Sci Booklet Exhub Class 9

1 ExpHub 9th & 10th – an initiative by your Prashant Bhaiya
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It consists of:
1. 20 Best most expected MCQ

for each chapter. ub
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2. Competency based questions
according to latest pattern.
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3. Assertion and Reason Based

Questions
CONTENTS
1. CHEMICAL REACTIONS
2. ACID BASE AND SALTS
3. METALS AND NON-METALS
4. CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
5. LIFE PROCESSES ub
6. CONTROL AND COORDINATION
7. HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE
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8. HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION

9. LIGHT REFECTION AND REFRACTION
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10. THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLORFUL WORLD

11. ELECTRICITY
12. MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
CHEMICAL REACTIONS
MOST EXPECTED MCQ QUESTIONS
1. Silver jewellery becomes black on prolonged exposure to air, it is due to the

formation of
a. Ag2S and Ag3N
b. Ag3N
c. Ag2S
d. Ag2O + Ag2S ub
2. An element X that is on exposing to moist air turns reddish brown and new
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substance 'Y' is formed. The substance 'X' and 'Y' are
a. X = Fe; Y = Fe2O3
b. X = Ag2S; Y = Ag
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c. X = Zn; Y = ZnO
d. X = Mn; Y = Mn2O3
3. Identify the type of reaction taking place in Fe + CuSO4 → Cu + FeSO4

a. Redox reaction
b. Displacement reaction
c. Acid-base reaction
d. Both (a) and (b)
4. When crystals of lead nitrate are heated strongly in a dry test tube then
which of the following change is observed?
a. Crystals immediately melt
b. White fumes will appear in the test tube
c. A brown residue is left
d. A yellow residue is left
5. Which of the following compound is known as freon?

a. CCl2F2
b. CHCl3
c. CF4
d. CH2F2
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6. Zinc reacts with silver nitrate to form which compounds?
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a. ZnNO3 + Ag
b. AgNO3 + Zn(NO3)2
c. Zn(NO3)2 + Ag
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d. No reaction
7. A substance ‘X’ is used in white-washing and is obtained by heating

limestone in the absence of air. Identify ‘X’.
a. Ca(OH)2
b. CaOCl2
c. CaO
d. CaCO3
8. What happens when copper rod is dipped in iron sulphate solution?

a. Reaction is endothermic
b. Blue colour of copper sulphate solution is obtained
c. No reaction takes place
d. Reaction is exothermic
9. AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3 (aq). This reaction is

a. Precipitation reaction
b. Double displacement reaction
c. Displacement reaction
d. (a) and (b) Both
10. What happens when ferrous sulphate crystals are heated?

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a. A gas having the smell of burning sulphur is evolved
b. No reaction
c. Colourless and odourless gas is evolved
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d. Brown coloured gas is evolved
11. Chemically the 'water gas' is

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a. H2O (gaseous)
b. CO2 + H2 + N2
c. CH4
d. CO + H2
12. A neutralization reaction is a

a. Displacement reaction
b. Double displacement reaction
c. Addition reaction
d. Decomposition reaction
13. Two test tubes ‘A’ and ‘B’ contain aqueous solution of potassium iodide
and lead nitrate separately. When these two test-tubes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are mixed to
each other, results into ‘X’ and ‘Y’. The ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are:
a. Yellow ppt, yellow solution
b. Yellow ppt, colourless solution
c. White ppt, black solution
d. Black ppt, colourless solution
14. A substance X reacts with another substance Y to produce the product Z

and a gas D. If a mixture of the gas D and ammonia is passed through an
aqueous solution of Z, baking soda is formed. The Substance X and Y are
a. HCl and NaOH
b. Na and NH4Cl
c. HCl and Na2CO3
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d. Na2CO3 and NaHCO3
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15. When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper
sulphate, a black ppt. of copper sulphide is obtained and the sulphuric acid
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that is formed remains in the solution. The reaction is an example of

a. An addition reaction
b. A redox reaction
c. A decomposition reaction
d. A double decomposition reaction
16. Name the products formed when iron filings are heated with dilute
hydrochloric acid
a. Fe (III) chloride and water
b. Fe (II) chloride and water
c. Fe (II) chloride and hydrogen gas
d. Fe (III) chloride and hydrogen gas
17. MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2. Identify the oxidising agent:
a. MnO2
b. HCl
c. MnCl2
d. Ag + Zn(NO3)3
18. The element 'A' reacting with chlorine forms a compound that is water
soluble and having high melting point. Element 'A' is
a. Mg
b. Ne
c. CO2
d. He ub
19. Consider the following statements:
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(i) Oxidation is process in which loss of electrons from a substance take place
(ii) Reduction is process in which electron is gained by the substance.
(iii) The formation of Na+Cl– by the action of sodium and chlorine is an
example of a redox reaction.
Ex
Which of these statements(s) is/are correct?

a. (i) and (ii)
b. (i) and (iii)
c. (ii) only (iii)
d. All are correct
20. Which of these statements(s) is/are correct?

(i) Rusting is a process in which double decomposition reaction take place.
(ii) Silver salt are usually sensitive to light.
a. (i) only
b. (ii) only
c. Both (i) and (ii)
d. Neither (i) nor (ii)
CASE BASED ( Competency Based Questions )
CASE 1:
In redox reaction, oxidation and reduction always occur simultaneously. So,
every redox reaction contain two half reactions. One half reaction shows
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oxidation and other half reaction shows the reduction. Oxidation and
reduction of an atom, molecule or ion is defined in terms of electrons transfer
between two species. The substance that gains electrons, is reduced to a lower
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oxidation state and will act as an oxidising agent. Similarly, the substance
which loses electrons is oxidisied to a higher oxidation state, and is also known
as a reducing agent.
Ex
1. In which of the following reactions hydrogen peroxide will act as a reducing

agent?
a. 2FeCl2 + 2HCl + H2O2 → 2FeCl3 + 2H2O
b. Cl2 + H2O2 → 2HCl + O2
c. H2SO3 + H2O2 → H2SO4 + H2O
d. 2HI + H2O2 → 2H2O + I2
2. The following reaction: H2S + H2O2 → S + 2H2O will represent which type
of nature of H2O2.
a. Oxidising nature of H2O2

b. Reducing nature of H2O2
c. Alkaline nature of H2O2
d. Acidic nature of H2O2
3. In presence of acidic medium Mn7+ changes to Mn2+, it is

a. Oxidation by 3 electrons
b. Reduction by 5 electrons
c. Oxidation by 4 electrons
d. Reduction by 7 electrons.
CASE 2:
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Combination reactions has greater number of application in the manufacturing
of some industrial based important compounds such as
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a. Ammonia (NH3) is produced by Haber’s process for industrial use.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

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Industrial preparation of nitric acid by ostwald’s process
b. 4NO2(g) + O2(g) + 2H2O(l) → 4HNO3(aq)

Similarly contact process is used for industrial preparation of sulphuric acid
that involves following steps of combination reaction
(i) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

(ii) H2SO4(l) + SO3(g) → H2S2O7(l)
(iii) H2S2O7(l) + H2O(l) → 2H2SO4(l)
(conc)
c. Manufacturing of ethanol is usually done by acid catalysed hydration of
ethylene.
C2H4(g) + H2O(g) → CH3CH2OH(l)

1. Which of the given process involves only combination reaction of elements?

a. Ostwald process
b. Haber’s process
c. Contact process
d. Manufacture of C2H5OH
2. Which of the given process will involve the combination reaction of

compound
with elements?
a. Manufacture of C2H5OH
c. Contact process
d. Ostwald process
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3. Which of the given process will involve combination reaction of compounds
only?
a. Contact process
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c. Manufacture of C2H5OH
d. Ostwald process
CASE 3:
Following sequence of reaction is given
X + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + Y + H2O
↓Ca(OH)2
(Milky precipitate)
Answer the following questions on the basis of above reaction sequence
1.Write the chemical formula of X.

a. Na2CO3
b. NaOH
c. NaHCO3
d. NaCl
2.Write the name of product Y

a. Sodium carbonate
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Hydrogen
d. Hydrogen peroxide
3. Write the chemical name of Z.

a. Sodium chloride
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b. Calcium hydroxide
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c. Calcium carbonate
d. Sodium carbonate
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Assertion and Reason Type Questions

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of
reason. Mark the correct choice.
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A:
b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
1. Assertion: Stannous chloride give grey precipitate with mercuric chloride, but stannic
chloride does not do so.
Reason: Stannous chloride is a powerful oxidising agent which oxidises mercuric chloride to
mercury.
2. Assertion: Corrosion of iron is called as rusting.

Reason: Corrosion of iron occurs in presence of air and water.
3. Assertion: In the given reaction, Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s) Zn acts as a

reductant but itself gets oxidised.
Reason: In a redox reaction, oxidant gets reduced by accepting electrons and reductant gets
oxidized by losing electrons.
4. Assertion: Quicklime reacts vigorously with H2O and release a large amount of heat.
Reason: The above chemical reaction is an example of an exothermic reaction.
5. Assertion: Photosynthesis is considered as an example of an endothermic reaction.
Reason: In the process of photosynthesis, energ y gets released.
6. Assertion: When CO2 gas is passed through lime water, a white precipitate is formed
initially. Reason: White preciptate formed is of CaCO3 which is formed during the reaction.
SOLUTIONS
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Multiple Choice Questions
1.(b) Silver react with H2S in air to form silver sulphide 2Ag + H2S → Ag2S + H2.
2.(a) Fe + H2O + O2 → Fe2O3.xH2O

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3.(d) Displacement reactions are redox in nature.
4.(d) Pungent smelling, brown fumes are evolved due to formation of NO2 gas and yellow
coloured residue of lead oxide (PbO) is left.
2Pb(NO3)2(s) Δ→ 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)(1)
Yellow
5.(a)Chloro-fluoro carbons (CFCs) are called freons.
6.(c) Zinc nitrate is formed in the reaction Zn + 2AgNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + 2Ag
7.(c)
8.(c) As iron is placed above copper in reactivity series. So Cu will not displace Fe from its
solution.
9.(d) This reaction is double displacement and precipitation as well because insoluble silver
chloride AgCl gets precipitated out.
10.(a) The green colour of ferrous sulphate crystals converts into brownish black ferric oxide
and smell of burning sulphur is evolved due to SO2 and SO3.
2FeSO4(s) heating→ Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + SO3(g)
11.(d) Water gas → CO + H2
12.(b) A neutralization reaction is also known double displacement reaction. In this two
reactants mutual exchange their ions to give two new products. For example
2HCl(aq) + BaSO4(aq) → BaCl2(aq) + H2SO4
13.(b)
14.(c)
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15.(d) CuSO4 + H2S → CuS + H2SO4 is an example of double decomposition type of

reaction.
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16.(c)
17. (a) MnO2 is oxidising agent because it is removing hydrogen from HCl to form Cl 2.
18.(a) MgCl2 is ionic compound (ionic compound will have high melting and boiling point).
19. (d) All the statements given are correct.
20. (b) Rusting of iron is an example of oxidation reaction.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS
CASE 1:
1.(b) H2O2 is oxidised to O2, hence acts as a reducing agent.
2.(a) H2O2 is reduced to H2O and oxidises H2S to S. Hence, it is acts as an oxidising agent.
3.(b) Mn7+ changes to Mn2+ by gaining 5 electrons (reduction).
CASE 2:
1.(b) Haber’s process is used for the manufacturing of ammonia that involves combination
of elements nitrogen and Hydrogen.
i.e. NO2, H2O with element oxygen.

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2.(d) Ostwald’s process of manufacturing of HNO 3. It involves combination of compounds
3.(c) Combination of ethylene and water produces ethyl alcohol

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CASE 3:
1.(a)Na2CO3-sodium carbonate
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2.(b) Carbon dioxide-Y
3.(c) Calcium carbonate
Assertion & Reason Type Questions

1. (c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. Sn4+ is more stable than Sn2+. Therefore,
Sn2+ gets oxidised to Sn4+ by losing 2 electrons when it reacts with mercuric chloride, i.e.,
SnCl 2 act as an reducing agent.
Hg 2 Cl 2 + SnCl 2 → 2Hg + SnCl 4 (grey ppt)
2. (b) The correct reason for given assertion is that corrosion occurs due to oxidation of iron.
3. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
4. (a) As, heat is released along with the formation of products in exothermic reactions.
5. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. Photosynthesis process is known as an

endothermic reaction as energy in the form of sunlight is absorbed by the green plants.
6. (a) Reason is the correct explanation of assertion. Lime water contains small amount of
calcium hydroxide dissolved in it. It reacts with CO2 gas to form a white precipitate of
calcium carbonate.
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ACID, BASES AND SALTS
1. The acid that is used in flavoured drinks is:

a. Boric acid
b. Carbonic acid
c. Oxalic acid
d. Acetic acid
a. Available Cl2
b. Lime present in it
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2. Bleaching powder is soluble in cold water giving a milky solution because of
c. Formation of calcium carbonate

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d. The absorption of CO 2 from atmosphere
3. Which of the following compounds is neutral to litmus?

a. NaNO3
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b. CuSO4.5H2O
c. Mg(OH)2
d. NaHCO3
4.Which of the following is considered as a strong base?

a. Ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH)
b. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
c. Water (H2O)
d. Nitric acid (HNO3)
5. The metal oxides that will show both acidic and basic characters?
a. K2O
b. Na2O
c. CuO
d. Al2O3
6. The acidic soil that is not good for health of growing plants, is neutralized by
a. Magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)2)
b. Calcium oxide (CaO)
c. Sodium chloride (NaCl)
d. Ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH)
7.The reaction of vinegar with baking soda will release which gas
a. Hydrogen
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Nitrogen dioxide
8.What is product formed when zinc metals granules reacts with sodium hydroxide?
a. Sodium zincate and carbon dioxide
b. Sodium zincate and hydrogen gas
c. Zinc hydroxide and sodium
d. Sodium zinc-oxide and hydrogen gas
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9.NaOH is obtained by the electrolysis of
a. Aq. solution of NaCl
b. Aq. Na2CO3 + CaCl2(aq)
c. Aq. NaHCO3
d. Molten NaCl
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10.Arrhenius acid gives

a. H+ in water
b. OH– in water
c. Both of the above
d. None of these
11. When copper oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid react, the colour changes to which of the
following colour?
a. Black
b. Bluish-green
c. White
d. Yellow
12. When HCl gas is prepared on a humid day, the gas is generally passed through the guard
tube containing CaCl2. The role of CaCl2 taken in the guard tube is to
a. Absorb Cl– ions from the evolved gas

b. Absorb the gas
c. Absorb moisture from the gas
d. Absorb the evolved gas
13. If the [OH–] = 3 × 10–14 M, then the resulting solution is

a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
d. Both (a) and (b)
14. An unknown solution in a test tube was given to a student, when universal indicator
solution is added to test tube, it turned out violet. The unknown solution is:
a. Vinegar solution
b. Iodine solution
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c. Caustic Soda solution
d. Baking soda solution
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15. In cold countries, which of the following compound is usually spread on icy roads for
melting ice?
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a. Sodium bicarbonate
b. Rock salt
c. Sodium carbonate
d. Magnesium hydroxide
16. pH of a 0.001 M NaOH solution is

a. 2
b. 10
c. 3
d. 11
17. Choose the correct oxide from following oxides which when dissolved in water gives a
solution that will turns blue litmus to red?
a. MgO
b. CaO
c. CO2
d. Na2O
18. Which is not correct pair of conjugate acid and base from the following?
a. HNO3 and NO3–
b. NH4+ and NH3
c. H3PO2 and H2PO2–
d. H2SO4 and SO42–
19. CuSO4.K2SO4 is an example

a. An acid salt
b. A mixed salt
c. Basic salt
d. Double salt
20. When HCl (g) is passed through water

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a. It gives both H+ ions and OH– in the solution
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b. It ionises in solution
c. It does not ionise in solution
d. None of the above
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CASE 1:
A solid compound A on heating gives carbon dioxide gas and a solid residue. The residue
when mixed with water forms B. On passing excess of CO 2 through B in water a clear
solution C is obtained.
1.Identify the compound A.
a. CaCO3
b. Na2CO3
c. CaO
d. Ca(OH)2
2. Identify the compound B.
a. CO2
b. CaCO3
c. Ca(OH)2
d. CaCl2
3. Write the formula of the compound C.

a. Ca(HCO3)2
b. Ca(OH)2
c. CaO
d. CaCO3
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CASE 2:
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Ex
1.Name the compound X:

a. Plaster of paris
b. Calcium hydroxide
c. Slaked lime
d. Dead burnt plaster
2. Name the compound Y:

a. Dead burnt plaster
b. Limestone
c. Lime water
d. Plaster of Paris
3. Name the compound Z:

a. Calcium hydroxide
b. Lime
c. Dead burnt plaster.
d. Plaster of Paris
CASE 3:
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Ex
1.The product B is
a. Quick lime
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Sodium carbonate
d. Slaked lime
2. When dihydrated salt of 'C' is heated, the product formed is
a. Washing soda
b. Plaster of Paris
c. Bleaching powder
d. Calcium carbonate
3. Which among the following exists as decahydrate?

a. D
b. B
c. A
d. C
4. Which among the following compounds can be used to prepare bleaching powder?
a. C
b. D
c. B
d. E
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5. Which among the following is used for preparing baking powder?
a. NaHCO3
b. CaCO3
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c. A
d. None of these
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CASE 4:
A compound P of sodium forms a white power and it is constituent of baking powder and is
used in some medicine that is used to treat acidity known as antacids. When heated it gives
a compound Q that is anhydrous in nature and become hydrated salt, when water is
absorbed. This salt when kept open in air, loses water molecule in a process known
efflorescence. When dissolved in water it forms a gives base and a weak acid R.
1.What is formula of Q?
a. NaHCO3
b. Na2CO3
c. NaOH
d. Na2CO3.10H2O
2. What happens when sodium carbonate decahydrate is exposed to air?

a. It loses two molecule of water.
b. It will dissociates to give carbon dioxide.
c. It loses nine molecule of water.
d. It loses ten molecule of water.
3. What is the nature of the solution formed by dissolving Q in water?

a. Alkaline
b. It remains insoluble
c. Neutral
d. Acidic
4. Identify R.
a. CO2
b. H2CO3
c. NaOH
d. NaCl
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

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a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A:
b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
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c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
1. Assertion: Acetic acid will not acts as an acid in benzene solution.
Reason: Benzene will not accept proton.
2. Assertion: Ammonia is a base.
Reason: It does not contain OH– ions.
3. Assertion: Most of factories wastes are considered acidic in nature.
Reason: Usually bases are added to all factory wastes before discharging into the water
bodies
4. Assertion: Methanoic acid is present in Ant's sting.
Reason: The body part where ant bite is treated with dry baking soda.
5. Assertion: Concentrated H2SO4 can be diluted by adding water dropwise to acid.
Reason: Concentrated H2SO4 has a more affinity for water

SOLUTIONS
1.(b) Carbonic acid (H2CO3) is present in aerated and flavoured drinks.
2.(b) Bleaching powder contains lime, that will give a milky solution upon dissolution in
water.
CaOCl2 + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Cl2
3.(a) NaNO3 as it is a salt of strong acid and strong base. So it considered as neutral salt and
has no effect on litmus. Ca(OH)2 is a base CuSO4.5H2O is a salt of weak base and strong acid
while NaHCO3 is a salt of strong base and weak acid so the other three will effects litmus.
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4.(b) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a strong base while ammonium hydroxide (NH 4OH) is a
weak base. Water is neutral in nature, HNO 3 is acidic.
5.(d) Al2O3 is an amphoteric oxide other are basic. Thus (d) is correct option.
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6.(b) Acidic soil is harmful for the plants as the healthy plants cannot grow in it. Thus the
acidic soil is neutralized by adding a base like, calcium oxide (CaO).
7.(c) Vinegar is acetic acid and baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate NaHCO3. When
an acid reacts with a metal carbonate, they produces CO2 gas.
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CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
8.(b) Sodium zincate and H2 are formed in reaction

Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 (Sodium Zincate) + H2
9.(a) Sodium hydroxide is produced by electrolysis. 2NaCl + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2 + Cl2
10.(a) Arrhenius acid gives H+ in the water .

