CLB KỸ NĂNG DOANH NHÂN – ACTION Club

CUỘC THI DOANH NHÂN TẬP SỰ 2021

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ĐỀ THI ONLINE TEST

(WITH KEY ANSWER)
Lưu ý: Đáp án và lời giải chỉ mang tính chất tham khảo

ĐỀ 03

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I. ABSTRACT REASONING TEST
1.

A B. C. D. E.

Explanation: The correct answer is (4).

There are two rules in this series: frequency and motion.

First, the shapes in the series change every other step in a consistent order: square,
X sign, plus sign, and so on. Additionally, the shapes change their colour every step
from white to dark blue and back. This means the shape in the missing frame should
be a dark square.

Second, the shapes move around the sides of the frame in a certain pattern: up, down,
left, right. This means the shape in the missing frame should be on the left.
The only answer that fits these rules is (4).

2
2.

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation:

The correct answer is

Star shaped matrices usually include a connection between the inner triangles and
the outer triangles in some way.

In this question every outer triangle interacts with the inner triangle found one step
clockwise from the inner triangle adjacent to it (see illustration below).

In addition, the inner shape relates to the outer in the following way: the inner shape
is rotated 90 degrees counterclockwise and then duplicated and joined by its
mirrored form to create the outer shape.

3
3.

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: The correct answer is (3).

There are three rules in this series: rotation, motion, and progression.
First, the plus sign rotates 45° anticlockwise every step.
Second, the diamond moves in an anticlockwise direction between the “sections” of
the plus signs.
Third, every step, another diagonal line is removed from the background.
The only answer that fits all these rules is answer (3).

4
4.

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: The correct answer is (2).

There are two rules in this series: progression and motion.
First, one white square is removed from the frame every step in a certain order: the
first row from right to left, then the second row in the same direction, then the third.
This means the missing frame should have three white squares on the bottom row
and one white square on the left of the second row.
Second, the star and circle move around the frame in a certain way: the star moves
down each of the columns of white squares, one square each step. When it reaches
the bottom, it moves to the top square of the next column. Even when the white
squares are removed, the star lands where they would have been. This means the star
in the missing frame should be at the bottom of the middle column.
The circle moves between the corner squares in an anticlockwise direction. When it
lands on the same square as the star, it is hidden behind it. This means the circle in
the missing frame should be on the top left corner.
The only answer that fits these rules is answer (2).

5
5.

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: The correct answer is (1).

There are two rules in this series: progression and motion.
First, every step, another square is coloured dark blue. The order in which the
squares are coloured is also important – the first column upward, then the second
column upward, then the third column upwards.
Second, the star moves between the squares in a sort of hourglass shape: bottom
right → centre → top left → top centre → top right → centre → bottom left →
bottom centre.
The only answer choice that fits both rules is answer (1).

6
6.

A. B. C. D. E. F.

Explanation: The correct answer is (3).

To complete this matrix, you must identify the movement of the lines in their
progression within the row. This may seem challenging as the arrows in the top row
appear not to be moving. You must look at both the top and middle rows to identify
the pattern.
Each figure is made from a circle with two arrows—sort of like a clock. Looking at
the middle row, what appears to be one arrow is in fact two arrows in the same
position. In the middle figure, you can see that the arrows are moving, albeit in
different degrees and different directions. Looking from the left figure to the middle

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figure, you can see that one arrow (the blue one in the explanation) moves 90°
clockwise and the other moves 90° anticlockwise.

Applying this to the top row, you can see that what appears to be a lack of movement
is, in fact, the two arrows switching places.

The same is true for what appears to be the lack of movement between the middle
and right figures in the middle row. You need to identify the pattern of movement
from the top row. Looking from the middle figure to the right figure, you can see both
arrows move 180°. In the middle row, then, between the middle and right figures, the
arrows simply switch places.

You can find the missing figure by following this pattern in the bottom row and
remembering that one arrow is in fact two arrows in the same position. This means
that starting from the middle figure, to determine the missing figure, you must move
both arrows 180 degrees. Therefore, the correct answer is (3).

8
7.

A. B. C. D. E. F.

Explanation: The correct answer is (4).

Each row contains two sets of lines: horizontal and vertical.
The figures in both the vertical and horizontal sets contain either one, two, or three
lines. Each appearance of the lines in the set is displayed in a different style: as a
thin line, as a thick line, or as a curved line. For instance, in the top row, the
horizontal set of lines contains (from left to right) one thin line, three curved lines,
and two thick lines. The vertical set contains two curved lines, three thick lines, and
one thin line.
In the bottom row, the vertical set already contains a figure with one curved line and
a figure with three thin lines, so the missing figure must contain two thick lines. The
horizontal set contains a figure with one thick line and a figure with two curved lines,
so the missing figure must also contain three thin lines.

9
8.

A. B. C. D. E. F.

Explanation: The correct answer is (5).

To complete this matrix, you must look at the progression of the objects across the
rows (from left to right).
It seems there is no relation between the shapes in the rows and the columns.
However, there is a progression which can be seen—an increasing number of sides
to the objects and shapes. In the top row, for example, the first object (on the left) is
a line, which has only one side. The middle shape object has two sides, and the final
shape (on the right) is a three-sided triangle.
The same pattern is evident in the second row, which starts with a two-sided object
and ends with four-sided rectangle.
The bottom row keeps this pattern, and so the correct answer must a shape that has
five sides.

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9.

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: The correct answer is (2).

There are three rules in this series: frequency, motion, and progression.
First, each step, the shapes alternate between a circle and a square. This means that
in the missing frame, the shape should be a square.
Second, the shape moves between different spots in the frame: the top left corner, the
centre of the frame, the bottom right corner, and back again. This means that in the
missing frame, the square should be in the bottom right corner.
Third, the shapes are divided into four quarters. Every step, one other quarter
changes colour in an anticlockwise direction. First, the quarters change colours
from white to dark blue until the shape is completely dark, and then it starts to change
back to white. This means that the shape in the missing frame should be a square
with left white quarters, and dark right quarters.
The only answer that fits these rules is answer (2).

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10.

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: The correct answer is (1).

