generated when a current I is passed through a resistor R
for time t ?
Ans. Heat energy generated = I2Rt.
Q.51. What is heating effect of electric current ? fCBSE 2012]
Ans. When electric current is passed through a resistor, electrical energy is dissipated and
appears as heat energy. This is known as the heating effect of electric current.
Q.52. State Joule's law of heating. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. As per Joule's law the heat produced in a resistor is (i) directly proportional to square
w
of current flowing through it, (ii) directly proportional to resistance, and (Hi) directly proportional
to time. Mathematically,
Flo
Heat H = I2Rt
Q.53. In the circuit shown power dissipated in 12 ft resistance is 12 Q
ree
WvWW-
6 watt. What is the power dissipated in the 8 ft resistance ?
Ans. In parallel arrangement voltage V remains same.
F
tj Pj R2 8 £2
Hence — = —
or
ur
P2 R, y
sf
6x12 Fig. 6.21
.•. Power in 8 ft resistance P2 = jVgl = =9W
k
Yo
*2 8
oo
Q.54. The voltage-current (V-/) graph of a metallic circuit at two

B
different temperatures Tj and T2 is shown in Fig. 6.22 which of the

re
two temperatures is higher and why ? [CBSE 2011] v

Ans. Temperature T2 is higher because resistance of metallic circuit
t
ou
ad
= yj is higher at temperature T2 and resistance increases with

Y
nd
1
Re
increase in temperature.
Fig. 6.22
Q.55. How many joules are equals to 1 kW h ?
Fi
Ans. 3.6 x 106 J.

Q.56. Out of 60 W and 40 W lamps, which one has a higher electrical resistance when in
use ? [CBSE 2008]
V2
Ans. 40 W lamp has a higher electrical resistance because R = y-.
Q.57. Out of the two, a toaster of 1 kW and an electric heater of 2 kW, which has a greater
resistance ? [CBSE 2006]
V2
Ans. Toaster has a greater resistance because its power is less and R = -y-.
Q.58. Name two special characteristics of a heating element wire.
Ans. A heating element wire should have high resistivity and high melting point.
Q.59. Name any two appliances/devices based on heating effect of current. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. Electric iron, electric toaster, electric oven etc.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.60. Nichrome is used to make the element of an electric heater. Why ? [CBSE 2010]
Ans. Nichrome is an alloy of high resistivity and high melting point and does not oxidise
easily.
Q.61. Would you connect a fuse in series or in parallel to an electric circuit ?
[CBSE 2011]
Ans. In series of the electric circuit.
Q.62. For an electric iron of 1 kW rating at 220 V, fuse of how much capacity is to be used ?
1 kW 1000 W
Ans. Current flowing through iron I = = 4.54 A.
220 V 220 V
Hence, a fuse of 5 A capacity may be used with electric iron.
w
Q.l. What is an electric circuit ? Distinguish between an open and a closed circuit.
Flo
[CBSE 2009, 2010]
Ans. Electric circuit is a combination of conductors and current sources. These elements viz.,
ree
conductors and current sources are joined together by means of connecting wires of very low
F
resistance in such a way that there is no short circuit. +
When no current is flowing in the circuit, it is an open circuit vwvw- H1-
Or
or
ur
as in adjoining figure when plug in key K is not put in its place. Hr
sf
When the current is flowing in the circuit, it is a closed circuit.
In the given figure if plug in key K is put in place, the current K
k
Yo
will begin to flow. Fig. 6.23

oo
Q.2. n electrons, each carrying a charge -e, are flowing across a unit cross-section of a
B
metallic wire in unit time from east to west. Write an expression for electric current and also
re
give its direction of flow. Give reason for your answer. [CBSE 2013]
ou
Ans. Electric current in a circuit is defined as the time rate of flow of electric charge through
ad
any cross-section and its direction is opposite to that of flow of electrons. Hence in present case
Y
ne
electric current I = — = = ne
nd
Re
t 1
As electrons are flowing from east to west, the direction of electric current is from west to
Fi
east.
Q.3. A TV set shoots out a beam of electrons. The beam current is 10 |iA. How many
electrons strike the TV screen in each second ? How much charge strikes the screen in a
minute ? [CBSE 2010]
ne
Ans. We know that current / = —
t t
As current 7 = 10 pA = 10 x 10"6 A = 10-5 A and charge on an electron e = 1.6 x 10-19 C, hence
number of electrons striking the TV screen in time f = 1 s is given by
It 10~5 x 1
n= — = 6.25 x 1013
e 1.6 x 10 -19
And charge striking the screen in time t = 1 minute = 60 s is
q = It - lo-5 x 60 = 6 x 10-4 C
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 191
Q.4. The charge possessed by an electron is 1.6 x lO-19 coulomb. Find the number of
electrons that will flow per second to constitute a current of 1 ampere. [CBSE 2011, 2012]
Ans. Here current / = 1 A, time f = 1 s and charge on each electron e = 1.6 x 10~19 C.
As 1=1 = ne
t t
1x1
Hence, number of electrons flowing n = — = 6.25 x 1018
e 1.6 x 10~19
Q.5. A current of 2 A passes through a circuit for 1 minute. If potential difference between
the terminals of the circuit is 3 V, what is the work done in transferring the charge.
[CBSE 2012]
w
Ans. Here I = 2 A, time t — 1 minute = 60 s and V = 3 V
.'. Total charge flowing ^ = If = 2 x 60 = 120 C
Flo
Work done W = cjV = 120 x 3 = 360 ]
Q.6. How much work is done in moving a charge of 2 C across two points having a
ee
potential difference of 12 V ? [CBSE 2011, 2012]
Fr
Ans. It is given that potential difference V = 12 V and amount of charge flown q = 2 C.
Total work done for moving the charge W = qV
for
ur
= 2 C x 12 V = 24 J.
Q.7. Two students A and B performed
Student A Student B
ks
experiments on two given resistors JR1 and
Yo
R2 and plotted the V-I graphs shown in

oo
Fig. 6.24. If > R2, which of the two students v V

B
correctly performed the experiment ? Justify t t

re
your answer. [CBSE 2011]

ou
Ans. Slope of V-I curve gives the value

ad
of resistance R of a resistor. As 1^ > R2 hence

Y
slope of V-I graph for should be more than

Fig. 6.24
nd
that of R2- Hence student A has correctly

Re
performed the experiment.

Fi
Q.8. What do you mean by resistance of a conductor ? Define its unit.

[CBSE 2010, 2012]
Ans. The resistance of a conductor is a property of the conductor, which affects the flow of
current through it on maintaining a potential difference across its ends.
Unit of resistance is 1 ohm. Resistance of a conductor is said to be 1 ohm, if a potential
difference of 1 V is to be applied across its ends for maintaining flow of 1 A current.
Q.9. How can Ohm's law be verified experimentally ? Does it hold good under all
conditions ? Comment. [CBSE 2010]
Ans. I-V graph for a given conductor is drawn. As the graph comes out to be a straight line
passing through the origin. Ohm's law is experimentally verified.
Ohm's law is true for metallic conductor/resistors so long as temperature remains unchanged.
Q.10. State the factors on which the resistance of a cylindrical conductor depend. Hence,
define resistivity. [CBSE 2011]
ReadYourFlow.COM J
Ans. The resistance of a cylindrical conductor i.e., a wire (R) is (i) directly proportional to its
length L, (n) inversely proportional to its cross-section area A and (in) depends on the nature of
material of wire. Mathematically,
L p-L
Roc — or R =
A A
Here, p is known as the resistivity of given material. It is defined as the resistance offered by
a unit cube of given material when current flows perpendicular to the opposite faces.
Q.ll. In an electric circuit with a resistance wire and a cell, the current flowing is I. What
would happen to this current if the wire is replaced by another thicker wire of same material
and same length. Give reason. [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Ans. If given resistance wire is replaced by another thicker wire of same material and same
w
length then cross-section area of wire is increased and consequently its resistance decreases
pL
Flo
As R = — . So the current flowing in the circuit increases.
ee
Q.12. A wire of length L and resistance R is stretched so that the length is doubled and
Fr
area of cross-section halved. How will (/) resistance change, and (n) resistivity change ?
[CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
for
ur
pL/ _ p(2L) _ 4pL
Ans. (i) The new resistance of wire R' = = 4R. Thus, resistance increases
A' A A
ks
2
Yo
to four times its original value.

oo
(ii) The resistivity of the material of wire remains unchanged because it is a characteristic
B
of the material of wire and is independent of its dimensions.

re
Q.13. How much current will an electric bulb draw from 220 V source if the resistance of
the bulb is 1200 £2 ? If in place of bulb, a heater of resistance 100 £2 is connected to the source
ou
ad
calculate the current drawn by it. [CBSE 2012]

Y
Ans. As here ^ = 220 V and R = 1200 £2

nd
V 220
Re
.•. Current drawn by electric bulb I = -^

1200 60
=H
a
Fi
If instead of bulb we connect a heater then IT = 100 £2 and hence current drawn by it
220
r= — = 2.2 A
R' 100
Q.14. Derive the relation R = R1 + R2 + R3, when resistors are joined in series.
[CBSE 2005, 2012]
Ans. In series combination, the same current flows in all the resistances but the potential
difference across each of the resistance is different.
According to Ohm's law, we have
V1 = IRl, V2 = IR2, V3 = IR3
If the total potential difference between A and B
is V, then
v = vi + y2 +
= IRj + IR2 + IR3
= I(R1 + R2 + R3)
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 193
Let the equivalent resistance be R, then

V = IR
and hence IR = I(Rl + R2 + R3)
=> R = Rl + R2 + Ry
Q.15. In an experiment to study the relationship between the potential difference across
a resistor and the current through it, a student recorded the following observations :
Potential difference (V) 2 3 4.5 5 6
Current (A) 0.08 0.12 0.15 0.20 0.24
Find in which one of the above sets of reading the trend is different from others and must
be rejected. Calculate the mean value of resistance of the resistor based on the remaining sets
w
of readings. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. From the given set of readings, we find the value of resistance as :
Flo
V,i _
l*i = — =25 n
ee
/i 0.08
Fr
r2 =
= y2 = 3 = 25 Q
h 0.12
for
ur
r3=Yl = -i! = 30 q
h 0.15
ks
Yo
—= 25 Q, and
oo
1*4 =
h 0.20
B
V5
— = 25 Q
re
'5 0.24
ou
Thus, it is clear that the 3rd reading is wrong and must be rejected. On the basis of remaining
ad
set of observations we find that the mean value of resistance of the resistor is 25 Q.
Y
Q.16. Derive the relation — = — ^ + — + —, when resistors are joined in parallel.

nd
Re
R Ri 1*2 1*3
Fi
[CBSE 2013]
Ans. In parallel combination of three resistances Ry R2 and 1*3, the current in each of the
resistances is different. If 1 is the current drawn from the cell then it is divided into branches Ij,
I2 and 13. Thus,
I -Il + I2+ 13.
The potential difference across each of these resistances is the same.
Ii R.
Thus, from Ohm's law vAAlVW-
u
R^
f,z2 =V
i*2 r3
R2
----»---- AA/VW
h
—*---TvWW
R3
If R is the equivalent resistance then.
V
+
1= — -4-
R I
v_=v_ v_ v_ Fig. 6.26
R ~ R-l + R2 r3
ReadYourFlow.COM
and R ~ Ri+ R2 + *3
Q.17. In the circuit diagram shown [Fig. 6.27], the two resistance -►-Vv'vW'/—(^)—
wires A and B are of same length and same material, but A is thicker
than B. Which ammeter Aj or A2 will indicate higher reading for -►-AVvW—(A^)—
B
current ? Give reason. [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Ans. Since wire A is thicker, its cross-section area is more but i—IH>- <•>
resistance is less than that of B because resistance of a wire is inversely Fig. 6.27
proportional to its cross-section area. As a result more current will
pass through wire A and so reading of ammeter A} is more.
Q.18. In the circuit diagram of Fig. 6.27, the two resistance wires A and B are of same area
w
of cross-section and same material, but A is longer than B. Which ammeter A1 or A2 will
indicate higher reading for current ? Give reason. [CBSE 2011]
Flo
Ans. Since wire A is longer than B resistance of wire A is more because resistance of a wire
is directly proportional to its length. Consequently current flowing through wire A is less. Hence
ee
ammeter Aa will give less reading and A2 will give more reading.
Fr
Q.19. Explain how a cell maintains an electric current in a circuit. [CBSE 20131
Ans. A cell is a current source which supplies electrical energy to maintain the flow of
for
ur
charges (e.g., electrons) in the circuit at the expense of its internal chemical energy.
Q.20. Mention the condition under which charges can move in a conductor. Name the
ks
device which is used to maintain this condition in an electric circuit. [CBSE 2012]
Yo
oo
Ans. Electric charges can move in a conductor when a potential difference is maintained
across its ends. An electric cell is used to maintain potential difference across the conductor and
B
thus can be used for flow of charges (i.e., flow of current).

re
Q.21. Calculate the resistance of an electric bulb which allows a 10 A current when
ou
connected to a 220 V power source.

ad
[CBSE 2009]
Ans. Given that voltage of power source V = 220 V
Y
Current flowing / = 10 A
nd
Re
220 V
Resistance of electric bulb R = — = 22 n.
Fi
I 10 A
Q.22. An electric iron has a rating of 750 W, 220 V. Calculate
(0 current passing through it, and
(ii) its resistance, when in use. [CBSE 2007]
Ans. (i) It is given that power of electric iron P = 750 W and the potential difference across
its ends V = 220 V
P 750 75
.■. Current passing through it J = — = = —A = 3.41 A.
V 220 22
V 220 220 x 22
(ii) Resistance of electric iron R = — = 64.53 £1
/ 75
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 195
Q.23. Two wires of equal length, one of copper and the other of manganin (an alloy) have
the same thickness. Which one can be used for (/) electric transmission lines, (ii) electrical
heating devices ? Why ? [CBSE 2008]
Ans. (/) Copper is used for electric transmission lines because its resistivity and consequently
resistance is small and power loss in transmission lines is small.
(ii) Manganin alloy is used for electrical heating devices because its resistivity is high and
it does not oxidize easily on heating.
Q.24. Table gives the resistivity of three samples (in i2-m)
Sample A B C
Resistivity 1.6 x 10-8 7.5 x 1017 44 x 10-6
[CBSE 2011]
w
Which of them is a good conductor and which is an insulator ? Why ?
Ans. Sample A is a good conductor because its resistivity is extremely small at 1.6 x 10“8 f2-m.
Sample B is an insulator because its resistivity is extremely high at 7.5 x 1017 Q-m.
Flo
Q.25. The following table gives the resistivity of three samples :
ee
Sample A B C
Fr
Resistivity 1.6 x 10“8 fl-m 5.2 x 10 8 Q-m 100 x 10"8 £2-m
Which of them is suitable for heating elements of electrical appliances and why ?
for
ur
[CBSE 2011]
Ans. The element C is best suited for preparing heating element of electrical appliances
ks
because its resistivity is more than that of other two materials. Hence while preparing an element
Yo
oo
of given resistance we shall have to use a wire of lesser length and may be thicker.
Q.26. A piece of wire of resistance 20 Q is drawn out so that its length is increased to twice
B
its original length. Calculate the resistance of the wire in the new situation. [CBSE 2009]
re
Ans. Solve it exactly like Short Answer Type Question Number 12 (Two Marks Each).
ou
ad
The new resistance R' = 4R - 4 x 20 il = 80

Q.27. Two metallic wires A and B of the same material are connected in parallel. Wire A
Y
has length / and radius r. Wire B has a length 2/ and radius 2r. Calculate the ratio of the
nd
equivalent resistance in parallel combination and the resistance of wire A. [CBSE 2011]
Re
Ans. Let resistivity of material of wires A and B be p.

Fi
.•. Resistance of wire A of length / and radius r will be

p/ ...(/)
A A
nr2
and resistance of wire B of length 21 and radius 2r will be
= p (2l) = 1 p/ ^ Ra
...(ii)
B n(2r)2 2 jcr2 2
.•. If equivalent resistance of parallel combination of RA and RB be Rp, then
1 1 +—
1 = _L 2 _ 3
Rp Ra Rb Ra Ra Ra
Ra
rp 3 ^ R
ReadYourFlow.COM
Ans. (a) As the electric lamp is marked 220 V, 100 W, it means that power of lamp P = 100 W
and potential difference applied V = 220 V
V2 220 x 220
Resistance of electric lamp when glowing R = — = 484 Q.
100
(b) As the electric lamp is used for t = 5 hours daily, hence energy consumed per day
500
£ = P t = 100 W x 5 h = 500 W h = kW h
1000
= 0.5 kW h.
Q.38. Two room heaters are marked 220 V, 500 W and 220 V, 800 W respectively. If the
heaters are connected in parallel to 220 V mains supply, calculate
w
(/) the current drawn by each heater.
(it) the resistance of each heater.
(in) total electric energy consumed in commercial units if they operate simultaneously
Flo
for 2 hours. [CBSE 2008]
ee
Ans. In parallel each heater operates at same voltage V = 220 V. It is given that P1 = 500 W
and P2 = 800 W.
Fr
P, 500 W 25 A . _ P2 800 W 40 .
(0 h=-77 = —A, and I2= — =-------- = —A
for
ur
V 220 V 11 ^ 1/ 220 V 11
.... V 220 V = 220
= 96.8 Q, and R2 = = 60.5 El
ks
h (40/11)
Yo
oo
(in) Total power P = P1 + P2 = 500 + 800 = 1300 W, time f = 2 h

B
.-. Total energy consumed E = Pt = 1300 x 2 W h = 2600 W h

re
2600
kW h = 2.6 kW h = 2.6 units.
1000
ou
ad

Y
Q.l. (a) Define the term Volt'.

nd
Re
(b) State the relation between work, charge and potential difference for an electric circuit.
Calculate the potential difference between the two terminals of a battery if 100 joules of
Fi
work is required to transfer 20 coulombs of charge from one terminal of the battery to the
other. [CBSE 2009]
Ans. (a) The term Volt' is the SI unit of potential difference. Potential difference is said to
be 1 volt if one joule work is to be done to carry 1 coulomb positive charge from one point to
another.
(b) The relation between work (W), charge (Q) and potential difference (V) for an electric
circuit is
W
Q
Given that W = 100 J and Q = 20 C
.•. Potential difference ^ = ^ = = 5 volt = 5 V.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 199
Q.2. State Ohm's law. How can it be verified experimentally ? Does it hold good in all
conditions ? Comment. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. For statement of Ohm's law, see Point Number 14 under the heading "Chapter At A
Glance".
The circuit diagram of the experimental set up has been V+ V V V
shown in Fig. 6.31. Here, XY is a resistance wire, A an H hH rij hH H
ammeter and V a voltmeter. A battery of four cells is being
used as a current source and K is a plug key.
Initially use one cell only. Put plug in key K and note
current and voltage by noting ammeter and voltmeter read
R
X aaaaa
ings respectively. Let these be ^ and V,1.
Then connect two cells in the circuit and note current I2
w
and potential difference V2 across the resistance. Similarly
take readings with three cells and four cells in the circuit.
Flo
From our observations, we find that
V-
ree
J- = Yl=Yi = Y± = a constant
h h h h
F
(R, the resistance of given wire).
If we plot V-I graph, the graph comes out to be a straight
or
ur
line as shown in Fig. 6.32. It experimentally verifies Ohm's law.
sf
Ohm's law does not hold good under all conditions. It is true for
k
metals arid alloys only provided that temperature does not change I
Yo
oo
during the course of experiment. Fig. 6.32

eB
Q.3. Describe an activity to find relationship between the potential difference (V) across
two ends of a conductor and the current (D flowing through it by including in your answer
(z) the diagram of the electric circuit, (ii) a V-I graph. [CBSE 2012]
r
ou
ad
Ans. See answer of question number 2 above.

Y
Q.4. State the formula correlating the electric current flowing in a conductor and the
voltage applied across it. Also show this relationship by drawing a diagram.
nd
Re
What would be the resistance of a conductor if the current flowing through it is 0.35 A
when the potential difference across it is 1.4 V ?
Fi
Ans. Hie formula correlating the electric current I flowing in a conductor and the voltage
applied V across it is
I °c V
or = a constant 2
I CL
E
=R
= resistance of given conductor.
CD
The relationship is shown in Fig. 6.33.
In the given problem / = 0.35 A and V = 1.4 V o
P_ 1.4
Resistance R = —
t
I ~ 0.35 Potential difference V (volt)
= 4.o a Fig. 6.33
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.5. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a cylindrical conductor depends and
hence write an expression for its resistance.
(b) How will the resistivity of a conductor change when its length is tripled by stretching
it ? [CBSE 2013]
Ans. (a) See short answer (2 marks) type question number 10.
{b) The resistivity of the conductor remains unchanged.
Q.6. Express Joule's law of heating mathematically.
What is the resistance of 12 m wire having radius 2 x 10-4 m and resistivity 3.14 x 10-8 ft-m.
[CBSE 2011]
Ans. For mathematical expression of Joule's law of heating, see Point Number 36 under the
heading "Chapter At A Glance".
As per question length of wire L = 12 m, radius r = 2 x 10-1 m and resistivity p = 3.14 x 10-8 Q-m
w
pL pL 3.14 x 10“8 x 12
.•. Resistance of given wire R = — = 3 Q.
Flo
A jcr2 3.14 x (2 x 10~4)2
Q.7. Describe a simple experiment to demonstrate variation of resistance on (z) length,
ree
(zz) cross-section area, and (in) material of the conductor. What are the conclusions drawn ?
F
Ans. To demonstrate dependence of resistance on length, (D K
cross-section area and material of the conductor we complete an
or
ur
electric circuit as shown in Fig. 6.34.
sf
(z) Effect of length : Take the resistance wire number 1 of
k
length / and connect it in the circuit. Put plug in key K and note
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oo
ammeter reading. Let it be Jj. Now instead of wire number 1,

eB
connect wire number 2 of double length but of same material

and same thickness. As before note ammeter reading I2-
Fig. 6.34
r
I
ou
Experimentally, it is observed J2 = —. It shows that resistance of 2nd wire is double of 1st wire.
ad
Y
Thus, we conclude that

1^2 l2 3.1
nd
— - -- - — = 2 or R /.
Re
/i /
Fi
(zz) Effect of cross-section area : Replace the wire by resistance wire number 3 of length
/ but thickness more than wire number 1. Again put plug in key and note ammeter reading Z3.
It is more than II. It means for a thicker wire (i.e., a wire of greater cross-section area) the
resistance is less. Exact calculations show that resistance is inversely proportional to cross-section
area of the conductor.
Thus, Roc 1
A
(in) Effect of material : Now, take a wire number 4 of some other material but of length
/ and same thickness as wire number 1. Connect the wire in the circuit and again note ammeter
reading J4. We find that /4 is different from II. It shows that resistance depends on material of
the conductor.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 201
Q.8. Two lamps rated 100 W, 220 V and 25 W, 220 V are connected in parallel to 220 V
supply. Calculate the total current through the circuit. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. In parallel grouping voltage remains same across each lamp. Hence currents and I2
flowing through 2 lamps are :
Pl _ 100 _ 5 A
i ~ V _ 220 ~ 11
and 1 = p2 _ 25 _ 5 A
2 V 220 44
5 = 20 + 5 _ 25 A
Z = /1 + /2=A + _
.•. Total current
11 44 44 ~ 44
Q.9. Describe an activity to show the variation of resistance with area of cross-section of
[CBSE 2012]
w
a conductor.
Ans. See Short Answer Type Question Number 7 (Three Marks Each).
Q.10. Describe an activity to show the variation of resistance on material of the conductor.
Flo
[CBSE 2012]
Ans. See Short Answer Type Question Number 7 (Three Marks Each).
ree
Q.ll. In the given circuit [Fig. 6.35], calculate
F
[5] 18ft 6ft
(/') the total resistance of the circuit, ww
(ii) current flowing through the circuit,
or
ur
(Hi) potential difference across the lamp and
sf
the resistor. [CBSE 2008] +
■4-
«—(•>
k
Ans. (i) Since lamp of resistance = 18 D and
Yo
6V
oo
resistor R2 = 6 Q. are connected in series, hence total Fig. 6.35

eB
resistance of the circuit

+ R2 = 18 + 6 = 24 Q.
(ii) As voltage V = 6 V
r
ou
ad
V 6V
Current flowing through the circuit / = — = = 0.25 A.
Y
R 24 Q
(Hi) Potential difference across the lamp
nd
Re
V1 = IR1 = 0.25 x 18 = 4.5 V

Fi
and potential difference across the resistor

V2 = IR2 = 0.25 x 6 = 1.5 V.
Q.12. Two resistors, with resistances 5 ft and 10 ft respectively are to be connected to a
battery of emf 6 V so as to obtain :
(i) minimum current flowing (ii) maximum current flowing
(a) How will you connect the resistances in each case ?
(b) Calculate the strength of the total current in the circuit in the two cases.
[CBSE 2009]
Ans. Here R1 = 5 Q, R2 = 10 Q and V = 6 V. 5ft 10ft
WWW- VWVW-
(a) (i) For minimum current flowing in the circuit
resistances R} and R2 should be connected in series as shown
in Fig. 6.36.
6V
Fig. 6.36
ReadYourFlow.COM
(ii) For maximum current flowing in the circuit resistances and R2 should be connected
in parallel as shown in Fig. 6.37.
(b) (i) In series combination Rs = ^ + R2 = 5 Q. + 10 Q. = 15 Q.
5Q
Minimum current
v_=ey_ = 0.4 A
—vVWW—
Rs~ 15 Q.
—WW'/'—
1 J_ 10 Q
(ii) In parallel combination — = 5 + 10
RP
=>Rp=fn
V 6V 6V
Maximum current 1 Ill .IX = 1.8 A.
RP Fig. 6.37
3
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Q.13. (i) Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of five 2 V cells, a
5 £2 resistor, a 10 £2 resistor and a 15 £2 resistor and a plug key all connected in series.
Flo
(ii) Calculate the electric current passing through the above circuit when the key is
closed. [CBSE 2006]
ree
Ans. (i) The schematic diagram is given in Fig. 6.38.
F
--------- AWW----- AAAW------VWW—
R, = 5 £2 R2 = 10 £2 R3=15£2
or
ur
sf
5 cells of 2 V each
k
Yo
{•)
oo
+
B K
eB
Fig. 6.38
(ii) Here total voltage V = 5x2 = 10V
r
ou
ad
and total resistance R = Rr + R2 + R3 = 5 + 10 + 15 = 30 £2

Y
.-. Current passing through the circuit when the key is closed
10 V
nd
Re
- A = 0.33 A.
R 30Q 3
Fi
Q.14. For the circuit diagram given below in Fig. 6.39; calculate :
5 £2
WAV
10 £2
WAV-
30 £2 /
WAV
■HHHi------- (•>
6V
Fig. 6.39
(a) the value of current through each resistor.
(b) the total current in the circuit.
(c) the total effective resistance of the circuit. [CBSE 2008, 2011]
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 203
Ans. {a) Since the three resistances, shown in the circuit have been joined in parallel, hence
voltage across each of them is same having a value V = 6 V.
Current through resistance = 5 £2, h=-ir

1?!
- = 1.2 A
5
Current I2 through resistance R2 = 10 £1, h ~ TT — = 0.6 A

R2 10
V
and current I3 through resistance R3 = 30 £2, — = 0.2 A
R3 30
(b) Total current in the circuit I — I] + I2 + I3 — 1.2. + 0.6 + 0.2 — 2.0 A
(c) Total effective resistance of the circuit
w
V
— = 3.0 £2.
R-eq ~
I. 2.0
Flo
Q.15. Find the equivalent resistance of the following circuit [Fig. 6.40]. 1CBSE 2012, 2013]
ree
2Q
—v'WWv'V'—
F
3 £2 1Q
or
ur
2Q
1 Q
sf
3 il —/WWW—
k
Yo
oo
+ l
B
<•>
V
re
Fig. 6.40
ou
Ans. Equivalent resistance of 2 £2 and 2 £2 resistors joined in parallel is

ad
1 112,
Y
-H— = — = 1 => Ri = 1 £2
Ri 2 2 2 1
nd
Re
Again equivalent resistance of 1 £2 and 1 £2 resistors joined in series is

1112 1
Fi
— = - + _ = _ => R? = — £2 = 0.5 £2
r2 111 2 2
Now equivalent resistance of the circuit
R = 3£2 + 3£2 + R1 + R2 = 3 + 3 + l + 0.5 = 7.5£2
Q.16. Find (a) the highest, (b) the lowest value of resistance that can be obtained by the
combination of four resistors of 4 £2, 8 £2, 12 £2 and 24 £2. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. (a) When all four resistances are connected in series, the circuit resistance is highest
having a value
Rj = 4 + 8 + 12 + 24 = 48 £2
(b) When these four resistances are connected in parallel, the circuit resistance is lowest
having a value R2, where
L = A I _! 1 6+3+2+1 12 _1
R2 _ 4 8 12 24 _ 24 24 " 2
R2 = 2 £2
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.17. Calculate the effective resistance between P and Q in circuit of Fig. 6.41.
[CBSE 2011]
Ans. In the arrangement of resistors shown in Fig. 6.41, resistances of 7 Q and 3 Q are
connected in series and constitute a resistance Ri of value = 7 + 3 = 10
Similarly resistances of 4 £2 and 4 £2 are in series and constitute
7 Q
a single resistance R2 of value R2 = 4 + 4 = 8£2. ^ WWW'A
Now R1 = 10Q,R2 = 8Q and resistance R3 = 1 £2 are connected P
in parallel between the points P and Q. Hence, effective resistance
1 Q
R is given by 4Q 3Q
! _ 1 1 1 _ 4 + 5 + 40 49
R ~ 10+ 8 + I~ 40 40
low
vVvWvV
40 4 Q Q
=> R= — = 0.81 £2
49 Fig. 6.41
Q.18. If a 12 V battery is connected to the arrangement of resistances given below, calculate :
ee
(i) the total effective resistance of the arrangement, and
rF
Fr
(ii) the total current flowing in the circuit.
—*—ANAMA •AWW1—*—
10 Q 20 Q
for
ou
5Q 25 Q
ks
L-^-WWW WWW-
oo
Y
B
+
re
<•>
12 V K
ou
ad
Fig. 6.42
Y
Ans. (0 Effective resistance R1 of series combination of 10 £2 and 20 £2 resistances

Ri = 10 + 20 = 30 £2
nd
Re
Similarly effective resistance R2 of series combination of 5 £2 and 25 £2 resistances

Fi
R2 = 5 + 25 = 30 £2
As Ri and R2 are joined in parallel, hence total effective resistance of the arrangement
RiR2 30x30
R= = 15 £2
R1 + R2 30 + 30
V 12 V
(ii) .•. Total current flowing in the circuit I = — = 0.8 A.
15 £2
Q.19. Two identical resistors are first connected in series and then in parallel. Find the
ratio of equivalent resistances in two cases. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. Let two resistors of value R each are first joined in series, when equivalent resistance
RS = R + R = 2R
On joining these very resistors in parallel let equivalent resistance be Rp, where
1112 o R
R R R y 2
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 205
RjL= 2R 4
RP 1
Q.20. Find the equivalent resistance across the two ends

A and B of the circuit [Fig. 6.43]. [CBSE 2012, 2013]
Ans. Equivalent resistance of and R2 joined in parallel <?-N,
■Q
is Ru, where
L_j_ j__i i_i A B
^12 Rl R2 ~ 2 + 2 _1 xp-f o-
O'
•5-
=> RU = 1Q.
w
Similarly ■o
R34 = R56 = ^78 = 1 ^
Now R12 and R34 are in series making a resistance Fig. 6.43
Rq = R\2 + R34 = 1 + 1=20.
Flo
Similarly R56 and R78 are in series and make a resistance R10 = 20
ree
Finally R9 and R10 are connected in parallel between the points A and B and hence equivalent
resistance R is given as
F
I = J- 1 =" 21 + I2 =" -1 => R = 1 O
or
ur
R R9 ^10
sf
Q.21. A circuit is shown in the diagram [Fig. 6.44] <•>
given below. Find (a) the value of R (b) the reading of +L
k
Yo
oo
the ammeter, (c) the potential difference across the

R 6Q
terminals of battery. [CBSE 2011, 2012]
eB
-AAAVs
Ans. (a) Since R and 6 O resistors are in series, hence
same current flows through them and so.
ASP
r
6V 12 V
ou
ad
R = 6V Fig. 6.44
=> R =3 O
Y
6 0 ~ 12 V
nd
6V 6V
Re
(b) Ammeter reading I = — =2 A

30
Fi
(c) Potential difference across the terminals of battery = 6V + 12V = 18V

Q.22. Find the current flowing through the following electric circuit : [CBSE 2013]
3.6 Q 6Q 3Q
vWvVvV- vWWv\A vWVsAAA
---- AWvW—AWvW—
1 Q 3Q
+ l
<•>
4.5 V
Fig. 6.45
Ans. In circuit combined resistance R1 of the series grouping of 1 ^ and 3 O resistors
R: = 1+ 3 = 40
ReadYourFlow.COM
Combined resistance of parallel grouping of 6 ^ and 1^ = 4 Q resistors is R2, where

L - I 1_ 2 + 3 _ - =* R2 = 2A Q.
R2 ~ 6 4 " 12 " 12
Total resistance of circuit R = 3.6 + R2 + 3 = 3.6 + 2.4 + 3 = 9 Q
V 4.5 V
.'. Current flowing I - — = = 0.5 A
9Q.
Q.23. Two wires A and B have equal lengths and equal resistance, which one is thicker ?
The resistivity of A is more than the resistivity of B. [CBSE 2010]
length _ pL
Ans. Since resistance R =
area of cross-section A
w
L L
We have r = Pa
area of A = Pb area of B
Flo
P* area of A
area of B
ree
Pb
Since > pB, area of A is more
than area of B. Thus, A is a thicker wire.
F
Q.24. Derive the expression for power P consumed by a device having resistance R and
potential difference V. [CBSE 2012]
or
ur
Or
sf
A device of resistance R is connected across a source of V voltage and draws a current I.
k
Derive an expression for power in terms of voltage and resistance. [CBSE 2010, 2012]
Yo
oo
Ans. Amount of work done in carrying a charge Q through a potential difference V is

eB
W=QV.
But Q = it /. W = Vlt
and power defined as the rate of doing work is
r
ou
ad
Vlt
— = VI.
Y
t t
If R be the value of resistance of the conductor, then V = R1 and hence
nd
Re
P = VI = (RI)I = I2R
Fi
V V2
Again P = VI =V.
R) R
Thus, in general we can say that electric power is given by
V2
p = V7 = J2R = —
R
Q.25. A torch bulb is rated 5 V and 500 mA. Calculate (i) its power, (ii) its resistance, and
(in) the energy consumed if this bulb is lighted for 4 hours. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. Here, rating of torch bulb is : ^ = 5 V and / = 500 mA = 0.5 A
(i) Power of torch bulb P = V7 = 5 x 0.5 = 2.5 W
V
(ii) Resistance of torch bulb R = — — = 10 D
/ 0.5
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 207
(Hi) Energy consumed by the bulb in 4 hours

E = Pf = 2.5 x 4 = 10 W h.
Q.26. In a household 5 tube lights of 40 W each are used for 5 hours and an electric press
of 500 W for 4 hours every day. Calculate the total electrical energy consumed by the tube
lights and press in a month of 30 days. [CBSE 2006]
Ans. Energy consumed by 5 tube lights of 40 W each used for 5 hours in a day = 5 x 40 x 5
= 1000 W h = 1.0 kW h
Energy consumed by electric press of 500 W used for 4 hours in a day = 500 x 4 = 2000 W h
= 2.0 kW h
Total energy consumed per day = 1.0 + 2.0 = 3.0 kW h
Total electrical energy consumed in a month of 30 days = 3.0 x 30 = 90.0 kW h
w
Q.27. Two identical resistors each of resistance 10 £2 are connected (z) in series and then
(ii) in parallel, in line to a battery of 6 volts. Calculate the ratio of power consumed in the
Flo
combination of resistors in the two cases. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. Here Rx = R2= 10 Q. and V = 6 volt
ee
(z) In series net resistance Rs = R-^ + R2 = 10 + 10 = 20 £2
Fr
v y2 (fi)2
and power P, = — = = 1.8 W
r s Rs 20
or
ur
sf
(ii) In parallel net resistance — = —+ — = — + — = — => Rp = 5 Q.
Rp Rl R2 10 10 5
k
Yo
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B
and power Pp = = 7.2 W

Rp 5
re
Ps_ _ 18 _ 1.
ou
=>
ad
Pp " 7.2 ~ 4
Y
Q.28. Two lamps, one rated 60 W at 220 V and the other 40 W at 220 V, are connected in
nd
parallel to the electric supply at 220 V.

Re
(a) Draw a circuit diagram to show the connections.

Fi
(b) Calculate the current drawn from the electric supply.

(c) Calculate the total energy consumed by the two lamps together when they operate
for one hour. [CBSE 2008]
Ans. (a) The circuit diagram showing the connections is given Lêo W, 220 V
here in Fig. 6.46.
p
(b) Current drawn by 60 W bulb /-[ = = _60_= 3_a L2
6rj)40 W, 220 V
220 11
and current drawn by 40 W bulb l2= ^ ^
/. Total current drawn by the combination from power supply <•>
220 V K
Z=I1 + /2 = Fig. 6.46
(c) Total power of two lamps P = P: + P2 = (60 + 40) W = 100 W
ReadYourFlow.COM
Energy consumed by two lamps in 1 hour

E = P.t = 100 W x 1 h = 100 W h.
Q.29. The potential difference between the terminals of an electric heater is 110 V, when
it draws a current of 5 A from the source. What current will the heater draw and what will be
its wattage if the potential difference is increased to 220 V. Consider that the resistance of the
heater element does not change with temperature. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. As here 1/ = 110 V and 1 = 5 A, hence resistance of the electric heater
V 110
R= — ---- = 22 0.
I 5
When potential difference is increased to V' = 220 V, then
low
V 220
(a) the current /' = — = 10 A,
R 22
(b) the power P' = VT = 220 x 10 = 2200 W = 2.2 kW
Q.30. An electric iron consumes energy at a rate of 840 W when heating is at the maximum
rate and 360 W when the heating is at the minimum. The voltage is 220 V. What are the current
ee
and the resistance in each case ? rF [CBSE 2011]
Fr
Ans. (a) When heating is at maximum rate, the power rating P = 840 W
and supply voltage V = 220 V
840 W for
ou
Current flowing I = = = 3.82 A
V 220 V
ks
oo
V 220 V
and resistance of electric iron ^ = y = 57.6 O
Y
3.82 A
B
(b) When heating is at minimum rate, the power rating P = 360 W

re
360 W
ou
Current flowing 1 = yr = = 1.64 A

ad
V 220 V
Y
V 220 V
and resistance of electric iron R = — = 134.2 Q.
nd
I 1.64 A
Re
Q.31. An electric kettle of 2 kW works for 2 h daily. Calculate the (z) energy consumed in
Fi
SI and commercial unit, (ii) cost of running it in the month of June at the rate of ? 3.00 per unit.
[CBSE 2013]
Ans. Here power P = 2 kW, time of use f = 2 h daily
.•. Total time of use in the month of June t = 2 x 30 = 60 h
.*. (z) Energy consumed E = P x t = 2 kW x 60 h = 120 kW h = 120 units
=> E = 120 x 3.6 x 106 J = 4.32 x 108 J
(U) Cost @ ^ 3.00 per unit = 3 x 120 = ? 360
Q.32. (a) Why an ammeter likely to bum out if you connect it in parallel ?
(b) Why is series arrangement not found satisfactory for domestic lights ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. (a) An ammeter has a very low resistance used to measure electric current flowing in
a circuit. If an ammeter is connected in parallel with an electrical circuits, the net resistance of
circuit becomes even less than the resistance of an ammeter and a strong current begins to flow.
As a result the ammeter is likely to bum out.
(b) See point number 33 under the heading of "Chapter At A Glance".
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 209
Q.33. Briefly describe the working of an electric bulb. Explain the choice of filament. Why
is an inactive gas filled in the bulb ?
Ans. An electric bulb utilises heating effect of electric current to produce light. Its main
component is the heating filament which must retain as much of the heat generated as is possible,
so that when joined to potential source it gets very hot and emits light. Therefore, the filament
is thermally isolated by using insulating supports. The filament must not melt at such high
temperatures. Therefore, bulb filament is made using a strong metal having high melting point.
From this consideration tungsten filament having a melting point of 3380 °C is best suited.
A bulb is usually filled with chemically inactive nitrogen and argon gases so as to prolong
the life of bulb filament.
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Q.l. Draw the symbols of commonly used components in electrical circuit diagrams.
Ans. Table : Symbols of some commonly used components in circuit diagrams.
S.No. Components
Flo Symbols
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+
1. An electric cell
F
or
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2. A battery or a combination of cells
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3. Plug key or switch (open) <>
k
4. Plug key or switch (closed) <•>
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5. A wire joint
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6. Wires crossing without connection

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7. Electric bulb R
8. A resistor or resistance R WvAAAA
9. Variable resistor or rheostat

10. Ammeter
11. Voltmeter
Q.2. (a) State Ohm's law. Express it mathematically.

(b) Write symbols used in electric circuits to represent :
(z) Variable resistance (zz) Voltmeter.
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(c) An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When it is operated on 110 V, what will
be the power consumed ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. (a) Ohm's law: According to Ohm's law, physical conditions like temperature remaining
constant, the current passing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference
across the conductor i.e.,
V oc I or V=IR
Here, R is known as the resistance of given conductor. It is a property of the conductor which
affects the flow of current. For a given conductor value of resistance R is a constant at a given
temperature.
(b) Symbols for given electrical components are given below :
(i) Variable resistance or
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wvWa
(ii) Voltmeter ^(v>
Flo
(c) See Textbook exercise question number 3. New power = 25 W.
Q.3. (a) Define electric resistance of a conductor.
ree
(b) List two factors on which resistance of a conductor depends.
(c) Resistance of a metal wire of length 1 m is 104 £2 at 20 °C. If the diameter of the wire
F
is 0.15 mm, find the resistivity of the metal at that temperature. [CBSE 2013]
or
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Ans. (a) See point number 15 under the heading "Chapter At A Glance".
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(b) See point number 17 under the heading "Chapter At A Glance".
(c) Here length of wire L = 1 m, resistance R = 104 £2 and diameter of wire D = 0.15 mm
k
Yo
= 0.15 x 10~3 m
oo
eB
pL 4pL
As per relation R= ~^- = , we have
-- nD2
r
nD2R 22 x (0.15 x 10-3)2 x 104

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ad
Resistivity p = = 1.84 x 10-6 D-m

4L 7x4x1
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Q.4. (fl) What is an electric circuit ?

nd
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(b) Calculate the number of electrons that flow per second to constitute a current of one
ampere. Charge on an electron is 1.6 X 10-19 C.
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(c) Draw an electric circuit for studying Ohm's law. Label the circuit component used
to measure electric current and potential difference. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. (a) See point number 5 under the heading "Chapter At A Glance".
(b) See question number 4 under short answer type question (2 marks).
(c) See the circuit shown in Fig. 6.31.
Q.5. The values of current I flowing in. a given resistor for the corresponding values of
potential difference V across the resistor are given below :
I (ampere) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0
V (volts) 1.5 3.0 6.2 9.3
(/) Plot a graph between V and I.
(ii) Calculate the resistance of that resistor.
(in) What does the graph represent ?
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 211
Ans. (i) The plotted V-I graph is shown in Fig 6.47.

