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Form No.

Student Name:

PRE-MEDICAL MAJOR TEST-38/32


ALL INDIA MAJOR TEST DATE : 01-08-2020
TEST SERIES TARGET NEET (UG)-2020
Phase-I & II MEDIUM –ENGLISH & HINDI

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so
SYLLABUS

Physics : Full Syllabus

Chemistry : Full Syllabus

Biology : Full Syllabus

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK


NEET_CHEMISTRY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)

CHEMISTRY
Q.1 The most probable radius (in pm) for finding Q.1 He+ esa bysDVªkWu dks izkIr djus ds fy, lcls
the electron in He+ is : laHkkfor f=T;k (pm esa) gS :
(1) 0.0 (2) 52.9 (1) 0.0 (2) 52.9
(3) 26.5 (4) 105.8 (3) 26.5 (4) 105.8

Q.2 The density of a gas is 1.964 g dm–3 at Q.2 273 K vkSj 76 cm Hg ij xSl dk ?kuRo
273 K and 76 cm Hg. The gas is : 1.964 g dm–3 gSA xSl gS :
(1) CH4 (2) C2H6 (1) CH4 (2) C2H6
(3) CO2 (4) Xe (3) CO2 (4) Xe

Q.3 The number of nodal planes in a px orbital is : Q.3 px d{kd esa uksMy ryksa dh la[;k gS :
(1) one (2) Two (1) ,d (2) nks
(3) Three (4) Zero (3) rhu (4) 'kwU;

Q.4 A gaseous mixture containing He, CH4 and Q.4 He, CH4 vkSj SO2 ;qDr ,d xSlh; feJ.k dks ,d
SO2 was allowed to effuse through a fine hole lw{e fNnz ds ek/;e ls fu%lfjr gksus fn;k x;k, rc
then find what molar ratio of gases coming out izkjEHk esa ckgj vkus okyh xSlksa dk eksyj vuqikr D;k
initially ? (Given mixture contains He, CH4 and gksxk ? (fn, x, feJ.k esa He, CH4 vkSj SO2 dk
SO2 in 1 : 2 : 3 mole ratio) eksy vuqikr 1 : 2 : 3 gSA)
(1) 2: 2:3 (2) 2 : 2 : 3 (1) 2: 2:3 (2) 2 : 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 1 : 3 (4) 4 : 4 : 3 (3) 1 : 1 : 3 (4) 4 : 4 : 3

Q.5 The equilibrium constant of the reaction Q.5 373 K ij vfHkfØ;k A2(g) + B2(g)  2AB(g)
A2(g) + B2(g)  2AB(g) at 373 K is 50. If 1L of
dk lkE;koLFkk fLFkjakd 50 gSA ;fn 100°C ij
flask containing 1 mole of A2(g) is connected 1 eksy A2(g) ;qDr 1L ¶ykLd, 2 eksy B2(g) ;qDr
to 2L flask containing 2 moles B2(g) at 100ºC,
2L ds ¶YkkLd ls tqM+k gqvk gS, rc 100ºC ij lkE;
the amount of AB produced at equilibrium at
100ºC would be : ij AB dh fufeZr ek=k gksxh :
(1) 0.93 mol (2) 1.87 mol (1) 0.93 mol (2) 1.87 mol
(3) 2.80 mol (4) 3.74 mol (3) 2.80 mol (4) 3.74 mol

Q.6 The pH value of decinormal solution of Q.6 NH4OH ds MslhukWeZy foy;u dk pH eku, tks fd
NH4OH, which is 20% ionised, is : 20% vk;fur gksrk gS, gksxk :
(1) 13.30 (2) 14.70 (1) 13.30 (2) 14.70
(3) 12.30 (4) 12.95 (3) 12.30 (4) 12.95
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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NEET_CHEMISTRY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.7 The enthalpy of vaporisation of liquid is Q.7 nzo ds ok"ihdj.k dh ,UFkSYih 30 kJ mol–1 gS vkSj
30 kJ mol–1 and entropy of vapourisation is ok"ihdj.k dh ,UVªkWih 75 J mol–1K gSA 1 atm ij
75 J mol–1K. The boiling point of the liquid at
1 atm is :
nzo dk DoFkukad gS :
(1) 250 K (2) 400 K (1) 250 K (2) 400 K
(3) 450 K (4) 600 K (3) 450 K (4) 600 K

Q.8 Which of the following are not a constant Q.8 fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldk eku fdlh fn, x, fudk;
value between two given thermodynamic dh nks Å"ekxfrd voLFkkvksa ds e/; fu;r ugha gksrk
states of a given system ? gS ?
(I) q + w (II) q (I) q + w (II) q
(III) w (IV) H – TS (III) w (IV) H – TS
(1) (I) and (IV) (2) (II), (III) and (IV) (1) (I) rFkk (IV) (2) (II), (III) rFkk (IV)
(3) (I), (II) and (III) (4) (II) and (III) (3) (I), (II) rFkk (III) (4) (II) rFkk (III)

Q.9 When H2O2 is oxidised, the product is : Q.9 tc H2O2 vkWDlhd`r gksrk gS, rks mRikn gS :
(1) OH– (2) O2 (1) OH– (2) O2
(3) O2– (4) HO2– (3) O2– (4) HO2–

Q.10 Electrolysis of a solution of HSO4– ions Q.10 HSO4– vk;uksa ds foy;u dk fo|qr-vi?kVu S2O8–2
produces S2O8–2 . Assuming 75 % current dk mRiknu djrk gSA 75 % /kkjk n{krk ekurs gq,,
efficiency, what current should be employed to S2O8–2 ds 1 eksy izfr ?kaVs dh mRiknu nj izkIr
achieve a production rate of 1 mol of S2O8–2 djus ds fy, fdruh /kkjk dk mi;ksx fd;k tkuk
per hour ? pkfg, ?
(1) 71.50 A (2) 35.70 A (1) 71.50 A (2) 35.70 A
(3) 142.96 A (4) 285.93 A (3) 142.96 A (4) 285.93 A

Q.11 A solution is prepared by mixing 8.5 g of Q.11 CH2Cl2 ds 8.5 xzke vkSj CHCl3 ds 11.95 xzke dks
CH2Cl2 and 11.95 g of CHCl3. If vapour feykdj ,d foy;u rS;kj fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn 298 K
pressure of CH2Cl2 and CHCl3 at 298 K are ij CH2Cl2 vkSj CHCl3 ds ok"i nkc Øe'k% 415
415 and 200 mm Hg respectively, the mole
vkSj 200 mm Hg gS, rks ok"i :i esa CHCl3 dk eksy
fraction of CHCl3 in vapour form is :
izHkkt gS : (Cl dk eksyj nzO;eku = 35.5 g mol–1)
(Molar mass of Cl = 35.5 g mol–1)
(1) 0.162 (2) 0.675 (1) 0.162 (2) 0.675
(3) 0.325 (4) 0.486 (3) 0.325 (4) 0.486
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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NEET_CHEMISTRY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.12 A reaction is 50 % completed in 2 hours and Q.12 ,d vfHkfØ;k 2 ?kaVs esa 50 % iw.kZ gksrh gS rFkk 4 ?kaVs
75 % completed in 4 hours. The order of the
esa 75 % iw.kZ gksrh gSA vfHkfØ;k dh dksfV gS :
reaction is :
(1) 0 (2) 1
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3

Q.13 How many tetrahedral holes are occupied in Q.13 ghjs esa dqy fdruh prq"Qydh; fjfDr;k¡ vkPNkfnr
diamond ? gksrh gS ?
(1) 25 % (2) 50 % (1) 25 % (2) 50 %
(3) 75 % (4) 100 % (3) 75 % (4) 100 %

Q.14 Which of the following is example of Q.14 fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk fo"kekaxh mRizsj.k vfHkfØ;k
heterogeneous catalysis reaction ? dk ,d mnkgj.k gS ?
(1) 2SO2  g  O2  g  
 
 2SO3  g  (1) 2SO2  g  O2  g 
 
 2SO3  g
NO g NO g

(2) Hydrolysis of aqueous sucrose solution in (2) tyh; [kfut vEy dh mifLFkfr esa tyh;
the presence of aqueous mineral acid lwØksl foy;u dk ty vi?kVu
 HCl  
(3) CH3COOCH3() + H2O()   (3) CH3COOCH3() + H2O()  
HCl 

CH2COOH() + CH2OH() CH2COOH() + CH2OH()

2 3 
Cu,ZnO–Cr O s 2 3 
Cu,ZnO–Cr O s
(4) CO(g)+ 2H2(g)   CH3OH() (4) CO(g)+ 2H2(g)   CH3OH()

Q.15 Phenol associates in Benzene to a certain Q.15 f}yd dk fuekZ.k djus ds fy, QhukWy] csUthu esa
extent to form dimer. A solution containing ,d fuf”pr lhek rd la;ksftr gksrk gSA 1.0 kg
2.0 × 10–2 kg of phenol in 1.0 kg of benzene csat+hu esa 2.0 × 10–2 kg QhukWy ;qDr ,d foy;u dk
has its freezing point decreased by 0.69 K. fgekad fcUnq 0.69 K ls de gks x;k A QhukWy ds
The percentage degree of association of la;kstu dh ek=k dk izfr”kr gS :
phenol is (Kf for benzene = 5.12 K kg mol–1) (casthu ds fy, Kf = 5.12 K kg mol–1)
(1) 73.4 (2) 5.1 (1) 73.4 (2) 5.1
(3) 42.3 (4) 25.1 (3) 42.3 (4) 25.1

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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NEET_CHEMISTRY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.16 Match List-I with List-II. Q.16 lwph-I dks lwph-II ds lkFk lqesfyr dhft, :
List -I List -II lw ph -I lw ph -II
(Property) (Element) (xq .k/keZ ) (rRo )
Shows maximum O.N. 3d Js.kh dh vf/kdre
(p) (i) Sc
of 3d series (p) vkWDlhdj.k la[ ;k iznf'kZr (i) Sc
Lowest M.P. in 3d djrk gS
(q) (ii) Mn
series (q) 3d Js.kh esa fuEure xyukad (ii) Mn
Most abundent metal 3d Js.kh esa vf/kdre izpqj
(r) (iii) Zn (r) (iii) Zn
in 3d series
/kkrq
M3+ ion have inert gas M3+ vk;u vfØ; xSl ds
(s) (iv) Fe (s) (iv) Fe
like configuration
leku foU;kl j[krk gS
(1) p  (ii) ; q  (i) ; r  (iv) ; s  (iii) (1) p  (ii) ; q  (i) ; r  (iv) ; s  (iii)
(2) p  (ii) ; q  (iii) ; r  (iv) ; s  (i) (2) p  (ii) ; q  (iii) ; r  (iv) ; s  (i)
(3) p  (iii) ; q  (ii) ; r  (iv) ; s  (i) (3) p  (iii) ; q  (ii) ; r  (iv) ; s  (i)
(4) p  (iv) ; q  (iii) ; r  (i) ; s  (ii) (4) p  (iv) ; q  (iii) ; r  (i) ; s  (ii)

Q.17 Among the following, the correct statement is : Q.17 fuEu esa ls lgh dFku gS :
(1) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is better (1) NH3 rFkk PH3 esa ls, NH3 ,d vPNk bysDVªkWu
electron donor because the lone pair of
nkrk gS D;ksafd ,dkdh bysDVªkWu ;qXe xksyh; ‘s’
electrons occupies spherical ‘s’ orbital and
is less directional d{kd esa jgrs gS rFkk de nSf”kd gksrs gS
(2) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is better (2) NH3 rFkk PH3 esa ls, PH3 ,d vPNk bysDVªkWu
electron donor because the lone pair of
3
nkrk gS D;ksafd ,dkdh bysDVªkWu ;qXe sp3- d{kd
electrons occupies sp -orbital and is more
directional esa jgrs gS rFkk vf/kd nSf”kd gksrs gS
(3) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is better (3) NH3 rFkk PH3 esa ls, NH3 ,d vPNk bysDVªkWu
electron donor because the lone pair of nkrk gS D;ksafd ,dkdh bysDVªkWu ;qXe sp3- d{kd
3
electrons occupies sp -orbital and is more
esa jgrs gS rFkk vf/kd nSf”kd gksrs gS
directional 0
(4) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is better (4) NH3 rFkk PH3 esa ls, PH3 ,d vPNk bysDVªkWu
electron donor because the lone pair of nkrk gS D;ksafd ,dkdh bysDVªkWu ;qXe xksyh;
electrons occupies spherical ‘s’ orbital and
‘s’- d{kd esa jgrs gS rFkk de nSf”kd gksrs gS
is less directional
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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NEET_CHEMISTRY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.18 Which of the following reaction produce boric Q.18 fuEu esa ls dkSulh vfHkfØ;k cksfjd vEy mRiUu
acid ? djrh gS ?
(I) Hydrolysis of BCl3 (I) BCl3 dk ty vi?kVu
(II) Reaction of H2SO4 with aqueous solution (II) H2SO4 dh cksjsDl ds tyh; foy;u ds lkFk
of borax vfHkfØ;k
(III) Reaction of water with B2H6 (III) ty dh B2H6 ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k
(1) I, II, III (2) I, II (1) I, II, III (2) I, II
(3) I, III (4) II, III (3) I, III (4) II, III
Q.19 Boric acid in water : Q.19 ty esa cksfjd vEy gS :
(1) triprotic strong acid (1) f=izksfVd izcy vEy
(2) triprotic weak acid (2) f=izksfVd nqCkZy vEy
(3) monoprotic weak acid (3) ,dyizksfVd nqcZy vEy
(4) It is not a protic acid (4) ;g ,d izksfVd vEy ugha gS
Q.20 Which of the following has property of Q.20 fuEu esa ls dkSulk LQqjnhIrh xq.k/keZ j[krk gS ?
phosphorescence ? (1) dkyk QkWLQksjl
(1) Black phosphorus
(2) yky QkWLQksjl
(2) Red phosphorus
(3) White phosphorus (3) “osr QkWLQksjl
(4) Bone ash (4) vfLFk HkLe

Q.21 Blue solution of Na in liq. NH3 is themselves Q.21 nzo NH3 esa Na dk uhyk foy;u Loa; vLFkk;h gS]
unstable because of .........on standing : D;kasfd .........yEcs le; rd j[ks tkus ij gksrk gS :
(1) imide formation of Na (1) Na dk bekbM fuekZ.k
(2) azide formation of Na (2) Na dk ,tkbM fuekZ.k
(3) amide formation of Na (3) Na dk ,ekbM fuekZ.k
(4) hydride formation of Na (4) Na dk gkbªkbM fuekZ.k
Q.22 Sulphur dioxide may be recognised by its : Q.22 lYQj MkbvkWDlkbM fuEu ds }kjk igpkuk tk
(1) characteristic pungent smell of burning ldrk gS :
sulphur
(1) tys gq, lYQj dh rh{.k xa/k
(2) ability to turn dichromate paper green
(2) MkbØksesV isij dks gjs esa cnyus dh {kerk
(3) ability to decolourize acidified KMnO4
solution (3) vEyhd`r KMnO4 foy;u dks jaxghu djus dh {kerk
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh

Q.23 Synergic bonding in metal carbonyl complexes Q.23 /kkrq dkcksZfuy ladqyks [M = /kkrq] esa flujsftd ca/k :
[M = metal] : (i) C — O ca/k lkeF;Z dks ?kVkrk gS
(i) decreases C — O bond strength (ii) M — C ca/k yEckbZ dks c<+krk gS
(ii) increases M — C bond length
(iii) M — C ca/k ds fy, ca/k Øe dks c<+krk gS
(iii) increases bond order for M — C bond
(1) ii and iii (2) i and iii (1) ii rFkk iii (2) i rFkk iii
(3) i and ii (4) None (3) i rFkk ii (4) dksbZ ugha
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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NEET_CHEMISTRY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.24 Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is NOT Q.24 vUr%vkf.od gkbMªkstu ca/k fdlesa izsf{kr ugha gksrk gS :
observed in :
H CH2 O
H CH2 O
N C H
N C H
H O
H O
O H
O H (a)
(a)
H C N
H C N
O CH2 H
O CH2 H
Glycine (an amino acid)
Glycine (an amino acid)

O O
O O

H C H H C H

O O
(b) (b)

(Salicyclic acid) (Salicyclic acid)

H H
C O H C O H
(c) (c)
O O O O
H O C H O C

(Formic acid) H (Formic acid) H

H H

CI O CI O

CI C C H CI C C H
(d) (d)
CI O CI O

H H
(Chloral hydrate) (Chloral hydrate)

(1) (a), (c) (2) (b), (d) (1) (a), (c) (2) (b), (d)
(3) (a), (d) (4) (b), (c), (d) (3) (a), (d) (4) (b), (c), (d)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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NEET_CHEMISTRY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.25 Which of the following occurs as a Q.25 fuEu esa ls dkSulk vfØ; ;qXe izHkko ds
consequence of inert pair effect ? ifj.kkeLo:i gksrk gS ?
(1) SnCI2 act as a reducing agent (1) SnCI2 ,d vipk;d ds leku dk;Z djrk gS
(2) SnCI4 act as an oxidizing agent (2) SnCI4 ,d vkWDlhdkjd ds leku dk;Z djrk gS
(3) SnO2 is amphoteric (3) SnO2 mHk;/kehZ gS
(4) PbO2 is oxidant (4) PbO2 vkWDlhdkjd gS

Q.26 Electron rich hydride is ? Q.26 bysDVªkWu /kuh gkbMªkbM gS ?


(1) CH4 (1) CH4
(2) BH3 (2) BH3

(3) NH3 (3) NH3

(4) None of the above (4) mijksDr esa ls dksà ugha

Q.27 CFSE (Crystal field stabilisation energy) is Q.27 CFSE (fØLVy {ks= LFkk;hdj.k ÅtkZ) lwph-I esa fn
given in List-I and some electronic xbZ gS rFkk lwph-II esa v’VQydh; {ks= esa dqN
configuration in octahedral field is given in foU;kl fn;s x;s gSA lwph-I rFkk lwph-II dks lqesfyr
List-II. Match List-I and List-II ? dhft, ?
List-I List-II lwph-I lwph-II
(p) – 0.8 0 (i) t 32g , eg2
(p) – 0.8 0 (i) t 32g, eg2
(q) Zero (ii) t 52g, e0g (q) 'kqU; (ii) t 52g , e0g
(r) – 1.2 0 (iii) t 22g, e0g (r) – 1.2 0 (iii) t 22g, e0g
(s) – 2.0 0 (iv) t 32g, e0g (s) – 2.0 0 (iv) t 32g, e0g
Select correct code of your answer lgh mÙkj dks pqfu,
(1) p  (iii) ; q  (i) ; r  (iv) ; s  (ii) (1) p  (iii) ; q  (i) ; r  (iv) ; s  (ii)
(2) p  (iv) ; q  (iii) ; r  (i) ; s  (ii) (2) p  (iv) ; q  (iii) ; r  (i) ; s  (ii)
(3) p  (iii) ; q  (ii) ; r  (iv) ; s  (iii) (3) p  (iii) ; q  (ii) ; r  (iv) ; s  (iii)
(4) p  (ii) ; q  (i) ; r  (iv) ; s  (iii) (4) p  (ii) ; q  (i) ; r  (iv) ; s  (iii)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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NEET_CHEMISTRY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.28 Match each coordination compound in List-I Q.28 lwph-I esa izR;sd milgla;kstu ;kSfxd dks lwph-II ls
with an appropriate pair of characteristics from xq.k/keZ ds ;qXe ds lkFk lqesfyr dhft, rFkk lgh
List-II and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists ?
mÙkj dks pqfu,s ?
{en = H2NCH2CH2NH2, atomic numbers : {en = H2NCH2CH2NH2, ijek.kq la[;k: Ti = 22,
Ti = 22, Cr = 24; Co = 27 : Pt = 78} Cr = 24; Co = 27 : Pt = 78}
List-I List-II
lwph-I lwph-II
(p) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (i) Paramagnetic and
exhibits ionisation (p) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (i) vuqpqEcdh; rFkk vk;uu
isomerism leko;ork iznf”kZr djrk gS
(q) [Ti(H2O)5Cl](NO3)2 (ii) Diamagnetic and
(q) [Ti(H2O)5Cl](NO3)2 (ii) izfrpqEcdh; rFkk cis-trans
exhibits cis-trans
isomerism leko;ork iznf”kZr djrk gS
(r) [Pt(en)(NH3)Cl]NO3 (iii) Paramagnetic (r) [Pt(en)(NH3)Cl]NO3 (iii) vuqpqEcdh; rFkk cis-trans
and exhibits cis-trans
leko;ork iznf”kZr djrk gS
isomerism
(s) [Co(NH3)4(NO3)2]NO3 (iv) Diamagnetic and (s) [Co(NH3)4(NO3)2]NO3 (iv) izfrpqEcdh; rFkk vk;uu
exhibits ionisation leko;ork iznf”kZr djrk gS
isomerism
(1) p  (iv) ; q  (ii) ; r  (iii) ; s  (i)
(1) p  (iv) ; q  (ii) ; r  (iii) ; s  (i)
(2) p  (iii) ; q  (i) ; r  (iv) ; s  (ii)
(2) p  (iii) ; q  (i) ; r  (iv) ; s  (ii)
(3) p  (ii) ; q  (i) ; r  (iii) ; s  (iv) (3) p  (ii) ; q  (i) ; r  (iii) ; s  (iv)
(4) p  (i) ; q  (iii) ; r  (iv) ; s  (ii) (4) p  (i) ; q  (iii) ; r  (iv) ; s  (ii)

Q.29 Not correctly matched for given property Q.29 fn;s x;s xq.k/keZ ds fy, lgh :i ls lqesfyr ugha gS ?
against it ? (1) vk;uu foHko :O<N<F
(1) Ionisation potential : O < N < F
(2) fo|qr_.kkRedrk :N<O<F
(2) Electronegativity :N<O<F
(3) Electron affinity :N<C<O (3) bysDVªkWu ca/kqrk :N<C<O
(4) Atomic size :C<N<O (4) ijek.kq vkdkj :C<N<O

Q.30 Which of the following conversion involves the Q.30 fuEu esa ls dkSuls :ikUrj.k esa fuLrkiu rFkk dkcZu
calcination and carbon reduction ? vip;u lfEefyr gS ?
(1) CaCO3  Ca (2) PbSO4 PbO (1) CaCO3  Ca (2) PbSO4 PbO
(3) Cu2S  Cu (4) ZnCO3  Zn (3) Cu2S  Cu (4) ZnCO3  Zn

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NEET_CHEMISTRY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
CH3 CH3
Q.31 CH=C X+Y Q.31 CH=C X+Y
CH3 CH3

If X gives cannizzaro’s reaction and Y gives ;fn X dSuhtkjks vfHkfØ;k rFkk Y ,sYMkWy la?kuu
aldol condensation then wrong statement for X
nsrk gS rks X rFkk Y ds fy, xyr dFku gS :
(1) Y dh rqyuk esa X dk vkWDlhdj.k vklkuh ls
and Y is :
gksrk gS
(1) Oxidation of X is easier than Y
(2) Y /kukRed vk;ksMksQkWeZ ifj{k.k nsrk gS tcfd
(2) Y gives positive iodoform test but X does not
X ugha
(3) Y reacts with NaHSO3 while X does not (3) Y, NaHSO3 ls fØ;k djrk gS tcfd X ugha
(4) X is more reactive for nucleophilic (4) Y dh rqyuk esa X ukfHkd Lusgh ;ksxkRed
addition as compared to Y vfHkfØ;k ds fy, vf/kd fØ;k'khy gS

Q.32 A given nitrogen-containing aromatic Q.32 ,d fn;k x;k ukbVªkstu&;qDr ,sjksesfVd ;kSfxd
compound (A) reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by (A), Sn/HCl rFkk ckn esa HNO2 ls fØ;k djds ,d
HNO2 to give an unstable compound (B). (B),
vLFkk;h ;kSfxd (B) nsrk gSA (B) fQukWy ds lkFk
on treatment with phenol, forms a beautiful
fØ;k djds ,d lqUnj jaxhu ;kSfxd (C) cukrk gS]
coloured compound (C) with the molecular
ftldk v.kq&lw= C12H10N2O gSA ;kSfxd (A) dh
formula C12H10N2O. The structure of
compound (A) is :- lajpuk gS&
CN CN
(1) (1)

CONH2 CONH2
(2) (2)

NH2 NH2
(3) (3)

NO2 NO2
(4) (4)

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NEET_CHEMISTRY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.33 Match the polymers given in column-I with Q.33 LrEHk-I ds cgqydks dks LrEHk-II ds ,dyd ds lkFk
monomers in column-II and mark the lqesfyr dhft, rFkk lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
appropriate choice.

Column - I Column - II
(A) Melamine (i) OH
formaldehyde
polymer
+ HCHO

(B) Bakelite (ii) Cl

CH2 C CH CH2

CH3
(C) Neoprene (iii)
CH2 C CH CH2

H2N N NH2
(D) Natural (iv)
rubber
N N + HCHO

NH2
(1) (A) (iv), (B) (ii), (C) (i), (D) (iii)
(1) (A) (iv), (B) (ii), (C) (i), (D) (iii)
(2) (A) (i), (B) (iii), (C) (iv), (D) (ii) (2) (A) (i), (B) (iii), (C) (iv), (D) (ii)

(3) (A) (iv), (B) (i), (C) (ii), (D) (iii) (3) (A) (iv), (B) (i), (C) (ii), (D) (iii)
(4) (A) (ii), (B) (iv), (C) (iii), (D) (i) (4) (A) (ii), (B) (iv), (C) (iii), (D) (i)

Q.34 The most acidic hydrogen in the following Q.34 fuEu ;kSfxd esa lokZf/kd vEyh; gkbMªkstu gS&
compound is III
III HO CH2OH
HO I
CH2OH
I
C C–H
C C–H IV
IV NH2
NH2 II
II
(1) I (2) II
(1) I (2) II
(3) III (4) IV
(3) III (4) IV
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NEET_CHEMISTRY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.35 The correct stability order is/are Q.35 LFkkf;Ro dk lgh Øe gS &
CH3 CH3
H3C H3C
H3C CH3 H3C CH3
(1) > > (1) > >
H3C H3C
CH3 CH3

(2) > (2) >

CH3 CH2 CH3 CH2


(3) > (3) >

(4) All of these (4) mijksDr lHkh

Q.36 The given reaction is called as :- Q.36 fuEu nh xbZ vfHkfØ;k dgykrh gS :-

+ +

(1) Perkin reaction (1) ifdZu vfHkfØ;k


(2) Cannizaro reaction (2) dsfutkjks vfHkfØ;k
(3) Schotten baumann reaction (3) 'kkWVu ckseku vfHkfØ;k
(4) Claisen schmidt reaction (4) Dystu f'eV vfHkfØ;k

Q.37 Arrange the following in decreasing order of % Q.37 fuEu dks % bukWy ?kVd ds ?kVrs Øe es O;ofLFkr
enol content. dhft,

(I) (II) (I) (II)

(III) (III)

(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III (1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
(3) III > II > I (4) III > I > II (3) III > II > I (4) III > I > II
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NEET_CHEMISTRY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.38 Bithionol is an : Q.38 ckbFkk;ksukWy gS :
(1) Antiseptic (1) iwfrjks/kh
(2) Broad spectrum antibiotic (2) o`gn LisDVªe izfrtSfod
(3) Antiseptic and Narrow spectrum antibiotic (3) iwfrjks/kh rFkk y?kq LisDVªe izfrtSfod
(4) Limited spectrum antibiotic (4) lhfer LisDVªe izfrtSfod
Q.39 Which of the following compound is wrongly Q.39 fuEu esa ls dkSuls ;kSfxd dks xyr uke fn;k x;k gS ?
named? (1) CH3CH2CH2CHCOOH
(1) CH3CH2CH2CHCOOH ; |
| Cl
Cl
2-Dyksjks isUVsukWbd vEy
2-Chloro pentanoic acid (2) CH3CCCHCOOH ;
(2) CH3CCCHCOOH ; |
| CH3
CH3
2-esfFky gsDl -3-bukWbd vEy
2-Methyl hex -3-enoic acid (3) CH3CH2CH = CHCOCH3 ;
(3) CH3CH2CH = CHCOCH3 ; gsDl-3-bZu-2-vkWu
Hex-3-en-2-one
(4) CH3–CHCH2CH2CHO ;
(4) CH3–CHCH2CH2CHO ; |
| CH3
CH3
4- esfFky isUVsuy
4- Methyl pentanal

Q.40 Which of the following reagents may be used Q.40 fuEu esa ls dkSuls vfHkdeZd dks Xyqdkst dks
to identify glucose? igpkuus esa iz;qDr djrs gS ?
(1) Neutral FeCl3 solution (1) mnklhu FeCl3 foy;u
(2) Ammoniacal AgNO3 Solution (2) veksfu—r AgNO3 foy;u
(3) CHCl3 and KOH (alc.) (3) CHCl3 ,oa KOH (alc.)
(4) NaHSO3 (4) NaHSO3
Q.41 Which of the following involves formation of Q.41 fuEu esa ls dkSulk gkWQeku mRikn ds fuekZ.k esa eq[;
Hofmann's product as major? mRikn ds :i esa lfEEfyr gS ?
CH3 CH3
  
 
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – N – O  
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – N – O 
0 CH3 0 CH3
 
