10/06/2021 MM : 720 1 @) 2 (3) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6 (4) 7 (3) 8 (2) 9. 2) 10, (2) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. 3) 15. (2) 16. (1) 17. @) 18, (3) 18. (2) 20. (3) 21. (4) 22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (3) 29. (3) 30. (2) 31. 2) 32, (3) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35, (3) 36. (3) 37. 38. 39. 40, 44 42, 43, 44, 45, 46. 47. 48, 49, 50. 51 52, 53, 54, 55. 56. 87. 58. 59. 60, 6t 62, 63. 64, 65, 66. 67. 68, 69, 70, 1 72 (2) (2) 3) 2) (3) 3) (1) (3) 3) (4) (1) (3) (3) 2) (1) (4) (4) 3) (3) (4) a) (2) (4) 2) (4) (2) @) @) 3) (1) (1) (4) (2) @) a) (1) a Medical] IIT-JEE| Foundations Test -1 Answer Key 73. (1) 74, (2) 75. 3) 76. (4) 77. (4) 78. (3) TI2) 80. (1) 81. (1) 82. (4) 83. (2) 84. (1) 86. (3) 86. (1) 87, (2) 88. (4) 89. (4), 90.. (1), 912014) 92. 3) 93. (4) 94, (4) 95. (3) 96. (3) 97. (3) 98, (2) 99. (4) 100. (3) 101.(3) 402. (1) 103.(4) 104, (3) 105. (3) 108. (3) 407.(1) 108. (3) Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456 ‘ash Tower, 8, Pusa Ro: Regd. Office: Aaks FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2021 109.(1) 110. (2) 111.2) 112.(1), 113. (2) 114.(2) 115. (3) 116.(2) 117.(1) 118. (4) 119. (4) 120. (1) 121:(3) 4122. (3) 123.(2) 124. (3) 125.(2) 126.(4) 127-14) 128.2) 129. (3) 130. (2) 131.) 132.(1) 133. (2) 134.(3) 135.(4) 136. (4) 197. (4) 138. (3) 139. (4) 140, (2) 141. (3) 142. (2) 143, (2) 144. (2) CODE-A Time : 3.00 Hrs, 145, (3) 146. (4) 147. (2) 148, (2) 149. (1) 150. (3) 151. (4) 152. (2) 183. (2) 154. (1) 155. (4) 156. (3) 187. (3) 158. (2) 189, (2) 160. (2) 161. (2) 162. (2) 163.(1) 164. (3) 165. (4) 166.(1) 167. (4) 168. (3) 169. (4) 170, (4) 171.2) 172. (1) 173. (1) 174. (3) 175. (3) 176, (2) 177.(1) 178. (4) 179. (3) 180. (2) (1)10/06/2021 MM : 720 ® Aakash Medicall IIT-JEE| Foundations Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2021 Test -1 CODE-A Time : 3:00 Hrs. 1. Answer (4) Frictional force and tension electromagnetic in nature. 2. Answer (3) in. string (2% : =2 2 2 1 1.28«107 o fa, 1) 30" 780 2% 10° m 3. Answer (4) Pressure gradient =P__F MU Lo AxL PL 4. Answer (1) (l=) we “(ed [Mer TET] = (MT) fa] =[MUT?] ’ WI) 22) 2). =MUT- ptm 5. Answer (2) I= 1,-[, =5.62-4,34=1.28 em Al=2(Ah+Al)= + (0.014-0.02) = +0.03 Percentage error= 993,199 = + 2.34% 128 are 6 10. ‘Answer (4) Accurate measurement may have less precision. Answer (3) M7893 Va. ta By rule of division in. significant (least significant digit taken) 7.1754 gom® p=72g om ‘Answer (2) Pitch 4 Least count = =—imm = 0.01 m east count = ZC = mm = 0.01 mm Observed diameter = 1 mm + 39 « 0.01 mm = 1.39 mm Corrected diameter of wire = 1.39 mm + 0.05 mm, = 1.44 mm Answer (2) Thin strip at the back of Vernier caliper, is used to ‘measure the depth of cylinder. ‘Answer (2) n= Mat Ah. 2at not (u=0) he Yoxgxt? = Yox98%2? =19.6 m Ah 2,04 Ah=1.96 m a6 2FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2021 Test-t (Code-A)_ (Hints & Solutions) " 12. 13. 14. 16. Answer (3) speed of boat /elocity of river x= distance between spots For downsteam u+v =% For upstream 10x « 10x Answer (4) Effective distance up in 2s = 2.em ‘So, 18 cm up moved in 18 s Next time, insect moves 6 cm and reachés into’ hole without sliding back and took = 1s T=18s+1s=198 ‘Answer (3) = Sat 120 495 fe 10 Distance covered by jeep = 30 x 12 = 360m Answer (3) From point poet, 207 2520 Height fom gon «20425 = 45, pnwvee 2) t lt soom) | 4 of projection up. =20m For dropped ball x= Fxgxt? = 4.9 t= time of meet, For upward motion toe 100 - x) = 401-4 gf ( ) 32" 16. 