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RBI Assistant Prelims PDF Course 2023

Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

Reasoning Ability

Directions (1-5): Study the following information 3) How many persons live between F and E?
carefully and answer the questions given below. a) One
Eight persons viz., B, C, D, E, F, H, I and J are b) As many persons live between C and D
living on different floors of the eight storey c) Two
building, where the lowermost floor is numbered d) As many persons live below H
as one and the floor immediately above it is e) None
numbered as two and so on.
E lives three floors below J, who doesn’t live 4) If D is related to I and H is related to C in a
above sixth floor. The number of persons living certain way, then in the same way who among
above E is one more than the number of persons the following person is related to F?
living below F. F and C live on the adjacent a) I
floors. C lives two floors above H. At least two b) D
persons live between H and B, who doesn’t live c) None
on an odd numbered floor. D lives above B but d) B
below I. e) J
1) Which of the following statement(s) is/are not
true with respect to the final arrangement? 5) Four of the following five are alike in a certain
I) Only two persons live between H and F way based on the given arrangement and thus
II) C doesn’t live below J form a group. Which one of the following does
III) I lives on the seventh floor not belong to the group?
a) Only II a) E
b) Both I and II b) J
c) Both I and III c) D
d) Only III d) I
e) All are true e) F

2) On which of the following floor does D live? Directions (6-10): Study the following information
a) Sixth floor carefully and answer the questions given below.
b) Fourth floor Nine persons viz., M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, U and V
c) Fifth floor are sitting in a linear row and facing
d) Second floor north but not necessarily in the same order.
e) Third floor

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Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

O sits third to the left of R, where either of them e) None


sits at one of the extreme ends.
Only one person sits between O and Q, who sits 9) In which of the following option first person sits
five places away from M. As many second to the right of the second person?
persons sit to the left of M as to the right of S. a) R, P
Only two persons sit between S and V. b) U, N
The number of persons sitting to the right of V is c) O, Q
one less than the number of persons d) M, V
sitting to the left of P. N doesn’t sit at the extreme e) M, S
end of the row.
6) Who among the following person sits third to 10) As many persons sit between P and Q as
the right of the one who sits immediate left of Q? between ____ and ____.
a) None a) N and R
b) P b) O and V
c) M c) Q and U
d) V d) P and M
e) R e) M and R

7) Which of the following statement(s) is/are Directions (11-15): Study the following
false with respect to the final arrangement? information carefully and answer the
a) M sits immediate left of U questions given below.
b) V sits two places away from Q Eight persons viz., J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q
c) Only five persons sit between M and R finished the work one after another but not
d) U sits at the extreme end of the row necessarily in the same order.
e) More than one statement is false L finished the work three persons after P. Only
one person finished the work between P and J.
8) If all the persons are made to sit in The number of persons finished the work
alphabetical order from the left end, then how between J and L is one less than the number of
many persons will remain unchanged in their persons finished the work between J and Q. One
position? person finished the work between Q and M. As
a) One many persons finished the work before K as after
b) Two M. N neither finished the work before O nor
c) Three finished at last. At least one person finished the
d) More than three work before O.

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Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

11) How many persons finished the work c) Q


between O and M? d) P
a) One e) N
b) Four
c) Two 15) The number of persons finished the work
d) Five before N is one more than the number of
e) None persons finished the work after ____.
a) J
12) Which of the following statement(s) is/are b) L
true with respect to the final arrangement? c) O
I) J finished the work immediately before K d) K
II) M finished the work two persons after Q e) P
III) Only two persons finished the work between J
and N Directions (16-20): Study the following
a) Only I is true information carefully and answer the questions
b) Both I and II are true given below.
c) Both I and III are true Seven persons viz., A, B, C, D, E, F and G were
d) Both II and III are true born in seven different years viz., 1985, 1989,
e) All the statements are true 1992, 1997, 2002, 2007 and 2011. The age of
the person is calculated based on the year 2023.
13) Who among the following person finished the Only two persons were born between D and G,
work exactly between N and who was born in an even numbered year. The
K? difference between the ages of D and A is 4
a) J years. Only one person was born between A and
b) O E. The number of persons born after E is one
c) Q less than the number of persons before C. The
d) P sum of the ages of C and F is a perfect cube.
e) M 16) A was born in which of the following year?
a) 1985
14) If L is related to M and O is related to Q in a b) 1997
certain way, then in the same way J is related to c) 2011
who among the following person? d) 1989
a) K e) 2007
b) L

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Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

17) Four of the following five are alike in a certain e) None


way based on the given arrangement and thus
form a group. Which one of the following does 19) Which of the following pair of persons were
not belong to the group? born in an even numbered year?
a) F a) G, F
b) D b) E, G
c) E c) D, E
d) C d) G, D
e) G e) F, E

18) How many persons were born between D 20) What is the average age of B and D?
and F? a) 25
a) One b) 24
b) As many persons born before C c) 50
c) Two d) 20
d) As many persons born between A and B e) 26
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Answer Key with Explanation


Directions (1-5): 5) Answer: B (All the persons are living on an
1) Answer: C odd numbered floor except “J”)
2) Answer: E Final arrangement
3) Answer: D
4) Answer: A

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Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

After applying the above condition, Case 2 gets


eliminated. Because there is no possibility to
place H.

We have,
 E lives three floors below J, who doesn’t
live above the sixth floor.
 The number of persons living above E is
one more than the number of persons Again we have,
living below F.  At least two persons live between H and
From the above condition, there are three B, who doesn’t live on an odd numbered
possibilities. floor.
 D lives above B but below I.
After applying the above condition, Case 1 gets
eliminated. Because there is no possibility to
place D. Hence, Case 3 shows the final
arrangement.

Again we have,
 F and C live on the adjacent floors.
 C lives two floors above H.

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Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

 As many persons sit to the left of M as to


the right of S.
 Only two persons sit between S and V.

Again we have,
 The number of persons sitting to the right
of V is one less than the number of
persons sitting to the left of P.
 N doesn’t sit at the extreme end of the
row.
Directions (6-10):
After applying the above condition, Case 2 gets
6) Answer: D
eliminated. Because there is no
7) Answer: C
possibility to place P. Hence, Case 1 shows the
8) Answer: E
final arrangement.
9) Answer: B
10) Answer: A
Final arrangement

Directions (11-15):
We have, 11) Answer: B
 O sits third to the left of R, where either of 12) Answer: D
them sits at one of the extreme ends. 13) Answer: A
 Only one person sits between O and Q, 14) Answer: E
who sits five places away from M. 15) Answer: C
From the above condition, there are two Final arrangement
possibilities.

Again we have,

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Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

 The number of persons finished the work


between J and L is one less than the
number of persons finished the work
between J and Q.

We have,
 L finished the work three persons after P.
 Only one person finished the work
between P and J.
From the above condition, there are two Again we have,
possibilities  One person finished the work between Q
and M.
 As many persons finished the work before
K as after M.
 N neither finished the work before O nor
finished at last.
 At least one person finished the work
before O.
From the above condition, Case 1 gets
eliminated. Because there is no possibility to
place O. Hence, Case 2 shows the final
arrangement.

