New Air Law Study Guide

NEW QUESTIONS 2
DEFINITIONS
1. “Aerial work” means an aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialized services as
determined by the Director such as –
1) agricultural spraying, cloud spraying, aerial harvesting
2) aerial patrol, observation and survey;
3) aerial advertisement, including banner towing and other towing of objects;
4) search and rescue; parachuting;
5) aerial recording by photographic or electronic means;
6) fire spotting, control and fighting;
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
c) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
2. Definition of an “aeroplane”
a) means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft deriving its lift in flight mainly from
aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of
flight;
b) means an aircraft as defined in the Act, including its engines, propellers, rotor, components,
parts, equipment, instruments, accessories and materials;
c) means an aircraft equipped with one or more engines which has, with the engine or engines
not operating, the performance characteristics of a glider;
d) means an aeroplane of which the minimum flying speed and the maximum take-off mass
have been restricted for classification purposes. The values of these restrictions are defined
in Document SA-CATS 24;
3. An “Aircraft Flight Manual”:
a) means a manual acceptable to the State of Operator, containing normal, abnormal and
emergency procedures, checklists, limitations, performance information, details of the aircraft
systems and other material relevant to the operation of the aircraft as prescribed in Parts
121, 127 and 135 and may incorporate the AFM, referred to in regulation 91.03.2;
b) means a manual which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions,
with particular equipment inoperative, prepared by an operator in conformity with, or
more restrictive than, the MMEL established for the aircraft type
c) means a manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing
limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions
and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the
aircraft;
4. Definition of “Certificate of Airworthiness”
a) means a certificate issued in terms of Part 108 to a person approved to accept, store, handle
and tender goods for the carriage by air;
b) means formal evaluation and confirmation by or on behalf of the appropriate authority that a
person possesses the necessary competencies to perform assigned functions to an
acceptable level as defined by the appropriate authority;
c) means the certificate of airworthiness referred to in Article 31 of the Convention,
issued in terms of Subpart 8 of Part 21 of the Regulations, and includes an authority to
fly issued in terms of Subpart 2 of Part 24;
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
5. Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which
seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure.
a) This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform the operator of the delay caused
by necessary repair.
b) This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the
next 48 hours.
c) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
d) Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are
related only to insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the
runway and taxiways.
6. Approved training means:
a) Training conducted by a flight instructor at his or her own discretion and which does not have
to go through an ATO
b) Flight training which is approved to be conducted by an individual who is not the holder of a
flight instructor rating
c) Training conducted in terms of Part 141 under special curricula and supervision,
approved by the Director
7. Definition of “Cargo”
a) means any property carried on an aircraft other than stores, unaccompanied or mishandled
baggage;
b) means any property carried on an aircraft other than mail, unaccompanied or mishandled
baggage;
c) means any property carried on an aircraft other than mail, stores, unaccompanied or
mishandled baggage;
d) means any property carried on an aircraft other than mail, stores, unaccompanied baggage;
8. “Cloudbreak” procedure
a) means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with

specified protection from aircraft from the initial approach fix, to a point at which visual
contact with the surface may be made and from which a landing or circling approach can be
completed
b) means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with
specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix, to a point at which
visual contact with the surface may be made and from which a landing or circling
approach can be completed
c) means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to VFR with specified protection
from obstacles from the initial approach fix, to a point at which visual contact with the surface
may be made and from which a landing or circling approach can be completed
9. The “empty mass” of an aircraft is:
a) The mass of the aircraft including full fuel, oil, engine coolant, hydraulic fluid and any fixed
ballast and all items of fixed equipment.
b) The mass of the aircraft excluding all fuel, oil engine coolant, and hydraulic fluid but including
any fixed ballast and all items of fixed equipment.
c) The mass of the aircraft, including any engine coolant, unusable fuel, total oil, total
hydraulic fluid, any fixed ballast and all items of fixed equipment.
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
10. “Crew member” means:
a) A person assigned by an operator to carry out duties on board an aircraft during flight
that are essential for the safe operation of the aircraft and the successful completion
of the flight and include task specialists who have been assigned in-flight duties
related to a specialised use of the aircraft and have been informed of and accepted the
associated risks thereof
b) A person assigned by the SACAA to carry out duties on board an aircraft during flight that
are essential for the safe operation of the aircraft and the successful completion of the flight
and include task specialists who have been assigned in-flight duties related to a specialised
use of the aircraft and have been informed of and accepted the associated risks thereof
c) A person assigned by an owner to supervise refuelling operations
11. Definition of “Transition altitude”:
a) The Transition Altitude specified at major airports, and is where the pilot is expected to set
the QNH in the subscale of the altimeter
b) The Transition altitude is always at 18000 feet and at this point in the climb the pilot will set
1013 in the subscale
c) The Transition altitude is designated at major airports and is given to the pilot on the ATIS;
this is where he or she is expected to contact ATC after departure
d) The Transition Altitude is designated at major airports and is where the pilot will set
1013 on the climb out to a flight level.
12. Electronic flight bag
a) means a laptop, i-pad or i-phone

b) means an paper information management and display system intended primarily for flight or
cabin crew functions that were traditionally accomplished using electronic references
c) means an electronic information management and display system intended primarily
for flight or cabin crew functions that were traditionally accomplished using paper
references
d) means an electronic information management and display system located only in the flight
deck
13. A “Flight Simulation Training Device” (FSTD) is:

1) full flight simulator realistically simulated
2) flight procedure trainer – simulates flight characteristics of a particular class .
3) basic instrument flight trainer simulates an aircraft in flight in instrument flight conditions.
a) 1&2
b) 2&3
c) 1, 2 & 3
d) None of the above
14. “Flight time – aeroplane” means:
a) The total time the aircraft is airborne on a flight

b) The total time from the moment the pilot first starts the engine until the time that the engine is
shutdown, whether the flight has taken place or not
c) The total time from the moment an aircraft first moves for the purpose of taking-off
until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
15. “Instrument time” means
a) The time during which a pilot is practicing on the ground simulated flight in an approved
FSTD
b) The entire flight time during which the aircraft is piloted under IFR whether in VMC or IMC
c) Instrument flight time or instrument ground time, as defined
16. “Date of application” is the date:
a) Written on the application form.

b) On which the flight test and the written tests were successfully completed.
c) On which the CAA receives the application in an acceptable form
d) Nil
17. 'Flight' means the time period between the :
a) moment the aircraft commences its take off until the moment it completes the next
landing,
b) moment the aircraft moves under its own power until it comes to rest at the end of the flight,
c) moment the aircraft becomes airborne until the moment of touch down.
18. “Reduced Vertical Separation Minima” means:
a) The reduced separation above flight level 280 of aircraft to a 2000 feet in the opposite
direction and 4000 feet in the same direction
b) The reduced separation above flight level 100 of aircraft to a 1000 feet in the opposite
c) The reduced separation above flight level 290 of aircraft to a 1000 feet in the opposite
19. ’Missed approach point’’ means;
a) The point on an instrument approach procedure at or before which the prescribed

missed approach procedure shall be initiated.
b) A defined point on a final approach of a non-precision approach procedure, from which a
normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced, provided
the visual references are present.
c) The point in an instrument approach procedure after which the prescribed missed approach
procedure shall be initiated.
20. “Glider” means:
a) Heavier-than-air aircraft, other than a hang-glider that is supported in flight by the dynamic
reaction of the air against its fixed lifting surfaces and whereof free flight depends on the use
of an engine
b) Lighter-than-air aircraft, other than a hang-glider that is supported in flight by the dynamic
reaction of the air against its fixed lifting surfaces and whereof free flight does not depend on
an engine
c) Heavier-than-air aircraft, other than a hang-glider that is supported in flight by the
dynamic reaction of the air against its fixed lifting surfaces and whereof free flight
does not depend on an engine
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
21. The transition level:
a) for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP

b) is calculated and decided by the commander
c) shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been
established
d) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been
established
22. “Extended range operations” means
a) Flights conducted over a route that contains a point further than one hour flying time
at the approved one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard conditions in
still air, from one adequate aerodrome
b) Flights conducted over a large mass of water further than 90 mins flying time at the approved
one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard conditions in still air, from an adequate
aerodrome
c) Flights conducted over a large mass of water further than 2 hrs flying time at the approved
one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard conditions in still air, from an adequate
aerodrome
23. Definition of “Non Precision Approach”
a) means an instrument approach and landing operation that utilises lateral guidance but
does not utilise vertical guidance;
b) means an instrument approach for landing in which precision azimuth guidance and
precision glide path guidance are provided in accordance with the minima prescribed for the
category of operation
c) means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with
specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the
beginning of a defined arrival route, to a point from which a landing can be completed and
thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en route obstacle
criteria apply.
24. “Minimum descent altitude” means
a) A specified altitude in a non-precision approach below which descent may not be

made without the required visual reference
b) A specified altitude in a non-precision approach below which descent may not be made
unless the aircraft is a multi-engine type
c) A specified altitude in a precision approach below which descent may not be made without
the required visual reference
25. What is the “manoeuvering area”
a) part of aerodrome used for take-off & landing including runways and aprons but excluding
taxiways
b) part of aerodrome used for take-off & landing including taxiways and aprons but excluding
runways
c) part of aerodrome used for take-off & landing including runways and taxiways but
excluding aprons
d) part of aerodrome including runways, taxiways and aprons
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
26. Terminal Arrival Altitude :
a) en route segment
b) minimum altitude of 1000 ft / 25 nm
c) minimum altitude of 1500 ft / 25 nm
27. Child is between :
a) Second birth and 10 years old

b) Second birth and 12 years old
c) 5 to 10 years old
d) 5 to 12 years old
28. A natural or artificial entity holding a valid licence and operating certificate or equivalent thereof
authorising such persons to conduct scheduled or non-scheduled commercial air services is
a) An operator
b) Civil Aviation Authority
c) Manufacturer
d) Department of Transport
PART 12
29. Part 12 is applicable to which operations?
a) All aircraft except turbo-jets

b) Jet aircraft only
c) All aircraft except aircraft so designed to remain moored to the earth or to be kept in
tow by vehicles or vessels moving on the surface of the earth; and aircraft designed
to fly without any person on board.
d) Piston aircraft and light sports aircraft
30. A body or institution designated by the SACAA may be required to perform which functions?
1) promote aviation safety
2) reduce the risk of aviation accidents or incidents
3) advise the Director on any matter connected with the promotion of aviation safety
4) report to the President regarding aviation related matters
Choose the correct combination:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
31. Notification of accidents or incidents in order of priority:
a) The Director, an ATSU, nearest police station

b) Nearest Police station, the Director, an ATSU
c) An ATSU, nearest police station, the Director
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
32. Any notification of an accident or incident referred to in regulation 12.02.1, 12.02.2 or 12.02.3 other
than an ATS incident shall include (amongst others) the following particulars:
1) Type, model, nationality and registration marks of the aircraft
2) The date and time of the accident or incident, specified in co-ordinated time or local time
3) Location of the accident or incident with reference to an easily identifiable geographical
point and if known, with reference to latitude and longitude
4) Number of flight crew members and passengers aboard, killed or seriously injured and
other persons killed or seriously injured
5) Nature of the accident or incident and extent of damage to aircraft as far as is known
The combination that regroups all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
33. After you have been involved in an accident, may all your statements to the investigator, cockpit
voice recordings or any other document be made available to anyone for purposes other than
accident or incident investigations?
a) Anytime at the discretion of the investigator in charge

b) Never
c) Only when a court of law has ordered so
34. Who may have access to the scene of an accident:

1) An investigator
2) A member of the media
3) An advisor
4) A member of the public
5) A member of the rescue team
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 3, 5
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 4, 5
35. After an accident, can a person from the public go to the scene directly after it happens?
a) No
b) yes
c) Yes, if investigator give authorisation
36. Notification of accidents or incidents outside of the republic:

The appropriate authority
The Director
ATSU
SAP
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 3
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
37. After an accident or incident, the public will have access to the information collected, including
statements, communications with ATC, medical reports of persons involved, information obtained
from the flight data recorder:
a) When the investigation is completed;

b) If requested from the Director of Investigations;
c) If requested from the Director of Civil Aviation;
d) Only if a court of law determines that their public disclosure outweighs the adverse
domestic and international impact.
PART 61
38. Part 61 applies to:
a) The issuing of pilot licenses and ratings for South African national pilots, the privileges and
limitations of such licences and ratings
b) The issuing, revalidation and re-issuing of South African pilot licences and ratings
c) Flight simulator training devices that may be used by a person to gain aeronautical
experience
39. To acquire a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating the candidate must have (inter-alia) at least the
following experience:
a) 70 hours PIC on aeroplanes

b) 100 hours PIC on aeroplanes
c) 300 hours total time
d) 6 hours of training.
40. The minimum age for the issue of a CPL is:
a) 18
b) 21
c) 17
41. An applicant for an instrument rating, who is the holder of a multi-engine class rating shall inter
alia:
a) Have completed not less than 20 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours
may have been acquired on simulators approved by the CAA.
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
b) Have completed not less than 30 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours
may have been acquired on simulators approved by the CAA.
c) Have completed not less than 40 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20
hours may have been acquired on simulators approved by the CAA.
42. The holder of a Part 61 pilot licence wishing to fly conventionally controlled microlight aeroplanes
or light sport aeroplanes, he/she:
a) May do so without meeting any requirements as a Part 61 licence supersedes the

requirements of Part 62
b) Does not have to obtain a NPL, and may do so on meeting the requirements and
undergoing differences or familiarisation training.
c) Must obtain a NPL and all the relevant ratings.
43. The holder of a Part 61 pilot licence wishing to fly conventionally controlled microlight aeroplanes
or light sport aeroplanes, he/she:
a) May do so without meeting any requirements as a Part 61 licence supersedes the

requirements of Part 62
b) Does not have to obtain a NPL, and may do so on meeting the requirements and
undergoing differences or familiarisation training.
c) Must obtain a NPL and all the relevant ratings.
44. An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
a) 25 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 15 hours may have been acquired in a
FSTD
b) 25 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours may have been acquired in a
FSTD.
c) 20 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 5 hours may have been acquired in a
FSTD .
d) 20 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours may have been acquired
in a FSTD.
45. The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be:
a) to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than

commercial air transportation
b) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation
c) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in
commercial air transportation
d) none of the answers are correct
46. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........
hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not
less than ........ km (- NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes
shall be made. The hours and distance referred are:
a) 20 hours and 270 km (150NM)

b) 20 hours and 540 km (300NM)
c) 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
d) 15 hours and 540 km (300NM)
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
47. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in
command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:
a) the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance
with the requirements of the licensing authority
b) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
c) to a maximum of 500 hours with such flight time towards total time required for higher
grade of pilot licence
d) in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher
grade of pilot licence
48. Licences issued under Part 61 are:

NPL
SPL
PPL
CPL
ATPL
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements are:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 3, 4, 5
49. The holder of a CPL (aeroplane) may exercise the following privileges in any aeroplane for which
he/she holds the appropriate class or type rating, endorsed in the crew member’s logbook or
license:
1) Exercise all the privileges of a PPL (aeroplane)
2) In operations other than the carrying of passengers or freight for reward, act as PIC in
any aeroplane
3) Act as PIC in commercial air transport operations in any aeroplane certified for single-
pilot operation
4) Act as co-pilot in commercial air transport operations in any aeroplane requiring by
certification to be operated with a minimum of 2 pilots
5) Act as safety pilot
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 4, 5
c) 1, 3, 4, 5
50. Maintenance of competency for a CPL (Aeroplane) - in the case of a holder of a CPL where the
maintenance of competency has lapsed by not more than 36 months, the licence holder shall be
required to:
a) comply with the initial issue requirements of Subpart 61.05.

b) rewrite the Air Law examination; undergo sufficient ground and flight training at an approved
ATO to reach the standard required for the revalidation check of a CPL (Aeroplane), and
meet the recency requirements to act as PIC; and pass an initial licence skills test in the
same category of aircraft.
c) passing a revalidation check or an initial licence skills test in the same category of aircraft
d) undergo sufficient ground and flight training at an approved ATO to reach the
standard required for the revalidation check of a CPL (Aeroplane), and meet the
recency requirements to act as PIC; and pass a revalidation check in the same
category of aircraft;
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
51. The holder of a pilot licence issued in terms of Part 61 may not exercise the privileges of that
licence –
1) Unless that person holds an appropriate valid medical certificate issued in terms of part
67 and complies with all medical endorsements on that medical
2) While he/she is aware of having a medical deficiency that would make him/her unable to
meet the medical standards for his/her medical certificate, until he/she has been
assessed and declared medically fit again by an aviation medical examiner designated
in terms of Part 67
3) When he/she is unable to act as a flight crew member of an aircraft because of the use
of any psychoactive substance
4) When he/she is unable to act as a flight crew member of an aircraft because of the use
of alcohol
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
52. An applicant for a CPL must undergo the skills test within
a) 14 days of the last period of dual instruction

b) 90 days of the last period of dual instruction
c) 30 days of the last period of dual instruction
53. If the skills test / revalidation check is conducted within 90 days prior to expiry:
a) the new expiry will be valid until the previous expiry date
b) the new expiry will be calculated from the previous date of expiry
c) the new expiry will be calculated from the previous date of the test
54. Establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria.
One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has:
a) Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training

b) Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member
c) A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
d) A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
55. Further difference training or a proficiency check will be required if a variant is not flown within a
period of:
a) 90 days following the differences training or the date of last having flown the variant
b) 12 months following the differences training or the date of last having flown the variant
c) 24 months following the differences training or the date of last having flown the
variant
56. Within how many days following any skills test shall the forms be submitted
a) 14 days
b) 15 days
c) 21 days
d) 30 days
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
57. An example of a class rating:
a) a single engine piston aircraft

b) aeroplane
c) glider
58. An applicant for a CPL must undergo the skills test within:
a) 36 months of completing the required examinations

b) 24 months of completing the required examinations
c) 18 months of completing the required examinations
59. An applicant for an Instrument Rating shall…..
a) Have completed not less than 50 hours of cross country flight time as PIC of which at least
20 hours must have been in the category of aircraft for which the instrument rating is sought.
b) Have completed not less than 20 hours of cross country flight time as PIC of which at least
10 hours must have been in the category of aircraft for which the instrument rating is sought.
c) Have completed not less than 50 hours of cross country flight time as PIC of which at
least 10 hours must have been in the category of aircraft for which the instrument
rating is sought.
60. In the case of a holder of an instrument rating which has lapsed by less than 36 months, the
license holder shall be required to:
1) Undergo sufficient ground and flight training at an approved ATO to reach the standard
required for the revalidation check and instrument rating including at least 5 instrument
approach procedures and a missed approach
2) Re-write and pass the Air Law and Procedures examination
3) Pass a revalidation check in the same category of aircraft or a FSTD
4) Pass an initial skills test in the same category of aircraft or in a FSTD
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
61. The holder of a CPL (aeroplane) may exercise the following privileges in any aeroplane for which
he/she holds the appropriate class or type rating, endorsed in the crew member’s logbook or
license:
1) Exercise all the privileges of a PPL (aeroplane)
2) In operations other than the carrying of passengers or freight for reward, act as PIC in
any aeroplane
3) Act as PIC in commercial air transport operations in any aeroplane certified for single-
pilot operation
4) Act as co-pilot in commercial air transport operations in any aeroplane requiring by
certification to be operated with a minimum of 2 pilots
5) Act as safety pilot
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 4, 5
c) 1, 3, 4, 5
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
62. An applicant for a licence, rating, revalidation, class or type rating or any familiarisation or
differences training must have the applicable endorsements in his or her pilot logbook as described
in Document SA-CATS 61. (2) The endorsement must include, but is not limited to, the following
details –
1) Date of the skills test;
2) Aircraft registration and type;
3) Name of student
4) Name and licence number of examiner;
5) Name of the ATO.
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 4, 5
63. An applicant for an initial single-pilot, multi-engine class rating must have completed, on a multi-
engine aircraft, a minimum:
a) 6 Hours dual flight training.

b) 7 Hours dual flight training.
c) 6 Hours dual and 5 hours instrument flight training.
d) Nil
64. An applicant for a single-pilot multi-engine type rating must have at least:
a) 70 hours experience as PIC of aeroplanes

b) 300 hours experience in aeroplanes
c) 100 hours experience as PIC of aeroplanes
65. You decide to practice instrument approaches in VMC by night, you may:
a) Do so at your discretion without any aid provided you are outside of controlled airspace
b) Only do so with the assistance of a safety pilot who occupies a pilot seat and holds an
instrument rating
c) Only do so with the assistance of a safety pilot who occupies a pilot seat and holds at least a
VFR PPL and night rating
66. The revalidation check for a licence other than a PPL must be done by a
a) Grade II flight instructor.