There are two rules in this series: frequency and rotation.
First, the triangle changes every step in size and colour: it alternates between two
colours - white and dark blue, and three sizes – big, medium, and small. This means
the triangle in the missing frame should be small and dark.
Second, the triangle rotates 90° anticlockwise every step. This means the triangle in
the missing frame should point left.
The only answer that fits both rules is answer (1).

11.

A. B. C. D. E.

12
Explanation: The correct answer is (5).
There are three rules in this series: motion, rotation, and frequency.
First, both the diamond and the partial circle move among the corners of the frames
in a certain way: the diamond moves from the top left corner to the top right corner
and back, every other step. The partial circle moves in a kind of triangle: bottom
right corner, top right corner, bottom left corner, and so one. This means, in the
missing frame, the diamond should stay where it was in the previous frame, and the
partial circle should be in the bottom left corner.
Second, both the diamond and the partial circle rotate in a certain way: the diamond
rotates 90° every other step. The partial circle rotates 90° anticlockwise every step.
This means the diamond in the missing frame should stand in the same position as
the diamond in the previous frame.
Third, both the diamond and the partial circle alternate between dark blue and white
in a certain way: the diamond every other step and the partial circle every step.
The only answer choice that fits all these rules is answer (5).

12.

A. B. C. D. E. F.

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Explanation: The correct answer is (6).
Each row contains the same figure, only in a changing set of patterns. Each square
is constructed out of three rectangles in one of four patterns: black, diagonal lines,
a grid pattern, or a dotted pattern. No pattern appears twice in the same square.
In each row, the dotted pattern appears three times and all the other patterns appear
twice.

In addition, each pattern appears in a different part of the squares in a particular

row. For example, in the top row, the dotted pattern is located in the left side of the
right square, the middle of the middle square, and the right side of the left square.
The missing figure, then, must be constructed out of three different patterns that will
complete the row so as to contain three occurrences of the dotted pattern and two of
the other patterns.
You can easily eliminate answers (1), (2), (3), and (5) because the bottom row
already contains two occurrences of the black pattern.
Between answers (4) and (6), you can eliminate answer (4) since the dotted rectangle
cannot be in the same place twice.
Therefore, the correct answer is (6).

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13.

A. B. C. D. E. F.

Explanation: The correct answer is (3).

Each row contains the same three shapes coloured in black: a trapezoid, a rhombus,
and a hexagon. Additionally, each figure has either a white or grey background.
The background changes from figure to figure; no two adjacent backgrounds match.

Accordingly, the missing figure must contain the shape missing from the bottom
row—a hexagon. It must also have a background colour different from the white
background adjacent to it—grey.

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14.

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: The correct answer is (1).

There are three rules in this series: rotation, motion, and progression.
First, the arrow rotates in an anticlockwise direction every step: first 45°, then 90°,
and so forth.
Second, the dark dots move among the corners of the frame in a sort of hourglass
shape - bottom right, bottom left, top right, top left, and so forth.
Third, every step, another dark dot is added.
This means the missing frame should have two dark dots in the top right corner and
an arrow rotated 90° anticlockwise compared to the arrow in the first frame.
The only answer that fits these rules is answer (1).

*Note, while answer (4) seems to fit these rules as well, its dark dots are arranged
vertically, while the dots in the series are always arranged horizontally.

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15.

A. B. C. D. E. F.

Explanation: The correct answer is (2).

Each row contains the same shapes, only in different colours. Each figure is
constructed out of three shapes: a large square, a middle-sized rhombus, and a small
square. Across each row, the same shapes are coloured in different colours. For
example, in the top row, from left to right, the large square is white, then black, and
then grey. The middle-sized rhombus is grey, then white, and then black. The small
square is black, then grey, and then white.

The bottom row follows this same rule. The shapes constructing the missing figure
must be coloured differently from the identical shapes in the row: a grey large
square, a black middle-sized rhombus, and a black small square.

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16.

A. B. C. D. E. F.

Explanation: The correct answer is (5).

There are two rules in this matrix:
In each row, two figures combine to create the third figure. In the top row, the middle
and right figures create the left figure, and in the middle row, the left and middle
figures create the right figure.
In each row, all of the objects are found inside the same framing shape. The frame
in the top row is a dashed square, and the frame in the middle row is a circle.

In the bottom row, because the middle figure is the complete one, the missing figure
should contain a black square. The frame of the objects in this row is a rhombus, and
since the circle already appears in the left object, the missing figure must contain
only a rhombus and a black square. Thus, the correct answer is (5).

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17.

A. B. C. D. E. F.

Explanation: The correct answer is (3).

The left and middle figures of each row are combined to create the right figure by
following two sets of rules:
Lines:
Overlapping lines in the middle and left figures do not appear in the right figures.
Lines that are not overlapping do appear in the right figures.
Dots:
Overlapping dots in the middle and left figures do appear in the right figures.
Dots that are not overlapping do not appear in the right figures.
Following these rules, the correct answer must be (3).

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18.

A. B. C. D. E. F.

Explanation: The correct answer is (2).

Each row contains the same three shapes in changing order: an elliptic circle, a
square, and a triangle. Their colours do not change between the rows.
Additionally, these shapes are crossed by either one, two, or three lines. In each row,
these lines change their direction: in the top row they are horizontal, in the middle
row they are vertical, and in the bottom row they are diagonal.

The missing figure, therefore, must be constructed from:

The shape missing from the bottom row—a triangle
A single line, diagonal like the other lines in the row

Note: The same pattern can be seen not only in each row, but also in each column.

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II. VERBAL REASONING TEST
[1+2] NASA has recently activated a plant growth system on the orbiting lab of the
International Space Station (ISS). This system includes a veggie chamber which
provides lighting and nutrients for seeds. It relies on astronauts for water. The
chamber contains a plant pillow holding a growth medium and seeds for red romaine
lettuce. There is also a similar chamber at the Kennedy Space Center in Florida.
Plants grown on the ISS will be harvested there and then frozen and returned to Earth.
Scientists will compare the samples from the chamber on the ISS and on Earth to
determine whether the space-grown food is safe, nutritious, and even what it tastes
like. The system will remain on-board the ISS for future use – perhaps eventually
growing fresh vegetables for astronauts to eat.