Again we have,

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RBI Assistant Prelims PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

We have,
 Only two persons were born between D
and G, who was born in an even
numbered year.
Directions (16-20):  The difference between the ages of D and
16) Answer: C A is 4 years.
17) Answer: E (All the persons were born in the From the above condition, there are two
non-leap year except “G”) possibilities
18) Answer: D
19) Answer: B
20) Answer: A
Final arrangement

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Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

Again we have,  The sum of the ages of C and F is a


 Only one person was born between A and perfect cube.
E. After applying the above condition, Case 1 gets
 The number of persons born after E is eliminated. Because there is no possibility to
one less than the number of persons place F. Hence, Case 2 shows the final
before C. arrangement.

Again we have,
Score Booster
Directions (1-5): Study the following information d) Nine
carefully and answer the
questions given below. 2) Which of the following element is the ninth to
# 9@ 7 ? 6 > 1* 3 $ 2 4^ 5 % 8 + ! 0 the left of the fourth symbol from the right end?
4 ) < 7 = a) 4
1) How many such numbers are there in the b) $
series, each of which is immediately preceded c) %
as well as immediately followed by a symbol? d) )
a) Four e) 3
b) Eight
c) Five
d) Seven

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Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

3) If all the odd numbers are dropped from the a) Only conclusion I follows
series, then which of the following element is b) Only conclusion II follows
exactly between @ and !? c) Either conclusion I or II follows.
a) $ d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
b) 4 e) Both conclusions I and II follow.
c) 2 6) Statements:
d) * Only a few Backend are Development.
e) Cannot be determined All Developments are Frontend.
No Frontend is Testing.
4) Four of the following five are alike in a certain Conclusions:
way based on the given arrangement and thus I. No Development is Testing.
form a group. Which one of the following does II. Some Backend can be Frontend.
not belong to the group?
a) 4^% 7) Statements:
b) $2^ Only a few Contents are Management.
c) !0) All Contents are Website.
d) 1*2 No Management is System.
e) ?61 Conclusions:
I. All Content being System is a possibility.
5) If the last ten elements are reversed, then II. Some Websites are not Management.
which of the following element is eleventh to the
right of the ninth element from the left end? 8) Statements:
a) 4 Only a few Analytics are Hosting.
b) 0 All Analytics are Servers.
c) ) All Servers are Header.
d) # Conclusions:
e) 9 I. All Headers being Hosting is a possibility.
II. No Hosting is Server.
Direction (6-10): Read both conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusions 9) Statements:
logically follows from the given statements Only a few Mockup are Navigation.
disregarding the commonly known facts. All Navigations are Architecture.
Given Answer: All Architectures are Information.

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Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

Conclusions: E. √220 m
I. Some Architectures are Mockups.
II. All Navigations are Information. Direction (13-15): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below
10) Statements: it.
Only a few Databases are Ecommerce. There are eight points on the ground. Point M is
Some Ecommerce are Plug-in. 110 m south of point G. Point S is 45 m west of
Some Plug-ins are Sheets. point M. Point L is 75 m north of point S. Point L
Conclusions: is 120 m east of point A. Point C is 155 m south
I. Some Sheets are Ecommerce. of point A. Point K is 105 m east of point C. Point
II. No Ecommerce is Sheet. B is 185 m west of point G.
13) What is the shortest distance between point
Direction (11-12): Study the following information K and point M?
carefully and answer the questions given below a) 10√10 m
it. b) 300 m
Point A is 5m east of Point B. Point C is 10m c) 100 m
north of Point B. Point D is 5m south of Point E. d) 30√10 m
Point D is 15m east of Point C. Point F is 5m e) None of these
east of Point E.
11) What is the shortest distance between Point 14) What is the direction of point B with respect
F and Point A? to point A?
a) 15 m a) North-West
b) 10 m b) North-East
c) √420 m c) South-West
d) 15√2 m d) North
e) 20 m e) None of these

12) What is the shortest distance between Point 15) Four of the following five are alike in a
C and Point E? certain way to form a group. Find the one which
A. 20 m does not belong to that group?
B. 5√10 m a) C-S
C. 15 m b) A-G
D. 10√5 m c) K-M

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Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

d) S-B 18) If all letters in each of the words are


e) C-L arranged as per alphabetical order within the
words, then which is the second letter of the
Direction (16-20): Study the following information word which is second from the left end?
carefully to answer the given questions: a) A
FOG MAP ACT TAX HUB b) M
16) If each consonant is changed to the previous c) G
letter and each vowel is changed to the next d) T
letter according to the alphabetical series of e) None of these
each word, then how many words contain a 19) How many letters are there between the first
vowel? letter of the first word from the left end and third
a) None letter of the first word from the right end
b) One according to the alphabetical series?
c) Two a) Three
d) Three b) Two
e) None of these c) One
d) Four
17) If the words are arranged as per alphabetical e) None of these
series from left to right, then which word is
second from the right end? 20) If the position of the first and last letters of
a) FOG each word are interchanged, then how many
b) HUB words start with a vowel?
c) MAP a) 1
d) TAX b) 2
e) None of these c) 3
d) 4
e) none

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Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

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Answer Key with Explanation


1) Answer: B Then, we have to find out the element which is
In this question, we have to find out the numbers ninth to the left of !
which are immediately preceded as well as # 9@ 7 ? 6 > 1* 3 $ 2 4^ 5 % 8 + ! 0
immediately followed by a symbol. 4 ) < 7 =
The given series, So, the answer is 3
# 9@ 7 ? 6 > 1* 3 $ 2 4^ 5 % 8 + ! 0
4 ) < 7 = 3) Answer: C
There are eight numbers which are immediately In this question, first we have to drop all the odd
preceded as well as immediately followed by a numbers from the given series
symbol # 9 @, @ 7 ?, ? 6 >, > 1 *, * 3 $, Now, the new series is,
^ 5 % , % 8 + and < 7 =. # @ ? 6 > * $ 2 4^ % 8 + ! 0 4 ) < =
So, the answer is Eight Then, we have to find out the element which is
exactly between @ and !
2) Answer: E # @ ? 6 > * $ 2 4^ % 8 + ! 0 4 ) < =
In this question we have to find out the element So, the answer is 2
which is ninth to the left of the fourth symbol
from the right end, 4) Answer: D
First, we have to find out the fourth symbol from In this question, we have to find out the odd one
the right end in the given series, out
# 9@ 7 ? 6 > 1* 3 $ 2 4^ 5 % 8 + ! 0 The logic is,
4 ) < 7 = The second element is the immediate
The fourth consonant from the left end is ! succeeding element of the first element

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Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

The third element is the second succeeding


element of the second element
The same logic is followed in all the options,
except 1*2
So, the answer is 1*2

5) Answer: A
8) Answer: D
In this question, the last ten elements are
reversed
Now the new series is,
# 9@ 7 ? 6 > 1* 3 $ 2 4^ 5 = 7 < ) 4
0 ! + 8 %
Then, we have to find out the element which is
ninth from the left end
# 9@ 7 ? 6 > 1* 3 $ 2 4^ 5 = 7 < ) 4
0 ! + 8 %
Ninth from the left end is *
9) Answer: E
Then, finally we have to find out the element
which is eleventh to the right of *
# 9@ 7 ? 6 > 1* 3 $ 2 4^ 5 = 7 < ) 4
0 ! + 8 %
Eleventh from the right of * is 4
So, Answer is 4

Directions (6-10):
6) Answer: A
10) Answer: C

Direction (11-12):
7) Answer: B

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Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

11) Answer: D
FA=√(AG2+FG2)= √450 m=15√2 m

Distance between K and M=√ (802+602) m


=√ (6400+3600) m
=√ 10000 -->100 m

12) Answer: B
14) Answer: A
CE=√(CD2+DE2)= √250 m=5√10 m

15) Answer: D

Direction (13-15):
13) Answer: C
Direction (16-20):
16) Answer: D
FOG – EPF, MAP – LBO, HUB – GVA

17) Answer: C
ACT FOG HUB MAP TAX

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Reasoning Ability Day -13 (Eng)

18) Answer: B CDE


FGO AMP ACT ATX BHU
AMP – M 20) Answer: E
FOG MAP ACT TAX HUB
19) Answer: A GOF PAM TCA XAT BUH

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -13 (Eng)

Quantitative Aptitude

Direction (1-5): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:
The given table chart shows the number of masala Dosas and the number of cheese Dosas sold by five
different shopkeepers.
Note: Total number of Dosas sold by a shopkeeper =Number of masala Dosas sold + Number of cheese
Dosas sold.

