1. What effect has a downhill slope on the take- 7.

The lowest take-off safety speed (V2min) is:

off speeds? The slope
a) 1.20 VSR for all aeroplanes
a) has no effect on the take-off speed V1. b) 1.13 VSR for two and three-engine
b) decreases the take-off speed V1. turbo-propeller and turbojet
c) decreases the TAS for take-off. aeroplanes
d) increases the IAS for take-off. c) 1.20 VSR for all turbo-propeller
aeroplanes
d) 1.15 VSR for all turbojet and turbo-
2. The rotation speed VR: propeller aeroplanes
8. Given:
a) Must not be less than 1.1 VS1 VS = Stalling speed
b) Must not be less than VS1 VMCA = Air minimum control speed
c) Must not be less than 1.2 VMC VMU = Minimum unstick speed
d) Must not be less than VMC V1 = take-off decision speed
VR = Rotation speed
V2MIN = Minimum take-off safety speed
3. Which of the following represents the VLOF = Lift-off speed
maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre The correct formula is:
speed and max brake energy speed are not
limited. a) V2MIN< VMCA> VMU
b) VR< VMCA< VLOF
a) VMCA c) VS< VMCA< V2MIN
b) VREF d) VMU≤ VMCA< V1
c) V2
d) VR
9. Which statement regarding V1 is correct?

4. The take-off safety speed V2MIN for turbo- a) V1 must not exceed VR
propeller powered aeroplanes with more b) When determining the V1, reverse
than three engines may not be less than: thrust is only allowed to be taken into
account on the remaining symmetric
a) VSR engines.
b) 1.08 VSR c) The V1 correction for up-slope is
c) 1.13 VSR negative
d) 1.2 VSR d) V1 must not exceed VMCG

5. The take-off safety speed V2min for turbo- 10. Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
propeller powered aeroplanes with more
thanthree engines may not be less than: a) V1 may not be higher than Vmcg
b) When determining V1, reverse thrust
a) 1.15 Vs may only be used on the remaining
b) 1.3 Vs symmetric engines
c) 1.2 Vs c) The correction for up-slope on the
d) 1.2 Vs1 balanced V1 is negative
d) VR may not be lower than V1

6. The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engined

or three-engined turbo propeller 11. The value of V1 has to be equal to or higher
poweredaeroplanes may not be less than: than:

a) 1.3 Vs a) V2
b) 1.15 Vs b) VR
c) 1.2 Vs c) VMCG
d) 1.15 Vs1 d) VMC

1
12. VFE is the maximum speed: 17. The reference landing speed (VREF) has the
following minimum margin above the
a) At which the flaps can be operated reference stalling speed in the landing
when flying in turbulence configuration (VSO)
b) With the flaps extended in the take-off
configuration a) 15%
c) With the flaps extended in the landing b) 23%
configuration c) 10%
d) With the flaps extended d) 20%

18. The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the

13. VR cannot be lower than: calibrated airspeed:

a) 1.15 VS for turbo-prop with three or a) At which the take-off must be rejected
more engines b) At which failure of the critical engine is
b) 1.2 VS for twin and three engine jet expected to occur
aircraft c) Below which the take-off must be
c) V1 and 105% of VMCA continued
d) 105% of V1 and VMCA d) Below which the take-off must be
rejected if an engine failure is
recognised, above which take-off
should be continued.
14. The landing reference speed VREF may not
be less than:
19. The speed VLO is defined as:
a) 1.23 VSRO and must be determined
down to 50 ft height a) Long distance operating speed
b) VSRO and must be maintained down to b) Design low operating speed
35 ft height c) Lift off speed
c) 1.2 VMCA d) Landing gear operating speed
d) 1.23 VSRO for turbo-jet powered and
1.30 for turboprop powered aircraft 20. The speed V1 is defined as:

a) Take-off decisions speed

15. The take-off safety speed V2for two- or b) Take-off climb speed
three-engine turbo propeller powered aircraft c) Speed for best angle of climb
may not be less than: d) Engine failure speed

