CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2021 - 2022)

TARGET : PRE - MEDICAL : 2022

ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES
Test Type: ONLINE Test Date : 09 - 01 - 2022 Test Pattern: NEET
Time : 3 Hours TEST NO - 06 Maximum Marks : 720

Instructions
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
1. This Question Paper contains 200 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in
any form are not allowed.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
5. Do not Tamper/ mutilate the ORS orthis booklet.
6. How to fill response on OMR (Assuming answer is (1))
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
Correct Method: Wrong Method:
7. Write your ALLEN Form Number, Student's Name, Father's Name and Class with pen in appropriate boxes.
Do not write these any where else.
8. Darken the appropriate bubbles on ORS with blue / black ball point pen only.
B. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
9. The question paper consists of 4 SUBJECTS (Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology). Each subject consists of
50 Multiple Choice Single Correct Questions and two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions and Section B will
have 15 questions. Out of 15 questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions.
10. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.
 PRE-MEDICAL - 2022

ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES

TEST NO - 06 DATE : 09 - 01 - 2022

SYLLABUS
PHYSICS : CIRCULAR MOTION, EM WAVE, WAVE OPTICS

CHEMISTRY : CHEMICAL KINETICS

BOTANY : CELL BIOLOGY

ZOOLOGY : BIOMOLECULES, ANIMAL HUSBANDRY

 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
HAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS
PHYSICS
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) 4. The figure shows a double slit experiment, P and
˜ This section contains 35 questions. Q are the slits. The path lengths PX and QX are
˜ For each question, darken the bubble corresponding nl and ( n + 2) l respectively, where n is a whole
to the correct option in the ORS. number and l is the wavelength. Taking the central
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one fringe as zero order , what is formed at X
of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble nl X
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened. P n+2 l
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
1. Two light sources are said to be coherent if they
are obtained from
Q
(1) Two independent point sources emitting light
of the same wavelength
(2) A single point source (1) First bright (2) First dark
(3) A wide source (3) Second bright (4) Second dark
(4) Two ordinary bulbs emitting light of different 5. What will be the angle of diffraction for the first
wavelengths minimum due to Fraunhofer diffraction with
2. In a Young's double slit experimental arrangement sources of light of wavelength 550 nm and slit of
interference fringes of width 1.0 mm each are width 0.55 mm
observed when light of wavelength 5000 Ao is used. (1) 0.001 rad (2) 0.01 rad
Keeping the set up unaltered, if the source is
(3) 1 rad (4) 0.1 rad
replaced by another source of wavelength 6000
Ao, the fringe width will be 6. A wheel is of diameter 1m. If it makes 30
revolutions/sec, then the linear speed of a point on
(1) 0.5 mm (2) 1.0 mm
its circumference will be.
(3) 1.2 mm (4) 1.5 mm
(1) 30p m/s (2) p m/s
3. Two coherent light sources S 1 and S 2
æ o
ö p
çè l = 6000 Aø÷ are 1mm apart from each other.. (3) 60p m/s (4) m/s
2
The screen is placed at a distance of 25 cm from 7. The relation between an angular velocity, the
the sources. The width of the fringes on the screen position vector and linear velocity of a particle
should be moving in a circular path is.
(1) 0.015 cm (2) 0.025 cm r r r rr r
(1) w´ r=v (2) w .r = v
(3) 0.010 cm (4) 0.030 cm r r r r r r
(3) r ´ w = v (4) v ´ r = w
8. The velocity and acceleration vectors of a particle
r
undergoing circular motion are v = 2iˆ m/s and
r
a = 2iˆ + 4ˆj m/s 2 respectively at an instant of time.
The radius of the circle is
(1) 1m (2) 2m
(3) 3m (4) 4m

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
9. A point starts moving along a circle having a radius 13. An object is moving in a circle at constant speed
20cm with a tangential acceleration of constant v. The magnitude of rate of change of momentum
magnitude 5 cm/s2. How much time is needed after of the object
motion begins for the normal acceleration of the (1) Is zero
point to be equal to tangential acceleration?
(2) Is proportional to v
(1) 1s (2) 2s
(3) Is proportional to v2
(3) 3s (4) 4s
(4) Is proportional to v3
10. A particle is moving in a circle
14. What is the minimum velocity with which a body
(1) The resultant force on the particle must be of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R
towards the centre. so that it can complete the loop ?
(2) The resultant force may be towards the
centre. (1) gR (2) 2gR
(3) The direction of the angular acceleration and
(3) 3gR (4) 5gR
the angular velocity must be the same.
(4) The cross product of the tangential 15. A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless
acceleration and the angular velocity will be track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just
zero. completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D.
The height h is equal to :-
11. A conical pendulum of length L makes an angle q
with the vertical as shown in the figure. The time
period will be
B
h

q L
A
R
3
(1) D (2) D
Lcos q L 2
(1) 2p (2) 2p
g g cos q 7 5
(3) D (4) D
5 4
L tan q L
(3) 2p (4) 2p 16. A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve
g g tan q of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the banking
12. A body moves along an uneven surface with angle is 45°, the speed of the car is
constant speed at all points. The normal reaction (1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s
of the road on the body is : (3) 20 m/s (4) 30 m/s
17. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform
B
circular motion in concentric circles of radius r A
C and rB with speed uA and uB respectively. The
A time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of
(1) Maximum at A angular speed of A to that of B will be :
(2) Maximum at B (1) rA : rB (2) uA : uB
(3) Minimum at C
(3) rB : rA (4) 1 : 1
(4) The same at A, B & C