1. Find the ratio of the number of masala Dosas 3. The total number of dosas sold by Anu is how
sold by Anu and Chintu together to the number much percent of the total number of dosas sold
of cheese Dosas sold by Bhavani and Deva by Rudra?
together? a) 52.5%
a) 7: 8 b) 47.5%
b) 5: 8 c) 55.5%
c) 8: 9 d) 45.5%
d) 7: 9 e) None of these
e) None of these
4. If the total number of dosas sold by Janani is
2. The number of cheese dosas sold by Chintu 75% more than that by Bhavani and the average
and Rudra together is how much percent number of masala dosas sold by Chintu, Deva
more/less than the number of masala dosas sold and Janani is 668, then the number of cheese
by Bhavani and Deva together? dosas sold by Janani is:
a) 36%more a) 550
b) 42% more b) 510
c) 32% more c) 530
d) 30% more d) 570
e) None of these e) None of these

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -13 (Eng)

5. If the average number of cheese dosas sold a) 455


by Anu, Deva, Rudra and Kannan is 714 and the b) 435
total number of masala dosas sold by Anu and c) 475
Rudra together is 20% less than that by Kannan, d) 425
then find the difference between the number of e) None of these
masala dosas and cheese dosas sold by
Kannan?

Direction (6-10): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:
The different types of fans (Table + pedestal) were sold by four different companies i.e A, B, C and D.
The following bar graph shows the total number of fans sold and the percentage of table fans sold out of
the total number of fans sold by respective companies.

6. Find the ratio of the number of table fans sold 7. If the number of pedestal fans sold by
by company ‘B’ to the number of Pedestal fans company ‘E’ is 25 more than the number of table
sold by company ‘A’? fans sold by company ‘D’, then find the average
a) 5: 3 number of pedestal fans sold by companies ‘C’
b) 9: 7 and ‘E’ together?
c) 2: 3 a) 870
d) 11: 9 b) 875
e) None of these c) 880
d) 885

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -13 (Eng)

e) 890 A bakery sells cakes of two flavours i.e., Black


forest and white forest.
8. If the number of table fans sold by company The number of black forest cakes sold on
‘E’ is 594, then the number of table fans sold by Monday was 40% less than that on Wednesday
company ‘E’ is how much percent of the number which was 500. The number of white forest
of pedestal fans sold by company ‘B’? cakes sold on Monday was 400 less than the
a) 50% number of black forest cakes sold on Tuesday
b) 55% which was 100% more than that on Monday. The
c) 60% ratio between the number of white forest cakes
d) 65% sold on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday were
e) 70% 2: 4: 3 respectively.
11. The number of black forest cakes sold on
9. Find the sum of the table fans sold by Monday was how much percent more/less than
companies ‘A’ and ‘C’ together? the number of white forest cakes sold on
a) 1520 Tuesday?
b) 1530 a) 50% more
c) 1545 b) 50% less
d) 1560 c) 25% less
e) none of these d) 25% more
e) None of these.
10. If the number of pedestal fans sold by
company ‘F’ is 40% of the total number of fans 12. The total number of cakes sold on
sold by company ‘A’, then find the difference Wednesday was how much more than that on
between the number of pedestal fans sold by Monday?
companies ‘D’ and ‘F’? a) 150
a) 15 b) 300
b) 30 c) 200
c) 40 d) 250
d) 45 e) 400
e) 55
13. Find the average number of white forest
Direction (11-15): Study the following data cakes sold on the given three days?
carefully and answer the questions: a) 450
b) 325

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -13 (Eng)

c) 150 d) 16: 24: 7


d) 300 e) 17: 13: 18
e) 225
17. Pipe ‘L’ and pipe ‘M’ can fill a cistern in 20
14. The selling price of each Black forest cake minutes and 36 minutes respectively. Pipe ‘N’
was 50% more than that of each white forest alone can empty the cistern in 22.5 minutes. If all
cake. If on Tuesday, the total revenue generated three pipes are opened together, then what is the
by selling all the cakes was Rs. 13,000, then find time taken to fill 50% of the cistern?
the selling price of each White forest cake? a) 18 minutes
a) Rs. 10 b) 20 minutes
b) Rs. 12 c) 12 minutes
c) Rs. 15 d) 16 minutes
d) Rs. 18 e) 15 minutes
e) Rs. 20
18. Train A travelling at 90 kmph, overtook train
15. If the total number of cakes sold on Sunday B travelling in same direction in 72 seconds. If
were 50% more than that on Wednesday, then train B increased the speed by 25%, then train A
find the total number of cakes sold on Sunday? would have taken 144 seconds to overtake it.
a) 800 Ratio of the length of train A and B is 5:7 and
b) 1000 train A is faster than train B. Find the length of
c) 900 train B?
d) 1500 a) 280 m
e) 1200 b) 350 m
c) 420 m
16. In October, the ratio of students in three d) 210 m
schools ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ was 8: 15: 5 respectively. e) None of these
In November, the number of students of ‘A’, ‘B’
and ‘C’ increased by 100%, 60%, and 40% 19. Rs. 4500 is invested in scheme ‘A’ for 2
respectively in comparison to that in October. years and Rs. 6000 is invested in scheme ‘B’ for
Find the ratio of the number of students in the 3 years. Scheme ‘A’ offers simple interest of 12%
schools ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in November. p.a. If the interest received from both the
a) 11: 12: 25 schemes are equal, then find the rate of simple
b) 16: 17: 26 interest (p.a.) offered by scheme ‘B’.
c) 19: 21: 25 a) 9%

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b) 8% a) 25%
c) 10% b) 50%
d) 5% c) 75%
e) 6% d) 60%
e) 30%
20. The cost price of 9 books is equal to the
selling price of 36 books. Find the loss
percentage incurred in the whole transaction.
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Answer Key with Explanation


Direction (1-5): 3. Answer: A
1. Answer: A The total number of dosas sold by Anu
Required ratio = (432+324): (360+504) =432+408 =840
=756:864= 7: 8 The total number of dosas sold by Rudra =
916+684 =1600
2. Answer: C Required percentage =840/1600*100 =52.5%
Number of cheese Dosas sold by Chintu and
Rudra together = 900+684 =1584 4. Answer: B
Number of masala Dosas sold by Bhavani and Total number of dosas sold by Janani
Deva together = =1.75*(480+360) =1470
480 +720 =1200 Number of masala dosas sold by Janani = (668
Required percentage =[(1584-1200)/1200]*100 *3) -324 -720 =960
=32%more Number of cheese dosas sold by Janani =1470 –
960 =510

