IBPS PO Prelims 2022 PDF Course

IBPS PO Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-07 /50 (Eng)
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Reasoning Ability
Direction (1-5): Study the following information 2) If all the persons were born according to the
carefully and answer the questions given below. reverse alphabetical order from the year 1977,
Seven persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U and V were then how many persons remain unchanged in
born in seven different years viz., 1977, 1986, their position?
1989, 1991, 1995, 1998 and 2012. Each of a) Three
them goes for exams in different months of b) Two
2022 from January to July, but not necessarily c) One
in the same order. Calculate their ages based d) No one
on the year 2022. e) None of these
The age of P is a multiple of 9 and goes for the
exam in April. As many persons born before the 3) Four of the following five are alike in a certain
one who goes in April is same as after the one way as per the given arrangement and hence
who goes in July. Q is elder than V, whose age form a group. Find the one that doesn’t belong
is a multiple of 11.S was born in a leap year and to that group.
goes for the exam in the month which is a)Q-V
immediately after the month in which Q goes for b) R-U
the exam. S was born immediately after U. The c) V-T
difference between the ages of Q and T is half d) P-V
of the age of P. The number of persons born e) T-S
between P and the one whose age is a perfect
cube is twice the number of persons born 4) Who among the following person is elder than
between P and the one who goes at first. Both Q V?
and V are going in the month having an even a) S
number of days. b) U
1) Who among the following person goes for the c) T
exam in May? d) R
a) The one who was born in 1991 e) None of these
b) The one whose age is a prime number
c) The one whose age is a perfect cube 5) How many persons were born between Q and
d) Both (a) and (c) the one who goes for the exam in January?
e) None of these a) One
b) Four
c) Two
d) Three a) U
e) None of these b) S
c) R
Direction (6-10): Study the following information d) T
carefully and answer the questions given below. e) None of these
Twelve persons are sitting in a parallel rows and
facing each other. In row1 G, H, I, J, K and L are 8) Which of the following statements is/are true?
seated and all of them face north. In row2 P, Q, a) H sits to the immediate right of K
R, S, T and U are seated and all of them face b) S sits opposite to L
south. c) P sits opposite to the one who sits second to
H sits four places away from the one who sits the right of G
opposite to Q. K sits adjacent to H who doesn’t d) All are true
sit at the extreme ends. K sits opposite to the e) None of these
one who sits second to the left of S.T sits
opposite to the one who sits second to the left of 9) Who among the following person sits
J. J sits neither opposite to Q nor adjacent to K. adjacent to I?
R sits to the immediate left of T. As many a) The one who sits opposite to S
persons sit between T and R is same as b) The one who sits opposite to R
between G and L who sits opposite to S.I does c) The one who sits second to the right of G
not sit at the extreme ends of the row. U sits d) Both (a) and (c)
towards the left of P. e) None of these
6) Who among the following person sits
opposite to the one who sits second to the left of 10) How many persons are sitting between U
P? and the one who sits opposite to L?
a) G a) Four
b) J b) Two
c) H c) Three
d) K d) One
e) None of these e) None of these
7) If Q is related to I and P is related to H in a Direction (11-15): Study the following

certain way, then who among the following information carefully and answer the questions
person is related to J? given below.
Twelve persons L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V e) None of these

and W are staying in three different flats viz.,
Flat A, Flat B and Flat C of a four-storey 13) Four of the following five are alike in a
building. Flat A is to the west of Flat B and Flat certain way as per the given arrangement and
B is to the west of Flat C. The lowermost floor is hence form a group. Find the one that does not
numbered as 1 and the floor immediately above belong to that group?
it is numbered as 2 and so on. a) L-R
T, who stays to the east of O and stays three b) O-R
floors above S. No one stays to the west of S.N c) N-P
stays on the topmost floor but doesn’t stay in the d) Q-M
same flat as S.L doesn’t stay in Flat B and stays e) T-V
two floors above M who is not staying in the
same flat as T. As many floors between O and V 14) Who among the following person stays two
is same as between M and W who stays to the floors above R?
east of L. W and V are in the same flat and both a) The one who stays to the west of W
of them stay to the north of U.Q stays to the b) The one who stays immediately above M
northeast of S. Q and R don’t stay in the same c) The one who stays on the same floor as T
flat. P stays on an even-numbered floor but not d) Both (a) and (c)
in flat C. e) None of these
11) Who among the following person is staying
to the west of P? 15) Who among the following person stays on
a) O an even-numbered floor?
b) L a) M
c) V b) L
d) S c) V
e) None of these d) Q
e) None of these
12) Which of the following statements is/are
true? Direction (16-20): Study the following
a) O stays to the east of R information carefully and answer the questions
b) N and M stay in different flats given below.
c) L stays to the east of Q Seven persons L, M, N, O, P, Q and R got
d) S stays two floors above O vaccinated on different days of the week from
Sunday to Saturday. The consecutive d) Four

alphabetically named persons don’t get e) None of these
vaccinated on adjacent days. Only one person
got vaccinated each day. 18) Which of the following statement(s) is/are
Not more than two persons got vaccinated false?
before Q. As many persons vaccinated before Q a) R got vaccinated three persons after Q
is same as after the one who got vaccinated b) P got vaccinated on Thursday
immediately after L. Only one person got c) O got vaccinated before M
vaccinated between L and R. The number of d) Q got vaccinated immediately before L
persons vaccinated between M and Q is one e) None of these
more than the number of persons vaccinated
between Q and L. P got vaccinated before N. 19) If all the persons are vaccinated according
16) Who among the following person got to the English alphabetical order from Sunday,
vaccinated on Friday? then how many persons remain unchanged in
a) The one who got vaccinated immediately their position?
before Q a) No one
b) The one who got vaccinated immediately b) Three
after N c) Two
c) The one who got vaccinated between P and L d) One
d) The one who got vaccinated immediately e) None of these
before O
e) None of these 20) Who among the following person got
vaccinated two days before Q?
17) How many persons got vaccinated between a) R
Q and N? b) O
a) Two c) L
b) One d) M
c) Three e) None of these
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Answer Key with Explanation

Direction (1-5): 2) Answer: D
1) Answer: C 3) Answer: D
4) Answer: E  S was born in a leap year and goes for

5) Answer: C the exam in the month which is
Final arrangement: immediately after the month in which Q
goes for the exam.
 S was born immediately after U.
We have,
 The age of P is the multiple of 9 and goes
for the exam in April. Again we have,
 As many persons born before the one  The difference between the ages of Q
who goes in April is same as after the and T is half of the age of P.
one who goes in July. Hence Case 1 and Case 3 get eliminated
From the above conditions, there are three

possibilities
Again we have,
 The number of persons born between P
and the one whose age is a perfect cube
is twice the number of persons born
between P and the one who goes at first.
Again we have,  Both Q and V are going in the month
 Q is elder than V, whose age is a multiple having an even number of days.
of 11. Hence the final arrangement is
From the above conditions, there are three

possibilities
Direction (6-10):
6) Answer: C
7) Answer: D
8) Answer: D
9) Answer: A
10) Answer: C
Again we have,
Final arrangement:
 T sits opposite to the one who sits
second to the left of J.
 J sits neither opposite to Q nor adjacent
to K.
We have,
 H sits four places away from the one who
sits opposite to Q.
 K sits adjacent to H who doesn’t sit at the
extreme ends.
 K sits opposite to the one who sits
second to the left of S.
Again we have,
Again we have,
 U sits towards the left of P.
 R sits to the immediate left of T.
Hence Case 2 shows the final arrangement
 As many persons sit between T and R is
same as between G and L who sits
opposite to S.I does not sit at the extreme
ends of the row.
So Case 1 and Case 2a get eliminated
Direction (11-15):
11) Answer: E
12) Answer: E
13) Answer: A (One floor is between O and R
and same is followed except in option a)
14) Answer: C
15) Answer: C
Final arrangement:
We have,
 T, who stays to the east of O and stays Again we have,
three floors above S. No one stays to the  Q stays to the northeast of S.
west of S.  Q and R don’t stay in the same flat.
From the above condition,there are two  P stays on an even-numbered floor but
possibilities not in flat C.
So Case 1 gets eliminated, hence Case 2 shows
the final arrangement
Again we have,
 N stays on the topmost floor but doesn’t
stay in the same flat as S.
Direction (16-20):
16) Answer: E
17) Answer: C
18) Answer: C
19) Answer: D
Again we have,
20) Answer: D
 L doesn’t stay in Flat B and stays two
Final arrangement:
floors above M who is not staying in the
same flat as T stays.
 As many floors between O and V is same
as between M and W who stays to the
east of L.
 W and V are in the same flat and both of
them stay to the north of U.
We have, Again we have,
 Not more than two persons got  The number of persons vaccinated
vaccinated before Q. between M and Q is one more than the
 As many persons vaccinated before Q is number of persons vaccinated between Q
same as after the one who got vaccinated and L.
immediately after L. So Case 1 and Case 2 get eliminated
From the above condition, there are three

possibilities
Again we have,
 P got vaccinated before N.
Again we have, Hence Case 3 shows the final arrangement is
 Only one person got vaccinated between

