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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-01
Physics

Based on Q.41. (Drift Velocity) Then ratio of drift velocity of free electrons in left

1. What is total linear momentum of electrons in rod to drift velocity of electrons in right rod is

a conductor of length 1000 m carrying current

of 7 A?
(1) 4 × 10–7 N s (2) 4 × 10–8 N s
(3) 3. 5 × 10–3 N s (4) 106 N s
(1) 4 (2) 2
2. How much time would be taken by an electron
to move a distance of 1000 m in conducting wire 1
(3) (4) 1
2
of cross-section 1 mm2, if it carries a current of
1.5 A? (n = 1028 m–3) Based on Q.43. (Potentiometer)
(1) 2 × 104 s (2) 3 ×103 s
1. A potentiometer wire of length 10 m and
(3) 3.5 × 103 s (4) 106 s
resistance of 6 Ω is connected in series with an
3. Consider a conductor, a length 40 cm and a ideal cell of emf 2V. If rheostat of range 0-10 Ω
potential difference of 10 volt is maintained is used in series with the cell, what is maximum
between the ends of conductor. If the mobility of potential gradient of the wire?
electron is 2 × 10–7 m2/Vs. What is its drift
velocity? (1) 0.25 V/m (2) 0.125 V/m

(1) 5 × 10–6 m/s (2) 3 × 10–6 m/s (3) 0.33 V/m (4) 0. 2 V/m
(3) 4 × 10–6 m/s (4) 2× 10–6 m/s
2. A 2.0 volt potentiometer is used to
4. In a wire of cross-section radius r, free electrons
determine internal resistance of a 1.5 volt
travel with drift velocity v, when current I flows
cell. The balance point of cell in open
through wire. What is current in another wire of
circuit is 75 cm. When a resistor of 10 Ω is
half radius and same material when drift velocity
connected across cell, the balance point
is 2v?
shifts to 60 cm. Internal resistance of a cell
(1) 2I (2) 3I is?
I I
(3) (4) (1) 1.5 Ω (2) 2.0 Ω
2 4

5. Two cylindrical rods of uniform cross-section. A (3) 2.5 Ω (4) 3.5 Ω

and 2A, having free electrons per unit volume
3. In a potentiometer circuit in figure E1 and E2 are
2n and n respectively are joined end to end. A
emf of cell C1 and C2 respectively with E1 > E2 ,
current I flows through them in steady state.

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CSS-01 Physics

cell C1 has negligible internal resistance. For

given resistance R the balance point is x. Which
of the following statement is incorrect.?

(1) at 1.2 m from end A

(2) at 1.4 m from end A

(3) at 2.4 m from end B

(1) At balance point the potential difference
between A and D = E2 (4) Is not possible on wire AB

(2) When diameter of wire is increased balance Based on Q.44 (Effective Resistivity)

length X will increase.

1.
(3) If wire AB is not changed but value of R is
decreased balance length will decrease
(4) When diameter of wire is increased,
balance length x will decrease
If σ1, σ2, and σ3 are conductance of three
conductors of equal cross-section and length
then their equivalent conductance σ when they
are joined in series will be
(1) σ = σ1 + σ2 + σ3

4. A battery of emf Eo = 5V and internal resistance 5Ω σ1 + σ2 + σ3

(2) σ =
is connected across a long uniform wire AB of 3

length 1 m and resistance per unit length 5Ω m–1.

1 1 1 1 1
Two cell of emf E1 = 1V and E2 = 2V are (3) =  + + 
σ 3  σ1 σ2 σ3 
connected as shown in figure
σ1σ2σ2
(4) σ =
σ1 + σ2 + σ3

2. Two wires of same dimension but resistivities 4 ×

10–4 Ω m and 16 × 10–4 Ω m are connected in
series. The equivalent resistivity of combination
will be
(1) Null point is between point A and B
(1) 6.4 × 10–4 Ω m (2) 10 × 10–4 Ω m
(2) If jockey is touched to point B, the current in
galvanometer will be going towards B. (3) 3.2 × 10–4 Ω m (4) 5 × 10–4 Ω m

(3) When jokey is connected to A, no current is 3. A wire has conductivity of 5 × 106 mho m–1 and
flowing through 1 V battery. cross-sectional area of 2 × 10–2 m2 and other
wire of conductivity 15 × 106 mho m–1 and cross-
(4) The null point is at end B.
sectional area 3 × 10–2 m2 are joined in
5. In the potentiometer circuit, potentiometer wire
parallel. What is their equivalent conductivity, if
has length of 4 m and resistance of 20Ω. The
both wires are of same length
driver cell is 6 volt with internal resistance of 1Ω.
The balance point on wire is (1) 16 × 106 mho m–1 (2) 11 × 106 mho m–1

