Physics Class XII Question Bank 2022-23

QUESTION BANK/SUPPORT MATERIAL
CLASS - XII
SESSION- 2022-23
QUESTION BANK/SUPPORT MATERIAL
PATRONS
Mrs. Shruti Bhargava
Deputy Commissioner,
Ahmedabad Region
****************
Mrs. Vinita Sharma
Assistant Commissioner,
Ahmedabad Region
****************
MENTOR
Sh. Yeshdeep Rohilla
Principal,
KV No.1, Ichhanath,
Surat
NAME OF
NAME OF
NAME OF NAME OF NAME OF THE THE
S.NO. THE FINAL
THE TEACHER THE KV CHAPTER REVIEWER/
REVIEWER
CHECKER
SH. PINKESH NO. 3 AFS CHAPTER–1: ELECTRIC
1.
JAYENDRA RATHOD MAKARPURA CHARGES AND FIELDS
CHAPTER–2:
NO.3,AFS
SH.AKHILESH ELECTROSTATIC
2. MAAKRPURA
SURYAWANSHI POTENTIAL AND
VADODARA
CAPACITANCE
CHAPTER–3: CURRENT SH. SUDHIR SH.PAWAN
3. SH. RAKESH KUMAR NO. 1 BARODA BHOOTDA KUMAR
ELECTRICITY
CHAPTER–4: MOVING
4. SH. S. L. VERMA K V DWARKA CHARGES AND
MAGNETISM
SH. PRAKASH KUMAR CHAPTER–5: MAGNETISM
5. V V NAGAR
SAH AND MATTER
CHAPTER–6:
SH.RANJAY KUMAR
6. K V RAJKOT ELECTROMAGNETIC
SHARMA
INDUCTION
SH. OM PRAKASH CHAPTER–7: ALTERNATING
7. K V RAJKOT
YADAV CURRENT
KV NO.2 CHAPTER–8:
8.
SH.BHUPESH KUMAR
AHMEDABAD ELECTROMAGNETIC MS.VANDANA SH. R.M.
NAGODA
CANTT WAVES BADOLA SHUKLA
CHAPTER–9: RAY OPTICS
KV BSF
9. SH. PRAVEEN NOGIA AND OPTICAL
DANTIWADA
INSTRUMENTS
CHAPTER–10: WAVE
10. MRS.SNEH LATA K V VIRAMGAM
OPTICS
CHAPTER–11: DUAL
K.V.NO3. AF-II
11. DR. NIRAJ SINGH NATURE OF RADIATION
JAMNAGAR
AND MATTER
SH.SANJEEV KUMAR KV NO.1 AFS
12. CHAPTER–12: ATOMS
CHADHA JAMNAGAR
SH.JITENDRA SH. V.K.
13. SH.NAVEEN KUMAR KV DIU CHAPTER–13: NUCLEI KUMAR JAIN PATHAK
CHAPTER–14:
SEMICONDUCTOR
KV NO 2 ARMY
14. SH. SAHIL ANEJA ELECTRONICS: MATERIALS,
CANTT. BHUJ
DEVICES AND SIMPLE
CIRCUITS
Providing Quality Question Bank/Support Material, as per latest CBSE guideline/norms, to the students is a
tradition in Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan. The Question Bank/Support Material prepared by the subject
experts includes all the necessary changes/modifications introduced by the CBSE so as to acquaint our
student with the changes in curriculum, pattern and design of questions, unit/topic-wise weightage of marks
of Competency Based Questions (CBQS), MCQs, Objective Type Questions (OTQs) & SA/LA Types
Questions. This students’ support material is surely a meticulous work undertaken by the subject experts of
the Region with an aim to help students’ excellent learning. Each Chapter/Unit has been organized
scholastically keeping in mind the doubts that may arise while a young learner deals with the concepts.
A variety of questions in different designs have been dealt with, to prepare the students for every possible
pattern that could appear in the CBSE Examination.
I hope this material will prove to be a good tool for quick recap and will serve the purpose of enhancing
students’ confidence level to help them perform better. Planned study blended with hard work, good time
management and sincerity will help the students reach the pinnacle of success.
I would like to compliment the dedicated team of teachers for their sincere efforts with professionalism
which made it possible to accomplish this work in stipulated time. I also take this opportunity to convey my
heartfelt best of wishes to all the students for success in their future endeavors.
Sh. Yeshdeep Rohilla

Principal
KV No.1, Ichhanath, Surat
INDEX
SR. NO. TOPIC MARKS PAGE NO.
1. SYLLABUS (THEORY) 70 1-4
2. SYLLABUS (PRACTICAL) 30 5
3. Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields 6 -19
4. Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 16 20 -28
5. Chapter–3: Current Electricity 29 -35
6. Chapter–4: Moving Charges and 36 -44
Magnetism
7. Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter 45-53

17
8. Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction 54 -65
9. Chapter–7: Alternating Current 66 -76
10. Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves 77 -82
11. Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 83 -93

18
12. Chapter–10: Wave Optics 94 -103
13. Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 104 -110
14. Chapter–12: Atoms 12 111 -114
15. Chapter–13: Nuclei 115 -124
16. Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, 125 -139

7
Devices and Simple Circuits
1
Unit I: Electrostatics
Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields
Electric charges, Conservation of charge, Coulomb's law-force between two-point charges, forces between
multiple charges; superposition principle and continuous charge distribution.
Electric field, electric field due to a point charge, electric field lines, electric dipole, electric field due to a
dipole, torque on a dipole in uniform electric field.
Electric flux, statement of Gauss's theorem and its applications to find field due to infinitely long straight wire,
uniformly charged infinite plane sheet and uniformly charged thin spherical shell (field inside and outside).
Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Electric potential, potential difference, electric potential due to a point charge, a dipole and system of
charges; equipotential surfaces, electrical potential energy of a system of two-point charges and of electric
dipole in an electrostatic field.
Conductors and insulators, free charges and bound charges inside a conductor. Dielectrics and electric
polarization, capacitors and capacitance, combination of capacitors in series and in parallel, capacitance of a
parallel plate capacitor with and without dielectric medium between the plates, energy stored in a capacitor
(no derivation, formulae only).
Unit II: Current Electricity
Chapter–3: Current Electricity
Electric current, flow of electric charges in a metallic conductor, drift velocity, mobility and their relation with
electric current; Ohm's law, V-I characteristics (linear and non-linear), electrical energy and power, electrical
resistivity and conductivity, temperature dependence of resistance, Internal resistance of a cell, potential
difference and emf of a cell, combination of cells in series and in parallel, Kirchhoff's rules, Wheatstone
bridge.
1
Unit III: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism
Concept of magnetic field, Oersted's experiment.
Biot - Savart law and its application to current carrying circular loop.
Ampere's law and its applications to infinitely long straight wire. Straight solenoid (only qualitative treatment),
force on a moving charge in uniform magnetic and electric fields.
Force on a current-carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field, force between two parallel current-carrying
conductors-definition of ampere, torque experienced by a current loop in uniform magnetic field; Current loop
as a magnetic dipole and its magnetic dipole moment, moving coil galvanometer-its current sensitivity and
conversion to ammeter and voltmeter.
Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter
Bar magnet, bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid (qualitative treatment only), magnetic field intensity due to
a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) along its axis and perpendicular to its axis (qualitative treatment only), torque
on a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) in a uniform magnetic field (qualitative treatment only), magnetic field
lines.
Magnetic properties of materials- Para-, dia- and ferro - magnetic substances with examples, Magnetization
of materials, effect of temperature on magnetic properties.
Unit IV: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction
Electromagnetic induction; Faraday's laws, induced EMF and current; Lenz's Law, Self and mutual induction.
Chapter–7: Alternating Current
Alternating currents, peak and RMS value of alternating current/voltage; reactance and impedance; LCR
series circuit (phasors only), resonance, power in AC circuits, power factor, wattless current.
AC generator, Transformer.
2
Unit V: Electromagnetic waves
Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves
Basic idea of displacement current, Electromagnetic waves, their characteristics, their transverse nature
(qualitative idea only).
Electromagnetic spectrum (radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays)
including elementary facts about their uses.
Unit VI: Optics
Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
Ray Optics: Reflection of light, spherical mirrors, mirror formula, refraction of light, total internal reflection
and optical fibers, refraction at spherical surfaces, lenses, thin lens formula, lens maker’s formula,
magnification, power of a lens, combination of thin lenses in contact, refraction of light through a prism.
Optical instruments: Microscopes and astronomical telescopes (reflecting and refracting) and their
magnifying powers.
Chapter–10: Wave Optics
Wave optics: Wave front and Huygen’s principle, reflection and refraction of plane wave at a plane surface
using wave fronts. Proof of laws of reflection and refraction using Huygen’s principle. Interference, Young's
double slit experiment and expression for fringe width (No derivation final expression only), coherent sources
and sustained interference of light, diffraction due to a single slit, width of central maxima (qualitative
treatment only).
Unit VII: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Dual nature of radiation, Photoelectric effect, Hertz and Lenard's observations; Einstein's photoelectric
equation-particle nature of light. Experimental study of photoelectric effect Matter waves-wave nature of
particles, de-Broglie relation.
3
Unit VIII: Atoms and Nuclei
Chapter–12: Atoms
Alpha-particle scattering experiment; Rutherford's model of atom; Bohr model of hydrogen atom, Expression
for radius of nth possible orbit, velocity and energy of electron in his orbit, hydrogen line spectra (qualitative
treatment only).
Chapter–13: Nuclei
Composition and size of nucleus, nuclear force
Mass-energy relation, mass defect; binding energy per nucleon and its variation with mass number; nuclear
fission, nuclear fusion.
Unit IX: Electronic Devices
Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits
Energy bands in conductors, semiconductors and insulators (qualitative ideas only) Intrinsic and extrinsic
semiconductors- p and n type, p-n junction
Semiconductor diode - I-V characteristics in forward and reverse bias, application of junction diode -diode as
a rectifier.
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4
Syllabus/Pattern/Modalities of Practical Examination as per latest CBSE Norms -30 Marks.
The record, to be submitted by the students, at the time of their annual examination, has to include :
• Record of at least 8 Experiments *with 4 from each section A & B+, to be performed by the students.
• Record of at least 6 Activities *with 3 each from section A and section B+, to be performed by the students.
• Report of the project carried out by the students.
EVALUATION SCHEME - Time 3 Hours , Max. Marks: 30
Topic Marks
Two experiments one from each section 7 + 7 = 14
Practical record (Experiment and Activities) 5
One activity from any section 3
Investigatory Project 3
Viva on Experiments, Activities and Project 5
Total 30
Special Note – The list of the Experiments/Activities given herewith is only Suggestive in nature, actual
Experiments/Activities are to be carried out/chosen from the OVERALL options/choices given within the Sections and
INTERNAL options/choices provided within the Experiment/Activity itself, depending upon the actual availability of the
Laboratory items/equipments/devices/gadgets in the Vidyalaya Laboratory.
S. No. List of Experiments Month

Section– A
1. To determine resistivity of two /three wires by plotting a graph for potential difference versus April
current.
2. To find resistance of a given wire / standard resistor using metre bridge. April
3. To verify the laws of combination (series) of resistances using a metre bridge. July
4. To determine resistance of a galvanometer by half-deflection method and to find its figure of July
merit.
Section - B
5. To find the focal length of a convex mirror, using a convex lens. August
6. To find the focal length of a convex lens by plotting graphs between u and v or between 1/u August
and 1/v
7. To determine angle of minimum deviation for a given prism by plotting a graph between angle September
of incidence and angle of deviation.
8. To determine refractive index of a glass slab using a travelling microscope. September/
October
List of Activities
Section - A
1. To assemble the components of a given electrical circuit. June
2. To study the variation in potential drop with length of a wire for a steady current. July
3. To draw the diagram of a given open circuit comprising at least a battery, resistor/rheostat, key, August
ammeter and voltmeter. Mark the components that are not connected in proper order and
correct the circuit and also the circuit diagram.
Section - B
4. To identify a diode, a LED, a resistor and a capacitor from a mixed collection of such items. September
5. To observe refraction and lateral deviation of a beam of light incident obliquely on a glass slab. October
6. To study the nature and size of the image formed by a (i) convex lens, or (ii) concave mirror, on October/
a screen by using a candle and a screen (for different distances of the candle from the November
lens/mirror).
5
Chapter–1 Electric Charges and Fields
COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS
1. A charge Q is placed at the centre of the line joining two-point charges +q and +q as shown in the figure.
What is the ratio of charges Q and q when the system is in equilibrium?
(a) 4 (b) 1/4

(c) -4 (d) -1/4
Answer: d
2. The SI unit of electric flux is

(a) N C-1 m-2 (b) N C m-2
(c) N C-2 m2 (d) N C-1 m2
Answer: d
3. Which of the following statements is not true about Gauss’s law?

(a) Gauss’s law is true for any closed surface.
(b) The term q on the right side of Gauss’s law includes the sum of all charges enclosed by the surface.
(c) Gauss’s law is not much useful in calculating electrostatic field when the system has some symmetry.
(d) Gauss’s law is based on the inverse square dependence on distance contained in the coulomb’s law
Answer: c
4. Consider a region inside which, there are various types of charges but the total charge is zero. At points
outside the region
(a) the electric field is necessarily zero.
(b) the electric field is due to the dipole moment of the charge distribution only.
(c) the dominant electric field is inversely proportional to r3, for large r (distance from origin).
(d) the work done to move a charged particle along a closed path, away from the region will not be zero.
Answer: c
5. Corona discharge takes place:

(a) at the surface of a conductor (b) near the sharp points of a conductor
(c) outside the conductor (d) at the center of the conductor
Answer: b
6. Quantisation of charge implies:

(a) Charge does not exist (b) Charge exists on particles
(c) There is a minimum permissible magnitude of charge (d) Charge can’t be created
6
7. Read the para given below and answer the questions that follow:
An electric charge is a property associated with the matter due to which it experiences and produces an
electric and magnetic field. Charges are scalar in nature and they add up like real number. Also, the total
charge of an isolated system is always conserved. When the objects rub against each other charges acquired by
them must be equal and opposite.
i. The cause of a charging is:

(a) the actual transfer of protons. (b) the actual transfer of electrons.
(c) the actual transfer of neutrons. (d) none the above
Answer: B
ii. Pick the correct statement.
(a) The glass rod gives protons to silk when they are rubbed against each other.
(b) The glass rod gives electrons to silk when they are rubbed against each other.
(c) The glass rod gains protons from silk when they are rubbed against each other.
(d) The glass rod gains electrons when they are rubbed against each other.
Answer: B
iii. If two electrons are each 1.5 × 10;10 m from a proton on opposite sides of it, the magnitude of the net
electric force they will exert on the proton is
(a) Zero (b) 2.73 × 10;8N
(c) 3.83 × 10;8N (d) 4.63 × 10;8N
Answer: A
iv. A charge is a property associated with the matter due to which it produces and experiences:
(a) electric effects only (b) magnetic effects only
(c) both electric and magnetic effects (d) none of these.
Answer: C
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iv. The cause of quantization of electric charges is:
(a) Transfer of an integral number of neutrons. (b) Transfer of an integral number of protons.
(c) Transfer of an integral number of electrons. (d) None of the above.
Answer: C
8. Read the para given below and answer the questions that follow:
Surface Charge Density. Surface charge density is defined as the charge per unit surface area the surface
(Areal) charge symmetric distribution and follow Gauss law of electrostatics mathematical term of surface
charge density σ = ΔQ/ΔS
Two large thin metal plates are parallel and close to each other. On their inner faces, the plates have surface
charge densities of opposite sign (± σ) having magnitude 8.8 × 10;12 𝑐𝑚;1 as shown here. The intensity of
electric field at a point is E = σ/ϵ0 and flux is Φ = 𝐸 . 𝑆, where ΔS = 1 m2 (unit arial plate)
i. E in the outer region (I) of the first (A) plate is
(a) 1.7 × 10;22 N/C (b) 1.1 × 10;12V/m
(c) Zero (d) Insufficient data
Answer: C
ii. E in the outer region (III) of the second plate (B) is
(a) 1 N/C (b) 0.1 V/m
(c) 0.5 N/C (d) zero
Answer: D
iii. E between (II) the plate is
(a) 1 N/C (b) 0.1 V/m
(c) 0.5 N/C (d) None of these
Answer: D
iv. The ratio of E from left side of plate A at distance 1 cm and 2 m respectively is
(a) 1: √2 (b) 10 : √2
(c) 1 : 1 (d) √20 : 1
Answer: C
v. In order to estimate the electric field due to a thin finite plane metal plate the Gaussian surface considered
is
(a) Spherical (b) Linear
(c) Cylindrical (d) Cubic
Answer: C
8
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS - Assertion and Reasoning Type
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering
these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are correct.
9. Assertion: A metallic shield in form of a hollow shell may be built to block an electric field.
Reason: In a hollow spherical shield, the electric field inside it is zero at every point.
Answer: a
10. Assertion: The tyres of aircraft are slightly conducting.
Reason: If a conductor is connected to ground, the extra charge induced on conductor will flow to ground.
Answer: (b) Both the statements are independently correct.
11.Assertion: A deuteron and an α particle are placed in an electric field. If F1 and F2 be the forces acting on them
and a1 and a2 be their accelerations respectively then, a1 = a 2.
Reason: Forces will be same in electric field.
Answer: c
12. Assertion: The property that the force with which two charges attract or repel each other are not affected by
the presence of a third charge.
Reason: Force on any charge due to a number of other charges is the vector sum of all the forces on that charge
due to other charges, taken one at a time.
Answer: (b) Force on any charge due to a number of other charges is the vector sum of all the forces on that
charge due to the other charges, taken one at a time. The individual force is unaffected due to the presence of
other charges. This is the principle of superposition of charges.
13. Assertion: Consider two identical charges placed distance 2d apart, along x-axis.
The equilibrium of a positive test charge placed at the point O midway between them is stable for displacements
along the x-axis.
Reason: Force on test charge is zero.
Answer: (b) If +ve charge is displaced along x-axis, then net force will always act in a direction opposite to that of
displacement and the test charge will always come back to its original position.
SHORT ANSWER/ LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
14. (a) Explain the meaning of the statement ‘electric charge of a body is ‘quantized’.
(b) Why can one ignore quantisation of electric charge when dealing with macroscopic i.e., large scale charges?
Ans. (a) Electric charge of a body is quantized. This means that only integral (1, 2, …., n) number of electrons can
be transferred from one body to the other. Charges are not transferred in fraction. Hence, a body possesses total
charge only in integral multiples of electric charge.
9
(b) In macroscopic or large-scale charges, the charges used are huge as compared to the magnitude of electric
charge. Hence, quantization of electric charge is of no use on macroscopic scale. Therefore, it is ignored and it is
considered that electric charge is continuous.
15. A thin straight infinitely long conducting wire having charge density X is enclosed by a cylindrical surface of
radius r and length l, its axis coinciding with the length of the wire. Find the expression for the electric flux
through the surface of the cylinder.
Ans. Since the field is everywhere radial, flux through the two ends of the cylindrical Gaussian surface is zero. At
the cylindrical part of the surface, E is normal to the surface at every point, and its magnitude is constant, since it
depends only on r. The surface area of the curved part is 2πrl, where l is the length of the cylinder.
Flux through the Gaussian surface = Flux through the curved cylindrical part of the surface is zero. At the
cylindrical part of the surface, E is normal to the surface at every point, and its magnitude is constant, since at
every point, and its magnitude is constant, since it depends only on r. The surface area of the cylinder.
Flux through the Gaussian surface = Flux through the curved cylindrical part of the surface
= E × 2πrl
(a) Electric field due to an infinitely long thin straight wire is radial.
(b) The Gaussian surface for a long thin wire of uniform linear charge density
The surface includes charge equal to λl.
Gauss’s law then gives
16. Write the expression for the work done on an electric dipole of dipole moment p in turning it from its position
of stable equilibrium to a position of unstable equilibrium in a uniform electric
field E.
Ans. Torque, acting on the dipole is, τ = pE sin θ
10
17. Careful measurement of the electric field at the surface of a black box indicates that the net outward flux
through the surface of the box is .
(a) What is the net charge inside the box?
(b) If the net outward flux through the surface of the box were zero, could you conclude that there were no
charges inside the box? Why or Why not?
Ans. (a) Net outward flux through the surface of the box,
For a body containing net charge q, flux is given by the relation,
= Permittivity of free space

q = ∈0Φ
= 0.07
Therefore, the net charge inside the box is 0.07 .
(b) No
Net flux piercing out through a body depends on the net charge contained in the body. If net flux is zero, then it
can be inferred that net charge inside the body is zero. The body may have equal amount of positive and negative
charges.
18. An electric dipole when held at with respect to a uniform electric field of experienced a
Torque of . Calculate dipole moment of the dipole?
Ans. Given
19. Two point charges +q and +9q are separated by a distance of 10 a. Find the point on the line joining the two
changes where electric field is zero?
Ans. Let P be the pt. where test charge (+qo) is present then electric field at pt. P will be zero if Field at pt. P due
to +q = field at p+. P due to + 9q
Substituting in eq. 1
11
a from change (+q)
Or
a from change (+9q)
20. (a) Derive the expression for the electric field at a point on the equatorial line of an electric dipole.
(b) Discuss the orientation of the dipole in (a) stable, (b) unstable equilibrium in a uniform electric field.
Answer:
Consider an electric dipole consisting of charges -q and +q separated by a distance 2a as shown in the figure. Let
the point of observation P lie on the. right bisector of the dipole AB at a distance r from its midpoint 0. Let EA and
EB be the electric field intensities at point P due to charges at A and B, respectively.
The two electric fields have magnitudes
in the direction of AP
in the direction of PB.

