Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

TYM-JCT
03/06/2023
CODE-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 UNIT TEST SERIES Time : 180 Min.

(for NEET - 2023-24)
TEST- 01

Topics Covered:
PHYSICS Physical World Units & Measurements
CHEMISTRY Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry - Till Empirical Formula
BOTANY The living world, Biological Classification-Bacterial Life Process to Economic Importance of Bacteria Only
STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS (Tissue)- Epithelial Tissues: General features to Difference
ZOOLOGY
between Dried bone and Decalcified bone 

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. Time period of a simple pendulum is 3. Solve with due regards to significant figures
measured to be T = (0.8 ± 0.01) s, then :
mean absolute error in the measurement is 6.0 × 10–2 + 2.0 × 10–4
(1) 0.01 s (1) 8 × 10–2
(2) 0.02 s (2) 8 × 10–4
(3) 0.05 s
(3) 6.020 × 10–2
(4) 0.8 s
(4) 6.0 × 10–2

2. Velocity v is given by v = at + b, where t is

time. The dimensions of a and b respectively
are
(1) [LT–2 ], [LT]
(2) [LT–2 ], [LT–1 ]
(3) [LT], [LT–2 ]
(4) [LT–1 ], [LT–1 ]

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Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

4. Which of the following instruments is the 11. The true value of length of a plank is 10.2 m.
least precise device for measuring length? If three instruments P, Q and R are used to
(1) Vernier callipers with 50 division of measure the length are giving the readings
Vernier scale equal to 49 division of as 10.26 m, 10.245 m and 10.01 m
main scale and each division of main respectively. Which of these instruments is
scale is of 1 mm more precise?
(2) A screw gauge of pitch 1mm and 100 (1) P
division on the circular scale (2) Q
(3) A metre scale having 100 divisions and (3) R
each division is of 1 cm (4) P, R both
(4) An optical instrument that can resolve
upto 10–7 m 12. Systematic error can be minimised by
(1) More accurate instruments
5. Which of the following physical quantity has (2) Improved experimental techniques
unit but no dimensions?
(3) Removing personal bias
(1) Solid angle
(4) All of these
(2) Strain
(3) Refractive index
13. Which of the following relation can be
(4) Relative density
deduced using dimensional analysis?
(Symbols have their usual meanings)
6. Which of the following number has least (1) y = Acosωt
number of significant figure? (2) y = A(cosωt + sinωt)
(1) 0.90760 (3) v2 = u2 + 2as
(2) 0.90200
(4) U = mgh
(3) 0.09076
(4) 80.267
14. If the error in the measurement of radius of a
sphere is 3% then the error in the
7. The pair of physical quantities having determination of volume of the sphere will
different dimensions is be
(1) Plane angle and solid angle (1) 6%
(2) Angular velocity and frequency (2) 8%
(3) Relative velocity and relative density (3) 9%
(4) Impulse and linear momentum (4) 3%

8. Which of the following fundamental force is 15. Light year is a unit of

strongest. (1) Time
(1) Strong nuclear force (2) Mass
(2) Electromagnetic force (3) Length
(3) Gravitational force (4) Luminous intensity
(4) Both (1) and (2)
16. Which of the following is not a fundamental
9. S.I unit of solid angle is physical quantity (In SI system)?
(1) metre (1) Time
(2) ampere (2) Length
(3) steradian (3) Amount of substance
(4) radian (4) Velocity

10. Dimensional formula of pressure is 17. Which among the following is the
(1) MLT–2 supplementary unit?
(1) Plane angle
(2) ML–1 T–2
(2) Solid angle
(3) ML2 T–2
(3) Mass
(4) M–1 L3 T–2 (4) Both (1) & (2)

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Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

18. Indian scientist who has won Nobel prize in 25. A park in the form of a square has an area of
physics is (144 ± 0.4) m2 . The side of park is
(1) C.V. Raman (1) (12 ± 0.02) m
(2) H.J. Bhaba (2) (12 ± 0.03) m
(3) J.C. Bose (3) (12 ± 0.04) m
(4) M.N. Saha (4) (12 ± 0.3) m

19. Which of the following physical quantity is 26. In a system of units, where 10 m, 5 kg and 5
unitless as well as dimensionless? s are taken as fundamental units, the
(1) Angle numerical value of 10 J in the new system
(2) Length will be
(3) Velocity gradient (1) 2
(4) Strain (2) 4
(3) 0.5
(4) 5
20. The quantity having negative dimensions in
mass is
(1) Gravitational potential 27. Rounding off 27472 upto three significant
(2) Gravitational constant digits gives
(3) Escape velocity (1) 27400
(4) Acceleration due to gravity (2) 27500
(3) 275
(4) 274
21. 100 J of energy is equivalent to K ergs (in
CGS system). The value of K is
(1) 107 28. 1 parsec is equal to
(2) 108 (1) 3.26 ly
(2) 2.26 ly
(3) 109
(3) 1.16 ly
(4) 105
(4) 6.26 ly

22. The unit of temperature in SI system is 29. Zero errors of measuring instruments are
(1) °F called
(2) °C (1) Indeterminate errors
(3) K (2) Random errors
(4) None of these (3) Disproportional errors
(4) Instrumental errors
23. The number of significant figures in 0.07200
is 30. In 100 observations, random error was e.
(1) 5 The random error, if the number of
(2) 4 observations are increased by 200, is
(3) 2 (1) e
3