(3) 7.5 × 106 mho m–1 (4) 2.5 × 106 mho m–1

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CSS-01 Physics

4. Two conductive layers of length L each, 4. In the above question (3) electric field intensity
conductivities σ1 and σ2 and cross-sectional at distance r (r > R) from centre is
ρR 2 ρR 3
areas A1 and A2 respectively are connected to (1) (2)
ε0 r 2 2r 2ε0
a voltage source V such that current in flowing
ρR 3 ρR 3
lines don’t cross from one layer to another. (3) (4)
3r 2 ε 0 ε0 r 2
What is total current?
5. In a uniformly charged conducting sphere
V V
(1) 2 ( σ1A1 + σ2 A2 ) (2) ( σ1A1 + σ2 A2 ) electric field intensity is zero
L L
(1) Only at centre of sphere
2
L V (2) At each point inside sphere
(3) ( σ1L1 + σ2L2 ) (4) ( σ1A2 + σ2 A1 )
V L (3) Only outside the sphere
5. Regarding resistivity of material, which of the (4) Both inside and outside sphere.
following is incorrect? Q.26. (Flow of charge in capacitors)
1. Resistivity is inversely proportional to 1. Initially switch S is open in the given circuit. If
number density switch is closed then to obtain steady state
again
2. Resistivity is inversely proportional to
relaxation time
3. Resistivity is inversely proportional to charge
flowing
4. Resistivity is independent of cross-sectional
area of conductor
Q.19. (Electric field due to conductor)
1. A hollow charged conductor has surface charge CV
(1) Charge flows from A to B
4
density σ. n̂ is the unit vector in outward normal
CV
direction. A tiny hole is cut into its surface. Then (2) Charge flows from B to A
4
the electric field just outside hole is
CV
(3) Charge flows A to B
σ 2
(1) Zero (2) n̂
ε0
CV
(4) Charge flows from B to A
σ σ 2
(3) n̂ (4) – nˆ
2ε0 2ε0 2. Initially switch S is closed in the given circuit. If
switch is opened then to obtain steady state
2. In the above question electric field just inside the
again
hole is
σ
(1) Zero (2) n̂
ε0

σ σ
(3) n̂ (4) – nˆ
2ε0 2ε0

3. A non conducting sphere of radius R having

uniform volume charge density ρ. The electric 3CV
(1) Charge flows from A to B
field intensity at distance r(r < R) from centre of 4

sphere. 3CV
(2) Charge flows from B to A
4
ρr ρ
(1) (2) CV
3ε 0 3ε 0 r (3) Charge flows from A to B
4
ρr ρr 2 CV
(3) (4) (4) Charge flows from B to A
ε0 2ε0 4

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CSS-01 Physics

3. In the circuit shown in figure initially switch is 1. The figure shows n cells each of emf E. If 2 cells
open, charge flows on closing the switch to are connected with reverse polarity. Then net
obtain steady again is em.f. between A and B is

(1) nE (2) (n – 2) E
(3) (n – 4) E (4) Zero
(1) 20 µC flows from A to B 2. The figure shows n cells each emf E and
(2) 20 µC flows from B to A internal resistance r. If 2 cells are connected
(3) 10 µC flows from A to B with reverse polarity then effective e.m.f. and

(4) 10 µC flows from B to A internal resistance are respectively between A

and B
4. In the circuit shown in figure charge flows on
closing the switch to obtain steady state again

(1) nE, nr
(2) (n – 2) E, nr
(3) (n – 4) E, (n – 4)r
(4) (n – 4)E, nr
(1) 15 µC from A to B 3. In the circuit shown in figure e.m.f. of each cell
(2) 15 µC from B to A is 10V and internal resistance is 1Ω. The current

(3) 10 µC from A to B flowing in 4Ω resistance is

(4) 10 µC from B to A
5. In the circuit as shown in figure charge flows on
closing the switch to obtain steady state again

(1) 5A (2) 2.5 A

20 10
(3) A (4) A
3 3
4. Find the e.m.f. and internal resistance of a
single battery between A and B which is

(1) 10 µC from A to B equivalent to combination of three batteries

shown in figure.
(2) 10 µC from B to A

(3) 20 µC from A to B

(4) 20 µC from B to A
Q.40. (Cells in series)
(1) 12V, 2Ω (2) 12 V, 5Ω

(3) 3 V, 2Ω (4) 9V, 2Ω

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CSS-01 Physics

Q.1. (Electrostatic field line) (2) All the points in same plane perpendicular
1. Which of the following statement is correct to electric field may have difference
about the electrostatic field line potential

(1) Always continuous (3) Potential in the direction electric field

(2) Continuous if there is a charge at that point continuously increase

(3) Discontinuous only if there is a negative (4) Both (3) and (4)

charge at that point Q.4. (Electric field due to electric dipole)

(4) Discontinuous if there is charge at that point 1. A small dipole of dipole moment p is kept at the