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -13 (Eng)

Number of pedestal fans sold by company ‘F’


5. Answer: D =1800 * 0.4 =720
Number of cheese dosas sold by Kannan Required difference =765 -720 =45
=714*4 - 408 - 504 - 684 =1260
Number of Masala dosas sold by Kannan = Direction (11-15):
(916+432)/0.80 =1685 Number of black forest cakes sold on Monday
Required difference =1685 -1260 =425 =500*0.6 =300
Number of black forest cakes sold on Tuesday
Direction (6-10): =300 *2 =600
Number of table fans sold by company ‘A’ =1800 Number of white forest cakes sold on Monday
* 0.45 =810 =600 - 400 =200
Number of pedestal fans sold by company ‘A’ Number of white forest cakes sold on Tuesday
=1800 -810 =990 =200*(4/2) =400
Similarly, we can calculate other values Number of white forest cakes sold on
Wednesday =200 *(3/2) =300

6. Answer: C
Required ratio =660: 990 =2: 3
11. Answer: C
Required percentage ={(400 – 300)/400}*100
7. Answer: A
=25% less
Number of pedestal fans sold by company ‘E’
=935+25 =960
12. Answer: B
Required average = {(960+780)/2}=1740/2=870
Required difference =(500 + 300) – (300 + 200)
=300
8. Answer: C
Required percentage = (594/990) *100 =60%
13. Answer: D
Required average = (200+400+300)/3=900 ÷ 3
9. Answer: E
=300
Required sum = 810+780 =1590

14. Answer: A
10. Answer: D

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -13 (Eng)

Let the selling price of each white forest cake be Efficiency of Pipe ‘N’ = 360/22.5 =16
Rs ‘2x’ units/minute
So, the selling price of each black forest cake = So, the combined efficiency of Pipes ‘L’, ‘M’ and
2x *1.5 =Rs. ‘3x’ ‘N’ =18+10 -16 =12 units/minute
ATQ, 50% of the cistern’s capacity =180 units
600*3x+400*2x =13000 Therefore, the time taken by all 3 pipes together
1800x+800x =13000 to fill 50% of the cistern =180/12 =15 minutes.
2600x =13000
x=5 18. Answer: B
Therefore, the selling price of each white forest Length of train A = 5x
cake =2*5 = Rs. 10 Length of train B = 7x
Speed of train B = y
15. Answer: E 5x + 7x = (90 – y) * 5/18 * 72
Total number of cakes sold on Sunday 3x = 450 – 5y ----(1)
=(500+300)*1.5 5x + 7x = (90 – y * 125/100) * 5/18 * 144
=1200 3x = 900 – 12.5y- ---(2)
450 – 5y = 900 – 12.5y
16. Answer: D y = 60
In October, let the number ofstudents of ‘A’, ‘B’, 3x = 450 – 300
‘C’ be Rs. 8x, Rs. 15x, Rs. 5x respectively. x = 50
Students of school ‘A’ in November = 200% of 8x Length of train B = 50 * 7 = 350 m
=Rs. 16x
Students of school ‘B’ in November = 160% of 19. Answer: E
15x =Rs. 24x Interest received from scheme ‘A’ =
Students of school ‘C’ in November = 140% of 4500*12*2÷100 = Rs. 1080
5x =Rs. 7x Let the rate of simple interest offered by scheme
Required ratio =16: 24: 7 ‘B’ = ‘K%’ p.a.
ATQ,
17. Answer: E 6000*3* k÷ 100 =Rs.1080
Let the capacity of the cistern =360 units 180k=1080
Then, efficiency of Pipe ‘L’ =360/20 =18 units/ k =6
minute So, the rate of simple interest offered by scheme
Efficiency of Pipe ‘M’ =360/36 =10 units/minute ‘B’ =6% per annum.

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -13 (Eng)

(Cost price of 1 book)/ (selling price of 1 book)


20. Answer: C =36/9 =4/1
The cost price of 9 books =Selling price of 36 Required loss percentage ={(4-1)/4}*100
books =0.75*100 =75%
Score Booster
Directions (1-5): What value should come in the d) 23
place of (?) in the following questions. e) 25
1.
5. (36 ÷ 8) * 32 = ?2
a) 15
a) 11 b) 12
b) 19 c) 18
c) 18 d) 20
d) 31 e) 10
e) None of these
Directions (6-10): What approximate value
2. √1444 + ? = 2 2/4 of 72 should come in the place of (?) in the following
a) 153 questions.
b) 142 6. 6.09 * 14.97 ÷ 8.98 = ? - 5.08 * 7.12
c) 155 a) 35
d) 146 b) 40
e) 124 c) 45
d) 50
3.√(√400*∛125)*24/?=∛1728 e) 55
a) 20
b) 15 7. √49.08 * 27.98 = ? * √2400
c) 25 a) 4
d) 10 b) 5
e) 12 c) 8
d) 10
4. 55% of 460 - ? * √121 = 506 ÷ 23 e) 6
a) 21
b) 19 8. 199.903 –14.903 * 6.123 + 34.908 * 8.319 =?
c) 20 a) 330

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -13 (Eng)

b) 360 d) 1251
c) 390 e) 1268
d) 420
e) 450 13. 15, 25.5, 46.5, 78, 120, ?
a) 172.5
9. (14.18 + 2.01) ÷ 2.12 * 4.97 – 28.98 + 528.12 b) 180
=? c) 185.2
a) 500 d) 190
b) 520 e) 189
c) 539
d) 650 14. 25, 49, 64, ?, 75, 75
e) 700 a) 70
b) 72
10. 489.891 – 623.14 + 532.05 – 129.94 = ? c) 74
a) 259 d) 71
b) 249 e) None of these
c) 279
d) 269 15. 32, 34, ?, 217, 873, 4371
e) 239 a) 123
b) 64
Directions (11-15): What value should come in c) 72
the place of (?) in the following number series? d) 71
11. 8, 13, 23, 40, 66, ? e) None of these
a) 100
b) 101 Directions (16-20): Find out the wrong number in
c) 102 the following number series.
d) 103 16. 100, 40, 200, 40, 400, 80
e) 105 a) 40
b) 200
12. 6, 8, 19, 61, 249, ? c) 400
a) 1248 d) 100
b) 1256 e) 80
c) 1242

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -13 (Eng)

17. 580, 527, 468, 407, 342, 269 21.


a) 407 I) x2 – x – 210 = 0
b) 342 II)y2 – 13y – 198 = 0
c) 580 a) x > y
d) 527 b) x ≥ y
e) 269 c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
d) x < y
18. 117, 135, 157, 180, 205, 232 e) x ≤ y
a) 157
b) 180 22.
c) 205 I) 2x2 – 18x + 36 = 0
d) 135 II) y2–12y + 32 = 0
e) 232 a) x > y
b) x ≥ y
19. 512, 256, 388, 960, 3360, 15120 c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
a) 256 d) x < y
b) 15120 e) x ≤ y
c) 512
d) 3360 23.
e) 388 I) x2 – 27x + 140 = 0
II) y2 + 10y - 119 = 0
20. 20, 33, 60, 91, 154, 199 a) x > y
a) 60 b) x ≥ y
b) 91 c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
c) 154 d) x < y
d) 33 e) x ≤ y
e) None of these
24.
Directions (21-25): Following question contains I) x2 + x – 132 = 0
two equations as I and II. You have to solve both II) y2 – 26y + 165 = 0
equations and determine the relationship a) x > y
between them and give answer as, b) x ≥ y
c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined.