The two fields are equal in magnitude but have different directions. Resolving the two fields EA and EB into their
rectangular components, i.e. perpendicular to and parallel to AB. The components perpendicular to AB, i.e. E A sin
G and EB sin G being equal and opposite cancel out each other while the components parallel to AB, i.e. E A cos θ
and EB cos θ being in the same direction add up as shown in the figure. Hence the resultant electric field at point
P is given by
E = EA cos θ + EB cos θ
∵ cos θ = a/(r2+a2)1/2 and q 2a = p
12
For a short dipole r²,>>a² therefore
1 𝑝
E = 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟3
For stable equilibrium P is along E

θ = 0°, τ = PE sin 0°, Torque aligns the dipole in the direction of field
For unstable equilibrium P is antiparallel to E
∵ θ = 180°, τ = PE sin 180° = 0, Torque aligns the dipole in a direction opposite to E .
21. An electric field along the x-axis is given by E = 100 î N/C for x > 0 and E = -100 î N/C for x < 0. A right
circular cylinder of length 20 cm and radius 5 cm lies parallel to the x-axis with its center at the origin and one
face at x = +10 cm, the other face at x = -10 cm. Calculate the net outward flux through the cylinder.
Ans.
r = 5 cm = 0.05 m
Φ =?
Net outward flux through the cylinder
Φ = Φ1 + Φ2 + Φ3
= E ⋅𝑑𝑠1+E ⋅𝑑𝑠2+E ⋅𝑑𝑠3
= Eds1 cos 180° + Eds2 cos 90° + Eds3 cos 0°
= – Eds1 + Eds2 (0) + Eds cos 0°
= – (-100) ds + 100 ds
= (100 +100) ds
= 200 × πr² = 200 × 3.14 × (0.05) ²
= 1.57 Nm2 C-1
22. (i) Derive the expression for electric field at a point on the equatorial line of an electric dipole.
(ii) Depict the orientation of the dipole in
(a) stable,
(b) unstable equilibrium in a uniform electric field.
Answer:(i) Electric dipole moment: It is the product of the magnitude of either charge and distance between
them.
13
It is a vector quantity whose direction is from negative to positive charge.
Electric field intensity at P due to +q charge is
Electric field intensity at P due to -q charge is,
14
(ii) (a) For stable equilibrium, the angle between p and E is 0°,
(b) For unstable equilibrium, the angle between p and E is 180°

23. Two charged spherical conductors of radii R1 and R2 when connected by a conducting wire acquire charges
q1 and q2 respectively. Find the ratio of their surface charge densities in terms of their radii.
Ans.
Two charged spherical conductors of radii R1 and R2 when connected by a conducting wire acquire charges q1 and
q2 respectively. Thus these two conductors have a common potential V.
Two charged spherical conductors of radii R1 and R2 when connected by a conduction wire acquire charges q 1
and q2 respectively. Thus these two conductors have a common potential V
15
24. (a) Deduce the expression for the torque acting on a dipole of dipole moment p→ in the presence of a
uniform electric field E.
(b) Consider two hollow concentric spheres, S1 and S2, enclosing charges 2Q and 4Q respectively as shown in the
figure.
(i) Find out the ratio of the electric flux through them.
(ii) How will the electric flux through the sphere S1 change if a medium of dielectric constant ‘εr‘ is introduced in
the space inside S1, in place of air? Deduce the necessary expression.
Ans. (a) Torque on electric dipole. Consider an electric dipole consisting of two equal and opposite point charges
separated by a small distance 2a having dipole moment
So net force on the dipole is zero
Since is uniform, hence the dipole does not undergo any translatory motion.
These forces being equal, unlike and parallel, from a couple, which rotates the dipole in clock-wise direction
∴ Magnitude of torque = Force × arm of couple
16
[The direction of τ→ is given by right hand screw rule and is normal to p→ ] and E→
Special cases
(i) when θ = 0 then τ = PE sin θ = 0
∴ Torque is zero and the dipole is in stable equilibrium
(ii) When θ = 90 then τ = PE sin 90 = PE
∴ The Torque is maximum
(b) Ratio of flux
∴ Electric flux through the sphere S1 decreases with the introduction of dielectric inside it.
25.(a) Define electric flux. Write its S.I. unit.

(b) A small metal sphere carrying charge +Q is located at the centre of a spherical cavity inside a large uncharged
metallic spherical shell as shown in the figure the expressions for the electric field at points P1 and P2.
(c) Draw the pattern of electric field lines in this arrangement.
Ans.
(a) Electric flux: The electric flux through a given area held inside an electric field is the measure of the total
number of electric lines of force passing normally through that area.
(b) Consider a thin, infinite plane sheet of charge with uniform surface charge density 0. We wish to calculate its
electric field at a point P at distance r from it.
17
By symmetry, electric field E points outwards normal to the sheet. Also, it must have same magnitude and
opposite direction at two points P anel F equidistant from the sheet and on opposite sides. We choose cylindrical
Gaussian surface of cross-sectional area A and length 2r with its axis perpendicular to the sheet.
As the lines of force are parallel to the curved surface of the cylinder, the flux through the curved surface is zero.
The flux through the plane-end faces of the cylinder is:
(i) For positively charged sheet ➝ away from the sheet

(ii)For negatively charged sheet ➝towards the sheet
(b) Calculation of electric field at point Pt:
Net charge enclosed by the Gaussian surface is +Q
18
As electric field of positive charge is radially outwards, it is parallel to the area vector on the surface chosen.
As point P2 lies inside the metal, therefore electric field at point P2 is zero.
19
Chapter–2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS (CASE STUDY)
Q.1 Dielectric with polar molecules also develops a net dipole moment in an external field, but for a different
reason. In the absence of any external field, the different permanent dipoles are oriented randomly due to
thermal agitation; so the total dipole moment is zero. When an external field is applied, the individual dipole
moments tend to align with the field. When summed overall the molecules, there is then a net dipole moment
in the direction of the external field, i.e., the dielectric is polarized. The extent of polarization depends on the
relative strength of two factors: the dipole potential energy in the external field tending to align the dipoles
mutually opposite with the field and thermal energy tending to disrupt the alignment. There may be, in
addition, the ‘induced dipole moment’ effect as for non-polar molecules, but generally the alignment effect is
more important for polar molecules. Thus in either case, whether polar or non-polar, a dielectric develops a net
dipole moment in the presence of an external field. The dipole moment per unit volume is called polarization.
(1) The best definition of polarization is

(a) Orientation of dipoles in random direction (b) Electric dipole moment per unit volume
(c) Orientation of dipole moments (d) Change in polarity of every dipole
(2) Calculate the polarization vector of the material which has 100 dipoles per unit volume in a volume of 2
units.
(a) 200 (b) 50 (c) 0.02 (d) 100
20
(3) The total polarization of a material is the
(a) Product of all types of polarization (b) Sum of all types of polarization
(c)Orientation directions of the dipoles (d)Total dipole moments in the
(4) Dipoles are created when dielectric is placed in __________
(a) Magnetic Field (b) Electric field (c) Vacuum (d) Inert Environment
(5) Identify which type of polarization depends on temperature.
(a)Electronic (b) Ionic (c) orientational (d) Interfacial
Answer: 1. B 2. a 3. b 4. B 5. C
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS-
Q.2 Dimensional formula of capacitance is

(a) [M–1 L–2 T4 A2] (b) [M–1 L–1 T3 A1 (c) [M L–2 T4 A2] (d) [M0 L–2 T4 A1]
Q.3 A dielectric slab is placed in between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor. Its capacitance is
(a) becomes zero (b)remains the same (c) decreases (d) increases
Q, (4) Angle between equipotential surface and electric field lines is
(a) Zero (b)1800 (c)900 (d)450
Q. (5) Electric potential of earth is taken to be zero because earth is a good
(a)Insulator (b)Conductor (c)Semiconductor (d)Dielectrics.
Q. (6) The electric potential V at any point O (x, y, z all in metres) in space is given by V = 4x² volt. The
electric field at the point (1 m, 0, 2 m) in volt/metre is
(a) 8 along negative x-axis. (b) 8 along positive x-axis.
(c) 16 along negative x-axis (d) 16 along positive z-axis
Q. (7) Twenty-seven drops of mercury are charged simultaneously to the same potential of 10 volts. What
will be potential if all the charged drops are made to combine to form one large drop?
(a)180 V (b) 90 V (c) 120 V (d) 45 V
Q. (8) A conducting body with uniform potential has concentrated ----------- at sharp points of the body.
Answer: 2. (a) [M–1 L–2 T4 A2] 3. (d) increases. 4. (c) 900 5.(b) Conductor.
6. (a) 8 along negative x-axis 7. (b) 90 V 8. Charge
21
Assertion and Reasoning Type
Assertion (A) & Reason(R) For question numbers 2to 6, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A)
and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false and R is also false
Q.9 Assertion (A): Sensitive instruments can protect from outside electrical influence by enclosing them in a
hollow conductor.
Reason(R): Potential inside the cavity is zero.

Q,10 Assertion(A): No work is done in moving a point charge 𝑄 around a circular arc of radius ′𝑟′ at the Centre
of which another point charge ′𝑞′ is located.
Reason(R): No work is done in moving a test charge from one point to another over an equipotential surface.
Q. 11 Assertion (A): A metal plate is introduced between the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor, its
capacitance increased.
Reason(R): A metal plate is introduced between the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor; the effective
separation between the plates is decreased.
Q. 12 Assertion (A): Work done by the electrostatic force in bringing the unit positive Charge form infinity to
the point P is positive.
Reason(R): The force on a unit positive test charge is attractive, so that the electrostatic force and the
displacement (from infinity to P) are in the same direction.
Q. 13 Assertion (A): Earthing provides a safety measure for electrical circuits and appliances.
Reason(R): When we bring a charged body in contact with the earth, all the excess charge on the body
disappears by causing a momentary current to pass to the ground through the connecting
Answer. (9) (C) (10) (A) (11) (A) (12) (A) (13) (A)

Q.14 Can two equipotential surface intersect each other? Justify your answer.
Ans.(i) No, two equipotential surfaces cannot intersect each other because two normal can be drawn at the
intersecting point on two surfaces which give two directions of E at the same point which is impossible.
(ii) Also, two values of potential at the same point is not possible.
22
Q. 15 Two charges 2µC and – 2µC are placed at points A and B 5 cm apart. Depict an equipotential surface of
the system.
Answer:
Q. 16 “For any charge configuration, equipotential surface through a point is normal to the electric field.”
Justify.
Ans. Work done in moving a charge over an equipotential surface is zero, hence a point on it will be normal to
the electric field.
W = FS cos θ ∴ cos θ = 0 or θ = 90o
Q.17 The graph shows the variation of voltage V across the plates of two capacitors A and B versus increase of
charge Q stored on them. Which of the capacitors has higher capacitance? Give reason for your answer.
Ans. and But therefore, .
𝑄. Two point charges q1 and q2 are located at and respectively in an external electric field .Obtain
the expression for the total work done in assembling this configuration.
Answer:
Work done in bringing the charge q1 from infinity to position r1
W1 = q1V(r1)
Work done in bringing charge q2 to the position r2
Hence, total work done in assembling the two charges

w = W 1 + W2
Q. 19 Derive an expression for the potential energy of an electric dipole of dipole movement in the electric
field .
Ans. Consider a dipole with charges +q and -q placed in a uniform electric field E→ such that AB = 2a as shown
in the figure
23
Since the dipole experiences no net force in a uniform electric field but experiences a torque (τ) is given by
It tends to rotate the dipole in clockwise direction. To rotate the dipole anti-clock wise has to be done on. the
dipole
𝑠 𝑠 2 𝑠 1
This work done is stoed as potential energ

𝑢 𝑠 2 𝑠 1
Q.20 Two closely spaced equipotential surfaces A and B with potentials V and V + δV, (where δV is the
change in V), are kept δl distance apart as shown in the figure.
Deduce the relation between the electric field and the potential gradient between them. Write the two
important conclusions concerning the relation between the electric field and electric potentials.
Ans. Work done in moving a unit positive charge a long distance δl
Two important conclusions :

(i) Electric field is in the direction in which the potential decreases steepest.
(ii) Magnitude of electric field is given by the change in the magnitude of potential per unit displacement,
normal to the equipotential surface at the point.
24
Q.21 Network of four capacitors each of 15 μF capacitance is connected to a 500 V supply as shown in the
figure.
Determine
(a) equivalent capacitance of the network and
(b) charge on each capacitor.
Ans.
Now CS and C4 are in parallel

∴ Equivalent capacitance of the network,
C = CS + C4 = 15 + 5 = 20 μF
(b) Charge on capacitor, C4 is
q = C4V = (15 × 10-6) × 500 = 7500 μC … *V =500V
Charge on each capacitor, C1, C2 and C3 will be, q = CSV = (5 × 10-6) × 500 = 2500 Μc
Q. 22 Two point charges, q1 = 10 × 10-8C, q2 = -2 × 10-8C are separated by a distance of 60 cm in air.
(i) Find at what distance from the 1st charge, q1 would the electric potential be zero.
(ii) Also calculate the electrostatic potential energy of the system.
Answer:
(i) Given : q1 = 10 × 10-8C, q2 = -2 × 10-8C
AB = 60 cm = 0.60 = 0.6m
Let AP = x then PB=0.6-x
A P B
Potential P due to charge q1=
Potential P due to charge q1=

;
Since P=0 =0 » =
10 ;2×10
10 × )
0.6;
12x=6 X=1/2 0r 0.5m

∴ Distance from first charge = 0.5 m = 50 cm.
(ii) Electrostatic energy of the system is
25
U=K 3
Q.23 A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery. After some time, the battery is disconnected and a
dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is inserted between the plates. How would
(i) the capacitance,
(ii) the electric field between the plates and
(iii) the energy stored in the capacitor, be affected? Justify your answer.
Ans.
Let C be the capacitance and V be the potential difference.
The charge on the capacitor plates will then be Q = CV.
The electric field between the plates, E = V d and the energy stored,
𝑄2 1
𝑟 𝑣2
2 2
As the dielectric (K) is introduced after disconnecting the battery
We have the new values of charge, Q’ = Q Capacitance C’ = KC
Potential V’ = QKC=VK
(i) New capacitance is K times its original
1
(ii) 𝑤 𝑡𝑟 . . Times of the original field.
1 1
(iii) 𝑤 𝑟 𝑦 ). . Times the original energy.
2 2
Q.24 Derive the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor having plate area A and plate
separation d.
Ans.
Capacity of a parallel plate capacitor. A parallel plate capacitor consists of two large plane parallel conducting
plates separated by a small distance. We first take the intervening medium between the plates to be vacuum. Let
A be the area of each plate and d the separation between them. The two plates have charges Q and – Q. Since d
is much smaller than the linear dimension of the plates (d2 << A), we can use the result on electric field by an
infinite plane sheet of uniform surface charge density. Plate 1 has surface charge density ς = Q/A and Plate 2 has
a surface charge density -ς, the electric field in different region is:
26
In the inner region between the plates 1 and 2, the electric fields due to the two charged plates add up, giving
The capacitance C of the parallel plate capacitor is then
Q.25 (i) Derive the expression for the electric potential due to an electric dipole at a point on its axial line.
(ii) Depict the equipotential surfaces due to an electric dipole. (Delhi 2015)
Ans.
(i) The potential due to the dipole is the sum of potentials due to the charges q and – q
where r1 and r2 are the distances of the point P from q and – q, respectively.
Now, by geometry,
27
Using the Binomial theorem and retaining terms up to the first order in a/r; we obtain,
where 𝑟̂ is the unit vector along the position vector OP.
The electric potential of a dipole is then given by
From the above equation (iv), potential on the dipole axis (θ = 0, n) is given by
(ii) Equipotential surface for an electric dipole
28
Chapter–3 Current Electricity
Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same.
Q. 1. Electric toaster: Small industry services Takyelpat industrial Estate institute Imphal has designed an electric
toaster which is operated at 220 volts AC single phase and available in 4 different rated capacity such as 600 watt
750 watt 1000 watt and 1250 watt. The heating element is made of Nichrome 80 / 20 (80% Nickel 20%
chromium). Since Nichrome does not get oxidize readily at high temperature and have higher resistivity so it
produces more heat.
The element is found separately on mica sheets and fitted with body of toaster with the help of ceramic
terminals.
(i) Heating element of the toaster is made of
A. Copper B. Nichrome C. Chromium D. Nickel
(ii) What is meant by 80 / 20 nichrome?
A. 80% chromium and 20% nickel B. 80% nickel 20% chromium
C. Purity 80% impurity 20% D. It is a mixture of chromium and nickel
(iii) Which one will consume more electricity?
A. 600 watt B.750 watt C. 1000 watt D. 1200 watt
(iv) Operating voltage of the device is
A. 220 V AC single phase B. 220V AC Three phase
C. 220 V DC D. 220 V AC/ DC
Answers : (i) B. Nichrome (ii) B. 80% nickel 20% chromium (iii) D. 1200 watt (iv) A. 220 V AC single phase
Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same.
Q. 2 Resistance is a measure of the opposition to current flow in an electric circuit. Resistance is measured in
ohms. Also resistivity, the electrical resistance of a conductor of unit cross section area and unit length. A
characteristic property of each materials resistivity is useful in comparing various materials on the base of their
ability to conduct electric currents.
(i) Resistivity is independent of……………………
A. nature of material B. temperature
C. dimension of material D. none of above
(ii) For which of the following dependence of drift velocity V d on electric field E is ohm’s law is obeyed?
A. Vd α E2 B. Vd α E1/2 C. Vd = constant D. Vd = E
(iii) (A) Two registers are said to be......... is one end of all registers is join together and similarly (B) the other
ends join together. Here A refers to
A. Series B. parallel B. either A or B D. none of these.
(iv) The example of non ohmic resistance is:
A. Diode B. copper wire C. Filament lamp D. carbon registers.
Answers: (i) A. Nature of material (ii) D. Vd = E
(iii) B. PARALLEL (iv) A. Diode
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (Only one correct option)
Q. 3 Dimensions of a block are 1cm × 1cm × 100 cm. If specific resistance of its material is 3 × 10 –7 Ω m, then the resistance
between the opposite rectangular faces is
(a) 3 × 10–9 Ω (b) 3 × 10–7 Ω
(c) 3 × 10–5 Ω (d) 3 × 10–3 Ω
Answer: (b) 3 × 10–7 Ω
29
Q. 4 Consider a current carrying wire (current I) in the shape of a circle. Note that as the current progresses along the wire,
the direction of j (current density) changes in an exact manner, while the current I remain unaffected. The agent that is
essentially responsible for is
(a) source of emf.
(b) electric field produced by charges accumulated on the surface of wire.
(c) the charges just behind a given segment of wire which push them just the right way by repulsion.
(d) the charges ahead.
Answer : (b) electric field produced by charges accumulated on the surface of wire.
Q. 5 The drift velocity of the free electrons in a conducting wire carrying a current i is v. If in a wire of the same metal, but
of double the radius, the current be 2I, then the drift velocity of the electrons will be
(a) v/4 (b) v/2 (c) v (d) 4 v
Answer : (b) v/2
Q. 6 Temperature dependence of resistivity ρ(T) of semiconductors insulators and metals is significantly based on the
following factors.
(a) Number of charge carriers can change with temperature T.
(b) Time interval between two successive collisions does not depend on T.
(c) Length of material can be a function of T.
(d) Mass of carriers is a function of T.
Answer : (a) Number of charge carriers can change with temperature T.
Q. 7 Kirchhoff’s junction rule is a reflection of

(a) Conservation of current density vector.
(b) Conservation of energy.
(c) The fact that the momentum with which a charged particle approaches a junction is unchanged (as a vector) as the
charged particle leaves the junction.
(d) The fact that there is no accumulation of charged at a junction.
Answer: (d) the fact that there is no accumulation of charged at a junction.
Q. 8 Figure represents a part of a closed circuit. The potential difference between points A and B (VA – VB) is
(a) +9 V (b) – 9 V
(c) +3 V (d) + 6 V
Answer: (a) +9 V
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION (OTQs)

Q.9 Which has the greater resistance: a 1 kilowatt electric heater or a 100 watt electric bulb marked for 220 V.
Answer: 100 W electric bulb.
Q.10 Sketch a graph showing variation of resistivity of carbon with temperature.
Answer :
Q.11 What is the effect of temperature on the relaxation time of electrons in a metal?
Answer: The relaxation time of electrons decreases with the rise in temperature of the metal.
Q.12 Internal resistance of a cell ..............with time. (Increases/Decreases/remains constant).

Answer : Increases.
30
Q.13 The resistivity of alloy Manganin is ………………. with temperature variations.
Answer: almost constant

Q.14 The plot of the variation of potential difference across a combination of three identical cells in series,
versus current is as shown in the figure. What is the emf of each cell?
Answer: Total emf of three cells in series = P.D corresponding to zero current = 6V
∴ The emf of each cell = 6/3 = 2V
Q.15 A wire of resistance 8R is bent in the form of a circle. What is the effective resistance between the ends of
the diameter?
Answer: The effective resistance between A and B.
Q.16. A 2.0 kW heater element from a dryer has a length of 80 cm. If a 10 cm section is removed, what power is
used by the now shortened element at 120 V?
Answer : 2.4 KW
Q 17 A set of n-identical resistors, each of resistance R ohm when connected in series have an effective resistance of X
ohm and when the resistors are connected in parallel the effective resistance is Y ohm. Find the relation between R, X
and Y ?
Ans. n – resistors connected in series

X = nR —–1)
n – Resistors connected in parallel
Y= ——2)
Multiply eg. (1) & (2)
XY =
XY =
Q 18. Two metallic wires of the same material have the same length but cross-sectional area is in the ratio 1 : 2.
They are connected
(i) in series and
(ii) in parallel. Compare the drift velocities of electrons in the two wires in both the cases (i) and (ii).
Answer :
31
Q.19 A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance 3Ω is connected to a resistor. If the current in the circuit is 0.5
A, find
(i) the resistance of the resistor;
(ii) the terminal voltage of the battery.
Answer: Resistance of the resistor is 17Ω and the terminal voltage is 8.5V
Q 20. Find the values of I1 , I2 & I3 in the given network .
Answer:
32
Q21. Estimate the average drift speed of conduction electrons in a copper wire of cross-sectional
area 1 × 10-7 m2 carrying a current of 1.5 A. Assume the density of conduction electrons to be 9 × 1028 m-3.
Answer:
A = 1 × 10-7 m2
I = 1.5 A , n = 9 × 1028 m-3 , vd = ?
I = n A e vd
vd = I / n A e = 1.5 / 9 × 1028 x 1 × 10-7 x 1.6 × 10-19
= 10.4 × 10−4 m/s
Q 22. Two cells of emfs 1.5 V and 2.0 V having internal resistance 0.2 Ω and 0.3 Ω respectively are connected in
parallel. Calculate the emf and internal resistance of the equivalent cell.
Answer :
E1 = 1.5 V, E2 = 2.0 V,
Q 23. The plot of the variation of terminal potential difference (V) across a combination of three identical cells in
series, versus current ( I ) is shown along the question. What is the emf and internal resistance of each cell?
Answer.
(From the graph, current is 1A corresponding to V = 0)
33
Q 24. Find the Potential Difference ( P.D.) across each cell and the rate of energy dissipation in resistor R in the
given network.
Answer.
34
Q 25. A uniform wire of resistance 12 Ω is cut into three pieces so that the ratio of the resistances R1 : R2 : R3 = 1
: 2 : 3 and the three pieces are connected to form a triangle across which a cell of emf 8V and internal resistance
1 Ω is connected as shown. Calculate the current through each part of the circuit.
Answer:
Current through arms AC = current through ABC.

(Since the resistance of arm AC = resistance of arm ABC) = 1A
35
Chapter–4 - Moving Charges andMagnetism
Q1. Under what condition is the force acting on a charge moving through a uniform magnetic field minimum?
Ans. - When ɵ = 00 or 1800,

Then the force = qvB sinɵ = qvB x 0 = 0,
So when a charge moves parallel or anti parallel to the direction of magnetic field, it
experiences minimum force.
Q2. Which one of the following will experience maximum force, when projected with the same velocity v
perpendicular to the magnetic field.
(i) α particle and
(ii) β particle?
Ans.- Force F = qvB sin90 = qvB
For Alpha particle q = 2e So F = 2 evB
and For beta particle q= e So F = evB
Hence α particle will experience maximum force.
Q3. Why is an ammeter connected in series in a circuit?
Ans. - An ammeter is connected in series in a circuit so that whole of the circuit, which it is required to measure,
passage through it. Moreover, an ammeter has low resistance, so its insertion in the series circuit does not
practically change the main current.
Q4. One voltmeter has resistance of 1000 Ω and another voltmeter has a resistance of 4000 Ω. Which one of the
two will you prefer to measure a potential difference across a resistance of 500 Ω?
Ans. - The voltmeter of resistance 4000 Ω is preferred because it draws very small current as
compared to the voltmeter of resistance 1000 Ω, when connected across the resistance of
500 Ω.
Q5. A wire of length L is bent round in the form of a coil having N turns of same radius. If study current I flows
through it in a clockwise direction, find the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field produced at its center.
Ans. - If r is the radius of the coil, then N x 2π r = L or r = L / 2 π N
So the magnetic field produced at the center of the coil due to current I will be
0 0 0
B= =2 = N2
2 2 )
As the current flows clockwise throughout coil the direction of magnetic field will be out of the plane of the coil.
Q6. An ammeter and a milliammeter are converted from the same galvanometer. Out of the two, which current
measuring instrument has a greater resistance?
Ans. - Milliameter has higher resistance because an ammeter required shunt of smaller resistance.
Q7. The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer can be increased by decreasing of the spring and the
suspension wire.
Ans. - Torsion Constant.
Q8. Just as Gauss's law is an alternative form of coulomb's law in electrostatics, similarly we have
ampere's circuital law as an alternative form of Biot-Savart law in magnetostatics. Ampere found that the
magnetic lines of force of a straight current carrying conductor are concentric circles in a plane perpendicular to
the conductor. Ampere's law is stated with reference to the loops of magnetic lines of force. We consider a loop
to be made up of a number of small line elements. Consider one such element of length dl. Let B be the
36
tangential component of field B at this element. We multiply it by the element length dl. We add all such
products. When the lengths of these elements become small and their number gets larger, this summation tends
to an integral. Ampere's law states that the line integral of the magnetic field B around any closed loop equal to
µ0 times of the net current I passing through the close loop.
The closed loop is called Amperean loop. Ampere's law is valid for any arbitrary close loop and holds only for
steady currents. However, Ampere's law is useful only for calculating the magnetic field only in highly
symmetrical situations where B is tangential to loop and has a non zero constant B, or B is normal to the loop, or
be Vanishes.
(i) Only the current inside the Amperean loop contributes in –
(a) Finding magnetic field at any point on the Amperean loop.

