Zaban-Reading-Tpo-50-59 Questions

TPO‐50
1- According to paragraph 1, what effect did the expansion of rail links have on Chicago?
A ) Chicago became the headquarters for eleven new railroads.
B ) Chicago became the most important city east of the Mississippi River.
C ) Chicago was transformed from a village into a large city.
D ) Chicago replaced eastern cities as the main buyer of farm products from the region.
2- Paragraph 2 supports the idea that Illinois, Indiana, and Wisconsin were able to become the
leading wheat-growing states by 1860 in large part because
A ) by 1860 there were more railroads in Illinois, Indiana, and Wisconsin than in Ohio,
Pennsylvania, and New York
B ) the expansion of east-west rail lines made transporting Midwestern products to East Coast
markets relatively fast and easy
C ) by 1860 states such as Ohio, Pennsylvania, and New York had become more interested in
industrial development than in agriculture
D ) most of the farmers who had grown wheat in Ohio, Pennsylvania, or New York resettled in
the Midwest after the expansion of east-west rail line
3- According to paragraph 2, one effect of the increased agricultural development in the Midwest
was to
A ) slow the rate at which population grew in many Midwestern cities
B ) increase the demand for industrial products from Midwestern cities
C ) encourage the extension of east-west rail lines to the Midwest
D ) reduce the pressure on Midwestern farmers to get their products to market faster
The paragraph 2 is marked with 🔷
4- The author mentions "Manteno, Illinois" in order to
A ) give an example of how railroads decided which small towns would be selected for stations
B ) illustrate the power of railroads to determine where towns would come into existence
C ) explain how some railroads were able to make more money from real estate speculation than
from railroad traffic
D ) show how people's view of the Midwest as a frontier region had changed by the Civil War
5- According to paragraph 4, how were railroads affected by the economic depression in the late
1830s?
A ) They lost important funding from state governments
B ) They began to realize that some of their projects were overly ambitious
C ) They had to compete with canals for government support
D ) They emerged as the nation's biggest business

6- Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out
essential information.
A ) Private investment in railroads began in the 1850s following the dramatic expansion of the
railroad network, which had been financed by local governments
B ) Railroads' relations with local governments became strained in the 1850s, when railroads
turned to private investors for financing to expand their capacity
C ) Local governments' limited capacity to finance railroad expansion was a long-standing

problem that railroads solved in the 1850s by turning toward private investment
D ) When local governments could not adequately finance the railroads' dramatic expansion in
the 1850s, private investment became increasingly important
7- Paragraph 5 supports which of the following ideas about people who held railroad stock?
A ) Many of them were not particularly wealthy
B ) Many of them overestimated the economic benefits of railroads
C ) Most of them bought their stock for less than it was worth
D ) Most of them had been employed by a railroad

8- According to paragraph 5, investment bankers were involved in all of the following EXCEPT
A ) controlling the distribution of funds to railroads
B ) finding national and international buyers of railroad stock
C ) overseeing administrative changes of railroads when needed
D ) persuading the federal government to reinvest in railroads

9‐ Look at the four squares [■] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the
passage.Indeed, the network became so dense that by the 1860s the United States had more miles of
railroad tracks than did all the rest of the world.Where would the sentence best fit?
Click on a square [■] to insert the sentence in passage.
10: Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete
the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the
passage. Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not
presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.
The expansion of railroads in the mid-1800s played an important role in the development of the
American Midwest.
A. Increased rail line between the East and the Midwest resulted in the rapid rise of major
Midwestern cities such as Chicago, as well as in the growth of small towns along railroad
routes.
B. Real estate speculation by railroads in the 1850s drove up the value of farmland and
encouraged many Midwestern farmers to sell their land and make a new life in the cities.
C. Both canals and railroads fell out of public favor in the early 1840s, but by the mid-1850s
the economic benefits of railroads had once again become generally recognized.
D. Once Chicago became a major commercial hub with direct rail connections to New
Orleans and the East, Midwestern farmers were no longer limited to selling most of their
products locally.
E. State government financing of railroads largely ended in the 1830s and was replaced by
a combination of local and federal government support and money from private investors.
F. In the 1850s, railroads turned to investment banks in New York City for capital to expand
and by doing so, helped establish the city as the main financial center in the United States.

PASSAGE 2
11- According to paragraph 1, what first caused Brazilians to think seriously about trying to
achieve independence from Portugal?
A ) Portugal's declining interest in having overseas colonies
B ) Portugal's moves to gain political and economic control of Brazil for its own advantage
C ) The drive toward independence going on at the time in parts of Spanish America
D ) The Portuguese reaction to Brazil's efforts to gain control over its economy
12- According to paragraph 1, what happened to the 1788-1799 conspiracy against Portuguese
rule?
A ) It ended up creating discontent in certain provinces of Brazil
B ) It increasingly came under the influence of republican ideas from Portugal
C ) It was crushed before it got beyond the planning stage

D ) It gradually lost the support of the lower strata of urban society
13- According to paragraph 2, Brazil gained a significant measure of independence early in the
nineteenth century primarily as a result of
A ) the Portuguese prince's desire to become King of Brazil rather than King of Portugal
B ) Brazil's growing industrial and financial importance
C ) the flight of the Portuguese court to Rio de Janeiro
D ) the Strangford Treaty with England

14- According to paragraph 2, King Joao did each of the following for Brazil EXCEPT
A ) establish a national bank
B ) support Brazilian industries
C ) obtain important tariff concessions from England
D ) encourage trade with a wider range of nations

15- The word "precipitated" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) came before
B ) brought about
C ) resulted from
D ) slowed down
16- According to paragraph 4, the Portuguese revolutionaries insisted on each of the following
EXCEPT
A ) King Joao’s immediate return to Portugal
B ) the creation of a liberal constitution for Brazil
C ) an end to Brazil's status as a kingdom
D ) Portuguese control over the Brazilian economy

A ) On January 9, 1822, Brazil achieved independence without any involvement by the masses
when Pedro, despite the urging of his Brazilian advisers, defied a parliamentary order to return to
Portugal
B ) Following the urging of Brazilian advisers, on January 9, 1822, the Portuguese parliament
ordered Pedro to return, but, hoping to avoid conflict with the masses, Pedro declared, "l
remain."
C ) The best opportunity for Brazil to achieve independence without involving the masses came
on January 9. 1822, but Pedro, saying, "I remain," refused an order to return to Portugal
D ) Seeing the possibility of an orderly transition to independence, Pedro's Brazilian advisers

urged him to refuse to return to Portugal, and on January 9, 1822, Pedro did refuse, declaring, "I
remain."
18- According to paragraph 5, Independence Day in Brazil is the date on which
A ) Brazil made Dom Pedro its constitutional Emperor
B ) Dom Pedro refused to comply with the Portuguese parliament's demand that he return to
Portugal
C ) the Portuguese parliament officially withdrew all formal connection to Brazil

D ) Dom Pedro publicly declared his position by saying, "Independence or death!"
passage.Therefore, although still closely linked to Portugal, Brazil was no longer formally considered a
colony.Where would the sentence best fit?
It was only after the Portuguese court moved to Brazil that significant progress toward Brazilian
independence began.
A. Major conspiracies against Portuguese dominance developed in regions where

governmental control over Brazil's economy had produced a spirit of revolt among
Brazilian merchants
B. King Joao effectively freed Brazil from Portugal's political and economic control and in
1815 elevated Brazil to the legal status of a kingdom coequal with Portugal
C. After freeing itself from Portuguese control. Brazil almost immediately fell under the
control of England, which used its economic power to advance Brazil's local industry for
England's benefit
D. The presence of King Joao and his court in Rio de Janeiro created competition and
tension with the Portuguese elites born in Brazil, who had no loyalties to the Portuguese
crown
E. After the Portuguese revolution in 1820, Portugal attempted to reestablish complete
control over Brazil; but although King Joao returned to Lisbon, Pedro, his son and heir,
remained in Brazil
F. In 1822, Dom Pedro refused Portugal's demand that he return, declared Brazil's
independence, and by the year's end had become constitutional Emperor of an
independent Brazil

PASSAGE 3
21- According to paragraph 1, the energy that comes from stars and that is seen as light is the
result of
A ) protons combining with helium atoms
B ) atoms of heavier elements smashing together
C ) various particles fusing with one another
D ) hydrogen atoms breaking apart

22- According to paragraph 2, Population I stars and Population II stars differ from each other in
terms of both
A ) how old they are and where in their galaxies they are found
B ) how old they are and whether they have a halo around them
C ) where in their galaxies they are found and whether they bulge out in the center
D ) whether they are at the center of a flat disk and whether they have a halo
23- According to paragraphs 2 and 3, all of the following are true of Population I stars EXCEPT
A ) They contain material that was once contained in Population II stars
B ) In terms of their mass, they consist primarily of hydrogen and helium
C ) They contain elements that were formed through the fusion of lighter ones
D ) They generally do not last as long as Population II stars

The paragraphs 2,3 are marked with 🔷
24- The word "virtually" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) absolutely
B ) usually
C ) almost
D ) as a result
25- Why does the author ask the question "What will happen when the Sun dies?"?
A ) To identify the most serious question concerning star death that scientists must address
B ) To introduce the topic that the rest of the passage will discuss
C ) To suggest that scientists remain uncertain about some aspects of star death
D ) To suggest that the Sun may not be a good example of a Population I star
26- According to paragraph 5, once the Sun is in its "postnuclear" phase, the outer zone will
differ from the inner zone in that the outer zone will
A ) undergo a much less dramatic change in size
B ) maintain more nearly constant temperatures
C ) cease to be a site of energy-generating activity
D ) still contain some amount of hydrogen

27- According to paragraph 5, which of the following will be true about the inner core of the
dying Sun?
A ) It will contract, sending an energy wave through the rest of the star
B ) It will shine with a bright red glow before it finally shrinks and dies
C ) It will expand to hundreds of times its previous size

D ) It will shrink due to the weight of the outer envelope
28- Paragraph 5 supports which of the following about the death of the Sun?
A ) The Sun's outer envelope will expand rapidly as a result of decreasing temperatures in the
outer zone
B ) The Sun will reach the red giant stage millions of years before it becomes a white dwarf star
C ) After the Sun has released the material of its outer envelope into space, nuclear fusion will
continue at the remaining core for a limited period
D ) While the outer region of the Sun expands, it releases all its material into space
passage.Clearly, a more plausible mechanism was needed to explain how stars generate
energy.Where would the sentence best fit?
Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the
summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage.
Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the
passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.
Stars generate the energy that makes them shine as a by-product of nuclear fusion and not by
shrinking, as scientists had once believed.
A. The Sun is a good example of a Population I star because the Sun generates its energy
through nuclear fusion rather than through contraction.
B. In the Milky Way, Population I stars are found in and around the central bulge and
Population II stars are found in the galactic disk.
C. The Sun and stars like it will separate into inner cores and outer envelopes before all
nuclear reactions in the cores stop and the stars finally die.
D. Population II stars, the oldest stars, are formed from hydrogen and helium gases, and
they shine until they exhaust their fusible material.
E. Population I stars, including the Sun, are relatively young stars that are mostly hydrogen
and helium gas but also contain heavier elements.
F. The outer envelope of the Sun and stars like it will release their energy into space, and
the inner cores will become white dwarfs before they finally give off their last energy.