(4) 3 (2) e
(3) 3e
24. In C.G.S system the magnitude of the force is (4) e
2
100 dynes. In the another system where the
fundamental physical quantities are
kilogram, meter and minute. The magnitude 31. Which of the following pair has same SI
of the force in the new system is unit?
(1) 0.036 (1) Work and power
(2) 0.36 (2) Kinetic energy and work
(3) 3.6 (3) Plane angle and solid angle
(4) 36 (4) Torque and force

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Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

32. If n is numerical value and u is the unit of 34. The value of 100 kg – 0.370 kg with correct
measurement of a physical quantity, then significant figure will be
which of the following is incorrect? (1) 99.630 kg
(1) (2) 100 kg
(3) 99.63 kg
(4) 99.6 kg

35. Consider the following statements

A. In a number less than 1 all zeros on the
right of decimal point are significant.
B. The trailing zeros in a number without
(2) decimal point are not significant.

Choose the correct statement

(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B

(3)

(4)

33. Which of the following set can’t be taken as

fundamental quantities in any system of
units?
(1) Length, mass, velocity
(2) Length, time, velocity
(3) Mass, time, acceleration
(4) Energy, force, time

SECTION-B

36. The symmetry of the law of nature with 37. A force F is given by : F = xt2 + yt, where t is
respect to translation in space gives rise to x
time. The dimensions of  y  is 
conservation of
(1) Energy (1) [M0 L0 T0 ]
(2) Linear momentum (2) [M0 L–1 T0 ]
(3) Charge (3) [M0 L0 T–1 ]
(4) Angular momentum (4) [M–1 L0 T0 ]

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Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

38. 44. In equation y = Acos2 (ωt –kx), where t is time

2
√ABC
A physical quantityP   = is
3
D and x is distance, dimensional formula of ω/k
determined by measuring A, B, C and D should be
separately with the percentage error of 2%, (1) [LT–1 ]
2%, 4% and 1% respectively. Maximum
percentage error in the value of P will be (2) [L–1 T]
(1) 7% (3) [L1 T1 ]
(2) 9% (4) [L0 T0 ]
(3) 12%
(4) 6%
45. A
3
2
 B
If X =  and percentage errors in A, B, C
C√D

39. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are and D are1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively,
given by Ma Lb Tc, then physical quantity will the maximum percentage error in X is
be (1) 10%
(1) Angular momentum if a = 1, b = 2, c = – (2) 11%
1
(3) 12%
(2) Force if a = 1, b = –1, c = –2
(4) 2%
(3) Velocity if a = 1, b = –1, c = –1
(4) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = –1
46. Which of the following has dimensions of
[ML–1 T–1 ]?
40. Resistances of two resistors is measured as (1) Surface tension
(20 ± 0.2) Ω and (40 ± 0.2) Ω. The maximum
absolute error in their series combination (2) Coefficient of viscosity
will be (3) Bulk modulus
(1) 0.2 Ω (4) Angular momentum
(2) 0.4 Ω
(3) 0.1 Ω 47. In a certain system of units, 1 unit of time is 5
(4) 0.6 Ω s, 1 unit of mass is 20 kg and 1 unit of length
is 10 m. In this system, one unit of power will
correspond to
41. The pair of quantities having same (1) 16 watt
dimensions are
(2) 25 watt
(1) Displacement, Focal length
(3) 4 watt
(2) Tension, Surface tension
(4) 1 watt
(3) Power, Time 16

(4) Force, Impulse

48. Two physical quantities A and B have
42. If force F, velocity v and frequency n are different dimensions, then which of the
taken as fundamental units, then linear following operations is valid?
momentum P will be written as (1) A + B
(1) Fvn–1 (2) A – B
(2) Fv0 n–1 (3) A
sin ( )
B
(3) Fv2 n–1
(4) A × B
(4) Fn2 v–1

43. In a unit system, unit of mass is 10 kg, unit of

length is 10 m and of time is 10 second.
Then unit of force will be
(1) 10 newton
(2) 100 newton
(3) 1 newton
(4) 104 newton

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Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

49. Choose the option which correctly matches

the left column to the right column
(i) Strong nuclear force (A) Photon
(ii) Graviton (B) Boson
(iii) Electromagnetic
(C) π-Meson
force
(iv) Weak Nuclear (D) Gravitational
force force

(1) (i)-(C), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)

(2) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(3) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(4) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)

50. If velocity of light C, Planck's constant h and

universal gravitational constant G are taken
as fundamental quantities, then dimensional
formula of time is
(1) [C −5/2 h1/2 G1/2 ]

(2) [C
−5/2
h
−1/2
G
1/2
]

(3) [c
1/2
h
1/2
G
−1/2
]

(4) [C
−5 1
h G ]
1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. Correct scientific notation for 232.508 is 54. 44 g CO2 is equivalent to

(1) 2.32508 × 102 (1) 0.5 mol of CO2
(2) 2.32508 × 10–2 (2) 5 molecules of CO2
(3) 0.232508 × 103 (3) 1.0 mol of CO2
(4) 0.232508 × 10–3 (4) 1.0 molecule of CO2