L and R.
Score booster
Directions (1-5): Study the following statements All Apollo is Taurus.
and then decide which of the given conclusions Only a few Serena is Archer.
logically follows from the given statements Only a few Taurus is Archer.
disregarding the commonly known facts. Conclusions:
1. Statements: I. All Taurus can be Serena.
Only a few Venus is Moon. II. Some Apollo is Serena.
All Gemini is Aries. A. Only conclusion I follows
All Venus is Leo. B. Only conclusion II follows
Only a few Gemini is Moon. C. Both conclusions I and II follow
Conclusions: D. Either conclusion I or II follows
I. All Leo can be Moon. E. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
II. Some Aries is not Moon.
A. Only conclusion I follows 3. Statements:
B. Only conclusion II follows Only Virgo is Cancer.
C. Both conclusions I and II follow Some Libra is Scorpio.
D. Either conclusion I or II follows Only a few Pisces is Virgo.
E. Neither conclusion I nor II follows All Pisces is Scorpio.
Conclusions:
2. Statements: I. All Libra can be Pisces.
Some Apollo is Archer. II. Some Scorpio is not Cancer.
A. Only conclusion I follows Direction (6-8): In each question, the

B. Only conclusion II follows relationship between difference elements is
C.Both conclusions I and II follow shown in the statement(s) followed by some
D. Either conclusion I or II follows conclusions. Find the conclusion which is
E. Neither conclusion I nor II follows definitely true.
6. Statements:
4. Statements: A ≥ F = D ≤ G > O; P = G < R ≤ W
Only a few Steels are Oil. Conclusions:
All Oils are Coal. I. D < P
No Plastic is Steel. II. A ≤ R
Only a few Coals are Plastic. A.Only I is true
Conclusions: B.Only II is true
I. Some Oils are not Plastic. C.Either I or II is true
II. All Steel can be Coal. D.Neither I nor II is true
A. Only conclusion I follows E.Both I and II are true
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Both conclusions I and II follow 7. Statements:
D. Either conclusion I or II follows N ≤ F ≥ M = T; C > D = H < M = L
E. Neither conclusion I nor II follows Conclusions:
I. L ≤ C
5. Statements: II. F > D
Only a few Coppers are Zinc. A.Only I is true
Some Irons are Copper. B.Only II is true
Only a few Calcium are zinc. C.Either I or II is true
All Irons are Quartz. D.Neither I nor II is true
Conclusions: E.Both I and II are true
I. All Zinc can be Iron.
II. All Quartz can never be Calcium. 8. Statements:
A. Only conclusion I follows N < V ≤ B ≤ I; G > H ≥ Q > Z; I ≤ W ≤ O = Z
B. Only conclusion II follows Conclusions:
C. Both conclusions I and II follow I. G > W
D. Either conclusion I or II follows II. Z ≥ V
E.Neither conclusion I nor II follows III. B > Q
A.Both II and III are true India has more mountains than China. Japan
B.Only I is true has twice the mountains of China but doesn't
C.Both I and II are true have more mountains than India. Sri Lanka has
D.Only II is true more mountains than India but less than
E.Both I and III are true Canada. Canada has three mountains less than
Australia. The country which has the least
Direction (9-10): In each question, the number of mountains has 8 mountains.
relationship between difference elements is 11. If Sri Lanka has twice the mountains of
shown in the statement(s) followed by some Japan, then what may be mountains that India
conclusions in each option. Find the conclusion has?
which is definitely false. A.39
9. Statement: B.11
P≥Q<R≤M<J=T>G≥N C.28
A.J > N D.16
B.T > Q E.33
C.All are true
D.R > J 12. If Canada has sixteen mountains more than
E.All are false Japan, then what is the sum of the mountains in
Japan, China, and Canada?
10. Statement: A.50
C≤F<X=V≥D>E=A B.55
A.V > A C.56
B.E < X D.58
C.V > C E.59
D.X < A
E.X > C 13. As many countries have more mountains
than Sri Lanka as less than____?
Direction (11-13): Study the following A.India
information carefully and answer the questions B.Japan
given below. C.China
A survey shows that six countries viz. India, D.Australia
China, Sri Lanka, Japan, Canada, and Australia E.None of the above
have different number of mountains.
Direction (14-15): Study the following 16. If all the digits are arranged in the ascending
information carefully and answer the questions order from left to right within each number, then
given below. which of the following number remains
Six different objects have different lengths. The unchanged?
length of Tube is more than to both Cable and A. 762
Scale, which does not have the least length. The B. 247
length of Pipe is more than to both Cable and C. 853
Tube. The length of Wire is more than Pipe. D. 931
Cable length is more than Tape but not E. 645
immediately more. The object which has the
second highest length is 16m whereas the 17. In each number, the first and the second
object which has the second least length is 13m. digits are interchanged, then the second and the
14. What is the length of the Cable, if the total third digits are interchanged, then which of the
length of the Pipe and Cable is 30m? following number is the fourth lowest after
A.12m arrangement?
B.14m A. 931
C.11m B. 645
D.13m C. 853
E.None of these D. 762
E. 247
15. Which of the following object has the least
length? 38. What is the product of the highest digit in the
A.Pipe lowest number and the lowest digit in the
B.Cable second highest number?
C.Tape A. 7
D.Scale B. 12
E.Cannot be determined C. 6
D. 54
Direction (16-20): Study the following information E. 21
carefully and answer the questions given below.
19. If all the numbers are reversed, then which
of the following number is the third lowest
number?
A. 762 20. What is the difference between the sum of

B. 247 the second digits of all the numbers and the sum
C. 931 of the third digits of all the numbers?
D. 853 A. 12
E. None of these B. 4
C. 15
D. 7
E. 22

1. Answer: B
4. Answer: C
2. Answer: A
5. Answer: A
3. Answer: C
From the given information, the following was

obtained.
Wire > Pipe (16m) > Tube > Cable > Scale
(13m) > Tape
16. Answer: B
Direction (6-8):
6. Answer: D
7. Answer: B
17. Answer: C
8. Answer: C
9. Answer: D
10. Answer: D
18. Answer: E
11. Answer: C
The highest digit of the lowest number is

Sri Lanka= 2*Japan = 32 247.The lowest digit of the second-highest
number is 853.
12. Answer: C 7*3=21
19. Answer: D
Canada=16 (Japan) + 16=32

Sum=32+16+8=56
13. Answer: A 20. Answer: B
The sum of the second digits of all the numbers

= 6+4+3+5+4=22
Direction (14-15): The sum of the third digits of all the
14. Answer: B numbers=2+7+1+3+5=18
15. Answer: C 22-18=4.
Segmentations.
IBPS PO Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Aptitude – Day-07/50 (Eng)
Segmentations.

Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (01-05): Read the following number of students who like all three
information carefully and answer the questions. chocolates?
In a school, there are 820 students in the year a) 4:3
1990 and each student like at least one of these b) 7:6
three chocolates i.e. Munch, Gems and 5-Star. c) 9:8
The number of students who like only 5-Star is x d) 5:9
and the number of students who like only Munch e) None of these
is 60 less than the double the number of
students who like only 5-Star. The number of 3) The number of students who like only Gems
students who like only Gems is 50% of the is what percentage of the number of students
number of students who like only Munch. The who like Munch?
number of students who like both Gems and 5- a) 15%
Star but not Munch is 1/3rd of the number of b) 24%
students who like only 5-Star. The number of c) 40%
students who like both Gems and 5-Star but not d) 32%
Munch is half of the number of students who like e) None of these
both Munch and Gems but not 5-Star. The
number of students who like both munch and 5- 4) The total number of students who like at most
Star is 160 and the number of students who like one chocolate is how much more than the
all three chocolates 90. number of students who like exactly two
1) Find the difference between the number of chocolates?
students who like both Munch and 5-Star and a) 250
the number of students who like only 5-Star? b) 270
a) 10 c) 290
b) 90 d) 210
c) 70 e) None of these
d) 80
e) None of these 5) Find the average number of students who like
chocolates but not Munch and the number of
2) Find the ratio of the number of students who students who like only Munch?
like both Gems and 5-Star but not Munch to the a) 280
b) 370
c) 190 e) None of these

d) 410
Directions (06-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
The given radar graph shows the average number of UG and PG students in five different colleges i.e.
A, B, C, D and E and also given the number of UG students in five different colleges.
The total number of students = The number of UG students + The number of PG students
6) If the total number of boys in college B is 80

more than that of girls and the ratio of the
number of PG boys to PG girls in college B is d) 40% more

3:1, then find the ratio of the number of UG boys e) None of these
to PG girls in college B?
a) 8:5 10) If the number of UG students in college F is
b) 7:3 two times the number of UG students in college
c) 9:2 A and the ratio of the number of PG students in
d) 5:4 college D to F is 4:5, then find the total number
e) None of these of students in college F?
a) 810
7) Find the ratio of the total number of UG b) 650
students in college B and C together to the c) 530
number of PG students in college A? d) 780
a) 3:2 e) None of these
b) 8:5
c) 7:9 11) Pipes P, Q and R together can fill a tank in 9
d) 2:1 minutes. The efficiency of pipe P is 50% more
e) None of these than that of pipe Q and the efficiency of pipe R
is 250% of the efficiency of pipe Q. Find the time
8) Find the difference between the number of taken by pipe P and Q together to fill the tank
PG students in college C and the number of PG with half of their efficiency?
students in college B? a) 48 minutes
a) 120 b) 60 minutes
b) 190 c) 36 minutes
c) 140 d) 24 minutes
d) 110 e) None of these
e) None of these
12) A jar contains a mixture of milk and water in
9) The number of UG students in college D is the ratio of 3:2. If 150 liters of the mixture is
what percentage more/less than the number of taken out and replaced by the same quantity of
PG students in college E? water, the ratio of water to milk becomes 29:21.
a) 50% more Find the quantity of water left in the jar finally?
b) 20% more a) 145 liters
c) 30% less b) 290 liters
c) 116 liters cost of flooring the rectangular field per square

d) 435 liters meter?
e) None of these a) Rs.20
b) Rs.30
13) Kamal invests Rs.4500 in simple interest at c) Rs.25
x% per annum for x years and the interest d) Rs.10
obtained by Kamal is Rs.2880. Suruthi invests e) None of these
Rs.y in compound interest at (x+12)% per
annum for 2 years and the interest obtained by 16) The boat covers x km upstream in 5 hours
Suruthi is Rs.1320. Find the value of y? and the same boat covers (x+60) km
a) 3000 downstream in 4 hours. If the speed of the
b) 5100 stream is 3/7th of the speed of the boat in still
c) 2200 water, then find the total distance covered by the
d) 4000 boat in still water in 8 hours?
e) None of these a) 176 km
b) 196 km
14) 5 years ago, the ratio of the age of Sara to c) 168 km
Anil is 6:5 and 5 years ago, the ratio of the age d) 144 km
of Ali to Anil is 4:5. If the average age of Sara, e) None of these
Ali and Anil together is 45, then find the
difference between the present age of Sara and 17) A shopkeeper bought a radio, a speaker and
Ali? a clock for Rs.1600, Rs.3600 and Rs.2500
a) 16 years respectively. If he sold the radio at a profit of
b) 14 years 10%, the speaker sold at a loss of 25% and the
c) 10 years clock sold at a profit of 40%, then find the overall
d) 12 years profit/loss earned by the shopkeeper?
e) None of these a) Rs.260 profit
b) Rs.450 loss
15) The length of the rectangle is three times c) Rs.320 profit
more than its breadth and the total cost of d) Rs.540 loss
flooring the rectangular field is Rs.5760. If the e) None of these
perimeter of the rectangle is 120 m, then find the
18) The average mark scored by x students in a a) 120

class is 75 and the average mark scored by b) 200
boys in the class is 69 and the average mark c) 160
scored by girls in the class is 85. The number of d) 100
girls in the class is what percentage of the e) None of these
number of boys in the same class?
a) 70% 20) A box contains 60 balls of orange, black and
b) 60% green. The number of orange balls is equal to
c) 80% 180% of the number of black balls and the
d) 50% probability of selecting an orange ball is 9/20. If
e) None of these two balls are drawn at random, then find the
probability that both balls are black?
19) The sum of two numbers A and B is double a) 31/148
the difference between the same numbers and b) 10/163
the ratio of numbers B to C is 8:5 and the sum of c) 25/177
the numbers B and C is 65. Find number A, if d) 7/118
the number A is more than number B? e) None of these
Directions (01-05): The number of students who like both Munch

The number of students who like only 5-Star = x and 5-Star but not Gems = 160 – 90 = 70
The number of students who like only Munch =
2x – 60
The number of students who like only Gems =
(2x – 60) * 50/100 = (2x – 60) * 1/2 = (x – 30)
The number of students who like both 5-Star and
Gems but not Munch = x/3
The number of students who like both Munch
and Gems but not 5-Star = x/3 * 2 = 2x/3
2x – 60 + 2x/3 + x – 30 + 90 + 70 + x/3 + x = 820
The number of students who like all three
4x + 2x/3 + x/3 = 820 - 70
chocolates = 90
12x + 2x + x = 750 * 3
x = 750 * 3/15 Required percentage = 120/500 * 100 = 24%

x = 150
The number of students who like only 5-Star = 4) Answer: C
150 The total number of students who like at most
The number of students who like only Munch = 2 one chocolate = 240 + 120 + 150 = 510
* 150 – 60 = 300 – 60 = 240 The total number of students who like exactly
The number of students who like only Gems = two chocolates = 100 + 50 + 70 = 220
150 – 30 = 120 Required difference = 510 – 220 = 290
The number of students who like both 5-Star and
Gems but not Munch = 150/3 = 50 5) Answer: A
The number of students who like both Munch The number of students who like chocolates but
and Gems but not 5-Star = 2 * 150/3 = 100 not Munch = 120 + 50 + 150 = 320
The total number of students who like munch = Required average = (320 + 240)/2 = 560/2 = 280
240 + 100 + 70 + 90 = 500
The total number of students who like Gems = Directions (06-10):
120 + 90 + 100 + 50 = 360 College A:
The total number of students who like 5-Star = The total number of UG and PG students = 170 *
150 + 50 + 90 + 70 = 360 2 = 340
The number of PG students = 340 – 190 = 150
College B:
The total number of UG and PG students = 110 *
2 = 220
College C:
2 = 360
1) Answer: A
College D:
Required difference = 160 – 150 = 10
2 = 300
2) Answer: D
Required ratio = 50:90 = 5:9
College E:
3) Answer: B
The total number of UG and PG students = 120 * Required percentage = (180 – 150)/150 * 100 =
2 = 240 30/150 * 100 = 20% more
10) Answer: C
The number of UG students in college F = 190 *
2 = 380
The number of PG students in college F = 120 *
5/4 = 150
Required total = 380 + 150 = 530
11) Answer: C
6) Answer: C
Let the efficiency of pipe Q = 2x
The total number of boys in college B = (220 +
And the ratio of the efficiency of pipe P, Q and R
80)/2 = 300/2 = 150
= (2x * 150/100):2x:(2x * 250/100)
The total number of girls in college B = 220 –
= 3:2:5
150 = 70
The ratio of the time taken by pipes P, Q and R
The number of PG girls in college B = 80 * 1/(3 +
alone fill the tank = 1/3:1/2:1/5 = 10:15:6
1) = 80 * 1/4 = 20
Let the time taken by pipe P alone fill the tank =
The number of PG boys in college B = 80 -20 =
10y
60
And the time taken by pipe Q alone fill the tank =
The number of UG boys in college B = 150 – 60
15y
= 90
And the time taken by pipe R alone fill the tank =
6y
1/10y + 1/15y + 1/6y = 1/9
7) Answer: D
3/30y + 2/30y + 5/30y = 1/9
The total number of UG students in colleges B
10 * 9/30 = y
and C together = 140 + 160 = 300
y=3
Pipe P alone fill the tank = 10 * 3 = 30 minutes
Pipe Q alone fill the tank = 15 * 3 = 45 minutes
8) Answer: A
Pipes P and Q together to fill the tank with half of
Required difference = 200 – 80 = 120
their efficiency = 1/(30 * 2) + 1/(45 * 2)
= 1/60 + 1/90
9) Answer: B
= 5/180
= 36 minutes Let the present age of Sara = 6x + 5

