केंद्रीय विद्यालय संगठन

संभाग स्तरीय दो ददिसीय काययशाला

(जबलपरु संभाग)
क्षमता ननमायण काययशाला /
Capacity Building Workshop for PGTs
ददनांक -16 अक्टूबर 2023 एिं 17 अक्टूबर 2023
विषय - भौनतक विज्ञान
 OUR PATRON
MR. SOMIT SHRIVASTAVA,
DEPUTY COMMISSIONER, KVS,RO,JABALPUR

MR HEERA LAL MRS. SAROJ DABAS

ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, KVS, RO, JABALPUR ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, KVS, RO, JABALPUR

MR. Y K SOLANKI,
VENUE DIRECTOR & PRINCIPAL,
PM SHRI KV COD JABALPUR,

- : RESOURCE PERSONS : -

MRS. KALPANA THAKUR MS. SANGEETA UMRE

PGT (PHYSICS), PM SHRI KV O.F. KHAMARIA, JABALPUR PGT (PHYSICS), PM SHRI KV O.F. KHAMARIA, JABALPUR

- : COORDINATORS : -

MR. S K MISHRA MR. R K RAJAPATI

PGT (PHYSICS), PM SHRI KV NO.2 GCF, PGT (PHYSICS), PM SHRI KV COD,
JABALPUR JABALPUR
 LIST OF PARTICIPANTS
क्र प्रनतभागी का नाम केन्द्द्रीय विद्यालय

1 प्रदीप कुमार कोशले बालाघाट

2 राम ककशोरी अग्रवाल बरकुही
3 प्रमोद कुमार मेश्राम बरकुही
4 कोष्ठा छ िं दवाड़ा (प्रथम पाली)
5 सुरेश कुमार दब
ु े छ िं दवाड़ा (द्ववतीय पाली)
6 अछिल कुमार राम ढािा
7 एस एि पटले क्र 1 जी सी एफ
8 सिंगीत उमरे क्र 2 जी सी एफ
9 सुिील कुमार ममश्रा क्र 2 जी सी एफ
10 कल्पिा रािी ठाकुर आयुध छिमााणी खमररया
11 अपाण सोिी आयुध छिमााणी खमररया
12 िीलम वाही वाहि छिमााणी जबलपरु
13 अ य कुमार पािंडे वाहि छिमााणी जबलपरु
14 ददलीप चिंद झा एि के जे कटिी
15 युगल ककशोर भगत मलाजखण्ड
16 सत्येंद्र कुमार सोिी मण्डला
17 दहिा दब
ु े िरमसिंहपुर
18 श्रीगोपाल क्र 1 रीवा
19 आर जी गोस्वामी क्र 1 सागर
20 अजय कुमार उपाध्याय क्र 1 सागर
21 अछिल श्रीवास्तव क्र 2 सागर
22 रीिा रािी क्र 3 सागर
23
24 ताममसिंह रहिं गड़ाले मसविी
25 मिीष कुमार ममश्रा सीधी
26 आर के प्रजापछत सी ओ डी जबलपुर
27
28
 INDEX
CLASS – XI (SESSION 2023-24)
Unit NAME OF CHAPTERS PAGE NO.
Unit–I Physical World and
Measurement
Chapter–2: Units and
Measurements
Unit-II Kinematics
Chapter–3: Motion in a
Straight Line
Chapter–4: Motion in a Plane
Unit–III Laws of Motion
Chapter–5: Laws of Motion
Unit–IV Work, Energy and Power
Chapter–6: Work, Energy and
Power
Unit–V Motion of System of
Particles and RigidBody
Chapter–7: System of Particles
andRotational Motion
Unit-VI Gravitation
Chapter–8: Gravitation
Unit–VII Properties of Bulk Matter
Chapter–9: Mechanical
Properties of Solids
Chapter–10: Mechanical
Properties of Fluids
Chapter–11: Thermal
Properties of Matter
Unit–VIII Thermodynamics
Chapter–12: Thermodynamics
Unit–IX Behaviour of Perfect
Gases and KineticTheory
of Gases
Chapter–13: Kinetic Theory
Unit–X Oscillations and Waves
Chapter–14: Oscillations
Chapter–15: Waves
 CLASS – XII (SESSION 2023-24)
Unit NAME OF CHAPTERS PAGE NO.
Unit–I Electrostatics
Chapter–1: Electric Charges
and Fields
Chapter–2: Electrostatic
Unit-II Potential andCapacitance
Current Electricity
Chapter–3: Current Electricity
Unit-III Magnetic Effects of
Current and Magnetism
Chapter–4: Moving Charges
and Magnetism
Chapter–5: Magnetism and
Unit-IV Matter
Electromagnetic Induction
and AlternatingCurrents
Chapter–6: Electromagnetic
Induction
Chapter–7: Alternating
Current
Unit–V Electromagnetic Waves
Chapter–8: Electromagnetic
Waves
Unit–VI Optics
Unit–VII Chapter–9: Ray Optics and
OpticalInstruments
Chapter–10: Wave Optics
Dual Nature of Radiation
and Matter
Chapter–11: Dual Nature of
Unit–VIII Radiation andMatter
Atoms and Nuclei
Chapter–12: Atoms
Chapter–13: Nuclei
Unit–IX Electronic Devices
Chapter–14:
Semiconductor
Electronics: Materials, Devices
andSimple Circuits
 COURSE STRUCTURE – CLASS XI
Unit I: Physical World and Measurement

Chapter–2: Units and Measurements

Need for measurement: Units of measurement; systems of

units; SI units, fundamental and derived units. significant
figures. Dimensions of physical quantities, dimensional
analysis and its applications.

Unit II: Kinematics

Chapter–3: Motion in a Straight Line

Frame of reference, Motion in a straight line, Elementary

concepts of differentiation and integration for describing
motion, uniform and non- uniform motion, and
instantaneous velocity, uniformly accelerated motion,
velocity - time and position-time graphs. Relations for
uniformly accelerated motion (graphical treatment).
Chapter–4: Motion in a Plane

Scalar and vector quantities; position and displacement

vectors, general vectors and their notations; equality of
vectors, multiplication of vectors by a real number;
addition and subtraction of vectors, Unit vector;
resolution of a vector in a plane, rectangular
components, Scalar and Vector product of vectors.

Motion in a plane, cases of uniform velocity and uniform

acceleration- projectile motion, uniform circular
motion.
Unit III: Laws of Motion

Chapter–5: Laws of Motion

Intuitive concept of force, Inertia, Newton's first law of

motion; momentum and Newton's second law of
motion; impulse; Newton's third law of motion.

Law of conservation of linear momentum and its applications.

Equilibrium of concurrent forces, Static and kinetic friction,
laws of friction, rolling friction, lubrication.

Dynamics of uniform circular motion: Centripetal force,

examples of circular motion (vehicle on a level circular
road, vehicle on a banked road).

Unit IV: Work, Energy and Power

Chapter–6: Work, Energy and Power

Work done by a constant force and a variable force;
kinetic energy, work- energy theorem, power.

Notion of potential energy, potential energy of a spring,

conservative forces: non-conservative forces, motion in
a vertical circle; elastic and inelastic collisions in one
and two dimensions.

Unit V: Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Body

Chapter–7: System of Particles and Rotational Motion

Centre of mass of a two-particle system, momentum

conservation and
Centre of mass motion. Centre of mass of a rigid body;
centre of mass of a uniform rod.
Moment of a force, torque, angular momentum,
law of conservation of angular momentum and
its applications.

Equilibrium of rigid bodies, rigid body rotation and

equations of rotational motion, comparison of linear
 and rotational motions.

Moment of inertia, radius of gyration, values of

moments of inertia for simple geometrical objects (no
derivation).

Unit VI: Gravitation

Chapter–8: Gravitation

Kepler's laws of planetary motion, universal law of

gravitation.
Acceleration due to gravity and its variation with altitude and
depth. Gravitational potential energy and gravitational
potential, escape speed, orbital velocity of a satellite.

Unit VII: Properties of Bulk Matter

Chapter–9: Mechanical Properties of Solids

Elasticity, Stress-strain relationship, Hooke's law,

Young’s modulus, bulk modulus, shear modulus of
rigidity (qualitative idea only), Poisson's ratio;
elastic energy.
Chapter–10: Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Pressure due to a fluid column; Pascal's law and its

applications (hydraulic lift and hydraulic brakes), effect
of gravity on fluid pressure.

Viscosity, Stokes' law, terminal velocity, streamline and

turbulent flow, critical velocity, Bernoulli's theorem and
its simple applications.

Surface energy and surface tension, angle of contact,

excess of pressure across a curved surface, application of
surface tension ideas to drops, bubbles and capillary rise.
Chapter–11: Thermal Properties of Matter

Heat, temperature, thermal expansion; thermal

expansion of solids, liquids and gases, anomalous
expansion of water; specific heat capacity; Cp, Cv -
calorimetry; change of state - latent heat capacity.

Heat transfer-conduction, convection and radiation,

thermal conductivity, qualitative ideas of Blackbody
radiation, Wein's displacement Law, Stefan's law .

Unit VIII: Thermodynamics

Chapter–12: Thermodynamics

Thermal equilibrium and definition of temperature,

zeroth law of thermodynamics, heat, work and internal
energy. First law of thermodynamics,

Second law of thermodynamics: gaseous state of matter,

change of condition of gaseous state -isothermal,
adiabatic, reversible, irreversible, and cyclic processes.

Unit IX:Behavior of Perfect Gases and Kinetic Theory of Gases

Chapter–13: Kinetic Theory

Equation of state of a perfect gas, work done in compressing

a gas.

Kinetic theory of gases - assumptions, concept of

pressure. Kinetic interpretation of temperature; rms
speed of gas molecules; degrees of freedom, law of
equi-partition of energy (statement only) and
application to specific heat capacities of gases; concept
of mean free path, Avogadro's number.

Unit X: Oscillations and Waves

Chapter–14: Oscillations
Periodic motion - time period, frequency, displacement
as a function of time, periodic functions and their
 applications.

Simple harmonic motion (S.H.M) and its equations of

motion; phase; oscillations of a loaded spring- restoring
force and force constant; energy in S.H.M.
Kinetic and potential energies; simple pendulum
derivation of expression for its time period.

Chapter–15: Waves

Wave motion: Transverse and longitudinal waves, speed

of travelling wave, displacement relation for a
progressive wave, principle of superposition of waves,
reflection of waves, standing waves in strings and organ
pipes, fundamental mode and harmonics, Beats.
 COURSE STRUCTURE – CLASS XII
Unit I: Electrostatics

Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields

Electric charges, Conservation of charge, Coulomb's

law-force between two- point charges, forces between
multiple charges; superposition principle and continuous
charge distribution.

Electric field, electric field due to a point charge, electric

field lines, electric dipole, electric field due to a dipole,
torque on a dipole in uniform electric field.

Electric flux, statement of Gauss's theorem and its

applications to find field due to infinitely long straight
wire, uniformly charged infinite plane sheet and
uniformly charged thin spherical shell (field inside and
outside).

Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Electric potential, potential difference, electric potential

due to a point charge, a dipole and system of charges;
equipotential surfaces, electrical potential energy of a
system of two-point charges and of electric dipole in an
electrostatic field.

Conductors and insulators, free charges and bound

charges inside a conductor. Dielectrics and electric
polarization, capacitors and capacitance, combination of
capacitors in series and in parallel, capacitance of a
parallel plate capacitor with and without dielectric
medium between the plates, energy stored in a
capacitor (no derivation, formulae only).
Unit II: Current Electricity

Chapter–3: Current Electricity

Electric current, flow of electric charges in a metallic

conductor, drift velocity, mobility and their relation with
electric current; Ohm's law, V-I characteristics (linear
and non-linear), electrical energy and power, electrical
resistivity and conductivity, temperature dependence of
resistance, Internal resistance of a cell, potential
difference and emf of a cell, combination of cells in
series and in parallel, Kirchhoff's rules, Wheatstone
bridge.

Unit III: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism

Concept of magnetic field, Oersted's experiment.

Biot - Savart law and its application to current carrying

circular loop.

Ampere's law and its applications to infinitely long

straight wire. Straight solenoid (only qualitative
treatment), force on a moving charge in uniform
magnetic and electric fields.

Force on a current-carrying conductor in a uniform

magnetic field, force between two parallel current-
carrying conductors-definition of ampere, torque
experienced by a current loop in uniform magnetic field;
Current loop as a magnetic dipole and its magnetic
dipole moment, moving coil galvanometer- its current
sensitivity and conversion to ammeter and voltmeter.
 Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter

Bar magnet, bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid

(qualitative treatment only), magnetic field intensity
due to a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) along its axis and
perpendicular to its axis (qualitative treatment only),
torque on a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) in a uniform
magnetic field (qualitative treatment only), magnetic
field lines.

Magnetic properties of materials- Para-, dia-

and ferro - magnetic substances with
examples, Magnetization of materials, effect
of temperature on magnetic properties.
Unit IV: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction

Electromagnetic induction; Faraday's laws, induced EMF and

current; Lenz's Law, Self and mutual induction.

Chapter–7: Alternating Current

Alternating currents, peak and RMS value of alternating

current/voltage; reactance and impedance; LCR series
circuit (phasors only), resonance, power in AC circuits,
power factor, wattless current.
AC generator, Transformer.
Unit V: Electromagnetic waves

Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves

Basic idea of displacement current, Electromagnetic

waves, their characteristics, their transverse nature
(qualitative idea only).

Electromagnetic spectrum (radio waves, microwaves,

infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays)
including elementary facts about their uses.
Unit VI: Optics

Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Ray Optics: Reflection of light, spherical mirrors, mirror

formula, refraction of light, total internal reflection and
optical fibers, refraction at spherical surfaces, lenses,
thin lens formula, lens maker’s formula, magnification,
power of a lens, combination of thin lenses in contact,
refraction of light through a prism.

Optical instruments: Microscopes and astronomical

telescopes (reflecting and refracting) and their
magnifying powers.
Chapter–10: Wave Optics

Wave optics: Wave front and Huygen’s principle,

reflection and refraction of plane wave at a plane surface
using wave fronts. Proof of laws of reflection and
refraction using Huygen’s principle. Interference,
Young's double slit experiment and expression for
fringe width (No derivation final expression only),
coherent sources and sustained interference of light,
diffraction due to a single slit, width of central maxima
(qualitative treatment only).

Unit VII: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Dual nature of radiation, Photoelectric effect,Hertz

and Lenard's observations; Einstein's photoelectric

equation-particle nature of light.

Experimental study of photoelectric effect

Matter waves-wave nature of particles, de-Broglie relation.

Unit VIII: Atoms and Nuclei

 Chapter–12: Atoms

Alpha-particle scattering experiment; Rutherford's

model of atom; Bohr model of hydrogen atom,
Expression for radius of nth possible orbit, velocity and
energy of electron in nth orbit, hydrogen line spectra
(qualitative treatment only).

Chapter–13: Nuclei

Composition and size of nucleus, nuclear force

Mass-energy relation, mass defect; binding energy

per nucleon and its variation with mass number;
nuclear fission, nuclear fusion.
Unit IX: Electronic Devices

Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials,

Devices andSimple Circuits

Energy bands in conductors, semiconductors and insulators

(qualitative
ideas only) Intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors- p and n
type, p-n junction

Semiconductor diode - I-V characteristics in forward and

reverse bias, application of junction diode -diode as a
rectifier.
 Designed and edited by
MR. Y K SOLANKI
VENUE DIRECTOR & PRINCIPAL
PM SHRI KV COD JABALPUR(M.P.)

Tips for securing better marks in exams

Important tips for securing better marks in the forthcoming Examinations

1. Read the questions carefully & set the answers in mind in the 15 min allotted for
reading the question paper.

2. Write the answer precisely & according to the weightage of marks.

3. Before writing the Answer, think over the value points of the question.

4. While Answering numerical ensure whether the answer is written with given
quantities, modified formula and proper unit or not.

5. IF question is asked on diagram, use pencil for drawing instead of pen. Practice for
free hand drawing instead of using drawing instruments.

6. In the beginning such question should be solved about which you know well , so that
unnecessary cutting ,overwriting can be avoided.

7. Write the answers point-wise; Underline important points give the headings with
different ink.

8. Attempt all questions. Don't leave any question unanswered.

9. Memorize all formulae unit wise & chapter-wise. They will help in derivation as well as
solving numerical.

10. Write mathematical formulae & steps in support of your answer.

11. Support your answer with proper reasons and diagram if required.

12 While answering assume that the examiner has to be explained everything but
precisely.

13. Time management is very important. Assign 2 minute to 1 mark, 4 minutes to

2mark,8 minutes to 3 mark and 16 minutes to 5 marks questions.

14. Answers should be crystal clear, no ambiguity is expected.

15. While attempting a numerical write the given quantities, formula with unknown
quantity on the left side and known quantities on the right side, calculation and result
with proper units.

16. While solving derivations remember the starting point, outline and endpoint of the
derivation.

15. Best of luck, always remember "SINCERE EFFORTS IS THE ONLY KEY TO SUCESS"
UNIT-I ELECTROSTATICS
Imp. Topics
• Gauss theorem, proof ,application of linear charge and plane infinite sheet of charge.
• Electric dipoles, dipole field on axis or equator
• Capacitance with dielectric slab/Conducting Slab
• Energy of capacitors and combination of capacitors
• Van de Graf Generator

Capsule for electrostatics

First distinguish whether the question is based on Electric force/Electric field/ Electric potential or
Electric

potential energy and then apply the correct formula accordingly.

To find resultant Vectors Scalars To find resultant of

of quantities quantities 4,5,6
1. Electric force 4.Electric potential
1,2,3 they the algebraic sum of
V=k.q/r these quantities are
require principle
F=Kq1q2/r2 required.These
of superposition relations are to be
& use of sign of 2. Electric field 5.Electric written with
potential Energy
charge is to find sign,and the sign
V=kq1q2/r
direction of 2 represents the
E=F/q0=kq/r
force or field magnitude of
3.Electric dipole 6.Electric flux quantity.
moment
P=2aq Φ =  E.ds or
Φ = E.A

IMPORTANT FORMULAE and KEY POINTS

s.n Physical quantity Formulae Unit Key points
o

1 Coulomb’slaw F=1/4лє0.q1q2/r2 N It is used to find

In any medium electrostatic force
(Magnitude of electrostatic
between two electric
force) F=1/4лєKq1q2/r2 charges
2 Electric field E=lim F/q0 N/C It is used to find
electrostatic field at any
q0→0 point due to electric
charges.

3 Electric dipole moment C.m It tells about the strength

of electric dipole.
P=2aq
4 Dielectric constant No units It tells about the extent to
which a medium can
K or єr influence force between
two charges.
K=є/є0=F0/Fm=Cm/C0

5 Superposition principle It is used to find the

F= F01 + F02 +------ F0n
resultant magnitude and
N
direction of force at a
point due to many electric
charges.

6 Electric field an axial line of For a<<r

an electric dipole ‫ﺍ‬E‫=ﺍ‬2‫ﺍ‬P‫ﺍ‬/4лє0r3
‫ﺍ‬E‫ﺍ =ﺍ‬P‫ﺍ‬2r/4лє0(r2-a2)2

7 Electric field an equitorial For a<<r

line of dipole ‫ﺍ‬E‫= ﺍ‬P/4лє0r3
‫ﺍ‬E‫=ﺍ‬P/4лє0(r2+a2)3/2
8 Torque acting on electric τ &E
dipole τ & P are the pair of
τ= P * E =PEsinθ
vectors ┴ to each other

9 P.E of dipole .1. If θ=0˚ U= -PE i.e, U is

minimum.(stable equilibrium)
U= - P . E
2 . If θ=180˚ U =PE i.e,U is maximum.
= - PEcosθ .(unstable equilibrium)

3. 2 . If θ=90˚ U =0

(unstable equilibrium)

10 P.E of pair of charges System of N charges Joule It is the work done in

U=k∑q1q2/r bringing the charges from
U=∑qjqk/rjk infinity to certain point
with in the electrostatic
I not equal to j
field.

11 Electric flux Nm2/C It is a scalar quantity

ØE= E. ds
 12 Capacitance of parallel plate
capacitor
13 Capacitance of parallel plate
capacitor with a dielectric
medium of constant K
C= є0A/d With conducting slab of thickness t
C = є0A/(d-t)
C= Kє0A/d With DielectricSlab of thickness t
introduced between the plates
C = є0A/(d-t+t/k)

14 Energy stored in capacitor Energy density

E=1/2cv2 u=1/2є0E2 It is the energy stored

per unit volume.
=Q2/2c=1/2Qv

Important concepts
Type of electric charges:

Positive(vitrerous)charges:Acquired by glass rod ,wool, fur,dry hair etc.

Negative(resinous)charges:Acquired by amber,ebonite,silk,plastic rubber etc.

Methods of charging:
Charging by friction (by rubbing one body with another )

Charging by conduction (by bringing one body in contact with another body)

Charging by induction (by bringing charged body near an uncharged body)

Important properties of electric charges

Quantisation of charge :The total charge on a body is the integral multiple of fundamental
electronic charge,and charges are discrete in nature.Q = +_ne

Conservation of charge : The total charge of an isolated system remains constant.

Additive nature of charge: The charges follow scalar algebra.

Electric lines of forces:They are the lines or curves which represent the strength of
electric field and represent the path of a test charge,when placed in an electric field.
 Electric dipole has equal & opposite charges

+q -q
Disimilar charges does not have equal but

+4q -2q opposite charges

GAUSS THEOREM ØE=  E. ds = q/ є0

Gaussian surface should be drawn with different ink .
Spherical charge at the centre cubical Gaussian surface

charge

If charge +Q is stored at the centre of a cubical gaussian surface the total flux coming out
of each

face is 1/6 q/ є0 .

Applications of Gauss Theorem

• Electric field due to a linear charge E = /2лє0R
• Electric field due to a plane infinite sheet of charge of negligible thickness E =  /2 є0
• Electric field due to a plane infinite sheet of charge of uniform thickness E =  / є0

Capacitors :
• A capacitor is a device which is used to store electric charges
• It stores energy in the form of electric field.Capacitors are used in tuning radios,TV
transmitters and receivers,LC oscillatory circuits etc.

• The purpose of introducing second plate and earthing is to lower the potential and
increase
the capacitance.of the capacitor.

• By introducing a dielectric medium of dielectric constant K the capacitance increases

by a factor of K
• C= є0A/d (air/vacuum filled) C= K є0A/d(filled with a dielectric)
• By introducing a conducting slab of thickness t also the capacitance increases.
 For capacitor in parallel For capacitor in SERIES

C=C1+C2+--------- 1/C =1/C1 +1/C2 +1/C3 + --

E=1/2CV2 Energy- E = q2/2C

as V is constant as Q is constant.

Electrostatic shielding→Hollow conductors provide electrostatic shielding by the properties of

conductors E in the interior of a hollow conductor is zero. Faraday cages - Provide electrostatic

shielding to delicate instruments from strong electric fields.

UNIT II (CURRENT ELECTRICITY )

Imp Topics
Ohm’s Law , Deduction of Ohms’s Law, resistivity , drift velocity,Variation of resistivity with
temperature, Combination of resistences & numericals, Kirchoff’s Law (Numericals)
,Leclanche cell, , Solid State cells or Button cells,Potentiometer, Comparision of emf of two
cells,Wheatstone Bridge Principle. Sebeck Effect ,Neutral temp Tn , Temp. of inversion Ti .

Imp Formulae and concepts:

S.NO Physical quantity Formulae Unit Key points

1 Electric Current I= Q/t ampere It is a scalar quantity

2 EMF E =  E .dL volt It is the maximum potential diff. between the

electrodes of a cell in open circuit.

3 Drift Velocity vd = -eE  /m = m/s vd (drift velocity) = 10 -5 m/s,

I/neA
vt (thermal velocity) = 10 +5 m/s,

4 Resistance . R = V/I = ml / . If a wire is stretched to double its length is new

ne2 A =  l /A resistance becomes 4 times as length is
doubled and area of cross section is halved.

If new length of a wire is taken to double its

length is new resistance becomes 2 times as
length is doubled and area of cross section is
unaffected.

5 Resistivity  = m /n e 2   -m Resistivity is the resistance per unit length per unit

cross sectional area of a conductor.

A wire is stretched to double its length is new resistivity

remains unchanged as  is independent of length and
area of cross section .

6 Conductance S= 1/R Mho or It is reciprocal of resistance

siemen.
7 Conductivity  = 1 / . siemen/ Conductivity is reciprocal of resistivity
metre

8 Temperature  = ( R t - R 0) / For metals  is positive

coefficient of R 0 t.
resistance K -1 For insulators and semiconductors  is
negative.

For alloys like eureka,constantan,and

manganin  is small and resistivity is
high,therefore they are used to make
standard resistance coils

9 Internal r = (E –V) R Internal resistance of a cell is the resistance provided by

Resistance the electrodes and electrolytes of the cell itself in the
V electric circuit.It is normally small, less than 1  .

10 Electric power P= V I = I2 R = watt Electric power= Electric energy x Time.

V2 /R
6
11 Electric energy E=PxT kwh 1 Kwh = 3.6 x 10 joules.

kwh is also called BOTU(Board of Trade Unit

)

12 Joules law of H = I2 R t joules It tells about the heat dissipated in a

heating resistance.

14 Neutral temp.  n = ( i+ c)/2 K It is the temp of hot jn at which thermo emf is

maximum.  n depends on nature of
material and is independent of temp of cold
junction

15 Temp. of i K It is the temp of hot jn at which thermo emf is

inversion zero and beyond which it reverses its sign.  i
depends on the temp of cold junction.

16 Current density j = I/A It is a vector quantity.

17 mobility µ = vd /E It is drift velocity per unit electric field

18 Potential V = VA-VB It is difference of potential between any two points in

difference an electric circuit.

Imp Concepts:
• The heater wire has high resistivity and high melting point. eg nichrome.
• The fuse wire has high resistivity and low melting point.eg tin-lead alloy.
• Superconductivity is the phenomenon in which the resistance of a conductor becomes zero
when brought to very low temperatures.The electrons become mutually coherent and are
not deflected by positive ions of the conductor.
 • Although drift vel. is small, the current is established instantaneously through out the
conductor, because current is due to local electron drift everywhere in the conductor and
not
due to electron traveling from one end to another,this process takes place with the speed of

e.m. impulses.

• If an electrical appliance e.g.an electric heater of 1000w is used for one complete hour it
consumes one unit or 1 kwh of electric energy.
• Resistance /Resistivity of a metal is constant for particular piece of conductor at certain
temperature but R increases with increase in temp. as Rt = R0(1+ T).
• Resistivity of metals is low  ˜ 10 -8  m,semiconductors is high  ˜ 10 -5 -10 -2  m and
insulators is very high of the order of  ˜ 10 10 -10 15  m
• Constantan ,eureka or manganin shows high  & low  therefore used to make standard
resistance coils.
• Electrons are the charge carriers in metals whereas positive & negative ions are the charge
carriers in an electrolyte, these ions are heavy and less in number therefore electrolytes
have low electrical conductivity as compared to metals.
• There are two defects in a cell
1. polarization: it can be minimized using a depolarizer Eg. Mno2 in leclanche cell and cuso4 in
Daniel cell
2. local action: it minimized by using amalgamated zinc rod.

If resistances are in series eg. R=R1+R2+R3

I is same , V is divided V=V1+V2+V3

If resistances are in parallel eg 1/R=1/R1+1/R2+1/R3

I is divided , V is same I=I1+I2+I3

If resistance are added in series overall resistance of circuit increases
If resistance are added in parallel overall resistance of circuit decreases

Kirchoff’s Laws

1  I = 0 The algebraic sum of currents meeting at a junction in an electrical network is

zero

2  V -  IR=0
Sign Conventions:
1. While traversing a loop if –ve terminal of cell is encountered first emf of cell is –ve & vice
versa
2. If we proceed in same direction of current IR is +ve & vice versa.
Combination of resistances example: To find the equivalent resistance of the following

network:

Equivalent circuit diagram must be drawn as shown below:

In this fig., A,C,D,E are at same position and potential

I ,G, H,B are at same position & potential ,

“ now the above network can be easily solved.”

Difference between Wheatstone Bridge (Meter Bridge) and potentiometer.

For Wheatstone Bridge P/Q=R/S , when the bridge is balanced,and the

galvanometer shows null deflection.

It is used to find unknown resistance , Its Realisation in actual practice(or in lab ) is Metre
Bridge & P.O. Box

Potentiometer is based on the principle

V  L or
V= KL, where K is the potential gradient.
Potentiometer is used to compare emf, and find internal resistance of cell.

Potentiometer acts as an ideal voltmeter as it offers infinite resistance at null point,no current is

drawn from the cell in the circuit.

Ohm’s law V  I ohmic conductors follow ohm’s law eg. Metals, while non ohmic
conductors don’t follow ohm’s law e.g. diode, transistor, insulators etc
A given conductors obeys ohm’s law if R is independent of applied voltage If V
increases then I also increases but R
is constant.
Microscopic form of Ohm’s law J = σE σ is the current density and E is the electric field.

GRAPHICAL ANALYSIS
Ohmic conductors are those which obey ohm’s law and graph is a straight line e.g. metals

Non Ohmic conductors are those which don’t obey ohm’s law and graph is a curve
e.g.,diode,transistor etc.

First see whether it is I-V graph or V-I graph.

In V-I graph slope of graph gives Non ohmic conductors

R= V / I e.g. diode
V

In I-V graph
-V +V

Slope of graph gives

1/R ==I / V

V
 2. To compare the resistances of A & B 3.

A T1

i iB B I T2

iA

v v
V is fixed iB > iA

RB < R A T2>T1 because r=V/I increases with increase

in temp. but this is I/V graph

1/R =I/V lower graph has higher temp

RT

While solving numerical on combination of resistance( in form of

wheatstone bridge):
If Wheatstone Bridge is balanced then only apply P/Q=R/S
If not balanced don’t apply P/Q=R/S,but solve by Kirchoff’s Law.

SAMPLE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS:

Q) Obtain the condition for the balancing point in a Wheatstone bridge. Draw a circuit diagram for
showing
the use of metre-bridge for determining an unknown resistance. Write the formula to be used. (Marks 3)
Ans) The distribution of current in the wheatstone network is shown in the following fig.
 Applying Kirchoff's law to loop ABDA
I1P + IgG - (I - I1) R = 0 - (i)
Applying Kirchoff's law to loop ACDA
(I1 - Ig)Q - (I - I1 + Ig)S - IgG = 0 - (ii)
When the bridge is balanced Ig = 0,... Putting Ig = 0 in eq (i) & (ii)
I1P = (I - I1)R - (iii)
I1Q = (I - I1)S - (iv)
Dividing (iii) by (iv)
P/Q = R/S

:
Unit III ( Magnetic Effects of Current & Magnetism )
Imp Topics
Theory and numericals on Galvanometer,Bohr magneton, magnetic field at any
point due to infinite st conductor carrying current using Biot Savart Law ,Magnetic
field on axis of coil,numerical on charged particle moving in electric or & magnetic field
,Torroid / Solenoid, Parallel conductors carrying current, retentivity,
coericivity,elements
of earths magnetic field,para,dia and ferromagnetism.

Imp. Formulae and points:

Formulae
Physical quantity Unit Key points
S.NO

1 Biot Savart law dB= µ0 IdL sin Tesla It gives the qualitative idea
/4пr
2 of magnetic field at any point
due to a small current
element.direction can be
found by right hand thumb
rule or SNOW rule.
2 Magnetic field B = µ0 I (sin 1 Tesla It gives the idea of magnetic
due to a st. + sin 2)/4Π a field at any point due to a
conductor straight conductor. For
infinitely long conductor
1=2=90 B= µ0 I / 2Π a
3 Magnetic field B = µ0 nI / 2Π a Tesla It gives the idea of magnetic
at centre of a field at the center due to a
coil coil carrying current.
4 Magnetic field B = µ0 nI a2 Tesla If x=0,B= µ0 nI / 2Π a
at any point if a<< x B= µ0 nIA / 2Π x3
on axis of a 2(a2+x2)3/2
coil
5 Ampere’s ∫ B .dl = µ0 I It holds good for a closed path of any shape
circuital law or size.through which current carrying
conductor passes.Ampere’s law relates
current and magnetic field
6 Magnetic B = µ0 n I Tesla n = N/L. At the ends B =
induction of a Bo/2 and outside the
solenoid solenoid B = 0
7 Magnetic B = µ0 n I or Tesla n = N/L, outside the torroid
induction of a B = µ0 N I /2Π and in the empty space
torroid surrounding the torroid B = 0
r
8 Force acting on F = B I L sin Newton If  = 90˚ F= BIL (max) ,i.e.
the current conductor is perpendicular to
carrying conductor magnetic field
in magnetic field If  = 0˚ F= 0 (min ) i.e.
conductor is placed parallel to
magnetic field
9 Force per unit F = µ0 2 I1 I2 / (4 N/m Define one ampere from the
length between Π r)
formula
two infinitely long L
Parallel current carrying
conductors conductors attract each
carrying current
other while anti parallel
repel
10 Torque acting on  = BINA sin Nm  is max i.e. = BINA if =90˚
a current loop   is min i.e. =0 if =0˚
placed in a
magnetic field
11 Moving coil Deflecting I=K/NBA It is a sensitive instrument
Galvanometer torque = I=G used to detect minute
currents in electric circuit
(MCG) restoring I
torque
BINAsin α =
k
12 Ammeter S = IG*G/(I -  ammeter is always connected
IG) in series. It should not alter
the value of current to be
measured resistance of
ammeter is low and that of
ideal ammeter is zero
13 Voltmeter R=(V/IG) – G  voltmeter is connected in
parallel,if connected in series
it will block the current due to
high R., resistance of
voltmeter in high resistance of
ideal voltmeter is infinite
15 Magnetic Flux dǿ = B. ds Weber magnetic lines of forces
passing through the surface
area ds. It is a scalar quantity.

16 Permeability µr=1+ χm , Permeability is the extent to which a

µ and µ=B/H substance allows magnetic lines of forces to
X=I/H pass through it.& susceptibility X tells how
susceptibility easily a substance can be magnetized
χm
17 Magnetic M=m*2l of It is defined as product of either of pole
Dipole bar magnet strength and distance b/w them or product
Or of current & area of loop.It is a vector
Moment quantity and points from south pole to the
M=nIA of
north pole.
current loop
18 potential P.E.=-MBcos  It is a vector pointing from S to N
energy of bar It is If  = 0˚ (parallel orientation) ,U=
measured in -MB(min) ,stable equilibrium
magnet kept
joules.  = 90 ˚ , U=MB,
in uniform
= 180˚ , U=+MB (max), unstable
magnetic equilibrium
field
 19 Magnetic field On axis Ba = µ0 2M/4ΠR3
due to small
bar magnet on equitorial line Be = µ0 M/4ΠR3
20 Lorentz force F=Fe+FB= It is the sum total of electric force &
qE+q(VxB) magnetic force on a charge

Difference between :
Electric Field
It Accelerates charges , there is change
in KE of the charge.,i.e. work is done on
the charge
KE=1/2mv2 is applied in electric field
Magnetic Field
It does not accelerate the charges but
throws the charges into circular or
helical orbit ,work done =0
Formula Bqv=mv2/r
R=mv/Bq is applied in magnetic field

If charged particle is passing through both electric & magnetic fields

Due to electric field
qV=1/2 mv2 V is the potential difference and v is the velocity of charge.
v= 2qV/m
Due to the magnetic field

r= mv/Bq Hence r = m/Bq 2 qv/m

Path of charged particle in electric field.

