CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2020- 2021)

PRE - MEDICAL : 2021

ENTHUSIAST REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES
Test Date: 27 - 01 - 2021 Test Pattern: NEET
Time : 3 Hours TEST - 14 Maximum Marks : 720

Instructions
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
1. This Question Paper contains 180 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in
any form are not allowed.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
5. Do not Tamper/ mutilate the ORS orthis booklet.
6. How to fill response on OMR (Assuming answer is (1))
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
Correct Method: Wrong Method:
7. Write your ALLEN Form Number, Student's Name, Father's Name and Class with pen in appropriate boxes.
Do not write these any where else.
8. Darken the appropriate bubbles on ORS with blue / black ball point pen only.
B. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
9. The question paper consists of 4 SUBJECTS (Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology). Each subject consists of
45 Multiple Choice Single Correct Questions.
10. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

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 PRE-MEDICAL - 2021
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES

TEST - 14 DATE : 27 - 01 - 2021

SYLLABUS

PHYSICS : Current Electricity and Heating Effects of Current

CHEMISTRY : Chemical Kinetics

BOTANY : Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

ZOOLOGY : Human Reproduction

 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 14/27-01-2021

1. The current flowing through a wire depends on time 7. The voltmeter shown in figure reads 10 V, then emf
as i = a + bt where a = 2 A and b = 5 A/s, then of cell is e,1 W
average current between t = 1 s to t = 2 s, is
(1) 7 A (2) 9.5 A (3) 5 A (4) Zero 5W V
2. A wire of length 100 cm carries a steady current i.
The potentials at the ends of the wire is +4 V and 4W
–20 V. The value of potential at x = 20 cm, from the
(1) 20 V (2) 15 V
end where potential is +4v is
(3) 35 V (4) 2 V
+4 V –20 V 8. A wire of 12 m is turned into a regular hexagon
0 cm x 20 cm 100 cm
1
ABCDEFA. Its resistance per unit length is W /m.
(1)– 0.8 V (2)– 0.4 V (3)0.8 V (4)0.4 V 2
3. Let m cells each of emf e, internal resistance 'r' are The equivalent resistance between A and D is
connected in series with an external resistance R. (1) 6 W (2) 3 W
Now if n cells are reversed, then current in circuit is (3) 1.5 W (4) 0.75 W

(1)

(3)
(m – n )e
mr + R
me
r + mR
(4)
(2)
EN
(m – 2n )e
mr + R
(m – 2n )e
r + mR
9. Two different conductors have same resistance at 0°C.
It is found that the resistance of the first conductor at
t1°C is equal to the resistance of the second conductor
at t2°C. The ratio of the temperature coefficients of

resistance of the conductors

a1
is
4. In the given circuit, current flowing through the a2
resistance of 5 W, is
t1 t2
(1) t (2) t
2 1
LL
5V t2 t2 – t1
20 V 2W 1W (3) t – t (4)
2 1 t1
10. A heater of rated voltage 200 V heats a volume of
5W liquid in 5 minutes. The same heater is connected to
(1) 15 A (2) 10 A 100 V supply to heat the same amount of liquid in
(3) 5 A (4) Zero (1) 20 minutes (2) 10 minutes
5. Five cells each of emf e and internal resistance ‘r’ (3) 2.5 minutes (4) 5 minutes
A

are connected in series. If one cell is connected 11. The potential difference between the terminals of a
wrongly, then p.d. across this cell will be cell is found to be 3V when it is connected to a
resistance equal to its internal resistance. The emf of
8e
(1) (2) Zero the cell is
5
(1) 3V (2) 6V
4e 2e (3) 1.5V (4) 10V
(3) (4)
5 5 12. Microscopic form of Ohm's law is
6. The equivalent resistance between A and B is r r
(1) V = IR (2) J = sE
10 W r r
(3) J = rE (4) All of these
A 10 W 10 W B 13. The terminal potential difference across A and B in
the circuit shown is

(1) 15 W (2) Zero W

I
(3) 10 W (4) 30 W
A e r B
(1) e – Ir (2) e + Ir
(3) e (4) Zero

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 14/27-01-2021

14. Two wires of resistance R 1 = (3 ± 1) W and (1) 40 W (2) 10 W

(3) 20 W (4) 30 W
R2 = (6 ± 2) W are connected in series, then effective
resistance is 19. Two identical cells each of emf e, and internal
(1) (6 ± 3) W (2) (9 ± 2) W resistance r are connected in parallel with an external
resistance R. The condition for maximum power
(3) (6 ± 1) W (4) (9 ± 3) W consumption in external resistance R is
15. Two cells 1 and 2 each of emf e but internal resistance (1) r = R (2) r = 2R
r1 and r2 respectively are connected as shown in figure.
(3) 2r = R (4) For any condition
If potential difference across cell 2 is zero, then value
of R is 20. If a wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, its
resistance will
e e
r1 r2 (1) Increase by 0.05% (2) Increase by 0.2%
(3) Decrease by 0.2% (4) Decrease by 0.5%
21. The equivalent resistance of the arrangement of
R
resistances shown in adjoining figure between the
points A and B is
(1) r1 – r2

(3) r1r2
(2) r2 – r1

(4)