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
18. Find the angular velocity of A w.r.t. B in the figure 21. A particle is revolving is a circular path. Speed of
given below the particle is changing with time according to
relation v = 4t. Find the total acceleration of particle
q1 at t = l sec
VA
A (Radius of circular path = 2 m)
VB (1) 80 m/s 2 (2) 60 m/s 2
r
q2 (3) 32 m/s 2 (4) None of these
22. Which of the following is correct
B
r
dV
VA cos q1 + VB cos q2 (1) = magnitude of total acceleration
(1) dt
r
r
VA sin q1 + VB sin q2 dV
(2) (2) = magnitude of tangential acceleration
r dt
VA sin q1 - VB sin q2 r
(3) dV
r (3) = tangential acceleration
dt
VA cos q1 - VB cos q2 r
(4) dV
r (4) = component of acceleration
19. In a circus, stuntman rides a motorbike in a circular dt
track of radius R in the vertical plane. The minimum perpendicular to velocity
speed at highest point of track will be r r
Where V represents velocity and V magnitude
u of velocity.
23. Wavefront of a parallel beam is
R
(1) Concave (2) Planar
(3) Convex (4) All of these
24. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature
is evident by
(1) 2gR (2) 0 (1) Polarization (2) Interference
(3) Reflection (4) Diffraction
(3) 3gR (4) gR
25. Direction of poynting vector is equal to direction
20. A small block of mass m = 2kg is connected at the of
end of a string having length 1 m. Breaking strength r
(1) E
of the string is 128 N. One end of the string is
connected to the fixed point as shown in figure. r
(2) B
Find the maximum angular velocity by which r r
system can be rotated on a smooth horizontal plane. (3) E + B
(4) Propagation of light
2 kg
O 1m
(1) 10 rad/s (2) 8 rad/s
(3) 5 rad/s (4) None of these

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022

26. A small block slides with velocity V0 = 0.5 gr on 31. The speed of electromagnetic radiation in vacuum
is
the horizontal frictionless surface as shown in the
Figure. The block leaves the surface at point C. (1) m 0 Î0 (2) m 0 Î0
The angle q in the figure is:
1 1
(3) m Î (4) m 0 Î0
0 0

32. A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a

perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum
transferred to the surface is (C = Velocity of light)
2E 2E
(1) (2)
C C2
-1 æ 4 ö -1 æ 3 ö
(1) cos ç ÷ (2) cos ç ÷ E E
è9ø è 4ø (3) 2 (4)
C C
-1 æ 1 ö 33. Unpolarized light of intensity I0 is incident on
(3) cos ç ÷ (4) None of the above surface of a block of glass at Brewster's angle. In
è2ø
that case, which one of the following statements
27. What is the linear velocity, if is true ?
r r
w = 3iˆ + k and r = 5iˆ - 6jˆ + 6kˆ (1) Reflected light is completely polarized with
I0
(1) 6iˆ + 2ˆj - 3kˆ (2) -18iˆ - 13jˆ + 2kˆ intensity less than
2
(3) 4iˆ - 13jˆ + 6kˆ (4) 6iˆ - 2ˆj + 8kˆ (2) Transmitted light is completely polarized with
28. In Young's double slit experiment, the slits are 2mm I0
apart and are illuminated by photons of two intensity less than
2
o o
wavelengths l1 = 12000 A and l 2 = 10000 A . At (3) Transmitted light is partially polarized with
what minimum distance from the common central I0
intensity
bright fringe on the screen 2m from the slit will a 2
bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide (4) Reflected light is partially polarized with
with a bright fringe from the other ?
I0
(1) 3 mm (2) 8 mm intensity
(3) 6 mm (4) 4 mm 2
29. In a Young's double slit experiment if there is no 34. Two point white dots are 1 mm apart on a black
initial phase difference between the light from the paper. They are viewed by eye of pupil diameter 3
two slits, a point on the screen corresponding to mm. Approximately, what is the maximum distance
the fifth minimum has path difference. at which these dots can be resolved by the eye?
[Take wavelength of light = 500 nm]
l l (1) 1 m (2) 5 m
(1) 5 (2) 10
2 2 (3) 3 m (4) 6 m
l l 35. In an interference experiment the ratio of
(3) 9 (4) 11
2 2 a1 1
30. The ratio of resolving powers of an optical amplitudes of coherent waves is a = 3 . The ratio
2
o
microscope for two wavelengths l1 = 4000 A and of maximum and minimum intensities of fringes
will be:
o
l 2 = 6000A is: (1) 2 (2) 18
(1) 9 : 4 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 4 (4) 9
(3) 16 : 81 (4) 8 : 27

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022

SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40) 40. Interference is possible in

˜ This section contains 15 questions. (1) Light waves only
˜ Attempt any 10 questions. (2) Sound waves only
˜ For each question, darken the bubble corresponding (3) Both light and sound waves
to the correct option in the ORS. (4) Neither light and sound waves
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one 41. In Young’s double slit experiment, the distance
of the following categories : between the slits and the screen is doubled. The
separation between the slits is reduced to half. Then
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble the fringe width
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. (1) Is halved
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened. (2) Becomes four times
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (3) Remains unchanged
36. Consider a Young's double slit experiment as shown (4) Is doubled
in figure. What should be the slit separation d in
42. Two coherent mono-chromatic light beams of
terms of wavelength l such that the first minima
intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum
occurs directly in front of the slit (S 1)?
and minimum possible intensities in the resulting
beam are
S1 P (1) 5I & I (2) 4I & I
1s t minima
(3) 9I & I (4) 9I & 3I
d 43. If two waves represented by
source
S2 æ pö
y1 = 4sin wt & y 2 = 3sin ç wt + ÷ interfere at a
2d Screen è 3ø
point, the amplitude of the resulting wave will be
l l about
(1) 2
( 5-2 ) (2)
( 5-2 ) (1) 7 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 4
l l 44. The path difference in destructive interference of
(
(3) 2 5 - 2
) (4)
(5 - 2 ) waves is

37. The angular speed of a flywheel making 480 (1) nl (2) ( n + 1) l

revolutions/minute is
æ n +1ö æ 2n + 1 ö
(1) 16p rad / s (2) 16p2 rad / s (3) ç ÷l (4) ç ÷l
è 2 ø è 2 ø
(3) 4p rad / s (4) 8p rad / s 45. The distance between two coherent sources is 0.1
38. A body is whirled in a horizontal circle of radius mm. The fringe-width on a screen 1.2 m away
20cm. It has an angular velocity of 10 rad/s. What from the source is 6.0 mm. The wavelength of
is its linear velocity at any point on circular path? light used is
(1) 4000Å (2) 5000Å
(1) 20 m/s 2 m/s
(2)
(3) 6000Å (4) 7200Å
(3) 10 m/s (4) 2 m/s
46. In YDSE, when a thin transparent sheet of
39. Electromagnetic wave is propagating in vacuum, thickness t and refractive index m is introduced
at a place magnitude of peak value of electric field between the upper slit and the screen then
volt (1) Fringe width increases
is 24 . The peak value of magnetic field at
m (2) Fringe width decreases
this place is (3) Fringe pattern shifts upward
-6
(1) 8 ´ 10-4 T (2) 8 ´ 10 T (4) Fringe pattern shifts downward
-8
(3) 8 ´ 10 T (4) 8 ´ 10-9 T

