GIÁO TRÌNH TIẾNG ANH B1 - UCL

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MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND TRAINING

UNIVERSITY OF CUU LONG
TEXTBOOK
FOR B1 ENGLISH INTENSIVE COURSE
Compiled by
Dr. Nguyen Hong Chi
MA. Huynh Thi Thao Nguyen
MA. Pham Thi Tuyet Ngan
FOR INTERNAL USE ONLY
Since 2022
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CONTENTS
INTRODUCTION .................................................................................................................................. 3
SECTION A ........................................................................................................................................... 4
LEARNING SKILLS ............................................................................................................................. 4
PAPER 1 ...................................................................................................................................... 5
LISTENING SKILLS .................................................................................................................. 5
PAPER 2 .................................................................................................................................... 13
READING SKILLS ................................................................................................................... 13
PAPER 3 .................................................................................................................................... 20
WRITING SKILLS .................................................................................................................... 20
PAPER 4 .................................................................................................................................... 30
SPEAKING SKILLS ................................................................................................................. 30
SECTION B ......................................................................................................................................... 38
PRACTICE TESTS .............................................................................................................................. 38
TEST 1 ................................................................................................................................................. 39
PAPER 1: LISTENING ............................................................................................................. 39
PAPER 2: READING ................................................................................................................ 46
PAPER 3: WRITING ................................................................................................................. 55
PAPER 4: SPEAKING .............................................................................................................. 56
TEST 2 ................................................................................................................................................. 57
PAPER 1: LISTENING ............................................................................................................. 57
PAPER 2: READING ................................................................................................................ 64
PAPER 3: WRITING ................................................................................................................. 73
PAPER 4: SPEAKING .............................................................................................................. 74
TEST 3 ................................................................................................................................................. 75
PAPER 1: LISTENING ............................................................................................................. 75
PAPER 2: READING ................................................................................................................ 82
PAPER 3: WRITING ................................................................................................................. 91
PAPER 4: SPEAKING .............................................................................................................. 92
TEST 4 ................................................................................................................................................. 93
PAPER 1: LISTENING ............................................................................................................. 93
PAPER 2: READING .............................................................................................................. 100
PAPER 3: WRITING ............................................................................................................... 108
PAPER 4: SPEAKING ............................................................................................................ 109
TEST 5 ............................................................................................................................................... 110
PAPER 1: LISTENING ........................................................................................................... 110
PAPER 2: READING .............................................................................................................. 117
PAPER 3: WRITING ............................................................................................................... 127
PAPER 4: SPEAKING ............................................................................................................ 128
REFERENCES ................................................................................................................................... 129
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INTRODUCTION
TEXTBOOK FOR B1 ENGLISH INTENSIVE COURSE is designed to help
prepare knowledge for those who will participate in the internal B1 English course for
a post-graduate entrance exam, which is required by Master training regulations of the
Ministry of Education and Training. Textbook for B1 English intensive course provides
learners with formats, vocabularies, languages, and structures commonly found on the
VSTEP exam (Vietnamese Standardized Test of English Proficiency which is mainly
used to assess the English language proficiency of Vietnamese learners). Textbook for
B1 English intensive course also includes repeated practice through 5 sample test
collections that mirror the content of the VSTEP test for B1 level.
Textbook for B1 English intensive course is designed into 4 main parts.
• Introduction: provides learners with the introduction and the use of the
textbook.
• Language skills: includes 4 parts corresponding with listening, reading, writing,
and speaking skills. For each part of the skills, learners would go through and get
familiar with the commonly used question types, useful languages, and tips for
the B1 test. Accompanied by the tips, there would be several practice exercises
afterward truly formatted which possibly grants learners chances of tightening
their skills. These practice exercises familiarize students with the kinds of tasks
they will encounter on both full-length practice tests and actual tests.
• Practice tests: includes 4 full-length practice tests. Thes test gives learners a
better feel for what will be expected of them in actual test situations. Each full-
length practice test is orderly organized with 35 listening questions, 40 reading
questions, 2 writing tasks, and 3 speaking sections.
• References: grants learners a list of related sources of information about learning
B1 English.
It is recommended that learners getting through all parts of this textbook before taking
the practice tests. After working through the book within all 4 learning skills, learners
will be better prepared for a timed, full-length test simulation.
To get the most benefit from the practice test, learners are advised to take the test under
exam conditions which include following the time limits set for the actual test.
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SECTION A
LEARNING SKILLS
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PAPER 1
LISTENING SKILLS
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LISTENING
I. INTRODUCTION
The LISTENING PAPER contains 3 main parts with a total of 35 questions, within 40
minutes.
8 questions
PART 1
8 short announcement/ instructions
12 questions 4 options/question
PART 2
3 conversations Only 1 time listening
15 questions
PART 3
3 talks/lectures
1. TOPICS OF CONVERSATIONS
TOPICS KEYWORDS
Store: shop, retailer, boutique, outlet, department store
Shopping Clerk: salesperson, sales rep
Shopper: buyer, consumer, customer
The restaurant: cafe, coffee shop, cafeteria, deli, bistro
Dining out Eat: have, consume, snack on, dine
Meal: breakfast, lunch, dinner, supper, snack, a bite to eat
Job: employment, position, work
Work
Employer: boss, supervisor, manager, CEO, department head
Trip: journey, vacation, excursion, tour
Travel: go, visit, see, tour
Traveling
Arrive: get to, land, disembark
Leave: depart, take off, board
Healthy: well, fit
Sick: ill, unwell, not well
Health
Sickness: illness, disease
Medicine: pills, drugs, prescription, medication
Clothes: clothing, garment, attire, dress, outfit
Clothes
Wear: have on, be dressed in
Concert: recital, musical performance
Music
Musician: performer, instrumentalist, accompanist
2. TYPES OF TALKS
TYPES SAMPLE PHRASES
Announcements Flight 10 will be leaving in fifteen minutes.
Welcome to the fifth annual Business about Professionals
Speeches
Conference.
Tours Welcome to the City Museum of Art.
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Advertisements We are pleased to announce a storewide sale.
Reports This is your morning weather update.
Introductions Our speaker today is an expert in international economics.
Voicemails Press “one” to hear our hours.
Instructions/ lectures These tips will help you achieve your goals.
3. VOCABULARY CUES
Shipment, inventory, stack, delivery, package, load, unload,
Warehouse
invoice, drop off, stocker, supervisor, loader, driver
Department, accounting payroll, sales, budget, paycheck,
Office raise, bonus, interview, hire, fire, project, manager, co-worker,
employee, boss, applicant, interviewer, CEO, accountant
Car accident, crime, victim, stolen, lost, arrest, crash, detain,
Police station
cell, police officer
Check-in, baggage, luggage, boarding pass, seat assignment,
Airport baggage, claim, board, depart, pilot, ticket agent, passenger,
flight attendant
Front desk, room service, room key, check-in, check out, desk
Hotel
clerk, guest, visitor, tourist
Ticket, seats, sold out, refreshments, play, opera, performance,
Theater
attendant
Package, ship, send, mail, stamp, by air, overnight, mail
Post office
carrier, postal worker
Menu, order, appetizer, beverage, party, reservation, dish, bill,
Restaurant
check, table, waiter, server, host, hostess, chef
II. POSSIBLE TYPES OF QUESTIONS
1. Type 1: Topic/Main ideas
• Common questions
- What is this report about?
- What is this announcement about?
- What are people talking/speaking about?
• Tips
- Pay attention to the beginning of the talk
- Learn to recognize synonyms
- Learn keywords that may give clues to topics and main ideas
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• Practice exercise
Listen to the announcement and choose the best answer for the question below.
You will hear:
Woman: The annual City Festival of Music will take place next weekend at the
National Theater. The doors open on Sunday morning at 9:00 a.m. and there will be
musical performances by local and national orchestras and bands all day until eight in
the evening. This one-day-only event is a unique opportunity to hear performances by
some of the country’s top musicians. Don’t miss it. Tickets are on sale at the National
Theater box office. Order your ticket today.
1. What is this announcement about?
A. A school party
B. A musical
C. A music school
D. A day of concerts
(Track 4-04, Skills for the TOEC Test: Listening and Reading)
2. Type 2: Details
2.1. Suggestions, Advice, Requests, Instructions
- What does the speaker suggest people do?
- What is the speaker asking people to get?
- What is the first step in the process?
• Tips
- Recognize words/expressions used for suggestions, advice, instructions, or requests:
+ Imperative verbs: Please
=> “Please line up at the gate”
+ Modals: should and must
=> “You should pay for your ticket ahead of time”
+ Certain expressions: you’d better, it’s better, it’s a good idea
=> “You’d better drive carefully”
+ Certain verbs: suggest, recommend, advice, want, tell, ask, request.
=> “I advise us not to tell this to our teacher”
You will hear:
Woman: Don’t know what to get your loved one for Valentine’s Day? Then we have
the answer for you! Stop by Norby’s department store’s annual jewelry sale! Today
we’re featuring any number of great deals on necklaces, earrings, and even diamond
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rings. They make great gifts that let your loved one know just how you feel. Norby’s
department store - gift solutions for people who really care.
2. What does the speaker NOT suggest people do?
A. Buy their loved ones a gift
B. Go shopping at Norby’s department store
C. Feature great deals
D. Show people they care
2.2. Duration, Frequency, Quantity, Time
- How long will the road be closed?
- How often do the trains leave?
- How many tickets are available?
- When is the office open?
• Tips
- Learn to distinguish between similar-sounding numbers and words.
- Commonly confused numbers and time words: seven / eleven, sixteen / sixty,
Tuesday / today / two days, Sunday / Monday.
You will hear:
Man: For all passengers traveling on the 10:14 train to Cambridge, the train has been
delayed 15 minutes due to engine problems. Repeat, the 10:14 train to Cambridge has
been delayed 15 minutes and will now be departing at 10:29 a.m. Please adjust your
travel plans accordingly.
3. How late is the train?
A. 10 minutes
B. 14 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 50 minutes
2.3. Plans, Problems, Requests
- What will the man do tomorrow?
- What won’t the woman be able to do?
- What are the speakers going to do next?
- What is the man’s problem?
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- What is the man asking the company to change?
- What does the woman ask the man to do?
- What does the man suggest the woman do?
• Tips
- Learn to recognize common expressions and paraphrase for plans, problems,
requests, or suggestions:
+ Request: Would you please…? Would it be possible for you to...?
+ Suggestions: Why don’t you...? Maybe we can...
+ Problems: The X has broken again. I can’t find my…
+ Plans: I need to… I’m going to…
- Watch for the correct speaker in the answer options.
You will hear:
Woman: Hi. I just saw a movie here. But when I got to my car. I realized I didn’t
have my keys.
Man: I’m sorry. Do you think they fell out during the movie?
Woman: Maybe. But I also bought candy. So they could have fallen out when I
pulled my wallet out of my purse.
Man: OK. If you still have your ticket. I can let you in to search the theater. I’ll
check at the refreshment stand.
4. What problem does the woman have?
A. She lost her wallet
B. She needs a ticket
C. She misplaced her keys
D. She can’t find her car
2.4. Causes and Effects
- Why does the man ask to leave the office?
- Why is the woman going to Chicago?
- Why was it necessary to increase the budget?
• Tips
- Look for infinitives to + Vo. to recognize cause and effect questions.
- Listen for words and expressions about causes and effects.
+ Causes: as a result of, were going to, isn’t going well, because, in order to, since …
+ Effects: we need to, we will, we have to, for this reason, will happen, so we have to…
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You will hear:
Woman: Mr. Anderson. Is it OK if I get out of the office a little earlier than usual?
Man: Well. I’m expecting a few important phone calls. And the documents for the
Howard presentation aren’t prepared. Is it an emergency?
Woman: No. It’s not like that. I just have to go to my optometrist because my glasses
need to be adjusted.
Man: I see. I guess it’s all right. But make sure those documents are prepared
tomorrow morning. I don’t want us making copies just before Mr. Howard arrives.
5. Why does the woman ask to leave?
A. To visit an eye doctor
B. To place a phone call
C. To make copies
D. To pick up a client
2.5. People and places
- Where did the man lose his phone?
- Who suggested the budget change?
- Where will the party be held?
- Who will call the supplier?
• Tips
- Identify the event or action in the question.
- Learn to identify conversational distracters about other people, groups, and places.
You will hear:
Woman: You’ve reached the office of Harold Crane. How can I help you?
Man: Hi. Joe Hewett speaking. I’m down in the warehouse and I have to check with
Mr. Crane on an order.
Woman: He’s actually on his way to corporate headquarters downtown. Can I take
a message?
Man: Sure. We’ve got a delivery for State Hospital. But it doesn’t say which
department to send it to.
6. Where is Mr. Crane going?
A. To his office
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B. To the warehouse
C. To the city
D. To the hospital
3. Type 3: Inference
- Who most likely is the man?
- Who are the speakers?
- Where most likely are the speakers?
- Where does this conversation probably take place?
• Tips
- Pay attention to details given about location or speakers
- Read the question and answer options to predict keywords to listen for
You will hear:
Woman: Hello. I’m here to see Principal Henderson.
Man: Do you have an appointment?
Woman: Yes. I’m Amy Reynolds. I’m her 3:00 interview for the chemistry teacher
position.
Man: OK. Please take a seat. Ms. Henderson is meeting with the library staff. She’ll
be out shortly.
7. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In a school
B. In a factory
C. In a library
D. In a doctor’s office
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PAPER 2
READING SKILLS
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READING
I. INTRODUCTION
The READING PAPER contains 4 passages with a total of 40 questions. The
passages are approximately 400-500 words long. The skills generally tested include:
• Skimming for the main idea
• Scanning for details
• Understanding meaning from context
• Drawing inferences/conclusion
• Understanding the author’s purposes/ opinions
In general, there are around 7 types of questions commonly asked in the multiple-
choice format.
1. Type 1: Main ideas
- What is the main idea of the passage?
- What is the main topic of the passage?
- Which of the following best summarizes the author’s main idea?
- What does the passage mainly discuss?
- The passage is primarily about...
• Tips
- Compare the topic sentences of the introduction with the conclusion: If they are talking
about the same subject, then it is probably related to the main idea of the passage.
- Topic sentence comparison: Each body paragraph usually includes an opening
sentence to show the topic for that section. Taking the topic sentences of all paragraphs
together will give you a summary of the passage.
- Transition markers: Sometimes the transition words can change the focus or direction
of a passage. It is often the case that the main idea of a passage will not be revealed until
later.
Read the text and choose the best answer for the question below.
Cosmetics have been used throughout history. The ancient Greeks, the Egyptians, and
the Romans all used various kinds of makeup. Some of these cosmetics were used to
improve one’s appearance. Others were used to protect one’s skin. However, in some
cases, things used for makeup were dangerous or even deadly.
Skincare treatments including perfumes, lotions, and cosmetic masks were used in
ancient Egypt by rich and poor alike. Egyptians also developed some of the earliest
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sunscreens. They used oils and creams for protection against the sun and dry winds.
Egyptians, as well as other ancient cultures, used various powders on their skin for
beauty as well. Egyptians used black kohl around their eyes. Romans put white chalk
on their faces. And Indians painted red henna on their bodies. Most of the ancient
cosmetics were harmless.
1. What is the main idea of this reading?
A. The ancient Egyptians used a lot of makeup
B. People have always used makeup
C. Some cosmetics in the past were dangerous
D. Indian women had the best makeup
(In the Name of Beauty, Reading Challenge 2)
2. Type 2: Factual information

- According to the passage..., when/ where/ why/ how does…happen?
- According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of...?
- In paragraph 4, what does the author say about…?
- Which of the following statements is supported by paragraph 2?
• Tips
- Read the question first focusing on the keywords (nouns, verbs, adjectives).
- Scan the passage quickly to locate the keywords.
- Pay attention to sentences before and after the keywords.
- Read 4 options and select the one which has the same meaning. Paraphrasing helps
you understand full meaning of original text and eventually find the correct choice.
However, in the name of beauty, some people applied dangerous chemicals and
poisons to their skin. During the Italian Renaissance, women wore white powder made
of lead on their faces. Of course, doctors today know lead is like a poison for our
bodies. Also around the time of the Renaissance, women in Italy put drops of
belladonna in their eyes. These belladonna drops were made from a plant whose
poison affects the nerves in the body. By putting belladonna drops in her eyes, a
woman’s pupils would become very large. People thought this made women more
beautiful. Actually, this is where the plant’s name comes from. In Italian, belladonna
means “beautiful woman.”
2. Where did Italian women apply lead powder?
A. In their hair
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B. On their hands
C. On their faces
D. Under their arms
(In the Name of Beauty, Reading Challenge 2)
3. Type 3: Negative factual information

- According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
- Which of the following is NOT mentioned as...?
- All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT...
- The author’s description of ...mentions all of the following EXCEPT...
• Tips
- Read the question first focusing on the keywords (nouns, verbs, adjectives).
- Scan the passage quickly to locate the keywords.
- Pay attention to sentences before and after the keywords.
- Read the four options and eliminate the ones which are stated in the passage. The rest
will be the correct choice.
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child out. In Korea, for
example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up the roof of a house. According
to tradition, a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with
a new tooth for the child. In other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam,
children follow a similar tradition of throwing lost teeth onto the roofs of houses.
Birds aren’t the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition
says a mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia,
instead of mice, dogs are responsible for taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected
in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian angels of the people. Tradition says
that the new tooth will grow in good and strong if the baby tooth is fed to a guardian
angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child’s lost tooth in the fat of a
piece of meat and feed it to a dog. The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is
also a tradition in the West. Many children in Western countries count on the Tooth
Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth. The exact origins of the
Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England or Ireland
centuries ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow
before going to bed. In the wee hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy
takes the tooth and leaves something else under the pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy
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leaves a small gift or candy. In the United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually
leaves money. These days, the rate is $1 to $5 per tooth.
3. What is NOT traditionally put under a pillow in exchange for a tooth?
A. A new tooth
B. Money
C. A gift
D. Candy
(Who took that tooth, Reading Challenge 2)
4. Type 4: Inference
- Which of the following can be inferred about...?
- According to paragraph 5, what can be inferred about...?
- It can be inferred in paragraph 3 that...
- What does the author imply about...?
• Tips
- Take good notes: Knowing the main points of the passage will help you recognize
which answers are incorrect.
- Restate the answer: Changing the suggested answers to simpler forms will help you
identify important words that you should be searching for.
- Paraphrase: As you look for inference, it is unlikely that you will see the same words
from the passage in your answer.
- Eliminate: Each answer choice should be compared with the main idea of the passage.
You should look closely at the keywords, synonyms, and meanings of the sentences to
eliminate the ones which are beyond the content of the passage.
In ancient Egypt, beer was consumed not only by adults but also by children. Every
household made beer. The ancient Egyptian way of making beer was the same as the
one used in Sudan today: barley or wheat were left out in the sun. The idea of yeast
was not fully understood, but once bubbling stopped, the liquid was strained.
Sometimes, sweeteners were added, but these were not standard throughout the
country. Beer could not be kept for very long and was most likely consumed within a
few days of production. The largest brewery in Egyptian times was at Hierakonpolis,
which was said to produce over 1000 liters of beer a day.
4. What can be inferred about beer-making techniques in ancient Egypt?