10
o 6
>
1<
2
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O 1 2 3 4
Flo
I (ampere)
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Fig 6.47
(ii) We take two points A and B on the graph for which currents are 1.5 A and 2.5 A
F
respectively and the corresponding values of V are 4.6 V and 7.8 V.
or
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Resistance of resistor
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V2-V1 7.8-4.6
R= = 3.2 Q.
- h~ h 2.5-15
k
Yo
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(Hi) The V-I graph is linear one. It shows that the given resistor strictly obeys Ohm's law.
B
Q.6. (a) 3 resistors Rv R2 and R3 are connected in series to a battery. Draw the circuit
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diagram showing the arrangement. Derive an expression for the equivalent resistance of the
combination.
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(b) Resistors are given as R1 = 10 Q, R2 = 20 Q, and R3 = 30 £2. Calculate the effective

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resistance when they are connected in series. Also calculate the current flowing when the
combination is connected to a 6 V battery. [CBSE 2011]
nd
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Ans. (a) See answer of short answer type question number 14 (2 marks).
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(b) Here Rl = 10 Q, R2 = 20 Q. and R3 = 30 Q

.•. Effective resistance in series R = + R2 + R3 = 10 + 20 + 30 = 60 £2
As voltage of battery V = 6 V
.-. Current flowing in series combination of resistors
1/ 6V
1= — = 0.1 A
R 60 £2
Q.7. (a) Derive expression for equivalent resistance of a parallel combination of resistances.
(b) Calculate the ratio of equivalent resistance for a series combination of V number of
identical resistors to the parallel combination of the same type of V number of resistors.
[CBSE 2013]
Ans. (a) See Short Answer Type Question Number 16 (Two Marks Each).
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(b) Let value of each resistor be R Q. Then for series combination of n such resistors, the
equivalent resistance Rs is
Rs — R + R + n times = nR -(0
If equivalent resistance for parallel combination of these resistors be R„, then
_L =I I
Rp ~ R + R +
n
n tunes = —
R
=> ...(»)
F n
Ks nR
= n2
Rp (R/n)
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Q.8. Two resistors with resistance of 10 Q and 15 Q are connected to a battery of 12 V so
as to obtain and measure (i) minimum electric current, (ii) maximum electric current.
Flo
(a) State the mode of connecting the resistors in each case with the help of a circuit
diagram.
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(b) Calculate the strength of total electric current in the circuit in each case.
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• [CBSE 2012, 2013]
Ans. {a) To obtain minimum electric current the resistors should be connected in series as
or
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shown in diagram (a). To obtain maximum electric current the resistors should be connected in
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parallel as shown in diagram (b).
k
Rt = 10Q
Yo
—VVW^----
oo
R-1 = 10 Q R2 = 15 Q
■ÂVW'— —vww—
B
R2 = 15Q
—WvVv----
re
<•> <•>
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V = 12 V V= 12 V
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(a) (b)
nd
Fig. 6.48
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(b) In series arrangement Rs = R! + R2 = 10 + 15 = 25 Q

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F 12
Circuit current = 0.48 A
Rs 25
In parallel arrangement — = —+ —=—+—= ^ + ~ = =1

Rp R1 R2 10 15 30 30 6
=> Rp = 6 £2
y 12 V
Circuit current I.max =2A
RP 6Q
Q.9. Experimentally prove that in series combination of three resistances :

(a) current flowing through each resistance is same, and
(b) total potential difference is equal to the sum of potential differences across individual
resistors.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 213
Ans. Series combination of resistors : We take three resistors R2 and R3 and join them
in series between the points X and Y in an electric circuit as shown in following Fig. 6.49. The
circuit contains a battery of 6 - 12 V capacity, an ammeter and a plug key.
(a) Plug the key and note the ammeter reading.
X Ri R2 R3 Y
Then change the position of ammeter to anywhere in -t----'AA/V*-*—vVW-^-^-VvA/v—
between the resistors and again note the ammeter -L
reading. We find that ammeter reading remains
unchanged. It shows that in series arrangement same I
current flows through each resistor. I
(b) Insert a voltmeter across the ends X and Y
of the series combination of three resistors. Plug the K
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key so as to complete the circuit and note the voltmeter <•>
reading. It gives the potential difference V across the
series combination of resistors. Fig. 6.49
Flo
Take out plug from key K and disconnect the
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voltmeter. Now insert the voltmeter across the ends X
and P of first resistor R1 as shown in Fig. 6.50. Plug
f©n
F
the key and note the voltmeter reading. Let the X R, p
potential difference across Ry as given by voltmeter
or
ur
reading, be Similarly, measure the potential
sf
I
difference across the other two resistors R2 and R3 t
k
Yo
separately. Let these potential differences be V2 and
oo
VL, respectively. Experimentally we find that

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y= Vl + y2+ y3 K
It shows that in series arrangement of resistors

r
total potential difference is equal to the sum of Fig. 6.50

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ad
potential differences across individual resistors.

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Q.10. Experimentally prove that in parallel combination of three resistances :

(a) Potential difference across each resistor is same, and
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(b) Total circuit current is equal to the sum of currents flowing through individual
resistors.
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Ans. Parallel combination of resistors : We take three resistors Rv R2 and R3 and join them in
parallel between the points X and Y. Complete the electric circuit by joining a battery of 6 - 12 V
capacity, an ammeter A, voltmeter V and a plug key K as L Ri M
shown in Fig. 6.51.
X Y
(i) Plug the key and note the ammeter reading I
and voltmeter reading V. So, potential difference across P h R3 q
the parallel combination of resistances is V volt. S b7<Y>^—J
(ii) Take out the plug from the key. Remove the ' I
I
ammeter and voltmeter from the circuit. Insert the
ammeter A in series with the resistor 1^ and voltmeter
in parallel with the resistor Rj (i.e., across the points L K
and M as shown in Fig 6.52). Plug the key and note
readings of voltmeter and ammeter. Voltmeter reading
-IH H ^1- --- (•)------
Fig. 6.51
is even now V but ammeter reading is Jj, where 4 < I.
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(in) Similarly measure the currents through R2 and R3. Let these be I2 and /3 respectively.
Also measure potential differences across points PQ and ST. Potential differences are found to be
V each time.
(iv) As voltmeter reading across R^, R2 arid R3 is same as across the parallel combination,
we conclude that in parallel combination of resistors, the total potential difference is equal to the
potential difference across any one resistor.
(v) Experimentally, we find that I = I3 + I2 + I3. It proves that in parallel arrangement of
resistors the total current is equal to the sum of the currents flowing through individual resistors.
±(v>
L I,
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x Y
R
Flo
l3
S ♦
R3 T
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Fig. 6.52
F
Q.ll. Describe an activity to find the combined resistance when three resistors R2 and
or
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R3 are connected in parallel and obtain the relation for it using Ohm's law. State two advantages
of connecting household appliances in parallel arrangement.
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[CBSE 2013]
Ans. Arrange three resistors R2 and R3 in parallel as shown in Fig. 6.51. Measure potential
k
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difference V by using a voltmeter between the points X and Y and measure total current I
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flowing in the circuit by the help of ammeter A. Then connect ammeter A in branches LM, PQ
eB
and ST respectively and measure currents Zj, I2 and I3 flowing through resistors Rx, R2 and R3
separately. On performing the activity we find that :
r
I = + I2 + I3
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ad
y V V
Y
As per Ohm's law I3 = —, I2 = —, i3 / = — and I =

R\ R2 r3 R'
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where R is the equivalent resistance of the parallel arrangement.

V V V V 1111
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=> — —------ 1-------- 1-------=> R~ +

R R, R2 R3 r2 r3
For advantages of parallel grouping of household appliances, see textbook question (Page
216) number 3.
Q.12. Find out the following in the electric
circuit given in figure. A B
(a) Effective resistance of two 8 £2 resistors
------ ywvw'A
tL 4Q
in the combination. 8V
(b) Current flowing through 4 £2 resistor.
(c) Potential difference across 4 £2 resistance.
(d) Power dissipated in 4 £2 resistor.
1r 8Q
(e) Difference in ammeter readings, if any.

[CBSE 2011]
ART D
Fig. 6.53
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 215
Ans. {a) Two resistors, each of 8 Q, are connected in parallel, hence their effective resistance
Rv is given by
1 -“8+8~4
I I-I => R, = 4 H
(b) As #! = 4 is in series with resistance R2 = 4 Q in the circuit, hence total net resistance
of the circuit R = Rl + R2 = 4: + 4 = 8Q..
8V
/. Current flowing through 4 £1 resistor = Current flowing in the circuit I = ----- = 1 A.
8 £2
(c) Potential difference across 4 Q. resistor V2 = R2 I = 4 x 1 = 4 V.
(d) Power dissipated in 4 £2 resistor P2 = V2 I = 4 x 1 = 4 W.
(e) Both ammeters Ali and A2 will give exactly same reading and there is no difference at
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all in their readings.
Q.13. What is heating effect of electric current ? Find an expression for amount of heat
Flo
produced. Name some appliances based on heating effect of current. [CBSE 2010, 2012]
Ans. When a current flows through a conducting wire (resistance wire), heat is developed
ree
and temperature of wire rises. It is known as the heating effect of electric current.
If V be the potential difference maintained across the ends of a wire then, by definition, the
F
amount of work done for flow of 1 C charge through the wire is V.
or
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.-. Work done for flow of Q charge
sf
W=VQ = Vlt [v Q = If)
where I is the current flowing in time t.
k
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As V = IR, hence
oo
W = Vlt = {IR)It = I2Rt

eB
This work done (i.e., electrical energy dissipated) is converted into heat. Hence, the amount
of heat produced.
r
Q = I2Rt joule
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ad
Thus, amount of heat produced depends on the product of the square of the current I flowing
Y
through the resistance R and the time f during which the current flows.
nd
Incandescent lamps, electric iron, electric stove, toaster, geyser, electric room heater etc., are
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the appliances based on heating effect of electric current.

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Q.14. Two conductors A and B of resistances 5 £2 and 10 £2 respectively are first joined in
parallel and then in series. In each case the voltage applied is 20 V.
(a) Draw the circuit diagram to show the combination of these conductors in each case.
{b) In which combination will the voltage across the conductors A and B be the same ?
(c) In which arrangement will the current through A and B is the same ?
(d) Calculate the equivalent resistance for each arrangement. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. {a) Parallel combination is shown in Fig. 6.54(fl) and series combination in Fig. 6.54(b).
A
—wvw---- 5Q 10 Q
5Q •vww wvw-
B A B
----WvW~----
10 Q
<•> <•>
20 V (b)
(a)
Fig. 6.54
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(b) In parallel combination the voltage across conductors A and B will be same.
(c) In series arrangement the current through conductors A and B is same.
(d) In parallel arrangement equivalent resistance Rp is given by :
J_ _ 1 12 + 1 3 10
~ “ 5 + 10 " 10 — => R = — = 3.33 Q.
K, 10 p 3
In series arrangement equivalent resistance Rs is given by Rs = 5 + 10 = 15 £1
Q.15. (a) Name an instrument that measures electric current in a circuit. Define the unit of
electric current.
(b) What do the following symbols mean in circuit diagrams ?
(0 (n) <•>
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(c) An electric circuit consisting of a 0.5 m long nichrome wire XY, an ammeter, a
voltmeter, four cells of 1.5 V each and a plug key was set up.
(i) Draw a diagram of this electric
Flo
circuit to study the relation between the
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potential difference maintained between the 1.6
1.5
points 'X' and 'Y' and the electric current
F
flowing through XY.
>. 1.0
(ii) Following graph was plotted >
or
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between V and I values :
sf
0.5
What would be the values of y ratios
k
Yo
oo
O
when the potential difference is 0.8 V, 1.2 V 0.2 0.4 0.6
eB
and 1.6 V respectively ? What conclusion do I (ampere)

you draw from these values ? [CBSE 20081 Fig. 6.55
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Ans. (a) An ammeter measures electric current in a circuit. Unit of electric current is
ou
ad
1 ampere. The current is said to be 1 ampere if 1 coulomb of charge flows through a cross-section
Y
of conductor per second.

{b) (i) Symbol
nd
■ means a variable resistor or rheostat.

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(ii) Symbol <•> means a plug key or switch which is closed one.
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(0 (0 The diagram of the electric circuit is shown below :
-'WWW
— 0.5 m—
<•>
6V
Fig. 6.56
ReadYourFlow.COM
Electricity 217
(n)
1.6
1.5
£ i.o
>
0.5
O
0.2 0.4 0.6
I (ampere)
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Fig. 6.57
From graph we find that current values corresponding to potential difference of 0.8 V, 1.2 V
Flo
and 1.6 V respectively are 0.3 A, 0.45 A and 0.6 A.
0.8 V 1.2 V 1.6 V
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• — ratios are = 2.67 Q., = 2.67 £"2 and = 2.67 Q.
0.3 A 0.45 A 0.6 A
F
V is a constant i.e., V ^ i. It means that Ohm's law
From these values we conclude that ratio —
or
ur
is being strictly followed.
k sf
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B
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Y
nd
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ReadYourFlow.COM
7
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current
'___________ ________ [NCERT CHAPTER 13]
1. A magnet attracts magnetic substances, e.g., iron, steel etc., towards it. If a magnetic compass
w
needle is freely suspended, it comes to rest in almost north-south direction. The end which
points towards north is called north pole and the other end . pointing towards south is
Flo
called south pole.
2. Two poles of a magnet cannot be separated and magnetic poles are always found in pair.
ree
3. Like magnetic poles repel, while unlike magnetic poles attract each other.
F
4. The region around a magnet, in which the force (influence) of magnet can be detected, is
called its magnetic field.
or
ur
5. The direction of a magnetic field at a point is the direction in which the north pole of a
sf
compass needle points. The magnetic field can be represented by magnetic field lines.
6. Magnetic field line at any point gives the direction of magnetic field. To specify the direction
k
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of magnetic field arrow marks are marked on the magnetic field lines.
7. The relative strength of the magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field
B
lines. The field is stronger, where the field lines are more crowded.
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8. No two magnetic field lines can ever intersect at any point. If they do so then there will
ou
be two possible directions of magnetic field at the point of intersection, which is not
ad
possible.
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9. Outside a magnet, magnetic field lines start from north pole and end at the south pole of
nd
magnet. However, inside the magnet the field lines are directed from south pole to north
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pole. Thus, magnetic field lines form closed paths.

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10. Oersted experimentally proved that magnetic field is produced around a conductor when
an electric current is passed through it.
11. The magnitude of the magnetic field produced at a given point near a current-carrying
straight conductor is directly proportional to the current passing in the conductor. Moreo
ver, magnetic field decreases as the distance of the point from the conducting wire increases.
12. The direction of magnetic field associated with a current-carrying wire can be easily found
by applying the "right-hand thumb rule". According to this rule, hold the current-carrying
wire in your right-hand such that the thumb is stretched along the direction of current,
then, the fingers will wrap around the wire in the direction of the magnetic field.
13. Magnetic field is developed around a current-carrying circular wire loop. It is found that
the magnetic field at the centre of wire loop is proportional to the value of current and
inversely proportional to the radius of loop. Moreover if we have a circular coil of n turns,
the magnetic field will be n times of the magnetic field due to a single current loop.
(218)
ReadYourFlow.COM
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 219
14. Direction of magnetic field due to circular current loop can be found by right-hand rule.
Magnetic field lines are circular closed loops around the conductor. As we go away from
the loop, these closed loops become bigger and more bigger. At the centre of loop, the
magnetic field appears as straight line.
15. A solenoid is a coil of a large number of circular turns of enamelled copper wire wrapped
on a long cardboard cylinderical base.
16. On passing electric current through a solenoid, a magnetic field is developed along the axis
of solenoid.
17. The magnetic field due to a current-carrying solenoid coil is very much similar to that of
a bar magnet. One end of the solenoid coil acts as the magnetic north pole and the other
end acts as the magnetic south pole. The field lines inside the solenoid are parallel straight
w
lines along the axis of solenoid. Moreover, the magnetic field is uniform.
18. A strong magnetic field produced by passing a current through a solenoid coil is used to
magnetise a piece of iron or any other magnetic material when the piece is placed within
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the solenoid coil. This type of magnet is known as an electromagnet.
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19. Ampere proved that a current-carrying conductor placed in an external magnetic field
experiences a mechanical force due to the magnetic field.
F
20. The force due to magnetic field depends on the length of the conductor, the amount of
current flowing through it and the strength of magnetic field. Moreover, the force depends
or
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on relative directions of current and magnetic field. The force is maximum when the
sf
direction of current is at right angles to the direction of the magnetic field.
k
21. Direction of force (or displacement) acting on a current-carrying conductor due to a mag
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netic field can be easily found by applying Fleming's left-hand rule.

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22. Fleming's left-hand rule states that stretch the forefinger, the central finger and the thumb
of your left-hand mutually perpendicular to each other. If the forefinger shows the direc
tion of the magnetic field and the central finger that of the current, then the thumb will
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point towards the direction of motion of the conductor (i.e., the thumb will point in the
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direction of force F).

nd
£
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i1 Field Field
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o
7 3
o
S
•—/ ro
Fig. 7.1
23. Electric motor is a device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
24. An electric motor works on the principle that a coil carrying current, when placed in a
uniform magnetic field, experiences a force whose direction is given by Fleming's left-
hand rule.
25. Electric motors are used in electric fans, refrigerators, mixers, washing machines, comput
ers and practically all machines operating on electrical power.
ReadYourFlow.COM
26. Faraday demonstrated that motion of a magnet with respect to a coil can induce a poten
tial difference between the ends of coil which, in turn, sets up an induced electric current
in the coil. In general, an induced current is set up in a closed coil whenever magnetic field
near it is changing. It is known as the phenomenon of "electro-magnetic induction".
Direction of induced current is given by Fleming's right-hand rule.
27. Fleming's right-hand rule states that hold the forefinger, the central finger and the thumb
of the right-hand mutually perpendicular to each other such that the forefinger indicates
the direction of magnetic field and the thumb is in the direction of motion of a conductor.
Then, the central finger shows the direction of current induced in the conductor.
Movement of
conductor
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Magnetic field
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V'
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Motion
Current induced \_.
F
in conductor \ Field
or
ur
sf
Induced current
Fig. 7.2
k
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28. A galvanometer is an instrument which can detect the presence of current in a circuit.
oo
29. Induced current due to electromagnetic induction can be obtained in a coil either by
B
changing the magnetic field around it or by moving the coil in a magnetic field. However,
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mostly it is convenient to move the coil in a magnetic field.

30. An electric generator (or dynamo) is a device used for generating electric current by
ou
ad
converting mechanical energy into electrical energy.

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An electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction. Mechanical

nd
energy is used to rotate a conductor or a coil in a magnetic field so as to produce electricity.

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Direction of induced current is given by Fleming's right-hand rule.

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31. Electric current, whose magnitude as well as direction remains throughout constant (or
same), is called a direct current (D.C.). Current supplied by a battery is a direct current.
32. A current, whose magnitude continuously varies with time and which changes its direc
tion after equal intervals of time, is called an alternating current (A.C.). Current produced
by an a.c. generator and the current being supplied in our houses is A.C.
33. In India, the frequency of A.C. is 50 Hz. It means that the A.C. changes its direction after
1
every s.
100
34. In domestic electric circuits, all points are connected in parallel so that (a) voltage across
each appliance is same, (b) separate switch can be put in the circuit of each appliance and
(c) short circuiting of one appliance does not affect the working of other appliances.
ReadYourFlow.COM
35. The domestic supply circuit consists of three types of wires, namely, (/) live wire having
red insulation, (ii) neutral wire having black insulation, and (Hi) earth wire having green
coloured insulation. Switches are provided in live wire before the appliance.
36. Generally, two separate circuits are used in domestic supply, one of 15 A for appliances
of high power rating, e.g., electric stove, geyser, cooler, air conditioner, fridge etc., and the
other of 5 A ratings for bulbs, tubes and fans.
37. The watt hour meter (or electricity meter) measures the total amount of electrical energy
consumed in a house and the distribution box contains main switches and fuses for each
circuit.
38. Short circuiting takes place in domestic power supply if the live wire and the neutral wire
come into direct contact, without any load in between, either due to some fault in an
w
electric appliance or due to damage to insulation of live wire.
39. Overloading is caused by connecting too many appliances to a single socket.
40. Fuse is the most important safety device used in domestic power supply circuits. It is used to
Flo
protect the circuits in case of either short circuiting or overloading of the circuits. Fuse wire is
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prepared from a metal whose resistivity is high but whose melting point is low.
F
TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS
or
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[A] QUESTION GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 224 OF THE TEXTBOOK
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Q. Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought near a bar magnet ?
Ans. The compass needle is a small bar magnet. We know that like magnetic poles repel but
k
Yo
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unlike poles attract. When a compass needle is brought near a bar magnet then due to repulsive
force between like poles and attraction between unlike poles, the compass needle is deflected.
eB
Finally, the compass needle comes to rest in the direction of net magnetic field.
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Q.l. Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet. [CBSE 2011, 20121
ad
Ans. Magnetic field lines are shown in Fig. 7.3.

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nd
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Q.2. List the properties of magnetic lines of force. [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012, 20131
Ans. Properties of magnetic lines of force (also known as magnetic field lines) are listed below :
(1) Outside a magnet, the magnetic field lines are directed from N-pole of magnet towards
S-pole. However, inside a magnet, the field lines are directed from S-pole to N-pole. Thus,
magnetic field lines are closed curves.
(2) The magnetic field line at any point points in the direction of magnetic field at that point.
(3) The relative strength of magnetic field lines is given by degree of closeness of the field
lines. The magnetic field is stronger in the region where the field lines are crowded.
(4) No two magnetic field lines can ever intersect with each other.
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Q.3. Why don't two magnetic lines of force intersect each other ? [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Ans. No two magnetic field lines can ever intersect each other. If they do, then it would
mean that at the point of intersection there are two directions of magnetic field, which is not
possible.
Q.l. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of
the table. Let the current pass through the loop clockwise. Apply
the right-hand rule to find out the direction of the magnetic
field inside and outside the loop. [CBSE 20131
Ans. The magnetic field lines have been shown in Fig. 7.4.
As per right-hand rule, we find that inside the loop, the magnetic
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field lines are directed perpendicular to the plane of paper in the
inward direction. Outside the loop magnetic field lines are directed
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7.4
out of the plane of paper.
Q.2. The magnetic field in a given region is uniform. Draw
ree
a diagram to represent it. [CBSE 2013]
F
Ans. The uniform magnetic field is represented by parallel,
equispaced lines of equal length as shown in Fig. 7.5. B
or
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k sf
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Fig. 7.5
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Q.3. Choose the correct option :

The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current
(a) is zero.
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ad
(b) decreases as we move towards its end.

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(c) increases as we move towards its end.

(d) is the same at all points.
nd
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Ans. (d) The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current is the same at all
points.
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[DJ QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 231-232 OF THE TEXTBOOK

Q.l. Which of the following property of a proton can change while it moves freely in a
magnetic field ? (There may be more than one correct answer.)
(a) mass (b) speed
(c) velocity (d) momentum
Ans. (c), (d). If a proton moves freely in a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to that
of magnetic field, its velocity as well as momentum will change but mass and speed will remain
unchanged. However, if proton is moving along the direction of magnetic field, then there is no
change even in velocity or momentum etc.
Q.2. In Activity 13.7 (NCERT Textbook), how do we think the displacement of rod AB
will be affected if (/) current in rod AB is increased; (») a stronger horse-shoe magnet is used,
and (Hi) length of the rod AB is increased ?
Ans. (/) On increasing the current in rod AB its displacement will increase.
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(//) If we use a stronger horse-shoe magnet then the displacement of rod AB will increase.
(Hi) If length of the rod is increased, force acting on it will increase and, hence, displace
ment of the rod increases.
% Q.3. A positively-charged particle (alpha-particle) projected towards west is deflected
towards north by a magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is :
(a) towards south (b) towards east
(c) downward (d) upward [CBSE 2010]
Ans. (d). In accordance with Fleming's left-hand rule, the direction of magnetic field is '
vertically upward.
[El QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 233 OF THE TEXTBOOK
Q.l. State Fleming's left-hand rule. [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013]
low
Ans. See Point Number 22 under the heading "Chapter At A Glance".
Q.2. What is the principle of an electric motor ?
Ans. An electric motor is based on the principle that a current-carrying conductor experi
ences a force when placed in a magnetic field. If the direction of the magnetic field and that of
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the current are mutually perpendicular then the direction of the force is given by Fleming's left-
hand rule. rF
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Q.3. What is the role of the split ring in an electric motor ?
Ans. The question is out of syllabus.
[F] QUESTION GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 236 OF THE TEXTBOOK for
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Q. Explain different ways to induce current in a coil. [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
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Ans. Different ways to induce current in a coil are as given below :
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(1) If a magnetic field is changed around a coil then an induced current is set up in the
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coil. It can be done by taking a bar magnet and bringing it closer to the coil or taking it away
B
from the coil.

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(2) If a coil is moved in a magnetic field, then again an induced current is set up in the
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coil.
ad
(3) If a coil is rotated in a uniform magnetic field, it may also produce an induced current
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in the coil.
nd
(4) If we take two coils and insert them over a non-conducting cylindrical roll then on
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changing current flowing in one coil, an induced current is obtained in the other coil.
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IG] QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 237 OF THE TEXTBOOK

Q.l. State the principle of an electric generator.
Ans. An electric generator is based on the principle of electromagnetic induction. When a
rectangular coil is rotated in a uniform magnetic field, an induced voltage is generated between
the ends of the coil.
Q.2. Name some sources of direct current.
Ans. Some sources of direct current are a cell, a battery and a D.C. generator.
Q.3. Which sources produce alternating current ?
Ans. A.C. generator and common inverter used in houses for emergency power supply
produce alternating current.
Q.4. Choose the correct option :
A rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of the
induced current changes once in each
(n) two revolutions (b) one revolution
(c) half revolution (d) one-fourth revolution
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Ans. (c). When a rectangular coil of copper wire is rotated in a magnetic field, the direction
of the induced current changes once in each half revolution.
[H] QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 238 OF THE TEXTBOOK
Q.l. Name two safety measures commonly used in electric circuits and appliances.
Ans. Two safety measures are : (i) use of earth wire and proper earthing, (n) use of fuse.
Q.2. An electric oven of 2 kW power rating is operated in a domestic electric circuit
(220 V) that has a current rating of 5 A. What result do you expect ? Explain. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. As power rating of electric oven P = 2 kW = 2000 W
and supply voltage V = 220 V
p 2000 W
Hence, the electric oven will draw a current I = — = 9 A.
V 220 V
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As the current rating of domestic electric circuit is only 5 A and the oven draws a current
9 A, which is more than the current rating, hence the circuit will be damaged due to overheat
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ing/overloading.
Q.3. What precaution should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric
ree
circuits ? [CBSE 2011]
F
Ans. We should take following precautions to avoid the overloading of domestic electric cir
cuits :
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(z) Two separate circuits should be used, one of 5 A current rating for bulbs, fans, tubes
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etc. and the other of 15 A current rating for appliances with higher current ratings such as
geysers, air coolers, electric iron, electric stove etc.
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(ii) Too many appliances should never be connected to a single socket.

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(Hi) A fuse of appropriate current rating should be used with the electric circuit.
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TEXTBOOK EXERCISES
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Q.l. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight
Y
wire ?
(a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.
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(b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.

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(c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.
(d) The field consists of concentric circles centred on the wire.
Ans. (d) The field consists of concentric circles centred on the wire.
[Hint : On applying right-hand thumb rule we find the direction of magnetic field. The field
is in the form of concentric circles centred on the wire carrying current.]
Q.2. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is
(fl) the process of charging a body.
(b) the process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a coil.
(c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the
coil.
(d) the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
Ans. (c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and
the coil.
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[Hint : In electromagnetic induction phenomenon an induced current begins to flow in a coil

whenever there is change in magnetic field in and around a coil.]
Q.3. The device used for producing electric current is called a
(n) generator. (b) galvanometer.
(c) ammeter. (d) motor.
Ans. (a) generator.
[Hint : An electric generator is the device used for producing an electric current.]
Q.4. The essential difference between an A.C. generator and a D.C. generator is that
(ci) A.C. generator has an electromagnet while a D.C. generator has permanent magnet.
(b) D.C. generator will generate a higher voltage.
(c) A.C. generator will generate a higher voltage.
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(d) A.C. generator has slip rings while the D.C. generator has a commutator.
Ans. The question is out of syllabus.
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Q.5. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit
(n) reduces substantially. (b) does not change.
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(c) increases heavily. (d) vary continuously.
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Ans. (c) increases heavily.
[Hint : At the time of short circuiting the live wire and the neutral wire come into direct
for
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contact. As a result, the current in the circuit abruptly increases.]
Q.6. State whether the following statements are true or false.
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(a) An electric motor converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
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(b) An electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.

(c) The field at the centre of a long circular coil carrying current will be parallel straight
B
lines.
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(d) A wire with a green insulation is usually the live wire of an electric supply.
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Ans. (n) False : In fact an electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
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(b) True : Yes, an electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
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(c) True : Yes, the magnetic field at the centre of a long circular coil carrying current will
nd
be parallel straight lines passing along the axis of coil.

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(d) False : A wire with a green insulation is usually the earth wire.
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Q.7. List three methods of producing magnetic fields. [CBSE 2011, 2013]
Ans. Three methods of producing magnetic field are as follows :
(1) Magnetic field can be produced by placing a permanent bar magnet or a horse-shoe
magnet at the place, where magnetic field is required.
(2) Magnetic field is produced around a current-carrying straight conductor or a current-
carrying circular coil.
(3) A very good method to produce magnetic field is due to flow of current in a solenoid.
Q.8. How does a solenoid behave like a magnet ? Can you determine the north and south
poles of a current-carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet ? Explain. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. When current is passed through a solenoid coil, magnetic field produced due to each
turn of solenoid coil is in the same direction. As a result, the resultant magnetic field is very
strong and uniform. The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines
along the axis of solenoid. Thus, the solenoid behaves like a bar magnet. One end of solenoid
behaves as a magnetic north pole while the other end behaves as the south pole.
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We can determine the magnetic poles formed in a solenoid. The end of the current-carrying
solenoid, which attracts north pole but repels south pole of a bar magnet, is behaving as south
magnetic pole. The other end, which attracts south pole of a bar magnet but repels the north pole,
is behaving as north magnetic pole. It is because like poles repel but unlike poles attract each
other.
Q.9. When is the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic
field largest ? [CBSE 20121
Ans. The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is
largest when the current-carrying conductor is placed in a direction perpendicular to that of
magnetic field.
Q.10. Imagine that you are sitting in a chamber with your back to one wall. An electron
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beam, moving horizontally from back wall towards the front wall, is deflected by a strong
magnetic field to your right side. What is the direction of magnetic field ?
Flo
Ans. An electron beam moving horizontally
Back wall
from back wall towards the front wall is
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Front wall
equivalent to a current flowing in the opposite
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direction (/.<?., from front wall towards the back
Original
wall). The deflection of electron beam as seen by Observer e-
o (___ d i rection_of______
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the observer is to his right side and is shown in electron beam
Fig. 7.6. On applying Fleming's left-hand rule we e-
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find that the magnetic field is acting in vertically
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downward direction.
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Fig. 7.6
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Q.ll. Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor. Explain its principle and working.
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What is the function of a split ring in an electric motor ?

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Ans. Electric motor : A labelled diagram of an electric motor is out of syllabus.

Principle : A current-carrying conductor, when placed in a magnetic field, experiences a force.
nd
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If the direction of the field and that of the current are mutually perpendicular then force acting
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on the conductor will be perpendicular to both and will be given by Fleming's left-hand rule. Due
to this force the conductor begins to move, if it is free to do so.
Working : Out of syllabus.
Q.12. Name some devices in which electric motors are used.
Ans. Electric motors are used in all such devices where we want to convert electrical energy
into mechanical energy so as to drive that device/machine. In our houses, electric motors are
being fitted in electric fans, coolers, air conditioners, mixer grinders, washing machines, refrig
erators, juicers, computers, MP-3 players etc. In factories, motors are used in almost all machines.
Q.13. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen if
a bar magnet is (/) pushed into the coil, (ii) withdrawn from inside the coil, (Hi) held stationary
inside the coil ?
Ans. (/) When a bar magnet is pushed into the coil of insulated copper wire connected to a
galvanometer, an induced current is set up in the coil. As a result, galvanometer gives a deflec
tion (say towards left).
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(ii) When the bar magnet is withdrawn from inside the coil, again an induced current is
set up in the coil. However, now direction of induced current is opposite to that in earlier case.
Hence, deflection in galvanometer is in reverse direction (say towards right).
(Hi) If the bar magnet is held stationary inside the coil, then there is no induced current in
the coil. As a result, galvanometer does not show any deflection.
Q.14. Two circular coils A and B are placed close to each other. If the current in the coil
A is changed, will some current be induced in the coil B ? Give reason.
Ans. Yes, a current is induced in the coil B.
When the current in the coil A is changed, the magnetic field associated with it also changes.
As coil 6 is placed close to A, hence magnetic field lines around this coil also change. Due to
change in magnetic field lines associated with coil B, an induced current is also induced in it.
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Q.15. State the rule to determine the direction of a (/) magnetic field produced around a
straight conductor-carrying current, (ii) force experienced by a current-carrying straight con
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ductor placed in a magnetic field which is perpendicular to it, and (Hi) current induced in a
coil due to its rotation in a magnetic field.
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Ans. (/) To know the direction of magnetic field produced around a straight conductor
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carrying current we use "right-hand thumb rule". For its statement, see Point Number 12 under
the heading "Chapter At A Glance".
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(ii) To find the direction of force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor
placed in a magnetic field which is perpendicular to it, we make use of Fleming's left-hand rule.
ks
For statement, see Point Number 22 under the heading "Chapter At A Glance".
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(Hi) For finding the direction of current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic
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field we use Fleming's right-hand rule. For its statement, see Point Number 27 under the heading
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"Chapter At A Glance".
Q.16. Explain the underlying principle and working of an electric generator by drawing a
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labelled diagram. What is the function of brushes ?

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Ans. Electric generator : A labelled diagram of an A.C. electric generator is out of syllabus.
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Principle : An electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction phe

nomenon. According to it, whenever a coil is rotated between the poles of a magnet, an induced
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current is set up in the coil, whose direction is given by Fleming's right-hand rule.
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Working : Out of syllabus.

Q.17. When does an electric short circuit occur ? fCBSE 2006]
Ans. If either the insulation of wires used in an electrical circuit is damaged or there is a
fault in the appliance, live wire and netural wire may come in direct contact. As a result, the
current in the circuit abruptly rises and short-circuiting occurs.
Q.18. What is the function of an earth wire ? Why is it necessary to earth metallic appli
ances ?
Ans. The earth wire functions as a safety measure, specially for those appliances that have
a metallic body e.g., electric press, toaster, table fan, refrigerator, room cooler etc.
The metallic body of the appliance is connected to the earth wire, which provides a low
resistance conducting path for electric current. It ensures that any leakage of current to the
metallic body of an appliance keeps its potential same as of earth. As a result, the user would not
get a severe electric shock, even if he touches the body of appliance.
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Q.l. The area around a magnet, in which its influence (force of attraction or repulsion) can
be felt, is called its
{a) magnetic field (b) magnetic strength
(c) magnetic power (d) magnetic intensity
Q.2. A constant current 7 flows through a horizontal metal wire in the plane of the paper
from east to west as shown in the figure 7.7. The direction of magnetic field will be from north
to south at a point : I
(a) directly above the wire. w
(b) directly below the wire.
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(c) on the north side of the wire in the plane of the paper.
(d) on the south side of the wire in the plane of the paper.
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Q.3. The direction of magnetic field developed around a current-carrying conductor can be
easily found by the use of
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(a) Right-hand thumb rule (b) Left-hand thumb rule
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(c) Fleming's left-hand rule (d) Fleming's right-hand rule
Q.4. The strength of the magnetic field around a current-carrying straight conductor
or
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(a) is same every where around the conductor.
(b) is directly proportional to the square of distance of a point from the conductor.
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(c) is directly proportional to the current flowing in the conductor.
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(d) is inversely proportional to the current.
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Q.5. The strength of a magnetic field inside a long current-carrying straight solenoid coil
B
is
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(n) more at the ends than at the centre.

(b) minimum in the middle.
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(c) same at all points.

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(d) found to increase from one end to the other.

Q.6. An electron moves with a speed v along positive direction of x-axis. If a magnetic
nd
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field B acts along the positive ^-direction, then the force on the electron will act along
(a) x-axis
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(b) y-axis
(c) -ve z-direction (d) +ve z-direction
Q.7. The strength of magnetic field along the axis of a solenoid coil :
(a) increases on increasing current flowing through the solenoid coil.
(b) increases on increasing the number of turns in the solenoid coil.
(c) increases on introducing a soft iron core inside the solenoid coil.
(d) all of the above.
Q.8. A current-carrying conductor is placed perpendicular to the direction of a uniform
magnetic field. The direction of force acting on the conductor due to magnetic field is given
by
(a) Maxwell's cork screw rule (b) Ampere's rule
(c) Fleming's left-hand rule (d) Fleming's right-hand rule
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Q.9. A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of paper pointing Electron Proton
from left to right as shown in Fig. 7.8. In the field an electron and a
proton move as shown. The electron and proton experience
(n) forces both pointing into the plane of paper. 0 e +0P
{b) forces both pointing out of the plane of paper.
(c) forces pointing into the plane of paper and out of the plane of paper
respectively.
Uniform
{d) forces pointing opposite and along the direction of the uniform magnetic field
magnetic field respectively.
Q.10. Choose the wrong statement out of the following : Fig. 7.8
{a) Magnetic poles always exist in pairs.
(b) Magnetic poles must have same magnetic strength.
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(c) Like magnetic poles attract each other.
{d) Unlike magnetic poles attract each other.
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Q.ll. An electric motor converts
(a) mechanical energy into electrical energy, (b) electrical energy into sound energy.
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(c) electrical energy into mechanical energy, (d) mechanical energy into soimd energy.
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Q.12. In Fleming's left-hand rule the thumb indicates the direction of
(a) magnetic field applied. (b) current flown in the conductor.
or
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(c) induced current. (d) mechanical force on the conductor.
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Q.13. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is
(a) the process of charging a body.
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(b) the process of generating magnetic field due to current passing through a coil.
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(c) the process of producing induced current in a coil on changing magnetic field around it.
B
(d) the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.

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Q.14. The device used to produce an electric current in a circuit is called

(n) galvanometer (b) electric generator
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(c) electric motor (d) inverter

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Q.15. The direction of induced current produced in a rectangular coil, when it is rotated in
a uniform magnetic field, is given by
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(a) Fleming's right-hand rule. (b) Fleming's left-hand rule.

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(c) Ampere's rule. (d) Right-hand thumb rule.

Q.16. The frequency of A.C. supply in India is
(a) 100 Hz (b) 50 Hz (c) 50 s {d) 100 s
Q.17. In India the direction of alternating current changes its direction after a time interval
of
1 1 1
(a) s (b) —s (c) s (d) — s
50 25 100 200
Q.18. While applying Fleming's right-hand rule the central (middle) finger of right-hand
indicates
(a) the direction of magnetic field. (b) the direction of rotation of conductor.
(c) the direction of current being flown. (d) the direction of induced current.
Q.19. At the time of short circuiting of an electrical circuit the current in the circuit
(a) is substantially reduced, (b) abruptly increases.
(c) changes continuously. (d) does not change at all.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.20. In domestic electric circuits the colour of insulation covers of wires in the supply line
is generally
(a) red for live wire and green for neutral wire.
(b) red for live wire and black for neutral wire.
(c) green for live wire and red for neutral wire.
(d) green for live wire and black for neutral wire.
Q.21. The most important safety method used in domestic electrical circuit so as to protect
home appliances from short circuiting or overloading is
(a) earthing. (b) use of fuse of appropriate rating.
(c) use of voltage stabilisers. (d) use of an electric meter.
Q.22. Fuse wire should be prepared from a material having
(a) high resistivity and high melting point. (b) high resistivity and low melting point.
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(c) low resistivity and high melting point. (d) low resistivity and low melting point.
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1. (a) The region around a magnet, in which its influence can be felt, is called its magnetic field.
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2. (b) Let a constant current I flows through a horizontal wire from east to west. The direction of
magnetic field, as per right-hand thumb rule, will be from north to south at a point
for
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directly below the current-carrying wire.
3. (a) The direction of magnetic field developed around a current-carrying conductor can be
found by the use of right-hand thumb rule.
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4. (c) The strength of the magnetic field around a current-carrying straight conductor is directly
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proportional to the amount of current flowing in the conductor.

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5. (c) The strength of a magnetic field inside a long, current-carrying, straight solenoid is
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uniform at all points. Moreover, the field depends on the amount of current flowing and
the number of turns in solenoid coil besides its length.
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6. (c) As per Fleming's left-hand rule the force on the electron will be along -ve direction of
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z-axis.
7. (d) The strength of magnetic field along the axis of a solenoid coil increases on increasing the
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current flowing through the solenoid coil and on increasing the number of turns in the
solenoid coil. Moreover, if a soft iron core is inserted inside the solenoid coil then
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magnetic field increases many fold.

8. (c) When a current-carrying straight conductor is placed perpendicular to the direction of a
uniform magnetic field, it experiences a mechanical force. The direction of mechanical
force is given by Fleming's left-hand rule.
9. (a) On applying Fleming's left-hand rule we find that both electron as well as proton
experience forces pointing into the plane of paper.
10. (c) Like magnetic poles (say N- and N-poles) always repel each other.
11. (c) An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
12. (d) In Fleming's left-hand rule the thumb indicates the direction of mechanical force acting
on the conductor. The forefinger points in the direction of magnetic field and the central
finger in the direction of current flowing in the conductor.
13. (c) Electromagnetic induction is the phenomenon due to which an induced current is set up
in a coil when magnetic field around it is changed.
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14. (b) An electric generator is used to produce an electric current in a circuit.

