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Name______________ AncermoM-CLE TUTORIALS 2019 Score______________

LEA- EVALUATION
Contact #_____________ By: MICHAEL T ANCERMO, RCRIM Rating_____________

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following question. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURE ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
SET A-(_________________)
1. Greater opportunity to develop sources of information is an advantage of:
A. Foot patrol B. Automobile patrol C. Canine patrol D. Aircraft patrol 
2. Horse patrol is also known as:
A. Canine patrol B. Mounted patrol C. K-9 patrol D. All of them
3. This type of plan involves the framework for the operation of the major units in the organization such as patrol and investigation. It also includes the design of the
structure, how different functions and units are to relate and coordinate activities, and how resources are to be allocated
A)Functional plan B)Standing plan C)Operational efficiency and productivity plan D)Short range plan
4. The type of plan that compares past and present accomplishments to assess performance and to determine the proper measures to be undertaken to improve
performance refers to:
A)Long range plan B)Medium range plan C)Operational efficiency and productivity plan D)Strategic plan
5. This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as drug crackdown, crime prevention program, or neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when the
objective is accomplished or the problem is solved
A)Strategic plan B)Time specific plan C)Problem oriented plan D)Time bound operational plan
6. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on routine and field operations and some special operations
A)Strategic plan B)Operational plan C) Procedural plan D)Operational efficiency and productivity plan
7. The procedure which is intended to be used in situations of all kinds and outlined as guide in operations relative to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest and
investigation refers to:
A)Field procedure B)Tactical procedure C)Headquarters procedure D)All of them
8. Which of the following types of patrol can cover a widest view of an area
A. Foot patrol B. Horse patrol C. Automobile patrol D. K-9 patrol
9. The patrol method which is applicable in patrolling long stenches of highway or areas that are inaccessible through other patrol methods is:
A. Marine patrol B. Aircraft patrol C. Horse patrol D. Foot patrol
10. Among the following is the patrol method with the least stealth
A. Helicopter patrol B. Bicycle patrol C. Automobile patrol D. Horse patrol
11. Among the following is the patrol method with the greatest stealth
A. Helicopter patrol B. Bicycle patrol C. Automobile patrol D. Motorcycle patrol
12. This acronym stands for the system of attaching a miniature camera to a search dog
A. WOLVES B. CATS C. DOGS D. CANINES
13. The following are the breeds of dog best suited for police work, except:
A. German shepherds B. Doberman pinschers C. Alaskan malamutes D. Askals E. Bouviers
14. The large dog with drooping ears and sagging jowls and keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used for tracking purposes is known as:
A. German shepherd B. Doberman pinscher C. Bloodhounds D. Alaskan malamute
15. The landmark experiment on preventive patrol, being the first study that demonstrated the effects of different policing styles was conducted in 1972 in:
A. New York city B. Los Angeles C. London D. Kansas city
16. The phase of problem oriented policing that is focused on the problem’s cause, scope and effect refers to:
A. Scanning B. Analysis C. Response D. Assessment
17. The type of plan intended for the administration of personnel and material, and in the procurement and disbursement of money refers to:
A)Tactical plan B)Management plan C)Technical plan D)Extra-office plan
18. The appropriation for future money needs for personnel, equipment and capital investment, also known as management of fiscal matters is known as:
A)Budget planning/Budgeting B)Accounting C)Purchasing procedure D)All of them
19. The type of plan according to time which determines quantity and quality of efforts and accomplishments refers to:
A)Long range plan B)Medium range plan C)Short range plan D)Operational efficiency and productivity plan
