1. A generalized mental image of an object is a (an) b. properties.

a. definition. c. data.
b. impression. d. a scientific investigation.
c. concept. 15. If you consider a very small portion of a material that is the same
d. mental picture. throughout, the density of the small sample will be
2. Which of the following is the best example of the use of a referent? a. much less.
a. A red bicycle b. slightly less.
b. Big as a dump truck c. the same.
c. The planet Mars d. greater.
d. Your textbook 16. The symbol Δ has a meaning of
3. A well-defined and agreed-upon referent used as a standard in a. “is proportional to.”
all systems of measurement is called a b. “the change in.”
a. yardstick. c. “therefore.”
b. unit. d. “however.”
c. quantity. 17. A model is
d. fundamental. a. a physical copy of an object or system made at a smaller scale.
4. The system of measurement based on referents in nature, but not b. a sketch of something complex used to solve problems.
with respect to human body parts, is the c. an interpretation of a theory by use of an equation.
a. natural system. d. All of the above are models.
b. English system. 18. The use of a referent in describing a property always implies
c. metric system. a. a measurement.
d. American system. b. naturally occurring concepts.
5. A process of comparing a property to a well-defined and c. a comparison with a similar property of another object.
agreed-upon referent is called a d. that people have the same understandings of concepts.
a. measurement. 19. A 5 km span is the same as how many meters?
b. referral. a. 0.005 m
c. magnitude. b. 0.05 m
d. comparison. c. 500 m
6. One of the following is not considered to be a fundamental d. 5,000 m
property: 20. One-half liter of water is the same volume as
a. weight. a. 5,000 mL.
b. length. b. 0.5 cc.
c. time. c. 500 cm3.
d. charge. d. 5 dm3.
7. How much space something occupies is described by its 21. Which of the following is not a measurement?
a. mass. a. 24°C
b. volume. b. 65 mph
c. density. c. 120
d. weight. d. 0.50 ppm
8. The relationship between two numbers that is usually obtained 22. What happens to the surface-area-to-volume ratio as the volume
by dividing one number by the other is called a (an) of a cube becomes larger?
a. ratio. a. It remains the same.
b. divided size. b. It increases.
c. number tree. c. It decreases.
d. equation. d. The answer varies.
9. The ratio of mass per volume of a substance is called its 23. If one variable increases in value while a second, related variable
a. weight. decreases in value, the relationship is said to be
b. weight-volume. a. direct.
c. mass-volume. b. inverse.
d. density. c. square.
10. After identifying the appropriate equation, the next step in d. inverse square.
correctly solving a problem is to 24. What is needed to change a proportionality statement into an
a. substitute known quantities for symbols. equation?
b. solve the equation for the variable in question. a. Include a proportionality constant.
c. separate the number and units. b. Divide by an unknown to move the symbol to left side of the
d. convert all quantities to metric units. equal symbol.
c. Add units to one side to make units equal.
11. Suppose a problem situation describes a speed in km/h and a d. Add numbers to one side to make both sides equal.
length in m. What conversion should you do before substituting 25. A proportionality constant
quantities for symbols? Convert a. always has a unit.
a. km/h to km/s. b. never has a unit.
b. m to km. c. might or might not have a unit.
c. km/h to m/s. 26. A scientific investigation provides understanding through
d. In this situation, no conversions should be made. a. explanations based on logical thinking processes alone.
12. An equation describes a relationship where b. experimental evidence.
a. the numbers and units on both sides are proportional but not c. reasoned explanations based on observations.
equal. d. diligent obeying of scientific laws.
b. the numbers on both sides are equal but not the units. 27. Statements describing how nature is observed to behave
c. the units on both sides are equal but not the numbers. consistently time after time are called scientific
d. the numbers and units on both sides are equal. a. theories.
13. The equation ρ = _ m V is a statement that b. laws.
a. describes a property. c. models.
b. defines how variables can change. d. hypotheses.
c. describes how properties change. 28. A controlled experiment comparing two situations has all
d. identifies the proportionality constant. identical influencing factors except the
14. Measurement information that is used to describe something is a. experimental variable.
called b. control variable.
a. referents. c. inverse variable.
d. direct variable. in the cookie jar and the time you have been eating the cookies?
29. In general, scientific investigations have which activities in a. direct
common? b. inverse
a. State problem, gather data, make hypothesis, test, make c. square
conclusion. d. inverse square
b. Collect observations, develop explanations, test explanations. 42. A movie projector makes a 1 m by 1 m image when projecting
c. Observe nature, reason an explanation for what is observed. 1 m from a screen, a 2 m by 2 m image when projecting 2 m
d. Observe nature, collect data, modify data to fit scientific from the screen, and a 3 m by 3 m image when projecting 3 m
model. from the screen. What is the proportional relationship between
30. Quantities, or measured properties, that are capable of changing the distance from the screen and the area of the image?
values are called a. direct
a. data. b. inverse
b. variables. c. square
c. proportionality constants. d. inverse square
d. dimensionless constants. 43. A movie projector makes a 1 m by 1 m image when projecting
31. A proportional relationship that is represented by the symbols 1 m from a screen, a 2 m by 2 m image when projecting 2 m
a ∝ 1/b represents which of the following relationships? from the screen, and a 3 m by 3 m image when projecting 3 m
a. direct proportion from the screen. What is the proportional relationship between
b. inverse proportion the distance from the screen and the intensity of the light falling
c. direct square proportion on the screen?
d. inverse square proportion a. direct
b. inverse
32. A hypothesis concerned with a specific phenomenon is found to c. square
be acceptable through many experiments over a long period of d. inverse square
time. This hypothesis usually becomes known as a 44. According to the scientific method, what needs to be done to
a. scientific law. move beyond conjecture or simple hypotheses in a person’s
b. scientific principle. understanding of his or her physical surroundings?
c. theory. a. Make an educated guess.
d. model. b. Conduct a controlled experiment.
33. A scientific law can be expressed as c. Find an understood model with answers.
a. a written concept. d. Search for answers on the Internet.
b. an equation. Answers
c. a graph. 1. c 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. a 9. d 10. b 11. c 12. d 13. a 14. c
d. all of the above. 15. c 16. b 17. d 18. c 19. d 20. c 21. c 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. c 26. b
34. The symbol ∝ has a meaning of 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. b 31. b 32. a 33. d 34. c 35. b 36. b 37. a 38. a
a. “almost infinity.” 39. b 40. a 41. b 42. c 43. d 44. b
b. “the change in.” 1. A straight-line distance covered during a certain amount of time
c. “is proportional to.” describes an object’s
d. “therefore.” a. speed.
35. Which of the following symbols represents a measured property b. velocity.
of the compactness of matter? c. acceleration.
a. m d. any of the above.
b. ρ 2. How fast an object is moving in a particular direction is
c. V described by
d. Δ a. speed.
36. A candle with a certain weight melts in an oven, and the b. velocity.
resulting weight of the wax is c. acceleration.
a. less. d. none of the above.
b. the same. 3. Acceleration occurs when an object undergoes
c. greater. a. a speed increase.
d. The answer varies. b. a speed decrease.
37. An ice cube with a certain volume melts, and the resulting c. a change in the direction of travel.
volume of water is d. any of the above.
a. less. 4. A car moving at 60 km/h comes to a stop in 10 s when the
b. the same. driver slams on the brakes. In this situation, what does 60 km/h
c. greater. represent?
d. The answer varies. a. Average speed
38. Compare the density of ice to the density of water. The density of b. Final speed
ice is c. Initial speed
a. less. d. Constant speed
b. the same. 5. A car moving at 60 km/h comes to a stop in 10 s when the driver
c. greater. slams on the brakes. In this situation, what is the fi nal speed?
d. The answer varies. a. 60 km/h
39. A beverage glass is filled to the brim with ice-cold water (0°C) b. 0 km/h
and ice cubes. Some of the ice cubes are floating above the water c. 0.017 km/s
level. When the ice melts, the water in the glass will d. 0.17 km/s
a. spill over the brim. 6. According to Galileo, an object moving without opposing
b. stay at the same level. friction or other opposing forces will
c. be less full than before the ice melted. a. still need a constant force to keep it moving at a constant
40. What is the proportional relationship between the volume of speed.
juice in a cup and the time the juice dispenser has been b. need an increasing force, or it will naturally slow and then
running? come to a complete stop.
a. direct c. continue moving at a constant speed.
b. inverse d. undergo a gradual acceleration.
c. square 7. In free fall, an object is seen to have a (an)
d. inverse square a. constant velocity.
41. What is the proportional relationship between the number of b. constant acceleration.
cookies c. increasing acceleration.
d. decreasing acceleration. shuttle bus quickly begins to move forward, you
8. A tennis ball is hit, causing it to move upward from the racket at a. are moved to the back of the shuttle bus as you move forward
some angle to the horizon before it curves back to the surface in over the surface of Earth.
the path of a parabola. While it moves along this path, b. stay in one place over the surface of Earth as the shuttle bus
a. the horizontal speed remains the same. moves from under you.
b. the vertical speed remains the same. c. move along with the shuttle bus.
c. both the horizontal and vertical speeds remain the same. d. feel a force toward the side of the shuttle bus.
d. both the horizontal and vertical speeds change. 21. Mass is measured in kilograms, which is a measure of
9. A quantity of 5 m/s2 is a measure of a. weight.
a. metric area. b. force.
b. acceleration. c. inertia.
c. speed. d. quantity of matter.
d. velocity. 22. Which metric unit is used to express a measure of weight?
10. An automobile has how many diff erent devices that can cause it a. kg
to undergo acceleration? b. J
a. None c. N
b. One d. m/s2
c. Two 23. Newton’s third law of motion states that forces occur in matched
d. Th ree or more pairs that act in opposite directions between two diff erent bodies.
11. Ignoring air resistance, an object falling toward the surface of Th is happens
Earth has a velocity that is a. rarely.
a. constant. b. sometimes.
b. increasing. c. oft en but not always.
c. decreasing. d. every time two bodies interact.
d. acquired instantaneously but dependent on the weight of the 24. If you double the unbalanced force on an object of a given mass,
object. the acceleration will be
12. Ignoring air resistance, an object falling near the surface of Earth a. doubled.
has an acceleration that is b. increased fourfold.
a. constant. c. increased by one-half.
b. increasing. d. increased by one-fourth.
c. decreasing. 25. If you double the mass of a cart while it is undergoing a constant
d. dependent on the weight of the object. unbalanced force, the acceleration will be
a. doubled.
13. Two objects are released from the same height at the same time, b. increased fourfold.
and one has twice the weight of the other. Ignoring air resistance, c. one-half as much.
a. the heavier object hits the ground fi rst. d. one-fourth as much.
b. the lighter object hits the ground fi rst. 26. Doubling the distance between the center of an orbiting
c. they both hit at the same time. satellite and the center of Earth will result in what change in the
d. whichever hits fi rst depends on the distance dropped. gravitational attraction of Earth for the satellite?
14. A ball rolling across the fl oor slows to a stop because a. One-half as much
a. there is a net force acting on it. b. One-fourth as much
b. the force that started it moving wears out. c. Twice as much
c. the forces are balanced. d. Four times as much
d. the net force equals zero. 27. If a ball swinging in a circle on a string is moved twice as fast, the
15. Th e basic diff erence between instantaneous and average speed is force on the string will be
that a. twice as great.
a. instantaneous speed is always faster than average speed. b. four times as great.
b. average speed is for a total distance over a total time of trip. c. one-half as much.
c. average speed is the sum of two instantaneous speeds, divided d. one-fourth as much.
by 2. 28. A ball is swinging in a circle on a string when the string length is
d. the fi nal instantaneous speed is always the fastest speed. doubled. At the same velocity, the force on the string will be
16. Does any change in the motion of an object result in an a. twice as great.
acceleration? b. four times as great.
a. Yes. c. one-half as much.
b. No. d. one-fourth as much.
c. It depends on the type of change. 29. Suppose the mass of a moving scooter is doubled and its velocity
17. A measure of how fast your speed is changing as you travel to is also doubled. Th e resulting momentum is
campus is a measure of a. halved.
a. velocity. b. doubled.
b. average speed. c. quadrupled.
c. acceleration. d. the same.
d. the diff erence between initial and fi nal speed. 30. Two identical moons are moving in identical circular paths, but
18. Considering the forces on the system of you and a bicycle as you one moon is moving twice as fast as the other. Compared to the
pedal the bike at a constant velocity in a horizontal straight line, slower moon, the centripetal force required to keep the faster
a. the force you are exerting on the pedal is greater than the moon on the path is
resisting forces. a. twice as much.
b. all forces are in balance, with the net force equal to zero. b. one-half as much.
c. the resisting forces of air and tire friction are less than the c. four times as much.
force you are exerting. d. one-fourth as much.
d. the resisting forces are greater than the force you are exerting. 31. Which undergoes a greater change of momentum, a golf ball or
19. Newton’s fi rst law of motion describes the head of a golf club, when the ball is hit from a golf tee?
a. the tendency of a moving or stationary object to resist any a. Th e ball undergoes a greater change.
change in its state of motion. b. Th e head of the club undergoes a greater change.
b. a relationship between an applied force, the mass, and the c. Both undergo the same change but in opposite directions.
resulting change of motion that occurs from the force. d. Th e answer depends on how fast the club is moved.
c. how forces always occur in matched pairs.
d. none of the above. 32. Newton’s law of gravitation tells us that
20. You are standing freely on a motionless shuttle bus. When the a. planets are attracted to the Sun’s magnetic fi eld.
b. objects and bodies have weight only on the surface of Earth. must be true about a car pulling a trailer?
c. every object in the universe is attracted to every other object a. Th e car pulls on the trailer and the trailer pulls on the car
in the universe. with an equal and opposite force. Th erefore, the net force is
d. only objects in the solar system are attracted to Earth. zero and the trailer cannot move.
33. An astronaut living on a space station that is orbiting Earth will b. Since they move forward, this means the car is pulling harder
a. experience zero gravity. on the trailer than the trailer is pulling on the car.
b. weigh more than she did on Earth. c. Th e action force from the car is quicker than the reaction
c. be in free fall, experiencing apparent weightlessness. force from the trailer, so they move forward.
d. weigh the same as she would on the Moon. d. Th e action-reaction forces between the car and trailer are equal,
34. A measure of the force of gravity acting on an object is called but the force between the ground and car pushes them forward.
a. gravitational force. 44. A small sports car and a large SUV collide head on and
b. weight. stick together without sliding. Which vehicle had the larger
c. mass. momentum change?
d. acceleration. a. Th e small sports car.
35. You are at rest with a grocery cart at the supermarket when you b. Th e large SUV.
see a checkout line open. You apply a certain force to the cart c. It would be equal for both.
for a short time and acquire a certain speed. Neglecting friction, 45. Again consider the small sports car and large SUV that collided
how long would you have to push with one-half the force to head on and stuck together without sliding. Which vehicle must
acquire the same fi nal speed? have experienced the larger deceleration during the collision?
a. One-fourth as long a. Th e small sports car.
b. One-half as long b. Th e large SUV.
c. Twice as long c. It would be equal for both.
d. Four times as long 46. An orbiting satellite is moved from 10,000 to 30,000 km from
36. Once again you are at rest with a grocery cart at the supermarket Earth. Th is will result in what change in the gravitational
when you apply a certain force to the cart for a short time and attraction between Earth and the satellite?
acquire a certain speed. Suppose you had bought more groceries, a. None—the attraction is the same.
enough to double the mass of the groceries and cart. Neglecting b. One-half as much.
friction, doubling the mass would have what eff ect on the c. One-fourth as much.
resulting fi nal speed if you used the same force for the same d. One-ninth as much.
length of time? Th e new fi nal speed would be 47. Newton’s law of gravitation considers the product of two masses
a. one-fourth. because
b. one-half. a. the larger mass pulls harder on the smaller mass.
c. doubled. b. both masses contribute equally to the force of attraction.
d. quadrupled. c. the large mass is considered before the smaller mass.
37. You are moving a grocery cart at a constant speed in a straight d. the distance relationship is one of an inverse square.
line down the aisle of a store. For this situation, the forces on the Answers
cart are 1. a 2. b 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. b 12. a 13. c 14. a
a. unbalanced, in the direction of the movement. 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. b 21. c 22. c 23. d 24. a 25. c 26. b
b. balanced, with a net force of zero. 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. c 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. b 38. b
c. equal to the force of gravity acting on the cart. 39. d 40. c 41. a 42. a 43. d 44. c 45. a 46. d 47. b
d. greater than the frictional forces opposing the motion of 1. According to the defi nition of mechanical work, pushing on a
the cart. rock accomplishes no work unless there is
38. You are outside a store, moving a loaded grocery cart down the a. movement.
street on a very steep hill. It is diffi cult, but you are able to pull b. a net force.
back on the handle and keep the cart moving down the street c. an opposing force.
in a straight line and at a constant speed. For this situation, the d. movement in the same direction as the direction of the force.
forces on the cart are 2. Th e metric unit of a joule (J) is a unit of
a. unbalanced, in the direction of the movement. a. potential energy.
b. balanced, with a net force of zero. b. work.
c. equal to the force of gravity acting on the cart. c. kinetic energy.
d. greater than the frictional forces opposing the motion of d. any of the above.
the cart. 3. A Nm/s is a unit of
39. Neglecting air resistance, a ball in free fall near Earth’s surface a. work.
will have b. power.
a. constant speed and constant acceleration. c. energy.
b. increasing speed and increasing acceleration. d. none of the above.
c. increasing speed and decreasing acceleration. 4. A kilowatt-hour is a unit of
d. increasing speed and constant acceleration. a. power.
40. From a bridge, a ball is thrown straight up at the same time a ball b. work.
is thrown straight down with the same initial speed. Neglecting c. time.
air resistance, which ball will have a greater speed when it hits d. electrical charge.
the ground? 5. A power rating of 550 ft · lb per s is known as a
a. Th e one thrown straight up. a. watt.
b. Th e one thrown straight down. b. newton.
c. Both balls would have the same speed. c. joule.
41. Aft er being released, a ball thrown straight up from a bridge will d. horsepower.
have an acceleration of 6. A power rating of 1 joule per s is known as a
a. 9.8 m/s2. a. watt.
b. zero. b. newton.
c. less than 9.8 m/s2. c. joule.
d. more than 9.8 m/s2. d. horsepower.
42. A gun is aimed horizontally at the center of an apple hanging from 7. According to PE = mgh, gravitational potential energy is the
a tree. Th e instant the gun is fi red, the apple falls and the bullet same thing as
a. hits the apple. a. exerting a force through a distance in any direction.
b. arrives late, missing the apple. b. the kinetic energy an object had before coming to a rest.
c. arrives early, missing the apple. c. work against a vertical change of position.
d. may or may not hit the apple, depending on how fast it is moving. d. the momentum of a falling object.
43. According to the third law of motion, which of the following 8. Two cars have the same mass, but one is moving three times as
fast as the other is. How much more work will be needed to stop energy. In the bottom of a well, the rock would be considered
the faster car? to have
a. Th e same amount. a. zero potential energy, as before.
b. Twice as much. b. negative potential energy.
c. Th ree times as much. c. positive potential energy.
d. Nine times as much. d. zero potential energy but would require work to bring it back
9. Kinetic energy can be measured in terms of to ground level.
a. work done on an object to put it into motion. 22. Which quantity has the greatest infl uence on the amount of
b. work done on a moving object to bring it to rest. kinetic energy that a large truck has while moving down the
c. both a and b. highway?
d. neither a nor b. a. Mass
10. Potential energy and kinetic energy are created when work b. Weight
is done to change a position (PE) or a state of motion (KE). c. Velocity
Ignoring friction, how does the amount of work done to make d. Size
the change compare to the amount of PE or KE created? 23. Electrical energy can be converted to
a. Less energy is created. a. chemical energy.
b. Both are the same. b. mechanical energy.
c. More energy is created. c. radiant energy.
d. Th is cannot be generalized. d. any of the above.
11. Many forms of energy in use today can be traced back to 24. Most all energy comes to and leaves Earth in the form of
a. the Sun. a. nuclear energy.
b. coal. b. chemical energy.
c. Texas. c. radiant energy.
d. petroleum. d. kinetic energy.
12. In all of our energy uses, we fi nd that 25. A spring-loaded paper clamp exerts a force of 2 N on 10 sheets of
a. the energy used is consumed. paper it is holding tightly together. Is the clamp doing work as it
b. some forms of energy are consumed but not others. holds the papers together?
c. more energy is created than is consumed. a. Yes.
d. the total amount of energy is constant in all situations. b. No.
13. Any form of energy can be converted to another, but energy used 26. Th e force exerted when doing work by lift ing a book bag against
on Earth usually ends up in what form? gravity is measured in units of
a. Electrical a. kg.
b. Mechanical b. N.
c. Nuclear c. W.
d. Radiant d. J.
14. Radiant energy can be converted to electrical energy using 27. Th e work accomplished by lift ing an object against gravity is
a. lightbulbs. measured in units of
b. engines. a. kg.
c. solar cells. b. N.
d. electricity. c. W.
15. Th e “barrel of oil” mentioned in discussions about d. J.
petroleum is 28. An iron cannonball and a bowling ball are dropped at the same
a. 55 U.S. gallons. time from the top of a building. At the instant before the balls hit
b. 42 U.S. gallons. the sidewalk, the heavier cannonball has a greater
c. 12 U.S. gallons. a. velocity.
d. a variable quantity. b. acceleration.
16. Th e amount of energy generated by hydroelectric plants in the c. kinetic energy.
United States as part of the total electrical energy is d. All of these are the same for the two balls.
a. fairly constant over the years. 29. Two students are poised to dive off equal-height diving towers
b. decreasing because new dams are not being constructed. into a swimming pool below. Student B is twice as massive as
c. increasing as more and more energy is needed. student A. Which of the following is true?
d. decreasing as dams are destroyed because of environmental a. Student B will reach the water sooner than student A.
concerns. b. Both students have the same gravitational PE.
17. Fossil fuels provide what percent of the total energy consumed in c. Both students will have the same KE just before hitting the water.
the United States today? d. Student B did twice as much work climbing the tower.
a. 25 percent 30. A car is moving straight down a highway. What factor has the
b. 50 percent greatest infl uence on how much work must be done on the car to
c. 86 percent bring it to a complete stop?
d. 99 percent a. How fast it is moving
18. Alternative sources of energy include b. Th e weight of the car
a. solar cells. c. Th e mass of the car
b. wind. d. Th e latitude of the location
c. hydrogen. 31. Two identical cars are moving straight down a highway under
d. all of the above. identical conditions, except car B is moving three times as fast as
19. A renewable energy source is car A. How much more work is needed to stop car B?
a. coal. a. Twice as much
b. biomass. b. Th ree times as much
c. natural gas. c. Six times as much
d. petroleum. d. Nine times as much
20. Th e potential energy of a box on a shelf, relative to the fl oor, is a 32. When you do work on something, you give it energy
measure of a. oft en.
a. the work that was required to put the box on the shelf from b. sometimes.
the fl oor. c. every time.
b. the weight of the box times the distance above the fl oor. d. never.
c. the energy the box has because of its position above the 33. Which of the following is not the use of a solar energy
fl oor. technology?
d. all of the above. a. Wind
21. A rock on the ground is considered to have zero potential b. Burning of wood
c. Photovoltaics b. convection.
d. Water from a geothermal spring c. radiation.
34. Today, the basic problem with using solar cells as a major source d. sublimation.
of electricity is 10. The transfer of heat that takes place directly from molecule to
a. effi ciency. molecule is
b. manufacturing cost. a. conduction.
c. reliability. b. convection.
d. that the Sun does not shine at night. c. radiation.
35. Th e solar technology that makes more economic sense today d. sublimation.
than the other applications is 11. The evaporation of water cools the surroundings, and the
a. solar cells. condensation of this vapor
b. power tower. a. does nothing.
c. water heating. b. warms the surroundings.
d. ocean thermal energy conversion. c. increases the value of the latent heat of vaporization.
36. Petroleum is believed to have formed over time from buried d. decreases the value of the latent heat of vaporization.
a. pine trees. 12. The heat involved in the change of phase from solid ice to liquid
b. plants in a swamp. water is called
c. organic sediments. a. latent heat of vaporization.
d. dinosaurs. b. latent heat of fusion.
Answers c. latent heat of condensation.
1. d 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. c 8. d 9. c 10. b 11. a 12. d 13. d 14. c d. none of the above.
15. b 16. b 17. c 18. d 19. b 20. d 21. d 22. c 23. d 24. c 25. b 26. b 13. The energy supplied to a system in the form of heat, minus the
27. d 28. c 29. d 30. a 31. d 32. c 33. d 34. b 35. c 36. c work done by the system, is equal to the change in internal
1. The Fahrenheit thermometer scale is energy. This statement describes the
a. more accurate than the Celsius scale. a. first law of thermodynamics.
b. less accurate than the Celsius scale. b. second law of thermodynamics.
c. sometimes more or less accurate, depending on the air c. third law of thermodynamics.
temperature. 14. If you want to move heat from a region of cooler temperature to a
d. no more accurate than the Celsius scale. region of warmer temperature, you must supply energy. This is
2. On the Celsius temperature scale described by the
a. zero means there is no temperature. a. first law of thermodynamics.
b. 80° is twice as hot as 40°. b. second law of thermodynamics.
c. the numbers relate to the boiling and freezing of water. c. third law of thermodynamics.
d. there are more degrees than on the Fahrenheit scale. 15. More molecules are returning to the liquid state than are leaving
3. Internal energy refers to the the liquid state. This process is called
a. translational kinetic energy of gas molecules. a. boiling.
b. total potential and kinetic energy of the molecules. b. freezing.
c. total vibrational, rotational, and translational kinetic energy c. condensation.
of molecules. d. melting.
d. average of all types of kinetic energy of the gas 16. The temperature of a gas is proportional to the
molecules. a. average velocity of the gas molecules.
4. External energy refers to the b. internal potential energy of the gas.
a. energy that changed the speed of an object. c. number of gas molecules in a sample.
b. energy of all the molecules making up an object. d. average kinetic energy of the gas molecules.
c. total potential energy and kinetic energy of an object that 17. The temperature known as room temperature is nearest to
you can measure directly. a. 0°C.
d. energy from an extraterrestrial source. b. 20°C.
5. Heat is the c. 60°C.
a. total internal energy of an object. d. 100°C.
b. average kinetic energy of molecules. 18. Using the Kelvin temperature scale, the freezing point of water is
c. measure of potential energy of molecules. correctly written as
d. same thing as a very high temperature. a. 0 K.
6. The specific heat of copper is 0.093 cal/gC°, and the specific b. 0°K.
heat of aluminum is 0.22 cal/gC°. The same amount of energy c. 273 K.
applied to equal masses, say, 50.0 g of copper and aluminum, d. 273°K.
will result in 19. The specific heat of soil is 0.20 kcal/kgC°, and the specific heat of
a. a higher temperature for copper. water is 1.00 kcal/kgC°. This means that if 1 kg of soil and 1 kg of
b. a higher temperature for aluminum. water each receives 1 kcal of energy, ideally,
c. the same temperature for each metal. a. the water will be warmer than the soil by 0.8°C.
d. unknown results. b. the soil will be 4°C warmer than the water.
7. The specific heat of water is 1.00 cal/gC°, and the specific heat of c. the soil will be 5°C warmer than the water.
ice is 0.500 cal/gC°. The same amount of energy applied to equal d. the water will warm by 1°C, and the soil will warm by 0.2°C.
masses, say, 50.0 g of water and ice, will result in (assume the ice 20. Styrofoam is a good insulating material because
does not melt) a. it is a plastic material that conducts heat poorly.
a. a greater temperature increase for the water. b. it contains many tiny pockets of air.
b. a greater temperature increase for the ice. c. of the structure of the molecules that make it up.
c. the same temperature increase for each. d. it is not very dense.
d. unknown results. 21. The transfer of heat that takes place because of density
8. The transfer of heat that takes place by the movement of groups difference in fluids is
of molecules with higher kinetic energy is a. conduction.
a. conduction. b. convection.
b. convection. c. radiation.
c. radiation. d. none of the above.
d. sublimation. 22. Latent heat is “hidden” because it
a. goes into or comes out of internal potential energy.
9. The transfer of heat that takes place by energy moving through b. is a fluid (caloric) that cannot be sensed.
space is c. does not actually exist.
a. conduction. d. is a form of internal kinetic energy.
23. As a solid undergoes a phase change to a liquid, it 36. When you add heat to a substance, its temperature
a. releases heat while remaining at a constant temperature. a. always increases.
b. absorbs heat while remaining at a constant temperature. b. sometimes decreases.
c. releases heat as the temperature decreases. c. might stay the same.
d. absorbs heat as the temperature increases. d. might go up or down, depending on the temperature.
24. A heat engine is designed to 37. The great cooling effect produced by water evaporating comes
a. move heat from a cool source to a warmer location. from its high
b. move heat from a warm source to a cooler location. a. conductivity.
c. convert mechanical energy into heat. b. specific heat.
d. convert heat into mechanical energy. c. latent heat.
25. The work that a heat engine is able to accomplish is ideally d. transparency.
equivalent to the 38. At temperatures above freezing, the evaporation rate can equal
a. difference between the heat supplied and the the condensation rate only at
heat rejected. a. very high air temperatures.
b. heat that was produced in the cycle. b. mild temperatures.
c. heat that appears in the exhaust gases. c. low temperatures.
d. sum total of the heat input and the heat output. d. any temperature.
26. Suppose ammonia is spilled in the back of a large room. 39. The phase change from ice to liquid water takes place at
If there were no air currents, how would the room temperature a. constant pressure.
influence how fast you would smell ammonia at the opposite b. constant temperature.
side of the room? c. constant volume.
a. Warmer is faster. d. all of the above.
b. Cooler is faster. 40. Which of the following has the greatest value for liquid water?
c. There would be no influence. a. Latent heat of fusion.
27. Which of the following contains the most heat? b. Latent heat of vaporization.
a. A bucket of water at 0°C. c. Both are equivalent.
b. A barrel of water at 0°C. d. None of the above is correct.
c. Neither contains any heat since the temperature is zero. 41. Which of the following supports the second law of
d. Both have the same amount of heat. thermodynamics?
28. Anytime a temperature difference occurs, you can expect a. Heat naturally flows from a low-temperature region to a
a. cold to move to where it is warmer, such as cold moving into higher-temperature region.
a warm house during the winter. b. All of a heat source can be converted into
b. heat movement from any higher-temperature region. mechanical energy.
c. no energy movement unless it is hot enough, such as the c. Energy tends to degrade, becoming of lower and
red-hot heating element on a stove. lower quality.
d. A heat pump converts heat into mechanical work.
29. The cheese on a hot pizza takes a long time to cool because it 42. The second law of thermodynamics tells us that the amount of
a. is stretchable and elastic. disorder, called entropy, is always increasing. Does the growth of
b. has a low specific heat. a plant or animal violate the second law?
c. has a high specific heat. a. Yes, a plant or animal is more highly ordered.
d. has a white color. b. No, the total entropy of the universe increased.
30. The specific heat of copper is roughly three times as great as the c. The answer is unknown.
specific heat of gold. Which of the following is true for equal 43. The heat death of the universe in the future is when the universe
masses of copper and gold? is supposed to
a. If the same amount of heat is applied, the copper will become a. have a high temperature that will kill all living things.
hotter. b. have a high temperature that will vaporize all matter in it.
b. Copper heats up three times as fast as gold. c. freeze at a uniform low temperature.
c. A piece of copper stores three times as much heat at the same d. use up the universal supply of entropy.
temperature. Answers
d. The melting temperature of copper is roughly three times that 1. d 2. c 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. b 13. a 14. b
of gold. 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. c 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. a 26. a
31. Cooking pans made from which of the following metals would 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. c 31. b 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. c 36. c 37. c 38. d
need less heat to achieve a certain cooking temperature? 39. b 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. c
a. Aluminum (specific heat 0.22 kcal/kgC°) 1. A back-and-forth motion that repeats itself is a
b. Copper (specific heat 0.093 kcal/kgC°) a. spring.
c. Iron (specific heat 0.11 kcal/kgC°) b. vibration.
32. Conduction best takes place in a c. wave.
a. solid. d. pulse.
b. fluid. 2. The number of vibrations that occur in 1 s is called
c. gas. a. a period.
d. vacuum. b. frequency.
33. Convection best takes place in a (an) c. amplitude.
a. solid. d. sinusoidal
b. fluid. 3. Frequency is measured in units of
c. alloy. a. time.
d. vacuum. b. cycles.
34. Radiation is the only method of heat transfer that can take place c. hertz.
in a d. avis.
a. solid. 4. The maximum displacement from rest to the crest or from rest to
b. liquid. the trough of a wave is called
c. gas. a. wavelength.
d. vacuum. b. period.
35. What form of heat transfer will warm your body without warming c. equilibrium position.
the air in a room? d. amplitude.
a. Conduction. 5. A wave with motion perpendicular to the direction that the wave
b. Convection. is moving is classified as a
c. Radiation. a. longitudinal wave.
d. None of the above is correct. b. transverse wave.
c. water wave. d. a pure tone is created.
d. compression wave. 20. The fundamental frequency of a string is the
6. Your brain interprets a frequency as a sound with a certain a. shortest wavelength harmonic possible on the string.
a. speed. b. longest standing wave that can fit on the string.
b. loudness. c. highest frequency possible on the string.
c. pitch. d. shortest wavelength that can fit on the string.
d. harmonic. 21. The fundamental frequency on a vibrating string is what part of
7. Sound waves with frequencies greater than 20,000 Hz are a wavelength?
a. infrasonic waves. a. 1/4
b. supersonic waves. b. 1/2
c. ultrasonic waves. c. 1
d. impossible. d. 2
8. Generally, sounds travel faster in 22. Higher resonant frequencies that occur at the same time as the
a. solids. fundamental frequency are called
b. liquids. a. standing waves.
c. gases. b. confined waves.
d. vacuums. c. oscillations.
9. Sounds travel faster in d. overtones.
a. warmer air. 23. A moving source of sound or a moving observer experiences the
b. cooler air. apparent shift in frequency called
c. Temperature does not influence the speed of sound. a. fundamental frequency.
d. a vacuum. b. Doppler effect.
10. The bending of a wave front between boundaries is c. wave front effect.
a. reflection. d. shock waves.
b. reverberation. 24. Does the Doppler effect occur when the observer is moving and
c. refraction. the source of sound is stationary?
d. dispersion. a. Yes, the effect is the same.
11. A reflected sound that reaches the ear within 0.1 s after the b. No, the source must be moving.
original sound results in c. Yes, but the change of pitch effects is reversed in this case.
a. an echo. 25. A rocket traveling at three times the speed of sound is traveling at
b. reverberation. a. sonic speed.
c. refraction. b. Mach speed.
d. confusion. c. Mach 3.
12. The wave front of a refracted sound bends toward d. subsonic speed.
a. warmer air. 26. A longitudinal mechanical wave causes particles of a material
b. cooler air. to move
c. the sky, no matter what the air temperature. a. back and forth in the same direction the wave is moving.
d. the surface of Earth, no matter what the air temperature. b. perpendicular to the direction the wave is moving.
13. Two in-phase sound waves with the same amplitude and c. in a circular motion in the direction the wave is moving.
frequency arrive at the same place at the same time, resulting in d. in a circular motion opposite the direction the wave is moving.
a. higher frequency. 27. A transverse mechanical wave causes particles of a material to
b. refraction. move
c. a new sound wave with greater amplitude. a. back and forth in the same direction the wave is moving.
d. reflection b. perpendicular to the direction the wave is moving.
14. Two out-of-phase sound waves with the same amplitude and c. in a circular motion in the direction the wave is moving.
frequency arrive at the same place at the same time, resulting in d. in a circular motion opposite the direction the wave is moving.
a. a beat. 28. Transverse mechanical waves will move only through
b. cancellation of the two sound waves. a. solids.
c. a lower frequency. b. liquids.
d. the bouncing of one wave. c. gases.
15. Two sound waves of equal amplitude with slightly different d. All of the above are correct.
frequencies will result in 29. Longitudinal mechanical waves will move only through
a. an echo. a. solids.
b. the Doppler effect. b. liquids.
c. alternation of loudness of sound known as beats. c. gases.
d. two separate sounds. d. All of the above are correct.
16. Two sound waves of unequal amplitudes with different 30. A pulse of jammed-together molecules that quickly moves away
frequencies will result in from a vibrating object
a. an echo. a. is called a condensation.
b. the Doppler effect. b. causes an increased air pressure when it reaches an object.
c. alternation of loudness known as beats. c. has a greater density than the surrounding air.
d. two separate sounds. d. All of the above are correct.
17. The energy of a sound wave is proportional to the rate of energy 31. The characteristic of a wave that is responsible for what you
transferred to an area perpendicular to the waves, which is called interpret as pitch is the wave
the sound a. amplitude.
a. intensity. b. shape.
b. loudness. c. frequency.
c. amplitude. d. height.
d. decibel. 32. Sound waves travel faster in
18. A decibel noise level of 40 would be most likely found a. solids as compared to liquids.
a. during a calm day in the forest. b. liquids as compared to gases.
b. on a typical day in the library. c. warm air as compared to cooler air.
c. in heavy street traffic. d. All of the above are correct.
d. next to a pneumatic drill. 33. The difference between an echo and a reverberation is
19. A resonant condition occurs when a. an echo is a reflected sound; reverberation is not.
a. an external force matches a natural frequency. b. the time interval between the original sound and the
b. a beat is heard. reflected sound.
c. two out-of-phase waves have the same frequency. c. the amplitude of an echo is much greater.
d. reverberation comes from acoustical speakers; echoes come hear.
from cliffs and walls. b. the same frequency as the people you are approaching will
34. Sound interference is necessary to produce the phenomenon hear.
known as c. the same frequency as when you and the source are not moving.
a. resonance. d. a higher frequency, as will all observers in all directions.
b. decibels. Answers
c. beats. 1. b 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. b 6. c 7. c 8. a 9. a 10. c 11. b 12. b 13. c 14. b
d. reverberation. 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. b 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. d 23. b 24. a 25. c 26. a
35. The fundamental frequency of a standing wave on a string has 27. b 28. a 29. d 30. d 31. c 32. d 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. d 37. d 38. b
a. one node and one antinode. 39. a 40. c 41. d 42. d 43. b 44. c 45. a
b. one node and two antinodes. 1. Electrostatic charge results from
c. two nodes and one antinode. a. transfer or redistribution of electrons.
d. two nodes and two antinodes. b. gain or loss of protons.
36. An observer on the ground will hear a sonic boom from an c. separation of charge from electrons and protons.
airplane traveling faster than the speed of sound d. failure to keep the object clean of dust.
a. only when the plane breaks the sound barrier. 2. The unit of electric charge is the
b. as the plane is approaching. a. volt.
c. when the plane is directly overhead. b. amp.
d. after the plane has passed by. c. coulomb.
37. What comment is true about the statement that “the human ear d. watt.
hears sounds originating from vibrating objects with a frequency 3. An electric field describes the condition of
between 20 and 20,000 Hz”? space around
a. This is true only at room temperature. a. a charged particle.
b. About 95 percent hear in this range, while some hear outside b. a magnetic pole.
the average limits. c. a mass.
c. This varies, with females hearing frequencies above 20,000 Hz. d. all of the above.
d. Very few people hear this whole range, which decreases 4. A material that has electrons that are free to move throughout
with age. the material is a (an)
38. A sound wave that moves through the air is a. electrical conductor.
a. actually a tiny sound that the ear magnifies. b. electrical insulator.
b. pulses of increased and decreased air pressure. c. thermal insulator.
c. a transverse wave that carries information about a sound. d. thermal nonconductor.
d. a combination of longitudinal and transverse wave 5. An example of an electrical insulator is
patterns. a. graphite.
39. During a track and field meet, the time difference between b. glass.
seeing the smoke from a starter’s gun and hearing the bang c. aluminum.
would be less d. tungsten.
a. on a warmer day. 6. The electrical potential difference between two points in a circuit
b. on a cooler day. is measured in units of
c. if a more powerful shell were used. a. volt.
d. if a less powerful shell were used. b. amp.
40. What is changed by destructive interference of a sound c. coulomb.
wave? d. watt.
a. Frequency 7. The rate at which an electric current flows through a circuit is
b. Phase measured in units of
c. Amplitude a. volt.
d. Wavelength b. amp.
41. An airplane pilot hears a slow beat from the two engines of c. coulomb.
his plane. He increases the speed of the right engine and now d. watt.
hears a slower beat. What should the pilot now do to eliminate 8. The law that predicts the behavior of electrostatic forces acting
the beat? through space is
a. Increase the speed of the left engine. a. the law of universal gravitation.
b. Decrease the speed of the right engine. b. Watt’s law.
c. Increase the speed of both engines. c. Coulomb’s law.
d. Increase the speed of the right engine. d. Ohm’s law.
