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TYMR

29-09-2022 CODE-B

Aakash
OBYJU'S
Phase-2
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456

MM:360
FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time 90 min.

for NEET 2024)

Test 5
:Motion in a Plane: Introduction, Scalars and Vectors, Multiplication of vectors by real numbers,
Physics Addition and subtraction of vectors-graphical method., Resolution of vectors, Vector addition-
constant acceleration.
analytical method., Motion in a plane, Motion in a plane with
and Periodicity in Properties
Chemistry : Classification of Elements Archaebacteria-
Classification(Contd.): EconomicC bacteria,
importance of
Botany : Biological
methanogens, halophiles, thermoacidophiles, Eubacteria - Cyanobacteria, Mycoplasma, Protista-
General characters, Chrysophytes, Dinoflagellates, Euglenoids, Slime moulds, Protozoans-major
groups with some salient features
structure of Larynx, sound production,
Zoology :Breathing and Exchange of Gases-l: Respiratory passage,
Internal structure, alveoli., Mechanism of breathing-
lungs, pleurae, external structure of lungs,
Inspiration, expiration thoracic and abdominal breathing. Respiratory/Pulmonary
of between alveoli & blood; exchange of gases
volumes/Respiratory capacities, Exchange gases
of carbon dioxide,
between blood and tissue cells., Transport of oxygen, Bohr's effect; Transport
Chloride shift (Hamburger's phenomenon), Haldane effect

Instructions

(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only t darken the appropriate circle.
(i) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
each entry.
(ii) Dark only one circle for
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only. rubbing
the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other
work must not be done on
() Rough
material on Answer sheet.
1 mark shall be deducted from total score.
Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response
(vi)

PHYSICSS

Choose the correct answer: 0 with a


particle starts from origin at t s
=
2. A
relations is correct?
1. Which of the following
velocity of 10.0j m/s and moves in the x-y plane
(O is a null vector)
(1) A+
with constant acceleration of (8 +2/) m/s?. The

y-coordinate of particle in 2 s is
2 A- (2) 16 m
(1) 24 m
(3) A-0-Ö
(3) 8 m (4) 12 m
(4) 0-A

(1)
Fortnightly Test-5 (TYMR_Code-B) Two Year Medical-2024
3. When a vector is multiplied by -1 then its 10. Which of the following set of magnitudes of three
(1) Only magnitude will change forces can't make zero resultant (All are
2y Only direction will change coplanar)?
(3) Both magnitude and direction will change (1) 2,11,5 (2) 8,6, 6

(4) Neither magnitude nor direction will change (3) 3,5, 4 (4) 12, 16, 18

4. 11. Two vectors are given below


If vectors 3i +j-5k and a +j-5k are equal
vectors. Then the value of a is a 2i-3/+4k and b =i +2j-k
((1) 3 If a+b + is a null vector then which of the
(2) Any value between 3 and 5 following is equal to c?
(3) Zero
(1) 3i-j+3k (2+-3k
(4) Data insufficient
5. Magnitude of vector 2i +3j is
(3) 3-5+5k (4)-3+5-sk
12. A+B+ =0 is correct for which of the
following?
(1) 19 (2) V20
(3) a5 (1) 4
A
6 An object is moving withspeed 10 m/s along the
direction of a vector 4i -3j. Velocity of the object is B

8-6,ms
(2) 10-10j m/s (3)- ( A

(3) 40 -30j m/s


13. Two unit vectors,
(4) 6-8j m/s having angle between them
120, are added together. Magnitude of resultant
7. x and y coordinates of of these vectors is a vector
a particle are given by
x=
2i m and y =(1-6t)j m. Velocity of (1) Having magnitude double of either vector
particle at time t= 2 s will be X2Y Having magnitude equal to that of either
(1) 7 m/s vector
(2) 1 m/s
(3) Having magnitude equal to
(3) 5 m/s (4) 10 m/s unity)
8. The vectors A and B
A4) Both (2) and (3)
are given as A=5i +2j
14. The vector OA where O is
and B i +j. The vector A-B will be origin is given by
OA 2 +2 . Angle made by OA with positive
(1) 6+2 (24i +j X-axis is

(3) 2 +3 (1) 90°


(2) 60
9. Angle made by the resultant of two vectors 8 y 45 (4) 30
p 3 +2j and q = 2i +3/ with positive y-axis is 15. Position of an object moving in x -

y plane Is
given by r = (3ti +2tj)) m. Acceleration of the
(1) tan (2) tan particle at t = 2 s is