15. (a) Fleming's right-hand rule gives the direction of induced current in a rectangular coil
when the coil is rotated in a uniform magnetic field.
16. (b) The frequency of alternating current supply in India is 50 Hz.
17. (c) v Frequency of A.C. in India = 50 Hz
As an A.C. changes its direction after every half cycle, hence A.C. changes its direction
1 1
after a time interval t =--------s = s.
2 x 50 100
18. (d) As per Fleming's right-hand rule the central finger of right-hand points in the direction of
induced current, when forefinger is along tire direction of magnetic field and thumb
points along the direction of motion of the conductor.
19. (b) At the time of short-circuiting the circuit current abruptly increases to a high value.
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20. (b) hi domestic electric circuits insulation cover of the live wire is generally taken of red
colour and that of neutral wire is of black colour.
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21. (b) The most important safety device used in domestic electrical circuit so as to protect home
appliances from short circuiting or over loading, is a fuse of appropriate current reading
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connected in the beginning of the circuit after the electric meter.
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22. (b) The material of the fuse wire should have a high resistivity but low value of melting point.
or
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Q.l. What constitutes the field of a magnet ? [CBSE 20061

B
Or
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What is magnetic field ? [CBSE 20101

Ans. A region around the magnet in which force due to magnet can be felt.
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Q.2. What is the direction of magnetic field at a given point ?

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Ans. The direction in which N-pole of a small compass needle placed at that point sets itself.
Q.3. Name the two factors that completely define a magnetic field at a point.
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[CBSE 2013]
Ans. The strength and the direction of magnetic field at the given point.
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Q.4. How can a magnetic field be represented graphically ?

Ans. By drawing magnetic field lines.
Q.5. What are magnetic field lines ? [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Ans. A magnetic field line around a magnet is the path along which north pole of a magnetic
compass needle points. A magnetic field line gives the direction of magnetic field at a point.
Q.6. At what place of the magnet are the magnetic field lines denser ? [CBSE 2007]
Ans. Near the poles of the magnet.
Q.7. What is the direction of magnetic field lines of a magnet ? [CBSE 2005]
Ans. From N-pole towards S-pole outside the magnet, and from S-pole towards
N-pole inside a magnet.
Q.8. State the observation made by Oersted on the basis of his experiment with current-
carrying conductors ? [CBSE 2012, 2013]
Ans. Every current-carrying conductor has a magnetic field around it.
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Q.9. How can it be shown that a magnetic field exists around a wire through which a
direct electric current is passing ?
Ans. A magnetic compass needle placed near a wire gets deflected from its equilibrium
position when a direct electric current is passed through the wire.
Q.10. State the conclusion that can be drawn from the observation that a current-carrying
wire deflects a magnetic needle placed near it. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. A magnetic field is produced around a current-carrying conductor.
Q.ll. What is the shape of magnetic field lines due to a straight current-carrying conductor ?
[CBSE 2010]
Ans. Magnetic field lines form concentric circles around the conductor with conductor at the
centre.
Q.12. State the rule to determine the direction of magnetic field around a current-carrying
w
wire. [CBSE 2009, 2010]
Flo
Q.13. How is the strength of the magnetic field at a point near a wire related to the
strength of the electric current flowing in the wire ?
ee
Ans. Strength of magnetic field is directly proportional to the strength of current flowing in
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the wire.
Q.14. How will the magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor be affected
or
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on increasing the current in the conductor ? [CBSE 2012]
sf
Ans. The strength of magnetic field increases on increasing the current flowing through the
conductor.
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Yo
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Q.15. What happens to the magnetic field lines due to a current-carrying conductor when
the current is reversed ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]
B
Or
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How will the magnetic field around a current-carrying straight conductor be affected on
ou
changing the direction of flow of current in the conductor ? [CBSE 2012]

ad
Ans. The direction of magnetic field (and magnetic field lines) gets reversed on changing the
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direction of flow of current in a straight conductor.

nd
Re
Q.16. Where will be the value of magnetic field maximum due to current-carrying circular
conductor ? [CBSE 2006]
Fi
Ans. At the centre of current-carrying circular loop.

Q.17. What kind of magnetic field is produced by a solenoid ?
Ans. A uniform magnetic field along the axis of the solenoid.
Q.18. Mention the region of a current-carrying solenoid where field lines are parallel
straight lines. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. Along the axis of the solenoid.
Q.19. What is the shape of a current-carrying conductor whose magnetic field pattern
resembles that of a bar magnet ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. A solenoid coil.
Q.20. A current-carrying solenoid coil is suspended freely. In which direction will it
settle ? Why ?
Ans. In north-south direction because it behaves as bar magnet.
Q.21. What happens when a current-carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field ?
ReadYourFlow.COM
Ans. The current-carrying conductor experiences a force when placed in a magnetic field.
Q.22. On what factors does the magnitude of force experienced by a current-carrying
conductor placed normally in a magnetic field depend ?
Ans. The force depends on (i) current flowing in the conductor, (ii) length of the conductor,
(Hi) strength of magnetic field and (iv) orientation of the conductor.
Q.23. Under what condition is the force by a current-carrying conductor placed in a mag
netic field maximum ? [CBSE 2009]
Or
Mention the angle between a current-carrying conductor and magnetic field for which the
force experienced by the current-carrying conductor is largest. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. The force acting on a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is maximum
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when the direction of current is at right angles to the direction of the magnetic field.
Q.24. A stationary charge is placed in a magnetic field. Will it experience a force ? Give
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reason to justify your answer. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. No, a magnetic field exerts a force only on a moving charge.
ee
Q.25. An electron is moving along X-axis and the magnetic field is along Y-axis. What is
Fr
the direction of magnetic force on the electron ?
Ans. Applying Fleming's left-hand rule we find that the electron experiences a force along
for
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negative Z-axis.
Q.26. State the direction of magnetic field in the following diagram [refer to Fig. 7.9].
[CBSE 2012]
ks
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Force on the
oo
conductor
eB
Current <■
Fig. 7.9
r
ou
ad
Ans. As per Fleming's left-hand rule the magnetic field is directed out of the paper.
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Q.27. Why does a current-carrying conductor experiences a force when it is placed in a

magnetic field ? [CBSE 2011]
nd
Re
Ans. A current-carrying conductor produces a magnetic field around it. This magnetic field
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interacts with the externally applied magnetic field and as a result the conductor experiences a
force.
Q.28. What is electromagnetic induction ? [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Ans. Electromagnetic induction is the phenomenon of producing induced current in a closed
circuit (coil) by changing magnetic field near it or by moving the coil in the magnetic field.
Q.29. Define the term 'induced current'. [CBSE 2009, 2012]
Ans. Electric current set up in a closed coil/circuit, whenever magnetic field near it is
changing, is called an induced current.
Q.30. Which law gives the direction of induced current produced due to electromagnetic
induction phenomenon ?
Ans. Fleming's right-hand rule.
Q.31. Name the physical quantities which are indicated by the direction of thumb and
forefinger in the Fleming's right-hand rule. [CBSE 2012]
ReadYourFlow.COM
Ans. Thumb indicates the direction of motion of the conductor and forefinger indicates the
direction of magnetic field.
Q.32. Give one application of electromagnetic induction. [CBSE 2010, 2012]
Ans. An electric generator.
Q.33. How is the induced current in a secondary coil related to current in a primary coil ?
[CBSE 2009]
Ans. Magnitude of induced current in a secondary coil is directly proportional to the rate of
change of current in a primary coil.
Q.34. What is an electric generator ?
Ans. A device to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy.
Q.35. What type of current is given by a cell ? [CBSE 2011, 2012]
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Ans. Direct current (D.C.).
Q.36. What type of current is used in household supply ? [CBSE 2011, 2012]
Ans. An alternating current (A.C.).
Flo
Q.37. In one complete cycle of A.C., how many times the direction of current changes ?
ee
Ans. Two times, i.e., direction of current changes after each half cycle of A.C.
Fr
Q.38. What is the frequency of A.C. being supplied in our houses ? [CBSE 2010]
Ans. 50 Hz.
or
Q.39. An alternating electric current has a frequency of 50 Hz. How many times does it
ur
change its direction in one second ? [CBSE 20121
sf
Ans. 50 x 2 = 100 times.
k
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Q.40. What will be the frequency of an alternating current, if its direction changes after
oo
every 0.01 s ?
B
Ans. Time of one A.C. cycle = 2 x 0.01 s = 0.02 s.

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Frequency of A.C. = —-— = 50 Hz.

7 0.02 s
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Q.41. Name one device which provides an alternating current. [CBSE 2012]
Y
Ans. An electric generator.

Q.42. Write one advantage of A.C. over D.C. [CBSE 2010, 2012]
nd
Re
Ans. Electric power in A.C. can be easily transmitted over long distance without much loss
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of energy.
Q.43. What are the commonly used colours for insulations of live, neutral and earth wires
used in domestic electric supply ? [CBSE 2012]
Ans. Red for live wire insulation, black for neutral wire insulation and green for earth wire
insulation.
Q.44. What potential difference is maintained between the live wire and neutral wire in
our domestic electric supply circuit ? [CBSE 2012]
Ans. 220 V.
Q.45. Is on/off switch provided with live wire or with neutral or earth wire ?
[CBSE 2010, 2012]
Ans. With live wire.
Q.46. What is the function of a fuse in the domestic electric circuit ?
Ans. A fuse (or fuse wire) is used to protect the electric circuit in case of short-circuiting of
circuit or in case of overloading of the circuit.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.47. To which wire do you connect fuse wire in a household circuit ? [CBSE 20111
Ans. With live wire.
Q.48. Name the device used to prevent damage to the electrical appliances and the domestic
circuit due to over-loading. [CBSE 2011, 20121
Ans. Electric fuse.
Q.49. Why do we connect earth wire in a house ? Give two reasons. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. As a safety measure for the user person. User will not get a severe electric shock even
in case of leakage, if proper earth wire has been installed.
Q.50. What is short-circuiting of a circuit ?
Ans. Short-circuiting means that the live and neutral, wires of an electric circuit have come
in contact with each other.
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Q.51. What is the advantage of the third wire of earth connection in domestic electric
appliances ? [CBSE 2006]
Ans. It provides a safety measure to the user person and saves him from a severe shock even
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when there is leakage of current.
ree
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Q.l. Describe an activity to show that a magnetic field V*
exists near a bar magnet. ■ J5V

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Ans. Take a bar magnet and place it on a cardboard. ^N
. • -w
s|H
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wmmm-
Sprinkle some iron-filings around the magnet and gently
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tap the cardboard. Tire iron-filings are seen to arrange
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themselves as shown in Fig. 7.10 under the influence of the

eB
magnetic field. It shows that a magnetic field exists near a

Fig. 7.10
bar magnet.
Q.2. Identify the poles of the magnet in the given Fig. 7.11 (i) and (ii). [CBSE 2010, 2011]
r
ou
ad
Y
nd
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Fig. 7.11
Ans. North and south poles of two magnets are being shown in the Fig. 7.12 (z) and (ii).
M SL Nitql
(i) (ii)
Fig. 7.12
Q.3. Define a magnetic field of a magnet. What is its direction ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. The magnetic field of a magnet is the region surrounding the magnet in which the
force of the magnet can be detected. Magnetic field is a quantity that has both magnitude and
direction. The direction of the magnetic field is the direction in which a north pole of the compass
needle moves inside it.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.4. What is meant by the term 'magnetic field' ? Why does a compass needle show
deflection when brought near a bar magnet ? [CBSE 2008, 2012]
Ans. For magnetic field, see Short Answer Type Question Number 3 given above. Compass
needle shows deflection when brought near a bar magnet due to force experienced by it due to
bar magnet.
Q.5. Describe an activity to show that an electric current-carrying wire behaves like a
magnet. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. Take a straight, thick copper wire XY and K R
WWA
X
connect it in an electric circuit consisting of a battery,
key and a resistor (Fig. 7.13). Place a small compass near
the copper wire and observe its direction. Now put the I
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plug in key K so that electric circuit is completed and a
current begins to flow. The compass needle is deflected. B
It shows that the current-carrying copper wire is behaving
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like a magnet, due to which compass needle shows a
Fig. 7.13
ee
deflection.
Fr
Q.6. What are magnetic field lines ? State their significance.
Ans. A magnetic field line is the path along which north pole of a small compass moves.
for
Magnetic field lines are used to represent a magnetic field. The relative strength of the magnetic
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field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines.
Q.7. No two magnetic field lines can intersect each other. Explain.
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[CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]

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Ans. Two magnetic field lines cannot intersect each other at any point, because if they
B
intersect, it means that there are two possible directions of magnetic field there, which is impos
re
sible.
Q.8. Draw a diagram to show the magnetic field lines around a bar magnet. List any two
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properties of magnetic field lines. [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013]

Y
Ans. Field lines around a bar magnet are shown in

Fig. 7.14. Two properties of magnetic field lines are as
nd
Re
follows :
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(0 In air field lines start from N-pole and end at S-

pole.
(ii) No two magnetic field lines can ever intersect at
any one point.
Q.9. In the Fig. 7.15, identify the poles marked P and Q as north or south pole. Give
reason. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. The pole marked P is the north pole because magnetic field lines are starting from it.
Again the pole marked Q is the south pole because magnetic field lines are ending there.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.10. (a) What is the direction of magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet and outside of
it ?
(b) What does the degree of closeness of the field lines represent ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. (a) Outside a bar magnet magnetic field lines are from north pole to south pole. Inside
a bar magnet the magnetic field lines are from south to north pole.
(b) Tire degree of closeness of the magnetic field lines represent the strength of magnetic
field. More close field lines represent a stronger magnetic field.
Q.ll. Describe an activity to draw a magnetic field line outside a bar magnet from one
pole to another pole. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. Take a bar magnet and place it on a sheet of white ©
© ©
paper fixed on a drawing sheet. Mark the boundary of magnet.
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© ©
Take a small compass and place it near the north pole of the
magnet. Mark the position of two ends of compass needle. Move © ©
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the needle to a new position so that its south pole occupies the
S© ©
position previously occupied by its north pole. In this way proceed
ee
N s
step by step till we reach the south pole of magnet. Join the
Fr
S N
points marked on the paper by a smooth curve. This curve
Fig. 7.16
represents a magnetic field line as shown in Fig. 7.16.
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Q.12. Write the rule which determines the direction of
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magnetic field developed around a straight conductor, when
current is passed through the conductor. [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
k
Yo
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Ans. The direction of magnetic field around a straight current- ^g^netlc

carrying conductor is given by "right-hand thumb rule". According -----\ A
B
to the rule, imagine holding the current-carrying straight conductor

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in your right-hand such that the thumb points towards the direction Vj
ou
ad
of current. Then the fingers of right-hand wrap around the conductor Current
in the direction of the field lines of the magnetic field as shown in
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Fig. 7.17
Fig. 7.17.
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Q.13. What are the factors on which magnetic field produced by a current-carrying straight
conductor depends ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Fi

Q.14. A current through a horizontal power line flows in east to west direction. What is
the direction of magnetic field at a point directly below it and at a point directly above it ?
Ans. In present problem, the electric current is flowing horizontally in east to west direction.
Applying right-hand thumb rule, we find that
(a) the direction of magnetic field at a point directly below the wire is from north to south.
(b) the direction of magnetic field at a point directly above the wire is from south to north.
Q.15. How will the magnetic field around a current-carrying straight conductor be affected
on
(a) increasing the current through the conductor ?
(b) changing the direction of flow of current in the conductor ? [CBSE 2010, 2012]
Ans. (a) The magnetic field at a point near a current-carrying straight conductor increases
on increasing the current flowing through the conductor.
ReadYourFlow.COM
{b) On changing the direction of flow of current in the conductor, the direction of the
magnetic field is reversed but strength of magnetic field remains unchanged.
Q.16. A student performs an experiment to study the magnetic effect of current around a
current-carrying straight conductor with the help of a magnetic compass. He reports that :
(i) the degree of deflection of the magnetic compass increases when the compass is
moved away from the conductor.
(ii) the degree of deflection of the magnetic compass increases when the current through
the conductor is increased.
Which of the above observations of student appears to be wrong and why ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. The observation (i) of the student is wrong because on moving a compass away from
a current-carrying conductor the strength of magnetic field decreases. So degree of deflection in
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the magnetic compass must decrease.
Q.17. Draw the magnetic field lines through and around a single loop of wire carrying
Flo
electric current. [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Ans. Magnetic field lines have been shown in the following Fig. 7.18.
ee
Fr
Current carrying loop
for
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ks
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B
S
re
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ad
Y
\\ V'.
*
nd
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Fi
<-
B K
> <•>
Fig. 7.18
Q.18. How does the strength of the magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of a wire
depend on (a) radius of the coil, (b) number of turns of wire in the coil ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Q.19. A straight current-carrying conductor produces a magnetic field around it. Is there a
similar magnetic field produced around a thin beam of moving (/) alpha particles, (ii) neutrons ?
Also give reason for your answer. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. Magnetic field is produced around a beam of moving charges.
(i) As alpha particles are charged particles hence a magnetic field is produced around a
thin beam of alpha particles.
(ii) No magnetic field is produced due to neutron beam because it has no charge.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.20. Describe an activity to show the magnetic field lines formed by a current-carrying
circular coil. [CBSE 2010]
Ans. Take a rectangular cardboard sheet. Make two
holes in it at a suitable distance. Insert a circular coil iB
having large number of turns of insulated copper wire
passing through these holes so that the coil is normal to
A
the plane of cardboard.
Complete the electric circuit (Fig. 7.19) by joining
ends of the coil with a battery and a key K. Sprinkle
iron-filings uniformly on the carboard. Plug the key and T—A)
K
gently tap the cardboard. The iron-filings arrange
w
themselves along the magnetic field lines. The pattern of Fig. 7.19
iron-filings gives the magnetic field lines due to current-
Flo
carrying circular coil.
ee
Q.21. What is a solenoid ? Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of a solenoid through
which a steady current flows. [CBSE 20111
Fr
Ans. A solenoid is a coil of large number of circular turns of wire wrapped in the shape of
a cylinder. On passing electric current, a magnetic field is developed. Magnetic field lines are
for
ur
drawn below. The field is along the axis of solenoid such that one end of solenoid behaves as
north pole and the other south pole. Thus, field of a solenoid is similar to that of a bar magnet.
ks
Yo
oo
B
re
ou
ad
Y
nd
Re
Fi
Fig. 7.20
Q.22. Mention two ways to increase the strength of the magnetic field of a solenoid.
[CBSE 2012]
Ans. The strength of magnetic field of a solenoid can be increased by (/) increasing the
current flowing through solenoid coil, and (ii) increasing the number of turns per unit length of
the solenoid coil.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.23. Describe an activity to show how you can make an electromagnet in your school
laboratory. [CBSE 2010]
Ans. Make a bunch of 8-10 long iron nails.
Wrap a coil of insulated copper wire on it. We
pass current through the coil by using a battery.
On passing current the bunch of nails is magnet
ised and attracts small pieces of iron and steel.
On stopping flow of current, the magnetisation
Iron nails
of the nails vanishes.
w
K B
<•>
Fig. 7.21
Flo
Q.24. What is an electromagnet ? Draw a circuit diagram to show how a soft iron piece can
ee
be transformed into an electromagnet ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Fr
Ans. An electromagnet is a rod of magnetic material (say soft iron) placed inside a solenoid
coil. On passing current in solenoid coil, iron rod begins to behave as a magnet. On stopping the
or
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current flow, magnetisation of iron is lost. Thus, a soft iron piece behaves as an electromagnet.
sf
Solenoid Coil
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Yo
r Soft Iron Rod

oo
B
V4r bob
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ad
HbW1-
Y
B K
Fig. 7.22
nd
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Q.25. What are permanent magnet and electromagnet ? Give two uses of each. [CBSE 2010]
Fi
Ans. Magnets having a constant magnetic field around them (e.g, a bar magnet) are called
permanent magnets. Permanent magnets are used in electric generators, speakers, refrigerator
door etc.
Materials behaving as magnet only when a current is passed through a coil wound around
the material are called electromagnet. Electromagnets are used in electric bell, transformer, electric
cranes etc.
Q.26. What is an electromagnet ? How is it different from a permanent magnet ? State two
uses of an electromagnet. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. See answer of question number 25 just above.
Q.27. State two ways by which the strength of an electromagnet can be increased.
[CBSE 2012]
Ans. The strength of an electromagnet can be increased by
(0 increasing the number of turns of windings of the solenoid coil wrapped around the
electromagnet, or
(n) increasing the amount of electric current flowing through the coil.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.28. What is magnetic force ? How will you find its direction ?
Ans. Force experienced by a current-carrying wire when placed in a magnetic field or the
force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field is known as the magnetic
force. Direction of magnetic force is given by Fleming's left-hand rule.
Q.29. List four factors on which the magnitude of magnetic force acting on a current-
carrying conductor in a magnetic field depend ? [CBSE 2011, 2012]
Ans. The magnitude of the magnetic force depends on
(i) the strength of current,
(ii) the strength of magnetic field,
(Hi) the length of current-carrying conductor, and
(iv) orientation of the condutor in the magnetic field.
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Q.30. When is the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic
field (0 maximum, (ii) minimum ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Ans. The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is
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(i) maximum when direction of current is at right angles to the direction of magnetic field.
ee
and
(ii) minimum (zero) when direction of current is parallel or antiparallel to the direction of
Fr
magnetic field.
Electron
Q.31. An electron enters a magnetic field at right
or
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angles to it as shown in Fig. 7.23. In which direction
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will this electron move ? State the principle applied Magnetic field
k
by you in finding the direction of motion of the
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oo
electron. [CBSE 2010, 2011]

B
Ans. Here motion of electron in the given direction

is equivalent to a current in the opposite direction. Now
re
by the use of Fleming's left-hand rule, we find that the

ou
force acting on the electron is directed perpendicular to

ad
Fig. 7.23
plane of paper directed outward and hence the electron will move in that direction.
Y
For statement of Fleming's left-hand rule, see Point Number 22 under the heading "Chapter
nd
Re
At A Glance".
Q.32. What is electromagnetic induction ? [CBSE 2010]
Fi
Ans. Electromagnetic induction is the phenomenon due to which an induced current is set
up in a closed coil whenever magnetic field around it is changing. Induced current lasts so long
as the change in magnetic field continues. The direction of induced current is given by Fleming's
right-hand rule.
Q.33. A coil of insulated wire is connected to a galvanometer. What would be seen if a bar
magnet with its south pole towards one face of the coil is :
(a) moved quickly toward it ?
(b) moved quickly away from it ?
(c) placed near its once face ?
(d) Name the phenomena involved. [CBSE 2011, 2012]
Ans. (a) We get a momentary deflection in galvanometer.
(b) We again get a momentary deflection in galvanometer but in the reverse direction.
(c) There is no deflection in galvanometer.
(d) The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is responsible for deflection in the
galvanometer.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.34. What does the given diagram (Fig. 7.24) show ? What does it indicate ?
[CBSE 2006]
A B
N S
0
Fig. 7.24
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Ans. The given diagram shows that when the magnet NS is brought towards a coil, mag
netic field in and around the coil increases. As a result a current is set up in the coil and
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consequently galvanometer shows deflection. It indicates the phenomenon of electromagnetic
ee
induction.
Fr
Q.35. Explain briefly different methods of producing induced emf/current. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. See Textbook Question Number 1 (given on page 236) of NCERT Textbook.
Q.36. Two circular coils A and B are placed close to each other. If the current in the coil
for
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A is changed, will some current be induced in coil B ? Give reason. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. Yes, a current is set up in coil B when current flowing in coil A is changed. When
ks
Yo
current flowing in coil A is changed, magnetic field around coil A will change. As coil B is very
oo
close to coil A, magnetic field in and around the coil B will also change. As a result an induced
B
current is induced in coil B.

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Q.37. Distinguish between a direct current and an alternating current. fCBSE 2012, 2013]
Ans.
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ad
Direct Current (D.C.) Alternating Current (A.C.)

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1. Direct current always flows in one 1. Alternating current reverses its direction
nd
direction only.
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periodically.
2. The magnitude of current may or may 2. Magnitude of current continuously
Fi
not remain constant. changes with time.

3. Current obtained from a battery and 3. Current obtained from an A.C. generator
D.C. generator is D.C. and current in our domestic circuit are A.C.
Q.38. List in tabular form two major differences between an electric motor and a generator.
[CBSE 2012]
Ans.
Electric motor Electric generator
1. Electric motor is a device which 1. Electric generator is a device
converts electrical energy into which converts mechanical energy
mechanical energy. into electrical energy.
2. It works on the principle of 2. It works on the principle of
Fleming's left-hand rule. Fleming's right-hand rule.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.39. Mention the provision of two different current ratings in our domestic circuits.
Explain, with reason, the advantage of such a provision. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. In our domestic circuits provision is made for two different current ratings :
(i) a rating of 5 A for bulbs, tubes, CFL's and fans etc.
(ii) a rating of 15 A for electric iron, geyser, refrigerator etc.
Advantage of this provision is that we may use fitting and live wire of appropriate power
rating for appliances.
Q.40. What is the usual colour code followed for connecting live, neutral and earth wires ?
Why is it important ? [CBSE 2005, 2013]
Ans. As per usual colour code followed the live wire is of red coloured insulation, neutral
wire of black coloured insulation and earth wire of green coloured insulation.
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If the colour code is followed then any person would identify the correct connecting wire and
would be able to handle them properly.
Flo
Q.41. (a) Insulation cover of which colour is conventionally used for earth wire ?
(b) Why is an earth wire connected to metallic parts of appliances ? [CBSE 2011, 20121
ee
Ans. (a) Wire of green insulation cover is conventionally used for earth wires.
Fr
(b) When an earth wire is connected to metallic parts of appliances, any leakage of current
to the metallic parts is safely conducted to the ground. Thus, severity of shock received by a
person on touching the metallic part is very much reduced.
or
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Q.42. What is the role of fuse, used in series with any electrical appliance ? Why should
f
a fuse with defined rating not be replaced by one with a larger rating ? [CBSE 2011]
ks
Yo
Ans. The fuse is a safety device used to prevent any damage to an electrical appliance either
oo
due to short-circuiting or overloading of the electrical circuit.

B
If a fuse, with defined rating, is replaced by one with a larger rating then the fuse wire will
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not bum even when a current even greater than safe limit is flowing. As a result the electrical
appliances will be damaged.
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ad
Q.43. What is short-circuiting ? What is its possible cause ? [CBSE 2012]

Y
Ans. Short-circuiting means that the two wires, live and neutral, of the domestic electric
circuit have come in contact with each other.
nd
Re
Short-circuiting may take place either due to their insulations having been damaged or due
Fi
to a fault in the appliance.

Q.44. What happens if a domestic electric circuit is short-circuited ?
Ans. As a result of short-circuiting, the resistance of the circuit decreases to a very small
value and consequently the current increases enormously. It results in heating the live wires and
producing a spark at the place of short circuit, which may even cause fire in the building.
Q.45. An air conditioner of rating 2000 W, 220 V, is operated in a domestic circuit (220 V)
that has a current rating of 5 A. What result do you expect ? Justify your answer. [CBSE 20111
Ans. Answer is same as the answer of Textbook Question Number 2 given on page number
238 of the Textbook.
Q.46. What precautions should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric
circuits ? [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Ans. Following precautions should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric
circuits :
(i) Too many electrical appliances should not be operated using a single socket.
(ii) Too many large power rating appliances should not be switched on at a time.
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Q.l. Explain the magnetic effect of current from Oersted's experiment, with the help of
a labelled diagram. (CBSE 2010]
Ans. See Short Answer Type Question Number 5 (Two Marks Each).
Q.2. List any three properties of magnetic field lines. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. See Answer to Question Number 2 (of page 228) of NCERT Textbook.
Q.3. What are magnetic field lines ? How is the direction of a magnetic field at a point
determined ? Mention two important properties of magnetic field lines. [CBSE 2011, 2012]
Ans. Magnetic field lines are used to represent a magnetic field. A field line is the path along
which the north pole of a small compass tends to move. The direction of the magnetic field at
a point is given by the direction in which north pole of compass placed at that point would take.
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For two important properties, see Short Answer Type Question Number 2 (Three Marks
Each) given above.
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Q.4. Describe an activity to know the direction of magnetic field produced by a current-
carrying straight conductor. Also show that direction of magnetic field is reversed on reversing
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the direction of current. [CBSE 2010]
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Ans. To know the direction of magnetic field due to flow of current in a straight conductor
let us prepare a series circuit consisting of a long straight copper wire PQ, a plug key and a
for
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battery of about 6 V voltage (Fig. 7.25). Place the straight wire over a compass needle and wire
parallel to the direction of compass needle.
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North North
B
\ \
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—^\Q
West / \
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N N.
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S Copper wire 'S

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(a) (b)
Fig. 7.25
Apply plug in the key so that current begins to flow, the compass needle deflects due to magnetic
field produced due to flow of current in straight conductor. If current in wire flows from north to
south [as shown in Fig. (a)], the north pole of the compass needle is seen moving towards the east.
It shows that a magnetic field is produced by a current-carrying straight conductor.
Now reverse the connections of battery so that current flows in the copper wire from south
to north. Again observe the compass needle. We find that north pole of compass is now deflected
towards west [Fig. (&)]. Thus, it is clear that on reversing direction of current, the direction of
magnetic field is also reversed.
Q.5. Draw a diagram to show how a magnetic needle deflects when it is placed above or
below a straight conductor carrying current depending on the direction of the current in the
conductor. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. See Fig. 7.25 (a) and (b).
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Q.6. Describe an activity with a neat diagram to show that a magnetic field is generated
around a straight current-carrying wire. [CBSE 2010, 2012]
Ans. Take a long straight thick copper wire and insert it through the centre of a plane
cardboard. Cardboard is fixed so that it is perfectly horizontal and does not slide up or down.
Moreover, the thick wire should be normal to the plane of board (i.e., in vertical direction).
Prepare an electric circuit consisting of a 12 V battery, a variable resistance, an ammeter of
5 A range and a plug key. Connect the copper wire in the circuit between the points X and Y
as shown in Fig. 7.26.
Using a salt sprinkler, sprinkle some iron-filings
uniformly on the cardboard. Put the plug in key K so Variable
resistance
that a current flows in the circuit. Note the current I
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and maintain it constant throughout.
Gently tap the cardboard using a finger. We
observe that the iron-filings align themselves forming
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a pattern of concentric circles around the copper wire.
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These concentric circles represent the magnetic field
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lines. Direction of field lines can be determined by the
use of a small compass needle. If current is flowing
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vertically downward then the magnetic field lines are
along clockwise direction. On reversing the current
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direction, the direction of magnetic field is also
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reversed.
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Q.7. What happens to the deflection of the compass needle placed at a point near a
B
current-carrying straight conductor

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(a) if the current is increased ?

(b) if the direction of current in the conductor is reversed ?
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(c) if compass needle is moved away from the conductor ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]
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Ans. (ci) If the current flowing in a straight conductor is increased then the deflection of
compass needle (i.e., the magnetic field) increases.
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(b) If the direction of current in the conductor is reversed, the direction of deflection of
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compass needle (and the direction of magnetic field) gets reversed.

(c) If compass needle is moved away from the conductor, deflection of compass needle
decreases due to decrease in strength of magnetic field.
Q.8. Draw the magnetic field lines (including field directions) of the magnetic field due
to a circular coil of current. Name any two factors on which the magnitude of the magnetic
field due to this coil depends. [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Ans. Magnetic field lines have been drawn in Fig. 7.16.
The magnetic field depends on (i) amount of current flowing, (ii) radius of coil, and
(Hi) number of turns in the given circular coil.
Q.9. How will the magnetic field produced in a current-carrying circular coil change if we
(i) increase the value of current,
(ii) increase the distance from the coil,
(in) increase the number of turns of the coil ? [CBSE 2011]
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Ans. (i) The magnetic field produced in a current-carrying circular coil increases on increasing
the value of current.
(ii) On increasing the distance from the coil, the magnetic field strength decreases.
(Hi) The value of magnetic field increases on increasing the number of turns of the circular coil.
Q.10. How would the strength of magnetic field due to a current-carrying loop be affected.
if :
(a) the radius of the loop is reduced to half of its original value, and
(b) the strength of the current through the loop is doubled ? Give reason for your
answer. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. (a) If the radius of current loop is reduced to half of its original value, the strength of
magnetic field is doubled because magnetic field (B) is inversely proportional to the radius (r) of
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loop.
1
B oc —
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r
(b) As strength of magnetic field is proportional to current (1) flowing through the loop
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(B D, the magnetic field is doubled if current is doubled.
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Q.ll. What is a solenoid ? Draw magnetic field lines due to a current-carrying solenoid.
Write three important features of the magnetic field obtained. [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
or
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Ans. For solenoid and magnetic field lines, see Short Answer Type Question Number 21
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(Two Marks Each).
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Important features of magnetic field due to a current-carrying solenoid are :
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(1) The magnetic field lines inside the solenoid are nearly straight and parallel to its axis.
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It shows that magnetic field inside a solenoid is uniform.

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(2) The magnetic field of solenoid is identical to that due to a bar magnet with one end of
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solenoid behaving as a north pole and other end as a south pole. It shows that a solenoid behaves
like a bar magnet.
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(3) A current-carrying solenoid exhibits the directive and attractive properties of a bar
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magnet.
Q.12. Draw the magnetic field lines (including field directions) of the magnetic field due
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to a long straight solenoid. Name any two factors on which the magnitude of the magnetic
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field due to this solenoid depends. [CBSE 2011, 2012]

Ans. Magnetic field lines due to a long current-carrying solenoid is given in Fig. 7.23.
The magnetic field due to the solenoid depends on (i) number of turns per unit length in
solenoid coil, and (ii) amount of electric current.
Q.13. State important characteristics of magnetic force experienced by charge moving in a
magnetic field (or a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field).
Ans. Important characteristics of magnetic force are as given below :
(i) Magnetic force acts only on moving charges (or flowing current) and does not act on
stationary charges.
(ii) Force acts on moving charge when its motion is not parallel to the direction of mag
netic field. Similarly, magnetic force acts when current-carrying conductor is in any direction
other than the direction of magnetic field.
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(Hi) Magnitude of magnetic force is maximum when current-carrying conductor is set

perpendicular to magnetic field or when charge is moving at right angle to magnetic field.
(iv) The direction of force F is given by Fleming's left-hand rule.
(v) The magnetic force depends upon (a) the amount of current l, (b) the magnetic field B,
and (c) the length of the conductor /. On increasing anyone or all of these factors force increases
proportionately.
Q.14. A metallic conductor is suspended perpendicular to the magnetic field of a horse
shoe magnet. The conductor gets displaced towards left when a current is passed through it.
What will happen to the displacement of the conductor if the :
(0 current through it is increased ?
(ii) horse-shoe magnet is replaced by another horse-shoe magnet ?
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(Hi) direction of current through it is reversed ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. (i) On increasing the current flowing through metallic conductor, the force experienced
by it is proportionately increased because F I.
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(ii) On using a stronger horse-shoe magnet the magnetic force increases because F oc B.
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(Hi) On reversing the direction of current the direction of force is reversed and conductor
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is displaced towards right.
Q.15. State the rule to determine the direction of force experienced by a current-carrying
conductor in a magnetic field. How will this force get affected on :
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(i) doubling the magnitude of current ?
(ii) reversing the direction of current flow ? [CBSE 2011]
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Ans. The rule is Fleming's left-hand rule. For its statement, see Point Number 22 under the
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B
(i) If magnitude of current is doubled then force experienced by a current-carrying

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conductor in a magnetic field is also doubled.

(ii) If the direction of current flow is reversed then direction of force experienced by current-
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carrying conductor is also reversed.

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Q.16. Describe an activity to explain how a moving magnet can be used to generate electric
current in a coil. [CBSE 2012]
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Or
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A coil made of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen
to the deflection of the galvanometer if a bar magnet is pushed into the coil and then pulled
out of it ? Give reason for your answer and name the phenomenon involved.
[CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Ans. Take a coil AB of insulated copper wire A B
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having a number of turns (about 20 or more).J*
Connect the ends of coil to a sensitive galvanometer. Ij
Now take a bar magnet NS and rapidly bring the
fij
ill “
magnet towards the end B of coil as shown in
Fig. 7.27. The galvanometer gives momentary
G
deflection in one direction. Now take the magnet
away from the coil, the galvanometer again gives
Fig. 7.27
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momentary deflection but in the opposite direction. It clearly shows that motion of magnet
induces, a current in the coil.
Again keep the magnet fixed and gently move the coil AB either towards the magnet or away
from the magnet. We get deflection in galvanometer even now. Thus, an induced current is
produced in a coil whenever there is relative motion between the coil and the magnet arid the
phenomenon is known as the electromagnetic induction.
Q.17. With the help of a diagram describe an experiment to show that a change in current
flowing through a coil induces an electric current in a neighbouring coil. [CBSE 2011, 2012]
Or
Draw a schematic diagram showing electromagnetic induction by using two coils and
explain the observations. [CBSE 2010]
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Ans. Take two different coils of insulated copper Coil-1 Coi!-2
wire having large number of turns. Insert the two coils
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over a non-conducting cylindrical thick paper roll as
shown in Fig. 7.28.
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Connect a battery (of 6 V) and a plug key K in series
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of coil-1. With coil-2 connect a sensitive galvanometer.
Now put the plug in key K. The galvanometer joined (•)-
K
or
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with coil-2 also gives a momentary deflection and then
Fig. 7.28
the pointer quickly returns to its mean position.
f
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Now remove the plug from key K. The galvanometer in coil-2 again gives a momentary
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deflection but in the reverse direction.

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Moreover, we observe that as soon as current in coil-1 becomes either steady or zero, there
B
is no deflection in galvanometer.
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From the above experiment, we conclude that an induced current is produced in coil-2 on
account of electromagnetic induction whenever current in coil-1 is changing.
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Q.18. With the help of a labelled diagram describe an activity to demonstrate

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electromagnetic induction. [CBSE 2012]

Ans. Write the answer of either Question Number 16 or Question Number 17 given above.
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Q.19. Why is alternating current preferred over direct current ? List any three reasons.
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[CBSE 2011, 2012]

Ans. An alternating current is preferred over direct current due to the following reasons :
(0 A.C. generator is simpler arid easy to operate and maintain.
(ii) A.C. voltage can be stepped up or stepped down as per convenience.
(Hi) A.C. can be easily transmitted over long distances.
Q.20. What is an electric fuse ? Briefly describe its function. [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Or
What is the role of fuse used in series with any electrical appliance ? [CBSE 2012]
Ans. An electric fuse is a device which is used ahead and in series of an electric circuit as
a safety device to prevent the damage caused by short-circuiting or overloading of the circuit.
It is a small, thin wire of a material whose melting point is very low. Generally wire of tin
or tin-lead alloy or tin-copper alloy is used as a fuse wire. If due to some fault electric circuit gets
short-circuited, then a strong current begins to flow. Due to such strong flow of current the fuse
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wire is heated up and gets melted. As a result, the electric circuit is broken and current flow
stops. Thus, possible damage to the circuit and appliances is avoided.
Q.21. Describe four important features of domestic electric supply lines. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. Important features of domestic electric supply lines are as given below :
(z) Different circuits and different appliances in each circuit are connected in parallel,
(n) Each appliance is provided with an independent on/off switch which is always joined
to the live wire.
(Hi) Two separate circuits are used, one of 15 A for appliances with higher power ratings
and another of 5 A for bulbs, tubes, fans etc.
(iv) Electric fuses of appropriate capacities are used ahead of each electric circuit as a safety
measure. Moreover, proper earthing must be ensured.
Q.22. Distinguish between overloading and short-circuiting in a domestic circuit.
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[CBSE 2008, 2010, 2011]
Ans.
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Short-circuiting Overloading
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1. Short-circuiting occurs due to direct 1. Overloading occurs when too many elec
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contact of live wire with the neutral wire. trical appliances of high power ratings are
connected to a single electric circuit and
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switched on simultaneously. As a result
the circuit draws large current beyond its
capacity and overloading takes place.
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2. A large current flows in the circuit due 2. Large current flows on account of the fact
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to extremely small resistance on account that a number of high power appliances

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of direct contact of live wire with neutral are connected and being run simulta
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wire. neously.
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Q.23. Explain why fuse should be joined with the live wire and not with the neutral wire
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in a domestic circuit.
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Ans. In a domestic circuit, the phase is always at a potential 220 V higher than the neutral.
The neutral is earthed at the substation. The earthed wire is earthed at the premises of the
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consumer. All the coverings and those parts which should not be at a potential are earthed by
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joining with the earthed wire. Therefore, no fuse should be joined with the neutral wire because
in the event of short-circuit such a fuse will break the system of connections only with the neutral
and not with the live wire. It means that for proper functioning the fuse must be joined only with
the live wire.
Q.l. A student fixes a sheet of white paper on a drawing board. He places a bar magnet
in the centre of it. He sprinkles some iron filings uniformly around the bar magnet. Then he
taps the board gently and observes that the iron filings arrange themselves in a particular
pattern.
(a) Why do iron fillings arrange in a pattern ?
(b) What does the crowding of iron filings at the end of the magnet indicate ?
(c) What does the lines, along which the iron filings align, represent ?
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(d) Draw a neat diagram to show the magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
(e) Write any two properties of magnetic field lines. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. (a) Iron filings arrange in a pattern because a magnetic field exists around a magnet.
(b) The crowding of iron filings at the end of the magnet indicates that the strength of
magnetic field is maximum near the poles of magnet.
(c) The lines represent the magnetic field lines.
(d) See Fig. 7.3.
(e) See Question Number 2 (Textbook page no. 228) of NCERT Textbook.
Q.2. (n) What is a magnetic field ? How can the direction of magnetic field lines at a place
be determined ?
(b) State the rule for the direction of the magnetic field produced around a current-
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carrying conductor. Draw a sketch of the pattern of field lines due to a current flowing through
a straight conductor. [CBSE 2009, 2010]
Ans. (a) A magnetic field is the region around a magnet or a current-carrying conductor/
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coil, in which the magnetic force of attraction/repulsion due to if can be detected.
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The direction of field lines at a place is determined by placing a magnetic compass needle
there. The direction along which the north pole of compass needle points is the direction of
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magnetic field there.
• (b) The direction of the magnetic field produced around a
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current-carrying conductor is found by applying the right-hand thumb
rule. As per this rule, hold the current-carrying conductor in your /
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right-hand such that the thumb is stretched along the direction of \ [ \ \

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current, then the fingers will wrap around the counductor in the \
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direction of the magnetic field.

