Radio Navigation

Progress Test 1

1. A wavelength of 8.5cm corresponds to a frequency of:

(a) 3529.4 MHz

(b) 352.94 MHz
(c) 2833.3 MHz
(d) 283.33 MHz

Solution: frequency = 300,000,000 = 3,529,411,700,000 Hz = 3529.4 MHz

0.085
2. Which statement is correct?

(a) continuous wave transmission varies only in amplitude

(b) pulse transmission is suitable only for periodic NDB'S
(c) in pulse transmission the frequency is modulated to facilitate range
measurment
(d) continuous wave transmission can be either frequency or amplitude
modulated

Solution: ‘Periodic NDBs’ does not really mean anything unless the NDBs are
only active at certain times but pulses are also used for radar and
DMEs so that answer is wrong. Frequency modulated pulse
transmissions do actually exist but are not considered by the syllabus.
Continuous wave means ‘not pulses’ or ‘not broken’, these
transmissions can be either FM or AM.

3. An A3E emission is associated with:

(a) ILS
(b) VOR
(c) HF communications
(d) VHF communications

Solution: ILS is A8W, VOR is A9W, HF communications is J3E but VHF

communications is classified A3E.

4. A wavelength of 4 metres gives a frequency of

(a) 75 Hz
(b) 750 Hz
(c) 75 MHz
(d) 750 MHz

Solution: frequency = c ÷ wavelength

= 300,000,000 ÷ 4
= 75,000,000 Hz
 = 75 MHz

5. With regard to radio waves, which statement is true:

(a) they are considered to travel at the speed of sound

(b) they travel over the earth's surface in random paths dependent on
terrain
(c) objects having a compatible size to the wave-length will reflect them
(d) none of the above

Solution: Radio waves travel at the speed of light, not sound. They travel in
straight lines not random paths. They are reflected by objects with a
size 'compatible' to the wavelength, for instance to obtain a radar
picture of an aeroplane you need roughly an aeroplane sized
wavelength or smaller.

6. In the Air Pilot, an ILS localiser would be given the emission code:

(a) A8W
(b) A2A
(c) NONA1A
(d) PON

Solution: VHF communications is A3E, VOR is A9W, HF communications is

J3E but ILS is classified A8W.

7. As the frequency of an HF transmission is increased the dead space will:

(a) decrease
(b) increase due only to the increase of minimum skip distance
(c) increase due only to the decreased surface wave coverage
(d) increase due to both increasing minimum skip distance and to
decreasing surface wave range

8. The wavelength of a radio aid is 6.97 cm. The corresponding frequency and
frequency band are:

Frequency Band
 (a) 4300 Mhz SHF
(b) 43 Mhz VHF
(c) 4300 Mhz UHF
(d) 43 Ghz EHF

Solution: frequency = 300,000,000 = 4,304,160,600 Hz ≈ 4300 MHz, SHF

0.0697

9. The approximate ground waves of LF and MF are by day

..... & ..... respectively, with ..... suffering more from ionospheric attenuation.

(a) 1500nm 1000nm MF

(b) 1000nm 500nm LF
(c) 1000nm 300nm MF
(d) 500nm 100nm LF

Solution: Ground or surface wave lengths depend heavily on power output, the
surface they pass over and the exact frequency used. The quoted
figures are for LF up to 1000-1500 nm and for MF up to 300-500 nm.
LF suffers more from ionospheric attenuation.

10. Which statement is true:

(a) continuous wave transmission varies in frequency but not amplitude

(b) pulse transmission is suitable for voice transmission
(c) J3E modulated signals are suitable for voice transmission
(d) none of the above

Solution: Continuous wave transmissions may be either frequency or amplitude

modulated. Pulse transmission is not suitable for the constantly varying
pitch and amplitiude of human voices, although they can be sent in this
format once digitised by a computer. J3E is the ICAO designator for
HF comms which is voice transmission.

11. Surface wave propogation is caused by

(a) refraction
(b) diffraction
(c) reflection
(d) ducting

Solution: Surface waves are caused by a combination of diffraction at the surface

and a slowing down of the wavefront at the surface. Refraction is the
cause of sky waves, ducting in the ionosphere is only present in the
VLF band and in the atmosphere only present in VHF and higher.

12. The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of:

(a) 100 m to 10 m
(b) 1 m to 100 cms
 (c) 10 m to 1 m
(d) 100 cms to 10 cms

Solution: The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of 10m - 1m. The
term ‘VHF’ relates to its frequency but it can also be called the metric
band, this describes the wavelengths as ‘in the order of metres’

13. The fluctuating amplitude of received radio signals known as fading can
be caused by:

(a) increasing distance from the transmitter

(b) the sun's rays heating the ionosphere during the day
(c) mixed skywave and ground wave reception
(d) fluctuations in the ionoshere causing frequency shift

Solution: Fading occurs whenever two identical signals arrive at the same
receiver having taken different signal paths. It is caused by the signals
alternately reinforcing themselves and cancelling each other out as
they move in and out of phase. Particular examples are VHF comms
where one signal has been reflected from the surface and another has
travelled by line of sight and NDB night effect, which you will meet
later, where one signal has refracted from the ionosphere and another
has followed the surface wave. Frequency shift would not be the result
of ionospheric 'fluctuations' and, if there was any frequency shift, this
would not result in fading as the signals would no longer be identical.
The only answer that refers to the mixing of two identical signals is the
mixed skywave and groundwave reception.

14. A higher HF communications frequency is required during the day:

(a) to improve the line of sight ranges

(b) to improve clarity of reception
(c) to compensate for increased ionospheric density
(d) to overcome terrain attenuation due to surface heating

Solution: The optimum HF frequency is higher in the daytime than at night

because the ionosphere is more dense and therefore more likely to
refract radio waves. It is true that a low frequency used in the daytime
would give worse reception but this is the reason why we always try to
use the optimum frequency not the reason why the optimum frequency
is higher. A good rule of thumb is ‘sun’s up, frequency up’

15. In the diagram below, which refers to the propogation of HF radio waves, the
letters A, B, C and D correctly represent:
 A B C D

(a) dead skip sky ground

space distance wave wave

(b) dead skip ground sky

space distance wave wave

(c) skip dead ground sky

distance space wave wave

(d) sky dead ground skip

wave space wave distance

Solution: A is the sky wave refracting from the ionosphere. B is the dead space,
the area where no signal is received between the ground wave and the
sky wave. C is the ground wave or surface wave and D is the skip
distance.

16. Atmospheric ducting causes:

(a) extended range for signals in the VHF band

(b) unwanted interference between stations operating in the SHF band
(c) unpredictable radio reception
(d) all of the above

Solution: Atmospheric ducting occurs in the VHF band and higher under certain
conditions. This means that all three answers are correct.

17. The term frequency as used in radio means:

(a) the number of complete waveforms passing a spot in one second

(b) the length of a complete waveform in metres
(c) the speed of radio waves in metres per second
 (d) the number of waveforms in one metre

Solution: The term waveform relates to the sine wave created by the radio signal.
The number of 360º waveforms that pass a point in 1 second is referred
to as the frequency and is measured in hertz.

18. A vertically polarized radio signal is one where:

(a) the E field is vertical

(b) the H field is vertical
(c) both the electro-static and magnetic components are vertical
(d) the transmission is directed vertically upwards

Solution: The electrical component or the E field is the important one here. If the
E field is vertical the signal is vertically polarised and vertical aerials
are used, if the E field is horizontal the signal is horizontally polarised
and horizontal aerials are used. Remember that the H field, the
magnetic field, lies at right angles to the E field.

19. The VHF band is:

(a) 3-30 Mhz

(b) 300-3000 Khz
(c) 30-300 MHz
(d) 300-3000MHz

Solution: The VHF band is from 30 MHz - 300 MHz, it is also referred to as the
metric band as its wavelengths are 10m to 1m.

20. Attenuation of a radio wave is the:

(a) change of its amplitude by use of side bands

(b) change of its frequency by use of side bands
(c) increase of its power by the combination of multi-path signals
(d) reduction of its power

Solution: To attenuate a radio wave is to decrease its power. Both the frequency
and the type of terrain over which the radio wave is being propagated
will affect attenuation.

21. .....radio signals have a ..... range by ..... wave over ..... than over .....

(a) MF greater ground land sea

(b) VHF shorter sky sea land
(c) MF greater ground sea land
(d) MF shorter sky sea land

Solution: MF waves have a greater range over the sea than the land. VHF
signals are too high a frequency to use sky waves but the range of sky
waves, in a single hop transmission, is unaffected by the surface they
 strike. The correct combination is ‘MF radio signals have a greater
range over the sea than over the land’

22. With reference to a VDF bearing, the magnetic bearing of the aircraft from the
ground station is a:

(a) QDM
(b) QDR
(c) QUJ
(d) QTE

Solution: QDM is the magnetic bearing to the station, QUJ is the true bearing to
the station, QTE is the true bearing from the station but the magnetic
bearing from the station is the QDR or ‘radial’.

