22/06/2021 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2021 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 4

Topics covered :
Physics : Å"ekxfrdh] v.kqxfr fl)kar] nksyu rFkk rjaxsa
Chemistry : fjMkWDl vfHkfØ;k,a] gkbMªkstu] s-CykWd rRo ({kkj rFkk {kkjh; e`nk /kkrq,a), p-CykWd rRo (oxZ-13 rFkk 14)
Botany : ikniksa esa ifjogu] [kfut iks’k.k] mPprj ikniksa esa izdk”kla”ys’k.k
Zoology : 'kjhj] nzo rFkk ifjlapj.k] mRlthZ mRikn ,oa mudk fu"dklu] xeu ,oa lapyu

funsZ'k :
(i) mi;qDr xksys dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy isu dk ç;ksx djsA a
(ii) fpUg xgjs gksus pkfg, rFkk xksys dks iw.kZr% Hkjk tkuk pkfg,A
(iii) çR;sd çfof"V ds fy, dsoy ,d xksyk HkjsaA
(iv) xksys dks dsoy fn, x, LFkku esa gh HkjsaA
(v) mÙkj iqfLrdk ij jQ dk;Z fcYdqy ugha djuk pkfg, rFkk mÙkj iqfLrdk ij 'osr&nzo ;k vU; fdlh feVkus okys
inkFkZ dk ç;ksx u djsaA
(vi) çR;sd ç'u ds 4 vad gSaA çR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, dqy çkIrkadksa esa ls ,d vad ?kVk fn;k tk,xkA

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,%

1. A quantity of heat Q is supplied to a diatomic gas
1. Å"ek dh ek=k Q dks fdlh f}ijek.kqd xSl dks
which expands at constant pressure. The fraction
vkiwrZ fd;k tkrk gS] tks fu;r nkc ij izlkfjr
of heat supplied, that contributes to the change in gksrh gSA vkiwrZ Å"ek dk fdruk Hkkx xSl dh
internal energy of the gas will be vkarfjd ÅtkZ esa ifjorZu esa ;ksxnku djrk gS\
5 2 5 2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
7 5 7 5
1 1 1 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 4 3 4
2. The ratio of rms speed and most probable speed 2. T rki ij ,d vkn'kZ xSl ds v.kqvksa dh rms pky
of molecules of an ideal gas is R at temperature T. rFkk vfr izkf;dre pky dk vuqikr R gSA ;fn
If the temperature is increased by 2% then the rki esa 2% dh o`f) dh tkrh gS] rc vuqikr esa
percentage change in the ratio will be izfr'kr ifjorZu gksxk
(1) 2% (2) 4% (1) 2% (2) 4%
(3) 3% (4) Zero (3) 3% (4) 'kwU;
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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

3. A monoatomic gas undergoes a polytropic process 3. ,dy ijek.kqd xSl fdlh cgqnSf'kd izØe ls
which
3
is defined by expression xqtjrh gS] ftls O;atd PV3 = fu;r }kjk ifjHkkf"kr
PV = constant. The molar specific heat capacity of
fd;k tkrk gSA xSl dh eksyj fof'k"V Å"ek /kkfjrk
the gas will be (R is universal gas constant)
gksxh (R lkoZf=d xSl fu;rkad gS)
(1) R (2) 2R
(1) R (2) 2R
2
(3) 3R (4) 2
R (3) 3R (4)
R
4. 8 moles of an ideal gas are present at 25ºC. If the 4. 8 eksy vkn'kZ xSl 25ºC ij mifLFkr gSaA ;fn xSl
pressure of the gas is increased by 100% and
ds nkc esa 100% dh o`f) dh tkrh gS rFkk vk;ru
volume is reduced by a factor of 2, then the final
temperature of the gas will be dks 2 ds xq.kd ls ?kVk;k tkrk gS] rc xSl dk
(1) 25 K (2) 25ºC vafre rki gksxk
(3) 219ºC (4) 50ºC (1) 25 K (2) 25ºC
(3) 219ºC (4) 50ºC
5. 2 moles of a monoatomic gas is mixed with
4 moles of diatomic ideal gas. The molar specific 5. 2 eksy ,dyijek.kqd xSl dks 4 eksy
f}ijek.kqd
heat capacity of the mixture at constant volume will vkn'kZ xSl ds lkFk fefJr fd;k tkrk gSA fu;r
be vk;ru ij feJ.k dh eksyj fof'k"V Å"ek /kkfjrk
13 gksxh
(1) 13R (2) R
6 13
(1) 13R (2) R
(3) 14R (4) 2R 6
6. Consider the following PV diagram for a (3) 14R (4) 2R
monoatomic gas. The ratio of work done by the 6. ,dyijek.kqd xSl ds fy, fuEu PV vkjs[k ij
gas to the change in internal energy of the gas will fopkj dhft,A xSl }kjk fd;s x;s dk;Z rFkk xSl
be dh vkarfjd ÅtkZ esa ifjorZu dk vuqikr gksxk

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1 (1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1

(3) Zero (4) 1 : 1 (3) 'kwU; (4) 1 : 1
7. 15 kg of gas is contained in a cylinder at a 7. ,d csyu esa 2 × 10 N/m² ds nkc
7
ij 15 kg xSl
7
pressure of 2 × 10 N/m². The quantity of gas that mifLFkr gSA csyu ls xSl dh fdruh ek=k dks ckgj
should be taken out of the cylinder (while keeping fudkyk tkuk pkfg, (rki dks fu;r j[kdj), rkfd
temperature constant), such that the pressure
6 2
becomes 2 × 10 N/m , is
nkc 2 × 106 N/m2 gks tk;s\
(1) 10 kg (2) 12 kg
(1) 10 kg (2) 12 kg
(3) 13.5 kg (4) 15 kg
(3) 13.5 kg (4) 15 kg 8. ,d vkn'kZ xSl dh ?kw.khZ Lokra«; dksfV 3 rFkk
8. An ideal gas has 3 rotational degrees of freedom LFkkukarjh; Lokra=; dksfV 3 gSA fu;r nkc ij rFkk
and 3 translational degrees of freedom. The ratio
of molar specific heat of the gas at constant
fu;r vk;ru ij xSl dh eksyj fof'k"V Å"ek dk
pressure to that at constant volume will be vuqikr gksxk
4 4
(1) (2) 2 (1) (2) 2
3 3
5
5 (3) (4) 4
(3) (4) 4 3
3

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)

9. A mixture of gases contains 3 moles of oxygen 9. NTP ij xSlksa ds ,d feJ.k esa 2 eksy vkWDlhtu
and 2 moles of hydrogen at NTP. The partial rFkk 2 eksy gkbMªkstu gSA feJ.k esa vkWDlhtu dk
pressure of oxygen in the mixture will be
vkaf'kd nkc gksxk
(1) 0.1 atm (2) 1 atm
(1) 0.1 atm (2) 1 atm
(3) 0.6 atm (4) 0.4 atm
(3) 0.6 atm (4) 0.4 atm
10. A particle performs SHM with an amplitude A. The
10. ,d d.k A vk;ke ls ljy vkorZ xfr djrk gSA
displacement of the particle from the mean
position, where the kinetic energy of the particle ekè; fLFkfr ls d.k dk foLFkkiu D;k gksxk] tgk¡
and the elastic potential energy are in the ratio d.k dh xfrt ÅtkZ rFkk izR;kLFk fLFkfrt ÅtkZ
1 : 2 respectively dk vuqikr 1 : 2 gS\
(1) A (2) 2A (1) A (2) 2A
2 A 2 A
(3) A (4) (3) A (4)
3 2 3 2
11. A spring pendulum oscillates in a vertical plane 11. ,d fLizax yksyd ÅèokZ/kj ry esa bl izdkj nksyu
such that the time period of the oscillation is T. If djrk gS fd nksyu dk vkorZdky T gSA ;fn lEiw.kZ
the whole setup is hung from ceiling of an elevator g
g leatu dks Roj.k ls Åij dh vksj xfr'khy ,d
moving up with an acceleration , then the time 2
2 fy¶V dh Nr ls yVdk;k tkrk gS] rc fLizax ds
period of oscillation of the spring will be
nksyu dk vkorZdky gksxk
T
(1) T (2) T
2 (1) T (2)
2
T T
(3) 2T (4) (3) 2T (4)
4 4
12. In SHM, phase difference between displacement 12. ljy vkorZ xfr esa] foLFkkiu rFkk osx ds eè;
and velocity is
dykUrj gS
 
(1) (2)  
4 2 (1) (2)
4 2
(3)  (4) 2
(3)  (4) 2
13. Speed of a particle executing SHM is v at mean
position. The speed of the particle when its
13. ljy vkorZ xfr dj jgs ,d d.k dh pky ekè;
1 fLFkfr ij v gSA tc ekè; fLFkfr ls bldk foLFkkiu
displacement from mean position is equal to th 1
4 xfr ds vk;ke ds ds cjkcj gS] rc d.k dh pky gS
of the amplitude of the motion is 4
v v
(1) v (2) (1) v (2)
4 4

15 17 15 17
(3) v (4) v (3) v (4) v
4 4 4 4
14. A simple pendulum 50 cm long is suspended from 14. 50 cm yacs ,d ljy yksyd dks {kSfrt fn'kk esa
the roof of a cart accelerating in the horizontal fu;r Roj.k 3g m/s2 ls Rofjr ,d xkM+h dh Nr
2
direction with constant acceleration 3g m/s . The ls yVdk;k tkrk gSA yksyd ds viuh lkE; fLFkfr
period of small oscillations of the pendulum about ds lkis{k vYi nksyuksa dk vkorZdky gS

its equilibrium position is g  2 m s2  g   2
m s2 

(1) 1.0 s (2) 2 s (1) 1.0 s (2) 2 s

(3) 1.53 s (4) 1.68 s (3) 1.53 s (4) 1.68 s

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

15. The amplitude of the vibrating particle due to

 
superposition of two SHMs in the same direction,
15. nks ljy vkorZ xfr;ksa y1  sin  t   rFkk
 3
  ds leku fn'kk esa v/;kjksi.k ds dkj.k
y 2  sin t
y1  sin  t   and y 2  sin t is
 3  daiu dj jgs d.k dk vk;ke gS
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 2 (3) 3 (4) 2

16. A particle of mass 1 kg is undergoing S.H.M., for 16. 1 kg nzO;eku dk ,d d.k ljy vkorZ xfr dj jgk
which graph between force and displacement gS] ftlds fy, cy rFkk foLFkkiu (ekè; fLFkfr ls)
(from mean position) as shown. Its time period, in ds eè; vkjs[k n'kkZ;k x;k gSA lsd.M esa bldk
seconds, is vkorZdky gS

 
(1) s (1) s
3 3

2
2 (2) s
(2) s 3
3

 (3) s
(3) s 6
6
3
3 (4) s
(4) s 

17. m nzO;eku dk ,d xqVdk fp= esa n'kkZ;s x;s ,d
17. A block of mass m is resting on a piston as shown
fiLVu ij fojke esa gS] tks 1 s vkorZdky okyh
in figure which is moving vertically in an SHM of
ljy vkorZ xfr esa ÅèokZ/kj :i ls xfr'khy gSA
period 1 s. The minimum amplitude of motion at
xfr dk U;wure vk;ke D;k gksxk ftl ij xqVdk
which the block and piston separate is (g =  )
2
rFkk fiLVu vyx gks tkrs gSa (g = 2)

(1) 0.25 m (2) 0.52 m (1) 0.25 m (2) 0.52 m

(3) 2.5 m (4) 0.15 m (3) 2.5 m (4) 0.15 m

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)

18. In the figure shown, the time period and the 18. n'kkZ;s fp= esa] tc m dks fojke ls NksMk tkrk gS
amplitude respectively when m is released from rFkk fLizax foJkar gS] rc vkorZdky rFkk vk;ke
rest and the spring is relaxed, is : (the inclined Øe'k% gSa : (vkur ry fpduk gS)
plane is smooth)

m mg sin 
(1) 2 ,
m mg sin  k k
(1) 2 ,
k k m sin  2mg sin 
(2) 2 ,
m sin  2mg sin  k k
(2) 2 ,
k k m mg cos 
(3) 2 ,
m mg cos  k k
(3) 2 ,
k k (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(4) None of these 19. lehdj.k x = sin3t iznf'kZr djrk gS
19. The equation x = sin t represents
3
(1) ljy vkorZ xfr
(1) SHM (2) vkorhZ ysfdu ljy vkorZ xfr ugha
(2) Periodic but not SHM (3) vukorhZ xfr
(3) Non-periodic motion (4) ,dfn'kh; o/kZeku Qyu
(4) Monotonically increasing function 20. 10 m/s ls xfr'khy 2 kg dk ,d xqVdk fLizax
20. A 2 kg block moving with 10 m/s strikes a spring of fu;rkad 2 N/m dh ,d fLizax ls Vdjkrk gS] fpdus
spring constant  N/m attached to 2 kg block at
2
Q'kZ ij j[kk fojke esa fLFkr 2 kg dk xqVdk fLizax
rest kept on a smooth floor. The time for which ls la;ksftr gSA ihNs dh vksj xfr'khy xqVdk fdrus
rear moving block remain in contact with spring will le; ds fy, fLizax ds lkFk laidZ es jgsxk\
be

1
(1) 2 s (2) s
1 2
(1) 2 s (2) s
2 1
(3) 1 s (4) s
1 2
(3) 1 s (4) s
2 21. fp= A rFkk B esa leku inkFkZ dh fLizaxsa ,dleku
21. The springs in figure A and B of same material are
vkÑfr dh gSa ysfdu A esa yackbZ B esa izR;sd dh
identical in shape but length in A is three times
TA
T
each of that in B. The ratio of period A is
yackbZ dh rhu xquh gSA vkorZdky dk vuqikr gS
TB
TB

1 1
(1) 3 (2) (1) 3 (2)
3 3

1 1
(3) 3 (4) (3) 3 (4)
3 3

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

22. In the SHM, the ratio of frequency of oscillation KE 22. ljy vkorZ xfr es]a nksyu dh xfrt ÅtkZ dh
to that of velocity v, is vko`fÙk rFkk osx v dk vuqikr gS
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
23. vk;ke 10 m, 4 m rFkk 7 m okyh leku vko`fÙk
23. Three waves of equal frequency having amplitude
10 m, 4 m and 7 m arrive at a given point with dh rhu rjaxsa  ds Øfed dykUrj ls fn;s x;s
2

successive phase difference of . The amplitude fcanq ij igq¡prh gSaA m esa ifj.kkeh rjax dk vk;ke
2
gS
of the resulting wave in m is given by
(1) 7 (2) 6
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 4
(3) 5 (4) 4 24. L yackbZ dh ,d ok;fyu Mksjh nksuksa fljksa ls n`f<+r
24. A violin string of length L is fixed at both ends. gSA buesa ls dkSulh] Mksjh ij vizxkeh rjax dh
Which one of these is not a wavelength of a rjaxnSè;Z ugha gS\
standing wave on the string? L L
L L (1) (2)
(1) (2) 2 3
2 3 2L 3L
(3) (4)
2L 3L 3 2
(3) (4)
3 2 25. n`<+ vk/kkjksa ls la;ksftr ,d jLlh 6 ywiksa esa daiu
25. A chord attached to rigid supports is vibrating into dj jgh gS] tc bldk ruko 36 N gSA ;g fdrus
6 loops, when its tension is 36 N. The tension at ruko ls 4 ywiksa esa daiu djsxh\ (vko`fÙk leku gS)
which it will vibrate in 4 loops is (frequency is
(1) 24 N (2) 36 N
same)
(3) 64 N (4) 81 N
(1) 24 N (2) 36 N
26. LVhy ls fufeZr nks ,dleku Mksfj;ksa A rFkk B dks
(3) 64 N (4) 81 N
leku ruko esa daiu djk;k tkrk gSA ;fn A dk
26. Two uniform strings A and B formed of steel are
izFke vf/kLoj B ds f}rh; vf/kLoj ds cjkcj gS rFkk
made to vibrate under the same tension. If the first
overtone of A is equal to the second overtone of B A dh f=T;k B dh f=T;k dh nksxquh gSA rc Mksfj;ksa
and the radius of A is twice that of B. Then the dh yEckbZ dk vuqikr gS (nksuksa Mksfj;k¡ nksuksa fljksa ls
ratio of the length of the strings is (Both strings are n`f<+r gSa)
fixed at both ends) (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 5
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 5 27. ;fn ,d rkfur Mksjh dh yEckbZ dks 40% rd
27. If the length of a stretched string is shortened by ?kVk;k tkrk gS rFkk ruko dks 44% rd c<+k;k
40% and the tension is increased by 44% then the tkrk gS] rc vafre rFkk izkjafHkd ewyHkwr vko`fr;ksa
ratio of final and initial fundamental frequencies is dk vuqikr gS
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 1 : 3 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 1 : 3
28. Graph between square of frequency (fundamental) 28. rkj esa vko`fÙk ¼ewyHkwr½ ds oxZ rFkk ruko ds eè;
and tension in wire is vkjs[k gS
(1) Straight line (2) Parabola (1) ljy js[kk (2) ijoy;
(3) Ellipse (4) Hyperbola (3) nh?kZo`Ùk (4) vfrijoy;
29. For the oscillation of the body in damped
oscillation
29. voeafnr nksyu esa fi.M ds nksyu ds fy,
(1) The amplitude of oscillation of the body (1) fi.M ds nksyu dk vk;ke le; ds lkFk ?kVrk
decreases with time. gS
(2) The amplitude of oscillation of the body (2) fi.M ds nksyu dk vk;ke le; ds lkFk c<+rk
increases with time. gS
(3) The amplitude of oscillation of the body (3) fi.M ds nksyu dk vk;ke le; ds lkFk fu;r
remains constant with time. jgrk gS
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)

30. When a mass m is hung from the lower end of a 30. tc ,d nzO;eku m dks ux.; nzO;eku dh ,d
spring of negligible mass, an extension x is fLizax ds fupys fljs ls yVdk;k tkrk gS] rc fLizax
produced in the spring. The mass is set into
vertical oscillations. The time period of oscillation esa izlkj x mRiUu gksrk gSA nzO;eku dks ÅèokZ/kj
is nksyuksa esa yk;k tkrk gSA nksyu dk vkorZdky gS
x gx x gx
(1) T  2 (2) T  2 (1) T  2 (2) T  2
mg m mg m
x x
(3) T  2
x
(4) T  2
x (3) T  2 (4) T  2
g 2g g 2g

31. A particle of mass 1 kg is performing SHM and its 31. 1 kg nzO;eku dk ,d d.k ljy vkorZ xfr dj jgk
displacement any time is given by gS rFkk fdlh le; ij blds foLFkkiu dks fuEu
   }kjk O;Dr fd;k tkrk gS
y  2sin  t   m
 12 6   
y  2sin  t   m
What will be kinetic energy of particle at  12 6
t = 2 sec? t = 2 sec ij d.k dh xfrt ÅtkZ D;k gksxh\
2 2 2 2
(1) J (2) J (1) J (2) J
288 144 288 144
   
(3) J (4) J (3) J (4) J
288 144 288 144
32. In SHM, when a particle passes through its mean 32. ljy vkorZ xfr es]a tc ,d d.k viuh ekè;
position, then particle’s speed and acceleration fLFkfr ls xqtjrk gS] rc d.k dh pky rFkk Roj.k
(1) Speed – minimum (1) pky – U;wure
Acceleration – maximum Roj.k – vf/kdre
(2) Speed – maximum (2) pky – vf/kdre
Acceleration – minimum but non-zero Roj.k – U;wure ysfdu v'kwU;
(3) Speed – minimum
(3) pky – U;wure
Acceleration – minimum
Roj.k – U;wure
(4) Speed – maximum
(4) pky – vf/kdre
Acceleration – zero
Roj.k – 'kwU;
33. When a particle perform simple harmonic motion
then its 33. tc ,d d.k ljy vkorZ xfr djrk gS] rc bldk
(1) Velocity continuously change and acceleration (1) osx fujUrj ifjofrZr gksrk gS rFkk Roj.k fu;r
remain constant jgrk gS
(2) Velocity and acceleration change continuously (2) osx rFkk Roj.k fujUrj ifjofrZr gksrk gS
(3) Velocity remain constant and acceleration (3) osx fu;r jgrk gS rFkk Roj.k fujUrj ifjofrZr
continuously change gksrk gS
(4) Velocity and acceleration does not change (4) osx rFkk Roj.k ifjofrZr ugha gksrk gS
34. For a heat engine performing between the
34. rki 273 K rFkk 409.5 K ds eè; dk;Z dj jgs ,d
temperature 273 K and 409.5 K, which among the
Å"ek b±tu ds fy,] fuEu esa ls dkSulh n{krk ugha
following cannot be the efficiency?
gks ldrh gS\
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 5 4 5
1 1 1 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 8 2 8

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

35. One mole of an ideal gas having volume 100 cc, 35. vk;ru 100 cc, nkc 1 atm rFkk rki 100ºC okyh
pressure 1 atm and temperature 100ºC undergoes ,d vkn'kZ xSl dk ,d eksy fdlh pØh; izØe ls
a cyclic process. The net internal energy change in xqtjrk gSA ,d pØ esa usV vkarfjd ÅtkZ ifjorZu
one cycle is gS
(1) Zero (1) 'kwU;
(2) 40 J (2) 40 J
(3) 10 J (3) 10 J
(4) Insufficient information (4) lwpuk vi;kZIr gS
36. Consider the following two statements
36. fuEu nks dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,A
Statement-A : The average kinetic energy per dFku-A : fn, x, rki ij izfr v.kq izfr Lokra«;
degree of freedom per molecule at a given dksfV vkSlr xfrt ÅtkZ c<+rh gS] tSls gh Lokra«;
temperature increases as degrees of freedom dksfV c<+rh gSA
increase. dFku-B : fu;r nkc ij eksyj fof'k"V Å"ek rFkk
Statement-B : The ratio of molar specific heat at fu;r vk;ru ij eksyj fof'k"V Å"ek dk vuqikr
constant pressure to that at constant volume c<+rk gS tSls gh ijek.kqdrk c<+rh gSA
increases as the atomicity increases.
lgh dFku gSa
The correct statement is
(1) dsoy A (2) dsoy B
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) A rFkk B nksuksa (4) u rks A u gh B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
37. In the indicator diagram as shown in the following 37. fuEu fp= esa n'kkZ;s x, ladsrd vkjs[k esa iFk AB
figure the work done along path AB will be ds vuqfn'k fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk

(1) 45 J (2) 90 J
(1) 45 J (2) 90 J
(3) 30 J (4) 'kwU;
(3) 30 J (4) Zero
x
38. In a certain process, PV = Constant, the heat Q 38. fdlh fuf'pr izØe esa] PVx = fu;r] ,dyijek.kqd
given to a monoatomic gas leads to a change in xSl dks iznku dh x;h Å"ek Q ds dkj.k xSl dh
internal energy of a gas which is equal to
Q
. The vkarfjd ÅtkZ esa ifjorZu gksrk gS] tks Q ds cjkcj
4 4
value of x is gSA x dk eku gS
7 7
(1) (2) 2 (1) (2) 2
9 9
3 6 3 6
(3) (4) (3) (4)
5 7 5 7
39. A Carnot refrigerator has coefficient of 39. ,d dkuksZ jsfÝtjsVj dk fu"iknu xq.kkad 8 gS ;fn
performance 8. If the surrounding temperature is ifjos'k rki 25ºC gS] rc ;g blds vanj j[kh oLrq
25ºC, the minimum temperature it can cool a body dks fdrus U;wure rki rd B.Mk dj ldrk gS\
inside is (1) 6°C (2) 8°C
(1) 6°C (2) 8°C (3) –8°C (4) 10°C
(3) –8°C (4) 10°C 40. fdlh #)ks"e izØe ds nkSjku ,d vkn'kZ xSl 8 J
40. A ideal gas does 8 J of work during an adiabatic dk;Z djrh gSA ;fn blds rki dks 4 K rd ?kVk;k
process. If its temperature decreases by 4 K, then tkrk gS] rc xSl dh vkarfjd ÅtkZ esa ifjorZu
the change in internal energy of the gas will be gksxk
(1) 16 J (2) 10 J (1) 16 J (2) 10 J
(3) 2 J (4) –8 J (3) 2 J (4) –8 J

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)