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022

47. When a light is incident on a plane transparent 49. For a cylindrical wavefront the amplitude A of a
wave at a distance R is proportional to
surface at a polarizing angle i p = tan - (m ) where
1

m is refractive index of the medium, then the 1 1

(1) (2)
refracted light is R R2
(1) Unpolarized 1
(2) Partially polarized (3) (4) R
R
(3) Completely plane polarized
50. In Fraunhofer’s diffraction at single slit, if size of
(4) Circularly polarized aperture is d, wavelength of light used is l and
48. When YDSE is performed in white light, then screen is D distance away then width of the central
central fringe is bright fringe is
(1) Dark (2) White
lD 2lD
(3) Red (4) Blue (1) (2)
d d
d 2d
(3) (4)
lD lD

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) 54. The rate of reaction can be increased by
˜ This section contains 35 questions. a. Decreasing threshold energy
b. Using a positive catalyst
˜ For each question, darken the bubble corresponding
c. Increasing activation energy
to the correct option in the ORS.
d. Increasing temperature
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one
No. of correct statements are:
of the following categories :
(1) 4 (2) 3
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble corresponding
(3) 2 (4) 1
to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened. 55. The chemical reaction 2O3 ¾¾
k1
® 3O2 proceeds
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases as follows:
51. For the reaction A + B ® products, it is found that
ˆˆˆ † ( fast )
k
O 3 ‡ˆˆ
eq
ˆ O2 + O
1
the order of A is 1 and the order of B is
2
the O + O 3 ¾¾
® 2O 2
k
(slow )
conc, of both A and B are increased four times, What should be the rate law expression ?
the rate will increase by a factor of
(1) R = K [O3 ][O 2 ] (2) R = K [O3 ][O 2 ]
2
(1) 16 (2) 8
(3) 6 (4) 4 (3) R = K [O3 ] [O 2 ] (4) R = K [O3 ] [O2 ]
2 -1 -1 2

52. The reaction 2A + B ® products, follows the

56. Match the items given in column I with column II.
mechanism

ˆˆˆˆˆˆˆ
†
ˆ A 2 (fast )
2A ‡ˆˆˆˆˆˆ Column I Column II
k t +10
A 2 + B ® P (slow ) a. Zero order reaction p.
kt
= 2 or 3

b. First order reaction q. 2H 2 O 2 ® 2H 2 O + O 2

The order of the reaction is :- dx
= k [A ] [B ]
2
c. Second order reaction r. -
(1) 1.5 (2) 3 dt
hn
d. Temperature coefficient s. H 2 + Cl 2 ¾¾ ® 2HCl
(3) 1 (4) 2 CH 3 COOCH 3 + NaOH
t.
® CH 3 COONa + CH 3 OH
1
53. For the reaction, N 2 O5 ¾¾
® 2NO2 + O 2
2
(1) a – p, b – q, c – r, d – s
d [N 2 O5 ] d [ NO 2 ] (2) a – s, b – q, c – p, d – r
Given - = K 1 [ N 2 O 5 ],
dt dt (3) a – s, b – q, c – t, d – p
d [O 2 ] (4) a – s, b – r, c – q, d – s
= K 2 [ N 2 O 5 ], = K 3 [ N 2 O5 ] 57. The unit of rate and rate constant are same for
dt
(1) Zero order reaction
The relation between K1 , K2 and K3 is -
(1) 2K1 = K2 = 4K3 (2) K1 = K2 = K3 (2) First order reaction
(3) 2K1 = 4K2 = K3 (4) K1 = K2 = 2K3 (3) Second order reaction
(4) Half order reaction

58. A ® B, DH = -10kJ mol-1 , E a (f ) = 50kJ mol -1 ,

then Ea of B ® A will be
(1) 40 kJ mol–1 (2) 50 kJ mol–1
(3) –50 kJ mol–1 (4) 60 kJ mol–1

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
59. Which of the following reactions is not of the first 65. Rate of formation of SO3 according to the reaction
order? 2SO 2 + O 2 ® 2SO3 is 1.6 ´10-3 kg min–1. Hence
(1) Inversion of sucrose in the presence of acid rate at which SO2 reacts is:
(2) Acid-catalyzed hydrolysis of ethyl acetate (1) 1.6 ´10-3 kg min–1 (2) 8.0 ´ 10-4 kg min–1
(3) Hydrolysis of tertiary butyl halide using alkali
(3) 3.2 ´10-3 kg min–1 (4) 1.28 ´ 10 -3 kg min–1
2-
(4) Oxidation of I ion by S2 O
Q
8
ion
66. For gaseous reaction, rate = K [A ][B]. If volume
60. The half life for a zero order reaction equals
1
1 k a2 of container is decreased to initial, then the rate
(1) (2) 2
2 a2 2k
of the reaction will be – times of initial.
2k a (1) 4 (2) 8
(3) (4)
a 2k
1
(3) (4) 16
A + B ¾¾
®C 4
67. Correct expression for the first order reaction is:-
[A] [B] [Rate ]
(1) Ct = C0 e k1t (2) Ct ek1t = C0
1 1.0 1.0 0.25
61.
2 2.0 1.0 0.50 C0 Ct
3 1.0 2.0 0.25 (3) ln C = - k1 t (4) ln C = k1 t
t 0