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH–CH3 
CH –O/CH OH

3
 3
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH–CH3 
CH –O/CH OH


3 3

0 F 0 F
O O

(3) CH3 – CH2 – O – C  (3) CH3 – CH2 – O – C 
 
0 CH3 0 CH3
(4) All of these (4) mijksDRk lHkh
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NEET_CHEMISTRY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.42 Which of the following can be best prepared Q.42 fuEu esa ls dkSulk oqVZt vfHkfØ;k }kjk eq[; :i ls
by Wurtz reaction? fufeZr gks ldrk gS ?
(1) (CH3)3 C – C(CH3)3 (1) (CH3)3 C – C(CH3)3
CH3 CH3
| |
(2) CH3 – C – CH3 (2) CH3 – C – CH3
| |
CH3 CH3
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 (3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
(4) CH3 – CH2 – CH3 (4) CH3 – CH2 – CH3

OH OH

(i)KOH, & Pressure


Q.43 (i)KOH, & Pressure
+ CCl4 (ii)H
 Q.43 + CCl4 (ii)H

0 0
Major product of the above reaction is : mijksDRk vfHkfØ;k dk eq[; mRikn gS :
OH OH
CH = O CH = O

(1) (1)
0 0
OH OH

(2) (2)

0 CH = O 0 CH = O
OH OH

(3) (3)

0 COOH 0 COOH
OH OH
COOH COOH
(4) (4)
0 0

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NEET_CHEMISTRY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.44 1º, 2º and 3º nitroalkanes can be differentiated Q.44 1º, 2º ,oa 3º ukbVªks,sYdsUkksa dks fuEu ds }kjk foHksfnr

by : fd;k tk ldrk gS :
(1) Victor Meyer's test (1) foDVj es;j ijh{k.k

(2) Lucas reagent test (2) ywdkl vfHkdeZd ijh{k.k

(3) Cu/ 300ºC (3) Cu/ 300º C

(4) None (4) dksbZ ugha

Q.45 Which can show both geometrical and optical Q.45 dkSulk T;kferh; rFkk izdkf”kd nksuksa leko;ork
isomerism : n”kkZ ldrk gS :

(1)
(1)
Br Cl
Br Cl

(2) (2)
Me Me

Cl Cl

(3) (3)

Br Br

Br Br

(4) (4)

Br Br

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NEET_PHYSICS All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)

PHYSICS
Q.46 The velocity-time graph shown in figure. Q.46 fp= esa osx&le; xzkQ n'kkZ;k x;k gSA xyr dFku
Incorrect statement is gS
v
v
+20
+20

t(s)
0 2 45 6
t(s)
0 2 45 6
–20
–20

(1) The average acceleration from 1s to 3s is


10 m/s2 (1) 1s ls 3s rd vkSlr Roj.k 10 m/s2 gS

(2) The acceleration at t = 4.2 s is zero (2) t = 4.2 s ij Roj.k 'kwU; gS


(3) The average speed for the first 4 s is zero (3) izFke 4 s ds fy, vkSlr pky 'kwU; gS
(4) The average velocity for entire journey is 5
(4) lEiw.kZ ;k=k ds fy, vkSlr osx 5 m/s gS
m/s

Q.47 The position of a body moving along x-axis at Q.47 le; t ij x-v{k ds vuqfn'k xfr'khy ,d oLrq dh
2
time t is given by x = 2t – 10t + 5 metre. The fLFkfr x = 2t2 – 10t + 5 ehVj }kjk nh tkrh gSA
distance travelled by body between t = 1.5 s to
t = 1.5 s ls t = 3 s ds e/; oLrq }kjk r; nwjh gS
t = 3 s is
(1) 7 m (2) 5.5 m (1) 7 m (2) 5.5 m
(3) 5 m (4) 2.5 m (3) 5 m (4) 2.5 m

Q.48 The force (7 ˆi  3ˆj – 5k)N


ˆ acts on a particle Q.48 ,d d.k ftldk fLFkfr lfn'k (iˆ – ˆj  k)m
ˆ gS] ij
whose position vector is (iˆ – ˆj  k)m
ˆ . The cy (7 ˆi  3ˆj – 5k)N
ˆ dk;Zjr gSA ewyfcUnq ds ifjr%

torpue of a given force about the origin will be fn;s x;s cy dk cyk?kw.kZ gS&
(1) (2 ˆi  12ˆj  10k)Nm
ˆ (1) (2 ˆi  12ˆj  10k)Nm
ˆ

(2) (2 ˆi  10ˆj  12k)Nm


ˆ (2) (2 ˆi  10 ˆj  12k)Nm
ˆ

(3) (2 ˆi  10ˆj  10k)Nm


ˆ (3) (2 ˆi  10 ˆj  10k)Nm
ˆ

(4) (10 ˆi  2ˆj  k)Nm


ˆ (4) (10 ˆi  2ˆj  k)Nm
ˆ

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NEET_PHYSICS All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q. 49 A cubical block of side L is moving with a Q.49 L Hkqtk dk ,d ?kukdkj CykWd fp=kuqlkj ,d fpdus
velocity v on a horizontal smooth place as {kSfrt ry ij v osx ls xfr'khy gSA ;g fcUnq O ij
shown in figure. It hits a ridge at point O. The yxs ,d Vhys ¼vojks/kd½ ls Vdjkrk gSA CykWd dh
angular speed of the block after it hits the dks.kh; pky blds O ij fLFkr vojks/kd ls Vdjkus
ridge at O is ds i'pkr~ gksxh&
L L

M v M v
O O

3v 3v
(1) Zero (2) (1) 'kwU; (2)
2L 2L
3v 3v 3v 3v
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4L 2L 4L 2L

Q.50 A block of mass 10 kg is moving in X-direction Q.50 10 kg nzO;eku dk ,d CykWd 10 m/s dh fu;r pky
with a constant speed 10 m/s. It is subjected ls X-fn'kk esa xfr'khy gSA blds x = 20 m ls x =
to a retarding force F = –(0.1 x)N during its 30 m rd xfr djus ds nkSjku bl ij ,d eanu cy
travel from x = 20 m to x = 30 m. The final F = –(0.1 x)N yxk;k tkrk gSA rks vfUre xfrt
kinetic energy is ÅtkZ gS&
(1) 250 J (2) 275 J (1) 250 J (2) 275 J
(3) 450 J (4) 475 J (3) 450 J (4) 475 J

Q.51 A wave is represented by y = A sin (Bt – Cx), Q.51 ,d rjax y = A sin (Bt – Cx) }kjk iznf'kZr dh tkrh
where A = amplitude, B and C are constants, gS] tgk¡ A = vk;ke, B rFkk C fu;rkad gSa] rc ABC
then ABC represent to iznf'kZr djrk gS
(1) Time (1) le; dks
(2) Frequency (2) vko`fÙk dks
(3) Length (3) yEckbZ dks
(4) All of these (4) buesa ls lHkh

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NEET_PHYSICS All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.52 Two particles of same mass are performing Q.52 leku nzO;eku ds nks d.k x-v{k ds vuqfn'k ljy
SHM along x-axis, whose displacement-time vkorZ xfr lEiUUk dj jgs gSa] buds foLFkkiu&le;
graph is as shown in figure. If energy of
xzkQ fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj gSaA ;fn nksuksa d.kksa ds
oscilation for both particles are E1 and E2
fy, nksyu dh ÅtkZ Øe'k% E1 rFkk E2 gSa] rc
respectively, then
x x

2A 2A Particle 1
Particle 1
A A

t t

Particle 2
Particle 2

(1) E1 = 4E2 (2) E1 = 2E2 (1) E1 = 4E2 (2) E1 = 2E2


E2 E2
(3) E1  (4) E1 = E2 (3) E1  (4) E1 = E2
4 4

Q.53 Ideal liquid is flowing through the tube of Q.53 le:i vuqizLFk dkV {ks=Qy dh ,d uyh ls vkn'kZ
uniform cross-section. The liquid has nzo izokfgr gks jgk gSA Å/okZ/kj :i ls i`FkDd`r
velocities v1 and v2 and pressure P1 and P2 at
fcUnqvksa X rFkk Y ij nzo ds osx Øe'k% v1 o v2 gSa
vertically separated points X and Y
respectively, then
rFkk nkc Øe'k% P1 o P2 gSa] rc

X X

Y Y

(1) v1 = v2, P1 < P2 (2) v1 = v2, P1 > P2 (1) v1 = v2, P1 < P2 (2) v1 = v2, P1 > P2
(3) v1 > v2, P1 < P2 (4) v1 < v2, P1 > P2 (3) v1 > v2, P1 < P2 (4) v1 < v2, P1 > P2

Q.54 A man standing on a rail road car throws a Q.54 jsyjksM dkj ij [kM+k ,d O;fDRk 20 m/s pky ls
stone straight upwards with the speed 20 m/s, lh/ks Åij dh vksj iRFkj Qsadrk gS] dkj Hkh fu;r
car is also moving with constant horizontal
{kSfrt osx 20 m/s ls xfr'khy gS] rc O;fDRk ds
velocity 20 m/s, then motion of stone w.r.t.
man is
lkis{k iRFkj dh xfr gS
(1) Parabolic (2) Straight line (1) ijoyf;d (2) ljy js[kh;
(3) Hyperbolic (4) Circular (3) vfrijoyf;d (4) o`Ùkh;

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NEET_PHYSICS All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.55 An observer moves towards a stationary 1
Q.55 ,d izs{kd /ofu ds osx ds osx ls /ofu ds ,d
source of sound, with a velocity one-fifth hte 5
velocity of sound. What is the percentage fLFkj L=zksr dh vksj xfr djrk gSA vkHkklh vko`fÙk esa
increase in apparent frequency? izfr'kr o`f) D;k gS ?
(1) 5% (2) 20% (1) 5% (2) 20%
(3) Zero (4) 0.5% (3) 'kwU; (4) 0.5%

Q.56 The temperature of an ideal gas is increased Q.56 ,d vkn'kZ xSl ds rki dks 120 K ls 480 K rd
from 120 K to 480 K. If at 120 K, the root c<+k;k tkrk gSA ;fn 120 K ij, xSl v.kq dk oxZ
mean square velocity of the gas molecule is v,
ek/; ewy osx v gS, rc 480 K ij, ;g gksxk
then at 480 K, it will be
v v v v
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 4 2 4
(4) 4v (4) 2v (4) 4v (4) 2v

Q.57 A volume V versus pressure P graph was Q.57 tc fn, x, nzO;eku dh xSl dks rki ifjorZu ls
obtained from state 1 to state 2 when a given xqtkjk tkrk gS, rks vk;ru V o nkc P xzkQ voLFkk
mass of a gas is subjected to temperature 1 ls voLFkk 2 rd izkIr gksrk gSA izØe ds nkSjku xSl
changes. During the process the gas is P
P 1
1

2
2
V
V
(1) izkjEHk esa xeZ dh tkrh gS rFkk vUr esa B.Mh dh
(1) Heated in the beginning and cooled
tkrh gSA
towards end
(2) izkjEHk esa B.Mh dh tkrh gS rFkk vUr esa xeZ dh
(2) Cooled in the beginning and heated
towards end tkrh gS
(3) Heated continuously (3) fujUrj xeZ dh tkrh gSA
(4) Cooled continuously (4) fujUrj B.Mh dh tkrh gSA

Q.58 A body falls from a height of 200 m. The ratio Q.58 ,d oLrq 200 m dh Å¡pkbZ ls fxjrh gSA ;k=k ds
of distance travelled in each time interval of 2 t = 0 ls t = 6 lSd.M ds nkSjku 2 lsd.M ds izR;sd
seconds during t = 0 to t = 6 second of journey
le; vUrjky esa r; nwjh dk vuqikr gS
is
(1) 1 : 3 : 5 (2) 1 : 2 : 3 (1) 1 : 3 : 5 (2) 1 : 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 (4) 1 : 2 : 4 (3) 1 : 4 : 9 (4) 1 : 2 : 4

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NEET_PHYSICS All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.59 In the figure shown, the tension in strings are Q.59 n”kkZ, fp= esa] fp= (1) rFkk (2) ds fy, jfLl;ksa esa
T1 and T2 for figure (1) and (2), respectively ruko Øe”k% T1 rFkk T2 gSa rFkk nzO;eku m ds Roj.k
and acceleration of mass m are a1 and a2 for
a1 rFkk a2 gSaA lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,
figure (1) and (2) respectively. Select the
figure (1) figure (2)
correct option.
figure (1) figure (2)

T1 T2

T1 T2 m m

m m F=2mg
2m
F=2mg
2m (1) T1>T2 rFkk a2 > a1
(1) T1>T2 and a2 > a1 (2) T2>T1 rFkk a1 > a2
(2) T2>T1 and a1 > a2
(3) T1>T2 rFkk a1 > a2
(3) T1>T2 and a1 > a2
(4) T2>T1 and a2 > a1 (4) T2>T1 rFkk a2 > a1

Q.60 The kinetic energy K of a particle moving Q.60 R f=T;k ds o`Ùk ds vuqfn'k xfr'khy ,d d.k dh
along a circle of radius R depends upon the
2
xfrt ÅtkZ K, nwjh S ij K = S2 ds vuqlkj fuHkZj
distance S as K = S , where  is a constant.
djrh gS, tgk¡  fu;rkad gSA d.k dk Li'kZjs[kh;
Tangential acceleration of the particle is
proportional to Roj.k fdlds lekuqikrh gS ?
(1) S (2) S S (1) S (2) S S
1 1
(3) S (4) (3) S (4)
S S

Q.61 Sound wave travels with a velocity of 300 ms–1 Q.61 /ofu rajx fdlh xSl esa 300 ms–1 ds osx ls lapfjr
through a gas. 9 beats are produced in 3 s when gksrh gSA 3 lsd.M esa 9 foLiUn mRiUu gksrs gS tc nks
two waves pass through it simultaneously. If one
rjaxs ,d lkFk blesa ls xqtjrh gSA ;fn ,d rajx
of the waves has 2 m wavelength, the
dh rjaxnS/;Z 2 m gks] rks nwljh rjax dh rjaxnS/;Z gS&
wavelength of the other wave is
(1) 1.98 m (2) 2.04 m (1) 1.98 m (2) 2.04 m
(3) 2.06 m (4) 1.99 m (3) 2.06 m (4) 1.99 m

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NEET_PHYSICS All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.62 A particle of mass m is placed at the centre of Q.62 m nzO;eku dk ,d d.k 3 m nzO;eku rFkk R f=T;k
a uniform spherical shell of mass 3 m and ds ,d le:i xksyh; dks'k ds dsUnz ij j[kk tkrk
radius R. The gravitational potential on the
surface of the shell is
gSA dks'k dh lrg ij xq:Roh; foHko gS&
Gm 3Gm Gm 3Gm
(1) – (2) – (1) – (2) –
R R R R
4Gm 2Gm 4Gm 2Gm
(3) – (4) – (3) – (4) –
R R R R