A. They took a long time
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B. They were surprisingly modern
C. They were not popular
D. They were not standardized
(Section 1, Building Reading Skills for TOEFL iBT)
5. Type 5: Vocabulary
- The word/phrase...in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to/ means...
- In stating..., the author means that...
• Tips
- Look closely at how the word is being used: An adjective or a verb will often be
describing something about the subject that is already clear.
- Make sure that you understand the context: Understanding the purpose of the passage
will help you work out what the author is trying to say.
- Remember that the question asks for the meaning of the word in the passage.
- Replace the word or phrase in question with each answer choice: Ask yourself if it still
makes sense about the rest of the passage.
[…] Also, do you think that washing your face frequently will help get rid of pimples?
Of course, washing your face is a good idea, but washing your face too much could
irritate the skin more, making the pimples even worse. Another widely believed myth
is that not wearing makeup can help reduce a person’s chance of developing pimples.
In fact, some kinds of makeup or face creams actually have special medicine in them
to fight pimples. As a result, not all of them are bad for you. Along with makeup,
people claim that eating fatty foods or chocolate can cause acne. The truth is that
eating a candy bar or a piece of pizza will not cause pimples. Even so, both teenagers
and adults should still try to eat foods that are good for their bodies and their skin.
5. Which of the following means about the same as “fight” in the passage?
A. To argue with
B. To compete with
C. To have a war
D. To work against
(Myths about pimples, Reading challenge 2)
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6. Type 6: Reference
- The word…in paragraph 3 refers to…/The phrase…in line 5 refers to…
• Tips
- Replace the pronoun with every possible answer: Look for the option that makes the
most sense.
- A referent can sometimes be after the pronoun: Be sure to also read the surrounding
sentences carefully.
- Pay close attention to person and number: A pronoun must follow the rules of grammar
just like any other word.
Farmers know that one of the most important parts of having a healthy crop is ensuring
that the soil is properly fertilized. Soil that has the right balance of nutrients can yield
hearty vegetables and flowers. Plants use the nutrients in the soil for many of their
basic processes, so it is important to ensure that the soil is fertilized properly. The first
step is figuring out the relative amount of nutrients in the soil. Most local gardening
centers can test the soil using a sample provided by the customer. Alternatively, some
gardening centers offer do-it-yourself testing kits. The results of the soil test will
reveal what type of fertilizer needs to be added to the soil to maximize plant growth.
Nitrogen is used by plants of all types to produce chlorophyll, a chemical pigment that
allows plants to absorb light and turn it into energy. When applying nitrogen, growers
should be particularly careful. If too much nitrogen is already in the soil around a
plant, it will produce an excess of foliage. While more foliage might seem like a good
thing, it can actually hinder the growth of fruit or vegetables in plants. In cases where
far too much nitrogen is applied to an area, a plant's foliage might wither from the
high concentration of nitrogen. There are chemical fertilizers, as well as organic
alternatives, available to put nitrogen into the soil. Cottonseed, alfalfa, or manures can
all be used as natural alternatives to chemical fertilizers.
6. The word “their” in the passage refers to…
A. Plants’
B. Vegetables’
C. Nutrients’
D. Farmers’
(Environmental Science, Mastering Skills for TOEFL iBT)
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PAPER 3
WRITING SKILLS
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WRITING
I. INTRODUCTION
The WRITING PAPER contains 2 tasks include:
• Writing a letter (at least 120 words, about 20 minutes)
• Writing an essay (at least 250 words, about 40 minutes)
II. WRITING A LETTER (WRITING TASK 1)
1. Common types and general format
In general, there are 3 common types of letter: Formal letter, Informal letter, and Semi-
formal letter with the following general format: Greeting, opening paragraph, body
paragraphs, closing paragraph, sign off.
Here is a sample of writing letter
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You received a letter from your friend, Ann. Read part of his letter below.
In June, I will have one month off, so my parents and I will
visit your country. Could you suggest some places for us to
visit? What could we do there? What kinds of clothes should
we bring along?
Write a letter responding to Ann.
You should write at least 120 words. You are not allowed to use your own name.
(Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization,
Vocabulary and Grammar).
Sample writing:
Greeting Dear Ann,

Sorry, I haven’t written for so long but I’ve been really busy recently
01 opening studying for my exams. It was great to get your letter and hear all
paragraph your news, especially the part about you and your parents coming to
visit in June.
The weather is fairly hot, so we should spend time at the beach. I think
your parents will enjoy the beautiful landscapes of my country. Also,
1 – 2 body you can try delicious local specialites and take some nice photos
paragraphs there. About the clothes, you will be fine with light summer dresses,
skirts and trousers and jackets for the evenings, which can be rather
cool. Don’t forget to pack your swimming costumes.
Closing I’d better go and get on with my exam preparation. I hope your exams
paragraph go well, too. I’m really looking forward to seeing you in June.
Sign-off All the best,
(133 words)
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1.1. Type 1: Formal letter
a. What is Formal letter?
A formal letter is one written in an orderly and conventional language and follows
a specific stipulated format. These letters are written for official purposes only, such as
writing a letter to an editor, a manager, a college principal or school teacher, or other
academic, professional, or business purposes.
A formal letter is usually in form of:
- Enquiry letter: is when you want to learn more about a product, service or event.
- Order letter: is for placing orders for new goods or services from a company.
- Acceptance letter: is for confirming acceptance of a job, a resignation or an honor.
- Letter of complaint: is to express dissatisfaction with goods or services.
- Apology letter: is to apologize for a mistake.
- Cover letter: is to accompany your CV when applying for a job.
- Sales letter: promotes a company's product or service and includes a call to action.
- Promotion letter: informs customers about new products and upgrades.
Example
Dear Sir,
I would like to inform you that I am resigning from your position as a Chief
Accountant for the Modern Restaurant, effective from 30th September 2021.
Thank you for the support and the opportunities that you have provided me during the
last 3 years. I have truly enjoyed my tenure with Modern Restaurant, and am more
than grateful for the encouragement you have given me in pursuing my professional
goals and personal growth objectives.
If I can be of any assistance during this transition to facilitate the seamless passing of
my responsibilities to my successor, please let me know. I would be glad to help
however I can.
Yours sincerely,
(112 words)
b. Useful languages and expressions
Outline Expressions
- Dear Sir,
1 Greeting - Dear Madam,
- Dear Sir or Madam,
- I am writing in reply to your letter about…
- Thank you for your letter requesting…
- I am writing to inform you that…
2 Opening
- I am writing to ask for an explanation of the following issues.
- I am extremely grateful for…
- I am writing to express my sincere thanks/gratitude for…
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- _______________________
Content
3 - _______________________
(Body)
- _______________________
- I hope this has helped.
- I would very much like to know if this was helpful.
4 Closing
- I know it is a lot of information, so please don’t hesitate to reach
out if you have any questions at all …
- Yours faithfully/Yours respectfully,
5 Sign-off
- Cordially,
1.2. Type 2: Informal letter
a. What is Informal letter?
An informal letter is a non-official letter that we usually use to write to our friends,
family or relatives. These letters are written for personal purposes
Example
Dear Daniel,
How have you been? I hope my letter finds you in the best of health and spirits. It has
been almost a month since I transferred to a new school.
I am very happy in my new school. The classes and dormitories here are very spacious
and cozy. Our school also has amazing sports facilities such as a swimming pool, horse
riding trek and archery range.
On the other hand, this school implements strict timetables. We are required to be
punctual for all classes. There is also a very strict discipline regarding uniform, behavior
and cleanliness.
Though it was difficult when I came here for the first time, I’m now beginning to adapt
to the rules here. Although I have made many new friends here, I still miss you and our
friends. Please, send my regards to your parents.
Best regards,
(140 words)
Parts Expressions
- Dear Tom,
1 Greeting
- Hi Jenny,
- How’s it going?
- How are you?
- Thanks for your letter.
2 Opening - It was good to receive your letter.
- I’m very happy/glad to hear about …
- I’m very sad/sorry to hear about…
- I am writing this letter to…
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- _______________________
Content
3 - _______________________
(Body)
- _______________________
- Well, it’s time to go.
- Well, got to go.
4 Closing - That’s all for now.
- Write again soon.
- I’m looking forward to seeing/hearing from you soon.
- Love, / Lots of love, / All my love, / With love,
5 Sign-off - Warm wishes, / Best wishes,
- Best regards,
1.3. Type 3: Semi-formal letter
a. What is Semi-formal Letter?
A Semi-formal letter is a type of that is sent to someone you know, but do not share
cordial relationship with. It is used in a non-formal relationship, but it requires a polite
and respectful approach (e.g. a school teacher, school principal, etc.). It falls in between
formal and informal letters in terms of tone.
Example
Dear Mr. and Mrs. Brown,
Thank you very much for your letter. Since I left England, a lot has happened.
I have been very busy with my last year of University. I also have to look for a job. Next
week, I have an interview with a psychologist firm. I hope it will be successful.
Furthermore, I am still fond of running and jumping.
My month in England with you really seems to have improved my English. According to
my teacher I hardly make any mistakes in grammar. And my English conversations are
now at a high level. Once again I would like to say how grateful I am for your kindness
and hospitality.
I’m looking forward to hearing from you soon.
Best wishes,
(119 words)
Parts Expressions
- Dear Mr. Harry,
1 Greeting
- Dear Mrs. Katherine,
- Thanks for your letter.
- I am writing to request/to inform/to tell you…
2 Opening - I’m very happy/glad to hear about…
- I’m very sad/sorry to hear about…
- It was very kind of you…
24
- _______________________
Content
3 - _______________________
(Body)
- _______________________
- I would be very grateful if you could…
- It would be a good idea if…
4 Closing
- Thank you very much for your…
- I’m looking forward to…
- Yours truly,
- Yours sincerely,
5 Sign-off
- Best wishes,
- Best regards,
2. Linking words/Transitions
Linking or connective words and phrases are used to show relationships between
ideas. They can be used to join two or more sentences or clauses. Linking words help to
connect ideas and sentences so that your ideas flow is more smoothly. Here are some
common linking words and phrases:
Sequence Reason
- First / Firstly, Second / Secondly, Third - For
/ Thirdly, Next, Lastly/Finally - Because
- In Addition/Moreover/Furthermore, - Since
Another/Also - As
- In Conclusion/To Summarize - Because of, Due to
Addition Emphasis
- And - Undoubtedly/ Obviously/ Clearly
- In addition / additionally / an additional - Indeed/In fact
- Furthermore - Generally
- Moreover - Admittedly
- Also - Particularly/ In particular
- Too - Especially/ Importantly
- As well as - It is essential/ Essentially
Example Contrast
- For example/ For instance - However/But
- That is/ Such as - Nevertheless/Nonetheless
- Including/ Namely - Although /Even though/Though
- Despite / in spite of
- In contrast (to) / in comparison
- While/Whereas
- On the other hand/On the contrary
25
Comparison Result
- Similarly/Likewise, Also - So/ Therefore
- Like/Just as/Just like - As a result/As a consequence (of)
- Similar to…/Same as… - Thus
- Compare to / with… - Consequently
- Not only...but also - Hence
- Differ from/ apart from, opposing to - Due to
3. Tips for writing a letter

- Read the instruction carefully.
- Plan/Outline your letter.
- Answer all the questions asked in the instruction.
- Use separate paragraphs.
- Use linking words properly.
- Revise your work.
- Try to complete this part within 20 minutes.
4. Practice exercise
Task 1: You have received a letter from your friend, John. Read part of his letter below.
…It’s nice to hear you had a great time visiting your
grandparents in the countryside last weekend. How did
you go there? What did you do? How did you feel about
the visit? I’d like to travel there some time…
Write a letter responding to John.
Task 2: You have received a letter from your friend, Henry. Read part of his letter
below.
…My teenage daughter has been addicted to the
Internet game for quite a long time and can’t
concentrate on her study. How do I deal with the
situation?…
Write a letter responding to Henry.
III. WRITING AN ESSAY (WRITING TASK 2)

1. Common types
There are many different types of essays, but they are often defined into 4 categories:
argumentative, expository, narrative, and descriptive essays. Here are some common
types for essay writing task 2: Opinion essays, Discussion essays, Problem-Solution
essays and Advantages & Disadvantages essays, etc.
26
Example
“Its development in the 1970s, the Internet has become a
key tool for obtaining information and for communication
all over the world”.
Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the
Internet. Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.
You should write at least 250 words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task
Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
Sample
Nowadays the Internet is widely used in our daily lives and work. The Internet brings
both benefits and drawbacks, which will be discussed below.
It is obvious that there are many advantages of the Internet. Firstly, the Internet has
made work much easier. Sending emails and using video conferencing in the workplace
have made business quicker and more efficient. For example, in the past, people often
had to travel long distances for meetings and now they can video call instead. Also,
thanks to the Internet, social life becomes easier. Nowadays people can keep in contact
with family and friends through email and social networking websites more easily.
People can give friends and relatives their news quickly and easily. In addition, meetings,
parties and social events for large groups of people are easier to organize in this way.
Finally, finding out information online is much quicker than visiting libraries or making
expensive phone calls.
On the other hand, the Internet has several downsides. Some people say that the Internet
makes people lazy. For example, people now do lots of things online, like shopping and
socializing, when it might be better for them to do these things in the ‘real’ world.
Furthermore, the Internet contains a lot of information that is not correct. This is because
anyone can put anything they want on the Internet and it is not always checked for
accuracy or truth. Users need to be sure that the websites they look at are reliable
sources of information.
In conclusion, the Internet offers both advantages and disadvantages. It is important that
know how to use it effectively.
(268 words)
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2. General outline
Parts Contents
- Sentence to get the attention of the readers
1 Introduction
- One-sentence thesis statement
- Paragraph 1 (1st main idea):
+ Topic sentence for the 1st main idea
+ Explanation for the 1st main idea
+ Example for the 1st main idea
2 Body
- Paragraph 2 (2nd main idea):
+ Topic sentence for the 2nd main idea
+ Explanation for the 2nd main idea
+ Example for the 2nd main idea
- Restatement of your thesis
3 Conclusion
- Insightful sentence to end your essay
3. Useful languages and expressions
Parts Expressions
- It is generally/widely believed/accepted that…
- It is quite clear/apparent that…
- It is often said that...
- It is common nowadays for... to...
- There is a public debate that...
- It goes without saying that ...
- There is an ever-increasing/ever-growing number of...
1 Introduction - Recently the phenomenon has aroused wide/much concern
...
- Recently the problem/issue has been brought into focus....
- Many nations have been faced with the problem...
- One of the controversial questions is....
- One of the heated issues is ...
- ... is another serious problem we have to face now.
- It is well known that...
- Everybody knows that...
- It is true/often the case that...
- No one can deny (the fact) that...
2 Body
- There is no doubt that...
- We may mention/point out the indisputable/undeniable fact
that...
- One thing that is of great significance is that...
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- It can be expressed as follows...
- The chief reason why ... is that...
- We have every reason to believe that...
- It should be born in mind that...
- However/On the other hand,...
- It can be also be argued that...
- It is also well known that...
- Another special consideration in this case is that...
- ......should not be neglected.
- Others may find this to be true, but I do not. I believe that...
- There is some truth in this, but there is much to be said for...
- In conclusion,…/ In summary, it is important...
- From what has been discussed above, we may draw the
3 Conclusion conclusion that...
- Obviously, if no reaction is taken, it is likely that…
4. Tips
- Read the instruction carefully.
- Brainstorm ideas and plan your essay.
- Use separate paragraphs.
- Don’t list lots of ideas. Choose just one or two and develop them fully.
- Use linking words properly.
- Try to finish the essay some minutes earlier to revise your work.
5. Practice exercise
People who live in large cities face a range of problems in
their daily life. What are main problems they face and how
can these problems be solved?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
experience or knowledge.
You should write at least 250 words.
(Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary
and Grammar).
29
PAPER 4
SPEAKING SKILLS
30
SPEAKING
I. INTRODUCTION
The SPEAKING TEST contains 3 main parts lasting about 12 minutes long:
- Part 1: Social interaction
+ 3 minutes
+ Answer 3-6 questions about 2 different given topics
- Part 2: Solution discussion
+ 4 minutes (1 minute to prepare and 3 minutes to speak)
+ Choose 1 of 3 given solutions for the problem and explain your choice
- Part 3: Topic development
+ 5 minutes (1 minute to prepare and 4 minutes to speak)
+ Give personal opinions on a given topic and answer follow-up questions
There are some common topics you have to deal with such as family, job, free-time,
holidays, transportation, hometown, shopping, keeping fit, etc. These topics mainly
related to daily life.
1. Part 1: Social interaction
In this part, you will be answered 3 – 6 questions about 2 different topics.
Example
Let’s talk about music
- Do you like music? If yes, what kinds of music do you like best? Why/why not?
- What is the most popular kinds of music in your country?
- Is music good or not good for people?
Let’s talk about sports
- Do you play any sports?
- What sports do you enjoy watching?
- What sports do you enjoy playing?
• Question types
- Yes/ No questions: Do you...?
- WH – questions: Where does your family live? What do you like about your
hometown?
• Tips
- Try to maintain eye contact with the examiner during your talk.
- Answer at least 2-3 sentences for each question.
- Stay on the topic and give extra information (reason for your answer as well).
- Using linking words, hesitating words and phrases to make your answer natural.
- Never speak as if you memorize the answer.
31
• Practice exercise: Answer the questions below
FAMILY JOBS
- - Can you tell me something about your - Do you work or study?
family? - - Why do you choose that job/study?
- - Where do your family live? - - Do you think you will ever change your
- - Who are you close to in your family? job/study?
FREE TIME HOLIDAYS

