Professional Documents
Culture Documents
LP3M-PB UNSIQ
(TOEFL PREPARATION)
2
Listening
Comprehension
(PBT – Paper Based Test)
Listening Section is the first section in the Toefl Test. It consists of 50 questions that are
divided into three parts; Part A, Part B, and Part C. The duration for listening section is 35
minutes. In the listening sections, you will hear type of short conversation and long
conversation as well as long academic lecturers. The questions progress from easy to
difficult. Therefore, it would be important to learn the strategies for Listening
Comprehension beforehand.
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1. Be familiar with the directions. The directions on every paper TOEFL test are
the same, so it is not necessary to spend time reading the directions carefully
when you take the test. You should be completely familiar with the directions
before the day of the test.
2. Listen carefully to the passages. You should concentrate fully on what the
speakers are saying on the recording because you will hear the recording one
time only.
3. Know where the easier and the more difficult questions are generally
found. Within each part of the Listening Comprehensions section on the paper
test, the questions generally progress from easy to difficult.
4. Be familiar with the pacing of the test. You have 12 seconds between each
question on the recording, so you must answer each question within 12 seconds
and then be prepared for the next questions on the recording.
5. Never leave any answers blank on your answer sheet. Even if you are not
sure of the correct response, you should answer each question. There is no
penalty for guessing.
6. Use any remaining time to look ahead at the answers to the questions that
follow. When you finish with one question, you may have time to look ahead at
the answers to the next question.
SHORT DIALOGUES
Short dialogues are found in Part A in the Listening Comprehension section of the paper
TOEFL test. For each of the question in this part of the test, you will hear a two-line
dialogue between two speakers followed by a multiple-choice question. After you listen to
the dialogue and the question, you must choose the best answer to the question from your
test book.
In the dialogue, when the woman says I’ll say, she is showing that she agrees with what
the man just said. Answer (C) is therefore the best answer to this question.
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1. As you listen to the short dialogue, focus on the second line of the
conversation.
2. Keep in mind that the correct answer is probably a restatement of a key word or
idea in the second line of the dialogue.
3. Keep in mind that these questions generally progress from easy to difficult.
4. Never leave the answers blank. Remember to answer each question even if
you are not sure of the correct response.
5. Choose the answer that contains a restatement of words or ideas from the
dialogue you heard.
6. If you do not understand anything at all in the second line of the conversation,
choose the answer that sounds the most different from what you heard.
7. Never choose an answer because it sounds like what you heard in the
dialogue.
8. Be prepared for the next question because you have only 12 seconds between
questions.
The short dialogues involve conversation between two people, each followed by a
question. It is important to understand that the answer to this type of question is most
often (but not always!) found in the last line of the conversation.
Often the correct answer in a short dialogue is an answer that contains synonyms (words
with similar meanings but different sounds) for key words in the conversation.
Often the incorrect answers in the short dialogues are answers that contain words with
similar sounds but very different meanings from what you hear on the recording. You
should definitely avoid these answers.
In this type of question the answer is not clearly stated; instead you must draw a
conclusion based on clues given in the dialogue.
(woman) Can you tell me what assignments I missed when I was absent from your
class?
(man) You missed one homework assignment and a quiz.
(narrator) Who is the man?
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(woman) Are you going to read those books here in the library?
(man) I think I’d rather check them out now and take them home.
(narrator) What will the man probably do next?
Example and practice to determine where the conversation probably takes place:
(woman) Are you going into the water, or are you just going to lie there on the sand?
(man) I think I need to put on some suntan lotion
(narrator) Where does this conversation probably take place?
When there is more than one noun in a sentence in the short dialogues, it is common for
the answers to confuse which noun does what.
Negative expressions are very common in the short dialogue, and the most common kind
of correct response to a negative statement is a positive statement containing a word with
an opposite meaning.
(man) How did they get to their grandmother’s house in Maine in only five hours?
(woman) They didn’t drive slowly on the trip to Maine.
(narrator) What does the woman say about the trip?
The following chart outlines the types of negative expressions that you should be careful
of:
It is possible for two negative ideas to appear in one sentence, and the result can be quite
confusing.
(man) I can’t believe the news that I heard about the concert.
(woman) Well, it isn’t impossible for the concert to take place.
(narrator) What does the woman say about the concert?