16. In the given figure, if galvanometer shows null

deflection then emf of each cell will be
EN
r1r2
A
8W
16W
16W
20W

9W
5 V, 1 W
6W
LL
2m 10 m,9 W 18W
A B
(1) 6W (2) 8W
e G
(3) 16W (4) 24W
22. The current density in a wire is 10 A/cm 2 and the
electric field in wire is 5V/cm. If r is the resistivity of
e
material, then find r (in SI unit)
A

(1) 9 V (2) 0.9 V

(1) r = 5 ´ 10-3 (2) r = 9.5 ´ 10-3
(3) 4.5 V (4) 1.8 V
17. In a potentiometer, the wire has resistivity r, area (3) r = 7.3 ´ 10-4 (4) None of these
of cross-section A and current I is flowing in it. The 23. Equivalent resistance of the given circuit between A
potential gradient in the wire is and B is
IA rA
(1) (2) RW
r I RW RW
A B
A Ir
(3) (4)
rI A
18. In the circuit shown, if galvanometer shows null
(1) 3RW (2) R 3 W
deflection, then value of R will be
R
G (3) 2R 3 W (4) 3R 2 W
25 V 5V
10 W

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 14/27-01-2021

24. V - I graph for a good conductor makes an angle 2 4

of 60° with I-axis (as shown), here V-denotes (1) (2)
3 9
voltage and I - denotes current. The resistance of
conductor will be 9
(3) (4) None of these
4
V
30. A wire has resistance 12W It is bent in the form of a
circle. The effective resistance between the two end
60° points on any diameter of the circle is
I
(1) 12W (2) 24W
(1) sin 60° (2) cos 60°
(3) cosec 60° (4) tan 60° (3) 6W (4) 3W
25. The charge through a wire depends on time as 31. A galvanometer of resistance 400W can measure a
q = (3t2 + 2t + 5)coloumb. The current through wire at current of 1 mA. To convert it into a voltmeter of range
t = 0 is 8V, the required resistance is:
(1) 5 A (2) 3 A (1) 4600W (2) 5600W
(3) 2 A (4) 10 A
EN
26. The following wires are made of the same material,
having same area of cross section and are at same
temperature but different lengths. For what length,
resistance is highest.
(3) 6600W (4) 7600W
32. Two cells of emf’s E1 and E2 and internal resistance
r1 and r2 are connected in parallel. Then the emf and
internal resistance of the equivalent source are:
(1) L = 50 cm (2) L = 100 cm æ r1r2 ö
(1) ( E1 + E 2 ) and ç ÷
(3) L = 200 cm (4) L = 300 cm è r1 + r2 ø
27. The magnitude of ‘I’ in ampere unit as shown in
(2) ( E1 - E 2 ) and (r1 + r2 )
LL
diagram is

60W
æ E1r2 + E 2 r1 ö æ r1r2 ö
(3) ç ÷ and ç ÷
è r1 + r2 ø è r1 + r2 ø
1A I
æ E1r2 + E 2 r1 ö
1A (4) ç ÷ and (r1 + r2 )
è r1 + r2 ø
15W 5W 33. The potentiometer wire AB is 100 cm long. For what
A

value of R, the galvanometer shows no deflection,

(1) 0.25 A (2) 1.5 A where AC = 40 cm (shown in figure)?
(3) 0.7 A (4) None of these 10W R
28. A wire of resistance R is cut into ‘n’ equal parts.
resistance of each part is G
A C B
(1) nR (2) R n

(3) n R (4) R
n2
(1) 13W (2) 17W
29. The power dissipated in resistances R1 & R2 are in
ratio (3) 15W (4) 21W
R1 = 4W R2 = 6W

10V

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 14/27-01-2021

34. Two cells X and Y are connected to a resistance of 40. In the given figure, if R1 > R2, then power dissipation
10 W as shown in the figure. The terminal voltage of is maximum for
cell Y is :–
R1
6V,2W 4V,8W
R2
X Y
10W

(1) Zero (2) 2V E

(3) 4V (4) 10V
(1) R1
35. The resistance of a moving coil galvanometer is
(2) R2
195 W and its full scale deflection current is 100 mA. (3) Both (1) & (2)
The resistance required to be connected to convert it
into ammeter of range 4 ampere is (4) Incomplete information

(1) 5 W (2) 10 W 41. If the resistance of a wire at 50°C is 5 W and at

100°C is 6 W , then resistance of the wire at 0°C is
(3) 15 W (4) 20 W

current from t = 0 to t = 2 second is

(1) 0 A (2) 4 A
EN
36. If the amount of charge passed in time t through a
cross-section of wire is Q = 8t – 2t2, then average
(1) 3 W
(3) 1 W (4) 4 W
(2) 2 W

42. The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained

using :
(3) 2 A (4) 8 A (1) Voltmeter
37. A resistor has a colour of green, blue, brown and (2) Potentiometer
silver. What is its resistance ? (3) Meterbridge
LL
(1) 56 W ± 5% (2) 560 W ± 10% (4) Galvanometer
(3) 560 W ± 5% (4) 5600 W ±10% 43. Three identical bulbs of power P (each) are connected
as shown in figure. Now after the key K is closed
38. A cell of emf 1.5 volt and internal resistance then incandescence of bulb B will
0.5 W is connected to a conductor, whose V – I
graph is shown in the figure. Hence, terminal voltage A B C
across conductor is
A