(b) line integral of magnetic field
(c) In both of the above.
(d) In neither (a) nor (b).
(ii)An electric current passes through a long wire. At a distance 5 cm from the wire, the magnetic field is B. The
field at 20 cm from the wire would be –
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
(iii)1A current flows through an infinite long straight wire. The magnetic field produced at a point 1 m away from
it is –
(a) 2 x 10-3 T (b) 2 x 10-3 T (c) 2 x 10-7 T (d) 2π x 10-7 T
(iv) Long straight wire of circular cross - section radius a carries steady current I and the current I is uniformly
distributed across this cross section, which of the following plots represents the variation of magnitude of
magnetic field B with distance r from the center of the wire?
37
(v) Steady electric current is flowing through cylindrical conductor –
(a) The magnetic field in the vicinity of conductor is zero

(b) The electric field in the vicinity of the conductor is zero
(c) The magnetic field at the axis of the conductor is zero
(d) The electric field at the axis of the conductor is zero.
Ans - (i) B (ii) C (iii) C (iv) A (v) C
Objective Type Questions.
Q9. Assertion -A charge, whether stationary or in motion produce a magnetic field around it.
Reason - Moving charge produce only electric field in the surrounding space.
Ans. (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Q10. Assertion - The resistance of an ideal voltmeter should be infinite.

Reason - The lower resistance of voltmeter gives a reading lower than the actual potential difference across the
terminals.
Ans. - (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of the assertion.
Q11. The direction of the magnetic field is .......... to the plane containing the displacement vector r and the
current element idl.
Ans. – Perpendicular
Q12. The magnetic field at the center of a circular coil carrying current becomes four times the original field, if
the current through the coil is doubled and the radius of the coil is halved.
Ans – True
Q13. No force acts on a rectangular coil carrying a steady current when suspended freely in uniform magnetic
field.
Ans – True
Short Answer/Long Answer Type Questions

Q14. Write the expression for Lorentz magnetic force on the particle of charge q moving with velocity v in a
magnetic field B. Show that no work is done by this force on the charged
particle.
Ans. Lorentz magnetic force F = q (V x B)
As the magnetic force F acts in the direction perpendicular to the direction of velocity V
or the direction of motion of the charge particle, so the work done is zero.
So, W = f.ds = fds Cosɵ = fds cos 90 = 0
Q15. Write the expression, in a vector form, for the Lorentz magnetic force F due to a charge moving with
velocity v in a magnetic field B. What is the direction of the magnetic force?
Ans. - F = q (V x B)
The direction of the force is perpendicular to the plane containing vector V and vector B.
Q16. Define the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer and state its SI unit.
Ans - The current sensitivity of a galvanometer is defined as the deflection produced in the
galvanometer on passing unit current through it. Current sensitivity = α / I = NBA/ k,
and its SI unit is radian /ampere.
38
Q17. A voltmeter V of resistance 400 Ω is used to measure the potential difference across 100 Ω resistance in the
circuit shown in figure.
(i) What will be the reading on the voltmeter? (ii) Calculate the potential difference across 100 Ω resistance
before the voltmeter is connected.
Ans. - (1) Resistance of the parallel combination of voltmeter V 400 Ω and 100 Ω so the
effective resistance = (400 * 100) / (400 + 100) = 80 Ω.
Total resistance in the circuit will be = 80 + 200 = 280 Ω.
and
The current in the circuit,
3
I = £/R = 84 / 280 = 10 Ampere.
reading on the voltmeter = Potential difference across to 80 Ω.
= (3 × 80) / 10 = 24 volt
(2) Total resistance before the voltmeter is connected = 100 + 200 = 300 Ω
and
7
Current I = 84 / 300 = 25 Ampere.
Potential difference across 100-ohm resistance = (7×100)/25 = 28 volt.
Q18. A galvanometer of resistance G is converted into a voltmeter to measure up to V volts by connecting a

resistance R1 in series with the coil. If a resistance R2 is connected in series with it, then it can measure up to 2
volts. Find the resistance, in terms of R1 and R2 required to be connected to convert it into a voltmeter that can
read up to 2V. Also find the resistance G of the galvanometer in terms of R1 and R2.
Ans. - For voltmeter of range V,
V = Ig (G + R1) ........(1)
For voltmeter of range V/2,
V/2 = Ig (G +R2) .........(2)
Dividing the (1) by (2) we get
2 = (G + R1)/(G + R2)
or 2G + R2 = G + R1
so G = R1 -2R2
Let R3 be resistance required for conversion into voltmeter of range 2 V. Then
2V = Ig (G + R3) ........(3)
From equation (1) and (3)
2 = (G + R3)/(G + R1) or 2G + 2 R1 = G+ R3
So R3 = G + 2 R1 = (R1 - 2R2) + 2 R1 = 3R1-2R2.
Q19. Match the following -

(i) An Ammeter (a) A low resistance device connected in parallel
(ii) A voltmeter - (b) A low resistance device connected in series.
(iii) An ideal voltmeter (c) Has infinite resistance.
Ans. - (i) b (ii) a (iii) c
Q20.Using Biot - Savart law, drive an expression for the magnetic field at the center of a circular loop of radius r
carrying a steady current I. Draw the field lines due to the current loop.
39
Ans. - Consider a current carrying circular loop of radius r wearing current I. we want to calculate the magnetic
field at the center O. The entire loop can be divided into large number of small current elements.
To calculate the magnetic field at the center O we consider a small dl from it. Then the magnetic field -
dB = µ0 I (dl x r)/ 4π r3
at point O normally to the paper. The magnetic field at the center of O due to this current element, will
be
dB = µ0 Idl Sin90/ 4π r2 = µ 0 Idl / 4π r2
0
And the total magnetic field at the center of this loop is B = ∫ =∫ 4 2
0 ∫ 0 0
= = x 2π r =
4 2 4 2 2
and, for N terns of the coil it will be B = μ0NI/2r.
Q21. Explain how a galvanometer can be converted into an Ammeter of a given range. Derive an expression for
shunt resistance and current for full scale deflection. find the effective resistance of the ammeter.
Ans – Ammeter is a device used to measure current through a electric circuit or circuit element. To measure
current through electric element and a meter is connected in series with the element so that the actual current
passing through it can be measured in a meter is design to have very small effective resistance in fact and ideal
ammeter should have zero resistance.
An ordinary galvanometer is a sensitive instrument. it gives full scale deflection with a small current
of few microamperes. To measure the large current with it, small resistance is connected in parallel with
galvanometer coil, the resistance connected in this way is called Shunt. Only a small part of the total current
passes through the galvanometer and remaining current passes through the shunt. The value of the shunt
resistance depends on the range of the current required to be measured.
Let G = resistance of the galvanometer

Ig = current with which galvanometer gives full scale deflection.
I = required current range of ammeter.
S = Shunt resistance.
I – Ig = current through the shunt.
As galvanometer and Shunt are connected in parallel, so
The potential difference across the galvanometer = Potential difference across the shunt
so IgG = (I – Ig) x S
or S= – xG
So by connecting a shunt of resistance S across the given galvanometer, we get an ammeter of desired range.
Moreover,
40
Ig = xI
:
The deflection in the galvanometer is proportional to Ig and hence to I. So the scale can be graduated to
read the value of current I directly.
or its effective resistance is
Ra = : < S
Q22. Derive an expression for the torque on a rectangular coil of area A, carrying a current I and place in a
magnetic field B. The angle between direction of B and vector perpendicular to the plane of the coil is ɵ. Indicate
the direction of the torque acting on the loop.
consider a rectangular coil PQRS suspended in a uniform magnetic field B, with its axis perpendicular to the field.
Ans. –
Let I = Current flowing through the coil PQRS.

a, b = Sides of the coil.
A = ab area of the coil. ɵ is the angle between the direction of B and normal to the plane of the coil.
According to the Fleming's left and rule the magnetic force on sides PS and QR are equal, opposite and collinear,
so their resultant is zero. Side PQ experience a normal inword force equal to IbB while side RS experiences an
equal normal outward force. These two forces form a couple which exerts.
a torque given by -
Torque = Force x perpendicular distance.

= IbB x a Sin ɵ
= IBA sign ɵ
If the rectangular loop N turns, the torque will be torque = NIAB Sinɵ
But NIA = M = Magnetic dipole moment.
Torque = MB Sinɵ
Torque vector= M x B
Such that it rotates anti clockwise about the axis of suspension.
(1) Case = 1, if ɵ = 0 then Torque = zero.

(2) Case = 2, If ɵ = 900 then Torque = NIAB = Maximum.
Q23. Two long straight parallel conductors carry steady currents I 1 and I2 separated by a distance d. If the
currents are flowing in the same direction, show how the magnetic field set-up in one produce an attractive force
on other. Obtain the expression for this force. Hence define one ampere.
Ans- Two long straight parallel conductors carry steady currents I1 and I2 separated by a distance d. If the
currents are flowing in the same direction, show how the magnetic field set-up in one produce an attractive force
on other. Obtain the expression for this force. Hence define one ampere.
Ans. - Consider two long parallel wires AB and CD carrying, currents I1 and I2. Let r be the separation between
them.
The magnetic field produced by the current I1 at any point on wire CD is -
41
B1 = µ 0I1/2πr
This field acts perpendicular to the wire CD and points into the plane of paper. It exerts a force on current
carrying wire CD. The force acting on length l of the wire CD will be
2
= I2 l B1 sin 90 = I2 l µ 0 I1 / 2πr
2
= µ 0 I1I2 / 2πr
According to flaming left hand rule, this force acts at right angle to CD, towards AB in the plane of the paper
similarly, an equal force is excited on the wire AB by the field of wire CD. When the current in the two wires in
the same direction the force between them are attractive. When the current in the two parallel wires flow
opposite direction then the force between them are repulsive.
Definition of 1 ampere = 1 ampere is that value of steady current, which on flowing in each of the two parallel
infinitely long conductors of negligible cross section placed in the vacuum at distance of 1 m from each other,
produces between them a force of 2 x 10-7 Newton per meter of their length.
Q24. Applying Biot-Savart law to find the magnetic field due to a circular current carrying loop at a point on the
axis of the loop state the rules used to find the direction of this magnetic field.
Ans. Consider a circular loop of wire of radius a and carrying current I as shown in figure.
Let the plane of the loop be perpendicular to the plane of paper. we want to find the magnetic field at an axial
point P at a distance r from the centre O.
Consider the current element dƖ at the top of the loop. it as an outward coming current.
If s be the position vector of point P relative to the element dƖ, then from Biot – Savart law, the magnetic field
at point P will be
0
dB = 4 2
but dl Perpendicular s, So ɵ = 900, therefore
0
dB = 4 2
The field dB lie in the plane of paper and its perpendicular to s, as shown by PQ.
Let ɸ be the angle between OP and CP.
Then dB can resolved into two rectangular components.
42
(i) dB Sin ɸ along the axis and (ii ) dB Cos ɸ perpendicular to the axis
For any two diametrically opposite elements of the loop, the component perpendicular to the axis of the
loop will be equal and opposite and will cancel out their axis components will be in the same direction so they
are added up.
So, total magnetic field at point P along the axis
B=∫
0
But sinɸ = a/s and dB = dB = 4 2
0
B=∫ 𝑥
4 2
0
So B = 4 ∫
3
0 0 2
B=4 x 2πa =
3 2 𝑟2: 2)3 2
For N turns
0 2
B =
2 2: 2)3 2
0 2
Case – 1. if = 0 then B = 2 3
Case – 2. if r >> a then a2 will be neglected and

0 2
B==
2 𝑟3
Direction of the magnetic field following rules can be given for use and clock rule.
Q25. Applying ampere’s circuital law to calculate the magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid.
Ans. - A Solenoid means and insulated copper wire wound closely in the form of helix. The magnetic field inside a
closely wound long solenoid is uniform everywhere and zero outside it.
In the above figure the sectional view of along solenoid. At various terms of the solenoid, current comes out the
plane of paper at points marked (•) And enters the plane of the paper at points marks mark (×).
To determine the magnetic field B at any inside point consider a rectangular closed path abcd as the ampere loop
according to the Amperean loop. According to the Ampere's circuital law
43
∮ . = µ 0 x Total current close in the loop abcd.
Now ∮ . =∫ . +∫ . +∫ . +∫ .
But ∫ . =∫ . =∫ . =0
So ∫ . = ∫ 𝑠0 = B ∫ = BƖ
Where Ɩ = length of the side ab of the rectangular loop abcd.
Let number of turns per unit length of the solenoid = n
Then number of terms in the length l of the solenoid = nl
Thus the current I of the solenoid threads the loop abcd = nl times.
Total current threading the loop abcd = nIl
Hence BƖ = µ0nI Ɩ
Or B = µ0nI
The magnetic field at the end of the solenoid is just one half of that at its middle.
0
Bend =
2
The variation of magnetic field with distance on the axis of the long straight solenoid with distance x from its
centre is given below.
44
Chapter - 5 Magnetism and Matter
1. A magnetic needle is kept in a uniform magnetic field. It experiences

(a) a force and a torque (b) a force but not a torque
(c) neither a torque nor a force. (d) a torque but not a force.
Ans: - 1. (d) a torque but not a force.
2. The domain formation is a necessary feature of
(a) Diamagnetism (b) Ferromagnetism
(c) Paramagnetic (d) all of these.
Ans: - 2. (b) Ferromagnetism.
3. A bar magnet of magnetic moment is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction .

The torque exerted on it is
a. . (b) .
(c) (d) .
Ans: - 3. (c) .
4. A uniform magnetic field exists in space in the plane of paper and is initially directed from left to right. When a
bar of soft iron is placed in the field parallel to it, the lines of force passing through it will be represented by,
Ans: - 4. (b).
45
5. The S I unit of pole strength is
(a) Am-1 (b) Am
(c) Vm-1 (d) Am2.
Ans: - 5. (b) Am.
OR
A stationary magnet does not interact with:
(a) iron rod (b) moving charges
(c) magnet (d) stationary charge.
Ans: - (d) stationary charge.
6. (a) If you made a map of magnetic field lines at Melbourne in Australia, would the lines seem to go into the
ground or come out of the ground?
(b) A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30º with a uniform external magnetic field of 0.25 T experiences
a torque of magnitude equal to 4.5 x 10 - 2J. What is the magnitude of magnetic moment of the magnet?
Ans: - 6. (a) Magnetic lines of force of earth’s magnetism will seem to come out of the ground at Melbourne in
Australia because this region lies in the southern hemisphere of the earth where the earth’s magnetic north pole
lies.
(b) 300 0.25 4.5 𝑥 10;2
4.5 10 4.5 10 4.5 10
𝑤 𝑟 0.25 30 0.25 0.5 0.125
;2 ;1 ;1
36 𝑥 10 ∴ 0.36 .
7. (a) Why are all pieces of iron not magnet even though iron is a ferromagnetic material?
(b) The earth’s field, it is claimed, roughly approximates the field due to a dipole of magnetic
moment 8 × 1022 J T–1 located at its Centre. Check the order of magnitude of this number in some way.
Ans: - 7. (a) Various domains in a piece of iron are randomly distributed. So the net magnetism in any direction is
zero.
This is of the same order of magnitude as that of the observed magnetic field on the earth.
(b) The magnetic field at an equatorial point of the earth’s magnetic dipole is given by,
8 10 8 10
. 10;7 𝑥 0.3051 𝑥 10;4
4 6.4 10 ) 262.144 10
∴ 0.3051 𝑥 10;4 0.3051 .

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION
8. MAGNETIC BEHAVIOUR OF MATERIALS
Before nineteenth century, scientists believed that magnetic properties were confined to a few materials like
iron, cobalt and nickel. But in 1846, Curie and Faraday discovered that all the materials in the universe are
magnetic to some extent. These magnetic substances are categorized into two groups. Weak magnetic materials
are called diamagnetic and paramagnetic materials. Strong magnetic materials are called ferromagnetic
materials. According to the modern theory of magnetism, the magnetic response of any material is due to
46
circulating electrons in the atoms. Each such electron has a magnetic moment in a direction perpendicular to the
plane of circulation. In magnetic materials all these magnetic moments due to the orbital and spin motion of all
the electrons in any atom, vectorially add up to a resultant magnetic moment. The magnitude and direction of
this resultant magnetic moment is responsible for the behavior of the materials. For diamagnetic materials is
small and negative and for paramagnetic materials is small and positive. Ferromagnetic materials have large
and are characterized by non-linear relation between and .

Answer these questions.
8. i. The universal or inherent property among all substances is
(a) Diamagnetism (b) Para magnetism
(c) Ferromagnetism (d) both (a) & (b).
Ans: - 8. i. (a) Diamagnetism is a universal property among all substances.
8. ii. When a bar is placed near a strong magnetic field and it is repelled, then the material of bar is
(a) Diamagnetic (b) ferromagnetic
(c) Paramagnetic (d) anti-ferromagnetic.
Ans: - 8. ii. (a) A diamagnetic material is repelled by a strong magnetic field.
8. iii. Magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance
(a) decrease with temperature (b) is not affected by temperature
(c) increase with temperature (d) first increases then decrease with temperature.
Ans: - 8. iii. (b) Magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance is independent of temperature.
8. iv. For a paramagnetic material, the dependence of the magnetic susceptibility on the absolute temperature
is given as
1
(a) (b)
1
(c) (d) independent.
1
Ans: - 8. iv. (c) For a paramagnetic material, .
8. v. The value of the magnetic susceptibility for a superconductor is

(a) zero (b) infinity
(c) +1 (d) – 1.
Ans: - 8. v. (d) – 1. In a superconductor, the magnetic lines of force get completely expelled.
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
Fill in Blanks
9. Diamagnetic substances when placed in a magnetic field, are magnetized in the direction
_______________ to the magnetic field.
Ans: - 9. Opposite.
47
10. The angle between the magnetic moment of a bar magnet and its magnetic field at an equatorial point is
_______________.
Ans: - 10. 180°.
11. Paramagnetic materials when placed in a magnetic field are magnetized in the direction
_______________ to the magnetic field.
Ans: - 11. Parallel.
For question numbers 12 and 13 two statements are given - one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is also false.
12. Assertion: In water, the value of magnetic field decreases.
Reason: Water is a diamagnetic substance.
Ans: - 12. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
13. Assertion: When radius of the circular loop carrying current is doubled, its magnetic moment becomes four
times.
Reason: Magnetic moment depends on area of the loop.
Ans: - 13. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
14. Under what condition magnet suspended in a uniform magnetic field will be
(a) in stable equilibrium and
(b) in unstable equilibrium?
Ans: - 14 (a) When the axis of magnetic moment m makes an angle with the direction of magnetic field B, then
torque on magnet is given by, and potential energy .
The magnet will be in stable equilibrium if 0 is minimum. It will be so if the magnetic moment of
magnet acts in the direction of magnetic field i. e. 00 .
(b) The magnet will be in unstable equilibrium if 0 is maximum. It will be so if the magnetic moment
of magnet acts opposite direction to that of magnetic field i. e. 1800 .
15. Two identical bars, one of paramagnetic materials and other of diamagnetic material are kept in uniform
external magnetic field parallel to it. Draw diagrammatically the modification in the magnetic field pattern in
each case. How does one explain this distinguishing feature?
48
Y X
Ans: - 15. A paramagnetic material develops feeble magnetisation in the direction of the magnetising field. Hence
the lines of force become more dens in the paramagnetic material as shown in figure as Y.
A diammagnetic material develops feeble magnetisation in the opposition direction of the magnetising field.
Hence the lines of force become less dens in the diamagnetic material as shown in figure as X.
16. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is aligned parallel to the direction of uniform magnetic field . What is
the work done, to turn the magnet, so as to align its magnetic moment (a) opposite to the field direction and (b)
normal to the field direction.
Ans: - 16. (a) The work done in turning the dipole from orientation 1 to 2 in field is given by,
2 1 ), 1 00 2 1800 2 1800
2 1) 1800 00 ) 1 1) 2 .
) 2 1) 900 00 ) 0 1) .
17. A coil of ‘N’ turns and radius ‘R’ carries a current I. It is unwound and rewound to make another coil of radius
, current remaining the same. Calculate the ratio of the magnetic moments of the new coil and the original coil.
2
Ans: - 17. If L is the length of the wire, then 𝑥2 𝑥2 .

2
Number of turns in new coil, 2
2
Original magnetic moment, 𝑥 .
1
New magnetic moment, 2 𝑥 )2 𝑥 𝑤 ∴ .
2 2 2
18. An iron ring of relative permeability , has windings of insulated copper wire of n turns per metre. When the
current in the windings is I, find the expression for the magnetic field in the ring.
Ans: - 18. The magnetic field inside the ring has constant magnitude and tangential direction at every point.
∮ . ∮ . 00 ∮ . 00 𝑥 2 𝑟.
Total number of turns in the windings 2 𝑟
and 2 𝑟 𝑥
From Ampere’s circuital law, we have, ∮ . 0 0 𝑥2 𝑟
∴ 𝑥2 𝑟 0 𝑥 2 𝑟 ∴ 0 .
19. Write any three properties of magnetic field lines.

