Professional Documents
Culture Documents
It consists of:
2. Competency based
questions according to
latest pattern.
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CONTENTS
1. CHEMICAL REACTIONS
2. ACID BASE AND SALTS
3. METALS AND NON-METALS
4. CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
5. LIFE PROCESSES
6. CONTROL AND COORDINATION
7. HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE
8. HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
9. LIGHT REFECTION AND REFRACTION
10. THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLORFUL WORLD
11. ELECTRICITY
12. MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
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CHEMICAL REACTIONS
2. An element X that is on exposing to moist air turns reddish brown and new
substance 'Y' is formed. The substance 'X' and 'Y' are
a. X = Fe; Y = Fe2O3
b. X = Ag2S; Y = Ag
c. X = Zn; Y = ZnO
d. X = Mn; Y = Mn2O3
4. When crystals of lead nitrate are heated strongly in a dry test tube then which
of the following change is observed?
a. Crystals immediately melt
b. White fumes will appear in the test tube
c. A brown residue is left
d. A yellow residue is left
d. No reaction
a. Reaction is endothermic
b. Blue colour of copper sulphate solution is obtained
c. No reaction takes place
d. Reaction is exothermic
13. Two test tubes ‘A’ and ‘B’ contain aqueous solution of potassium iodide and
lead nitrate separately. When these two test-tubes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are mixed to each
other, results into ‘X’ and ‘Y’. The ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are:
a. Yellow ppt, yellow solution
b. Yellow ppt, colourless solution
c. White ppt, black solution
d. Black ppt, colourless solution
14. A substance X reacts with another substance Y to produce the product Z and
a gas D. If a mixture of the gas D and ammonia is passed through an aqueous
solution of Z, baking soda is formed. The Substance X and Y are
a. HCl and NaOH
b. Na and NH4Cl
c. HCl and Na2CO3
d. Na2CO3 and NaHCO3
15. When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper
sulphate, a black ppt. of copper sulphide is obtained and the sulphuric acid that
is formed remains in the solution. The reaction is an example of
a. An addition reaction
b. A redox reaction
c. A decomposition reaction
d. A double decomposition reaction
16. Name the products formed when iron filings are heated with dilute
hydrochloric acid
a. Fe (III) chloride and water
b. Fe (II) chloride and water
c. Fe (II) chloride and hydrogen gas
d. Fe (III) chloride and hydrogen gas
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17. MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2. Identify the oxidising agent:
a. MnO2
b. HCl
c. MnCl2
d. Ag + Zn(NO3)3
18. The element 'A' reacting with chlorine forms a compound that is water
soluble and having high melting point. Element 'A' is
a. Mg
b. Ne
c. CO2
d. He
a. (i) only
b. (ii) only
c. Both (i) and (ii)
CASE 1:
In redox reaction, oxidation and reduction always occur simultaneously. So,
every redox reaction contain two half reactions. One half reaction shows
oxidation and other half reaction shows the reduction. Oxidation and reduction
of an atom, molecule or ion is defined in terms of electrons transfer between
two species. The substance that gains electrons, is reduced to a lower oxidation
state and will act as an oxidising agent. Similarly, the substance which loses
electrons is oxidisied to a higher oxidation state, and is also known as a reducing
agent.
2. The following reaction: H2S + H2O2 → S + 2H2O will represent which type
of nature of H2O2.
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CASE 2:
Combination reactions has greater number of application in the manufacturing of
some industrial based important compounds such as
2. Which of the given process will involve the combination reaction of compound
with elements?
a. Manufacture of C2H5OH
b. Haber’s process
c. Contact process
d. Ostwald process
CASE 3:
Following sequence of reaction is given
X + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + Y + H2O
↓Ca(OH)2
(Milky precipitate)
Answer the following questions on the basis of above reaction sequence
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SOLUTIONS
7.(c)
8.(c) As iron is placed above copper in reactivity series. So Cu will not displace Fe from its
solution.
9.(d) This reaction is double displacement and precipitation as well because insoluble silver
chloride AgCl gets precipitated out.
10.(a) The green colour of ferrous sulphate crystals converts into brownish black ferric oxide
and smell of burning sulphur is evolved due to SO2 and SO3.
2FeSO4(s) heating→ Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + SO3(g)
14.(c)
17. (a) MnO2 is oxidising agent because it is removing hydrogen from HCl to form Cl2.
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18.(a) MgCl2 is ionic compound (ionic compound will have high melting and boiling point).
CASE 1:
1.(b) H2O2 is oxidised to O2, hence acts as a reducing agent.
2.(a) H2O2 is reduced to H2O and oxidises H2S to S. Hence, it is acts as an oxidising agent.
3.(b) Mn7+ changes to Mn2+ by gaining 5 electrons (reduction).
CASE 2:
1.(b) Haber’s process is used for the manufacturing of ammonia that involves combination
of elements nitrogen and Hydrogen.
2.(d) Ostwald’s process of manufacturing of HNO3. It involves combination of compounds
i.e. NO2, H2O with element oxygen.
3.(c) Combination of ethylene and water produces ethyl alcohol
CASE 3:
1.(a)Na2CO3-sodium carbonate
d. Acetic acid
5. The metal oxides that will show both acidic and basic characters?
a. K2O
b. Na2O
c. CuO
d. Al2O3
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6. The acidic soil that is not good for health of growing plants, is neutralized by
a. Magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)2)
b. Calcium oxide (CaO)
c. Sodium chloride (NaCl)
d. Ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH)
7.The reaction of vinegar with baking soda will release which gas
a. Hydrogen
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Nitrogen dioxide
8.What is product formed when zinc metals granules reacts with sodium hydroxide?
a. Sodium zincate and carbon dioxide
b. Sodium zincate and hydrogen gas
c. Zinc hydroxide and sodium
d. Sodium zinc-oxide and hydrogen gas
d. None of these
11. When copper oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid react, the colour changes to which of the
following colour?
a. Black
b. Bluish-green
c. White
d. Yellow
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12. When HCl gas is prepared on a humid day, the gas is generally passed through the guard
tube containing CaCl2. The role of CaCl2 taken in the guard tube is to
14. An unknown solution in a test tube was given to a student, when universal indicator solution
is added to test tube, it turned out violet. The unknown solution is:
a. Vinegar solution
b. Iodine solution
c. Caustic Soda solution
d. Baking soda solution
15. In cold countries, which of the following compound is usually spread on icy roads for
melting ice?
a. Sodium bicarbonate
b. Rock salt
c. Sodium carbonate
d. Magnesium hydroxide
17. Choose the correct oxide from following oxides which when dissolved in water gives a
solution that will turns blue litmus to red?
a. MgO
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b. CaO
c. CO2
d. Na2O
18. Which is not correct pair of conjugate acid and base from the following?
a. HNO3 and NO3–
b. NH4+ and NH3
c. H3PO2 and H2PO2–
d. Double salt
CASE 1:
A solid compound A on heating gives carbon dioxide gas and a solid residue. The residue
when mixed with water forms B. On passing excess of CO2 through B in water a clear
solution C is obtained.
a. CaCO3
b. Na2CO3
c. CaO
d. Ca(OH)2
CASE 2:
CASE 3:
1.The product B is
a. Quick lime
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Sodium carbonate
d. Slaked lime
a. Washing soda
b. Plaster of Paris
c. Bleaching powder
d. Calcium carbonate
4. Which among the following compounds can be used to prepare bleaching powder?
a. C
b. D
c. B
d. E
CASE 4:
A compound P of sodium forms a white power and it is constituent of baking powder and is
used in some medicine that is used to treat acidity known as antacids. When heated it gives
a compound Q that is anhydrous in nature and become hydrated salt, when water is
absorbed. This salt when kept open in air, loses water molecule in a process known
efflorescence. When dissolved in water it forms a gives base and a weak acid R.
1.What is formula of Q?
a. NaHCO3
b. Na2CO3
c. NaOH
d. Na2CO3.10H2O
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4. Identify R.
a. CO2
b. H2CO3
c. NaOH
d. NaCl
SOLUTIONS
2.(b) Bleaching powder contains lime, that will give a milky solution upon dissolution in water.
CaOCl2 + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Cl2
3.(a) NaNO3 as it is a salt of strong acid and strong base. So it considered as neutral salt and
has no effect on litmus. Ca(OH)2 is a base CuSO4.5H2O is a salt of weak base and strong acid
while NaHCO3 is a salt of strong base and weak acid so the other three will effects litmus.
4.(b) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a strong base while ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH) is a
weak base. Water is neutral in nature, HNO3 is acidic.
5.(d) Al2O3 is an amphoteric oxide other are basic. Thus (d) is correct option.
6.(b) Acidic soil is harmful for the plants as the healthy plants cannot grow in it. Thus the
acidic soil is neutralized by adding a base like, calcium oxide (CaO).
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7.(c) Vinegar is acetic acid and baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate NaHCO3. When an
acid reacts with a metal carbonate, they produces CO2 gas.
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
11.(b) Blue-green colour of solution is due to the formation of copper (II) chloride.
2HCl + CuO → CuCl2 + H2O
blue green
12.(c) CaCl2 from guard tube will absorb water for HCl gas on humid day.
15.(b) Rock salt (NaCl) is usually spread on the roads to prevent the water from freezing at
0°C.
16.(d) [OH–] = 0.001 M = 10–3 M
pOH = –log[OH–] = 3
pH + pOH = 14
pH = 14 – 3 = 11
17.(c) MgO, CaO and Na2O all are examples of metal oxide. Metal oxides are basic in nature.
CO2 is a non-metal oxide and it is acidic in nature. So, CO2 aqueous solution turns blue
litmus to red.
18.(d) The conjugate base of H2SO4 is HSO–4.
19.(d) Double salt is a combination of two normal salts. CuSO4 & K2SO4 are two normal salt.
20.(b) It will give H+ ions that combine with water to produce H3O+ ions and Cl– ions.
CASE 1:
1.(a)
2.(c)
3.(a)
CASE 2:
1.(a)
2.(a)
3.(b)
CASE 3:
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1.(b) NaHCO3 when heated it will give Na2CO3 (A), water and CO2 (B).
CASE 4:
1.(b)
2.(c) During the efflorescence process Na2CO3.10H2O loses nine molecules of water to give
sodium carbonate monohydrate.