1. Plants grown in space compare in nutritional value and taste to these grown on
earth.
A. True
B. False
C. Cannot Say
Explanation: The correct answer is Cannot say. The passage states that scientists
will compare plants grown in space to plants grown on Earth – which means they do
not know yet if their value and taste are similar.

2. The veggie chamber provides the plants with everything they need.
A. True
B. False
C. Cannot Say
Explanation: The correct answer is False. The passage states that the "This system
includes a veggie chamber which provides lighting and nutrients for seeds. It relies
on astronauts for water"; so water needs to be provided from the outside.

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[3+4] More than 50 new alien planets, including 16 super-Earths, which are
potentially rocky worlds that are more massive than our planet, have been discovered
by an exoplanet-hunting telescope. One in particular - called HD 85512 b - has
captured astronomers' attention because it orbits at the edge of its star's habitable
zone, suggesting conditions could be ripe to support life. The harvest of discoveries
from the High Accuracy Radial velocity Planet Searcher instrument, or HARPS, has
exceeded all expectations and includes an exceptionally rich population of super-
Earths and Neptune-type planets hosted by stars very similar to our sun. And even
better — the new results show that the pace of discovery is accelerating. HD 85512
b is the lowest-mass confirmed planet discovered by the radial velocity method that
potentially lies in the habitable zone of its star, and the second low-mass planet
discovered by HARPS inside the habitable zone.

3. Planets that lie in their stars' habitable zone contain water.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot Say
Explanation: The reader is told only that because a planet's "orbit at the edge of its
star's habitable zone suggests conditions could be ripe to support life." While the
reader can justifiably assume that these planets probably contain water, she cannot
assume, as the statement asserts, that the planets do contain water. Therefore, the
answer is Cannot say.

4. HD 85512 b is the first planet residing in its star's habitable zone to be discovered.
A. True
B. False
C. Cannot Say
Explanation: In passages containing many facts and figures, it is easy to become
confused. To answer the question correctly, focus only on the sentence, or part of a

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sentence, that is addressed by the question. In this case: "This is the lowest-mass
confirmed planet discovered by the radial velocity method that potentially lies in the
habitable zone of its star, and the second low-mass planet discovered by HARPS
inside the habitable zone." The distinction of the planet HD 85512 b is that it is the
lowest-mass planet to be discovered, but it was discovered second. Therefore, the
answer is False.

5. “BMI (body-mass index) is a cheap and cheerful way of getting a handle on

whether or not you might be overweight. The alternatives are rather more
complicated and expensive. You can go for an MRI scan or a dexa scan and those
will measure your whole body fat, but that really is using a sledgehammer to crack a
nut. BMI does separate those people who are normal from those who are obese and
there is some area of uncertainty in the middle.”
Tim Cole, Professor of Medical Statistics at University College London

“The body-mass index that the National Health Service counts on to assess obesity
is a bizarre measure. We live in a three-dimensional world, yet the BMI is defined as
weight divided by height squared. It was invented in the 1840s, before calculators,
when a formula had to be very simple and usable. As a consequence of this ill-
founded definition, millions of short people think they are thinner than they are, and
millions of tall people think they are fatter.”
Nick Trefethen, Professor of numerical analysis, University of Oxford
(?) Which one of the following provides the best summary of the common ground
between both quotes?
A. The BMI is a simple-to-use measure of obesity.
B. The BMI as a means of assessing obesity is extremely limited.
C. There is no good alternative to the BMI.
D. Three-dimensional measures are preferred for assessing obesity accurately.

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Explanation: When looking for common ground, one should keep in mind that we
are looking for a piece of information that appears or is inferred in both passages.
Perhaps you have already noticed that Cole and Trefethen have quite opposite ideas
regarding the BMI. While Cole considers it to be a simple, cheap and sufficient
measure of obesity, Trefethen views it as inaccurate and out dated. This information
can help us disqualify distracters B and C, which seem to go hand in hand with
Trefethen's opinion of the BMI, yet contradict Cole's viewpoint. Distracter D may
also be disqualified, since Cole dismisses MRIs and other scans as a fitting measure
for measuring obesity. Distracter A is the correct answer- Cole explicitly speaks of
the simplicity of the BMI, while Trefethen speaks of it implicitly, when mentioning
the origin of the BMI: “It was invented in the 1840s, before calculators, when a
formula had to be very simple and usable.”

6. Experts agree that arts and culture are an important part of the economy - but the
precise relationship is complicated. The main question is: does investment in the arts
stimulate growth, or are the arts the product of economic development? It would
seem that the case for continued arts funding is clear- cut - enjoying the arts (visiting
art galleries and theatres) boosts the economy. But some argue that the link between
arts investment and economic output is tenuous. Researchers today are exploring a
different angle of this relationship: they are trying to understand how the subjective
value of the arts - the “happiness factor” - may translate into economic benefits.
According to the “happiness factor” hypothesis, when a place develops a critical
mass of arts and vibrancy it tends to attract talented people which, in turn, tends to
raise income.
(?) Talented people contribute to economic growth.
A. True on the basis of the passage
B. False on the basis of the passage
C. Not possible to say if the statement is true or false on the basis of the passage

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Explanation: The passage deals with the directionality of the connection between
the arts and the economy, suggesting a possible “happiness factor” hypothesis
linking the arts to the attraction of talented people, which in turn may contribute to
economic growth (raising income). It does not lead to the conclusion made in the
assertion that: “Talented people contribute to economic growth” but only suggests
this directional connection.

[7+8] Ryanair and Aer Lingus are by far the most important carriers operating out of
Ireland, competing on 46 routes. The vice president of the European Commission
has prohibited, on the basis of the EU Merger Regulation, the proposed takeover of
the Irish flag carrier Aer Lingus by the low-cost airline Ryanair. The market
investigation showed that there was little prospect that any new carrier would enter
the Irish market after the merger. Ryanair proposed several remedial arrangements
during the process, including the divestiture of Aer Lingus’s 43 overlap routes to
Flybe and the cession of take-off and landing slots to British Airways at London
airports. The commission, however, established that this set of measures wasn’t
sufficient due to the size of the Flybe Company and their status in the aeronautical
industry.