20. The application of crime analysis to determine and address the underlying causes of crime is a good example of:
A. Preventive patrol B. Team policing C. Problem oriented policing D. Proactive patrol E. Community oriented policing
21. Using uniformed police officers and marked police vehicles characterizes
A. High visibility patrol B. Low visibility patrol C. Decoy patrol D. Reactive patrol
22. The employment of barangay tanods is an example of:
A. Team policing B. Problem oriented policing C. Decoy patrol D. Reactive patrol
23. Which of the following does not belong with the others?
A. Omnipresence B. High visibility C. Conspicuous D. Clandestine
24. Weakest link in the security chain.
A. Security Guards B. Manager C. Barriers D. Personnel
25. If access is limited only to unauthorized personnel,this particular place is referred to as
A. Compromise area B. Restricted area C. Danger area D. Exclusive area
26. The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter barrier of an industrial compound to afford better observation and patrol movement is known as
A. Protective zone B. Clear zone C. Twilight zone D. Patrol lane zone
27. The percentage of police officers assigned to perform patrol and other field functions is:
A. 50 B. 85 C. 40 D. 60
28. The minimum manning level of the PNP under extreme condition is:
A. 1:500 B. 1:800 C. 1:750 D. 1:1000
29. The ideal daily on duty hours for a patrol officer is:
A. 8 B. 6 C. 12 D. 24
30. The Community Oriented Policing System in the Philippines is primarily patterned from the police system of what country?
A. England B. USA C. France D. Japan
31. The patrol pattern which offers the easiest way to observe the movement of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise B. Counter clockwise C. Crisscross D. Straight
32. The reversal patrol pattern which is usually done at the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in the area of responsibility of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern B. Counter clockwise pattern C. Zigzag pattern D. Crisscross pattern
33. The following terms are synonymous with each other, except:
A. Decoy B. Bait C. Distracter D. Warner
34. The first organized foot patrol for policing purposes was formed in?
A. New York City B. London C. Rome D. Greece
35. In police communication, 10-0 means
A. Caution B. Positive C. Change location D. Unable to copy
36. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the PNP units during election

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A.NBI B. Ombusdman C. COMELEC D. DILG
37. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent B. Director General C. Director D. Deputy Director General
38. The organized schedule or sequence of methodical activities intended to attain a goal or objective refers to:
A) Plan B) Planning C) Operational plan D) Operational planning
39. The process of determining the problems of the organization and coming up with the proposed solution generally refers to:
A) Planning B) Operational planning C) Police planning D) Police operational planning
40. The systematic and orderly determination of facts and events as basis for policy formulation and decision affecting law enforcement management refers to:
A) Planning B) Operational planning C) Police planning D) Police operational planning
41. It is the process of formulating coordinated sequence of methodical activities in law enforcement and allocation of resources to line units in order to attain a
mandated purpose
A) Planning B) Operational planning C) Police planning D) Police operational planning
42. The use of rational design or pattern for all departmental undertaking refers to:
A) Planning B) Operational planning C) Police planning D) Police operational planning
43. The set of procedures intended to meet varying degree of emergency while at the same time, providing continuing police coverage refers to:
A) Specific emergency plan B) Radical plan C) General emergency plan D) Strategic plan
44. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any act or omission of his subordinates in relation to the
performance of their official duties, we are referring to:
A. chain of command B. delegation of responsibility C. Command responsibility D. span of control
45. The credential extended by the Civil Service Commission/National Police Commission for the purpose of conferring status for permanent appointment in the police
service.
A. police credibility B. police visibility C. Criminology Board Examination D. Police eligibility
46. What is the principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go upward and down war through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command B. Span of Control C. Unity of Command D. Delegation of Authority
47. The type of plan designed to meet specific unusual needs refers to:
A) Synoptic plan B) Strategic plan C) Specific emergency plan D) Radical plan
48. This refers to the general statement of intention typically with time horizon. It is an achievable end state that can be measured and observed
A) Objective B) Vision C) Goal D) Mission
49. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while the investigator conducting the surveillance is:
A.rabbit B.surveillant C.traffic enforcement D.patrol
50. The cheapest form of police patrol.
A. Bicycle Patrol B. Foot Patrol C. Motorcycle Patrol D. Helicopter Patrol
51. The specific commitment to achieve a measurable result within a specific period of time refers to:
A) Goal B) Strategy C) Objective D) Tactic
52. This refers to a sequence of activities to reach a point or attain what is desired
A) Strategy B) Procedure C) Tactic D) Mission
53. The broad design, method or plan to attain a stated goal or objective refers to:
A) Strategy B) Procedure C) Tactic D) Policy
54. The rule of action for the rank and file to show them how they are expected to obtain the desired effect refers to:
A) Policy B) Guideline C) Procedure D) Plan
55. This defines the fundamental principles governing the rules of conduct, attitude and behavior of the PNP members
A) Complimentary doctrine B) Operational doctrine C) Supplementary doctrine D) Ethical doctrine
56. The statement which clearly specifies if what business the PNP organization is in refers to:
A) Police vision B) Police objectives C) Police mission D) All of them
57. The statement: “The PNP shall enforce the law, prevent and control crimes, maintain peace and order and ensure public safety and internal security with the active
support of the community” is the:
A) PNP mission B) PNP goal C) PNP vision D) PNP objective
58. This refers to the concepts and ideas governing the organization of the PNP in all levels and foundation of relationship that exists between each member from
superior to subordinates
A) Principles B) Visions C) Missions D) Goals
59. Unity of command, span of control, delegation of authority and chain of command are generally referred to as:
A) Hierarchy of principle B) Scalar principle C) Hierarchy of authority D) Hierarchy of protocols
60. Strictly speaking, scalar principle could simply be interpreted as:
A) Unity of command B) Delegation of authority C) Span of control D) Chain of command
61. The type of police function that includes patrol, investigation, traffic and juvenile and vice control pertains to:
A) Line function B) Administrative function C) Auxiliary function D) Staff function
62. This refers to the primary or operational function of the police department that actually performs the organizational objectives
A) Line function B) Auxiliary function C) Staff function D) Service function
63. The guideline in planning which answers the question what to do refers to:
A) Mission B) Strategy C) Philosophy D) Reason
64. Plan with a scope of less than one year is classified as:
A) Strategic plan B) Short range plan C) Medium range plan D) Any of them
65. The general type of plan that is developed as a result of crisis refers to:
A) Proactive plan B) Visionary plan C) Reactive plan D) Strategic plan
66. The type of plan that is developed in anticipation of a future problem refers to:
A) Broad external policy plan B) Radical plan C) Proactive plan D) Problem oriented plan
66.What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can prepare a comprehensive security program for his industrial plan?
A) security conference B) security survey C) security check D) security education
67. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait rather than upon high-visibility patrol techniques.
A) low-visibility patrol C. decoy patrol B) directed deterrent patrol D. high-visibility patrol
68. if enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety of motorists and pedestrians and attain an orderly traffic.
A) Civil Relations Unit B) Traffic Management Command C) Traffic Operations Center D) Aviation Security Command
69. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator merely uses his different senses.
A) observation B) research C) casing D) interrogation
70. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed, EXCEPT
A) never meet subject face to face B) avoid eye contact C)recognize fellow agent D) if burnt out, drop subject
71. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus, their utilization in tracking down lost persons or illegal drugs.
A) smell B) eating C) hearing D) drinking
72. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue duties?
A) motorcycle B) patrol car C) helicopter D) bicycle
73. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails or follows the person or vehicle.
A) research B) casing C) undercover operation D) surveillance
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74. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching the end of your beat and turning right after reaching the other end of the road and again turning
right until you completed the cycle by reaching back to your origin of patrolling. What patrol pattern have you applied?
A) clockwise B) counterclockwise C) straightway D) free-wheeling
75. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting them believe that their crimes will
not be detected?
A-low profile theory B-theory of police omnipresence C-high visibility D-team policing
76. Without air force capability, patrol operation that covers large park areas, grassy fields or wooded areas requires the use of
A) bike patrol B) marine patrol C) horse patrol D) helicopter patrol
77. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in large buildings or stores, and the control of unruly crowds and riots?
A) foot B) bicycle C) horse D) dog
78. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization under the DILG?
A) R.A. 6975 B) R.A.1174 C) R.A.8551 D) R.A.5487
79. Who Is the most important officer in the police organization?
A) general B) patrol C) investigator D) traffic
80. What is the principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go upward and downward through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A) Chain of Command B) Unity of Command C) Span of Control D) Delegation of Authority
81. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service?
