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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-01 /50 (Eng)

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-01 /50 (Eng)

Reasoning Ability
Direction (1-5): Study the following information b) Two
carefully and answer the given below. c) Three
Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are d) More than three
living on an eight storey building such that the e) No one
lowermost floor is numbered as one and the
topmost floor is numbered as eight but not 4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
necessarily in the same order. way and hence form a group. Find the one that
W lives on an odd numbered floor but above doesn’t belong to that group.
fourth floor. Only three persons live between W a) R
and U. S lives immediately above U. The number b) W
of floors below S is the same as the number of c) V
floors above P. V lives three floors below P. T d) S
lives above Q but below R, who doesn’t live e) T
adjacent to P.
1. Who among the following person lives on the 5. On which of the following floor does V live?
eighth floor? a) Fourth
a) The one who lives two floors above U b) Fifth
b) Q c) Second
c) T d) Seventh
d) U e) Third
e) The one who lives immediately above W
Direction (6-10): Study the following information
2. How many persons live between R and S? carefully and answer the given below.
a) One Eight boxes viz. B, E, H, K, O, Q, U and Y are
b) Two kept one above another in the single stack, but
c) Three not necessarily in the same order. The
d) More than three bottommost box is numbered as one and the box
e) No one immediately above it is numbered as two and so
on.
3. If all the persons are arranged in alphabetical Only four boxes are kept between boxes E and Y
order from bottom to top, then how many where neither of them is kept at the topmost nor
persons remain unchanged in their position? bottommost position. Only two boxes are kept
a) One between Boxes E and U, which is kept
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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-01 /50 (Eng)

immediately below Box Q. Box H is kept two a) Box Y


boxes below Box Q. As many boxes kept b) Box K
between H and E as between U and O. Box K is c) Box Q
kept above Box B, which is not kept adjacent to d) Box H
Box E. e) Box O
6. What is the position of box U from the Bottom?
a) Third 10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
b) Sixth way and thus form a group. Which of the
c) Fourth following one does not belong to that group?
d) First a) Box K
e) Second b) Box H
c) Box Y
7. If the position of boxes K and Y are d) Box O
interchanged, then which of the following box is e) Box U
kept two boxes above Y?
a) Box E Direction (11-15): Study the following information
b) The box which is kept two boxes above box U carefully and answer the given below.
c) Box O Seven persons J, K, L, M, N, O and P are sitting
d) Box B around a circular table facing the centre but not
e) The box which is kept immediately below box necessarily in the same order.
H P sits second to the left of K. Both K and N are
immediate neighbours. The number of persons
8. If all the boxes are made to arrange in sitting between P and K is the same as the
alphabetical order from bottom to top, then how number of persons sitting between P and M. One
many boxes remain unchanged in its position? person sits between O and L, who sits third to
a) One the right of J. O doesn’t sit adjacent to J.
b) Two 11. Who among the following person sits second
c) Three to the right of K?
d) More than three a) O
e) No one b) P
c) J
9. Which of the following box is kept at the d) L
topmost position? e) None of these

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-01 /50 (Eng)

12. What is the position of M with respect to L? Direction (16-20): Study the following information
a) Immediate left carefully and answer the given below.
b) Third to the left Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are
c) Immediate right sitting on a square table in such a way that four
d) Third to the right of them sit in the corners facing outside the table
e) None of these while the other four of them sit in the middle of
the sides facing inside the table.
13. If O is related to J and K is related to L in a D sits third to the right of C. Two persons sit
certain way, then who among the following between D and G. E sits immediate right of G.
person is related to N? The number of persons sitting between C and G
a) L is the same as the number of persons sitting
b) The one who sits second to the right of O between G and F. B sits two places away from F.
c) O H sits third to the left of F. A doesn’t sit in the
d) P side of the table.
e) The one who sits immediate right of K 16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and hence form a group. Find the one that
14. If all the persons are made to sit in the doesn’t belong to that group.
alphabetical order in a clockwise direction with a) A
respect to J, then how many persons remain b) D
unchanged in their position (excluding J)? c) B
a) One d) E
b) Two e) H
c) Three
d) More than three 17. Who among the following person sits second
e) No one to the right of D?
a) F
15. Who among the following person sits exactly b) H
between N and M? c) A
a) P d) B
b) L e) None of these
c) J
d) O 18. Who among the following person sits
e) None of these opposite to G?