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -13 (Eng)

d) x < y b) x > y
e) x ≤ y c) x ≤ y
d) x ≥ y
25. e) Relationship between x and y cannot be

I) 2x2 – x - 1 = 0 determined

II) 2y2 – 4y + 2 = 0
a) x < y
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Or Scan the QR Code to Get the Detailed Video Solutions

Answer Key with Explanation


Directions (1-5): √(√400*∛125)*24/?=∛1728
1. Answer: A √(20*5)*24/?=12
10*24/12=?
?=20

4. Answer: A
55% of 460 - ? * √121 = 506 ÷ 23
253 - ? * 11=22
=> 11
?=21

2. Answer: B
5. Answer: B
? = 72 * (10/4) - √1444
(36 ÷ 8) * 32 = ?2
? = 18 * 10 - 38
?2 = 144
? = 180 - 38 = 142
? = 12

3. Answer: A

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -13 (Eng)

Directions (6-10): 40 + 52 + 1 = 66
6. Answer: C 66 + 62 + 1 = 103
6.09 * 14.97 ÷ 8.98 = ? - 5.08 * 7.12
6 * 15/9 = ? - 35 12. Answer: D
? = 45 6*1+2=8
8 * 2 + 3 = 19
7. Answer: A 19 * 3 + 4 = 61
√49.08 * 27.98 = ? * √2400 61 * 4 + 5 = 249
7 * 28 = ? * 49 249 * 5 + 6 = 1251
?=4
13. Answer: A
8. Answer: C 15 + (1 * 10.5) = 25.5
199.903 – 14.903 * 6.123 + 34.908 * 8.319 =? 25.5 + (2 * 10.5) = 46.5
200 – 15 * 6 + 35 * 8 = ? 46.5 + (3 * 10.5) = 78
200 – 90 + 280=? 78 + (4 * 10.5) = 120
390=? 120 + (5 * 10.5) = 172.5

9. Answer: C 14. Answer: B


(14.18 + 2.01) ÷ 2.12 * 4.97 – 28.98 + 528.12 = ? 25 + 52 – 1 = 49
=> (14 + 2) ÷ 2 * 5 – 29 + 528 = ? 49 + 42 – 1 = 64
=> 8 * 5 – 29 + 528 = ? 64 + 32 – 1 = 72
=> 539 72 + 22 – 1 = 75
75 + 12 – 1 = 75
10. Answer: D
489.891 – 623.14 + 532.05 – 129.94 = ? 15. Answer: D
490 – 623 + 532 – 130 = ? 32 * 1 + 2 = 34
? = 269 34 * 2 + 3 = 71
71 * 3 + 4 = 217
Directions (11-15): 217 * 4 + 5 = 873
11. Answer: D 873 * 5 + 6 = 4371
8 + 22 + 1 = 13
13 + 32 + 1 = 23 Directions (16-20):
23 + 42 + 1 = 40 16. Answer: A

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -13 (Eng)

100 ÷ 5 = 20 (not 40) 13 x 15 = 195(not 199)


20 * 10 = 200 (Note: 2, 3, 5 …… are prime numbers)
200 ÷ 5 = 40
40 * 10 = 400 Directions (21-25):
400 ÷ 5 = 80 21. Answer: C
x2 – x – 210 = 0
17. Answer: B x2 – 15x + 14x – 210 = 0
Given series is x(x – 15) + 14(x – 15) = 0
(x + 14)(x – 15) = 0
x = -14, 15
y2 – 13y – 198 = 0
y2 – 22y + 9y – 198 = 0

18. Answer: D y(y – 22) + 9(y – 22) = 0

117 + 19 = 136 (y + 9)(y – 22) = 0

136 + 21 = 157 y = -9, 22

157 + 23 = 180 Relationship between x and y cannot be

180 + 25 = 205 established.

205 + 27 = 232
22. Answer: C

19. Answer: E 2x2 – 18x + 36 = 0

512 * 0.5 = 256 2x2 – 12x – 6x + 36 = 0

256 * 1.5 = 384 2x(x – 6) – 6(x – 6) = 0

384 * 2.5 = 960 (2x – 6)(x – 6) = 0

960 * 3.5 = 3360 x = 3, 6

3360 * 4.5 = 15120 y2 – 12y + 32 = 0

The wrong term is, 388 y2 – 8y – 4y + 32 = 0


y(y – 8) – 4(y – 8) = 0

20. Answer: E (y – 4)(y – 8) = 0

2 x 10 = 20 y = 4, 8

3 x 11 = 33 Hence Relationship between x and y cannot be

5 x 12 = 60 established.

7 x 13 = 91
11 x 14 = 154 23. Answer: B

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -13 (Eng)

x2 – 27x + 140 = 0 y2 – 11y – 15y + 165 = 0


x2 – 20x – 7x + 140 = 0 y(y – 11) – 15(y – 11) = 0
x(x – 20) – 7(x – 20) = 0 y = 11, 15
(x – 7)(x – 20) = 0 x≤y
x = 7, 20
y2 + 10y - 119 = 0 25. Answer: C
y2 + 17y – 7y – 119 = 0 I) 2x² - x – 1 = 0
y(y + 17) – 7(y + 17) = 0 => 2x² - 2x + x - 1 = 0
(y – 7)(y + 17) = 0 => 2x ( x – 1 ) + 1 ( x – 1 ) = 0
y = 7, -17 = >( 2x + 1) ( x – 1 )= 0
x≥y => x = -1/2, 1
II) 2y2 – 4y + 2 = 0
24. Answer: E => 2y2 - 2y – 2y + 2 = 0
x2 + x – 132 = 0 => 2y (y - 1) - 2 (y - 1) = 0
x2 + 12x – 11x – 132 = 0 => (2y – 2) ( y – 1 ) = 0
x(x + 12) – 11(x + 12) = 0 => y = 1, 1
x = 11, -12 Hence, x ≤ y
y2 – 26y + 165 = 0

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English Language Day -13 (Eng)

English Language

Directions (1-5): In the following questions, a Q. feeble or hesitant to connect


sentence has been broken into four parts (P), R. and social duties, still others are frail,
(Q), (R), (S) and arranged, not necessarily in the S. some of our friends have moved,
correct order. The highlighted sentence has A. SPRQ
already been arranged as the third part of the B. QPRS
sentence, you have to arrange rest or the parts C. PSRQ
of the sentence so that a meaningful sentence D. SQRP
can be formed. E. No arrangement required
1.
P. the Constituent Assembly found it 4.
Q. in India, we have been hung up on cattle for P. although the numbers have reduced
long, marginally from
R. expedient to include it in Q. 2017 National Strategic Plan for TB
S. the Directive Principles Elimination
A. SPRQ R. it is still far higher than the target set by the
B. QPRS S. 320 in 2015 to the current figure between
C. PSRQ 2019 and 2020
D. SQRP A. SPRQ
E. No arrangement required B. QPRS
C. PSRQ
2. D. SQRP
P. with other humans E. No arrangement required
Q. when we feel in grand human companionship
R. a few magical seconds of genuine connection 5.
S. those are the special moments P. recounts the experiences of death row
A. SPRQ prisoners,
B. QPRS Q. that is prohibited by the law
C. PSRQ R. including their mental and physical trauma
D. SQRP S. the report, Death worthy, published by Project
E. No arrangement required 39A,
3. A. SPRQ
P. others have become busy with their business B. QPRS