HCl + H2O → H3O+ + Cl–.
11.(b) Blue-green colour of solution is due to the formation of copper (II) chloride.
2HCl + CuO → CuCl2 + H2O
blue green
12.(c) CaCl2 from guard tube will absorb water for HCl gas on humid day.
13.(a) pOH = –log (3 × 10–14) = 13.523

pH = 14 – 13.526 = 0.477
As pH is low so it is acidic solution.
14.(c) The violet color change shows unknown solution is highly alkaline in nature.
15.(b) Rock salt (NaCl) is usually spread on the roads to prevent the water from freezing at
0°C.
16.(d) [OH–] = 0.001 M = 10–3 M

pOH = –log[OH–] = 3
pH + pOH = 14
pH = 14 – 3 = 11
17.(c) MgO, CaO and Na2O all are examples of metal oxide. Metal oxides are basic in nature.
CO2 is a non-metal oxide and it is acidic in nature. So, CO 2 aqueous solution turns blue
litmus to red.
18.(d) The conjugate base of H2SO4 is HSO–4.
19.(d) Double salt is a combination of two normal salts. CuSO 4 & K2SO4 are two normal salt.
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20.(b) It will give H+ ions that combine with water to produce H3O+ ions and Cl– ions.

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CASE 1:
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1.(a)
2.(c)
3.(a)
CASE 2:
1.(a)
2.(a)
3.(b)
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CASE 3:
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1.(b) NaHCO3 when heated it will give Na2CO3 (A), water and CO2 (B).
2.(b) Plaster of Paris is obtained on heating dihydrated salt of 'C'.

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3.(c) Na2CO3 exists as decahydrate i.e., Na2CO3.10H2O (washing soda)
4.(b) Slaked lime, Ca(OH)2 is formed when water is added to compound D. And, bleaching
powder is synthesized by the action of chlorine gas (produced from chlor-alkali process) on
dry slaked lime.
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O
5.(a) Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda (NaHCO 3) and a mild edible acid such as
tartaric acid.
CASE 4:
1.(b)
2.(c) During the efflorescence process Na 2CO3.10H2O loses nine molecules of water to give
sodium carbonate monohydrate.
3.(a)NaOH completely ionises to give a large amount of hydroxide ions whereas H 2CO3
ionises partially to give a less amount of H+ ions. Thus, the solution is overall alkaline in
nature.
4.(b) R is carbonic acid, a weak acid that formed when Na 2CO3 is dissolved in water.
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS ub

1. (a) A substance will acts as an acid only when another substance that is present will act as a base
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means it will accepts a proton. Acetic acid cannot act as an acid in benzene as benzene is not
accepting a proton.
2. (b) Ammonia (NH3) is a considered as base but it does not contain hydroxide OH– ions. It is a base
because it can donate a lone pair of electron (according to Lewis concept). But in aqueous solution,
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it will acts as base, accept H+ from water to form NH4 + and OH–
3. (a) As factory wastes are considered acidic in nature as direct discharge into water bodies will
leads into damage of aquatic life. Thus before discharging of acidic waste it is neutralised with
addition of bases.
4. (c) The body part where ant bite is treated with moist baking soda.
5. (d) Concentrated H2SO4 can be diluted by adding acid dropwise to water. This will minimise effect
of the heat released during the reaction. H2SO4 has strong affinity for water because acid from
hydrates with water.
METALS AND NON-METALS
1.Which of the oxide(s) of iron from the following would be obtained on prolonged reaction
of iron with steam?
a. Fe2O3
b. Fe2O4
c. Fe3O4
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d. FeO
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2. Reaction between B and A forms compound D. B loses electron and A gains electron.
Which
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of the following properties is not shown by compound D?

a. Has low melting point
b. Has high melting point
c. Occurs as solid
d. Conducts electricity in molten state
3. The ores that contain sulphides are converted into oxides by heating strongly in the
presence
of excess air. This process is known as
a. Smelting
b. Roasting
c. Calcination
d. Refining of ore
4. In the following reaction, Al2O3 + NaOH → Z + H2O. What is element Z?

a. NaAl2O3
b. Na3Al
c. Na2O
d. NaAlO2
5. In which of the following pairs of reactants, a displacement reaction will take place?
a. CuSO4 + Fe
b. MgSO4 + Fe
c. ZnSO4 + Fe
d. Ca(SO4)2 + Fe
6. An element P is soft and it can be cut with the help of a sharp object like knife. It is
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considered very reactive to air and cannot be kept open in the air. It reacts vigorously with
water. Identify the element from the following that has the above property:
a. Ca
b. Na
c. Zn
pH
d. Mg
Ex
7. A reaction in which a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its salt
solution is known as an ________ reaction.
a. Combination
b. Displacement
c. Addition
d. Double displacement
8. When zinc granules reacts with H2SO4 (dil.), a salt is formed with the release of a gas. The
gas released during this reaction will puts off a burning candle with a poping sound. The gas
released during this reaction is:
a. hydrogen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. sulphur dioxide
d. hydrogen sulphide
9. Which of the statements that are given is incorrect?

a. carbon is the most malleable metal.

b. bromine is the only liquid non-metal.
c. copper is a good conductor of heat.
d. copper is a good conductor of electricity.
10. Rust is chemically known as

a. hydrated ferrous oxide
b. hydrated ferric oxide
c. ferric oxide
d. ferrous oxide
11. During smelting, an additional substance is added that combines with impurities to form a
fusible product known as
a. Slag
b. Anode mud
c. Flux
d. Gangue
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12. Choose the element that will displace copper from a solution of copper sulphate.
a. Silver
b. Gold
c. Tin
Ex
d. Mercury
13. Which of the non-metals pairs has shining lustrous surfaces?

a. Graphite and phosphorus
b. Graphite and iodine
c. Chlorine and sulphur
d. Iodine and phosphorus
14. A mixture of iron filling and sulphur powder is there, the mixture component will be
separated by
a. Bringing a magnet near mixture.
b. Dissolving the given mixture in Carbon disulphide and then filtering off
c. Heating the mixture and then adding CS2 to black mass
d. Using both method given (a) and (b)
15. Some statements are given below:

(i) Hg and Zn are refined by liquation method.
(ii) The presence of carbon in pig iron makes it very soft and malleable.
Which of given statement(s) is/are true?
a. (i) only
b. (ii) only
c. Both (i) and (ii)
d. Neither (i) nor (ii)
16. Select the incorrect pair from the following of oxides

a. NO - Neutral oxide
b. Cl2O7 - Acidic oxide
c. MgO - Basic Oxide
d. P4O10 - Basic oxide ub

17. Identify the most and least reactive elements on the basis of the given sequence of
pH
reactions.
P + QA → PA + Q ...(1)
P + QB → PB + Q
R + PA → RA + P ...(2)
a. P and R
Ex
b. R and Q
c. R and P
d. P and Q
18. The metal oxide has molecular formula M2 O and the molecular mass of metal oxide is
given as 94 u. The molecular mass of chloride salt of this given metal is
a. 118.5 u
b. 74.5 u
c. 118.0 u
d. 120.0 u
19. Consider the following statements:

(1) An alloy is a mixture of two or more metals
(2) An alloy is a mixture of a metals or metals with a non-metal.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. (1) only
b. (2) only
c. Both (1) and (2)
d. Neither (1) nor (2)
20. MPO4 is the formula of the phosphate salt of a metal. The formula of metal nitrate salt is:
a. MNO 3
b. M(NO 3 )3
c. M2(NO 3) 3
d. M(NO 3) 2

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CASE 1:
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The huge annual loss due to corrosion is a national waste and should be minimized.
Following are some process that are helpful in preventing corrosion.
(1) Galvanisation Iron is blasted with fine sand to make the surface rough dipped in molten
Ex
zinc and then cooled. A thin layer of zinc will form on the iron surface. As zinc is more
reactive than iron so it will act as a sacrificial metal and is preferentially oxidised thus
protecting oxidation of iron.
(2) The iron surface is coated with paint or oil or grease protect moist oxygen from coming in
contact with the metal and thus effectively protects rusting of iron.
(3) Electroplating with metals like tin, nickel or chromium also prevents rusting process.
(4) Alloying (mixing of iron in its molten state with other metals) protects rusting. Stainless
steel is an alloy of iron with constituents like Cr or Ni.
1. The metal platting which is most durable used on iron to protect against corrosion
a. Nickel plating
b. Copper plating
c. Tin plating
d. Zinc plating
2. The most common method that is used to protect the bottom of ship made of iron is:
a. Connecting it with Mg block
b. White tin plating
c. Coating it with red lead oxide
d. Connecting it with Pb block
3. The rusting of iron is best prevented by which of the following method?
a. Making it cathode
b. Putting in saline water
c. Both of these
d. None of these
CASE 2:
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Some of the metals that are chemically very reactive, while others are less reactive. On the
basis of easeness of reactions of different metals with oxygen, water and acids, as well as
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displacement reactions, the metals that have been arranged in series according to their
chemical reactivity is known as activity series of metals. In reactivity series, the most
reactive metal is placed at the top of series while the least reactive metal is placed at the
bottom of series. As we go down in the series, the chemical reactivity of metals decreases.
Ex
As the metals placed at the bottom of the reactivity series like silver a nd gold are less
reactive. Thus they are usually found in native state in nature.
1. When metal A is added to dilute HCl solution, there is no liberation of gas. Metal is:
a. Hg
b. Zn
c. Ag
d. Na
2. CuSO4 solution can be safely kept in a container that is made of:

a. aluminium
b. tin
c. silver
d. zinc
3. Metal that is always found in free state is:

a. gold
b. silver
c. copper
d. potassium
CASE 3:
Most of metals undergo same kind of reactions. The "ease" with which they react is not the
same. Some are more reactive than the others metals. Metals along with hydrogen (a non -
metal) are arranged in order of their reactivity in a series known reactivity series.
ub
pH
Ex
Which of the following metal is considered most reactive?

a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Zinc
d. Magnesium
Which of the following elements can displace Iron from FeSO 4 solution?
a. Zinc
b. Copper
c. Silver
d. All of these
Which of the following metal will produce a colourless solution when added in CuSO4 solution?
a. Magnesium
b. Iron
c. Silver
d. None of these
CASE 4:
Reactive metals like Na and K react with water with liberation of H 2 gas and form
corresponding hydroxides while the metals Mg, Zn, Al and Fe are low in reactivity to react
with cold water but they will only react with steam when red hot form corresponding
oxides.
1. Which of the following metal will form corresponding hydroxide on reaction with water?
a. Mg
b. Na
c. Zn
d. Fe
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pH
2. Which of the following metal do not react with cold water?
a. Na
b. Fe
c. Mg
Ex
d. Ca
3. Which of the following metal react with steam only?

a. Na
b. Mg
c. Al
d. Pt
CASE 5:
An element 'Z' which is non metal is the largest component of air. 'Z' when heated with
Hydrogen gas in the presence of Fe as catalyst in ratio of 1 : 3 produces a gas 'P'. On heating
'Z' with O 2, it produces an oxide 'Q'. If this 'Q' reacts with water in presence of air, it will give
an acid 'S' that will act as a strong oxidising agent.
1. Identify element (Z)

a. N2
b. Cl2
c. S2
d. C2
2. Identify gas 'P'

a. Cl2
b. NH3
c. O2
d. N2
3. Name the compound Q

a. Sulphur dioxide
b. Calcium oxide
c. Carbon monoxide
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d. Nitric oxide
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4. Write formula of compound S
a. HNO3
b. H2SO4
Ex
c. HCl
d. HNO2

a. Both assertion and reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Assertion is false but reason is true.
1. Assertion: Different metals have different reactivities with water and dilute acids.
Reason: Reactivity of a metal will depend upon the position of metal in the reactivity series.
2. Assertion: Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc.
Reason: Zinc is considered more reactive than tin.
3. Assertion: Metals are sonorous.
Reason: They are generally brittle in the solid state; they break into pieces when hit by
hammer.
4. Assertion: Coke and flux are used in smelting.
Reason: The phenomenon in which ore is mixed with suitable flux and coke is heated to
fusion is known as smelting.
5. Assertion: Gold is isolated from other impurities by Arndt forest cyanide process.
Reason: The cyanide which is used here dissolve all possible i mpurities.
SOLUTIONS ub
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1.(c) 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4H2 (g)
2. (a) D is an ionic compound that is formed by metal and non metal. It has a high melting
Ex
point. Ionic compounds are solids, good conductor in the molten state.
3. (b) The process of heating the sulphide ore strongly in the presence of air to convert it
into metal oxide, is known as roasting.
4. (d) Aluminium oxide is considered amphoteric in nature, that is it reacts with acids as well
as bases to
give salt and water.
Here, aluminium oxide (Al2O3) behaves as an acid as it reacts with NaOH (a base) and forms
sodium aluminate (NaAlO 2) and water:
5. (a) According to the reactivity series of metals, iron is more reactive than copper metal
(placed higher in activity series) so it can displace copper from copper sulphate solution
(CuSO4) and form iron (II) sulphate and copper:
6. (b) Na is a metal that is soft so it can be cut with a knife. It is so rea ctive that it reacts
violently with air or moisture and immediately catches fire when kept in open. So to avoid it
from coming in contact with oxygen and moisture, it is kept in kerosene oil.
7. (b) When one metal displaces another metal from its salt solution, this type of reaction is
known as as a displacement reaction.
8.(a) Hydrogen gas is liberated when a metal reacts with an acid. When zinc granule reacts
with dilute sulphuric acid (H2SO4), zinc sulphate (ZnSO4), a salt is formed with the release
of hydrogen gas. When a burning candle is brought near the test tube that contain hydrogen
gas, it puts off the burning candle and produces a poping sound.
The reaction involved is: Zn(s) + H2SO4(l) → ZnSO4(s) + H2(g)
9. (a) Carbon is a non-metal. Gold is the most malleable of all metals.
10.(b) The chemical formula of rust is Fe2O3. xH2O. It is hydrated Ferric Oxide.
11.(a) Flux combines with certain impurities (gangue particles) in order to form a substance
known as slag. This can be easily removed.
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12.(c) Tin (Sn); as it lies above copper in Activity series so it will displace Cu from CuSO4.
13.(b) Graphite that is crystalline form of carbon and iodine are the two non-metals pairs
which has shining lustrous surfaces.
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14.(d) Mixture of iron filling and sulphur powder will be separated either by bringing a
magnet near to mixture (Fe filling attracted to magnet) or dissolving the mixture in CS2,
sulphur is soluble in CS2, on filtration iron gets filtered off.
Ex
15.(d) Hg and Zn are refined by distillation method. Presence of carbon in pig iron will make
it harder.
16.(d) Non-metals oxides are considered acidic in nature. P4O10 is acidic oxide.
17.(b) ‘R’ is the most reactive element and Q is the least reactive element. R easily displaces
P from its salt, while P easily displaces Q from its salt.
18.(b) M2O = 94 2M + 16 = 94 M = 39, Cl = 35.5 Thus, metal is K (potassium).
19.(c) Alloy is mixture of metals or with non metals.
20.(b) In MPO4 the oxidation state of M is +3. M(NO3)3 is formula of metal nitrate salt.

CASE 1:
1. (d) Zinc has higher oxidation potential than Ni, Cu and Sn. The process of coating of iron
surface with zinc is called as galvanization. Galvanized iron sheets will maintain their lusture
due to the formation of protective layer of basic zinc carbonate, ZnCO 3.
2. (a) To protect the bottom of the ship, it is connected with more reactive metal than iron
like magnesium. This technique is known as cathodic protection.
3. (a) Cathodic protection is best method that is used to prevent iron from rusting. In this
method iron is made cathode by application of external current.
Basic water is highly conducting and thus increases the process of rusting.
CASE 2:
1. (c) Silver (Ag) will not displace hydrogen from acids as it lie below hydrogen in activity
series.
solution.
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2. (c) Silver is less reactive than copper so it will not react with copper sulphate, CuSO 4
3. (a) Gold is a noble metal. So, it is found in free state.

pH
CASE 3:
1. (b) K lies above in activity series. So it is most reactive.
Ex
2. (a) Zinc is more reactive than Fe. So it can displace iron from solution.
3. (a) Magnesium will displace copper from copper sulphate solution (CuSO 4) to form MgSO4 that is a
colourless solution. Thus blue colour of copper sulphate will fade away to colourless. Iron can also
displace copper from copper sulphate but the color of iron sulphate formed will be green.
CASE 4:
1. (b) Sodium reacts with water and forms sodium hydroxide
2Na(s) + 2H2 2(g)
2. (c) Magnesium will not react with cold water so it reacts with hot water by forming its
oxide.
3. (c) Aluminium has low reactivity towards water. Hence, it reacts with steam only to form
Corresponding oxide 2Al(s) + 3H2 2O3(s) + 3H2(g)
CASE 5:
1. (a) ‘Z’ is N2 gas

2. (b) P is NH3 gas

3. (d) Q is nitric oxide
4. (a) HNO3 is S it is oxidising agent
N2 is largest component of air

1. (a) The metals that are placed at the top of the reactivity series are considered most
reactive.
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2. (a) Food cans are coated with tin not with zinc as zinc is more reactive than tin, so it will
react with organic acids present in food and spoil the food.
3. (c) Metals are sonorous that means metals will produce ringing sound on being hit with
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hammer and they are hard, while non-metals are brittle.
4. (b) Smelting is a process of heating ore in order to get a base metal. It is used to extract
many metals from their ores, like silver, iron, copper and other metals. Non fusible mass
Ex
present in ore is mixed with suitable flux are fused which are then reduced by coke to give
free metal. These two are individual true statement.
5. (c) The cyanide dissolves gold by forming a complex with it

CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
1.Which among the following can give addition reaction?

a. C2H4
b. CH3OH
c. C2H5OH
d. CH3CH2 CH3 ub
2. Which of the following property is not shown by carbon?
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a. Carbon compounds are good conductor of heat and electricity
b. Carbon compounds are bad conductor of heat and electricity
c. Most of the carbon compounds are covalent compounds
d. Melting and boiling point of carbon compounds are relatively lower than those of ionic
compounds
Ex
3.Which among the following is not the use of graphite?

a. Used as lubricant
b. Used in the manufacturing of lead-pencil
c. Used in the manufacturing of artificial diamonds
d. Used for making insulated plates.
4.Which among the following contains a double bond?

a. H2 molecule
b. CO2 molecule
c. N2 molecule
d. None of these
5.Which among the following reactions is known as esterification reaction?