17 18 19, 20 24 22, 23, = 100-401 = t-258 x =4.9x(2.5)° =30.62 m below top ‘Answer (1) Time of fight = 3 s (Si: So: Se: v= gt=10x3=30 ms Answer (2) Jav= fact 3:8) v2 _ fav fiot+ayat Spf saeg o 8 $x(4-0)+4(2-0) =6+8=14ms Answer (3) ‘Area of vt graph = Displacement (1447676 360 = 19 mis ‘Answer (3) av= fact Answer (4) v? = 494% a=} <0 mie onan) Answer (4) v = t graph will be straight line for uniformly accelerated motion, ‘Answer (2) (Aa) (3)Test-t (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29, 30. Answer (1) yeah dt 3 and 3i+4t] v, =4xt=4 at A tats tano 9 = 53° with x-axis Answer (3) In uniform circular motion. acceleration vector is ‘opposite to position vector. ‘Answer (3) R cc sin(20) for same u. R’_sin(90") _ Rsin30° Answer (3) = R’=2x30=60m ? 90x90 Retardation a=! = 2°80 6750s Fama = 0.046750 «270 N Answer) = »y ‘80.N don Unéer elu 7,80 = 80 Fisino=80 Fe 80 yf fesse” 807" § ons" Answer (3) ‘Angle of repose 8 is related to p. = tand = tan 37° Answer (2) For box T-f, =ma T= 0.05 * 20 x 10 = 208 (ty For hanging block 20-T=2%a (2) ‘Adding equation T-10+20-T =(20+2)a 10 a2 2 to-220 Ems 3t 32, 33, 34, 36. 36. 37, FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2021 ‘Answer (2) v? 20x20 ig 200%10 ‘Answer (3) Thrust from second law of Motion F—Mg = Ma F=M(g + a) = 10,000 x (9.8 + 2.2) = 10,000 x 12 = 120,000 = 120 KN Answer (1) As lift is moving down normal reaction on man is ‘equal to weighing machine reading Hie = = Ma N= Mg— Ma = 60 (9.8 - 2.3) = 60x75 N=450N Answer (1) ng =4-0.1x10=3 ms* as fe ‘a3 V3 e sobeagxt? t= 2 22s Answer (3) nos mis? a, =1.5 mis? a= at +a} =f(2.5)° +(1.5)° = V5 = 2.9 mis? Answer (3) |p| = 2mu [aa] _ 2mu _ 2%0.26%10 “Mt oor ON Answer (2) Static friction is self-adjusting and its maximum, value is limiting friction. So kinetic friction which is constant can even be more than static friction. But static friction depends on nature of surfaces in contact (4)FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2021 38. Answer (2) mv2 _ mv3 4 a tk 39. Answer (3) F = far = [Matxax = Mat er 2 1 2 Fa 3x2x3( =3N 40. Answer (2) —>a From free body diagram ——> 1 kg h=4N 4=txa .a=d4mist By FBD for system ms? a2 >a FE F=(4+2+1)x4 F=28N 41. Answer (3) T<0—>7, Th= Te= mro? Te=m(3ra® = —*} 30 T, = 3mra? T, = mre? 4 3mra? = 4mra? Amro? Ty 3mre* 46. Answer (4) h Angular momentum =f+1) = Jae z (For d orbital, |= 2) Test-t (Code-A)_ (Hints & Solutions) 42. Answer (3) ‘The mass is under equilibrium with spring T= Spring balance reading = 5 x g x sin 53° 4 =50x4=40N 50x = 40 43, Answer (1) 2-0 ax + Velocity | =1] at t= 2s changes from 2-0 1 mis to ~1 mis Impulse j = Ap = 2mv =2x0.5x1=1Ns 44. Answer (3) Frictional force = Weight of person (no slipping) HN = mg HF, = mg jumRo® > mg 9 Ro® = Ro 45. Answer (3) Bin = 1 BO" 35 = 36.N a i 60% 4/5 =48N iodxn % +36 = 50 3 aon N= 14 newton osta 48-7 =5xa a-4t-a2ms? 5 47. Answer (1) For one electron species, all the orbitals of any shel have same energy means they are degenerated 48, Answer (3) For HsPOs, n-factor = 2 Normality _ 0.6 Molarity = "Ome actor (8)Test-t (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2021 49. 50. 