41. An observer is moving with a speed 30 m/s 41. ,d izs{kd 100 Hz vko`fÙk dh èofu ds ,d fLFkj
towards a stationary source of sound of frequency L=ksr dh vksj 30 m/s pky ls xfr'khy gSA izs{kd
100 Hz. The apparent frequency heard by the }kjk lquh xbZ vkHkklh vko`fÙk gksxh (èofu dh pky
observer will be (speed of sound 330 m/s) 330 m/s gS)
(1) 109 Hz (2) 112 Hz (1) 109 Hz (2) 112 Hz
(3) 91 Hz (4) 86 Hz (3) 91 Hz (4) 86 Hz
42. A man standing between two large parallel cliffs 42. nks cM+h lekarj [kM+h pV~Vkuksa ds eè; [kM+k ,d
produces a sound. He hears the first echo after 6 s O;fDr èofu mRiUu djrk gSA og 6 s ds ckn izFke
and next echo 2 s later. If speed of sound is izfrèofu rFkk 2 s ckn vxyh izfrèofu lqurk gSA
330 m/s then the distance between the cliffs will be ;fn èofu dh pky 330 m/s gS] rc [kM+h pV~Vkuksa ds
(1) 561 m (2) 1000 m eè; nwjh gksxh
(3) 1400 m (4) 2310 m (1) 561 m (2) 1000 m
–3 (3) 1400 m (4) 2310 m
43. A wire of linear density 8 × 10 kg/m and length
2 m is stretched by a weight of 20 kg. The 43. js[kh; ?kuRo 8 × 10–3 kg/m rFkk 2 m yEckbZ ds ,d
fundamental frequency of vibration of the wire is rkj dks 20 kg ds Hkkj }kjk [khapk tkrk gSA rkj ds
(1) 6.29 Hz (2) 4 Hz daiu dh ewyHkwr vko`fÙk gS
(3) 39.52 Hz (4) 0.98 Hz (1) 6.29 Hz (2) 4 Hz
(3) 39.52 Hz (4) 0.98 Hz
44. A stretched string of length 4 m vibrates in 6 loops.
44. 4 m yackbZ dh ,d rkfur Mksjh 6 ywiksa esa daiu
The distance between consecutive antinodes is
djrh gSA Øfed izLianksa ds eè; nwjh gS
1
(1) m (2) 6 m 1
3 (1) m (2) 6 m
3
2
(3) 4 m (4) m 2
3 (3) 4 m (4) m
3
45. If C0 and C represent the rms speed of 45. ;fn C0 rFkk C ,dyijek.kqd xSl ds v.kqvksa dh rms
monoatomic gas molecules and the speed of pky rFkk bl xSl esa èofu dh pky dks iznf'kZr
sound in that gas, then djrs gSa] rc
(1) C0 > C (2) C0 = C (1) C0 > C (2) C0 = C
(3) C0 < C (4) None of these (3) C0 < C (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
CHEMISTRY

46. In bleaching powder (CaOCl2), the oxidation 46. fojatd pw.kZ esa (CaOCl2) esa Dyksjhu ijek.kqvksa dh
state(s) of chlorine atoms is/are vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk@voLFkk,¡ gS@gSa
(1) +1, –2 (2) –1, +1 (1) +1, –2 (2) –1, +1
(3) +1 (4) –1 (3) +1 (4) –1
47. In which of the following compounds, maximum 47. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ;kSfxd esa vf/kdre ijkWDlh
peroxy linkages are present? ca/ku mifLFkr gSa\
(1) H2SO5 (2) CrO5 (1) H2SO5 (2) CrO5
(3) H2S2O8 (4) K3CrO8 (3) H2S2O8 (4) K3CrO8
48. In which of the following reactions, the underlined 48. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vfHkfØ;k esa] js[kkafdr rRo
element is reduced? vipf;r gksrk gS\
(1) MnO2  KOH  O2  K2MnO4  2H2O (1) MnO2  KOH  O2  K2MnO4  2H2O
(2) C2O24  MnO4  H  Mn2  CO2  H2O (2) C2O24  MnO4  H  Mn2  CO2  H2O

(3) CrO24  H  Cr2O72  H2O (3) CrO24  H  Cr2O72  H2O

(4) Na2SO3  Cl2  H2O  Na2SO4  2HCl (4) Na2SO3  Cl2  H2O  Na2SO4  2HCl

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

49. Which of the following species does not undergoes 49. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh Lih'kht vlekuqikru
disproportionation reaction? vfHkfØ;k ugha nsrh?
(1) MnO24 (2) NO2
(1) MnO24 (2) NO2
–
(3) ClO (4) PO34 –
(3) ClO (4) PO34
50. For the redox reaction,
50. fuEufyf[kr fjMkWDl vfHkfØ;k ds fy,]
Cr2O72  SO32  H  Cr 3  SO24  H2O
Cr2O72  SO32  H  Cr 3  SO24  H2O
The coefficients of the reactants for the balanced
equation are larqfyr lehdj.k esa vfHkdkjdksa ds xq.kkad gSa
Cr2O72
+
Cr2O72 SO32 H
+ SO32 H

(1) 1 3 8 (1) 1 3 8
(2) 2 3 14 (2) 2 3 14
(3) 1 4 14
(3) 1 4 14
(4) 1 3 12
(4) 1 3 12
51. The correct structure of carbon suboxide is
51. dkcZu lcvkWDlkbM dh lgh lajpuk gS
(1) HO – CH = C = C = O
(1) HO – CH = C = C = O
(2) HO – CH = C = CH – OH
(2) HO – CH = C = CH – OH
(3) O=C=C=C=O
(3) O = C = C = C = O – –
– – (4) O – CH = C = CH – O
(4) O – CH = C = CH – O
52. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vfHkfØ;k esa H2O2 vipk;d
52. In which of the following reaction(s) H2O2 acts as a
reducing agent?
ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gS\
(I) I2  H2O2  2OH  2I  2H2O  O2
(I) I2  H2O2  2OH  2I  2H2O  O2
(II) HOCl  H2O2  H3O  Cl  O2 (II) HOCl  H2O2  H3O  Cl  O2

(III) H2O2  PbS  PbSO4  H2O (III) H2O2  PbS  PbSO4  H2O

(1) (I) only (2) (I) and (II) only (1) dsoy (I) (2) dsoy (I) rFkk (II)
(3) (II) and (III) only (4) (I), (II) and (III) (3) dsoy (II) rFkk (III) (4) (I), (II) rFkk (III)
53. Standard reduction potentials of the half cell
53. v/kZ lsy vfHkfØ;kvksa ds ekud vip;u foHko uhps
reactions are given below
fn, x, gSa
 Pb2  2e  Pb; Eo  0.13 V
2 
 Pb2  2e  Pb; Eo  0.13 V
 Fe  2e  Fe; E  0.44 V
o

 Fe2  2e  Fe; Eo  0.44 V

 Na  1e  Na; Eo  2.71 V


 Na  1e  Na; Eo  2.71 V

 Ca2  2e  Ca; Eo  2.87 V
The strongest oxidising and reducing agents  Ca2  2e  Ca; Eo  2.87 V
respectively are izcyre vkWDlhdkjd o vipk;d Øe'k% gSa
+ 2+ 2+
(1) Na , Fe (2) Pb , Ca +
(1) Na , Fe
2+ 2+
(2) Pb , Ca
2+ 2+
(3) Pb, Ca (4) Ca, Pb 2+ 2+
(3) Pb, Ca (4) Ca, Pb
54. Oxidation numbers of A, B and C are +2, –1 and
+1 respectively. Possible formula of the compound
54. A, B rFkk C ds vkWDlhdj.k vad Øe'k% +2, –1 rFkk
is +1 gSaA ;kSfxd dk laHko lw= gS
(1) A2(B3C)2 (2) A3(BC2)2 (1) A2(B3C)2 (2) A3(BC2)2
(3) A2(BC2)2 (4) A2(B2C)2 (3) A2(BC2)2 (4) A2(B2C)2
55. Oxidation state of Fe in Fe3O4 is 55. Fe3O4 esa Fe dh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk gS
8 2 8 2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
3 3 3 3
3 2
(3) (4) 3 2
8 5 (3) (4)
8 5

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)

56. The method which is used to remove temporary 56. dsoy vLFkk;h dBksjrk nwj djus ds fy, iz;qDr
hardness only is fof/k gS
(1) Ion exchange method (1) vk;u fofue; fof/k
(2) Clark’s method (2) DykdZ fof/k
(3) Synthetic Resin method (3) la'ysf"kr jsftu fof/k
(4) Calgon’s method
(4) dSYxu fof/k
57. The correct order of boiling point of the isotopes of
hydrogen is
57. gkbMªkstu ds leLFkkfudksa ds DoFkukad dk lgh Øe gS
(1) H > D > T (2) T > D > H
(1) H > D > T (2) T > D > H
(3) H > T > D (4) T > H > D
(3) H > T > D (4) T > H > D
58. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSuls oxZ dh /kkrq,¡ gkbMªkbM
58. The metals of which of the following groups does
not form hydride?
ugha cukrh\
(1) 6 (2) 8
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 5 (4) 10
(3) 5 (4) 10
59. fuEufyf[kr esa ls H2O dk dkSuls xq.k dk ifjek.k
59. The magnitude of which of the following property
of H2O is more than that of D2O? D2O dh vis{kk vf/kd gksrk gS\
(1) Density (2) Boiling point (1) ?kuRo (2) DoFkukad
(3) Viscosity (4) Dielectric constant (3) ';kurk (4) ijkoS|qrkad
60. Total number of hydrogen bonded water 60. CuSO4.5H2O esa laxqf.kr ty ds gkbMªkt s u caf/kr
molecule(s) associated in CuSO4.5H2O is v.kqvksa dh dqy la[;k gS
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4
61. Strength of 15 V H2O2 solution in g/L is 61. 15 V H2O2 foy;u dh g/L esa lkeF;Z gS
(1) 28.5 g/L (2) 41.2 g/L (1) 28.5 g/L (2) 41.2 g/L
(3) 32.1 g/L (4) 45.5 g/L (3) 32.1 g/L (4) 45.5 g/L
62. Dihedral angle of H2O2 in gas phase is 62. xSl izkoLFkk esa H2O2 dk f}ry dks.k gS
(1) 90.2° (2) 111.5° (1) 90.2° (2) 111.5°
(3) 87° (4) 120° (3) 87° (4) 120°
63. The product obtained in the given reaction is 63. nh x;h vfHkfØ;k esa izkIr mRikn gS

Al4C3  D2O  Al4C3  D2O 

(1) C2D2 (2) CD4
(1) C2D2 (2) CD4
(3) C2D4 (4) C3D4
(3) C2D4 (4) C3D4
64. flu ¼la'ys"k.k½ xSl fdldk feJ.k gksrh gS\
64. Syn gas is a mixture of
(1) CO2 + H2O (2) CO + N2
(1) CO2 + H2O (2) CO + N2
(3) CO2 + N2 (4) CO + H2
(3) CO2 + N2 (4) CO + H2
65. dkcZu eksuksvkWDlkbM dksckYV mRizsjd dh mifLFkfr
65. Carbon monoxide on reaction with H2 in the
esa H2 ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k ij nsrk gS
presence of cobalt catalyst gives
(1) HCHO (2) CH3OH
(1) HCHO (2) CH3OH
(3) CH3COOH (4) CH4
(3) CH3COOH (4) CH4
66. xyr dFku dks igpkfu,A
66. Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) cQZ dk ?kuRo ty ds ?kuRo ls de gksrk gS
(1) Density of ice is less than that of water
(2) xSl izkoLFkk esa] H2O dk ca/k dks.k 104.5° gksrk gS
(2) In the gas phase, bond angle of H2O is 104.5°
(3) ok;qe.Myh; nkc ij] cQZ ?kuh; :i esa
(3) At atmospheric pressure, ice crystallises in the
cubic form fØLVyhÑr gksrh gS
(4) In liquid phase, water molecules are (4) nzo izkoLFkk es]a ty ds v.kq vkil esa gkbMªkstu
associated together by hydrogen bonds ca/kksa }kjk laxqf.kr gksrs gSa

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

67. Which of the following salts is responsible for 67. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk yo.k ty dh vLFkk;h
temporary hardness of water? dBksjrk ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrk gS\
(1) CaCl2 (2) Ca(NO3)2 (1) CaCl2 (2) Ca(NO3)2
(3) Ca(HCO3)2 (4) MgSO4 (3) Ca(HCO3)2 (4) MgSO4

68. The correct order of densities of alkali metals is

68. {kkj /kkrqvksa ds ?kuRoksa dk lgh Øe gS
(1) Cs > Rb > K > Li > Na
(1) Cs > Rb > K > Li > Na
(2) Rb > Cs > Na > K > Li
(2) Rb > Cs > Na > K > Li
(3) Cs > Rb > K > Na > Li
(3) Cs > Rb > K > Na > Li
(4) Cs > Rb > Na > K > Li
(4) Cs > Rb > Na > K > Li 69. xyr dFku dks igpkfu,A
69. Identify the incorrect statement. (1) LiCl rFkk MgCl2 nksuksa ,FksukWy esa foys;'khy gksrs gS
(1) Both LiCl and MgCl2 are soluble in ethanol
(2) lHkh {kkj /kkrqvksa esa Li izcyre vipk;d gS
(2) Li is the strongest reducing agent among all
(3) LiCl, LiCl.H2O ds :i esa fØLVyhÑr gksrk gS
the alkali metals
(4) yhfFk;e ukbVªsV dks xeZ djus ij yhfFk;e
(3) LiCl crystallises as LiCl.H2O
vkWDlkbM curk gS
(4) Lithium nitrate when heated gives lithium oxide
70. Which of the following compounds is not found in
70. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ;kSfxd Bksl voLFkk esa
solid state? ugha ik;k tkrk\
(1) RbHCO3 (2) LiHCO3 (1) RbHCO3 (2) LiHCO3
(3) KHCO3 (4) NaHCO3
(3) KHCO3 (4) NaHCO3
+ 71. {kkj /kkrq vk;u (M+) Xywdkst ds vkWDlhdj.k esa Hkkx
71. An alkali metal ion (M ), participates in the
oxidation of glucose to produce ATP. M is ysdj ATP mRiUu djrk gSA rc M gS
(1) Na (2) K (1) Na (2) K
(3) Rb (4) Cs
(3) Rb (4) Cs
72. dkLVuj&dSYuj lsy esa] lksfM;e DyksjkbM ds fo|qr
72. During the electrolysis of sodium chloride in
Castner-Kellner cell, the product obtained at vi?kVu ds nkSjku] dSFkksM rFkk ,uksM ij izkIr
cathode and anode respectively are mRikn Øe'k% gSa
(1) Na, Cl2 (2) H2, Cl2 (1) Na, Cl2 (2) H2, Cl2
(3) Na-amalgam, Cl2 (4) H2, O2 (3) Na-veyxe, Cl2 (4) H2, O2
73. In aqueous solution, ionic mobility of which of the 73. tyh; foy;u esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vk;u dh
following ions is maximum? vk;fud xfr'khyrk vf/kdre gksrh gS\
2+ 2+ 2+ 2+
(1) Be (2) Mg (1) Be (2) Mg
2+ 2+ 2+ 2+
(3) Ca (4) Sr (3) Ca (4) Sr
74. Match column I with column II and identify the 74. dkWye I rFkk dkWye II dks lqesfyr dhft, rFkk lgh
correct code. dksM dks igpkfu,A
Column-I Column-II dkWye-I dkWye-II
1 1
a. Washing soda (i) CaSO4 . H2O a. /kkou lksMk (i) CaSO4 . H2O
2 2
b. Dead burnt plaster (ii) Na2CO3.10H2O b. e`r rkfir IykLVj (ii) Na2CO3.10H2O
c. Slaked lime (iii) CaSO4 c. cq>k gqvk pwuk (iii) CaSO4
d. Gypsum (iv) Ca(OH)2 d. ftIle (iv) Ca(OH)2
(v) CaSO4.2H2O (v) CaSO4.2H2O
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iii), b (ii), c(iv), d(v) (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iii), b (ii), c(iv),d(v)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(v) (4) a(ii), b (iii), c(v), d(i) (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(v) (4) a(ii), b (iii), c(v), d(i)

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)

75. The correct order of thermal stability of the 75. {kkjh; e`nk /kkrqvksa ds gkbMªkWDlkbMksa ds Å"eh;
hydroxides of alkaline earth metals is LFkkf;Ro dk lgh Øe gS
(1) Ca(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 (1) Ca(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2
(2) Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 (2) Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2
(3) Ba(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 (3) Ba(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2
(4) Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 (4) Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2
76. Consider the following statements regarding the 76. {kkj /kkrq rFkk nzo veksfu;k ds foy;u ds fo"k; esa
solution of alkali metals and liquids ammonia. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,A
(I) Rb dissolves in liquid ammonia giving deep (I) Rb nzo veksfu;k esa ?kqydj xgjk uhyk jax nsrk
blue colour.
gSA
(II) In concentrated solution, the blue colour
(II) lkanz foy;u esa uhyk jax dkaL; jax esa ifjofrZr
changes to bronze colour.
(III) Blue solutions are paramagnetic whereas
gks tkrk gSA
bronze coloured solutions are diamagnetic. (III) uhys foy;u vuqpqEcdh; gksrs gSa tcfd dkaL;
The correct statement(s) is/are jax ds foy;u izfrpqEcdh; gksrs gSaA
(1) II only (2) I and II only lgh dFku gS@gSaA
(3) II and III only (4) I, II and III (1) dsoy II (2) dsoy I rFkk II
77. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in (3) dsoy II rFkk III (4) I, II rFkk III
nature? 77. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk vkWDlkbM mHk;/kehZ izÑfr
(1) CO2 (2) GeO2
dk gksrk gS\
(3) CO (4) PbO
(1) CO2 (2) GeO2
78. Compound which has the highest melting point is (3) CO (4) PbO
(1) NaF (2) NaCl 78. mPpre xyukad okyk ;kSfxd gS
(3) NaBr (4) NaI (1) NaF (2) NaCl
79. Correct order of ionization enthalpy of group (3) NaBr (4) NaI
13 elements is 79. oxZ&13 ds rRoksa dh vk;uu ,UFkSYih dk lgh Øe gS
(1) In < Al < Ga < Tl < B (1) In < Al < Ga < Tl < B
(2) Tl < In < Al < Ga < B (2) Tl < In < Al < Ga < B
(3) Tl < In < Ga < Al < B (3) Tl < In < Ga < Al < B
(4) In < Tl < Al < B < Ga (4) In < Tl < Al < B < Ga
80. The species which is least likely to exist is 80. fdl Lih'kht dk vfLrRo laHkor% U;wure gksrk gS\
2– 2– 2– 2–
(1) [SiF6] (2) [GeCl6] (1) [SiF6] (2) [GeCl6]
2– 2– 2– 2–
(3) [Sn(OH)6] (4) [SiCl6] (3) [Sn(OH)6] (4) [SiCl6]
81. Which of the following elements reacts with 81. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk rRo Hkki ds lkFk
steam? vfHkfØ;k djrk gS\
(1) C (2) Si (1) C (2) Si
(3) Ge (4) Sn (3) Ge (4) Sn
82. The chemical formula of calcium pyrosilicate is 82. dSfYl;e ik;jksflfydsV dk jklk;fud lw= gS
(1) Ca2SiO4 (2) Ca3Si2O7 (1) Ca2SiO4 (2) Ca3Si2O7
(3) CaSiO3 (4) Ca3Si2O5 (3) CaSiO3 (4) Ca3Si2O5
83. Strongest Lewis acid among the following is 83. fuEufyf[kr esa ls izcyre ywbZl vEy gS
(1) BF3 (2) BCl3 (1) BF3 (2) BCl3
(3) BBr3 (4) BI3 (3) BBr3 (4) BI3
84. Incorrect statement about silicones is 84. flfydksu ds fo"k; esa xyr dFku gS
(1) Water repelling in nature (1) ;s ty izfrd"khZ izÑfr ds gksrs gSa
(2) High dielectric strength (2) budh ijkoS|qrh; lkeF;Z mPp gksrh gS
(3) Electrical conductors (3) ;s fo|qrh; pkyd gksrs gSa
(4) Biocompatible in nature (4) ;s tSo vuqdwy izÑfr ds gksrs gSa

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

85. In Buckminster fullerene, the hybridization of all 85. cdfeULVj Qqyjhu esa lHkh dkcZu ijek.kqvksa dk
the carbon atoms is ladj.k gS
2 2
(1) dsp (2) sp (1) dsp (2) sp
3 2
(3) sp
3
(4) sp
2 (3) sp (4) sp
86. In which of the following reactions, B2H6 is not 86. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vfHkfØ;k ds mRikn esa B2H6
formed in the product? ugha curk\
(1) BF3  NaH 
450 K (1) BF3  NaH 
450 K

(2) NaBH4  I2 

(2) NaBH4  I2 
(3) BF3  LiAlH4 
(3) BF3  LiAlH4 
(4) Na2B4O7  HCl  H2O 
(4) Na2B4O7  HCl  H2O 
87. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds vfrfjDr oxZ 13thds vU;
th
87. Group 13 elements react with halogens to form rRo gSykstu ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k djds VªkbZgSykbM
trihalide except cukrs gSa\
(1) Al (2) Ga (1) Al (2) Ga
(3) In (4) Tl (3) In (4) Tl
88. The correct order of relative stability of +1 88. +1 vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk ds lkisf{kd LFkkf;Ro dk
oxidation state is lgh Øe gS
(1) Ga < In < Tl (2) Tl < In < Ga (1) Ga < In < Tl (2) Tl < In < Ga
(3) In < Ga < Tl (4) Ga < Tl < In (3) In < Ga < Tl (4) Ga < Tl < In
–
89. Total number of 3c – 2e bonds present in diborane 89. MkbZcksjsu esa mifLFkr 3c – 2e– ca/kksa dh dqy la[;k gS
is (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
90. CO ds fo"k; esa xyr dFku gS
(3) 3 (4) 4
90. Incorrect statement about CO is
(1) ;g jaxghu] xa/kghu rFkk ty esa vfoys;'khy
xSl gS
(1) Colourless, odourless and water insoluble gas
(2) ;g yxHkx lHkh {kkj rFkk {kkjh; e`nk /kkrqvksa ds
(2) It reduces almost all alkali and alkaline earth
metal oxides
vkWDlkbMksa dks vipf;r dj nsrh gS
(3) C rFkk O ds eè; ,d flXek rFkk nks ca/k gksrs
(3) Contains one sigma and two  bonds between
C and O
gSa
(4) Highly poisonous in nature
(4) ;g vR;Ur fo"kkDr izÑfr dh gksrh gS

BOTANY
91. Read the following statements for diffusion and 91. folj.k ds fy, fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<+;s rFkk
select the correct option. lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
i. It is a passive process. i. ;g ,d fuf’Ø; izfØ; gSa
ii. No energy expenditure occurs in the process. ii. bl izfØ;k esa ÅtkZ dk O;; ugha gksrka
iii. Molecules move from lower to higher iii. folj.k esa v.kq fuEu ls mPp lkanzrk dh vksj
concentration in diffusion. xfr djrs gSa
(1) Both i and ii are correct (1) i rFkk ii nksuksa lgh gSa
(2) Both ii and iii are correct (2) ii rFkk iii nksuksa lgh gSa
(3) Only ii is correct (3) dsoy ii lgh gS
(4) Only iii is correct (4) dsoy iii lgh gS

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)

92. Select the incorrectly matched pair. 92. vlqesfyr ;qXe dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Diffusion – A slow process (1) folj.k - ,d /kheh izfØ;k gS

(2) Facilitated diffusion – Non-specific (2) lqlk/; folj.k - v&fof”k’V gksrk gS

(3) Active transport – Uphill transport (3) lfØ; ifjogu - ÅèoZ ifjogu gksrk gS

(4) Osmosis – Requires (4) ijklj.k - dks v/kZikjxE;

semipermeable
membrane
93. If a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is
applied to pure water or a solution
(1) Its water potential will decrease
(2) There will be no effect on water potential
(3) Its water potential will increase
(4) Its solute potential will become more negative
94. A flaccid animal cell when put in pure water will
(1) Absorb water due to endosmosis
(2) Have no affect at all
(3) Show plasmolysis
(4) Show exosmosis
95. Select the incorrect statement about
imbibition.
(1) It is a type of diffusion
(2) Absorption of water by seeds and dry wood
are the examples of imbibition
(3) It had been used by prehistoric man to split
rocks and boulders
(4) It is an active process which require the
expenditure of ATP
96. All of the following are the purpose of transpiration
except
(1) Creates transpiration pull for absorption and
transport of water
(2) Supplies water for photosynthesis
(3) Transport minerals from the soil to all parts of
the plant
(4) Maintains the shape and structure of the
plants by keeping all cells plasmolysed
97. Casparian strip
(1) Is found in cells of epidermis
(2) Is found on innermost layer of cortex
(3) Is highly permeable to water
(4) Composed of lignin and cellulose
f>Yyh dh
vko”;drk gksrh gS
93. ;fn “kq) ty ;k fdlh foy;u ij ok;qe.Myh;
nkc ls vf/kd nkc yxk;k tkrk gS rc
(1) bldk ty foHko ?kV tk,xk
(2) ty foHko ij dksbZ izHkko ugha iMs+xk
(3) bldk ty foHko c<+ tk,xk
(4) bldk foys; foHko vf/kd _.kkRed gks tk,xk
94. tc ,d f”kfFky tarq dksf”kdk dks “kq) ty esa j[kk
tkrk gS rc dksf”kdk
(1) var% ijklj.k ds dkj.k ty dk vo”kks’k.k
djrh gS
(2) ij dksbZ izHkko ugha iM+rk
(3) thonzO;dqapu n”kkZrh gS
the (4) cfgijklj.k n”kkZrh gS
95. var%”kks’k.k ds fy, xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) ;g ,d izdkj dk folj.k gS
(2) chtksa rFkk “kq’d ydfM+;kas }kjk ty dk
vo”kks’k.k var%”kks’k.k ds mnkgj.k gSa
(3) bldk iz;ksx vkfn ekuo }kjk cM+h pV~Vkuksa ,oa
iRFkjksa dks rksMu+ s ds fy, fd;k tkrk Fkk
(4) ;g ,d lfØ; izfØ;k gS ftlesa ATP O;; dh
vko”;drk gksrh gS
96. fdlds vfrfjDr “ks’k lHkh ok’iksRltZu ds mn~ns”;
gSa\
(1) ;g ty ds vo”kks’k.k rFkk ifjogu ds fy,
ok’iksRltZu f[k¡pko mRiUu djrk gS
(2) ;g izdk”kla”ys’k.k ds fy, ty dh vkiwfrZ
djrk gS
(3) ;g [kfutksa dks e`nk ls ikni ds lHkh Hkkxksa rd
ifjofgr djrk gS
(4) ;g lHkh dksf”kdkvksa dks thonzO;dqafpr dj
ikniksa dh vkd`fr o lajpuk dks cuk, j[krk gS
97. dSLisfj;u iV~Vh
(1) ckg~;Ropk dh dksf”kdkvksa esa ik;h tkrh gS
(2) oYdqV dh lcls vkarfjd ijr ij ik;h tkrh gS
(3) ty ds fy, vR;f/kd ikjxE; gksrh gS
(4) fyfXuu rFkk lsywykst dh cuh gksrh gS

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

98. Two cells A and B are continuous. Cell A has DPD 98. nks dksf”kdk,¡ A rFkk B lrr~ fLFkr gSaA dksf”kdk A dk
= 1 atm while cell B has DPD = 3 atm. The true DPD = 1 atm gS tcfd dksf”kdk B dk DPD = 3 atm
statement is gSA lgh dFku gS
(1) No movement of water between cell A and cell (1) dksf”kdk A rFkk dksf”kdk B ds chp ty dh xfr
B will occur ugha gksxh
(2) Movement of water from cell A to B (2) ty dksf”kdk A ls dksf”kdk B esa xfr djsxk
(3) Movement of water from cell B to A (3) ty dksf”kdk B ls dksf”kdk A esa xfr djsxk
(4) Water potential of cell B is more than A (4) dksf”kdk B dk ty foHko dksf”kdk A ls vf/kd gS
99. Most of the minerals present in soil enter 99. e`nk esa mifLFkr vf/kdka”k [kfut
(1) The root cell membrane without carrier protein (1) okgd izksVhu ds fcuk ewy dksf”kdk f>Yyh esa
(2) The root via active absorption
izo”s k djrs gSa
(2) lfØ; vo”kks’k.k ds }kjk ewy esa izo”s k djrs gSa
(3) The root cell via osmosis
(3) ijklj.k ds }kjk ewy dksf”kdk esa izos”k djrs gSa
(4) The cell via facilitated diffusion
(4) lqlk/; folj.k ds }kjk dksf”kdk esa izos”k djrs
100. The direction of movement in the phloem is ____ gSa
Fill in the blank with correct option.
100. ¶yks;e esa xfr dh fn”kk ___ gksrh gSA
(1) Upwards only lgh fodYi ls fjDr LFkkuksa dh iwfrZ dhft,A
(2) Downwards only (1) dsoy Åij dh vksj
(3) Sink to source always (2) dsoy uhps dh vksj
(4) Bi-directional (3) lnSo flad ls L=ksr dh vksj
101. Which of the following is not correct about the (4) f}&fn”kkRed
mass flow in phloem? 101. ¶yks;e esa gksus okys lkewfgd izokg ds fy, fuEu esa
(1) Sugar is uploaded into phloem sieve tubes by ls dkSulk lgh ugha gS\
passive transport (1) “kdZjk dks fuf’Ø; ifjogu }kjk ¶yks;e pkyuh
(2) Loading of sugar at the source produces a ufydkvksa esa yknk tkrk gS
hypertonic condition in the phloem (2) L=ksr ij “kdZjk ds ynku ls ¶yks;e esa
(3) Photosynthate trans-located into phloem as vfrijkljh fLFkfr fufeZr gksrh gS
sucrose (3) QksVksflaFksV ¶yks;e esa lqØkst ds :i esa
(4) As sugars are removed from phloem, the LFkkukarfjr gksrs gSa
osmotic pressure decreases and water moves (4) tSls gh ¶yks;e ls “kdZjk,¡ gVrh gSa] ijklj.kh
out nkc ?kVrk gS vkSj ty ¶yks;e ls ckgj pyk
102. Nitrogen in most of plants travels as tkrk gS
(1) Inorganic ions 102. vf/kdka”k ikniksa esa ukbVªkstu
(1) vdkcZfud vk;uksa ds :i esa lapfjr gksrh gS
(2) Organic form such as amino acids
(2) dkcZfud :i tSls vehuksa vEyksa ds :i esa
(3) Bounded with phosphates lapfjr gksrk gS
(4) Both 1 and 2 (3) QkWLQsV ds lkFk tqM+dj lapfjr gksrk gS
103. Select the odd one w.r.t. macronutrients. (4) 1 rFkk 2 nksuksa
(1) Carbon (2) Nitrogen 103. o`griks’kdrRoksa ds laca/k esa fo’ke dk p;u dhft,A
(3) Copper (4) Phosphorus (1) dkcZu (2) ukbVªkts u
104. Which of the following are mainly structural (3) dkWij (4) QkWLQksjl
elements of cells? 104. fuEu esa ls dkSu eq[;r% dksf”kdkvksa ds lajpukRed
rRo gSa\
(1) C, H, P and Cu (2) N, P, K and Zn
(1) C, H, P rFkk Cu (2) N, P, K rFkk Zn
(3) Ca, O and K (4) C, H, O and N
(3) Ca, O rFkk K (4) C, H, O rFkk N
105. Element which is an activator for ribulose 105. fuEufyf[kr dkSulk rRo jkbcksykst fclQkWLQsV
bisphosphate carboxylase-oxygenase is dkcksZfDlyst vkWDlhftust dks lfØ; djrk gS\
(1) Manganese (2) Magnesium (1) eSaxuht (2) eSXuhf”k;e
(3) Zinc (4) Calcium (3) ftad (4) dSfY”k;e

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)

106. Main element which play the role in stomatal 106. rRo tks ja/kz ds [kqyus o can gksus esa eq[; Hkwfedk
opening and closing is fuHkkrk gS] og gS
(1) Calcium (2) Potassium (1) dSfY”k;e (2) iksVSf”k;e
(3) Molybdenum (4) Zinc (3) eksfyCMsue (4) ftad
107. All of the following is true about the role of a 107. fdlds vfrfjDr “ks’k lHkh ml [kfut rRo dh
mineral element which is required by plants in the Hkwfedk ds fy, lgh gS ftldh ikniksa dks vR;f/kd
greatest amount, except ek=k esa vko”;drk gksrh gS\
(1) Absorbed as NO3 mainly (1) og eq[;r% NO3 ds :i ls vo”kksf’kr gksrk gS
(2) bldh vko”;drk fo”ks’k :i ls foHkT;ksrdh
(2) Required particularly by meristematic tissues
Årdksa dks gksrh gS
(3) Activates the phosphoenolpyruvate
(3) ;g QkWLQksbuksy ik;:osV dkcksZfDlyst ,atkbe
carboxylase enzyme
dks lfØ; djrk gS
(4) One of the major constitute of vitamins and
(4) ;g foVkfeUl rFkk U;qfDyd vEyksa dk eq[;
nucleic acids
?kVd gS
108. Element which is required for all phosphorylation
108. rRo tks lHkh QkWLQksfjyhdj.k vfHkfØ;kvksa ds fy,
reactions and is a part of cell membrane lipids in vko”;d gS ,oa tks dksf”kdk f>Yyh fyfiM~l dk
plants is absorbed as Hkkx gS] og fdl :i esa vo”kksf’kr gksrk gS\
2 2
(1) HPO4 (2) NO2 (1) HPO4 (2) NO2
(3) Carbonate ions (4) SO24 (3)dkcksZusV vk;u (4) SO24
109. Element which is required for activation of 109. rRo tks ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k ds nkSjku
nitrogenase enzyme during the nitrogen fixation is ukbVªkfs tust ,atkbe ds lfØ;.k gsrq vko”;d gksrk
(1) Calcium gS] og
(2) Also a part of nitrate reductase (1) dSfY”k;e gS
(3) Boron (2) ukbVªsV fjMDVst dk ,d Hkkx Hkh gksrk gS
(4) Absorbed as cupric ions (3) cksjkWu gS
110. Select the mismatched pair. (4) D;qfizd vk;uksa ds :i esa vo”kksf’kr gksrk gS
(1) Zinc – Needed for auxin synthesis 110. vlqesfyr ;qXe dk p;u dhft,A
(2) Chloride – Participate in oxygen (1) ftad – vkWfDlu la”ys’k.k ds fy,
evolution during vko”;d gksrk gS
photosynthesis (2) DyksjkbM – izdk”kla”ys’k.k ds nkSjku
(3) Potassium – It is directly associated with vkWDlhtu mRltZu esa Hkkx ysrk gS
most of enzymes involved in (3) iksVSf”k;e – izR;{k :i ls jsMkWDl vfHkfØ;kvksa
redox reactions esa “kkfey vf/kdka”k ,atkbeksa ls
(4) Manganese – Play a role in water splitting tqM+k gksrk gS
111. ATP molecules required to fix one molecule of N2 (4) eSaxuht – ty vi?kVu esa Hkwfedk fuHkkrk gS
biologically into ammonia is 111. N2 ds ,d v.kq dks tSfod :i ls veksfu;k esa fLFkj
(1) 32 (2) 16 djus ds fy, fdrus ATP dh vko”;drk gksrh gS\
(3) 8 (4) 24 (1) 32 (2) 16
(3) 8 (4) 24
112. Read the following reaction
112. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k dks if<+,A
N2  NH3  NO2
N2  NH3  NO2
Second step is mainly done by
f}rh;d in eq[;r% fdlds }kjk gksrk gS\
(1) Nitrobacter (2) Nitrococcus
(1) ukbVªkcs SDVj (2) ukbVªkd
s ksdl
(3) Rhizobium (4) Azotobacter
(3) jkbtksfc;e (4) ,tksVkscSDVj
113. Denitrification is mainly done by
113. foukbVªhdj.k eq[;r% fdlds }kjk gksrk gS\
(1) Rhizobium (2) Cyanobacteria
(1) jkbtksfc;e (2) lk;ukscSDVhfj;k
(3) Pseudomonas (4) Anabaena
(3) L;qMkseksukl (4) ,ukchuk
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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

114. Which of the following is incorrect about the 114. jkbtksfc;e }kjk dh tkus okyh ukbVªkt s u
nitrogen fixation process by Rhizobium? fLFkjhdj.k izfØ;k ds fy, fuEu esa ls dkSulk xyr
(1) Require nitrogenase enzyme which is gS\
insensitive to oxygen (1) bls ukbVªksftust ,atkbe dh vko”;drk gksrh
(2) Require high energy expenditure gS tks vkWDlhtu ds fy, vlaons u”khy gksrk gS
(3) Occurs mainly in anaerobic conditions (2) bls mPp ÅtkZ O;; dh vko”;drk gksrh gS
(4) Found in association with legumes (3) ;g eq[;r% vok;oh; ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa gksrh gS
115. Which of the following is required by plants in bulk (4) ;g Qyhnkj ikniksa ds la;kstu esa ik;h tkrh gS
amount? 115. ikniksa dks fdl rRo dh LFkwy ek=k esa vko”;drk
(1) Ca (2) Zinc gksrh gS\
(3) Fe (4) Mn (1) Ca (2) Zinc
116. Element which is absorbed by plants as bivalent (3) Fe (4) Mn
ions is 116. ikni fdl rRo dks ;qxyh vk;uksa ds :i esa
(1) Cl (2) Mg vo”kksf’kr djrk gS\
(1) Cl (2) Mg
(3) K (4) N
(3) K (4) N
117. Which of the following is true about the function of
117. cksjkWu ds dk;Z ds fy, fuEufyf[kr dkSulk dFku
boron?
lgh gS\
(1) Activate most of the enzymes of respiration
(1) ;g “olu ds vf/kdka”k ,atkbeksa dks lfØ;
(2) Responsible for uptake and utilization of
djrk gS
calcium
(2) ;g dSfY”k;e ds mnxzg.k rFkk miHkksx ds fy,
(3) Major part of DNA and RNA
mÙkjnk;h gS
(4) Major part of chlorophyll ring
(3) ;g DNA rFkk RNA dk eq[; Hkkx gS
118. Elements which are required mainly in formation of
(4) ;g DyksjksfQy oy; dk eq[; Hkkx gS
middle lamella in plants are
118. ikniksa esa e/; iVfydk ds fuekZ.k esa eq[;r% fdu
(1) Sulphur and manganese
rRoksa dh vko”;drk gksrh gS\
(2) Calcium and magnesium
(1) lYQj rFkk eSxuht
(3) Iron and potassium
(2) dSfY”k;e rFkk eSXuhf”k;e
(4) Copper and zinc (3) vk;ju rFkk iksVSf”k;e
119. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for (4) dkWij rFkk ftad
NH4 transfer to alpha-ketoglutaric acid?
119. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,atkbe NH4 ds vYQk
(1) Nitrogenase dhVksXywVsfjd vEy esa LFkkukarj.k gsrq mÙkjnk;h gS\
(2) Nitrate reductase (1) ukbVªkfs tust
(3) Glutamate dehydrogenase (2) ukbVªsV fjMDVst
(4) Catalase (3) XywVkesV fMgkbMªksftust
120. Which of the following scientist demonstrated that (4) dSVkyst
photosynthesis is essentially a light-dependent 120. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl oSKkfud us ;g n”kkZ;k Fkk
reaction in which hydrogen from a suitable fd izdk”kla”ys’k.k vfuok;Z :i ls ,d izdk”k fuHkZj
oxidisable compound reduces carbon dioxide to vfHkfØ;k gS ftlesa vkWDlhdj.kh; ;kSfxd ls izkIr
carbohydrates?
gkbMªkstu] dkcZu&MkbvkWDlkbM dks vipf;r djds
(1) T.W Engelmann (2) Cornelius van Niel
dkcksZgkbMªVs cukrh gSa\
(3) Julius von Sachs (4) Jan Ingenhousz (1) Vh-MCyw-,aftyesu (2) dkusZfyvl okWu uhy
121. Pigment which imparts yellow green colour in (3) twfy;l okWu lsPl (4) tkWu batsugkmt
chromatogram is
121. o.kZd tks ØkseV s ksxzke esa ihys&gjs jax dks n”kkZrk gS
(1) Chl a (1) DyksjksfQy a
(2) Chl b (2) DyksjksfQy b
(3) Xanthophylls (3) tSUFkksfQy
(4) Both chl a and chl b (4) DyksjksfQy a o DyksjksfQy b nksuksa

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)

122. Replenishment of electrons in PS-II is mainly done 122. PS-II esa bysDVªkWu dh iqu%iwfrZ eq[;r% fdlds }kjk
by gksrh gS\
(1) Oxygen (2) Water (1) vkWDlhtu (2) ty
+
(3) NADPH (4) NADP (3) NADPH (4) NADP
+

123. Terminal electron receptor in Z scheme is 123. Z Ldhe esa vafre bysDVªkWu xzkgh dkSu gksrk gS\
+
(1) P-700 (2) NADP (1) P-700 (2) NADP
+
+ +
(3) P-680 (4) NADH (3) P-680 (4) NADH
124. Which of the following is not true about cyclic 124. mPprj ikniksa esa pØh; QkWLQksfjyhdj.k ds fy,
phosphorylation in higher plants? dkSulk lgh ugha gS\
(1) Both PS-I and PS-II are used (1) PS-I rFkk PS-II nksuksa dk mi;ksx gksrk gS
(2) Electron returns to PS-I (2) bysDVªkWu iqu% PS-I esa ykSV tkrs gSa
(3) Oxygen is not evolved (3) vkWDlhtu mRlftZr ugha gksrh
(4) Water splitting complex is not a part of system (4) ty vi?kVu ladqy] ra= dk Hkkx ugha gS
125. During ETS of photosynthesis, cytochrome b6 and 125. izdk”kla”ys’k.k dh ETS ds nkSjku lkbVksØkse b6 rFkk
f complex f ladqy
(1) Transfer electrons between PS II and PS I
(1) PS II rFkk PS I ds chp bysDVªkWu dk LFkkukarj.k
(2) Is a primary electron acceptor djrk gS
(3) Transfer its electron to PS-II
(2) izkFkfed bysDVªkWu xzkgh gS
(4) Accept the electrons from PS-I
(3) vius bysDVªkWu dks PS-II esa LFkkukarfjr djrk gS
126. Photorespiration
(4) PS-I ls bysDVªkWu izkIr djrk gS
(1) Usually occurs in mitochondria and chloroplast
126. izdk”k”olu
in C4 plants
(1) C4 ikniksa esa izk;% ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k rFkk
(2) Occurs in chloroplast only
gfjryod esa gksrk gS
(3) Occurs in mitochondria only
(2) dsoy gfjryod esa gksrk gS
(4) Involve the oxygen utilisation by RuBP
(3) dsoy ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k esa gksrk gS
127. Primary CO2 acceptor in plants with Kranz
(4) esa RuBP }kjk vkWDlhtu dk miHkksx gksrk gS
anatomy is
127. ØsUt “kkjhfjdh okys ikniksa esa ik;k tkus okyk
(1) RuBisCo
izkFkfed CO2 xzkgh gS
(2) RuBP
(1) :fcLdks
(3) Phosphoenolpyruvate
(2) RuBP
(4) A four carbon molecule
(3) QkWLQksbuksy ik;:osV
128. Enzyme responsible for the carbon fixation in C4
(4) ,d pkj dkcZu okyk v.kq
plants in bundle sheath cells is
128. C4 ikniksa dh iwy vkPNn dksf”kdkvksa esa dkcZu
(1) Decarboxylase
fLFkjhdj.k ds fy, dkSulk ,atkbe mÙkjnk;h gksrk
(2) PEP carboxylase gS\
(3) RuBisCo (1) fMdkcksZfDlyst (2) PEP dkcksZfDlyst
(4) NADPH reductase (3) :fcLdks (4) NADPH fjMDVst
129. The first product of the photorespiration pathway is 129. izdk”k”olu iFkØe dk igyk mRikn gS
(1) Phosphoglycolate (2) PEP (1) QkWLQksXykbdksysV (2) PEP
(3) Pyruvate (4) Malic acid (3) ik;:osV (4) eSfyd vEy
130. For most of plants, light saturation occurs at___ of 130. vf/kdka”k ikniksa ds fy, izdk”k lar`fIr iw.kZ
the full sunlight. lw;Zizdk”k ds __ ij gksrh gSA
Fill in the blank with correct option. lgh fodYi }kjk fjDr LFkku dh iwfrZ dhft,A
(1) 50% (2) 10% (1) 50% (2) 10%
(3) 90% (4) 1% (3) 90% (4) 1%

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

131. The C4 and C3 plants show the saturation of
carbon fixation respectively at about
(1) 100 /L and 200 /L of CO2 concentration
(2) 150 /L and 200 /L of CO2 concentration
(3) 300 /L and 800 /L of CO2 concentration
(4) 360 /L and 450 /L of CO2 concentration
132. Which of the following statement not correctly
depicts the plants showing Hatch-Slack pathway?
(1) They show photorespiration
(2) Bundle sheath cells are present
(3) PEPCase enzyme produce a 4 carbon product
(4) Mesophyll cells and bundle sheath cells are
connected through plasmodesmata
133. During reduction step of Calvin cycle
(1) 2 molecules of ATP are consumed per CO2
molecule
(2) Regeneration of CO2 acceptor molecule
occurs
(3) Ribulose-1, 5 bisphosphate is formed
(4) CO2 is fixed by RuBisCo
134. Number of ATP used to produce one glucose
molecule in C3 plants is
(1) 12 (2) 18
(3) 8 (4) 2
135. Most crucial step of Calvin cycle
(1) Is carboxylation
(2) Is reduction
(3) Is the step in which RuBP regenerated
(4) Involves sucrose production from 3 carbon
molecule
131. C4 rFkk C3 ikni Øe”k% fdruh lkanzrk ij dkcZu
MkbvkWDlkbM dh lar`Irrk n”kkZrs gSa\
(1) CO2 dh 100 /L rFkk 200 /L lkanzrk ij
(2) CO2 dh 150 /L rFkk 200 /L lkanzrk ij
(3) CO2 dh 300 /L rFkk 800 /L lkanzrk ij
(4) CO2 dh 360 /L rFkk 450 /L lkanzrk ij
132. ikni n”kkZrs gSa] fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk dFku
gSp&LySd iFkØe n”kkZus okys ikniksa dks lgh :i
ls fpf=r ugha djrk gS\
(1) ;g izdk”k“olu n”kkZrs gSa
(2) buesa iwy vkPNn dksf”kdk,¡ mifLFkr gksrh gSa
(3) isidst ,atkbe 4 dkcZu okyk mRikn fufeZr
djrk gS
(4) i.kZe/;ksÙkd dksf”kdk,¡ rFkk iwy vkPNn
dksf”kdk,¡ IykTeksMsLesVk }kjk tqM+h jgrh gSa
133. dsfYou pØ ds vip;u in ds nkSjku
(1) izfr CO2 v.kq ds fy, ATP ds 2 v.kq miHkqDr
gksrs gSa
(2) CO2 xzkgh v.kq dk iqu:Riknu gksrk gS
(3) jkbcwykst-1, 5 fclQkWLQsV fufeZr gksrk gS
(4) :fcLdks }kjk CO2 fLFkj dh tkrh gS
134. C3 ikniksa esa Xywdkst ds ,d v.kq dks fufeZr djus ds
fy, fdrus ATP iz;qDr gksrs gSa\
(1) 12 (2) 18
(3) 8 (4) 2
135. dSfYou pØ dk lcls egRoiw.kZ in gS
(1) dkcksZfDlyhdj.k
(2) vip;u
(3) RuBP dks mRikfnr djus okyk in
(4) ftlesa 3 dkcZu v.kq ls lqØkst curh gS

ZOOLOGY
136. In which of the following animals, water does not 136. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSuls izkf.k;ksa esa inkFkks± ds
circulate through their body cavities to facilitate the fofue; ds fy, dksf'kdkvksa dks lqxe cukus ds fy,
cells to exchange substances? mudh nsgxqgk ds ekè;e ls ikuh dk lapj.k ugha
(1) Hydra (2) Sycon
gksrk gS\
(1) gkbMªk (2) lkbdu
(3) Obelia (4) Taenia
(3) vkscsfy;k (4) Vhfu;k
137. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. plasma 137. IykTek la?kVd rFkk muds dk;ks± ds lanHkZ esa xyr
constituents and their functions.
feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Fibrinogen – Coagulation of blood (1) Qkbfczukstsu – jDr Ldanu
(2) Globulins – Defence mechanisms of (2) XykscqfyUl – 'kjhj dk izfrj{kk ra=
the body (3) ,YcwfeUl – ijklj.kh larqyu esa
(3) Albumins – Help in osmotic balance lgk;d
(4) Ldanu dkjd – eq[;r% lfØ; :i esa gksrs
(4) Clotting factors – Present majorly in active
form gSa

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)

138. Which of the following organ is considered as 138. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSuls vax dks RBCs ds
graveyard of RBCs? dfczLrku ds :i esa tkuk tkrk gS\
(1) Pancreas (2) Red bone marrow (1) vXuk'k; (2) yky vfLFk eTtk
(3) Spleen (4) Lymph nodes (3) Iyhgk (4) yfldk xzafFk
139. Choose the odd one w.r.t. granulocytes. 139. xzsU;wykslkbV ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke in dk p;u
(1) Neutrophils (2) Basophils dhft,A
(3) Eosinophils (4) Lymphocytes (1) U;wVªksfQy (2) cslksfQy
140. The possibility of exposure of maternal blood to (3) bvksfluksfQy (4) fyaQkslkbV
the foetal blood is during 140. Hkzw.k ds jDr esa ekrk ds jDr ds lEidZ dh laHkkouk
st
(1) 1 trimester of pregnancy fdl nkSjku jgrh gS\
(2) The delivery of child (1) xHkkZoLFkk dh igyh frekgh
nd
(3) 2 trimester of pregnancy (2) f'k'kq ds izlo ds nkSjku
rd
(4) 3 trimester of pregnancy (3) xHkkZoLFkk dh nwljh frekgh ds nkSjku
141. Match animals placed in Column-I with their (4) xHkkZoLFkk dh rhljh frekgh ds nkSjku
excretory organs in Column-II. Choose the option 141. dkWye-I esa fLFkr izkf.k;ksa dk feyku dkWye-II muds
with only correct match. mRlthZ vaxksa ls dhft,A dsoy lgh feykus okys
Column-I Column-II fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
a. Planaria, Amphioxus (i) Feather like gills dkWye-I dkWye-II
a. IySusfj;k] ,EQhvkWDll (i) ia[k ds leku Dykse
b. Pheretima, Hirudinaria (ii) Malpighian tubules
b. QsjsfVek] gh:fMusfj;k (ii) eSyihxh ufydk,a
c. Pila, Pinctada (iii) Protonephridia
c. ikbyk] fiadVkMk (iii) vkfn o`Ddd
d. Periplaneta, Locusta (iv) Nephridia
d. isfjIysusVk] yksdLVk (iv) o`Ddd
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
142. Correct order of increasing toxicity among 142. ukbVªkts uh vif'k"Vksa veksfu;k] ;wfj;k vkSj ;wfjd
nitrogenous wastes ammonia, urea and uric acid is vEy ds chp c<+rh gqbZ vkfo"krk dk lgh Øe gS&
(1) Uric acid < urea < ammonia (1) ;wfjd vEy < ;wfj;k < veksfu;k
(2) Uric acid < ammonia < urea (2) ;wfjd vEy < veksfu;k < ;wfj;k
(3) Ammonia < urea < uric acid (3) veksfu;k < ;wfj;k < ;wfjd vEy
(4) Urea < uric acid < ammonia (4) ;wfj;k < ;wfjd vEy < veksfu;k
143. Which of the following is not a function of 143. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d o`Ddd dk;Z ugha gS\
Nephridia? (1) ukbVªkts uh vof'k"Vksa dks i`Fkd djuk
(1) Removal of nitrogenous wastes (2) nzo larqyu dks cuk;s j[kuk
(2) Maintain fluid balance (3) xSlh; fofue; esa Hkkx ysuk gS
(3) Participate in gaseous exchange (4) vk;uh larqyu dks cuk, j[kuk
(4) Maintain ionic balance 144. ekuo o`Dd ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks
144. Read the following statements w.r.t. human if<+;sA
kidney. a. o`Dd lse ds cht ds vkdkj dh lajpuk gksrh
a. Kidneys are bean shaped structures, close to gS] tks mnj xqgk esa vkarfjd i`"B lrg ds
the dorsal inner wall of the abdominal cavity lehi gksrh gSA
b. Kidneys are situated between the levels of last b. o`Dd vafre o{kh; vkSj rhljh dfV d'ks:dk ds
thoracic and third lumbar vertebra Lrjksa ds chp fLFkr gksrs gSaA
c. Each kidney of adult measures 10-12 cm in c. o;Ld ds izR;sd o`Dd dh yEckbZ 10-12 lseh-
length and 5-7 cm in thickness rFkk eksVkbZ 5-7 lseh- gksrh gSA
d. Ureter, blood vessels and nerves leave the d. vYi dSfyDl ds ekè;e ls ew=&ufydk] jDr
kidney through minor calyx okfgfu;k¡ vkSj raf=dk,a o`Dd dks NksM+ nsrh gSA
Choose the option with only correct statements. dsoy lgh dFkuksa okys fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(1) a and b (2) b and c (1) a vkSj b (2) b vkSj c
(3) b, c and d (4) a, b, c and d (3) b, c vkSj d (4) a, b, c vkSj d

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

145. Renal tubule begins with 145. o`Dd ufydk fdlls izkjaHk gksrh gS\
(1) Glomerulus (2) Bowman’s capsule (1) Xykses:yl (2) cksesu laiqV

(3) PCT (4) Loop of Henle (3) PCT (4) gsuys ywi
146. izkf.k;ksa rFkk muds pyu lajpukvksa ds lanHkZ esa
146. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. animals and
their locomotory structures.
xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) iSjkfef'k;e – i{ekHk
(1) Paramecium – Cilia
(2) vehck – dwV ikn
(2) Amoeba – Pseudopodia (3) ;wXyhuk – Li'kZd
(3) Euglena – Tentacles (4) gkseks – ikn
(4) Homo – Limbs 147. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
147. Choose the incorrect statement. (1) lHkh xeu lapyu gksrs gS ysfdu lHkh lapyu
xeu ugha gksrs gSa
(1) All locomotions are movements but all
movements are not locomotions (2) lHkh fpduh isf'k;k¡ vuSfPNd gksrh gS ysfdu
lHkh vuSfPNd isf'k;ka fpduh isf'k;ka ugha gksrh
(2) All smooth muscles are involuntary but all gS
involuntary muscles are not smooth muscles
(3) lHkh ,sfPNd isf'k;ka jsf[kr gksrh gS ysfdu lHkh
(3) All voluntary muscles are striated but all jsf[kr isf'k;ka ,sfPNd ugha gksrh gS
striated muscles are not voluntary (4) lHkh jsf[kd isf'k;ka ,sfPNd isf'k;ka gksrh gSa
(4) All striated muscles are voluntary muscles but ysfdu lHkh ,sfPNd isf'k;ka jsf[kd ugha gksrh gSa
all voluntary muscles are not striated 148. fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh lapyuksa dks
148. All of the following movements are shown by fL=;ksa esa dqN 'kjhj dksf'kdkvksa dks iznf'kZr fd;k
certain body cells in human females except tkrk gS\
(1) Ciliary (1) i{ekHkh
(2) vehch; lapyu
(2) Amoeboid movement
(3) is'kh;
(3) Muscular (4) d'kkHkh
(4) Flagellar 149. Ård tks mRifRr esa ehtksMeZy gksrk gS rFkk o;Ld
149. The tissue which is mesodermal in origin and ekuo ds 'kjhj ds otu esa vf/kdre izfr'kr dh
contributes maximum percent to body weight of o`f) djrk gS og gS&
human adults is (1) is'kh; Ård
(1) Muscular tissue (2) ,fj;ksyj Ård
(2) Areolar tissue (3) l?ku fu;fer la;ksth Ård
(3) Dense regular connective tissue (4) l?ku vfu;fer la;ksth Ård
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue 150. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh isf'k;ksa dh fØ;k,a raf=dk
150. The activities of which of the following muscles are
ra= ds ,sfPNd fu;a=.k esa gksrh gS\
under voluntary control of the nervous system? (1) dadky is'kh
(2) lHkh jsf[kr is'kh
(1) Skeletal muscles (2) All striated muscles
(3) fpduh is'kh
(3) Smooth muscles (4) Cardiac muscles
(4) ân; is'kh
151. Which of the following are phagocytic cells in the 151. jDr esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh Hk{kdk.kqd
blood?
dksf'kdk,a gksrh gSa\
(1) Macrophages (1) egkHk{kdk.kq
(2) Neutrophils (2) U;wVªksfQy
(3) Natural killer cells (3) izkd`frd ekjd dksf'kdk,a
(4) Macrophages and Neutrophils (4) egkHk{kdk.kq vkSj U;wVªksfQy

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)

152. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. formed elements 152. ekuo ds rRo fuekZ.k ds lanHkZ esa xyr feyku dk
of humans. p;u dhft,A
(1) RBCs – Average life span of (1) RBCs – vkSlr thou dky 120 fnu
120 days
(2) gheksXyksfcu – 12-16 gms/100 feyh- jDr
(2) Haemoglobin – 12-16 gms/100 ml blood (3) WBCs – lkekU; O;f"V;ksa esa vkSlr jDr
–3 –3
(3) WBCs – Averages 600-800 mm of 600-800 mm
blood in normal individuals (4) IysVysV~l dksf'kdk [kaM ds :i esa tkuk
–
(4) Platelets – Considered as cell fragment tkrk gSA
153. Exchange of nutrients, gases, etc., between the 153. jDr rFkk 'kjhj dksf'kdkvksa ds chp iks"k.k] xSl dk
blood and body cells always occur through vknku&iznku ges'kk fdlds ekè;e ls gksrk gS\
(1) Blood plasma (2) Serum (1) jDr&IykTek (2) lhje
(3) Tissue fluid (4) Cytoplasm (3) Ård nzO; (4) dksf'kdknzO;
154. All of the following may contain hormones except 154. fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh esa gkeksZUl gks
(1) Blood (2) Lymph ldrk gS\
(3) Tissue fluid (4) Sebum (1) jDr (2) ylhdk
(3) Ård nzO; (4) lhce
155. Match the items given in Column-I with those in
Column-II and select the correct option given 155. dkWye-I esa fn, x, inksa dk feyku dkWye-II ls
below. dhft, rFkk uhps fn, x, lgh fodYi dk p;u
Column-I Column-I
dhft,A
dkWye-I dkWye-II
a. Superior vena cava (i) Carries oxygenated
a. ÅèoZ egkf'kjk (i) vkWDlhd`r jDr ogu djrh
blood
gSA
b. Inferior vena cava (ii) Carries deoxygenated b. fuEu egkf'kjk (ii) vukWDlhd`r
blood
jDr ogu
djrh gSA
c. Pulmonary artery (iii) Brings deoxygenated c. Qq¶Qql /keuh (iii) nkfgus vfyan ls 'kjhj ds
blood from lower part fupys Hkkx ls vukWDlhd`r
of body to right atrium
jDr ysrh gSA
d. Pulmonary vein (iv) Brings deoxygenated d. Qq¶Qql f'kjk (iv) nkfgus vfyan ls 'kjhj ds
blood from upper part Åijh Hkkx ls vukWDlhd`r
of body to right atrium
jDr ysrh gSA
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
156. Loop of Henle is too short in 156. gsuys ywi fdlesa cgqr vYi gksrk gS\
(1) Cortical nephrons (1) oYdqVh; o`Ddd
(2) Juxtamedullary nephron
(2) lfUuè; eè;ka'k o`Ddk.kq
(3) All nephrons
(3) lHkh o`Ddd
(4) All renal tubules
(4) lHkh o`Dd ufydkvksa esa
157. Three interrelated processes of urine formation in
157. ekuo o`Dd esa ew= fuekZ.k dh rhu ijLij lEcU/kh
human’s kidneys are
izfØ;k,a dkSulh gSa\
(1) Filtration, secretion, excretion (1) fuL;anu] L=o.k] mRltZu
(2) Secretion, reabsorption, micturition (2) L=o.k] vo'kks"k.k] ew=.k
(3) Excretion, storage, micturition (3) mRltZu] Hk.Mkj.k] ew=.k
(4) Filtration, reabsorption and secretion (4) fuL;anu] vo'kks"k.k] vkSj lzo.k

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

158. Read the following statements A and B and 158. fuEufyf[kr dFku A vkSj B dks if<+;s rFkk lgh
choose the correct answer. mRrj dk p;u dhft,A
Statement-A : The glomerular capillary blood
dFku-A : xqPN dh dksf'kdkvksa dk jDr&nkc rhu
pressure causes filtration of blood through three
cellular layers. dksf'kdh; ijrksa ds ekè;e ls jDr dk fuLianu djrk
Statement-B : Podocytes are arranged in an gSaA
intricate manner so as to leave some minute slit dFku-B : iksMkslkbV~l tks fo'ks"k izdkj ls foU;kflr
pores for secretion of plasma. gksrh gS ftlesa IykTek lzo.k ds fy, dqN NksV& s NksVs
(1) Both statements are correct [kkap fNnz ¼fLyViksj½ jg tkrs gSA
(2) Both statements are incorrect (1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa
(3) Only statement A is correct
(2) nksuksa dFku xyr gSa
(4) Only statement B is correct
(3) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
159. Ultra filtrate contains all the constituent of blood
plasma except (4) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
(1) Proteins (2) Glucose 159. fdlds vfrfjDr vU; lHkh vYVªk fQYVªsV esa :f/kj
(3) Amino acids (4) Urea IykTek ds ?kVd gS\
160. Identify A to D in the following diagrammatic
(1) izkVs hu (2) Xywdkst
section of kidney and choose the correct option
accordingly. (3) vehuks vEy (4) ;wfj;k
160. o`Dd ds fuEufyf[kr vjs[kh; [k.M esa A ls D dh
igpku dhft, rFkk bl rjg lgh fodYi dk p;u
dhft,A

A B C D

(1) Calyx Renal Renal Medullary A B C D

column pelvis pyramid (1) dSfyDl o`Dd LraHk o`Ddh; eè;ka'k fijkfeM
(2) Renal Renal Calyx Medullary Jksf.k
pelvis column pyramid (2) o`Ddh; Jksf.k o`Dd LraHk o`Ddh; eè;ka'k fijkfeM
(3) Renal Calyx Medullary Renal ¼isfyol½ Jksf.k
column pyramid pelvis (3) o`Dd LraHk dSfyDl eè;ka'k o`Ddh; Jksf.k
(4) Medullary Calyx Renal Renal fijkfeM
pyramid column pelvis
(4) eè;ka'k fijkfeM dSfyDl o`Dd LraHk o`Ddh; Jksf.k
161. Fatigue in muscles, after prolonged strenuous
161. yacs le; rd dBksj 'kkjhfjd dk;Z ds ckn isf'k;ksa
physical work, is caused due to
esa Fkdku fdl dkj.k ls gksrh gSa\
(1) Increase in supply of O2 (1) O2 dh vkiwfrZ esa o`f)
(2) Decrease in blood glucose (2) :f/kj Xywdkst esa deh
(3) The accumulation of lactic acid (3) ySfDVd vEy dk lap;u
(4) Depletion of glycogen (4) Xykbdkstu dh deh

