Sample question for Civil Engineering L Mechanics / Geotechnical QL. The bearing capacity of soil is a function of: (a) Soil shear strength parameters (b) Unit weight of soil & Foundation dimensions Q2, Structures are most sensitive to: (a) Uniform settlement (c) Rate of settlement (@) None of the above Q3. The resultant of the active earth pressures on a 5 meter-high wall retaining sand with unit weight and friction angle of 19 kN/m’ and 30 degrees is: (a) 102 kN/m’ (b) 55 KN/m’ (@) None of the above Q4. Consolidation is a term used to describe the volume reduction of: (b) Dry clay (©) Saturated sand (@) Fissured rock QS. Cohesionless backfill is usually compacted in layers with thickness of: g 100m (©) 50cm (a) 150 em ‘6. Soil samples extracted from the Standard Penetration Test (SPT) can be used in (a) Liquid limit test (b) Sieve analysis (c) Hydrometer testQ7. ROD value of 100% indicates: (@) A fissured rock (©) Very soft clay (@) Very dense sand Q8. If an isolated footing with an area of 2.25 m’ needed to carry a 0.25 m x 0.8 m column, the best footing shape would be: (a) Square with 1.5 m width () (©) Rectangular with dimensions of 1.0 m x 2.25 m (@ Circular with a diameter of 1.7 m Q9. The modulus of elasticity for rock mass is usually: (b) Higher than that of the rock substance (©) Equal to that of the rock substance (@) Not correlated to that of the rock substance QU0. Sand drains are used to: (a) Help in compacting sand layers (b) Increase bearing capacity of dry backfills (c) Enhance the permeability of rock masses QUL. For a soil with liquid limit (LL) of 50 and a plasticity limit (PL) of 20, the plasticity index PD is: (@) 30 () 2.5 © 02 (@) 70 Q12. For construction of a building on soil that predominantly consists of sand and gravel, the best in-situ test is:(b) Vane shear test (©) Shear box test (@) Triaxial west Q13. Soil compaction is usually achieved through: (a) crushing of soil particles ) reduction of water content (@) all of the above Q14. For the compaction curve shown below, the optimum water content and the maximum dry density are: | 174 | 164 5 10 15 20 (a) 1.78% and 15.5 kN/m’, ey (©) 15.5 % and 1.78 kN/m”, respectively (d) 1.78% and 15.5 gm/em’, respectively Q15. The compaction equipment used in the field depends on the soil type. It is correct to say that: (a) dynamic rollers are suitable for both sands and clays (b) sheep-foot rollers are suitable for both sands and clays ©, seat rollers are suitable for sandsQ16. Geosynthetics are used for different application in Geotechnical Engineering. Geotextiles are types of these materials that can be used for g si soil reinforcement (©) soil reinforcement and to prevent movement of water in soil (@) only to prevent movement of water in soil Q17. Considering an extended layer of sand with a saturated unit weight of 20 KN/m? and a water table the is located at the ground surface, the effective vertical stress at a depth of S meters is approximately: (a) 100 kN/m? (b) 20 KN/m? (©) 4 kN/m? (@) SONAR QU8. Shear strength of soil can be estimated using the following equation T=otangte The typical values of ¢ and c for sands are: (a) 20 to 50° for and 20 to 90 KN/m? for ¢ (©) 20to 50 kN/m? for and 20 to 100° for e (d) 20 to 90 kN/m? for ¢ and 0° fore QU9. Very dense sand has a SPT-N value: (a) between 0 10 20 (b) between 20 and 40 (a) >100 Q20. For extracting rock samples of good quality we use: (b) single-tube core barrel (©) standard split spoon sampler (@) thin-wall tube (Shelby tube)Q21. The undrained shear strength of clay equals: (a) twice the unconfined compressive strength (b) the unconfined compressive strength (d) not