TPO51
1- According to paragraph 1, why was Memphis a better choice for the capital of a united Egypt
than either This or Hierakonpolis?
A ) Memphis was in a better location for maintaining administrative control.
B ) Memphis had long been a regional administrative center by the time Egypt was united.
C ) This and Hierakonpolis had never actually been incorporated into the unified state.
D ) Egyptian rulers had failed to keep political control over This and Hierakonpolis in
predynastic times.
2- Which of the following best describes how paragraph 1 is organized?
A ) Two simultaneous developments are described, as well as the reasons why neither one
would have occurred without the other.
B ) A hypothesis is presented, and then points in favor of that hypothesis as well as points
against it are discussed.
C ) A major event is described, and then the most obvious effects of that event are presented.
D ) A decision is described, and then one likely motivation for that decision is presented.
3- According to paragraph 2, when did Egypt import goods from the Near East?
A ) Once internal trade was fully controlled from Memphis
B ) Not until early dynastic Egypt established its state-directed economy

C ) As early as predynastic times
D ) Only when local supplies of those goods had been completely used up
sentence in the passage?Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out
A ) Thus in Memphis, the rulers of the Early Dynastic Period were ideally placed to control
internal trade, which they had to do in order to run their economy.
B ) Therefore the rulers of the Early Dynastic Period thought Memphis was the ideal location
for trade with nearby countries.
C ) In short, a state-directed economy like that of the Early Dynastic Period requires choosing a
single location to which goods can be moved-Memphis, in this case.
D ) In sum, then, a state-directed economy first developed during Egypt's Early Dynastic Period
because Memphis was an ideal location for controlling trade.
5- According to paragraph 3, recent research into the topography of the Memphis region in
ancient times suggests which of the following?
A ) The level of the Nile floodplains was much higher in predynastic and dynastic times than in
later times.
B ) The sediment deposits of wadis were not as noticeable in predynastic and dynastic times
than in later times.
C ) The Nile valley at the point of Memphis was narrower in predynastic and dynastic times
than it was in later times.
D ) Frequent rainy periods may have caused a significant reduction of trade traffic during the
predynastic and dynastic times.
6- The word "vicinity" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) center
B ) fields
C ) city
D ) surrounding area
7- According to paragraph 4, which of the following is NOT a reason Memphis was chosen as
the capital of a united Egypt?
A ) It was at the junction of a major trade route with the Nile valley.
B ) It was near land that could be used for animal grazing and for growing crops.
C ) The nearby outwash fans led into wadis that could be used as desert trade routes.
D ) Since foreign traders had settled in nearby Maadi, trade between the two cities could be
established.
8- In paragraph 4, why does the author mention the cities of Hierakonpolis and Elkab?
A ) To give an indication of the level of prosperity that Memphis is thought to have enjoyed
from its earliest days
B ) To compare the Memphis region to them in terms of their similar combinations of

characteristics providing advantages for early settlement
C ) To identify the models that the founders of Memphis followed in laying out the national
capital
D ) To suggest that the combination of desert pasturage and alluvial arable land in the same area
was very common
passage.While considerations of political power and ease of administration were decisive in choosing
the location of the new capital, the site clearly had other advantages.Where would the sentence best
fit?
Around 3100 B.C. Memphis was chosen for its strategic importance to be the first capital of a
recently united Egypt.
A. River-based trade from northern Egypt and imported goods going south all passed
through the Memphis region, making Memphis an ideal location for controlling trade.
B. Recent geological surveys suggest that the topographical features of the Memphis
region made it particularly well-suited for controlling communications and trade.
C. The rulers of unified Egypt enjoyed a monopoly over foreign trade because all such
trade was required to go through the Wadi Digla, to which the rulers controlled all access.
D. After Memphis became the capital city, river-based trade along the Nile gained in
importance, while land-based desert trade declined in importance.
E. The Nile, despite a constriction of its valley near Memphis, was the most advantageous
route for communication and travel once the floodplain had begun to rise.
F. While the location of Memphis was agriculturally favorable, it was particularly attractive
because it enabled Egypt's rulers to control trade moving through the desert from the
Near East.

PASSAGE 2
11- The word "drastically" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) gradually
B ) permanently
C ) extensively
D ) possibly
12- Paragraph 1 supports all of the following statements about fluids EXCEPT
A ) They can chemically react with particles on a planet’s surface.
B ) Most of their mass does not flow but remains in place.
C ) Their movement can reshape the surface of certain kinds of planets.
D ) Their movement is driven by the Sun and by gravity.

13- It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that Earth evolved differently than Venus did in part
because
A ) there was more volcanic activity on early Venus than on early Earth
B ) they received different amounts of solar energy
C ) their interiors contained different amounts of heat
D ) their early atmospheres contained different levels of oxygen and nitrogen

14- According to paragraph 2, all of the following played a role in keeping carbon dioxide levels
high in the atmosphere of Venus EXCEPT
A ) the breaking apart of water molecules by ultraviolet rays
B ) the evaporation of water released from the planet's interior
C ) the escape of hydrogen into space
D ) the release of molecules from melting metals such as lead

15- According to paragraph 3, Earth's surface is different from the surfaces of many other
planetary bodies in which of the following ways?
A ) It is more strongly marked by river valleys and erosion.
B ) It is more geologically active.
C ) It is covered by impact craters.
D ) It has an atmosphere.
16- According to paragraph 3, why is water able to move so freely on Earth?
A ) Earth's temperatures are such that water exists in solid, liquid, and gas forms.
B ) Earth is large enough to be geologically active and for its gravitational field to hold an
atmosphere.
C ) Earth’s surface allows river valleys to develop across the landscape.
D ) Earth has active winds that blow across seas and oceans causing fluid movements.
17- Why does the author point out that on Earth "gases in the atmosphere or water react with
rocks at the surface to form new chemical compounds"?
A ) To explain why scientists believe that few areas on Earth have been untouched by flowing
water.
B ) To identify one of several ways in which the movement of fluids can affect the surface of a
planet.
C ) To provide evidence that fluid movements are caused by gravity flow systems energized by
the Sun.
D ) To identify an effect of wind scouring fine particles away from large areas.
A ) Life on Earth is responsible for many changes to the planet's surface, including blankets of
greenery.
B ) Self-replicating molecules of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen led to the development of life
early in Earth's history.
C ) The presence of water made it possible for life to develop early in Earth's history and to
significantly change its surface.
D ) Early in life's history on Earth, self-replicating molecules of carbon hydrogen, and oxygen
began blanketing the surface in greenery.
passage.Venus may not have always been this way.Where would the sentence best fit?
Over time, the movement of surface fluids has greatly changed Venus and Earth.
A. Although Venus is about the same size as Earth, its greater volcanic activity has added
considerably to carbon dioxide levels in its atmosphere.
B. Like Venus Earth has an atmosphere, but Earth's atmosphere has far more oxygen and
nitrogen than does the atmosphere of Venus.
C. On Earth, the dominance of river valley landscapes and the existence of life are due to
the planet's hydrologic cycle.
D. Because Venus lost the water it originally had, most of its carbon dioxide remained in its
atmosphere, causing the planet to become very warm.
E. On Earth, chemical reactions involving fluids remove carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere by giving rise to carbonate rocks, and winds energized by gravity flow systems
move fine particles from one place to another.
F. The evaporation of liquid water from Earth's surface is largely limited by the life forms
that have developed, particularly the vegetation.

PASSAGE 3
21- According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true about Europe in the nineteenth
century?
A ) A large increase in food production led to industrialization.
B ) Population changes occurred at the same pace in the major regions.
C ) The standard of living rose to the level of that in most parts of the world.
D ) The tremendous rise in population led to greater agricultural output in every region.
22- According to paragraph 2, which of the following caused the food supply to increase in most
of Western Europe during the nineteenth century?
A ) Replacement of seventeenth-century farming techniques with more modern ones
B ) Improved grain harvests in most European countries
C ) Reduced demand for food as a result of a decreased population
D ) Use of new land to grow crops

23- In paragraph 2, why does the author mention the potato blight that occurred in Ireland?
A ) To identify a crop that was more successful in the United States than it was in Western
Europe
B ) To support a claim about regional agricultural failures
C ) To give an example of a problematic trend that had started in the late seventeenth century
D ) To provide evidence that many countries in Europe experienced a loss of population in the
nineteenth century
24- The phrase "kept pace with" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) exceeded
B ) matched the increase in
C ) increased the rate of
D ) caused
25- According to paragraph 3, all of the following factors helped the supply of food meet the
needs of a growing population EXCEPT
A ) increased agricultural research in Germany
B ) introduction of new crops
C ) development of food-processing devices
D ) agricultural programs in universities in the United States

26- According to paragraph 4, famine became less of a problem in Western Europe during the
nineteenth century because of
A ) the decline of malnutrition
B ) the construction of more food-storage facilities
C ) faster means of transportation
D ) improved agricultural methods in Eastern Europe

27- According to paragraph 5, which of the following factors led to rapid urbanization in the first
half of the nineteenth century?
A ) The destruction of many farms due to bad harvests

B ) The reduction in the amount of good-quality farmland
C ) The rise in death rates in the countryside
D ) The lack of jobs in the countryside

28- Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 6 about underground sewers?
A ) They became common in most of Western Europe in the 1830s.
B ) They helped reduce deaths caused by disease in cities.
C ) They led to the discovery that disease could be caused by germs.
D ) They encouraged people to leave rural areas and move to the cities.
passage.Such individual efforts had substantial, concrete effects on society.Where would the sentence
best fit?
Western Europe experienced a tremendous growth in population in the nineteenth century.
A. Agricultural failures became less damaging after 1850 because of advances in science
and technology as well as improvements in the transportation and preservation of foods.
B. The development of better food-processing technologies allowed many Western
European countries to grow their own food without having to import it from other
countries.
C. High death rates in the cities began to decline as food supplies became more reliable
and as reformers prompted improvements in sanitation and housing.
D. Although agricultural failures led to deaths and emigration population levels were
restored within a short time.
E. As the population in the countryside began increasing faster than the supply of food and
living space, people began moving to the cities in search of jobs and other resources.
F. The improvements in crop-growing methods created new jobs on the farms, causing
people from the overcrowded cities to move to the countryside to fill those jobs.
TPO52
1- According to paragraph 1, the competence of a stream increases as
A ) downstream sorting decreases
B ) flooding wanes
C ) the speed of the current increases
D ) the size of particles increases

2- According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of stream sorting EXCEPT
A ) Most of the particles in mountain streams pile up behind boulders and cobbles
B ) When particles of different sizes settle in a place, the smaller ones sit atop the larger ones
C ) There are generally more large particles upstream than downstream in a river
D ) In some situations, downstream particles are created from rocks that eroded as they traveled
downstream
3- According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true about bars in streams?
A ) They start forming in the stream channel and then expand over the banks.
B ) They seldom form in rivers that are used for commercial navigation.
C ) They tend to grow longer each year.
D ) They often last no more than a year.

4- Why does the author ask the reader to "Imagine a winding stream"?
A ) To explain how the presence of bars changes the speed and direction of water flow in a
stream
B ) To explain why bars are more common than alluvial fans or other types of sediment deposits
C ) To illustrate the particular difficulties that commercial navigation faces on many rivers
D ) To help explain how point bars are formed
5- According to paragraph 3, all of the following are true of braided streams EXCEPT
A ) They shift back and forth on the floodplain as some of their channels fill with sediment and
new ones are formed.
B ) They carry sediments that tend to be very similar in size.
C ) They sometimes have mid-channel bars.
D ) Some of their channels are created as a result of the overflow of other channels.
6- Why does the author include the information that "Glaciers grind bedrock into fine sediment,
which is carried by streams flowing from the melting ice"?
A ) To give a reason why heavily sedimented braided streams are common in glacial
environment
B ) To explain why some mountain streams deposit most of their sediment in a fan-shaped
mound
C ) To identify the most common source of sediment in arid and semiarid mountainous regions
D ) To help explain why glacial sediment decreases the gradient and velocity of steep mountain
streams
7- The word "simultaneously" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) in many directions
B ) on the surface
C ) at the same time
D ) in a straight line
8- According to paragraph 4, what is true about river deltas?
A ) They alternate between periods of spreading out and periods of getting smaller.
B ) They have both active channels and channels that have been blocked by sediment.
C ) They are typically formed by rivers that are braided before they reach the delta area.
D ) They are much larger when formed in a still lake than when formed in the ocean.
passage.If the Mississippi River were not contained by such systems, it would probably abandon its
present path and cut into the channel of a nearby river to the west.Where would the sentence best fit?

Rivers can carry all sizes of particles that they deposit in characteristic ways.
A. Particles tend to be largest upstream and smallest downstream, probably because water
flowing downstream erodes fine sediment from the larger particles.
B. Bars commonly shift from being point bars on a river bank to being mid-channel bars.
C. Rivers that flow through arid and semiarid mountainous regions tend to form alluvial
fans at bends in the river.
D. A wide variety of deposits, including bars, alluvial fans; and deltas, are formed as a result
of an increase in the speed of the downstream current.
E. Deposits of sediment are found where flow velocity decreases, and when there is
excessive sediment a stream may become braided, dividing into several channels.
F. Deltas, which are formed where streams enter lakes or the ocean, are naturally unstable
landforms that can extend over a large area.
PASSAGE 2
11- All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 1 as evidence that the Natufians may have
engaged in the growing and processing of cereals and grains EXCEPT
A ) tools with a specific pattern of wear
B ) the widespread presence of grinding stones
C ) the presence of clay containers
D ) results from the analysis of Natufian teeth

12- Why does the author say that "many such tools show signs of long, intensive use" in
connection with Natufian agriculture?
A ) To argue that the Natufian people consumed grains long before they included fish in their
diet
B ) To suggest that Natufian people could not replace their tools frequently because they had to
travel very long distances to find grinding stones
C ) To illustrate the sophistication of the Natufians in the design of stone tools
D ) To support the claim that the archaeological record of the Natufian period shows clear
evidence of agricultural origins
A ) Studies of the teeth of Natufians suggest the importance of cereals in their culture although
they still hunted and foraged.
B ) The Natufians specialized in collecting cereals and may have been in the process of
domesticating certain animals.
C ) Studies of the teeth of Natufians suggest that these people became hunter-foragers after they
began domesticating cereals.
D ) The Natufians’ diet consisted mostly of cereals and lacked sufficient meat.
14- Paragraph 2 suggests that compared with their predecessors, the Natufians
A ) had smaller camps
B ) had more permanent settlements
C ) engaged in trade less often
D ) had more meat in their diets

15- The phrase "be deficient in" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) consist mainly of
B ) be balanced by
C ) not have enough
D ) have adequate
16- According to paragraph 2, the abundance of wild cereals in the Natufian diet probably meant
that the Natufians
A ) had to move their settlements more often
B ) needed to supplement their diets with salt
C ) found it easy to store their food supplies
D ) no longer needed meat to provide essential minerals

17- All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 3 as part of the cultural change experienced
by the Natufians EXCEPT
A ) Technological advances
B ) Personal ornamentation
C ) Cave painting
D ) Community burial sites

18- According to paragraph 4, which of the following may have helped push the Natufians
toward farming as a way of life?
A ) At the same time as the Natufian population was increasing, the climate was becoming less
hospitable.
B ) The development of sickles and other tools made it possible for Natufians to exploit new
kinds of cereals.
C ) The climate changed during the Natufian period and produced conditions favorable to
growing cereals.
D ) Increasing competition from neighboring populations may have forced Natufians to grow
cereals more intensively.
passage.Further evidence of an evolving cultural complexity comes from Natufian burials.Where
would the sentence best fit?