And the present age of Anil = 5x + 5
12) Answer: B And the present age of Ali = 4x + 5
Let the quantity of milk in the jar initially = 3x The sum of the present age of Sara, Ali and Anil
And the quantity of water in the jar initially = 2x = 45 * 3 = 135 years
And the quantity of mixture in the jar = 3x + 2x = (6x + 5) + (4x + 5) + (5x + 5) = 135
5x 15x + 15 = 135
(3x – 150 * 3x/5x)/(2x – 150 * 2x/5x + 150) = 15x = 120
21/29 x=8
(3x – 90) * 29 = (2x – 60 + 150) * 21 The present age of Sara = 6 * 8 + 5 = 53 years
87x - 2610 = (2x + 90) * 21 The present age of Ali = 4 * 8 + 5 = 37 years
87x - 2610 = 42x + 1890 Required difference = 53 – 37 = 16 years
45x = 4500
x = 100 15) Answer: D
The quantity of water in the jar initially = 2 * 100 Let the breadth of the rectangle = x
= 200 liters And the length of the rectangle = 4x
The quantity of water in the jar finally = 200 + 90 And the cost of flooring the rectangular field per
= 290 liters square meter = y
2 * (4x + 1x) = 120
13) Answer: A 5x = 60
4500 * x * x/100 = 2880 x = 12
x2 = 2880 * 100/4500 The length of the rectangle = 4 * 12 = 48 m
x2 = 64 And the breadth of the rectangle = 12 m
x=8 y * 48 * 12 = 5760
The rate of interest in which Suruthi invests = 8 + y = 10
12 = 20
1320 = y * (1+20/100)2 – y 16) Answer: C
1320 = y * 144/100 – y Let the speed of the boat in still water = 7a
1320 * 100 = 144y – 100y And the speed of the stream = 3a
y = 1320 * 100/44 x = (7a – 3a) * 5
y = 3000 x = 35a – 15a
x = 20a ---(1)
14) Answer: A x + 60 = (7a + 3a) * 4
x + 60 = 28a + 12a
x + 60 = 40a ---(2) 19) Answer: A
From (1) and (2), Let the number of A = x
20a + 60 = 40a And the number B = 8y
20a = 60 And the number C = 5y
a=3 8y + 5y = 65
The speed of the boat in still water = 7 * 3 = 21 13y = 65
km/hr y=5
The total distance covered by the boat in still The number B = 8 * 5 = 40
water in 8 hours = 21 * 8 = 168 km (x + 40) = 2 * (x – 40)
x + 40 = 2x – 80
17) Answer: A x = 120
The overall profit received by the shopkeeper =
1600 * 10/100 - 3600 * 25/100 + 2500 * 40/100 20) Answer: D
= 160 – 900 + 1000 P(E) = n(E)/n(S)
= Rs.260 Let the number of orange balls in the box = x
And the ratio of the number of orange to black
18) Answer: B balls in the box = 180:100 = 9:5
Let the number of boys in the class = a xC1/60C1 = 9/20
And the number of girls in the class = b x = 9 * 60/20
Then x = a+b x = 27
a * 69 + b * 85 = 75 * (a + b) The number of orange balls in the box = 27
69a + 85b = 75a + 75b The number of black balls in the box = 27 *
6a = 10b 100/180 = 27 * 5/9 = 15
a/b = 10/6 Required probability = 15C2/60C2 = 15 * 14/(60 *
a/b = 5/3 59) = 7/118
Required percentage = 3/5 * 100 = 60%
Score booster
Directions (01-05): What value should come in D.12
the place of (?) in the following questions. E.11
1. (23 ÷ 232) * (? ÷ 276) * 29 = (1 ÷ 8)
A.18 2. 15 * 19 + 22 * 17 = ?2 + 83
B.17 A.21
C.13 B.25
C.27 E.3
D.23
E.24 7. 19.98 * 21.21 ÷ √145 = ?3 + (1.98)3
A.1
3. 4(1/13) of 117 – 3(3/7) of 126 = ? B.3
A.57 C.5
B.45 D.4
C.63 E.7
D.68
E.73 8. (135.02 ÷ 12.98) * (117.23 ÷ 8.91) = ?
A.120
4. √1024 * (?/25) = (54/?) * √2304 B.125
A.46 C.140
B.45 D.150
C.48 E.135
D.40
E.42 9. 33.33% of 44.98 + 66.66% of 69.08 = ?
A.61
5. (493 ÷ 29) * (171 ÷ 9) = ? + 35% of 180 B.73
A.260 C.57
B.265 D.79
C.270 E.91
D.275
E.255 10. 33.982 + 22.222= ?2 + √1605
A.20
Directions (06-10): What approximate value B.35
should come in the place of (?) in the following C.40
questions? D.45
6. (2/3) * √2020 + 560.96 ÷ √120 = ?2 E.25
A.7
B.11 Directions (11-15): Find out the missing number
C.13 in the following number series.
D.9 11. 12, 42, 77, 117, 162, ?
A.216 Directions (16-20): Find out the wrong number in

B.212 the following number series.
C.208 16. 7, 26, 52, 87, 136, 192
D.218 A.192
E.204 B.87
C.26
12. 2, 7, 17, ?, 60, 97 D.136
A.34 E.52
B.38
C.42 17. 287, 359, 437, 839, 959, 1367
D.48 A.437
E.51 B.839
C.959
13. 3, 5, 12, 38, ?, 772 D.1367
A.142 E.359
B.148
C.154 18. 48, 120, 420, 1880, 10395, 67567.5
D.158 A.67567.5
E.160 B.120
C.1880
14. 324, 335, ?, 346, 302, 357 D.420
A.364 E.10395
B.357
C.310 19. 1, 8, 48, 192, 384, 768
D.313 A.768
E.None of these B.192
C.8
15. 17, 34, 53, 76, ?, 136 D.384
A.105 E.48
B.112
C.123 20. 20, 57, 118, 209, 336, 508
D.98 A.336
E.87 B.118
C.209 23.
D.508 I) x2+39x+380=0
E.57 II) y2-2y-399=0
A.x > y
Directions (21-25): In each of the following B.x ≥ y
questions, two equations are given. You have to C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
solve both the equations to find the relation D.x < y
between x and y. E.x ≤ y
21.
I) x2+10x-231=0 24.
II) y2-6y-216=0 I) x2+19x+84=0
A.x > y II) 4y2+27y+45=0
B.x ≥ y A.x > y
C.x = y (or) relationship can’t be determined. B.x ≥ y
D.x < y C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
E.x ≤ y D.x < y
E.x ≤ y
22.
I) 4x2-25x+36=0 25.
II) y2+476=512 I) x2 – 15x + 56 = 0
A.x > y II) y2 + 9y – 112 = 0
B.x ≥ y A.x > y
C.x = y (or) relationship can’t be determined. B.x ≥ y
D.x < y C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
E.x ≤ y D.x < y
E.x ≤ y
1. Answer: D
(23 ÷ 232) * (? ÷ 276) * 29 = (1 ÷ 8) 2. Answer: E
? = 96/8 = 12 15 * 19 + 22 * 17 = ?2 + 83
285 + 374 – 83 = ?2 3/9 * 45 + 6/9 * 69 = ?