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)

162. Myoglobin is a red coloured oxygen binding 162. ek;ksXyksfcu ,d yky jax dk vkWDlhtu ca/ku
protein, present in large amount in izkVs hu gS tks cM+h ek=k esa mifLFkr gksrk gS&
(1) jDr esa
(1) Blood
(2) yky is'kh rarqvksa esa
(2) Red muscle fibres
(3) lQsn is'kh rarqvksa esa
(3) White muscle fibres (4) fo'ks"khd`r la;ksth Årdksa esa
(4) Specialized connective tissues 163. ,d dadky is'kh izkV s hu ds fuEufyf[kr ?kVd esa ls
163. Which of the following component of a skeletal
dkSulh ATP vkSj ,fDVu ds fy, lfØ; LFkkuksa ds
muscle protein has binding sites for ATP and
fy, ca/k LFkku gS\
active sites for actin? (1) Vªki s ksfuu
(1) Troponin (2) ,fDVu
(3) (HMM) Hkkjh esjksek;ksflu
(2) Actin
(4) (LMM) gYdk esjksek;ksflu
(3) HMM
164. dadky is'kh rarqvksa ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa
(4) LMM dks if<+;s rFkk lHkh lgh dFkuksa okys fodYi dk
164. Read the following statements w.r.t skeletal p;u dhft,A
muscle fibres and choose the option with all a. izR;sd iryk rarq nks rarqe;h ,fDVUl dk cuk
correct statements. gksrk gSA
a. Each thin filament is made up of two b. F-,fDVu G-,fDVu dk cgqyd gSA
filamentous actins
c. Vªki s ksfuu ds mi bdkbZ ek;ksflu rarqvksa ij
b. F-actin is the polymer of G-actin
,fDVu ds fy, lfØ; ca/ku LFkyksa dks <Ddj
c. Subunits of troponin masks the active binding j[krh gSaA
sites for actin on the myosin filaments
d. Vªki s ksek;ksflu izkVs hu dk ,d rarq gS tks ,d
d. Tropomyosin is a filament of protein which tfVy izksVhu Vªksiksfuu ds lekukarj pyrk gSA
runs parallel to a complex protein troponin
(1) a vkSj b (2) b vkSj c
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(3) c vkSj d (4) a vkSj d
(3) c and d (4) a and d
165. igys gksus okyh ?kVuk ls 'kq: is'kh ladqpu ds
165. Arrange the following steps of muscle contraction
fuEufyf[kr pj.kksa dk lgh Øe esa O;ofLFkr
in correct order, starting from the event occurring
first. dhft,A
+2
a. Release of Ca in sarcoplasm a. is'kh nzO; esa Ca+2 dk ekspu
b. Nerve impulse b. raf=dh; vkosx
c. Release of acetylcholine c. ,flVkbdksfyu dk ekspu
d. Unmasking of binding sites on actin d. ,fDVu ij ca/k LFkkuksa dh vu ekfLdax
e. Sliding of actin over myosin
e. ek;ksflu ds Åij ,fDVu dk ljduk
f. Cross bridge formation
f. ØkWl lsrq fuekZ.k
(1) a  b  c  d  e  f
(1) a  b  c  d  e  f
(2) a  c  e  b  d  f
(2) a  c  e  b  d  f
(3) b  c  a  d  f  e
(3) b  c  a  d  f  e
(4) b  a  c d  e  f (4) b  a  c d  e  f

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

166. Choose the odd one w.r.t. presence of open 166. [kqys ifjlapj.k ra= dh mifLFkfr ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke
circulatory system. in dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Molluscs (1) eksyLd
(2) Arthropods (2) vkFkzksZiksM
(3) Hemichordates (3) gsehdkWMZsV
(4) Vertebrates (4) d'ks:dh
167. In normal ECG, QRS complex represents 167. lkekU; ECG esa QRS tfVy fuy;ksa ds fo/kzqohdj.k
depolarisation of ventricles which initiates the dks iznf'kZr djrk gS tks 'kq: djrk gS
(1) Ventricular relaxation (1) fuy;h f'kfFkyu
(2) Ventricular contraction (2) fuy;h ladqpu
(3) Filling of ventricles (3) fuy;h Hkjko
(4) Auricular systole (4) vkWfjdqyj izdqapu

168. About 30 percent filling of ventricles takes place by 168. fdl nkSjku fuy;ksa dk Hkjko yxHkx 30 izfr'kr
atrial systole during vfyan izdqapu }kjk gksrk gS\
(1) Joint diastole (1) la;qDr vuqf'kfFkyu
(2) Ventricular diastole (2) fuy;h vuqf'kfFkyu
(3) Ventricular systole (3) fuy;h izdqapu

(4) The phase when AV valves remain closed (4) og voLFkk tc AV okYo can jgrk gSA

169. Purkinje fibres are present in 169. iqjfdats rarq mifLFkr gksrs gSa&

(1) Left auricle (1) ck;k vfyan

(2) Right auricle (2) nk;k vfyan

(3) fgt ds caMy
(3) Bundle of His
(4) fuy;h ân;foU;kl ¼ek;ksdkfMZ;e½
(4) Ventricular myocardium
170. fuEufyf[kr dkWye-I dk feyku dkWye-II ls dhft,
170. Match the following Column-I and II and choose
the option with all correct match. rFkk lHkh lgh feyku okys fodYi dk p;u
dhft,A
Column-I Column-II
dkWye-I dkWye-II
a. Coronary artery (i) Chest pain due to
disease inadequate O2
a. ân; /keuh jksx (i) vi;kZIr O2 ds dkj.k
reaching to heart lhus dk nnZ ân;
muscles is'kh rd igq¡prk gSA
b. vfrruko (ii) ,fFkjksdkfBa;
b. Hypertension (ii) Atherosclerosis
c. ,atkbuk isDVksfjl (iii) ;fn fdlh dk jDr
c. Angina pectoris (iii) If repeated checks of nkc ckj&ckj ekius
blood pressure of an ij Hkh O;fDr dk
individual is more 140/90 mm Hg ls
than 140/90 mm Hg
vf/kd gksrk gSA
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)

171. Choose the incorrect statement. 171. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Water and electrolyte balance of the body is (1) 'kjhj ds ty vkSj fo|qr vi?kV~; dks ijklj.k
termed osmoregulation fu;eu dgrs gSA
(2) JGA is a part of Renin-angiotensin mechanism (2) JGA, jDr nkc dks de djus ds fy, jsfuu
to reduce blood pressure ,aft;ksVfsa lu fØ;kfof/k dk ,d Hkkx gSA
(3) Cortical portion of kidney projecting in between (3) oYdqV] eè;ka'k fijkfeM ds chp QSydj o`Dd
medullary pyramids is called columns of Bertini LraHk cukrs gS ftUgsa cjrhuh&LraHk dgrs gSaA
(4) A loop of capillary running parallel to loop of (4) gsuys&ywi ds lekukarj pyus okyk dsf'kdk ds
Henle is called vasa recta, in juxtamedullary ,d ywi dks tDlVk esMqyjh usÝksu esa oklk
nephron
jsDVk dgk tkrk gSA
172. Urine is stored in urinary bladder till a voluntary 172. ew=] ew=k'k; esa ,df=r fd;k tkrk gS tc rd mls
signal is given by
fdlds }kjk LoSfPNd ladsr ugha fn;k tkrk gS\
(1) ANS (2) CNS (1) ANS (2) CNS
(3) SNS (4) PNS (3) SNS (4) PNS
173. In Hemodialysis 173. gheksMk;fyfll esa
(1) o`Dd ls jDr fudyuk
(1) Blood is drained from kidney
(2) lsyksQsu uyh dh vko';drk ugha
(2) Cellphone tube is not required
(3) jksxh dh /keuh ls jDr fudkydj
(3) Blood is drained from a convenient artery
(4) jksxh dh f'kjk ls jDr fudkydj
(4) Blood is drained from a convenient vein
174. fuEufyf[kr jDr okfgdkvksa esa ls fdlds jDr essa
174. Which of the following blood vessel has minimum ;wfj;k U;wure ek=k gksrh gS\
amount of urea in its blood?
(1) o`Dd /keuh (2) o`Dd f'kjk
(1) Renal artery (2) Renal vein
(3) ;d`r /keuh (4) ;d`r f'kjk
(3) Hepatic artery (4) Hepatic vein 175. fuEufyf[kr A rFkk B dFkuksa dks if<+;s rFkk lgh
175. Read the following statements A and B and mRrj dk p;u dhft,A
choose the correct answer.
dFku-A : yxHkx 99 izfr'kr xqPNh; fuLianu o`Dd
Statement-A : Nearly 99 percent of the glomerular
dh ufydkvksa }kjk iqu% vo'kksf"kr fd;k tkrk gSA
filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules.
dFku-B : rSy xzafFk;k lhce }kjk dqN inkFkks± tSls
Statement-B : Sebaceous glands eliminate certain
substances like degraded steroid hormones, fuEuhd`r LVsjkWbM gkeksuZ ] gkbMªksdkcZu ,oa ekse dk
hydrocarbons and waxes through sebum fuLdklu djrh gSA
(1) Both statements are correct (1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa
(2) Both statements are incorrect (2) nksuksa dFku xyr gSa
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) dsoy dFku A lgh gSa
(4) Only statement B is correct (4) dsoy dFku B lgh gSa
176. Out of ‘N’ pairs of ribs in humans, ‘X’ pairs are 176. euq"; esa ilfy;ksa ds ‘N’ tksM+s esa ls ‘X’ tksM+s d'ks:dk
vertebrosternal, ‘Y’ pairs are vertebrochondral and mjksfLFk gSa] ‘Y’ tksM+s oVhZczksdkWUMªy gSa vkSj ‘Z’ tksM+s
‘Z’ pairs are vertebral ribs. Choose the option
which correctly represents N, X, Y and Z.
oVhZczy ilfy;k¡ gSA ml fodYi dk p;u dhft, tks
N, X, Y vkSj Z dks lgh :i ls n'kkZrk gSA
N X Y Z
N X Y Z
(1) 12 8 2 2
(1) 12 8 2 2
(2) 12 6 3 3 (2) 12 6 3 3
(3) 12 7 2 3 (3) 12 7 2 3
(4) 12 7 3 2 (4) 12 7 3 2

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

177. In human adults number of false ribs is equal to 177. o;Ld ekuo esa dwV ilfy;ksa dh la[;k fdlds la[;k
the number of
ds cjkcj gS\
(1) Cranial bones
(1) dikyh; vfLFk
(2) Ear ossicles
(3) Bones in pectoral girdle (2) d.kZ vfLFkdk,a
(4) Bones in pelvic girdle (3) val es[kyk esa vfLFk
178. Scapula is a triangular flat bone situated in the (4) Jksf.k es[kyk
dorsal part of thorax between the A and 178. LdSiqyk o{k ds i`"B Hkkx esa A ,oa B
B ribs. Its C process articulates with ilyh ds chp fLFkr ,d f=Hkqtkdkj piVh vfLFk gSA
D forming gliding joint. Choose the option bldh C izfØ;k D ds lkFk laf/k;kstu
which correctly fill the blanks A, B, C and D. dj folihZ laf/k cukrh gSA ml fodYi dk p;u
A B C D
dhft, tks fjDr LFkku A, B, C ,oa D dks lgh :i ls
nd th
Hkjrk gSA
(1) 2 7 Spine Vertebra A B C D
(2) 2
nd
5
th
Acromion Sternum (1) nwljh 7oha Likbu d'ks#d
nd th
(2) nwljh 5oha ,Øksfeu mjksfLFk
(3) 2 7 Acromion Clavicle
(3) nwljh 7oha ,Øksfeu Dysfody
nd th
(4) 2 8 Spine Clavicle (4) nwljh 8oha Likbu Dysfody
179. Select the incorrect match. 179. xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A

(1) Suture – Immovable joint (1) lhou – vpy laf/k

(2) Cartilaginous joint – Intervertebral joint (2) mikfLFk ;qDr laf/k – varjd'ks:dh laf/k

(3) Gliding joint – Between carpal and (3) folihZ laf/k – vaxwBs ds dkiZy vkSj esVk
metacarpal of thumb dkiZy ds chp
(4) Pivot joint – Between axis and atlas (4) /kqjkxz laf/k – v{k vkSj ,Vyl ds chp
180. A decrease in the level of oestrogen in females 180. fdl dkj.k jtksfuo`fr ds ckn fL=;kssa esa ,LVªkstu ds
after menopause leads to Lrj esa deh gksrh gSa\
(1) Muscular dystrophy (2) Osteoporosis (1) is'kh; nqLiks"k.k (2) vfLFk lqf"kjrk
(3) Gout (4) Arthritis (3) xkmV (4) laf/k 'kksFk



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