The Natufians differed from their predecessors in many ways—most significantly, in their move
toward agriculture.
A. The Natufians used tools to collect and process food, but their lack of containers
suggests that they rarely had excess food to store.
B. The increase in salt in the Natufians' diet suggests that meat was becoming harder to
find, perhaps because of climate change.
C. The Natufians engaged in trade and lived in large camps in which they sometimes built
permanent structures.
D. Natufian culture developed somewhat differently in different regions, in part because of
differences in the types and amount of food available from place to place.
E. Although their diet included meat from hunting, extensive evidence suggests that the
Natufians consumed a lot of cereals and may even have been cultivating them.
F. Natufian art, personal ornamentation, and burial sites suggest cultural changes involving
an increasing sense of ethnic identity and perhaps an ancestor cult.
PASSAGE 3
21- According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of early food production by the end
of the Pleistocene?
A ) In certain areas of western and central Africa, some people were already growing root plants
such as yams.
B ) The cultivation of cereal crops had already been used effectively and widely by people
living on the fringes of ram forests.
C ) Sophisticated forms of "vegeculture" were introduced for the first time in central and
western Africa by people from the Sahara's southern borders.
D ) The cultivation of root and tree crops replaced the cultivation of cereal crops because of
decreasing summer rainfall in grassland areas.
22- Paragraph 2 mentions all of the following as developments in Sub-Saharan Africa from 5000
to 3000 B.C. EXCEPT
A ) The Sahara dried up.
B ) Ancient Egyptian civilization started to form along the Nile.
C ) The inhabitants of the East African highlands gave up hunting when cattle herders arrived.
D ) Pastoral peoples moved through the savanna belt to settle in the East African highlands.
23- Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about the pastoral peoples in the
East African Highlands around 3300 B.C.?
A ) They lived around the mountains and rarely descended into the plains.
B ) They relied on different food sources during dry months than they did during wet months.
C ) Their settlements were larger than those of pastoral peoples in West Africa and the Sudan.
D ) They obtained food from nearby hunter-gatherer communities during wet months.
24- The word "modest" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) small
B ) strong
C ) good
D ) typical
25- Paragraph 3 mentions all of the following as reasons that raising cattle in Africa was
demanding EXCEPT:
A ) Cattle had to drink frequently.
B ) Cattle needed large areas of good-quality grazing grass.
C ) Cattle required a great deal of movement from one season to the next.
D ) Cattle suffered from sleeping sickness after the herds spread south.
26- Paragraph 4 indicates which of the following about shifting agriculture?
A ) It allowed farmers to cultivate cereal crops without reducing the size of their herds.
B ) It allowed farmers to cultivate a variety of crops at the same time.
C ) It enabled farmers to cultivate crops with minimal equipment and effort.

D ) It enriched the soil and produced large yields of crops over the years.
27- Select the TWO answer choices that, according to paragraph 5, indicate true statements about
sub-Saharan slash-and-burn agriculture. To obtain credit you must select TWO answer choices.
A ) It involved a careful selection of soils for cultivation.
B ) It involved regular flooding of the soils to improve fertility.
C ) It was abandoned after being implemented intensively for two centuries.
D ) It spread quickly once it took hold.

28- Which of the following best describes the relationship of paragraph 5 to paragraph 4?
A ) Both paragraphs compare the effectiveness of cereal agriculture and cattle herding as food-
production strategies in the sub-Saharan regions.
B ) Paragraph 5 challenges the ideas in paragraph 4 about the relative importance of shifting
agriculture in the sub-Saharan regions.
C ) Both paragraphs emphasize the idea that agricultural practices south of the Sahara took a
very long time to develop.
D ) Paragraph 5 provides further details about the practice of shifting agriculture south of the
Sahara presented in paragraph 4.
passage.Southern Africa was, however, relatively free of tsetse flies.Where would the sentence best
fit?
Click on a square [■] to insert the sentence in passage

The technologies of food production may have already been employed by some sub-Saharan
peoples by the end of the Pleistocene.
A. Food production started with the cultivation of root plants and developed to include the
cultivation of cereal crops.
B. In order to avoid human and animal sleeping sickness, which posed a danger to herders
and cattle, more and more herders took up cultivation.
C. By 1500 B.C. cereal agriculture was widespread throughout the savanna belt south of the
Sahara, and shifting agriculture was used effectively and widely by farmers.
D. Pastoralists who moved south across the Sahara to find suitable land for cattle grazing
may have also cultivated some crops for food.
E. Hunter-gatherer groups in eastern and southern Africa raided their herding neighbors to
acquire cattle and other domesticated animals.
F. Slash-and-burn agriculture was initially rejected by farmers because it was too labor-
intensive, but once the technique was improved, it expanded gradually to eastern and
southern Africa.
TPO 53
A ) Sumerian script, the earliest known form of writing among prehistoric writing systems, was
first used on clay tablets for accounting purposes.
B ) Although the earliest Sumerians engaged in commercial activity and practiced accounting,
they were not as literate as people in other parts of the prehistoric world.
C ) Archaeologists have discovered that literacy was developed in several parts of the world,
including ancient Mesopotamia.
D ) Archaeological detective work has revealed the commercial accounting practices of the
Sumerians of ancient Mesopotamia and provided a written record of their intense commercial
activity.
2- All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 as true of clay envelopes EXCEPT:
A ) They contained batches of tokens.
B ) They could be reused frequently.
C ) They had markings on the outside.
D ) They could be used to record debts.

3- According to paragraph 2, the first two-dimensional symbols were
A ) pictures of commodities drawn on clay tablets
B ) images sealed inside conical or cylindrical containers
C ) numbers used for keeping track of clay envelopes
D ) images of tokens pressed into the clay of envelopes

4- According to paragraph 2, why were tokens eliminated?
A ) They were not numerous or varied enough to represent all of the trade commodities.
B ) They were easily broken and then hard to count.
C ) They were difficult to keep together in batches.
D ) They were unnecessary when symbols were used on the surface of envelopes.
5- Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3 about the difference between earlier
tokens and later tokens?
A ) Later tokens were made of many different materials, but earlier ones were made only of
clay.
B ) Later tokens often looked like the commodities that they represented, but earlier ones did
not.
C ) Later tokens represented agricultural products, but earlier ones represented finished
products.
D ) Later tokens were based on pictographs，but earlier ones were based on naturalistic forms.
6- The word "likewise" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) probably
B ) usually
C ) similarly
D ) apparently
7- In paragraph 4, why does the author mention the association of tokens with farmers and
artisans?
A ) To provide examples of the types of commercial activity that existed in Sumerian society
B ) To argue against the theory that writing was developed by an intellectual elite
C ) To contrast the way farmers used tokens with the way artisans used tokens
D ) To help explain why farmers and artisans had a relatively modest social status in Sumerian
society
8- According to paragraph 5, all of the following statements about the development of numerals
are true EXCEPT:
A ) Numerals first developed around 3100 B.C.E.
B ) Numerals were created to keep records of commodities.
C ) The numeral “18” developed from the sign for grain.
D ) Accountants introduced unique numeral signs for use with signs for commodities.
passage.Such a system was clearly awkward for large inventories.Where would the sentence best fit?
Over a period of thousands of years, the symbols originally used for keeping track of goods
evolved into the first writing system, Sumerian cuneiform.
A. Three-dimensional tokens used to keep track of debts of grain and livestock eventually
gave way to two-dimensional symbols on clay tablets.
B. Writing was probably developed by farmers and artisans, since the symbols were first
used to keep track of agricultural products and items produced by artisans.
C. Two separate sets of symbols were used to keep track of each accounting of goods to
avoid mistakes in the accounting when only one set of tokens or marks was used.
D. Early tokens representing three-dimensional geometric shapes show that ancient
Mesopotamians invented geometry as well as writing.
E. The inventors of numerals were probably lower-ranking accountants because they were
assigned the job of developing new methods of accounting for large inventories.
F. Symbols were first used in a direct one-to-one correspondence with the commodity
being counted, but eventually true numerals were developed.

PASSAGE2
11- Select the TWO answer choices that, according to paragraph 1, help explain the relatively
low mineral nutrient content of most tropical rain forest soils. To receive credit, you must select
TWO answers
A ) The water in the streams flowing through tropical rain forests generally has relatively low
mineral content.
B ) The range of plants that grow in tropical rain forests is so wide that almost every kind of
mineral in the soil gets used up.
C ) The clays contained in tropical rain forest soils do not bind mineral ions well.
D ) Abundant rainfall causes minerals to leach out of the soil.
12- According to paragraph 1, one reason that the relatively high levels of aluminum in rain
forest soils present a problem for plants is that aluminum
A ) reduces the mineral-binding capacity of soils
B ) is somewhat toxic to plants
C ) makes too much phosphorus available to plants
D ) is present as a positively charged ion in tropical rain forest soils

13- According to paragraph 2, clay soils that contain relatively low amounts of organic materials
have all of the following disadvantages for plants EXCEPT
A ) poor water retention
B ) poor root penetrability
C ) few soil microbes
D ) low levels of mineral nutrients

14- Why does the author mention "Angkor Wat"?
A ) To show that rain forest soils are essentially the same today as they were many centuries ago
B ) To make the point that rain forest soils have certain advantages over other types of soils
C ) To illustrate how colorful rain forest soils can sometimes be
D ) To emphasize how hard rain forest soils can become
15- Paragraph 2 suggests the idea that compared with grassland soils, tropical rain forest soils
have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
A ) soil microbes grow more slowly
B ) contain lower amounts of organic materials
C ) hold less water
D ) contain iron, aluminum and manganese oxides

16- According to paragraph 3, the main advantage of a closed nutrient system is that such a
system
A ) reduces the risk of minerals being lost through leaching

B ) ensures that all organisms in the system receive an adequate supply of nutrients
C ) increases the amount of nutrients that plant roots can absorb from soil solutions
D ) increases the speed with which nutrients are returned to the soil
17- According to paragraph 4, why can getting enough nitrogen be a problem for plants?
A ) Because most of Earth’s nitrogen is located in the atmosphere
B ) Because plants can use the nitrogen they absorb only if they have previously absorbed
certain other elements that are often scarce in poor soils
C ) Because plants cannot absorb nitrogen that has not been chemically combined with other
elements
D ) Because plants have to compete with bacteria for available nitrogen in the soil
18- Paragraph 4 supports the idea that having aboveground roots benefits cycads in which of the
following ways?
A ) By increasing the growth rate of cycads' roots through exposure to sunlight
B ) By increasing the supply of usable nitrogen available to cycads
C ) By reducing the amount of nitrogen cycads require
D ) By reducing cycads’ dependence on nitrogen-fixing bacteria

passage.In many contexts—grasslands and most other types of forest, for example—that inference
would be correct.Where would the sentence best fit?

Although tropical rain forest plants grow vigorously, the clay soils of tropical rain forests are very
low in mineral nutrients.
A. Clays with poor mineral-binding capacities plus low levels of organic compounds that
result from rapid decomposition produce compacted soils that are highly vulnerable to rain
leaching.
B. Plants are able to tolerate the high levels of aluminum in tropical rain forest soils only
because of bacteria and fungi that neutralize aluminum while absorbing and transferring
phosphorus.
C. Because water does not penetrate deep into tropical rain forest soils, most trees growing
in such soils have shallow feeder roots that spread over large areas in search of adequate
moisture.
D. The delicate fungal hyphae that extend throughout most tropical rain forest soil help
maintain soil quality by transferring excess nutrients from plant tissues back into the soil.
E. Tropical rain forests have evolved closed nutrient systems, in which plants and their
fungal partners transfer mineral nutrients among organisms with little leaching through to
the soil.
F. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the soil and within the roots and root nodules of many plants
provide rain forest plants with the nitrogen needed to help compensate for poor soils.