related to the unconfined compressive strength Q22. The safe design load for a long concrete pile drilled in rock is generally controlled by: (a) the ah of the rock (©) the buckling capacity of the pile (@ the tensile strength of the conorete Q23. The ultimate compression capacity of a pile in clay is given by: 2, A,c+ a ¢ (ADL) Where c = cohesion; Ay = cross section area at the diameter and L= length. tip; a = skin friction factor; D = pile The ultimate tension capacity of the pile shown below is approximately (take D =0.4 m and ignore the effect of pile weight): 10m Medium stiff Clay y= 18.1 kN/m? c= 60KN/m? a=07 os wy)(a) 595 kN 68 KN (@) 461 kN Q24. The earth pressure that is developed behind a retaining structure depends on the movement of the structure relative to the soil. The active earth pressure is developed when: (a) The structure moves toward the soil (b) The structure does not move © (d) The structure and the soil move away from each other Q25. Consider the overtuming (moment of forces about the toc) and the sliding of the of the cantilever retaining wall shown in the figure below. The factors of safety with respect to overturning and sliding along the base are approximately (Take the unit weight of concrete =24 N/m’ and ignore the passive resistance in front of the wall): 0.3m Sand = 36, y=18 Nie 65m 1.5m Foam rene 08m 03m 2m Sandy Clay , c=30 KN/m?, 3=(2/3)6, ca=(2/3)e 5,7=20kN/m? K,, = tan’(45- 9/2) x Wy, P(H'/3) FSovectuming =tand * (DV) +Be, Pp. FSstiting = (a) 2 and 2, respectively (b) 1 and 2, respectively (c) Land 1, ectively (a) Dati espectely Q26. Consider the construction of a shallow foundation for light structure. The soil at the site consists of expansive soil. It was decided to excavate portion of the expansive soil and replace it with a selected fill. The selected fill must be: “oo enue (b) A dense sand with sufficient amount of fines (i.e. more than 30% fines) that will provide high strength soil under the footing and also it will prevent the flow of water (©) The same expansive soil, but compacted, because from other areas (d) None of the above s cheaper than hauling soils Il. Transportation / Traffic: QI. A driver rounds a curve at a speed of 60 mi/h and sees a truck overturned on a roadway level ahead. How far will the driver’s vehicle travel before the driver's foot reaches the brake? a. 150 feet c. 480 feet . 520 feet Q2. A+2% and a -3% grade are joined by a 400-foot parabolic crest curve. The P.V.C. = 8+00, the elevation of the P.V.C. = 132.00. Determine the elevation of station PVT. a) 133.09 ») 150000 ) 132.00 d) 134.00 Q3. What is the length of the Are for the following curve? Radius 250,00" Tangent in N 25° 30° E ‘Tangent out N 30° 25° E a) 42.90b) Bis ce) 10.73 d) 214.50 Q4. Given the following data for a circular curve on a set of highway plans, knowing that you need the stationing of the PC before you can calculate the station of the P.T., what is the stationing of the PC? 377+46.0 729.59 6° 45° LT. 43.5 D= 1°00" L= 1675.0 a) 1385+77.5 ») MBeoHEOaS c) 1385 +83.5 4d) 1385 +895 QS. Inhi ewe work, grade is usually given in terms of b) elevation c) degrees slope Q6. The are definition of the mats of Curve (D) is defined as the: b) Central angle subtended by 100 ft of chord ©) Central angle subtended by 50 fi of chord 4) Total arc length of the curve in stations divided by the total central angle of degrees the minimum radius is computed as: Q7. If a roadway has a design speed of 65 mi/h and the maximum values are e=8% and £=0.11, a) 35 feet ©) 25.4 feet d) 22236 feet Q8. What is the maximum value of the PHF? b) 0.35 Om d) 0.25 Q. AASHTO recommended perception