The pattern of field lines due to a current flowing through a straight
r
conductor is as shown in Fig. 7.29. Fig-

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Q.3. (a) Briefly explain an activity to plot the magnetic field lines produced a straight
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current-carrying conductor.
(b) Draw a sketch of the pattern of field lines due to current flowing through a straight
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conductor. [CBSE 2011, 2012]

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Ans. (a) See Short Answer Type Question Number 6 (Three Marks Each).
(b) See Fig. 7.29.
Q.4. (a) What is meant by a magnetic field ?
(b) How is the direction of magnetic field at a point determined ?
(c) Describe an activity to demonstrate the direction of the magnetic field generated
around a current-carrying conductor.
(d) What is the direction of magnetic field at the centre of a current-carrying circular
loop ? [CBSE 2010, 2012]
Ans. (a) See Point Number 4 under the heading "Chapter At A Glance".
(b) See Point Number 5 under the heading "Chapter At A Glance".
(c) See Short Answer Type Question Number 6 (Three Marks Each).
(d) At the centre of a current-carrying circular loop the direction of magnet field is a
straight line pointing normal to the loop given by right-hand rule.
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Q.5. (a) What is a solenoid ? Draw a sketch of the pattern of field lines of the magnetic
field through and around a current-carrying solenoid.
(b) Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the table. Let the current pass
through the loop clockwise. Apply the right-hand rule to find out the direction of the magnetic
field inside and outside the loop. [CBSE 2009, 2011]
Ans. (a) A solenoid is a coil of insulated copper wire, having a
large number of circular turns, wrapped in the shape of a cylinder.
When current is passed through the solenoid coil, a magnetic field is
present. Within the solenoid field is constant and along the axis solenoid
coil.
Pattern of magnetic field lines due to a current-carrying solenoid is
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shown in Fig. 7.30.
(b) If we consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the
Flo
table and let the current passes through the loop clockwise, then the
magnetic field lines have been shown in Fig. 7.30. As per right-hand rule, we find that inside the
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loop, the magnetic field lines are directed perpendicular to the plane of paper in the inward
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direction. Outside the loop magnetic field lines are directed out of the plane of paper.
Q.6. (a) What is a solenoid ? Draw the magnetic field pattern through and around a
or
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current-carrying solenoid.
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(b) What does the pattern of field lines inside the solenoid indicate ? How can this field
be utilised to magnetise a piece of soft iron ? [CBSE 2011, 2013]
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Ans. {a) See Short Answer Type Question Number 21 (Two Marks Each).
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(b) The pattern of field lines inside the solenoid indicates that the solenoid is now behaving
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as a bar magnet with one end behaving as the north pole and the other end as the south pole
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of the magnet.
If a piece of soft iron is placed inside the solenoid and a current is passed through the
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solenoid coil, the iron piece is magnetised and begins to behave as an electromagnet.
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Q.7. Describe an experiment in detail to demonstrate the force acting on a current-carrying

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conductor due to a magnetic field. Also show the effect of change in direction of magnetic
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field and change in direction of current. [CBSE 2010]

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Or
Explain an activity to show that a current-carrying conductor experiences a force when
placed in a magnetic field. [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Ans. A current-carrying conductor experiences a magnetic force due to a magnetic field. The
force is maximum when the conductor is placed perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field.
To demonstrate the force we perform the following experiment :
Experiment : Take a small sized aluminium rod AB of length about 5 cm. Suspend the rod
AB horizontally from a rigid stand using two connecting wires.
Place a strong horse-shoe magnet NS in such a way that the rod AB lies between the poles of the
magnet. Let the north pole N of magnet lies below the rod and the south pole S lies above the rod as
shown in Fig. 7.31. Thus, a magnetic field directed in vertically upward direction is present.
Complete the electrical circuit of aluminium rod AB by connecting it in series with a 6 V
battery, key K and a variable resistance.
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Put the plug in key K so that an electric current begins

to flow through the aluminium rod from end B to end A.
We observe that on passing current the rod AB is displaced
towards the left. It shows that the aluminium rod is expe
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riencing a mechanical force due to which it is being
deflected. Direction of deflection is given by Fleming's left-
hand rule.
Effect of change in direction of current : Reverse the
connections of battery so that on applying plug in key K,
current flows in the aluminium rod from A to B. We now
find that the rod AB is deflected towards the right. Thus, by K
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reversing the direction of current, direction of force is also
reversed. It is in accordance with Fleming's left-hand rule. Fig. 7.31
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Effect of change in direction of magnetic field : Now reverse the direction of magnetic field
to vertically downward direction. For this suspend, the horse-shoe magnet in such a way that N-
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pole of magnet lies above the aluminium rod AB and S-pole of magnet lies below the rod. If now
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current in aluminium rod is flown from B to A, the rod is deflected towards right. If current in
the rod is flowing from A to B, then the rod is deflected towards left. It shows that direction of
or
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deflection (or the direction of force) is reversed on reversing the direction of magnetic field.
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Q.8. (a) Which rule helps to find the direction of force on a current-carrying conductor in
a magnetic field ?
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(b) State the rule.

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(c) Name the three factors on which the force on the current-carrying conductor depend.
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[CBSE 2011]
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Ans. (a) Fleming's left-hand rule helps to find the direction of force on a current-carrying
conductor in a magnetic field.
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- (b) See Point Number 22 under the heading "Chapter At A Glance".

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(c) Force on the current-carrying conductor depends on (i) amount of current flowing,
(ii) strength of magnetic field, and (Hi) orientation of conductor.
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Q.9. (a) State the rule you would use to find the force acting on a current-carrying conductor
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placed in a magnetic field.

(b) Name two devices based on interaction between magnetic field and current-carrying
conductor.
(c) Given below are three diagrams showing entry of an electron in a magnetic field.
Identify the case in which the force on electron will be maximum and minimum respectively.
Give reason for your answer. Find the direction of maximum force acting on electron.
[CBSE 2013]
e-
B B B
X
XX
(i) (ii) (iii)
Fig. 7.32
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Ans. (a) The rule is Fleming's left-hand rule. See Point Number 22 under the heading "Chapter
At A Glance" for its statement.
(b) Electric fan, refrigerator, electric mixer, washing machine etc., make use of interaction
between magnetic field and a current-carrying conductor.
(c) Force on electron is maximum in Fig. (i) because here direction of motion of electron
is at right angles to that of magnetic field 'B'. The force is minimum (or zero) in Fig. (Hi) because
here electron is moving along the direction of magnetic field B.
The direction of maximum force acting on electron is perpendicular to the plane of paper and
directed into it.
Q.10. (a) What is an electromagnet ?
(b) List any of its two uses.
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(c) Draw a labelled diagram to show how an electromagnet is made.
(d) What is the purpose of soft iron core used in making an electromagnet ?
[CBSE 2007, 2012]
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Ans. (a) See Short Answer Type Question Number 24 (Two Marks Each).
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(b) An electromagnet is used in electric bells, telegraph system and telephone receivers.
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Electromagnets are used in cranes to lift heavy iron and steel objects. Electromagnets are also
used in electrical brakes.
(c) See Fig. 7.22.
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(d) Soft iron core is used to increase the strength/power of the electromagnet.
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Q.ll. What is an electric motor ? Name and state the principle on which electric motor
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works. List two factors on which the direction of motion/force depends. State the condition
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under which the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
B
is maximum. [CBSE 2012]

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Ans. For electric motor and its principle, see Points Number 23, 24 and 22 under the heading
"Chapter At A Glance".
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The direction of motion/force depends on the direction of magnetic field and the direction
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of flow of current through the conductor.

The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor is maximum when it is at right angles
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to the magnetic field in which it is placed.

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Q.12. (a) What is electromagnetic induction ?

(b) Explain the various methods of producing induced current.
(c) State the rule which gives the direction of induced current.
(d) Name two devices which work on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
[CBSE 2010]
Ans. (a) Electromagnetic induction is the phenomenon due to which an emf is induced
between the ends of a coil whenever magnetic field in and around it is changed.
(b) See NCERT Question Number 1 (Page 236 of Textbook).
(c) Rule is Fleming's right-hand rule. For its statement, see Point Number 27 under the
(d) Electric generator, transformer etc., work on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
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Q.13. {a) A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen
if a bar magnet is :
(i) pushed into the coil, its north pole entering first ? (ii) withdrawn from inside the
coil ? (in) held stationary inside the coil ?
(b) Name the above phenomenon and mention the name of scientist who discovered it.
(c) State the rule used to find the direction of induced current.
[CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Ans. (a) (i) When bar magnet is pushed into the coil, the galvanometer shows deflection due
to induced current produced in the coil.
(ii) When bar magnet is withdrawn from inside the coil, an induced current is set up in the
reverse direction and hence galvanometer shows deflection in the reverse direction.
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(Hi) When magnet is held stationary inside the coil, no induced current is produced and so
galvanometer shows no deflection.
(b) The phenomenon is known as "electromagnetic induction" and it was discovered by M.
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Faraday.
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(c) See Point Number 27 under the heading "Chapter At A Glance".
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Q.14. In our daily life we use two types of electric current whose current-time graphs are
given in Fig. 7.33.
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c c
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0) 0)
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B
Time
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(a)
Fig. 7.33
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(0 Name the type of current in two cases.

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(ii) Identify any one source for each type of current.

(Hi) What is the frequency of current in case (b) in our country ?
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(iv) On the basis of these graphs list two differences between the two currents.
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(v) Out of the two which one is used in transmitting electric power over long distances
and why ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. (/) Current shown in Fig. (n) is direct current (D.C.) but current shown in Fig. (b) is an
alternating current (A.C.).
(ii) A cell/battery produces D.C. but an A.C. generator produces A.C.
(Hi) In India frequency of A.C. is 50 Hz.
(iv) See Short Answer Type Question Number 37 (Two Marks Each).
(v) A.C. is used in transmitting electric power over long distances. It is so because
transmission loss of electric power can be minimised for A.C. by employing suitable transformers
at generating stations and consuming centres.
Q.15. (a) Which effect of the electric current is utilised in the working of an electrical fuse ?
(b) A fuse is connected in series or in parallel in household circuit ?
(c) Draw a schematic labelled diagram of a domestic circuit which has a provision of a
main fuse, meter, one light bulb and a switch/socket. [CBSE 2011]
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Ans. (a) Heating effect of electric current is utilised in the working of an electric fuse.
(b) A fuse is always connected in series of a household circuit.
(c) See Fig. 7.34.
Q.16. {a) Draw a schematic labelled diagram of a domestic wiring circuit which includes
(i) a main fuse, (n) a power meter, (Hi) one light point, and (iv) a power plug.
(b) Why is it necessary to connect an earth wire to electric appliances having metallic
covers ? [CBSE 20101
Ans. (a) Labelled diagram of domestic wiring circuit is given below in Fig. 7.34.
Earth Wire Switch A Switch 4

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K, ^ K2 \
Main Fuse
Live Wire
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220 V °O o--
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Neutral Wire Light
Point Power Plug
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Electricity
Power Meter
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Fig. 7.34
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(b) It is necessary to connect an earth wire to electric appliances having metallic covers as
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a safety measure. Tire metallic body connected to the earth wire provides a low resistance con
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ducting path for the current. It ensures that any leakage of current to the metallic body of the
appliance keeps its potential to that of earth and the person using that appliance will not get a
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ReadYourFlow.COM
8
Sources of Energy
[NCERT CHAPTER 14]
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1. Energy of a system is its ability or capability to do work.
2. We need energy in all walks of life. We cannot think of any activity, which does not
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require energy.
3. For almost all forms of energy available to us on the earth, the ultimate source of energy
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is the Sun.
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4. A source of energy is that which is capable of providing an adequate amount of useful
energy.
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5. A good source of energy must be convenient to use and easy to transport and store.
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Moreover, a good source of energy should be capable of delivering desired quantity of
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energy at a steady and economical rate over a long period of time.
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6. Fuels e.g., firewood, cowdung cakes, charcoal, coal, cooking gas, petrol, kerosene oil, diesel
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etc., are important sources of energy and we commonly use them. Electrical energy is a
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convenient form of energy being used for variety of purposes.

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7. Renewable sources of energy are those natural resources which are inexhaustible, that is
which can be replenished as we use them and which can be used to produce energy again
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and again. The solar energy, energy harnessed from flowing water, wind, tides, ocean
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waves and bio-gas are some examples of renewable sources of energy. Nuclear energy and
geothermal energy are also expected to be available for a long time to come.
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8. Non-renewable sources of energy are those natural resources which are exhaustible and
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cannot be replenished once they have been consumed. Fossil fuels, e.g., coal, oil, petroleum,
natural gas are some of the non-renewable sources of energy. Although trees can be grown
again but it takes more than 15 years for a tree to mature. Due to this reason, firewood
obtained by cutting trees is considered a non-renewable source of energy.
9. Fossil fuels are non-renewable source of energy. Burning of coal and petroleum causes air
pollution. Oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur released on burning fossil fules are
acidic oxides. It leads to acid rain which affects our water and soil resources.
10. Pollution caused by burning fossil fuels can be reduced by increasing the efficiency of the
combustion process and using special techniques to reduce the escape of harmful gases
and ashes into the surroundings. Fossil fuels can be used to generate electric power, which
can be used as a clean source of energy.
11. In thermal power plants, fossil fuels are burnt to produce heat energy, which is then
converted into electrical energy. Tire transmission of electricity is more efficient than that
(256)
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Sources of Energy 257
of fossil fuels themselves. Due to this reason, large thermal power plants are set up near
coal or oil fields.
12. Energy of flowing water in rivers and streams is utilised to produce electricity in
hydroelectric power plants. High rise dams are constructed to collect water in large artificial
lakes by obstructing the river flow. The stored water possesses potential energy. Water
from the top of dam is made to fall through pipes over the turbine blades at the bottom
of dam and make the turbine rotate. Moving turbine rotates the armature of electric
generators so as to produce electricity.
13. Big dams can be constructed in a limited number of places in hilly terrain only. It involves
submergence of large areas of agricultural land and human habitation. Large eco-systems
are destroyed. Submerged vegetation rots under anaerobic conditions and produce methane
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which is a greenhouse gas. It also creates problem of satisfactory rehabilitation of displaced
people.
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14. Bio-mass i.e., firewood, cowdung cakes etc., produce heat when burnt. In traditional chulhas,
only 8-10 % energy of the fuel gets actually used and the rest is wasted. Moreover, it
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produces lot of smoke and is a health hazard.
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15. When wood is burnt in a limited supply of oxygen, water and volatile material present in
it gets removed and charcoal is left behind. Charcoal is a better fuel than wood because
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it burns without flames, is comparatively smokeless and has a higher heat generation
efficiency.
16. During the decay of bio-mass e.g.r animal dung, sewage, crop residue, vegetable waste etc.,
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in the absence of oxygen bio-gas is produced. Bio-gas is a mixture of methane, carbon
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dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulpiride but bio-gas may contain up to 75% methane. It
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is an excellent fuel and burns without smoke. Hence, bio-gas can be used as a fuel in
industries and at homes. Bio-gas is also used to produce electricity.
17. Bio-gas plants are installed to produce bio-gas from decay of bio-mass. Basically, a bio-gas
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plant is a digester, in which bio-mass slurry is allowed to undergo anaerobic decomposition.

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Tire bio-gas produced is stored in a cylinder.

18. Wind is a solar related source of energy. Wind energy is the kinetic energy possessed by
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moving air. A windmill is used to convert wind energy into mechanical or electrical
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energy.
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19. The blades of a windmill are designed to create a pressure difference between its different
regions when wind strikes them. The pressure difference produces a turning effect to
make the blades rotate. The rotatory motion of windmill is utilised to rotate the turbine
of an electric generator. A number of windmills coupled together can generate electricity
on a large scale. Such an arrangement is known as "Wind energy farm". For a windmill
to be functional minimum wind velocity should be about 15 km h_1.
20. There are many limitations while harnessing wind energy. Wind energy farms require
large land area. The initial cost of establishing wind farm is quite high. A high level of
maintenance is needed since the tower and blades of windmill are exposed to Sun, rain,
storm, cyclone etc.
21. Our energy needs are increasing day-by-day. Therefore, we continuously look for alternative
or non-conventional sources of energy.
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22. The Sun is radiating energy at a rate of about 4.5 x 1023 kW for the last 5 billion years and
is expected to radiate energy almost at the same rate for about 5 billion years to come.
23. Sim radiates its energy in all directions in space and earth directly receives only a small
fraction of total energy radiated by the Sun.
24. The radiation from the Sun is in the form of heat (i.e., infrared) radiation, visible light,
ultraviolet rays and gamma-rays.
25. Solar constant is the amount of solar radiation received on a unit area exposed
perpendicularly to the rays of the Sun at an average distance between the Sun and the
earth. Its value is about 1.4 kW m-2 (or 1400 W nT2).
26. Nearly half of solar energy reaching at the outer layer of earth's atmosphere is absorbed
by earth's atmosphere and the rest reaches the earth's surface. Most of the ultraviolet rays
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are absorbed by the earth's atmosphere and solar radiation reaching earth's surface is
mostly infrared radiation and visible light.
27. Mankind has been utilising solar energy for various purposes e.g., for drying of foodgrains,
fish and firewood or drying of clothes, obtaining salt from sea water, etc., since early
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civilisations. rF
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28. Modem scientific devices used to harness solar energy are solar cookers, solar water heaters,
solar water pumps and solar cells.
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29. On the basis of their working principle solar energy devices are classified into two categories :
(z) The devices like solar cooker, solar water heater etc., in which solar energy is collected
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in the form of heat and then used.
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(zz) The devices like solar cell in which solar energy is directly converted into electricity
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and then used.

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30. For commercial solar energy devices we must collect energy over a larger area or over a
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long period of time or both. Moreover, the surface receiving the solar energy should be
blackened because a black surface is the best absorber of heat.
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31. Glass has a peculiar property for infrared radiation. It transmits smaller wavelength infrared
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radiation but does not allow infrared radiation of longer wavelengths to pass through it.
This property of glass is used in greenhouses, which are designed to keep plants warm
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(i.e., to protect them from excessive cold) in cold climatic regions.

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32. Box type solar cooker consists of a box of non-conducting material with its inner walls
painted in black. Tire box is covered with a glass sheet. An adjustable plane mirror is
hinged on the top of box so as to reflect sunlight into box. The glass sheet helps in
retention of heat inside due to greenhouse effect. When placed in Sun for 2-3 hours
temperature inside the solar cooker may go up within the range 100 °C - 140 °C. Such
cookers can be used for boiling rice, pulses or vegetables.
33. Solar cells convert solar energy directly into electricity. Modem solar cells have efficiencies
up to 25% and use silicon because it is environmental friendly and is available in abundance.
When sunlight falls on a wafer thin sheet of silicon, electricity is produced.
34. A typical solar cell develops a voltage of 0.5 to 1 volt and can produce about 0.7 watt of
electricity. Solar panels consisting of a large number of solar cells combined together can
deliver enough electricity for practical use.
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35. Although silicon is present in abundance but to obtain silicon in pure form is quite expen
sive. To connect different solar cells in a solar panel, a conducting material like silver is
used, which is again costly.
36. The electricity generated by a solar panel during day time is used to charge storage batteries,
which can then be used during night time to light the bulbs etc.
37. Inspite of high cost and low efficiency, the solar cells are used as the source of energy in
artificial satellites, radio or wireless transmission systems, at TV relay stations in remote
areas, traffic lights, calculators and many toys.
38. Oceans are huge reservoirs of energy. The energy possessed by the rising and falling water
in tides is known as tidal energy. Winds blowing across the surface of the oceans are
converted into waves. Kinetic energy of water that moves along the waves is another form
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of ocean energy. The difference in temperature between warm surface waters heated by
the Sun and colder waters found at ocean depth is yet another form of solar energy and
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is known as 'ocean thermal energy'. All these forms of ocean energy can be harnessed to
produce electricity. However, efficient commercial exploitation of ocean power is very
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difficult.
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39. Geothermal energy is yet another form of energy. The deeper regions of the earth's crust
are very hot. This heat melts the rocks. The molten rocks are pushed upward due to
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geological changes and are trapped in certain regions called the 'hot spots'. The underground
water in contact with these hot spots turns into steam which gets compressed to high
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pressure. If this steam is extracted by sinking pipes through holes drilled up to hot spots,
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the steam coming out at high pressure can be utilised to turn the turbine of electric
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generator. This form of energy can be harnessed round the clock throughout the year.
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40. Nuclear fission is a process in which the nucleus of a heavy atom like uranium, plutonium
or thorium, when bombarded with low energy neutrons, is split up into two lighter nuclei
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along with the release of a large amount of energy. The fission of a uranium nucleus
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produces 107 times the energy produced by the combustion of an atom of carbon from
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coal.
41. In nuclear fission, the sum of the masses of the individual products formed after fission
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is slightly less than the original mass. This difference (loss) in mass Am is converted into
energy E as per Einstein's mass-energy relation E = Am. c2, where c = speed of light in
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vacuum.
42. In a nuclear reactor, self-sustained fission chain reaction of the nuclear fuel (uranium or
plutonium) releases energy at a controlled rate. The energy released is used to produce
steam. This steam is used to do work for rotating the turbine of an electric generator and
thus to generate electricity.
43. In India, nuclear power reactors are located at Tarapur (Maharashtra), Rana Pratap Sagar,
Kota (Rajasthan), Narora (U.P.), Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu), Kakrapar (Gujarat) and Kaiga
(Karnataka). At present 3% of total electricity generation of India is produced by nuclear
reactors. More nuclear power plants are under various stages of construction and erection.
44. Nuclear power generation has certain disadvantages. Main hazard is storage and disposal
of used fuels. There is a risk of leakage of nuclear radiation. High cost of nuclear power
plant, high risk of environmental contamination and limited availability of nuclear fuel are
some other limiting factors.
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45. Nuclear energy was first used for destructive purposes before nuclear power stations were
designed. Fundamental principle of both is same but two types of devices are engineered
differently.
46. Nuclear fusion is the process in which lighter nuclei (like deutrons) combine together to
form a heavier nucleus (helium) along with the release of a large amount of energy.
Nuclear fusion reaction is the source of energy in Sun and stars. For nuclear fusion reactions
we need temperatures of millions of degrees and pressure of million of pascals. Hydrogen
bomb is based on thermonuclear fusion reaction. Scientists are trying to design devices
which may generate electrical power based on nuclear fusion technique.
47. A clean fuel is that which produces large amount of energy which can be used efficiently
without damaging the environment. CNG is such a clean fuel. Solar cells are also pollution
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free.
TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS
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Q.l. What is a good source of energy ? [CBSE 2011]
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Ans. A good source of energy should have the following qualities :
(0 It should be easily available.
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(ii) It should do a large amount of work (or produce large amount of heat) per unit
volume/mass.
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(Hi) It should be easy to store and transport.
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(iv) It should be economical.

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(v) It should not cause environmental pollution.

Q.2. What is a good fuel ?
Ans. A good fuel is that which releases more heat on burning, is easily available at an
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economic rate and does not produce smoke.

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Q.3. If you could use any source of energy for heating your food, which one would you
use and why ?
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Ans. We shall use PNG/CNG gas or electricity for heating our food because these are
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efficient ways of supplying energy. Thermal efficiency of the energy source is large, there is no
pollution and the source can be used easily.
Q.l. What are the disadvantages of fossil fuels ? ICBSE 20101
Ans. There are following disadvantages of fossil fuels like coal and petroleum :
(0 Burning of coal or petroleum causes air pollution.
(ii) Acidic oxides like oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur are released on burning fossil
fuels. These oxides lead to acid rains, which affect our water and soil resources.
(Hi) Carbon dioxide gas also causes greenhouse effect in atmosphere.
(iv) Fossil fuels are non-renewable sources of energy.
Q.2. Why are we looking at alternate sources of energy ?
Ans. Fossil fuels are non-renewable sources of energy and their reserves are limited one.
Hence, we need to conserve them. If we continue consuming these sources at same rate as
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presently, we may soon run out of energy. To avoid such a situation we are looking at alternate
sources of energy.
Q.3. How has the traditional use of wind and water energy been modified for our con
venience ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Ans. To use energy of flowing water large dams are built in hilly regions to store huge
amount of water at a height. The stored water from high level in dam is carried through pipes
to the turbine at the bottom of the dam and runs hydropower plant.
Similarly, the wind energy is used to generate electricity. For this purpose, the rotatoiy
motion of windmill is used to turn the turbine of the electric generator.
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Q.l. What kind of mirror — concave, convex or plain — would be best suited for use in
a solar cooker ? Why ? [CBSE 2008]
Ans. Large size concave mirrors are best suited for use in a solar cooker, because they focus
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large amount of solar radiation on a small surface area so temperature will rise quickly and
appreciably.
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Q.2. What are the limitations of the energy that can be obtained from the oceans ?
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[CBSE 2011, 20121
Ans. Energy from the oceans can be obtained in the form of tidal energy, wave energy and
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ocean thermal energy. But these energy sources suffer from the following limitations :
(i) There are very few locations where dams to utilise tidal energy can be built.
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(ii) Cost of installation of power houses is extremely high and efficiency of plants is
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comparatively small.
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(Hi) Power plants built in oceans or at sea-shores will need high continuous maintenance
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as chances of corrosion are extremely high.

Q.3. What is geothermal energy ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]
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Ans. Geothermal energy is the heat energy present inside earth in certain regions called hot
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spots'. Due to geological changes, molten rocks formed in the deeper hot regions of earth's crust
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are pushed upwards and are trapped in hot spots. When underground water comes in contact
with the hot spot, steam is generated. This steam is routed through a pipe to a turbine and used
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to generate electricity.
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Q.4. What are the advantages of nuclear energy ?

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Ans. Mam advantages of nuclear energy are as follows :

(0 For a given mass of fuel consumed the amount of energy released is extraordinarily
large.
(ii) Nuclear power plants can be designed and constructed at any place.
(Hi) If proper precautions are taken while running nuclear power plants, a major fraction
of energy need can be obtained from nuclear energy sources.
[D] QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 253 OF THE TEXTBOOK
Q.l. Can any source of energy be pollution free ? Why or why not ?
Ans. We shall call a source of energy to be pollution free if neither it causes any pollution
during its actual operation nor there is any pollution during assembly of devices utilising that
source of energy. As an example, solar cell is clean and pollution free source by itself but assembly
of solar- cell device may have caused some pollution. Thus, no source of energy is completely
pollution free.
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Q.2. Hydrogen has been used as a rocket fuel. Would you consider it a cleaner fuel than
CNG ? Why or why not ?
Ans. Hydrogen can be considered a cleaner fuel because its burning produces water vapour
which is non-polluting. However, due to explosive nature of hydrogen, its storage and
transportation is difficult.
[El QUESTIONS GIVEN ON PAGE NUMBER 254 OF THE TEXTBOOK
Q.l. Name two energy sources that you would consider to be renewable. Give reasons for
your choices.
Ans. Solar energy, wind energy, ocean energy etc., are renewable sources of energy due to
the following reasons :
(i) These forms of energy are available in plenty in our natural environment in the form
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of continuous currents of energy.
(ii) These energy sources will not be depleted because their supply is large and extraction
of usable energy from these sources is negligible.
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Q.2. Give the names of two energy sources that you would consider to be exhaustible.
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Give reasons for your choices.
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Ans. Coal and petroleum are two exhaustible sources of energy. These fuels were formed
over million of years ago arid there are only limited reserves. If we continue to use them as at
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present, these reserves will be exhausted soon.
TEXTBOOK EXERCISES
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Q.l. A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water on

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(a) a sunny day. (b) a cloudy day.

(c) a hot day. (d) a windy day.
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Ans. (b) a cloudy day.

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Explanation : On a cloudy day, no radiation from Sun is incident on the solar water heater.
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Hence, it cannot be used to get hot water.

Q.2. Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy source ?
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(a) wood (b) gobar-gas

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(c) nuclear energy (d) coal.

Ans. (c) nuclear energy.
Explanation : Wood, gobar-gas and coal are plant and animal products and are bio-mass.
Hence, their energy is an example of bio-mass energy. Nuclear energy depends on nuclear fission
phenomenon and is not a bio-mass energy.
Q.3. Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the
following is not ultimately derived from the Sun's energy ?
(a) geothermal energy •/y
(b) wind energy

(c) nuclear energy
(d) bio-mass.
Ans. (c) nuclear energy.
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Q.4. Compare and contrast fossil fuels and the Sun as direct sources of energy.
Ans.
Fossil fuels Sun energy
1. These are non-renewable and exhaustible 1. Sun is a renewable and inexhaustible
sources of energy. source of energy.
2. Combustion of fossil fuels cause pollution 2. Harnessing of solar energy causes no
and degradation of environment. pollution or degradation of the
environment.
3. Fossil fuels are costly but energy can be 3. Solar energy is freely available. But
easily obtained by burning these fuels. devices used to harness it are costly and
their efficiency is less.
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Q.5. Compare and contrast bio-mass and hydro electricity as sources of energy.
Ans.
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Bio-mass energy Hydro electricity
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1. Bio-mass energy plant is cheap, small in 1. Hydro electricity can be generated only at
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size and can be installed anywhere. few places in hilly terrain by constructing
dams over rivers. Moreover, cost of power
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plant is extremely high but power
production is also high.
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2. These utilise waste bio-mass materials like 2. These utilise kinetic energy of flowing
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cow dung, plant residue, vegetable waste water or potential energy of water stored
and sewage etc. at a height.
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Q.6. What are the limitations of extracting energy from :

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(a) the wind ? {b) waves ? (c) tides ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]
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Ans. (fl) Limitations of extracting energy from the wind :

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(z) Wind energy farms can be established at those places only, where wind blows for the
greater part of a year.
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(ii) For wind energy, the wind speed should be higher than 15 km h_1.
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{in) A wind farm requires large area and initial cost of establishment of wind farm is high.
(iv) It requires high level of maintenance because the tower and blades are exposed to rain,
sun, storm etc.
(v) It requires a back-up with batteries for periods when there is no wind.
(b) Limitations of extracting wave energy :
(z) Wave energy can be harnessed by trapping the sea waves in a dam. Only very few
suitable sites exist where dams can be constructed.
(ii) It is not a continuous and reliable source of energy.
(Hi) It is extremely costly, cumbersome and difficult to maintain a power emit based on
wave energy on a sustained basis.
(c) Limitations of extracting tidal energy are same as for wave energy. ^
Q.7. On what basis would you classify energy sources as
(a) renewable and non-renewable ?
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(b) exhaustible and inexhaustible ?

Are the options given in {a) and (b) the same.
Ans. (a) Renewable sources of energy are those sources which can be regenerated again.
Non-renewable sources of energy are those sources which would get depleted some day and can
not be regenerated.
(b) Exhaustible sources of energy are those which will be exhausted some day and cannot
be regenerated. Inexhaustible sources of energy are those which can be regenerated again due to
some continuing or repetitive currents of energy and are thus inexhaustible.
Options given in (a) arid (b) are exactly the same. A non-renewable source is an exhaustible
source. A renewable energy source is an inexhaustible source.
'y.Q.S. What are the qualities of an ideal source of energy ? [CBSE 2011, 2012]
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Ans. The qualities of an ideal source of energy are :
(0 It should be easily accessible, inexhaustible and a renewable source of energy and cost
of harnessing energy should be reasonably small.
(ii) The energy obtained from the source may be easily stored and transferred from one
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place to another place. rF
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(in) The energy source should not cause directly or indirectly any sort of pollution or
degradation of the environment.
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(iv) The technology for harnessing energy from given source should be easily available,
cheap and efficient one.
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Q.9. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a solar cooker ? Are there places
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where solar cookers would have limited utility ? [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
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Ans. Advantages of a solar cooker :

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(i) There is no cost of fuel.

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(ii) It is environment friendly and there is no residue like ash etc.

(Hi) Cooking is hygienic and nutritious.
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Disadvantages of a solar cooker :

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(i) The cooking is slow.

(ii) It cannot be used at all times.
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(Hi) A solar cooker can perform only limited functions.

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(iv) Solar cookers have limited utility at the places where sunlight is less as in polar regions
or where there are too much rains.
¥ Q.10. What are the environmental consequences of the increasing demand for energy ?
What steps would you suggest to reduce energy consumption ? [CBSE 2010]
Ans. Tire increasing demand for energy is largely being met by the use of fossil fuels. But
these fuels are exhaustible and non-renewable sources of energy. Moreover, burning of fossil
fuels cause air pollution. Release of acidic oxides leading to acid rain affects our water and soil
resources. These gases also produce greenhouse effect leading to rise in temperature. Then, there
is a problem of disposal of ash produced due to burning of coal. Thus, our environment is being
degraded.
To reduce energy consumption we should lead a simple and a natural life. As an example,
instead of using an air conditioner in a closed room we should live in an airy room having
appropriate number of windows.
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Q.l. Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy ?
(a) Ocean energy (b) Sun
(c) Fossil fuels (d) Wind energy
Q.2. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy ?
(a) Coal (b) Petroleum
(c) Natural gas (d) Tidal energy
Q.3. Fossil fuels
(n) are non-renewable source of energy. (b) cause air pollution on burning.
(c) may lead to acid rains. (d) all of the above.
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Q.4. Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel ?
(a) Coal (b) Kerosene (c) CNG (d) Bio-gas
Q.5. In thermal power plants fuel used is
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(a) heavy water (b) uranium (c) bio-mass (d) fossil fuels
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Q.6. In a hydropower plant
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(a) potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into electricity.
(b) electricity is extracted from water.
(c) kinetic energy possessed by stored water is converted into potential energy.
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(d) water is converted into steam in order to produce electricity.
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Q.7. For a windmill to be functional minimum value of wind speed should be
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(a) 5 km h-i (b) 15 km h-1
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(c) 25 km h -i (d) 50 km h -i
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Q.8. The main constituent of bio-gas is

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(a) methane (b) carbon dioxide

(c) hydrogen (d) hydrogen sulphide
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Q.9. In a gobar gas plant bio-gas is produced from slurry of bio-mass by

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(a) fractional distillation

(b) chemical decomposition in the presence of air
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(c) anaerobic decomposition

(d) fermentation on heating
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Q.10. Which form of energy leads to least environmental pollution during the process of its
harnessing and utilisation ?
(a) Nuclear energy (b) Thermal energy
(c) Geothermal energy (d) Solar energy
Q.ll. Which material is used to design solar cells ?
(a) Silicon (b) Silver
(c) Carbon (d) Aluminium
Q.12. Ocean thermal energy is due to
(«) energy possessed by ocean waves.
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean.
(c) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean.
(d) sea tides arising out in the ocean.
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Q.13. Which of the following energy is not derived from the Sun ?
(a) Wind energy (b) Hydro power
(c) Solar energy (d) Geothermal energy
Q.14. Source of vast energy of the Sun is
(a) nuclear fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium along with release of energy.
(b) nuclear fission of uranium nuclei along with release of energy.
(c) combustion of fossil fuels leading to release of energy.
(d) both fission as well as fusion processes taking place simultaneously.
Q.15. Energy available from the oceans is
(a) ocean thermal energy (b) tidal energy
(c) sea wave energy (d) all of these
Q.16. An arrangement consisting of a number of solar cells joined together in a definite
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pattern is called
(a) solar heater (b) solar panel
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(c) solar cooker (d) solar radiator
Q.17. Slurry left in a gobar gas plant after producing gobar gas is
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(a) used as a fuel. (b) used as a manure.
(c) used as food by animals. (d) thrown away.
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1. (c) Fossil fuels are non-renewable source of energy.
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2. (d) Out of given energy sources only tidal energy is a renewable source of energy.
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3. (d) Fossil fuels are non-renewable, cause air pollution on burning and may lead to acid rains
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because on burning of fossil fuels oxides of nitrogen, carbon and sulphur are framed.
4. (d) Bio-gas is not a fossil fuel.
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5. (d) In thermal power plants fossil fuels like coal or petroleum or CNG are used as fuel.
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6. (a) In a hydropower plant the potential energy of water stored in a dam is converted into
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electricity.
7. (b) For a windmill to be functional the minimum value of wind speed should be about
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15 km h”1.
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8. (a) The main constituent of bio-gas is methane gas (about 75%).

9. (c) In a gobar gas plant bio-gas is produced from slurry of bio-mass by the process of
anaerobic decomposition (decomposition in the absence of atmospheric oxygen).
10. (d) Solar energy leads to least environmental pollution during the process of its harnessing
and utilisation.
11. (fl) Silicon is commonly used to design solar cells.
12. (b) Ocean thermal energy (OTE) is due to temperature difference at different levels in the
ocean.
13. (d) Geothermal energy is not derived from the Sun.
14. (a) Source of vast energy of the Sun is the nuclear fusion of four hydrogen nuclei into a single
helium nucleus going on at the centre of Sun. hi the process an extraordmarily large
amount of energy is released which is the energy radiated by the Sun.
15. (d) Energy available from the oceans is in any of three forms namely (/) ocean thermal
energy, (ii) tidal energy, and (Hi) sea wave energy.
ReadYourFlow.COM
16. (b) An arrangement consisting of a number of solar cells joined together in a definite pattern
is called a solar panel.
17. (b) Slurry left in a gobar gas plant after producing gobar gas can be used as a manure.

Q.l. State the two forms in which energy is mainly utilised at our homes.
Ans. Heat energy and electrical energy.
Q.2. What is a fuel ? [CBSE 2010, 2012]
Ans. Fuel is that which produces heat energy on burning e.g., firewood, charcoal, coal,
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petroleum, cooking gas etc.
Q.3. Name the gaseous fuel which has the highest calorific value ? [CBSE 2011]
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Ans. Hydrogen gas.
Q.4. Name the major sources of energy that largely fulfils the growing demand of energy
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in our country. [CBSE 2011]
Fr
Ans. Fossil fuels like coal and petroleum.
Q.5. State the ultimate source of the energy of fossil fuels. [CBSE 2012]
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Ans. Sun. f
Q.6. The use of dry wood as domestic fuel is not considered as good. State two reasons
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for it. [CBSE 2011]
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Ans. (/) Dry wood produces a lot of smoke on burning, which causes air pollution.
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(ii) It is a non-renewable source and its calorific value is not high.

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Q.7. What are the two disadvantages of burning fossil fuels ? [CBSE 2011]
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Ans. (/) Burning of fossil fuels produce smoke which causes air pollution.
(ii) Oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur released on burning fossil fuels cause green
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house effect as well as acid rain.

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Q.8. Name any two renewable sources of energy. I[CBSE 20121

Ans. Solar energy, wind energy, ocean wave energy, bio-energy etc.
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Q.9. Which one of the following is a renewable resource ?

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Natural gas, petroleum, ground water, coal.

Ans. Ground water.
Q.10. Name two sources of energy which are pollution free. I[CBSE 2011]
Ans. Solar energy and wind energy.
Q.ll. Name two alternative sources of energy.
Ans. Bio-gas, solar energy and ocean energy.
Q.12. Name the reaction responsible for large energy production in the Sun.
[CBSE 2012]
Ans. Nuclear fusion reaction taking place in the interior of the Sun.
Q.13. Give examples of any two activities from our daily life in which we use solar energy.
Ans. (a) For drying clothes after washing, (b) For drying of crops and various food products.
Q.14. Name some devices used for harnessing solar energy.
Ans. Solar cooker, solar water heater, solar cell etc.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.15. In solar cooker, why is its inner surface blackened ? [CBSE 2010]
Ans. Because black surface easily absorbs solar radiation incident on it.
Q.16. Why is the solar cooker box covered with a plane glass plate ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. The glass plate allows solar radiation to pass through it but the heat radiation from
inside are not allowed to escape by the glass plate. Thus, it helps in maintaining temperature
inside solar cooker high.
Q.17. What type of reflector is used in box type solar cooker ? [CBSE 2010]
Or
Mention the main purpose of using a plane mirror in solar cookers. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. The plane mirror reflects sun rays so that these reflected rays fall on the item to be
cooked.
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Q.18. For what purpose box type solar cooker be used ?
Ans. To prepare food items that require slow heating e.g., boiling of rice, pulses and vegetables
etc.
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Q.19. Name the device that directly converts solar energy to electric energy.
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[CBSE 2010, 2011]
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Ans. A solar cell.
Q.20. Which material is best suited for making solar cells ? [CBSE 2010]
Ans. Silicon.
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Q.21. Name chief component of solar cells. Which energy conversion takes place in a solar
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cell ? [CBSE 2010, 2012]
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Ans. Silicon is the chief component of solar cells. A solar cell converts solar energy into
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electrical energy.
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Q.22. Mention two situations where solar cells are being used.
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Ans. (/) In artificial satellites, («) hi traffic lights.

Q.23. List two main advantages associated with solar cells. [CBSE 2010]
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Ans. (0 They have no moving parts and require little maintenance.

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(ii) They can be set up even in remote areas.

Q.24. What is a solar panel ? [CBSE 2011]
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Ans. A solar panel consists of a large number of solar cells combined together so that it can
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deliver enough electricity for practical use.

Q.25. What is wind energy ? [CBSE 2010]
Ans. The kinetic energy possessed by ah' due to its motion is called wind energy.
Q.26. What is the chief source of wind energy ? [CBSE 2010, 2012]
Ans. Sun (or solar energy). Wind is caused by unequal heating of land mass and water
bodies by solar radiation.
Q.27. What is the minimum wind velocity required for obtaining electric power with a
windmill generator ? [CBSE 2007]
Ans. 15 km h-1.
Q.28. How has the traditional use of wind energy been modified for our convenience ?
[CBSE 2010, 2011]
Ans. The rotatory motion of the traditional windmill is used to turn the turbine of the
electrical generator so that wind energy is converted into electrical energy.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.29. Construction of dams submerges large areas of forests. How does this contribute to
the greenhouse effect ? [CBSE 2011]
Or
How does construction of dams across the river get linked with the production of green
house gases ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Ans. Tire vegetation of submerged areas of forests rots under anaerobic conditions and gives
rise to methane, which is a greenhouse gas.
Q.30. What is the function of a hydroelectric power plant ?
Ans. To produce electrical energy at the expense of potential energy of stored water.
Q.31. List any one harm that is caused to environment by hydropower plant.
[CBSE 20131
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Ans. Large eco systems are destroyed when submerged under the water in dams constructed
for hydropower plants.
Q.32. What type of energy is possessed by huge waves near the sea shore ? [CBSE 20101
Flo
Ans. The tidal energy.
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Q.33. Write two different ways of harnessing energy from ocean. [CBSE 2010, 2012]
Fr
Ans. Tidal energy, wave energy and ocean thermal energy are the different ways of harnessing
energy from ocean.
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Q.34. Name a non-conventional renewable source of energy which can be harnessed for 24
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hours throughout the year.
Ans. Geothermal energy.
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Q.35. What is bio-mass ? [CBSE 2010, 2012]
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Ans. Remains of dead animals, animal waste, agricultural waste etc., constitute bio-mass
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e.g., cow dung, sewage, husk, vegetable waste etc.

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Q.36. Give the composition of the slurry fed into the digester of a gobar gas plant.
[CBSE 20111
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Ans. Slurry consists of mixture of bio-mass (cow dung) and water.

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Q.37. What is bio-gas ? [CBSE 2012]

Ans. Gases produced by anaerobic decomposition of plant and animal waste are called bio-gas.
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Q.38. Which one of the following gases is the major constituent of bio-gas ?
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Carbon monoxide, hydrogen, methane, carbon dioxide. [CBSE 2010, 20131

Ans. Methane gas.
Q.39. What is the use of the slurry left behind in the digester of a bio-gas plant ? Give
reason. [CBSE 2012]
Or
List two nutrients that the slurry left behind in a bio-gas plant contains. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. It serves as an excellent manure because it is rich in nitrogen and phosphorous.
Q.40. How does bio-gas plant help to reduce the problem of pollution ? [CBSE 20111
Ans. In a bio-gas plant huge quantity of bio waste and sewage is used in a safe and efficient
manner. Thus it helps in reducing pollution.
Q.41. Define the term "nuclear fission". [CBSE 2007]
Ans. Splitting up of a nucleus of uranium, when bombarded by neutrons, into two lighter
nuclei along with release of a large amount of energy is called nuclear fission.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.42. Which process is the basic cause of nuclear energy ?