PASSAGE3
21- According to paragraph 1, what is significant about the paintings in the Lascaux caves?
A ) They provide accurate depictions of the bulls and other animals living in Paleolithic France.
B ) They are the best available source of information about daily life during the Paleolithic era.
C ) They are some of the best surviving examples of what was possibly one of the world's
earliest artistic movements.
D ) They are the only evidence of creative expression among Paleolithic human beings.
22- In paragraph 1, why does the author mention the views of the philosophers of Classical
Greece?
A ) To show how explanations about the appearance of cave painting during the Paleolithic have
changed over time
B ) To present a theory about humans and art that may be applicable to the Paleolithic era
C ) To argue that Paleolithic paintings were created for the joy of painting, while Classical art
was created to accurately represent the natural world
D ) To demonstrate that the Greek philosophers were the first to accurately understand
Paleolithic art
23- Paragraph 2 suggests that the Lascaux cave paintings could have been created as art for art's
sake only if which of the following were true?
A ) Caves were often used as viewing places for handiwork of all kinds.
B ) Artists during the Paleolithic era were especially accomplished.
C ) Paleolithic people were able to satisfy their basic needs fairly easily.
D ) People in Paleolithic Europe learned about art from people living in other areas.
A ) The limited variety in the subjects of rock art paintings has become increasingly evident in
the many sites discovered.
B ) The limited repertoire of subjects found in rock art has made it difficult for archaeologists to
determine when each painting was created.
C ) In the first place, there is little new archaeological information on the subject of rock art
because of the limited number of recent discoveries.
D ) Because many rock art sites cannot be dated, archaeologists have limited information about
how rock art varied from period to period.
25- In paragraph 3, why does the author include a description of a painting of horses from the
grotto of Pêche Merle?
A ) To emphasize that stout-bellied horses were the most commonly found animals in that
region at the time the painting was made
B ) To provide evidence that Paleolithic artists created realistic images more often than they
created paintings of dots or lines
C ) To give an example of a cave painting that contains elements that do not imitate reality
D ) To demonstrate that Paleolithic artists captured many details of the animals they painted,
such as the spots on the horses' coats
26- According to paragraph 3, which of the following is true of the paintings located in the
Lascaux caves?
A ) They are all found in recesses that are difficult for viewers to reach
B ) They fill every nook and cranny of a large underground gallery
C ) Their location was probably more convenient for viewers than for the artists
D ) They are easier to view than cave paintings at other locations.

27- According to paragraph 5, Breuil proposed which of the following theories about the purpose
of cave paintings?
A ) They were used to teach young hunters the skills they needed to hunt.
B ) They were images created to help people forget about the dangers and difficulties of their
daily lives.
C ) They were used in magic rituals to increase people's understanding of the natural world.
D ) They were meant to capture the spirits of animals and thus bring success in the hunt.
28- The word “prompted” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) brought about
B ) interfered with
C ) increased
D ) transformed
passage.Obtaining this level of nourishment from such a harsh environment must have consumed
most of Paleolithic people’s time and attention.Where would the sentence best fit?
There are a number of arguments against the idea that Paleolithic cave paintings were created for
the sheer joy of painting.
A. It is generally agreed that art as imitation arose during the age of Classical Greece.
B. Paleolithic artists often chose to paint pictures that were intended to frighten people.
C. People in the Paleolithic era may not have had time for art, and the placement of the
paintings does not indicate that they were meant to be looked at.
D. Paleolithic artists chose to represent only a small segment of the natural world, and their
paintings were not always strict imitations of nature.
E. Hunting was central to Paleolithic life, and animals are central to cave art, leading some
to believe that the paintings were created to bring luck to hunters.
F. Humans were rarely the subjects of cave paintings because it was thought that capturing
the image of a hunter would cause the hunter to be virtually trapped.

TPO54
1. According to paragraph 1, all of the following characteristics of pine made it a desirable

material for building in nineteenth-century America EXCEPT:
A ) It was long lasting.
B ) It was relatively easy to transport.
C ) Its softness made it easy to work with.
D ) It produced buildings that were especially attractive.

2. The word "commodity" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) product
B ) problem
C ) opportunity
D ) advantage
3. What can be inferred from paragraph 2 about timber in America before the year 1860?
A ) Farmers of the American West earned most of their income by selling timber to newly
arrived settlers.
B ) Timber came primarily from farmers who wished to supplement their income.
C ) Timber was much more expensive before the year 1860 because it was less readily available.
D ) Timber came primarily from large manufacturing companies in the East.
4. Why does the author discuss the "British-invented band saw"?
A ) To give an example of how steam power led to technological advancements
B ) To help explain how the thickness of a saw blade determines how much wood is wasted
C ) To explain how competition with other countries benefited the American lumber industry
D ) To illustrate the impact of new technology on the lumber industry
5. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 3 as resulting from the use of steam in the
lumber industry EXCEPT:
A ) Work became centralized, and many tasks were automated.
B ) Lumber could be produced more efficiently and on a larger scale.
C ) Waste materials could be re-used as fuel to power the lumber mills.
D ) Lumber production could continue throughout the cold winter months.

6. According to paragraph 4, how could a warm, dry winter interfere with lumber production?
A ) Certain trees would become dry and yield low-quality lumber.
B ) There would not be enough water in streams and lakes to raft the logs to mills.
C ) It would be more difficult to transport logs to streams and lakes.
D ) Rivers would not be full enough in the spring to power mills.

7. In paragraph 5, why does the author include the information that 89 logging railroads
crisscrossed Michigan by 1887?
A ) To argue that Michigan had replaced other Great Lakes states as the center of the lumbering
industry
B ) To provide evidence of the growing importance of logging railroads to the lumbering

industry
C ) To support the claim that Michigan winters had become more severe in the late 1800s than
they had been earlier
D ) To challenge the idea that climate discouraged the laying of track

8. According to paragraph 6, the construction of booms benefited the logging industry by
A ) reducing the pressures placed on the northern Midwest pinelands in the 1860s
B ) reducing the length of the downstream trip to a mill by as much as 10 miles
C ) increasing the number of logs that could be floated down a river at a single time
D ) allowing logs to move downstream more quickly and easily

9. Look at the four squares [■] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the
passage.Some sleighs were capable of carrying over 100 tons worth of timber.Where would the
sentence best fit?
A. During the nineteenth century, lumbering became a large-scale industry controlled by

manufacturing companies rather than a local enterprise controlled by farmers.
B. Technological advances, including the use of steam power, led to increased productivity,
efficiency, and commercialization of the lumbering industry.
C. Seasonal changes and severe winters made the development and laying of track for
logging railroads slow and difficult.
D. After 1860 farmers continued to be the main suppliers of new timber, but lumbering
companies took over its transport and manufacture into wood products.
E. The invention of new technology, such as band saws, allowed American lumbering
companies to make a profit by exporting surplus lumber to Britain and other countries.
F. New methods for transporting logs to mills helped transform lumbering from a seasonal
activity to a year-round activity.

PASSAGE 2
11. Why does the author compare "Modern humans" with "ancient people"?
A ) To argue that modern people have continued to have drastic effects on animal species
B ) To illustrate how people from different historical times treated animals differently
C ) To question the idea that ancient people could have hunted the megafauna to extinction
D ) To emphasize that modern people are more successful hunters than ancient people were
12. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
essential information
A ) A computer model was designed to determine how long it would have taken for a small
group of hunters to spread across North America.
B ) A computer model showed that it was possible for a small group of hunters to spread across
North America and kill off game animals in just 300 years.
C ) According to a computer model, people coming into North America 12,000 years ago had to
kill game animals in order to feed their population.
D ) According to a computer model, about 12,000 years ago conditions enabled a small group of
hunters to enter and cross North America in about 300 years.
13. Which of the following best describes the results of the research discussed in paragraph 4?
A ) Scientists used mathematical models to show that most of the extinctions occurred in areas
where humans had recently arrived.
B ) Scientists established that the main population of North Americans who hunted lived in
Canada during the time of the megafauna extinctions.
C ) Scientists used numerical models to confirm that a small population of humans could have
caused big-game extinctions in a relatively short period of time.
D ) Scientists used statistics to prove beyond doubt the currently accepted view that human
hunters were the main cause of the megafauna extinctions.
14. Which of the following statements about Larry Agenbroad's work is implied in the discussion
in paragraph 5?
A ) Agenbroad showed that Mosimann and Martin's estimates of the amount of time needed to
drive big-game to extinction were correct.
B ) Agenbroad's maps were the first to indicate the ages of the Clovis sites.
C ) Agenbroad reinforced the idea that humans could have caused the extinctions.
D ) Agenbroad's studies of wooly mammoths led to his discovery of Clovis sites.

15. The word "admitted" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) accepted the truth of
B ) was unaware of
C ) was troubled by
D ) called attention to
16. According to paragraph 6, which of the following statements challenges the view that
hunting by humans caused the extinctions of North American megafauna?
A ) The Clovis sites that contain the remains of mammoths were settled by humans long after
the extinctions occurred.
B ) Only a few of the Clovis sites are located near known mammoth habitats.
C ) No archaeological evidence of extinctions has been found at Clovis sites since 1982.
D ) The number of mammoth remains found at Clovis sites is smaller than would be expected if
hunting by humans had caused the extinctions.
17. In paragraph 7, why does the author mention that there is abundant archaeological evidence
for the extinction of the New Zealand moa?
A ) To show that extinctions occurred in areas other than North America.
B ) To challenge Martin's claim that the lack of megafauna remains supports his model of the
megafauna extinctions.
C ) To identify a country where humans were highly skilled as hunters.
D ) To help explain why it is unclear whether all large herbivores of late Pleistocene America
became extinct after the appearance of Clovis.
18. Paragraph 7 suggests that Donald Grayson believes which of the following about the remains
at Clovis sites and megafaunal extinctions?
A ) The rapid rate of the spread of humans explains why the extinctions also occurred at a rapid
rate.
B ) The lack of evidence of human-caused extinctions is not surprising in view of the speed with
which the extinctions occurred.
C ) It is likely that more evidence will be found as dating methods improve.
D ) If humans did contribute to the extinctions, much more evidence of that would have been
found by now.
passage.One possible nonhuman cause—weather cycles—is not consistent with what scientists know
about the timing of the extinctions.Where would the sentence best fit?
About 11,000 years ago, all of North America's megafauna became extinct.
A. That the first humans migrated to North America near the same time as the extinctions
of the megafauna has led many to believe that hunting by humans was a significant cause
of those extinctions.
B. Support for the hypothesis that hunting by humans caused the extinctions has been
provided by computer models, as well as by the discovery of some mammoths' remains
near human settlements.
C. There is more evidence that human settlers hunted large flightless birds like the moa
into extinction than there is that hunters caused the extinction of large mammals like the
mammoth.
D. Early North Americans known as the Clovis society developed spears in order to hunt
enough large animals to feed their population as it expanded across vast areas of the
continent.
E. Scientists have proven that the human hunters of large animals who migrated across
North America grew in number so quickly that they killed off most of the megafauna within
a few hundred years.
F. Some scholars argue that the evidence linking mammoth remains to human settlements
is insufficient to establish that hunting by humans was a significant factor in the
megafauna extinctions.
PASSAGE 3
21. According to paragraphs 1 and 2, living cells contain which of the following?
A ) All chemical elements in the universe except lithium

B ) About 25 different elements
C ) About 96 percent of all known elements
D ) Ninety-two naturally occurring elements

22. Why does the author provide the information that "Heavy elements are continually being
manufactured by stars and released into space by stellar deaths"?
A ) To explain how it is that the elements required for life can be found everywhere.
B ) To provide evidence that our solar system is relatively young.
C ) To argue that some solar systems are more likely to support life than others.
D ) To explain why heavy elements have greater mass than hydrogen and helium.
23. Paragraph 3 suggests that which of the following may be a difference between very old star
systems and newer star systems?
A ) Older star systems are likely to have fewer planets, moons, asteroids, and comets than newer
star systems.
B ) Newer star systems probably contain more hydrogen and helium than older star systems.
C ) Newer star systems probably contain more heavy elements than older star systems.
D ) The process of solar-system formation may have been fundamentally different in older star
systems than in newer star systems.
24. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
A ) Planetesimals may remain in star systems when hydrogen and helium combine with less
common heavier elements.
B ) Planetesimals are composed of heavy elements because hydrogen and helium stay in the
form of gases.
C ) Planetesimals are small, solid objects that condense within a forming star system and may
become planets.
D ) When planetesimals accumulate to form planets, they inevitably contain gaseous as well as
heavy elements.
25. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is true about possible life on other planets?
A ) It cannot be based on silicon or nitrogen.
B ) It could not survive on Earth.
C ) It probably would not be made of elements produced by stars.
D ) It is likely to have carbon as its chemical basis.