a) 1.15 VS1 21. The speed V2 is defined for jet aircraft as:
b) 1.25 VS
c) 1.13 VSR a) Take-off decision speed
d) 1.15 VSR b) Take-off climb speed or speed at 35
ft
16. What is the correct sequence of speeds c) Critical engine speed
during take-off? d) Lift off speed

a) V1, VR, VMCG, V2 22. Which of the following is true with regards to
b) V1, VR, V2, VMCA VMCA (air minimum cruise speed)?
c) VMCG, V1, VR, V2
d) V1, VMCG, VR, V2 a) VMCA only applies to four-engine
aircraft
b) The aircraft will not gather the
minimum required climb gradient
c) The aircraft is uncontrollable below
VMCA
d) Straight flight cannot be maintained
below VMCA, when the critical
engine has failed.
2
23. The minimum value of V2 must exceed VMC 27. The speed VS is defined as
by:
a) stalling speed or minimum steady
a) 30% flight speed at which the aeroplane
b) 10% is controllable.
c) 15% b) safety speed for take-off in case of a
d) 20% contaminated runway.
c) design stress speed.
d) speed for best specific range.
24. Given that:
VEF= Critical engine failure speed
VMCG= Ground minimum control speed 28. The stalling speed or the minimum steady
VMCA= Air minimum control speed flight speed at which the aeroplane is
VMU= Minimum unstick speed controllable in landing configuration is
V1= Take-off decision speed abbreviated as
VR= Rotation speed
V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed a) VS1.
The correct formula is: b) VS.
c) VSO.
a) VMCG<=VEF< V1 d) VMC.
b) 1.05 VMCA<= VEF<= V1
c) 1.05 VMCG< VEF<= VR 29. The speed V1 is defined as
d) V2MIN<= VEF<= VMU
a) take-off climb speed.
b) speed for best angle of climb.
25. Regarding take-off, the take-off decision c) engine failure speed.
speed V1: d) take-off decision speed.
.
a) is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure
speed). 30. The speed for best rate of climb is called
b) is an airspeed at which the aeroplane
is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot a) VY.
is assumed to have made a decision to b) VX.
continue or discontinue the take-off . c) V2.
c) is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon d) VO
reaching 35 feet above the take-off 31. The take-off decision speed V1 is:
surface.
d) is the airspeed on the ground at a) not less than V2min, the minimum take-
which the pilot is assumed to have off safety speed.
made a decision to continue or b) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is
discontinue the take-off. recognized before reaching V1 the
take-off must be aborted.
c) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is
26. The induced drag of an aeroplane at recognized after reaching V1 the take-
constant gross weight and altitude is highest off must be aborted.
at d) sometimes greater than the rotation
speed VR.
a) VS1 (stalling speed in clean 32. Which of the following statements is correct?
configuration)
b) VSO (stalling speed in landing a) VR should not be higher than V1.
configuration) b) VR should not be higher than 1.05
c) VMO (maximum operating limit speed) VMCG.
d) VA (design manoeuvring speed) c) VR is the speed at which, during
rotation, the nose wheel comes off the
runway.
d) VR is the speed at which the pilot
should start to rotate the aeroplane.

3
 38. In case of an engine failure which is
33. Which take-off speed is affected by the recognized at or above V1
presence or absence of stopway and/or
clearway? a) the take-off must be rejected if the
speed is still below VLOF.
a) V1 b) the take-off must be continued.
b) V2 c) a height of 50 ft must be reached
c) VMCG within the take-off distance.
d) VMCA d) the take-off should be rejected if the
speed is still below VR.
34. The speed V2 is
39. V2 has to be equal to or higher than
a) that speed at which the PIC should
decide to continue or not the take-off in a) 1.1 VMCA.
the case of an engine failure. b) 1.15 VMCG.
b) the take-off safety speed. c) 1.1 VSO.
c) the lowest airspeed required to retract d) 1.15 VR.
flaps without stall problems.
d) the lowest safety airspeed at which the 40. The speed VR
aeroplane is under control with
aerodynamic surfaces in the case of a) must be higher than V2.
an engine failure. b) must be higher than VLOF.
c) must be equal to or lower than V1.
35. Maximum and minimum values of V1 are d) is the speed at which rotation to the
limited by : lift-off angle of attack is initiated

a) VR and VMCG 41. Which of the following answers is true?