and reaction time for stopping sight distance a) 1.0 second 2 3.5 seconds d) None of the above Q10. A horizontal curve is designed for a speed of 60 miles/br. If the physical conditions restrict the radius of the curve for 500 fect, f=0.12, what value is required to super-elevate the road? a) -11.52 ¢) -O.11 d) 7.08 QUI. An alert driver (with a perception-reaction time of 0.5 sec) is driving downhill on a 4% ‘grade at 35 mph on a dry pavement (f= 0.7), when suddenly a person steps from behind a parked car in the path of the driver at a distance of 100 ft. Dy= (vo — ve) / 2g(f 4G) [v= fisee or m/sec] SSD = [vo" / 30(££G)] + [1.47 (vo) (t)] [vo= mph] Can the driver stop in time before hitting the person? (a) No (©) May be (@) Not sufficient information QI2. For previous Question (#3), can the driver stop in time on a rainy day (assume f= 0.4)? (a) No (b) Yes (©) May be (d) Not sufficient information QI3. A parabolic vertical curve connects a +4.5% grade with a—4% grade on a rural highway at station 875+25.4 and tangent elevation of $12.6 ft. The length of the curve is 550 ff. Xhigh or ow = (L) (Gr) / (Gi - G2) E=(A) (L)/800 = (4) ©) (LY The location of the PVC is at: 72 @Qua. Qs. Qs. Qi7. Qs. (a) 870+ 50.4 (b) 874+ 50.4 (@) 875+ 25.4 The elevation of the PVC is at: (a) 510.225 fi (c) 512.600 ft (d) 505.225 ft (©) 500.000 ft The location of the high point is at: (a) 875 +25.40 @ 875 + 50.40 (@) 874+ 41.58 ‘The curve elevation of the high point is at: (a) 512.600 ft (b) 501.600 ft (©) 513.328 ft ‘The curve elevation of the middle point is at: (a) 512.600 ft ge 506.776 ft (@) 513.328 ft A sag vertical curve of 800 fi length will connect two tangent, a -3% grade and a +5% grade. The elevation of the curve at its deepest point must be at elevation 168.00 ft or higher to clear a major culvert installation, If the VPC is at Station 00 + 00.00 with an elevation of 176.20 ft, the height of fill required above the culvert is: (a) 3.00 ft. (b) 4.90 fi.Qi9. Q20. Qu. Q22. g 0 ft. A new road (Road 100) enters Doha from.the NW, it must curve to the south between two historic buildings. At this point, Road 100 consists of two 12-foot lanes, The building to the right of traffic is only 8 feet from the edge of the 6-foot-wide-shoulder. Local policy is that the superelevation rates not exceed 8%. Will the minimum SSD be available for vehicles moving at 50 mph through this curve? Assume SSDgeign = 425 ft and that Rnin = 758 ft. My = Ry [1 ~ cos {(90)(SSD) / (x)( Ry)}] (a) Yes (c) May be (@) No sufficient information (©) Don’t know ‘The speed on a road section in Doha is 60 mph and the traffic density estimated at that speed is 16 vpmpl. The approximate flow rate on that section is: (@) 1100 vphpl (b) 4.00 vphpl (A) 900 vphpl The level of service on a road is: (a) a quantitative measure of traffic flow (c) numerical number from 1 to 5 (@) all of the above (©) none of the abové (f) a & care correct ‘Traffic counts were taken on a minor arterial street for four consecutive 15- minutes periods during the street’s peak hour. The 15-minute counts were 230, 210, 380, and 350. ‘The peak hour factor (PHF) for the minor arterial is: (@) 0.65 (b) 0.85 Q(c) 0.90 (0.77 (e) 1.20 Q23. The speed-flow relationship for a lane on Al-Khoud Street is believed to be: y= 273x — 70x (In x) where: speed (x) has units of kph and flow rate (y) has units of vph. The free flow speed (x9 is: (a) 60.5 kph (b) 45.8 kph (@) 18.2 kph Q24, The maximum-flow speed (x.) is: (a) 55 kph (b) 60.5 (@) 49.4 kph Q25. The maximum flow rate (Yas) is: (a) 1456 vph (©) 1350 vph (@) 4,968 vph (©) 3,696 vph. IIL. Water resources / Environmental Engineering QU. Density of water is: a) 998.9 Kg/L ) 1000 g/m* dl gL Q2. Hardness in water is defined as:a) The concentration of Calcium and Potassium in water, ©) The concentration of total suspended solids (TSS) in water. 