23. In the Air Pilot, the emission code for DME is:

(a) A3E
(b) P0N
(c) J3E
(d) A2A

Solution: A3E is VHF communications, J3E is HF communications, A2A

describes an amplitude modulated morse signal but the class of
emission for DME is P0N.

24. A frequency of 10 GHz corresponds to a wavelength of:

(a) 30 m
(b) 3m
(c) 3 cm
(d) 30 cm

Solution: wavelength = 300,000,000 = 0.03m = 3cm

10,000,000,000

25. Surface attenuation is greatest at...................frequencies and Ionospheric

attenuation greatest at ........................wavelengths.

a) high short
b) high long
c) low short
d) low long

Solution: Surface and atmospheric attenuation affect the highest frequencies

most and ionospheric attenuation affects the lowest most. Low
frequencies have long wavelengths.
26. The process by which one of the characteristics of a radio carrier wave is
varied in sympathy with the amplitude & frequency of an audio wave is
known as:

(a) Propagation
(b) Ionization
(c) Oscillation
(d) Modulation

Solution: Modulation is simply the mixing together of 2 radio waves. One of

these is at radio frequency and is inaudible, this is called the carrier
wave. The other is at an audio frequency and carries the intelligence
we wish to transmit.

27. The frequency band in which ionospheric ducting is used is:

(a) VHF
(b) HF
(c) MF
(d) VLF

Solution: Ionospheric ducting is only present at the lowest frequencies, VLF, do

not confuse this with atmospheric ducting which is present in VHF and
higher.

28. In the ionoshere the F layer:

(a) is the lowest ionised layer

(b) may be split into two layers by day
(c) disappears at night
(d) is more weakly ionised than other layers

Solution: The 'F' layer is the most densely ionized as it is closer to the sun.
During the day the differing levels of incoming radiation cause more
densely ionised bands to form in different places, this is conventionally
described as splitting the F layer into 2 layers, the'F1' and the'F2'. At
night the radiation is less, the absorbtion in the highest layers changes
and a single F layer forms. It is the 'D' layer which disappears at night
as it is farthest from the sun and is the most weakly ionized.

29. Phase comparison can only be carried out between signals of

(a) the same frequency

(b) the same amplitude
(c) the same frequency and amplitude
(d) the same transmission source

Solution: Phase comparison can only be carried out between signals that have
the same wavelength and frequency. They can originate from different
transmitters and the amplitude of the signals can vary.
30. The speed of radio waves in nm/sec is:

(a) 186,000
(b) 163,842
(c) 161,842
(d) 300,000,000

Solution: The speed of radio waves is 300,000,000 metres a second which is

300,000 km a second. 300,000 Km converts on the nav computer or
calculator to 161,842 nm.

31. ATC pass you a QTE class B. This means that it is:

(a) accurate to within 10nm

(b) accurate to ± 5°
(c) accurate to ±10°
(d) only useable up to 30nm from the station

Solution: A QTE is a true bearing from the station, the accuracies are Class A,
plus or minus 2º, Class B, plus or minus 5º, Class C, plus or minus 10º
and Class D, more than 10º.

32. Atmospheric ducting is most likely to occur near to the ..... when there is a .....
and a .....

(a) Surface / temperature inversion / marked increase in humidity with

height
(b) Ionoshere / temperature inversion / marked decrease in humidity with
height
(c) Surface / temperature inversion / marked decrease in humidity with
height
(d) Surface / high ELR / humidity inversion

Solution: Atmospheric ducting occurs near the surface where there is a marked
temperature inversion and a rapid decrease in humidity with height.
The classic example would be the high pressure of a collapsing air
mass over the sea.

33. If the wavelength of a transmission is 8mm, the frequency is:

(a) 375 GHz

(b) 37.5 GHz
(c) 3750 MHz
(d) 375 MHz

Solution: frequency = 300,000,000 = 37,500,000,000 Hz = 37.5 GHz

0.008

34. Which is attenuated most?

 (a) MF at midday
(b) MF at midnight
(c) HF at midday
(d) HF at midnight

Solution: An unpleasant question because the type of attenuation is not specified.

Atmospheric attenuation would not be significant at these frequencies
and surface attenuation although present would be far outweighed by
the effects of ionospheric attenuation. A further clue is time of day
which only significantly affects ionospheric attenuation. Lower
frequencies suffer most from ionospheric attenuation which is greatest
at midday, the lowest frequencies here are MF.

35. Skip distance on a given HF frequency will:

(a) not change with the time of the day

(b) be greater by day than by night
(c) depend on the height of the D region
(d) be greater by night than by day

Solution: The D layer has only a minimal bending effect as it is the weakest
layer. At night the ionosphere is less dense and so will refract the
waves less. Less refraction means a longer skip distance so skip
distance will be longer at night.

36. In the classification of emissions the abbreviation P means:

(a) phase modulation

(b) polarity of the emission
(c) unmodulated pulse
(d) passive radar emissions

Solution: P means unmodulated pulses, found in the DME identifier P0N.

37. The maximum theoretical range to be expected from a VOR transmitter which
was 900 ft amsl when the aircraft was flying at 20 000 ft would be:

(a) 140 nm
(b) 215 nm
(c) 175 nm
(d) 235 nm

Solution: The maximum theoretical range comes from the formula

max range = 1.25√H1 + 1.25√H2
= 1.25√900 + 1.25√20,000
= 214 nm

38. The lowest ionised region is the ..... layer which is present....
 (a) D only by night
(b) F day and night
(c) E only by day
(d) D only by day

Solution: The lowest ionised region is the D layer which is only present in the
daytime.

39. For a radio frequency of 2 500 KHz the wavelength is:

(a) 12m
(b) 120m
(c) 1200m
(d) 120cm

Solution: frequency = 300,000,000 = 120 metres

2,500,000

or use a table of frequency and wavelengths. The frequency of

2,500KHz or 2.5Mhz lies in the MF band where the wavelengths are
between 1000m and 100m. Only 120m lies in this range.

40. 'Dead space' is that area :

(a) from the limit of the ground wave range to the first returning skywave
(b) from the transmitter to the first returning skywave
(c) from the first to the second hop skywaves
(d) in which there is no received signal because of interference between
sky wave and surface wave

Solution: The dead space is the area between the end of the ground wave or
surface wave to the first returning sky wave where no signal is
received.
 Radio Navigation

Progress Test 2 – Beacons

1. ILS ground equipment consists of:

(a) a common localiser and glideslope transmitter

(b) a centre line transmitter elevated to provide glideslope information.
(c) a multi beam system using phase detection
(d) separate glideslope and centre line transmitters

Solution: ILS ground equipment consists of a localiser aerial at the upwind end of the runway
and a glideslope aerial next to the ILS touchdown point about 300m in from the
threshold. Each aerial produces two lobes of transmission, each lobe has a different
modulation on it, 90Hz or 150Hz. The airborne system detects difference in the
amount, or depth, of modulation.

2. The maximum safe fly up indication on a five dot glidepath display is:

(a) 5 dots
(b) 4 dots
(c) 2.5 dots
(d) 1 dot

Solution: Max safe fly up indication is half full scale deflection to guarantee obstacle clearance
on the approach, in this case half of five dots is 2.5 dots.

3. Using the 1 in 60 rule determine the approximate height in feet of an aircraft 3nm from
touchdown on a 3° glideslope.
(a) 882 ft
(b) 912 ft
(c) 842 ft
(d) 1052 ft

Solution: The formula is glide angle ÷ 60 x distance in feet,

3 ÷ 60 x 3 x 6080 = 912ft. No need to add 50ft on, that only applies to distances
measured from the threshold.

4. The vertical coverage on a Cat I ILS with a 3° glidepath is:

(a) 1.05° to 6.05°

(b) 1.35° to 5.25°
(c) 2.05° to 5.55°
(d) 1.75° to 5.00°

Solution: The vertical coverage is 0.45 x glide angle to 1.75 x glide angle.
0.45 x 3 = 1.35º, 1.75 x 3 = 5.25º.
5. The visual and aural indications of an ILS outer marker are:

(a) a blue light and 2 dashes a second at 1600 Hz

(b) a white light and 2 dashes a second at 500 Hz
(c) a blue light and 2 dashes a second of a 400 Hz tone.
(d) an amber light and two dashes a second at 300 Hz
Solution: Don’t worry about the transmission rate. This question can be answered from the rest
of the information. The colours go Blue, Amber, White as you get closer to the
ground, and the mnemonic for that is Bl**dy Awful Weather. The frequency rises in
pitch from a 400Hz modulation to 3000Hz. The outer marker is a blue light and low
tone.