3.(a)NaOH completely ionises to give a large amount of hydroxide ions whereas H2CO3
ionises partially to give a less amount of H+ ions. Thus, the solution is overall alkaline in
nature.
4.(b) R is carbonic acid, a weak acid that formed when Na2CO3 is dissolved in water.
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1.Which of the oxide(s) of iron from the following would be obtained on prolonged reaction
of iron with steam?
a. Fe2O3
b. Fe2O4
c. Fe3O4
d. FeO
2. Reaction between B and A forms compound D. B loses electron and A gains electron. Which
of the following properties is not shown by compound D?
a. Has low melting point
b. Has high melting point
c. Occurs as solid
d. Conducts electricity in molten state
3. The ores that contain sulphides are converted into oxides by heating strongly in the presence
of excess air. This process is known as
a. Smelting
b. Roasting
c. Calcination
d. Refining of ore
5. In which of the following pairs of reactants, a displacement reaction will take place?
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a. CuSO4 + Fe
b. MgSO4 + Fe
c. ZnSO4 + Fe
d. Ca(SO4)2 + Fe
6. An element P is soft and it can be cut with the help of a sharp object like knife. It is considered
very reactive to air and cannot be kept open in the air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify
the element from the following that has the above property:
a. Ca
b. Na
c. Zn
d. Mg
7. A reaction in which a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its salt solution
is known as an ________ reaction.
a. Combination
b. Displacement
c. Addition
d. Double displacement
8. When zinc granules reacts with H2SO4 (dil.), a salt is formed with the release of a gas. The
gas released during this reaction will puts off a burning candle with a poping sound. The gas
released during this reaction is:
a. hydrogen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. sulphur dioxide
d. hydrogen sulphide
11. During smelting, an additional substance is added that combines with impurities to form a
fusible product known as
a. Slag
b. Anode mud
c. Flux
d. Gangue
12. Choose the element that will displace copper from a solution of copper sulphate.
a. Silver
b. Gold
c. Tin
d. Mercury
14. A mixture of iron filling and sulphur powder is there, the mixture component will be
separated by
a. Bringing a magnet near mixture.
b. Dissolving the given mixture in Carbon disulphide and then filtering off
c. Heating the mixture and then adding CS2 to black mass
d. Using both method given (a) and (b)
a. (i) only
b. (ii) only
c. Both (i) and (ii)
d. Neither (i) nor (ii)
17. Identify the most and least reactive elements on the basis of the given sequence of reactions.
P + QA → PA + Q ...(1)
P + QB → PB + Q
R + PA → RA + P ...(2)
a. P and R
b. R and Q
c. R and P
d. P and Q
18. The metal oxide has molecular formula M2O and the molecular mass of metal oxide is
given as 94 u. The molecular mass of chloride salt of this given metal is
a. 118.5 u
b. 74.5 u
c. 118.0 u
d. 120.0 u
20. MPO4 is the formula of the phosphate salt of a metal. The formula of metal nitrate salt is:
a. MNO3
b. M(NO3)3
c. M2(NO3)3
d. M(NO3)2
CASE 1:
The huge annual loss due to corrosion is a national waste and should be minimized.
Following are some process that are helpful in preventing corrosion.
(1) Galvanisation Iron is blasted with fine sand to make the surface rough dipped in molten
zinc and then cooled. A thin layer of zinc will form on the iron surface. As zinc is more reactive
than iron so it will act as a sacrificial metal and is preferentially oxidised thus protecting
oxidation of iron.
(2) The iron surface is coated with paint or oil or grease protect moist oxygen from coming in
contact with the metal and thus effectively protects rusting of iron.
(3) Electroplating with metals like tin, nickel or chromium also prevents rusting process.
(4) Alloying (mixing of iron in its molten state with other metals) protects rusting. Stainless
steel is an alloy of iron with constituents like Cr or Ni.
1. The metal platting which is most durable used on iron to protect against corrosion
a. Nickel plating
b. Copper plating
c. Tin plating
d. Zinc plating
2. The most common method that is used to protect the bottom of ship made of iron is:
a. Connecting it with Mg block
b. White tin plating
c. Coating it with red lead oxide
d. Connecting it with Pb block
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a. Making it cathode
b. Putting in saline water
c. Both of these
d. None of these
CASE 2:
Some of the metals that are chemically very reactive, while others are less reactive. On the
basis of easeness of reactions of different metals with oxygen, water and acids, as well as
displacement reactions, the metals that have been arranged in series according to their
chemical reactivity is known as activity series of metals. In reactivity series, the most reactive
metal is placed at the top of series while the least reactive metal is placed at the bottom of
series. As we go down in the series, the chemical reactivity of metals decreases. As the metals
placed at the bottom of the reactivity series like silver and gold are less reactive. Thus they
are usually found in native state in nature.
1. When metal A is added to dilute HCl solution, there is no liberation of gas. Metal is:
a. Hg
b. Zn
c. Ag
d. Na
d. zinc
d. potassium
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CASE 3:
Most of metals undergo same kind of reactions. The "ease" with which they react is not the
same. Some are more reactive than the others metals. Metals along with hydrogen (a non-
metal) are arranged in order of their reactivity in a series known reactivity series.
d. Magnesium
Which of the following elements can displace Iron from FeSO4 solution?
a. Zinc
b. Copper
c. Silver
d. All of these
Which of the following metal will produce a colourless solution when added in CuSO4 solution?
a. Magnesium
b. Iron
c. Silver
d. None of these
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CASE 4:
Reactive metals like Na and K react with water with liberation of H2 gas and form
corresponding hydroxides while the metals Mg, Zn, Al and Fe are low in reactivity to react
with cold water but they will only react with steam when red hot form corresponding oxides.
1. Which of the following metal will form corresponding hydroxide on reaction with water?
a. Mg
b. Na
c. Zn
d. Fe
d. Ca
d. Pt
CASE 5:
An element 'Z' which is non metal is the largest component of air. 'Z' when heated with
Hydrogen gas in the presence of Fe as catalyst in ratio of 1 : 3 produces a gas 'P'. On heating
'Z' with O2, it produces an oxide 'Q'. If this 'Q' reacts with water in presence of air, it will give
an acid 'S' that will act as a strong oxidising agent.
d. C2
d. N2
d. Nitric oxide
d. HNO2
SOLUTIONS
5. (a) According to the reactivity series of metals, iron is more reactive than copper metal
(placed higher in activity series) so it can displace copper from copper sulphate solution
(CuSO4) and form iron (II) sulphate and copper:
6. (b) Na is a metal that is soft so it can be cut with a knife. It is so reactive that it reacts
violently with air or moisture and immediately catches fire when kept in open. So to avoid it
from coming in contact with oxygen and moisture, it is kept in kerosene oil.
7. (b) When one metal displaces another metal from its salt solution, this type of reaction is
known as as a displacement reaction.
8.(a) Hydrogen gas is liberated when a metal reacts with an acid. When zinc granule reacts
with dilute sulphuric acid (H2SO4), zinc sulphate (ZnSO4), a salt is formed with the release of
hydrogen gas. When a burning candle is brought near the test tube that contain hydrogen gas,
it puts off the burning candle and produces a poping sound.
The reaction involved is: Zn(s) + H2SO4(l) → ZnSO4(s) + H2(g)
10.(b) The chemical formula of rust is Fe2O3. xH2O. It is hydrated Ferric Oxide.
11.(a) Flux combines with certain impurities (gangue particles) in order to form a substance
known as slag. This can be easily removed.
12.(c) Tin (Sn); as it lies above copper in Activity series so it will displace Cu from CuSO4.
13.(b) Graphite that is crystalline form of carbon and iodine are the two non-metals pairs
which has shining lustrous surfaces.
14.(d) Mixture of iron filling and sulphur powder will be separated either by bringing a
magnet near to mixture (Fe filling attracted to magnet) or dissolving the mixture in CS2,
sulphur is soluble in CS2, on filtration iron gets filtered off.
15.(d) Hg and Zn are refined by distillation method. Presence of carbon in pig iron will make
it harder.
16.(d) Non-metals oxides are considered acidic in nature. P4O10 is acidic oxide.
17.(b) ‘R’ is the most reactive element and Q is the least reactive element. R easily displaces
P from its salt, while P easily displaces Q from its salt.
20.(b) In MPO4 the oxidation state of M is +3. M(NO3)3 is formula of metal nitrate salt.
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CASE 1:
1. (d) Zinc has higher oxidation potential than Ni, Cu and Sn. The process of coating of iron
surface with zinc is called as galvanization. Galvanized iron sheets will maintain their lusture
due to the formation of protective layer of basic zinc carbonate, ZnCO 3.
2. (a) To protect the bottom of the ship, it is connected with more reactive metal than iron
like magnesium. This technique is known as cathodic protection.
3. (a) Cathodic protection is best method that is used to prevent iron from rusting. In this
method iron is made cathode by application of external current.
Basic water is highly conducting and thus increases the process of rusting.
CASE 2:
1. (c) Silver (Ag) will not displace hydrogen from acids as it lie below hydrogen in activity
series.
2. (c) Silver is less reactive than copper so it will not react with copper sulphate, CuSO 4
solution.
3. (a) Gold is a noble metal. So, it is found in free state.
CASE 3:
1. (b) K lies above in activity series. So it is most reactive.
2. (a) Zinc is more reactive than Fe. So it can displace iron from solution.
3. (a) Magnesium will displace copper from copper sulphate solution (CuSO4) to form MgSO4 that is a
colourless solution. Thus blue colour of copper sulphate will fade away to colourless. Iron can also
displace copper from copper sulphate but the color of iron sulphate formed will be green.
CASE 4:
1. (b) Sodium reacts with water and forms sodium hydroxide
2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
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2. (c) Magnesium will not react with cold water so it reacts with hot water by forming its
oxide.