Ans: - 19. (a) The magnetic field lines of a magnet form continuous closed loop.
(b) The tangent to the magnetic field line at a given point represents the direction of net magnetic field at that
point.
(c) The larger the number of field lines crossing per unit area, the stronger is the magnitude of magnetic field .
i. e. widely spaced magnetic field lines represent weak magnetic field and closely spaced magnetic field lines
represent strong magnetic field.
49
(d) The magnetic field lines do not intersect to each other because at the point of intersection there will be two
directions at a point which is not possible.
(e) The magnetic field lines are not real yet they represent a magnetic field which is real.
(a) (b) (c)
The magnetic field lines of (a) a bar magnet, (b) a current carrying finite solenoid and (c) magnetic dipole
20. Write any three differences between paramagnetic materials, diamagnetic materials and ferromagnetic
materials, by giving one examples each.
Ans: - 20.
S. No. Property Paramagnetic materials Diamagnetic materials Ferromagnetic materials
1. Effects of They are feebly attracted by They are feebly They are strongly attracted
magnet magnets repelled by magnets by magnets
2. In external They acquire feeble They acquire feeble They acquire strong
magnetic field magnetization in the magnetization in the magnetization in the
direction of the magnetizing opposite direction of direction of the
field. the magnetizing field. magnetizing field.
3. In uniform A freely suspended A freely suspended A freely suspended
magnetic field paramagnetic rod aligns diamagnetic rod aligns ferromagnetic rod aligns
itself parallel to the itself perpendicular to itself parallel to the
magnetic field. the magnetic field. magnetic field.
4. In non - They tend to move slowly They tend to move They tend to move quickly
uniform from weaker parts to slowly from stronger from weaker parts to
magnetic field stronger parts of the field. parts to weaker parts stronger parts of the field
of the field
5. Effect of Susceptibility varies Susceptibility is Susceptibility decreases
temperature inversely as temperature. independent of with temperature in a
1
temperature. complex manner.
1
.
;
𝑤 𝑟 .
50
21. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.6 x 10 - 4 m2, carrying a current of 4 A is
suspended through its Centre allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane. What is the magnetic moment associated
with the solenoid? What are the force and torque on the solenoid if a uniform horizontal field 7.5 x 10 - 2 T is set
up at an angle of 300 with the axis of solenoid?
Ans: - 21. 2000 𝑥 4 𝑥 1.6 𝑥 10;4 1.28 2
.
This magnetic moment acts along the axis of the solenoid in a direction related to the sense of current via the
right – hand screw rule.
Net force experienced by the magnetic dipole in uniform horizontal field, F = 0.
The magnitude of the torque exerted by the magnetic field on the solenoid is given by,
1.28 𝑥 7.5 𝑥 10;2 𝑥 300 1.28 𝑥 7.5 𝑥 10;2 𝑥 0.5 4.8 𝑥 10;2
∴ 0.048 .
22. A short bar magnet placed in a horizontal plane has its axis aligned along the magnetic north-south direction.
Null points are found on the axis of the magnet at 14 cm from the Centre of the magnet. The earth’s magnetic
field at the place is 0.36 G and the angle of dip is zero. What is the total magnetic field on the normal bisector of
the magnet at the same distance as the null–point i.e., 14 cm from the Centre of the magnet? (At null points,
field due to a magnet is equal and opposite to the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field.)
2
Ans: -22. As the null points lie on the axis of the magnet so, .
4
Magnetic field of the magnet on its normal bisector at the same distance will be
0.36
. 0.18 .
4 2 2
∴ Total magnetic field at the required point on the normal bisector is given by, b
0.18 0.36 0.54 .
23. Obtain an expression for the bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid.

Ans: -23. Let the solenoid of length 2l and radius a consisting n turns per unit length. Let P be the point at a
distance r from the Centre of the solenoid at which the magnetic field is to be calculated.
Let a circular element of thickness dx of the solenoid at a distance x from its Centre. So, it consists of n. dx turns.
Let I be the current flowing through this solenoid.
The magnetic field at a point P due to this circular element is given by, .
2 ; ) :
So, total magnetic field due to this solenoid is given by, ∫ ∫;

2 ; ) :
51
𝑥 ∫; . Here r > > a and r > > x then, 𝑟 𝑥)2 2
𝑟 3.
2
; ) :
2
𝑥 ∫; 𝑥 . 𝑥 ; ) 𝑥2 ∴ .
2 2 2 2 2
2 .2 ) ) 2 2
𝑥 ∴ 𝑥 . [ .2 ) ) = m = Total magnetic moment
4 4
Thus, a solenoid and a bar magnet produce similar magnetic fields and have same magnetic moments.
24. (a) Derive an expression for the torque on a magnetic dipole.
(b) A bar magnet of dipole moment 3 Am2 rests with its Centre on a frictionless pivot. A force F is applied at right
angle to the axis of the magnet, 10 cm from the pivot. It is observed that an external magnetic field of 0.25 T is
required to hold the magnet in equilibrium at an angle of 300with the field. Calculate the value of force.
Ans: -24. (a) Let an magnetic needle of dipole moment is placed in uniform magnetic field and making an
angle with the direction of magnetic field .
So the torque acting on an magnetic needle is given by, 𝑥 𝑠 𝑠 . Let this needle is rotating
through an angle . So work done to rotate this needle through an angle is given by, 𝑤 .
𝑠 𝑣. .
So, total work done in rotating the needle from an angle 1 𝑡 2 and is given by,
∫ 𝑤 ∫ . ∫ 𝑠 ∫ 𝑠 . 𝑠 .
𝑠 2 𝑠 1 ).
1 900 2 𝑡 𝑠 900 ) 𝑠 ∴ 𝑠 .
This work done is stored as the magnetic potential energy of magnetic needle in uniform magnetic field and is
given by, 𝑠 . And . .

Magnetic potential energy is a scalar quantity. It is the dot product of two vectors magnetic dipole moment and
magnetic field.
2
(b) 3 0.25 𝑣 300 𝑟 10 0.1
3 0.25 30
𝑟 𝑟 0.1
0.75 𝑥 0.5 𝑥 10 ∴ 3.75 .
25. (a) Derive an expression for the magnetic field intensity of bar magnet at a point on the axial line.
(b) Deduce an expression for the magnetic field intensity of bar magnet at a point on the equatorial line.
Ans: -25. (a) Let a bar magnet of pole strength 𝑞 and dipole length 2l. Let P be the point on the axial line at a
distance r from the Centre O of the bar magnet, where the magnetic field is to be calculated.
52
S O N P
L l
r
So, the magnetic field at a point P due to North Pole of the bar magnet is given by,
𝑥 𝑥 ̂.
4 ;) 4 ;)
And the magnetic field at a point P due to South Pole of the bar magnet is given by,
𝑥 𝑥 )̂ .
4 : ) 4 : )
So, total magnetic field at a point P due to the bar magnet is given by,
1 1 : ) ; ; )
𝑥 𝑥 ̂) 𝑥𝑞 * + ̂ 𝑥𝑞 * + ̂
4 ; ) 4 : ) 4 ;) : ) 4 ;) : )
:: ;) :; :) 2) 2 2
𝑥𝑞 * + ̂ 𝑥𝑞 * + ̂∴ 𝑥 ̂.
4 ;) : ) 4 ;) 4 ;)
2
If r >> l then, 𝑥 ∴ .
4
The direction of magnetic field is along S to N. i. e. along the direction of magnetic dipole moment.
(b) Let a bar magnet of pole strength 𝑞 and dipole length 2l. Let P be the point on the equatorial line at a
distance r from the Centre O of the bar magnet, where the magnetic field is to be calculated.
So, the magnetic field at a point P on the equatorial line due to North Pole of the bar magnet is given by,
0 𝑞
𝑥
4 2 𝑟2
And the magnetic field at a point P on the equatorial line due to South Pole of the bar magnet is given by,
𝑥 .
4 :
𝑥 .and √
4 : :
So, the net magnetic field is given by, 2 2𝑥 𝑥 )
𝑥
4 : )
:
2
𝑥 ∴ 𝑥 .
4 4
: ) : )
If r>>l then, 𝑥 ∴ 𝑥 .
4 4
The direction of B is in the direction opposite to that of its magnetic dipole moment. i. e. from N to S.
53
Chapter–6 Electromagnetic Induction
Section A - Competency Based Questions
Q. 1 The phenomenon due to which there is an induced current in one coil due to the current in a
neighbouring coil is?
(a) Eddy currents (b) Self-induction ( c) Mutual induction (d) Steady current
Ans (C)
Q. 2 If number of turns in primary and secondary coils is increased to two times each, the mutual
inductance
(a) Becomes 4 times (b) Becomes 2 times
(c) Becomes A times (d) Remains unchanged
Ans (a)
Q.3 A solenoid is connected to a battery so that a steady current flows through it. If an iron core is
inserted into the solenoid, the current will
(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain same (d) First increase then decrease
Ans: (b)
Q. 4 Direction of induced current is determined by
(a) Fleming’s left-hand rule (b) Fleming’s right-hand rule
(c) Faraday’s law (d) Right hand thumb rule
Ans: ( b)
Q. 5 A metallic rod of length L is rotated with angular frequency of co with one end hinged at the
center and the other end at the circumference of a circular metallic ring of radius L, about an axis
passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane of the ring. A constant and uniform
magnetic field B parallel to the axis is present everywhere. Deduce the expression for the emf
between the center and the metallic ring.
Ans: 2
Angular velocity of rod ω= ,where T=time period
Change in flux in one revolution =BA=B∏L2
E=∆Φ/∆T= B∏L2/T
E= B∏L2/2∏/ω=1/2BωL2
54
Q.5 The working of speedometers of trains is based on
(a) Watt less current (b) Eddy currents
(c) Alternating current (d) Pulsating currents
Ans: (b)
Q. 6-9 Case Study Based Questions
An inductor is simply a coil or a solenoid that has a fixed inductance. It is referred to as a
choke. The usual circuit notation for an inductor is as shown.
Let a current i flows through the inductor from A to B. Whenever electric current changes
through it, a back emf is generated. If the resistance of inductor is assumed to be zero (ideal
inductor) then induced emf in it is given by
e=VB-VA= - L di / dt
Thus, potential drops across an inductor as we move in the direction of current. But
potential also drops across a pure resistor when we move in the direction of the current.
The main difference between a resistor and an inductor is that while a resistor opposes the
current through it, an inductor opposes the change in current through it.
Now answer the following questions.
How does inductor behave when
(6) A steady current flow through it?
(7) A steadily increasing, current flows through it?
(8) A steadily decreasing current flows through it?
(9) Name the phenomenon in which change in current in a coil induces EMF in coil itself?
55
Ans: (6) As electric current is steady therefore
di / dt = 0;
induced emf = e = 0 and the inductor behaves as short circuit.
(7) in the expression
e= - L di / dt
as di / dt is positive EMF is negative. that is VB< VA.
That is back EMF is generated that opposes the increase in current.
(8 ) di / dt is negative, therefore EMF is positive. that is VB> VA. Forward EMF is generated that
opposes fall in current.
(9)Self-induction.
Q. 10. A wheel with 10 metallic spokes each 4.5 m long is rotated with a speed of 120 rev/min in a plane
normal to the horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field BH at a place. if BH = 0.4 G at the
place. the magnitude of induced EMF between the axle and the rim of the wheel is
Ans: (d)
Section B - Objective Type Questions
Q 11 The magnetic flux linked with the coil varies with time as Φ=3t2+4t+9 .The magnitude of the
induced emf at t=2 sec is
(a) 9V (b)16V (C) 3V (d) 4V
Ans: (b)
56
Q.12 Column I gives certain situations in which a straight metallic wire of resistance R is used and
column II gives some resulting effects .Match the statements in column I with the statement in
column in II.
S.NO Column I S.NO Column II
a A charged capacitor is connected p A constant current flows through the

to the ends of the wire wire.
b The wire is moved perpendicular q Thermal energy is generated in the

to its length with a constant wire
velocity in a uniform magnetic
field perpendicular to the plane
of motion
c The wire is placed in a constant r A constant potential difference

electric field that has a direction develops between the ends of the
along the length of the wire. wire
d A battery of constant emf is s Charges of constant magnitude appear

connected to the ends of the at the ends of the wire.
wire
Ans: : a-q, b-r,s c-r,s d-p,q,r
ASSERSION AND REASON QUESTIONS

Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason.
While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four
responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(c) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
57
Q.13 Assertion : Eddy currents are produced in any metallic conductor when magnetic flux is changed
around it.
Reason : Electric potential determines the flow of charge.
Ans (b)
Q.14 Assertion : Acceleration of a magnet falling through a long solenoid decreases.

Reason : The induced current produced in a circuit always flow in such direction that it opposes
the change to the cause that produced it.
Ans: (a)
Q.15 Which of the following is the best method to reduce eddy currents?
(a) Laminating core
(b) Using thick wires
(c) By reducing hysteresis loss
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Section C - Short Answer/Long Answer Question
Q.16 A plot of magnetic flux (Φ) verses current (I) is shown in figure for two inductors A and B .
Which of the two has larger value of self-inductance?
58
Ans: Self-inductance, L = = Slope of Φ-I Graph
Slope of Φ-I Graph for A > Slope of Φ-I Graph for B.
Therefore A has a larger value of self -inductance.
Q.17 A jet plane is travelling west at a speed of 1800 km/h. what is the voltage difference developed
between the ends of wing 25 cm long, if the earth’s magnetic field at the location has magnitude
of 5.0 x 10 -4 T and the dip angle is 30:.
Ans: . V = 1800Km/h = 500 m/sec
L=25m,B=5.0 x 10 -4 T,δ=30:
Bv= B sin δ=5.0 x 10 -4 X Sin300 =2.5 x 10 -4 T Now only the flux lines of vertical
component of field B are cutting across the horizontal moving jet planes.
Therefore the induced emf e=Bvlv=2.5 x 10 -4 X25x500=3.125V.
Q.18 Starting from the expression for the energy w = ½ LI2, stored in a solenoid of self-inductance L to
build up the current I, obtain the expression for the magnetic energy in terms of the magnetic
field B, area A and length l of the solenoid having n number of turns per unit length. Hence show
that the energy density is given by B2/2µ0.
1
Ans: We know that magnetic energy stored in inductance coil =2LI2
And L(inductance) in the coil is given by=μ0n2AL
1
Hence magnetic energy =2μ0n2I2AL
Energy density =
1 0 )
=
2 0
=
2 0
Q 19 How does the mutual inductance of a pair of coils change when:
(a) The distance between the coils is increased?

(b) The number of turns in each coil is decreased?
59
(c) A thin iron sheet is placed between the two coils ,other factors remaining the same?
Ans (a) The mutual inductance of two coils decreases when the distance between them is
increased .This is because the flux passing through one coil to another decreases.
(b) The mutual increases decreases.
(c) Mutual inductance increases.
Q.20 Define the term self-inductance .Write its SI unit . Give 2 factors on which self-inductance of air
core coil depends.
Ans: Self -induction is the phenomenon of production of induced emf in the coil when a changing
current passes through it.
SI unit of self- inductance if Henry.
Factors on which self- inductance depends
(i) the total no. of turns in the coil.
(j) The area of cross section of coil.
(k) The permeability of the core of the coil.
Q 21 The current flowing through an inductor of self -inductance L is continuously increasing.
Plot a graph showing the variation
(i) Magnetic flux verses the current
(ii) Induced emf verses di/dt
(iii) Magnetic potential energy stored verses the current
60
Ans:
Q 22 Define mutual inductance. Deduce an expression for the mutual inductance of 2 long coaxial
solenoids. State the factor on which mutual inductance depends. Two circular coils, one of radius
r and the other of radius R are placed coaxially with their centers coinciding. For R>>r, obtain an
expression for the mutual inductance of the arrangement.
Ans : Let l=length of the solenoid
r1 ,r2=radii of the two solenoids of
A=∏r12=area of cross section of inner solenoid S1
61
N1,N2=number of turns in the two solenoids
When current I2 passes through S2 .the magnetic field set up inside the coil is
B2=μ0n2I2 where n2 =N2/l= no of turns per unit length of coil S2.
Total magnetic flux linked with the inner solenoid S1 is Φ1=B2AN1=μ0n2I2.AN1
Therefore
Mutual inductance of coil 1 with respect to coil 2 is
M12=Φ1/I2= μ0n2.AN1=μ0N1N2A/l
Factors on which mutual inductance depends.
(i) number of turns

(ii)common cross section area
(iii) Relative separation
(iv) Relative orientation of the two coils.
Suppose a current I flows through the outer circular coil of radius R .The magnetic field at the
center of the coil is B=μ0I/2R
As the second co-axially placed coil has very small radius ,the magnetic field B may be considered
constant over its cross sectional area.
The flux linked with the smaller coil will be
Φ=BA=B∏r2 = 2 .∏r2
Hence the mutual inductance, M= = .

2
Q 23 Derive an expression for the induced emf set up in the coil when it is rotated in a uniform
magnetic field with a uniform angular velocity. Explain how does the emf vary when the coil turns
through an angle of 2∏? What is the instantaneous value of induced emf when the plane of the
coil makes an angle of 600 With the magnetic lines?
Ans: The magnetic flux through the coil is given by
Φ = BA Cos θ here B is the magnetic field ,A is the area of the coil and θ is the angle which the the
perpendicular to the plane of the coil makes with the magnetic field lines.
62
Let θ=ωt here ω is the angular velocity of the coil.
)
E=- =- =BAωsinωt
𝑡
If the coil has N turns then the induced emf = NBAωsinωt
If ωt=900 the the emf will be maximum let it be E0
So E0= NBAω
Therefore E=E0sinwt
(i) When plane of the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field lines the then angle wt=0 0
hence emf=0.
63
(j) When the plane of the coil is parallel to the magnetic field the the then angle wt=90 0
hence emf=E0.
(k) When the plane of the coil is again perpendicular to the magnetic field the the then angle
wt=1800 hence emf=0
(l) When the plane of the coil is again parallel to the magnetic field the the then angle
wt=2700 hence emf=-E0
(m) When plane of the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field lines the then angle wt=0 0
hence emf=0.
We know that ꙍt is the angle made by perpendicular to the plane of the coil with the magnetic
field lines.
The angle made by the plane of the coil is 600 then the angle made by the perpendicular with the
magnetic field is 300
Hence wt=300
1
So E=E0sin300 =E0x =
√2 √2
Q 24 State Lenz’s law. Give one example to illustrate this law. The Lenz’s law is a consequence of the
principle of conservation of energy. Justify this statement.
Ans: Lenz’s law The induced emf of induced current is a circuit which always opposes the
cause that produces it.
When North pole of the bar magnet approaches towards the loop, the induced current in coil
is anti-clockwise (forming North pole of current loop) when viewed from magnetic side. The face
of coil being North pole opposes the arrival of North pole of magnet. Hence,opposes the cause
that produces it. Also, certain amount of work has to be done by external agency to bring the
North pole near the coil in against of force of repulsion applied by induced current loop. The work
done by external agency appears in the form of electrical energy. So, Lenz’s law is a consequence
64
of the principle of law of conservation of energy.
Q25 Figure shows a rectangular conducting loop PQSR in which arm RS of length ‘l’ is
movable. The loop is kept in a uniform magnetic field ‘W directed downward
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The arm RS is moved with a uniform speed ‘v’.
Deduce an expression for

(i) the emf induced across the arm ‘RS’,
(ii) the external force required to move the arm, and
(iii) the power dissipated as heat.
Ans: (i) As the arm RS of length l is moved with a uniform speed, there is a change in area. It
is given by dA = Idx = Ivdt
dA/dt=lv
The emf induced E = -- = -B = - Blv

𝑡
(ii) I=E/R
= - Blv/R here R is the net resistance in the network with the arm RS,
The force experienced is therefore f=BIL=B2l2v/R
(iii) Power dissipated or required for the motion =F.V= B2l2v2/R
65
Chapter –7 Alternating Current

Q.N. Questions
1 1 An inductor L of reactance XL is connected in series with a bulb B to an ac source as shown in the
figure.
How does the brightness of the bulb change when Number of turns of the inductor is increased?
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains same (d) none of these
Ans. (b)
2 What is the dimensional formula of impedance?
(a) [ML2T-3A-2] (b) [M-1L-2T-3A2] (c) [ML3T-3A-2] (d) [M-1L-3T3A2]
Ans. (a)
3. The root-mean-square value of an alternating current of 50Hz frequency is 10 ampere. The time
taken by the alternating current in reaching from zero to maximum value and the peak value of
current will be
(a) 2×10-2 s , 14.14 A (b) 1 ×10-2s , 7.07 A
(c) 5 ×10-3 s , 7.07A (d) 5×10-3 s , 14.14 A
Ans. (d)
4-8 Case Study Based Question
AC Voltage applied to a capacitor
Let a source of alternating e.m.f. 0 𝑤𝑡) be connected to a capacitor of capacitance C. If
I is the instantaneous value of current in the circuit at instant t, then 𝑤 0 𝑤𝑡 ). The
2
capacitive reactance limits the amplitude of current in a purely capacitive circuit and It is given by
1
.
(4) What is the unit of capacitive reactance ?

(a) Farad (b) Ampere (c) Ohm (d) Ohm -1
Ans. (c)
(5) The capacitive reactance of a 5 µF capacitor for a frequency of 10 6 Hz is
(a)0.032Ω (b)2.52Ω (c)1.25Ω (d)4.51 Ω
Ans. (a)
(6) In a capacitive circuit, resistance to the flow of current is offered by
66
(a) Resistor (b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor (d) Frequency
Ans. (b)
(7) In a capacitive circuit, by what value of phase angle does alternating current leads the e.m.f.?
(a) 450 (b) 900 (c) 750 (d) 600
Ans. (b)
(8) 1µF capacitor is joined to a 200V, 50 Hz a.c.source. The r.m.s. current through capacitor is
(a) 6.28 × 10-2 A (b) 7.5 × 10 -4 A
(c) 10.52 × 10-2 A (d) 15.25 × 10-2 A
Ans. (a)
9-13 Case Study Based Question
Transformer
A transformer is an electrical device which is used for changing the a.c. voltages. It is based on the
phenomenon of mutual induction i.e. whenever the amount of magnetic flux linked with a coil
changes, an e.m.f. is induced in the neighboringcoil. For an ideal transformer, the resistances of the
primary and secondary windings are negligible
It can be shown that Es/Ep=Is/Ip=Ns/Np=K
For a step-up transformer Ns>Np: Es>Ep: K>1 (Is<Ip)
For a step-down transformerNs<Np: Es<Ep: K<1(Is>Ip)
The above relations are on the assumptions that efficiency of transformer is 100%
efficiency= out power/input power=Es Is/Ep Ip
(9) Which of the following quantity remains constant in an ideal transformer?

(a) Current (b) Voltage
(c) Power (d) All of these
Ans. (c)
(10) Transformer is used to

(a) Convert ac to dc voltage (b) Convert dc voltage into ac
(c) Obtain desired dc power (d) Obtain desired ac voltage and current
Ans. (d)
(11) The number of turns in primary coil of a transformer is 20 and the number of turns in a secondary is
10. If the voltage across the primary is 220 ac V what is the voltage across the secondary ?
67
(a) 100 ac V (b) 120 ac V (c) 110 ac V (d) 220 ac V
Ans. (c)
(12) In a transformer the number of turns in primary is four times that of turns in secondary. Its primary
is connected to an a.c. source of voltage V. Then
(a) Current through its secondary is about four times that of the current through its primary.
(b) Voltage across its secondary is about four times that of the voltage across its primary.
(c) Voltage across its secondary is about two times that of the voltage across its primary.
(d) Voltage across its secondary is half times that of the voltage across its primary.
Ans. (a)
(13) A transformer is used to light 100 W-110 V lamp from 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 A, the
efficiency of the transformer is
(a) 95% (b) 99%
(c) 90% (d) 96%
Ans. (c)
In each of the following questions 2 statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason.
Examine the statements carefully mark the correct answer as
(a) if both assertion and Reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) if both assertion and Reason are true and but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
14 Assertion: - A capacitor of suitable capacitance can be used in a circuit in place of the choke coil.
Reason: - A capacitor blocks DC and allow AC only.
Ans. (b)
15 Assertion: - The sum of the instantaneous current values over one complete cycle is zero, and the
average current is zero.
Reason: - The applied voltage and the current varies sinusoidally and has corresponding positive and
negative values during each cycle.
Ans. (a)
16 Assertion: - If a varying current is flowing through a machine of iron, eddy currents are produced.
Reason: - Change in the magnetic flux through an area causes eddy currents.
Ans. (a)
17 Assertion: - In series LCR resonance circuit, impedance is equal to ohmic resistance.