b) V2 and VMCA
c) VR and VMCA a) V1<= VR
d) V2 and VMCG b) V1> VLOF
c) V1> VR
36. Which of the following will decrease V1? d) V1< VMCG
42. Which statement is correct?
a) Inoperative anti-skid.
b) Increased take-off mass. a) VR is the speed at which rotation
c) Inoperative flight management system. should be initiated.
d) Increased outside air temperature. b) VR is the lowest climb speed after
engine failure.
37. In case of an engine failure recognized c) In case of engine failure below VR the
below V1 take-off should be aborted.
d) VR is the lowest speed for directional
a) the take-off may be continued if a control in case of engine failure.
clearway is available.
b) the take-off should only be rejected if a
stopway is available. 43. Which statement is correct?
c) the take-off must be rejected.
d) the take-off is to be continued unless a) VR must not be less than VMCA and not
V1 is less than the balanced V1. less than 1.05 V1.
b) VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and
not less than V1.
c) VR must not be less than 1.05
VMCA and not less than V1.
d) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA
and not less than 1.1 V1.

4
44. Which of the following represents the 49. The ’maximum tyre speed’ limits:
minimum for V1?
a) VLOF in terms of ground speed.
a) VLOF b) V1 in kt TAS.
b) VMU c) VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.
c) VR d) V1 in kt ground speed.
d) VMCG

45. The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is: 50. As long as an aeroplane is in a positive
climb
a) 1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
b) 1.15 Vs for four-engine turboprop a) VX is sometimes below and sometimes
aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs for two or above VY depending on altitude.
three-engine turboprop aeroplanes. b) VX is always below VY.
c) 1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes. c) VX is always above VY.
d) 1.20 Vs for all turboprop powered d) VY is always above VMO.
aeroplanes.

46. If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be 51. Higher gross mass at the same altitude
lower than VMCG, which of the following is decreases the gradient and the rate of
correct? climbwhereas

a) The take-off is not permitted. a) VX is increased and VY is decreased.

b) The one engine out take-off distance b) VY and VX are increased.
will become greater than the ASDR. c) VY and VX are not affected by a higher
c) The VMCG will be lowered to V1. gross mass.
d) The ASDR will become greater than d) VY and VX are decreased.
the one engine out take-off distance.

52. Given a jet aircraft. Which order of

47. The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be increasing speeds in the performance
greater than: diagram iscorrect?

a) 1.2VMCG. a) Maximum endurance speed, Long

b) 1.05VLOF. range speed, Maximum range speed
c) 1.2 Vs. b) VS, VX, Maximum range speed
d) 1.3V1. c) VS, Maximum range speed, VX
d) Maximum endurance speed, Maximum
range speed, VX
48. How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen
instead of T/O flaps 10°?
53. Approaching in turbulent wind conditions
a) V2 has the same value in both cases. requires a change in the landing
b) V2 decreases if not restricted by referencespeed (VREF):
VMCA.
c) V2 increases in proportion to the angle a) Increasing VREF
at which the flaps are set. b) Lowering VREF
d) V2 has no connection with T/O flap c) Keeping same VREF because wind has
setting, as it is a function of runway no influence on IAS.
length only. d) Increasing VREF and making a steeper
glide path to avoid the use of spoilers.

5
54. What margin above the stall speed is 59. Which of the following speeds may vary if a
provided by the landing reference speed stopway or clearway is available?
VREF?
a) V2
a) 1,30 VSO b) V1
b) 1,05 VSO c) VMCG
c) 1,10 VSO d) VMC
d) VMCA x 1,2
60. The relationship of the reference landing
speed (VREF) to the reference stalling
55. Which of the following sequences of speed speed in the landing configuration (VSRO) is
for a jet aeroplane is correct? (from low to that VREF may not be below:
high speeds)
a) 1.23 VSRO
a) VS, maximum range speed, maximum b) VSRO
angle climb speed c) 1.1 VSRO
b) Maximum endurance speed, maximum d) 1.32 VSRO
range speed, maximum angle of climb
speed.
c) Maximum endurance speed, long 61. What is the abbreviation for the term
range speed, maximum range speed. "Maximum landing gear extended speed"?
d) VS, maximum angle climb speed,
maximum range speed. a) VLO
b) VNE
c) VLE
56. Which of the following provides maximum d) VA
obstacle clearance during climb?
62. What does the abbreviation "VY" mean?
a) 1.2 VS.
b) The speed for maximum rate of climb. a) Speed for best angle of climb
c) The speed, at which the flaps may be b) Take-off decision speed
selected one position further UP. c) Speed for best rate of climb
d) The speed for maximum climb angle d) Best approach speed
VX