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English Language Day -13 (Eng)

C. PSRQ D. Sacrificing
D. SQRP E. All are correct
E. No arrangement required
9. There are mountains rising with
Directions (6-7): In the questions below, four alpine granduer above the snow-line, but often
words are printed in bold. One of these sheltering rich and magnificent valleys at their
words might be wrongly spelt or grammatically Surface.
incorrect. Find out the wrongly spelt and A. Rising
incorrect word, if any. If all the words are B. Granduer
correctly spelt and grammatically correct then C. Sheltering
mark (E) as your answer D. Magnificent
6. Knowledge about customers, gathered E. All are correct
through the Clubcard, is shown to be a
first resource for Tesco marketing strategists. 10. Even though the blaze was incipeint when
A. Knowledge the fire department arrived, the destruction
B. Gathered quickly spread and destroyed most of the
C. Resource building.
D. Strategies A. Incipeint
E. All are correct B. Arrived
C. Quickly
7. You have the ability and the army to protect D. Destroyed
your realm and seized them both, if you desire. E. All are correct
A. Ability
B. Protect Directions (11-15): In the following sentences, a
C. Realm sentence is given with a blank which is followed
D. Seized by a word given in bracket. Find the suitable
E. All are correct word from the options given below that could
replace the bold word so as to make the
8. Many bicyclists find that bamboo frames paragraph meaningful. If no replacement is
provide an incredibly smooth drive without required, choose (E), as your answer.
sacrificing speed. 11. Two were _________ (let down) with
A. Find warnings; the remaining six were given
B. Incredibly suspended sentences of one to two years.
C. Drive A. Let out

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English Language Day -13 (Eng)

B. Let in D. Set on
C. Let off E. No replacement required
D. Look after
E. No replacement required Directions (16-20): In the following questions, a
word is given in bold, which is followed by some
12. Most farmers are able to __________ (keep options, you have to identify which of the
under) enough of their crop for their own use. following options consists the same meaning
A. Keep up 16. Fictitious
B. Keep back a) False
C. Keep down b) Genuine
D. Keep to c) Counterfeit
E. No replacement required d) Fabricated
A. Both (b) and (c)
13. The President said that he would _______ B. Both (a) and (c)
(hold back) until the bill was passed. C. All (a), (c) and (d)
A. Hold over D. All (b), (c) and (d)
B. Hold off E. All are correct
C. Hold on
D. Hold out 17. Intrepid
E. No replacement required a) Hesitant
b) Introvert
14. Always have set amounts in mind to c) Fearless
________ (idle away) your budget. d) Undaunted
A. Itch for A. Both (a) and (b)
B. Keep to B. Both (b) and (c)
C. Hunt down C. Both (c) and (d)
D. Make for D. Both (a) and (d)
E. No replacement required E. All are correct

15. Many unearthed cultural relics are ________ 18. Vindictive


(set forth) in the exhibition hall. a) Revengeful
A. Set in b) Unforgiving
B. Set about c) Unrelenting
C. Set aside d) Acrimonious

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English Language Day -13 (Eng)

A. Both (a) and (b) D. Both (a) and (d)


B. Both (b) and (c) E. All are correct
C. All (a), (c) and (d)
D. All (a), (b) and (d) 20. Fruitless
E. All are correct A. Barren
B. Productive
19. Squander C. Abortive
a) Waste D. Worthless
b) Economical A. Both (a) and (d)
c) Manage B. Both (c) and (d)
d) Splurge C. All (a), (c) and (d)
A. Both (a) and (b) D. All (a), (b) and (d)
B. Both (b) and (c) E. All are correct
C. Both (c) and (d)
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Or Scan the QR Code to Get the Detailed Video Solutions

Answer Key with Explanation


1. Answer: B seconds of genuine connection with other
The right statement after rearrangement is - In humans
India, we have been hung up on cattle for long, 3. Answer: A
the Constituent Assembly found it expedient to The right statement after rearrangement is -
include it in the Directive Principles. Some of our friends have moved, others have
2. Answer: D become busy with their business and social
The right statement after rearrangement is - duties, still others are frail, feeble or hesitant to
Those are the special moments when we feel in connect.
grand human companionship a few magical

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English Language Day -13 (Eng)

4. Answer: C 9. Answer: B
The right statement after rearrangement is - The spelling of the word is incorrect; the right
Although the numbers have reduced marginally spelling is ‘grandeur’, which means – a quality of
from 320 in 2015 to the current figure between great beauty and size which attracts admiration
2019 and 2020, it is still far higher than the target
set by the 2017 National Strategic Plan for TB 10. Answer: A
Elimination. The spelling of the word is incorrect, the right
spelling is ‘incipient’, which means – begin to
5. Answer: A happen
The right statement after rearrangement is - The
report, Death worthy, published by Project 39A, 11. Answer: C
recounts the experiences of death row prisoners, ‘Let down’ means – an act of disappointing
including their mental and physical trauma that is someone, which is incorrect according to the
prohibited by the law context of the sentence. The context says that
‘two were released and the remaining were
6. Answer: C sentenced for one to two years’
‘Resource’ is contextually incorrect; ‘recourse’ Option (A) – ‘Let out’ – to conclude a session or
should be used instead of ‘resource’ performance, which doesn’t support the context
‘Recourse’ means – a source of help in a difficult of the sentence
situation Option (B) – ‘Let in’ – to allow entering, this
option is also incorrect.
7. Answer: D Option (D) – “look after’ – take care of someone
The sentence is in present tense, ‘seize’ will be or something, this option also doesn’t support
used instead of ‘seized’, which means – take the context of the sentence
hold of suddenly or forcibly Option (C) – ‘Let off’ – punish someone lightly,
Meaning of ‘realm’ – a kingdom this supports the context of the sentence.
Hence, (C) is the right answer
8. Answer: C
‘Drive’ is used when traveling by four-wheeler 12. Answer: B
and ‘ride’ is used when travel by two-wheeler or ‘Keep under’ means – to remain or cause to
on an animal. So, ‘ride’ will be used instead of remain below, this doesn’t support the context of
‘drive’ the sentence, the context says that farmers
reserve enough crop for their own use

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English Language Day -13 (Eng)