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-01 /50 (Eng)

a) A c) Three
b) B d) Four
c) The one who sits second to the right of H e) No one
d) G
e) The one who sits immediate right of C 20. How many persons are sitting between A and
H when counted from left of H?
19. If all the persons are made to sit in the a) One
alphabetical order in a clockwise direction with b) Two
respect to A, then how many persons remain c) Three
unchanged in their position (excluding A)? d) Four
a) One e) No one
b) Two
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Answer Key with Explanation

Direction (1-5):
1. Answer: E
2. Answer: C
3. Answer: A (Only S)
4. Answer: B (All of them lives on an even
numbered floor except option b)
5. Answer: C
Final arrangement:

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-01 /50 (Eng)

We have,
 W lives on an odd numbered floor but
above fourth floor.
 Only three persons live between W and U.
From the above condition, there are two
possibilities

Again we have,
 V lives three floors below P.
Again we have,
 T lives above Q but below R, who doesn’t
 S lives immediately above U.
live adjacent to P.
 The number of floors below S is the same
So case1 gets eliminated, hence the final
as the number of floors above P.
arrangement becomes

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-01 /50 (Eng)

Direction (6-10):
6. Answer: C
7. Answer: C
8. Answer: B(Only B and H)
9. Answer: E
10. Answer: B (All the boxes are kept on an even
numbered position except option b)
Final arrangement:

Again we have,
 Box H is kept two boxes below Box Q.
 As many boxes kept between H and E as
between U and O.

We have,
 Only four boxes are kept between boxes
E and Y where neither of them is kept at
the topmost nor bottommost position.
 Only two boxes are kept between boxes E
and U, which is kept immediately below
Box Q.
From the above condition, there are two
possibilities Again we have,
 Box K is kept above Box B, which is not
kept adjacent to Box E.
So case2 gets eliminated, hence the final
arrangement becomes

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-01 /50 (Eng)

Again we have,
 The number of persons sitting between P
and K is the same as the number of
persons sitting between P and M.

Direction (11-15):
11. Answer: D
12. Answer: C
13. Answer: B
Again we have,
14. Answer: A (Only M)
 One person sits between O and L, who
15. Answer: B
sits third to the right of J.
Final arrangement:
 O doesn’t sit adjacent to J.
So case1 gets eliminated, hence the final
arrangement becomes

We have,
 P sits second to the left of K.
 Both K and N are immediate neighbours.
Direction (16-20):
From the above condition, there are two
16. Answer: C (All others are sitting in the
possibilities
corners of the table except in option C)
17. Answer: B

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-01 /50 (Eng)

18. Answer: B  E sits immediate right of G.


19. Answer: E  The number of persons sitting between C
20. Answer: C and G is the same as the number of
Final arrangement: persons sitting between G and F.
 B sits two places away from F.

Again we have,
We have,
 H sits third to the left of F.
 D sits third to the right of C.
 A doesn’t sit in the side of the table.
 Two persons sit between D and G.
From the above condition, there are two
possibilities

Again we have,
Score booster
Directions (1-5): Study the following statements Conclusions:
and then decide which of the given conclusions I. Some bottles are box
logically follows from the given statements II. All glasses being plastic is a possibility
disregarding commonly known facts. a) Only conclusion I follows
1. Statements: b) Either conclusion I or II follows
Few Bottles are glass c) Both conclusions I and II follow
Only a few glasses are plastic d) Only conclusion II follows
Some plastic are box e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-01 /50 (Eng)

II. Some Lion are mouse


2. Statements: a) Only conclusion I follows
All kind is love b) Either conclusion I or II follows
Some Love is not hate c) Both conclusions I and II follow
Some hate is care d) Only conclusion II follows
Conclusions: e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
I. Some kind being care is a possibility
II. All care is kind 5. Statements:
a) Only conclusion I follows All comedies are real
b) Either conclusion I or II follows Only a few reals are fake
c) Both conclusions I and II follow No fake is dream
d) Only conclusion II follows Conclusions:
e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows I. Some comedies are fake
II. Some real are not dream
3. Statements: a) Only conclusion I follows
Some beds are pillow b) Either conclusion I or II follows
No bed is sofa c) Both conclusions I and II follow
All sofa are chair d) Only conclusion II follows
Conclusions: e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
I. Some chairs are not bed
II. Some pillows are not Sofa Directions (6-10): In each of the following
a) Only conclusion I follows questions, the relationship between different
b) Either conclusion I or II follows elements is shown in the statements followed by
c) Both conclusions I and II follow two conclusions. Find the conclusion which is
d) Only conclusion II follows definitely true.
e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 6. Statements:
R≤W>K; Q<E>O; V>W<O
4. Statements: Conclusions:
No Tiger is Lion I. E>K
Some Lion are Cow II. V≥R
Only a few Cow are Mouse a) Only conclusion I follows
Conclusions: b) Either conclusion I or II follows
I. No Lion is Mouse c) Both conclusions I and II follow