3. (c) Aluminium has low reactivity towards water. Hence, it reacts with steam only to form
Corresponding oxide 2Al(s) + 3H2O(g) → Al2O3(s) + 3H2(g)
CASE 5:
d. CH3CH2 CH3
6.When propanoic acid is treated with aqueous sodium bicarbonate, CO2 is liberated. The 'C'
of CO2 comes from?
a. Methyl group
b. Carboxylic acid
c. Alcohol group
d. None of these
7.Sugars are finally converted to ethanol and CO2 in the presence of enzymes (present in yeast)
a. Invertase, zymase
b. Only invertase
c. Only zymase
d. None of these
8.An organic compound 'P' with molecular formula C2H4O2 turns blue litmus to red and gives
brisk effervescence with NaHCO3. Identify the compound
a. Methanoic acid
b. Ethanoic acid
c. Propanol
d. Butanoic acid
9.Vinegar is a solution of
a. 40-50% acetic acid in alcohol
b. 5-8% acetic acid in alcohol
c. 5-8% acetic acid in water
d. 40-50% acetic acid in water
a. C2H2
b. C3H8
c. C5H12
d. C6H6
11.When ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol a sweet smelling product is formed. What the
functional group of the product formed?
a. Aldehyde
b. Carboxylic acid
c. Alcohol
d. Ester
14.One mole of a hydrogen X reacted completely with one mole of H2 gas in the presence of
a heated catalyst. The formula of X could be,
a. CH4
b. C5H10
c. C3H8
d. C7H16
17.A compound of carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen contains these elements in the ratio of their
atomic mass 9 : 1 : 3.5, if its molecular mass is 108 u. Find its molecular formula.
a. C2H2N
b. C3H4N
c. C3H5N2
d. C6H8N2
19.Consider the given statements about carbon and choose the correct option:
1. It has small atomic size
2. Its boiling & melting point is less as compared to other members of group
3. It exihibits electropositive character
4. It shows maximum tendency of catenation
b. 2 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
d. 1 and 4 are correct
20.The molecular formula of a hydrocarbon is C6H12. It does not react with H2 to give C6H14
nor does it react with Cl to give C6H12Cl2. The hydrocarbon C6H12 is
1. A saturated hydrocarbon
2. A branched hydrocarbon
3. An open chain hydrocarbon
4. A cycloalkane
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 4
CASE 1:
An organic compound 'X' is an essential component of wine and beer. Compound 'X' on
oxidation gives an organic acid 'Y' which is present in vinegar. Compound 'X' and organic
acid 'Y' react together in the presence of an acid catalyst, to give a compound 'Z'.
d. Methanol
a. CH3COONa
b. CH3COOC2H5
c. CH3CH2COOCH3
d. CH3CH2OH
CASE 2:
Compound 'X' works well with hard water. It is used for making shampoos & products for
cleaning clothes. Compound 'X' is not 100% biodegradable and causes water pollution.
Compound 'Y' does not work well with hard water and it is 100% biodegradable and does not
cause water pollution.
d. Baking soda
2.Identify Y.
a. Washing soda
b. Soap
c. Detergent
d. Sulfates
CASE 3:
The molecular formula of an organic compound 'X' is C2H6O, it is an active ingredient of all
alcoholic drinks. It is also used in medicines such as tincture iodine, cough syrups. A small
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piece of Na is dropped into the test tube containing 'X'. A new compound 'Y' is formed with
the evolution of colorless and odorless gas .
a. Ethanol
b. Ethanoic acid
c. Methanol
d. Diethylether
d. CH3CH2CH2Ona
d. N2
CASE 4:
The molecular formula of an organic compound 'P' is C 2H6O, which is used as an antifreeze.
Compound 'P' on oxidation gives a compound 'Q' which gives effervescence on treatment
with a baking soda solution.
d. Pentanol
d. chlorine
SOLUTIONS
5.(c)
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7.(a)Sugars are finally converted to ethanol and CO2 in the presence of both invertase and
zymase enzymes. And, these enzymes are present in yeast.
8.(b) The molecular formulae of given compounds are:
methanoic acid, HCOOH i.e., CH2O2
ethanoic acid, CH3COOH i.e., C2H4O2
propanol, C3H7OH i.e., C3H8O
butanoic acid, C3H7COOH i.e., C4H8O2
As, 'P' is acidic in nature. Brisk effervescence with NaHCO3 shows CO2 as one of the
products. The molecular formula of 'P' contains 2 oxygen atoms.
9.(c)Vinegar is a solution of 5-8% of acetic acid in water
18.(d)
19.(d) Carbon has small atomic size and it shows maximum catenation property.
CASE 1:
(b) ethanol
'X' and 'Y' react together in the presence of an acid catalyst to give ethyl ethanoate.
CASE 2:
(a) X is detergent.
(b) Y is soap
CASE 3:
(a) ethanol
(c) CH3CH2Ona
(a) H2
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CASE 4:
(b) ethanol
LIFE PROCESSES
d. Intestine
2.Which plant tissue transports water and minerals from the roots to the leaf?
a. Xylem
b. Phloem
c. Parenchyma
d. Sclerenchyma
4.Which of the following help in protecting the inner lining of the stomach from the harmful effect of
hydrochloric acid?
a. Mucus
b. Pepsin
c. Trypsin
d. Bile
5.The vein which brings clean blood from the lungs into the heart is known as:
a. Pulmonary vein
b. Inferior vena cava
c. Superior vena cava
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d. Pulmonary artery
6.The process of diffusion of solvent particles from the region of less solute concentration to a region
of high solute concentration through semi-permeable membrane is known as
a. Diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Translocation
d. Imbibition
7.When air blown from mouth into a test-tube containing lime water, the lime water turns milky due to
the presence of
a. Oxygen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Nitrogen
d. Water vapour
8.During contraction, what prevents the backflow of blood inside the heart?
a. Valves in heart
b. Thick muscular walls of ventricles
c. Thin walls of atria
d. Thick walls of atria
d. Nephron
d. Carbohydrates
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14.When a few drops of iodine solution are added to rice water, the solution turns blue- black in colour.
This indicates that rice water contains:
a. Fats
b. Glycogen
c. Starch
d. Simple proteins
15.Sometimes we get painful cramps in our leg muscles after running for a long time due to the
accumulation of:
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Fatty acids
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Lactic acid
18.What will occur if a young plant is dug up and replanted in another place?
a. The leaves lose less water
b. The roots cannot take up mineral salts
c. The stem cannot transport water
d. The surface area of the root is reduced
19.What is the function of the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule of the nephron?
a. To reabsorb water into the blood
b. To eliminate ammonia from the body
c. To reabsorb salts and amino acids
d. To filter the blood and capture the filtrate
CASE 1:
Water is an important substance used as solvent, in many biological processes. It is needed as
raw material in photosynthesis, as a main substance from which plants evolve oxygen and
provide hydrogen for the synthesis of carbohydrates. It helps in translocation of food and
minerals which helps in maintaining the internal transportation. Osmosis is a special type of
transport of water molecules that occurs through semipermeable membrane. It is a movement
of solvent from the region of higher diffusion pressure to the lower diffusion pressure across
a semipermeable membrane. It is categorised into two types - endosmosis and exosmosis. In
endosmosis, the water enters into a cell, organ or system whereas in exosmosis there is
osmotic withdrawal of water from a cell, organ or system.
1.A flowering plant is planted in an earthen pot and watered. Urea is added in higher
concentration to make the plant grow rapidly, but after sometime the plant died . This may be
due to
a. Exosomosis
b. Endosmosis
c. Logging of water
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d. Difficulty in breathing
4.In a plant cell, the cytoplasm is surrounded by cell wall as well as the cell membrane but the
specificity of translocation of substances is mostly across the cell membrane. The reason
behind this is
a. Impermeability of plasma membrane
b. Selective permeability of cell membrane
c. Permeability of plasma membrane
d. Impermeability of cell wall
5.On the basis of the given figure, mark the incorrect statement.
CASE 2:
Our body needs to eliminate the wastes that build up from different activities of cell and from
digestion. Non removal of these waste can lead to malfunctioning of the body and we can get
very sick. The organs of our excretory system help to eliminate these wastes from our body.
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The excretory system consists of a pair of kidney, a pair of ureters, urinary bladder and an
urethra. Each kidney is composed of nearly one million complex tubular structures known as
nephrons. The formation of urine involves various steps that takes place in the different parts
of the nephron. Each nephron consists of a cup-shaped structure called Bowman’s capsule
which has a bunch of capillaries called glomerulus. Bowman’s capsule continues to a tubular
structure called as proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle and distal convoluted tubule
which ultimately leads to the collecting tubule.
1.Out of the following substances choose the least toxic excretory products in animals.
a. Urea (CH4N2O)
b. Uric acid (C5H4N4O3)
c. Ammonia (NH3)
d. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
3.A person who is fasting, i.e., not taking food or beverages will have_____ in his/her urine.
a. Less glucose
b. Little urea
c. Excess urea
d. Little fat
5.The given figure dipicts a single nephron from a mammalian kidney. Identify the labelled
parts (A-E) and match them with the options (I-IV) given below.
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CASE 3:
The green plants prepare their food, through the process of photosynthesis and are therefore
called as autotrophs. All organisms are dependant on green plants for food and are referred
to as heterotrophs. Green plants carry out photosynthesis by absorbing light energy of sun.
The first stage of reaction is directly driven by light therefore called light reaction. The second
phase of the reaction is indirectly dependent on light. The former is called light reaction while
the later is dark reaction. The dark reactions is dependent on the products of light reaction.
a. 12
b. 6
c. 4
d. 1
3.A plant is provided with ideal conditions for photosynthesis and an isotope of 14CO2 is added.
Later when the products of the process are analysed, then what should be the nature of
products?
a. Both glucose and oxygen are normal.
b. Both glucose and oxygen are labelled glucose and oxygen.
c. Labelled glucose and normal oxygen.
d. Labelled oxygen and normal glucose.
4.With the help of given diagram of an electron micrograph of a section of chloroplast. Answer
the question.
Select the option which correctly depicts the functions of parts X, Y and Z.
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5.Difference between light and dark reactions is given in the table below.
According to the table, which of the following is correct group of differences between the two
reactions.
a. (I), (II), (III)
b. (II), (III), (IV)
c. (II), (III)
d. (I), (IV)
CASE 4:
Digestion is a catabolic process in which complex food is broken down into simpler and
smaller forms with the help of different hydrolytic enzymes produced in over body. In human,
the process of intake of essential nutrients in the form of food takes place through system
called as digestive system. The digestive system in humans consist of alimentary canal and its
associated glands.
d. Oxyntic cells
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2.Enterokinase is essential for the process of digestion to get complete. This is so because
a. Trypsinogen is not activated.
b. Pepsinogen remains inactive.
c. Prorennin is not activated into rennin.
d. Chymotrypsinogen remains inactive and is not converted into chymotrypsin.
