Tillery Test Banks

TILLERY: PHYSICAL SCIENCE TEST BANKS
CHAPTER 1: WHAT IS SCIENCE? 13. The equation ρ = _mV is a statement that

a. describes a property.
1. A generalized mental image of an object is a (an) b. defines how variables can change.
a. definition. c. describes how properties change.
b. impression. d. identifies the proportionality constant.
c. concept.
d. mental picture 14. Measurement information that is used to describe
something is called
2. Which of the following is the best example of the use of a a. referents.
referent? b. properties.
a. A red bicycle c. data.
b. Big as a dump truck d. a scientific investigation.
c. The planet Mars
d. Your textbook 15. If you consider a very small portion of a material that is
the same throughout, the density of the small sample will be
3. A well-defined and agreed-upon referent used as a a. much less.
standard in all systems of measurement is called a b. slightly less.
a. yardstick. c. the same.
b. unit. d. greater.
c. quantity.
d. fundamental. 16. The symbol Δ has a meaning of
a. “is proportional to.”
4. The system of measurement based on referents in nature, b. “the change in.”
but not with respect to human body parts, is the c. “therefore.”
a. natural system. d. “however.”
b. English system.
c. metric system. 17. A model is
d. American system. a. a physical copy of an object or system made at a smaller
scale.
5. A process of comparing a property to a well-defined and b. a sketch of something complex used to solve problems.
agreed-upon referent is called a c. an interpretation of a theory by use of an equation.
a. measurement. d. All of the above are models.
b. referral.
c. magnitude. 18. The use of a referent in describing a property always
d. comparison. implies
a. a measurement.
6. One of the following is not considered to be a fundamental b. naturally occurring concepts.
property: c. a comparison with a similar property of another object.
a. weight. d. that people have the same understandings of concepts.
b. length.
c. time. 19. A 5 km span is the same as how many meters?
d. charge. a. 0.005 m
b. 0.05 m
7. How much space something occupies is described by its c. 500 m
a. mass. d. 5,000 m
b. volume.
c. density. 20. One-half liter of water is the same volume as
d. weight. a. 5,000 mL.
b. 0.5 cc.
8. The relationship between two numbers that is usually c. 500 cm3
obtained by dividing one number by the other is called a (an) d. 5 dm3
a. ratio.
b. divided size. .21. Which of the following is not a measurement?
c. number tree. a. 24°C
d. equation. b. 65 mph
c. 120
9. The ratio of mass per volume of a substance is called its d. 0.50 ppm
a. weight.
b. weight-volume. 22. What happens to the surface-area-to-volume ratio as the
c. mass-volume. volume of a cube becomes larger?
d. density. a. It remains the same.
b. It increases.
10. After identifying the appropriate equation, the next step in c. It decreases.
correctly solving a problem is to d. The answer varies.
a. substitute known quantities for symbols.
b. solve the equation for the variable in question. 23. If one variable increases in value while a second, related
c. separate the number and units. variable decreases in value, the relationship is said to be
d. convert all quantities to metric units. a. direct.
b. inverse.
11. Suppose a problem situation describes a speed in km/h c. square.
and a d. inverse square.
length in m. What conversion should you do before
substituting quantities for symbols? Convert 24. What is needed to change a proportionality statement
a. km/h to km/s. into an equation?
b. m to km. a. Include a proportionality constant.
c. km/h to m/s. b. Divide by an unknown to move the symbol to left side of
d. In this situation, no conversions should be made. the equal symbol.
c. Add units to one side to make units equal.
12. An equation describes a relationship where d. Add numbers to one side to make both sides equal.
a. the numbers and units on both sides are proportional but
not equal. 25. A proportionality constant
b. the numbers on both sides are equal but not the units. a. always has a unit.
c. the units on both sides are equal but not the numbers. b. never has a unit.
d. the numbers and units on both sides are equal. c. might or might not have a unit.
26. A scientific investigation provides understanding through d. The answer varies.

a. explanations based on logical thinking processes alone.
b. experimental evidence. 38. Compare the density of ice to the density of water. The
c. reasoned explanations based on observations. density of ice is
d. diligent obeying of scientific laws. a. less.
b. the same.
27. Statements describing how nature is observed to behave c. greater.
consistently time after time are called scientific d. The answer varies.
a. theories.
b. laws. 39. A beverage glass is filled to the brim with ice-cold water
c. models. (0°C) and ice cubes. Some of the ice cubes are floating
d. hypotheses. above the water level. When the ice melts, the water in the
glass will
28. A controlled experiment comparing two situations has all a. spill over the brim.
identical influencing factors except the b. stay at the same level.
a. experimental variable. c. be less full than before the ice melted.
b. control variable.
c. inverse variable. 40. What is the proportional relationship between the volume
d. direct variable. of juice in a cup and the time the juice dispenser has been
running?
29. In general, scientific investigations have which activities a. direct
in common? b. inverse
a. State problem, gather data, make hypothesis, test, make c. square
conclusion. d. inverse square
b. Collect observations, develop explanations, test
explanations. 41. What is the proportional relationship between the number
c. Observe nature, reason an explanation for what is of cookies in the cookie jar and the time you have been
observed. eating the cookies?
d. Observe nature, collect data, modify data to fit scientific a. direct
model. b. inverse
c. square
30. Quantities, or measured properties, that are capable of d. inverse square
changing values are called
a. data. 42. A movie projector makes a 1 m by 1 m image when
b. variables. projecting 1 m from a screen, a 2 m by 2 m image when
c. proportionality constants. projecting 2 m from the screen, and a 3 m by 3 m image
d. dimensionless constants. when projecting 3 m from the screen. What is the
proportional relationship between the distance from the
31. A proportional relationship that is represented by the screen and the area of the image?
symbols a ∝ 1/b represents which of the following a. direct
relationships? b. inverse
a. direct proportion c. square
b. inverse proportion d. inverse square
c. direct square proportion
d. inverse square proportion 43. A movie projector makes a 1 m by 1 m image when
projecting 1 m from a screen, a 2 m by 2 m image when
32. A hypothesis concerned with a specific phenomenon is projecting 2 m from the screen, and a 3 m by 3 m image
found to be acceptable through many experiments over a when projecting 3 m from the screen. What is the
long period of time. This hypothesis usually becomes known proportional relationship between the distance from the
as a screen and the intensity of the light falling on the screen?
a. scientific law. a. direct
b. scientific principle. b. inverse
c. theory. c. square
d. model. d. inverse square
33. A scientific law can be expressed as 44. According to the scientific method, what needs to be
a. a written concept. done to move beyond conjecture or simple hypotheses in a
b. an equation. person’s understanding of his or her physical surroundings?
c. a graph. a. Make an educated guess.
d. all of the above. b. Conduct a controlled experiment.
c. Find an understood model with answers.
34. The symbol ∝ has a meaning of d. Search for answers on the Internet.
a. “almost infinity.”
b. “the change in.” Answers
c. “is proportional to.” 1. c 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. a 9. d 10. b 11. c 12. d 13.
d. “therefore.” a 14. c 15. c 16. b 17. d 18. c 19. d 20. c 21. c 22. c 23. b 24.
a 25. c 26. b 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. b 31. b 32. a 33. d 34. c
35. Which of the following symbols represents a measured 35. b 36. b 37. a 38. a 39. b 40. a 41. b 42. c 43. d 44. b
property of the compactness of matter?
a. m CHAPTER 2: MOTION
b. ρ
c. V 1. A straight-line distance covered during a certain amount of
d. Δ time describes an object’s
a. speed.
36. A candle with a certain weight melts in an oven, and the b. velocity.
resulting weight of the wax is c. acceleration.
a. less. d. any of the above.
b. the same.
c. greater. 2. How fast an object is moving in a particular direction is
d. The answer varies. described by
a. speed.
37. An ice cube with a certain volume melts, and the b. velocity.
resulting volume of water is c. acceleration.
a. less. d. none of the above.
b. the same.
c. greater.
3. Acceleration occurs when an object undergoes d. the net force equals zero.
a. a speed increase.
b. a speed decrease. 15. The basic difference between instantaneous and
c. a change in the direction of travel. average speed is that
d. any of the above. a. instantaneous speed is always faster than average speed.
b. average speed is for a total distance over a total time of
4. A car moving at 60 km/h comes to a stop in 10 s when the trip.
driver slams on the brakes. In this situation, what does 60 c. average speed is the sum of two instantaneous speeds,
km/h represent? divided by 2.
a. Average speed d. the final instantaneous speed is always the fastest speed.
b. Final speed
c. Initial speed 16. Does any change in the motion of an object result in an
d. Constant speed acceleration?
a. Yes.
5. A car moving at 60 km/h comes to a stop in 10 s when the b. No.
driver slams on the brakes. In this situation, what is the fi nal c. It depends on the type of change.
speed?
a. 60 km/h 17. A measure of how fast your speed is changing as you
b. 0 km/h travel to campus is a measure of
c. 0.017 km/s a. velocity.
d. 0.17 km/s b. average speed.
c. acceleration.
6. According to Galileo, an object moving without opposing d. the diff erence between initial and fi nal speed.
friction or other opposing forces will
a. still need a constant force to keep it moving at a constant 18. Considering the forces on the system of you and a
speed. bicycle as you pedal the bike at a constant velocity in a
b. need an increasing force, or it will naturally slow and then horizontal straight line,
come to a complete stop. a. the force you are exerting on the pedal is greater than the
c. continues moving at a constant speed. resisting forces.
d. undergoes a gradual acceleration. b. all forces are in balance, with the net force equal to zero.
c. the resisting forces of air and tire friction are less than the
7. In free fall, an object is seen to have a (an) force you are exerting.
a. constant velocity. d. the resisting forces are greater than the force you are
b. constant acceleration. exerting.
c. increasing acceleration.
d. decreasing acceleration. 19. Newton’s first law of motion describes
a. the tendency of a moving or stationary object to resist any
8. A tennis ball is hit, causing it to move upward from the change in its state of motion.
racket at some angle to the horizon before it curves back to b. a relationship between an applied force, the mass, and the
the surface in the path of a parabola. While it moves along resulting change of motion that occurs from the force.
this path c. how forces always occur in matched pairs.
a. the horizontal speed remains the same. d. none of the above.
b. the vertical speed remains the same.
c. both the horizontal and vertical speeds remain the same. 20. You are standing freely on a motionless shuttle bus.
d. both the horizontal and vertical speeds change. When the shuttle bus quickly begins to move forward, you
a. is moved to the back of the shuttle bus as you move
9. A quantity of 5 m/s2 is a measure of forward over the surface of Earth.
a. metric area. b. stay in one place over the surface of Earth as the shuttle
b. acceleration. bus moves from under you.
c. speed. c. moves along with the shuttle bus.
d. velocity. d. feels a force toward the side of the shuttle bus.
10. An automobile has how many different devices that can 21. Mass is measured in kilograms, which is a measure of
cause it to undergo acceleration? a. weight.
a. None b. force.
b. One c. inertia.
c. Two d. quantity of matter.
d. Three or more
22. Which metric unit is used to express a measure of
11. Ignoring air resistance, an object falling toward the weight?
surface of Earth has a velocity that is a. kg
a. constant. b. J
b. increasing. c. N
c. decreasing. d. m/s2
d. acquired instantaneously but dependent on the weight of
the object. 23. Newton’s third law of motion states that forces occur in
matched pairs that act in opposite directions between two
12. Ignoring air resistance, an object falling near the surface different bodies. This happens
of Earth has an acceleration that is a. rarely.
a. constant. b. sometimes.
b. increasing. c. often but not always.
c. decreasing. d. every time two bodies interact.
d. dependent on the weight of the object.
24. If you double the unbalanced force on an object of a
13. Two objects are released from the same height at the given mass, the acceleration will be
same time, and one has twice the weight of the other. a. doubled.
Ignoring air resistance, b. increased fourfold.
a. the heavier object hits the ground first. c. increased by one-half.
b. the lighter object hits the ground first. d. increased by one-fourth.
c. they both hit at the same time.
d. whichever hits first depends on the distance dropped. 25. If you double the mass of a cart while it is undergoing a
constant unbalanced force, the acceleration will be
14. A ball rolling across the floor slows to a stop because a. doubled.
a. there is a net force acting on it. b. increased fourfold.
b. the force that started it moving wears out. c. one-half as much.
c. the forces are balanced.
d. one-fourth as much. groceries and cart. Neglecting friction, doubling the mass
would have what effect on the resulting final speed if you
26. Doubling the distance between the centre of an orbiting used the same force for the same
satellite and the centre of Earth will result in what change in length of time? The new final speed would be
the gravitational attraction of Earth for the satellite? a. one-fourth.
a. One-half as much b. one-half.
b. One-fourth as much c. doubled.
c. Twice as much d. quadrupled.
d. Four times as much
37. You are moving a grocery cart at a constant speed in a
27. If a ball swinging in a circle on a string is moved twice as straight line down the aisle of a store. For this situation, the
fast, the force on the string will be forces on the cart are
a. twice as great. a. unbalanced, in the direction of the movement.
b. four times as great. b. balanced, with a net force of zero.
c. one-half as much. c. equal to the force of gravity acting on the cart.
d. one-fourth as much. d. greater than the frictional forces opposing the motion of
the cart.
28. A ball is swinging in a circle on a string when the string
length is doubled. At the same velocity, the force on the 38. You are outside a store, moving a loaded grocery cart
string will be down the street on a very steep hill. It is difficult, but you are
a. twice as great. able to pull back on the handle and keep the cart moving
b. four times as great. down the street in a straight line and at a constant speed.
c. one-half as much. For this situation, the forces on the cart are
d. one-fourth as much. a. unbalanced, in the direction of the movement.
b. balanced, with a net force of zero.
29. Suppose the mass of a moving scooter is doubled and its c. equal to the force of gravity acting on the cart.
velocity is also doubled. The resulting momentum is d. greater than the frictional forces opposing the motion of
a. halved. the cart.
b. doubled.
c. quadrupled. 39. Neglecting air resistance, a ball in free fall near Earth’s
d. the same. surface will have
a. constant speed and constant acceleration.
30. Two identical moons are moving in identical circular b. increasing speed and increasing acceleration.
paths, but one moon is moving twice as fast as the other. c. increasing speed and decreasing acceleration.
Compared to the slower moon, the centripetal force required d. increasing speed and constant acceleration.
to keep the faster moon on the path is
a. twice as much. 40. From a bridge, a ball is thrown straight up at the same
b. one-half as much. time a ball is thrown straight down with the same initial
c. four times as much. speed. Neglecting air resistance, which ball will have a
d. one-fourth as much. greater speed when it hits the ground?
a. The one thrown straight up.
31. Which undergoes a greater change of momentum, a golf b. The one thrown straight down.
ball or the head of a golf club, when the ball is hit from a golf c. Both balls would have the same speed.
tee?
a. The ball undergoes a greater change. 41. After being released, a ball thrown straight up from a
b. The head of the club undergoes a greater change. bridge will have an acceleration of
c. Both undergo the same change but in opposite directions. a. 9.8 m/s2
d. The answer depends on how fast the club is moved. b. zero.
c. less than 9.8 m/s2
32. Newton’s law of gravitation tells us that d. more than 9.8 m/s2
a. planets are attracted to the Sun’s magnetic field.
b. objects and bodies have weight only on the surface of .42. A gun is aimed horizontally at the centre of an apple
Earth. hanging from a tree. The instant the gun is fi red, the apple
c. every object in the universe is attracted to every other falls and the bullet
object in the universe. a. hits the apple.
d. only objects in the solar system are attracted to Earth. b. arrives late, missing the apple.
c. arrives early, missing the apple.
33. An astronaut living on a space station that is orbiting d. may or may not hit the apple, depending on how fast it is
Earth will moving.
a. experience zero gravity.
b. weigh more than she did on Earth. 43. According to the third law of motion, which of the
c. be in free fall, experiencing apparent weightlessness. following must be true about a car pulling a trailer?
d. weighs the same as she would on the Moon. a. The car pulls on the trailer and the trailer pulls on the car
with an equal and opposite force. Therefore, the net force is
34. A measure of the force of gravity acting on an object is zero and the trailer cannot move.
called b. Since they move forward, this means the car is pulling
a. gravitational force. harder on the trailer than the trailer is pulling on the car.
b. weight. c. The action force from the car is quicker than the reaction
c. mass. force from the trailer, so they move forward.
d. acceleration. d. The action-reaction forces between the car and trailer are
equal, but the force between the ground and car pushes
35. You are at rest with a grocery cart at the supermarket them forward.
when you see a checkout line open. You apply a certain
force to the cart for a short time and acquire a certain speed. 44. A small sports car and a large SUV collide head on and
Neglecting friction, how long would you have to push with stick together without sliding. Which vehicle had the larger
one-half the force to acquire the same final speed? momentum change?
a. One-fourth as long a. The small sports car.
b. One-half as long b. The large SUV.
c. Twice as long c. It would be equal for both.
d. Four times as long
45. Again consider the small sports car and large SUV that
36. Once again you are at rest with a grocery cart at the collided head on and stuck together without sliding. Which
supermarket when you apply a certain force to the cart for a vehicle must have experienced the larger deceleration during
short time and acquire a certain speed. Suppose you had the collision?
bought more groceries, enough to double the mass of the a. The small sports car.
b. The large SUV. d. neither a nor b.

c. It would be equal for both.
10. Potential energy and kinetic energy are created when
46. An orbiting satellite is moved from 10,000 to 30,000 km work is done to change a position (PE) or a state of motion
from Earth. This will result in what change in the gravitational (KE). Ignoring friction, how does the amount of work done to
attraction between Earth and the satellite? make the change compare to the amount of PE or KE
a. None—the attraction is the same. created?
b. One-half as much. a. Less energy is created.
c. One-fourth as much. b. Both are the same.
d. One-ninth as much. c. More energy is created.
d. This cannot be generalized.
47. Newton’s law of gravitation considers the product of two
masses because 11. Many forms of energy in use today can be traced back to
a. the larger mass pulls harder on the smaller mass. a. the Sun.
b. both masses contribute equally to the force of attraction. b. coal.
c. the large mass is considered before the smaller mass. c. Texas.
d. the distance relationship is one of an inverse square. d. petroleum.
Answers 12. In all of our energy uses, we find that

1. a 2. b 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. b 12. a 13. a. the energy used is consumed.
c 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. b 21. c 22. c 23. d 24. b. some forms of energy are consumed but not others.
a 25. c 26. b 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. c 33. c 34. b 35. c. more energy is created than is consumed.
c 36. b 37. b 38. b 39. d 40. c 41. a 42. a 43. d 44. c 45. a d. the total amount of energy is constant in all situations.
46. d 47. B
13. Any form of energy can be converted to another, but
CHAPTER 3: ENERGY energy used on Earth usually ends up in what form?
a. Electrical
1. According to the definition of mechanical work, pushing on b. Mechanical
a rock accomplishes no work unless there is c. Nuclear
a. movement. d. Radiant
b. a net force.
c. an opposing force. 14. Radiant energy can be converted to electrical energy
d. movement in the same direction as the direction of the using
force. a. lightbulbs.
b. engines.
2. The metric unit of a joule (J) is a unit of c. solar cells.
a. potential energy. d. electricity.
b. work.
c. kinetic energy. 15. The “barrel of oil” mentioned in discussions about
d. any of the above. petroleum is
a. 55 U.S. gallons.
3. A Nm/s is a unit of b. 42 U.S. gallons.
a. work. c. 12 U.S. gallons.
b. power. d. a variable quantity.
c. energy.
d. none of the above. 16. The amount of energy generated by hydroelectric plants
in the United States as part of the total electrical energy is
4. A kilowatt-hour is a unit of a. fairly constant over the years.
a. power. b. decreasing because new dams are not being constructed.
b. work. c. increasing as more and more energy is needed.
c. time. d. decreasing as dams are destroyed because of
d. electrical charge. environmental concerns.
5. A power rating of 550 ft · lb per s is known as a 17. Fossil fuels provide what percent of the total energy
a. watt. consumed in the United States today?
b. newton. a. 25 percent
c. joule. b. 50 percent
d. horsepower. c. 86 percent
d. 99 percent
6. A power rating of 1 joule per s is known as a
a. watt. 18. Alternative sources of energy include
b. newton. a. solar cells.
c. joule. b. wind.
d. horsepower. c. hydrogen.
d. all of the above.
7. According to PE = mgh, gravitational potential energy is
the same thing as 19. A renewable energy source is
a. exerting a force through a distance in any direction. a. coal.
b. the kinetic energy an object had before coming to a rest. b. biomass.
c. work against a vertical change of position. c. natural gas.
d. the momentum of a falling object. d. petroleum.
8. Two cars have the same mass, but one is moving three 20. The potential energy of a box on a shelf, relative to the
times as fast as the other is. How much more work will be floor, is a measure of
needed to stop the faster car? a. the work that was required to put the box on the shelf from
a. The same amount. the floor.
b. Twice as much. b. the weight of the box times the distance above the floor.
c. Three times as much. c. the energy the box has because of its position above the
d. Nine times as much. floor.
9. Kinetic energy can be measured in terms of
a. work done on an object to put it into motion. 21. A rock on the ground is considered to have zero potential
b. work done on a moving object to bring it to rest. energy. In the bottom of a well, the rock would be considered
c. both a and b. to have
a. zero potential energy, as before.
b. negative potential energy.
c. positive potential energy. a. Wind