Reason: - At resonance, inductive reactance exceeds capacitive reactance.
Ans. (c)
68
18. What is power dissipated by an ideal inductor in ac circuit? Explain.
Ans. Power dissipated in an ideal inductor is zero. As in pure inductive ac circuit, phase difference b/w I and
V is π/2, Therefore, power factor cos φ = cosπ/2 =0, therefore, average power loss is zero.
Section C - Short Answer/Long Answer Questions(19 – 25)
19. An Alternating voltage is applied to a pure inductor of inductance L. Show that the current lags behind
the voltage by a phase π/2.
Ans. We have the applied a.c. voltage
0 𝑠 𝑡 -------(1)
By Kirchhoff’s loop rule,
0
𝑡
⇨ 𝑠 𝑡
∫
⇨∫ 𝑠 𝑡 𝑡
⇨ = 𝑠 𝑡 0 𝑠 𝑡
⇨ = 0 𝑠 𝑡 ) ------(2)
2
Where, 0 ------(3)
Obviously, effective resistance of the circuit known as inductive reactance ( ) given by

2
From (1) & (2) we conclude that current in the circuit lags behind the voltage in phase by 2
20 An a.c. voltage = 0 𝑠 𝑠 𝑡 is applied across a pure capacitor of capacitance . Find an expression

for the current flowing in the circuit and show mathematically that the current flowing through it leads
the applied voltage by a phase angle of 2 . Also draw (a) phasor diagram (b) graphs of and versus
𝑡 for the circuit.
69
Ans.
We have the applied a.c. voltage
0 𝑠 𝑡 -------(1)
By Kirchhoff’s loop rule,
𝑞
0 𝑠 𝑠 𝑡
⇨ 0 𝑠 𝑡)
⇨ = 0 𝑠 𝑡= 𝑠 𝑡
1
⇨ = 0 𝑠 𝑡= 0 𝑠 𝑡 ) ------(2)
2
Where, 0 ------(3)
1
Obviously, effective resistance of the circuit known as capacitive reactance ( ) given by
1 1
2
From (1) & (2) we conclude that current in the circuit Leads the voltage in phase by 2
21 When an a.c. source is connected to a pure capacitor show that the average power supplied by the
source over a complete cycle is zero. Also plot a graph showing the variation of voltage, current,
power and flux in one cycle.
Ans We have, 0 𝑠 𝑡
70
& 0 𝑠 𝑡 ) 0 𝑠 𝑡
2
Average power per cycle

1 1
∫ 𝑡 ∫ 0 0 𝑠 𝑡 𝑠 𝑡 𝑡
0 0
⇨ ∫0 2 𝑡 𝑡
2
⇨ 0 ∵ ∫0 2 𝑡 𝑡 0]
22 A capacitor of 100µF and a coil of resistance 50 Ohms and inductance 0.5H are connected in series
with a 110 V -50 Hz source. Calculate the rms value of current in the circuit.
Ans Here C=100µF = 100 x 10-6 F = 10-4F
R=50 Ohms
L= 0.5 H
Erms= 110 V
Frequency = 50Hz
XL =wL = 2πL
= 2 x 3.14 x 50 x 0.5 = 157 Ohms
Xc= 1/wc= 1 / 2πc= 1/ 2 x3.14 x 50 x 10-4 = 31.85 Ohms
Impedence of the circuit Z2=R2 + (XL- Xc) 2
Z2= 502 + ( 157 – 31.85)2
Z= 134.77 Ohms
Rms current Irms= Erms / Z = 110 / 134. 77 = 0. 816 A
23 A series circuit is connected to an a.c. source having voltage = 0 𝑠 𝑠 𝑡. Using phasor
diagram, derive expressions for impedance, instantaneous current and its phase relationship to the
applied voltage. Also draw graphs of and versus 𝑡 for the circuit.
(b) A 50 mH inductor, a capacitor of capacitance 20 µF and 10 Ω resistor are connected in series across
220 V a.c. source of variable frequency. Calculate:
i. Current amplitude at resonance.
ii. Maximum power dissipation.
71
Ans
We have the applied a.c. voltage
0 𝑠 𝑡
From phaser diagram
2 )2 )2 )2 = √ 2 )2
√ √
√ 2 )2
Obviously, effective resistance of the circuit, known as impedance given by
√ )2 )2
Obviously, 0 𝑠 𝑡 ) ----(2)
; ; ;
Where, 𝑡
From (1) & (2) we conclude that current in the circuit leads the voltage in phase by .
(b) (i) Irms= Vrms/R

=220/10=22A
I0=1.414 Irms=31.108A
(ii). P=Irms. Vrms
=31.108x220
=6843.7 watt
24 A voltage = 0 𝑠 𝑡 is applied to a series circuit. Derive the expression for average power
dissipated over a cycle. Under what condition is -
(i) no power is dissipated even though the current flows through the circuit,
(ii) maximum power dissipated in the circuit.
72
Ans We have the applied voltage
0 𝑠 𝑠 𝑡
;
& 0 𝑠 𝑡 )Where, tan ( )
⇨ 0 𝑠 𝑡 0 𝑠 𝑡 )
⇨ 0 0𝑠 𝑡 𝑠 𝑡 𝑠 𝑠 𝑡 𝑠 )
2 1
⇨ 0 0 *𝑠 𝑡 𝑠 𝑠 2 𝑡𝑠 +
2
Average power per cycle
1 1 2
1
∫ 𝑡 ∫ 0 0 [𝑠 𝑡 𝑠 𝑠 2 𝑡𝑠 𝑠 ] 𝑡
0 0 2
2
⇨ ∫0 𝑠 𝑡 𝑡 ∫0 𝑠 𝑠 2 𝑡 𝑡
2
2
⇨ 0 *∵ ∫0 𝑠 𝑡 𝑡 ∫0 𝑠 𝑠 2 𝑡 𝑡 0+
2 2
⇨ 𝑠 𝑠 𝑠 𝑠
2 √2 √2
⇨ Where, 𝑠 𝑠 is called power factor

(i) For a pure inductive or capacitive circuit, 2
⇨ 𝑠 𝑠2 0 which shows that, no power is dissipated even current flows
through the circuit
(ii) at resonance when 0

⇨ 𝑠 𝑠0 maximum Which shows that at resonance max power
is Dissipated.
25. (i) Explain with the help of a labelled diagram, the principle and working of an ac generator and obtain
expression for the emf generated in the coil.
(ii)Draw a schematic diagram showing the nature of the alternating emf generated by the rotating coil
in the magnetic field during one cycle.
Ans. AC generator :It is a device which converts mechanical energy in to electrical energy.
Principle :It is based on the principle of electromagnetic induction, i,e, whenever there is change in
magnetic flux linked with a coil, an emf is induced in the coil
Working :
When the armature coil is rotated in a uniform magnetic field, effective area of coil
𝑠 𝑠 ) changes continuously due to which magnetic flux linked with it changes. Hence an emf
73
is induced in the circuit and a current flows through the coil
At any instant the magnetic flux linked with the coil
BA 𝑠 𝑠 BA 𝑠 𝑠 𝑡
⇨ Induced emf in the coil
= = ( 𝑠 𝑠 𝑡)
⇨ = ( 𝑠 𝑠 𝑡) = 𝑠 𝑠 𝑡
Obviously, when 𝑠 𝑠 𝑡 =1
= = 0 =
⇨ = 0 𝑠 𝑠 𝑡
& = = 𝑠 𝑠 𝑡= 0 𝑠 𝑠 𝑡
26. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source. Using the phasor diagram, derive the expression for
the impedance of the circuit. Plot a graph to show the variation of current with frequency of the
source, explaining the nature of its variation.
Ans. Let an alternating Emf E = E0 sinωt is applied to a series combination of inductor L, capacitor C and
resistance R. Since all three of them are connected in series the current through them is same. But the
voltage across each element has a different phase relation with current.
74
The potential difference VL, VC and VR across L, C and R at any instant is given by
VL = IXL, VC = IXC and VR = IR
Where I is the current at that instant.
XL is inductive reactance and
XC is capacitive reactance.
VR is in phase with I. VL leads I by 90° and VC lags behind I by 90°
In the phases diagram,

VL and VC are opposite to each other. If VL > VC then resultant (VL − VC) is represent by OD. OR
represent the resultant of VR and (VL − VC). It is equal to the applied Emf E.
The term is called impedance Z of the LCR circuit.
Emf leads current by a phase angle
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When resonance takes place
Impedance of circuit becomes equal to R. Current becomes maximum and is equal to E/R
27. Explain the energy losses in a transformer. How are they minimized?
Ans. A transformer is a device used in the power transmission of electric energy. The transmission current
is AC. It is commonly used to increase or decrease the supply voltage without a change in the
frequency of AC between circuits.
Reason for energy losses in transformer
Even though transformers are very efficient machines, they do result in small energy losses due to four
main causes:
 The resistance of windings – The low resistance copper cable used for the windings remains
resistant and thus leads to heat loss.
 Leakage of flux – If the core design is not good then the flux produced by the primary coil may
not all be connected to the secondary coil. This can be reduced by considering the core of shell
type.
 Eddy currents loss – The varying magnetic field not only induces secondary coil currents but
also iron core currents themselves. In the iron core, these currents flow in small circles and are
termed as eddy currents.
 Hysteresis – This is because of the repeated iron core magnetization and demagnetization
induced by the alternating input current. By using alloys such as silicon steel, this can be
reduced.
Method to reduce the energy losses in transformer

 To minimize the resistance of windings, thick wires with considerably low resistance are used.
 The use of a shell style core will reduce flux loss. Furthermore, sound is emitted as a result of
the core’s vibration, resulting in energy loss.
 The eddy current loss can be minimized by considering the laminated core.
 By using alloys likesilicon steel, hysteresis loss can be reduced.
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Chapter–8 Electromagnetic Waves
SECTION A : Competency Based Questions
Q.1 If 𝜆𝑥, 𝜆 , 𝜆𝑣 represents wavelength of X-Rays, microwaves & visible rays then
(a) 𝜆 >𝜆𝑥 >𝜆𝑣 (b) 𝜆 >𝜆𝑣>𝜆𝑥 (c) 𝜆𝑣>𝜆𝑥 >𝜆 (d) 𝜆𝑣>𝜆 >𝜆𝑥
Ans (b)
Q.2 Human body radiates
(a) Microwave (b) X-rays (c) Infrared rays (d) Gamma rays.
Ans (c)
Q.3 Which of the following transport by EM waves?
(a) Charge & momentum (b) Frequency & wavelength
(c) Energy & momentum (d) Wavelength & energy
Ans (c)
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
X- Rays
X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation, similar to visible light. Unlike light, however, x-rays
have higher energy and can pass through most objects, including the body. Medical x-rays are used to
generate images of tissues and structures inside the body.
Q5 What is the most common method of preparation of X rays ?

(a) Magnetron valve (b) Vibration of atoms and molecules
(c) Bombardment of metal by high energy electrons (d) Radioactive decay of nucleus
Ans (c)
Q6 which of the following set of instrument /equipment can detect ϒ- rays
(a) Photocells, photographic film (b) Thermopiles, bolometer
(c) Photographic film. (d) Geiger tube, human eye
Ans (c)
Q7 where do X rays fall on the electromagnetic spectrum?
(a) Between UV region and infrared region (b) Between gamma rays and UV region
(c) Between infrared and microwaves (d) Between microwaves and radio waves
Ans (b)
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Q8 what is the use of rays lying in u.v ray region in electromagnetic spectrum
(a) used to kill microbes (b) used to detect heat loss in insulated systems
(c) used in standard broadcast radio and television (d) used in oncology, to kill cancerous cells.
Ans (a)
SECTION-B OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
ASSERTION (A) AND REASONING (R) TYPE QUESTIONS
a. Both assertion and reason are True, and reason is the correct explanation.
b. Both assertion and reason are True, but reason is not the correct explanation.
c. Assertion is True, but reason is False.
d. Both assertion and reason are False.
Q.9 Assertion: The energy contained in a small volume through which an em wave is passing, oscillates
with the frequency of the wave.
Reason: Energy density of the wave is given by: ½ εοE02 .
Ans (d)
Q.10 Assertion: Like Light radiation, thermal radiations are also e.m. radiations.
Reason: Thermal radiations require no medium for propagation.
Ans (b)
Q.11 Assertion: X-rays cannot be deflected by electric or magnetic fields.
Reason: These are electromagnetic waves.
Ans (a)
Q.12 Assertion: EM waves are transverse in nature.
Reason: Waves of wavelength 10mm are radio wave and microwave.
Ans (b)
Q.13 EM waves are produced by………... charges.
Ans Accelerated/Oscillated
Q.14 To study structure of crystals……... are used.
Ans X-rays /ϒ-rays
Q.15 Human eye can detect……... part of electromagnetic spectrum.
Ans Visible.
SECTION C - SHORT/LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Q.16 Which constituent radiations of electromagnetic spectrum are used?
(i) in Radar
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(ii) in photographs of internal parts of human body/as a diagnostic tool in medicine
(iii) has the largest penetrating power.
Give reason for your answer in each case.
Ans (i) microwaves because they go straight and are not absorbed by the atmosphere
(ii) x- rays because they can penetrate light elements (flesh)
(iii) γ-rays as they have the highest frequency and hence highest energy
Q.17 Answer the following:
(i) If the earth did not have atmosphere, would its average surface temperature be higher or lower
than what it is now? Explain
(ii) Why is it necessary in microwave ovens to select the frequency of microwaves to match the
resonant frequency of water molecules?
(iii) Why is the amount of momentum transferred by the e.m. waves incident on the surface so small?
Ans (i) If the earth did not have atmosphere, its average surface temperature would be lower than what it
is now because there would be no greenhouse effect in the absence of atmosphere.
(ii) The frequency of microwaves is selected to match the resonant frequency of water molecules, so
the that energy is transferred efficiently to the kinetic energy of the molecules.
(iii) If an e.m. wave transfers a total energy U to a surface, then total momentum delivered to the
surface is p = U/c (for complete absorption of energy U)
As the speed of light c has very large value, so the value of momentum transferred is very small.
Q.18 The oscillating electric field of an electromagnetic wave is given by:
Ey = 30 sin {2x1011t + 300πx} V/m
(a) What is the direction of propagation?
(b) Obtain the value of the wavelength of the electro-magnetic wave.
(c)Obtain the value of the frequency of the electro-magnetic wave.
Ans (a)The wave is propagating along negative X -direction or its direction is -i.
(b)On comparing the given equation with the standard equation.
E = E0Sin*ωt+kx+
k = 300π
or 2π/λ = 300π
or λ = 1/150 m
(c) ω = 2X1011
or 2πν = 2X1011
or ν = 3.2X1010Hz
Q.19 The oscillating electric field of an electromagnetic wave is given by:
Ez = 60 sin {2x1011t+300πx} V/m
(a) Obtain the value of the amplitude of the magnetic field part of the wave.
(b) Write down the expression for the oscillating magnetic field.
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Ans (a) 60N/C
(b) B0 = E0/c
= 60/3x108
= 2x10-7T
By = 2x10-7Sin[2x1011t +300πx+T
Q.20 Electromagnetic waves with wavelengths-
(i) λ1are used to treat muscular strain
(ii) λ2are used by a F.M. radio station for broadcasting
(iii) λ3are used to detect fractures in bones
(iv) λ4are absorbed by ozone layer of the atmosphere
Identify the name and part of electromagnetic spectrum to which these radiations belong. Arrange
these wavelengths in order of magnitude.
Ans (i) Infrared rays (ii) radio waves (iii) x- rays (iv) UV rays, λ2 > λ1 > λ4 > λ3.
Q.21 The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by:
By = 12 × 10-8 sin (1.20 × 107 z + 3.60 × 1015 t) T. Calculate the
(i) Energy density associated with the Electromagnetic wave
(ii) Speed of the wave

Ans (i) Energy density u = 1/4(B2/u0 ) = 11.5 X 10-9 J/m3 . (ii) Speed =w/k speed= 3 X 108 m/s.
Q.22 In a plane e.m. wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0X10 10Hz and
amplitude 48Vm-1.
(a) What is the wavelength of wave?
(b) What is the amplitude the oscillating magnetic field?
(c) Show that the average energy density of the electric field equals the average energy density of the
magnetic field(B).
Ans (a) Wavelength, λ = c/ν
= 3x108/2.0X1010 = 1.5 X10-2m
(b)B0 = E0/c = 48/3x108 = 1.6X10-7T
(c ) average energy density of magnetic field,
UB = B20/4μ0
Average energy density of electric field,
UE = ε0 E20 /4
But E0 = cB0 and c2= 1/ ε0μ0
Therefore UE = ε0 E20 /4
= ε0 (cB0)2 /4 = ε0 B20 /4 ε0μ0
= B20/4μ0 = UB Hence UE= UB
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Q.23 (a)Write the formula for the velocity of light in a material medium of relative permittivity ε r and
relative magnetic permeability μr.
(b) The wavelength range, and name the (associated) electromagnetic waves, that are used in
(i) Radar systems for Aircraft navigation
(ii) Earth satellites to observe growth of crops
(iii) produced in nuclear reactions
(iv)) used as diagnostic tool in medical field like to take the picture of internal organ of human
body for the detection fractures in bones.
Ans (a) v = 1/√ εr ε0 μr μ0
(b)(i) 0.1m to 1mm: Microwaves
(ii) 1mm to 700nm: Infrared rays
(iii) λ<10-3nm: Gamma rays
(iv) 1 nm to 10-3nm: X-rays
Q.24 Compare the following

(i) Wavelengths of the incident solar radiation absorbed by the earth’s surface and the radiation re-
radiated by the earth.
(ii) Tanning effect produced on the skin by UV radiation incident directly on the skin and that coming
through glass window.
Ans (i) Radiation re-radiated by earth has greater wavelength
(ii)Tanning effect is significant for direct UV radiation; it is negligible for radiation coming through the
glass.
Q.25 (a)The speed of an electromagnetic wave in a material medium is given by v = 1/√με, μ the
permeability of the medium and ε its permittivity. How does its frequency change? (b)How is the
speed of em-waves in vacuum determined by the electric and magnetic fields?
Ans (a)Frequency remains unchanged.
(b) Speed of em-waves in vacuum is determined by the ratio of the peak values of
electric and magnetic field vectors.
C= E0/B0
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Q.26 (a) An em wave is travelling in a medium with a velocity v =vi. Draw a sketch showing the propagation
of the em wave, indicating the direction of the oscillating electric and magnetic fields.
(b) write wave equation for electric field for the above em wave
Ans
(b) Ey = E0 Sin *ωt - kx]
Q.27 What is displacement current? Write the expression for the displacement current.
Ans
The displacement current is that current which comes into existence, in addition in to the conduction
current, whenever the electric field and hence the electric flux changes with time.
ID = 0 = 0 (E.A)
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Chapter - 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
SECTION A : Competency Based Questions

Q.1 Which of the following phenomena is used in optical fibres?
(a) Total internal reflection (b) Scattering (c) Diffraction (d) Refraction
Ans: (a)
Q.2 A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a
way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 2.5 cm (d) 5 cm
Ans: (d)
Q.3 The objective lens of a telescope must be of large diameter in order to
(a) Remove chromatic aberration (b) Remove spherical aberration and high magnification
(c) Gather more light and for high resolution (d) Increase its range of observation
Ans: (c)
Q.4 The field of view is maximum for
(a) Plane mirror (b) Concave mirror (c) Convex mirror (d) Cylindrical mirror
Ans: (c)
Q.5 A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of the lens.
Then its focal length will
(a) Become zero (b) Become infinite (c) Become small, but non-zero (d) Remain unchanged
Ans: (b)
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION
A compound microscope is an optical instrument used for observing highly magnified images of tiny
objects. The magnifying power of a compound microscope is defined as the ratio of the angle
subtended at the eye by the final image to the angle subtended at the eye by the object when both
the final image and the object are situated at the least distance of distinct vision from the eye. It can
be given that: m = me × mo, where me is magnification produced by eye lens and mo is magnification
produced by the objective lens.
Q.6 Consider a compound microscope that consists of an objective lens of focal length 1.0 cm and an
eyepiece of focal length 2.00 cm separated by a distance of 20 cm
Calculate the magnifying power of microscope if final image at the near point
(a) 260 (b) 270 (c) 70 (d) 300
Ans (b)
Q.7 You are given 3 lenses having powers as P1 = 6D, P2= 3D and P3 = 12D Which two of lenses will you
select to construct a microscope?
(a) P1 = 6D , P2= 3D (b) P1 = 6D , P3 = 12D (c) P2= 3D , P3 = 12D (d) none of these
Ans (b)
Q.8 The intermediate image formed by the objective of a compound microscope is
(a) Real, inverted and magnified (b) Real, erect, and magnified
(c) Virtual, erect and magnified (d) Virtual, inverted and magnified.
Ans (a)
Q.9 The magnifying power of a compound microscope increases when
(a) The focal length of objective lens is increased and that of eye lens is decreased.
(b) The focal length of eye lens is increased and that of objective lens is decreased.
(c) Focal lengths of both objective and eye-piece are increased.
(d) Focal lengths of both objective and eye-piece are decreased.
Ans: (d)
Q.10 To increase the angular magnification of a simple microscope, one should increase
(a) The focal length of the lens (b) The power of the lens
(c) The aperture of the lens (d) The object size
Ans: (b)
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SECTION-B OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Q.11 Assertion: The focal length of the convex mirror will increase, if the mirror is placed in water.
Reason: The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is equal to , f = R/2.
Ans.(d) Focal length of the spherical mirror does not depend on the medium in which it placed.
Q.12 Assertion: The focal length of the convex lens will increase, if the lens is placed in water.
Reason: The focal length of a convex lens depends upon the refractive index of medium in which lens
is held.
Answer:(a)
Q.13 Assertion: The focal length of an equiconvex lens of radius of curvature R made of material of
refractive index μ = 1.5, is R.
Reason: The focal length of the lens will be R/2.
Answer:(c)
SECTION C SHORT/LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Q.14 A biconvex lens made of a transparent material of refractive index 1.25 is immersed in water of
refractive index 1.33. Will the lens behave as a converging or a diverging lens? Give reason.
Ans:
A biconvex lens acts as a diverging lens in water because the refractive index of water (1.33) is more
than the refractive index of the material of the lens (1.25). So, it will behave as concave lens
Q.15 Write the essential conditions for total internal reflections to occur.
Ans: (i) Light must travel from denser medium to rarer medium.
(ii) Angle of incidence must be greater than critical angle
Q.16 Draw a labelled ray diagram of an astronomical telescope in the near point position. Write the
expression
Ans:
Astronomical telescope in the near point position:
Magnifying power,
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Q.17 An object AB is kept in front of a concave mirror as shown in the figure.
(i) Complete the ray diagram showing the image formation of the object.
(ii) How will the position and intensity of the image be affected if the lower half of the mirror’s
reflecting surface is painted black?
Ans:
Image formed will be, Inverted,

Between focus and center of curvature,
Small in size.
(ii) If the lower half of the mirror’s reflecting surface is painted black,
the position of image will be same but its intensity gets reduced.
Q.18 Draw a schematic diagram of a single optical fibre structure. On what principle does such a device
work? Explain the mechanism of propagation of light signal through an optical fibre.
Ans:
A single optical fibre works on the principle of total internal reflection.