1. If charge particle is under to influence of magnetic field alone

Bqv=mv2/r or r=mv/Bq

1. If charged particle enters parallel to electric field

E
V =0
Charge is accelerated but no change in path (straight line)

2. If q enters perpendicular to field as shown below:

=90 it follows parabolic path & is accelerated inside the electron field .Outside
the field it again follows straight path

3. If charge is kept stationary in electric field v=0

•q
E
It still experiences force F=qE and is accelerated.

Path of charged particle in magnetic field

1. If charged particle enters parallel to magnetic field

q B path of charge is undeviated

(straight line)
V

Charge is neither accelerated nor it is deflected it will move in straight line

2. If q enters ⊥ to field =90 particle experiences maximum force & is

thrown in circular orbit

Circular path

3. If charge is stationary in magnetic field v=0

F=qVBsin =0
It will not experience any force

4. If charge enters at some angle  in the magnetic field, it describes a

helical path as shown below

Helical path w=Bq/m

=Bq/2Π m , T = 2Π m/ Bq
pitch of helix d = vcos 2Π m/Bqit
is the linear distance covered by
a charged for one complete rotation.

TORQUE ON CURRENT CARRYING COIL IN MAGNETIC FIELD

 = BINA sin
= BINA cos( 90-)
= BINA cos
 ->angle between coil & magnetic field

->angle between normal to coil & magnetic field

RADIAL MAGNETIC FIELD

Used in galvanometer to have maximum torque in any direction of coil
= BINA sin =90 = BINA (max)
Radial field is achieved by using :

1 Placing soft iron core in between pole pieces

2 Concave pole pieces of magnet

Principle of galvanometer :
In equilibrium Position of coil :
Deflecting Torque = Restoring Torque
i.e. BINA sin = K (since =90sin=1)
or I= K/ NBA
Or I=G where G is the galvanometer constant.
Sensitivity of a galvanometer is that it should show large
deflection for small current
Current sensitivity
/I = NBA/K ,to increase current or voltage sensitivity B should
be strong & K should be small
Voltage sensitivity
/V=/IR =NBA/KR , on changing N /I changes but /V
remains uneffected
Conversion of Galvanometer into Ammeter is done by connecting
low resistance in parallel (shunt) Purpose of using shunt :
• It lowers the resistance of ammeter
• It prevents meter from damage due to large current
• Its change in value can change the range of ammeter.

1/Reff=1/S +1/G =G+S/GS

Reff=GS/G+S

S = Ig G/ (I - Ig)
Ammeter is always used in series in electric circuits.Its
resistance is low .Resistance of ideal Ammeter is zero.
Conversion of Galvanometer into Voltmeter
 Reff =(R+G)
R=V/Ig – G
It uses high resistance in series Voltmeter is always used in
parallel in electric circuits.Its
resistance is High resistance of ideal voltmeter is infinite.

Difference between voltmeter & voltameter

Voltmeter is a device for measuring potential difference while
voltameter is an instrument for carrying out the process of
electrolysis.

Magnetic dipole moment:

It is the strength of magnetic dipole and is a vector quantity

pointing from south to north.

Due to bar magnet M= m x 2l

Due to current loop M=NIA

Gauss theorem for electrostatics E = ∫E.ds=q/0
Gauss theorem for magnetism  B.ds=0

Difference between para,dia,and ferromagnetic substances:

Diamagnetic: they don’t Paramagnetic they
show magnetic properties.
µr and χm is negative,less
than 1
They don’t allow the
magnetic lines of forces to
pass through.
They have paired electrons
and net magnetic moment is
zero.
Diamagnetic liquid shifts
from stronger magnetic
regions to weaker ones.
e.g
water,mercury,gold,copper
etc
Diamagnetic rod aligns
itself perpendicular to
external field.
Ferromagnetic: they
show magnetic properties. strongly exhibit all properties
of paramagnetic materials
µr and χm is positive µr and χm is positive
and greater than 1 and large
They allow the They allow the
magnetic lines of magnetic lines of
forces to pass through. forces to pass through.
They have unpaired They have un paired
electrons and net electrons and net
magnetic moment is non magnetic moment is
zero. nonzero.
paramagnetic liquid ferromagnetic liquid
shifts from weaker shifts from weaker
magnetic regions to magnetic regions to
stronger ones. stronger ones.
e.g. Al, Pt, Cr, Mn,etc. e.g Fe, Co, Ni etc.
Paramagnetic rod ferrromagnetic rod
aligns itself parallel aligns itself parallel to
to external field. external field.

UNIT IV (EMI & AC)

Slogan for induction:( NO INDUCTION WITHOUT MOTION)
 Imp Topics
Faraday’s laws of em induction , Lenz law, induced emf in circular coil, Self
inductance & mutual inductance
Irms=I0/2 ,Iav = 2/ I0 derivations, Energy stored in AC circuits , Ideal
inductor / capacitor,wattles current.
LCR circuit, resonance,Current freq graph numericals on AC circuits ,
Transformer & AC generator , Principle,construction,working &
numericals,
Important formulae and points
S.NO Physical quantity Formulae Unit Key points

1 Faraday and e= -dǿ/dt Lenz law tells

Lenz Law =-d BAcos/dt about the
direction of
induced emf
2 Induced emf of e=blv cos Volt The emf is
conductor of induced in the
conductor of
length l length l moving in
magnetic field
3 Self e=L dI/dt Henry It is the
inductance production of
induced emf due
to change in
magnetic flux in
same coil
4 self inductance L=µ0n2lA Henry Here n is number
of a Long coil of turns per unit
length
5 Mutual M=µ0N1N2 Henry Coupling of coils
inductance of
two long coil
6 R.M.S. value of Vrms=vo/√2 It is the effective value or virtual
voltage Irms=I0/√2 value of current / voltage in an AC
current
RMS value of
current
7 Capacitive Xc=1/шC  It is the non
reactance resistive
opposition to flow
of ac offered by
capacitor
8 Inductive XL= шL  It is the non
reactance resistive
opposition to flow
of ac offered by
inductor
9 Impedance for Z=√R2+(XL+XC)2  It is sum total of
LCR circuit resistance and
reactance of an
A.C. circuit
10 Resonant F=1/2π√LC Hz At resonance Z is
frequency in min as XL = XC,
Z=√R2=R=min, I is
LCR maximum
11 Power loss in Pl=I2rms R It may be the heat dissipation
A.C. across the resistor.
12 Power in A.C. P=VrmsIrms cosǿ It is the power across AC circuit
with components like
capacitor,inductor etc.
13 Energy stored E=1/2 LI2 It stores energy in the form of
in inductor magnetic field.
14 Energy stored E=1/2 CV2 It stores energy in the form of
in capacitor electric field.
15 Transformer Np/Ns=Vp/Vs If Np/Ns > 1 it Efficiency of a
=Is/Ip=K is stepdown transformer is 90
transformer to 99%
and vice versa
16 AC generator e=e0Sinшt It is not a generator but an
alternator which converts
e0=NBA mechanical energy to electrical
energy
coil
Increasing current

Clockwise current is induced in the coil.

Induced emf ->

If we observe current in a closed circuit as shown above, without

any source of emf in it,then it may be due to electromagnetic
induction
• Magnetic Flux

 = B. A = BA cos & e=-d/dt

• change in magnetic flux can be due to
1. change in strength of magnetic field
2. change in area of coil
3. change in  i.e. relative orientation of coil w.r.t. magnetic
field.
• Laws of emf
➢ Magnitude of induced emf depends on rate of change of flux i.e faster the
rate of change of
flux , greater the induced in the circuit.
➢ Direction of induced emf is such that it opposes the cause which has
produced it i.e. If the flux is increasing in opposes increase in flux by
producing same polarity. If the flux is decreasing,
it opposes decrease in flux by producing opposite polarity.
• Eddy currents:They are also called foucault currents& are induced currents
due to emf produced
in a solid conductor in the form of eddies or whirlpools throughout the
dimensions of conductor
Induced eddy current have magnitude
 I = - d/dt and direction as per Lenz’s law
R
• Rotating part of a motor is called armature .
The induced emf in a motor due to self induction is called the
back emf

Direction of induced current

1. S S N Motion of magnet is towards the

coil

1) When south pole of magnet is brought near coil same

polarity is induced so that S – S repel & it results in decrease
in KE of magnet clockwise current is induced in the coil
bar magnet

2) If a bar magnet falls through a metal ring due to induced

current motion of magnet is opposed and acceleration of
magnet is less than g (a<g)

The graph shows induced emf in the ring.

If current through PQ is increasing using right hand thumb rude
the magnetic lines are coming out of plane of paper.Therefore N
face is evident due to which induced current will be
anticlockwise in the coil kept above current carrying conductor
PQ.

Flemings right hand rule:

Thumb -> motion(M) of conductor M -> thumb
Fore finger -> direction of magnetic field(F) F-> fore
finger
Central finger -> direction of induced current(C) C-> central
finger

Flemming’s left hand rule :

B -> fore finger represents the magnetic field(B)
V -> central finger represents the motion of charge(V)
F -> thumb represents the direction of force(F)

ALTERNATING CURRENT
AC-There is sinusoidal variation of EMF or current with time
E=EO sin wt or I= I0 sin wt
 Phasor diagrams
Phasor diagrams in AC are the relating vectors in anticlockwise
direction which are used to represent peak value of current or
voltage.
Average value of AC over complete cycle (T) is zero
over half cycle (T/2)
Iav =2/ I0 Also , Eav = 2/ E0

rms value of AC voltage : It is the root mean square value of

AC voltage or current
Irms :=I0/2 & Erms=E0/2

Key Point : In any numerical the voltage given (unless specified)

can be taken as r m s value
of voltage.

Three components of AC circuits

Resistance Reactance Impedence
It is resistive opposite Non resistive Sum of both R & XL or
to the flow of current opposition XL or XC XC

It does not depend on It depends on  freq of

frequency of current current It also depends on 

L and C are (non-

While R is the ohmic ohmic resistances
resistance. or reactances)

Resistance offers opposition to flow of current & voltage &

current are in phase Power loss across resistance is
P=Vrms.Irms or I2rmsR [cos =1 or =0]

If AC circuit containing any of R,L,C , P= Vrms.Irms cos 

Inductor offers non-ohmic opposition i.e. inductive reactance
XL=L=2L
Higher the frequency of AC higher the Inductive Reactance.
While a capacitor offers capacitive reactance
XC = 1/ C
Higher the freq lower the capacitive reactance

For DC =0 , XL=0 Inductor allows DC to pass through

How it can be remembered by diagram also
Passes through

When AC passes through an inductor

As AC has =0 , XL=0

AC is difficult to pass through inductor
For Capacitor XC=1/c=1/2c For DC =0 XC = ,capacitor
blocks DC
For AC =0 XC is finite ,capacitor allows AC to pass through.
XC  1/ Higher the frequency of AC less the value of
XC
In diagram DC is blocked by a capacitor

but AC is allowed to pass through a capacitor

Phasor Diagram of R,L and C

Also VL leads I by 90˚ ,VL leads VR by /2 .VL leads VC by 

If you combine phases of R & L you get LR circuit
If you combine phases of L & C you get LC circuit
If you combine phases of R & L & C you get LCR circuit

Ideal or Wattless current

Across inductor or capacitor P= Vrms.Irms cos  =90
Power consumed is zero i.e. an ideal inductor or capacitor
does not consume any power in AC circuit.
 Power factor= true power/apparent power

Imp sample questions

EMF induced in a conductor of length l rotating in circular loop in
magnetic field cos =R/2
In non inductive circuit XL=XC ,power factor=0
At resonance XL=Xc & =0 cos =1 max power is distributed in
circuit.

Q) A series combination of L = 50 H, C = 80 F and R = 40 is connected across a variable frequency

230 V mains source, Calculate :
(a) the frequency in rad s-1 of the source which drives the circuit in resonance.
(b) The impedance of the circuit and amplitude of the current at resonant frequency.
(c) rms value of potential drop across the inductor at resonant frequency. (Marks 3)
Ans) L = 5 H, C =80 F = 80 x 10-6 F = 10-4 F, R = 40 ,
Vrms = 230V
(a) At resonance L = 1/ c
or = 1/ (Lc) = 1/ (5 x 80 x 10-6) = 50 rad/s
(b) Impedance Z = (R2 + (XL - XC)2)
at resonance XL = Xc
... Z = R = 40
& Irms = Vrms/Z = 230/40 = 5.75 A
Io = 2 Irms = 1.414 x 5.75 = 8.13 A
(c) Potential Drop across the inductor
= Irms x XL = Irms x L
= 5.75 x 50 x 5
= 1437.5V
 Unit V (EM Waves)
Imp Topics :
TV Tower height derivation , population covered = area x
population density ,Hertz experiment, e.m. spectrum,
properties of e.m. waves,transverse nature of e.m. waves.

Formulae
S.No Physical quantity Key points

1 Velocity of EM C=1/õ0 Em waves travel with speed of light with

waves є0=E0/B0 electric field & magnetic field vectors
vibrating mutually perp. & perp. to direction
=3 x 108 m/s of propagation of waves.
in vacuum
2 Energy density Ue =1/2 є0 E2 The electric vector is responsible for optical
of electric effects.
field
3 Energy UB =B2 /2µ0 It gives the value of magnetic field
density of
Magnetic field

4 Hertz An A.C. circuit It demonstrates production of EM waves

experiment produces E.M through oscillating charges in the air gap
between metal spheres
waves of freq.
ν= 1/2π√LC

EM SPECTRUM The orderly range of em radiation according to freq

/wavelength is called
e m spectrum.

Hertz Experiment
S,S` Metal Spheres having small air gap
PP` Metal Plates provide low capacitance in the circuit
 Connecting wires provide low inductance in the

circuit
Oscillating charges in air gap between metal spheres S and S`
ionize the air,sparks are produced
and give rise to e.m. waves which are detected by the
detector.The wavelength  in Hertz experiment was about 6 m.
Nature of e.m. waves:
1. They are produced by accelerated / deaccelerated charges.
2. They do not require any material medium for propagation.
3. They travel with speed of light.
4. The electric and magnetic field vectors are vibrating mutually
perpendicular to each other & perpendicular to direction of propagation
of wave.
5. They are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
Imp Questions/Answers :
• The amplitude of oscillating electronic field in an em wave
is 50 v/m what is the
amplitude of oscillating magnetic field ?
• Ans C=E0/B0 or B0 = E0/C =50/(3 x 108)=1.67x10-7 T

• Q In a plane e.m .wave the electric field oscillates with

frequency of 2x1010 s-1
and amplitude of 40 Vm-1.What is the wavelength of
wave of frequency 2x1010 Hz. ? What is the energy
density due to electric field ?
Ans a)  = C/ =3x108/2x1010 =1.5x10-2 m
UE=1/20E2 =1/2*8.85 x 10-12 x(40)2 =3.55 x 10-9 Jm-3

UNIT – VI (WAVE OPTICS & RAY OPTICS)

(key point: Light has dual nature i.e. wave nature as well as particle
nature i.e.light sometimes exhibit wave phenomenon and sometimes
particle nature depending upon the conditions imposed on light)

WaveOptics
Conceptual Question like,effect on interference Fringes due to changes in
the quantities like D,d ,, etc,Numerical on position of fringes or fringe width,
intensity pattern of fringes
Difference between interference & diffraction ,Diffraction due to single
slit,width of central maxima ,Numerical on diffraction, Polarisation .

Ray Optics:
Refraction of Spherical Surface,Lens Formula / Lens maker Formula ,
TIR,Numericals/ applications on TIR,.Telescope reflecting type,Compound
 microscope diagram, magnifying power ,resolving power, derivation for  of
prism,,Numericals

IMPORTANT FORMULAE & POINTS

Formulae
Physical quantity Unit Key points
S.NO

1 Refraction It is the bending of light when it passes obliquely

from one medium to another.Cause of Refraction -
> change in velocity of light due to change in
medium.
2 Snell’s law of Sin i/Sin r = aμb It gives the ratio of
refraction speed of light in vacuum
to any medium.
3 Lateral shift in d= t sin(i-r)/cos r When a ray of light
parallel slab passes through a glass
slab it gets laterally
displaced through
refraction.
4 Relation between Real depth = μb a Due to refraction depth
real & apparent Apparent depth of optically denser
depth medium appears to less
than its real depth
5 Total internal When a ray of light obliquely passes from denser to
reflection rarer medium it is totally reflected back into
(TIR) denser medium when i > ic Applications -> Brilliance
of diamond, mirage ,totally reflecting glass prisms
,optical fibers.
6 Critical angle (ic) 1/sin C = aμb It is the angle of incidence
at which ray grazes along
the interface of two media .
7 Spherical convex -μ1 /u + μ2 /v = If refraction is from denser
Refracting (μ2- μ1)/ R to rarer medium the
surface(from rarer formula is
to denser) μ2 /(-u) + μ1 /v = (μ2-
μ1)/(- R)
8 Lens maker’s 1/f = (μ2- μ1)/ μ1 * (1/R1 – Focal length
formula 1/R2) of lens
depends on
μ , R 1 & R2
9 Thin lens formula 1/v – 1/u = 1/f It is the relation between
focal length of a lens,
distance of object & image
from optical centre .
F does not depends on u & v .
10 Linear magnification m = i/o = -v/u =h2/h1 (for real image) e.g convex lens
m = i/o = v/u = h2/h1 (for virtual image) e.g. concave
lens

11 Power of a lens P=1/f ( f is in m) Dioptre or It is the

m-1 reciprocal of
focal length
of a lens.
12 Refractive index of μ= sin (A+δm)/2 In the minimum deviation
prism in min. sin A/2 position the refracted ray
deviation position is parallel to the base of
the prism.
13 Deviation for a δ=A(μ-1) It is also called thin prism
 prism of small angle formula.
14 Magnifying power M=L/fo(1+D/fe) It uses two convex lenses.
for compound Objective lens has small
microscope (it aperture & short focal
produces highly length. eye piece has
magnified image) moderate aperture & short
focal length.
15 Magnifying M=fo/fe It uses two convex lenses.
power for Objective lens has large
aperture & large focal length.
telescope (it eye piece has short
produces aperture & short focal
highly length.
magnified
image)
16 Magnifying M=fo/fe=(R/2)/fe If eye piece is behind
power for Where R is radius objective mirror &
secondary mirror is
reflecting type of curvature of convex it is called
telescope (it concave reflector Cassegrain type telescope.
produces If eye piece is on one side
highly of the tube & secondary
magnified mirror is plane it is called
Newtonian type telescope.
image)
17 Combination of Focal length 1/f = 1/f1+1/f2+…..
lens Power P=P1+P2+….
Magnification m=m1 x m2 x m3….

Convex (converging) Lens has positive focal length ,

Concave(Diverging) Lens has negative focal length,

Rules for formation of image .

1. The ray passing through optical centre passes undeviated.

2. The paraxial ray (parallel to principal axis) passes through Focus.

3. If object is kept at focus image is formed at infinity.

TELESCOPE
It is an instrument used to view far objects.

Normal adjustment of telescope

In normal adjustment,the image formed by objective lens coincides with
focus of eye piece , so
that the final image is formed at infinity.

Near adjustment of telescope

The image formed by objective lens does not coincides with focus of eye
piece , so that the final image is formed near objective lens.

For Telescope
Magnifying Power m=fo/fe Resolving Power
R.P.=1/d =D/1.22
D : Diameter of objective
Length of tube of telescope =fo+fe

For Terrestrial Telescope length of tube = fo+4f+fe

Galilean Telescope uses concave lens & forms erect image.

Magnifying power of telescope depends on focal length of objective

lens & eye piece.
For greater magnification fo should be large & fe should be
small.

Resolving power of telescope is independent of fo & fe but depends

on diameter (aperture) of objective lens & wavelength of light 
used.

Intensity of image  D2
(Intensity of image formed depends on the square of aperture of the
telescope)

Lens formula 1/v-1/u=1/f

Lens maker’s formula 1/f=(-1)(1/R1-1/R2)
f depends upon , R1,R2 & not on v or u

COMPOUND MICROCOPE

M = Mo *Me

M=L/fo(1+D/fe)
 Q) Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the image formation in an astronomical telescope for a
distant object. (Marks 2)
Ans) Ray diagram of image formation by Astronomical telescope.

A"B" : Final image

O : Objective
E : Eye piece
d : least distance of distinct image

WAVE OPTICS
IMPORTANT FORMULAE

S.NO Physical quantity Formulae Key points

1 Ratio of maximum to Imax = (a + Imax is the intensity of bright

minimum intensity
2 Condition for
maxima in
interference of light
3 Condition for minima
in interference of
light
4 Fringe width of
interference fringes
5 If w1 & w2 are width
of two slits from
which intensities of
light I1 & I2 originate
6 Diffraction of single
slit
7 Width of central
maxima
b)2 fringes and Imin of dark
fringes
Imin (a –
b)2
xd/D = nλ xd/D is the path difference
n=0,1,2,3……. between the two light waves
coming from s1 and s2 should
be integral multiple of
wavelength of light.
xd/D =(2n-1) the path difference between
λ/2 the two light waves should be
odd integral multiple of
n=1,2,3…….. wavelength of light.
β=λD/d β  λ and D and β  1/d
w1 = I1 = a2 It gives the ratio of slit width
w2 I2 b2 to intensity of light waves
sinө = λ/d Diffraction is the spreading or
bending of light when it passes
through a narrow aperture(a ˜
λ ) or encounters a sharp
obstacle.
2x = 2 λD/d It is the distance between the
first secondary minima on
either side of the centre of the
screen.
 Interference (Double slit) using coherent sources of light.It
is the redistribution of light energy due to superposition of
light waves coming from two coherent sources.
Position of fringes
For maxima xn=n.D/d.
For minima xn=(2n-1)D/2d It starts with n=1 for
minima which is max correct
In some books the condition of minima is given to be
(2n+1) )D/2d,which is also correct but it starts with n=0
.

Diffraction (Single slit or N slit).It is the bending or

spreading of light when light passes through a narrow
aperture or encounters a sharp obstacle
=n/d for minima
=(2n+1)/d for maxima
N slit diffraction gives much better diffraction pattern &
pronounced maxima’s in the graph,eg.,diffraction grating.

For solving numericals

Of two slits are given in the experiment it is a numerical
on interference
a) If numerical is on position or location of fringes make
sure that above mentioned formula’s are applied.
b) If it is based on width of fringes apply formula of fringe
width
=D/d.

If single slit is given it is a numerical on diffraction.

Numerical is either on
a) Position of maxima or minima apply above mentioned
formula.
b) On width of central maxima apply
2x=2D/d.
Angular spread = /d it is independent of distance D as
shown below:
Figure shows the angular spread of light coming from a
source:
Resolving Power
It is the reciprocal of unit of resolution & is the ability of an
instrument to clearly distinguish two
points nearly each other
Limit of resolution Resolving Power
Telescope d=1.22/D 1/d=D/1.22
Microscope d=/2sin 1/d=2sin/

Graph given below shows the Diffraction pattern due to

Single slit(solid line) and N slit (dotted line)

Graph given below shows the INTERFERENCE pattern (Double slit)

For monochromatic light(e.g.,sodium light) all fringes are of same
intensity but for polychromatic light (e.g.,white light) the pattern

obtained is blurred and not sustained.

Mark the values on x & y axis.
If we immerse the apparatus of Young’s experiment in water,the
wavelength  of light decreases according to relation:
 `=/ &   
therefore `=/ also decreases.
COHERENT SOURCES
Two sources are said to be coherent if they emit light of same
amplitude ,freq,wavelength same phase or constant phase
difference between them

Two different bulbs of same watttage cannot act as coherent sources

as coherence is of
atomic origin.Each atom gives rise to light of its own characteristic
wavelength ,frequency,amplitude
and phase, which may differ from one to other atom.

UNIT – 7 (DUAL NATURE OF MATTER)

Imp Topics -
Photo Electric Effect ,equation ,graphs stopping potV0,Threshold
frequency o,Numericals ,de Broglie Wavelength.Davison & Germer
Experiment.

Important concepts:
Photoelectric effect,compton effect etc. establish the particle nature(or
quantum nature) of light.
Interference, Diffraction Polarisation etc. establish the wave nature of light.

Photo electric Effect

It is the phenomenon of emission of photoelectrons from a
photo sensitive metal surface when light of suitable frequency
fall on them
Einstein’s Photoelectric equation:
h=w0 + 1/2 mv2

h Energy of incident radiation

W0 is Work function of photosensitive metal and rest of energy
is imparted as
½ mv2 i.e. KE of photoelectrons.
Capsule for Dual value of matter i.e. Energy of incident
radiation is utilized in overcoming the work function & rest of
energy is imparted as Ke to photo electrons

Intensity of radiation Frequency of radiation

No of photo electrons ejected
depends on intensity of
radiation
Photo electric current also
depends on intensity
Stopping potential depends on
freq,
KE of photoelectrons depend
on frequency. As E   Energy
changes with frequency

Relation between momentum & KE:

KE = ½ mv2 =m2v2/2m =P2 /2m
P2 =2Mke

P= 2mKE
Laws of photo electric emission
Graphical study of Photoelectric effect:
1.The no. of photoelectons emitted per second is directly proportional to the
intensity of incident light.If Intensity of radiation is increased more photons
are colliding with electrons & more electrons are ejected due to which I
(photo electric current ) increases but KE of photo electrons remains
unaffected.

Threshold Freq -> It is the minimum freq of incident radiation below which no
photoelectric emission is possible.

Work Function -> It is the minimum energy required by an electron to get

ejected from metal surface.

I
Photo
Electric
Current

Intensity of Radiation

2 For a given metal, these exists a certain minimum frequency below which
no photoelectric emission takes place.This Graph indicates that as intensity
of radiation increases photo electric current also increases but stopping
potential & frequency or energy of photo electrons is not effected.
Hence intensity may change magnitude of current but not KE of
photoelectrons.

3 Above the threshold frequency the max KE of emitted photoelectrons is

independent of intensity of light but depends only on freq of light.Graph
indicates that if frequency of incident radiation changes the stopping
potential changes & energy of emitted
photo electrons also change but saturation current is uneffected.

4 There is no time lag in the process i.e. it is an instantaneous process.

Different forms of photo electric equation

h=wo+1/2 mv2
wo : Work function of metal , and o : Threshold frequency
But Wo = ho  h= ho+1/2mv2 or
1/2mv2 = h( -o)
……….1

Or KE  -o (as KE = 1/2mv2 )

This equation also indicates that KE of photo electrons depend
on frequency of radiation & not on the intensity.
Now 1/2mV2max=eVo
…………2
Also from 1 & 2
eVo = h( -o)
Maximum velocity of emitted photo electrons is independent of
intensity but depends on frequency & applied anode potential.

The photon is not a material but a packet of energy called a

quanta of energy& is massless and chargeless i.e. electrically
neutral.

The electron is matter & can never attain the speed of photon.
Its speed is always less than speed of a photon & is electrically
charged.
Energy of photon E = h = hc/
Momentum of photon p=mc  =h/mc
Q Draw the graph showing variation of stopping potential with freq.
Of incident radiation .How can planck’s constant be determined from
this graph ?
Ans : h=1/2mV2max +ho & 1/2mV2max =eVo
eVo= h -ho
or Vo= h/e -ho/e
slope of graph can be determined
m=h/e h=me Multiplying slope with e
gives the value of h
 For a photon
E=mc2
E=h=hc/ , =h/p =h/mc

For Electron
E=1/2mV2 or v= 2E/m
 =h/mv =h/m 2E/m = h/2mE

De Broglie Wavelength :
A moving particle sometimes acts a wave & sometimes as a particle
.The wave associated with moving particle is called matter wave or
de Broglie wave & wavelength associated is called de Broglie
wavelength.
De Broglie wavelength
=h/p =h/mv
Also =h/2mE = 12.27 A/V

Dual nature of matter waves :

Matter waves are stream of particles moving at high speed eg  rays
or  rays
[ but not  rays( rays are e m radiations) ]
Matter waves also possess dual nature.Particle nature as well as
wave nature can be established by Davison & germer Experiment

Q If frequency of radiation incident on a metal surface is doubled

how it will
effect
1) KE 2) Photo electric current 3)Stopping Potential
Ans :

1) KE  ( -o)  If  is doubled KE also increases(more than double)

2) Photo electric current is independent of KE  No effect

3) eVo= h( -o) Stopping potential increases with increase in

frequency.

UNIT – 8 Atomic Nucleus

Imp topics : Rutherford experiment impact parameter, distance of closest
approach,Properties of nucleus& size, density. Mass defect & Binding energy (with
numerical),Radioactivity,Half life period & alpha beta & gamma decay,n/p ratio.

IMPORTANT FORMULAE & POINTS:

S.NO Physical quantity Formulae Unit Key points

1 Number of neutrons in a N=A-Z It is the difference of atomic
nucleus number and the mass number.

2 Radius of nucleus R=R0A1/3 R is the radius of nucleus which

is much less than the size of an
where R0 is empirical
atom.
constant
 8 Impact parameter b=(ze2cot θ/2) It is the Perpendicular
4Лεo(1/2 mv2) distance between velocity
vector of the alpha particle &
the line passing through
centre of nucleus

9 Distance of closest ro = k(ze)(2e)/1/2mv2 ro = 41.3 fermi

approach
If an α particle approaches
directly the nucleus it
rebounds by 180 by
approaching ro

7 Binding energy During formation of nucleus some mass

disappears in the form of binding energy ,or
during breaking of nucleus also some energy is
released from the nucleus called the binding
energy.

7 Mass defect Δm = difference in mass of total

individual nucleons and
[Z mp + (A-Z) mn – mN] mN is total mass of nucleus

the total nuclear mass

Thomson’s model

Atom is +vely charged sphere with negative charges embedded in it like plums in a pudding
or seeds in a watermelon.

Drawbacks of Thomson’s model :It could not explain large angle scattering of α
particles in Rutherford’s expt and could not explain the origin of spectra.
RUTHERFORD’S GOLD FOIL EXPERIMENT: α particles were allowed
to pass through thin gold foil and scattering of α particles at various angles was
observed,on the basis of which Rutherford proposed the planetary atomic model.

D-Detector(Rotatable) , S-source of α particles

Drawbacks of Rutherford Model: -

1- It could not explain stability of atom as according to this model electron should follow
spiral orbit continuously radiating energy & should fall into the nucleus.
2- According to this model atom should emit band spectra & could not explain origin of
fine structure of spectral lines.

These drawbacks were removed in Bohr’s atomic model which used the concept of
quantization of energy & angular momentum ,due to which electron can revolve in definite
energy orbits.
E = -13.6ev/n2 n – principal quantum number

1 amu = 931.25 MeV

Atomic mass Unit
1 amu = mass of a C12 carbon atom
12
Quarks : They are the constituents of the nucleons .Three quarks make a proton or a
neutron inside a nucleus.Quarks may be up quarks or down quarks.
Reactions :

Nuclear Fission : It is the splitting of a heavy nucleus into intermediate light nuclei along
with two /three more neutrons & release of energy
e.g. 0n1+92U235 -> 56B141 + 36Kr92 + 3 0n1 + Q (200 MeV)

Thermal neutrons : They are required for fission which are slow moving and are less
energy
E ~ 1/40 eV , V ~ 2.21 cm / sec

Nucleur fusion : It is the combining (fusion) of two light nuclei to form a heavy nucleus with
release of X-rays & energy
e.g. 1H2+1H3 -> 2He4 + 0n1 + 17.59 MeV

it takes place at very high temperature ~ 107 K

very high pressure ~ millions of atm
very high KE of constituents

Reproduction Factor K=rate of production of neutrons K > 1 -> Super critical -> atom
bomb
Rate of loss of neutrons K < 1 -> Subcritical ->
reactor

Nuclear Forces –
1) Strongest forms in nature
2) Charge independent
3) Short range forces
4) Depend on spin & angular momentum of nucleus

Mass defect Δm = [Z mp + (A-Z) mn – mN]

i.e. difference in mass of total individual nucleons and total mass of nucleus.
During formation of nucleus some mass disappears in the form of binding
energy.

Binding Energy: BE= [Zmp + (A-Z)mn - MN]c2

Binding Energy per nucleon BE/A = ([Zmp + (A-Z)mn - MN]c2 )/A MeV/Nucleon

Importance of BE curve :
The graph reveals the following facts/conclusions
1- Average BE per under for light nucleus 1H1, 1H2, 1H3 is very small and they undergo
fusion.
2- From 2 to 20 mass no. same elements like He4, C12 , O16 show peaks curves are max
stable.
3- Fe56 has highest binding energy & A =30 to 120 corresponding to broud maxima and
show stable region.
4- As mass no. increases e.g. U236 BE starts decreasing leading to unstability and such
elements undergo fission.
5- Either in case of fission or fusion reactants have less binding energy as compared to
to products thus extra energy is released.
 BINDING ENERGY CURVE is depicted below:

UNIT – 9 Solids and Semiconductors

IMP:
P Type and N type semiconductors energy band diagram
Zener diode as voltage regulator, light emitting diode, diode as full wave
rectifier
Transistor PNP/NPN action, Transistor as an amplifier, or oscillator relation in
phase,
current gain,voltage gain and power gain
AND, OR, NOT, NAND gates ,input and output waves,truth table ,logic
symbol,realisation of gates.

IMPORTANT FORMULAE
S.NO Physical quantity Formulae Unit Key points
1 Number density of n2i =nenh In extrinsic
charge carriers in where ne= number semiconductor
density of free either
doped semiconductor ne >> nh (N type)
electrons
nh = number density nh >> ne (P type)
of holes
2 Electrical conductivity σ=e(nhμh + neμe) In semiconductors
of semiconductors two types of charge
carriers are
responsible for
conducting
 4 Current in I = Ie + Ih = Ie is electron current Ih is
semiconductors neAeve+ neAevh hole current
(direction
opposite to
electron current)

Energy Bands : Energy Bands are formed due to spreading energy levels
when so many
atoms come close together .
Valence Band : Lower filled band with electrons

Conduction Band : Upper empty band is called conduction band

Forbidden energy gap : Energy gap between valance band and conduction band

Donar energy State : Energy gap in extrinsic N Type semiconductors near conduction band due to
donar impurity atoms added in semiconductors

Acceptor Energy State :Energy state in extrinsic P type semiconductors due to acceptor impurity
atoms added in semiconductors

Semiconductors are of two types

1 Intrinsic Semiconductors : they have low electrical conductivity

2 Extrinsic Semiconductors : they have large electrical conductivity

a) P type

b) N type

ENERGY BAND DIAGRAMS :-

Intrinsic semiconductor :

Conduction
Band

Extrinsic semiconductor (ne >> nn) N type It is obtained by doping pure

semiconductor with 5th group impurity atoms so that each impurity atom donates an extra electron
which become majority charge carriers
Valence
band

ne.nn=ni 2 (Equation for carrier concentration in extrinsic semiconductor)

Extrinsic semiconductor P type ( nh>> ne ) P type i.e. the majority
carriers holes. are much greater in number than the minority carriers electrons.