(1) 14 m/s2 (2) 16 m/s2


(3) 60° (4) 45 (3) 8 m/s2 4 ) 6 m/s2

(2)
Two Year Medical-2024 Fortnightly Test-5 (TYMR Code-8)
16. Position of changes from 21. if vector A shown in the figure is having
an object
(2-3j +4k)m to (3/+4j -2k)m magnitude of 10 unit, then component of vector

of displacement of the object is


Magnitude
A along x-axis is
(1) 86 m (2) 110 m

(3) V6m (4) 96 m


17. Minimum number of unequal non-zero vectors
30
in the same plane, required to make zero
lying
resultantis >X

(1) 4 A2) 3 (1) 53 unit 2Y5 unit

(3) 2 (4) 1

18. Resultant of two unit vectors A and B is a


(3) 5unit (4)unit
(Given that -B) 22. If a vector A =i +2j-3k is multiplied by 2 then

(1) Unit vector magnitude of resultant vector will be

(2) Vector with magnitude 2 (1) 14 2 28


(3) Null vector
(3) 58 (4) 2/14
(4) Vector with magnitude 3 to the
23. Which of the following vector is opposite
The vector quantity among the following is
19 vector A= 3/ +2-4k?
(1) Distance (2) Mass

Velocity (4) Current (1) 3-2j+4


20 A man walks 3 m along East and then 4 m along A23-2+4k
North. Displacement of the man is
(3)-2-4k
(1) 7m (2) 14 m

(3) 12 m 4) 5 m (4) +j-k

CHEMISTRY
will
24. In period, on moving left to right, non-metallic 27. The value of negative electron gain enthalpy
be maximum for
character generally
(1) F (2) CI
Increases
(2) Decreases (3). Br (4)
(3) Remains constant 28. The correct order of successive ionisation
enthalpy of an element is
(4) First increases then decreases

25. The most electropositive element among the (1) IE>IE,>IE,


following is IE
. J 2 Potassium
2Y E > JE; >

(1) Sodium (3) IE> IEs >IE


(3) Caesium (4) Aluminium
(4) 1E IE, > IE
the correct order of
26. Among the following which is has the largest size?
29. Which among the following
size?
(2) Li
(2) S2<Ss Rb
(1) Na' > Na
(3) Na (4) K
3 Cl>CI (4) Mg2 > Mg

(3)
Two Year Medical-2024
Fortnightly Test-5 (TYMR_Code-B)
30. Which is the correct order of atomic radii? 37. Modern periodic law is based upon
(1van der Waals radius Metallic radius Atomic number (2) Atomic mass

Covalent radius (3) Mass number (4) Number of neutrons


(2) Metallic radius van der Waals radius 38. The element having positive electron gain
Covalent radius enthalpy is
(3) Covalent radius > Metallic radius > van der (2)
Waals radius F (4). Ne
(3)
(4) Metallic radius Covalent radius > van der 39. Which of the following pairs of elements do not
Waals radius follow Newland's law of octave?
31. Which elements called
are as inner transition (1)Na, K (2) C. Si
elements?
3 ) Ca, Sr (4) F,CI
(1) s-block elements (2) d-block elements
40. The first ionization enthalpy (kJ mo-1) of N and O
(3) p-block elements 4 Fblock elements respectively are
32. To which group of modern periodic table, calcium
(1) 1402, 1314 (2) 1402, 1402
(Z 20) belongs?
1314, 1402 (4) 1314, 1314
Second (2) Fourth
41. The symbol for the element with atomic number
(3) Sixth (4) Fourteenth 104 is
33. The general outermost electronic configuration of
P-block elements is ( Ung (2) Unb
(3) Unn (4) Unt
n s np6 (2) ns'np
(3) nsnpl6
42. Which among the following is a basic oxide?
(4) ns np6?
34. The number of elements that are present in the (1) AlLOs Na20
third period of the modern periodic table is (3) CO2 (4) SOs
(1) 10
43. The element with least ionisation energy, among
23 the following is
(3) 32 (4) 18
35. Which of the following is not
(1) Rb 2Cs
a
representative (3) Na (4)Li
element?
44. Element with atomic number 26 belongs to
(1) Ba (2) S
(1) s-block 2 )d-block
3Sc (4) P
36. The total number of groups in Modern periodic (3) p-block (4) F-block
45. Which of the following is
table is diagonally related to Al?
(1) 5 (2) 8 (1) Li (2) C