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-01 /50 (Eng)

d) Only conclusion II follows e) Either c or d


e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
10. Statements:
7. Statements: Q≤C<J<P; Z>D<C=I; F≤Q<R
B>I≥T<W; Y>I>J=P; S≤J Conclusions:
Conclusions: I. C>F
I. B≥P II. R≥J
II. Y>S a) Only conclusion I follows
a) Only conclusion I follows b) Either conclusion I or II follows
b) Either conclusion I or II follows c) Both conclusions I and II follow
c) Both conclusions I and II follow d) Only conclusion II follows
d) Only conclusion II follows e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Direction (11-15): Study the following information
8. Statements: carefully and answer the given below.
W > C ≥ N ≥ X ≤ T; R ≥ C ≤ Z ≤ L 451 674 311 875 123
Conclusions 11. If the digits are written in ascending order
I. L>X within the number from the left end, then which
II. L=X of the following number will become the second-
a) Only conclusion I follows lowest number?
b) Either conclusion I or II follows a) 451
c) Both conclusions I and II follow b) 674
d) Only conclusion II follows c) 311
e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows d) 875
e) 123
9. Which of the following symbols should replace
the question marks respectively so that X>Q is 12. If the position of the first and third digits are
definitely true? interchanged within the number, then how many
Q?M<E?T=X>B<U numbers will be divisible by two?
a) < and > a) 1
b) = and > b) 2
c) = and = c) 3
d) = and < d) 4

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-01 /50 (Eng)

e) None between them in the word as in the alphabetical


series(both forward and backward directions)?
13. If the third digit of the lowest number is a) One
added with the second digit of the second b) Two
highest number, then which of the following c) Three
will be the resultant? d) Four
a) 6 e) More than four
b) 7
c) 8 17. If 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the
d) 9 number “271634853” and 2 is added to each odd
e) 10 digit in the number, then how many digits are
repeated more than once in the newly obtained
14. What will be the resultant if the third digit of number?
the second largest number is divided by the a) One
second digit of the smallest number? b) Three
a) 1.5 c) Two
b) 2 d) Four
c) 0.5 e) More than four
d) 4 18. How many pairs of digits are there in the
e) 1 number “3157169” each of which has as many
digits between them in the number as there are
15. If the digits are added within the number, in the number series? (Both forward and
then the resultant of how many numbers is an backward directions)
even number? a) One
a) One b) Two
b) Two c) Three
c) Three d) Four
d) Four e) More than four
e) None
19. If in the given number “1267826437" how
16. How many pairs of letters are there in the many such digits are there each of which is
word “COTTON” which has as many letters immediately preceded and immediately followed
by an even number?

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-01 /50 (Eng)

a) One left, then which of the following letter is Sixth


b) Two from the right end after the rearrangement?
c) Three a) U
d) Four b) N
e) More than four c) T
d) E
20. If in the word ‘NURTURE’ all the letters are e) R
rearranged in the alphabetical order from right to
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Answer Key with Explanation


1. Answer: E

2. Answer: A

4. Answer: B

3. Answer: C 5. Answer: D

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-01 /50 (Eng)