d. zero potential energy but would require work to bring it b. Burning of wood
back to ground level. c. Photovoltaics
d. Water from a geothermal spring
22. Which quantity has the greatest influence on the amount
of kinetic energy that a large truck has while moving down 34. Today, the basic problem with using solar cells as a
the highway? major source of electricity is
a. Mass a. efficiency.
b. Weight b. manufacturing cost.
c. Velocity c. reliability.
d. Size d. that the Sun does not shine at night.
23. Electrical energy can be converted to 35. The solar technology that makes more economic sense
a. chemical energy. today than the other applications is
b. mechanical energy. a. solar cells.
c. radiant energy. b. power tower.
d. any of the above. c. water heating.
d. ocean thermal energy conversion.
24. Most all energy comes to and leaves Earth in the form of
a. nuclear energy. 36. Petroleum is believed to have formed over time from
b. chemical energy. buried
c. radiant energy. a. pine trees.
d. kinetic energy. b. plants in a swamp.
c. organic sediments.
25. A spring-loaded paper clamp exerts a force of 2 N on 10 d. dinosaurs.
sheets of paper it is holding tightly together. Is the clamp
doing work as it holds the papers together? Answers
a. Yes. 1. d 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. c 8. d 9. c 10. b 11. a 12. d 13.
b. No. d 14. c 15. b 16. b 17. c 18. d 19. b 20. d 21. d 22. c 23. d
24. c 25. b 26. b 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. a 31. d 32. c 33. d 34.
26. The force exerted when doing work by lifting a book bag b 35. c 36. C
against gravity is measured in units of
a. kg. CHAPTER 4: HEAT AND TEMPERATURE
b. N.
c. W. 1. The Fahrenheit thermometer scale is
d. J. a. more accurate than the Celsius scale.
b. less accurate than the Celsius scale.
27. The work accomplished by lifting an object against c. sometimes more or less accurate, depending on the air
gravity is measured in units of temperature.
a. kg. d. no more accurate than the Celsius scale.
b. N.
c. W. 2. On the Celsius temperature scale
d. J. a. zero means there is no temperature.
b. 80° is twice as hot as 40°.
28. An iron cannonball and a bowling ball are dropped at the c. the numbers relate to the boiling and freezing of water.
same time from the top of a building. At the instant before d. there are more degrees than on the Fahrenheit scale.
the balls hit the sidewalk, the heavier cannonball has a
greater 3. Internal energy refers to the
a. velocity. a. translational kinetic energy of gas molecules.
b. acceleration. b. total potential and kinetic energy of the molecules.
c. kinetic energy. c. total vibrational, rotational, and translational kinetic energy
d. All of these are the same for the two balls. of molecules.
d. average of all types of kinetic energy of the gas
29. Two students are poised to dive off equal-height diving molecules.
towers into a swimming pool below. Student B is twice as
massive as student A. Which of the following is true? 4. External energy refers to the
a. Student B will reach the water sooner than student A. a. energy that changed the speed of an object.
b. Both students have the same gravitational PE. b. energy of all the molecules making up an object.
c. Both students will have the same KE just before hitting the c. total potential energy and kinetic energy of an object that
water. you can measure directly.
d. Student B did twice as much work climbing the tower. d. energy from an extra-terrestrial source.
30. A car is moving straight down a highway. What factor 5. Heat is the
has the greatest influence on how much work must be done a. total internal energy of an object.
on the car to bring it to a complete stop? b. average kinetic energy of molecules.
a. How fast it is moving c. measure of potential energy of molecules.
b. The weight of the car d. same thing as a very high temperature.
c. The mass of the car
d. The latitude of the location 6. The specific heat of copper is 0.093 cal/gC°, and the
specific heat of aluminum is 0.22 cal/gC°. The same amount
31. Two identical cars are moving straight down a highway of energy applied to equal masses, say, 50.0 g of copper
under identical conditions, except car B is moving three and aluminum, will result in
times as fast as car A. How much more work is needed to a. a higher temperature for copper.
stop car B? b. a higher temperature for aluminum.
a. Twice as much c. the same temperature for each metal.
b. Three times as much d. unknown results.
c. Six times as much
d. Nine times as much 7. The specific heat of water is 1.00 cal/gC°, and the specific
32. When you do work on something, you give it energy heat of ice is 0.500 cal/gC°. The same amount of energy
a. often. applied to equal masses, say, 50.0 g of water and ice, will
b. sometimes. result in (assume the ice does not melt)
c. every time. a. a greater temperature increase for the water.
d. never. b. a greater temperature increase for the ice.
c. the same temperature increase for each.
33. Which of the following is not the use of a solar energy
technology?
d. unknown results. 0.2°C.
8. The transfer of heat that takes place by the movement of 20. Styrofoam is a good insulating material because
groups of molecules with higher kinetic energy is a. it is a plastic material that conducts heat poorly.
a. conduction. b. it contains many tiny pockets of air.
b. convection. c. of the structure of the molecules that make it up.
c. radiation. d. it is not very dense.
d. sublimation
21. The transfer of heat that takes place because of density
9. The transfer of heat that takes place by energy moving difference in fluids is
through space is
a. conduction. a. conduction.
b. convection. b. convection.
c. radiation. c. radiation.
d. sublimation. d. none of the above.
10. The transfer of heat that takes place directly from 22. Latent heat is “hidden” because it
molecule to molecule is a. goes into or comes out of internal potential energy.
a. conduction. b. is a fluid (caloric) that cannot be sensed.
b. convection. c. does not actually exist.
c. radiation. d. is a form of internal kinetic energy.
d. sublimation.
23. As a solid undergoes a phase change to a liquid, it
11. The evaporation of water cools the surroundings, and the a. releases heat while remaining at a constant temperature.
condensation of this vapor b. absorbs heat while remaining at a constant temperature.
a. does nothing. c. releases heat as the temperature decreases.
b. warms the surroundings. d. absorbs heat as the temperature increases.
c. increases the value of the latent heat of vaporization.
d. decreases the value of the latent heat of vaporization. 24. A heat engine is designed to
a. move heat from a cool source to a warmer location.
12. The heat involved in the change of phase from solid ice b. move heat from a warm source to a cooler location.
to liquid water is called c. convert mechanical energy into heat.
a. latent heat of vaporization. d. convert heat into mechanical energy.
b. latent heat of fusion.
c. latent heat of condensation. 25. The work that a heat engine is able to accomplish is
d. none of the above. ideally equivalent to the
a. difference between the heat supplied and the heat
13. The energy supplied to a system in the form of heat, rejected.
minus the work done by the system, is equal to the change b. heat that was produced in the cycle.
in internal energy. This statement describes the c. heat that appears in the exhaust gases.
a. first law of thermodynamics. d. sum total of the heat input and the heat output.
b. second law of thermodynamics.
c. third law of thermodynamics. 26. Suppose ammonia is spilled in the back of a large room.
If there were no air currents, how would the room
14. If you want to move heat from a region of cooler temperature influence how fast you would smell ammonia at
temperature to a region of warmer temperature, you must the opposite side of the room?
supply energy. This is described by the a. Warmer is faster.
a. first law of thermodynamics. b. Cooler is faster.
b. second law of thermodynamics. c. There would be no influence.
c. third law of thermodynamics.
27. Which of the following contains the most heat?
15. More molecules are returning to the liquid state than are a. A bucket of water at 0°C.
leaving he liquid state. This process is called b. A barrel of water at 0°C.
a. boiling. c. Neither contains any heat since the temperature is zero.
b. freezing. d. Both have the same amount of heat.
c. condensation.
d. melting. 28. Anytime a temperature difference occurs, you can expect
a. cold to move to where it is warmer, such as cold moving
16. The temperature of a gas is proportional to the into a warm house during the winter.
a. average velocity of the gas molecules. b. heat movement from any higher-temperature region.
b. internal potential energy of the gas. c. no energy movement unless it is hot enough, such as the
c. number of gas molecules in a sample.
d. average kinetic energy of the gas molecules. 29. The cheese on a hot pizza takes a long time to cool
because it
17. The temperature known as room temperature is nearest a. is stretchable and elastic.
to b. has a low specific heat.
a. 0°C. c. has a high specific heat.
b. 20°C. d. has a white color.
c. 60°C.
d. 100°C. 30. The specific heat of copper is roughly three times as
great as the specific heat of gold. Which of the following is
18. Using the Kelvin temperature scale, the freezing point of true for equal masses of copper and gold?
water is correctly written as a. If the same amount of heat is applied, the copper will
a. 0 K. become hotter.
b. 0°K. b. Copper heats up three times as fast as gold.
c. 273 K. c. A piece of copper stores three times as much heat at the
d. 273°K. same temperature.
d. The melting temperature of copper is roughly three times
19. The specific heat of soil is 0.20 kcal/kgC°, and the that of gold.
specific heat of water is 1.00 kcal/kgC°. This means that if 1
kg of soil and 1 kg of water each receives 1 kcal of energy, 31. Cooking pans made from which of the following metals
ideally, would need less heat to achieve a certain cooking
a. the water will be warmer than the soil by 0.8°C. temperature?
b. the soil will be 4°C warmer than the water. a. Aluminum (specific heat 0.22 kcal/kgC°)
c. the soil will be 5°C warmer than the water. b. Copper (specific heat 0.093 kcal/kgC°)
d. the water will warm by 1°C, and the soil will warm by
c. Iron (specific heat 0.11 kcal/kgC°) 1. d 2. c 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. b 13.

a 14. b15. c 16. d 17. b 18. c 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. b 24.
32. Conduction best takes place in a d 25. a 26. A 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. c 31. b 32. a 33. b 34. d
a. solid. 35. c 36. c 37. c 38. D
b. fluid.
c. gas. CHAPTER 5: WAVE MOTIONS AND SOUNDS
d. vacuum.
1. A back-and-forth motion that repeats itself is a
33. Convection best takes place in a (an) a. spring.
a. solid. b. vibration.
b. fluid. c. wave.
c. alloy. d. pulse.
d. vacuum.
2. The number of vibrations that occur in 1 s is called
34. Radiation is the only method of heat transfer that can a. a period.
take place in a b. frequency.
a. solid. c. amplitude.
b. liquid. d. sinusoidal.
c. gas.
d. vacuum. 3. Frequency is measured in units of
a. time.
35. What form of heat transfer will warm your body without b. cycles.
warming the air in a room? c. hertz.
a. Conduction. d. avis.
b. Convection.
c. Radiation. 4. The maximum displacement from rest to the crest or from
d. None of the above is correct. rest to the trough of a wave is called
a. wavelength.
36. When you add heat to a substance, its temperature b. period.
a. always increases. c. equilibrium position.
b. sometimes decreases. d. amplitude.
c. might stay the same.
d. might go up or down, depending on the temperature. 5. A wave with motion perpendicular to the direction that the
wave is moving is classified as a
37. The great cooling effect produced by water evaporating a. longitudinal wave.
comes from its high b. transverse wave.
a. conductivity. c. water wave.
b. specific heat. d. compression wave.
c. latent heat.
d. transparency. 6. Your brain interprets a frequency as a sound with a
certain
38. At temperatures above freezing, the evaporation rate can a. speed.
equal the condensation rate only at b. loudness.
a. very high air temperatures. c. pitch.
b. mild temperatures. d. harmonic.
c. low temperatures.
d. any temperature. 7. Sound waves with frequencies greater than 20,000 Hz
are
39. The phase change from ice to liquid water takes place at a. infrasonic waves.
a. constant pressure. b. supersonic waves.
b. constant temperature. c. ultrasonic waves.
c. constant volume. d. impossible.
8. Generally, sounds travel faster in
40. Which of the following has the greatest value for liquid a. solids.
water? b. liquids.
a. Latent heat of fusion. c. gases.
b. Latent heat of vaporization. d. vacuums.
c. Both are equivalent.
d. None of the above is correct. 9. Sounds travel faster in
a. warmer air.
41. Which of the following supports the second law of b. cooler air.
thermodynamics? c. Temperature does not influence the speed of sound.
a. Heat naturally flows from a low-temperature region to a d. a vacuum.
higher-temperature region.
b. All of a heat source can be converted into mechanical 10. The bending of a wave front between boundaries is
energy. a. reflection.
c. Energy tends to degrade, becoming of lower and lower b. reverberation.
quality. c. refraction.
d. A heat pump converts heat into mechanical work. d. dispersion.
42. The second law of thermodynamics tells us that the 11. A reflected sound that reaches the ear within 0.1 s after
amount of disorder, called entropy, is always increasing. the original sound results in
Does the growth of a plant or animal violate the second law? a. an echo.
a. Yes, a plant or animal is more highly ordered. b. reverberation.
b. No, the total entropy of the universe increased. c. refraction.
c. The answer is unknown. d. confusion.
43. The heat death of the universe in the future is when the 12. The wave front of a refracted sound bends toward
universe is supposed to a. warmer air.
a. have a high temperature that will kill all living things. b. cooler air.
b. have a high temperature that will vaporize all matter in it. c. the sky, no matter what the air temperature.
c. freeze at a uniform low temperature. d. the surface of Earth, no matter what the air temperature.
d. use up the universal supply of entropy.
Answers
13. Two in-phase sound waves with the same amplitude b. Mach speed.
and frequency arrive at the same place at the same time, c. Mach 3.
resulting in d. subsonic speed.
a. higher frequency.
b. refraction. 26. A longitudinal mechanical wave causes particles of a
c. a new sound wave with greater amplitude. material to move
14. Two out-of-phase sound waves with the same amplitude a. back and forth in the same direction the wave is moving.
and frequency arrive at the same place at the same time, b. perpendicular to the direction the wave is moving.
resulting in c. in a circular motion in the direction the wave is moving.
a. a beat. d. in a circular motion opposite the direction the wave is
b. cancellation of the two sound waves. moving.
c. a lower frequency.
d. the bouncing of one wave. 27. A transverse mechanical wave causes particles of a
material to move
15. Two sound waves of equal amplitude with slightly a. back and forth in the same direction the wave is moving.
different frequencies will result in b. perpendicular to the direction the wave is moving.
a. an echo. c. in a circular motion in the direction the wave is moving.
b. the Doppler effect. d. in a circular motion opposite the direction the wave is
c. alternation of loudness of sound known as beats. moving.
d. two separate sounds.
28. Transverse mechanical waves will move only through
16. Two sound waves of unequal amplitudes with different a. solids.
frequencies will result in b. liquids.
a. an echo. c. gases.
b. the Doppler effect. d. All of the above are correct.
c. alternation of loudness known as beats.
d. two separate sounds. 29. Longitudinal mechanical waves will move only through
a. solids.
17. The energy of a sound wave is proportional to the rate of b. liquids.
energy transferred to an area perpendicular to the waves, c. gases.
which is called the sound d. All of the above are correct.
a. intensity.
b. loudness. 30. A pulse of jammed-together molecules that quickly
c. amplitude. moves away from a vibrating object
d. decibel. a. is called a condensation.
b. causes an increased air pressure when it reaches an
18. A decibel noise level of 40 would be most likely found object.
a. during a calm day in the forest. c. has a greater density than the surrounding air.
b. on a typical day in the library. d. All of the above are correct.
c. in heavy street traffic.
d. next to a pneumatic drill. 31. The characteristic of a wave that is responsible for what
you interpret as pitch is the wave
19. A resonant condition occurs when a. amplitude.
a. an external force matches a natural frequency. b. shape.
b. a beat is heard. c. frequency.
c. two out-of-phase waves have the same frequency. d. height.
d. a pure tone is created.
32. Sound waves travel faster in
20. The fundamental frequency of a string is the a. solids as compared to liquids.
a. shortest wavelength harmonic possible on the string. b. liquids as compared to gases.
b. longest standing wave that can fit on the string. c. warm air as compared to cooler air.
c. highest frequency possible on the string. d. All of the above are correct.
d. shortest wavelength that can fit on the string.
33. The difference between an echo and a reverberation is
21. The fundamental frequency on a vibrating string is what a. an echo is a reflected sound; reverberation is not.
part of a wavelength? b. the time interval between the original sound and the
a. 1/4 reflected sound.
b. 1/2 c. the amplitude of an echo is much greater.
c. 1 d. reverberation comes from acoustical speakers; echoes
d. 2 come from cliffs and walls.
22. Higher resonant frequencies that occur at the same time 34. Sound interference is necessary to produce the
as the fundamental frequency are called phenomenon known as
a. standing waves. a. resonance.
b. confined waves. b. decibels.
c. oscillations. c. beats.
d. overtones. d. reverberation.
23. A moving source of sound or a moving observer 35. The fundamental frequency of a standing wave on a
experiences the apparent shift in frequency called string has
a. fundamental frequency. a. one node and one antinode.
b. Doppler effect. b. one node and two antinodes.
c. wave front effect. c. two nodes and one antinode.
d. shock waves. d. two nodes and two antinodes.
24. Does the Doppler effect occur when the observer is 36. An observer on the ground will hear a sonic boom from
moving and the source of sound is stationary? an airplane traveling faster than the speed of sound
a. Yes, the effect is the same. a. only when the plane breaks the sound barrier.
b. No, the source must be moving. b. as the plane is approaching.
c. Yes, but the change of pitch effects is reversed in this c. when the plane is directly overhead.
case. d. after the plane has passed by.
25. A rocket traveling at three times the speed of sound is 37. What comment is true about the statement that “the
traveling at human ear hears sounds originating from vibrating objects
a. sonic speed. with a frequency between 20 and 20,000 Hz”?
a. This is true only at room temperature. CHAPTER 6: ELECTRICITY

b. About 95 percent hear in this range, while some hear
outside the average limits. 1. Electrostatic charge results from
c. This varies, with females hearing frequencies above a. transfer or redistribution of electrons.
20,000 Hz. b. gain or lossof protons.
c. separation of charge from electrons and protons.
d. Very few people hear this whole range, which decreases d. failure to keep the object clean of dust.
with age.
2. The unit of electric charge is the
38. A sound wave that moves through the air is a. volt.
a. actually a tiny sound that the ear magnifies. b. amp.
b. pulses of increased and decreased air pressure. c. coulomb.
c. a transverse wave that carries information about a sound. d. watt.
d. a combination of longitudinal and transverse wave
patterns. 3. An electric field describes the condition of
space around
39. During a track and field meet, the time difference a. a charged particle.
between seeing the smoke from a starter’s gun and hearing b. a magnetic pole.
the bang would be less c. a mass.
a. on a warmer day. d. all of the above.
b. on a cooler day.
c. if a more powerful shell were used. 4. A material that has electrons that are free to move
d. if a less powerful shell were used. throughout the material is a (an)
a. electrical conductor.
40. What is changed by destructive interference of a sound b. electrical insulator.
wave? c. thermal insulator.
a. Frequency d. thermal non-conductor.
b. Phase
c. Amplitude 5. An example of an electrical insulator is
d. Wavelength a. graphite.
b. glass.
41. An airplane pilot hears a slow beat from the two engines c. aluminum.
of his plane. He increases the speed of the right engine and d. tungsten.
now hears a slower beat. What should the pilot now do to
eliminate the beat? 6. The electrical potential difference between two points in a
a. Increase the speed of the left engine. circuit is measured in units of
b. Decrease the speed of the right engine. a. volt.
c. Increase the speed of both engines. b. amp.
d. Increase the speed of the right engine. c. coulomb.
d. watt.
42. Resonance occurs when an external force matches the
a. interference frequency. 7. The rate at which an electric current flows through a circuit
b. decibel frequency. is measured in units of
c. beat frequency. a. volt.
d. natural frequency. b. amp.
c. coulomb.
43. The sound quality is different for the same-pitch note d. watt.
produced by two different musical instruments, but you are
able to recognize the basic note because of the same 8. The law that predicts the behavior of electrostatic forces
a. harmonics. acting through space is
b. fundamental frequency. a. the law of universal gravitation.
c. node positions. b. Watt’s law.
d. standing waves. c. Coulomb’s law.
d. Ohm’s law.
44. What happens if the source of a sound is moving toward
you at a high rate of speed? 9. What type of electric current is produced by fuel cells and
a. The sound will be traveling faster than from a stationary solar cells?
source. a. ac
b. The sound will be moving faster only in the direction of b. dc
travel. c. 60 Hz
c. You will hear a higher frequency, but people in the source d. 120 Hz
will not.
d. All observers in all directions will hear a higher frequency. 10. The electrical resistance of a conductor is measured
in units of
45. What happens if you are moving at a high rate of speed a. volt.
toward some people standing next to a stationary source of a b. amp.
sound? You will hear c. ohm.
a. a higher frequency than the people you are approaching d. watt.
will hear.
b. the same frequency as the people you are approaching 11. According to Ohm’s law, what must be greater to
will hear. maintain the same current in a conductor with more
c. the same frequency as when you and the source are not resistance?
moving. a. voltage
d. a higher frequency, as will all observers in all directions. b. current
c. temperature
Answers d. cross-sectional area
1. b 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. b 6. c 7. c 8. a 9. a 10. c 11. b 12. b 13. c
14. b 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. b 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. d 23. b 24. 12. A kilowatt-hour is a unit of
a 25. c 26. a 27. b 28. a 29. d 30. d 31. c 32. d 33. b 34. c a. power.
35. c 36. d 37. d 38. b 39. a 40. c 41. d 42. d 43. b 44. c 45. b. work.
a c. current.
d. potential difference.
13. If you multiply volts by amps, the answer will be in units

of
a. power. 26. Electromagnetic induction occurs when a coil of wire

b. work. cuts across magnetic field lines. Which one of the following
c. current. increases the voltage produced?
d. potential difference. a. Fewer wire loops in the coil
b. Increased strength of the magnetic field
14. Units of joules per second are a measure called a (an) c. Slower speed of the moving coil of wire
a. volt. d. Decreased strength of the magnetic field
b. amp.
c. ohm. 27. Electric power companies step up the voltage of
d. watt. generated power for transmission across the country
because higher voltage
15. A lodestone is a natural magnet that attracts a. means more power is transmitted.
a. iron. b. reduces the current, which increases the resistance.
b. cobalt. c. means less power is transmitted.
c. nickel. d. reduces the current, which lowers the energy lost
d. all of the above. to resistance.
16. The north pole of a suspended or floating bar magnet 28. A solar cell
currently points directly toward Earth’s a. produces electricity directly.
a. north magnetic pole. b. requires chemical reactions.
b. south magnetic pole. c. has a very short lifetime.
c. north geographic pole. d. uses small moving parts.
d. south geographic pole.
29. Which of the following is most likely to acquire an
17. A current-carrying wire always has electrostatic charge?
a. a magnetic field with closed concentric field lines around a. Electrical conductor
the length of the wire. b. Electrical non-conductor
b. a magnetic field with field lines parallel to the length of the c. Both are equally likely
wire. d. None of the above is correct
c. an electric field but no magnetic field around the wire.
d. nothing in the space around the wire. 30. Which of the following units are measures of rates?
a. Amp and volt
18. Magnetism is produced by b. Coulomb and joule
a. an excess of north monopoles. c. Volt and watt
b. an excess of south monopoles. d. Amp and watt
c. moving charges.
d. separation of positive and negative charges. 31. You are using which description of a current if you
consider a current to be positive charges that flow from the
19. Earth’s magnetic field positive to the negative terminal of a battery?
a. has undergone many reversals in polarity a. Electron current
b. has always been as it is now. b. Conventional current
c. is created beneath Earth’s north geographic pole. c. Proton current
d. is created beneath Earth’s south geographic pole. d. Alternating current
20. The strength of a magnetic field around a current- 32. In an electric current, the electrons are moving
carrying wire varies directly with the a. at a very slow rate.
a. amperage of the current. b. at the speed of light.
b. voltage of the current. c. faster than the speed of light.
c. resistance of the wire. d. at a speed described as supersonic.
d. temperature of the wire.
33. In which of the following currents is there no electron
21. Reverse the direction of a current in a wire, and the movement from one end of a conducting wire to the other
magnetic field around the wire will end?
a. have an inverse magnitude of strength. a. Electron current
b. have a reversed north pole direction. b. Direct current
c. become a conventional current. c. Alternating current
d. remain unchanged. d. None of the above
22. The operation of which of the following depends on the 34. If you multiply amps by volts, the answer will be in units
interaction between two magnetic fields? of
a. Car stereo speakers a. resistance.
b. Telephone b. work.
c. Relay circuit c. current.
d. All of the above d. power.
23. An electric meter measures the 35. A permanent magnet has magnetic properties because
a. actual number of charges moving through a conductor. a. the magnetic fields of its electrons are balanced.
b. current in packets of coulombs. b. of an accumulation of monopoles in the ends.
c. strength of a magnetic field. c. the magnetic domains are aligned.
d. difference in potential between two points in a conductor. d. all of the above
24. When a loop of wire cuts across magnetic field lines or 36. A current-carrying wire has a magnetic field around
when magnetic field lines move across a loop of wire, it because
a. electrons are pushed toward one end of the loop. a. moving charge produces a magnetic field of its own.
b. an electrostatic charge is formed. b. the current aligns the magnetic domains in the metal of
c. the wire becomes a permanent magnet. the wire.
d. a magnetic domain is created. c. the metal was magnetic before the current was
established, and the current enhanced the magnetic effect.
25. A step-up transformer steps up the d. None of the above is correct.
a. voltage.
b. current. 37. When an object acquires a negative charge, it actually
c. power. a. gains mass.
d. energy. b. loses mass.
c. has a constant mass.
d. The answer is unknown.
38. A positive and a negative charge are initially 2 cm apart. a. wires that are lined up side by side.
What happens to the force on each as they are moved closer b. the same current flowing through one resistance
and closer together? The force after another.
a. increases while moving. c. separate pathways for the current to flow through.
b. decreases while moving. d. none of the above.
c. remains constant.
d. The answer is unknown. 50. In which type of circuit would you expect a reduction of
the available voltage as more and more resistances are
39. To be operational, a complete electric circuit must added to the circuit?
contain a source of energy, a device that does work, and a. Series circuit
a. a magnetic field. b. Parallel circuit
b. a conductor from the source to the working device and c. Open circuit
another conductor back to the source.
d. None of the above
c. connecting wires from the source to the working device.
d. a magnetic field and a switch. 51. In which type of circuit would you expect the same
voltage with an increased current as more and more
40. Which variable is inversely proportional to the resistances are added to the circuit?
resistance? a. Series circuit
a. Length of conductor b. Parallel circuit
b. Cross-sectional area of conductor c. Open circuit
c. Temperature of conductor d. None of the above
d. Conductor material
Answers
41. Which of the following is not considered to have strong 1. a 2. c 3. a 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. c 9. b 10. c 11. a 12. b 13.
magnetic properties? a 14. d 15. d 16. a 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. d 23. c
a. Iron 24. a 25. a 26. b 27. d 28. a 29. b 30. d 31. b 32. a 33. c 34.
b. Nickel d 35. c 36. a 37. a 38. a 39. b 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. b 44. b
c. Silver 45. c 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. a 51. B
d. Cobalt
CHAPTER 7: LIGHT
42. A piece of iron can be magnetized or unmagnetized.
This is explained by the idea that 1. Which of the following is luminous?
a. electrons in iron atoms are spinning and have magnetic a. Moon
fields around them. b. Mars
b. atoms of iron are grouped into tiny magnetic domains that c. Sun
may orient themselves in a particular direction or in a d. All of the above
random direction.
c. unmagnetized iron atoms can be magnetized by an 2. A source of light given off as a result of high temperatures
external magnetic field. is said to be
d. the north and south poles of iron can be segregated by a. luminous.
the application of an external magnetic field. b. blackbody radiation.
c. incandescent.
43. Earth’s magnetic field is believed to originate d. electromagnetic radiation.
a. by a separation of north and south monopoles due to
currents within Earth. 3. An idealized material that absorbs and perfectly emits
b. with electric currents that are somehow generated in electromagnetic radiation is a (an)
Earth’s core. a. star.
c. from a giant iron and cobalt bar magnet inside Earth. b. blackbody.
d. from processes that are not understood. c. electromagnetic wave.
d. photon.
44. The speaker in a stereo system works by the action of
a. a permanent magnet creating an electric current. 4. Electromagnetic radiation is given off from matter at any
b. an electromagnet pushing and pulling on a permanent temperature. This radiation is called
magnet. a. luminous.
c. sound waves pushing and pulling on an electromagnet. b. blackbody radiation.
d. electrons creating sound waves. c. incandescent.
d. electromagnetic radiation.
45. Electromagnetic induction takes place because
a. an electric current is measured by the rate of movement 5. Light interacts with matter by which process?
of charges. a. Absorption
b. the potential is determined by how much work is done. b. Reflection
c. electrons have their own magnetic field, which interacts c. Transmission
with an externally applied magnetic field. d. All of the above
d. copper wire is magnetic, which induces magnetism.
6. Materials that do not allow the transmission of any light
46. The current in the secondary coil of a transformer is are called
produced by a a. transparent.
a. varying magnetic field. b. colored.
b. varying electric field. c. opaque.
c. constant magnetic field. d. blackbody
d. constant electric field.
7. Light is said to travel in straight-line paths, as light rays,
47. An electromagnet uses until it interacts with matter. A line representing the original
a. a magnetic field to produce an electric current. ray before it interacts with matter is called a (an)
b. an electric current to produce a magnetic field. a. incoming light ray.
c. a magnetic current to produce an electric field. b. incident ray.
d. an electric field to produce a magnetic current. c. reflected light ray.
d. normal ray.
48. A transformer
a. changes the voltage of a direct current. 8. The image you see in a mirror is
b. changes the power of a direct current. a. a real image.
c. changes the voltage of an alternating current. b. a virtual image.
d. changes the amperage of an alternating current. c. not really an image.
49. A parallel circuit has