3.Match the column A with column B and column C. Select the correct option from the
following.
4.X and Y in the given graph are the action spectrum of the two enzymes. The two enzymes
are
a. X : Amylase Y : Trypsin
b. X : Pepsin Y : Trypsin
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c. X : Y : Rennin
Chymotrypsi
n
d. X : Lactate Y : Amylase
dehydrogenas
e
5.If the inner surface of the ileum in the small intestine of humans were smooth, instead of
being folded and subdivided into villi, which of the following statements would be true?
a. The rate of absorption of digested food molecules would increase, because the digested food
would pass more easily through the digestive tract.
b. The process of digestion would not be as effective, because there would be fewer cells that
secretes trypsin (a protein-digesting enzyme).
c. Humans would have to evolve a much longer small intestine in order to absorb ample
nutrients from their food.
d. A person would not be able to survive, because the digestive tract would be more
susceptible to damage.
CASE 5:
Transpiration is an evaporative loss of water by the plants. It takes place mainly through the
stoma present in the leaves. Besides the loss of water vapour, exchange of gases like oxygen
and carbon dioxide in the leaf also takes place through small pores known as stomata. The
stomata usually remain open in the day and closes during night.
2.Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through an opening called stomata. Through the
same opening, carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Choose the correct
option to explain how both process takes place.
5.With respect to the given graphs regarding factors affecting the rate of transpiration,
choose the correct option from the following.
SOLUTIONS
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1.(a)Amoeba ingests food using temporary finger-like projections of the cell surface, which
fuse over the food particle forming a food vacuole. Inside the food vacuole, complex
substances are broken down into simpler ones, diffusing into the cytoplasm.
2.(a) The xylem transports water and dissolved minerals upward through the plant, from the
roots to the leaves.
3.(a) Stomach secretes the enzyme pepsin and pancreas secretes trypsin. Both of them
catalyzes the breakdown of proteins.
4.(a) Mucus is a viscous secretion that protects the inner lining of the stomach from the
harmful effect of HCl.
5.(a) The pulmonary vein is responsible for bringing oxygenated and pure blood from the
lungs into the heart.
6.(b) The diffusion of solvent particles from a region of less solute concentration to high
concentration (down the concentration gradient) through a semi-permeable membrane is
called osmosis.
7.(b) When air is blown from mouth into a test-tube containing lime water, the lime water
turns milky due to the presence of carbon dioxide in the exhaled air.
8.(a) Valves ensure that blood doesn't flow backward during the contraction of ventricles or
atria. Since the ventricles have to pump blood into various organs with high pressure, they
have thicker walls as compared to auricles. The separation of both the left and right sides of
the heart by valve also prevents the mixing of deoxygenated and oxygenated blood to
supply a high amount of oxygen to the body.
9.(d) Nephron filters blood in kidney and therefore is called the filtration unit.
10.(c) The first stage of photosynthesis is called the light reactions. In this, light is absorbed
by the chlorophyll and then transformed to chemical energy in the form of NADPH and ATP.
11.(b) Resin is a hydrocarbon secretion of many plants, particularly coniferous trees, valued
for its chemical constituents and important products such as varnishes, adhesives etc. Gum
is also a byproduct produced and is sent out through the bark of the tree.
12.(d) Platelets are also known as thrombocytes, They are tiny fragments of cells that are
necessary for normal blood clotting. They are formed in the bone marrow and are released
into the blood to circulate.
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13.(b) Capillaries are very thin small vessels which act as a connection between
arteries(carry blood away from the heart) and veins (carry blood again back to the heart).
14.(c) When iodine solution is added to rice water (starch), the solution turned blue black
because of the presence of starch. This indicates that rice water contains starch.
15.(d) The accumulation of lactic acid in our muscles while running for a long time causes
cramps due to low oxygen supply.
16.(d) Due to the lack of oxygen, anaerobic respiration takes place in the human muscles
that leads to conversion of pyruvate (formed due to breakdown of glucose during cellular
respiration) into lactic acid, which causes muscle cramps.
17.(c) The small finger-like projections, i.e., villi present in intestine increase the surface area
for better absorption of digested food.
18.(d) Digging up a plant may damage roots and affect mineral uptake. This will lead to
wilting. Stem can still transport water.
19.(d) The function of the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule of the nephron is to filter the
blood and capture the filtrate.
20.(d) Person having blood pressure 140/90, shows hypertension or high blood pressure. The
normal blood pressure for humans is 120/80.
CASE 1:
(a)The plant died because of exosmosis as the urea added has higher concentration than the sap of
plant. Therefore, there is loss of water from the plant body.
(b) The sugar beet will loose water leading to the decrease in turgor pressure due to plasmolysis. It
will decrease to a point when the protoplasm peels away from cell wall leaving the gaps making the
cell flaccid.
(d) Diffusion is the only means of gaseous transport in plants. It is responsible or involved in all the
three process mentioned i.e., transpiration, photosynthesis and respiration. In transpiration there is loss
of water in gaseous form. In photosynthesis and respiration, the exchange of gases takes place through
this process.
(b) The cell membrane is selectively permeable which means it allows only some substance to pass
through.
(b) Statement-b is incorrect as it says solute molecule will move from chamber A to B but this is not
possible because the water flows from higher concentration to lower concentration and not the solute.
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CASE 2:
(b) Out of the following, ammonia is the most toxic nitrogenous waste produced which is
followed urea and uric acid. The uric acid is the least toxic.
(c) When the bladder gets filled with urine, then the stretch receptors present sends
impulse to the central nervous system. The CNS then sends motor impulse to smooth
muscles of the bladder to undergo contraction and relaxation of the urethral sphincter
leading to micturition.
(b) In this case the amount of urea is less in his urine because it is formed by the metabolism
of different food and beverages.
(c) Bowman's capsule is a cup-shaped structure present at the beginning of nephron in
mammalian kidney and it is the first part to receive the filterate.
(a) 'A' represents malpighian tubule which is the site of ultrafilteration.
'E' represents collecting tubule where the urine is collected after concentration of filterate.
'C' represents proximal convoluted tubule which is the primary site for reabsorption of
glucose and amino acid.
'D' represents distal convoluted tubule which is involved in secretion of hydrogen ions and
NH3 maintaining the pH of blood.
CASE 3:
(d) In plants light reaction takes place in the thylakoids of the chloroplast and in this process
energy molecules like ATP and NADPH is produced.
(d) In the process of photosynthesis, the total number of sugar molecule produced is one.
This is so because 6 molecule of carbon dioxide along with 6 molecule of water gives one
molecule of glucose and 6 molecules of oxygen.
(c) In this case the glucose produced will be labelled because it will be formed from carbon
14 isotope used in the reaction while the oxygen will be normal as it is evolved from the
water used in the reaction.
(b) Here, 'X' represents grana which is basically the stack of thylakoids and the site of light
reaction. 'Y' represent stroma where the synthesis of carbohydrate takes place. 'Z' represent
starch granules where carbohydrate is stored.
Only first difference is incorrect as light reaction is called photochemical reaction while the
dark reaction is known as biochemical reaction.
CASE 4:
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(c) The mucus produced by the goblet cells protects the lining of the gastrointestinal tract
from different enzymes. Throughout the mucosal epithelium these cells are present.
(a) Presence of enterokinase is essential because it helps in activating the inactive enzyme
trypsinogen into trypsin. Trypsin helps in digesting the proteins into amino acids. Therefore,
in the absence of it proteins will not get digested properly.
(c) Lactose is converted into galactose with the help of enzyme lactase. Fatty acid is
converted into glycerol with the help of enzyme lipase. Starch is converted into maltose in
the presence of enzyme amylase. Enzyme trypsin helps in the conversion of proteins into
dipeptides.
(b) 'A' Represents enzyme pepsin while 'B' represent enzyme trypsin. Both enzymes helps in
digesting the protein but are functional at different pH in the alimentary canal. The enzyme
pepsin is active at acidic pH i.e. 1.5 while trypsin is functional in alkaline pH of 7.5 to 8.5.
(c) Presence of intestinal fold helps in increasing surface area for absorption. The folds are
further subdivided into villi which has brush border cells leading to effective absorption.
Therefore, if the small intestine becomes smooth than in order to compensate this, the
intestine would have to be much longer.
CASE 5:
(d) The amount of chlorophyll present in the leaves will not affect the transpiration directly.
It is affected by other factors like humidity temperature light velocity and atmospheric
pressure. Internal factors like the area of leaves structure and the age of plants affect
transpiration.
(d) The water vapours and the carbon dioxide has different diffusion coefficients, thus they
are independent on each other. Thus, both process can happen simultaneously.
(b) Option (b) is the right choice. This is so because epidermal cells sometimes get
specialised in their size and shape. They are known as subsidiary cells or accessory cells.
(b) Transpiration is a process through which there is loss of water in the form of vapors from
the stomatal opening. Therefore option (b) is the right choice as it does not prevent the loss
of water rather it leads to the loss.
(a) With the increase in the atmospheric temperature, rate of transpiration increases
because the air becomes warm and concentrated due to sunlight. Therefore graph 'A'
represent the atmospheric temperature. Transpiration and atmospheric pressure are
inversely proportional to each other. Therefore, graph-B represents atmospheric pressure.
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4.The communication between CNS and other parts of the body is facilitated by
a. Peripheral nervous system
b. Brain
c. Spinal cord
d. Reflex actions
6.The changes associated with puberty in males & females is due to the secretion of
a. Estrogen and progesterone
b. Testosterone and estrogen
c. Estrogen and growth hormone
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7.Which of the following acts both as endocrine(ductless) and exocrine (with duct) gland?
a. Pancreas
b. Hypothalamus
c. Adrenal
d. Kidney
8.Coordination via the nervous system tends to differ from that produced by the endocrine
system because the nervous system:
a. Is quick, precise and localized
b. Is slower and more pervasive
c. Does not require conscious activity
d. Secrete hormones
12.A microscopic gap between a pair of adjacent neurons over which nerve impulses pass is
called
a. Cyton
b. Dendrites
c. Axon
d. Synapse
d. Ovary
16.A growing seedling is kept in a dark room. A burning lamp is placed near to it for a few
days. The top part of seedling bends towards the burning candle. This is an example of:
a. Chemotropism
b. Hydrotropism
c. Phototropism
d. Geotropism
CASE 1:
Diencephalon lies below the cerebral hemisphere. It encloses the third ventricle. Third
ventricle is connected to iter of mid brain and lateral ventricles of cerebral hemispheres. It
partly separates the right and left halves of the diencephalon. The epithalamus forms the roof
of the diencephalon and consists of pineal gland. Sides or thalami act as relay station of
sensory impulses except that of smell. Floor of diencephalon called hypothalamus which has
control centres for body temperature, thirst, sleep, fatigue, sweating and emotional reactions.