63. What is the abbreviation for the term "Speed

57. Which of the following listed speeds are for best rate of climb"?
used for determination of V2MIN:
a) VY
a) VMCG, V2 b) VX
b) VLOF, VMCA c) VLO
c) VSR, VMCA d) V2
d) V1, VR.

64. What is the abbreviation for the term "Take-

58. In certain conditions V2 can be limited by off safety speed"?
VCMA
a) VTOSS
a) Low take-off mass, small flap b) VX
extension, low field elevation. c) VY
b) High take-off mass, large flap d) VTO
extension, low field elevation.
c) Low take-off mass, large flap
extension, low field elevation.
d) High take-off mass, small flap
extension, high field elevation.

6
65. What is the abbreviation for the term "Never
exceed speed"?

a) VNE
b) VNO
c) VLE
d) VNX

7
 70. Can the length of the stopway be added to
the runway length to determine the take-off
66. Regarding a clearway: distance available?
1) It may not have an upslope of
greater that 1.25% a) Yes, but the stopway must be able to
2) It may not be less than 500 ft wide carry the weight of the aircraft
3) It must be tar, paved or asphalt b) No
surface c) No, unless the centreline is on the
The combination that regroups all of the extended centreline of the runway
correct statements is: d) Yes, but the stopway must have the
same width as the runway
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3 71. The length of the clearway may be included
d) 1,3 in:

a) The distance to reach V1

67. Take-off distance required (TODR) is: b) The take-off run available
c) The take-off distance available
a) The length of the runway and the d) The accelerate stop distance available
stopway but not including the clearway
b) The horizontally travelled distance 72. The take-off distance available is:
from the point of brake release to the
point where the aircraft lifts off a) The runway length plus half the
multiplied by 1.3 clearway
c) The horizontally travelled distance b) The length of the take-off run
from the point of brake release to the available plus the length of the
point where the aircraft lifts off clearway available
d) The horizontally travelled distance c) The runway length minus stopway
from the point of brake release to d) The total runway length without a
the point where the aircraft has clearway even if this one exists
reached a height of 35 ft with the
take-off safety speed
73. Which statement concerning the inclusion of
a clearway in take-off calculations is correct?
68. The accelerate stop distance available
(ASDA) includes: a) The usable length of the clearway is
not limited
a) The length of the runway, stopway and b) V1 is increased
clearway c) V1 remains constant
b) The length of the runway less any d) The field length limited take-off
displaced threshold distance mass will increase
c) The length of the runway only
d) The length of the runway and the
stopway 74. Take-off distance available is:

69. The landing distance available (LDA) a) the total runway length, without
includes: clearway even if this exists
b) the length of the take-off run
a) The length of the runway less any available plus any length of
displace threshold distance clearway available, up to a
b) The length of the runway, stopway and maximum of 50% of TORA
the clearway c) the runway length minus stopway
c) The length of the runway only d) the runway length plus half of the
d) The length of the runway and the clearway
stopway