Q.63 A projectile is projected in air with initial Q.63 ,d iz{ksI; dks ewy fcUnq ls izkjfEHkd osx

 
velocity v  3iˆ  4ˆj m/s from the origin. The v   3iˆ  4 ˆj  m/s ls ok;q esa iz{ksfir fd;k tkr gSA

equation of trajectory of the projectile is given iz{ksI; ds iz{ksi iFk dh lehdj.k gS ¼ok;q izfrjks/k
as (g = –10 ĵ m/s2) (neglect air resistance) ux.; gS½ (g = –10 ĵ m/s2)
(1) y = 12x – 5x2 (2) y = 3x – 4x2 (1) y = 12x – 5x2 (2) y = 3x – 4x2
(3) 9y = 12 x – 5x2 (4) 12y = 12x – 5x2 (3) 9y = 12 x – 5x2 (4) 12y = 12x – 5x2

Q.64 A child is standing with folded hands at the Q.64 vius dsUnzh; v{k ds lkis{k ?kwf.kZr ,d IysVQkWeZ ds
centre of a platform rotating about its central dsUnz ij ,d cPPkk vius gkFkksa dks eksM+dj [kM+k gSA
axis. The kinetic energy of the system is K. fudk; dh xfrt ÅtkZ K gSA vc cPPkk viuh
The child now stretches his arms so that the Hkqtkvksa dks bl izdkj rkurk ¼QSykrk½ gS rkfd
moment of inertia of the system doubles. The fudk; dk tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ nqxquk gksA vc fudk; dh
kinetic energy of the system now is xfrt ÅtkZ gS
K K K K
(1) (2) 4K (3) 2K (4) (1) (2) 4K (3) 2K (4)
4 2 4 2

Q.65 When a system is taken state A to C along the Q.65 tc ,d fudk; dks iFk ABC ds vuqfn'k voLFkk A
path ABC is obsorbs 50 cal of heat and work ls C rd ys tkrs gS rks 50 cal Å"ek vo'kksf"kr gksrh
done is 20 cal. If it is taken from state C to A gS rFkk 20 cal dk;Z fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn bls iFk
along the path CDA, It absorbs 36 cal of heat CDA ds vuqfn'k voLFkk C ls A rd ys tk;k tk;s
then work done along CDA is ] rks ;g 36 cal Å"ek vo'kksf"kr djrk gS] rc CDA ds
B C vuqfn'k fd;k x;k dk;Z gSA
B C

A D
A D
(1) 50 cal (2) 6 cal
(1) 50 cal (2) 6 cal
(3) 66 cal (4) 16 cal
(3) 66 cal (4) 16 cal
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NEET_PHYSICS All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.66 A rectangular vessel full of water, takes 10 Q.66 ty ls iw.kZ :i ls Hkjs ,d vk;rkdkj ik= dks blds
minutes to be emptied through an orifice in its iSans esa mifLFkr fNnz ls [kkyh gksus esa 10 feuV yxrs
bottom. How much time will it take to be gSaA tc ik= ty ls vk/kk Hkjk gS] rc blds [kkyh
emptied when half filled with water ? gksus esa fdruk le; yxsxk ?
(1) 5 minutes (2) 3 minutes (1) 5 feuV (2) 3 feuV
(3) 9 minutes (4) 7 minutes (3) 9 feuV (4) 7 feuV

Q.67 A particle is executing S.H.M.if v1 and v2 are Q.67 ,d d.k ljy vkorZ xfr dj jgk gS] ;fn v1 rFkk
the velocities of the particle at distances x1 v2 ek/; fLFkfr ls Øe'k% x1 rFkk x2 nwjh ij d.k ds
and x2 from mean position respectively, then
osx gSa] rc nksyu dk vkorZdky gSA
time period of oscillation is.

x 2
2  x12  x 2
2  x12  (1)
x 2
2  x12  (2)
x 2
2  x12 
(1)
v 2
1  v 22 
(2)
v 2
1  v 22  v 2
1  v 22  v 2
1  v 22 
x 2
2  x12  x 2
1  x 22  (3) 2
x 2
2  x12  (4) 2
x 2
1  x 22 
(3) 2 (4) 2
v 2
1  v 22  v 2
1  v 22  v 2
1  v 22  v 2
1  v 22 

Q.68 A faulty thermometer has ice point at –5º C Q.68 ,d =qfViw.kZ rkiekih ij fgekad –5º C ij gS rFkk
and steam point at 105º C. What would be the Hkki fcanq 105º C ij gSA bl rkiekih }kjk ,d
temperature shown by this thermometer of a
O;fDr dk n'kkZ;k x;k rkieku D;k gksxk \ (ekuk
person ? (Assume correct temperature of
O;fDr dk lgh rkieku 37º C gS)
person is 37º C).
(1) 42ºC (2) 32º C (1) 42ºC (2) 32º C
(3) 35.7º C (4) 47º C (3) 35.7º C (4) 47º C

Q.69 Choose the correct statements Q.69 lgh dFku dk p;u dhft;sA
(1) Breaking stress does not depend on area (1) Hkatu izfrcy vuqizLFk dkV {ks=Qy ij fuHkZj
of cross section. ugha djrk gSA
(2) Bsolid> Bgas> Bliquid, where B is bulk (2) Bsolid> Bgas> Bliquid, tgk¡ B vk;ru izR;kLFkrk
modulus. xq.kkad gSA
(3) Breaking load does not depend on area (3) Hkatu Hkkj vuqizLFk dkV {ks=Qy ij fuHkZj ugha
of cross section. djrk gSa
(4) Young’s modulus always decreases on (4) ;ax izR;kLFkrk xq.kkad lnSo rki esa deh gksus ij
decreasing the temperature. ?kVrk gSA
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NEET_PHYSICS All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.70 The product of angular speed and tangential Q.70 gkbMªkstu ijek.kq dh noha d{kk esa bysDVªkWu dh
speed of electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom dks.kh; pky rFkk Li”kZjs[kh; pky dk xq.kuQy gSA
is :
(1) n2 ds O;qRØekuqikrh
2
(1) Inversely proportional to n
(2) n2 ds vuqØekuqikrh
(2) Directly proportional to n2

(3) Inversely proportional to n4 (3) n4 ds O;qRØekuqikrh

(4) Independent of n (4) n ij fuHkZj ugha djrk gS

Q.71 In the given circuit current flowing through 1  Q.71 fn;s x;s ifjiFk esa] 1  izfrjks/k ls izokfgr /kkjk gS
resistance is
1 3
1 3

6
10V
6
10V
2
2
(1) 5A (2) 2.5 A
(1) 5A (2) 2.5 A

(3) Zero (4) 10 A (3) “kwU; (4) 10 A

Q.72 The count rate of a radioactive sample was Q.72 ,d jsfZM;ks,fDVo uewus dh x.ku nj t = 0 ij 1600
1600 count/s at t = 0 and 100 count/s at t = 8 x.ku@ lsd.M rFkk t = 8 lsd.M ij 100 x.ku@
s. Select the correct option. lsd.M FkhA lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Its count rate was 400 count/s at t = 2 s (1) t = 2 s ij bldh x.ku nj 400 x.ku@ lsd.M Fkh

(2) Half life of the sample is 2.88 s (2) uewus dh v)Z & vk;q 2.88 s gS

(3) Mean life of the sample is 4 s (3) uewus dh ek/; & vk;q 4 s gS

(4) Its count rate was 200 count/s at t = 6 s (4) t = 6 s ij bldh x.ku nj 200 x.ku@lsd.M Fkh

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NEET_PHYSICS All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.73 Two parallel conducting plates of area A each, Q.73 nks lekarj pkyd IysVksa esa ls izR;sd dk {ks=Qy A gS]
are placed at distance d. A third plate, identical buds e/; d nwjh gSA bu nksuksa IysVksa ds le:i ,d
d rhljh IysV dks fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj fdlh ,d IysV
with the first two is placed at a distance
3 d
from one of the plate as shown in figure. The
ls nwjh ij j[kk tkrk gSA fn;s x;s izca/k dh
3
capacitance of given arrangement is. /kkfjrk gSA
d/3 d/3
d d

3 0 A 3 0 A 3 0 A 3 0 A
(1) (2) (1) (2)
d 2 d d 2 d
0 A 9 0 A  A 9 0 A
(3) (4) (3) 0 (4)
2d 2d 2d 2d

Q.74 The potential versus position (V - x) graph is Q.74 uhps foHko o fLFkfr (V - x) xzkQ fn;k x;k gS] rc
given, then correct electric field versus position
(E - x) graph is
lgh fo|qr {ks= o fLFkfr (E - x) xzkQ gS
V V

X X
O O

E E E E

(1) (2) (1) (2)

X X X X
O O O O

E E E E

(3) (4) (3) (4)

X X X X
O O O O

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NEET_PHYSICS All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.75 A thin spherical conducting shell of radius R Q.75 R f=T;k ds ,d irys xksyh; pkydh; dks'k ij q
has a charge q. The electrostatic self potential vkos'k fo|eku gSA dks'k dh Lo;a dh fLFkj oS|qr
energy of the shell is fLFkfrt ÅtkZ gksxh&
3Q2 3Q2 3Q2 3Q2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
5 0R 20 0R 5 0R 20 0R

Q2 Q2 Q2 Q2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4 0R 8 0R 4 0R 8 0R

Q.76 An electric bulb, when connected across a Q.76 tc ,d fo|qr cYc dks 220 V dh ikoj lIykbZ ij
power supply of 220 V, consumes a power of la;ksftr fd;k tkrk gS, rc ;g 60 W dh 'kfDr
60 W. If the supply is suddenly increased to O;f;r djrk gSA ;fn lIykbZ dks vpkud 240 V rd
240 V, then what will be the power consumed ? c<+k;k tkrk gS, rc O;f;r 'kfDRk D;k gksxh ?
(1) 160 W (2) 240 W (1) 160 W (2) 240 W
(3) 112 W (4) 71 W (3) 112 W (4) 71 W
Q.77 The segment of wire shown in figure carries a Q.77 fp= esa n'kkZ, rkj dk Hkkx i = 5 A /kkjk xzg.k fd,
current of i = 5 A. The magnetic field (in Tesla) gq, gSA fcUnq P ij pqEcdh; {ks= ¼Vslyk esa½ gS
at the point P is

15 cm 15 cm

 
3 3
10 cm 10 cm

28 22 28 22
(1)  (2)  (1)  (2) 
3 0 3 0 3 0 3 0
5 25 5 25
(3)  (4)  (3)  (4) 
18 0 18 0 18 0 18 0

Q.78 As the temperature of a conductor increases, Q.78 tSls gh ,d pkyd dk rki c<+rk gS] bldh
its resistivity and conductivity change, the ratio izfrjks/kdrk rFkk pkydrk ifjofrZr gksrh gSa] pkydrk
of conductivity to resistivity o izfrjks/kdrk dk vuqikr
(1) Increases (1) c<+rk gS
(2) Decreases (2) ?kVrk gS
(3) Remains constant (3) fu;r jgrk gS
(4) May increase or decrease depending on (4) c<+ ;k ?kV ldrk gS ;g okLrfod rki ij fuHkZj
the actual temperature djrk gSA
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NEET_PHYSICS All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.79 Due to induced emf of the metal rod PQ Q.79 fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj vuqizLFk pqEcdh; {ks= esa v
moving at speed v in transverse magnetic field pky ls xfr'khy /kkfRod NM+ PQ ds iszfjr fo-ok-c-
as shown in figure, charge on each capacitor ds dkj.k] izR;sd la/kkfj= ij vkos'k gS
is
× × × ×× ×
× × × ×× × P
P B × × × ×× ×
B × × × ×× ×
× × × ×× ×
× × × ×× × L
L × × × ×× ×v C C
× × × ×× ×v C C
× × × ×× ×
× × × ×× ×
× × × ×Q × ×
× × × ×Q × ×
× × × ×× ×
× × × ×× ×
(1) Zero (2) BCLv (1) 'kwU; (2) BCLv
BCL BLv BCL BLv
(3) (4) (3) (4)
v C v C

Q.80 In series LCR circuit, if f0 = resonant Q.80 Js.kh LCR ifjiFk esa] ;fn f0 = vuquknh vko`fÙk] rc
frequency, then for inductive circuit iszjdh; ifjiFk ds fy,
(1) f > f0 (2) f < f0 (1) f > f0 (2) f < f0
(3) f = f0 (4) f << f0 (3) f = f0 (4) f << f0

Q.81 Two identical short bar magnets, each having Q.81 nks ,d leku y?kq NM+ pqEcdksa esa izR;sd dk pqEcdh;
magnetic moment M, are placed at a distance vk?kw.kZ M gS] bUgsa ijLij, 2d nwjh ij j[kk tkrk gS
of 2d apart with axes perpendicular to each tks {kSfrt ry esa ,d nwljs ds yEcor gSA muds chp
other in a horizontal plane. The magnetic
induction at a point midway between them is
fdlh fcUnq ij pqEcdh; izsj.k dk eku gksxk&
2  0M 3 0 M 2  0M 3 0 M
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4  d3 4  d3 4  d3 4  d3
2 0M 5  0M 2 0M 5  0M
(3) (4) (3) (4)
d3 4  d3 d3 4  d3

Q.82 A wire of length 1 m is bent into a circular loop. Q.82 1 m yEck ,d rkj ,d o`Ùkh; ywi esa eksM+k tkrk gSA
When a current of 2A is passed through the tc 2A dh /kkjk ywi ls xqtkjh tkrh gS] rc ywi dk
loop, then the magnetic moment of the loop is pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ gS&
2 1 2 1
(1) Am2 (2) Am2 (1) Am2 (2) Am2
 2  2
4 4
(3) Am2 (4)  Am2 (3) Am2 (4)  Am2
 
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NEET_PHYSICS All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.83 A particle having a charge of 10.0 C and Q.83 10.0 C vkos'k rFkk 1 g nzO;eku dk ,d d.k 10
mass 1 g moves in a circle of radius 10 cm cm f=T;k ds ,d o`Ùk esa 0.1T ds pqEcdh; {ks= ds
under the influence of a magnetic field of izHkko esa xfreku gSA tc d.k fcUnq P ij gksrk gS rks
induction 0.1T. When the particle is at a point
P, a uniform electric field is switched on so that
,d leku fo|qr {ks= pkyw (switched on) dj fn;k
the particle starts moving along the tangent tkrk gS ftlls d.k fu;r osx ds lkFk Li'kZjs[kh;
with a uniform velocity. The electric field is :i ls xfr djuk 'kq: dj nsA fo|qr {ks= gS&

P P

(1) 0.1 V/m (2) 1.0 V/m (1) 0.1 V/m (2) 1.0 V/m
(3) 10.0V/m (4) 100 V/m
(3) 10.0V/m (4) 100 V/m
Q.84 In the given circuit diagram when the current Q.84 fp= esa fn;s x;s ifjiFk fp= esa tc ifjiFk esa /kkjk
reaches steady state in the circuit, the charge LFkk;h voLFkk esa igq¡prh gS] rks C /kkfjrk ds la/kkfj=
on the capacitor of capacitance C will be ij vkos'k gksxk&
E r E r

r1 r1
C C
r2 r2

r1 r1
(1) CE (2) CE (1) CE (2) CE
r1  r   r1  r 
r1 r2 r1 r2
(3) CE (4) CE (3) CE (4) CE
r2  r  r  r2  r2  r  r  r2 
Q.85 The head lights of a jeep are 1.2 m apart. If the Q.85 ,d thi dh gsM ykbZV~l ijLij 1.2 m nwjh ij gSA
pupil of the eye of an observer has a diameter ;fn ,d izs{kd ds uS= dh iqryh (pupil) dk O;kl 2
of 2 mm and light of wavelength 5896 Å is
mm gks rFkk iz;qDr izdk'k dh rjaxnS/;Z 5896 Å gks
used, what should be the maximum distance
of the jeep from the observer if the two head
rks izs{kd ls thi dh vf/kdre nwjh D;k gksuh pkfg,
lights are just separated ? ;fn nksuksa gsM ykbZV~l Bhd foHksfnr gks \
(1) 33.9 km (2) 33.9 m (1) 33.9 km (2) 33.9 m
(3) 3.39 km (4) 3.39 m (3) 3.39 km (4) 3.39 m
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NEET_PHYSICS All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.86 Radius of curvature of a concave mirror is Q.86 ,d vory niZ.k dh oØrk f=T;k 40 cm rFkk
40 cm and the size of image is twice as that of izfrfcEc dk vkdkj oLrq dk nksxquk gS] rc oLrq dh
object, then the object distance is nwjh gS &
(1) 60 cm (2) 20 cm (1) 60 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) 40 cm (4) 30 cm (3) 40 cm (4) 30 cm

Q.87 The reading of the A.C. voltmeter in the Q.87 fp= esa n”kkZ, usVodZ esa A.C. oksYVehVj dk ikB~;kad
network shown in figure is (where V is in volt) gS (tgk¡ V, oksYV eas gS)
v v
11 11
XC=20 XC=20
XL=20 XL=20
11 11

V=220 2 sin t V=220 2 sin t

(1) 400 V (2) 220 V (1) 400 V (2) 220 V


(3) 200 V (4) Zero (3) 200 V (4) 'kwU;

Q.88 In the nuclear reaction. Q.88 fuEu ukfHkdh; vfHkfØ;k esa



11 11 
6 C 5 B    X
11
6 C 11
5 B  X

What does X stand for ? X dk vFkZ D;k gS ?