b) DFE.
c) Grade I flight instructor.
67. Instrument rating requirements: the minimum total hour requirement to apply for an Instrument
rating is :
a) 100 hours
b) 150 hours, including 50 hours of cross country time
c) 200 hours, of which 20 hours can be in a FSTD approved for the purpose
d) There is no minimum hour requirement.
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
68. Maintenance of competency is revalidated for a CPL holder every 24 months. If this maintenance
of competency lapses by more than 36 months, then:
a) the CPL can be revalidated by passing a proficiency check carried out by a DFE;
b) the CPL can be revalidated by passing an air law and procedure examination and
passing a proficiency check carried out by a DFE;
c) the CPL holder will have to do sufficient ground and flight training at an ATO in order to pass
a proficiency check with a DFE to revalidate the competency;
d) The CPL holder will have to do sufficient ground and flight training (including 3 take-offs and
landings) to pass the initial skills test with a DFE to revalidate the competency.
69. An applicant for a single pilot multi-engine aeroplane type rating shall have at least:
a) 6 hours theoretical knowledge and 7 hours dual flight training

b) 5 hours theoretical knowledge and 6 hours dual flight training
c) 7 hours theoretical knowledge and 6 hours dual flight training
d) 6 hours theoretical knowledge and 5 hours dual flight training
70. Providing that the requirements regarding maintenance of competency are complied with, an
instrument rating shall be valid for:
a) 12 months
b) 6 months for the initial and 12 months thereafter
c) 10 years
PART 67
71. If a medical examination reveals a medical fitness standard below that required, the CAA shall
suspend that license:
a) For a maximum of 14 days.

b) For a period not exceeding 6 months
c) Until the holder is able to show that he is able to meet the applicable medical
requirements
d) Nil
72. Regarding Medical examinations, the Director must:
a) Not determine standards for examinations or tests and for the training of aviation medical
examiners
b) Exercise control over medical drugs prescribed to aviation personnel
c) Exercise control over medical examinations or tests and over aviation medical
examiners performing such examinations
73. In the event that you have had a minor surgical operation or invasive procedure, you must
a) Immediately surrender your medical certificate

b) Not worry as it does not affect your medical certificate validity
c) Notify the designated body or institution
74. What is the validity period of class 1 medical certificate between 40 and 60 years hold
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
a) 24 month
b) 12 month
c) 6 month
75. Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more
a) A holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 65 years may not act as pilot of an
aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport operations, except as a member of
a multi-pilot crew and provided that such holder is the only member of the multi-pilot crew
who has attained the age of 60 years
b) A holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 60 years may not act as PIC of an
aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport operations.
c) A holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 60 years may not act as pilot of
an aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport operations, except as a
member of a multi-pilot crew and provided that such holder is the only member of the
multi-pilot crew who has attained the age of 60 years
76. If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to
illness, the authority must be informed:
a) if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires
b) After 21 days of consecutive "illness"
c) as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days
d) after one calendar month of consecutive illness
77. Class 1 medical will be issued:
a) For a CPL, 6 months if the candidate is under 40 years of age for single pilot operation;
b) For a CPL over 40 years of age, for 12 months, unless he or she operates in a single pilot
operation, then it is issued for 6 months;
c) For an ATP in any multi-crew commercial operation it will be issued for 6 months;
d) For a CPL or ATP in any multi-crew operation it will be issued for 6 months if the
candidate is over 60 years.
78. A person whose medical certificate has been suspended may appeal to the Director within
a) 12 months from date of expiry

b) 30 days from date of expiry
c) 14 days from date of expiry
79. How long is the medical valid for an ATPL pilot flying single-crew environment
a) 6 months
b) 12 months
c) 24 months
80. Which class of medical certificate is required for a Commercial Pilot Licence?
a) Class 1
b) Class 2
c) Class 3
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
81. In the event that you were absent due to illness for a period of more than 21 days, you must:
a) immediately surrender your medical certificate

b) not worry as it does not affect your medical certificate’s validity
c) notify the designated body or instituted
82. The holder of a crew member licence who has given birth may act as a flight crew member:
a) Only after 12 weeks of giving birth

b) After 2 weeks of giving birth
c) After 6 weeks of giving birth
83. If the medical examination for the CPL is suspended by a DAME, the pilot may appeal this
suspension within:
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 90 days
PART 91
84. SA radio communication failure procedures for flights under IFR in IMC:
a) Only distinguish between flights IFR encountering VMC conditions and those that don’t
b) Assume that flights will route towards the nearest area with VMC as soon as possible
c) Assume only procedural separation between aircraft
d) Distinguish between flights in airspace where an ATS surveillance system is used in
the provision of ATC and flights in airspace where it is not
85. No owner or operator shall permit the taxing of and no person shall taxi an aircraft on the
movement areas of an aerodrome unless the person at the controls of the aircraft:
1) Is the holder of a valid pilot license
2) Has received instruction in the taxiing of an aircraft from, and has been declared
competent to taxi an aircraft by holder of a flight instructor’s rating or in the case of a
foreign aircraft, a person authorised by an appropriate authority
3) If a person uses a radio apparatus, such person is authorised to use the radio apparatus
4) Is conversant with the aerodrome layout, routes, signs, markings, lighting, air traffic
service signals and instructions, phraseology and procedures, if required, and is able to
perform to the standards required for safe movements at such aerodrome. Provided the
aircraft does not enter the manoeuvring area in a case where radio communication is
mandatory.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
86. A signalman uses the following signal: Arms down with palms towards the ground, then moved up
and down several times: this means:
a) Brakes on
b) Start taxi
c) Slow down
d) Stop
87. No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in single pilot operations, if prior
to each flight the expected flight time exceeds, or is likely to exceed the permissible aggregate for
all flying of:
a) 300 hours during the preceding 90 days

b) 700 hours during the preceding 6 months
c) 8 hours within a 24 hour period for pilots who are not subject to an approved flight time and
duty period schedule
88. No owner, operator or PIC of an aircraft or person shall permit the operation of or operation on
board the aircraft during flight time, any portable electronic device which may adversely affect the
performance of the systems and equipment of the aircraft: This does not apply to:
a) A cellular telephone without flight mode

b) An electric shaver
c) A notebook which may be used at any time
89. The PIC of an aircraft which is approaching an unmanned aerodrome for the purpose of landing
shall:
a) Fly overhead the aerodrome at least at circuit altitude to establish the runway in use
b) Fly overhead at least at 2000 ft to establish the runway in use
c) Join the circuit and land on the most convenient runway relative to the aircraft’s position.
90. Above FL100, day and night, flight visibility and distance from cloud for VFR flight must be:
a) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1.5 km and 1 000 feet vertically.

b) 5 km visibility, 2 000 feet horizontally and 500 feet vertically.
c) 5 km visibility, horizontally 1.5 km and 1 000 feet vertically.
91. Who is responsible for the signing of the load and trim sheet?
a) the operator
b) the pilot in command
c) the loadmaster
92. A pilot who wishes to carry passengers on a flight by night must have completed at least 3 take-
offs and landings in the preceding 90 days in:
a) if a type rating is required, any aeroplane with similar characteristics and performance by
night
b) any level of FSTD
c) the same class of aeroplane by night
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
93. No person shall fly any aircraft whatsoever in the air space of a prohibited area:
1) Below the height specified above the ground surface of such area
2) Unless permission has been obtained from the relevant authority
a) 1 is correct; 2 is correct
b) 1 is incorrect; 2 is correct
c) 1 is correct; 2 is incorrect
94. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is
necessary that:
a) Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on

board.
b) The aircraft's stairs must be completely extended.
c) Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
d) All the flight crew must be on board.
95. The SA radio communication failure procedure for IFR in IMC, as contained in CAR 2011:
a) Correspond to ICAO procedures

b) Have absolutely no relation to ICAO procedures
c) Differ from ICAO procedures in terms of the time spent maintaining the last assigned speed
and level before climbing to the level in the current flight plan
d) Differ from ICAO procedures in several respects
96. You are on an IFR flight plan in IMC conditions when you experience a communications failure.
However, an ATC clearance was received restricting you to a level below the flight level specified
in the current flight plan. Your actions should be:
a) Maintain the last assigned flight level for 7 minutes and then climb at a normal rate of
climb to the flight plan level.
b) Climb immediately to the flight plan level.
c) If terrain permits, descend until VMC.
97. No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in single pilot operations if prior
to each flight the expected flight time exceeds or is likely to exceed the permissible aggregate for
all flying of:
a) 600 hrs during the preceding 6 months

b) 10 hrs within a 24 hr period for pilots who are not subject to an approved flight time
and duty period scheme
c) 300 hours during the preceding 90 days
98. When it appears that a passenger on board your flight displays symptoms of a communicable
disease, you as PIC shall immediately notify:
a) The South African Police Services

b) The Director
c) The Port Health Authority (PHA)
d) The other passengers
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
99. No person shall operate an aircraft over water equivalent to ….. minutes at normal cruising speed
or ….. NM, whichever is the lessor unless such aircraft is equipped with life rafts and survival
equipment:
a) 30 mins and 50 nm.

b) 50 mins and 30 nm.
c) 50 mins and 50 nm.
d) 30 mins and 30 nm.
100. Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, and ATS flight plan for a flight to be
conducted in controlled or advisory airspace shall be filled:
a) For domestic flight, at least 60 minutes before departure

b) If filed during flight while outside controlled or advisory airspace for a flight to be conducted in
such airspace, it shall be filed with the responsible ATSU at least 5 minutes before the
aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point or entry into the controlled or advisory
airspace
c) For international flights, at least 60 minutes before departure
101. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
a) Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching
fist.
b) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
c) Crossing arms extended above his head.
d) Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.
102. No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in single pilot operations, if prior
to each flight the expected flight time exceeds, or is likely to exceed the permissible aggregate for
all flying of:
a) 300 hours during the preceding 90 days

b) 700 hours during the preceding 6 months
c) 8 hours within a 24 hour period for pilots who are not subject to an approved flight time and
duty period schedule
103. The maximum indicated airspeed for an aircraft flying outside controlled airspace below 10 000
feet is:
a) 200 knots
b) 250 knots,
c) 300 knots.
104. No pilot shall use a public road as a place of landing of take-off, except:
a) in the case of emergency involving the safety of the aircraft

b) with the permission of the Public Roads Department
c) where no licensed aerodrome is available
105. No pilot who is part of a multi-pilot crew of an aircraft flying under IFR shall have:
a) Flown more than 10 hours during the preceding 7 days.