9. Refraction of light happens when light undergoes 22. A luminous object

a. reflection from a surface. a. reflects a dim blue-green light in the dark.
b. a change of speed between two transparent materials. b. produces light of its own by any method.
c. movement through a critical angle. c. shines by reflected light only, such as the Moon.
d. a 90° angle of incidence. d. glows only in the absence of light.
10. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed 23. An object is hot enough to emit a dull red glow. When
of light in a transparent material is called the this object is heated even more, it will emit
a. index of deflection. a. shorter-wavelength, higher-frequency radiation.
b. index of reflection. b. longer-wavelength, lower-frequency radiation.
c. index of refraction. c. the same wavelengths as before with more energy.
d. index of diffusion. d. more of the same wavelengths.
11. The part of the electromagnetic spectrum that our eyes 24. The difference in the light emitted from a candle, an
can detect is incandescent lightbulb, and the Sun is basically due to
a. ultraviolet. differences in
a. energy sources.
b. infrared. b. materials.
c. visible. c. temperatures.
d. all of the above. d. phases of matter.
12. The component colors of sunlight were first studied by 25. You are able to see in shaded areas, such as under a
a. Joule. tree, because light has undergone
b. Galileo. a. refraction.
c. Newton. b. incident bending.
d. Watt. c. a change in speed.
d. diffuse reflection.
13. The color order of longer-wavelength to smaller-
wavelength waves in the visible region is 26. An image that is not produced by light rays coming from
a. red, orange, yellow, green, blue, violet. the image but is the result of your brain’s interpretations of
b. red, violet, blue, yellow, green. light rays is called a (an)
c. violet, blue, green, yellow, orange, red. a. real image.
d. violet, red, blue, green, yellow, orange. b. imagined image.
c. virtual image.
14. The separation of white light into its component colors is d. phony image.
a. reflection.
b. refraction. 27. Any part of the electromagnetic spectrum, including the
c. dispersion. colors of visible light, can be measured in units of
d. transmission. a. wavelength.
b. frequency.
15. Polarization of light is best explained by considering light c. energy.
to be d. any of the above.
a. vibrating waves in one plane.
b. moving particles in one plane. 28. A prism separates the colors of sunlight into a spectrum
c. none of the above. because
a. each wavelength of light has its own index of refraction.
16. Light in one plane is transmitted and light in all other b. longer wavelengths are refracted more than shorter
planes is absorbed. This is wavelengths.
a. selective absorption. c. red light is refracted the most, violet the least.
b. polarized absorption. d. all of the above are correct.
c. reflection.
d. scattering. 29. Which of the following can only be explained by a wave
model of light?
17. The photoelectric effect is best explained by considering a. Reflection
light to be b. Refraction
a. vibrating waves. c. Interference
b. moving particles. d. Photoelectric effect
c. none of the above.
30. The polarization behavior of light is best explained by
18. The concept that vibrating molecules emit light in considering light to be
discrete amounts of energy, called quanta, was proposed by a. longitudinal waves.
a. Newton. b. transverse waves.
b. Fresnel. c. particles.
c. Planck. d. particles with ends, or poles.
d. Maxwell.
31. Max Planck made the revolutionary discovery that the
19. The photoelectric effect was explained, using Planck’s energy of vibrating molecules involved in blackbody radiation
work, by existed only in
a. Planck. a. multiples of certain fixed amounts.
b. Einstein. b. amounts that smoothly graded one into the next.
c. Maxwell. c. the same, constant amount of energy in all situations.
d. Young. d. amounts that were never consistent from one experiment
to the next.
20. Today, light is considered to be packets of energy with a
frequency related to its energy. These packets are called 32. Today, light is considered to be
a. gravitons. a. tiny particles of matter that move through space, having
b. gluons. no wave properties.
c. photons. b. electromagnetic waves only, with no properties of
d. quarks. particles.
c. a small-scale phenomenon without a sharp distinction
21. Fiber optics transmits information using between particle and wave properties.
a. sound. d. something that is completely unknown.
b. computers.
c. light. 33. As the temperature of an incandescent object is
d. all of the above. increased,
a. more infrared radiation is emitted with less UV.
b. there is a decrease in the frequency of radiation emitted. d. reflected light is polarized in a horizontal direction only.
c. the radiation emitted shifts toward infrared.
d. more radiation is emitted with a shift to higher 46. The condition of farsightedness, or hyperopia, can be
frequencies. corrected with a (an)
a. concave lens.
34. Is it possible to see light without the light interacting with b. convex lens.
matter? c. eyepiece lens.
a. Yes. d. combination of convex and concave lenses.
b. No.
c. Only for opaque objects. 47. Today, light is considered to be a stream of photons with
d. Only for transparent objects. a frequency related to its energy. This relationship finds that
a. frequencies near the middle of the spectrum have more
35. The electromagnetic wave model defines an energy.
electromagnetic wave as having b. more energetic light is always light with a lower
a. a velocity. frequency.
b. a magnetic field. c. higher-frequency light has more energy.
c. an electric field. d. lower-frequency light has more energy.
d. all of the above. 48. An instrument that produces a coherent beam of

single�frequency, in-phase light is a
36. Of the following, the electromagnetic wave with the a. telescope.
shortest wavelength is b. laser.
a. radio wave. c. camera.
b. infrared light. d. solar cell.
c. ultraviolet light.
d. X rays. 49. The special theory of relativity is
a. a new explanation of gravity.
37. Of the following, the electromagnetic wave with the b. an analysis of how space and time are changed by
lowest energy is motion.
a. radio wave. c. an analysis of how fast-moving clocks run faster.
b. infrared light. d. based on a changing velocity of light.
c. ultraviolet light.
d. X rays. 50. The general theory of relativity explains
a. gravity as a change of space and time.
38. Green grass reflects b. why the speed of light changes with the speed of an
a. yellow light. observer.
b. green light. c. how the laws of physics change with changes of motion.
c. blue light. d. Newton’s laws of motion.
d. white light.
51. Comparing measurements made on the ground to
39. Green grass absorbs measurements made in a very fast airplane would find that
a. yellow light. a. the length of an object is shorter.
b. only green light. b. clocks run more slowly.
c. blue light. c. objects have an increased mass.
d. all light but green light. d. all of the above are true.
40. We see a blue sky because Answers

a. air molecules absorb blue light. 1. c 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. c 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. c 11. c 12. c 13. a
b. air molecules reflect red light. 14. c 15. a 16. a 17. b 18. c 19. b 20. c 21. c 22. b 23. a 24. c
c. scattering of light by air molecules and dust is more 25. d 26. c 27. d 28. a 29. c 30. b 31. a 32. c 33. d 34. b 35.
efficient when its wavelength is longer. d 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. d 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. b 44. a 45. d
d. scattering of light by air molecules and dust is more 46. b 47. c 48. b 49. b 50. a 51. D
efficient when its wavelength is shorter.
CHAPTER 8: ATOMS AND PERIODIC
41. A pencil is placed in a glass of water. The pencil PROPERTIES
appears to be bent. This is an example of
a. reflection. 1. Thomson was convinced that he had discovered a
b. refraction. subatomic particle, the electron, from the evidence that
c. dispersion. a. the charge-to-mass ratio was the same for all materials.
d. polarization. b. cathode rays could move through a vacuum.
c. electrons were attracted toward a negatively charged
42. A one-way mirror works because it plate.
a. transmits all of the light falling on it. d. the charge was always 1.60 × 10–19 coulomb.
b. reflects all of the light falling on it.
c. reflects and transmits light at the same time. 2. The existence of a tiny, massive, and positively charged
d. neither reflects nor transmits light. nucleus was deduced from the observation that
a. fast, massive, and positively charged radioactive particles
43. A mirage is the result of light being all move straight through metal foil.
a. reflected. b. radioactive particles were deflected by a magnetic field.
b. refracted. c. some radioactive particles were deflected by metal foil.
c. absorbed. d. None of the above is correct.
d. bounced around a lot.
3. According to Rutherford’s calculations, the volume of an
44. A glass prism separates sunlight into a spectrum of atom is mostly
colors because a. occupied by protons and neutrons.
a. shorter wavelengths are refracted the most. b. filled with electrons.
b. light separates into colors when reflected from crystal c. occupied by tightly bound protons, electrons, and
glass. neutrons.
c. light undergoes absorption in a prism. d. empty space.
d. there are three surfaces that reflect light.
4. Millikan measured the charge on oil droplets and found
45. Polaroid sunglasses work best in eliminating glare that all the droplets had
because a. different charges.
a. reflected light is refracted upward. b. random charges, without any pattern.
b. unpolarized light vibrates in all possible directions. c. five groupings of different charges.
c. reflected light undergoes dispersion.
d. the same or multiples of the same charge. d. Newton spectrum.
5. Rutherford’s estimate of the radius of an atomic nucleus 17. The lowest energy state or level of an atom is the
was based on a. bottom state.
a. the drift of oil droplets in an electric field. b. lowest level.
b. speculation about expected symmetry in gold foil. c. ground state.
c. measurements of radioactive particle deflections from d. basement state.
gold foil.
d. measurements of the breakup of a nitrogen atom by 18. The basis of the quantum mechanics theory of the atom
collisions with radioactive particles. is
a. spin and quantum leaps of electron masses.
6. The atomic number is the number of b. elliptical orbits of electrons.
a. protons. c. how electron particles move in orbits.
b. protons plus neutrons. d. the wave nature of electrons.
c. protons plus electrons.
d. protons, neutrons, and electrons in an atom. 19. An electron moving from an excited state to the ground
state
7. All neutral atoms of an element have the same a. emits a photon.
a. atomic number. b. gains a photon.
b. number of electrons. c. gains a charge.
c. number of protons.
d. All of the above are correct. d. loses a charge.
8. The main problem with a solar system model of the atom 20. The existence of matter waves was proposed by
is that a. Planck.
a. electrons move in circular, not elliptical orbits. b. Bohr.
b. the electrons should lose energy since they are c. de Broglie.
accelerating. d. Einstein.
c. opposite charges should attract one another.
21. Any moving particle has a wavelength that is associated
d. the mass ratio of the nucleus to the electrons is wrong. with its mass and velocity. This is a statement that proposed
the existence of
9. Atoms of an element that have different numbers of a. photoelectric effect.
neutrons are called b. matter waves.
a. allotropes. c. quanta.
b. isomers. d. photons.
c. isotopes.
d. radioactive. 22. The arrangement of electrons in orbitals is called
a. electron configuration.
10. The sum of the numbers of protons and neutrons in the b. periodic table.
nucleus of an atom is the c. quantum numbers.
a. nucleon number. d. energy levels.
b. mass number.
c. atomic weight. 23. Group IIA elements are called
d. isotope number. a. alkali metals.
b. alkaline earth metals.
11. Atomic weight is c. alkaline salts.
a. determined by weighing individual atoms. d. beryllium metals.
b. an average weight of the isotopes of an element.
c. the number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus. 24. The elements in A groups are called
d. a weighted average of the masses of isotopes of an a. alkali elements.
element based on abundance. b. transition elements.
c. representative elements.
12. This isotope provides the standard to which the masses d. metals.
of all other isotopes are compared:
a. carbon-12 25. The element chlorine belongs to which group?
b. oxygen-16 a. Alkali metals
c. hydrogen-1 b. Lanthanides
d. gold-197 c. Halogens
d. Noble gases
13. In 1910, Max Planck introduced the idea that matter
emits and absorbs energy in 26. The gain or loss of electrons from an atom results in the
a. light waves. formation of a (an)
b. discrete units called quanta. a. ion.
c. pulses with no particular pattern. b. metal.
d. pulses that vary in magnitude over time. c. semiconductor.
d. isotope.
14. Energy of the electron is expressed in units of
a. electron volts. 27. Elements that have properties of both the metals and
b. electron watts. the non-metals are
c. quantum leaps. a. semimetals.
d. orbit numbers. b. transition elements.
c. semiconductors.
15. The major success of the Bohr theory was in explaining d. noble gases.
a. how electrons move in circular orbits.
b. why radiation less orbits existed. 28. Transition elements
c. the colors in the hydrogen line spectrum. a. are metals.
d. why the angular momentum of the electron should be by b. belong to the B group.
orbit quantum numbers. c. have variable charges.
d. All of the above are correct.
16. Light from an incandescent gas is dispersed into narrow
lines of colors with no light between the lines. This is called a 29. The energy of a photon
(an) a. varies inversely with the frequency.
a. impossible spectrum. b. is directly proportional to the frequency.
b. line spectrum. c. varies directly with the velocity.
c. Balmer spectrum.
d. is inversely proportional to the velocity. d. different masses and the same chemical behavior.
30. A photon of which of the following has the most energy? 41. If you want to know the number of protons in an atom of
a. Red light a given element, you look up the
b. Orange light a. mass number.
c. Green light b. atomic number.
d. Blue light c. atomic weight.
d. abundance of isotopes compared to the mass number.
31. The lines of color in a line spectrum from a given
element 42. If you want to know the number of neutrons in an atom
a. change colors with changes in the temperature. of a given element, you
b. are always the same, with a regular spacing pattern. a. round the atomic weight to the nearest whole number.
c. are randomly spaced, having no particular pattern. b. add the mass number and the atomic number.
d. have the same colors, with a spacing pattern that varies c. subtract the atomic number from the mass number.
with the temperature. d. add the mass number and the atomic number, then divide
by 2.
32. Hydrogen, with its one electron, produces a line
spectrum in the visible light range with 43. Which of the following is always a whole number?
a. one color line. a. Atomic mass of an isotope
b. two color lines. b. Mass number of an isotope
c. three color lines. c. Atomic weight of an element
d. None of the above is correct.
d. four color lines.
44. The quantum mechanics and Bohr models of the atom
33. According to the Bohr model, an electron gains or loses both agree on
energy only by a. the significance of the de Broglie wavelength and the
a. moving faster or slower in an allowed orbit. circumference of an orbit.
b. jumping from one allowed orbit to another. b. the importance of momentum in determining the size of
c. being completely removed from an atom. an orbit.
d. jumping from one atom to another atom. c. how electrons are able to emit light.
34. According to the Bohr model, when an electron in a
hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit farther from the nucleus 45. Hydrogen, with its one electron, can produce a line
to an orbit closer to the nucleus, it spectrum with four visible colors because
a. emits a single photon with energy equal to the energy a. an isotope of hydrogen has four electrons.
difference of the two orbits. b. electrons occur naturally with four different colors.
b. emits four photons, one for each of the color lines c. there are multiple energy levels that an electron can
observed in the line spectrum of hydrogen. occupy.
c. emits a number of photons dependent on the number of d. electrons are easily scattered.
orbit levels jumped over.
d. None of the above is correct. 46. A photon is emitted from the electronic structure of an
atom when an electron
35. The Bohr model of the atom a. jumps from a higher to a lower energy level.
a. explained the color lines in the hydrogen spectrum. b. jumps from a lower to a higher energy level.
b. could not explain the line spectrum of atoms larger than c. reverses its spin by 180°.
hydrogen. d. is removed from an atom by a high quantum of energy.
c. had some made-up rules without explanations.
d. All of the above are correct. 47. Which of the following represents a hydrogen isotope?
a. 11 H
36. The Bohr model of the atom described the energy state b. 12 H
of electrons with one quantum number. The quantum c. 13 H
mechanics model uses how many quantum numbers to d. All of the above are correct.
describe the energy state of an electron?
a. One 48. In what are atoms of 126C and 146C different?
b. Two a. Number of protons
c. Four b. Number of neutrons
d. Ten c. Number of electrons
37. An electron in the second main energy level and the
second sublevel is described by the symbols 49. An atom has 6 protons, 6 electrons, and 6 neutrons, so
a. 1s. the isotope symbol is
b. 2s. a. 12 18 Mg
c. 1p. b. 12 12 Mg
d. 2p. c. 12 6 C
d. 12 6 C
38. The space in which it is probable that an electron will be
found is described by a (an) Answers
a. circular orbit. 1. a 2. c 3. d 4. d 5. c 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. c 10. b 11. d 12. a 13.
b. elliptical orbit. b 14. a 15. c 16. b 17. c 18. d 19. a 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. b
c. orbital. 24. c 25. c 26. a 27. c 28. d 29. b 30. d 31. b 32. d 33. b 34.
d. geocentric orbit. a 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. C 39. c 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. b 44. c
45. c 46. a 47. d 48. b 49. C
39. Two different isotopes of the same element have
a. the same number of protons, neutrons, and electrons. CHAPTER 9: CHEMICAL BONDS
b. the same number of protons and neutrons but different
numbers of electrons. 1. Which of the following is not true of a compound? It is
c. the same number of protons and electrons but different a. a pure substance.
numbers of neutrons. b. composed of combinations of atoms.
d. the same number of neutrons and electrons but different c. held together by chemical bonds.
numbers of protons. d. a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler
units.
40. The isotopes of a given element always have
a. the same mass and the same chemical behavior. 2. The smallest unit of an element that can exist alone or in
b. the same mass and a different chemical behavior. combination with other elements is a (an)
c. different masses and different chemical behaviors. a. nucleus.
b. atom. a. ZnCl
c. molecule. b. Zn2Cl
d. proton. c. ZnCl2
d. ZnCl4
3. The smallest particle of a compound or a gaseous
element that can exist and still retain the characteristic 16. Pure substances that cannot be broken down into
properties of that substance is a (an) anything simpler are
a. molecule. a. elements.
b. element. b. compounds.
c. atom. c. molecules.
d. electron. d. mixtures.
4. Which of the following is an example of a monatomic 17. Chemical energy is defined as

molecule? a. change of internal potential energy during a chemical
a. O2 reaction.
b. N2 b. energy that is only absorbed during a chemical reaction.
c. Ar c. energy that is only released during a chemical reaction.
d. O3 d. energy added to a chemical reaction.
5. What determines the chemical properties of an atom? 18. A metallic bond is defined by all of the following, except
a. Valence electrons a. it is formed in solid metals.
b. Atomic weight b. it restricts movement of electrons.
c. Neutrons and protons c. metal atoms share a “sea of electrons.”
d. Protons only d. it accounts for metallic properties such as conductivity
and luster.
6. “Atoms attempt to acquire an outer orbital with eight
electrons” is a statement of the 19. An ion can be described as an element or compound that
a. Heisenberg certainty theory. a. gains electrons.
b. atomic theory. b. loses electrons.
c. octet rule. c. gains or loses electrons.
d. chemical energy balancing rule. d. shares electrons.
7. The family or group number of the representative 20. You know that a chemical reaction is taking place if
elements represents the a. the temperature of a substance increases.
a. total number of electrons. b. electrons move in a steady current.
b. total number of protons. c. chemical bonds are formed or broken.
c. total number of valence electrons. d. All of the above are correct.
d. atomic number.
21. What is the relationship between the energy released in
8. What is the chemical symbol for a magnesium ion? burning materials produced by photosynthesis and the solar
a. Mg+ energy that was absorbed in making the materials? The
b. Mg– energy released is
c. Mg2+ a. less than the solar energy absorbed.
d. Mg2– b. the same as the solar energy absorbed.
c. more than the solar energy absorbed.
9. Atoms that achieve an octet by sharing electrons form d. variable, having no relationship to the energy absorbed.
a. covalent bonds.
b. ionic bonds. 22. The electrons that participate in chemical bonding are
c. metallic bonds. the
d. hydrogen bonds. a. valence electrons.
b. electrons in fully occupied orbitals.
10. The electrostatic attraction between positive and c. stable inner electrons.
negative ions is called a (an) d. All of the above are correct.
a. ionic bond.
b. metallic bond. 23. Atoms of the representative elements have a tendency to
c. covalent bond. seek stability through
d. electrostatic bond. a. acquiring the hydrogen gas structure.
b. filling or emptying their outer orbitals.
11. The energy released during the formation of an ionic c. any situations that will fill all orbitals.
bond is d. All of the above are correct.
a. ionic energy.
b. heat of formation. 24. An ion is formed when an atom of a representative
c. activation energy. element
d. heat of creation. a. gains or loses protons.
b. shares electrons to achieve stability.
12. The comparative ability of atoms of an element to attract c. loses or gains electrons to satisfy the octet rule.
bonding electrons is called d. All of the above are correct.
a. electron attraction.
b. electronegativity. 25. An atom of an element in family VIA will have what
c. bonding. charge when it is ionized?
d. electron transfer. a. +1
b. – 1
13. What kind of bond has unequal sharing of bonding c. +2
electrons? d. – 2
a. Polar covalent
b. Covalent 26. Which type of chemical bond is formed by a transfer of
c. Ionic electrons?
d. Polar ionic a. Ionic
b. Covalent
14. The correct name for the compound CS2 is c. Metallic
a. dicarbon disulfide. d. All of the above are correct.
b. carbon disulfite.
c. carbon disulfide. 27. Which type of chemical bond is formed between two
d. monocarbon trisulfide. atoms by the sharing of two electrons, with one electron from
each atom?
15. What is the formula for the compound zinc chloride? a. Ionic
b. Covalent d. Digesting your dinner

c. Metallic
d. All of the above are correct. 39. Which of the following substances is not a compound?
a. Water
28. What types of compounds are salts, such as sodium b. Table salt
chloride? c. Neon
a. Ionic compounds d. Rust
b. Covalent compounds
c. Polar compounds 40. Propane gas burns in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide,
d. All of the above are correct. water, and energy. The reactants in this reaction are
propane and
29. What is the chemical formula if there are two bromide a. energy.
ions for each barium ion in a compound? b. oxygen.
a. 2Br1Ba c. carbon dioxide.
b. Ba2Br d. water.
c. BaBr2
d. None of the above is correct. 41. Propane gas burns in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide,
water, and energy. For this reaction, energy is
30. Which combination of elements forms crystalline solids a. absorbed.
that will dissolve in water, producing a solution of ions that b. released.
can conduct an electric current? c. equal on both sides of the reaction.
d. completely consumed in the reaction.
a. Metal and metal
b. Metal and nonmetal 42. Which is not true of an ionic bond? It involves
c. Nonmetal and nonmetal a. a transfer of electrons.
d. All of the above are correct. b. sharing of electrons.
c. electrostatic attraction between ions.
31. In a single covalent bond between two atoms, a d. metals and nonmetals.
a. single electron from one of the atoms is shared.
b. pair of electrons from one of the atoms is shared. 43. Which of the following does not have an ionic bond?
c. pair of electrons, one from each atom, is shared. a. BaCl2
d. single electron is transferred from one atom. b. Na2O
c. CS2
32. Sulfur and oxygen are both in the VIA family of the d. BaS
periodic table. If element X combines with oxygen to form the
compound X2O, element X will combine with sulfur to form 44. What is the correct formula for magnesium chloride?
what compound? a. MgCl
a. XS2 b. Mg2Cl
b. X2S c. MgCl2
c. X2S2 d. Mg2Cl2
d. It is impossible to say without more information.
45. What is the formula for the sulfate ion?
33. One element is in the IA family of the periodic table, and a. (HSO4)–
a second is in the VIIA family. W hat type of compound will b. (SO4)2–
the two elements form? c. S2–
a. Ionic d. (SO3)2–
b. Covalent
c. They will not form a compound. 46. The correct name for the compound NaNO3 is
d. More information is needed to answer this question. a. sodium nitrogen trioxygen.
b. sodium nitrate.
34. One element is in the VA family of the periodic table, c. sodium nitrite.
and a second is in the VIA family. What type of compound d. sodium nitrogen trioxide.
will these two elements form?
a. Ionic 47. How many valence electrons does the element nitrogen
b. Covalent (N) have?
c. They will not form a compound. a. 3
d. More information is needed to answer this question. b. 7
c. 5
35. A covalent bond in which there is an unequal sharing of d. 14
bonding electrons is a
48. A nonmetal atom combines with a second nonmetal
a. single covalent bond. atom. The first nonmetal atom
b. double covalent bond. a. gains electrons.
c. triple covalent bond. b. loses electrons.
d. polar covalent bond. c. remains neutral.
d. shares electrons with the second nonmetal atom.
36. An inorganic compound made of only two different
elements has 49. Polar covalent bonds result when the electronegativity
a systematic name that always ends with the suffix difference between the two atoms in the bond is
a. -ite. a. 1.7 and greater.
b. -ate. b. between 0.5 and 1.7.
c. -ide. c. less than 0.5.
d. -ous. d. equal to 0.
37. Dihydrogen monoxide is the systematic name for a 50. What is the formula for the compound aluminum
compound that has the common name of bromide?
a. laughing gas. a. AlBr2
b. water. b. AlBr3
c. smog. c. Al2Br3
d. rocket fuel. d. Al3Br
38. Which of the following is not an example of a chemical 51. The combination of nonmetals with nonmetals forms
reaction? a. covalent compounds.
a. Blending of a vanilla milkshake b. metallic compounds.
b. Growing tomatoes c. ionic compounds.
c. Burning logs in the fireplace
d. no compounds. d. compounds.
Answers 12. Which is the most active metal?