6. Use the 1 in 60 rule to determine the correct rate of descent for a 3.3° glideslope at a
groundspeed of 115 kt.

(a) 880 ft/min

(b) 575 ft/min
(c) 630 ft/min
(d) 360 ft/min

Solution: The formula is 5 x groundspeed with an adjustment in proportion if the glideslope is

steeper, as it is here. 5 x 115 x (3.3 ÷ 3) = 632 ft/min.

7. Use the 1 in 60 rule to determine the aircraft height 2.5 nm from the threshold on a 3°
glidepath.
(a) 760 ft
(b) 810 ft
(c) 710 ft
(d) 660 ft

Solution: The formula is glide angle ÷ 60 x distance in feet which is

3 ÷ 60 x 2.5 x 6080 = 760 ft. This distance is measured from the threshold, though,
not touchdown so we must add 50 ft, 760 + 50 = 810 ft.

8. The ILS localiser uses VHF frequencies between:

(a) 108 and 111.95MHz using odd 100Khz and odds +50KHz
(b) 108 and 111.95Mhz using even 100KHz spacing
(c) 112 and 117.95MHz using odd 100KHz ands odds +50KHz
(d) 112 and 117.95MHz using 50KHz spacing

Solution: The ILS localiser is 108MHz to 111.95MHz using odd 100KHz and 150KHz
spacing. Thus 108.1MHz and 108.15MHz are ILS frequencies while 108.2MHz is
not.

9. A category I ILS with a 3° glidepath provides localiser coverage at 17nm up to:

(a) 10° either side of the centreline

(b) 25° either side of the centreline
(c) 30° either side of the centreline
(d) 35° either side of the centreline

Solution: 35º either side up to 17nm and 10º either side out to 25nm.

10. A steep ILS glidepath provides coverage to:

(a) 12 nm from touchdown

(b) 6 nm from touchdown
(c) 10 nm from touchdown
(d) 8 nm from touchdown

Solution: Normal glidepath coverage is 8º either side out to 10nm, a steep glidepath is only out
to 8nm.
11. A Category II ILS installation provides guidance down to approximately:

(a) 15 ft above touchdown

(b) 50 ft above touchdown
(c) 100 ft above touchdown
(d) 200 ft above touchdown

Solution: Catch question. The lowest decision height for Cat II is 100ft radio but the
installation provides guidance down to 50ft. It is normal on a CAT II ILS to decide at
100ft and leave the autopilot engaged to 50ft, disengage and manually flare and land.

12. ILS localiser uses ...... signals and the glidepath ..... signals.

(a) UHF VHF

(b) VHF UHF
(c) UHF UHF
(d) VHF VHF

Solution: Localisers are VHF and glideslopes UHF.

13. The JAA minimum RVR for a category 3B ILS approach is;

(a) 200 metres

(b) 75 metres
(c) zero
(d) 100 metres

Solution: 75 metres. Also possibly described as ‘less than 200m’ which means ‘less than the
Cat IIIA minimum’.

14. An aircraft on a 3° glidepath at 135kt would require a rate of descent of:

(a) 675 ft/min

(b) 620 ft/min
(c) 745 ft/min
(d) 350 ft/min

Solution: The formula is 5 x groundspeed, no adjustment is needed for glide angle as it is the
standard 3º. 5 x135 = 675ft/min.

15. An aircraft on a 3° glideslope at an ILS outer marker 4½ nm from the threshold should be at:

(a) 1305 ft
(b) 1480 ft
(c) 1420 ft
(d) 1360 ft

Solution: The formula is glide angle ÷ 60 x distance in feet which is

3 ÷ 60 x 4.5 x 6080 = 1368ft, add 50ft here because distance is measured from the
threshold, 1368 + 50 = 1418ft.

16. VOR uses frequencies between:

(a) 108 and 111.95MHz using odd 100Khz and odds +50KHz
(b) 108 and 111.95Mhz using odd 100KHz spacing
 (c) 108 and 117.95MHz using odd 100KHz ands odds +50KHz
(d) 108 and 117.95MHz

Solution: VORs operate between 108MHz and 117.95MHz. In the range shared with ILS,
108MHz to 111.95MHz, they use even 100KHz, e.g. 109.2MHz. The only correct
answer is 108 to 117.95MHz.

17. Standard VORs employ an ..... reference signal and an ..... variphase signal

(a) FM AM
(b) AM FM
(c) FM FM
(d) AM AM

Solution: Standard VORs can be remembered because AM is vAriphase and FM is reFerence.

18. Doppler VORs use a complex aerial array to overcome:

(a) scalloping
(b) fading
(c) site error
(d) night effect

Solution: Doppler VORs overcome site error, reflections from structures near the aerial. This
means that Doppler VORs can be sited on airfields.

19. When resolving VOR bearings variation should be applied:

(a) at the station

(b) at the aircraft
(c) at the parallel of origin
(d) at the mean longitude

Solution: Variation is applied at the station for VORs and at the aircraft for NDBs.

20. A VOR variphase signal polar diagram is in the shape of a:

(a) limacon
(b) cardioid
(c) ellipsoid
(d) circle

Solution: VORs use a Limacon, NDBs use a cardioid.

21. The phase difference between the reference and variphase signals of an aircraft bearing 050°M
from a VOR, where the variation at the aircraft is 10°W and that at the VOR is 6°W, is:

(a) 040°
(b) 056°
(c) 050°
(d) 044°

Solution: The phase difference IS the radial. If the aircraft bears 050ºM from the VOR it is on
the 050º radial so the phase difference is 50º. Variation is irrelevant as it is all
magnetic.

22. When the VOR monitor detects an excessive error the ident will:
 (a) continue uninterrupted during the changeover to the standby transmitter.
(b) stop until the main system is restored
(c) transmit the morse letter S
(d) stop and then restart when the standby transmitter comes on line.

Solution: The monitor will shut down the main beacon, removing the ident. The standby
beacon is brought on line and when it passes the test of bearing accuracy the ident is
restored.

23. The required internal accuracy of a VOR receiver is:

(a) ± 1°
(b) ± 2°
(c) ± 5°
(d) ± 3°

Solution: ICAO Pans Ops says 2.7º receiver tolerance, the closest answer is 3º . FAA rules are
different.

24. An aircraft is maintaining an airway centreline of 090° defined by a VOR ahead of the
aircraft. With 60 nm to go to the VOR the QDM is 086°. Assuming the variation at the VOR
is 6°E and that at the aircraft is 8°E the aircraft is:

(a) 1 nm inside the airway northern boundary

(b) 1 nm inside the airway southern boundary
(c) 5 nm outside the airway southern boundary
(d) 3 nm inside the airway northern boundary

Solution

The aeroplane is 4° off track at 60nm. Using the 1 in 60 rule this puts him 4nm off
track. An airway extends 5nm from the centreline so he is 1nm inside the southern
boundary.

25. The best description of the indication on an OBI of passage through a VOR overhead is:

(a) The needle deviates left and right then centralises

(b) The OFF flag flickers, the TO/FROM indicator reverses
(c) and the needle slowly centralises
(d) The OFF flag flickers and the needle slowly centralises
(e) The selected bearing reverses through 180°

Solution: As the aircraft approaches the station the sensitivity increases and the deviation
indicator, the needle, moves to full scale deflection. As the aircraft passes the cone of
silence above the VOR the OFF flag flickers. The TO/FROM flag reverses as the
aircraft crosses the beacon and the needle sensitivity slowly reduces, the needle
deflection re-centralises slowly.

26. The Designated Operational Coverage of a VOR is:

 (a) The range within which an accuracy of ± 5° is guaranteed
(b) The range and height within which an accuracy of ± 5° is guaranteed.
(c) The area within which freedom from interference is guaranteed
(d) The area within which reception is guaranteed

Solution: The DOC guarantees freedom from interference. It is expressed as a range, height
and sometimes sector. The accuracy of 5º is not guaranteed, you only have a right to
expect it on 95% of occasions.

27. The reference signal of a conventional VOR is modulated at ..... and the variphase at ......

(a) 30Hz 30Hz

(b) 30Hz 50Hz
(c) 50Hz 30Hz
(d) 50Hz 50Hz

Solution: Both at 30Hz, 50Hz is the frequency of domestic AC power in most countries.