51 52, 53, 54, 55. 56, 87, ‘Answer (3) Zeros between significant. two non-zero digits are Answer (2) Wyss = 0.1 then Nyo = 0.9 Molality (m) O41 - -—21__ 617m Wao (KG) 09x18 «10 Answer (1) g. eq, of metal = g. eg. of oxygen 100-32 _ 32 ey 8 Answer (4) Number of electrons = 225 10Ny 16 32 23 24 5 10% 6 x10? =1.2« 10% 16 Answer (4) For! = Answer (3) Radial nodes = ‘Angular nodes = | ‘Answer (3) Frequency: Radio waves < Microwaves < X-rays < prays ‘Answer (4) The kinetic energy of the photoelectrons depends upon the frequency of light. Answer (1) Element] % | Mole | Mole ratio |Simple| whole ratio ce (57.82 4 57.82 _ 4 9) | 4.82 2at H (36 3 3836 [3815 1 2ai © |38.58] 38.58 241 2 SO 2.41 |S at 16 2a =. Empirical formula = CsHsO2 58. 59. 60, 61 62, 63 64, 65, 66, 67. “Answer (2) Balmer series: n= 2, m= 3 1 (4-2) 36g 38 J erxarx(4-4) s x-Bor-% x RO eg] ROR x Lyman series: ny = 4,n 1. x ‘Answer (4) Bo" and 82 both have 3 electrons. ‘Answer (2) Concentration terms which involve volume of solution are temperature dependent ‘Answer (4) + Oz: Number of atoms = 22 x23Ny = 2Ny 32 + Hector ators 4M “1 + 60% Number teams 19 «0784 «Rumor ot ctoms «28 thy =01N4 Answer (2), Nive ews 0.1 ®V; = 0,001-% 2 «2 Vi=0.041 = 40 mi Answer (3) nn Rega romertum === 2h Answer (3) tos 1 Boy 2», tes [nee or obtained tymar ers arower@) gat z (Mody Maa Answer (1) ‘Atomic mass of an element tells us as how many times an atom of the element is heavier than ‘one-twelfth of an atom of carbon (C-12). Answer (1) Average atomic mass 14x + 15(100 - x) 100 x= 99.33% (6)Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-t (Code-A)_ (Hints & Solutions) 68. 69. 70. nm 72. 73, 74, 75, 76, 1 ‘Answer (4) 77. Answer (4) Mass of one molecule In 2 period, Ne has largest size due to van der Molarmass 180 22 wall radi extoe SIOG 78. Answer (3) sand pblock elements are known as ‘Answer (2) representative elements. C,H, +20, —>2c0, + 3H,0 79. Answer (2) 2 For 2p-orbital, the wave function increases with 73 7 distance, attains a maximum value and then Mole of Ox required = 2x5 = decreases. Volume of Or required at STP 80, Answer (1) . 7 e/m ratio of electron is 1.758820 * 10" C kg = Gerad 784 81. Answer (1) Answer (3) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle: Ax ap> Ch2Or is most acidic oxide among given options. * ‘Answer (1) 82. Answer (4) y Al the given phenomenons are justified by wave Motary (4) — 22D Wt.of solute x alam) 10 ature oflight Molar mass of solute 83. Answer (2) _4.9x1.98%10 _ 9 go uy Energy order: E2.(H) > Eze(Li) > E2s(Na) > Eae(K), es 84, Answer (1) ‘Answer (1) > =~ 3 2Hy(g) + Opa) > 2H,0 TAPE GL 5 Sex@hange by, 2exchange by 1 exchange by Initally, Smal 25mol s electron 1 electron 2 electron 3 finally, = - Smo | 85: Answer (3) Mass of water formed = 5 «18 = 909 If KE = K, then PE = 2K and total energy = ‘Answer (1) 86, Answer (1). eee ew Z= 110! Unn : Ununniium 1 ENaVa= NoVa 87. Answer (2) 1 x 50+ 2 x 100 = Ns(60 + 100) Group-1 Group-2 Group-13 Group-14 Ni= 1.68 N 7 : : . ‘Answer (2) ee IP:N>0>Be>B Na Mg Al si ‘Answer (3) 88. Answer (4) a0) ‘On moving down in s-block elements, ionization 3) energy generally decrease. XcroH aan e 0.21 89. Answer (4) 2) [8 Electronegativty order: S > P > B > Al A827 18. 