6.When propanoic acid is treated with aqueous sodium bicarbonate, CO2 is liberated. The 'C'
of CO2 comes from?
a. Methyl group
b. Carboxylic acid
c. Alcohol group
d. None of these
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7.Sugars are finally converted to ethanol and CO2 in the presence of enzymes (present in
yeast)
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a. Invertase, zymase
b. Only invertase
c. Only zymase
d. None of these
Ex
8.An organic compound 'P' with molecular formula C2H4O2 turns blue litmus to red and
gives
brisk effervescence with NaHCO3. Identify the compound
a. Methanoic acid
b. Ethanoic acid
c. Propanol
d. Butanoic acid
9.Vinegar is a solution of
a. 40-50% acetic acid in alcohol
b. 5-8% acetic acid in alcohol
c. 5-8% acetic acid in water
d. 40-50% acetic acid in water
10.Which among the following is an example of aromatic hydrocarbon?
a. C2H2
b. C3H8
c. C5H12
d. C6H6
11.When ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol a sweet smelling product is formed. What the
functional group of the product formed?
a. Aldehyde
b. Carboxylic acid
c. Alcohol
d. Ester
a. Precipitate the soap

b. Dehydration of soap
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12.During the preparation of soap, NaCl is used as
c. As a catalyst
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d. None of these
13.During laboratory preparation CH4 gas is collected by downward displacement of water

Ex
because
a. CH4 is lighter than Air
b. CH4 is poisonous gas
c. It does not dissolve in water
d. CH4 is heavier than Air
14.One mole of a hydrogen X reacted completely with one mole of H2 gas in the presence of
a heated catalyst. The formula of X could be,
a. CH4
b. C5H10
c. C3H8
d. C7H16
15.Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a. C3H2 does not have any isomer.
b. HCOOCH3 and CH3COOH are not same organic compounds.
c. Organic compound with formula CH2O does not exist.

d. C3H4 has two p-bonds.
16.In the given sequence of reaction,
The final product R is?
a. A carboxylic acid
b. An alcohol
c. An aldehyde
d. An ester
17.A compound of carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen contains these elements in the ratio of their
atomic mass 9 : 1 : 3.5, if its molecular mass is 108 u. Find its molecular formula.
a. C2H2N
b. C3H4N
c. C3H5N2
ub
d. C6H8N2
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18.Which among the following in incorrect?

Ex
19.Consider the given statements about carbon and choose the correct option:
1. It has small atomic size
2. Its boiling & melting point is less as compared to other members of group
3. It exihibits electropositive character
4. It shows maximum tendency of catenation
a. 1 and 2 are correct

b. 2 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
d. 1 and 4 are correct
20.The molecular formula of a hydrocarbon is C6H12. It does not react with H2 to give
C6H14 nor does it react with Cl to give C6H12Cl2. The hydrocarbon C6H12 is
1. A saturated hydrocarbon
2. A branched hydrocarbon
3. An open chain hydrocarbon
4. A cycloalkane
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 4
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pH
CASE 1:
Ex
An organic compound 'X' is an essential component of wine and beer. Compound 'X' on
oxidation gives an organic acid 'Y' which is present in vinegar. Compound 'X' and organic
acid 'Y' react together in the presence of an acid catalyst, to give a compound 'Z'.
1.The compound 'X' is,

a. Methanol
b. Ethanol
c. Propanol
d. Propanal
2.The formed compound 'Y' is,

a. Acetic acid
b. Propanoic acid
c. Ethanol
d. Methanol
3.Write structural formula of 'Z'
a. CH3COONa
b. CH3COOC2H5
c. CH3CH2COOCH3
d. CH3CH2OH
CASE 2:
Compound 'X' works well with hard water. It is used for making shampoos & products for
cleaning clothes. Compound 'X' is not 100% biodegradable and causes water pollution.
Compound 'Y' does not work well with hard water and it is 100% biodegradable and does
not cause water pollution.
1.Identify compound 'X'.

ub
a. Detergent
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b. Soap
c. Washing soda
d. Baking soda
Ex
2.Identify Y.
a. Washing soda
b. Soap
c. Detergent
d. Sulfates
CASE 3:
The molecular formula of an organic compound 'X' is C 2H6O, it is an active ingredient of all
alcoholic drinks. It is also used in medicines such as tincture iodine, cough syrups. A small
piece of Na is dropped into the test tube containing 'X'. A new compound 'Y' is formed with
the evolution of colorless and odorless gas .
1.Identity the compound 'X'
a. Ethanol
b. Ethanoic acid
c. Methanol
d. Diethylether
2.Identify the compound 'Y'

a. CH3COOH
b. CH3CH2OH
c. CH3CH2ONa
d. CH3CH2CH2Ona
3.Name the gas evolved with compound 'Y'

a. H2
ub
b. CO2
pH
c. Cl2
d. N2
Ex
CASE 4:
The molecular formula of an organic compound 'P' is C 2 H 6O, which is used as an antifreeze.
Compound 'P' on oxidation gives a compound 'Q' which gives effervescence on treatment
with a baking soda solution.
1.Identify compound 'P'

a. Methanol
b. Ethanol
c. Ethanoic acid
d. Ethyl methyl ester
2.Identify compound 'Q'.

a. Propanoic acid
b. Ethanoic acid
c. Methanol
d. Pentanol
3.Which gas is formed when Q reacts with baking soda solution ?

a. Nitrogen
b. Hydrogen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. chlorine

ub
a. Both assertion and reason are true and Reason is the corre ct explanation of Assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
pH
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Assertion is false but reason is true.
1. Assertion: Graphite is slippery to touch.

Ex
Reason: In graphite, the various layers of carbon atoms are held together by weak
vanderwaLl’s forces of attraction.
2. Assertion: Propane (C3H8) is the third member of alkane.
Reason: It is obtained from general formula CnH2n + 2.
3. Assertion: CH3Cl is obtained from CH4 by the action of Cl2 in the presence of sunlight.
Reason: It is obtained by addition reaction.
4. Assertion: Isopropyl bromide is formed, when propene reacts with HBr.
Reason: Addition of Br2 to alkene takes place faster in presence of ionizing substance.
5. Assertion: In esterification reaction, carboxylic acid and alcohol reacts in the presence of
acid to give ester.
Reason: Esterification is the reverse of saponification

SOLUTIONS
1.(a)Presence of unsaturated hydrocarbon is the necessary condition to show addition

reaction. Hence, among the given options, only C 2H 4(CH 2=CH 2) can show the addition
reaction
2.(a) Carbon compounds are good conductor of heat and electricity.

As, carbon compounds are covalently bonded hence, they are bad conductor of heat and
electricity. Because of the presence of covalent bonds, their melting and boiling points are
relatively lower than those of ionic compounds.
3.(d) It is used for making insulated plates.

ub
As, graphite is a good conductor of electricity, hence it can not be used for making insulated
pH
plates.
4.(b) As, the structure of CO 2 molecule is:

O=C=O
Hence, CO 2 molecule contains 2 double bonds.
Ex
5.(c)
6.(b) CH3CH2COOH + NaHCO 3 → CH3CH2COONa + H2O + CO2 ↑

Evolution of CO 2 indicates that carboxylic acid contains carboxyl group.
7.(a)Sugars are finally converted to ethanol and CO 2 in the presence of both invertase and
zymase enzymes. And, these enzymes are present in yeast.
8.(b) The molecular formulae of given compounds are:

methanoic acid, HCOOH i.e., CH2O2
ethanoic acid, CH3COOH i.e., C2H4O2
propanol, C3H7OH i.e., C3H8O
butanoic acid, C3H7COOH i.e., C4H8O2
As, 'P' is acidic in nature. Brisk effervescence with NaHCO 3 shows CO2 as one of the
products. The molecular formula of 'P' contains 2 oxygen atoms.
9.(c)Vinegar is a solution of 5-8% of acetic acid in water
10.(d) C 6H 6 (benzene) belongs to aromatic hydrocarbons
11.(d)ethanoic acid + ethanol → ethyl acetate + H 2O
12.(a) During the preparation of soap, NaCl is used for the precipitation of soap to separate
out soap from the solution.
13.(c) CH4 does not get dissolved in water, because it is a non-polar compound.
14.(b) As, the compound reacts completely with one mole of H2; hence X should be an
alkene with one degree of unsaturation. As we know that, the general fomula of alkenes
is CnH2n.
If n = 5, C5H10
Hence, X is C5H10.
ub
15.(c) CH2O is the chemical formula of formaldehyde (HCHO).
16.(d)
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Ex
17.(d) C6H8N2 i.e. 12 × 6 + 8 × 1 + 14 × 2 = 108 u.
18.(d)
19.(d) Carbon has small atomic size and it shows maximum catenation property.
20.(d) The molecular formula of hydrocarbon is C6H12, which can be an unsaturated,

saturated, or cyclic hydrocarbon. As, the compound does not react with hydrogen and
Cl to give C6H14 and C6H12Cl2, respectively. Hence, it can't be an unsaturated
hydrocarbon.
Now, as the molecular formula does not satisfy general molecular formula of CnH2n+2,
hence, it cannot be an open chain hydrocarbon too.
The given molecular formula satisfies with cyclohexane and cyclohexane is a saturated
hydrocarbon.
ub
pH
Hence, both (1) and (4) are correct statements.
Ex
CASE 1:
(b) ethanol
(a) acetic acid
(b) 'Z' is ethyl ethanoate CH3COOC2H5

'X' is ethanol (C 2H 5OH) which is essential component of wine and beer and 'Y' is acetic acid
(CH 3COOH) which is present in vinegar.
'X' and 'Y' react together in the presence of an acid catalyst to give ethyl ethanoate.
CASE 2:
(a) X is detergent.
(b) Y is soap
CASE 3:
(a) ethanol
(c) CH 3CH 2Ona
(a) H 2
ub
pH
CASE 4:
Ex
(b) ethanol
(b) ethanoic acid
(c) Carbon dioxide

1. (a) In graphite, each carbon atom is joined to three other atoms by strong covalent bonds. The
various layers of carbon atoms in graphite though have weak vanderwall's forces of attraction
between them, hence making them slippery to touch.
2. (a) C3H8 (propane) can be obtained from general formula CnH2n + 2.

3. (c) CH3Cl can be obtained from CH4 (methane) by substitution reaction by the action of Cl2 in the
presence of sunlight.
4. (c) Addition of HBr to propene will take place according to Markownikoff’s rule. The negative part
of the addendum goes to less hydrogenated carbon atom.
And, the reason is false because the rate of addition of Br2 to alkenes is enhanced, if addition takes
place in presence of organic solvent like CCl4 or in the presence of covalent compounds nor ionic
compounds
5. (c) In esterification reaction, carboxylic acid reacts with alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst
to give a fruity smelling compound, ester. The alkaline hydrolysis of ester is known as saponification
ub
reaction. Hence, esterification is not reverse of saponification
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Ex
LIFE PROCESSES
1.In Amoeba, food is digested in the:

a. Food vacuole
b. Mitochondria
c. Pseudopodia
d. Intestine
ub
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2.Which plant tissue transports water and minerals from the roots to the leaf?
a. Xylem
b. Phloem
c. Parenchyma
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d. Sclerenchyma
3.The enzymes pepsin and trypsin are secreted respectively by

a. Stomach and pancreas
b. Salivary gland and stomach
c. Liver and pancreas
d. Liver and salivary gland
4.Which of the following help in protecting the inner lining of the stomach from the harmful effect of
hydrochloric acid?
a. Mucus
b. Pepsin
c. Trypsin
d. Bile
5.The vein which brings clean blood from the lungs into the heart is known as:
a. Pulmonary vein
b. Inferior vena cava
c. Superior vena cava
d. Pulmonary artery
6.The process of diffusion of solvent particles from the region of less solute concentration to a region
of high solute concentration through semi-permeable membrane is known as
a. Diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Translocation
d. Imbibition
7.When air blown from mouth into a test-tube containing lime water, the lime water turns milky due
to the presence of
a. Oxygen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Nitrogen
d. Water vapour
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8.During contraction, what prevents the backflow of blood inside the heart?
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a. Valves in heart
b. Thick muscular walls of ventricles
c. Thin walls of atria
d. Thick walls of atria
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9.Filtration unit of kidney is

a. Uretor
b. Urethra
c. Neuron
d. Nephron
10.The first step in photosynthesis is

a. Conversion of light energy to chemical energy
b. Reduction of carbondioxide
c. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
d. Formation of carbohydrates
11.The waste materials in plants are stored in the form of

a. Water
b. Gums and resins
c. Minerals
d. Carbohydrates
12.Which of the following correctly defines platelets?

a. Colourless liquid consists mainly of water with dissolve nutrients, hormones and digest or
undigested food in it.
b. Red-pigmented blood cell carry oxygen from the lungs to all cells of the blood.
c. The blood cells fight against infection and protect us from disease.
d. The tiny fragments of special cells formed in bone marrow and helps in coagulation of blood.
13.Which of the following is correct regarding capillaries?

a. Thick walled blood vessels that carry blood from the hearts to all the parts of the body.
b. Thin walled blood vessels and are extremely narrow tubes which connect arteries to veins.
c. Thin walled blood vessels which carry blood from all the parts of body to the heart.
d. Thick walled blood vessels which carry blood from all the parts of body to the brain.
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14.When a few drops of iodine solution are added to rice water, the solution turns blue- black in
colour.
This indicates that rice water contains:
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a. Fats
b. Glycogen
c. Starch
d. Simple proteins
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15.Sometimes we get painful cramps in our leg muscles after running for a long time due to the
accumulation of:
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Fatty acids
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Lactic acid
16.Lack of oxygen in muscles results in cramps is due to

a. Conversion of glucose to pyruvate
b. Conversion of pyruvate to glucose
c. Conversion of pyruvate to ethanol
d. Conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid
17.Villi present on the internal wall of intestine help in the

a. Emulsification of fats
b. Breakdown of fats
c. Absorption of digested food
d. Digestion of proteins
18.What will occur if a young plant is dug up and replanted in another place?
a. The leaves lose less water
b. The roots cannot take up mineral salts
c. The stem cannot transport water
d. The surface area of the root is reduced
19.What is the function of the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule of the nephron?
a. To reabsorb water into the blood
b. To eliminate ammonia from the body
c. To reabsorb salts and amino acids
d. To filter the blood and capture the filtrate
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20.Which one indicates hypertension or high Blood Pressure (BP)?
a. 130/70
b. 110/70
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c. 130/60
d. 140 /90
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CASE 1:
Water is an important substance used as solvent, in many biological processes. It is needed as
raw material in photosynthesis, as a main substance from which plants evolve oxygen and
provide hydrogen for the synthesis of carbohydrates. It helps in translocation of food and
minerals which helps in maintaining the internal transportation. Osmosis is a special type of
transport of water molecules that occurs through semipermeable membrane. It is a movement
of solvent from the region of higher diffusion pressure to the lower diffusion pressure across
a semipermeable membrane. It is categorised into two types - endosmosis and exosmosis. In
endosmosis, the water enters into a cell, organ or system whereas in exosmosis there is
osmotic withdrawal of water from a cell, organ or system.
1.A flowering plant is planted in an earthen pot and watered. Urea is added in higher
concentration to make the plant grow rapidly, but after sometime the plant died . This may be
due to
a. Exosomosis
b. Endosmosis
c. Logging of water
d. Difficulty in breathing
2.A slice of sugar beet is kept in concentrated salt solution it will

a. Show no change
b. Loose water and will become flaccid at first
c. Absorb little water
d. Swell
3.Diffusion is a process involved in

a. Respiration
b. Photosynthesis
c. Transpiration
d. All of the above
4.In a plant cell, the cytoplasm is surrounded by cell wall as well as the cell membrane but
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specificity of translocation of substances is mostly across the cell membrane. The reason
behind this is
a. Impermeability of plasma membrane
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b. Selective permeability of cell membrane
c. Permeability of plasma membrane
d. Impermeability of cell wall
5.On the basis of the given figure, mark the incorrect statement.
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a. The solvent molecules will move from A to B.

b. The solute molecules will move from A to B.
c. A semi-permeable membrane should be present prior to this process.
d. The rate and direction of osmosis depends on the pressure and concentration gradient.
CASE 2:
Our body needs to eliminate the wastes that build up from different activities of cell and from
digestion. Non removal of these waste can lead to malfunctioning of the body and we can get
very sick. The organs of our excretory system help to eliminate these wastes from our body.
The excretory system consists of a pair of kidney, a pair of ureters, urinary bladder and an
urethra. Each kidney is composed of nearly one million complex tubular structures known as
nephrons. The formation of urine involves various steps that takes place in the different parts
of the nephron. Each nephron consists of a cup-shaped structure called Bowman’s capsule
which has a bunch of capillaries called glomerulus. Bowman’s capsule continues to a tubular
structure called as proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle and distal convoluted tubule
which ultimately leads to the collecting tubule.
1.Out of the following substances choose the least toxic excretory products in animals.
a. Urea (CH4 N2 O)
b. Uric acid (C 5 H4 N 4 O3 )
c. Ammonia (NH3 )
d. Carbon dioxide (CO 2 )
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2.The outline of the principal of events of urination is mentioned below.
(I) Urinary bladder send impulse to the CNS with the stretch receptor present on the wall.
(II) The bladder filled with urine and becomes distended.
(III) Micturition (the action of urination)
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(IV) Central nervous system sends motor impulse to initiate the contraction of involuntary
muscles of urinary bladder and simultaneous relaxation of urethral sphincter.
Arrange the events in proper sequence.
a. (I) →(II) → (III) → (IV)

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b. (IV) →(III) → (II) → (I)

c. (II) →(I) → (IV) → (III)
d. (III) →(II) → (I) → (IV).
3.A person who is fasting, i.e., not taking food or beverages will have_____ in his/her urine.
a. Less glucose
b. Little urea
c. Excess urea
d. Little fat
4.Glomerular filtrate is first received by

a. Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
b. Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
c. Bowman’s capsule
d. Henle's loop
5.The given figure dipicts a single nephron from a mammalian kidney. Identify the labelled
parts (A-E) and match them with the options (I-IV) given below.
(I) The site of ultrafiltration

(II) Collection and concentration of urine
(III) The main area for the reabsorption of glucose and amino acids
(IV) Mainly responsible for the maintenance of the pH of blood
a. (I)-A, (II)-E, (III)-C, (IV)-D

b. (I)-A, (II)-B, (III)-C, (IV)-A
c. (I)-B, (II)-A, (III)-C, (IV)-E
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d. (I)-E, (II)-B, (III)-D, (IV)-A
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CASE 3:
The green plants prepare their food, through the process of photosynthesis and are
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therefore called as autotrophs. All organisms are dependant on green plants for food and
are referred to as heterotrophs. Green plants carry out photosynthesis by absorbing light
energy of sun. The first stage of reaction is directly driven by light therefore called light
reaction. The second phase of the reaction is indirectly dependent on light. The former is
called light reaction while the later is dark reaction. The dark reactions is dependent on the
products of light reaction.
1.Which of the following is produced during the light phase of photosynthesis?