PN Junction

Barrier Potential

 Depletion Region ->

In forward bias majority carriers cross the junction & diode conducts due to the
movement of charge carriers.
Contact or barrier potential arises due to electron –hole recombination at junction &
immobile ions are left which create static electric field.

Depletion region →It is the region devoid of charge carriers at the junction.
Barrier Potential →It is the potential created at the junction due to static electric field of
Immobile donor/acceptor atoms in the depletion region.

Mobile charge carriers→ The electrons or the holes in a semiconductor.

Immobile donor/acceptor atoms→ The impurity added semiconductors which donate or
accept the extra electron are called the Immobile donor/acceptor atoms.
Forward Bias PN Junction → Positive end of battery connected to P type and negative to
N type (same polarity). The diode conducts and offers very low resistance. Resistance of
ideal diode in FB is zero.

V supresses VB as V>VB width of depletion region decreases & diode conducts

due to majority carriers.

Diode Characteristics Curve :

From slope of graph Dynamic resistance r can be calculated r = V/I

In reverse bias as V & VB are in same direction biasing voltage enhances VB & its width
Increases.

Hence majority carriers are not able to cross the junction & diode does not conduct.
 ZENER DIODE: It is specially designed diode which works in reverse bias

The position of graph is chosen for voltage regulation as V is constant from I1 to I2

region.Hence zener diode is used as voltage regulator choosing particular portion of
graph
The circuit of Zener diode as voltage regulator is as follows:

Zener diode in R.B.

Constant Output

Diode as a rectifier : A rectifier is a device which converts AC to DC

Diode as full wave rectifier Input/ Output Waveform

CONTENT- CLASS XI
UNIT – 1 PHYSICAL
WORLD AND
MEASUREMENT
Chapter–2: Units and
Measurements
 PHYSICAL WORLD AND MEASUREMENT

2 MARKS
1. What is the basis of the principle of homogeneity of dimensions.
2. In a system of units of length ,mass and time are 10 cm , 10g,0.1sec respectively then what
is the unit of force?
3. Why length, mass and time are chosen as base quantities in mechanics?
4. Which of the following time measuring devices is most precise?(a) A wall clock.(b) A
stop watch.(c) A digital watch.(d) An atomic clock.Give reason for your answer.
5. State the number of significant figures in the following:
(a) 0.007 m2 (b) 2.64 x 104 kg (c) 0.2370 g cm-3 (d) 6.320 J.

3MARKS
1. Give an example of(a) a physical quantity which has a unit but no dimensions.(b) a
physical quantity which has neither unit nor dimensions. (c) a constant which has a
unit.
2. What are the dimensions of ‘a’ and ‘b’ in Vander Waals equation (P+a/V2)(V−b)=RT
?
3. If Velocity, Time and Force Were Chosen as the Base Quantities, Find the
Dimensions of Mass.
4. If velocity (v), acceleration (a) and Force (F) are taken as fundamental quantities then
what dimensions will the angular momentum have?

MCQ
1. The fundamental forces in nature that govern the diverse phenomenon of macroscopic and
microscopic world are
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
2. Which law of thermodynamics leads to the concept of temperature?
(a) zeroth law (b) first law
(c) second law (d) both ‘1st’ and ‘2nd’
3. Strongest attractive force in nature is
(a) Frictional force on rough surface. (b) Electromagnetic force.
(c) Strong nuclear force. (d) Gravitational force.

4Which pair do not have equal dimension?

(a) Energy and Torque (b) Force and Impulse
(c) Angular momentum and plank constant (d) Elastic modulus and pressure
5. Which of the following is not the unit of time
(a) Second (b) Minute
(c) Hour (d) Light year

ASSERTION AND REASONING

Directions: Each of these questions contain two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of
these questions also has four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer.
You have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct , reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
1. Assertion : Dimensional constants are the quantities whose values are constant.
Reason : Dimensional constants are dimensionless.

2. Assertion : The cesium atomic clocks are very accurate

Reason : The vibration of cesium atom regulate the rate of cesium atomic clock.

3. Assertion : The number of significant figures depends on the least count of

measuring instrument.
Reason : Significant figures define the accuracy of measuring instrument.

4. Assertion : Number of significant figures in 0.005 is one and that in 0.500 is three
Reason : This is because zeros are not significant.

5. Assertion: ‘Light year’ and ‘Wavelength’ both measure distance.

Reason : Both have dimension of time.
 CASE BASED
CASE 1. Every measurement involves errors. Thus, the result of measurement should be
reported in a way that indicates the precision of measurement. Normally, the reported result
of measurement is a number that includes all digits in the number that are known reliably plus
the first digit that is uncertain. The reliable digits plus the first uncertain digit are known as
significant digits or significant figures. If we say the period of oscillation of a simple
pendulum is 1.62 s, the digits 1 and 6 are reliable and certain, while the digit 2 is uncertain.
Thus, the measured value has three significant figures.A choice of change of different units
does not change the number of significant digits or figures in a measurement. This important
remark makes most of the following observations clear,

● All the non-zero digits are significant.

● All the zeros between two non-zero digits are significant, no matter where the decimal
point is, if at all.
● If the number is less than 1, the zero(s) on the right of decimal point but to the left of
the first non-zero digit are not significant.
● The terminal or trailing zero(s) in a number without a decimal point are not
significant.[Thus 123 m = 12300 cm = 123000 mm has three significant figures, the
trailing zero(s) being not significant.
● The trailing zero(s) in a number with a decimal point are significant. [The numbers
3.500 or 0.06900 have four significant figures each]
● For a number greater than 1, without any decimal, the trailing zero(s) are not
significant.
● For a number with a decimal, the trailing zero(s) are significant

(b) The digit 0 conventionally put on the left of a decimal for a number less than 1 (like
0.1250) is never significant. However, the zeroes at the end of such number are significant in
a measurement.

(c)The multiplying or dividing factors which are neither rounded numbers nor numbers
representing measured values are exact and have infinite number of significant digits.

(d)In multiplication or division, the final result should retain as many significant figures as
are there in the original number with the least significant figures.In addition or subtraction,
the final result should retain as many decimal places as are there in the number with the least
decimal places. For example, the sum of the numbers 436.32 g, 227.2 g and 0.301 g by mere
arithmetic addition, is 663.821 g. But the least precise measurement (227.2 g) is correct to
only one decimal place. The final result should, therefore, be rounded off to 663.8 g.

(1) Significant figures in 12300 cm are:

(a) 5 (b) 4

(c) 3 (d) None of these

(2) All the non-zero digits are:

(a) Significant (b) Non significant (c) None of these

(3) Give rules for significant figures

(4) Give rules for addition and subtraction operations with significant figure

(5) Give rules for multiplication and division operations with significant figure

CASE 2.
The nature of a physical quantity is described by its dimensions. All the physical quantities
represented by derived units can be expressed in terms of some combination of seven
fundamental or base quantities. We shall call these base quantities as the seven dimensions of
the physical world, which are denoted with square brackets [ ]. Thus, length has the
dimension [L], mass [M], time [T], electric current [A], thermodynamic temperature [K],
luminous intensity [cd], and amount of substance [mol]. The dimensions of a physical
quantity are the powers (or exponents) to which the base quantities are raised to represent that
quantity. Note that using the square brackets [ ] round a quantity means that we are dealing
with ‘the dimensions of’ the quantity. In mechanics, all the physical quantities can be written
in terms of the dimensions [L], [M] and [T]. For example, the volume occupied by an object
is expressed as the product of length, breadth and height, or three lengths. Hence the
dimensions of volume are [L] × [L] × [L] = [L3].
(1) Dimensions of area is
(a) [L2] (b) [L3]
(c) [M2] (d) None of these
(2) dimensions of volume are
(a) [L2] (b) [L]
(c) [L3] (d) None of these
(3) Write the two dimensionless constant.
(4) define dimensions of a physical quantity
(5) Give any one base quantities with dimensions.

ANSWERS
2 MARKS
1. The physical quantities of same kind can be added or subtracted or compared.
2. Key points n2=n1 (M1/M2)1 (L1/L2) 1 (T1/T2) 2.
Substituting proper values we get Force = 10N
3. These can not be derived from any other physical quantity.
4. Atomic clock, it has precision of 1s oscilation repeated in 1013s,least count and
precision are inversely proportion.
5. (a)1 , (b)3 , (c)4 , (d)4
 3 MARKS
1. (a)solid angle or plane angle.
(b)specific density.
(c)gravitational constant.
2. Dimension of
a = [ML5T -2]
b = [L3].
3. Momentum=Force x time
mxv =Fxt
m = F x t x v-1.
4. L=k vx fy az
Writing dimensions of each quantity and comparing powers of M, L and T we gat
value of x= 3, y= 1 and z=-2
Required expression is L=kv3 f 1a-2

MCQ
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (c)
4. (b)
5. (d).

ASSERTION AND REASONING

1.(c)
2.(b)
3.(b)
4.(c)
5.(c)
CASE BASED
CASE 1.
(1) c

(2) a

(3) All the non-zero digits are significant.

● All the zeros between two non-zero digits are significant, no matter
where the decimal point is, if at all.
● If the number is less than 1, the zero on the right of decimal point but
to the left of the first non-zero digit are not significant.
● The terminal or trailing zero(s) in a number without a decimal point are
not significant.
 ● The trailing zero(s) in a number with a decimal point are significant.
● For a number greater than 1, without any decimal, the trailing zero(s)
are not significant.
● For a number with a decimal, the trailing zero(s) are significant.
● The digit 0 conventionally put on the left of a decimal for a number
less than 1 (like 0.1250) is never significant. However, the zeroes at
the end of such number are significant in a measurement.

(4) In addition or subtraction, the final result after the operation should have as many
decimal places as are there in the number with the least decimal places.

(5) In multiplication or division, the final result after operation should have as many
significant figures as are there in the original number with the least significant figures.
if the speed of light is given as 3 × 108 m s-1 (one significant figure) and one year (1y
= 365.25 d) has 3.1557 × 107 s (five significant figures), the light year is 9.47 × 1015
m (three significant figures

CASE 2.
(1) a
(2) c
(3) Refractive index, Strain.( or any other)
(4) The dimensions of a physical quantity are defined as the powers to which the base
quantities must be raised to represent that quantity.
(5) All the physical quantities represented by derived units can be expressed in terms
of some combination of seven fundamental or base quantities. These quantities are
Length has the dimension [L]
Mass [M]
Time [T]
Electric current [A]
Thermodynamic temperature [K]
Luminous intensity [cd]
 Unit-II - Kinematics
Chapter–3: Motion in a
Straight Line
Chapter–4: Motion in a
Plane
 STUDY MATERIAL ON KINAMATICS
[2 Marks questions]
1. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. Which is come back to the
ground after some time. Draw its (i) Velocity-time graph and (ii) speed-time graph
2. A particle starts from the origin at t = 0 s with a velocity of 10.0𝑗̂ m/s and
moves in the x-y plane with a constant acceleration of (8.0𝑖̂+2.0𝑗̂) m/s2.
At what time is the x-coordinate of the particle 16 m? What is the y-coordinate
of the particle at that time?
3. With the help of a labelled diagram, explain how it is easy to pull a roller than push it.
4. A projectile can have the same range R for two angle of projection. If t 1 and t2 be the
time of flight in the two cases, then prove that t1t2 = 2R/g
5. The distance of a particle moving in one dimension, under the action of a constant
force is related to time t by the equation t = √x + 3, where x in metre and t in second.
Find the displacement of the particle when its velocity is zero.
[3 marks questions]
1. An electrician wants to climb to the top of a vertical pole of height 11 m for repairing. He
climbs 5 m in 2 s and then slips down 3 m in 2 s. This process repeats.
(i) Plot the x-t graph of the motion.
(ii) Find the time taken by electrician to reach the top of the pole.
(iii) What is the total distance covered by electrician?
2. (a) Derive the relation between linear velocity and angular velocity in a uniform
circular motion.
(b) The length of the second hand of a watch is 1.4 cm. Find the angular velocity and
linear velocity of the tip of the second hand.
3. A particle start moving with velocity u with uniform acceleration ‘a’ along a straight line,
after time t it travels a distance s and attain velocity v.
(a) Draw velocity time graph describing the motion of the particle.
(b) Using the graph establish the relations (i) v = u + at (ii) s = ut + 1/2at 2
4. The velocity time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is shown in figure.

(a) What is the acceleration of the particle in section C ?

(b) Which sections represent uniform accelerated motion ?
(c) What is the total distance travelled by particle?
 [5 marks questions]
1. (a) A projectile is fired with velocity u making angle θ with the horizontal direction.
Find the expression for
(i) Time of flight (ii) Horizontal range (iii) Maximum height
0
(b) A bullet fired at an angle of 30 with the horizontal hits the ground 3 km away, By
adjusting the angle of projection, can one hope to hit a target 4 km away? Assume that
muzzle speed to be fixed and neglect air resistance.
2. (a) Define centripetal acceleration.
(b) Derive the expression for the centripetal acceleration of a particle moving with uniform
speed v along a circular path of radius r.
(c) Explain how it acts along the radius towards the centre of circular path.
3. (a)Two vectors 𝑃⃗ and 𝑄 ⃗ are inclined to each other at an angle θ. Using parallelogram law of
vectors addition find the magnitude and direction of their resultant.
(b) Discuss the special cases when their resultant is (i) maximum (ii) minimum
[MCQ]
1. The acceleration of a particle in m/s2 is given by a = 3t2 + 2t + 2, where time in second. If
particle starts with a velocity v = 2 m/s at t = 0, then find the velocity at the end of 2 s.
a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 20
2. What does the Speedometer of the bike measure?
(a) Acceleration (b) Distance travelled (c) Average speed (d) Instantaneous speed
3. Two vectors 𝐴 and 𝐵 ⃗ are such that 𝐴. 𝐵 ⃗ = I𝐴 x𝐵 ⃗ I . The angle between them is
0 0 0
(a) 0 (b) 45 (c) 60 (d) 900
4. Two equal forces has their resultant equal to either. What is the inclination
between them?
(a) 300 (b) 600 (c) 900 (d) 1200
5. The greatest height to which a man can throw a stone is h. What will be the greatest
distance upto which he can throw the stone?
(a) h (b) 2h (c) 3h (d) 4h
CASE STUDY I
1. A helicopter on a flood relief mission flying horizontally with a speed of 720 km/h at an
altitude 490 m. A food packet is drop from helicopter when it is directly above a victim.
(a) Write the equation of trajectory followed by food packet?
(b) What is the time taken by food packet to reach the ground?
(c) By how much distance will the food packet miss the victim?
CASE STUDY II
2. Two friends Sachin and Raheem were plan to visit a water fall on upcoming Sunday.
Sachin covered first half distance of water fall with average speed 40 km/h and
second half distance of water fall with average speed 60 km/h. While Raheem
covered first half time with average speed 36 km/h and second half time with
average speed 60 km/h.
(a) Who reached the water fall earlier?
(b) Calculate the mean speed of sachin.
(c) Calculate the mean speed of Raheem.
 [A & R]
Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these
questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
1. Assertion. A body moving with a uniform speed may have an acceleration .
Reason. A body moving on a circular path with constant time period has
centripetal acceleration.
2. Assertion. A person walks a distance of 30 m towards west a with speed of 2 m/s
and 40 m towards north with a speed of 1.5 m/s . The average velocity of his
journey is 1.2 m/s .
Reason. Average velocity = distance travelled/time taken
3. Assertion. Minimum number of unequal forces whose sum is zero are three.
Reason. The forces represented by three sides of a triangle taken in an order
have zero resultant.
4. Assertion. A projectile fired with velocity u making angle θ with horizontal
direction have horizontal range u2sin2θ/g .
Reason. A projectile fired with velocity u making angle θ with vertical direction
direction also have same horizontal range u2sin2θ/g .
5. Assertion. The component of a vector can be equal to the given vector.
Reason. The component of vector 𝐴 in the direction making angle θ with the
given vector will be A cosθ.
Answers(Solutions)
2 Marks(questions)
(1) (i) (ii)

(2). By using ii equetion of motion r(t) = ut+1/2at2 and comparing the cofficient of i and j
and solving t = 2 s, y = 24 m
(3) Rpushing ≥ Rpulling
 (4) As t1= 2usinθ/g, t2= 2usin(90 –θ)/g and R=u2sin2θ/g=u2 2sinθcosθ/g
Therefore t1t2=4u2sinθcosθ/g2=2u2sin2θ/g2=2R/g
(5) At t=3 velocity is zero and displacement = 0
(3Marks questions)
1. (i) (ii) Time=14 s (iii) Distance=29 m

2 (a) Derivation of v = ωr (b) ω=2ԯ/T=2x3.14/60=0.105 rad/s,v=0.105x1.4=0.147 m/s

3 (a) (b) graphically derivation of v=u+at & s=ut+1/2at2

4 (a) a=(15-5)/(40-30)=1 m/s2 (b) A & C (c) s= sum of areas of sections A,B,C and D=300 m
5 Marks questions.
1.(a) Derivation of (i) T=2usinθ/g (ii) R = u2sin2θ/g (iii) H = u2sin2θ/2g
2 2
(b) From case I, 3000=u sin2x30/g→u /g=3464……..(i)
Case ll Rmax= u2/g=3464 m=3.46 km from (i) so not hit the target of 4 km
2.(a)Defnition (b)Derivation ac=v2/r (c)because ∆𝑣 along the radius & towards centre of circular Path
3. (a)Derivation R=√P2+Q2+2PQcosθ & tanα=Qsinθ/(P+Qcosθ) (b) For Rmax, θ=00 & For Rmin, θ=1800
MCQ
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. b) 4.(d) 5.(b)
Case study
1 (a) y=xtanθ-gx2/2u2cos2θ (parabola) (b) 490=1/2x9.8t2→t=10 s (c) R= 200x10=2000 m
2 (a) At same time (b) v=2v1v2/(v1+v2)=48 km/h (c) v = (v1+ v2)/2 = 48 km/h
A&R
1. (b) 2-(c) 3-(a) 4-(b) 5-(d)
Unit–III - Laws of
Motion
Chapter–5: Laws of
Motion
 STUDY MATERIAL CLASS XI TOPIC LAWS OF MOTION
PREPARED BY HINA DUBEY PGT PHYSICS
SECTION - ASSERTION REASON
For question numbers 1 to 5 , two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d)
as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
1. ASSERTION: On a rainy day, it is difficult to drive a car or a bus at high speed.
REASON: The value of coefficient friction is lowered due to wetting of the surface
2.ASSERTION: A table cloth can be pulled from a table without dislodging the dishes.
REASON: To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
3.ASSERTION: Newton’s third law of motion is applicable only when bodies are in motion.
REASON: Newton’s third law applies to all types of forces, e.g. gravitational, electric or
magnetic forces etc.

4.ASSERTION (A) : A player lowers his hands while catching a cricketball.

REASON (R) : This increases the time of catch.

5. ASSERTION: Force is required to move a body uniformly along a circle.

REASON: When the motion is uniform, acceleration is zero.

SECTION MCQs
1.What is the angle of friction between two surfaces in contact if the coefficient of friction is
1/(3)½ ?
(a) 30º (b) 60 º (c) 90 º (d) 0 º

2.For a body moving with constant speed in horizontal circle, which of the following remains
constant?
(a) Velocity (b) Acceleration (c) Centripetal force (d) Kinetic energy

3.The need of banking of road is

(a) To provide additional gravitational force for higher velocity
(b) To provide additional centrifugal force for higher velocity
(c) To provide additional centripetal force for higher velocity
(d) To provide additional electrostatic force for higher velocity
4.A cyclist bends while taking turn in order to
(a) reduce friction (b) provide required centripetal force
(c) reduce apparent weight (d) reduce speed
5. Which of the following is a self- adjusting force?
(a) Static friction (b) Rolling friction (c) sliding friction (d Dynamic friction

SECTION B 2 M
1. A constant force acts on a body of mass 5 kg and changes its speed from 5m/s to 10 m/s in 10
seconds, without changing the direction of motion. What is the force acting on the body ?
2.Show that angle of Repose is equal to angle of friction.
3.Action and reaction forces equal and opposite. Why don’t they cancel each other?
4.Draw a free body diagram of a car on a banked road.
5. Give the magnitude and direction of the net force acting on
(a) A drop of rain falling down with constant speed.
(b) A kite skillfully held stationary in the sky.

SECTION C 3 M
1.A man of mass 70 kg, stands on a weighing machine in a lift, which is moving
(a) Upwards with a uniform speed of 10 ms-1.
(b) Downwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 ms-2.
(c) Upwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 ms-2. .What would be the readings on the scale
in each case?
2.Derive an expression for bending of a cyclist while moving on a circular level with speed v
and road of radius r
3.A bullet of mass 0.04kg moving with speed of 90 m/s enters a heavy wooden block and
is stopped after a distance of 60 cm .What is average resistive force exerted by the block on the
bullet ?
4.Forces of 16N and 12N are acting on a mass of 200kg in mutually perpendicular directions.
Find the magnitude of the acceleration produced?
5.Two bodies of masses 10 kg and 20 kg respectively kept on a smooth, horizontal surface are
tied to the ends of a light string. A horizontal force F=600 N is applied to
(i) A, (ii) B along the direction of string. What is

the tension in the string in each case?

SECTION 5 MARKS
1.(i)Obtain an expression for the maximum speed with which avehicle can safely negotiate a
curved road banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of friction between the wheels and the road is μ.
(ii) A circular race track of radius 300m is banked at an angle of 15 º. If the coefficient of
friction between the wheels of a racecar and the road is 0.2, What is the
(a)Optimum speed of the race car to avoid wear and tear of the tyres?
(b)Maximum permissible speed to avoid the slipping.
2. a) Obtain an expression for centripetal force required to make body of mass m moving
with velocity v around a curve of radius r
b) Find expression for velocity of recoil of gun.
3. .What is apparent weight? A person having mass 60 kg is standing in an elevator. Calculate the
apparent weight of the man when (Take value of g=10m/s2)
(a) The elevator is stationary
(b) The elevator is moving with a uniform velocity of 4 ms-2 in the downward direction.
(c) The elevator is moving with a uniform velocity of 4 ms-2 in the upward direction.

(d) The elevator is moving with a uniform acceleration of 4 ms-2 in the upward direction.
 (f) The cable of the elevator breaks and elevator is freely falling under gravity.

CASE STUDY 4MARKS

1. NEWTON’S 2NDLAW OF MOTION:

According to Newton’s second law of motion, F = ma, where F is force required to produce an
acceleration a in a body of mass m. if a = 0, then F = 0 i. e. no external force is required to
move a body uniformly along a straight line. If a force act on a body for t seconds, the effect
of force is given by impulse = F x t = change in linear momentum of body.
With the help of passage given above, choose the appropriate alternative for each of following
questions:

(i). A body of mass 50g moving with velocity 10m/s .Its velocity increases to 20m/s in same
direction as a force exerted on it for 1 s .The impulse is
a) 500 Ns b) 0.5Ns c) 50Ns d) 5Ns

(ii). If impulsive force of 100 N acts on body for 1 sec then change in momentum is
(A) 40Ns (B) 100 Ns. (C) 200 Ns. (D) 50 Ns.

(iii). Conservation of linear momentum can be represented by

a) F=ma b) dp /dt =0 c) F=0 d) b and c are correct

(iv). The force acting on the object whose linear momentum changes by 20 kg m/s in 10 s is
(A) 2 N. (B) 20 N. (C) 200 N. (D) 0.2 N.

2.Friction between any two surfaces in contact is the force that opposes the relative motion
between them. The force of limiting friction (F) between any two surfaces in contact is directly
proportional to the normal reaction (R) between them i .e , F ∝ R or F= µS R, where µs is
coefficient of limiting friction , then µS = tan θ With the help of above comprehension,
choose the most appropriate alternative for each of the following questions:

1. A force of 173 N is just able to move a block of wood weighing 10 kg on a rough horizontal
surface. The coefficient of friction is take g=10 m/s2
(a) 1.73 (b) 17.3 (c) 10/173 (d) 173/9.8
2. The angle of friction in the above question is
(a) 60° (b) 30° (c) 90° (d) 45 °
3. A horizontal force of 1.2 kg wt is applied on a 1.5 kg block, which rests on a horizontal
surface. If the coefficient of friction is 0.3 , force of friction is
(a) 0.45 kg f (b) 1.2kg f (c) 1.5kg f (d) 0.3kg f
4. The acceleration produced in the block in the above question is
(a) 9.8m/s2 (b) 0.3m/s2 (c) 1.5m/s2 (d) 4.9m/s2
Unit–IV - Work, Energy
and Power
Chapter–6: Work,
Energy and Power
WORK ENERGY AND POWER
Two Mark Questions
Q.1 The bob of a pendulum is released from a horizontal A as shown. If the length of the
pendulum is 1.5 m, what is the speed with which the bob arrives at the lowermost point B,
given that it dissipates 5% of its initial energy against air resistance ?

Q.2 Define an electron volt. Express it in terms of joule.

Q.3 A body of mass 4 kg initially at rest is subject to a force 16 N. What is the kinetic energy
acquired by the body at the end of 10 s ?
Q.4 What is the amount of work done by
(a) a weightlifter in holding a weight of 120 kg on his shoulder for 30 s, and
(b) a locomotive against gravity, if it is travelling on a level plane ?
Q.5 State and explain Work-Energy theorem.
Three Mark Question
Q.1 Define kinetic energy. Prove that K.E. associated with a mass ‘m’ moving with velocity v
is ½ mv2.
Q.2 What is an elastic collision ? What will happen, when
(i) a heavy body collides with a light mass at rest.
(ii) a light body collides with a heavy mass at rest.
Q.3 A body of mass 2 kg is resting on a rough horizontal surface. A force of 20 N is now
applied to it for 10 seconds parallel to the surface. If the coefficient of kinetic friction
between the surfaces in contact is 0.2, calculate :
(a) Work done by the applied force in 10 seconds.
(b) Change in kinetic energy of the object in 10 seconds. Take g = 10 m/s2.
Q.4 Show that in case of one dimensional elastic collision of two bodies, the relative velocity
of separation after the collision is equal to the relative velocity of approach before the
collision.
Five Mark Questions
Q.1 Derive an expression for the velocity of the two masses m1 and m2 moving with speeds u1
and u2 undergoing elastic collision in one dimension.
Q.2 (a) A body of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with velocity v = ax3/2 where α = 5 m–
1
/2 s–1. What is the work done by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x
=2m?
 (b) If the linear momentum is increased by 50%, what is the change in its kinetic energy
?
MCQs
Q.1 A long spring is stretched by 2 cm. Its potential energy is V. If the spring is stretched by
10 cm, its potential energy would be:
(a) V/25
(b) V/5
(c) 5V
(d) 25V
Q.2 Which of the following is not conserved in inelastic collision?
(a) Momentum.
(b) Kinetic energy.
(c) Both momentum and kinetic energy.
(d) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy.
Q.3 A ball of mass m moving with a velocity v collides with an identical ball at rest. After
collision, the first ball comes to rest. The speed of the other ball is
(a) v/2
(b) 2v
(c) v
(d) zero

Q.4 Two masses of 1 gm and of 4 gm are moving with equal linear momenta. The ratio of
their kinetic energies is:
(a) 4 : 1
(b) √2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 1 : 16
Q.5 A man squatting on the ground gets straight up and stand. The force of reaction of
ground on the man during the process is
(a) constant and equal to mg in magnitude.
(b) constant and greater than mg in magnitude.
(c) variable but always greater than mg.
(d) at first greater than mg, and later becomes equal to mg
.
ASSERTION AND REASON:
Directions: Each of these questions contain two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of
these questions also has four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer.
You have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Q.1 Assertion : A work done by friction is always negative.
Reason : If frictional force acts on a body its K.E. may decrease.

Q.2 Assertion : A spring has potential energy, both when it is compressed or stretched.
Reason : In compressing or stretching, work is done on the spring against the restoring force.

Q.3 Assertion : A force applied on the body always does work on the body.
Reason : If a force applied on a body displaces the body along the direction of force work
done will be maximum.

Q.4 Assertion : The work done in moving a body over a closed loop is zero for every force
in nature.
Reason : Work done depends on nature of force.

Q.5 Assertion : The rate of change of total momentum of a many particle system is
proportional to the sum of the internal forces of the system.
Reason : Internal forces can change the kinetic energy but not the momentum of the system.

CASE STUDY:
Q.1 Mechanical energy exists in two forms: Kinetic energy and Potential energy. Kinetic
energy is the energy possessed by a body by virtue of motion. Potential energy is the energy
possessed by a body by virtue of its position or configuration. These two forms of energy are
interconvertible. If no other form of energy is involved in a process, the sum of kinetic energy
and potential energy always remains constant.
(i) State law of conservation of mechanical energy.
(ii) State two particles having mass m1 and m2, both have equal linear momenta. What is
the ratio of their kinetic energies?
(iii) Two particles of masses m1 and m2 have equal kinetic energies. What is the ratio of
their linear momenta?
(iv) A particle of mass m has half the kinetic energy of another particle of mass m/2. If the
speed of the heavier particle is increased by 2 ms–1, its new kinetic energy equals the original
kinetic energy of the lighter particle. What is the ratio of the original speeds of the lighter and
heavier Particle?
(v) A uniform rod of mass m and length l is made to stand vertically on one end. What is
the potential energy of the rod in this position?
Q.2 Work is said to be done by a force acting on a body, provided the body is displaced
actually in any direction except in a direction perpendicular to the direction of the force-
mathematically, W = = Fs cos θ, whereas energy is the capacity of a body to do the work
and Power is the rate at which the body do the work.

Both, work and energy are measured in Joule while power is measured in watt.
(i) If a box is pushed through 4.0 m across a floor offering 100 N resistance then the
work done by the applied force is
(a) 100 J (b) 0J
(c) 400 J (d) 25 J
(ii) In the above case, the work done by the gravity is
(a) 981 J (b) 0J
(c) 400 J (d) 25 J
(iii) SI unit of the power in terms of joule is

(a) J.s (b)

(c) Jm (d)
(iv) A truck draws a tractor of mass 1000 kg at a steady rate of 20 m/s on a level road. The
tension in the coupling is 2000 N, then the power spent on the tractor is
(a) 400 kW (b) 40 kW
(c) 2000 kW (d) 1000 kW
(v) From the above question, the work done on the tractor for 2 minute is
(a) 2400 kJ (b) 4800 kJ
(c) 2000 kJ (d) 1500 kJ
 Unit–V - Motion of
System of Particles and
Rigid Body
Chapter–7: System of
Particles and Rotational
Motion
 MOTION OF THE SYTEM PARTICLES AND RIGID BODY
A brief introduction to classical mechanics and Newtonian physics in a system of particles,
along with its impact on the relational motion. In kinematics, only one body travels along a
linear line. However, every system comprises more than one body. A two-body system or
numerous bodies can be observed depending on the arrangement. The motion equations
become more complex while considering a system of particles. Specifically, in such cases, we
should examine the centre of mass. Therefore, in this case, we will consider the centre of
mass and different aspects of rotational motion, along with focusing on their relations for
understanding the entire concept of system of particles and rotational motion class 11.
Types of systems of particles
Two different types of systems of particles, namely continuous and discrete systems, are
considered in classical mechanics.
Discrete system
In the discrete system, all bodies are placed at a distance from each other so that no point of
contact occurs. A typical example of this would be an auditorium where people sit in a
scattered pattern.
Continuous system
In the continuous system, all bodies present are arranged compactly with little space between
them. In this case, the centre of motion plays a crucial role in deciding the type of work done
and the point of force application.
Centre of mass in a system of particles
Each particle will have its own mass in a system involving different particles. While considering
the individual body masses, we cannot generalise the work energy function or the rigid body
system equations. In this case, we can consider the mass concept. The mass concept is a point
at which all masses of the body are concentrated. At the centre of mass, only one magnitude
is considered and can be used further in evaluating the system of particles and rotational
motion. According to Newton’s second law, the force applied to a body is directly proportional
to uniform acceleration.Therefore, the equation can be written as F = ma where F is the
applied force, m is the mass of the body, and a is the acceleration of the concerned body in
motion.
Two particle system
In the two particle system, we will consider two bodies A and B with mass m1 and m2 ,
respectively. In this case, the instantaneous position vectors of both bodies from the origin
can be represented as r1 and r2.
In this system, the centre of the mass can be described by the following equation:
rcm = (m1r1 + m2r2)/(m1 + m2) ……. (i)
As vectors are considered, all three coordinates of the Cartesian system need to be examined.
Therefore,
xcm = (m1x1 + m2x2)/(m1 + m2) ……. (ii)
ycm = (m1y1 + m2y2)/(m1 + m2) ……. (iii)

zcm = (m1z1 + m2z2)/(m1 + m2) ……. (iv)

Discrete system of particles
Let us consider n number of particles in a discrete system of particles, with mass values as
m1, m2, m3, and m4, and position vectors as r1, r2, r3, and r4. In this case, the centre of mass
equation can be written as:
rcm = (m1r1 + m2r2 + m3r3 + ….. + mnrn) / (m1 +m2 +m3 + ……. + mn) ……. (i)
Conservation law for momentum
Momentum is defined as the product of mass and velocity. It depends on the force applied to
the system of particles. Momentum can be stated as:
For two or more bodies in an isolated system acting upon each other, the total momentum
remains constant unless and until an external force is applied. Thus, momentum cannot be
created or destroyed.
Mathematically, if we consider two particles A and B, then momentum is written as:
A = m1 (vf1 – vi1) …. (i)
B = m2 (vf2 – vi2) …. (i)
Combining these equations and comparing them with Newton’s second law of motion, the
conservation law of momentum can be written as:
m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2 …… (iii)
Angular momentum of a system of particles
Based on the theories of rotational motion, we can determine the angular momentum of a
body by L and can measure it from a fixed point where the vector momentums of the
individual particles are concentrated.
Thus, L = L1 + L2 +L3 +L4 + ……. + Ln …. (iv)
Kinetic and potential energy of a system of particles
When a body is at rest, it possesses potential energy denoted by U. In the state of motion,
the body possesses kinetic energy denoted by K. The mathematical expressions are written
as:
U = mgh
K = ½ (mv2)
where m is the mass, g is the acceleration due to gravity, h is the height from sea level, and v
is the velocity with which the body is moving.
According to the law of conservation of energy, new energy cannot be created or destroyed.
When the body starts gaining velocity, the potential energy is converted to kinetic energy.
This energy increases till the body attains the rest position, in which the kinetic energy is
converted back into potential energy.
Conclusion
This article describes the system of particles and rotational motion. The system of particle
theory is used to determine the force and centre of mass of rigid bodies combining pulleys,
multiple body blocks, and other factors. Therefore, it is crucial in classical mechanics and can
be easily related to Newtonian physics. More information can be obtained on how the angular
velocity and acceleration change tangentially in a curved path and on the work-energy
relationship.
Very short answer type questions (2)marks

(1) If string of rotating stone breaks in which direction will the stone move?

Ans:-The stone move along the tangent at the point of breaking.

(2) A laborer standing near the top of an old wooden step ladder feels unstable. Why?