An optical fibre consists of a core with higher refractive index and a cladding with a lower refractive
index. When light enters the fibre at a suitable angle, it undergoes successive total internal reflections
along the length of the fibre. This is how a light signal travels through the optical fibre.
Q.19 (i) Out of blue and red light which is deviated more by a prism? Give reason.
(ii) Give the formula that can be used to determine refractive index of materials of a prism in minimum
deviation condition
Ans:
(i) Between blue and red light, blue light is deviated more by a prism. This is because the wavelength
of blue light is smaller than that of red light. Therefore, the speed of blue light is lower than that of red
light in a medium.
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(ii) The formula used for determining the refractive index of materials of a prism in minimum deviation
condition,
Where, n21 Refractive index of prism material with respect to the surrounding medium
A Angle of the prism
Dm Angle of minimum deviation
Q.20 You are given three lenses L1, L2 and L3 each of focal length 20 cm. A object is kept at 40 cm in front of
L1, as shown. The final real image is formed at the focus ‘I’ of L3. Find the separation between L1, L2 and
L3.
Ans:
Here f1 = f2 = f3 = 20 cm
Now, u1 = −40 cm
From lens makers formula
Here, image by L3 is formed at focus. So, the object should lie at infinity for L3. Hence, L2 will produce
image at infinity. So, we can conclude that object for L2 should be at its focus.
But, we have seen above that image by L1 is formed at 40 cm right of L1 which is at 20 cm left of
L2(focus of L2).
So X1 = distance between L1 and L2 = (40 + 20) cm
= 60 cm
Again distance between L2 and L3 does not matter as the image by L2 is formed at infinity so X2 can
take any value
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Q.21 A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is placed coaxially with a convex mirror of radius of curvature 20
cm. The two are kept at 15 cm apart. A point object lies 60 cm in front of the convex lens. Draw a ray
diagram to show the formation of the image by the combination. Determine the nature and position
of the image formed.
Ans:
Let us first locate the image of the point object S formed by the convex lens.
Here:
u = -60 cm
and f = 20 cm
From the lens formula, we have:
1/v−1/u=1/f⇒1/v=1/f+1/u⇒1/v = 1/20+1/ (−60)
=1/v =(3−1)/60=2/60
⇒v=30 cm
The positive sign shows that the image is formed to the right of the lens, as shown in the following
figure.
The image I1 is formed behind the mirror and hence, acts as a virtual source for the mirror. The convex
mirror forms the image I2, whose distance from the mirror can be calculated as:
1/v+1/u=1/f Here: u=15 cm And, f=R/2=10 cm
⇒1/v=1/f−1/u ⇒1/v=1/10−1/15
⇒1/v=(3−2) /30=1/30
⇒v=30 cm
Hence, the final virtual image is formed at a distance of 30 cm from the convex mirror, as shown in the
figure below.
Q.22 A refracting telescope at an observatory has an objective lens of focal length 15 m. If an eyepiece lens
of focal length 1.0 cm is used, find the angular magnification of the telescope. If this telescope is used
to view the moon, what is the diameter of the image of the moon formed by the objective lens? The
diameter of the moon is 3.42 × 106 m and
the radius of the lunar orbit is 3.8 × 108 m.
Ans:
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Negative sign indicates that the image is inverted.
Diameter of the image of the moon formed by the objective lens = d (say)
Q.23 A compound microscope uses an objective lens of focal length 4 cm and eyepiece lens of focal length
10 cm. An object is placed at 6 cm from the objective lens.
Calculate the magnifying power of the compound microscope.
Also calculate the length of the microscope.
Ans:
First, we shall find the image distance for the objective ,
Magnification of the microscope is,
= − 7,
negative sign indicates that the image is inverted.
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The length of the microscope is vo+ u, u=|ue| is the object distance for the eyepiece. And ue can be
found using, fe= 10 cm
1/ fe = 1/D - 1/ue
as D is the image distance for the eyepiece.
Hence, u = |ue| = 7.14 cm.

Length of the microscope L = V0+ Ue = 12+7.14= 19.14 cm
Q.24 Three light rays red (R), green (G) and blue (B) are incident on a right-angled prism ‘abc’ at face ‘ab’.
The refractive indices of the material of the prism for red, green and blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44
and 1.47 respectively. Out of the three which colour ray will emerge out of face ‘ac’? Justify your
answer. Trace the path of these rays after passing through face ‘ab’.
Ans:
The blue ray will emerge out of the face ‘ac’.
The three light rays will go through ‘ab’ as the three are perpendicular to ‘ab’. However, when they
will hit ‘ac’, they will refract with an angle of incidence of 45°.
Refractive indices for three light rays are given.
Red (R) = 1.39

Green (G) = 1.44
Blue (B) = 1.47
Total internal reflection takes place if the angle of incidence is such that
The refractive indices are from air to prism. To convert them from prism to air, we take their
reciprocal.
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For red:
sin r = 0.9828, which is less than 1

Thus, red light will pass through the face ‘ac’.
Similarly, for green:
This is greater than 1. Therefore, it will not pass through, but reflect back in the same medium.
For blue:
Even this will reflect back because of total internal reflection

Q.25 Draw the labelled ray diagram for the formation of image by a compound microscope. Derive the
expression for the total magnification of a compound microscope. Explain why both the objective and
the eyepiece of a compound microscope must have short focal lengths
Ans:
Show L in figure
Net magnification (m) =
f0 and fe are in denominator.
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This formula contains fo and fe in denominator. Therefore, both the objective and the eyepiece of a
compound microscope must have short focal lengths.
Q.26 For the same value of angle of incidence, the angles of refraction in three media A, B and C are 15°, 25°
and 35° respectively. In which medium would the velocity of light be minimum?
Ans:
As light travels from a rarer to denser medium it bends towards the normal as its speed decreases. So,
if the bending is more, the speed of the light would be less in that medium, compared to other media.
As the angle of refraction is measured with respect to the normal, the ray making the least angle of
refraction would bend more and the speed of light would be minimum in that case. So, the correct
option is medium A where refracting angle is 15°.
Q.27 A convex lens of focal length f1 is kept in contact with a concave lens of focal length f2. Find the focal
length of the combination.
Ans:
For convex lens, focal length, f = f1 and for concave lens, the focal length, f = -f2
The equivalent focal length of a combination of convex lens and concave lens is given as:
Q.28 Draw a labelled ray diagram of a refracting telescope. Define its magnifying power and write the
expression for it.
Write two important limitations of a refracting telescope over a reflecting type telescope.
Ans:
Refracting telescope:
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Magnifying Power: The magnifying power m
final image to the angle β which the object subtends at the lens or the eye.
Limitations of refracting telescope over reflecting type telescope:

(NOTE: Write any two)
(i) Refracting telescope suffers from chromatic aberration as it uses large sized lenses.
(ii) The image formed by refracting telescope is less brighter than the image formed by the reflecting
type telescope due to some loss of light by reflection at the lens and by absorption.
(iii) The resolving power of refracting telescope is less than the resolving power of reflecting type
telescope as the mirror of reflecting type telescope has large diameter.
(iv) The requirements of big lenses tend to be very heavy and therefore difficult to make and support
by their edges.
(v) It is also difficult and expensive to make such large sized lenses.
Q.29 Draw a labeled ray diagram of a reflecting telescope. Mention its two advantages over the refracting
telescope.
Ans:
Reflecting Telescope,
Its two advantages over Refracting telescope:

1. It reduces the spherical aberration and forms a clear focused image.
2. It doesn’t require a lens of very large aperture as refracting type requires that cannot be
manufactured easily.
Q.30 A convex lens made up of glass of refractive index 1.5 is dipped, in turn, in (i) a medium of refractive
index 1.6, (ii) a medium of refractive index 1.3.
(a) Will it behave as a converging or a diverging lens in the two cases?
(b) How will its focal length change in the two media?
Ans:
Given Refractive index of glass, μa = 1.5
Refractive index of Ist medium, μ1 = 1.6
Refractive index of IInd medium, μ2 = 1.3
(a) For Ist medium
Hence, f > 0; concave lens or diverging lens

(ii) For IInd medium
Hence, f < 0; convex lens or converging lens

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(b)
(i) For first medium,
Original focal length
Hence, focal length will be 5 times the original focal length and its nature will become diverging.
(ii) For second medium
Hence, focal length will be twice the original focal length and its nature (Converging nature) will
remain same.
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Chapter - 10 Wave Optics
Q.1 What happens if one of the slits, say S1 in Young’s double, slit experiment-is covered with a glass
plate which absorbs half the intensity of light from it?
(a) The bright fringes become less-bright and the dark fringes have a finite light intensity
(b) The bright fringes become brighter and the dark fringes become darker
(c) The fringe width decreases
(d) No fringes will be observed
Ans. (a)
Q. 2 For sustained interference, we need two sources which emit radiations :
(a) Of the same intensity (b) Of the same amplitude
(c) Having a constant phase difference (d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q. 3-6 According to Huygens principle, each point of the wave front is the source of a secondary
disturbance and the wavelets emanating from these points spread out in all directions with the
speed of the wave. These wavelets emanating from the wave front are usually referred to as
secondary wavelets and if we draw a common tangent to all these spheres, we obtain the new
position of the wave front at a later time.
(3)According to the Huygens’s principle, light is a form of

(a) Particle (b) Rays (c) Wave (d) Particle and wave both
Ans (c)
(4)Huygens’s wave theory allows us to know
(a) The wavelength of the wave (b)The velocity of the wave
(c) The amplitude of the wave (d)The propagation of wave fronts
Ans (d)
(5) A ‘wave front’ is the surface of constant
(a) Phase (b)Frequency (c)Wavelength (d)Amplitude
Ans (a)
(6)The wave front due to a source situated at infinity is
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(a) Spherical (b)Cylindrical (c) Planar (d) Rectilinear
Ans (c)
Q.7-10 Interference is based on the superposition principle. According to this principle, at a particular point
in the medium, the resultant displacement produced by a number of waves is the vector sum of the
displacements produced by each of the waves. If two sodium lamps illuminate two pinholes S 1 and
S2. the intensities will add up and no interference fringes will be observed on the screen. Here the
source undergoes abrupt phase change in times of the order of 10-10 seconds.
(7) Two coherent sources of intensity 10 W/m2 and 25 W/m2 interfere to form fringes. Find the ratio
of maximum intensity to minimum intensity.
(a) 15.54 (b) 16.78 (c) 19.72 (d) 18.39
(8) Which of the following does not show interference

(a) Soap bubble (b) Excessively thin film (c) A thick film (d) Wedge shaped film
(9) In a Young's double-slit experiment, the slit separation is doubled. To maintain the same fringe
spacing on the screen, the screen-to-slit distance D must be changed to
(a) 2D (b) 4D (c) D/2 (d) D/4
(10) The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit separation equal to twice the
wavelength in Young's double-slit experiment, is
(a) Infinite (b) Five (c) Three (d) Zero
Ans. (7) (c)
(8) (b): In an excessively thin film, the thickness of the film is negligible. Thus the path difference
between the reflected rays becomes λ/2 which produces a minima.
(9) (a) (10) (b)
Q. 11 Draw the wave front coming out of a convex lens when a point source of light is placed at its focus.
Ans.
Q. 12 When light travels from a rarer to a denser medium, it loses some speed. Does the reduction in
speed imply a reduction in the energy carried by the light wave?
Ans. No, the reduction in the speed of light does not imply the reduction in the energy of the light wave
because the energy carried by a wave depends on the amplitude of the wave, not on the speed of
wave propagation.
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Q. 13 Why does the intensity of the secondary maximum become less as compared to the central
maximum?
Ans. The central maximum is due to the constructive interference of wavelets from all parts of the slit.
With the increase in the value of n, the wavelets from lesser and lesser parts of the slit produce
constructive interference to form a secondary maximum. Hence the intensity of secondary maximum
decreases with the increase in the value of n.
For question numbers (14-16), two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a),(b),(c) and (d) as
given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
Q. 14. Assertion (A): No diffraction is produced in sound waves near a very small opening.
Reason(R): For the diffraction to take place the aperture of opening should be of the same order as
wavelength of the waves.
Ans. (a)
Q.15 Assertion (A): : Diffraction takes place for all types of waves mechanical or non-mechanical,
transverse or longitudinal.
Reason(R) : Diffraction’s effect are perceptible only if wavelength of wave is comparable to
dimensions of diffracting device.
Ans. (a)
Q.16. Assertion (A): The resultant amplitude of all the secondary wavelets at any point on the backward
wave front is zero.
Reason (R): A backward wave front cannot exist.
Ans. (b)
Q. 17 The ratio of intensities at minima to the maxima in Young’s double slit experiment is 9:25.The ratio
of the widths of the two slits is ---------------------------
Ans. 16:1
Q.18 In a single slit diffraction, the intensity of secondary maxima……………………………with increase in the
order of the maximum.
Ans. Decreases
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Section C - Short Answer/Long Answer Questions
Q.19 Sketch the wave front that corresponds to a beam of light
(i) coming from a very away source, and
(ii) diverging radially from a point source.
Ans.
Q.20 In a Young’s double slit experiment, the slit are separated by 0.28mm and the screen is placed 1.4 m
away. The distance between the central bright fringe and the fourth bright fringe is measured to be
1.2 cm. Determine the wavelength of light used in the experiment.
Ans. Given: d= 0.28 mm = 0.28 × 10-3 m,
D= 1.4 m, x = 1.2 cm = 1.2 x 10-2 m, n = 4,λ = ?
As we know x = nλD/ d
λ=xd/nD
=(1.2 × 10 -2 x 0.28 × 10-3)/4x1.4 = 6 x 10-7 m = 600 nm
Q.21 What is the effect on the interference fringes if the monochromatic source is replaced by a source of
white light?
Ans. When the monochromatic light is replaced by a white light, (i) the central bright remains white, and
(ii) all the other colours will form individual maxima with the least wavelength violet forming its
bright close to the central bright.
Q.22 Sketch of a graph showing the variation of fringe width versus the distance of the screen from the
plane of the slits (keeping other parameters same) of the Young’s double slit experiment. What
information can one obtain from the slope of this graph?
Ans. β=λD/ d,β is proportional to D.
β/D=λ/d
slope of graph =λ/d
Knowing the value of d and the slope of the graph, the wavelength of light used can be calculated.
Q.23 What is the effect on the interference pattern observed in a Young’s double slit experiment in the
following cases:
(i) Screen is moved away from the plane of the slits;
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(ii) Separation between the slits is increased;
(iii) Widths of the slits are doubled?
Ans. Fringe width, B= Dλ/d
(1) As ẞ is proportional to D, so when screen is moved away from the slits, fringe width increases.
(ii) As ẞ is inversely proportional to d, so when the separation between the slits is increased, fringe
width decreases.
(iii) When widths of slits are doubled, contrast between maxima and minima decreases due to
the overlapping of interference patterns formed by various narrow pairs of the two slits.
Q.24 In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are separated by 0.5mm and screen is placed 1.0 m away
from the slit. It is found that the 5th bright fringe is at a distance of 4.13 mm from the 2 nd dark fringe.
Find the wavelength of light used.
Ans. Here d=0.5 mm =0.5 x 10-3m, D= 1.0 m .
The distance of 5th bright fringe from the central bright fringe is
X5=5Dλ/ d
The distance of 2nd dark fringe from the central bright fringe is,
x2=(2x2-1) Dλ/2d=3Dλ/ 2d
Distance of 5th bright fringe from the 2nd dark fringe,
X5- x2=5Dλ/d-3Dλ/2d= 7Dλ/ 2d
But
X5-x2=4.13 mm,λ= (/4.13×10-3×2d )7D =(4.13x10-3x2x0.5x10-3 )/2×1.0 =0.59 x 10-6m=5900 Å.
Q.25 Define the term wave front. Using Huygens’s wave theory, verify the law of reflection.
Ans. A wave front is the continuous locus of vibrating particles which are in the same state of vibration or
phase. Laws of Reflection from Huygens principle
Consider a plane wave front AB incident on a plane reflecting surface PQ. Let v be the velocity of the
wave. At time t = 0 one end of the wave front just touches the reflecting surface at B. Draw normal
NB to PQ. When the wave front strikes the reflecting surface, then due to the presence of it, it
cannot advance further. When wave front strikes at B, secondary wavelets starts emitting from B.
The secondary wavelets will travel a distance AD = vt during the time the other end A of the wave
front AB reaches the surface PQ at Q. To find the reflected wave front, B as a centre and AD as radius
draw an arc, which represent the secondary wavelets originating from B. As the incident wave front
AB advances, the secondary wavelets will touch CD simultaneously.
98
According to Huygens's principle CD represents the reflected wave front corresponding to incident
wave front AB. BD is common triangles BAD and CBD and BC= AD = vt. Therefore, two triangles are
congruent
So,<ABD=<CDB
<i=<r.
Thus, angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. This is the second law of reflection. Also,
the incident wave front AB, reflecting surface PQ and the reflected wave front CD are perpendicular
to the plane of the paper. So, the incident ray, reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence,
all lie in same plane. This is first law of reflection.
Q. 26 In a single slit diffraction experiment, a slit of width d is illuminated by red light of wavelength 650
nm. For what value of d will(i) the first minimum fall at an angle of diffraction of 30°, and(ii) the first
maximum fall at an angle of diffraction of 30°?
Ans. Given: λ = 650 nm
(i) The first minimum at 30° satisfies the condition, d sin θ= λ
:. d= λ /sin 30° =2xλ=1300x10-9m
(ii) The first maximum at 30° satisfies the condition, d sinθ= :. d = 3x λ/ 2
d =3×λ/ 2× sin 30° = 1950 × 10-9 m
Q. 27 How is Huygen's principle used to obtain the diffraction pattern due to a single slit? Show the plot of
variation of intensity with angle and state the reason for the reduction in intensity of secondary
maxima compared to central maximum.
Ans. When a plane wave front is incident on a single slit, all the point sources of light constituting the
wave fronts are in same phase. The wavelets coming out from the wave front might meet over the
screen with some path difference, i.e. a phase difference is introduced between them.
The brightness at a point on the screen depends on the phase difference between the wavelets
meeting at the point. We imagine that the slit is divided into smaller parts and the wavelets coming
out from these portions meet and superpose on the screen with proper phase difference.
The wavelets from different parts of the wave front, incident on the slit, meet with zero phase
difference to constitute a central maximum. In case of secondary maxima, there are some wavelets
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meeting the screen out of phase, thus, reducing intensity of secondary maxima.
Q. 28 (a) State Huygen's principle. Using this principle draw a diagram to show how a plane wave front
incident at the interface of the two media gets refracted when it propagates from a rarer to a denser
medium. Hence verify Snell's law of refraction.
(b)When monochromatic light travels from a rarer to a denser medium, explain the following, giving
reasons:
(i) Is the frequency of reflected and refracted light same as the frequency of incident light?
(ii) Does the decrease in speed imply a reduction in the energy carried by light wave?
Ans. (a) Huygens' Principle: (i) Each point on a given primary wave front acts as a source of secondary
wavelets, sending out disturbances (waves) in all directions in a similar manner as the original source
of light does.
(ii) The new position of the wave front at any instant (secondary wave front) is given by the forward
envelope to the secondary wavelets at that instant.
Proof of laws of refraction using Huygens' Principle.
We will now use Huygens' principle to derive the laws of refraction. Let PP' represent the surface
separating medium 1 and medium 2. Let v₁ and v₂ represent the speed of light in medium 1 and
medium 2 respectively. Take a wave front AB incident on the interface at an angle i. If is the time
taken by the wave front to travel the distance BC. Thus, BC= v₁t
We draw an arc (representing refracted wave front) of radius vt from the point A in the second
medium. Draw a tangent on this arc. CE gives refracted wave front. From the triangles ABC and AEC
we obtain
Sin i=BC/AC=v1t/AC…….....(1)
Sinr=AE/AC=v2t/AC…….....(2)
where i and rare the angles of incidence and refraction respectively.
Sini/sinr=v1/ v2………………(3)
Now, if c represents the speed of light in vacuum, then,
n 1=c/v1……………………(4)
n 2=c/v2 ………………….(5)
In terms of the refractive indices, equation 3 can be written as
100
n 1 sin i = n2 sin r This is the Snell's law of refraction.
(b) (i) Frequency remains the same. When the light of particular frequency is incident it interacts
with the atoms of the matter, which further causes forced oscillations. As the frequency of charged
oscillator and the frequency of wave emitted by charged oscillator is same, therefore the frequency
of reflected and refracted light is same.
(ii) No, energy carried by a light wave does not depend on its speed. Instead it depends on its
amplitude
Q. 29 (a) In Young's double slit experiment, deduce the conditions for obtaining constructive and
destructive interference fringes.
(b) Show that the fringe pattern on the screen is actually a superposition of single slit diffraction
from each slit.
(c)What should be the width of each slit to obtain 10 maxima of the double slit pattern within the
central maximum of the single slit pattern, for green light of wavelength 500 nm, if the separation
between two slits is 1 mm?
Ans. (a). Consider two coherent sources S1 and S2. Suppose waves from these two sources meet at a point
on the screen with a phase difference φ between their displacements.
If the displacement produced by S1 is =a cosωt and displacement produced by S₂ is y₂ a cos (ωt+φ)
then, then resultant displacement will bey = y + y₂
y = a*cos ωt+ cos (ωt+φ )+ = 2a cos φ/2 cos (ωt+φ/2)
From the above equation, we find that the amplitude of resultant displacement is A = 2acos (φ/2).
Intensity at the point, I = kA2
I = k4a² cos²φ /2 = 4 I0 cos²φ /2 *I 0 = ka²]
Therefore,
(i) For constructive interference leading to maximum intensity, I = 4I o
φ= 0,± 2π, ± 4π, ...
(ii) For destructive interference leading to zero intensity, φ= + π, ±3π, ± 5π,....
(b) When we close one of the slits, we obtain a diffraction pattern. With both the slits open, we get
an interference pattern. It proves that the interference pattern is the superposition of two
diffraction patterns.
(c) n = 10, d= 1 mm
nβ =2λD/a ;
nλD/d=2λD/a
a = size of aperture of each slit, d = separation between the slits
10λ /d=2 λ/ a
A=d/5=1/5= 0.2 mm
101
Q.30 (a) A monochromatic source of light of wavelength λ illuminates a narrow slit of width d to produce a
diffraction pattern on the screen. Obtain the conditions when secondary wavelets originating from
the slit interfere to produce maxima and minima on the screen.
(b) How would the diffraction pattern be affected when

(i) the width of the slit is decreased?
(ii) the monochromatic source of light is replaced by white light?
Ans. (a)To explain a diffraction pattern in case of a single slit monochromatic source), we divide the slit
into much smaller parts and add their contributions at any point 'P' on the screen with proper phase
differences. We treat each point on the wave front at the slit, as secondary sources .
As the incoming wave front is parallel to the plane of the slit, these sources are in phase [using
Huygens’s principle].
The path difference between the waves coming out from the two edges of the slits is
S2P-S1P=S2M ;S2M= a sinθ≈ aθ
For any two point sources, S1and S2 in the plane of the slit having a separation y, the path difference
would beS2P-S1P≈ yθ
i.e. ΔP≈ yθ ,As the initial phase difference is zero, the phase difference between the waves is
introduced only due to this path difference.
For the central point on the screen,
θ=0,ΔP = 0 ;i.e. Δφ = 0
All the parts of the slit contribute in phase. So, the maximum intensity is obtained at C.
Secondary Maxima: These are found at θ=(n+1/2)λ/a
For nth secondary maxima, we can imagine as if the slit is divided into (2n + 1) parts. The
contributions from 2n parts of the slit get cancelled. Only (2n+1)th part of the slit contributes to the
intensity at a point between two minima. With an increase in n, the secondary maxima become
weaker.
Secondary Minima: These are found at θ= n λ/a
For nth minima, we can imagine as if slit is divided into 2n parts. The separation between two point
102
sources on consecutive parts will be a /2n
As ΔP = θy
ΔP = n λ/a × a /2n = λ /2
The path difference of λ /2 corresponds to phase difference of π (i.e. waves meet out of phase).
There are even number of parts so net intensity is zero at the point on the screen.
(b)(i) Linear width of central maxima W = 2Dλ/ d
Angular width of central maxima, θn=W /D =2λ/ d
So, when the width of the slit (d) is decreased, the angular width θn increases, and the diffraction
pattern is spread out.
(ii) When a monochromatic source of light is replaced by a source of white light, the following
changes are observed in the diffraction pattern:
• Diffraction pattern is coloured. As the fringe width is directly proportional to the wavelength, so,
the fringe width of red colour is wider than that of violet colour.
• The central maximum is white.
103
Chapter–11 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
SECTION –A
Q.1 Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum-
a) Power b) wavelength c) intensity d) frequency
ANS. a) D
Q.2 The work-function of a metal is
a) the minimum current required to take out electron from the metal surface
b) the maximum frequency required to take out electron from the metal surface
c) the minimum amount of energy required to take out the electron from the metal surface
d) d)None of these
ANS. c
Q.3 The Wave theory of light does not explain
a) Polarization b) diffraction c) photocurrent d) interference
ANS. C
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
The photoelectric emission is possible only if the incident light is in the form of packets of energy,
each having a definite value, more than the work function of the metal. This shows that light is not
of wave nature but of particle nature. It is due to this reason that photoelectric emission was accounted
by quantum theory of light.
Q.4 Packet of energy are called

a) electron b) quanta c) frequency d) neutron
ANS. B
Q.5 One quantum of radiation is called
a) meter b) meson c) photon d) quark
ANS. C
Q.6 Energy associated with each photon
a) hc b) mc c) hv d) hk
ANS. C
Q.7 Which of the following waves can produce photo electric effect-
a) UV radiation b) Infrared radiation c) . Radio waves d) Microwaves
ANS. A
Q.8 Work function of alkali metals is
(a) less than zero b) just equal to other metals
(c) greater than other metals d) quite less than other metals
ANS. D
SECTION -B
Fill in the blanks-
Q.9 The minimum frequency required to eject an electron from a metal surface is called--------- Frequency
ANS. Threshold
Q.10 In photoelectric effect, saturation current is not affected on decreasing the ……………of incident
radiation provided its intensity remains unchanged.
ANS. Frequency / Wavelength
Q.11 Two particles have equal momentum. What is the ratio of their de-Broglie wavelength?
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 0.5
ANS. B
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Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a
corresponding statement of Reason (R) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer
as:
(A)If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(B)If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(C)If assertion is true and reason is false
(D)If both assertion and reason are false
Q.12 Assertion: Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.