7. The main reason the merger was prohibited was to prevent abuse of dominant
power.
A. True on the basis of the passage
B. False on the basis of the passage
C. Not possible to say if the statement is true or false on the basis of the passage
Explanation: The passage mentions first that “Ryanair and Aer Lingus are by far
the most important carriers operating out of Ireland” and then informs the reader
that Ryanair intended to take over Aer Lingus, but was prohibited from doing so, due
to the fact that: “there was little prospect that any new carrier would enter the Irish
market after the merger.” We can understand from this information that Ryanair

25
taking over another big carrier would amount to an accumulation of dominant power
in its hands. Consequently, the merger was prohibited.

8. Which one of the following solutions was offered by Ryanair to the argument
raised by the vice president of the European Commission?
A. Downsizing the number of routes
B. Discontinuing the Dublin-London route
C. Sharing certain routes with other airlines
D. Instituting some remedial arrangements
Explanation: The vice president of the European Commission argued that “there
was little prospect that any new carrier would enter the Irish market after the
merger” and therefore “Ryanair proposed several remedial arrangements…
divestiture of Aer Lingus’s 43 overlap routes to Flybe and the cession of take-off and
landing slots to British Airways at London airports.” Basically, Ryanair tried to offer
remedies in order to alleviate the vice president's concern: (1) transferring routes to
Flybe; (2) relinquishing take-off and landing slots. These remedies imply that
Ryanair were offering to reduce the number of routes they control. Therefore, the
correct answer is (A). Distracter (B) is incorrect since relinquishing slots does not
necessarily mean giving up the Dublin-London route all together. Distracter (C) is
incorrect since Ryanair offered to surrender some of its routes, not share them with
others. Distracter (D) is incorrect because it misses the point of the question: the
question asks what specific action was offered as a solution by Ryanair, whereas
distracter (D) merely expresses the idea that Ryanair offered solutions.

[9+10+11] Consumerism in the 21st century – how can EU policymakers keep up

with new trends?
Over the past few years, the EU has put more emphasis on consumer protection
issues. The reasons for this are that the EU market includes over 500 million
consumers so a well-functioning Single Digital Market for consumers is essential to

26
the EU economy, and the shift towards digital markets poses new challenges to
consumer’s rights requiring new policies and legislations.
When updating legislation and enforcement to the 21st century, the EU faces many
challenges. Among them are: Geographical discrimination in the provision of goods
and services for consumers; ensuring online consumer protection; copyright rules
appropriate for the digital age; adequate protection of personal data.
There are also other challenges regarding consumers’ protection in the digital age:
safe online environment; accessibility of true and reliable information on goods and
services; effective cross-border consumer dispute selling mechanisms, and others.
Digitalisation has also made the supply chains of goods so complex, that it has
become a challenge to ensure the safety of consumer goods.
Mrs. Zaiga Liepina, Deputy State Secretary of the Ministry of Economics of Latvia,
says: “Policymakers today cannot be ahead of the new trends – but they can be ready
to react fast. The legislation needs to be developed in a way that fits the digital age.”
The EU regulatory framework should find ways to enhance consumers' trust in the
EU Digital Single Market. It should make purchasing goods and services everywhere
in the EU easy.
According to Mrs. Liepina: “These goals can be achieved by establishing clear and
consistent common rules at the EU level and vigorous enforcement. Enforcement of
existing consumer protection rules is crucial. Without proper enforcement, it does
not really matter how good the consumer protection laws are. Better enforcement
will continue to be a central priority on the consumer agenda.”

9. Which two reasons that consumer protection issues are important to the EU
policymakers are mentioned in the text?
A. They affect a lot of people - all EU consumers
B. Discrimination that affects the delivery of goods and services between EU
countries
C. Consumers' trust is a central consumerism issue the EU should focus on

27
D. The new digital market affects consumers' rights in new ways and these
require new regulation
E. Consumers looking to make purchases anywhere in the EU should be able to
do so easily
F. The EU must enforce existing consumer protection rules in order to protect the
EU economy

Explanation: This question deals with the priority of consumerism issues in the EU.
Why is it an important issue? To answer that question, let’s scan the text. You can
also try scanning the text for the word “reasons”. The first paragraph mentions that
the EU has put more focus on consumerism issues lately, and the reasons for doing
so. Note that this question asks for TWO reasons.
A. One of the correct answers. As stated in the first paragraph, “the EU market
includes over 500 million consumers”.
B. Discrimination is mentioned in the text, but not in the context of why the EU
puts emphasis on consumerism issues – it is one of the challenges it faces.
C. Mentioned in the text but, again, as one of the EU's goals and not a reason to
deal with consumerism issues.
D. Another correct answer (remember we need two answers). Further along the
first paragraph, we can see this statement: “the shift towards digital markets poses
new challenges to consumers' rights and requires new policies and legislations.”
E. Mentioned in the text but as one of the goals.
F. This is Mrs. Liepina’s argument and is not related to this question.

10. Which of the below is the reason why enforcement is important in achieving the
EU's goals, according to Mrs. Liepina?
A. Proper enforcement is mandatory for utilising the consumer protection
laws
B. Enforcement affects a large number of consumers

28
C. Digitalisation made supply chains too complex for the current enforcement
methods
D. There were instances where pricing was changed for consumers in different EU
countries
E. Enforcement is a priority on the EU consumerism agenda
F. Clear and common rules are a priority when allocating enforcement resources

Explanation: This question is asking about a quote in the text. Looking to see where
Mrs. Liepina is mentioned, note that she is quoted twice in the text, in the fourth and
final paragraphs.
A. The correct answer. In the last paragraph, Mrs. Liepina states: “Without
proper enforcement it does not really matter how good the consumer protection
laws are.”
B. This is one of the reasons the EU puts emphasis on consumerism issues, but it
is not mentioned by Mrs. Liepina.
C. This is one of the challenges the EU faces, but it is not mentioned in Mrs.
Liepina’s quote.
D. Not mentioned in the text.
E. Mentioned in Mrs. Liepina’s quote, but this is not a reason for enforcement –
it states that enforcement is a priority.
F. This helps enforcement, but it is not the reason why enforcement is important.