11. Answer: E
451 674 311 875 123
145 467 113 578 123

12. Answer: C
451 674 311 875 123
154 476 113 578 321
6. Answer: A
I. E>K (E>O>W>K) True 13. Answer: E
II. V≥R (V>W≥R) False 451 674 311 875 123
Hence, Only conclusion I follows Third digit of the lowest number is added with
second digit of the second highest number
7. Answer: D Hence, 7+3=10
I. B≥P (B≥I>J=P) False
II. Y>S (Y>I>J≥S) True 14. Answer: B
Hence, Only conclusion II follows 451 674 311 875 123
Hence, 4/2=2
8. Answer: B
I. L>X (L≥Z≥C≥N≥X) False 15. Answer: C
II. L=X (L≥Z≥C≥N≥X) False 451 674 311 875 123
Hence, either conclusion I or II follows 10 17 05 20 06
The three even numbers are 10, 20, and 06
9. Answer: E
Q?M<E?T=X>B<U 16. Answer: A
For option c, Q=M<E=T=X>B<U True
For option d, Q=M<E<T=X>B<U True
Hence, either c or d
17. Answer: B
10. Answer: E 271634853
I. C>F (C≥Q≥F) False 193553775
II. R≥J (R>Q≤C<J) False
Hence, neither conclusion I nor II follows 18. Answer: C

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-01 /50 (Eng)

678, 826 and 264

20. Answer: A
NURTURE

19. Answer: C UUTRRNE

1267826437

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Aptitude – Day-1/50 (Eng)

Dear Friends, this is the Special Paid Ultimate Bundle PDF Course 2022 which was made
possible because of the Hard work of Our Experts Team. This PDF Course consists of High-
Standard Questions on Reasoning, Quants, English, General Awareness exactly on Exam
Level. Total 80,000+ Questions are provided and this PDF course consists of Five
Segmentations.

 Topic-wise Bundle PDF Course (Total: 14,000+ Ques)


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 Exam-wise Bundle PDF Course (Total: 45,000+ Ques)
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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Aptitude – Day-1/50 (Eng)

Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The given table chart shows the total number of participants in a competition in four different years
2012, 2013, 2014 and 2015 respectively and also given the ratio of the number of dancers who
participated to the number of painters who participated in the competition in these four years.
Note: Total number of participants = Number of painters + Number of dancers

1)Find the ratio of the number of dancers who e) None of these


participated in the competition in 2015 to the
number of painters who participated in the 3)The number of painters who participated in the
competition in 2012. competition in 2014 is what percentage of the
a) 5:7 number of dancers who participated in the
b) 8:9 competition in 2013?
c) 3:2 a) 45%
d) 10:9 b) 50%
e) None of these c) 60%
d) 30%
2)If the number of male painters and male e) None of these
dancers who participated in the competition in
2012 is 75 and 120 respectively, then find the 4)If the number of dancers who participated in
difference between the number of female the competition in 2016 is 75 more than that of
painters and female dancers who participated in in the previous year and the number of painters
the competition in 2012. who participated in the competition in 2016 is 80
a) 15 more than that of 2014, then find the total
b) 10 number of dancers and painters who
c) 18 participated in the competition in 2016.
d) 12 a) 345

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Aptitude – Day-1/50 (Eng)

b) 475 2012 and the number of painters who


c) 290 participated in the competition in 2015.
d) 430 a) 10
e) None of these b) 20
c) 15
5)Find the difference between the number of d) 30
dancers who participated in the competition in e) None of these

Directions (6-10): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The given bar graph shows the number of occupied flats in five different buildings namely A, B, C, D, E
respectively and also given the number of vacant flats in these five buildings.
Note: Total number of flats in a building = Number of occupied flats + Number of vacant flats

6)The number of vacant flats in C is what 7)Number of people in each occupied flat in C
percentage of the number of occupied flats in E? and D is 3 and 2 respectively. Find the sum of
a) 30% the total number of people in C and D.
b) 48% a) 1200
c) 55% b) 1450
d) 25% c) 1300
e) None of these d) 1070
e) None of these

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Aptitude – Day-1/50 (Eng)

8)Find the difference between the sum of the a) Rs.2000


number of vacant flats in A and E and the b) Rs.1500
number of occupied flats in D. c) Rs.2500
a) 75 d) Rs.3500
b) 15 e) None of these
c) 50
d) 40 12) The distance travelled by the boat in
e) None of these downstream is 100 km more than the distance
travelled by the boat in upstream and the time
9)There are 20 floors in building A and each taken by the boat to cover the downstream and
floor has an equal number of occupied flats and upstream distance is 15 hours and 17.5 hours
vacant flats. Find the total number of flats on a respectively and the speed of the current is 5
single floor in building A. km/hr. Find the speed of the boat in still water.
a) 23 a) 30 km/hr
b) 17 b) 25 km/hr
c) 15 c) 40 km/hr
d) 10 d) 20 km/hr
e) None of these e) None of these