26. According to paragraph 5, all of the following are true of the organic molecules on early
Earth EXCEPT:
A ) Some of them were probably brought to Earth by asteroids or comets.
B ) Some of them probably formed in the atmosphere and oceans.
C ) They were probably significantly different from the organic molecules present on other
planets in the solar system.
D ) They included complex molecules.

27. The word "intact" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) buried
B ) whole
C ) confined
D ) active
28. According to paragraph 6, why is life unlikely to be found on any planet that lacks both an
atmosphere and a surface or subsurface liquid medium?
A ) Organic molecules must be protected from solar radiation by a surface layer of liquid.
B ) Planets that lack both of these features are probably too small to have been hit by many
asteroids or comets carrying organic matter.
C ) Organic molecules need a liquid or gaseous environment to bring them together so they can
interact.
D ) An atmosphere is needed to protect organic molecules from being destroyed by asteroids

and comets.
passage.To answer the question "Could life exist on other planets?" we must first look at the
necessary preconditions for life.Where would the sentence best fit?
The chemical elements that make up cells are likely to be available on just about any planet.
A. Somewhere between 4 and 25 naturally occurring elements are necessary for life,
depending on the complexity of the organism.
B. Life is most likely to exist on those bodies that were not heavily bombarded with
asteroids and comets during the formation of the solar system.
C. Life is most likely to be found in the oldest star systems, where heavy elements have
been continually produced since those systems were formed.
D. Planets, moons, asteroids, and comets are all composed of heavy elements, which
means they contain the basis for any life form, carbon based or otherwise.
E. The most common elements used by life-oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen—are
also some of the most widely distributed elements in the universe.
F. Organic molecules are widely available, but chemical reactions among these molecules
probably require either an atmosphere or a liquid medium.
TPO55
1- What can be inferred from paragraph 1 about human life in Mesolithic Scandinavia?
A ) People tended to live in smaller groups during the Ertebolle Period than during earlier
Mesolithic periods.
B ) The areas where it was advantageous to live changed over time as a result of environmental
changes.
C ) Human groups were less affected by environmental change during the Maglemose Period
than during the Kongemose Period.
D ) During most of the Mesolithic, people were more dependent on terrestrial food sources than
other food sources.
2- Why does the author mention "the Aggersund site in Denmark" and its brief periods of
occupation?
A ) To suggest that the supply of year-round food sources near earlier settlement sites had nearly
disappeared
B ) To give an example of a small, temporary coastal site that took advantage of seasonal food
sources
C ) To illustrate how small coastal settlements could not last as long as large forest settlements
D ) To highlight the fact that none of the Denmark camps were able to be occupied year-round
3- Paragraph 2 suggests that before the Ertebolle Period, hunting tools and other Mesolithic
technologies
A ) were available only in small coastal sites
B ) were developed mainly in Denmark
C ) were made mainly from animal bones
D ) were somewhat simple

4- According to paragraph 3, the existence of cemeteries in Mesolithic Scandinavia is associated

with
A ) increased social complexity
B ) problems in obtaining sufficient food
C ) a dramatically increasing population
D ) a trend toward reduced dependence on the food sources provided by hunter- gatherers
5- According to paragraph 3, each of the following is linked to the intensified use of resources
that occurred in southern Scandinavia EXCEPT
A ) greater complexity and diversity of technology
B ) greater similarity between artifacts from different regions
C ) more exchanges of goods between groups
D ) more diversity in types of settlements

6- Select the TWO answer choices that are discussed in paragraph 4 as factors that explain why
Mesolithic culture in Scandinavia developed differently from Mesolithic cultures in other parts
of Europe. To receive credit, you must choose TWO answers from the answer choices.
A ) Climate
B ) Population numbers
C ) The size of satellite camps
D ) The location of sites of human habitation

7- According to paragraph 4, how were Mesolithic societies in central Europe able to meet their
food needs for much of the year?
A ) By finding new opportunities for coastal adaptations wherever they could
B ) By keeping their base camps in dense forests with plenty of forest game
C ) By settling in areas that provided both predictable food resources and access to different
kinds of environments
D ) By hunting farther and farther from their central base camps each day
A ) Because of favorable conditions in southern Scandinavia and the social complexity of their
societies, hunter-gatherer societies did not adapt to farming until economic change required it.
B ) When fanning came to Europe and became common, hunter-gatherer societies finally
achieved high levels of social complexity.
C ) Social complexity was common in the societies of southern Scandinavia but was less
common in other areas where farming came later.
D ) Hunter-gatherer societies in southern Scandinavia achieved a new level of social
complexity, and this allowed them to quickly achieve economic and social change when farming
was introduced.
passage.Such adaptation involved changes in hunting and food gathering that make it possible to
identify distinct Mesolithic periods and cultures in some regions.Where would the sentence best fit?
passage.
Throughout the European Mesolithic, the trend was toward greater social complexity and greater
exploitation of food resources.
A. Early in the Mesolithic, Maglemose hunter-gatherers arrived in Scandinavia from regions

beyond the Baltic Sea and began to establish seasonal sites along bays and near lagoons.
B. In Scandinavia: populations were growing and becoming more sedentary, leading to
more elaborate burials and to exchanges of goods with other groups.
C. Because most Mesolithic populations outside of Scandinavia were widely separated by
deep forest, they tended to develop more economically and socially complex societies.
D. By the end of the Mesolithic, Scandinavians had developed elaborate and specialized
tools for exploiting a very wide range of food sources.
E. Climate change forced southern Scandinavians to leave coastal areas and relocate to
Central Europe, where they took advantage of food resources in dense forests and lakes.
F. The stages of Mesolithic culture in Scandinavia, unlike those in other parts of Europe, are
more distinct in part because climate changes were more extreme in Scandinavia.
PASSAGE 2
11- The phrase "not reached consensus on" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) not formulated a theory about
B ) not agreed on
C ) not been able to explain

D ) not found evidence for
12- According to paragraph 1, all of the following types of evidence have been important for
studying the history of angiosperms EXCEPT
A ) fossils of angiosperm stems and leaves
B ) knowledge of the structure of modern angiosperms
C ) large collections of well-preserved angiosperm flowers
D ) genetic studies of modern angiosperms

13- Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3 about angiosperms during the Early
Cretaceous?
A ) They represented less than 1 percent of plant life.
B ) Their numbers remained stable during this period.
C ) They existed in forms that are very unlike plants living today.
D ) They only rarely left traces in the fossil record.

14- Why does the author include the information that "fossil angiosperm leaves, stems, and
pollen" have been found in places that were once joined together as part of Gondwanaland?
A ) To provide support for the claim that angiosperms first appeared in the tropics
B ) To explain how scientists have determined the geographical location of supercontinents

during Earth's early history
C ) To provide evidence that angiosperms evolved in similar ways in different parts of the world
D ) To challenge the idea that angiosperms spread toward the poles during the Cretaceous
15- According to paragraph 4, researchers believe which of the following about angiosperms
during the Early Cretaceous?
A ) They reached the poles and began spreading there.
B ) They spread from east to west on the Gondwanaland supercontinent.
C ) They were the main type of plant in high-latitude ecosystems.
D ) They were growing in some areas with a tropical climate.

A ) Some botanists who agree with the idea of an African-South American center for the
dispersal of angiosperms point to primitive South Pacific angiosperms as evidence.
B ) Some botanists argue that the very primitive forms of angiosperms found in the South
Pacific call into question the theory that angiosperm evolution began in Africa and South
America.
C ) Angiosperms in Fiji: New Caledonia, New Guinea, eastern Australia, and the Malay
Archipelago are more primitive than angiosperms in other parts of the world.
D ) "Botanists disagree over whether the most primitive forms of living plants are located in
parts of Africa and South America or in the South Pacific
17- What can be inferred from paragraph 5 about primitive living angiosperms in the South
Pacific?
A ) They more closely resemble the earliest angiosperms than do most other living angiosperms.
B ) They are very similar to angiosperm plants in South America and Africa.
C ) They are only found on the group of islands called New Caledonia.
D ) They provide evidence that angiosperms evolved in several sites simultaneously.

18- According to paragraph 6, which of the following is true of angiosperm fossils discovered in
China?
A ) They have made it even more challenging to understand the origin of angiosperms.
B ) They contain flowers that appear modern for the age of the fossils.
C ) They convinced most botanists that angiosperms did not originate in northern Asia.
D ) They are not as old as angiosperm fossils discovered in the South Pacific.
passage.But their origin and evolution have been under considerable dispute.Where would the
sentence best fit?
passage.
Despite many years of research, some basic questions about the history of angiosperms remain
unanswered.
A. One of the major difficulties of studying angiosperm evolution is that fossils from
angiosperms are very rarely discovered.
B. Fossil evidence led some botanists to conclude that angiosperms first evolved in the
tropics and spread outward toward the poles.
C. Emerging research from fossils in South America, the South Pacific, and Asia suggests
that the first angiosperms appeared more recently than was once believed.
D. Though the original ancestor of angiosperms is unknown, they existed at least by the
Early Cretaceous and eventually made up most of the plants on Earth.
E. Early Cretaceous fossil deposits have confirmed that the ancestor to the angiosperms
was a plant resembling the modern magnolia.
F. The study of living angiosperms in the South Pacific and new fossil discoveries in China
have led to new theories about where angiosperms first evolved.
PASSAGE 3
21- Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 1 about grazing animals
A ) They spend significantly more time looking down at the ground than they do with their
heads raised.
B ) They tend to remain within a relatively small area for extended periods of time.
C ) They are extremely difficult for predators to see as long as they remain motionless.
D ) They can run significantly faster than most of their predators.

22- According to paragraph 1, how can a predator get close enough to a grazing animal to launch
an attack?
A ) By crawling steadily forward with its body pressed to the ground
B ) By moving very quickly and surprising its prey
C ) By moving forward only when the grazer is taking food from the ground
D ) By hiding in the grass and waiting patiently for its prey to move within range
23- According to paragraph 2, what is an advantage to predators that hunt as a team?
A ) A team can kill animals that are much bigger and stronger than any of the predators could
take on by itself.
B ) A team can ambush their prey without having to run them down as an individual predator
has to do.
C ) A team can attack more prey animals at one time than an individual predator could.
D ) A team is less vulnerable to an aggressive response from grazers.

24- In paragraph 2, why does the author describe the hunting technique used by predators that
hunt as a team?
A ) To explain why predators that hunt as a team wait until grazers start eating to attack
B ) To argue that species that hunt as a team do not have the same weakness as individual
predators
C ) To emphasize that even predators that hunt in groups cannot hunt and attack more than one
prey at a time
D ) To help explain why grazers are at a particular disadvantage with certain predatory animals
25- The word “approach” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) come nearer to
B ) drive apart
C ) attack
D ) pursue
26- Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 4 as a way in which animals that
graze as a herd benefit?
A ) Some animals in the herd will be in a position to observe danger while others have their
heads down.
B ) Each animal in a herd tries to protect the others from danger.
C ) As a herd, animals can observe the landscape in a variety of directions at once.
D ) The movement of any animal away from potential trouble warns all of the other animals
within the herd.
27- According to paragraph 5, any member of a herd is most at risk from predators when
A ) it is very young
B ) it becomes separated from the others
C ) the herd includes relatively few old or sick animals
D ) the herd begins to run

A ) The hunter or hunters are interested only in seizing their prey and not in any of the rest of
the grazers in the herd.
B ) Because the hunters must concentrate on eating once they make a kill, the rest of the herd
can then stop running and resume grazing.
C ) Once the hunters finish eating their prey, they lose interest in the rest of the herd that was
left behind.
D ) Because they must also concentrate on eating, herd animals resume grazing as soon as the
hunter or hunters seize their prey.
passage.This is because grasslands lack the trees and heavy bush to provide cover for anything but
very small animals.Where would the sentence best fit?
passage.
Grazing in a herd rather than as solitary individuals decreases the risk to grazers from predators.
A. If a grazer can spot a predator before it actually attacks, the grazer has a very good
chance of getting away and since grasslands provide little cover for predators, the grazer
always has the advantage.
B. Hunters can attack only one grazer at a time: and where there are many animals moving
back and forth and grazing together in a herd, it is difficult for hunters to maintain their
focus on a single target.
C. When a member of a herd wanders away from the others or falls behind as the herd
runs from danger, a hunter who manages to get between it and the herd stands a good
chance of making a kill.
D. A grazer cannot watch for danger while feeding, so predators can use those moments
gradually to approach a solitary animal unobserved; but in a herd there will always be
some animals on alert.
E. When a herd of grazers spots the approach of a solitary hunter: it may run toward the
hunter, which generally causes it to abandon the chase, but predators hunting as a pack
are not so easily driven away.
F. After a herd of running animals sees that the hunters pursuing it have stopped, the herd
tries to help members of the group that were left behind.
TPO 56
1- According to paragraph 1, the presence of nonvolcanic islands was an indication to Wegener
that
A ) sial was lighter than was once believed
B ) a supercontinent that existed at one time broke apart
C ) nonvolcanic islands were formed from the sima rather than the sial
D ) island chains existed prior to the formation of the supercontinent Pangaea