52. Which has maximum number of molecules 55. A gaseous oxide contains 28% nitrogen as
among the following? well as one nitrogen atom per molecule. The
(1) 32 g O3 density of gaseous oxide relative to oxygen
will be
(2) 80 g SO3
(1) 1.44
(3) 42 g CO (2) 0.64
(4) 1 g H2 (3) 1.56
(4) 2.2
53. One AVOGRAM is numerically equal to
(Given, NA = Avogadro's number) 56. Which of the following pair of compounds
(1) NA illustrate the law of multiple proportion?
(2) 1 (1) BaO and Ba(OH)2
√NA
(2) H2 O and H2 S
(3) 1

N
A
(3) PbO and SnO
(4)
−−
−
√NA
(4) H2 O and H2 O2

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Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

57. Find out the correct matching of columns. 62. If two different containers hold same number
(I) Efflorescence (i) Mole of moles of a gas at STP and volume of first
1
container is 10 L then the volume of other
mass of C-12 container will be
(II) Alloy (ii) 12

atom (1) 20 L
Tendency to lose (2) 5 L
(III) One Dalton (iii) water of
(3) 11.2 L
crystallisation
(4) 10 L
Amount of Homogeneous
(IV) (iv)
substance mixture
(I) (II) (III) (IV) 63. If in a metal oxide, oxygen is present 16% by
mass then equivalent weight of metal oxide
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) is
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (1) 42
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (2) 84
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (3) 50
(1) (1) (4) 56
(2) (2)
(3) (3) 64. In which of the following pairs law of multiple
(4) (4) proportion is not applicable?
(1) CO and CO2
58. Hydrogen combines with oxygen to form two (2) CH4 and C2 H6
compounds, namely, water and hydrogen
(3) NO and NO2
peroxide. The masses of oxygen which
combine with fixed mass of hydrogen bear (4) H2 and H2 O
simple ratio i.e. 1 : 2 this illustrates
(1) Law of conservation of mass 65. Find the incorrect equality among the
(2) Law of definite proportions following
(3) Law of multiple proportions (1) 1.6 g CH4 = NA electrons of CH4
(4) Gay Lussac's Law of gaseous volumes (2) 100 u He = 25 atoms of He
(3) 1 g-atom of He = 1 g He
59. In which of the following formula mass is (4) Mass of one Ca atom = 40 g
prefered over molecular mass N A

(1) H2 O
(2) NaCl 66. Maximum number of significant figures is in
(3) CH4 (1) 0.000010
(4) NH3 (2) 0.281
(3) 4.1 × 106
60. The maximum number of atoms is present in (4) 0.032
(1) 224 ml of CH4 at STP
(2) 18 g of glucose (C6 H12 O6 ) 67. An element exist in three isotopic forms 15 A,
17 A and 18 A. If the percentage abundance of
(3) 22 g of CO2
heaviest and lightest isotope are 40% and
(4) 10% respectively then the average atomic
0.2 mole of urea mass of the element is
(1) 16.8 u
(2) 17.0 u
(3) 17.2 u
61. If x g of a metal chloride contains y g of metal
then equivalent weight of metal will be (4) 17.4 u
(1) 35.5 x
x−y
68. The equivalent weight of H3 PO4 in the given
(2) 35.5 y  reaction is
x−y
2 NaOH + H3 PO4 → Na2 HPO4 + 2 H2 O
(3) 35.5 x 
(1) 49
y

x
(2) 98
(4)
35.5 y  (3) 24.5
(4) 32.67

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Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

69. The equivalent weight of metal whose 1 g 76. If the mass ratio of He to N2 in a container is
carbonate on heating gives 0.6 g of metal 2 : 1 then the ratio of their moles will be
oxide, is (1) 2 : 1
(1) 25 g
(2) 4 : 1
(2) 30 g (3) 7 : 1
(3) 35 g (4) 14 : 1
(4) 40 g

77. Number of significant figures in the sum of

70. If true value of a result is 4.75 m and 3.26 and 0.023 is
experimental values are 4.74 m and 4.76 m, (1) 1
then these values are
(2) 2
(1) Accurate only
(3) 3
(2) Precise only
(4) 4
(3) Accurate and precise both
(4) Neither accurate nor precise
78. From 44 mg CO2 , 1020 molecules are
removed calculate the moles of CO2 left
71. The equivalent weight of NaH2 PO4 in the
reaction (Use NA = 6 × 1023 )
N a H2 P O4 + KOH   →  N aKHP O4 + H2 O (1) 4.25 × 10–4
is (2) 8.3 × 10–4
(Given Atomic masses: Na = 23, K = 39, P =
31) (3) 1.6 × 10–2
(1) 158 (4) 4.4 × 10–2
(2) 60
(3) 97 79. A jug contains 10 L of milk. Calculate the
(4) 120 volume of milk in m3 .
(1) 1 m3
72. SI Unit of thermodynamic temperature is (2) 10–2 m3
(1) Celsius
(3) 10 m3
(2) Kelvin
(4) 10–1 m3
(3) Ampere
(4) Candela
80. Which of the following has same molecular
and empirical formula?
73. Which among the following is an elementary
molecule? (1) CH3 COOH
(1) H2 (2) HCOOH
(2) H2 O (3) C6 H12 O6
(3) C (4) H2 O2
(4) NaCl
81. Which among the following is not a pure
74. Three isotopes of an element having mass substance?
number x, x + 1, x + 2, show atomic mass of (1) Air
element of x + 0.5. (2) Copper
Ratio of their abundance in the order x, x +
(3) Gold
1, x + 2 can be
(4) Glucose
(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 2 : 2
(3) 4 : 1 : 1 82. The incorrect statement regarding Dalton’s
atomic theory is
(4) 1 : 3 : 4
(1) Matter consists of indivisible atoms
(2) Atoms can neither be created nor
75. The number of fundamental particles destroyed in a chemical reaction
–2
present in 16 g of O2 . (3) Compounds are formed when atoms of
(1) 25 NA different elements combine in variable
ratio.
(2) 50 NA
(4) All the atoms of a given element have
(3) 5.0 NA identical properties
(4) 2.5 NA