Ans. Nuclear fission of a nucleus of a heavy atom (uranium, plutonium and thorium) when
bombarded by a slow moving neutron.
Q.43. Write one advantage of nuclear fission reaction. ICBSE 2007]
Ans. In a nuclear fission reaction large amount of energy is released by a small quantity of
nuclear fuel, which can be easily converted into electrical energy.
Q.44. Suggest any two reasons which make the large scale usage of nuclear energy
prohibitive. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. High cost of installation of a nuclear power plant and problems of safe disposal of
nuclear waste are two main reasons.
Q.45. How is nuclear energy generated during nuclear fusion ?
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Ans. When two nuclei of deuterium join together to form a helium nucleus, large amount
of energy is released by conversion of a small amount of mass in to energy.
Q.46. Write the full form of CNG. [CBSE 2011]
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Ans. Compressed Natural Gas.
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Q.47. Name the volatile liquid boiled with the warm surface water of oceans for running
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ocean thermal energy plants. [CBSE 2013]
Or
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Write the name of the substance whose vapours are used to run the turbine of the generator
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of ocean thermal energy plant. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. Ammonia.
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Q.l. You have wood, kerosene and LEG. Which one source of energy would you use for
cooking your food and why ? Give three reasons. [CBSE 2010]
Ans. We shall use LPG because (/) it is convenient to use and does not produce smoke,
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(ii) it has high calorific value, and (Hi) no residue is left after burning of LPG.
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Q.2. Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable sources of energy with one
example for each. [CBSE 2010, 2011]
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Or
List in tabular form two major differences between renewable and non-renewable sources
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of energy. [CBSE 2012, 2013]

Ans.
Renezvable sources of energy Non-renewable sources of energy
These are the energy sources which are These are the energy sources which are
inexhaustible i.e., can be replenished and can exhaustible i.e., cannot be replenished after
be used to produce energy again and again. being once consumed.
Solar energy, energy of flowing water, wind Fossil fules e.g., coal, petroleum, natural gas
energy are renewable sources of energy. and wood are non-renewable sources of
energy.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.3. Write two advantages of classifying energy sources as renewable and non-renewable.
[CBSE 2008]
Ans. The classification of energy sources as renewable and non-renewable helps us to know :
(z) which energy source should be judiciously used.
(ii) how to conserve non-renewable sources of energy and find alternate sources of energy.
Q.4. Explain, why fossil fuels are classified as non-renewable sources of energy.
[CBSE 2010, 2012]
Ans. Fossil fuels were formed due to certain very slow changes occurring inside the earth
under special circumstances spread over millions of years. Since these conditions are not prevailing
now, it is not possible to replenish the amount of fossil fuels being consumed. Hence, these are
classified as non-renewable sources of energy.
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Q.5. Why is the use of wood as a fuel not advised, although forests can be replenished ?
[CBSE 2006]
Ans. Although wood can be obtained by cutting trees but a tree takes more than fifteen
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years to mature. Hence, replenishment of forests takes an extraordinarily long time. It is due to
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this reason that the use of wood as a fuel is not advised.
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Q.6. What do you mean by alternative sources of energy ? Give two examples too.
Ans. Those renewable sources of energy, which were previously not being used conventionally
and which can be employed now, are known as alternative sources of energy. Ocean energy, bio
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energy and wind energy are some examples of alternative sources of energy.
Q.7. What is the principle of solar cookers ? Name the common type of solar cooker.
ks
Ans. Solar cookers use solar radiation. The heat absorbing property of black surfaces and the
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greenhouse effect of glass are utilised in making of solar cooker. Commonly "Box type solar
B
cooker" is used as its design is simple and it is easy to operate.

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Q.8. Out of two solar cookers one was covered by a plane glass slab and other was left
open. Which of two solar cookers will be more efficient and why ? [CBSE 2010]
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Ans. The solar cooker covered by a plane glass slab is more efficient. It is on account of the
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fact that the glass covering allows solar radiation into the solar cooker but does not allow higher
wavelength radiation emitted by solar cooker to escape outside.
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Q.9. Explain why :

(a) Solar cookers are covered with glass plate.
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(b) The solar cooker is painted black from inside. [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Ans. (a) The glass plate covering helps in retention of heat inside the solar cooker on account
of greenhouse effect. As a result, inside temperature is higher and maintained constant.
(b) The black surface is a good absorber of thermal radiation. Hence all solar radiation
incident on the solar cooker are easily absorbed by it.
Q.10. You are given two solar cookers, one with a plane mirror as reflector and the other
with concave mirror as reflector. Which one is more efficient and why ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Ans. The solar cooker with a concave mirror as a reflector is more efficient because a concave
reflector focuses all the incident solar energy on to the food item to be cooked.
Q.ll. How is a solar panel prepared ? What is its power output ?
Ans. Electricity output of a single solar cell is quite small. Hence to have larger output
power we combine together a large number of solar cells using silver conductor. Such an
arrangement is called a solar panel. Its power output depends upon the number of solar cells
joined in one panel.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.12. How does a solar panel lights up a bulb or tube during night time when no solar
radiation is present at that time ?
Ans. The electricity generated by a solar panel during day time is utilised to charge storage
batteries. These batteries operate an inverter system during night time and the inverter supplies
required alternating current to light up the bulb, tube or other appliances.
Q.13. List three technological applications for solar panel. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. (/) Solar panels are used as the main source of energy in all artificial satellites.
(ii) Solar panels are used as a source of electricity for radio or wireless transmission and
at TV relay stations.
(Hi) Solar panels are used in traffic lights.
Q.14. List any three advantages of using solar cells. [CBSE 2013]
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Ans. See Answer to Question Number 13 just above.
Q.15. What is a wind energy farm ? What is its importance ?
Ans. A wind energy farm consists of a number of windmills erected over a large area such
that the energy output of each windmill in a farm is coupled together. A wind energy farm can,
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thus, generate electricity on a commercial scale.
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Q.16. State the energy transformation taking place at hydropower plants. List two
advantages of setting up hydropower plants. [CBSE 2012]
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Ans. The potential energy of water stored in a dam is transformed into electrical energy in
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a hydropower plant.
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Tire advantages of setting up hydropower plants are :
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(i) Tire hydropower energy is a renewable energy.

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(ii) Once constructed, a hydropower plant produces electric energy for a long period at a
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very low cost.

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Q.17. Why is energy of water flowing in a river considered to be an indirect form of solar
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energy ? [CBSE 2007]

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Ans. During evaporation process at sea level, a part of the solar energy gets converted into
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potential energy of water molecules, which rise up in the air to form clouds. The potential energy
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of water molecules in clouds gets converted into kinetic energy during rain and snowfall. Thus,
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energy of water flowing in a river is an indirect form of solar energy.

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Q.18. Briefly describe, the principle of using tidal energy to produce electricity.
[CBSE 2010]
Ans. To harness tidal energy, a dam is constructed across a narrow opening to the sea. Tire
water moves in and out of the openings in the dam during high and low tides. As the water
moves through the openings, it flows over the turbines fixed inside the dam that generate electricity.
Q.19. Discuss one limitation each for the extraction of energy from :
(a) winds (h) tides. [CBSE 2008]
Ans. See Question Number 6 of "Textbook Exercises Questions".
Q.20. Name two forms in which solar energy manifests itself in oceans.
Ans. (i) The energy of waves that continuously sweep the ocean coasts is a manifestation of
solar energy.
(ii) Tire difference in temperature between warm surface waters heated by the Sun and
colder waters found at ocean depths is also on account of solar energy. It is known as ocean
thermal energy.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.21. Study the following diagram [Fig. 8.1] and answer the following questions :
(*) Label the parts (1) and (2).
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UU ULIU
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2
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Fig. 8.1
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(b) Suggest a suitable heading for the above diagram. [CBSE 2007]
Ans. (a) (/) Water reservoir, (n) Turbine.
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(b) Hydroelectric power plant.
Q.22. What are the advantages of geothermal energy ? [CBSE 2011]
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Ans. (/) It can be harnessed for 24 hours throughout the year.
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(») It is clean and environment friendly.

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(Hi) Tire cost of electricity produced is nominal.

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Q.23. Name the process for obtaining charcoal from wood. What are the advantages and
disadvantages of burning charcoal over wood ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]
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Ans. Charcoal is obtained by destructive distillation of wood.

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Advantages : (/) It burns easily producing no smoke, (ii) It gives twice as much heat as is
obtained by burning the same mass of wood.
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Disadvantages: It is expensive. One kilogram of wood gives only 1/4 kg of charcoal by

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destructive distillation.
Q.24. Name the different constituents of bio-gas.
Ans. Bio-gas contains methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide gases.
However, about 75% quantity of bio-gas is methane.
Q.25. 'Bio-gas is considered as an ideal fuel for domestic use/ List any four reasons to
justify this statement. [CBSE 2011, 2012]
Ans. (i) It burns without smoke.
(ii) It does not produce any ash.
(Hi) It can be used directly for heating, lighting and generating electricity.
(iv) The slurry that is left behind in a bio-gas plant is used as manure rich in nitrogenous
and phosphorus compounds.
(i>) It is an efficient source of energy.
Q.26. Bio-gas is considered to be a boon to farmers. Give reasons. [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Ans. Bio-gas is a boon to farmers because (i) it produces a clean fuel from animal dung and
agricultural waste, (ii) it produces good quality manure for use in his fields.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.27. What are the constituents of bio-gas ? Write any two uses of this gas.
[CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Ans. See answers of Short Answer Type Question Number 25 and 26 given above.
Q.28. Write the general principle involved in generating nuclear energy. Name one fuel
used in a nuclear reactor. [CBSE 2010, 2012]
Ans. Nuclear fission is the process in which the nucleus of a heavy atom such as uranium
(U-235), plutonium and thorium is splitted up into two lighter nuclei when bombarded with low
energy neutrons, hr nuclear fission, the mass of the original nucleus is just a little more than the
sum of the masses of the fission products. This mass loss is transformed into energy in accordance
with Einstein's mass-energy relation.
Q.29. How is electrical power produced in a nuclear reactor ? What is its main advantage ?
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[CBSE 2010]
Ans. In a nuclear power reactor, the nuclear fuel (compound of uranium or plutonium) is
a part of a self-sustained nuclear fission chain reaction. Thus, energy is released at a controlled
rate. The released energy is used to produce steam. Steam drives the turbine of electric generator
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and generates electricity. rF
Main advantage of a nuclear reactor is that comparatively very large amount of energy is
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released by the nuclear fuel. Fission of one atom of uranium produces 107 times the energy
produced by the combustion of an atom of carbon from coal. or
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Q.30. What are the main hazards of nuclear power generation ?
Ans. Main hazards of nuclear power generation are as given below :
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(i) The most important problem is the storage and disposal of spent or used fuel because
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it is highly radioactive. Improper nuclear waste storage and disposal may lead to environmental
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contamination.
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(ii) There is a risk of accidental leakage of nuclear radiation from the nuclear reactor.
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(Hi) Cost of installation of a nuclear power plant is very high.

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Q.31. What is the source of energy in the Sun and the stars ? What are the conditions
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needed ? [CBSE 2010, 2011]

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Ans. Energy in the Sun and stars is generated by nuclear fusion reaction. In nuclear fusion
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two or more lighter nuclei join to form a heavier nucleus alongwith release of an extremely high
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amount of energy.
The cause of energy generation is conversion of a small part of mass into energy in accordance
with Einstein's mass energy relation.
For nuclear fusion to take place temperatures of millions of degrees and extreme pressure of
millions of pascals are needed arid there should be lot of hydrogen. These conditions are fulfilled
in central part of Sun and strars.
Q.32. What do you mean by a clean fuel ? Is an absolute clean fuel available ?
Ans. A clean fuel is that which does not cause environmental damage when used to produce
energy.
No fuel is absolutely clean. Some environmental damage (pollution) is caused either directly
or indirectly by the fuel. Burning of fossil fuels cause air pollution directly at the time of working.
The actual operation of solar cell is pollution free but some pollution would have caused during
the assembly stage of solar cells. Hence, we can only call one energy source as less or more
cleaner than other.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.33. Would you consider hydrogen to be a cleaner and more efficient fuel than CNG ?
If yes, why is it not used in everyday life ? [CBSE 2011, 2012]
Ans. Yes, hydrogen is a cleaner fuel because burning of hydrogen produces water vapour
which is non-polluting.
Hydrogen is not used in everyday life due to storage and transportation problems on account
of its explosive nature.
Q.34. Mention three ways to reduce the pollution caused by fossil fuels. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. Three ways to reduce the pollution caused by fossil fuels are :
(/) Increase the efficiency of the combustion process.
(//) Adequate techniques must be employed so as to reduce the escape of harmful gases
and ash into the surroundings.
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(in) The fossil fuel may be used to generate electricity, which can then be used in homes
and industry.
Q.35. What is a thermal power plant ? How does it work ?
Flo
Ans. Thermal power plant is a large sized assembly in which fuel is burnt to produce heat
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energy which is converted into electrical energy.
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In a thermal power plant, large amount of fossil fuel is burnt everyday to heat up water to
produce steam. This steam is utilised to run the turbine to generate electrical energy.
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Q.36. Why do we prefer to set up thermal power plant near coal or oil fields ?
[CBSE 2010, 20111
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Ans. We prefer to set up thermal power plants near coal or oil fields. It is because transmission
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of electricity is more efficient than transporting coal or petroleum over the same distance.
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Q.37. How is wind energy converted into electrical energy ?

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Ans. Windmill structure is similar to a large electric fan erected at a suitable height, ha fast
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wind, the windmill begins to rotate. The rotatory motion of the windmill is used to turn the
turbine of the electric generator so as to produce electrical energy.
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Q.l. What are the two most commonly used forms of energy ? What are their sources ?
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Ans. Two most commonly used forms of energy are :

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(i) Thermal (heat) energy and it is obtained by burning of fuels like firewood, cow-dung
cakes, charcoal, coal, petroleum products, natural gas, etc.
(n) Electrical energy, which is generated by hanaesshag different types of sources of energy.
Some examples are hydro-electric power plants using energy of flowing water, thermal power
plant in which heat is produced by burning fuels and then the heat energy is converted into
electrical energy, nuclear power plants harnessing nuclear energy, solar panels, windmills, OTEC
power plants etc.
Q.2. (a) What is a fuel ?
(b) Write any two characteristics of a good fuel. [CBSE 20101
Ans. (a) A fuel is that which produces heat energy on burning. Wood, coal, charcoal, CNG
etc., are examples of fuels.
(b) A good fuel is that which is available easily at an economic rate, releases more heat on
burning and does not produce smoke.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.3. What are fossil fuels ? List four disadvantages of burning fossil fuels.
[CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Ans. Fossil fuels are fossil remains produced by the decay of plants and animals that were
buried in the earth millions of years ago. Coal and petroleum are fossil fuels.
For disadvantages, see NCERT Textbook Question Number 1 (Page number 248 of the
Textbook).
Q.4. State in brief the process of harnessing kinetic energy of the wind to do work.
Mention limitations of harnessing wind energy on a large scale. [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Ans. Tire kinetic energy of the wind is utilised in running windmills. A windmill may do
mechanical work like pumping out water or grinding foodgrains. Now-a-days windmills are
used to run turbines of electric generators and thereby producing electrical energy.
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For limitations, see Textbook Exercise Question Number 6(a).
Q.5. What is meant by wind energy farms ? Write one of its practical applications. Give
any two limitations of using wind energy. [CBSE 2012]
Flo
Ans. A wind energy farm consists of a number of windmills erected over a large area such
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that output of all these windmills is coupled together.
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A wind energy farm is a renewable source of energy generating electricity on a commercial
scale.
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For limitations of wind energy, see Textbook Exercise Question Number 6(a).
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Q.6. Explain, how does a hydro power plant produce electricity. [CBSE 2010]
Ans. A hydro, power plant converts the potential energy of stored water into electricity.
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To produce hydro power electricity, a high rise dam is constructed at a suitable place on the
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river to obstruct the flow of water and thereby collect water in a large sized reservoir. Due to rise
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of water level, the kinetic energy of flowing water is transformed into potential energy of stored
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water.
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Reservoir
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Sluice Powerhouse
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gates ■>
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Generator 3
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Turbine
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Fig. 8.2
Tire water from the high level in the dam is carried through sluice gates and pipes to the
turbine of electric generator, which is fitted at the bottom of the dam. Due to flowing water,
turbine is rotated at a fast rate and electricity is produced.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Q.7. Mention advantages and disadvantages of producing hydro electricity by building

dams on rivers.
Ans. Advantages :
(/) The potential energy of water at the top of the dam is readily available to rotate the
turbine blades at the bottom of the dam.
(ii) The available water is used for irrigation purposes.
(Hi) Occurrence of floods during rainy seasons can be controlled by constructing dams.
(iv) Since the water in the reservoir should be refilled each time it rains, hydro power is
a renewable source of energy.
Disadvantages :
(/) Dams can be constructed at a limited number of places only.
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(ii) Large areas of land get submerged when dams are built on rivers. This causes many
long term environmental and social problems.
(Hi) It adversely affects the ecosystem of adjoining as well as downstream regions.
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Q.8. Describe how electricity is generated at hydropower plants. List two advantages of
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producing hydroelectricity. [CBSE 2012]
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Ans. See Question Number 6 and 7 given above.
Q.9. Why is the construction of dams opposed by the environment and social activists ?
List three reasons for the opposition of such projects. for [CBSE 2012]
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Or
Write the problems faced in construction of big dams. [CBSE 2010, 2011]
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Ans. See Short Answer Type Question Number 7 above.

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Q.10. Name three forms in which energy from oceans can be used. Explain briefly the
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working of OTEC plant. [CBSE 2012]

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Ans. Three forms in which energy from oceans is made available for use are :
(/') Tidal energy (ii) Ocean thermal energy (Hi) Ocean wave energy.
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OTEC (Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion) power plants are devices used to harness ocean
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thermal energy i.e., the energy obtained from ocean water due to the difference in temperature
at the surface and in deeper section of ocean. For operating an Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion
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power plant, a temperature difference of 20 °C or more between surface water and water at
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depths up to 2000 m is required. The warm surface water is used to boil a liquid like ammonia
or CFC. The vapour of the liquid is then used to drive turbine of generator. The cold water from
the ocean depths is pumped up to convert the vapour again into liquid.
OTEC systems can be operated for 24 hours, throughout the year. This advantage is not
possible in other ocean energy generating systems.
Q.ll. What is geothermal energy ? Briefly describe the principle of harnessing this energy.
What is its advantage ? [CBSE 2011, 2012]
Q.12. (i) Name the four gases commonly present in bio-gas.
(ii) List two advantages of using bio-gas over fossil fuels. [CBSE 20101
Ans. (i) Tire four gases commonly present in bio-gas are methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen
and hydrogen sulphide.
ReadYourFlow.COM
(ii) Main advantages of using bio-gas over fossil fuels are as given below :
(1) Bio-gas burns completely and leaves no residue i.e., ash.
(2) Bio-gas is a renewable, convenient and efficient source of energy.
(3) It gives us a safe method to dispose off wastes like animal dung, human excreta and
other bio-wastes.
Q.13. Suggest two materials that can be used to produce bio-gas. Mention two uses of bio
gas and two advantages of bio-gas plant. [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Ans. Animal dung, sewage, crop residue etc., can be used to produce bio-gas. For uses of
bio-gas see Short Answer Type Question Number 12 given above.
Advantages of a bio-gas plant are :
1. It provides an efficient and safe method to dispose off waste materials.
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2. The slurry left in a bio-gas plant can be used as manure because it is rich in nitrogenous
and phosphorus compounds.
3. A bio-gas plant can be installed any where at a small cost.
4. It does not cause any pollution or contamination of environment.
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Q.14. (fl) How charcoal is better fuel than wood, why ?
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(b) How does bio-gas plant help to reduce the problem of pollution ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. (a) Charcoal is a better fuel than wood because it burns without flames, is comparatively
smokeless and has a higher heat generation efficiency. for
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(b) See Short Answer Type Question Number 13 just above.
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Q.15. Draw a schematic diagram of a fixed dome type bio-gas plant. [CBSE 2011]
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Ans. The schematic diagram of a fixed dome type bio-gas plant has been shown in the
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Fig. 8.3 given below :

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Slurry
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Gas outlet
Manure
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Fertiliser
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Soil Soil
Gas tank
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Outlet
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Digester
Fig. 8.3
Q.16. Describe the steps involved in obtaining bio-gas and explain what is meant by
anaerobic decomposition. [CBSE 2011]
Or
Write the sequence of events taking place in a bio-gas plant. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. Tire following steps are involved in obtaining bio-gas :
(/) Bio-mass suitable for production of bio-gas is collected. Bio-mass includes animal dung,
sewage, crop residues, vegetable wastes etc.
(ii) A slurry of bio-mass with water is made in a mixing tank called digestor for degrading,
by anaerobic micro-organisms. These tanks are sealed chambers.
ReadYourFlow.COM
(Hi) In order to get a continuous supply of bio-gas, the plant is fed regularly with waste.
Anaerobic decomposition means breaking down the complex compounds of bio-mass in the
slurry in the presence of water by micro-organisms.
Q.17. Why is the use of bio-mass to generate heat :
(/) discouraged from burning it directly in ovens (chulahs), and
(ii) encouraged for obtaining bio-gas through a bio-gas plant ? [CBSE 2011]
Ans. (0 Use of bio-mass to generate heat by burning it directly in open chulahs is discouraged
because it is not an efficient way to produce heat and lot of smoke and ash is produced.
(ii) Use of bio-mass is encouraged to obtain bio-gas because it utilises waste material and
helps control of pollution. The bio-gas is a very good fuel and good quality manure is obtained
as a by-product.
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Q.18. State the advantages of obtaining bio-gas from animal dung and bio-wastes.
Ans. (/') Bio-gas is an efficient source of energy having high thermal efficiency.
(ii) It caii also be used for production of electricity.
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(Hi) It does not leave any residue after burning.
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(iv) The slurry that is left in a bio-gas plant, is an excellent source of nitrogenous and
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phosphorus compounds and hence a good manure.
(u) The bio-gas production results in efficient and safe method to dispose off wastes.
Q.19. What is bio-mass ? Explain the principle and working of a bio-gas plant using a
for
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labelled schematic diagram. [CBSE 2011]
Ans. Animal dung, crop residue, vegetable waste and sewage constitute the bio-mass. A bio
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gas plant is shown in Fig. 8.3. In a bio-gas plant slurry of animal dung or other types of bio-waste
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and water is made in the mixing tank and then fed into the digester. The digester is usually a
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closed underground tank, hi digester, the action of micro-organisms decomposes the complex
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compounds of the bio-mass in the slurry. In the presence of water anaerobic micro-organisms
degrade the bio-mass in the digester. As anaerobic micro-organisms do not require oxygen, the
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digester is designed like a sealed chamber. The complete degradation process takes few days,
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during which bio-gases are produced. Now the bio-gas can be supplied to consumers through
pipes. Periodically the slurry, that is left behind in the digester, is removed and it serves as an
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excellent manure.
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Q.20. Explain the function of digester in a bio-gas plant. List the two main components of
bio-gas. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. In the digester of a bio-gas plant the bio-mass present in the slurry is degraded due to
anaerobic micro-organisms. During this degradation process, which takes few days, bio-gas is
produced.
Two main constituents of bio-gas are methane and hydrogen.
Q.21. Name an efficient fuel obtained from cow dung and other animal and plant wastes.
Also mention its constituents. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. Bio-gas is an efficient fuel obtained from animal waste and plant waste in a bio-gas
plant.
Constituents of bio-gas are methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide gases.
Q.22. Answer the following questions on the basis of the diagram of a bio-gas plant given
below [Fig. 8.4] :
(a) What is bio-mass ? How is bio-gas obtained from bio-mass ?
ReadYourFlow.COM
(b) Why is bio-gas considered an ideal fuel ?

(c) Name the parts labelled A, B and C in the diagram. [CBSE 2008]
n A n i, !Li
3 B □
wtmmmem
"IS
Fig. 8.4
Ans. (a) Cow dung, various plant materials like the residue after harvesting the crops, veg
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etable waste and sewage are known as bio-mass. Bio-gas is obtained by anaerobic decomposition
of bio-mass.
(b) See Short Answer Type Question Number 12(n) (Three Marks Each).
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(c) Part A is mixing tank in which slurry is prepared. Part B is overflow tank from which
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spent slurry is removed. Part C is the gas tank.
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Q.23. How can one say that Sun is the main source of energy on the earth ?
Ans. Solar energy manifests itself in many forms through many processes both biological
and physical. Plants utilise solar energy for photosynthesis. The solar energy trapped by land and
for
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water bodies brings about many physical changes resulting in wind, storm, ocean waves etc. Also
fossil fuels e.g., coal, natural gas, petrol etc., have been formed due to very slow changes which
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occurred millions of years ago and were related to solar energy. Energy of bio-gas etc., is also
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derived from solar energy.

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Q.24. With the help of a diagram, explain the construction and working of a box type solar
[CBSE 2012]
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cooker.
Ans. Construction: The box of the solar cooker is made of non-conducting material e.g.,
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plastic or fibre glass with thick inner walls. These walls are painted in black. A plane mirror is
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hinged on the top so that it reflects sunlight into the box.

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Plane Mirror
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Double glass lid •—

Thermal insulation
Blackened surface
Cooking containers
Outer box
Fig. 8.5
Working: The purpose of the box is to increase the effective area for collection of solar
energy. Whole box is covered with glass sheets. These glass sheets prevent the loss of longer
wavelength infrared radiation from inside the box to outside. Within two to three hours, the
temperature inside rises to about 140 °C.
Q.25. Name two semiconductors used in solar cell. What is solar cell panel ? State two
main advantages of solar panel. [CBSE 2010]
ReadYourFlow.COM
Ans. Silicon and gallium are two semiconductors used in solar cell.
A solar panel is an arrangement in which a large number of solar cells are combined so that .
it can deliver enough electricity for practical use.
Solar panels have following advantages :
1. They have no moving parts, require little maintenance and work quite satisfactorily
without the use of any focussing device.
2. These can be set up in remote and inaccessible hamlets or very sparsely populated
areas where laying of a power transmission line is not commercially viable.
Q.26. Why is not possible to make use of solar cells to meet all our energy needs ? State
at least three reasons to support your answer. 1CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Ans. Although solar cell panels provide a clean, pollution-free and environment-friendly
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source of electricity, yet they can be used for a limited purpose and fail to meet all our domestic
needs of electricity due to the following reasons :
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(?) Their installation cost is very high on account of following : (a) Special grade silicon
required for making solar cells is only limited, (b) Technology to obtain silicon in pure form is
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expensive, (c) Silver conductor is to be used for connecting solar cells in a solar panel, which is
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again very expensive.
(ii) There is a practical problem of availability of efficient systems that can store electricity
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generated by solar cells and make it available when required. Storage batteries and inverters are
to be used. It again enhances the cost and reduces the efficiency.
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(Hi) Solar panels cannot work on cloudy and rainy days.
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Q.27. Mention any four areas where solar cells are being used as a source of energy.
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[CBSE 2011, 2012]

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Ans. (i) In artificial satellites as source of energy.

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(ii) As source of electricity for radio broadcast and TV relay stations.

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(Hi) Traffic lights and research centres in remote areas.

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(iv) In calculators and toys.

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Q.28. What are the main advantages of solar energy ? [CBSE 2010]
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Ans. Main advantages of solar energy are as follows :

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(i) No fuel or electricity is needed for harnessing solar energy.

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(ii) The solar energy is available in abundance and it can be obtained anywhere, even in
remote areas.
(Hi) The upkeep and maintenance of solar energy devices requires nominal expenditure only.
(iv) It is environmental friendly.
(v) There is no residue like ash, which is to be disposed off.
Q.29. How is nuclear energy generated ? State in brief the process of utilising this energy
in the production of electricity. Mention the major hazard of nuclear power generation.
[CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Ans. See Point Numbers 40, 42 and 44 under the heading "Chapter At A Glance".
Q.l. What is the main basic cause for winds to blow ? Name a part of India where wind
energy is commercially harnessed. Compare wind power and power of water flow in respect
of generating mechanical and electrical energies. What is the hindrance in developing them ?
ReadYourFlow.COM
Ans. Solar energy is the main basic cause for winds to blow.
Near Kanyakumari in the state of Tamil Nadu, a wind energy farm has prospects of producing
about 380 MW.
Energy Wind power Power of ivater flow
(/) Generation of In a water lifting pump, the The energy of flowing water is still
Mechanical energy rotational motion of windmills used to transport heavy logs of
is utilised to do mechanical wood from inaccessible areas of
work. forests in hilly areas.
(n) Generation of To produce electricity, the Energy of flowing water is utilised on
Electrical energy rotatory motion of windmills a large scale at hydro electric power
is utilised to rotate the armature plants. Water is stored in a high rise
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of a electric generator. dam. Through pipes water from the
top of dam is allowed to fall, which
rotates the turbine of power plant.
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The following are hindrances in developing :
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(z) Wind power :
(a) Wind power can be harnessed only at places where winds are flowing for most part
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of the year.
(b) In order that a windmill is workable, a wind velocity of atleast 15 km/h is essential.
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(ii) Power of water flow :
{a) To harness water flow power, dams are to be constructed resulting in deluge of a large
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part of land with consequent environmental problems.
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(b) In hills, the power from water flow can be harnessed where the water falls from the
height of at least 10 metres.
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Q.2. Name the major fuel component of bio-gas. What are its other combustible
components ?
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Draw a simple labelled diagram of a fixed dome type bio-gas plant. What is the use for
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the residual slurry and why ? [CBSE 2010, 2012]

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Ans. The major fuel component of bio-gas is methane gas. It constitutes about 75% of total
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bio-gas.
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Other combustible components of bio-gas plant are hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide gases.
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Labelled diagram of a fixed dome type bio-gas plant is given in Fig. 8.3.
Residual slurry from bio-gas plant is used as manure because it is rich in nitrogen and
phosphorous.
Q.3. What is bio-gas ? How is it obtained from cow-dung ? Draw a labelled diagram of
a fixed dome type bio-gas plant.
Ans. Bio-gas is a self-sustaining source of fuel and electricity, and therefore, it has gained
acceptance by both rural arid urban population.
Bio-gas is a mixture of gases produced during decay of bio-mass in the absence of oxygen.
Methane is the main constituent of bio-gas.
The floating dome type gas plant is generally used to prepare bio-gas from cow-dung. A slurry
of cow-dung and water is fed into an underground tank made of bricks called digester. In the digester,
the action of micro-organisms breaks down or decomposes the complex compounds of the bio-mass
into simpler compounds, hi this process of anaerobic decomposition, mixture of gases like methane,
carbon dioxide, hydrogen and. hydrogen sulphide are produced which constitute bio-gas.
For labelled diagram of a fixed dome type bio-gas plant see Fig. 8.3.
ReadYourFlow.COM
PRACTICALS
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PHYSICS
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CHEMISTRY
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BIOLOGY
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PHYSICS PRACTICALS
LIST OF EXPERIMENTS
1. To study the dependence of potential difference (V) across a resistor on the current (I) passing
through it and determine its resistance. Also plot a graph between V and I.
2. To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in series.
3. To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in parallel.
ELECTRIC CURRENT, POTENTIAL DIFFERENCE AND RESISTORS
Electric current: Electric current is defined as the time rate of flow of electric charge through any
cross-section of a conductor.
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Charge flown Q
Current I =
Time t
SI unit of electric current is 1 ampere (1 A) and it is equal to rate of flow of 1 coulomb charge per
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second. 1 A current is produced when 6.25 x 1018 electrons flow through a cross-section of a
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conductor per second.
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Electric current is a scalar. By convention the direction of electric current is considered from -i-ve
potential towards -ve potential.
Potential difference : Electric potential difference between two points on a conductor, through
or
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which a current is flowing, is defined as the amount of work done in order to move unit positive
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charge from one point to another.
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Unit of potential difference is 1 volt (1 V). Potential difference is said to be 1 V if a work of 1 J is
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needed for transfer of 1 C charge between two points.

As unit of potential difference is 1 volt, in common parlance the term potential difference is
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referred as the "voltage".

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In an electric circuit, current always flows from higher potential side to lower potential side.
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Hence, for maintaining flow of current through a conductor it is essential that a potential difference
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be maintained across the ends of the conductor.

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Sources of current: Any source of current basically develops a potential difference between its
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two terminals. As a result, on joining a conductor between these terminals, a current begins to flow
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through it.
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In laboratory, an electrochemical cell is the simplest device used as a source of potential

difference/current. Cells are of two types :
1. Primary cells which cannot be recharged and once exhausted they become useless. Voltaic cell,
dry cell, Leclanche's cell and Daniel cell are examples of primary cells.
2. Secondary cells which can be recharged again and again and can be used for a long time. Lead
accumulator and Ni-Fe cells are secondary cells.
A combination of two or more cells is called a battery.
Ohm's law : According to Ohm's law, physical conditions like temperature remaining un-
changed, the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference
applied across its ends. Mathematically,
V I or V = RI, where R is a constant for the given conductor and is known as its resistance.
(P-1 )
ReadYourFlow.COM
P-2 U-Like Science-X
Resistance : Resistance of a conductor is a measure of opposition offered by it for flow of current.

It is defined as the ratio of the potential difference applied across the ends of conductor to the current
flowing through it.
SI unit of resistance is ohm (Q). Resistance is said to be 1 £2 if a potential difference of 1 V is
required for maintaining flow of 1 A current through the given conductor.
Resistance of a conductor depends upon its length, cross-section area and the material.
Grouping of resistances :
(i) When resistors of resistances Rj, R2, are joined in series then the equivalent (or
resultant) resistance R is given by the relation
R — R| + R2 + R3 +
(ii) If resistors of resistances Rj, R2/ R3 are connected in parallel then the equivalent
resistance R is given by the relation
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— —------ 1-------- 1--------- 1-..........
R Rj R2 R3
Electric circuit : An electric circuit essentially consists of a source of electric current (cell or
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battery or a.c. supply), load (resistors), switches (keys) and other elements connected together by
good conducting wires (generally of copper or aluminium). When the switch is on, a current flows
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through the circuit.
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EXPERIMENT 1
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Aim : To study the dependence of potential difference (V) across a resistor on the current (I)
passing through it and determine its resistance. Also plot a graph between V and I.
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Theory : For a given conductor the amount of current (I) flowing is directly proportional to the
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potential difference (V) maintained across its ends. Hence,

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Roc I
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V
or ratio of y is a constant. If by using the rheostat we change the potential difference across the
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conductor, the current also changes correspondingly such that ratio — remains unchanged.
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The ratio y = R is the resistance of given conductor.
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Circuit diagram :
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AA/VW\
X R Y
WWW-
HHHi-—(•) Rh
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Precautions and sources of error :
1. Draw correct diagram and get it checked by your teacher before handling the apparatus.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Physics Practicals P-3
2. Before making electrical connections set the apparatus on the table as per arrangement shown
in the circuit diagram. Remove plug from the key.
3. Clean the ends of the connecting wires by a piece of sand paper before making the connections.
4. All the electrical connections must be neat, clean and tight.
5. Before putting plug into the key, get your connections checked.
6. The positive terminal of the ammeter as well as voltmeter should be connected to the positive
terminal of the battery.
7. Ammeter is to be connected in series and voltmeter in parallel with the given resistance wire/
coil. Note their least counts carefully.
8. Zero error present, if any, in ammeter/voltmeter should be noted and proper corrections
should be applied for it.
9. Plug.should be inserted into the plug key only at the time of taking observations. Immediately
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after taking observations the plug should be removed.
10. At least six sets of readings should be taken by gradually changing the value of current flowing
in the circuit by shifting the position of sliding contact of rheostat.
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11. For plotting the V-I graph, appropriate scales may be selected along X and Y axes so that almost
whole graph paper is used.
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12. The graph plotted should be a smooth curve.
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EXPERIMENT 2
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Aim : To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in series.
Theory: In series arrangement, two resistors are connected end to end as shown in the adjoining
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figure. If resistors having resistances Ri and R2 are connected in series then the resultant resistance in
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series Rs is given by /vWW—•—-/'A'VvV'-------- •

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Rs - Ri+ Ri R R2
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Circuit diagram :
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•AWv-------- WvVv
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X R r2
—(•) wWvV'
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EXPERIMENT 3
Aim : To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in parallel.
Theory : In parallel arrangement, two resistors are connected in such a way that one end of each
resistor is connected to one common point X and the other end of each resistor is connected to one
common point Y as shown in the following figure.
ReadYourFlow.COM
-/vWv
Ri
Y
vWW
R2
If two resistors having resistances and R2 are connected in parallel the equivalent resistance of
the parallel combination is given by
J_ = J_ J_
Rp Ri *2
=> RP =
Ri + R2
Circuit diagram :
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vWW
Ri
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'M'W
r2
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—(•> WWW'
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B K Rh
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON PRACTICAL SKILLS

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Select the correct option out of the four possible options given after the statement of the
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question:
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1. To determine the equivalent resistance of three resistors, when connected in parallel arrangement,
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four students connected the resistors as follows :

Ri
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•/vWW'
r2 R2
Ri r3
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—►-WVWA wvVvV—►— VvWW'

R3
■/WYvV'
(A) (B)
r2 Ri R2
jVWVV-----/vWW'—
Ri
•—*—yvWvW
R3 r3
■vWW/'-------- -aaaam
(C) (D)
The correct set up is that of student
(«) ^4 (b) B (c) C (d) D
[CBSE 2011, 2013]
ReadYourFlow.COM
2. A student has to connect 4 cells of 1.5 V each, to form a battery of 6 V. The correct way of
connecting these cells is shown in figure :
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) A (b) B
(c) C id) D. [CBSE 2011, 2012]
3. Out of the four circuits shown for studying the dependence of the current on the potential
difference across a resistor, the correct circuit is :
(A) (B)
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A A
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(C) (D)
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A A
R R
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(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D. [CBSE 2012]
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4. An ammeter has 20 divisions between 20 mA and 30 mA. The least count of the ammeter is
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(a) 0.5 mA (b) 1 mA (c) 0.25 mA (d) 0.05 mA

[CBSE 2012]
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5. In a voltmeter there are 20 divisions between 0 mark and 1 mark. The least count of the
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voltmeter is
(a) 20 V (b) 5.0 V (c) 0.05 V (d) 0.025 V
[CBSE 2012]
6. The given circuit diagram shows the experimental
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arrangement of different circuit components for
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determination of equivalent resistance of two resistors j
connected in series. The component X, Y and Z shown in
the circuit respectively represent
(a) Rheostat, Resistor, Ammeter Ri r2
------ —-AA/VW'----- siVWW'
(b) Voltmeter, Ammeter, Rheostat
(c) Ammeter, Voltmeter, Rheostat
(d) Rheostat, Ammeter, Voltmeter [CBSE 2011, 2012] 0
ReadYourFlow.COM
7. Four students plot graphs between V and I, showing dependence of current I on potential
difference V across a resistor as shown :
V V
1 I
O O I O I O 1
(B) (C) (D)
The correct graph is
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(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D. [CBSE 2012, 2023]
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8. For the circuits shown in figures I and II, the ammeter readings would be
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-/vVWv\.
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5Q 5Q
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5V 5V
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^HHt=------() ------ (•)

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(i) (ii)
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(a) 1 A in circuit I and 0 A in circuit II. (b) 0 A in both circuits.

(c) 1 A in both circuits. (d) 0 A in circuit I and 1 A in circuit II.
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[CBSE 2011]
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9. The normal positions of the pointers of the two ammeters and A2, and two voltmeters and
V2 available in the laboratory were as shown. For an experiment to study the dependence of the
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current on the potential difference across a resistor, the student should select:
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(a) ammeter A: and voltmeter (b) ammeter A2 and voltmeter

(c) ammeter A] and voltmeter V2 (d) ammeter A2 and voltmeter V2.
[CBSE 2012]
ReadYourFlow.COM
10. Which two circuit components are connected in parallel in the following circuit diagram ?
V'/'/VV'-A.
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(a) Rheostat and voltmeter (b) Voltmeter and ammeter
(c) Voltmeter and resistor (d) Ammeter and resistor.
[CBSE 2007, 2010]
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11. What is the resistor value in the given circuit ?
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+ 113 mA)
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R
for
ur
ks
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(a) 200 £2 (b) 1 kO

B
(c) 2kQ. (d) 4 k£2 [CBSE 2013]

re
12. If a student while studying the dependence of current on the potential difference keeps the
circuit closed for a long time to measure the current and potential difference, then
ou
ad
(a) ammeter's zero error will change.

Y
(b) ammeter will give more reading.

(c) voltmeter will show constantly higher readings.
nd
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(d) resistor will get heated up and its value will change. [CBSE 2011, 2012]
13. An ammeter can measure current upto 500 mA. There are 20 equal division between 0 and 100
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mA marks on its scale. During an experiment to determine the equivalent resistance of the two
resistors joined in parallel a student observes ammeter's pointer at 3rd graduation mark after
zero when the key is off and the pointer at the 17th graduation mark after 200 mA when the key
is inserted into the plug. The correct value of the current flowing in the circuit is
(a) 214 mA (b) 217 mA
(c) 270 mA (d) 285 mA [CBSE 2011]
ReadYourFlow.COM
14. The correct set up for studying the dependence of the current on the potential difference across
a resistor is
R R
/WvWn.
Ra>
■RHHt------- (> ------C>

(A) (B)
Ry>
low
AWVNA.
R R
ree
rF
F
------ (>
(a) A
(C)
(b) B or (D)
sf
u
(c) C (d) D [CBSE 2012]
k
15. The current flowing through a resistor connected in an electrical circuit and the potential
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difference developed across its ends are shown in the given diagrams :
B
re
ou
ad
Y
nd
Re
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The value of resistance of the resistor in ohms is

(«) 25 (b) 20
(c) 15 (d) 10 [CBSE 2007, 2010]
16. The correct set up for determining the equivalent resistance of two resistors and R2 when
connected in parallel is
Ri Ri
ww VvW
----
(I) (II)
ReadYourFlow.COM
<*)------&1
Ri
ww
—^
(IV)
(a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) rv [CBSE 2010, 2011]
17. Which of the circuit components in the following circuit
diagram are connected in parallel ?
(a) Ri and R2 only
w
R2
(b) R2 and V only
(c) R1 and V only
Flo
(d) Rlf R2 and V. [CBSE 2010, 2011] Ri
ee
Fr
18. To determine the equivalent resistance of a series combination <•>
of two resistors Rx and R2, a student arranges the following set
Ri R2
for
ur
up:
Which one of the following statements will be true for this
circuit ? It gives :
ks
Yo
(a) incorrect reading for current I as well as potential

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difference V.
B
(b) correct reading for current I but incorrect reading for

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potential difference V.
(c) correct reading for potential difference V but incorrect reading for current I.
ou
ad
(d) correct readings for both I and V.