Rate is expressed in mol L–1 min–1. ˆˆ† 4NO 2 . If

68. Consider the reaction: 2N 2 O 4 ‡ˆˆ
In the above reaction, the order is
(1) Zero in A and one in B d [N 2 O4 ] d [ NO 2 ]
- = k and = k ' then
(2) One in A and zero in B dt dt
(3) One in both A and B (1) 2k ' = k (2) k ' = 2k
(4) Zero in both A and B 1
62. The hydrolysis of ester in alkaline medium is a (3) k ' = k (4) k = k'
2
(1) First order reaction with molecularity 1 69. Choose the reaction in which the rate of
(2) Second order reaction with molecularity > 2 disappearance of B is equal to half the rate of
(3) First order reaction with molecularity 2 formation of the product :-
(4) Second order reaction with molecularity 1 1
63. For a reaction, the rate constant is expressed as (1) A + 2B + C ® D (2) A + B ® C
2
k = Ae -40000/T . The energy of the activation is
1
(1) 40000 cal (2) 88000 cal (3) A + B ® C (4) A + B ® C
2
(3) 80000 cal (4) 8000 cal
70. The unit of rate constant tor the reaction obeying
64. For a chemical reacion A ® Products, the rate of
rate expression, r = K [A ] [B] is
1 2/3
reaction doubles when the concentration of A is
increased by 4 times. The order of reaction is (1) mol–2/3 litre2/3 time–1
(1) 4 (2) 0 (2) mol–2/3 litre–2/3 time–1
(3) 1/2 (4) 1 (3) mol–5/3 litre5/3 time–1
(4) mol. litre–1. time–1

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022

71. A graph between t1/2 and conc, for nth order 75. The instantaneous rate of disappearance of the
reaction is a straight line. Reaction of this nature MnO-4 ion in the following reaction is
is completed 50% in 10 minutes when conc, is 2
4.56 ´ 10-3 Ms -1 .
mol L–1. This is decomposed 50% in t minutes at 4
mol L–1, n and t are respectively 2MnO4- + 10I - + 16H + ¾¾
® 2Mn 2+ + 5I 2 + 8H 2 O
The rate of appearance of I2 is
(1) 1.14 ´ 10-3 Ms -1 (2) 5.7 ´ 10-3 Ms -1
(3) 4.56 ´ 10-4 Ms-1 (4) 1.14 ´ 10-2 Ms -1
t1/2
76. For a first order gas phase reaction

conc. A ( g ) ® 2B (g ) + C (g )

Po be initial pressure of A and P t the total pressure

(1) 0, 20 min (2) 1, 10 min at time 't’. Integrated rate equation is-
(3) 1, 20 min (4) 0, 5 min
72. The following data were obtained at a certain 2.303 æ Po ö
(1) log ç ÷
temperature for the decomposition of ammonia t è P0 - Pt ø
p ( mm ) 50 100 200
2.303 æ 2Po ö
t1/2 3.64 1.82 0.91 (2) log ç ÷
t è 3P0 - Pt ø
The order of the reaction is:
(1) 0 (2) 1 2.303 æ Po ö
(3) log ç ÷
(3) 2 (4) 3 t è 2P0 - Pt ø

73. ˆˆˆ
K1
In the reversible reaction 2NO 2 ‡ˆˆ †
ˆ N 2 O 4 , the 2.303 æ 2Po ö
K2
(4) log ç ÷
rate of disappearance of NO2 is equal to t è 2P0 - Pt ø
2K1 77. The rate constant of a zero order reaction is 0.2
(1) K [ NO2 ]
2
mol dm–3h–1. If the concentration of the reactant
2
after 30 minutes is 0.05 mol dm–3. Then its initial
(2) 2K1 [ NO 2 ] - 2K 2 [ N 2 O 4 ]
2 concentration would be
(1) 6.05 mol dm–3 (2) 0.15 mol dm–3
(3) 2K1 [ NO 2 ] - K 2 [ N 2 O 4 ]
2
(3) 0.25 mol dm–3 (4) 4.00 mol dm–3
78. Assertion : Complex reaction takes place in
(4) ( 2K1 - K 2 )[ NO 2 ] difference steps and the slowest step determines
74. Rate of which reactions increases with temperature the rate of reaction.
(1) Of any reaction Reason: Order and molecularity of a reaction are
always equal.
(2) Of exothermic reaction
(1) If both assertion and reason are true & the
(3) Of endothermic reaction
reason is a correct explanation of the
(4) Of None assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) If both assertion and reason are incorrect.

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
79. For a zero order reaction. Which of the following The rate equation for the above data is
statement is false
(1) Rate = k [B2 ]
2

(1) The rate is independent of the temp. of the

reaction.
(2) Rate = k [B2 ]
(2) The rate is independent of the conc, of the
reactants. (3) Rate = k [A 2 ] [B2 ]
2 2

(3) The half life depends as the conc, of the

(4) Rate = k [A 2 ] [B2 ]
2
reactants.
(4) The rate constant has the unit mole lit.–1 83. For an endothermic reaction where DH represents
sec–1.
the enthalpy of the reaction in KJ/mol; the minimum
80. Two plots are shown below between concentration value for the energy of activation will be
and time t. Which of the given orders are shown
(1) Less than DH (2) Zero
by the graphs respectively ?
(3) More than DH (4) Equal to DH
84. The temperature dependence of the rate constant
slope = -k k is expressed as k = Ae - Ea /RT . When a plot
1
(a-x) slope = k between log k and 1/T is plotted we get the graph as
a-x
shown. What is the value of slope in the graph ?

t t
(1) Zero order and first order
(2) First order and second order log k
(3) Zero order and second order
(4) First order and first order 1/T
81. In psuedo unimolecular reactions
(1) Both the reactants are present in low Ea Ea
concentration (1) (2) - 2.303 R
RT
(2) Both the reactants are present in same
concentration Ea Ea R
(3) - 2.303 RT log A (4) - 2.303 T
(3) One of the reactant is present in excess
(4) One of the reactant is non–reactive 85. The rate of the reaction:
82. The experimental data for the reaction CH 3 COOC 2 H 5 + NaOH ® CH 3 COONa + C 2 H 5 OH is
2A + B2 ¾¾
® 2AB is: given by the equation, rate
= k [CH 3 COOC 2 H 5 ][ NaOH ] .
Exp. [ A ] [ B2 ] Rate ( mol s -1
) If concentration is expressed in mol/L, the units of
-4 k are
1. 0.50 0.50 1.6 ´10
2. 0.50 1.00 3.2 ´ 10 -4 (1) mol-2 L2 s -1 (2) mol L-1 s-1
3. 1.0 1.00 3.2 ´ 10-4
(3) L mol-1 s-1 (4) s -1