18 (4) 7 (3) B 4) Be

BOTANY
46. Entamoeba causes 48. Match column I with column Il w.r.t. habitats of
(1) Sleeping sickness organism.
(2) Malaria
Column Column
3Dysentery a. | Methanogens Extreme
) salty
(4) Typhoid areas
47. In which of the following organisms cell wall
resemble soap box in structure?
b. Halophiles i ) | Hot springs

Diatoms . Thermoacidophiles (ii) | Marshy areas


(2) Dinoflagellates Select the correct option.
(3) Euglenoids a(i), bi), ci) (2)a(ii),b(i), c)
(4) Slime moulds
(3)-ai)-b(ii); ci) a(i), b), c(ii)
(4)
Two Year Medical-2024 Fortnightly Test-5 (TYMR_Code-B)
49. Animal like feature of slime 56. Mycoplasma
moulds is
(1) Formation of
fruitingbodies (1) Has single stranded DNA
(2) Cell wall around spores 2 Is pleomorphic

(3) Contains 80S ribosomes


3Plasmodium without cellwall (4) Is a parasite of plants only
(4) Saprobic mode of nutrition
57. How_many of the following feature(s) is/are
50. Match the following columns and select the associated with heterocyst cell?
correct option.
a. CO2fixation
Column Column ll b. Thick cell wall
(Organisms) (Locomotory structures) C. Anaerobic condition
a. Amoeba. () Cilia d. Nitrogen fixation
(1) Two (2) Three
Trypanosomai) Pseudopodia
(3) Four (4) One
C.
Paramoecium (i) Flagella
58. Cyanobacteria have/show
W ai), b{ii), c(i)
(1) Well defined nucleus
) a(). bi). c(i)
(2) Sexual reproduction
(3 a(ii), b(i), c(i) (3) Flagellum
(4) ai), bo), ci) (4yChlorophyll 'a',
51. Spores of slime moulds 59. Diatoms are good indicators of
(1) Cannot survive for many years (1) Air pollution (2 Water pollution
(2) Lack cellulosic cell wall (3) Noise pollution (4) Soil pollution
Are non-resistant to adverse conditions 60. Which protozoan includes
group malarial
parasite?
ATe dispersed by air current
52. Outermost covering of the cells of
(1) Sporozoans
euglenoids is
(2) Amoeboid protozoans
(1) Cellulosic cell wall
(3 Flagellated protozoans
(2) Plasma membrane
(4) Ciliated protozoans
(3) Peptidoglycan cell wall 61. Select the incorrect one for euglenoids
Proteinaceous pellicle (1) Eukaryote
53. Under favourable conditions, slime moulds form 2 Have cell wall
JA Plasmodium (2) Conidia (3) Presence of flagella
(3) Fruiting bodies (4) Zygote (4) Chlorophyll present
54. Indestructible cell wall is present in 62 Diatoms differ from dinoflagellates as former
(1) Lack cell wall
(1) Euglenoids Diatoms
(3) Slime moulds (4) Eubacteria (2) Lack chlorophyll ax
55. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Float passively on the surface of water
(4) ls found in aquatic habitat
dinoflagellates.
63. Protists
(1) Cell wall consists of cellulose and pectin
(1) Do not contain
membrane bound organelles
(2) Presence of flagella
(2) Have cell wall unexceptionally
(3) They are photosynthetic
(3) Lack asexual reproduction
They are found in freshwater only Are single celled eukaryotes

(5)
Two Year Medical-2024
Fortnightly Test-5 (TYMR_Code-B)
67. Read the following statements and select the
64. Vibrio cholerae causes
correct option.
(1) Typhoid
Statement A: Methanogens are present in the
(2) Tetanus T
gut of several ruminant animals.
Cholera Statement B: Halophiles are autotrophic
(4) Citrus canker disease bacteria. 7
65. Mark the feature which is correct for
(1) Only A is correct
Mycoplasma
(2) Only B is correct
(1) They cannot survive without oxygen correct
B
Both A and are

2They are smallest living cells known


(4) Both A and B are incorrect

(3) They are sensitive to antibiotics like penicillin is


68. Bacteria that converts milk into curd
(4) They show autotrophic mode of nutrition
(1) Bacillus vulgaris
66. Cyanobacteria used as source of protein rich
2 Lactobacillus
food (SCP) is
(3) Bacillus subtilis
(1) Nostoc (2) Anabaena
(4) Acetobacter aceti
(3) Mycoplasma x Spirulina