V K

(1) Increase
45° (2) Decrease
I
(3) Become zero
(4) Not change
(1) 0.5 V (2) 1.0 V
44. Two copper wires of area of cross section A and
(3) 1.5 V (4) 2 V
2A and length 2L and L respectively are given, then
39. A wire of length ‘L’ and resistance R is turned into a ratio of their conductivity is
square. Now ratio of resistance across diagonal and (1) 1 : 2 (2) 4 : 1
across one side is
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 1
1 1
(1) (2)
4 16

4 3
(3) (4)
3 4

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 14/27-01-2021

45. For given conductor the drift speed of electrons at 50. For the reaction, A ® B, the rate of reaction is
cross section (1), (2) and (3) are v1, v2 and v3, then
quadrupled when the concentration of A is doubled;
3
1 the rate of the reaction is r = k [A]n; the value of n is:
2
(1) 1 (2) 0
(3) 3 (4) 2
51. The hypothetical reaction, A2 + B2 ® 2AB follows
the following mechanism:
(1) v1 = v2 = v3 (2) v1 < v2 < v3
(3) v2 > v1 > v3 (4) v2 > v3 > v1 A2 ƒ A + A
46. Which rate expression suggests an over all order of A + B2 ® AB + B (slow)
0.5 for the reaction involving substances X, Y, Z ? A + B ® AB (fast)
(1) Rate = K [X][Y][Z] The order of the overall reaction is :
(1) 0 (2) 1
(2) Rate = K [X] 0.5[Y]0.5[Z]0.5
(3) 2 (4) 3/2
(3) Rate = K[X]1.5[Y]–1[Z]0
(4) Rate = K[X]0[Y]0[Z]0
EN
47. The unit of rate constant for the reaction obeying
rate expression, r = K[A]1 [B]2/3 is :
52. For the reaction,

N2O5 ¾® 2NO2 +
1
O,
2 2

d[N 2 O5 ]
(1) mol–2/3 litre2/3 time–1 – = k1 [N 2 O 5 ]
dt
(2) mol–2/3 litre–2/3 time–1
d[NO2 ]
LL
(3) mol–5/3 litre5/3 time–1 = k 2 [N 2 O5 ]
dt
(4) None of the above
d[O2 ]
= k 3 [N 2 O5 ]
- d[A] dt
48. For a reaction (A + 3B ® P) Rate =
dt
2
The relation in between k1, k2 and k3 is:
= k[A] [B], the expression for the rate of reaction in
(1) 2k1 = k2 = 4k3
A

- d[B]
terms of change in the concentration of B, will (2) k1 = k2 = k3
dt
be:- (3) 2k1 = 4k2 = k3
(1) k[A]2[B] (2) k[A]2[3B] (4) None of these

(3) 3k[A]2[B] (4) (1/3)k[A]2[B] 53. Choose the reaction in which the rate of
49. Which graph shows zero activation energy :- disappearance of B is equal to half the rate of
formation of the product :-

1
E E (1) A + 2B + C ® D (2) A + B®C
(1) (2) 2

Reaction Reaction 1
(3) A + B ® C (4) A + B ® C
2

E E
(3) (4)

Reaction Reaction

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 14/27-01-2021

1 57. The experimental data for the reaction

54. For a reaction A ¾® 2B, rate of disappearance
2 2A + B2 ¾® 2AB is :
of 'A' is related to the rate of appearance of 'B' by
the expression:
Exp. [A] [B2] Rate (mol s–1)
d[A] 1 d[B]
(1) - = 1. 0.50 0.50 1.6 × 10–4
dt 2 dt
2. 0.50 1.00 3.2 × 10–4
d[A] 1 d[B] 3. 1.0 1.00 3.2 × 10–4
(2) - =
dt 4 dt
The rate equation for the above data is :-
d[A] d[B]
(3) - = (1) Rate = k[B2]2 (2) Rate = k[B2]
dt dt
(3) Rate = k[A]2[B 2]
2 (4) Rate = k[A]2[B2]
d[A] d[B]
(4) - =4 58. When concentration of reactant in reaction A®B is
dt dt
increased by 8 times the rate increase only 2 times,
55. In the reaction:
EN
BrO3– (aq) + 5Br– (aq) + 6H+ ® 3Br2 (l) + 3H2O(l)
the rate of appearance of Br 2 is related to the rate
of disappearance of bromide ions as follows:
the order of the reaction would be :-
(1) 2
(3) 4 (4) 1/2
(2) 1/3

59. The rate of a reaction is expressed in different ways

d[Br2 ] 5 d[Br - ]
(1) =- as follows :
dt 3 dt
1 d[C] 1 d[D] 1 d[A] d[B]
+ =– = + =–
LL
d[Br2 ] 5 d[Br - ] 2 dt 5 dt 3 dt dt
(2) =
dt 3 dt
The reaction is :-
d[Br2 ] 3 d[Br - ] (1) 4A + B ¾® 2C + 3D
(3) =
dt 5 dt (2) B + 5D ¾® 3A + 2C
(3) 4A + 2B ¾® 2C + 3D
d[Br2 ] 3 d[Br - ]
=-
A