28. The width of a cone of confusion at 30,000ft over a VOR is a maximum of:

(a) 4 nm
(b) 2 nm
(c) 12 nm
(d) 6 nm

Solution: This can be calculated but its best just to remember it. 12nm diameter at 30,000ft.

29. Scalloping of a VOR signal is:

(a) caused by interfering surface and space waves

(b) uneven propagation caused by the terrain
(c) more likely over the sea
(d) caused by obstructions near the transmitter

Solution: Scalloping is described as ‘ interference caused by terrain and man made structures at
the limits of range’.

30. The OBI display below would indicate a QDR of:

(a) 036º
(b) 024º
 (c) 216º
(d) 204º

Solution: The display is correctly set up for an aircraft attempting to track 030º TO a beacon
and it shows track out to the left. 030º TO is not the radial, this is the magnetic
bearing FROM, the opposite, 210º. If the 210º radial is out to the left three divisions
or 6º the aircraft must be on the 204º radial.

31. The promulgated range of an NDB guarantees protection from;

(a) station interference by night

(b) station interference by day
(c) station interference by day and night
(d) night effect

Solution: The promulgated or protected range of an NDB guarantees freedom from

interference from other beacons by day only, this because of the long ranges of sky
waves present at night.

32. When using an ADF system station interference can be identified:

(a) aurally only

(b) visually only
(c) aurally and visually
(d) with an interphase receiver

Solution: Station interference is interference from another beacon. The needle would deviate or
wobble, a visual indication, and there would be two idents present, an audible
indication.

33. An aircraft is navigating on a two needle RMI maintaining a radial of 240° from NDB A.
When NDB B, which is due south of A, is abeam track the needles will point to:

NDB A NDB B

(a) 240º 150º

 (b) 060º 330º
(c) 240º 330º
(d) 060º 150º

Solution:

The aircraft is on the 240° radial so the needle will point to 060°, the QDM.
VOR B is abeam track, that is to say at 90° to it, the diagram shows the
needle points to 060° + 90° = 150°.

34. The position error caused by coastal refraction is greater when the station is:

(a) further from the coast

(b) closer to the coast
(c) operating in the MF band rather than the LF
(d) using a NON A1A signal

Solution: The position error is greatest when the beacon is furthest from the coast. Increased
refraction would also worsen the situation but this would happen (slightly) more in
LF than MF as low frequencies refract most. Whether the signal is N0N A1A or N0N
A2A is irrelevant, this only describes the type of modulation of the ident.

35. The combination of loop and sense aerials in an NDB receiver produces a:

(a) cardioid polar diagram

(b) limacon polar diagram
(c) ellipsoid polar diagram
(d) circular polar diagram

Solution: NDBs have cardioids, VORs limacons.

36. NDB protected ranges are not valid at night because:

(a) skywaves can be present

(b) high powered radio beacons gain field strength at night
(c) an accurate forecast of interference free ranges cannot be made
(d) all of the above

Solution: NDB protected or promulgated ranges are not valid at night because of the possibility
of interfering sky waves which makes an accurate forecast of interference free ranges
 difficult. The field strength at night is made up of not only the surface wave but also
additional sky wave signals so all three answers are corect

37. The BFO must be selected on to hear:

(a) the ident but not the carrier wave on a NON A1A system
(b) the ident but not the carrier wave on a NON A2A system
(c) the carrier wave but not the ident on a NON A2A system
(d) the carrier wave but not the ident on a NON A1A system

Solution: The BFO makes the inaudible audible. The A2A ident is the only part of the signals
that is audible so the BFO is needed for the NON carrier wave on both NONA1A and
NONA2A beacons and also the A1A ident, which is no more than an interrupted
carrier wave.

38. When the frequencies of 400KHz and 403KHz are mixed the beat frequency is:

(a) 3 KHz
(b) 803 KHz
(c) 3 Hz
(d) 1.5 KHz

Solution: The beat frequency is the difference of the two.

39. Quadrantal error is:

(a) unpredictable but can be compensated for

(b) unpredictable and cannot be compensated for
(c) predictable and can be compensated for
(d) predictable but cannot be compensated for

Solution: Quadrantal error is predictable and can be determined by measuring the errors on a
series of headings. It can be compensated for, usually by recording the errors on a
‘correction card’ and placing it next to the instrument. Nowadays we don’t bother.

40. NDB systems employ:

(a) sky wave propagation

(b) space wave propagation
(c) atmospheric ducting
(d) surface wave propagation

Solution: NDBs use surface waves, the sky waves are an irritation.

41. The principle of operation of MLS in azimuth is best described as:

(a) A sweeping beam of random pulses whereby aircraft azimuth is derived from the
varying timing between pulses
(b) A continuous sweeping beam whereby aircraft azimuth is derived from the time
interval between the two passages of the beam in each scan
(c) A continuous sweeping beam whereby aircraft azimuth is derived by measuring the
doppler shift in each direction of the sweep
(d) A continuous sweeping beam whereby azimuth is derived by comparing the depth of
modulation of the beam travelling left to right with the depth of modulation of the
beam travelling right to left
Solution: MLS uses a sweeping beam, not pulses, and the azimuth position is figured out by
the time delay between two passes of the beam as it sweeps TO and FRO.

42. MLS limits of coverage are:

(a) 20° in elevation and 40° left and right of the centreline out to 40nm
(b) 20° in elevation and 40° left and right of the centreline out to 20nm
(c) 40° in elevation and 40° left and right of the centreline out to 20nm
(d) 20° in elevation and 35° left and right of the centreline out to 25nm

Solution: Coverage limits are 20º in elevation and 40º either side of the centreline, sometimes
described as an 80º arc.

43. Which answer correctly completes the following statement?

"The characteristics of an MLS installation are that it uses

(a) one transmitter for both elevation and azimuth and a single frequency"
(b) an elevation transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an azimuth transmitter at
the upwind end of the runway and a single frequency"
(c) one transmitter for both elevation and azimuth and two frequencies"
(d) an azimuth transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an elevation transmitter at
the upwind end of the runway and two frequencies"

Solution: The transmitters are sited where the ILS glideslope and localiser aerials are but use
one frequency by multiplexing the signal.

44. An aircraft is tracking the 065° radial inbound to VOR X. With 12° port drift which of the
following indications will be correct when crossing the 133° radial from VOR Y?
 (a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Solution: This is an RMI. The aircraft heading is shown at the top of the instrument and the
needles show magnetic bearing to, QDM, at the point of the needle and radial, QDR,
at the tail of the needle. The question states that we are on the 065º radial from one
beacon and the 133º from another. Start by identifying which of the displays have the
tails of the needles on 065 and 133, only A and B. The only difference between A
and B is the heading at the top. If the aircraft were tracking directly to VOR X in still
air the heading and track would be the same, the opposite of 065, 245º. With 12º of
port drift the aircraft is being blown to the left so must turn right to compensate. 245
+ 12 = 257º. The RMI with a heading of 257º is shown at B.

45. An aircraft is attempting to track 186°M on an airway defined by a VOR 80nm away. The
VOR indicator below indicates the aircraft position. With these indications the aircraft is on
the ........... radial and ......... the airway
 (a) 181 outside
(b) 001 inside
(c) 181 inside
(d) 001 outside

Solution: The display is correct for an aircraft attempting to track 186º TO the beacon and track
is indicated out to the left. If it is tracking 186º TO it must lie to the north of the
beacon and the track shown is the 186 QDM or the 006 QDR. If the 006º radial is out
to the left, and one dot is 2º so it is 5º left, the aircraft is on the 001 radial. As far as
the displacement goes we know from the basic one in sixty rule that at 60nm 5º off
would be 5nm displaced. As the aircraft is 80nm away the displacement must be
more than 5nm and therefore the aircraft is outside the airway.
 Radio Navigation

Progress Test 3 – Radar

1. If a DME becomes saturated it will

(a) reply to the nearest aircraft

(b) reply to the strongest signals
(c) temporarily shut down
(d) increase its reply rate

Solution: The DME ground station, the transponder, can only cope with: about 2700 pulses a
second. If it gets more than this it adjusts its internal gain (sensitivity) to service the
strongest signals. This roughly equates to the strongest 100 aircraft interrogations.
These may well be the closest aircraft but the ground station knows nothing about
range, only signal strength.

2. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) The ICAO requirement for DME accuracy relates to the difference between slant
range and horizontal range
(b) A DME is most accurate at ranges between 100 and 200nm
(c) DME accuracy decreases with range
(d) The required accuracy for a DME is 1nm or 0.25%, whichever greater

Solution: The ICAO requirement for DME accuracy relates to accurate representation of the
slant range. The requirement is a quarter of a mile and 1.25% of slant distance. This
means that in the overhead the accuracy would be quarter a mile, at 100nm the
accuracy would be 1.5 nm and at 200nm it would be 2.75 nm. The system is less
accurate with increasing range.