Reason: The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light
(a)A (b) B (c) C (d) D
ANS. D
Q.13 Assertion: The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron when its kinetic energy is k is λ. Its wavelength is 2 λ
when its kinetic energy is 4k.
Reason: The de - Broglie wavelength λ is proportional to square root of the kinetic energy.
(a) A (b)B (c)C (d)D
ANS. D
SECTION-C
Q.14 A radiation of wavelength 300 nm is incident on a silver surface. Will photoelectrons be observed work
function of silver = 4.7 Ev
ANS.
Q.15 Explain briefly the reasons why the wave theory of light is not able to explain the observed features
in the photoelectric effect.
ANS. Answer: According to wave theory, the light propagates in the form of wave fronts, and the
energy is distributed uniformly over the wave fronts. With the increase of intensity of light, the
amplitude of waves and the energy stored by waves will increase. These waves will then, provide
more energy to electrons of metal; consequently, the energy of electrons will increase.
Thus, according to wave theory, the kinetic energy of photoelectrons must depend on the
intensity of incident light; but according to experimental observations, the kinetic energy of photoelectro
does not depend on the intensity of incident light
Q.16 Two monochromatic beams, one red and the other blue, have the same intensity. In which
case (i) the number of photons per unit area per second is larger, (ii) the maximum kinetic
energy of the photoelectrons is more? Justify your answer.
105
ANS. (i) Red light, because the energy of red light is less than that of blue light
(h )R < (h )B

(ii) Blue light, because the energy of blue light is greater than that of red light (h )B  (h )R
Q.17 An -particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by the same potential. Find the ratio of
their de-Broglie wavelength
ANS. de – Broglie wave length λ= /√2 𝑞V
Q.18 Define threshold wavelength for photoelectric effect? De’ Broglie wavelength associated with
an electron associated through a potential difference V is ? What will be the new wavelength
when the accelerating potential is increase to 4V?
ANS.
Q.19 An electron has kinetic energy equal to 100eV. Calculate (1) momentum (2) speed (3) De’Broglie
wavelength of the electron.
ANS.
106
Q.20 Draw a graph showing the variation of stopping potential with frequency of the incident radiations.
What does the slope of the line with the frequency axis indicate? Hence define threshold frequency?
ANS.
Q.21 Find the (a) maximum frequency, and (b) minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by 30 kV
electrons.
ANS.
107
Q.22 The work function for a certain metal is 4.2 eV. Will this metal give photoelectric emission for
Incident radiation of wavelength 330 nm?
Ans .
Q.23 What is the (a) momentum, (b) speed, and (c) de Broglie wavelength of an electron with kinetic
Energy of 120 eV.
ANS.
108
Q.24 Define the terms threshold frequency and stopping potential in the study of photoelectric emission.
Explain briefly the reasons why wave theory of light is not able to explain the observed features in
Photoelectric effect?
Ans. Threshold frequency: The minimum frequency below which there is no occurrence of photoelectric
effect is called the cut-off frequency or threshold frequency and denoted by v0.
Stopping potential Refer to ans. 18 (ii). The wave theory of light is not able to explain the observed
features of photoelectric current because of following reasons
(i) The greater energy incident per unit time per unit area increases with the increase of intensity
which should facilitate liberation of photoelectron of greater kinetic energy which is in contradiction
of observed feature of photoelectric effect.
(ii) Wave theory states that energy carried by wave is independent of frequency of light wave and
hence wave of high intensity and low frequency (less than threshold frequency) should stimulate
photoelectric emission but practically, it does not happen
Q.25 (a) Define photoelectric work function? What is its unit?

(b) In a plot of photoelectric current versus anode potential, how does
(i) Saturation current varies with anode potential for incident radiations of different frequencies
but same intensity?
(ii) The stopping potential varies for incident radiations of different intensities but same frequency.
(iii) Photoelectric current vary for different intensities but same frequency of radiations? Justify
your answer in each case?
109
b) (i) Saturation current is same for incident radiations of different frequencies but of same intensity. It
does not change with increase in anode potential.
(ii) Stopping potential is same for incident radiation of different intensities but same frequency. This
is because stopping potential depends on frequency and not on the intensity of incident radiation.
(iii) Photoelectric current increases linearly with the intensity of incident radiation of same
frequency.
110
Chapter 12 Atoms
COMPETENCY BASED QUESTION
1
Which of these statements about Bohr model hypothesis is correct?
a. mass of electron is quantized
b. velocity of electron is quantized
c. angular momentum of electron is quantized
d. radius of electron is quantized
Ans.
By Bohr's second postulate, the electron revolves around the nucleus Only in those orbits
for which the angular momentum is an integral multiple of h/2π, where h is the Planck’s
constant. So angular momentum (L) of the orbiting electron is quantized.
Option (c.) is correct.
2
Which of the following transitions in hydrogen emits the photon of the highest
frequency?
a) n = 1 to n = 2 b) n = 6 to n = 2
c) n = 2 to n = 6 d) n = 2 to n = 1
Ans.
Highest frequency emission will be of maximum energy difference. Option (d) is correct.
3 What is the angle of scattering for zero impact parameter?
Ans. 1800
4 The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is about -3.4eV. What is
the potential energy of the electron in this state?
Ans. P.E. = 2 × Total energy = 2× (-3.4) = - 6.8 eV.
5 What is the significance of the negative energy of electron in the orbit?

Ans. This signifies that the electron is bound to the nucleus. Due to electrostatic
attraction between electron and nucleus, the potential energy is negative and is
greater than kinetic energy of electron. Total energy of electron is negative.
It cannot escape from the atom.
6 Name the spectral series of hydrogen spectrum lying in the infrared region.
Ans. Panchen , Bracket and Pfund lie in the infrared region.
7 The radius of innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3×10-11 m. What is the radius of orbit
in the second excited state?
Ans. Here n=3, Therefore r3 = (3)2×5.3×10-11 = 4.72×10-10 m.
111
8 Define ionization energy. What is its value for a hydrogen atom?
Ans. It is the energy required to knock an electron completely out of the atom. Ionization energy of
hydrogen= 0-(-13.6) =13.6 eV.
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

9 The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6eV. The kinetic energy of the Electron in this state
is_______________
(a) 4.2eV (b) 13.6eV
(c) 6.8eV (d) 3.4 eV
Ans. K.E= - T.E = - (-13.6) eV = 13.6eV , Option :(b) is correct
10 When hydrogen atom is in its first excited level, then its radius is__________
(a) Same (b) half
(b) Twice (d) four times
Ans. As rn=r1(n2) so r2=r1(22) hence r2=r1(4) , Option: (d) is correct
11 If any electron jumps from first orbit to third orbit, then it will__________
(a) Not lose energy (b) Not given energy
(c) Release energy (d) Absorb energy
Ans. Only by absorbing energy, an electron jumps from first orbit to third orbit. Option (d) is correct.
12 The ratios between Bohr radii are_____________
(a) 1:2:3 (b) 2:4:6 (c) 1:4:9 (d) 1:3:5
Ans. As rn α n2 so Option (c) is correct.
13 A classical atom based on ___________ is doomed to collapse.
Ans. Rutherford’s model
SHORT ANSWER/LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

14 If the choice of the zero of potential energy is changed, what happens to kinetic
energy and potential energy of electron?
Ans. Kinetic energy does not change but potential and hence total energy will be affected.
15 Determine the speed of the electron in n=3 orbit of He+ ion.
Ans.
As v = 2πkze2/nh =2×3.14×9×109×2× (1.6×10-19)2/3×6.6×10-34
=1.46×106 m/s .
16 Consider two different hydrogen atoms. The electron in each atom is in an excited state. Is it possible
for the electrons to have different energies, but the same orbital angular momentum according to
the Bohr model?
Ans. No, because according to Bohr model, En = -13.6/n2 and electrons having different energies belong
112
to different levels having different values of n, so their angular momenta will be different as L= mvr =
nh /2
17 The energy levels of an atom are as shown in figure below. Which of them will result in the
transition of a photon of wavelength 275 nm?
Ans. As E= hc/λ , so E= 6.6x10-34 x3x108/275x10-9x1.6x10-19 , we get E=4.5 eV

Hence it corresponds to transition B for which the energy change = 4.5 eV
18
Which transition corresponds (Shown in fig above) to emission of radiation of Minimum
Wavelength?
Ans.
For minimum wavelength of emission, the energy is maximum (Eα1/λ). Transition D, for which
the energy emission is maximum, corresponds to the emission of radiation of minimum
wavelength.
19
Using Bohr’s postulates of the atomic model, derive the expression for radius of nth electron
orbit. Hence obtain the expression for Bohr’s radius. Show graphically variation of the radius of
the orbit with the principle quantum number n.
Ans.
For circular orbit of the electron,
mv2/r = k Z e2/r2 or mv2 = k Z e2/r or r = k Z e2/ mv2 (1)
Using Bohr’s quantization condition for angular momentum
L = mvr = n h/ 2π or r = nh / 2π m v (2)
from equation (1) and (2)
k Z e2/ mv2 = nh / 2π m v or v = 2πkze 2 /nh
putting this in (2) we have r = n 2 h 2 / 4π 2 mkZe 2
Bohr radius r 0 = h 2 /4π 2 mk e 2 (because n=1 and Z=1)
As r α n 2 graph of r versus n 2 is a parabola.
113
20 Find the ratio of energies of photons produced due to transition of an electron of hydrogen atom
from its (i) second permitted energy level to the first level and
(ii) the highest permitted energy level to the first permitted level.
Ans. As (hν)2 to 1 / (hν)infinity to 1 = (1/12- 1/22) / (1/12- 1/infinity2)
=¾
= 3:4
21 The Rutherford alpha particle scattering experiment shows that most of the alpha particles pass
through almost unscattered while some of them are scattered through large angles. What
information does it give about the structure of atom?
Ans. (i) As most of alpha particles pass straight it indicates that most of the space in the atom is
empty.
(ii) The large angle scattering indicates that most of the mass and the entire positive charge
of the atom is concentrated in a small central core called nucleus.
22 The kinetic energy of alpha particle incident on gold foil is double. How does the distance of closest
approach change?
Ans. As the distance of closest approach is inversely proportional to the kinetic energy of incident alpha
particle hence distance of closest approach is halved.
23 What is the shortest wavelength present in the Panchen series of spectral lines?
Ans. As 1/λ = R *1/32 – 1/infinite+ =R/9 so we get λ=9/R=8.2x10-7 m
24 What is the longest wavelength present in the Lyman series of spectral lines?
Ans. 1/λ = R *1/12 – 1/22+ = (3/4)R so we get λ=4/3R=1.2x10-7 m
114
Chapter–13 Nuclei
Section A - Competency Based Questions (CBQs)
Q1 Neutrons and protons are identical particles in the sense that their masses are nearly the same and
the force, called nuclear force, does distinguish them. Nuclear force is the strongest force. Stability
of the nucleus is determined by the neutron proton ratio or mass defect or packing fraction. Shape
of nucleus is calculated by quadruple moment and spin of nucleus depends on even and odd mass
number. Volume of the nucleus depends on the mass number. Whole mass of the atom (nearly 99%)
is centered at the nucleus.
(i) The correct statements about the nuclear force is/are

(a) Charge independent
(b) Short range force
(c) Non-conservative force
(d) all of these.
(ii) The range of nuclear force is the order of

(a) 2 x 10-10 m
(b) 1.5 x 10-20 m
(c) 1.2 x 10-4 m
(d) 1.4 x 10-15 m
(iii) A force between two protons is the same as the force between a proton and neutron. The nature
of the force is
(a) Electrical force
(b) Weak nuclear force
(c) Strong nuclear force
(d) Gravitational force
(iv) Two protons are kept at a separation of 40 A0. Fn is the nuclear force and Fe is the electrostatic
force between them. Then
(a) Fn<< Fe
(b) Fn = Fe
(c) Fn>> Fe
(d) Fn ≈ Fe
ANS (i) d (ii) d (iii) c (iv) a

Q2 In the year 1939, German scientist Otto Hahn and Strassmann discovered that when a uranium
isotope was bombarded with a neutron, it breaks into two intermediate mass fragments. It was
observed that, the sum of the masses of new fragments formed were less than the mass of the
original nuclei. This difference in the mass appeared as the energy released in the process. Thus, the
phenomenon of splitting of a heavy nucleus (usually A> 230) into two or more lighter nuclei by the
bombardment of proton, neutron, a-particle, etc. with liberation of energy is called nuclear fission.
235 1 236 144 89
92 0 92 56 36 𝑟 3 10 𝑄
115
(i) Nuclear fission can be explained on the basis of
(a) Millikan's oil drop method
(b) Liquid drop model
(c) Shell model
(d) Bohr's model
(ii) For sustaining the nuclear fission chain reaction in a sample (of small size) 235
92 , it is desirable to
slow down fast neutrons by

(a) Friction
(b) Elastic damping/scattering
(c) Absorption
(d) None of these
(iii) On an average, the number of neutrons and the energy of a neutron released per fission of a
uranium atom are respectively
(a) 2.5 and 2 keV
(b) 3 and 1 keV
(c) 2.5 and 2 MeV
(d) 2 and 2 keV
(iv) In any fission process, ratio of mass of daughter nucleus to mass of parent nucleus is
(a) Less than 1
(b) Greater than 1
(c) Equal to 1
(d) Depends on the mass of parent nucleus
ANS (i) b (ii) b (iii) c (iv) a
Q3 The nucleus was first discovered in 1911 by Lord Rutherford and his associates by experiments on
scattering of alpha-particles by atoms. He found that the scattering results could be explained, if
atoms consist of a small, central, massive and positive core surrounded by orbiting electrons. The
experimental results indicated that the size of the nucleus is of the order of 10-14 m and is thus 10000
times smaller than the size of atom.
(i) Ratio of mass of nucleus with mass of atom is approximately
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 103
(d) 1010
116
(ii) Masses of nuclei of hydrogen, deuterium and tritium are in ratio
(a) 1:2:3
(b) 1:1:1
(c) 1:1:2
(d) 1:2:4
(iii) Nuclides with same neutron number but different atomic number are
(a) Isobars
(b) Isotopes
(c) Isotones
(d) None of these
(iv) If R is the radius and A is the mass number, then log R versus log A graph will be
(a) A straight line
(b) A parabola
(c) An ellipse
(d) None of these
ANS (i) a (ii) a (iii) c (iv) a
Q4 The density of nuclear matter is the ratio of the mass of a nucleus to its volume. As the volume of a
nucleus is directly proportional to its mass number A, so the density of nuclear matter is
independent of the size of the nucleus. Thus, the nuclear matter behaves like a liquid of constant
density. Different nuclei are like drops of this liquid, of different sizes but of same density.
Let A be the mass number and R be the radius of a nucleus. If m is the average mass of a nucleon,
then
Mass of nucleus = mA
3
4 4 4 3
Volume of nucleus = 3 𝑟 3 ( 0 ) 0
3 3
3
Nuclear density, 4
Clearly, nuclear density is independent of mass number A or the size of the nucleus. The nuclear
mass density is of the order 1017 kg m-3. This density is very large as compared to the density of
ordinary matter, say water, for which p = 1.0 x 103 kg m-3.
(i) The nuclear radius of 168 is 3 X 10-15 m. The density of nuclear matter is
(a) 2.9 x 1034 kg m-3
(b) 1.2 x 1017 kg m-3
(c) 16 x 1027 kg m-3
117
(d) 2.4 x 1017 kg m-3
(ii) What is the density of hydrogen nucleus in SI units? Given R0 = 1.1 fermi and mp = 1.007825 amu
(a) 2.98 x 1017 kg m-3
(b) 3.0 x 1034 kg m-3
(c) 1.99 x 1011 kg m-3
(d) 7.85 x 1017 kg m-3
(iii) Density of a nucleus is

(a) more for lighter elements and less for heavier elements.
(b) more for heavier elements and less for lighter elements
(c) very less compared to ordinary matter
(d) a constant
(iv) If the nucleus of 27

13 has a nuclear radius of about 3.6 fm, then 125
52 would have its radius
approximately as
(a) 9.6 fm
(b) 12 fm
(c) 4.8 fm
(d) 6 fm
ANS (i) d (ii) a (iii) d (iv) d
Q5 In a typical fission reaction, the nucleus is split into two middle-weight nuclei of unequal masses.
Which of the two (heavier or lighter) has greater kinetic energy?
ANS As the momentum is conserved in a nuclear fission so both daughter nuclei have same momentum.
Now from momentum- kinetic energy relation
2
2
Where K is kinetic energy and p is momentum. We can conclude that lighter nuclei will have greater
kinetic energy.
Q6 Suppose we have 12 protons and 12 neutrons. We can assemble them to form either a 24
12
nucleus or two 126 nuclei. In which of the two cases more energy will be liberated?
ANS Energy released in forming two 126 nuclei
2
𝑄1 2 (6 6 )
2
𝑄1 2 6 × 1.007276 𝑢 6 × 1.008665 𝑢 12 𝑢)
2
𝑄1 2 0.095646 𝑢)
2) 2
𝑄1 2 0.095646 × 931
118
𝑄1 178.09
Energy released in forming one 24
12 nuclei
2
𝑄2 (12 12 )
2
𝑄2 12 × 1.007276 𝑢 12 × 1.008665 𝑢 23.9850419 𝑢)
2
𝑄2 0.2062501 𝑢)
2) 2
𝑄2 0.2062501 × 931
𝑄2 192.01
24
So more energy will be released in forming 12 nuclei.
Q7 A molecule of hydrogen contains two protons and two electrons. The nuclear force between these
two protons is always neglected while discussing the behaviour of a hydrogen molecule. Why?
ANS While discussing the behaviour of a hydrogen molecule, the nuclear force between the two protons
WER is always neglected. This is because the separation between the two protons in the molecule is ∼ 70
pm which is much greater than the range of the nuclear force.
Q8 A plot of binding energy per nucleon Eb against the nuclear mass M is given below. A, B, C, D, E, F
corresponds to different nuclei.
Consider four reactions :

(i) A+B → C+ϵ
(ii) C → A+B+ϵ
(iii) D+E → F+ϵ
(iv) F → D+E+ϵ
Where ϵ is the energy released. In which of the above reactions energy is released?
ANS Energy will be released in the reactions for which the binding energy per nucleon of products is
WER greater than the binding energy per nucleon of reactants. Among the given options reaction (i) and
reaction (iv) satisfy this condition so energy will be released in reaction (i) and (iv).
119
Section B - Objective Type Questions (OTQs)
Q9 The mass number of a nucleus is equal to
(a) the number of neutrons in the nucleus
(b) the number of protons in the nucleus
(c) the number of nucleons in the nucleus
(d) None of them.
ANS (c) the number of nucleons in the nucleus
Q10 Which of the following is a wrong description of binding energy of a nucleus?
(a) It is the energy required to break a nucleus into its constituent nucleons.
(b) It is the energy made available when free nucleons combine to form a nucleus.
(c) It is the sum of the rest mass energies of its nucleons minus the rest mass energy of the nucleus.
(d) It is the sum of the kinetic energy of all the nucleons in the nucleus.
ANS (d) It is the sum of the kinetic energy of all the nucleons in the nucleus.
Q11 During a nuclear fission reaction,
(a) a heavy nucleus breaks into two fragments by itself
(b) a light nucleus bombarded by thermal neutrons breaks up
(c) a heavy nucleus bombarded by thermal neutrons breaks up
(d) two light nuclei combine to give a heavier nucleus and possibly other products.
ANS (c) a heavy nucleus bombarded by thermal neutrons breaks up
Q12 The radius of a spherical nucleus as measured by electron scattering is 3.6 fm. What is the mass
number of the nucleus most likely to be?
(a) 27
(b) 40
(c) 56
(d) 120
ANS (a) 27
Q13 Which of the following quantities is not conserved in a nuclear reaction?
(a) Mass
(b) Charge
(c) Momentum
(d) None of the above
ANS (a) Mass
120
Q14 Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 8:125. What is the ratio of their nuclear radii?
ANS As 0
1 3 8 1 3
So ( ) (125) 2 5
Q15 Calculate the energy released in MeV in the following nuclear reaction:
238 234 4
92 90 2 𝑄
238
Mass of 92 = 238.05079 amu
Mass of 234
90 = 234.043630 amu
Mass of 42 = 4.002600 amu
1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2
ANS Using the given data
238 ) 234 ) 4 )
92 90 2
Energy released
2
𝑄
238 ) 234 ) 4 ) 2
𝑄 92 90 2
2
𝑄 238.05079 𝑢 234.043630 𝑢 4.002600 𝑢
2
𝑄 0.00456 𝑢
2 2
𝑄 0.00456 × 931
𝑄 4.25
Q16 (a) The mass of a nucleus in its ground state is always less than the total mass of its constituents –
neutrons and protons. Explain.
(b) Plot a graph showing the variation of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their
separation.
ANS (a) The mass of a nucleus in ground state is always less than the total mass of its constituent’s
neutrons and protons; because this mass difference appears in the form of binding energy to
hold the nucleons inside the nucleus.
(b)
121
Q17 A heavy nucleus X of mass number 240 and binding energy per nucleon 7.6 MeV is split into two
fragments Y and Z of mass numbers 110 and 130. The binding energy of nucleons in Y and Z is 8.5
MeV per nucleon. Calculate the energy Q released per fission in MeV.
ANS Binding energy of parent nuclei = 240x7.6 MeV = 1824 MeV
Binding energy of daughter nuclei = (130x8.5 + 110x8.5) MeV = 2040 MeV
Energy Released = Q = 2040 MeV – 1824 MeV = 216 MeV
Q18 If both the number of protons and neutrons in a nuclear reaction is conserved, in what way is mass
converted into energy (or vice versa)?
ANS In nuclear reactions, the numbers of proton and neutron is conserved and so is their rest mass on
either side. However, the total binding energy on either side is not necessarily same and this
difference in the binding energy of the reaction is released or absorbed in the form of energy.
Q19 Calculate the energy in fusion reaction :
2 2 3 1
1 1 2 0
Binding Energy of 21 = 2.23 MeV and of 32 = 7.73 MeV.