- - What do you enjoy doing in your free - - What do you do when you have a holiday?
time? - - Where do you like to spend your holiday?
- - Do you like indoor or outdoor - - Do you enjoy staying at home during the
activities? holiday?
- - Do you read books/play sports? Why?
TRANSPORTATION HOMETOWN
- - How often do you get around in your - - Can you describe your town or village to
hometown? me?
- - What is the most popular means of - - What do you like about your hometown?
transport in your hometown? - What jobs do people do in your town do?
- What problems do you have with the
transport system of your hometown?
SHOPPING KEEPING FIT

- - Do you enjoy going shopping? - - What do you do to be in shape?
- - How much time do you spend - - What’s your favorite sport?
shopping every week? - - How can we get young people do more
- Do you enjoy going shopping alone or exercise?
with your friends?
32
2. Part 2: Solution discussions
In this part, you are given a situation and three options for you to choose from. You
need to decide on the best choice and justify your opinion.
Example
Situation: You are 18 now and you have the right to decide on what kind of
accommodation you want. There are three options for you to choose from: living
with your parents, living with your close friends in a rented house, and living in the
dormitory. Which do you think is the best?
• Situation: You decide on what place to live.
• Options: There are three options: living with your parents, living with your
close friends in a rented house, and living in the dormitory.
• Requirement: Which do you think is the best choice?
• Useful patterns/languages
- For me, … is an ideal choice because of … main reasons.
- In my opinion, … is the most suitable choice due to following reasons.
- For me, among 3 options, …is the option that suits me most… because…
Appropriate language Sample sentence frames

Compare ….and...both have…/Both…and…are…
…and…are the same because…?
…also has…
…is like…because.../Similarly…is…
…is similar to…in many ways because…and…
Contrast …is…different than…because…

…is…, but…is…
Although …has…, … has ….
…is…however, …is…
…is…. On the other hand/On the contrary, ..is…
Even though… has…,… has…
… and…differ because…
… is unlike … because ….
Despite having …, … is different
because …
One variation between… and… is that … has…
33
• Tips
- Analyze the topic and choose the option that you have more ideas.
- Brainstorm your ideas.
- List 2 advantages of the option you choose and disadvantages of the 2 remaining
options.
- Answer the question:
+ Introduction: state the option you choose. (paraphrase the statement)
+ Body: state 2 advantages and compare with the other 2 options.
+ Conclusion: summarize your choice.
- Don’t try to complicate your ideas. Make it straightforward, simple, and easy to
understand.
- Compound and complex sentences are welcome, make sure you produce accurate
simple sentences.
- Try to speak without hesitation. Choose the option that you find it easier to explain
and support rather than choose what you like.
Situation 1: You are assigned to collect information about a certain city in the country.
Among the following actions, which do you think is the most suitable method: searching
the internet, asking people around you, or going to the city yourself?
Situation 2: Your friend wants to take up a new hobby. He is considering three
activities: doing yoga, playing the piano and joining a charity club. Which do you think
is the best choice for him?
3. Part 3: Topic development

In this part, you will give personal opinions on a given topic and answer extended
questions.
Example
Topic: Smoking should be banned in public places
Smoker’s health
Second-hand
SMOKING Your own ideas
smoker’s health
Financial burden
34
Follow-up questions:
- Do you smoke?
- Why do many people want to smoke?
- What should you do to prevent smoking in public places?
• Useful languages and phrases
Common connective words
in addition, and, similarly, likewise, as well as, besides, also,
Addition
furthermore, moreover, too not only ... but also, besides, this/that
firstly, initially, secondly, to begin with, then, next, earlier/ later,
Sequence
after, this/ that, following this/that, afterward
as a result, thus, so, therefore, consequently, it follows that, thereby,
Consequence
eventually, then, in that case, admittedly
however, on the other hand, despite, in spite of, though, although,
Contrast but, on the contrary, otherwise, yet, instead of, rather, whereas,
nevertheless, compared with, in contrast, alternatively
Certainly obviously, certainly, plainly, of course, undoubtedly
Condition if, unless, whether, provided that, for, so that, depending on
Definition is, refers to, means, that is, consists of
for instance, one example, for example, just as, in particular, such
Example
as, namely, to illustrate
since, as, so, because, due to, owing to, the reason why, in other
Reason
words, leads to, cause
undoubtedly/ obviously/ clearly/ especially/ importantly
Emphasis
in fact/it is essential…
before, since, as, until, meanwhile, at the moment, when,
Time
whenever, as soon as, just as
in conclusion, in summary, lastly, finally, to sum up, to conclude, to
Summary
recapitulate, in short
- similarly/ similar to…/ same as…
Comparison - likewise/like/just as/just like
- compare to / with…/not only...but also
35
Confirmation
Asking for Could you say that again, please?
repetition I’m afraid I don’t understand/ I didn’t catch that.
Well, to be honest…, Actually…, Let me see, You know…, That’s
Hesitating an interesting/tough question. I suppose...., I’m not really sure, but
perhaps..., Well, it’s a bit difficult for me to say, but I guess...
Negative feelings: I’m afraid I can’t stand …, I absolutely hate ...
Expressing it’s really horrible I really don’t like …, I’m not very keen on…
feelings Positive feelings: I love …, I just adore …, I absolutely adore I’m
quite keen on…, what I’m fond of …, I’m into doing …
• Tips
- Always try to expand your answer logically.
- Ask the examiner when you do not understand the question.
- Correct yourself as soon as you realize it.
+ If you find out you've made a mistake, correct it yourself, this shows the examiner
that you are capable of understanding what you are saying.
+ However, if you are not sure how to correct it, keep talking because the examiner
may not notice the mistake at first.
- Be relaxed and confident when speaking.
- Never speak as if you memorize the answer.
Give your opinions on the given topics below and answer extended questions.
Topic 1: Mobile phones are useful tools at schools
Access the internet

easily and quickly
Great means of
MOBILE PHONES Your own ideas
communication
Relax after the

learning hours
- Do you think mobile games can benefit students in many ways?
- What are advantages and disadvantages of using mobile phone to study online?
- What can you do to protect your children from being addicted to mobile phone?
36
Topic 2: Visiting a foreign country is a valuable experience for people
Refresh themselves
VISIT A FOREIGN
Gain experience Your own ideas
COUNTRY
Make new friends
- Do you think you can learn something new when travelling abroad?
- What problems may we meet when visiting a foreign country?
- Is it necessary for us to learn foreign language before travelling abroad?
37
SECTION B
PRACTICE TESTS
38
TEST 1
PAPER 1: LISTENING
Time allowance: 40 minutes
Number of questions: 35
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your
ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts in this
section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of
what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording.
There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check
your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.
Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to
your answer sheet.
PART 1 – Questions 1 – 8
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions.
There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose
the right answer A, B, C or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question
and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.
Now, let’s listen to the example. On the recording, you will hear:
Woman: Hello. This is the travel agency returning your call. You left a message about
the holiday you’ve booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay
at Sunny Hotel. Lunch and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel,
you will need to pay an extra amount of money, depending on what you order. Let me
know if I can help you with any other information. Goodbye.
On the test book, you will read:
Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday?
A. Breakfast
B. Lunch
C. Dinner
D. All
The correct answer is A. Breakfast.
You now have 48 seconds to look through the questions and the options in each question.
Now, let’s begin with the first question.
39
1. When is the man’s appointment?
A. On Tuesday
B. On Friday
C. On Wednesday
D. On Thursday
2. Which is the aunt’s postcard?
A. Big trees
B. A pretty village right by the sea.
C. A pretty village behind the tall trees
D. A pretty village on the hills
3. What time will the plane to Milan leave?
A. At 06:15
B. At 08:15
C. At 07:15
D. At 01:00
4. Which present has the girl bought her mother?
A. A pair of earrings
B. A notebook
C. A pen
D. A music CD
5. What time will the pie be ready?
A. At four fifteen
B. At fifty past four
C. At twenty past five
D. At five o’clock
6. What time is the swimming lesson today?
A. At half past four
B. At fifteen to five
D. At four thirty
C. At fifteen past five
7. Which subject does the boy like best?
A. Information technology
B. Design
C. Sports
D. Geography
8. Which T-shirt does the boy decide to buy?
A. A V-neck black T-shirt
B. A sleeveless white T-shirt
C. A short-sleeved T-shirt with round neck
D. A long-sleeved T-shirt
40
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will
not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question,
choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation

9. What is Kate’s health problem?
A. She has coughs
B. She has a headache
C. She has a toothache
D. She has a stomachache
10. What does Kate’s problem affect her classmates?
A. It makes them funny
B. It makes them annoyed
C. It makes them happy
D. It makes them excited
11. What did Kate have last year?
A. She had coughs
B. She had a fall off her bike
C. She had a headache
D. She had a stomachache
12. What does Kate have now, too?
A. She has backache
B. She has a toothache
C. She has a headache
D. She has a temperature

13. Why does the man want to go out?
A. Because he feels bored staying at home
B. Because he feels safe staying at home
C. Because he feels cold staying at home
D. Because he feels hot staying at home
14. Why does the woman want to stay at home?
A. Because she has coughs
B. Because she feels tired
C. Because she has a toothache
D. Because she has a stomachache
41
15. Why doesn’t the woman want to watch an Italian film?
A. Because she is short of money
B. Because she is serious about it
C. Because she’s afraid she will fall asleep watching it
D. Because she has a stomachache
16. Why doesn’t the woman want to watch a Robert de Niro?
A. Because she feels too busy to watch it
B. Because she feels too serious to watch it
C. Because she doesn’t want to watch it the third time
D. Because she doesn’t want to watch it the second time

17. What does the girl think about a good holiday?
A. It may be cheap
B. It may be expensive
C. It may be very expensive
D. It may be very cheap
18. Why doesn’t the boy want to walk?
A. Because he feels too hot to do it
B. Because he finds it hard to do it
C. Because he doesn’t like hard work
D. Because she doesn’t like the sounds of people walking
19. What does the girl think about the food in Youth Hostels?
A. It is comfortable
B. It is good
C. It is not good
D. It is clean and cheap
20. What does the boy decide to do in the end?
A. Leaves home
B. Sells his home
C. Goes home
D. Enjoys his holiday home
42
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures. The talks or lectures
will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk or lecture. For each question,
choose the right answer A, B, C or D.

21. Why did the speaker have to help her mother with the shopping?
A. There were no Vietnamese people living near her
B. There were no Vietnamese working in the stores
C. There wasn’t always someone to go shopping with her
D. Her mother could speak a little English
22. Why did her father find working in a factory difficult?
A. He couldn’t speak any English
B. He didn’t have many friends there
C. He had had a much better job in Vietnam
D. He couldn’t get used to the working style
23. Why are the speaker and her brother more fortunate than their sisters?
A. They did not need extra English lessons
B. They look more American
C. They speak with American accents
D. They quickly adopted the way of life
24. What has the speaker forgotten about life in Vietnam?
A. Living close to other people
B. The warm weather
C. Traditional food
D. Wearing traditional clothes
25. Why does she find it difficult to invite friends to her home?
A. Her parents do not have much money
B. Her parents haven’t adopted an American way of life
C. Her parents only know how to cook Vietnamese food
D. Her parents do not speak English well
Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following talk

26. What happened in American schools before 1972?
A. Girls didn’t go to school
B. Every classroom was a mix of boys and girls
C. Boys could learn what they wanted
D. They didn’t teach girls some subjects
43
27. What is the reason that most American schools have mixed classes?
A. Scientists said that it was the best thing
B. Teachers did not want to teach single-gender classes
C. A law gave girls an equal chance to learn
D. Boys and girls behave better in such classes
28. Why might girls NOT get a chance to talk much in class with boys?
A. Because the teacher doesn’t ask them questions
B. Because boys are louder and often talk first
C. Because boys know the correct answer
D. Because girls are often shy
29. What’s NOT the reason that some schools are reconsidering separating classes?
A. They prefer the old teaching styles
B. Boys and girls can bother each other
C. Boys and girls like different things
D. Boys learn differently than girls
30. Which is one class that is NOT mentioned as being separated?
A. Math
B. Social Studies
C. Science
D. Physical Education