11. Which of the below is NOT mentioned in the passage as a consumerism challenge
the EU is facing?
A. There is discrimination regarding goods and services being delivered across the
EU countries
B. Copyright laws should be changed to better match the 21st century’s conditions
C. The consumers' privacy and data they send online should be protected and not
misused

29
D. Online environment should be made safer for buying
E. Reliable information on goods and services should be made accessible
F. Enforcement of consumer rights laws in the EU

Explanation: This question asks about the challenges the EU faces. This is a
negatively phrased question - we should identify five challenges and one item that is
not a challenge. The answer can be found in the second and third paragraphs, where,
after explaining why consumerism issues are important, we find two different lists of
challenges the EU faces – one list of consumerism-related challenges, and another
specific list of challenges regarding consumers’ rights in the digital age:

”EU faces many challenges. Among them are: Geographical discrimination in the
provision of goods and services for consumers; ensuring online consumer
protection; copyright rules appropriate for the digital age; adequate protection of
personal data. There are also other challenges regarding consumers’ protection in
the digital age: safe online environment; accessibility of true and reliable
information on goods and services; effective cross-border consumer dispute selling
mechanisms, and others.”

A. There is discrimination regarding goods and services being delivered across

the EU countries – mentioned in the list above.
B. Copyright laws should be changed to better match the 21th century’s conditions
– also mentioned.
C. The consumers' privacy and data they send online should be protected and not
misused – mentioned above as well.
D. Mentioned in the second list.
E. Also mentioned.
F. The correct answer. It is not mentioned in these lists of challenges. It is
mentioned later in the text, though in another context.

30
[12+13+14] Drug Offences
Across Europe, the three most common ways of punishing a person for a drug
possession offence are warning, fine and suspended prison sentence. With the
exception of a few countries, community work orders are very rarely used to sanction
this offence. Those convicted of supply offences are likely to receive a prison
sentence, though many of these are suspended sentences, and few receive the long
sentences that are often brought up in public debate. Considerable differences
between countries exist regarding how strongly they draw the line between users as
individuals needing treatment or counseling, and traffickers as criminals. An
individual country’s criminal justice system recognizes some people as sick, and thus
tries to divert them to treatment, following one of its primary aims of deterrence, and
channels others towards punishment.
Although it is widely felt that users should not go to prison for offences against drug
laws, some still do: usually a small percent of those who appear before a court.
Further research would be needed to understand why: whether they are addicts who
have no money for a fine, are in breach of probation, or are recidivists for whom
treatment has not proven successful.

12. A user may receive the same punishment as a trafficker.

A. True
B. False
C. Insufficient information
Explanation: The passage specifies that ‘the three most common ways of punishing
a (USER) are warning, fine and suspended prison sentence'. It continues on to state
that: ‘(TRAFFICKERS) are likely to receive a prison sentence, though many of these
are suspended prison sentences’. In other words, both users and traffickers may
receive a suspended prison sentence as punishment.

31
13. The passage suggests which one of the following criticisms directed at the justice
system?
A. Prevention of treatment for addicts
B. Lack of deterrence measures for traffickers
C. Variations in punishment between countries
D. Punishment too lenient for offenders
E. Incarceration of some users
F. Rare use of community work orders to sanction offenders
Explanation: The last section of the passage offers us a glimpse of the author's
thoughts: ‘Although it is widely felt that users should not go to prison for offences
against drug laws, some still do…further research would be needed to understand
why’. It appears that the author does not believe users should be considered
criminals and feels they are wrongly incarcerated - answer E is correct. Other
answer options are either not mentioned in the passage or are indicated but are not
criticism.

14. Which two of the following notions are reflected in the passage?
A. Users are not criminals
B. Incarceration is not an effective punishment for addicts
C. Traffickers will get better with treatment
D. Drug laws are redundant
E. Fines are an ineffective sanction for users
F. Supply offenders began as users
Explanation: The first part of the passage specifies the common ways of punishing
drug possession and supply offences. The second part deals with the differences
between countries regarding how strongly they draw the line between users (as
people who need treatment not incarceration) and traffickers (as criminals). In the
last section of the passage the author discusses why users go to jail: ‘Although it is
widely felt that users should not go to prison for offences against drug laws, some

32
still do: usually a few percent of those who appear before a court. Further research
would be needed to understand why; whether they are addicts who have no money
for a fine, are in breach of probation, or are recidivists for whom treatment has not
been successful’. The logical link missing in the passage, the one connecting the last
section of the text to the preceding text, is the notion that users are not criminals
(statement A), and that Incarceration is not an effective punishment for addicts
(Statement B).

[15+16] Science reporters today work within an evolving science media ecosystem
that is pluralistic, participatory and social. It is a mostly online environment that has
challenged the historically dominant and exceptional role of science reporters as
privileged conveyers of specialist information to general audiences. Compared to a
decade ago, this occupational group, driven by economic imperatives and
technological changes, is performing a wider plurality of roles, including those of
curator, convener, public intellectual and civic educator, in addition to more
traditional journalistic roles of reporter, conduit, watchdog and agenda-setter. Online
science journalists have a more collaborative relationship with their audiences and
sources and are generally adopting a more critical and interpretive stance towards the
scientific community, industry, and policy-oriented organizations.

15. Today's consumer of science-related news tends to take a more active stance than
consumers in the past.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. CANNOT SAY
Explanation:
While the passage speaks volumes on the roles of reporters and how they changed to
become "pluralistic, participatory and social", as well as how reporters now have "a
more collaborative relationship with their audiences", we cannot deduce from here

33
about what happened to science-related news consumers. Consumers may have
become more active as well, or they may have been active for a long time but this
was not reciprocated by the reporters.
Therefore, the correct answer is Cannot say.

16. The science journalist's role has changed solely because the news is now
published on the internet.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. CANNOT SAY
Explanation:
There are two causes given to the changing role of the science journalist: "economic
imperatives and technological changes." Therefore, the answer is False.