4d) The ability of water to resist pH changes. Q3. Usually the last stage in a Water Treatment Plant (WTP) would be: a) Solid removals. b) Biological treatment. in Sand filtration, Q4. A rectangular primary clarifier for a domestic wastewater plant is to be designed with an overflow rate of 35 m’/m?-day. The tank is to be 2.5 m deep, 4.0 m wide, and 16.0 m long. What is the flow rate capacity of this clarifier? b) 350 m'/day ©) 0.22 m'/see 4) 800 m'/day Q5.__ Based on an experiment, it is determined that the average linear flow velocity of an aquifer is | m/day when the hydraulic gradient is 0.0004. A sample of the aquifer is tested and found to have a porosity of 15%. Estimate the hydraulic conductivity of this aquifer. a) 400 miday b) 0.0027 m/iday ) 0.00006 m/day Q6. The molar concentration of water is: a) 18 g/mole ©) 1000 g/L d) 18 mole/g Q7. Determine the Total Volatile Solids (TVS) in g/mL based on the following data. Two hundred fifty milliliters of a wastewater sample was added to an evaporating dish. The weight of the empty dish was 24.5087 g. The dish and the sample were placed in a drying oven at 105°C and removed after all of the water evaporated, Once the dish returned to room temperature, it was re-weighed and found to be 26.7894 g. Then the dish was put in a furnace at 550°C and removed after several hours. Once the dish returned to room temperature, it was re-weighed and found to be 24.8904 g. a) 0.0015 g/mL, b) 0.0091 g/mL,d) 0.0252 g/mL Q8. The diagram below shows long deep-rock tunnel carying water. There is one major inflow (15 m’/s), one minor inflow (3 m’/s), one minor outflow (Q) and one major outflow (17 m’/s), all but one of which are known. In addition, the concentration of chloride (a conservative substance) is known at 2 of the 4 inflow/outflow locations as shown in figure below. Calculate the missing chloride concentrations (C; and C2) for this system. Qmis 500 ppm 1 7 15mis / init a7 mis — C2 ppm —_ amis 6 mail. a) 2.667 mg/L b) 8.0mg/L ©) 2.0 mg/L d) Omg/L Q9. Consider the figure below (assume 7,.,,= 9810 Nim’ and Syjeruy = 13.55), the gage pressure at point 4 is: oil (s =0.90) a) 150,700 N/m c) 90,700 Nim’ d) 75,700 Nim”Q10. The rectangular channel shown is 2 m wide. The velocity function w is given. What is the discharge in the channel? Vertical depth = 1m a) 4.5 m/s b) 6.0 m/s d) 2.48 m/s QI. Assume that the following system is horizontal, what is velocity of the flow of water in leg B? a) 10ms 2 2m/s d) 8mis QI2. For the steady flow of gas in the conduit shown, what is the mean velocity at section 2? fo op 1 = 2.0 kgim? (3)a) 20m/s b) 40 ms a 60 mvs Q13. What is the specific gravity (S) of the liquid in the left leg of the manometer tube? (Assume Yate =9810 Nim?) r soem [lf ie stem 10m a TE acen | a) 0.90 b) 0.85 ©) 0.70 QU4. A pipe drains a tank as shown. If.x = 10 fi, y= 4 fi, and head losses are neglected, what is the velocity at the exit? (assume /,,,,,, = 62.4 Ib/ft? and g = 32.2 ft/sec). b) 35 fus ©) 40 fs d) 45 fs QUS. Gasoline having a specific gravity of 0.8 is flowing in the pipe shown below. If /; = 7.5 fs, V2 = 30 fis, the pressure at section 1 is 10 psig (per square inch gage pressure) and the headloss is 4 ft between the two sections, what is the pressure at section 2? (assume 7,,,= 62.4 Ib/ft’, g = 32.2 f/sec and Lft = 12 in), © [omen b) 11.23 psig ©) 13.23 psig 4) 16.23 psig Q16. The following wood flume (1 = 0.012) has a slope of 0.0015. What