2. Which of the following statement is correct centre of a ring of radius a the dipole moment

about electrostatic field line due to point charge has direction along the axis of the ring. The
electric field at the any point of circumference of
(1) It will be perpendicular to the spherical
the ring will be
surface whose centre coincide with the
point charge p 2p
(1) (2)
4πε0a3 4πε0a3
(2) It will be perpendicular to planer surface
(3) It will be uniform 2p
(3) (4) Zero
4πε0a 2
(4) Both (1) and (3)
2. A small dipole of dipole moment p is kept at the
3. Choose the correct statement about the
centre of a ring of radius a and uniformly
equipotential surface for the uniform electric
distributed charge q. The dipole moment has
field as shown figure
direction along the axis of ring. The electrostatic
potential energy or ring will be

pq 2 pq
(1) (2)
4πε0a 2 4πε0a 2

2 pq
(3) (4) Zero
4πε0a3
(1) Spherical (2) Planner
3. A short electric dipole of dipole moment p is
(3) Circular (4) Cylindrical
kept along the axis of a ring of radius a as
4. Three points A, B and C lies in uniform electric
shown in figure. If a charge q is uniformly
field as shown in figure. If VA, VB and Vc are the
distributed on the ring. Then electric potential
respective potential of these point, then choose
energy of the ring will be
the correct option

(1) VA > VB > VC

(2) VA < VB < VC
(3) VA > VB = VC
(1) VA = VB = VC
pq pa
(1) (2)
5. In a uniform electric field 4 2πεoa 2 4πεoa 2
(1) All the points in same plane perpendicular
pq
(3) (4) Zero
to electric field have same potential 2 2πεoa 2

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CSS-01 Physics

4. A charge q is placed on a line which is making 3. The electric field at a distance r from the centre
an angle 45° with the electric dipole having of the uniformly charged solid sphere having
dipole moment p as shown in the figure. The net volume charge density ρ and radius R will be (r
electric force on the charge will be < R)

ρ ρ
(1) r (2) r
2ε0 3ε o

ρ ρ
(3) r (4) r
εo 4ε o

5 pq 5 pq 4. Electric potential inside the cavity of uniformly

(1) (2)
4πεoa3 4 2πεoa3 charges solid sphere

7 pq 7 pq (1) Non-uniform
(3) (4)
4πεoa3 4 2πεoa3 (2) Uniform
5. The ratio of electric field at the axial position to
(3) Zero
the equatorial position of an small electric dipole
(4) Same as the outer surface of the conductor
is
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1:1 Q.8. (Coulomb's law)

(3) 2 : 3 (4) 4:1 1. The unit of electric permittivity (εo) of free space
Q.5. (Electric Field) is
1. Electric field inside the charged solid conductor (1) coulomb2/ (newton-metre)2
is (2) coulomb / newton-metre
(1) Non-uniform (3) newton-metre2/columb2
(2) Uniform non-zero (4) coulomb2/ newton-metre2
(3) Zero
 1 
2. The dimensional formula of  k =  is
(4) Same of the surface of the conductor  4πε0 
2. A uniformly change solid sphere of volume
(1) ML3A–2T– 4 (2) ML2A–1T–1
charge density ρ having cavity as shown in the
(3) MLT–2A–1 (4) ML2A–2T–2
figure. The magnitude of electric field intensity
3. The dimensional formula of dielectric constant
at the point P will be
(K) is
(1) ML3A–1T (2) ML2A–2T
(3) ML2A–2T–2 (4) M°L°T°
4. The unit of electric field strength is
(1) newtons-coulomb

(2) newtons/coulomb
ρ   ρ
(1) r2 – r1 (2) r2 newton-metre
3ε 0 3ε o (3)
coulomb
ρ
(3) r1 (4) Zero newton-metre2
3ε o (4)
coulumb

  

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CSS-01 Physics

Based on
AIATS-01

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CSS-01
Physics
ANSWERS

Q.41. (Drift Velocity) Q.40. (Cell in series)

1. (2) 1. (3)
2. (4) 2. (4)
3. (1) 3. (2)
4. (3) 4. (3)
5. (4) Q.1.(Electric field line)
Q.43. (Potentiometer) 1. (4)
1. (4)
2. (1)
2. (3)
3. (2)
3. (4)
4. (2) 4. (3)
5. (4) 5. (1)
Q.44. (Effective Resistivity)
Q.4. (Electric field due to electric dipole)
1. (3)
1. (1)
2. (2)
3. (2) 2. (4)
4. (2) 3. (1)
5. (3) 4. (2)
Q.19. (Electric field due to conductor)
5. (1)
1. (3)
2. (4) Q.5. (Electric field)
3. (1) 1. (3)
4. (3) 2. (3)
5. (2)
3. (2)
Q.26. (Flow of charge in capacitors)
4. (1)
1. (2)
Q.8. (Coulomb's law)
2. (1)
1. (4)
3. (4)
2. (1)
4. (2)
3. (4)
5. (2)
4. (2)

  