2- Why are the Andes and Himalaya mountains mentioned in the discussion in paragraph 1?
A ) To contrast the ways in which islands and mountains formed
B ) To describe two ways in which movements of land formed mountains
C ) To provide examples of mountain ranges that are no longer in their original locations
D ) To explain the differences between sial and sima with well-known geographic areas
A ) Wegener's term “Polfluchtkraft'' was first used to mean Earth's rotation and later the
gravitational attraction between Earth and the Moon and Sun.
B ) Continental drift required a powerful driving force that was created by the combination of
Earth’s rotation and tidal movements, which Wegener called “Polfluchtkraft."
C ) At first Wegener believed that the movement of the continents was caused by Earth’s
rotation but later came to believe that the drift was caused by powerful tides.
D ) According to Wegener, the great force of continental drift first affected Earth's rotation at
the poles and later also affected the gravitational force of Earth’s tides.
4- What does paragraph 2 suggest about how Holmes influenced Wegener’s thinking?
A ) He encouraged Wegener to consult the geologists who formed the drifters school
B ) He convinced Wegener that the mantle contained a great deal of radioactive heat.
C ) He demonstrated to Wegener that the density of geographic material was less important than
its pattern of movement
D ) He provided Wegener with a more accurate explanation of the mechanism by which

continents moved and mountains evolved
5- According to paragraph 3, Wegener’s theory of continental drift was important scientifically

for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A ) It introduced the concept of plate tectonics.
B ) explained a wide range of recorded phenomena.
C ) It related to and included information from scientific research available at the time.
D ) It provided a logical understanding of how Earth evolved

6- What is the importance of Wegener’s observation that the Appalachians, which can be traced
northward through the Canadian Maritime Provinces, match the Caledonian Mountains in
Scotland and Norway?
A ) It provides additional evidence for Wegener’s claim that separate continents were once
connected to each other.
B ) It indicates that the mechanism by which all mountainous areas on Earth formed was the
same
C ) It suggests that continental drift occurred in a northward direction.
D ) challenges the role of the Atlantic Ocean in shaping continental coastlines.
7- Mesosaurus is mentioned in paragraph 3 to make which of the following points?
A ) The presence of its fossils suggests that a land bridge once existed across the South Atlantic
Ocean
B ) The fact that a reptilian species scavenged along the shoreline indicates that various species
must have been there when reptiles arrived.
C ) The dating of its fossils to the Permian period led Wegener to believe that this was the time
when major movements of rocks and continents ended
D ) The lack of this species’ swimming ability supports the idea that the shores where its fossils
were found must have been joined at one time
8- The word “Mounting” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) Careful
B ) Familiar
C ) Increasing
D ) Reliable
passage.The publication was met by skepticism from scientists the world over, yet he refused to
become discouraged.Where would the sentence best fit?
10:Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete
Alfred Wegener proposed the theory of continental drift to explain how continents and mountain
ranges came into existence.
A. Wegener revised his explanation of the process of continental drift from one based on
planetary rotation and tides to one that involved convection.
B. Among geologists of the time, the work of Arthur Holmes was considered revolutionary
but inconsistent with the theory of continental drift as explained by Wegener
C. Plant fossils discovered on a British expedition to the South Pole indicated that on the
whole, Earth's temperature varied over time from hotter than it is today to colder than it is
today
D. Wegener’s major contribution to our current understanding of how Earth evolved its
continental form was his development of the concept of Polfluchtkraft
E. The importance of Wegener's theory was its ability to explain both Earth’s evolution and
a wide range of seemingly odd geographical and biological phenomena
F. Evidence of inconsistencies in continental climates observed to have occurred over time
or within a particular time makes sense if continents drifted away from the poles
PASSAGE 2
11. According to paragraphs 1 and 2, all of the following were true of most English people living
in the American colonies in 1750 EXCEPT:
A ) They not feel the need for an American government for all the colonies.
B ) They had never been to England.
C ) They believed they had much in common with non-English colonists

D ) They did not think of themselves as Americans.
12- According to paragraph 2, what is one reason that regional differences arose in the English
colonies of North America?
A ) Colonists selected and adapted English institutions to their particular needs
B ) Colonists in each region wanted to distinguish their institutions from those of colonists
elsewhere
C ) The large number of German, Dutch, and Scotch-Irish colonists settling in some regions
resisted political and social change
D ) Colonists in different regions reacted differently to developments becoming prominent in

England.
13- According to paragraph 2, what two things did English people living in America in 1750 fail
to realize? To receive credit, you must select TWO answers.
A ) Some of their beliefs were different from those of people in England
B ) Some regional differences had developed among the English colonies in America.
C ) Some of the colonial institutions had close counterparts in England
D ) Some specifically American ideas had become commonplace in the colonies

14- The word “compelling" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) Fashionable
B ) forceful
C ) helpful
D ) clear
15- According to paragraph 3, how did representative government get started in England?
A ) The king chose a representative group of people to inform him of his subjects' wishes
B ) The king’s subjects chose a group of representatives in response to the king's request for
advisors.
C ) The king organized a legislature known as the House of Commons
D ) A group of representatives of the people took power from the king and passed their own
laws.
16- The word “absurd” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) dangerous
B ) illegal
C ) inefficient
D ) ridiculous
17- According to paragraph 4, what was the response to criticisms of representative government
in England?
A ) Efforts were made to make the system better
B ) Criticisms of the system were completely ignored.
C ) An explanation was created to defend the system
D ) Critics of the system were widely viewed as unpatriotic.

18- Why does the author mention that “The political organization of new counties and the
extension of representation seldom kept pace with the rapid advance of settlement westward, but
nowhere was representation so uneven or irrational as in England”?
A ) To emphasize that, overall, the American colonial assemblies were more democratic than
the assemblies of England
B ) To explain why outside of New England the unit of political representation was the county
rather than the town
C ) To argue that while the political representation of the American colonies was irrational, it
was still better than representation in England
D ) To remind the reader that the American colonies showed the weaknesses as well as the
strengths of England’s system of representation
passage.This development occurred primarily for two reasons.Where would the sentence best fit?
20: Directions: Match the statements about representative government to the correct location. Two of the statements
describe representative government in England ONLY, two describe representative government in the English
colonies ONLY, and one describes BOTH England and the English colonies in America. One of the statements will
NOT be used This question is worth 3 points.
Choices
A. Delegates to the legislature represented everyone, not just the people who elected them.
B. A person had to own property worth a certain amount to be able to elect delegates to the
legislature.
C. Some large towns had no power to send delegates to the legislature.
D. A large majority of adult males in the population met the qualifications for voting
E. Counties could generally send more delegates to the legislature than could towns
F. In some places, citizens met to tell delegates how to vote on specific issues
England ONLY
English Colonies in America ONLY
Both England and the English Colonies in America
PASSAGE 3
21- The word “proximity” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) Distribution
B ) Contamination
C ) Exposure
D ) closeness
22- Paragraph 2 supports which of the following statements about the temperature data for the
Washington, DC., area?
A ) The data were limited to daytime temperatures

B ) A pattern was noticeable in less than three months.
C ) The data were limited to the city and not the surrounding suburbs
D ) The data clearly demonstrated the presence of a heat island

23- According to paragraph 2, temperatures in the city and the surrounding areas are likely to be
about the same
A ) during the months of December through February
B ) when averaged over a five-year span
C ) on clear, calm nights
D ) on cloudy, windy nights

24- Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 as a contributing cause of urban
heat islands?
A ) The effects of tall buildings and hard surfaces
B ) The effects of vegetation on soil
C ) The rapid runoff of water
D ) The slow loss of nighttime heat

25- What can be inferred from paragraph 3 about rainwater in rural areas as compared to urban
areas?
A ) The evaporation rate of rainwater in rural areas is greater than it is in urban areas.
B ) The runoff of rainwater is more rapid in rural areas than it is in urban areas.
C ) Rural areas require more rainwater in order to cool down than urban areas do
D ) Rural areas experience greater problems when rainwater evaporates than urban areas do.
26- The word “magnitude” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) amount
B ) use
C ) danger
D ) accumulation
A ) Pollutants hanging over a city contribute to the urban heat island effect by forcing solar
radiation directly upward from the surface of Earth
B ) Air pollution contributes to rising temperatures in cities by reflecting a certain amount of

radiation it has absorbed from Earth’s surface back to Earth
C ) Earth’s surface absorbs long-wave radiation that is emitted by polluted air in Earth's
atmosphere.
D ) Earth sends some of the heat that it has absorbed into the air where it is then absorbed by
pollutants.
28- According to paragraph 5, which of the following statements is true about air flowing
through a city?
A ) It's speed is comparable to that in the countryside.
B ) The movement of air is reduced by urban buildings.
C ) It allows the city to cool down thoroughly at night.
D ) It penetrates most quickly in urban areas with the tallest buildings

passage.This simple observation was first made in the early 1800s when an amateur meteorologist
observed that central London was warmer than its outskirts, and the phenomenon was later studied
more extensively.Where would the sentence best fit?
Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the
summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage.
Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the
passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.
The term urban heat island describes the increased temperatures found in large cities as compared
to rural areas.
A. Winter temperatures vary more in urban than in rural areas.

B. The construction of tall buildings and hard surfaces in cities contributes to the formation
of heat islands.
C. The heat island effect is forcing some cities in Europe and North America to manage
their levels of human-generated energy more carefully.
D. Neither the time of the day nor the time of the year have an impact on the occurrence
and intensity of heat islands.
E. The energy generated by such human activities as creating power and heating and
cooling homes and industry contributes to warming the climate of the city
F. Heat trapped by atmospheric pollution and restricted wind flow contributes to raising
urban temperatures.
TPO 57
1- The word “vanished” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) recovered
B ) disappeared
C ) adapted
D ) retreated
2- According to paragraph 2, how did farmers in Clarkston Valley explain the lack of success
they were having with the use of the sulfur-lime mixture?
A ) They suspected that surviving insects might have been a different variety of scale.
B ) They believed that the mixture was not being applied to the trees properly.
C ) They thought the mixture was being weakened by the manufacturers.
D ) They assumed that the new scales were coming from nearby orchards
3- In paragraph 3, why does the author compare the effects of sulfur-lime pesticide in Yakima
and Sunnyside with its effect in Clarkston?
A ) To provide evidence that a new pesticide made from fuel oil was more effective than the
sulfur-lime mixture
B ) To explain why Melander thought that scales had become resistant to the pesticide
C ) To indicate how Melander discovered that scale insects were killing trees throughout
Washington
D ) To illustrate the success of farmers who chose to manufacture their own pesticide
4- According to paragraph 4, why did Melander reject the possibility that scales could have
developed immunity?
A ) Immunity could not effectively be passed on to the enormous number of offspring produced
by scales.
B ) The development of immunity to a poison usually occurs from eating small doses of the
poison, but scales did not eat the sulfur-lime mixture
C ) The lifecycle of a scale is so short that no scale was exposed to more than one spraying of
pesticide
D ) Only certain poisons lead to the development of an immunity, and the poisons used in the
pesticides were not believed to be among these.
5- According to paragraph 5, how did Melander account for the increasing number of scales that
were resistant?
A ) A few scales developed mutated genes that gave them pesticide resistance and these genes
were then spread among later generations.
B ) Farmers were using so much pesticide that only resistant scales could survive and reproduce.
C ) Some scales that survived the pesticide did not have a genetic mutation for resistance and
their numbers made it appear that scales were becoming increasingly resistant
D ) Scales receiving several low doses of pesticide over the course of their lives gradually built
up an immunity.
6- What can be inferred from paragraph 5 about resistance to sulfur-lime pesticide in regions of
the Northwest other than Clarkston?
A ) The proportion of resistant scales was lower in the other regions because they used several
pesticides not used in Clarkston.
B ) The proportion of resistant scales was lower in the other regions because they had not used
sulfur-lime pesticide as long as Clarkston had
C ) The scales in the other regions could not develop resistance because they were genetically
different from the scales in Clarkston.
D ) The scales in the other regions could not develop resistance because they were never
exposed to the sulfur-lime pesticide.
7- Why does the author mention "draining standing water or breeding resistant strains of crops” ?
A ) To contrast the cost of DDT with the cost of old-fashioned ways of controlling pests
B ) To present evidence that European agricultural activity had declined before 1941
C ) To provide examples of farming practices that were abandoned due to the success of DDT
D ) To indicate that certain farming practices were never explored because DDT was so
effective
8- According to the passage, in what way did sulfur-lime and DDT have similar histories of use?
A ) With both pesticides users at first had the false belief that the pesticide would completely
eliminate pests
B ) In both cases it was found that widespread use of the pesticide caused health problems in
humans.
C ) Both pesticides were eventually used only in small quantities to avoid the development of
resistance to the pesticide
D ) Users of both pesticides had the mistaken belief that the pesticide could be used to control
diseases affecting humans, such as malaria.
passage.These advantages made it appear to be the perfect solution, and farmers began to use it in
large quantities.Where would the sentence best fit?
10:Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete
A. L. Melander determined that a pest population develops resistance to a pesticide to which it is

repeatedly exposed.
A. In the early 1900s. farmers began to notice that a sulfur and lime mixture that had
previously been effective against the San Jose scale had stopped working.
B. With the failure of the sulfur-lime mixture against the San Jose scale, farmers became
convinced that pesticides alone could not eliminate pests.
C. Melander hypothesized that genetic mutations in the scales that survived spraying with
sulfur-lime were making the scale population increasingly resistant to the pesticide.
D. As the use of pesticides become more widespread in the late 1800s, farmers set up
factories to produce their own pesticides.
E. Continued use of DDT showed that individual pests responded differently to it.
F. When pests became resistant to even more effective pesticides such as DDT, Melander’s
ideas were confirmed.
PASSAGE 2
11- The word”hypothetical” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) biological
B ) observable
C ) Supposed
D ) repeated
12- According to paragraph 2, the purpose of Redi's second experiment was to show that
spontaneous generation did not occur when
A ) air was allowed to enter the net-covered jars
B ) flies were allowed to enter the open jars
C ) larvae were removed from net-covered jars
D ) meat decay was prevented