Ans:-The point of contact of the ladder with the ground in the point about which the ladder can
rotate. When the laborer is at top of the ladder, the leaver arm of the force is large so the
turning effect can be large.

(3) A ballet dancer stretches her hands out for slowing down . Name the conservation obeyed.

Ans:-This is based on the principle of conservation of angular momentum.

(4) What is angular velocity of the hour handoff clock?

Ans:-Angular velocity of hour hand

Ѡ =2 П/12 hour = 2 П/12Х3600 rad/sec

(5) Why are spokes fitted in a cycle wheel?

Ans:-To increase moment of inertia with less mass.

Short answer type 3 marks

(1)Established the relation between(A) angular momentum and rotational kinetic energy?
(B) Explain the second law of rotational motion.
Ans A)we know that angular momentum in terms of I and Ѡ
L= IѠ……………………………(1)
And rotational kinetic energy
Eb = 1/2 IѠ2………………………….(2)
Eb = 1/2 IѠ. Ѡ = ½ L. Ѡ = L2/2I
(b) we know that
Ϯ=FХr
=maХr
 We know that linear acceleration and angular acceleration can bee
defined as
a=αХr
Ϯ = m(α Х r)Хr
Ϯ = mr2α = Iα

(2) if earth were to shrink suddenly keeping the mass the same what would happen to the
length of the day.
Ans:- Keeping the mass same if the earth were shrinks the angular momentum will remain constant
I1Ѡ1 = I2Ѡ2
2/5MR2 (2П/24) = 2/5Mr2 2П/T
T = r2/ R2 Х 24
Since r< R SO t <24
(3) What is the difference between rotational kinetic energy and rolling kinetic energy? Show
the rolling kinetic energy of the rolling body is given by 1/2mv2(K2/r2+1).
Ans :- Rotational kinetic energy is only due to the rotational motion , while kinetic energy under
rolling in the sum of
the rotational and translational kinetic energies.
Kinetic energy n rolling = rotational kinetic energy + translational kinetic energy
= ½I Ѡ2 + ½ mv2
=½ mk2 Ѡ2 + ½ mv2
=½ mk2v2 / r2 + ½ mv2
=½ mv2(1+k2/r2)
(4) Is friction is necessary for a body to roll? What is the minimum friction is required for a disc
of mass M and radius r to roll on inclined plane.
Ans:- Yes friction is necessary for a body to roll since it can the required torque to bring rotational
motion.
Force of friction FS = μN for a plane it can be written as μmgcosϴ
Then acceleration to down the plane
a = gsinϴ/(1+k2/r2)
torque Ϯ = FSR= μmgcosϴ R
= Ϯ = Iα= Ia/R
μmgcosϴ R = I gsinϴ/(1+k2/r2)
FS= gsinϴMR2/(R2+K2) for K=R/2
= 2/3Mgsinϴ =MR2
 Minimum frictional coefficient =μ= tanϴR2/(R2+K2)
For K=R/2
μ= 2/3tanϴ

Long answer type questions 5 marks

(1) Why is moment of inertia called rotational inertia?

Ans: Rotational inertia measures the moment of inertia during its rotational motion. Clearly, the
moment of inertia is called rotational inertia.
(b). Calculate M.I of a uniform circular disc of mass 500gm and radius 10cm about
(i) Diameter
Ans: Moment of inertia can be given as:
Id=14MR2
⇒Id=14×500×102=12500gmcm2
(ii) axis tangent to the disc and parallel to diameter
Ans: Moment of inertia can be given as:
Id′=Id+MR2
⇒Id′=14MR2+MR2
⇒Id′=54MR2
⇒Id′=54×500×102
⇒Id′=62500gmcm2
(c). Axis passing through centre and perpendicular to its plane?
Ans: Moment of inertia can be calculated:
I=12MR2
⇒I=12×500×(10)2
⇒I=25000gmcm2
(2)(i) if no external force applied on a two body system, what will happen to (a) velocity of center of
mass (b) angular momentum
(ii).Four particles of mass 1kg, 2kg, 3kg and 4kg are placed at the four vertices A, B, C and D of
square of side 1m. Find the position of centre of mass of the particle
ANS:- (a) velocity of center of mass will be same. b)angular momentum is conserved
and will be zero if no ratational exists.
Ans:Hence

Thus centre of mass (0.5m, 0.7m)

(3) what is torque write its unit and dimension formula. A rope of negligible mass is wound round a
hollow cylinder of mass 3kg and radius 40cm. VVhat is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the
rope is pulled with a force of 30N? VVhat is the linear acceleration of the rope? Assume that there is
no slipping.
Solution: Torque is the effect of force when it is applied to an object containing a pivot point
or the axis of rotation (the point at which an object rotates), which results in the form of
rotational motion of the object. The Force causes objects to accelerate in the linear direction
in which the force is applied, but in the case of torque, it causes objects to accelerate in the
angular direction with respect to the axis of rotation. Torque is also called the “moment of
force,” as it depends on the magnitude of the force as well as the moment of the arm, i.e., the
perpendicular distance between the line of action force and the axis of rotation. Torque is as
fundamental to rotational motion as force is to a straight-line motion.
Mass of the hollow cylinder, M = 3kg
Radius of the hollow cylinder, R = 40 cm = 40100 = 0.4 m
Force applied on the cylinder, F = 30N
Moment of inertia of hollow cylinder, I = MR² = 3 × (0.4) = 3 × 0.16 = 0.48 kgm²
Torque acting on the cylinder, τ = Fr = 30 × 0.4 = 12 Nm
If α is the angular acceleration produced in the cylinder, then from τ = Iα,

α = τI=120.48=120048 = 25 rad /sec².

If a is the linear acceleration of the rope, then a = rα ⇒ a = 0.4 × 25 = 10ms-2.

Multiple choice questions

1.If a body is rotating about an axis passing through its centre of mass, the angular
momentum of the body is directed along its _________________.

a. Circumference
b. Radius
c. Axis of rotation
d. None of the option
Answer: (c) Axis of rotation

2. The combination of rotational motion and the translational motion of a rigid body is known
as _________________.

a. Frictional motion
b. Axis motion
c. Angular motion
d. Rolling motion
Answer: (d) Rolling motion

3. A rod of length L is hinged from one end. It is brought to a horizontal position and
released. The angular velocity of the rod when it is in vertical position is

(A) √(2g/L)

(B) √ (3g/L)

(C) √ (g/2L)

(D) √ (g/L)

Ans: (C)

4. A uniform solid circular cylinder of radius r is placed on a rough horizontal surface and
given a linear velocity v = 2ωor and angular velocity ωo as shown in the figure. The speed of
cylinder when it starts rolling

(A) 5/2 ωoR

(B) 3/2 ωoR

(C) 5/3 ωoR

(D) 2/3 ωoR

Ans:-C

5. A sphere moving at some instant with horizontal velocity vc in right and angular velocity
ω in anti clockwise sense. If = | vc | = | ω R | . The instantaneous centre of rotation is

(A) at the bottom of the sphere

(B) at the top of the sphere

(C) at the centre of the sphere

(D) any where inside the sphere

Ans:-B

ASSERATION AND REASONING

Directions: Each of these questions contain two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each
of these questions also has four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer.
You have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

1.Assertion : The centre of mass of a body may lie where there is no mass.

Reason : Centre of mass of body is a point, where the whole mass of the body is supposed to
be concentrated.

ANS C

2. Assertion : For a system of particles under central force field, the total angular momentum
is conserved.

Reason : The torque acting on such a system is zero.

ANS: a

3. Assertion : It is harder to open and shut the door if we apply force near the hinge.

Reason : Torque is maximum at hinge of the door.

Ans:-C
4. Assertion: When no external torque acts on a body, its angular velocity remains constant as
long as moment of inertia is constant.

Reason: Torque τ = 0; dL/dt = 0, L = constant. L = Iω = constant

ANS: d

5. Assertion : The total kinetic energy of a rolling solid sphere is the sum of
translational and rotational kinetic energies.

Reason : For all solid bodies total kinetic energy is always twice the translational
kinetic energy.

Ans: c

CASE BASE STUDY

1 Radius of gyration: The radius of gyration of a body about an axis may be defined as the
distance from the axis of a mass point whose mass is equal to the mass of the whole body and
whose moment of inertia is equal to the moment of inertia of the body about the axis.the
moment of inertia of a rigid body analogous to mass in linear motion and depends on the
mass of the body, its shape and size; distribution of mass about the axis of rotation, and the
position and orientation of the axis of rotation.

Theorem of perpendicular axes

It states that the moment of inertia of a planar body (lamina) about an axis perpendicular to
its plane is equal to the sum of its moments of inertia about two perpendicular axes
concurrent with perpendicular axis and lying in the plane of the body. If we consider a planar
body, An axis perpendicular to the body through a point O is taken as the z-axis. Two
mutually perpendicular axes lying in the plane of the body and concurrent with z-axis, i.e.,
passing through O, are taken as the x and y-axes. The theorem states that I z = I x + I y.

Theorem of parallel axes The moment of inertia of a body about any axis is equal to the
sum of the moment of inertia of the body about a parallel axis passing through its centre of
mass and the product of its z and z’ are two parallel axes, separated by a distance a. The z-
axis passes through the centre of mass O of the rigid body. Then according to the theorem of
parallel axes

Iz’= Iz + Ma2

Where Iz and Iz’ are the moments of inertia of the body about the z and z¢ axes respectively,
M is the total mass of the body and a is the perpendicular distance between the two parallel
axes.
1) SI unit of radius of gyration

a) Metre (m)

b) M2

c) M3

d) None of these

2) Moment of inertia is analogous to

a Mass

b) Area

c) Force

d) None of these

3) Define radius of gyration

4) State Theorem of perpendicular axes

5) State Theorem of parallel axes

2) Centre of Mass

The centre of mass of a body or a system of bodies is the point which moves as though all of
the mass were concentrated there and all external forces were applied to it. Hence, a point at
which the entire mass of the body or system of bodies is supposed to be concentrated is known
as the centre of mass.
If a system consists of more than one particle (or bodies) and net external force on the system
in a particular direction is zero with centre of mass at rest. Then, the centre of mass will not
move along that direction. Even though some particles of the system may move along that
direction.

(i) Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are lying in xy-plane at (-1, 2) and (2, 4),
respectively. What are the coordinates of the centre of mass?
(a) 1, 10/3
(b) (1,0)
(c) (0,1)
(d) None of these

(ii) Two balls of same masses start moving towards each other due to gravitational
attraction, if the initial distance between them is L. Then, they meet at
 (a) L/2
(b) L
(c) L/3
(d) L/4

(iii) The centre of mass of a system of two particles divides, the distance between
them
(a) in inverse ratio of square of masses of particles
(b) in direct ratio of square of masses of particles
(c) in inverse ratio of masses of particles
(d) in direct ratio of masses of particles

(iv) Two particles A and B initially at rest move towards each other under a mutual
force of attraction. At the instant, when the speed of A is v and the speed of B is 2v, the
speed of centre of mass of the system is
(a) zero
(b) v
(c) 1.5 v
(d) v

(v) All the particles of a body are situated at a distance R from the origin. The distance
of centre of mass of the body from the origin is
(a) = R
(b) ≤ R
(c) > R
(d) ≥ R
Unit-VI - Gravitation
Chapter–8: Gravitation
 Gravitation
Q1. The radius of the earth shrinks by one percent and its mass remaining the same, then
acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface will
(a)decrease (b) increase (c)remain constant (d) either (a) or (c)
Q2. Two satellites A and B have ratio of masses 3:1 in circular orbits of radii r and 4r. The
ratio of total mechanical energy of A and B is
(a)1:3 (b)3:1 (c) 3:4 (d) 12:1
Q3 The required kinetic energy of an object of mass m, so that it may escape ,will be
(a)mgR/4 (b) mgR/2 (c) mgR (d) 2mgR
Q4. If the radius of the earth decreases by 1% and its mass remains the same, then the
acceleration due to gravity.
(a) increases by 1% (b) decreases by 1% (c) increases by 2% (d) decreases by 2%
Q5. When a body is taken from poles to equator on the earth, its weight
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains the same (d) increases at south pole, decreases at
north.

Assertion and reasoning questions.

Instructions for Questions 1-5.
These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four
responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

Q.1 Assertion: The value of acceleration due to gravity does not depends upon mass of the
body on which force is applied.
Reason: Acceleration due to gravity is a constant quantity.
(a) A. (b) B. (c) C. (d) D.
Q.2 Assertion: Objects appear 'weightless' inside an orbiting spacecraft.
Reason: Objects in circular motion experience centripetal force
(a) A. (b) B. (c) C. (d) D.
Q.3 Assertion : Gravitational potential is maximum at infinite
Reason : Gravitational potential is the amount of work done to shifting a unit mass from
infinity to a given point in Gravitational attraction force field.
(a) A. (b) B. (c) C. (d) D.
Q.4 Assertion: Escape velocity is independent of the angle of projection.
Reason : Escape velocity from the surface of earth is 2gR where R is radius of earth.
(a) A. (b) B. (c) C. (d) D.
Q.5 Assertion : Orbit of a satellite is within the gravitational field of earth whereas escaping
is beyond the gravitational field of earth.
Reason : Orbital velocity of a satellite is greater than its escape velocity.
(a) A. (b) B. (c) C. (d) D.
 CASE STUDY QUERSTIONS
QUESTION:-1 Geostationary or geosynchronous orbit Geostationary or geosynchronous
orbit is the best spot for communications satellites to use, however. This is a zone above
Earth's equator at an altitude of 35,786 km (22,236 mi). At this altitude, the rate of "fall"
around the Earth is about the same as Earth's rotation, which allows the satellite to stay above
the same spot on Earth almost constantly. The satellite thus keeps a perpetual connection with
a fixed antenna on the ground, allowing for reliable communications. When geostationary
satellites reach the end of their life, protocol dictates they're moved out of the way for a new
satellite to take their place. That's because there is only so much room, or so many "slots" in
that orbit, to allow the satellites to operate without interference. While some satellites are best
used around the equator, others are better suited to more polar orbits — those that circle the
Earth from pole to pole so that their coverage zones include the north and south poles.
Examples of polar-orbiting satellites include weather satellites and reconnaissance satellites.

Q:1 Most waves used for communication purposes rely on geostationary satellites because
_____
(a) they cannot transmit data at long distances due to curvature of the earth
(b) they are reflected by the atmosphere
(c) they are very cheap
(d) it does not occupy space on the earth’s surface
Q:2 A geostationary satellite seems to be fixed in the sky because it does not orbit the earth.
(a) True (b) False
Q:3 The height of the geostationary satellites above the earth’s surface is approximately
(a) 36,000 km (b) 72,000 km (c) 15,000 km (d) 30,000 km
Q:4 Polar satellites are used for high-resolution imaging of the earth’s surface because
(a) they have better cameras
(b) they are very high above the surface of the earth and travel slowly to gather more
information
(c) they are closer to the surface of the earth and can cover vast areas very quickly
(d) they can be launched by most countries in the world
Q:5 A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 4R above the earth’s surface.
The time period of another satellite at a height of 2R is _____
(a) 24 x (3/5)1/2 hr (b) 12 x (3/5)1/2 hr (c) 6 x (3/5)1/2 hr (d) 72 x (3/5)1/2 hr

CASE STUDY- Ans

1 (a) they cannot transmit data at long distances due to curvature of the earth
2 (b) False
3 (a) 36,000 km
4 (c) they are closer to the surface of the earth and can cover vast areas very quickly
5 (a) 24 x (3/5)1/2 hr

2. Did you ever watch a group of children playing "Red Rover?" Arms linked up for
strength, they chant, "Red Rover, Red Rover, let Sally come over," and Sally's challenge is to
break through that chain of linked arms. If she does it, Sally wins. If Sally breaks through the
chain of arms, she's also demonstrated several key aspects to the space concept of escape
velocity. Escape velocity (or a rousing game of Red Rover) requires an object to propel itself
with enough speed and thrust to break through a barrier. Sally's reward is the cheers of her
teammates. A spacecraft's reward is a journey into space or orbit. Achieving escape velocity
is one of the biggest challenges facing space travel. The vehicle requires an enormous amount
of fuel to break through Earth's gravitational pull. All that fuel adds significant weight to the
spacecraft, and when an object is heavier, it takes more thrust to lift it. To create more thrust,
you need more fuel. It's a cycle that scientists are hoping to resolve by creating lighter
vehicles, more efficient fuels and new methods of propulsion that don't require the same
ingredients to attain great speeds.
The existence of escape velocity is a consequence of conservation of energy and an energy
field of finite depth. For an object with a given total energy, which is moving subject to
conservative forces (such as a static gravity field) it is only possible for the object to reach
combinations of locations and speeds which have that total energy; and places which have a
higher potential energy than this cannot be reached at all. By adding speed (kinetic energy) to
the object it expands the possible locations that can be reached, until, with enough energy,
they become infinite.

Q:1 For a planet having mass equal to mass of the earth but radius is one fourth of radius of
the earth. The escape velocity of this planet will be
(a) 11.2 km/s (b) 22.4 km/s (c) 5.6 km/s ( d) 44.8 km/s
Q:2 A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot
escape from it. To what approximate radius would earth ( mass= 5.98 X 1024 kg ) have to be
compressed to be a black hole?
(a) 10-9 m (b) 10-6 m (c) 10-2 m (d) 100m
Q:3 The escape velocity of a body on the surface of the earth is 11.2 km/s. If a body is to be
projected in a direction making an angle 450 to the vertical, then the escape velocity is
(a) 11.2 X 2 km/s (b) 11.2 km/s (c) 11.2 X √2 km/s (d) 11.2 X 2√2 km/s
Q:4 With what velocity should particle be projected so that its height becomes equal to radius
of earth?
(a) (𝐺𝑀𝑅)1/2 (b) (8𝐺𝑀𝑅)1/2 (c) (4𝐺𝑀𝑅)1/2 (d) (2𝐺𝑀𝑅)1/2
Q:5 An elephant and an ant are to be projected out of the gravitational pull of the earth. What
should be the velocities of the elephant and the ant? a) elephant has more escape velocity b)
ant has more escape velocity c) different velocity d)same velocity
CASE STUDY-Ans
1 (b) 22.4 km/s
2 (c) 10-2 m
3 (b) 11.2 km/s
4 (a) (𝐺𝑀𝑅)1/2
5 (d)same velocity
2 Marks questions
Q1. Why does moon have no atmosphere?
Ans. Moon has no atmosphere because the value of acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ on surface
of is no moon is small. Therefore, the value of escape speed on the surface of moon is small.
The molecules of atmospheric gases on the surface of the moon have thermal speeds greater
than the escape speed. That is why all the molecules of gases have escaped and there
atmosphere on moon.
Q2. Since the moon is gravitationally attracted to the earth, why does it not simply crash on
earth?
Ans. The moon is orbiting around the earth in a certain orbit with a certain period . The
centripetal force required for the orbital motion is provided to the gravitational pull of earth.
The moon can crash into the earth if its tangential velocity is reduced to zero. AS moon has
tangential velocity while orbiting around earth, it simply falls around the earth rather than
into it and hence cannot crash into the earth.
Q 3. Show that weight of all body is zero at Centre of earth?
Ans. The value of acceleration due to gravity at a depth d below the surface of earth of radius
R is given by ɠ=g(1-d/R).At the center of earth, (dept)d=R; so, ɠ =0.The weight of a body of
mass m at the centre of earth =mg’=m x 0=0.
Q 4. A rocket is fired with a speed v=2√𝑔𝑅 𝑛𝑒𝑎𝑟 the earth’s surface and directed upwards.
Find its speed in interstellar space.
Ans. Let v be the speed of rocket instellar space.
1 1 1
Using law of conservation of energy, we have2 𝑚(2√𝑔𝑅)2 =2 𝑚𝑣𝑒2 + 2 𝑚𝑣 2
1 1
=2 𝑚(√2𝑔𝑅)2 + 2 𝑚𝑣 2
𝑣 2 = 4𝑔𝑅 − 2𝑔𝑅

𝑣 = √2𝑔𝑅

Q5.A tennis ball and a cricket ball are to be projected out of gravitational field of the
earth. Do we need different velocities to achieve so?
Ans. We require the same velocity for the two balls, while projecting them out of the
gravitational field. It is so because, the value of escape velocity does not depend upon the
mass of the body to be projected.

3 Marks questions
Q1.What are the conditions under which a rocket fired from earth, launches an artificial
satellite of earth?
Ans. Following are the basic conditions:
(i) The rocket must take the satellite to a suitable height above the surface of earth for ease of
propulsion.
(ii)From the desired height, the satellite must be projected with a suitable speed, called orbital
speed.
(iii)In the orbital path of satellite, the air resistance should be negligible so that its speed does
not decrease and it does not burn due to the heat produced.
Q2. Two particles of equal mass go round a circle of radius R under the action of their mutual
gravitational attraction. Find the speed of each particle.
Ans. The particles will always remain diametrically opposite so that the force on each particle
will be directed along the radius. Consider the motion of one of the particles. The force on the
particle is

If the speed is v, its acceleration is

Thus by Newton’s Law,

Q3.A mass M is broken into two parts of masses𝑚1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑚2 . How are 𝑚1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑚2 related so
that force of gravitational attraction between the two parts is maximum.
Ans. Let 𝑚1 = 𝑚, then 𝑚2 = 𝑀 − 𝑚. Gravitational force of attraction between them when
𝐺𝑚(𝑀−𝑚)
placed distance r apart will be = .
𝑟2
Differentiating it w.r.t. m, we get
𝑑𝐹 𝐺 𝑑 𝑑𝑚 𝐺 𝐺
= 2 [𝑚 (𝑀 − 𝑚) + (𝑀 − 𝑚) ] = 2 [𝑚(−1) + 𝑀 − 𝑚] = 2 (𝑀 − 2𝑚)
𝑑𝑚 𝑟 𝑑𝑚 𝑑𝑚 𝑟 𝑟

𝑑𝐹
If F is maximum, then𝑑𝑚 = 0 ;
 𝐺 𝑀
Then 𝑟 2 (𝑀 − 2𝑚) = 0 or M=2m or m= 2
Q4. Differentiate Inertial mass & gravitational mass.
Ans. The mass measured with the help of Newton’s 2nd law is known as Inertial mass. While
the mass measured from the Newtons law of gravitation attraction is known as gravitational
mass.
Inertial mass is the measurement of inertia of a body. While gravitational mass is the
measurement of gravitation pull of the body.
Inertial mass, m = F/a
Gravitational mass mg = Fr2/GM.

5 Marks questions
Q1.State Kepler’s laws of planetary motion. Prove Proof of Kepler’s 3rd law from Newton’s
law of gravitation.
Ans. The three laws of Kepler can be stated as follows:
1. Law of orbits : All planets move in elliptical orbits with the Sun situated at one of the foci
of the ellipse
2. Law of areas : The line that joins any planet to the sun sweeps equal areas in equal
intervals of time.
3. Law of periods : The square of the time period of revolution of a planet is proportional to
the cube of the semi-major axis of the ellipse traced out by the planet.
Kepler’s 3rd law from Newton’s law of gravitation.
Let (m) be the mass of a planet revolving round the sum of mass (M) in a circular orbit of
radius (R) with velocity (V) & (T) as time period.
Force of gravitation between them
F = GMm/R2 …. (i) , Where G is universal gravitational constant
The required centripetal force is given as
Fc = mv2/R ……………… (ii)
Again,

=> v = 2R/T …………… (iii)

This is the Kepler’s 3rd law from New ton’s Law of gravitation.

Q2.State universal law of gravitation. Explain the variation of acceleration due to gravity
with altitude .
Newton’s universal gravitational law.
The law states that every particle of matter in the universe attracts every other particle with a
force which is directly proportional to the productof their masses and inversely proportional
to the square of the distance between them.
Consider two bodies of masses m1 and m2 with their centres separated by a distance r. The
gravitational force between them is
 1
F m1m2 and F 𝑟2
𝑚1 𝑚2
F=G 𝑟2
where G is the universal gravitational constant.
If m1 = m2 = 1 kg and r = 1 m, then F = G.
Hence, the Gravitational constant ‘G’ is numerically equal to the gravitational force of
attraction between two bodies of mass 1 kg each separated by a distance of 1 m.
The value of G is 6.67 × 10−11 N m2 kg−2
(i) Variation of g with height or altitude
Let P be a point on the surface of the Earth and Q be a point at an altitude h. Let the mass of
the Earth be M and radius of the Earth be R.
The acceleration due to gravity at P on the surface is
𝐺𝑀
g = 𝑅2 ………….(1)
Let the body be placed at Q at a height h from the surface of the Earth. The acceleration due
to gravity at Q is
𝐺𝑀
gh = (𝑅+ℎ)2 ……………….(2)

dividing (2) by (1),

𝑔ℎ 𝑅2 𝑅2 ℎ −2
= = = (1 + )
𝑔 (𝑅 + ℎ)2 ℎ 𝑅
𝑅(1 + 𝑅 )2

By using binomial theorem ,

(1 + 𝑥)𝑛 = 1 + 𝑛𝑥 , 𝑖𝑓 𝑥 ≪ 1
ℎ ℎ −2 2ℎ
𝐴𝑠 𝑅 ≪ 1 (1 + 𝑅) = (1 − 𝑅 ) ………………(3)
Putting (4) in (3)
2ℎ
𝑔ℎ = 𝑔(1 − 𝑅 ) ……………….(4)
The value of acceleration due to gravity decreases with increase in height above the surface
of the Earth.
Q3.Define gravitational potential energy. Derive the expression for gravitational potential
energy.
Ans : -Gravitational Potential energy of a satellite at a certain position is the amount of work
done in being brining if from infinite to its position.
Let P be a point at a distance x from the centre of earth such that r < x < a at which
gravitational force,
𝐺𝑀𝑚
𝐹= … … … . . (1)
𝑟
Where G is universal gravitational force and R is Radius of the earth.
Let Q be another point very much closer to (P) such that PQ = dx, amount of work done
in bringing it from P to Q is dW = Fdx ------- (2)
Total work done in brining it from infinity to A,
𝑤 𝑟 𝑟 𝐺𝑀𝑚 𝑟 −2 1 𝑟
𝑤 = ∫0 𝑑𝑤 = ∫𝑎 𝐹𝑑𝑥 = ∫𝑎 𝑑𝑥 = 𝐺𝑀𝑚 ∫ 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = 𝐺𝑀𝑚 (− ) =
𝑥 2 𝑎 𝑟 𝑎
1 1
GMm(𝑟 − )
𝑎
𝐺𝑀𝑚
∴ 𝑤 = − 𝑟 ………..(3)
So potential energy in its orbit. U = - GMm / r ------------- (4)
Unit–VII - Properties of
Bulk Matter
Chapter–9: Mechanical
Properties of Solids
Chapter–10: Mechanical
Properties of Fluids
Chapter–11: Thermal
Properties of Matter
 Properties of Bulk Matter
I. Question Type “2” Marks Question

1. What is meant by coefficient of viscosity and velocity gradient?

2. Water droplets on a glass plate spread but mercury contract to form spherical drop.
Why?
3. Is it possible then even on supplying heat to a system, its temperature does not
change?
4. Prove mathematically that steel is more elastic than rubber?
5. Establish the relation between coefficient of linear expansion α and coefficient of
volumetric expansion ⋎.

II. Question Type “3” Marks Question

1. The temperature of three equal masses of three different liquids A, B and C are 120C,
190C and 280C respectively. The temperature when A and B are mixed is 160C and
when B and C are mixed is 230C. What would be the temperature when A and C are
mixed?
2. What is the pressure on a swimmer 10 m below the surface of a lake?
3. 64 identical rain drops assemble to form a single drop, Calculate the ratio of surface
energy of 64 drops to 1 big drop.
4. State Stoke’s law. Derive an expression for terminal velocity of a spherical body
falling through a viscous medium.

III. Question Type “5” Marks Question

1. (i) What do you mean by steady state of temperature? For a metallic conductor define
its thermal resistance and write its expression. (ii) Calculate the heat required to
convert 3 kg of ice at -120C in to steam at 1000C.(Cice=2100 jkg-1K-1, Cwater=4200 jkg-
1 -1
K ,Lf=3.5 x 105 jkg-1, LV=2.25 x 106 jkg-1)
2. (i) State and prove Bernoulli’s theorem. (ii) A plane is in level flight at constant speed
and each of its two wings has an area of 25 m2. If the speed of the air is 180 km/h over
the lower wing and 234 km/h over the upper wing, determine the plane’s
mass.(Density of air is 1kgm-3 and g=9.8 ms-2.
3. (i) Derive an expression for excess pressure inside a liquid drop. (ii) What is the
pressure inside a drop of mercury of diameter 6 mm? Surface tension of mercury is
0.465 Nm-1.

IV. Question Type “MCQ”

1. According to hooks law, under the elastic limit if stress is increased, the ratio of stress
to strain
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remains unchanged (d) Becomes zero

2. “Poise” is the unit of

(a) Force of viscosity (b) Coefficient of viscosity
(c) Force of friction (d) Coefficient of Friction
 3. Which temperature measures Celsius and Fahrenheit thermometer same
(a) 40 (b) -40
(c) 100 (d) 0
4. The range of Reynold’s number for stream line flow is
(a) 0-2000 (b) 2000-3000
(c) Above 3000 (d) All of these
5. A barometer is construed using a liquid (density =760 kg/m3 ). What would be the
height of liquid column, when a mercury barometer reads 76 cm?(density =13600 kg/
m3 .
(a) 0.76 m (b) 1.36 m
(c) 13.6 m (d) 136 m

V. Question Type “Reason & Assertion ” Type

For Questions 1 to 5, two statements are given –one labeled Assertion (A) and
other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the
options as given below.

a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

1. Assertion- A bubble comes from the bottom of a lake to the top.

Reason - Its radius increases.

2. Assertion- All the rain drops hit the surface of earth with the same constant
velocity.
Reason - An object falling through a viscous medium eventually attains terminal
velocity.

3. Assertion- Snow is better insulator than ice.

Reason - Snow contains air packet and air is bad conductor of heat.

4. Assertion- The shape of an automobile is so designed that its front resembles the
stream line pattern of the fluid through which its moves.
Reason - The resistance offered by the fluid is maximum.

5. Assertion- Rubber is more elastic than steel.

Reason - For the given force, more strain is produced in rubber than steel.
 VI. Question Type “Case Base ” Type-

1. The flow of the fluid is said to be steady if at any given point, the velocity of each passing
fluid particle remains constant in time. This does not mean that the velocity at different points
in space is same. The velocity of a particular particle may change as it moves from one point
to another. That is, at some other point the particle may have a different velocity, but every
other particle which passes the second point behaves exactly as the previous particle that has
just passed that point. Each particle follows a smooth path, and the paths of the particles do
not cross each other. The path taken by a fluid particle under a steady flow is a streamline. It
is defined as a curve whose tangent at any point is in the direction of the fluid velocity at that
point. For steady flow equation of continuity hold good and it is a statement of conservation of
mass in flow of in compressible fluids. In general Av = constant
Av gives the volume flux or flow rate and remains constant throughout the pipe of flow. Thus,
at narrower portions where the streamlines are closely spaced, velocity increases and it’s vice
versa.

(1) The flow of the fluid is said to be steady if at any given point, the velocity of each passing
fluid particle
(a) Remains constant in time ( b) changes continuously
(c) continuously increasing (d) None of these

(2) According to equation of continuity area is

(a) Directly proportional to velocity (b) Inversely proportional to velocity
(c) Does not depends upon velocity (d) None of these

(3) Give equation of continuity ?

(4) Who gave for the first time a method for measuring atmospheric pressure?
(a) Newton (b) Pascal
( c) Torricelli ( d) None of the above

2. When a body is deformed by applying some force. Then restoring force set up per unit cross-
sectional area of body is called stress. The ratio of change in dimension to initial dimension is
called Strain. According to Hook’s law, within the elastic limit, the stress set up in body is
directly proportional to strain produced in it. Stress α Strain Stress/Strain=E(constant) where
E is known as modulus of elasticity. Hook’s Law is an empirical law and is found to be valid
for most materials. However, there are some materials which do not exhibit this linear
relationship.
Answer the followings:
(1) Stress and pressure are both force per unit area, then in what respect they differ.
(2) If stress is reduced to one third. What happens to ratio of stress and strain?
(3) The ratio stress /Strain remain constant for small deformation. What will be the
effect on this ratio, when the deformation made is very large? Explain your answer.
(4) Which is more elastic material among the steel and rubber.
(5) Define the term compressibility.
 Unit–VIII -
Thermodynamics
Chapter–12:
Thermodynamics
 (THERMODYNAMICS)
SECTION A (5 Marks)
MCQ
1. The first law of thermodynamics is represented as
(a) dQ = dU + dW
(b) dQ = 2dU + dW
(c) dQ = dU – dW
(d) dQ = dU + 2Dw
Answer: (a) dQ = dU + dW

2. Tell which of the following phenomenon are reversible?

(a) Water fall.
(b) Charging of a battery.
(c) Rusting of iron by chemical change.
(d) Production of heat by rubbing of hands.
Answer: (b) Charging of a battery.

3. For an adiabatic process

(a) T1V1γ-1 = T2V2γ-1
(b) T1V11-γ = T2V21-γ
(c) T1V1 = T2V2
(d) T1V2 = T2V1
Answer: (a) T1V1γ-1 = T2V2γ-1

4. The process forbidden by the first law of thermodynamics is

(a) conversion of w ork into heat.
(b) conversion of heat into work.
(c) change in internal energy.
(d) none of the above.
Answer: (d) none of the above.

5. The temperature of a gas is due to the

(a) K.E. of the gas molecules.
(b) repulsive force between the molecules.
(c) attractive force between the molecules.
(d) P.E. of the gas molecules.
Answer: (a) K.E. of the gas molecules.
 SECTION B (3 Marks)

Directions: Each of these questions contain two statements, Assertion and Reason.
Each of these questions also has four alternative choices, only one of which is the
correct answer. You have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
6. Assertion : When a bottle of cold carbonated drink is opened, a slight fog forms
around the opening.
Reason : Adiabatic expansion of the gas causes lowering of temperature and
condensation of water vapours.
Answer: (a) When a bottle of cold carbonated drink is opened. A slight fog forms
around the opening. This is because of adiabatic expansion of gas causes lowering of
temperature and condensation of water vapours.
7. Assertion : The heat supplied to a system is always equal to the increase in its internal
energy.

Reason : When a system changes from one thermal equilibrium to another, some
heat is absorbed by it.

Answer: (d)

8. Assertion : In isothermal process whole of the heat energy supplied to the body is
converted into internal energy.
Reason : According to the first law of thermodynamics ΔQ = ΔU.
Answer: (d)

SECTION C (2 Marks)
9. Which law of thermodynamics gives the concept of temperature? Which law gives the
concept of internal energy?
ANSWER: Zeroth law of thermodynamics gives the concept of temperature and first
law of thermodynamics gives the concept of internal energy.
10. What is the shape of P-V indicator diagram for (a) an isochoric process, and (b) an
isobaric process?

Ans. P-V indicator diagram for an:

(a) isochoric process is a straight line parallel to pressure axis (or perpendicular to the
volume axis), and
 (b) isobaric process is a straight line parallel to volume axis.