It also produces neurohormones that regulate pituitary gland biosynthesis and secretion.
A part of diencephalon that functions as relay station between cerebrum and other parts of brain
is
a. Thalami
b. Pituitary gland
c. Hypothalamus
d. Third ventricle
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CASE 2:
In pea plants, green threads called tendrils tends to coil around the support and hepl the
shoot to climb up the support. A young tendril performs circular movements. When it comes
in contact with a support, it coils around it. The part of the tendril in contact with the support
does not grow as fast as the part of the tendril away from the support. This is caused due to
high amount of auxin on the part of tendril away from support. Coiling of tendril is a tropic
movement in response to stimulus of contact. It is called thigmotropism.
Tropic movement is
a. In response to unidirectional stimulus
b. Movement of growth
c. Movement of curvature
d. All the above
d. Contact
d. Leaf apex
CASE 3:
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Nervous system controls and coordinates the body organs to maintain a physiological
balance, called homeostasis, inside the body. It operates through nerve impulses which are
conducted quickly and unidirectionally at the synapses through the nerve fibres of the
neurons. Neurons are the structural and functional units of nervous system. A diagram of a
neuron has been shown below.
Match the Column-I and Column-II and choose the correct option.
a. Axon
b. Dendritic end
c. Axonal end
d. Cell body
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a. D
b. C
c. B
d. A
The gap between nerve ending of one neuron and dendrite of another neuron is:
a. Dendrite
b. Synapse
c. Axon
d. Cyton
CASE 4:
Geotropism refers to the orientation of body parts in relation to gravitational pull of earth,
e.g., stem grow against gravity so is negatively geotropic, while roots grow towards gravity
are positively geotropic. Plant exhibit positive or negative responses to other factors like tight,
water, touch, etc.
a. Tropic movement
b. Turgor movement
c. Klinostat movement
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d. Nastic movement
b. Hydrotropism
c. Geotropism
d. Chemotropism
a. Positive, positive
b. Positive, negative
c. Negative, positive
d. Negative, negative
4.What environmental, factor triggers the change in the direction of plant growth?
a. Light
b. Gravity
c. Water
d. All of these
SOLUTIONS
2.(b) Co-ordination is achieved through nervous system as well as circulatory system by the
agents like neurotransmitters and hormones.
3.(d) The main effect of cytokinin in plants is to stimulate the division of cells.
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4.(a)The system that facilitates communication between the central nervous system (CNS)
and the other parts of the body is regulated by peripheral nervous system.
5.(c) Electrical impulse in the neuron is transmitted to the dendrite, which leads to the cell
body, leading to the axon, and finally the axon terminal, which connects to the dendrite of the
other neuron through a synapse. Hence, the electrical impulse travels from the dendrite, cell
body, axon, and axonal end.
6.(b) The changes associated with puberty in males & females is due to the secretion of
testosterone and estrogen respectively.
7.(a) Pancreas acts both as endocrine (ductless) and exocrine (with duct) gland.
8.(a) Coordination via the nervous system tends to differ from that produced by the endocrine
system because the nervous system is quick, precise and localized
9.(c) Auxin is a plant hormone which is produced at the tip of stem. It is involved in various
physiological processes of plants. Such as growth in plants, apical dominance, stem
elongation and phototropism. It also inhibits growth of lateral buds. Photoperiodism is the
physiological reaction like flowering in plants that depends on the length of day and night.
10.(d) The brain is the important organ of central nervous system from where the electrical
impulses are sent to all other parts of the body through several neurons. Without the signal
from the brain, body is incapable to perform any work. Several sensory neurons are attached
to it and it acts as a network of nerves.
11.(b) Photoreceptors are the primary sensory cells within the visual system. They respond to
light
12.(d) A microscopic gap between a pair of adjacent neurons over which nerve impulses pass
is called synapse.
15.(c) The function of the axon is to transmit information to different neurons, muscles and
glands. The nerve impulse is transmitted towards the synaptic terminal from the dendron.
16.(c) Phototropism is a directional response that allows plants to grow towards, or even
away from the light. The sensing of light in the environment is important to plants; it can be
crucial for competition and survival.
17.(b) Pineal gland regulates the 24 hour rhythm of our body like sleep-wake cycle,
temperature, etc. It also affects metabolism and pigmentation.
18.(b) During cold, olfactory receptors gets blocked hence we cannot differentiate smell of a
perfume from that of agarbatti.
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19.(a) Schwann cells are mainly required for insulating via myelin sheath and supplying
nutrients to individual nerve fibers (axons) of the PNS neurons.
CASE 1:
1.(b) Diencephalon encloses the third ventricle.
3.(d) Hypothalamus has control centers for body temperature, thirst, sleep, sweating, etc
5.(a) A part of diencephalon that functions as relay station between cerebrum and other
parts of brain is thalami.
CASE 2:
1.(d) Tropic movement occurs in response to stimulus and shows movement in growth or
orientation or curvature.
2.(b) Coiling of tendril over its support is due to synthesis of less amount of auxin in the region
of contact.
3.(d) The bending of the plant part towards the stimulus of contact (touch) is called
thigmotropism.
4.(a) Thigmotropism is best exhibited by tendrils.
CASE 3:
1.(a) Dendron - Afferent nature (extend out from the cell body and receive messages from other
nerve cells)
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2.(c) The conversion of electrical signal to chemical signal occurs at the axonal end.
3.(d) In a neuron, the information is acquired by dendrites denoted by (A) in the given diagram.
4.(b) Synapse is the gap between two neurons.
CASE 4:
1.(a) The directional differential growth of plants due to external factors is called tropic
movement.
2.(c) Geotropism is the directional movement in response to gravitational pull of the earth.
3.(b) Roots grow downwards, therefore are called positive geotropic while stem grow upwards,
therefore are called negative geotropic.
4.(d) Plants show response to various environmental stimuli such as light, water, winds,
contact, gravity, etc.
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3.Which of the following have buds on their leaves as vegetative reproducing structure?
a. Potato
b. Banana
c. Bougainvillea
d. Bryophyllum
4.In human males, the testes lie in the scrotum, because it helps in the
a. Process of mating
b. Formation of sperms
c. Easy transfer of gametes
d. Secretion of hormones
5.Which of the following method of contraception protects from acquiring sexually transmitted
diseases?
a. Surgery
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b. Oral-pills
c. Condoms
d. Copper-T
d. Vagina
7.A feature of reproduction that is common to Amoeba, Yeast and Spirogyra is that
a. They reproduce only sexually
b. They are all unicellular
c. They reproduce asexually
d. They are all multicellular
8.Along the path of the vas-deferens the secretions of which gland provide nutrition to the
sperms?
a. Prostate vesicles
b. Seminal vesicles
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Urinary bladder
10.From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the
gynoecium.
a. Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
b. Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
c. Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
d. Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac
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12.In a flower, the parts that produce male and female gametes (germ cells) are
a. Stamen and filament
b. Filament and stigma
c. Anther and ovary
d. Stamen and anther
13.After fertilization the fertilized egg or the zygote gets implanted in the
a. Vagina
b. Ovary
c. Uterus
d. Fallopian tube
15.Characters that are transmitted from parents to offspring during reproduction show
a. Only similarities with parents
b. Only dissimilarities with parents
c. Both similarities and variations with parents
d. Neither similarities nor variations
16.A Planaria worm is cut horizontally in the middle into two halves P and Q such that the
part P contains the whole head of the worm. Another Planaria worm is cut vertically into two
halves R and S in such a way that both the cut pieces R and S contain half head each. Which
of the cut pieces of the two Planaria worms could regenerate to form the complete respective
worms?
a. Only P
b. Only R and S
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c. P, R and S
d. P, Q, R and S
17.Which out of the following processes does not lead to the formation of clones?
a. Fertilisation
b. Multiple fission
c. Micropropagation
d. Fragmentation
18.During adolescence, several changes occur in the human body. Mark one change associated
with sexual maturation in boys
a. Increase in height
b. Loss of milk teeth
c. Cracking of voice
d. Weight gain
CASE 1:
Consider that two organisms namely X and Y produce new offspring from single parent only.
When reaches its maximum growth, organism X divides its body into two new organism. The
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parent organism does not exist anymore and two new daughter organisms grow fullyl and
divide again. Organism Y forms a small outgrowth on its body called bud due to cell division
at one particular site. This bud, later on, detaches and develops into new organism.
CASE 2:
Preeti collected some pond water in a test tube which was dark green in colour. She took out
dark green colouredmass from it and separated its filaments by using needles. Some filaments
are broken down into small fragments. She put these small filaments in a Petri dish containing
clean water. After few days, she observed that the small fragments produce complete filaments.
2. The small fragment gave rise to new filament. What does it indicate?
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CASE 3:
Stamen is the male reproductive part and it produces pollen grains that are yellowish in colour.
Pistil is present in the centre of a flower and is the female reproductive part. X and Y are two
monoecious plants. Plant X bears bisexual flowers as it contains both stamens and pistil. Plant
Y bears unisexual flowers as it contains either stamens or pistil. X does not need a pollinating
agent whereas pollinating agent is required in case Y.
d. None of these
CASE 4:
The reproductive organs in human beings become functional after attaining sexual maturity.
This age is called puberty. Puberty in males is attained at an age of 13-14 years while in
females, it is attained at an age of 11- 12 years. Changes in the body at puberty, such as increase
in breast size in girls and new facial hair growth in boys, are signs of sexual maturation. The
primary sex organs – the testis in the males and the ovaries in the females – produce gametes,
i.e, sperms and ovum, respectively, by the process called gametogenesis. The male sex
accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens. Sertoli cells
provide nutrition to the developing spermatozoa. The testes are situated outside the abdominal
cavity within a pouch called scrotum. The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature
of the testes (2–2.5°C lower than the normal internal body temperature) necessary for
spermatogenesis.
a. Fallopian tube
b. Vasa efferentia
c. Epididymis
d. Vas deferens
SOLUTIONS
(d) Variations are not responsible for maintenance of body design features. These are
maintained by consistency of DNA copying during reproduction.