is the discharge of water in if for a depth of 1 m, (Use Manning’ formula: 9 = 4R%§%), a a) 3.6m'/s b) 5.2m'/s c) 4.2 m/s QI7. Water flows at a depth of 6 ft in the trapezoidal, concrete-lined channel (n = 0.015) shown below. If the slope of the channel is 1 ft in 2000 ft, what is the discharge in the channel? (Use Manning? formula: 1 gahshy a b—1on—] WwWa) S12 fs d) 123 cfs , 945 cfs, QI8. Two streams discharge into a pipe as shown in the figure below. The flows are incompressible. The volume flow rate of stream A into the pipe is given by Qy = 0.02¢ m’/s and that of stream B by Qp = 0.008" m/s, where ¢ is in seconds. The exit area of the pipe is 0.01 m2, Find the velocity of the flow at the exit at ¢= 1 s. A= 0.01m? 5.2 m/s ©) 7.2m/s 4) 6.0 m/s IV. Construction Management QI. Your schedule projected that you would reach 50% completion today on a road construction project that is paving 32 km of new highway. Every 4 km are scheduled to cost QR 5,000,000. Today, your status meeting with the project members you have announced that you had completed 20 km of the highway at a cost of QR 18,000,000. What is the planned value of the project (Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled- BCWS or what is called (PV) ). a) QR 12,800,000 b) QR 18,000,000 °) 4) QR 40,000,000 Q2. _Ifaproject has a CPI of 0.95 and an SPI of 1.01, this indicates: a) the project is progressing slower and costing more than planned b) the project is progressing slower and costing less than planned °) SERED OR 4) the project is progressing faster and costing less than plannedQ3. The following table shows the activities, durations and their dependency for a construction project: Activity Duration _Dependeney Start none Start Start Start B AC B DE 1 E DE GH Com arunnavo The critical path is: 2) sar AE-Hefngh b) start-C-E-H-finish ¢) start-B-D-L-finish d) start-B-D-G-finish Q4. Composite Labor Wage calculations: wage data is provided for each labor type. Consider these values to calculate the composite direct crew hourly wage 1 Foreman = @ =~ QR100/hr 2Operators @ QR 90/hreach 2 Helpers @ QR 50/ hr each 1Mechanic = @ =~ QR60/hr the composite labor hourly wage (average hourly wage for a crew member) is: a) QR 300 b) QR 440 °) d) QR 147 Q5. Ifthe crew in previous question can excavate 720 M? in a one workday (8 hours), what is the man-hours required per M’? a) 15 man-hours per M* b) 90 man-hours per M? °) 0.0567 nots st 4) 22.5 man-hours per MQ6. The total material required for an embankment is 100,000 CCY, The borrow material will be obtained from a pit that has a swell factor of 20% and a shrinkage factor of 15%. Sy stands for swell factor and S,, for shrinkage factor Bank volume = Loose volume / (1 + Sw/100) Bank volume = Compact volume /(1 ~ $y/100) Loose volume = Bank volume x (1 + Sy/100) Loose volume = Compact volume x (1 + S,/100) / (1 $y/100) Compact volume= Bank volume x (1 ~ §),/100) Compact volume= Loose volume x (1 ~ $/100)/ (1 + 8/100) How much material must be excavated? (a) 115,000 cy (c) 120,000 CY (@) 125,000 CY Q7. For last question, if the trucks have a heaped capacity of § CY each, how many truck-loads will be required to move the material? (@) 19,280 trips () 16,450 trips (@) 18,000 tri Q8. What type of bond guarantees that if a contractor goes broke on a project, the surety will pay the necessary amount to complete the job? (a) Bid bond (©) Acceptance bond (d) Payment bond Q9. What would an initial investment of 1 million QR be after 5 years if the APR = 9% accumulated monthly? F=P-(1+iy’ a) 1,565,681 QR b) 1,538,624 QR ©) 1,711,867 QR 4) 1,450,000 QRQUO. The initial investment for a project is 