31. Who is listening to the orientation talk?
A. New international students
B. The teachers of the international department
C. All first-year students in the college
D. The director of international students
32. What is the purpose of this talk?
A. To introduce the director for International student affairs
B. To deal with all international students’ problems
C. To inform the importance of using English in class
D. To introduce common problems in non-verbal communication
33. According to the speaker, what is body language?
A. It’s the use of verb tenses and modals
B. It’s the way to ask for directions
C. It’s the language used in class only
D. It’s the language of movements and facial expressions
44
34. In American culture, ________.
A. Eye contact is the same as most cultures
B. Making eye contact is a sign of disrespect
C. People don’t look in others’ eyes while talking
D. Eye contact is considered as a sign of honesty
35. According to the speaker, what is TRUE about handshakes in American
Culture?
A. Handshakes are not common
B. Handshakes shouldn’t be too strong
C. Handshakes need to be firm
D. Shaking hands is not important
This is the end of the listening paper.
Now you have 05 MINUTES to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
45
PAPER 2: READING
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each
followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer
A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or
implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your
answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1 – 10
What happens if you don’t get enough sleep? Randy Gardner, a high school student in
the United States, wanted to find out. He designed an experiment on the effects of
sleeplessness for a school sciences project. With Dr. William C. Dement from Stanford
University and two friends watching him carefully, Gardner stayed awake for 264 hours
and 12 minutes. That’s eleven days and nights without sleep!
What effect did sleeplessness have on Gardner? After 24 hours without sleep, Gardner
started having trouble reading and watching television. The words and pictures were too
blurry. By the third day, he was having trouble doing things with his hands. By the
fourth day, Gardner was hallucinating. For example, when he saw a street sign, he
thought it was a person. He also imagined he was a famous football player. Over the
next few days, Gardner’s speech became so slurred that people couldn’t understand him.
He also had trouble remembering things.
By the eleventh day, Gardner couldn’t pass a counting test. In the middle of the test, he
simply stopped counting. He couldn’t remember what he was doing. When Gardner
finally went to bed, he slept for 14 hours and 45 minutes. The second night he slept for
twelve hours, the third night he slept for ten and one-half hours, and by the fourth night,
he had returned to his normal sleep schedule.
Even though Gardner recovered quickly, scientists believed that going without sleep can
be dangerous. They say that people should not repeat Randy’s experiment. Tests on
white rats have shown how serious sleeplessness can be. After a few weeks without
sleep, the rats started losing fur and even though the rats ate more food than usual, they
lost weight. Eventually, the rats died.
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1. Who was Randy Gardner?
A. A high school student in the USA
B. A high school designer
C. A university student in Standford
D. A project scientist
2. How many members joined the project?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
3. How long was the experiment?
A. 12 days and nights
B. 24 days and nights
C. 11 days and nights
D. 45 days and nights
4. What happened to Gardner on the third-day experiment?
A. His visibility became trouble
B. He was having difficulty using his hands to complete tasks
C. He was mistaken thinking a street sign for a person
D. He forgot his counting test
5. During the experiment, when did Gardner get trouble speaking?
A. After one day
B. After two days
C. After three days
D. After four days
6. The word “blurry” in the passage refers to __________ .
A. Something is not looking clear
B. Something is not sounding clear
C. Something is not easy
D. Something is not including
7. The word “hallucinating” in the passage refers to __________.
A. The ability to see things that aren’t really there
B. The disability to talk
C. The ability to understand all mentioned
D. The disability to remember things well
8. The word “eventually” in the passage refers to __________.
A. Consequently
B. Effectively
C. Finally
D. Sadly
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9. Why did they do experiments of sleeplessness on white rats?
A. Because white rats have been used for research purposes so far
B. Because it’s dangerous that people should not do it repeatedly
C. Because rats are priced affordable for research cost
D. Because there are not many people who are serious enough to join the experiment
10. What would the author like to mention in this article?
A. Getting enough sleep is clearly important
B. Effectiveness of sleeplessness on university students
C. Warning people should not do any experiment of sleeplessness
D. Returning to a normal sleep schedule is possible after sleeplessness
Mika Tanaka, a college student from Japan, had a wonderful homestay in London. She
lived with a British family and studied English for a month. “What do you want for your
19th birthday?” my parents asked me. “A ring” I replied. However, instead of a ring, my
parents gave me a one-month homestay in London. On February 11th, I left Japan. On
the plane, I worried about being all alone there a stranger to London. But when I met
the Flannery family (my host family), their warm welcome made me feel at ease. Both
my host father and mother were very kind and treated me like their own daughter.
Getting ready to go
Before going to London, I did some research on English schools in London and chose
Oxford House College, mainly because it had reasonable fees. Also, there weren’t many
Japanese students at Oxford House. I took my parents’ advice and requested that my
homestay family have both a mother and a father, be native-born, non-smoking, middle-
class British people, and live near a subway station. I later found that this was very good
advice since some of my friends at the English school were having problems with their
host families.
Living in London
Potatoes! It took me a little time to get used to the many kinds of potato dishes served:
fried potatoes, steamed potatoes, sliced potatoes, and different-colored potatoes. My
host mother was a good cook. She made delicious pasta and chicken dishes and even
cooked rice for me. Nadiege, a French girl, was another homestay student living with
us, and we went around London together. On Saturdays, my host family would have a
party at home with friends or family. When we returned from touring London, Nadiege
and I would join the party. On Saturday evenings, Mr. and Mrs. Flannery would go to
their favorite pubs to spend time together.
Although I selected a school with few Japanese students, there were still at least 2 in
each class. In class, I tried to speak a lot, but many Japanese students didn’t use their
English very much (even if they had vocabularies) and spoke only Japanese with their
friends. Sometimes, I asked other people their impressions of Japan. “Japanese people
48
work too hard,” said my French friend. My teacher thought that Japanese people were
very rich. I didn’t agree with these points, but I was interested in knowing what foreign
people thought. One month in London made me realize that speaking English was very
important since it’s the language that people from many countries use the most. I’d like
to be more open-minded about people from different countries like my host family is.
11. What is the main purpose of this text?
A. To explain how the author struggle for life in London
B. To compare the differences in many kinds of homestay in London
C. To prove the benefits of living in a homestay
D. To describe Mika Tanaka’s one-month-life as an abroad College student in London
12. The phrase “at ease” is the closest meaning to ___________.
A. Comfortable
B. Difficult
C. Unrest
D. Annoyed
13. It can be inferred from passage that Oxford House College ___________.
A. Receives most of Japanese students come here for studying
B. Offers tuition that suits for Mika
C. Is the most famous College in England
D. Is near Mika’s homestay
14. Which of the following is TRUE about Mika’s homestay family?
A. It includes a mom and a dad
B. It’s a middle-class English native resident
C. It’s not far from the station
D. All are correct
15. The word “points” is the closest meaning to ___________.
A. Ideas
B. Marks
C. Dots
D. Targets
16. According to the passage, who is Nadiege?
A. Mika’s classmate
B. Mika’s schoolmate
C. A French girl
D. A stranger to London
17. Which of the following is the most likely inference about the Flannery family?
A. Flannery’s family is Mika’s classmate’s host family in London
B. Flannery’s family would have a party at their friends’ homes on Saturdays
C. Mika’s host parents love to spend time together every week
D. Mika’s host parents love Nadiege much more than Mika
49
18. What is Mrs. Flannery’s profession?
A. A chef
B. A non-native housewife
C. A dance-aholic
D. Not mentioned
19. According to the passage, how many Japanese students are in each class?
A. At least two
B. At least three
C. At least four
D. At least five
20. Which of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. It took Mika little time to be accustomed to many kinds of potatoes dishes
B. Japanese people love studying in London
C. The teacher at Mika’s College thought that Japanese people were very rich
D. Mika’s host parents were very kind and treated her as their own daughter
It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in
the year. In January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the
female with a resonant hoot. The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches
a body length of twenty-two to twenty-four inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches.
To impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He bobs. He bows. He ruffles
his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to limb and
makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They
share the repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though
keeping time to the beat of an inner drum.
Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to
occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built
of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky
ledge, or even on the bare ground. The mother lays two or three round, dull-white eggs.
Then she stoically settles herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to
protect her precious charges from snow and cold.
It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the
young birds feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical
expressions. They clamor for food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels,
rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season baby crows are taken. Migrating
songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey to the hungry family. It is nearly ten
weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds
weary of family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish hunting
ranges of their own.
50
21. What is the topic of this passage?
A. Raising a family of great horned owls
B. Mating rituals of great horned owls
C. Nest building of great horned owls
D. Habits of young great horned owls
22. The phrase “a resonant hoot” in the meaning to ________.
A. An instrument
B. A sound
C. A movement
D. An offering of food
23. It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls ___.
A. Takes place on the ground
B. Is an active process
C. Happens in the fall
D. Involves the male alone
24. According to the passage, great horned owls ___________.
A. Are discriminate nest builders
B. Need big nests for their numerous eggs
C. May inhabit a previously used nest
D. Build nests on tree limbs
25. According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl’s job?
A. To initiate the courtship ritual
B. To feed the young
C. To sit on the nest
D. To build the nest on tree limbs
26. The phrase “precious charges” in paragraph 3 refers to __________ .
A. The eggs
B. The nest
C. The hawks and crows
D. Other nesting owls
27. Which piece of information is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Other small birds
B. Insects
C. Small mammals
D. Nuts and seeds
28. The word “they” in the passage refers to __________ .
A. The wise old men
B. The adult birds
C. The young birds
D. The prey
51
29. What can be inferred from the passage about the adult parents of the young
great horned owls?
A. They are sorry to see their young leave home
B. They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets
C. They probably don’t see their young after November
D. They don’t eat while they are feeding their young
30. The phrase “weary of” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.
A. Tire of
B. Become sad-about
C. Support
D. Be attracted to
There’s a popular idea that artists are not supposed to be into sport, but mountain biking
is a huge part of my life. It gets me out of my studio, and into the countryside. But more
importantly, racing along as fast as you can leaves you no time to worry about anything
that’s going on in your life. You’re too busy concentrating on not crashing. The only
things you pay attention to are the pain in your legs and the rocks on the path in front of
you. I’m in my sixties now, but I started cycling when I was a kid. In the summer my
friends and I would ride our bikes into the woods and see who was brave enough to go
down steep hills or do big jumps. The bikes we had then weren’t built for that and often
broke, so I used to draw pictures of bikes with big thick tires that would be strong enough
for what we were doing. They looked just like modern mountain bikes. However, it
wasn’t until many years later that someone actually invented one.
By the 1980s, they were everywhere. At that time I was into skateboarding. I did that
for a decade until falling off on to hard surfaces started to hurt too much. Mountain
biking seemed a fairly safe way to keep fit, so I took that up instead. I made a lot of
friends and got involved in racing, which gave me a reason to train hard. I wanted to
find out just how fit and fast I could get, which turned out to be fairly quick. I even won
a couple of local races. In the end, I stopped racing, mainly because I knew what it could
mean to my career if I had a bad crash. But I still like to do a three-hour mountain bike
ride every week. And if I’m out cycling in the hills and see a rider ahead, I have to beat
them to the top. As I go past, I imagine how surprised they would be if they knew how
old I am.
31. Peter enjoys mountain biking because ___________.

A. It gives him the opportunity to enjoy the views
B. He can use the time to plan his work
C. He is able to stop thinking about his problems
D. It helps him to concentrate better
52
32. What does Peter say about cycling during his childhood?
A. He is sorry he didn’t take more care of his bike
B. His friends always had better quality bikes than he did
C. His bike wasn’t suitable for the activities he was doing
D. He was more interested in designing bikes than riding them
33. What kinds of sport does he NOT play?
A. Bike racing
B. Mountain biking
C. Skateboarding
D. Ice-skating
34. What does he say about his hobby?
A. It’s safe
B. It’s dangerous
C. It’s expensive
D. It’s modern
35. Why does he just sometimes do cycling?
A. He’s too busy with his business
B. He’s afraid of injuries
C. He spends more time with his family
D. He is attracted by another thing
36. The phrase “be into” in the passage refers to ___________.
A. Be interested in
B. Be fed up with
C. Be bored with
D. Be accustomed to
37. How does Peter feel about cycling now?
A. He is proud that he is still so fast
B. He is keen to do less now that he is older
C. He regrets the fact that he can no longer compete
D. He wishes more people were involved in the sport
38. The word “they” in the passage refers to ___________.
A. His friends
B. The biking races
C. The modern bikes
D. The tires
39. Which of the following jobs is he doing?
A. An artist
B. An athlete
C. A skater
D. A businessman
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40. What is the best title of the passage?
A. A man talks about his daily basis
B. A man talks about his hobby
C. A man talks about his art
D. An artist and his interesting job
This is the end of the reading paper.
Now please submit your paper and your answer sheets.
54
PAPER 3: WRITING
Number of tasks: 2
TASK 1
You received a letter from your friend, John. Read part of his letter below.
One of my friends from the South is looking for a room to
rent for a few months. I know you have a vacant room in
your house. Can you describe it? What furniture is
available? Do I need to buy any equipment?
Write a letter responding to John.
and Grammar).
TASK 2
Some people believe that a college or university education
should be available to all students. Others believe that
higher education should be available only to good students.
Discuss these views. Which view do you agree with? Explain why?
and Grammar).
This is the end of the writing paper.
55
PAPER 4: SPEAKING
Number of tasks: 3
Part 1: Social Interaction (3’)
Let’s talk about your holidays
- What did you do on your last holidays?
- Who do you prefer spending your holidays with? Relatives or friends?
- Do you prefer going on holidays abroad?
Let’s talk about the television
- How many hours a day do you watch television?
- Which programs do you like?
- Do you prefer watching television alone or with other people? Why/Why not?
Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’)
Situation: If you won the lottery of 1 billion dollars, what would you do with the
money? Buy a new house, start a business or deposit the money in the bank. What would
you choose?
Part 3: Topic Development (5’)
Topic: Online courses have changed the way people learn
Be more convenient to
study
Provide new learning

ONLINE COURSES Your own ideas
experience
Be independent in
learning
- What advice would you give someone on how to study English?
- Do you think being a student is the best time of your life? Why/ why not?
- Should a student’s university education be free or should the student have to get a
loan? Explain your choice.
56
TEST 2
PAPER 1: LISTENING
your answer sheet.
A. Breakfast
B. Lunch
C. Dinner
D. All
57
1. What color is Mary’s coat?
A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Brown
D. Black
2. What did the woman repair?
A. A chair
B. A shelf
C. A desk
D. A bed
3. What are they going to buy for Pam?
A. A book
B. A plant
C. Chocolates
D. Candies
4. What has the girl lost?
A. A mobile phone
B. A purse
C. A pen
D. A bag
5. Which sport will the boy do soon at the center?
A. Diving
B. Swimming
C. Waterskiing
D. Sailing
6. Who lives with Josh in his house?
A. His brother
B. His grandmother
C. His father
D. His sister
7. What will the girl take with her on holiday?
A. Nothing
B. A suitcase
C. A sport bag
D. A backpack
8. Where do the boys decide to go?
A. Cinema
B. Overhead bag
C. Game store
D. Park
58
PART 2 - Questions 9 – 20

9. Where was Geoff Thompson born?
A. In London
B. In the North of England
C. In the South of London
D. In Britain
10. How did he know about karate?
A. He discovered karate by himself
B. He’s interested in karate owning to a sports center
C. His friend introduced it to him
D. He knew it when moving to London
11. When did he take part in the World Championships in Taiwan?
A. In 1972
B. In 1980
C. In 1982
D. After starting training with a British coach
12. How many times has he got the World Champion?
A. Two times
B. Three times
C. Four times
D. Five times

13. Which job does the hotel need?
A. A temporary staff
B. A stable staff
C. A full-time waiter
D. A part-time receptionist
14. What about the hour of work?
A. There are two shifts and two days off
B. There are two shifts and one day off
C. There’s a day shift from 7 to 2 and a late shift from 4 till 11
D. There is only an afternoon shift
59
15. What does the woman mention about the uniform?
A. He needs a dark shirt
B. He needs to wear a pair of dark clothes
C. He needs a white shirt and a pair of dark trousers
D. He needs to wear his uniform five days a week
16. When does he start his job?
A. At the end of May
B. On the 10th of May
C. On the 10th of June
D. On the 28th of June

17. What does the man plan to write his paper on?
A. The preservation of old books
B. The famous archives librarian
C. The collection of rare books
D. The local coal industry
18. What does the librarian tell the man?
A. Show her his note cards before leaving
B. Show her his ID card
C. Pay a fee
D. Allow his ID card to be copied, signed in and out of the archives room
19. Why did the librarian mention the age of the books?
A. They need to be handled with gloves
B. The man can only look at photographs of them
C. They were added to the collection recently
D. They are value books
20. How did the man collect the needed the information about his paper?
A. He took a picture
B. He scanned these images
C. He could just look them
D. He photocopied these books
60

21. The presenter doesn’t wear a suit because____________.
A. He is not an important person
B. He wants to talk about different fashion trends
C. The presentation is not formal
D. He works for a fashion company
22. According to the speaker, which statement is TRUE?
A. It’s important to look casually dressed in public
B. A suit is necessary when meeting clients
C Wearing shorts is sometimes fine
D. Nobody can describe the way he’s dressed
23. What does the phrase “Dress-down Fridays” mean?
A. Employees must wear fashionable clothes on Fridays
B. Employees can wear anything they want on Fridays
C. Employees are allowed to wear informally on Fridays
D. Employees are required to wear special clothes on Fridays
24. According to the speaker, who may be the most informal dressers?
A. People working in IT
B. People working in banks
C. People working in customer services
D. People working with clients
25. What does a customer feel about a man in uniform?
A. Recognized
B. Expertise
C. Reassured
D. Reliable

26. How many hours of sleep do experts suggest for kids per night?
A. 70 hours
B. 15 hours
C. 1,400 hours
D. 10 hours
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27. According to the speaker, why is sleep important for the brain?
A. Sleep generates dreams so brain can relax
B. Brain can rest in a sleep
C. Sleep can save energy for the brain
D. Sleep improves the effectiveness of the brain
28. Why don’t the students learn well when they are tired?
A. They can’t finish their homework
B. They can’t deal with troubles in class
C. They can’t pay attention very well
D. They get very excited
29. Which is not a reason for poor sleep?
A. Drinking soda
B. Staying up late
C. Playing computer games
D. Exercising before sleep
30. What should students try to do each night?
A. Watch a scary movie
B. Drink some hot tea
C. Go to bed at a regular time
D. Relax with a TV show

31. Which is NOT the shape of the northern lights?
A. A curved line
B. An oval shape
C. A straight line
D. A round shape
32. What does “aurora borealis” exactly mean?
A. Northern dawn
B. Early morning lights
C. Northern lights
D. Northern sky
33. Where is the best place to see the northern lights?
A. The northernmost point of Earth
B. The north of Poland
C. Anywhere in Scandinavian countries
D. Most parts of the world
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34. What is one of the stories developed by people before modern science?
A. The lights were caused by foxes
B. The lights were the dance of animals
C. The lights appeared when people
D. The lights came from fires of northern gods
35. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this talk?
A. A description of the lights
B. The scientific explanation for the lights
C. The discovery of the lights
D. Beliefs about the lights
63
PAPER 2: READING
You can find the names of colors in a lot of English expressions. Many of these
expressions, however, talk about colors in very different ways. For example, the
expression black and white can have different meanings. If something is black and
white, it means it is clear, easy to understand. However, some people see everything in
black and white, which means that they judge everything they see as either good or bad.
Some people have to see something in black and white to know that it is true; this black
and white talks about seeing something printed, as in a newspaper. If something is
printed in a newspaper, it must be true, right? The color red is often used to talk about
things that are hot or exciting. You can listen to red-hot jazz music or eat red-hot chili
peppers. If you roll out the red carpet for someone, you are giving them a big welcome.
On TV, you may see stars walking on the red carpet at the opening night of a Hollywood
movie or at the Academy Awards. After a big night like this, the stars often paint the
town red, which means that they celebrate and have fun, going to parties or nightclubs
all over town. However, red isn’t always fun. If you do something embarrassing, like
spill coffee on your teacher’s desk, perhaps your face is beet-red. Your teacher’s face
might be red with anger, too! Or if you see a person doing something bad on purpose,
like taking someone’s wallet, you can say that you caught the person red-handed.
Whether it’s good or bad, red usually means something interesting is happening. Blue
is different. When people are blue or have got the blues, it means they feel sad. They
might listen to blues music, which usually tells sad stories. Blue isn’t always a sad color,
though. If something good happens to you when you’re not expecting it, like when you
get a good idea, or if you run into an old friend, you can say it happened out of the blue.
Green is another color that can have very different meanings. In the past, being green
was almost always something negative. For example, if you ride on a boat and feel
seasick, your face may look green. If someone has something nice that you really want,
like a new car or an expensive watch, you may also be green with envy. Or if you are
starting a new job, your boss may say you are green, which means that you don’t have
64
any experience. Now, however, green is usually good. Being green more often means
doing good things for the environment. People who are good at growing plants have a
green thumb. Many companies are going green, which means they are recycling more
or are trying to use less energy. In fact, some companies are moving to new, green
buildings, which may use solar power or grow plants on their roofs. So, if someone asks
you how green you are, it probably means they want to know if you do good things for
the environment.
Learning new expressions with colors can be fun, but it’s not always easy. As you can
see, their meanings can sometimes be very different. Try looking for these expressions
in the things you read. If you learn more about how these expressions are used, you may
add a little color to your writing, or even pass your next English test with flying colors.
1. This reading is primarily about ____________.