3. The maximum range of a pulse radar is affected by:

(a) PRP
(b) transmission frequency
(c) pulse width
(d) all of the above

Solution: Long range pulse radars must have a low PRF to allow a big ‘listening gap’ between
the pulses and mechanisms in place to keep the signal strength up all the way to the
target and back. Usually a lowish transmitted frequency is chosen to reduce the
effects of atmospheric attenuation. To provide a high average power in the beam
either short pulses with very high peak powers can be used or longer pulses with low
peak powers, the latter is easier. Thus all the answers are correct. If asked which is
the MAJOR factor, it would be PRP or PRF.
Pulse width or length also affects the minimum range of pulse radar, for a totally
different reason. The pulse has to be short to allow the aerial to switch rapidly from
transmit to receive.

4. By using a random PRF the DME interrogator can:

(a) prevent interference from ground returns

(b) distinguish its own replies
(c) prevent interference from UHF comms frequencies
(d) reduce the likelihood of beacon saturation
Solution: Ground return interference is prevented by having the aircraft transmit and receive on
different frequencies 63MHz apart, randomising the PRF makes each aircraft signal
effectively unique and therefore recognisable.

5. If the signal from the DME transponder is lost

(a) the last detected range will be displayed for 10 seconds

(b) all range information is lost
(c) the range counters will continue to move for 10 seconds
(d) the interrogator immediately returns to search mode

Solution: If the DME reply is lost for a short period of time the aircraft does not immediately
drop back to the higher search rate, rather it keeps interrogating at about 24pps.
While it interrogates at this rate it ‘looks’ for the returns at the ranges where it last
‘saw’ them and so the counters continue to rotate at the same rate for 8 to 10 seconds.
This is called DME memory.

6. DME is a ................radar which provides.............range information between the beacon and

the aircraft.............

(a) secondary slant transponder

(b) primary slant transponder
(c) secondary earth interrogator
(d) secondary slant interrogator

Solution: DME is a secondary radar, meaning there are active components at both ends, an
interrogator in the aircraft and a transponder on the ground which replies. The range
information is slant range.

7. DME operates in the ...........band and uses .............propagation

(a) UHF space wave

(b) VHF sky wave
(c) UHF sky wave
(d) VHF surface wave

Solution: DME operates in the UHF band even though we tune it with a VHF nav controller. It
uses UHF paired frequencies paired with the selected VHF frequencies. The
propagation is line of sight which could be called direct wave or space wave.

8. An aircraft DME receiver will not lock on to ground reflected signals

because

(a) DME uses a random PRF within certain limits

(b) the reflections are not at the correct frequency
(c) the reflected signals experience a Doppler shift
(d) UHF signals are attenuated by the surface

Solution: Ground return interference is prevented by having the aircraft transmit and receive on
different frequencies 63MHz apart, this means that reflected signals come back on
the aircraft transmitter frequency, not the one the receiver operates on. Randomising
the PRF makes each aircraft signal effectively unique and therefore recognisable.
There will not be a significant doppler shift, even with vertical speeds as high as
6000ft a minute it would produce about 100Hz, a change of frequency of about
0.000001%. UHF signals are attenuated by the surface, but usually not enough to
stop reflection.
9. The OFF flag on DME cockpit equipment could indicate

(a) the receiver is not locked on

(b) the incorrect frequency is selected
(c) the equipment is turned off
(d) all of the above

Solution: This question relates to DME equipment with mechanical counters, perhaps a
standby system in a transport aircraft. The onlt time the OFF flag does not cover the
counters is when the DME is interrogating at roughly 24 pulses a second, that is to
say locked on or in memory mode. This means the OFF flag will be displayed when
it is off or searching, and if it was searching for the a beacon that wasn’t there it
would still be searching. All of them.

10. A pulse radar has a PRP of 500μs. The PRF is:

(a) 200 pulses a second

(b) 20,000 pulses a second
(c) 20 pulses a second
(d) 2000 pulses a second

Solution: PRF is 1 ÷ PRP, in seconds. 500μs is 500 ÷ 1,000,000 = 0.0005 seconds, 1 ÷ 0.0005
= 2000 pulses a second.

11. The minimum range of a pulse radar is affected by:

(a) frequency
(b) wavelength
(c) pulse length
(d) PRP

Solution: The minimum range of a pulse radar is affected only by the pulse length as this
controls how quickly the radar switches over from transmit to receive. Very short
ranges require very short pulses.

12. The formula for calculating the maximum theoretical range of a pulse radar is:

(a) C divided by 2 x PRP

(b) C divided by 2 x PRF
(c) C divided by PRP
(d) C multiplied by 2 x PRP

Solution: Depends how you read this. It should be C ÷ (2 x PRF)

13. A radar system that uses interrogator and transponder is a

(a) primary radar system

(b) Doppler radar system
(c) tertiary radar system
(d) secondary radar system

Solution: Secondary radar systems have active components at both ends. A interrogator unit
starts the conversation and a transponder replies, the best example is SSR. Primary
radars rely only on reflection. Tertiary radars do not exist. Doppler radars do exist but
are primary, relying on reflection.
14. The maximum theoretical range in nautical miles of a pulse radar with a PRF of 800 pulses a
second is:

(a) 101
(b) 187
(c) 120
(d) 208

Solution: The formula is c ÷ (2 x PRF). If you want an answer in nm use the speed of light in
nm/sec, 162,000nm/sec.
162,000 ÷ (2 x 800) = 101nm.

15. The time interval between two successive pulses in a radar system is called the

(a) pulse length

(b) PRP
(c) PRF
(d) pulse rate

Solution: It is properly called the pulse interval but the closest is PRP, which stands for Pulse
Recurrence Period.

16. A pulse radar has a PRF of 1300 pulses a second the PRP is:

(a) 769 μs
(b) 769 milliseconds
(c) 7.69 milliseconds
(d) 7,690 nanoseconds

Solution: The formula is PRP = 1/PRF = 1/1300 = 0.000769 seconds which could be written as
0.769 milliseconds or 769 microseconds, μs. Nanoseconds are thousand millionths of
a second and will not be used, other than as wrong answers.

17. EHF frequencies are rarely used for civilian radar because

(a) the aerial size would be too small

(b) the aerial size would be too large
(c) the wavelength is too short to reflect from aircraft
(d) the power requirement is too high

Solution: EHF frequencies are rarely used because atmospheric attenuation is high in EHF.
There are advantages to using EHF radar, principally high target resolution. The
aerials are likely to be neither small or large, there is no direct relationship between
parabolic aerial size and wavelength. Short wavelengths reflect well from targets.
High attenuation requires high transmitted power to overcome it, this is the limiting
factor.

18. In the sketch below of an electrostatic Cathode Ray Tube the electrons are emitted by ..........
and focussed by ...........
 (a) A D
(b) A C
(c) B E
(d) B D

Solution: A is the heater, B the cathode, C the grid, D the anode system, E the Y plates and F
the X plates. The cathode, B, emits the electrons and they are focussed by the anodes.

19. The X plates of a Cathode Ray Tube

(a) deflect the beam vertically across the screen

(b) deflect the beam horizontally across the screen
(c) focus the beam
(d) provide flyback suppression

Solution: The X plates move the beam in the X axis, left to right.

20. In the Cathode Ray tube brilliance is controlled by

(a) the grid

(b) the anodes
(c) the cathode
(d) the fluorescent screen

Solution: Brilliance is controlled by the grid.

21. To achieve flyback suppression the

(a) current to the cathode is cut

(b) current to the heater is cut
(c) charge on the anodes is reduced
(d) charge on the grid is increased

Solution: The beam is suppressed (cut) in the flyback period while the next pulse is going out.
This is done by markedly increasing the (negative) charge on the grid to make it so
repulsive that, even though the electrons can physically get out, they cannot get past
the electro-static field.

22. The speed of radio waves in nautical miles a second is:

(a) 186,000
(b) 163,842
(c) 161,842
 (d) 3,000,000

Solution: In nautical miles a second the speed of light is 161,824 nm/sec. It is also 186,000
statute miles a second and 300,000,000 metres a second.

23. The tilt angle on an AWR at which an active cloud just disappears from the screen is 4° up. If
the beam width is 5° and the range of the cloud is 50nm the height of the cloud above the
aircraft is approximately

(a) 5000 ft
(b) 6000 ft
(c) 7500 ft
(d) 8500 ft

Solution: The rough formula is

scanner tilt – half beamwidth x range in feet
60
Which is4 – 2.5 x 50 x 6080
60
or +1.5 x 50 x 6080
60
= + 7600 ft.