A) 15 years’ service B) 30 years’ service C) 25 years’ service D)20 years’ service E) 35 years’ service
82. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the PNP recruitment.
A) 25% B. 10% C)5% D. 20%
83. It administers and attends to cases involving crimes against chastity.
A) CIDG B. Women’s Desk C) DSWD D. Homicide Division
84. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM representatives to exercise supervision and control over PNP units.
A)Chief of Police B)Local Government Executives C)Judges D. Fiscals
85. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial Director the transfer, reassignment of PNP members outside of their town residences.
A)Regional Directors B. Chief of Police C) Priests D. Mayors E. Judges
86. The head of a local peace and order council.
A)judge B. mayor C) chief of police D. governor
87. The defense against crime or a state of being secured or free from hazard. Is to protect the establishment from any form of losses as a result of theft, robbery,
pilferage, sabotage, espionage, accident, fire and subversive activities
a. Free b. Security c. Defense d. Barrier
88. System of barriers placed between the potential intruder and the matter to be protected. Concerned with the physical measures adopted to prevent unauthorized
access to equipment, facilities, material, and documents, and to safeguard them against espionage, sabotage, damage and theft
a. Physical Security b. Communication Security c. Personnel Security d. Hotel Security
88. The protection resulting from the application of various measures which safeguards hotel guests and personnel, hotel property, and functions in hotel restaurants,
bars and clubs.
a. Physical Security b. Communication Security c. Personnel Security d. Hotel Security
89. The protection resulting from the application of various measures which safeguards cash and assets which are in storage in transit and during transactions.
a. Bank Security b. Communication Security c. Personnel Security d. Hotel Security
90. The protection resulting from the application of various measures which prevents or delay the enemy or unauthorized person in giving information through the
communication system.
a. Bank Security b. Communication Security c. Personnel Security d. Hotel Security
91. Physical security that involves the protection of documents and classified papers from loss, access to unauthorized person, damage, theft and compromised through
disclosure.
a. Physical Security b. Communication Security c. Personnel Security d. Document Security
92. Measures to safeguard factories, manufacturing establishment, etc.
a. Factory Security b. Communication Security c. Industrial Security d. Business Security
93. Physical which deals with the protection of processes, formulas, patents and other activities.
a. Bank Security b. Operational Security c. Personnel Security d. Industrial Security
94. Any act or condition, which may result in the compromise of information, loss of life, loss or destruction of property, or disruption of the objectives of the
installations.
a. Security b. Security Hazard c. General Security d. Mankind Security
95. Types of hazard, which the mere cause is the natural phenomenon. Ex. Storm, earthquake, typhoons, floods, fire, lightning etc
a. Natural Hazard b. Security Hazard c. Phenomenal Hazard d. Man-made Hazard
96. A hazard that the act of omission or commission both overt/covert by an individual or by group of an individual.
a. Natural Hazard b. Security Hazard c. Phenomenal Hazard d. Man-made Hazard
97. The importance of the product or services that the company is giving or producing.
a. Vulnerability b. Criticality c. Productivity d. Services
98. Susceptible the establishment for the particular sabotage, espionage, etc.
a. Vulnerability b. Criticality c. Productivity d. Services
99. A French word of Spy.
a. Legion b. Espio c. Kario d. Nion
100. The agent of Espionage. They are very dangerous because of their skill in deception and undercover works.
a. Saboteur b. Spy c. Cody d. Undercover mans

Set B-(_________________)
01. French word of Sabotage which means Wooden Slipper.
a. Sabot b. Spy c. Cody d. Undercover
02. The agent of sabotage.
a. Saboteur b. Spy c. Cody d. Undercover man
03. The suppression of the desire of potential criminals to commit crimes.
a. Crime deterrence b. Kontra krimen campaign c. Crime prevention d. Criminal apprehension
04. The elimination of the opportunity of criminals to perform acts against the law.
a. Crime deterrence b. Kontra krimen campaign c. Crime prevention d. Criminal apprehension
05. This theory applies the principle of overt operation.
a. Low police visibility b. High police visibility c. General deterrence d. Crime prevention
06. The principle of covert operation is integrated in this theory.
a. Low police visibility b. High police visibility c. General deterrence d. Crime prevention
07. This is a theory on patrol emphasizes the selection of places to be patrolled like those of establishments that are likely be victimized by criminals.