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
89. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
(1) Saponification of CH3COOC2H5 - Second
˜ This section contains 15 questions. order reaction
˜ Attempt any 10 questions. (2) Hydrolysis of CH3COOC2H5 -In acidic
˜ For each question, darken the bubble corresponding medium pseudo unimolecular reaction
to the correct option in the ORS. (3) Decomposition of H2O2 - First order reaction
(4) Combination of H2 and Br2 to give HBr -
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one
Zero order reaction
of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble corresponding 1
90. The expression which gives th life of 1st order
to the correct option is darkened. 4
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened. reaction is
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases K 4 2.303
(1) log (2) log 3
86. For a reaction, 2NO + 2H 2 ® N 2 + 2H 2 O, the 2.303 3 k
possible mechanism is
2.303 3 2.303 4
ˆˆ† N 2 O 2
2NO ‡ˆˆ (3) log (4) log
k 4 k 3
91. An exothermic reaction X ® Y has an activation
N 2 O 2 + H 2 ¾¾¾
slow
® N 2O + H2 O
N 2 O + H 2 O ¾¾®
fast
N2 + H2 O energy 30 KJ mol–1. If energy change ( DE ) during
the reaction is –20KJ, then the activation energy
What is the rate law and order of the reaction ? for the reverse reaction is
(1) Rate = [N 2 O 2 ] , order = 1 (1) 10 KJ (2) 20 KJ
(3) 50 KJ (4) –30 KJ
(2) Rate = [ NO] [H 2 ] , order = 3
2
92. Certain exothermic reaction takes place in two
steps
(3) Rate = [N 2 O 2 ] , order = 3
2

X+Y®Z [slow ]
(4) Rate = [ N 2 O 2 ] [H 2 ] , order = 3
2
Z®P [fast ]
87. The minimum energy for molecules to enter into
The energy level diagram corresponding to the
chemical reaction is called
reaction is
(1) Kinetic energy (2) Potential energy
(3) Threshold energy (4) Activation energy
88. The rate constant, the activation energy and the
Energy

Energy

x+y x+y
arrhenius parameter of a chemical reaction at 25°C P Z
P
(1) (2)
are 3 ´10-4 sec-1 ; 104.4kJ mol-1 and
Reaction path Reaction path
6.0 ´ 1014 sec -1 respectively, the value of the rate
constant as T ® ¥ is.
(1) 2 ´ 108 sec -1 (2) 6 ´ 1014 sec -1
Energy

x+y
(3) Infinity (4) 3.6 ´1030 sec-1 Z
(3) (4) All are correct
P
Reaction path

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
93. If concentration of reactants is increased by ' x ' 98. Consider the chemical reaction
then the K becomes N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 (g ) ¾¾
® 2NH3 ( g ).
K K The rate of this reaction can be expressed in terms
(1) ln (2)
x x of time derivatives of the concentration of
(3) K + x (4) K N 2 ( g ) ,H 2 (g ) or NH3 (g ). Identify the correct
94. According to collision theory of reaction rates - relationship among the rate expressions.
(1) Every collision between reactant leads to
d [N2 ] 1 d [H 2 ] 1 d [ NH3 ]
chemical reaction (1) Rate = - =- =
(2) Rate of reaction is proportional to velocity dt 3 dt 2 dt
of molecules d [N2 ] d [H 2 ] d [ NH3 ]
(3) All reactions which occur in gaseous phase (2) Rate = - = -3 =2
dt dt dt
are zero order reaction
(4) Rate of reaction is directly proportional to d [N 2 ] 1 d [H 2 ] 1 d [ NH3 ]
collision frequency (3) Rate = = =
dt 3 dt 2 dt
95. A reaction whose temperature is from 10oC to 50oC
then increase in rate of reaction will be– d [N2 ] d [H 2 ] d [NH 3 ]
(4) Rate = - =- =
It temperature coefficient is 2. dt dt dt
(1) 3 (2) 16 99. The rate of a reaction doubles when its temperature
(3) 32 (4) 8 changes from 300 K to 310 K. Activation energy
of such a reaction will be
96. A large increase in the rate of a reaction for a rise
in temperature is due to (R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1 and log 2 = 0.301)
(1) Increase in the number of collision (1) 53.6 kJ mol-1 (2) 48.6 kJ mol-1
(2) Increase in the number of effective collisions (3) 58.5 kJ mol-1 (4) 60.5 kJ mol-1
(3) Lowering of activation energy 100. The rate constants k1 and k2 for two different
reactions are 10 16 e -2000/T and 10 15 e-1000/T ,
(4) Shortening of the mean free path
respectively.
97. The rate constant of a reaction depends on
The temperature at which k1 = k2 is
(1) Temperature (2) Mass
(3) Weight (4) Time 2000
(1) K (2) 2000 K
2.303

1000
(3) K (4) 1000 K
2.303

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
BOTANY
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) 107. Main arena of cellular activities in both plant cells
˜ This section contains 35 questions. and animal cells is
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Cell membrane
˜ For each question, darken the bubble corresponding
(3) Nucleus (4) Mitochondria
to the correct option in the ORS.
108. Who first saw & described a living cell?
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one
(1) Robert hook
of the following categories :
(2) Anton van leeuwenhoek
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble corresponding
(3) Robert brown
to the correct option is darkened.
(4) Rudolf Virchow
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases 109. Which of the following cell organelles is sausage
shaped and stained by Janus green B indicator for
101. The main site of synthesis of ribosomal RNA is
visibility?
(1) Nucleolus (2) Mitochondria
(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria
(3) Nuclear lamina (4) Cytoplasm (3) Ribosome (4) Golgi body
102. Cell wall is 110. Match the following
(1) Dead and impermeable Types of Leucoplast Stored Food
(2) Dead and permeable (a) Amyloplast (i) Protein
(3) Living and impermeable (b) Elaioplast (ii) Fats and oil
(4) Living and selective (c) Aleuroplast (iii) Starch
103. Endomembrane system is composed of (1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(1) ER, Golgi body, Lysosome, Mitochondria (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii (4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
(2) ER, Ribosome, Vacuole & Lysosome 111. Given diagram showing a flagellum's internal
(3) ER, Golgi body, Lysosome & Vacuole structure. In which of the following all the four
parts labelled as A, B, C and D are correctly
(4) Nucleus, Chloroplast, Lysosome & Vacuole
identified ?
104. Mainly plant cell differ from animal cell because
of
(1) The presence of cell wall and absence of
chlorophyll in the plant cell
(2) The presence of cell wall and chlorophyll in
plant cell
(3) The absence of cell wall & presence of
chlorophyll in animal cell.
(4) The absence of cell wall & presence of
chlorophyll in plant cell
105. Which of these organelles perform the function of A B C D
Peripheral Central Central
intracellular digestion ? (1) Bridge
microtubules tubule microtubules
(1) ER (2) Golgi
Central Peripheral
(3) Lysosomes (4) Plastids (2) Radial spoke Bridge
microtubules microtubule
106. Arrangement of microtubules in basal bodies is Peripheral Centre Central
(3) Radial spoke
(1) 9 + 2 (2) 9 + 0 microtubule sheath microtubules
Centre Central Peripheral
(3) 9 + 1 (4) 2 + 9 (4) Radial spoke
sheath microtubule microtubule