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Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

83. In an organic compound containing carbon, 85. "Equal volume of gases at the same
hydrogen and oxygen, the percentage of temperature and pressure should contain
carbon and hydrogen in it are 40% and equal number of molecules". This fact is
6.67% respectively. Its molecular formula derived from
may be (1) Law of definite proportions
(1) C2 H5 OH
(2) Dalton's Atomic theory
(2) CH3 CHO (3) Law of gaseous volume
(3) C6 H12 O6 (4) Avogadro's hypothesis
(4) C12 H22 O11

84. Mass percentage of sulphur in SO3 is

(Atomic mass of sulphur = 32 u)
(1) 25%
(2) 60%
(3) 50%
(4) 40%

SECTION-B

86. A gaseous mixture contains H2 and N2 in 90. The ratio of oxygen atoms in Ca3 (PO4 )2 and
the volume ratio of 1 : 2 under STP Na2 HPO3 containing same number of
conditions. Their molar ratio in the mixture is phosphorous atoms, respectively is
(1) 3 : 1 (1) 3 : 4
(2) 2 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (3) 4 : 3
(4) 1 : 7 (4) 2 : 3

87. Which of the following has highest average 91. The number of atoms in 22 g of CO2 is
molecular mass?
(1) 0.5 NA
(1) Dry air
(2) NA
(2) Moist air
(3) 1.5 NA
(3) Air contains CO impurity
(4) Air contains SO2 impurity (4) NA

88. If 4 moles of a gas ‘x’ weighs 176 g, then the 92. If 0.2 equivalent of H2 C2 O4 undergo
gas ‘x’ can be complete dissociation, what will be number
(1) NH3 of equivalents of H+ produced into solution?
(2) CO (1) 0.4
(3) CO2 (2) 0.2
(4) O2 (3) 0.8
(4) 0.6
89. Which of the following statements represent
Avogadro's law? 93. Total number of significant figures in 50
(1) Equal volumes of all gases contain books are
equal number of molecules under (1) 0
similar conditions of pressure and
(2) 2
temperature
(3) 1
(2) Molar mass = 2 × vapour density (for
gas phase) (4) Infinite
(3) The volume of 1 mole of gas at NTP is
22.4 L
(4) All of these

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Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

94. Law of conservation of mass is not 98. The term 'formula mass' is used for
applicable in (1) C6 H12 O6
(1) Physical change
(2) Na2 SO4
(2) Chemical reaction
(3) H2 O
(3) Nuclear reaction
(4) C6 H6
(4) Both (1) & (3)

99. SI unit of amount of substance is

95. Total number of valence electrons present in
6.4 g of oxygen atoms is (1) Kilogram
(1) 3.6 NA (2) Mole
(2) 3.2 NA (3) amu
(3) 1.6 NA (4) Gram

(4) 2.4 NA
100. A compound made up of carbon and
nitrogen contains carbon 46.2% by mass.
96. 32°F is equal to The empirical formula of compound is
(1) 0°C (1) C3 N2
(2) 32°C (2) C2 N3
(3) 100°C (3) CN
(4) 132°C (4) CN2

97. Which of the following set represents precise

measurements of a physical quantity?
(1) 8.0, 8.5 , 8.6
(2) 8.23, 8.66, 8.86
(3) 8.1, 8.13, 8.15
(4) 8.0, 9.0, 7.0

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Which among the following is not a defining 104. The processes basic to taxonomy does not
feature? include
(1) Metabolism (1) Characterisation
(2) Consciousness (2) Identification
(3) Intrinsic growth (3) Nomenclature
(4) Reproduction (4) Phylogeny

102. The word systematics is derived from a 105. Two kingdom system of classification
____________ word ‘systema’. distinguishes between
(1) Greek (1) Eukaroytes and prokaryotes
(2) English (2) Unicellular and multicellular organisms
(3) Roman (3) Plants and animals
(4) Latin (4) Photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic
organisms
103. Order Polymoniales include
(1) Convolvulaceae and Anacardiaceae 106. Which of the following is rod shaped
bacteria?
(2) Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae
(1) Spirillum
(3) Solanaceae and Poaceae
(2) Vibrium
(4) Poaceae and Anacardiaceae
(3) Bacillus
(4) Coccus

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Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

107. Classification system for the living 113. Statement A : Growth is an extrinsic
organisms undergone several changes over property of living organisms.
the time; but which kingdoms have been a Statement B : Reproduction can be
constant under all different system? regarded as characteristic of living
(1) Plant and animal kingdoms organisms but it is not their exclusive
defining characteristic.
(2) Kingdoms of Prokaryotes and
Eukaryotes (1) Only A is correct
(3) Kingdom Monera and kingdom (2) Only B is correct
Animalia (3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Kingdom Protista and kingdom Plantae (4) Both A and B are incorrect