(4) 1
dt 5 dt (4) B + D ¾® 4A + 2C
2
56. For the reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) ¾® 2NH3(g), under 60. The rate of chemical reaction A ® B become 100
certain conditions of temperature and pressure of times when the concentration of A is increased ten
the reactants, the rate of formation of ammonia is folds. The order of the reaction with respect to A is:-
0.001 kg h–1. The rate of consumption of hydrogen (1) 1 (2) 2
under the same conditions is ................. kg hr–1. (3) 10 (4) 100
(1) 10–3 (2) 0.15 × 10–2 61. SO2Cl2 ® SO2 + Cl2 is a first order gas reaction
(3) 0.277 × 10–3 (4) 0.177 × 10–3 with k = 2.3 × 10–5 sec–1 at 320°C. The percentage
of SO2Cl2 decomposed on heating for 170 minutes
is:-
(1) 1.118 (2) 0.2
(3) 18.11 (4) 20

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 14/27-01-2021

62. The activation energy of a reaction is 67. Collision theory is satisfactory for :-
58.3 kJ mol–1. The ratio of the rate constants at (1) Zero order reactions
305 K and 300 K is about (R = 8.3 JK–1mol–1): (2) Unimolecular reactions
(3) Fractional order reactions
(1) 100 (2) 1.50
(4) Bimolecular reactions
(3) 2.75 (4) 2.0
68. For a first order reaction unit of arrhenius constant
63. The rate constant of a reaction is given by 'A' is :-
k = 2.1 × 1010 exp (–2700 kT). It means that : (1) s–1 (2) mol L–1s–1
(1) log k vs 1/T will be a curved line with (3) mol L–1 (4) None
2700 69. In a first order reaction the concentration of the
slope = – reactant decreases from 800 mol/dm 3 to
2.303R
(2) log k vs 1/T will be a straight line with intercept 50 mol/dm3 in 2 × 104 sec. The rate constant of the
on log k axis = log 2.1 × 1010 reaction in s–1 is :-
(3) The number of effective collisions is 2.1 × 1010. (1) 2 × 104 (2) 3.45 × 10–5
EN
(4) Half-life of the reaction increases with increase
is temperature
64. The rate constant k varies with temperature by the
2000 k
(3) 1.386 × 10–4 (4) 2 × 10–2
70. Unit of K for the rate law r = K[A][B]0.5 are :-
(1) moll/2 L–1/2 s–1 (2) mol–1/2 L1/2 s–1
equation log k = 5 – from the above equation (3) mol–1/2 L–1/2 s–1 (4) mol1/2L1/2s–1
T
71. Velocity constant of a reaction at 290 K was found
we can conclude :
to be 3.2 × 10–3. At 300 K it will be :-
(1) Pre exponential factor A is 5
LL
(1) 1.28 × 10–2 (2) 9.6 × 10–3
(2) Ea is 9.212 kcal
(3) 6.4 × 10–3 (4) 3.2 × 10–4
(3) Both the above are correct 72. The rate of a chemical reaction depends upon :-
(4) None of the above is correct (1) Time (2) Pressure
65. In a reaction, the rate expression is, (3) Concentration (4) All of these
rate = K [A][B]2/3 [C]0, the order of reaction is : 1
73. If we plot a graph between log10k and by Arhenius
A

(1) 1 (2) 2 T
(3) 5/3 (4) Zero equation the slope is :-
66. Following mechanism has been proposed for a –E a Ea
reaction, (1) (2)
R R
2A + B ¾® D + E
A + B ¾® C + D …(Slow) –E a Ea
(3) (4)
2.303R 2.303R
A + C ¾® E …(Fast)
74. The rate constant for a zero order reaction is
The rate law expression for the reaction is : 2 × 10–2 mol L–1s–1. If the concentration of the
reacta nt a fter 25 sec. is 0. 5 M, the initial
(1) r = K [A]2[B] (2) r = K [A] [B] concentration must have been :-
(1) 0.5 M (2) 1.25 M
(3) r = K [A]2 (4) r = K [A] [C]
(3) 12.5 M (4) 1.0 M

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 14/27-01-2021

75. The order of a reaction and rate constant for a 80. If 'a' is the initial concentration of reactant, then the
chemical change having log t 50% v/s log[A] 0 half life period of a reaction of nth order is directly
curve as : proportional to -
(1) an (2) an–1
(3) a1–n (4) an+1
log t50%
81. For a first order reaction, it takes 10 minutes for the
45° completion of 90% of the reaction. The velocity
log[A]0 constant for the reaction will be :-
1 (1) 0.2303 (2) 2.303
(1) 0, (2) 1, 1
2 (3) 2.303 log 90 (4) 23.03
(3) 2, 2 (4) 0, 1 82. In the following gaseous phase first order-reaction
76. The reaction 2N2O5 ® 2N2O4 + O2 is :- A(g) ® 2B(g) + C(g) initial pressure was found to
(1) First order be 400 mm and it changed to 1000 mm after
(2) Zero order 20 minutes. Calculate rate constant -
(3) Second order (1) 0.1286 (2) 0.0693
(4) Pseudo first order EN
77. Which of the following statement is false :-
(1) A fast reaction has a large rate constant and short
half life
(3) 0.693 (4) 1.286