1. d 2. b 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. c 7. c 8. c 9. a 10. a 11. b 12. b 13. a a. silver
14. c 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. b 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. c b. lead
25. d 26. a 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. b 31. c 32. b 33. a 34. b 35. c. zinc
d 36. c 37. b 38. a 39. c 40. b 41. b 42. b 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. d. sodium
b 47. c 48. d 49. b 50. B
13. A solid that comes out of solution as a result of an ion
CHAPTER 10: CHEMICAL REACTIONS exchange reaction is called a
a. precipitate.
1. An empirical formula does not b. contaminant.
a. identify elements in a compound. c. base.
b. identify actual numbers of atoms in a molecule. d. metal.
c. provide the simplest whole number ratio of atoms of
elements with subscripts. 14. A balanced chemical equation provides quantitative
d. provide the formula for an ionic compound. information about all of the following except
a. time of reaction.
2. The relative arrangement of the atoms in a molecule is a b. atoms.
(an) c. molecules.
a. empirical formula. d. atomic weights of reactants and products
b. structural formula.
c. molecular formula. 15. The number of atoms in exactly 12.00 g of C-12 is called
d. covalent formula. a. atomic number.
b. atomic weight.
3. The sum of the atomic weights of all atoms in the c. Avogadro’s number.
ammonia molecule, NH3, is called
a. molecular weight. d. molecular number.
b. gravity weight.
c. periodic weight. 16. Any substance that contains Avogadro’s number of
d. percent weight. particles is called a (an)
a. mole.
4. What is the meaning of the subscripts in a chemical b. atomic number.
formula? c. gopher.
a. Number of atoms of an element in a compound d. pound.
b. Percent composition of that element in a compound
c. Number of molecules of that compound 17. A material that speeds up a chemical reaction without
d. Number of molecules in the reaction being permanently changed by the reaction is a (an)
a. catalyst.
5. “Atoms are neither created nor destroyed in a chemical b. reactant.
reaction” is a statement of the c. product.
a. law of definite proportions. d. active metal.
b. law of conservation of mass.
c. law of percent composition. 18. The most active metals are found in group
d. atomic theory. a. IA.
b. IIA.
6. What products are formed from the complete reaction of c. IB.
hydrocarbons or carbohydrates with oxygen? d. IIB.
a. CO2 + H2O
b. CO + H2O 19. Potassium reacts with water to form potassium
c. CH4 + CO2 hydroxide and hydrogen gas. What kind of reaction is this?
d. CO2 +H2 a. Decomposition
b. Combination
7. In a redox reaction, reduction is defined as the c. Replacement
a. gain of electrons by an atom. d. Ion exchange
b. loss of mass of an atom.
c. loss of electrons by an atom. 20. The molecular weight of sulfuric acid, H2SO4, is
d. gain of mass of an atom. a. 49 u.
b. 50 u.
8. In a redox reaction, oxidation is defined as the c. 98 u.
a. gain of electrons by an atom. d. 194 u.
b. loss of mass of an atom.
c. loss of electrons by an atom. 21. A balanced chemical equation has
d. gain of mass of an atom. a. the same number of molecules on both sides of the
equation.
9. To what chemical reaction class does this reaction b. the same kinds of molecules on both sides of the
belong? CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) equation.
a. Combination c. the same number of each kind of atom on both sides of
b. Ion exchange the equation.
c. Decomposition d. all of the above.
d. Replacement
22. The law of conservation of mass means that
10. To what chemical reaction class does this reaction a. atoms are not lost or destroyed in a chemical reaction.
belong? 2 Mg(s) + O2(g) 2 MgO(s) b. the mass of a newly formed compound cannot be
a. Combination changed.
b. Ion exchange c. in burning, part of the mass must be converted into fire in
c. Decomposition order for mass to be conserved.
d. Replacement d. molecules cannot be broken apart because this would
result in less mass.
11. Substances that take electrons from other substances
are called 23. A chemical equation is balanced by changing
a. oxidizing agents. a. subscripts.
b. reducing agents. b. superscripts.
c. ions. c. coefficients.
d. Any of the above is correct as necessary to achieve a composed of six carbon atoms and six hydrogen atoms.
balance. What is the empirical formula of benzene?
a. C3H3
24. Since wood is composed of carbohydrates, you should b. C6H6
expect which gases to exhaust from a fireplace when c. C2H2
complete combustion takes place? d. CH
a. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, and pollutants
b. Carbon dioxide and water vapor 35. What is the formula weight of acetic acid, CH3COOH,
c. Carbon monoxide and smoke which is found in vinegar?
d. It depends on the type of wood being burned. a. 29.0 u
b. 48.0 u
25. When carbon burns with an insufficient supply of c. 58.0 u
oxygen, carbon monoxide is formed according to the d. 60.0 u
following equation: 2 C + O2 2 CO. What category of
chemical reaction is this? 36. What are the coefficients needed to balance this
a. Combination chemical equation? CaCl2 +KOH → Ca(OH)2 + KCl
b. Ion exchange a. 1, 2, 1, 2
c. Replacement b. 2, 1, 2, 1
d. None of the above is correct because the reaction is c. 1, 1, 1, 2
incomplete. d. 2, 1, 1, 1
26. According to the activity series for metals, adding 37. What class of chemical reactions is not considered to
metallic iron to a solution of aluminum chloride should result belong to the class of oxidation-reduction reactions?
in a. Combination
a. a solution of iron chloride and metallic aluminum. b. Decomposition
b. a mixed solution of iron and aluminum chloride. c. Ion exchange
c. the formation of iron hydroxide with hydrogen given off. d. Replacement
d. no metal replacement reaction.
38. Which reaction is an example of a combination reaction?
27. In a replacement reaction, elements that have the a. 2 HgO(s) → 2 Hg(s) + O2(g)
greatest ability to hold onto their electrons are b. 4 Fe(s) + 3 O2(s) → Fe2O3(g)
a. the most chemically active. c. CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
b. the least chemically active. d. Na(s) + KCl(aq) → K(s) + NaCl(aq)
c. not generally involved in replacement reactions.
d. None of the above is correct. 39. To what chemical reaction class does this reaction
belong? Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → Cu(s) + FeSO4(aq )
28. Of the following elements, the one with the greatest a. Ion exchange
electron�holding ability is b. Combination
a. sodium. c. Replacement
b. zinc. d. Decomposition
c. copper.
d. platinum. 40. How many liters of propane gas are needed to produce
16 L of water vapor? C3H8(g) + 5 O2(g) → 3 CO2(g) + 4
29. Of the following elements, the one with the greatest H2O(g)
chemical activity is a. 2
a. aluminum. b. 3
b. zinc. c. 4
c. iron. d. 16
d. mercury.
41. How many sodium atoms are in 2 moles of sodium?
30. You know that an expected ion exchange reaction has a. 11
taken place if the products include b. 6.02 × 1023
a. a precipitate. c. 1.20 × 1024
b. a gas. d. 22
c. water.
d. any of the above. 42. What is the gram-formula weight of sodium chloride?
a. 23 u
31. The incomplete equation of 2 KClO3(s) probably b. 23 g
represents which type of chemical reaction? c. 58. 5 g
a. Combination d. 58. 5 u
b. Decomposition
c. Replacement 43. A balanced chemical reaction provides all of the
d. Ion exchange following information except
a. molecular ratio of reactants and products.
32. In the equation 2 H2(g) + O2(g) 2 H2O(1) b. mole ratio of reactants and products.
a. the total mass of the gaseous reactants is less than the c. mass ratio of reactants and products.
total d. exchange rate of reactants and products.
mass of the liquid product.
b. the total number of molecules in the reactants is equal to 44. The iron in a scouring pad will react with oxygen in the
the total number of molecules in the products. air to form iron oxide, Fe2O3, rust. The type of reaction that
c. one volume of oxygen combines with two volumes of is described is
hydrogen to produce two volumes of water. a. replacement.
d. All of the above are correct. b. combination.
c. decomposition.
33. If you have 6.02 × 1023 atoms of metallic iron, you will d. ion exchange.
have how many grams of iron?
a. 26 45. What is the formula weight of magnesium hydroxide,
b. 55.85 an ingredient found in antacids?
a. 41.3 u
c. 334.8 b. 58.3 u
c. 72.0 u
d. 3.4 × 1025 d. 89.0 u
34. The molecular formula of benzene, C6H6, tells us that
benzene is 46. An ion exchange reaction can be identified by all of the
following except
a. formation of a precipitate.
b. generation of a gas. c. depends on the amount of salt.

c. formation of water. d. increases with stirring.
d. the required addition of heat.
9. Ionic substances that dissolve in water and conduct an
47. What are the coefficients needed to balance this electric current are called
chemical equation? C2H6(g) +O2(g) → CO2(g) +H2O(g) a. salts.
a. 1, 3, 2, 3 b. compounds.
b. 1, 5, 2, 3 c. molecules.
c. 2, 7, 4, 6 d. electrolytes.
d. 2, 5, 4, 3
10. The temperature at which the vapor pressure is equal to
48. What is the empirical formula of butane, C4H10? the average atmospheric pressure at sea level is called the
a. CH a. normal pressure point.
b. C2H5 b. normal boiling point.
c. CH3 c. normal liquid point.
d. normal temperature point.
d. C4H10
11. The temperature at which a liquid undergoes a phase
49. How many moles of products are in this chemical change to the solid state at normal pressure is the
equation? CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g) a. solidification temperature.
a. 2 b. freezing point.
b. 3 c. condensation point.
c. 6 d. compression temperature.
d. 6.02 × 1023
12. All of the following are electrolytes except
Answers a. acids.
1. b 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. c 9. c 10. a 11. a 12. d 13. b. salts.
a 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. c 20. c 21. c 22. a 23. c 24. c. bases.
b 25. a 26. d 27. b 28. d 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. d d. sugars.
35. d 36. a 37. c 38. b 39. c 40. c 41. c 42. c 43. d 44. b 45. b
46. d 47. c 48. b 49. b 13. Some covalent compounds, such as HCl, become
electrolytes through the process of
CHAPTER 11: WATER AND SOLUTIONS a. ionization.
b. oxidation-reduction.
1. A major use for water in the average home is for c. decomposition.
a. drinking and cooking. d. combination.
b. bathing.
c. toilets. 14. Which of the following is not a property of an acid?
d. laundry. a. Sour taste
b. Changes litmus from red to blue
2. Freshwater is obtained from all of the following except c. Reacts with active metals to generate hydrogen gas
a. oceans. d. Changes litmus from blue to red
b. streams.
c. lakes. 15. What is an acid when it is dissolved in water?
d. rivers. a. Proton acceptor
b. Proton donor
3. A molecule with a positive end and a negative end is c. Indicator
called a (an) d. Salt
a. polar molecule.
b. nonpolar molecule. 16. Which of the following is not a property of a base?
c. neutral molecule. a. Changes red litmus to blue
d. ionic molecule. b. Changes blue litmus to red
c. Slippery to touch
4. The material present in a solution in the largest amount is d. Bitter taste
the
a. solvent. 17. The pH scale is based on the concentration of what in
b. solute. solution?
c. salt. a. Hydroxide ions
d. molecules. b. Hydronium ions
c. Electrolytes
5. Fluids that mix in any proportion without separating into d. Solute
phases are said to be
a. miscible. 18. The products produced in a neutralization reaction are
b. concentrated. a. acid and bases.
c. immiscible. b. salt and water.
d. solvated. c. molecules and water.
d. water only.
6. The relative amount of solute and solvent in a solution is
defined as the 19. Which of the following is not a solution?
a. solubility. a. Seawater
b. miscibility. b. Carbonated water
c. concentration. c. Sand
d. polarity. d. Brass
7. A solution with a state of equilibrium between the 20. Atmospheric air is a homogeneous mixture of gases that
dissolving is mostly nitrogen gas. The nitrogen is therefore the
solute and solute coming out of solution is a. solvent.
a. unsaturated. b. solution.
b. saturated. c. solute.
c. supersaturated. d. None of the above is correct.
d. undersaturated.
21. A homogeneous mixture is made up of 95 percent
8. The solubility of most ionic salts in water alcohol and 5 percent water. In this case, the water is the
a. increases with temperature. a. solvent.
b. decreases with temperature. b. solution.
c. solute.
d. None of the above is correct. c. nonpolar molecules.

22. The solution concentration terms of parts per million,
percent by volume, and percent by weight are concerned 34. Adding sodium chloride to water raises the boiling point
with the amount of of water because
a. solvent in the solution. a. sodium chloride has a higher boiling point.
b. solute in the solution. b. sodium chloride ions occupy space at the water surface.
c. solute compared to solvent. c. sodium chloride ions have stronger ion-ion bonds than
d. solvent compared to solute. water.
d. the energy of hydration is higher.
23. A concentration of 500 ppm is reported in a news article.
This is the same concentration as 35. The ice that forms in freezing seawater is
a. 0.005 percent. a. pure water.
b. 0.05 percent. b. the same salinity as liquid seawater.
c. 5 percent. c. more salty than liquid seawater.
d. 50 percent. d. denser than liquid seawater.
24. According to the label, a bottle of vodka has a 40 percent 36. Salt solutions freeze at a lower temperature than pure
by volume concentration. This means the vodka contains 40 water because
mL of pure alcohol a. more ionic bonds are present.
a. in each 140 mL of vodka. b. salt solutions have a higher vapor pressure.
b. to every 100 mL of water. c. ions get in the way of water molecules trying to form ice.
c. to every 60 mL of vodka. d. salt naturally has a lower freezing point than water.
d. mixed with water to make 100 mL vodka.
37. Which of the following would have a pH of less than 7?
25. A bottle of vinegar is 4 percent by weight, so you know a. A solution of ammonia
that the solution contains 4 weight units of pure vinegar with b. A solution of sodium chloride
a. 96 weight units of water. c. Pure water
b. 99.6 weight units of water. d. Carbonic acid
c. 100 weight units of water.
d. 104 weight units of water. 38. Which of the following would have a pH of more than 7?
a. A solution of ammonia
26. If a salt solution has a salinity of 40 parts per thousand b. A solution of sodium chloride
(‰), what is the equivalent percentage measure? c. Pure water
a. 400 percent d. Carbonic acid
b. 40 percent
c. 4 percent 39. Solutions of acids, bases, and salts have what in
d. 0.4 percent common? All have
a. proton acceptors.
27. A salt solution has solid salt on the bottom of the b. proton donors.
container, and salt is dissolving at the same rate that it is c. ions.
coming out of solution. You know the solution is d. polar molecules.
a. an electrolyte.
b. a nonelectrolyte. 40. When a solution of an acid and a base are mixed
c. a buffered solution. together,
d. a saturated solution. a. a salt and water are formed.
b. they lose their acid and base properties.
28. As the temperature of water decreases, the solubility of c. both are neutralized.
carbon dioxide gas in the water d. All of the above are correct.
a. increases.
b. decreases. 41. A substance that ionizes completely into hydronium ions
c. remains the same. is known as a
d. increases or decreases, depending on the specific a. strong acid.
temperature. b. weak acid.
c. strong base.
29. At what temperature does water have the greatest d. weak base.
density?
a. 100°C 42. A scale of values that expresses the hydronium ion
b. 20°C concentration of a solution is known as
c. 4°C a. an acid-base indicator.
d. 0°C b. the pH scale.
c. the solubility scale.
30. An example of a hydrogen bond is a weak to moderate d. the electrolyte scale.
bond between
a. any two hydrogen atoms. 43. Substance A has a pH of 2 and substance B has a pH of
b. a hydrogen atom of one polar molecule and an oxygen 3. This means that
atom of another polar molecule. a. substance A has more-basic properties than substance B.
c. two hydrogen atoms on two nonpolar molecules. b. substance B has more-acidic properties than substance
d. a hydrogen atom and any nonmetal atom. A.
c. substance A is 10 times more acidic than substance B.
31. A certain solid salt is insoluble in water, so the strongest d. substance B is 10 times more acidic than substance A.
force must be the
a. ion-water molecule force. 44. Water is a (an)
b. ion-ion force. a. ionic compound.
c. force of hydration. b. covalent compound.
d. polar molecule force. c. polar covalent compound.
d. triatomic molecule.
32. Which of the following will conduct an electric current?
a. Pure water 45. The heat of fusion, specific heat, and heat of
b. A water solution of a covalent compound vaporization of water are high compared to similar
c. A water solution of an ionic compound substances such as hydrogen sulfide, H2S, because
d. All of the above are correct. a. ionic bonds form in water molecules.
b. hydrogen bonds form between water molecules.
33. Ionization occurs upon solution of c. covalent bonds form between water molecules.
a. ionic compounds. d. covalent bonds form in water molecules.
b. some polar molecules.
46. The substance that is a nonelectrolyte is 9. The process where large hydrocarbons are converted into
a. sodium chloride, NaCl. smaller ones is called
b. copper sulfate, CuSO4. a. snapping.
c. glucose, C6H12O6. b. distillation.
d. aluminum chloride, AlCl3. c. cracking.
d. fractionation.
47. Salt is spread on icy roads because it
a. lowers the freezing point of water. 10. The atom or group of atoms in an organic molecule that
b. increases the freezing point of water. is the site of a chemical reaction is called the
c. increases the boiling point of water. a. reaction site group.
d. increases the melting point of water. b. functional group.
c. addition site.
48. Hard water is a solution of d. reactant group.
a. Na+ and Cl– ions.
b. Na+ and K+ ions. 11. A hydroxyl, –OH, functional group is found in
c. Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions. a. ketone.
b. alkanes.
d. Ba2+ and Cl– ions. c. aldehydes.
d. alcohols.
49. A solution has a pH of 9. This means that the solution is
a. acidic. 12. The oxidation of ethanol, C2H5OH, produces
b. neutral. a. acetone.
c. basic. b. formaldehyde.
d. unknown. c. acetic acid.
d. formic acid.
Answers
1. c 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. d 10. b 11. b 12. d 13. 13. An organic compound is a compound that
a 14. b 15. b 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. a 21. c 22. b 23. b a. contains carbon and was formed by a living organism.
24. d 25. a 26. c 27. d 28. a 29. c 30. b 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. b. is a natural compound.
b 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. d 41. a 42. b 43. c 44. c 45. c. contains carbon, whether it was formed by a living thing
b 46. c 47. a 48. c 49. C or not.
d. was formed by a plant.
CHAPTER 12: ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
14. There are millions of organic compounds but only
1. An organic compound consisting only of carbon and thousands of inorganic compounds because
hydrogen is called a (an) a. organic compounds were formed by living things.
a. hydrogen carbide. b. there is more carbon on Earth’s surface than any other
b. hydrocarbon. element.
c. organic compound. c. atoms of elements other than carbon never combine with
d. hydrocarbide. themselves.
d. carbon atoms can combine with up to four other atoms,
2. Carbon-to-carbon bonds are including other carbon atoms.
a. ionic.
b. polar covalent. 15. You know for sure that the compound named decane
c. covalent. has
d. metallic. a. more than 10 isomers.
b. 10 carbon atoms in each molecule.
3. All of the following are hydrocarbon groups except c. only single bonds.
a. alkanes. d. All of the above are correct.
b. alkenes.
c. alkynes. 16. An alkane with four carbon atoms would have how many
d. alkalines. hydrogen atoms in each molecule?
a. 4
4. The group –C2H5 is called b. 8
a. methyl. c. 10
b. ethyl. d. 16
c. dimethyl.
d. propyl. 17. Isomers are compounds with the same
a. molecular formula with different structures.
5. Compounds with the same molecular formulas but with b. molecular formula with different atomic masses.
different structures are called c. atoms but different molecular formulas.
a. isotopes. d. structures but different formulas.
b. allotropes.
c. isomers. 18. Isomers have
d. polymers. a. the same chemical and physical properties.
b. the same chemical but different physical properties.
6. Hydrocarbons with double bonds are the c. the same physical but different chemical properties.
a. alkanes. d. different physical and chemical properties.
b. alkenes.
c. alkynes. 19. The organic compound trimethylpentane is an isomer of
d. alkines. a. propane.
b. pentane.
7. hydrocarbon with a carbon-to-carbon triple bond is an c. heptane.
d. octane.
a. alkane.
b. alkene. 20. Which of the following would not occur as an unsaturated
c. alkyne. hydrocarbon?
d. alkaline. a. alkane
b. alkene
8. Hydrocarbons that have one to four carbon atoms are c. alkyne
a. gases. d. None of the above is correct.
b. liquids.
c. solids. 21. Petroleum is believed to have formed mostly from the
d. semisolids. anaerobic decomposition of buried
a. dinosaurs.
b. fish.
c. pine trees. a. Metal ions

d. plankton and algae. b. Carbon
c. Polyatomic ions
22. The label on a container states that the product contains d. Hydrogen
“petroleum distillates.” Which of the following hydrocarbons
is probably present? 35. The basic difference between a monomer of
a. CH4 polyethylene and a monomer of polyvinyl chloride is
b. C5H12 a. the replacement of a hydrogen by a chlorine.
c. C16H34 b. the addition of four fluorines.
d. C40H82 c. the elimination of double bonds.
d. the removal of all hydrogens.
23. The reaction of C2H2 + Br2 → C2H2Br2 is a (an)
a. substitution reaction. 36. Many synthetic polymers become a problem in the
b. addition reaction. environment because they
c. addition polymerization reaction. a. decompose to nutrients, which accelerates plant growth.
d. substitution polymerization reaction. b. do not readily decompose and tend to accumulate.
c. do not contain vitamins as natural materials do.
24. Ethylene molecules can add to one another in a reaction d. become a source of food for fish but ruin the flavor of fish
to form a long chain called a meat.
a. monomer. 37. Which of the following terms does not describe an