108. On the basis of five kingdom, system of 114. Select the correct statement(s) about
classification Chlorella and Amoeba belong metabolism.
to kingdom (1) Substances are broken down to
(1) Monera release energy
(2) Plantae and Animalia respectively (2) Substances are synthesised by gain of
(3) Protista energy
(4) Plantae and Protista respectively (3) Occurs only in multicellular organisms
(4) Both (1) and (2)
109. Select the correct match w.r.t. five kingdom
system of classification. 115. Statement-A : Growth and reproduction are
Nuclear membrane absent in mutually inclusive events, in unicellular
(1) Fungi organisms.
some
Statement-B : Catalogue contains
(2) Protista Cell wall present in some information of any one taxon.
Loose tissue body (1) Only statement A is correct
(3) Animalia
organisation (2) Only statement B is correct
(4) Monera Cellulosic cell wall (3) Both statements are correct
(1) (1) (4) Both statements are incorrect
(2) (2)
(3) (3) 116. Three genera Datura, Petunia and Solanum
(4) (4) share common vegetative and reproductive
characteristics. On this basis they are placed
in same
110. All of the rules of binomial nomenclature are (1) Order
correct, except
(2) Family
(1) Biological names are generally in Latin
(3) Class
(2) Both the words in a biological name
when hand written are separately (4) Division
underlined
(3) The genus is in capital letters while the 117. Growth and reproduction are mutually
specific epithet is in small letters exclusive events in
(4) Name of the author appears after the (1) Bacteria and protista
specific epithet (2) Protista and unicellular fungi
(3) Yeast and Paramoecium
111. Botanical gardens (4) Higher plants and animals
(1) Are quick source of reference
(2) Are analytical in nature 118. How many of the following taxonomical aids
(3) Are ‘ex-situ’ conservation strategies are related to both plants and animals?
(4) Conserve plants and animals both Museum, Herbarium, Key, Flora,
Catalogue
112. Wheat, Mango, potato and sweet potato (1) 2
share the common categories that are
(2) 4
(1) Class and order
(3) 5
(2) Class and division
(4) 3
(3) Division and kingdom
(4) Kingdom and phylum

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119. Sapindales of mango is equivalent to 125. The taxon Angiospermae represents which
________ of housefly. rank or category in the taxonomic hierarchy?
Complete the statement by choosing (1) Phylum
appropriate option to fill up the blank.
(2) Division
(1) Diptera
(3) Class
(2) Muscidae
(4) Kingdom
(3) Insecta
(4) Arthropoda
126. Bacteria reproduce mainly by
(1) A primitive type of DNA transfer
120. A : It gives actual account of habitat of
(2) Producing endospores
various plants of a given area.
B : It is an index to the plant species of (3) Conjugation
specific area.                (4) Amitotic division
Above statements are true for
(1) Monograph
127. A : Three domains and six kingdom
(2) Manual classification was proposed by Carl Woese.
(3) Flora R : In the three domain system, the
(4) Catalogue eukaryotic kingdoms are kept in two
domains.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
121. Key is an important taxonomical aid used the reason is the correct explanation of
for    A   of plants and animals based on  the assertion
¯
¯¯¯
¯
 B   in a pair known as   C   .  (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
¯¯¯¯ ¯¯¯¯
the reason is not the correct
Find A, B and C. explanation of the assertion
(1) A-Naming, B-Keys, C-Couplet
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(2) A-Identification, B-Contrasting is false
characters, C-Couplet
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) A-Classification, B-Similarities, C-Keys statements
(4) A-Taxonomy, B-Dissimilarities, C-Lead
128. Eukaryotic unicellular organisms like
122. Find out the international size of herbarium Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Paramoecium
sheet- and Amoeba are kept in how many
(1) 49 x 21 cm2 kingdoms in the two-kingdom system of
classification proposed by Linnaeus?
(2) 49 x 21 inches
(1) One
(3) 41 x 29 inches (2) Five
(4) 41 x 29 cm2
(3) Two
(4) Three
123.  (i)  are ex-situ conservation strategy of
129. A : Bacteria are the sole members of the
plants and  (ii)  are generally analytical
Kingdom Monera.
in nature. R : Bacteria are the most abundant micro-
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks organisms.
(i) and (ii). (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(1) (i) Botanical gardens, (ii) keys the reason is the correct explanation of
(2) (i) Museum, (ii) Keys the assertion
(3) (i) Herbarium, (ii) Manuals (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
(4) (i) Museum, (ii) Manuals explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
124. Rules of scientific naming of bacteria are is false
assigned in (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) ICZN statements
(2) ICBN
(3) ICNB
(4) ICVCN