(d) Bryophyllum reproduces by the buds present in their notches along the leaf margin which
falls on the soil and develops into new plants.
(b) The testes are the site of production of male gametes called sperms. Testes is situated in
the sac like structure called the scrotum because the sperm formation require a lower
temperature than the normal body temperature. Thus, it helps in sperms formation.
(c) Condom acts as a physical barrier during intercourse and protects a person from acquiring
any sexually transmitted disease.
(ac) Amoeba, Spirogyra and yeast undergoes asexual reproduction. It is one of the type of
reproduction in which progeny is obtained from the single parent.
(c) Along the path of vas deferens, glands like the prostate and the seminal vesicles add their
secretions so that the transport of sperms become easier and this fluid also provides nutrition.
(c) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac and placenta are associated with the gynoecium.
(c) Stock is the portion on which grafting is done and it provides the roots.
(c) In a flower, the parts that produce male and female gametes are anther and ovary
respectively.
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(c) The fertilized egg or zygote get implanted in the uterus after the process of fertilization.
(c) Vegetatively reproduced organisms show genetic similarity in offsprings. This genetic
similarity is because the offsprings are produced from a single parent.
(c) Characters that are transmitted from parents to offspring shows both similarities and
variation. They show similarity because half of the chromosome comes from father and half
from the mother. They show variation because of genetic recombination, mutation and
natural selection.
(d) In Planaria, each body piece can develop into a new organism through regeneration.
(a) The fusion of male gamete with female gamete to form a zygote during sexual
reproduction is called fertilisation. Fission, tissue culture (micropropagation) and
fragmentation are the asexual modes of reproduction.
(c) Cracking of voice in males is associated with the male hormone testosterone, which is
produced during adolescence.
(a) Sexual reproduction is the process in which two individuals of same species produces two
different gametes, i.e., one male gamete and another female gamete. These gametes undergoes
fusion that 152
results in the formation of zygote which produces new offspring. Because of the contribution
of two parents of the same species, offspring produce more variations.
(b) Menarche, the first occurrence of menstruation, marks the beginning of menstrual cycling
and is considered the start of a woman's reproductive life.
CASE 1:
1.(d) Organism X reproduces by binary fission and organism Y reproduces by budding.
Amoeba, Paramecium and Leishmania are the examples of organisms which reproduce by
binary fission while Yeast, Hydra and Sycon are the examples of budding type of reproduction.
2.(c) Both organism X and Y are asexually reproducing organisms.
3.(c) The mode of reproduction in organisms X and Y is binary fission and budding
respectively.
4.(d) Plasmodium reproduces by multiple fission whereas organism X reproduces by binary
fission. Binary fission is generally seen in unicellular organisms such as Amoeba and
Paramecium.
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CASE 2:
1.(a) Spirogyra is a green-coloured algae commonly found in stagnant fresh water habitats such
as ponds, lakes, etc.
2.(b) The process of asexual reproduction in Spirogyra is known as fragmentation. In this,
Spirogyra breaks up into smaller pieces upon maturation. These pieces or fragments grow into
new individuals.
3.(b) Fragmentation can be observed in many organisms such as cyanobacteria, fungi, many
plants, and also in animals including flatworms, sponges, some annelid worms and sea stars.
4. (b) Fragmentation is an asexual mode of reproduction. Only multicellular organisms
having simple body organization can undergo fragmentation.
CASE 3:
1.(d) Papaya and mustard are both monoecious plants. Mustard and Hibiscus contains both
stamens and pistil therefore it is bisexual. Papaya contains either stamens or pistil
therefore it is unisexual.
2. (d) All the given statements are incorrect.
3. (b) Plant X is a bisexual plant. Removal of anthers or killing the pollen of a flower without
the female reproductive organ is known as emasculation. In bisexual flowers,
emasculation is essential to prevent of self-pollination.
4. (a) The male and female reproductive part of the flower is stamen and pistil respectively.
CASE 4:
1.(b) The puberty age in human females is 11-12 years.
2. (b) The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes (2–2.5°C lower than
the normal internal body temperature) necessary for spermatogenesis.
3. (d) The testis in the males and the ovaries in the female produce gametes, i.e., sperms and
ovum.
4. (a) Fallopian tube is an accessory duct of females.
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3.In his experiments, Mendel crossed tall pea plants with dwarf pea plants. The pea plants
produced in F1 generation were:
a. All of them were tall
b. All of them were of medium height
c. Both tall and dwarf
d. All of them were dwarf
4.Biologists have concluded that Homo sapiens, the present day man evolved in:
a. Indonesia
b. South East Asia
c. Africa
d. West Asia
5.Man has developed the following pair of common vegetables, which of the following pairs
has been developed from wild cabbage?
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a. Dominant plant
b. Mutant plant
c. Hybrid plant
d. Recessive plant
14.What is an allele?
a. An alternative form of a gene that is not located on a specific position on a specific
chromosome.
b. A form of a gene that is located on a chromosome.
c. An alternative form of a gene that is located at a specific position on a specific chromosome.
d. A form of gene that is located on different positions on a chromosome.
15.What is heredity?
a. Transmission of physical characters from one generation to the next.
b. Transmission of sexual and morphological characters from one generation to the next.
c. Transmission of anatomical characters from one generation to the next.
d. Transmission of genetic characters from parents to offspring or one generation to the
next.
16.Which of the following would stop evolution by natural selection from occurring?
a. If a thermonuclear war killed most living organisms and changed the environment
drastically.
b. If humans became extinct because of a disease epidemic.
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c. If all individuals in a population were genetically identical, and there was no genetic
recombination, sexual reproduction, or mutation.
d. If ozone depletion led to increased ultraviolet radiation, which caused many new
mutations.
17.A heterozygous red-eyed female Drosophila mated with a white-eyed male would produce
a. Red-eyed females and white-eyed males in the F1
b. Half red and half white-eyed females as well as males in the F1
c. Half red and half white-eyed females and all white eyed males in the F1
d. White-eyed females and red-eyed males in the Fl
CASE 1:
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The process by which distinction is made between the two sexes, i.e., male and female is called
as sex determination. It is determined with the help of chromosomes called as sex chromosomes
or allosomes which are represented by X and Y chromosomes. Apart from these two other
chromosomes are called autosomes. Humans follow XX- XY mechanism of sex determination.
Human beings have 46 chromosomes, out of which 22 pairs of them are autosomes and 1 pairs
of them are sex chromosomes. Human males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome
while human females have two X chromosomes.
3. What will the possibility of having a girl child; if a couple has six daughters?
a. 20%
b. 50%
c. 90%
d. 100%
CASE 2:
Gregor Mendel, conducted hybridisation experiments on garden peas for seven years (1856-
1863) and proposed the laws of inheritance in living organisms. Mendel investigated
characters in the garden pea plant that were manifested as two opposing traits, e.g., tall or
dwarf plants, yellow or green seeds. He took pea plants with different characteristics – a tall
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plant and a short plant, produced progeny by crossing them, and calculated the percentages
of tall or short progeny. The traits chosen by him are as follows:
1. How many traits were related to flower and pod respectively out of the seven contrasting
characters?
a. 2, 2, 2
b. 2, 1, 2
c. 2, 2, 1
d. 1, 2, 1
2. Out of 7 contrasting pairs, how many color based contrasting traits were studied by
Mendel?
a. 4
b. 7
c. 3
d. 1
CASE 3:
Evolution doesn't follow a straight path. There have been stages in evolution with each stage
having a variety of descendants. Every descendant has again given rise to variety of lineages.
A lot of descendants and their ancestors have eliminated. It will depend upon the natural
selection and environment. Further, even seemingly close relatives of modern day organisms
are actually distant cousins.
CASE 4:
Pea plants can have round seeds or wrinkled seeds. One of the phenotypes is completely
dominant over the other. A farmer decides to pollinate one flower of a pea plant with round
seeds using pollen from plant with wrinkled seeds. The resulting pea pod has all round seeds.
a. A only
b. A and B only
c. A and C only
d. A, B and C
2. Which of the following crosses will give round and wrinkled seeds in same proportion?
a. RR × rr
b. Rr × rr
c. RR × Rr
d. rr × rr
3. Which of the following cross can be used to determine the genotype of a plant with
dominant phenotype?
a. RR × RR
b. Rr × Rr
c. Rr × RR
d. RR × rr
4. On crossing of two heterozygous round seeded plants (Rr), a total of 1000 plants were
obtained in F1generation. What will be the respective number of round and wrinkled seeds
obtained in F1 generation?
a. 750,250
b. 500,500
c. 800,200
d. 950,50
5. The characters which appear in the first filial generation are called
a. Recessive characters
b. Dominant characters
c. Lethal characters
d. Non-mendelian characters
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SOLUTIONS
CASE 1:
1.(b) Human beings have 23 pairs of chromosomes.
2. (c) Human males have X and Y chromosomes
3. (b) The possibility of having a girl or boy child is equal, i.e., 50% as 50% male gametes are Y
type and 50% are X type.
4. (b) The chromosomes responsible for the determination of sex are called sex
chromosomes or allosomes.
CASE 2:
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1.(a) 2 traits were related to flower colour and flower position each and 2 traits were related
to pod.
2. (a) Out of 7 contrasting pairs, 3 were based on colour. These were flower colour, pod colour
and seed colour.
3. (d) All the traits shown in the given figure are correctly placed.
4. (c) The dominant traits selected by Mendel were violet flower colour, green pod colour
and round seed shape.
CASE 3:
1.(b) Evolution doesnot follow a straight path due to progressive and retrogressive evolution.
2. (d) The old species will disappear due to changes in environment natural selection etc.
3. (d) Favourable mutations, natural selection and adaptability to environment changes
helped the present day species to survive.
4. (a) Variations give rise to evolution.
CASE 4:
1.(c) Since the resulting pea pod has all round seeds, pea plant with round seeds is also
homozygous.
2.(b)
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From the above crosses, it is clear that Rr × rr will give round and wrinkled seeds in same
proportion.
3.(d) A testcross is used to determine if the genotype of a plant with the dominant phenotype
is homozygous or heterozygous. In this, a dominant phenotype is crossed with recessive
phenotype.