b. dimer. alkane?
c. trimer. a. Paraffin
d. polymer. b. Single bonds
c. Double bonds
25. Chemical reactions usually take place on an organic d. Straight chain
compound at the site of a
a. double bond. 38. A straight chain alkane with four carbons is called
b. lone pair of electrons. a. butane.
c. functional group. b. tetraalkane.
d. Any of the above is correct. c. quatrane.
d. propane.
26. The R in ROH represents
a. a functional group. 39. What is the general formula for alkenes?
b. a hydrocarbon group with a name ending in -yl. a. CnH2n+2
c. an atom of an inorganic element. b. CnH2n+4
d. a polyatomic ion that does not contain carbon. c. CnH2n
d. CnH2n–2
27. The OH in ROH represents
a. a functional group. 40. An organic molecule that does not contain the maximum
b. a hydrocarbon group with a name ending in -yl. number of hydrogen atoms is called
c. the hydroxide ion, which ionizes to form a base. a. deficient.
d. the site of chemical activity in a strong base. b. unsaturated.
c. saturated.
28. What is the proof of a “wine cooler” that is 5 percent d. incomplete.
alcohol by volume?
a. 2.5 proof 41. What is the general formula for an alkyne?
b. 5 proof a. CnH2n+2
c. 10 proof b. CnH2n+4
d. 50 proof c. CnH2n
d. CnH2n–2
29. An alcohol with two hydroxyl groups per molecule is
called 42. Acetylene is a fuel used in welding and an important
a. ethanol. reactant in the synthesis of plastics. Acetylene is an
b. glycerol. a. alkane.
c. glycerin. b. alkene.
d. glycol. c. alkyne.
d. alkaline.
30. A bottle of wine that has “gone bad” now contains
a. CH3OH. 43. Aromatic hydrocarbons are often used as
b. CH3OCH3. a. perfumes.
c. CH3COOH. b. soaps.
d. CH3COOCH3. c. solvents.
d. odorants.
31. A protein is a polymer formed from the linking of many
a. glucose units. 44. Fractional distillation separates different fractions by
b. DNA molecules. differences in their
c. amino acid molecules. a. melting point.
d. monosaccharides. b. freezing point.
c. boiling point.
32. Which of the following is not converted to blood sugar by d. origin.
the human body?
a. Lactose 45. The rate of combustion of gasoline is quantified by
b. Dextrose a. NASCAR rating.
c. Cellulose b. octane number.
d. None of the above is correct. c. kern rating.
d. leading number.
33. Fats from animals and oils from plants have the general
structure of a (an) 46. A petroleum product that is composed of hydrocarbons
a. aldehyde. with 16 to 18 carbon atoms per molecule is
b. ester. a. gasoline.
c. amine. b. asphalt.
d. ketone. c. paraffin.
d. motor oil.
34. Liquid oils from plants can be converted to solids by
adding what to the molecule?
47. The organic acid that is found in sour milk, pickles, and d. the nuclei of any size sample to decay.
in your muscles as a product of carbohydrate metabolism is
a. acetic acid. 9. The activity of a radioactive source is measured in units
b. palmitic acid. of
c. lactic acid. a. curie.
d. citric acid. b. rad.
c. rem.
48. What are the organic compounds that are used in d. roentgen.
perfumes and for artificial flavors?
a. Carboxylic acids 10. The measure of radiation that takes into account damage
b. Alcohols done by alpha, beta, and gamma is the
c. Ethers a. curie.
d. Esters b. Becquerel.
c. rem.
49. Sugars, starches, and cellulose belong to which class of d. rad.
organic compounds?
a. Proteins 11. The threshold model of long-term, low-level radiation
b. Fatty acids exposure to the human body proposes that
c. Carbohydrates a. any radiation exposure is damaging.
d. Enzymes b. radiation damage will be repaired up to a certain level.
c. any radiation exposure will result in cancer and other
Answers damage.
1. b 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. c 6. b 7. c 8. a 9. c 10. b 11. d 12. c 13. c d. the door should be shut on nuclear energy.
14. d 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. d 20. a 21. d 22. b 23. b 24.
d 25. d 26. b 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. c 31. c 32. c 33. b 34. d 35. 12. Radiation from sources in your everyday life is called
a 36. b 37. c 38. a 39. c 40. b 41. d 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. a. safe radiation.
d 47. c 48. d 49. C b. good radiation.
c. background radiation.
CHAPTER 13: NUCLEAR REACTIONS d. cosmic radiation.
1. Natural radioactivity is a result of 13. The relationship between mass changes and energy
a. adjustments to balance nuclear attractions and changes in a nuclear reaction is described by the
repulsions. a. law of conservation of mass.
b. experiments with human-made elements. b. law of conservation of matter.
c. absorption of any type of radiation by very heavy c. formula E = mc2
elements. d. molar mass.
d. a mass defect of the nucleus.
14. When protons and neutrons join to make a nucleus,
2. Which one of the following is an electron emitted by a energy is released and
nucleus as it undergoes radioactive decay? a. mass is lost.
a. Alpha particle b. mass is gained.
b. Beta particle c. the mass is constant.
c. Gamma ray d. mass is gained or lost, depending on the atomic weight.
d. Z ray
15. The energy required to break a nucleus into its
3. Which one of the following is an alpha particle emitted by constituent protons and neutrons is the same as the
a nucleus as it undergoes radioactive decay? a. nuclear energy.
a. Electron b. breaking energy.
b. Helium nucleus c. binding energy.
c. Photon of very short wavelength d. splitting energy
d. Z ray
16. The nuclear reaction that takes place when a nucleus
4. Protons and neutrons collectively are called splits into more stable, less massive nuclei with the release
a. particles. of energy is called nuclear
b. nucleons. a. chaos.
c. heavy particles. b. fission.
d. alpha particles. c. fusion.
d. disintegration.
5. The number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus defines
the 17. When the thing that starts a reaction is produced by the
a. atomic number. reaction, you have a
b. neutron number. a. chain reaction.
c. nucleon number. b. nuclear series.
d. mass number. c. decay series.
d. nuclear sequence.
6. Atoms with the same atomic number but with different
numbers of neutrons are 18. There must be sufficient mass and concentration of a
a. allotropes. fissionable material to support a chain reaction. This is called
b. isomers. the
c. isotopes. a. vital mass.
d. allomers. b. critical mass.
c. essential concentration.
7. Which of the following types of radiation will not penetrate d. crucial mass.
clothing?
a. Alpha particles 19. The control rods in a nuclear reactor are made of special
b. Beta particles materials that
c. Gamma rays a. spin, slowing the reaction.
d. X rays b. absorb energy, cooling the reaction rate.
c. absorb neutrons.
8. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the time required d. interfere with the effective transmission of electrons.
for one-half of
a. any size sample to sublimate. 20. The amount of unusable waste in a used nuclear fuel
b. a molar mass to disappear through radioactivity. rod is
c. the total radioactivity to be given off. a. 100 percent.
b. 67 percent.
c. 20 percent.
d. 4 percent. a. alpha particle.

b. beta particle.
21. One of the major problems with a fusion reactor would c. gamma ray.
be the d. None of the above is correct.
a. production of radioactive waste.
b. high temperature requirement. 34. All of the naturally occurring radioactive decay series
c. lack of fusion fuel on Earth. end when the radioactive elements have decayed to
d. lack of understanding about requirements for fusion a. lead.
reaction. b. bismuth.
c. uranium.
22. Water is used in a pressurized water reactor as a d. hydrogen.
coolant, but it also has the critical job of
a. absorbing radioactivity. 35. The rate of radioactive decay can be increased by
b. keeping waste products wet. increasing the
c. slowing neutrons. a. temperature.
d. preventing a rapid cooldown. b. pressure.
c. surface area.
23. The ejection of a beta particle from a nucleus results in d. None of the above is correct.
a. an increase in the atomic number by 1.
b. an increase in the atomic mass by 4. 36. Isotope A has a half-life of seconds, and isotope B has a
c. a decrease in the atomic number by 2. half-life of millions of years. Which isotope is more
d. None of the above is correct. radioactive?
a. Isotope A
24. The ejection of an alpha particle from a nucleus results b. Isotope B
in c. It depends on the temperature.
a. an increase in the atomic number by 1. d. The answer cannot be determined from the information
b. an increase in the atomic mass by 4. given.
c. a decrease in the atomic number by 2.
d. None of the above is correct. 37. A Geiger counter indirectly measures radiation by
measuring
25. The emission of a gamma ray from a nucleus results in a. ions produced.
a. an increase in the atomic number by 1. b. flashes of light.
b. an increase in the atomic mass by 4. c. alpha, beta, and gamma.
c. a decrease in the atomic number by 2. d. fog on photographic film.
38. A measure of radiation received that considers the
26. An atom of radon-222 loses an alpha particle to become biological effect resulting from the radiation is the
a more stable atom of a. curie.
a. radium. b. rad.
b. bismuth. c. rem.
c. polonium. d. Any of the above is correct.
d. radon.
39. Used fuel rods from a nuclear reactor contain about
27. The nuclear force is a. 96 percent usable uranium and plutonium.
a. attractive when nucleons are closer than 10–15 m. b. 33 percent usable uranium and plutonium.
b. repulsive when nucleons are closer than 10–15 m. c. 4 percent usable uranium and plutonium.
c. attractive when nucleons are farther than 10–15 m. d. 0 percent usable uranium and plutonium.
d. repulsive when nucleons are farther than 10–15 m.
40. The source of energy from the Sun is
28. Which of the following is most likely to be radioactive? a. chemical (burning).
a. Nuclei with an even number of protons and neutrons b. fission.
b. Nuclei with an odd number of protons and neutrons c. fusion.
c. Nuclei with the same number of protons and neutrons d. radioactive decay.
d. The number of protons and neutrons has nothing to do
with radioactivity. 41. The isotope of hydrogen that has one proton and one
neutron is
29. Hydrogen-3 is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen. Which a. ordinary hydrogen.
type of radiation would you expect an atom of this isotope to b. deuterium.
emit? c. tritium.
a. An alpha particle d. hydrogen-1.
b. A beta particle
c. Either of the above 42. Hydrogen-3 emits a beta particle, and the new nucleus
d. Neither of the above formed is
a. helium-3.
30. A sheet of paper will stop a (an) b. helium-4.
a. alpha particle. c. hydrogen-2.
b. beta particle. d. hydrogen-3.
c. gamma ray.
d. None of the above is correct. 43. Which of the following is most likely to happen to an
alpha particle after it is emitted?
31. The most penetrating of the three common types of a. It escapes to space, where it is known as a cosmic ray.
nuclear radiation is the b. After being absorbed by matter, it is dissipated as radiant
a. alpha particle. energy.
b. beta particle. c. After joining with subatomic particles, it finds itself in a
c. gamma ray. child’s balloon.
d. All have equal penetrating ability. d. It joins others of its kind to make lightning and thunder.
32. An atom of an isotope with an atomic number greater 44. Which of the following is most likely to happen to a beta
than 83 will probably emit a (an) particle after it is emitted?
a. alpha particle. a. It escapes to space, where it is known as a cosmic ray.
b. beta particle. b. After being absorbed by matter, it is dissipated as radiant
c. gamma ray. energy.
d. None of the above is correct. c. After joining with subatomic particles, it finds itself in a
child’s balloon.
33. An atom of an isotope with a large neutron-to-proton d. It joins others of its kind to make lightning and thunder.
ratio will probably emit a (an)
45. A nucleus emits a beta particle, and the number of c. temperature.

nucleons it contains is now d. location.
a. greater.
b. fewer. 11. The stages in the life of a star are
c. the same. a. protostar, main sequence, white dwarf, and red giant.
b. protostar, main sequence, red giant, and red dwarf.
46. Enriched uranium has more c. protostar, main sequence, red giant, and white dwarf.
a. energy. d. protostar, main sequence, red giant, and nebulae.
b. radioactivity.
c. deuterium. 12. In the process of a less massive star growing old, its
d. uranium-235. outer layer is sometimes blown off into space, forming a
a. white dwarf.
Answers b. black hole.
1. a 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. c 7. a 8. d 9. a 10. c 11. b 12. c 13. c c. Cepheid variable.
14. a 15. c 16. b 17. a 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. c d. planetary nebula.
25. d 26. c 27. a 28. b 29. b 30. a 31. c 32. a 33. b 34. a 35.
d 36. a 37. a 38. c 39. a 40. c 41. b 42. a 43. c 44. d 45. c 46. 13. The collapse of a massive star
D a. results in a tremendous explosion called a supernova.
b. forms a white dwarf.
CHAPTER 14: THE UNIVERSE c. forms planetary nebulae.
d. results in a tremendous explosion called a pulsar.
1. A referent system that can be used to locate objects in the
sky is the 14. A rapidly rotating neutron star with a strong magnetic
a. celestial globe. field is a
b. celestial coordinates. a. neutron star.
c. celestial sphere. b. pulsar.
c. supernova.
d. celestial maps. d. black hole.
2. Our Sun is 15. The product of the collapse of a massive star with a core
a. one of several stars in the solar system. three times the mass of our Sun is a
b. the brightest star in the night sky. a. neutron star.
c. an average star, considering mass and age. b. pulsar.
d. a protostar. c. red giant.
d. black hole.
3. The brightness of a star at a defined standard distance is
a. apparent magnitude. 16. The basic unit of the universe is a
b. apparent longitude. a. star.
c. absolute magnitude. b. solar system.
d. absolute latitude. c. galaxy.
d. constellation.
4. The total amount of energy radiated from the surface of a
star into space each second is 17. A galaxy is held together by
a. stellar radiation. a. stellar dust.
b. luminosity. b. gravitational attraction.
c. convection. c. electronic attractions.
d. dispersion. d. pulsating stars.
5. Which of the following colors of starlight is from the hottest 18. The diameter of the Milky Way is about
star? a. 500 light-years.
a. Blue-white b. 50,000 light-years.
b. Red c. 100,000 light-years.
c. Orange-red d. 200 million light-years.
d. Yellow
19. Approximately how old is the universe?
6. The color of a star is related to its a. 5 billion years
a. composition. b. 10 billion years
b. apparent magnitude. c. 14 billion years
c. absolute magnitude. d. 25 billion years
d. surface temperature.
20. Stars twinkle and planets do not twinkle because
7. The temperature-luminosity graph used to classify stars a. planets shine by reflected light, and stars produce their
was developed by own light.
a. Russell. b. all stars are pulsing light sources.
b. Hubble. c. stars appear as point sources of light, and planets are
c. Hubble and Russell. disk sources.
d. Hertzsprung and Russell. d. All of the above are correct.
8. The period-brightness relationship of a Cepheid variable 21. How much of the celestial meridian can you see from any
star allows astronomers to measure given point on the surface of Earth?
a. distance. a. One-fourth
b. age of stars. b. One-half
c. luminosity. c. Three-fourths
d. size. d. All of it
9. Where does our Sun belong based on the Hertzsprung- 22. Which of the following coordinate system of lines
Russell classification of stars? depends on where you are on the surface of Earth?
a. Main sequence a. Celestial meridian
b. Red giant b. Celestial equator
c. White dwarf c. North celestial pole
d. Cepheid variable d. None of the above is correct.
10. The lifetime of a star depends on its 23. The angle that you see Polaris, the North Star, above the
a. composition. horizon is about the same as your approximate location on
b. mass. a. the celestial meridian.
b. the celestial equator.
c. a northern longitude. shapes.

d. a northern latitude. b. irregular shapes form first, which collapse to spiral
galaxies, then condense to spherical shapes.
24. If you were at the north celestial pole looking down on c. there is no relationship as the different shapes probably
Earth, how would it appear to be moving? (Use a globe if you resulted from different rates of swirling gas clouds.
wish.) d. None of the above is correct.
a. Clockwise
b. Counterclockwise 36. Microwave radiation from space, measurements of the
c. One way, then the other as a pendulum expansion of the universe, the age of the oldest stars in the
d. It would not appear to move from this location. Milky Way
galaxy, and ratios of radioactive decay products all indicate
25. Your answer to question 24 means that Earth turns that the universe is about how old?
a. from the west toward the east. a. 6,000 years
b. from the east toward the west. b. 4.5 billion years
c. at the same rate it is moving in its orbit. c. 13.7 billion years
d. not at all. d. 100,000 billion years
26. Your answer to question 25 means that the Moon, Sun, 37. Whether the universe will continue to expand or will
and stars that are not circumpolar appear to rise in the collapse back into another big bang seems to depend on
a. west, move in an arc, then set in the east. what property of the universe?
b. north, move in an arc, then set in the south. a. The density of matter in the universe
c. east, move in an arc, then set in the west. b. The age of galaxies compared to the age of their stars
d. south, move in an arc, then set in the north. c. The availability of gases and dust between the galaxies
d. The number of black holes
27. How many degrees of arc above the horizon is a star
38. Distance in outer space is measured in terms of
located halfway between directly over your head and the a. kilometers.
horizon? b. megameters.
a. 45° c. light-years.
b. 90° d. miles.
c. 135°
d. 180° 39. You are studying physical science in Tennessee. Where
are you located with respect to the celestial equator?
28. In which part of a newborn star does the nuclear fusion a. North of the celestial equator
take place? b. South of the celestial equator
a. Convection zone c. On the celestial equator
b. Radiation zone d. East of the celestial equator
c. Core
d. All of the above are correct. 40. The Crab Nebula is what remains of a
a. pulsar.
29. Which of the following stars would have the longer life b. supernova.
spans? c. black hole.
a. The less massive d. constellation.
b. Between the more massive and the less massive
c. The more massive 41. The interior of an average star is proposed to contain all
d. All have the same life span. of the following except a
a. conduction zone.
30. A bright blue star on the main sequence is probably b. core.
a. very massive. c. radiation zone.
b. less massive. d. convection zone.
c. between the more massive and the less massive.
d. None of the above is correct. 42. Approximately 1.4 × 1017 kg of matter is converted to
energy each year by the Sun. How much matter is converted
31. The brightest of the stars listed are the to energy in 20 years?
a. first magnitude. a. 4.2 × 1025 kg
b. second magnitude. b. 1.3 × 1034 kg
c. fifth magnitude. c. 2.8 × 1021 kg
d. sixth magnitude. d. 2.8 × 1018 kg
32. The basic property of a main sequence star that 43. Red giant stars are
determines most of its other properties, including its location a. bright, low-temperature giants.
on the H-R diagram, is b. dim, low-temperature giants.
a. brightness. c. bright, high-temperature giants.
b. color. d. dim, high-temperature giants.
c. temperature.
d. mass. 44. Stars that are faint, very dense, white hot, and close to
the end of their lifetime are
33. All of the elements that are more massive than the a. red giant stars.
element iron were formed in a b. novas.
a. nova. c. white dwarf stars.
b. white dwarf. d. Cepheid variable stars.
c. supernova.
d. black hole. 45. Which of the following elements forms in a supernova
explosion of a dying star?
34. If the core remaining after a supernova has a mass a. Hydrogen
between 1.5 b. Carbon
and 3 solar masses, it collapses to form a c. Nitrogen
a. white dwarf. d. Nickel
b. neutron star.
c. red giant. 46. The greater the distance to a galaxy, the greater a
d. black hole. redshift in its spectral lines. This is known as
a. Doppler’s law.
35. The relationship between the different shapes of galaxies b. Cepheid’s law.
is that c. Hubble’s law.
a. spherical galaxies form first, which flatten out to elliptical d. Kepler’s law.
galaxies, then spin off spirals until they break up in irregular
47. Evidence that points to the existence of black holes was d. Mars.
provided by
a. Mauna Lao Observatory. 7. A day on which planet is longer than a year on that
b. Hubble Space Telescope. planet?
c. radio astronomy.
d. LGM. a. Mercury
48. The name of our galaxy is the b. Venus

a. solar system. c. Neptune
b. main sequence. d. Jupiter
c. Milky Way.
d. Polaris. 8. The day on which planet is about the same time period as
a day on Earth?
49. What is the obstacle to finding extraterrestrial life? a. Mercury
a. Money b. Venus
b. Number of stars c. Mars
c. Distance and time d. Jupiter
d. Language
9. Mars has distinct surface feature-related regions. Which
50. Outer space is mostly of the following is not such a region?
a. galaxies. a. Volcanic
b. stars. b. Systems of canyons
c. planets. c. Plateaus near the poles
d. empty space. d. Ocean floors
51. Initial evidence that supports the big bang theory of the 10. How many moons orbit Mars?
creation of the universe came from a. One
a. experiments conducted by shuttle astronauts. b. Two
b. unmanned space probes. c. Four
c. redshift calculations by Edwin Hubble. d. None
d. data from the Hubble Space Telescope.
11. What is the largest planet in our solar system?
Answers a. Mars
1. c 2. c 3. c 4. b 5. a 6. d 7. d 8. a 9. a 10. b 11. c 12. d 13. a b. Jupiter
14. b 15. d 16. c 17. b 18. c 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. d 24. b c. Saturn
25. a 26. c 27. a 28. c 29. a 30. a 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. b 35. c d. Earth
36. c 37. a 38. c 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. d 43. a 44. c 45. d 46. c
47. b 48. c 49. c 50. d 51. C 12. Callisto, Europa, Gannymede, and Io are
a. Galilean moons.
CHAPTER 15: THE SOLAR SYSTEM b. volcanoes on Jupiter.
c. red spots.
1. The mass of the Sun is how much larger than all of the d. comets that struck Jupiter.
other planets, moons, asteroids, and other bodies in the
solar system? 13. The density of Jupiter is
a. 100 times larger a. 50 percent greater than that of Earth.
b. 200 times larger b. 50 percent that of the density of Earth.
c. 500 times larger c. 25 percent that of the density of Earth.
d. 700 times larger d. 500 times the density of Earth.
2. The distance from Earth to the Sun is called a (an) 14. The only moon in the solar system with a substantial
a. light-year. atmosphere is
b. solar year. a. Io.
c. astronomical unit. b. Moon.
d. astronomical year. c. Phobos.
d. Titan.
3. What type of planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and
Mars? 15. Saturn’s rings are thought to be
a. Early planets a. composed of thousands of particles of various sizes.
b. Terrestrial planets b. the remains of a collision with Jupiter.
c. Small planets c. preventing the atmosphere on Saturn from escaping.
d. Hot planets d. made up of captured asteroids.
4. Which of the following is most likely found on Jupiter? 16. The planet with the lowest average density, which is less
a. Hydrogen than that of liquid water, is
b. Argon a. Uranus.
c. Nickel b. Neptune.
d. Carbon dioxide c. Saturn.
5. What is the outermost planet?
a. Mercury 17. The planet that is not a giant is
b. Mars a. Saturn.
c. Neptune b. Neptune.
d. Jupiter c. Mercury.
d. Uranus.
6. The planet that was named after the mythical Roman
messenger 18. What planets are considered “twins”?
a. Saturn and Jupiter
of speed is b. Mercury and Pluto
c. Neptune and Uranus
a. Jupiter. d. Earth and Mars
b. Mercury. 19. Area of the solar system where long-period comets

originate is the
c. Saturn. a. asteroid belt.
b. Oort cloud.
c. Kuiper Belt.
d.region between Jupiter and Neptune. d. The Moon
20. Short-period comets have orbital periods of 32. The planet that has the shortest “year” among the eight
a. less than 200 years. planets is
b. more than 200 years. a. Jupiter.
c. variable duration but between 10 and 100 years. b. Neptune.
d. variable duration but between 100 and 200 years. c. Mercury.
d. Earth.
21. Remnants of comets and asteroids found in space are
called 33. What planet is called the morning star and the evening
a. meteoroids. star, depending on its position with respect to the Sun?
b. meteors. a. Mercury
c. meteorites. b. Venus
d. minor planets. c. Mars
d. Saturn
22. Meteorites are classified into the following groups except
a. iron. 34. Venus “shines” because it is
b. stony. a. composed of rocky materials.
c. lead. b. covered with metallic iron and nickel.
d. stony-iron. c. powered by fusion reactions.
d. covered with clouds that reflect sunlight.
23. The most widely accepted theory on the origin of the
solar system is 35. On Venus, the sun rises in the west. This is so because
a. big bang. a. the Venus day is very long.
b. conservation of matter. b. Venus rotates in the opposite direction of its revolution.
c. protoplanet nebular. c. Venus is the second planet from the Sun.
d. collision of planets. d. Venus is covered with clouds and the Sun cannot be
seen until later in its day.
24. The belt of asteroids between Mars and Jupiter is
probably 36. The “sister” planet to Earth is
a. the remains of a planet that exploded. a. Mercury.
b. clumps of matter that condensed from the accretion disk b. Venus.
but never got together as a planet. c. Mars.
c. the remains of two planets that collided. d. Moon.
d. the remains of a planet that collided with an asteroid
or comet. 37. What feature on Mars was considered by some to be
evidence of life on Mars?
25. Which of the following planets would be mostly a. Ice caps
composed of hydrogen, helium, and methane and have a b. Red color
density of less than 2 g/cm3? c. Channels or canals
a. Uranus d. Radio signals
b. Mercury
c. Mars 38. Jupiter radiates twice as much energy as it receives from
d. Venus the Sun because of
a. internal fusion reactions.
26. Which of the following planets probably still has its b. rapid gravitational expansion of the planet.
original atmosphere? c. slow gravitational compression of the planet.
a. Mercury d. internal fission reactions.
b. Venus
c. Mars 39. The Great Red Spot is thought to be
d. Jupiter a. a low-pressure region with stagnant clouds.
b. a high-pressure region with high cold clouds.
27. Venus appears the brightest when it is in the c. hydrogen and helium storms.
a. full phase. d. ammonia and sulfur clouds.
b. half phase.
c. quarter phase. 40. The metallic hydrogen that surrounds the core of Jupiter
d. crescent phase. is not
a. a liquid.
28. The small body with a composition and structure closest b. under tremendous pressure.
to the materials that condensed from the accretion disk is a c. a gas.
(an) d. a conductor of electric currents.
a. asteroid.
b. meteorite. 41. A shooting star is a (an)
c. comet. a. meteoroid.
d. None of the above is correct. b. meteor.
c. meteorite.
29. A small body from space that falls on the surface of Earth d. asteroid.
is a
a. meteoroid. Answers
b. meteor. 1. d 2. c 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. b 8. c 9. d 10. b 11. b 12. a 13. c
c. meteor shower. 14. d 15. a 16. c 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. c 23. c 24. b
d. meteorite. 25. a 26. d 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. d 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. d 35.
b 36. b 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. c 41. B
30. Planets in our solar system are classified according to
all of the following characteristics except CHAPTER 16: EARTH IN SPACE
a. density.
b. size. 1. The plane of Earth’s orbit is called the
c. nature of the atmosphere. a. plane of Earth.
d. inhabitants. b. plane of the solar system.
c. plane of the ecliptic.
31. What separates the terrestrial planets from the giant d. plane of the Sun.
planets?
a. Mars 2. The spinning of a planet on its axis, an imaginary line
b. Asteroid belt through its poles, is called
c. Empty space a. 24 hour day.
b. rotation. d. It does not have an atmosphere.

