Excel Review Center ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1

What is a selective fading effect? D. Radio waves may be bent. (Ans.) D. Transequatorial propagation only
works at night.
A. A fading effect caused by small How much farther does the radio-path
changes in beam heading at the horizon distance exceed the geometric What is knife-edge diffraction?
receiving station. horizon?
B. A fading effect caused by phase A. Allows normally line-of-sight signals
differences between radiowave A. By approximately 15% of the to bend around sharp edges, mountain
components of the same transmission, distance. (Ans.) ridges, buildings and other
as experienced at the receiving station. B. By approximately twice the distance. obstructions. (Ans.)
(Ans.) C. By approximately one-half the B. Arcing in sharp bends of conductors.
C. A fading effect caused by large distance. C. Phase angle image rejection.
changes in the height of the D. By approximately four times the D. Line-of-sight signals causing
ionosphere, as experienced at the distance. distortion to other signals.
receiving station.
D. A fading effect caused by time What propagation condition is usually The bending of radio waves passing over
differences between the indicated when a VHF signal is received the top of a mountain range that disperses
receiving and transmitting stations. from a station over 500 miles away? a weak portion of the signal behind the
mountain is:
What is the propagation effect called A. D-layer absorption.
when phase differences between radio B. Faraday rotation. A. Eddy-current phase effect.
wave components of the same C. Tropospheric ducting. (Ans.) B. Knife-edge diffraction. (Ans.)
transmission are experienced at the D. Moonbounce. C. Shadowing.
recovery station? D. Mirror refraction effect.
What happens to a radio wave as it travels
A. Faraday rotation. in space and collides with other particles? Knife-edge diffraction:
B. Diversity reception.
C. Selective fading. (Ans.) A. Kinetic energy is given up by the A. Is the bending of UHF frequency radio
D. Phase shift. radio wave. (Ans.) waves around a building, mountain or
B. Kinetic energy is gained by the radio obstruction.
What is the major cause of selective wave. B. Causes the velocity of wave
fading? C. Aurora is created. propagation to be different from
D. Nothing happens since radio waves original wave.
A. Small changes in beam heading at the have no physical substance. C. Is the bending of UHF frequency radio
receiving station. waves around a building, mountain or
B. Large changes in the height of the When the earth's atmosphere is struck by obstruction and causes the velocity of
ionosphere, as experienced at the a meteor, a cylindrical region of free wave propagation to be different from
receiving station. electrons is formed at what layer of the original wave. (Ans.)
C. Time differences between the ionosphere? D. Attenuates UHF signals.
receiving and transmitting
stations. A. The F1 layer. The radar range in nautical miles to an
D. Phase differences between radio wave B. The E layer. (Ans.) object can be found by measuring the
components of the same transmission, C. The F2 layer. elapsed time during a radar pulse and
as experienced at the receiving station. D. The D layer. dividing this quantity by:
(Ans.)
What is transequatorial propagation? A. 0.87 seconds.
Which emission modes suffer the most B. 1.15 microseconds.
from selective fading? A. Propagation between two points at C. 12.36 microseconds. (Ans.)
approximately the same distance north D. 1.73 microseconds.
A. CW and SSB. and south of the magnetic
B. FM and double sideband AM. (Ans.) equator.(Ans.) The band of frequencies least susceptible
C. SSB and image. B. Propagation between two points on the to atmospheric noise and interference is:
D. SSTV and CW. magnetic equator.
C. Propagation between two continents A. 30 - 300 kHz.
How does the bandwidth of the by way of ducts along the magnetic B. 300 - 3000 kHz.
transmitted signal affect selective fading? equator. C. 3 - 30 MHz.
D. Propagation between any two stations D. 300 - 3000 MHz. (Ans.)
A. It is more pronounced at wide at the same latitude.
bandwidths. (Ans.) What is the relationship in degrees of the
B. It is more pronounced at narrow What is the maximum range for signals electrostatic and electromagnetic fields of
bandwidths. using transequatorial propagation? an antenna?
C. It is equally pronounced at both
narrow and wide bandwidths. A. About 1,000 miles. A. 0 degrees.
D. The receiver bandwidth determines B. About 2,500 miles. B. 45 degrees.
the selective fading effect. C. About 5,000 miles. (Ans.) C. 90 degrees. (Ans.)
D. About 7,500 miles. D. 180 degrees.
What phenomenon causes the radio-path
horizon distance to exceed the geometric What is the best time of day for Which of the following is not one of the
horizon? transequatorial propagation? natural ways a radio wave may travel
from transmitter to receiver?
A. E-layer skip. A. Morning.
B. D-layer skip. B. Noon. A. Ground wave.
C. Auroral skip. C. Afternoon or early evening. (Ans.) B. Micro wave. (Ans.)

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Excel Review Center ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1
C. Sky wave. C. Optimum useable frequency (OUF). A. Vertical, vertical
D. Space wave. (Ans.) B. Vertical, horizontal (Ans.)
D. Critical frequency. C. Horizontal, vertical
Which of the following terrain types D. Horizontal, horizontal
permits a ground wave to travel the Tropospheric scatter is a method of sky
farthest? wave propagation for which of the Ducts often form over:
following frequency bands?
A. Salt water. (Ans.) A. Dry and arid deserts
B. Fresh water. A. 300 kHz to 3 MHz. B. Cold arctic regions (Ans.)
C. Sandy. B. 3 MHz to 30 MHz. C. Highly industrialized regions
D. Rocky. C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz. D. Water
D. 300 MHz to 3 GHz. (Ans.)
Which of the following frequency bands What is a frequency standard?
is best suited for ground wave Which of the following methods are used
propagation? for diversity reception to overcome the A. A well known (standard) frequency
effects of tropospheric scattering of a sky used for transmitting certain messages.
A. 30 kHz to 300 kHz. (Ans.) wave? B. A device used to produce a highly
B. 300 kHz to 3 MHz. accurate reference
C. 3 MHz to 30 MHz. A. Frequency diversity. (Ans.) frequency. (Ans.)
D. 30 MHz to 300 MHz. B. Phase diversity. C. A device for accurately measuring
C. Amplitude diversity. frequency to within 1 Hz.
Which of the following frequency bands D. Critical diversity. D. A device used to generate wide-band
is best suited for sky wave propagation? random frequencies.
Which of the following will not
A. 30 kHz to 300 kHz. significantly reduce the effects of fading? What is a frequency-marker generator?
B. 3 MHz to 30 MHz. (Ans.)
C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz. A. Use an antenna with a good front to A. A device used to produce a highly
D. 3 GHz to 30 GHz. back ratio. accurate reference
B. Use an antenna with a sharp frontal frequency. (Ans.)
Which of the following layers of the lobe. B. A sweep generator.
ionosphere has no effect on sky wave C. Use an antenna with a minimum C. A broadband white noise generator.
propagation during the hours of darkness? number of spurious side and back D. A device used to generate wide-band
lobes. random frequencies.
A. D. (Ans.) D. Use an antenna with good omni
B. E. directional pattern. (Ans.) How is a frequency-marker generator
C. F. used?
D. None of these. Which of the following terms is not used
to define ionospheric variations? A. In conjunction with a grid-dip meter.
Which of the following least affects B. To provide reference points on a
refraction of sky waves? A. Seasonal variations. receiver dial. (Ans.)
B. Geographical variations. C. As the basic frequency element of a
A. Frequency of the radio wave. C. Cyclical variations. transmitter.
B. Density of the ionized layer. D. Tropospheric scatter variations. D. To directly measure wavelength.
C. Angle at which the radio wave enters (Ans.)
the ionosphere. How is a frequency counter used?
D. Geographical variations. (Ans.) The polarization of a radio wave:
A. To provide reference points on an
The area that lies between the outer limit A. Is perpendicular to the electrostatic analog receiver dial
of the ground wave range and the inner field of the antenna. thereby aiding in the alignment of the
edge of energy returned from the B. Is the same direction as the receiver.
ionosphere is called: electrostatic field of the B. To heterodyne the frequency being
antenna. (Ans.) measured with a known variable
A. The critical angle. C. Is the same direction as the magnetic frequency oscillator until zero beat is
B. The skip zone. (Ans.) field of the antenna. achieved, thereby indicating what the
C. The skip distance. D. Is perpendicular to both the unknown frequency is.
D. The shadow. electrostatic and magnetic. C. To measure the deviation in an FM
fields of the antenna transmitter in order to determine the
Skip Distance can be maximized by using percentage of modulation.
the ____ radiation angle possible and the The direction of propagation of a radio D. To measure the time between events,
____ frequency that will be refracted at wave is ____ to the electrostatic field of or the frequency which is the
that angle. the antenna and ____ to the magnetic field reciprocal of the time. (Ans.)
of the antenna.
A. Lowest, lowest. What is a dip-meter?
B. Lowest, highest. (Ans.) A. Parallel, parallel
C. Highest, lowest. B. Parallel, perpendicular A. A meter used as a nonradiating load
D. Highest, highest. C. Perpendicular, parallel (dummy load) to measure transmitter
D. Perpendicular, perpendicular (Ans.) output power.
To obtain the most reliable sky wave B. A meter used to measure the reflection
propagation the ____ should be used. Most AM broadcasts employ ____ coefficient of an RF transmission path.
polarization while most FM broadcasts C. A variable LC oscillator with metered
A. Lowest useable frequency (LUF). employ ____ polarization of the radio feedback current.(Ans.)
B. Maximum useable frequency (MUF). wave.