a. Low police visibility b. High police visibility c. General deterrence d. Game theory
08. Various means of getting from one place to another within a specified patrol jurisdiction. Various methods of patrol are not intended to isolate the patrol officer
from the people he vowed to serve and protect.
a. Patrol method b. Intelligence c. Crime prevention d. Operation
09. The most extensively used and the most effective means of transportation for police on patrol. Equipped with state-of-the-art police gear, patrol cars today provide a
rapid, safe, and efficient means of transportation under average operating conditions.
a. Patrol car b. foot patrol c. horse patrol d. beat patrol
10. Refers to the working protective detail that provides close physical security on the principal
a. Security b. Loose security c. Close in security d. Detail security
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11. The minimum age requirement for Security Manager or Operator of a Security Agency.
a. 35 years old b. 45 years old c. 25 years old d. 27 years old
12. The maximum number of guards for company guard and agency guard forces.
a. 2000 b. 1000 c. 200 d. 500
13. The minimum number of guards allowed for private security agencies.
a. 2000 b. 1000 c. 200 d. 500
14. Used where there is considerable foot movement such as patrolling business and shopping centers, high crime areas, and in places where there are many or multiple
family dwellings.
a. Patrol car b. fixed foot patrol c. mobile foot patrol d. beat patrol
15. An effort, which seeks to prevent crime from occurring. This involves the use of patrol officers of all crime analysis. It includes the effort by the beat officer to see
trends in developing areas or individual and to make measures to intercede. An alternative patrol system which entails anticipation on the part of the patrol units that
something unusual would occur.
a. Proactive patrol b. Reactive patrol c. Directed deterrent patrol d. Target oriented patrol
16. This patrol methods performs predetermined preventive functions on a planned and systematic basis. These preventive activities are designed on the basis of
detailed analysis of crime incidents, offender characteristics, methods of operating and locations.
a. Proactive patrol b. Reactive patrol c. Directed deterrent patrol d. Target oriented patrol
17. The product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, integration and interpretation of all available information regarding the activities of criminal and
other law violators for the purpose of affecting their arrest, obtaining evidence, and forestalling plan to commit crime.
a. Military intelligence b. Police Intelligence c. Intelligence d. Information
18. The end product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, integration and interpretation of all available information which concerns one or more aspect of
foreign nations or of areas of operations and which is immediately or potentially significant to planning.
a. Military intelligence b. Police Intelligence c. Intelligence d. Information
19. The essence of police function.
a. Patrol b. Intelligence c. Crime prevention d. Operation
20. The backbone of a police department.
a. Crime deterrence b. Patrol division c. Crime prevention d. Operation
21. The regular tour made by a guard in a place in order to protect it or to maintain order.
It could also mean a person or a group such as a police or military unit sent to carry out a tour of duty in a certain place with a particular mission either for
reconnaissance purposes or simply to provide protection.
a. Patrol b. Intelligence c. Crime prevention d. Operation
22. Which of the following is not true about patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the police department B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the single largest unit in the police department that can be eliminated D. It is the nucleus of the police department
23. The police function in which patrol belong is:
A. Line function B. Staff function C. Administrative function D. Auxiliary function
24. The term that is used to describe the group of men organized by Henry Fielding and named by his brother John Fielding that became the first organized foot patrol
refers to:
A. Praetorian guards B. Scotland yard C. Bow Street Runners D. Royal Guards
25. The only division of the police department that cannot be eliminated, thus it is known as the principal unit or the backbone of the police organization refers to:
A. Investigation B. Traffic C. Patrol D. Auxiliary
26. This refers to the suppression of the desire of people to commit crime
A. Crime prevention B. Crime suppression C. Crime intervention D. Crime deterrence
27. The elimination of the opportunity of people to commit crime as a result of patrol refers to:
A. Crime prevention B. Crime suppression C. Crime intervention D. Crime deterrence
28. The regular day to day patrol activity refers to:
A. Routine patrol B. Proactive patrol – before incident C. Reactive patrol – after incident D. Called for services – community service
29. Arrest in flagrante delicto is an example of:
A. Crime prevention B. Crime suppression C. Crime intervention D. Crime deterrence – fear of committing crimes
30. The principle of patrol force organization which states that patrol officers should be under the command of only one man refers to:
A. Span of control B. Chain of command C. Unity of command D. Command responsibility
31. The maximum number of subordinates that a superior officer on patrol could effectively supervise is known as:
A. Span of control B. Chain of command C. Unity of command D. Command responsibility
32. The principle which states that some members of the police organization are assigned to perform patrol and other field functions while the others are assigned to
support them refers to:
A. Principle of unity objectives B. Unity of command C. Line and staff principle D. Specialization
33. Disciplinary action imposed upon the regional director or by the PLEB involving demotion or dismissal from service may be appealed to the Regional Appellate
Board.