(1) Neutron (2) Neutrino (1) U;wVªkWu (2) U;wfVªuksa
(3) Electron (4) Proton (3) bysDVªkWu (4) izksVkWu

Q.89 If the critical angle for the material of a prism is Q.89 ;fn ,d fizTe ds inkFkZ ds fy, ØkfUrd dks.k C gS
C, and the angle of the prism is A, then there rFkk fizTe dks.k A gS, rc dksbZ fuxZr fdj.k ugha
will be no emergent ray when gksxh tc
(1) A > 2C (2) A < C (1) A > 2C (2) A < C
(3) A < 2C (4) A 2C (3) A < 2C (4) A 2C

Q.90 For the given logic gate network, the output at Q.90 fn;s x, ykWftd xsV usVodZ ds fy,] Y ij fuxZr
Y when A = 1, B = 1 and A = 0, B = 0 are D;k gksxk tc A = 1, B = 1 rFkk A = 0, B = 0 gSa
1111 1111
A A
B B
Y Y

(1) 1, 0 (2) 0, 1 (1) 1, 0 (2) 0, 1


(3) 1, 1 (4) 0, 0 (3) 1, 1 (4) 0, 0
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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)

BIOLOGY
Q.91 Read the following statements carefully and Q.91 uhps fn;s x;s dFkuksa dks /;kuiwoZd if<+;s rRi'pkr~
select the correct statements : lR; fodYi dk p;u dhft, :
(i) hPL plays a major role in parturition. (i) hPL izlo ds nkSjku vge Hkwfedk fuHkkrk gSA
(ii) Foetus shows movements first time in (ii) xHkkZof/k ds 7th eghus esa Hkzw.k igyh ckj xfr
the 7th month of pregnancy. djrk gSA
(iii) Signal for parturition comes from fully
(iii) izlo ds ladsr iw.kZ fodflr Hkzw.k rFkk vijk ls
developed foetus and placenta.
mRiUu gksrs gSA
(iv) Embryo's heart is formed by the 2nd
(iv) xHkkZof/k ds 2nd eghus esa Hkzw.k dk ân; fufeZr
month of pregnancy.
gks tkrk gSA
(1) (ii) and (iii) (2) (iii) only
(1) (ii) rFkk (iii) (2) (iii) dsoy
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv)
(3) (ii) rFkk (iv) (4) (i) rFkk (iv)

Q.92 Fertilization is internal in : Q.92 vkUrfjd fu"kspu ik;k tkrk gS :


(1) Rana tigrina, Psittacula, Scoliodon (1) jkuk fVfxzuk] flVSdqyk] Ldksfy;ksMkWu esa
(2) Hippocampus, Rana tigrina, Testudo (2) fgIiksdSEil] jkuk fVfxzuk] VsLVqMks esa
(3) Neophron, Chameleon, Scoliodon (3) fu;ksÝksu] dSesfy;ksu] Ldksfy;ksMkWu esa
(4) Bufo, Clarius, Pavo (4) cwQks] Dysfj;l] isoks esa

Q.93 The test tube baby programme employs Q.93 ij[kuyh f'k'kq dk;ZØe esa fuEUfyf[kr eas ls fdl
which one of the following techniques as - ,d rduhd dk bLrseky fd;k tkrk gS :
(1) GIFT (2) AI (1) GIFT (2) AI
(3) IUI (4) IUT (3) IUI (4) IUT

Q.94 How many structures in the list given below Q.94 uhps nh xbZ lajpukvksa esa fdruh lajpuk,¡ f}xqf.kr
are diploid ? gS ?
Spermatid, secondary oocyte, primary 'kqØk.kqizlw, f}rh;d vaMd, izkFkfed 'kqØk.kq
spermatocyte, ovum, sperm, oogonia, dksf'kdk,¡, v.Mk.kq, 'kqØk.kq, vaMtuuh, 'kqØk.kqtu,
spermatogonia, polar body /kqzoh; fiaM :
(1) Six (2) Three (1) N% (2) rhu
(3) Two (4) Five (3) nks (4) ik¡p

Q.95 Which of the following is a correct pair of the Q.95 fuEu esa ls mRlthZ lajpukvksa ,oa tUrqvkas ftuesa ;s
excretory structures and the animals in which ik;s tkrs gS dk lgh ;qXe gS \
they are found?
(1) Tokyk dksf'kdk,a – fVfu;k ,oa oqpsjsfj;k
(1) Flame cells – Taenia and Wuchereria
(2) usÝhfM;k – usjht ,oa fg:fMusfj;k
(2) Nephridia – Nereis and Hirudinaria
(3) izkscksfll xzaFkh – bZdkbul ,oa cSysuksXyksll
(3) Proboscis gland – Echinus and
Balanoglossus (4) esVkusfÝd o`Dd – jkuk ,oa dksoZl
(4) Metanephric kidney – Rana and corvus

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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.96 Ctenoplana can be distinguished from Hydra Q.96 fdldh mifLFkrh ds vk/kkj ij fVuksIysuk dks gkbMªk
by the presence of :- ls foHksfnr fd;k tk ldrk gS\
(1) Radial symmetry (1) f}ik'oZ leferh
(2) Diploblastic with tissue level of
(2) f}dksjdh ds lkFk Ård Lrj dk laxBu
organization
(3) ckg~;dksf'kdh; ,oa vUr%dksf'kdh; ikpu
(3) Extracellular and intracellular digestion
(4) External ciliary comb plates (4) ckg~;i{ekHkh dksEc IysV~l

Q.97 Which of the following nematode parasites Q.97 fuEu esa ls dkSuls ijthoh fuesVksM tjk;qt gksrs gSA
are viviparous? (1) ,UVsjksfc;l ,oa oqpsjsfj;k
(1) Enterobius and Wuchereria (2) Vsªfdusyk ,oa ,ulkbyksLVksek
(2) Trachinella and Ancylostoma
(3) oqpsjsfj;k ,oa ,ulkbyksLVksek
(3) Wuchereria and Ancylostoma
(4) Vªsfduksyk ,oa oqpsjsfj;k
(4) Trachinella and wuchereria

Q.98 Phallomeres are : Q.98 Qsykseh;j gS :


(1) Structures present in head of cockroach (1) dkWdjksp ds flj esa mifLFkr lajpuk
(2) External genitalia in cockroach (2) dkWdjksp ds cká tuukax
(3) Vestigeal wings in female cockroach (3) eknk dkWdjksp ds vo'ks"kh ia[k
(4) Portion of mouth parts of cockroach (4) dkWdjksp ds eq[kkax ds Hkkx

Q.99 Which of the following is not a correct Q.99 esa<d dk vfHkyk{kf.kd y{k.k ugha gS ?
characteristics feature of frog ? (1) bldh Ropk ue o ylnkj gksrh gSA
(1) The skin is moist and slimy. (2) blesa voLdj NksVk d{k gksrk gS ftldk iz;ksx
(2) Cloaca is a small chamber that is used to ey o ;qXedksa dks fu"dkflr djus esa gksrk gSA
pass faecal matter and gametes.
(3) o;Ld esa Ropk] Dykse o QsQM+s 'olu vax gksrs
(3) Skin, gills and lungs are respiratory
gSA
organs in adults
(4) ân; esa rhu d{k gksrs gSa rFkk f'kjkdksrj ,oa
(4) Heart is three chambered with sinus
venosus and conus arteriosus. /keuh dksVj Hkh mifLFkr gksrs gSA

Q.100 Which chemical messenger/hormone is not Q.100 fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk gkWeksZu fdlh Hkh :i esa
involved with mammary gland in any way ? LruxzfUFk;ksa ls lacaf/kr ugha gS ?
(1) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) (1) áweu dksfj;ksfud xksusMksVªksfiu (hCG)
(2) Placental lactogen (2) IyslsUVy ysDVkstu
(3) Ovarian and placental estrogens (3) vksosjh;u ,oa IyslsUVy ysDVkstu
(4) Oxytocin (4) vkWfDlVksflu

Q.101 The term "inbreeding depression" is related Q.101 'kCn "vUr%iztuu volknu" lacaf/kr gS :
to (1) tuu {kerk ,oa mRikndrk esa vf/kdrk
(1) increased fertility and productivity (2) nqX/k mRiknu esa vf/kdrk
(2) increasing milk production (3) tuu {kerk ,oa mRikndrk esa deh
(3) reduced fertility and productivity
(4) nqX/k mRiknu esa deh
(4) reduced milk production

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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.102 Read the following sentences related with Bee Q.102 fuEufyf[kr fn;s x;s dFkukas esa ls e/kqeD[kh ikyu
Keeping and choose correct option : ls lacaf/kr lR; dFku dks pqfu;s :
(a) Bee keeping also called as Apiculture (a) e/kqeD[kh ikyu dks ,fidYpj Hkh dgrs gSA
(b) Bee also produces wax (b) e/kqeD[kh ekse (wax) Hkh mRiUu djrh gSA
(c) Apis indica is common bee for apiculture (c) ,fil bafMdk ,fidYpj ds fy, eq[; e/kqeD[kh
(1) (a) and (b) is correct gSA
(1) (a) ,oa (b) lR; gSA
(2) (b) and (c) is correct
(2) (b) ,oa (c) lR; gSA
(3) (a) and (c) is correct
(3) (a) ,oa (c) lR; gSA
(4) (a), (b) and (c) is correct
(4) (a), (b) ,oa (c) lR; gSA

Q.103 Which of the following is not a correct Q.103 fuEu esa ls dkSu lgh mn~fodklh; Øe ugha gS ?
evolutionary sequence ? (1) vkfne ljhl`i  lksjksfIlM  FkhdksMksUV 
(1) Early reptile  Sauropsids  Thecodont 
Mk;ukslkslZ
Dianosaurs
(2) jkekfiFksdl  vkLVªsyksfiFksdl  gkseks
(2) Ramapithecus  Australopithecus 
gsfcfyl  tkok euq";
Homo habilis  Java man
(3) Vªsfd;ksQkbV  jkbfu;k  lkbyksQkbVu 
(3) Tracheophytes  Rhynia  Psilophyton 
Bryophyotes czk;ksQkbV
(4) Homo habilis  Homo erectus  (4) gkseks gsfcfyl  gkseks bjsDVl  ØksesXukWu
Cromagnon man  Modern man ekuo  vk/kqfud ekuo

Q.104 Which of the following evolutionary force Q.104 fuEu esa ls dkSulk mn~fodklh; cy vuqdwyuh;
causes adaptive changes and always increases ifjorZu djrk gS ,oa lef"V esa] ges'kk vuqdwyh
frequency of adaptive gene in a population over thu dh vko`Ùkh dks ih<+h nj ih<+h c<+k nsrk gS ?
the generations ?
(1) vkuqokaf'kd fopyu
(1) Genetic drift
(2) izkd`frd oj.k
(2) Natural selection
(3) Mutation (3) mRifjorZu
(4) Migration (4) izokl

Q.105 According to Darwin, the founder of theory of Q.105 MkfoZu ds vuqlkj] fQVusl dk rkRi;Z :
natural selection, fitness refers to : (1) vUrfuZfgr fofHkUUrk gSA
(1) Built in variation
(2) tufud fQVusl gSA
(2) Reproductive fitness
(3) Struggle (3) la?k"kZ gSA
(4) Physical fitness (4) 'kkjhfjd fQVusl gSA

Q.106 Which interferon is biological response Q.106 fuEu esa ls dkSulk bUVjQsjksu tSo&vuqfØ;k
modifiers, and activates immune system to :ikUrjd gS tks izfrj{kk rU= dks lfØ; dj V~;wej
destroying tumor ? dks u"V djrk gS ?
(1)  (2) 
(1)  (2) 
(3)  (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3)  (4) (2) o (3) nksuksa

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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.107 Which of the following combination is not a Q.107 fuEu esa ls dkSulk ;qXe dsukfcukWbM ugha gS ?
cannabinoids ? (1) pjl] xkatk
(1) Charas, Ganja (2) /krqjk, LSD
(2) Datura, LSD
(3) pjl, g'kh'k
(3) Charas, Hashish
(4) esjhtqvkuk, Hkkax
(4) Marijuana, Bhang

Q.108 Contact inhibition is the property of : Q.108 laLi'kZ laneu fdldk xq.k gS :
(1) Benign tumour (2) Malignant tumour (1) lqne vcqZn (2) nqnZe vcqZn
(3) Myeloma cells (4) Normal cell (3) ek;yksek dksf'kdk,sa (4) lkekU; dksf'kdk

Q.109 Columns of Bertini are : Q.109 cfVZ u h ds LrEHk gksrs gS :


(1) Conical masses of Renal Medulla (1) oD̀dh; e/;ka'k ds 'kaDokdkj lewg
(2) Medulla extends in between the cortex
(2) esMqyk] dkWVsZDl ds chp foLrkfjr gks tkrk gS
(3) Cortex extends in between the medullary
pyramids (3) esMqyk ds fijkfeM ds chp dkWVsZDl dk foLrkj
(4) Broad funnel shaped space of ureter (4) ew=k ufydk dk pkSM+k dhikdkj vodk'k