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 CF+OYM Based on
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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-01
Chemistry
Q.83. (Reduction potential of hydrogen electrode) 2. If ΛEo (Al+3) and ΛEo (Cl–) are x and y respectively
1. For which of the hydrogen electrode, half cell
then ΛEo AlCl3 will be
potential is negative?
(1) x + y (2) x + 3y
(1) H+(aq, 1M) || H2 (g, 1 bar) | Pt(s)
x+y
(2) H+(aq, 1M) || H2 (g, 0.1 bar) | Pt(s) (3) (4) 3x + y
3
(3) H+(aq, 0.1M) || H2 (g, 1 bar) | Pt(s)
3. The ratio of Λm0 and ΛE0 for Al2(SO4)3 is
(4) H+(aq, 2M) || H2 (g, 1 bar) | Pt(s)
2. The reduction potential of hydrogen electrode at 2 3
(1) (2)
3 2
298 K containing 0.1 M H+ is ( pH2 = 0.01 atm)
6 1
(1) 0 V (2) –0.1 V (3) (4)
1 6
(3) –0.059 V (4) 0.059 V
4. Select the correct option among the following for
3. Electrode potential of hydrogen depend on
CaCl2 at infinite dilution
(1) Concentration of H+(aq)
(1) ( Λm0 )CaCl2 = ( Λm0 )Ca2+ + ( Λ m0 )Cl–
(2) Partial pressure of H2(g)
(3) Temperature (2) ( Λm0 )CaCl2 = 2 × ( ΛE0 )CaCl2

(4) All of these (3) ( ΛE0 )CaCl2 =( ΛE0 )Ca2+ + 2( ΛE0 )Cl–
4. The reduction potential of H-electrode at TK
( Λm0 )Cl–
containing 10–2 M H+ is ( pH2 = 1 atm) (4) ( ΛE0 )CaCl2 =
( Λm0 )Ca2+ +
2
RT –4.606 RT 5. Λ for Ca3 (PO4 )2 is
0
(1) (2) E
F F
(1) ( Λm0 )Ca2+ + ( Λm0 )PO3–
2RT –2.303 RT 4
(3) (4)
F F (2) 3( Λm0 )Ca2+ + 2( Λm0 )PO3–
4
5. Which of the following is/are true for standard
(3) ( ΛE0 )Ca2+ + ( ΛE0 )PO3–
hydrogen electrode? 4

(1) [H+] = 1 M (2) T = 298 K (4) 3( ΛE0 )Ca2+ + 2( ΛE0 )PO3–

4

(3) [pH2] = 1 bar (4) All of these

Q.89. (Gibbs energy and Ecell)
Q.88. (Equivalent conductance)
1. Standard free energies of formation (in J/mol) is
1. For which of electrolyte at infinite dilution Λmo is
–x for H2O (l). The value of E°cell for H2–O2 fuel cell
equal to Λ ? o
E is
(1) NaCl (2) CaCl2 2F x
(1) (2)
(3) AlCl3 (4) H2SO4 x 2F

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CSS-01 Chemistry

–2x x Q.69. (Vapour pressure of solution)

(3) (4) –
F 2F 1. Which of the following will result in the increase in
2. For positive E°cell which of the following is/are true the vapour pressure of aqueous solution
(1) ∆G° < 0 (2) Keq > 1 (1) Addition of more non volatile solute
(3) ∆G < 0 (4) Both (1) and (2) (2) Addition of water
3. At equilibrium, which of the following is/are true (3) Decreasing temperature
(1) ∆G = 0 (2) K = 0 (4) All of these
(3) E°cell = 0 (4) All of these 2. Which of the following statement is true regarding
4. Select the correct statement regarding fuel cell the vapoure pressure of resultant solution made by
(1) Fuel cells are galvanic cells mixing 0.1 m and 0.2 m aqueous NaOH solution in
(2) Fuel cell converts energy of combustion of fuel equal volume?
into electrical energy (1) Greater than the vapour pressure of both the
(3) Fuel cells are highly efficient solutions
(4) All of these (2) Greater than the vapour pressure of 0.2 m
5. A fuel cell works when solution
(1) ∆G < 0 (2) ∆G = 0 (3) Greater than the vapour pressure of 0.1 m
(3) ∆G > 0 (4) Both (2) and (3) solution.

Q.68. (Mole fraction) (4) Less than the vapour pressure of both the

1. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 g of 3 molal solution

solution is 3. Among the following, the 0.1 m aqueous solution

(1) 1 (2) 2 the lowest vapour pressure is of

(3) 3 (4) 5 (1) NaCl (2) K4[Fe(CN)6]

2. If an aqueous solution containing 30% (w/w) (3) CaCl2 (4) AlCl3

HCOOH, then mole fraction of HCOOH is 4. When non volatile solute is added to pure water

(1) 0.146 (2) 0.240 then vapour pressure of solution decreases 4%

(3) 0.332 (4) 0.764 that vapour pressure of pure water. Then molality

3. A gaseous mixture contains equal mass of CH4 of solution will be

and SO2. The mole fraction of CH4 in the mixture (1) 1.12 m (2) 2.31 m

is (3) 1.0 m (4) 3.02 m

1 4 5. One diluting a solution containing non volatile

(1) (2)
4 5 solute. Which of the following is/are true

1 2 (1) Vapour pressure increases

(3) (4)
2 5 (2) Boiling point decreases
4. Molality of aq. NaOH solution having mole fraction (3) Freezing point increases
of NaOH = 0.1 is (4) All of these

500 272 Q.81. (Order of Reaction)