? = 24 15 + 46 = ?
? = 61
3. Answer: B
4(1/13) of 117 – 3(3/7) of 126 = ? 10. Answer: C
477 – 432 = ? 33.982 + 22.222= ?2 + √1605
? = 45 1156 + 484 = ?2 + 40
? = 40
4. Answer: B
√1024 * (?/25) = (54/?) * √2304 11. Answer: B
32/25 * ?2 = 54 * 48 12 + 30 = 42
? = 45 42 + 35 = 77
77 + 40 = 117
5. Answer: A 117 + 45 = 162
(493 ÷ 29) * (171 ÷ 9) = ? + 35% of 180 162 + 50 = 212
17 * 19 = ? + 63
? = 260 12. Answer: A
2 + 22 + 1 = 7
6. Answer: D 7 + 32 + 1 = 17
(2/3) * √2020 + 560.96 ÷ √120 = ?2 17 + 42 + 1 = 34
2/3 * 45 + 561/11 = ?2 34 + 52 + 1 = 60
?=9 60 + 62 + 1 = 97
7. Answer: B 13. Answer: C

19.98 * 21.21 ÷ √145 = ?3 + (1.98)3 3*1+2=5
20 * 21/12 = ?3 + 8 5 * 2 + 2 = 12
?=3 12 * 3 + 2 = 38
38 * 4 + 2 = 154
8. Answer: E 154 * 5 + 2 = 772
(135.02 ÷ 12.98) * (117.23 ÷ 8.91) = ?
135 = ? 14. Answer: D
324 + 11 = 335
9. Answer: A 335 – 22 = 313
33.33% of 44.98 + 66.66% of 69.08 = ? 313 + 33 = 346
346 – 44 = 302 8 * 6 = 48
302 + 55 = 357 48 * 4 = 192
192 * 2 = 384
15. Answer: A 384 * 0 = 0
17 + 17 = 34
34 + 19 = 53 20. Answer: D
53 + 23 = 76 33 – 7 = 20
76 + 29 = 105 43 – 7 = 57
105 + 31 = 136 53 – 7 = 118
63 – 7 = 209
16. Answer: D 73 – 7 = 336
7 + 32 + 10 = 26 83 – 7 = 505
26 + 42 + 10 = 52
52 + 52 + 10 = 87 21. Answer: C
87 + 62 + 10 = 133 x2+10x-231=0
133 + 72 + 10 = 192 x2+21x-11x-231=0
x(x+21)-11(x+21)=0
17. Answer: A x=-21, +11
172 – 2 = 287 y2-6y-216=0
192 – 2 = 359 y2-18y+12y-216=0
232 – 2 = 527 y(y-18)+12(y-18)=0
292 -2 = 839 y=+18, -12
312 – 2 = 959 Relationship can’t be determined
372 - 2= 1367
22. Answer: C
18. Answer: C 4x2-25x+36=0
48 * 2.5 = 120 4x2-16x-9x+36=0
120 * 3.5 = 420 4x(x-4)-9(x-4)=0
420 * 4.5 = 1890 x=+4, +9/4
1890 * 5.5 = 10395 x=+4, +2.25
10395 * 6.5 = 67567.5 y2+476=512
y2=36
19. Answer: A y=±6
1*8=8 Relationship can’t be determined
4y2+27y+45=0
23. Answer: E 4y2+12y+15y+45=0
x2+39x+380=0 4y(y+3)+15(y+3)=0
x2+19x+20x+380=0 y=-3, -15/4
x(x+19)+20(x+19)=0 x<y
x=-19, -20
y2-2y-399=0 25. Answer: B
y2-21y+19y-399=0 x2 – 15x + 56 = 0
y(y-21)+19(y-21)=0 x2 – 7x – 8x + 56 = 0
y=21, -19 x(x – 7) – 8(x – 7) = 0
x≤y x = 7, 8
y2 + 9y – 112 = 0
24. Answer: D y2 + 16y – 7y – 112 = 0
x2+19x+84=0 y(y + 16) – 7(y + 16) = 0
x2+12x+7x+84=0 y = -16, 7
x(x+12)+7(x+12)=0 x≥y
x=-12, -7
Segmentations.

IBPS PO Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: English – Day-07/50
Segmentations.

English Language
Direction (1-5): Two sentences I and I. It is sad that India has witnessed
sentences II are given with a blank in them. ____________ the 6 per cent tolerance limit for
Choose a word from the given options that inflation on 6 occasions since 2014.
would fill both the blanks in the given II. The Cybersecurity and Infrastructure
sentences. Security Agency has already issued advice to
1. businesses and other organizations on how to
I. Sri Lanka is in the grips of its worst avoid digital invasions and respond if there is
Economic __________ in history. ________ by some hackers.
II. She was about to break the relationship A. Invading
with her husband, but the love they had B. Rendering
prevented her from having a ___________. C. Breaching
A. meltdown D. Provoking
B. disruption E. Forbidding
C. downfall
D. solitude 4.
E. resentment I. Indian bulk diesel buyers are __________ up
diesel from retail stations as pump prices are
2. cheaper than their bulk contract prices.
I. Many teenagers choose to ________in II. We are ________ up tickets for the Dubai
addictive games that involve gambling due to Expo just to see the Mastero.
the influence of advertisements. A. Cooking
II. In order to ensure that all Indians, B. Gathering
regardless of caste, class and religion, are C. Blocking
able to _______ in economic growth, we must D. Snapping
focus on basic skills. E. Hovering
A. rejoice
B. partake 5.
C. revive I. Oil prices have already crossed the
D. obligate boundaries and can further ________ demand
E. mislay for two-wheelers.
II. My friend’s marriage would put a serious
3. ______ in my monthly budget.
A. Alleviate 8. Import bans and international sanctions on

B. Concuss Russia (A) / may constrain the future cash
C. Heist flow-generating (B) / capacity of some assets
D. Abolish and (C) / lead to impairment losses (D) / for
E. Dent many companies (E).
A. C
Direction (6-10): A sentence is divided into five B. B
parts. One of these parts may have an error in C. A
it. Choose the part which has error in it. If D. D
there is no error in the given statement, E. No Error
choose ‘No error’ as your answer.
6. The plane involved in crash was not (A) / a 9. Cold wave conditions over parts of North-
Boeing 737 Max, a model it (B) / was banned West India and (A) / adjoining Central and
globally, including in India, (C) / following two East India will abate as twin weather-making
deadly crashes, and has (D) / not yet resumed western (B) / disturbances moves in afresh
flying in China. (E) across the international border, (C) / with one
A. E of them being an active and intense system
B. C (D) / capable of setting up clouds, snow and
C. B rainfall (E).
D. D A. C
E. No Error B. A
C. E
7. All eyes will be over the fiscal deficit D. B
numbers (A) / that the government will be E. No Error
estimating for (B) / the next financial year and
the extent (C) / to which the government is 10. Sales of gasoil, which accounts for (A) /
willing to (D) / spend to shore up the economy. about two-fifth of India’s overall (B) / refined
(E) fuel consumption, surged (C) / to pre-
A. E pandemic levels in the first half (D) / of March,
B. A rising by 32.8% from a month earlier (E).
C. D A. D
D. B B. E
E. No Error C. C
D. B
E. No Error 12.
Column I Column II
Direction (11-15): Match the column I with the A. Consumers seek D. they are not only
column II to make a meaningful sentence, a variety of snacks looking at snacks for
using the connectors followed by the given that can deliver a nourishment, but also
table. Choose the sequence from the given balance between to improve emotional,
options. functional and mental and physical
11. indulgent foods health.
Column I Column II B. 77 per cent E. 86 per cent
A. A digital currency is D. they tend to be consumers agree consumers stated that
issued by the Central highly volatile. that certain snacks it is important for them
bank can be reserved for to have control over
B. Private crypto E. crypto currencies the enjoyment of the portion size and
currencies are such as Bitcoin and snacking rather than ingredients in their
unregulated and Ethereum are worrying about snack.
decentralised private and have no nutrition,
issuers as such. C. Consumers are F. nearly 78 per cent
C. Crypto exchanges F. they are hopeful ascribing so much of consumers said
say there has not been that the Finance more meaning to they are looking
a significant change in Ministry would snacks forward to a snack
investor behaviour reduce the high tax during the day more
since the Budget rate of 30 per cent than meals.
announcement as well as the one
per cent TDS. I. besides
I. while II. and
II. and III. while
III. but A. A-I-F, B-II-D, C-II-E
A. A-I-E, B-II-D, C-III-F B. A-II-E, B-II-D, C-II-F
B. A-II-E, B-III-F, C-II-D C. A-II-D, B-II-F, C-II-E
C. A-II-F, B-I-D, C-II-E D. A-II-D, B-III-E, C-II-F
D. A-II-E, B-I-F, C-II-D E. A-II-F, B-II-D, C-I-E
E. A-II-F, B-II-D, C-I-E
13.
Column I Column II B. India used to follow E. India opened up