ANS Energy released = Q = BE( 32 ) – 2BE( 21 ) = 7.73 MeV – 2x2.23 MeV = 3.27 MeV
Q20 Write two characteristic features of nuclear force.
ANS Two characteristic features of nuclear force:
(i) They are short range forces: This means that the effect of such forces cannot be
experienced beyond a certain range.
(ii) They are identical for all nucleons: This means that nuclear forces do not depend on the
charge of the particle.
Q21 Distinguish between nuclear fission and fusion. Explain how the energy is released in both the
processes.
ANS In nuclear fission a heavy nucleus breaks up into smaller nuclei accompanied by release of energy;
whereas in nuclear fusion two light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus accompanied by
release of energy.
In both cases the nuclear mass of reactants is slightly more than the nuclear mass of products. This
difference of mass, which is known as mass defect( ), is converted into energy according to the
relation :
2
Q22 (a)Write the relation for binding energy (BE) (in MeV) of a nucleus of , where atomic number (Z)
and mass number (A) in terms of the masses of its constituents – neutrons and protons.
(b) Draw a plot of BE/A versus mass number A for 2 ≤ A ≤ 170. Use this graph to explain the release
of energy in the process of nuclear fusion of two light nuclei.
122
ANS
) ) 2
(a) Binding Energy =
Where is mass of proton and is mass of neutron and c is speed of light.

(b)
From the binding energy curve we can see that when we move from lighter nuclei to heavier nuclei,
we find that there will be gain in overall binding energy per nucleons and hence release of energy.
This indicates that energy can be released when two lighter nuclei fuse together to form heavy
nucleus in nuclear fusion.
Q23 Draw a plot of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation. Write two
important conclusions which you can draw regarding the nature of nuclear forces.
ANS
(i) The nuclear force between two nucleons falls rapidly to zero as their distance increases more than
a few femtometres.
(ii) For a separation greater than r0, the force is attractive and for separation less than r0, the force is
strongly repulsive.
123
Q24 Draw a plot of the binding energy per nucleon as a function of mass number for a large number of
nuclei, 2 ≤ A ≤ 240. How do you explain the constancy of binding energy per nucleon in the range 30
< A < 170 using the property that nuclear force is short-ranged?
ANS
The nuclear force is a short-range force. The nuclear force between the nucleons falls to zero if the
distance between the nucleons is more than a few femtometers. This results in the constant value of
binding energy for large size nuclei. Therefore, the binding energy will remain constant between
mass numbers 30 to 170.
Q25 Find the binding energy per nucleon of 197
79 𝑢 if its atomic mass is 196.96 amu.
ANS For 197

79 𝑢
Z=79
A=197
m( 197
79 𝑢 ) = 196.96 amu.
) ) 2
Binding Energy =
So
2
79 × 1.007276 𝑢 197 79)1.008665 𝑢 196.96 𝑢
2
∴ 1.637274 𝑢
2 2
∴ 1.637274 × 931
∴ 1524.30
124
Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple circuits
1. Assertion: The number of electrons in a P-type silicon semiconductor is less than the number of
electrons in a pure silicon semiconductor at room temperature.
Reason: It is due to the law of mass action.
A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
D) If the assertion and reason both are false.
E) If the assertion is false but the reason is true.
Ans. A
2. Assertion: The electrical conductivity of n-type semiconductor is higher than that of p-type
semiconductor at a given temperature and voltage applied.
Reason: The mobility of electrons is higher than that of holes.
A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
D) If the assertion and reason both are false.
E) If the assertion is false but the reason is true.
Ans. A
3. In the following circuit:
(I) Explain the flow of the current through resistor R, when an alternating voltage source is applied
across the ends A and C.
(ii) Can we use the above given circuit to convert AC to DC?
Ans. (i) When an AC signal is applied across the given circuit, terminal A becomes positive during the
positive half cycle while terminal C becomes negative. This results in diodes D 1 and D2 becoming
forward biased while D3 and D4 becoming reverse biased.
The current flow through resistor R during the positive half cycle is from B to D.
125
During the negative half-cycle, terminal C becomes positive while terminal A becomes negative. This
causes diodes D3 and D4 to become forward biased and diode D1 and D2 to be reverse biased.
The current flow through resistor R during the negative half cycle is from B to D.
(ii) Yes, we can use this circuit to convert AC into DC.
4. Two identical p-n junctions may be connected in series with a battery in three different ways as
shown in the circuit diagrams. In which circuit diagram, will the potential drop across the p-n
junctions be equal? Explain.
Ans. Potential difference is equal in Circuits 2 and 3.
5. P-N junction is a single crystal of Ge or Si doped in such a manner that one-half portion of it acts as p-
type semiconductor and other half functions as n-type semiconductor. As soon as a p-n junction is
formed, the holes from the p-region diffuse into the n-region and electrons from the n region diffuse
into the p-region. This results in the development of VB across the junction which opposes the
further diffusion of electrons and holes through the junction.
5.1 In an intrinsic semiconductor, if Ne is the number of electrons in the conduction band and N p is
the number of holes in the valence band, then
(a) Ne > Np (b) Ne = Np (c) Ne < N (d) None of the above
5.2 To make a p-type semiconductor, an intrinsic semiconductor is doped with _______. (a) gallium
or indium
(b) arsenic or phosphorus
(c) aluminum or boron
(d) Both (a) and (c )
5.3 The process of introducing impurities in small quantities into an intrinsic semiconductor is
called………………. .
126
5.4 In the depletion region of unbiased p-n junction,
(a) it is vacant of charge carriers
(b) has only electrons
(c ) has only holes
(d) p-n junction has a weak electric field.
5.5 Electron hole recombination in p-n junction may lead to emission of

(a) light
(b) UV rays
(c ) sound
(d) Radioactive rays.
Ans.
5.1- b, 5.2- d, 5.3- doping, 5.4- a and 5.5- b
6. A band gap is the distance between the valence band of electrons and the conduction band.
Essentially, the band gap represents the minimum energy that is required to excite an electron up to
a state in the conduction band where it can participate in conduction. The lower energy level is the
valence band, and thus if a gap exists between this level and the higher energy conduction band,
energy must be input for electrons to become free. The size and existence of this band gap allows
one to visualize the difference between conductors, semiconductors, and insulators. These distances
can be seen in diagrams known as band diagrams, shown in Fig. below.
6.1 What is the value of the forbidden gap of insulator and semiconductor?
6.2 Where are the free electrons present in the semiconductor?
6.3 Arrange the following semiconductors in the increasing order of their energy gap.
Te(tellurium), Ge(germanium) and Si(silicon)
6.4 The conduction band of a solid X is partially filled at absolute temperature. Will X be a conductor,
a semiconductor or an insulator?
127
Ans.
6.1- In insulator, energy gap is > 3 eV
In conductor, separation between conduction and valence bands is zero and in the insulator, it is
greater than 1 eV. Hence in semiconductors the separation between conduction and valence band is
1 eV.
6.2- Conduction band
6.3- Si < Ge < Te
6.4- X will be conductor
7. When the diode is forward biased, it is found that beyond forward voltage V = V k, called knee
voltage, the conductivity is very high. At this value of battery biasing for p-n junction, the potential
barrier is overcome and the current increases rapidly with increase in forward voltage. When the
diode is reversing biased, the reverse bias voltage produces a very small current about a few
microamperes which almost remains constant with bias. This small current is reverse saturation
current.
7.1 In the following figure, which of the p-n diode(s) is(are) forward or reverse biased.
7.2 In the following circuit diagram, what are the values recorded by the ammeter and the voltmeter
if the potential across the diode is 1 V? (Assume that ammeter and voltmeter are ideal instruments.)
7.3 The circuit shown in the figure contains two diodes each with a forward resistance of 50 Ω and
with infinite backward resistance. If the battery voltage is 6V, then find the value of current through
the 100 Ω resistances.
128
Ans.
7.1- D1 is reverse biased and D2 is forward biased.
7.2- 0.225 A, 4.5 V
7.3- 0.02 A
8. A rectifier is an electrical device that converts alternating current (ac), which periodically reverses
direction, to direct current (dc), which flows in only one direction. The reverse operation is
performed by the inverter. The process is known as rectification. From V-I characteristics of a
junction diode we see that it allows current to pass only when it is forward biased. So, if an
alternating voltage is applied across a diode the current flows only in that part of the cycle when the
diode is forward biased. This property of diode is used to rectify alternating voltage and the circuit
used for this purpose is said to be a rectifier. If an alternating voltage is applied across a diode in
series with a load, a pulsating voltage will appear across the load only during half cycles of the ac
input during which diode is forward biased; such type of rectifier circuit is said to be half-wave
rectifier. The circuit using two diodes gives output rectified voltage corresponding to both the
positive as well as negative half cycle. Hence, it is known as a full-wave rectifier. For a full-wave
rectifier the secondary of the transformer is provided with a center tapping and so it is called centre-
tap transformer. The voltage rectified by the each diode is only half the total secondary voltage. Each
diode rectifies only for half the cycle, but the two do so for alternate cycles. Thus, the output
between their common terminals and the centre-tap of the transformer becomes a full-wave
rectified output.
8.1 To reduce the ripples in a rectifier circuit with capacitor filter
a. R should be increased
b. capacitors with high capacitance should be used
c. input frequency should be increased
d. all of the above
129
8.2 In a full-wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz main frequency, the fundamental frequency
in the ripple would be
(a) 25 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 75 Hz
(d) 100 Hz
8.3 In figure shown, the input is across the terminals A and C and the output is across B and D then
the output is
(a) same as the input

(b) full wave rectified
(c) half wave rectified
(d) zero
8.4 In a full wave rectifier, the input ac has a rms value of 12 V. The transformer used is a step up one
having a transformation ratio 1:2. The dc voltage in the rectified output is
(a) 20.9 V
(b) 21 V
(c) 21.6 V
(d) 22 V
8.5 A p-n junction (D) shown in the figure can act as a rectifier. An alternating current source (V) is
connected in the circuit. The current(I) in the resistor(R) can be shown by
Ans.
8.1-d, 8.2-d, 8.3-b, 8.4-c and 8.5-c
130
The impurity atom with which pure Si should be doped to make a p-type semiconductor is
9
a. Phosphorus
b. Boron
c. Antimony
d. arsenic
Ans. (b)
10 Holes are charge carriers in
a. ionic solids
b. p-type semiconductor
c. metals
d. Electrolytic solutions
Ans. (b)
11 Which of the following is not true?
a. The resistance of intrinsic semiconductors decreases with increase of temperature.
b. Doping pure Si with trivalent impurities gives p-type semiconductor.
c. The majority carriers in n-type semiconductors are holes.
d. The p-n junction can act as a semiconductor diode.
Ans. (c)
12 A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
resistance of :
a. Each of them increases
b. Each of them decreases
c. Copper increases and germanium decreases
d. Copper decreases and germanium increases
Ans. (d)
13 The unidirectional flow of current through p-n junction makes it ideal to be used as
a. an oscillator
b. a modulator
c. a rectifier
d. a resistor
Ans. (c)
131
14 What is meant by forward and reverse biasing of a p-n junction? Draw the circuit diagram of a
forward and reverse biasing of a p-n junction.
Ans. (i) Forward biasing: When the positive terminal of the external battery is connected to the p-
side and negative terminal to the n-side, then the p-n junction is said to be forward biased.
(ii) Reverse biasing: When the positive terminal of an external battery is connected to n-side and
negative terminal to the p-side, then the p-n junction is said to be reverse biased.
15 Describe briefly: (i) ‘minority carrier injection’ in forward bias (ii) ‘Breakdown voltage’ in reverse bias.
Ans. (i) Minority carrier injection in forward bias: During forward bias, electrons from n-side cross the
junction and reach p-side. (Where they are minority carriers). Similarly, holes from p-side cross the
junction and reach the n-side (where they are minority carriers). This process is known as minority
carrier injection.
(ii) Breakdown voltage in reverse bias: At very high reverse voltage, the current suddenly increases
and becomes independent of applied voltage. This critical voltage is called breakdown voltage.
16 Write the two processes that take place in the formation of p-n junction. Explain with the help of a
diagram, the formation of depletion region and barrier potential in a p-n junction.
132
Ans.
Two processes which occur during the formation of a p-n junction are diffusion and drift. Due to the
concentration gradient across p and n-sides of the junction, holes diffuse from p-side to n-side (p →
n) and electrons diffuse from n-side to p-side (n → p). This movement of charge carriers leaves
behind ionized acceptors (negative charge immobile) on the p-side and donors (positive charge
immobile) on the n-side of the junction. This space charge region on either side of the junction
together is known as depletion region. The loss of electrons from the n-region and the gain of
electrons by the p-region cause a difference of potential across the junction of the two regions. The
polarity of this potential is such as to oppose further flow of charge carriers across the junction so
that a condition of equilibrium exists. Since this potential tends to prevent the movement of
electrons from the n-region into the p-region, it is called a barrier potential.
17 A semiconductor has equal electron and hole concentrations of 2 × 10 8/m3. On doping with a certain
impurity, the hole concentration increases to 4 × 1010/m3.
(i) What type of semiconductor is obtained from doping?
(ii) Calculate the new electron concentration of the semiconductor.
(iii) How does the energy gap vary with doping?
Ans. (I) as on doping the hole concentration has increased, the doped semiconductor is a p-type
semiconductor.
(ii) As ni = 2 × 108/m3 and nh = 4 × 1010/m3.
From the relation ne .nh = ni2, we get, ne
= ni2/nh = (2 × 108 )2 /4 × 1010 = 106/m3.
(iii) The energy gap decreases with doping.
18 Explain the terms ‘depletion layer’ and the ‘potential barrier’ in a p-n junction diode. How are the (a)
width of depletion layer, and (b) value of potential barrier affected when p-n junction is forward
biased?
Ans. Depletion layer is a region created around the p-n junction which is vacant of free charge
133
carriers and has immobile ions. It is created due to diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
when p-n junction is formed.
Potential barrier is a potential difference or junction voltage developed across the junction due to
migration of majority carriers across it when p-n junction is formed. It opposes the further migration
of majority carriers across the p-n junction. It appears as if a fictitious battery is connected across the
p-n junction, with its positive terminal to n-region and negative terminal to p- region of p-n junction.
The value of the potential barrier is 0.3V for Ge and 0.7V for Si semiconductor diode.
The forward bias voltage opposes the potential barrier. Due to it, the potential barrier is reduced and
hence, the width of the depletion layer decreases.
19 Explain with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of p-n junction diodes as half wave rectifiers.
During the positive half cycle of an input signal, the diode is forward biased and it conducts. Hence,
there is current in the load resistance and we get an output voltage. During the negative half cycle
of an input signal, the diode is reverse-biased and it does not conduct. Hence, there is no current in
the load resistance and there is no output. Thus, we get the output only for half a cycle of a.c. input
signal.
20 The ratio of number density of free electrons to holes, ne/nh, for three different materials, A, B and C
are equal to one, less than one and more than one respectively. Name the type of semiconductor to
which A, B and C belong. Draw labeled energy band diagrams for the materials.
Ans. (i) The material A is a pure semiconductor.
(ii) The material B is p-type semiconductor.
134
(ii) The material C is n-type semiconductor.
21 Draw V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode. Answer the following questions, giving reasons:
(i) Why is the current under reverse bias almost independent of the applied potential up to a critical
voltage?
(ii) Why does the reverse current show a sudden increase at the critical voltage?
Ans. (i) In the reverse biasing, the current of order of μA is due to movement/drifting of minority
charge carriers from one region to another through the junction.
A small applied voltage is sufficient to sweep the minority charge carriers through the junction. So,
reverse current is almost independent of critical voltage.
(i) At critical voltage (or breakdown Reverse bias voltage), a large number of covalent bonds break,
resulting in the increase of a large number of charge carriers. Hence, current increases at critical
voltage.
135
22 Distinguish between a conductor, an insulator and a semiconductor on the basis of energy band
diagrams.
Ans. Distinction between Conductors (metals), insulators and semiconductors on the basis of Energy
bands.
Conductors (Metals) Semiconductors Insulators
In conductors either In semiconductors, the In insulators, the
conduction or valence band conduction band is empty and conduction band is empty
partly overlap each other or the valence band is totally filled. and the valence band is
the conduction band is It is quite small (Eg<3 eV). At, totally filled. It is very large
partially filled. Forbidden electrons are not able to cross (Eg >3 eV). It is not possible
energy gap does not exist (Eg ≈ this energy gap and the to give such a large
0 eV). This makes a large semiconductor behaves as an amount of energy to
number of free electrons insulator. But at room electrons by any means.
available for electrical temperature, some electrons Hence the conduction
conduction. So the metals are able to jump to the band remains totally
have high conductivity. conduction band and the empty and the crystal
semiconductor acquires small remains as insulator.
conductivity.
23 Explain with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of p-n junction diodes as full wave rectifiers.
Also draw the input an output waveform.
Rectification: Rectification means conversion of ac into dc. A p-n diode acts as a rectifier because an
ac changes polarity periodically and a p-n diode allows the current to pass only when it is forward
biased. This makes the diode suitable for rectification.
136
Circuit Diagram:
Working: The ac input voltage across the secondary coil of the transformer changes polarity after
each half cycle. Suppose during the first half cycle of input ac signal, the terminal A is positive
relative to centre tap and B is negative relative to centre tap. Then diode D1 is forward biased and
diode D2 is reverse biased. Therefore, diode D1 conducts while diode D2 does not. The direction of
current due to diode D1 in load resistance RL is directed from A to B. In the next half cycle, the
terminal A is negative and B is positive relative to the centre tap. The diode D 1 is reverse biased and
diode D2 is forward biased. Therefore, diode D2 conducts while D1 does not. The direction of current
(i2) due to diode D2 in load resistance RL is still from A to B. Thus, the current in load resistance RL is
in the same direction for both half cycles of input ac voltage. Thus, for an input ac signal the output
current is a continuous series of unidirectional pulses.
24 What is a filter? With the help of a circuit diagram describe the role of capacitor in filtering. Draw
input and output waveforms too.
Ans. In the output obtained from a full wave rectifier, the output is unidirectional but does not have
a steady value. To get steady output we use a filter circuit which filters the a.c. ripple and give a pure
d.c. voltage.
137
A capacitor-based filter circuit has been shown in figure. When the voltage across the capacitor is
rising, it gets charged. In the absence of external load, it remains charged to the peak voltage of the
rectified output. But in the presence of a load, the capacitor gets discharged through the load and
the voltage across it begins to fall. In the next half-cycle of rectified output, it again gets charged to
the peak value. If the product of capacitance C and load resistance R is large, then the rate of a fall of
the voltage across the capacitor is slow one. Hence, the output voltage obtained by using a capacitor
input filter is almost equal to the peak. Voltage of the rectified output if the value of capacitance C
and R is high enough. The input and filtered output waveforms have been shown in figure.
25 (a) Distinguish between an intrinsic semiconductor and a p-type semiconductor. Give reason why a
p-type semiconductor is electrically neutral, although nh >> ne
(b) Explain how the heavy doping of both p-and n-sides of a p-n junction diode results in the electric
field of the junction being extremely high even with a reverse bias voltage of a few volts.
Ans. (a)
Intrinsic Semiconductor P-type semiconductor
It is a semiconductor in pure form. It is a semiconductor doped with trivalent
(like Al, In) impurity.
Intrinsic charge carriers are electrons Majority charge carriers are holes and
and holes with equal concentration. minority charge carriers are electrons.
Current due to charge carriers is Current due to charge carriers is
weak (of the order of μA) significant (of the order of mA)
138
P-type semiconductor is electrically neutral because every atom, whether it is of pure semiconductor
(Ge or Si) or of impurity (Al) is electrically neutral.
(b)If p-type and n-type semiconductor are heavily doped. Then due to diffusion of electrons from
n-region to p-region, and of holes from p-region to n-region, a depletion region formed of size of
order less than I μm. The electric field directing from n-region to p-region produces a reverse bias
voltage of about 5 V and the electric field becomes very large.
5
E= 5 × 106
1
**************************************************************
139

Physics Class XII Question Bank 2022-23

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QUESTION BANK/SUPPORT MATERIAL

pattern that could appear in the CBSE Examination.

Sh. Yeshdeep Rohilla

1. SYLLABUS (THEORY) 70 1-4

3. Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields 6 -19

4. Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 16 20 -28

5. Chapter–3: Current Electricity 29 -35

6. Chapter–4: Moving Charges and 36 -44

7. Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter 45-53

9. Chapter–7: Alternating Current 66 -76

10. Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves 77 -82

11. Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 83 -93

13. Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 104 -110

14. Chapter–12: Atoms 12 111 -114

15. Chapter–13: Nuclei 115 -124

16. Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, 125 -139

Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields

multiple charges; superposition principle and continuous charge distribution.

dipole, torque on a dipole in uniform electric field.

Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

dipole in an electrostatic field.

(no derivation, formulae only).

Unit II: Current Electricity

Chapter–3: Current Electricity

Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism

Concept of magnetic field, Oersted's experiment.

force on a moving charge in uniform magnetic and electric fields.

conversion to ammeter and voltmeter.

Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter

of materials, effect of temperature on magnetic properties.

Unit IV: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction

Chapter–7: Alternating Current

Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves

(qualitative idea only).

including elementary facts about their uses.

Unit VI: Optics

Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Chapter–10: Wave Optics

Unit VII: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

particles, de-Broglie relation.

Composition and size of nucleus, nuclear force

fission, nuclear fusion.

Unit IX: Electronic Devices

Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits

semiconductors- p and n type, p-n junction

S. No. List of Experiments Month

(a) 4 (b) 1/4

2. The SI unit of electric flux is

3. Which of the following statements is not true about Gauss’s law?

5. Corona discharge takes place:

6. Quantisation of charge implies:

i. The cause of a charging is:

SHORT ANSWER/ LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

= Permittivity of free space

in the direction of PB.

∵ cos θ = a/(r2+a2)1/2 and q 2a = p

For stable equilibrium P is along E

Electric field intensity at P due to +q charge is

Electric field intensity at P due to -q charge is,

(b) For unstable equilibrium, the angle between p and E is 180°