b) Flown more than 38 hours during the preceding 14 days.
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
c) Flown more than 120 hours during the preceding 30 days.
106. A series of green flashes of light from the tower to an aircraft taxiing means
a) Cleared for take-off.

b) Return to starting point on the aerodrome.
c) Cleared to taxi.
d) Stop
107. Admission to the flight deck is permitted if:
a) The person is made familiar with all safety equipment and pertinent operational
procedures;
b) The flight operations department permits persons who are not crew, to the flight deck;
c) The Flight Operations Manual permits persons on to the flight deck;
d) Is only permitted if the person is not permitted to sit in any pilot seat.
108. The pilot operating on or in the vicinity of an aerodrome where there is no Air Traffic Control, shall
be responsible for:
a) Making all turns to the right when other air traffic are observed doing so.
b) Making all turns to the left unless a right hand circuit is in force.
c) Making turns to the left or right, providing there is no risk of collision.
d) Nil
109. While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red
flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
a) must stop.
b) must return to its point of departure.
c) may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
d) must vacate the landing area in use.
110. The PIC of an aircraft shall ensure that when a flight is conducted above FL 410:
a) At least one pilot wears an oxygen mask when the other pilot leaves the flight deck for any
reason.
b) At least one crew member wears an oxygen mask when the pilot leaves the flight deck for
any reason.
c) At least one passenger wears an oxygen mask when the pilot leaves the flight deck for any
reason
d) At least one pilot at a pilot station wears an oxygen mask when the other pilot leaves
the flight deck for any reason.
111. During a straight-in non-precision approach an aeroplane may descend to:
a) The system minima or MDH, whichever is lower

b) MDH minus circling minima, if included
c) The system minima or the MDH, whichever is the higher
d) The higher of the DH or the State minima
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
112. Psychoactive substances:
a) Any substance with psychotropic effects including cannabis, cocaine, tobacco and caffeine
b) Any substance with psychotropic effects including cannabis & cocaine but excluding
tobacco and caffeine
c) Any substance without psychotropic effects including cannabis & cocaine but excluding
d) Any substance without psychotropic effects including cannabis & cocaine but excluding
113. With reference to “Approach Ban” – The PIC may continue the approach to DA/H or MDA/H if –
a) at the time the RVR report is received, the aircraft has passed the FAF inbound or,
where there is no FAF, the point where the final approach course is intercepted or, in
the case of a non-precision approach, below 1 000 feet above the aerodrome;
b) the aircraft is on a flight where a landing is not intended
c) the RVR is varying between distances less than the minimum RVR.
114. How many hours after being involved in an accident are you allowed to drink?
a) 6 hrs
b) 8 hrs
c) 12 hrs
d) 24 hrs
115. No owner, operator or PIC of an aircraft or person shall permit the operation of or operation on
board the aircraft during flight time, any portable electronic device which may adversely affect the
performance of the systems and equipment of the aircraft: This does not apply to:
a) A cellular telephone without flight mode

b) An electric shaver
c) A notebook which may be used at any time
116. Whilst flying in an aerodrome’s traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the
tower. The aircraft:
a) must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
b) is cleared to land.
c) must land immediately and clear the landing area.
d) must give way to another aircraft.
117. On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
a) all vehicles moving on the apron except the "follow me" vehicle
b) aircraft taking off or about to take off
c) other vehicles and pedestrians
d) other converging aircraft
118. According to SA-CATS 91.07.5, for a precision approach category I runway to be classified as
having full facilities, the minimum length of HI/MI approach lighting required is:
a) 720 m
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
b) 1 200 m
c) 900 m
d) 420 m
119. When is a pilot required to go for substance abuse testing?
a) When requested to do so
b) Only when required by the Director or Medical Examiner
c) He should not go
120. As stated under Part 91 CAR's, no person shall consume alcohol less than:
a) 16 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty,

b) 12 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty,
c) 8 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty.
d) Nil
121. “Terrain awareness and warning systems” are required for:
a) All aircraft operating commercially in accordance with IFR

b) All turbine engine aircraft operating according to IFR
c) Turbine engine aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5 700 kg
or authorised to carry more than 9 passengers operating according to IFR
122. The required distance from clouds within a control zone under normal VFR conditions is:
a) 500 meters horizontally and 300 feet vertically

b) 600 meters horizontally and 500 feet vertically
c) 1500 meters horizontally and 1000 feet horizontally
123. An aircraft which is following a railway line within 1 nautical mile shall, unless otherwise instructed
by ATC:
a) If flying at or below 1500 ft AGL, fly to the left of the railway line
b) If flying at or below 1500 ft AGL, fly to the right of the railway line
c) Remain above a minimum height of 1500 ft AGL
124. The PIC of an aircraft which is approaching an unmanned aerodrome for the purpose of landing
shall:
a) Fly overhead the aerodrome at least at circuit altitude to establish the runway in use
b) Fly overhead at least at 2000 ft to establish the runway in use
c) Join the circuit and land on the most convenient runway relative to the aircraft’s position.
125. Destination alternate planning minima for aerodromes supporting instrument approach and landing
operations, but not supporting straight-in approach and landing operations to at least 2 runway
ends, according to SA CATS 135 is:
a) The applicable aerodrome operating minima plus a ceiling increment of 400 ft plus a
visibility increment of 1500 m
b) The applicable aerodrome operating minima plus a ceiling increment of 200 ft plus a visibility
increment of 800 m
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
c) In the case of a non-precision approach, the non-precision minima plus 200 ft added to the
MDH and 1000 m added to the RVR/visibility and the ceiling must be above the MDH + 200 ft
126. Unless otherwise authorised by an ATC, no person shall fly an aircraft within a control zone or an
aerodrome traffic zone at an indicated airspeed or more than:
a) 180 knots piston engine aircraft and 210 knots turbine powered aircraft
b) 160 knots piston engine aircraft and 200 knots turbine powered aircraft
c) 170 knots piston engine aircraft and 220 knots turbine powered aircraft
127. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same height, the aircraft that has he other
on its right shall give way, except:
a) gliders shall give way to balloons, airships shall give way to gliders and balloons,
b) gliders shall give way to airships and balloons.
c) None of the above
d) Nil
128. Training in a FSTD:
a) May not be logged

b) May be logged
c) May be logged provided it is certified by the instructor
d) Does not count towards your total time
129. The pilot of an aircraft observes the anti-collision beacon and the red Navigation light of another
aircraft on a relative bearing of 030, the bearing remaining constant.
a) there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the right

b) there is no danger of collision
c) there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the left
130. The lowest visibility or RVR that a single-engine aircraft may use for take-off is:
a) 3000 m
b) 800 m
c) 500 m
d) 1500 m
131. The minimum cruise level for IFR flight is:
a) 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle.

b) 2 000 ft above the highest obstacle.
c) 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle 5 000 ft or below.
d) Nil
132. No person shall use a public road as a place of landing or take-off in an aircraft, except;
a) In an emergency involving the safety of the aircraft or its occupants

b) For the purpose of saving human lives,
c) When involved in civil defence or law enforcement operations.
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
d) All of the above
133. A marshaller signal: “Either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm downward.
The hand is moved side wards with the arm remaining bent” – indicates:
a) Stop
b) Brakes
c) Cut engine
d) Chocks
134. An aircraft which is following a railway line within 1 nautical mile shall, unless otherwise instructed
by ATC:
a) If flying at or below 1500 ft AGL, fly to the left of the railway line
b) If flying at or below 1500 ft AGL, fly to the right of the railway line
c) Remain above a minimum height of 1500 ft AGL
135. When is a take-off alternate aerodrome required?
a) When flying any multi-engine aircraft which is not able to comply with the take-off
performance conditions specified in SA CATS 91
b) When weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure are below the applicable
minima for landing
c) When departing from an aerodrome with SID performance requirements which cannot be
complied with
d) Requirements are specified in SA CATS Parts 121, 127 and 135 and are operator defined
136. Entries in pilot logbooks must be made within the following periods after the completion of the flight
to be recorded –
a) 7 days in the case of flights not for hire and reward (Part 91 operations), flight training,
and domestic commercial air transport operations;
b) 4 days in the case of international commercial air transport operations;
c) 8 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations away
from the base where the pilot logbook is normally kept.
137. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
a) outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed;
b) while taxiing, but not when it is being towed;
c) outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable;
d) on the ground when the engines are running
138. When is an aircraft required to be equipped with Terrain Awareness and Warning Systems
(TAWS)?
a) Aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5700 kg or authorised to carry

more than 9 pax operating according to IFR
b) Turbine engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5700
kg or authorised to carry more than 9 pax operating according to IFR
c) Aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 15 000 kg or authorised to carry
more than 9 pax operating according to IFR
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
d) Turbine engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 15 000 kg or

authorised to carry more than 9 pax operating according to IFR
139. When requesting a pilot to engage the parking brake, a marshaller will give the following signal:
a) Arms repeatedly crossed above the head

b) Arms placed down and crossed in front of the body moving horizontally
c) Raise arm and hand with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench
fist
d) Arms placed horizontally sideways with palms towards the ground beckoning downwards
140. No person may operate a turbine engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in
excess of 15 000 kg or authorised to carry more than 30 passengers, for which the individual
certificate of airworthiness was issued after 1 January 2007, unless such aircraft is equipped with:
a) ACAS & TAWS.

b) TAWS.
c) ACAS.
d) RVSM.
141. The Director may by notice in the AIP declare any area to be a restricted area and shall when so
declaring an area to be a restricted area, specify in the notice in question:
1) The nature and extent of the restriction applicable in respect of the area in question
2) The authorization under which flights in such restricted are shall be permitted.
a) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
b) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
c) 1 is correct, 2 is correct
142. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
a) Dangerous airfield. Do not land.

b) Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
c) Come back and land.
d) Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
143. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
a) glider flying is performed outside the landing area;

b) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ;
c) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only;
d) this aerodrome is using parallel runways
144. Pilots may fly RNAV routes provided they have:
a) done initial GNSS training and the 12 month revalidation is valid.