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Excel Review Center
D. A fixed tuned LC oscillator used to
troubleshoot RF tank circuits.
How does a dip-meter function?
A. Reflected waves at a specific
frequency desensitize the
detector coil.
B. Power absorbed by a resonant circuit
causes a decrease in dip-meter current.
(Ans.)
C. Power from a transmitter cancels
feedback current.
D. Harmonics of the oscillator cause an
increase in resonant circuit Q resulting
in an increase in transmitter output
power.
What two ways could a dip-meter be used
in a radio station?
A. To measure resonant frequency of
antenna traps and to measure
percentage of modulation.
B. To measure antenna resonance and to
measure percentage of modulation.
C. To measure antenna resonance and to
measure antenna
impedance.
D. To measure resonant frequency of
antenna traps and to measure a tuned
circuit resonant frequency. (Ans.)
How tight should the dip-meter be
coupled with the tuned circuit being
checked?
A. As loosely as possible, for best
accuracy. (Ans.)
B. As tightly as possible, for best
accuracy.
C. First loose, then tight, for best
accuracy.
D. With a soldered jumper wire between
the meter and the circuit to be
checked, for best accuracy.
What factors limit the accuracy and
stability of a frequency counter?
A. Number of digits in the readout, speed
of the logic and time base stability.
B. Time base accuracy, speed of the logic
and time base
stability. (Ans.)
C. Time base accuracy, temperature
coefficient of the logic and time base
stability.
D. Number of digits in the readout,
external frequency reference and
temperature coefficient of the logic.
How can the frequency response of an
oscilloscope be improved?
A. By using a triggered sweep and a
crystal oscillator as the time base.
B. By using a crystal oscillator as the
time base and increasing the vertical
sweep rate.
ECE Refresher/Coaching Course
C. By increasing the vertical sweep rate
and the horizontal
amplifier frequency response.
D. By decreasing the minimum rise time
of the vertical
amplifier. (Ans.)
How can the accuracy of a frequency
counter be improved?
A. By using slower gating circuitry and
increasing the number of digits used
for display.
B. By increasing the amount of time the
control gate is held open, more pulses
can be counted.
C. By using a crystal controlled oscillator
mounted in a thermal oven for the time
base. (Ans.)
D. By using faster gating circuitry and
decreasing the number of digits used
for display.
What is the name of the condition that
occurs when the signals of two
transmitters in close proximity mix
together in one or both of their final
amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the
sum and difference frequencies of the
original transmissions are generated?
A. Amplifier desensitization.
B. Neutralization.
C. Adjacent channel interference.
D. Intermodulation interference. (Ans.)
How does intermodulation interference
between two transmitters usually occur?
A. When the signals from the transmitters
are reflected out of phase from
airplanes passing overhead.
B. When they are in close proximity and
the signals mix in one or both of their
final amplifiers. (Ans.)
C. When they are in close proximity and
the signals cause.
feedback in one or both of their final
amplifiers.
D. When the signals from the transmitters
are reflected in phase from airplanes
passing overhead.
How can intermodulation interference
between two transmitters in close
proximity often be reduced or eliminated?
A. By using a Class C final amplifier
with high driving power.
B. By installing a terminated circulator or
ferrite isolator in
the feed line to the transmitter and
duplexer. (Ans.)
C. By installing a band-pass filter in the
antenna feed line.
D. By installing a low-pass filter in the
antenna feed line.
What will occur when a non-linear
amplifier is used with a single-sideband
phone transmitter?
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A. Reduced amplifier efficiency.
B. Increased intelligibility.
C. Sideband inversion.
D. Distortion. (Ans.)
How can even-order harmonics be
reduced or prevented in transmitter
amplifier design?
A. By using a push-push amplifier.
B. By using a push-pull amplifier. (Ans.)
C. By operating class C.
D. By operating class AB.
What is receiver desensitizing?
A. A burst of noise when the squelch is
set too low.
B. A burst of noise when the squelch is
set too high.
C. A reduction in receiver sensitivity
because of a strong
signal on a nearby frequency. (Ans.)
D. A reduction in receiver sensitivity
when the AF gain control is turned
down.
What is the term used to refer to a
reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by
unwanted high-level adjacent channel
signals?
A. Intermodulation distortion.
B. Quieting.
C. Desensitizing. (Ans.)
D. Overloading.
What is cross-modulation interference?
A. Interference between two transmitters
of different modulation type.
B. Interference caused by audio
rectification in the receiver
preamp.
C. Harmonic distortion of the transmitted
signal.
D. Modulation from an unwanted signal
is heard in addition to the desired
signal. (Ans.)
What is the term used to refer to the
condition where the signals from a very
strong station are superimposed on other
signals being received?
A. Intermodulation distortion.
B. Cross-modulation interference. (Ans.)
C. Receiver quieting.
D. Capture effect.
What is the capture effect?
A. All signals on a frequency are
demodulated by an FM receiver.
B. All signals on a frequency are
demodulated by an AM receiver.
C. The strongest signal received is the
only demodulated signal. (Ans.)
D. The weakest signal received is the
only demodulated signal.
Excel Review Center
If a strong FM-phone signal and a weak
FM-phone signal, both using the same
carrier frequency, are received
simultaneously, why is only one
demodulated?
A. Strong signal desensitizes the receiver
circuitry to block
the weak signal.
B. Strong signal causes cross-modulation
interference to prevent the weaker
signal from being received.
C. Strong signal captures the local
oscillator preventing the
weak signal from being detected.
(Ans.)
D. Strong signal forces the receiver RF
amps to discriminate against the
weaker signal.
How does a spectrum analyzer differ from
a conventional oscilloscope?
A. The oscilloscope is used to display
electrical signals while the spectrum
analyzer is used to measure
ionospheric reflection.
B. The oscilloscope is used to display
electrical signals in the frequency
domain while the spectrum analyzer is
used to display electrical signals in the
time domain.
C. The oscilloscope is used to display
electrical signals in the time domain
while the spectrum analyzer is used to
display electrical signals in the
frequency domain. (Ans.)
D. The oscilloscope is used for
displaying audio frequencies and the
spectrum analyzer is used for
displaying radio frequencies.
What does the horizontal axis of a
spectrum analyzer display?
A. Amplitude.
B. Voltage.
C. Resonance.
D. Frequency. (Ans.)
What does the vertical axis of a spectrum
analyzer display?
A. Amplitude. (Ans.)
B. Duration.
C. Frequency.
D. Time.
What test instrument can be used to
display spurious signals in the output of a
radio transmitter?
A. A spectrum analyzer. (Ans.)
B. A wattmeter.
C. A logic analyzer.
D. A time-domain reflectometer.
What test instrument is used to display
intermodulation distortion products from
an SSB transmitter?
A. A wattmeter.
ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1
B. An audio distortion analyzer. (Ans.) B. A tachometer.
C. A logic analyzer. C. Linear detector.
D. A time-domain reflectometer. D. Ceramic filter.
How can ferrite beads be used to suppress Pulse type interference to radio receivers
ignition noise? in automobiles can be reduced by:
A. Install them in the resistive high A. Connecting resistances in series with
voltage cable every 2 years. the spark plugs. (Ans.)
B. Install them between the starter B. Using heavy conductors between the
solenoid and the starter motor. starting battery and the starting motor.
C. Install them in the primary and C. Connecting resistances in series with
secondary ignition leads.(Ans.) the starting battery.
D. Install them in the antenna lead. D. Grounding the negative side of the
starting battery.
How can you determine if a line-noise
interference problem is being generated Magnetron oscillators are used for:
within a building?
A. Generating SHF signals. (Ans.)
A. Check the power-line voltage with a B. Multiplexing.
time-domain reflectometer. C. Generating rich harmonics.
B. Observe the AC wave form on an D. FM demodulation.
oscilloscope.
C. Turn off the main circuit breaker and Which of the following pieces of test
listen on a battery-operated radio. equipment will permit you to measure the
(Ans.) percentage of modulation of a transmitter
D. Observe the power-line voltage on a signal on an oscilloscope when the
spectrum analyzer. frequency of the RF exceeds the
frequency response of the oscilloscope's
A high standing wave ratio on a vertical amplifiers?
transmission line can be caused by:
A. Wow and flutter meter.
A. Excessive modulation. B. Curve tracer.
B. An increase in output power. C. Linear detector. (Ans.)
C. Detuned antenna coupling. (Ans.) D. Vector-impedance meter.
D. Poor B+ regulation.
Typical airborne HF transmitters usually
Which of the following contains a provide a nominal RF power output to the
multirange AF voltmeter calibrated in dB antenna of ____ watts, compared with
and a sharp, internal 1000 Hz bandstop ____ watts RF output from a typical VHF
filter, both used in conjunction with each transmitter.
other to perform quieting tests?
A. 10, 50.
A. Reflectometer. B. 50, 10.
B. Dip meter. C. 20, 100.
C. SINAD meter. (Ans.) D. 100, 20. (Ans.)
D. Vector-impedance meter.
Which of the following devices is a key
A(n) ____ and ____ can be combined to element in modern day ADF systems?
measure the characteristics of
transmission lines and such an A. Goniometer. (Ans.)
arrangement is known as a time-domain B. Deflection yoke.
reflectometer (TDR). C. UART integrated circuit.
D. Swinging choke.
A. Frequency spectrum analyzer, RF
generator. An absorption wave meter is useful in
B. Oscilloscope, pulse generator. (Ans.) measuring:
C. AC millivolt meter, AF generator.
D. Frequency counter, linear detector. A. Field strength.
B. Output frequencies to conform with
Which of the following can not be NTC tolerance.
measured with an admittance meter? C. Standing wave frequencies.
D. The resonant frequency of a powered
A. Conductance and susceptance. LC tank circuit. (Ans.)
B. Voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR).
C. Reflection coefficient. Neglecting line losses, the RMS voltage
D. Capacitance and inductance. (Ans.) along an RF transmission line having no
standing waves:
One piece of equipment to indicate
neutralization is: A. Is equal to the impedance.
B. Is one-half of the surge impedance.
A. A neon bulb. (Ans.)
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Excel Review Center ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1
C. Is the product of the surge impedance An oscilloscope can be used to B. Line.
times the line current. (Ans.) accomplish all of the following except: C. Square.
D. Varies sinusoidally along the line. D. Triangle. (Ans.)
A. Measure electron flow with the aide of
Waveguides are: a resistor. To produce a single-sideband suppressed
B. Measure phase difference between two carrier transmission it is necessary to
A. A hollow conductor that carries RF. signals. ____ the carrier and to ____ the unwanted
(Ans.) C. Measure electrical pressure. sideband.
B. Solid copper conductor for RF. D. Measure velocity of light with the aide
C. Special type of coaxial cables. of a light emitting diode. (Ans.) A. Filter, filter.
D. Special alloy wire able to conduct B. Filter, cancel.
high frequencies. SSB transmitters require a(n) ____ C. Cancel, filter. (Ans.)
wattmeter and AM or FM transmitters D. Cancel, cancel.
When a vacuum tube operates at VHF or require a(n) ____ wattmeter.
higher frequencies as compared to lower Which of the following is only required
frequencies: A. RMS-reading, peak-reading. for CW or SSB demodulation?
B. Peak-reading, rms-reading. (Ans.)
A. Transit time of electrons becomes C. Peak-reading, PEP. A. BFO. (Ans.)
important. (Ans.) D. PEP, Peak-reading. B. BPF.
B. It is necessary to make larger C. VFO.
components. What type of antenna system allows you D. VOX.
C. It is necessary to increase grid to receive and transmit at the same time in
spacing. both directions? Which of the following FM detectors does
D. Only a pentode is satisfactory. not require IF limiter stage to precede it?
A. Simplex.
A circulator: B. Duplex. (Ans.) A. Foster-Seeley.
C. Multiplex. B. Ratio. (Ans.)
A. Cools DC motors during heavy loads D. Digital diplex. C. Quadrature.
by turning on a cooling fan for the D. Stagger-tuned.
motors' windings. A microwave device that allows RF
B. Allows two or more antennas to feed energy to pass through in one direction What is emission A3C?
one transmitter. with very little loss but absorbs RF power
C. Allows one antenna to feed two in the opposite direction: A. Facsimile. (Ans.)
separate microwave transmitters and B. RTTY.
receivers at the same time. (Ans.) A. Circulator. C. ATV.
D. Insulates UHF frequencies on B. Wave trap. D. Slow Scan TV.
transmission lines and helps to C. Multiplexer.
dreduce skin effect at high D. Isolator. (Ans.) What type of emission is produced when
frequencies. an amplitude modulated transmitter is
Which of the following is found in an modulated by a facsimile signal?
Coaxial transmission line shielding is improved MOPA but not in a basic
grounded: MOPA? A. A3F.
B. A3C. (Ans.)
A. At the input only. A. Oscillator. C. F3F.
B. At both input and output. (Ans.) B. RF amplifier. D. F3C.
C. At the output only. C. Buffer amplifier. (Ans.)
D. Only when a balanced transmission D. Key. What is emission F3C?
line is needed.
Which of the following is the only service A. Voice transmission.
Motorboating (low frequency oscillations) using self-excited, or variable-frequency, B. Slow Scan TV.
in an amplifier can be stopped by: oscillators in transmitters? C. RTTY.
D. Facsimile. (Ans.)
A. Grounding the screen grid. A. Aviation.
B. Bypassing the screen grid resistor with B. Amateur. (Ans.) What type of emission is produced when a
a 0.1 F capacitor. C. Maritime. frequency modulated transmitter is
C. Connect a capacitor between the B+ D. Government. modulated by a facsimile signal?
lead and ground. (Ans.)
D. Grounding the plate. Aviation services use predominantly ____ A. F3C. (Ans.)
microphones. B. A3C.
What effect could transmitting on marine C. F3F.
SSB have on a running autopilot? A. Carbon. D. A3F.
B. Dynamic. (Ans.)
A. Seldom is there an effect. C. Condenser. What is emission A3F?
B. The autopilot may sharply turn left of D. Piezoelectric crystal.
right. (Ans.) A. RTTY.
C. The autopilot will make a slow What geometric patterns will be displayed B. Television. (Ans.)
clockwise circle. on an oscilloscope if the modulating audio C. SSB.
D. The autopilot will make a slow is fed to the horizontal plates while the D. Modulated CW.
counterclockwise circle. modulated RF is fed to the vertical plates,
assume 100 % modulation? What type of emission is produced when
an amplitude modulated transmitter is
A. Circle. modulated by a television signal?