34
III. NUMERICAL REASONING TEST
1.

You have been asked to compare the economic profitability of three hi-tech
companies.
Based on the data provided, which company is considered the most profitable?
Please PICK ONE answer from those listed below:
A. AMD
B. IBM
C. Intel
D. AMD and Intel
E. AMD and IBM

Explanation: The correct answer is (C).

In this question you are asked which of the three hi-tech companies is the most
economically profitable, meaning which hi-tech company earns the largest amount
of money relative to its working hours per month.
To calculate a company's profitability, subtract the tax paid from the gross weekly
revenue and divide the result by the working time. The result will be the net weekly
revenue per hour.
AMD: Net revenue = 257,348-2,451= 254,897 , Net revenue per hour: 254,897/53=
4,809.38

35
IBM: Net revenue = 225,856-1,989= 223,867 , Net revenue per hour: 223,867/49.5=
4,522.57
Intel: Net revenue = 250,431-2,235= 248,196 , Net revenue per hour: 248,196/51.5=
4,819.34
The calculation shows that Intel is the most economically profitable company since
its net revenue per hour is the largest.

2.

You were asked to complete a project review dealing with new management
strategies in your company.
Deborah usually spends 45 hours per week.
Delia usually spends 48 hours per week.
Donna usually spends 43 hours per week.
Which of them spends the greatest average percentage of their week working on the
project?
Please PICK ONE answer from those listed below:

36
A. Deborah
B. Donna
C. Delia
D. Deborah and Delia
E. Delia and Donna

Explanation: The correct answer is (B).

First, calculate the average amount of time per week that each employee
dedicated to working on the project:
Deborah: (16+22.5+17.3+18) / 4= 18.45
Delia: (21.5+23+19.5+15) / 4= 19.75
Donna: (17.8+25+15.6+19.2) / 4= 19.4
Next, calculate the average percentage of the week each employee dedicated
to working on the project according to the following formula:(average amount of
time per week / amount of hours per week,usually dedicated to working on the
project) X 100
Therefore:
Deborah: 18.45 / 45 X 100= 41%
Delia: 19.75 / 48 X 100= 41.15%
Donna: 19.4 / 43 X 100= 45.12%

37
3.

On average, how much value does a Uranium employee in Asia create per week (52
weeks a year), if the number of Asian Uranium employees comprises approximately
5% of the total number of Uranium employees?
A. $106.505
B. $5538.26
C. $5.3
D. $22.44
E. $0.106

Explanation: The correct answer is (A) - $106.505

First, calculate the number of Uranium employees in Asia:
1,542,000 x 0.05 = 77,100
Next, you need to calculate how much value each Asian employee creates per year
by dividing the total value of extracted Uranium in Asia by the number of employees:
427,000,000/77,100 = $5,538.26
Now, you need to find out how much value each employee creates per week by
dividing the result by 52: 5,538.26/52 = $106.505

38
4.

Next year the company plans to stop making the product that requires the most
extended time to produce. Which product will the company probably cut?
A. Product A
B. Product B
C. Product C
D. Product D
E. Product E

Explanation: The correct answer is (B) - Product B.

In this question, we must find the amount of time needed to produce each product.
Since the decision about defective products is made after production has been
completed, we can assume all products of a specific type are produced
simultaneously, defective or functional.
First, we calculate the total number of units produced per year.
For example, Product A: We know from the table that the number of market-worthy
units is 6,347. Additionally, since the percentage of defective units from total

39
production is 36%, we can infer that the 6,347 market-worthy units are 64% of the
total production (100%-36%).
Therefore, the total number of units is:
6347/0.64 = 9917.19.
Then we calculate how many units of every product are manufactured per hour:
For example: Product A:9917.19/5462 = 1.816
*Note that using your calculator can calculate this answer using one step
(6347/0.64/5462).
Following the same logic:
Product B: 2380/0.76 = 3131.58 => 3131.58/5736 = 0.546
Product C: 2849/0.77 = 3700 => 3700/4270 = 0.867
Product D: 5467/0.71 = 7700 => 7700/3055 = 2.52
Product E: 3620/0.75 = 4826.67 => 4826.67/4380 = 1.102
Therefore, production will cease on product B. However, this question can be solved
without any calculations by merely examining the table. Product B has the least
amounts of units made, both defective and functional while having the highest total
work hours. Therefore, it will have the highest ratio of Total work hours per year to
the Number of market worthy units and be cut.

40
5.

What is approximately the ratio of the number of deaths among English women who
are exposed to 75-99% of green spaces to the number of deaths among Scottish men
who are exposed to 50-74% of green spaces?
A. 3:1
B. 10:1
C. 7:1
D. 8:1
E. 5:1

Explanation:
We must find two data items to solve the question:
1.The number of deaths among English women exposed to 75-99% green spaces.
2.The number of deaths among Scottish men exposed to 50-74% green spaces.

41
English Women
EW = English Women. (75-99) = Exposed to 75-99% green spaces.
(EW Deaths 75-99) = (EW 75-99) * (Death Rate 75-99)
(EW 75-99) = (27.6/3) million = 9.2 million. The reason we divide the number of
total English women by 3 is that population is equally distributed among different
exposure levels. That means an equal part (1/3) of the population is exposed to each
level.
(Death Rate 75-99) = 0.92%
Therefore:
(EW Deaths 75-99) = 9.2 million* 0.92% = 84,640

Note: Since we know death rates are equally distributed among the genders, the
death rate for women and men is equal to the general death rate.

Scottish Men
SM = Scottish Men. (50-74) = Exposed to 50-74% green spaces.
(SM Deaths 50-74) = (SM 50-74) * (Death Rate 50-74)
(SM 50-74) = (2.57/3) million = 0.856 million = 856,000.
(Death Rate 75-99) = 0.98%
Therefore:
(SM Deaths 75-99) = 856,000 * 0.98% = 8,389

So, the ratio is (84,640 / 8,389) = 10.09, approximately 10:1.

42
6.

Assume the tax rate applies to the entire salary.