(1) (2)
81 67 1. Consider the conversion of O3 into O2 as
421 620 (i) O3  O2 + [O] (fast)
(3) (4)
71 47 (ii) O3 + [O]  2O2 (slow)
5. 300 g of 25 % by mass of NaCl solution mixed with One doubling the concentration of O3 the rate of
200 g of 40 % by mass of NaCl solution then overall reaction becomes
calculate. Molality of resulting solution (1) 1 times (2) 2 times
(1) 10.5 m (2) 7.6 m (3) 3 times (4) 4 times
(3) 5.2 m (4) 1.52 m

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CSS-01 Chemistry

2. For a reaction 2A + 3B → C, if rate of reaction is (3) mol1–nLn–1s–1 (4) moln–1Ln–1s–1

k[A]2 then which of the following is true 5. Rate constant of a reaction depends on
(1) Order of reaction with respect to A is 2 (1) Temperature (2) Activation energy
(2) Order of reaction with respect to B is 0 (3) Concentration (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Overall order of reaction is 5 Q.63. (Electrical and magnetic properties of solids)
(4) Both (1) and (2) 1. n-type semiconductor is obtained by doping silicon
3. Formation of C from A2(g) and B2(g) involves the with
following steps (1) P (2) As
A2 + B2 → 2AB (fast) (3) Ga (4) Both (1) and (2)

AB + A2 → C (slow) 2. Which among the following oxide(s) behave(s) like

The order of reaction will be metal?

(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) TiO (2) CrO2

(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) ReO3 (4) All of these

4. Calculate the order of reaction for decomposition 3. Ferrimagnetic substance among the following is

of a gaseous substance, from the following data. (1) CrO2 (2) Fe

P(mmHg) : 700 300 600 (3) Fe3O4 (4) Co

t 1 (sec) : 350 150 300 4. Which among the following is/are insulator(s)?
2
(1) Gold (2) Diamond
(1) Zero order (2) First order
(3) Germanium (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) Second order (4) Third order
5. Antiferromagnetic substance among the following
5. 1 mole of gas is present in a container and the rate
is
of reaction is r. If same mole is taken in a other
(1) MnO (2) Ni
container having volume half of the first container
(3) NaCl (4) ZnFe2O4
then new rate becomes 2r. The order of reaction
Q.65. (Calculation based on unit cell dimension)
is.
1. A metal forms bcc lattice. If the edge length of unit
(1) Zero order
cell is 450 pm then the diameter of the metal atom
(2) First order
is nearly
(3) Second order
(1) 225 pm (2) 320 pm
(4) Third order
(3) 390 pm (4) 292 pm
Q.61. (Rate Constant and Order of a Reaction)
2. A metal forms fcc lattice. If edge length of unit cell
1. Unit of rate of reaction for zero order reaction is
is 400 pm and density of crystal is 4 g cm–3 then
(1) mol L–1s–1 (2) L mol–1s–1
molar mass of the metal will be (NA = 6.0 × 1023)
(3) mol–1 L–1s (4) mol L s–1
(1) 79 g (2) 27 g
2. If rate constant of a reaction is 2.5 × 10–3 s–1 then
(3) 38.4 g (4) 55.6 g
the order of the reaction is
3. Percentage of free space in a bcc unit cell is
(1) Zero order (2) First order
(1) 52 % (2) 48 %
(3) Second order (4) Third order
(3) 32 % (4) 26 %
3. Overall order of the reaction for the given rate
4. The number of atoms of a metal in 80 g of a fcc
expression is
crystal with density 5 g/cm3 and cell edge length
Rate = [A]2 [B]–3/2
200 pm is equal to
(1) Second order (2) Halt order
(1) 8 × 1024 (2) 4 × 1025
(3) Zero order (4) First order
(3) 8 × 1026 (4) 4 × 1026
4. Unit of rate constant for nth order reaction is
(1) mol–nLns–1 (2) mol1–nL–1s–1

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CSS-01 Chemistry

5. An element (molar mass 56 g/mol) having bcc (1) 12.2 g cm–3 (2) 6.9 g cm–3
lattice structure has unit cell edge length 300 pm. (3) 3.5 g cm–3 (4) 8.1 g cm–3
The density of the element is (NA = 6.0 × 1023)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-01 (Chemistry)
Answers Key
Q.83. (Reduction potential of hydrogen electrode) 3. (2)
1. (3) 4. (2)
2. (1) 5. (4)
3. (4) Q.81. (Order of Reaction)
4. (2) 1. (2)
5. (4) 2. (4)
Q.88. (Equivalent conductance) 3. (3)
1. (1) 4. (1)
2. (1) 5. (2)
3. (3) Q.61. (Rate Constant and Order of a Reaction)
4. (2) 1. (1)
5. (3) 2. (2)
Q.89. (Gibbs energy and Ecell) 3. (2)
1. (4) 4. (3)
2. (4) 5. (4)
3. (1) Q.63. (Electrical and magnetic properties of solids)
4. (4) 1. (4)
5. (1) 2. (4)
3. (3)
Q.68. (Mole fraction) 4. (2)
1. (3) 5. (1)
2. (1) Q.65. (Calculation based on unit cell dimension)
3. (2) 1. (3)
4. (1) 2. (3)
5. (2) 3. (3)
Q.69. (Vapour pressure of solution) 4. (1)
1. (2) 5. (2)
2. (2)