b) done GNSS training and the 6 month revalidation is valid.
c) done initial GNSS training and revalidation every 3 months.
145. May a pilot in a multi-crew environment leave his/her assigned station during flight?
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
a) Yes, provided it is for physiological needs and at least one suitably qualified pilot
remains at the controls of the aircraft at all times
b) No, it is not allowed
c) Yes, provided another person sits at his/her station during the time the person is away.
146. Subject to all provisions, Special VFR operations may be done:
a) by day or by night
b) by night only
c) by day only
147. When two aircraft are approaching head on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision,
each aircraft shall:
a) Follow the ICAO deviation procedure as listed in ICAO Doc 4444

b) Alter heading to the right
c) Alter heading to the left
148. Final reserve fuel is:
a) the extra amount of fuel to be carried at the discretion of the PIC

b) for a reciprocating engine aeroplane, the amount of fuel required to fly for 30 minutes under
speed and conditions specified by the Director
c) for a turbine engine aeroplane, the amount of fuel required to fly for 30 minutes at
holding speed at 1 500 ft above aerodrome elevation
149. In which of the following circumstances may a conversion between Met Vis and RVR not be used?
a) Take-off minima
b) Landing minima
c) When operating Cat D or E aeroplanes
d) When operating multi engine aeroplanes
150. With respect to multi crew certificated aircraft the PIC is bound by Part 91’s recency requirements.
The three take-off and landings must be done as:
a) Pilot monitoring
b) Pilot flying
c) Pilot monitoring or Pilot flying
151. No person shall operate an aeroplane, unless such aeroplane is equipped with a flotation device or
life jacket containing a survivor locator light for each person on board:
a) when flying over land & beyond gliding distance from water
b) when flying over water & beyond gliding distance from land;
c) when flying beyond 50 nautical miles from land
d) when flying beyond 30 nautical miles from land;
152. Except with the approval of the Director, the crew of any aircraft:
a) must maintain communication at all times with boom or throat microphones;

b) must maintain communication on 121.5MHz with boom or throat microphones;
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
c) must maintain communication on boom or throat microphones with each other;

d) must maintain communication with boom or throat microphones when below
transition altitude or transition level when on the flight deck of a large aeroplane.
153. The PIC of an aircraft may pick up an object:
a) With approval from the Director

b) Only when he/she has obtained prior written approval from the Director
c) At the discretion of the PIC
d) With permission from the Operator
154. All flight crew members involved in large aeroplanes operations and who are required to be on the
flight deck duty shall:
a) ensure that each crew member can be heard in an audible manner on the flight deck
b) may use a speaker and hand held microphone during all phases of flight
c) communicate through boom or throat microphones below the transitions level /
altitude
155. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
a) Need special precautions while approaching for landing.

b) The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
c) An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
d) Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.
156. An extended flight over water, aircraft not equipped with life rafts is limited to:
a) gliding distance from the shore except during take-off and landing
b) route where no portion of the flight is further than 50 nm from the shore
c) route where no portion of flight is further than 90 minutes from the shore, calculated at the
cruising speed of the aircraft
157. An aircraft shall be equipped with means for indicating the adequacy of the power being supplied
to:
a) All instruments
b) All equipment
c) Required flight instruments
158. As far as the planning minima for IFR are concerned, in which of the following must the cloud
ceiling be taken into account?
a) When the only approaches available are VOR, VOR/DME, NDB or circling approaches
b) Where an IFR flight is planned to an aerodrome en route where the approach can be made
to encounter VMC and then continued to the destination
c) In all cases
159. A flight plan to be filed for a flight to be conducted in controlled airspace shall be filed:
a) 30 minutes before entering controlled airspace.

b) 30 minutes before departure for an international flight.
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
c) Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, 30 minutes before departure.

d) 24 hours before departure
160. A commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than the
fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:
a) fuel to fly 20 minutes at best range speed.

b) 15 minutes of remaining fuel.
c) final reserve fuel remaining.
d) fuel to hold 30 minutes at 1500 ft above the aerodrome.
161. Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR?
a) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is
required to remain clear of clouds and in sight of the ground.
b) A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC.
c) A flight in IMC where the pilot and/or aeroplane are unable to comply with the requirements
for VFR.
d) A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit an area in IMC without compliance with
IFR.
162. No pilot shall operate an aircraft in formation flight, except:
a) By prior written approval having been granted by the Director

b) By arrangement between the pilot-in-command of each aircraft
c) In uncontrolled airspace
d) Nil
163. The weather conditions at an IFR take-off alternate aerodrome are required to:
a) To be at or above the applicable landing minima

b) Comply with the criteria for en route aerodromes
c) Comply with the enhanced minima requirements for destination alternate aerodromes
d) Be equal to or better than applicable minima for take-off
164. Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, and ATS flight plan for a flight to be
conducted in controlled or advisory airspace shall be filled:
a) For domestic flight, at least 60 minutes before departure

b) If filed during flight while outside controlled or advisory airspace for a flight to be conducted in
such airspace, it shall be filed with the responsible ATSU at least 5 minutes before the
aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point or entry into the controlled or advisory
airspace
c) For international flights, at least 60 minutes before departure
165. Distress signals are signals made by radio telephony or by any signalling method consisting of:
1) signal sent by radio telephony consisting of spoken word mayday x 3
2) rocket shells throwing red lights fired one at a time and at short intervals
3) parachute flare showing red lights
a) 2, 3
b) 1, 2
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 3
166. At night when flying by IFR and except when taking-off or landing, the minimum height above the
height of the highest obstacle at 5 000 feet or below and within 5 NM of the aircraft is:
a) 1 500 ft.
b) 1 000 ft.
c) 2 000 ft.
d) Nil
167. If the marshaller: “arms repeatedly crossed above his head” this means:
a) Brakes
b) Chocks
c) Cut engines
d) Stop
168. For which flight are you required to carry a passenger manifest?
a) International
b) Domestic
c) Both
169. If a flight plan has not been activated, it will automatically be cancelled after:
a) 30 minutes.
b) 1 hour.
c) 10 minutes.
d) 24 hours.
170. No article other than fine sand or clean water used as ballast or chemical substances for the
purpose of spraying or dusting may be dropped from an aircraft in flight except:
a) In a emergency.
b) By special permission granted by the Director of Civil Aviation (DCA).
c) Both a and b are correct.
171. When an aircraft is operated without a destination alternate, the required destination alternate fuel
to be carried is:
a) The amount of fuel required to enable the aircraft to fly for 15 mins at holding speed 1500 ft
above destination alternate elevation in standard conditions
b) For a turbine engine aircraft, the amount of fuel to fly for 30 mins at normal cruise
consumption above destination aerodrome
c) For a reciprocating engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 45 mins
172. Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of
consecutive weeks and:
a) On at least 20 days consecutively

b) On at least 20 occasions
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
c) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days
d) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days
173. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC
instructions. You should:
a) request ATC for other instructions.

b) select code A7500 on your transponder.
c) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
d) follow ATC instructions.
174. According to Part 91, a noise certificate (if such certificate has been issued for the type of aircraft)
is required to be carried on board for:
a) Domestic flight only

b) International flight only
c) Both Domestic and International flights
175. An Emergency Locator Transmitter is required to be carried by all flights, except:
a) All training flights;

b) Aerial work except for aircraft used for spraying of chemicals for agricultural purposes;
c) Any flight remaining within a radius of 100 nm of the point of departure;
d) Any aircraft that has the ELT repaired can operate for not longer than 60 days without one.
176. The ATS flight plan shall not be filed in respect of –
a) a flight crossing an airway or advisory routes at right angles

b) an international flight;
c) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by
the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and
search and rescue services; and
d) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by
the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or with
ATSUs in adjacent States in order to avoid the possible need for interception for the purpose
of identification.
177. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC
instructions. You should:
a) follow ATC instructions.

b) request ATC for other instructions.
c) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
d) select code A7500 on your transponder.
178. Destination alternate planning minima for aerodromes supporting instrument approach and landing
operations, but not supporting straight-in approach and landing operations to at least 2 runway
ends, according to SA CATS 135 is:
a) The applicable aerodrome operating minima plus a ceiling increment of 400 ft plus a
visibility increment of 1500 m
b) The applicable aerodrome operating minima plus a ceiling increment of 200 ft plus a visibility
increment of 800 m
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
c) In the case of a non-precision approach, the non-precision minima plus 200 ft added to the
MDH and 1000 m added to the RVR/visibility and the ceiling must be above the MDH + 200 ft
179. Having been intercepted, the signal from the intercepting aircraft to the intercepted aircraft to
indicate that it is clear to proceed is:
a) Cut across in front of the intercepted aircraft

b) Rocking wings
c) Breaking climbing turn left
d) Flashing lights
180. An aircraft intercepting in front and to the left rocking its wings means:
a) follow me away from a prohibited area

b) follow me to a landing area
c) extend your landing gear
181. If aircraft “A” files a flight plan and aircraft “B” does not:
a) “A” has priority.

b) No one has priority.
c) “A” may be given priority.
d) Priority will be given to a commercial flight.
182. Except with the written permission of the CAA no aircraft shall circle over or within 1 km of or make
repeated flights over an open-air assembly of persons below a height of:
a) 3 000 ft above the surface

b) 2 000 ft above sea level
c) 1 000 ft above the surface
183. An aerodrome with runway and centreline lighting – what is the lowest take-off minima for a Cat D
aircraft?
a) RVR 250 m
b) RVR 200 m
c) RVR 500 m
d) RVR 150 m
184. On a VFR flight from X to Z an airway has to be crossed at right angles. Both X and Z are situated
outside Controlled airspace.
a) A flight plan may not be filed.

b) A flight plan must be filed if search and rescue is required.
c) A flight plan must be filed with the nearest Air Traffic Service Unit, because you are entering
controlled airspace.
d) Only need to file a plan if it is an IFR flight.
185. The minimum height above a proclaimed game reserve is:
a) 500 ft
b) 2 000 ft
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
c) 500 m
d) 1500 m
186. Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full
stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:
a) 60% of the landing distance available.

b) 70% of the landing distance available.
c) 80% of the landing distance available.
d) 50% of the landing distance available.
187. A flight plan shall be submitted in respect of:
a) All flights for which search and rescue is required

b) An international flight.
c) All commercial flights – air transport and aerial work.
d) Both a and b are correct.
188. When carrying passengers in a small aircraft, you as the PIC shall ensure that:
a) the passengers are briefed on the smoking prohibition and portable electronic devices
b) the passengers are shown how to use the fire extinguisher
c) no alcohol is consumed at any stage during the flight by any passenger
189. A flight folio must be completed after each flight:
a) This must be completed by the flight crew member, and must include routeing and oil and
fuel uptake;
b) The information must be completed in a legible writing and in permanent ink;
c) This document must be kept for a period of at least 3 years after the last entry;
d) The flight folio can be kept in flight operations, and need not be carried in the aircraft.
190. Preparing an IFR flight from controlled into or through uncontrolled airspace, the FL to be selected
in accordance with semi-circular rules depends on:
a) The Magnetic Track and whether he is flying in VMC or IMC.