2.0 million QR. A net annual profit of 150,000 QR is anticipated. Using a 10% desired rate of return on the investment, what is the payback period for the project? “lel ia+o” | A= Playpen (a) 6.84 years (b) 4.55 years (0) 5.36 ian QUI. A list of activities that are required to complete a project is shown below. Assume that the early start (ES) of activities A, B, and C= 0 days and that the late finish (LF) of activity F is the same as activity G. Activity Duration (days) Preceded By ommuomD NaAUwWAANThe critical activities for this project are: @ BE&G () B,D&F (©CD&F Q12. Inthe previous question, the total float for activity B is a) Iday b) 2 days d) 4 days QU3. Design/Build means that b) Construction begins before design is complete ©) The project is technically complex ¢) Both a) and b) QI4, The term fast track means ©) _Design/build | 2) Cost plus fixed fee hh) None of the above QUS. The advantages ofa Design/Bid/Build contractual arrangement is (are) i) Reduced project time j)_Non-adversary relationships among participants | }) Allof the above QI6. Value engincering can be described as m) Reducing cost by reducing qualit | 0) Reducing scope to achieve budget p) Reorganizing the project team to achieve the greatest efficiency QU7. The process of identifying and evaluating contractors for a bid list is called b) Forecasting ©) Fast Tracking 4) None of the aboveQI8. Which of the estimates listed would occur last in a project time line? a) Rough order of magnitude b) us foot estimate d) Assemblies estimate QU9. General conditions and home office overhead are examples of what type of costs? a) Direct ©) Both a) and b) d) Contingency 20. Which of the following would not be classified as direct cost? b) Finishing labor for a concrete slab ©) Materials for a structural steel frame 4) Foundation excavation equipment expenses Q21. The ___is the maximum amount of time an activity can be delayed without extending the overall project completion time. a) Duration ¢) Critical path d) Free Float Q22. Final as-built drawings are submitted to a) Give the architect more work b) Keep records for later maintenance ¢) Prepare for later renovations or additions Q23. Which of the following situations requires a change order? a) Change in owner’s scope of work b) Significant change in subsurface conditions °) one error or emission Q24, Project control is a function that takes place: a._ Before construction begins c. After construction is complete 4. Throughout the entire processQ25. The following relationship means: 3 a) Activity B has to start exactly 3 days after the start of A ) Activity B can start at most 3 days after the start of A d) None of the above Q26. The following relationship means: 2 a }—T a) Activity A can start 2 days before the start of activity B b) Activity B can start 2 days after the completion of activity A 4) Activity B has to start at least 2 days before the completion of activity A Q27. Resource leveling usually results in: a) Using fewer amounts of resources per activity b) Shortening the a ject duration d) More work space for workers Q28. The concept of resource leveling works by: a) Reducing the amounts of resources allocated to some activities b) Starting activities on their late start dates d) Limiting the amount of resources any activity can obtain Structural Analysis and Designau. Q. Qs. The truss shown below is loaded by a concentrated force P at joint A as shown. we ‘The vertical deflection at joint A; Avis: a) 9.SP/EA b) 7.657P/EA d) 42 P/EA Reinforced concrete is used in concrete structures for its: a) Light weight ©) High tensile strength, ) High flexibility ‘The slope at C (the