90. Answer (1) ‘Answer (4) Nd(Z = 60), is Fblock element belongs to (AsgH): $ > Se> Te > 0 6° period BOTANY Answer (4) 92, Answer (3) Filamentous organisms muliply by fragmentation Each living organisms has consciousness. All of Unicellular organisms multiply by either fission or them can sense and respond to environmental budding cues 7Test-t (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2021 93, 94. 965, 96. 97. 98, 99, 100. 101. 102. 103. 104, 108. 108. 107. 108. 109. 110. ‘Answer (4) Both the words of a biological name should be printed in italics and underlined separately if handwritten, ‘Answer (4) Systematics includes evolutionary relationships ‘among organisms. Answer (3) ICBN stands for International Code for Botanical Nomenclature, Answer (3) ‘A museum has collection of preserved plant and animal specimens. Answer (3) ‘Wheat belongs to the order poales. Answer (2) Lion, leopard and tiger are all species of the genus Panthera Answer (4) The term phylum is used for animals, while division is used for plants. Answer (3) ‘Musca belongs to the order Diptera and humans belong to the class Mammalia. Answer (3) Member of kingdom Animalia do not have"¢ell wall Answer (1) Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments ‘which capture sunlight and synthesize food. Answer (4) ‘Typhoid is a bacterial disease Answer (3) Antibiotics are also produced by bacteria. ‘Answer (3) Nostoc is a BGA which has chlorophyll a, cell wall and fix atmospheric CO as well as Nz Answer (3) Methanogens are found in marshy areas. Answer (1) Protozoans and slime moulds are eukaryotic unicellular organisms, So they belong to kingdom Protista, Answer (3) Diatoms are chrysophytes. They are chief producers in the ocean. ‘Answer (1) Pellicle is seen in euglenoids. Answer (2) Paramoecium is a ciliated protozoan, m1 112, 113. 114. 116. 116. 17. 118. 119 120. 121 122 123. 124, 125. 126. 127 Answer (2) Red dinoflagellates multiply so rapidly that they make the sea appear red. Answer (1) Puccinia causes wheat rust. Red rot of sugarcane is caused by Colletotrichum. ‘Answer (2) Claviceps belongs to the class Ascomycetes and. the members of this class are called sac fungi ‘Answer (2) ‘Neurospora, a member of Ascomycetes is often ‘employed in biochemical and genetic work. Answer (3) + Trichoderma-Septate mycelium. + Colletotrichum — Lacks perfect (sexual) stage. + Saccharomyces - Unicelluar Answer (2) Basidiomycetes do not have sex organs but reproduce sexually by somatogamy. Answer (1) In the members of Ascomycetes, Basidiomycetes, and Deuteromycetes, the mycelium is septate. Answer (4) (Cuscuta is a parasitic plant. ‘Answer (4) Viruses are obligate parasites. They cannot replicate by their own, ‘Answer (1) Viroids are RNA particles, which are infectious to plants. ‘Answer (3) DNA sequencing is included in chemotaxonomy. Answer (3) Zoospores are motile spores which is the most ‘common asexual spore in algae. ‘Answer (2) Gymnosperms produce seeds but not flowers. Answer (3) Ulothrix and Spirogyra are filamentous. Chlorella is unicellular. Answer (2) Equisetum is homosporous. Answer (4) ‘Sphagnum is responsible for peat formation. Answer (4) Both mosses and ferns show haplo-diplontic life cycle and internal fertilization (8)Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-t (Code-A)_ (Hints & Solutions) 128. 129. 130. 131 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141, 142 143. 144. 