13- According to paragraph 3, how did Redi’s experiments change the debate over spontaneous
generation?
A ) His experiments strengthened the belief that large organisms could be generated from small
organisms.
B ) His experiments suggested that simple organisms could be generated from nonliving things.
C ) His experiments provided evidence that at least some kinds of organisms did not arise
spontaneously
D ) His experiments showed that small organisms survived the absence of air more easily than
large ones did.
A ) John Needham seemed to confirm the idea of spontaneous generation when he found that
heated broth remained uncontaminated but that numerous microorganisms appeared in cool
broth.
B ) John Needham gave support to the idea of spontaneous generation by showing that
microorganisms appeared in broth that was heated before being placed in sealed containers
C ) John Needham seemed to show that microorganisms were generated spontaneously in broth
that had been sealed before being heated and then cooled.
D ) John Needham seemed to show that the spontaneous generation of microorganisms was
more likely to occur in greater quantity in heated rather than cooled broth.
15- In paragraph 4, why does the author discuss Spallanzani’s experiment of heating nutrient
fluids after they were sealed in flasks?
A ) To explain why Spallanzani concluded that Needham's solutions had probably been
contaminated with microbes from the air
B ) To illustrate the increasing accuracy of theories about life forms based on experiments
conducted during the eighteenth century
C ) To explain why nutrient solutions that were heated and then cooled in covered flasks
contained microorganisms
D ) To illustrate how the boiling of nutrient solutions had affected the results of Needham’s
experiments.
16- According to paragraph 5, Lavoisier’s discovery of the importance of oxygen to life led some
scientists to conclude that
A ) microbes are more dependent on oxygen than are other organisms
B ) nutrient solutions are not necessary for the support of microbial life
C ) Spallanzani's experiments had been flawed
D ) spontaneous generation occurs more often in air than in liquids

17- Paragraphs 6-8 suggest which of the following about the relationship between Pasteur s
experiments and Virchow’s concept of biogenesis?
A ) ln his description of the concept of biogenesis, Virchow proposed experiments similar to

those later conducted by Pasteur.
B ) Pasteur's experiments supported Virchow's idea that living organisms could arise only from
other living organisms
C ) Pasteur's experiments renewed the arguments about spontaneous generation, which were
finally settled by Virchow's theory
D ) Pasteur's experiments ended the debate about Virchow's concept of biogenesis by showing
that the theory did not explain how microorganisms were generated.
18- According to paragraphs 7 and 8, Pasteur's experiment involving flasks with S-shaped necks
proved that
A ) air does not cause microorganisms to arise spontaneously from nonliving matter
B ) microorganisms require access to nutrient fluids in order to arise spontaneously
C ) the temperature of liquids has no effect on the presence or absence of microorganisms
D ) microorganisms in the air cannot travel long distances

passage.This allowed air into the jars, but not flies.Where would the sentence best fit?
Until the nineteenth century, many people believed in spontaneous generation, the idea that living
things arise from nonliving things.
A. Experiments in the seventeenth century showed that the idea of spontaneous

generation did not apply to large organisms, but many still believed that microorganisms
could arise spontaneously.
B. Because boiling broth in sealed flasks prevented the growth of microorganisms, some
scientists believed that the spontaneous generation of microorganisms required a “vital
force” from the air.
C. The new concept of biogenesis, introduced in the nineteenth century, proposed that
microbes required both oxygen and nutrients in order to survive
D. Opponents of Francesco Redi claimed that his findings were not defensible because
some of the jars had been improperly sealed, allowing flies to enter
E. Spallanzani’s experiments were shown to be flawed, because he had used liquids that
were contaminated by microbes.
F. Pasteur built on earlier experiments to show conclusively that microorganisms do not
arise spontaneously but must come from other living things.
PASSAGE3
21- Paragraph 1 implies that compared with later films, American films before 1904 were
A ) less likely to be made for commercial reasons
B ) less likely to be narrative films
C ) more likely to combine editing, camerawork, acting and lighting
D ) more likely to be filmed using multiple camera shots

22- According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true about the filmmaking style known
as classical Hollywood cinema?
A ) If consisted of devices that were tried elsewhere but abandoned.
B ) Its principles were largely developed after 1917.
C ) A great many international filmmakers adopted it after the First World War.
D ) A large number of its principles were developed outside the United States
23- According to paragraph 3, which of the following did NOT generally cause a lack of
understanding in very early silent-movie audiences?
A ) Lack of familiarity with the plot
B ) Shifts in time from scene to scene
C ) Shifts in place from scene to scene
D ) Poor photography by the filmmakers

A ) A number of well-photographed films need improvements to their plots so that audiences

will not consider them to be inferior.
B ) Some photographically good films are nonetheless poor films overall because the filmmaker,
who knows what the film is about, forgets that the audience does not.
C ) Manufacturers of films need to help familiarize audiences with the good motion pictures that
are brought out because the films were not made with the audience in mind.
D ) Regardless of the number of good motion pictures that are brought out, there will still be
many that audiences will consider to be poor.
25- According to paragraph 4, all of the following were characteristic of early films EXCEPT
A ) character development
B ) slapstick chases
C ) physical action
D ) familiar situations
26- The word “imply” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) indicate
B ) determine
C ) illustrate
D ) define
27- According to paragraph 6: early filmmakers provided visual cues to audiences in order to
A ) explain the intertitles
B ) eliminate the need for editing
C ) provide essential background information
D ) reveal character traits

28- Which of the following best describes the overall organization of the passage?
A ) A theory is introduced, and supporting evidence for it is evaluated

B ) A position is introduced, and then opposing views are discussed
C ) Innovations are presented and their impacts are questioned
D ) Problems are presented, and means used to solve them are discussed
passage.The usual forms of those films relied on other ways to maintain coherence.Where would the
sentence best fit?
Changes in the nature of films made in the United States in the early twentieth century created new
challenges for filmmakers.
A. Early filmmakers in the United States had to develop a number of new techniques to
make the action of their films comprehensible to audiences.
B. Early filmmakers, despite working independently, influenced each other in the
development and adoption of new techniques.
C. As filmmakers became more sophisticated, they made use of more slapstick comedy and
physical action to help explain a film’s meaning to audiences.
D. Because stories were longer and more complex, filmmakers increasingly used character
psychology to make a film’s narrative clear to audiences.
E. New editing techniques, emphasizing continuity among camera shots, were among the
most important new developments in early filmmaking.
F. Some theaters employed lecturers to stop films temporarily in order to explain to the
audience the camera shots used in new editing techniques
TPO58
1- According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of European music written before the
seventeenth century EXCEPT:
A ) It was often in the form of song

B ) It was often used to express religious feeling.
C ) It often featured instruments playing by themselves
D ) It often accompanied narrative or story-telling text

2- According to paragraph 1, what is a notable feature of seventeenth-century music?
A ) Secular ideas replaced religion as the central resource for new musical ideas
B ) Instrumental music was composed as an independent means of artistic expression
C ) Music combined the musical traditions of Asia, Africa, and Europe
D ) Instrumental music was written to serve the needs of the community

3- According to paragraph 2, the rise of instrumental music was accompanied by what other
changes?
A ) Mixing of string and keyboard instruments in compositions
B ) Improvements to instruments and systems of tuning
C ) The invention of new stringed instruments
D ) A reduced emphasis on the violin and harpsichord in musical composition

4- The word “adopting" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) relying on
B ) holding on to
C ) beginning to use
D ) influenced by
5- Why does the author mention the activities of “scientists and philosophers” in the passage?
A ) To indicate that the new emphasis on accuracy and systematization that was taking place in
music was also taking place in other fields
B ) To suggest that the study of music was no longer limited to musicians only
C ) To argue that some of the changes in instrumental music originated outside of musical
circles
D ) To provide an example of professions that supported the new approaches in seventeenth-

century instrumental music
6- According to paragraph 3, which of the following is true about the production of violins in the
seventeenth century?
A ) Violins were made at large manufacturing centers in northern Italy
B ) Standards of violin design were created and enforced by the great courts of Europe.
C ) Several families shared design techniques to improve instrument quality.
D ) Violins were carefully crafted according to specific family traditions

7- According to paragraph 4, what did sonatas and suites have in common?
A ) They developed as musical genres before the concerto did
B ) Their movements did not allow for many combinations of instruments.
C ) Their movements were based on dances
D ) They were more popular in Italy than in any other European country.
8- According to paragraph 4, which of the following is a characteristic of a concerto?
A ) It was generally performed by only one or two instruments.
B ) It required more violins than any other type of composition.
C ) It was invented by three famous composers: Purcell, Couperin, and Bach.

D ) It consisted of movements that varied in number and kind.
passage.Some ancient instruments underwent development; for instance, the shawm became the
oboe.Where would the sentence best fit?
In the seventeenth century, instrumental music in western Europe developed in ways that
distinguished it from earlier European music and the musical traditions of Asia and Africa.
A. Before the seventeenth century, instrumental music was based on mathematical and
scientific principles
B. The development of instrumental music in the seventeenth century went along with the
improvements in design, tuning, and playing of musical instruments.
C. The Baroque period was dominated by composers from a few aristocratic families from
northern Italy.
D. The distinctive feature of seventeenth-century instrumental music was its independence
of any text, narrative, or extramusical meaning.
E. The instrumental music in sonatas, suites, and concertos was characterized by dramatic
contrasts of tempo, texture, and instrumental group.
F. After the seventeenth century, most baroque instrumental composers wrote concertos
more than any other type of instrument.
PASSAGE 2
11- The word "utterly" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) Practically
B ) frequently
C ) increasingly
D ) completely
12- According to paragraph 1, mycorrhizal fungi need to live in root systems of trees in order to
A ) absorb minerals
B ) gam energy
C ) help the trees photosynthesize
D ) evolve
13- Which of the following can be inferred about pinyon pines from paragraph 2 ?
A ) Seed predators other than pinyon jays feed on pinyon seeds
B ) Pinyon jays must eat many pinyon seeds to obtain adequate nutrition
C ) Seeds located in the interior regions of pinyon pines are particularly attractive to pinyon
jays.
D ) Pinyon pines signal jays to eat only those seeds that are unable to grow.
14- According to paragraph 2, all the following are characteristics of pmyon pine seeds that
make them attractive to seed predators EXCEPT:
A ) The seeds are highly visible
B ) The seeds contain a large amount of energy
C ) The seeds pass unharmed through the predator's alimentary system
D ) The seed coat is thin.