The following chart outlines the situations where double negatives can occur:
DOUBLE NEGATIVES
Situation Example Meaning
negative word (e.g. not,
did not like unclean office =
no, none) and a negative He didn’t like the unclean office.
liked clean office
prefix (e.g. in-, un-, dis-)
It isn’t snowing, so they aren’t implies that they would go if
two negatives verbs
going to the mountains. it were snowing
Sue didn’t like the movie, and
neither or not … either both did not like the movie
neither did Mark
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Certain expressions in English have “almost negative” meanings. These expressions are
common in the short dialogues.
Negatives can be used with comparatives in the short dialogues of the TOEFL test. A
sentence with a negative and a comparative has a superlative, or very strong, meaning.
The following chart outlines comparisons that you should be careful of when they are used
with negatives:
The important idea to remember about wishes is that a wish implies that the opposite of
the wish is true.
(woman) It’s too bad that you have to stay here and work during the school break.
(man) I really wish I could go with you and the others to Palm Springs.
(narrator) What does the man mean?
Conversations containing conditions can appear in the short dialogues. The important
idea to remember about conditions is that a condition implies that the opposite of the
condition is true.
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Idioms are special expressions in a language that all speakers of the language know;
these expressions describe one situation in life but are applied to many different areas of
life.
LONG CONVERSATIONS
1. If you have time, preview the answers to the questions. While you are looking at the
answers, you should try to do the following:
Anticipate the topics of the conversations you will hear
Anticipate the questions for each of the groups of answers
2. Listen carefully to the first line of the conversation. The first line of the conversation
often contains the main idea, subject, or topic of the conversation, and you will be
often be asked to answer such questions.
3. As you listen to the conversation, draw conclusions about the situation of the
conversation: who is talking, where the conversation takes place, when the
conversation takes place.
4. As you listen to the conversation, follow along with the answers in your test book
and try to determine the correct answers. Detail questions are generally answered in
order in the conversation, and the answers often sound the same as what is said on
the recording.
5. You should guess even if you are not sure. Never leave any answers blank.
6. Use any remaining time to look ahead at the answers to the questions that follow.
A helpful strategy is to look briefly at the answers in the test book, before you actually
hear the conversations on the recording, and try to determine the topics of the
conversations that you will hear.
______________________________________________________________________
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1. Questions: _________________________________________________________
(A) In the airport
(B) In the library
(C) In the dormitory
(D) In the travel agent’s office
2. Questions: __________________________________________________________
(A) Every morning
(B) Afternoon and weekends
(C) When he’s in class
(D) Weekdays
As you listen to each long conversation, you should be thinking about the topic (subject)
or main idea for each conversation. Since the first one or two sentences generally give the
topic, you should be asking yourself what the topic is while you’re listening carefully to the
first part of the conversation.
You think:
The topic of the conversation is ____________________________________________
As you listen to each long conversation, you should be trying to set the situation in your
mind. You should be thinking the following thoughts: Who is talking? When does the
conversation probably take place? Where does the conversation probably take place?
What is the source of information for the conversation?
There are two possible methods to use while you listen to a long conversation:
You can just listen to the conversation (and ignore the answers)
You can follow along with the answers while you listen
(man) Can I help you? In your test book, you read (same time):
(woman) I’m interested in opening an
account. 1. (A) A checking account
(man) Well, we have several different (B) A savings account
types of accounts: checking (C) A money market account
accounts, saving accounts, (D) A time deposit account
money market accounts, time
deposit accounts.
(woman) It’s a checking account that I
am interested in.
(man) I can help you with that. First, 2. (A) A form
you have to fill out a form, and (B) An account
then I need to see some (C) A piece of identification
identification. (D) A check
That’s about all there is to it.
(woman) That sounds easy enough.
Thanks for your help.
On the recording, you hear:
LONG TALKS
1. If you have time, preview the answers to the questions. While you are looking at the
answers, you should try to do the following:
Anticipate the topics of the talks you will hear
Anticipate the questions for each of the groups of answers
2. Listen carefully to the first line of the talk. The first line of the talk often contains the
main idea, subject, or topic of the conversation, and you will be often be asked to
answer such questions.
3. As you listen to the talk, draw conclusions about the situation of the talk: who is
talking, where or when the talk takes place, which course this lecture might be given
in. You will often be asked to make such inferences about the talk.