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130. A : Bacterial photosynthesis is mostly 132. Systematics is different from taxonomy and
oxygenic. modern taxonomy as it considers
R : NADPH2 , ATP and water are used during (1) Development process
photosynthesis. (2) Morphology and anatomical details
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (3) Relationships among organisms
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion (4) Ecological information of organisms
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct 133. Which of the following features does not
explanation of the assertion belong to the sole members of kingdom
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason Monera?
is false (1) They can live in extreme habitats
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (2) They are complex in structure and
statements simple in behaviour
(3) Most of them are heterotrophs
131. Match the taxonomical aids given in column- (4) They have rigid cell wall
I with their unique features given in column-
II.
134. ICBN stands for
Column-I Column-II
(1) International Code for Bacterial
Zoological Collections of living Nomenclature
a. (i)
park plants for reference
(2) Indian Code for Botanical
Botanical Wild animals are kept in Nomenclature
b. (ii)
garden protected environment
(3) International Code for Biological
Alphabetical Nomenclature
Taxonomic arrangement of species
c. (iii) (4) International Code for Botanical
key of a particular place
Nomenclature
describing their features
Used for identification of
plants and animals 135. Select the correct statement from the given
d. Catalogues (iv) below.
based on similarities
and dissimilarities (1) The highest taxonomic category in
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) plants is division
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) Growth is an intrinsic property of living
organisms
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) Royal Botanical Garden is situated in
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) Calcutta
(4) The metabolic processes which
involves synthesis of molecules are
called catabolism

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SECTION-B
136. Fill the blanks by selecting the correct 141. Mode of nutrition in members of a kingdom
option. which includes all prokaryotes can be
(i) A bacteria are helpful in making curd (a) Photosynthetic
from milk. (b) Chemosynthetic
(ii) B bacteria play a great role in recycling (c) Parasitic
of nutrients like nitrogen, iron, sulphur etc., (d) Saprophytic
A B (1) Only (a) & (b)
(1) Autotrophic Chemoautotrophic (2) Only (b) & (c)
(2) Heterotrophic Photoautotrophic (3) Only (c) & (d)
(3) Chemoautotrophic Heterotrophic (4) All (a), (b), (c) & (d)
(4) Heterotrophic Chemoautotrophic
(1) (1) 142. A.  They are most abundant in nature.
(2) (2) B. They are helpful in making curd from
milk.
(3) (3) Select the group of bacteria which exhibit
(4) (4) both of the above given characteristics.
(1) Archaebacteria
137. The energy required for ATP production in (2) Photosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria is (3) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
obtained by
(4) Heterotrophic bacteria
(1) Oxidation of inorganic substances
(2) Sunlight radiations
143. Citrus canker, a disease of plant is caused
(3) Oxidation of organic substances by a
(4) Thermal energy (1) Fungus
(2) Bacterium
138. One of the kingdoms proposed by R.H. (3) Virus
Whittaker is divided into two domains in the
(4) Protozoan
six kingdom classification. Body
organisation of the members of this kingdom
is 144. The common taxonomic category shared by
(1) Compact tissue type both wheat and brinjal is
(2) Loose tissue type (1) Class
(3) Organ system type (2) Order
(4) Cellular type (3) Division
(4) Family
139. How many of the given statements are
incorrect? 145. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t taxonomic
(a) The three domain system divides the categories of mango.
Kingdom Monera into two domains. (1) Kingdom  –  Angiospermae
(b) Plants and fungi are similar in their cell
wall composition. (2) Order  –  Sapindales
(c) All prokaryotic organisms were grouped (3) Family  –  Anacardiaceae
together under Kingdom Protista. (4) Genus  –  Mangifera
(d) Bacteria are the sole members of the
Kingdom Monera.
(e) Mycoplasma are the smallest living cells 146. A : Monkey, gorilla, cat, dog and human all
known and they cannot survive without share common hierarchy at class level.
oxygen. R : Class is a higher category than order.
(1) Two (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
(2) Four
the assertion
(3) Five
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(4) Three the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
140. Select the feature which is unexceptionally (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
true for prokaryotic organisms. is false
(1) Presence of gelatinous sheath around (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
the cell statements
(2) Presence of cell wall
(3) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
(4) Occurrence of asexual type of
reproduction

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147. One of the features of living organisms that 149. Which of the following is not an obligate
cannot be seen from outside of the body of category?
an individual is (1) Class
(1) Reproduction (2) Family
(2) Metabolism (3) Tribe
(3) Locomotion (4) Genus
(4) Growth
150. A. Metabolism is a defining feature of
148. Statement A : Biodiversity is the degree of organisms.
variation of life forms on earth. B. in-vitro chemical reactions occurring
Statement B : Species are capable of outside the body are not living things but are
interbreeding to produce fertile offsprings. living reactions.
(1) Only statement A is correct Choose the correct option.
(2) Only statement B is correct (1) Only statement A is true
(3) Both the statements are incorrect (2) Only statement B is true
(4) Both the statements are correct (3) Both the statements are false
(4) Both the statements are true

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. Match the following given structures or 152. Choose the correct match w.r.t. type of
functions with their characteristic features epithelium and its location.
and choose the correct option. (1) Ciliated columnar epithelium – PCT of
Cement nephrons of kidney
Tight neighbouring cells (2) Cuboidal epithelium with microvilli –
a. (i) Bronchioles
junctions together to form a
sheet (3) Simple cuboidal epithelium – Walls of
blood vessels
Transmit information
Adhering (4) Columnar epithelium with microvilli –
b. (ii) through chemicals to
junctions Inner lining of intestine
another cell

Establish a barrier to
prevent leakage of 153. Read the statements given below w.r.t. cell
Gap junctions.
c. (iii) fluids or substances
junctions A. Tight junction helps to stop substances
across the epithelial
cells from leaking across a tissue.
B. Gap junctions facilitate the cells to
Channels to facilitate communicate with each other by connecting
Synaptic communication the cytoplasm of adjoining cells.
d. (iv) C. Adhering junctions facilitate rapid transfer
junctions between adjacent
cells of ions among adjacent cells.
D. Cell junctions are present in all epithelial
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) tissues only.
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) Select the option with incorrect statement(s)
only
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(1) B and C
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(2) A, B and D
(3) C and D
(4) D only