a. ATP
b. Carbohydrate
c. NADPH
d. Both (a) and (c)
2.In photosynthesis the total number of sugar molecules produced are

a. 12
b. 6
c. 4
d. 1
3.A plant is provided with ideal conditions for photosynthesis and an isotope of 14 CO2 is
added.
Later when the products of the process are analysed, then what should be the nature of
products?
a. Both glucose and oxygen are normal.
b. Both glucose and oxygen are labelled glucose and oxygen.
c. Labelled glucose and normal oxygen.
d. Labelled oxygen and normal glucose.
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4.With the help of given diagram of an electron micrograph of a section of chloroplast.
Answer the question.
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Select the option which correctly depicts the functions of parts X, Y and Z.
5.Difference between light and dark reactions is given in the table below.
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According to the table, which of the following is correct group of differences between the
two reactions.
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a. (I), (II), (III)
b. (II), (III), (IV)
c. (II), (III)
d. (I), (IV)
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CASE 4:
Digestion is a catabolic process in which comple x food is broken down into simpler and
smaller forms with the help of different hydrolytic enzymes produced in over body. In
human, the process of intake of essential nutrients in the form of food takes place through
system called as digestive system. The digestive system in humans consist of alimentary
canal and its associated glands.
1.The lining of gastro-intestinal tract is protected by the secretion of

a. Cells of duodenum
b. Chief cells
c. Goblet cells
d. Oxyntic cells
2.Enterokinase is essential for the process of digestion to get complete. This is so because
a. Trypsinogen is not activated.
b. Pepsinogen remains inactive.
c. Prorennin is not activated into rennin.
d. Chymotrypsinogen remains inactive and is not conve rted into chymotrypsin.
3.Match the column A with column B and column C. Select the correct option from the
following.
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a. I-a-1; II-c-2; III-b-3; IV-d-4
b. I-d-1; II-a-2; III-b-3; IV-c-4
c. I-c-1; II-a-3; III-d-2; IV-b-4
d. I-c-1; II-a-2; III-d-3; IV-b-4
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4.X and Y in the given graph are the action spectrum of the two enzymes. The two enzymes
are
a. X : Amylase Y : Trypsin
b. X : Pepsin Y : Trypsin
c. X : Y : Rennin
Chymotrypsi
n
d. X : Lactate Y : Amylase
dehydrogenas
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5.If the inner surface of the ileum in the small intestine of humans were smooth, instead of
being folded and subdivided into villi, which of the following statements would be true?
a. The rate of absorption of digested food molecules would increase, because the digested
food would pass more easily through the digestive tract.
b. The process of digestion would not be as effective, because there would be fewer cells that
secretes trypsin (a protein-digesting enzyme).
c. Humans would have to evolve a much longer small intestine in order to absorb ample
nutrients from their food.
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d. A person would not be able to survive, because the digestive tract would be more
susceptible to damage.
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CASE 5:
Transpiration is an evaporative loss of water by the plants. It takes place mainly through the
stoma present in the leaves. Besides the loss of water vapour, exchange of gases like oxygen
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and carbon dioxide in the leaf also takes place through small pores known as stomata. The
stomata usually remain open in the day and close s during night.
1.Which of the following will not affect transpiration process directly?

a. Temperature
b. Light
c. Speed of wind
d. Amount of chlorophyll in the leaves
2.Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through an opening called stomata. Through
the same opening, carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Choose the
correct option to explain how both process takes place.
a. The above processes takes place only during night.

b. One process occurs during day while the other at night.
c. Both processes can never happen simultaneously.
d. Both processes can occur together at day time.
3.Select the statements which is not true for stomatal apparatus?

a. Guard cells possess chloroplasts and mitochondria.
b. Subsidiary cells always surrounds the guard cells.
c. Stomata helps in exchange of gases.
d. The wall of guard cells are thick.
4.Out of the following which one is not a purpose of transpiration?

a. Helps in absorption and transportation
b. It prevents water loss
c. By keeping the cells turgid, it maintains the shape and structure of plants.
d. Transport water for photosynthesis
5.With respect to the given graphs regarding factors affecting the rate of transpiration,
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choose the correct option from the following.
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a. A-Atmospheric temperature; B-Atmospheric pressure

b. A-Relative humidity; B-Atmospheric temperature
c. A-Movement of air; B-Light
d. A-Atmospheric pressure; B-Relative humidity

Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward.
Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the Assertion.
(b) Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
1. Assertion: Raw materials needed for photosynthesis are carbon dioxide, water and
minerals.
Reason: Nutrients provide energy to an organism.
2. Assertion: The translocation of food and other substances takes place by xylem.
Reason: Translocation occurs with the help of adjacent companion cells.
3. Assertion: Artificial kidney is a device used to remove nitrogenous waste products from
the blood through dialysis.
Reason: Reabsorption does not occur in artificial kidney.
4. Assertion: Autotrophic nutrition occurs in green plants.

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Reason: Green plants self-manufacture their food.
5. Assertion: Haemoglobin is the respiratory pigment in human beings.

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Reason: It transport oxygen in the human body
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SOLUTIONS
1.(a)Amoeba ingests food using temporary finger-like projections of the cell surface, which
fuse over the food particle forming a food vacuole. Inside the food vacuole, complex
substances are broken down into simpler ones, diffusing into the cytoplasm.
2.(a) The xylem transports water and dissolved minerals upward through the plant, from the
roots to the leaves.
3.(a) Stomach secretes the enzyme pepsin and pancreas secretes trypsin. Both of them
catalyzes the breakdown of proteins.
4.(a) Mucus is a viscous secretion that protects the inner lining of the stomach from the
harmful effect of HCl.
5.(a) The pulmonary vein is responsible for bringing oxygenated and pure blood from the
lungs into the heart.
6.(b) The diffusion of solvent particles from a region of less solute concentration to high
concentration (down the concentration gradient) through a semi -permeable membrane is
called osmosis.
7.(b) When air is blown from mouth into a test-tube containing lime water, the lime water
turns milky due to the presence of carbon dioxide in the exhaled air.
8.(a) Valves ensure that blood doesn't flow backward during the contraction of ventricles or
atria. Since the ventricles have to pump blood into various organs with high pressure, they
have thicker walls as compared to auricles . The separation of both the left and right sides of
the heart by valve also prevents the mixing of deoxygenated and oxygenated blood to
supply a high amount of oxygen to the body.
9.(d) Nephron filters blood in kidney and therefore is called the filtration unit.
10.(c) The first stage of photosynthesis is called the light reactions. In this, light is absorbed
by the chlorophyll and then transformed to chemical energy in the form of NADPH and ATP.
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11.(b) Resin is a hydrocarbon secretion of many pla nts, particularly coniferous trees, valued
for its chemical constituents and important products such as varnishes, adhesives etc. Gum
is also a byproduct produced and is sent out through the bark of the tree.
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12.(d) Platelets are also known as thrombocytes , They are tiny fragments of cells that are
necessary for normal blood clotting. They are formed in the bone marrow and are released
into the blood to circulate.
13.(b) Capillaries are very thin small vessels which act as a connection between
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arteries(carry blood away from the heart) and veins (carry blood again back to the heart).
14.(c) When iodine solution is added to rice water (starch), the solution turned blue black
because of the presence of starch. This indicates that rice water contains starch.
15.(d) The accumulation of lactic acid in our muscles while running for a long time causes
cramps due to low oxygen supply.
16.(d) Due to the lack of oxygen, anaerobic respiration takes place in the human muscles
that leads to conversion of pyruvate (formed due to breakdown of glucose during cellular
respiration) into lactic acid, which causes muscle cramps.
17.(c) The small finger-like projections, i.e., villi present in intestine increase the surface area
for better absorption of digested food.
18.(d) Digging up a plant may damage roots and affect mineral uptake. This will lead to
wilting. Stem can still transport water.
19.(d) The function of the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule of the nephron is to filter the
blood and capture the filtrate.
20.(d) Person having blood pressure 140/90, shows hypertension or high blood pressure. The
normal blood pressure for humans is 120/80.
CASE 1:
(a)The plant died because of exosmosis as the urea added has higher concentration than the sap of
plant. Therefore, there is loss of water from the plant body.
(b) The sugar beet will loose water leading to the decrease in turgor pressure due to plasmolysis. It
will decrease to a point when the protoplasm peels away from cell wall leaving the gaps making the
cell flaccid.
(d) Diffusion is the only means of gaseous transport in plants. It is responsible or involved in all the
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three process mentioned i.e., transpiration, photosynthesis and respiration. In transpiration there is loss
of water in gaseous form. In photosynthesis and respiration, the exchange of gases takes place through
this process.
(b) The cell membrane is selectively permeable which means it allows only some substance to pass
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through.
(b) Statement-b is incorrect as it says solute molecule will move from chamber A to B but this is not
possible because the water flows from higher concentration to lower concentration and not the solute.
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CASE 2:
(b) Out of the following, ammonia is the most toxic nitrogenous waste produced which is
followed urea and uric acid. The uric acid is the least toxic.
(c) When the bladder gets filled with urine, then the stretch receptors present sends
impulse to the central nervous system. The CNS then sends motor impulse to smooth
muscles of the bladder to undergo contraction and relaxation of the urethral sphincter
leading to micturition.
(b) In this case the amount of urea is less in his urine because it is formed by the metabolism
of different food and beverages.
(c) Bowman's capsule is a cup-shaped structure pres ent at the beginning of nephron in
mammalian kidney and it is the first part to receive the filterate.
(a) 'A' represents malpighian tubule which is the site of ultrafilteration.

'E' represents collecting tubule where the urine is collected after concentration of filterate.
'C' represents proximal convoluted tubule which is the primary site for reabsorption of
glucose and amino acid.
'D' represents distal convoluted tubule which is involved in secretion of hydrogen ions and
NH3 maintaining the pH of blood.
CASE 3:
(d) In plants light reaction takes place in the thylakoids of the chloroplast and in this process
energy molecules like ATP and NADPH is produced.
(d) In the process of photosynthesis, the total number of sugar molecule produc ed is one.
This is so because 6 molecule of carbon dioxide along with 6 molecule of water gives one
molecule of glucose and 6 molecules of oxygen.
(c) In this case the glucose produced will be labelled because it will be formed from carbon
14 isotope used in the reaction while the oxygen will be normal as it is evolved from the
water used in the reaction.
(b) Here, 'X' represents grana which is basically the stack of thylakoids and the site of light
reaction. 'Y' represent stroma where the synthesis of carbohydrate takes place. 'Z' represent
starch granules where carbohydrate is stored. ub
Only first difference is incorrect as light reaction is called photochemical reaction while the
dark reaction is known as biochemical reaction.
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CASE 4:
(c) The mucus produced by the goblet cells protects the lining of the gastrointestinal tract
from different enzymes. Throughout the mucosal epithelium these cells are present.
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(a) Presence of enterokinase is essential because it helps in activating the inactive enzyme
trypsinogen into trypsin. Trypsin helps in digesting the proteins into amino acids. Therefore,
in the absence of it proteins will not get digested properly.
(c) Lactose is converted into galactose with the help of enzyme lactase. Fatty acid is
converted into glycerol with the help of enzyme lipase. Starch is converted into maltose in
the presence of enzyme amylase. Enzyme trypsin helps in the conversion of proteins into
dipeptides.
(b) 'A' Represents enzyme pepsin while 'B' represent enzyme trypsin. Both enzymes helps in
digesting the protein but are functional at different pH in the alimentary canal. The enzyme
pepsin is active at acidic pH i.e. 1.5 while trypsin is functional in alkaline pH of 7.5 to 8.5.
(c) Presence of intestinal fold helps in increasing surface area for absorption. The folds are
further subdivided into villi which has brush border cells leading to effective absorption.
Therefore, if the small intestine becomes smooth than in order to compensate this, the
intestine would have to be much longer.
CASE 5:
(d) The amount of chlorophyll present in the leaves will not affect the transpiration directly.
It is affected by other factors like humidity temperature light velocity and atmospheric
pressure. Internal factors like the area of leaves structure and the age of plants affect
transpiration.
(d) The water vapours and the carbon dioxide has different diffusion coefficients, thus they
are independent on each other. Thus, both process can happen simultaneously.
(b) Option (b) is the right choice. This is so because epidermal cells sometimes get
specialised in their size and shape. They are known as subsidiary cells or accessory cells.
(b) Transpiration is a process through which there is loss of water in the form of vapors from
the stomatal opening. Therefore option (b) is the right choice as it does not prevent the loss
of water rather it leads to the loss.
(a) With the increase in the atmospheric temperature, rate of transpiration increases
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because the air becomes warm and concentrated due to sunlight. Therefore graph 'A'
represent the atmospheric temperature. Transpiration and atmospheric pressure are
inversely proportional to each other. Therefore, graph-B represents atmospheric pressure.
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1. (b) Raw materials required for photosynthesis are carbon dioxide, water and minerals
such as iron, phosphorus and magnesium. Nutrients are those substances which are
required for proper growth and maintenance of a living body and they also provide energy
to an organisms.
2. (c) The translocation of food and other substances takes place by sieve tubes.
3. (b) Kidney failure can be managed by artificial kidney. It is a device used to remove
nitrogenous waste products from the blood through dialysis. Artificial kidney is different
from natural kidney as the process of reabsorption does not occur in artificial kidney.
4. (a) Autotrophic nutrition occurs in green plants. Food is synthes ized by autotrophs using
CO2, light energy trapped by chlorophyll and water as raw materials.
5. (a) Haemoglobin is an iron-containing respiratory pigment in human beings. It takes up

oxygen from the air in the lungs and carries it to tissues.
CONTROL AND COORDINATION
1.Increase in the height of the plant is due to

a. Auxins b. Cytokinins
c. Gibberellins
d. Abscisic acid
respective
agents like
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2.Co-ordination is achieved through nervous system as well as circulatory system by
a. Vitamins and proteins

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b. Neurotransmitters and hormones
c. Hormones and sugars
d. Sugar and hormones
3.The main effect of cytokinin in plants is to

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a. Improve the quality of fruits

b. Prevent the growth of lateral buds
c. Regulate the closing of stomata
d. Stimulate cell division
4.The communication between CNS and other parts of the body is facilitated by
a. Peripheral nervous system
b. Brain
c. Spinal cord
d. Reflex actions
5.Electrical impulse travels in a neuron from

a. Dendrite → axon → axonal end → cell body
b. Cell body → dendrite → axon → axonal end
c. Dendrite → cell body → axon → axonal end
d. Axonal end → axon → cell body → dendrite
6.The changes associated with puberty in males & females is due to the secretion of
a. Estrogen and progesterone

b. Testosterone and estrogen
c. Estrogen and growth hormone
d. Growth hormone and testosterone
7.Which of the following acts both as endocrine(ductless) and exocrine (with duct) gland?
a. Pancreas
b. Hypothalamus
c. Adrenal
d. Kidney
8.Coordination via the nervous system tends to differ from that produced by the endocrine
system because the nervous system:
a. Is quick, precise and localized
b. Is slower and more pervasive
c. Does not require conscious activity
d. Secrete hormones
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9.Which of the following plant function is not controlled by auxins?
a. Apical dominance
b. Photosynthesis
c. Photoperiodism
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d. Plant growth
10.Which of the following comments applies to the brains of most animals?

a. Within the brain, neurons exchange information with one another.
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b. Brains usually lie as near as possible to the important sensory structures in an animal.
c. Brains send action potentials to the hindmost portion of the animal by means of major
nerves.
d. All of the above
11.Which of the following receptors is incorrectly paired with their senses?

a. Chemoreceptors - Chemicals
b. Photoreceptors - Pain
c. Thermoreceptors - Heat
d. Nociceptors – Pain
12.A microscopic gap between a pair of adjacent neurons over which nerve impulses pass is
called
a. Cyton
b. Dendrites
c. Axon
d. Synapse
13.Which of the following endocrine glands does not exist in pairs?

a. Testes
b. Adrenal
c. Pituitary
d. Ovary
14.Select the mis-matched pair

a. Adrenaline: Pituitary gland
b. Testosterone: Testes
c. Glucocorticoids: Adrenal gland
d. Thyroxin: Thyroid gland
15.The main function of the axon is to:

a. Integrate signals from the dendrites
b. Release chemical substances
c. Conduction of nerve impulses to other neurons
d. Synthesize cellular components
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16.A growing seedling is kept in a dark room. A burning lamp is placed near to it for a few
days. The top part of seedling bends towards the burning candle. This is an example of:
a. Chemotropism
b. Hydrotropism
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c. Phototropism
d. Geotropism
17.Rhythm of sleep or biological clock in our body is controlled by

a. Pituitary gland
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b. Pineal gland
c. ACTH
d. ADH
18.When a person is suffering from cold, we cannot

a. Differentiate the taste of an apple from that of ice cream
b. Differentiate the smell of a perfume from that of agarbatti
c. Differentiate red light from green light
d. Differentiate a hot object from a cold object
19.What is the role of Schwann cells in neuron ?

a. Thermal insulation of neural axons
b. Limit the speed of action potential
c. Enhance the speed of impulse
d. All of these
20.Which of the following is not associated with growth of plant?

a. Auxin
b. Gibberellins
c. Cytokinins
d. Abscisic acid
CASE 1:
Diencephalon lies below the cerebral hemisphere. It encloses the third ventricle. Third
ventricle is connected to iter of mid brain and lateral ventricles of cerebral hemispheres. It
partly separates the right and left halves of the diencephalon. The epithalamus forms the roof
of the diencephalon and consists of pineal gland. Sides or thalami act as relay station of
sensory impulses except that of smell. Floor of diencephalon called hypothalamus which has
control centres for body temperature, thirst, sleep, fatigue, sweating and emotional reactions.
It also produces neurohormones that regulate pituitary gland biosynthesis and secretion.
Diencephalon encloses a cavity called

a. Fourth ventricle
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b. Third ventricle
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c. Second ventricle
d. First ventricle
Which endocrine gland is located on the roof of diencephalon?

a. Hypothalamus
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b. Pituitary gland
c. Pineal body
d. Cerebral hemisphere
Hypothalamus has control centers for

a. Sweating
b. Sleep
c. Body temperature
d. All the these
The floor of diencephalon is called

a. Epithalamus
b. Thalami
c. Hypothalamus
d. Third ventricle
A part of diencephalon that functions as relay station between cerebrum and other parts of
brain is
a. Thalami
b. Pituitary gland
c. Hypothalamus
d. Third ventricle
CASE 2:
In pea plants, green threads called tendrils tends to coil around the support and hepl the
shoot to climb up the support. A young tendril performs circular movements. When it
comes in contact with a support, it coils around it. The part of the tendril in contact with the
support does not grow as fast as the part of the tendril away from the support. This is
caused due to high amount of auxin on the part of tendril away from support. Coiling of
tendril is a tropic movement in response to stimulus of contact. It is called thigmotropism.
Tropic movement is
a. In response to unidirectional stimulus
b. Movement of growth
c. Movement of curvature
d. All the above
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Coiling of tendril over its support is due to
a. More amount of auxin in the region of contact
b. Less amount of auxin in the region of contact
c. More amount of cytokinin in the area of contact
d. Less amount of cytokinin in the region of contact
Ex
Thigmotropism is bending towards unidirectional stimulus of

a. Water
b. Light
c. Gravity
d. Contact
Thigmotropism is best exhibited by

a. Tendrils
b. Stemapex
c. Root apex
d. Leaf apex
CASE 3:
Nervous system controls and coordinates the body organs to maintain a physiological
balance, called homeostasis, inside the body. It operates through nerve impulses which are
conducted quickly and unidirectionally at the synapses through the nerve fibres of the
neurons. Neurons are the structural and functional units of nervous system. A diagram of a
neuron has been shown below.
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Match the Column-I and Column-II and choose the correct option.
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Ex
a. A-(iii), (B)-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
b. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
c. A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
d. A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
In a neuron, electrical signal is converted to a chemical signal at/in
a. Axon
b. Dendritic end
c. Axonal end
d. Cell body
In a neuron, environmental information is acquired by:
a. D
b. C
c. B
d. A
The gap between nerve ending of one neuron and dendrite of another neuron is:
a. Dendrite
b. Synapse
c. Axon
d. Cyton ub
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CASE 4:
Geotropism refers to the orientation of body parts in relation to gravitational pull of earth,
e.g., stem grow against gravity so is negatively geotropic, while roots grow towards gravity
Ex
are positively geotropic. Plant exhibit positive or negative responses to other factors like
tight, water, touch, etc.
1.Directional differential growth due to external factors is called:
a. Tropic movement
b. Turgor movement
c. Klinostat movement
d. Nastic movement
2.Directional differential growth movement in response to gravitational pull of earth is

called: a. Phototropism
b. Hydrotropism
c. Geotropism
d. Chemotropism
3.Roots are _______ geotropic, while stem is ________ geotropic:
a. Positive, positive
b. Positive, negative
c. Negative, positive ub
d. Negative, negative
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4.What environmental, factor triggers the change in the direction of plant growth?
a. Light
b. Gravity
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c. Water
d. All of these
Assertion and Reason Type Question

Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read
the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
1. Assertion: Plants lack the nervous system, but they do coordinate.

Reason: It is so because of hormones.
2. Assertion: Gibberellins induce internodal growth in dwarf plant varieties.

Reason: Gibberellins, when applied to normal plants, increases the length of the plant.
3. Assertion: Phototropism is caused by auxin.
Reason: When light is coming from one side of the plant, auxin diffuses towards the shady
side of the shoot.
4. Assertion: Our body maintains blood sugar level.
Reason: Pancreas secretes insulin which helps to regulate blood sugar levels in the body.
5. Assertion: Failure of secretion of growth hormone causes dwarfism in the adult patient.
Reason: Growth hormone stimulates the body growth and elongation of long bones.
SOLUTIONS
1.(a)Auxins promotes the stem elongation in plants.

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2.(b) Co-ordination is achieved through nervous system as well as circulatory system by the
agents like neurotransmitters and hormones.
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3.(d) The main effect of cytokinin in plants is to stimulate the division of cells.
4.(a)The system that facilitates communication between the central nervous system (CNS)
and the other parts of the body is regulated by peripheral nervous system.
Ex
5.(c) Electrical impulse in the neuron is transmitted to the dendrite, which leads to the cell
body, leading to the axon, and finally the axon terminal, which connects to the dendrite of the
other neuron through a synapse. Hence, the electrical impulse travels from the dendrite, cell
body, axon, and axonal end.
6.(b) The changes associated with puberty in males & females is due to the secretion of
testosterone and estrogen respectively.
7.(a) Pancreas acts both as endocrine (ductless) and exocrine (with duct) gland.
8.(a) Coordination via the nervous system tends to differ from that produced by the endocrine
system because the nervous system is quick, precise and localized
9.(c) Auxin is a plant hormone which is produced at the tip of stem. It is involved in various
physiological processes of plants. Such as growth in plants, apical dominance, stem
elongation and phototropism. It also inhibits growth of lateral buds. Photoperiodism is the
physiological reaction like flowering in plants that depends on the length of day and night.
10.(d) The brain is the important organ of central nervous system from where the electrical
impulses are sent to all other parts of the body through several neurons. Without the signal
from the brain, body is incapable to perform any work. Several sensory neurons are attached
to it and it acts as a network of nerves.
11.(b) Photoreceptors are the primary sensory cells within the visual system. They respond to
light
12.(d) A microscopic gap between a pair of adjacent neurons over which nerve impulses pass
is called synapse.
13.(c) Testes, adrenal and ovary exist in pairs.
14.(a) Adrenaline is a hormone released from the adrenal glands.
15.(c) The function of the axon is to transmit information to different neurons, muscles and
glands. The nerve impulse is transmitted towards the synaptic terminal from the dendron.
16.(c) Phototropism is a directional response that allows plants to grow towards, or even
away from the light. The sensing of light in the environment is important to plants; it can be
crucial for competition and survival.
17.(b) Pineal gland regulates the 24 hour rhythm of our body like sleep-wake cycle,
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temperature, etc. It also affects metabolism and pigmentation.
18.(b) During cold, olfactory receptors gets blocked hence we cannot differentiate smell of a
perfume from that of agarbatti.
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19.(a) Schwann cells are mainly required for insulating via myelin sheath and supplying
nutrients to individual nerve fibers (axons) of the PNS neurons.
20.(d) Abscisic acid is not associated with growth of plant.

Ex
CASE 1:
1.(b) Diencephalon encloses the third ventricle.
2.(c) Pineal body is located on the roof of diencephalon
3.(d) Hypothalamus has control centers for body temperature, thirst, sleep, sweating, etc
4.(c) The floor of diencephalon is called hypothalamus.
5.(a) A part of diencephalon that functions as relay station between cerebrum and other
parts of brain is thalami.
CASE 2:
1.(d) Tropic movement occurs in response to stimulus and shows movement in growth or
orientation or curvature.
2.(b) Coiling of tendril over its support is due to synthesis of less amount of auxin in the
region of contact.
3.(d) The bending of the plant part towards the stimulus of contact (touch) is called
thigmotropism.
4.(a) Thigmotropism is best exhibited by tendrils.
CASE 3:
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1.(a) Dendron - Afferent nature (extend out from the cell body and receive messages from
other nerve cells)
Nissl’s granules - Protein synthesis
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Axon - Efferent nature (transmits messages from the cell body to the dendrites of other
neurons or to other body tissues)
Synaptic vesicles - Stores some chemicals called neurotransmitter
2.(c) The conversion of electrical signal to chemical signal occurs at the axonal end.
Ex
3.(d) In a neuron, the information is acquired by dendrites denoted by (A) in the given
diagram.
4.(b) Synapse is the gap between two neurons.
CASE 4:
1.(a) The directional differential growth of plants due to external factors is called tropic
movement.
2.(c) Geotropism is the directional movement in response to gravitational pull of the earth.
3.(b) Roots grow downwards, therefore are called positive geotropic while stem grow
upwards, therefore are called negative geotropic.
4.(d) Plants show response to various environmental stimuli such as light, water, winds,
contact, gravity, etc.
Assertion and Reason Type Question

1. (a) Plants lack the nervous system. They do not have specialized organs there fore they
coordinate by the hormones.
2. (c) Gibberellin induces internodal growth and overcome the phenotypic expression of
dwarfism in certain plants. It has little or no effect when they are applied to the normal
plant.
3. (a) Auxin promotes phototropism, i.e., plant growth in response to light. When light is
coming from one side of the shoot of the plant, auxin diffuses towards the other (shady)
side of the shoot. This accumulated concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow
longer on the side of the plants which is away from the light. Therefore, the plant appears to
bend towards light while growing.
4. (a) Pancreas secretes insulin hormone which helps to regulate the sugar levels of blood in
the body. If the sugar level in blood rises, they a re detected by the a-cells of the pancreas
which respond by producing more insulin. As the blood sugar level decreases, insulin
secretion is also reduced.
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5. (d) Growth hormone is secreted by the anterior lobe of pituitary gland. It stimulates
growth of the body. The failure of secretion of growth hormone from an early age causes
dwarfism while excessive secretion of this hormone from childhood leads to gigantism.
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Ex
HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE
1.The development of a seedling from an embryo under appropriate condition is called

a. Regeneration
b. Germination
c. Spore formation
d. Budding ub
2.Which of the following is not an outcome of variations present in population?
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a. Bacterial resistance to heat
b. Different colour of eyes
c. Survival of species over time
d. Maintenance of body design features
Ex
3.Which of the following have buds on their leaves as vegetative reproducing structure?
a. Potato
b. Banana
c. Bougainvillea
d. Bryophyllum
4.In human males, the testes lie in the scrotum, because it helps in the
a. Process of mating
b. Formation of sperms
c. Easy transfer of gametes
d. Secretion of hormones
5.Which of the following method of contraception protects from acquiring sexually

transmitted
diseases?
a. Surgery
b. Oral-pills
c. Condoms
d. Copper-T
6.Tubectomy is carried out by blocking the

a. Oviduct
b. Uterus
c. Vas deferens
d. Vagina
7.A feature of reproduction that is common to Amoeba, Yeast and Spirogyra is that
a. They reproduce only sexually
b. They are all unicellular
c. They reproduce asexually
d. They are all multicellular
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8.Along the path of the vas-deferens the secretions of which gland provide nutrition to the
sperms?
a. Prostate vesicles
b. Seminal vesicles
c. Both (a) and (b)
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d. Urinary bladder
9.Which of the following is NOT an example of asexual reproduction?

a. Reproduction in earthworms
b. Formation of spores in ferns
c. Binary fission in Amoeba
d. Budding in Hydra
10.From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the
gynoecium.
a. Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
b. Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
c. Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
d. Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac
11.Which is the portion on which grafting is done and it provides roots?

a. Stem
b. Scion
c. Stock
d. Stalk
12.In a flower, the parts that produce male and female gametes (germ cells) are
a. Stamen and filament
b. Filament and stigma
c. Anther and ovary
d. Stamen and anther
13.After fertilization the fertilized egg or the zygote gets implanted in the
a. Vagina
b. Ovary
c. Uterus
d. Fallopian tube
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14.Advantage of vegetatively reproduced organism is
a. Dissimilar organisms
b. Genetic variation
c. Genetic similarity in offsprings
Ex
d. Varied offsprings
15.Characters that are transmitted from parents to offspring during reproduction show
a. Only similarities with parents
b. Only dissimilarities with parents
c. Both similarities and variations with parents
d. Neither similarities nor variations
16.A Planaria worm is cut horizontally in the middle into two halves P and Q such that the
part P contains the whole head of the worm. Another Planaria worm is cut vertically into two
halves R and S in such a way that both the cut pieces R and S contain half head each. Which
of the cut pieces of the two Planaria worms could regenerate to form the complete respective
worms?
a. Only P
b. Only R and S
c. P, R and S
d. P, Q, R and S
17.Which out of the following processes does not lead to the formation of clones?
a. Fertilisation
b. Multiple fission
c. Micropropagation
d. Fragmentation
18.During adolescence, several changes occur in the human body. Mark one change
associated with sexual maturation in boys
a. Increase in height
b. Loss of milk teeth
c. Cracking of voice
d. Weight gain
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19.Offspring formed as a result of sexual reproduction exhibit more variations because
a. Genetic material comes from two parents of the same species
b. Genetic material comes from two parents of different species
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c. Sexual reproduction is a lengthy process
d. Genetic material comes from many parents
Ex
20.What marks the beginning of the reproductive life of a woman?

a. Menopause
b. Menarche
c. Fertilisation
d. Ovulation
CASE 1:
Consider that two organisms namely X and Y produce new offspring from single parent only.
When reaches its maximum growth, organism X divides its body into two new organism. The
parent organism does not exist anymore and two new daughter organisms grow fullyl and
divide again. Organism Y forms a small outgrowth on its body called bud due to cell division
at one particular site. This bud, later on, detaches and develops into new organism.
1. Select the option that correctly identifies organisms X and Y.

a. X – Amoeba, Y – Yeast
b. X – Paramecium, Y – Hydra
c. X – Leishmania, Y – Sycon
d. All of these
2. Which of the following is correct statement?

a. Organism X reproduces asexually whereas organism Y reproduces sexually.
b. Organism X must be multicellular whereas organism Y should be unicellular
c. Both Organisms X and Y reproduce asexually.
d. Both organisms X and Y are always multicellular organism.
3. Identify the mode of reproduction in organisms X and Y respectively.

a. X – Multiple fission, Y – Binary fission
b. X – Regeneration, Y – Fragmentation
c. X – Binary fission, Y –Budding
d. X – Zoospore formation, Y – Regeneration
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4. Select an incorrect statement.
a. Plasmodium reproduces by the same method as adopted by organism X.
b. If organism Y is Planaria, then it may also reproduce through fragmentation.
c. Organism X could be any multicelllular plant like Riccia, Sphagnum, etc.
Ex
d. Both (a) and (c)
CASE 2:
Preeti collected some pond water in a test tube which was dark green in colour. She took out
dark green colouredmass from it and separated its filaments by using needles. Some filaments
are broken down into small fragments. She put these small filaments in a Petri dish
containing clean water. After few days, she observed that the small fragments produce
complete filaments.
1. The mass of green filament was of

a. Spirogyra
b. Volvox
c. Fucus
d. Fungal filaments or hyphae
2. The small fragment gave rise to new filament. What does it indicate?
a. Spirogyra reproduces asexually through regeneration.

b. Spirogyra reproduces asexually through fragmentation.
c. Spirogyra reproduces asexually through binary fission.
d. Spirogyra reproduces asexually through vegetative propagation.
3. Can you identify an organism which reproduces in similar way as Spirogyra?

a. Yeast
b. Cyanobacteria
c. Entamoeba
d. Volvox
4. Select the correct statement.

a. Only multicellular organisms can undergo fragmentation.
b. Both unicellular and multicellular organisms can undergo fragmentation
c. Fragmentation is sexual mode of reproduction.
d. Fragmentation is seen only in fungi.
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CASE 3:
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Stamen is the male reproductive part and it produces pollen grains that are yellowish in
colour. Pistil is present in the centre of a flower and is the female reproductive part. X and Y
are two monoecious plants. Plant X bears bisexual flowers as it contains both stamens and
pistil. Plant Y bears unisexual flowers as it contains either stamens or pistil. X does not need
Ex
a pollinating agent whereas pollinating agent is required in case Y.
1. Select the option that correctly identifies plant X and Y.

a. X - Papaya, Y - Mustard
b. X - Pea, Y - Cucurbit
c. X - Sunflower, Y - Orchids
d. X - Hibiscus, Y– Papaya
2. Select the incorrect option regarding plants X and Y.

a. Even if all its flowers are emasculated, seed setting is assured in plant X
b. X is a cross-pollinated plant whereas Y is a self-pollinated plant.
c. Sexual reproduction in plant Y may or may not give rise to genetic variations.
d. All of these
3. Self-pollination in plant X can be prevented by removing

a. Flowers
b. Anthers
c. Carpels
d. None of these
4. The male and female reproductive part of the flower is respectively:

a. Stamen and Pistil
b. Pistil and stamen
c. Ovary and carpel
d. Style and petal
CASE 4:
The reproductive organs in human beings become functional after attaining sexual maturity.
This age is called puberty. Puberty in males is attained at an age of 13-14 years while in
females, it is attained at an age of 11- 12 years. Changes in the body at puberty, such as
increase in breast size in girls and new facial hair growth in boys, are signs of sexual
maturation. The primary sex organs – the testis in the males and the ovaries in the females –
produce gametes, i.e, sperms and ovum, respectively, by the process called gametogenesis.
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The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens.
Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the developing spermatozoa. The testes are situated outside
the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum. The scrotum helps in maintaining the
low temperature of the testes (2–2.5°C lower than the normal internal body temperature)
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necessary for spermatogenesis.
1. What is the puberty age in human females?

a. 8-10
b. 11-12
Ex
c. 13-14
d. 14-16
2. Why are testes located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum?

a. Formation of sperms requires a higher temperature.
b. Formation of sperms requires a lower temperature.
c. Formation of sperms requires more space
d. Sperms get nutrition from scrotum
3. Testis in males and ovaries in the females produce respectively

a. Ovum and sperms
b. Ova and spermatozoa
c. Oogonia and spermatozoa
d. Sperms and ovum
4. Which of the following is not an accessory duct of males?

a. Fallopian tube
b. Vasa efferentia
c. Epididymis
d. Vas deferens

(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct exp lanation
of the Assertion.
Assertion.