4. As you listen to the talk, follow along with the answers in your test book and try to
determine the correct answers. Detail questions are generally answered in order in
the talk, and the answers often sound the same as what is said on the recording.
5. You should guess even if you are not sure. Never leave any answers blank.
6. Use any remaining time to look ahead at the answers to the questions that follow.
A helpful strategy is to look briefly at the answers in the test book, before you actually
hear the talks on the recording, and try to determine the topics of the talks that you will
hear. Of course, you cannot always determine exactly what the topic is, but you often can
get a general idea.
______________________________________________________________________
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1. Question: ___________________________________________________________
(A) During a biology laboratory session
(B) In a biology study group
(C) On the first day of class
(D) Just before the final exam
2. Question: ___________________________________________________________
(A) Once a week
(B) Two times a week
(C) Three times a week
(D) For fifteen hours
As you listen to each long talk, you should be thinking about the topic (subject) or main
idea for the talk. Since the first sentence is generally give a topic sentence, you should be
asking yourself what the topic is while you’re listening carefully to the first part of the talk.
(man) The major earthquake that occurred east of Los Angeles in 1971 is still affecting
the economy of the area today.
You think:
As you listen to each long talk, you should be trying to set the situation in your mind. You
should be thinking the following thoughts: Who is talking? When does the conversation
probably take place? Where does the conversation probably take place? What course is
the talk concerned with? What is the source of information for the conversation?
(woman) The next stop on tour of Atlanta will be the original home of Coca-Cola, at 107
Marietta Street. Coca-Cola was manufactured at this location until early in
September of 1888.
You think:
Who is probably talking? ( _________________________ )
Where are they? ( _________________________ )
When does the talk take place? ( _________________________ )
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There are two possible methods to use while you listen to a long talk:
You can just listen to the conversation (and ignore the answers)
You can follow along with the answers while you listen
(woman) The Great Chicago Fire began In your test book, you read (same time):
on October 8, 1871, and
according to legend began 1. (A) In a barn
when a cow knocked over a (B) In Mrs. O’Leary’s home
lantern in Mrs. O’Leary’s barn. (C) In a cow pasture
No matter how it began, it was (D) In a lantern factory
a disastrous fire. The
preceding summer had been
exceedingly dry in the Chicago 2. (A) The dry weather prior to the fire
area, and the extreme dryness made it worse.
accompanied by Chicago’s (B) It happened during the summer.
infamous winds created an (C) Chicago’s wind made it worse.
inferno that destroyed 18,000 (D) It killed many people
buildings and killed more than
300 people before it was
extinguished the following day.
* * * * *
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There are 40 questions that must be answered in 25 minutes. The questions are all
multiple-choice with four possible answer divided in two parts. Part A consists of 15
incomplete sentences in which you have to choose the correct choice in order to complete
the sentences. Part B consists of 25 incorrect sentences with four underlined
words/phrases marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). You have to choose one word or phrase that
must be changed to correct the sentence – meaning that you have to recognize the error
in order to answer correctly.
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1. North American Indian tribes used sign language _____ with tribes that spoke a
different language or dialect.
(A) to communicating
(B) for communicate
(C) to communicate
(D) for communicated
2. A barometer is a device with a sealed metal chamber designed to reading the changes
(A) (B) (C)
in the pressure of air in the atmosphere.
(D)
An auxiliary verb (e.g. be, have, a modal) is a verb that accompanies the main verb and
makes distinctions in the meaning of the main verb.
3. On the average, a healthy heart _____ to pump five tablespoons of blood with every
beat.
(A) must
(B) ought
(C) can
(D) should
4. Fred Astaire is said to had been the most popular dancer of his time, but he was also
(A) (B) (C)
a talented actor, singer, and choreographer.
(D)
A noun is a word that names persons, objects, and ideas. Countable nouns are nouns that
can be made plural by –s, -es, or an irregular form; and used in agreement with either
singular or plural verbs. Uncountable nouns are those that cannot be made plural in these
ways; and used in agreement with singular verbs.
6. One of the most distinctive plant found in the desert is the Saguaro cactus.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A pronoun is a word that can be used instead of a noun, usually to avoid repeating the
noun. It can be singular/plural, feminine/masculine/neuter, first/second/third person to
agree with the noun to which it refers. It also used to express possessive and reflexives.