8
75. If the field length limited take-off mass has
been calculated using a Balanced Field
Length technique, the use of any additional
clearway in take-off performance will allow:
a) The obstacle clearance limit to be
increased with a higher V1
b) The obstacle clearance limit to be
increased with no effect on V1
c) A greater field length limited take-
off mass but with a lower V1
d) A greater field length limited take-off
mass but with a higher V1
76. LDR is the horizontal distance required to
land:
a) and stop completely from a point 15
ft above the landing surface
b) and stop completely from a point 35 ft
above the landing surface
c) and stop completely from a point 50 ft
above the landing surface
d) land from a point 50 ft above the
landing surface
77. The distance necessary for a landing is the
horizontal distance required to land:
a) and come to a full stop from a point
35 ft above the landing surface.
b) and come to a full stop from a point 50
ft above the landing surface.
c) and come to a full stop from a point 15
ft above the landing surface.
d) land from a point 50 ft above the
landing surface.
78. The first segment of the take-off flight path
ends
a) at completion of gear retraction.
b) at completion of flap retraction.
c) at reaching V2.
d) at 35 ft above the runway.
79. For a take-off from a contaminated runway,
which of the following statements is correct?
a) Dry snow is not considered to affect
the take-off performance.
b) A slush covered runway must be
cleared before take-off, even if the
performance data for contaminated
runway is available.
c) The performance data for take-off
must be determined in general by
means of calculation, only a few
values are verified by flight tests.
d) The greater the depth of contamination
at constant take-off mass, the more V1
has to be decreased to compensate for
decreasing friction.
80. Can a clearway be used in the accelerate
stop distance calculations?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Only if the clearway is shorter than the
stopway
d) Only if there is no clearway
81. Which statement regarding the influence of a
runway down-slope is correct for a balanced
take-off? Downslope...
a) increases V1 and reduces the
accelerate stop distance required
(ASDR).
b) reduces V1 and increases the
accelerate stop distance required
(ASDR).
c) increases V1 and increases the take-
off distance required (TODR).
d) reduces V1 and reduces take-off
distance required (TODR).
9
82. Which of the following statements is correct? 86. When an aircraft takes off with the mass
limited by the TODA:
a) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the
liftoff point must be attainable at least a) the actual take-off mass equals the
at the end of the permanent runway field length limited take-off mass.
surface. b) the distance from brake release to V1
b) A stopway means an area beyond will be equal to the distance from V1 to
the take-off runway, able to support the 35 feet point.
the aeroplane during an aborted c) the "balanced take-off distance" equals
take-off. 115% of the "all engine take-off
c) An underrun is an area beyond the distance".
runway end which can be used for an d) the end of the runway will be cleared
aborted take-off. by 35 feet following an engine failure at
d) A clearway is an area beyond the V1.
runway which can be used for an
aborted take-off.
87. Which statement concerning the inclusion of
83. What effect has a downhill slope on the take- a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
off speeds? The slope
a) The field length limited take-off
a) has no effect on the take-off speed V1. mass will increase.
b) decreases the take-off speed V1. b) The usable length of the clearway is
c) decreases the TAS for take-off. not limited.
d) increases the IAS for take-off. c) V1 is increased.
d) V1 remains constant.
84. Take-off run is defined as the

a) Distance from brake release to V2. 88.
b) horizontal distance along the take-
off path from the start of the take-off
to a point equidistant between the
point at which VLOF is reached and
the point at which the aeroplane is
35 ft above the take-off surface.
c) distance to V1 and stop, assuming an
engine failure at V1.
d) distance to 35 feet with an engine
failure at V1 or 115% all engine 89.
distance to 35 feet.
The stopway is an area which allows an
increase only in :
a) the accelerate-stop distance
available.
b) the take-off run available.
c) the take-off distance available.
d) the landing distance available.
If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre
speed limited, downhill slope would

85. A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist a) increase the maximum mass for take-
where: off.
b) increase the required take-off distance.
a) The accelerate stop distance is c) have no effect on the maximum
equal to the take-off distance mass for take-off.
available. d) decrease the maximum mass for take-
b) The clearway does not equal the off.
stopway. 90. On a dry runway the accelerate stop
c) The accelerate stop distance is equal distance is increased
to the all engine takeoff distance.
d) The one engine out take-off distance is a) by headwind.
equal to the all engine take-off b) by low outside air temperature.
distance. c) by a lower take-off mass because the
aeroplane accelerates faster to V1.
d) by uphill slope.