a. Within 20 days b. Within 15 days c. Within 10 days d. Within 5 days
34. Disciplinary action imposed by the PNP Chief shall be appealed to the National Appellate Board.
a. Within 20 days b. Within 15 days c. Within 10 days d. Within 5 days
35. How many days will the RAB and NAB shall decide the appeal from receipt of the notice of appeal.
a. Within 20 days b. Within 60 days c. Within 40 days d. Within 50 days
36. Shall have jurisdiction to hear and decide citizen’s complaint or cases filed before it against erring officers and members of the PNP.
a. National Appellate Board b. Regional Appellate Board c. Disciplinary Board d. PLEB
37. A person who casually imparts information to an officer with no intention of providing subsequent information.
a. Criminal informant b. Incidental informant c. Recruited informant d. Special informant
38. A person who is selected cultivated and developed into a continuous source of info.
a. Criminal informant b. Incidental informant c. Recruited informant d. Special informant
39. The term of office of the members of the PLEB.
a. 5 years b. 3 years c. 2 years d. 6 years
40. Each case shall be decided within how many days from the time the case has been filed with the PLEB.
a. 20 days b. 60 days c. 40 days d.50 days
41. The administrative Disciplinary Machinery of the PNP.
a. National Appellate Board b. IAS c. Disciplinary Board d. PLEB
42. Who shall appoint the inspector general?
a. Director b. Congress c. President d. Executive clemency
43. Any complaint by a natural or juridical person against any member of the PNP.
a. Community complaint over PNP b. Complainant c. Citizen’s complain d. I patrol mo
44. Area of management concerned with human relations in the police organization.
a. Police Personnel Management b. Police Personnel Administration c. Police Organization d. Administration
45. The management of human resources is delegated to the unit of organization.
a. Police Personnel Management b. Police Personnel Administration c. Human Resource Department d. Administration
46. Study of the labor supply of jobs, which are composed with the demands for employees in an organization to determine future personnel requirements, which either
increase or decrease. If there is an expected shortage of personnel the organization may decide to train and develop present employees and/or recruit from outside
sources.
a. Police Recruitment b. Police personnel Training c. Police Selection d. Police Placement
47. A form of clandestine investigation which consists of keeping persons, place or other targets under physical observation in order to obtain evidence or information
pertinent to an investigation.
a. Intelligence b. Survey c. Surveillance d. Discreet

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48. Surveillance of persons
a. Tailing b. Shadowing c. Casing d. Reconnaissance/ Casing
49. Surveillance of other things, events, and activities
a. Tailing b. Roping c. Casing d. Reconnaissance/Casing
50. Surveillance of place
a. Tailing b. Roping c. Casing d. Reconnaissance/Casing
51. Common means of communicating police policies to all officers. They can be issued fast and they provide the greatest assurance of reaching every employee. They
are built in means by which every member of the organization is reached.
a. Originated Police b. Memoranda and Circulars c. Imposed Policy d. Govern Policy
52. An abstract of information derived from the job analysis report, describing the duties performed, the skills, the training, and experience required the responsibilities
involved, the condition under which the job is done, and relation of the job to the other job in the organization.