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Excel Review Center ECE Refresher/Coaching Course
A. F3F. B. The ratio of the maximum carrier
B. A3F. (Ans.) frequency deviation to the highest
C. A3C. audio modulating frequency. (Ans.)
D. F3C. C. The ratio of the carrier center
frequency to the audio modulating
What is emission F3F? frequency.
D. The ratio of the highest audio
A. Modulated CW. modulating frequency to the average
B. Facsimile. audio modulating frequency.
C. RTTY.
D. Television. (Ans.) In an FM-phone signal, what is the term
for the maximum deviation from the
What type of emission is produced when a carrier frequency divided by the
frequency modulated transmitter is maximum audio modulating frequency?
modulated by a television signal?
A. Deviation index.
A. A3F. B. Modulation index.
B. A3C. C. Deviation ratio. (Ans.)
C. F3F. (Ans.) D. Modulation ratio.
D. F3C.
What is meant by the term modulation
How can an FM-phone signal be index?
produced?
A. The processor index.
A. By modulating the supply voltage to a B. The ratio between the deviation of a
class-B amplifier. frequency modulated signal and the
B. By modulating the supply voltage to a modulating frequency. (Ans.)
class-C amplifier. C. The FM signal-to-noise ratio.
C. By using a reactance modulator on an D. The ratio of the maximum carrier
oscillator. (Ans.) frequency deviation to the highest
D. By using a balanced modulator on an audio modulating frequency.
oscillator.
In an FM-phone signal, what is the term
How can a double-sideband phone signal for the ratio between the deviation of the
be produced? frequency-modulated signal and the
modulating frequency?
A. By using a reactance modulator on an
oscillator. A. FM compressibility.
B. By varying the voltage to the varactor B. Quieting index.
in an oscillator circuit. C. Percentage of modulation.
C. By using a phase detector, oscillator, D. Modulation index. (Ans.)
and filter in a feedback loop.
D. By modulating the plate supply How does the modulation index of a
voltage to a class C amplifier. (Ans.) phase-modulated emission vary with the
modulated frequency?
How can a single-sideband phone signal
be produced? A. The modulation index increases as the
RF carrier frequency (the modulated
A. By producing a double sideband frequency) increases.
signal with a balanced modulator and B. The modulation index decreases as the
then removing the unwanted sideband RF carrier frequency (the modulated
by filtering. (Ans.) frequency) increases.
B. By producing a double sideband signal C. The modulation index varies with the
with a balanced modulator and then square root of the RF carrier frequency
removing the unwanted sideband by (the modulated frequency).
heterodyning. D. The modulation index does not
C. By producing a double sideband signal depend on the RF carrier frequency
with a balanced modulator and then (the modulated frequency). (Ans.)
removing the unwanted sideband by
mixing. In an FM-phone signal having a
D. By producing a double sideband maximum frequency deviation of 3.0 kHz
signal with a balanced modulator and either side of the carrier frequency, what
then removing the unwanted sideband is the modulation index when the
by neutralization. modulating frequency is 1.0 kHz?
What is meant by the term deviation A. 3. (Ans.)
ratio? B. 0.3.
C. 3000.
A. The ratio of the audio modulating D. 1000.
frequency to the center carrier
frequency. What is the modulation index of an FM-
phone transmitter producing an
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EST TH 1
instantaneous carrier deviation of 6 kHz
when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating
frequency?
A. 6000.
B. 3. (Ans.)
C. 2000.
D. 1/3.
What are electromagnetic waves?
A. Alternating currents in the core of an
electromagnet.
B. A wave consisting of two electric
fields at right angles to each other.
C. A wave consisting of an electric field
and a magnetic field at right angles to
each other. (Ans.)
D. A wave consisting of two magnetic
fields at right angles to each other.
What is a wavefront?
A. A voltage pulse in a conductor.
B. A current pulse in a conductor.
C. A voltage pulse across a resistor.
D. A fixed point in an electromagnetic
wave. (Ans.)
At what speed do electromagnetic waves
travel in free space?
A. Approximately 300 million meters per
second. (Ans.)
B. Approximately 468 million meters per
second.
C. Approximately 186,300 feet per
second.
D. Approximately 300 million miles per
second.
What are the two interrelated fields
considered to make up an electromagnetic
wave?
A. An electric field and a current field.
B. An electric field and a magnetic field.
(Ans.)
C. An electric field and a voltage field.
D. A voltage field and a current field.
Why do electromagnetic waves not
penetrate a good conductor to any great
extent?
A. The electromagnetic field induces
currents in the insulator.
B. The oxide on the conductor surface
acts as a shield.
C. Because of Eddy currents. (Ans.)
D. The resistivity of the conductor
dissipates the field.
What is meant by referring to
electromagnetic waves as horizontally
polarized?
A. The electric field is parallel to the
earth. (Ans.)
B. The magnetic field is parallel to the
earth.
Excel Review Center ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1
C. Both the electric and magnetic fields What is the approximate DC input power A. The signal duty cycle is less than
are horizontal. to a Class B RF power amplifier stage in 100%. (Ans.)
D. Both the electric and magnetic fields an FM-phone transmitter when the PEP B. The signal reaches peak amplitude
are vertical. output power is 1500 watts? only when voice modulated.
C. The signal reaches peak amplitude
What is meant by referring to A. Approximately 900 watts. only when voltage spikes are
electromagnetic waves as having circular B. Approximately 1765 watts. generated within the modulator.
polarization? C. Approximately 2500 watts. (Ans.) D. The signal reaches peak amplitude
D. Approximately 3000 watts. only when the pulses are also
A. The electric field is bent into a circular amplitude modulated.
shape. What is the approximate DC input power
B. The electric field rotates. (Ans.) to a Class C RF power amplifier stage in a What is one way that voice is transmitted
C. The electromagnetic wave continues RTTY transmitter when the PEP output in a pulse-width modulation system?
to circle the earth. power is 1000 watts?
D. The electromagnetic wave has been A. A standard pulse is varied in
generated by a quad antenna. A. Approximately 850 watts. amplitude by an amount depending on
B. Approximately 1250 watts. (Ans.) the voice waveform at that instant.
When the electric field is perpendicular to C. Approximately 1667 watts. B. The position of a standard pulse is
the surface of the earth, what is the D. Approximately 2000 watts. varied by an amount depending on the
polarization of the electromagnetic wave? voice waveform at that instant.
What is the approximate DC input power C. A standard pulse is varied in duration
A. Circular. to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in by an amount depending on the voice
B. Horizontal. an unmodulated carrier transmitter when waveform at that instant. (Ans.)
C. Vertical. (Ans.) the PEP output power is 500 watts? D. The number of standard pulses per
D. Elliptical. second varies depending on the voice
A. Approximately 250 watts. waveform at that instant.
When the magnetic field is parallel to the B. Approximately 600 watts.
surface of the earth, what is the C. Approximately 800 watts. The International Organization for
polarization of the electromagnetic wave? D. Approximately 1000 watts. (Ans.) Standardization has developed a seven-
level reference model for a packet-radio
A. Circular. Where is the noise generated which communications structure. What level is
B. Horizontal. primarily determines the signal-to-noise responsible for the actual transmission of
C. Elliptical. ratio in a VHF (150 MHz) marine band data and handshaking signals?
D. Vertical. (Ans.) receiver?
A. The physical layer. (Ans.)
When the magnetic field is perpendicular A. In the receiver front end. (Ans.) B. The transport layer.
to the surface of the earth, what is the B. Man-made noise. C. The communications layer.
polarization of the electromagnetic field? C. In the atmosphere. D. The synchronization layer.
D. In the ionosphere.
A. Horizontal. (Ans.) The International Organization for
B. Circular. In a pulse-width modulation system, what Standardization has developed a seven-
C. Elliptical. parameter does the modulating signal level reference model for a packet-radio
D. Vertical. vary? communications structure. What level
arranges the bits into frames and controls
When the electric field is parallel to the A. Pulse duration. (Ans.) data flow?
surface of the earth, what is the B. Pulse frequency.
polarization of the electromagnetic wave? C. Pulse amplitude. A. The transport layer.
D. Pulse intensity. B. The link layer. (Ans.)
A. Vertical. C. The communications layer.
B. Horizontal. (Ans.) What is the type of modulation in which D. The synchronization layer.
C. Circular. the modulating signal varies the duration
D. Elliptical. of the transmitted pulse? What is one advantage of using the ASCII
code, with its larger character set, instead
For many types of voices, what is the ratio A. Amplitude modulation. of the Baudot code?
of PEP to average power during a B. Frequency modulation.
modulation peak in a single-sideband C. Pulse-width modulation. (Ans.) A. ASCII includes built-in error-
phone signal? D. Pulse-height modulation. correction features.
B. ASCII characters contain fewer
A. Approximately 1.0 to 1. In a pulse-position modulation system, information bits than Baudot
B. Approximately 25 to 1. what parameter does the modulating characters.
C. Approximately 2.5 to 1. (Ans.) signal vary? C. It is possible to transmit upper and
D. Approximately 100 to 1. lower case text. (Ans.)
A. The number of pulses per second. D. The larger character set allows store-
In a single-sideband phone signal, what B. Both the frequency and amplitude of and-forward controlcharacters to be
determines the PEP-to-average power the pulses. added to a message.
ratio? C. The duration of the pulses.
D. The time at which each pulse occurs. What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot
A. The frequency of the modulating (Ans.) RTTY data pulse?
signal.
B. The degree of carrier suppression. Why is the transmitter peak power in a A. 11 milliseconds.
C. The speech characteristics. (Ans.) pulse modulation system much greater B. 40 milliseconds.
D. The amplifier power. than its average power? C. 31 milliseconds.

7
Excel Review Center ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1
D. 22 milliseconds. (Ans.) What is the necessary bandwidth of a D. Detecting and demodulating a single-
4800-hertz frequency shift, 9600-baud sideband signal by converting it to a
What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot ASCII emission J2D transmission? pulse-modulated signal.
RTTY start pulse?
A. 15.36 kHz. (Ans.) What is the purpose of a pilot tone in an
A. 11 milliseconds. B. 9.6 kHz. amplitude compandored single sideband
B. 22 milliseconds. (Ans.) C. 4.8 kHz. system?
C. 31 milliseconds. D. 5.76 kHz.
D. 40 milliseconds. A. It permits rapid tuning of a mobile
What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170- receiver. (Ans.)
What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot hertz shift, 110-baud ASCII emission F1B B. It replaces the suppressed carrier at the
RTTY stop pulse? transmission? receiver.
C. It permits rapid change of frequency to
A. 11 milliseconds. A. 304 Hz. escape high-powered interference.
B. 18 milliseconds. B. 314 Hz. (Ans.) D. It acts as a beacon to indicate the
C. 31 milliseconds. (Ans.) C. 608 Hz. present propagation characteristic of
D. 40 milliseconds. D. 628 Hz. the band.

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170- What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170- What is the approximate frequency of the
Hz shift, 45-baud Baudot emission F1B hertz shift, 110-baud ASCII emission J2B pilot tone in an amplitude compandored
transmission? transmission? single sideband system?

A. 45 Hz. A. 304 Hz. A. 1 kHz

B. 249 Hz. (Ans.) B. 314 Hz. (Ans.) B. 5 MHz
C. 442 Hz. C. 608 Hz. C. 455 kHz
D. 600 Hz. D. 628 Hz. D. 3 kHz (Ans.)

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170- What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170- How many more voice transmissions can
hertz shift, 45-baud Baudot emission J2B hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII emission F1D be packed into a given frequency band for
transmission? transmission? amplitude-compandored single-sideband
systems over conventional FM-phone
A. 45 Hz. A. 0 Hz. systems?
B. 249 Hz. (Ans.) B. 0.3 kHz.
C. 442 Hz. C. 0.5 kHz. (Ans.) A. 2
D. 600 Hz. D. 1.0 kHz. B. 4 (Ans.)
C. 8
What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170- What is the necessary bandwidth for a D. 16
hertz shift, 74-baud Baudot emission F1B 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII emission
transmission? J2D transmission? What term describes a wide-bandwidth
communications system in which the RF
A. 250 Hz. A. 0 Hz. carrier varies according to some
B. 278 Hz. (Ans.) B. 0.3 kHz. predetermined sequence?
C. 442 Hz. C. 0.5 kHz. (Ans.)
D. 600 Hz. D. 1.0 kHz. A. Amplitude compandored single
sideband
What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170- What is amplitude compandored single B. SITOR
hertz shift, 74-baud Baudot emission J2B sideband? C. Time-domain frequency modulation
transmission? D. Spread spectrum communication
A. Reception of single sideband with a (Ans.)
A. 250 Hz. conventional CW receiver.
B. 278 Hz. (Ans.) B. Reception of single sideband with a What is the term used to describe a spread
C. 442 Hz. conventional FM receiver. spectrum communications system where
D. 600 Hz. C. Single sideband incorporating speech the center frequency of a conventional
compression at the transmitter and carrier is altered many times per second in
What is the necessary bandwidth of a speech expansion at the receiver. accordance with a pseudo-random list of
1000-hertz shift, 1200-baud ASCII (Ans.) channels?
emission F1D transmission? D. Single sideband incorporating speech
expansion at the transmitter and A. Frequency hopping (Ans.)
A. 1000 Hz. speech compression at the receiver. B. Direct sequence
B. 1200 Hz. C. Time-domain frequency modulation
C. 440 Hz. What is meant by compandoring? D. Frequency compandored spread
D. 2400 Hz. (Ans.) spectrum
A. Compressing speech at the transmitter
What is the necessary bandwidth of a and expanding it at the receiver. What term is used to describe a spread
4800-hertz frequency shift, 9600-baud (Ans.) spectrum communications system in
ASCII emission F1D transmission? B. Using an audio-frequency signal to which a very fast binary bit stream is used
produce pulse-length modulation. to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
A. 15.36 kHz. (Ans.) C. Combining amplitude and frequency
B. 9.6 kHz. modulation to produce a single- A. Frequency hopping
C. 4.8 kHz. sideband signal. B. Direct sequence (Ans.)
D. 5.76 kHz. C. Binary phase-shift keying
D. Phase compandored spread spectrum