4. (a) On crossing the two heterozygous round seeded (Rr) plants the phenotypic ratio of 3
(round seeded plant) : 1 (wrinkled seeded plant) is obtained. If plants obtained were 1000,
then the number of round and wrinkled plants will be 750 and 250 respectively.
5.(b) The characters which appear in the first filial generation are called recessive
characters.
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1.Ravi placed an object at a distance of 0.25 m in front of a plane mirror. The distance between
the object and image will be
a. 1.5 m
b. 0.5 m
c. 1 m
d. 0.20 m
3.An object that is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror gets its image at the
same point. The focal length of the mirror is
a. –45 cm
b. 45 cm
c. –15 cm
d. +15 cm
4.For an object that is at a distance of +15 cm and is moved slowly towards the pole of a
convex mirror. The image will get
a. enlarged and real
b. shortened and real
c. enlarge and virtual
d. diminished and virtual
5.A concave mirror of focal length 20 cm forms an image twice the size of object. What will
be the position of the object for the virtual image?
a. 20 cm
b. 30 cm
c. 10 cm
d. At infinity
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6.The nature of the image formed by concave mirror when the object is placed between the
focus (F) and centre of curvature (C) of the mirror observed by us is
a. virtual, inverted and diminished
b. virtual, erect and larger in size
c. virtual, upright and enlarged
d. real, inverted and enlarged
7.If a man’s face is 25 cm in front of concave shaving mirror producing erect image 1.5 times
the size of face, focal length of the mirror would be
a. 75 cm
b. 35 cm
c. 25 cm
d. 60 cm
10.The refractive index of water is 1.33. The speed of light in water will be
a. 1.33 × 108 m/s
b. 1.5 × 108 m/s
c. 2.26 × 108 m/s
d. 2.66 × 108 m/s
11.Large number of thin stripes of black paint are made on the surface of a convex lens of
focal length 20 cm to catch the image of a white horse. The image will be
a. a horse of black stripes
b. a zebra of black stripes
c. a horse of less brightness
d. a zebra of less brightness
12.As object moves closer to convex lens till the object is near the focus, the image formed
by it shifts
a. away from the lens
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13.A magnified real image is formed by a convex lens when the object is at
a. F
b. between F and 2F
c. at the centre of curvature.
d. (a) and (b) both
15.In which of the following, the image of an object placed at infinity will be highly diminished
and point sized?
a. Concave mirror only
b. Convex mirror only
c. Convex lens only
d. Concave mirror, convex mirror, concave lens and convex lens.
19.A ray of light propagates from an optically denser medium to an optically rarer medium.
CASE 1:
The radius of curvature of a convex mirror of a moving automobile is 2.0 m. A truck is coming
behind and is at a distance of 3.5 m.
CASE 2:
A converging mirror forms a real image of height 4 cm, of an object of height 1 cm placed 20
cm away from the mirror.
SOLUTIONS
3. (c) When object is placed at 2F, the image formed by concave mirror is also at 2F.
So 2F = -30 or F = -15 cm.
4. (d) Convex mirror always form virtual erect and diminished image when the object move
towards the pole, the image get diminished.
6.(d) When the object lies between C and F, the image formed is real, inverted and enlarged.
7.(a) Image formed by a concave shaving mirror, is virtual erect and large size d, and behind
the mirror
8.(d) When the light ray travel from rarer to denser medium, its velocity and wavelength
both decrease as Velocity = frequency × wave length.
9.(c) Refractive index = Speed of light in vacuum /Speed of light in medium
As c > v so, μ > 1.
10.(c) As refractive index μ = c /μ.
11.(c) Complete but less intensity image of the white horse is formed, the light falling on the
curved portion will not react at the image position.
12.(a) As object moves from infinity towards optical centre of the convex lens image is
shifted away from its focal point and towards infinity.
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13.(d) When object is placed at 2F, real inverted and same size image is formed by convex
lens. So, according to question option (a) and (b) both are correct.
14.(c) Positive sign with power and focal length indicates that the given lens is convex.
Also f = 1/p = 1/ 4 = 0.25m
15.(d) When the parallel beam of light incident on a mirror or lens, irrespective of their
nature, after reflection/refraction, will pass or appear to pass through their principal focus.
Hence highly diminished and point size image will be formed at their focus.
16.(b) Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond is due to the refraction of
light, not due to total internal reflection.
17.(d) Stars twinkle in the night because the refractive index of air in the atmosphere
fluctuates.
18.(a) Absolute refractive index of a medium = speed of light in vaccum/speed of light in
that medium.
19.(d) A ray of light traveling from optically denser to the optically rarer medium will bend
away from the normal.
20.(d) Different constituents of white light have different wavelengths. So, they travel with
different speeds after refraction.
CASE 1:
1.(c) Given Radius of curvature, R = 2.0 m
From mirror formula We have
2.(b)
3. (a) Magnification = -v/u = -0.78/(-3.5) = 0.22
i.e., 22% of the size of the object.
CASE 2:
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1.The deflection of light by minute particles and molecules of the atmosphere in all direction
is known as.
a. Interference
b. Scattering
c. Dispersion
d. Refraction
2.The defective eye of a person has near point 0.5 m and far point 3 m. The power of
corrective lens required for
(i) seeing distant objects
(ii) reading purpose and
a. 0.2 D and +3D respectively
b. +2D and – 1D 3 respectively
c. – 2D and + 1D 3 respectively
d. 0.2 D and –3.0 D respectively
4.Refraction of light by the earth’s atmosphere due to variation in air density is called
a. Atmospheric refraction
b. Dispersion
c. Scattering
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d. Atmospheric reflection
7.A person is able to see distant object distinctly but cannot see nearby objects clearly this
defect of vision is called
a. Hypermetropia
b. Far-sightedness
c. Long-sightedness
d. All of the above
8.When white light enters a prism, it gets split into its constituent colours after entering a
prism. This is due to
a. Each colours has same velocity in the prism.
b. Different refractive index for different wavelength of each colour
c. Prism material have high density.
d. Scattering of light
9.A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by
using a lens of power
a. +0.9 D
b. –0.2 D
c. +0.2 D
d. –0.5 D
10.The ability of eye lens to adjust its focal length to form a sharp image of the object at
varying distances on the retina is called
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11.The black opening between the aqueous humour and the lens is called
a. Ciliary muscles
b. Iris
c. Cornea
d. Pupil
12.The layer of air of atmosphere whose temperature is less then the hot layer behave as
optically
a. Rarer medium
b. Denser medium
c. Inactive medium
d. Either denser or rarer medium
16.The far point of a myopic person is 40 cm. To see the distant object clearly, the focal length
and the power of the lens used should be:
a. –40 cm, –2.5 D
b. –25 cm, –4.0 D
c. +40 cm, +2.5 D
d. –40 cm, +2.5 D
18.If a person can see an object clearly when it is placed at 25 cm away from him but not
distant objects he is suffering from:
a. Myopia
b. Hyper meteropia
c. Asitgmatism
d. None of these
CASE 1:
The stars shine in the night sky due to their own light. When we look at a star in the sky on a
clear night, we observe that the intensity of light coming from it changes continuously.
2. When the atmosphere refracts less starlight towards us, then the star appears to be
a. Dim
b. Bright
c. No change
d. None of these
CASE 2:
Suppose a person is suffering from hypermetropia. The near point of the person is 1.5 m. The
near point of the normal eye is 25 cm.
c. 1.1 D
d. 4.4 D
SOLUTIONS
3.(c) Violet and blue colour have shorter wavelength. So, they are scattered more than lights
of other colour by the molecules present in the atmosphere.
4. (a) This phenomena is called atmospheric refraction.
5.(a) Iris is the muscular diaphragm that control the size of pupil.
6. (c) Objects are not visible through the fog because droplets scatter the light rays.
7.(d) Hypermetropia is also called long-sightedness or far-sightedness.
8. (b) Dispersion takes place because refractive index of the material of prism is different for
different wavelength.
9.(d) Person cannot see distant objects clearly. So he is suffering from myopia. The defect is
corrected by using concave lens of power
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10.(b) The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called power of accommodation
of the eye.
11.(d) The black opening between the aqueous humour and the eye lens is called pupil.
12. (b) The cold air layer of the atmosphere acts as a optically denser medium than hot air
as the molecules are closely packed together in cold air.
13.(a) Hypermetropia is also known as far sightedness because the person is able to see
clearly the distant objects, but not nearby objects.
14.(d) A person is not able to see near by object as the focal length of the eye lens is too
large or the eye ball has shrunk. The image is formed behind the retina and the person faces
difficulty in seeing the near objects clearly.
15.(c) Presbyopia is a condition in which a person is suffering from both myopia and
hypermetropia. It can be corrected by using bifocal lenses in which upper portion is a
concave lens and the lower portion is a convex lens.
16.(a) Given far point of myopic person is 40 cm. Focal length of lens to be used must be equal
to distance of far point.
So, f = –40 cm
(As myopic person needs concave lens so f negative)
17.(d) Iris contracts the pupil in bright light so as to allow less light to enter.
18.(a) Myopia or short shightedness is the defect of eye where person is not able to see far
off objects and see near by objects clearly.
19.(b) Twinkling of star is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight caused due to the
gradual change in refractive index of different air layers at different height, the apparent
position of star keeps on changing.
20.(a) At noon, the sun is at the top and the light rays coming from the sun have to travel
less distance therefore, all colours get scattered very less.
CASE 1:
1.(a) The planets are much closer to the earth and thus can be considered as the extended
source of light. So, fluctuation in the light coming from various points of the planet gets
averaged out due to atmospheric refraction.
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2. (a) When the atmosphere refracts less starlight, then the star appears to be dim and
when the atmosphere refracts more star light towards us, the star appears to be bright.
CASE 2:
1.(b) Given, near point (d) = 150 cm
D = 25 cm
v = –150 cm
u = –25 cm
ELECTRICITY
1.A fuse wire frequently gets burnt when used with a good heater. It is advised to use a fuse wire of
a. more length
b. less length
c. less radius
d. more radius
2. A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volt and a fan of 1000 W, 200 volt are to be used from a household supply.