10)Find the ratio of the number of occupied flats 13)Priya invested a certain amount in C.I for 2
in B to the number of vacant flats in C. years at 20% rate of interest per annum and
a) 7:4 obtained an interest of Rs.660 and she invested
b) 5:4 a certain amount in S.I which is 4/3rd of the
c) 3:2 amount invested in C.I for 4 years at 15% rate of
d) 1:1 interest. Find the simple interest obtained by
e) None of these Priya.
a) Rs.2000
11) A shopkeeper sold a table at a loss of 20% b) Rs.1500
and sold the lamp at a profit of 10% and the c) Rs.1200
shopkeeper obtained a loss of 11% in the whole d) Rs.900
transaction. Find the cost price of the table, if e) None of these
the cost price of the table is Rs.2000 more than
the cost price of the lamp.

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Aptitude – Day-1/50 (Eng)

14) Average of the present age of A, B and C is 17) A car travels from A to B with a speed of x
30 years and the ratio of the present age of A to km/hr and reduces its speed by 40% while
B is 9:5 and after 5 years, the ratio of the ages travelling from B to C and the total time taken by
of A to B is 5:3. Find the present age of C. the car to cover A to B is 2 hours less than the
a) 20 years time taken by the car to cover B to C. Distance
b) 25 years between A to B and B to C is 500 km and 360
c) 30 years km respectively. Find the value of x.
d) 45 years a) 30
e) None of these b) 50
c) 40
15) Average weight of 5 students is 50 kg. When d) 60
the weights of x number of students are added, e) None of these
then the average weight is increased by 20 kg. If
the average weight of x number of students is 18) P alone can complete the work in x days
95 kg, then find the value of x. and Q alone can complete the work in (x + 20)
a) 4 days and if both P and Q are working together,
b) 3 they can complete the work in 24 days. Find the
c) 5 time taken by Q alone to complete the work.
d) 2 a) 40 days
e) None of these b) 15 days
c) 30 days
16) Area of the rhombus is 336 m2 and the ratio d) 60 days
of the diagonals of the rhombus is 7:6. If the e) None of these
length and breadth of the rectangle is as same
as the length of the longer side and shorter side 19) A vessel contains lemon and water in the
of the rhombus respectively, then find the ratio of 11:5. 32 liters of mixture is taken out and
perimeter of the rectangle. 9 liters of water is added to the vessel, then the
a) 150 m quantity of lemon becomes twice the quantity of
b) 78 m water in finally. Find the final quantity of water in
c) 58 m the vessel.
d) 104 m a) 75 liters
e) None of these b) 99 liters
c)115 liters

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Aptitude – Day-1/50 (Eng)

d) 69 liters if the number of bikes and cars manufactured in


e) None of these 2017 is the same and the manufacturing of
bikes increase by 10% in each year.
20) In a factory, both cars and bikes are a) 3025
manufactured in each year and the production of b) 3000
cars increases by 20% in each year and the c) 2500
number of cars manufactured in 2019 is 3600. d) 2750
Find the number of bikes manufactured in 2019, e) None of these
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Answer Key with Explanation

Directions (1-5): Number of dancers who participated = 450 * 4/9


2012: = 200
Total number of participants = 420 Number of painters who participated = 450 – 200
Number of dancers who participated = 420 * 4/7 = 250
= 240
Number of painters who participated = 420 – 240
= 180
2013:
Total number of participants = 360
Number of dancers who participated = 360 * 5/9
= 200
1. Answer: D
Number of painters who participated = 360 – 200
Required ratio = 200:180 = 10:9
= 160
2014:
2. Answer: A
Total number of participants = 300
Number of female dancers who participatedin
Number of dancers who participated = 300 * 3/5
the competition in 2012 = 240 – 120 = 120
= 180
Number of female painters who participated in
Number of painters who participated = 300 – 180
the competition in 2012 = 180 – 75 = 105
= 120
Required difference = 120 – 105 = 15
2015:
Total number of participants = 450
3. Answer: C

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Required percentage = 120/200 * 100 = 60% 10. Answer: A