8
Excel Review Center ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1
What is the term for the amplitude of the C. The ratio of the amount of power A. Beamwidth may be controlled by non-
maximum positive excursion of a signal produced by the antenna compared to linear impedances.
as viewed on an oscilloscope? the output power of the transmitter. B. The traps form a high impedance to
D. The final amplifier gain minus the isolate parts of the antenna. (Ans.)
A. Peak-to-peak voltage transmission line losses (including any C. The effective radiated power can be
B. Inverse peak negative voltage phasing lines present). increased if the space around the
C. RMS voltage antenna "sees" a high impedance.
D. Peak positive voltage (Ans.) What is the term for a numerical ratio that D. The traps increase the antenna gain.
relates the performance of one antenna to
What is the term for the amplitude of the that of another real or theoretical antenna? What is a parasitic element of an antenna?
maximum negative excursion of a signal
as viewed on an oscilloscope? A. Effective radiated power. A. An element polarized 90 degrees
B. Antenna gain. (Ans.) opposite the driven element.
A. Peak-to-peak voltage C. Conversion gain. B. An element dependent on the antenna
B. Inverse peak positive voltage D. Peak effective power. structure for support.
C. RMS voltage C. An element that receives its excitation
D. Peak negative voltage (Ans.) What is meant by the term antenna from mutual coupling rather than from
bandwidth? a transmission line. (Ans.)
What is the easiest voltage amplitude D. A transmission line that radiates radio-
dimension to measure by viewing a pure A. Antenna length divided by the number frequency energy.
sine wave signal on an oscilloscope? of elements.
B. The frequency range over which an How does a parasitic element generate an
A. Peak-to-peak voltage (Ans.) antenna can be expected to perform electromagnetic field?
B. RMS voltage well. (Ans.)
C. Average voltage C. The angle between the half-power A. By the RF current received from a
D. DC voltage radiation points. connected transmission line.
D. The angle formed between two B. By interacting with the earth's
What is the relationship between the imaginary lines drawn through the magnetic field.
peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage ends of the elements. C. By altering the phase of the current on
amplitude in a symmetrical wave form? the driven element.
What is the wavelength of a shorted stub D. By currents induced into the element
A. 1:1 used to absorb even harmonics? from a surrounding electric
B. 2:1 (Ans.) field. (Ans.)
C. 3:1 A. 1/2 wavelength.
D. 4:1 B. 1/3 wavelength. How does the length of the reflector
C. 1/4 wavelength. (Ans.) element of a parasitic element beam
What input-amplitude parameter is D. 1/8 wavelength. antenna compare with that of the driven
valuable in evaluating the signal-handling element?
capability of a Class A amplifier? What is a trap antenna?
A. It is about 5% longer. (Ans.)
A. Peak voltage. (Ans.) A. An antenna for rejecting interfering B. It is about 5% shorter.
B. Average voltage. signals. C. It is twice as long.
C. RMS voltage. B. A highly sensitive antenna with D. It is one-half as long.
D. Resting voltage. maximum gain in all directions.
C. An antenna capable of being used on How does the length of the director
If 480 kHz is radiated from a 1/4 more than one band because of element of a parasitic element beam
wavelength antenna, what is the 7th the presence of parallel LC networks. antenna compare with that of the driven
harmonic? (Ans.) element?
D. An antenna with a large capture area.
A. 3.360 MHz. (Ans.) A. It is about 5% longer.
B. 840 kHz. What is an advantage of using a trap B. It is about 5% shorter. (Ans.)
C. 3350 kHz. antenna? C. It is one-half as long.
D. 480 kHz. D. It is twice as long.
A. It has high directivity in the high-
What is the seventh harmonic of a 100 frequency bands. What is meant by the term radiation
MHz quarter wavelength antenna? B. It has high gain. resistance for an antenna?
C. It minimizes harmonic radiation.
A. 14.28 MHz. D. It may be used for multiband A. Losses in the antenna elements and
B. 107 MHz. operation. (Ans.) feed line.
C. 149 MHz. B. The specific impedance of the
D. 700 MHz. (Ans.) What is a disadvantage of using a trap antenna.
antenna? C. An equivalent resistance that would
What is meant by the term antenna gain? dissipate the same amount of power as
A. It will radiate harmonics. (Ans.) that radiated from an antenna. (Ans.)
A. The numerical ratio relating the B. It can only be used for single band D. The resistance in the trap coils to
radiated signal strength of an antenna operation. received signals.
to that of another antenna. (Ans.) C. It is too sharply directional at lower
B. The ratio of the signal in the forward frequencies. What are the factors that determine the
direction to the signal in the back D. It must be neutralized. radiation resistance of an antenna?
direction.
What is the principle of a trap antenna? A. Transmission line length and height of
antenna.

9
Excel Review Center ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1
B. The location of the antenna with A. By installing a good ground radial C. Surge impedance.
respect to nearby objects and the system. (Ans.) D. Standing wave ratio.
length/diameter ratio of the B. By isolating the coax shield from
conductors. (Ans.) ground. What is the velocity factor for non-foam
C. It is a constant for all antennas since it C. By shortening the vertical. dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexible coaxial
is a physical constant. D. By lengthening the vertical. cable such as RG 8, 11, 58 and 59?
D. Sunspot activity and the time of day.
Why does a half-wave antenna operate at A. 2.70.
What is a driven element of an antenna? very high efficiency? B. 0.66. (Ans.)
C. 0.30.
A. Always the rearmost element. A. Because it is non-resonant. D. 0.10.
B. Always the forwardmost element. B. Because the conductor resistance is
C. The element fed by the transmission low compared to the radiation What determines the velocity factor in a
line. (Ans.) resistance. (Ans.) transmission line?
D. The element connected to the rotator. C. Because earth-induced currents add to
its radiated power. A. The termination impedance.
What is the usual electrical length of a D. Because it has less corona from the B. The line length.
driven element in a HF beam antenna? element ends than other types of C. Dielectrics in the line. (Ans.)
antennas. D. The center conductor resistivity.
A. 1/4 wavelength.
B. 1/2 wavelength. (Ans.) What is a folded dipole antenna? Why is the physical length of a coaxial
C. 3/4 wavelength. cable transmission line shorter than its
D. 1 wavelength. A. A dipole that is one-quarter electrical length?
wavelength long.
What is the term for an antenna element B. A ground plane antenna. A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the
that is supplied power from a transmitter C. A dipole whose ends are connected by coaxial cable.
through a transmission line? another one-half wavelength piece of B. RF energy moves slower along the
wire. (Ans.) coaxial cable. (Ans.)
A. Driven element. (Ans.) D. A fictional antenna used in theoretical C. The surge impedance is higher in the
B. Director element. discussions to replace the radiation parallel feed line.
C. Reflector element. resistance. D. The characteristic impedance is higher
D. Parasitic element. in the parallel feed line.
How does the bandwidth of a folded
How is antenna "efficiency" computed? dipole antenna compare with that of a What would be the physical length of a
simple dipole antenna? typical coaxial transmission line that is
A. Efficiency = (radiation electrically one-quarter wavelength long
resistance/transmission resistance) X A. It is 0.707 times the simple dipole at 14.1 MHz?
100%. bandwidth.
B. Efficiency = (radiation resistance/total B. It is essentially the same.
A. 20 m
resistance) X 100%. (Ans.) C. It is less than 50% that of a simple
B. 3.51 m (Ans.)
C. Efficiency = (total resistance/radiation dipole.
C. 2.33 m
resistance) X 100%. D. It is greater. (Ans.)
D. 0.25 m
D. Efficiency = (effective radiated
power/transmitter output) X 100%. What is the input terminal impedance at
What would be the physical length of a
the center of a folded dipole antenna?
typical coaxial transmission line that is
What is the term for the ratio of the
electrically one-quarter wavelength long
radiation resistance of an antenna to the A. 300 ohms. (Ans.)
at 7.2 MHz?
total resistance of the system? B. 72 ohms.
C. 50 ohms.
A. 10.5 meters.
A. Effective radiated power. D. 450 ohms.
B. 6.88 meters. (Ans.)
B. Radiation conversion loss.
C. 24 meters.
C. Antenna efficiency. (Ans.) What is the meaning of the term "velocity
D. 50 meters.
D. Beamwidth. factor" of a transmission line?
What is the physical length of a parallel
What is included in the total resistance of A. The ratio of the characteristic
antenna feedline that is electrically one-
an antenna system? impedance of the line to the
half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?
terminating impedance.
(assume a velocity factor of 0.82).
A. Radiation resistance plus space B. The index of shielding for coaxial
impedance. cable.
A. 15 m
B. Radiation resistance plus transmission C. The velocity of the wave on the
B. 24.3 m
resistance. transmission line multiplied by the
C. 8.7 m (Ans.)
C. Transmission line resistance plus velocity of light in a vacuum.
D. 70.8 m
radiation resistance. D. The velocity of the wave on the
D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic transmission line divided by the
What is the physical length of a twin lead
resistance. (Ans.) velocity of light in a vacuum. (Ans.)
transmission feedline at 36.5 MHz?
(assume a velocity factor of 0.80).
How can the antenna efficiency of a HF What is the term for the ratio of actual
grounded vertical antenna be made velocity at which a signal travels through
A. Electrical length times 0.8. (Ans.)
comparable to that of a half-wave a line to the speed of light in a vacuum?
B. Electrical length divided by 0.8.
antenna?
C. 80 meters.
A. Velocity factor. (Ans.)
D. 160 meters.
B. Characteristic impedance.