A. Learning the names of colors
B. How people feel when they see colors
C. English expressions with colors in them
D. How people see colors in life
2. According to the reading, if your face is red, you can be ____________.
A. Angry or embarrassed
B. Angry or happy
C. Happy or embarrassed
D. Hot or fun
3. The following colors are mentioned in the reading: ____________.
A. Black, white, red, purple, blue
B. Black, red, blue, green, yellow
C. Black, white, red, blue, green
D. Black, white, red, green, purple
4. Being green ____________.
A. Is always good
B. Is always bad
C. Can be good or bad
D. None of them
5. In this article, the author shows that ____________.
A. The expression “black and white” always has a bad meaning
B. Being blue means feeling sad
C. Learning color expressions is necessary for taking tests
D. Being green also good for business
65
6. The word “embarrassing” in the passage is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. Ashamed
B. Unhappy
C. Regret
D. Respect
7. The phrase “out of the blue” in the passage is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. Uncolored
B. Unfavorite
C. Unexpected
D. Unexcited
8. Green can have many different meanings, EXCEPT ___________.
A. Your face looks bad when feeling seasick
B. The feeling that someone got new things
C. A signal shows that you are lacking experience
D. People are damaging the environment
9. The phrase “green with envy” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. Kindness
B. Generosity
C. Jealousy
D. Curiosity
10. What kind of text is this reading?
A. Romantic story
B. Article
C. History documentary
D. Sci-fi novel
Have you ever wondered why some people are successful in business and others are
not? Here’s a story about one successful businessperson. He started out washing dishes,
and today he owns 168 restaurants. Zubair Kazi was born in Bhatkal, a small town in
southwest India. His dream was to be an airplane pilot, and when he was 16 years old,
he learned to fly a small plane.
At the age of 23 and with just a little money in his pocket, Mr. Kazi moved to the United
States. He hoped to get a job in the airplane industry in California. Instead, he ended up
working for a company that rented cars. While Mr. Kazi was working at the car rental
company, he frequently ate at a nearby KFC restaurant. To save money on food, he
decided to get a job with KFC. For two months, he worked as a cook’s assistant. His job
was to clean the kitchen and help the cook. “I didn’t like it,” Mr. Kazi says, “but I always
did the best I could.”
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One day, Mr. Kazi’s two co-workers failed to come to work. That day, Mr. Kazi did the
work of all three people in the kitchen. This really impressed the owners of the
restaurant. A few months later, the owners needed a manager for a new restaurant. They
gave the job to Mr. Kazi. He worked hard as the manager, and soon the restaurant was
making a profit.
A few years later, Mr. Kazi heard about a restaurant that was losing money. The
restaurant was dirty inside, and the food was greasy and undercooked. Mr. Kazi
borrowed money from a bank and bought the restaurant. For the first six months, Mr.
Kazi worked in the restaurant from 8 a.m. to 10 p.m., seven days a week. He and his
wife cleaned up the restaurant, remodeled the front of the building, and improved the
cooking. They also tried hard to please the customers. If someone had to wait more than
ten minutes for their food, Mrs. Kazi gave them a free soda. Before long the restaurant
was making a profit. A year later, Mr. Kazi sold his restaurant for a profit. With the
money he earned, he bought three more restaurants that were losing money. Again, he
cleaned them up, improved the food, and retrained the employees. Before long, these
restaurants were making a profit, too.
Today Mr. Kazi owns 168 restaurants, but he isn’t planning to stop there. He’s looking
for more poorly managed restaurants to buy. “I love it when I go to buy a restaurant and
find it’s a mess,” Mr. Kazi says, “The only way it can go is up.”
11. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Mr. Kazi’s first job
B. A story about one successful businessman
C. Life of the employees at a restaurant
D. How Mr. Kazi bought the restaurant
12. How many colleagues of Kazi quit the job?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
13. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Mr. Kazi?
A. He’s a single man
B. He used to learn to be a pilot
C. He could do the work of all three people in the kitchen
D. He gave free drinks for the guests who are waiting so long
14. What did Mr. Kazi do to impress his owner?
A. He tried his best to clean up the restaurant
B. He covered the duties of the other two staff members
C. He managed the restaurant very well
D. He was good at making a profit for the restaurant
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15. The word “retrained” in the passage is the closest meaning to ___________.
A. Instructed again
B. Re-exercised
C. Fired
D. Kicked
16. The word “greasy” in the passage refers to ______________.
A. Terrible oily
B. Delicious
C. Satisfying
D. Healthy
17. Mr. Kazi started with very little money, but now he owns 168 restaurants. What
can you infer from this?
A. Mr. Kazi didn’t need a lot of money to buy 168 restaurants
B. Mr. Kazi is not good at making money
C. Mr. Kazi has built a very successful business
D. He was the richest man in India
18. According to the passage, after buying three more restaurants that were losing
money, Mr. Kazi did something EXCEPT ___________.
A. Tidied the restaurant
B. Remodeled the front of the building
C. Improved the food
D. Retrained the employees
19. Which of the following statement is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. The restaurant was unclean
B. The food was terrible-greasy
C. The dishes were undercooked
D. Mr. Kazi is now a king of restaurants in India
20. Which of the following statements is the best title for the text?
A. Never give up your dream
B. How to become a restaurant owner
C. The art of running a series of the fast-food restaurants
D. How to be a successful businessperson
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes
sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk,
wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet
these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of
the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance.
After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes
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sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it’s hard to figure out if
you have a food allergy since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms
could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains
mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food
allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and
tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant
until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be
protective.
Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenethylamine, monosodium
glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged
cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas,
cured meats, and many Oriental and prepared foods. Some people have been successful
in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin.
Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives especially
colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds,
green peppers, peaches, tea, and grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin
Feingold, who has written the book Why Child is Hyperactive. Other researchers have
had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.
21. The topic of this passage is ___________.

A. Reactions to foods
B. Food and nutrition
C. Infants and allergies
D. A good diet
22. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due
to _________.
A. The vast number of different foods we eat
B. Lack of a proper treatment plan
C. The similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. The use of a prepared formula to feed babies
23. The word “symptoms” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. Indications
B. Diet
C. Diagnosis
D. Prescriptions
24. The phrase “set off” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. Relieved
B. Identified
C. Avoided
D. Triggered
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25. What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants
C. They gain little benefit from being breastfed
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early
26. The word “hyperactive” in the passage is closest in meaning _________.
A. Overly active
B. Unusually low activity
C. Excited
D. Inquisitive
27. The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related
to allergies has to do with the infant’s_______.
A. Lack of teeth
B. Poor metabolism
C. Underdeveloped intestinal tract
D. Inability to swallow solid foods
28. The word “these” in the passage refers to __________ .
A. Food additives
B. Food colorings
C. Innutritious foods
D. Foods high in salicylates
29. Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Eating more ripe bananas
B. Avoiding all Oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
30. According to the article, the Feingold diet is NOT______.
A. Verified by researchers as being consistently effective
B. Available in book form
C. Beneficial for hyperactive children
D. Designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women
in business, the demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept
the number of women entrepreneurs small. Now, however, businesses owned by women
account for more than $40 billion in annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue
rising throughout the 1990s. As Carolyn Doppelt Gray, an official of the Small Business
Administration has noted, “The 1970s was the decade of women entering management,
and the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman entrepreneur.”
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What are some of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn
advanced degrees in business and enter the corporate world, they are finding obstacles.
Women are still excluded from most executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a management
consultant, had noted, “In the 1970s women believed if they got an MBA and worked
hard, they could become chairman of the board. Now they’ve found out that isn’t going
to happen, so they go out on their own.”
In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in “women’s fields” cosmetics and
clothing, for example, but this is changing, consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-
million-a-year computer software business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig,
who was then a housewife with degrees in math and engineering. When Kurtzig founded
the business, her first product was software that let weekly newspapers keep tabs on
their newspaper carriers and her office was a bedroom at home, with a shoebox under
the bed to hold the company’s cash. After she succeeded with the newspaper software
system, she hired several brigfht computer-science graduates to develop additional
programs. When these were marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200
employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock.
Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They
still face hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the
banking and finance world is still dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most
businesses owned by women are still quite small. But the situation is changing; there
are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the years ahead.
31. What is the main idea of this passage?

A. Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to
the business world
B. The computer is especially lucrative for women today
C. Women are better at small businesses than men are
D. Women today are opening more businesses
32. The word “excluded” in the passage is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. Not permitted in
B. Often invited to
C. Decorators of
D. Charged admission to
33. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in
the business world EXCEPT___________.
A. Women were required to stay at home with their families
B. Women lacked the ability to work in business
C. Women faced discrimination in business
D. Women were not trained in business
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34. The word “that” in the passage refers to __________.
A. Woman becoming chairman of the board
B. Women working hard
C. Women achieving advanced degrees
D. Women believing that business is a place for them
35. According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in the 1970s__.
A. Were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management
B. Were still more interested in education than business opportunities
C. Had fewer obstacles in business than they do today
D. Were unable to work hard enough to succeed in business
36. The author mentions the “shoebox under the bed” in the 3rd paragraph to____.
A. Show the frugality of women in business
B. Show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig of Sandra
C. Point out that initially, the financial resources of Kurtzig’s business were limited
D. Suggest that the company needed to expand
37. The word “this” in the passage refers to __________.
A. Women becoming entrepreneurs
B. Women buying cosmetics and clothing
C. Women working in “women’s fields”
D. Women staying at home
38. The expression “keep tabs on” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. Recognize the appearance of
B. Keep records of
C. Provide transportation for
D. Pay the salaries of
39. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that businesses
operated by women are small because __________.
A. Women prefer a small intimate setting
B. Women can’t deal with money
C. Women are not able to borrow money easily
D. Many women fail at large businesses
40. The author’s attitude about the future of women in business is __________.
A. Skeptical
B. Optimistic
C. Frustrated
D. Negative
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PAPER 3: WRITING
Number of tasks: 2
TASK 1
You received a letter from your English friend, Kathy. Read part of her letter
below.
My old classmate - Sarah, is thinking about applying for the
teaching position as an English teacher at your university but she
wants to know more about it before she decides. Can you give us
some information about your university? Should she apply for it?
Write a letter answering your friend’s letter.
and Grammar).
TASK 2
Some people like to do only what they do well. Other people prefer
to try new things and take risks. Which do you prefer? Use specific
reasons and examples to support your choice.
Discuss these views. Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your
answer.
and Grammar).

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PAPER 4: SPEAKING
Number of tasks: 3
Let’s talk about your birthday
- When is your birthday?
- What do you usually do on your birthday?
- What is your favorite family celebration? Why?
Let’s talk about the transportation
- What is the best way to travel in your town/city?
- What is your favorite means of transportation?
- Do you think people should use public transportation more? Why/Why not?
Situation: A student wants to do a part-time job where he can practice his English.
There are THREE options for him to choose from: A job at a souvenir shop, a job at a
travel agency or a job at a take-away shop. Which job would be best for him?
Topic: Examinations are not necessary
Costly
Time-consuming EXAMINATIONS Your own ideas
Unfair
- Do you think schools are necessary? Why? If no, why not?
- How do modern technologies change the way people study?
- Do you think that traditional schools will disappear in the future because of the
development of modern technology?
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TEST 3
PAPER 1: LISTENING
your answer sheet.
A. Breakfast
B. Lunch
C. Dinner
D. All
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1. Who is probably making talking on the phone?
A. A receptionist at a hotel
B. A receptionist at a dentist’s
C. A travel agent
D. A real estate agent
2. Why has the meeting been relocated?
A. Because a building is being renovated
B. Because the North Tower is being painted
C. Because the South Tower is sold
D. Because the North Tower is more spacious
3. What is the main cause of decreased domestic sales?
A. A weak economy
B. Competition
C. Retail clothing sector
D. Domestic economy
4. What should the listeners do before they skate?
A. Get permission from the safety coordinator
B. Wear the proper safety equipment
C. Pay a nominal fee
D. Have membership cards
5. What profession does the speaker work in?
A. Sports therapy
B. Sports broadcasting
C. Physical training
D. Sports fashion
6. What is the purpose of Ricardo’s visit?
A. To train staff members
B. To oversee a project
C. To learn business methods
D. To see a client
7. What kind of business would be making this announcement?
A. A gas station
B. A hotel
C. A restaurant
D. A store
8. Why has confidence increased?
A. Because of increased investment
B. Because of low inflation
C. Because of higher production
D. Because of government data
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9. What is the problem?
A. The woman does not know how to get to the man’s office
B. The copy machine is not working properly
C. The man is late for his appointment
D. The woman can’t go to the office today
10. Who most likely is the man?
A. An auto mechanic
B. A photocopier technician
C. A new assistant
D. A coffee shop owner
11. What does the man ask the woman to do?
A. To have a clinic check-up
B. To turn off the machine
C. To check the inside paper jam
D. To call another technician
12. When will the man most likely get to the woman’s office?
A. In the morning
B. During lunch
C. In the afternoon
D. In the evening
Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation.

13. What is the woman’s problem?
A. She lost a library book
B. She does not know where Germany is
C. The library does not have a book she needs
D. The library will not let her sign out a book
14. Why does the woman need to find the book?
A. She wants to borrow it for a friend
B. She wants it for her essay
C. She wants to learn about computer systems
D. She wants to collect it
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15. What does the man offer to do for the woman?
A. He will help her to locate the material she wants from other libraries
B. He will ask his friends about the material she needs
C. He asks her to go to the nearest library
D. He asks her to go to the book store
16. What if the woman borrows more than 5 books from other libraries?
A. She has to return the books earlier than usual
B. She has to pay a small service charge
C. She has to fill in a special form
D. She has to deposit

17. When is the woman supposed to meet James?
A. At noon
B. At four o’clock
C. At fourteen
D. At ten o’clock
18. What can be inferred about James?
A. He is very lazy
B. He is very punctual
C. He is not very punctual
D. He is very busy
19. What is TRUE about the man?
A. He is a friend of Jane’s and James’s
B. He is Jane’s teacher
C. He doesn’t know James
D. He is an irresponsible man
20. Why does Jane have this appointment?
A. To meet her old friends
B. To complain about James’s behavior
C. To prepare for her exam
D. To have an interview
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21. What did the woman do last night?
A. Studied for a final test
B. Worked on her paper
C. Stayed in the computer lab
D. Turned the paper in early
22. What is probably true about the woman?
A. She called Professor Kensington and asked for an extension
B. She had her friend help to complete her paper
C. She had plenty of time to complete her paper last night
D. She completed his paper without help from anyone else
23. What can be inferred about the man?
A. He is too unhappy to express his anger to the woman
B. He does not feel the extension was necessary at all
C. He understands the reasoning behind the extension
D. He is planning to hand in the paper today no matter what
24. What is the extension for the assignment submission?
A. They have 1 more day
B. They have 2 more days
C. They have 1 more week
D. They have 2 more weeks
25. What is the woman probably going to do next?
A. She is going to revise the paper
B. She is going to talk with the professor
C. She is going to submit her paper
D. She is going to prepare for the exam

26. Who is Professor Atkins?
A. A math teacher
B. A physics teacher
C. A chemistry teacher
D. A laboratory manager
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27. What is the acceptable range of difference of the textbook?
A. 4% or 5%
B. 10%
C. Less than 10%
D. 45%
28. What will the woman most likely do?
A. Redo the experiment in the evenings
B. Ask the professor for more time
C. Hand in the experiment as it is
D. Lower her results by 10% from the textbook
29. When is the experiment due day?
A. Tomorrow
B. Next week
C. Tuesday
D. Friday
30. What does the professor advise Julie to do?
A. Spend more time in the lab
B. Clean the tubes before the experiment
C. Ask someone to help her
D. Meet him after class hours in the lab
Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following professor’s talk

31. What is true about Alaska?
A. It is the second-largest state in the USA
B. It is bordered by Canada in the East
C. It is smaller than California and Texas combined
D. It is populous
32. What is the average number of students in a middle school classroom?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
33. Which of the following is a popular transportation system in Alaska?
A. Airplanes
B. Ships
C. Railways
D. Complex highway systems
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34. What will the professor probably talk about in the next class?
A. The volcanic eruption of Mount Katmai in the early 20th century
B. The type of airplanes used by Alaskans to move from point to point
C. The amount of food imported by the Alaskans
D. The effects of seismic sea waves that reach far inland and destroy communities
35. What does the professor feel about life in Alaska?
A. It is a fantastic place to dwell for anyone
B. It is probably not very desirable for some to live in
C. It is not a place that he knows much about
D. It is a peaceful place without any worries to think about
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PAPER 2: READING
For most people living in cities, buying fresh vegetables and fruits means a trip to the
supermarket. But how far does the produce have to travel to get to the store? In the
United States, the average American produce has to travel 2,400 km to reach the
supermarket where it is sold. And many other kinds of produce in the supermarkets are
imported from other countries, especially in the winter. It isn’t hard to find fresh
strawberries in the middle of January in Chicago. They have been flown in from South
America.
The United States isn’t the only country that imports food. Most countries do. In fact, in
Japan, 60 percent of supermarket food comes from overseas. In the United Kingdom,
some studies say that 40 percent of food is imported. The city of London alone imports
80 percent of its food from as close as Europe and as far away as South Africa and New
Zealand. If your bananas traveled 5,000 km to reach you, are they still “fresh”? A lot of
oil is used to grow and ships the food you find in the supermarket. Many studies say that
ten calories of carbon energy are used to make and deliver every one calorie of food we
eat, and not everyone is happy about this. Some people want to use less energy because
it’s better for the environment. Others want to use less energy because they are worried
that oil prices will rise in the future.
Recently, the answer for more and more people is to grow their own food even if they
live in crowded cities. This trend called urban agriculture, or urban farming, can be
found all over the world. In Tokyo, Japan, for example, the recruitment company?
Pasona has been growing food inside its office building for several years. They started
with a rice paddy inside their building. Recently, they moved their urban farm, called
Pasona O2, to a new building, where they are growing not only rice but 200 other kinds
of plants, including many vegetables. In other parts of Tokyo, some restaurants are
growing food in roof gardens, or even on the outside walls of their buildings. In
Frankfurt, Germany, there is a popular community-based group that rents small pieces
of land for people to grow their own food. Office workers can now become “farmers”
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by coming to take care of their plants once or twice a week and enjoy eating their own
fresh produce as well.
Another community-based group, called Brooklyn Grange, grows vegetables on New
York City rooftops and sells them to people and businesses around the city. Brooklyn
Grange welcomes people to volunteer with them and learn more about farming. In
addition to learning some useful skills, they say volunteering is a good way for people
to get to know other people in their neighborhoods.
How much food can people grow in small spaces? In the city of Pasadena, California,
the Dervaes family grows almost all of the food in an area that is only about 400 square
meters. They started this project in the 1980s because they wanted to live their lives
using very little or no carbon energy. They also have an online journal and blog to teach
other people how to grow their own food.
In fact, it’s easy to find blogs by urban farmers who are sharing their stories and farming
tips with people all over the world. Urban farming isn’t just helping people grow fresh
food. It is also helping communities to develop and grow in city neighborhoods and
online around the world.
1. In London, how many percent of food is imported?