83. The activation energies of the forward and reverse

reactions in the case of a chemical reaction are 30.5
and 45.4 kJ/mol respectively. The reaction is :-
(2) For a first order reaction, successive half lives
(1) Exothermic
are equal
(2) Endothermic
(3) For a first order reaction, the half life is
LL
(3) Neither exothermic nor endothermic
independent of concentration
(4) None of these
(4) The half life of a reaction is half the time required
84. Temperature coefficient of a reaction is 3. When
for the reaction to go for completion
temperature is increased from 30°C to 100°C, rate
78. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
of the reaction increases by :
(1) Order of a reaction can be zero but molecularity
can not be zero (1) 128 Times (2) 2187 Times
A

(3) 250 Times (4) 500 Times

(2) Molecularity of a reaction can be more than three
but order can not be more than three 85. The rate of a certain hypothetical reaction
A + B + C ® Products is given by –
(3) Order can be fractional but molecularity can not
be fractional -d(A)
r = = K(A)1/2(B)1/3(C)1/4
(4) Molecularity can not be negative but order can dt
be negative The order of the reaction is :–

79. A first order reaction takes 1.26 × 1014 s for its 50% 13 13
(1) (2)
completion then how much time would it take for 11 14
100% completion ? 12 13
(1) 2.52 × 1014 S (3) (4)
13 12
(2) 1.26 × 1014 S
(3) 1.26 × 1028 S
(4) Infinite

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 14/27-01-2021

86. Certain exothermic reaction takes place in two steps 91. How many of following plants in given list have
X + Y ® Z [slow] albuminous seeds ?
Z ® P [fast] Pea, Wheat, Maize, Groundnut, Beans, Barley,
The energy level diagram corresponding to the Castor, Orchid, Coconut
reaction is :- (1) Four (2) Six
(3) Five (4) Three
92. On the basis of pollination which of the following
Energy ®

Energy ®
x+y x+y
Z belong to same group ?
(1) P (2) P
(1) Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Zostera
®Reaction path ®Reaction path
(2) Viola, Vallisneria, Hydrilla
(3) Oxalis, Commelina, Zostera
(4) Water hyacinth, Water lily, Water ferns
93. Apomixis is useful in plant breeding because it :
Energy ®

x+y Z (1) Causes stable variation

(3) (4) All are correct

®Reaction path
P

87. For a second order reaction rate is equal to

3 × 10 –5 M per second at the initial
EN (2) Prevents segregation of characters in hybrid
progeny
(3) Promotes polyploidy
(4) Helps in production of pureline progeny by
concentration of 0.2 M. The rate constant k sexual reproduction.
would be :-
94. In angiospermic plants perisperm is derived from :-
(1) 1.5 × 10 –4 (2) 7.5 × 10–4
(1) Endosperm
LL
(3) 7.5 × 10 –3 (4) 1.5 × 10–3
(2) Sporogenous tissue
88. Dissociation of ammonia was studied at tungston
filament. During study following data were obtained. (3) Nucellus
P(mm) 50 100 (4) Tapetum
t0.5 (s) 3.62 1.82 95. Generally synergids are (in diploid plants)
Order of reaction is :- (1) Tetraploid (2) Triploid
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) Diploid (4) Haploid
A

(3) 3 (4) 0 96. How many plants in the list given below are
89. If the initial concentration is doubled t0.5 becomes Entomophilous ?
1/4 then the order of the reaction is :- Grass, Maize, Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Yucca, Pinus,
(1) 0 (2) 1 Coconut.
(3) 3 (4) 2 (1) One (2) Two
90. The order of the reaction (2A + B ® Product) is (3) Three (4) Four
two with respect to A and zero with respect to B. If
97. If the pollen grains of a flower falls on the stigma
the conc. of each species is increased four times,
of another flower of the same plant, then it is :-
then rate becomes :-
(1) Self Pollination
(1) 64 times (2) 16 times (2) Geitonogamy
(3) 256 times (4) 4 times (3) Xenogamy
(4) Both (2) and (3)

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 14/27-01-2021

98. The equivalent of microsporangium in angiosperms 102. Plants with ovaries having only one ovule are
is:- generally pollinated by :
(1) Pollen sac (2) Nucellus (1) Birds (2) Wind
(3) Antheridia (4) Pollen grains (3) Bees (4) Butterflies
99. In rice and wheat, viability of pollen grain is:- 103. Hairy and sticky stigma is found in :–
(1) 30 minutes (2) 30 months (1) Entomophilous flowers
(3) 1 month (4) 6 months (2) Hydrophilous flowers
100. In maize seed, the cotyledon is called :- (3) Ornithophilous flowers
(4) Anemophilous flowers
(1) Coleorrhiza (2) Pericarp
104. Match the following ovular structure with post
(3) Scutellum (4) Epiblast
fertillization structure and select the correct
101. Given below is the diagrammatic view of three alternative :
dimensional cut section of an anther. Identify the A. Ovule 1. Endosperm
parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the right
B. Funiculus 2. Aril
option about them.