mid-span of the beam) for the beam shown below is: El=constant w=12kN/m A » c a) 7eR8 b) 2916.66/E1 c) 16666.67/E1 4d) 3333.33/EI ‘The vertical deflection of C is given as: a) 8072.92/EI b) 36936/EI ©) SiIS4071 d) 10677.08/EIQs. Q6. Q. Qs. Qs. Given the two beam analysis as shown below. Find the slope Og at the first beam is: P qa of 4 Z ee 7 4 reset F ae L Ser oer oe El= Constant a) PL/6MEL >) EAE ) ML*2E1 d) 3ML/16PEI Increased Water-Cement Ratio (W/C) in concrete mix, b) Reduces workability. ©) Decrease hydration process. d) Reduce the slump value Hydration is: b) Evaporation of water. ©) Aggregate degradation. 4) Concrete strength. In reinforced concrete Design, a Concrete in tension side has major effect b._ Concrete is resist the tension stresses, 4. Concrete cannot resist the compressive stress The concrete stress block at a rectangular cross section is given below, the nominal moment capacity of this section is:Q10, Qu. Qi. =A, a) M,=A4,f,(d—a) b) M,=4f,(d-c/2) 0) M,=088/{hatd-a/2) d) M,=A4,f,(d-a/2)+0.85 f'ba(d -a/2) Steel is preferred as reinforcing material in conerete because a) Itis easily available ©) The coefficient of thermal expansion of steel and conerete are almost the same 4) It forms a good bond A doubly reinforced beam is used when a) Extra safety is needed b) Beam experiences tension in top only ©) Large moment is experienced by the beam Ina two way slab the lifiing of the edges of the slab occurs due a) Resultant shear force at the ends ©) Unbalanced moments on the slab @) Heavy shear load at the mid span (97) i.Q13. ‘The main reinforcement of a reinforced concrete slab consists of 1mm bars at 100mm spacing. If it is required to replace the 10mm bars by 12mm bars, then the spacing of the 12mm bars should be a) 120mm ©) 154mm @) 160mm QU4. The weight of one cubic meter of normal weight reinforced concrete is, a. 1400 kg b. 1880 kg ©. 2140 kg QIS. When a T-beam spans over several supports continuously then the beam at the supports should be designed as ©. Simply supported £. Flanged section h. Prestressed beam QU6. When a T-beam spans over several supports continuously then the beam at midspan should be designed as Simply supported k. Rectangular section 1. Prestressed beam For the truss shown below, use the virtual work method to find the following: (Take E=250Gpa [250 X 10° kN/m’] and A=350 mm? for all members). tye positive deflections E=250Gpa A=350 mnQU7. The horizontal displacement of joint B; 4B, due to the external loading is: a) 311,100/EA mm b) Zero ¢) 200,000/EA mm QU8. The horizontal displacement of joint E; AE, due to the extemal loading is: a) 8.047 mm c) 13.450 mm d) 666.1 mm Q19. The vertical displacement of joint C; AC, due to the external loading is: b) -100,000/EA ©) 243,000/EA mm d) -203,000/EA mm Q20, The rotation of member AB is: e. 0.0378 deg. £ 0.02601 rad. 8 0.00046 rad. he 7 Q21. Ifmember CB experienced an increase in the temperature by 100° F. Then the horizontal displacement of joint E; AE} due to the temperature change only is given as: (Take the thermal coefficient, a= 6.6X10° ), a) 43.52 mm b)-6.72 mm 4d) +7.80 mm Q22. If no loads act on the truss, and member AB is 3 mm short. Then the horizontal displacement of joint B; 4B, is:a)+3.0 mm +b) 3.0mm ©) +6.0mm 4) -6.0 mm Q23._ If no loads act on the truss, and member AB is 3 mm short. Then the vertical displacement of joint C; 4C, b)-3.0 mm 6. Bh an Bf c) +4.0mm d)4+3.0mm For the Beam shown below, use the Muller-Breslau principle for the influence to answer the following: Q24. The solid lines shown on the beam above, describe the influence line for a, The reaction at € b. The moment at d ¢. The