10
Excel Review Center ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1
In a half-wave antenna, where are the B. To lower the losses. D. When using a dummy load to tune a
current nodes? C. To lower the Q. transmitter.
D. To tune out the capacitive reactance.
A. At the ends. (Ans.) (Ans.) What theoretical reference antenna
B. At the center. provides a comparison for antenna
C. Three-quarters of the way from the For a shortened vertical antenna, where measurements?
feed point toward the end. should a loading coil be placed to
D. One-half of the way from the feed minimize losses and produce the most A. Quarter-wave vertical.
point toward the end. effective performance? B. Yagi-Uda array.
C. Bobtail curtain.
In a half-wave antenna, where are the A. Near the center of the vertical radiator. D. Isotropic radiator. (Ans.)
voltage nodes? (Ans.)
B. As low as possible on the vertical What purpose does an isotropic radiator
A At the ends. radiator. serve?
B. At the feed point. (Ans.) C. As close to the transmitter as possible.
C. Three-quarters of the way from the D. At a voltage node. A. It is used to compare signal strengths
feed point toward the end. (at a distant point) of different
D. One-half of the way from the feed What happens to the bandwidth of an transmitters.
point toward the end. antenna as it is shortened through the use B. It is used as a reference for antenna
of loading coils? gain measurements.(Ans.)
At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what C. It is used as a dummy load for tuning
values of current and voltage exist A. It is increased. transmitters.
compared to the remainder of the B. It is decreased. (Ans.) D. It is used to measure the standing-
antenna? C. No change occurs. wave-ratio on a transmission line.
D. It becomes flat.
A. Equal voltage and current. How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength
B. Minimum voltage and maximum What type of antenna is used in an dipole have over an isotropic radiator?
current. aircraft's Instrument Landing System
C. Maximum voltage and minimum (ILS) glideslope installation? A. About 1.5 dB.
current. (Ans.) B. About 2.1 dB. (Ans.)
D. Minimum voltage and minimum A. A vertically polarized antenna that C. About 3.0 dB.
current. radiates an omnidirectional antenna D. About 6.0 dB.
pattern.
At the center of a half-wave antenna, what B. A balanced loop reception antenna. How much gain does an antenna have
values of voltage and current exist C. A folded dipole reception antenna. over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has
compared to the remainder of the (Ans.) 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?
antenna? D. An electronically steerable phased-
array antenna that radiates a A. About 3.9 dB. (Ans.)
A. Equal voltage and current. directional antenna pattern. B. About 6.0 dB.
B. Maximum voltage and minimum C. About 8.1 dB.
current. What is an advantage of using top loading D. About 10.0 dB.
C. Minimum voltage and minimum in a shortened HF vertical antenna?
current. How much gain does an antenna have
D. Minimum voltage and maximum A. Lower Q. over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has
current. (Ans.) B. Greater structural strength. 12 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?
C. Higher losses.
What happens to the base feed point of a D. Improved radiation efficiency. (Ans.) A. About 6.1 dB.
fixed length mobile antenna as the B. About 9.9 dB. (Ans.)
frequency of operation is lowered? What is an isotropic radiator? C. About 12.0 dB.
D. About 14.1 dB.
A. The resistance decreases and the A. A hypothetical, omnidirectional
capacitive reactance decreases. antenna. (Ans.) What is the antenna pattern for an
B. The resistance decreases and the B. In the northern hemisphere, an antenna isotropic radiator?
capacitive reactance increases. (Ans.) whose directive pattern is constant in
C. The resistance increases and the southern directions. A. A figure-8.
capacitive reactance decreases. C. An antenna high enough in the air that B. A unidirectional cardioid.
D. The resistance increases and the its directive pattern is substantially C. A parabola.
capacitive reactance increases. unaffected by the ground beneath it. D. A sphere. (Ans.)
D. An antenna whose directive pattern is
Why should an HF mobile antenna substantially unaffected by the spacing What type of directivity pattern does an
loading coil have a high ratio of reactance of the elements. isotropic radiator have?
to resistance?
When is it useful to refer to an isotropic A. A figure-8.
A. To swamp out harmonics. radiator? B. A unidirectional cardioid.
B. To maximize losses. C. A parabola.
C. To minimize losses. (Ans.) A. When comparing the gains of D. A sphere. (Ans.)
D. To minimize the Q. directional antennas. (Ans.)
B. When testing a transmission line for What factors determine the receiving
Why is a loading coil often used with an standing wave ratio. antenna gain required at a station in earth
HF mobile antenna? C. When (in the northern hemisphere) operation?
directing the transmission in a
A. To improve reception. southerly direction.

11
Excel Review Center
A. Height, transmitter power and
antennas of satellite. (Ans.)
B. Length of transmission line and
impedance match between receiver
and transmission line.
C. Preamplifier location on transmission
line and presence or absence of RF
amplifier stages.
D. Height of earth antenna and satellite
orbit.
What factors determine the EIRP required
by a station in earth operation?
A. Satellite antennas and height, satellite
receiver sensitivity. (Ans.)
B. Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-
to-noise ratio.
C. Satellite transmitter power and
orientation of ground receiving
antenna.
D. Elevation of satellite above horizon,
signal-to-noise ratio, satellite
transmitter power.
What factors determine the EIRP required
by a station in telecommand operation?
A. Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-
to-noise ratio.
B. Satellite antennas and height, satellite
receiver sensitivity. (Ans.)
C. Satellite transmitter power and
orientation of ground receiving
antenna.
D. Elevation of satellite above horizon,
signal-to-noise ratio, satellite
transmitter power.
How does the gain of a parabolic dish
type antenna change when the operating
frequency is doubled?
A. Gain does not change
B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707
C. Gain increases 6 dB (Ans.)
D. Gain increases 3 dB
What happens to the beamwidth of an
antenna as the gain is increased?
A. The beamwidth increases
geometrically as the gain is increased.
B. The beamwidth increases
arithmetically as the gain is increased.
C. The beamwidth is essentially
unaffected by the gain of the antenna.
D. The beamwidth decreases as the gain
is increased. (Ans.)
What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical
pattern antenna with a gain of 20 dB as
compared to an isotropic radiator?
A. 10.1 degrees
B. 20.3 degrees (Ans.)
C. 45.0 degrees
D. 60.9 degrees
What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical
pattern antenna with a gain of 30 dB as
compared to an isotropic radiator?
ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1
A. 3.2 degrees both at the center of that element and a
B. 6.4 degrees (Ans.) fraction of a wavelength to one side of
C. 37 degrees center?
D. 60.4 degrees
A. The gamma matching system. (Ans.)
What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical B. The delta matching system.
pattern antenna with a gain of 15 dB as C. The omega matching system.
compared to an isotropic radiator? D. The stub matching system.
A. 72 degrees What term describes a method of antenna
B. 52 degrees impedance matching that uses a short
C. 36.1 degrees (Ans.) section of transmission line connected to
D. 3.61 degrees the antenna feed line near the antenna and
perpendicular to the feed line?
What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical
pattern antenna with a gain of 12 dB as
A. The gamma matching system.
compared to an isotropic radiator?
B. The delta matching system.
C. The omega matching system.
A. 34.8 degrees
D. The stub matching system. (Ans.)
B. 45.0 degrees
C. 58.0 degrees
What kind of impedance does a 1/8-
D. 51.0 degrees (Ans.)
wavelength transmission line present to a
generator when the line is shorted at the
How is circular polarization produced
far end?
using linearly-polarized antennas?
A. A capacitive reactance.
A. Stack two yagis, fed 90 degrees out of
B. The same as the characteristic
phase, to form an array with the
impedance of the line.
respective elements in parallel planes.
C. An inductive reactance. (Ans.)
B. Stack two yagis, fed in phase, to form
D. The same as the input impedance to
an array with the respective elements
the final generator stage.
in parallel planes.
C. Arrange two yagis perpendicular to
What kind of impedance does a 1/8-
each other, with the driven elements in
wavelength transmission line present to a
the same plane, fed 90 degrees out of
generator when the line is open at the far
phase. (Ans.)
end?
D. Arrange two yagis perpendicular to
each other, with the driven elements in
A. The same as the characteristic
the same plane, fed in phase.
impedance of the line.
B. An inductive reactance.
Why does an antenna system for earth
C. A capacitive reactance. (Ans.)
operation (for communications through a
D. The same as the input impedance of
satellite) need to have rotators for both
the final generator stage.
azimuth and elevation control?
What kind of impedance does a 1/4-
A. In order to point the antenna above the
wavelength transmission line present to a
horizon to avoid terrestrial
generator when the line is shorted at the
interference.
far end?
B. Satellite antennas require two rotators
because they are so large and heavy.
A. A very high impedance. (Ans.)
C. In order to track the satellite as it
B. A very low impedance.
orbits the earth. (Ans.)
C. The same as the characteristic
D. The elevation rotator points the
impedance of the transmission line.
antenna at the satellite and the azimuth
D. The same as the generator output
rotator changes the antenna
impedance.
polarization.
What kind of impedance does a 1/4-
What term describes a method used to
wavelength transmission line present to a
match a high-impedance transmission line
generator when the line is open at the far
to a lower impedance antenna by
end?
connecting the line to the driven element
in two places, spaced a fraction of a
A. A very high impedance.
wavelength on each side of the driven
B. A very low impedance. (Ans.)
element center?
C. The same as the characteristic
impedance of the line.
A. The gamma matching system.
D. The same as the input impedance to
B. The delta matching system. (Ans.)
the final generator stage.
C. The omega matching system.
D. The stub matching system.
What kind of impedance does a 3/8-
wavelength transmission line present to a
What term describes an unbalanced feed
generator when the line is shorted at the
system in which the driven element is fed
far end?
12
Excel Review Center ECE Refresher/Coaching Course
A. The same as the characteristic A. Decrease its directional
impedance of the line. characteristics.
B. An inductive reactance. B. Decrease its sensitivity.
C. A capacitive reactance. (Ans.) C. Increase its directional characteristics.
D. The same as the input impedance to (Ans.)
the final generator stage. D. Increase its sensitivity.
What kind of impedance does a 3/8- What ferrite rod device prevents the
wavelength transmission line present to a formation of reflected waves on a
generator when the line is open at the far waveguide transmission line?
end?
A. Reflector.
A. A capacitive reactance. B. Isolator. (Ans.)
B. The same as the characteristic C. Wave-trap.
impedance of the line. D. SWR refractor.
C. An inductive reactance. (Ans.)
D. The same as the input impedance to Frequencies most affected by knife-edge
the final generator stage. refraction are:
What kind of impedance does a 1/2- A. Low and medium frequencies.
wavelength transmission line present to a B. High frequencies.
generator when the line is shorted at the C. Very high and ultra high frequencies.
far end? (Ans.)
D. 100 kHz. to 3.0 MHz.
A. A very high impedance.
B. A very low impedance. (Ans.) When measuring I and V along a 1/2
C. The same as the characteristic wave Hertz antenna, where would you
impedance of the line. find the points where I and V are
D. The same as the output impedance of maximum and minimum?
the generator.
A. V and I are high at the ends.
What kind of impedance does a 1/2- B. V and I are high in the middle.
wavelength transmission line present to a C. V and I are uniform throughout the
generator when the line is open at the far antenna.
end? D. V is maximum at both ends, I is
maximum in the middle. (Ans.)
A. A very high impedance. (Ans.)
B. A very low impedance. To increase the resonant frequency of a
C. The same as the characteristic 1/4 wavelength antenna:
impedance of the line.
D. The same as the output impedance of A. Add a capacitor. (Ans.)
the generator. B. Lower capacitor value.
C. Cut antenna.
What is the term used for an equivalent D. Add an inductor.
resistance that would dissipate the same
amount of energy as that radiated from an Why are concentric transmission lines
antenna? sometimes filled with nitrogen?
A. Space resistance. A. Reduces resistance at high
B. Loss resistance. frequencies.
C. Transmission line loss. B. Prevent water damage underground.
D. Radiation resistance. (Ans.) C. Keep moisture out and prevent
oxidation. (Ans.)
Why is the value of the radiation D. Reduce microwave line losses.
resistance of an antenna important?
A vertical 1/4 wave antenna receives
A. Knowing the radiation resistance signals:
makes it possible to match impedances
for maximum power transfer. (Ans.) A. In the microwave band.
B. Knowing the radiation resistance B. In one vertical direction.
makes it possible to measure the near- C. In one horizontal direction.
field radiation density from a D. Equally from all horizontal directions.
transmitting antenna. (Ans.)
C. The value of the radiation resistance
represents the front-to-side ratio of the Which of the following represents the best
antenna. standing wave ratio (SWR)?
D. The value of the radiation resistance
represents the front-to-back ratio of the A. 1:1. (Ans.)
antenna. B. 1:1.5.
C. 1:3.
Adding parasitic elements to an antenna D. 1:4.
will:
13
EST TH 1
What is the purpose of stacking elements
on an antenna?
A. Sharper directional pattern.
B. Increased gain.
C. Improved bandpass.
D. All of these. (Ans.)
What type of antenna is used in an
aircraft's Instrument Landing System
(ILS) marker beacon installation?
A. An electronically steerable phased-
array antenna that radiates a
directional antenna pattern.
B. A folded dipole reception antenna.
C. A balanced loop reception antenna.
(Ans.)
D. A horizontally polarized antenna that
radiates an omnidirectional antenna
pattern.
On a half-wave Hertz antenna:
A. Voltage is maximum at both ends and
current is maximum at the center of
the antenna. (Ans.)
B. Current is maximum at both ends and
voltage in the center.
C. Voltage and current are uniform
throughout the antenna.
D. Voltage and current are high at the
ends.
What type of antenna is designed for
minimum radiation?
A. Dummy antenna. (Ans.)
B. Quarter-wave antenna.
C. Half-wave antenna.
D. Directional antenna.
Adding parasitic elements to a quarter-
wavelength antenna will:
A. Reduce its directional characteristics.
B. Increase its directional characteristics.
C. Increase its sensitivity.
D. Increase its directional characteristics
and increase its sensitivity. (Ans.)
Ignoring line losses, voltage at a point on
a transmission line without standing
waves is:
A. Equal to the product of the line current
and impedance.
B. Equal to the product of the line current
and power factor.
C. Equal to the product of the line current
and the surge impedance. (Ans.)
D. Zero at both ends.
Stacking antenna elements:
A. Will suppress odd harmonics.
B. Decrease signal to noise ratio.
C. Increases sensitivity to weak signals.
(Ans.)
D. Increases selectivity.
Excel Review Center ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1
What allows microwaves to pass in only A. Parabolic. B. Horizontal aiming of the antenna.
one direction? B. Vertical loop. (Ans.)
C. Horizontal marconi. C. 0 - 90 degrees.
A. RF emitter. D. Vertical 1/4 wave. (Ans.) D. North to east.
B. Ferrite isolator. (Ans.)
C. Capacitor. A loop-antenna: What is the effect of adding a capacitor in
D. Varactor-triac. series to an antenna?
A. Is bi-directional.
What would be added to make a receiving B. Is usually vertical. A. Resonant frequency will decrease.
antenna more directional? C. Is more often used as a receiving B. Resonant frequency will increase.
antenna. (Ans.)
A. Inductor. D. Any of these. (Ans.) C. Resonant frequency will remain same.
B. Capacitor. D. Electrical length will be longer.
C. Parasitic elements. (Ans.) Referred to the fundamental frequency, a
D. Height. shorted stub line attached to the Waveguides are:
transmission line to absorb even
Nitrogen is placed in transmission lines harmonics could have a wavelength of: A. Used exclusively in high frequency
to: power supplies.
A. 1.41 wavelengths. B. Ceramic couplers attached to antenna
A. Improve the "skin-effect" of B. 1/2 wavelengths. terminals.
microwaves. C. 1/4 wavelengths. (Ans.) C. High-pass filters used at low radio
B. Reduce arcing in the line. D. 1/6 wavelengths. frequencies.
C. Reduce the standing wave ratio of the D. Hollow metal conductors used to carry
line. Nitrogen gas in concentric RF high frequency
D. Prevent moisture from entering the transmission lines is used to: current. (Ans.)
line. (Ans.)
A. Keep moisture out. A 520 kHz signal is fed to a 1/2 wave
Neglecting line losses, the voltage at any B. Prevent oxidation. Hertz antenna. The fifth harmonic will be:
point along a transmission line, having no C. Act as an insulator.
standing waves, will be equal to the: D. Keep moisture out and prevent A. 2.65 MHz.
oxidation. (Ans.) B. 2650 kHz.
A. Transmitter output. C. 2600 kHz. (Ans.)
B. Product of the line voltage and the "Stacking" elements on an antenna: D. 104 kHz.
surge impedance of the line.
C. Product of the line current and the A. Makes for better reception. (Ans.) When a capacitor is connected in series
surge impedance of the line. (Ans.) B. Makes for poorer reception. with a Marconi antenna:
D. Product of the resistance and surge C. Decreases antenna current.
impedance of the line. D. Decreases directivity. A. An inductor of equal value must be
added.
Adding a capacitor in series with a The parasitic elements on a receiving B. No change occurs to antenna.
Marconi antenna: antenna: C. Antenna open circuit stops
transmission.
A. Increases the antenna circuit resonant A. Increase its directivity. (Ans.) D. Antenna resonant frequency increases.
frequency. (Ans.) B. Decrease its directivity. (Ans.)
B. Decreases the antenna circuit resonant C. Have no effect on its impedance.
frequency. D. Make it more nearly omnidirectional. How do you increase the electrical length
C. Blocks the transmission of signals of an antenna?
from the antenna. The resonant frequency of a Hertz
D. Increases the power handling capacity antenna can be lowered by: A. Add an inductor in parallel.
of the antenna. B. Add an inductor in series. (Ans.)
A. Lowering the frequency of the C. Add a capacitor in series.
An antenna is carrying an unmodulated transmitter. D. Add a resistor in series.
signal, when 100% modulation is B. Placing a condenser in series with the
impressed, the antenna current: antenna. A coaxial cable has 7 dB of reflected
C. Placing a resistor in series with the power when the input is 5 watts. What is
A. Goes up 50%. antenna. the output of the transmission line?
B. Goes down one half. D. Placing an inductance in series with
C. Stays the same. the antenna. (Ans.) A. 5 watts.
D. Goes up 22.5%. (Ans.) B. 2.5 watts.
Parasitic elements are useful in a C. 1.25 watts.
An excited 1/2 wavelength antenna receiving antenna for: D. 1 watt. (Ans.)
produces:
A. Increasing directivity. What is the 7th harmonic of 450 kHz
A. Residual fields. B. Increasing selectivity. when fed through a 1/4 wavelength
B. An electro-magnetic field only. C. Increasing sensitivity. vertical antenna?
C. Both electro-magnetic and electro- D. Increasing directivity and increasing
static fields. (Ans.) sensitivity. (Ans.) A. 3150 Hz.
D. An electro-flux field sometimes. B. 3150 MHz.
Concerning shipboard satellite dish C. 787.5 kHz.
An antenna which intercepts signals antenna systems, azimuth is: D. 3.15 MHz. (Ans.)
equally from all horizontal directions is:
A. Vertical aiming of the antenna.