24. The correct setting for an AWR for an aircraft taxying to the holding point is

(a) Radar on test, scanner 15° up

(b) Radar on standby, scanner 1° up
(c) Scanner stabilisation off, radar off
(d) Radar on standby, scanner 15° up

Solution: The radar should at least be on standby so as not to transmit anything. Some
checklists do not call for a specific scanner tilt but those that do require full up tilt of
15º. This means that when the radar is turned on it will at least be pointing up.

25. The AWR is used to identify an island 190nm away. The optimum settings for this would be

(a) manual function and manual gain

(b) mapping function and manual gain
(c) weather function and automatic gain control
(d) contour function

Solution: 190nm is long range. If the question refers to an archaic monochrome radar as the
answers suggest then the conical beam of the manual selection would be the best
choice, this has manual gain.

26. The cosec2 beam of an AWR is used for

(a) long range mapping

(b) cloud detection
(c) iso-echo presentation
(d) medium range mapping

Solution: The cosec2 or mapping beam is used for short or medium range mapping, it depends
how you define it.

27. Automatic gain control is not provided in the mapping mode of an AWR because
 (a) the power at the top of the beam is less than the power at the bottom
(b) the power at the top of the beam is more than the power at the bottom
(c) gain of the return is decreased with range automatically
(d) gain of the return is increased automatically with range

Solution:

The diagram above shows the polar diagram of the cosec 2 beam used only in the
mapping mode. The lower parts of this beam which hit the ground at short range
carry less energy than the higher parts, this provides distance compensation without
the need for AGC. In this mode the sensitivity or gain is also manually controlled.

28. A frequency of 9.375 GHz is often used for airborne weather radar because

(a) a narrow beam giving good range discrimination can be used

(b) higher frequencies would require a larger aerial
(c) only reflections from hail will be received
(d) bearing resolution is adequate and the wavelength is compatible with target size

Solution: Narrow beams don’t give good range resolution, they give good bearing resolution.
High frequencies do not need larger aerials, hail is unlikely to reflect well as it is ice,
and ice attenuates radio signals. The quoted frequency is high enough to give
adequate bearing resolution with a wavelength that is short, but not so short you get
returns from inoffensive clouds.

29. When using airborne weather radar for mapping radar shadowing

(a) decreases with increase of height

(b) illuminates the screen to give a false appearance of water
(c) can falsely indicate the presence of land
(d) increases with increase of height

Solution: Radar shadowing occurs when terrain masks distant targets. This is greatest at low
level in mountainous terrain and leaves the screen blank, not illuminates the screen,
to apparently show water. It decreases the higher you go because the radar can see
into the valleys,

30. An airborne weather radar with a scanner tilt of 1° up and a beam width of 4° detects a cloud
top at a range of 30nm. The cloud tops are approximately

(a) 9600 ft below the aircraft

(b) 3200 ft above the aircraft
(c) 3200 ft below the aircraft
(d) 6400 ft below the aircraft

Solution: The rough formula is

scanner tilt – half beamwidth x range in feet
60
 Which is1 – 2 x 30 x 6080
60
or -1 x 30 x 6080
60
= - 3040 ft

31. Air traffic control require the Mode C response of an SSR to be within .......... of the aircraft
pressure altitude according to ICAO standards.

(a) 200 ft
(b) 300 ft
(c) 500 ft
(d) 100 ft

Solution: The ICAO limit is 300ft, some European countries (including the UK) work to 200ft.

32. The correct transponder setting in the event of hijack is:

(a) 2000
(b) 7600
(c) 7700
(d) 7500

Solution: Hijack is 7500, failure of two way communications 7600 and unlawful interception
7700. 2000 has two uses, normally it is a code for oceanic traffic but it also means ‘I
am entering the FIR and have no assigned transponder code’.

33. The correct SSR setting in the event of R/T transmitter failure is

(a) 2000
(b) 7500
(c) 7700
(d) 7600

Solution: 7600 is for loss of two way communications, transmitter, receiver or both. Hijack is
7500 and unlawful interception 7700. 2000 has two uses, normally it is a code for
oceanic traffic but it also means ‘I am entering the FIR and have no assigned
transponder code’.

34. The total time interval between the transmission of an interrogation and receipt of a response
from a DME is 1.05 milliseconds. The range of the aircraft from the DME is

(a) 162 nm
(b) 81 nm
(c) over 200nm
(d) 45 km

Solution: Use the formula speed = distance ÷ time, turn it around to get distance = speed x
time. The speed here is the speed of light, 162,000nm/sec, the time is how long it
takes the signal to get there and back, 1.05 milliseconds or 0.00105 seconds. The
distance there and back is therefore 162,000 x 0.00105 = 170nm, the range is half of
that, 85nm. It does take a bit of time for the DME ground station to receive and re-
transmit the signal, we have not allowed for that and the distance we calculate is just
a bit longer because of it.

35. SSR interrogators and transponders operate on

 (a) a number of VHF frequencies
(b) UHF frequencies between 962 and 1213KHz
(c) 1030 and 1090MHz
(d) 1060 and 1123MHz

Solution: They all operate on 1030 and 1090MHz, the ground radar interrogates on 1030 and
the aircraft replies on 1090MHz

36. With the airborne weather radar operating in the contour mode the following circuits are
operational

(a) the manual gain control only

(b) the automatic gain control and the iso-echo system
(c) the automatic gain control only
(d) the manual gain control plus the iso-echo system

Solution: Contour mode is peculiar to archaic monochrome radars like the E290 shown in the
notes. The beam is the same as the weather mode with a conical shape and automatic
gain control for distance compensation except that additional ‘iso-echo circuitry is
activated to cancel or invert returns above a pre-set level so that they show as ‘hollow
centres’.

37. When using a parabolic dish aerial the narrowest beam will be achieved with

(a) a large dish and a high frequency signal

(b) a small dish and a high frequency signal
(c) a large dish and a low PRF
(d) a large dish with a small PRP

Solution: With parabolic aerials the narrowest beams come from the biggest aerials and high
frequencies. PRP/PRF has nothing to do with it.

38. Mode S transponders are used

(a) to provide voiceless ground/air data transmission

(b) with TCAS III
(c) for satellite navigation
(d) for air/ground voice communications

Solution: TCAS III does not exist and transponders are not used for satellite navigation or
voice comms. Mode S is used just like a normal transponder but also has a capability
for an air/ground datalink.

39. An aerodrome ground movement radar is likely to operate in the .............band with a scan rate
of ...............revolutions per minute

(a) SHF 60
(b) UHF 200
(c) EHF 20
(d) EHF 1000

Solution: This is difficult to answer unless you know the answer. Very short range radars are
likely to be high frequency with high scanner rotation rates but, how high? SHF and
60RPM.
40. A non EFIS colour weather radar indicates growing strength of radar returns in the following
order:

(a) blue, yellow, magenta

(b) green, yellow, red
(c) green, orange, magenta
(d) blue, orange, red

Solution: The colours are like a traffic light, Green, Amber, Red. In the exams amber and
yellow can both be used to describe the same colour. The question says non-EFIS so
magenta is not considered.

Radio Navigation

Progress Test 4 – Doppler, Loran, Area Nav and GPS

1. A Doppler system using a four beam rotating Janus array measures drift by

(a) comparing the beat frequencies from the forward beams with the rear beams
(b) comparing the beat frequencies between the front left and rear right beams and the
front right and rear left beams
(c) measuring the angle between the aerial and the aircraft nose
(d) comparing the beat frequencies from the left beams with the right beams

Solution: Drift is measured by how far the aerial is skewed from the aircraft nose.
Groundspeed is measured from the beat frequency of opposing beams.

2. Doppler navigation systems may unlock over

 (a) mountains
(b) stratiform cloud
(c) deserts
(d) calm seas

Solution: Doppler systems may unlock where the signal is reflected away from the aircraft and
not back to it. Smooth surfaces like calm seas are renowned for this.

3. Doppler systems normally operate between

(a) 8 MHz and 13 MHz in the HF band

(b) 8 GHz and 13 GHz in the SHF band
(c) 3 GHz and 7 GHz in the SHF band
(d) 4300 GHz to 4700 GHz in the EHF band

Solution: Doppler systems operate around 10GHz in the SHF band.

4. Doppler operates on the principle that...........................between a transmitter and a receiver

will cause the received frequency to....................if the transmitter and receiver are
moving................................

(a) distance increase apart

(b) relative velocity decrease together
(c) relative velocity increase together
(d) distance increase together

Solution: Relative velocity causes doppler shift, not distance, and the pitch increases if the
transmitter and receiver are moving together and decreases if they move apart.