42. Resonance occurs when an external force matches the 9. What type of electric current is produced by fuel cells and
a. interference frequency. solar cells?
b. decibel frequency. a. ac
c. beat frequency. b. dc
d. natural frequency. c. 60 Hz
43. The sound quality is different for the same-pitch note produced d. 120 Hz
by two different musical instruments, but you are 10. The electrical resistance of a conductor is measured
able to recognize the basic note because of the same in units of
a. harmonics. a. volt.
b. fundamental frequency. b. amp.
c. node positions. c. ohm.
d. standing waves. d. watt.
44. What happens if the source of a sound is moving toward you at a 11. According to Ohm’s law, what must be greater to maintain the
high rate of speed? same current in a conductor with more resistance?
a. The sound will be traveling faster than from a stationary source. a. voltage
b. The sound will be moving faster only in the direction of travel. b. current
c. You will hear a higher frequency, but people in the source c. temperature
will not. d. cross-sectional area
d. All observers in all directions will hear a higher frequency. 12. A kilowatt-hour is a unit of
45. What happens if you are moving at a high rate of speed toward a. power.
some people standing next to a stationary source of a sound? b. work.
You will hear c. current.
a. a higher frequency than the people you are approaching will d. potential difference.
13. If you multiply volts by amps, the answer will be in units of 27. Electric power companies step up the voltage of generated power
a. power. for transmission across the country because higher voltage
b. work. a. means more power is transmitted.
c. current. b. reduces the current, which increases the resistance.
d. potential difference. c. means less power is transmitted.
14. Units of joules per second are a measure called a (an) d. reduces the current, which lowers the energy lost
a. volt. to resistance.
b. amp. 28. A solar cell
c. ohm. a. produces electricity directly.
d. watt. b. requires chemical reactions.
15. A lodestone is a natural magnet that attracts c. has a very short lifetime.
a. iron. d. uses small moving parts.
b. cobalt. 29. Which of the following is most likely to acquire an electrostatic
c. nickel. charge?
d. all of the above a. Electrical conductor
16. The north pole of a suspended or floating bar magnet currently b. Electrical nonconductor
points directly toward Earth’s c. Both are equally likely
a. north magnetic pole. d. None of the above is correct
b. south magnetic pole. 30. Which of the following units are measures of rates?
c. north geographic pole. a. Amp and volt
d. south geographic pole. b. Coulomb and joule
17. A current-carrying wire always has c. Volt and watt
a. a magnetic field with closed concentric field lines around the d. Amp and watt
length of the wire. 31. You are using which description of a current if you consider a
b. a magnetic field with field lines parallel to the length of the wire. current to be positive charges that flow from the positive to the
c. an electric field but no magnetic field around the wire. negative terminal of a battery?
d. nothing in the space around the wire. a. Electron current
18. Magnetism is produced by b. Conventional current
a. an excess of north monopoles. c. Proton current
b. an excess of south monopoles. d. Alternating current
c. moving charges. 32. In an electric current, the electrons are moving
d. separation of positive and negative charges. a. at a very slow rate.
19. Earth’s magnetic field b. at the speed of light.
a. has undergone many reversals in polarity. c. faster than the speed of light.
b. has always been as it is now. d. at a speed described as supersonic.
c. is created beneath Earth’s north geographic pole. 33. In which of the following currents is there no electron
d. is created beneath Earth’s south geographic pole. movement from one end of a conducting wire to the
20. The strength of a magnetic field around a current-carrying wire other end?
varies directly with the a. Electron current
a. amperage of the current. b. Direct current
b. voltage of the current. c. Alternating current
c. resistance of the wire. d. None of the above
d. temperature of the wire. 34. If you multiply amps by volts, the answer will be in units of
21. Reverse the direction of a current in a wire, and the magnetic a. resistance.
field around the wire will b. work.
a. have an inverse magnitude of strength. c. current.
b. have a reversed north pole direction. d. power.
c. become a conventional current. 35. A permanent magnet has magnetic properties because
d. remain unchanged. a. the magnetic fields of its electrons are balanced.
22. The operation of which of the following depends on the b. of an accumulation of monopoles in the ends.
interaction between two magnetic fields? c. the magnetic domains are aligned.
a. Car stereo speakers d. all of the above.
b. Telephone 36. A current-carrying wire has a magnetic field around
c. Relay circuit it because
d. All of the above a. a moving charge produces a magnetic field of its own.
23. An electric meter measures the b. the current aligns the magnetic domains in the metal of
a. actual number of charges moving through a conductor. the wire.
b. current in packets of coulombs. c. the metal was magnetic before the current was established,
c. strength of a magnetic field. and the current enhanced the magnetic effect.
d. difference in potential between two points in a conductor. d. None of the above is correct.
24. When a loop of wire cuts across magnetic field lines or when 37. When an object acquires a negative charge, it actually
magnetic field lines move across a loop of wire, a. gains mass.
a. electrons are pushed toward one end of the loop. b. loses mass.
b. an electrostatic charge is formed. c. has a constant mass.
c. the wire becomes a permanent magnet. d. The answer is unknown.
d. a magnetic domain is created. 38. A positive and a negative charge are initially 2 cm apart. What
25. A step-up transformer steps up the happens to the force on each as they are moved closer and closer
a. voltage. together? The force
b. current. a. increases while moving.
c. power. b. decreases while moving.
d. energy. c. remains constant.
26. Electromagnetic induction occurs when a coil of wire cuts across d. The answer is unknown.
magnetic field lines. Which one of the following increases the 39. To be operational, a complete electric circuit must contain a
voltage produced? source of energy, a device that does work, and
a. Fewer wire loops in the coil a. a magnetic field.
b. Increased strength of the magnetic field b. a conductor from the source to the working device and
c. Slower speed of the moving coil of wire another conductor back to the source.
d. Decreased strength of the magnetic field c. connecting wires from the source to the working device.
d. a magnetic field and a switch. d. None of the above
40. Which variable is inversely proportional to the resistance? Answers
a. Length of conductor 1. a 2. c 3. a 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. c 9. b 10. c 11. a 12. b 13. a 14. d 15. d
b. Cross-sectional area of conductor 16. a 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. d 23. c 24. a 25. a 26. b 27. d
c. Temperature of conductor 28. a 29. b 30. d 31. b 32. a 33. c 34. d 35. c 36. a 37. a 38. a 39. b
d. Conductor material 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. b 44. b 45. c 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. a 51. b
41. Which of the following is not considered to have strong magnetic 1. Which of the following is luminous?
properties? a. Moon
a. Iron b. Mars
b. Nickel c. Sun
c. Silver d. All of the above
d. Cobalt 2. A source of light given off as a result of high temperatures is said to
42. A piece of iron can be magnetized or unmagnetized. This is be
explained by the idea that a. luminous.
a. electrons in iron atoms are spinning and have magnetic fields b. blackbody radiation.
around them. c. incandescent.
b. atoms of iron are grouped into tiny magnetic domains that d. electromagnetic radiation.
may orient themselves in a particular direction or in a 3. An idealized material that absorbs and perfectly emits
random direction. electromagnetic radiation is a (an)
c. unmagnetized iron atoms can be magnetized by an external a. star.
magnetic field. b. blackbody.
d. the north and south poles of iron can be segregated by the c. electromagnetic wave.
application of an external magnetic field. d. photon.
43. Earth’s magnetic field is believed to originate 4. Electromagnetic radiation is given off from matter at any
a. by a separation of north and south monopoles due to currents temperature. This radiation is called
within Earth. a. luminous.
b. with electric currents that are somehow generated in Earth’s b. blackbody radiation.
core. c. incandescent.
c. from a giant iron and cobalt bar magnet inside Earth. d. electromagnetic radiation.
d. from processes that are not understood. 5. Light interacts with matter by which process?
44. The speaker in a stereo system works by the action of a. Absorption
a. a permanent magnet creating an electric current. b. Reflection
b. an electromagnet pushing and pulling on a permanent c. Transmission
magnet. d. All of the above
c. sound waves pushing and pulling on an electromagnet. 6. Materials that do not allow the transmission of any light are called
d. electrons creating sound waves. a. transparent.
45. Electromagnetic induction takes place because b. colored.
a. an electric current is measured by the rate of movement c. opaque.
of charges. d. blackbody
b. the potential is determined by how much work is done. 7. Light is said to travel in straight-line paths, as light rays, until it
c. electrons have their own magnetic field, which interacts with interacts with matter. A line representing the original ray before
an externally applied magnetic field. it interacts with matter is called a (an)
d. copper wire is magnetic, which induces magnetism. a. incoming light ray.
46. The current in the secondary coil of a transformer is b. incident ray.
produced by a c. reflected light ray.
a. varying magnetic field. d. normal ray.
b. varying electric field. 8. The image you see in a mirror is
c. constant magnetic field. a. a real image.
d. constant electric field. b. a virtual image.
47. An electromagnet uses c. not really an image.
a. a magnetic field to produce an electric current. 9. Refraction of light happens when light undergoes
b. an electric current to produce a magnetic field. a. reflection from a surface.
c. a magnetic current to produce an electric field. b. a change of speed between two transparent materials.
d. an electric field to produce a magnetic current. c. movement through a critical angle.
48. A transformer d. a 90° angle of incidence.
a. changes the voltage of a direct current. 10. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light
b. changes the power of a direct current. in a transparent material is called the
c. changes the voltage of an alternating current. a. index of deflection.
d. changes the amperage of an alternating current. b. index of reflection.
49. A parallel circuit has c. index of refraction.
a. wires that are lined up side by side. d. index of diffusion.
b. the same current flowing through one resistance 11. The part of the electromagnetic spectrum that our eyes can
after another. detect is
c. separate pathways for the current to flow through. a. ultraviolet.
d. none of the above. b. infrared.
50. In which type of circuit would you expect a reduction of the c. visible.
available voltage as more and more resistances are added to the d. all of the above.
circuit? 12. The component colors of sunlight were first studied by
a. Series circuit a. Joule.
b. Parallel circuit b. Galileo.
c. Open circuit c. Newton.
d. None of the above d. Watt.
51. In which type of circuit would you expect the same voltage with 13. The color order of longer-wavelength to smaller-wavelength
an increased current as more and more resistances are added to waves in the visible region is
the circuit? a. red, orange, yellow, green, blue, violet.
a. Series circuit b. red, violet, blue, yellow, green.
b. Parallel circuit c. violet, blue, green, yellow, orange, red.
c. Open circuit d. violet, red, blue, green, yellow, orange.
14. The separation of white light into its component colors is a. each wavelength of light has its own index of refraction.
a. reflection. b. longer wavelengths are refracted more than shorter
b. refraction. wavelengths.
c. dispersion. c. red light is refracted the most, violet the least.
d. transmission. d. all of the above are correct.
15. Polarization of light is best explained by considering light to be 29. Which of the following can only be explained by a wave model of
a. vibrating waves in one plane. light?
b. moving particles in one plane. a. Reflection
c. none of the above. b. Refraction
16. Light in one plane is transmitted and light in all other planes is c. Interference
absorbed. This is d. Photoelectric effect
a. selective absorption. 30. The polarization behavior of light is best explained by
b. polarized absorption. considering light to be
c. reflection. a. longitudinal waves.
d. scattering. b. transverse waves.
17. The photoelectric effect is best explained by considering light to be c. particles.
a. vibrating waves. d. particles with ends, or poles.
b. moving particles. 31. Max Planck made the revolutionary discovery that the energy of
c. none of the above vibrating molecules involved in blackbody radiation existed only in
18. The concept that vibrating molecules emit light in discrete a. multiples of certain fixed amounts.
amounts of energy, called quanta, was proposed by b. amounts that smoothly graded one into the next.
a. Newton. c. the same, constant amount of energy in all situations.
b. Fresnel. d. amounts that were never consistent from one experiment to
c. Planck. the next.
d. Maxwell. 32. Today, light is considered to be
19. The photoelectric effect was explained, using Planck’s work, by a. tiny particles of matter that move through space, having no
a. Planck. wave properties.
b. Einstein. b. electromagnetic waves only, with no properties of particles.
c. Maxwell. c. a small-scale phenomenon without a sharp distinction
d. Young. between particle and wave properties.
20. Today, light is considered to be packets of energy with a d. something that is completely unknown.
frequency related to its energy. These packets are called 33. As the temperature of an incandescent object is increased,
a. gravitons. a. more infrared radiation is emitted with less UV.
b. gluons. b. there is a decrease in the frequency of radiation emitted.
c. photons. c. the radiation emitted shifts toward infrared.
d. quarks. d. more radiation is emitted with a shift to higher frequencies.
21. Fiber optics transmits information using 34. Is it possible to see light without the light interacting with matter?
a. sound. a. Yes.
b. computers. b. No.
c. light. c. Only for opaque objects.
d. all of the above. d. Only for transparent objects.
22. A luminous object 35. The electromagnetic wave model defines an electromagnetic
a. reflects a dim blue-green light in the dark. wave as having
b. produces light of its own by any method. a. a velocity.
c. shines by reflected light only, such as the Moon. b. a magnetic field.
d. glows only in the absence of light. c. an electric field.
23. An object is hot enough to emit a dull red glow. When this object d. all of the above.
is heated even more, it will emit 36. Of the following, the electromagnetic wave with the shortest
a. shorter-wavelength, higher-frequency radiation. wavelength is
b. longer-wavelength, lower-frequency radiation. a. radio wave.
c. the same wavelengths as before with more energy. b. infrared light.
d. more of the same wavelengths. c. ultraviolet light.
24. The difference in the light emitted from a candle, an incandescent d. X rays.
lightbulb, and the Sun is basically due to differences in 37. Of the following, the electromagnetic wave with the lowest
a. energy sources. energy is
b. materials. a. radio wave.
c. temperatures. b. infrared light.
d. phases of matter. c. ultraviolet light.
25. You are able to see in shaded areas, such as under a tree, because d. X rays.
light has undergone 38. Green grass reflects
a. refraction. a. yellow light.
b. incident bending. b. green light.
c. a change in speed. c. blue light.
d. diffuse reflection. d. white light.
26. An image that is not produced by light rays coming from the 39. Green grass absorbs
image but is the result of your brain’s interpretations of light rays a. yellow light.
is called a (an) b. only green light.
a. real image. c. blue light.
b. imagined image. d. all light but green light.
c. virtual image. 40. We see a blue sky because
d. phony image. a. air molecules absorb blue light.
27. Any part of the electromagnetic spectrum, including the colors b. air molecules reflect red light.
of visible light, can be measured in units of c. scattering of light by air molecules and dust is more efficient
a. wavelength. when its wavelength is longer.
b. frequency. d. scattering of light by air molecules and dust is more efficient
c. energy. when its wavelength is shorter.
d. any of the above. 41. A pencil is placed in a glass of water. The pencil appears to be
28. A prism separates the colors of sunlight into a spectrum because bent. This is an example of
a. reflection. c. some radioactive particles were deflected by metal foil.
b. refraction. d. None of the above is correct.
c. dispersion. 3. According to Rutherford’s calculations, the volume of an atom is
d. polarization. mostly
42. A one-way mirror works because it a. occupied by protons and neutrons.
a. transmits all of the light falling on it. b. filled with electrons.
b. reflects all of the light falling on it. c. occupied by tightly bound protons, electrons, and neutrons.
c. reflects and transmits light at the same time. d. empty space.
d. neither reflects nor transmits light. 4. Millikan measured the charge on oil droplets and found that all
43. A mirage is the result of light being the droplets had
a. reflected. a. different charges.
b. refracted. b. random charges, without any pattern.
c. absorbed. c. five groupings of different charges.
d. bounced around a lot. d. the same or multiples of the same charge.
44. A glass prism separates sunlight into a spectrum of colors because 5. Rutherford’s estimate of the radius of an atomic nucleus was
a. shorter wavelengths are refracted the most. based on
b. light separates into colors when reflected from crystal glass. a. the drift of oil droplets in an electric field.
c. light undergoes absorption in a prism. b. speculation about expected symmetry in gold foil.
d. there are three surfaces that reflect light. c. measurements of radioactive particle deflections from gold foil.
45. Polaroid sunglasses work best in eliminating glare because d. measurements of the breakup of a nitrogen atom by collisions
a. reflected light is refracted upward. with radioactive particles
b. unpolarized light vibrates in all possible directions. 6. The atomic number is the number of
c. reflected light undergoes dispersion. a. protons.
d. reflected light is polarized in a horizontal direction only. b. protons plus neutrons.
46. The condition of farsightedness, or hyperopia, can be corrected c. protons plus electrons.
with a (an) d. protons, neutrons, and electrons in an atom.
a. concave lens. 7. All neutral atoms of an element have the same
b. convex lens. a. atomic number.
c. eyepiece lens. b. number of electrons.
d. combination of convex and concave lenses. c. number of protons.
47. Today, light is considered to be a stream of photons with a d. All of the above are correct.
frequency related to its energy. This relationship finds that 8. The main problem with a solar system model of the atom
a. frequencies near the middle of the spectrum have more energy. is that
b. more energetic light is always light with a lower frequency. a. electrons move in circular, not elliptical orbits.
c. higher-frequency light has more energy. b. the electrons should lose energy since they are
d. lower-frequency light has more energy. accelerating.
48. An instrument that produces a coherent beam of singlefrequency, c. opposite charges should attract one another.
in-phase light is a d. the mass ratio of the nucleus to the electrons is wrong.
a. telescope. 9. Atoms of an element that have different numbers of neutrons are
b. laser. called
c. camera. a. allotropes.
d. solar cell. b. isomers.
49. The special theory of relativity is c. isotopes.
a. a new explanation of gravity. d. radioactive.
b. an analysis of how space and time are changed by motion. 10. The sum of the numbers of protons and neutrons in the nucleus
c. an analysis of how fast-moving clocks run faster. of an atom is the
d. based on a changing velocity of light. a. nucleon number.
50. The general theory of relativity explains b. mass number.
a. gravity as a change of space and time. c. atomic weight.
b. why the speed of light changes with the speed of an observer. d. isotope number.
c. how the laws of physics change with changes of motion. 11. Atomic weight is
d. Newton’s laws of motion. a. determined by weighing individual atoms.
51. Comparing measurements made on the ground to measurements b. an average weight of the isotopes of an element.
made in a very fast airplane would find that c. the number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus.
a. the length of an object is shorter. d. a weighted average of the masses of isotopes of an element
b. clocks run more slowly. based on abundance.
c. objects have an increased mass. 12. This isotope provides the standard to which the masses of all
d. all of the above are true. other isotopes are compared:
Answers a. carbon-12
1. c 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. c 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. c 11. c 12. c 13. a b. oxygen-16
14. c 15. a 16. a 17. b 18. c 19. b 20. c 21. c 22. b 23. a 24. c c. hydrogen-1
25. d 26. c 27. d 28. a 29. c 30. b 31. a 32. c 33. d 34. b 35. d d. gold-197
36. d 37. a 38. b 39. d 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. b 44. a 45. d 46. b 13. In 1910, Max Planck introduced the idea that matter emits and
47. c 48. b 49. b 50. a 51. d absorbs energy in
a. light waves.
Chemistry b. discrete units called quanta.
c. pulses with no particular pattern.
1. Thomson was convinced that he had discovered a subatomic d. pulses that vary in magnitude over time.
particle, the electron, from the evidence that 14. Energy of the electron is expressed in units of
a. the charge-to-mass ratio was the same for all materials. a. electron volts.
b. cathode rays could move through a vacuum. b. electron watts.
c. electrons were attracted toward a negatively charged plate. c. quantum leaps.
d. the charge was always 1.60 × 10–19 coulomb. d. orbit numbers.
2. The existence of a tiny, massive, and positively charged nucleus 15. The major success of the Bohr theory was in explaining
was deduced from the observation that a. how electrons move in circular orbits.
a. fast, massive, and positively charged radioactive particles all b. why radiationless orbits existed.
move straight through metal foil. c. the colors in the hydrogen line spectrum.
b. radioactive particles were deflected by a magnetic field. d. why the angular momentum of the electron should be by
orbit quantum numbers b. Orange light
16. Light from an incandescent gas is dispersed into narrow lines of c. Green light
colors with no light between the lines. This is called a (an) d. Blue light
a. impossible spectrum. 31. The lines of color in a line spectrum from a given element
b. line spectrum. a. change colors with changes in the temperature.
c. Balmer spectrum. b. are always the same, with a regular spacing pattern.
d. Newton spectrum. c. are randomly spaced, having no particular pattern.
17. The lowest energy state or level of an atom is the d. have the same colors, with a spacing pattern that varies with
a. bottom state. the temperature.
b. lowest level. 32. Hydrogen, with its one electron, produces a line spectrum in the
c. ground state. visible light range with
d. basement state. a. one color line.
18. The basis of the quantum mechanics theory of the atom is b. two color lines.
a. spin and quantum leaps of electron masses. c. three color lines.
b. elliptical orbits of electrons. d. four color lines.
c. how electron particles move in orbits. 33. According to the Bohr model, an electron gains or loses energy
d. the wave nature of electrons. only by
19. An electron moving from an excited state to the ground state a. moving faster or slower in an allowed orbit.
a. emits a photon. b. jumping from one allowed orbit to another.
b. gains a photon. c. being completely removed from an atom.
c. gains a charge. d. jumping from one atom to another atom.
d. loses a charge. 34. According to the Bohr model, when an electron in a hydrogen
20. The existence of matter waves was proposed by atom jumps from an orbit farther from the nucleus to an orbit
a. Planck. closer to the nucleus, it
b. Bohr. a. emits a single photon with energy equal to the energy
c. de Broglie. difference of the two orbits.
d. Einstein. b. emits four photons, one for each of the color lines observed
21. Any moving particle has a wavelength that is associated with its in the line spectrum of hydrogen.
mass and velocity. This is a statement that proposed the c. emits a number of photons dependent on the number of orbit
existence of levels jumped over.
a. photoelectric effect. d. None of the above is correct.
b. matter waves. 35. The Bohr model of the atom
c. quanta. a. explained the color lines in the hydrogen spectrum.
d. photons. b. could not explain the line spectrum of atoms larger than
22. The arrangement of electrons in orbitals is called hydrogen.
a. electron configuration. c. had some made-up rules without explanations.
b. periodic table. d. All of the above are correct.
c. quantum numbers. 36. The Bohr model of the atom described the energy state of
d. energy levels. electrons with one quantum number. The quantum mechanics
23. Group IIA elements are called model uses how many quantum numbers to describe the energy
a. alkali metals. state of an electron?
b. alkaline earth metals. a. One
c. alkaline salts. b. Two
d. beryllium metals. c. Four
24. The elements in A groups are called d. Ten
a. alkali elements. 37. An electron in the second main energy level and the second
b. transition elements. sublevel is described by the symbols
c. representative elements. a. 1s.
d. metals. b. 2s.
25. The element chlorine belongs to which group? c. 1p.
a. Alkali metals d. 2p.
b. Lanthanides 38. The space in which it is probable that an electron will be found is
c. Halogens described by a (an)
d. Noble gases a. circular orbit.
26. The gain or loss of electrons from an atom results in the b. elliptical orbit.
formation of a (an) c. orbital.
a. ion. d. geocentric orbit.
b. metal. 39. Two different isotopes of the same element have
c. semiconductor. a. the same number of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
d. isotope b. the same number of protons and neutrons but different
27. Elements that have properties of both the metals and the numbers of electrons.
nonmetals are c. the same number of protons and electrons but different
a. semimetals. numbers of neutrons.
b. transition elements. d. the same number of neutrons and electrons but different
c. semiconductors. numbers of protons.
d. noble gases. 40. The isotopes of a given element always have
28. Transition elements a. the same mass and the same chemical behavior.
a. are metals. b. the same mass and a different chemical behavior.
b. belong to the B group. c. different masses and different chemical behaviors.
c. have variable charges. d. different masses and the same chemical behavior.
d. All of the above are correct. 41. If you want to know the number of protons in an atom of a given
29. The energy of a photon element, you look up the
a. varies inversely with the frequency. a. mass number.
b. is directly proportional to the frequency. b. atomic number.
c. varies directly with the velocity. c. atomic weight.
d. is inversely proportional to the velocity. d. abundance of isotopes compared to the mass number.
30. A photon of which of the following has the most energy? 42. If you want to know the number of neutrons in an atom of a
a. Red light given element, you
a. round the atomic weight to the nearest whole number. 5. What determines the chemical properties of an atom?
b. add the mass number and the atomic number. a. Valence electrons
c. subtract the atomic number from the mass number. b. Atomic weight
d. add the mass number and the atomic number, then divide c. Neutrons and protons
by 2. d. Protons only
43. Which of the following is always a whole number? 6. “Atoms attempt to acquire an outer orbital with eight electrons”
a. Atomic mass of an isotope is a statement of the
b. Mass number of an isotope a. Heisenberg certainty theory.
c. Atomic weight of an element b. atomic theory.
d. None of the above is correct. c. octet rule.
44. The quantum mechanics and Bohr models of the atom both d. chemical energy balancing rule.
agree on 7. The family or group number of the representative elements
a. the significance of the de Broglie wavelength and the represents the
circumference of an orbit. a. total number of electrons.
b. the importance of momentum in determining the size of an b. total number of protons.
orbit. c. total number of valence electrons.
c. how electrons are able to emit light. d. atomic number.
d. None of the above is correct 8. What is the chemical symbol for a magnesium ion?
45. Hydrogen, with its one electron, can produce a line spectrum a. Mg+
with four visible colors because b. Mg–
a. an isotope of hydrogen has four electrons. c. Mg2+
b. electrons occur naturally with four different colors. d. Mg2–
c. there are multiple energy levels that an electron can occupy. 9. Atoms that achieve an octet by sharing electrons form
d. electrons are easily scattered. a. covalent bonds.
46. A photon is emitted from the electronic structure of an atom b. ionic bonds.
when an electron c. metallic bonds.
a. jumps from a higher to a lower energy level. d. hydrogen bonds.
b. jumps from a lower to a higher energy level. 10. The electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions is
c. reverses its spin by 180°. called a (an)
d. is removed from an atom by a high quantum of energy. a. ionic bond.
47. Which of the following represents a hydrogen isotope? b. metallic bond.
a. 11 H c. covalent bond.
b. 12 H d. electrostatic bond.
c. 13 H 11. The energy released during the formation of an ionic bond is
d. All of the above are correct. a. ionic energy.
48. In what are atoms of 12 b. heat of formation.
6C and 14 c. activation energy.
6C different? d. heat of creation.
a. Number of protons 12. The comparative ability of atoms of an element to attract
b. Number of neutrons bonding electrons is called
c. Number of electrons a. electron attraction.
d. None of the above is correct. b. electronegativity.
49. An atom has 6 protons, 6 electrons, and 6 neutrons, so the c. bonding.
isotope symbol is d. electron transfer.
a. 11 28 Mg 13. What kind of bond has unequal sharing of bonding electrons?
b. 1122 Mg a. Polar covalent
c. 12 b. Covalent
6C c. Ionic
d. 12 d. Polar ionic
6C 14. The correct name for the compound CS2 is
Answers a. dicarbon disulfide.
1. a 2. c 3. d 4. d 5. c 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. c 10. b 11. d 12. a 13. b 14. a b. carbon disulfite.
15. c 16. b 17. c 18. d 19. a 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. c 25. c 26. a c. carbon disulfide.
27. c 28. d 29. b 30. d 31. b 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. c d. monocarbon trisulfide.
39. c 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. b 44. c 45. c 46. a 47. d 48. b 49. c 15. What is the formula for the compound zinc chloride?
1. Which of the following is not true of a compound? It is a. ZnCl
a. a pure substance. b. Zn2Cl
b. composed of combinations of atoms. c. ZnCl2
c. held together by chemical bonds. d. ZnCl4
d. a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler units. 16. Pure substances that cannot be broken down into anything
2. The smallest unit of an element that can exist alone or in simpler are
combination with other elements is a (an) a. elements.
a. nucleus. b. compounds.
b. atom. c. molecules.
c. molecule. d. mixtures.
d. proton. 17. Chemical energy is defined as
3. The smallest particle of a compound or a gaseous element that a. change of internal potential energy during a chemical
can exist and still retain the characteristic properties of that reaction.
substance is a (an) b. energy that is only absorbed during a chemical reaction.
a. molecule. c. energy that is only released during a chemical reaction.
b. element. d. energy added to a chemical reaction.
c. atom. 18. A metallic bond is defined by all of the following, except
d. electron. a. it is formed in solid metals.
4. Which of the following is an example of a monatomic molecule? b. it restricts movement of electrons.
a. O2 c. metal atoms share a “sea of electrons.”
b. N2 d. it accounts for metallic properties such as conductivity and
c. Ar luster.
d. O3 19. An ion can be described as an element or compound that
a. gains electrons. c. X2S2
b. loses electrons. d. It is impossible to say without more information.
c. gains or loses electrons. 33. One element is in the IA family of the periodic table, and a
d. shares electrons. second is in the VIIA family. What type of compound will the
20. You know that a chemical reaction is taking place if two elements form?
a. the temperature of a substance increases. a. Ionic
b. electrons move in a steady current. b. Covalent
c. chemical bonds are formed or broken. c. They will not form a compound.
d. All of the above are correct. d. More information is needed to answer this question.
21. What is the relationship between the energy released in burning 34. One element is in the VA family of the periodic table, and a
materials produced by photosynthesis and the solar energy that second is in the VIA family. What type of compound will these
was absorbed in making the materials? The energy released is two elements form?
a. less than the solar energy absorbed. a. Ionic
b. the same as the solar energy absorbed. b. Covalent
c. more than the solar energy absorbed. c. They will not form a compound.
d. variable, having no relationship to the energy absorbed. d. More information is needed to answer this question.
22. The electrons that participate in chemical bonding are the 35. A covalent bond in which there is an unequal sharing of bonding
a. valence electrons. electrons is a
b. electrons in fully occupied orbitals. a. single covalent bond.
c. stable inner electrons. b. double covalent bond.
d. All of the above are correct. c. triple covalent bond.
23. Atoms of the representative elements have a tendency to seek d. polar covalent bond.
stability through 36. An inorganic compound made of only two different elements has
a. acquiring the hydrogen gas structure. a systematic name that always ends with the suffix
b. filling or emptying their outer orbitals. a. -ite.
c. any situations that will fill all orbitals. b. -ate.
d. All of the above are correct. c. -ide.
24. An ion is formed when an atom of a representative element d. -ous.
a. gains or loses protons. 37. Dihydrogen monoxide is the systematic name for a compound
b. shares electrons to achieve stability. that has the common name of
c. loses or gains electrons to satisfy the octet rule. a. laughing gas.
d. All of the above are correct. b. water.
25. An atom of an element in family VIA will have what charge c. smog.
when it is ionized? d. rocket fuel.
a. +1 38. Which of the following is not an example of a chemical reaction?
b. – 1 a. Blending of a vanilla milkshake
c. +2 b. Growing tomatoes
d. – 2 c. Burning logs in the fireplace
26. Which type of chemical bond is formed by a transfer of electrons? d. Digesting your dinner
a. Ionic 39. Which of the following substances is not a compound?
b. Covalent a. Water
c. Metallic b. Table salt
d. All of the above are correct. c. Neon
27. Which type of chemical bond is formed between two d. Rust
atoms by the sharing of two electrons, with one electron from 40. Propane gas burns in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide, water,
each atom? and energy. The reactants in this reaction are propane and
a. Ionic a. energy.
b. Covalent b. oxygen.
c. Metallic c. carbon dioxide.
d. All of the above are correct. d. water.
28. What types of compounds are salts, such as sodium chloride? 41. Propane gas burns in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide, water,
a. Ionic compounds and energy. For this reaction, energy is
b. Covalent compounds a. absorbed.
c. Polar compounds b. released.
d. All of the above are correct. c. equal on both sides of the reaction.
29. What is the chemical formula if there are two bromide ions for d. completely consumed in the reaction.
each barium ion in a compound? 42. Which is not true of an ionic bond? It involves
a. 2Br1Ba a. a transfer of electrons.
b. Ba2Br b. sharing of electrons.
c. BaBr2 c. electrostatic attraction between ions.
d. None of the above is correct. d. metals and nonmetals.
30. Which combination of elements forms crystalline solids that will 43. Which of the following does not have an ionic bond?
dissolve in water, producing a solution of ions that can conduct a. BaCl2
an electric current? b. Na2O
a. Metal and metal c. CS2
b. Metal and nonmetal d. BaS
c. Nonmetal and nonmetal 44. What is the correct formula for magnesium chloride?
d. All of the above are correct. a. MgCl
31. In a single covalent bond between two atoms, a b. Mg2Cl
a. single electron from one of the atoms is shared. c. MgCl2
b. pair of electrons from one of the atoms is shared. d. Mg2Cl2
c. pair of electrons, one from each atom, is shared. 45. What is the formula for the sulfate ion?
d. single electron is transferred from one atom. a. (HSO4)–
32. Sulfur and oxygen are both in the VIA family of the periodic table. b. (SO4)2–
If element X combines with oxygen to form the compound X2O, c. S2–
element X will combine with sulfur to form what compound? d. (SO3)2–
a. XS2 46. The correct name for the compound NaNO3 is
b. X2S a. sodium nitrogen trioxygen.
b. sodium nitrate. c. loss of electrons by an atom.
c. sodium nitrite. d. gain of mass of an atom.
d. sodium nitrogen trioxide. 9. To what chemical reaction class does this reaction belong?
47. How many valence electrons does the element nitrogen (N) CaCO3(s) _ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
have? a. Combination
a. 3 b. Ion exchange
b. 7 c. Decomposition
c. 5 d. Replacement
d. 14 10. To what chemical reaction class does this reaction belong?
48. A nonmetal atom combines with a second nonmetal atom. The 2 Mg(s) + O2(g) _ 2 MgO(s)
first nonmetal atom a. Combination
a. gains electrons. b. Ion exchange
b. loses electrons. c. Decomposition
c. remains neutral. d. Replacement
d. shares electrons with the second nonmetal atom. 11. Substances that take electrons from other substances are called
49. Polar covalent bonds result when the electronegativity difference a. oxidizing agents.
between the two atoms in the bond is b. reducing agents.
a. 1.7 and greater. c. ions.
b. between 0.5 and 1.7. d. compounds.
c. less than 0.5. 12. Which is the most active metal?
d. equal to 0. a. silver
50. What is the formula for the compound aluminum bromide? b. lead
a. AlBr2 c. zinc
b. AlBr3 d. sodium
c. Al2Br3 13. A solid that comes out of solution as a result of an ion exchange
d. Al3Br reaction is called a
51. The combination of nonmetals with nonmetals forms a. precipitate.
a. covalent compounds. b. contaminant.
b. metallic compounds. c. base.
c. ionic compounds. d. metal.
d. no compounds. 14. A balanced chemical equation provides quantitative information
Answers about all of the following except
1. d 2. b 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. c 7. c 8. c 9. a 10. a 11. b 12. b 13. a 14. c a. time of reaction.
15. c 16. a 17. a 18. b 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. c 25. d 26. a b. atoms.
27. b 28. a 29. c 30. b 31. c 32. b 33. a 34. b 35. d 36. c 37. b 38. a c. molecules.
39. c 40. b 41. b 42. b 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. d 49. b 50. b d. atomic weights of reactants and products.
1. An empirical formula does not 15. The number of atoms in exactly 12.00 g of C-12 is called
a. identify elements in a compound. a. atomic number.
b. identify actual numbers of atoms in a molecule. b. atomic weight.
c. provide the simplest whole number ratio of atoms of elements c. Avogadro’s number.
with subscripts. d. molecular number.
d. provide the formula for an ionic compound. 16. Any substance that contains Avogadro’s number of particles is
2. The relative arrangement of the atoms in a molecule is a (an) called a (an)
a. empirical formula. a. mole.
b. structural formula. b. atomic number.
c. molecular formula. c. gopher.
d. covalent formula. d. pound.
3. The sum of the atomic weights of all atoms in the ammonia 17. A material that speeds up a chemical reaction without being
molecule, NH3, is called permanently changed by the reaction is a (an)
a. molecular weight. a. catalyst.
b. gravity weight. b. reactant.
c. periodic weight. c. product.
d. percent weight. d. active metal.
4. What is the meaning of the subscripts in a chemical formula? 18. The most active metals are found in group
a. Number of atoms of an element in a compound a. IA.
b. Percent composition of that element in a compound b. IIA.
c. Number of molecules of that compound c. IB.
d. Number of molecules in the reaction d. IIB.
5. “Atoms are neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction” 19. Potassium reacts with water to form potassium hydroxide and
is a statement of the hydrogen gas. What kind of reaction is this?
a. law of definite proportions. a. Decomposition
b. law of conservation of mass. b. Combination
c. law of percent composition. c. Replacement
d. atomic theory. d. Ion exchange
6. What products are formed from the complete reaction of 20. The molecular weight of sulfuric acid, H2SO4, is
hydrocarbons or carbohydrates with oxygen? a. 49 u.
a. CO2 + H2O b. 50 u.
b. CO + H2O c. 98 u.
c. CH4 + CO2 d. 194 u.
d. CO2 +H2 21. A balanced chemical equation has
7. In a redox reaction, reduction is defined as the a. the same number of molecules on both sides of the
a. gain of electrons by an atom. equation.
b. loss of mass of an atom. b. the same kinds of molecules on both sides of the equation.
c. loss of electrons by an atom. c. the same number of each kind of atom on both sides of the
d. gain of mass of an atom. equation.
8. In a redox reaction, oxidation is defined as the d. all of the above.
a. gain of electrons by an atom. 22. The law of conservation of mass means that
b. loss of mass of an atom. a. atoms are not lost or destroyed in a chemical reaction.
b. the mass of a newly formed compound cannot be changed. composed of six carbon atoms and six hydrogen atoms. What is
c. in burning, part of the mass must be converted into fire in the empirical formula of benzene?
order for mass to be conserved. a. C3H3
d. molecules cannot be broken apart because this would result b. C6H6
in less mass. c. C2H2
23. A chemical equation is balanced by changing d. CH
a. subscripts. 35. What is the formula weight of acetic acid, CH3COOH, which is
b. superscripts. found in vinegar?
c. coefficients. a. 29.0 u
d. Any of the above is correct as necessary to achieve a balance. b. 48.0 u
24. Since wood is composed of carbohydrates, you should expect c. 58.0 u
which gases to exhaust from a fireplace when complete d. 60.0 u
combustion takes place? 36. What are the coefficients needed to balance this chemical
a. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, and pollutants equation?
b. Carbon dioxide and water vapor _ CaCl2 + _ KOH → _ Ca(OH)2 + _ KCl
c. Carbon monoxide and smoke a. 1, 2, 1, 2
d. It depends on the type of wood being burned. b. 2, 1, 2, 1
25. When carbon burns with an insufficient supply of oxygen, c. 1, 1, 1, 2
carbon monoxide is formed according to the following d. 2, 1, 1, 1
equation: 2 C + O2 _ 2 CO. What category of chemical 37. What class of chemical reactions is not considered to belong to
reaction is this? the class of oxidation-reduction reactions?
a. Combination a. Combination
b. Ion exchange b. Decomposition
c. Replacement c. Ion exchange
d. None of the above is correct because the reaction is d. Replacement
incomplete. 38. Which reaction is an example of a combination reaction?
26. According to the activity series for metals, adding metallic iron a. 2 HgO(s) → 2 Hg(s) + O2(g)
to a solution of aluminum chloride should result in b. 4 Fe(s) + 3 O2(s) → Fe2O3(g)
a. a solution of iron chloride and metallic aluminum. c. CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
b. a mixed solution of iron and aluminum chloride. d. Na(s) + KCl(aq) → K(s) + NaCl(aq)
c. the formation of iron hydroxide with hydrogen given off. 39. To what chemical reaction class does this reaction belong?
d. no metal replacement reaction. Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → Cu(s) + FeSO4(aq )
27. In a replacement reaction, elements that have the greatest ability a. Ion exchange
to hold onto their electrons are b. Combination
a. the most chemically active. c. Replacement
b. the least chemically active. d. Decomposition
c. not generally involved in replacement reactions. 40. How many liters of propane gas are needed to produce 16 L of
d. None of the above is correct. water vapor?
28. Of the following elements, the one with the greatest C3
electronholding H8(g) + 5 O2(g) → 3 CO2(g) + 4 H2O(g)
ability is a. 2
a. sodium. b. 3
b. zinc. c. 4
c. copper. d. 16
d. platinum. 41. How many sodium atoms are in 2 moles of sodium?
29. Of the following elements, the one with the greatest chemical a. 11
activity is b. 6.02 . 1023
a. aluminum. c. 1.20 . 1024
b. zinc. d. 22
c. iron. 42. What is the gram-formula weight of sodium chloride?
d. mercury. a. 23 u
30. You know that an expected ion exchange reaction has taken place b. 23 g
if the products include c. 58. 5 g
a. a precipitate. d. 58. 5 u
b. a gas. 43. A balanced chemical reaction provides all of the following
c. water. information except
d. any of the above. a. molecular ratio of reactants and products.