14
Excel Review Center ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1
What is the 5th harmonic of a 450 kHz C. An antenna electrically too long for its D. Has a SWR as near as 1:1 as possible.
transmitter carrier fed to a 1/4 wave frequency. (Ans.)
antenna? D. An impedance mismatch. (Ans.)
Conductance takes place in a waveguide:
A. 562.5 MHz. A properly installed shunt-fed, 1/4 wave
B. 1125 kHz. Marconi antenna: A. By interelectron delay.
C. 2250 MHz. B. Through electrostatic field reluctance.
D. 2.25 MHz. (Ans.) A. Has zero resistance to ground. (Ans.) C. In the same manner as a transmission
B. Has high resistance to ground. line.
Waveguide construction: C. Should be cut to 1/2 wave. D. Through electromagnetic and
D. Should not be shunt-fed. electrostatic fields in the wallsof the
A. Should not use silver plating. waveguide. (Ans.)
B. Should not use copper. When a capacitor is connected in series
C. Should have short vertical runs. with a Marconi antenna: Concerning shunt-fed 1/4 wavelength
D. Should not have long horizontal runs. Marconi antenna:
(Ans.) A. An inductor of equal value must be
added. A. DC resistance of the antenna to
To lengthen an antenna electrically, add a: B. No change occurs to antenna. ground is zero. (Ans.)
C. Antenna open circuit stops B. RF resistance from antenna feed point
A. Coil. (Ans.) transmission. to ground is zero.
B. Resistor. D. Antenna resonant frequency increases. C. Harmonic radiation is zero under all
C. Battery. (Ans.) conditions.
D. Conduit. D. It must be grounded at both feed and
When excited by RF, a half-wave antenna far ends.
How do you electrically decrease the will radiate:
length of an antenna? If a 3/4 wavelength transmission is
shortened at one end, impedance at the
A. A space wave.
A. Add an inductor in series. open will be:
B. A ground wave.
B. Add a capacitor in series. (Ans.)
C. Electromagnetic fields.
C. Add an inductor in parallel. A. Zero.
D. Both electromagnetic and electrostatic
D. Add a resistor in series. B. Infinite. (Ans.)
fields. (Ans.)
C. Decreased.
If the length of an antenna is changed D. Increased.
Wave guides are:
from 1.5 feet to 1.6 feet its resonant
frequency will: A dummy antenna is a:
A. Used exclusively in high frequency
power supplies.
A. Decrease. (Ans.) A. Non-directional receiver antenna.
B. Ceramic couplers attached to antenna
B. Increase. B. Wide bandwidth directional receiver
terminals.
C. Be 6.7% higher. antenna.
C. High pass filters used at low radio
D. Be 6% lower. C. Transmitter test antenna designed for
frequencies.
minimum radiation. (Ans.)
D. Hollow metal conductors used to carry
To couple energy into and out of a D. Transmitter non-directional narrow-
high frequency current. (Ans.)
waveguide: band antenna.
A 520 kHz signal is fed to a 1/2 wave
A. Use wide copper sheeting. What is facsimile?
Hertz antenna. The fifth harmonic will
B. Use an LC circuit.
be:
C. Use capacitive coupling. A. The transmission of characters by
D. Use a thin piece of wire as an antenna. radioteletype that form a picture when
A. 2.65 MHz.
(Ans.) printed.
B. 2650 kHz.
B. The transmission of still pictures by
C. 2600 kHz. (Ans.)
An isolator: slow-scan television.
D. 1300 kHz.
C. The transmission of video by
A. Acts as a buffer between a microwave television.
The voltage produced in a receiving
oscillator coupled to a waveguide. D. The transmission of printed pictures
antenna is:
B. Acts as a buffer to protect a for permanent display on paper.
microwave oscillator from variations (Ans.)
A. Out of phase with the current if
in line load changes.
connected properly.
C. Shields UHF circuits from RF transfer. What is the standard scan rate for high-
B. Out of phase with the current if cut to
D. Acts as a buffer between a microwave frequency 3 MHz-23 MHz weather
1/3 wavelength.
oscillator coupled to a waveguide and facsimile reception from associated shore
C. Variable depending on the station's
acts as a buffer to protect a microwave stations?
SWR.
oscillator from variations in line load
D. Always proportional to the received
changes. (Ans.) A. 240 lines per minute.
field strength. (Ans.)
B. 120 lines per minute. (Ans.)
A high SWR creates losses in C. 150 lines per second.
A properly connected transmission line:
transmission lines. A high standing wave D. 60 lines per second.
ratio might be caused by:
A. Is grounded at the transmitter end.
What is an ascending pass for a low-earth-
B. Is cut to a harmonic of the carrier
A. Improper turns ratio between primary orbit communications satellite?
frequency.
and secondary in the plate tank
C. Is cut to an even harmonic of the
transformer. A. A pass from west to east.
carrier frequency.
B. Screen grid current flow. B. A pass from east to west.