B
A
EN C. Nucellus
D. Polar nuclei
Codes
A B
3. Seed
4. Perisperm

C D
(1) 2 3 4 1
C (2) 2 3 1 4
(3) 3 2 4 1
LL
(4) 3 2 1 4
105. Wind pollination is common in : ?
(1) Legumes (2) Lilies
D (3) Grasses (4) Orchids
106. Hypocotyl is :-
A

(1) Portion of embryonal axis below the level of

cotyledons
Options : (2) Portion of embryonal axis above the level of
cotyledons
Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D (3) Part of radicle
(4) Part of embryosac
Pollen Pollen Filament Line of
(1) 107. Formation of sporophyte from gametophyte without
sacs grains (Stalk) dehiscence
fertilization is called :-
Pollen Pollen Line of Filament (1) Apogamy (2) Apospory
(2)
grains sacs dehiscence (Stalk)
(3) Adventive embryony (4) All of the above
Pollen Pollen Filament Line of
(3) 108. Pollen grains are able to tolerate extremes of
grains sacs (Stalk) dehiscence
temperature and desiccation as its exine is made of
Pollen Line of Pollen Filament (1) Sporopollenin (2) Suberin
(4)
sacs dehiscence grains (Stalk)
(3) Cutin (4) Callose

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 14/27-01-2021

109. A diploid female plant is crossed with tetraploid 112. In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into
male. The ploidy of endosperm will be (1) Endosperm (2) Pollen sac
(1) Tetraploidy (2) Triploidy (3) Embryo sac (4) Ovule
(3) Pentaploidy (4) Diploidy 113. In the diagram given, parts labelled as 'A', 'B', 'C',
110. In a type of apomixis called adventive embryony 'D', 'E' and 'F' are respectively identified as :
embryos develop directly from
(1) Nucellus or integument
(2) Zygote
(3) Synergids or antipodals of embryo sac
(4) Polar nuclei
111. Given below is the diagrammatic view of a typical
dicot embryo. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and
D and select the right option about them :-

[A]
EN Sl.
no

(2)
A

(1) Synergids

Polar
nuclei
B
polar
nuclei
egg
C
central
cell
D

antipodals
E
filiform
apparatus
antipodals Synergids antipodals

central filiform
F

egg

filiform
apparatus
polar
(3) Egg Synergids antipodals
[B] cell apparatus nuclei
Central polar filiform
(4) antipodals Synergids egg
cell nuclei apparatus
LL
114. In general, pollen tube enters the ovule through :

[C] (1) Micropyle (2) Chalaza

[D] (3) Hilum (4) Funicle
115. Apomixis is common in :-
(1) Asteraceae and grasses
Options :- (2) Solanaceae & Liliaceae
A

Part- [A] Part- [B] Part- [C] Part- [D] (3) All gymnospermic plants
(4) All of the above

(1) Radicle Plumule Cotyledons Root cap 116. Pollen grain remains normally viable for months in
family :-
(1) Leguminosae, Rosaceae and solanaceae
(2) Plumule Cotyledons Root cap Radicle
(2) Leguminosae, cucurbitaceae and
Solanaceae
(3) Plumule Cotyledons Radicle Root cap
(3) Leguminosae, Malvaceae and Liliaceae
(4) Compositae, Graminae
(4) Radicle Cotyledons Plumule Root cap 117. Which of the following flowers produce assured
seed set even in absence of pollinators ?
(1) Chasmogamous flowers
(2) Cleistogamous flowers
(3) Unisexual flowers
(4) Bisexual

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 14/27-01-2021

118. Helobial endosperm is restricted usually to 122. Flowers are unisexual in

(1) Gymnosperm (1) Onion (2) Pea
(2) Dicotyledons
(3) Cucumber (4) China rose
(3) Order helobiales
123. In the diagram given below synergid, male gametes,
(4) Both (2) and (3) polar nuclei and filiform apparatus are respectively:-
119. At which temperature germination of seed C
cannot be possible in most of the plants
(1) 10° C - 15° C
(2) 5°C - 10°C D
(3) Below 0°C
E
(4) 20°C - 25°C
B
120. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo
sac in the dicot plants is A
(1) 2 + 3 + 3
(3) 2 + 4 + 2
EN
(2) 3 + 2 + 3
(4) 3 + 3 + 2
121. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a ripen
carpel of flowering plant. Identify the parts labelled
(1) D, A, B, C
(3) D, E, C, B
(2) D, A, C, B
(4) C, A, E, B
A, B, C and D and select the right option about 124. In given diagram the point A and B represents
them:- respectively:-
LL
A

B
A

C
D
B

Sl no A B C D
secondary
(1) Pollen tube integument egg cell
nucleus
secondary
(2) Pollen tube nucellus egg cell (1) Epiblast, scutellum
nucleus
secondary (2) Coleorhiza, epiblast
(3) Pollen tube nucellus synergid
nucleus (3) Coleoptile, coleorhiza
polar (4) Scutellum, epiblast
(4) Pollen tube integument egg cell
nucleus