31. The incomplete equation of 2 KClO3(s) _ probably represents b. mole ratio of reactants and products.
which type of chemical reaction? c. mass ratio of reactants and products.
a. Combination d. exchange rate of reactants and products.
b. Decomposition 44. The iron in a scouring pad will react with oxygen in the air to form
c. Replacement iron oxide, Fe2O3, rust. The type of reaction that is described is
d. Ion exchange a. replacement.
32. In the equation 2 H2(g) + O2(g) _ 2 H2O(1) b. combination.
a. the total mass of the gaseous reactants is less than the total c. decomposition.
mass of the liquid product. d. ion exchange.
b. the total number of molecules in the reactants is equal to the 45. What is the formula weight of magnesium hydroxide,
total number of molecules in the products. an ingredient found in antacids?
c. one volume of oxygen combines with two volumes of a. 41.3 u
hydrogen to produce two volumes of water. b. 58.3 u
d. All of the above are correct. c. 72.0 u
33. If you have 6.02 . 1023 atoms of metallic iron, you will have how d. 89.0 u
many grams of iron? 46. An ion exchange reaction can be identified by all of the following
a. 26 except
b. 55.85 a. formation of a precipitate.
c. 334.8 b. generation of a gas.
d. 3.4 . 1025 c. formation of water.
34. The molecular formula of benzene, C6H6, tells us that benzene is d. the required addition of heat.
47. What are the coefficients needed to balance this chemical d. normal temperature point.
equation? 11. The temperature at which a liquid undergoes a phase change to
_ C2H6(g) + _ O2(g) → _ CO2(g) + _ H2O(g) the solid state at normal pressure is the
a. 1, 3, 2, 3 a. solidification temperature.
b. 1, 5, 2, 3 b. freezing point.
c. 2, 7, 4, 6 c. condensation point.
d. 2, 5, 4, 3 d. compression temperature.
48. What is the empirical formula of butane, C4H10? 12. All of the following are electrolytes except
a. CH a. acids.
b. C2H5 b. salts.
c. CH3 c. bases.
d. C4H10 d. sugars.
49. How many moles of products are in this chemical equation? 13. Some covalent compounds, such as HCl, become electrolytes
CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g) through the process of
a. 2 a. ionization.
b. 3 b. oxidation-reduction.
c. 6 c. decomposition.
d. 6.02 . 1023 d. combination.
Answers 14. Which of the following is not a property of an acid?
1. b 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. c 9. c 10. a 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. a a. Sour taste
15. c 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. c 20. c 21. c 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. a 26. d b. Changes litmus from red to blue
27. b 28. d 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. d 35. d 36. a 37. c 38. b c. Reacts with active metals to generate hydrogen gas
39. c 40. c 41. c 42. c 43. d 44. b 45. b 46. d 47. c 48. b 49. b d. Changes litmus from blue to red
1. A major use for water in the average home is for 15. What is an acid when it is dissolved in water?
a. drinking and cooking. a. Proton acceptor
b. bathing. b. Proton donor
c. toilets. c. Indicator
d. laundry. d. Salt
2. Freshwater is obtained from all of the following except 16. Which of the following is not a property of a base?
a. oceans. a. Changes red litmus to blue
b. streams. b. Changes blue litmus to red
c. lakes. c. Slippery to touch
d. rivers. d. Bitter taste
3. A molecule with a positive end and a negative end is called 17. The pH scale is based on the concentration of what in solution?
a (an) a. Hydroxide ions
a. polar molecule. b. Hydronium ions
b. nonpolar molecule. c. Electrolytes
c. neutral molecule. d. Solute
d. ionic molecule. 18. The products produced in a neutralization reaction are
4. The material present in a solution in the largest amount is the a. acid and bases.
a. solvent. b. salt and water.
b. solute. c. molecules and water.
c. salt. d. water only.
d. molecules. 19. Which of the following is not a solution?
5. Fluids that mix in any proportion without separating into phases a. Seawater
are said to be b. Carbonated water
a. miscible. c. Sand
b. concentrated. d. Brass
c. immiscible. 20. Atmospheric air is a homogeneous mixture of gases that is
d. solvated. mostly nitrogen gas. The nitrogen is therefore the
6. The relative amount of solute and solvent in a solution is defined a. solvent.
as the b. solution.
a. solubility. c. solute.
b. miscibility. d. None of the above is correct.
c. concentration. 21. A homogeneous mixture is made up of 95 percent alcohol and
d. polarity. 5 percent water. In this case, the water is the
7. A solution with a state of equilibrium between the dissolving a. solvent.
solute and solute coming out of solution is b. solution.
a. unsaturated. c. solute.
b. saturated. d. None of the above is correct.
c. supersaturated. 22. The solution concentration terms of parts per million, percent by
d. undersaturated. volume, and percent by weight are concerned with the amount of
8. The solubility of most ionic salts in water a. solvent in the solution.
a. increases with temperature. b. solute in the solution.
b. decreases with temperature. c. solute compared to solvent.
c. depends on the amount of salt. d. solvent compared to solute.
d. increases with stirring. 23. A concentration of 500 ppm is reported in a news article. This is
9. Ionic substances that dissolve in water and conduct an electric the same concentration as
current are called a. 0.005 percent.
a. salts. b. 0.05 percent.
b. compounds. c. 5 percent.
c. molecules. d. 50 percent.
d. electrolytes. 24. According to the label, a bottle of vodka has a 40 percent by
10. The temperature at which the vapor pressure is equal to the volume concentration. This means the vodka contains 40 mL of
average atmospheric pressure at sea level is called the pure alcohol
a. normal pressure point. a. in each 140 mL of vodka.
b. normal boiling point. b. to every 100 mL of water.
c. normal liquid point. c. to every 60 mL of vodka.
d. mixed with water to make 100 mL vodka. a. A solution of ammonia
25. A bottle of vinegar is 4 percent by weight, so you know that the b. A solution of sodium chloride
solution contains 4 weight units of pure vinegar with c. Pure water
a. 96 weight units of water. d. Carbonic acid
b. 99.6 weight units of water. 39. Solutions of acids, bases, and salts have what in common? All have
c. 100 weight units of water. a. proton acceptors.
d. 104 weight units of water. b. proton donors.
26. If a salt solution has a salinity of 40 parts per thousand (‰), c. ions.
what is the equivalent percentage measure? d. polar molecules.
a. 400 percent 40. When a solution of an acid and a base are mixed together,
b. 40 percent a. a salt and water are formed.
c. 4 percent b. they lose their acid and base properties.
d. 0.4 percent c. both are neutralized.
27. A salt solution has solid salt on the bottom of the container, and d. All of the above are correct.
salt is dissolving at the same rate that it is coming out of solution. 41. A substance that ionizes completely into hydronium ions is
You know the solution is known as a
a. an electrolyte. a. strong acid.
b. a nonelectrolyte. b. weak acid.
c. a buffered solution. c. strong base.
d. a saturated solution. d. weak base.
28. As the temperature of water decreases, the solubility of carbon 42. A scale of values that expresses the hydronium ion concentration
dioxide gas in the water of a solution is known as
a. increases. a. an acid-base indicator.
b. decreases. b. the pH scale.
c. remains the same. c. the solubility scale.
d. increases or decreases, depending on the specific temperature. d. the electrolyte scale.
29. At what temperature does water have the greatest density? 43. Substance A has a pH of 2 and substance B has a pH of 3. This
a. 100°C means that
b. 20°C a. substance A has more-basic properties than substance B.
c. 4°C b. substance B has more-acidic properties than substance A.
d. 0°C c. substance A is 10 times more acidic than substance B.
30. An example of a hydrogen bond is a weak to moderate bond d. substance B is 10 times more acidic than substance A.
between 44. Water is a (an)
a. any two hydrogen atoms. a. ionic compound.
b. a hydrogen atom of one polar molecule and an oxygen atom b. covalent compound.
of another polar molecule. c. polar covalent compound.
c. two hydrogen atoms on two nonpolar molecules. d. triatomic molecule.
d. a hydrogen atom and any nonmetal atom. 45. The heat of fusion, specific heat, and heat of vaporization of
31. A certain solid salt is insoluble in water, so the strongest force water are high compared to similar substances such as hydrogen
must be the sulfide, H2S, because
a. ion-water molecule force. a. ionic bonds form in water molecules.
b. ion-ion force. b. hydrogen bonds form between water molecules.
c. force of hydration. c. covalent bonds form between water molecules.
d. polar molecule force. d. covalent bonds form in water molecules.
32. Which of the following will conduct an electric current? 46. The substance that is a nonelectrolyte is
a. Pure water a. sodium chloride, NaCl.
b. A water solution of a covalent compound b. copper sulfate, CuSO4.
c. A water solution of an ionic compound c. glucose, C6H12O6.
d. All of the above are correct. d. aluminum chloride, AlCl3.
33. Ionization occurs upon solution of 47. Salt is spread on icy roads because it
a. ionic compounds. a. lowers the freezing point of water.
b. some polar molecules. b. increases the freezing point of water.
c. nonpolar molecules. c. increases the boiling point of water.
d. None of the above is correct. d. increases the melting point of water.
34. Adding sodium chloride to water raises the boiling point of 48. Hard water is a solution of
water because a. Na+ and Cl– ions.
a. sodium chloride has a higher boiling point. b. Na+ and K+ ions.
b. sodium chloride ions occupy space at the water surface. c. Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions.
c. sodium chloride ions have stronger ion-ion bonds than d. Ba2+ and Cl– ions.
water. 49. A solution has a pH of 9. This means that the solution is
d. the energy of hydration is higher. a. acidic.
35. The ice that forms in freezing seawater is b. neutral.
a. pure water. c. basic.
b. the same salinity as liquid seawater. d. unknown.
c. more salty than liquid seawater. Answers
d. denser than liquid seawater. 1. c 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. d 10. b 11. b 12. d 13. a 14. b
36. Salt solutions freeze at a lower temperature than pure water 15. b 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. a 21. c 22. b 23. b 24. d 25. a 26. c
because 27. d 28. a 29. c 30. b 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. a
a. more ionic bonds are present. 39. c 40. d 41. a 42. b 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. c 49. c
b. salt solutions have a higher vapor pressure. 1. An organic compound consisting only of carbon and hydrogen is
c. ions get in the way of water molecules trying to form ice. called a (an)
d. salt naturally has a lower freezing point than water. a. hydrogen carbide.
37. Which of the following would have a pH of less than 7? b. hydrocarbon.
a. A solution of ammonia c. organic compound.
b. A solution of sodium chloride d. hydrocarbide.
c. Pure water 2. Carbon-to-carbon bonds are
d. Carbonic acid a. ionic.
38. Which of the following would have a pH of more than 7? b. polar covalent.
c. covalent. b. 8
d. metallic. c. 10
3. All of the following are hydrocarbon groups except d. 16
a. alkanes. 17. Isomers are compounds with the same
b. alkenes. a. molecular formula with different structures.
c. alkynes. b. molecular formula with different atomic masses.
d. alkalines. c. atoms but different molecular formulas.
4. The group –C2H5 is called d. structures but different formulas.
a. methyl. 18. Isomers have
b. ethyl. a. the same chemical and physical properties.
c. dimethyl. b. the same chemical but different physical properties.
d. propyl. c. the same physical but different chemical properties.
5. Compounds with the same molecular formulas but with different d. different physical and chemical properties.
structures are called 19. The organic compound trimethylpentane is an isomer of
a. isotopes. a. propane.
b. allotropes. b. pentane.
c. isomers. c. heptane.
d. polymers. d. octane.
6. Hydrocarbons with double bonds are the 20. Which of the following would not occur as an unsaturated
a. alkanes. hydrocarbon?
b. alkenes. a. alkane
c. alkynes. b. alkene
d. alkines. c. alkyne
7. A hydrocarbon with a carbon-to-carbon triple bond is an d. None of the above is correct.
a. alkane. 21. Petroleum is believed to have formed mostly from the anaerobic
b. alkene. decomposition of buried
c. alkyne. a. dinosaurs.
d. alkaline. b. fish.
8. Hydrocarbons that have one to four carbon atoms are c. pine trees.
a. gases. d. plankton and algae.
b. liquids. 22. The label on a container states that the product contains
c. solids. “petroleum distillates.” Which of the following hydrocarbons is
d. semisolids. probably present?
9. The process where large hydrocarbons are converted into smaller a. CH4
ones is called b. C5H12
a. snapping. c. C16H34
b. distillation. d. C40H82
c. cracking. 23. The reaction of C2H2 + Br2 → C2H2Br2 is a (an)
d. fractionation. a. substitution reaction.
10. The atom or group of atoms in an organic molecule that is the b. addition reaction.
site of a chemical reaction is called the c. addition polymerization reaction.
a. reaction site group. d. substitution polymerization reaction.
b. functional group. 24. Ethylene molecules can add to one another in a reaction to form
c. addition site. a long chain called a
d. reactant group. a. monomer.
11. A hydroxyl, –OH, functional group is found in b. dimer.
a. ketone. c. trimer.
b. alkanes. d. polymer.
c. aldehydes. 25. Chemical reactions usually take place on an organic compound
d. alcohols. at the site of a
12. The oxidation of ethanol, C2H5OH, produces a. double bond.
a. acetone. b. lone pair of electrons.
b. formaldehyde. c. functional group.
c. acetic acid. d. Any of the above is correct.
d. formic acid. 26. The R in ROH represents
13. An organic compound is a compound that a. a functional group.
a. contains carbon and was formed by a living organism. b. a hydrocarbon group with a name ending in -yl.
b. is a natural compound. c. an atom of an inorganic element.
c. contains carbon, whether it was formed by a living thing d. a polyatomic ion that does not contain carbon.
or not. 27. The OH in ROH represents
d. was formed by a plant. a. a functional group.
14. There are millions of organic compounds but only thousands of b. a hydrocarbon group with a name ending in -yl.
inorganic compounds because c. the hydroxide ion, which ionizes to form a base.
a. organic compounds were formed by living things. d. the site of chemical activity in a strong base.
b. there is more carbon on Earth’s surface than any other 28. What is the proof of a “wine cooler” that is 5 percent alcohol by
element. volume?
c. atoms of elements other than carbon never combine with a. 2.5 proof
themselves. b. 5 proof
d. carbon atoms can combine with up to four other atoms, c. 10 proof
including other carbon atoms. d. 50 proof
15. You know for sure that the compound named decane has 29. An alcohol with two hydroxyl groups per molecule is called
a. more than 10 isomers. a. ethanol.
b. 10 carbon atoms in each molecule. b. glycerol.
c. only single bonds. c. glycerin.
d. All of the above are correct. d. glycol.
16. An alkane with four carbon atoms would have how many 30. A bottle of wine that has “gone bad” now contains
hydrogen atoms in each molecule? a. CH3OH.
a. 4 b. CH3OCH3.
c. CH3COOH. c. boiling point.
d. CH3COOCH3. d. origin.
31. A protein is a polymer formed from the linking of many 45. The rate of combustion of gasoline is quantified by
a. glucose units. a. NASCAR rating.
b. DNA molecules. b. octane number.
c. amino acid molecules. c. kern rating.
d. monosaccharides. d. leading number.
32. Which of the following is not converted to blood sugar by the 46. A petroleum product that is composed of hydrocarbons
human body? with 16 to 18 carbon atoms per molecule is
a. Lactose a. gasoline.
b. Dextrose b. asphalt.
c. Cellulose c. paraffin.
d. None of the above is correct. d. motor oil.
33. Fats from animals and oils from plants have the general structure 47. The organic acid that is found in sour milk, pickles, and
of a (an) in your muscles as a product of carbohydrate metabolism is
a. aldehyde. a. acetic acid.
b. ester. b. palmitic acid.
c. amine. c. lactic acid.
d. ketone. d. citric acid.
34. Liquid oils from plants can be converted to solids by adding what 48. What are the organic compounds that are used in perfumes and
to the molecule? for artificial flavors?
a. Metal ions a. Carboxylic acids
b. Carbon b. Alcohols
c. Polyatomic ions c. Ethers
d. Hydrogen d. Esters
35. The basic difference between a monomer of polyethylene and a 49. Sugars, starches, and cellulose belong to which class of organic
monomer of polyvinyl chloride is compounds?
a. the replacement of a hydrogen by a chlorine. a. Proteins
b. the addition of four fluorines. b. Fatty acids
c. the elimination of double bonds. c. Carbohydrates
d. the removal of all hydrogens. d. Enzymes
36. Many synthetic polymers become a problem in the environment Answers
because they 1. b 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. c 6. b 7. c 8. a 9. c 10. b 11. d 12. c 13. c 14. d
a. decompose to nutrients, which accelerates plant growth. 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. d 20. a 21. d 22. b 23. b 24. d 25. d 26. b
b. do not readily decompose and tend to accumulate. 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. c 31. c 32. c 33. b 34. d 35. a 36. b 37. c 38. a
c. do not contain vitamins as natural materials do. 39. c 40. b 41. d 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. d 47. c 48. d 49. c
d. become a source of food for fish but ruin the flavor of fish meat. 1. Natural radioactivity is a result of
37. Which of the following terms does not describe an alkane? a. adjustments to balance nuclear attractions and repulsions.
a. Paraffin b. experiments with human-made elements.
b. Single bonds c. absorption of any type of radiation by very heavy elements.
c. Double bonds d. a mass defect of the nucleus.
d. Straight chain 2. Which one of the following is an electron emitted by a nucleus as
38. A straight chain alkane with four carbons is called it undergoes radioactive decay?
a. butane. a. Alpha particle
b. tetraalkane. b. Beta particle
c. quatrane. c. Gamma ray
d. propane. d. Z ray
39. What is the general formula for alkenes? 3. Which one of the following is an alpha particle emitted by a
a. CnH2n+2 nucleus as it undergoes radioactive decay?
b. CnH2n+4 a. Electron
c. CnH2n b. Helium nucleus
d. CnH2n–2 c. Photon of very short wavelength
40. An organic molecule that does not contain the maximum d. Z ray
number of hydrogen atoms is called 4. Protons and neutrons collectively are called
a. deficient. a. particles.
b. unsaturated. b. nucleons.
c. saturated. c. heavy particles.
d. incomplete. d. alpha particles.
41. What is the general formula for an alkyne? 5. The number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus defines the
a. CnH2n+2 a. atomic number.
b. CnH2n+4 b. neutron number.
c. CnH2n c. nucleon number.
d. CnH2n–2 d. mass number.
42. Acetylene is a fuel used in welding and an important reactant in 6. Atoms with the same atomic number but with different numbers
the synthesis of plastics. Acetylene is an of neutrons are
a. alkane. a. allotropes.
b. alkene. b. isomers.
c. alkyne. c. isotopes.
d. alkaline. d. allomers.
43. Aromatic hydrocarbons are often used as 7. Which of the following types of radiation will not penetrate
a. perfumes. clothing?
b. soaps. a. Alpha particles
c. solvents. b. Beta particles
d. odorants. c. Gamma rays
44. Fractional distillation separates different fractions by differences d. X rays
in their 8. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the time required for
a. melting point. one-half of
b. freezing point. a. any size sample to sublimate.
b. a molar mass to disappear through radioactivity. c. lack of fusion fuel on Earth.
c. the total radioactivity to be given off. d. lack of understanding about requirements for fusion
d. the nuclei of any size sample to decay. reaction.
9. The activity of a radioactive source is measured in units of 22. Water is used in a pressurized water reactor as a coolant, but it
a. curie. also has the critical job of
b. rad. a. absorbing radioactivity.
c. rem. b. keeping waste products wet.
d. roentgen c. slowing neutrons.
10. The measure of radiation that takes into account damage done d. preventing a rapid cooldown.
by alpha, beta, and gamma is the 23. The ejection of a beta particle from a nucleus results in
a. curie. a. an increase in the atomic number by 1.
b. Becquerel. b. an increase in the atomic mass by 4.
c. rem. c. a decrease in the atomic number by 2.
d. rad. d. None of the above is correct.
11. The threshold model of long-term, low-level radiation exposure 24. The ejection of an alpha particle from a nucleus results in
to the human body proposes that a. an increase in the atomic number by 1.
a. any radiation exposure is damaging. b. an increase in the atomic mass by 4.
b. radiation damage will be repaired up to a certain level. c. a decrease in the atomic number by 2.
c. any radiation exposure will result in cancer and other d. None of the above is correct.
damage. 25. The emission of a gamma ray from a nucleus results in
d. the door should be shut on nuclear energy. a. an increase in the atomic number by 1.
12. Radiation from sources in your everyday life is called b. an increase in the atomic mass by 4.
a. safe radiation. c. a decrease in the atomic number by 2.
b. good radiation. d. None of the above is correct.
c. background radiation. 26. An atom of radon-222 loses an alpha particle to become a more
d. cosmic radiation. stable atom of
13. The relationship between mass changes and energy changes in a a. radium.
nuclear reaction is described by the b. bismuth.
a. law of conservation of mass. c. polonium.
b. law of conservation of matter. d. radon.
c. formula E = mc2. 27. The nuclear force is
d. molar mass. a. attractive when nucleons are closer than 10–15 m.
14. When protons and neutrons join to make a nucleus, energy is b. repulsive when nucleons are closer than 10–15 m.
released and c. attractive when nucleons are farther than 10–15 m.
a. mass is lost. d. repulsive when nucleons are farther than 10–15 m.
b. mass is gained. 28. Which of the following is most likely to be radioactive?
c. the mass is constant. a. Nuclei with an even number of protons and neutrons
d. mass is gained or lost, depending on the atomic weight. b. Nuclei with an odd number of protons and neutrons
15. The energy required to break a nucleus into its constituent c. Nuclei with the same number of protons and neutrons
protons and neutrons is the same as the d. The number of protons and neutrons has nothing to do with
a. nuclear energy. radioactivity.
b. breaking energy. 29. Hydrogen-3 is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen. Which type of
c. binding energy. radiation would you expect an atom of this isotope to emit?
d. splitting energy a. An alpha particle
16. The nuclear reaction that takes place when a nucleus splits into b. A beta particle
more stable, less massive nuclei with the release of energy is c. Either of the above
called nuclear d. Neither of the above
a. chaos. 30. A sheet of paper will stop a (an)
b. fission. a. alpha particle.
c. fusion. b. beta particle.
d. disintegration. c. gamma ray.
17. When the thing that starts a reaction is produced by the reaction, d. None of the above is correct
you have a 31. The most penetrating of the three common types of nuclear
a. chain reaction. radiation is the
b. nuclear series. a. alpha particle.
c. decay series. b. beta particle.
d. nuclear sequence. c. gamma ray.
18. There must be sufficient mass and concentration of a fissionable d. All have equal penetrating ability.
material to support a chain reaction. This is called the 32. An atom of an isotope with an atomic number greater than 83
a. vital mass. will probably emit a (an)
b. critical mass. a. alpha particle.
c. essential concentration. b. beta particle.
d. crucial mass. c. gamma ray.
19. The control rods in a nuclear reactor are made of special d. None of the above is correct.
materials that 33. An atom of an isotope with a large neutron-to-proton ratio will
a. spin, slowing the reaction. probably emit a (an)
b. absorb energy, cooling the reaction rate. a. alpha particle.
c. absorb neutrons. b. beta particle.
d. interfere with the effective transmission of electrons. c. gamma ray.
20. The amount of unusable waste in a used nuclear fuel rod is d. None of the above is correct.
a. 100 percent. 34. All of the naturally occurring radioactive decay series end when
b. 67 percent. the radioactive elements have decayed to
c. 20 percent. a. lead.
d. 4 percent. b. bismuth.
21. One of the major problems with a fusion reactor would c. uranium.
be the d. hydrogen.
a. production of radioactive waste. 35. The rate of radioactive decay can be increased by increasing the
b. high temperature requirement. a. temperature.
b. pressure. a. one of several stars in the solar system.
c. surface area. b. the brightest star in the night sky.
d. None of the above is correct. c. an average star, considering mass and age.
36. Isotope A has a half-life of seconds, and isotope B has a half-life d. a protostar.
of millions of years. Which isotope is more radioactive? 3. The brightness of a star at a defined standard distance is
a. Isotope A a. apparent magnitude.
b. Isotope B b. apparent longitude.
c. It depends on the temperature. c. absolute magnitude.
d. The answer cannot be determined from the information given. d. absolute latitude.
37. A Geiger counter indirectly measures radiation by measuring 4. The total amount of energy radiated from the surface of a star
a. ions produced. into space each second is
b. flashes of light. a. stellar radiation.
c. alpha, beta, and gamma. b. luminosity.
d. fog on photographic film. c. convection.
38. A measure of radiation received that considers the biological d. dispersion.
effect resulting from the radiation is the 5. Which of the following colors of starlight is from the hottest star?
a. curie. a. Blue-white
b. rad. b. Red
c. rem. c. Orange-red
d. Any of the above is correct. d. Yellow
39. Used fuel rods from a nuclear reactor contain about 6. The color of a star is related to its
a. 96 percent usable uranium and plutonium. a. composition.
b. 33 percent usable uranium and plutonium. b. apparent magnitude.
c. 4 percent usable uranium and plutonium. c. absolute magnitude.
d. 0 percent usable uranium and plutonium. d. surface temperature.
40. The source of energy from the Sun is 7. The temperature-luminosity graph used to classify stars was
a. chemical (burning). developed by
b. fission. a. Russell.
c. fusion. b. Hubble.
d. radioactive decay. c. Hubble and Russell.
41. The isotope of hydrogen that has one proton and one neutron is d. Hertzsprung and Russell.
a. ordinary hydrogen. 8. The period-brightness relationship of a Cepheid variable star
b. deuterium. allows astronomers to measure
c. tritium. a. distance.
d. hydrogen-1. b. age of stars.
42. Hydrogen-3 emits a beta particle, and the new nucleus formed is c. luminosity.
a. helium-3. d. size.
b. helium-4. 9. Where does our Sun belong based on the Hertzsprung-Russell
c. hydrogen-2. classification of stars?
d. hydrogen-3. a. Main sequence
43. Which of the following is most likely to happen to an alpha b. Red giant
particle after it is emitted? c. White dwarf
a. It escapes to space, where it is known as a cosmic ray. d. Cepheid variable
b. After being absorbed by matter, it is dissipated as radiant 10. The lifetime of a star depends on its
energy. a. composition.
c. After joining with subatomic particles, it finds itself in a b. mass.
child’s balloon. c. temperature.
d. It joins others of its kind to make lightning and thunder. d. location.
44. Which of the following is most likely to happen to a beta particle 11. The stages in the life of a star are
after it is emitted? a. protostar, main sequence, white dwarf, and red giant.
a. It escapes to space, where it is known as a cosmic ray. b. protostar, main sequence, red giant, and red dwarf.
b. After being absorbed by matter, it is dissipated as radiant c. protostar, main sequence, red giant, and white dwarf.
energy. d. protostar, main sequence, red giant, and nebulae.
c. After joining with subatomic particles, it finds itself in a 12. In the process of a less massive star growing old, its outer layer is
child’s balloon. sometimes blown off into space, forming a
d. It joins others of its kind to make lightning and thunder. a. white dwarf.
45. A nucleus emits a beta particle, and the number of nucleons it b. black hole.
contains is now c. Cepheid variable.
a. greater. d. planetary nebula.
b. fewer. 13. The collapse of a massive star
c. the same. a. results in a tremendous explosion called a supernova.
46. Enriched uranium has more b. forms a white dwarf.
a. energy. c. forms planetary nebulae.
b. radioactivity. d. results in a tremendous explosion called a pulsar.
c. deuterium. 14. A rapidly rotating neutron star with a strong magnetic field is a
d. uranium-235. a. neutron star.
Answers b. pulsar.
1. a 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. c 7. a 8. d 9. a 10. c 11. b 12. c 13. c 14. a c. supernova.
15. c 16. b 17. a 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. c 25. d 26. c d. black hole.
27. a 28. b 29. b 30. a 31. c 32. a 33. b 34. a 35. d 36. a 37. a 38. c 15. The product of the collapse of a massive star with a core three
39. a 40. c 41. b 42. a 43. c 44. d 45. c 46. d times the mass of our Sun is a
1. A referent system that can be used to locate objects in the a. neutron star.
sky is the b. pulsar.
a. celestial globe. c. red giant.
b. celestial coordinates. d. black hole.
c. celestial sphere. 16. The basic unit of the universe is a
d. celestial maps. a. star.
2. Our Sun is b. solar system.
c. galaxy. c. between the more massive and the less massive.
d. constellation. d. None of the above is correct.
17. A galaxy is held together by 31. The brightest of the stars listed are the
a. stellar dust. a. first magnitude.
b. gravitational attraction. b. second magnitude.
c. electronic attractions. c. fifth magnitude.
d. pulsating stars. d. sixth magnitude.
18. The diameter of the Milky Way is about 32. The basic property of a main sequence star that determines
a. 500 light-years. most of its other properties, including its location on the H-R
b. 50,000 light-years. diagram, is
c. 100,000 light-years. a. brightness.
d. 200 million light-years. b. color.
19. Approximately how old is the universe? c. temperature.
a. 5 billion years d. mass.
b. 10 billion years 33. All of the elements that are more massive than the element iron
c. 14 billion years were formed in a
d. 25 billion years a. nova.
20. Stars twinkle and planets do not twinkle because b. white dwarf.
a. planets shine by reflected light, and stars produce their own light. c. supernova.
b. all stars are pulsing light sources. d. black hole.
c. stars appear as point sources of light, and planets are disk sources. 34. If the core remaining after a supernova has a mass between 1.5
d. All of the above are correct. and 3 solar masses, it collapses to form a
21. How much of the celestial meridian can you see from any given a. white dwarf.
point on the surface of Earth? b. neutron star.
a. One-fourth c. red giant.
b. One-half d. black hole.
c. Three-fourths 35. The relationship between the different shapes of galaxies
d. All of it is that
22. Which of the following coordinate system of lines depends on a. spherical galaxies form first, which flatten out to elliptical
where you are on the surface of Earth? galaxies, then spin off spirals until they break up in irregular
a. Celestial meridian shapes.
b. Celestial equator b. irregular shapes form first, which collapse to spiral galaxies,
c. North celestial pole then condense to spherical shapes.
d. None of the above is correct. c. there is no relationship as the different shapes probably
23. The angle that you see Polaris, the North Star, above the horizon resulted from different rates of swirling gas clouds.
is about the same as your approximate location on d. None of the above is correct.
a. the celestial meridian. 36. Microwave radiation from space, measurements of the expansion
b. the celestial equator. of the universe, the age of the oldest stars in the Milky Way
c. a northern longitude. galaxy, and ratios of radioactive decay products all indicate that
d. a northern latitude. the universe is about how old?
24. If you were at the north celestial pole looking down on Earth, a. 6,000 years
how would it appear to be moving? (Use a globe if you wish.) b. 4.5 billion years
a. Clockwise c. 13.7 billion years
b. Counterclockwise d. 100,000 billion years
c. One way, then the other as a pendulum 37. Whether the universe will continue to expand or will collapse
d. It would not appear to move from this location. back into another big bang seems to depend on what property
25. Your answer to question 24 means that Earth turns of the universe?
a. from the west toward the east. a. The density of matter in the universe
b. from the east toward the west. b. The age of galaxies compared to the age of their stars
c. at the same rate it is moving in its orbit. c. The availability of gases and dust between the galaxies
d. not at all. d. The number of black holes
26. Your answer to question 25 means that the Moon, Sun, and stars 38. Distance in outer space is measured in terms of
that are not circumpolar appear to rise in the a. kilometers.
a. west, move in an arc, then set in the east. b. megameters.
b. north, move in an arc, then set in the south. c. light-years.
c. east, move in an arc, then set in the west. d. miles.
d. south, move in an arc, then set in the north 39. You are studying physical science in Tennessee. Where are you
27. How many degrees of arc above the horizon is a star located with respect to the celestial equator?
located halfway between directly over your head and the a. North of the celestial equator
horizon? b. South of the celestial equator
a. 45° c. On the celestial equator
b. 90° d. East of the celestial equator
c. 135° 40. The Crab Nebula is what remains of a
d. 180° a. pulsar.
28. In which part of a newborn star does the nuclear fusion take b. supernova.
place? c. black hole.
a. Convection zone d. constellation.
b. Radiation zone 41. The interior of an average star is proposed to contain all of the
c. Core following except a
d. All of the above are correct. a. conduction zone.
29. Which of the following stars would have the longer life spans? b. core.
a. The less massive c. radiation zone.
b. Between the more massive and the less massive d. convection zone.
c. The more massive 42. Approximately 1.4 . 1017 kg of matter is converted to energy
d. All have the same life span. each year by the Sun. How much matter is converted to energy in
30. A bright blue star on the main sequence is probably 20 years?
a. very massive. a. 4.2 . 1025 kg
b. less massive. b. 1.3 . 1034 kg
c. 2.8 . 1021 kg 5. What is the outermost planet?
d. 2.8 . 1018 kg a. Mercury
43. Red giant stars are b. Mars
a. bright, low-temperature giants. c. Neptune
b. dim, low-temperature giants. d. Jupiter
c. bright, high-temperature giants. 6. The planet that was named after the mythical Roman messenger
d. dim, high-temperature giants. of speed is
44. Stars that are faint, very dense, white hot, and close to the end of a. Jupiter.
their lifetime are b. Mercury.
a. red giant stars. c. Saturn.
b. novas. d. Mars.
c. white dwarf stars. 7. A day on which planet is longer than a year on that planet?
d. Cepheid variable stars. a. Mercury
45. Which of the following elements forms in a supernova explosion b. Venus
of a dying star? c. Neptune
a. Hydrogen d. Jupiter
b. Carbon 8. The day on which planet is about the same time period as a day
c. Nitrogen on Earth?
d. Nickel a. Mercury
46. The greater the distance to a galaxy, the greater a redshift in its b. Venus
spectral lines. This is known as c. Mars
a. Doppler’s law. d. Jupiter
b. Cepheid’s law. 9. Mars has distinct surface feature-related regions. Which of the
c. Hubble’s law. following is not such a region?
d. Kepler’s law. a. Volcanic
47. Evidence that points to the existence of black holes was provided b. Systems of canyons
by c. Plateaus near the poles
a. Mauna Lao Observatory. d. Ocean floors
b. Hubble Space Telescope. 10. How many moons orbit Mars?
c. radio astronomy. a. One
d. LGM. b. Two
48. The name of our galaxy is the c. Four
a. solar system. d. None
b. main sequence. 11. What is the largest planet in our solar system?
c. Milky Way. a. Mars
d. Polaris. b. Jupiter
49. What is the obstacle to finding extraterrestrial life? c. Saturn
a. Money d. Earth
b. Number of stars 12. Callisto, Europa, Gannymede, and Io are
c. Distance and time a. Galilean moons.
d. Language b. volcanoes on Jupiter.
50. Outer space is mostly c. red spots.
a. galaxies. d. comets that struck Jupiter.
b. stars. 13. The density of Jupiter is
c. planets. a. 50 percent greater than that of Earth.
d. empty space. b. 50 percent that of the density of Earth.
51. Initial evidence that supports the big bang theory of the creation c. 25 percent that of the density of Earth.
of the universe came from d. 500 times the density of Earth.
a. experiments conducted by shuttle astronauts. 14. The only moon in the solar system with a substantial
b. unmanned space probes. atmosphere is
c. redshift calculations by Edwin Hubble. a. Io.
d. data from the Hubble Space Telescope. b. Moon.
Answers c. Phobos.
1. c 2. c 3. c 4. b 5. a 6. d 7. d 8. a 9. a 10. b 11. c 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. d d. Titan.
16. c 17. b 18. c 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. d 24. b 25. a 26. c 27. a 28. c 15. Saturn’s rings are thought to be
29. a 30. a 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. c 37. a 38. c 39. a 40. b 41. a a. composed of thousands of particles of various sizes.
42. d 43. a 44. c 45. d 46. c 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. d 51. c b. the remains of a collision with Jupiter.
1. The mass of the Sun is how much larger than all of the other c. preventing the atmosphere on Saturn from escaping.
planets, moons, asteroids, and other bodies in the solar system? d. made up of captured asteroids.
a. 100 times larger 16. The planet with the lowest average density, which is less than that
b. 200 times larger of liquid water, is
c. 500 times larger a. Uranus.
d. 700 times larger b. Neptune.
2. The distance from Earth to the Sun is called a (an) c. Saturn.
a. light-year. d. None of the above is correct.
b. solar year. 17. The planet that is not a giant is
c. astronomical unit. a. Saturn.
d. astronomical year. b. Neptune.
3. What type of planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars? c. Mercury.
a. Early planets d. Uranus.
b. Terrestrial planets 18. What planets are considered “twins”?
c. Small planets a. Saturn and Jupiter
d. Hot planets b. Mercury and Pluto
4. Which of the following is most likely found on Jupiter? c. Neptune and Uranus
a. Hydrogen d. Earth and Mars
b. Argon 19. Area of the solar system where long-period comets originate is the
c. Nickel a. asteroid belt.
d. Carbon dioxide b. Oort cloud.
c. Kuiper Belt. depending on its position with respect to the Sun?
d. region between Jupiter and Neptune. a. Mercury
15-25 CHAPTER 15 The Solar System 401 b. Venus
20. Short-period comets have orbital periods of c. Mars
a. less than 200 years. d. Saturn
b. more than 200 years. 34. Venus “shines” because it is
c. variable duration but between 10 and 100 years. a. composed of rocky materials.
d. variable duration but between 100 and 200 years. b. covered with metallic iron and nickel.
21. Remnants of comets and asteroids found in space are called c. powered by fusion reactions.
a. meteoroids. d. covered with clouds that reflect sunlight.
b. meteors. 35. On Venus, the sun rises in the west. This is so because
c. meteorites. a. the Venus day is very long.
d. minor planets. b. Venus rotates in the opposite direction of its revolution.
22. Meteorites are classified into the following groups except c. Venus is the second planet from the Sun.
a. iron. d. Venus is covered with clouds and the Sun cannot be seen
b. stony. until later in its day.
c. lead. 36. The “sister” planet to Earth is
d. stony-iron. a. Mercury.
23. The most widely accepted theory on the origin of the solar b. Venus.
system is c. Mars.
a. big bang. d. Moon.
b. conservation of matter. 37. What feature on Mars was considered by some to be evidence of
c. protoplanet nebular. life on Mars?
d. collision of planets. a. Ice caps
24. The belt of asteroids between Mars and Jupiter is probably b. Red color
a. the remains of a planet that exploded. c. Channels or canals
b. clumps of matter that condensed from the accretion disk but d. Radio signals
never got together as a planet. 38. Jupiter radiates twice as much energy as it receives from the Sun
c. the remains of two planets that collided. because of
d. the remains of a planet that collided with an asteroid a. internal fusion reactions.
or comet. b. rapid gravitational expansion of the planet.
25. Which of the following planets would be mostly composed of c. slow gravitational compression of the planet.
hydrogen, helium, and methane and have a density of less than d. internal fission reactions.
2 g/cm3? 39. The Great Red Spot is thought to be
a. Uranus a. a low-pressure region with stagnant clouds.
b. Mercury b. a high-pressure region with high cold clouds.
c. Mars c. hydrogen and helium storms.
d. Venus d. ammonia and sulfur clouds.
26. Which of the following planets probably still has its original 40. The metallic hydrogen that surrounds the core of Jupiter is not
atmosphere? a. a liquid.
a. Mercury b. under tremendous pressure.
b. Venus c. a gas.
c. Mars d. a conductor of electric currents.
d. Jupiter 41. A shooting star is a (an)
27. Venus appears the brightest when it is in the a. meteoroid.
a. full phase. b. meteor.
b. half phase. c. meteorite.
c. quarter phase. d. asteroid.
d. crescent phase. Answers
28. The small body with a composition and structure closest to the 1. d 2. c 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. b 8. c 9. d 10. b 11. b 12. a 13. c 14. d
materials that condensed from the accretion disk is a (an) 15. a 16. c 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. a 26. d
a. asteroid. 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. d 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. c 38. c
b. meteorite. 39. b 40. c 41. b
c. comet. 1. The plane of Earth’s orbit is called the
d. None of the above is correct. a. plane of Earth.