145. ‘Answer (2) Bryophytes lack vascular tissues xylem and phloem, Answer (3) Fems lack ovule. Answer (2) In gymnosperms, gametophyles do not have an independent existence. ‘Answer (2) Selaginella and Lycopodium belong to the class Lycopsida, 132. Answer (1) Prothallus is multicellular. 133, Answer (2) Double fertilisation is seen in angiosperms only. 134, Answer (3) Egg apparatus is three celled structure ie., one egg cell and two synergids. 135, Answer (4) Ectocarpus is brown alga and Polysiphonia Is red alga. Both of them show haplo-diptontic life cycle. ‘Answer (4) Blood capillaries are present only in closed type of circulation, Heart, heart chambers and blood are present in both open type and closed type of circulation, Answer (4) Meandrina (brain coral) is a coelenterate having. tissue level of body organisation. Answer (3) Presence of stinging cells are characteristic feature of only coslenterates. Answer (4) Metameric segmentation Is not found in mollusés. Answer (2) Notochord is present only in some animals called chordates placed in phylum Chordata. Answer (3) Vertebrata is divided into two divisions : Agnatha and Gnathostomata. Agnatha includes single class — Cyclostomata and Gnathostomiata is further divided into two super classes ~ Pisces and Tetrapoda Answer (2) Cnidoblasts are exclusive cells present in phylum Coelenterata. Answer (2) Ctenophores exhibit external fertlization e.g., Pleurobrachia and Ctenoplana. Cartilaginous fishes, helminths and sponges show intemal fertilization. Answer (2) Phylum Aschelminthes includes roundworms and Annelida includes segmented worms. Answer (3) Members of phylum Annelida are considered as segmented worms. They are unisexual and exhibit sexual dimorphism. 148, Answer (4) In birds, lungs are responsible for gaseous exchange. Air sacs connected to lungs only supplement respiration and never participate in gaseous exchange. 147. Answer (2) Both compound eye and simple eye are present in members of this phylum. Legs and wings are thoracic appendages. True coelom is present. 148. Answer (2) Arthropoda is considered as largest phylum in Kingdom Animalia. 149, Answer (1) Radula is rasping organ for feeding and found only in most of the members of phylum Mollusca. 150. Answer (3) Torpedo is commonly known as electric fish. It is placed in class Chondrichthyes. Pisces is superclass for al true fishes. 151. Answer (4) Hydra is a freshwater polyp placed in phylum Coelenterata, 152, Answer (2) Hippocampus ~ Sea horse Betta - Aquarium fish Pterophyllum — Angel fish 153. Answer (2) Notochord persist in cartilaginous fishes and cephalochordates. Hyla is a tree frog. Pristis is commonly called Saw fish. Trygon is sting ray and Labeo is a freshwater bony fish. 154. Answer (1) Placoid scales are characteristic feature of carllaginous fishes. 155. Answer (4) Crop is not found in mammals. 9)Test-t (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2021 156. 187. 158. 169. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164, 165. 166. 