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1. Assertion: Vasectomy is a surgical method of birth control
Reason : In vasectomy, small portion of oviduct is cut or tied properly

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2. Assertion: HIV-AIDS is a bacterial disease.
Reason: AIDS does not spreads through sharing of food and water.
3. Assertion: Characteristics of parental plants can be preserved through asexual

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reproduction.
Reason: Vegetative reproduction involves only mitosis.
4. Assertion: DNA copying is necessary during reproduction.
Reason: DNA copying leads to the transmission of characters from parents to offspring.
5. Assertion: Double fertilisation is unique to angiosperms.
Reason: Triple fusion occurs in asexual reproduction.
SOLUTIONS

(b) Germination is a process occurring in plants in which the embryo develops into a
seedling under appropriate condition.
(d) Variations are not responsible for maintenance of body design features. These are
maintained by consistency of DNA copying during reproduction.
(d) Bryophyllum reproduces by the buds present in their notches along the leaf margin
which falls on the soil and develops into new plants.
(b) The testes are the site of production of male gametes called sperms. Testes is situated in
the sac like structure called the scrotum because the sperm formation require a lower
temperature than the normal body temperature. Thus, it helps in sperms formation.
(c) Condom acts as a physical barrier during intercourse and protects a person from
acquiring any sexually transmitted disease.
(a) Tubectomy is a surgical method of contraception in women. It is a permanent method

that blocks the fallopian tubes, also known as oviducts, thereby preventing the egg released
by the ovary from reaching the uterus.
(ac) Amoeba, Spirogyra and yeast undergoes asexual reproduction. It is one of the type o f
reproduction in which progeny is obtained from the single parent.
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(c) Along the path of vas deferens, glands like the prostate and the seminal vesicles add
their secretions so that the transport of sperms become easier and this fluid also provides
nutrition.
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(a) Earthworm reproduces by sexual reproduction
(c) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac and placenta are associated with the gynoecium.
(c) Stock is the portion on which grafting is done and it provides the roots.
Ex
(c) In a flower, the parts that produce male and female gametes are anther and ovary
respectively.
(c) The fertilized egg or zygote get implanted in the uterus after the process of fertilization.
(c) Vegetatively reproduced organisms show genetic similarity in offsprings. This genetic
similarity is because the offsprings are produced from a single parent.
(c) Characters that are transmitted from parents to offspring shows both similarities and
variation. They show similarity because half of the chromosome comes from father and half
from the mother. They show variation because of genetic recombination, mutation and
natural selection.
(d) In Planaria, each body piece can develop into a new organism through regeneration.
(a) The fusion of male gamete with female gamete to form a zygote during sexual
reproduction is called fertilisation. Fission, tissue culture (micropropagation) and
fragmentation are the asexual modes of reproduction.
(c) Cracking of voice in males is associated with the male hormone testosterone, which is
produced during adolescence.
(a) Sexual reproduction is the process in which two individuals of same species produces two
different gametes, i.e., one male gamete and another female gamete. These gametes
undergoes fusion that 152
results in the formation of zygote which produces new offspring. Because of the
contribution of two parents of the same species, offspring produce more variations.
(b) Menarche, the first occurrence of menstruation, marks the beginning of menstrual
cycling and is considered the start of a woman's reproductive life.
CASE 1:
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1.(d) Organism X reproduces by binary fission and organism Y reproduces by budding.
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Amoeba, Paramecium and Leishmania are the examples of organisms which reproduce by
binary fission while Yeast, Hydra and Sycon are the examples of budding type of
reproduction.
2.(c) Both organism X and Y are asexually reproducing organisms.
3.(c) The mode of reproduction in organisms X and Y is binary fission and budding
Ex
respectively.
4.(d) Plasmodium reproduces by multiple fission whereas organism X reproduces by binary
fission. Binary fission is generally seen in unicellular organisms such as Amoeba and
Paramecium.
CASE 2:
1.(a) Spirogyra is a green-coloured algae commonly found in stagnant fresh water habitats
such as ponds, lakes, etc.
2.(b) The process of asexual reproduction in Spirogyra is known as fragmentation. In this,
Spirogyra breaks up into smaller pieces upon maturation. These pieces or fragments grow
into new individuals.
3.(b) Fragmentation can be observed in many organisms such as cyanobacteria, fungi, many
plants, and also in animals including flatworms, sponges, some annelid worms and sea stars.
4. (b) Fragmentation is an asexual mode of reproduction. Only multicellular organisms
having simple body organization can undergo fragmentation.
CASE 3:
1.(d) Papaya and mustard are both monoecious plants. Mustard and Hibiscus contains both
stamens and pistil therefore it is bisexual. Papaya contains either stamens or pistil
therefore it is unisexual.
2. (d) All the given statements are incorrect.
3. (b) Plant X is a bisexual plant. Removal of anthers or killing the pollen of a flower without
the female reproductive organ is known as emasculation. In bisexual flowers,
emasculation is essential to prevent of self-pollination.
4. (a) The male and female reproductive part of the flower is stamen and pistil respectively.
CASE 4:
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1.(b) The puberty age in human females is 11-12 years.
2. (b) The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes (2–2.5°C lower than
the normal internal body temperature) necessary for spermatogenesis.
3. (d) The testis in the males and the ovaries in the female produce gametes, i.e., sperms and
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ovum.
4. (a) Fallopian tube is an accessory duct of females.
Ex

1. (c) Vasectomy is a surgical method of birth control in which small portion of the vas
deferens is cut and tied up. This prevents the sperms from reaching the ovum during
copulation. A small portion of oviduct is cut or tied properly in tubectomy.
2. (d) HIV-AIDS is viral disease that is transmitted sexually. It spreads through sharing
needles, sexual intercourse or blood-contaminated body fluids.
3. (a) Asexual reproduction involves a single individual, which give rise to new ind ividual that
is genetically identical to parents. Because only mitotic divisions are involved in asexual
reproduction and the chromosome number remains the same.
4. (a) DNA copying is necessary during reproduction because it leads to the transmission of
characters from parents to offsprings and brings about variation.
5. (c) Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of flowering plants. In this process, out of
the two sperm nuclei, one sperm nucleus fuses with the egg nucleus to form an embryo.
This process is called syngamy. Another male gametes fuses with the secondary nucleus to
form an endosperm and the process is called triple fusion. Because two kinds of fusion,
syngamy and triple fusion, occurs, the process is known as double fertilisation
HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
1.Wing of a bird and wing of an insect are:

a. Homologous organs
b. Analogous organs
c. Vestigial organs
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d. Both (a) and (b)
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2.According to the rules of inheritance in a sexually reproducing organism, traits are

contributed by:
a. Only materal DNA
Ex
b. Only paternal DNA

c. Both (a) and (b) equally
d. Environment factors
3.In his experiments, Mendel crossed tall pea plants with dwarf pea plants. The pea plants
produced in F1 generation were:
a. All of them were tall
b. All of them were of medium height
c. Both tall and dwarf
d. All of them were dwarf
4.Biologists have concluded that Homo sapiens, the present day man evolved in:
a. Indonesia
b. South East Asia
c. Africa
d. West Asia
5.Man has developed the following pair of common vegetables, which of the following pairs
has been developed from wild cabbage?
a. Kale and Kohlrabi
b. Broccoli and cauliflower
c. Cabbage and Kale
d. All of the above
6.The genotype of B-group father of an O group child would be:

a. IAIB
b. IBIB
c. IBIO
d. IOIO
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7.Which of the following are the examples of homology?
a. Wings of butterfly, bird and bat
b. Paddle of whale, forearm of horse and forelimbs of man
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c. Eyes of octopus and man
d. Sling of scorpion and Apis
8.Fossils are always:

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a. Connecting links
b. Aged organisms
c. Dead organisms
d. Extinct organisms
9.Which of the following is correct about Darwin?

a. He gave the theory of natural selection.
b. He believed that organisms could pass on acquired changes to offspring.
c. He was eager to publish this theory so that he could get all the credit.
d. He was the first person to realize that organisms can evolve.
10.Mendel’s law of segregation is based on segregation of alleles during

a. Pollination
b. Gametes formation
c. Seed formation
d. Embryonic development
11.When a new plant is formed as a result of cross-pollination from different varieties of a

plant, the newly formed plant is called:
a. Dominant plant
b. Mutant plant
c. Hybrid plant
d. Recessive plant
12.Variation combined with geographical isolation result in

a. Speciation
b. Dominant traits
c. Recessive traits
d. Genetic drift ub
13.The changes in non-reproductive tissues
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a. Cannot be passed on to the DNA of the germ cells
b. Cannot direct evolution
c. Are the acquired traits
d. All of these
Ex
14.What is an allele?
a. An alternative form of a gene that is not located on a specific position on a specific
chromosome.
b. A form of a gene that is located on a chromosome.
c. An alternative form of a gene that is located at a specific position on a specific
chromosome.
d. A form of gene that is located on different positions on a chromosome.
15.What is heredity?
a. Transmission of physical characters from one generation to the next.
b. Transmission of sexual and morphological characters from one generation to the next.
c. Transmission of anatomical characters from one generation to the next.
d. Transmission of genetic characters from parents to offspring or one generation to the
next.
16.Which of the following would stop evolution by natural selection from occurring?
a. If a thermonuclear war killed most living organisms and changed the environment
drastically.
b. If humans became extinct because of a disease epidemic.
c. If all individuals in a population were genetically identical, and there was no genetic
recombination, sexual reproduction, or mutation.
d. If ozone depletion led to increased ultraviolet radiation, which caused many new
mutations.
17.A heterozygous red-eyed female Drosophila mated with a white-eyed male would produce
a. Red-eyed females and white-eyed males in the F1
b. Half red and half white-eyed females as well as males in the F1
c. Half red and half white-eyed females and all white eyed males in the F1
d. White-eyed females and red-eyed males in the Fl
18.There would be no evolution if:
b. Somatic variations were most inheritable

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a. The inheritance of acquired character did not take place
c. Genetic variations were not found among members of population

d. Somatic variation would not transform into genetic variations.
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19.Life cannot originate from inorganic materials at present because:

a. High degree of environmental pollution
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b. A very high amount of oxygen in the atmosphere

c. Very high atmosphere temperature
d. Absence of raw material
20.Classification of species is done on the basis of

a. Cell design - nucleated or non-nucleated
b. Unicellular or multi-cellular.
c. Specialisation of cell types and tissues - Autotrophs or heterotrophs.
d. All of these

CASE 1:
The process by which distinction is made between the two sexes, i.e., male and female is
called as sex determination. It is determined with the help of chromosomes called as sex
chromosomes or allosomes which are represented by X and Y chromosomes. Apart from
these two other chromosomes are called autosomes. Humans follow XX- XY mechanism of
sex determination. Human beings have 46 chromosomes, out of which 22 pairs of them are
autosomes and 1 pairs of them are sex chromosomes. Human males have one X chromosome
and one Y chromosome while human females have two X chromosomes.
1. How many pairs of chromosomes are present in human beings?

a. 22
b. 23
c. 44
d. 46
2. Sex chromosomes of male are

a. X and X
b. Y and Y
c. X and Y
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d. A and X
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3. What will the possibility of having a girl child; if a couple has six daughters?
a. 20%
b. 50%
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c. 90%
d. 100%
4. The chromosomes responsible for the determination of sex are called

a. Autosomes
b. Allosomes
c. Multiple alleles
d. Heterosis
CASE 2:
Gregor Mendel, conducted hybridisation experiments on garden peas for seven years (1856 -
1863) and proposed the laws of inheritance in living organisms. Mendel investigated
characters in the garden pea plant that were manifested as two opposing tra its, e.g., tall or
dwarf plants, yellow or green seeds. He took pea plants with different characteristics – a tall
plant and a short plant, produced progeny by crossing them, and calculated the percentages
of tall or short progeny. The traits chosen by him are as follows:
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1. How many traits were related to flower and pod respectively out of the seven contrasting
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characters?
a. 2, 2, 2
b. 2, 1, 2
c. 2, 2, 1
d. 1, 2, 1
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2. Out of 7 contrasting pairs, how many color based contrasting traits were studied by
Mendel?
a. 4
b. 7
c. 3
d. 1
3. On the basis of the table given below answer the question.

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Ex
Which of the following trait is correctly placed?

a. A and D only
b. A and B only
c. A and C only
d. All of the above
4. The dominant traits selected by Mendel were:

a. Round seed shape, green seed colour and axial flower position
b. Wrinkled seed shape, inflated pod shape and terminal flower position
c. Violet flower colour, green pod colour and round seed shape
d. Yellow pod colour, wrinkled seed shape and axial flower position
CASE 3:
Evolution doesn't follow a straight path. There have been stages in evolution with each
stage having a variety of descendants. Every descendant has again given rise to variety of
lineages. A lot of descendants and their ancestors have eliminated. It will depend upon the
natural selection and environment. Further, even seemingly close relatives of modern day
organisms are actually distant cousins.
1. Evolution has never been straight. There is

a. Branching descent
b. Progressive and retrogressive evolution
c. Divergent evolution
d. Convergent evolution
2. Why did many of the old species gets eliminated?

a. Due to development of new species.
b. Changes in environment
c. Natural selection
d. All the above
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3. What factor helped the present day species to survive
a. Natural selection
b. Adaptability to the changes in environment
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c. Favourable mutations
d. All the above
4. The force that initiates evolution is

Ex
a. Variation
b. Mutation
c. Extinction
d. Adaptation
CASE 4:
Pea plants can have round seeds or wrinkled seeds. One of the phenotypes is completely
dominant over the other. A farmer decides to pollinate one flower of a pea plant with round
seeds using pollen from plant with wrinkled seeds. The resulting pea pod has all round
seeds.
1. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn?

A. The allele for round seeds is dominated over that of wrinkled seeds
B. Pea plant with round seeds is heterozygous.
C. Pea plant with wrinkled seeds is homozygous.
a. A only
b. A and B only
c. A and C only
d. A, B and C
2. Which of the following crosses will give round and wrinkled seeds in same proportion?
a. RR × rr
b. Rr × rr
c. RR × Rr
d. rr × rr
3. Which of the following cross can be used to determine the genotype of a plant with
dominant phenotype?
a. RR × RR
b. Rr × Rr
c. Rr × RR
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d. RR × rr
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4. On crossing of two heterozygous round seeded plants (Rr), a total of 1000 plants were
obtained in F1generation. What will be the respective number of round and wrinkled seeds
obtained in F1 generation?
Ex
a. 750,250
b. 500,500
c. 800,200
d. 950,50
5. The characters which appear in the first filial generation are called
a. Recessive characters
b. Dominant characters
c. Lethal characters
d. Non-mendelian characters
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read
the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
Assertion.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion: Mendel successfully postulated laws of heredity.

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Reason: Mendel recorded and analysed results of breeding experiments quantitatively.
2. Assertion: Artificial selection is based on the desire of human.

Reason: The improvement of domesticated plants and animals is possible through artificial
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selection.
3. Assertion: Law of segregation is also called law of purity of gametes.

Reason: Two alleles of a gene remain separate and do not contaminate each other in F1 or
hybrid.
Ex
4. Assertion: XX-XY type of sex determination mechanism is an example of male

heterogamety.
Reason: In birds, male heterogamety is seen as males produce two different types of gametes.
5. Assertion: Hybrid is formed by cross between two organisms that are different in one of
more than one traits.
Reason: Mendel crossed two plants differing in one trait to obtain F1 plants which is
monohybrid cross.
SOLUTIONS

1.(b) Analogous organs are those organs which are different in structure but similar
In
function. E.g., wings of a bird and an insect.

2. (c) Zygote formed after fertilization has both maternal and paternal DNA hence
traits are contributed by both.
3. (a) Tall character is dominant over dwarf were (recessive trait) hence in F1
generation all plants tall.
4.(c) By fossil studies it has been concluded that present day man evolved in Africa.
5.(d) By artificial selection many varieties of vegetable can be developed from wild
cabbage. These were Broccoli, cauliflower, kohlrabi, Kale, etc.
6.(c) In this case, O blood group of a child is possible only when father will be
heterozygous, i.e., IBIO
7.(b) Homologous organ have common origin but perform different function. E.g.,
paddle of whale, forearm of horse and forelimbs of man.
8.(c) A fossil is any preserved remains, impression or trace of any once-living
organism, i.e., dead organisms from a past geological age.
9..(a) Darwin gave the theory of natural selection which forms the basis of evolution.
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10.(b) Mendel's law of segregation states that allele pairs separate or segregate
during gamete formation and randomly unite at fertilization.
11.(c) When a new plant is formed as a result of cross-pollination from different
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varieties of a plant, the newly formed plant is called hybrid.
12.(a) Speciation, formation of new species, takes place on the basis of variation
combined with geographical isolation.
13.(d) The changes in non-reproductive tissues are the acquired traits and these
Ex
cannot be passed on to the DNA of the germ cells.

14. (c) Allele is an alternative form of a gene that is located at a specific position on a
specific chromosome.
15. (d) Heredity is the transmission of genetic characters from parents to offspring or
one generation to the next.
16.(c) Nature selects organisms that can breed and produce greater number of
progeny in the next generation. The forces that make available various choices
before nature are genetic recombination (during gametogenesis in sexual
reproduction) and mutations in DNA. These forces generate diversity before nature
and then nature selects the best suited organisms.
17.(b) The eye colour in Drosophila is sex-linked and allele is present on X
chromosome. Thus a red eyed heterozygous female (XXRr) will produce two types of
gametes, i.e., XR and Xr while the white eyed male (XrY) will produce two gametes,
i.e., Xr and Y. The R allele codes for red eye colour and r allele codes for white eye
colour. Y chromosome does not have any allele for eye colour and R is dominant over
r. Hence it will produce half red and half white-eyed females and all white eyed
males in the F1 generation.
18.(c) Evolution is a natural process through which the population of organisms
changes over generations and through which new species can arise. Genetic
variations are the main reason for evolution, which is necessary for the origin of new
species. If genetic variations were not found among members of the population,
then there would be no evolution.
19.(b) Origin of life from inorganic material is not possible at present because of very
high amount of oxygen in the environment.
20.(d) Classification of species is done on the basis of cell design, specialisation of cell
types and tissues and evolutionary relationship.
CASE BASED QUESTIONS ub

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CASE 1:
1.(b) Human beings have 23 pairs of chromosomes.
2. (c) Human males have X and Y chromosomes
3. (b) The possibility of having a girl or boy child i s equal, i.e., 50% as 50% male gametes are
Ex
Y type and 50% are X type.

4. (b) The chromosomes responsible for the determination of sex are called sex
chromosomes or allosomes.
CASE 2:
1.(a) 2 traits were related to flower colour and flower position each and 2 traits were
related to pod.
2. (a) Out of 7 contrasting pairs, 3 were based on colour. These were flower colour, pod
colour and seed colour.
3. (d) All the traits shown in the given figure are correctly placed.
4. (c) The dominant traits selected by Mendel were violet flower colour, green pod colour
and round seed shape.
CASE 3:
1.(b) Evolution doesnot follow a straight path due to progressive and retrogressive
evolution.
2. (d) The old species will disappear due to changes in environment natural selection etc.
3. (d) Favourable mutations, natural selection and adaptability to environment changes
helped the present day species to survive.
4. (a) Variations give rise to evolution.
CASE 4:
1.(c) Since the resulting pea pod has all round seeds, pea plant with round seeds is also
homozygous.
2.(b)
ub
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Ex
From the above crosses, it is clear that Rr × rr will give round and wrinkled seeds in same
proportion.
3.(d) A testcross is used to determine if the genotype of a plant with the dominant
phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous. In this, a dominant phenotype is crossed with
recessive phenotype.
4. (a) On crossing the two heterozygous round seeded (Rr) plants the phenotypic ratio of 3
(round seeded plant) : 1 (wrinkled seeded plant) is obtained. If plants obtained were 1000,
then the number of round and wrinkled plants will be 750 and 250 respectively.
5.(b) The characters which appear in the first filial generation are called recessive
characters.
1. (a) Mendel used statistical analysis and mathematical logics in his experiments. Also, he
performed his experiments successive generations which proved laws of heredity.
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2. (b) Man selects the individuals with desired characters and separates them fro m those
which do not have such characters. The selected individuals are interbred. This process is
termed as artificial selection. By artificial selection, breeders are able to produce improved
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varieties of different kinds of plants and domestic animals.
3. (a) Law of segregation states that the alleles do not show any blending and both the
characters are recovered in next generation. During gamete formation, the alleles of a pair
Ex
segregate from each other such that a gamete receives only one of the two f actors.
4. (c) In XX-XY type of sex determination, males are heterogametic as they contains two
different gametes, X and Y. But in case of birds, ZW -ZZ type - the female is heterogametic (Z
& W chromosomes).
5. (b) Monohybrid cross involves crossing between two individual with homozygous
genotypes or between two monohybrid traits.
LIGHT RELECTION AND REFRACTION
1.Ravi placed an object at a distance of 0.25 m in front of a plane mirror. The distance
between
the object and image will be
a. 1.5 m
b. 0.5 m
c. 1 m
d. 0.20 m
2.Mirror that is used by a dentist to examine a dental cavity is:

a. Plane mirror
b. Convex mirror
c. Combination of concave mirror and convex
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d. Concave mirror
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3.An object that is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror gets its image at the
same point. The focal length of the mirror is
a. –45 cm
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b. 45 cm
c. –15 cm
d. +15 cm
4.For an object that is at a distance of +15 cm and is moved slowly towards the pole of a
convex mirror. The image will get
a. enlarged and real
b. shortened and real
c. enlarge and virtual
d. diminished and virtual
5.A concave mirror of focal length 20 cm forms an image twice the size of object. What will
be the position of the object for the virtual image?
a. 20 cm
b. 30 cm
c. 10 cm
d. At infinity
6.The nature of the image formed by concave mirror when the object is placed between the
focus (F) and centre of curvature (C) of the mirror observed by us is
a. virtual, inverted and diminished
b. virtual, erect and larger in size
c. virtual, upright and enlarged
d. real, inverted and enlarged
7.If a man’s face is 25 cm in front of concave shaving mirror producing erect image 1.5 times
the size of face, focal length of the mirror would be
a. 75 cm
b. 35 cm
c. 25 cm
d. 60 cm
8.When light travels from a rarer to a denser medium it will have

a. decreased velocity and increased wave length.
b. decreased velocity
c. decreased wavelength
d. both (b) and (c) ub
9.The refractive index of transparent medium is greater than one because
a. Speed of light in vaccum < speed of light in transparent medium
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b. Speed flight in vaccum = speed of light in transparent medium
c. Speed of light in vaccum > speed of light in transparent medium
d. Speed of light wave changes when it moves from rarer to denser medium
Ex
10.The refractive index of water is 1.33. The speed of light in water will be
a. 1.33 × 108 m/s
b. 1.5 × 108 m/s
c. 2.26 × 108 m/s
d. 2.66 × 108 m/s
11.Large number of thin stripes of black paint are made on the surface of a convex lens of
focal length 20 cm to catch the image of a white horse. The image will be
a. a horse of black stripes
b. a zebra of black stripes
c. a horse of less brightness
d. a zebra of less brightness
12.As object moves closer to convex lens till the object is near the focus, the image formed
by it shifts
a. away from the lens
b. towards the lens
c. first away and then towards the lens

d. first towards and then away from the lens
13.A magnified real image is formed by a convex lens when the object is at
a. F
b. between F and 2F
c. at the centre of curvature.
d. (a) and (b) both
14.Which of the following statements is/are true?