moment at b Q25. The dotted lines shown on the beam above, describe the influence line for a) The shear at d >) TeRSTEATB ©) The moment at d 4) vertical reaction at support e (Moment Distribution) For the structure shown below do the following:E=200 Gpa I= 0.0002 nf N Q26. The distribution factors (DFsa, DF ex) are a. (0.571, 1.0) b. (1.0, 0.0) d. (0.429, 0.571) Q27._ The fixed-end moments (FEMas, FEMes) in (kN.m) are: a) (-10.0, 7.5) b) (-7.5, -10.0) d) (7.5, 10.0) Q28, The moments at the supports A, & C (Map, Men) in (kN.m) On the B.M.D are: a) (-6.79, 10.54) ©) (10.54, 6.79) @) (6.79, 10.54) Q29. The moment at the supports B (Maa) in (KN.m) On the B.M.D is: VI. Surveying QI. _ Ifa line between two points measures 74" on a map whose scale is 1:62,500, how many miles apart are the two points on the ground? a, b, 7.25 c. 6.90 d. 11.43 Q2. A line connecting points of equal elevations on a map is called a/an:a. property line b. critical areas line. ¢. line of equal elevation. 4 Q3. What is the sum in degrees of the interior angles of a six sided polygon? a, 360 b. 540 c. 20 d. 900 Q4. When measuring 66/2" back from station 50+00, what would be the station of the new point? a. 49493.40 b, OHOSEG ©. 50+06.60 d. 50+06.54 Q5.__ If the elevation of a level instrument is 106.57’, what is the elevation of the ground when the rod reading is 6.22"? a b. 103.50" c. 106.57 d. 107.16 Q6. The error resulting from using a tape that is too short is known as a(n) __ error. . ta ¢. along the ground surface d. between the ellipsoid and geoid Q8. Cross-section areas are used to calculate: a. the cost of the dirt moved b. right angle offsets from the centerline cc. the capacity of trucks 4. theeut and ill quanies Q9. The number 34 in the term "N 34° a. temporary point b. town s usually associated with a:d. traverse point QUO. _A traverse having a total length of 71,392.06 feet failed to close by 0.37 feet in northing and 0,53 feet in Easting, What is the relative accuracy of this traverse to the nearest 100 feet? Vil. Materials QI. Which one of the following is a typical dry density for normal weight concrete? a) 1850 kg/m3 b) 1950 kg/m3 ©) 1300 kg/m3 | Q2. What is the “yield strength” for most reinforcing bars? =) SOONER b) 300 MPa ©) 600 MPa d) 100 MPa Q3. Which one of the following is an example for sedimentary rocks? a) Granite >) SSG c) Marble d) Slate Q4. Which one of the following is added during the final stage of production of portland cement? a) Silica b) Alumi ©) SEI d) NoneQS. Which one of the followi dimensions of the aggregate? describes the relationship between the smallest and largest a) Angulerity >) RE ©) Soundness 4) Toughness VIII. General Engineering QI. Who performs tests on engineered products to determine their reliability and suitability? a) Production engineers b) Research engineers ) 4) Development engineers Q2. Of the following engineering disciplines, which would be BEST suited to manage the construction of a natural gas pipeline? a) petroleum engineer b) mechanical engineer ©) Bivillenginget 4) chemical engineer Q3. Which one of the engineering characteristics can best explain the following concept? “Base your decision on reason rather than emotions” a) Quantitative thinking b)_ Interpersonal skill c) Honesty } TE Q4. Of the following engineering disciplines, who would be BEST suited to design and operate an automobile factory?a) petroleum engineer >) FCARVER ©) civil engineer d) chemical engineer QS. - The Accreditation Board for Engineering and Technology (ABET) is an accrediting agency for «) ACTON AOR b) engineering fundamentals examinations ©) engineering firms d) all of the above