b) The Magnetic track only.
c) The compass heading and whether he is flying in VMC or IMC.
d) Only on whether he is flying in IMC or VMC.
191. On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an
oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with
oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight period, during which the
pressure altitude is greater than:
a) 12 000 ft.
b) 11 000 ft.
c) 10 000 ft.
d) 13 000 ft.
192. The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into
account :
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
1) equipment available for navigation

2) dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3) composition of the flight crew
4) obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas
5) facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions
a) 1,2,3,4,5
b) 1,2,4,5
c) 2,4,5
d) 2,3,5
193. If an aircraft is not capable of flight to an aerodrome if the critical power unit becomes inoperative,
the aircraft should carry sufficient life jackets for an overwater flight for every person on board and
is restricted to:
a) Flight within gliding distance from land.

b) Within 15 minutes flight time from land, based on reduced cruise speed
c) Within 30 minutes flight time from land, based on reduced cruise speed.
d) Nil
194. A precautionary kit shall be carried on board an aircraft for which the maximum certificated
passenger seating is:
a) 10 or more
b) 15 or more
c) 20 or more
d) 30 or more
195. Except by individual permission from the Director, aircraft shall not be flown acrobatically –
1) unless the manoeuvre can be concluded and the aircraft brought on an even keel at a
height of not less than 2 000 feet above the ground or water;
2) within a five nautical mile distance of an aerodrome reference point of an aerodrome
licensed and approved in terms of Part 139 unless at a height not less than 4 000 feet
above ground level;
3) in the vicinity of air traffic services routes; or
4) over any populous area or public gathering.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
196. Certificate of Release to service is issued by the AMO after a Mandatory periodic inspection of an
aircraft as required by the maintenance schedule. This will certificate will be retained for a period
of:
a) 12 months;
b) 6 months;
c) 24 months;
d) 5 years.
197. A regular requirement for the completion of a flight folio is:

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NEW QUESTIONS 2
a) The number of landings completed during the flight

b) The duty assignment of flight crew members
c) The number of passengers carried on board
198. On any flight within the RSA, the certificate of release to service must be carried on board:
a) Only for domestic flights.

b) Only for international flights.
c) On all flights
199. An aircraft with a mass in excess of 5 700 kg operated in commercial air transportation shall:
a) except in emergency, not land at an unlicensed aerodrome

b) land at a unlicensed aerodrome
c) land at a unlicensed aerodrome provided the pilot has satisfied himself that there is no
danger involved
200. Except in emergency, no aircraft shall take off or land by night unless:
a) Such aircraft is equipped with landing lights in terms of the provision of A. In which case such
landing lights may be regarded as sufficient equipment for take-off and landing at night.
b) The PIC of such aircraft is familiar with the aerodrome and according to his judgement
sufficient means are available to assist in take-off or landing in the absence of runway lights.
c) The aerodrome of take-off or landing is equipped for night flying and that the PIC has
ensured that night flying facilities are available for take-off or landing.
201. Does the release of service pertain to:
a) Annual scheduled maintenance only

b) Specific line maintenance
c) Both
202. Landing distance available must be at least:
a) For turbo-jet or turbo-fan aircraft the landing distance required must not be more than
60% of the LDA;
b) For all aeroplanes dispatch only permitted if the planned landing mass will allow a landing
within 70% of the landing distance available(LDA);
c) For turbine aeroplanes, dispatch permitted if the planned landing distance required is not
more than 60% of the LDA;
d) For large propeller driven aeroplanes, the planned landing distance required must not be
more than 60% of the LDA.
203. The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying VFR:
a) Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator.

b) Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator, vertical
speed indicator.
c) Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator, direction
indicator.
d) Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator, turn & bank
indicator
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
204. Entries in pilot logbooks must be made within the following periods after the completion of the flight
to be recorded –
a) 24 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations away
from the base where the pilot logbook is normally kept;
b) 36 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations away
from the base where the pilot logbook is normally kept
c) 48 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations
away from the base where the pilot logbook is normally kept.
205. In an aeroplane in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses available for use in flight must
be at least:
a) 20 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 2 of each rating, whichever is the greater
b) 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is the greater
c) 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater
d) 5 % of the number fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater
206. An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :
a) the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight;
b) the aircraft gets radar vectors ;
c) the pilot is following the published approach procedure
d) all mentioned answers are correct
207. The lowest visibility or RVR that a single-engine aircraft may use for take-off is:
a) 3000 m
b) 800 m
c) 500 m
d) 1500 m
208. An ATS flight plan shall be filed in respect of:
a) a local flight
b) a flight crossing an airway at 90°
c) all flights undertaken in terms of a Class I or Class II licence issued in terms of the Air
Services Licensing Act
209. Except for other equipment prescribed for IFR flights it is necessary that …..
a) The flight crew wear watches showing hours, minutes and seconds
b) The flight crew have stop watches
c) The aircraft be equipped with an accurate time piece showing hours, minutes and
seconds
d) The aircraft be equipped with an accurate time piece showing hours, minutes
210. No aircraft shall be operated at night without:
a) An rotating beacon, navigation lights or position lights.
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
b) Rotating beacon, navigation lights and two landing lights or a single light having two
separately energised filaments.
c) Two parachute flares if the maximum certificated mass is 5 700 kgs or less.
211. No aircraft shall take off from, land at or approach to land at an aerodrome or fly within an
aerodrome traffic zone under normal VFR operations when the ground visibility at the aerodrome
concerned is less than:
a) 1500 m and the ceiling is less than 500 ft

b) 5 km and the ceiling is less than 500 ft
c) 5 km and the ceiling is less than 1500 ft
212. Which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision
approach:
1) the required RVR,
2) the ceiling
3) the minimum descent height (MDH)
4) the decision height (DH)
1, 2, 4.
1, 3.
1, 4.
1, 2, 3.
213. On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen
throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is
between:
a) 10 000 ft and 13 000 ft

b) 10 000 ft and 12 000 ft
c) 11 000 ft and 13 000 ft
d) 11 000 ft and 12 000 ft
214. Seats for cabin crew close to the emergency exit must be:
a) 15° in the longitudinal axis

b) 25° in the lateral axis
c) 15° in the lateral axis
d) 25° in longitudinal axis
215. The lowest RVR that may be used for a visual approach is:
a) 1500 m
b) 800 m
c) 3600 m
d) 2400 m
216. RVSM operations requires:

1) a valid RVSM approval certificate has been issued for such aircraft;
2) the prescribed minimum RVSM equipment is serviceable; and
3) the flight crew has successfully completed the RVSM training
4) Only applicable to Large aircraft
Choose the correct combination
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 4
217. A safety pilot must be rated on the type of aircraft and he must also:
a) occupy a control seat

b) be able to keep a look out in all directions
c) occupy a control seat and be able to keep a good look out
218. The approval of the Director of Civil Aviation is required to conduct CAT II operations. Where in
South African aviation legislation is this provided for in respect of General aviation operators.
a) Part 127
b) Part 135
c) Part 121
d) Part 91
219. The holder of a RVSM approval certificate endorsed for operations within RVSM airspace, shall:
a) report each height-keeping error in RVSM airspace.

b) report within 24 hours to the Director any occurrence involving poor height-keeping in
an RVSM environment
c) report within 12 hours to the Director any occurrence involving poor height-keeping in an
RVSM environment
d) Need not report height-keeping errors in RVSM airspace.
220. Whilst taxiing at an uncontrolled airfield, the pilot observes an aircraft converging from the right.
The pilot should:
a) Continue to taxi.
b) Slow down or stop and allow the other aircraft right of way.
c) Continue to taxi if on an IFR flight plan.
d) Nil
221. The one engine cruising speed for a multi-engine aircraft which is used to calculate the flight time
for purposes of a take-off alternate aerodrome is based on:
a) the average route mass, ie: the average of the actual take-off mass and the estimated
landing mass
b) the maximum certificated take-off mass
c) the actual take-off mass
d) the mass at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation using all engine operative fuel burn rate for
calculation
222. No owner or operator of an aircraft in which fuses are used, shall operate the aircraft unless there
are spare fuse available for use in flight equal to at least:
a) 10% or 3, whichever is the greater of the number of fuses of each rating required for
complete circuit protection
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
b) 10% or 5, whichever is the greater of the number of fuses of each rating required for
complete circuit protection
c) 5% or 5, whichever is the greater of the number of fuses of each rating required for complete
circuit protection
223. VFR flight is not permitted:

1) At supersonic speeds
2) In Class A airspace
a) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
b) 1 is correct, 2 is correct
c) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
224. The signal which, when directed from an aerodrome at an aircraft in the air shall constitute an
instruction to the aircraft to give way to other aircraft and continue circling is:
a) an intermittent green beam

b) a continuous red beam
c) an intermittent red beam
d) a continuous green beam
225. The use of an electronic flight bag such as an IPAD:
a) May not be used under any circumstances

b) May only be used if it meets the requirements specified in SA CATS 91 and is
approved for the purpose by the Director.
c) Is permitted at any stage provided the correct software has been downloaded.
226. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
a) The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling

b) Give way to other aircraft in emergency
c) Continue circling and wait for further instructions
d) The airport is unsafe, do not land
227. The pilot in command of an aircraft:

1) must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.
2) is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying".
3) may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
4) may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction.
5) may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
a) 2-3-5
b) 3-5
c) 3-4-5
d) 1–4
228. During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication
failure. You will:
a) Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination ;