15- What purpose does paragraph 2 serve in the passage as a whole?
A ) It presents an exception to the ideas about coevolution provided in paragraph 1
B ) It presents a puzzle about pinyon pines that later paragraphs will resolve.
C ) It introduces for further discussion the fact that pinyon pines do not produce poisonous
seeds.
D ) It formulates a hypothesis that the rest of the passage will support about why pinyon pines
attract seed predators.
16- The word "providing" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) Once
B ) since
C ) whenever
D ) if
17- It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that the reason the pinyon jay population in an area
declines for several years in succession is that
A ) after several years during which pinyon trees produce no seeds, there are not enough young
pinyon trees producing seeds to feed the jays
B ) for several years after a heavy seed crop, pinyon pines stop producing enough seeds to
support a large population of jays
C ) for several years in succession, pinyon jays spend most of their energy in collecting and
burying seeds rather than in reproducing
D ) over a period of several years, the pinyon jays in an area are displaced by other seed-
predator species
18- What purpose does the discussion of paragraph 5 serve in the passage as a whole?
A ) It shows that the population size of pinyon jays depends on pinyon pines but that the
population size of pinyon pines does not depend on pinyon jays
B ) It provides evidence that pinyon trees benefit more from pinyon jays than the jays benefit
from the pines.
C ) It establishes that, fully understood, the relationship between pinyon pines and pinyon jays is
one of coevolution
D ) It explains why in years of bumper seed crops, pinyon jays are unable to increase their
population to match the increase in the number of available pinyon seeds
passage.As a result, less energy will be needed to produce a crop of seeds large enough to flood the
reduced market for them.Where would the sentence best fit?
Although many trees have evolved ways to protect their seeds from predators, pinyon pines attract
the seed predators with which they have coevolved.
A. The reproductive cycle of pinyon jays is controlled in part by the variable availability of
pinyon seeds.
B. Pinyon pines ensure a good germination rate for their seeds by producing every few
years seeds in such abundance that pinyon jays bury many of them.
C. Pinyon pines adjust their seed production to the size of the local pinyon jay population
so as to assure that each year some pinyon seeds will be buried by jays.
D. By a process of mutual adaptation, predators and the plants or animals they prey on
always come to form a balanced and mutually advantageous relationship
E. By using color coding prominent display, and high nutritional value, pinyon pines make
their seeds worth eating and storing by pinyon jays
PASSAGE 3
21- According to paragraph 1, what important feature of cities did Maya ceremonial centers
lack?
A ) Large, varied buildings
B ) A large, permanent population
C ) Distinctions between social classes
D ) Religious temples
A ) Scholars hypothesize that religious festivals have changed very little in history since the
festivals that Mayans held at the times when they planted their crops.
B ) Through the study of historical and modern practices, scholars concluded that Mayans held
religious festivals only at certain times of the year.
C ) Based on their knowledge of historical and modern practices, scholars suppose that peasants
gathered in the centers at certain times of the year for religious festivals.
D ) Historical and modern evidence suggests that peasants were allowed to visit the centers only
during the crop-planting period because of the religious ceremonies held at that time
23- According to paragraph 2, which of the following did the Maya elite provide for the
peasants?
A ) Food for nourishment
B ) Homes to live in
C ) Security from the threats of other civilizations
D ) A stable system of beliefs

24- According to paragraph 3, which two developments did Haviland identify as leading to the
evolution of a complex state? To receive credit, you must select TWO answers.
A ) Population growth in the areas surrounding ceremonial centers
B ) Increased agricultural activity
C ) The formation of political alliances among ceremonial centers
D ) A change in religious practice in Maya culture

25- According to paragraph 4, what is the dispute between William Rathje and his critics?
A ) Whether a need to import obsidian, salt, and grinding stone can explain the growth of
ceremonial centers
B ) Whether people in the lowlands communities traded with people in the adjacent highlands.
C ) Whether obsidian was to be found in lowland areas such as Tikal that were distant from the
highlands.
D ) Whether the development of ceremonial centers was characterized by complex architecture.

26- According to paragraph 4, all of the following are associated with the rise of Maya
civilization EXCEPT
A ) building construction to support an increasing population
B ) increased division into distinct social classes
C ) an increased number of artisans and laborers in the centers
D ) the invention of new agricultural tools

27- Why does the author mention the arguments that “there were local substitutes for the external
“necessities" and that foreign trade was present well before the rise of complex architecture"?
A ) To explain why complex architecture at Maya centers may have developed later than most
people believe it did
B ) To suggest that foreign trade was a more significant factor than local trade in the rise of
Maya civilization
C ) To indicate why some scholars reject the idea that the architectural growth of Maya
ceremonial centers was due to trade
D ) To support the idea that minerals were not the main goods that the Mayas imported from
highland areas
28- The word "meet" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) deal with
B ) increase
C ) combine
D ) take advantage of
passage.The social status of the Mayans largely determined where they lived.Where would the
sentence best fit?
During the Late Preclassic period, Maya ceremonial centers started to develop into populated
cities.
A. As the number of ceremonial centers increased, competition over land and people may
have led to greater cultural complexity.
B. During the Late Preclassic period, Maya rulers and priests started to occupy areas closer
to the ceremonial centers.
C. Lowlanders’ needs for certain trade goods may have been critical for the development of
densely populated, centralized areas.
D. Sites such as Nakbe, El Mirador, and Lamanai may have approached urban dimensions
at an earlier time than Tikal did.
E. The important religious function of Maya ceremonial centers is one possible explanation
for their transformation into large, urban areas.
Tpo 59
Passage 1
1- According to paragraph 1, building materials in use before the nineteenth century were
A ) not significantly changed from their natural forms
B ) strong and durable
C ) too expensive to use on a large scale
D ) eventually replaced by lime mortar and Roman concrete

2- In paragraph 1, the author discusses the properties of bronze and iron in order to
A ) contrast the qualities of bronze with those of iron
B ) explain why metals were not widely used in architecture before industrialization
C ) provide a reason why industrialization radically changed architectural materials
D ) demonstrate that decorative materials were used in architecture before industrialization

3- According to paragraph 2, how did iron production change during the Industrial Revolution?
A ) As the level of production dramatically increased, the quality of the finished product became
more and more variable
B ) New, higher-quality sources of iron were discovered in Earth's crust.
C ) The distinction between pure and impure iron was replaced by distinctions among cast iron,
wrought iron, and steel
D ) Better iron was produced through heating and cooling treatments, control of carbon content,
and purification of the metal
4- According to paragraph 2, how does steel compare with other forms of iron?
A ) It is the most widely available because it is the easiest to produce

B ) It is the hardest because it contains the least carbon
C ) It is the easiest to shape because it contains the fewest impurities
D ) It is the most useful because it is both strong and flexible.

5- All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 3 as reasons for the increase in production of
cast and wrought iron in the early and mid-nineteenth century EXCEPT
A ) lack of technology for steel production
B ) quickly rising demand for iron
C ) improved methods for producing iron
D ) new ways to move materials from place to place

6- According to paragraph 4, how did the wrought iron referred to as steel differ from true steel?
A ) It was softer than true steel
B ) It contained more impurities than true steel did
C ) It was less expensive than true steel
D ) It could not be shaped as easily as true steel.

7- According to paragraph 5, all the following were advantages of concrete made with portland
cement EXCEPT:
A ) It lasted longer than other types of concrete.
B ) It did not burn as easily as other types of concrete
C ) It was stronger than other types of concrete.
D ) It was cheaper than other types of concrete.

A ) Even with portland cement, concrete had a lower tensile strength than iron and steel did and
thus was used less as these metals became more available.
B ) The new availability of iron and steel complemented the use of concrete but could not make
up for the low tensile strength of portland cement.
C ) Like iron and steel, concrete went from being a material whose use was severely restricted to
being one that was widely available.
D ) The widespread use of concrete would not have been possible without iron and steel to
offset its low tensile strength
passage.The remedy to concrete’s shortcomings was to reinforce it with such bars.Where would the
sentence best fit?
Industrialization in the nineteenth century revolutionized building materials.
A. The only early building materials that were not provided directly by nature were lime
mortar and Roman concrete
B. In the second half of the nineteenth century, it became possible to mass produce steel
that was both strong and malleable
C. The problem with iron as a building material is that, unlike wood and masonry, it quickly
rusts.
D. Technological advances and increased demand led to the production of vast quantities
of cast and wrought iron in the first half of the nineteenth century
E. Cast iron and wrought iron were the most common building materials until they were
replaced by steel in the last third of the nineteenth century.
F. The introduction of portland cement led to the large-scale use of concrete as a building
material.
Passage 2
11- The word “persist“ in the passage is closest in meaning to
A ) continue
B ) return
C ) vary widely
D ) keep falling
12- Paragraph 2 supports which of the following statements about endothermic animals?
A ) Some avoid freezing by remaining under a layer of snow, under the ground, or near the
bottom of a lake
B ) They are unable to remain active when temperatures are below 0°C over long periods of
time.
C ) They are sometimes able to survive ice formation within their bodies in addition to being
able to avoid freezing
D ) The ones that lie dormant in freezing temperatures tend to have less effective insulation than
those that remain active.
13- According to paragraph 3, an organism is freezing tolerant if it
A ) can live in an environment in which temperatures are generally below freezing
B ) has body and cell fluids with a very low melting point
C ) has more than one effective response to freezing temperatures
D ) can survive having the fluids in its cells freeze

14- According to paragraph 3, organisms that are freezing tolerant are likely to live in an
environment that
A ) will not subject them to inoculative freezing
B ) is wet during periods of below freezing temperatures

C ) makes changing demands that allow the organisms to switch between different cold-
adaptive strategies as needed
D ) has no organisms that survive cold by using strategies that avoid freezing
15- According to paragraph 3, having a cocoon or an eggshell may give an organism living in
very low temperatures an advantage by
A ) making it freezing tolerant
B ) lowering the melting point of its body fluids
C ) protecting its outer surface from contact with ice
D ) preventing ice from getting inside its body

A ) Organisms that find it easy to maintain their body fluids in a liquid state at low temperatures
may be able to avoid the problem of inoculative freezing when exposed to water.
B ) Organisms that are unlikely to be in contact with water can avoid the problem of inoculative
freezing at subzero temperatures by maintaining their body fluids in a liquid state
C ) it is easier for an organism to tolerate being frozen than to keep its body fluids liquid at
subzero temperatures, inoculative freezing may not be a problem.
D ) Organisms that are not in contact with water during periods of subzero temperature may find
it easier to survive the cold by using a strategy that keeps their body fluids from freezing

Zaban-Reading-Tpo-50-59 Questions

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Zaban-Reading-Tpo-50-59 Questions

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

TPO‐50

A ) Chicago became the headquarters for eleven new railroads.

C ) Chicago was transformed from a village into a large city.

A ) slow the rate at which population grew in many Midwestern cities

B ) increase the demand for industrial products from Midwestern cities

C ) encourage the extension of east-west rail lines to the Midwest

A ) They lost important funding from state governments

C ) They had to compete with canals for government support

D ) They emerged as the nation's biggest business

C ) Local governments' limited capacity to finance railroad expansion was a long-standing

A ) Many of them were not particularly wealthy

B ) Many of them overestimated the economic benefits of railroads

D ) Most of them had been employed by a railroad

A ) controlling the distribution of funds to railroads

B ) finding national and international buyers of railroad stock

C ) overseeing administrative changes of railroads when needed

D ) persuading the federal government to reinvest in railroads

A ) Portugal's declining interest in having overseas colonies

A ) It ended up creating discontent in certain provinces of Brazil

B ) It increasingly came under the influence of republican ideas from Portugal

C ) It was crushed before it got beyond the planning stage

B ) Brazil's growing industrial and financial importance

C ) the flight of the Portuguese court to Rio de Janeiro

D ) the Strangford Treaty with England

A ) establish a national bank

B ) support Brazilian industries

C ) obtain important tariff concessions from England

D ) encourage trade with a wider range of nations

15- The word "precipitated" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A ) King Joao’s immediate return to Portugal

B ) the creation of a liberal constitution for Brazil

C ) an end to Brazil's status as a kingdom

D ) Portuguese control over the Brazilian economy

D ) Seeing the possibility of an orderly transition to independence, Pedro's Brazilian advisers

18- According to paragraph 5, Independence Day in Brazil is the date on which

A ) Brazil made Dom Pedro its constitutional Emperor

C ) the Portuguese parliament officially withdrew all formal connection to Brazil

A. Major conspiracies against Portuguese dominance developed in regions where

A ) protons combining with helium atoms

B ) atoms of heavier elements smashing together

C ) various particles fusing with one another

D ) hydrogen atoms breaking apart

A ) They contain material that was once contained in Population II stars

B ) In terms of their mass, they consist primarily of hydrogen and helium

D ) They generally do not last as long as Population II stars

24- The word "virtually" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A ) undergo a much less dramatic change in size

B ) maintain more nearly constant temperatures

C ) cease to be a site of energy-generating activity

D ) still contain some amount of hydrogen

C ) It will expand to hundreds of times its previous size

A ) Memphis was in a better location for maintaining administrative control.

2- Which of the following best describes how paragraph 1 is organized?

A ) Once internal trade was fully controlled from Memphis

B ) Not until early dynastic Egypt established its state-directed economy

6- The word "vicinity" in the passage is closest in meaning to

B ) To compare the Memphis region to them in terms of their similar combinations of

11- The word "drastically" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A ) They can chemically react with particles on a planet’s surface.

B ) Most of their mass does not flow but remains in place.

C ) Their movement can reshape the surface of certain kinds of planets.

D ) Their movement is driven by the Sun and by gravity.

B ) they received different amounts of solar energy