A. Experts from the D. we were able to the administered or its capital markets.
world over have make 90 per cent of fixed rate of exchange
estimated that around India’s requirement of until 1993
30 million children’s Covid vaccines. C. The actions of F. it is of crude oil or
lives have been saved foreign institutional other crucial items.
B. Most of our E. we provided investors (FIIs) have
vaccines have been vaccines that are been the major cause
used by poorer affordable at a price of the rupee’s
nations, UNICEF and of a cup of tea. fluctuations since mid-
other philanthropic 1996,
organizations I. whether
C. The main crux of F. Serum Institute II. when
the matter is that the has provided III. yet
same Covishield vaccines at an A. A-I-F, B-II-E, C-III-D
templet we applied, affordable price. B. A-II-E, B-III-F, C-I-D
low cost, high C. A-I-F, B-II-D, C-II-E
production D. A-II-E, B-I-F, C-II-D
I. but E. A-II-F, B-II-D, C-I-E
II. because
III. so 15.
A. A-I-E, B-II-D, C-III-F Column I Column II
B. A-II-F, B-III-E, C-I-D A. Maruti Suzuki D. it faces headwinds
C. A-III-F, B-I-D, C-II-E India Ltd, India’s such as high
D. A-II-E, B-I-D, C-II-F largest carmaker, has commodity prices and
E. A-II-F, B-III-D, C-II-E shown month-on- the global
month improvement semiconductor crisis.
14. B. The auto sector is E. rising fuel and
Column I Column II on the cusp of vehicle prices are key
A. Indian imports have D. it moved to a recovery downside risks.
been adversely hit market-determined
process or floating C. Reopening of F. it isn’t able to utilize
exchange rate. educational its full production
institutions and capacity yet. 17. With the growing adoption of e-commerce
private offices and and instant-commerce channels, the majority
growing e-commerce of respondents prefer buying the snacks of
demand will push their choice using the multiple channels
demand for A. prefer buying the snacks of its choice using
commercial vehicles B. prefer buy the snacks of their choice use
I. but C. prefer buy the snacks of its choice using
II. even as D. prefer buying the snacks of its choice use
III. because E. No improvement is required.
A. A-I-E, B-II-D, C-III-F
B. A-III-E, B-II-F, C-I-D 18. The Economic Survey 2021-22 have
C. A-II-F, B-III-D, C-II-E called through embracing Agile framework of
D. A-II-E, B-III-F, C-I-D policy making under conditions of extreme
E. A-I-F, B-II-D, C-I-E uncertainty.
A. have called for embracing Agile framework
Direction (16-20): In the following questions, a on policy
part of the sentence has been given in bold B. has called for embracing Agile framework
which may or may not require improvement. for policy
Choose the correct alternative that may help C. have called through embracing Agile
improve the given sentence grammatically and framework for policy
contextually. If no improvement is required, D. has called off embracing Agile framework in
choose ‘e’ as your option. policy
16. The production in the economy are E. No improvement is required.
dependent with whether there is enough
demand in the market, which in turn affects 19. Amidst the rise of private crypto
the economic growth. currencies, a number of country across the
A. is dependent with whether there is enough world is exploring launching their own digital
B. is dependent on whether there is enough currencies, which is seen by many as the
C. are dependent on whether there is enough future of currency.
D. is dependent on whether there are enough A. a number of country along the world are
E. No improvement is required. exploring
B. a number of countries across the world are
exploring
C. a number of countries along the world is A. Indian consumers’ lives have expanded as
exploring it focus
D. the number of country across the world are B. Indian consumers lives has expanded as
exploring they focus
E. No improvement is required. C. Indian consumers’ lives has expanded as
they focus
20. With the pandemic shaping changes in D. Indian consumers’ lives have expanded as
consumer behavior, the role and meaning of it focus
snacking in Indian consumers lives has E. No improvement is required.
expanded as it focus on balancing health and
indulgence.

1. Answer: A in sentence II, but it is inappropriate for
 ‘Meltdown’ means ‘a disastrous event, the blank in sentence I.
especially a rapid fall in share prices’.  ‘Resentment’ means ‘bitter indignation at
 ‘Meltdown’ means ‘a sudden loss of having been treated unfairly’. Option E
control over one’s feelings or behavior’. may fit the blank in sentence II, but it is
 In sentence I, ‘meltdown’ refers to a inappropriate for the blank in sentence I.
disastrous event.
 In sentence II, ‘meltdown’ refers to the 2. Answer: B
loss of emotional control.  ‘Partake’ means ‘join in (an activity)’.
 So, option A is appropriate.  In both sentences ‘partake’ refers to
 ‘Disruption’ means ‘disturbance or participation.
problems which interrupt an event,  ‘Rejoice’ means ‘feel or show great joy or
activity, or process’. delight’. ‘Rejoice’ can fill the blank in
 ‘Downfall’ means ‘a loss of power, sentence I, but it is irrelevant in the
prosperity, or status’. Option C may fit sentence II. So, option A is eliminated.
the blank in sentence I, but it is  ‘Revive’ means ‘restore to life or
inappropriate for the blank in sentence II. consciousness’. Option C is contextually
 ‘Solitude’ means ‘the state or situation of incorrect.
being alone’. Option D may fit the blank
 ‘Obligate’ means ‘bind or compel  In both blanks, ‘snapping up’ is

(someone), especially legally or morally’. contextually correct.
Option D may fit into the blank in  ‘Cooking up’ is a phrasal verb that means
sentence I, but it is inappropriate for the ‘inventing some new idea or excuse to
blank in sentence II. deal with a particular situation’.
 ‘Mislay’ means ‘unintentionally put (an  ‘Blocking’ means ‘prevent something
object) where it cannot readily be found from being done’.
and so lose it temporarily’. Option E  ‘Gathering’ means ‘bringing many things
hence, is inappropriate. together’.
 ‘Hovering’ means ‘to wait near
3. Answer: C somebody/something’.
 ‘Breaching’ means ‘an act of breaking or
violating law, promise, agreement, 5. Answer: E
regulation, or relationship’.  ‘Dent’ means ‘a noticeable effect,
 In sentence I, breaching refers to the especially of reduction’.
violation of tolerance limit.  In sentences I, ‘dent’ refers to reduction.
 In sentence II, breaching refers to  In sentence II, ‘dent’ refers to effect. So,
violation by hackers. option E is the right answer.
 ‘Invading’ means ‘(of an armed force or  ‘Alleviate’ means ‘make (suffering,
its commander) entering (a country or deficiency, or a problem) less severe’.
region) so as to subjugate or occupy it’. High oil prices won’t make the demand
 ‘Rendering’ means ‘providing or giving (a less severe. So, option A is eliminated.
service, help, etc.)’.  ‘Concuss’ means ‘cause (someone) to
 ‘Provoking’ means ‘giving rise to the become temporarily unconscious or
specified reaction or emotion’. confused by hitting them on the head’.
 ‘Forbidding’ means ‘refusing to allow ‘Concuss’ is inappropriate contextually
(something)’. and it is eliminated.
 Except C, other options are irrelevant to  ‘Heist’ means ‘a robbery’. ‘Heist’ is
the context. inappropriate contextually and it is
eliminated.
4. Answer: D  ‘Abolish’ means ‘formally put an end to (a
 ‘Snapping up’ is a phrasal verb which system, practice, or institution)’. ‘Abolish’
means ‘buying or taking (someone or is inappropriate contextually and hence,
something’ quickly’ is eliminated.
6. Answer: C disturbances move in afresh across the