Q.110 Which substances are actively reabsorbed Q.110 dkSuls inkFkksZ dk usÝksu esa lfØ; :i ls
in nephron ? iqujko'kks"k.k gksrk gS ?
(1) Glucose, H+ (2) Amino acid, Na+ (1) Xywdkst, H+ (2) vehuks vEy, Na+
+
(3) Urea, water (4) Na , water (3) ;wfj;k, ty (4) Na+, ty

Q.111 In which of the following group, blood is Q.111 fuEu esa ls fdl lew g esa ân; }kjk jDr dks
pumped by heart passes through large jDrokfgdkvksa esa iai fd;k tkrk gS] tks fd jDr
vessels into open spaces or body cavities : LFkku ¼dksVjks½ esa [kqyrk gS :
(1) Amphibia (2) Annelida (1) mHk;pj esa (2) ,uhfyMk esa
(3) Mollusca (4) Birds (3) eksyLdk esa (4) if{k;ksa esa

Q.112 Person with blood group AB is considered Q.112 ,slk O;fDr ftldk jDr lewg AB gS] ftls lokZ vknkgh
as universal recipient because he has : ¼xzkgh½ ds :i esa tkuk tkrk gSA D;ksafd og gksrk gS %&
(1) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no (1) RBC ij A rFkk B nksuksa izfrtu gksrs gS] ysfdu
antibodies in the plasma. IykTek esa izfrj{kh ugha gksrs gSA
(2) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma (2) IykTek esa A rFkk B nksuksa izfrj{kh gksrs gSA
(3) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in (3) RBC esa dksbZ izfrtu@,UVhtu ugha gksrs gS rFkk
the plasma IykTek esa dksbZ izfrj{kh@ ,.VhckWMht ugha gksrs gSA
(4) Both A and B antigens in the plasma but (4) IykTek esa A rFkk B nksuksa izfrtu@,.Vhtu gksrs
no antibodies. gS] ysfdu izfrj{kh@,.VhckWMht ugha gksrs gSA
Q.113 Heart failure means : Q.113 ân; ikr (Heart failure) gksrk gS :
(1) When the heart stops beating. (1) ân; dk /kM+duk cUn gks tkuk
(2) When the heart muscle is suddenly
(2) ân; is'kh dk vpkud {kfrxzLr gks tkuk
damaged.
(3) The state of heart when it is not pumping (3) ân; dk 'kjhj ds fofHkUu vaxksa dks
blood effectively enough to meet the vko';drkuqlkj jDr vkiwfrZ ugha dj ikukA
needs of the body. (4) dksjksujh /keuh dh xqgk es dksysLVsjkWy dk
(4) Deposition of cholesterol in the lumen of
coronary artery.
teko gksukA

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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.114 Centre for heart beat regulation is Q.114 ân; LiUnu nj dk dsUnz mifLFkr gksrk gS :
presenting :
(1) ikSUl oSjksyh esa (2) izefLr"d esa
(1) Pons Varolli (2) Cerebrum
(3) vuqefLr"d esa (4) esM~;wyk esa
(3) Cerebellum (4) Medulla

Q.115 ikfpr Hkkstu dk lcls vf/kd vo'kks"k.k NksVh vkar


Q.115 Maximum absorption of digested food occurs
in the small intestine which has a very large esa gksrk gSA bl dk;Z ds fy, blesa i`"Bh; {ks=Qy
surface area for this purpose. The structure cgqr vfèkd gksrk gSA og lajpuk tks NksVh vkar esa
which does not contribute to increase in i`"Bh; {ks=Qy dks c<+kus esa ;ksxnku ugha nsrk gS :
surface area of small intestine is : (1) jlkadqj
(1) Villi
(2) Vhuh rFkk gkLVªk
(2) Taeniae and haustra
(3) lw{ekadqj
(3) Microvilli
(4) ddZfjaXl ds oyu
(4) Folds of Kerckrings

Q.116 Emulsification of fats is done by : Q.116 olk dk ik;lhdj.k gksrk gS :


(1) Bile pigments (2) Bile salts (1) fiÙk o.kZdksa }kjk (2) fiÙk yo.kksa }kjk
(3) Lipase enzyme (4) HCl
(3) ykbist ,Utkbe }kjk (4) HCl }kjk

Q.117 Which one of the following is showing the Q.117 ekuoksa ds d'ks:d n.M esa d'ks:dksa dk
correct sequential order of vetebrae in the
vertebral column of human beings? fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk Øe lgh gS ?
(1) Cervical –– lumbar – throacic –– sacral –
– coccygeal (1) xzhok –– dfV – o{kh; –– lSØeh –– vuqf=kd
(2) Cervical –– thoracic –– sacral ––lumbar –
– coccygeal (2) xzhok –– o{kh; –– lSØeh –– dfV –– vuqf=kd
(3) Cervical –– sacral –– thoracic –– lumbar
(3) xzhok –– lSØeh –– o{kh; –– dfV –– vuqf=kd
–– coccygeal
(4) Cervical – thoracic –– lumbar –– sacral –
(4) xzhok – o{kh; –– dfV –– lSØeh –– vuqf=kd
– coccygeal

Q.118 Knee joint and elbow joints are examples of: Q.118 ?kqVuk laf/k vkSj dksguh&laf/k fdl izdkj dh laf/k
(1) Saddle joint ds mnkgj.k gSa ?
(2)Ball and socket joint (1) lSMy laf/k
(3) Pivot joint (2) dUnwd [kfYydk laf/k
(4) Hinge joint (3) /kqjkxz laf/k
(4) dCtk laf/k

Q.119 The excessive secretion of Q.119 fefujsyksdkWVhZdkWbM~l ds vfrL=kko.k tks jsfuu


mineralocorticoids independent of renin- ,aftvksVsfUlu&,yMksLVhjksu ra=k ij fuHkZj ugha
angiotensin-aldosterone system results in : djrs] ls gksrk gS :
(1) Cushing's disease (2) Conn's disease (1) dqf'kax jksx (2) dkWUl jksx
(3) Addison's disease (4) Grave's disease (3) ,fMlu jksx (4) xzso jksx

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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.120 The series of events that leads to Q.120 ,slk ?kVukØe ftlls ,Dtksu ds vUnj dk
cancellation of negative charge inside axon _.kkRed vkos'k [kRe gksrk gS vkSj 'kwU; gks tkrk gS
and then becoming zero inside i.e. – 70 mV vFkkZr – 70 mV ls 0 mV, bls dgrs gS :
to 0 mV is known as :
(1) vfr/kqzohdj.k (2) fo/kqzohdj.k
(1) Hyperpolarisation (2) Depolarisation
(3) foJkehvoLFkk (4) iqu% /kqzohdj.k
(3) Resting state (4) Repolarisation

Q.121 If hypothalamus is destroyed then which of Q.121 ;fn gkbiksFkSysel {kfrxzLr gks tk, rc fuEu esa ls
the following function will be affected ? dkSulk dk;Z izHkkfor gksxk ?
(1) Olfaction (1) ?kzk.k
(2) Visual reflex (2) n`f"V izR;korZ
(3) Thermoregulation (3) rki fu;eu
(4) Response when prickled with needle
(4) lwbZ pqckus ij gksus okyh vuqfØ;k

Q.122 Which of the following animal are vertebrate Q.122 fuEu esa ls dkSulk tUrq ,d d'ks:dh jTtqdh gS ?
chordate ? (1) iSVªksekbtksu (2) ,EQhvkWDll
(1) Petromyzon (2) Amphioxus
(3) ,flfM;k (4) cSysuksXyksll
(3) Ascidia (4) Balanoglossus

Q.123 Which of the following animal is triploblastic Q.123 fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSuls izk.kh esa f}ik'oZ lefefr]
with bilateral symmetry and organ system f=dksjdh laxBu o vax ra= Lrj dk laxBu ik;k
level of organisation : tkrk gS :
(1) Nereis (2) Earth worm (1) usfjl (2) dsapqvk
(3) Leech (4) All of these (3) tksad (4) mijksDr lHkh

Q.124 Which of the following animal has feather like Q.124 fuEu esa ls dkSuls tUrq dh esUVy xqgk esa ij
gills located in mantle cavity which have (feather) leku Dykse fLFkr gksrs gSa tks fd 'olu
respiratory and excretory function ? ,oa mRltZu dk;ks± ds fy, gksrs gS ?
(1) Nereis (2) Limulus (1) usjht (2) fyeqyl
(3) Chiton (4) Ascidia (3) dkbVu (4) ,flMh;k

Q.125 Which statement is not true for binomial Q.125 ukedj.k dh f}in (binomial) iz.kkyh ds fy, dkSu
system of nomenclature? lk dFku lR; ugha gSA
(i) Biological names are generally in Latin or (i) tSfod uke izk;% ySfVu esa ;k ySfVukbTM gksrs gS
Latinised or derived from Latin ;k budh mRifÙk ds vlkis{k ysfVu ls O;qRiUu
irrespective of their origin gksrs gSA
(ii) The first word in a biological name (ii) ,d tsfod uke dk igyk 'kCn iztkfr;ksa dk
represents the species while the second izfrfuf/kro djrk gS tcfd nwljk 'kCn oa'k dk
word denotes the genus izfrfuf/kRo djrk gSA
(iii) The first word of biological name starts (iii) ,d tSfod uke dk igyk 'kCn cM+s v{kj ls
with capital letter and the first letter of vkjaHk gksrk gS vkSj f}rh; 'kCn dk igyk v{kj
second word starts with small letter NksVs v{kj ls vkajHk gksrk gSA
(iv) Name of the author is written in italics (iv) ys[kd dk uke bVsfyd :i esa fo'ks"k ladsrin
form after the specific epithet ds ckn fy[kk tkrk gSA
(1) (ii) and (iv) (2) Only (ii) (1) (ii) vkSj (iv) (2) dsoy (ii)
(3) (i) and (iii) (4) None (3) (i) vkSj (iii) (4) dksbZ ugha

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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.126 In lichens, sexual reproduction belongs to : Q.126 ykbdsu esa ySafxd iztuu fdl ls lacaf/kr gksrs gSA
(1) Fungal partner only (1) dsoy dod lgHkkxh (partner) gksrs gSA
(2) Algal partner only (2) dsoy 'kSoky lgHkkxh gksrs gSA
(3) Both fungal and algal partners (3) dod vkSj 'kSoky nksuksa lgHkkxh gksrs gSA
(4) Neither fungal or algal partner (4) dod vkSj 'kSoky dksbZ lgHkkxh ugha gksrs gSA

Q.127 In Pteridophytes, meiosis occurs in : Q.127 VsfjMksQkbV esa] v/kZlw=h foHkktu fdl esa gksrk gS\
(1) Egg (1) vaMk (Egg)
(2) Zygote (2) ;qXeut (Zygote)
(3) Antherozoids (3) iqeax (Antherozoids)
(4) Spore mother cells (4) chtk.kq ekr` dksf'kdk,a (Spore mother cells)

Q.128 Which of the following branches of biology Q.128 tho foKku dh fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh 'kk[kk
applies to both plants and animals ? ikniksa vkSj izkf.k;ksa nksuksa ds fy, ykxw gksrh gS \
(1) Entomology (1) dhV foKku (Entomology)
(2) Zoology (2) izkf.kfoKku (Zoology)
(3) Microbiology (3) lw{etho foKku (Microbiology)
(4) Taxonomy (4) ofxZdh (Taxonomy)

Q.129 A free-living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium Q.129 ,d eqDr&thoh ukbVªkstu&fLFkjhdj.k djus okyk


which can also form a symbiotic association lk;ukscSDVhfj;e] tks ty QuZ ,tksyk ds lkFk
with the water fern Azolla is : lgthoh laca/k Hkh cuk ldrk gS] og gS &
(1) Azotobacter (2) Chlorella (1) ,tksVkscSDVj (2) Dyksjsyk
(3) Nostoc (4) Anabaena (3) uksLVkWd (4) ,sukchuk

Q.130 Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) genes are : Q.130 Vkscsdks ekstsd okbjl (TMV) thu dSlk gksrk gS \
(1) Double stranded RNA (1) f}jTtqd RNA
(2) Single stranded RNA (2) ,dy jTtqd RNA
(3) Polyribonucleotides either ds DNA or (3) ikWyhjkbcksU;wfDy;ksVkbM ;k rks ds DNA ;k
ssRNA ssRNA
(4) ssDNA (4) ssDNA

Q.131 In Pinus and Cycas, the endosperm is : Q.131 ikbul vkSj lkbdl esa] Hkzw.kiks"k gS %
(1) Triploid (1) f=xqf.kr

(2) Haploid (2) vxqf.kr

(3) Diploid (3) f}xqf.kr

(4) None of the above (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.132 Match column-I with column-II choose the Q.132 LraHk-I dk LraHk-II ds lkFk feyku djs vkSj lgh
correct option : fodYi pqusaA
Column-I Column-II
Funaria, Lra H k -I Lra H k -II
(A) Phaeophyceae (i) Polytrichum,
(A) (i)
¶;wusfj;k] ikWyhVªkbde]
Sphagnum Qh;ksQkblh
LQSXue
Equisetum,
(B) Rhodophyceae (ii) Psilotum, (B) (ii)
,DohlhVe] lkbZyksVe]
jksMksQkblh
Pteris VSfjl
Ectocarpus, ,DVksdkiZl] fMDV;ksVk]
(C) Mosses (iii) Dictyota, (C) EkkWl (iii)
Laminaria
ySfeusfj;k
Polysiphonia,
(D)
ikWyhlkbQksfu;k]
(D) (iv) Porphyra,
VsfjMksQkbV~l (iv)
ikWjQkbjk] xzfs lfyfj;k
Pteridophytes Gracilaria
(1) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)
(1) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)
(2) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (ii)
(2) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (ii)
(3) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
(3) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
(4) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (ii)
(4) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (ii)

Q.133 A Root play significant role in absorption of Q.133 fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ikni esa tM+] ty ds
water in which of the following plant? vo'kks"k.k esa eq[; Hkwfedk fuHkkrh gSA
(i) Pistia (ii) Pea (i) fifLV;k (ii) eVj
(iii) Wheat (iv) Sunflower (iii) xsagw¡ (iv) lwtjeq[kh
(1) Only (i) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (1) dsoy (i) (2) (ii), (iii) vkSj (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) All (3) (iii) vkSj (iv) (4) lHkh

Q.134 Select the correct statement. Q.134 lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) A bud is present in the axil of leaflet. (1) ,d dfydk i=d ds d{k es mifLFkfr gksrh gSA
(2) Swollen leaf base occurs in Fabaceae (2) Qwyk gqvk i.kZ vk/kkj] QScslh esas gksrk gS
(3) eVj esa ruk izrku ik;k tkrk gSA
(3) Stem tendril occurs in pea
(4) i.kkZHkLraHk (Phylloclade), izlkfjr i.kZo`ar
(4) Phylloclade is expanded petiole which
(petiole) gksrk gS tks gjk vkSj izdk'k la'ys"kh
becomes green and photosynthetic gks tkrk gSA