a. Job Fair b. Jobless c. Job Description d. Job hiring
53. The applicant passes through the waiver program as provided in under R.A 8551.
a. Temporary b. Probationary c. Permanent d. Job selection
54. The applicant able to finish the required field training program for permanency.
a. Temporary b. Probationary c. Permanent d. Job selection
55. The applicant passes through the regular screening procedures.
a. Temporary b. Probationary c. Permanent d. Job selection
56. Who shall appoint PO1 to SPO4 for regional personnel?
a. Regional Director b. Chief PNP c. President d. Provincial Director
57. Who shall appoint PO1 to SPO4 for National Head Quarter personnel?
a. Regional Director b. Chief PNP c. President d. Provicial Director
58. Who shall appoint Inspector to Superintendent?
a. Regional Director b. Chief PNP c. President d. Provicial Director
59. Who shall appoint Sr. Superitendent to Deputy Director General?
a. Regional Director b. Chief PNP c. President d. Provicial Director
60. Who shall appoint General?
a. Regional Director b. Chief PNP c. President d. Provicial Director
61. Surveillance follow the subject from the place to place to maintain continuous watch of his activities
a. Discreet b. Moving c. Loose d. Stationary
62. The term use in the police organization which is surveillance of a building place or area to determine its suitability for Intel use or its vulnerability in operations.
a. Casing b. Surveillance c. Reconnaissance d. Loose
63. The term use in the military which is surveillance of a building place or area to determine its suitability for Intel use or its vulnerability in operations.
a. Casing b. Surveillance c. Reconnaissance d. Loose
64. Considered a security measure because it offers some degree of protection for those operating in an area unfamiliar to them.
a. Casing b. Surveillance c. Reconnaissance d. Loose
65. Recruitment of action agent inside the target organization
a. Intruder b. Penetration c. Infiltration d. Interruption
66. An investigative technique in which agent conceal his official identity an obtain information from that organization.
a. Informer b. Informant c. Undercover assignment d. Volunteer
67. Under Republic Act 6975, PNP personnel are entitled to a longevity pay of _______% of their basic monthly salaries for every five years of service.
a. 2 b. 10 c. 5 d. 30
68. To ascertain the standard policies and procedures, review and analyze the performance, activities and facilities affecting operations and to look into the morale,
needs and general efficiency of the police organization in maintaining law and order.
a. Military Inspection b. Rank Inspection c. Police Inspection d. General Inspection
69. The right to exercise, to decide, and to command by virtue of rank and position
a. Authority b. Doctrine c. Discipline d. Cooperation
70. It provides for the organizations objectives. It provides the various actions. Hence, policies, procedures, rules and regulations of the organization are based on the
statement of doctrines.
a. Authority b. Doctrine c. Discipline d. Cooperation
71. It is imposed by command or self-restraint to insure supportive behavior.
a. Authority b. Doctrine c. Discipline d. Cooperation
72. It relates to plans which are strategic or long range in application, and it determine the organization’s original goals and strategy.
a. Strategic planning b. Intermediate or medium planning c. Operational planning d. Police planning
73. System of varied functions arrange into a workable pattern. The line organization is responsible for the direct accomplishment of the objectives while the staff is
responsible for support, advisory or facilitative capacity.
a. Functional principle b. Line and staff c. Principle of balance d. Principle of delegation by results
74. Work specialization can increase efficiency with the same amount of effort.
a. Discipline b. Unity of Command c. Division of Work d. Centralization
75. The process of setting performance objectives and identifying the actions needed to accomplish them.
a. Planning b. Organizing c. Leading d. Controlling
76. The process of dividing work to be done and coordinating results to achieve desired purpose
a. Planning b. Organizing c. Leading d. Controlling
77. Who will head the Police Provincial Office (PPO) corresponding to all provinces throughout the country?
a. Director general b. District director c. Regional director d. Provincial director
78. Present and future money needs for personnel, equipment, and capital investments must be estimated. Plans for supporting budget request must be made if needed
appropriations are to be obtained.
a. Budget planning b. Management plans c. Special operation procedure d. Extra- office plans
79. Unlawful assembly and riot are as contagious as a plague unless they are quarantined from the unaffected areas of the community. In here, all persons who are at the
scene should be advised to leave the area, thereby reducing the number of potential anti-police combatants.