Required ratio = 210:120 = 7:4
4. Answer: B
Number of dancers who participated in the 11. Answer: D
competition in 2016 = 200 + 75 = 275 Cost price of the lamp = Rs.x
Number of painters who participated in the Cost price of the table = Rs.(x + 2000)
competition in 2016 = 120 + 80 = 200 x * 110/100 + (x + 2000) * 80/100 = (x + x +
Total number of dancers and painters who 2000) * 89/100
participated in 2016 = 275 + 200 = 475 110x + 80x + 160000 = (2x + 2000) * 89
190x + 160000 = 178x + 178000
5. Answer: A 12x = 18000
Required difference = 250 – 240 = 10 x = Rs.1500
Cost price of the table = 1500 + 2000 = Rs.3500
6. Answer: B
Required percentage = 120/250 * 100 = 48% 12. Answer: B
Speed of the boat in still water = B km/hr
7. Answer: D (B + 5) * 15 – (B – 5) * 17.5 = 100
Total number of people in C = 170 * 3 = 510 15B + 75 – 17.5B + 87.5 = 100
Total number of people in D = 280 * 2 = 560 162.5 – 100 = 2.5B
Required sum = 510 + 560 = 1070 B = 62.5/2.5 = 25 km/hr

8. Answer: D 13. Answer: C


Required difference = 280 – (100 + 140) =280- Amount invested in C.I = Rs.x
240 = 40 x * (1 + 20/100)2 – x = 660
x * (120/100)2 – x = 660
9. Answer: B x * 36/25 – x = 660
Number of occupied flats on each floor in A = 36x – 25x = 660 * 25
240/20 = 12 11x = 660 * 25
Number of vacant flats in each floor in A = x = Rs.1500
100/20 = 5 Amount invested in S.I = 1500 * 4/3 = Rs.2000
Total number of flats in a single floor in A = 12 + Simple interest obtained by Priya = 2000 * 4 *
5 = 17 15/100 = Rs.1200

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14. Answer: A 17. Answer: B


Present age of A = 9x 360/(x * 60/100) – 500/x = 2
Present age of B = 5x 360/(3x/5) – 500/x = 2
(9x + 5)/(5x + 5) = 5/3 600/x – 500/x = 2
27x + 15 = 25x + 25 100/x = 2
2x = 10 x = 50 km/hr
x=5
Present age of A = 9 * 5 = 45 years 18. Answer: D
Present age of B = 5 * 5 = 25 years 1/x + 1/(x + 20) = 1/24
Present age of C = 30 * 3 – 45 – 25 =90-70 = 20 (x + 20 + x)/(x2 + 20x) = 1/24
years x2 + 20x = 48x + 480
x2 + 20x – 48x – 480 = 0
15. Answer: A x2 – 28x – 480 = 0
(50 * 5 + 95 * x)/(x + 5) = 70 x2 – 40x + 12x – 480 = 0
250 + 95x = 70 * (x + 5) x(x – 40) + 12(x – 40) = 0
250 + 95x = 70x + 350 x = 40, -12
25x = 100 Time taken by Q alone to complete the work =
x=4 40 + 20 = 60 days

16. Answer: D 19. Answer: B


Longer side = 7x (11x – 32 * 11/16)/(5x – 32 * 5/16 + 9) = 2/1
Shorter side = 6x (11x – 22)/(5x –10 + 9) = 2/1
1/2 * 7x * 6x = 336 (11x – 22)/(5x – 1) = 2/1
21x2 = 336 11x – 22 = 10x – 2
x2 = 16 x = 20 liters
x=4 Final quantity of water = 5 * 20 – 32 * 5/16 + 9 =
Longer side = 7 * 4 = 28 m 99 liters
Shorter side = 6 * 4 = 24 m
Length of the rectangle = 28 m 20. Answer: A
Breadth of the rectangle = 24 m Number of cars manufactured in 2017 = 3600 *
Perimeter of the rectangle = 2 * (28 + 24) = 2*52 100/120 * 100/120 = 2500
=104 m Number of bikes manufactured in 2017 = 2500

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Aptitude – Day-1/50 (Eng)

Number of cars manufactured in 2019 = 2500 *


110/100 * 110/100 = 3025
Score booster
Directions (01-05): What value should come in A.1001
the place of (?) in the following questions. B.1003
1. (42)2 – (38)2 – (17)2 = ? C.1005
A.24 D.1007
B.29 E.1211
C.22
D.27 Directions (06-10): What approximate value
E.31 should come in the place of (?) in the following
questions?
2. 35 * 26 + √3136 = ? * √529 6. 31.89 % of 150.12 + 39.92% of 129.98 = ?
A.35 A.130
B.45 B.120
C.39 C.100
D.42 D.140
E.25 E.150

3. 80% of 750 + 40% of 1060 = ?2 7. 7.98 * √227 + 1360.11 ÷ √1155 = ?