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
112. Match the following. 120. Plasmodesmata are
Column - I Column - II (1) Lignified cemented layers between the cells
(a) Centriole (i) Attached on ER (2) Locomotory structures
(b) Ribosome (ii) Cell division (3) Membranes connecting the nucleus with
(c) Vacuole (iii) Tonoplast plasmalemma
(d) Kinetochores (iv) Disc shaped (4) Cytoplasmic Connections between the
structure present adjacent cells
on chromosomes
121. Which of the following organelles has single
(1) a - ii,b - iii,c - i,d - iv membrane ?
(2) a - ii,b - i,c - iii,d - iv (1) Mitochondria (2) Lysosomes
(3) Nucleus (4) Nucleolus
(3) a - iii,b - i,c - ii,d - iv
122. Match the following
(4) a - i,b - iii,c - ii,d - iv
(A) Centriole (i) Infoldings in
113. DNA is not found in mitochondria
(1) Nucleus (2) Mitochondria (B) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids
(3) Chloroplast (4) Ribosome (C) Cristae (iii) rRNA
114. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles (D) Ribosome (iv) Basal body of cilia
are or flagella
(1) Chlorophylls (2) Carotenoids A B C D
(3) Anthocyanins (4) Xanthophylis (1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
115. Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
to form chain (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(1) Polysome (2) Mitoplast (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) Episome (4) Nucleosome 123. Nuclear membrane is absent in
116. Which is must for binding of sub units of ribosomes? (1) Nostoc (2) Volvox
(1) Mg ++ (2) Ca ++ (3) Agaricus (4) Penicillium
124. Chromosomes are composed of ________
(3) Fe ++ (4) K+ and Si
(1) DNA, RNA
117. Who among the following gave the concept of
(2) DNA, Histones
“Omnis cellula-e-cellula”.
(3) DNA, RNA, Histones
(1) Schwann (2) Schleiden
(4) DNA, RNA, Histones & Non histones
(3) Rudolf Virchow (4) Robert brown
125. Reserve material in prokaryotic cells are stored in
118. Plasma membrane
cytoplasm in the form of
(1) Selectively permeable
(1) Ribosome (2) Inclusion body
(2) Permeable
(3) Glycogen granules (4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) Impermeable
126. Terminalisation of chiasmata is seen in which phase
(4) Semi permeable of prophase – I of
119. A specialised extension of prokaryotic cell (1) Diakinesis (2) Diplotene
membrane, which help in respiration and secretion
(3) Zygotene (4) Pachytene
processes is called
(1) Capsule (2) Mesosome
(3) Chromatophore (4) Glycocalyx

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
127. Bivalents or tetrads with 4 distinct chromatids are 134. Separation of homologous chromosomes while
most clearly visible in _______ stage sister chromatids remain associated at their
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene centromeres is seen in
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis (1) Anaphase–I (2) Anaphase–II
128. If a cell have 48 chromosome at G1 then what will (3) Metaphase–I (4) Metaphase–II
be the number of chromosome in G2 :– 135. In 'S' phase of the cell cycle :–
(1) 48 (2) 24 (1) Amount of DNA doubles in cell.
(3) 96 (4) 12 (2) Amount of DNA remains same in cell.
129. Match the column–I with column–II and select (3) Chromosome number is increased.
the correct answer :– (4) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each
Column – I Column – II cell
(A) Pachytene (i) Bouquet stage
(B) Zygotene (ii) Chiasma visible SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
(C) Diplotene (iii) Terminalisation ˜ This section contains 15 questions.
(D) Leptotene (iv) Gene exchange ˜ Attempt any 10 questions.
(E) Diakinesis (v) Synapsis
˜ For each question, darken the bubble corresponding
(1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv, E – v
to the correct option in the ORS.
(2) A – iv, B – v, C – ii, D – i, E – iii
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one
(3) A – iii, B – iv, C – v, D – ii, E – i
of the following categories :
(4) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i, E – v
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
130. In which stage of cell division chromosome structure
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
is best studied :
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(3) Telophase (4) Interphase
131. DNA replication in bacteria occurs:
136. The enzyme recombinase is required at which
(1) Just before transcription
stage of meiosis :
(2) During S-phase
(1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene
(3) Within nucleolus
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
(4) Prior to fission
137. Which of the following options gives the correct
132. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of sequence of events during mitosis ?
DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial (1) Condensation ® nuclear membrane
amount is denoted as 2C ? disassembly ® arrangement at equator ®
(1) G0 and G1 (2) G1 and S centromere division ® segregation ®
(3) Only G2 (4) G2 and M telophase
133. Crossing over occurs between ______ chromatids (2) Condensation ® crossing over ® nuclear
of _______ chromosomes membrane disassembly ® segregation ®
telophase
(1) Non sister, Homologous
(3) Condensation ® crossing over ® centromere
(2) Non sister, non homologous
division ® segregation ® telophase
(3) Sister, Homologous
(4) Condensation ® nuclear membrane
(4) Sister, Non Homologous disassembly ® crossing over ® segregation
® telophase