 In part B, replace ‘it’ with ‘that’. international border, with one of them
 We use ‘that’ to refer to a person or a being an active and intense system
thing that is already mentioned. capable of setting up clouds, snow and
 The sentence is, “The plane involved in rainfall.”
crash was not a Boeing 737 Max, a
model that was banned globally, 10. Answer: D
including in India, following two deadly  In part B, replace ‘two-fifth’ with ‘two-
crashes, and has not yet resumed flying fifths’.
in China.”  When using fractions, if the numerator is
not one, then the denominator should be
7. Answer: B in plural. E.g. Three-fourths, one- third,
 In part A, Replace ‘over’ with ‘on’. four-fifths, etc.
 ‘All eyes will be on’ means ‘everyone will  The correct sentence is, “Sales of gasoil,
be looking at’. which accounts for about two-fifths of
 The sentence is, “All eyes will be on the India’s overall refined fuel consumption,
fiscal deficit numbers that the surged to pre-pandemic levels in the first
government will be estimating for the half of March, rising by 32.8% from a
next financial year and the extent to  month earlier.”
which the government is willing to spend
to shore up the 11. Answer: A
 economy.”  Sentence A-E: A digital currency is
issued by the Central bank while crypto
8. Answer: E currencies such as Bitcoin and Ethereum
There is no error in the given statement. are private and have no issuers as such.
 Sentence B-D: Private crypto currencies
9. Answer: A are unregulated and decentralised and
 In part C, replace ‘moves’ with ‘move’. they tend to be highly volatile.
 The subject ‘cold wave conditions’ is  Sentence C-F: Crypto exchanges say
plural and it must take the verb ‘move’. there has not been a significant change
 The sentence is, “Cold wave conditions in investor behaviour since the Budget
over parts of North-West India and announcement but they are hopeful that
adjoining Central and East India will the Finance Ministry would reduce the
abate as twin weather-making western high tax rate of
 30 per cent as well as the one per cent  Sentence C-D: The main crux of the
TDS. matter is that the same Covishield
templet we applied, low cost, high
12. Answer: D production, and we were able to make 90
 Sentence A-D: Consumers seek a variety per cent of India’s requirement of Covid
of snacks that can deliver a balance vaccines.
between functional and indulgent foods
and they are not only looking at snacks 14. Answer: C
for nourishment, but also to improve  Sentence A-F: Indian imports have been
emotional, mental and physical health. adversely hit, whether it is of crude oil or
 Sentence B-E: 77 per cent consumers other crucial items.
agree that certain snacks can be  Sentence B-D: India used to follow the
reserved for the enjoyment of snacking administered or fixed rate of exchange
rather than worrying about nutrition, while until 1993, when it moved to a market-
86 per cent stated that it is important for determined process or floating exchange
them to have control over the portion size rate.
and ingredients in their snack.  Sentence C-E: The actions of foreign
 Sentence C-F: Consumers are ascribing institutional investors (FIIs) have been
so much more meaning to snacks and the major cause of the rupee’s
nearly 78 per cent of consumers said fluctuations since mid-1996, when India
they are looking forward to a snack opened up its capital markets.
during the day more than meals.
15. Answer: E
13. Answer: B  Sentence A-F: Maruti Suzuki India Ltd,
 Sentence A-F: Experts from the world India’s largest carmaker, has shown
over have estimated that around 30 month-on-month improvement, but it isn’t
million children’s lives have been saved able to utilize its full production capacity
because Serum Institute has provided yet.
vaccines at an affordable price.  Sentence B-D: The auto sector is on the
 Sentence B-E: Most of our vaccines have cusp of recovery even as it
been used by poorer nations, UNICEF faces headwinds such as high commodity
and other philanthropic organizations, so prices and the global semiconductor
we provided vaccines that are affordable crisis.
at a price of a cup of tea.
 Sentence C-E: Reopening of educational 18. Answer: B

institutions and private offices and  The subject (the Economic Survey) is
growing e-commerce demand will push singular, so ‘have’ needs to be replaced
demand for commercial vehicles, but with ‘has’.
rising fuel and vehicle prices are key  ‘Called’ is followed by ‘for’.
downside risks.  So, option B is the improvement needed.
16. Answer: B 19. Answer: B

 Replace ‘are dependent with whether  ‘A number of’ will be followed by a plural
there is enough’ with ‘is dependent on noun. So ‘country’ should be replaced by
whether there is enough’. ‘countries’.
 The subject ‘the production in the  ‘A number of countries’ requires a plural
economy’ and ‘demand in the market’ are verb (are).
singular, so the verb should be singular  So, option B is the improvement
(is). required.
 ‘Dependent’ is not followed by ‘with’.
 So, option B carries the improvement 20. Answer: C
required.  Replace ‘Indian consumers’ with ‘Indian
consumers’’, as possessive case is
17. Answer: E required.
 No improvement is required.  ‘Indian consumers’ takes up the pronoun
 The subject ‘majority of respondents’ is ‘they’.
plural and it takes the pronoun ‘their’.  So, option C is the improvement that is
required.
Score Booster
Directions (1-7): The following passage contains While it is important to provide world-class
information based on which questions have infrastructure for the capital city, it is equally
been framed. You must read the same carefully important to ensure green spaces.
and answer the questions that follow: Delhi’s administrative boundaries are limited
A unique problem of Delhi is the distribution of and the space allocated for forests is also
green spaces. The forested ridge runs through limited, yet every year the government sets an
Central and South Delhi. East and Northwest ambitious target of increasing the green cover.
Delhi do not have much forest cover to boast of. These urban green spaces — parks, city
forests, wildlife sanctuary — collectively act as socio-economically vulnerable groups that have
green lungs for the city. As temperatures soar, it the least access to high-quality green
is these green spaces that counter the urban infrastructure.
heat island effect to cool the microclimate. They Rejuvenation of these 17 city forests, which
also prevent stormwater flooding by retaining vary in size from 4 acres to 90 acres, form a
percolating surfaces amidst concretised pillar of the effort towards strategic regreening
landscapes. The government, over the years, in order to prioritise mitigation and climate
has successfully raised plantations on Gram adaptation strategies for vulnerable
Sabha and government lands, for conversion communities. Another aspect of developing
into city forests in accordance with the Indian these city forests is that they can generate jobs.
Forest Act 1927 and Forest (Conservation) Act, Development plans for city forests have a big
1980. component of ecotourism and many jobs would
The vision for the city forests is to provide an be created for naturalists, guides, birders, and
ecologically benchmarked global standard that other maintenance and protection works. These
provides environmental, economic, and social alternative livelihood opportunities would be first
benefits to the citizens of Delhi. The offered to people who live in proximity to these
development of these forests also holds the city forests.
potential of addressing the inaccessibility of Long-term scientific studies and monitoring
green spaces in low-income neighbourhoods. within these city forests by experts would
Dialogue and community involvement would be provide insight into urban forest dynamics —
a crucial part of the process. This would ensure species composition, soil dynamics, carbon
that the resources being utilised for the creation sequestration potential, and the costs of
of the green infrastructure in city forests afforestation and managing designed spaces.
responds to the needs of Delhi citizens. In order The development of green patches in an ever-
to achieve this, the government will not only growing city like Delhi is no joke, it takes grit
invest in the development and ecological and determination to achieve it. But it is a
regeneration of these forests, but also develop worthwhile effort that has the potential to create
innovative funding models that could further a natural resource that will be an abode of
intensify the efforts to rejuvenate the landscape, recreation for not just the present but also the
enhance biodiversity as well as build local future citizens of Delhi.
resilience against the effects of climate change. 1. Which option would best summarize the
While every Delhi citizen can benefit from the given passage?
development of these urban forests, it is often A. The need to increase the major community
the most disadvantaged communities and centres in Delhi
B. City forests can secure Delhi’s future C. To provide an ecologically benchmarked