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Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

154. Cells of epithelial lining of stomach contain 159. Assertion (A) : Cartilage and bone are
(1) Gap junctions to block transfer of ions specialized connective tissue.
between adjacent cells Reason (R) : Both are comprised of calcium
matrix only.
(2) Intercalated discs for keeping cells
In the light of above statements, select the
together
correct option.
(3) Tight junctions to inhibit the passage of (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
substances between cells the reason is the correct explanation of
(4) Adhering junctions for communication the assertion
with glands
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
155. Simple columnar epithelium is found in explanation of the assertion
(1) Fallopian tube (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(2) Stomach (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
(3) Bronchioles
(4) Urethra
160. A : Mast cells of connective tissue act as
defensive cells.
156. Simple columnar epithelium is composed of R : Mast cells secrete antibodies in blood.
a single layer of   ‘A’    cells whose nuclei (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
are located at the  ‘B’   . the reason is the correct explanation of
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
the assertion
Select the option which fills A and B
correctly. (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
(1) A = Tall and slender, B = Base
explanation of the assertion
(2) A = Short and round, B = Base
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(3) A = Tall and polygonal, B = Centre is false
(4) A = Short and flat, B = Centre (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
157. Choose the incorrectly matched pair
(1) Goblet cells of GIT – Unicellular glands, 161. Sweat glands are
secrete mucus (1) Simple alveolar gland
(2) Salivary gland – Secrete saliva (2) Simple coiled tubular glands
containing enzymes
(3) Branched tubular glands
(3) Exocrine glands – Secrete enzymes
(4) Branched alveolar glands
and hormones
(4) Endocrine glands – Ductless glands
and secrete directly into fluid bathing 162. A : Urinary bladder can considerably expand
the glands to accommodate urine.
R : It is lined by stretchable simple
squamous epithelium.
158. Identify and observe the given tissue. (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. the

given tissue.
(1) It serves weight bearing function in
human body
(2) It provides structural framework to the
body
(3) It has a solid and pliable ground
substance rich in collagen fibres
(4) It protects and supports softer tissues
and organs

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Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

163. A : Adipose tissue stores energy in form of 168. Read the following statements and find out
fats. the correct statement
R : Adipose tissue is most abundant (1) Main function of compound epithelium
connective tissue in humans. is secretion and absorption
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (2) The inner lining of ducts of salivary
the reason is the correct explanation of glands and of pancreatic duct is
the assertion covered by simple squamous
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but epithelium
the reason is not the correct (3) The cells of epithelial tissue are closely
explanation of the assertion packed with little intercellular matrix
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (4) Hemidesmosomes cement the
is false neighbouring cells together
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
169. Given diagram represents connective tissue.
Identify A, B, C & D and choose the correct
164. Which of the following cells are exclusively option for them
present in specialized connective tissue?
(1) Fibroblasts
(2) Macrophages
(3) Chondrocytes
(4) Mast cell

165. Tendons differ from ligaments in that the

tendons are
(1) A–Granular cells, B–Phagocytic cell,
(1) Dense regular connective tissue C–Elastin fibre, D–Fibroblast
(2) Composed of only Elastin fibres (2) A–Macrophage, B–Adipocyte cell, C–
(3) Attach skeletal muscles to bones Fibroblast, D–Collagen fibre
(4) Attach one bone to another (3) A–Cell with serotonin, B–Macrophage,
C–Fibroblast, D–Collagen fibre
166. Most abundant tissue in humans is (4) A–Histamine releasing cell, B–
Fibroblast, C–Phagocyte, D–Collagen
(1) Nervous tissue
fibre
(2) Muscular tissue
(3) Connective tissue
170. Glandular tissue is usually a modified type of
(4) Epithelial tissue
(1) Connective tissue
(2) Epithelial tissue
167. Read the following statements.
(3) Neural tissue
a. Columnar or cuboidal cells get
specialised for secretion and are called (4) Muscular tissue
glandular epithelium.
b. Exocrine glands secrete mucus, saliva, 171. Simple epithelium is not present on surfaces
milk insulin, enzymes etc. associated with
c. Goblet cells are unicellular glands while
(1) Secretion
salivary glands are multicellular glands.
d. Tight junctions cement the neighbouring (2) Absorption
cells together. (3) Protection
How many above statements are correct? (4) Filtration
(1) 2
(2) 3
172. Epithelial cells with cilia to push forward
(3) 4 female gametes are present in
(4) 1 (1) Bronchi
(2) Urethra
(3) Fallopian tubes
(4) Bronchioles

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Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