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NEW QUESTIONS 2
b) Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;

c) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
d) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ;
229. As far as the planning minima for IFR flights is concerned, in which of the following cases shall the
cloud ceiling be taken into account?
a) When the only apprate circling approaches
230. Approach ban is applicable to:
a) all IMC approaches;

b) Only precision approaches;
c) Only non-precision approaches and APVs;
d) Only cat 11 and Cat 111 approaches
231. The minimum RVR for a visual approach is:
a) 2 000 m
b) 1 500m
c) 1 000m
d) 500m.
232. No person shall act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a Passenger by night unless he has
carried out, in an aircraft of the same class and category, not less than:
a) five take offs and landings within six months of the flight
b) three take offs and landings within 90 days preceding the flight
c) three take offs and landings within six months of the flight
233. May a pilot in a multi-crew environment leave his/her assigned station during flight?
a) Yes, provided it is for physiological needs and at least one suitably qualified pilot
remains at the controls of the aircraft at all times
b) No, it is not allowed
c) Yes, provided another person sits at his/her station during the time the person is away.
234. According to CAR 2011, when an aerodrome is selected as a destination or alternate aerodrome,
the appropriate weather reports or forecasts or a combination of thereof must be at or above the
applicable planning minima for a period of:
a) 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETD of the aircraft at the aerodrome
b) 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA of the aircraft at the aerodrome
c) 2 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA of the aircraft at the aerodrome
d) 1 hour before to 2 hour after the ETA of the aircraft at the aerodrome
235. The use of an electronic flight bag such as an IPAD:
a) May not be used under any circumstances

b) May only be used if it meets the requirements specified in SA CATS 91 and is
approved for the purpose by the Director.
c) Is permitted at any stage provided the correct software has been downloaded.
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
236. The minimum required recency experience for a PIC or SIC for an instrument approach under IMC
shall be:
a) 3 approaches in an aircraft or approved FSTD with reference to flight instruments only

b) 2 approaches in an aircraft or FSTD with reference to flight instruments only.
c) 3 approaches in an aircraft or FSTD with reference to flight instruments only
d) 2 approaches in an aircraft or approved FSTD with reference to flight instruments
only.
237. Take-off alternate: A take-of alternate is required to be nominated if return to the departure airfield
is precluded due to weather. This will be:
a) For a 2 engine aeroplane, an alternate within 1 hour engine out cruise speed from the
departure aerodrome, in ISA conditions, and in still air at the maximum certificated
take-off mass of that aeroplane;
b) For a 3 or 4 engine aeroplane an alternate within 2 hours all engine cruise in ISA and still air
conditions at the actual take-off mass;
c) For a 3 or 4 engine aeroplane an alternate within 2 hours one engine out engine cruise in
ISA and still air conditions at the actual take-off mass;
d) For a 2 engine aeroplane, an alternate within 1 hour all engine cruise speed from the
departure aerodrome, in ISA conditions, and in still air at the maximum certificated take-off
mass of that aeroplane.
238. The operator of an aeroplane shall select at least one destination alternate aerodrome for each IFR
flight unless:
1) Isolated aerodrome
2) 2 separate runways
3) Duration of the flight from departure taking into account all the operational information for
a period of at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA and can be made in VMC
4) Sufficient fuel to hold for at least 2 hours
5) Weather for 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA is above the applicable minima
a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 2, 4 & 5
c) 1, 3 & 5
d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
239. SA radio communication failure procedures for flights under IFR in IMC:
a) Only distinguish between flights IFR encountering VMC conditions and those that don’t
b) Assume that flights will route towards the nearest area with VMC as soon as possible
c) Assume only procedural separation between aircraft
d) Distinguish between flights in airspace where an ATS surveillance system is used in
the provision of ATC and flights in airspace where it is not
240. No aircraft shall take off from, land at or approach to land at an aerodrome or fly within an
aerodrome traffic zone under normal VFR operations when the ground visibility at the aerodrome
concerned is less than:
a) 1500 m and the ceiling is less than 500 ft

b) 5 km and the ceiling is less than 500 ft
c) 5 km and the ceiling is less than 1500 ft
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
241. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft
a) Can do whatever he wants

b) He may request and if practicable, obtain an amended clearance
c) May disregard the clearance
242. Except by individual permission from the CAA aircraft shall not be flown aerobatically inter alia:
a) in the vicinity of air traffic routes and within 4 nm of an aerodrome

b) within 5 nm from an aerodrome unless at a height of not less than 4 000 ft agl
c) in the vicinity of air traffic routes and within 8 nm from an aerodrome
243. On an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather
conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:
a) the aerodrome operating minima, at the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period
before and after such a predicted time.
b) the aerodrome operating minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after
the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome.
c) the planning minima, at the estimated time of arrival.
d) the planning minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of
arrival at the aerodrome.
244. The Director may by notice in the AIP declare any area to be a restricted area and shall when so
declaring an area to be a restricted area, specify in the notice in question:
1) The nature and extent of the restriction applicable in respect of the area in question
2) The authorization under which flights in such restricted are shall be permitted.
a) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
b) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
c) 1 is correct, 2 is correct
245. When a flight is operated without a destination alternate aerodrome the required destination
alternate fuel to be carried shall be:
a) For a turbine engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 2 hours at normal
cruise consumption above the destination aerodrome, including final reserve fuel
b) For a turbine engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 30 minutes at normal cruise
consumption above the destination aerodrome
c) For a reciprocating engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 45 minutes
246. On a flight from Cape Town to Bloemfontein in a twin-engine aircraft that is capable of climbing to
1 500 ft on a single engine. The surface conditions at Cape Town are: - Visibility 1 500 m with
runway 01 in use. For the take-off, these conditions are:
a) Suitable, provided the conditions at an alternate aerodrome within 1 hour flight time
on one engine are at or above landing minima
b) Not suitable for take-off because in the event of an engine failure the aircraft would not be
able to return for landing
c) Suitable for take-off provided the conditions at an alternate within 1 hour flight time has a
ceiling of at least 600 ft. a visibility of 3 200 m and an ILS available
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
d) More information is required to answer the question
247. Destination alternates planning minima: Aerodromes supporting straight in instrument approach
and landing operation to different suitable runways. The ceiling:
a) Applicable aerodrome operating minima plus an increment of 400 ft

b) Applicable aerodrome operating minima plus an increment of 200 ft
c) For CAT II operations at least 300 ft, for CAT III operations at least 200 ft
d) For CAT II operations at least 200 ft, for CAT III operations at least 300 ft
248. Planning minima for en-route alternates CAT I:
a) Non precision minima and ceiling must be above the MDA

b) Non-precision RVR/Visibility + 1000 m and ceiling must be at or above the MDH + 200 ft
c) Must be forecast at or above the CAT I minima
d) Must be forecast at or above the CAT II minima
249. To conduct a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required is:
a) 5000 meters
b) 1500 meters
c) 3000 meters
d) 2500 meters
250. If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
a) select two destination alternates.

b) take extra fuel to fly one hour at holding speed, 1500 ft above the alternate aerodrome.
c) take extra fuel to fly two hours at holding speed.
d) (not take-off until obtaining destination meteorological forecast.
251. Special VFR can be given
a) By day only
b) When visibility is less than 1500m.
c) In a CTR or ATZ.
d) When the ceiling is less than 1200 feet.
252. Smoking is permitted:
a) Never in aircraft.
b) Within 25 metres of an aircraft.
c) On private flights if the aircraft manual permits smoking on board the aircraft.
253. For which flight are you required to carry a noise certificate?
a) International
b) Domestic
c) Both
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
PART 92
254. Unless otherwise provided for in Document SA-CATS 92, dangerous goods may be carried:
1) In the passenger cabin occupied by passengers
2) On the flight deck
3) In the cargo compartment
a) 3 only
b) 2 ,3
c) 1, 2, 3
255. In the event of a package containing dangerous goods and bearing a cargo aircraft only sticker:
a) The pilots and ground personnel require additional training about the package being flown
b) It shall be loaded in a manner that any flight crew member or other person authorised
by the operator can still handle the package and where size and weight permit,
separate such package from the other cargo on the flight
c) The operator shall always ensure that in this instance the securing meets the requirements
regarding the separation of materials referred to in regulations 92.00.19(3)
256. No person shall offer for conveyance in an aircraft, convey in an aircraft or accept for conveyance
in an aircraft, unless
a) These are carried in the cargo hold, in a manner described in CATS 92;
b) Some dangerous goods are allowed to be carried in the cabin or the cockpit: these goods are
limited to, amongst others, medical goods required by a patient on board;
c) Military aircraft are not covered by the regulations in Part 92;
d) All of the above.
257. May a passenger carry any dangerous goods on his person?
a) Yes, provided the pilot gives permission

b) Never
c) Yes, provided it is in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed
in document SA CATS 92
258. Dangerous goods to be transported includes medical equipment. This will be permitted in the
cabin:
a) If required by a passenger in the cabin

b) Will not be permitted if it is for a sick animal
c) Must be declared to the PIC and the PIC will decide if it is to be permitted
d) Only applies to a pacemaker
259. May a passenger carry any dangerous goods on his person?
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NEW QUESTIONS 2
a) Yes, provided the pilot gives permission

b) Never
c) Yes, provided it is in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed
in document SA CATS 92
260. No person shall offer for conveyance in an aircraft, convey in an aircraft or accept for conveyance
in an aircraft, unless
e) These are carried in the cargo hold, in a manner described in CATS 92;
f) Some dangerous goods are allowed to be carried in the cabin or the cockpit: these goods are
limited to, amongst others, medical goods required by a patient on board;
g) Military aircraft are not covered by the regulations in Part 92;
h) All of the above.
261. Unless otherwise provided for in Document SA CATS 92, dangerous goods may be transported:
1) In the passenger cabin, occupied by passengers
2) On the flight deck
3) In the cargo compartment
a) 3 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
PART 93
262. A private operator shall not operate a twin-engine aircraft, under Part 93, over a route which
contains a point further from an adequate and suitable aerodrome than the distance that can be
flown, under standard conditions in still air, in 60 minutes at the one-engine inoperative cruise
speed unless:
a) The extended range twin-engine operations are conducted in accordance with the
procedures approved for the operator in the operations manual.
b) The pilot has selected two destination alternate aerodromes and the weather is such that for
one hour before and one hour after the ETA the weather conditions are VMC
c) The pilot(s) is(are) type rated and RVSM approved.
263. A private operator shall not operate a twin engine aeroplane, under Part 93, over a route which
contains a point further from an adequate and suitable aerodrome than the distance that can be
flown, under standard conditions in still air, in 60 mins at the one engine inoperative cruise speed
unless:
a) the extended range twin engine operations are conducted in accordance with the
procedures approved for the operator in its operations manual
b) the pilot has selected two destination alternate aerodromes an the weather is such that for
one hour before and one hour after the estimated arrival the weather conditions are VMC
c) the pilot(s) is (are)type rated and RVSM approved
264. In order to operate under Part 93, the private operator shall:
a) Obtain the appropriate Air Service License from the Department of Transport
44
NEW QUESTIONS 2
b) Automatically be granted RVSM, FDP and LVP approvals