Q.135 The statements given below describe certain Q.135 uhps fn, x, dFku dqN fo'ks"krkvksa dk o.kZu djrs
features that are observed in the pistil of gS tks iq"iksa ds L=hdslj es ns[kh tkrh gSA
flowers. i. ,d tk;kax esa dbZ vaMi gks ldrs gSA
i. A gynoecium may have many carpel.
ii. izR;sd vaMi esa ,d ls vf/kd chtkaM gks ldrs
ii. Each carpel may have more than one ovule.
gSA
iii. In wheat and rice a gynoecium may have
iii. xsg
a w ,oa pkoy esa ,d tk;kax esa vusd vMai gks ldrs gSA
many carpels
iv. A pistil has only one carpel. iv. ,d L=hdslj esa dsoy ,d vaMi gksrk gSA
Choose the statements that are true from the mu dFkuksa dk p;u dhft, tks fodYiksa esa ls lgh
options. gSA
(1) i and ii (2) i and iii (1) i vkSj ii (2) i vkSj iii
(3) ii and iv (4) iii and iv (3) ii vkSj iv (4) iii vkSj iv

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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.136 Which of the following show higher rate of Q.136 fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ok"iksRltZu dh mPp nj dks
transpiration ? n'kkZrk gS A
(1) Collenchyma (1) LFkwydks.k Ård (Collenchyma)
(2) Leaf (2) iÙkh (Leaf)
(3) Dry seeds (3) 'kq"d cht (Dry seeds)
(4) Germinating seeds (4) vadqfjr cht (Germinating seeds)

Q.137 The outer and inner, as well as radial walls of Q.137 varLRopk ¼,aMksMeZy½ dh dksf'kdkvksa dh ckgjh ,oa
the endodermal cells, have a deposition of vkUrfjd] lkFk gh vjh; fHkfÙk;ksa ij fdl :i esa ty
water-impermeable, waxy material suberin in
vikjxE; ekseh inkFkZ lqcsfju gksrk gSA
the form of
(1) ewyRopk (2) dkx
(1) Epiblema (2) Phellem
(3) Phelloderm (4) Casparian strips (3) dkx vLrj (4) dSLisjh ifV~V;ksa

Q.138 In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the Q.138 rus es] izksVkstkbye vax ds dsanz eTtk dh vksj fLFkr
center (pith) and the metaxylem lies towards gksrk gS vkSj esVktkbye vax dh ifjf/k dh vksj fLFkr
the periphery of the organ, In this type of gksrk gSA bl izdkj ds izkFkfed tkbye esa tkbye dk
primary xylem development of xylem is: fodkl gksrk gSA
(1) Centripetal (1) dsUnzkfHklkjh (Centripetal)
(2) Centrifugal (2) dsUnzkilkjh (Centrifugal)
(3) Collateral (3) lEikf'oZd (Collateral)
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

Q.139 Plasmodesmata are cytoplasmic bridges Q.139 thonzO; rarq layXuh ikni dksf'kdkvksa ds e/;
between adjacent plant cells & often have dksf'kdknzO;h lsrq gksrs gSa] tks vDlj j[krs gS
________. _______.
(1) Apoplasm (2) Desmotubules (1) ,iksIykTe (2) MsLeksV~;wcYl
(3) Desmosomes (4) ER tubule (3) MsLekslkse (4) ER ufydk

Q.140 Which one of the following cell organelles are Q.140 fuEu es ls dkSulk dksf'kdk vaxd ,dy f>Yyh }kjk
not enclosed even by a single membrane ? Hkh layXu ugha gSS
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplasts (1) lw=df.kdk (2) gfjryod
(3) Lysosomes (4) Ribosome (3) ykbZlkslkse (4) jkbZckslkse

Q.141 Which of the following statements regarding Q.141 ,atkbe ds lg,atkbe vkSj izksLFksfVd lewgks ds laca/k esa
coenzymes and prosthetic groups of enzymes fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lR; ugha gSA
is not true ? (1) nksuksa ,atkbe fØ;k ds fy, vko';d gksrs gS
(1) Both are required for enzyme action (2) nksuks dks ,atkbe ls vklkuh ls vyx fd;k tk
(2) Both can be easily separated from enzyme ldrk gSA
(3) Both can be organic compounds (3) nksuksa dkcZfud ;kSfxd gks ldrs gSA
(4) Both are not polypeptides
(4) nksuksa ikWyhisIVkbM ugha gksrs gSA

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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.142 In a cell, the number of chromosomes is the Q.142 ,d dksf'kdk esa] xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k leku gksrh gS]
same, but the amount of DNA content has ysfdu DNA varoZLrq dh ek=k C ls 2C esa cny
changed from C to 2C. Also, the amount of tkrh gSA lkFk gh dksf'kdk esa fgLVksu dh ek=k
histones in the cell becomes double. In which
nksxquh gks tkrh gSA dksf'kdk pØ dh fdl voLFkk
stage of the cell cycle, this process could
es] ;g izfØ;k ?kfVr gks ldrh Fkh \
have happened ?
(1) G1 izkoLFkk (2) S izkoLFkk
(1) G1 phase (2) S phase
(3) G2 phase (4) G0 phase (3) G2 izkoLFkk (4) G0 izkoLFkk

Q.143 Synapsis is pairing of Q.143 lw=;qXeu fdldk ;qXeu gksrk gS \


(1) Any two chromosomes (1) dksbZ Hkh nks xq.klw=
(2) Non homologous chromosomes (2) vletkr xq.klw=
(3) Sister chromatids (3) iq=h v/kZxq.klw=
(4) A paternal & a maternal chromosome (4) ,d iSr`d ,oa ,d ekr`d xq.klw=

Q.144 According to the chemiosmotic mechanism Q.144 ATP la'ys"k.k ds fy, jlksijklj.kh fØ;kfof/k ds
for ATP synthesis,the force/factor vuqlkj] ATP la'ys"k.k ds fy, mÙkjnk;h
responsible for ATP synthesis is cy@dkjd gS &
(1) Glucose (1) Xywdkst
(2) Proton motive force (2) izksVkWu izsjd cy
(3) electromotive force (3) fo|qr~ okgd cy
(4) Redox potential (4) jsMkWDl foHko

Q.145 Which of the following wavelength of light is Q.145 fuEufyf[kr esa ls izdk'k la'ys"k.k ds fy, izdk'k
absorbed maximum for photosynthesis? dh dkSu lh rjax nS/;Z vf/kdre vo'kksf"kr gksrh gS \
(1)Red light (2)Blue light (1) yky izdk'k (2) uhyk izdk'k
(3)Green light (4)Yellow light (3) gjk izdk'k (4) ihyk izdk'k

Q.146 The element which helps in oxygen evolution Q.146 og rRo tks izdk'k la'ys"k.k dh izfØ;k esa
in the process of photosynthesis is : vkWDlhtu ds mRltZu esa enn djrs gSA
(1) Zn and Mn (2) Mo and Cl (1) Zn vkSj Mn (2) Mo vkSj Cl
(3) B and Mg (4) Cl and Mn (3) B vkSj Mg (4) Cl vkSj Mn

Q.147 The water potential and osmotic potential of Q.147 'kq) ty dk ty foHko vkSj ijklj.kh foHko gksrk
pure water are : gS&
(1) Zero and zero (2) 100 and 100 (1) 'kwU; vkSj 'kwU; (2) 100 vkSj 100
(3) Zero and 100 (4) 100 and zero (3) 'kwU; vksj 100 (4) 100 vkSj 'kwU;

Q.148 In the majority of dicots, the first stable Q.148 vf/kdka'k f}cht=h;ksa esa] vizdk'kh; vfHkfØ;k ds
product of photosynthesis during the dark nkSjku izdk'k la'ys"k.k dk izFke LFkk;h mRikn gksrk
reaction is : gSA
(1) Malic acid
(1) eSfyd vEy
(2) Oxaloacetic acid
(2) vkWDlsyks,flfVd vEy
(3) 3-phosphoglyceric acid
(3) 3-QkWLQksfXylfjd vEy
(4) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(4) QkWLQksfXyljfYMgkbM

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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.149 You are given tissue with its potential for Q.149 vkidks d`f=e lao/kZu esa foHksnu ds fy, bldh
differentiation in artificial culture. Which of the {kerk ds lkFk Ård fn;k tkrk gSA fuEufyf[kr esa
following pairs of hormones would you add to ls dkSu ls gkeksZu ds tksM+s esa vki izjksg vkSj ewy
the medium to secure shoots as well as dks lqjf{kr djus ds fy, ek/;e esa o`f) djsaxs \
roots ?
(1) IAA vkSj ftcjsfyu
(1) IAA and gibberellin
(2) vkWfDlu vkSj lkbVksdkbfuu
(2) Auxin and cytokinin
(3) vkWfDlu vkSj ,fClfld vEy
(3) Auxin and abscisic acid
(4) Gibberellin and abscisic acid (4) ftcjsfyu vkSj ,fClfld vEy

Q.150 In the TCA cycle, FADH2 is formed during : Q.150 TCA pØ esa] FADH2 dk fuekZ.k fdlds nkSjku
(1) Conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinate gksrk gS \
(1) lDlhfuy Co-A dk lfDlusV esa :ikarj.k
(2) Conversion of citrate to cis-aconitate
(2) flVªsV dk lei{k&,sdksfuVsV esa :ikarj.k
(3) Conversion of succinate to fumarate
(3) lfDlusV dk ¶;wejsV esa :ikarj.k
(4) Conversion of fumarate to malate (4) ¶;wejsV dk eSysV esa :ikarj.k

Q.151 The correct sequence of cytochromes in ETC Q.151 ETC esa lkbVksØkse dk lgh vuqØe gS %
is : (1) Cyt a, b, c, a3 (2) Cyt b, c1, a, a3
(1) Cyt a, b, c, a3 (2) Cyt b, c1, a, a3
(3) Cyt b, a, a3, c (4) Cyt b, c, a3 ,a
(3) Cyt b, a, a3, c (4) Cyt b, c, a3 ,a

Q.152 Which of the following does not play any role Q.152 fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu tkbye ds ek/;e ls ty
in the movement of water through the xylem? dh xfr esa dksbZ Hkwfedk ugha fuHkkrk gS \
(1) Capillarity (1) dsf'kdkRo
(2) Root pressure (2) ewy nkc
(3) H+/ATPase pump at the xylem element
(3) tkbye vo;o f>Yyh ij H+/ATPase iai
membrane
(4) ok"iksRltZu f[kapko
(4) Transpirational pull

Q.153 Conversion of N O 3  N H 4 is called ____ Q.153 N O 3  N H 4 ds :ikarj.k dks ____ dgk tkrk gS
and is catalysed by _____. vkSj ;g _____ }kjk mRizsfjr fd;k tkrk gSA
(1) Nitrate assimilation, nitrate and nitrite (1) ukbVªsV Lokaxhdj.k] ukbVªsV vkSj ukbVªkbV
reductase fjMDVst
(2) Nitrification, nitrate and nitrite reductase
(2) ukbVªhdj.k] ukbVªsV vkSj ukbVªkbV fjMDVst
(3) Ammonification, glutamate
(3) veksfudj.k] XywVksesV] fMgkbMªksftust
dehydrogenase
(4) foukbVªhdj.k] VªkUl,feusl
(4) Denitrification, transaminase

Q.154 The haploid cell which divides by mitosis to Q.154 v.kqf.kr dksf'kdk tks eknk ;qXedksn~fHkn cukus ds
form female gametophyte is fy, lelw=h foHkktu }kjk foHkkftr gksrh gS %
(1) Megaspore mother cell (1) zxq:chtk.kq ekr` dksf'kdk
(2) Microspore mother cell (2) y?kqchtk.kq ekr` dksf'kdk
(3) Functional megaspore (3) lfØ; xq:chtk.kq
(4) Non functional megaspore (4) fuf"Ø; xq:chtk.kq

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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.155 Choose the correct statement from the Q.155 fuEufyf[kr esa ls lgh dFku pqusaA
following. (1) ,dfyaxkJ;h ¼mHk;fyaxh½ tho dsoy tarqvksa esa
(1) Dioecious (hermaphrodite) organisms are ns[ks tkrs gSA
seen only in animals. (2) ,dfyaxkJ;h thoksa dks dsoy ikS/kksa esa ns[kk tkrk
(2) Dioecious organisms are seen only in
gSA
plants.
(3) iihrk ,oa [ktwj ,dfyaxkJ;h ikni gS
(3) Papaya and date palm are dioecious
(4) ,dfyaxkJ;h ikni ltkriq"ih ijkx.k
plant
(4) Dioecious plants show geitonogamy (geitonogamy) n'kkZrs gS

Q.156 The cell that divides to form two male nuclei Q.156 dkSulh dksf'kdk vko`rchth esa nks uj dsUnzd cukus
in angiosperms is : ds fy, foHkkftr gksrh gS:
(1) with irregular nucleus (1) vfu;fer dsUnzd ds lkFk
(2) with spindal shape nucleus (2) rdZq vkd`rh okys dsUnzd ds lkFk
(3) haploid cell (3) vxqf.kr dksf'kdk
(4) more then one option are correct (4) ,d ls vf/kd fodYi lgh gSA

Q.157 In a Mendelian dihybrid cross, the probability Q.157 esUMyh; f}ladj ladj.k esa] F2 ih<+h esa Øe'k%
of getting seeds with genotype Rryy, RrYy, thuiz:i Rryy, RrYy, rrYy vkSj RrYY ds lkFk
rrYy and RrYY in F2 generation is respectively : cht izkIr djus dh laHkkouk gSA
2 4 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 4 1 1 2 2 2 2
(1) : : : (2) : : : (1) : : : (2) : : :
16 16 8 8 16 16 16 16 16 16 8 8 16 16 16 16
4 4 2 2 1 1 2 1 4 4 2 2 1 1 2 1
(3) : : : (4) : : : (3) : : : (4) : : :
16 16 16 16 8 4 8 16 16 16 16 16 8 4 8 16

Q.158 Which one of the following pairs of features Q.158 fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh fo'ks"krkvksa dk ;qXe]
in an excellent example of polygenic cgqthuh oa'kkxfr dk ,d mRd`"V mnkgj.k gS \
inheritance ?
(1) ekuo vka[kksa dk jax vkSj nk= dksf'kdk
(1) Human eye colour and sickle cell
anaemia. jDrkYirk
(2) Hair pigment of mouse and tongue rolling (2) euq";ksa esa ftg~ok osYyu vkSj pwgk ds cky o.kZd
in humans. (3) euq";ksa esa ABO jDr lewg vkSj fejkfcfyl
(3) ABO blood group in humans and flower
tykik ds iq"Ik dk jax
colour of Mirabilis jalapa.
(4) ekuo dh yackbZ vkSj Ropk dk jax
(4) Human height and skin colour.