5. An aircraft is on a hyperbolic position line between two stations that are 140 nm apart. The
aircraft is 90nm from the master and 110nm from the slave. The distance from the slave to the
point where the hyperbola cuts the baseline is:

(a) 70 nm
(b) 60 nm
(c) 80 nm
(d) 90 nm

Solution: The aircraft is closer to the master so draw the hyperbola on that side of the right
bisector. The difference in distance is 20nm so the distance between the hyperbola
 and the right bisector is half that, 10nm. The distance to the right bisector is half of
140, 70nm, so the distance from slave to hyperbola is 70 + 10 = 80nm.

6. Doppler memory

(a) allows a series of waypoints to be held by the equipment

(b) allows continued operation if the receiver unlocks
(c) operates for 8 to 10 seconds and then the system unlocks
(d) allows a series of standard routes to be stored

Solution: Doppler memory allows the system to continue operating if the receiver unlocks,
perhaps because of calm seas reflecting the transmission or ice attenuating the signal.
Doppler position computers will continue to calculate aircraft position based on the
last calculated wind for an indefinite period. Do not confuse with DME memory.

7. If the land/sea bias switch is incorrectly set over land the Doppler groundspeed will be

(a) too high

(b) too low
(c) unaffected

Solution: Use of the land/sea bias switch over the sea boosts the groundspeed by a set
percentage to overcome the fact that a lot of the energy from the Doppler beam is
scattered forward and does not return to the receiver. This causes an under reading of
the ground speed and an over estimate of the time to run to the next way-point. If the
switch is left in the 'sea' position after coasting in then the groundspeed over reads.

8. Doppler systems with Janus arrays suffer from......................but do not suffer from
...............................

(a) pitch error thunderstorms

(b) vertical speed error pitch error
(c) lane slip night effect
(d) sea movement error vertical speed error

Solution: Sea movement error is a common problem with Doppler systems that the Janus array
cannot compensate for. Vertical speed error and pitch error are removed as the errors
at the front beams cancel those at the back. Thunderstorms do not affect Doppler
(much), night effect is an NDB error and lane slip is a Decca error.

9. Position fixing by satellite is by means of:

(a) Simultaneous bearings from a number of satellites

(b) Range and bearing from a number of satellites
(c) Simultaneous range from a number of satellites
(d) Simultaneous range and bearings from a number of satellites

Solution: Satellite position fixing is from a simultaneous or near simultaneous set of ranges
from a number of satellites. The ranges are calculated on the basis of how long the
signal takes to travel from the satellite to the receiver.

10. The dGPS is:

(a) The time difference between the transmission of the satellite coded signal and the
time that it is received at the aircraft
(b) The time difference between the satellite and the aircraft GPS unit transmitting the
same code point on the signal
 (c) The correction applied to the "raw" GPS position to obtain a more precise position
(d) Deliberate dilution of performance by the United States Department of Defence

Solution: Differential GPS or dGPS applies a correction to the raw satellite position to find an
updated position of much greater accuracy. The Wide Area Augmentation System is
a development of dGPS.
11. The reason that the satellites of GPS and GLONASS do not collide is that:

(a) The GPS orbits at 55 degrees to the equator while GLONASS orbits at 60 degrees
(b) The GPS satellite orbits are 1200 km higher than the GLONASS orbits
(c) GLONASS has 3 orbital planes while GPS has 6
(d) GLONASS has 6 orbital planes while GPS has 3

Solution: They don’t collide because they operate at different heights. The soviet system is at
10250nm, 19,000km, the US system is at 10,900nm, 20,200km.

12. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) GPS can provide both 2 and 3 dimensional fixes

(b) GPS can only provide position in Lat and Long
(c) GPS can only indicate 2 dimensional position or position lines in the horizontal plane
(d) None of the above

Solution: GPS can provide 2 dimensional fixes with data from 3 satellites and 3 dimensional
fixes with data from 4 satellites.

13. The GPS transmitter frequency which can be used by civil aircraft is:

(a) 1575.2 MHz in the L band

(b) 2227.5 MHz in the S band
(c) 4454.5 MHz in the C band
(d) 2783.5 MHz in the C band

Solution: GPS works in the L band, L1 for C/A and Precise, L2 for Precise. Civilian users
employ the L1 C/A code only

14. The accuracy of range measurement of satellite to GPS receiver is:

(a) dependant on the phase difference between satellite transmissions

(b) seriously eroded during periods of anomalous propagation
(c) reliant on accurate time-pieces in the satellite and the aircraft GPS receiver
(d) never less than 400 metres

Solution: Range measurement depends on the time difference being measured correctly. The
satellites use atomic clocks, the receivers use very accurate electronic clocks.

15. Satellites used in GNSS orbit the earth once every

(a) 6 hours
(b) 10 hours
(c) 12 hours
(d) 24 hours

Solution: About every 12 hours.

16. Satellite geometry error is greatest when:

 (a) Satellites are closest together
(b) Satellites are spaced well apart
(c) Satellites are nearest the horizon
(d) Satellites are farthest from the horizon

Solution: GDOP is greatest when the satellites are either close together or in opposition. The
geometry produces a fine cut of range arcs so that any range errors produce a large
position error (by GPS standards)

17. Loran is available for use:

(a) only at published times

(b) world-wide, pole to pole
(c) in North America, Europe and the Mediterranean where chains exist
(d) only during daylight hours

Solution: Loran relies on chains of beacons and works day and night..

18. Loran operates on:

(a) 100 KHz

(b) 100 MHz
(c) 200 KHz
(d) 200 MHz

Solution: 100KHz at the low end of LF, Answer (a)

19. Loran position lines and fixes in the coverage area are:

(a) available both day and night.

(b) unreliable at morning and evening twilight
(c) unreliable along the chain baseline
(d) unreliable at noon

Solution: Loran is equally reliable both by day and night and most accurate on the baseline.

20. The time difference is measured in a Loran receiver by a process known as:

(a) scalloping
(b) indexing
(c) hyperbolicking
(d) multiplexing

Solution: Scalloping is a VOR error, Indexing is the method Loran uses to discount interfering
sky waves in order to improve accuracy, hyperbolicking is a made up word and
multiplexing is the method by which MLS sends both azimuth and elevation signals
on the same frequency.

21. A Loran C position line is:

(a) A line of equal difference of distance from a master and a slave station derived by
phase comparison.
(b) A line of fixed distance from a master and a slave station derived from a constant
time difference
(c) A line of equal difference of distance from a master and a slave station derived from
a constant time difference
 (d) A line of fixed distance from a master and a slave station derived by phase
comparison

Solution: Loran position lines are hyperbolic, that is to say lines of equal difference in distance
or differential distance. It works by time differences.

22. GPS transmission codes are termed "pseudo-random" because:

(a) while the codes are not random they appear to be so due to deliberate degrading of
the transmission by the US Department of Defence
(b) whilst the 'Precise' code is a precision bit stream the 'coarse acquisition' is not
(c) the size of the bit-stream is so large that it appears to be random
(d) of the random transmission sequence despite the codes being 'precise'

Solution: The size (and structure) of the digital data stream is such that it appears disorganised
and random

23. The GPS satellite navigation system suffers from the following errors:

(a) Ephemeris, interference from other satellites, propagation

(b) Ephemeris, clock bias, propagation
(c) Interference from other satellites, clock bias, time lag
(d) Ephemeris, time lag, interference from other satellites

Solution: Ephemeris is the satellite being in a different position to that transmitted in the
almanac information, interference from other satellites does not happen because each
set of pseudo random code has an identifier in it, atmospheric and ionospheric
propogation errors do occur. Clock bias is a timing error either at the satellite or the
receiver leading to Time Dilution Of Precision (TDOP). Time lag is not an error, it is
how the system works.

24. The GPS satellite navigation system operates by

(a) phase comparison

(b) measuring the time for the signal to reach the receiver
(c) measuring the time for the signal to travel to the receiver and back
(d) measuring the phase of the incoming signal

Solution: The receiver calculates how long the signal has taken to travel to it from the satellite.
Nothing goes back.

25. How many satellites are required for a 3D GPS fix using RAIM with the ability to discard one
faulty satellite?

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

Solution: A 3D fix needs 4 satellites. RAIM needs one more to operate and a spare if one is to
be discarded making a total of 6.

26. The GPS Navstar system transmits in the L1 and L2 frequency bands. Which bands are used
for the P codes and which for the C/A codes?