15
Excel Review Center
C. A pass from south to north. (Ans.)
D. A pass from north to south.
What is a descending pass for a low-earth-
orbit communications satellite?
A. A pass from north to south. (Ans.)
B. A pass from west to east.
C. A pass from east to west.
D. A pass from south to north.
What is the period of a satellite?
A. An orbital arc that extends from 60
degrees west longitude to 145 degrees
west longitude.
B. The point on an orbit where satellite
height is minimum.
C. The amount of time it takes for a
satellite to complete one orbit. (Ans.)
D. The time it takes a satellite to travel
from perigee to apogee.
What is the accuracy of a global
positioning system (GPS) fix with
selective availability (SA) turned on?
A. 100 meters 95% of the time. (Ans.)
B. 100 feet 50% of the time.
C. 150 meters 95% of the time.
D. 10 feet 95% of the time.
What is the probable cause for a docked
vessel to occasionally register speed and
direction on a global positioning system
(GPS) receiver?
A. Interference entering the antenna
cable.
B. A misconnection to the associated
electronic chart display.
C. A loose coaxial cable connector in the
antenna unit.
D. A normal condition caused by
Department of Defense (DOD)
selective availability. (Ans.)
What voice communications system will
lead to a slight delay and possible echo in
a telephone conversation?
A. Propagational delay in
communications through a
geostationary satellite. (Ans.)
B. Acoustic delay and echo over cellular
phone frequency.
C. Propagational delays and echoes on
low-earth-orbit satellites.
D. Propagational delays on marine VHF
157/162 MHz bands
Why does the received signal from a
satellite, stabilized by a computer-pulsed
electromagnet, exhibit a fairly rapid
pulsed fading effect?
A. Because the satellite is rotating.
(Ans.)
B. Because of ionospheric absorption.
C. Because of the satellite's low orbital
altitude.
D. Because of the Doppler effect.
ECE Refresher/Coaching Course
What is the standard scan rate for VHF
137 MHz polar orbiting weather facsimile
reception?
A. 240 lines per minute. (Ans.)
B. 50 lines per minute.
C. 150 lines per second.
D. 60 lines per second.
The principle of OMEGA navigation
depends on measuring the ____ between
received pulses.
A. Frequency difference.
B. Phase angle. (Ans.)
C. Time interval.
D. Amplitude difference.
Which of the following navigational
methods utilizes the lowest frequency for
a carrier?
A. LORAN.
B. OMEGA. (Ans.)
C. ADF.
D. VOR.
What is the frequency range of the
ground-based Very High Frequency
Omnidirectional Range (VOR) stations
used for aircraft navigation?
A. 108.00 kHz to 117.95 kHz.
B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz.
C. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz.
D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. (Ans.)
What is the main underlying operating
principle of the Very High Frequency
Omnidirectional Range (VOR) aircraft
navigational system?
A. A definite amount of time is required
to send and receive a radio signal.
B. The difference between the peak
values of two DC voltages may be
used to determine an aircraft's altitude
above a selected VOR station.
C. A phase difference between two AC
voltages may be used to determine an
aircraft's azimuth position in relation
to a selected VOR station. (Ans.)
D. A phase difference between two AC
voltages may be used to determine an
aircraft's distance from a selected
VOR station.
The amplitude modulated variable phase
signal and the frequency modulated
reference phase signal of a Very High
Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR)
station used for aircraft navigation are
synchronized so that both signals are in
phase with each other at:
A. 180 degrees South, true bearing
position of the VOR station.
B. 360 degrees North, magnetic bearing
position of the VOR station. (Ans.)
C. 180 degrees South, magnetic bearing
position of the VOR station.
16
EST TH 1
D. 0 degrees North, true bearing position
of the VOR station.
Choose the only correct statement about
the effective range of a Very High
Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR)
station used for aircraft navigation.
A. Its reception range is based on both
the aircraft's altitude and the aircraft's
line-of-sight to the VOR station.
(Ans.)
B. Its reception range is not a function of
the aircraft's altitude.
C. Its reception range is not a function of
the aircraft's longitude and latitude
position in relation to the VOR
station's position.
D. Its reception range is greatly affected
by atmospheric effects and
propagation anomalies.
What is the name of the mechanically
rotatable variable RF transformer device
of a Very High Frequency
Omnidirectional Range (VOR) station
that is used to generate the amplitude
modulated variable phase signal used in
aircraft navigation?
A. A ghandimeter.
B. A goniometer. (Ans.)
C. A gondolameter.
D. A gorgonzolameter.
What is the frequency range of the
localizer beam system used by aircraft to
find the centerline of a runway during an
Instrument Landing System (ILS)
approach to an airport?
A. 108.10 kHz to 111.95 kHz.
B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz.
C. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz.
D. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz. (Ans.)
Choose the only correct statement about
the localizer beam system used by aircraft
to find the centerline of a runway during
an Instrument Landing System (ILS)
approach to an airport.
A. If the ratio of the 90 Hz audio signal
strength to the 150 Hz audio signal
strength of the antenna patterns is
equal; the aircraft is on the proper 2.5
degree approach glidepath.
B. If the strength of the 90 Hz audio
signal is greater than the strength of
the 150 Hz audio signal of the antenna
patterns; the aircraft is to the left of the
centerline of the runway. (Ans.)
C. If the strength of the 150 Hz audio
signal is greater than the strength of
the 90 Hz audio signal of the antenna
patterns; the aircraft is to the left of the
centerline of the runway.
D. If the strength of the 150 Hz audio
signal is greater than the strength of
the 90 Hz audio signal of the antenna
patterns; the aircraft is above the
proper 2.5 degree approach glidepath.
Excel Review Center
What is the frequency range of the
glideslope beam system used by aircraft
to maintain the proper ascent angle to the
surface of a runway during an Instrument
Landing System (ILS) approach to an
airport?
A. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz.
B. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz.
C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. (Ans.)
D. 108.10 kHz to 117.95 kHz.
What is the frequency range of the
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
used to indicate an aircraft's slant range
distance to a selected ground-based
navigation station?
A. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz. (Ans.)
B. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz.
C. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz.
D. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz.
What is the main underlying operating
principle of an aircraft's Distance
Measuring Equipment (DME)?
A. A measurable amount of time is
required to send and receive a radio
signal through the earth's atmosphere.
(Ans.)
B. The difference between the peak
values of two DC voltages may be
used to determine an aircraft's distance
to another aircraft.
C. A measurable frequency compression
of an AC signal may be used to
determine an aircraft's altitude above
the earth.
D. A phase inversion between two AC
voltages may be used to determine an
aircraft's distance to the exit ramp of
an airport's runway.
What is the slant range distance of an
aircraft's Distance Measuring Equipment
(DME)?
A. It is the distance between two aircraft
of different altitudes.
B. It is the distance between two ground-
based navigation stations having
differences in their elevations above
mean sea level.
C. It is the line-of-sight distance between
an aircraft and a selected ground-based
navigation station. (Ans.)
D. It is the radius-of-the-earth distance
between two ground-based
navigation stations having the same
elevations above mean sea level.
What is the distance to a selected Distance
Measuring Equipment (DME) station if an
aircraft receives the ground station's reply
175 microseconds after it transmits its
airborne interrogation signal? Use the
standard 50 microsecond DME reply
delay.
A. 20.2 nautical miles.
B. 11.6 statute miles. (Ans.)
ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1
C. 14.2 nautical miles. A. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz.
D. 10.1 statute miles. B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz.
C. 4250 MHz to 4350 MHz. (Ans.)
What are the transmission and the D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz.
reception frequencies of an aircraft's mode
C transponder operating in the Air Traffic What type of transmission is radiated
Control Radar Beacon System from an aircraft's radio altimeter antenna?
(ATCRBS)?
A. An amplitude modulated continuous
A. Transmit at 1090 MHz and receive at wave.
1030 MHz. (Ans.) B. A pulse position modulated UHF
B. Transmit at 1030 kHz and receive at signal.
1090 kHz. C. A differential phase shift keyed UHF
C. Transmit at 1090 kHz and receive at signal.
1030 kHz. D. A frequency modulated continuous
D. Transmit at 1030 MHz and receive at wave. (Ans.)
1090 MHz.
What is the normal Above Ground Level
What type of information is derived from (AGL) range of an aircraft's radio
an aircraft's mode C transponder altimeter?
transmission operating in the Air Traffic
Control Radar Beacon System A. 0 feet AGL to 2,500 feet AGL.
(ATCRBS)? (Ans.)
B. 0 feet AGL to 25,000 feet AGL.
A. Range, aircraft weight, and fuel C. 0 feet AGL to 75,000 feet AGL.
aboard information. D. 0 feet AGL to the inner boundaries of
B. Range, aircraft weight, and altitude the troposphere.
information.
C. Range, fuel aboard, and altitude What is the frequency range of an
information. aircraft's Automatic Direction Finding
D. Range, bearing, and altitude (ADF) equipment?
information. (Ans.)
A. 190 MHz to 1750 MHz.
B. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz.
What type of encoding is used in an
C. 190 kHz to 1750 kHz. (Ans.)
aircraft's mode C transponder
D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz.
transmission to a ground station of the Air
Traffic Control Radar Beacon System
What is the frequency range of an
(ATCRBS)?
aircraft's High Frequency (HF)
communications?
A. Differential phase shift keying.
B. Pulse position modulation. (Ans.)
A. 118.000 MHz to 136.975 MHz
C. Doppler effect compressional
(worldwide up to 151.975 MHz).
encryption.
B. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz.
D. Amplitude modulation at 95%.
C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz.
D. 2.000 MHz to 29.999 MHz. (Ans.)
What type of encryption is used in the P6
informational pulse of an aircraft's mode
What is the frequency range of an
S transponder transmission to a ground
aircraft's Very High Frequency (VHF)
station of the Air Traffic Control Radar
communications?
Beacon System (ATCRBS)?
A. 118.000 MHz to 136.975 MHz
A. Differential phase shift keying.
(worldwide up to 151.975 MHz)
(Ans.)
(Ans.)
B. Pulse position modulation.
B. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz.
C. Doppler effect compressional
C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz.
encryption.
D. 2.000 MHz to 29.999 MHz.
D. Amplitude modulation at 95%.
The Distance Measuring Equipment
In addition to duplicating the functions of
(DME) ground station has a built-in delay
a mode C transponder, an aircraft's mode
between reception of an interrogation and
S transponder can also provide:
transmission of the reply to allow:
A. Primary radar surveillance
A. Someone to answer the call.
capabilities.
B. The VOR to make a mechanical hook-
B. Long range lightning detection.
up.
C. Mid-air collision avoidance
C. Clear other traffic for a reply.
capabilities. (Ans.)
D. Operation at close range. (Ans.)
D. Backup VHF voice communication
abilities.
The Distance Measuring Equipment
(DME) measures the distance from the
What is the frequency range of an
aircraft's radio altimeter?
17
Excel Review Center ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1
aircraft to the DME ground station. This The direction from the aircraft's nose to D. Prevent moisture from entering the
is referred to as: the VOR station is referred to as the: line. (Ans.)

A. The slant range. (Ans.) A. Heading. What is meant by the term: modulation?
B. DME bearing. B. Bearing. (Ans.)
C. Glide Slope angle of approach. C. Deflection. A. The squelching of a signal until a
D. Localizer course width. D. Inclination. critical signal-to-noise ratio is reached.
B. Carrier rejection through phase
One nautical mile is equal to how many All directions associated with a VOR nulling.
statute miles? station are related to: C. A linear amplification mode.
D. A mixing process whereby
A. 1.5. A. North pole. information is imposed upon a carrier.
B. 8.3. B. North star. (Ans.)
C. 1.73. C. Magnetic north. (Ans.)
D. 1.15. (Ans.) D. None of these. How is a G3E FM-phone emission
produced?
3:00 PM Central Standard Time is: On runway approach, an ILS Localizer
shows: A. With a balanced modulator on the
A. 1000 UTC. audio amplifier.
B. 2100 UTC. (Ans.) A. Deviation left or right of runway B. With a reactance modulator on the
C. 1800 UTC. center line. (Ans.) oscillator. (Ans.)
D. 0300 UTC. B. Deviation up and down from ground C. With a reactance modulator on the
speed. final amplifier.
6:00 PM PST is equal to what time in C. Deviation percentage from authorized D. With a balanced modulator on the
UTC? ground speed. oscillator.
D. Wind speed along runway.
A. 0200. (Ans.) What is a reactance modulator?
B. 1800. What radio navigation aid determines the
C. 2300. distance from an aircraft to a selected A. A circuit that acts as a variable
D. 1300. VORTAC station by measuring the length resistance or capacitance to produce
of time the radio signal takes to travel to FM signals.
2300 UTC time is: and from the station? B. A circuit that acts as a variable
resistance or capacitance to produce
A. 2 PM CST. A. Radar. AM signals.
B. 3 PM PST. (Ans.) B. Loran C. C. A circuit that acts as a variable
C. 10 AM EST. C. Distance Marking (DM). inductance or capacitance to produce
D. 6 AM EST. D. Distance Measuring Equipment FM signals. (Ans.)
(DME). (Ans.) D. A circuit that acts as a variable
One statute mile equals how many inductance or capacitance to produce
nautical miles? Which of the following is a feature of an AM signals.
Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
A. 3.8. What is a balanced modulator?
B. 1.5. A. Localizer: shows aircraft deviation
C. 0.87. (Ans.) horizontally from center of runway. A. An FM modulator that produces a
D. 0.7. (Ans.) balanced deviation.
B. Altimeter: shows aircraft height above B. A modulator that produces a double
Which of these will be useful for sea-level. sideband, suppressed carrier signal.
insulation at UHF? C. VHF Communications: provide (Ans.)
communications to aircraft. C. A modulator that produces a single
A. Rubber. D. Distance Measuring Equipment: sideband, suppressed carrier signal.
B. Mica. (Ans.) shows aircraft distance to VORTAC D. A modulator that produces a full
C. Wax impregnated paper. station. carrier signal.
D. Lead.
Why are concentric transmission lines How can a single-sideband phone signal
Lines drawn from the VOR station in a sometimes filled with nitrogen? be generated?
particular magnetic direction are:
A. Reduces resistance at high A. By driving a product detector with a
A. Radials. (Ans.) frequencies. DSB signal.
B. Quadrants. B. Prevent water damage underground. B. By using a reactance modulator
C. Bearings. C. Keep moisture out and prevent followed by a mixer.
D. Headings. oxidation. (Ans.) C. By using a loop modulator followed
D. Reduce microwave line losses. by a mixer.
The horizontal dipole VOR transmit D. By using a balanced modulator
antenna rotates at ____ revolutions per Nitrogen is placed in transmission lines followed by a filter. (Ans.)
second. to:
How can a double-sideband phone signal
A. 60. A. Improve the "skin-effect" of be generated?
B. 2400. microwaves.
C. 30. (Ans.) B. Reduce arcing in the line. A. By feeding a phase modulated signal
D. 1800. C. Reduce the standing wave ratio of the into a low pass filter.
line. B. By using a balanced modulator
followed by a filter.