Q.159 Which one of the following pairs is an example Q.159 fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ;qXe vfyax xq.klw=h
of an autosomal recessive disorder ? vizHkkoh fodkj dk ,d mnkgj.k gS ?
(1) Phenylketonuria and haemophilia (1) fQukby dhVksuwfj;k vkSj gheksfQfy;k
(2) Colour blindness and haemophilia
(2) o.kkZU/krk vkSj gheksfQfy;k
(3) Phenylketonuria and thalassemia
(3) fQukby dhVksuwfj;k vkSj FkSysflfe;k
(4) Colour blindness and sickle cell anaemia
(4) o.kkZU/krk vkSj nk= dksf'kdk jDrYirk

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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.160 An organism has two unlinked genes P and Q.160 ,d tho ds ikl nks vlayXu thu P vkSj Q gksrs
Q. Its genotype is PpQq. How many different gSA bldk thuizk:i PpQq gksrk gSA fdrus fofHkUu
types of gametes will be formed? izdkj ds ;qXed cusaxs \
(1) Two (2) Six (1) nks (2) N%
(3) Four (4) Eight (3) pkj (4) vkB

Q.161 A normal-visioned man, whose father was Q.161 ,d lkekU; n`f"V okyk O;fDr] ftldk firk o.kkZU/k
colourblind, marries a woman whose father Fkk] ,d ,slh efgyk ls fookg djrk gS] ftlds
was also colourblind. They have their first firk Hkh o.kkZa/k FksA muds igys larfr ds :i esa
child as a daughter. What is the chance that iq=h gqbZA bldh izkf;drk D;k gS fd og larfr
this child would be colourblind ? o.kkZa/k gksxh ?
(1) 100% (2) Zero percent (1) 100% (2) 'kwU; izfr'kr
(3) 25% (4) 50% (3) 25% (4) 50%

Q.162 Select the correct statement regarding Q.162 vuqoknu ds laca/k esa lgh dFku dk p;u djsaA
translation (1) tc jkbckslkse dh 30S mibdkbZ mRNA ls
(1) When the 30S subunit of the ribosome feyrh gS rks vuqoknu dh izfØ;k vkjaEHk gks
encounters a mRNA the process of tkrh gSA
translation begins (2) isIVhMst isIVkbM ca/k ds fuekZ.k dks mRizsfjr
(2) Peptidease catalyses the formation of
djrk gSA
peptide bond
(3) UTRS izkjaHk dwV vkSj lekiu dwV ds e/;
(3) UTRS are present between the start
codon and stop codon
fLFkr gksrs gSA
(4) At the end of translation the release (4) vuqoknu ds var esa foekspu dkjd AUG ls ca/k
factor binds to AUG tkrk gSA

Q.163 In negative operon Q.163 _.kkRed izpkysd esa &


(1) Inducer binds with repressor (1) izsjd neudkjh ds lkFk ca/k tkrk gSA
(2) Co-repressor does not bind with (2) lg&neudrkZ] neudkjh ds lkFk ugha ca/krk gSA
repressor (3) ,iks&neudrkZ izsjd ds lkFk ca/krk gSA
(3) Apo-repressor binds with inducer (4) cAMP dk ySd izpkysd ij _.kkRed izHkko
(4) cAMP have negative effect on lac operon iM+rk gSA

Q.164 Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 Q.164 64 izdwV esa ls] 61 izdwV 20 izdkj ds vehuks vEy
types of amino acid. This characteristic is dk dwVys[ku djrs gSA bl fo'ks"krk dks dgrs gS %
known as : (1) vkuqoaf'kd dksM dh viHkz"Vrk
(1) Degeneracy of genetic code (2) thu dk vfrO;kiu
(2) Overlapping of gene
(3) izdwV dk iznksyu (wobbling)
(3) Wobbling of codon
(4) izdwV dh lkoZHkkSfedrk
(4) Universality of codons

Q.165 Which of the following set of options is used Q.165 fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl fodYi ds leqPp; dk
in translation? mi;ksx vuqoknu es fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) hnRNA, tRNA, rRNA (1) hnRNA, tRNA, rRNA
(2) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA (2) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA
(3) mRNA, tRNA, hnRNA (3) mRNA, tRNA, hnRNA
(4) hnRNA, rRNA, tRNA (4) hnRNA, rRNA, tRNA

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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.166 If the base sequence in one chain of DNA is Q.166 ;fn DNA dh ,d Ja`[kyk es {kkj vuqØe
5'–GCATG–3', what shall be the sequence in 5'–GCATG–3' gS] rks izfrd`r iwjd jTtqd ,oa
the replicated complementary strand and in m-RNA esa fufeZr vuqØe D;k gksxk \
m-RNA formed by it ::
(1) 3' GCATG 5' & 5'–CGTAC–3'
(1) 3' GCATG 5' & 5'–CGTAC–3'
(2) 3' CGTAC 5' & 5'–GCAUG–3'
(2) 3' CGTAC 5' & 5'–GCAUG–3'
(3) 3' ATGCG 5' & 3'–UACGC–5' (3) 3' ATGCG 5' & 3'–UACGC–5'
(4) 3' CGTAC 5' & 3'–GCAUG–5' (4) 3' CGTAC 5' & 3'–GCAUG–5'

Q.167 Parbhani Kranti is a new variety of Q.167 ijHkkuh Økafr ,csyukWldkl ,slD;wySaVl dh ,d
Abelanoschus esculentus having the ubZ fdLe gS ftldk izfrjks/k gS %
resistance to : (1) izjksg vkSj Qy os/kd
(1) Shoot and fruit borer
(2) thok.kq vaxekjh
(2) Bacterial blight
(3) Yellow mosaic virus (3) ihr ekstsd fo"kk.kq
(4) Tobacco mosaic virus (4) rackdw ekstsd fo"kk.kq

Q.168 The end product of fermentation of molasses Q.168 [kehj }kjk 'khjk ;k xqMjl ds fd.ou dk vafre
by yeast is mRikn D;k gksrk gSA
(1) Acetic acid (2) Methyl alcohol (1) ,lhfVd vEy (2) esfFky ,sYdksgkWy
(3) Ethyl alcohol (4) Lactate (3) ,fFky ,sYdksgkWy (4) ySDVsV

Q.169 Which of the following is the application of Q.169 fuEufyf[k es ls dkSu PCR dk vuqiz;ksx gS \
PCR ? (1) thok.kq ;k fo"kk.kq dh cgqr fuEu lkanzrk dk
(1) Detection of very low concentration of irk yxkukA
bacteria or virus
(2) lafnX/k dSalj jksfx;ksa ds thu esa mRifjorZu dk
(2) Detection of mutations in genes in
suspected cancer patients irk yxkuk
(3) Amplification of desired DNA segment (3) okafNr DNA [kaM dk izo/kZu
(4) All of these (4) ;s lHkh

Q.170 Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed Q.170 foyksfMr gkSt ck;ksfj,DVj dks fMtkbu fd;k x;k
for : gS%
(1) Addition of preservatives to the product (1) mRikn esa ifjj{kdksa dk ifjo/kZu
(2) Purification of the product (2) mRikn dk 'kks/ku
(3) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the (3) loa/kZu ik= esa vok;oh; fLFkfr;ksa dks lqfuf'pr
culture vessel
djuk
(4) Availability of oxygen throughout the
(4) lEiw.kZ izØe esa vkWDlhtu dh miyC/krk
process

Q.171 The situation where indigenous knowledge of Q.171 og fLFkfr tgka izd`fr dk Lons'kh Kku] tks Lons'kh
nature, originating with indigenous people, is yksxksa ds lkFk mRiUu gksrk gS] muls mfpr vuqefr
used by others for profit, without taking izkIr fd, fcuk] nwljksa }kjk ykHk ds fy, mi;ksx
proper permission from them and with little or fd;k tkrk gSA vkSj Lons'kh yksxksa dks muds fy,
no compensation or recognition to the de ;k dksbZ {kfriwfrZ ;k igpku ughas nh tkrh gS]
indigenous people themselves is known as : mls tkuk tkrk gSA
(1) Biopatents (2) Biopiracy (1) tSo ,dLo (2) ck;ksikbjslh
(3) Biological diversity (4) Ethical issues (3) tSfod fofo/krk (4) usfrd eqn~ns

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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.172 Choose the correct statement : Q.172 lgh dFku dk p;u djsa :
(1) Presence of more than one recognition (1) ,d jksxokgd ds Hkhrj ,d ,atkbe ds fy, ,d
site for one enzyme, within a vector, ls vf/kd igpku LFky dh mifLFkfr] dbZ [kaM
generate several fragments, which will mRiUu djrs gS] tks thu Dyksfuax dks tfVy
complicate gene cloning. djsxkA
(2) Ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a (2) fotkrh; DNA dk ca/ku 'ori' esa mifLFkr ,d
restriction site present in 'ori'. izfrca/k LFky ij fd;k tkrk gSA
(3) In pBR322 one antibiotic resistance gene (3) pBR322 esa ,d izfrtSfod izfrjks/k thu
helps in the selection of transofrmants, :ikarjt ds p;u esa lgk;rk djrk gS] tcfd
whereas the other helps in cloning. nwljk Dyksfuax esa lgk;rk djrk gSA
(4) Rop helps in identification of transformed (4) Rop :ikarjt dksf'kdkvksa dh igpku djus esa
cells. lgk;rk djrk gSA

Q.173 Alpha diversity in biodiversity present Q.173 vYQk fofo/krk] fdlesa mifLFkr tSo fofo/krk gksrh
(1) Within community gS\
(2)Between community (1) leqnk; ds Hkhrj
(2) leqnk; ds chp
(3) Ranges of communities
(3) leqnk;ksa dh Js.kh
(4) All the above (4) mi;ZqDr lHkh

Q.174 The montreal protocol deals with : Q.174 ekWfUVª;y izksVkdkWy D;k lanfHkZr djrk gS \
(1) Persistent organic pollutants (1) LFkk;h dkcZfud iznw"kd
(2) Global warming and climate change (2) oSf'od Å".ku vkSj tyok;q ifjorZu
(3) Substances that deplete the ozone layer (3) vkstksu ijr dk vo{k; djus okys inkFkZ
(4) Biosafety of genetically modified
(4) vkuqoaf'kd :i ls la'kkf/kr thoksa dh tSo lqj{kk
organisms

Q.175 Examples of areas where secondary Q.175 tgk¡ f}rh;d vuqØe ik;k tkrk gS] mu {ks=ksa ds
succession occurs are :
(1) Abandoned farmlands, newly cooled
mnkgj.k gS &
lava, bare rock (1) ifjR;Dr [ksr] uo 'khry ykok] uXu pV~Vku
(2) Burned or cut forests, lands that have
been flooded (2) tys gq, ;k dVs gq, ou] ck<+xzLr Hkwfe
(3) Bare rock, newly created pond or (3) uXu pV~Vku] uo fufeZr rky ;k tyk'k;
reservoir
(4) Newly created pond, lands that have (4) uo fufeZRk rky] ck<+xzLr Hkwfe
been flooded

Q.176 Which of the following ecological pyramids Q.176 fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ikfjfLFkfrd fijkfeM
can be inverted ? mYVk gks ldrk gSA
A. Pyramid of energy A. ÅtkZ dk fijkfeM
B. Pyramid of number
B. la[;k dk fijkfeM
C. Pyramid of biomass
C. thoHkkj dk fijkfeM
(1) Only (A) and (B)
(1) dsoy (A) vkSj (B)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (B) and (C) (2) dsoy (B)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C) (3) dsoy (B) vkSj (C)
(4) (A), (B) vkSj (C) lHkh

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NEET_BIOLOGY All India Major Test Series(Phase-I & II)_Major Test-38 / 32 (01-08-2020)
Q.177 The total area covered by all the biodiversity Q.177 lHkh tSo fofo/krk vfr{ks= ;k xeZ LFkku okys LFkkuksa
hotspots is : }kjk lfEefyr fd;k x;k {ks=Qy fdruk gSA
(1) 8.1 % (2) 2.4 % (1) 8.1 % (2) 2.4 %
(3) Less than 2% (4) 3. % (3) 2% ls de (4) 3. %

Q.178 Arrange the following ecosystems in the Q.178 fuEu ikfjfLFkfrd ra=ksa dks muds vkSlr usV
decreasing order of their mean net primary izkFkfed mRikndrk ¼Vu@gsDVs;j@o"kZ½ ds ?kVrs
productivity (tons/hectare/year). Øe esa O;fLFkr dhft,A
I. Tropical deciduous forest I. m".kdfVca/kh; i.kZikrh ou
II. Temperate coniferous forest II. 'khrks".k 'kadq/kkjh ou
III. Tropical rain forests III. Å".kdfVca/kh; o"kkZou
IV. Temperate deciduous forest IV. 'khrks".k i.kZikrh ou
V. Desert scrub V. e:LFky LØc
(1) III > I > IV > II > V (1) III > I > IV > II > V
(2) II > IV > I > III > V (2) II > IV > I > III > V
(3 III > I > II > IV > V (3 III > I > II > IV > V
(4) IV > II > III > I > V (4) IV > II > III > I > V

Q.179 If in a pond there are 20 lotus plants last year Q.179 ;fn fdlh rkykc esa fiNys o"kZ 20 dey ds ikS/ks Fks
and through reproduction 8 new plants are vkSj tuu ds ek/;e ls 8 u, ikS/ks tksM+s tkrs gS]
added, taking the current population to 28, orZeku lef"V dks 28 fy, tkus ij] tUe nj dh
calculate the birth rate. x.kuk dhft,A
(1) 4 offsprings per year (1) izfr o"kZ 4 larfr
(2) 0.4 offspring per lotus per year (2) izfr o"kZ 0.4 larfr izfr dey
(3) 2.5 offsprings per lotus per year (3) izfr o"kZ 2.5 larfr izfr dey
(4) 25 offsprings per year (4) izfr o"kZ 25 larfr

Q.180 Which of the following statements regarding Q.180 vi?kVu ds lanHkZ es fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk
decomposition is false ? dFku xyr gSA
(1) Warm and moist environment favours (1) xeZ vkSj vknzZ i;kZoj.k esa vi?kVu dh xfr rst
decomposition. gksrh gSA
(2) Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is (2) ;fn vijn dkbfVu vkSj fyfXuu ls Hkjiwj gks
rich in chitin and lignin. rc vi?kVu dh nj /kheh gksrh gSA
(3) Earthworm is a detritivore (3) dsapqvk ,d vijnkgkjh gSA
(4) Precipitation of soluble inorganic (4) ?kqyu'khy vdkcZfud iks"kd rRoksa dk e`nklaLrj
nutrients into the soil horizon as vuqiyC/k yo.k ds :i esa vo{ksi.k gksus dks
unavailable salts is called mineralisation. [kfuthdj.k dgk tkrk gSA

Add. : 638, CAD Circle, Kota, Raj., India 43

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