167. Answer (3) Agnatha (jawless fishes) are also included in subphylum Vertebrata. Vertebral column is absent in protochordates, Answer (3) ‘Anal styles are present only in male cockroaches, ‘Answer (2) Head is connected with prothorax by an extension of prothorax called neck Answer (2) Hypopharynx is flexible median lobe situated in cavity surrounded by mouth parts. Answer (2) Posterior part of genital pouch in female cockroach is called vestibulum, Collaterial ducts, common oviducts and spermathecae open into genital chamber through their pores. ‘Answer (2) In male cockroach, the extemal genitalia are represented by 3 male gonapophyses or phallomeres which are chitinous asymmetrical structures surrounding the male gonopore. ‘Answer (2) Spermatheca are one pair in number, present in 6" abdominal segment of female cockroach, responsible for storage of sperms. Answer (1) Ootheca are dropped by female cockroach Usually in a crack or crevice of relative high humidity. Cockroaches contaminate food material. and act as mechanical vector for bacterial diseases. Answer (3) Trachea divides into tracheal tubes which are subdivided into tracheoles. Exchange of gases take place at the tracheoles by diffusion Answer (4) Pseudopenis is a part of left phallomere which holds female cockroach in position at the time of copulation. Itis not excretory in function. Answer (1) In epithelial tissue, cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix. Answer (4) Matrix of cartilage is solid and pliable. Lacunae are_present in matrix of both bones and cartilages. Bones interact with skeletal muscles attached with them. ga 168. 169. 170. im 172 173 174, 175. 176 17. 178. 179. 180. a ‘Answer (3) Compound epithelium is present on dry surface of skin and moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, etc. ‘Answer (4) Hormones are secretions of endocrine glands Answer (4) Neurons ae excitable cells. Answer (2) The epithelial junctions which are responsible for cementing of neighbouring cells together are called adhering junction. ‘Answer (1) The connective tissue fibres do not show conductivity. In all connective tissue except blood, cells secrete matrix and fibres of structural proteins such as collagen and elastin Answer (1) Adipose tissue contains fat storing cells (adipocytes) in which nucleus is placed towards periphery due to deposition of fat in the central part of the cell Answer (3) Ligaments and tendons are examples of dense regular connective tissué in which collagen fbres are present in rows between many parallel bundles of fibres. ‘Answer (3) Muscle fibres have ability to contract and relax after receiving a stimulus. ‘Answer (2) Coll junctions fuse the plasma membrane of cardiac muscle fibres. At some fusion points, communication junctions allow the cells to contract as a unit. ‘Answer (1) Skeletal muscles are striated and voluntary Whereas cardiac muscles are striated and involuntary. ‘Answer (4) Skeletal muscle fibres have many peripheral rnuctel representing syncytium. ‘Answer (3) Neural tissue exerts the greatest control over the body's responsiveness to changing conditions. Answer (2) Neuroglia make up more than one-half the volume of neural tissue. (10)ALL RIGHTS RESERVED All rights including copyright and translation rights etc, reserved and vests ‘exclusively with AESL. No part ofthis publication may be reproduced, distributed, redistributed, copied or transmitted in any form or by any means-graphical, electronic or mechanical methods including photocopying, recording, taping or stored on information retrieval systems of any nature or reproduced on any disc, tape, media, information storage device, without the prior written permission of AESL. 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