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Q.120 (Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants: (3) Reductional cell division
Pre-fertilisation-structures and Events) (4) Both (1) & (2)
1. The pollen tube can enter the ovule through 2. Offsprings produced by the asexual reproduction
a) Integument (1) Are exact copies of each other and their
b) Micropyle parents
c) Chalaza (2) Are dissimilar among each other
(1) (a) only (2) All (a),(b) and (c) (3) Are dissimilar from their parents
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (b) only (4) Both (2) & (3)
2. In an angiospermic ovule, the embryo sac is 3. Which of the given plant is known as “Terror of
located Bengal” ?
(1) In the nucellus region (1) Eichhornia (2) Pistia
(2) Between outer and inner integuments (3) Hydrilla (4) Vallisneria
(3) Towards chalazal pole 4. All of the given are true w.r.t Eichhornia (water
(4) In the funicle hyacinth), except
3. The entry of pollen tube into the embryo sac is (1) Drains oxygen from water
guided by (2) Leads to death of fishes and other aquatic
(1) Egg cell (2) Antipodal cells animals
(3) Secondary nucleus (4) Filiform apparatus (3) Grow in standing water
4. In most of the flowering plants, pollen tube enters (4) Vegetatively propagates by sucker
the ovule through Q.125 (Reproduction in Organism: Sexual
(1) Micropyle (2) Integument reproduction)
(3) Funicle (4) Chalaza 1. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t “Inter
5. Read the following statements and choose the flowering phase”
option which is true for them. (1) Is seen in monocarpic plant
Statement-1: Irrespective of the place of entry of (2) Is a part of mature phase
pollen tube into ovule, the tube enters embryo sac (3) Is a period between two flowering phases
at micropylar end. (4) Is not shown by all perennial plants
Statement-2: Synergids are present towards the 2. All of the given perennial plants show inter
micropylar end of ovule. flowering phase, except
(1) Only statement-1 is correct. (1) Mango (2) Apple
(2) Only statement-2 is correct. (3) Jackfruit (4) Bamboo
(3) Both the statements are correct 3. Select the correct statements.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect (1) All annual plants are monocarpic
Q.107 (Reproduction in Organisms: Asexual (2) All biennial plants are monocarpic
reproduction) (3) All perennial plants are monocarpic
1. Asexual reproduction involves (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Only mitotic division
(2) Only meiotic division

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4. All of the given are biennial plants, except B. An egg apparatus contains 2 synergids and
(1) Radish (2) Rice one
egg
(3) Carrot (4) Henbane (1) Only A is true
5. Which of the given perennial plants is (2) Only B is true
monocarpic? (3) Both A & B are true
(1) Strobilanthus kunthiana (4) Both A & B are false
(2) China rose 4. Select the incorrect match.
(3) Grape vine (1) Egg apparatus – 2 synergids + 1 egg
(4) Orange (2) Embryo sac - 3 celled egg apparatus
Q.115 (Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants: (3) Central cell - largest cell of embryo sac
Pre-fertilisation events-structure & events) (4) Embryo sac - 3 celled 3 nucleate
1. In majority of angiosperms embryo sac is
(1) 7 celled – 8 nucleated 5. Identify the incorrect option.
(2) 8 celled – 7 nucleated (1) Egg apparatus - n+n+n ploidy of 3 different
(3) 7 celled – 7 nucleated cells
(4) 8 celled – 8 nucleated (2) Embryo sac - 3+1+3 arrangement of cells
2. The 3 cells in embryo sac at chalazal end are (3) Polar nuclei - n+n ploidy
(1) Antipodal cells (2) Synergid cells (4) Embryo sac - 7 cells with binucleate egg
(3) Central cells
Q.133 (Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants:
(4) Egg cells
Pre-fertilisation events)
3. Synergid cells are present at
1. Fragrance of flower
(1) Chalazal end
(1) Provide the nutrition to insects
(2) Micropylar end
(2) Attracts the insects towards flower
(3) Outside the inner integument
(3) Has no role in pollination
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Are found in wind pollinated flowers
4. Largest cell of embryo sac is
2. Pollen grains perform all the roles given below
(1) Central cell (2) Synergid cell
except
(3) Egg cell (4) Antipodal cell
(1) Pollen grains are male gametophytes
Q.103 (Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants:
(2) They have food reserve
Pre-fertilisation structure & events)
(3) They function as reward for insects
1. In majority of angiosperms embryo sac is
(4) They have no nutritional value
(1) 7 celled (2) 8 celled
(3) 5 celled (4) 3 celled 3. Which of the following flowers provide a safe
2. In typical angiosperm A celled egg apparatus place to lay the eggs for insects?
is found inside B celled embryo sac. (1) Amorphophallus (2) Yucca
Complete the statement by choosing correct
option for A & B. (3) Vallisneria (4) Both (1) and (2)
A B 4. Which of the following is not true w.r.t nectar of
(1) 7 3 flowers?
(2) 3 7
(3) 3 8 (1) It has nutritional value
(4) 8 3 (2) It is a reward for pollinators
3. Read the following statements & choose the (3) It is not helpful in pollination
correct option.
(4) Attract the insect and birds by its smell
A. An egg apparatus of embryo sac has 2+1
arrangement of cells.

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ANSWERS

Q.120 (Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants: Q.115 (Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants:
Pre-fertilisation-structures and Events) Pre-fertilisation events-structure & events)
1. (2) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2. (1)
3. (4) 3. (2)
4. (1) 4. (1)
5. (3) Q.103 (Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants:
Q.107 (Reproduction in Organisms: Asexual Pre-fertilisation structure & events)
reproduction) 1. (1)
1. (1) 2. (2)
2. (1) 3. (3)
3. (1) 4. (4)
4. (4) 5. (4)
Q.125 (Reproduction in Organism: Sexual Q.133 (Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants:
reproduction) Pre-fertilisation events)
1. (1) 1. (2)
2. (4) 2 (4)
3. (4) 3 (4)
4. (2) 4. (3)
5. (1)

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Q.153. [Menstrual Cycle] 4. The hormone that facilitates parturition by
1. Ovulation occurs from softening the connective tissue of pubic symphysis
(1) Uterus (2) Fallopian tube is.
(3) Ovary (4) Cervical canal (1) Progesterone (2) Relaxin
2. Female’s accessory reproductive ducts include all (3) Prolactin (4) hCG
except 5. Placental hormones do not include
(1) Ovary (2) Fallopian tube (1) Chorionic thyrotropin
(3) Uterus (4) Cervical canal (2) Relaxin
3. Capacitation of sperms takes place in (3) Chorionic corticotropin
(1) Epididymis (2) Seminiferous tubules (4) Prolactin
(3) Vas deferens (4) Female genital tract Q.165. [Female Reproduction System]
4. Implantation of human embryo occurs normally in 1. Paired folds of tissue under the labia majora are
(1) Fallopian tube (2) Uterus called
(3) Vagina (4) Cervical canal (1) Mons pubis (2) Hymen
5. Fertilisation of ovum takes place in (3) Vagina (4) Labia minora
(1) Uterus (2) Ovary 2. The opening of the vagina is often covered partially
(3) Fallopian tube (4) Vagina by a membrane called
Q.157. [Fertilisation and Implantation] (1) Mons pubis (2) Hymen
1. hCG and hPL are secreted by (3) Labia majora (4) Labia minora
(1) Leydig cells (2) Placenta 3. The _____ is a tiny finger-like structure which lies
(3) Ovary (4) Pituitary gland at the upper junction of the two labia minora above
2. All of the given hormones are found in non- the urethral opening. Choose the option that fills
pregnant female except the blank correctly
(1) Prolactin (2) Estrogen (1) Hymen (2) Mons pubis
(3) hPL (4) Progesterone (3) Clitoris (4) Labia minora
3. Select the odd one w.r.t. hormones secreted by 4. Which of the following is a cushion of fatty tissue
placenta for the maintenance of pregnancy covered by skin and pubic hair?
(1) hCG (2) Progesterone (1) Clitoris (2) Labia minora
(3) hPL (4) Oxytocin (3) Mons pubis (4) Hymen
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5. _____ extends down from mons pubis and 4. Attachment of embryo with uterine wall is called
surrounds the vaginal opening. Choose the option (1) Parturition (2) Pregnancy
that fills the blank correctly (3) Implantation (4) Capacitation
(1) Clitoris (2) Labia majora 5. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. parturition
(3) Hymen (4) Cervix (1) Release of CRH
Q.158. [Human Reproduction (Gametogenesis] (2) Increase in oestrogen and progesterone ratio
1. Inhibin inhibits secretion of FSH by acting directly (3) Foetal ejection reflex to initiate parturition
on (4) Increase in progesterone to inhibit oestrogen
(1) Adenohypophysis (2) Neurohypophysis secretion
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Ovarian follicles Q.166. [Fallopian tube (Oviducts)]
2. Which of the following hormone is not GnRH 1. The funnel shaped part of oviduct closer to the
inhibitor? ovary is called
(1) Prolactin (2) Testosterone (1) Infundibulum (2) Ampulla
(3) Progesterone (4) Inhibin (3) Isthmus (4) Fimbriae
3. Neurogenic hormones of hypothalamus regulate 2. Finger like projections that help in collection of
synthesis of all of the following hormones except ovum after ovulation is called
(1) FSH (2) LH (1) Fimbriae (2) Infundibulum
(3) Inhibin (4) Prolactin (3) Ampulla (4) Isthmus
4. Choose the option which fills the blank correctly 3. The infundibulum leads to a wider part of the
to complete the analogy oviduct called
Inhibin in females: granulosa cells :: inhibin in (1) Ampulla (2) Isthmus
males :: _____ (3) Uterus (4) Fundus
(1) Leydig cells (2) Sertoli cells 4. The last and narrow part of oviduct having narrow
(3) Meiocyte (4) Primary spermatocyte lumen that links it to the uterus is called
5. Select the incorrect statement (1) Isthmus (2) Ampulla
(1) Inhibin regulates secretion of FSH by directly (3) Infundibulum (4) Fimbriae
acting on pituitary gland 5. Complete the analogy
(2) Inhibin is not GnRH inhibitor Oviductal funnel : infundibulum :: finger like
(3) It is synthesized from Leydig cells projection : _____
(4) Inhibin is a glycoprotein hormone Choose the correct option
Q.164. [Human Reproduction (Parturition)] (1) Fimbriae (2) Ampulla
1. Delivery of foetus is called (3) Isthmus (4) Fundus
(1) Parturition (2) Labour Q.171. [Gametogenesis]
(3) Pregnancy (4) Watering 1. If the sperm count of normal adult human is 300
2. Mucus plug is formed during pregnancy due to million per ejaculation, how many sperms must
more secretion of have normal shape and size per ejaculate for
(1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone normal fertility?
(3) Relaxin (4) Prolactin (1) 180 million (2) 240 million
3. All of the following are functions of hormone (3) 360 million (4) 72 million
progesterone except 2. For normal fertility, at least what percentage of
(1) Formation of mucus plug sperms must have normal shape and size per
(2) Maintenance of uterine lining ejaculate?
(3) Maintaining pregnancy (1) 40% (2) 60%
(4) Parturition (3) 10% (4) 50%
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3. 200 million per ejaculate is the sperm count of a 4. Which of the following involves production of
normal healthy man. How many sperms must have gametes but not fertilization?
normal shape and size for normal fertility per (1) Formation of zygote (2) Identical twins
ejaculation? (3) Parthenogenesis (4) Syngamy
(1) 180 million per ejaculate 5. Identical twins cannot be considered as clones
(2) 150 million per ejaculate because they are
(3) 120 million per ejaculate (1) Morphologically similar but genetically different.
(4) 100 million per ejaculate (2) Morphologically different but genetically similar.
4. If a person ejaculates 250 million sperms per (3) Products of sexual reproduction.
ejaculate, how many sperms must have normal (4) Products of asexual reproduction.
size shape and vigorous motility for normal Q.169. [Spermatogenesis]
fertility? 1. During spermatogenesis the product of the 1st
(1) 60 million sperms/ejaculate meiotic division is
(2) 150 million sperms/ejaculate (1) Primary spermatocyte
(3) 100 million sperms/ejaculate (2) Secondary spermatocyte
(4) 150 million sperms/ejaculate (3) Spermatogonia
5. During coitus, a normal human male ejaculates (4) Spermatozoa
semen into female genital tract comprising nearly 2. During spermatogenesis the product of the 2nd
(1) 200-300 million sperms meiotic division is
(2) 50-100 million sperms (1) Spermatogonia
(3) 100-150 million sperms (2) Primary spermatocyte
(4) 48-72 million sperms (3) Secondary spermatocyte
Q.140. [Sexual Reproduction] (4) Spermatids
1. Clones are produced by 3. Primary spermatocytes are formed from
(1) Fertilization of one male and one female spermatogonia by
gamete (1) 1st meiotic division
(2) Asexual reproduction (2) 2nd meiotic division
(3) Sexual reproduction (3) Differentiation
(4) Fertilization of two female gametes (4) Meiosis followed by mitosis
2. Asexual reproduction is 4. How many sperms are formed from one primary
(1) Either uniparental or biparental spermatocyte?
(2) Neither uniparental nor biparental (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) Always biparental (3) 8 (4) 10
(4) Always uniparental 5. One spermatogonium produces A primary
3. Which of the following are morphologically and spermatocytes and B sperms. Choose the option
genetically similar but produced by sexual that fills the blank correctly.
reproduction only? A B
(1) Identical twins (1) 1 4
(2) Non-identical twins (2) 4 1
(3) Clones (3) 2 8
(4) All siblings (4) 4 2

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ANSWER KEY
Q.153. [Menstrual Cycle]
1. (3) Q.166. [Fallopian tube (Oviducts)]
2. (1) 1. (1)
3. (4) 2. (1)
4. (2) 3. (1)
5. (3) 4. (1)
5. (1)
Q.157. [Fertilisation and Implantation]
1. (2) Q.171. [Gametogenesis]
2. (3) 1. (1)
3. (4) 2. (2)
4. (2) 3. (3)
5. (4) 4. (1)
5. (1)
Q.165. [Female Reproduction System]
1. (4) Q.140. [Sexual Reproduction]
2. (2) 1. (2)
3. (3) 2. (4)
4. (3) 3. (1)
5. (2) 4. (3)
5. (3)
Q.158. [Human Reproduction (Gametogenesis]
1. (1) Q.169. [Spermatogenesis]
2. (4) 1. (2)
3. (3) 2. (4)
4. (2) 3. (3)
5. (3) 4. (2)
5. (1)
Q.164. [Human Reproduction (Parturition)]
1. (1)
2. (2)
3. (4)
4. (3)
5. (4)

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