c. revolution.
d. retrograde motion. 16. The approximate age of the Moon was determined by
a. radioactive dating of moon rocks.
3. The consistent tilt and the orientation of its axis as Earth b. exploration by Apollo astronauts.
moves around its orbit is responsible for c. measurement of the depth of the surface dust.
a. tides. d. laser measurement of the distance from Earth to the
b. seasons. Moon.
c. volcanic eruptions.
d. earthquakes. 17. What is the accepted theory about the origin of the
Moon?
4. In the Northern Hemisphere, the North Pole points toward a. It formed from particles revolving around Earth.
the Sun during the b. A very large object hit Earth, and the Moon was formed
a. summer solstice. from ejected material.
b. spring solstice. c. Earth captured an incoming asteroid, and it became the
c. winter equinox. Moon.
d. winter solstice. d. Earth and the Moon were created at the same time.
5. The referent meridian is the 18. The Moon is positioned between Earth and the Sun. This
a. prime meridian. phase is the
b. principal meridian. a. full moon.
c. first meridian. b. new moon.
d. primary meridian. c. first quarter moon.
d. last quarter moon.
6. The parallel at 66.5°S is called the
a. Arctic Circle. 19. Tides that occur at the full and new moon phases are
b. Antarctic Circle. called
c. tropic of Cancer. a. new tides.
d. tropic of Capricorn. b. lunar tides.
c. spring tides.
7. The movement of the Sun across the celestial meridian is
d. tidal waves.
defined as
a. midnight. 20. Friction between the tides and the ocean basin is
b. 6 a.m. a. wearing away the ocean basin.
c. 6 p.m. b. moving Earth closer to the Moon.
d. noon. c. increasing the rotation of Earth.
d. slowing the rotation of Earth.
8. Clocks and watches are set to measure a uniform
standard time based on 21. Earth is undergoing a combination of how many different
a. mean solar time. major motions?
b. apparent solar day. a. Zero
c. sidereal day. b. One
d. apparent solar time. c. Three
d. Seven
9. How many standard time zones are there?
a. 10 22. In the Northern Hemisphere, city A is located a number
b. 12 of miles north of city B. At 12 noon in city B, the Sun appears
c. 20 directly
d. 24 overhead. At this very same time, the Sun over city A will
appear
10. The 180° meridian is called the a. to the north of overhead.
a. tropic of Cancer. b. directly overhead.
b. prime meridian. c. to the south of overhead.
c. international date line.
d. Arctic Circle. 23. Earth as a whole receives the most solar energy during
what month?
11. The time period from one new moon to the next new a. January
moon is called the b. March
a. sidereal month. c. July
b. synodic month. d. September
c. lunar month.
d. apparent month. 24. During the course of a year and relative to the Sun,
Earth’s axis points
12. Maria are a. always toward the Sun.
a. craters on the Moon. b. toward the Sun half of the year and away from the Sun
b. mountains on the Moon. the other half.
c. ancient molten lava seas on the Moon. c. always away from the Sun.
d. dried-up oceans on the Moon. d. toward the Sun for half a day and away from the Sun the
other half.
13. Unmanned missions to the Moon did not find or identify
a. active volcanoes. 25. If you are located at 20°N latitude, when will the Sun
b. water. appear directly overhead?
c. minerals. a. Never
d. lunar topography. b. Once a year
c. Twice a year
14. Rocks on the surface of the Moon are primarily d. Four times a year
a. sedimentary.
b. basaltic. 26. If you are located on the equator (0° latitude), when will
c. limestone. the Sun appear directly overhead?
d. metamorphic. a. Never
b. Once a year
15. The atmosphere of the Moon is c. Twice a year
a. primarily H2. d. Four times a year
b. primarily N2.
c. primarily CO2.
27. If you are located at 40°N latitude, when will the Sun b. Sunday.
appear directly overhead? c. Tuesday.
a. Never d. Saturday.
b. Once a year
c. Twice a year 39. What has happened to the surface of the Moon during
d. Four times a year the last 3 billion years?
a. Heavy meteorite bombardment, producing craters
28. During the equinoxes b. Widespread lava flooding from the interior
a. a vertical stick in the equator will not cast a shadow at c. Both widespread lava flooding and meteorite
noon. bombardment
b. at noon the Sun is directly overhead at 0° latitude. d. Not much
c. daylight and night are of equal length.
d. All of the above are correct. 40. If you see a full moon, an astronaut on the Moon looking
back at Earth at the same time would see a
29. Evidence that Earth is rotating is provided by a. full Earth.
a. varying length of night and day during a year. b. new Earth.
b. seasonal climatic changes. c. first quarter Earth.
c. stellar parallax. d. last quarter Earth.
d. a pendulum.
41. A lunar eclipse can occur only during the moon phase of
30. In about 12,000 years, the star Vega will be the North a. full moon.
Star, not Polaris, because of Earth’s b. new moon.
a. uneven equinox. c. first quarter.
b. tilted axis. d. last quarter.
c. precession.
d. recession. 42. A total solar eclipse can occur only during the moon
phase of
31. The significance of the tropic of Cancer (23.5°N latitude) a. full moon.
is that b. new moon.
c. first quarter.
a. the Sun appears directly overhead north of this latitude d. last quarter.
some time during a year. 43. A lunar eclipse does not occur every month because
b. the Sun appears directly overhead south of this latitude a. the plane of the Moon’s orbit is inclined to the ecliptic.
some time during a year. b. of precession.
c. the Sun appears above the horizon all day for six months c. Earth moves faster in its orbit when closest to the Sun.
during the summer north of this latitude. d. Earth’s axis is tilted with respect to the Sun.
d. the Sun appears above the horizon all day for six months
during the summer south of this latitude. 44. The smallest range between high and low tides occurs
during
32. The significance of the Arctic Circle (66.5°N latitude) is a. full moon.
that b. new moon.
a. the Sun appears directly overhead north of this latitude c. quarter moon phases.
sometime during a year. d. an eclipse.
b. the Sun appears directly overhead south of this latitude
sometime during a year. 45. Earth’s axis points toward
c. the Sun appears above the horizon all day at least one a. constellation Aquarius.
day during the summer. b. constellation Leo.
d. the Sun appears above the horizon all day for six months c. the North Star.
during the summer. d. Vega.
33. In the time 1 p.m., the p.m. means 46. At the summer solstice, the Sun is
a. “past morning.” a. low in the Northern Hemisphere sky.
b. “past midnight.” b. high in the Northern Hemisphere sky.
c. “before the meridian.” c. directly over the tropic of Capricorn.
d. “after the meridian.” d. directly over the equator.
34. Clock time is based on 47. Earth is positioned between the Sun and the Moon in a
a. sundial time. nearly straight line. This positioning results in a (an)
b. an averaged apparent solar time. a. lunar eclipse.
c. the apparent local solar time. b. solar eclipse.
d. the apparent local noon. c. annular eclipse.
d. new moon.
35. An apparent solar day is
a. the interval between two consecutive local solar noons. Answers:
b. about 4 minutes longer than the sidereal day. 1. c 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. d 8. a 9. d 10. c 11. b 12. c 13.
c. of variable length throughout the year. a 14. b 15. d 16. a 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. d 22. c 23. a
d. All of the above are correct. 24. b 25. c 26. c 27. a 28. d 29. d 30. c 31. b 32. c 33. d 34. b
35. d 36. d 37. a 38. c 39. d 40. b 41. a 42. b 43. a 44. c 45.
36. The time as read from a sundial is the same as the time c 46. b 47. A
read from a clock
a. all the time. CHAPTER 17: ROCKS AND MINERALS
b. only once a year.
c. twice a year. 1. A naturally occurring inorganic solid element or compound
d. four times a year. with a crystalline structure is a
a. mineral.
37. You are traveling west by jet and cross three time zone b. crystal.
boundaries. If your watch reads 3 p.m. when you arrive, you c. rock.
should reset it to d. stone.
a. 12 noon.
b. 6 p.m. 2. A structural unit that is repeated in three dimensions is
c. 12 midnight. called a
d. 6 a.m. a. mineral.
b. rock.
38. If it is Sunday when you cross the international date line c. crystal.
while traveling westward, the next day is
a. Wednesday.
d. glass. d. clay minerals.
3. Which element is the most abundant in Earth’s crust? 16. Rocks that are formed from particles of other rocks or
a. Oxygen from dissolved materials from previously existing rocks are
b. Silicon classified as
c. Sodium a. sedimentary.
d. Aluminum b. igneous.
c. silicates.
4. Minerals are classified as d. metamorphic.
a. silicates.
b. nonsilicates. 17. Accumulations of silt, sand, or other materials that settle
c. silicates or nonsilicates. out of water are called
d. silicates and oxides. a. precipitates.
b. solutes.
5. The most abundant class of nonsilicates is the c. clay.
a. oxides. d. sediments.
b. sulfates.
c. halides. 18. Limestone and dolomite are
d. carbonates. a. sandstone.
b. carbonates.
6. Silicates are classified into two groups based on the c. evaporates.
presence of d. silicates.
a. iron and manganese.
b. iron and magnesium. 19. Heat and pressure change rocks into
c. aluminum and iron. a. igneous rocks.
d. calcium and potassium. b. sedimentary rocks.
c. metamorphic rocks.
7. The color of a mineral when it is finely powdered is d. clastic rocks.
defined as the
a. streak. 20. The relationship between rocks that are continually
b. spot. changing over long periods of time is called
c. luster. a. geology.
d. color. b. mineralogy.
c. rock cycle.
8. The hardness of a mineral is rated using the d. weathering.
a. hardness scale. 21. The thin layer that covers Earth’s surface is the
b. Richter scale. a. continental shelf.
c. Mohs scale. b. crust.
d. cleavage scale. c. mantle.
d. core.
9. The ratio of the mineral’s density to the density of water is
a. 1 g/mL. 22. Based on its abundance in Earth’s crust, most rocks will
b. specific gravity. contain a mineral composed of oxygen and the element
c. 1 g/cm3 a. sulfur.
d. specific density. b. carbon.
c. silicon.
10. Molten rock material from which minerals crystallize is d. iron.
called
a. rock salts. 23. The most common rock in Earth’s crust is
b. liquid crystals. a. igneous.
c. magma. b. sedimentary.
d. the mother lode. c. metamorphic.
11. An aggregation of one or more minerals that have been
brought together into a cohesive solid is a 24. An intrusive igneous rock will have which type of texture?
a. silicate. a. Fine-grained
b. rock. b. Coarse-grained
c. clay mineral. c. Medium-grained
d. magma. d. No grains
12. Rocks that are formed from molten minerals are 25. Which igneous rock would have the greatest density?
a. sedimentary. a. Fine-grained granite (rhyolite)
b. igneous. b. Coarse-grained granite
c. volcanic. c. One composed of nonferromagnesian silicates
d. metamorphic. d. Basalt
13. Igneous rock that slowly cooled deep below Earth’s 26. Which of the following formed from previously existing
crust is rocks?
a. intrusive. a. Sedimentary rocks
b. extrusive. b. Igneous rocks
c. magma. c. Metamorphic rocks
d. sedimentary. d. All of the above are correct.
14. The rocks that make up the bulk of Earth’s continents are 27. Sedimentary rocks are formed by the processes of
a. basalt. compaction and
b. olivine. a. pressurization.
c. granite. b. melting.
d. clay minerals. c. cementation.
d. heating but not melting.
15. The rocks that make up the ocean basins and much of
Earth’s interior are 28. The greatest extent of metamorphic changes has
a. basalt. occurred in
b. sandstone. a. gneiss.
c. granite. b. schist.
c. slate.
d. shale. 42. Extrusive igneous rocks are formed on Earth’s surface

from
29. Which type of rock probably existed first, starting the rock a. magma.
cycle? b. lava.
a. Metamorphic c. slowly cooling hot solutions.
b. Igneous d. sediments.
c. Sedimentary
d. All of the above are correct. 43. Foliation is found in
a. sedimentary rocks.
30. Earth is unique because it has b. igneous rocks.
a. CO2 in its atmosphere. c. metamorphic rocks.
b. water covering most of its surface. d. all rocks.
c. fusion-powered energy in its core.
d. “land” quakes. Answers
1. a 2. c 3. a 4. c 5. d 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. c 11. b 12. b 13. a
31. The common structural feature of all silicates is 14. c 15. a 16. a 17. d 18. b 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. b
a. silicon-silicon chains. 25. d 26. d 27. c 28. a 29. b 30. b 31. b 32. c 33. d 34. d 35.
b. silicon-oxygen tetrahedral unit. b 36. c 37. b 38. c 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. c
c. silicon-silicon rings.
d. silicon-oxygen chains. CHAPTER 18: PLATE TECTONICS
32. The one group that is not a subgroup of the silicate 1. The core of Earth is composed of
minerals is a. iron and nickel.
a. ferromagnesian. b. silicon and oxygen.
b. nonferromagnesian. c. iron and lead.
c. plastic silicates. d. nickel and copper.
d. clay minerals.
2. The middle part of Earth’s interior is
33. The property that is not considered useful in identifying a. oceanic crust.
minerals is b. mantle.
a. hardness. c. inner crust.
b. luster. d. outer core.
c. density.
d. melting point. 3. The separation of materials that gave Earth its layered
interior is called
34. The specific gravity of a mineral depends on the a. stratification.
b. separation.
a. kinds of atoms of which it is composed. c. differentiation.
b. manner in which the atoms are packed in the crystal d. partition.
lattice.
c. amount of the mineral. 4. A vibration that moves through any part of Earth is called
d. a and b a
a. seismic wave.
35. Fluorite is a mineral that floats in liquid mercury. The b. gamma wave.
specific gravity of fluorite must be c. Z-wave.
a. equal to the specific gravity of mercury. d. radio wave.
b. less than the specific gravity of mercury.
c. greater than the specific gravity of mercury. 5. The S-wave is a
a. longitudinal wave.
36. The group that is not a class of rocks is b. transverse wave.
a. sedimentary. c. radio wave.
b. igneous. d. surface wave.
c. volcanic.
d. metamorphic. 6. Waves that occur where S- or P-waves reach the surface
are
37. The classification of rocks is based on a. secondary waves.
a. location. b. surface waves.
b. how they were formed. c. T-waves.
c. age. d. minor waves.
d. composition.
7. The three main areas of Earth’s interior are
38. An example of a sedimentary rock is a. core, mantle, and crust.
a. basalt. b. core, secondary layer, and surface.
b. granite. c. nucleus, mantle, and crust.
c. shale. d. core, mantle, and shell.
d. slate.
8. The boundary between the crust and the mantle is called
39. The term that does not describe a size of clastic a. crust-to-mantle discontinuity.
sediment is b. continental-to-oceanic boundary.
a. gravel. c. litho discontinuity.
b. sandstone. d. Moho discontinuity.
c. silt.
d. boulder. 9. The mantle is composed of
a. sulfides.
40. Dissolved rock materials form b. silicates.
a. chemical sediments. c. clay minerals.
b. clastic sediments. d. oxides.
c. basaltic rocks.
d. igneous rocks. 10. Seismological studies suggests that the core
a. is solid.
41. An example of a metamorphic rock is b. is liquid.
a. marble. c. has a liquid outer core and solid inner core.
b. granite. d. has a solid outer core and liquid inner core.
c. limestone.
d. sandstone.
11. Evidence from meteorite studies proposes that the core a. P-waves.
is b. S-waves.
composed of c. surface waves.
a. nickel. d. P- and S-waves.
b. iron.
c. lead and iron. 24. Earth’s mantle has a chemical composition that agrees
d. nickel and iron. closely with the composition of
a. basalt.
12. The layer in Earth where seismic waves sharply b. iron and nickel.
decrease in velocity is called the c. granite.
a.crust. d. gneiss.
b. mantle.
c. lithosphere. 25. From seismological data, Earth’s shadow zone indicates
d. asthenosphere. that part of Earth’s interior must be
a. liquid.
13. The layer that is broken up into plates that move in the b. solid throughout.
upper mantle is the c. plastic.
a. crust. d. hollow.
b. lithosphere.
c. upper mantle. 26. The Mohorovicic discontinuity is a change in seismic
d. asthenosphere. wave velocity that is believed to take place because of
a. structural changes in minerals of the same composition.
14. The name of the single large continent suggested by b. changes in the composition on both sides of the
Wegener is boundary.
a. Pan-continental. c. a shift in the density of minerals of the same composition.
b. Atlantis. d. changes in the temperature with depth.
c. Pangaea.
d. Asia Major. 27. The oldest rocks are found in
a. continental crust.
15. Records of the strength and directions of Earth’s b. oceanic crust.
magnetic field are found in c. neither, since both are the same age.
a. igneous rocks.
b. meteorites. 28. The least dense rocks are found in
c. sedimentary rocks. a. continental crust.
d. minerals. b. oceanic crust
c. neither, since both are the same density.
16. The chain of mountains found in the center of the Atlantic
Ocean basin is called the 29. The idea of seafloor spreading along the Mid-Atlantic
Ridge was supported by evidence from
a. Atlantic Mountains. a. changes in magnetic patterns and ages of rocks moving
b. Mid-Atlantic Ridge. away from the ridge.
c. Continental Ridge. b. faulting and volcanoes on the continents.
d. Icelandic Ridge. c. the observations that there was no relationship between
one continent and another.
17. Long, deep, and narrow oceanic trenches are located d. All of the above are correct.
a. in the middle of oceanic ridges.
b. on either side of the oceanic ridges. 30. According to the plate tectonics theory, seafloor
c. parallel to the edges of continents. spreading takes place at a
d. perpendicular to the edges of continents. a. convergent boundary.
b. subduction zone.
18. The theory that the lithosphere is composed of several c. divergent boundary.
rigid plates that “float” in the asthenosphere is called d. transform boundary.
a. continental drift.
b. plate tectonics. 31. The presence of an oceanic trench, a chain of volcanic
c. plate boundaries. mountains along the continental edge, and deep-seated
d. continental tectonics. earthquakes is characteristic of a (an)
a. ocean-ocean plate convergence.
19. The plate boundary associated with the formation of new b. ocean-continent plate convergence.
crust is called c. continent-continent plate convergence.
a. divergent. d. None of the above is correct.
b. convergent.
c. transform. 32. The presence of an oceanic trench with shallow
d. None of the above is correct. earthquakes and island arcs with deep-seated earthquakes
is characteristic of a (an)
20. The movement of one plate under another plate creates a. ocean-ocean plate convergence.
a b. ocean-continent plate convergence.
a. divergent boundary. c. continent-continent plate convergence.
b. ridge. d. None of the above is correct.
c. subduction zone.
d. boundary zone. 33. The ongoing occurrence of earthquakes without seafloor
spreading, oceanic trenches, or volcanoes is most
21. Transform boundaries occur when characteristic of a
a. two plates slide by each other without the formation or a. convergent boundary between plates.
loss of crust. b. subduction zone.
b. two plates come together and “transform” each other. c. divergent boundary between plates.
c. one plate slides under another plate. d. transform boundary between plates.
d. ridges are formed.
34. The evidence that Earth’s core is part liquid or acts as a
22. What is the current theory about why the plates move? liquid comes from
a. Plates follow the rotation of Earth. a. the P-wave shadow zone.
b. Convective cells move from the core to the lithosphere. b. the S-wave shadow zone.
c. Gravity. c. meteorites.
d. Conduction cells move from the core to the lithosphere. d. All of the above are correct.
23. The seismic waves that cause the most damage during 35. The surfaces of early planets in our solar system were
an earthquake are thought to be formed from
a. melting by the Sun. 48. Which type of plate boundary accounts for the formation
b. bombardment by dust and debris remaining from initial of the Appalachian Mountains?
planet formation. a. Divergent
c. nuclear decay processes. b. Ocean to continental convergence
d. volcanic eruptions. c. Continental to continental convergence
d. Transform
36. The early Earth’s core is thought to have formed from the
a. exterior melting from radioactive decay. 49. Which type of plate boundary was responsible for the
b. gravitational pull of heavier materials to the center of formation of the Japanese Islands?
Earth. a. Divergent
c. exterior melting from fusion reactions. b. Ocean to ocean convergence
d. interior melting from lava. c. Continental to continental convergence
d. Transform
37. Indirect evidence that supports the theory of how Earth
formed is not supported by the study of 50. A famous transform boundary in the United States is the
a. vibrations in Earth. a. Rocky Mountains fault.
b. Earth’s magnetic field. b. Mississippi fault.
c. heat flow. c. San Andreas fault.
d. samples from Earth’s core. d. San Jose fault.
38. The oceanic crust is 51. Plate movement is measured by