7. The crime rate has begun to decline in New York City due to efforts on the part of both
government and private citizens to curb _____.
(A) them
(B) him
(C) its
(D) it
8. Sloths spend most of its time hanging upside down from trees and feeding on leaves
(A) (B) (C)
and fruit.
(D)
9. The data on the winter migration patterns of the monarch butterfly is very ______.
(A) interested
(B) interest
(C) interesting
(D) of interest
10. The conversations on the TOEFL will be spoken just one time; therefore, you must
(A)
listen very careful in order to understand what the speakers have said.
(B) (C) (D)
11. Tuition at an American university runs _____ twenty thousand dollars a semester.
(A) so high as (C) as high as
(B) as high to (D) as high than
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12. Benjamin Franklin was the editor of the larger newspaper in the colonies, a diplomatic
(A) (B)
representative to France and later to England, and the inventor of many useful
(C) (D)
devices.
13. The tendency to develop cancer, even in high-risk individuals, can be decreased
_____ the amount of fruit and vegetables in the diet.
(A) to increase (C) for increasing
(B) for increase (D) by increasing
14. National parks include not only the most scenic places in the nation but places
(A) (B) (C)
distinguished for their historic or scientific interest.
(D)
In some questions in the PBT Structure and Written Expression, you will be asked to
distinguish between a sentence, also called a main/independent clause, and a
subordinate/dependent clause that is attached to a sentence.
15. Paper money _____ by the Continental Congress in order to finance the American
Revolution.
(A) which was issued
(B) was issuing
(C) issued
(D) was issued
16. Ocean currents that help transfer heat from the equator to the poles, thereby creating
(A) (B) (C)
a more balanced global environment.
(D)
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Point of view is the relationship between the verb in the main clause of a sentence and
other verbs, or between the verbs in a sentence and the adverbs that express time.
17. Before the 1800s, when William Young made different shoes for right and left feet,
shoes _____ on either foot.
(A) can wear (C) could be worn
(B) are wearing (D) worn
18. Dew usually disappeared by seven o’clock in the morning when the sun comes up.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
19. How many musical notes of the 11,000 tones that the human ear can distinguish
_____ in the musical scale?
(A) it is (C) there are
(B) is it (D) are there
20. In order to grow well, the Blue Spruce, like other pine trees, require a temperate
(A) (B) (C) (D)
climate.
In some questions, you will be asked to identify errors in introductory verbal modifiers and
the subjects that they modify. Introductory verbal modifiers are –ing forms, participles, and
infinitives. A phrase with an introductory verbal modifier occurs at the beginning of a
sentence and is followed by a comma. The subject modified by an introductory verbal
modifier must follow the comma.
22. After reviewing the curriculum, several significant changes were made by the faculty in
(A) (B) (C) (D)
traditional business programs at Harvard University.
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Parallel structure is the use of the same grammatical structures for related ideas of equal
importance. Related ideas of equal importance often occur in the form of a list. Sometimes
related ideas of equal importance are connected by conjunctions, such as and, but, and
or.
24. To control quality and making decisions about production are among the many
(A) (B) (C) (D)
responsibilities of an industrial engineer.
25. Found in and near the Mohave Desert, _____ has a limited habitat.
(A) is the Joshua tree that it
(B) it is the Joshua tree
(C) the Joshua tree
(D) the Joshua tree it
26. Some international students use a cassette recorder to make tapes of their classes
(A) (B)
so that they can repeat the lecture again.
(C) (D)
28. Although the weather in Martha’s Vineyard isn’t _____ to have a year-round tourist
season, it has become a favorite summer resort.
(A) goodly enough (C) good as enough
(B) good enough (D) enough good
29. According to the wave theory, _____ population of the America may have been the
result of a number of separate migrations.
(A) the (C) that
(B) their (D) whose
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30. Calculus, _____ elegant and economical symbolic system, can reduce complex
problems to simple terms.
(A) it is an (C) an
(B) that an (D) is an
31. Canada does not require that U.S. citizens obtain passports to enter the country, and
_____.
(A) Mexico does neither (C) neither Mexico does
(B) Mexico doesn’t either (D) either does Mexico
32. Fast-food restaurants have become popular because many working people want
_____.
(A) to eat quickly and cheaply (C) eat quickly and cheaply
(B) eating quickly and cheaply (D) the eat quickly and cheaply
34. _____, Carl Sandburg is also well-known for his multivolume biography of Lincoln.