Option (A) – ‘Keep up’ means – to maintain in ‘Idle away’ means – to rest, relax or do nothing,
good order or condition, this doesn’t support the which doesn’t support the context of the
context of the sentence sentence. The context talks about some set
Option (C) – ‘Keep down’ means – cause amounts of budget for which one always be
someone to remain at a low level, this also planned or promised
doesn’t support the context of the sentence Option (A) – Itch for’ means – to have or produce
Option (D) – ‘Keep to’ means – adhere to a an unpleasant feeling, which doesn’t support the
schedule, this option is also contextually context of the sentence
incorrect Option (C) – ‘Hunt down’ means – to succeed in
Option (B) – ‘Keep back’ – retain or withhold finding (something), this option also doesn’t
something, this supports the context of the support the context of the sentence.
sentence Option (D) – ‘Make for’ means – help to make
Hence, (B) is the right answer something possible, this option is also
contextually incorrect
13. Answer: A Option (B) – ‘Keep to’ means – to prevent an
‘Hold back’ means – hesitate to act or speak, amount or number from passing a limit
which doesn’t support the context of the Hence, (B) is the right answer
sentence. The context talks about the
postponement of the bill 15. Answer: E
Option (B) – ‘Hold off’ – to stop something from ‘Set forth’ means – to make something known,
happen, which doesn’t support the context of the which supports the context of the sentence, the
sentence context of the sentence talks about the
Option (C) – ‘Hold on’ – wait; stop, this can be unearthed cultural relics that are displayed in the
the answer but we have more accurate option exhibition hall. So, no replacement required
than this. So, this option cannot be the right ‘Set in’ – to begin
option ‘Set about’ – to start to do or deal with something
Option (D) – Hold out’ – resist or survive in ‘Set aside’ – to decide not to consider something
difficult circumstances ‘Set on’ – to attack or cause to attack
Option (A) – ‘Hold over’ - - postpone something,
this supports the context of the sentence 16. Answer: C
Hence, (A) is the right answer ‘Fictitious’ means – not real or true; imaginary or
fabricated
14. Answer: B Except option (b) ‘genuine’ all are its synonym

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English Language Day -13 (Eng)

Options (a) and (c) ‘waste’ and ‘splurge’ are its


17. Answer: C synonym
‘Intrepid’ means – fearless; adventurous ‘Splurge’ – spend money freely
‘Fearless’ and ‘undaunted’ are its synonym Options (b) and (c) ‘economical’ and ‘manage’
Options (a) and (b) ‘hesitant’ and ‘introvert’ are are its antonym
antonyms of it. ‘Economical’ – careful in use of money or goods

18. Answer: E 20. Answer: C


Vindictive’ means – having or showing a strong ‘Fruitless’ means – failing to achieve the desired
desire for revenge results
All the given options are its synonym Options (a), (c) and (d) ‘barren’, ‘abortive’ and
‘worthless’ are its synonym
19. Answer: D ‘Abortive’ – failing to produce desired result
‘Squander’ means – waste (something, ‘option (b) ‘productive’ is antonym of it
especially money or time) in a reckless and
foolish manner
Score Booster
Directions (1-8): Read the passage given below Population control is not a problem. Instead, the
and answer the questions based on the available lack of scientific evidence in support of coercive
information. population policies only exposes the political,
The Uttar Pradesh government’s proposed exploitative and sometimes sinister nature of
population control law – the UP Population policy formulations in India in general. Experts
(Control, Stabilization and Welfare) Bill, 2021 – have written about the possibility of such policies
recently became the latest salvo India’s political increasing female foeticide, harassment of
leaders fired in their bid to manage a “population marginalized groups and violence against
explosion” they say is impeding India’s women. Some public health practitioners have
development. In his Independence Day address also called out the paternalistic nature of such
in 2019, Prime Minister Narendra Modi described policies and have urged the government to
the supposed problem as a major one. But there address the unmet need for contraception and
is evidence to show India is already headed better delivery of health and education services
towards the replacement-level fertility rate, and instead.
additional measures – especially coercive ones – Now, why are such coercive policies formulated
are not necessary to ensure we get there. in the first place? The arguments above explain
some facets of the state’s decision – but they

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don’t say why policymakers zero in on population patriarchy on women alone, especially since the
control as the sphere in which to (A)embank their men predominantly uphold patriarchal values
ideas. We propose that gender is at the heart of and directly benefit from them. The obsession
this issue. Population control measures are an with controlling population and reaching a
easy target because of the gendered nature of specific target diminishes people’s existence to
their underlying problems. Examine the statistics, and encourages victim-blaming –
statements issued by various politicians over the women, in this case. Instead, the problem is that
last few weeks in response to Uttar Pradesh’s the government hasn’t been held accountable for
draft Bill and it should be clear that their central, failing to uphold people’s reproductive rights
uniting theme is the blind eye the government more broadly, and implementing gender
has been turning towards women’s reproductive transformative approaches in family planning
rights. Historically, women’s bodies have been programmes specifically.
controlled by men, who think of the bodies as 1. In the view of author-
resources. Male politicians, and men in general, A. There is a need to induce changes in
are more comfortable governing women’s bodies women’s attitudes towards traditional gender
than their own. In the 70-year history of family norms and more involvement in household work.
planning programmes in India, multiple B. Adopting gender transformative approaches
governments at the state and national levels vis-à-vis health systems would mean ensuring
have implemented coercive measures of some family planning services and information are
form to control women’s fertility.Forceful male readily available.
sterilisation as a policy in India occurred during C. The absence of factual justification of
the Emergency in 1975-1977, with significant aggressive population strategies reveals India's
electoral repercussions for the ruling policy formulations as menacing on a few
dispensation. This is a big reason why controlling grounds.
men’s fertility – largely perceived to be D. The government could use strategies to
emasculatory – isn’t a popular policy measure. which men have been known to respond better.
However, India’s family-planning programme E. Both (b) and (c)
should move away from trying to control men’s
or women’s fertility and towards reproductive and 2. Why do politicians in India focus only on
gender justice – through gender transformative female productivity?
policies that include men. This shift is important A. This would translate to women getting more
because it is unfair to thrust the onus of involved in issues of reproduction and family
transforming gender norms and uprooting formation.

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B. It will help women sharereproductive (A) In its family planning strategies, the
responsibilities with their partners – like deciding government has failed to use gender
the family size, contraceptive use, care work, transformative approaches.
etc. (B) The government has not been held liable for
C. Putting a check upon the reproductive rights failing to defend people's reproductive rights.
of males can have serious electoral implications. (C) To highlight the need to promote equal
D. It yields significant changes in the knowledge relationshipsand shared responsibilities between
and behaviour of men and women regarding men and women in matters of economic growth.
contraceptives, and promotesjoint decision- A. Only (C)
making. B. Both (C) and (A)
E. Both (a) and (c) C. All are correct.
D. Both (B) and (C)
3. Why has the author suggested focusing on E. Both (A) and (B)
gender transformative policies?
A. Such an approach would engage with men to 5. Which of the following are correct in context of
understand their ideas of patriarchy, masculinity politicians raising the issue of population
and power relations. control?
B. This will eventually encourage men to equally (A) In the entire process, the reproductive rights
share in child care and the government will of women are often compromised.
design specific programmes for men of all ages. (B) They have made a significant call to involve
C. It is inequitable to place the burden of men in family planning.
changing gender norms and eliminating (C) The fundamental issues have a gendered
patriarchy solely on the shoulders of women. nature.
D. It will help the government reflect on several A. Both (B) and (C)
ideas which sustain unequal gender B. Both (A) and (B)
expectations, and encourage men to adopt more C. Both (A) and (C)
positive definitions of masculinity. D. All are correct.
E. All are correct. E. None is correct.