10
91. In which of the following distances can the 96. The TODA is:
length of a stopway be included?
a) declared runway length only
a) In the accelerate stop distance b) declared runway length plus
available. clearway
b) In the one-engine failure case, take-off c) declared runway length plus stopway
distance. d) declared runway ;\lenght plus clearway
c) In the all-engine take-off distance. and stopway
d) In the take-off run available.
97. TODA is:
92. The stopway is:
a) take-off run available plus clearway
a) at least as wide as the runway b) take-off run minus the clearway, even
b) no less than 152 wide if clearway exists
c) no less than 500 ft wide c) always 1.5 times the TORA
d) as strong as the main runway d) 50% of the TORA

93. The length of a clearway may be included in: 98. The take-off distance required increases

a) the accelerate-stop distance available. a) due to slush on the runway.

b) the take-off run available.
c) the distance to reach V1.
d) the take-off distance available.
94. Can the length of a stopway be added to the
runway length to determine the take-off
distance available?
a) Yes, but the stopway must be able to
carry the weight of the aeroplane.
b) Yes, but the stopway must have the
same width as the runway.
c) No.
d) No, unless its centerline is on the
extended centerline of the runway.
95. What is the advantage of a balanced field
length condition?
a) For a balanced field length the
required take-off runway length always
equals the available runway length.
b) A balanced field length provides the
greatest margin between "net" and
"gross" take-off flight paths.
c) A balanced field length gives the
minimum required field length in the
event of an engine failure.
d) A balanced take-off provides the
lowest elevator input force requirement
for rotation.
b) due to downhill slope because of the
smaller angle of attack.
c) due to head wind because of the drag
augmentation.
d) due to lower gross mass at take-off.
99. Provided all other parameters stay constant.
Which of the following alternatives will
decrease the take-off ground run?
a) Decreased take-off mass, increased
pressure altitude, increased
temperature.
b) Decreased take-off mass, increased
density, increased flap setting.
c) Increased pressure altitude, increased
outside air temperature, increased
take-off mass.
d) Increased outside air temperature,
decreased pressure altitude,
decreased flap setting.
100. Required runway length at destination airport
for turboprop aeroplanes
a) is the same as at an alternate
airport.
b) is less then at an alternate airport.
c) is more than at an alternate airport.
d) is 60% longer than at an alternate
airport.

11
101. The stopway is an area which allows an 105. What will the effect on an aircraft’s
increase only in : performance if aerodrome pressure altitude
is decreased?
a) the accelerate-stop distance
available. a) it will increase the take-off distance
b) the take-off run available. required
c) the take-off distance available. b) it will increase the take-off ground roll
d) the landing distance available. c) it will decrease the take-off distance
required
d) it will increase the accelerate stop
102. Which of the following statements is correct? distance

a) A stopway means an area beyond 106. An uphill slope:

the take-off runway, able to support
the aeroplane during an aborted
take-off.
b) An underrun is an area beyond the
runway end which can be used for an
aborted take-off.
c) A clearway is an area beyond the
runway which can be used for an
aborted take-off.
d) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the
lift off point must be attainable at least
at the end of the permanent runway
surface.
103. In which of the following distances can the
length of a stopway be included?
a) In the take-off run available.
b) In the one-engine failure case, take-off
distance.
c) In the all-engine take-off distance.
d) In the accelerate stop distance
available.
a) increases the take-off distance more
than the accelerate stop distance
b) decreases the accelerate distance only
c) decreases the take-off distance only
d) increases the allowed take-off mass
107. For an aircraft at an aerodrome with no
stopway or clearway, the minimum length of
the Take-off Run that must be available to
satisfy the take-off requirements:
a) Must not be less than the gross take-
off distance to 50 ft
b) Must not be less than 1.15 times the
gross take-off distance to 50 ft
c) Must not be less than 1.25 times the
gross take-off distance to 50 ft
d) Must not be less than 1.3 times the
gross take-off distance to 50 ft
108. For a single engine aircraft at an aerodrome
with a stopway:

104. Which of the following distances will a) The TOD x 1.3 must not exceed the
increase if you increase V1 „ but VR remains ASDA
unchanged? b) The TOD must not exceed the ASDA x
1.3
a) Take-off distance c) The TOD x 1.25 must not exceed the
b) Engine Take-off distance ASDA
c) Take-off run d) The TOD must not exceed the ASDA x
d) Accelerate Stop Distance 1.25

12