29. A small body from space that falls on the surface of Earth is a b. plane of the solar system.
a. meteoroid. c. plane of the ecliptic.
b. meteor. d. plane of the Sun.
c. meteor shower. 2. The spinning of a planet on its axis, an imaginary line through
d. meteorite its poles, is called
30. Planets in our solar system are classified according to all of the a. 24 hour day.
following characteristics except b. rotation.
a. density. c. revolution.
b. size. d. retrograde motion
c. nature of the atmosphere. 3. The consistent tilt and the orientation of its axis as Earth moves
d. inhabitants. around its orbit is responsible for
31. What separates the terrestrial planets from the giant planets? a. tides.
a. Mars b. seasons.
b. Asteroid belt c. volcanic eruptions.
c. Empty space d. earthquakes.
d. The Moon 4. In the Northern Hemisphere, the North Pole points toward the
32. The planet that has the shortest “year” among the eight Sun during the
planets is a. summer solstice.
a. Jupiter. b. spring solstice.
b. Neptune. c. winter equinox.
c. Mercury. d. winter solstice.
d. Earth. 5. The referent meridian is the
33. What planet is called the morning star and the evening star, a. prime meridian.
b. principal meridian. d. tidal waves.
c. first meridian. 20. Friction between the tides and the ocean basin is
d. primary meridian. a. wearing away the ocean basin.
6. The parallel at 66.5°S is called the b. moving Earth closer to the Moon.
a. Arctic Circle. c. increasing the rotation of Earth.
b. Antarctic Circle. d. slowing the rotation of Earth.
c. tropic of Cancer. 21. Earth is undergoing a combination of how many different major
d. tropic of Capricorn. motions?
7. The movement of the Sun across the celestial meridian is a. Zero
defined as b. One
a. midnight. c. Three
b. 6 a.m. d. Seven
c. 6 p.m. 22. In the Northern Hemisphere, city A is located a number of miles
d. noon. north of city B. At 12 noon in city B, the Sun appears directly
8. Clocks and watches are set to measure a uniform standard time overhead. At this very same time, the Sun over city A will
based on appear
a. mean solar time. a. to the north of overhead.
b. apparent solar day. b. directly overhead.
c. sidereal day. c. to the south of overhead.
d. apparent solar time. 23. Earth as a whole receives the most solar energy during what
9. How many standard time zones are there? month?
a. 10 a. January
b. 12 b. March
c. 20 c. July
d. 24 d. September
10. The 180° meridian is called the 24. During the course of a year and relative to the Sun, Earth’s axis
a. tropic of Cancer. points
b. prime meridian. a. always toward the Sun.
c. international date line. b. toward the Sun half of the year and away from the Sun the
d. Arctic Circle. other half.
11. The time period from one new moon to the next new moon is c. always away from the Sun.
called the d. toward the Sun for half a day and away from the Sun the
a. sidereal month. other half.
b. synodic month. 25. If you are located at 20°N latitude, when will the Sun appear
c. lunar month. directly overhead?
d. apparent month. a. Never
12. Maria are b. Once a year
a. craters on the Moon. c. Twice a year
b. mountains on the Moon. d. Four times a year
c. ancient molten lava seas on the Moon. 26. If you are located on the equator (0° latitude), when will the Sun
d. dried-up oceans on the Moon. appear directly overhead?
13. Unmanned missions to the Moon did not find or identify a. Never
a. active volcanoes. b. Once a year
b. water. c. Twice a year
c. minerals. d. Four times a year
d. lunar topography. 27. If you are located at 40°N latitude, when will the Sun appear
14. Rocks on the surface of the Moon are primarily directly overhead?
a. sedimentary. a. Never
b. basaltic. b. Once a year
c. limestone. c. Twice a year
d. metamorphic. d. Four times a year
15. The atmosphere of the Moon is 28. During the equinoxes
a. primarily H2. a. a vertical stick in the equator will not cast a shadow at noon.
b. primarily N2. b. at noon the Sun is directly overhead at 0° latitude.
c. primarily CO2. c. daylight and night are of equal length.
d. It does not have an atmosphere. d. All of the above are correct.
16. The approximate age of the Moon was determined by 29. Evidence that Earth is rotating is provided by
a. radioactive dating of moon rocks. a. varying length of night and day during a year.
b. exploration by Apollo astronauts. b. seasonal climatic changes.
c. measurement of the depth of the surface dust. c. stellar parallax.
d. laser measurement of the distance from Earth to the Moon. d. a pendulum.
17. What is the accepted theory about the origin of the Moon? 30. In about 12,000 years, the star Vega will be the North Star, not
a. It formed from particles revolving around Earth. Polaris, because of Earth’s
b. A very large object hit Earth, and the Moon was formed from a. uneven equinox.
ejected material. b. tilted axis.
c. Earth captured an incoming asteroid, and it became the c. precession.
Moon. d. recession.
d. Earth and the Moon were created at the same time. 31. The significance of the tropic of Cancer (23.5°N latitude) is that
18. The Moon is positioned between Earth and the Sun. This phase a. the Sun appears directly overhead north of this latitude some
is the time during a year.
a. full moon. b. the Sun appears directly overhead south of this latitude some
b. new moon. time during a year.
c. first quarter moon. c. the Sun appears above the horizon all day for six months
d. last quarter moon. during the summer north of this latitude.
19. Tides that occur at the full and new moon phases are called d. the Sun appears above the horizon all day for six months
a. new tides. during the summer south of this latitude.
b. lunar tides. 32. The significance of the Arctic Circle (66.5°N latitude) is that
c. spring tides. a. the Sun appears directly overhead north of this latitude
sometime during a year. d. Vega.
b. the Sun appears directly overhead south of this latitude 46. At the summer solstice, the Sun is
sometime during a year. a. low in the Northern Hemisphere sky.
c. the Sun appears above the horizon all day at least one day b. high in the Northern Hemisphere sky.
during the summer. c. directly over the tropic of Capricorn.
d. the Sun appears above the horizon all day for six months d. directly over the equator.
during the summer. 47. Earth is positioned between the Sun and the Moon in a nearly
33. In the time 1 p.m., the p.m. means straight line. This positioning results in a (an)
a. “past morning.” a. lunar eclipse.
b. “past midnight.” b. solar eclipse.
c. “before the meridian.” c. annular eclipse.
d. “after the meridian.” d. new moon.
34. Clock time is based on Answers:
a. sundial time. 1. c 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. d 8. a 9. d 10. c 11. b 12. c 13. a 14. b
b. an averaged apparent solar time. 15. d 16. a 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. b 25. c 26. c
c. the apparent local solar time. 27. a 28. d 29. d 30. c 31. b 32. c 33. d 34. b 35. d 36. d 37. a 38. c
d. the apparent local noon. 39. d 40. b 41. a 42. b 43. a 44. c 45. c 46. b 47. a
35. An apparent solar day is A naturally occurring inorganic solid element or compound with
a. the interval between two consecutive local solar noons. a crystalline structure is a
b. about 4 minutes longer than the sidereal day. a. mineral.
c. of variable length throughout the year. b. crystal.
d. All of the above are correct. c. rock.
36. The time as read from a sundial is the same as the time read d. stone.
from a clock 2. A structural unit that is repeated in three dimensions is called a
a. all the time. a. mineral.
b. only once a year. b. rock.
c. twice a year. c. crystal.
d. four times a year. d. glass.
37. You are traveling west by jet and cross three time zone 3. Which element is the most abundant in Earth’s crust?
boundaries. If your watch reads 3 p.m. when you arrive, you a. Oxygen
should reset it to b. Silicon
a. 12 noon. c. Sodium
b. 6 p.m. d. Aluminum
c. 12 midnight. 4. Minerals are classified as
d. 6 a.m. a. silicates.
38. If it is Sunday when you cross the international date line while b. nonsilicates.
traveling westward, the next day is c. silicates or nonsilicates.
a. Wednesday. d. silicates and oxides.
b. Sunday. 5. The most abundant class of nonsilicates is the
c. Tuesday. a. oxides.
d. Saturday. b. sulfates.
39. What has happened to the surface of the Moon during the last c. halides.
3 billion years? d. carbonates.
a. Heavy meteorite bombardment, producing craters 6. Silicates are classified into two groups based on the presence of
b. Widespread lava flooding from the interior a. iron and manganese.
c. Both widespread lava flooding and meteorite bombardment b. iron and magnesium.
d. Not much c. aluminum and iron.
40. If you see a full moon, an astronaut on the Moon looking back at d. calcium and potassium.
Earth at the same time would see a 7. The color of a mineral when it is finely powdered is defined as the
a. full Earth. a. streak.
b. new Earth. b. spot.
c. first quarter Earth. c. luster.
d. last quarter Earth. d. color.
41. A lunar eclipse can occur only during the moon phase of 8. The hardness of a mineral is rated using the
a. full moon. a. hardness scale.
b. new moon. b. Richter scale.
c. first quarter. c. Mohs scale.
d. last quarter. d. cleavage scale.
42. A total solar eclipse can occur only during the moon 9. The ratio of the mineral’s density to the density of water is
phase of a. 1 g/mL.
a. full moon. b. specific gravity.
b. new moon. c. 1 g/cm3.
c. first quarter. d. specific density.
d. last quarter 10. Molten rock material from which minerals crystallize is called
43. A lunar eclipse does not occur every month because a. rock salts.
a. the plane of the Moon’s orbit is inclined to the ecliptic. b. liquid crystals.
b. of precession. c. magma.
c. Earth moves faster in its orbit when closest to the Sun. d. the mother lode.
d. Earth’s axis is tilted with respect to the Sun. 11. An aggregation of one or more minerals that have been brought
44. The smallest range between high and low tides occurs during together into a cohesive solid is a
a. full moon. a. silicate.
b. new moon. b. rock.
c. quarter moon phases. c. clay mineral.
d. an eclipse. d. magma
45. Earth’s axis points toward 12. Rocks that are formed from molten minerals are
a. constellation Aquarius. a. sedimentary.
b. constellation Leo. b. igneous.
c. the North Star. c. volcanic.
d. metamorphic. a. pressurization.
13. Igneous rock that slowly cooled deep below Earth’s crust is b. melting.
a. intrusive. c. cementation.
b. extrusive. d. heating but not melting.
c. magma. 28. The greatest extent of metamorphic changes has occurred in
d. sedimentary. a. gneiss.
14. The rocks that make up the bulk of Earth’s continents are b. schist.
a. basalt. c. slate.
b. olivine. d. shale.
c. granite. 29. Which type of rock probably existed first, starting the rock
d. clay minerals. cycle?
15. The rocks that make up the ocean basins and much of Earth’s a. Metamorphic
interior are b. Igneous
a. basalt. c. Sedimentary
b. sandstone. d. All of the above are correct.
c. granite. 30. Earth is unique because it has
d. clay minerals. a. CO2 in its atmosphere.
16. Rocks that are formed from particles of other rocks or from b. water covering most of its surface.
dissolved materials from previously existing rocks are classified as c. fusion-powered energy in its core.
a. sedimentary. d. “land” quakes.
b. igneous. 31. The common structural feature of all silicates is
c. silicates. a. silicon-silicon chains.
d. metamorphic. b. silicon-oxygen tetrahedral unit.
17. Accumulations of silt, sand, or other materials that settle out of c. silicon-silicon rings.
water are called d. silicon-oxygen chains.
a. precipitates. 32. The one group that is not a subgroup of the silicate minerals is
b. solutes. a. ferromagnesian.
c. clay. b. nonferromagnesian.
d. sediments. c. plastic silicates.
18. Limestone and dolomite are d. clay minerals.
a. sandstone. 33. The property that is not considered useful in identifying
b. carbonates. minerals is
c. evaporates. a. hardness.
d. silicates. b. luster.
19. Heat and pressure change rocks into c. density.
a. igneous rocks. d. melting point.
b. sedimentary rocks. 17-19 CHAPTER 17 Rocks and Minerals 451
c. metamorphic rocks. 34. The specific gravity of a mineral depends on the
d. clastic rocks. a. kinds of atoms of which it is composed.
20. The relationship between rocks that are continually changing b. manner in which the atoms are packed in the crystal lattice.
over long periods of time is called c. amount of the mineral.
a. geology. d. a and b
b. mineralogy. 35. Fluorite is a mineral that floats in liquid mercury. The specific
c. rock cycle. gravity of fluorite must be
d. weathering. a. equal to the specific gravity of mercury.
21. The thin layer that covers Earth’s surface is the b. less than the specific gravity of mercury.
a. continental shelf. c. greater than the specific gravity of mercury.
b. crust. 36. The group that is not a class of rocks is
c. mantle. a. sedimentary.
d. core. b. igneous.
22. Based on its abundance in Earth’s crust, most rocks will contain a c. volcanic.
mineral composed of oxygen and the element d. metamorphic.
a. sulfur. 37. The classification of rocks is based on
b. carbon. a. location.
c. silicon. b. how they were formed.
d. iron c. age.
23. The most common rock in Earth’s crust is d. composition.
a. igneous. 38. An example of a sedimentary rock is
b. sedimentary. a. basalt.
c. metamorphic. b. granite.
d. None of the above is correct. c. shale.
24. An intrusive igneous rock will have which type of texture? d. slate.
a. Fine-grained 39. The term that does not describe a size of clastic sediment is
b. Coarse-grained a. gravel.
c. Medium-grained b. sandstone.
d. No grains c. silt.
25. Which igneous rock would have the greatest density? d. boulder.
a. Fine-grained granite (rhyolite) 40. Dissolved rock materials form
b. Coarse-grained granite a. chemical sediments.
c. One composed of nonferromagnesian silicates b. clastic sediments.
d. Basalt c. basaltic rocks.
26. Which of the following formed from previously existing rocks? d. igneous rocks.
a. Sedimentary rocks 41. An example of a metamorphic rock is
b. Igneous rocks a. marble.
c. Metamorphic rocks b. granite.
d. All of the above are correct. c. limestone.
27. Sedimentary rocks are formed by the processes of d. sandstone.
compaction and 42. Extrusive igneous rocks are formed on Earth’s surface from
a. magma. mantle is the
b. lava. a. crust.
c. slowly cooling hot solutions. b. lithosphere.
d. sediments. c. upper mantle.
43. Foliation is found in d. asthenosphere.
a. sedimentary rocks. 14. The name of the single large continent suggested by Wegener is
b. igneous rocks. a. Pan-continental.
c. metamorphic rocks. b. Atlantis.
d. all rocks. c. Pangaea.
Answers d. Asia Major.
1. a 2. c 3. a 4. c 5. d 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. c 11. b 12. b 13. a 14. c 15. Records of the strength and directions of Earth’s magnetic field
15. a 16. a 17. d 18. b 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. b 25. d 26. d are found in
27. c 28. a 29. b 30. b 31. b 32. c 33. d 34. d 35. b 36. c 37. b 38. c a. igneous rocks.
39. b 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. c b. meteorites.
1. The core of Earth is composed of c. sedimentary rocks.
a. iron and nickel. d. minerals.
b. silicon and oxygen. 16. The chain of mountains found in the center of the Atlantic
c. iron and lead. Ocean basin is called the
d. nickel and copper. a. Atlantic Mountains.
2. The middle part of Earth’s interior is b. Mid-Atlantic Ridge.
a. oceanic crust. c. Continental Ridge.
b. mantle. d. Icelandic Ridge.
c. inner crust. 17. Long, deep, and narrow oceanic trenches are located
d. outer core. a. in the middle of oceanic ridges.
3. The separation of materials that gave Earth its layered interior is b. on either side of the oceanic ridges.
called c. parallel to the edges of continents.
a. stratification. d. perpendicular to the edges of continents.
b. separation. 18. The theory that the lithosphere is composed of several rigid
c. differentiation. plates that “float” in the asthenosphere is called
d. partition. a. continental drift.
4. A vibration that moves through any part of Earth is called a b. plate tectonics.
a. seismic wave. c. plate boundaries.
b. gamma wave. d. continental tectonics
c. Z-wave. 19. The plate boundary associated with the formation of new crust
d. radio wave. is called
5. The S-wave is a a. divergent.
a. longitudinal wave. b. convergent.
b. transverse wave. c. transform.
c. radio wave. d. None of the above is correct.
d. surface wave. 20. The movement of one plate under another plate creates a
6. Waves that occur where S- or P-waves reach the surface are a. divergent boundary.
a. secondary waves. b. ridge.
b. surface waves. c. subduction zone.
c. T-waves. d. boundary zone.
d. minor waves. 21. Transform boundaries occur when
7. The three main areas of Earth’s interior are a. two plates slide by each other without the formation or loss
a. core, mantle, and crust. of crust.
b. core, secondary layer, and surface. b. two plates come together and “transform” each other.
c. nucleus, mantle, and crust. c. one plate slides under another plate.
d. core, mantle, and shell d. ridges are formed.
8. The boundary between the crust and the mantle is called 22. What is the current theory about why the plates move?
a. crust-to-mantle discontinuity. a. Plates follow the rotation of Earth.
b. continental-to-oceanic boundary. b. Convective cells move from the core to the lithosphere.
c. litho discontinuity. c. Gravity.
d. Moho discontinuity. d. Conduction cells move from the core to the lithosphere.
9. The mantle is composed of 23. The seismic waves that cause the most damage during an
a. sulfides. earthquake are
b. silicates. a. P-waves.
c. clay minerals. b. S-waves.
d. oxides. c. surface waves.
10. Seismological studies suggests that the core d. P- and S-waves.
a. is solid. 24. Earth’s mantle has a chemical composition that agrees closely
b. is liquid. with the composition of
c. has a liquid outer core and solid inner core. a. basalt.
d. has a solid outer core and liquid inner core. b. iron and nickel.
11. Evidence from meteorite studies proposes that the core is c. granite.
composed of d. gneiss.
a. nickel. 25. From seismological data, Earth’s shadow zone indicates that part
b. iron. of Earth’s interior must be
c. lead and iron. a. liquid.
d. nickel and iron. b. solid throughout.
12. The layer in Earth where seismic waves sharply decrease in c. plastic.
velocity is called the d. hollow.
a. crust. 26. The Mohorovicic discontinuity is a change in seismic wave
b. mantle. velocity that is believed to take place because of
c. lithosphere. a. structural changes in minerals of the same composition.
d. asthenosphere. b. changes in the composition on both sides of the boundary.
13. The layer that is broken up into plates that move in the upper c. a shift in the density of minerals of the same composition.
d. changes in the temperature with depth. a. P-wave.
27. The oldest rocks are found in b. S-wave.
a. continental crust. c. P- and S-waves are equally fast.
b. oceanic crust. d. surface wave.
c. neither, since both are the same age. 41. Information about the composition and nature of the mantle
28. The least dense rocks are found in does not come from
a. continental crust. a. seismological data.
b. oceanic crust. b. meteorite studies.
c. neither, since both are the same density. c. debris ejected from volcanoes.
29. The idea of seafloor spreading along the Mid-Atlantic Ridge was d. samples obtained from drilling.
supported by evidence from 42. Primary information about the nature of the core is provided by
a. changes in magnetic patterns and ages of rocks moving away a. seismological data.
from the ridge. b. meteorite studies.
b. faulting and volcanoes on the continents. c. debris ejected from volcanoes.
c. the observations that there was no relationship between one d. samples obtained from drilling.
continent and another. 43. The asthenosphere is not defined as
d. All of the above are correct. a. rigid.
30. According to the plate tectonics theory, seafloor spreading takes b. plastic.
place at a c. mobile.
a. convergent boundary. d. elastic.
b. subduction zone. 44. Earth’s magnetic field is thought to be generated by
c. divergent boundary. a. seismic waves throughout Earth.
d. transform boundary. b. electrical currents in the core.
31. The presence of an oceanic trench, a chain of volcanic mountains c. electrical currents in the crust.
along the continental edge, and deep-seated earthquakes is d. electrical currents in the asthenosphere.
characteristic of a (an) 45. Studies of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge provided evidence of
a. ocean-ocean plate convergence. a. seafloor spreading.
b. ocean-continent plate convergence. b. seafloor closing.
c. continent-continent plate convergence. c. ancient shipwrecks.
d. None of the above is correct. d. early humans.
32. The presence of an oceanic trench with shallow earthquakes and 46. Evidence that supports seafloor spreading does not include the
island arcs with deep-seated earthquakes is characteristic of a (an) a. earthquakes occurring along the crest of the Mid-Atlantic
a. ocean-ocean plate convergence. Ridge.
b. ocean-continent plate convergence. b. presence of rift along the crest of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge.
c. continent-continent plate convergence. c. younger sediments near the continents.
d. None of the above is correct. d. discovery of identical magnetic patterns in rocks on both
33. The ongoing occurrence of earthquakes without seafloor sides of the ridge.
spreading, 47. A geologic feature that was produced by divergent boundaries is
oceanic trenches, or volcanoes is most characteristic of a a. the Alps.
a. convergent boundary between plates. b. the Mid-Atlantic Ridge.
b. subduction zone. c. the Marianas Trench.
c. divergent boundary between plates. d. Japan.
d. transform boundary between plates. 48. Which type of plate boundary accounts for the formation of the
34. The evidence that Earth’s core is part liquid or acts as a liquid Appalachian Mountains?
comes from a. Divergent
a. the P-wave shadow zone. b. Ocean to continental convergence
b. the S-wave shadow zone. c. Continental to continental convergence
c. meteorites. d. Transform
d. All of the above are correct. 49. Which type of plate boundary was responsible for the formation
35. The surfaces of early planets in our solar system were thought to of the Japanese Islands?
be formed from a. Divergent
a. melting by the Sun. b. Ocean to ocean convergence
b. bombardment by dust and debris remaining from initial c. Continental to continental convergence
planet formation. d. Transform
c. nuclear decay processes. 50. A famous transform boundary in the United States is the
d. volcanic eruptions. a. Rocky Mountains fault.
36. The early Earth’s core is thought to have formed from the b. Mississippi fault.
a. exterior melting from radioactive decay. c. San Andreas fault.
b. gravitational pull of heavier materials to the center of Earth. d. San Jose fault.
c. exterior melting from fusion reactions. 51. Plate movement is measured by
d. interior melting from lava. a. reflected laser light experiments.
37. Indirect evidence that supports the theory of how Earth formed b. age of sediments and fossils.
is not supported by the study of c. analysis of magnetic patterns in rocks.
a. vibrations in Earth. d. All of the above are correct.
b. Earth’s magnetic field. 52. Islands that form when melted subducted material rises through
c. heat flow. the plates above sea level are called
d. samples from Earth’s core. a. Pacific islands.
38. The oceanic crust is b. arc islands.
a. thicker than the continental crust. c. convergence islands.
b. found under the continental crust. d. plate islands.
c. thinner than the continental crust. Answers
d. the same in its properties as the continental crust. 1. a 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. c 11. d 12. d 13. b
39. Seismic waves that do not travel through liquid are 14. c 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. c 21. a 22. b 23. c 24. a
a. P-waves. 25. a 26. b 27. a 28. a 29. a 30. c 31. b 32. a 33. d 34. b 35. b
b. S-waves. 36. b 37. d 38. c 39. b 40. a 41. d 42. a 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. c
c. both P- and S-waves. 47. b 48. c 49. b 50. c 51. d 52. b
d. surface waves. 1. The premise that the present is the key to understanding the past
40. The fastest seismic wave is the is called
a. history. is reported using the
b. principle of uniformity. a. seismograph numbers.
c. principles of geology. b. Richter scale.
d. philosophy. c. magnitude scale.
2. The process of deformation that changes Earth’s surface is called d. bigone scale.
a. continental drift. 17. Earthquakes are detected and measured by
b. plate tectonics. a. a seismometer.
c. diastrophism. b. a Geiger counter.
d. volcanism. c. Doppler radar.
3. A force that compresses, pulls apart, or deforms a rock is called d. oil well monitors.
a. stress. 18. Elevated parts of Earth’s crust that rise above the surrounding
b. strain. surface are called
c. pressure. a. ridges.
d. tension b. hills.
4. Rock stress caused by two plates moving together is c. plateaus.
a. compressive stress. d. mountains.
b. tensional stress. 19. Which of the following is not a classification of mountain origin?
c. shear stress. a. Folding
d. transform stress. b. Faulting
5. Adjustment to stress is defined as c. Parallel
a. release. d. Volcanic
b. strain. 20. Mountains that rise sharply from surrounding land along a
c. pressure. steeply inclined fault plane are
d. relief. a. weathered mountains.
6. Rocks at great depths are under b. domed mountains.
a. lower temperature and higher pressure. c. fault block mountains.
b. higher temperature and higher pressure. d. folded mountains.
c. higher temperature and lower pressure. 21. A large amount of magma that has crystallized beneath Earth’s
d. lower temperature and lower pressure. surface is a
7. A bend in layered bedrock that resulted from stress is called a a. batholith.
a. fracture. b. monolith.
b. fold. c. sill.
c. fault. d. laccolith.
d. twist. 22. The most abundant extrusive rock is
8. Folds that resemble an arch are called a. granite.
a. inverted basins. b. silicate.
b. clines. c. basalt.
c. anticlines. d. limestone.
d. synclines. 23. The basic difference between the frame of reference called the
9. A fold that forms a trough is called a (an) principle of uniformity and the catastrophic frame of reference
a. syncline. used by previous thinkers is that
b. basin. a. the energy requirements for catastrophic changes are much less.
c. inverted arch. b. the principle of uniformity requires more time for changes to
d. semicline. take place.
10. Movement between rocks on one side of a fracture relative to the c. catastrophic changes have a greater probability of occurring.
rocks on the other side of the fracture is called a d. None of the above is correct.
a. fracture. 24. The difference between elastic deformation and plastic
b. transformation. deformation
c. fault. of rocks is that plastic deformation
d. displacement. a. permanently alters the shape of a rock layer.
11. The actual place where seismic waves originate is the earthquake b. always occurs just before a rock layer breaks.
a. epicenter. c. results in the rock returning to its original shape after the
b. focus. pressure is removed.
c. root. d. All of the above are correct.
d. source. 25. Whether a rock layer subjected to stress undergoes elastic
12. The point on Earth’s surface directly above the focus of deformation, plastic deformation, or rupture depends on
an earthquake is called the a. the temperature of the rock.
a. fault line. b. the confining pressure on the rock.
b. epicenter. c. how quickly or how slowly the stress is applied over time.
c. source. d. All of the above are correct.
d. quake starting point. 26. When subjected to stress, rocks buried at great depths are under
13. An earthquake that occurs in the upper part of the mantle great pressure at high temperatures, so they tend to undergo
is called a. no change because of the pressure.
a. shallow focus. b. elastic deformation because of the high temperature.
b. deep focus. c. plastic deformation.
c. lithosphere focus. d. breaking or rupture.
d. intermediate focus. 27. A sedimentary rock layer that has not been subjected to stress
14. The majority of earthquakes (85 percent) are occurs naturally as
a. shallow focus. a. a basin, or large downward-bulging fold.
b. deep focus. b. a dome, or a large upward-bulging fold.
c. lithosphere focus. c. a series of anticlines and synclines.
d. intermediate focus d. beds, or horizontal layers.
15. The size of an earthquake is measured by 28. The difference between a joint and a fault is that
a. how many buildings are damaged a. the fault is larger.
b. the amount of energy released at the focus. b. the fault is a long, far-ranging fracture, and a joint is short.
c. the height of the tsunami it generated. c. relative movement has occurred on either side of a fault.
d. the time of the earthquake. d. All of the above are correct.
16. The energy of the vibrations or the magnitude of an earthquake 29. A fault where the footwall has moved upward relative to the
hanging wall is called a b. Memphis fault.
a. normal fault. c. New Madrid fault.
b. reverse fault. d. Missouri fault.
c. thrust fault. 44. P-waves travel __________ S-waves.
d. None of the above is correct. a. faster than
30. Reverse faulting probably resulted from which type of stress? b. slower than
a. Compressional stress c. farther than
b. Pulling-apart stress d. at the same rate as
c. A twisting stress 45. The epicenter is located by
d. Stress associated with diverging tectonic plates a. measuring how long the earthquake lasts.
31. Earthquakes that occur at the boundary between two tectonic b. measuring the time difference between P- and S-waves.
plates moving against each other take place along c. using time data from several seismographs to triangulate the
a. the entire length of the boundary at once. location.
b. short segments of the boundary at different times. d. b and c
c. the entire length of the boundary at different times. 46. An earthquake is
d. None of the above is correct. a. the result of the sudden release of energy that comes from
32. Each higher number of the Richter scale stress on rock.
a. increases with the magnitude of an earthquake. b. ground displacement and motion.
b. means 10 times more ground movement. c. the cause of tsunamis.
c. indicates about 30 times more energy is released. d. All of the above are correct.
d. All of the above are correct. 47. The Black Hills in South Dakota and the Adirondack Mountains
33. The removal of “older” crust from the surface of Earth is in New York are
accomplished by a. arched mountains.
a. erosion. b. domed mountains.
b. subduction. c. volcanic mountains.
c. transform strain. d. compressed mountains.
d. volcanoes. 48. The Appalachian Mountains were formed when
34. Hutton observed that rocks, rock structures, and features of a. North America split from South America.
Earth are all related. This relationship is called b. North America collided with Europe and Africa.
a. history. c. North America collided with South America.
b. principle of uniformity. d. North America split from Europe and Africa.
c. principles of geology. 49. Mountains that were formed as a result of volcanic eruptions
d. philosophy are the
35. The principle of uniformity has a basic frame of reference. This a. Alps.
frame of reference is b. Cascades.
a. plate tectonics. c. Rockies.
b. continental drift. d. Appalachians.
c. changes and deformations of rocks today and in the past. 50. The source of magma for the Mount St. Helens volcano is the
d. compressive strain. a. Cascade Mountains.
36. What is not considered a type of strain? b. subduction of the continental lithosphere under the Juan de
a. Elastic Fuca Plate.
b. Plastic c. subduction of the Juan de Fuca Plate under the continental
c. Rigidity lithosphere.
d. Fracture d. continental lithosphere to Juan de Fuca Plate divergence.
37. How a rock responds to stress and strain does not depend on the Answers
a. nature of the rock. 1. b 2. c 3. a 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. b 12. b 13. d 14. a
b. temperature of the rock. 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. c 21. a 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. d 26. c
c. pressure on the rock. 27. d 28. c 29. a 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. b 34. b 35. c 36. c 37. d 38. a
d. mass of the rock. 39. b 40. b 41. d 42. a 43. c 44. a 45. d 46. d 47. b 48. b 49. b 50. c
38. Which rock is more likely to break under stress? 1. Small changes that result in the breaking up, crumbling, and
a. Cold rock destruction of any kind of rock are
b. Hot rock a. decomposition.
c. Rock deep in Earth b. weathering.
d. Rock under great pressure c. corrosion.
39. Rocks near or on the surface d. erosion.
a. are not cooler than those below the surface. 2. The process of physically removing weathered materials is called
b. are not hotter than those below the surface. a. weathering.
c. are less brittle. b. transportation.
d. are under greater pressure. c. erosion.
40. Rocks recover their original shape after strain is released. This d. corrosion
type of strain is called 3. Muddy water rushing downstream after a heavy rain is an
a. plastic strain. example of
b. elastic strain. a. weathering.
c. fracture strain. b. washing.
d. pop-up strain. c. erosion.
41. Which is not a type of fault? d. transportation.
a. Normal 4. The physical breakup of rocks without any changes in their
b. Reverse chemical composition is
c. Thrust a. oxidation.
d. Forward b. mechanical weathering.
42. Where do most earthquakes occur? c. erosion.
a. Along plate boundaries d. transportation.
b. In the oceans 5. Chemical weathering, the dissolving or breaking down of
c. On ridges minerals in rocks, is also called
d. Along the Moho discontinuity a. oxidation.
43. The name of the fault that is of concern to people living along the b. reduction.
Mississippi River is the c. disintegration.
a. Mississippi fault. d. decomposition.
6. The process of peeling off layers of rock, reducing the pressure 20. Freezing water exerts pressure on the wall of a crack in a rock
on the rock’s surface, is called mass, making the crack larger. This is an example of
a. chemical peel. a. mechanical weathering.
b. exfoliation. b. chemical weathering.
c. wedging. c. exfoliation.
d. disintegration. d. hydration.
7. The weak acid formed by the reaction of water with carbon dioxide 21. Of the following rock weathering events, the last one to occur
is would probably be
a. carbonic acid. a. exfoliation.
b. carbonate acid. b. frost wedging.
c. hydrocarbonic acid. c. carbonation.
d. dihydrocarbonate acid. d. disintegration.
8. A mixture of unconsolidated weathered earth materials and humus 22. Which of the following would have the greatest overall effect in
is lowering the elevation of a continent such as North America?
a. gravel. a. Continental glaciers
b. soil. b. Alpine glaciers
c. dirt. c. Wind
d. mud. d. Running water
9. Decay-resistant, altered organic material is 23. Broad meanders on a very wide, gently sloping floodplain with
a. soil. oxbow lakes are characteristics you would expect to find in a
b. clay. river valley during what stage?
c. topsoil. a. Newborn
d. humus. b. Youth
10. Two minerals that usually remain after granite has completely c. Maturity
weathered are d. Old age
a. quartz and clay. 24. A glacier forms when
b. quartz and hematite. a. the temperature does not rise above freezing.
c. olivine and granite. b. snow accumulates to form ice, which begins to flow.
d. quartz and basalt. c. a summer climate does not occur.
11. Weathered materials move to lower elevations due to only d. a solid mass of snow moves downhill under the influence of
a. wind. gravity.
b. rain. 25. A likely source of loess is
c. gravity. a. rock flour.
d. erosion. b. a cirque.
12. The slow movement downhill of soil on the side of a mountain is c. a terminal moraine.
called d. an accumulation of ventifacts.
a. rockslide. 26. The landscape in a dry climate tends to be more angular because
b. avalanche. the dry climate
c. creep. a. has more winds.
d. crawl b. lacks as much chemical weathering.
13. The wide, level floor of a valley built by a stream is called a (an) c. has less rainfall.
a. channel. d. has stronger rock types.
b. valley. 27. Peneplains and monadnocks are prevented from forming by
c. floodplain. a. mass movement.
d. island. b. running water.
14. The deposit at the mouth of a river where sediments are dropped c. deflation.
is called a d. rejuvenation.
a. riverbank. 28. The phrase weathering of rocks means
b. delta. a. able to resist any changes, as in weathers the storm.
c. mouth. b. a discoloration caused by the action of the weather.
d. source. c. physical or chemical destruction.
15. Rock fragments frozen in moving glacier ice polish and scratch d. the same thing as rusting.
rocks at the base and on the walls of the glacier. This process is 29. What are you doing to a rock if you pick up the small pieces of a
a. bulldozing. smashed rock?
b. polishing. a. Mechanical weathering
c. plucking. b. Chemical weathering
d. abrasion. c. Erosion
16. The agent that has the least ability to erode is d. Transportation
a. wind. 30. What are you doing to the fragments of a smashed rock if you
b. gravity. carry the fragments to a new location?
c. streams. a. Mechanical weathering
d. glaciers. b. Chemical weathering
17. The major processes of wind erosion are c. Erosion
a. abrasion and bulldozing. d. Transportation
b. polishing and plucking. 31. What are you doing to a rock if you dissolve it in acid?
c. abrasion and deflation. a. Mechanical weathering
d. deflation and polishing. b. Chemical weathering
18. The picking up of loose materials from the surface by c. Erosion
wind is d. Transportation
a. abrasion. 32. A deeper, richer layer of soil would be expected where the climate
b. deflation. is
c. inflation. a. wet and warm.
d. polishing. b. dry and cold.
19. What is the pH of natural rainwater? c. tropical.
a. 5.0 to 5.5 d. arctic
b. 5.6 to 6.2 33. The soil called loam is
c. 6.3 to 6.7 a. all sand and humus.
d. 7.0 b. mostly humus with some sand.
c. equal amounts of sand, silt, and clay. a. ghost.
d. from the C horizon of a soil profile. b. fossil.
34. A moraine is a c. history.
a. wind deposit. d. relic.
b. glacier deposit. 2. In the early 1800s, William Smith noted that sedimentary rock
c. river deposit. layers could be identified by
d. Any of the above is correct. a. location.
35. The breaking up, crumbling, chemical decomposition, and b. color.
destruction of rocks at or near Earth’s surface are called c. fossils.
a. rockslide. d. size.
b. mining. 3. The science of discovering fossils and their history is
c. weathering. a. history.
d. erosion. b. paleontology.
36. Crushing of rock at a quarry to make smaller-sized gravel is an c. archeology.
example of d. anthropology.
a. physical weathering. 4. The meaning of the word fossil is
b. chemical weathering. a. petrified rock.
c. mechanical weathering. b. ancient artifact.
d. reduction weathering. c. petrified bones and the study of these bones.
37. Fragments of rocks fall into a mountain stream and are carried d. evidence of ancient organisms.
into the valley. This is an example of 5. There are three methods of fossil formation. The method that is
a. weathering. not a method of fossil formation is
b. erosion. a. preservation of soft organic materials.
c. transportation. b. preservation of hard parts.
d. decomposition. c. preservation of signs of activity.
38. Tree roots grow and expand, and eventually break through a d. replacement.
sidewalk. This is an example of 6. Hard parts of organisms that form fossils do not include
a. corrosion. a. shells.
b. erosion. b. teeth.
c. wedging. c. plants.
d. disintegration. d. bones.
39. Damage to the Lincoln Memorial by rain and smog is an 7. Fossils are most often found in what type of rock?
example of a. Sedimentary
a. physical weathering. b. Metamorphic
b. chemical weathering. c. Igneous
c. exfoliation. d. Volcanic
d. erosion. 8. “Geologic time” means
40. Ferromagnesian minerals will react with oxygen to produce a. the relative age of humankind.
deeply colored iron oxides. This is an example of b. the relative age of fossils.
a. hydration. c. the relative age of Earth.
b. carbonation. d. the relative age of the universe.
c. oxidation. 9. Clues to the past that we get from rocks do not include
d. combination. a. mineral composition.
41. You are planning a garden and need a soil that will hold moisture b. place of origin.
for plant growth but also drain well. The soil that you want to c. rock texture.
purchase is d. sedimentary structure.
a. humus. 10. A time break in the rock record is called a (an)
b. loam. a. unconformity.
c. clay-based. b. time lag.
d. sandy. c. crosscutting relationship.
42. The formation of a shallow layer of water by rain on the surface, d. time warp.
which dissolves materials and carries fragments away, is called 11. Distinctive fossils of plants or animals that were distributed widely
a. rain erosion. but lived only a short time with a common extinction time are called
b. sheet erosion. a. short-lived fossils.
c. waterfall. b. correlation fossils.
d. stream erosion. c. index fossils.
43. The most extensive glaciers in the United States are found in d. faunal successive fossils.
a. Montana. 12. The ability to use index fossils along with the ages of rocks in
b. Wyoming. different locations is
c. Washington. a. age correlation.
d. Alaska. b. fossil association.
44. Continental glaciers are found in c. age comparison.
a. Iceland. d. relative dating.
b. Antarctic. 13. The process that is adding heat to the interior of Earth is
c. Greenland. a. conduction.
d. Greenland and Antarctic. b. revolution.
45. An example of a chemical weathering process that is a major c. radioactive decay.
concern in the northeastern United States is d. solar energy.
a. erosion. 14. Modern geologic clocks include
b. acid rain. a. radiometric dating.
c. hydration. b. geomagnetic measurements.
d. oxidation. c. both a and b.
Answers d. neither a nor b.
1. b 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. b 7. a 8. b 9. d 10. a 11. c 12. c 13. c 14. b 15. Major blocks of time in the geologic time scale are called
15. d 16. a 17. c 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. c 22. d 23. d 24. b 25. a 26. b a. decades.
27. d 28. c 29. c 30. d 31. b 32. a 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. c 37. c 38. c b. eons.
39. b 40. c 41. b 42. b 43. d 44. d 45. b c. centuries.
1. Evidence of former life is called a d. millennia.
16. The time before the time of life is called by application of the
a. Precambrian. a. principle of crosscutting relationships.
b. Postcambrian. b. principle of faunal succession.
c. Phanerozoic. c. principle of superposition.
d. Post-Phanerozoic. d. All of the above are correct.
17. The smallest block of time assigned to the geologic time period is 31. The geologic time scale identified major blocks of time in Earth’s
the past by
a. eon. a. major worldwide extinctions of life on Earth.
b. period. b. the beginning of radioactive decay of certain unstable
c. era. elements.
d. epoch. c. measuring reversals in Earth’s magnetic field.
18. Which of the following does not describe a unit of geologic time? d. None of the above is correct.
a. Eon 32. You would expect to find the least number of fossils in rocks
b. Epoch from which era?
c. Period a. Cenozoic
d. Century b. Mesozoic
19. The time of recent life era is the c. Paleozoic
a. Cenozoic. d. Precambrian
b. Mesozoic. 33. You would expect to find fossils of life very different from
c. Paleozoic. anything living today in rocks from which era?
d. Phanerozoic. a. Cenozoic
20. The earliest fossils represented life from b. Mesozoic
a. land. c. Paleozoic
b. oceans. d. Precambrian
c. air. 34. The numerical dates associated with events on the geologic time
d. All of the above are correct. scale were determined by
21. Mammals first appeared in what era? a. relative dating of the rate of sediment deposition.
a. Cenozoic b. radiometric dating using radioactive decay.
b. Mesozoic c. the temperature of Earth.
c. Paleozoic d. the rate that salt is being added to the ocean.
d. Phanerozoic 35. Which of the following is not a fossil?