ZoOLOGSY
69. Which of the following factors inversely affects 72. Read the statements A and B and choose the
the rate of diffusion? correct option.
(1) Partial pressure of individual gas A: Solubility of the gases as well as the
thickness of the diffusion membrane involved
(2 Thickness of respiratory membrane affect the rate of diffusion.
(3) Solubility of respiratory gases
B: Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a
(4) Surface area of respiratory membrane mixture of gases is called partial pressure.7
70. Following are the muscles involved in the (1) Both A and B are incorrect
breathing, in humans. (2) A is correct but B is incorrect
a. External intercostal muscles 3) Both A and B are correct
b. Internal intercostal muscles 4) B is correct but A is incorrect
73. Read the following statements regarding diffusion
C. Diaphragm
membrane and state them as true (T) or false (F).
Select the correct option w.r.t. muscles involved
a. It is made up of three major layers. T
in the normal breathing.
b. It is made up of the thin squamous epithelium
(1) a andb (2) only b
of alveoli, the endothelium of alveolar
(3) b andc A a andc capillaries and the basement substance in
71. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. respiratory between them.
Its total thickness is
capacities and respiratory volumes. more than a metre.F
Choose the correct option.
(1 IC IRV+TV
a b
(2) EC ERV+TV (1) T T

N3) FRC | ERV+ IRV X 42)-TF


3)-FFT
(4) VC IC+ERV 4TT
(6)
Two Year Medical-2024 Fortnighty Test-5 (TYMR_Code-B)
stage,
74. Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood normally 83 The volume of air a healthy man, at resting
delivers approximately of CO2 to the can inspire or expire per minute is
alveoli.
5000 mL (2) 500 to 600 mL
(1) 4000 to
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly. 2500 to 3000 ml
ay 6000 to 8000 mL (4)
(1) 10 mL (2) 8 mL human is
84 The average breathing rate of a healthy
ay 4 mL (4) 12 mL
(1) 10-11 times/min (2) 5-8 times/min
75. In RBCs, CO2 binds with water and this
reaction 12-16 times/min (4) 2025 times/min
is facilitated by the enzyme
85. Which of the following does not occur during
(1) Peroxidase 2Carbonic anhydraase expiration?
(3) Carboxypeptidase (4) Catalase (1)Air is expelled from lungs.
76. Under normal physiological conditions, every 100 Volume of thoraxincreases.%x
mL of oxygenated blood delivers how much Oa to
(3) Ribs and sternum return to their original
the tissues?
position.
(1) 10 mL 2 5 mL
(3) 20 mL
(4) Diaphragm relaxes and arches upward.
(4) 15 mL
77. In the alveoli, which factor is favourable for the
86. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. respiratory
formation of oxyhaemoglobin? organs.

H i g h pOz (1) Sponges - General body surface


(2) Insects - Tracheal tubes
(2) Low pO2
(3) High H* concentration 3) Molluscs Gills
(4) Fishes - Moist skin
(4) High temperature
78. Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is 87. What function is not performed by the conducting

(1) Linear part of the human respiratory system?


(2) Straight
(i) Exchanging gases across alveolar membrane
(3) Parabolic LAYSigmoid
79. Nearly 20-25 percent of CO2 is transported in (2) Transporting atmospheric air to bronchioles
RBCs as (3) Clearing inhaled air from foreign particles
(1) Oxyhaemoglobin (4) Humidifying the inhaled air
Carboxyhaemoglobin 88. The nasal chamber directly opens into
(3) Carbamino-haemoglobin 1) Pharynx (2) Trachea
(4) Bicarbonate (3) Bronchi (4) Alveoli
80. What percent of O2 is carried in dissolved state 89. Among the following respiratory structures, which
through plasma? one is supported by incomplete cartilaginous
(1) 7% 2) 3% rings?
(3) 23% (4) 70 % Trachea
81.Partial pressure of COz in systemic.arteries under (2) Diffusion membrane
normal physiological conditions is (3) Alveoli
(1) 95 mmHg (245 mmHg (4) Pleura
(340 mmHg (4) 104 mmHg 90. Each terminal bronchiole ultimately gives rise to
82. Total lung capacity is
thin vascularised bag-like structures called
(1) TV+ IRV » (2) TV +ERV (1) Trachea (2) Pleura
(3) ERV+ RV 4VC+RV K)Alveoli (4) Pharynx

(7)

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