a. A concave lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
b. A convex lens has –4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
c. A convex lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
d. A concave lens has –4 dioptre having a focal 0.25 m
15.In which of the following, the image of an object placed at infinity will be highly
diminished and point sized?
a. Concave mirror only
b. Convex mirror only
c. Convex lens only
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d. Concave mirror, convex mirror, concave lens and convex lens.
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16.Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?
a. Application of optical fibre
b. Difference between apparent and real depth of pond
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c. Formation of Mirage on hot summer days

d. Brilliance of diamond
17.The stars twinkle in the night, becaus e:

a. They emit light intermittently
b. The star's atmosphere absorbs light intermittently
c. The earth's atmosphere absorbs light intermittently
d. The refractive index of air in atmosphere fluctuates
18.Absolute Refractive index of any medium is

a. speed of light in vaccum/speed of light in the medium
b. speed of light in water/speed of light in the medium.
c. speed of light in the medium/speed of light in air
d. All of these
19.A ray of light propagates from an optically denser medium to an optically rarer medium.
a. It will bend towards the normal after refraction.

b. It will refract in a way such that angle of refraction = angle of incidence.
c. It will continue to go on the same path after refraction.
d. It will bend away from the normal after refraction.
20.Dispersion of light by a glass prism takes place because of

a. difference in wavelengths of the constituents of light
b. difference in speeds of various constituents of white light.
c. scattering of light by the surface of the glass prism
d. Both (a) and (b)
CASE 1:
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The radius of curvature of a convex mirror of a moving automobile is 2.0 m. A truck is
coming behind and is at a distance of 3.5 m.
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1. What is the image distance behind the mirror?
a. 0.48 m
b. 0.24 m
Ex
c. 0.78 m
d. 0.84 m
2. The nature of the image is

a. Diminished and inverted
b. Virtual and erect
c. Virtual and inverted
d. Real and erect
3. The size of the image relative to the size of the truck is

a. 22%
b. 24%
c. 26%
d. 28%
CASE 2:
A converging mirror forms a real image of height 4 cm, of an object of height 1 cm placed 20
cm away from the mirror.
1. The image distance is __________.

a. –80 cm
b. –90 cm
c. –100 cm
d. –110 cm
2. Magnitude of the focal length of the mirror is _ _________.

a. 15 cm
b. 16 cm
c. 17 cm
d. 18 cm
3. The mirror used here is a __________ mirror.

a. concave
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b. convex
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c. plano convex
d. plano concave
Ex
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTION

(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct ex planation
of the Assertion.
(b) Both the Assertion and the Reason both are correct but the Reason is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion.

1. Assertion: From a smooth surface incident light is reflected in only one direction.
Reason: As the angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection, therefore a
parallel beam of rays falling on a smooth surface is reflected as a parallel beam of r ays in
one direction only.
2. Assertion: The word AMBULANCE written on the hospital vans is in the form of its mirror
image.
Reason: The image formed by a plane mirror is not laterally inverted.
3. Assertion: We cannot see the distant objects clearly if suffering from myopia
Reason: The far point of an eye suffering from myopia is less than infinity.
4. Assertion: Pupil of an eyes is black in colour.

Reason: Pupil is black in colour as no light is reflected by it.
5. Assertion: A rainbow is a man made spectrum of sunlight in the sky.

Reason: Generally the rainbow is formed in the sky when the sun is shining and it's raining
at the same time
SOLUTIONS
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1. (b) Distance between object and image
Ex
= 2 × 0.25 = 0.5 m
2.(d) Concave mirror is used by a dentist to examine a small cavity as it forms erect and
enlarged
image when held close to the cavity.
3. (c) When object is placed at 2F, the image formed by concave mirror is also at 2F.
So 2F = -30 or F = -15 cm.
4. (d) Convex mirror always form virtual erect and diminished image when the object move
towards the pole, the image get diminished.
5.(c) For the image virtual to be virtual.

6.(d) When the object lies between C and F, the image formed is real, inverted and enlarged.
7.(a) Image formed by a concave shaving mirror, is virtual erect and large size d, and behind
the mirror
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Ex
8.(d) When the light ray travel from rarer to denser medium, its velocity and wavelength
both decrease as Velocity = frequency × wave length.
9.(c) Refractive index = Speed of light in vacuum /Speed of light in medium
As c > v so, μ > 1.
10.(c) As refractive index μ = c /μ.
11.(c) Complete but less intensity image of the white horse is formed, the light falling on the
curved portion will not react at the image position.
12.(a) As object moves from infinity towards optical centre of the convex lens image is
shifted away from its focal point and towards infinity.
13.(d) When object is placed at 2F, real inverted and same size image is formed by convex
lens. So, according to question option (a) and (b) both are correct.
14.(c) Positive sign with power and focal length indicates that the given lens is convex.
Also f = 1/p = 1/ 4 = 0.25m
15.(d) When the parallel beam of light incident on a mirror or lens, irrespective of their
nature, after reflection/refraction, will pass or appear to pass through their principal focus.
Hence highly diminished and point size image will be formed at their focus.
16.(b) Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond is due to the refraction of
light, not due to total internal reflection.
17.(d) Stars twinkle in the night because the refractive index of air in the atmosphere
fluctuates.
18.(a) Absolute refractive index of a medium = speed of light in vaccum/speed of light in
that medium.
19.(d) A ray of light traveling from optically denser to the optically rarer mediu m will bend
away from the normal.
20.(d) Different constituents of white light have different wavelengths. So, they travel with
different speeds after refraction.
CASE 1:
1.(c) Given Radius of curvature, R = 2.0 m
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From mirror formula We have
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Ex
2.(b)
3. (a) Magnification = -v/u = -0.78/(-3.5) = 0.22
i.e., 22% of the size of the object.
CASE 2:
1.(a) Here h1 = 1 cm, h2 = -4 cm, u = –20 cm

2.(b) Here, we have 1/f = 1/v + 1/u.
3. (a) Negative sign of f indicates that mirror is concave.
1. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the Assertion.
of the Assertion.
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2. (c) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation
3. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation
of the Assertion.
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4. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the Assertion.
5. (d) Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
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THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLORFUL

WORLD
1.The deflection of light by minute particles and molecules of the atmosphere in all direction
is known as.
a. Interference
b. Scattering
c. Dispersion
d. Refraction ub
2.The defective eye of a person has near point 0.5 m and far point 3 m. The power of
corrective lens required for
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(i) seeing distant objects
(ii) reading purpose and
a. 0.2 D and +3D respectively
b. +2D and – 1D 3 respectively
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c. – 2D and + 1D 3 respectively
d. 0.2 D and –3.0 D respectively
3.The clear sky appears to be blue because

a. Blue light gets reflected in the atmosphere.
b. Ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere.
c. Violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the
atmosphere.
d. Light of all other colours is scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights by the
atmosphere.
4.Refraction of light by the earth’s atmosphere due to variation in air density is called
a. Atmospheric refraction
b. Dispersion
c. Scattering
d. Atmospheric reflection
5.The size of the pupil is controlled by the muscular diaphragm called.

a. Iris
b. Ciliary muscles
c. Cornea
d. Rod and cons
6.One cannot see through the fog, because

a. It is an opaque object
b. Light suffers total reflection at droplets
c. Light is scattered by the droplets
d. Fog absorbs light
7.A person is able to see distant object distinctly but cannot see nearby object s clearly this
defect of vision is called
a. Hypermetropia
b. Far-sightedness
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c. Long-sightedness
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d. All of the above
8.When white light enters a prism, it gets split into its constituent colours after entering a
prism. This is due to
Ex
a. Each colours has same velocity in the prism.

b. Different refractive index for different wavelength of each colour
c. Prism material have high density.
d. Scattering of light
9.A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by
using a lens of power
a. +0.9 D
b. –0.2 D
c. +0.2 D
d. –0.5 D
10.The ability of eye lens to adjust its focal length to form a sharp image of the object at
varying distances on the retina is called
a. Converging power of the eye

b. Power of accommodation of the eye
c. Power of adjustment of the eye
d. Diverging power of the eye
11.The black opening between the aqueous humour and the lens is called
a. Ciliary muscles
b. Iris
c. Cornea
d. Pupil
12.The layer of air of atmosphere whose temperature is less then the hot layer behave as
optically
a. Rarer medium
b. Denser medium
c. Inactive medium
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d. Either denser or rarer medium
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13.Hypermetropia is also known as far sightedness as
a. The person is able to see clearly the distant objects, but not near objects
b. The person is not able to see clearly the distant objects, but can see near objects clearly
Ex
c. The person is unable to see the distant or near objects clearly

d. The person is able to see the distant or near objects clearly
14.A person is not able to see nearby objects clearly, because

a. Focal length of the eye lens is too great
b. Image is formed behind the retina
c. Use of convex lens has been ignored, though it was advised
d. All of the above
15.Presbyopia can be corrected by

a. Using binoculars
b. Using microscopes
c. Using bifocal lenses
d. Using sunglasses
16.The far point of a myopic person is 40 cm. To see the distant object clearly, the focal
length and the power of the lens used should be:
a. –40 cm, –2.5 D
b. –25 cm, –4.0 D
c. +40 cm, +2.5 D
d. –40 cm, +2.5 D
17.Iris contracts the pupil

a. In darkness
b. To allow less light to enter
c. In bright light
d. Only (b) and (c)
18.If a person can see an object clearly when it is placed at 25 cm away from him but not
distant objects he is suffering from:
a. Myopia
b. Hyper meteropia
c. Asitgmatism
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d. None of these
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19.Twinkling of stars is caused due to the atmospheric
a. Dispersion of light by water droplets
b. Refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
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c. Reflection of light by dust particles

d. Internal reflection of light by clouds.
20.At noon the sun appears white as

a. Light is least scattered
b. Different colours of the white light are scattered away
c. Blue colour is scattered the most
d. Red colour is scattered the most

CASE 1:
The stars shine in the night sky due to their own light. When we look at a star in the sky on a clear
night, we observe that the intensity of light coming from it changes continuously.
1. Planets does not appear to twinkle because

a. They are very very close to earth
b. They are far away from earth
c. They are small in size
d. None of these
2. When the atmosphere refracts less starlight towards us, then the star appears to be
a. Dim
b. Bright
c. No change
d. None of these
CASE 2:
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Suppose a person is suffering from hypermetropia. The near point of the person is 1.5 m.
The near point of the normal eye is 25 cm.
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1. The focal length of the lens should be
a. 10 cm
b. 30 cm
c. 40 cm
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d. 50 cm
2. Which type of lens should be used in his spectacles

a. Convex
b. Concave
c. Plano concave
d. Plano convex
3. The power of the lens is

a. 3.3 D
b. 2.8 D
c. 1.1 D
d. 4.4 D

of the Assertion.
1. Assertion: Concave mirrors are used as reflectors in, vehicle head-lights, torches and in
search lights.
Reason: When an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the
image formed is real and inverted.
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2. Assertion: When a pencil is partly immersed in water and held obliquely to the surface,
the pencil appears to bend at the water surface.
Reason: The apparent bending of the pencil is due to the refraction of light when it passes
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from water to air.
3. Assertion: Myopia is the defect of vision in which a person cannot see the distant objects
clearly.
Reason: Myopia is due to elongated eye-ball.

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4. Assertion: Small area of the retina which is insensitive to light where the optic nerve
leaves the eye named as blind spot.
Reason: There are no rods or cones present at the junction of optic nerve and retina in the
eye.
5. Assertion: The emergent light ray emerges from a parallel -sided glass slab in a direction
perpendicular with that in which enters the glass slab.
Reason: The perpendicular distance between the incident ray and emergent ray coming out
of glass slab is called lateral displacement of the emergent ray of light.
6. Assertion: The near-point of a myopic eye is more than 25 cm away.
Reason: Myopia is corrected using spectacles of concave lenses.

SOLUTIONS

1.(b) This phenomenon of deflection of light by minute particles and molecules of the
atmosphere in all direction is called scattering of light.
2.(b) For distant objects
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3.(c) Violet and blue colour have shorter wavelength. So, they are scattered more than lights
of other colour by the molecules present in the atmosphere.
4. (a) This phenomena is called atmospheric refraction.
5.(a) Iris is the muscular diaphragm that control the size of pupil.
6. (c) Objects are not visible through the fog because droplets scatter the light rays.
7.(d) Hypermetropia is also called long -sightedness or far-sightedness.
8. (b) Dispersion takes place because refractive index of the material of prism is different for
different wavelength.
9.(d) Person cannot see distant objects clearly. So he is suffering from myopia. The defect is
corrected by using concave lens of power
10.(b) The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called power of accommodation
of the eye.
11.(d) The black opening between the aqueous humour and the eye lens is called pupil.
12. (b) The cold air layer of the atmosphere acts as a optically denser medium than hot air
as the molecules are closely packed together in cold air.
13.(a) Hypermetropia is also known as far sightedness because the person is able to see
clearly the distant objects, but not nearby objects.
14.(d) A person is not able to see near by object as the focal leng th of the eye lens is too
large or the eye ball has shrunk. The image is formed behind the retina and the person faces
difficulty in seeing the near objects clearly.
15.(c) Presbyopia is a condition in which a person is suffering from both myopia and
hypermetropia. It can be corrected by using bifocal lenses in which upper portion is a
concave lens and the lower portion is a convex lens.
16.(a) Given far point of myopic person is 40 cm. Focal length of lens to be used must be
equal to distance of far point.
So, f = –40 cm
(As myopic person needs concave lens so f negative)
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17.(d) Iris contracts the pupil in bright light so as to allow less light to enter.
18.(a) Myopia or short shightedness is the defect of eye where person is not able to see far
off objects and see near by objects clearly.
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19.(b) Twinkling of star is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight caused due to the
gradual change in refractive index of different air layers at different height, the apparent
position of star keeps on changing.
20.(a) At noon, the sun is at the top and the light rays coming from the sun have to travel
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less distance therefore, all colours get scattered very less.
CASE 1:
1.(a) The planets are much closer to the earth and thus can be considered as the extended
source of light. So, fluctuation in the light coming from various points of the planet gets
averaged out due to atmospheric refraction.
2. (a) When the atmosphere refracts less starlight, then the star appears to be dim and
when the atmosphere refracts more star light towards us, the star appears to be bright.
CASE 2:
1.(b) Given, near point (d) = 150 cm

D = 25 cm
v = –150 cm
u = –25 cm
2.(a)Convex lens is used for hypermetropia

3.(a)
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1. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct
2. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct
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explanation of the Assertion..