11. Milk is poured into a cup of tea and is mixed with a spoon. Is this a reversible process?
Why?

Ans. The process is an irreversible process. When milk poured into a cup of tea is mixed
by stirring with a spoon, work is done on the system and hence, internal energy of the
system slightly increases. If, by some process, we want to separate milk from the tea,
we cannot recover the work done during mixing process. Rather we shall require more
work to be done. Thus, it is clear that the process is irreversible.

12. On removing valve of a bicycle tube, the escaping air becomes cool. Why?

Ans. Inside a bicycle tube, air is filled at a pressure greater than the atmospheric
pressure. When valve of tube is removed, the air present inside the tube suddenly
expands adiabatically. As a result of adiabatic expansion of air, the temperature of air
falls and as a result, the air escaping from the bicycle tube becomes cool.

13. An electric fan is switched on in a closed room. Will the air of the room be cooled or
heated? Justify.

Ans. When an electric fan is switched on in a closed room, electric energy is being
continuously consumed and kinetic energy is produced. The kinetic energy of the fan
is being consumed to do work against dissipative forces like friction and viscous drag
of air, etc. This work done against dissipative forces is converted into heat. As a result,
the air of the room is heated up.

SECTION D (3 Marks)

14. Name a thermodynamic process in which:

(a) internal energy remains constant,
(b) total heat content remains constant, and
(c) no work is being done on or by the gas.

Ans. (a) In an isothermal process, temperature and hence internal energy of a gas
remains constant, i.e.,

U = a constant

or ΔU = 0

(b) In an adiabatic process, total heat content of the system remains constant and there
is no exchange of heat with its surroundings, i.e.,
 Q = a constant

or ΔQ = 0

(c) In an isochoric process, work done by a gas is zero, i.e.,

W=0

15. A thermos flask contains coffee. The flask is vigorously shaken. Consider the coffee as
a system.

(a) Does its temperature rise?

(b) Has heat been added to it?

(c) Has work been done on it?

(d) Has its internal energy changed?

Ans. (a) Yes, temperature of coffee rises because work has been done on it in shaking and work
is converted into heat. As a result, temperature of coffee rises.

(b) No, heat has not been added to the system.

(c) Yes, work has been done on the system.

(d) Yes, due to rise in temperature, the internal energy of the system rises.

16. Is it possible to increase the temperature of a gas without giving it heat? If yes, under
what condition?

Ans. In an adiabatic compression of a gas, although no heat is given to a gas, yet its
temperature rises because work done on the gas during its compression leads to
increase in internal energy and consequently, the temperature of the gas.

17. State Zeroth law of thermodynamics. How does it lead to the concept of temperature?

Ans: When a body 'A' is in thermal equilibrium with another body 'b', and also
separately in thermal equilibrium with a body 'C', then body 'B' and 'C' will also be in
thermal equilibrium with each other. This statement defines the zeroth law of
thermodynamics. The law is based on temperature measurement.
 SECTION E (Each question carry 5 Marks)

18. (a)Derive an expression for the work done during the isothermal expansion of an ideal
gas.

(b) Prove that Cp- Cv = R

19. Derive an expression for the work done during the adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas.

20. The P-V diagram for a cyclic process is a triangle ABC drawn in order. The coordinates
of A, B, C are (4,1), (2,4) and (2,1). The coordinates are in the order P,V . Pressure is
in Nm-2 and volume is in litre. Calculate the work done during the process from A to
B, B to C and C to A. Also calculate the work done in the complete cycle.
Unit–IX - Behaviour of
Perfect Gases and
Kinetic Theory of Gases
Chapter–13: Kinetic
Theory
 Multiple choice question on Kinetic theory of gases
1. On which factor does the average kinetic energy of gas molecules depend?
a) Nature of the gas
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Mass
2. What is the average velocity of the molecules of an ideal gas?
a) Infinity
b) Constant
c) Unstable
d) Zero
3. A gas behaves as an ideal gas at ___________
a) Low pressure and high temperature
b) Low pressure and low temperature
c) High pressure and low temperature
d) High pressure and high temperature
4. The degree of freedom of a triatomic gas is?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 6
d) 8
5. A bulb contains one mole of hydrogen mixed with one mole of oxygen at
temperature T. The ratio of rms values of velocity of hydrogen molecules to that
of oxygen molecules is?
a) 1:16
b) 1:4
c) 4:1
d) 16:1

Answer
1. (b)
2. (d)
3.(a)
4 (c)
5 (c)
 Assertion and Reasoning

A If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation os assertion.

B If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not be correct explanation of
assertion.

C If assertion is true but reason is false.

D If both assertion and reason are false.

Q.1. Assertion (A) : The number of degrees of freedom of a linear triatomic molecules
is 7.
Reason (R) : The number of degree of freedom depends on number of particle in
the system.

Q.2. Assertion (A) : Absolute zero is not the temperature corresponding to zero
energy.

Reason (R) : The temperature at which no molecular motion ceases is called

absolute zero

Q.3. Assertion (A) : The ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant pressure and
specific heat at constant volume for a diatomic gas is more than that for a monatomic
gas.
Reason (R) : The molecules of a monatomic gas have more degree of freedom
than those of a diatomic gas.

Q.4. Assertion (A) : An undamped spring-mass system is simplest free vibration

system.
Reason (R) : It has three degrees of freedom.

Q.5. Assertion (A) : Air pressure in a car tyre increases during driving.
Reason (R) : Absolute zero degree temperature is not zero energy temperature.

Answer: (b)

Answer: (a)

Answer: (d)

Answer: (c)

Answer: (b)
 2 Marks Questions
1. If a certain mass of gas is heated first in a small vessel of volume V1V1 and then in
a large vessel of volume V2V2. Draw the PP - T graph for two cases?
Ans: Equation of perfect gas; PV=RT
2. Derive the Boyle's law using kinetic theory of gases?
3. At what temperature is the root mean square speed of an atom in an argon gas
cylinder equal to the r.m.s speed of a helium gas atom at- 200C200C ? Given Atomic
Mass is Ar=39.9Ar=39.9 and He=4.0

4. Show that constant - temperature bulk modulus KK of an ideal gas is the pressure
PP of the gas?
5. Calculate the degree of freedom for monatomic, diatomic and triatomic gas?
3 Marks Questions
1. A gas is at temperature 80°C and pressure 5 × 10-10N m-2. What is the number
of molecules per m3 if Boltzmann’s constant is 1.38 × 10-23 J K-1
2. Calculate the mean free path of air molecules at STP. The diameter
of N2 and O2 is about 3 × 10-10 m

3.Estimate the total number of air molecules in a room of capacity 25 m3 at a

temperature of 27°C.

4. Calculate the temperature at which the rms velocity of a gas triples its value at
S.T.P.

Solution:
1. Temperature of gas T = 80°C = 80 + 273 = 353K
Pressure of gas P = 5 × 10-10 Nm-2
Boltzmann’s constant k = 1.38 × 10-23 Jk-1
Volume of gas V = 1 m3
No. of molecules n = ?

Ans: 1.02 × 1011

3. Volume of the room V = 25.0m3
Temperature of the room T = 27°C = 300K
Pressure in the room P = estimate
= 1 × 1.013 × 105 Pa
The ideal gas equation relating pressure (P), volume (v) absolute temperature (T)
can be written is
PV = KB NT
Ans: T1 = 273 K, T2 = 2457 K

5 Marks Questions

1. Derive the expression of pressure exerted by the gas on the walls of the
container.
2. Describe the total degrees of freedom for monoatomic molecule, diatomic
molecule and triatomic molecule.
3. Derive the ratio of two specific heat capacities of monoatomic, diatomic and
triatomic molecules

Case study based questions on Kinetic theory of gases

Case Study – 1
Pressure of an Ideal Gas: according to kinetic theory of gases pressure is given
by
P = 1/3 nmv 2
Where, n is number of molecules per unit volume, m is mass and v 2 is mean
squared speed. Though we
choose the container to be a cube, the shape of the vessel really is immaterial.
The average kinetic energy of a molecule is proportional to the absolute
temperature of the gas; it is
independent of pressure, volume or the nature of the ideal gas. This is a
fundamental result relating
temperature, a macroscopic measurable parameter of a gas (a thermodynamic
variable as it is called) to a
molecular quantity, namely the average kinetic energy of a molecule. The two
domains are connected by
the Boltzmann constant and given by E = k b T.
Where k b is Boltzmann constant having value of 1.38*10 -23 joule per
Kelvin.
We have seen that in thermal equilibrium at absolute temperature T, for each
translational mode of motion,
the average energy is ½ Kb T. The most elegant principle of classical statistical
mechanics (first proved by
Maxwell) states that this is so for each mode of energy: translational, rotational
and vibrational. That is, in
equilibrium, the total energy is equally distributed in all possible energy modes,
with each mode having an
average energy equal to ½ k B T. This is known as the law of equipartition of
energy. Accordingly, each
translational and rotational degree of freedom of a molecule contributes ½ k
B T to the energy, while each
vibrational frequency contributes 2 × ½ k B T = k B T, since a vibrational
mode has both kinetic and potential
energy modes.
1) Boltzmann constant has value of
a) 1.38*10 -23 joule per Kelvin.
b) 1.38*10 -28 joule per Kelvin.
c) 1.38*10 -30 joule per Kelvin.
d) None of these
2) SI unit of Boltzmann constant is given by
a) Joules per meter
b) Joules per Kelvin
c) Joules per Newton
d) None of these
3) According to kinetic theory give formula for pressure of idea gas.
4) According to kinetic theory what is average kinetic energy of molecules of
ideal gas ?
5) What is law of equipartition of energy ?

Answer key – 2
1) a
2) b
3) According to kinetic theory of gases pressure is given by P = 1/3 nmv
2 Where, n is number of molecules
per unit volume, m is mass and v 2 is mean squared speed. Though we choose
the container to be a cube,
the shape of the vessel really is immaterial.
4) The average kinetic energy of a molecule is proportional to the absolute
temperature of the gas; it is
independent of pressure, volume or the nature of the ideal gas and given by E =
3/2 k b T.
Where k b is Boltzmann constant having value of 1.38*10 -23 joule per
Kelvin.
 Case Study –2

SPECIFIC HEAT CAPACITY

Monatomic Gases: The molecule of a monatomic gas has only three
translational degrees of freedom.
Thus, the average energy of a molecule at temperature T is (3/2) kBT. The total
internal energy of a mole of
such a gas is U = (3/2) RT.
The molar specific heat at constant volume c v is given by
C v = dU/dT = (3/2) R
For an ideal gas,
Cp –Cv =R
Where C p is the molar specific heat at constant pressure. Thus, C P = (5/2) R
The ratio of specific heats IS γ= c p /c v = 5/3.
Diatomic Gases: a diatomic molecule treated as a rigid rotator, like a dumbbell,
has 5 degrees of freedom:
3 translational and 2 rotational. Using the law of equipartition of energy, the
total internal energy of a mole
of such a gas is U = (5/2) RT.
The molar specific heat at constant volume c v is given by
C v = dU/dT = (5/2) R
For an ideal gas,
Cp –Cv =R
Where C p is the molar specific heat at constant pressure. Thus, C P = (7/2) R
The ratio of specific heats IS γ( for rigid diatomic)= c p /c v = 7/5.
For non rigid diatomic molecules they have additional mode of vibrations
therefore
γ= c p /c v = 9/7
Polyatomic Gases: In general a polyatomic molecule has 3 translational, 3
rotational degrees of freedom
and a certain number ( f ) of vibrational modes. According to the law of
equipartition of energy, it is easily
seen that one mole of such a gas has
Cv = (3+f) R and Cp = (4+f) R and γ= (4+f)/ (3+f).
1) For monatomic molecules ratio of specific heats is γ
a) 5/3
b) 7/5
c) 9/5
d) None of these
2) For diatomic rigid molecules ratio of specific heats is γ
a) 5/3
b) 7/5
c) 9/7
d) None of these
3) For diatomic non rigid molecules ratio of specific heats is γ
1. 5/3
2. 7/5
3. 9/7
4. None of these
4) Give c p and c v values and ratio of specific heat for monatomic gas
molecules.
5) Give c p and c v values and ratio of specific heat for polyatomic gas
molecules
 Answer key – 2

1) a
2) b
3) c
4) Monatomic Gases: The molecule of a monatomic gas has only three
translational degrees of freedom.
Thus, the average energy of a molecule at temperature T is (3/2) kBT. The total
internal energy of a mole of
such a gas is U = (3/2) RT.
The molar specific heat at constant volume c v is given by
C v = dU/dT = (3/2) R
For an ideal gas,
Cp –Cv =R
Where C p is the molar specific heat at constant pressure. Thus, C P = (5/2) R
The ratio of specific heats IS γ= c p /c v = 5/3.
Polyatomic Gases: In general a polyatomic molecule has 3 translational, 3
rotational degrees of freedom
and a certain number ( f ) of vibrational modes. According to the law of
equipartition of energy, it is easily
seen that one mole of such a gas has
C v = (3+f) R and C p = (4+f) R and γ= (4+f)/ (3+f).
 Unit–X - Oscillations
and Waves

Chapter–14: Oscillations
Chapter–15: Waves
 Oscillations and waves
Short answer type questions ( 2 marks each)
Q1. A body is executing SHM of amplitude 1m. Its velocity while passing through the mean
position is 10 m/sec. Find its angular frequency.
Q2.Define harmonics.
Q 3 Displacement equation of wave is y=10 sin 120t.find frequency and time period.
Q 4.Write any two characterises of stationary waves.
Q 5.Draw kinetic energy versus displacement curve for simple harmonic motion.
Short answer type questions ( 3 marks each)
Q.1.Derive expression for time period in case of simple pendulum.
Q.2.Mathematically deduce that frequency produced in stretched string will be integral
multiple of fundamental frequency.
Q.3.A stationary wave having displacement equation y=100 sin100π t cos2x.find followings-
1.amplitude of wave 2.wavelength of wave 3.Frequency of wave
Q.4.Derive expression for kinetic energy for simple harmonic motion and prove that kinetic
energy will be directly proportional to square of amplitude.

Long Answer type Questions ( 5 marks)

Q 1 .Derive expression for displacement, velocity and acceleration of a body performing
SHM. Plot graph between displacement versus time, velocity versus time and acceleration
versus time.
Q.2.a) Draw the wave pattern for the first three harmonics in a closed organ pipe and
determine the frequency of harmonics .
b) A pipe of 20 cm long is closed at one end. Which harmonic mode of the pipe is resonantly
excited by a 430 Hz source? Will the same source be in resonance with the pipe of same
length if both the ends are open? (Speed of sound in air is 340 m/s)
Q.3. The kinetic energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is 16J when it is in its mean position.
If the amplitude of oscillations is 25cm and the mass of the particle is 5.12kg. Calculate the
time period and frequency of oscillations?
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS(01 MARK EACH)
1. A particle executes SHM; with amplitude A. The distance of the point where K.E. and P.E.
are equal from mean position will be-
𝐴 𝐴 𝐴 𝐴
a) b) c) d) 3
2 √2 √3
2. The equation of SHM is given by y = 3 sin w t + 4 cos w t, its amplitude will be –
a) 7 b) 1 c) 5 d) 12
3. Correct eqn. for progressive wave is –
a) Y = A sin K (v t – x) c) y = A sin (wt – kx)
2𝜋
b) Y = A sin (vt – x) d) All above
𝑇
4. Phase of the wave (progressive) is given by –
𝑡 𝑥 𝜋𝑡
a) 𝜑 = 2𝜋 (𝑇 ± 𝜆) c) 𝜑 = 𝑇
𝑡 𝑥 𝑡 𝜆
b) 𝜙 = 𝜋 (𝑇 ± 𝜆) d) 𝜙 = 𝜋 (𝑇 ± 𝑥)
5. Sound wave cannot travel –

a) Vacuum c) Wire
b) Water d) Gas
6. Sound wave does not shows –
a) Diffraction c) Polarization
b) Interference d) Reflection

Assertion –Reason Type Questions(01 mark each)

Two statements are given one labelled Assertion(A) and other Reason (R).Select the correct
answer to these questions from the codes (a),(b).(c),(d) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is False.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
1. Assertion (A)- Sound wave is a mechanical wave.
Reason (R)- It can travel in solid, liquid and vacuum also.
2. Assertion (A)- Simple harmonic motion performs To and fro motion .
Reason (R)- A driving force acts towards the mean position.
3. Assertion (A)- Spring motion is a simple harmonic motion.
Reason (R)- Time period of Motion of spring will be always same in all mediums.
4. Assertion (A)-Beats are produced due to superpositions of waves.
Reason (R)-Difference in the frequencies of two progressive wave will be less then 10
hertz.
5. Assertion (A)- Standing waves are produced when two progressive waves superimposed
to each other in opposite phase.
Reason (R)- Boundary conditions are necessary to get reflected progressive wave.
CASE BASED QUESTION NO 1
What happens if a pulse or a wave meets a boundary? If the boundary is rigid, pulse
travelling along a stretched string and being reflected by the boundary. Assuming there is no
absorption of energy by the boundary, the reflected wave has the same shape as the incident
pulse i.e. crest is reflected as crest and trough as trough but it suffers a phase change of π or
1800 on reflection. This is because the boundary is rigid and the disturbance must have zero
displacement at all times at the boundary. By the principle of superposition, this is possible
only if the reflected and incident waves differ by a phase of π, so that the resultant
displacement is zero. This reasoning is based on boundary condition on a rigid wall. If on the
other hand, the boundary point is not rigid but completely free to move (such as in the case of
a string tied to a freely moving ring on a rod), the reflected pulse has the same phase and
amplitude (assuming no energy dissipation) as the incident pulse. The net maximum
displacement at the boundary is then twice the amplitude of each pulse. An example of non-
rigid boundary is the open end of an organ pipe. To summaries, a travelling wave or pulse
suffers a phase change of π on reflection at a rigid boundary and no phase change on
reflection at an open boundary. We considered above reflection at one boundary. But there
are familiar situations (a string fixed at either end or an air column in a pipe with either end
closed) in which reflection takes place at two or more boundaries. In a string, for example, a
wave travelling in one direction will get reflected at one end, which in turn will travel and get
reflected from the other end. This will go on until there is a steady wave pattern set up on the
string. Such wave patterns are called standing waves or stationary waves.
1) A travelling wave or pulse suffers a phase change of π on reflection at
a) a rigid boundary
b) open boundary
2) A travelling wave or pulse suffers no phase change on reflection at
a) a rigid boundary
b) open boundary
3) What are stationary waves?
4) Write a note on reflection of travelling wave from rigid boundary.
5) Write a note on reflection of travelling wave from open boundary.
CASE BASED QUESTION NO 2
Simple harmonic motion is the simplest form of oscillation. A particular type of periodic
motion in which a particle moves to and fro repeatedly about a mean position under the
influence of a restoring force is termed as simple harmonic motion (S.H.M).
A body is undergoing simple harmonic motion if it has an acceleration which is directed
towards a fixed point, and proportional to the displacement of the body from that point.

1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of simple harmonic motion?

(a) The motion is periodic.
(b) The motion is along a straight line about the mean position.
(c) The oscillations are responsible for the energy conversion.
(d) The acceleration of the particle is directed towards the extreme position.
2. The equation of motion of a simple harmonic motion is

3. Which of the following expressions does not represent simple harmonic motion?
(a) x = Acoswt + Bsinwt
(b) x = Acos(wt + a)
(c) x = Bsin(wt + b)
(d) x = Asinwt cos2wt
4. The time period of simple harmonic motion depends upon
(a) amplitude
(b) energy
(c) phase constant
(d) mass
5. Which of the following motions is not simple harmonic?
(a) Vertical oscillations of a spring
(b) Motion of a simple pendulum
(c) Motion of planet around the Sun
(d) Oscillation of liquid in a U-tube
CONTENT- CLASS XII

UNIT – 1 Electrostatics
Chapter–1: Electric
Charges and Fields
Chapter–2: Electrostatic
Potential and
Capacitance
 UNIT 1 – ELECTROSTATICS
_________________________________________________________
PART A – 1 MARK (MCQ)
Q.1 which of the diagrams correctly represents electric field between two charged plates if
a neutral conductor is placed between the plates?
a.

b.

c.

d.

Ans: option C
Solution:
Neutral conductor will induce +ve and -ve charges on its surface as shown in figure above
due to charges on plates.
Now electric field lines from +ve plate will initiate normally and it emerges normally on -ve
plate (surface of conductor). Option C
___________________________________________________________________________

Q.2. a cylinder of radius R and length l is placed in a uniform electric field parallel to the axis
of the cylinder. The total flux for the surface of the cylinder is given by-
a.
b.
c.
d. Zero

ans: d
Solution

The correct option is D Zero

Flux through surface A ϕA=E×πR2 and ϕB=−E×πR2

Flux through curved surface C=∫E.ds=∫Edscos90∘=0

∴ Total flux through cylinder =ϕA+ϕB+ϕc=0

Q.3. a free electron and a free proton are placed between two oppositely charged parallel
plates. Both are closer to the positive plate than the negative plate. Which of the following
statements is true?
I. The force on the proton is greater than the force on the electron.
II. The potential energy of the proton is greater than that of the electron.
III. The potential energy of the proton and the electron is the same.
A I only
B II only
C III only
D I & II only
E I & III only
Answer:- The correct option is: B II only
Explanation: With equal charge the forces are the same. The potential energy of the charges
is equal in magnitude but positive for the proton and negative for the electron. For scalars
positive numbers are higher than negative numbers.

Q.4 three charges 2q, -q and –q lie at the vertices od a triangle. The value of E and V at the
centroid of the triangle will be-
A. The field is zero but the potential is non – zero
B. The field is non – zero but the potential is zero
C. Both field and potential are zero
D. Both field and potential are non – zero
In the question it is said that 3 charges 2q, -q and –q are placed at the three vertices of an
equilateral triangle.
We are asked to determine the electric field and the potential at the centre of the triangle.
Consider the figure given below.

It shows the electric field at the centre of the equilateral triangle.

The charge 2q is placed at ‘A’, -q at ‘B’ and –q at C. ‘O’ is the centre of the triangle and ‘a’ is
the distance from the vertices to the centre.
‘EA is the electric field experienced at the centre of the triangle due to the charge placed at
‘A’. Since the charge at ‘A’, 2q is positive; the direction of the electric field will be away from
the charge.
‘EB is the electric field experienced at the centre of the triangle. Since the charge at ‘B’, -q is
a negative charge, the direction of the electric field will be toward the charge.
‘EC is the electric field at ‘O’ due to the charge at ‘C’. Since –q is negative, the direction of
‘EC will be towards the charge. The charge at ‘B’ and ‘C’ is –q. We know that the electric
field is given by the equation,
E=KQ/r2 where ‘K’ is a constant, ‘Q’ is the charge and ‘r’ is the distance between the
reference point and charge. Therefore the field at ‘O’ due to ‘B’ will be, EB=K(−q)/a 2 And the
charge at ‘O’ due to ‘C’ will be, EC=K(−q)/a2 From this we can see that, EB=EC The
components of ‘EB and ‘EC are resolved as EBsinθ, EBcosθ
and ECsinθ, ECcosθ respectively. From the figure we can see that EBcosθ and ECcosθ are
equal and opposite. Hence they get cancelled. Therefore the remaining components of are
EBsinθ and ECsinθ. Therefore the net electric field experienced at the centre of the triangle,
E=EA+EBsinθ+ECsinθ. Thus we can see that the electric field at the centre of the triangle is
non – zero. Now let us find the electric potential at the centre of the triangle. For that
consider the figure given below. We know that the electric potential is given by the
equation,
U=kQr2 where ‘K’ is a constant, ‘Q’ is the charge and ‘r’ is the distance from the charge to
the point.

Here let ′UA′,′UB′ and ′UC′ be the electric potential at center due to ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’
respectively. Then we have,
UA=k(2q)/a2
UB=k(−q)/a2
UC=k(−q)/a2
Therefore the net electric potential at the centre will be,
U=UA+UB+UC
⇒U=0
Thus we get the electric potential at the centre as zero. Therefore we have the electric field
at the centre of the triangle as non – zero and the electric potential at the centre of the
triangle as zero. So, the correct answer is “Option B”.

Q.5 which of the following is not a property of equipotential surface?

a) They do not cross each other
b) They are concentric spheres for uniform electric field
c) Rate of change of potential with distance on them is zero
d) They can be imaginary spheres
Answer: - option 'B'.
For a uniform electric field, equipotential surfaces are concentric spheres is NOT the
property of equipotential surfaces. In uniform electric field, equipotential surfaces are never
concentric spheres but are planes ⊥ to Electric field lines. So, (i) Equipotential surfaces do
not cross each other. (ii) Equipotential surfaces are never concentric spheres but are planes
⊥to Electric field lines. (iii) The rate of change of potential with distance on them is zero. (iv)
They can be imaginary spheres.
Hence, the Correct Answer is B

PART B – 1 MARK (ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTIONS)

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason

(R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and Reason both are correct statements an Reason is correct explanation for
Assertion.
(b) Assertion and Reason both are correct satements but Reason is not correct explanation
for Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but Reason is wrong statement
(d) Assertion is wrong statement and Reason is also wrong statement.

1. Assertion (A) – a capacitor can be given only a limited amount of charge.

Reason (R) - A capacitor can store sufficient quantity of charge.
Correct option is B)
The quantity of charge that can be given to a capacitor is limited by the fact that every
dielectric is limited by the dielectric strength of the medium between the plates. The
dielectric strength is the maximum value of an electric field that it can tolerate without
breakdown. Beyond this field, the dielectric no more behaves as dielectric but it conducts
electricity.

2. Assertion (A) - An applied electric field polarizes a dielectric.

Reason (R) - The molecules of a polar dielectric poses a permanent dipole moment,
but in the absence of electric field, these dipoles are randomly oriented and when
electric field is applied these dipoles align along the direction of electric field.

Answer: option A
When an electric field is applied to a polar dielectric, it polarize the dielectric, it
means all the positive charge is on one side of the dielectric and the negative is on
the other and in the absence of electric field, they are just randomly distributed.
Therefore, the correct option among the given options would be a) Assertion and
reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
Explanation:
The term polarizability refers to the tendency of molecules to generate electric
powered dipole moments whilst subjected to an electric powered field. It
originates when nuclei and electrons are typically now no longer constant in area
 and that once molecules are now a challenge to an electric field, the negatively
charged electrons and definitely charged atomic nuclei are challenge to contrary
forces and go through rate separation.

3. Assertion (A) – the surface of a conductor is always an equipotential surface.

Reason (R) - Conductors allow the free flow of charge within themselves

Answer - Correct option is A)

The surface of a conductor is an equipotential surface as electric field inside the conductor is
zero.if there is some potential difference between two point of conductor , then charge will
flow within conductor to make the potential same.

4. Assertion (A) – in a non uniform electric field, a dipole will have translator as well as rotatory
motion.
Reason (R) - In a nonuniform electric field, a dipole experiences a force as well as
torque.

Answer – option A)

When an electric dipole is placed in a uniform field at an angle θ with the field, the
dipole experiences a torque.
The torque produced by two parallel forces qE acting as couple =τ
τ=qE(2lsinθ)
In case of non-uniform field, force acting on both the ends of the dipole will not be
equal . So, there will be a combination of couple and a net force. In this way, dipole
will have both rotational as well as linear motion.
So, both assertion and reason are true. Reason also explains the assertion.

5. Assertion(A): Electric field is always normal to equipotential surfaces and along the
direction of decreasing order of potential
Reason(R): Negative gradient of electric potential is electric field.

Answer – option A)

PART C – 2 MARK (VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS)

1. Depict the orientation of a dipole in (a) stable and (b) unstable equilibrium position
in a uniform electric field.

Ans. (a) Stable equilibrium, θ=0∘P is parallel to E

(b) Unstable equilibrium, θ=180∘P is anti parallel to E.
2. The figure shows tracks of three particles in a uniform electrostatic field. Give the
signs of the three charges. Which particle has the highest charge to mass ratio?

Ans. Opposite charges attract each other and same charges repel each other. It can
be observed that particles 1 and 2 both move towards the positively charged plate
and repel away from the negatively charged plate. Hence, these two particles are
negatively charged. It can also be observed that particle 3 moves towards the
negatively charged plate and repels away from the positively charged plate. Hence,
particle 3 is positively charged.

The charge to mass ratio (emf) is directly proportional to the displacement or

amount of deflection for a given velocity. Since the deflection of particle 3 is the
maximum, it has the highest charge to mass ratio.

3. A point charge Q is placed at point O as shown in figure. Is the potential difference

VA - VB positive, negative or zero. Give reason.

Ans. The potential at a point,

V=rkq
For a charge Q, VA−VB= kQ(1/rA−1/rB)
where rA<rB
So, 1/rA>1/rB
So, (1/rA −1/rB )>0
Since Q is positive. So, VA−VB is also positive.
 4. Two uniformly large parallel thin plates having charge
densities +σ and −σ are kept in the XZ-plane at distance d apart. Sketch
an equipotential surface due to electric field between the plates. If a
particle of mass m and charge −q remains stationary between the plates.
What is the magnitude and direction of this field?

Solution
Given two uniformly large parallel plate having charge
densities +σ and −σ kept in x-z plane at distance d apart.
We have to sketch an equipotential surface due to electric field between the
plates.
Here electric field E between the plates is given by ε0σ. Now, V=Ed=ε0dσ
So, any set of equidistant points between the plates will have same electric
potential.
We also have electric field between the plates if a particle of mass m and
charge −q remains stationary between the plates.
So, the gravitational force experienced by charge =mg
Electrostatic force experienced by the charge =qE=ε0qσ
Now, as the charge is static,
mg=qE
⇒mg=ε0qσ
⇒σ=qmgε0
Thus, E=ε0σ=ε0qmgε0=qmg
The direction of electric field is downward i.e, along −y axis.

The equipotential surface is as shown:

 5. Find the equivalent capacitance of the network shown in the figure,
when each capacitor is of 1uF. When the ends X and Y are connected
to a 6 V battery, find out
(i) The charge and
(ii) The energy stored in the network.

Ans. The given circuit can be rearranged as

It is known as wheat stone bridge of the capacitor. Since VA=VB, so the bridge capacitor between
points A and B removed.
The equivalent capacitor of the network
Ceq= C×C/C+C+= C×C/C+C
C/2+C/2
=C=1uF
Charge in the network, Q= CeqV
=C×V= 1uF ×6V=6uC
(ii) Energy stored in the capacitor,
U=CeqV2/2
=18uJ

PART D – 3 MARK ( SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS)

1. Two identical parallel plate capacitors A and B are connected to battery of V volts with the
switch S closed. The switch is now opened and the free space between the plates of the
capacitors is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant K. Find the ratio of the total
electrostatic energy stored in both capacitors before and after the introduction of the
dielectric.

Ans. Energy stored before introduction of dielectric,

 UiA=U
UiB=U
Ui=U+U=2U
After introduction of dielectric,
UfA=KU
UfB=U/K
Uf=KU+U/K=U(K+1/K)
Ratio =Ui/Uf=2U/U(K+1/K)=2K/K2+1

2. (a) derive an expression for electric potential at any point along the axial line of a
electric dipole.
(b) find the electrostatic potential at a point on the equatorial line of a dipole?

Let P be an axial point at distance r from the center of the dipole. Electric potential
at point P is given as
V=V1+V2
V1and V2are the potentials at point P due to charges +q and –q respectively
V=1/4πε0.(r−2aq+(r+2a−q))
V=1/4πε0((r2−4a2)4a)
.

V=1/4πε0((2P/r2−4a2))
.

Hence, the electric potential is 1/4πε0 (2P/r2−4a2)

The electric potential at a distance from the dipole is V=1/4πϵ0 (pcosθ/r2)

where p= dipole moment, r= distance of the point from the centre of the
dipole, θ= angle between p and r.
For point on the equatorial line, θ=2π. So V=0.
3. State Gauss's law in electrostatics. A cube with each side ′a′. a′ is placed in a
uniform electric field E = Cx, directed towards x-axis. Find out
(i) The electric flux through the cube, and
(ii) The net charge inside the cube.
Solution
Step 1: Gauss’s Law [Refer Figure 1]
Gauss law states that the total electric flux through any closed surface (S) in
free space is equal to ϵ01 times the total electric charge (q) enclosed by the
surface.

Φ = ∮E.dS = q/ ϵ0
Φ = ∮EdScosθ =q/ ϵ0

where θ is the angle made by the electric field with the area vector dS (as
shown in figure 1)

Step 2: [Refer Figure 2]

Mention the direction of surface area vector dS for every face of the cube
and electric field

Step 3: Electric flux for every face of the cube

Let, θ be the angle between Electric field and area vector at each face.

For ABCD, EFGH, AFED,and BHGC, θ=90∘

Φ = E dScos90∘ = 0
For EGCD
ϕ1=E dScos0∘=E dS
E=2aC, dS = a2 {at x=2a}
⇒ϕ1=2aC× a2 =2a3C
For face ABFH
ϕ2=E dScos180∘=−E dS

Step 4: Calculating the total flux

ϕ=ϕ1+ϕ2
=a3C

Step 5: Calculating the net charge using Gauss’s law

From Gauss's law,
⇒q = a3Cϵ0
4. Two charges q and −3q are fixed on x-axis separated by distance d.
Where should a third charge 2q be placed from A such that it will not
experience any force?

Solution :-
Let a charge 2q be placed at P, at a distance l from A where charge q is
placed, as shown in figure
The charge 2q will not experience any force, when force of repulsion on it
due to q is balanced by force of attraction on it due to −3q at B where AB=d
or (2q)(q) / 4πε0l2= (2q)(3q) / 4πε0(l+d)2
/

(l+d)2=3l2
If charge 2q is placed between A and B then l = ( (√3−1) / 2) . d

5. A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volts.

The charge stored in it is 360 μC. When potential across the capacitor is
reduced by 120 V, the charge stored in it becomes 120 μC.
Calculate:
(i) The potential V and the unknown capacitance C.
(ii) What will be the charge stored in the
capacitor, if the voltage applied had increased by 120 V? (Delhi 2013)

Answer:
(i) Let the capacitance be C
∴ Charge on Q1 = CV or 360 μC = CV …(i)
In second case,
Q2 = C(V – 120)
⇒ 120 μC = C(V – 120) …(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii)

3V – 360 = V ⇒ 2V = 360
By putting this value of V in (ii)
120 × 10-6 = C(180 – 120)

(ii) Charge stored when voltage is increased by 120 V

Q’ = 2μF × (180 + 120) V = 600 µc

PART E – 5 MARK ( LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS)

1. (a) Define an equipotential surface. Draw equipotential surfaces:

(i) in the case of a single point charge and
(ii) in a constant electric field in Z-direction.
(b) Why the equipotential surfaces about a single charge are not equidistant?
(c) Can electric field exist tangential to an equipotential surface? Give reason. (All
India 2015)
Answer:
(a) A surface with a constant value of potential at all points of the surface is defined
as ‘equipotential surface’ „
(i) Equipotential surface for a single point charge.

(b) Equipotential surface in a constant electric field as shown in the adjoining diagram.
Equipotential surface are not equidistant, because V ∝1/r
(c) No, If the field lines are tangential, work will be done in moving a charge on the surface
which goes against the definition of equipotential surface.