22. Pangaea formed approximately a. Dinosaur footprints
a. 25 million years ago. b. Petrified wood
b. 65 million years ago. c. Saber-toothed tiger bones
c. 225 million years ago. d. Pieces of ancient Native American pottery
d. 3.5 billion years ago. 36. An early record about the discovery of fossils and connection of
23. A fossil is fossils to living organisms comes from the
a. actual remains of plants or animals such as shells or wood. a. ancient Greeks.
b. remains that have been removed and replaced by mineral matter. b. ancient Romans.
c. any sign of former life older than 10,000 years. c. Babylonians.
d. Any of the above is correct d. Vikings.
24. Some of the oldest fossils are about how many years old? 37. Signs of activity that are a type of fossil preservation include all but
a. 4.55 billion a. tracks.
b. 3.5 billion b. footprints.
c. 250 million c. burrows.
d. 10,000 d. shells.
25. According to the evidence, a human footprint found preserved in 38. The observation that sediments are commonly deposited in
baked clay is about 5,000 years old. According to the definitions flat-lying layers is called the
used by paleontologists, this footprint is a (an) a. principle of uniformity.
a. fossil since it is an indication of former life. b. principle of superposition.
b. mold since it preserves the shape. c. principle of original horizontality.
c. actual fossil since it is preserved. d. principle of crosscutting relationships.
d. None of the above is correct. 39. A geologic feature that cuts across or is intruded into a rock
26. A fossil of a fly, if found, would most likely be mass must be younger than the rock mass. This is based on the
a. a cast. a. principle of uniformity.
b. formed by mineralization. b. principle of superposition.
c. preserved in amber. c. principle of original horizontality.
d. Any of the above is correct. d. principle of crosscutting relationships.
27. Which of the basic guiding principles used to read a story of 40. Criteria for a geologic clock process do not include that the
geologic a. process must have been operating since Earth began.
events tells you that layers of undisturbed sedimentary rocks have b. process must be measurable.
progressively older layers as you move toward the bottom? c. process must be uniform or subject to averaging.
a. Superposition d. process must include humans.
b. Horizontality 41. How many eons has there been since the birth of Earth?
c. Crosscutting relationships a. 2
d. None of the above is correct. b. 4
28. In any sequence of sedimentary rock layers that has not been c. 16
subjected to stresses, you would expect to find d. Over 100
a. essentially horizontal stratified layers. 42. The geologic eon that is known for abundant fossil records and
b. the oldest layers at the bottom and the youngest at the top. living organisms is called
c. no faults, folds, or intrusions in the rock layers. a. Precambrian.
d. All of the above are correct. b. Postcambrian.
29. An unconformity is a c. Phanerozoic.
a. rock bed that is not horizontal. d. Post-Phanerozoic.
b. rock bed that has been folded. 43. The earliest abundant fossils are found in what era?
c. rock sequence with rocks missing from the sequence. a. Cenozoic
d. All of the above are correct. b. Mesozoic
30. Correlation and relative dating of rock units are made possible c. Paleozoic
d. Phanerozoic absorption of solar radiation and reemission of infrared
44. Dinosaurs first appeared in what era? radiation?
a. Cenozoic a. Solar energy
b. Mesozoic b. Greenhouse effect
c. Paleozoic c. Ozone depletion
d. Phanerozoic d. Global emissions
45. What era is also called the age of mammals? 11. Near the surface, what happens to the temperature of the
a. Cenozoic atmosphere with increasing altitude?
b. Mesozoic a. Increases
c. Paleozoic b. Decreases
d. Phanerozoic c. Stays the same
46. The oxygen in our atmosphere is the result of d. Depends on the season
a. ultraviolet radiation. 12. What is the layer of the atmosphere where we live?
b. photosynthesis. a. Mesosphere
c. evolution of mammals. b. Stratosphere
d. cooling climates. c. Troposphere
47. Earth is thought to be d. Ozone layer
a. 225 million years old. 13. A layer of the atmosphere where the temperature increases with
b. 2.5 billion years old. height is a (an)
c. 3.8 billion years old. a. conversion.
d. 4.5 billion years old. b. inversion.
Answers c. diversion.
1. b 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. c 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. a 11. c 12. a 13. c 14. c d. cloud.
15. b 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. c 23. d 24. b 25. a 26. c 14. What is the boundary between the troposphere and the
27. a 28. d 29. c 30. d 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. b 35. d 36. a 37. d 38. c stratosphere?
39. d 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. c 44. b 45. a 46. b 47. d a. Thermal plane
1. The science that studies the atmosphere and weather b. Tropopause
phenomena is c. Stratopause
a. astronomy. d. Inversion layer
b. astrology. 15. In what lower layer of the atmosphere would transcontinental
c. meteorology. aircraft escape convective turbulence?
d. space science. a. Mesosphere
2. Up from the surface, 99 percent of the mass of Earth’s b. Stratosphere
atmosphere is found within c. Troposphere
a. 12 km (7 mi). d. Ionosphere
b. 16 km (10 mi). 16. Ultraviolet radiation is filtered by
c. 24 km (15 mi). a. the ozone shield.
d. 32 km (20 mi). b. the inversion layer.
3. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is c. Earth’s magnetic field.
a. oxygen. d. the greenhouse.
b. nitrogen. 17. The term that does not describe a layer of the atmosphere is
c. argon. a. thermosphere.
d. carbon dioxide. b. stratosphere.
4. Approximately how much of the total volume of the atmosphere c. mesosphere.
is oxygen? d. temposphere.
a. 21 percent 18. Uneven heating of Earth’s surface directly leads to
b. 32 percent a. rain.
c. 78 percent b. condensation.
d. 93 percent c. convection.
5. Fog and clouds are composed of d. thermal radiation.
a. water vapor. 19. A general horizontal movement of air is called
b. tiny droplets of liquid water. a. wind.
c. pockets of rain or snow. b. unusual.
d. large crystals of water vapour c. hurricane.
6. The continuous cycle of water precipitation and evaporation d. storm.
is called 20. Air moving from the ocean to the land is called a
a. rain. a. tsunami.
b. weather. b. sea breeze.
c. climate. c. wind.
d. hydrologic cycle. d. storm.
7. Tiny solid or liquid smoke, soot, dust, and salt crystals found in 21. A rapidly moving “stream” of air near the top of the troposphere is
the atmosphere are a. an unusual wind pattern.
a. of no concern. b. a jet stream.
b. harmful, reducing rainfall. c. El Niño.
c. aerosols. d. impossible.
d. clouds. 22. Water vapor in the atmosphere does not
8. Atmospheric pressure is measured using a a. participate in weather.
a. barometer. b. act as a greenhouse gas.
b. psychrometer. c. maintain life on Earth.
c. thermometer. d. filter ultraviolet radiation out of the atmosphere.
d. hydrometer. 23. The amount of water vapor at a particular temperature is defined
9. Which molecules in the atmosphere absorb infrared as
radiation? a. effective humidity.
a. Water b. actual humidity.
b. Oxygen c. absolute humidity.
c. Carbon dioxide d. humidity.
d. a and c 24. The temperature at which condensation begins is the
10. What is the process of heating the atmosphere by the a. dew point.
b. boiling point. over a valley floor to be what compared to the air temperature
c. frost point. over a slope to the valley?
d. melting point. a. Cooler
25. The basic shapes of clouds do not include b. Warmer
a. cirrus. c. The same temperature
b. cotton tuffs. d. Sometimes warmer and sometimes cooler
c. cumulus. 39. Air moving down a mountain slope is often warm because
d. stratus. a. it has been closer to the Sun.
26. An airplane flying at about 6 km (20,000 ft) is above how much b. cool air is denser and settles to lower
of Earth’s atmosphere? elevations.
a. 99 percent c. it is compressed as it moves to lower elevations.
b. 90 percent d. this occurs only during the summertime.
c. 75 percent 40. Considering Earth’s overall atmosphere, you would expect more
d. 50 percent rainfall to occur in a zone of
27. Earth’s atmosphere is mostly composed of a. high atmospheric pressure.
a. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water vapor. b. low atmospheric pressure.
b. nitrogen, oxygen, and argon. c. prevailing westerly winds.
c. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen. d. prevailing trade winds.
d. oxygen, nitrogen, and water vapor. 41. Considering Earth’s overall atmosphere, you would expect to
28. Which of the following gases cycle into and out of the find a desert located in a zone of
atmosphere? a. high atmospheric pressure.
a. Nitrogen b. low atmospheric pressure.
b. Carbon dioxide c. prevailing westerly winds.
c. Oxygen d. prevailing trade winds.
d. All of the above are correct. 42. Water molecules can go (1) from the liquid state to the vapor
29. If it were not for the ocean, Earth’s atmosphere would probably state and (2) from the vapor state to the liquid state. When is the
be mostly movement from the liquid to the vapor state only?
a. nitrogen. a. Evaporation
b. carbon dioxide. b. Condensation
c. oxygen. c. Saturation
d. argon. d. This usually does not occur alone.
30. Your ear makes a “pop” sound as you descend in an elevator 43. What condition means a balance between the number of water
because molecules moving to and from the liquid state?
a. air is moving from the atmosphere into your eardrum. a. Evaporation
b. air is moving from your eardrum to the atmosphere. b. Condensation
c. air is not moving into or out of your eardrum. c. Saturation
d. None of the above is correct. d. None of the above is correct.
31. Most of the total energy radiated by the Sun is 44. Without adding or removing any water vapor, a sample of the
a. visible light. atmosphere experiencing an increase in temperature will have
b. ultraviolet radiation. a. a higher relative humidity.
c. infrared radiation. b. a lower relative humidity.
d. gamma radiation. c. the same relative humidity.
32. How much of the total amount of solar radiation reaching the d. a changed absolute humidity.
outermost part of Earth’s atmosphere reaches the surface? 45. Cooling a sample of water vapor results in a (an)
a. All of it a. increased capacity.
b. About 99 percent b. decreased capacity.
c. About 75 percent c. unchanged capacity.
d. About one-half 46. On a clear, calm, and cool night, dew or frost is most likely
33. The solar radiation that does reach Earth’s surface to form
a. is eventually radiated back to space. a. under trees or other shelters.
b. shows up as an increase in temperature. b. on bare ground on the side of a hill.
c. is reradiated at different wavelengths. c. under a tree on the side of a hill.
d. All of the above are correct. d. on grass in an open, low-lying area
34. The greenhouse effect results in warmer temperatures near the 47. The density of the atmosphere
surface because a. increases with increasing altitude.
a. clouds trap infrared radiation near the surface. b. decreases with increasing altitude.
b. some of the energy is reradiated back toward the surface. c. remains the same, regardless of altitude.
c. carbon dioxide molecules do not permit the radiation to d. decreases with decreasing altitude.
leave. 48. Condensation nuclei provide a surface for fog or cloud formation.
d. carbon dioxide and water vapor both trap infrared radiation. These particles include
35. The temperature increases with altitude in the stratosphere a. salt crystals.
because b. soot.
a. it is closer to the Sun than the troposphere. c. dust.
b. heated air rises to the stratosphere. d. All of the above are correct.
c. of a concentration of ozone. Answers
d. the air is less dense in the stratosphere. 1. c 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. d 7. c 8. a 9. d 10. b 11. b 12. c 13. b 14. b
36. Ozone is able to protect Earth from harmful amounts of 15. b 16. a 17. d 18. c 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. d 23. c 24. a 25. b 26. d
ultraviolet radiation by 27. b 28. d 29. b 30. a 31. c 32. d 33. d 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. b 38. a
a. reflecting it back to space. 39. c 40. b 41. a 42. d 43. c 44. b 45. b 46. d 47. b 48. d
b. absorbing it and decomposing, then reforming. 1. Condensation of water vapor into clouds or fog requires
c. refracting it to a lower altitude. a. high temperatures.
d. All of the above are correct. b. storms.
37. Summertime breezes would not blow if Earth did not experience c. condensation nuclei.
a. cumulus clouds. d. no wind.
b. differential heating. 2. Clouds that are between you and the Sun will appear gray because
c. the ozone layer. a. the clouds filter sunlight.
d. a lapse rate in the troposphere. b. the clouds reflect sunlight.
38. On a clear, calm, cool night, you would expect the air temperature c. the clouds refract sunlight.
d. the Sun’s shadow makes the clouds dark. b. the Farmer’s Almanac.
3. Which is not an example of precipitation? c. the study of the movement of air masses.
a. Rain d. knowledge of basic scientific laws.
b. Dew 17. The general pattern of weather that occurs for a region over a
c. Snow number of years is called
d. Ice a. a weather history.
4. Cloud droplets merge and fuse with millions of other droplets to b. the climate.
form large raindrops. This process is called c. a forecast.
a. seeding. d. the environment.
b. precipitation. 18. The source of energy that drives the hydrologic cycle is
c. coalescence. a. the ocean.
d. combination. b. latent heat from evaporating water.
5. What type of clouds will usually produce a long, cold winter c. the Sun.
storm with drizzle, rain, ice, and snow? d. Earth’s interior.
a. Cirrus 19. Considering the average amount of water that evaporates from
b. Cumulus Earth’s oceans each year and the average amount that returns by
c. Stratus precipitation,
d. Storm a. evaporation is greater than precipitation.
6. The transfer of heat from a region of higher temperature to a b. precipitation is greater than evaporation.
region of lower temperature by the displacement of high-energy c. precipitation balances evaporation.
molecules is d. there is no pattern that can be generalized.
a. thermal energy. 20. A thunderstorm that occurs at 3 a.m. over a flat region of the
b. conduction. country was probably formed by
c. convection. a. convection.
d. radiation. b. differential heating.
7. The one term that does not describe an air mass is c. the meeting of moving air masses.
a. maritime polar. d. Any of the above is correct.
b. continental southern. 21. White, puffy cumulus clouds that form over a flat region of
c. maritime tropical. the country during the late afternoon of a clear, warm day are
d. continental polar. probably the result of
8. A boundary between air masses is called a a. convection.
a. boundary. b. a barrier to moving air.
b. front. c. the meeting of moving air masses.
c. dividing line. d. None of the above is correct.
d. barrier. 22. Without any heat being added or removed, a parcel of air that is
9. A low-pressure center where the winds move counterclockwise expanding is becoming
into the low-pressure center is called a (an) a. neither warmer nor cooler.
a. occluded front. b. warmer.
b. stationary front. c. cooler.
c. cyclone. d. the temperature of the surrounding air.
d. high. 23. A parcel of air shoved upward into atmospheric air in a state of
10. Clear, fair weather is associated with a instability will expand and become cooler,
a. high. a. but not as cool as the surrounding air.
b. low. b. and thus colder than the surrounding air.
c. stationary front. c. reaching the same temperature as the surrounding air.
d. low-pressure center. d. then warmer than the surrounding air.
11. A thunderstorm usually does not develop under what 24. A parcel of air shoved upward into atmospheric air in a state of
conditions? stability will expand and become cooler,
a. Warm air a. but not as cool as the surrounding air.
b. Cold air b. and thus colder than the surrounding air.
c. Moist air c. reaching the same temperature as the surrounding air.
d. Humid air d. then warmer than the surrounding air.
12. Upward air motion that leads to the growth of cumulus clouds to 25. Cumulus clouds usually mean an atmospheric state of
tremendous heights is called a (an) a. stability.
a. lift. b. instability.
b. flight. c. cool, dry equilibrium.
c. updraft. d. warm, humid equilibrium
d. rise. 26. When water vapor condenses in a parcel of air rising in an
13. The separation of charge associated with the movement of unstable atmosphere, the parcel is
water droplets as they fall or as they are lifted by an updraft can a. forced to the ground.
result in b. slowed.
a. lightning. c. stopped.
b. hail. d. accelerated upward.
c. thunder. 27. A parcel of air with a relative humidity of 50 percent is given an
d. a rainbow. upward shove into the atmosphere. What is necessary before
14. An intense low-pressure area with widespread winds greater than cloud droplets form in this air?
120 km/h is a a. Cooling
a. tornado. b. Saturation
b. tropical storm. c. Condensation nuclei
c. hurricane. d. All of the above are correct.
d. cyclone. 28. A cloud is hundreds of tiny water droplets suspended in the air.
15. A hurricane does not have The average density of liquid water in such a cloud is about
a. gale winds. a. 0.1 g/m3.
b. rain and thunderstorms. b. 1 g/m3.
c. a high-pressure area. c. 100 g/m3.
d. an “eye” at its center d. 1,000 g/m3.
16. Weather prediction is not based on 29. When water vapor in the atmosphere condenses to liquid water,
a. use of computer models. a. dew falls to the ground.
b. rain or snow falls to the ground. b. snow.
c. a cloud forms. c. ice.
d. All of the above are correct. d. precipitation.
30. In order for liquid cloud droplets at the freezing point to freeze 43. You are standing on a warm beach in Tahiti. Rain begins to fall.
into ice crystals, The type of cloud must be
a. condensation nuclei are needed. a. cirrus.
b. further cooling is required. b. cumulus
c. ice-forming nuclei are needed. c. stratus.
d. nothing more is required. d. storm.
31. Which basic form of a cloud usually produces longer periods of 44. Precipitation that is formed by cycling repeatedly through a
drizzle, rain, or snow? thunderstorm, falling, and then being returned to the upper of
a. Stratus the thunderclouds by updrafts is
b. Cumulus a. rain.
c. Cirrus b. snow.
d. None of the above is correct. c. hail.
32. Which basic form of a cloud usually produces brief periods of d. rain and snow
showers? 45. The smallest, most violent weather event is a (an)
a. Stratus a. hurricane.
b. Cumulus b. tornado.
c. Cirrus c. hailstorm.
d. None of the above is correct. d. ice storm.
33. The type of air mass weather that results after the arrival of polar Answers
continental air is 1. c 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. c 6. c 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. c 13. a 14. c
a. frequent snowstorms with rapid changes. 15. c 16. b 17. b 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. a 22. c 23. a 24. b 25. b 26. d
b. clear and cold with gradual changes. 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. c 31. a 32. b 33. d 34. b 35. a 36. c 37. b 38. a
c. unpredictable but with frequent and rapid changes. 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. d 43. b 44. c 45. b
d. much the same from day to day, with conditions depending 1. What is the most abundant compound near or on the surface of
on the air mass and the local conditions. Earth?
34. The appearance of high cirrus clouds, followed by thicker and a. O2
lower stratus clouds, then continuous light rain over several days b. H2O
probably means which of the following air masses has moved to c. CO2
your area? d. N2
a. Continental polar 2. Evaporation, precipitation, and return of water to the oceans are
b. Maritime tropical called the
c. Continental tropical a. rain cycle.
d. Maritime polar b. aqueous cycle.
35. A fully developed cyclonic storm is most likely to form c. hydrologic cycle.
a. on a stationary front. d. geologic cycle.
b. in a high-pressure center. 3. What is the major source of freshwater?
c. from differential heating. a. Streams
d. over a cool ocean. b. Underground water
36. The basic difference between a tropical storm and a hurricane is c. Precipitation
a. size. d. Rivers
b. location. 4. What is a small body of running water?
c. wind speed. a. Runoff
d. amount of precipitation. b. Stream
37. Most of the great deserts of the world are located c. Groundwater
a. near the equator. d. Lake
b. 30° north or south latitude. 5. The land that is drained by a stream is called the
c. 60° north or south latitude. a. riverbank.
d. anywhere, as there is no pattern to their location. b. watershed.
38. The average temperature of a location is made more even by the c. river valley.
influence of d. mouth of the stream.
a. a large body of water. 6. A small body of standing water is called a
b. elevation. a. stream.
c. nearby mountains. b. pond.
d. dry air. c. lake.
39. The climate of a specific location is determined by d. watershed.
a. its latitude. 7. The amount of groundwater is estimated to be
b. how much sunlight it receives. a. equal to the amount of surface water.
c. its altitude and nearby mountains and bodies of water. b. less than the amount of surface water.
d. All of the above are correct. c. 25 times the amount of surface water.
40. The process that is not involved with how water cycles in and out d. twice the amount of surface water.
of the atmosphere is 8. The total amount of pore spaces in a given sample of sediment is
a. evaporation. defined as
b. boiling. a. grain size.
c. condensation. b. porosity.
d. precipitation. c. permeability.
41. The process of water vapor cycling in and out of the atmosphere d. concentration.
with evaporation of water from the surface and precipitation of 9. The ability of a given sample of sediment to transport water is
water back to the surface is called the defined as
a. unusual weather cycle. a. grain size.
b. atmospheric cycle. b. porosity.
c. hydrologic cycle. c. permeability.
d. reverse flow cycle. d. concentration.
42. Water that returns to Earth’s surface in either solid or liquid form 10. The amount of groundwater in a specific area does not
is called depend on
a. rain. a. porosity of the land.
b. type of sediments. d. breakers.
c. slope of the land. 25. The distance that the wind blows across the open ocean is the
d. a nearby lake or reservoir. a. fetch.
11. The surface of the boundary between the zone of saturation and b. swell.
the zone above is called the c. surf.
a. water table. d. breaker.
b. permeable zone. 26. Steep volcanic peaks in the ocean basin are
c. impermeable zone. a. ridges.
d. groundwater table. b. seamounts.
12. A layer of sand, gravel, sandstone, or any other highly permeable c. steeds.
material beneath Earth’s surface through which groundwater can d. quarter islands.
move is a (an) 27. Of the total supply, the amount of water that is available for
a. well. human consumption and agriculture is
b. spring. a. 97 percent.
c. aquifer. b. about two-thirds.
d. artesian. c. about 3 percent.
13. Water that usually does not have to be filtered is obtained from a d. less than 1 percent.
a. lake. 28. Considering yearly global averages of precipitation that falls on
b. river. and evaporates from the land,
c. well. a. more is precipitated than evaporates.
d. reservoir. b. more evaporates than is precipitated.
14. The treatment of seawater to replenish freshwater c. there is a balance between the amount precipitated and the
a. is readily available. amount evaporated.
b. kills ocean life. d. there is no pattern that can be generalized.
c. is energy-expensive. 29. In general, how much of all the precipitation that falls on land
d. requires excessive filtration. ends up as runoff and groundwater?
15. Deuterium from the oceans is considered a potential energy a. 97 percent
source for b. About half
a. chemical power. c. About one-third
b. thermal energy. d. Less than 1 percent
c. controlled fusion. 30. Groundwater is
d. controlled fission. a. any water beneath Earth’s surface.
16. Degradable pollution control is b. water beneath Earth’s surface from a saturated zone.
a. landfills. c. water that soaks into the ground.
b. recycling. d. Any of the above is correct.
c. wastewater treatment. 31. How many different oceans are actually on Earth’s surface?
d. combustion. a. 14
17. The primary stage in wastewater treatment b. 7
a. removes persistent pollutants. c. 3
b. removes solids from wastewater. d. 1
c. removes degradable pollutants. 32. The largest of the three principal ocean regions of Earth is the
d. adds chlorine. a. Atlantic Ocean.
18. Chlorination of water is used to b. Pacific Ocean.
a. kill harmful bacteria. c. Indian Ocean.
b. break down organic matter. d. South American Ocean.
c. remove persistent pollutants. 33. The Gulf of Mexico is a shallow sea of the
d. provide needed nutrients. a. Atlantic Ocean.
19. The “rim of fire” surrounds the b. Pacific Ocean.
a. Atlantic Ocean. c. Indian Ocean.
b. Indian Ocean. d. South American Ocean.
c. Pacific Ocean. 34. Measurement of the salts dissolved in seawater taken from various
d. Gulf of Mexico. locations throughout the world shows that seawater has a
20. Dissolved materials and sediments are carried to oceans by a. uniform chemical composition and a variable concentration.
a. rain. b. variable chemical composition and a variable concentration.
b. rivers. c. uniform chemical composition and a uniform concentration.
c. groundwater. d. variable chemical composition and a uniform concentration.
d. pollutants. 35. The percentage of dissolved salts in seawater averages about
21. What ion is found in seawater in the greatest amount? a. 35 percent.
a. Sodium ion, Na+ b. 3.5 percent.
b. Chloride ion, Cl– c. 0.35 percent.
c. Calcium ion, Ca2+ d. 0.035 percent.
d. Potassium ion, K+ 36. The salinity of seawater is increased locally by
22. The amount of dissolved salts in seawater is measured as a. the addition of water from a large river.
a. salt concentration. b. heavy precipitation.
b. solubility. c. the formation of sea ice.
c. salinity. d. None of the above is correct.
d. percent. 37. Considering only the available light and the dissolving ability
23. What is the part of a river where the freshwater mixes with the of gases in seawater, more abundant life should be found in a
salt water from the oceans? a. cool, relatively shallow ocean.
a. Watershed b. warm, very deep ocean.
b. Estuary c. warm, relatively shallow ocean.
c. Delta d. cool, very deep ocean.
d. Wetland 38. The regular, low-profile waves called swell are produced from
24. A regular group of long-wavelength waves with a low wave a. constant, prevailing winds.
height is called b. small, irregular waves becoming superimposed.
a. fetch. c. longer wavelengths outrunning and outlasting shorter
b. swell. wavelengths.
c. surf. d. all wavelengths becoming transformed by gravity as they
travel any great distance. a. _____ The most widely used system of units
39. If the wavelength of swell is 10.0 m, then you know that the fish b. _____ One-hundredth
below the surface feel the waves to a depth of c. _____ Method of properly expressing measured numbers
a. 5.0 m. d. _____ The measurement of space in any direction
b. 10.0 m. e. _____ The relationship of one unit to another
c. 20.0 m. f. _____ Thousand
d. however deep it is at the bottom. g. _____ Standard unit of mass
40. In general, a breaker forms where the water depth is about one h. _____ A valid theory of nature must be in agreement with
and one-third times the wave experimental results.
a. period. i. _____ Defined in terms of the radiation frequency of a cesium
b. length. atom
c. height. j. _____ An organized body of knowledge about the natural
d. width. universe
41. Ocean currents are generally driven by k. _____ The amount of matter an object contains
a. the rotation of Earth. l. _____ A group of standard units and their combinations
b. the prevailing winds. m. _____ One-thousandth
c. rivers from the land. n. _____ A system of units that is slowly being phased out
d. All of the above are correct. o. _____ The continuous forward flowing of events
42. Of the following, the greatest volume of water is moved by the p. _____ A fixed and reproducible value for making measurements
a. Mississippi River. q. _____ Multiples and combinations of standard units
b. California Current. r. _____ Defined in terms of the speed of light
c. Gulf Stream. s. _____ Million
d. Colorado River. t. _____ Modernized version of the metric system
43. Water that is fit for human consumption and agriculture u. _____ Compactness of matter
is called v. _____ Acronym for metric standard units
a. seawater. w. _____ V 5 10 cm 3 10 cm 3 10 cm
b. freshwater. MULTIPLECHOICE
c. distilled water. Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
d. mountain water. 1. Which is the most fundamental of the physical sciences? (1.1)
44. The continental divide that separates river systems in the (a) astronomy (b) chemistry (c) physics (d) meteorology
United States is the 2. Which one of the following is a concise statement about a
a. Mississippi River. fundamental
b. Rocky Mountains. relationship in nature? (1.2)
c. Appalachian Mountains. (a) hypothesis (b) law (c) theory (d) experiment
d. Rio Grande. 3. Which human sense is first in supplying the most information
45. The average domestic daily use of water per person is estimated about the external world? (1.3)
to be (a) touch (b) taste (c) sight (d) hearing
a. 25 gal. 4. Which is the standard unit of mass in the metric system? (1.4)
b. 50 gal. (a) gram (b) kilogram (c) slug (d) pound
c. 100 gal. 5. Which one of the following is not a fundamental quantity? (1.4)
d. 150 gal. (a) length (b) weight (c) mass (d) time
46. Groundwater costs more for consumer use because 6. Which metric prefix means “one-thousandth”? (1.5)
a. it must be pumped to the surface. (a) centi- (b) milli- (c) mega- (d) kilo-
b. it requires addition of bactericides. 7. Which metric prefix means “thousand”? (1.5)
c. filtration is needed to remove salts. (a) centi- (b) milli- (c) mega- (d) kilo-
d. it is not chlorinated. 8. Which of the following metric prefixes is the smallest? (1.5)
Answers (a) micro- (b) centi- (c) nano- (d) milli-
1. b 2. c 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. c 8. b 9. c 10. d 11. a 12. c 13. c 14. c 9. How many base units are there in the SI? (1.5)
15. c 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. b 21. b 22. c 23. b 24. b 25. a 26. c (a) four (b) five (c) six (d) seven
27. d 28. a 29. c 30. b 31. d 32. b 33. a 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. a 38. c 10. Which combination of units expresses density? (1.6)
39. a 40. c 41. b 42. c 43. b 44. b 45. d 46. a (a) mass/(time)3 (b) mass/(kg)3
(c) mass/(length)3 (d) mass/m2
11. What is the expression 1 in. 5 2.54 cm properly called? (1.6)
(a) equation (b) conversion factor
(c) SI factor (d) equivalence statement
12. A student measures the length and width of a rectangle to be
49.4 cm and 0.590 cm, respectively. Wanting to find the area
(in cm2) of this rectangle, the student multiplies on a calculator
and obtains a result of 2.9146. The area should be reported
as ___. (1.7)
(a) 2914.6 cm2 (b) 2915 cm2
(c) 2.9 3 103 cm2 (d) 2.91 3 102 cm2
13. Which of the following numbers has the greatest number of
significant
figures? (1.6)
(a) 103.07 (b) 124.5 (c) 0.09914 (d) 5.048 3 105 I L L I N T H E B L A N K
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. The natural sciences, in which scientists study the natural universe,
are divided into physical and ___ sciences. (1.1)
2. A(n) ___ is used to test a hypothesis. (1.2)
3. According to the ___, no hypothesis or theory of nature is
valid unless its predictions are in agreement with experimental
results. (1.2)
SHIPMAN’S BOOK MATCHING
MATCHING For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
with those at the back of the book. a. _____ Displacement/travel time
b. _____ Has magnitude only
c. _____ Velocity at an instant of time
d. _____ Directed toward the center of circular motion
e. _____ Actual path length
f. _____ Straight-line directed distance
g. _____ A continuous change of position
h. _____ Time rate of change of velocity
i. _____ Has magnitude and direction
j. _____ Motion solely under the influence of gravity
k. _____ Motion of a thrown object
l. _____ Speed at an instant of time
m. _____ The location of an object
n. _____ 9.8 m/s2
o. _____ Distance traveled/travel time
p. _____ The most fundamental of the physical sciences
q. _____ Difference between final and initial velocities divided by time
r. _____ Zero acceleration in free fall
MULTIPLECHOICE
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. What is necessary to designate a position? (2.1)
(a) fundamental units (b) motion
(c) a direction (d) a reference point
2. Which one of the following describes an object in motion? (2.1)
(a) A period of time has passed.
(b) Its position is known.
(c) It is continuously changing position.
(d) It has reached its final position.
3. Which one of the following is always true about the magnitude of
a displacement? (2.2)
(a) It is greater than the distance traveled.
(b) It is equal to the distance traveled.
(c) It is less than the distance traveled.
(d) It is less than or equal to the distance traveled.
4. Distance is to displacement as ___. (2.2)
(a) centimeters is to meters (b) a vector is to a scalar
(c) speed is to velocity (d) distance is to time
5. Acceleration may result from what? (2.3)
(a) an increase in speed
(b) a decrease in speed
(c) a change in direction
(d) all of the preceding
6. For a constant linear acceleration, what changes uniformly? (2.3)
(a) acceleration
(b) velocity
(c) distance
(d) displacement
7. Which one of the following is true for a deceleration? (2.3)
(a) The velocity remains constant.
(b) The acceleration is negative.
(c) The acceleration is in the direction opposite to the velocity.
(d) The acceleration is zero.
8. Which is true for an object in free fall? (2.3)
(a) It has frictional effects.
(b) It has a constant velocity.
(c) It has a constant displacement.
(d) It increases in distance proportionally to t2.
9. If the speed of an object in uniform circular motion is tripled and
the radial distance remains constant, then the magnitude of the
centripetal acceleration increases by what factor? (2.4)
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 9
10. Neglecting air resistance, which of the following is true for a ball
thrown at an angle u to the horizontal? (2.5)
(a) It has a constant velocity in the 1x direction.
(b) It has a constant acceleration in the 2y direction.
(c) It has a changing velocity in the 1y direction.
(d) All of the preceding are true.
11. In the absence of air resistance, a projectile launched at an angle
of 288 above the horizontal will have the same range as a projectile
launched at which of the following angles? (2.5)
(a) 458 (b) 578 (c) 628 (d) 1808 2 338 5 1478
12. A football is thrown on a long pass. Compared to the ball’s initial
horizontal velocity, the velocity at the highest point is ___. (2.5)
(a) greater (b) less (c) the same
Short Answer 45
FILLINTHEBLANK
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. An object is in motion when it undergoes a continuous change
of ___. (2.1)
2. Speed is a(n) ___quantity. (2.2)
3. Velocity is a(n) ___quantity. (2.2)
4. ___ is the actual path length. (2.2)
5. A car’s speedometer reads instantaneous ___. (2.2)
6. Speed and direction do not change for a(n) ___ velocity. (2.2)
7. The distance traveled by a dropped object increases with ___.
(2.3)
8. Objects in motion solely under the influence of gravity are said to
be in___. (2.3)
9. The metric units associated with acceleration are ___. (2.3)
10. An object in uniform circular motion has a constant ___. (2.4)
11. If the speed of one object in uniform circular motion is two times
that of another such object (same radius), then its centripetal
acceleration is ___ times greater. (2.4)
12. Neglecting air resistance, a horizontally thrown object and an
object dropped from the same height fall with the same constant
___. (2.5)
4. Most information about our environment reaches us through the
sense of ___. (1.3)
5. All the human senses have ___. (1.3)
6. One liter is slightly ___ than 1 quart. (1.4)
7. One yard is slightly ___ than 1 meter. (1.4)
8. Unlike mass, weight is not a(n) ___ property. (1.4)
9. The standard unit of ___ is the same in all measurement
systems. (1.4)
10. The metric prefix mega- means ___. (1.5)
11. A common nonstandard metric unit of fluid volume or capacity
is the ___. (1.5)
12. If A is denser than B, then A contains more ___ per unit
volume.
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers
with those at the back of the book.
a. _____ Law of inertia
b. _____ Changes angular momentum
c. _____ mg
d. _____ Required for an object to float
e. _____ mvr
f. _____ Tendency of an object to remain at rest or in uniform,
straight-line motion
g. _____ Mass 3 velocity
h. _____ F 5 ma
i. _____ Conservation law requiring the absence of an unbalanced
torque
j. _____ Action and reaction
k. _____ Capable of producing motion or a change in motion
l. _____ Universal constant
m. _____ SI unit of force
n. _____ Resistance to relative motion
o. _____ A nonzero vector sum of forces
p. _____ Occurs in the absence of an unbalanced force
q. _____ Describes the force of gravity
r. _____ A measure of inertia
s. _____ Gives the magnitude of the buoyant force
MULTIPLECHOICE
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. Mass is related to an object’s ___. (3.1)
(a) weight (b) inertia
(c) density (d) all of the preceding
2. What is a possible state of an object in the absence of a net
force? (3.2)
(a) at rest (b) constant speed
(c) zero acceleration (d) all of the preceding
3. What term refers to the tendency of an object to remain at rest or
in uniform, straight-line motion? (3.2)
(a) mass (b) force
(c) inertia (d) external force
4. What is necessary for a change in velocity? (3.3)
(a) inertia (b) an unbalanced force
(c) a zero net force (d) a change in direction
5. According to Newton’s second law of motion, when an object is
acted upon by an unbalanced force, what can be said about the
acceleration? (3.3)
(a) It is inversely proportional to the object’s mass.
(b) It is zero.
(c) It is inversely proportional to the net force.
(d) It is independent of mass.
6. A net force ___.
(a) can produce motion (a) an object with a mass of 4m and a velocity of v
(b) is a scalar quantity (b) an object with a mass of 3m and a velocity of 2v
(c) is capable of producing a change in velocity (c) an object with a mass of 2m and a velocity of 3v
(d) both (a) and (c) (d) an object with a mass of m and a velocity of 4v
7. For every action force, there is which of the following? (3.4) 5. When negative work is done on a moving object, its kinetic
(a) a net force energy (4.2)
(b) a friction force (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains constant
(c) an unbalanced force 6. The reference point for gravitational potential energy may be
(d) an equal and opposite force which of the following? (4.2)
8. Which is true of the force pair of Newton’s third law? (3.4) (a) zero (b) negative
(a) The two forces never produce an acceleration. (c) positive (d) all of the preceding
(b) The two forces act on different objects. 7. When the height of an object is changed, the gravitational potential
(c) The two forces always cancel each other. energy (4.2)
(d) The two forces are in the same direction. (a) increases
9. Which is true about the acceleration due to gravity? (3.5) (b) decreases
(a) It is a universal constant. (c) depends on the reference point
(b) It is a fundamental property. (d) remains constant
(c) It decreases with increasing altitude. 8. Energy cannot be ___ .
(d) It is different for different objects in free fall. (a) created (b) conserved
Short Answer 73 (c) transferred (d) in more than one form
FILLINTHEBLANK 9. On which of the following does the speed of a falling object
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book. depend? (4.3)
1. A force is a quantity that is ___ of producing motion or a change (a) mass (b) "Dh
in motion. (3.1) (c) 12
2. Forces are ___ quantities. (3.1) mv2 (d) parallel distance
3. Galileo concluded that objects ___ (could/could not) remain in 10. Power is expressed by which of the following units? (4.4)
motion without a net force. (3.2) (a) J/s (b) N ? m (c) W ? s (d) W/m
4. An object will not remain at rest or in uniform, straight-line 11. If one motor has three times as much power as another, then the
motion if acted upon by a(n) ___ force. (3.2) less powerful motor ___ . (4.4)
5. The inertia of an object is related to its ___. (3.2) (a) can do the same work in three times the time
6. According to Newton’s second law, an object’s acceleration is ___ (b) can do the same work in the same time
proportional to its mass. (3.3) (c) can do the same work in one-third the time
7. The newton unit of force is equal to ___ in standard units. (3.3) (d) can never do the same work as the larger motor
8. The coefficient of ___ friction is generally greater than the 12. In the United States, which one of the following sectors consumes
coefficient the most energy? (4.5)
of ___ friction. (3.3) (a) residential (b) commercial
9. Newton’s third-law force pair acts on ___ objects. (3.4) (c) industry (d) transportation
10. The universal gravitational constant is believed to be constant 13. Which one of the following would not be classified as a total
___. (3.5) alternative fuel source? (4.6)
11. An object will sink in a fluid if its average density is ___ than that (a) photocells (b) gasohol (c) windmills (d) wood
of the fluid. (3.7) 14. Which of the following renewable energy sources currently
12. Milk is ___ dense than the cream that floats on top. (3.7) produces
13. The total linear momentum is not conserved if there is a(n) ___ the most energy?
force acting on the system. (3.7) (a) wind power
14. The angular momentum of an object is not conserved if the object (b) solar power
is acted upon by unbalanced ___. (3.7) (c) hydropower
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate (d) tidal power
Key Word from the preceding list. Compare your answers Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
with those at the back of the book. 1. Work is equal to the force times the ___ distance through which
a. _____ The ability to do work the force acts. (4.1)
b. _____ Time rate of doing work 2. Work is a ___ quantity. (4.1)
c. _____ SI unit of energy 3. The unit N ? m is given the special name of ___ . (4.1)
d. _____ British unit of power 4. When energy is transferred from one object to another, ___ is
e. _____ Equal to work done against gravity done. (4.2)
f. _____ Energy of position 5. Mechanical energy consists of ___ and potential energy. (4.2)
g. _____ A process of transferring energy 6. The stopping distance of an automobile on a level road depends
h. _____ British unit of work on the ___ of the speed. (4.2)
i. _____ Energy sources that cannot be exhausted 7. Work is a process of ___ energy. (4.2)
j. _____ SI unit of power 8. The total energy of a(n) ___ system remains constant. (4.3)
k. _____ Ek 1 Ep 5 a constant 9. Power is the time rate of doing ___ . (4.4)
l. _____ Energy of motion 10. A horsepower is equal to about ___ kW. (4.4)
m. _____ Unit of electrical energy 11. The kilowatt-hour (kWh) is a unit of ___ . (4.4)
n. _____ Requires an isolated system 12. In the United States, ___ is the most consumed fuel in generating
o. _____ Energy sources other than fossil fuels and nuclear electricity. (4.5)
reactions 13. Renewable energy sources cannot be ___ . (4.6)
MULTIPLECHOICE 14. Gasohol is gasoline mixed with ___ . (4.6)
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book. For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate
1. Work is done on an object when it is (4.1) Key Word from the preceding list. Compare your answers
(a) moved with those at the back of the book.
(b) stationary a. _____ Water has one of the highest
(c) acted on by a balanced force b. _____ Food Calorie
(d) none of the preceding c. _____ Transfer of heat by electromagnetic waves
2. Which of the following is a unit of work? (4.1) d. _____ Can never attain absolute zero
(a) W (b) J ? s (c) N/s (d) N ? m e. _____ Transfer of heat by molecular collisions
3. What is the SI unit of energy? (4.2) f. _____ A measure of average molecular kinetic energy
(a) ft ? lb (b) newton (c) watt (d) joule g. _____ Solid, liquid, and gas
4. Which of the following objects has the greatest kinetic energy? h. _____ Never decreases in an isolated system
(4.2) i. _____ Scale based on absolute zero
j. _____ Heat associated with a phase change
k. _____ Common temperature scale in the United States
l. _____ Describes gases in terms of moving molecules
m. _____ Raises the temperature of one gram of water one Celsius
degree
n. _____ Same size as a degree Celsius
o. _____ Transfer of heat by mass movement
p. _____ Thermodynamic conservation of energy
q. _____ p ~ NT/V
r. _____ Common temperature scale worldwide
s. _____ Uses work to transfer heat to a high-temperature reservoir
t. _____ Raises the temperature of one pound of water one
Fahrenheit degree
u. _____ Force per unit area
v. _____ Tells what can and what cannot happen
thermodynamically
w. _____ Energy transferred because of temperature difference
x. _____ The dynamics of heat
y. _____ Converts heat into work
MULTIPLECHOICE
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. Temperature is ____ . (5.1)
(a) a measure of heat
(b) a relative measure of hotness and coldness
(c) internal energy in transit
(d) both (b) and (c)
2. Which unit of the following is smaller? (5.2)
(a) a degree Fahrenheit
(b) a kelvin
(c) a degree Celsius
3. Which of the following is the largest unit of heat energy? (5.2)
(a) kilocalorie (b) calorie (c) joule (d) Btu
4. The specific heat of substance A is 10 times that of substance B.
If equal amounts of heat are added to equal masses of the substances,
then the temperature increase of substance A would be
____ . (5.3)
(a) the same as that of B (b) 10 times that of B
(c) one-tenth that of B (d) none of the preceding
5. Which of the following methods of heat transfer generally
involves mass movement? (5.4)
(a) conduction (b) convection (c) radiation
6. The heat we get from the Sun is transferred through space by
which process? (5.4)
(a) conduction (b) convection
(c) radiation (d) all of the preceding
7. In which of the following is intermolecular bonding greatest?
(5.5)
(a) solids (b) liquids (c) gases
8. Which of the following has a definite volume but no definite
shape? (5.5)
(a) solid (b) liquid (c) gas (d) plasma
9. Pressure is defined as (5.6)
(a) force (b) force times area
(c) area divided by force (d) force divided by area
10. When we use the ideal gas law, the temperature must be in
which of the following units? (5.6)
(a) 8C (b) 8F (c) K
11. When heat is added to a system, it goes into which of the
following?
(5.7)
(a) doing work only
(b) adding to the internal energy only
(c) doing work, increasing the internal energy, or both
12. The direction of a natural process is indicated by which of the
following? (5.7)
(a) conservation of energy
(b) change in entropy
(c) thermal efficiency
(d) specific heat
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. When a bimetallic strip is heated, it bends toward the metal with
the ___ thermal expansion. (5.1)
2. A ___ difference is necessary for net heat transfer. (5.2)
3. The food Calorie is equal to ___ calories. (5.2)
4. From the equation H 5 mc DT, it can be seen that the SI units of
specific heat are ___. (5.3)
5. The latent heat of vaporization for water is almost ___ times as
great as its latent heat of fusion. (5.3)
6. The boiling point of water may be increased by increasing ___.
(5.3)
7. Electrons contribute significantly to the ___ heat transfer process
in metals. (5.4)
8. The ___ phase of matter has no definite shape, and no definite
volume. (5.4)
9. Pressure is defined as force per ___. (5.5)
10. In the ideal gas law, pressure is ___ proportional to volume. (5.5)
11. The second law of thermodynamics essentially gives the ___ of a
process. (5.7)
12. The household refrigerator is a heat ___
MATCHING
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate
Key Word from the preceding list. Compare your answers
with those at the back of the book.
a. _____ Particle motion and wave velocity parallel
b. _____ In air, its value is 344 m/s at 208C
c. _____ A spectrum of waves, including visible light
d. _____ Maximum displacement of wave particle
e. _____ Indicates movement of a receding source
f. _____ Time to travel one wavelength
g. _____ Waveforms caused by wave interference
h. _____ Longitudinal waves that propagate through matter
i. _____ Propagation of energy after a disturbance
j. _____ Maximum energy transfer to a system
k. _____ Rate of transfer of sound energy through a given area
l. _____ Number of oscillations per time
m. _____ f . 20,000 Hz
n. _____ 3.00 3 108 m/s
o. _____ Particle motion perpendicular to wave velocity
p. _____ Equal to l/T
q. _____ Regions of sound
r. _____ Unit of sound intensity level
s. _____ Apparent change of frequency because of relative motion
t. _____ Unit equivalent to 1/s
u. _____ Distance between two wave maxima
MULTIPLECHOICE
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. A wave with particle oscillation parallel to the direction of
propagation
is a(n) _____ . (6.2)
(a) transverse wave (b) longitudinal wave
(c) light wave (d) none of the preceding
2. If a piece of ribbon were tied to a stretched string carrying a
transverse wave, then how is the ribbon observed to oscillate?
(6.2)
(a) perpendicular to wave direction
(b) parallel to wave direction
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)
3. The energy of a wave is related to the square of which of the
following?
(6.2)
(a) amplitude (b) frequency
(c) wavelength (d) period
4. How fast do electromagnetic waves travel in vacuum? (6.3)
(a) 3.00 3 108 m/s (b) 9.8 m/s2
(c) 344 m/s (d) 3.44 3 106 m/s
5. Which of the following is true for electromagnetic waves? (6.3)
(a) They have different speeds in vacuum for different
frequencies.
(b) They are longitudinal waves.
(c) They require a medium for propagation.
(d) None of the preceding is true.
6. Which one of the following regions has frequencies just slightly
less than the visible region in the electromagnetic frequency
spectrum?
(6.3)
(a) radio wave (b) ultraviolet
(c) microwave (d) infrared
7. The speed of sound is generally greatest in ____ . (6.4)
(a) gases (b) liquids (c) solids (d) vacuum
8. Which of the following sound frequencies would not be heard by
the human ear? (6.4)
(a) 25 Hz (b) 900 Hz
(c) 20 kHz (d) 25 kHz
9. A sound with an intensity level of 30 dB is how many times
louder than the threshold of hearing? (6.4)
(a) 10 (b) 3000 (c) 100 (d) 1000
10. A moving observer approaches a stationary sound source. What
does the observer hear? (6.5)
(a) an increase in frequency
(b) a decrease in frequency
(c) the same frequency as the source
11. Which of the following properties does not change in the Doppler
effect?
(a) wavelength (b) speed
(c) frequency (d) period
12. If an astronomical light source were moving toward us, then
what would be observed? (6.5)
(a) a blueshift
(b) a shift toward longer wavelengths
(c) a shift toward lower frequencies
(d) a sonic boom
13. Which of the following occur(s) when a stretched string is
shaken at one of its natural frequencies? (6.6)
(a) standing waves (b) resonance
(c) maximum energy transfer (d) all of the preceding
Short Answer 155
FILLINTHEBLANK
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. Waves involve the propagation of ___. (6.1)
2. Wave velocity and particle motion are ___ in transverse waves.
(6.2)
3. The distance from one wave crest to an adjacent wave crest is
called a(n) ___. (6.2)
4. Wave speed is equal to the wavelength times the ___. (6.2)
5. In vacuum electromagnetic waves travel at the speed of ___. (6.3)
6. Light waves are ___ waves. (6.3)
7. Sound waves are ___ waves. (6.4)
8. The audible region is above a frequency of ___ Hz. (6.4)
9. Decibels are used to measure the sound property of ___. (6.4)
10. To double the loudness, or sound intensity, a dB difference of
___ is needed. (6.4)
11. In the Doppler effect, when a moving sound source approaches a
stationary observer, the apparent shift in frequency is ___. (6.5)
12. A Doppler blueshift in light from a star indicates that the star is
___. (6.5)
13. Resonance occurs at ___ frequencies. (6.6)
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers
with those at the back of the book.
a. _____ Reflection from a very smooth surface
b. _____ Image for which light rays diverge and cannot form an
image
c. _____ Parallel light rays appear to diverge from mirror focal point
d. _____ Amplitude of combined wave form is greater
e. _____ An image that can be formed on a screen
f. _____ A change in direction when going from one medium into
another
g. _____ Combined waveform is given by sum of individual
displacements
h. _____ A change in the direction of light at a surface
i. _____ Parallel light rays converge and pass through mirror focal
point
j. _____ Amplitude of combined wave form is smaller
k. _____ Reflection from a relatively rough surface
l. _____ Lens thicker at the edge than at the center
m. _____ Distance from vertex to focal point
n. _____ Reflection back into same medium
o. _____ Preferential orientation of field vectors
p. _____ A straight line that represents the path of light
q. _____ Bending of light waves passing through slits and around
corners
r. _____ Ratio of light speeds in vacuum and medium
s. _____ Refraction of wavelengths at slightly different angles
t. _____ Light that is plane polarized
u. _____ ui 5 ur
v. _____ Lens thicker at the center than at the edge
MULTIPLECHOICE
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. For ray reflections from a surface, which statement is true? (7.1)
(a) The angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence.
(b) The reflection angle is measured from a line perpendicular to
the reflecting surface.
(c) The rays lie in the same plane.
(d) All the preceding are true.
2. To what does the law of reflection apply? (7.1)
(a) regular reflection
(b) specular reflection
(c) diffuse reflection
(d) all the preceding
3. What is the case when the angle of refraction is smaller than the
angle of incidence? (7.2)
(a) The critical angle is exceeded.
(b) The first medium is less dense.
(c) The second medium has a smaller index of refraction.
(d) The speed of light is greater in the second medium.
4. In refraction, which of the following wave properties is
unchanged? (7.2)
(a) frequency (b) wavelength
(c) speed (d) both (a) and (b)
5. What is the unit of the index of refraction? (7.2)
(a) m (b) none; it is unitless
(c) m/s (d) l/s
6. Which is true of a convex mirror? (7.3)
(a) It has a radius of curvature equal to f.
(b) It is a converging mirror.
(c) It forms only virtual images.
(d) It forms magnified and reduced images.
7. Which is true for a real image? (7.3)
(a) It is always magnified.
(b) It is formed by converging light rays.
(c) It is formed behind a mirror.
(d) It occurs only for Di 5 Do.
8. Which of the following is true of a concave lens? (7.4)
(a) It is a converging lens.
(b) It is thicker at the center than at the edge.
(c) It is a lens that forms virtual images for Do . f.
(d) It is a lens that forms real images for Do , f.
9. Which is true of a virtual image? (7.4)
(a) It is always formed by a convex lens.
(b) It can be formed on a screen.
(c) It is formed on the object side of a lens.
(d) It cannot be formed by a concave lens.
10. What happens when the polarization directions of two polarizing
sheets are at an angle of 908 to each other? (7.5)
(a) No light gets through.
(b) There is maximum transmission.
(c) Maximum transmission is reduced by 50%.
(d) None of the preceding.
11. Which is true of diffraction? (7.6)
(a) It occurs best when the slit width is less than the wavelength
of a wave.
(b) It depends on refraction.
(c) It is caused by interference.
(d) It does not occur for light.
12. When does total constructive interference occur? (7.6)
(a) when waves are in phase
(b) at the same time as total destructive interference
(c) when the waves are equal in amplitude and are completely
out of phase
(d) when total internal reflection occurs
Short Answer 189
FILLINTHEBLANK
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. Light rays are used in ___ optics. (Intro)
2. Reflection from a rough surface is referred to as ___ reflection.
(7.1)
3. The index of refraction is the ratio of the speed of light in a
medium to the speed of light in a(n) ___. (7.2)
4. When light passes obliquely into a denser medium, the light rays
are bent ___ the normal. (7.2)
5. When light is reflected and none is refracted at an interface, it is
called ___ reflection. (7.2)
6. A concave mirror is commonly called a ___ mirror. (7.3)
7. A virtual image ___ be formed on a screen. (7.3)
8. A diverging lens is ___ at the center than at the edge. (7.4)
9. A virtual image is always formed by a(n) ___ lens. (7.4)
10. Polarization is proof that light is a(n) ___ wave. (7.5)
11. The larger the wavelength compared to the size of an opening or
object, the ___ the diffraction. (7.6)
12. The resultant waveform of combining waves is described by the
___.
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers
with those at the back of the book.
a. _____ Positively charged particles
b. _____ Angle between true north and magnetic north
c. _____ IV
d. _____ Unlike charges attract; like charges repel
e. _____ Interaction of electrical and magnetic effects
f. _____ A fundamental quantity
g. _____ Steps voltages up and down
h. _____ Relates voltage and current to resistance
i. _____ Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
j. _____ Negatively charged particles
k. _____ Imaginary lines indicating magnetic direction
l. _____ Describes the force between charged particles
m. _____ Highly magnetic material
n. _____ Produced by a constantly changing voltage
o. _____ Time rate of flow of electric charge
p. _____ Unlike poles attract; like poles repel
q. _____ Equals W/q
r. _____ Same current through all resistances
s. _____ Opposition to charge flow
t. _____ Local regions of alignment
u. _____ Net electron flow in one direction
v. _____ Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
w. _____ Results from separating electrical charges
x. _____ Voltage across each resistance is the same
y. _____ E 5 F/q1 mapping
MULTIPLECHOICE
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. What can be said about the electric force between two charged
particles?
(a) it is repulsive for unlike charges.
(b) it varies as 1/r.
(c) it depends only on the magnitudes of the charges.
(d) it is much, much greater than the attractive gravitational
force.
2. Two equal positive charges are placed equidistant on either side
of another positive charge. What would the middle positive
charge experience? (8.1)
(a) a net force to the right (b) a net force to the left
(c) a zero net force
3. In a dc circuit, how do electrons move? (8.2)
(a) with a slow drift velocity.
(b) in alternate directions.
(c) near the speed of light.
(d) none of the preceding.
4. What is a unit of voltage? (8.2)
(a) joule (b) joule/coulomb
(c) amp-coulomb (d) amp/coulomb
5. In electrical terms, power has what units? (8.2)
(a) joule/coulomb (b) amp/ohm
(c) amp-coulomb (d) amp-volt
6. Appliances with heating elements require which of the following?
(8.3)
(a) a large current (b) a large resistance
(c) a low joule heat
7. The greatest equivalent resistance occurs when resistances are
connected in which type of arrangement? (8.3)
(a) series (b) parallel (c) series–parallel
8. Given three resistances, the greatest current occurs in a battery
circuit when the resistances are connected in what type of
arrangement? (8.3)
(a) series (b) parallel (c) series–parallel
Short Answer 223
9. When two bar magnets are near each other, the north pole of
one of the magnets experiences what type of force from the other
magnet? (8.4)
(a) an attractive force
(b) a repulsive force
(c) a Coulomb force
(d) both (a) and (b)
10. What is the variation in the location of the Earth’s magnetic north
pole from true north given by? (8.4)
(a) the law of poles (b) the magnetic field
(c) magnetic domains (d) the magnetic declination
11. What type of energy conversion does a motor perform? (8.5)
(a) chemical energy into mechanical energy
(b) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(c) electrical energy into mechanical energy
(d) mechanical energy into chemical energy
12. What type of energy conversion does a generator perform? (8.5)
(a) chemical energy into mechanical energy
(b) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(c) electrical energy into mechanical energy
(d) mechanical energy into chemical energy
13. Which of the following is true of a step-up transformer? (8.5)
(a) It has an equal number of windings on the primary and secondary
coils.
(b) It has fewer windings on the secondary coil.
(c) It has fewer windings on the primary coil.
(d) None of the preceding statements is true.
14. A transformer with more windings on the primary coil than on
the secondary coil does which of the following? (8.4)
(a) Steps up the voltage.
(b) Steps up the current.
(c) Steps up both current and voltage.
(d) Will operate off dc current.
FILLINTHEBLANK
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. An object with a deficiency of electrons is ___ charged. (8.1)
2. The unit of electric current is the___. (8.1)
3. ___ are neither good conductors nor good insulators. (8.1)
4. Voltage is defined as work per___. (8.2)
5. An electric circuit that is not a complete path is called a(n) ___
circuit. (8.2)
6. The unit of resistance is the ___. (8.2)
7. Another name for joule heat is ___ losses. (8.2)
8. A battery-powered device uses ___ current. (8.3)
9. In a circuit with resistances connected in parallel, the total
resistance
is always less than the ___ resistance. (8.3)
10. A material ceases to be ferromagnetic above the ___ temperature.
(8.4)
11. Magnetic north is generally in the direction of the___ north pole.
(8.4)
12. A step-up transformer has more windings on the ___ coil. (8.5)
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers
with those at the back of the book.
a. _____ The electron level of lowest energy in an atom
b. _____ Type of spectrum given by light from a gas-discharge tube
c. _____ A discrete amount, or packet, of energy
d. _____ A device based on light amplification by stimulated emission
of radiation
e. _____ Type of spectrum obtained when white light is passed
through a cool gas
f. _____ Branch of physics based on synthesis of wave and quantum
ideas
g. _____ The basic particles of elements
h. _____ It is impossible to know a particle’s exact position and
velocity simultaneously
i. _____ Electron emission by some metals when exposed to light
j. _____ Negatively charged particles that are components of all
atoms
k. _____ High-frequency electromagnetic radiation produced when
high-speed electrons strike a metal target
l. _____ Light has both wave-like and particle-like characteristics
m. _____ Integer that identifies a Bohr orbit
n. _____ Waves associated with moving particles
o. _____ A quantum of electromagnetic radiation
p. _____ Process wherein an excited atom is struck by a photon
and emits additional photons
q. _____ Electron levels of higher-than-normal energy
MULTIPLECHOICE
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. Who championed the idea of the atom about 400 BCE? (9.1)
(a) Aristotle (b) Plato
(c) Democritus (d) Archimedes
2. Which scientist is associated with the “plum pudding model”
of the atom? (9.1)
(a) Thomson (b) Rutherford (c) Bohr (d) Dalton
3. Planck developed his quantum hypothesis to explain which
of these phenomena? (9.2)
(a) the ultraviolet catastrophe (b) line spectra
(c) the photoelectric effect (d) uncertainty
4. Light of which of the following colors has the greatest photon ones
energy? (9.2) c. _____ Neutral particles in atoms
(a) red (b) orange (c) yellow (d) violet d. _____ Spontaneous process of nuclei changing by emitting particles
5. The Bohr theory was developed to explain which of these or rays
phenomena? e. _____ Negatively charged particles in atoms
(9.3) f. _____ Radioactive decay in which electrons are emitted
(a) energy levels (b) the photoelectric effect g. _____ Specific types of nuclei that are unstable
(c) line spectra (d) quantum numbers h. _____ A, the number of protons plus neutrons in a nucleus
6. In which of the following states does a hydrogen electron have i. _____ The central core of an atom
the greatest energy? (9.3) j. _____ Process in which a large nucleus splits and emits neutrons
(a) n 5 1 (b) n 5 3 (c) n 5 5 (d) n 5 7.5 k. _____ Used to date organic objects
7. Bombarding a metal anode with high-energy electrons produces l. _____ Positively charged particles in atoms
which of the following? (9.4) m. _____ A hot gas of electrons and ions
(a) laser light (b) X-rays (c) microwaves (d) neutrons n. _____ Z, the number of protons in an atom
8. The “s” in the acronym laser stands for (9.4) o. _____ The minimum amount of fissionable material needed to
(a) simple (b) specific sustain a chain reaction
(c) spontaneous (d) stimulated p. _____ N, the number of neutrons in a nucleus
9. Which of the following does a laser do? q. _____ The weighted average mass of atoms of an element in a
(a) amplifies light naturally occurring sample
(b) produces monochromatic light r. _____ Disintegration of a nucleus, with the emission of a helium
(c) produces coherent light nucleus
(d) all the preceding s. _____ A substance in which all the atoms have the same number
10. Limitations on measurements are described by which of the of protons
following? t. _____ The time it takes for the decay of half the atoms in a
(9.5) sample
(a) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle u. _____ Process in which one initial reaction triggers a growing
(b) de Broglie’s hypothesis number of subsequent reactions
(c) Schrödinger’s equation v. _____ Collective term for nuclear protons and neutrons
(d) Einstein’s special theory of relativity w. _____ Forms of atoms having the same number of protons but
11. Which of the following pairs of particle properties is it impossible differing in number of neutrons
to determine exactly and simultaneously? (9.5) x. _____ The decrease in mass during a nuclear reaction
(a) charge and mass (b) position and velocity y. _____ Disintegration of a nucleus, with the emission of a highenergy
(c) charge and position (d) velocity and momentum photon
12. What scientist first hypothesized matter waves? (9.6) z. _____ Do not exist outside of the nucleus
(a) Schrödinger (b) de Broglie MULTIPLECHOICE
(c) Heisenberg (d) Einstein Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
13. According to the de Broglie hypothesis, how is the wavelength 1. Which scientist devised the symbol notation we now use for
associated with a moving particle? elements? (10.1)
(a) It is independent of mass. (a) Newton
(b) It is longer the greater the speed of the particle. (b) Berzelius
(c) It easily shows diffraction effects. (c) Dalton
(d) None of the preceding. (d) Einstein
14. Why did the Bohr model need improvement? (9.7) 2. What is the symbol notation for the element potassium? (10.1)
(a) It worked only for the hydrogen atom. (a) P (b) Po (c) Pt (d) K
(b) It did not explain why the atom is quantized. 3. How many neutrons are in the nucleus of the atom 35
(c) It did not explain why an electron does not emit radiation 17Cl ? (10.2)
as it orbits. (a) 35 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 52
(d) All these answers are correct. 4. Is a nucleon (a) a proton, (b) a neutron, (c) an electron, or
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book. (d) both a proton and a neutron? (10.2)
1. The subatomic particle called the ___ was discovered by J. J. 5. Which radioactive decay mode does not result in a different
Thomson. (9.1) nuclide? (10.3)
2. The scientist associated with the “nuclear model” of the atom is (a) alpha (b) beta
___. (9.1) (c) gamma (d) all the preceding
3. In the equation E 5 hf, the h is called ___. (9.2) 6. What is the missing particle in the nuclear decay
4. A quantum of electromagnetic radiation is commonly called a(n) 179
___. (9.2) 79Au S 175
5. In the Bohr model, as n increases, the distance of the electron 77Ir 1 ? (10.3)
from the nucleus ___. (9.3) (a) deuteron
6. When analyzed with a spectrometer, light from an incandescent (b) neutron
source produces a(n) ___ spectrum. (9.3) (c) beta particle
7. A photon is absorbed when an electron makes a transition from (d) alpha particle
one energy level to a(n) ___ one. (9.3) Short Answer 291
8. Microwave ovens heat substances mainly by exciting molecules 7. The majority of stable isotopes belong to which category? (10.3)
of ___. (9.4) (a) odd–odd
9. The X in X-ray stands for ___. (9.4) (b) even–even
10. Heisenberg’s ___ principle is of practical importance only with (c) even–odd
particles of atomic or subatomic size. (9.5) (d) odd–even
11. According to de Broglie’s hypothesis, a moving particle has a(n) 8. Which of the following scientists discovered radioactivity? (10.3)
___ associated with it. (9.6) (a) Rutherford
12. In the electron cloud model of the atom, the electron’s location is (b) Heisenberg
stated in terms of ___. (c) Becquerel
(d) Pierre Curie
MATCHING 9. How many half-lives would it take for a sample of a radio-
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate active isotope to decrease its activity to 1
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers 32 of the original
with those at the back of the book. amount? (10.3)
a. _____ Fundamental force that holds the nucleus together (a) 5 (b) 16 (c) 6 (d) 32
b. _____ Process in which smaller nuclei combine to form larger 10. Which of the following is not conserved in all nuclear reactions?
(a) nucleons Bettmann/CORBIS
(b) mass number, Fill in the Blank 319
(c) atomic number MULTIPLECHOICE
(d) neutron number Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
11. Which of the following completes the reaction 1. Which scientist is often referred to as the “Father of Chemistry”?
21 (Intro)
H 1 98 (a) Boyle (b) Lavoisier
42Mo S 1 10 (c) Berzelius (d) Mendeleev
n ? (10.4) 2. A solute crystal dissolves when added to a solution. What type
(a) 97 was the original solution? (11.1)
42Mo (b) 100 (a) saturated (b) supersaturated
44Ru (c) unsaturated (d) presaturated
(c) 99 3. Which of these scientists in 1661 defined element in a manner
43Tc (d) 93 that made it subject to laboratory testing? (11.2)
41Nb (a) Boyle (b) Davy
12. What is the appropriate procedure to decrease the heat output of (c) Berzelius (d) Mendeleev
a fission reactor core during a crisis? (10.5) 4. Which of these is a synthetic element? (11.2)
(a) Insert the control rods farther. (a) oxygen (8) (b) roentgenium (111)
(b) Remove fuel rods. (c) uranium (92) (d) iodine (53)
(c) Increase the level of coolant. 5. Which one of these elements normally exists as a gas of diatomic
(d) Decrease the amount of moderator. molecules? (11.3)
13. What is a very hot gas of nuclei and electrons called? (10.6) (a) iodine (b) argon
(a) tokomak (c) sulfur (d) chlorine
(b) laser 6. Which element is the most common in the Earth’s crust? (11.3)
(c) plasma (a) silicon (b) magnesium
(d) ideal gas (c) oxygen (d) aluminum
14. Which unit is most closely associated with the biological effects 7. What is the Group IIIA element in Period 2? (11.4)
of radiation? (10.7) (a) Mg (b) Sc
(a) the curie (c) B (d) Ga
(b) the rem 8. Which one of these elements has the greatest atomic size? (11.4)
(c) the becquerel (a) lithium (b) fluorine
(d) the cpm (c) potassium (d) bromine
15. What is the theoretical exchange particle for the nuclear weak 9. Which one of these elements has the greatest metallic character?
force? (10.8) (11.4)
(a) Z particle (a) nickel (b) barium
(b) pion (c) fluorine (d) bromine
(c) graviton 10. Which of these is the preferred name for Na2SO4? (11.5)
(d) gluon I L L I N T H E B L A N K (a) sodium sulfide (b) disodium sulfide
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book. (c) disodium sulfate (d) sodium sulfate
1. K is the symbol for the element ___. (10.1) 11. Which of these is the preferred name for Na2S? (11.5)
2. All atomic masses are based on an atom of ___. (10.2) (a) sodium sulfide
3. The collective name for neutrons and protons in a nucleus is ___. (b) disodium sulfide
(10.2) (c) disodium sulfate
4. Carbon-12, carbon-13, and carbon-14 are ___. (10.2) (d) sodium sulfate
5. No stable nuclides exist that have Z greater than ___. (10.3) 12. Which one of these is a halogen compound? (11.6)
6. The nuclear notation 0 (a) Mg(OH)2 (b) Na2S
21e refers to a(n) ___. (10.3) (c) AlCl3 (d) (NH4)3P
7. The amount of a radioactive isotope will have dropped to i. _____ A pure substance in which all atoms have the same number
12.5% of what it was originally after ___ half-lives have elapsed. of protons
(10.3) j. _____ Can be broken into its component elements only by
8. The proton number of the daughter nucleus in beta decay is ___ chemical processes
than that of the parent nucleus. (10.3) k. _____ The elements of Group 1A, except hydrogen
9. In nuclear reactions, both atomic number and ___ are conserved. l. _____ The elements magnesium, calcium, and barium are part
(10.4) of this group
10. For an atomic bomb to explode, a(n) ____ mass is necessary. m. _____ Fluorine, chlorine, and iodine are part of this group
(10.5) n. _____ The elements of Group 8A
11. In discussions of nuclear fusion reactions, the letter D stands for o. _____ Matter composed of varying proportions of two or more
___. (10.6) physically mixed substances
12. Of the average amount of radiation received by a person in the p. _____ Forms of the same element that have different bonding
United States, ___% comes from natural sources. (10.7) structures in the same phase
13. All hadrons are believed to be made up of ____. q. _____ An element whose atoms tend to gain or share electrons
r. _____ An element whose atoms tend to lose electrons
MATCHING s. _____ The amount of solute that will dissolve in a specified
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate amount of solvent at a given temperature
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers t. _____ A homogeneous mixture
with those at the back of the book. u. _____ The electrons involved in forming chemical bonds
a. _____ The elements in Groups 1A through 8A v. _____ The vertical columns of the periodic table
b. _____ The lanthanides and actinides w. _____ The horizontal rows of the periodic table
c. _____ The elements in Groups 1B through 8B x. _____ The order of electrons in the energy levels of an atom
d. _____ An atom or chemical combination of atoms with a net y. _____ The amount of energy it takes to remove an electron from
electric charge an atom
e. _____ The outer shell of an atom FILLINTHEBLANK
f. _____ Physical science dealing with the composition and structure Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
of matter 1. ____ is the study of compounds that contain carbon and hydrogen.
g. _____ An electrically neutral particle composed of two or more (Intro)
chemically bonded atoms 2. In a solution, the substance present in the largest amount is
h. _____ The properties of elements are periodic functions of their called the ___. (11.1)
atomic numbers 3. Hot water dissolves ____ solute than the same amount of cold
water. (11.1)
4. Boyle championed the need for ___ in science. (11.2)
5. The individual units making up substances such as water and
methane are called ___. (11.3)
6. The most abundant metal in the Earth’s crust is ___. (11.3)
7. The allotrope of oxygen called ozone has the chemical formula
___. (11.3)
8. In 1869, a scientist named ___ developed the periodic table.
(11.4)
9. Atoms of elements of Group 4A all contain ___ valence electrons.
(11.4)
10. The metallic character of the elements ___ as you go down a
group and decreases across a period.
11. The name of the NO3
2 polyatomic ion is ___. (11.5)
12. The common name for the compound NaOH is ___. (11.6)
MATCHING
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers
with those at the back of the book.
a. _____ General term for positive ions
b. _____ A molecule having an end that is slightly positive and an
end that is slightly negative
c. _____ Compounds tend to achieve electron configurations of the
noble gases
d. _____ Compounds in which pairs of electrons are shared
e. _____ A starting material that is completely used up in a reaction
f. _____ A measure of an atom’s ability to attract bonding electrons
to itself
g. _____ A pair of electrons shared between two atoms
h. _____ Shows, as dots, only the valence electrons of an atom or
ion
i. _____ General term for negative ions
j. _____ The attraction that occurs between an atom of H and an
atom of O, F, or N in another molecule
k. _____ No detectable change in mass occurs during a chemical
reaction
l. _____ A starting material that is not completely used up in a
reactant
m. _____ Electrical attractions that hold ions together
n. _____ Different samples of a pure compound contain the same
elements in the same proportion by mass
o. _____ Nomenclature used to give the value of the ionic charge
of a metal, such as CrCl2 chromium(II) chloride
p. _____ Shows the structure of a molecule or formula unit using
dots and dashes for electrons
q. _____ The sum of the atomic masses given in the formula of a
substance
r. _____ A bond formed by unequal sharing of an electron pair
s. _____ Compounds formed by an electron transfer process
MULTIPLECHOICE
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. Which one of these three forces is responsible for chemical
bonding?
(Intro)
(a) gravitational (b) electromagnetic (c) strong nuclear
2. What quantity remains unchanged in a chemical reaction? (12.1)
(a) mass (b) crystal shape (c) color (d) phase
3. How many total atoms would be in one formula unit of
(NH4)3PO4? (12.2)
(a) 4 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 20
4. A sample of compound AB decomposes to 48 g of A and 12 g of
B. Another sample of the same compound AB decomposes to 24
g of A. Predict the number of grams of B obtained. (12.2)
(a) 12 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 3
5. Which scientist is responsible for our first atomic theory? (12.3)
(a) Lavoisier (b) Proust (c) Dalton (d) Lewis
6. Which of the following statements comparing the compounds
CO and CO2 is true? (12.3)
(a) The atom of oxygen weighs less in CO2 than in CO.
(b) Both compounds have the same formula mass.
(c) The atom of carbon weighs more in CO2 than in CO.
(d) The mass ratio of oxygen to carbon is equal to the atom ratio
in both compounds.
7. What is the normal charge on an ion of sulfur? (12.4)
(a) 62 (b) 61 (c) 22 (d) 21
8. An ionic compound formed between a Group 2A element M and
a Group 7A element X would have what general formula? (12.4)
(a) M2X (b) M7X2 (c) MX2 (d) M2X7
9. Which of the following is the formula for iron(III) bromide?
(12.4)
(a) FeBr (b) Fe3Br (c) Fe2Br3 (d) FeBr3
10. Carbon is a Group 4A element. How many covalent bonds are
there in methane, CH4? (12.5)
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8
11. How many shared pairs of electrons are in an ammonia molecule
NH3? (12.5)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
12. Which one is definitely a covalent compound? (12.5)
(a) TiCl2 (b) NO2 (c) Na2O (d) CaSO4
13. Which element in the periodic table has the highest
electronegativity
value? (12.5)
(a) fluorine (b) oxygen
(c) lithium (d) bismuth
14. In which one of these compounds does hydrogen bonding
occur?(12.6)
(a) H2S (b) HF (c) PH3 (d) CH4
Short Answer 349
FILLINTHEBLANK
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. The total ___ before and after a reaction must be equal. (12.1)
2. “Dry ice” has the chemical formula ___. (12.2)
3. Dalton’s atomic theory explains the laws of conservation of mass
and ___. (12.3)
4. Atomic theory is the cornerstone of ___. (12.3)
5. The formula for copper(II) oxide is ___. (12.4)
6. An atom that has gained an electron is called a(n) ___. (12.4)
7. When bonding, a hydrogen atom tends to get ___ electrons, not
eight, in its valence shell. (12.4)
8. The formula of an ionic compound of a Group 1A element M and
a Group 6A element X is ___. (12.4)
9. Compounds that conduct an electric current when melted are
___. (12.5)
10. A covalent bond in which two atoms share two pairs of electrons
is called a(n) ___ bond. (12.5)
11. Electronegativity increases across a period and ___ down a
group. (12.5)
12. The highly electronegative atoms that are involved in hydrogen
bonding are oxygen, fluorine, and ___. (12.6)
MATCHING
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers
with those at the back of the book.
a. _____ Any substance that produces hydroxide ions in water
b. _____ The burning of wood is a common reaction of this type
c. _____ Term applied to any change that alters the composition of
a substance
d. _____ A measure of the concentration of hydrogen ion in a
solution
e. _____ A listing of metals in order of their tendency to lose electrons
to ions of another metal
f. _____ An insoluble solid that appears when two liquids are
mixed
g. _____ Reaction type when two or more substances combine to
form only one product
h. _____ Term applied to a gain of oxygen or a loss of electrons
i. _____ Any reaction that has a net release of energy to the
surroundings
j. _____ The general format of this type of reaction:
A 1 BC S B 1 AC
k. _____ The new substances formed in a chemical reaction
l. _____ Term applied to a loss of oxygen or a gain of electrons
m. _____ The energy necessary to start a chemical reaction
n. _____ An ionic compound that includes neither hydrogen ions
nor hydroxide ions
o. _____ A substance that increases the rate of a reaction but is not
itself consumed
p. _____ The number of particles in 1 mole
q. _____ Reaction that produces water, carbon dioxide, and a salt
r. _____ Any substance that gives hydrogen ions in water
s. _____ The general format of this type of reaction: AB S A 1 B
t. _____ The original substances in a chemical reaction
u. _____ Reaction that has a net absorption of energy from the
surroundings 4. In living systems, biological catalysts are called ___. (13.2)
v. _____ Term applied to two opposing reactions or processes 5. When the total bond energy of the products is ___ than that of
occurring at the same rate the reactants, the reaction will be exothermic. (13.2)
w. _____ Involves the combination of a hydrogen ion with a 6. A(n) ___ can increase the rate of reaction by providing a surface
hydroxide ion for the reaction. (13.2)
x. _____ The general format of this type of reaction: AB 1 CD S 7. An Arrhenius base is a substance that produces ___ ions in water.
AD 1 CB (13.3)
y. _____ The quantity of a substance that contains as many elementary 8. A pH of 7 indicates a(n) ___ solution. (13.3)
units as are in 12 g of carbon-12 9. A(n) ___ reaction is used to neutralize acid spills. (13.3)
z. _____ Moles of solute per liter of solution 10. A reaction in which both oxidation and reduction are occurring
Short Answer 379 is usually called a(n) ___ reaction. (13.4)
MULTIPLECHOICE 11. If element A is below element B in the activity series, then the
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book. reaction A 1 BC 4 B 1 AC ___ occur. (13.4)
1. When iron rusts in the presence of oxygen and water, which of 12. Thirty-six grams of water contain ___ moles of water. (13.5)
the following is occurring? (13.1)
(a) physical property MATCHING
(b) chemical property For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate
(c) physical change Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers
(d) chemical change with those at the back of the book.
2. How many aluminum atoms are indicated by “3 Al2O3”? (13.1) a. _____ Compounds that contain only the elements carbon and
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 18 hydrogen
3. What is the coefficient in front of Ag when the following equation b. _____ A long-chain molecule made up of repeating units called
is properly balanced? (13.1) Ag 1 H2S 1 O2 4 Ag2S 1 H2O monomers
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 c. _____ A hydrocarbon derivative that contains a halogen atom
4. What does a catalyst do to the activation energy of a chemical d. _____ Hydrocarbons that contain at least one carbon-to-carbon
reaction? (13.2) triple bond
(a) forms a precipitate in the reaction e. _____ Hydrocarbons having no benzene rings
(b) lowers the activation energy to start the reaction f. _____ Polymers formed from alkene monomers
(c) alters the chemical activity of one of the reactants g. _____ A substituent that contains one less hydrogen atom than
(d) changes the phase of the chemical products the corresponding alkane
5. In a combustion reaction, which products are typically produced? h. _____ The branch of chemistry that studies carbon compounds
(13.2) i. _____ Saturated hydrocarbons that have a ring structure
(a) CO2 and CO j. _____ Materials whose molecules have no duplicates in nature
(b) H2O and C7H16 k. _____ Hydrocarbons with at least one carbon-to-carbon double
(c) CH4 and CO2 bond
(d) CO2 and H2O l. _____ A carboxylic acid and an amine react to give this nitrogen-
6. Which of the following statements does not correctly describe a containing compound
basic solution? (13.3) m. _____ Generally, the most reactive part of a molecule
(a) The solution has a pH less than 7. n. _____ Ethylene glycol is a common example of this organic
(b) The solution conducts electricity. compound
(c) The solution changes the color of litmus dye from red to blue. o. _____ Important compounds used primarily in cells as an
(d) The solution contains a higher concentration of OH2 ions energy
than H1 ions. source
7. What is removed from a hydrated salt to make an anhydrous p. _____ Hydrocarbons that contain only single bonds and no ring
product? (13.3) structure
(a) carbon q. _____ These compounds come from animals and are generally
(b) oxygen solid at room temperature
(c) water r. _____ Long-chain polyamides formed from amino acids
(d) hydrogen s. _____ Hydrocarbons that possess one or more benzene rings
8. What is the pH of a solution ten times as acidic as one of pH 4? t. _____ The fundamental repeating unit of a polymer
(13.3) u. _____ Nitrogen-containing compounds that usually have strong,
(a) 3 (b) 14 (c) 5 (d) 26 foul odors
9. Oxidation can be defined as which of the following? (13.4) v. _____ An alkyl group combined with a carboxyl group
(a) a gain of electrons w. _____ Polymers formed from molecules having two or more
(b) a loss of oxygen reactive groups
(c) a loss of electrons x. _____ Alkyl halides used as refrigerants but harmful to the
(d) both (a) and (b) ozone layer
10. The reaction 3 Zn 1 2 Au(NO3)3(aq) 4 y. _____ A carboxylic acid and an alcohol react to give this
2 Au 1 2 Zn(NO3)2(aq) will occur if Zn is where relative pleasant-
to Au in the activity series? (13.4) smelling compound
(a) above z. _____ Compounds having the same molecular formula but
(b) to the right of it different
(c) below structural formulas
(d) to the left of it MULTIPLECHOICE
11. One mole of hydrogen peroxide, H2O2, would consist of how Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
many molecules? (13.5) 1. How many covalent bonds does an oxygen atom form? (14.1)
(a) 6.02 3 1023 (b) 1 (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) 34.0 3 6.02 3 1023 (d) 34.0 2. When a carbon atom bonds to four other atoms, what are the
12. One mole of hydrogen peroxide, H2O2, would consist of how bond angles? (14.1)
many grams? (13.5) (a) 1808 (b) 1208 (c) 1098 (d) 908
(a) 6.02 3 1023 (b) 17.0 3. Which of the following is the most common aromatic compound?
(c) 34.0 3 6.02 3 1023 (d) 34.0 (14.2)
FILLINTHEBLANK (a) benzedrine (b) ethylene
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book. (c) butane (d) benzene
1. Density and boiling point are ___ properties. (13.1) 4. How many electrons are shared by all the carbon atoms in a
2. A balanced chemical reaction has ___ number of atoms of each benzene
element on each side of the equation. (13.1) ring? (14.2)
3. A combination reaction has the format A 1 B 4 ___. (13.1) (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
5. A molecule of propane contains how many carbon atoms? (14.3) q. _____ The theoretical 1808 meridian
(a) three (b) five r. _____ The year of the seasons
(c) seven (d) eight s. _____ Half circles that are portions of a great circle
6. Which of the following is an ethyl group? (14.3) t. _____ The time of one rotation of the Earth with respect to the
(a) CH32 (b) CH3CH22 Sun
(c) CH2CH32 (d) CH2CH22 u. _____ Skips 3 leap years every 400 years
7. Which of the following is a correct formula for an alkyl halide? v. _____ The slow coning motion of the Earth’s axis
(14.4) w. _____ Zulu
(a) CH3Br (b) C7H16 MULTIPLECHOICE
(c) CH2NH2 (d) CH3CH2OH Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
8. Alcohols contain which group attached to an alkyl group? (14.4) 1. What must a coordinate system have? (15.1)
(a) amino (b) hydroxyl (a) an indicated origin
(c) halogen (d) carboxyl (b) only one dimension
9. Which of these are the best-known synthetic compounds? (14.5) (c) a scale with units
(a) plastics (d) both (a) and (c)
(b) monomers 2. Which of the following is true? (15.1) A Cartesian coordinate
(c) partially hydrogenated vegetable oils system
(d) amines (a) can be a two-dimensional system.
10. Which of the following is a condensation polymer? (14.5) (b) normally designates the horizontal line known as the x-axis.
(a) Teflon (b) PVC (c) normally designates the vertical line known as the y-axis.
(c) nylon (d) polyethylene (d) All of these are true.
11. Which process converts unsaturated fats into saturated fats? 3. Which of the following is true? (15.2) Latitude
(14.6) (a) is a linear measurement.
(a) carbonation (b) can have greater numerical values than longitude.
(b) oxidation (c) is measured in a north–south direction.
(c) hydrogenation (d) can have negative values.
(d) combustion 4. Which of the following is true? (15.2) Longitude
12. The metabolism of which of the following produces the most (a) can have a maximum value of 3608.
energy? (14.6) (b) is an angular measurement measured east or west.
(a) carbohydrates (c) is measured in units of kilometers.
(b) fats (d) is measured north or south of the equator.
(c) proteins 5. Which of the following is true of meridians? (15.2) Meridians
(d) acids (a) run east and west.
FILLINTHEBLANK (b) are halves of great circles.
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book. (c) are great circles.
1. Organic chemistry studies the compounds of the element named (d) All of these are true.
___. (Intro) 6. Which of the following is false? (15.2)
2. In organic compounds, a nitrogen atom forms ___ bonds. (14.1) (a) Parallels become smaller as the distance from the equator
3. ___ bonds are the type of bonds in organic compounds. (14.1) becomes greater.
4. Hydrocarbons are first divided into aromatic and ___. (14.2) (b) Parallels are all small circles.
5. ___ is the most important aromatic hydrocarbon. (14.2) (c) Parallels run east–west.
6. A compound with the general formula CnH2n is either an alkene (d) The equator is a parallel.
or a(n) ___. (14.3) 7. What is a mean solar day? (15.3)
7. Hexyne is a member of the ___ class of aliphatic hydrocarbons. (a) a day that begins at noon
(14.3) (b) a day with a really bad attitude
8. Organic compounds that contain a hydroxyl group are called (c) a day measured by the positions of distant stars
___. (14.4) (d) the average of all apparent solar days during 1 year
9. An amine and a carboxylic acid react to form water and a(n) ___. 8. When is the Sun overhead on a person’s meridian at local time?
(14.4) (15.3)
10. Two classes of synthetic polymers are addition and ___. (14.5) (a) 12 midnight
11. Velcro is made of ___, a widely used type of condensation polymer. (b) on June 21
(14.5) (c) 12 noon
12. Sucrose, common table sugar, is part of the ___ class of (d) all of these
compounds. 9. How does a solar day compare with a sidereal day? (15.3)
(14.6) (a) 4 minutes shorter than the sidereal day
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate (b) 2 minutes longer than the sidereal day
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers (c) 1 minute shorter than the sidereal day
with those at the back of the book. (d) 4 minutes longer than the sidereal day
a. _____ Circles parallel to the equator 10. During the month of January, how does the number of daylight
b. _____ Designates the beginning of winter hours at Washington, D.C., compare with the number of daylight
c. _____ Time used to save energy hours at Orlando, Florida? (15.3)
d. _____ The zero meridian (a) more than
e. _____ Occurs on or near March 21 (b) less than
f. _____ Angular measurement in degrees east or west of the prime (c) the same as
meridian 11. If the altitude of the Sun is measured to be 258, then what is the
g. _____ 908 2 altitude angle zenith angle? (15.4)
h. _____ The time of one revolution of the Earth with respect to a (a) 458
star other than the Sun (b) 558
i. _____ A rectangular coordinate system (c) 658
j. _____ The angle of the Sun above the horizon (d) none of these
k. _____ The time of one rotation of the Earth with respect to a star 12. Which of the following is used to measure altitude? (15.4)
other than the Sun (a) compass
l. _____ The equator, for example (b) sextant
m. _____ Designates the beginning of summer (c) clock
n. _____ Time referenced to atomic clocks (d) dead reckoning
o. _____ Angular measurement in degrees north and south of the 13. In early sailing days, what was used to determine longitude? (15.4)
equator (a) compass
p. _____ Occurs on or near September 22 (b) sextant
(c) clock
(d) GPS
14. Why does the Earth have seasons? (15.5)
(a) The Earth spins on its axis.
(b) The Earth orbits the Sun with the rotation axis tilted.
(c) The Earth is a spherical body.
(d) The Earth’s distance to the Sun changes as it orbits.
15. Which of the following is true for an observer at 208N? (15.5)
(a) always looks south to see the Sun
(b) observes the Sun directly overhead twice a year
(c) is near the Tropic of Capricorn
(d) none of the these
16. From September 22 to March 21, in what direction must an
observer in the Northern Hemisphere look to see sunrise? (15.5)
(a) east
(b) northeast
(c) southeast
(d) west
17. When does the longest day occur for latitudes greater than 2312
8S
in the Southern Hemisphere? (15.5)
(a) on the summer solstice
(b) on the winter solstice
(c) on the autumnal equinox
(d) on the vernal equinox
18. Which of the following is true for the Gregorian calendar? (15.5)
(a) It is based on lunar months.
(b) It is accurate to 1 day in 6000 years.
(c) It has a leap year every century year that is divisible by 4.
(d) It differs from the Julian calendar only in its name.
19. What can be said about the precession of the Earth’s axis? (15.6)
(a) maintains Polaris as the “North” Star
(b) changes the angle between the axis and the vertical
(c) has no important effect on the Earth’s seasons
(d) none of the these
20. What causes the precession of the Earth’s axis? (15.6)
(a) the tilt of the axis
(b) the Earth’s equatorial bulge
(c) the apparent north–south movement of the Sun
(d) gravitational torque
FILLINTHEBLANK
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. A Cartesian coordinate system is also called a(n) ___ coordinate
system. (15.1)
2. Cartesian coordinates (x, y) are referenced to the ___. (15.1)
3. Circles drawn around the Earth parallel to the equator are called
___. (15.2)
4. A ___ is a circle whose plane passes through the center of the
Earth. (15.2)
5. A position north or south of the equator is designated by ___.
(15.2)
6. A position east or west of the prime meridian is designated by
___. (15.2)
7. A ___ day is longer than a sidereal day. (15.3)
8. The Earth is divided into ___ time zones. (15.3)
9. The conterminous United States has ___ time zones. (15.3)
10. Crossing the ___ traveling westward, the date is advanced to the
next day. (15.3)
11. The angle of the Sun above the horizon is called the Sun’s ___.
(15.4)
12. Latitude can be determined by knowing the date and measuring
the Sun’s ___. (15.4)
13. On a sailing ship with its marine chronometer set for GMT, it is
noted that the noonday Sun occurs at 10 a.m. The longitude of
the ship is then ___. (15.4)
14. The vernal equinox indicates the beginning of ___. (15.5)
15. Most of the United States lies above the Tropic of ___. (15.5)
16. The tropical year is called the year of the ___. (15.5)
17. One of the earliest calendars is based on constellations in the
___. (15.5)
18. For the Gregorian calendar, ___ leap years are skipped every 400
years. (15.5)
19. A year is given as 2010 CE. The CE stands for ___. (15.5)
20. The precession of the Earth’s axis is much like that of a toy ___.
(15.6)
MATCHING
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers
with those at the back of the book.
a. _____ Planetary clockwise rotation
b. _____ Considers the Earth to be the center of the universe
c. _____ Earth’s motion around the Sun
d. _____ Two planets lined up on the same side of the Sun
e. _____ Planets having Earth-like characteristics
f. _____ A flattened, rotating disk of gas and dust
g. _____ The study of the totality of all matter, energy, space, and
time
h. _____ Spinning on an internal axis
i. _____ Apparent shift of positions of two objects when an
observer changes position
j. _____ A planet sweeps out equal areas in equal periods of time
k. _____ Proves that the Earth rotates
l. _____ Orbit period with respect to the fixed stars
m. _____ Contains eight planets
n. _____ Counterclockwise revolution about the Sun
o. _____ Fraction of sunlight reflected by a celestial object
p. _____ All planets move in elliptical orbits about the Sun
q. _____ The gaseous planets
r. _____ Apparent change in direction because of orbital motion
s. _____ Considers the Sun to be the center of the solar system
t. _____ Two planets lined up on opposite sides of the Earth
u. _____ Relates the period of a planet to its semimajor axis of orbit
v. _____ Describes evolution of the solar system
w. _____ Average distance between the Earth and the Sun
x. _____ A new class of planets including Pluto
MULTIPLECHOICE
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. Astronomy is best defined by which of the following? (Intro)
(a) The study of the comets of the solar system.
(b) The attempt to relate solar and planetary positions to human
traits.
(c) A study of Earth-like planets.
(d) The scientific study of the universe.
2. Which of Kepler’s laws gives the most direct indication of the
changes in the orbital speed of a planet? (16.1)
(a) law of elliptical orbits (b) law of equal areas
(c) harmonic law
3. Which of Kepler’s laws gives an indication of the semimajor axis?
(16.1)
(a) law of elliptical orbits (b) law of equal areas
(c) harmonic law
4. One of the greatest scientists of all time, he discovered the true
phases of Venus. (16.2)
(a) Kepler (b) Galileo (c) Einstein (d) Copernicus
5. Which of the following is abundant on the Earth but not on the
other seven planets? (16.3)
(a) oxygen (b) water (c) life (d) all the preceding
6. The Foucault pendulum is an experimental proof of what
characteristic
of the Earth? (16.3)
(a) revolution (b) rotation
(c) precession (d) retrograde rotation
7. Terrestrial planets have which of the following physical
characteristics?
(16.4)
(a) surfaces of mostly ice
(b) primarily composed of rocks and metals
(c) large ring systems
(d) strong magnetic fields
8. Which of the following statements concerning the terrestrial
planets is false? (16.4)
(a) Mercury and Venus can never be in opposition.
(b) All have magnetic fields except Venus.
(c) All rotate clockwise as viewed from above the North Pole.
(d) They are relatively close to the Sun.
9. Which of the following is not a physical characteristic of a terrestrial
planet? (16.4)
(a) small diameter
(b) solid surface
(c) relatively low density
(d) relatively high-temperature environment
10. What are the primary constituents of the Jovian planets? (16.5)
(a) hydrogen and helium (b) hydrogen and carbon dioxide
(c) methane and oxygen (d) nitrogen and oxygen Moon’s surface? (17.1)
11. Which of the following is not a physical characteristic of a Jovian (a) craters (b) volcanoes
planet? (16.5) (c) plains (d) rays
(a) gaseous (b) relatively high density 2. Which one of the following statements is true? (17.1)
(c) rocky/ice cores (d) rapid rotation (a) The Moon’s surface gravity is 1
12. What atmospheric feature was seen on Neptune? (16.5) 81 that of the Earth.
(a) great red spot (b) great dark spot (b) The Moon has an appreciable magnetic field.
(c) volcanic plumes (d) large craters (c) The Moon is the second-brightest object in the sky.
13. Which Jovian planet revolves on its side and has retrograde (d) The Moon revolves around the Earth in 31 days.
rotation? 3. Most craters on the surface of the Moon are believed to be caused
(16.5) by which of the following? (17.1)
(a) Jupiter (b) Neptune (c) Uranus (d) Saturn (a) faults (b) meteoroids
14. Which one of the following criteria disqualifies Pluto as a major (c) volcanoes (d) asteroids
planet? (16.6) 4. What is the oldest type of surface on the Moon? (17.1)
(a) sufficient mass for a round shape (a) astronaut footprints (b) highlands
(b) in orbit about the Sun (c) rays (d) maria
(c) orbit clear of other objects 5. Which of the following statements is false? (17.2)
(d) none of the preceding (a) The Moon rotates and revolves westward.
15. Which statement about the dwarf planet Ceres is true? (16.6) (b) The orbital plane of the Moon is tilted about 58 to the Earth’s
(a) It is farthest from the Sun. orbital plane.
(b) It is between Mars and Jupiter. (c) The difference between the sidereal and synodic months is
(c) It is larger than Pluto. about 2 days.
(d) It has a thick atmosphere. (d) The Moon revolves in an elliptical orbit.
16. What is the age of the solar system? (16.7) 6. The rising of the Moon in the east and its setting in the west are
(a) 65 million years (b) 6000 years due to which of the following? (17.2)
(c) 4.5 billion years (d) 13.5 billion years (a) the orbital motion of the Moon
17. The planets of the solar system evolved most directly from which (b) the rotational motion of the Moon
of the following? (16.7) (c) the Earth’s rotation
(a) planetary nebula (b) protosun (d) none of the preceding
(c) exoplanets (d) condensation 7. During 1 month, the Moon passes through how many different
18. Which of the following is not a very useful method for detecting phases? (17.2)
an exoplanet? (16.8) (a) four (b) six
(a) the observation of a star’s motion (c) eight (d) none of the preceding
(b) the observation of Doppler shifts in the spectrum of a star 8. What is the approximate time between new and full moons?
(c) the detection of alien electromagnetic signals (17.2)
FILLINTHEBLANK (a) 1 week (b) 2 weeks
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book. (c) 1 sidereal month (d) 1 synodic month
1. ___ is the study of the universe. (Intro) 9. The first-quarter moon is overhead at what time? (17.2)
2. The ___ model considers the Earth to be the center of the universe. (a) 6 a.m. (b) noon
(16.1) (c) 6 p.m. (d) midnight
3. The long axis of an ellipse is the ___. (16.1) 10. A lunar eclipse occurs during what phase of the Moon? (17.2)
4. The square of the ___ is related to the cube of its semimajor axis. (a) new (b) first-quarter
(16.1) (c) last-quarter (d) full
5. Relative to the Earth, Mars is a(n) ___ planet. (16.2) 11. Which of the following is not a contributing factor in causing
6. The counterclockwise revolution of a planet about the Sun (as eclipses? (17.2)
viewed from above) is called ___ motion. (16.2) (a) the rotation of the Earth about its axis
7. When the Earth and Mars are in line on the same side of the Sun, (b) the inclination of the Moon’s orbit
they are said to be in ___. (16.2) (c) the varying distance between the Earth and the Moon
8. The Earth has a(n) ___ of 0.33. (16.3) (d) the varying distance between the Earth and the Sun
9. A(n) ___ is used to prove the Earth rotates on its axis. (16.3) 12. During a total eclipse of the Sun, the center of totality goes across
10. ___ is the smallest terrestrial planet. (16.4) the surface of the Earth in which direction? (17.2)
11. Venus has a high surface temperature due to the ___. (16.4) (a) east to west
12. Mars appears reddish because of ___ minerals. (16.4) (b) north to south
13. The Jovian planet with retrograde rotation is ___. (16.4) (c) west to east
14. ___ is the smallest dwarf planet. (16.6) (d) south to north
15. The dwarf planet most distant from the Sun is ___. (16.6) 13. The two daily high tides are due mainly to which of the following?
16. The explanation that the planets formed from a solar nebula is (17.2)
called the ___ theory. (16.7) (a) the Moon’s gravitational force lifting the ocean water away
17. Exoplanets revolving around a star might cause tiny ___ from a from the solid Earth
straight-line path. (16.8) (b) the differential gravitational attraction of the Moon because
of the inverse-square relationship
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate (c) gravitational forces between the Sun and the Earth
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers (d) none of the preceding
with those at the back of the book. 14. When do spring tides on the Earth take place? (17.2)
a. _____ Bowl-shaped feature on the Moon (a) only during the spring season
b. _____ Phase of the Moon occurring at 6 a.m. (b) only during the times of new moons
c. _____ Not burned up in the Earth’s atmosphere (c) near the times of full and new moons
d. _____ Phase of the Moon occurring at 6 p.m. (d) near the times of first-quarter and last-quarter moons
e. _____ Region from which partial solar eclipses are seen 15. Which of the following planets has no moon? (17.3)
f. _____ Entire face of the Moon obscured (a) Venus
g. _____ Less than half of the Moon’s observed surface illuminated (b) the Earth
h. _____ Incorrectly called “shooting stars” (c) Mars
i. _____ Month of phases (d) None of the preceding; they all have moons.
j. _____ Light-colored and heavily cratered lunar crust 16. Which of the following planets has the most moons? (17.3)
Multiple Choice 503 (a) Mercury (b) Venus
MULTIPLECHOICE (c) the Earth (d) Mars
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book. 17. How many Galilean moons are there? (17.4)
1. Which of the following is not a general physical feature of the (a) three (b) four
(c) five (d) six
18. Which of the following is the largest moon in the solar system?
(17.4)
(a) Callisto (b) Titan
(c) Europa (d) Ganymede
19. Which of the following is the second-largest moon in the solar
system? (17.4)
(a) the Earth’s Moon (b) Callisto
(c) Ganymede (d) Titan
k. _____ Darkest, smallest region of the Moon’s shadow
l. _____ Predominantly found between Mars and Jupiter
m. _____ Sun’s surface is completely obscured
n. _____ Occurs at 12 noon local solar time
o. _____ More than half of the Moon’s observed surface illuminated
p. _____ Also known as micrometeoroids
q. _____ Phase of the Moon occurring at 12 midnight
r. _____ Stellar month
s. _____ Rise and fall of the ocean’s surface
t. _____ Characterized by “tails”
u. _____ Source region of short-term comets
v. _____ A vast reservoir of long-term comets
w. _____ Interplanetary metallic and stony objects
x. _____ Lunar lowland regions
y. _____ Blocking of light of one celestial body by another
20. Which are the four Galilean moons of Jupiter? (17.4)
(a) Europa, Titan, Ganymede, and Callisto
(b) Io, Ganymede, Callisto, and Titan
(c) Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto
(d) Europa, Ganymede, Io, and Triton
21. The Cassini-Huygens probe successfully landed on which of the
following? (17.4)
(a) Mars (b) Saturn
(c) Titan (d) Triton
22. Which dwarf planet has no moons? (17.5)
(a) Ceres (b) Pluto
(c) Charon (d) Eris
23. Which dwarf planet moon has a rotation period and a revolution
period that are the same as the rotation period of its parent
planet? (17.5)
(a) Charon
(b) Nix
(c) Hydra
(d) none of the preceding
24. Which of the following is not true of asteroids? (17.6)
(a) They are believed to be initial solar system material that
never collected into a single planet.
(b) They are located mainly in orbits around the Sun between
the Earth and Mars.
(c) They range in size from hundreds of kilometers down to the
size of sand grains.
(d) They are generally irregular in shape.
25. Which of the following is not true of comets? (17.6)
(a) They are composed of dust and ice.
(b) They revolve around the Sun in highly elliptical orbits.
(c) They can be observed on entering the solar system.
(d) They usually have a long tail when they are close to the Sun.
26. Which of the following is (are) true of meteoroids? (17.6)
(a) They are small, solid, interplanetary metallic and stony
objects.
(b) They are usually smaller than a kilometer.
(c) They are known as meteors when they enter the Earth’s
atmosphere.
(d) They are known as meteorites when they strike the Earth’s
surface.
(e) All the preceding are true.
FILLINTHEBLANK
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. Smooth, dark regions called ___ cover about 15% of the lunar
crust. (17.1)
2. The crater Tycho is surrounded by streaks of powder called ___.
(17.1)
3. The Moon rises approximately 50 minutes ___ each day. (17.2)
4. The last-quarter moon is overhead at ___. (17.2)
5. The ___ Moon rises at 6 p.m. (17.2)
6. The phase of the Moon preceding the last-quarter moon is a(n)
___ gibbous phase. (17.2)
7. The Earth is between the Sun and the Moon during a(n) ___
eclipse. (17.2)
8. To see a total solar eclipse, an observer must be in the___ of the
Moon’s shadow. (17.2)
9. The greatest tidal variation occurs during ___ tides. (17.2)
10. The two daily high tides occur approximately ___ hours apart.
(17.2)
11. Venus has ___ moons. (17.3)
12. Mars has ___ moons. (17.3)
13. The largest moon of Jupiter is ___. (17.4)
14. The Galilean moon with volcanic activity is ___. (17.4)
15. The Saturnian moon that has an atmosphere is ___. (17.4)
16. Pluto has three named moons: ___, ___, and ___. (17.5)
17. ___ is the primary composition of the moons of the dwarf planets.
(17.5)
18. A belt of ___ is found between Mars and Jupiter. (17.6)
19. A meteoroid that strikes the Earth is called a(n) ___. (17.6)
20. The head of a comet surrounding the nucleus is called the ___.
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers
with those at the back of the book.
a. _____ The brightness a star would have at a distance of 10 pc
b. _____ An object so dense that it has a singularity at the center
c. _____ Our best theory to explain the temperature, composition,
and expansion of the universe
d. _____ The graph used to plot the temperature and absolute
magnitude of stars
e. _____ Emission, reflection, or dark clouds of gas and dust in
space
f. _____ The relationship between the distance of a galaxy and its
recessional velocity
g. _____ The visible layer of the Sun in which sunspots are found
h. _____ The huge, imaginary dome on which the stars appear to
be mounted
i. _____ The branch of astronomy that studies the structure and
evolution of the universe
j. _____ The event when a star completely blows itself up
k. _____ Large, cool stars to the upper right on the H-R diagram
l. _____ The latitude coordinate on the celestial sphere
m. _____ The brightness of a celestial object as observed from the
Earth
n. _____ The mysterious, unseen matter that accounts for about
23% of the mass of the universe
o. _____ Primordial radiation that resulted from the Big Bang and
fills the entire universe
p. _____ The longitude coordinate on the celestial sphere
q. _____ A sudden brightening of a white dwarf star due to the
explosion of accreting material
r. _____ An extremely large collection of stars held together by
gravity
s. _____ The narrow band of stars going from upper left to lower
right on an H-R diagram
t. _____ A shell of matter ejected from a variable star late in its life
u. _____ Astronomers use this distance unit when measuring the
parallax of a star
v. _____ A mysterious energy that seems to cause the expansion of
the universe to accelerate
w. _____ A rapidly rotating, superdense core left over at the end of
the life of a high-mass star
x. _____ These small, hot, dense stars are the fate of low-mass stars
y. _____ The name given to all matter, energy, and space
z. _____ Large groups of stars found in a spherical halo around the
Milky Way
aa. _____ The apparent path that the Sun traces annually on the
celestial sphere
MULTIPLECHOICE
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. What is the point on the celestial sphere representing the extension
of the axis of Earth’s North Pole? (18.1)
(a) North celestial pole (b) core
(c) vernal equinox (d) celestial equator
2. What is the name of the path on the sky that the Sun appears to
follow as it moves among the stars? (18.1)
(a) the ecliptic (b) the meridian
(c) the equator (d) the equinox
3. The angular measure in degrees north or south of the celestial
equator is called which of the following? (18.1)
(a) latitude (b) longitude
(c) right ascension (d) declination
4. Which of the following is part of the Sun’s structure? (18.2)
(a) an accretion disk (b) the corona
(c) a globular cluster (d) a singularity
5. Why are sunspots darker than the regions of the Sun around
them? (18.2)
(a) They consist of different elements than the rest of the Sun.
(b) They are located far out into the Sun’s atmosphere (corona).
(c) They are hotter than the material around them.
(d) They are cooler than the surrounding material.
6. Where in the Sun does fusion of hydrogen occur? (18.2)
(a) only in the core
(b) only near the photosphere (near the surface layer)
(c) pretty much anywhere throughout the Sun
(d) in the sunspot regions
7. The part of the Sun’s structure that we see in visible light is
which of the following? (18.2)
(a) the photosphere (b) the chromosphere
(c) the core (d) the corona
8. What force keeps the all stars from flying apart? (18.3)
(a) nuclear force (b) gravitational force
(c) radiation pressure (d) electrical force
9. Which property classifies the star based on its temperature?
(18.3)
(a) its apparent magnitude (b) its mass
(c) its radius (d) its spectral type
10. A relatively cool star is which of the following? (18.3)
(a) red (b) yellow
(c) white (d) blue
11. At the end of the Sun’s life, what kind of object will remain?
(18.4)
(a) blue giant star (b) white dwarf star
(c) red giant star (d) red dwarf star
12. The famous Horsehead Nebula is which of the following? (18.4)
(a) an emission nebula
(b) a reflection nebula
(c) a planetary nebula
(d) a dark nebula
13. A white dwarf has about the same diameter as which of the
following?
(18.4)
(a) Texas (b) the Earth
(c) Jupiter (d) the Sun
14. What is the fundamental quantity of a star that indicates its
ultimate
fate? (18.5)
(a) color (b) mass
(c) size (d) temperature
15. What event is believed to create elements heavier than iron?
(18.5)
(a) a supernova explosion
(b) a nova outburst
(c) the formation of a neutron star
(d) the accretion of matter into a black hole
16. Black holes appear black for what basic reason? (18.5)
(a) They are invisible and can never be detected by astronomers.
(b) They appear in starless, dark areas of the Milky Way.
(c) They “shine” by blackbody radiation and are easily detected.
(d) Light cannot escape them.
17. The Milky Way is classified as what kind of galaxy? (18.6)
(a) elliptical (b) spiral
(c) irregular (d) collisional
18. How much of the universe appears to be normal ordinary matter?
(18.6)
(a) 5% (b) 20%
(c) 50% (d) 95%
19. What key observation led Hubble to conclude that the universe is
expanding? (18.7)
(a) the distribution of the galaxies in the universe
(b) the classification of different types of galaxies
(c) the redshift of light from distant galaxies
(d) the ratio of hydrogen to helium in a galaxy
20. What is the cosmic background radiation? (18.7)
(a) the light-energy remnants of the explosion in which the universe
was born
(b) the radio noise from hot gas in rich galactic clusters
(c) the faint glow of light across the night sky
(d) the light emitted by supernova explosions
Short Answer 539
FILLINTHEBLANK
1. The apparent change of the position of a star due to the Earth’s
orbiting the Sun is called ___. (18.1)
2. The extension of the Earth’s equator onto the celestial sphere is
called the ___. (18.1)
3. The longitude of a place on the Earth’s surface is comparable to
the ___ of a star on the celestial sphere. (18.1)
4. The angle between the Earth’s orbit plane and the plane of the
equator projected on the celestial sphere is ___. (18.1)
5. The ___ cycle is 11 years long. (18.2)
6. The Sun’s energy comes from the fusion of hydrogen into ____.
(18.2)
7. ___ are sudden, bright, explosive events originating from the
Sun’s surface. (18.2)
8. The celestial sphere is divided into 88 ___. (18.3)
9. Type M stars are ___ in color. (18.3)
10. Analysis of the ___ of a star reveals the composition of the star.
(18.3)
11. The magnitude scale is really a scale of ___. (18.3)
12. The diagonal group of stars on an H-R diagram is called the ___.
(18.3)
13. The ____ phase is the next phase of the Sun’s life. (18.4)
14. When a star runs out of nuclear fuel, the core begins to ___.
(18.4)
15. Stars are born in giant clouds of gas and dust, such as the Great
___ in Orion. (18.4)
16. A “new” star is called a(n) ___. (18.5)
17. A neutron star that emits radio waves in a periodic fashion is a(n)
___. (18.5)
18. The most catastrophic of stellar explosions is called a(n) ___.
(18.5)
19. Astronomers think that a(n) ___ black hole lies at the center of
the Milky Way. (18.6)
20. Astronomers think that the universe is ___ billion years old.
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers
with those at the back of the book.
a. _____ Atmospheric conditions of the lower atmosphere
b. _____ Radiation that comes from the Sun
c. _____ Thermal circulation
d. _____ Region of atmosphere with highest temperature
e. _____ Used to measure wind speed
f. _____ Horizontal movement of air
g. _____ Lowest region of atmosphere
h. _____ A pseudoforce
i. _____ Region of atmosphere characterized by O3 content
j. _____ “Rivers” of air
k. _____ Investigates every aspect of the atmosphere
l. _____ Rate of temperature decrease with height
m. _____ Used to measure air pressure
n. _____ Together with troposphere, accounts for 99.9% of
atmospheric
mass
o. _____ A line of equal pressure
p. _____ A measure of the moisture content of a volume of air at a
given temperature
q. _____ Molecule with three atoms of oxygen
r. _____ Temperature at which air becomes saturated
s. _____ Used to measure precipitation
t. _____ Study of the lower atmosphere
u. _____ Indicates wind direction
v. _____ Region where layers reflect radio waves
w. _____ Vertical movements of air
x. _____ Causes the sky to be blue
y. _____ Buoyant masses of visible water droplets or ice crystals
z. _____ Process that replenishes atmospheric oxygen
aa. _____ Gives early warnings of tornadoes
DHuss/iStockphoto.com
Short Answer 571
bb. _____ Used to measure relative humidity
cc. _____ Provides the Earth with a thermostatic effect
dd. _____ Upper region of the atmosphere characterized by decreasing
temperature with height
MULTIPLECHOICE
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
1. Which is the second-most-abundant gas in the atmosphere? m. _____ Increasing temperature with height in the troposphere
(19.1) n. _____ Formation of drops by collision of droplets
(a) oxygen (b) carbon dioxide o. _____ Causes most hurricane causalities
(c) nitrogen (d) argon p. _____ Good indicator of photochemical pollution
2. In what region does the ozone layer lie? (19.1) q. _____ An atmospheric electrical discharge
(a) thermosphere (b) troposphere r. _____ Result of SO2 pollution
(c) stratosphere (d) mesosphere s. _____ Issued when a tornado has been sighted or indicated on
3. Photosynthesis is responsible for the atmospheric production of radar
which of the following? (19.1) t. _____ Pollutant formed with high combustion temperatures
(a) carbon dioxide (b) oxygen u. _____ Where an air mass derives its characteristics
(c) nitrogen (d) carbon monoxide v. _____ Atypical contributions to the environment by humans
4. What regulates the Earth’s average temperature? (19.2) w. _____ Most violent of storms
(a) Rayleigh scattering (b) the greenhouse effect x. _____ Results from impurity in fossil fuels
(c) atmospheric pressure (d) photosynthesis y. _____ An appreciable accumulation of snow
5. Approximately what percentage of insolation reaches the Earth’s Fill in the Blank 607
surface? (19.2) MULTIPLECHOICE
(a) 33% (b) 40% Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
(c) 50% (d) 75% 1. When the temperature of the air is below the dew point without
6. What instrument is used to measure relative humidity? (19.3) precipitation, the air is said to be what? (20.1)
(a) an anemometer (b) a barometer (a) stable (b) supercooled
(c) a wind vane (d) a psychrometer (c) sublimed (d) coalesced
7. With what instrument is atmospheric pressure measured? (19.3) 2. Which of the following is not essential to the Bergeron process?
(a) an anemometer (b) a barometer (20.1)
(c) a wind vane (d) a psychrometer (a) silver iodide (b) mixing
8. Near a large body of water, which wind is the predominant wind (c) supercooled vapor (d) ice crystals
during the day? (19.4) 3. Which of the following is the result of deposition? (20.1)
(a) a sea breeze (b) a land breeze (a) snow (b) rain
(c) an updraft (d) a jet stream (c) dew (d) frost
9. What is the direction of rotation around a cyclone in the 4. Which type of air mass is mainly responsible for mostly warm
Northern Hemisphere as viewed from above? (19.4) weather in the conterminous United States? (20.2)
(a) clockwise (a) mP (b) cA
(b) counterclockwise (c) mT (d) cT
(c) sometimes clockwise, sometimes counterclockwise 5. Which of the following air masses would be expected to be cold
10. Convection cycles give rise to which of the following? (19.4) and dry for the conterminous United States? (20.2)
(a) land breeze (b) sea breeze (a) cP (b) mA
(c) air currents (d) all the preceding (c) cT (d) mE
11. What is the cloud root name that means “heap”? (19.5) 6. What is a cold front advancing under a warm front called? (20.2)
(a) stratus (b) cirrus (a) a warm front
(c) nimbus (d) cumulus (b) a stationary front
12. The altostratus cloud is a member of which family? (19.5) (c) a cold front occlusion
(a) high clouds (b) middle clouds (d) a warm front occlusion
(c) low clouds (d) vertical development 7. What is the critical alert for a tornado? (20.3)
FILLINTHEBLANK (a) tornado alert
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book. (b) tornado warning
1. ___ is the study of the lower atmosphere. (Intro) (c) tornado watch
2. The ozone layer causes a temperature increase in the ___. (19.1) (d) tornado prediction
3. The International Space Station is in orbit in the ___. (19.1) 8. The greatest number of hurricane casualties is caused by which
4. The primary absorbers of infrared radiation in the atmosphere of the following? (20.3)
are water vapor and ___. (19.2) (a) high winds
5. One standard atmosphere of pressure is ___ lb2. (19.3) (b) low pressure
6. One atmosphere is equal to ___ cm or ___ in. of mercury. (19.3) (c) flying debris
7. Relative humidity is the ratio of the actual moisture content to (d) storm surge
the ___ moisture content (19.3) 9. A subsidence temperature inversion is caused by which of the
8. The arrow of a wind vane (or weather vane) points in the ___ following? (20.4)
direction from which the wind is blowing. (19.3) (a) a high-pressure air mass
9. A line drawn through points of equal pressure is called a(n) ___. (b) acid rain
(19.4) (c) radiational cooling
10. A(n) ___ breeze blows at the ocean coast during the evening. (d) subcritical air pressure
(19.4) 10. Which is a major source of air pollution? (20.4)
11. In the Southern Hemisphere, the wind rotates ___ around a high, (a) nuclear electrical generation
as viewed from above. (19.5) (b) incomplete combustion
12. Nimbostratus clouds belong to the ___ cloud family. (19.5) (c) temperature inversion
MATCHING (d) acid rain
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate 11. A change in the Earth’s albedo could result from which of the
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers following?
with those at the back of the book. (20.5)
a. _____ Boundary between two air masses (a) nitrogen oxides
b. _____ Combination of smoke and fog (b) acid rain
c. _____ Associated with freezing rain (c) photochemical smog
d. _____ Threat of hurricane conditions within 24 to 36 hours (d) particulate matter
e. _____ Describes essentials for precipitation 12. Major concern about global warming arises from increased
f. _____ Has wind speed exceeding 74 mi/h concentrations
g. _____ Results primarily from nitrogen oxides of which of the following? (20.5)
h. _____ Distinguished from surrounding air by physical characteristics (a) sulfur oxides
i. _____ Hurricane conditions expected within 24 hours (b) nitrogen oxides
j. _____ Associated with lightning (c) greenhouse gases
k. _____ Long-term, average weather conditions (d) photochemical smog
l. _____ Indicates that a tornado may form FILLINTHEBLANK
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book. debris ejected through a vent in the Earth’s surface
1. The two processes of raindrop formation are the Bergeron process bb. ____ The study of the planet Earth: its composition, structure,
and ___. (20.1) processes, and history
2. Sleet is frozen ______. (20.1) MULTIPLECHOICE
3. The main distinguishing characteristics of air masses are ___ and Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
moisture content. (20.2) 1. About how many plates exist on the Earth? (21.1)
4. The type of air mass with a source region in Canada is a(n) ___. (a) 3 (b) 20
(20.2) (c) 250 (d) 1000
5. A(n) ___ front is the boundary of an advancing warm air mass 2. Which of the following correctly describes the lithosphere?
over a colder surface. (20.2) (21.1)
6. When a cold front advances under a warm front, a cold front ___ (a) It is the same as the Earth’s crust.
occurs. (20.2) (b) It is the same as the Earth’s upper mantle.
7. Lightning that occurs below the horizon or behind clouds is (c) It is the part of the mantle below the asthenosphere.
called ___ lightning. (20.3) (d) It consists of the crust and part of the upper mantle.