A.32 A.140
B.37 B.160
C.41 C.180
D.29 D.120
E.39 E.110

4. 1680 ÷ 8 + 1360 ÷ 16 = ? + 19 * 5 8. 18.18 * 4.99 + 12.15 * 3.99 – 117.99 = ?


A.180 A.20
B.190 B.25
C.200 C.30
D.210 D.40
E.220 E.35

5. 39 * 31 + 18 * 12 = ? + 53 * 8
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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Aptitude – Day-1/50 (Eng)

B.24
9. 23.28 * 14.19 + 13.98 * 11.99 = ? C.15
A.450 D.12
B.500 E.30
C.490
D.470 14. 21, 30, 57, 102, 165, ?
E.460 A.192
B.216
10. √360 * √1025 – √145 * √50 = ? C.232
A.389 D.246
B.456 E.281
C.478
D.524 15. 35, 50, 75, 120, ?, 310
E.556 A.180
B.240
Directions (11-15): Find out the missing number C.155
in the following number series. D.210
11. 12, 37, 114, 347, 1048, ? E.195
A.2096
B.3153 Directions (16-20): Find out the wrong number in
C.2642 the following number series.
D.3024 16. 109 106 99 84 53 -9
E.2902 A.109
B.106
12. 11, 30, 53, 82, ?, 150 C.84
A.113 D.53
B.96 E.-9
C.108
D.119 17. 13, 24, 69, 272, 1255, 8124
E.123 A.1255
B.69
13. 2, 3, 6, ?, 45, 157.5 C.272
A.18 D.8124

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Aptitude – Day-1/50 (Eng)

E.24 D.x < y


E.x ≤ y
18. 504, 503, 507, 486, 736, -2389
A.504 22.
B.503 I) 7x + 3y = 73
C.507 II) 5x + 2y = 51
D.486 A.x > y
E.-2389 B.x ≥ y
C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
19. 148, 144, 72, 216, 54, 270 D.x < y
A.148 E.x ≤ y
B.144
C.77 23.
D.231 I) x2 – 30x - 64 = 0
E.288.75 II) y2 + 10y + 16 = 0
A.x > y
20. 544, 554, 571, 598, 634, 679 B.x ≥ y
A.598 C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
B.571 D.x < y
C.554 E.x ≤ y
D.634
E.679 24.
I) x2 - 11x + 24 = 0
Directions (21-25): In each of the following II) y2 - y - 6 = 0
questions, two equations are given. You have to A. x < y
solve both the equations to find the relation B. x > y
between x and y. C. x ≤ y
21. D. x ≥ y
I) 2x2 + 24 = 16x E. Relationship between x and y cannot be
II) 2y2 = 2y + 24 determined
A.x > y
B.x ≥ y 25.
C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. I) x2 - x - 12 = 0

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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Aptitude – Day-1/50 (Eng)

II) y2 - 2y -15 = 0 D. x ≥ y
A. x < y E. Relationship between x and y cannot be
B. x > y determined
C. x ≤ y
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Answer Key with Explanation

1. Answer: E 6. Answer: C
(42)2 – (38)2 – (17)2 = ? 31.89 % of 150.12 + 39.92% of 129.98 = ?
1764 – 1444 – 289 = ? 48 + 52 = ?
31 = ? 100 = ?

2. Answer: D 7. Answer: B
35 * 26 + √3136 = ? * √529 7.98 * √227 + 1360.11 ÷ √1155 = ?
910 + 56 = ? * 23 120 + 40 = ?
? = 42 160 = ?