(a) Higher frequency for the P code only

(b) Higher frequency for the C/A and P codes
 (c) Higher frequency for the C/A code and lower frequency for the P code
(d) Lower frequency for the C/A code and higher frequency for the P code

Solution: The L1 band holds C/A and P codes, the L2 P only.

27. The height of the GPS Navstar system above the earth in km is:

(a) 10250
(b) 10900
(c) 19000
(d) 20200

Solution: These are the heights in nautical miles and kilometres. The GPS system is higher
than the GLONASS at 10900nm or 20200km.

28. What fix can be obtained from four satellites of the GPS system disregarding RAIM?

(a) Latitude and longitude

(b) Latitude, longitude and altitude
(c) Latitude, longitude and time
(d) Latitude, longitude, altitude and time

Solution: 4 satellites give a 3D fix, latitude, longitude and height referenced to WGS84. Time
is always calculated because there will always some receiver clock bias to be taken
out before the first fix is announced.

29. The geodetic reference system used to define latitude and longitude by GPS equipment is:-

(a) UKGRS 90
(b) GDR 95
(c) OSGB 36
(d) WGS 84

Solution: The World Geodetic System of 1984 or WGS84.

30. The Navstar satellite system has _____ orbital planes crossing the equator at ______ at an
altitude of ________

(a) 6 60º 10,900 nm

(b) 3 65º 10,250 km
(c) 6 55º 10 900 nm
(d) 5 60º 10,250 nm

Solution: Navstar is the American GPS system. It has 6 orbital planes that cross the equator at
a 55º angle at 10900nm or 20200km.
 Radio Navigation
Progress Test 5, Area Navigation

1. Basic RNAV requires a navigational accuracy of

(a) 1nm
(b) 2nm
(c) 5nm
(d) 10nm

Solution: Basic RNAV requires and accuracy of 5nm or RNP5, Precision RNAV requires an
accuracy of 1nm, RNP1.

2. PRNAV requires a navigational accuracy of

(a) 1nm
(b) 2nm
(c) 5nm
(d) 10nm

Solution: Basic RNAV requires and accuracy of 5nm or RNP5, Precision RNAV requires an
accuracy of 1nm, RNP1.

3. A cost index of zero on an FMS is

(a) minimum time

(b) minimum range
(c) maximum range
(d) maximum time

Solution: A cost index of 000 is described as ‘maximum range’ which means the same as
‘minimum fuel for the distance’. A cost index of 200, the maximum on the B737, or
400, the maximum on certain other types, means minimum time.

4. Basic RNAV equipment is used to define a phantom waypoint that bears 160ºM 25nm from a
VOR/DME which is itself 28nm away from the aircraft. The phantom waypoint is 6nm away
from the aircraft in plan range and 6.5nm away in slant range. The range displayed with ENR
RNAV selected is:

(a) 25nm
(b) 28nm
(c) 6nm
(d) 6.5nm

Solution: The range displayed is the plan range to the phantom waypoint, 6nm.

5. Basic RNAV equipment can create a phantom waypoint based on

(a) Two VORs

(b) Two DMEs
(c) VOR and DME
(d) any of the above

Solution: It only works with VOR/DME, mostly because it can only tune one VOR beacon and
its associated DME, not two.

6. The FMS database is updated by

 (a) the pilot every day
(b) the groundcrew every 28 days
(c) the pilots every 28 days
(d) the groundcrew every calendar month

Solution: By the groundcrew every 28 days.

7. The FMS IDENT page can be selected from the

(a) TAKEOFF REF page

(b) ROUTE page
(c) INDEX page
(d) PERF INIT page

Solution: The IDENT page can be accessed from the main INDEX page.

8. On an EFIS ND in the NAV mode the aircraft shows one dot right of track. This is equivalent
to:

(a) 1nm
(b) 5º
(c) 2nm
(d) 2º

Solution: Lateral displacement is shown as a distance in NAV but as an angle in VOR or ILS.
One dot is 2nm in NAV, 5º in VOR and either 1º or 0.5º in ILS, 0.5º if the localiser
scale has automatically expanded.

9. The FMC position is most likely to be inaccurate at

(a) take-off
(b) top of climb
(c) top of descent
(d) landing

Solution: Straight out of the B737 manual:

Flight crews are advised to monitor FMC position carefully particularly when
approaching the destination as the FMC position may be based solely on IRS data
and may not be as accurate as desired. The accuracy of the FMC position should be
checked in the descent using radio aids and radar information if available.

10. When power is applied to the FMS the first page in view is

(a) IDENT
(b) INDEX
(c) PERF INIT
(d) ALIGN

Solution: It should be IDENT.

11. The FMC position is

(a) the same as the IRS position

(b) the same as the FMC radio position
(c) calculated from IRS and radio data
(d) half way between the IRS and radio positions
Solution: The FMC takes an average of the IRS positions taking into account predicted IRS
drift or, in some aircraft, uses just IRS1. The FMC position is obtained by comparing
the mixed IRS position with the radio position, where available, which has very small
errors. The FMC position will be between the two but much closer to the radio
position than the IRS as the radio errors are very small.

12. The colour of the FMS desired track on the Nav Display is

(a) white
(b) blue
(c) magenta
(d) yellow

Solution: Magenta

13. When the crew modify the route in use they

(a) change the database information

(b) modify the route for one flight only
(c) update the IRS position
(d) invalidate the LNAV function

Solution: When the crew modify the route they are not changing the database on the ‘hard
drive’ of the FMS, only the route in the working memory, the ‘RAM’. Nothing
updates the IRS position apart from a manual input by the crew, which in flight is
rare (and very brave) and the LNAV function will continue to work fine.

14. FMS radio aid fixing priority from most preferred to least preferred is

(a) VOR/DME, DME/DME, VOR/VOR

(b) VOR/DME, VOR/VOR, DME/DME
(c) DME/DME, VOR/DME, VOR/VOR
(d) DME/DME, VOR/VOR, VOR/DME

Solution: Double DME gives the most accurate fix because the errors from DME are less than
those from VORs. The B737400 will only accept double DME. The next down the
list is VOR/DME and some aircraft, not the Airbus, will grudgingly work with
VOR/VOR fixes.

15. If the CRZ WIND entry has been left blank which of the following statements is true for an
aircraft in flight?

(a) the ETA at the next waypoint will be accurate but the ETA at destination will be
wrong
(b) the ETA at the next waypoint and at destination will be wrong
(c) the ETA at the next waypoint will be wrong but destination ETA will be correct
(d) All ETAs will be correct because the FMS calculates wind in flight

Solution: If CRZ WIND is left blank (and the detailed sector winds are also left blank) the
FMS defaults to still air. The ETA is calculated to the next waypoint based on actual
wind and subsequent ETAs are based on the entered wind. This means the ETa at the
next waypoint will be pretty accurate but the destination ETA is likely to be wrong.

16. When entering data into the FMS it is

(a) optional to fill in block prompts and mandatory to fill in dash prompts
(b) mandatory to fill in all prompts
(c) optional to fill in all prompts as the FMS will enter default values
(d) optional to fill in dash prompts and mandatory to fill in box prompts
Solution: Box prompts are mandatory and dash prompts are optional.

17. Unless modified, the transition altitude defaults to

(a) 3,000ft
(b) 5,000ft
(c) 12,000ft
(d) 18,000ft

Solution: 18,000ft. This is the transition altitude in the USA.

18. Which of the following statements is true for an aircraft stationary on the ground?

(a) The IRS will indicate a groundspeed because of earth rotation

(b) The IRS will not indicate a groundspeed because the aircraft is stationary
(c) The IRS may indicate a groundspeed if the IRS position is drifting
(d) The IRS may indicate a groundspeed if the FMC radio position is drifting

Solution: The IRS may indicate a small groundspeed as its position drifts. Radio updates to
position are not available on the ground.

19. FMS steering along a specified route is provided by selecting ..........and climb and descent
profiles can be commanded by selecting ..............on the autopilot control panel

(a) VNAV CLB/DESC

(b) LNAV VNAV
(c) VNAV LNAV
(d) HDG CLB/DESC

Solution: FMS steering is LNAV, Lateral NAVigation. CLB/DESC is not an FMS or autopilot
function. VNAV provides climb and descent profiles as entered into the FMS.

20. Which of the following are valid 5 digit entries in the FMS database that may be entered as
manual waypoints?

(i) waypoint identifier

(ii) navaid identifier
(iii) airway designator
(iv) runway number
(v) airport ICAO identifier
(vi) FIR or UIR boundary ICAO identifier

(a) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)

(b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) all six
(d) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

Solution: Valid entries are

• waypoint identifier (waypoint name)

• navaid identifier
• runway number
• airport ICAO identifier

This is straight out of the B737 manual and only relevant because it is tested in the
exams.