2. a) Obtain the expression for the potential due to an electric dipole of dipole
3. moment p at a point V on the axial line.
(b) Two identical capacitors of plate dimensions l × b and plate separation d have di-
electric slabs filled in between the space of the plates as shown in the figure.
Obtain the relation between the dielectric constants K, K1 and K2.(Comptt. All
India 2013)
Answer:
(a) Potential at a point due to an electric dipole : Let us consider an electric dipole
consisting of two equal and opposite charges -q at A and +q at B, separated by a
distance 21 with centre at O. We have to calculate potential at a point P, whose
polar co-ordinates are (r, 0); i.e. OP = r and ∠BOP = θ, as shown in the figure.
Here AP = r1, and BP = r2, we can easily calculate potential as P due to point
charges at A and B using V = 14πε0qr.

Total potential at P due to both the charges of the dipole is given by

v = v1 + v2

To put this result in a more convenient form, we draw normals from A and B on
the line joining O and P. From ∆BOD, we note that OD = l cos θ and from ∆OAC
we note that OC = l cos θ. For a small dipole (AB << OP), from the figure, we can
take PB = PD and PA = PC.
Hence r1 = r + l cos θ,
Using these results in equation (1), we get

where we have neglected the term containing second power of l since l << r
In terms of dipole (p = q × 21), we can express this result as
 This result shows that unlike the potential due to a point charge, the potential due
to a dipole is inversely proportional to the square r of the distance.
Let us now consider its special cases.
Special Cases
Case I : When point P lies on the axial line of the dipole on the side of positive
charge,
θ = 0 and cos θ = 1
Then equation (ii) reduces to

Case II : When point P lies on the axial line of the dipole but on the side of
negative charge,
θ = 180° and cos θ = 1

Case III :When point P lies on the equatorial line of the dipole (perpendicular
bisector of AB), θ = 90° and cos θ = 0
Then Vequitorial = 0 … (i)
Thus, electric potential due to a dipole is zero at every point on the equatorial line
of the dipole.

In second case, these two apartments are in parallel, their net capacity would be
the sum of two individual capacitances
C2 = C’2 + C”2

Since these are identical capacitors, comparing (i) and (ii),

We have C1 = C2

4. (i) If two similar large plates, each of area A having surface charge densities +a
and -a are separated by a distance d in air, find the expressions for
(a) field at points between the two plates and on outer side of the plates. Specify
the direction of the field in each case.
(b) the potential difference between the plates.
(c) the capacitance of the capacitor so formed.
(ii) Two metallic spheres of radii R and 2R are charged so that both of these have
 same surface charge density a. If they are connected to each other with a
conducting wire, in which direction will the charge flow and why? (All India 2016)

Answer:

(i) Given :

From (i) and (ii), we know that V2R > VR

Hence, the bigger sphere will be at a higher potential, so charge will flow
from bigger sphere to smaller sphere.
5. (a) Use Gauss’s theorem to find the electronic field due to a uniformly
charged infinitely large plane thin sheet with surface charge density a.
(b) An infinitely large thin plane sheet has a uniform surface charge
density +a. Obtain the expression for the amount of work done in bringing
a point charge q from infinity to a point, distant r, in front of the charged
plane sheet. (Outside Delhi 2017)
Answer
(a) Electric flux: The electric flux through a given area held inside an
electric field is the measure of the total number of electric lines of force
passing normally through that area.

(b) Consider a thin, infinite plane sheet of charge with uniform surface
charge density 0. We wish to calculate its electric field at a point P at
distance r from it.

By symmetry, electric field E points outwards normal to the sheet. Also, it

must have same magnitude and opposite direction at two points P anel F
equidistant from the sheet and on opposite sides. We choose cylindrical
Gaussian surface of cross¬sectional area A and length 2r with its axis
perpendicular to the sheet.
As the lines of force are parallel to the curved surface of the cylinder, the
flux through the curved surface is zero. The flux through the plane-end
faces of the cylinder is :

(i) For positively charged sheet ➝ away from the sheet

 (ii)For negatively charged sheet ➝towards the sheet

PART F – 4 MARK ( CASE BASED QUESTIONS - CBQs)

1. Electric field strength is proportional to the density of lines of force

i.e., electric field strength at a point is proportional to the number of
lines of force cutting a unit area element placed normal to the field at
that point. As illustrated in given figure, the electric field at P is
stronger than at Q.

(i) Electric lines of force about a positive point charge are

(a) radially outwards
(b) circular clockwise
(c) radially inwards
(d) parallel straight lines

(ii) Which of the following is false for electric lines of force?

(a) They always start from positive charge and terminate on negative
charges.
(b) They are always perpendicular to the surface of a charged conductor.
(c) They always form closed loops.
(d) They are parallel and equally spaced in a region of uniform electric
field.
(iii) Which one of the following patterns of electric line of force is not
possible in field due to stationary charges?

(iv) Electric field lines are curved

(a) in the field of a single positive or negative charge
(b) in the field of two equal and opposite charges.
(c) in the field of two like charges.
(d) both (b) and (c)

(v) The figure below shows the electric field lines due to two positive
charges. The magnitudes EA, EB and EC of the electric fields at point A,
B and C respectively are related as

(a) EA>EB>EC
(b) EB>EA>EC
(c) EA=EB>EC
(d) EA>EB=EC

Answers:
(i) (a)
(ii) (c)
(iii) (c)
(iv)(d)
(v) (a)
2. When electric dipole is placed in uniform electric field, its two charges experience
equal and opposite forces, which cancel each other and hence net force on electric dipole
in uniform electric field is zero. However these forces are not collinear, so they give
rise to some torque on the dipole. Since net force on electric dipole in uniform electric
field is zero, so no work is done in moving the electric dipole in uniform electric field.
However some
work is done in rotating the dipole against the torque acting on it.

(i) The dipole moment of a dipole in a uniform external field Ē is B.

Then the torque τ acting on the dipole is
(a) τ = p x E
(b) τ = P. Ē
(c) τ = 2(p + Ē)
(d) τ = (P + E)

(ii) An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges, each of

magnitude 1.0 μC separated by a distance of 2.0 cm.The dipole is
placed in an externalfield of 105 NC-1. The maximum torque on the
dipole is-
(a) 0.2 x 10-3 Nm
(b) 1x 10-3 Nm
(c) 2 x 10-3 Nm
(d) 4x 10-3 Nm

(iii) Torque on a dipole in uniform electric field is minimum when θ is

equal to
(a) 0°
(b) 90°
(c) 180°
(d)Both (a) and (c)

(iv) When an electric dipole is held at an angle in a uniform electric field, the net
force F and torque τ on the dipole are
(a) F= 0, τ = 0
(b) F≠0, τ≠0
(c) F=0, τ ≠ 0
(d) F≠0, τ=0
(v) An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field of
intensity E. The dipole acquires a position such that the axis of the
dipole makes an angle with the direction of the field. Assuming that
potential energy of the dipole to be zero when Ɵ = 90°, the torque and
the potential energy of the dipole will respectively be
(a) pEsinθ, -pEcosθ
(b) pEsinθ, -2pEcosθ
(c) pEsinθ, 2pEcosθ
(d) pEcosθ, – pEsinθ
Answers –
(i) (a)
(ii) (c)
(iii) (d)
(iv)(c)
(v) (a)

3. When an insulator is placed in an external field, the dipoles become

aligned. Induced surface charges on the insulator establish a polarization
field Ēi in its interior. The net field Ē in the insulator is the vector sum of Ē,
and Ēi as shown in the figure.

On the application of external electric field, the effect of aligning the

electric dipoles in the insulator is called polarization and the field Ē; is
known as the polarization field.
The dipole moment per unit volume of the dielectric is known
as polarization (P).
For linear isotropic dielectrics, P =χE, where χ = electrical susceptibility of the
dielectric medium.
(i) Which among the following is an example of polar molecule?
(2) O₂
(b) H
(c) N2
(d) HCI

(ii) When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of constant K, the

maximum force of attraction between two charges separated by a
distance
(a) increases K times
(b) remains unchanged
(c) decreases K times
(d) increases 2K times.

(iii) Which of the following is a dielectric?

(a) Copper
(b) Glass
(c) Antimony (Sb)
(d) None of these

(iv) For a polar molecule, which of the following statements is true ?

(a) The centre of gravity of electrons and protons coincide.

(b) The centre of gravity of electrons and protons do not coincide.
(c) The charge distribution is always symmetrical.
(d) The dipole moment is always zero.

(v) When a comb rubbed with dry hair attracts pieces of paper. This is
because the
(a) comb polarizes the piece of paper
(b) comb induces a net dipole moment opposite to the direction of field
(c) electric field due to the comb is uniform
(d) comb induces a net dipole moment perpendicular to the direction of
field
Answers:

(i) (d)
Explanation: In polar molecules the centre of positive and negative
charges are separated even when there is no external field. Such molecule
are have a permanent dipole moment. Ionic molecule like HCl is an
example of polar molecule.
(ii) (c)
Explanation: As F’=F/K, Therefore the maximum force decreases by K
times.
(iii) (b)
(iv)(b)
Explanation: A polar molecule is one in which the centre of gravity for
positive and negative charges are separated.
(v) (a)
 Unit-II - Current
Electricity
Chapter–3: Current
Electricity
 Current Electricity
2 Marks Question:
Q.1 A student has two wires of iron and copper of equal length and diameter. He first joins the
two wires in series and passes electric current through the combination which increases
gradually. After that he joins the two wires in parallel and repeat the process of passing current.
Which wire will glow first in each case and why.?
Answer: In series combination, same current I flows through iron and copper wires.
Here H=I2Rt= I2(ρl/A)t i.e. Hα ρ
As ρ is more for iron than for copper, so iron will start glowing first in series combination.
(ii) In parallel, the voltage V is same for both the wires.
Here H=(V2/R)t= =(V2At)/ρl i.e. Hα (1/ ρ)
Here ρ is less for copper than for iron, so copper will start glowing first in parallel combination.
Q.2 Two cells of emfs 1.5V and 2.0V having internal
resistance 0.2Ω and 0.3Ω respectively are connected in
parallel. Calculate the emf and internal resistance of the
equivalent cell.
Answer: E= (e1r2+e2r1)/(r1+r2)
(1.5x0.3)+(2x0.2) 0.85
E=
0.2+0.3
= 0.5
=1.7V
0.2𝑥0.3
Equivalent resistance R= r1r2/(r1+r2) = = 0.12Ω
0.5

Q.3 Define Drift velocity and derive formula for it.

Answer: It is the average velocity with which electrons are drifted towards positive end of the
battery.
In the absence of electric field and due to thermal agitation electrons move randomly in all
possible direction. So the average velocity of all the electrons will be zero
𝐮𝟏+𝐮𝟐….+𝐮𝐧
Let u1, u2,…….un be the velocities of n electrons then =0
𝒏

In the presence of electric field electrons drifted toward positive electrod and strike with other
atoms and electrons so final velocities of these electrons are v1, v2,…….vn where v1= u1+aτ1,
v2= u2+aτ2, ………………….. vn= un+aτn
Now average velocity Vd = (v1+ v2+…….vn)/n
Vd =[ ( u1+aτ1)+( u2+aτ2)+ …………………..+ ( un+aτn)]/n
𝐮𝟏+𝐮𝟐+⋯+𝐮𝐧 𝛕𝟏+𝛕𝟐+⋯+𝛕𝐧
Vd =[ ] + a[ ]
𝒏 𝒏
τ1+τ2+⋯+τn
Vd =0 + aτ [ here τ= ]
𝑛

Vd = -eEτ/m , E is electric field.

Q.4 A metal rod of square cross sectional area A having length l has current I flowing through
it when a potential difference of V volt is applied
across its ends. Now the rod is cut parallel to its ends
into two identical pieces and joined as shown in figure.
What potential difference must be maintained across
the length 2l so that current in the rod is still I.?
𝑙
Answer: In first case R1 = ρ
𝐴
2𝑙
In second case R2 = ρ𝐴/2= 4R1

I = V1/R1 = V2/R2
V2 = 4V
Q.5 In the circuit shown in figure each battery is of 5Vand has an internal resistance of 0.2Ω.
What will be the reading of an ideal voltmeter connected across a battery.?
Answer:
𝑛𝐸 8𝑥5
I= = = 25 A
𝑛𝑟 8𝑥0.2

Reading of voltmeter = E-Ir = 5-25x0.2 = 5-5 =0

3 Marks questions:
Q.6 Explain, giving reasons, how the internal resistance of cell changes in the following cases:
(a) When concentration of electrolyte is increased.
(b)When area of the anode is decreased.
(c) When temperature of electrolyte os increased.
Answer: (a) When concentration of electrolyte is increased, Internal resistance of cell increases.
Reason: In more concentrated electrolyte, inter ionic attractions increase and movements of
ions become difficult.
(b) When area of the anode is decreased, internal resistance of the cell increases.
Reason: Lesser area of the anode, decreases its tendency to attract oppositely charged ions.
(c) When temperature of electrolyte is increased, internal resistance decreases.
Reason: Both ionic attractions and viscous forces decrease at higher temperature.
Q.7 Is the current density a vector or a scalar quantity.? Deduce the relation between current
density and potential difference across a current carrying conductor of length l, area of cross
section A, and number density of free electrons n. How does the current density, in a conductor
vary with
(a) increase in potential gradient.?
(b) increase in temperature.?
(c) increase in area of cross section.?
Answer: Current density is a vector quantity having same direction as that of motion of positive
charge.
I = neAvd
𝐼 𝑉
Current density j = 𝐴 = (neAvd)/A= nevd = ne( eEτ/m) = ne2 Eτ/m = (ne2τ/m)
𝑙
(a) j increases with increase in V/l
(b) j decreases with increase in temperature because τ decreases.
(c) J remains same as it is independent of A.
Q.8 In the circuit shown, calculate the potential difference
across the capacitor C.
Answer: In steady state no current flow through the capacitor
So equivalent circuit will be:
According to Kirchhoff’s Second law:
20xI+10xI = 2.5-1
I= 0.05A
Potential difference across C = terminal P.D. across E1( or
E3)- E2
Now the P.D. across E1 = E1-Ix20 = 2.5-0.05x20 =1.5V
Now P.D. across C =1.5-1.5 = 0
Q.9 In a part of the circuit shown in the figure, the rate of heat dissipation in 4Ω resistor is
100J/s. Calculate the heat dissipated in 3Ω resistor in 10
seconds.
Answer: Let the current flowing through 4Ω resistor=I
Now P = I2R = 100 or I = 5A
Same current will flow through 2Ω resistor.
P.D. across (4+2)= 6Ω resistor = 5x6 = 30V
Same P.D. will be reflected across 3Ω resistor.
So the heat dissipated in 3Ω resistor = V2t/R = (900x10)/3 = 3000 J

5 Marks questions:
Q.10 (a) Derive the conditions for obtaining maximum current through an external resistance
connected across a mixed grouping of cells.
(b) 36 cells each of internal resistance 0.5Ω and emf 1.5V each are used to send current through
an external circuit of 2Ω resistance. Find the best mode of grouping them and the current
through the external circuit.
Answer: (a) Total Cells = mn
𝑛𝑟
Total resistance of circuit = +R
𝑚
𝑛𝐸 𝑚𝑛𝐸
I= =
𝑅+𝑛𝑟/𝑚 𝑚𝑅+𝑛𝑟
For max. value of current mR+nr should be
minimum so
mR + nr = [√(mR) - √(nr)]2 +2√(mnRr)
so value of (mR + nr) will be minimum if [√(mR) - √(nr)] = 0 or R = nr/m
(b) Best mode is Mixed grouping
Total cells = mn = 36…………..(1)
For max. current in mixed grouping :
𝑛𝑟 𝑛∗0.5
= R or = R……………(2)
𝑚 𝑚
From equation (1) and (2) 0.5 n2 = 72 or n = 12 and m= 3
Thus for maximum current there should be three rows in parallel, each containing 12 cells in
series.
𝑚𝑛𝐸
Maximum current = = 4.5 A
𝑚𝑅+𝑛𝑟
Q.11(a) Apply Kirchhoff’s law derive the balance condition
of Wheastone Bridge.
(b) The Wheatstone’s Bridge in figure is showing no
deflection in the galvanometer joined between the points B
and D. Computer the value of R.
Answer: (a) Bridge is said to be balanced when the potential
difference across the galvanometer is zero. So no current will
flow through the galvanometer.
In balanced condition P/Q = R/S
Aplying Kirchhoff’s Law in ABDA
I1P + IgG – I2R = 0
But Ig = 0
So I1P – I2R = 0 or I1P = I2R ……….(1)
In Loop BCDB
(I1- Ig)Q –( I2 + Ig)S - GIg = 0
But Ig = 0
I1Q –I2S = 0 or I1Q = I2S…………(2)
Divide equation (1) by (2)
P/Q = R/S
(b) From Wheatstone Bridge Principle: P/Q = R/S
100 200
=
100𝑅/(100+𝑅) 40

R = 25
Q.12 4 Cells of identical emf E, internal resistance r are connected in series to a variable
resistor.The following graph shows the variation of terminal
voltage of combination with the current output.
(i) What is the emf of each cell used.?
(ii) For what current from the cells, does maximum power
dissipation occur in the circuit.
(iii) Calculate the internal resistance of each cell.
Answer: (i) When I = 0 then V = 4 E = 5.6
So E = 1.4V
(ii) Output power is maximum when External resistance = internal resistance = 4r
Imax = Total emf/ Total resistance =4E/4r+4r) = E/2r = 1.4/(2x0.7) =1A
(iii) When I = 1.0A , V= 2.8/4 = 0.7V
r=(E-V)/I = (1.4-0.7)/1.0 = 0.7Ω

Multiple choice question:

Q.13 In India, the electricity is supplied for domestic use at 220V. It is supplied for domestic
use at 110V in U.S.A.If the resistance of 60W bulb for use in India is R, the resistance of 60W
bulb for use in U.S.A will be:
(a) R (b) 2R (c) R/4 (d) R/2
Answer: (c)
Q.14 An aluminium wire is stretched to make its length 0.4% larger. The percentage change in
resistance is:
(a) 0.4% (b) 0.2% (c) 0.8% (d) 0.6%
Answer: (c)
Q.15 Two identical slabs of given metal are joined together in two
different ways as shown in figure (i) and (ii). What is the ratio of
resistances of these two combinations (i) and (ii).?
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1
(c) 1:4 (d) 4:1
Answer: (d)
Q.16 The current I and voltage V curves for a given metallic wire at two
different temperatures T1 and T2 are shown in figure. Then
(a) T1>T2 (b) T1<T2
(c) T1=T2 (d) T1=2T2
Answer: (b)
Q.17 In Wheatstone‘s Bridge P=2Ω, Q=2Ω, R=2Ω and S=3Ω. The resistance with which S is
to be shunted in order that the bridge may be balanced is:
(a) 1Ω (b) 2Ω (c) 4Ω (d) 6Ω
Answer: (d)
Assertion-Reason Type questions:
If assertion is true and reason is also true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion then
select - option (a)
If assertion is true and reason is also true and reason is not correct explanation of assertion then
select - option (b)
If assertion is true and reason is false then select- option (c)
If both assertion and reason are false then select- option (d)
Q.18 Assertion: Alloys such as Constantan or Manganin are used in making standard
resistance coils.
Reason: Constantan or Manganin have very small value of temperature coefficient of
resistance.
Answer: (a)
Q.19 Assertion: An electric bulb starts glowing instantly as it is switched on.
Reason: Drift speed of electrons in a metallic wire is very large.
Answer: (c)
Q.20 Assertion: If the wire is stretched to increase its length X times, then its resistance, also
increases by X2 times.
Reason: Resistance of conductor directly depends upon the length of conductor.
Answer: (a)
Q.21 Assertion: As temperature of an electrolyte is increased, its resistivity increases.
Reason: Increase of temperature makes the electrolyte more viscous.
Answer: (a)
Q.22 Assertion: Ohm’s law is valid for high values of current in a conductor .
Reason: For high values of current V is directly proportional to I.
Answer: (d)

Case study : Kirchhoff’s Law

In1942,a German Physicist Kirchhoff extended Ohm’s law to complicated circuits and gave
two laws, which enable us to determine current in any part of such circuit. A junction is a point
in an electric circuit where two or more conductors are joined together. Any closed conducting
path in an electric network is called loop. In an electric circuit, the algebraic sum of current at
any junction is zero i.e. ∑I=o Around any closed loop of a network, the algebraic sum of the
changes in potential must be zero.
Now answer the following questions:
Q.23 (i) Kirchhoff’s first law is based on:
(a) Law of conservation of energy
 (b) Law of conservation of charge
(c) Law of conservation of linear momentum.
(d) None of these.
Answer: (b)
(ii) Kirchhoff’s second law is based on:
(a) Law of conservation of energy
(b) Law of conservation of charge
(c) Law of conservation of linear momentum.
(d)None of these
Answer: (a)
(iii) The value of current in given circuit is:
(a) 1.5A (b) 1.7A
(c)1.6A (d) zero
Answer: (b)
(iv) From the circuit diagram, using Kirchhoff’s law, which equation is correct:
(a) e1-e2 = I1R1-I2R2 (b) e1+e2 = I1R1-I2R2
(b) e1-e2 = I1R1+I2R2 (d) e1+e2 = I1R1-I2R2
Answer: (a)

Case Study: Heating effect of current

Consider a resistor connected to a source of emf. The energy of
source gets dissipated entirely in the form of heat. This phenomenon
of the production of heat in a resistor by the flow of current through it is called heating effect
of current or Joule heating. When a potential difference is applied across the ends of a
conductor, its free electrons get accelerated in the opposite direction of the applied field.
The speed of the electrons doesn’t increase beyond a constant drift speed. This is because
during the course of their motion electrons collide more frequently with the positive metal ions.
The kinetic energy gained by the free electrons during the interval of free accleration is
transferred to the metal ions at the time of collision. The ions vibrate more vigorously i.e.
conductor gets heated. The energy supplied by the source of emf appears as heat. According to
Joule’s law of heating, the amount of heat produced is H= I2Rt joule. Electric heater, electric
iron, electric bulb etc. are the devices which work on this law and convert electric energy into
heat energy.
Now answer the following questions:
Q.24 (1) If two identical heaters each rated as (1000W, 220V) are connected in parallel to
220V then total power consumed is:
(a) 200W (b) 2500W (c) 250W (d) 2000W
Answer: (d)
(2) Three identical bulbs are connected in series and these together dissipate a power P. If now
the bulbs are connected in parallel, then the power dissipated will be:
(a) P/3 (b) 3P (c) 9P (d) P/9
Answer: (c)
(3) Two wires having resistances R and 2R are connected in parallel, then ratio of heat
generated in R and 2R is:
(a) 3:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:4 (d) 4:1
Answer: (b)
(4) Bulb B1(100W-250V) and bulb B2(100W-200V) are connected in series across 250V.
What is the potential drop across B2.?
(a) 200V (b) 250V (c) 98V (d) 48V
Answer: (c)
 Unit-III - Magnetic
Effects of Current and
Magnetism
Chapter–4: Moving
Charges and Magnetism
Chapter–5: Magnetism
and Matter
 UNIT – 3 MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT MAGNETISM
MCQ
Q.1 A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ώ is connected to a voltmeter of range 1.0 V by
connecting a resistance of 10 kΏ. The resistance required to convert the same galvanometer
to an ammeter of range 1 A is
(i) 0.4 Ώ (b) 0.3 Ώ (c) 1.2 Ώ (d) 0.1 Ώ
Ans – (d) 0.1 Ώ
Solution -V = 10V, R = 10 kΏ, G = 100Ώ = 0.1 kΏ Ig = 1 mA
S = ig G/I-ig = 1x10-3x100/1-1x10-3 = 0.1 Ώ
Q.2 The magnetic field at the centre O of the following current loop is

(a) 𝜇𝑜 𝐼 4 𝑟  (b) 𝜇𝑜 𝐼 4 𝑟 (c) 𝜇𝑜 𝐼 2 𝑟  (d) 𝜇𝑜 𝐼 2 𝑟

Ans (a) 𝝁0𝑰𝟒𝒓 

Solution - Magnetic field at the centre of current carrying circular loop, 𝑩 = 𝝁0𝑰𝟐 𝒓
Hence at the centre of semi-circular loop, 𝐵 1 = 𝑩/ 𝟐 = 𝝁0𝑰𝟒 𝒓
By Maxwell’s right hand rule, this magnetic field points into () the page

Q.3 Three wires of equal lengths are bent in the form of loops. One of the loops is circle,
another is a semi-circle and the third one is a square. They are placed in a uniform magnetic
field and same electric current is passed through them. Which of the following loop
configuration will experience greater torque ?
(a) Circle (b) Semi-circle (c) Square (d) All of them
Ans (a) Circle
Solution: - Let 𝑙 be the length of the wire. The maximum torque; 𝜏𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝐵 𝐼 𝐴
Here ‘B’ and ‘I’ are constants. So value of maximum torque ; 𝜏max ∝ 𝐴
For circular loop, 𝑙 = 2 𝜋 𝑟 ⇒ 𝑟 = 𝑙 /2 𝜋 and 𝐴cir = 𝜋 𝑟2 = 𝜋 𝑙2 / 4 𝜋2 = 𝑙2/ 4 𝜋
For semi-circle loop, 𝑙 = 𝜋 𝑟 + 2 𝑟 ⇒ 𝑟 = 𝑙 / 𝜋+2 and 𝐴semi= 𝜋 𝑟2/ 2 = 𝜋 𝑙2/ 2(𝜋+2)2
For square, 𝑙 = 4 𝑎 ⇒ 𝑎 = 𝑙 / 4 and 𝐴squae = 𝑎 2 = 𝑙 2 16
Since 𝐴cir > 𝐴semi > 𝐴square , hence circle experience greater torque.

Q.4 The BH curve for a ferromagnetic material is shown in the figure. The material is placed
inside a long solenoid which contains 1000 turns/cm. The current that should be passed in
the solenonid to demagnetize the ferromagnet completely is
(a) 1.00 m A (b) 1.25 mA (c) 1.50 mA (d) 1.75 mA
Ans (c) 𝟏. 𝟓𝟎 𝒎𝑨
Solution :- By definition, 𝐵 = 𝜇0 𝐻
.By Ampere circuital law, 𝐵 = 𝜇0 𝑛 𝐼
. Thus we have, 𝐻 = 𝑛 𝐼
. From the figure, the coercivity ; 𝐻 = 150 𝐴 m-1
∴ 𝐼 = 𝐻/ 𝑛 = 150/ 1,00,000 = 15 𝑋 10−4 = 1.5 𝑋 10−3 𝐴 = 1.5 𝑚 𝐴
Q.5 The magnetic dipole moment of a current carrying coil does not depend upon
(a) number of the turns of the coil (b) cross sectional area of the coil
© current flowing in the coil (d) material of the turns of the coil
Ans – (d)

REASONING/ASSERTION TYPE QUESTIONS

Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a),
(b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false and R is also false
Q.1 Assertion (A): The magnetic field at the end of a very long current carrying solenoid
is half of that at the centre.
Reason (R): If the solenoid is sufficiently long, the field within it is uniform.
Ans (b)
Q.2 Assertion (A): The coils of a spring come close to each other, when current is passed
through it.
Reason (R): It is because, the coils of a spring carry current in the same direction and hence
attract each other.
Ans. (a)
Q.3 Assertion (A): The magnetic field at the centre of the current carrying circular coil
shown in the fig. is zero.
Reason (R): The magnitudes of magnetic fields are equal and the directions of magnetic
fields due to both the semicircles are opposite.
Ans (a)
Q.4 .Assertion (A): The voltage sensitivity may not necessarily increase on increasing the
current sensitivity.
Reason (R): Current sensitivity increases on increasing the number of turns of the coil.
Ans (b)
Q.5 Assertion (A): An electron projected parallel to the direction of magnetic force will
experience maximum force.
Reason (R): Magnetic force on a charge particle is given by F = (IL x B).
Ans (d)
 CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION
AMPERE’S CIRCUITAL LAW
Just as Gauss's law is an alternative form of coulomb's law in electrostatics, similarly we have
ampere's circuital law as an alternative form of Biot-Savart law in magnetostatics. Ampere
found that the magnetic lines of force of a straight current carrying conductor are concentric
circles in a plane perpendicular to the conductor. Ampere's law is stated with reference to
the loops of magnetic lines of force. We consider a loop to be made up of a number of small
line elements. Consider one such element of length dl. Let B be the tangential component of
field B at this element. We multiply it by the element length dl. We add all such products.
When the lengths of these elements become small and their number gets larger, this
summation tends to an integral. Ampere's law states that the line integral of the magnetic
field B around any closed loop equal to µ0 times of the net current I passing through the close
loop. The closed loop is called Amperean loop. Ampere's law is valid for any arbitrary close
loop and holds only for steady currents. However, Ampere's law is useful only for calculating
the magnetic field only in highly symmetrical situations where B is tangential to loop and has
a non zero constant B, or B is normal to the loop, or be Vanishes.
(i) Only the current inside the Amperean loop contributes in –
(a) Finding magnetic field at any point on the Amperean loop.
(b) line integral of magnetic field
(c) In both of the above.
(d) In neither (a) nor (b).
Ans (b)
(ii) An electric current passes through a long wire. At a distance 5 cm from the wire, the
magnetic field is B. The field at 20 cm from the wire would be –
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
Ans – ©
(iii) 1A current flows through an infinite long straight wire. The magnetic field produced at a
point 1 m away from it is –
(a) 2 x 10-3 T (b) 2π x 10-3 T (c) 2 x 10-7 T (d) 2π x 10-7 T
Ans – ©
(iv) Long straight wire of circular cross - section radius a carries steady current I and the
current I is uniformly distributed across this cross section, which of the following plots
represents the variation of magnitude of magnetic field B with distance r from the center of
the wire?

Ans – (a)
(v) Steady electric current is flowing through cylindrical conductor –
(a) The magnetic field in the vicinity of conductor is zero
(b) The electric field in the vicinity of the conductor is zero
(c) The magnetic field at the axis of the conductor is zero
(d) The electric field at the axis of the conductor is zero.
Ans – ©

MAGNETIC BEHAVIOUR OF MATERIALS

Before nineteenth century, scientists believed that magnetic properties were confined to a
few materials like iron, cobalt and nickel. But in 1846, Curie and Faraday discovered that all
the materials in the universe are magnetic to some extent. These magnetic substances are
categorized into two groups. Weak magnetic materials are called diamagnetic and
paramagnetic materials. Strong magnetic materials are called ferromagnetic materials.
According to the modern theory of magnetism, the magnetic response of any material is due
to circulating electrons in the atoms. Each such electron has a magnetic moment in a direction
perpendicular to the plane of circulation. In magnetic materials all these magnetic moments
due to the orbital and spin motion of all the electrons in any atom, vectorially add up to a
resultant magnetic moment. The magnitude and direction of this resultant magnetic moment
is responsible for the behavior of the materials. For diamagnetic materials is small and
negative and for paramagnetic materials is small and positive. Ferromagnetic materials have
large and are characterized by non-linear relation between and .Answer these questions.
(i). The universal or inherent property among all substances is
(a) Diamagnetism (b) Para magnetism
(c) Ferromagnetism (d) both (a) & (b).
Ans: (a) Diamagnetism is a universal property among all substances.
(ii) When a bar is placed near a strong magnetic field and it is repelled, then the material of
bar is
(a) Diamagnetic (b) ferromagnetic
(c) Paramagnetic (d) anti-ferromagnetic.
Ans: (a) A diamagnetic material is repelled by a strong magnetic field.
(iii). Magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance
(a) decrease with temperature (b) is not affected by temperature
(c) increase with temperature (d) first increases then decrease with temperature.
Ans: (b) Magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance is independent of temperature.
(iv) For a paramagnetic material, the dependence of the magnetic susceptibility on the
absolute temperature ꭓis given as
(a) ꭓ ἀ T (b) ꭓ ἀ 1 / T2 (c) ꭓ ἀ 1/ T (d) independent.
Ans: (c) For a paramagnetic material
(v) The value of the magnetic susceptibility for a superconductor is
(a) zero (b) infinity (c) +1 (d) – 1.
Ans: (d) In a superconductor, the magnetic lines of force get completely expelled.
 2 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q.1 Write the expression, in a vector form, for the Lorentz magnetic force F due to a charge
moving with velocity v in a magnetic field B. What is the direction of the magnetic force.
Show that no work is done by this force on the charged particle.
Ans - Lorentz magnetic force F = q (V x B)
As the magnetic force F acts in the direction perpendicular to the direction of velocity V or
the direction of motion of the charge particle, so the work done is zero.
So, W = f.ds = f ds Cos ɵ = f ds cos 90 = 0
Q.2 Under what condition magnet suspended in a uniform magnetic field will be (a) in stable
equilibrium and (b) in unstable equilibrium?
Ans: - (a) When the axis of magnetic moment m makes an angle with the direction of
magnetic field B, then torque on magnet is given by, and potential energy .
The magnet will be in stable equilibrium if t = 0 and U is minimum. It will be so if the
magnetic moment of magnet acts in the direction of magnetic field i. e. θ = 00
(b) The magnet will be in unstable equilibrium if 0 is maximum. It will be so if the magnetic
moment of magnet acts opposite direction to that of magnetic field i. e. θ = 1800
Q.3 Two identical bars, one of paramagnetic materials and other of diamagnetic material
are kept in uniform external magnetic field parallel to it. Draw diagrammatically the
modification in the magnetic field pattern in each case. How does one explain this
distinguishing feature?

Ans: A paramagnetic material develops feeble magnetisation in the direction of the

magnetising field. Hence the lines of force become more dens in the paramagnetic material
as shown in figure as Y.
A diamagnetic material develops feeble magnetisation in the opposition direction of the
magnetising field. Hence the lines of force become less dens in the diamagnetic material as
shown in figure as X.
Q.4 A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is aligned parallel to the direction of uniform magnetic
field . What is the work done, to turn the magnet, so as to align its magnetic moment (a) opposite to
the field direction and (b) normal to the field direction.
Ans: (a) The work done in turning the dipole from orientation θ1 to θ2 in field is given by,
W = - MB (cosθ2 – cosθ1) θ2 = 00 and θ2 = 1800
So W = - MB (cos 1800 – cos 00) = -MB (-1 -1) = 2MB
(b) W = - MB (cosθ2 – cosθ1) θ2 = 00 and θ2 = 900
So W = - MB (cos 900 – cos 00) = -MB (0 -1) = MB
Q.5 A coil of ‘N’ turns and radius ‘R’ carries a current I. It is unwound and rewound to make another
coil of radius R/2, current remaining the same. Calculate the ratio of the magnetic moments of the
new coil and the original coil.