8. When a tornado has been sighted or indicated by radar, a tornado 3. What layer is close to the melting point of rock and is relatively
___ is issued. (20.3) plastic? (21.1)
9. When a hurricane warning is announced, hurricane conditions (a) mantle
are expected within _____ hours. (20.3) (b) lithosphere
10. When a high-pressure air mass moves over a region and becomes (c) asthenosphere
stationary, a(n) ___ temperature inversion could result. (20.4) (d) Moho
11. “Los Angeles smog” is ___ smog. (20.4) 4. Which of the following geologic evidence does not support
12. The chief cause of the “ozone hole” is believed to be ___. (20.5) continental
drift? (21.2)
MATCHING (a) similarities in biological species and fossils found on distant
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate continents
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers Short Answer 637
with those at the back of the book. (b) continuity of geologic structures such as mountain ranges
a. _____ A tremendous release of energy generally caused by the (c) ancient glaciation in the Southern Hemisphere
movements of lithospheric plates (d) similar types of rivers on every continent
b. _____ The solid, innermost region of the Earth; composed primarily 5. Wegener proposed what name for the ancient, giant supercontinent
of iron he envisioned? (21.2)
c. _____ Large crustal fractures where rock on one side has moved (a) Pangaea
relative to rock on the other (b) Rhodinia
d. _____ The point on the Earth’s surface that lies directly above (c) Moho
the focus of an earthquake (d) Alfredia
e. _____ Sometimes-devastating sea waves that travel thousands of 6. Which of the following is a primary cause of volcanoes, earthquakes,
miles and are caused by earthquakes under the seafloor and mountain building? ( 21.3)
f. _____ The largest interior layer of the Earth, about 2500 km (a) solar radiation
(1550 mi) thick (b) remanent magnetism
g. _____ A region along the mid-ocean ridges where one plate is (c) hot spots
pulling away from another (d) plate tectonics
h. _____ A mountain built by normal faulting, in which giant 7. Which of the following is not a type of plate boundary? (21.3)
pieces of the Earth’s crust are uplifted (a) divergent
i. _____ The giant supercontinent that is thought to have existed (b) convergent
about 200 million years ago (c) reverse
j. _____ A mountain characterized by exceptionally thick sedimentary (d) transform
strata sometimes containing fossilized marine life 8. The principle of isostasy states that the depth to which a floating
k. _____ The rigid, rocky outer layer of the Earth that includes the object sinks into underlying material depends on which two
crust and part of the upper mantle properties? (21.3)
l. _____ The well-tested theory that Earth’s surface is made of (a) density and composition
plates that move (b) temperature and the state of matter
m. _____ The layer of rock in the mantle that is close to its melting (c) density and thickness
point and therefore is plastic and movable (d) mass and temperature
n. _____ A region where two lithospheric plates are driven together 9. What process during plate collisions leads to the formation of
and rock is consumed volcanic islands arcs? (21.4)
o. _____ A process in which two plates collide and the denser plate (a) remanent magnetism
is deflected downward beneath the other plate (b) seismic waves
p. _____ A mountain that has been built from material ejected during (c) subduction
volcanic eruptions (d) isostasy
q. _____ The point of the initial energy release or slippage during 10. On the Richter scale, a magnitude 7.0 earthquake is how many
an earthquake times more powerful than a magnitude 6.0 earthquake? (21.5)
r. _____ The theory that the Earth’s lithosphere is made up of (a) 1 (b) 25
giant, rigid plates that move relative to one another (c) 31 (d) 100
s. _____ The state of buoyancy between the lithosphere and the 11. By what name is an upward pointing arch of a fold known?
asthenosphere (21.6)
t. _____ Vibrations produced in and on the Earth during an earthquake (a) anticline
u. _____ An internal layer of the Earth that is liquid metal iron and (b) syncline
nickel (c) hot spot
v. _____ The outermost layer of the Earth (d) hanging wall
w. _____ Two lithospheric plates sliding past one another with no 12. Which of the following is not a mountain-building mechanism?
production or destruction of rock (21.6)
x. _____ The magnetism retained in iron-containing rocks after (a) volcanic
they solidify in the Earth’s magnetic field (b) reverse-slip
y. _____ The process that produces new seafloor between two (c) fault-block
diverging plates (d) fold
z. _____ A rock layer buckled into arches and troughs as a result of FILLINTHEBLANK
extreme horizontal pressure Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
aa. _____ A mountain or elevation formed by molten rock and 1. ___ is the study of the Earth’s general structural features and
their changes. (21.1) 4. What does the Mohs scale measure? (22.1)
2. The ___ travel along the outer layer of the Earth. (21.1) (a) streak (b) luster
3. Directly below the lithosphere lies the ___. (21.1) (c) hardness (d) cleavage
4. The ___ is the part of the Earth’s interior that is believed to be 5. Which of the following scientists is generally designated “The
made up largely of molten iron. (21.1) Father of Geology”? (22.2)
5. The ___ are the lowest places on the Earth’s surface. ( 21.2) (a) Friedrich Mohs (b) James Hutton
6. A(n) ___ ridge system stretches through the major oceans of the (c) Alfred Wegener (d) Edwin Hubble
world. (21.2) 6. Which of the following is not one of the three basic classes of
7. The lithosphere essentially “floats” on the ___. (21.3) rocks? (22.2)
8. Lithospheric plate boundaries can be divergent, convergent, or (a) igneous (b) pyroclastic
___. (21.3) (c) metamorphic (d) sedimentary
9. Dubbed the ___, it is the geologically active region along the 7. Coal is the compacted remains of plant matter. What basic type
margins of the Pacific Ocean. (21.4) of rock is coal? (22.2)
10. The majority of ___ are caused by the movement of lithospheric (a) igneous (b) sedimentary
plates. (21.5) (c) metamorphic (d) magma
11. The three principal types of mountains are fold, fault-block, and 8. Which of the following does the rock cycle describe? (22.2)
___. (21.6) (a) the interrelationships between rock-producing processes
12. The three major types of faults are normal, ___, and transform. (b) the chemical composition of basaltic rocks
MATCHING (c) subduction of lithospheric plates
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate (d) volcanic eruptions and magma viscosity
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers 9. Igneous rocks are classified according to their combination of
with those at the back of the book. chemical composition and what else? (22.3)
a. _____ Chemical alteration of preexisting rocks by hot solutions (a) age (b) texture
b. _____ The breaking of a mineral crystal along distinctive planes (c) permeability (d) density
c. _____ General term for large bodies of intrusive igneous rock 10. What does the grain size of an igneous rock tells a scientist about
d. _____ Hot, molten material below the Earth’s surface that rock? (22.3)
e. _____ Rocks formed by alteration of preexisting rocks by pressure, (a) the color of the rock
temperature, or chemistry (b) the rate at which the molten rock cooled
f. _____ Used to describe mineral hardness. (c) whether the rock will float in water
g. _____ Metamorphism over a vast area; brought about by both (d) the overall size of the rock
heat and pressure 11. Which of the following is not an igneous rock? (22.3)
h. _____ A solid, cohesive, aggregate of one or more minerals (a) basalt (b) granite
i. _____ Solids, liquids, and gases that are ejected into the air during (c) sandstone (d) obsidian
a volcanic eruption 12. What are plutons? (22.4)
j. _____ Rocks formed from the solidification of magma or lava (a) bodies of intrusive igneous rocks
k. _____ The transformation of materials of the Earth’s crust over (b) explosive volcanoes
long periods of time (c) undersea metamorphic rocks
l. _____ Hot, molten material flowing on the Earth’s surface, or (d) pyroclastic flows
the rock this material forms 13. Which of the following statements is true? (22.4)
m. _____ Rocks formed by compaction and cementation of sediment (a) Dikes are concordant rock bodies.
n. _____ The process of changing the structure or mineral content (b) Dikes are formed from lava.
of a rock while the rock remains solid (c) Dikes are spherical in shape.
o. _____ Metamorphism brought about mostly by pressure (d) Dikes are intrusive igneous rock.
p. _____ A naturally occurring crystalline, inorganic element or 14. What type of volcano forms a layered, composite cone? (22.4)
compound (a) fumarole (b) cinder cone
q. _____ The layering that develops at the time the sediment is (c) stratovolcano (d) shield volcano
deposited 15. How does sedimentary rock from the ocean floor sometimes end
r. _____ The process by which sediment is compacted and up in highland and mountainous regions on the Earth? (22.5)
cemented together (a) Sedimentary rock is commonly made inside volcanoes.
s. _____ Minerals that contain silicon, oxygen, aluminum, and (b) Wind and water carry the sediment to the mountaintops.
usually one other element (c) It is believed that asteroid impacts probably caused the
t. _____ The basic understanding that ancient rocks were formed sedimentary
in the same way as modern rocks rock to move great distances.
u. _____ Sand, mud, precipitated material, or rock fragments that (d) The sedimentary rock was uplifted by powerful forces to
have been transported by water or air form mountain chains.
v. _____ Metamorphism brought about mostly by heat Short Answer 669
w. _____ A large depression in the top of a volcano; usually formed 16. Which of these is a common color of sedimentary rock? (22.5)
by the collapse of the chamber (a) yellow-green (b) blue-green
x. _____ The internal property of a substance that offers resistance (c) purple-gray (d) red-brown
to flow 17. What is the process of transforming sediment into sedimentary
y. _____ The parallel arrangement of mineral grains that can occur rock called? (22.5)
in a metamorphic rock as a consequence of pressure (a) lithification (b) striation
MULTIPLECHOICE (c) metamorphism (d) hardening
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book. 18. To which rock does the metamorphosis of limestone lead? (22.6)
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic property of a mineral? (a) marble (b) slate
(22.1) (c) schist (d) gneiss
(a) naturally occurring 19. Metamorphism occurs for which class of rocks? (22.6)
(b) crystalline (a) metamorphic
(c) definite chemical composition (b) sedimentary
(d) low boiling point (c) igneous
2. Density is related most closely with which property of identifying (d) all the preceding
minerals? (22.1) 20. Which of these is not a common metamorphic rock? (22.6)
(a) hardness (b) specific gravity (a) gneiss (b) granite
(c) color (d) fracture (c) slate (d) schist
3. The simple, common method of classifying minerals depends on FILLINTHEBLANK
which general property? (22.1) Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
(a) physical (b) chemical 1. The two most abundant elements in the Earth’s crust are oxygen
(c) nuclear (d) optical and ___. (22.1)
2. The most abundant minerals in the Earth’s crust are ___. (22.1) w. _____ Slow, continual, particle-by-particle downslope movement
3. The metallic appearance of some minerals is called ___. (22.1) of weathered debris
4. A(n) ___ is any mineral or other precious or semiprecious stone x. _____ A material’s capacity to transmit a fluid
valued for its beauty. (22.1) MULTIPLECHOICE
5. Rocks solidified from molten material, either below or above Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
ground, are classified as ___ rocks. (22.2) 1. What is the general wearing away of high places and transporting
6. The concept that ancient rocks were formed in the same way as of material to lower places called? (Intro)
modern rocks is called ___. (22.2) (a) gradation (b) weathering
7. Weathering and compaction of igneous or metamorphic rock (c) depositing (d) glaciation
form ___ rock. (22.3) 2. Which type of mechanical disintegration is due to rocks and minerals
8. The common igneous rock that has a fine-grained texture and colliding in a moving current? (23.1)
low silica content (dark color) is called ___. (22.3) (a) frost wedging (b) root penetration
9. Dripstone formations that extend downward from a cavern ceiling (c) abrasion (d) crystal growth
are called ___. (22.3) 3. Which two primary factors does the rate of weathering of rock
10. The manner in which a volcano erupts depends primarily on the depend on? (23.1)
___ of its magma. (22.4) (a) temperature and pressure
11. A(n) ___ is a steep-sloped formation from a volcano that ejected (b) humidity and mineral content
tephra. (22.4) (c) temperature and humidity
12. Intrusive igneous rock formations that lie more or less parallel to (d) wind and geographic location
older formations are said to be ___. (22.4) 4. Chemical weathering can be determined by analyzing what property
13. The Hawaiian Islands and Emperor Seamount chain were created of a rock? (23.1)
by a(n) ___ in the Earth’s crust. (22.4) (a) temperature (b) density
14. The general name for an intrusive igneous rock formation is ___. (c) composition (d) mass
(22.4) 5. Which of the following are agents that cause erosion? (23.2)
15. Plutons are classified as either concordant or ___. (22.4) (a) streams (b) glaciers
16. A common energy source, ___ is classified as an organic chemical (c) waves (d) all the preceding
sedimentary rock. (22.5) 6. In a desert, what is the prime mover of the land material? (23.2)
17. Stratification, or ___, is the layering that develops at the time of (a) rain (b) wind
sediment deposition. (22.5) (c) gravity (d) creep
18. The sedimentary rock called shale metamorphoses into the rock 7. What term refers to the downslope movement of soil and rock
called ___. (22.6) fragments that is caused solely by gravity? (23.2)
19. ____ is a pronounced layering of rock caused by regional (a) sheet erosion (b) mass wasting
metamorphism. (c) meandering (d) mechanical weathering
(22.6) 8. Which of the following best describes the total amount of water
20. Metamorphism that results from the circulation of hot solutions on the Earth? (23.3)
is called ___ metamorphism. (22.6) (a) increasing
(b) decreasing
MATCHING (c) remaining constant
For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate 9. About what percent of Earth’s surface is fresh water? (23.3)
Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers (a) 50% (b) 32%
with those at the back of the book. (c) 5% (d) 3%
a. _____ Any flow of water occurring between well-defined banks 10. What energy source powers the Earth’s hydrologic cycle? (23.3)
b. _____ Dry regions of the Earth, accounting for one-fifth of the (a) ocean currents (b) solar insolation
Earth’s land (c) Earth's rotational energy (d) geothermal power
c. _____ Isolated, submarine, volcanic mountains 11. At a depth of 11 km (7 mi), what are the deepest regions below
d. _____ Permanently frozen, subsurface soil the ocean called? (23.4)
e. _____ A body of permeable rock that both stores and supports (a) seamounts
water (b) trenches
f. _____ The constant, cyclical redistribution of the water supply (c) continental shelves
over the Earth (d) abyssal plains
g. _____ A loop-like bend in a stream channel 12. Which one of the following is a feature of coastal deposition?
h. _____ The downslope movement of soil and rock fragments (23.4)
under the direct influence of gravity alone (a) spit (b) sea stack
i. _____ Large ridges of glacial drift at the ends, sides, or middle of (c) wave-cut cliff (d) sea arch
a glacier FILLINTHEBLANK
j. _____ Circular depressions that appear on the land’s surface as a Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
consequence of the collapse of cavern ceilings 1. Frost wedging is a common type of ___ weathering. (23.1)
k. _____ The periodic rise and fall of the water level along the 2. Permanently frozen subsurface soil is called ___. (23.1)
shores of large bodies of water 3. Heat and ___ are important factors in chemical weathering.
Fill in the Blank 695 (23.1)
l. _____ Downslope movement of rock and soil under the influence 4. Any flow of water between well-defined banks is called a(n) ___.
of gravity or of water, ice, or wind (23.2)
m. _____ The steep, submerged surface of the continental land 5. A stream’s ___ load makes up the largest-sized particles. (23.2)
mass beyond the continental shelves 6. Greenland and Antarctica are covered with ice sheets called ___.
n. _____ A large accumulation of sediment where a stream enters a (23.2)
lake or ocean 7. Two important types of fast mass wasting are landslides and ___.
o. _____ The breaking down of rock at or near the Earth’s surface (23.2)
p. _____ Rock material that is transported and deposited by ice 8. Large ridges of glacial drift are called ___. (23.2)
q. _____ Water that soaks into the soil and down into the 9. ___ occurs when land sinks as a consequence of the excessive
subsurface extraction of water. (23.3)
r. _____ Gently sloping, shallowly submerged areas that border 10. A(n) ___ is the body of permeable rock that stores and transports
the continental land masses groundwater. (23.3)
s. _____ Large, thick masses of ice that remain year-round 11. Three types of seawater movement are waves, currents, and ___.
t. _____ The upper boundary of the zone of water saturation (23.4)
u. _____ Occurs when water overflows its banks and deposits 12. The true edges of the continental land masses are the ___.(23.4)
sediments For each of the following items, fill in the number of the appropriate
across the low, adjacent land Key Term from the preceding list. Compare your answers
v. _____ An ocean current that flows almost parallel to the shoreline with those at the back of the book.
a. _____ A fault must be younger than any of the rocks it has affected. (c) replacement (d) amber
b. _____ Recent periods of time, names of which end in -cene 10. What radioactive element gradually decays to lead and can be
c. _____ The process of matching rock layers in different localities used to date ancient rocks? (24.3)
d. _____ In a sequence of undisturbed sedimentary rocks, each (a) rubidium (b) potassium
layer is younger than the layer beneath it. (c) carbon (d) uranium
e. _____ The science that studies fossils 11. If the half-life of a radioactive specimen is 100 years, then how
f. _____ The time spans into which eras are divided long will it take for the specimen to reach 25% of its original
g. _____ The general term for the determination of age by use of amount? (24.3)
radioactivity (a) 25 years (b) 50 years
h. _____ The total span of the Earth’s history (c) 100 years (d) 200 years
i. _____ The event between the Cretaceous and Tertiary periods 12. Radiometric dating is used to determine which of the following?
j. _____ The actual age of geologic events (24.3)
k. _____ A hollow depression formed when a bone or shell is dissolved (a) absolute (numerical) geologic time
out of rock (b) relative geologic time
l. _____ The great proliferation of life forms that occurred near the (c) a geologic formation
start of the Paleozoic era (d) a correlation period
m. _____ Fossil formed when new material fills a mold and hardens 13. Which radiometric dating method is most useful for dating bones
n. _____ Fossil formed by slow replacement of the hard parts of a and wood? (24.3)
buried organism (a) uranium–lead (b) potassium–argon
o. _____ A hardened tree resin in which ancient insects have (c) carbon-14 (d) rubidium–strontium
sometimes 14. What is the age of the Earth as determined by radiometric dating?
been preserved (24.4)
p. _____ Sediments and lava flows are laid down flat on the surface (a) 150 million years (b) 1200.2 years
on which they are deposited. (c) 4.56 billion years (d) 320 million years
q. _____ Breaks in the rock record due to nondeposition or erosion 15. Which of these rocks are useful in helping us determine the age
r. _____ The largest units of geologic time of the Earth? (24.4)
s. _____ The time spans into which eons are divided (a) Earth rocks (b) Moon rocks
t. _____ Any remnant or indication of prehistoric life preserved in (c) meteorite rocks (d) all the preceding
a rock 16. Which became the dominant life form in the Ordovician period?
u. _____ Time obtained when geologic events are arranged in (24.5)
chronologic order without absolute dates (a) dinosaurs (b) plants
v. _____ A fossil formed by an animal track (c) mammals (d) fish
w. _____ The dating of organic remains by measuring their carbon- 17. Fossils from Precambrian time could include which of the
14 content following?
x. _____ The combination of relative and absolute geologic time (24.5)
y. _____ The most devastating extinction that has ever occurred (a) human skulls
z. _____ Widespread, easily identified fossils that are typical of a (b) dinosaur bones
particular time segment of the Earth’s history (c) algae, bacteria, and sea worms
Compare your answers with those at the back of the book. (d) leaf impressions and shark teeth
1. Which statement is not true? (24.1) 18. In what era were dinosaurs common? (24.5)
(a) Fossils are indications of prehistoric life. (a) Mesozoic (b) Paleozoic
(b) Fossils help determine the relative ages of rocks. (c) Cambrian (d) Cenozoic
(c) Fossils can be tracks imprinted in rocks. 19. In what era were trilobites common? (24.5)
(d) Fossils are irrelevant to our understanding of geologic time. (a) Mesozoic (b) Paleozoic
2. What is the name for the branch of science that specifically studies (c) Cambrian (d) Cenozoic
fossils? (24.1) 20. When did the K-T extinction event take place? (24.5)
(a) petrology (b) mineralogy (a) at the end of the Paleozoic era
(c) paleontology (d) fossiligraphy (b) at the start of the Paleozoic era
3. What type of remain is a shark tooth? (24.1) (c) at the end of the Mesozoic era
(a) replacement (b) index (d) at the start of the Mesozoic era
(c) original (d) trace FILLINTHEBLANK
4. What is the name for the type of fossil formed when mineral Compare your answers with those at the back of the book.
material fills a rock’s hollow depression that once contained an 1. The study of fossils is called ___. (24.1)
embedded bone? (24.1) 2. Petrified wood is a common type of ___. (24.1)
(a) mold (b) cast 3. The earliest evidence of ancient life is fossil blue-green ___.(24.1)
(c) trace fossil (d) nodule 4. We live in the ___ era. (24.2)
5. What geologic principle tells us that each sediment layer is 5. A break or gap in the rock record is called a(n) ___. (24.2)
younger than the layer beneath it? (24.2) 6. A dike that intrudes a sedimentary rock bed is ___ than the
(a) superposition (b) original horizontality sedimentary
(c) cross-cutting relationships (d) faunal succession rock. (24.2)
6. What is obtained when rocks and geologic events are put into 7. The order in which events occur is called ___. (24.2)
chronologic order without regard to the actual dates? (24.2) 8. ___ is the process of matching rock layers in different localities.
(a) absolute (numerical) geologic time (24.2)
(b) relative geologic time 9. The longest spans of geologic time are the ___. (24.2)
(c) a geologic formation 10. An example of a very important index fossil is a ___. (24.2)
(d) a correlation period 11. To determine the relative age of a layer of sedimentary rock and
7. Into what time spans are eras next divided? (24.2) a layer of ash deposited on it, a geologist would use the principle
(a) eons (b) ages of ___. (24.2)
(c) epochs (d) periods 12. Carbon dating uses the isotope of carbon known as ___. (24.3)
8. What is the name of the time period when plants lived that 13. The younger the rock, the ___ the ratio of the radioactive parent
eventually to the stable daughter. (24.3)
became coal? (24.2) 14. Lead-204 is found only in ___ lead. (24.3)
(a) Devonian 15. Radiometric dating indicates that the age of the Earth is about
(b) Pennsylvanian ___ billion years. (24.4)
(c) Cambrian 16. Earth rock is a little ___ than Moon rock and meteorite rock,
(d) Triassic because Earth rock is subject to weathering and tectonic activity.
9. What kind of fossil is widespread and easily identifiable? (24.2) (24.4)
(a) index (b) trace 17. The huge supercontinent called ___ broke up in the Paleozoic
era. (24.5) 1. capable 2. vector 3. could 4. net or unbalanced 5. mass 6. inversely
18. The extinction that occurred at the end of the Mesozoic era is 7. kg?m/s2 8. static, kinetic or sliding 9. different 10. everywhere 11.
called the ___. (24.5) greater
19. The great proliferation of life forms that occurred at the beginning 12. more 13. net or unbalanced 14. torque
of the Paleozoic era is called the Cambrian ___. (24.5) Answers to Visual Connection
20. The suffix of the name indicates that the Oligocene is a(n) a. action b. inertia c. acceleration
CHAPTER 4 ANSWERS
Answers to Matching Questions
a. 4, b. 10, c. 2, d. 12, e. 7, f. 6, g. 1, h. 3, i. 15, j. 11, k. 9, l. 5, m. 13, n. 8,
o. 14
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions
1. a, 2. d, 3. d, 4. c, 5. b, 6. d, 7. c, 8. a, 9. b, 10. a, 11. a, 12. c, 13. b, 14.
c
Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
1. parallel 2. scalar 3. joule 4. work 5. kinetic 6. square 7. transferring
8. isolated 9. work 10. 0.75 11. energy 12. coal 13. exhausted 14.
ethanol
(alcohol)
Answers to Visual Connection
a. power b. kinetic energy c. potential energy d. conservation of
mechanical
energy
CHAPTER 5 ANSWERS
Answers to Matching Questions
a. 10, b. 8, c. 14, d. 23, e. 12, f. 1, g. 15, h. 25, i. 4, j. 11, k. 2, l. 16, m. 7,
n. 5, o. 13, p. 20, q. 18, r. 3, s. 24, t. 9, u. 17, v. 22, w. 6, x. 19, y. 21
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions
1. b, 2. a, 3. a, 4. c, 5. b, 6. c, 7. a, 8. b, 9. d, 10. c, 11. c, 12. b
Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
1. smaller 2. temperature 3. 1000 4. J/kg?8C 5. seven 6. pressure 7.
conduction
8. gas 9. area 10. inversely 11. direction 12. pump
Answers to Visual Connection
a. melting b. freezing c. vaporization d. deposition e. condensation
CHAPTER 6 ANSWERS
Answers to Matching Questions
a. 2, b. 17, c. 10, d. 5, e. 19, f. 8, g. 20, h. 12, i. 1, j. 21, k. 14, l. 6, m. 16,
n. 11, o. 3, p. 9, q. 13, r. 15, s. 18, t. 7, u. 4
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions
ANSWERS (SHIPMAN’S BOOK) 1. b, 2. a, 3. a, 4. a, 5. d, 6. d, 7. c, 8. a, 9. d, 10. a, 11. b, 12. a, 13. d
CHAPTER 1 ANSWERS Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
Answers to Matching Questions 1. energy 2. perpendicular 3. wavelength 4. frequency 5. light or
a. 5, b. 17, c. 23, d. 7, e. 22, f. 16, g. 10, h. 2, i. 12, j. 1, k. 9, l. 4, m. 18, 3.003108 m/s 6. electromagnetic 7. longitudinal 8. 20 9. intensity 10. 3
n. 6, o. 11, p. 3, q. 20, r. 8, s. 15, t. 14, u. 22, v. 13. w. 19 11. higher 12. approaching 13. natural or characteristic
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions Answers to Visual Connection
1. c, 2. b, 3. c, 4. b, 5. b, 6. b, 7. d, 8. c, 9. d, 10. c, 11. d, 12. d. 13. a a. transverse b. longitudinal c. light or electromagnetic d. sound
Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions CHAPTER 7 ANSWERS
1. biological 2. experiment 3. scientific method 4. sight 5. limitations 6. Answers to Matching Questions
greater a. 4, b. 14, c. 12, d. 21, e. 13, f. 6, g. 20, h. 1, i. 11, j. 22, k. 5, l. 16, m.
7. shorter 8. fundamental 9. time or second 10. 106 or 1,000,000 10,
(million) n. 8, o. 17, p. 2, q. 19, r. 7, s. 9, t. 18, u. 3, v. 15
11. liter 12. mass Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions
Answers to Visual Connection 1. d, 2. d, 3. b, 4. a, 5. b, 6. c, 7. b, 8. c, 9. c, 10. a, 11. a, 12. a
a. kilogram (kg) b. meter (m) c. second (s) d. pound (lb) e. foot (ft) Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
f. second (s) 1. geometrical or ray 2. diffuse 3. vacuum 4. toward 5. total internal
CHAPTER 2 ANSWERS 6. converging 7. cannot 8. thinner 9. concave or diverging 10.
Answers to Matching Questions transverse
a. 9, b. 4, c. 11, d. 17, e. 7, f. 10, g. 3, h. 12, i. 5, j. 15, k. 18, l. 8, m. 2, 11. greater 12. principle of superposition
n. 14, o. 6, p. 1, q. 13, r. 16 Answers to Visual Connection
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions a. reflection b. total internal reflection c. dispersion
1. d, 2. c, 3. d, 4. c, 5. d, 6. b, 7. c, 8. d, 9. d, 10. d, 11. c, 12. c CHAPTER 8 ANSWERS
Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Answers to Matching Questions
1. position 2. scalar 3. vector 4. distance 5. speed 6. constant or a. 3, b. 21, c. 12, d. 4, e. 22, f. 1, g. 25, h. 11, i. 23, j. 2, k. 18, l. 5, m. 19,
uniform n. 14, o. 7, p. 17, q. 9, r. 15, s. 10, t. 20, u. 13, v. 24, w. 8, x. 16, y. 6
7. time, t2 8. free-fall 9. m/s2 10. speed 11. 4 12. acceleration (due to Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions
gravity) 1. d, 2. c, 3. a, 4. b, 5. d, 6. a, 7. a, 8. b, 9. d, 10. d, 11. c, 12. b, 13. c, 14.
Answers to Visual Connection b
a. acceleration b. distance c. displacement d. velocity e. m/s f. m/s g. Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
m/s2 1. positively 2. ampere (amp) 3. Semiconductors 4. charge 5. open 6.
CHAPTER 3 ANSWERS ohm
Answers to Matching Questions 7. I 2R 8. direct or dc 9. smallest 10. Curie 11. geographic 12. secondary
a. 3, b. 18, c. 8, d. 13, e. 17, f. 4, g. 15, h. 6, i. 19, j. 10, k. 1, l. 12, m. 7, A-26 Answers to Selected Questions
n. 9, o. 2, p. 16, q. 11, r. 5, s. 14 Answers to Visual Connection
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions a. electrons b. voltage (potential difference) c. resistance d. current e.
1. d, 2. d, 3. c, 4. b, 5. a, 6. d, 7. d, 8. b, 9. c, 10. a, 11. c, 12. a, 13. b, 14. I2R or
d, joule heat
15. c CHAPTER 9 ANSWERS
Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Answers to Matching Questions
a. 10, b. 7, c. 3, d. 14, e. 8, f. 18, g. 1, h. 16, i. 4, j. 2, k. 13, l. 6, m. 9, n. 1. b, 2. c, 3. d, 4. c, 5. b, 6. b, 7. a, 8. b, 9. a, 10. c, 11. c, 12. b
17, Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
o. 5, p. 15, q. 11 1. carbon 7. alkyne
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions 2. three 8. alcohols
1. c, 2. a, 3. a, 4. d, 5. c, 6. c, 7. b, 8. d, 9. d, 10. a, 11. b, 12. b, 13. b, 14. 3. Covalent 9. amide
d 4. aliphatic 10. condensation
Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 5. Benzene 11. nylon
1. electron 2. Rutherford 3. Planck’s constant 4. photon 5. increases 6. 6. cycloalkane 12. carbohydrate
continuous Answers to Visual Connection
7. higher 8. water 9. unknown 10. uncertainty 11. wave 12. probability a. aromatic
Answers to Visual Connection b. alkenes
a. Dalton b. Plum pudding c. Rutherford d. Planetary e. Schrödinger c. cycloalkanes
CHAPTER 10 ANSWERS d. }CPC}
Answers to Matching Questions CHAPTER 15 ANSWERS
a. 12, b. 23, c. 4, d. 14, e. 1, f. 16, g. 13, h. 9, i. 2, j. 20, k. 19, l. 3, m. 24, Answers to Matching Questions
n. 6, o. 22, p. 8, q. 11, r. 15, s. 7, t. 18, u. 21, v. 5, w. 10, x. 25, y. 17, z. a. 2, b. 17, c. 13, d. 7, e. 19, f. 6, g. 15, h. 21, i. 1, j. 14, k. 9, l. 4, m. 16,
26 n. 11, o. 5, p. 18, q. 12, r. 20, s. 3, t. 8, u. 22, v. 23, w. 10
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions
1. b, 2. d, 3. c, 4. d, 5. c, 6. d, 7. b, 8. c, 9. a, 10. c, 11. c, 12. a, 13. c, 14. 1. d, 2. d, 3. c, 4. b, 5. b, 6. b, 7. d, 8. c, 9. d, 10. b, 11. c, 12. b 13. c, 14.
b, b,
15. d 15. b, 16. c, 17. b, 18. c, 19. c, 20. d
Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
1. potassium 2. 12C 3. nucleons 4. isotopes 5. 83 6. beta particle 1. rectangular 2. origin 3. parallels 4. great circle 5. latitude 6. longitude
(electron) 7. solar 8. twenty-four 9. four 10. International Date Line 11. altitude
7. three 8. one more 9. mass number 10. critical 11. deuteron (or 12. date
deuterium) 13. 308E 14. spring 15. Cancer 16. seasons 17. zodiac 18. three 19.
12. 82%, 13. quarks Common
Answers to Visual Connection Era 20. top
a. electrons b. neutrons c. 1 1 d. 0 (zero) Answers to Visual Connection
CHAPTER 11 ANSWERS a. latitude b. meridians c. parallels d. north–south e. east–west
Answers to Matching Questions CHAPTER 16 ANSWERS
a. 12, b. 14 c. 13, d. 21, e. 18, f. 1, g. 7, h. 10, i. 2, j. 3, k. 23, l. 25, m. 24, Answers to Matching Questions
n. 22, o. 4, p. 8, q. 16, r. 15, s. 6, t. 5, u. 19, v. 11, w. 9, x. 17, y. 20 a. 12, b. 3, c. 18, d. 14, e. 9, f. 23, g. 1, h. 17, i. 20, j. 7, k. 19, l. 13, m. 2,
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions n. 11, o. 16, p. 5, q. 10, r. 21, s. 4, t. 15, u. 8, v. 24, w. 6, x. 22
1. b, 2. c, 3. a, 4. b, 5. d, 6. c, 7. c, 8. c, 9. b, 10. d, 11. a, 12. c Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions
Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1. d, 2. b, 3. c, 4. b, 5. d, 6. b, 7. b, 8. c, 9. c, 10. a, 11. b, 12. b, 13. c, 14.
1. Organic chemistry 2. solvent 3. more 4. experimentation 5. c,
molecules 15. b, 16. c, 17. d, 18. c
6. aluminum 7. O3 8. Mendeleev 9. four 10. increases 11. nitrate 12. Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
sodium 1. Astronomy 10. Mercury
hydroxide 2. geocentric 11. greenhouse effect
Answers to Visual Connection 3. major axis 12. iron oxide
a. Li b. K c. Br d. I e. Zn f. V g. Mg h. Ca i. Ne j. Ar 4. period 13. Uranus
CHAPTER 12 ANSWERS 5. superior 14. Ceres
Answers to Matching Questions 6. prograde 15. Eris
a. 10, b. 18, c. 6, d. 14, e. 4, f. 17, g. 15, h. 8, i. 11, j. 19, k. 1, l. 5, m. 12 7. opposition 16. condensation
n. 3, 8. albedo 17. deviations (wobbles)
o. 13, p. 9, q. 2, r. 16, s. 7 9. Foucault pendulum
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions Answers to Selected Questions A-27
1. b, 2. a, 3. d, 4. c, 5. c, 6. d 7. c, 8. c, 9. d, 10. a, 11. c, 12. b 13. a 14. b Answers to Visual Connection
Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions a. Mercury h. Neptune
1. mass 2. CO2 3. definite proportions 4. chemistry 5. CuO 6. anion 7. b. Venus i. Ceres
two c. Earth j. Pluto
8. M2X 9. ionic 10. double 11. decreases 12. nitrogen d. Mars k. Eris
Answers to Visual Connection e. Jupiter l. Haumea
a. electron sharing b. ionic bonding c. unequal sharing d. nonpolar f. Saturn m. Makemake
covalent g. Uranus
bonding CHAPTER 17 ANSWERS
CHAPTER 13 ANSWERS Answers to Matching Questions
Answers to Matching Questions a. 3, b. 11, c. 21, d. 9, e. 15, f. 14, g. 7, h. 20, i. 4, j. 1, k. 13, l. 18, m. 14,
a. 13, b. 9, c. 1, d. 14, e. 22, f. 19, g. 4, h. 20, i. 6, j. 23, k. 3, l. 21, m. 8 n. n. 6, o. 8, p. 25, q. 10, r. 5, s. 17, t. 22, u. 24, v. 23, w. 19, x. 2, y. 12
16, Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions
o. 10, p. 25, q. 17, r. 11, s. 5, t. 2, u. 7, v. 12, w. 15, x. 18, y. 24, z. 26 1. b, 2. c, 3. b, 4. b, 5. a, 6. c, 7. a, 8. b, 9. c, 10. d, 11. a, 12. c, 13. b, 14.
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions c,
1. d, 2. c, 3. b, 4. b, 5. d, 6. a, 7. c, 8. a, 9. c, 10. a, 11. a, 12. d 15. a, 16. d, 17. b, 18. d, 19. d, 20. c, 21. c, 22. a, 23. a, 24. b, 25. c, 26. e
Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
1. physical, 2. the same, 3. AB, 4. enzymes, 5. lower, 6. catalyst, 7. OH2, 1. maria, 2. rays, 3. later, 4. 6 a.m., 5. full, 6. waning, 7. lunar, 8. umbra,
8. neutral, 9. acid–carbonate, 10. redox, 11. will not, 12. two 9. spring, 10. twelve, 11. zero, 12. two, 13. Ganymede, 14. Io, 15. Titan,
Answers to Visual Connection 16. Charon, Nix, and Hydra, 17. Water, 18. asteroids, 19. meteorite, 20.
a. combination, b. AB S A + B, c. single replacement, d. AB 1 CD S AD 1 coma
CB, Answers to Visual Connection
e. hydrocarbon combustion a. Moon, b. Phobos (Deimos), c. Deimos (Phobos), d. Ganymede, e. Io,
CHAPTER 14 ANSWERS f. Titan, g. Miranda, h. Triton, i. Charon, j. Dysnomia, k. Hi’iaka, j.
Answers to Matching Questions Namaka
a. 2, b. 21, c. 12, d. 9, e. 4, f. 22, g. 6, h. 1, i. 8, j. 19, k. 9, l. 18, m. 11, n. CHAPTER 18 ANSWERS
14, Answers to Matching Questions
o. 25, p. 5, q. 26, r. 24, s. 3, t. 20, u. 15, v. 16, w. 23, x. 13, y. 17, z. 7 a. 9, b. 19, c. 26, d. 10, e. 14, f. 24, g. 7, h. 2, i. 23, j. 17, k. 12, l. 5, m. 8,
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions n. 22, o. 27, p. 4, q. 16, r. 20, s. 11, t. 15, u. 6, v. 25, w. 18, x. 13, y. 1,
z. 21, aa. 3 a. Sedimentary b. sandstone, limestone, etc. c. Melting, cooling,
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions solidification
1. a, 2. a, 3. d, 4. b, 5. d, 6. a, 7. a, 8. b, 9. d, 10. a, 11. b, 12. d, 13. b, 14. d. Metamorphic e. marble, gneiss, etc.
b, CHAPTER 23 ANSWERS
15. a, 16. d, 17. b, 18. a, 19. c, 20. a Answers to Matching Questions
Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions a. 5, b. 12, c. 22, d. 2, e. 19, f. 15, g. 7, h. 13, i. 11, j. 3, k. 21, l. 4, m. 24,
1. parallax 2. celestial equator 3. right ascension 4. 23.58 5. sunspot n. 8, o. 1, p. 10, q. 16, r. 23, s. 9, t. 18, u. 6, v. 20, w. 14, x. 17
6. helium 7. Flares 8. constellations 9. red 10. spectrum 11. brightness Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions
12. main sequence 13. red giant 14. contract 15. Nebula 16. nova 17. 1. a, 2. c, 3. c, 4. c, 5. d, 6. b, 7. b, 8. c, 9. d, 10. b, 11. b, 12. a
pulsar Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
18. supernova 19. supermassive 20. 13.7 1. mechanical 2. permafrost 3. moisture 4. stream 5. bed 6. continental
Answers to Visual Connection glaciers
a. Nuclear reactions b. Photosphere c. Chromosphere d. Solar wind 7. mudflows 8. moraines 9. Subsidence 10. aquifer 11. tides 12.
CHAPTER 19 ANSWERS continental
Answers to Matching Questions slopes
a. 5, b. 12, c. 26, d. 8, e. 19, f. 23, g. 4, h. 27, i. 10, j. 28, k. 1, l. 30, m. Answers to Visual Connection
15, a. precipitation b. evaporation c. Land d. streams e. glacier flow
n. 6, o. 25, p. 16, q. 9, r. 17, s. 21, t. 2, u. 20, v. 11, w. 24, x. 13, y. 29, z. CHAPTER 24 ANSWERS
3, Answers to Matching Questions
aa. 22, bb. 18, cc. 14, dd. 7 a. 12, b. 25, c. 14, d. 11, e. 3, f. 18, g. 20, h. 1, i. 26, j. 19, k. 6, l. 23, m.
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions 7,
1. a, 2. c, 3. a, 4. b, 5. c, 6. d, 7. b, 8. a, 9. b, 10. d, 11. d, 12. b n. 5, o. 4, p. 10, q. 13, r. 16, s. 17, t. 2, u. 9, v. 8, w. 21, x. 22, y. 24, z.15
Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions
1. Meteorology 2. stratosphere 3. stratosphere 4. carbon dioxide, CO2 1. d, 2. c, 3. c, 4. b, 5. a, 6. b, 7. d, 8. b, 9. a, 10. d, 11. d, 12. a 13. c, 14.
5. 14.7 c,
6. 76 cm, 30 in. 7. maximum 8. opposite 9. isobar 10. land 11. 15. d, 16. d, 17. c, 18. a, 19. b, 20. c
counterclockwise Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
12. low 1. paleontology 2. replacement fossil 3. algae 4. Cenozoic 5.
Answers to Visual Connection unconformity
a. cumulonimbus b. cumulus c. cirrus d. cirrocumulus e. cirrostratus f. 6. younger 7. relative time 8. Correlation 9. eons 10. trilobite 11.
altostratus superposition
g. altocumulus h. stratus i. stratocumulus j. nimbostratus k. advection 12. carbon-14 13. larger 14. primordial 15. 4.56 16. younger 17.
l. radiation Rhodinia
CHAPTER 20 ANSWERS 18. K-T event 19. explosion 20. epoch
Answers to Matching Questions Answers to Visual Connection
a. 5, b. 18, c. 8, d. 15, e. 2, f. 13, g. 21, h. 3, i. 16, j. 7, k. 25, l. 11, m.19, a. one-celled (or multicelled) organisms b. Silurian c. amphibians d.
n. 1, Triassic
o. 14, p. 22, q. 6, r. 24, s. 12, t. 20, u. 4, v. 17, w. 10, x. 23, y. 9 e. primates
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions
1. b, 2. a, 3. d, 4. d, 5. a, 6. c, 7. b, 8. d, 9. a, 10. b, 11. d, 12. c
Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
1. coalescence 2. rain 3. temperature 4. cP 5. warm 6. occlusion 7. heat
8. warning 9. 24 10. subsidence 11. photochemical 12. CFCs
Answers to Visual Connection
a. rain b. snow c. sleet d. hail e. dew f. frost
CHAPTER 21 ANSWERS
Answers to Matching Questions
a. 20, b. 4, c. 21, d. 23, e. 24, f. 5, g. 14, h. 27, i. 10, j. 28, k. 7, l. 9, m. 8,
n. 15, o. 18, p. 26, q. 22, r. 13, s. 17, t. 2, u. 3, v. 6, w. 16, x. 12, y. 11, z.
25,
aa. 19, bb. 1
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions
1. b, 2. d, 3. c, 4. d, 5. a, 6. d, 7. c, 8. c, 9. c, 10. c, 11. a, 12. b
Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
1. Geology 2. surface waves 3. asthenosphere 4. outer core 5. deep sea
trenches
6. mid-ocean 7. asthenosphere 8. transform 9. Ring of Fire 10.
earthquakes
11. volcanic 12. reverse
Answers to Visual Connection
a. Divergent Boundaries b. Red Sea c. Cascade Range d. Continental
Collision
e. Himalayas f. Transform Boundaries
CHAPTER 22 ANSWERS
Answers to Matching Questions
a. 25, b. 4, c. 13, d. 11, e. 8, f. 3, g. 23, h. 5, i. 14, j. 6, k. 10, l. 12, m. 7,
n. 20, o. 22, p. 1, q. 19, r. 18, s. 2, t. 9, u. 17, v. 21, w. 16, x. 15, y. 24
Answers to Multiple-Choice Questions
1. d, 2. b, 3. a, 4. c, 5. b, 6. b, 7. b, 8. a, 9. b, 10. b 11. c, 12. a, 13. d, 14.
c,
15. d, 16. d, 17. a, 18. a, 19. d, 20. b
Answers to Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
1. silicon 2. feldspars 3. luster 4. gem 5. igneous 6. uniformitarianism 7.
sedimentary
8. basalt 9. stalactites 10. viscosity 11. cinder cone 12. concordant
13. hot spot 14. pluton 15. discordant 16. coal 17. bedding 18. slate
19. Foliation 20. hydrothermal
Answers to Visual Connection