a. thicker than the continental crust. a. reflected laser light experiments.
b. found under the continental crust. b. age of sediments and fossils.
c. thinner than the continental crust. c. analysis of magnetic patterns in rocks.
d. the same in its properties as the continental crust. d. All of the above are correct.
39. Seismic waves that do not travel through liquid are 52. Islands that form when melted subducted material rises
a. P-waves. through the plates above sea level are called
b. S-waves. a. Pacific islands.
c. both P- and S-waves. b. arc islands.
d. surface waves. c. convergence islands.
d. plate islands.
40. The fastest seismic wave is the
a. P-wave. Answers
b. S-wave. 1. a 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. c 11. d 12. d 13.
c. P- and S-waves are equally fast. b 14. c 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. c 21. a 22. b 23. c 24.
d. surface wave. a 25. a 26. b 27. a 28. a 29. a 30. c 31. b 32. a 33. d 34. b
35. b 36. b 37. d 38. c 39. b 40. a 41. d 42. a 43. a 44. b 45.
41. Information about the composition and nature of the a 46. c 47. b 48. c 49. b 50. c 51. d 52. B
mantle does not come from
a. seismological data. CHAPTER 19: BUILDING EARTH’S SURFACE
b. meteorite studies.
c. debris ejected from volcanoes. 1. The premise that the present is the key to understanding
d. samples obtained from drilling. the past is called
a. history.
42. Primary information about the nature of the core is b. principle of uniformity.
provided by c. principles of geology.
a. seismological data. d. philosophy.
b. meteorite studies.
c. debris ejected from volcanoes. 2. The process of deformation that changes Earth’s surface
d. samples obtained from drilling. is called
a. continental drift.
43. The asthenosphere is not defined as b. plate tectonics.
a. rigid. c. diastrophism.
b. plastic. d. volcanism.
c. mobile.
d. elastic. 3. A force that compresses, pulls apart, or deforms a rock is
called
44. Earth’s magnetic field is thought to be generated by a. stress.
a. seismic waves throughout Earth. b. strain.
b. electrical currents in the core. c. pressure.
c. electrical currents in the crust. d. tension.
d. electrical currents in the asthenosphere.
4. Rock stress caused by two plates moving together is
45. Studies of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge provided evidence of a. compressive stress.
a. seafloor spreading. b. tensional stress.
b. seafloor closing. c. shear stress.
c. ancient shipwrecks. d. transform stress.
d. early humans.
5. Adjustment to stress is defined as
46. Evidence that supports seafloor spreading does not a. release.
include the b. strain.
a. earthquakes occurring along the crest of the Mid-Atlantic c. pressure.
Ridge. d. relief.
b. presence of rift along the crest of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge.
c. younger sediments near the continents. 6. Rocks at great depths are under
d. discovery of identical magnetic patterns in rocks on both a. lower temperature and higher pressure.
sides of the ridge. b. higher temperature and higher pressure.
c. higher temperature and lower pressure.
47. A geologic feature that was produced by divergent d. lower temperature and lower pressure.
boundaries is
a. the Alps. 7. A bend in layered bedrock that resulted from stress is
b. the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. called a
c. the Marianas Trench. a. fracture.
d. Japan. b. fold.
c. fault. 20. Mountains that rise sharply from surrounding land along
d. twist. a steeply inclined fault plane are
a. weathered mountains.
8. Folds that resemble an arch are called b. domed mountains.
a. inverted basins. c. fault block mountains.
b. clines. d. folded mountains.
c. anticlines.
d. synclines. 21. A large amount of magma that has crystallized beneath
Earth’s surface is a
9. A fold that forms a trough is called a (an) a. batholith.
a. syncline. b. monolith.
b. basin. c. sill.
c. inverted arch. d. laccolith.
d. semicline.
22. The most abundant extrusive rock is
10. Movement between rocks on one side of a fracture a. granite.
relative to the rocks on the other side of the fracture is called b. silicate.
a c. basalt.
a. fracture. d. limestone.
b. transformation.
c. fault. 23. The basic difference between the frame of reference
d. displacement. called the principle of uniformity and the catastrophic frame
of reference used by previous thinkers is that
11. The actual place where seismic waves originate is the a. the energy requirements for catastrophic changes are
earthquake much less.
a. epicenter. b. the principle of uniformity requires more time for changes
b. focus. to take place.
c. root. c. catastrophic changes have a greater probability of
d. source. occurring.
12. The point on Earth’s surface directly above the focus of
an earthquake is called the 24. The difference between elastic deformation and plastic
a. fault line. deformation of rocks is that plastic deformation
b. epicenter. a. permanently alters the shape of a rock layer.
c. source. b. always occurs just before a rock layer breaks.
d. quake starting point. c. results in the rock returning to its original shape after the
pressure is removed.
13. An earthquake that occurs in the upper part of the d. All of the above are correct.
mantle
25. Whether a rock layer subjected to stress undergoes
is called elastic deformation, plastic deformation, or rupture depends
a. shallow focus. on
b. deep focus. a. the temperature of the rock.
c. lithosphere focus. b. the confining pressure on the rock.
d. intermediate focus. c. how quickly or how slowly the stress is applied over time.
14. The majority of earthquakes (85 percent) are
a. shallow focus. 26. When subjected to stress, rocks buried at great depths
b. deep focus. are under great pressure at high temperatures, so they tend
c. lithosphere focus. to undergo
d. intermediate focus. a. no change because of the pressure.
b. elastic deformation because of the high temperature.
15. The size of an earthquake is measured by c. plastic deformation.
a. how many buildings are damaged d. breaking or rupture.
b. the amount of energy released at the focus.
c. the height of the tsunami it generated. 27. A sedimentary rock layer that has not been subjected to
d. the time of the earthquake. stress occurs naturally as
a. a basin, or large downward-bulging fold.
16. The energy of the vibrations or the magnitude of an b. a dome, or a large upward-bulging fold.
earthquake is reported using the c. a series of anticlines and synclines.
a. seismograph numbers. d. beds, or horizontal layers.
b. Richter scale.
c. magnitude scale. 28. The difference between a joint and a fault is that
d. bigone scale. a. the fault is larger.
b. the fault is a long, far-ranging fracture, and a joint is short.
17. Earthquakes are detected and measured by c. relative movement has occurred on either side of a fault.
a. a seismometer. d. All of the above are correct.
b. a Geiger counter.
c. Doppler radar. 29. A fault where the footwall has moved upward relative to
d. oil well monitors. the hanging wall is called a
a. normal fault.
18. Elevated parts of Earth’s crust that rise above the b. reverse fault.
surrounding surface are called c. thrust fault.
a. ridges. d. None of the above is correct.
b. hills.
c. plateaus. 30. Reverse faulting probably resulted from which type of
d. mountains. stress?
a. Compressional stress
19. Which of the following is not a classification of mountain b. Pulling-apart stress
origin? c. A twisting stress
a. Folding d. Stress associated with diverging tectonic plates
b. Faulting
c. Parallel 31. Earthquakes that occur at the boundary between two
d. Volcanic tectonic plates moving against each other take place along
a. the entire length of the boundary at once.
b. short segments of the boundary at different times.
c. the entire length of the boundary at different times. d. at the same rate as
45. The epicenter is located by
32. Each higher number of the Richter scale a. measuring how long the earthquake lasts.
a. increases with the magnitude of an earthquake. b. measuring the time difference between P- and S-waves.
b. means 10 times more ground movement. c. using time data from several seismographs to triangulate
c. indicates about 30 times more energy is released. the location.
d. All of the above are correct. d. b and c
33. The removal of “older” crust from the surface of Earth is 46. An earthquake is
accomplished by a. the result of the sudden release of energy that comes
a. erosion. from stress on rock.
b. subduction. b. ground displacement and motion.
c. transform strain. c. the cause of tsunamis.
d. volcanoes. d. All of the above are correct.
34. Hutton observed that rocks, rock structures, and 47. The Black Hills in South Dakota and the Adirondack
features of Earth are all related. This relationship is called Mountains in New York are
a. history. a. arched mountains.
b. principle of uniformity. b. domed mountains.
c. principles of geology. c. volcanic mountains.
d. philosophy d. compressed mountains.
35. The principle of uniformity has a basic frame of 48. The Appalachian Mountains were formed when
reference. This frame of reference is a. North America split from South America.
a. plate tectonics. b. North America collided with Europe and Africa.
b. continental drift. c. North America collided with South America.
c. changes and deformations of rocks today and in the past. d. North America split from Europe and Africa.
d. compressive strain.
49. Mountains that were formed as a result of volcanic
36. What is not considered a type of strain? eruptions are the
a. Elastic a. Alps.
b. Plastic b. Cascades.
c. Rigidity c. Rockies.
d. Fracture d. Appalachians.
37. How a rock responds to stress and strain does not 50. The source of magma for the Mount St. Helens volcano
depend on the is the
a. Cascade Mountains.
a. nature of the rock. b. subduction of the continental lithosphere under the Juan
b. temperature of the rock. de Fuca Plate.
c. pressure on the rock. c. subduction of the Juan de Fuca Plate under the
d. mass of the rock. continental lithosphere.
d. continental lithosphere to Juan de Fuca Plate divergence.
38. Which rock is more likely to break under stress?
a. Cold rock Answers
b. Hot rock 1. b 2. c 3. a 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. b 12. b 13.
c. Rock deep in Earth d 14. A 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. c 21. a 22. c 23. b
d. Rock under great pressure 24. a 25. d 26. c 27. d 28. c 29. a 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. b 34.
b 35. c 36. c 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. b 41. d 42. a 43. c 44. a
39. Rocks near or on the surface 45. d 46. d 47. b 48. b 49. b 50. C
a. are not cooler than those below the surface.
b. are not hotter than those below the surface. CHAPTER 20: SHAPING EARTH’S SURFACE
c. are less brittle.
d. are under greater pressure. 1. Small changes that result in the breaking up, crumbling,
and destruction of any kind of rock are
40. Rocks recover their original shape after strain is a. decomposition.
released. This type of strain is called b. weathering.
a. plastic strain. c. corrosion.
b. elastic strain. d. erosion.
c. fracture strain.
d. pop-up strain. 2. The process of physically removing weathered materials is
called
41. Which is not a type of fault? a. weathering.
a. Normal b. transportation.
b. Reverse c. erosion.
c. Thrust d. corrosion.
d. Forward
3. Muddy water rushing downstream after a heavy rain is an
42. Where do most earthquakes occur? example of
a. Along plate boundaries a. weathering.
b. In the oceans b. washing.
c. On ridges c. erosion.
d. Along the Moho discontinuity d. transportation.
43. The name of the fault that is of concern to people living 4. The physical breakup of rocks without any changes in
along the Mississippi River is the their chemical composition is
a. Mississippi fault. a. oxidation.
b. Memphis fault. b. mechanical weathering.
c. New Madrid fault. c. erosion.
d. Missouri fault. d. transportation.
44. P-waves travel __________ S-waves. 5. Chemical weathering, the dissolving or breaking down of
a. faster than minerals in rocks, is also called
b. slower than a. oxidation.
c. farther than b. reduction.
c. disintegration. 18. The picking up of loose materials from the surface by

d. decomposition. wind is
a. abrasion.
6. The process of peeling off layers of rock, reducing the b. deflation.
pressure on the rock’s surface, is called c. inflation.
a. chemical peel. d. polishing.
b. exfoliation.
c. wedging. 19. What is the pH of natural rainwater?
d. disintegration. a. 5.0 to 5.5
b. 5.6 to 6.2
7. The weak acid formed by the reaction of water with carbon c. 6.3 to 6.7
dioxide is d. 7.0
a. carbonic acid.
b. carbonate acid. 20. Freezing water exerts pressure on the wall of a crack in a
c. hydrocarbonic acid. rock mass, making the crack larger. This is an example of
d. dihydrocarbonate acid. a. mechanical weathering.
8. A mixture of unconsolidated weathered earth materials b. chemical weathering.

and humus is
a. gravel. c. exfoliation.
b. soil.
c. dirt. d. hydration.
d. mud.
21. Of the following rock weathering events, the last one to
9. Decay-resistant, altered organic material is occur
a. soil.
b. clay. would probably be
c. topsoil.
d. humus. a. exfoliation.
10. Two minerals that usually remain after granite has b. frost wedging.
completely weathered are
a. quartz and clay. c. carbonation.
b. quartz and hematite.
c. olivine and granite. d. disintegration.
d. quartz and basalt.
22. Which of the following would have the greatest overall
11. Weathered materials move to lower elevations due to effect in lowering the elevation of a continent such as North
only America?
a. Continental glaciers
a. wind. b. Alpine glaciers
b. rain. c. Wind
c. gravity. d. Running water
d. erosion.
23. Broad meanders on a very wide, gently sloping
12. The slow movement downhill of soil on the side of a floodplain with oxbow lakes are characteristics you would
mountain iscalled expect to find in a river valley during what stage?
a. rockslide. a. Newborn
b. avalanche. b. Youth
c. creep. c. Maturity
d. crawl. d. Old age
13. The wide, level floor of a valley built by a stream is called 24. A glacier forms when
a (an) a. the temperature does not rise above freezing.
a. channel. b. snow accumulates to form ice, which begins to flow.
b. valley. c. a summer climate does not occur.
c. floodplain. d. a solid mass of snow moves downhill under the influence
d. island. of gravity.
14. The deposit at the mouth of a river where sediments are 25. A likely source of loess is
dropped is called a a. rock flour.
a. riverbank. b. a cirque.
b. delta. c. a terminal moraine.
c. mouth. d. an accumulation of ventifacts.
d. source.
26. The landscape in a dry climate tends to be more angular
15. Rock fragments frozen in moving glacier ice polish and because the dry climate
scratch rocks at the base and on the walls of the glacier. a. has more winds.
This process is b. lacks as much chemical weathering.
a. bulldozing. c. has less rainfall.
b. polishing. d. has stronger rock types.
c. plucking.
d. abrasion. 27. Peneplains and monadnocks are prevented from
forming by
16. The agent that has the least ability to erode is a. mass movement.
a. wind. b. running water.
b. gravity. c. deflation.
c. streams. d. rejuvenation.
d. glaciers.
28. The phrase weathering of rocks means
17. The major processes of wind erosion are a. able to resist any changes, as in weathers the storm.
a. abrasion and bulldozing. b. a discoloration caused by the action of the weather.
b. polishing and plucking. c. physical or chemical destruction.
c. abrasion and deflation. d. the same thing as rusting.
d. deflation and polishing.
29. What are you doing to a rock if you pick up the small b. loam.
pieces of a smashed rock? c. clay-based.
a. Mechanical weathering d. sandy.
b. Chemical weathering
c. Erosion 42. The formation of a shallow layer of water by rain on the
d. Transportation surface, which dissolves materials and carries fragments
away, is called
30. What are you doing to the fragments of a smashed rock a. rain erosion.
if you carry the fragments to a new location? b. sheet erosion.
a. Mechanical weathering c. waterfall.
b. Chemical weathering d. stream erosion.
c. Erosion
d. Transportation 43. The most extensive glaciers in the United States are
found in
31. What are you doing to a rock if you dissolve it in acid? a. Montana.
a. Mechanical weathering b. Wyoming.
b. Chemical weathering c. Washington.
c. Erosion d. Alaska.
d. Transportation
44. Continental glaciers are found in
32. A deeper, richer layer of soil would be expected where a. Iceland.
the climate is b. Antarctic.
a. wet and warm. c. Greenland.
b. dry and cold. d. Greenland and Antarctic.
c. tropical.
d. arctic. 45. An example of a chemical weathering process that is a
major concern in the northeastern United States is
33. The soil called loam is a. erosion.
a. all sand and humus. b. acid rain.
b. mostly humus with some sand. c. hydration.
c. equal amounts of sand, silt, and clay. d. oxidation.
d. from the C horizon of a soil profile.
Answers
34. A moraine is a 1. b 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. b 7. a 8. b 9. d 10. a 11. c 12. c 13. c
a. wind deposit. 14. b 15. d 16. a 17. c 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. c 22. d 23. d 24.
b. glacier deposit. b 25. a 26. b 27. d 28. c 29. c 30. d 31. b 32. a 33. c 34. b
c. river deposit. 35. c 36. c 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. c 41. b 42. b 43. d 44. d 45.
d. Any of the above is correct. B
35. The breaking up, crumbling, chemical decomposition, CHAPTER 21: GEOLOGIC TIME
and destruction of rocks at or near Earth’s surface are called
a. rockslide. 1. Evidence of former life is called a
b. mining. a. ghost.
c. weathering. b. fossil.
d. erosion. c. history.
d. relic.
36. Crushing of rock at a quarry to make smaller-sized
gravel is an example of 2. In the early 1800s, William Smith noted that sedimentary
a. physical weathering. rock layers could be identified by
b. chemical weathering. a. location.
c. mechanical weathering. b. color.
d. reduction weathering. c. fossils.
d. size.
37. Fragments of rocks fall into a mountain stream and are
carried into the valley. This is an example of 3. The science of discovering fossils and their history is
a. weathering. a. history.
b. erosion. b. paleontology.
c. transportation. c. archeology.
d. decomposition. d. anthropology.
38. Tree roots grow and expand, and eventually break 4. The meaning of the word fossil is
through a sidewalk. This is an example of a. petrified rock.
a. corrosion. b. ancient artifact.
b. erosion. c. petrified bones and the study of these bones.
c. wedging. d. evidence of ancient organisms.
d. disintegration.
5. There are three methods of fossil formation. The method
39. Damage to the Lincoln Memorial by rain and smog is an that is not a method of fossil formation is
example of a. preservation of soft organic materials.
a. physical weathering. b. preservation of hard parts.
b. chemical weathering. c. preservation of signs of activity.
c. exfoliation. d. replacement.
d. erosion.
6. Hard parts of organisms that form fossils do not include
40. Ferromagnesian minerals will react with oxygen to a. shells.
produce deeply colored iron oxides. This is an example of b. teeth.
a. hydration. c. plants.
b. carbonation. d. bones.
c. oxidation.
d. combination. 7. Fossils are most often found in what type of rock?
a. Sedimentary
41. You are planning a garden and need a soil that will hold b. Metamorphic
moisture for plant growth but also drain well. The soil that c. Igneous
you want to d. Volcanic
purchase is
a. humus.
8. “Geologic time” means b. Mesozoic