Ans: - If L is the length of the wire, then L = N x 2πR = N’ x 2π R/2

Number of turns in new coil, N’ = 2N
Original magnetic moment, M = NIA = Ni x πR2
New magnetic moment, M’ = N iA’ = 2NI x π x (R/2)2 = NI x πR2/2
Now M’/M = NI x πR2/2 / Ni x πR2 = ½

3 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q1. Explain how a galvanometer can be converted into an Ammeter of a given range. Derive
an expression for shunt resistance and current for full scale deflection. find the effective
resistance of the ammeter.
Ans – Ammeter is a device used to measure current through a electric circuit or circuit
element. To measure current through electric element and a meter is connected in series
with the element so that the actual current passing through it can be measured in a meter is
design to have very small effective resistance in fact and ideal ammeter should have zero
resistance.
An ordinary galvanometer is a sensitive instrument. it gives full scale deflection with a small
current of few microamperes. To measure the large current with it, small resistance is
connected in parallel with galvanometer coil, the resistance connected in this way is called
Shunt. Only a small part of the total current passes through the galvanometer and
remaining current passes through the shunt. The value of the shunt resistance depends on
the range of the current required to be measured.

Let G = resistance of the galvanometer

Ig = current with which galvanometer gives full scale deflection.
I = required current range of ammeter. S = Shunt resistance.
I – Ig = current through the shunt.
As galvanometer and Shunt are connected in parallel, so The potential difference across the
galvanometer = Potential difference across the shunt
So Ig G = (I – Ig) x S
Or S = (Ig / I - Ig) x G
So by connecting a shunt of resistance S across the given galvanometer, we get an ammeter
of desired range.
Moreover, Ig = (S / G + S) x I
The deflection in the galvanometer is proportional to Ig and hence to I. So the scale can be
graduated to read the value of current I directly.
Hence an ammeter is a low resistance galvanometer. its effective resistance is
Ra = (GS/ G + S) ˂ S
Q2 Applying ampere’s circuital law calculate the magnetic field inside a long straight
solenoid. Ans. - A Solenoid means and insulated copper wire wound closely in the
form of helix. The magnetic field inside a closely wound long solenoid is uniform everywhere
and zero outside it.

In the above figure the sectional view of along solenoid. At various terms of the solenoid,
current comes out the plane of paper at points marked (•) and enters the plane of the paper
at points marks mark (×).
To determine the magnetic field B at any inside point consider a rectangular closed path
abcd as the ampere loop according to the Amperean loop. According to the Ampere's
circuital law ∮ B .dl = µ0 x Total current close in the loop abcd
∮. = a∫b B .dl. + b∫c B .dl . + c∫d B .dl . + d∫a B .dl.
But b∫c B .dl. = c∫d B .dl. = d∫a B .dl = 0
so a∫b B .dl = a∫b B dl cos 0 = B a∫b dl = Bl
Where Ɩ = length of the side ab of the rectangular loop abcd.
Let number of turns per unit length of the solenoid = n
Then number of terms in the length l of the solenoid = nl
Thus the current I of the solenoid threads the loop abcd = nl times.
Total current threading the loop abcd = nIl
Hence BƖ = µ0 nIƖ
Or B = µ0 nI
The magnetic field at the end of the solenoid is just one half of that at its middle. B end = µ0
nI/2 The
variation of magnetic field with distance on the axis of the long straight solenoid with
distance x from its centre is given below.
Q3. Derive an expression for the torque on a rectangular coil of area A, carrying a current I
and placed in a magnetic field B. The angle between direction of B and vector perpendicular
to the plane of the coil is ɵ. Indicate the direction of the torque acting on the loop.
Ans - consider a rectangular coil PQRS suspended in a uniform magnetic field B, with its axis
perpendicular to the field.

Let I = Current flowing through the coil PQRS.

a, b = Sides of the coil.
A = ab area of the coil.
ɵ is the angle between the direction of B and normal to the plane of the coil.
According to the Fleming's left and rule the magnetic force on sides PS and QR are equal,
opposite and collinear, so their resultant is zero. Side PQ experience a normal inword force
equal to IbB while side RS experiences an equal normal outward force. These two forces
form a couple which exerts. A torque given by -
Torque = Force x perpendicular distance.
= IbB x a Sin ɵ
= IBA sign ɵ
If the rectangular loop N turns, the torque will be torque = NIAB Sinɵ
But NIA = M = Magnetic dipole moment.
𝜏 = MB Sinɵ
𝜏= M x B
Such that it rotates anti clockwise about the axis of suspension.
(1) Case = 1, if ɵ = 00 then Torque = zero.
(2) Case = 2, If ɵ = 900 then Torque = NIAB = Maximum.
Q4.The following figure shows the variation of intensity of magnetisation with the applied
magnetic field intensity for three magnetic materials X, Y and Z. Identify the materials X, Y
and Z.
Ans - The slope of M-H graph is a measure of the magnetic susceptibility, which is given by
𝑆𝑙ope = 𝑀/𝐻 = 𝜒m
(a) Material X: Slope is positive and larger value. So, it is a ferromagnetic material.
(b) Material Y: Slope is positive and lesser value than X. So, it could be a paramagnetic
material. (c) Material Z: Slope is negative and hence, it is a diamagnetic material.

5 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q1 (a) Applying Biot-Savart law to find the magnetic field due to a circular current carrying
loop at a point on the axis of the loop.
(b) state the rules used to find the direction of this magnetic field and also draw the
magnetic field lines of a current loop.
(c) Also find the magnetic field at the center of a circular loop

Ans. Consider a circular loop of wire of radius a and carrying current I as shown in figure.

Let the plane of the loop be perpendicular to the plane of paper. we want to find the
magnetic field at an axial point P at a distance r from the centre O.
Consider the current element dƖ at the top of the loop. it as an outward coming current.
If r be the position vector of point P relative to the element dƖ, then from Biot – Savart law,
the magnetic field at point P will be dB = µ0 / 4π idl Sinθ /s2
but dl is Perpendicular to r, So ɵ = 900
therefore dB = µ0 / 4π idl/s2
The field dB lie in the plane of paper and its perpendicular to s, as shown by PQ. Let ɸ be the
angle between OP and CP.Then dB can resolved into two rectangular components.
(i) dB Sin ɸ along the axis and (ii ) dB Cos ɸ perpendicular to the axis
For any two diametrically opposite elements of the loop, the component perpendicular to
the axis of the loop will be equal and opposite and will cancel out their axis components will
be in the same direction so they are added up.
 So, total magnetic field at point P along the axis
B = ∫ dB sin φ
But sin ɸ = a/s and dB = µ0 / 4π idl/s2
So B = ∫ µ0 / 4π idl/s2 x a/s
B = µ0 ia / 4π s3 ∫ dl
B = µ0 ia x2πa / 4π s3
B = µ0 ia2 / 2(a2 + r2)3/2
For N turns B = µ0N ia2 / 2(a2 + r2)3/2
Case – 1. For the magnetic field at the centre of a circular loop r = 0 then
B = µ0N ia2 / 2a3
Case – 2. if r >> a then a2 will be neglected and B = µ0N ia2 / 2 r3
Direction of the magnetic field can be given by using right hand thumb rule or clock rule

Q2 (a) Two long straight parallel conductors carry steady currents I1 and I2 separated by a
distance d. If the currents are flowing in the same direction, show how the magnetic field
set-up in one produce an attractive force on other. Obtain the expression for this force.
Hence define one ampere.
(b) Two long and parallel straight wires A and B carrying currents of 8.0 A and 5.0 A in the
same direction are separated by a distance of 4.0 cm. Estimate the force on a 10 cm section
of wire A.
Ans. – (a) Consider two long parallel wires AB and CD carrying, currents I1 and I2. Let r be
the separation between them.
The magnetic field produced by the current I1 at any point on wire CD is –
B1 = µ0 I1 / 2πr
This field acts perpendicular to the wire CD and points into the plane of paper. It exerts a force on
current carrying wire CD. The force acting on length l of the wire CD will be
F2 = I2 l B1 sin 90 = I2 l µ0 I1 / 2πr
F2/l = µ0 I1I2 / 2πr
According to flaming left hand rule, this force acts at right angle to CD, towards AB in the plane of
the paper
similarly, an equal force is excited on the wire AB by the field of wire CD.
When the current in the two wires in the same direction the force between them are attractive.
When the current in the two parallel wires flow opposite direction then the force between them are
repulsive.

Definition of 1 ampere = 1 ampere is that value of steady current, which on flowing in each of the
two parallel infinitely long conductors of negligible cross section placed in the vacuum at distance of
1 m from each other, produces between them a force of 2 x 10-7 Newton per meter of their length.

(b) Force per unit length of each wire is

F = µ0I1I2 /2πr
= 4π x 10-7 x 8 x 5/ 2π x 4 x 10-2
= 2 x 10-4 N/m
Therefore force on 10 cm section of wire A is
F=fxl
= 2 x 10-4 x 10 x 10-2
= 2 x 10-5 N

Q3.(a) Describe the principle, construction and working of moving coil galvanometer .
(b) Why Phosphor - bronze is used as suspension wire?
(c) What is the importance of radial magnetic field in MCG? how it can be produced?

Moving coil galvanometer : It is a device which is used to indicate the flow of current.
Principle: When a current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field it experiences a
torque.
Construction: It consists of a rectangular coil PQRS of insulated thin copper wire. A cylindrical soft-
iron core is placed symmentrically inside the coil. This rectangular coil is suspended freely between
two pole pieces of a horseshoe magnet by means of phosphor - bronze wire.
Lower end of the coil is connected to a hair spring which is also made up of phosphor bronze.
A small plane mirror is attached on the suspension wire to measure the deflection of the coil with
help of lamp and scale arrangement. In order to pass electric current through the galvanometer, the
suspension strip W and the spring S are connectee to terminals.
 Working: Consider a single turn of rectangular coil PQRS of length 𝑙 and breadth 𝑏, such
that
𝑃𝑄 = 𝑅𝑆 = 𝑙 ; 𝑄𝑅 = 𝑆𝑃 = 𝑏
Let ‘I’ be the electric current flowing through the rectangular coil
The horse-shoe type magnet has hemi-spherical magnetic poles which produces a radial
magnetic field.
Due to this radial field, the sides QR and SP are always parallel to the magnetic field ‘B’ and
experience no force.
But the sides PQ and RS are always perpendicular to the magnetic field ‘B’ and experience
force and due to this torque is produced.
For single turn, the deflecting couple is,
𝜏def = 𝐹 𝑏 = 𝐵 𝐼 𝑙 𝑏 = 𝐵 𝐼 𝐴
For coil with N turns, we get
𝝉def = 𝑵 𝑩 𝑰 𝑨 − −− − (1)
Due to this deflecting torque, the coil get twisted and restoring torque is developed.
The magnitude of restoring torque is proportional to amount of twist and it is given by
𝝉res = 𝑲 𝜽 − − −− (2)
where 𝐾 → restoring couple per unit twist (or) torsional constant
At equilibrium, 𝝉def = 𝝉res
𝑁𝐵𝐼𝐴=𝐾𝜃
𝑰 = (𝑲/𝑵 𝑩 𝑨) θ
I = 𝑮 𝜽 − − − (𝟑) where, 𝐺 =𝑲 / 𝑵 𝑩 𝑨→ galvanometer constant (or) current reduction factor
(b) Because, for phosphor - bronze wire, the couple per unit twist is very small or due to its
low restoring torque per unit twist.
© Radial magnetic field maximizes the torque on the coil and provides linear current scale.
A cylindrical soft iron core makes the field radial.
 Unit-IV -
Electromagnetic
Induction and
Alternating Currents

Chapter–6:
Electromagnetic
Induction
Chapter–7: Alternating
Current
2 marks

Q1. Can the voltage drop across the inductor or the capacitor in series LCR circuit be greater
than the applied voltage of the a.c. source ?

Ans. Yes, because in series LCR circuit, 𝑉𝐿 or 𝑉𝐶 are not in same phase, hence cannot be
added like ordinary numbers.

Q.2 Describe briefly any two energy losses, giving the reason of their occurrence in actual
transformer. How are these reduced ?
Ans. a ) copper loss- Energy loss due to resistance of primary coil and secondary coil is
called copper loss and can be minimised by using thin copper wires.
b) Iron loss - Energy loss as heat due to eddy current in the iron core is called iron loss
and can be reduced by using a laminated iron core.
c) Hysteresis loss- Magnetisation of iron core is repeatedly reversed by the alternating
magnetic field and energy is lost in the form of heat in the core. This is called hysteresis loss
and can be minimized by using a core of a material having low hysteresis loop.
d) Flux leakage- There is always some flux leakage that is all of the flux due to primary
does not pass through the secondary. It can be minimized by winding primary and secondary
coils one over the other. (ANY 2)

Q3. How is the transformer used in large scale transmission and distribution of electrical energy
over long distances ?
Ans. a) Output voltage of power generator is stepped- up so that current is reduced and as a
result line loss 𝐼 2 𝑅 is also reduced.
b) It is then transmitted over long distances to an area sub-station, where voltage is stepped
down.
c) It is further stepped down at local sub-stations and poles before a power supply of 220 V
reaches our homes.

Q.4 Why is the use of a.c. voltage is preferred over d.c. voltage ? Give two reasons.
Ans. 1. A.C. voltage can be stepped up & stepped down by using a transformer, but
same is not true for d.c. voltage.
2. A.C. voltage can be converted in to d.c. voltage by using rectifier but d.c. voltage
cannot be converted in to a.c. voltage .
Q5.These days most of the electrical devices we use require a.c. voltage. Why ?
Ans. (a) It can be stepped up or stepped down.
(b) It can be converted in to direct current. (c) line
loss can be minimized

3MARKS

Q1.The instantaneous current and voltage of an a.c. circuit are given by i = 10 sin 300 t A and
V = 200 sin 300 t V. What is the power dissipation in the circuit?

Answer:
The instantaneous i of an a.c. circuit is given by i = 10 sin 300 t A and V = 200 sin 300t

Q2. How is the transformer used in large scale transmission and distribution of electrical energy
over long distances ?
Ans. a) Output voltage of power generator is stepped- up so that current is reduced and as a
result line loss 𝐼 2 𝑅 is also reduced.
b) It is then transmitted over long distances to an area sub-station, where voltage is stepped
down.
c) It is further stepped down at local sub-stations and poles before a power supply of 220 V
reaches our homes.
Q3.Mention three characteristic properties of the material suitable for making core of a
transformer.

Answer:
Characteristic properties of material suitable for core of a transformer :

• It should have high permeability

• It should have low hysteresis loss.
• It should have low coercivity/retentivity.
• It should have high resistivity. (Any two)

Q4. A 15.0 µF capacitor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz source. Find the capacitive reactance
and the rms current.
 Answer:

Q5.Plot a graph showing variation of capacitive reactance with the change in the frequency of
the AC source. Derive an expression for the impedance of an a.c. circuit consisting of an
inductor and a resistor.
Answer:
The graph.
From the phasor diagram, we get R

5 MARKS
Q1.Define mutual inductance,

The circuit arrangement as shown in the diagram shows that when an a.c. passes through the
coil A, the current starts flowing in the coil B.

(i) State the underlying principle involved.

(ii) Mention two factors on which the current produced in the coil B depends.
Answer: Definition of M
(i) It is based on the principle of “mutual induction”.
(ii) Two factors are:

• distance between the coils.

• orientation of the coils.
• Number of turns in the coil

Q2 An alternating voltage given by V = 140 sin 314 t is connected across a pure resistor of 50
Ω. Find
(i) the frequency of the source.

(ii)the peak and rms value of volltage

(iii) the rms current through the resistor.
Answer:

Q3.Derive an expression for the impedance of an LCRcircuit

A capacitor ‘C’, a variable resistor ‘R’ and a bulb ‘B’ are connected in series to the ac mains
in a circuit as shown. The bulb glows with some brightness. How will the glow of the bulb
change if

(i) a dielectric slab is introduced between the plates of the capacitor, keeping resistance R to
be the same;
(ii) the resistance R is increased keeping the same capacitance? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
(i) Brightness will increase due to increase in capacitance on introducing dielectric slab.
(ii) Brightness will decrease, as the resistance (R) is increased, the potential drop across the
bulb will decrease (since both are connected in series).

Q 5’ Derive an expression for the impedance of an lcr circuit.

.The instantaneous current and voltage of an a.c. circuit are given by i = 10 sin 300 t A and V
= 200 sin 300 t V. What is the power dissipation in the circuit?

Answer:derivation.
The instantaneous i of an a.c. circuit is given by i = 10 sin 300 t A and V = 200 sin 300t
MCQs

1.The magnetic flux linked with a coil of N turns of area of cross section A held with its
plane parallel to the field B is

2.Direction of current induced in a wire moving in a magnetic field is found using

(a) Fleming's left hand rule (b) Fleming's right hand rule
(c) Ampere's rule (d) Right hand clasp rule
3.A solenoid is connected to a battery so that a steady current flows through it. If an iron core
is inserted into the solenoid, the current will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) first increase then decrease

4.The rms value of potential difference V shown in the figure is

5.When 100 V d.c. applied across a solenoid a current of 1.0 A flows in it. When 100 V a.c.
supply is applied across the same coil, the current drops to 0.5 A. If the frequency of a.c.
source is 50 Hz, the impedance and inductance of the solenoid are:
(a) 200 Ω and 0.55 H
(b) 200 Ω and 1.0 H
(c) 100 Ω and 0.93 H
(d) 100 Ω and 0.80 H
ASSERTION REASON
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason.
While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four
responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

Q.1. Assertion : Induced emf will always occur whenever there is change in magnetic flux.
Reason : Current always induces whenever there is change in magnetic flux.
Answer(c)
Emf will always induces whenever, there is change in magnetic flux. The current will
induced only in closed loop.

Q.2. Assertion : An induced current has a direction such that the magnetic field due to the
current opposes the change in the magnetic flux that induces the current.
Reason : Above statement is in accordance with conservation of energy.
Answer(b)

Q.3. Assertion : Acceleration of a magnet falling through a long solenoid decreases.

Reason : The induced current produced in a circuit always flow in such direction that it
opposes the change to the cause that produced it.
Answer(a)
Q.4. Assertion : Figure shows a horizontal solenoid connected to a battery and a switch. A
copper ring is placed on a smooth surface, the axis of the ring being horizontal. As the switch
is closed, the ring will move away from the solenoid.

Reason : Induced emf in the ring, e=-dΦ/dt

Answer(a)
When switch is closed , the magnetic flux through the ring will increase and so ring will
move away form the solenoid so as to compensate this flux. This is according to Lenz’s law.

Q.5. Assertion : An emf can be induced by moving a conductor in a magnetic field.

Reason : An emf can be induced by changing the magnetic field.
Answer(b)
In both the cases, the magnetic flux will change, and so there is an induced current.

Q.6. Assertion : Figure shows a metallic conductor moving in magnetic field. The induced
emf across its ends is zero.

Reason : The induced emf across the ends of a conductor is given by e = Bvℓ sinθ.
Answer(a)
 CASE STUDY QUESTIONS

Q.1. A solenoid is held in a vertical position. The solenoid is connected to a sensitive, centre-
zero ammeter.
A vertical bar magnet is held stationary at position X just above the upper end ofthe solenoid
as shown.

The magnet is released and it falls through the solenoid. During the initial stage of the fall,
the sensitive ammeter shows a small deflection to the left
(i) Explain why the ammeter shows a deflection.
(ii) The magnet passes the middle point of the solenoid and continues to fall. It reaches
position Y. Describe and explain what is observed on the ammeter as the magnet falls from
the middle point of the solenoid to position Y.
(iii) Suggest two changes in the apparatus that would increase the initial deflection of the
ammeter
Q.2. The emf induced across the ends of a conductor due to its motion in a magnetic field is
called motional emf. It is produced due to the magnetic Lorentz force acting on the free
electrons of the conductor. For a circuit shown in figure, if a conductor of length I moves
with velocity v in a magnetic field B perpendicular to both its length and the direction of the
magnetic field, then all the induced parametres are possible in the circuit.

(i) Direction of current induced in a wire moving in a magnetic field is found using

(a) Fleming's left hand (b) Fleming's right hand

rule rule
(c) Ampere's rule (d) Right hand clasp rule

(ii) A conducting rod of length I is moving in a transverse magnetic field of strength B with
velocity v. The resistance of the rod is R. The current in the rod is
 (b) (c)
(a) Blv/R (a) ���� (d) B2v2l2R (d) �2�2�2�
Blvzero

(iii) A 0.1 m long conductor carrying a current of 50 A is held perpendicular to a magnetic

field of 1.25 mT. The mechanical power required to move the conductor with a speed of 1 m
s-1 is

(a) 62.5 mW(b) 625 mW(c) 6.25 mW(d) 12.5 mW

(iv) A bicycle generator creates 1.5 V at 15 km/hr.The EMF generated at 10 km/hr is

(a) 1.5 volts (b) 2 volts (c) 0.5 volts (d) 1 volt

(v) The dimensional formula for emf E in MKS system will be

(a) [ML2 T−3 A−1] (a) [ML2 (b) [ML2 T−1 A] (b) [ML (c) [ML2 A] (c) [ (d) [MLT−2
T−3 A−1] 2 T−1 A] ML2 A] A−2]

(a) weber (b) weber- (c) ohm (d)

ampere 1 ampere second farad

(v) The induced e.m.f in a coil of 10 henry inductance in which current varies from 9 A to 4
A in 0.2 second is

(a) 200 V (b) 250 V (c) 300 V (d) 350 V

 Unit–V -
Electromagnetic Waves

Chapter–8:
Electromagnetic Waves
1. Green light of mercury has a wavelength 5x 10-5 cm.
(i) What is the frequency in MHz and period in second in vacuum? Ans: 6 x 10 14 Hz
& 0.16 x 10-14 s
(ii) What is the wavelength in glass, if refractive index of glass is 1.5? Ans: 3.3 x 10-3 m

2. Identify the part of the electromagnetic spectrum which is

(1) Suitable for RADAR system used in aircraft navigation. Ans:
Microwave
(ii) Produced by bombarding a metal target by high speed electrons
Ans: X-
ray

3. Explain briefly how electromagnetic waves are produced by an oscillating charge.

Ans: Oscillating charge produces electric field and oscillating electric
field produces magnetic filed and so on.

4. How are infrared waves produced? Write their

one important use. Ans: Produced by hot bodies.
To treat muscular strain.

5. How are X-rays produced? Give any two uses of X-rays.

Ans: Produced by bombarding a metal target by high speed electrons.
Study of Crystal structure.

6. Case study based question.

Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.
Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature, i.e. electric and magnetic fields are
perpendicular to each other and to the direction of wave propagation.

Electromagnetic waves are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields.

The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by

B = 2x10-7 sin (0.5x103 x + 15x1011 )T.

(i) Write an expression for the electric field?

(a) Ey = 60 sin (0.5 x 103 x + 1.5x 1011t) Vm-1
(b) Ex = 60 sin (0.5 x 103 x + 1.5x 1011t) Vm-1
(c) Ez = 60 sin (0.5 x 103 x + 1.5x 1011t) Vm-1 ( √ )
(d) Ey = 60 cos (0.5 x 103 x + 1.5x 1011t) Vm-1
(ii) ) What is the frequency of e.m. wave
(a) 2.39 GHz
(b) 23.9 MHz
(c) 23.9 GHz ( √ )
(d) 20.3 MHz

(iii) What is the maximum value of electric field

(a) 6 x 101 Vm-1 ( √ )
(b) 6 x 102 Vm-1
(c) 6 x 103 Vm-1
(d) 6 x 100 Vm-1

(iv) ) What is the wavelength of e.m. wave

(a) 12.6 cm
(b) 1.26 cm
(c) 1.26 cm ( √ )
(d) 6.12 cm

Directions :
In the following questions, two statements are given- one labelled
Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer
to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are
true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are
true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

7. Assertion (A): While applying law to Ampere's circuital given surfaces with same

perimeter, the left hand side has not changed but the right hand side is
zero.
Reason (R): No current passes through the surface.
Ans: a

8. Assertion (A) We needed to do was to set up an AC circuit in which the

current oscillate at the frequency of visible light i.e, yellow.
Reason (R): The above experiment demonstrates electromagnetic wave.
Ans: c

9. Assertion (A): An oscillating charge produces an electric field in space,

which produces an oscillating magnetic field, which in turn, is aSource of
electric field and so on.
Reason (R): The oscillating electric and magnetic fields thus regenerate
each other, so to speak, as the wave propagates through the space.
Ans: a

10. Assertion (A): When the sun shines on our hand, we feel the energy being
absorbed from the electromagnetic waves (our hands get warm).
Reason (R): Electromagnetic waves also transfer momentum
to our hand but because c is very large, the amount of
momentum transferred is extremely small and we do not feel
the pressure. Ans: a

11. Assertion (A): In electromagnetic wave electric field vector and

magnetic field vector are mutually perpendicular.
Reason (R): Electromagnetic waves are transverse.
Ans: b

12. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field
components to the intensity of an EM wave is

(a) c :1 a-rays ( √ )
(b) c2:1 Infrared rays
(c) 1:1
(d) √c:1

13. Frequency of wave is 6 x 1010 Hz. The wave is

(a) radio wave
(c) X-ray
(c) Ultraviolet rays
(d) Microwave ( √ )
14. In the following waves, which is not electromagnetic wave?
(a) α-ray ( √ )
(b) Infrared
(c) Y-ravs
(d) X-ravs

15. The largest wavelength of electromagnetic wave is

(a) X-ray
(b) Radio waves ( √ )
(c) Ultraviolet rays
(d) infrared rays
 Unit–VI – Optics

Chapter–9: Ray Optics

and Optical Instruments
Chapter–10: Wave
Optics
 RAY OPTICS
1. At whát angle is a ray of light falling normally on a mirror reflected? Does size of mirror
affect the natureof the image?

Ans: Zero. No

2. A ray PQ incident normally on the refracting face BA is refracted in the pYism BAC made
of
material of refractive index 1.5. Complete the path of ray through
the prism. From which face, will the ray emerge? Justify your answer

Ans: Critical angle = 420 and hence, angle of incidence should be less
than 420

3. Why does a convex lens of glass refractive index μ = 1.5 behave as a diverging lens
when immersed incarbon disulphide of refractive index μ= 1.65?

Ans: Using lens maker formula focal length becomes negative

hence it behave as a diverging lens when immersed in carbon
disulphide

4. Where should an object be placed from a Convex lens to form an

image of the same size?can it happen in case of a concave lens?

Ans: Object and image would be of the same size at 2f. In case of

concave lens image always diminished. 5, Derive the expression for

the effective focal length of two thin lenses in contact.

Ans:
 6. A symmetric biconvex lens of radius of curvature R and made of glass of refractive index
1.5, is placed on a layer of liquid placed on the top of a plane mirror as shown in the figure.
An optical needle with its tip on the principal axis of the lens is moved along the axis until
its real, inverted image coincides with the needle itself. The distance of the needle from
the lens is measured to be x. On removing the liquid layer andrepeating the experiment,
the distance is found to be y.

Obtain the expression for the refractive index

of the liquid in terms of x and y. Ans:

7. The figure shows a ray of light falling normally on the face AB of an

equilateral glass prismhaving refractive Index 3/2, placed in water of refractive
index 4/3.

Will this ray suffer total internal on striking the face AC. Justify your answer.
Ans:
Angle of incident = 60 and critical angle = 61.6 hence no TIR.
8. Three light rays, red (R), green (G) and blue (B) are incident on a right angled prism ABC
at face AB. Therefractive indices of the material of the prism for red, green and blue
wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47,respectively. Out of the three, which colour of ray
will emerge out of face AC? Justify your answer.

9. Three lenses L1 L2 and L3 each of focal length 30 cm are placed coaxially as shown
in the figure. Anobject is held at 60 cm from the optic centre of lens L1. The final real
image is formed at the focus of L3.

Calculate the separation between

(a) L1 and L2 and
(b) L2 and L3
Ans:

10. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show how the final image is formed at infinity in an
astronomical refractingtelescope. Obtain an expression for its magnifying power.

(b) Two thin lenses L1 and L2, L1 being a convex lens of focal length 24
cm and L2 a concave
lens of focal length 18 cm are placed coaxially at a separation of 45
cm. A 1 cm tall object is placed in front of the lens L1 at a distance of
36 cm. Find the location of image formed by the combination.

Ans:

11. (a) Explain the working principle of an optical fibre with the help of a diagram.
Mention one use of alight pipe.

(b) A ray of light is incident at an angle of 600 on one face of a prism

with the prism angle A= 60.The ray passes symmetrically through the
prism. Find the angle of minimum deviation (õm) and refractive index
of the material of the prism. If the prism is immersed in water, how
will õm be affected? Justify your answer.

12. Use the mirror equation to deduce that,

(i) an object placed between f and 2f of a concave mirror produces a real image beyond 2f.
(ii) a convex mirror always produces a virtual image independent of the location of the
object.
(iii) the virtual image produced by a convex mirror is always diminished in size and is
located between thefocus and the pole.
(iv) an object placed between the pole and focus of a concave mirror produces a virtual
and enlarged image.
13. A plot of angle of deviation D versus angle of incidence for a triangular prism is shown

below.
The angle of incidence for which the light ray travels parallel to the
base is
(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 45 ( √ )
(d) data insufficient
14. When a wave undergoes reflection at an interface from rarer to denser medium, then
change in its phase is

(a) 90
(b) 0
(c) 180 ( √ )
(d) 45

15. A bi-convex lens of focal length f is cut into two identical plano-convex lenses.
The focal length
of each part will be

(a) f
(b) f / 2
(c) 2f ( √ )
(d) 4f
16. A ray of light travels a distance of 12.0 m in a transparent sheet in 60 ns. The
refractive index of the sheet is

(a) 1.33
(b) 1.50 ( √ )
(c) 1.65

(d) 1.75
Assertion and Reason:

Directions (Q. Nos. 17-21) In the following questions, two statements

are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b),
(c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

17. Assertion (A): A ray of light incident along the normal to the plane mirror
retraces its path afterreflection from the mirror.
Reason (R): A ray

of light along the

normal has angle

of incidence as /2

and hence, it

retraces Ans: c

18. Assertion (A): Refractive index of glass with respect to air is different
for red light andviolet light.
Reason (R): Refractive index of a pair of media depends on the
wavelength of light used.

Ans: a

19. Assertion (A): Propagation of light through an optical fibre is due to total
internal reflectiontaking place at the core-clade interface.
Reason (R): Refractive index of the material of the core of the
optical fibre is greater than that of air.

Ans: b
20. Assertion (A): Convergent property of converging lens remains same in mediums.
Reason (R): Property of lens whether the ray is
diverging or converging depends on the surrounding
medium.

Ans: d

21. Assertion (A): By roughening the surface of a glass at sheet, its

transparency can be reducedReason (R): Glass sheet with rough surface
absorbs more light.

Ans: c

15. Case Based Questions

Directions (Q.No. i to iv) This question is case study based question.

Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.
Refraction involves change in the path of light due to change in the
medium.
When a beam of light encounters another transparent medium, a part
of light gets reflected back into the irst medium while the rest enters
the other. The direction of propagation of an obliquely incident ray of
light, that enters the other medium, changes at the interface of two

media. This phenomenon is called refraction of light.

its own path after reflection from mirror.

(i) Which of the following quantity remains unchanged after refraction?

(a) Wavelength of light
(b) Speed of light
(c) Intensity of light
(d) Frequency of light (√)

(ii) A ray of light strikes an air glass interface at an angle of incidence (i = 60) and gets
retracted at an angleof retraction r. On increasing the angle of incidence (i > 60 ) the
angle of retraction r
(a) decreases
(b) is cqual to 60
(c) remains same
(d) increases ( √ )
(iii) When an object lying in a denser medium is observed from rare medium then real
depth of object is
(a) more than that observed ( √ )
(b) less than that observed
(c) equals to observed depth
(d) depends on angle of vision

(iv) A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in the figure. The
refractive index ofmedium B relative to A will be

(a) greater than unity ( √ )

(b) less than unity
(c) greater than unity
(d) zero

16. Case Based Questions : Directions (Q.No. i to iv) This question is case study based
question. Read thefollowing paragraph and answer the questions.

When light travels from one transparent medium to another

transparent medium, then in the second medium, its speed and
direction of motion change. This is called refraction of light. The
refraction of light takes place.

laws of refraction:

(a) The incident normal ray, the refracted ray and the to the interface at the incident all lie
in the same plane.
(b) The ratio of the sine angle of incidence to the sine angle of refraction is constant for the
two given media.
If the angle of incidence is i and the angle of refraction is r, then

μ is called the refractive index. The absolute refractive index of a

material is the ratio of the speed of light
(c) in vacuum to the speed of light in the medium (v). The relation between
refractive index andcritical angle ic is given by

Answer the following questions based on the above.

 (i) Refractive indices of water and glass are 4/3 and 3/2, respectively. A light ray
travelling in water isincident on water-glass interface of 45°. What is angle of
refraction?

(ii)Monochromatic light of wavelength 589 nm is incident from air on a water surface. If

refractive indexfor water is 4/3, find the wavelength, frequency and speed of the refracted
light.

,
(i) A pin fixed on a table is viewed from above a distance of 50 cm. By what distance would
the pin appear to be raised when viewed from the same point through a 15 cm thick
glass (n= 1.5) slab held parallelto the table? Does the answer depend on the location of
the slab?

(ii) Find the critical angle for glass-water interface, if the refractive indices of glass and
water with respectto air are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively.

WAVE OPTICS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
Q.1 The wave-front due to source situated at the infinity is
(A) Spherical (B) Plane
(C) Cylindrical (D) Rectangular
Q.2 The phase difference between two waves at the place of constructive interference is
given as
a multiple of:
(A) Integer multiple of 𝜋 (B) Integer multiple of (2n-1) 𝜋
(C) Even integer multiple of 𝜋 (D) odd integer multiple of 𝜋
Q.3 The angular width of interference fringes in a Young’s double slit experiment when the
screen is moved near to the plane of slits.
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains same (D) not defined
Q.4 In the phenomena of diffraction of light when the violet light is used in the experiment
instead of red light then,
(A) Fringe width increases (B) No change in fridge width
(C) Fringe width decreases (D) Colour pattern is formed
Q.5 Colours appears on a thin film of a soap and a soap bubble is due to
(A) Diffraction (B) Refraction
(C) Dispersion (D) Interference

ASSERTION – REASON QUESTION

A statement of assertion is followed by a statement of Reason. Choose the
correct option as:
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation
of assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true and reason is false.
(D)If both assertion and reason are false.