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
138. See the diagrams carefully and identify the different 142. Bivalents in meiosis are
stages of mitosis (A – C) by choosing appropriate (1) Pairs of non sister chromatids of
options given below. non–homologous chromosomes.
(2) Pairs of non homologous chromosomes
(3) Pair of sister chromatids
(4) Pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes
143. What will be the number of chromosome and DNA
amount in pollen mother cell of G2 phase if pollen
grain has 10 chromosomes with 5 picogram DNA?
(1) 20/20 pg DNA (2) 20/10 pg DNA
(1) A–Metaphase; B–Telophase; C–Interphase
(3) 20/40 pg DNA (4) 10/20 pg
(2) A–Telophase; B–Metaphase; C–Prophase
144. What would be DNA content in the cell at G1, G2
(3) A–Anaphase: B Telophase; C–Interphase & anaphase stage, when the content after mitotic
(4) A–Telophase; B–Anaphase; C–Prophase phase is 40 pg?
139. Match items of column–I with column–II G1 G2 Anaphase
Column–I Column–II (1) 40 80 40
a. G1–phase i. Cells suspend the (2) 40 80 80
cell cycle (3) 80 40 40
b. S–phase ii. Protein synthesised (4) 80 40 80
in preparation for
Note : All units are in picograms
mitosis while cell
growth continues 145. Among all the phases of interphase, the longest is
c. G2–phase iii. DNA synthesis (1) G1 (2) S
d. G0–phase iv. Most organelle (3) G2 (4) Prophase
duplicate 146. Which of the following is correct for the origin of
(1) a – i, b – iv, c – iii, d – ii lysosomes ?
(2) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv (1) ER ® Golgi body ® Lysosomes
(3) a – iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i (2) Vacuole ® ER ® Lysosmes
(4) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i (3) Nucleus ® Golgi ® Lysosome
140. Cytokinesis in animal cell takes place by (4) Mitochondria ® ER ® Golgi bodies ®
(1) Cell plate formation Lysosome
(2) Phragmoplast 147. In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded
exclusively in the
(3) Furrow & constriction method
(1) Peroxisomes (2) Mitochondria
(4) Centrifugal growth
(3) Lysosomes (4) Glyoxysome
141. Maximum cytoplasmic growth occurs in
148. Animal cell contains non-membrane bound
(1) G1–phase (2) G0–phase
organelles called _________ which helps in cell
(3) G2–phase (4) S–phase division.
(1) Nucleus (2) Centriole
(3) Mitochondria (4) Vacuoles

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
149. Identify the correct match between types of 150. Which of the following cellular part is correctly
chromosomes & their description ? described.
Chromosome Position of (1) Thylakoids - Flattened membranous sacs
centromere forming the grana of chloroplast
(a) Metacentric (i) At the tip (2) Centriole - Site for active RNA synthesis
(b) Submetacentric (ii) Almost to it ends (3) Ribosome - In chloroplast are (80S) type
(c) Acrocentric (iii) At the middle while those in eukaryotes cytoplasm are
(d) Telocentric (iv)Slightly away from (70S) type
the middle (4) Lysosome - Optimally active at pH of about
(1) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i 8.5
(2) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
(3) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(4) a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) 156.

Enzyme activity
˜ This section contains 35 questions.
˜ For each question, darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one ‘X’ axis represents ?
of the following categories : (1) Substrate concentration
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble (2) pH
(3) Temperature
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
(4) pH or Temperature
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
157. Concanavalin A is
darkened.
(1) An alkaloid (2) An essential oil
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (3) A lectin (4) A pigment
151. Match the following 158. In a polysaccharide chain the right end is called ?
a. Trypsin i. Inter cellular (1) Reducing end (2) Non reducing end
ground substance (3) Amino terminal (4) Hydroxy terminal
b. Insulin ii. Hormone 159. Which of the following glucose transporters is
insulin-dependent ?
c. GLUT - 4 iii. Glucose transport
(1) GLUT I (2) GLUT II
d. Collagen iv. Enzyme (3) GLUT III (4) GLUT IV
(1) a - iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i 160. Which of the following is an amino acid derived
(2) a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii hormone ?
(1) Epinephrine (2) Ecdysone
(3) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(3) Estradiol (4) Estriol
(4) a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii
161. Which of the following are not polymeric ?
152. Cellulose is a homopolymer of ? (1) Proteins (2) Polysaccharides
(1) Fructose (2) Glucose (3) Lipids (4) Nucleic acids
(3) Galactose (4) Ribose 162. Find the precursor molecule of vitamin D in skin
153. A type of macromolecule that one would find in the (1) CH 2 - OH
acid insoluble fraction of any living tissue is the ?
(1) Glucose (2) Amino acids CH - OH

(3) Nucleotides (4) Nucleic acid CH 2 - OH

154. In a polysaccharide the individual
monosaccharides are linked by a glycosidic bond.
This bond is formed by ?
(1) Addition of H2O
(2) Removal of H2O (2)
(3) Ligase enzyme
(4) Transferase enzyme HO Cholesterol
155. How do enzymes bring about high rates of chemical (3) CH 3 - (CH 2 )14 - COOH
conversions ? NH 2
(1) By increasing substrate concentration
N
(2) By decreasing activation energy N
(3) By increasing activation energy (4)
(4) By decreasing potential energy NH
N

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
163. Which among the following is not a part of 167. Macro molecule chitin is :
protein ? (1) Simple polysaccharide
(2) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
COOH COOH
(3) Phosphorus containing polysaccharide
(1) H - C - NH 2 (2) H - C - NH 2 (4) Sulphur containing polysaccharide
168. Which one of the following structural formulae of
H CH 3 two organic compounds is correctly identified along
with its related function ?
CH 2 - OH
COOH
O
CH - OH
(3) H - C - NH 2 (4) O CH 2 - O - C - R
CH 2 - OH
CH 2 - OH R 2 - C - O - CH O
164. Which of the following is the least likely to be CH 2 - O - P - O - CH 2 - CH 2
involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding
of most proteins ? OH N
(1) Hydrophobic interaction
CH 3 CH 3
(2) Ester bonds CH 3
(3) Hydrogen bonds
(4) Electrostatic interaction A