a. Containment b. Dispersal c. Prevention of entry d. Arrest violators
80. Shall decide cases on appeal from decisions rendered by the PNP Chief and National Internal Affairs Service.
a. National Appellate Board b. Regional Appellate Board c. Napolcom d. PLEB
81. Maximum tenure for Chief PNP.
a. 4 years b. 6 years c. 9 years d. 5 years
82. The machinery which society uses in the prevention and control of crime. The process is the totality of the activities of law enforcers, prosecutors, defense lawyers,
judges and corrections personnel, as well as those of the mobilized community in crime prevention and control.
a. Napolcom b. CJS c. IAS d. Court
83. The broadest pillar
a. Community b. Police c. Prosecution d. Court
84. An organize schedule or sequence by methodical activities intended to attain a goal and objectives for the accomplishments of mission or assignment.
a. Plan b. Planning c. Police planning d. Calendar
85. Management function concerned with visualizing future situations, making estimates concerning them, identifying issues, needs and potential danger points,
analyzing and evaluating the alternative ways and means for reaching desired goals according to a certain schedule, estimating the necessary funds and resources to do
the work, and initiating action in time to prepare what may be needed to cope with the changing conditions and contingent events.
a. Plan b. Planning c. Police planning d. Calendar
86. An attempt by police administrators in trying to allocate anticipated resources to meet anticipated service demands. It is the systematic and orderly determination of
facts and events as basis for policy formulation and decision affecting law enforcement management.
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a. Plan b. Planning c. Police planning d. Calendar
87. It is a method or way of doing something in order to attain objectives. Plan provides answer to 5W’s and 1 H.
a. Plan b. Planning c. Police planning d. Calendar
88. Specific commitment to achieve a measurable result within a specific period of time.
a. Objectives b. Goals c. Vision d. Mission
89. Maximum tenure for Provincial director/ City Director
a. 4 years b. 6 years c. 9 years d. 5 years
90. Maximum tenure for Regional director?
a. 4 years b. 6 years c. 9 year d. 5 years
91. This means “Rendering what is due or merited and that which is due or merited.”
a. Law b. Fair c. Justice d. equity
92. Maximum tenure for Deputy Chief.
a. 4 years b. 6 years c. 9 years d. 5 years
93. By the coming of the Spaniards, the country’s police system started. The police were then called____
a. Guardillo b. Guardia civil c. Safe guard d. Manpowers
94. In 1852, it took over the peace keeping duties in the island under a Royal Decree.
a. Guardillo b. Guardia civil c. Safe guard d. Manpowers
95. He was appointed PC Chief in December 1917. Thus, for the first time in sixteen (16) years of existence, the Constabulary was placed under Filipino leadership.
a. Taft b. Henry T. Allen c. Brig. Gen. Rafael T. Crame d. Marcos
96. The largest organic functional unit within a large department. It comprises of numbers of divisions.
a. Post b. Bureau c. Division d. Section
97. The simplest and perhaps the oldest type; but it is seldom encountered in its channels of authority and responsibility extends in a direct line from top to bottom
within the structures,
a. Staff organization b. Line organization c. Functional organization d. Auxiliary organization
98. Those operations designed to support the line functions.
a. Line functions b. Staff functions c. Auxiliary functions d. primary functions
99. The logistical operations of the department.
a. Line functions b. Staff functions c. Auxiliary functions d. primary functions
100. Any collaborative effort such as that in a police department thus requires a system of checks and controls on individual behavior. Hence, the department must have
a person or persons with authority to direct the actions of workers and ensure compliance with standards in order to achieve the department’s goals.
a. Hierarchy of authority b. Security authority c. Command responsibility d. Unity of command
101. A length of streets designated for patrol purposes. It is also called LINE BEAT
a. Post b. Route c. Sector d. District
102. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for duty, such as a designated desk or office or an intersection or cross walk from traffic duty. It is a spot
location for general guard duty.
a. Post b. Route c. Sector d. District

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Ancermo, M-CLET 2019


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