Q.1 Assertion: It is not possible to have interference between light waves

emitted by two independent identical sources.
Reason: For interference of two waves the phase difference between the
waves must be constant.
Q.2 Assertion: Colours are seen in thin layers of oil on the surface of water.
Reason: White light is composed of several colours.
Q.3 Assertion: Diffraction takes place for all types of waves - mechanical or
non mechanical, transverse or longitudinal.
Reason: Diffraction effects are perceptible only if wavelength of the wave is
comparable to dimension of diffracting device.
Q.4 Assertion: The law of conservation of energy is violated during
interference of light.
Reason: For sustained interference the phase difference between the two
light waves must change with time.
Q.5 Assertion: If white light is used in Young’s double slit experiment then
coloured fringes are seen.
Reason: White light is a monochromatic source of light.
 Short Answer Questions Carrying Two Marks
Q.1 State Huygen’s principle.
Q.2 Sketch the reflected wavefront emerging from a (i) concave mirror (ii) convex mirror, if
plane wavefront is incident normally on it.
Q.3 In Young’s double slit experiment, plot a graph showing the variation of fringe width
versus the distance of the screen from the plane of the slits keeping other parameters same.
What information can one obtain from the slope of the curve ?
Q.4 Why do secondary maxima get weaker in intensity with increasing the order? Explain.
Q.5 How would the diffraction pattern due to a single slit be affected when the
monochromatic source of light is replaced by white light.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS CARRYING THREE MARKS

Q.1 Derive Snell’s law on the basis of Huygen’s wave theory when light is travelling from a
rarer to a denser medium/ Denser to rarer medium.
Q.2 (i) What is sustained interference pattern ? Write the necessary conditions to obtain
sustained interference fringes.
(ii) What is the effect on interference fringes in a Young’s double slit experiment when the
monochromatic source of light is replaced by a source of white light? Explain.
Q.3 (i) Draw the intensity pattern for single slit diffraction and double slit interference.
(ii) State two differences between interference and diffraction patterns.
Q.4 A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 800 𝑛𝑚 and 600 𝑛𝑚 , is used to obtain
the interference fringes in a Young’s double slit experiment on a screen is placed away. If
two slits are separated by 1.4 𝑚 , Calculate the least distance from the central bright
maximum where the bright fringes of the two wavelengths coincide.
Q.5 Find the intensity at a point on a screen in Young’s double slit experiment where the
interfering waves of equal intensity have a path difference of (i) λ/4, and (ii) λ/3.
 LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS CARRYING FIVE MARKS
Q.1 Two harmonic waves of monochromatic light
𝑦1 = 𝑎 𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝜔𝑡 and 𝑦2 = 𝑎2 𝑆𝑖𝑛 (𝜔𝑡 + ∅)
are superimposed on each other. Show that the maximum intensity in interference pattern is
four times the intensity due to each slit. Hence write the condition for constructive and
destructive interference in terms of the phase angle ∅ .
Q.2 (i) What is diffraction of light ? State the essential condition for diffraction of light.
(ii) Why do we not encounter diffraction effects of light in everyday observations ?
(iii) How would the width of central maximum in diffraction pattern due to a single slit be
affected –
(a) when the width of the slit is doubled.
(b) if the entire apparatus is immersed in water.
Justify your answer in each case.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

Q.1 Young’s double-slit experiment: This experiment uses two coherent sources of light
placed at a small distance apart, usually, only a few orders of magnitude greater than the
wavelength of light is used. Young’s double-slit experiment helped in understanding the
wave theory of light which is explained with the help of a diagram. A screen or photo
detector is placed at a large distance ’D’ away from the slits as shown. The original Young’s
double-slit experiment used diffracted light from a single source passed into two more slits to
be used as coherent sources. Interference pattern can be seen on the screen. The interference
pattern consists of central bright fringe on centre of screen and on either sides of which there
are alternate dark and bright fringes. The fringe width is given by
𝜆𝐷
𝛽=
𝑑

Answer the following questions:

 (i) What kind of sources is required for Young’s Double Slit experiment?
(ii) What happens to fringe width, if the distance between the two slits is doubled?
(iii) In the Young’s double slit experiment, how does the fringe width get affected if
4
the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water (refractive index = 3 )?

Q.2 Diffraction due to single slit:

When light from a monochromatic source is incident on a single narrow slit, it gets
diffracted and a pattern of alternate bright and dark fringes is obtained on screen, called
"Diffraction Pattern" of single slit. In diffraction pattern of single slit, it is found that
(i) Central bright fringe is of maximum intensity and the intensity of any secondary
bright fringe decreases with increase in its order.
(ii) Central bright fringe is twice as wide as any other secondary bright or dark fringe.

Answer the following questions:

(i) A diffraction pattern is obtained by using a beam of red light. What will happen, if
the red light is replaced by the blue light?
(ii) Light of wavelength 600 nm is incident normally on a slit of width 0.2 mm. What
is the angular width of central maxima in the diffraction pattern.
(iii) A single slit of width 0.1 mm is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of
wavelength 6000 Ao and diffraction bands are observed on a screen 0.5 m away
from the slit. Find the distance of the third dark band from the central bright band.
 Unit–VII - Dual Nature
of Radiation and Matter
Chapter–11: Dual Nature
of Radiation and Matter
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
MCQS

1. Which one of the following graph represent correctly the variation of maximum kinetic
energy
Emax with the intensity of incident radiations having a constant frequency.

Ans – (d)

2. The frequency and the intensity of a beam of light falling on the surface of photoelectric
material are
increased by a factor of two. This will:
(a) increase the maximum K.E. of photo-electron as well as photoelectric current by a factor
of two.
(b) increase maximum K.E. of photoelectrons and would increase the photo current by a
factor of two.
(c) increase the maximum K.E. of photo electrons by a factor of two and will not affect
photoelectric
current.
(d) No effect on both maximum K.E. and photoelectric current.

Ans - (b) increase maximum K.E. of photoelectrons and would increase the photo current by
a factor of
Two.

3.The threshold frequency for a certain metal is v0. When light of frequency v = 2v0 is
incident on it, the
maximum velocity of photo electrons is 4 × 106 ms-1. If the frequency of incident radiation
is
increased to 5 v0, then the maximum velocity of photo electrons (m/s) is
(a) 8 × 105
(b) 2 × 106
(c) 2 × 107
(d) 8 × 106

Ans - (d) 8 ×106

4. In photo electric emission, for alkali metals the threshold frequency lies in the:
(a) visible region
(b) ultraviolet region
(c) infrared region
(d) far end of the infrared region

Ans - (a) visible region

5. When a yellow light is incident on a surface, no electrons are emitted while green light can
emit electrons.
If the red light is incident on the surface then:
(a) no electrons are emitted
(b) photons are emitted
(c) electrons of higher energy are emitted
(d) electrons of lower energy are emitted
Ans - (a) no electrons are emitted

Assertion and Reason

Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed
by a corresponding statement of Reason (R) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct
answer as:
(A)If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
(B)If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
(C)If assertion is true and reason is false
(D)If both assertion and reason are false
1. Assertion: A photon has no rest mass , yet it carries definite momentum.
Reason: Momentum of photon is due to its energy and hence its equivalent mass.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
2.Assertion: In photoelectron emission, the velocity of electron ejected from near the surface
is larger
than that coming from interior of metal.
Reason. The velocity of ejected electron will be zero.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
3.Assertion: The de Broglie equation has significance for any microscopic or sub-
microscopic
particle.
Reason: The de Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to the mass of the object if
velocity
is constant.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
4.Assertion: As work function of a material increases by some mechanism, it requires greater
energy
to excite the electrons from its surface.
Reason. A plot of stopping potential (V0) versus frequency (v) for different materials,
has greater
slope for metals with greater work functions.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
5. Assertion. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron when its kinetic energy is k is λ. Its
wavelength is 2 λ when its kinetic energy is 4k.
 Reason. The de - Broglie wavelength λ is proportional to square root of the kinetic
energy.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Answers
Q1. (a) Q2. (c) Q3. (a) Q4. (c Q5. (d))

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

1. The photoelectric emission is possible only if the incident light is in the form of packets of
energy,
each having a definite value, more than the work function of the metal. This shows that
light is not of
wave nature but of particle nature. It is due to this reason that photoelectric emission was
accounted by
quantum theory of light.

Q1. Packet of energy are called

(a)electron
(b)quanta
(c)frequency
(d)neutron

Q2. One quantum of radiation is called

(a)meter
(b)meson
(c) photon
(d)quark
Q3. Energy associated with each photon
(a) hc
(b) mc
(c) hv
(d) hk

Q4. Which of the following waves can produce photo electric effect
(a) UV radiation
(b) Infrared radiation
(c) Radio waves
(d) Microwaves
Q5. Work function of alkali metals is
(a)less than zero
(b)just equal to other metals
(c) greater than other metals
(d) quite less than other metals

Answer
Q1.(b) Q2.(c) Q3.(c) Q4.(a) Q5.(d)

Q2. According to de-Broglie a moving material particle sometimes acts as a wave and
sometimes as a particle or a wave is associated with moving material particle which controls
the particle in every respect. The wave associated with moving material particle is called
matter wave or de-Broglie wave whose wavelength called de-Broglie wavelength, is given by
λ = h/mv
1.The dual nature of light is exhibited by
(a) diffraction and photo electric effect
(b) photoelectric effect
(c) refraction and interference
(d)diffraction and reflection.

2. If the momentum of a particle is doubled , then its de-Broglie wavelength will

(a)remain unchanged
(b)become four times
(c) become two times
(d)become half

3. If an electron and proton are propagating in the form of waves having the same
λ , it implies that they have the same
(a)energy
(b)momentum
(c)velocity
(d)angular momentum

4. Velocity of a body of mass m, having de-Broglie wavelength λ , is given by relation

(a) v = λ h/m
(b) v = λm/h
(c) v = λ/hm
(d) v = h/ λm

5. Moving with the same velocity , which of the following has the longest de Broglie
wavelength?
(a)ᵦ -particle
(b) α -particle
(c) proton
(d) neutron.

Answer
Q1.(a) Q2.(d) Q3.(b) Q4.(d) Q5.(a)

2- Marks Question
1.If light of wavelength 412·5 nm is incident on each of the metals given below, which ones
will show
photoelectric emission and why ?
Metal Work Function (eV)
Na 1·92
K 2·15
Ca 3·20
Mo 4·17
Ans E= hv = hc/ λ =6.63 x 10-34 x 3 x 108/ 412.5 x 10-9 = 4.82 x 10-19 J = 3.01 ev , thus only
Na and K will show
photoelectric emission
2. A proton and an α particle are accelerated through the same potential difference. Which
one of the two has (i) greater de-Broglie wavelength, and (ii) less kinetic energy ? Justify
your answer.
Ans. (i) λ = h/ √2mqV thus λα /λp = √mp/mα x e/2e = 1/2√2 , proton has greater de-Broglie
wavelength
(ii) λ = h/ √2mK Thus proton less kinetic energy
3. The graph shows the variation of stopping potential with frequency of incident radiation
for two
photosensitive metals A and B. Which one of the two has higher value of work-function?
Justify
your answer.

Ans Metals A has higher value of work-function because φ= hv0 and Metal A has greater
threshold
frequency.

4. Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation.

Ans. (i) KE = hv-φ (ii) KE = h(v-vo)

5. Work function of sodium is 2.3 eV. Does sodium show photoelectric emission for light of
wavelength
6800 A0 ?
Ans
E= hv = hc/ λ =6.63 x 10-34 x 3 x 108/ 6800 x 10-10 = 2.9 x 10-19 J = 1.8 ev , thus sodium
not show
photoelectric emission

3- Marks Question
1.
What are matter waves? Derive an expression for De Broglie wavelength associated with an
electron accelerated through a potential difference of V volts. (b) Draw a graph showing the
variation of De Broglie wavelength of a particle of charge q, mass m with accelerating
voltage V.
Ans.
2. Plot a graph showing the variation of photocurrent versus collector potential for three
different intensities I1 > I2> I3, two of which ([ I1and I2) have the same frequency v and the
third has frequency v1 > v.
(ii) Explain the nature of curves on the basis of Einstein’s equation.
Ans

3. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength 𝜆 is incident on a photosensitive surface of

negligible work function. If the photoelectrons emitted from this surface have the de-Broglie
wavelength 𝜆1, prove that 𝜆 = ( 2𝑚𝑐/ ℎ ) 𝜆1 2
Ans
4. The Kinetic Energy (K.E.), of a beam of electrons, accelerated through a potential V,
equals the energy of a photon of wavelength 5460 nm. Find the de Broglie wavelength
associated with this beam of electrons.

5- Marks Question

1.Radiation of frequency 1014 Hz is incident on three photosensitive surfaces A, B and C.

Following

observations are recorded:

(i) Surface A no photoemission occurs

(ii) Surface B photoemission occurs but the photoelectrons have zero kinetic
energy.

(iii) Surface C photo emission occurs and photoelectrons have some kinetic
energy.

Using Einstein's photoelectric equation, explain the three observations.

OR

The graph shows the variation of photocurrent for a photosensitive metal.

(i) What does X and A on the horizontal axis represent?

(ii) Draw this graph for three different values of frequencies of incident
radiation v1,v2 and v3( v1<v2 <v3) for the same intensity.
 (iii) Draw this graph for three different values of intensities of incident radiation
I1,I2 and I3( I1<I2 <I3) ) having the same frequency.

Ans.
 2.In the study of a photoelectric effect, the graph between the stopping potential V and
frequency v of the incident radiation on two different metals P and Q

(i) Which one of the two metals has higher threshold frequency
(ii) Determine the work function of the metal which has greater value. 2 D
(iii) Find the maximum kinetic energy of electron emitted by light of frequency 8 x 10
14
Hz for this metal

Ans.
Unit–VIII - Atoms and
Nuclei
Chapter–12: Atoms
Chapter–13: Nuclei
 Study Material on Atoms and Nuclei
2 Marks (5) Question.
Q1. When is Hα-line of the Balmer series in emission spectrum of hydrogen atom obtained ?
Answer. Hα-line of the Balmer series in emission spectrum of hydrogen atom is obtained
when the electron makes a Transition from 3rd lowest energy level to the second lowest
energy level.
Q2. Two nuclei have mass number in the ratio. 8 : 125, What is the ratio of the nuclear radii?
Answer We know that R=R0A1/3
𝑅1 𝐴1
= (𝐴2)1/3
𝑅2
8 𝑅1 2
=(125)1/3 𝑅2
=( )
5

Q3. State two Characteristics of nuclear force.

Answer :
i. Nuclear forces are strongest force in. Nature.

ii. Nuclear forces are short range forces for distance of order of one Fermi. They are
quite strong.

Q4. A heavy nucleus P of mass number 240 and binding energy 7.6 MeV Per nucleon splits
into two nuclei Q and R of mass number 110., 130 and binding energies Per nucleon 8.5 MeV
and 8.4 Mev respectively. Calculate the energy released in fission.
Answer 4. Energy released in fission Reaction
={(110 X 8.5 + 130 X 8.4) – 240 X 7.6} MeV
= 203 MeV
Q5. State Bohr’s quantization condition of angular momentum. Calculate the shortest
wavelength of bracket series and state to which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does it
belong.
Answer. Bohr’s quantization principle:- The electrons can revolve around the nucleus
inside a H-atom in only those orbits in which its angular momentum is quantised and it is
ℎ
equal to an integral multiple of 2 𝜋
ℎ
Mathematically L = 𝑛 2 𝜋

For bracket series

1 1 1
= 109677 cm-1 (16 − 𝑛2)
𝜆

For shortest wavelength transaction. Should take place from ∞, i.e n = ∞

1 1
= 109677 cm-1 (16 − 0)
𝜆

𝜆 = 1.4587 X 10-6 M

It belongs to infrared radiation of spectrum.

3 MARKS QUESTIONS (4)

1. The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of the hydrogen atom is about
−3.4eV.

a) What is the kinetic energy of the electron in this state?

b) What is the potential energy of the electron in this state?

c) Which of the answers above would change if the choice of the zero of potential energy
is changed?

Ans. (a) We are given,

Total energy of the electron, E = −3.4 eV
The kinetic energy of the electron is equal to the negative of the total energy.
⇒ K.E = −E
∴ K.E = −(−3.4) = + 3.4eV
Hence, the kinetic energy of the electron in the given state is found to be +3.4eV.
(b) We know that the potential energy (U) of the electron is found to be equal to the negative
of twice its kinetic energy.
⇒ U = − 2 K.E
∴ U = − 2 × 3.4
= −6.8 eV
Hence, the potential energy of the electron in the given state is found to be −6.8 eV
© We understand that the potential energy would rely on the connection point brought. Here,
the potential energy of the connection point is considered zero. The system's potential energy
value would also change by adjusting the reference point. Since we know that total energy is
the sum of kinetic and potential energies, the system's total energy will also change.
Q7. Draw a plot of potential energy between a pair of neucleons as a function of their
separation? Write 2 characteristics of the graph.mark the regions where potential energy is
(i) positive and (ii) negative
Ans. potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation is indicated in the
diagram
 i. When distance is less than 0.8 fm, negative potential energy decreases to zero and
then becomes positive which indicates high amount of repulsive forces.

ii. For distance greater than 0.8 fm, negative potential energy goes on decreasing and
shows attractive interaction between the nuclides.

Q8. Draw a plot of the binding energy per nucleon as a function of mass number for a large
number of nuclei 2< A < 240. How do you explain the constancy of binding energy per
nucleon in the range of 30 < A < 170 using the property that nuclear force is short-range.
Ans. The binding energy per nucleon curve is shown as below

i. Excluding the lighter nuclei, the average binding energy per nucleon is about 8 MeV.
ii. The maximum binding energy per nucleon occurs at around mass number A = 50, and
corresponds to the most stable nuclei. Iron nucleus Fe56 is located close to the peak with a
binding energy per nucleon value of approximately 8.8 MeV. It’s one of the most stable
nuclides that exist.
Q9- The mass of chlorine (17Cl35) atom is 34.98 amu, mass of proton = 1.007825 amu, mass
of neutron= 1.008665 amu. Calculate binding energy of Cl.

Ans. Δm=[(17×1.007825)+(18×1.008665)]−34.98
=0.308995amu
Thus
E =0.308995×931.478c2MeV.......[using 1amu=931.478c2MeV]
=287.82 MeV

5 MARKS QUESTIONS (3)

1. Draw a schematic arrangement of the Geiger-Marsden experiment. How did the
scattering of α-particles by a thin foil of gold provide an important way to determine
an upper limit on the size of the nucleus? Explain briefly.

Ans.

(i) Beam of α-particles get deviated at various angles with different probabilities.
(ii) α-particles with least impact parameter suffers larger scattering – rebounding on head
on collision.
(iii) For larger impact parameter, the particle remains almost undeviated.
Explanation:
The fact that the number of incident particles rebounding back is only a small of fraction,
means that numer of α-particles headon collision is small. This implies that the entire
positive charge of the atom is concentrated in a small volume. This confirms that the
nucleus of the atom has an apper size limit.
2. By using Bohr’s postulates of atomic model, derive mathematical expression for
(i) Velocity
(ii) Radius
(iii) Kinetic Energy
(iv) Potential energy
(v) Total energy of an electron revolving in an orbit of radius r with a velocity v around the
nucleus of H- atom
Ans.
Bohr’s postulate of atomic model are :
a) Electrons revolve in a circular orbit around the central core, called a nucleus. The
required centripetal force is provided by the coulomb’s force.

Fe = mv2/r
b) The total angular momentum of revolving electrons is an integral multiple of constant
ℎ
.
2𝜋

L= n h/2π
For H-atom, Z = 1

e
Ze r
ANSWER

(i) Velocity: According to Postulate (1).

FC = Fe
𝑚𝑣 2 1 𝑒2
⇒ =
𝑟 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟 2

1 𝑒2
𝑚𝑣 2 = ………(1)
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟 2

According to Postulate (2)

𝑛ℎ
mvr = 2𝜋
𝑛ℎ
⇒ v = 2𝜋𝑚𝑟 ………(2)
𝑛ℎ
⇒ r= ………(3)
2𝜋𝑚𝑣

Put (3) in (1)

1 𝑒2
𝑚𝑣 2 = × 2𝜋𝑚𝑣
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟 2

𝑒2
v = 2𝑛𝑒
0ℎ

Which is required expression for velocity

(ii) Radius :
Put eqn (1) in (2).

𝑛ℎ 2 1 𝑒2
𝑚( ) =
2𝜋𝑚𝑟 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟 2
𝑛2 ℎ2 𝑒2
𝑖. 𝑒, =
𝜋𝑚𝑟 𝜀0
𝑛 2 ℎ 2 𝜀0
⇒ 𝑟= …………….(4)
𝜋𝑚𝑒 2

Which is required expression of radius.

For First orbit in each H-atom. n=1
ℎ2 𝜀0
𝑟0 = = 0.53 Å
𝜋𝑚𝑒 2
called Bohr’s radius.
(iii) Kinetic Energy : Kinetic energy of a revolving electrons is given by
1 1 𝑒2
𝐾. 𝐸. = ( )
2 4𝜋𝜀 0 𝑟

1 𝑒2
𝐾. 𝐸. = …………….(5)
8𝜋𝜀0 𝑟

Which is required equation of KE.

(iv) Potential energy :
1 𝑒(−𝑒)
𝑃. 𝐸. = [-e = change on electron]
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟

−1 𝑒2
𝑃. 𝐸. = …….(6)
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟

Which is required equation of PE.

(v) Total energy:
T.E. = K.E. + P.E.
Using equation 5th and 6th.
1 𝑒2 1 𝑒2
𝑇. 𝐸. = 8𝜋𝜀 −
0 𝑟 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟

−𝑒 2
⸫ 𝑇. 𝐸. = ……….(7)
8𝜋𝜀0 𝑟

Putting equation (4) in (7) we get

−𝑒 2 𝜋𝑚𝑒 2
⸫ 𝑇. 𝐸. = × 4𝜋𝜀
8𝜋𝜀0 𝑟 0𝑟
 𝑚𝑒 4
⸫ 𝑇. 𝐸. = − 8𝜀0 𝑛2 ℎ2

Putting Value of 𝑚, 𝜀0 ,e and h, we get.

13.6
T.E. = eV
𝑛2

3. Explain the Origin of various spectral series of hydrogen atom on the basis of Bohr’s
Model of atom.
Ans.

1 .Lyman series : The specular lines emitted due to the transition of an electron from any
higher state to first state form an spectral lines called Lyman series. The wavelength of
spectral lines emitted by hydrogen atom is given by

1 1 1
= 𝑅 [ 2 − 2]
𝜆 𝑛𝑓 𝑛𝑖

Where are is Rydberg constant ni = 2,3,4,5…….

Here nf = 1
1 1 1
= 𝑅 [ 2 − 2]
𝜆 1 𝑛𝑖
2. Balmer series : The spectral lines emitted due to the transition of the electron from any higher state
to the second state from a spectral series called Balmer series. The wavelength of spectral lines by
hydrogen atom is given by
1 1 1
= 𝑅 [22 − 𝑛2 ] (nf = 2 and ni = 3,4,5……)
𝜆 𝑖

3. Paschen series : The spectral lines emitted due to the transition of an electron from any
higher state to the third state form a spectral series called Paschen series. The wavelength of
the spectral lines emitted by hydrogen atom is given by
1 1 1
= 𝑅 [32 − 𝑛2 ] (nf = 2 and ni =4,5,6……)
𝜆 𝑖

4.Bracket Series : The spectral lines emitted due to the transition of an electron from any
higher state to the fourth state form a spectral series called Bracket series. The wavelength of
the spectral lines emitted by hydrogen atom is given by
1 1 1
= 𝑅 [4 2 − 𝑛 2 ] (nf = 4 and ni = 5,6,7……)
𝜆 𝑖

This series lies in infra-red region

5. Pfund Series : The spectral lines emitted due to the transition of an electron from any
higher state to the fifth state form a spectral series called Pfund series. The wavelength of the
spectral lines emitted by hydrogen atom is given by
1 1 1
= 𝑅 [52 − 𝑛2 ] (nf = 5 and ni =6,7,8……)
𝜆 𝑖

This series lies in far infra-red region

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. In Bohr’s model of an atom which of the following is an integral multiple of ?
(a) Kinetic energy (b) Radius of an atom
(c) Potential energy (d) Angular momentum
2. The hydrogen atom can give spectral lines in the Lyman, Balmer and Paschen series.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Lyman series is in the infrared region.
(b) Balmer series is in the visible region.
(c) Paschen series is in the visible region.
(d) Balmer series is in the ultraviolet region.
3. The ratio between Bohr radii is
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 4 : 6
(c) 1 : 4 : 9 (d) 1 : 3 : 5
4. When the number of nucleons in nuclei increases, the binding energy per nucleon
numerically
(a) increases continuously with mass number.
(b) decreases continuously with mass number.
(c) First increases and then decreases with increase of mass number.
(d) Remains constant with mass number.
5. For the fission of heavy nucleus, neutron is more effective than the proton or a
particle because

(a) Neutron is heavier than α-particle.

(b) Neutron is lighter than α-particle.
(c) Neutron moves with a small velocity.
(d) Neutron is uncharged.

ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A): Bohr postulated that the electrons in stationary orbits around
the nucleus do not radiate.
Reason (R): According to classical Physics, all moving electrons radiate.
( a) - Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b)- Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not a correct explanation of
assertion.
©- Assertion is correct but the reason is incorrect.
(d)- Assertion is incorrect but the reason is correct.
ANS-
2. Assertion : Neutrons penetrate matter more readily as compared to protons.
Reason : Neutrons are slightly more massive than protons.
( a) - Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b)- Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not a correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) - Assertion is correct but the reason is incorrect.
(d)- Assertion is incorrect but the reason is correct.

ANS. B
3. Assertion :The binding energy per nucleon, for nuclei with atomic mass
number A > 100, decrease with A.
Reason : The forces are weak for heavier nuclei.
( a) - Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b)- Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not a correct explanation of
assertion.
©- Assertion is correct but the reason is incorrect.
(d)- Assertion is incorrect but the reason is correct.

ANS. C
4. Assertion : According to classical theory the proposed path of an electron in
Rutherford atom model will be parabolic.
Reason : According to electromagnetic theory an accelerated particle continuously
emits radiation.
( a) - Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b)- Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not a correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) - Assertion is correct but the reason is incorrect.
(d)- Assertion is incorrect but the reason is correct.

ANS. (d)
5. Assertion : Hydrogen atom consists of only one electron but its emission
spectrum has many lines.
Reason : Only Lyman series is found in the absorption spectrum of hydrogen atom
whereas in the emission spectrum, all the series are found.
( a) - Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b)- Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not a correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) - Assertion is correct but the reason is incorrect.
(d)- Assertion is incorrect but the reason is correct.
ANS. (b)
CASE BASED QUESTIONS No.1

1.Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:

Neutrons and protons are identical particle in the sense that their masses are nearly the
same and the force, called nuclear force, binds them inside the nucleus. Nuclear force
is the strongest force. Stability of nucleus is determined by the neutron proton ratio or
mass defect or packing fraction. Shape of nucleus is calculated by quadruple moment
and spin of nucleus depends on even and odd mass number. Volume of nucleus
depends on the mass number. Whole mass of the atom (nearly 99%) is centred at the
nucleus-
(1) The correct statements about the nuclear force is/are
(a) Charge independent
(b) Short range force
(c) Non-conservative force
(d) all of these.

(2) The range of nuclear force is the order of

(a) 2 x 10-10 m
(b) 1.5 x 10-20 m
(c) 1.2 x 10-4 m
(d) 1.4 x 10-15 m
(iii) A force between two protons is same as the force between proton and neutron.
The nature of the force is
(a) Electrical force
(b) Weak nuclear force
(c) Gravitational force
(d) Strong nuclear force
(iv) two protons are kept at a separation of 40 A0. Fn is the nuclear force and Fe is the
electrostatic force between them. Then
(a) Fn <<Fe
(b) Fn= Fe
(c) Fn >> Fe
(d) Fn ≈ Fe
(v) All the nucleons in an atom are held by
(a) Nuclear forces
(b) Vander waal’s forces
(c) Tensor forces
(d) Coulomb forces
CASE BASED QUESTIONS No.2
The spectral series of hydrogen atom were accounted for by Bohr using the relation
𝜈⃑ = 1/λ = R (1/𝑛12−1/𝑛22)
Where, R= Rydberg constant = 1.097 x 107 m-1

Lyman series is obtained when an electron jumps to first orbit from any subsequent
orbit. Similarly, Balmer series is obtained when an electron jumps to 2nd orbit from
any subsequent orbit. Paschen series is obtained when an electron jumps to 3rd orbit
from any subsequent orbit. Whereas Lyman series in U.V. region, Balmer series is in
visible region and Paschen series lies in infrared region. Series limit is obtained when
n2=∞.
(1) The wavelength of first spectral line of Lyman series is
(a) 1215.4 A0
(b) 1215.4 cm
(c) 1215.4 m
(d) 1215. 4 mm

(2) The wavelength limit of Lyman series is

(a) 1215.4 A0
(b) 511.9 A0
(c) 951.6 A0
(d) 911.6 A0

(3) The frequency of first spectral line of Balmer series is

(a) 1.097 x 107 Hz
(b) 4.57 x 1014 Hz
(c) 4.57 x 1015 Hz
(d) 4.57 x 1016 Hz
(4) Which of the following transitions in hydrogen atom emit photon of highest
frequency?
(a) n=1 to n=2
(b) n=2 to n=6
(c) n=6 to n=2
(d) n=2 to n=1
(5) The ratio of minimum to maximum wavelength in Balmer series is
(a) 5 : 9
(b) 5 : 36
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 3 : 4
 Unit–IX - Electronic
Devices
Chapter–14:
Semiconductor
Electronics: Materials,
Devices and Simple
Circuits
Chapter -Semiconductor and Electronic devices
MCQ ( 1 Marks )
1. Electric conduction in a semiconductor takes place due to
(a) electrons only (b) holes only
(c) both electrons and holes (d) neither electrons nor holes
2. In a semiconductor, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band and the conduction
band is of the order is
(a) 1 MeV (b) 0.1 Mev (c) 1 eV (d) 5 Ev
3. In forward biasing of the p–n junction
(a) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p–side and the depletion region
becomes thick
(b) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n–side and the depletion region
becomes thin
(c) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n–side and the depletion region
becomes thick
(d) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p–side and the depletion region
becomes thin

4. Let nh and ne be the number of holes and conduction electrons in an extrinsic P-type
semiconductor. Then
(a) nh> ne (b) nh = ne (c) nh< ne (d) nh ≠ ne
5. In an n-type semiconductor, donor valence band is
(a) above the conduction band of the host crystal
(b) close to the valence band of the host crystal
(c) close to the conduction band of the host crystal
(d) below the valence band of the host crystal
Answer
C C D A C

Assertion Reasoning Based questions

(Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct Ans to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b) Both
A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false)
1. Assertion: The number of electrons in a P-type silicon semiconductor is less than the
number of electrons in a pure silicon semiconductor at room temperature.
Reason: It is due to law of mass action.
2. Assertion: Electron has higher mobility than hole in a semiconductor.
Reason: Mass of electron is less than the mass of hole.
3. Assertion: Electrical conductivity of semiconductors increases with increasing temperature.
Reason: With an increase in temperature, the number of electrons from the valence bond can jump
to the conduction band in semiconductors
4. Assertion : An N-type semiconductor has a large number of electrons but still it is electrically
neutral.
Reason: An N-type semiconductor is obtained by doping an intrinsic semiconductor with a
pentavelent impurity.
5. Assertion: Diode conducts current in forward biasing.
Reason: The junction resistance is depends on thickness of depletion layer and it is thin in forward
biasing
Answer
1. A 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. A

Very short answer questions. (2 Marks)

1) Distinguish between a metal and an insulator on the basis of an energy band diagram.
Ans Metals Insulators
(i) Conduction band and the valence band overlap each other.
There is a large gap (more than 3 eV) between conduction band and valence band.
(ii) Conduction band is partially filled and the valence band is partially empty.
Conduction band is empty. This is because no free electrons can be excited to it from
the valence band.
2) What happens to the width of depletion layer of a p-n junction when it is
(i)forward biased?
(ii)reverse biased?
Ans.(i) Width of depletion layer’s decreases in forward bias
(ii) Width depletion layer increases in reverse bias.
3) What do you mean by depletion region and potential barrier in junction diode?
Ans.A layer around the junction between p and n-sections of a junction diode where
charge carriers electrons and holes are less in number is called depletion region. The
potential difference created across the junction due to the diffusion of charge
carriers across the junction is called potential barrier.
4) Determine the currents through resistance R of the circuits (i) and (ii) when similar
diodes are connected as shown in the figure.

Ans.In figure (i) are forward biased

In figure (ii) is forward biased but is reverse biased due to

which offers infinite resistance

5)
3 Marks questions.
1. What are energy bands? Write any two distinguishing features between conductors,
semiconductors and insulators on the basis of energy band diagrams.
Ans. Energy Bands: In a solid, the energy of electrons lie within a certain range. The energy levels
of allowed energy are in the form of bands, these bands are separated by regions of forbidden
energy called band gaps. Distinguishing features:
(a) In conductors: Valence band and conduction band overlap each other. In semiconductors:
Valence band and conduction band are separated by a small energy gap. In insulators: They are
separated by a large energy gap.
(b) In conductors: large numbers of free electrons are available in the conduction band.
In semiconductors: A very small number of electrons are available for electrical conduction.
In insulators: Conduction band is almost empty i.e., no electron is available for conduction
2. What is half wave rectifier. Giving circuit diagram & input-output waveform explain its working.
Ans. Half wave rectifier is a device which changes half cycle of ac to dc.

Working:- In first half cycle of ac the diode is forward bias & conduct but in second
half cycle the diode is reverse bias & hence not conduct. Hence it gives half dc.

Case study Based questions

1. Case study: Conductor, semiconductor and insulator

A band gap is the distance between the valence band of electrons and the conduction
band. Essentially, the band gap represents the minimum energy that is required to excite
an electron up to a state in the conduction band where it can participate in conduction.
The lower energy level is the valence band, and thus if a gap exists between this level
and the higher energy conduction band, energy must be input for electrons to become
free. The size and existence of this band gap allows one to visualize the difference
between conductors, semiconductors, and insulators. These distances can be seen in
diagrams known as band diagrams, shown in Fig. below.
 (i) What is the value of the forbidden gap of insulator and semiconductor?
(ii) The conduction band of a solid X is partially filled at absolute temperature. Will X
be a conductor, a semiconductor or an insulator?
(iii) Distinguish between n-type semiconductor and p-type semiconductor. Give reason,
why a ptype semiconductor crystal is electrically neutral, although nh˃˃ne?

Ans: (i) In insulator, energy gap is > 3 eV In conductor, separation between conduction
and valence bands is zero and in the insulator, it is greater than 1 eV. Hence in
semiconductors the separation between conduction and valence band is 1 eV.
(ii) X will be conductor
(iii) n-type semiconductor p-type semiconductor 1. It is obtained by adding controlled
amount of pentavalent impurity to a pure semiconductor. 1. It is obtained by adding
controlled amount of trivalent impurity to a pure semiconductor.

2. Read the following paragraph and Ans the questions

p-n junction is a semiconductor diode. It is obtained by bringing p-type semiconductor
in close contact with n- type semiconductor. A thin layer is developed at the p- n
junction which is devoid of any charge carrier but has immobile ions. It is called
depletion layer. At the junction a potential barrier appears, which does not allow the
movement of majority charge carriers across the junction in the absence of any biasing
of the junction. p-n junction offers low resistance when forward biased and high
resistance when reverse biased.
(i) Name the two important processes that occur during the formation of a p-n junction.
(ii)Can we take one slab of p-type semiconductor and physically join it to another n-
type semiconductor to get p-n junction? Give reason.
(iii) Explain how the width of depletion region in a p-n junction diode change, when
the junction is- (a) forward biased (b) reverse biased.

Ans (i) (a) Diffusion (b) drift

(ii) No, because continuous contact at the atomic level will not be possible at the
junction
(iii) (a)Width of depletion region decreases in forward bias Reason:In the forward bias,
external battery pushes the majority charge carriers towards the junction. (b)Width of
depletion region increases in reverse bias, external battery attracts the majority charge
carriers away from the junction.