Y
19. The following circuit diagram shows the experimental

set-up for the study of dependence of current on
nd
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potential difference. Which two circuit components

are connected in series ?
Fi
TvWvÂ
(a) Battery and voltmeter
(b) Ammeter and voltmeter
$
(c) Ammeter and rheostat
(d) Resistor and voltmeter. [CBSE 2007] ----- (»y
20. You are given four resistors. If the equivalent resistance is to be increased, then the resistors are
to be connected in
(a) series (b) parallel
(c) mixed arrangement (d) none of these [CBSE 2010]
21. In the experiment to determine resistance of a conductor
(a) ammeter and voltmeter both should be connected in series of given resistor.
{b) ammeter should be connected in series and voltmeter in parallel of given resistor.
ReadYourFlow.COM
(c) ammeter should be connected in parallel but voltmeter in series of given resistor.
(d) ammeter and voltmeter both should be connected in parallel of given resistor.
22. In an experiment to study dependence of current I on the potential difference across a given
resistor, students kept the plug key in the circuit closed for time and then open for time t2. The
times and t2 for students P, Q, R and S are given in the table below :
Student Closed time Open time
h(s) t2(s)
P 30 60
Q 60 30
R 60 15
S 45 15
w
The best choice of open and closed times is that of student
(a) P (b) Q
(c) R id) S [CBSE 2012]
Flo
23. The voltmeter, ammeter and resistance in the circuit shown have been checked to be correct.
ee
On plugging the key, the ammeter reads 0.9 A, but the voltmeter reads zero. This could be
because
Fr
Range = 10 V
LC = 0.5 V
for
ur
<y>
ks
-'AAA'VW
R=5Q
Yo
Range = 1 A
oo
LC = 0 05 A ®
eB
------- (•>
r
4.5 V
ou
ad
{a) the range of the voltmeter is more than twice the battery voltage.
(b) the least count of the voltmeter is too high.
Y
(c) the wires joined to the voltmeter terminals are loose.

nd
{d) the voltmeter is incorrectly placed in the circuit. [CBSE 2010, 2011]
Re
24. For the circuits shown in figures I and II, the voltmeter reading would be
Fi
2V 2V
r^ <> <•>
2Q 2Q
VWvA/V vvVWV
(I) (N)
(a) 2 V in circuit I and 0 V in circuit II (b) 0 V in both circuits
(c) 2 V in both circuits {d) 0 V in circuit I and 2 V in circuit II.
[ CBSE 2007, 2011]
ReadYourFlow.COM
25. The current flowing through a conductor and

the potential difference across its two ends
are as per readings of the ammeter and the
voltmeter shown below. The resistance of the
conductor would be
(a) 0.02
(b) 0.024 a
(c) 20.0 a
(d) 24.0 a [CBSE 2007, 2010]
26. The following instruments are available in a laboratory :
Milliammeter A1 of range 0 - 300 mA and least count 10 mA.
Milliammeter A2 of range 0 - 200 mA and least count 20 mA.
w
Voltmeter Vl of range 0 - 5 V and least count 0.2 V.
Voltmeter V2 of range 0 - 3 V and least count 0.3 V.
Flo
Out of the following pairs of instruments, which pair would be the best choice for carrying out
the experiment to determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors connected in series ?
ee
(a) Milliammeter and voltmeter Vj. (b) Milliammeter A2 and voltmeter V2.
Fr
(c) Milliammeter Ax and voltmeter V2. (d) Milliammeter A2 and voltmeter
[CBSE 2010]
27. hi the experiment on finding the equivalent resistance of two resistors connected in parallel
for
ur
three students connected the voltmeter in their circuits in the three ways X, Y and Z shown
here :
ks
Yo
+, +.
oo
< > < >

+ + +
B
+
A A V A Ri
—WA—
re
Ri Ri +
AWV i ww ©
ou
ad
R2 I----"WW
—WA— —WA—
Y
R2 r2
Ky)
nd
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(X) (Y) (Z)

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The voltmeter has been correctly connected in

(a) cases X and Y only. (b) cases Y and Z only.
(c) cases Z and X only. (d) all the three cases. [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
28. In an experiment to determine equivalent resistance of two resistors and R2 in series, which
one of the following circuit diagrams shows the correct way of connecting the voltmeter in the
circuit ?
+ +
<•> <•>
r2 Ri r2
------ A//VW-------- "(A)- ■W'AAA. ------ WWW AW'/'A
(I)
7®r (II)
ReadYourFlow.COM
<•>
Ri r2
V^w. jVWv^-
+ T<S>^
(III) (IV)
(«) I (b) II
(c) III id) IV [CBSE 2007, 2012]
29. The voltmeter, ammeter and resistance in the circuit shown have been checked and found to be
correct. On plugging the key, the voltmeter reads 4.5 V, but the ammeter reads 1.5 A.
w
Ri = 3 Q
Flo
Range = 10 V
LC = 0.5 V
ee
<y>
Fr
—MV'AA-
R2 = 6 £2
for
ur
Range = 3 A
LC = 0.1 A
ks
------- (•>
Yo
oo
4.5 V
This could most likely be because the wires joined to
eB
{a) the resistor are loose. (b) the resistor R2 are loose.
(c) both the resistors Ri and R2 are loose. (d) the ammeter terminals are loose.
r
ou
[CBSE 2013]
ad
30. In an experiment to find relationship between potential difference and current a student noted
Y
four different sets of readings using the same resistor.

These are as given below :
nd
Re
Set of Voltmeter reading Ammeter reading

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readings (volt) (ampere)

A 3.2 0.65
B 4.5 0.90
C 5.1 1.00
D 5.5 1.20
Which of these sets is most probably not correct ?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D.
k.
ReadYourFlow.COM
31. In an experiment, to find the equivalent resistance of a series combination of two resistors Rx
and R2/ a student uses the circuit shown here.
v
<A>
Ri
R2
6V
Battery —(•
eliminator
The circuit will give
(a) correct reading for voltage V, but incorrect reading for current I.
w
(b) correct reading for current I, but incorrect reading for voltage V.
(c) correct readings for both current I and voltage V.
(d) incorrect readings for both current I and voltage V. ■ [CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012]
Flo
32. The rest positions of the needles in a milliammeter and voltmeter not in use are as shown in Fig.
ee
A. When a student uses these in his experiment, the readings of the needle are in the positions
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shown in Fig. B. The corrected values of current and voltage in the experiment are
for
ur
ks
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oo
B
re
ou
ad
Y
nd
Re
Fig. (A) Fig. (B)

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(a) 42 mA and 3.2 V (b) 42 mA and 4.0 V

(c) 34 mA and 3.2 V (d) 34 mA and 4.0 V [CBSE 2008]
33. In the experiment on finding the equivalent resistance of two resistors connected in series,
three students connected the ammeter in their circuits in the three ways X, Y and Z shown here.
+
-< > <> +
r2 A
R,
Wv-----VW AVy——(â)—vw Wv----WV
T<v>
Ay) Ay)
(X) (Y) (Z)
ReadYourFlow.COM
Assuming their ammeters to be ideal, the ammeter have been correctly connected in
(a) cases X and Y only (b) cases Y and Z only
(c) cases Z and X only (d) all the three cases
[CBSE 2008, 2010, 2012]
34. To determine the equivalent resistance of a series combination of two resistors and R2/ a
student arranges the following set up. Which one of the following statements will be true for
this circuit ? It gives
R R2
(•)----- ----------- --
low
(a) incorrect reading for current I and potential difference V both.
(b) correct reading for current 1 but incorrect reading for potential difference V.
(c) correct reading for potential difference V but incorrect reading for current 1.
(d) correct reading for both V and I. [CBSE 2011]
ee
35. Students A and B connect the two resistors R1 and R2 given to them in the manners shown
rF
Fr
below :
b, c, d
a,
f a2
or Q
b2 c2
EE3
d2
ou
X Y X
R, r2 r2
ks
R, Y
oo
(A) (B)
Y
eB
and then insert them at X and Y into the measuring circuit shown below :
X
1
r
ou
ad
7<v>
0 J
Y
nd
Re
A/v/W'AA-----
We can then say that

Fi
(a) both the students will determine the equivalent resistance of the series combination of R1
and R2.
(b) both the students will determine the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination of
R1 and R2.
(c) student A will determine the equivalent resistance of the series combination while
student B will determine the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination of Rl and
R2.
(d) student A will determine the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination while
student B will determine the equivalent resistance of the series combination of R1 and R2.
[CBSE 2008]
ReadYourFlow.COM
36. To study the dependence of current (I) on the potential difference (V) across a resistor R, two
students used the two set ups shown in figures A and B, respectively. They kept the contact
point / in four different positions, marked (1), (2), (3) and (4) in the two figures.
+
(D
+i
1 (2) 1 (3) 1 (4)
VWWWv—•-
+0
R
r
wvw <•>
7<v> 7<v>
w
(A) (B)
For the two students, the ammeter and voltmeters readings will be maximum when the contact
Flo
/ is in the position
ee
(fl) (4) in both the set ups. (b) (1) in both the set ups.
Fr
(c) (4) in set up A and (1) in set up B. (d) (1) in set up A and (2) in set up B.
[CBSE 2008, 2010, 2011, 2013]
37. For the circuits A and B shown below, the voltmeter readings would be
for
ur
±(yP—
ks
3 £2
yvww'
Yo
oo
2 0. 30 ■AV'/W'-
JVWW'- 20
B
<--------W'/VW'-
©+
re
(A)
+
ou
3V 3V
ad
<•> <•>
Y
(A) (B)
nd
(a) 0.6 V in circuit A and 2.5 V in circuit B (b) 0 V in both circuits

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(c) 3 V in both circuits (d) 0 V in circuit A and 3 V in circuit B.

Fi
[CBSE 2010, 2012]

38. The following apparatus is available in the laboratory
Battery Adjustable from 0 to 6 V
Resistors 3 Q and 6 £2
Ammeters Ai of range 0 to 5 A; least count 0.25 A
A2 of range 0 to 3 A; least count 0.1 A
Voltmeters : Vl of range 0 to 10 V; least count 0.5 V
V2 of range 0 to 5 V; least count 0.1 V
For the experiment to find the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination of the two
given resistors, the best choice would be
(a) ammeter A1 and voltmeter V1 (b) ammeter Aj and voltmeter V2
(c) ammeter A2 and voltmeter V1 (d) ammeter A2 and voltmeter V2.
[CBSE 2011, 2012]
ReadYourFlow.COM
39. The rest positions of the needles in a milliammeter and voltmeter when not being used in a
circuit are as shown in the figure. The 'zero error' and 'least count' of these two instruments are :
low
(a) (+ 4 mA, - 0.2 V) and (1 mA, 0.1 V), respectively
(b) (+ 4 mA, - 0.2 V) and (2 mA, 0.2 V), respectively
ee
(c) (- 4 mA, + 0.2 V) and (2 mA, 0.2 V), respectively
rF
(d) (- 4 mA, + 0.2 V) and (2 mA, 0.1 V), respectively. [CBSE 2008]
Fr
40. The only correct statement for the two circuits (X) and (Y) shown below is :
+
f or
ou
WWW
r2
ks
r2
oo
Y
eB
Ri Ri
A A
+ +
r
<•>—1 {•>
ou
ad
Y
(X) (Y)
(a) The resistors Ri and R2 have been connected in series in both the circuits.
nd
Re
(b) The resistors and R2 have been connected in parallel in both the circuits.
(c) In the circuit (X) the resistors have been connected in parallel whereas these are con
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nected in series in circuit (Y).

(d) In the circuit (X) the resistors Rj and R2 are connected in series while these are connected
in parallel in circuit (Y). [CBSE 2008, 2011]
41. Three students (A), (B) and (C) comrect their two given resistors R^ and R2 in the manners
shown below :
a2 b2 c2 d2 a3 b3 c3 d3
ai bi Ci di
r2 Ri R2 r2
Ri Ri
X X Y
(A) (B) (C)
ReadYourFlow.COM
They connect the terminals marked X and Y above to the

terminals marked X and Y in the circuit given below :
They record the ammeter readings (I) for different positions of g)
the rheostat and the corresponding Voltmeter readings (V). +
The average value of the ratio VA in their observations would
be minimum for:
(a) students (A) and (B) only (b) students (B) and (C) only
(c) students (C) and (A) only (d) student (A) only [CBSE 2008, 2011}
42. In figures given below in :
Vi
w
<y>
I----- AWW-------------
R?
Flo
Ri
ee
^HHi--------<•>
Fr
(I) (II)
Circuit I: ammeter reads current ^ and voltmeter reads Vj
for
ur
Circuit II: ammeter reads current i2 and voltmeter reads V2
The relation between the readings is
ks
(a) 4 > i2 ;V1 = V2 (b)
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(c) i1>i2;Vl>V2 (d) i1<i2-,v1<v2 [CBSE 2010, 2012]

oo
43. The same two resistors Ri and R2 have been connected in parallel in all the circuits but the
B
voltmeter and ammeter have been connected in three different positions. The relation between
re
the three voltmeter and ammeter readings would be :

Ri
ou
ad
-----/WvW'
Y
—(a)—vVVWV-
= V1 = l2 Ri
nd
Re
'v'vWVA
Ri r2
Fi
<•>
(fl) v1 = V2 = V3, and I1=l2 = I3
(b) V1*V2* V3, and ^ = /2 = h
(C) V1 = V2 = V3/andI1*I2*I3
(d) V1*V2±V3, and ^ *I2*I3 [CBSE 2011]
ReadYourFlow.COM
44. Three students A, B and C were asked to connect three resistors in parallel with a voltmeter.
They joined them as shown here :
R1
vwww- <v>
Ri
<y>
Ri r2> r3;
r2 r2
VvVWW^ vWv\W
R3 R3
vVvWW
(A) (B) (C)
The students, who have joined them correctly, are
low
(c) A and C (d) A, B,C all [CBSE 2013]
45. Two students are using the two circuits given here. They are doing experiment to find the
equivalent resistance of a
ree
rF
F
■WWw-
or •WvVw------ WWw
sf
u
+
(A) WWw <§>
+
k
Yo
+
oo
+
y <•> <•)—
B
(I) (II)
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(a) series combination and a parallel combination respectively of the two given resistors.
(b) parallel combination and a series combination respectively of the two given resistors.
ou
ad
(c) series combination of the two given resistors in both the cases.
Y
(d) parallel combination of the two given resistors in both the cases. [CBSE 2011]
nd
Short Answer Type Questions (Two Marks Each)

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46. What are the readings of voltmeter and ammeter in the circuit arrangement shown here ?
Fi
v
VWvVW'-
20 n
A®
+
<•)
5V
47. How do you connect an ammeter and a voltmeter in an electrical circuit ?
48. A milliammeter has graduations marked 0, 100, 200, 300, 400 and 500. The space between 0
mark and 100 marks is subdivided into 20 divisions.
ReadYourFlow.COM
In an experimental set up the pointer of the milliammeter is indicating the seventh graduation
after 300 mark. What is the current flowing in the circuit ?
49. Four resistances of 10, 20, 20 and 5 Q. are given. How will you arrange them to obtain
(0 maximum, and (ii) minimum value of equivalent resistance ? What will be the respective
values ?
1. (b) Student B has arranged the set up correctly.

2. (a) Correct method of joining the cells is shown in figure A. Negative terminal of 1st cell
should be connected to positive terminal of 2nd cell, negative terminal of 2nd cell is joined
to positive terminal of 3rd cell and so on.
w
3. (b) Correct circuit to study V-I relationship is as shown in figure B.
30 mA - 20 mA
4. (a) Least count of ammeter = = 0.5 mA.
Flo
20
1V-0V
ee
5. (c) Least count of voltmeter = = 0.05 V.
Fr
20
6. (c) X is an ammeter, Y a voltmeter and Z a rheostat.
7. (b) V - I graph should be a linear graph passing through origin. Hence, plot shown in figure
for
ur
(B) is correct.
8. (d) Circuit shown in figure (I) is an open circuit hence, no current flows and ammeter reading
ks
should be zero. Circuit shown in figure (II) is closed circuit, hence, current flowing
Yo
oo
V 5V
I =- -----=1 A.
B
R 5Q.
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9. (b) Student should prefer to use ammeter A2 and voltmeter because there is no zero error
present in these instruments.
ou
ad
10. (c) In the given circuit voltmeter and resistor are connected in parallel.
Y
V 26 V 26 V
11. (c) Resistance R = — =---------=----------- =— = 2 x 103 Q = 2 kQ.
nd
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J 13 mA 13 x 10~3 A
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12. (d) Due to flow of current for a long time the resistor will get heated up and its value will
change.
100 mA
13. (c) Least count of ammeter = = 5 mA
20
Zero error of ammeter = + 3x5 mA = 15 mA
Observed value of current = 200 mA + 17 x 5 mA = 285 mA
Corrected value of current = 285 mA - 15 mA = 270 mA
14. (a) Figure A gives the correct set up for studying the dependence of the current on the
potential difference across a resistor.
15. (d) As potential difference V = 1.8 V and current I = 180 mA = 0.18 A
1.8 V
Resistance of the resistor R =— = 10 Q.
I ~ 0.18 A
ReadYourFlow.COM
16. (b) Figure (II) gives the correct set up for determining the equivalent resistance of two resistors
Rl and R2 when connected in parallel.
17. (d) In the circuit Rlf R2 and V all the three are in parallel.
18. (a) Both ammeter and voltmeter give incorrect readings. If we connect voltmeter V across the
combination of Rj and R2, the circuit will be rectified.
19. (c) In the circuit diagram shown the ammeter and the rheostat are connected in series.
0.5 V
20. (b) Least count of voltmeter = = 0.025 V.
20
21. (b) In the experiment to determine resistance of a conductor an ammeter should be connected
in series and voltmeter in parallel of given resistor.
22. (a) Choice of student P is best. The key should be closed for minimum time and remain open
w
for most of the time.
23. (c) hi the arrangement shown all components are connected correctly and range of ammeter
and voltmeter is also appropriate. Even then if the voltmeter does not give any deflection
Flo
then it means that the wires joined to the voltmeter terminals are loose.
ee
battery voltage _ 2 V
24. (a) In first circuit current I = = 1A.
Fr
resistance 2Q
.•. Reading of voltmeter V = RI = 2QxlA = 2V
for
ur
In second circuit voltmeter has been joined wrongly, with its +ve terminal towards -ve
terminal of cell. Hence now voltmeter will not give any reading.
ks
V 7V 7V
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25. (c) Resistance R = — = = = 20 Q.

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/ 350 mA 0.350 A
B
26. (a) In series arrangement of resistors, the current is less but potential difference is more. Hence
re
we may use millimeter Al of smaller least count and voltmeter V1 of higher range and
smaller least count.
ou
ad
27. (d) Voltmeter has been correctly connected in all the three cases, as it is in parallel with Rj as
Y
well as R2.
28. (c) Figure (III) shows the correct way of connecting the voltmeter in the circuit, because here it
nd
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is connected across Rj and R2 joined together in series arrangement.

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4.5 V
29. (b) Readings of voltmeter and ammeter show that resistance R = = 3.0 £2. It is possible
1.5 A
only if the wires joined to R2 are loose so that effectively it is not present in the circuit.
30. (d) Values of resistance obtained from different sets are
V! _ 3.2 V ^2 4.5 V
Set A - R1 = = 4.9 a Set B - R2 = — = 5.0 £2
h 0.65 A h 0.9 A
= ^3 5.1V y. 5.5 V
Set C - R3 = 5.1 £2 Set D - R4 = — = = 4.6 £2
h 1.00 A h 1.20 A
As reading of set D differs most from other three readings, it appears to be not correct.
31. (d) Both ammeter and voltmeter will give incorrect readings on account of faulty connections.
32. (a) Zero error in milliammeter = - 4 mA and observed current = 38 mA
.•. Corrected value of current = 38 mA - (- 4 mA) = 42 mA
ReadYourFlow.COM
Again zero error in voltmeter = 0.4 V and observed reading = 3.6 V

.\ Corrected value of voltage = 3.6 V - 0.4 V = 3.2 V
33. (a) The ammeter has been joined correctly in cases X and Y only. Ammeter in Z has been
connected with reversed polarity, hence, it is not correct.
34. (b) The circuit gives correct reading for I but incorrect reading for V. For correct reading the
voltmeter must be connected in parallel to series combination of resistors R] and R2-
35. (c) Student A has joined the resistors Rj and R2 in series and student B has joined the same
resistors in parallel. Hence A will find equivalent series resistance and B the equivalent
parallel resistance.
36. (c) Ammeter and voltmeter will give maximum reading either if voltage of battery is maxi
mum or resistance introduced from variable resistor (rheostat) is minimum.
37. (d) Circuit A is an open circuit, hence, reading of voltmeter will be zero. In circuit B the
w
voltmeter will read 3 V, because the circuit is closed and as per circuit voltage reading of
voltmeter is same as voltage of battery.
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38. (c) As battery is adjustable one giving maximum voltage of 6 V, hence range of voltmeter
should be at least 6 V. So we use voltmeter of range 10 V. Equivalent resistance of
ee
parallel combination of 3 £2 and 6 £2 resistors is 2 £2. Hence, maximum current in the circuit
Fr
6V
/ max ---- = 3A. So we should use ammeter A2 of range 3 A and smaller least count of 0.1 A.
2 £2
for
ur
10 mA
39. (d) Least count of milliammeter = —-— = 2 mA
ks
Yo
oo
Zero error of milliammeter = - 4 mA

B
IV
Least count of voltmeter = = 0.1 V
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10
Zero error of voltmeter = + 0.2 V
ou
ad
40. (c) In circuit X the resistors R-j and R2 are joined in parallel but in circuit Y the two resistors are
Y
joined in series arrangement.

41. (d) Student A has connected resistors R1 and R2 in parallel but students B and C have
nd
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connected the resistors in series. Equivalent resistance in parallel is less than that in series
V V
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arrangement. Ratio y gives the value of resistance. Hence average value of ratio y is
minimum for student A.
42. (b) In circuit (I) we have a series combination of resistors R^ and R2, hence equivalent resist
ance {Req)i = Ri + R2. In circuit (II) Rr and R2 are in series but R3 is in parallel to them. Hence,
(R1+R2).R3
equivalent resistance (R^)n = • So (Req)a < (R-eqh Consequently i2 > iv
(Ri + Ri + R3)
Voltmeter reading in both circuits is same as the voltage of battery. Hence V1 = V2.
43. (c) Voltmeter readings are same in all three arrangements i.e., V1 = V2 = V3. However, ammeter
readings are different.
44. (d) All the three students have joined the resistances in parallel correctly.
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45. (b) The two students are doing experiments to find the equivalent resistance of a (z) parallel
combination, and (ii) series combination of two resistors respectively.
46. 5 V and 0.25 A. The voltmeter reading is same as the voltage of battery and current
I=V_ = _5W_
= 0.25 A.
“ R " 20 Q
47. An ammeter must be connected in series of an electric circuit. A voltmeter must be connected in
parallel of an electric circuit across those two points, potential difference between which is to be
measured.
(100 - 0) mA
48. Least count of milliammeter = = 5 mA
20
.-. Current flowing in the circuit I = 300 mA + 7 x L.C. = 300 mA + 7x5 mA = 335 mA.
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49. (z) For maximum value of resultant resistance the four resistances must be connected in
series and the resultant resistance
Flo
R max = 10 + 20 + 20 + 5 = 55 ft.
(ii) For minimum value of resultant resistance the four resistances must be connected in
ee
parallel and the resultant resistance
Fr
1 = J_ J_ J_ 1 = 2 + 1 + 1 + 4 8
Kmm 10 + 20 + 20 + 5 ' for
ur
20 20
=> Rmin=2.5 Q.
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B
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ad
Y
nd
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Fi
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CHEMISTRY PRACTICALS
.1ST OF EXPERIMENTS
1. To find the pH of the following samples by using pH paper/universal indicator
(/) Dilute hydrochloric acid (ii) Dilute NaOH solution
(in) Dilute ethanoic acid solution (iv) Lemon juice
(v) Water (vi) Dilute sodium bicarbonate solution.
2. To study the properties of acids and bases HC1 and NaOH by their reaction with
(0 Litmus solution (Blue/red) (ii) Zinc metal
(Hi) Solid sodium carbonate.
3. To perform and observe the following reactions and classify them into
(i) Combination reaction (ii) Decomposition reaction
l ow
(Hi) Displacement reaction (iv) Double displacement reaction.
1. Action of water on quick lime.
2. Action of heat on ferrous sulphate crystals.
3. Iron nails kept in copper sulphate solution.
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4. Reaction between sodium sulphate and barium chloride solution.
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4. (a) To observe the action of Zn, Fe, Cu and A1 metals on the following salt solutions
(i) ZnS04 (aq) (ii) FeS04 (aq)
(Hi) CuS04 (aq) for
(iv) A12(S04)3 (aq)
(b) Arrange Zn, Fe, Cu and A1 metals in the decreasing order of reactivity based on the above
u
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•esult.
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EXPERIMENT 1
B
Aim : To find the pH of the following samples by using pH paper/universal indicator :

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(i) Dilute hydrochloric acid.

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(ii) Dilute NaOH solution.

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(Hi) Dilute ethanoic acid solution.

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(iv) Lemon juice.

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(v) Water.
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(vi) Dilute sodium bicarbonate solution.

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Main Points
1. Sorensen gave the concept of pH value to express hydrogen ion concentration of a solution.
2. p stand for potency (power) and H for hydrogen ion concentration.
3. pH of a solution is numerically equal to the negative power to which 10 must be raised in order
to express hydrogen ion concentration.
That is [H+] = 10~PH
Taking logarithm of both sides
log [H+] = log 10-PH
or log [H+] = - pH
or pH = - log [H+]
We can also say that pH is negative logarithm of hydrogen ion concentration.
( P - 23 )
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P-24 U-Like Science->
4. pH value and the nature of solutions :

• pH value of a neutral solution is equal to 7.
• pH value of an acidic solution is less than 7.
• pH value of an alkaline solution is greater than 7.
Thus, pH value of pure water or distilled water is seven.
pH < 7 for acidic solutions and pH > 7 for alkaline solutions.
5. pH scale : Sorensen introduced a scale which indicates pH values from 0 to 14. This is called pH
scale.
pH 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
*
Acidic character increases Neutral Basic nature increases
6. Measurement of pH value of a solution : The pH value of a solution can be measured
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accurately with the help of an apparatus called pH meter. However, the approximate value oj
pH can be determined by using pH paper or universal indicator.
Flo
• The pH can be found out by the use of universal indicators which are available in the form
of pH papers.
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• An indicator is a chemical substance which gives different colours in different solutions.
Fr
• A pH paper is a small strip of paper coated with the indicator.
7. Indicators : A chemical compound which gives different colours, in acidic, alkaline and neutral
for
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medium is called an indicator. For example. Litmus, methyl orange and phenolphthalein.
• Litmus gives red colour in acidic solution but blue colour in alkaline or basic solution.
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• Methyl orange gives orange/pink colour in acidic solution but yellow colour in alkaline
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solution.
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• Phenolphthalein is colourless in acidic solution but gives pink colour in alkaline solution.
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B
8. Universal Indicator: A homogeneous mixture of many indicators is called universal indicator.

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It shows different colours according to the change in pH of the solution. For example :
pH Range 0 to 3 3 to 5 4-5 to 6 6 to 8 Stoll 11 to 14
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Colour Red Orange Yellow Green Indigo Violet

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• In order to find the pH range, a drop of universal indicator is put on a clean tile and then
nd
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a drop of the test solution is mixed with it with the help of a dropper. The colour
developed indicates the pH range of the solution.
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9. pH papers : A small strip of paper which is coated with indicator is called pH paper.
• The pH papers are prepared by absorbing universal indicator on filter papers of good
quality. These papers are dried, cut into small strips of the same size and packed.
• Tire colour and corresponding pH value are noted on the cover of each packet of strips of
pH papers.
• The pH papers manufactured by different companies indicating different pH range are
available.
• In order to find pH value, a drop of the test solution is put on the strip of the pH paper
using dropper. The colour developed indicates the pH value of the solution under
experiment.
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Dhemistry Practicals P-25

question:
1. On adding a few drops of universal indicator to three unknown colourless solutions (P), (Q)
and (R) taken separately in three test tubes shown in the following diagrams, a student
observed the changes in colour as green in (P), red in (Q) and violet in (R).
-6—»
0
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(P) (Q) (R)
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Green Red Voilet
The decreasing order of pH of the solutions taken is :
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(a) P > Q> R (b) R> P>Q
Fr
(c) Q> P > R (d) R> Q> P [CBSE 2011]
2. Four students (a), (b), (c) and (d) measured the pH values of water, lemon juice, and sodium
for
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bicarbonate solution. What is the correct decreasing order of pH values ?
(a) Water > lemon juice > sodium bicarbonate
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(b) Lemon juice > water > sodium bicarbonate
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(c) Sodium bicarbonate > water > lemon juice

(d) Water > Sodium bicarbonate > lemon juice [CBSE 2011]
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3. Observe the following figures and choose the correct option.

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ad
Y
of.;
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Ethanoic Water Hydrochloric Sodium

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acid acid ■:
bicarbonate
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(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(a) pH of I is greater than II and IV.
(b) pH of I is less than III and IV.
(c) pH of FV is less than I, II, III.
(d) pH of IV has the highest value among all the four solutions. [CBSE 2011]
4. On adding a few drops of base to distilled water the pH will become :
(a) less than 7 (b) more than 7
(c) remain 7 (d) pH does not change [CBSE 2011]
5. A student adds a few drops of universal indicator to a solution of hydrochloric acid taken in a
test tube. He would observe that the solution changes from
(a) colourless to blue, (b) colourless to violet.
(c) green to red. (d) colourless to red. [CBSE 2011]
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P-26 U-Like Science-)
6. On putting a drop of a liquid on a pH paper a student observes a small circular patch of blue
colour on the pH paper. The liquid is most probably
(a) h2o (b) HC1
(c) NaOH (d) H2S04 [CBSE 2011
7. Four students (a), (b), (c) and {d) of class X measured the pH values of each one of the giver
samples of distilled water, acetic acid, dilute hydrochloric acid, and a solution of sodiuir
hydroxide using pH papers. Tell which one of the following represents a correct measurement
Student Water Acetic acid Hydrochloric acid Sodium hydroxide
(a) 7 1 1 1
(b) 7 3 1 1
(c) 7 1 1 13
(d) 7 3 1 13
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[CBSE 20111
8. In an experiment to test the pH of a given sample using pH paper, four students recorded the
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following observations. Which observation is incorrect ?
ee
Sample taken pH paper colour turned to
Fr
(I) Water Blue
(II) Oil. HC1 Red
(IH) Oil. NaOH for
Blue
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(IV) Dil. Acetic acid Orange
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(a) I (b) II
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(c) III (d) IV [CBSE 2011]

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9. In a sample of distilled water a pinch of solid sodium carbonate is dissolved in it. The pH will
Y
B
be :
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{a) Less than 7 (b) More than 7

(c) Exactly 7 {d) Very near to 7 [CBSE 2011]
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ad
10. A few drops of liquid 'X' were added to distilled water. It was observed that pH of the water is
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increased. The liquid 'X' is :

(a) Lemon juice (b) NaCl solution
nd
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(c) Na2C03 solution (d) Dilute HC1 solution [CBSE 2011]

11. Which of the following will turn pH paper to red ?
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(a) Milk of Magnesia (b) Baking soda

(c) Oxalic acid solution (d) NaCl solution [CBSE 2011]
12. Bottle A contains dilute NaOH solution and bottle B contains lemon juice. When pH paper is
added in each of the solution, the colour seen in A and B respectively are :
(a) Blue and Orange (b) Blue and Green
(c) Red and Blue (d) Green and Red [CBSE 2012]
13. pH values of four solutions A, B, C and D are 7, 8, 9,. 10 respectively. Put them in a proper
sequence according to their nature :
(a) acidic, acidic, neutral, basic (b) acidic, neutral, basic, basic
(c) acidic, acidic, acidic, neutral (d) neutral, basic, basic, basic [CBSE 2012]
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Chemistry Practicals P-27
14. The correct method to find the pH of a solution is :

pH paper
Test tube Vapours of
solution
pH paper
{a) (b) Solution
Solution
Test tube
Dropper
Test solution
Test solution
(c)
A (d) pH paper
I pH paper
[CBSE 2012]
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Glazed Tile Glazed Tile
15. Bottle A contains aqueous solutions of sodium bicarbonate and bottle B contains water. When
pH solution is added to each of the solutions, the colour of solutions observed in A and B
Flo
respectively are :
ee
(a) blue and green (b) green and yellow
(c) yellow and green (rf) green and blue [CBSE 2012]
Fr
16. A student tested pH of distilled water and found that the colour of the pH paper changed to
green. He dissolved a spoon full of cone, hydrochloric acid in it and checked it with pH paper.
for
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He observed the colour of pH paper changes :
(a) from green to blue (b) from green to red
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(c) remains unchanged (d) from green to violet [CBSE 2012]

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17. Four bottles contain solutions A, B, C, D. The pH values of these solutions are 5, 6, 7 and 8
B
respectively. To find out the nature of the solutions, they are tested with universal indicator.
The colours shown by them are in the order :
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(a) orange, yellow, green, bluish green (b) orange, red, green, bluish green
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ad
(c) green, bluish green, red, orange (d) bluish green, green, orange, red
[CBSE 2012]
Y
18. A student dips pH papers in solution X and Y and observes that the pH paper turns blue and
nd
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orange respectively in them. He infers that:

(a) X is HC1 solution, while Y is NaOH solution.
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(b) X is acetic acid, while Y is sodium carbonate solution.

(c) X is sodium carbonate solution, while Y is acetic acid.
(d) X is oxalic acid, while Y is sodium carbonate solution. [CBSE 2012]
19. Observe the following figures and choose the correct option.
— Acetic -<i — Sodium Water — Sodium

acid hydroxide bicarbonate
v__W
(I) (ID (HI) (IV)
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(a) pH of I is greater than that of II and III

(b) pH of IV is less than that of I and II
(c) pH of IV is greater than that of I, II and III
(d) pH of I is less than that of III and IV [CBSE 2012]
20. When a pH paper is dipped in a solution, the colour of the pH paper changes to deep red. What
will be the possible pH of the solution ?
(a) 2 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) None of the above [CBSE 2010]
21. On putting a few drops of an unknown liquid on the pH strip, the colour of the pH strip
changes to violet. The liquid taken is likely to be :
(a) dilute sodium hydroxide (b) dilute hydrochloric acid
(c) dilute acetic acid (d) water [CBSE 2012]
22. A student adds a few drops of tire universal indicator to a
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solution of dilute hydrochloric acid in the way shown here.
Drop of universal
He would observe that the colour of the solution changes indicator
Flo
from colourless to :
(a) red (b) yellow
ee
(c) violet (d) green
m ------ Dilute hydrochloric
Fr
acid
[CBSE 2012]
23. Tire test tube I contains sodium hydroxide solution and test tube II contains ethanoic acid. On
for
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introducing pH paper strip in both of them, it is observed that the pH paper turns :
(a) Blue in both the test tubes (b) Blue in I and red in II test tube
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(c) Red in both the test tubes (d) Green in I and red in II test tube
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[CBSE 2012]
oo
24. The pH of a few samples of NaOH of different concentrations are given below. Which of these
B
has the highest OH" concentration when the pH value is

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{a) 10.0 (b) 12.0

(c) 9.5 (d) 14 [CBSE 2013]
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ad
25. Which of the following solutions of equal concentration will have lowest pH value ?
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(a) dil. NaOH (b) water

(c) dil. CH3COOH (d) dil. HC1 [CBSE 2013]
nd
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26. A burning candle will not extinguish if it is brought near the mouth of a test tube containing an
Fi
acid and :
(i) sodium chloride (ii) sodium carbonate
(Hi) sodium bicarbonate (iv) sodium hydroxide
(a) (i),(U) (b) (H), (Hi)
(c) (Hi), (iv) (d) (i), (iv) [CBSE 2013]
27. A student took 5 mL of lemon juice in each of test tubes A, B and C. She added 5 mL of water in
A and 20 mL of water in B. She tested for pH value in all the three tubes. She would find that pH
value of liquid :
(a) in A, B and C is same (b) in A is more than that in B and C
(c) in B is more than that in A and C (d) in C is more than that in A and B
[CBSE 2013]
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28. The correct increasing order of the pH value of solutions of HC1, NaOH and CH3COOH of
same concentration is :
(a) HC1, NaOH CH3COOH (b) HC1, CHgCOOH, NaOH
(c) NaOH, HC1, CH3COOH {d) CH3COOH, HC1, NaOH [CBSE 2013]
29. The pH of a sample of pure water is 7 at room temperature. Teacher added to it a pinch of solid
sodium bicarbonate and dissolved it. She asked her students to estimate the pH of this solution.
Correct answer will be that its pH will be :
(a) very near to 7 (b) much less than 7
(c) much more than 7 (d) will remain exactly 7 [CBSE 2013]
30. Out of the following substances, the example of alkali is :
(a) HNO3 (b) NaOH
(c) AICI3 (d) NaHC03 [CBSE 2013]
31. pH paper is prepared by dipping the strip into :
low
(a) universal indicator (b) blue litmus
(c) red litmus (d) phenolphthalein [CBSE 2013]
ee
32. A student was provided with solutions of acetic acid, hydrochloric acid, sodium hydroxide and
rF
Fr
water and was asked to report pH values using pH papers. He reported the pH values for the
above solutions as 3, 1> 13 arid 3 respectively. What was the mistake he committed ? Which
colour is given by pH paper with water ? for
33. Addition of which of the following to water will (i) increase the pH and (ii) decrease the pH
u
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value : lemon juice, sodium hydrogencarbonate ? What is the pH value of water ?
Yo
34. Blue litmus indicator was added to a solution of acetic acid (A) and red litmus was added
oo
to a solution of ammonium hydroxide (B). What changes in colour do you expect to take
B
place in the two solutions ? What will happen if we add blue litmus to solution (B) and red
re
litmus to solution (A) ?

35. Arrange the following solutions in increasing order of pH :
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ad
Sodium hydroxide, water, ammonium hydroxide, sodium chloride, acetic acid.

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Which colours will be shown by pH paper in case of acetic acid and water ?
nd
36. What are the two colours at the extreme ends of the pH chart ? Give two examples each of
Re
substances that give these colours.

Fi
1. (b) Green colour is obtained at pH 5-7, red colour at pH 0-2 and violet colour in the pH range
12-14.
Therefore decreasing order of pH of the solution is
R>P> Q
2. (c) Water has pH = 7.
An acidic substance (lemon juice) has pH < 7.
An alkaline substance (sodium bicarbonate) has pH > 7.
Therefore the decreasing order of pH values is
Sodium bicarbonate > water > lemon juice.
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3. (d) pH of bases are higher than those of acids. pH of water lies in between i.e., 7. Ethanoic acid
and hydrochloric acid being acidic have lower pH than sodium bicarbonate.
4. (b) The solution becomes basic on adding a base to water. Hence the pH will become more
than 7.
5. (d) Universal indicator gives a red colour in acidic solution.
6. (c) pH paper turns blue when a drop of an alkali (base) is put on it.
7. (d) Water has the pH = 7, NaOH a strong base has pH = 13. Acetic acid is a weak acid while
HC1 is a strong acid. Therefore acetic acid has higer pH than HC1.
8. (a) Water being neutral gives a green colour with pH paper.
9. (b) The solution will become basic. It will have pH more than 7.
10. (c) NaCl is neutral. It will not cause a change in pH. Lemon juice and dil. HC1 being acidic will
reduce the pH.
11. (c) Only an acidic solution will turn pH paper red. Milk of magnesia and baking soda are basic
low
solutions while NaCl is neutral.
12. (a) Dilute NaOH solution is basic in nature, it would give blue colour. Lemon juice is acidic
with pH value near 2, it would give orange colour with pH paper.
13. (d) A solution with pH value 7 is neutral, while those with pH values greater than 7 are basic.
ee
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14. (c) Putting a drop of the solution on the pH paper placed on a glazed tile would give the best
Fr
result.
15. (a) Sodium bicarbonate is basic in nature, so it gives blue colour with pH solution. Water is
neutral, so it will give green colour. f or
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16. (b) On adding HC1, the solution becomes acidic, so the colour will change to red.
ks
17. (a) The solution with pH 5 is weakly acidic, it will give orange colour. The solution with pH 6
is still weaker acid, it will give yellow colour. Neutral solution with pH 7 gives green colour
oo
and the solution with pH 8 is weakly basic and will give bluish green colour.
Y
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18. (c) X gives blue colour, therefore X is strongly basic i.e., sodium carbonate solution. Y gives
orange colour, therefore Y is weakly acid i.e., acetic acid.
r
19. (d) Bases have greater pH than water which has greater pH than acids. Therefore pH of I
ou
ad
(acetic acid) is less than that of III (water) and IV (Sodium bicarbonate).
Y
20. (a) Deep red colour is given only by highly acidic solution.
21. {a) Violet colour is obtained with highly basic solution only. Out of the substances given, dil
nd
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NaOH is highly basic.

Fi
22. (a) Hydrochloric acid is a strongly acidic solution. It will give red colour.
23. (b) Basic solutions give blue colour and acidic solutions give red colour with pH paper.
24. {d) pH increases with concentration of NaOH.
25. (d) Low values of pH are given by acids. Out of HC1 and CH3COOH, HC1 is stronger acid, it
will give lower pH value.
26. (d) Test tubes containing sodium chloride and sodium hydroxide will not produce C02 and
therefore a burning candle will not extinguish.
27. (c) With dilution, the acid strength decreases and the pH value increases. The undiluted liquid
in C will have tire lowest pH, liquid in A will have higher pH value and the liquid in B will
have still higher value.
28. (b) HC1 is a strong acid, it will have the lowest pH value and NaOH is a strong base, it will
have the highest pH value.
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29. (c) Sodium bicarbonate solution is basic in nature. It will show pH value much more than 7.
30. (b) Water soluble bases are alkalis. NaOH is an alkali while NaHC03 is a base.
31. (a) Universal indicator which is a mixture of a number of compounds is used for preparing pH
paper.
32. He reported a wrong pH value for water. It should not be 3, but 7. The colour shown by pH
paper with water is green.
33. Lemon juice is acidic which has pH value less than 7 and sodium hydrogencarbonate solution
is alkaline which has pH value more than 7. Hence, addition of lemon juice will decrease and
sodium hydrogencarbonate will increase the pH of water. Water has pH value equal to 7.
34. Blue litmus turns red when added to acid and red litmus turns blue when added to base.
Therefore, colour in solution (A) will become red and in solution (B) will turn blue. There will
be no change in colour if blue litmus is added to solution B and red litmus to solution (A).
35. Increasing order of pH for these solutions will be
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acetic acid < water = sodium chloride < ammonium hydroxide < sodium hydroxide
pH paper will give orange and green colours with acetic acid and water respectively.
Flo
36. Two colours at the extreme ends of pH chart are red and blue. Hydrochloric acid and sulphuric
acid give red colour while sodium hydroxide and potassium hydroxide give blue colour.
ee
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EXPERIMENT 2
Aim : To study the properties of acids and bases HC1 and NaOH by their reaction with
for
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(i) Litmus solution (Blue/red).
(ii) Zinc metal.
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(in) Solid sodium carbonate.
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Main Points
1. Reaction with Litmus Solution (Blue/Red) :
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• Acids turn blue litmus to red litmus but do not change red litmus.
• Bases turn red litmus to blue litmus but do not change blue litmus.
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ad
2. Reaction with Zinc Metal:

• An Acid (HC1) reacts with zinc metal to liberate hydrogen gas. For example,
Y
Zn (s) + 2HC1 (acj)-----> ZnCl2 (aq) + H2 (^)T

nd
• Hydrogen gas bums in oxygen with a pop sound.