3 (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct
5. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Rea son is true.
6. (d) Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
ELECTRICITY
1.A fuse wire frequently gets burnt when used with a good heater. It is advised to use a fuse wire of
a. more length
b. less length
c. less radius
d. more radius
2. A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volt and a fan of 1000 W, 200 volt are to be used from a household
supply.
The rating of fuse to be used is
a. 2.5 A
b. 5.0 A
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c. 7.5 A
d. 12.5 A
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3. A device records that 4000 joule of work is required to transfer 10 coulomb of charge between two
points of a resistor of 40 Ω. The current passing through it is
a. 2 A
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b. 4 A
c. 10 A
d. 16 A
4.To obtain 2 Ωresistance using only 6 Ωresistors, the number of them required is
a. 5
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
5.A wire of length l and uniform area of cross-section A has resistance R. Another wire of same
material of length 2l has resistance R. The area of cross-section of this wire will be
a. 3A
b. 3A/2
c. 2A
d. A/2
6.Two resistors joined in series gives net resistance of 10 Ω. When connected in parallel, gives 2.4 Ω.
Then the individual resistances are
a. each of 5 Ω
b. 6 Ωand 4 Ω
c. 9 Ωand 1 Ω
d. 8 Ωand 2 Ω
7. If R1 and R2 be the resistance of the filament of 40 W and 60 W respectively operating at 220 V,

then
a. R1 ≥ R2
b. R2 < R1
c. R1 = R2
d. R1 < R2
8.A wire of length l, made of material of resistivity ρ is cut into two equal parts. The resistivity of the
two divided parts are equal to,
a. ρ/2
b. ρ/3
c. ρ
d. 2 ρ ub
9.A battery of 15 volt carries 200 C of charge through a resistance of 20 Ω. The work done in
10 seconds is
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a. 300 joule
b. 30 joule
c. 3000 joule
d. 3 joule
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10.In an electrical circuit two resistors of 2 Ωand 4 Ωrespectively are connected in series to a 6 V
battery. The heat dissipated by the 2 Ωresistor in 5 s will be
a. 5 J
b. 10 J
c. 20 J
d. 30 J
11.An electric bulb is connected to a 220V generator. The current is 0.50 A. What is the power of the
bulb?
a. 220 W
b. 110 W
c. 55 W
d. 0.0023 W
12.Two resistances are connected between two points say A and B in parallel. The physical quantity
that will remain the same between the two points is
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Resistance
d. None of these
13.If the current I through a resistor is increased by 100 % (assume that temperature remains
unchanged), the increase in power dissipated will be
a. 100%
b. 200%
c. 300 %
d. 350 %
14.The resistivity does not change if

a. the temperature is changed
b. the material is changed
c. the shape of the resistor is changed
d. both material and temperature are changed
15.A wire P is half the diameter and half the length of a wire Q of similar material. The ratio of
resistance of P to that of Q is
a. 8: 1
b. 4: 1
c. 2: 1
d. 1: 1
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16.Potential difference between two points is defined as
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a. The amount of work done in moving a unit charge by a unit distance
b. Distance between two terminals
c. Length of the connecting wire
d. The amount of work done in moving a unit charge between the two points.
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17.Power produced due to flow of current through a conductor is given by the formula
a. P = I2 R
b. P = V I
c. P = V2/R
d. All of the above
18.When two or more resistors are connected in parallel combination,

a. The current passing through each resistor is same
b. The potential difference across each resistor is same
c. Both of the above
19.Alloys are generally used in electrical heating devices because

a. resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of constituent elements
b. alloys do not oxidize readily at high temperature
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
20.In electrical circuits the fuse wire should have
a. High resistance – high melting point

b. Low resistance – high melting point
c. Low resistance – low melting point
d. High resistance – low melting point
CASE 1:
Students performed two experiments. In Experiment 1, they investigated the resistance of a
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small resistor device. In Experiment 2, they investigated the resistance of a small lightbulb.
In Experiment 1, the students measured current through the resistor at various voltage
values between 0 and 20 V. In Experiment 2, the student measured current through the
lightbulb at about 10 voltage values between 0 and 20 V. Figures below show the circuit
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diagrams for both the experiments. The lines connecting the various devices represent wires
whose resistance is negligible.
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1. Find the resistance of the resistor device according to the results obtained in the
experiments.
2. In the second experiment, on comparing 60 W lightbulb with a 75 W lightbulb, which has

more resistance
3. What could be concluded from the given graphs?

a. The resistor device and the lightbulb obeyed Ohm's law.
b. Neither the resistor device nor the lightbulb obeyed Ohm's law.
c. The lightbulb obeyed Ohm's law, but the resistor device did not.
d. The resistor device obeyed Ohm's law, but the lightbulb did not.
4. According to the experimental data what relationships can be described

a. There is no pattern in the relationship between voltage and resistance.
b. If voltage increases, resistance increases.
c. If voltage increases, resistance stays constant.
d. If voltage increase, resistance stays constant.
CASE 2:
Three glowing bulbs of 100 W each are connected in series in an electric circuit. In another
circuit another set of three bulbs of the same wattage are connected in parallel to the same
source.
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1. Which of the following statement is true for the bulbs in two circuits?
a. Brightness of the bulbs in both circuits can not be compared.
b. Bulbs in series combination will glow more brightly.
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c. Bulbs in both circuits glow with the same brightness.

d. Bulbs in parallel combination will glow more brightly.
2. If one of the bulb in both the circuit get fused then
a. The rest of the bulbs in circuit (i) will continue to glow and in circuit (ii) will stop working.
b. The rest of the bulbs in circuits (i) and circuit (ii) will stop working.
c. The rest of the bulbs in circuits (i) and (ii) will continue to glow.
d. The rest of the bulbs in circuit (i) will stop working and in circuit (ii) will continue to glow.
CASE 3:
A hall has two tube lights, a fan and a TV. Each tube light draws 40 W, the fan draws 80 W,
and the TV draws 60 W on the average, the tube lights are kept on for five hours, the fan for
twelve hours and the TV for eight hours every day. The rate for electrical energy is Rs 3.10
per KW h.
1. The energy consumed by each tube light in a day is
a. 0.2 KW h
b. 0.02 kW h
c. 0.3 kW h
d. 0.5 kW h
2. The total energy consumed in a day

a. 1.84 kW h
b. 1.25 kW h
c. 1.75 kW h
d. 1.56 kW h
3. The cost of electricity used in this room in a 30 day month is

a. Rs 175.5
b. Rs 171.12
c. Rs 170.12
d. Rs 160.5
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of the Assertion.
1. Assertion: According to Ohm’s law V = IR

Reason: V = IR is the equation which is applicable to a transistor.
2. Assertion: When a battery is short circuited, the terminal voltage is zero.

Reason: In short circuit, the electric current is zero.
3. Assertion: Conductors allow the current to pass through themselves.

Reason: They have free charge carriers.
4. Assertion: Due to bending of wire, the resistance of electric wire does not change.
Reason: The resistance of a conductor depends on length, thickness, nature of material and
temperature of the conductor.
5. Assertion: In an open circuit, the current passes from one terminal of the electric cell to
another.
Reason: Usually, the metal disc of a cell acts as a negative terminal
SOLUTIONS
1.(d) In order to get the working of heater properly, fused wire of higher rating must be
used.
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2.(d) Total power used, P = P1 + P1 = 1500 + 1000 = 2500 W.
Current drawn from the supply,
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3.(c) Work done in transferring the charge

W= qV = qlR …….. (V = IR)
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4.(b) Three resistors of 6 Ωis required to be connected in parallel to get 2 Ωresistor.

5.(c)
6.(b) In series, Rs = R1 + R2 = 10 Ω
On solving (i) and (ii) we get R 1 = 6 Ωand R2 = 4 Ω

7.(b) Using power, P = V2/R or R = V2/P
For the same voltage, R ∝ 1P

More the power, less the resistance. Accordingly, R2 < R1.

8.(c) Resistivity of the material depends only on the nature of material not dimensions.
9.(c) W= qV= 15 × 200 = 3000 J
10.(b) Total resistance of the combination
Rs = 2 + 4 = 6 Ω
Current, I = V/R = 6/6 = 1
Heat dissipation in 2 Ωresistor,

H = I2Rt= 12 × 2 × 5 = 10 J
11.(b) Here, V = 220 V, I = 0.50 A
∴ Power (P) = VI = 220 x 0.50 = 110 W
12.(b) In parallel combination, voltage remains same across two points.
13.(c) Since, 2 P I ∝
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14.(c) The resistivity does not change if the shape of resistor is changed because nature of
material will remain same.
15.(c)
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16.(d) Electric potential difference between two points on a current carrying conductor is
defined as the work done to move a unit charge from one point to the other.
17.(d) The amount of power generated P = VI = V2/R = I2/R
18.(b) The voltage across each resistor in a parallel combination is equal and is also equal to
the voltage across the whole combination. Total current is the sum of currents flowing in
the individual resistors.
19. (c) Alloys are generally used in electrical heating devices because resistivity of an alloy is
generally higher than that of constituent elements. Alloys do not oxidize readily at hi gh
temperature.
20.(d) In house electrical circuits the fuse wire for safety should be of high resistance and
low melting point.
CASE 1:
1.As resistance R = V/I, V= 8 V, I= 0.25 mA
2. In the domestic circuit the voltage is kept constant, As, P = VI, if V is constant, I increases
as
P increases. Also for large I, R must be smaller.
3. (d) Graph for experiment 1 is linear but for experiment 2 it is non - linear.
4. (b) As V increases the slope of the graph decreases.
CASE 2:
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1.(d) The resistance of the series combination of bulbs will be much higher than that of the
parallel combination hence, the bulbs in the parallel combination will glow more brightly.
2. (d) When one of the bulbs in the series combination gets fused, the circuit gets broken
and no current will flow through the circuit. Hence no bulb will glow. In the parallel
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combination, when one of the bulbs get fused, the other will continue to glow with equal
brightness because each bulb is under the same voltage and draw current independently.
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CASE 3:
1.(a) For each tube light,
2.(a) Energy consumed by tube light per day is = 0.2 kW h

3.(b) Energy consumed per day = 1.84 kW h
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1. (c)
2. (c)
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3. (a)
4. (a)
5. (d)
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MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC

CURRENT
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1.Overloading occurs due to

a. Damage in insulation of wire
b. fault in the appliances
c. accidental hike in supply voltage
d. All of the above
2. Which instrument indicates, the presence of magnetic field?

a. Magnetic Needle
b. Ammeter
c. Galvanometer
d. Rheostat
3. Which is the incorrect statement about the magnetic field lines?

a. Magnetic field lines form a closed loop.
b. Magnetic field line do not interest each other.
c. Tangent to the magnetic field line curve at any point gives the direction of magnetic f ield
at that point.
d. Outside the magnet, magnetic field lines run from South to North pole of the magnet.
4.The pattern of the magnetic field produced by the straight current carrying conducting
wire is
a. In a direction opposite to the direction of current
b. In a direction parallel to the current carrying wire
c. Circular around the wire
d. In the direction of current flowing through the wire
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5.Magnetic polarities of a solenoid can be determined by
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a. Use of compass needle
b. Right hand thumb rule
c. Fleming's left hand rule
d. Either (a) or (b)
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6. A soft iron rod is inserted inside a current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the
solenoid
a. Will decrease
b. Will remains same
c. Will increase
d. Will become zero
7. What indicates the relative strength of magnetic field at a point in the space surrounding
a magnet?
a. Length of the magnet
b. Thickness of the magnet
c. Degree of closeness of the magnetic field lines.
d. Resistance offered by the surroundings
8.Fleming’s left hand rule is used in

a. Electric generator
b. Electric motor
c. DC generator
d. Both for generator and motor.
9.In an electric motor direction of rotation of the coil is determined by

a. Fleming's right hand rule
b. Fleming's left hand rule
c. Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction
d. None of above
10.A.C generator is based on the principle of

a. Force experienced by a charged particle in a magnetic field
b. Electromagnetic induction
c. Electrostatic
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d. Force experienced by a charged particle in an electric field.
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11.A DC generator is based on the principle of

a. Joule's law of heating
b. Ohm's law
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c. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.

d. All of the above
12. Earth wire carries

a. Current
b. Heat
c. No current
d. Potential difference
13.Flow of current in a long straight solenoid creates N-pole and S-pole at the two ends.
Among the following statements, the incorrect statement is
a. The magnetic field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines which
indicates that the magnetic field is the same at all points inside the solenoid.
b. The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece
of magnetic material like soft iron, when placed inside the solenoid.
c. The pattern of the magnetic field lines around a solenoid is different from the pattern of
the magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
d. The N-pole and S-pole are exchanged when the direction of current through the solenoid
is reversed.
14.Commercial electric motors should not use

a. An electromagnet to rotate the armature
b. Large number of turns of conducting wire in the current carrying coil
c. A permanent magnet to rotate the armature
d. A soft iron core on which the coil is wound
15.Which are the main characteristics of fuse wire?

a. High conductivity
b. Low melting point
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c. High melting point
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d. All of the above
16. The magnetic field line passing through the centre of a circular loop carrying current is
a. Circular
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b. Elliptical
c. Parabolic
d. Straight line
17.An AC generator can be converted into DC generator be using

a. Split-ring type commutator
b. Slip rings and brushes
c. A stronger magnetic field
d. A rectangular wire loop
18. Inside the magnet, the field lines run

a. From north to south pole of the magnet
b. From south to north pole of the magnet
c. Away from the south pole
d. Away from the north pole
19.A periodically varying current is called

a. Direct current
b. Alternating current
c. Pulsating current
20.At every point near a current carrying circular loop, the concentric circles representing
the
magnetic fields lines would become
a. Larger and larger as we move away from the wire
b. So large at the centre of circular loop that they look like straight lines
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
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Ex
CASE 1:
The strength of the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying circular coil (or circular
wire) depends on (i) Amount of current flowing through the coil. (ii) Radius of the circular
coil. (iii) Number of turns in the circular coil.
1. What type of curve we get, between magnetic field and distance along the axis of a
current
carrying circular coil?
a. Straight line
b. Circular
c. Parabolic
d. None of these
2. A long horizontal power line is carrying a current of 100 A in the east -west direction. The
direction of magnetic field at a point 1.0 m below it is
a. south to north
b. north to south
c. east to west
d. west to east
3. If a current carrying straight conductor is placed in east-west direction, then the direction
of the force experienced by the conductor due to earth's magnetic field is
a. downward
b. upward
c. east-west
d. west-east
CASE 2:
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An electric fuse is a safety device that prevents overloading of any electrical circuit. A fuse is
always connected in the live wire and in series with the electrical circuit. Fuse wire is made
from low-melting alloy of copper and tin. In urban areas, the conventional cut-out type
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fuses are being replaced by MCB. The maximum current which can be passed through a fuse
without melting it is called its rating.
1. A fuse wire of marking 14 A can with stand current up to ________.

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a. 14 A
b. 15 A
c. 16 A
d. 18 A
2. MCB stands for

a. minute circuit breaker
b. miniature circuit breaker
c. minute current breaker
d. miniature current breaker
3. A Copper wire should not be used as a fuse wire because

a. copper has very high melting point
b. copper has very low resistance
c. copper is very expensive
d. both (a) and (b)

Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternati ve from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the Assertion.
1. Assertion: When the direction of velocity of the moving charge is perpendicular to the
magnetic field, it will experience a maximum force.
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Reason: Force on the moving charge is independent of the direction of the magnetic field in
which it moves.
2. Assertion: It is easier to bring the North pole of a magnet towards the South pole of
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another magnet.
Reason: There is a force of attraction between unlike magnetic poles.
3. Assertion: Fuse is a safety device that is used to prevent electrical circuits and possible
fires.
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Reason: A fuse consists of tin wire having low melting point, due to which it melt s and
breaks the circuit if the current exceeds a safe value.
4. Assertion: It is fatal to touch a live electric wire. In some cases, electric shock can even kill
a person.
Reason: The electric current passes through the body to the earth forming a circu it.
5. Assertion: Strength of an electromagnet depends on the magnitude of current flowing

through it.
Reason: Electromagnets are mainly used to lift heavy weights.
6. Assertion: Steel is used as the core of an electromagnet.
Reason: Steel is permanently magnetised if the current flows through the coil wrapped
around it.
7. Assertion: Only a change in the magnetic field lines linked with coil will induce a current in
the coil.
Reason: The presence of large magnetic flux through the coil maintains a current in a closed
circuit coil.
SOLUTIONS

1. (d) All are the causes of overloading
2. (a) With the help of magnetic field, one can find the presence of magnetic field in a region
by observing its deflection.
3. (d) Outside the magnet, magnetic field line emerges from North -pole and moves towards
south-pole.
4. (c) Magnetic field line around a current carrying straight conductor is represented by
concentric
circles.
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5. (d) both (a) and (b) can be used to determine the polarity of solenoid.
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6. (c) Soft iron inside the current carrying solenoid act as an electromagnet.
7. (c)
8. (b) Electric motor employs Fleming left hand rule whereas for generator. Fleming right -
hand rule is used.
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9. (b) Fleming’s left hand rule.
10. (b) Generator works on principle of electromagnetic induction.
11. (c) electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
12. (c) Earth wire carries no current.
13. (c) A solenoid behaves like a bar magnet. Hence the pattern of magnetic field associated
with solenoid and around the bar magnet is same.
14. (c) Using electromagnet, the magnetic field strength can be further increased by
increasing the current. Hence it will enhance the power.
15. (b)
16. (d) magnetic field line at the centre of current carrying loop appears as a straight line.
17. (a) To convert AC generator into DC generator, split ring type commutation must be
used to get a unidirectional direct current.
18. (b) Magnetic field inside the magnet moves from south to north pole.
19. (b) The alternating current reverse its direction periodically.
20. (c) The concentric circles representing the magnetic field lines become larger and larger.
CASE 1:
1. (d) At smaller distances, the magnetic field will be described by concentric circles around
the wire. As the distance increases, the circles become larger and larger. At the centre of the
loop/coil, the magnetic field will appear as straight line.
2. (b) The current flows in the east-west direction. From right hand thumb rule, we get the
direction of magnetic field as from north to south. The direction of magnetic field will be
same at every point below the power line.
3. (a) The force will act in downward direction perpendicular to both, the direction of
current as well as to the field.
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CASE 2:
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1. (a) If current higher than 14 A flows through the fuse, it would melt and the circuit gets
broken.
2. (b)
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3. (d) Copper wire cannot be used because, i t has very high melting point and very low
resistance.

1. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
5. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct
6. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true. 7. (c) Assertion is true
but the Reason is false.
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Sci Booklet Exhub Class 9

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1 ExpHub 9th & 10th – an initiative by your Prashant Bhaiya

1. 20 Best most expected MCQ

3. Assertion and Reason Based

8. HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION

10. THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLORFUL WORLD

MOST EXPECTED MCQ QUESTIONS

1. Silver jewellery becomes black on prolonged exposure to air, it is due to the

3. Identify the type of reaction taking place in Fe + CuSO4 → Cu + FeSO4

5. Which of the following compound is known as freon?

7. A substance ‘X’ is used in white-washing and is obtained by heating

8. What happens when copper rod is dipped in iron sulphate solution?

9. AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3 (aq). This reaction is

10. What happens when ferrous sulphate crystals are heated?

11. Chemically the 'water gas' is

12. A neutralization reaction is a

14. A substance X reacts with another substance Y to produce the product Z

that is formed remains in the solution. The reaction is an example of

Which of these statements(s) is/are correct?

20. Which of these statements(s) is/are correct?

CASE BASED ( Competency Based Questions )

1. In which of the following reactions hydrogen peroxide will act as a reducing

a. Oxidising nature of H2O2

3. In presence of acidic medium Mn7+ changes to Mn2+, it is

a. Ammonia (NH3) is produced by Haber’s process for industrial use.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

Industrial preparation of nitric acid by ostwald’s process

b. 4NO2(g) + O2(g) + 2H2O(l) → 4HNO3(aq)

(i) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

C2H4(g) + H2O(g) → CH3CH2OH(l)

1. Which of the given process involves only combination reaction of elements?

2. Which of the given process will involve the combination reaction of

1.Write the chemical formula of X.

2.Write the name of product Y

3. Write the chemical name of Z.

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A:

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

2. Assertion: Corrosion of iron is called as rusting.

Reason: Corrosion of iron occurs in presence of air and water.

3. Assertion: In the given reaction, Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s) Zn acts as a

Reason: The above chemical reaction is an example of an exothermic reaction.

5. Assertion: Photosynthesis is considered as an example of an endothermic reaction.

Reason: In the process of photosynthesis, energ y gets released.

2.(a) Fe + H2O + O2 → Fe2O3.xH2O

3.(d) Displacement reactions are redox in nature.

5.(a)Chloro-fluoro carbons (CFCs) are called freons.

6.(c) Zinc nitrate is formed in the reaction Zn + 2AgNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + 2Ag

11.(d) Water gas → CO + H2

15.(d) CuSO4 + H2S → CuS + H2SO4 is an example of double decomposition type of

19. (d) All the statements given are correct.

20. (b) Rusting of iron is an example of oxidation reaction.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

3.(b) Mn7+ changes to Mn2+ by gaining 5 electrons (reduction).

i.e. NO2, H2O with element oxygen.

3.(c) Combination of ethylene and water produces ethyl alcohol

2.(b) Carbon dioxide-Y

3.(c) Calcium carbonate

Assertion & Reason Type Questions

Hg 2 Cl 2 + SnCl 2 → 2Hg + SnCl 4 (grey ppt)

5. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. Photosynthesis process is known as an

ACID, BASES AND SALTS

MOST EXPECTED MCQ QUESTIONS