165. A B
NH 2
N
N

N NH

(1) A is secondary structure (1) B : adenine - a nucleotide that makes up

(2) B is secondary structure nucleic acids
(3) A is tertiary structure (2) A : Triglyceride - major source of energy
(4) B is primary structure (3) B : Uracil - a component of DNA
166. A typical fat molecule is made up of (4) A : Lecithin - a component of cell membrane
(1) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid 169. For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires
molecule (1) Niacin (2) Copper
(2) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules (3) Zinc (4) Iron
(3) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule 170. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
(4) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules is
(1) a - ketoglutarate (2) Malate
(3) Malonate (4) Cyanide

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 TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-06/09.01.2022
171. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is 176. Protein is
(1) Ligase (1) A homopolymer
(2) Deoxyribonuclease (2) A heteropolymer
(3) Lysozyme (3) Not a polymer
(4) Ribozyme (4) A Biomicromolecule
172. CO2 + H 2 O ƒ H 2 CO3 177. Apoenzyme is :
(1) Protein (2) Vitamin
by using the enzyme present within the cytoplasm
the reaction speeds increases dramatically with (3) Carbohydrate (4) Amino acid
about 600,000 molecules being formed every second 178. Allosteric enzymes have allosteric sites for
and the enzyme is ? (1) Inhibition only
(1) Carboxypeptidase (2) Activation only
(2) Carbonic anhydrase (3) Reduction in activation energy
(3) Alcohol dehydrogenase (4) Both activation and inhibition
(4) Trypsinogen 179. Substrate concentration at which an enzyme attains
X Y half of its maximum velocity is
| | (1) Half life of enzyme
173. C - C ® X - Y + C = C
(2) Km-constant of enzyme
Identify the enzyme class responsible for given
(3) Concentration ratio
reaction
(4) Turn over number (TON) of enzyme
(1) Hydrolases (2) Oxidoreductases
180. Substance common in DNA and RNA
(3) Isomerases (4) Lyases
(1) Hexose Sugar (2) Histamine
174. Find the incorrect one
(3) Thymine (4) Phosphate groups
(1) Proteins with catalytic power are named
enzymes 181. It is estimated that more then 70 percent of the world
livestock population is in India and China. However,
(2) Flow of metabolities through metabolic
it is surprising to note that the contribution to the
pathway has a definite rate and direction like
world farm produce is only
automobile traffic
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) When glucose is degraded to lactic acid in our
skeletal muscle, energy is liberated (3) 75% (4) 5%
182. The mating of more closely related individuals within
dt the same breed for 4 - 6 generations is called ?
(4) rate =
dP (1) Out-breeding (2) Out-crossing
175. Match the following (3) Cross-breeding (4) Inbreeding
183. Statement I : Inbreeding increases homozygosity
Average Composition of Cells Statement II : Inbreeding is necessary if we want
% of the total to evolve a pureline in any animals
Component
cellular mass (1) Both Statement I and II are correct
1. Water a. 2 (2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is
2. Proteins b. 3 incorrect
3. Carbohydrates c. 10 - 15 (3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is
4. Lipids d. 70 - 90 correct
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
(1) 1-a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d
184. Can you find the odd one ?
(2) 1-d, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - a
(1) Hilsa (2) Sardine
(3) 1-d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a
(3) Mackerel (4) Rohu
(4) 1-d, 2 - a , 3 - b, 4 - c

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185. How many of the following statements are correct, 189. Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India ?
regarding MOET ? (1) Gangetic shark (2) River dolphin
(A) In this method, a cow is administered (3) Blue whale (4) Sea-horse
hormones, with FSH-like activity, to induce
190. Among the following edible fishes, which one is a
follicular maturation and super ovulation
marine fish having rich source of omega - 3 fatty
(B) Instead of one egg, which they normally yield acids ?
per cycle, they produce 6 - 8 eggs
(1) Mrigala (2) Mackerel
(C) The animal is either mated with an elite bull
(3) Mystus (4) Mangur
or artificially inseminated
191. Which among the following is secondary product of
(D) The fertilised eggs at 8 - 32 cells stages, are
Honey Bee ?
recovered non-surgically and transferred to
surrogate mothers (1) Honey (2) Pollen
(1) A, B, D (2) A, C, D (3) Bee wax (4) Propolis
(3) B, C, D (4) A, B, C, D 192. Rearing of bees is :
(1) Horticulture (2) Apiary
SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40) (3) Apiculture (4) Poultry
193. Worker Bees are :
˜ This section contains 15 questions.
(1) Fertile males (2) Fertile females
˜ Attempt any 10 questions.
(3) Sterile females (4) Sterile males
˜ For each question, darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. 194. Mule is a result of :
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one (1) Inbreeding
of the following categories : (2) Interspecific hybridization
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble (3) Cross breeding
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. (4) Intergeneric hybridization
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
195. Three carp fishes, Catla, Labeo and Cirrhina , can
darkened. be growth together in the same pond more
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases economically as they have :
186. Hisardale, a new breed of sheep developed in (1) Positive interactions
Punjab is produced by ?
(2) Commensalism
(1) Inbreeding
(3) Symbiosis
(2) Outercross
(4) No competition for food
(3) Cross breeding
196. Which one of the following is a viral disease of
(4) Inter specific hybridisation poultry ?
187. Which endangered animal is the source of the (1) Pasteurellosis
world’s finest, lightest, warmest and most expensive
(2) Salmonellosis
wool the shahtoosh
(3) Coryza
(1) Nilgai (2) Cheetal
(4) New Castle disease
(3) Kashmiri goat (4) Chiru
197. Which of the following compound can form
188. Which one of the following pair is mismatched ?
Zwitter ion ?
(1) Bombyx mori - Silk
(1) Glycerol (2) Stearic acid
(2) Pila globosa - Pearl
(3) Glycine (4) Fructose
(3) Apis indica - Honey
(4) Kerria lacca - Lac

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198. Secondary metabolites
(1) Play known roles in normal physiological
processes
(2) Are useful to ‘human welfare’
(3) Produced by all living organisms
(4) Alkaloids, flavonoids , amino acids,
glucose etc
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199. A fatty acid has a carboxyl group attached to an R
group. The R group could be a
(1) CH 3
(2) C 2 H 5
(3) Higher number of -CH 2
(4) All the above
200. Which of the following is true ?
(1) Amino acids are substituted methanes
(2) Uridylic acid and cytidylic acid are nucleotides
(3) Lipids molecular weight do not excess 800
Daltons
(4) All the above