Re
2H2 (g) + 02 (g)-----> 2H20 (/)

Fi
• A Base (NaOH) reacts with zinc to liberate hydrogen gas.

Zn + NaOH-----> Na2Zn02 + H2T
Sodium Zincate
(Soluble)
3. Reaction with Solid Sodium Carbonate :
• HC1 acid reacts with sodium carbonate to evolve carbon dioxide gas.
Na2C03 + 2HC1 -> 2NaCl + H20 + C02t
• Carbon dioxide formed is passed into lime water which turns milky due to the formation
of calcium carbonate.
Ca(OH)2 + C02-----> CaCO^ + H20
Lime water (Milkiness)
• Solid sodium carbonate does not react with NaOH.
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U-Like Science-X

question:
1. Which of the following chemical properties are shown by dilute hydrochloric acid ?
(I) It turns blue litmus red.
(II) It turns red litmus blue.
(IE) It reacts with zinc and a gas is evolved.
(iv) It reacts with solid sodium carbonate to give brisk effervescence.
(a) I and H only (b) I and in only
(c) I, UI and IV only (d) n, in and IV only [CBSE 2011]
2. Four students studied reactions of zinc and sodium carbonate with dil. HC1 and dil. NaOH and
presented their results as follows. The V represents evolution of gas whereas 'X' represents
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absence of any reaction.
Zn Na2C03 Zn Na2C03
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HCI / / HCI / X
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NaOH / X NaOH / /
(A) (B)
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Zn Na2C03 Zn Na2C03
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HCI X X HCI / /
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NaOH / / NaOH X X
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B
(C) (D)
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The right set of observation is that of the student

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ad
(«) A (b) B (c) C (d) D [CBSE 2011]

3. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to granulated zinc placed in a test tube, the observation
Y
made is
nd
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(a) the surface of the metal turns shining.

(b) the reaction mixture turns milky.
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(c) odour of chlorine is observed.

(d) a colourless and odourless gas evolves with bubbles. [CBSE 2011]
4. When dil. HCI reacts with zinc metal, the gas liberated is
(a) oxygen (b) nitrogen
(c) chlorine (d) hydrogen [CBSE 2011]
5. Which of the following will give a colourless gas that bums with pop sound, on reaction with
dilute HCI?
(a) Solid sodium carbonate (b) Zinc metal
(c) Sodium hydroxide (d) Sodium bicarbonate [CBSE 2011]
6. Four students performed the reactions of a dil. Hydrochloric acid and a solution of sodium
hydroxide with zinc metal and solid sodium carbonate separately. They reported the possible
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reaction by (/) and no reaction by (X). In which of the following sets all observations are
correct ?
Set HC1 + Zn HC1 + Na2CQ3 NaOH + Zn NaOH + Na2C03
{a) / / / /
(b) x x y /
(c) / / X x
(rf) / / / X
[CBSE 2011]
7. When a student added zinc granules to dilute HC1 a colourless and odourles gas evolved on
testing with a burning match stick. It was observed that
low
(a) the matchstick continued to burn brilliantly.
(b) the matchstick burnt slowly with a blue flame.
(c) the matchstick extinguished and gas burned with pop sound.
(d) the matchstick continued to bum brilliantly and gas brunt with pop sound. [CBSE 2011]
ee
8. When a powder was treated with dil. HC1, a gas was produced and when a lighted matchstick
rF
is shown to it, the flame was put off and the gas also did not start burning. The powder may be :
Fr
(a) ZnS04 (b) CuS04
(c) Na2C03 (d) Na2S04 [CBSE 2011]
9. When zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid. f or
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(a) The surface of zinc becomes brighter.
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(b) The surface of zinc becomes black and dull.
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(c) The metal turns into powder.

(d) The reaction mixture turns green. [CBSE Sample Paper Question]
Y
eB
10. The zinc metal used in the laboratory for doing experiments is available in the form of
(a) Filings (b) Strips
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(c) Granules (d) Pellets [CBSE Sample Paper Question]

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ad
11. Bottle A contains oxalic acid and bottle B contains sodium carbonate solution. When pH paper
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is dipped in each of the solutions, the colour seen in A and B respectively be

(a) Orange, blue (b) Blue, orange
nd
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(c) Green, blue (d) Orange, green

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[CBSE Sample Paper Question]

12. To test the presence of an acid with a strip of red litmus paper you would
(a) dip the strip as it is in the sample and see the colour change.
(b) moisten the paper with water and dip in the given sample.
(c) first dip strip in common salt solution and then use to it test the sample.
(d) first dip strip in alkaline solution and then use it to test the sample.
[Hint : Since red litmus does not show colour change with acids, it is first changed to blue
litmus by dipping in alkaline solution].
ReadYourFlow.COM
13. The figures below show set-ups for studying the reaction of zinc with sodium hydroxide.
(I) (ID (HI) (IV
0
fisSss^ c
o 3
0 0
o dilute NaOH NaOH o dilute NaOH
0
NaOH 0
0 pellets pellets 0
0
0
/ 0
0
c Zinc / Zinc Zinc o Zinc
0
vjjrgy
A rapid evolution of hydrogen gas will be observed in the test tube
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(a) I (b) II
(c) HI (d) IV [CBSE Sample Paper Question]
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14. Four experimental set ups are shown below :
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P P
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h dilute dilute K dilute
•c y
dilute
HCI NaOH HOI NaOH
for
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Zinc Zinc -------jd. NaaCOs -Na2C03
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Y
B
(I) (ID (HI) (IV)

The set ups that would result in a rapid evolution of gas would be
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(a) I and III (b) II and IV

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ad
(c) I and II (d) HI and IV [CBSE Sample Paper Question]

15. The gas coming out in the experiment shown is
Y
gas
(«) o2
nd
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(b) C02
(c) H2
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(d) H2S
dil. H2SO4
Zn
16. The gas coming out from the experiment shown is

(*) Cl2 gas
(b) H2
(c) C02
(d) 02
dil. HCI
/Zn
ReadYourFlow.COM
17. The gas evolved in the experiment is

dil. HCI
<5
,1 Flat bottom
flask
— Na2CC>3
Lime water
low
(a) CO (b) co2 (c) Cl2 (d) H2
18. The milkiness of lime water is due to formation of :
(a) Ca(HC03)2 (b) CaO (c) CaC03 (d) CaCl2
ee
19. When excess of C02 is passed through lime water, what is observation and why ?
rF
Fr
(a) Milkiness disappears due to formation of CaC03.
(b) Milkiness disappears due to formation of Ca(HC03)2.
(c) Milkiness increases due to formation of CaC03.
(d) Milkiness increases due to formation of Ca(HC03)2.
for
u
20. The gas evolved in the experiment shown will be :
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NaOH
6
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B
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Y
— Thistle
funnel
nd
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— NaOH
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Lime water-
SUP)— N32CO3
(a) CO (b) co2
(c) H2 (d) No gas is evolved
21. Two test tubes containing 2 mL of dilute HCI are taken. Zinc granules are added to test tube (A)
and solid sodium carbonate is added to test tube (B) as shown :
✓
Zn granules Jflk----- Solid sodium
carbonate
Dilute HCI Dilute HCI

<__
(A) (B)
ReadYourFlow.COM
The correct observation would be :

(a) Slow reaction in (A) and rapid reaction in (B).
{b) Rapid reaction in (A) but slow reaction in (B).
(c) Rapid reaction in both the test tubes.
(d) No reaction in any of the test tubes. [CBSE 2012]
22. On adding a pinch of solid sodium carbonate to some dil. HCI in a test tube, it is observed that:
(a) a pungent smelling gas is produced (b) a pleasant smelling gas is produced
(c) brown fumes are formed (d) a gas with brisk effervescence is produced
[CBSE 2012]
23. A base is a substance which shows the following set of properties :
(a) Sour taste, produces hydrogen gas when reacted with a metal and changes colour of red
litmus to blue.
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(b) Bitter to taste, produces hydrogen gas when reacted with a metal and changes colour of
blue litmus to red.
(c) Sour to taste, produces hydrogen gas when reacted with a metal and changes colour of
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blue litmus to red.
(d) Bitter to taste, produces hydrogen gas when reacted with a metal and changes colour of
ee
red litmus to blue. [CBSE 2012]
Fr
24. On adding a pinch of a white powder to some dil. HCI in a test tube, C02 gas is evolved with
brisk effervescence. The white powder is :
for
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(a) ammonium chloride (b) calcium oxide
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(c) sodium carbonate (d) sodium chloride [CBSE 2012]
ks
25. Which one of the following substances will be required to identify the gas evolved, when dil.
HCI reacts with solid sodium carbonate ?
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(a) Red litmus solution (b) Lime water

Y
B
(c) Blue litmus solution (d) Zinc granules [CBSE 2012]

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26. A student has two test tubes containing distilled water and dil. HCI. He has to identify HCI but
he is confused. Suggest the substance which can be added to identify it.
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ad
(a) Sodium carbonate (b) Calcium chloride

Y
(c) Blue litmus (d) Both (fl) and (c) [CBSE 2012]
27. When hydrochloric acid reacts with zinc :
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(a) surface of zinc becomes white. (b) surface of zinc becomes black and dull
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(c) zinc becomes powder. (d) the reaction mixture turns red
[CBSE 2012]
28. A few drops of phenolphthalein are added to a test tube containing dil. HCI and another
containing a solution of sodium hydroxide. These solutions on adding a drop of phenolphthalein
in the two test tubes will appear respectively :
(a) pink and colourless (b) colourless in both
(c) colourless and pink (d) pink in both [CBSE 2012]
29. When sodium carbonate is added to a test tube which contains dilute HCI, a gas is evolved. The
gas evolved is :
(a) hydrogen and it turns lime water milky.
(b) C02 and it smells like burning sulphur.
(c) C02 and it turns lime water milky.
(d) hydrogen and it burns with a pop sound. [CBSE 2012]
ReadYourFlow.COM
30. Which one of the following would you need to identify the gas that evolves when you heat
NaOH solution with zinc metal ?
(a) Red litmus solution (b) Blue litmus solution
(c) A burning splinter/matchstick (d) Lime water [CBSE 2012]
31. When Zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, then after sometime it is observed that the
(a) surface of zinc becomes brighter.
(b) surface of zinc becomes black and dull.
(c) metal turns into powder.
(d) reaction mixture turns green. [CBSE 2013]
32. The gas which is liberated when hydrochloric acid is added to solid sodium carbonate is
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Chlorine (d) Oxygen [CBSE 2013]
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33. A substance X reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid gas to liberate a gas Y which when passed
through lime water turns milky. Identify X and Y. Write the word equation for the reaction.
What happens when a burning match stick is brought near the gas ?
ee
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34. A substance X was added to dilute hydrochloric acid to liberate a gas which burns with a pop
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sound. Identify X and the gas evolved. Also give the reaction of pop sound produced.
35. There are two substances X and Y. X reacts with both hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide
for
to liberate the same gas Z while Y reacts with hydrochloric acid to give a gas which extinguishes
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a burning match stick. Identify X, Y and Z.
ks
36. Two substances P and Q react separately with zinc metal to liberate hydrogen gas. Give the
oo
reaction when P and Q react with each other. Give one test for hydrogen gas.
Y
37. Solution of a substance (A) turns milky when a gas (B) is passed through it. This gas is produced
B
by the reaction between sodium carbonate and hydrochloric acid. Identify (A) and (B). Give the
re
reactions.
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ad

Y
1. (c) Dilute hydrochloric acid turns blue litmus red. It reacts with Zn and a gas is evolved.
nd
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Zn + 2HC1-----» ZnCl2 + H2
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It reacts with solid sodium carbonate to give brisk effervescence

2HC1 + Na2C03-----> 2NaCl + C02 + H20
2. (a) Zn + 2HC1-----> ZnCl2 + H2
Na2C03 + 2HC1 * 2NaCl + C02 + H20
Zn + 2NaOH Na2Zn02 + H2
Na2C03 + NaOH -» No reaction
3. (d) A colourless and odourless gas evolves with bubbles
Zn + 2HC1-----> ZnCl2 + H2
4. (d) Zn + 2HC1-----> ZnCl2 + H2
5. (b) The gas which bums with a pop sound is hydrogen gas. It is given by the reaction between
Zn metal and dil. HC1.
6. (d) Zinc reacts both with dil. HC1 and NaOH to liberate hydrogen gas. NaOH and Na2C03 are
both bases and do not react with each other.
ReadYourFlow.COM
7. (c) Hydrogen gas is not a supporter of combustion. Therefore the matchstick extinguished but
the gas burns with a pop sound.
8. (c) Dil. HC1 does not react with any of ZnS04/ CuS04 and Na2S04. It reacts only with Na2C03.
Na2C03 + 2HC1-----> 2NaCl + C02 + H20
Carbon dioxide is not a supporter of combustion and also itself does not bum.
9. (b) Reaction takes place between Zn and dil. HC1 forming zinc chloride. Thus, the surface of
zinc becomes black and dull.
10. (c) Zinc is generally available in the laboratory in the form of granules.
11. (a) Oxalic acid (weak acid) gives orange colour and sodium carbonate gives blue colour with
pH paper.
12. (d) To test an acid, we need a blue litmus strip. Therefore, first dip the strip in alkaline solution.
It will turn blue. Then it can be used to test the sample.
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13. (d) Hydrogen will be evolved when dilute NaOH is added to Zn metal taken in the test tube
and the mixture is heated.
14. (a) In set up IV, no reaction takes place between NaOH and Na2C03. In set up II, reaction
cannot take place without heating.
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15. (c) Zn reacts with dil. H2S04 to liberate H2 gas.
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16. (b) Zn reacts with dil. HC1 to liberate H2 gas.
17. (b) Dilute HC1 reacts with Na2C03 to liberate carbon dioxide gas which turns lime water
milky.
or
18. (c) Calcium carbonate (CaC03) is an insoluble substance due to which the solution appears
f
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milky.
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19. (b) Milkiness disappears due to the formation of soluble Ca(HC03)2.

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CaC03 + C02 + H20---- > Ca(HC03)2

Y
eB
20. (d) There is no reaction between NaOH and Na2C03.

21. (c) hi both tubes rapid reaction takes place. In tube A, evolution of hydrogen takes place while
r
in tube B, evolution of C02 takes place.

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ad
22. (d) C02 gas is produced with brisk effervescence. It has no smell.
Y
23. (d) Bases are bitter in taste, they react with metals to give hydrogen and change red litmus to
blue.
nd
Re
24. (c) Carbonates and bicarbonates react with dil. HC1 to produce C02 gas.
25. (b) Lime water turns milky on passing C02 gas through it.
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26. (d) Both sodium carbonate and blue litmus can be used to identify acids. There is a reaction
with sodium carbonate with the evolution of C02 and blue litmus is turned red.
27. (b) Surface of zinc becomes black and dull when zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid.
28. (c) Phenolphthalein gives a pink colour with NaOH solution and no colour with HC1 solution.
29. (c) Dil. HQ reacts with sodium carbonate to evolve C02 which turns lime water milky.
30. (c) Hydrogen gas is evolved in the reaction which gives a pop sound when a burning splinter
is brought near it.
31. (b) Zinc surface becomes black and dull in the reaction.
32. (a) Carbon dioxide gas is produced when hydrochloric acid reacts with solid sodium carbonate.
33. The substance X is sodium carbonate and the gas liberated is carbon dioxide.
Sodium carbonate + Hydrochloric acid-----> Sodium chloride + Carbon dioxide + Water
A burning match stick is extinguished in carbon dioxide.
ReadYourFlow.COM
34. The substance X is zinc metal. It reacts with HC1 to produce H2 gas. Hydrogen gas bums
with a pop sound. The reaction involved is
Hydrogen + Oxygen -> Water
35. X is Zn metal and Y is Na2C03.
Zn reacts with hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide to liberate hydrogen gas (Z). Na2C03
reacts with hydrochloric acid to liberate C02 gas which extinguishes a burning match stick.
36. P is HC1 and Q is NaOH. Both P and Q separately react with zinc metal to liberate hydrogen
gas. P and Q i.e., HC1 and NaOH will react with each other as follows :
HC1 + NaOH NaCl + H20
Hydrogen gas bums with a pop sound.
37. (A) is calcium hydroxide and (B) is carbon dioxide.
Ca(OH)2 + C02 -> CaC03 + H20
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Milkiness
Na2C03 + 2HC1 * 2NaCl + C02 + H20
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EXPERIMENT 3
ee
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Aim : To perform and observe the following reactions and classify them into
(0 Combination reaction
(n) Decomposition reaction for
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(Hi) Displacement reaction
(iv) Double displacement reaction
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1. Action of water on quick lime.

Yo
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2. Action of heat on ferrous sulphate crystals.

B

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Main Points :
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ad
1. Action of water on quick lime

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CaO + H20 ■> Ca(OH)2

Quick lime Slaked lime
nd
(z) Reaction of quick lime with water to form slaked lime is an example of combination
Re
reaction.
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(zz) A lot of heat is produced when quick lime is dropped into water. It appears as if water is
boiling.
(in) Slaked lime is used for white washing. A coating of lime water on the wall reacts with
atmospheric carbon dioxide to form a layer of shining calcium carbonate.
Ca(OH)2 + C02 -> CaC03 + H20
Calcium
carbonate
(Shining)
2. Action of heat on ferrous sulphate crystals
2FeS04.7H20 - •> Fe203 + S02 + S03 + 14H20
Ferrous sulphate Ferric Sulphur Sulphur
crystals oxide dioxide trioxide
(z) Ferrous sulphate crystals on heating form ferric oxide. Sulphur dioxide, sulphur trioxide
and water vapours are also formed.
ReadYourFlow.COM
(ii) This reaction is an example of displacement reaction.
(Hi) The colour of ferrous sulphate crystals is green. On heating, it changes into black Fe203.
Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide gases can be identified by burning of sulphur smell.
Fe + CuS04 -> FeS04 + Cu
Iron Copper Ferrous Copper
sulphate sulphate (Brown)
(blue colour) (Light green
colour)
(i) Fe is higher on the activity series than Cu. Therefore, Fe displaces Cu from the solution of
CuS04.
(ii) This reaction is an example of displacement reaction.
(in) The blue colour of copper sulphate changes to light green colour due to the formation of
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ferrous sulphate. Metallic copper is deposited as reddish brown substance.
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Na2S04 + BaCl2 -> BaS04 + 2NaCl
Sodium Barium Barium sulphate Sodium
ee
sulphate chloride (white ppt.) chloride
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(i) Sodium sulphate reacts with barium chloride to form a precipitate of barium sulphate
alongwith sodium chloride.
(ii) This is an example of double displacement reaction.for
ur
ks
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question:
B
1. Zinc granules were added to zinc sulphate, copper sulphate, aluminium sulphate and iron
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sulphate solution as shown below. You would observe the deposition of metal on zinc in
beakers :
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ad
Y
Copper Aluminium / Jron(ll)

sulphate 'sulphate sulphate
nd
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---
Zinc Zinc
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(id (no (IV)

(a) I and III (b) Hand IV
(c) I and II (d) m and IV [CBSE 2011]
2. Four groups of students were assigned separately the experiment of interaction of iron nail
with a solution of copper sulphate. Each group recorded the observations as given below in the
table. Which group of students recorded all the observations correctly ?
Group of students Initial colour of solution Final colour of solution Change in the iron nail
(a) Blue Colourless Grey coat
(b) Green Green Brown coat
(c) Blue Blue Brown coat
(df Blue Light green Brown coat
[CBSE 2011]
ReadYourFlow.COM
3. A more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from the aqueous solution of the latter.
From the following sets tell which one represents a correct picture of both the possible (/)
reactions and impossible (X) reactions between metals and the solutions of different salts.
Metals ai2(so4)3 CuS04 FeSQ4 ZnS04
(0) A1 X / / /
(b) Cu / X X X
(c) Fe / / X X
(d) Zn X / X /
[CBSE 2011]
4. Reddish brown deposit obtained on iron nails when kept in a solution of CuS04 in water is that
of
(a) Cu20 (b) CuO
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(c) Cu {d) CuS [CBSE 2011]
5. When crystals of FeS04 are strongly heated the residue obtained is :
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(a) red in colour (b) blue in colour
(c) green in colour (d) colourless [CBSE 2011]
ee
6. When C02 is passed through lime water, milkiness formed is due to :
Fr
(a) CaC03 (b) Ca(OH)2
(c) Ca(HC03)2 (d) none of these [CBSE 2011]
for
ur
7. Copper turnings were added to a colourless salt solution. After 10 minutes it was observed that
the colourless solution turned to a coloured solution and shiny metal deposition appears. The
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colour of the solution and that of metal would respectively be
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(a) Yellow and Zn (b) Green and Fe

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(c) Red and Sn {d) Blue and Ag [CBSE 2011]

B
8. Iron filings were added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate. After sometime on observation
re
it was found that the colour of the solution has changed from
(a) blue to pale green. (b) blue to dark green.
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(c) blue to colourless. (d) blue to reddish brown. [CBSE 2011]

Y
9. What did you observe when you mixed aqueous barium chloride solution with aqueous
sodium sulphate solution in a test tube ?
nd
Re
(a) A pungent smelling gas is evolved.

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(b) The colour of the solution turns blue black.

(c) A white precipitate is formed immediately.
(d) No change in colour even after shaking the mixture well. [CBSE 2011]
10. Which one is not observed when aluminium is added to a solution of copper sulphate ?
(a) Tire solution is blue in the beginning.
(b) The final solution becomes colourless.
(c) The final solution becomes light green.
(d) A brown mass is deposited on the surface of Aluminium. [CBSE 2011]
11. Aluminium powder was added to a solution of copper sulphate. The colour of the solution
changed from :
(a) colourless to blue. (b) blue to colourless.
(c) light green to blue. (d) reddish brown to light green. [CBSE 2011]
ReadYourFlow.COM
12. If iron nails are kept in CuS04 solution for two hours, the colour of the solution will change in
to
(a) pink (b) red
(c) light green (d) yellow [CBSE 2011]
13. Four groups of students were asked to heat green crystals of ferrous sulphate and report the
odour of the gas evolved and colour of the residue obtained. The reports submitted by the
groups are given below :
Odour Colour of the residue
Group A burning sulphur green
Group B burning sulphur reddish brown
Group C like vinegar reddish brown
Group D sweet smelling blue
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Choose the correcting reporting group :
(a) Group A (b) Group B
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(c) Group C (d) Group D [CBSE 2012]
14. When water is added in a vessel containing lumps of quick lime, it is observed that:
ee
(a) the vessel becomes hot.
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(b) a hissing sound is produced.
(c) lump of quick lime breaks and dissolves partially in water.
for
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(d) all of the above take place. [CBSE 2012]
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15. To study the reaction between barium chloride and sodium sulphate, the following set up of
ks
apparatus has been arranged by students.
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Y
A solution A solution
B
of Na2S04 of BaCl2
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in water in water
Mixture of
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BaCl2 (s) and

ad
Na2SC>4 (s)
Y
A solution
of BaCl2
White ppt.
nd
in water Solid Na2S04

Re
(I) (ID (HI)

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The correct set up is/are :

(a) I (b) II
(c) III {d) Both II and El [CBSE 2012]
16. Barium chloride solution and sodium sulphate solution respectively appear as :
(a) blue and green (b) yellow and colourless
(c) both colourless {d) green and yellow [CBSE 2012]
17. When barium chloride solution and sodium sulphate solution are mixed together an insoluble
substance is formed, which is :
(a) Barium sulphate and it is yellow in colour.
(b) Sodium chloride and it is white in colour.
(c) Barium sulphate and it is white in colour.
(d) Barium sulphate and it is green in colour. [CBSE 2012]
ReadYourFlow.COM
18. Four students were asked to study the reaction between aqueous solutibns of barium chloride
and sodium sulphate. They reported their experiment as follows.
On mixing the solutions of the two salts in a test tube :
(i) The colour of the mixture becomes brown.
(21) The solutions form separate layer.
(in) a colourless mixture is obtained.
(iv) a white substance settles at the bottom.
The correct report is :
(«) (0 (b) (n) (c) (Hi) (d) (iv) [CBSE2012]
19. The reaction between quick lime and water is an exothermic reaction which is also known as a :
(a) Combination reaction (b) Decomposition reaction
(c) Displacement reaction (d) Precipitation reaction [CBSE 2012]
20. Four students in a class were asked to observe the effect of heating ferrous sulphate crystals.
w
They started heating ferrous sulphate in a test tube. The teacher stopped three of them for
adopting a wrong procedure for heating. Which of the following set-ups shows a correct way of
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heating ?
ee
Fr
or
ur
f
ks
(a) I [CBSE 2012]

Yo
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21. To study the reaction between BaCl2 and Na2S04/ the two compounds are mixed in the form
B
of:
re
(a) Dry powders

(b) Molten liquids
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ad
(c) Aqueous solutions

[CBSE 2012]
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(d) BaCl2 in solid and Na2S04 in aq. solution form.

22. On mixing solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate a white precipitate is obtained.
nd
Re
This reaction can be categorized as :

(a) Combination reaction (b) Decomposition reaction
Fi
(c) Double displacement reaction (d) Displacement reaction [CBSE 2012]

23. On mixing aqueous solutions of sodium sulphate and barium chloride, the correct observation
is shown in test tube :
ppt.
« ppt.
ppt. -5- Clear
solution
(i) (ID (in) (IV)
(«) (I) (b) (II) (c) (HD (d) (IV) [CBSE 2012]
ReadYourFlow.COM
24. Some iron nails were dropped in an unknown solution taken in a beaker and left for 10
minutes. It was then observed that a brown coating is formed on nails. The solution is of :
(a) A12(S04)3 (b) CuS04
(c) FeS04 (d) ZnS04 [CBSE 2012]
25. The gas evolved on heating ferrous sulphate crystals has :
(a) No odour and is brown in colour.
(b) Characteristic smell of burning sulphur.
(c) Fruity smell.
(d) Vinegar like pungent smell. [CBSE 2013]
26. A chemistry lab-incharge kept Zn metal in FeS04 solution, and observed that after sometime
green FeS04 solution turns to colourless and some brown powder was deposited on zinc. In the
above reaction, Zn metal acted as :
(a) Oxidising agent (b) Reducing agent
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(c) Dehydrating agent (d) Catalyst [CBSE 2013]
27. When you place an iron nail in copper sulphate solution, the reddish brown coating formed on
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the nail is :
(a) soft and dull (b) hard and flaky
ee
(c) smooth and shining (d) rough and granular [CBSE 2013]
Fr
28. The correct set of observation and inference for the action of water on quick lime is :
OBSERVATION INFERENCE
for
ur
(«) colourless solution is formed and a gas is evolved, Decomposition reaction
(b) a white precipitate is formed and the test tube becomes cold, Combination reaction
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(c) a white powder is formed and a lot of heat is absorbed, Displacement reaction
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(d) a white powder is formed and a lot of heat is evolved. Combination reaction
eB
[CBSE 2013]
29. Iron filings were placed in 20 mL of freshly prepared aqueous solution of aluminium sulphate.
r
After half an hour the observation regarding the colour of the solution was that it turned from
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ad
(a) colourless to blue (b) colourless to green

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(c) green to colourless (d) remained colourless [CBSE 2013]

30. Two beakers A and B contain aqueous solutions of iron sulphate. A student places a copper
nd
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plate in beaker A and a zinc plate in beaker B. After sometimes he observes a grey deposit on
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zinc plate and not on the copper plate. From these observations he may draw the following
conclusion :
(a) Zn is most reactive metal followed by Fe and Cu.
(b) Zn is most reactive metal followed by Cu and Fe.
(c) Fe is most reactive metal followed by Zn and Cu.
(d) Fe is most reactive metal followed by Cu and Zn. [CBSE 2013]
31. Sapna added a small strip of aluminium to ferrous sulphate crystals. Her observation should
be :
(a) No reaction takes place.
(b) Formation of crystals of aluminium sulphate.
(c) Ferrous sulphate crystals turn colourless.
(d) Aluminium turns light green. [CBSE 2013]
ReadYourFlow.COM
yhemistry Practicals P-45
32. In a decomposition reaction of ferrous sulphate crystals there is :

{a) Only one product formed.
(b) Only solid products formed.
(c) Only one reactant breaks down to give simpler products.
(rf) Only gaseous products formed. [CBSE 2013]
33. A student placed a clean iron nail in blue coloured copper sulphate solution for a considerable
time. He observes that:
(a) Iron nail gets green coating. {b) Iron nail gets brown coating.
(c) Iron nail gets no coating. (d) Iron nail get white coating. [CBSE 2013]
34. To carry out the decomposition reaction of FeS04 the compound has to be :
(a) in the form of solution, (b) in molten form.
(c) in crystalline form. (d) in ionic form. [CBSE 2013]
short Answer Type Questions (Two Marks Each)
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35. A substance of calcium (A) is used in white washing. A lot of heat is produced when it is added
to water. Identify (A) and write the reaction with water and the reaction by which it is used for
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white washing.
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36. Ferrous sulphate crystals on heating give iron oxide and a gas which is also obtained when
a match stick is burning. Identify the gas and give the complete reaction.
Fr
37. Name the type of reaction when an iron rod is kept in a solution of copper sulphate. What
will happen to iron rod and copper sulphate solutions ? for
ur
38. Write the reaction when a solution of barium chloride is added to a solution of sodium
sulphate. What type of reaction is it called ? Is the solution clear after the reaction ?
ks
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38. Water starts boiling when a lump of a substance is added to it. The solution thus obtained
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when applied to a wall gives a shining coating. What type of reaction is this ? Identify the
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substance used and give the reaction.

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1. (b) Zinc is more reactive than copper and iron.

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Zn + CuS04-----> ZnS04 + Cu
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Zn + FeS04-----> ZnS04 + Fe
Copper will be deposited on Zn in beaker II and Fe will be deposited on Zn in beaker
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IV.
2.* (d) Copper sulphate solution is blue while the colour of iron sulphate formed is light green.
Fe + CuS04-----> FeS04 + Cu
Copper is deposited as brown coating on non nail.
3. (a) Aluminium is the most reactive metal among Al, Cu, Fe and Zn. Therefore it will react with
Cu, Fe and Zn salts solutions.
4. (c) Copper is displaced from the solution of CuS04 and deposited as reddish brown coating on
iron nails.
Fe + CuS04 -> FeSQ4 + Cu
5. (a) FeS04 on heating gives a red residue of Fe203.
2FeS04 -> Fe203 + S02 + SO3
ReadYourFlow.COM
6. (a) Ca(OH)2 + C02-----> CaC03 + H20

CaC03 is insoluble and appears as milkiness.
7. (d) Out of the given metals, only Ag can be displaced from its solution.
Cu + 2AgN03-----> Cu(N03)2 + 2Ag
Blue solution Shiny metal
8. (a) Fe displaces Cu from the solution.
Blue Pale green
solution solution
9. (c) BaCl2 + Na2S04-----> 2NaCl + BaS04
Wliite ppt.
10. (b) 2A1 + 3CuS04-----> A12(S04)3 + 3Cu
Colourless
solution
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11. (W 2A1 + 3CuS04-----> A12(S04)3 + 3Cu
Colourless
solution
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12. (c) Fe + CuS04-----> FeS04 + Cu
Light
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green
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13. (b) Ferrous sulphate crystals on heating produce reddish brown Fe203 and S02 with a burning
sulphur odour.
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14. (d) On adding water to quick lime, all the given information is correct.
15. (b) Both tire substances should be mixed in solution form to give the reaction.
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16. (c) Solutions of both the substances are colourless.
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17. (c) Barium sulphate is formed which in white is colour.

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18. (d) On mixing solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate, a white substance is formed
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which settled at the bottom.

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19. (a) It is a combination reaction because two substances quick lime and water react to give a
single product.
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20. (c) While studying this reaction, the mouth of the test tube should not be towards ourself.
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21. (c) Tire reaction between BaCl2 and Na2S04 should be carried out in aqueous solution to allow
them to mix properly.
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22. (c) It is a double displacement reaction.

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BaCl2 + Na2S04-----> 2NaCl + BaS04i

23. (a) Tire barium sulphate formed is heavier and settles down.
24. (b) Brown coating is that of copper deposited on iron nails. Therefore, the solution is of copper
sulphate.
25. (b) Ferrous sulphate crystals on heating evolve S02 and S03 both of which give the smell of
burning sulphur.
26. (b) FeS04 has been reduced to Fe. Therefore, zinc has acted as reducing agent.
27. (c) A smooth and shining deposit of copper takes place on iron nail.
28. (d) Combination of quick lime and water is an exothermic reaction. A white powder of
Ca(OFl)2 is formed.
29. (d) There is no reaction of iron filings on aluminium sulphate. Therefore the aluminium
sulphate solution remains colourless.
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30. (<?) Zinc plate is affected but copper plate is not affected in FeS04 solution. Therefore the
decreasing order of reactivity is
Zn > Fe > Cu
31. (a) The reaction can take place if a solution of ferrous sulphate is taken.
32. (c) Ferrous sulphate crystals break to Fe203, SO: and S03 which are simpler products.
33. (b) Displacement reaction takes place.
Brown
Copper is deposited on Fe as brown coating.
34. (c) Crystals of FeS04 decompose to give Fe203/ S02 and S03.
35. Tire substance (Z) is CaO. The reaction with water is
CaO + H20 * Ca(OH)2 + Heat
Ca(OH)2 reacts with atmospheric C02 to form CaC03 which appears as shining white wash
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on the walls.
Ca(OH)2 + C02 * CaC03 + H20
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36. The gas evolved is S02 which is the same as obtaiued by burning sulphur. Tire complete
reaction is
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Heat
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2FeS04.7H20 ^ Fe203 + S02 + S03 + 14H20
37. It is a displacement type of reaction. Copper will be displaced and deposit itself on iron as
for
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red coating. Tire blue colour of copper sulphate will disappear.
38. Na2S04 + BaCl2 * BaS04 + 2NaCl
ppt.
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This is a double displacement reaction.
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The solution is not clear because of the formation of barium sulphate.

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39. This is a combination reaction. The substance that is used is quick lime CaO. The reaction
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involved is CaO + H20 Ca(OH)2 + Heat.

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EXPERIMENT 4
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Aim : {a) To observe the action of Zn, Fe, Cu and A1 metals on the following salt solutions
(/) ZirS04 (aq) (ii) FeS04 (aq)
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(Hi) CuS04 (aq) (iv) A12(S04)3 (aq)

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(b) Arrange Zn, Fe, Cu and A1 metals hr the decreasing order of reactivity based on the above
result.
Main points :
1. All the known metals have different reactivities. These metals have been arranged in order of
their reactivities.
2. A metal (A) which is more reactive than the other metal (B) can displace (B) from its salt
solution.
3. When such a reaction takes place, we observe a change in the colour of salt solution. We also
observe a deposit of less reactive metal on the more reactive metal.
4. ZnS04 and A12(S04)3 solutions are colourless, FeSQ4 solution is light green while CuS04
solution is blue.
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5. We take about 5 mL of 5% solutions of ZnS04/ FeS04/ CuS04 and A12(S04)3 in different test
tubes and dip a wire of zinc in each of them. We wait for a few hours for the reaction to take
place.
6. We observe the changes that take place in the colour of the solution and the deposit of metal
and draw the inference.
7. We repeat the experiment with other metals and then arrange the metals in decreasing order of
reactivity.
8. It is observed that A1 metal can displace Zn, Fe and Cu from their solution. Zn can displace Fe
and Cu from their solutions while Fe can displace Cu from its solution.
9. Based on the above observations, the decreasing order of reactivity of the metals is
A1 > Zn > Fe > Cu
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question:
1. An iron wire was dipped in a solution of copper sulphate taken in a beaker. Which of the
following observation is correct ?
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(a) The colour of the solution became brown.
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(b) No action took place.
(c) Brown coating was observed on iron wire.
(d) Green coating was observed on iron wire. f or
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2. Strips of Cu, Zn and A1 was dipped in solutions of copper sulphate in three different beakers as
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shown in the figure below :
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/^Cu strip ^ Zn strip ^ Al strip

Y
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L--:
CuS04 (aq) CuS04 (aq) CuS04(aq)

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(1) (II) (III)

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A brown coating was observed on the strip in

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(a) Beaker I only. (b) Beakers I and II

(c) Beaker II only. (d) Beakers II and III.
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3. Wires of Fe, Zn and Al were dipped in solutions of FeS04 in three different test tubes as shown
below :
Fe wire Zn wire Al wire
FeS04(aq) FeS04 (aq) FeS04 (aq)
(I) (ID (HI)
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A black deposit was observed on wires in

(a) test tube I only (b) test tubes II and III
(c) test tube III only (d) test tubes I and II
4. The reactivity of the metals Cu, Zn and Fe are correctly arranged in decreasing order of
reactivity as
(a) Zn > Cu > Fe (b) Zn > Fe > Cu
(c) Fe > Zn > Cu (d) Fe > Cu > Zn
5. The reactivity of metals Zn, Fe and A1 are correctly arranged in increasing order of reactivity as
(a) Fe < Zn < A1 (b) Fe < Al < Zn
(c) Zn < A1 < Fe (d) Zn < Fe < Al
6. Copper wire displaces the metal from the solutions of
(a) FeS04 solution (/;) ZnS04 solution
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(c) Al2(S04)3 solution (d) none of the above
7. Tire reactivity of the metals is arranged as under
Cu < Fe < Zn < A1
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
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(a) Fe displaces Cu from a solution of Cu(N03)2.
rF
Fr
(b) Zn displaces A1 from a solution of A12(S04)3.
(c) A1 displaces Fe from a solution of FeS04.
(d) A1 displaces Zn from a solution of Zn(N03)2.
8. Choose the correct statement.
for
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(a) A shiny brown deposit is obtained when iron metal is dipped in copper sulphate solution.
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(b) A black deposit is obtained when iron metal is dipped in aluminium sulphate solution.
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(c) A green deposit is obtained when zinc metal is dipped in copper sulphate solution.
Y
B
(d) A yellow deposit is obtained when aluminium metal is dipped in zinc sulphate solution.
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9. What is observed when a copper wire is dipped in a solution of copper sulphate ?

(a) A brisk effervescence takes place.
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(b) A white precipitate is formed.

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(c) A gas is evolved which burns with a pop sound.

(d) Nothing happens.
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10. Arrange the metals Al, Fe, Cu and Zn in decreasing order of reactivity.
(a) Cu > Fe > Zn > Al (b) Cu > Fe > Al > Zn
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(c) Al > Zn > Fe > Cu (d) Zn > Al > Cu > Fe [CBSE 2012]
11. Aluminium pieces are added to ZnS04, CuS04 and FeS04 solutions as shown below :
ZnS04 CuS04 FeS04
Al Al Al
CJ
(i) (id (in)
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Observation I 11 III
Solution after reaction colourless colourless colourless
Metal deposited Zn Cu Fe
On the basis of above observations, the correct conclusion is
(rt) A1 is more reactive than Zn, Cu and Fe.
(b) A1 is more reactive than Zn and Cu, but less reactive than Fe.
(c) A1 is more reactive than Cu, but less reactive than Zn and Fe.
(d) A1 is more reactive than Cu and Fe, but less reactive than Zn. [CBSE 2012]
12. Freshly prepared solutions of copper sulphate and iron sulphate respectively appear :
(a) blue and colourless (b) blue and pale green
(c) colourless and pale green (d) pale green and blue [CBSE 2012]
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13. When an iron nail is added to zinc sulphate solution it is observed that after sometime :
(a) the solution turns pale green.
(b) no reaction takes place.
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(c) the solution turns pale green and the surface of iron nail becomes silvery white.
(d) the solution turns blue. [CBSE 2012]
ee
14. Students in a lab were assigned the experiment to study the reaction of Zn with FeS04 solution.
Fr
The following set of observations were obtained. Identify the set where all observations were
correct.
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Set Initial colour of solution Final colour of solution Deposits, if any
Colourless Colourless Red
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(«)
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(b) Colourless Pale green Black

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(c) Pale green Blue Black

B
(d) Pale green Colourless Black

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[CBSE 2012]
15. Freshly prepared aqueous solutions of zinc sulphate and aluminium sulphate respectively
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appear :
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(a) pale green and blue (b) blue and pale green
(c) colourless and pale green (d) colourless in both cases [CBSE 2012]
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16. Freshly prepared aqueous solutions of aluminium sulphate and copper sulphate, respectively
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appear :
(a) colourless and blue (b) pale green and colourless
(c) blue and pale green (d) colourless and pale green [CBSE 2012]
17. Four strips labelled A, B, C and D along with their corresponding colours are shown below.
Which of these could be made up of aluminium ?
A B C D
Reddish brown Silvery grey Dark grey Blackish grey
ReadYourFlow.COM
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D .[CBSE 2012]
18. On adding some copper pieces to a solution of ferrous sulphate, it is observed :
(a) the colour of ferrous sulphate solution fades.
(b) a colourless gas is evolved.
(c) a blue precipitate is formed.
(d) no change occurs. [CBSE 2012]
19. When an aluminium strip is kept immersed in freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution taken
in a test tube, the change which is observed is :
(a) the green solution turns brown.
(b) the lower end of the test tube becomes slightly warm.
(c) a colourless gas with smell of burning sulphur is observed.
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(d) light green solution changes to blue. [CBSE 2012]
20. As shown in the figure given below, Cu rod is immersed in four different solutions and the
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arrangement is left undisturbed for two hours arid then colour of each solution is noted down.
Choose the correct option regarding the colour change.
ee
Fr
.Cu Rod ,Cu Rod .Cu Rod ,Cu Rod
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Al2(S04)3 ZnS04 FeS04 CUS04 --IT
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(IV)
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(I) (II) (III)

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(a) All solutions in I to IV showed colour change.

B
(b) Only I and II showed colour change.

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(e) None of them showed colour change.

(d) Only II and III showed colour change. [CBSE 2012]
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ad
21. Two beakers A and B contain iron (II) sulphate solution. In the beaker A is placed a small piece
Y
of copper and in the beaker B is placed a small piece of zinc. It is found that a grey deposit forms
on the zinc but not on the copper. From these observations it can be concluded that:
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(a) zinc is most active metal followed by iron and copper.