a. the relative age of humankind. c. Paleozoic
b. the relative age of fossils. d. Phanerozoic
c. the relative age of Earth.
d. the relative age of the universe. 22. Pangaea formed approximately
a. 25 million years ago.
9. Clues to the past that we get from rocks do not include b. 65 million years ago.
a. mineral composition. c. 225 million years ago.
b. place of origin. d. 3.5 billion years ago.
c. rock texture.
d. sedimentary structure. 23. A fossil is
a. actual remains of plants or animals such as shells or
10. A time break in the rock record is called a (an) wood.
a. unconformity. b. remains that have been removed and replaced by mineral
b. time lag. matter.
c. crosscutting relationship. c. any sign of former life older than 10,000 years.
d. time warp. d. Any of the above is correct.
11. Distinctive fossils of plants or animals that were 24. Some of the oldest fossils are about how many years
distributed widely but lived only a short time with a common old?
extinction time are called a. 4.55 billion
a. short-lived fossils. b. 3.5 billion
b. correlation fossils. c. 250 million
c. index fossils. d. 10,000
d. faunal successive fossils.
25. According to the evidence, a human footprint found
12. The ability to use index fossils along with the ages of preserved in baked clay is about 5,000 years old. According
rocks in different locations is to the definitions used by paleontologists, this footprint is a
a. age correlation. (an)
b. fossil association. a. fossil since it is an indication of former life.
c. age comparison. b. mold since it preserves the shape.
d. relative dating. c. actual fossil since it is preserved.
13. The process that is adding heat to the interior of Earth is
a. conduction. 26. A fossil of a fly, if found, would most likely be
b. revolution. a. a cast.
c. radioactive decay. b. formed by mineralization.
d. solar energy. c. preserved in amber.
d. Any of the above is correct.
14. Modern geologic clocks include
a. radiometric dating. 27. Which of the basic guiding principles used to read a
b. geomagnetic measurements. story of geologic
c. both a and b.
events tells you that layers of undisturbed sedimentary rocks
d. neither a nor b. have progressively older layers as you move toward the
bottom?
15. Major blocks of time in the geologic time scale are called a. Superposition
a. decades. b. Horizontality
b. eons. c. Crosscutting relationships
c. centuries. d. None of the above is correct.
d. millennia.
28. In any sequence of sedimentary rock layers that has not
16. The time before the time of life is called been subjected to stresses, you would expect to find
a. Precambrian. a. essentially horizontal stratified layers.
b. Postcambrian. b. the oldest layers at the bottom and the youngest at the
c. Phanerozoic. top.
d. Post-Phanerozoic. c. no faults, folds, or intrusions in the rock layers.
17. The smallest block of time assigned to the geologic time
period is the 29. An unconformity is a
a. eon. a. rock bed that is not horizontal.
b. period. b. rock bed that has been folded.
c. era. c. rock sequence with rocks missing from the sequence.
d. epoch. d. All of the above are correct.
18. Which of the following does not describe a unit of 30. Correlation and relative dating of rock units are made
geologic time? possible by application of the
a. Eon a. principle of crosscutting relationships.
b. Epoch b. principle of faunal succession.
c. Period c. principle of superposition.
d. Century d. All of the above are correct.
19. The time of recent life era is the 31. The geologic time scale identified major blocks of time in
a. Cenozoic. Earth’s past by
b. Mesozoic. a. major worldwide extinctions of life on Earth.
c. Paleozoic. b. the beginning of radioactive decay of certain unstable
d. Phanerozoic. elements.
c. measuring reversals in Earth’s magnetic field.
20. The earliest fossils represented life from d. None of the above is correct.
a. land.
b. oceans. 32. You would expect to find the least number of fossils in
c. air. rocks from which era?
d. All of the above are correct. a. Cenozoic
b. Mesozoic
21. Mammals first appeared in what era? c. Paleozoic
a. Cenozoic
d. Precambrian c. Paleozoic
d. Phanerozoic
33. You would expect to find fossils of life very different from
anything living today in rocks from which era? 46. The oxygen in our atmosphere is the result of
a. Cenozoic a. ultraviolet radiation.
b. Mesozoic b. photosynthesis.
c. Paleozoic c. evolution of mammals.
d. Precambrian d. cooling climates.
34. The numerical dates associated with events on the 47. Earth is thought to be
geologic time scale were determined by a. 225 million years old.
a. relative dating of the rate of sediment deposition. b. 2.5 billion years old.
b. radiometric dating using radioactive decay. c. 3.8 billion years old.
c. the temperature of Earth. d. 4.5 billion years old.
d. the rate that salt is being added to the ocean.
Answers
35. Which of the following is not a fossil? 1. b 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. c 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. a 11. c 12. a 13. c
a. Dinosaur footprints 14. c 15. b 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. c 23. d 24.
b. Petrified wood b 25. a 26. c 27. a 28. d 29. c 30. d 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. b
c. Saber-toothed tiger bones 35. d 36. a 37. d 38. c 39. d 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. c 44. b 45.
d. Pieces of ancient Native American pottery a 46. b 47. D
36. An early record about the discovery of fossils and CHAPTER 22: THE ATMOSPHERE
connection of fossils to living organisms comes from the
a. ancient Greeks. 1. The science that studies the atmosphere and weather
b. ancient Romans. phenomena is
c. Babylonians. a. astronomy.
d. Vikings. b. astrology.
c. meteorology.
37. Signs of activity that are a type of fossil preservation d. space science.
include all but
a. tracks. 2. Up from the surface, 99 percent of the mass of Earth’s
b footprints. atmosphere is found within
c. burrows. a. 12 km (7 mi).
d. shells. b. 16 km (10 mi).
c. 24 km (15 mi).
38. The observation that sediments are commonly d. 32 km (20 mi).
deposited in flat-lying layers is called the
a. principle of uniformity. 3. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is
b. principle of superposition. a. oxygen.
c. principle of original horizontality. b. nitrogen.
d. principle of crosscutting relationships. c. argon.
d. carbon dioxide.
39. A geologic feature that cuts across or is intruded into a
rock mass must be younger than the rock mass. This is 4. Approximately how much of the total volume of the
based on the atmosphere is oxygen?
a. principle of uniformity. a. 21 percent
b. principle of superposition. b. 32 percent
c. principle of original horizontality. c. 78 percent
d. principle of crosscutting relationships. d. 93 percent
40. Criteria for a geologic clock process do not include that 5. Fog and clouds are composed of
the a. water vapor.
a. process must have been operating since Earth began. b. tiny droplets of liquid water.
b. process must be measurable. c. pockets of rain or snow.
c. process must be uniform or subject to averaging. d. large crystals of water vapor.
d. process must include humans.
6. The continuous cycle of water precipitation and
41. How many eons has there been since the birth of Earth? evaporation is called
a. 2 a. rain.
b. 4 b. weather.
c. 16 c. climate.
d. Over 100 d. hydrologic cycle.
42. The geologic eon that is known for abundant fossil 7. Tiny solid or liquid smoke, soot, dust, and salt crystals
records and living organisms is called found in the atmosphere are
a. Precambrian. a. of no concern.
b. Postcambrian. b. harmful, reducing rainfall.
c. Phanerozoic. c. aerosols.
d. Post-Phanerozoic. d. clouds.
43. The earliest abundant fossils are found in what era? 8. Atmospheric pressure is measured using a
a. Cenozoic a. barometer.
b. Mesozoic b. psychrometer.
c. Paleozoic c. thermometer.
d. Phanerozoic d. hydrometer.
44. Dinosaurs first appeared in what era? 9. Which molecules in the atmosphere absorb infrared
a. Cenozoic radiation?
b. Mesozoic a. Water
c. Paleozoic b. Oxygen
d. Phanerozoic c. Carbon dioxide
d. a and c
45. What era is also called the age of mammals?
a. Cenozoic 10. What is the process of heating the atmosphere by the
b. Mesozoic
absorption of solar radiation and reemission of infrared 23. The amount of water vapor at a particular temperature is
radiation? defined as
a. Solar energy a. effective humidity.
b. Greenhouse effect b. actual humidity.
c. Ozone depletion c. absolute humidity.
d. Global emissions d. humidity.
11. Near the surface, what happens to the temperature of 24. The temperature at which condensation begins is the
the atmosphere with increasing altitude? a. dew point.
a. Increases b. boiling point.
b. Decreases c. frost point.
c. Stays the same d. melting point.
d. Depends on the season
25. The basic shapes of clouds do not include
12. What is the layer of the atmosphere where we live? a. cirrus.
a. Mesosphere b. cotton tuffs.
b. Stratosphere c. cumulus.
c. Troposphere d. stratus.
d. Ozone layer
26. An airplane flying at about 6 km (20,000 ft) is above how
13. A layer of the atmosphere where the temperature much of Earth’s atmosphere?
increases with height is a (an) a. 99 percent
a. conversion. b. 90 percent
b. inversion. c. 75 percent
c. diversion. d. 50 percent
d. cloud.
27. Earth’s atmosphere is mostly composed of
14. What is the boundary between the troposphere and the a. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water vapor.
stratosphere? b. nitrogen, oxygen, and argon.
a. Thermal plane c. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen.
b. Tropopause d. oxygen, nitrogen, and water vapor.
c. Stratopause
d. Inversion layer 28. Which of the following gases cycle into and out of the
atmosphere?
15. In what lower layer of the atmosphere would a. Nitrogen
transcontinental aircraft escape convective turbulence? b. Carbon dioxide
a. Mesosphere c. Oxygen
b. Stratosphere d. All of the above are correct.
c. Troposphere
d. Ionosphere 29. If it were not for the ocean, Earth’s atmosphere would
probably be mostly
16. Ultraviolet radiation is filtered by a. nitrogen.
a. the ozone shield. b. carbon dioxide.
b. the inversion layer. c. oxygen.
d. argon.
c. Earth’s magnetic field.
d. the greenhouse. 30. Your ear makes a “pop” sound as you descend in an
elevator because
17. The term that does not describe a layer of the a. air is moving from the atmosphere into your eardrum.
atmosphere is b. air is moving from your eardrum to the atmosphere.
a. thermosphere. c. air is not moving into or out of your eardrum.
b. stratosphere. d. None of the above is correct.
c. mesosphere.
d. temposphere. 31. Most of the total energy radiated by the Sun is
a. visible light.
18. Uneven heating of Earth’s surface directly leads to b. ultraviolet radiation.
a. rain. c. infrared radiation.
b. condensation. d. gamma radiation.
c. convection.
d. thermal radiation. 32. How much of the total amount of solar radiation reaching
the outermost part of Earth’s atmosphere reaches the
19. A general horizontal movement of air is called surface?
a. wind. a. All of it
b. unusual. b. About 99 percent
c. hurricane. c. About 75 percent
d. storm. d. About one-half
20. Air moving from the ocean to the land is called a 33. The solar radiation that does reach Earth’s surface
a. tsunami. a. is eventually radiated back to space.
b. sea breeze. b. shows up as an increase in temperature.
c. wind. c. is reradiated at different wavelengths.
d. storm. d. All of the above are correct.
21. A rapidly moving “stream” of air near the top of the 34. The greenhouse effect results in warmer temperatures
troposphere is near the surface because
a. an unusual wind pattern. a. clouds trap infrared radiation near the surface.
b. a jet stream. b. some of the energy is reradiated back toward the surface.
c. El Niño. c. carbon dioxide molecules do not permit the radiation to
d. impossible. leave.
d. carbon dioxide and water vapor both trap infrared
22. Water vapor in the atmosphere does not radiation
a. participate in weather.
b. act as a greenhouse gas. 35. The temperature increases with altitude in the
c. maintain life on Earth. stratosphere
d. filter ultraviolet radiation out of the atmosphere. because
a. it is closer to the Sun than the troposphere.
b. heated air rises to the stratosphere. 47. The density of the atmosphere
c. of a concentration of ozone. a. increases with increasing altitude.
d. the air is less dense in the stratosphere. b. decreases with increasing altitude.
c. remains the same, regardless of altitude.
36. Ozone is able to protect Earth from harmful amounts of d. decreases with decreasing altitude.
ultraviolet radiation by
a. reflecting it back to space. 48. Condensation nuclei provide a surface for fog or cloud
b. absorbing it and decomposing, then reforming. formation. These particles include
c. refracting it to a lower altitude. a. salt crystals.
d. All of the above are correct. b. soot.
c. dust.
37. Summertime breezes would not blow if Earth did not d. All of the above are correct.
experience
a. cumulus clouds. Answers
b. differential heating. 1. c 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. d 7. c 8. a 9. d 10. b 11. b 12. c 13.
c. the ozone layer. b 14. b 15. b 16. a 17. d 18. c 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. d 23. c
d. a lapse rate in the troposphere. 24. a 25. b 26. d 27. b 28. d 29. b 30. a 31. c 32. d 33. d 34.
b 35. c 36. b 37. b 38. a 39. c 40. b 41. a 42. d 43. c 44. b
38. On a clear, calm, cool night, you would expect the air 45. b 46. d 47. b 48. D
temperature over a valley floor to be what compared to the
air temperature over a slope to the valley? CHAPTER 24: EARTH’S WATERS
a. Cooler
b. Warmer 1. Condensation of water vapor into clouds or fog requires
c. The same temperature a. high temperatures.
d. Sometimes warmer and sometimes cooler b. storms.
c. condensation nuclei.
39. Air moving down a mountain slope is often warm d. no wind.
because
a. it has been closer to the Sun. 2. Clouds that are between you and the Sun will appear
b. cool air is denser and settles to lower gray because
elevations. a. the clouds filter sunlight.
c. it is compressed as it moves to lower elevations. b. the clouds reflect sunlight.
d. this occurs only during the summertime. c. the clouds refract sunlight.
d. the Sun’s shadow makes the clouds dark.
40. Considering Earth’s overall atmosphere, you would
expect more rainfall to occur in a zone of 3. Which is not an example of precipitation?
a. high atmospheric pressure. a. Rain
b. low atmospheric pressure. b. Dew
c. prevailing westerly winds. c. Snow
d. prevailing trade winds. d. Ice
41. Considering Earth’s overall atmosphere, you would 4. Cloud droplets merge and fuse with millions of other
expect to droplets to form large raindrops. This process is called
a. seeding.
find a desert located in a zone of b. precipitation.
a. high atmospheric pressure. c. coalescence.
b. low atmospheric pressure. d. combination.
c. prevailing westerly winds.
d. prevailing trade winds. 5. What type of clouds will usually produce a long, cold
winter storm with drizzle, rain, ice, and snow?
42. Water molecules can go (1) from the liquid state to the a. Cirrus
vapor state and (2) from the vapor state to the liquid state. b. Cumulus
When is the movement from the liquid to the vapor state c. Stratus
only? d. Storm
a. Evaporation
b. Condensation 6. The transfer of heat from a region of higher temperature to
c. Saturation a region of lower temperature by the displacement of high-
d. This usually does not occur alone. energy molecules is
a. thermal energy.
43. What condition means a balance between the number of b. conduction.
water molecules moving to and from the liquid state? c. convection.
a. Evaporation d. radiation.
b. Condensation
c. Saturation 7. The one term that does not describe an air mass is
d. None of the above is correct. a. maritime polar.
b. continental southern.
44. Without adding or removing any water vapor, a sample of c. maritime tropical.
the atmosphere experiencing an increase in temperature will d. continental polar.
have
a. a higher relative humidity. 8. A boundary between air masses is called a
b. a lower relative humidity. a. boundary.
c. the same relative humidity. b. front.
d. a changed absolute humidity. c. dividing line.
d. barrier.
45. Cooling a sample of water vapor results in a (an)
a. increased capacity. 9. A low-pressure center where the winds move
b. decreased capacity. counterclockwise into the low-pressure center is called a (an)
c. unchanged capacity. a. occluded front.
b. stationary front.
46. On a clear, calm, and cool night, dew or frost is most c. cyclone.
likely to form d. high.
a. under trees or other shelters.
b. on bare ground on the side of a hill. 10. Clear, fair weather is associated with a
c. under a tree on the side of a hill. a. high.
d. on grass in an open, low-lying area. b. low.
c. stationary front. c. cooler.

d. low-pressure center. d. the temperature of the surrounding air.
11. A thunderstorm usually does not develop under what 23. A parcel of air shoved upward into atmospheric air in a
conditions? state of
a. Warm air instability will expand and become cooler,
b. Cold air a. but not as cool as the surrounding air.
c. Moist air b. and thus colder than the surrounding air.
d. Humid air c. reaching the same temperature as the surrounding air.
d. then warmer than the surrounding air.
12. Upward air motion that leads to the growth of cumulus
clouds to tremendous heights is called a (an) 24. A parcel of air shoved upward into atmospheric air in a
a. lift. state of stability will expand and become cooler,
b. flight. a. but not as cool as the surrounding air.
c. updraft. b. and thus colder than the surrounding air.
d. rise. c. reaching the same temperature as the surrounding air.
d. then warmer than the surrounding air.
13. The separation of charge associated with the movement
of water droplets as they fall or as they are lifted by an 25. Cumulus clouds usually mean an atmospheric state of
updraft can result in a. stability.
a. lightning. b. instability.
b. hail. c. cool, dry equilibrium.
c. thunder. d. warm, humid equilibrium.
d. a rainbow.
26. When water vapor condenses in a parcel of air rising in
14. An intense low-pressure area with widespread winds an unstable atmosphere, the parcel is
greater than 120 km/h is a a. forced to the ground.
a. tornado. b. slowed.
b. tropical storm. c. stopped.
c. hurricane. d. accelerated upward.
d. cyclone.
27. A parcel of air with a relative humidity of 50 percent is
15. A hurricane does not have given an upward shove into the atmosphere. What is
a. gale winds. necessary before cloud droplets form in this air?
b. rain and thunderstorms. a. Cooling
c. a high-pressure area. b. Saturation
d. an “eye” at its center. c. Condensation nuclei
16. Weather prediction is not based on
a. use of computer models. 28. A cloud is hundreds of tiny water droplets suspended in
b. the Farmer’s Almanac. the air. The average density of liquid water in such a cloud is
c. the study of the movement of air masses. about
d. knowledge of basic scientific laws. a. 0.1 g/m3
b. 1 g/m3
17. The general pattern of weather that occurs for a region c. 100 g/m3
over a d. 1,000 g/m3
number of years is called 29. When water vapor in the atmosphere condenses to
a. a weather history. liquid water,
b. the climate. a. dew falls to the ground.
c. a forecast. b. rain or snow falls to the ground.
d. the environment. c. a cloud forms.
18. The source of energy that drives the hydrologic cycle is
a. the ocean. 30. In order for liquid cloud droplets at the freezing point to
b. latent heat from evaporating water. freeze
c. the Sun.
d. Earth’s interior. into ice crystals,
a. condensation nuclei are needed.
19. Considering the average amount of water that b. further cooling is required.
evaporates from Earth’s oceans each year and the average c. ice-forming nuclei are needed.
amount that returns by precipitation, d. nothing more is required.
a. evaporation is greater than precipitation.
b. precipitation is greater than evaporation. 31. Which basic form of a cloud usually produces longer
c. precipitation balances evaporation. periods of drizzle, rain, or snow?
d. there is no pattern that can be generalized. a. Stratus
b. Cumulus
20. A thunderstorm that occurs at 3 a.m. over a flat region of c. Cirrus
the country was probably formed by d. None of the above is correct.
a. convection.
b. differential heating. 32. Which basic form of a cloud usually produces brief
c. the meeting of moving air masses. periods of showers?
d. Any of the above is correct. a. Stratus
b. Cumulus
21. White, puffy cumulus clouds that form over a flat region c. Cirrus
of the country during the late afternoon of a clear, warm day d. None of the above is correct.
are probably the result of
a. convection. 33. The type of air mass weather that results after the arrival
b. a barrier to moving air. of polar continental air is
c. the meeting of moving air masses. a. frequent snowstorms with rapid changes.
d. None of the above is correct. b. clear and cold with gradual changes.
c. unpredictable but with frequent and rapid changes.
22. Without any heat being added or removed, a parcel of d. much the same from day to day, with conditions
air that is expanding is becoming depending on the air mass and the local conditions.
a. neither warmer nor cooler.
b. warmer.
34. The appearance of high cirrus clouds, followed by 1. c 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. c 6. c 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. c 13. a
thicker and lower stratus clouds, then continuous light rain 14. c 15. c 16. b 17. b 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. a 22. c 23. a 24. b
over several days probably means which of the following air 25. b 26. d 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. c 31. a 32. b 33. d 34. b 35.
masses has moved to your area? a 36. c 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. d 43. b 44. c 45. B
a. Continental polar
b. Maritime tropical CHAPTER 23:
c. Continental tropical
d. Maritime polar 1. What is the most abundant compound near or on the
surface of Earth?
35. A fully developed cyclonic storm is most likely to form a. O2
a. on a stationary front. b. H2O
b. in a high-pressure center. c. CO2
c. from differential heating. d. N2
d. over a cool ocean.
2. Evaporation, precipitation, and return of water to the
36. The basic difference between a tropical storm and a oceans are called the
hurricane is a. rain cycle.
a. size. b. aqueous cycle.
b. location. c. hydrologic cycle.
c. wind speed. d. geologic cycle.
d. amount of precipitation.
3. What is the major source of freshwater?
37. Most of the great deserts of the world are located
a. near the equator. a. Streams
b. 30° north or south latitude. b. Underground water
c. 60° north or south latitude. c. Precipitation
d. anywhere, as there is no pattern to their location. d. Rivers
38. The average temperature of a location is made more 4. What is a small body of running water?
even by the influence of a. Runoff
a. a large body of water. b. Stream
b. elevation. c. Groundwater
c. nearby mountains. d. Lake
d. dry air.
5. The land that is drained by a stream is called the
39. The climate of a specific location is determined by a. riverbank.
a. its latitude. b. watershed.
b. how much sunlight it receives. c. river valley.
c. its altitude and nearby mountains and bodies of water. d. mouth of the stream.
6. A small body of standing water is called a
40. The process that is not involved with how water cycles in a. stream.
and out of the atmosphere is b. pond.
a. evaporation. c. lake.
b. boiling. d. watershed.
c. condensation.
7. The amount of groundwater is estimated to be
d. precipitation. a. equal to the amount of surface water.
41. The process of water vapor cycling in and out of the b. less than the amount of surface water.
atmosphere with evaporation of water from the surface and c. 25 times the amount of surface water.
precipitation of water back to the surface is called the d. twice the amount of surface water.
a. unusual weather cycle.
b. atmospheric cycle. 8. The total amount of pore spaces in a given sample of
c. hydrologic cycle. sediment is defined as
d. reverse flow cycle. a. grain size.
b. porosity.
42. Water that returns to Earth’s surface in either solid or c. permeability.
liquid form is called d. concentration.
a. rain.
b. snow. 9. The ability of a given sample of sediment to transport
c. ice. water is defined as
d. precipitation. a. grain size.
b. porosity.
43. You are standing on a warm beach in Tahiti. Rain c. permeability.
begins to fall. The type of cloud must be d. concentration.
a. cirrus.
b. cumulus 10. The amount of groundwater in a specific area does not
c. stratus. depend on
d. storm. a. porosity of the land.
b. type of sediments.
44. Precipitation that is formed by cycling repeatedly c. slope of the land.
through a thunderstorm, falling, and then being returned to d. a nearby lake or reservoir.
the upper of the thunderclouds by updrafts is
a. rain. 11. The surface of the boundary between the zone of
b. snow. saturation and the zone above is called the
c. hail. a. water table.
d. rain and snow b. permeable zone.
c. impermeable zone.
45. The smallest, most violent weather event is a (an) d. groundwater table.
a. hurricane.
b. tornado. 12. A layer of sand, gravel, sandstone, or any other highly
c. hailstorm. permeable material beneath Earth’s surface through which
d. ice storm. groundwater can move is a (an)
a. well.
Answers b. spring.
c. aquifer.
d. artesian. d. breaker.
13. Water that usually does not have to be filtered is 26. Steep volcanic peaks in the ocean basin are
obtained from a a. ridges.
a. lake. b. seamounts.
b. river. c. steeds.
c. well. d. quarter islands.
d. reservoir.
27. Of the total supply, the amount of water that is available
14. The treatment of seawater to replenish freshwater for human consumption and agriculture is
a. is readily available. a. 97 percent.
b. kills ocean life. b. about two-thirds.
c. is energy-expensive. c. about 3 percent.
d. requires excessive filtration. d. less than 1 percent.
15. Deuterium from the oceans is considered a potential 28. Considering yearly global averages of precipitation that
energy source for falls on and evaporates from the land,
a. chemical power. a. more is precipitated than evaporates.
b. thermal energy. b. more evaporates than is precipitated.
c. controlled fusion. c. there is a balance between the amount precipitated and
d. controlled fission. the amount evaporated.
d. there is no pattern that can be generalized.
16. Degradable pollution control is
a. landfills. 29. In general, how much of all the precipitation that falls on
b. recycling. land ends up as runoff and groundwater?
c. wastewater treatment. a. 97 percent
d. combustion. b. About half
c. About one-third
17. The primary stage in wastewater treatment d. Less than 1 percent
a. removes persistent pollutants.
b. removes solids from wastewater. 30. Groundwater is
c. removes degradable pollutants. a. any water beneath Earth’s surface.
d. adds chlorine. b. water beneath Earth’s surface from a saturated zone.
c. water that soaks into the ground.
18. Chlorination of water is used to d. Any of the above is correct.
a. kill harmful bacteria.
b. break down organic matter. 31. How many different oceans are actually on Earth’s
c. remove persistent pollutants. surface?
d. provide needed nutrients. a. 14
b. 7
19. The “rim of fire” surrounds the c. 3
a. Atlantic Ocean. d. 1
b. Indian Ocean.
c. Pacific Ocean. 32. The largest of the three principal ocean regions of Earth
d. Gulf of Mexico. is the
a. Atlantic Ocean.
20. Dissolved materials and sediments are carried to oceans b. Pacific Ocean.
by c. Indian Ocean.
d. South American Ocean.
a. rain.
b. rivers. 33. The Gulf of Mexico is a shallow sea of the
c. groundwater. a. Atlantic Ocean.
d. pollutants. b. Pacific Ocean.
c. Indian Ocean.
21. What ion is found in seawater in the greatest amount? d. South American Ocean.
a. Sodium ion, Na+
b. Chloride ion, Cl– 34. Measurement of the salts dissolved in seawater taken
c. Calcium ion, Ca2+ from various locations throughout the world shows that
d. Potassium ion, K+ seawater has a
a. uniform chemical composition and a variable
22. The amount of dissolved salts in seawater is measured concentration.
as b. variable chemical composition and a variable
a. salt concentration. concentration.
b. solubility. c. uniform chemical composition and a uniform
c. salinity. concentration.
d. percent. d. variable chemical composition and a uniform
concentration.
23. What is the part of a river where the freshwater mixes
with the salt water from the oceans? 35. The percentage of dissolved salts in seawater averages
a. Watershed about
b. Estuary a. 35 percent.
c. Delta b. 3.5 percent.
d. Wetland c. 0.35 percent.
d. 0.035 percent.
24. A regular group of long-wavelength waves with a low
wave height is called 36. The salinity of seawater is increased locally by
a. fetch. a. the addition of water from a large river.
b. swell. b. heavy precipitation.
c. surf. c. the formation of sea ice.
d. breakers. d. None of the above is correct.
25. The distance that the wind blows across the open ocean 37. Considering only the available light and the dissolving
is the ability of gases in seawater, more abundant life should be
a. fetch. found in a
b. swell. a. cool, relatively shallow ocean.
c. surf. b. warm, very deep ocean.
c. warm, relatively shallow ocean.

d. cool, very deep ocean.
38. The regular, low-profile waves called swell are produced

from
a. constant, prevailing winds.
b. small, irregular waves becoming superimposed.
c. longer wavelengths outrunning and outlasting shorter
wavelengths.
d. all wavelengths becoming transformed by gravity as they
travel any great distance.
39. If the wavelength of swell is 10.0 m, then you know that

the fish below the surface feel the waves to a depth of
a. 5.0 m.
b. 10.0 m.
c. 20.0 m.
d. however deep it is at the bottom.
40. In general, a breaker forms where the water depth is

about one and one-third times the wave
a. period.
b. length.
c. height.
d. width.
41. Ocean currents are generally driven by

a. the rotation of Earth.
b. the prevailing winds.
c. rivers from the land.
42. Of the following, the greatest volume of water is moved

by the
a. Mississippi River.
b. California Current.
c. Gulf Stream.
d. Colorado River.
43. Water that is fit for human consumption and agriculture

is called
a. seawater.
b. freshwater.
c. distilled water.
d. mountain water.
44. The continental divide that separates river systems in the

United States is the
a. Mississippi River.
b. Rocky Mountains.
c. Appalachian Mountains.
d. Rio Grande.
45. The average domestic daily use of water per person is

estimated to be
a. 25 gal.
b. 50 gal.
c. 100 gal.
d. 150 gal.
46. Groundwater costs more for consumer use because

a. it must be pumped to the surface.
b. it requires addition of bactericides.
c. filtration is needed to remove salts.
d. it is not chlorinated.
Answers
1. b 2. c 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. c 8. b 9. c 10. d 11. a 12. c 13. c
14. c 15. c 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. b 21. b 22. c 23. b 24. b
25. a 26. c 27. d 28. a 29. c 30. b 31. d 32. b 33. a 34. a 35.
b 36. c 37. a 38. c 39. a 40. c 41. b 42. c 43. b 44. b 45. d 46.
a

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TILLERY: PHYSICAL SCIENCE TEST BANKS

CHAPTER 1: WHAT IS SCIENCE? 13. The equation ρ = _mV is a statement that

26. A scientific investigation provides understanding through d. The answer varies.

b. The large SUV. d. neither a nor b.

Answers 12. In all of our energy uses, we find that

c. positive potential energy. a. Wind

d. unknown results. 0.2°C.

c. Iron (specific heat 0.11 kcal/kgC°) 1. d 2. c 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. b 13.

a. This is true only at room temperature. CHAPTER 6: ELECTRICITY

13. If you multiply volts by amps, the answer will be in units

a. power. 26. Electromagnetic induction occurs when a coil of wire

49. A parallel circuit has

9. Refraction of light happens when light undergoes 22. A luminous object

d. all of the above. 48. An instrument that produces a coherent beam of

40. We see a blue sky because Answers

d. the same or multiples of the same charge. d. Newton spectrum.

4. Which of the following is an example of a monatomic 17. Chemical energy is defined as

b. Covalent d. Digesting your dinner

Answers 12. Which is the most active metal?

b. generation of a gas. c. depends on the amount of salt.

d. None of the above is correct. c. nonpolar molecules.

c. pine trees. a. Metal ions

a. monomer. 37. Which of the following terms does not describe an

d. 4 percent. a. alpha particle.

45. A nucleus emits a beta particle, and the number of c. temperature.

c. a northern longitude. shapes.

48. The name of our galaxy is the b. Venus

b. Mercury. 19. Area of the solar system where long-period comets

d.region between Jupiter and Neptune. d. The Moon

b. rotation. d. It does not have an atmosphere.

d. glass. d. clay minerals.

d. shale. 42. Extrusive igneous rocks are formed on Earth’s surface

38. The oceanic crust is 51. Plate movement is measured by

c. disintegration. 18. The picking up of loose materials from the surface by

8. A mixture of unconsolidated weathered earth materials b. chemical weathering.

8. “Geologic time” means b. Mesozoic

c. stationary front. c. cooler.

c. warm, relatively shallow ocean.

38. The regular, low-profile waves called swell are produced

39. If the wavelength of swell is 10.0 m, then you know that

40. In general, a breaker forms where the water depth is

41. Ocean currents are generally driven by

42. Of the following, the greatest volume of water is moved

43. Water that is fit for human consumption and agriculture

44. The continental divide that separates river systems in the

45. The average domestic daily use of water per person is

46. Groundwater costs more for consumer use because

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