c) Establish and implement a fatigue management program
PART 121
265. Part 121: Air Transport Operations applies to:
a) any South African Operator, engaged in a commercial air transport operation, using an
airplane registered in the Republic of South Africa operating in an all-cargo
configuration having a maximum certificated take-off mass of greater than 8618 kg
b) any South African Operator, engaged in a commercial air transport operation, using an
airplane registered in the Republic of South Africa having a certificated take-off mass above
5700 kg
c) any local or foreign operator, engaged in a commercial air transport operation, using an
airplane operating in an all-cargo configuration having a maximum certificated take-off mass
of greater than 8618 kg
PART 129
a) Aerodromes and heliports

b) Air ambulance operations
c) Foreign Air Operations
d) General Aviation and Operating Rules
PART 135
267. According to Part 135, a single turbine engine aircraft with passengers on board may only be
operated at night if:
a) Is authorized to do so in its operations specifications

b) The pilots have undergone detailed training in single engine operations
c) May only do so with prior permission from the passenger and PIC
268. Assuming all approvals are in place, according to Part 135, what experience does the PIC require
for operations at night without a SIC?
a) At least 350 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 100 hours shall be
as PIC and 50 hours of flight time at night
b) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 10 hours shall
be as PIC and 15 hours of flight time at night
c) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 20 hours shall be as
PIC and 50 hours of flight time at night
269. Part 135 cargo operations applies to:
a) Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5700 kg or
less
b) Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 8618 kg or
more
45
NEW QUESTIONS 2
c) Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of

8618 kg or less
d) Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5700 kg or
more
270. According to Part 135, a single turbine engine aircraft with passengers on board may only be
operated at night if:
a) Is authorized to do so in its operations specifications

b) The pilots have undergone detailed training in single engine operations
c) May only do so with prior permission from the passenger and PIC
271. May a passenger sit in the co-pilot seat in an aircraft operated under Part 135?
a) Never
b) Only in an aircraft operated under Part 91
c) Not in an aircraft operated under Part 135
d) An operator of aeroplanes certificated or authorised for flight with one pilot may use
the second seat on the flight deck as a passenger seat
272. To act as PIC of an aircraft engaged in Part 135 operations, you:
a) May do so only by holding at least a CPL and the applicable ratings and must meet the
experience limitations detailed in SA CATS 135
b) May do so once you automatically meet the minimum regulatory experience requirements
even if the published company requirements are higher
c) May do so only by holding at least a CPL and the applicable ratings without any experience
limitations
273. How many hours must a PIC have before being able to carry passengers in an aeroplane with a
maximum certificated seating configuration of 10 or more passenger in VFR at night?
a) 100 hours and a suitable type rating

b) 200 hours and a suitable type rating
c) 350 hours and a suitable type rating
d) 500 hours and a suitable type rating
274. Assuming all approvals are in place, according to Part 135, what experience does the PIC require
for operations at night without a SIC?
a) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 10 hours shall be as
b) At least 350 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 100 hours shall be
as PIC and 50 hours of flight time at night
c) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 10 hours shall
be as PIC and 15 hours of flight time at night
d) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 20 hours shall be as
275. According to Part 135, an operator who wishes to operate a single turbine-engine aeroplane with
passengers on board at night, must comply with SA CATS 135 and:
a) May do so only with prior permission from the passengers and PIC
46
NEW QUESTIONS 2
b) Have ensured that the pilots have undergone detailed training regarding night flight
operations in single engine aeroplanes
c) Be specifically approved to do so in its operations specifications
276. In a part 135 operation, the PIC of an aircraft flying IFR must have a second in command if:
a) The aeroplane is > 5 700kg and certified to carry 19 or less passengers;

b) has passed a single-pilot proficiency check within the previous 24 months;
c) In the case of unpressurised aeroplane, not operate at a level that requires continuous use of
oxygen;
d) Cannot perform normal and emergency procedures without assistance.
277. In the case of a multi-pilot crew, the owner or operator shall designate one pilot among the flight
crew as PIC of the aircraft and
a) the PIC may delegate the conduct of the flight to another suitably qualified pilot.
b) the PIC may not delegate the conduct of the flight to another suitably qualified pilot.
c) the PIC may not delegate the conduct of the flight to a crew member
278. According to Part 135, an operator who wishes to operate a single turbine-engine aeroplane with
passengers on board at night, must comply with SA CATS 135 and:
a) May do so only with prior permission from the passengers and PIC
b) Have ensured that the pilots have undergone detailed training regarding night flight
operations in single engine aeroplanes
c) Be specifically approved to do so in its operations specifications
279. In order to conduct single-engine IMC or night flight operation under Part 135:
a) Only the pilot must be rated and the aircraft must meet the required equipment and
operational requirements
b) This operation must specifically be listed as an approval on an operator’s Ops Spec
prior to conducting such a flight
c) The operator must have a valid AOC but such operation does not have to be specifically
listed in its Ops Spec
280. While on a flight which is being operated for reward, a pilot deviates from the CAR. The PIC is
required as soon as practical to:
a) Notify the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the
deviation occurred, of such deviation without delay.
b) Notify the SACAA of such deviation without delay.
c) Notify the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the deviation
occurred, of such deviation within 24 hours.
281. According to Part 135 no person shall dispatch or conduct a take-off in an aircraft unless the mass
of the aircraft on landing at the destination aerodrome will allow a full stop landing:
a) In the case of a large propeller driven aircraft, within 70% of the LDA
b) In the case of a small propeller driven aircraft, within 60% of the LDA
47
NEW QUESTIONS 2
c) In the case of any turbojet or turbofan-powered aircraft, within 70% of the LDA
PART 138
a) Airspace
b) Air ambulance operations
c) Aerodromes and heliports
PART 139
283. SA CAR Part 139 refers to:
a) Aerodromes and Heliports

b) Airspaces and Air Traffic Services
c) Air ambulance services
d) Air Transportation: Small aeroplanes
PART 185
284. When an aircraft has been involved in an accident, the investigator in charge may:
a) Call upon the owner, operator or PIC of any aircraft to produce or cause to be
produced for inspection or investigation any licence, certificate, manual, logbook or
other document relating to the aircraft or crew
b) Arrest the pilot, owner, operator if there is sufficient evidence that the aircraft crashed due to
improper operation of such aircraft
c) Withdraw the pilot’s licence immediately
285. According to Part 135 no person shall dispatch or conduct a take-off in an aircraft unless the mass
of the aircraft on landing at the destination aerodrome will allow a full stop landing:
a) In the case of a large propeller driven aircraft, within 70% of the LDA
b) In the case of a small propeller driven aircraft, within 60% of the LDA
c) In the case of any turbojet or turbofan-powered aircraft, within 70% of the LDA
286. A person who operates or attempts to operate any aircraft in respect of which no valid certificate of
registration or valid certificate of airworthiness have been issued is:
a) committing a serious offence and may be fined for each time he/she has done so
b) guilty of a little misdemeanour and may not be fined but may have other punitive measures
brought against him
c) within his/her right if they are the owner of the aircraft
287. A person who gives false information pertaining to the investigation of any aviation accident or
incident is:
a) Guilty of a little misdemeanour and may not be fired but may have other punitive measures
brought against them
b) Committing a serious offence and may be fined for each time he/she has done so
48
NEW QUESTIONS 2
c) Within his/her right if they are the owner of the aircraft
288. A person who exercises a privilege granted by, or uses, any license, rating, certificate, permit,
approval, authorisation, exemption or other document issued under the regulations, of which
he/she or is not the holder, is:
a) Within his/her right if they are the owner of the aircraft

b) Guilty of a little misdemeanour and may not be fired but may have other punitive measures
brought against them
c) Committing a serious offence and may be fined for each time he/she has done so
49

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NEW QUESTIONS 2

3. An “Aircraft Flight Manual”:

4. Definition of “Certificate of Airworthiness”

6. Approved training means:

a) means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with

9. The “empty mass” of an aircraft is:

10. “Crew member” means:

11. Definition of “Transition altitude”:

12. Electronic flight bag

a) means a laptop, i-pad or i-phone

13. A “Flight Simulation Training Device” (FSTD) is:

14. “Flight time – aeroplane” means:

a) The total time the aircraft is airborne on a flight

15. “Instrument time” means

16. “Date of application” is the date:

a) Written on the application form.

17. 'Flight' means the time period between the :

18. “Reduced Vertical Separation Minima” means:

19. ’Missed approach point’’ means;

a) The point on an instrument approach procedure at or before which the prescribed

20. “Glider” means:

21. The transition level:

a) for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP

22. “Extended range operations” means

23. Definition of “Non Precision Approach”

24. “Minimum descent altitude” means

a) A specified altitude in a non-precision approach below which descent may not be

25. What is the “manoeuvering area”

26. Terminal Arrival Altitude :

27. Child is between :

a) Second birth and 10 years old

29. Part 12 is applicable to which operations?

a) All aircraft except turbo-jets

31. Notification of accidents or incidents in order of priority:

a) The Director, an ATSU, nearest police station

a) Anytime at the discretion of the investigator in charge

34. Who may have access to the scene of an accident:

36. Notification of accidents or incidents outside of the republic:

a) When the investigation is completed;

38. Part 61 applies to:

a) 70 hours PIC on aeroplanes

40. The minimum age for the issue of a CPL is:

a) May do so without meeting any requirements as a Part 61 licence supersedes the

a) May do so without meeting any requirements as a Part 61 licence supersedes the

a) to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than

a) 20 hours and 270 km (150NM)

48. Licences issued under Part 61 are:

a) comply with the initial issue requirements of Subpart 61.05.

a) 14 days of the last period of dual instruction

a) Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training

57. An example of a class rating:

a) a single engine piston aircraft

a) 36 months of completing the required examinations

59. An applicant for an Instrument Rating shall…..

a) 6 Hours dual flight training.

a) 70 hours experience as PIC of aeroplanes

a) Grade II flight instructor.

a) 6 hours theoretical knowledge and 7 hours dual flight training

a) For a maximum of 14 days.

72. Regarding Medical examinations, the Director must:

a) Immediately surrender your medical certificate

75. Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more

77. Class 1 medical will be issued:

a) 12 months from date of expiry