In which sector did the number of employees increase the most from year 1 to year
2?
A. Agriculture
B. Manufacturing
C. Services
D. Marketing
E. Self-employed

43
Explanation: The correct answer is manufacturing.
Since the employment figures in the table are given in percentages, you need to
translate them into values in order to answer this question.
Please note that the annual number of employees differs from year to year.

7.
In one sample of 2,048 the percentage of people with blonde hair is 37.5%. In a
different sample of 312 the percentage of people with green eyes is 87.5%. One of
the researchers discovered some errors were made in the calculations. The number
of people with blonde hair in the first sample was actually 162.5% of the reported
number. Furthermore, the number of people with green eyes in the second sample
was actually 33.33% of the reported number. How many more or less people with
blonde hair were there actually in the first sample when compared to the actual
number of people with green eyes in the second sample?
A. 1,157 less
B. 480 less
C. 389 more
D. 1,157 more
E. 480 more

44
Explanation: The correct answer is 1,157 more.
First, let’s find the reported number of people with blonde hair in the first sample:
2,048*0.375 = 768. However, the actual number of people with blonde hair was
162.5% of the reported number, which is 768*1.625 = 1,248.
Now’ let’s calculate the reported number of people with green eyes in the second
sample: 312*0.875 = 273. However, the actual number of people with green eyes
was 33.33% of the reported number, which is 273*0.3333 = 91.

The difference between the number of people with blonde hair in the first sample and
the number of people with green eyes in the second sample is therefore 1,248 - 91 =
1,157.

8.
A baseball player has a batting average of 0.213. What is the probability that he will
get less than two hits in seven attempts?
A. 18.7%
B. 21.3%
C. 35.4%
D. 45.9%
E. 54.1%

Explanation: The correct answer is 54.1%.

If P(hit) = 0.213, then P(miss) = 1 - 0.213 = 0.787.
We need to find: P(less than 2 hits in seven attempts) = P(0 hits in seven attempts)
+ P(1 hit in seven attempts).
P(0 hits in seven attempts) = P(7 misses in seven attempts) = 0.7877 ≈ 0.187.

P(1 hit in seven attempts) = The probability of getting exactly one hit and 6 misses
out of the 7 attempts = 0.2131 * 0.7876 * 7 ≈ 0.354. The reason for multiplying by 7

45
(the total number of attempts) is that the one hit could be the first attempt, the second
attempt, the third attempt, etc.

Therefore, P(less than 2 hits in seven attempts) = 0.187 + 0.354 = 0.541 = 54.1%

9.

46
What would be Jean's travelling expenses for the journey, if we know she returned
directly to her home after the game?
A. £134.4
B. £34.4
C. £25.85
D. £21
E. £17.20

10.

SOUTH AFRICA

2010 2020

GDP per 9.752$ GDP per 10.764$

capita capita

Density 35.82 persons per Density 40.2 persons per

sq.km sq.km

Urban: rural 2:5 Urban: rural 1:4

(pop.Ratio) (pop.Ratio)

HIV rate 215 HIV rate 240

(per 1000) (per 1000)

Gender rate 41%:59% Gender rate 44%:56%

men/women men/women

Ethnic group Black 79.50% Ethnic group Black 79.50%

White 9% White 9%

Colored 9% Colored 9%

Asian 2.50% Asian 2.50%

47
Given that the HIV rate in urban areas in 2020 was 320 per 1000, what was that year's
HIV rate (per 1000) in rural areas?
* Assume that HIV is equally distributed throughout different areas in South Africa.
A. 220
B. 280
C. 240
D. 200
E. Cannot say

Explanation:
First, notice that the overall HIV rate in 2020 is 240 per 1000. This rate is composed
of the urban and rural populations. Urban to rural population ratio is 1:4, which
means a total of 5 ratio units. So each population has a different "weight" in the
overall rate, and we are looking for the value of the rural population.
The value of the urban population is already given to us: 320. Now we can calculate
this like a weighted average. We will multiply each value by its proper weight, and
divide by the sum of weighs:
(1*320 + 4*X) / 5 = 240.
X = 220.

There is a shorter way of analysing this question, by measuring the difference

between the rural rate and the overall weighted rate.
One urban ratio unit equals 320, while four remaining ratio units have managed to
decrease the summed up value by 80 (320-240=80), hence each ratio unit equals
240-(80/4) = 220.

48
11.
During a certain month, a certain bakery sold four types of rolls, A, B, C and D. The
total profit on the rolls was divided between the four types so that; A > B > C > D.
Was the total profit of the bakery during that month greater than $120,000?
(1) The sum of the profits on rolls of type A, B and D was $96,000
(2) The sum of the profit on rolls of types B, C and D was $90,000
A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is insufficient
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is insufficient
C. Both statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE
is sufficient
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
E. Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Explanation:
The best answer is B.
(1) The first statement by itself is insufficient. For example:
• If: A = 95,000, B = 999 and D = 1 → Sum < 120,000
• If: A = 33,000, B = 32,000 and D = 31,000 → C > 31,000 → Sum > 120,000
(2) The second statement by itself is sufficient.
The sum of B + C + D is 90,000, and since B > C > D, the least possible value of B
is a bit more than 30,000, and since A > B, the least possible value of A is greater
than 30,000 → the value of A + B + C + D > 120.

49
12.

If 12,000 people participated in this survey, how many of them chose soup?
A. 960
B. 1,080
C. 1,200
D. 1,360
E. 1,420

Explanation: The correct answer is 1,080.

To answer the question, you first need to understand the chart;
- The left column presents the food preference distribution (in percentages) across
the male respondents in the sample.
- The middle column presents the distribution across female respondents.
- The right column presents the distribution across all respondents (male and
female).

50
You are asked to find the number of people (male and female) who chose soup as
their preferred food, thus the relevant column is the right one.
9% of the survey respondents (male and female) liked soup.
Out of 12,000 people this is: 12,000 × (9/100) = 12,000 × 0.09 = 1,080 people.

13.

