Professional Documents
Culture Documents
October 6, 2016
Recap: The Time Value of Money
F = P (1 + i)N ,
where
• N = number of periods;
• i = per period interest rate;
• P = total worth at period 0 (i.e., present worth); and
• F = total worth at period N (i.e., future worth).
• Technique: Converting the cash flows into their equivalent worth at some point
of time using an interest rate called Minimum Attractive Rate of Return (MARR)
• Why not just use the interest rate? Because there may be other considerations:
– cost and amount of money available for investment
– number of good projects available for investment and their purpose
– amount of perceived risk associated with an investment
– estimated adminstration cost as determined by the planning horizon
• One popular approach for establishing MARR involves the opportunity cost,
which arises when there is capital rationing.
• All cash inflows and outflows are discounted to the present time at the MARR.
• The present worth of a series of cash inflows and outflows at an interest rate (or
MARR) of i% is given by
∑
N
PW(i%) = F0(1 + i)0 + F1(1 + i)−1 + · · · + FN (1 + i)−N = Fk (1 + i)−k ,
k=0
where
– i = effective interest rate, or MARR, per period;
– Fk = cash flow at the end of period k; and
– N = number of periods in the planning horizon.
• A piece of equipment costs $25,000 now and will have a market value of $5,000
at the end of the fifth year.
$5, 000
$8, 000 $8, 000 $8, 000 $8, 000 $8, 000
0
1 2 3 4 5
MARR = 20%
$25, 000
F0 = −$25, 000, F1 = · · · = F4 = $8, 000, F5 = $8, 000 + $5, 000 = $13, 000.
Hence,
∑
5
PW(20%) = Fk (1.2)−k = $934.29.
k=0
Since PW(20%) ≥ 0, the equipment is justified.
• A bond is an IOU, in which you agree to lend the bond issuer money for a
specified length of time.
• In return, you receive periodic interest payments from the issuer, plus a promise
to return the face value of the bond when it matures.
• Example
– Suppose that N = 20, i = 10%, C = Z = $5, 000 and r = 8%. Then, we
have
P = $5, 000 × (P/F, 10%, 20) + $5, 000 × 0.08 × (P/A, 10%, 20)
= $4, 148.44.
• Suppose that your savings account gives you an annual interest rate 6%. You
have $100,000 in that account.
(1 + i)N − 1 A
CW(i%) = lim A × (P/A, i%, N ) = lim A × N
= .
N →∞ N →∞ i(1 + i) i
∑
N
FW(i%) = PW(i%) × (F/P, i%, N ) = Fk (1 + i)N −k .
k=0
$5, 000
$8, 000 $8, 000 $8, 000 $8, 000 $8, 000
0
1 2 3 4 5
MARR = 20%
$25, 000
• To compute AW, note that a project generally has three types of cash flow:
– annual equivalent revenue or saving (denoted R)
– annual equivalent expenditure (denoted E)
– annual equivalent capital recovery (denoted CR), which is the uniform annual
cost of invested capital
• Capital recovery covers the loss in value of asset, as well as the interest on
invested capital (at the given interest rate or MARR). Mathematically, we have
AW(i%) = R − E − CR(i%)
i(1 + i)N i
= R−E−I × + S × .
(1 + i) − 1
N (1 + i) − 1
N
$5, 000
$8, 000 $8, 000 $8, 000 $8, 000 $8, 000
0
1 2 3 4 5
MARR = 20%
$25, 000
Land $50,000
Building $225,000
# of years 20
Maintenance $420/year/occ. unit
Tax 10% of investment
• Furthermore, suppose that the agency can sell the entire complex at the end of
the 20th year for $400,000.
• Question: How much rent per month should the agency charge?
$302, 500 × (A/P, 12%, 20) − $400, 000 × (A/F, 12%, 20) + $9, 450
= $44, 396.82
$44, 396.82
= $164.43.
12 × 25 × 0.9
• Note that this is just the breakeven rent. One should always consider whether it
is realistic.
• Suppose that we have a set of cash inflows and outflows (which may occur at
different times).
• One could ask at what interest rate would we breakeven. This rate is known as
the internal rate of return (IRR).
∑
N ∑
N
Rk × (P/F, i∗%, k) = Ek × (P/F, i∗%, k),
k=0 k=0
where
– Rk = total revenue of the k–th period;
– Ek = total expenditure of the k–th period; and
– N = number of periods in the planning horizon.
• Since (P/F, i%, k) = (1 + i)−k , the IRR is the interest rate i∗ that solves the
following equation:
$5, 000
$8, 000 $8, 000 $8, 000 $8, 000 $8, 000
0
1 2 3 4 5
MARR = 20%
$25, 000
• The yield i∗ is then defined by the IRR of the promised cash flow. In particular,
i∗ solves the following equation:
∑
N
rZ C
+ = P,
(1 + i∗)k (1 + i∗)N
k=1
We can loan you $160,000 at a very favorable rate of 12% per year
for 5 years. However, to ensure this loan you must agree to establish
a checking account in which there is no interest and the minimum
average balance is $32,000. In addition, your interest payments are
due at the end of each year and the principal will be repaid in a lump-
sum amount at the end of year five.
• Questions
– Determine the cash flows and their timing.
– What is the effective annual interest rate being charged?
• Hence, the effective annual interest rate i∗ satisfies the following equation:
∑
5
$19, 200 $128, 000
+ = $128, 000.
(1 + i∗)k (1 + i∗)5
k=1
• Upon solving, we get i∗ = 15%, which is higher than what the banker claimed!
• One drawback of using the IRR is that it may not be uniquely determined.
i∗ = 0.382 or 2.618.
R1 R2 R3 R4
0 1 2 3 4
∑
4
Rn
C= n
.
n=1
(1 + IRR)
• Otherwise, the company can only earn its cost of capital (which is roughly
MARR) on those cash flows.
• In general, when the IRR is higher than MARR, say, it tends to overestimate the
equivalent return of the project.
• The ERR method corrects the last drawback of the IRR method by taking into
account the interest rate external to a project at which the net cash proceeds
can be reinvested or borrowed. Graphically, the ERR i∗ satisfies the following
relationship:
X
N
Rk × (F/P, u%, N − k)
k=0
0
k N
interest rate = i∗ %
X
N
Ek × (P/F, u%, k)
k=0
∑
N ∑
N
Ek × (P/F, u%, k) × (F/P, i∗%, N ) = Rk × (F/P, u%, N − k),
k=0 k=0
where u is the external reinvestment interest rate per period, and Ek , Rk , N are
as before.
• Fact: When u = IRR, then the IRR and ERR decision rules will lead to the same
conclusion.
∑
N ∑
N
Ek × (P/F, u%, k) × (F/P, i∗%, N ) = Rk × (F/P, u%, N − k).
k=0 k=0
• Idea: Calculate the number of years required for cash inflows to just equal cash
outflows. Mathematically, we want to find θ (called the discounted payback
period) so that
∑
θ
(Rk − Ek )(P/F, i%, k) − I ≥ 0,
k=1
where I is the initial investment, i is the MARR, and Rk , Ek are as before.
• Remarks
– A larger payback period indicates a greater risk of a project.
– However, the payback period method does not include cash flows occurring
after the payback period.