(A) An eminent American poet
(B) He is an eminent American poet
(C) An eminent American poet who is
(D) Despite an eminent American poet
36. A swarm of locusts is responsible the consumption of enough plant material to feed a
(A) (B) (C)
million and a half people.
(D)
37. Oyster farming has been practice in most parts of the world for many years.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
38. It was Shirley Temple Black which represented her country in the United Nations and
(A) (B) (C)
later became an ambassador.
(D)
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39. After a team of geologists had drawn diagrams in their notebooks and wrote
(A) (B)
explanations of the formations which they had observed, they returned to their
(C)
campsite to compare notes.
(D)
40. Some methods to prevent soil erosion are plowing parallel with the slopes of hills,
(A) (B) (C)
to plant trees on unproductive land, and rotating crops.
(D)
* * * * *
26
Reading
(PBT – Paper Based Test)
Reading Comprehension is the third section on the paper TOEFL test. In this section,
there are five passages and fifty questions must be completed within fifty five minutes.
The passage progress from easy to difficult, and the questions are presented in the order
in which they appear in the passage.
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1. Be familiar with the directions. The directions on every paper TOEFL test
are the same, so it is not necessary to spend time reading the directions
carefully when you take the test. You should be completely familiar with the
directions before the day of the test.
2. Do not spend too much time reading the passage. You do not have time
to read each passage in depth, and it is quite possible to answer the
questions correctly without first reading the passages in depth.
3. Do not worry if a reading passage is on a topic you are unfamiliar with.
All of the information that you need to answer the questions is included in the
passages. You do not need any background knowledge to answer the
questions.
4. Do not spend too much time on a question you are unsure of. If you do
not know the answer to a question, simply guess and go on. You can return to
this question later in the section if you have time.
5. Guess to complete the section before time is up. There is no penalty for
guessing, so it can only increase your score to guess the answers to
questions that you do not have time to complete.
1. Skim the reading passage to determine the main idea and the overall
organization of ideas in the passage. You do not need to understand every
detail in each passage to answer the questions correctly. It is therefore a
waste of time to read the passage with the intent of understanding every
single detail before you try to answer the questions.
2. Look ahead at the questions to determine what language skills are
being tested in the questions. Questions related to different language skills
are answered in the different ways.
3. Find the section of the passage that deals with each question. The
language skill tells you exactly where to look in the passage to find correct
answers.
4. Read the part of the passage that contains the answer carefully. The
answer will probably be in a very predictable place in the passage.
5. Choose the best answer to each question from the four choices listed in
your test book. You can choose the best answer according to what is given
in the appropriate section of the passage, eliminate definitely wrong answers,
and mark your best guess in the answer sheet.
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Passage One:
Fort Knox, Kentucky, is the site of a U.S. army post, but it is even more renowned
for the Forth Knox Bullion Depository, the massive vault that contains the bulk of the U.S.
government’s gold deposits. Completed in 1936, the vault is housed in a two story building
constructed of granite, steel, and concrete; the vault itself is made of steel and concrete
and has a door that weighs more than twenty tons. Naturally, the most up-to-date security
devices available are in place at Fort Knox, and the army post nearby provides further
protection.
2. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) The Massive Concrete Vault
(B) Fort Knox Security
(C) Where the United States Keeps Its Gold
(D) A Visit to Kentucky
Passage Two:
causing positive changes to occur. Managers who hold an interactionist view of conflict
may actually take steps to stimulate conflict within the organization.
Passage Three:
Ice ages, those periods when ice covered extensive areas of the Earth, are known
to have occurred at least six times. Past ice ages can be recognized from rock strata that
show evidence of foreign materials deposited by moving walls of ice or melting glaciers.
Ice ages can also be recognized from land formations that have been produced from
moving walls of ice, such as U-shaped valleys, sculptured landscapes, and polished rock
faces.
5. The passage covers how many different methods of recognizing past ice ages?
(A) One (C) Three
(B) Two (D) Four
Passage Four:
Blood plasma is a clear, almost colorless liquid. It consists of blood from which the
red and white blood cells have been removed. It is often used in transfusions because a
patient generally needs the plasma portion of the blood more than the other components.