If tuition fees for the humanities departments (History, Literature and Philosophy)
went up by 20% for local students only (after the initial price reduction for local
students), by how much will the total tuition fee for MA/MSc students increase?
A. €4,208,750
B. €6,313,125
C. €7,683,818

51
D. €12,350,890
E. €19,810,724

Explanation: The correct answer is (B) - €6,313,125

The question asks you to find the difference in total tuition fees for MA/MSc students
before and after an increase in the humanities departments' tuition fees for local
students. As the question concerns the tuition fees for MA/MSc students only, you can
ignore the data for BA and PHD students. In addition, since you are asked to
calculate the increase in total fees and only local students in the humanities
departments experienced such an increase, you can save time by finding the added
fees for these students (instead of calculating the fees before and after the change for
every department).
Thus, to answer the question, you need to find the increase in fees for a local MA/MSc
student and multiply it by the number of local MA/MSc students in the humanities
departments.
According to the bottom row of the table, local (UK) MA/MSc students pay 75% of
the full tuition fee, which is €12,500. Thus, an increase of 20% in fees would result
in additional fees of:
12,500 x 75% x 20% = 12,500 x 0.75 x 0.2 = €1,875 per student
To calculate the total number of local MA/MSc students in the humanities
departments, you need to use the 3rd column from the left (total number of MA/MSc
students in each department in thousands) and the 4th column from the right
(percentage of local students in each department):
History - There are (2 x 1,000 =) 2,000 MA/MSc students, of which 95% are local
students. So, the number of local MA/MSc History students is: 2,000 x 95% = 2000
x 0.95 = 1,900
Literature – There are 1,300 students, of which 90% are local, making a total of:
1,300 x 0.9 = 1,170 local students.

52
Philosophy - There are 300 students, of which 99% are local, making a total of: 300
x 0.99 = 297 local students.
Thus, the total number of local MA/MSc students in the humanities departments is:
1,900 + 1,170 + 297 = 3,367
So, the increase in total tuition fees is: 1,875 x 3,367 = €6,313,125

14.

According to projections, in the first half of next year, APPL’s sales of shares will
grow at a double rate compared to the current percentage growth rate; MSFT’s sales
will grow at a triple rate compared to the current percentage growth rate; HPQ’s sales
will grow at a quadruple rate; and DELL’s sales will grow at a fivefold rate. What is
the approximate ratio of the smallest number of shares sold by any of the companies

53
in the first half of the current year to the largest number of shares projected to be sold
by any of the companies in the first half of next year?
A. 905:420
B. 21:40
C. 19:30
D. 13:28
E. 904:780

Explanation: The correct answer is (D) - 13:28

To calculate the projected sales of each of the companies, you first need to find their
current growth rates. This means calculating the percentage change in sales between
the first and second halves of the current year using the formula: (Sales in 2nd half
- Sales in 1st half) / Sales in 1st half. Note that you can ignore the fact that all sales
are in thousands as you are dealing with relative numbers – percentages and ratios.
APPL: (78 - 75) / 75 = 0.04 = 4%
MSFT: (67 - 60) / 60 = 0.1167 = 11.67%
HPQ: (58 - 52) / 52 = 0.1154 = 11.54%
DELL: (47 - 42) / 42 = 0.119 = 11.9%

Next, find the projected growth rates:

APPL: 4 x 2 = 8%
MSFT: 11.67 x 3 = 35.01%
HPQ: 11.54 x 4 = 46.16%
DELL: 11.9 x 5 = 59.5%

Now, calculate the projected sales according to the formula:

Projected sales = Sales in 2nd half of current year x (1 + Projected growth rate)
APPL: 78 x (1 + 0.08) = 78 x 1.08 = 84.24
MSFT: 67 x (1 + 0.3501) = 67 x 1.3501 = 90.46

54
HPQ: 58 x (1 + 0.4616) = 58 x 1.4616 = 84.77
DELL: 47 x (1 + 0.595) = 47 x 1.595 = 74.96

According to the table, the smallest number of shares sold in the first half of the
current year is 42 (DELL); according to the calculation, the largest number of
projected sales is 90.46 (MSFT).
Thus, the relevant ratio is 42:90.46

Even though these exact numbers do not appear in any of the options, you can
disqualify all of the distractors based on estimation.
Options 1 and 5 can be eliminated as they present the opposite ratio (big
number:small number).
Options 2 and 3 can be eliminated as well since you need to look for a ratio in which
the right number is more than double the left number.

The answer is 13:28.

55
15.

A new experimental class currently accommodates 110 students. If the ratio of

bad:average:good students in this class equals the ratio of final exam success rates of
schools E:C:B respectively, how many good students study in this class?
A. 44
B. 11
C. 110
D. 55
E. 30

56
Explanation:
We know that the ratio of bad:average:good in the new class equals the ratio of
success rates of schools E:C:B, which are presented in the right chart. The ratio for
schools E, C and B is 5:20:25. When reduced by 5 = 1:4:5.
Thus, the ratio of bad:average:good students in the new class is:
1 bad : 4 average : 5 good.
If there are 110 students in class, then the ratio result means that: 1X+4X+5X = 110
(X is a certain number of students)
10X = 110
X = 11
The ratio can thus be translated into actual student numbers:
11 : 44 : 55
Therefore, the number of good students is 55.

57
16.

If each unit of renewable energy costs the same, approximately what is Biomass
Waste Energy's contribution to the total expenditure on fuel?
A. 0.005
B. 0.0048
C. 0.06

58
D. 0.011
E. Cannot say

Explanation:
In this question we are presented with two charts: one shows country X's fuel
expenditure in percentages, while the second shows how components of Renewable
Energy are divided.
Note that renewable energy is one of the types of fuel presented in the left hand chart.
The question focuses on the relative contribution of Biomass Waste Energy to the
total expenditure of fuel.

In order to solve this question we must first find the relative expenditure of renewable
energy out of the total expenditure of fuel- 8% (chart 1).

Then we must find the relative size of the Biomass Waste Energy component out of
all the components of renewable energy- 6% (chart 2).

Since we are given the information that each unit of renewable energy costs the same,
all that is left to do is multiply 0.06 (6%) by 0.08 (8%), which amounts to 0.0048.

The reason for multiplying both figures is that we need to find the relative
contribution of Biomass Waste Energy (6%) out of the relative contribution of
renewable energy (8%) out of 100%.

59