The rating of fuse to be used is
a. 2.5 A
b. 5.0 A
c. 7.5 A
d. 12.5 A
3. A device records that 4000 joule of work is required to transfer 10 coulomb of charge between two
points of a resistor of 40 Ω. The current passing through it is
a. 2 A
b. 4 A
c. 10 A
d. 16 A
4.To obtain 2 Ωresistance using only 6 Ωresistors, the number of them required is
a. 5
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
5.A wire of length l and uniform area of cross-section A has resistance R. Another wire of same material
of length 2l has resistance R. The area of cross-section of this wire will be
a. 3A
b. 3A/2
c. 2A
d. A/2
6.Two resistors joined in series gives net resistance of 10 Ω. When connected in parallel, gives 2.4 Ω.
Then the individual resistances are
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a. each of 5 Ω
b. 6 Ωand 4 Ω
c. 9 Ωand 1 Ω
d. 8 Ωand 2 Ω
7. If R1 and R2 be the resistance of the filament of 40 W and 60 W respectively operating at 220 V, then
a. R1 ≥ R2
b. R2 < R1
c. R1 = R2
d. R1 < R2
8.A wire of length l, made of material of resistivity ρ is cut into two equal parts. The resistivity of the
two divided parts are equal to,
a. ρ/2
b. ρ/3
c. ρ
d. 2 ρ
9.A battery of 15 volt carries 200 C of charge through a resistance of 20 Ω. The work done in
10 seconds is
a. 300 joule
b. 30 joule
c. 3000 joule
d. 3 joule
10.In an electrical circuit two resistors of 2 Ωand 4 Ωrespectively are connected in series to a 6 V
battery. The heat dissipated by the 2 Ωresistor in 5 s will be
a. 5 J
b. 10 J
c. 20 J
d. 30 J
11.An electric bulb is connected to a 220V generator. The current is 0.50 A. What is the power of the
bulb?
a. 220 W
b. 110 W
c. 55 W
d. 0.0023 W
12.Two resistances are connected between two points say A and B in parallel. The physical quantity
that will remain the same between the two points is
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Resistance
d. None of these
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13.If the current I through a resistor is increased by 100 % (assume that temperature remains
unchanged), the increase in power dissipated will be
a. 100%
b. 200%
c. 300 %
d. 350 %
15.A wire P is half the diameter and half the length of a wire Q of similar material. The ratio of resistance
of P to that of Q is
a. 8: 1
b. 4: 1
c. 2: 1
d. 1: 1
17.Power produced due to flow of current through a conductor is given by the formula
a. P = I2 R
b. P = V I
c. P = V2/R
d. All of the above
CASE 1:
Students performed two experiments. In Experiment 1, they investigated the resistance of a
small resistor device. In Experiment 2, they investigated the resistance of a small lightbulb. In
Experiment 1, the students measured current through the resistor at various voltage values
between 0 and 20 V. In Experiment 2, the student measured current through the lightbulb at
about 10 voltage values between 0 and 20 V. Figures below show the circuit diagrams for both
the experiments. The lines connecting the various devices represent wires whose resistance
is negligible.
ExpHub 9th & 10th – an initiative by your Prashant Bhaiya
1. Find the resistance of the resistor device according to the results obtained in the
experiments.
c. The lightbulb obeyed Ohm's law, but the resistor device did not.
d. The resistor device obeyed Ohm's law, but the lightbulb did not.
CASE 2:
Three glowing bulbs of 100 W each are connected in series in an electric circuit. In another
circuit another set of three bulbs of the same wattage are connected in parallel to the same
source.
1. Which of the following statement is true for the bulbs in two circuits?
a. Brightness of the bulbs in both circuits can not be compared.
b. Bulbs in series combination will glow more brightly.
c. Bulbs in both circuits glow with the same brightness.
d. Bulbs in parallel combination will glow more brightly.
2. If one of the bulb in both the circuit get fused then
a. The rest of the bulbs in circuit (i) will continue to glow and in circuit (ii) will stop working.
b. The rest of the bulbs in circuits (i) and circuit (ii) will stop working.
c. The rest of the bulbs in circuits (i) and (ii) will continue to glow.
d. The rest of the bulbs in circuit (i) will stop working and in circuit (ii) will continue to glow.
CASE 3:
A hall has two tube lights, a fan and a TV. Each tube light draws 40 W, the fan draws 80 W,
and the TV draws 60 W on the average, the tube lights are kept on for five hours, the fan for
twelve hours and the TV for eight hours every day. The rate for electrical energy is Rs 3.10 per
KW h.
ExpHub 9th & 10th – an initiative by your Prashant Bhaiya
SOLUTIONS
1.(d) In order to get the working of heater properly, fused wire of higher rating must be used.
2.(d) Total power used, P = P1 + P1 = 1500 + 1000 = 2500 W.
Current drawn from the supply,
6.(b) In series, Rs = R1 + R2 = 10 Ω
14.(c) The resistivity does not change if the shape of resistor is changed because nature of
material will remain same.
15.(c)
ExpHub 9th & 10th – an initiative by your Prashant Bhaiya
16.(d) Electric potential difference between two points on a current carrying conductor is
defined as the work done to move a unit charge from one point to the other.
17.(d) The amount of power generated P = VI = V2/R = I2/R
18.(b) The voltage across each resistor in a parallel combination is equal and is also equal to
the voltage across the whole combination. Total current is the sum of currents flowing in the
individual resistors.
19. (c) Alloys are generally used in electrical heating devices because resistivity of an alloy is
generally higher than that of constituent elements. Alloys do not oxidize readily at high
temperature.
20.(d) In house electrical circuits the fuse wire for safety should be of high resistance and low
melting point.
CASE 1:
1.As resistance R = V/I, V= 8 V, I= 0.25 mA
2. In the domestic circuit the voltage is kept constant, As, P = VI, if V is constant, I increases as
P increases. Also for large I, R must be smaller.
3. (d) Graph for experiment 1 is linear but for experiment 2 it is non- linear.
4. (b) As V increases the slope of the graph decreases.
CASE 2:
1.(d) The resistance of the series combination of bulbs will be much higher than that of the
parallel combination hence, the bulbs in the parallel combination will glow more brightly.
2. (d) When one of the bulbs in the series combination gets fused, the circuit gets broken
and no current will flow through the circuit. Hence no bulb will glow. In the parallel
combination, when one of the bulbs get fused, the other will continue to glow with equal
brightness because each bulb is under the same voltage and draw current independently.
CASE 3:
ExpHub 9th & 10th – an initiative by your Prashant Bhaiya
4.The pattern of the magnetic field produced by the straight current carrying conducting wire
is
a. In a direction opposite to the direction of current
b. In a direction parallel to the current carrying wire
c. Circular around the wire
d. In the direction of current flowing through the wire
6. A soft iron rod is inserted inside a current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the
solenoid
a. Will decrease
b. Will remains same
c. Will increase
d. Will become zero
7. What indicates the relative strength of magnetic field at a point in the space surrounding a
magnet?
a. Length of the magnet
b. Thickness of the magnet
c. Degree of closeness of the magnetic field lines.
d. Resistance offered by the surroundings
d. Potential difference
13.Flow of current in a long straight solenoid creates N-pole and S-pole at the two ends.
Among the following statements, the incorrect statement is
a. The magnetic field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines which indicates
that the magnetic field is the same at all points inside the solenoid.
b. The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece
of magnetic material like soft iron, when placed inside the solenoid.
c. The pattern of the magnetic field lines around a solenoid is different from the pattern of
the magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
d. The N-pole and S-pole are exchanged when the direction of current through the solenoid
is reversed.
16. The magnetic field line passing through the centre of a circular loop carrying current is
a. Circular
b. Elliptical
c. Parabolic
d. Straight line
20.At every point near a current carrying circular loop, the concentric circles representing the
magnetic fields lines would become
a. Larger and larger as we move away from the wire
b. So large at the centre of circular loop that they look like straight lines
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
CASE 1:
The strength of the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying circular coil (or circular
wire) depends on (i) Amount of current flowing through the coil. (ii) Radius of the circular coil.
(iii) Number of turns in the circular coil.
1. What type of curve we get, between magnetic field and distance along the axis of a current
carrying circular coil?
a. Straight line
b. Circular
c. Parabolic
d. None of these
2. A long horizontal power line is carrying a current of 100 A in the east-west direction. The
direction of magnetic field at a point 1.0 m below it is
a. south to north
b. north to south
c. east to west
d. west to east
3. If a current carrying straight conductor is placed in east-west direction, then the direction
of the force experienced by the conductor due to earth's magnetic field is
a. downward
b. upward
c. east-west
d. west-east
CASE 2:
An electric fuse is a safety device that prevents overloading of any electrical circuit. A fuse is
always connected in the live wire and in series with the electrical circuit. Fuse wire is made
from low-melting alloy of copper and tin. In urban areas, the conventional cut-out type fuses
are being replaced by MCB. The maximum current which can be passed through a fuse
without melting it is called its rating.
c. 16 A
d. 18 A
SOLUTIONS
4. (c) Magnetic field line around a current carrying straight conductor is represented by
concentric
circles.
5. (d) both (a) and (b) can be used to determine the polarity of solenoid.
6. (c) Soft iron inside the current carrying solenoid act as an electromagnet.
7. (c)
8. (b) Electric motor employs Fleming left hand rule whereas for generator. Fleming right-
hand rule is used.
13. (c) A solenoid behaves like a bar magnet. Hence the pattern of magnetic field associated
with solenoid and around the bar magnet is same.
14. (c) Using electromagnet, the magnetic field strength can be further increased by
increasing the current. Hence it will enhance the power.
15. (b)
16. (d) magnetic field line at the centre of current carrying loop appears as a straight line.
17. (a) To convert AC generator into DC generator, split ring type commutation must be used
to get a unidirectional direct current.
18. (b) Magnetic field inside the magnet moves from south to north pole.
20. (c) The concentric circles representing the magnetic field lines become larger and larger.
CASE 1:
1. (d) At smaller distances, the magnetic field will be described by concentric circles around
the wire. As the distance increases, the circles become larger and larger. At the centre of the
loop/coil, the magnetic field will appear as straight line.
2. (b) The current flows in the east-west direction. From right hand thumb rule, we get the
direction of magnetic field as from north to south. The direction of magnetic field will be same
at every point below the power line.
3. (a) The force will act in downward direction perpendicular to both, the direction of current
as well as to the field.
CASE 2:
1. (a) If current higher than 14 A flows through the fuse, it would melt and the circuit gets
broken.
2. (b)
3. (d) Copper wire cannot be used because, it has very high melting point and very low
resistance.