(b) zinc is most active metal followed by copper and then iron.
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(c) iron is most active metal followed by zinc and then copper.
(d) iron is most active metal followed by copper and then zinc. [CBSE 2012]
22. Out of the following pairs of compounds, identify the one where both the compounds form
coloured aqueous solution :
(a) Al2(S04)3, FeS04 (b) CuSO^ A12(S04)3
(c) FeS04, CuS04 (d) ZnS04, CuS04 [CBSE 2012]
23. Disha took two iron nails and put them in aluminium sulphate solution. After sometimes she
observed that:
(a) the solution becomes warm.
(b) grey-metal is deposited on the iron nail.
(c) the colourless solution changes to light green.
(d) solution remains colourless and no deposition is observed on the iron nail. [CBSE 2013]
ReadYourFlow.COM i
25. (a) Copper sulphate solution is blue in colour. After the reaction, A^SO^ is formed which is
colourless.
26. (b) Ferrous sulphate solution is light green in colour.
27. (a) The correct order of reactivity series is
A1 > Zn > Fe > Cu
28. As zinc is more reactive than iron, zinc sulphate is formed which is colourless. Again aluminium
is more reactive than copper, therefore aluminium sulphate is formed which is also colourless.
29. As zinc is more reactive than iron, the green colour is discharged. But copper is less reactive
than iron, therefore discharge of colour does not take place.
30. Dip a copper wire in zinc sulphate solution and wait for sometime. There is no change in the
appearance of copper wire showing that Cu is less reactive than Zn. Again dip an iron wire
in a solution of aluminium sulphate. Again there is no change in the appearance of iron wire.
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31. A grey deposit of Fe takes place on A1 wire and the green colour of FeS04 is discharged. This
is because aluminium is more reactive than iron.
32. The decreasing order of reactivity is
Zinc > Iron > Copper
ee
rF Zn + FeS04 —> ZnS04 + Fe
Fr
Green Colourless
Fe + CuS04 —> FeS04 + Cu
Blue Green
f or
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Y
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Y
nd
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Fi
k
ReadYourFlow.COM
BIOLOGY PRACTICALS
LIST OF EXPERIMENTS
1. To prepare a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show stomata.
2. To show experimentally that light is necessary for photosynthesis.
3. To show experimentally that carbon dioxide is given out during respiration.
EXPERIMENT 1
Aim: To prepare a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show stomata.

Material required: Leaves (preferably leaves of Lily, Tradescantia or Canna), glass slides, coverslips,
petridish, forceps, needles, brush, safranine, glycerine and filter paper.
Basic principle : The epidermal tissue usually comprises of a single layer of cells and constitutes
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the outermost layer over stem, root, leaf etc. Epidermis is not a continuous layer but is interrupted at
certain places by minute openings called as stomata.
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• Each stomata is comprises of a by pair of cells called guard cells. In dicots, guard cells are kidney
or bean shaped whereas dumble shaped guard cells are present in monocots.
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• Guard cells enclose an opening referred as stomatal pore or stoma through which exchange of
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gases during respiration and photosynthesis takes place. Loss of excess amount of water by the
process of transpiration also occurs through this pore.
for
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• Each guard cell contains nucleus, chloroplasts and have differentially thickened walls. In dicots,
the outer walls of guard cells is thin, elastic in nature whereas thickenings are present on the inner
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walls. Monocots have dumble shaped stomata present both in upper and lower epidermis. Both
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outer and inner middle walls are thickened whereas bulbous ends are thin.
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• The guard cells by changes in their shape regulates opening and closing of the stomatal pore.
B
• Stomata are surrounded by epidermal cells which differ in size and arrangement from the other
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epidermal cells. These are called as subsidiary or accessory cells. The stomata and the associated
subsidiary cells together form the stomatal complex. In many cases the subsidiary cells are absent.
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Subsidiary cell
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-------Bean shaped guard cells

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oos: Chloroplasts
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Outer thin walls

Differentially m 0 °rt '
9 o0 • 0
thickened walls >,0 T Stomatal pore
Inner thick walls O <3
Nucleus
Epidermal cell
Leaf peel showing stomatal complex in a dicot plant
( P - 55 )
ReadYourFlow.COM
Dumble shaped guard cells
Q ^
O ^ (O
0 0
Outer and inner thick middle walls
Stomatal pore
Nucleus
Thin bulbous ends
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Leaf peel showing dumble shaped stomata in a monocot plant
Procedure:
1. Take a leaf from lily or canna plant.
2. Hold a freshly plucked leaf stretched between your thumb and forefinger.
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3. Break off the leaf from front to back by putting pressure so that epidermis comes out from the lower
rF
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surface of the leaf.
Note: If your one trial fails to get the peel, try it repeatedly.
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4. Transfer a piece of leaf peel into a petridish containing water.
5. Now put a few drops of safranine stain on the peel. Keep it as such for two minutes.
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6. Wash the stained leaf peel to remove the extra stain. Transfer it on a clean glass slide with the help
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of a brush.
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7. Put a drop of glycerine on the slide over the peel. Take a coverslip and keep it at 45° with the slide.
B
Gently lower it down over the epidermal peel by using a needle.

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8. Drain out the excess of glycerine by blotting it with a filter paper.

9. Focus the material under the low power of the microscope and observe its characteristic features.
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10. Draw a labelled diagram of the peel as observed under the microscope.
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Observation: The leaf epidermis is made up of a single layer of cells which are irregular in outline.
The cells are closely packed with no intercellular space. The epidermal layer shows minute openings
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known as stomata. Each stomata comprises of two kidney shaped guard cells enclosing an opening
called stomatal pore. Each guard cell contains numerous chloroplasts, nucleus and much more
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protoplasm as compared to other epidermal cells. The walls of these guard cells are thickened on the
inner side. Outer walls of guard cells are thin and elastic in nature. The differential thickening of the cell
wall facilitates opening and closing of stomata.
Result: Minute apertures seen on the surface of leaf epidermis are stomata.
Precautions:
1. Take the peel from a freshly plucked leaf.
2. Clean the slide and coverslip before using them.
3. Always keep the peel in water so as to avoid its drying and curling.
4. Use a brush to transfer the peel from petridish to the slide.
5. Place the coverslip over the peel gently with the help of a needle to avoid the entry of air bubbles.
6. Try to mount the peel in the centre of the glass slide.
7. No extra stain or glycerine should come out of the coverslip. If so then wipe it with the help of a
small piece of filter paper or blotting paper.
ReadYourFlow.COM
Biology Practicals P-57
question:
1. In dicots, the wall of guard cell is :
(a) thicker on inner surface (b) thicker on outer surface
(c) thick on both surfaces (d) thin on outer as wall as inner walls
2. Which of the following is used to stain leaf peel to see stomata ?
(a) Dilute iodine solution (b) Safranine
(c) Fast green (d) Cotton blue
3. The leaf peel is generally transferred from a petridish to the glass slide with the help of:
(a) needle (b) brush (c) forcep (d) scalpel.
4. Tire coverslip is put on the slide gently to avoid :
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(a) entry of air bubbles (b) crushing of material
(c) curling of leaf peel (d) its breakage
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5. Which of the following cannot be used as the material for making leaf peel ?
(a) Petunia (b) Lily
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(c) Cactus (d) Bryophyllum
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6. Guard cells in dicot leaf are :
(fl) bean shaped (b) dumble shaped
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(c) cuboidal (d) rectangular
7. Extra stain and water on the prepared slide is removed by :
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(fl) tilting the slide. (b) heating the slide over a spirit lamp.
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(c) drying it in sunlight. (d) using filter paper.

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8. Students observed the epidermal peel of a leaf under the high power of a microscope. The
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following are the sketches made by them.

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(C)
The correct sketch is
(*) A (c) C
9. A student draws the following sketch of stomatal apparatus and numbers the parts to label them.
cP
iim.
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The chloroplast is denoted by

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
10. Four students A, B, C and D make the records given below, for the parts marked X and Y in this
diagram.
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Student
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X Y
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A Stomatal pore Guard cell
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B Guard cell Stomatal pore
C Epidermal cell Stomatal pore
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D Stomatal pore Epidermal cell
The correct record, out of these, is that of student:
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(«) A (b) B (c) C (d) D [CBSE 2009]

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11. The labelling for the slide of leaf peel showing stomata by the four students who made the
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diagram and tabulated the labels is as follows :

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Student I n m IV
A Stoma Nucleus Epidermal cell CeH wall
B Nucleus Stoma Epidermal cell Guard cell
C Epidermal cell Stoma Nucleus Cell wall
D Cell wall Epidermal cell Nucleus Stoma
ReadYourFlow.COM
The student who made the correct labelling is :
(a) Student A (b) Student B
(c) Student C (d) Student D [CBSE 2009]
12. Role of part A in plant is
Part A
(a) Gas exchange (b) Protection
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(c) Photosynthesis (d) Gas exchange as well as protection
[CBSE 2013]
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13. A student focussed the leaf epidermal peel under the low power of microscope but could not see
all the parts. He should
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(a) use the coarse adjustment knob again to focus the slide.
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(b) use the fine adjustment knob to increase magnification.
(c) focus under high power using coarse adjustment knob.
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(d) focus under high power using the fine adjustment knob. [CBSE 2008]
14. The temporary mount of the leaf epidermal peel which looked pinkish red under the microscope
ks
was
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(fl) stained in acetocarmine and mounted in glycerine.

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(b) stained in iodine and mounted in water.

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(c) stained in safranine and mounted in glycerine.

{d) stained in methylene blue and mounted in water. [CBSE 2008]
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15. A well stained leaf peel mount when observed under the high power of a microscope shows
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nucleus in :
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{a) epidermal cells only. (b) guard cells only.

(c) guard cells and epidermal cells. (d) guard cells, epidermal cells and stoma.
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[CBSE 2008]
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16. A student was asked to focus a permanent slide of leaf peel showing stomata under the high
power of a microscope. This involved the following steps which have not been written in a correct
sequence.
(A) Place the slide on the stage.
(B) Clean the microscope and lenses.
(Q Focus the material with the help of coarse adjustment.
(D) Place the low power objective lens above the slide.
(£) Sharpen the focus with fine adjustment.
(F) Bring high power objective lens over the slide.
Which one of the following options gives the correct sequence of steps for focussing the slide
under high power ?
(a) A, B, C, D, E, F (b) B, A, C, D, E, F
(c) A,B,F,C,D,E (d) B, A, D, C, F, E [CBSE 2007]
ReadYourFlow.COM
17. A well stained leaf peel preparation when focussed under high power of the microscope would
show :
(a) epidennal cells, stomata, a pair of guard cells each with one nucleus and many chloroplasts.
(b) epidermal cells, stomata, a pair of guard cells with many nuclei and one chloroplast each.
(c) stomata and guard cells without nuclei or chloroplasts.
(d) stomata, but without guard cells or epidermal cells. [CBSE 2007]
18. Choose the correct statement:
(a) Stomata are always surrounded by subsidiary cells.
(b) Stomata are absent in the leaves of submerged aquatic plants.
(c) Stomata are absent in the leaves of free floating plants.
(d) The guard cells are absent in some stomata. [CBSE 2013]
19. To prepare a temporary mount of leaf peel, one should take
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(a) dried and a preserved leaf.
(b) freshly plucked leaf.
(c) leaf placed in sunlight for 48 hours.
(d) any of the above.
20. Which of the following labels possess well defined nucleus ?
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(b)
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V for
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Y
B
(a) (a) and (b) (b) (a) and (c)

((f) {ci), (b) and (c)
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(c) (b) and (c)

21. To prepare a temporary mount of a leaf peel for observing stomata, the chemicals used for staining
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and mounting respectively are :

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(a) safranine and iodine.

(b) safranine and glycerine.
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(c) iodine and safranine.

((f) glycerine and iodine.
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22. Loss of excess water in the form of vapours through minute openings called stomata is referred
as :
(a) expiration (b) respiration
(c) transpiration ((f) perspiration
23. Opening and closing of stomata is controlled by:
(a) turgidity of guard cells.
(b) hormonal changes on guard cells.
(c) amount of protoplasm in the cell.
((f) none of the above.
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24. In the given sketch of stomatal apparatus which of the following is missing ?
(a) Cell membrane (b) Cell wall

(c) Nucleus of the guard cells (d) Chloroplast in the guard cells
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25. Given below are the steps in the preparation of a temporary mount of a stained leaf peel.
(i) Put a coverslip gently so that no air bubble enters it.
(it) Transfer the stained peel to a clean glass slide and add a drop of glycerine.
(Hi) Remove the peel from lower surface of leaf.
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(iv) Drop it in the petridish containing water and add a drop of safranine stain.
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The correct sequence of the experiment steps is
(a) {Hi), (iv), (ii), (i) (b) (i), (ii), (Hi), (iv)
(c) (ii), (Hi), (iv), (i) for
(d) (Hi), (iv), (i), (ii)
26. Which structure out of I, II, III and IV marked in the given diagram of the epidermal peel of leaf
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should be labelled as stoma ?
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B
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(«) I (b)n
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(c) m (d) iv
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27. What are stomata and where are they located ?

28. How do stomata differ in their structure and location in dicots and monocots ?
29. List the functions of stomata.
30. Why do we generally take the epidermal peel from the lower surface of the leaf ?
31. Is hydrilla an ideal plant for taking of leaf peel to see stomata ? Give reasons for your answer.
32. How is the opening and closing of stomata regulated ?
1. (a) Thicker on inner surface.

2. (b) Safranine.
3. (b) With the help of brush.
4. (a) To avoid the entry of air bubbles.
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5. (c) Cactus, as it is a xerophyte and has leaves reduced to spines. The leaf like structure is actually
a modified stem.
6. (a) Bean shaped.
7. (d) By using filter paper.
8. (a) Sketch A as guard cells have nucleus as well as chloroplasts.
9. (d) This is the correct labelling which indicates chloroplasts.
10. (a) X = Stomatal pore, Y = Guard cell
11. (b) Student B labelled correctly.
12. (a) Stomatal pore plays as important role in gaseous exchange.
13. (d) When the microscope is adjusted under high power we should use fine adjustment to
increase clarity.
14. (c) The living cells on staining with safranine become pinkish red.
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15. (c) Nuclei are visible only in guard cells and epidermal cells.
16. (d) This is the correct method.
17. (a) Epidermal cells, stomata, guard cells each with one nucleus and many chloroplasts.
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18. (b) Stomata are absent in the leaves of submerged aquatic plants, as they take oxygen dissolved
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in water for respiration.
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19. (b) Freshly plucked leaf.
20. {d) Both guard cells and epidermal cells have nucleus.
21. (b) Safranine is used for staining and glycerine for mounting.
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22. (c) Transpiration.
23. (a) Turgidity of guard cells. When guard cells swell up then the stomatal opening widens up.
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24. (c) Nucleus in guard cells are not shown.
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25. (d)
B
26. (c) The stomatal aperture is termed as stoma.

27. Stomata are minute openings present in the green aerial epidermal parts of the plant i.e., stem, leaf.
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28. Stomata in dicot plants comprises of two bean or kidney shaped guard cells. In monocots guard
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cells are dumble shaped and are present in equal number both in upper and lower epidermis. In
dicots the stomata are generally located on the lower epidermis.
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29. Stomata play a vital role in exchange of gases during the process of respiration and photosynthesis.
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Secondly, loss of excess water in the form of vapour occurs through stomata by the process known
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as transpiration. Transpiration is a necessary evil which cannot be ruled out in plants.

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30. Most dicot plants have stomata restricted to lower surface of leaves whereas monocots have equal
number of stomata present both in upper and lower epidermis. Hence peel is generally taken from
the lower surface of leaves.
31. Hydrilla is an aquatic free floating submerged plant with highly dissected leaves. So it is very
difficult to take out leaf epidermal peel from hydrilla. Secondly being a submerged aquatic plant
it lacks stomata. So the entire purpose is defeated as we will not be able to see stomata in case of
hydrilla plant.
32. Opening and closing of stomata is controlled by a change in the turgidity of guard cells. When the
guard cells become turgid the outer walls are pulled apart and the pore becomes open. When the
turgor pressure of guard cells decreases due to water loss, the outer walls regain their original
shape. The guard cell becomes flaccid and the stomatal pore closes.
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EXPERIMENT 2
Aim: To show that light is essential for the process of photosynthesis.

Material required : A healthy potted plant with green leaves, water bath, beaker, petridish, spirit
lamp, tripod stand, wire gauge, forceps, paper clip, black paper, alcohol and iodine solution.
Basic principle : Photosynthesis can be defined as the synthesis of an organic compound
(carbohydrate) from carbon dioxide and a hydrogen donor like water using radiant energy or solar
energy trapped by chlorophyll molecules. Oxygen is evolved as a by-product. The overall equation of
photosynthesis is:
Sunlight
6C02 + 12H20 C6H1206 + 6H20 + 602T
Chlorophyll
As photosynthesis converts inorganic carbon into organic state it is also called carbon assimilation.
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Procedure:
Select a healthy potted plant with green leaves. Destarch it by keeping it in darkness for 2-3 days.
• Cover a part of the leaf on both sides with two uniform pieces of black paper.
• Fix the black paper in position with the help of clips.
• Keep the plant in sunlight for 6-8 hours.
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• Pluck the leaf partially covered with black paper.
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• Remove the black paper and boil it in water for 5-10 minutes. Transfer the leaf in a beaker
containing alcohol.
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• Place the beaker containing alcohol and leaf in a big beaker containing water. Indirectly heat the
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leaf placed in alcohol so as to remove the chlorophyll and decolourise it.
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• Wash the decolourised leaf with water. Take the leaf in a petridish and pour iodine solution on
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the leaf in the petridish.

• Take out the leaf from the petridish and observe which part of the leaf has turned blue-black.
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Observation : The exposed part of the leaf, which was not covered with black paper turns blue-
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black. On the other hand, the covered part of the leaf does not turn blue-black. It shows pale brown
colour after putting iodine on it.
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Inference/Result: This shows that starch is formed in the part of the leaf which is exposed to
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sunlight and starch is not formed in that part of the leaf which is covered with black paper. It clearly
demonstrates that light is essential for photosynthesis.
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Precautions:
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• Use the plant which is destarched by keeping it in darkness.

• Black paper should be tightly fixed so that no light can pass through it.
• Don't heat alcohol directly on flame as it may catch fire.
• Remove the green colour pigment completely before treating the leaf with iodine solution.
question:
1. Before starting experiment, the potted plant is kept in a dark to:
(a) remove chlorophyll from leaves. (b) remove starch from the leaves.
(c) denature the enzyme. (d) all the above.
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2. A potted plant is kept in dark for 72 hours immediately after it one leaf of it is tested for the
presence of starch it will show :
(a) Presence of starch in all parts. (b) Presence of starch in some parts.
(c) Absence of starch in all parts. (d) None of the above.
3. A leaf is covered with which of the following during the experiment to prove that light is
necessary for photosynthesis.
(a) Ganong's Parometer (b) Ganong's Potometer
(c) Ganong's light screen (d) Malvin dark screen
4. A student wanted to decolourise a leaf. He should boil the leaf in which of the following solvent:
(a) Formaldehyde (b) Glycerine
(c) Water (d) Alcohol [CBSE 2012]
5. When a leaf is boiled in alcohol and then treated with iodine solution, its colour changes into :
{a) pink (b) blue
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(c) blue-black (d) black
6. At the end of the experiment to show that light is necessary for photosynthesis, the experimental
leaf covered with black strips is tested for:
(a) sugar in leaf (b) water in leaf
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(c) starch in leaf rF (d) alcohol in leaf
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7. The leaves of a potted plant can be destarched by keeping it in
(a) light for 2-3 days. (b) light for 2-3 hours.
(c) darkness for 2-3 days.
or
(d) darkness for 2-3 hours.
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8. A leaf from a destarched plant is covered with black strip as
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shown in figure and then kept in sunlight for 4-5 hours. When
starch test was done which part will turn blue-black ?
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(a) A only
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(b) B only
(c) C only
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(d)_ A and C both.

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9. A student performed the starch test on a leaf. Some steps involved are shown below:
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nd
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(i) Leaf in boiling water (ii) Leaf in iodine solution (iii) Leaf in ethanol heated (iv) Leaf in water at room
in a water bath temperature
The correct sequence of steps should be
(a) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (b) (0, (»)/ (Hi), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) [CBSE Sample Paper Question]
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10. A leaf from a destarched plant is covered with black paper strip as shown in figure. The starch
test is done on the leaf after 8 hours.
white
black green
paper
Figure 1
The results will be as shown in diagram
(*) ^ (b) B
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(c) C (d) D [CBSE Sample Paper Question]
11. The steps, necessary for setting up the experiment, "To demonstrate that light is necessary for
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photosynthesis" are not given here in proper sequence.
(I) Keep the potted plant in sunlight for 3 to 4 hours.
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(H) Keep the potted plant in darkness for about 48 hours.
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(III) Cover a leaf of the plant with a strip of black paper.
(IV) Pluck the leaf and test it for starch.
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The correct sequence of steps is :
(a) i,m,iv,n (b) I, IV, m, n
(c) n,iv,m,i (d) H,HI,I,IV ' [CBSE 2009]
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12. For the experiment, "Light is necessary for Photosynthesis", the potted plant is first kept in
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darkness for a day. This is to :

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(a) deactivate the chloroplasts (b) destarch the leaves

(c) activate chloroplasts (d) prepare leaves for photosynthesis.
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[CBSE 2009]
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13. In which one of the following, a positive test for the presence of starch would be obtained ?
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nd
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Leaf Leaf Leaf. Leaf

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t
Benedict’s solution
f
NaOH solution
t
Iodine solution
t
Water
Set up (A) Set up(B) Set up (C) Set up (D)
(a) Set up (A) (b) Set up (6)
(c) Set up (C) (d) Set up (D)
14. Which one of the following statements holds true for submerged water plants like hydrilla.
(a) Intense light is not needed for photosynthesis.
(b) Photosynthesis does not occur.
(c) Intense light is necessary for photosynthesis.
(d) Carbon dioxide is not required for photosynthesis.
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15. A destarched potted plant was taken by a student. He covered portion ‘A of the leaf with
transparent sheet and portion 'B' with a black paper. After this he kept the potted plant in sun for
about six hours. While performing the starch test on the experimental leaf he observed that:
(a) both portions ‘A and ‘B’ turned blue-black.
(fr) portion ‘A turned blue-black and portion 'B' did not change colour.
(c) portion ‘B’ turned blue-black and portion ‘A did not change colour.
{d) both portions did not change their colour.
16. While boiling leaf in alcohol, water bath is used because :
(a) alcohol is highly inflammable.
(b) water is used as a coolant.
(c) alcohol requires water for boiling.
(d) alcohol gives the nutrients to the leaf at high temperature.
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17. Given here is a sketch of a leaf partially covered with black paper and which is to be used in the
experiment to show that light is necessary for the process of photosynthesis. At the end of the
experiment which one of the leaf parts labelled I, II and III will become blue-black when dipped in
iodine solution.
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f or
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(a) I only (b) Ilonly

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(c) I and III (d) II and III

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18. The teacher instructed a student to place a potted plant in dark for 24 hours prior to an experiment
on photosynthesis. The purpose of placing it in a dark room is to :
(b) activate chloroplast in leaves
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(a) increase intake of oxygen

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(c) destarch leaves (d) denature the enzymes in leaves.

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19. During the experiment to show that plants do photosynthesis, the destarched leaf is boiled in
alcohol. Once the boiling is completed :
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(a) alcohol remains colourless.

(b) leaf remains greenish.
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(c) alcohol turns greenish and leaf becomes colourless.

(d) no visible change occurs.
20. The figure depicts one of the steps of the experiment. What do the labelling (1) and (2) denote ?
(2)
Leaf
y -
(D
\
Tripod stand
Burner
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(a) (1) water, (2) iodine (b) (1) alcohol, (2) water
(c) (1) water, (2) alcohol (d) (1) alcohol, (2) iodine
21. A plant taken for the experiment to prove that light is essential for photosynthesis, should be
destarched
(a) to prevent the wastage of starch.
(b) so that the plant should use the starch prepared by it.
(c) because presence of starch in plant will hamper the result.
(d) to make this plant look different from the rest of the plants.
22. What will happen if a potted green plant is kept in a dark place ?
(a) Photosynthesis will be slow. {b) Photosynthesis will stop.
(c) Photosynthesis will increase. (d) Photosynthesis will take place in intervals.
23. In an experiment to prove that light is necessary for photosynthesis, one of the items is not used in
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the procedure. Identify it.
(a) Alcohol (b) Black paper
(c) Starch solution (d) Water bath.
24. A leaf is boiled in alcohol before using iodine for a starch test in order to
(b) dissolve chlorophyll
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(a) dissolve starch
(c) soften the leaf rF (d) make it react with iodine
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25. When leaf is boiled with ethanol and treated with iodine solution, its colour changes into :
(a) pink (b) blue
(c) blue-black (d) black for
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26. The best result for the experiment that light is necessary for photosynthesis would be yielded by
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using leaves from a plant kept for over twenty four hours :
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(a) in a pitch dark room.

(b) in a dark room with table lamp switched on.
B
(c) outside in the garden.

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(d) outside in the garden covered by glass case.

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27. In an experiment on photosynthesis, students were instructed to cover a portion of a leaf of a

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destarched potted plant with opaque paper of different colours.

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Student "A" covered the leaf with red strip, "B" with green, "C" with blue and "D" with black
strip. When the starch test was done on the leaf after 4 hours the result showed no starch in
(a) the portion covered with red, green and blue strips.
(b) the portion covered with green strip.
(c) the portion covered with black and blue strips.
(d) any of the covered portion.
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28. Define photosynthesis and give an overall equation for it.
29. Why does the part of the leaf covered with black paper not turn blue-black in an experiment to
demonstrate conditions essential for photosynthesis ?
30. Why does the leaf to be tested for the presence of starch first have to be boiled in alcohol ?
31. In an experiment to demonstrate that light is essential for photosynthesis, the leaf is boiled in
alcohol. But why should the leaf not be directly boiled in alcohol.
32. Mention the wavelengths of visible light which are most effective in photosynthesis.
33. Name the cell organelle of plant cells which have chlorophyll. Draw a well labelled diagram to
show the position of chlorophyll.
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1. (b) Remove starch from the leaves.

2. (c) Absence of starch in all the parts as it has not been exposed to light.
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3. (c) Ganong's light screen. rF
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4. (d) Alcohol.
5. (d) Blue-black.
6. (c) Starch in leaf. f or
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7. (d) Darkness for 2-3 days.
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8. (d) 'A' and 'C both.
9. (d) Boiling kills the cells, chlorophyll leaches out when boiled in ethanol but the leaf becomes
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brittle, made normal by washing it in water. Starch gets stained with iodine.
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10. (b) Sunlight is not available to the covered portion. Hence no starch present. It remains white
after starch test.
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11. (d) Self explanatory.

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12. (d) destarch the leaves.

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13. (c) Setup (C).

14. (a) Intense light is not needed for photosynthesis in case of hydrilla.
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15. (b) Portion 'A' turned blue-black and portion 'B' did not change colour.
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16. (a) Alcohol is highly inflammable.

17. (c) I and III.
18. (c) To destarch leaf as it is the first step of the experiment.
19. (c) Alcohol turns greenish and leaf becomes colourless.
20. (c) The leaf is boiled in alcohol in a water bath.
21. (b) so that the plant should use the starch prepared by it.
22. (b) Photosynthesis will stop.
23. (c) Starch solution.
24. (b) As chlorophyll is soluble in alcohol.
25. (c) Starch turns blue-black when treated with iodine solution.
26. (a) As photosynthesis can take place in dim light also.
27. (d) Since the paper is opaque, photosynthesis will not occur in any of the covered area.
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28. Photosynthesis is a biochemical process taking place in most of the higher green plants by which
food (carbohydrate) is manufactured using carbon dioxide and water in presence of sunlight and
chlorophyll.
Sunlight
6C02 + 12H20 -> C6H1206 + 6H20 + 602T
Chlorophyll
(glucose)
29. As the part of leaf covered with black paper is unable to receive sunlight hence no photosynthesis
takes place. Therefore no starch is produced in the.part of the leaf which is covered with black
paper.
30. Tire leaf is boiled in alcohol to dissolve chlorophyll. Pigment chlorophyll is an organic molecule
which gets dissolved only in an organic solvent. This pigment which is green in colour needs to
be removed as it interferes with the test for the presence of starch.
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31. The leaf should not be directly boiled in alcohol as it is highly inflammable and it may catch fire.
32. The wavelength of visible light which are most effective in photosynthesis are red and blue light.
33. Chloroplast are the double membranous cell organelles in plant cells which contains chlorophyll.
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Outer Chloroplast
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________ ^ membrane
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Inner Chloroplast
Chlorophyll molecules
-■*- membrane
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located on
thylakoid membrane
• '■ is
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* '•
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Grana
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B
Inter granal
• •
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lamellae
Stroma
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Chlorophyll molecules are

located on outer and inner chloroplast
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membrane
Cross-section of chloroplast
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EXPERIMENTS
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Aim: To show experimentally that carbon dioxide is given out during respiration.
Required material: Soaked germinating seeds of gram, pea or bean, conical flask, glass tube bent
twice at right angle in the same direction, beaker, cork, small test tube, thread, vaseline, ink, cotton and
20% freshly prepared potassium hydroxide (KOH) solution.
Basic principle:
Each and every living cell of the organism respires.
• Respiration is a catabolic process of oxidation or breaking down of food in the living cells with the
release of C02 and energy.
QPÔg + 602 Enzymes 6C02T + 6H20 + energyt
• The organic compounds which are oxidised during respiration are known as respiration
substrates.
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• All the reactions that are involved in the oxidation of food inside the cell i.e., glycolysis (breaking
down of glucose into pyruvic acid) and Kreb's cycle (oxidation of pyruvic acid into C02 and H20)
constitutes cellular respiration.
Delivery tube
Cork
■Thread
Rising water
level
KOH - Beaker—> '
solution
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Moist cotton Coloured-
water
Germinating seeds
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Procedure:
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1. Put some germinating seeds in a conical flask containing moist cotton.
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2. Hang a small test tube containing KOH solution in conical flask with the help of thread as shown
in the figure.
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3. Close the mouth of the conical flask with a cork having a hole in the centre.
4. Connect one end of glass tube through the hole to the conical flask and dip the other end in a
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beaker containing coloured water.
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5. Make all the connections air tight by using vaseline.

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6. Keep the whole apparatus undisturbed for 6-8 hours.

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7. Make the initial and final position of the water level in the delivery tube.
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Observation:
The level of coloured water in the bent tube rises up. Germinating seeds consume oxygen during
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respiration and give out carbon dioxide. C02 is absorbed by KOH and a partial vacuum is created in the
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conical flask. To fill up this vacuum air from bent tube is pulled up and the level of coloured water rises.
The rise in water level is proportional to the amount of C02 produced by germinating seeds.
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Result: The experiment shows that germinating seeds respire and during this process C02 gas is
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evolved which is absorbed by KOH solution.

Precautions:
1. Seeds used for the experiment should be germinating.
2. KOH solution should be freshly prepared.
3. The whole apparatus should be air tight.
question:
1. Vaseline is used in the experiment to show that C02 is released during respiration to :
(a) make the experimental set up shine.
(b) make the experimental set up air tight.
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(c) dean the experimental set up as it traps microbes.

(d) allow C02 to be released slowly. [CBSE 2012]
2. Name the chemical present in the small test tube marked 'X' in an experiment to show that C02 is
released during respiration.
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Water
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(a) Water (b) Lime water
(c) Alcohol {d) Potassium hydroxide
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3. Respiration occurs rapidly in which one of the following types of seeds ?
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(a) Germinating seeds (b) Dry seeds
(c) Seeds dipped in alcohol (d) Boiled seeds
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4. The cell organelle which is associated with cellular respirsation is :
(a) chloroplast (b) mitochondria
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(c) nucleus (d) lysosome.
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5. Which of the following is a catabolic process ?

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(a) Respiration (b) Photosynthesis

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(c) Digestion (d) Both (a) and (c)

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6. In a set up to study "C02 is released during respiration", the water level did not rise in the delivery
tube. Which of the following could be the reasons ?
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(1) The conical flask is not air tight. (2) Germinating seeds have dried up.
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(3) Water is not coloured. (4) KOH is not fresh.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
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(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

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7. In the following set up which shows that "carbon

dioxide is given out during respiration", the KOH kept
in the flask:
(a) makes the air in the flask alkaline. KOH
(b) creates partial vacuum in the flask. solution
(c) absorbs moisture present in the flask.
(d) provides oxygen for respiration to the germinating seeds.
[CBSE 2009]
Germinating seeds water
8. In the experiment to show that 'C02 is given out during respiration', the type of respiration is
(a) anaerobic (b) aerobic
(c) anabolic (d) catabolic [CBSE 2010]
ReadYourFlow.COM
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9. In the experiment shown in the figure, water is found to rise in

the bent tube. The reason is that:
{a) C02 in the delivery tube pushes up the water. KOH
(b) partial vacuum is created in the flask. solution
(c) atmospheric pressure outside is reduced.
(d) water rises due to capillary action. Germinating seeds
m
Water
10. The following experiment is set up to show that a gas is released during respiration by germinating
seeds. In this set up, the small test tube containing KOH solution is kept in the conical flask to
absorb
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KOH
solution
E=:£==:
Germinating seeds Water
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(a) air in the flask. rF (b) moisture in the flask.
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(c) 02 in the air in the flask. (d) C02 released by the germinating seeds.
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11. Using the same number of given germinating gram seeds, two students A and B set up the
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experiment separately. Student 'A' used a cotton plug to hold the bent tube in the mouth of the
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flask. Student B used a rubber cork.
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Cotton plug Rubber Coi
KOH solution KOH solution

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(A) Germinating seeds Water (B) Germinating seeds Water

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After 4 hours they noticed that

(a) water level increased in the bent tube of student A.
(b) water level increased in the bent tube of student B.
(c) the cotton plug was wet.
(d) the water in the beaker of student B turned milky. [CBSE Sample Paper Question]
12. In the experiment demonstrating respiration in germinating seeds, KOH is used to :
(a) absorb C02 produced by germinating seeds.
(b) absorb oxygen present in the flask.
(c) absorb water vapours released by the seeds.
(d) liberate oxygen to be used by the seeds. [CBSE 2007]
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13. Out of the four experimental set-ups shown below, which one will demonstrate the evolution of
carbon dioxide during respiration of germinating seeds ?
Cotton plug Rubber Cork
KOH solution KOH solution
Germinating
seeds \
Water Water
(I) (ID
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Rubber Cork
Rubber Cork
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KOH solution
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Germinating
seeds
Germinating
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seeds \ /
Water
Water
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(HI)
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(IV)
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(«) i (b) n (c) m (d) IV [CBSE 2007]

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14. An experimental set up has been shown below. The

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purpose of the set up is to show that Rubber cork

(a) KOH is essential for respiration.
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(b) C02 is released during photosynthesis by plants.

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(c) germinating seeds need oxygen for respiration.

(d) C02 is produced by germinating seeds during respiration.
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15. Which one of the following is correct set of three precautions for setting up the experiment to
demonstrate that C02 is evolved during respiration ?
(a) Air tight set up, delivery tube dips in water in beaker, flask has seeds which have just
germinated.
(b) Thread holding KOH test tube, air tight flask, delivery tube above surface of water in the
beaker.
(c) Germinated seeds under water in the flask, experimental set up not too air tight, delivery
tube above water level.
(d) Delivery tube touching bottom of water, KOH test tube held by a thick wire, seeds immersed
in water. [CBSE 2008]
16. In the experiment" To show that C02 is given out during respiration" the water level in the bent
tube rises after sometime because
(a) the germinating seeds consume all the 02 and C02 in the flask.
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(b) the germinating seeds consume 02 and give out C02 which is absorbed by a chemical filled
in the small test tube.
(c) C02 is given out by the germinating seeds.
(d) seeds need water for germination and grow.
17. Given below are four different set ups to show that C02 is released during respiration.
KOH KOH KOH .Water

solution solution solution
lili mm IS
Dry gram seeds Water Boiled gram Water Germinated Water Wet and KOH
seeds seeds germinated
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gram seeds
(A) (B) (C) (D)
The set up will give the desired result with
(a) A - Dry gram seeds (b) B - Boiled gram seeds
(c) C - Germinated gram seeds (d) D - Wet and germinated gram seeds.
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18. A student while setting up the experiment to show that C02 is evolved during respiration
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committed some errors shown in the figure. The changes that should be made in the set up and to
get desired results is
(a) KOH should be taken in a small test tube inside the flask
and germinating seeds in a beaker.
for
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(b) KOH should be taken in a small test tube inside the flask •Water
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and water in a beaker.

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(c) Water should be taken in small test tube inside the flask
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Y
B
and KOH in a beaker. Wet and KOH

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(d) Water should be taken in a small test tube and KOH in the germinated
conical flask. gram seeds
ou
ad
19. A student sets up the apparatus under ideal conditions for the experiment to show that C02 is
Y
released during respiration. After two hours he would observe

(a) KOH turning milky.
nd
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(b) water level rising in the bent tube in the beaker.

(c) water level decreasing in the bent tube.
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(d) no change in water level in the bent tube.

20. In the following experimental set up to show C02 is given out during respiration the substances
taken in the test tube and in beaker can be :
Germinating seeds
ReadYourFlow.COM
1
{a) KOH pellets and water respectively.

(b) water and KOH pellets respectively.
(c) KOH pellets and lime water respectively.
(d) lime water and KOH pellets respectively.
21. Define respiration and give an overall reaction for the same.
22. Name the two steps involved in cellular respiration. Which cell organelle is associated with the
process of respiration ?
23. In the following experiment KOH pellets are taken in a specimen tube and germinating seeds in
the conical flask. Explain the role of KOH and germinating seeds in this experiment.
w
Flo
KOH
ee
Fr
Moist cotton
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r
24. Given below are four different set ups to show that C02 is released during respiration. Identify the
ou
ks
set up that will give the desired result with plausible explanation.
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Y
B
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KOH KOH KOH

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ad
gH P
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^3:
Dry gram seeds Water Boiled gram Water Germinating Water Germinating Water
seeds gram seeds seeds
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Set up (A) Set up (B) Set up (C) Set up (D)

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1. (b) make the experimental set up airtight.

2. (d) Potassium Hydroxide
3. (a) Germinating seeds.
4. (b) Mitochondria.
5. (d) Both respiration and digestion are catabolic process.
6. (c) 1,2 and 4.
7. (b) KOH creates a partial vacuum in the flask by absorbing C02 released by germinating seeds.
8. (b) Aerobic.
ReadYourFlow.COM
r

9. (b) Seeds take up the 02 and release C02 during respiration. This C02 is absorbed by KOH
creating partial vacuum in the flask. So water rises in the tube.
10. (d) KOH absorbs C02 released by the seeds.
11. (b) The conical flask should be closed with rubber cork to make it airtight. Otherwise partial
vacuum will not be created.
12. (a) Absorb C02 produced by the germinating seeds.
13. (d) Set up IV is correct.
14. (d) 0O2 is produced by germinating seeds during respiration.
15. (a) Set up (a) is correct.
16. (b) Absorption of C02 and consumption of oxygen during respiration, partial vacuum is created
in the flask.
17. (d) Wet and germinated gram seeds.
w
18. (b) KOH should be taken in small test tube inside flask and water in a beaker.
19. (b) Water level rising in the bent tube in the beaker as C02 released is absorbed by KOH kept in
flask.
Flo
20. (a) KOH is taken in test tube to absorb C02 released which results in rising of water in bent tube
ee
dipped in beaker containing water.
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21. Respiration is a biochemical catabolic process of oxidation of food in the living cells with the
release of carbon dioxide and energy.
C6H1206 + 602---- > 6C02 + 6H20 + energy
for
ur
22. The two steps of cellular respiration are glycolysis and Krebs cycle. Mitochondria is the double
membranous organelle involved in the process of respiration.
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23. Potassium hydroxide is a carbon dioxide acceptor which absorbs the C02 released by the
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germinating seeds in the conical flask. Germinating seeds exhibits respiration. They absorb
B
oxygen and give out the carbon dioxide.

24. Set up (C) will give the desired result. This set up is appropriate to demonstrate that C02 is
re
released during respiration. Germinating seeds consume oxygen present in conical flask during
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ad
respiration. They release carbon dioxide which is absorbed by KOH and a partial vacuum is
created in the flask. To fill up this vacuum air from the delivery tube is pulled up and the water
Y
level rises in the bent tube. So set up C will give the desired result.
nd
Re
Fi
ReadYourFlow.COM

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MODEL TEST PAPERS

BEST BOOK PUBLISHING HOUSE

MODEL TEST PAPERS

(FOR DELHI SECONDARY SCHOOLS, ALL INDIA SECONDARY SCHOOLS AND

BEST BOOK PUBLISHING HOUSE

Baking soda. Washing soda and Plaster of Paris.

THEME : THE WORLD OF LIVING (20 Periods)

Unit II : World of Living

THEME : HOW THINGS WORK (32 Periods)

THEME : NATURAL RESOURCES (8 Periods)

Unit IV : Sources of Energy

(d) Lemon juice

(/) Dilute sodium bicarbonate solution.

(a) Litmus solution (Blue/Red)

(b) Zinc metal

(c) Solid sodium carbonate.

(a) Combination reaction

(b) Decomposition reaction

and/or integrate unique pieces of infor­

mation from a variety of sources)

2. U-LIKE CCE Sample Question Paper 2 (With Solutions) A-12

2. Acids, Bases and Salts

3. Metals and Non-metals 68

5. Control and Coordination 142

7. Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 218

8. Sources of Energy 256

Na2C03 + 2HC1-----> 2NaCl + C02 + H2Q

equation and a balanced chemical equation.

then it is skeletal chemical equation.

It represents the reactants and products of the reaction.

H20-----» H2 + 02 Skeletal equation

2H20-----> 2H2 + 02 Balanced chemical equation

9. What is meant by concentration of an ore ? Why is it necessary to concentrate an ore

(zz) Calcium sulphate CaSO -h2o

(Hi) Sodium hydrogencarbonate NaHC03

12. An electric heater consumes energy at the rate of :

(b) 420 W when the heating is minimum.

A-4 U-Like Science-X

Mathematically, resistance ^ = where p is a constant depending on the nature of material

of given conductor and is known as the resistivity of the material of conductor.

16. List any three advantages of using solar cells.

Ans. Three advantages of using solar cells are as follows :

U-LIKE CCE Sample Question Paper 1 A-5

the reason behind it.

■*----- Delivery tube

A-6 U-Like Science-X

direction only. periodically.

2. The magnitude of current may or may 2. Magnitude of current continuously

(b) Frequency of A.C. supply in India is 50 Hz and a potential difference of 220 V is

(i) (ii) (iii)

in presence of oxygen. the absence of oxygen.

Nervous Control Chemical Control

(1) It comprises of nerve impulses (1) It comprises of endocrine system which

A-8 U-Like Science-X

Longitudinal section of a human heart

the left hand side chambers pump oxygenated blood.

25. The pH of a few samples of NaOH solution of different concentrations is given

Ans. (d) Same in all the cases.

(n) remain same {b) decrease

{d) not be measurable

(a) Whole leaf turned blue-black.

Ans. In arrangement (A) resistances = 3 £2 and R2 = 6 Q. are connected in series and so

and/or integrate unique pieces of infor