A. 40%
B. 60%
C. 80%
D. 100%
2. On average, how far do American produce travel to get to the supermarket?
A. 10 km
B. 2,400 km
C. 5,000 km
D. 200 km
3. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Pasona only has offices and restaurants in Tokyo
B. Brooklyn Grange is based in New York City
C. Pasadena has a lot of urban farmers
D. Dervaes’s family grows almost all of the food in large spaces
A. The Dervaes family lives on a large farm
B. Some members of the Dervaes family teach at a university
C. The Dervaes family lives in an urban area
D. Brooklyn Grange is not a community-based group
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5. Which of the following statements is NOT mentioned about Derva?
A. The Dervaes family grows almost kinds of vegetables
B. The Dervaes family lives a life without using energy
C. The Dervaes family provides tips to grow plants
D. The Dervaes family sells their food around city
6. The phrase “flown in” in the passage means_________
A. Grown in South America
B. Bought from South America
C. Flown around South America
D. Delivered by plane
7. According to the passage, how many countries import food?
A. Only United State
B. Few countries
C. Most countries
D. Not mentioned
8. The word “they” in the passage refers to ___________.
A. The city of Pasadena, California
B. The food
C. The Dervaes family’s project
D. The Dervaes family
9. According to the passage, people can find _______via online journals and blogs.
A. Stories and farming tips
B. Fresh food
C. Contact of urban farmers
D. Volunteers
10. What is best title for this passage?
A. Growing food in big cities
B. Importing food for big countries
C. Urban farming problems
D. Rural agriculture development
Many people are afraid to cook Chinese food. They think it is difficult to prepare
Chinese dishes. Ching-He Huang, a young chef, business owner, and TV star is
changing their ideas. She teaches people quick and easy ways to prepare Chinese food.
Thanks to Ching-He, many people around the world now love to cook Chinese food!
Ching-He was born in Taiwan in 1978. She first learned about traditional Chinese
cooking from her grandparents. They shopped for fresh ingredients every day, and they
always ate freshly-cooked meals. When Ching-He was eleven years old, she and her
family moved to London. Because her mother often traveled for work, Ching-He cooked
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meals for her family. Her mother taught her a little bit about Chinese cooking. Soon,
Ching-He started to create her own 15 recipes. She especially loved to make rice dishes
and noodle soups.
Ching-He studied economics in college, but her big passion was cooking. After she
graduated, she started a food and drink company. She sold healthy Chinese foods and
drinks to stores. In 2005, Ching-He had her first TV cooking program. The next year,
she wrote her first cookbook. In 2008, she starred in another TV series, Chinese Food
Made Easy. For this TV show, she traveled around the UK and taught people to make
simple, delicious Chinese food. She also wrote another cookbook to go with the TV
show. Over three million people watched the TV series.
Today, Ching-He is famous in the UK. Her TV shows are also popular in several other
countries. What is Ching-He’s secret to success? She creates recipes that combine
traditional and modern flavors. She makes Chinese cooking fast and easy. And because
she has a friendly personality, she is fun to watch on TV. Ching-He is a very busy
woman, but she still finds time to relax. What does Ching-He Huang do in her free time?
She cooks, of course!
11. Ching-He is originally from__________.

A. Taiwan
B. London
C. Hong Kong
D. The UK
12. She learned to cook __________.
A. from her grandparents and mother
B. from her father
C. In school
D. On her own
13. When did she move to the UK?
A. In 1978
B. In 1989
C. In 2000
D. In 2005
14. Ching-He changed people’s ideas about__________.
A. fresh ingredients
B. Chinese cooking
C. junk food
D. Japanese cooking
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15. Because of Ching-He, more people in the UK __________.
A. have jobs
B. drink tea
C. prepare Chinese foods
D. go to Chinese restaurants
16. When did she write her first book?
A. In 2005
B. In 2006
C. In 2007
D. In 2008
17. Which sentence about Ching-He is NOT TRUE?
A. She works hard
B. She never relaxes
C. She’s very busy
D. She doesn’t have a day off
18. What things does Ching-He NOT do in her life?
A. A chef
B. A movie star
C. A writer
D. A businesswoman
19. What does NOT makes Ching-He popular?
A. Her personality
B. Her jobs
C. Her programs
D. Her audiences
20. The word “They” in the passage refers to ___________.
A. Her grandparents
B. Her ingredients
C. Her Taiwanese friends
D. Her meals
This rapid transcontinental settlement and these new urban industrial circumstances of
the last half of the 19th century were accompanied by the development of national
literature of great abundance and variety. New themes, new forms, new subjects, new
regions, new authors, new audiences all emerged in the literature of this half-century.
As a result, at the onset of World War I, the spirit and substance of American literature
had evolved remarkably, just as its center of production had shifted from Boston to New
York in the late 1880s and the sources of its energy to Chicago and the Midwest.
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No longer was it produced, at least in its popular forms, in the main by solemn, typically
moralistic men from New England and the Old South; no longer were polite, well-
dressed, grammatically correct, middle-class young people the only central characters
in its narratives; no longer were these narratives to be set in exotic places and remote
times; no longer, indeed, were fiction, poetry, drama, and formal history the chief
acceptable forms of literary expression; no longer, finally, was literature read primarily
by young, middle-class women.
In sum, American literature in these years fulfilled in considerable measure the
condition Walt Whitman called for in 1867 in describing Leaves of Grass: it treats, he
said of his own major work, each state and region as peers “and expands from them, and
includes the world … connecting an American citizen with the citizens of all nations”.
At the same time, these years saw the emergence of what has been designated “the
literature of argument”, powerful works in sociology, philosophy, psychology, many of
them impelled by the spirit of exposure and reform. Just as America learned to play a
role in this half-century as an autonomous international political, economic, and military
power, so did its literature establish itself as a producer of major works.
21. The main idea of this passage is ___________.

A. That the new American literature was less provincial than the old
B. That World War I caused a dramatic change in America
C. That centers of culture shifted from East to West
D. That most people were wary of the new literature
22. It can be inferred that the previous passage probably discussed ___________.
A. The importance of tradition to writers
B. New developments in industrialization and population shifts
C. The fashions and values of 19th century America
D. The limitations of American literature to this time
23. The word “evolved” in the passage is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. Became famous
B. Turned back
C. Diminished
D. Changed
24. The word “it” in the passage refers to __________.
A. The population
B. The energy
C. American literature
D. The manufacturing
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25. The word “exotic” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.
A. Urban
B. Unusual
C. Well-known
D. Old-fashioned
26. The author uses the word “indeed” in the passage for what purpose?
A. To emphasize the contrast he is making
B. For variety in a lengthy paragraph
C. To wind down his argument
D. To show a favorable attitude to these forms of literature
27. The phrase “these years” in the passage refers to ___________.
A. From 1850 to 1900
B. The 1900s
C. The early 1800s
D. The present
28. It can be inferred from the passage that Walt Whitman __________.
A. Disliked urban life
B. Was disapproving of the new literature
C. Wrote Leaves of Grass
D. Was an international diplomat
29. It can be inferred from the passage about the new literature EXCEPT _______.
A. It was not highly regarded internationally
B. It introduced new American themes, characters, and settings
C. It broke with many literary traditions of the past
D. It spoke to the issue of reform and change
30. This passage would probably be read in which of the following academic
courses?
A. European history
B. American literature
C. Current events
D. International affairs
When Daniel Boone died peacefully in bed in his son Nathan’s elegant stone Missouri
farmhouse on September 26th, 1820, the surge of emigrants along the Oregon Trail was
still a generation away. But Boone already exemplified the pioneer at his best. He was
neither the physical giant (five feet nine) nor the innocent child of nature that legend has
made of him. He was an intelligent, soft-spoken family man who cherished the same
wife for 57 years. He befriended Indians, preferred company to solitude, and when he
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told his wife it was time to move because a newcomer had settled some 70 miles away,
he was joking.
Pennsylvania- born, Boone was one of 11 children in a family of Quakers who migrated
to North Carolina. There Boone was recruited at age 40 to undertake a scheme designed
to open up Kentucky to settlers and establish it as a 14th colony. He arranged a deal by
which the Cherokees sold 20 million acres for $20,000 worth of goods to Boone’s
employers, the Transylvania Company.
It was all fair and square - the Indians had an attorney, an interpreter, and the sound
advice of their squaws. The deal completed, Boone led a party from Tennessee through
the Cumberland Gap, hacked out the Wilderness Road, and set up a town Boonesboro
and a government. Elected a legislator, he introduced on the first session’s first day a
bill to protect game against wanton slaughter and a second bill to “improve the breed of
horses.” He got 2,000 acres for his work, but after the Revolution in which Boone won
considerable fame as a militia commander the scheme of the Transylvania Company
was declared illegal and Boone lost his land.
Undaunted, he staked out more claims and lost them because he impatiently neglected
to register his deeds. Ever hopeful, he accepted an invitation from Spanish-held Missouri
to come and settle there and bring others with him. The Spanish gave him 8,500 acres
and made him a judge. But the Louisiana Purchase, which embraced Missouri, again
left him but not his children landless. Old and broke, Boone cheerfully continued
hunting and trapping long after his hands shook. Shortly before he died, he was talking
knowledgeably with young men about the joys to be experienced in settling California.
31. What is the author’s purpose in writing this passage?

A. To chronicle the life of a model pioneer
B. To romanticize the legend of Daniel Boone
C. To show Boone’s many successes on the frontier
D. To trace Boone’s explorations in Kentucky, Missouri, and Louisiana
32. It can be inferred that one area in which Boone was NOT successful was _____.
A. Politics
B. Hunting and trapping
C. Business
D. The military
33. The phrase “fair and square” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. Honest
B. Simple
C. Efficient
D. Lucrative
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34. It can be inferred from the passage that Boone died ____________.
A. As a rich man
B. As an eternal optimist
C. In California
D. As a lonely trapper
35. According to the passage, where is Boone’s namesake city located?
A. In North Carolina
B. In Transylvania
C. In Kentucky
D. In Missouri
36. The Transylvania Company wanted Boone to ____________.
A. Settle Kentucky
B. Ensure animal rights
C. Be fair to the Indians
D. Claim Missouri
37. The word “undaunted” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. Unscrupulous
B. Fearless
C. Undiscouraged
D. Uniformed
38. According to the passage, the Louisiana purchase____________.
A. Legalized Boone’s land claim in Missouri
B. Revoked the earlier Spanish bequest to Boone
C. Drove the Spanish from the east
D. Excluded Missouri from its jurisdiction
39. What can be inferred from the passage about Boone’s children?
A. They were better off financially than Boone
B. They supported Boone’s desire to settle new areas
C. They lived in Kentucky
D. They had no land due to Boone’s bad investments
40. According to the passage, the author’s attitude toward Daniel Boone can be
best described as___________.
A. Admiring
B. Critical
C. Admonishing
D. Indifferent
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PAPER 3: WRITING
Number of tasks: 2
TASK 1
You received a letter from your friend, Jane. Read part of her letter below.
I enjoy my job but I often sit at a computer all day. I don’t get
much exercise so I often feel tired. Could you recommend
something else I should do to keep fit?
Write a letter responding to Jane.
and Grammar).
TASK 2
In some countries, many more people are choosing to live alone

nowadays than in the past. Do you think it is a positive or
negative development?
answer.
and Grammar).

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PAPER 4: SPEAKING
Number of tasks: 3
Let’s talk about music
- Do you like music? If yes, what kind of music do you like best? Why/Why not?
- What is the most popular kind of music in your country?
- How is music good or not good for people?
Let’s talk about sports
- Do you play any sports?
- What sports do you enjoy watching?
- What sports do you enjoy playing?
Situation: Some of your friends are visiting you this weekend. You would like to do
something fun with them. There are THREE options for you to choose from: cooking a
meal together in your apartment, going to a local restaurant together or taking your
friends out for sightseeing. Which one will the best for you?
Topic: Smoking should be banned in public places
Smoker’s health
Second-hand
SMOKING Your own ideas
smoker’s health
Financial burden
- Do you smoke?
- Why do many people want to smoke?
- What should you do to prevent smoking in public places?
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TEST 4
PAPER 1: LISTENING
your answer sheet.
A. Breakfast
B. Lunch
C. Dinner
D. All
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1. Why is the speaker apologizing?
A. To schedule a checkup
B. To delay a meeting
C. To confirm an appointment
D. To request some files
2. Why would Daniel Jergens like to reschedule the meeting?
A. To satisfy a request from Barrier Associates
B. To complete the purchase more quickly
C. To reconsider the contract
D. To avoid the serve weather condition
3. Why will the information technology division be relocating earlier?
A. Because of an increase in staff
B. Because of an interruption of network service
C. Because of the full relocation
D. Because of the high release costs
4. What is the message mainly about?
A. A question about substituting order items
B. A question about the number of the items
C. The list of items that will be delivered
D. The shipping service that will be used
5. What is the purpose of the talk?
A. To address customer complaints
B. To discuss a presentation
C. To celebrate a new contract
D. To hand out assignments
6. Who most likely is the speaker?
A. A landlord
B. A business executive
C. A real estate agent
D. A police officer
7. What will be provided for the travelers?
A. A free light
B. Meal vouchers
C. Winter clothing
D. Hotel rooms
8. What is the celebration for?
A. A merger
B. An anniversary
C. A new CEO
D. A stock offering
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9. Where most likely is the plumber now?
A. He is having lunch
B. He is working somewhere else
C. He is at home relaxing
D. He is doing a favor for the man
10. When is the plumber expected to arrive?
A. At one o’clock
B. At two o’clock
C. At three o’clock
D. At four o’clock
11. What is the man going to do?
A. Meet a client
B. Talk to the plumber
C. Fix the pipe
D. Have lunch
12. When will the man come back to his office?
A. At one o’clock
B. At two o’clock
C. At three o’clock
D. At four o’clock

13. When is the conference scheduled to take place?
A. Today
B. Tomorrow
C. Next week
D. Next month
14. Why will John miss the conference?
A. He is going on a business trip
B. He is taking a vacation in Europe
C. He has too much work
D. He has to review the videos
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15. Where has the man just been to for a business trip?
A. Chicago
B. Toronto
C. Europe
D. Asia
16. Why is the man thanking the woman?
A. She offered to give him a ride
B. She will lend him her video recorder
C. She will go to the seminar
D. She will record the sessions he wants to see

17. Where is the conversation most likely taking place?
A. In a truck
B. At the bus stop
C. In a warehouse
D. At an electronics store
18. When will the computers arrive at the store?
A. In five minutes
B. In fifteen minutes
C. By this evening
D. By tomorrow morning
19. Who most likely is the man?
A. A manager
B. A director
C. A secretary
D. A blue worker
20. What will the man do next?
A. Call the electronics shop
B. Talk to the truck driver
C. Turn on the computer
D. Lift some boxes
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21. What is the main topic of this lecture?
A. Russian leaders
B. The Cold War
C. The wars between the USSR and the US
D. The impacts of the Cold War
22. Why did the US and USSR never actually fight each other?
A. Because the USSR had nuclear weapons
B. Because the US was afraid of Stalin
C. Because they did not want to destroy the world
D. Because nuclear power could destroy the US
23. According to the professor, how long did the Cold War last?
A. Around 50 years
B. Around 60 years
C. Around 70 years
D. Around 80 years
24. What can be inferred from the lecture?
A. The Cold War was caused by different opinions
B. The Cold War was a long, violent war between the US and USSR
C. The Cold War was an important time in the history of the US and the USSR
D. The Cold War changed the world dramatically
25. How does the professor describe the main topic?
A. By comparing and contrasting
B. By giving examples
C. By listing the events chronologically
D. By giving definitions
Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following lecture

26. What is the lecture mainly about?
A. The way the eyes sees colors
B. The steps to paint in a Neo-Impressionism style
C. The artists who learned from Seurat
D. The difference between painting styles
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27. What is the professor’s opinion of this style of painting?
A. He thinks painting in brush strokes is a better way
B. He is surprised that so many artists are good at it
C. He thinks it is difficult to learn
D. He doesn’t like it
28. According to the professor, why did Seurat not blend his paints?
A. He thought it would ruin the paints
B. He thought mixed paints did not look real
C. He thought blended paints made paintings look too divided
D. He thought it would make the art bright
29. What is TRUE about Georges Seurat?
A. He was the best artist at his time
B. By describing only other styles
C. He used brush strokes to make pictures brighter
D. He didn’t spend a lot of time finishing his paintings
30. How did the professor organize the information about this way of painting?
A. By describing only Seurat’s style
B. By describing only other styles
C. By comparing Seurat and other Neo-Impressionists
D. By comparing Neo-Impressionism and other styles

31. What is the lecture about?
A. The feeding habits of snakes
B. How certain snakes protect themselves
C. The most dangerous snakes in the world
D. The different uses of snake poison
32. Why does the professor discuss the beads on a rattlesnake’s tail?
A. To show how the rattlesnake is more dangerous than other snakes
B. To compare the rattlesnake to less scary animals
C. To explain how the rattlesnake scares off animals
D. To describe how the rattlesnake uses its tail to hunt
33. According to the professor, where does the spitting cobra spray its poison?
A. At the animal it is hunting
B. At other snakes
C. At the tongue of an animal that is attacking it
D. At the eyes of an animal that is attacking it
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34. What is the professor’s attitude towards the hognose snake?
A. She is amazed by it
B. She thinks that it is stupid
C. She thinks that it is the best snake
D. She thinks that it is the most dangerous
35. What can be inferred from the lecture?
A. The spitting cobra rattles its tail
B. The hognose snake pretends to be sick
C. Beads in a rattlesnake’s tail make the sound
D. There are no creatures that eat snakes
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PAPER 2: READING
Shopping lists, super-market hopping, and increased sensitivity to shelf prices are
among the signs that Greek consumers in these times of financial crisis are changing
their habits when it comes to how they shop, what they spend and what they buy. These
are the most recent findings of an annual research project carried out by the Athens
University of Economics and Business on a random sample of 1,928 households.
One of the most significant changes in this year’s report is that 93.3 percent of
respondents said that they have already made up their minds about what they will buy
in advance of going shopping. Random purchases are becoming rarer: in the past, unable
to resist the temptation of the colorful shelf displays, shoppers would happily buy things
from the supermarket they had not intended to get when they set out. But at a time when
money is short, people tend to avoid buying anything but the bare essentials.
As a result, there is much less waste than in the past when people felt more carefree.
Another important finding is that only 60 percent of those with mental or written
shopping lists specifically intend to buy particular well-known brand names when they
get to the supermarket. Cheaper, less well-known brands or local supermarket products,
are becoming more popular.
1. The article ____________.