Plasma differs in several important ways from whole blood. First of all, plasma can
be mixed for all donors and does not have to be from the right blood group, whole blood
does. In addition, plasma can be dried and stored, while whole blood cannot.
6. All of the following are true about blood plasma EXCEPT that
(A) it is a deeply colored liquid
(B) blood cells have been taken out of it
(C) patients are often transfused with it
(D) it is generally more important to the patient than other parts of whole blood
Passage Five:
The full moon that occurs nearest the equinox of the Sun has become known as
the harvest moon. It is a bright moon which allows farmers to work late into the night for
several nights; they can work when the moon is at its brightest to bring in the fall harvest.
The harvest moon, of course, occurs at different times of the year in the northern and
southern hemisphere. In the northern hemisphere, the harvest moon occurs in September
at the time o autumnal equinox. In the southern hemisphere, the harvest moon occurs in
March at the time of the vernal equinox.
Passage Six:
Eskimos need efficient and adequate means to travel across water in that the
areas where they live are surrounded by oceans, bays, and inlets and dotted with lakes
and seas. Two different types of boats have been developed by the Eskimos, each
constructed to meet specific needs.
The kayak is something like a canoe that has been covered by a deck. A kayak is
generally constructed with one opening in the deck for one rider; however, some kayaks
are made for two. Because the deck of kayak is covered over except for the hole (or
holes) for its rider (or riders), a kayak can tip over in the water and roll back up without
filling with water and sinking. One of the primary uses of the kayak is for hunting.
The umiak is not closed over as is the kayak. Instead it is an open boat that is built
to hold ten to twelve passengers. Eskimos have numerous uses for the umiak which
reflect the size of the boat, e.g. the umiak is used to haul belongings from campsite to
campsite, and it is used for hunting larger animals that are too big to be hunted in kayak.
10. It can be inferred from the passage that an example of the animals mentioned
might be
(A) a kangaroo (C) a whale
(B) a snake (D) a salmon
Passage Seven:
12. The paragraph following this passage most likely contains information on what?
(A) The popularity of science
(B) The program Cosmos
(C) The astronomer Carl Sagan
(D) Topics and issues from various fields of science
Passage Eight:
The teddy bear is a child’s toy, a nice soft stuffed animal suitable for
cuddling. It is, however, a toy with an interesting history behind it.
Theodore Roosevelt, or Teddy as he was commonly called, was president
of the United States from 1901 to 1909. He was an unusually active man with
Line 5 varied pastimes, one of which was hunting. One day the president was invited
to take part in a bear hunt; and inasmuch as Teddy was president, his hosts
wanted to ensure that he caught a bear. A bear was captured, clanked over
the head to knock it out, and tied to a tree; however, Teddy, who really wanted
to hunt a bear, refused to shoot the bear and, in fact, demanded that the bear
Line 10 be extricated from the ropes; that is; he demanded that the bear be set free.
The incident attracted a lot of attention among journalists. First a cartoon –
drawn by Clifford K. Berryman to make fun of this situation – appeared in the
Washington Post, and the cartoon was widely distributed and reprinted
throughout the country. Then toy manufacturers began producing a toy bear
Line 15 which they called a “teddy bear.” The teddy bear became the most widely
recognized symbol of Roosevelt’s presidency.
Examples of questions:
The word “X” in line Y is closest in meaning to…
Passage Nine:
Ring Lardner was born into a wealthy, educated, and cultured family. For
the bulk of his career, he worked as a reporter for newspapers in South Bend,
Boston, St. Louis, and Chicago. However, it is for his short stories of lower
middle-class Americans that Ring Lardner is perhaps best known. In these
Line 5 stories, Lardner vividly creates the language and the ambiance of this lower
class often using the misspelled words, grammatical errors, and incorrect
diction that typified the language of the lower middle class.
Line 15
SKILL 10: USE CONTEXT TO DETERMINE MEANINGS
* * * * *
Line 15
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References
Phillips, Deborah. Longman Complete Course for the TOEFL Test: Preparation for
the Computer and Paper Tests. 2001. New York: Addison-Wesley Longman,
Inc.
Sharpe, Pamela J. Barron’s Practice Exercises for the TOEFL, 6th Edition. 2008.
Indonesia: Binarupa Aksara Publishing, Co.