18
Excel Review Center
C. By detuning a Hartley oscillator.
D. By modulating the plate voltage of a
class C amplifier. (Ans.)
What is the process of detection?
A. The process of masking out the
intelligence on a received carrier to
make an S-meter operational.
B. The recovery of intelligence from the
modulated RF signal. (Ans.)
C. The modulation of a carrier.
D. The mixing of noise with the received
signal.
What is the principle of detection in a
diode detector?
A. Rectification and filtering of RF.
(Ans.)
B. Breakdown of the Zener voltage.
C. Mixing with noise in the transition
region of the diode.
D. The change of reactance in the diode
with respect to frequency.
What is a product detector?
A. A detector that provides local
oscillations for input to the mixer.
B. A detector that amplifies and narrows
the band-pass frequencies.
C. A detector that uses a mixing process
with a locally generated carrier.
(Ans.)
D. A detector used to detect cross-
modulation products.
How are FM-phone signals detected?
A. By a balanced modulator.
B. By a frequency discriminator. (Ans.)
C. By a product detector.
D. By a phase splitter.
What is a frequency discriminator?
A. A circuit for detecting FM signals.
(Ans.)
B. A circuit for filtering two closely
adjacent signals.
C. An automatic bandswitching circuit.
D. An FM generator.
What is the mixing process?
A. The elimination of noise in a
wideband receiver by phase
comparison.
B. The elimination of noise in a
wideband receiver by phase
differentiation.
C. Distortion caused by auroral
propagation.
D. The combination of two signals to
produce sum and difference
frequencies. (Ans.)
What are the principal frequencies that
appear at the output of a mixer circuit?
ECE Refresher/Coaching Course
A. Two and four times the original
frequency.
B. The sum, difference and square root of
the input frequencies.
C. The original frequencies and the sum
and difference frequencies. (Ans.)
D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input
frequency.
What are the advantages of the frequency-
conversion process?
A. Automatic squelching and increased
selectivity.
B. Increased selectivity and optimal
tuned-circuit design. (Ans.)
C. Automatic soft limiting and automatic
squelching.
D. Automatic detection in the RF
amplifier and increased selectivity.
What occurs in a receiver when an
excessive amount of signal energy reaches
the mixer circuit?
A. Spurious mixer products are
generated. (Ans.)
B. Mixer blanking occurs.
C. Automatic limiting occurs.
D. A beat frequency is generated.
How much gain should be used in the RF
amplifier stage of a receiver?
A. As much gain as possible short of self
oscillation.
B. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals
to overcome noise generated in the
first mixer stage. (Ans.)
C. Sufficient gain to keep weak signals
below the noise of the first mixer
stage.
D. It depends on the amplification factor
of the first IF stage.
Why should the RF amplifier stage of a
receiver only have sufficient gain to allow
weak signals to overcome noise generated
in the first mixer stage?
A. To prevent the sum and difference
frequencies from being generated.
B. To prevent bleed-through of the
desired signal.
C. To prevent the generation of spurious
mixer products. (Ans.)
D. To prevent bleed-through of the local
oscillator.
What is the primary purpose of an RF
amplifier in a receiver?
A. To provide most of the receiver gain.
B. To vary the receiver image rejection
by utilizing the AGC.
C. To improve the receiver's noise
figure.(Ans.)
D. To develop the AGC voltage.
What is an IF amplifier stage?
19
EST TH 1
A. A fixed-tuned pass-band amplifier.
(Ans.)
B. A receiver demodulator.
C. A receiver filter.
D. A buffer oscillator.
What factors should be considered when
selecting an intermediate frequency?
A. Cross-modulation distortion and
interference.
B. Interference to other services.
C. Image rejection and selectivity. (Ans.)
D. Noise figure and distortion.
What is the primary purpose of the first i-f
amplifier stage in a receiver?
A. Noise figure performance.
B. Tune out cross-modulation distortion.
C. Dynamic response.
D. Selectivity. (Ans.)
What is the primary purpose of the final
IF amplifier stage in a receiver?
A. Dynamic response.
B. Gain. (Ans.)
C. Noise figure performance.
D. Bypass undesired signals.
Where should an op-amp RC active audio
filter be placed in a receiver?
A. In the IF strip, immediately before the
detector.
B. In the audio circuitry immediately
before the speaker or phone jack.
C. Between the balanced modulator and
frequency multiplier.
D. In the low-level audio stages. (Ans.)
What parameter must be selected when
designing an audio filter using an op-
amp?
A. Bandpass characteristics. (Ans.)
B. Desired current gain.
C. Temperature coefficient.
D. Output-offset overshoot.
What two factors determine the sensitivity
of a receiver?
A. Dynamic range and third-order
intercept.
B. Cost and availability.
C. Intermodulation distortion and
dynamic range.
D. Bandwidth and noise figure. (Ans.)
What is the limiting condition for
sensitivity in a communications receiver?
A. The noise floor of the receiver. (Ans.)
B. The power-supply output ripple.
C. The two-tone intermodulation
distortion.
D. The input impedance to the detector.
Excel Review Center ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1
What is the theoretical minimum noise A. Filter bandwidth should be slightly C. Cross-modulation of the desired signal
floor of a receiver with a 400-Hertz greater than the received-signal and insufficient audio power to operate
bandwidth? bandwidth. (Ans.) the speaker.
B. Filter bandwidth should be D. Oscillator instability and severe audio
A. -141 dBm approximately half the received-signal distortion of all but the strongest
B. -148 dBm (Ans.) bandwidth. received signals.
C. -174 dBm C. Filter bandwidth should be
D. -180 dBm approximately two times the received- The ability of a communications receiver
signal bandwidth. to perform well in the presence of strong
How can selectivity be achieved in the D. Filter bandwidth should be signals outside the band of interest is
front-end circuitry of a communications approximately four times the received- indicated by what parameter?
receiver? signal bandwidth.
A. Noise figure
A. By using an audio filter. What degree of selectivity is desirable in B. Blocking dynamic range (Ans.)
B. By using a preselector. (Ans.) the IF circuitry of an FM-phone receiver? C. Signal-to-noise ratio
C. By using an additional RF amplifier D. Audio output
stage. A. 1 kHz
D. By using an additional IF amplifier B. 2.4 kHz What is meant by the term noise figure of
stage. C. 4.2 kHz a communications receiver?
D. 15 kHz. (Ans.)
A receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the IF A. The level of noise entering the
circuitry is optimum for what type of How can selectivity be achieved in the IF receiver from the antenna.
signals? circuitry of a communications receiver? B. The relative strength of a received
signal 3 kHz removed from the carrier
A. CW A. Incorporate a means of varying the frequency.
B. SSB voice (Ans.) supply voltage to the local oscillator C. The level of noise generated in the
C. Double-sideband AM voice circuitry. front end and succeeding stages of a
D. FSK RTTY B. Replace the standard JFET mixer with receiver. (Ans.)
a bipolar transistor followed by a D. The ability of a receiver to reject
What occurs during CW reception if too capacitor of the proper value. unwanted signals at frequencies close
narrow a filter bandwidth is used in the IF C. Remove AGC action from the IF stage to the desired one.
stage of a receiver? and confine it to the audio stage only.
D. Incorporate a high-Q filter. (Ans.)
Which stage of a receiver primarily
A. Undesired signals will reach the audio
establishes its noise figure?
stage. What is meant by the dynamic range of a
B. Output-offset overshoot. communications receiver?
A. The audio stage.
C. Cross-modulation distortion.
B. The IF strip.
D. Filter ringing. (Ans.) A. The number of kHz between the
C. The RF stage. (Ans.)
lowest and the highest frequency to
D. The local oscillator.
which the receiver can be tuned.
A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF
B. The maximum possible undistorted
circuitry is optimum for what type of What is the most the actual transmitter
audio output of the receiver,
signals? frequency could differ from a reading of
referenced to one milliwatt.
156,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter
C. The ratio between the minimum
A. SSB voice with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm?
discernible signal and the largest
B. Double-sideband AM (Ans.)
tolerable signal without causing
C. CW A. 165.2 Hz.
audible distortion products. (Ans.)
D. FSK RTTY B. 15.652 kHz.
D. The difference between the lowest-
C. 156.52 Hz. (Ans.)
frequency signal and the highest-
What degree of selectivity is desirable in D. 1.4652 MHz.
frequency signal detectable without
the IF circuitry of a single-sideband phone
moving the tuning knob.
receiver? What is the most the actual transmitter
frequency could differ from a reading of
What is the term for the ratio between the
A. 1 kHz 156,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter
largest tolerable receiver input signal and
B. 2.4 kHz (Ans.) with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm?
the minimum discernible signal?
C. 4.2 kHz
D. 4.8 kHz A. 146.52 Hz.
A. Intermodulation distortion.
B. 10 Hz.
B. Noise floor.
What is an undesirable effect of using too C. 156.52 kHz.
C. Noise figure.
wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section D. 1565.20 Hz. (Ans.)
D. Dynamic range. (Ans.)
of a receiver?
What is the most the actual transmitter
What types of problems are caused by
A. Output-offset overshoot. frequency could differ from a reading of
poor dynamic range in a communications
B. Undesired signals will reach the audio 462,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter
receiver?
stage. (Ans.) with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm?
C. Thermal-noise distortion.
A. Cross-modulation of the desired signal
D. Filter ringing. A. 46.21 MHz.
and desensitization from strong
B. 10 Hz.
adjacent signals. (Ans.)
How should the filter bandwidth of a C. 1.0 MHz.
B. Oscillator instability requiring
receiver IF section compare with the D. 462.1 Hz. (Ans.)
frequent retuning, and loss of ability to
bandwidth of a received signal?
recover the opposite sideband, should
it be transmitted.

20
Excel Review Center ECE Refresher/Coaching Course EST TH 1
What is the most the actual transmit and accepting a maximum modulation
frequency could differ from a reading of rate of 3 kHz?
462,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter
with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm? A. 60.
B. 0.16.
A. 46.21 Hz. (Ans.) C. 0.6.
B. 0.1 MHz. D. 1.66. (Ans.)
C. 462.1 Hz.
D. 0.2 MHz. What is the deviation ratio of an FM-
phone signal having a maximum
If the elapsed time for a radar echo is 62 frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz
microseconds what is the distance in and accepting a maximum modulation
nautical miles to the object? rate of 3.5 kHz?

A. 5 nautical miles. (Ans.) A. 2.14. (Ans.)

B. 87 nautical miles. B. 0.214.
C. 37 nautical miles. C. 0.47.
D. 11.5 nautical miles. D. 47.

What is the wavelength of a signal at 500 What is the seventh harmonic of 2182
MHz? kHz when the transmitter is connected to
a half-wave Hertz antenna?
A. 0.062 cm.
B. 6 meters. A. 2182 kHz.
C. 60 cm. (Ans.) B. 15.27 MHz. (Ans.)
D. 60 meters. C. 311.7 kHz.
D. 7.64 MHz.
For a space wave transmission, the radio
horizon distance of a transmitting antenna What is the fifth harmonic frequency of a
with a height of 100 meters is transmitter operating on 480 kHz with a
approximately: 1/4 wavelength antenna?

A. 10 km. A. 2.4 MHz. (Ans.)

B. 40 km. (Ans.) B. 240 MHz.
C. 100 km. C. 600 kHz.
D. 400 km. D. 1.2 MHz.

For a space wave transmission, the radio If a transmission line has a power loss of
horizon distance of a receiving antenna 6 dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the
with a height of 64 meters is feed point to the antenna at the end of a
approximately: 200 foot transmission line fed by a 100
watt transmitter?
A. 8 km.
B. 32 km. (Ans.) A. 70 watts.
C. 64 km. B. 50 watts.
D. 256 km. C. 25 watts.
D. 6 watts. (Ans.)
If a transmitting antenna is 100 meters
high and a separate receiving antenna is An antenna radiates a primary signal of
64 meters high, what is the maximum 500 watts output. If there is a 2nd
space wave communication distance harmonic output of 0.5 watt, what
possible between them? attenuation of the 2nd harmonic has
occurred?
A. 18 km.
B. 72 km. (Ans.) A. 3 dB.
C. 164 km. B. 10 dB.
D. 656 km. C. 20 dB.
D. 30 dB. (Ans.)
A receiver is located 64 km from a space
wave transmitting antenna that is 100
meters high. Find the required height of
the receiving antenna. END

A. 36 meters high. (Ans.)

B. 64 meters high.
C. 100 meters high.
D. 182.25 meters high.

What is the deviation ratio for an FM-

phone signal having a maximum
frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz

21