C. Delhi needs smart planners to secure the global standard to the citizens of Delhi.
city’s future D. To stretch and bring the forest cover to East
D. The people of Delhi will now spoil the forest Delhi
areas as well E. Both (a) and (c)
E. Green areas can come to most cities’ rescue
5. What does the word ‘rejuvenate’ mean as
2. Which of the given words describes the given used in the passage?
sentence:While it is important to provide world- A. Restore the youthful appearance of the skin
class infrastructure for the capital city, it is B. To add new energy to something
equally important to ensure green spaces? C. To restore to the previous condition
A. Criticism D. Add youthful energy to life
B. Hyperbole E. Bring freshness to the monotonous
C. Paradoxical environment
D. Satirical
E. Pessimistic 6. Which of the given options is not true as per
the contents of the passage?
3. How would the development of city forests A. The forested ridge runs through Central and
help the people living around the same? South Delhi.
A. It would create employment opportunities for B. It is these green spaces that counter the
them urban heat island effect to cool the
B. They would get access to fresh air microclimate.
C. Workers’ migration would stop due to this C. Delhi faces a severe issue of distribution of
D. Eco-tourism would inspire people to get open spaces
educated D. Delhi has 17 city forests spread over more
E. Not discussed in the passage than 3,000 acres.
E. Both (a) and (c)
4. Which of the following describes the aim of
the city forests? 7. Which of the given options is an antonym of
A. To address the inaccessibility of green the word ‘proximity’ as used in the passage?
spaces in low-income neighbourhoods A. Detached
B. To stretch and bring the forest from South to B. Closeness
North Delhi C. Presence
D. Accessibility
E. All options except (a) lockdown has been partially curtailed, the city
Government has ordered the liquor vends to
Directions (8-12): In the following passage there deploy marshals at the shops for ensuring
are blanks with words, each of which has been COVID-appropriate behaviour. Under the
numbered. These numbers are printed below second phase of unlocking, the Government
the passage and against each, five options are has allowed the liquor shops to reopen. Now,
given, if the highlighted word in the passage is these have been directed to ensure incertitude
incorrect then replace by finding out the (d) of the anti-COVID norms including wearing
appropriate word which fits the blank of masks, maintaining social distancing, regular
appropriately to make a grammatically and use of sanitiser, no consumption of alcohol or
contextually correct sentence. tobacco substances on or near the premises. All
While frequently at agreement (a) with the this means that the city Government has its
Centre over the issues of its constitutional heart, and its pocket, in the right place since
powers, medical oxygen supply, the dearth of rather than encouraging indignant (e) and
vaccine doses and the delivery of ration at the cross-border trips to buy a bottle, it can fill up its
citizens' doorstep, the Arvind Kejriwal-led Delhi coffers and, at the same time, ensure that
Government has taken a couple of dither (b) people can buy their tipple in comfort and
decisions pertaining to its excise policy in the safety, especially in these times of the deadly
last week. First, at the start of the month, it virus.
permitted home delivery of Indian and foreign 8. Which of the following will replace blank (a) ?
liquor through online portals and mobile apps A. Famish
under its amended excise policy.. Under the B. Loggerheads
new rules, liquor home delivery was allowed C. Effusive
through mobile apps and portals, though this D. Studious
does not mean that liquor shops across the city E. No correction required
would be allowed to deliver alcohol. Only sellers
with the L-13 licence will be allowed to start the 9. Which of the following will replace blank (b) ?
home delivery. The hitch the Sleazy (c) faced A. Sufficient
was that the facility to start home delivery was B. Faithful
to be allowed only after L-13 licences were C. Appalled
given to proprietors but no such licence had D. Laudable
been issued, as a result of which no such app E. No correction required
was available. Basically, it was a classic case of
so near, and yet so far! Two, now that the
10. Which of the following will replace blank (c) C. Flimsy

? D. Doddery
A. Engender E. No correction required
B. Diaphanous
C. Connoisseurs 12. Which of the following will replace blank (e)
D. Vituperation ?
E. No correction required A. Lunacy
B. Inquest
11. Which of the following will replace blank (d) C. Bootlegging
? D. Pristine
A. Compliance E. No correction required
B. Lassitude
1. Answer: B 2. Answer: C
The entire passage discusses how forests can Criticism means finding faults. Nothing of the
help revive the city and the benefits that the city sort is happening in the given sentence. A
forests bring with them. hyperbole denotes an over-statement or
This understanding can help us eliminate exaggeration. A Paradox happens when two
options one by one as; things that contradict each other are being
The first option talks about community centres stated simultaneously. Satire denotes a taunt
which have though been mentioned but not as a which can’t be seen in the sentences’ formation.
whole to qualify for the summary It is not even speaking of negative things so
The third option is also specifically talking about pessimistic can also be ruled out.
an aspect which would again bring preserving The sentence is mentioning two things, one of
forests into picture so this can’t be true either. which is development of capital which means
(d) is superfluous as it doesn’t make any sense. infrastructure and the other is environment
And, (e) doesn’t fit well as it talks about more protection and preventing the felling of trees.
than one city and the passage is only about And, these two are contrasting things.
Delhi. Therefore, the best is to go with option (c).
Thus, the best would be to go with option (b).
3. Answer: A But, in the given question the correct usage

Refer to the lines given below from the second would be as per the third option.
last paragraph: Therefore, the best would be to mark option (c)
Another aspect of developing these city forests as the answer.
is that they can generate jobs. Development
plans for city forests have a big component of 6. Answer: D
ecotourism and many jobs would be created for The correct answer is option (d) as it has not
naturalists, guides, birders, and other been discussed in the passage. Other options
maintenance and protection works. These are all true as they have been mentioned.
alternative livelihood opportunities would be first Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
offered to people who live in proximity to these
city forests. 7. Answer: A
We can eliminate all the options other than the The word proximity means nearness in space,
first therefore, to mark option (a) as the answer. time, or relationship.
We need a word that carries an opposite
4. Answer: E meaning to the given word.
The second paragraph talks at length about the Thus, the best would be to mark detached as
vision behind developing green zones in Delhi. the answer as it means something that is not
It explains two main aims which have been close enough.
given in the first and the third options. Therefore, the best answer is option (a).
The second and the fourth options have also
been discussed in the same paragraph but that 8. Answer: B
is not the aim with which the idea is being option b, loggerheads(disagreeing very strongly
executed. with each other), the sentence clearly indicates
So, the correct answer would be option (e). the centre and delhi government are not on
equal terms, so the appropriate word is
5. Answer: C loggerheads, other options famish(hungry)
The best option that goes in line with the phrase effusive(enthusiastic) studious(diligent) are
as used in the passage would go the best with incorrect.
resetting the green areas to put new life into
Delhi. 9. Answer: D
The other options can also be taken as option d, the sentence talks about some good
meanings as one word can be used in various decisions taken by the Delhi government, so a
different ways. positive word should occupy the blank, hence
laudatory is the correct answer option, all other option a, compliance(adhering to a rule) is the
options dither(indecisive) are incorrect. correct answer option, all other options
incertitude(doubtful) lassitude(lethargy)
10. Answer: C extempore(without preparation) Flimsy(weak)
option c, connoisseurs(experts) is the correct Doddery(weak) are incorrect.
answer option according to the context, all other
words diaphanous(transparent) Sleazy(inferior 12. Answer: C
quality) Vituperation(abuse) engender(generate) option c, Bootlegging(the illegal manufacture,
are incorrect. distribution and sale of alcohols) is the correct
answer option, all other options indignant(angry
11. Answer: A at unfair treatment) Inquest(investigation)
lunacy(foolishness) pristine(pure) are incorrect.
Segmentations.

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IBPS PO Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-07 /50 (Eng)

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7) If Q is related to I and P is related to H in a Direction (11-15): Study the following

Twelve persons L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V e) None of these

Sunday to Saturday. The consecutive d) Four

Answer Key with Explanation

4) Answer: E  S was born in a leap year and goes for

From the above conditions, there are three

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We have, Again we have,

vaccinated before Q. between M and Q is one more than the

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A. 762 20. What is the difference between the sum of

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From the given information, the following was

The highest digit of the lowest number is

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The sum of the second digits of all the numbers

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c) 190 e) None of these

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c) 116 liters cost of flooring the rectangular field per square

18) The average mark scored by x students in a a) 120

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Directions (01-05): The number of students who like both Munch

x = 750 * 3/15 Required percentage = 120/500 * 100 = 24%

= 36 minutes Let the present age of Sara = 6x + 5

A.216 Directions (16-20): Find out the wrong number in

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A. Alleviate 8. Import bans and international sanctions on

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 ‘Obligate’ means ‘bind or compel  In both blanks, ‘snapping up’ is

6. Answer: C disturbances move in afresh across the

 Sentence C-E: Reopening of educational 18. Answer: B

16. Answer: B 19. Answer: B

B. City forests can secure Delhi’s future C. To provide an ecologically benchmarked

10. Which of the following will replace blank (c) C. Flimsy

Answer Key with Explanation