3. Answer: A 8. Answer: A
80% of 750 + 40% of 1060 = ?2 18.18 * 4.99 + 12.15 * 3.99 – 117.99 = ?
600 + 424 = ?2 90 + 48 – 118 = ?
? = 32 ? = 20

4. Answer: C 9. Answer: C
1680 ÷ 8 + 1360 ÷ 16 = ? + 19 * 5 23.28 * 14.19 + 13.98 * 11.99 = ?
210 + 85 = ? + 95 (23 + 12) * 14 = ?
? = 200 ? = 490

5. Answer: A 10. Answer: D


39 * 31 + 18 * 12 = ? + 53 * 8 √360 * √1025 – √145 * √50 = ?
1209 + 216 = ? + 424 608 – 84 = ?
? = 1001 ? = 524

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11. Answer: B 16. Answer: E


12 * 3 + 1 = 37
37 * 3 + 3 = 114
114 * 3 + 5 = 347
347 * 3 + 7 = 1048
1048 * 3 + 9 = 3153 Hence, there must be -10 in place of -9.
The difference of difference is, 4, 8, 16, 32,…..

12. Answer: A
11 + 19 = 30 17. Answer: A

30 + 23 = 53 13 *2-2 = 24

53 + 29 = 82 24*3-3 = 69

82 + 31 = 113 69 *4-4 = 272

113 + 37 = 150 272*5-5 = 1355


1355*6-6 = 8124

13. Answer: C Hence, there must be 1355 in place of

2 * 1.5 = 3 1255.

3*2=6
6 * 2.5 = 15 18. Answer: D

15 * 3 = 45 504 -11= 503

45 * 3.5 = 157.5 503 +22= 507


507 -33= 480

14. Answer: D 480 +44= 736

21 + (9 * 1) = 30 736 -55= -2389

30 + (9 * 3) = 57 Hence, there must be 480 in place of 486.

57 + (9 * 5) = 102
102 + (9 * 7) = 165 19. Answer: A

165 + (9 * 9) = 246 144×1 = 144


144 ÷2 = 72

15. Answer: E 72 ×3 = 216

35 + 15 = 50 216 ÷ 4 = 54

50 + 25 = 75 54 × 5 = 270

75 + 45 = 120 Hence, there must be 144 in place of 148.

120 + 75 = 195
195 + 115 = 310 20. Answer: C
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IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2022 – Bundle PDF Course: Aptitude – Day-1/50 (Eng)

544 +9 = 553 x2 – 32x + 2x – 64 = 0


553+18 = 571 x(x – 32) + 2(x – 32) = 0
571 +27 = 598 (x + 2)(x – 32) = 0
598 +36 = 634 x = - 2, 32
634 +45 = 679 y2 + 10y + 16 = 0
Hence, there must be 553 in place of 554. y2 + 8y + 2y + 16 = 0
Therefore option (c) is correct. y(y + 8) + 2(y + 8) = 0
(y + 2)(y + 8) = 0
21. Answer: C y = -2, -8
2x2 + 24 = 16x y≤x
2x2 - 16x + 24 = 0
2x2 – 12x – 4x + 24 = 0 24. Answer: D
2x(x – 6) – 4(x – 6) = 0 x2 - 11x + 24 = 0
(2x – 4)(x – 6) = 0 =>x2 -8x -3x + 24 = 0
x = 2, 6 => x(x – 8) -3(x – 8) = 0
2y2 = 2y + 24 => (x – 3) (x – 8) = 0
2y2 - 2y – 24 = 0 => x = 3, 8
2y2 – 8y + 6y – 24 = 0 y2 - y - 6 = 0
2y(y – 4) + 6(y – 4) = 0 =>y2 -3y +2y - 6 = 0
(2y + 6)(y – 4) = 0 => y(y - 3) +2(y – 3) = 0
y = -3, 4 => (y – 3) (y +2) = 0
Relationship between x and y cannot => y = +3, -2
established. Hence, x ≥ y

22. Answer: D 25. Answer: E


7x + 3y = 73 ------(1) x2 - x - 12 = 0
5x + 2y = 51 -----(2) =>x2 – 4x + 3x - 12 = 0
From (1) and (2) => x(x – 4) +3(x – 4) = 0
x=7 => (x – 4) (x + 3) = 0
y=8 => x = 4, -3
x<y y2 - 2y - 15 = 0
=>y2 - 5y + 3y - 15 = 0
23. Answer: B => y(y – 5) +3(y - 5) = 0
x2 – 30x - 64 = 0 => (y – 5) (y + 3) = 0
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=> y = 5, -3
Hence, relationship between x and y cannot be
determined

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