4. What has/ have been the primary issue(s) 6. A few words have been given below. Identify
raised by the writer in the given passage? the words which are antonyms of DIMINISHES,
as highlighted in the given passage.
(I) Plunge

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(II) Proliferate are correct then mark option E as the correct


(III) Exacerbate answer.
(IV) Mushroom 9. A legislature from Ghatlodia in Ahmedabad
A. (II), (III) (A)/and a builder by profession, (B)/ Bhupendra
B. (II), (IV), (III) Patel was chosen unanimously (C)/ at the BJP
C. (III), (I), (IV) legislative parties meeting held at Kamalam, (D)/
D. (II), (IV) the party headquarter in Gandhinagar (E).
E. (IV), (II), (I) A. AD
B. BD
7. Which of the following words is the synonym C. BE
of IMPEDING, as used in the given passage? D. BC
A. Dissipating E. No error
B. Marring
C. Extraditing 10. Scientists at Japan’s Hiroshima University
D. Lagging have identifiable (A)/ two drugs that imitate the
E. None of these. affect of chemicals (B) in cigarette smoke to bind
to receptor cells (C)/ that some coronaviruses
8. In the given passage, a word has been use to entering cells, (D)/ inhibiting the virus’s
highlighted and marked as (A). The given word ability to infect humans (E).
may or may not be correct in context of the given A. AC
passage. Identify the most appropriate word to B. CE
replace the highlighted word. C. DE
A. Impinge D. AB
B. Implore E. No error
C. Immolate
D. Impose 11. Finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman has
E. No improvement is required. recently said that banks, (A)/ including private
sector should embrace digitization (B)/ towards
Directions (9-13): In the following questions a ensuring that government schemes reached (C)/
sentence is divided into five parts. Out of which the poor and downtrodden, beside (D)/ adoption
one or two parts are correct. Identify the correct financial inclusion for a wider reach (E).
parts and mark as your answer. If all the parts A. BC
B. CD

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C. AE D. AD
D. AB E. No error
E. No error
13. Pink bollworm attack on cotton crop has
12. France will deliver three Rafale fighters per (A)/reported in various Mansa and Bhatinda (B)/
month (A)/ for the next three months with the district villages, which are the mainly (C)/ cotton
least (B)/ of the 36 contracted omni-role fighters sown areas in the (D)/ southern Malwa belts in
(C)/ carrying all 13 India specifically the state (E).
enhancements (D)/ to be delivery in January A. DE
2022 (E). B. AC
A. AC C. BD
B. CD D. BC
C. BE E. No error
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Answer Key with Explanation


statement given in option (c) is correct in context
1. Answer: C of the given passage.
Refer to the 2nd paragraph- “Instead, the lack of
scientific evidence in support of coercive 2. Answer: C
population policies only exposes the political, Refer to the 4th paragraph- “Forceful male
exploitative and sometimes sinister nature of sterilisation as a policy in India occurred during
policy formulations in India in general.” Referring the Emergency in 1975-1977, with significant
to the quoted text, we can infer that the electoral repercussions for the ruling
dispensation. This is a big reason why

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controlling men’s fertility – largely perceived to politicians over the last few weeks in response to
be emasculatory – isn’t a popular policy Uttar Pradesh’s draft Bill and it should be clear
measure.” Referring to the quoted text, we can that their central, uniting theme is the blind eye
infer that the statement given in option (c) is the government has been turning towards
correct in context of the given passage. women’s reproductive rights.” Here, referring to
the quoted text, we can infer that (A) and (C) are
3. Answer: C correct in context of the given question. Hence,
Refer to the last paragraph- “This shift is option (c) is correct.
important because it is unfair to thrust the onus
of transforming gender norms and uprooting 6. Answer: D
patriarchy on women alone, especially since the Among the given set of words, only (II) and (IV)
men predominantly uphold patriarchal values are antonyms of ‘diminish’. Hence, option (d) is
and directly benefit from them.” Referring to the correct.
quoted text, we can infer that the statement Diminishes- make or become less.
given in option (c) is correct in context of the Plunge- fall suddenly and uncontrollably.
given passage. Exacerbate- make (a problem, bad situation, or
negative feeling) worse.
4. Answer: E Mushroom-increase, spread, or develop rapidly.
Refer to the last paragraph- “Instead, the Proliferate- increase rapidly in number; multiply.
problem is that the government hasn’t been held
accountable for failing to uphold people’s 7. Answer: E
reproductive rights more broadly, and None of the given words are similar in meaning
implementing gender transformative approaches with ‘impeding’. Hence, option (e) is correct.
in family planning programmes specifically.” Impeding- delay or prevent (someone or
Here, referring to the quoted text, we can infer something) by obstructing them/ hindering.
that (A) and (B) are correct in context of the Lagging- fail to keep up with another or others in
given question. Hence, option (e) is correct. movement or development.
Extraditing- hand over (a person accused or
5. Answer: C convicted of a crime) to the jurisdiction of the
Refer to the 3rd paragraph- “Population control foreign state in which the crime was committed.
measures are an easy target because of the Marring- impair the quality or appearance of;
gendered nature of their underlying problems. spoil.
Examine the statements issued by various

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Dissipating- (with reference to a feeling or 10. Answer: B


emotion) disappear or cause to disappear. CE
Error is in parts ABD.
8. Answer: D In part A, ‘identifiable’ will be replaced by
Here, the most appropriate replacement for the ‘identified’
highlighted word will be “impose”. Hence, option In part B, ‘affect’ will be replaced by ‘effect’.
(d) is correct. Affect is a verb whereas effect is a noun.
Embank-construct a wall or bank of earth or In part D, ‘entering’ will be replaced by ‘enter’. To
stone in order to contain the course or flow of (a is followed by the infinitive form of the
river). verb(to+V1).
Impose- force (an unwelcome decision or ruling) So, the correct parts are CE.
on someone.
Impinge- have an effect, especially a negative 11. Answer: D
one. AB
Implore- beg someone earnestly or desperately Error is in parts CDE.
to do something. In part C, ‘reached’ will be replaced by ‘reach’ as
Immolate- kill or offer as a sacrifice, especially it is followed by a modal ‘should’ and the whole
by burning. sentence is in present tense.
In part D, ‘beside’ will be replaced by ‘besides’
9. Answer: D because here we need to mention ‘in addition to’
BC which is similar to ‘besides’.
Error is in parts ADE. In part E, ‘adoption’ will be replaced by ‘adopting’
In part A, ‘legislature’ will be replaced by as adoption is a noun and we need a verb.
‘legislator’. ‘Legislature’ is a governmental body So, the correct parts are AB.
whereas ‘legislator’ is the one who creates or
enacts law. 12. Answer: A
In part D, ‘parties’ will be replaced by ‘party’s’. AC
In part E, ‘headquarter’ will be replaced by Error is in parts BDE.
‘headquarters’. In both cases- singular or plural, In part B, ‘least’ will be replaced by ‘last’. Least is
it is written with an s at the end; headquarter as the superlative form of little whereas last is the
a noun is incorrect. superlative form of late.
So, the correct parts are BC. In part D, ‘specifically’ will be replaced by
‘specific’. Specifically is an adverb whereas

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specific is an adjective which is suitable before In part A, ‘has’ will be replaced by ‘is’. The
noun ‘enhancements’. sentence is in simple present tense.
In part E, ‘delivery’ will be replaced by In part C, ‘mainly’ will be replaced by ‘main’ as
‘delivered’. Rule- to be + V3 we need an adjective not an adverb before the
So, the correct parts are AC. noun ‘cotton sown areas’.
13. Answer: C In part E, ‘belts’ will be replaced by ‘belt’.
BD So, the correct parts are BD.
Error is in parts ACE.

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