A. Gives advice
B. Reports facts
C. Gives a personal opinion
D. Is a product review
2. The author ____________.
A. Makes predictions about the future
B. Compares past and present
C. Expresses satisfaction with the present
D. All of the above
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3. According to the passage, people are showing an “increased sensitivity” to shelf
prices that means they are _________.
A. More aware of prices
B. More interested in prices
C. More concerned about prices
D. Shopaholics
4. Greek shoppers are changing their shopping habits because ____________.
A. There is a greater variety of goods
B. There were new shopping centers
C. They want to spend less money
D. They want to have a more convenient life
5. Researchers investigated a “random sample” of the population means that they
asked ________.
A. A certain number of people chosen by chance
B. Anyone who volunteered for the study
C. A statistically valid number of people
D. People of the same social class
6. According to the article, when most people go to the supermarket _________.
A. They are not sure what they want to buy
B. They buy more than necessary
C. They buy only the things they need
D. They only buy goods of brand names
7. More people are now able to resist the shopping temptation means that they ___.
A. Don’t give in to their shopping desires
B. Want to buy cheap stuff
C. Are careless shoppers
D. Are able to buy anything they want
8. According to the research, famous brand names ____________.
A. Are no longer popular
B. Are becoming less popular
C. Are becoming more popular
D. Are attractive to the youth
9. People are now buying bare essentials means that they buy ____________.
A. The most important things
B. Only what they need
C. The plainest stuff
D. The most expensive stuff
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10. The word “carefree” can be understood as ____________.
A. Unconscious
B. Lighthearted
C. Unhappy
D. Dissatisfied
It’s a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree sending out a distress signal.
However, a team of scientists at the U.S. Department of Agriculture’s Forest Service
has recently heard the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are
drawn to them like vultures attracted to a dying animal.
Researchers hypothesized that these sounds - actually vibrations produced by the surface
of plants were caused by a severe lack of moisture. They fastened electronic sensors to
the bark of drought-stricken trees and clearly heard distress calls. According to one of
the scientists, most parched trees transmit their plight in the 50-500-kilohertz range.
(The unaided human car can detect no more than 20 kilohertz.) They experimented on
red oak, maple, white pine, aspen, and birch and found that all make slightly different
sounds. With practice, scientists could identify the species of tree by its characteristic
sound signature.
The scientists surmise that the vibrations are created when the water columns inside
tubes that run the length of the trees are cracked, a result of too little water flowing
through them. These fractured columns send out distinctive vibration patterns. Because
some insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the trees’
vibrations and attack the weakened trees. Researchers are now running tests with potted
trees that have been deprived of water to see if the sound is what attracts the insects.
“Water-stressed trees also have a different smell from other trees, and they experience
thermal changes, so insects could be responding to something other than sound,” one
scientist said.
11. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

A. The vibrations produced by insects
B. The mission of the U.S. Forest Service
C. The effect of insects on trees
D. The sounds made by trees
12. The word “drawn” is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. Selected
B. Attracted
C. Pulled
D. Collected
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13. The word “them” refers to ____________.
A. Trees
B. Scientists
C. Insects
D. Vultures
14. The word “plight” is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. Cry
B. Condition
C. Need
D. Presence
15. It can be inferred from the passage that the sounds produced by the trees___
A. Serve as a form of communication among trees
B. Are the same no matter what type of tree produces them
C. Cannot be heard by the unaided human ear
D. Fall into the 1-20 kilohertz range plight parched
16. Which of the following is believed to be a cause of the trees’ distress signals?
A. Torn roots
B. Attacks by insects
C. Experiments by scientists
D. Lack of water
17. The word “they” refers to ____________.
A. Insects
B. Fractured columns
C. Ultrasonic frequencies
D. Vibration patterns
18. The phrase “pick up” could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. Perceive
B. Lift
C. Transmit
D. Attack
19. All of the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to
weakened trees EXCEPT ________.
A. Thermal changes
B. Smells
C. Sounds
D. Changes in color
103
20. It can be inferred from the passage that, at the time the passage was written,
research ____________.
A. Had been conducted many years previously
B. Had been unproductive up until then
C. Was continuing
D. Was no longer sponsored by the government
As new industrialism swept over the land in the wake of the Civil War, people flocked
to the nation’s cities in unprecedented numbers from rural regions, villages, and foreign
countries. Housing for the new city-dwellers took many forms as new architectural
styles were developed. During this period of urban expansion, speculative builders
discovered a bonanza in the form of row house. Designed for single-family occupancy,
these dwellings cost relatively little to construct because they shared common walls with
their neighbors and because many could be erected side by side on a narrow street
frontage. Along New York’s gridiron of streets and avenues rose block after block of
row houses, which, by the 1880s, were almost invariably faced with brownstone. In
contrast, wooden row houses on the West Coast appeared light and airy with their coats
of bright paint. San Francisco developed a particularly successful row vernacular,
suitable for rich and poor alike, as typified by clusters of homes like the Rountree group,
which featured Queen Anne elements in their pitched roofs and heavily decorated
exteriors. Although critics likened the facades of such structures to the “puffing, paint,
and powder of our female friends”, the houses were efficiently planned, sanitary, and
well-lighted. Virtually every dwelling boasted one or more bay windows, which were
as important to sun-loving San Franciscans as brownstone fronts were to New Yorkers.
As an English traveler observed, California architecture, “with all the windows
gracefully leaping out at themselves”, should rightly be called the “bay-window order”.
21. The main purpose of the author in this passage is ____________.

A. To contrast two versions of a similar architectural form
B. To persuade people to live in row houses
C. To argue for the excellence of California row houses
D. To describe the effects of urbanization
22. The phrase “a bonanza” in the passage is closest in meaning __________.
A. A confusing choice
B. A difficult challenge
C. An exciting design
D. A good investment
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23. The phrase “almost invariably” in the passage is closest in meaning to ___.
A. Usually
B. Seldom
C. Sometimes
D. Never
24. Why did the speculative builders profit from row houses?
A. Because they cost very little to build
B. Because they were for single families
C. Because they were well-constructed
D. Because they were attractive
25. All of the following can be inferred about row houses from passage EXCEPT__
A. They provided for high-density housing
B. They housed people of different economic classes
C. They provided a new and popular form of architectural design
D. They had no front yards
26. The phrase “such structures” in the passage refers to __________.
A. West Coast wooden row houses
B. The poor people’s houses
C. The homes in the Rountree group
D. Queen Anne’s home
27. What can be inferred from the passage about New York row houses?
A. They were less colorful than row houses on the West Coast
B. They were windowless
C. They were smaller than California row houses
D. They were less similar in appearance than row houses in California
28. In the passage, critics of California row houses commented on their________.
A. Excessive use of bay windows
B. Ostentatious decoration
C. Repetitive nature
D. Lack of light
29. The word “boasted” in the passage is used to indicate the owners’__________.
A. Skill
B. Wealth
C. Intelligence
D. Pride
30. The most important feature for Californians living in row houses was ______.
A. The color
B. The price
C. The windows
D. The heavily decorated exteriors
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Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living
things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of
flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large
quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures
of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert hasn’t eliminated life but only those forms unable
to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist-skinned, water-loving animals can exist
there. Few large animals are found: the giants of the North American desert are the deer,
the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed,
running, and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal,
silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having
adapted to their austere environment, they’re as healthy as animals anywhere in the world.
The secret of their adjustment lies in a combination of behavior and physiology. None
could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many
would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool,
humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of
the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature
is only 60 degrees.
An example of a desert animal that has adapted to subterranean living and lack of water
is the kangaroo rat. Like many desert animals, kangaroo rats stay underground during
the day. At night, they go outside to look for food. As evening temperatures drop,
moisture from the air forms on plants and seeds. They absorb some of this moisture and
kangaroo rats take in the life-giving water as they eat.
31. What is the topic of this passage?
A. Desert plants
B. Life underground
C. Animal life in a desert environment
D. Man’s life in the desert
32. The word “greater” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.
A. Stronger
B. Larger
C. More noticeable
D. Heavier
33. The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following
EXCEPT___.
A. Water-loving animals
B. The bobcat
C. Moist-skinned animals
D. Many large animals
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34. The word “desiccating” in the passage means __________.
A. Drying
B. Humidifying
C. Killing
D. Life-threatening
35. All of the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT___.
A. Animals sleep during the day
B. Animals dig homes underground
C. Animals are noisy and aggressive
D. Animals are watchful and quiet
36. The word “emaciated” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.
A. Wild
B. Cunning
C. Unmanageable
D. Unhealthy
37. One characteristic of animals who live in the desert is that they __________.
A. Are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. Are less healthy than animals who live in different places
C. Can hunt in temperatures of 150 degrees
D. Live in an accommodating environment
38. The word “subterranean” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.
A. Underground
B. Safe
C. Precarious
D. Harsh
39. The word “they” in the passage refers to __________.
A. Kangaroo rats
B. The desert population
C. Plants and seeds
D. The burrows of desert animals
40. Which of the following generalizations are supported by the passage?
A. Water is the basis of life
B. All living things adjust to their environments
C. Desert life is colorful
D. Healthy animals live longer lives
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PAPER 3: WRITING
Number of tasks: 2
TASK 1
You received a letter from your friend, Henry. Read part of his letter below.
One of my hobbies is watching TV. Sometimes I can spend my

whole day watching TV. Could you tell me about your favorite
TV program? What is it about? How much TV do you watch
every day? Do people in your country watch too much TV
these days?
Write a letter answering your friend’s question.
and Grammar).
TASK 2
Nowadays, keeping pets in many families is growing in
popularity. Some people claim that having a pet offers many
benefits, while others are opposed to this idea.
answer.
and Grammar).

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PAPER 4: SPEAKING
Number of tasks: 3
Let’s talk about leisure activities
- Where do you usually go in your spare time?
- Are there many interesting places where you live for people to go to at weekends?
- In what way is the café a great place for people to enjoy their free time?
Let’s talk about your best friend
- What does your best friend look like?
- How did you meet your best friend?
- In your opinion, what is the best quality of a good friend?
Situation: Your friend is going to have his first date this weekend. He would like you
to give advice on where to go. There are THREE options for you to choose from: a
restaurant, a cinema or a shopping mall. Which do you think is the best place for the
first date?
Topic: Airplane is the best transport means to travel long distance
Time-saving
Save AIRPLANE Your own ideas
Comfortable
- Do you think airplane is the most important transport means of all time? Why/Why
not?
- Are there any disadvantages of traveling by airplane?
- What are some ways that airlines could improve the flying experience for passengers?
109
TEST 5
PAPER 1: LISTENING
your answer sheet.
A. Breakfast
B. Lunch
C. Dinner
D. All
110
1. Where would you probably hear this announcement?
A. In a moving van
B. In a school
C. In an office building
D. In an office supply shop
2. Where would someone hear this message?
A. A newspaper company
B. A journalist
C. A telephone company
D. A law firm
3. How long are the classes?
A. In 45 minutes
B. In an hour
C. In an hour and a half
D. In two hours
4. What should Jen do tomorrow?
A. Turn her cell phone back on
B. Check her email, even if it is at home
C. Make sure she gets an office address
D. Give people her new contact information
5. What is the purpose of this announcement?
A. To discuss the news
B. To give information
C. To ask for help
D. To demand a report
6. What is the main point of this announcement?
A. To welcome visitors
B. To ask people to leave soon
C. To tell people about the exhibition
D. To ask people to come
7. Who is Gary Reynolds?
A. A security officer
B. An airline pilot
C. A flight attendant
D. An airline employee
8. What does the woman recommend the listeners to do?
A. Go to the website
B. Go back to their rooms
C. Talk to the hotel manager
D. Wait for more information
111

9. What is the main topic of this conversation?
A. How to get a better grade in the class
B. How to write a better essay
C. How to write a paragraph
D. How to organize an essay
10. According to Professor Smith, what is important for essay writing?
A. Many good ideas
B. Strong introduction
C. Summary
D. Organization
11. How many parts are there in an essay?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
12. What are the functions of the body paragraphs?
A. To summarize the main ideas
B. To provide examples and ideas
C. To provide evidence and details
D. To give main ideas for an essay

A. Taking a math test
B. Getting a tutor
C. Taking a midterm test
D. Having a part-time job
14. What does the man ask the woman to do?
A. Help him finish his homework
B. Tutor him with a subject at school
C. Teach him English
D. Find him a good math teacher
112
15. What will happen if the students cheat?
A. They will be expelled from school
B. They cannot take the final exam
C. They will be fined
D. They will have to study again
16. Which of the following can the tutor NOT do for the student?
A. The learning strategies
B. Taking notes
C. Homework
D. Learning tips

A. Ways a student can make up for missed lectures
B. How to avoid getting sick and missing school
C. How to get a scholarship
D. How to get high scores
18. Why did the woman miss the lesson?
A. Because of her sickness
B. Because of the accident
C. Because of the severe weather
D. Because of her laziness
19. What does the woman want the man to do for her?
A. Lend her his notes
B. Give her an extension
C. Give her a scholarship
D. Explain the lessons
20. What should the woman probably do next?
A. Go on a vacation
B. Go to the library to do some research
C. Hang out with her classmates
D. Apply for a scholarship
113
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following conversation.

21. What is the student’s problem?
A. He didn’t do well on his final exam
B. He didn’t do all his coursework
C. He missed too many classes
D. He moved away from the school
22. What does the student want the professor to do?
A. He wants her to give him a new test
B. He wants an immediate change of grade
C. He wants her to let him take the class again
D. He wants her to give him an incomplete in the class
23. What is the professor’s solution to the student’s problem?
A. He has to write 2 critical essays
B. He has to fill out a lot of paperwork
C. He has to watch all of Shakespeare’s plays
D. He has to read all Shakespeare’s plays
24. How long does the man need to finish his task?
A. 2 weeks
B. 3 weeks
C. 4 weeks
D. 5 weeks
25. What is the student’s attitude toward the solution?
A. Relieved
B. Disappointed
C. Shocked
D. Ungrateful
Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following lecture

26. Why does the student go to the tutoring center?
A. Because she doesn’t have a clue how to use a computer
B. Because she wants to help put her presentation together
C. Because she’s never used the presentation viewer program before
D. Because she’s nervous about speaking in front of people
114
27. What does the man mean when he says: “Is your presentation just text or do
you want to use visuals with all the bells and whistles?”
A. He wants to know if her presentation will have graphics and animation
B. He wants to know if she needs a whistle
C. He wants to know if she needs a timer
D. He wants to know if she needs sound
28. What does the man say about using the presentation viewer program?
A. It is an easy program to use
B. It is a very complicated program
C. It is not part of the tutoring subject at the center
D. It doesn’t have as many interesting features as the word processing
29. What is the student concerned about?
A. Researching her topic
B. Working with the computer
C. Speaking in front of other people
D. How to operate the power source on her computer
30. What does she advise the student to bring to the tutoring session?
A. Her research paper
B. Her outline
C. The program
D. Her laptop

31. What is the focus of the lecture?
A. Doug Levere’s re-photography of Abbott’s work
B. Berenice Abbott’s Changing New York project
C. Two examples of photography supported by the FAP
D. The effect of the Depression on Berenice Abbot’s work
32. According to the professor, why was Abbott a good candidate for the FAP?
A. She had already been documenting America
B. She had a fresh perspective due to her recent return
C. She was willing to change her approach to fit the FAP
D. She was a widely recognized figure in the art world
33. Based on the lecture, what artistic characteristics did Abbott reject in her art?
A. Modern urban life
B. Depiction of older buildings
C. Meticulous composition
D. Rural settings and landscapes
115
34. What did Abbott do to “keep the life in her shots”?
A. Use a hand-held camera
B. Include random people in the frame
C. Frame scenes of urban activity
D. Juxtapose old and new buildings
35. What is the professor’s attitude toward Levere’s re-photography of Abbott’s
work?
A. Concerned
B. Unimpressed
C. Disappointed
D. Complimentary
116
PAPER 2: READING
More than 2 billion people use mobile phones today. In many places, it’s more common
to use a mobile phone, or cell phone, than a landline. Mobile phones are especially
popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of
communication-having a mobile phone shows that are cool and connected. The
explosion in mobile phone use around the world has some health professionals worried.
Some doctors are concerned that in the future, people may suffer health problems from
using mobile phones. Even now, there are people who claim that their mobile phones
are making them sick. In one case, a young salesman had to stop working because of
serious memory loss. He couldn’t remember even simple things. He would often forget
the name of his own child. The man used to talk on his mobile phone for six hours a
day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his
mobile phone use, but his employer’s doctor disagreed.
Of course, mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such
stories. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health. While
there still isn’t any proof that mobile phones are bad for your health, neither is there any
proof that mobile phones aren’t bad for your health. Research has shown that using
mobile phones affects brain activity, but it isn’t clear why or what effect it might have
over the long term.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation.
Radiation happens when one object sends heat or energy to other objects. Heat radiation
from the sun, for example, is heat sent from the sun to the earth. High-tech machines
can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. The amount of radiation
from mobile phones falls between the lower amounts that radio waves produce and the
higher amount that microwaves make.
It’s a fact that some radiation comes from mobile phones. While mobile phone
companies agree with this fact, they say the amount is too small to worry about. Some
scientists, however, disagree. They say we still don’t know if small amounts of radiation
117
over a long period of time can cause health problems.
As the debate about the safety of mobile phones continues, you might want to take some
advice from scientists. Use your mobile phone only when you really need to. Keep your
telephone calls short. Turn your phone off when you aren’t using it. When you do use it
for long calls, try using earbuds instead of holding the phone to your ear. In the future,
mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for
now, be careful.
1. This article is primarily about ____________.