173. Feature common to bone and cartilage is 179. Haversian canals occur in
presence of (1) Humerus
(1) Lacunae (2) Pubis
(2) Haversian system (3) Clavicle
(3) Lamellae (4) Scapula
(4) Hematopoietic tissue
180. Bones are the haemopoetic organs in adult
174. Presence of both lamella and lacunae is a humans. They are actually a type of
feature of (1) Adipose tissue
(1) Bone (2) Areolar tissue
(2) Cartilage (3) Specialised connective tissue
(3) Tendon (4) Fluid connective tissue
(4) Ligament
181. Match the tissue with their location and
175. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. bone. select the correct option.
(1) Non-flexible tissue Tissue Location
(2) Made up of nearly 70% inorganic Ciliated
a. (i) PCT of nephron
matter and 30% organic matter epithelium
(3) If bone is put in KOH, it gets decalcified Squamous Moist surface of
b. (ii)
(4) Bone marrow of long bones is the site epithelium buccal cavity
of production of blood cells Cuboidal Walls of blood
c. (iii)
epithelium vessels
176. Select the option which identifies Compound Inner lining of
d. (iv)
epithelium oviduct
  A         and         B        correctly.
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

(1) A - Lymph, B – Muscle tissue 182. Which of the following is not considered as a
(2) A - Neural tissue, B - Blood specialized connective tissue?
(3) A - Areolar tissue, B - Blood (1) Bone
(4) A - Areolar tissue, B - Neural tissue (2) Cartilage
(3) Blood
177. A compact bone is similar to spongy bone in (4) Tendon
(1) Being the site of haemopoiesis
(2) Having periosteum 183. Which of the following is incorrect?
(3) Having trabeculae White adipose Fat cells with a single
(1) –
tissue large fat droplet
(4) Having haversian system
Loose connective
(2) Areolar tissue –
tissue
178. Read the following statements.
Dense
Statement A : Bones have a hard and non-
(3) connective – Bone, cartilage, lymph
pliable ground substance rich in calcium
tissue
salts and collagen fibres.
Statement B : Most of the cartilages in Synthesis of collagen
(4) Fibroblasts –
vertebrate embryos are replaced by bones fibres
in adults. (1) (1)
Choose the correct option
(2) (2)
(1) Both the statements are correct
(3) (3)
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(4) (4)
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

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Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

184. Select the odd one out w.r.t. the dense

irregular connective tissue.
(1) Periosteum of bone
(2) Dermis of skin
(3) Glisson's capsule
(4) Ligament

185. Division of labour due to tissue formation

first became evident in members of phylum
(1) Porifera
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Cnidaria

SECTION-B

186. Which salts are present in maximum 189. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) are given
quantities in the matrix of bone? below, represent four different types of
(1) Calcium phosphate & Calcium animal tissues. Which one of these is
carbonate correctly identified along with its location
and function in the options below?
(2) Magnesium phosphate & Calcium
carbonate
(3) Sodium phosphate & Calcium
carbonate A. B.
(4) Calcium carbonate & Magnesium
phosphate

187. Which one is not the function of bones?

(1) Provide flexibility to the body parts. C. D.
(2) Provide structural framework to the
body.
(3) Provide surface for the attachment of
muscles.
(4) Help in locomotion.

188. Epithelial tissue is

(1) Vascular and line the internal surface of
body only
(2) Originated or formed by ectoderm only
(3) Connect integument to muscle
(1) (1)
(4) Avascular and provides covering or
(2) (2)
lining of body parts
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

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Two Year Medical - 2023-24 Unit Test-01 (TYM_JCT_CODE-A)

190. Most abundant connective tissue with 196. Tissue derived from all three germ layers is
maximum quantity of extracellular material is (1) Connective tissue
present in ______.
(2) Neural tissue
(1) Adipose tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(2) Areolar tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue
(3) Cartilage
(4) Bone
197. Stratum germinativum is responsible for
mitotic divisions in epithelium. Stratum
191. Distensible epithelium is found in corneum is present in
(1) Fallopian tube (1) Skin
(2) Moist surface of buccal cavity (2) Pharynx
(3) Inner lining of urinary bladder (3) Intestinal mucosa
(4) Trachea and large bronchi (4) Tongue

192. Histamine secreting cells are 198. How many of the following terms are
(1) Mast cell applicable to [or found in] all given tissue
(i.e., a, b & c)?
(2) Plasma cell
(3) Histiocytes
(4) Hepatocytes

193. Mast cells of connective tissue contain

granules of the following except
(1) Heparin
(2) Histamine
(3) Melanin
(4) Serotonin

194. Match column I and column II w.r.t cell Collagen fibres, fibroblasts, connective
junction and their functions tissue tendon, ligament, vascular,
Column-I Column-II mesodermal in origin.

Prevent (1) 7
(a) Desmosomes (i) leakage across (2) 5
a tissue (3) 4
(b) Hemidesmosomes (ii) Cell adhesion (4) 2

Facilitate
(c) Gap junctions (iii) cytoplasmic 199. Cells of specialized connective tissue,
communication cartilage, are called
(1) Chondrocytes
Join epithelial
(2) Osteoblasts
(iv) cells to basal
lamina (3) Osteoclasts
Choose the correct option (4) Fibroblasts
(1) a-(iv), b-(iii), c- (ii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii) 200. Complete the analogy by choosing the
correct option.
(3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv)
Dense connective tissue : Ligament : : Loose
(4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i) connective tissue : _________
(1) Areolar tissue
195. Incorrect match w.r.t. cells and their function (2) Dermis of skin
is (3) Blood
(1) Mast cells   : Produce histamine and (4) Bone
heparin
(2) Histiocytes :   Phagocytose foreign
matter
(3) Adipocytes :  Serve as fat reservoir
(4) Fibroblasts :  Produce antibodies

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