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 14/27-01-2021

125. Which condition is shown in below diagram? 127. A diagrammatic view of a typical anatropous ovule
is given below. In which of the following all five parts
labelled as A, B, C, D and E are corectly identified

A B C D E

(1) Funicle Micropyle Female Embryo

Chalaza
gametophyte sac
EN (2)

(3)
Raphe Micropyle

Placenta Micropyle
Egg

Egg
Embryo
sac
Embryo
sac
Chalaza

Chalaza

(4) Embryo
(1) Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil of Papaver Funicle Micropyle Nucellus Chalaza
sac
(2) Multicarpellary, apocarpous pistil of Michelia
LL
(3) Multicarpellary, apocarpous pistil of Papaver 128. Contrivance for self-pollination / autogamy is
(4) Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil of Michelia (1) Herkogamoy (2) Unisexuality
126. The below diagram shows some stages in (3) Cleistogamy (4) Both (1) and (3)
microgametogenesis. Identify A, B and C- 129. The given figure shows the plant of Commelina with
two types of flowers (F 1 and F2). The flowers are
A

A B C

(1) Symmetric spindle Generative cell Vegetative cell

(2) Symmetric spindle Vegetative cell Generative cell

(3) Asymmetric spindle Vegetative cell Generative cell

F1 F2
(4) Asymmetric spindle Generative cell Vegetative cell
(1) Cleistogamous Cleistogamous
(2) Cleistogamous Chasmogamous
(3) Chasmogamous Cleistogamous
(4) Chasmogamous Chasmogamous

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 14/27-01-2021

130. Female plant is diploid and male plant is tetraploid. 136. Bartholin glands of females are homologous to
Find out the correct match. _________ glands in males

Endo Inte Aleurone (1) Prostate (2) Cowpers

Embryo Egg Pollen
sperm gument layer (3) Seminal vesicles (4) Testes
(1) 3n 4n 2n n 2n 4n 137. The process of transformation of a Spermatid to a
(2) 2n 6n 2n 4n 4n 2n Spermatozoan is called
(3) 2n 3n 2n 4n n 3n
(1) Spermatogenesis (2) Spermatocytogenesis
(4) 3n 4n 3n n 2n n
(3) Spermateleosis (4) Semenification
131. Go through the following diagram.
138. Testosterone is secreted by
(1) Leydig cells (2) Sertoli cells
(3) Rete testis (4) Vasa efferentia
139. A fall in Sperm count to less than 20 million / ml
is referred to as
X is (1) Azoospermia (2) Oligospermia
(1) Cellular endosperm
(2) Nuclear endosperm
(3) Helobial endosperm
(4) Ruminate endosperm
EN (3) Cryptorchidism

(1) Lactose
(3) Galactose
(4) Enuchism
140. Monosaccharide present in the Semen is
(2) Glucose
(4) Fructose
132. Diagram given below shows stages in
embryogenesis in a typical dicot (Capsella), Identify 141. Pregnancy hormone among these is
structures A to D respectively- (1) Oestrogen (2) FSH
LL
(3) LH (4) Progesterone
142. Number of ova produced by one primary oocyte is
(1) 4 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 8
143. The structure which is generally referred as Womb
is
A

(1) Vagina (2) Fallopian tubes

(1) Suspensor, Radicle. Plumule, Cotyledons
(3) Uterus (4) Vulva
(2) Hypophysis, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons
144. Identify the correct sequence showing the passage
(3) Suspensor, Plumule, Radicle, Cotyledons
of Spermatozoa
(4) Suspensor, Radicule, Plumule, Hypocotyls
(1) Epididymis ® Ejaculatory duct ®
133. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attach to
the Vasdeferens ® Urethra
(1) Anther (2) Connective (2) Ejaculatory duct ® Epididymis
(3) Placenta (4) Thalamus or petal ® Vasdeferens ® Urethra
134. Plants which produce characteristic (3) Epididymis ® Vasdeferens ®
pneumatophores and vivipary belong to
Ejaculatory duct ® Urethra
(1) Halophytes (2) Psammophytes
(4) Vasdeferens ® Epididymis ® Urethra
(3) Hydrophytes (4) Mesophytes
135. Find the haploid structure from the following :- ® Ejaculatory duct
(1) Embryo (2) Spore 145. The following is released during ovulation
(3) Nucellus (4) Zygote (1) Primary oogonia (2) Primary oocyte
(3) Secondary oocyte (4) First polar body

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 14/27-01-2021

146. The inner wall of Seminiferous tubules are lined by 154. The significance of formation of polar bodies during
(1) Ciliated epithelium oogenesis is
(2) Squamous epithelium (1) To receive half of the cytoplasm from its
mother
(3) Transitional epithelium
(2) To activate the Sperms during fertilization
(4) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) To get rid of unwanted chromosomes
147. Before birth the testes descend into the Scrotal sac
from abdominal cavity passing through (4) To contribute major portion of yolk to ootid
(1) Bidder’s canal (2) Inguinal canal 155. A woman is most likely to get pregnant
__________
(3) Eustachian canal (4) Ingluvial canal
(1) During menses
148. The narrow middle part of epididymis is
(2) Before menarch
(1) Caput epididymis (2) Cauda epididymis
(3) After menopause
(3) Corpus epididymis (4) Rete testis
(4) On day 14th of the menstrual cycle
149. How many statements about egg cell is / are
correct 156. The gland secreting citric acid is
EN
(i) Antifertilizin is present on the surface of egg
(ii) Human egg is an example of cleidoic egg
(iii) Human egg is a type of alecithal egg
(iv) Lecithin is the most abundant phospholipid in
(1) Seminal vesicle
(3) Bulbo urethral gland
(2) Prostate glands
(4) Perineal gland
157. The Zone of ovary containing number of ova at
various stages of development is
egg
(v) The amount of mannose found in human egg is (1) Medulla (2) Germinal epithelium
more than lecithin (3) Tunica albuginea (4) Cortex
LL
(1) One (2) Two 158. During menstrual phase
(3) Three (4) Four (1) Oestrogen and Progesterone levels decrease
150. If the ovum is not fertilized then the ruptured
(2) Oestrogen levels decrease and Progesterone
follicle turns into
increase
(1) Tunica vasculosa (2) Corpus cavernosum
(3) Oestrogen levels increase and Progesterone
(3) Corpus luteum (4) Tunica albuginea decrease
A

151. The antrum first appears in the (4) Oestrogen and Progesterone levels increase
(1) Primary follicle (2) Primordial follicle 159. Sertoli cells secretes
(3) Secondary follicle (4) Graffien follicle (1) Androgen binding protein
152. Among the following, identify those which are (2) Inhibin
diploid (3) Antimullerian hormone
I. Spermatogonia (4) All the above
II. Spermatid 160. Arrange the phases of menstrual cycle in correct
order
III. Primary spermatocyte
A. Proliferative B. Menstrual
IV. Secondary spermatocyte
C. Ovulatory D. Secretory
V. Sertoli cells
(1) BACD (2) ABCD
(1) II and IV (2) I, III, V
(3) BADC (4) ADBC
(3) II, V (4) All the above
161. The following hormone does not have any impact
153. The highly vascularised layer formed inside the
on Ovarian cycles
uterus is
(1) Progesterone (2) LH
(1) Myometrium (2) Endometrium
(3) FSH (4) Prolactin
(3) Endothelium (4) Mesothelium

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162. After copulation which hormone promotes the 170. In a secondary oocyte, meiosis-II gets complete
peristalsis in the uterus and which organ synthesize _____
this hormone (1) Before ovulation
(1) Progesterone and corpus luteum
(2) After coming in contact with Sperm
(2) Oxytocin and anterior pituitary
(3) Before menarche
(3) Oxytocin and hypothalamus
(4) Oxytocin and posterior pituitary (4) In Proliferative phase
163. The milk produced during the initial few days of 171. LH and FSH are produced by
lactation is called (1) Hypothalamus (2) Anterior pituitary
(1) Pro milk (2) Lactolin (3) Posterior pituitary (4) Adrenal glands
(3) Colostrum (4) Cholesterol 172. The acrosome of sperm contains
164. In the later stages of pregnancy, progesterone is (1) DNA (2) Fructose
produced by (3) Mitochondria (4) Hydrolytic enzymes
(1) Foetus (2) Corpus luteum 173. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and
(3) Endometrium

cut
(1) Sperms are non nucleate
(2) Spermatogensis does not occur
EN
(4) Placenta
165. What would happen if vasa deferentia of man are
urinary system in the human male is
(1) Urethra
(3) Vas deferens
(2) Ureter
(4) Vasa efferentia
174. Cleidoic egg is an adaptation for
(1) Aquatic life (2) Marine life
(3) Semen is without sperms (3) Terrestrial life (4) Aerial life
(4) Sperms are not motile 175. The embryo with 8-16 blastomeres is called
LL
166. Induced or reflex ovulation is seen in (1) Morula (2) Blastula
(1) Apes (2) Human (3) Gastrula (4) Foetus
(3) Monkey (4) Rabbit 176. Which of the hormone is produced in a woman
167. Birth canal refers to only during pregnancy?
(1) Cervical canal of uterus (1) HCG (2) HPL
(2) Vagina (3) Relaxin (4) All of these
A

(3) Both (1) & (2) 177. The Acrosome of sperm cell is formed by
(4) Placenta (1) Mitochondria (2) Ribosomes
168. During delivery of the baby strong contractions of (3) Lysosomes (4) Golgi body
the uterus are caused in this layer 178. Site of fertilization in mammal is
(1) Myometrium (2) Perimetrium (1) Ovary (2) Uterus
(3) Endometrium (4) Peritreme (3) Fallopian tube (4) Vagina
169. Find the correct match regarding human foetal 179. Human egg has
development
(1) One Y-chromosome
Month of Pregnancy Event occuring
(1) End of 4th month Eyelashes appear (2) One X-chromosome
(2) End of 3rd month Movements of foetus (3) Two Y-chromosome
(3) End of 5th month Hair on head (4) One X-chromosome and One Y-chromosome
(4) End of 2nd month Organ system develop 180. Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian egg is
covered by a membrane called
(1) Chorion (2) Corona radiata
(3) Zona pellucida (4) (2) and (3)

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