A. The possible dangers of mobile phone use
B. Why mobile phones are popular
C. How mobile phones work
D. How bad radio waves are
2. The author’s purpose in writing the article was to ____________.
A. Convince people that mobile phones may be dangerous
B. Convince people that mobile phones aren’t dangerous
C. Convince people to buy mobile phones
D. Convince people to use ear-buds
3. What device do people rarely use?
A. Cellphones
B. Televisions
C. Mobile phones
D. Landline
4. Which one is NOT the mentioned influence of mobile phone use on human life?
A. Sudden explosion
B. Sickness
C. Intense memory loss
D. Social relationship
5. According to the passage, what makes cell phone potentially harmful?
A. Heat
B. Radiation
C. Hi-tech machines
D. Radio waves
6. Where is radiation NOT possibly from?
A. Sun heat
B. Mobile phones
C. Certain machines
D. Waves
118
7. According to paragraph 4, ____________.
A. A mobile phone sends out more radiation than a microwave
B. A mobile phone sends out less radiation than a radio
C. A radio sends out less radiation than a mobile phone
D. A mobile phone and radio send an equal amount of radiation
8. The word “health professionals” is the closest meaning to ______________.
A. Doctors
B. Teachers
C. Scientists
D. Politicians
9. The word “they” refers to ______________.
A. Mobile phones
B. Ear-buds
C. Telephone calls
D. Warning labels
10. That mobile phone companies ____________.
A. Are trying to prove that mobile phones are not dangerous to your health
B. Are worrying about the negative impact of radiation
C. Have proof that mobile phones are not dangerous to your health
D. Think that information about health problems might hurt their business
It was love at first sight. It’s always exciting to hear those words. But do people really
believe in love at first sight? We asked 40 Americans this question - 18 men and 22
women. Thirteen people (32%) said they believed in love at first sight; 27 people (68%)
said they didn’t.
Next, we wanted to find out who believed in love at first sight and who didn’t. We were
surprised to find that both younger and older people believed they could fall in love in
a few short seconds. We also learned that people from many different professions had
love-at-first-sight experiences. These people included a scientist, an artist, a dancer, and
a computer programmer.
What was the most interesting thing we learned in our study? More men than women
believed in love at first sight: 44% of the men believed in this kind of love, while only
27% of the women did. Here’s what some of the men and women in our survey said
about love at first sight.
John “Yes, I believe in love at first sight. It happened to me. I was at a party several
years ago when I saw Luisa. I knew she was the one for me when her eyes flashed back
at me. It was like they looked into my heart, read my life story, and said, ‘I like what I
see, and I want to be with you. That night at the party, I went over to Luisa and asked
her to dance. She said ‘Of course, I was waiting for you to ask? That was three years
119
ago, and we’re still together.”
Mark “I didn’t use to believe in love at first sight, but now I do. About four years ago,
I was giving a sales presentation when this amazing woman walked into the room. We
made eye contact, and my heart started beating faster. After my presentation, I
introduced myself, and she and I went out for dinner the next night. We talked and
talked, and by the end of the evening, I was truly in love with her. That feeling of love
at first sight was like nothing else. In just a few seconds, I was filled with intense energy
and passion. Anne and I got married a year later.”
Emily “No, I don’t believe in love at first sight. Love comes later in a relationship.
When I met my boyfriend, I felt something tingly. I guess you could call it puppy love,
but it wasn’t true love. It took about a year for true love to develop between us.”
Carol “Do I believe in love at first sight? No, not really. Love is based on trust and
shared experiences and values. Love takes time to develop. You fall in love slowly by
talking to a special person, writing him love letters, fighting, making up. The key to love
is staying excited about the other person, month after month, year after year.”
Sarah “I don’t think love at first sight happens very often, but of course, it still happens
sometimes. It makes me happy to think that it might happen to me. If I didn’t believe
love, at first sight, was possible, it would be really depressing.”
11. This reading is primarily about __________.

A. The difference between love and friendship
B. Whether or not people believe in love at first sight
C. How true love develops
D. Those who have similar occupations would possibly love at the first sight
12. Which statement is TRUE about the people in the study?
A. 32% of the men and women don’t believe in love at first sight
B. 56% of the men believe in love at first sight
C. 27% of the women believe in love at first sight
D. 44% of the women believe in love at first sight
13. We know for certain that John and Luisa ___________.
A. Are married
B. Met three years ago
C. Are going to get married
D. Read the romance stories together
14. How did Mark feel when he saw his beloved?
A. Depressed
B. Hopeful
C. Excited
D. Confused
120
15. Among these following people, who believe in love at first sight?
A. John, Mark, and Sarah
B. Mark, Emily, and Sarah
C. John, Mark, and Carol
D. Mark, Emily, Carol
A. Emily has had a love-at-first-sight experience
B. Anne is in love with Mark
C. John, Emily, and Carol are very good friends
D. Sarah was depressed due to love at the first sight
17. Who could be a salesperson?
A. John
B. Mark
C. Emily
D. Sarah
18. Who tends to write something romantic when they are in love?
A. Emily
B. Carol
C. Sarah
D. John
19. The phrase “puppy love” in the passage refers ____________.
A. A kind of true love
B. A kind of love happens at the very young age
C. A kind of love happen between cute animals
D. A kind of one-year lasting relationship
20. What does she mean when saying “I met my boyfriend, I felt something tingly”?
A. She’s got a normal feeling
B. She’s got an exciting feeling
C. She’s got an annoying feeling
D. She’s got a welcoming feeling
The influx of Americans into Oregon in the 1840s ignited a dispute between Britain and
the United States that, in its more intemperate phases, was accompanied by shrill
demands in both countries for war. The argument originated in the fact that the
boundaries of Oregon had never been clearly fixed.
The name vaguely embraced the territory west of the Rockies between the northern
boundary of Mexican-held California and the southern edge of Russian-held Alaska,
which at the time extended south to parallel 54°40’. In 1818, when America proposed a
boundary at the 49th parallel an extension of the border with Canada that already existed
121
east of the Rockies and the British suggested a line farther south, statesmen of both
nations avoided the resulting impasse by agreeing to accept temporary “joint
occupancy”.
But by the early 1840s, the issue could no longer be avoided: Oregon fever and Manifest
Destiny had become potent political forces. Though many eastern Americans considered
Oregon country too remote to become excited about, demands for its occupation were
shouted with almost religious fervor. Senator Thomas Hart Benton, for one, urged
Congress to muster “thirty or forty thousand American rifles beyond the Rocky
Mountains that will be our effective negotiators.”
The Democratic Party made “54°40’ or fight”, an issue of the 1844 Presidential election,
and just managed to install James K. Polk, an ardent expansionist, in the White House.
But despite their seeming intransigence, neither Polk nor the British government wanted
to fight. And just about the time that Polk learned that the land lying north of the 49th
parallel was useless for agriculture, the British decided the American market for goods
was worth far more than Oregon’s fast dying fur trade. So they quietly settled for the
49th parallel, the boundary that the United States had proposed in the first place.
21. What is the main idea of this passage?

A. The disagreement over the boundaries of Oregon was peacefully solved
B. The United States wanted more land than it needed
C. Politicians in 1840 favored war with Britain
D. The United States ended up by sharing Oregon with Canada
22. The word “intemperate” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.
A. Untimely
B. Initial
C. Immoderate
D. Uninformed
23. The word “fixed” is closest in meaning to __________.
A. Repaired
B. Adjusted
C. Built
D. Established
24. The word “remote” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.
A. Far away
B. Dangerous
C. Large
D. Uninteresting
122
25. The confrontation with Britain over Oregon boundaries came to a head in the
early 1840s for all the following reasons EXCEPT __________.
A. More people were living in Oregon at that time
B. The expansionists made the situation a political issue
C. All people were united in favoring the expansion
D. Manifest Destiny was a major political force at this time
26. The word “ardent” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.
A. Superficial
B. Enthusiastic
C. Old
D. Moderate
27. The word “they” in the passage refers to ________.
A. The Americans
B. The British and the Americans
C. The British
D. The Democratic Party
28. It can be inferred from the passage that Senator Thomas Hart Benton _______.
A. Was a temperate man
B. Supported the occupation of Oregon by force
C. Felt negotiation was the best policy
D. Proposed and approved the final boundary decision
29. The 49th parallel was accepted by both parties in the border dispute for all of
the following reasons EXCEPT _________.
A. The dying fur trade in Oregon
B. The attraction of the American market for goods
C. The condition of the land north of 49°
D. The desire for a good fight
30. It can be inferred from the passage that in the final boundary, settlement the
United States __________.
A. Got the land that it had originally demanded
B. Got less land than it had originally demanded
C. Got more land than it had originally demanded
D. Had no interest in the land involved in the dispute
123
For all their great diversity of shapes and sizes, glaciers can be divided into two essential
types: valley glaciers, which flow downhill from mountains and are shaped by the
constraints of topography, and ice sheets, which flow outward in all directions from
domelike centers of accumulated ice to cover vast expanses of terrain. Whatever their
type, most glaciers are remnants of great shrouds of ice that covered the earth eons ago.
In a few of these glaciers, the oldest ice is very ancient indeed; the age of parts of the
Antarctic sheet may exceed 500,000 years.
Glaciers are born in rocky wombs above the snow line, where there’s sufficient winter
snowfall and summer cold for snow to survive the annual melting. The long gestation
period of a glacier begins with the accumulation and gradual transformation of
snowflakes. Soon after they reach the ground, complex snowflakes are reduced to
compact, roughly spherical ice crystals, and the basic components of a glacier. As new
layers of snow and ice, snow that survives the melting of the previous summer,
accumulate, they squeeze out most of the air bubbles trapped within and between the
crystals below. This process of recrystallization continues throughout the life of the
glacier.
The length of time required for the creation of glacier ice depends mainly upon the
temperature and the rate of snowfall. In Iceland, where snowfall is heavy and summer
temperatures are high enough to produce plenty of melt water, glacier ice may come
into being in a relatively short time say, ten years. In parts of Antarctica, where snowfall
is scant and the ice remains well below its melting temperature year-round, the process
may require hundreds of years.
The ice doesn’t become a glacier until it moves under its own weight, and it can’t move
significantly until it reaches a critical thickness the point at which the weight of the
piled-up layers overcomes the internal strength of the ice and the friction between the
ice and the ground. This critical thickness is about 60 feet. The fastest-moving glaciers
have been gauged at not much more than two and a half miles per year, and some cover
less than 1/100 inches in that same amount of time. But no matter how infinitesimal the
flow, movement is what distinguishes a glacier from a mere mass of ice.
31. This passage mainly discusses ____________.

A. The size and shape of glaciers
B. The formation of glaciers
C. Why glaciers move
D. Two types of glaciers
32. The word “constraints” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. Restrictions
B. Height
C. Beauty
124
D. Speed
33. Why does the author mention the Antarctic ice sheet in the first paragraph?
A. It is a slow-moving glacier
B. One would expect glaciers in this part of the world
C. It contains some of the oldest ice in existence
D. It is an example of a well-formed ice sheet
34. To describe the development of glaciers, the author uses the analogy of ______.
A. Birth
B. Snowflakes
C. Crystals
D. Iceland
35. The phrase “this process” in the passage refers to ________.
A. Air bubbles being trapped below
B. Snow and ice compressing the ice crystals
C. Formation of ice from the snow that is about to melt
D. Melting of summer snow
36. The word “trapped” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. Enclosed
B. Hunted
C. Formed
D. Stranded
37. What is one of the differences between valley glaciers and ice sheets?
A. Ice sheets move faster than valley glaciers
B. While valley glaciers flow downhill, ice sheets flow in all
C. Valley glaciers are thicker than ice sheets because of the restricting land formations
D. Valley glaciers are not as old as ice sheets
38. What does “it” in the passage refer to ________.
A. Glacier
B. Weight
C. Ice
D. Critical thickness
39. The word “significantly” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. Quickly
B. Naturally
C. Thoroughly
D. Notably
40. According to the passage, the characteristic that identifies a glacier is ______.
A. The critical thickness of the ice
B. The amount of ice accumulated
C. The movement of the ice
125
D. The weight of the ice
126
PAPER 3: WRITING
Number of tasks: 2
TASK 1
You received a letter from your friend, Kathy. Read part of her letter below.
In your next letter, don’t forget to tell me about your favorite

food? What ingredients is it made of? How often do you
enjoy it? And why do you like it?
Write a letter replying to your friend’s letter.
and Grammar).
TASK 2
Some people say that computers have made life easier and
more convenient. Other people say that computers have
made life complex and stressful. What is your opinion?
answer.
and Grammar).

127
PAPER 4: SPEAKING
Number of tasks: 3
Let’s talk about social networks
- Do you like social networks?
- What kinds of social networks are you using now? Why/ Why not?
- What is your advice for social network users?
Let’s talk about fashion
- How important is fashion to you?
- What sorts of clothes do you prefer to wear?
- Do you ever have to wear things you don’t really like? Why/ Why not?
Situation: Your friend would like you to give him/her some advice on how to lose
weight. There are THREE options for you to choose from: skipping meals, using drugs
or exercising regularly. Which do you think is the best choice?
Topic: Things that affect people’s job satisfaction
Qualifications
JOB
Attitude to work Your own ideas
SATISFACTION
Relationship with
colleagues
- Do you think companies should promote workers who are experienced?
- Do you think that workers should change companies often? Why/Why not?
- What is better motivated for workers? Salary or working condition?
128
REFERENCES
[1] Cambridge University Press, (2006). Cambridge exams extra - PET. Cambridge:
Cambridge University Press.
[2] Cobuild, (2012). Collins skills for the TOEIC test for Listening and Reading.
London: Collins.
[3] Edmunds, P. &Taylor, A., (2014). Developing skills for the Toeic test. Ho Chi Minh
City General Publishing House.
[4] Hashemi, L. & Thomas, B., (2010). Objective PET. Cambridge: Cambridge
University Press.
[5] Lam, L.H. et al. (2020). Tài liệu luyện thi tổng hợp VSTEP BẬC 3 (B1). Ho Chi
Minh City General Publishing House.
[6] Lee, L. & Gundersen, E., (2011). Select readings. New York: Oxford University
Press.
[7] Macgillivray, M., Yancey, P. & Zeter, J., (2009). Mastering skills for the TOEFL
iBT. Compass Publishing.
[8] Malarcher, C. & Janzen, A., (2010). Reading challenge 2. Compass Publishing.
[9] Quintana, J. (2013). Pet practice tests: Five tests for the Cambridge preliminary
english test. Oxford University Press.
[10] Richards, J., (2011). Basic tactics for listening. New York: Oxford University Press.
[11] Taylor, A., Byrne, G., Chadwick, M. & Robinson, S., (2019). Very easy TOEIC.
Compass Publishing.
[12] Tu, N.T. et al. (2017). VSTEP Collection 20 Mock Test. Ho Chi Minh City
University of Education Publishing House.
129
130

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60

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND TRAINING

FOR INTERNAL USE ONLY

2. Type 2: Factual information

3. Type 3: Negative factual information

4. What can be inferred about beer-making techniques in ancient Egypt?

Greeting Dear Ann,

3. Tips for writing a letter

III. WRITING AN ESSAY (WRITING TASK 2)

FREE TIME HOLIDAYS

SHOPPING KEEPING FIT

Appropriate language Sample sentence frames

Contrast …is…different than…because…

3. Part 3: Topic development

Access the internet

Relax after the

Make new friends

Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation

Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation

Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation

Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following conversation

Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following talk

Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following talk

31. Peter enjoys mountain biking because ___________.

Provide new learning

Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation

Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation

Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation

Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following talk

Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following talk

Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following talk

1. This reading is primarily about ____________.

11. What does the passage mainly discuss?

21. The topic of this passage is ___________.

31. What is the main idea of this passage?

This is the end of the writing paper.

Time-consuming EXAMINATIONS Your own ideas

Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation

Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation.

Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation

Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following conversation

Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following conversation

Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following professor’s talk

1. In London, how many percent of food is imported?

11. Ching-He is originally from__________.

21. The main idea of this passage is ___________.

31. What is the author’s purpose in writing this passage?

In some countries, many more people are choosing to live alone

This is the end of the writing paper.

Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation

Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation

Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation

Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following conversation

Questions 26 to 30 refer to the following lecture

Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following professor’s talk

1. The article ____________.

11. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

21. The main purpose of the author in this passage is ____________.

One of my hobbies is watching TV. Sometimes I can spend my

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Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation

Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation