Clat Mock 20 Complete

CLAT MOCK # 20
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Direction for questions 1 to 10: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
We have witnessed several disastersers in recent times, some natural, others man
man-made.
made. The frequency of such
calamities has injured us and deadened our collective sensitivity, but that does not reduce the enormity of
the personal tragedy of each victims
victims's family and community. The economic loss is only secondary to the
human suffering, but is also substantial. The Government whether State or Central has standardised its
response. This consists of reacting late, blaming others, visits by VIPs, announcing a relief package including
compensation n for those affected and then forgetting all about it. There seems to be little attempt at drawing
lessons from each disaster, storing the knowledge for future use, long term planning for possible
preemptive action. Preparedness for disasters thus falls sh short
ort of what is possible using today's
today we
technologies.
Floods in many parts of India like the states of Bihar and Assam are a yearly phenomenon. Yet the government
seems to be caught by surprise year after year. It is obvious that tarpaulins, vaccines, med medicines, clothes,
satellite phones, large numbers of doctors and paramedical staff etc. will be needed as will boats and buses for
evacuation. This is known to all those who have combated emergencies yet the non non-availability of these
essential services and commodities occurs. Worse the organisational structure and mechanisms for dealing
with disasters are lethargic and ill defined. The National Disaster Management Agency, set up a short time
ago being a central government agency has limitations relating to iinfringing
nfringing the jurisdiction of states. It could
have aggregated and disseminated experiences and knowledge, stocked many of the essential items required
in an emergency or worked with agencies to ensure sufficient stocks, but hasn't.
While the reaction to major disasters is dismal,, the response to emergencies like accidents is equally sad.
Victims lie unattended since passers by are wary of getting caught in a labyrinthine of police and legal
systems. The resulting delay in treatment converts injuries into deaths. Of late, a unique and free service to
provide assistance in emergency cases is operational. Emergency Management and Research institute
(EMRI) is a professionally managed operation initiated by the vision and a grant from Ramalinga Raju. The
service,
e, which is a successful example of public private partnership is likely to become operational in a few
states in the near future. Given the sad failure of conventional government organisations in handling
disasters, it is time we looked at the PPP model aass an alternative without the government seeking in any
way to abdicate its responsibility. While the state provides the funding, private organisations will provide
the drive, professionalism, competent management and output linked efficiency of a good corp corporate
organisation. Combining the sensitivity and purpose of an NGO with private entrepreneurial drive to
handle disasters together is thus a worthwhile challenge for both corporates and the government.
1. Which of the following is NOT true in the contex
context of the passage?
(a) Man-made
made disasters occur more frequently than natural disasters
(b) The public Private Participation model has been successful in handling emergencies.
(c) Floods occur every year in some Indian states
(d) Analysis of previous disasters
sasters will help us cope with future ones
2. Which of the following has been the customary government reaction to disasters?
(1) It has handled disasters with utmost sensitivity
(2) It responds in a professional, efficient manner which has been stan
standardised
dardised over time
(3) It ensures monetary aid reaches those afflicted by disasters
(a) Only 1 (b) Only (2) (c) Both (1) and (2) (d) Only (3)
3. Why do bystanders not help accident victims?

(a) They lack the necessary medical knowledge
(b) It is the responsibility of the driver of the vehicle
(c) Cumbersome police formalities
(d) Medical attention via satellite phones can provided promptly
4. Which of the following can be inferred about the National Disaster Management Agency?
1. It has
as substantial experience in dealing with disasters
2. It has been successful in sharing information with other disaster management
management-agencies
3. It disburses funds to disaster management organisations to procure emergency stocks
(a) None (b) All (1), (2) and (3)
(c) Only (1) (d) Both (1) and (2)
Head Office: Clat Path Building,

ding, Near Indraprastha, Opp. Godrej Interio, West Boring Canal Road, Patna | 91
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CLAT MOCK # 20
5. Why is there a lack of medical care at disaster sites?
(a) Inadequate transportation facilities
(b) Lack of disaster Management training for medical staff
(c) Loss of medical supplies due to dangerous conditions
(d) Safety of medical staff cannot be assured
6. Which of the following is TRUE about EMRI?

(a) It is run by a philanthropist
(b) It has widespread operations all over India
(c) The government has no Say in its functioning
(d) It is an emergency management service
Directions (Q. 7 - 8):: Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as
used in the passage.
7. Pre-emptive
(a) Widespread (b) Seizing (c) Restrained (d) Preventive
8. Frequency
(a) Sound (b) Habit (c) Recurrence (d) Average
Directions (Q. 9-10):: Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as
used in the passage.
9. Lethargic
(a) Healthy (b) Active (c) Favourable (d) Awake
10. Dismal
(a) Despressing (b) Upset (c) Competent (d) Animated
Direction for questions 11 to 20: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it
certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering ssome
ome of the questions.
Though it is commonplace to say we live in a globalised world, less well understood is that globalisation is
taking place in stages. In the first stage as flows of capital and goods were liberated the benefits of
globalisation e.g., technological
echnological advancements, flowed primarily to the developed world. As we enter the
current newer age of mobility, people have begun to move across borders in great numbers in pursuit of
economic security and a better life for themselves and to keep their families out of poverty. At the turn of
the 20th century the United Nations estimates that approximately three percent of the world
world's population is
on the move, a similar scale to that witnessed in earlier eras. Growing economic inequality together with
natural and man-made crises prompt emigration. But this mobility has the potential to chip away at the vast
inequalities that characterise our time and accelerate.. Progress throughout the developing world. To take an
example, last year migrants sent home $26 $2644 billion triple all international aid combined. The freer
movement of people helps to underwrite health care, education and grass roots entrepreneurship across the
developing world. It helps to oil the global economy. When industrialised nations need to rrecruit nurses or
software programmers developing countries are often the source. Yet rather than look at how these gains
can be harnessed to reduce poverty, governments have been slow to adapt. The result is burgeoning illegal
immigration, and trafficking, social tension and intolerance, loss of faith in the government and the
empowerment of criminal networks. Until a few years ago, migrants were paying exorbitant fees to send
money home losing about 20% in transaction costs. Today though migrants move free freely and easily thanks to
easy access to low cost transport and the internet, affordable and rapidly advancing telephony and satellite
television which keep them in constant touch with home. Banks easily and wirelessly transmit hard won
and sometimes meagre salaries instantly to their families. The flow of people until now mostly benefitted
richer countries and generated worries about brain drain and the violation of migrant rights in poorer ones.
Global for a represent a step in the effort to harness the pow
power of migration to advance development and
increase our knowledge of how to make the migration equation work for all. Rather than focus on the
negative consequences and recriminations of exploitation by developing countries such summits provide an
opportunityity for all nations to come together and address these issues in a comprehensive, logical and
rational way so that the benefits of migration are fully realised in both developing and industrialised
countries. Countries may examine how dual citizenship laws can ease the way for migrants to play a bigger
role in development by bringing their capital, knowledge and networks back home. Such efforts will usher
in the third stage of globalisation where everyone can share in the world
world'ss prosperity.

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CLAT MOCK # 20
11. What does the fact that remittances exceeded international aid illustrate?
1. Migrants misuse concessions granted to them by the countries where they earn their livelihood
2. Migration can be a powerful means to bring about the development of the developing world.
3. The amount of aid from developed countries has decreased significantly
(a) Only 1 (b) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 3 (d) None of these
12. The author's main objective in writing the passage is to

(a) Convince governments to tighten securit
securityy measures to restrict migration and therefore the growth
of criminal networks
(b) Criticise developed countries for unfairly reaping the benefits of globalisation
(c) Provide a history of globalisation and its impact on developed countries
(d) Exhort nations
tions to make a collective effort to ensure migration results in development of all countries
13. Which of the following has not been an impact of globalisation?

(a) Increased job opportunities in developed countries
(b) Facilitation of technological aadvancement
(c) Encouraging movement of citizens away from their native country
(d) Sudden reversal of brain drain
14. What is the objective of international fora on migration?

(a) Create an awareness about the negative aspects of migration
(b) Make thehe right to dual citizenship a fundamental right
(c) Devise practical steps to optimise the benefits of migration
(d) Defuse conflict between the leaders of developing countries
15. Which of the following is an advantage of migration?

(a) Labour costss have diminished
(b) Banks earn high revenues from transaction fees that they graze migrants
(c) Developed countries are no longer forced to provide aid to developing countries
(d) None of these
16. What is/are the outcome/s of governments ignoring tthe issue of migration?
1. Migrants have to face discrimination
2. Governments remain in power since locals do not lose their jobs to migrants
3. Growth of criminal activities like smuggling of human beings
(a) Only 2 (b) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 3 (d) None of these
17. According to the passage, which of the following has not facilitated migrants, access to their native
countries?
(a) Relaxation of internet laws (b) Readily available technology
(c) Advances in telecommunication (d) Affordable means of communication
18. According to the author, why do people migrate?

1. To get very well paid jobs in developed countries
2. To provide for their families
3. To obtain dual citizenship
(a) All 1, 2 and 3 (b) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 (d) Both 2 and 3
19. How does the author, view migration?

(a) As a necessary evil
(b) As a means to reduce economic inequality
(c) As a threat to national security
(d) As an excuse for developed countries to stop aid to impoverished countries
20. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(a) The world is currently in the final stage of globalization
(b) The aim of summits on migration is to curb migration and prevent brain drain
(c) Governments have not fully exploited the potential benefits of migration
(d) Currently reforms are needed as international remittances are marginal

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CLAT MOCK # 20
Direction for questions 21 to 25:: In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the
lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the four answer choices given, to
make the passage complete and coherent (coherent means logically complete and sound).
21. Providing benefits for women on maternity leave and children is a societ
societal
al responsibility which can be
funded in a large country through a combination of general taxation and contributory payments from
those who have the means. Health care should be treated as a right and deliveries handled without cost
to women. ____________. Such a policy would harmonise the varying maternity benefit provisions
found in different laws that govern labour at present.
(a) The income guarantees during the pregnancy period can be ensured through a universal social
insurance system.
(b) Beneficiaries
es covered by the latest amendment must be protected from discrimination through
clear provisions.
(c) Mandating creche facilities to help women workers under the changed law is a forward
forward-looking move.
(d) Women's empowerment can be achieved through unive universal
rsal initiatives, not by imposing
conditionalities to avail benefits.
22. Fringe elements affiliated with the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) have been in the news ever since the
party came to power. Activists who pretend to be associated with the Trinamool Congress in West
Bengal and the Samajwadi Party in Uttar Pradesh too have had their day in the news. _____________.
First, the "fringe" is encouraged by the party as a strategy to appeal to more extreme elements within
the party and to polarise politics. Second, and more specific to the right wing, some believe that these
individuals' provocative actions and remarks are indicative of the government's tacit support for
Hindutva principles.
(a) There are two reasons of the palpable polarization in politics.
(b) There are also local politicians who have misperceived favourable responses or miscalculated the
impacts of their actions.
(c) There are two widely held explanations for such activism.
(d) In our view, this results from a systemic problem with our pol
politics.
23. Traditional pharmacies have been knocking at the doors of the government for some time now as they
face intense competition from ee-pharmacies.
pharmacies. Their profit margins and market share have faced pressure
in recent years from e-pharmacies
pharmacies that ofte
often
n offer medicines at cheaper prices. ______________. The
AIOCD has repeatedly accused ee-pharmacies
pharmacies of a wide range of malpractices, including selling fake
drugs and enabling self-medication.
medication. The organisation has been citing these issues to seek a ban on th
the
sale of drugs online.
(a) While this has improved the accessibility of drugs to a wider population, the concern of traditional
pharmacists too is easy to understand.
(b) The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare proposed the setting up of an ee-portal to track and
regulate the sale of drugs across the retail chain.
(c) The risks associated with ee-pharmacies,
pharmacies, especially when it comes to the dispensation of
prescription drugs without the necessary checks, cannot be taken lightly.
(d) But perhaps the only thinghing clear from the All India Organisation of Chemists and Druggists
(AIOCD)'s demands is its intention to protect the business interests of traditional brick -and-
mortar pharmacies.
24. With the direction of global headwinds remaining uncertain, growth iin n government spending
budgeted to be lower this year compared to last year, and private investment virtually absent, the
lowering GDP numbers should serve as a reality check. ______________. While the government has
vigorously underlined its reform achieve
achievements
ments of the last three years, such as the Goods and Services
Tax that rolls out in July, a mission
mission-mode
mode reforms reboot is urgently needed. And that can only begin if
the problem is suitably acknowledged by policymakers.
(a) While lower inflation and growt
growth
h may soften the RBI's outlook, there is little that monetary policy
alone can do at this juncture to revive animal spirits.
(b) Returning to the 8% growth mark is going to be a big challenge.
(c) In fact, the only reason the 7.1% estimate has held up is b because
ecause growth for the previous quarters
was revised upwards.
(d) Private consumption grew at the slowest pace in five quarters, even as construction and
manufacturing activities dipped sharply.

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CLAT MOCK # 20
25. The United States currently gives an impression of being aatt war with itself. This stems from a series of
charges and countercharges levied against President Donald Trump and his advisers, including that of
collusion with the Russians, who are accused of meddling with the presidential election.
________________. Meanwhile,
eanwhile, the kaleidoscopic nature of the changes taking place in the top echelons
of the new administration is hardly helping matters. The peremptory actions of the President, such as
the dismissal of Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) Director James CComey,
omey, has only aggravated this
situation. Almost every step taken by the new administration is leading to partisan rows.
(a) One of the principal charges against members of the Trump team is that they maintained
improper contact with Russian diplomats.
(b) The media and intelligence agencies are far from impartial in their behaviour.
(c) Several probes have already been launched in this connection.
(d) Barack Obama, Mr. Trump's predecessor, is by contrast credited currently with many more virtues
than at any
y time when he was in office.
Direction for questions 26 to 29:: Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions.
Before the advent of the Internet, legal knowledge was the patrimony of the black -robed professionals.
Gulliver, in one
ne of his later voyages, landed among a people who had a "peculiar cant and jargon of their
own, that no other mortal can understand, and wherein all their laws are written which they take special
care to multiply, whereby they have wholly confounded the v very
ery essence of truth and falsehood, of right
and wrong, so that it takes 30 years to decide whether the field left me by my ancestors for six generations
belongs to me or to a stranger 300 miles off."
It has become essential for an informed citizen to be aacquainted
cquainted with law these days since most social and
economic issues soon get stewed in legal complexities. That is not all. There is a howl of protest from the
executive and the legislature against a perceived trespass by the judiciary. On the other hand, the Supreme
Court last week declared that sky is the limit when it chases justice.
With the information revolution, all laws and regulations, court orders and judgments are now available for
free to everyone, anywhere in the world. One need not physically go to a law library, all of which are still
closed to ordinary people. A litigant can read law regarding his problem before buying legal advice.
Lawyers, like doctors, are facing tough questions because their clients have come after googling many pages
on the subject.
Some coukt rooms are paperless, like two in the Delhi High Court. The high court is aiming at making all of
them e-courts.
courts. Witnesses and people accused can be examined through jail videos. Bihar, plagued by
escapes and encounters, is the pione
pioneer in this field.
26. What is the purpose of the first paragraph?
(a) To establish the complexity of the legal profession
(b) To establish that laws can be used to make a complex mesh of socio
socio-economic
economic issues
(c) To establish that citizens should study the law in case of complex legal cases
(d) To establish that the legal profession is complex and that legal information is freely available
27. It can be inferred that

(a) e-courts
courts can help combat some of the problems that plague brick and mortar cour
courtrooms.
(b) courts need to make their websites more integrated and useruser-friendly.
(c) Bihar has the highest number of jail escapes and encounters in the country.
(d) lawyers are in need of higher qualifications as clients' demands have increased.
28. Which of the following is the most appropriate synonym of the word 'patrimony'?
(a) confused (b) larceny (c) inheritance (d) hallmark
29. Which of the following is the most appropriate synonym of the word 'confounded'?
(a) confused (b) haharassed (c) exasperated (d) offended

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CLAT MOCK # 20
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Passage I
India has deployed its aircraft carrier [X] in the Arabian Sea at a time China and Pakistan are holding a nine-
nine
day mega naval exercise in the region, a move seen as New Delhi sen sending
ding a clear signal to its two
neighbours.
Top officials of the Naval headquarters were on board the aircraft carrier when it was deployed in the
strategic mission earlier this week, military sources told PTI.
Pakistan and China on Monday launched a major drill in the North Arabian Sea with an aim to increase
inter-operability
operability and strategic cooperation between their two navies.
The exercise 'Sea Guardians' is taking place in the midst of heightened tension between India and Pakistan
over the Kashmir issue. Key platforms of both China and Pakistan, including submarines, destroyers and
frigates, are part of the exercise.
Aircraft carrier [X],, with MiG29K fighters on board, has been sent with a strategic objective, the sources said
without elaborating.
A Navy spokesperson
pokesperson said Deputy Chief of Naval Staff M S Pawar reviewed [X] operations in the Arabian
Sea.
The deputy chief was extremely pleased to witness the "intense air operations" with high levels of
motivation and will to win that were evident on
on-board the "Queen of the Battle", the spokesperson said.
He expressed confidence that [X] will "live up to the name and remain victorious in battle - always", the
spokesperson added.
China has been expanding its presence in the North Arabian Sea and is developing Pak
Pakistan's deep water
[Y] port in the region.
[Y] is being connected through the over USD 60 billion China Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) to
China's Xinjiang province, providing a key land route to China to access the warm waters of Arabian Sea.
The Arabian
n Sea provides entry to the Indian Ocean where China has built a logistics base at Djibouti in the
Horn of Africa.
In September, the Indian Navy drove out a Chinese PLA ship from India's Exclusive Economic Zone and
had warned that such activities will be d
dealt with sternly.
30. [X] is a modified Kiev-class
class aircraft carrier and the flagship of the Indian Navy, which entered into
service in 2013. What is [X]?
(a) INS Vikramaditya (b) INS Kawari
(c) INS Arihant (d) INS Virat
31. [Y] is a port city on the south-western

western coast of Balochistan, Pakistan. What is [Y]?
(a) Chabahar (b) VVisakhapatnam (c) Goa (d) Gwadar
32. How many nuclear submarines does India have?

(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18
33. What is the strike range of the Pranash ballistic missile?

(a) 200 km (b) 300 km (c) 400 km (d) 500 km
34. Which is the first missile launched by India?

(a) Agni I (b) Agni II (c) Prithvi I (d) Prithvi II
Passage II
Seen by the courts
ourts as cruelty on bulls, but celebrated in Tamil Nadu as a display of valour, the rural sport of
[X] is an inevitable part of the [Y] season in the State. It is promoted as a tourist attraction by the government
and its appeal as a symbol of Tamil mil culture remains the same year after year. It is only the odd voice that
sees it as a relic of a feudal past. However, one aspect that remains unchanged — through the years in which
the legality of the bull-taming
taming sport was questioned, the event itself banned, and then restored by law — is

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CLAT MOCK # 20
that every season, it leaves a few dead and scores wounded. Often, these wounds are a trauma doctor's
nightmare, given the grievous nature of the bull gore injuries.lt is an event that cries for maximum
regulation. The regulations have been tightened from time to time, and no event takes place without official
permission or medical supervision. The playing arena is protected by double barricades, the entry point and
'collection point', where the bulls are to be taken ba
back
ck by the owners after they leave the arena, are supposed
to have sufficient protective features to minimise incidents that lead to injuries and fatalities. Yet, some have
died in the main events that took place in the last few days; they include bull owne owners, spectators and an
organiser. The victims were mostly gored or stomped upon. Over a hundred are being treated for injuries,
some of which are quite serious, marked by internal ruptures that may have a lasting effect on the victims.
The truth about [X] is that it is well nigh impossible to hold an incident
incident-free
free event. Even conceding that
every sport has an element of the danger of injury, especially contact sports, the distinguishing feature of
events involving animals is that they are driven by th the instinct of self-preservation
preservation and anxiety, and are not
bound by rules and reason the way human participants are.
Inevitably, the human casualty list is higher, even though it has been long argued, and even judicially
determined that [X] constitutes
es a grave violation of animal rights and a perpetration of cruelty on them.
Popular sentiment, political patronage and the cultural instinct to preserve practices that hark back to a
hoary past contribute collectively to the continuance of the sport. Othe
Otherr virtues attributed to it include
giving native breeds a good shot at survival and an opportunity to youth to develop a robust outlook even
while earning rewards. What should ultimately matter, above all, is that any activity that endangers
participant andd onlooker alike should be held under rigorously monitored regulations and restrictions. It is
also time that appropriate protective gear is devised and made mandatory for participants.
35. [X] is a bull taming event practiced in Tamil Nadu
Nadu. What is [X]?
(a) Jallikattu (b) Wangala (c) Nuakhai (d) Nabanna
36. [Y] is the most popular festival of South India. This festival is also known as the harvest festival of
India. What is [Y]?
(a) Pongal (b) Karaga (c) Hampi (d) Ugadi
37. Bharat Natyam is the dance form of which state?

(a) Kerala (b) Karnataka (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh
38. Onam festival is celebrated in which state of India?

(a) Punjab (b) Kerala (c) Gujarat (d) Maharashtra
39. Laho is the dance form of which state?

(a) Sikkhim (b) Meghalaya (c) Manipur (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Passage III
October 16, [X] is an important date for Bengal. The then Viceroy of India, [Y] decided to divide the region
in a way that the western part was home to the Hindu majority area and the eastern pa part for the Muslim
majority.
Bengal was as large as France and had a significantly larger population too. Since 1765, Bengal, Bihar, and
Orissa were a single province in British India. But by the 1900s the province had grown too large to handle
under a single
gle administration. East Bengal, because of isolation and poor communication, had been
neglected in comparison to west Bengal and Bihar. Thus the partition was promoted for administrative
regions.
However, it must be taken into account that Bengalis were o one
ne of the first to benefit in the area of education
under the British Raj. As a result, they were also given better posts in the government. [Y], the architect of
the partition, knew that splitting Bengal, would weaken their influence and divide th the nationalist
movement.
When the announcement was made in July [X],, leaders in Bengal urged the people to boycott British goods.
They wanted to put economic pressure on England. The movement spread like wildfire all over Bengal.
Students forced shopkeeperss to stop selling British goods. They also boycotted government schools and
colleges.
All classes of Bengali people participated in the anti
anti-partition
partition movement. Despite several protest meetings
and campaigns against the proposal, the government remained un unmoved.
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CLAT MOCK # 20
October 16, [X] was a day of national mourning. People fasted and observed a general strike. The song
" Amar Sonar Bangla",, composed by Rabindranath Tagore, was sung by many. Many were seen walking
bare foot to the Ganga singing Vande mataram. Hind
Hindus
us and Muslims tied rakhis on each other's
other hand as a
symbol of unity.
The partition lasted for only about six years. But the result of it proved a thorn in the flesh to the
government. The boycott blossomed into a full fledged swadeshi movement. People felt fe both Boycott and
Swadeshi were inseparable to the anti
anti-partition
partition movement. The products of British industries sold widely in
India caused in a severe blow to Indian handicraft and cottage industries. So, production and sale of
Swadeshi goods was given importance.
mportance. Though the government resorted to a reign of terror to suppress
their anti-partition
partition movement they failed to curb it.
Finally, in 1911, the British Government revoked the partition of Bengal. In 1911, the capital was shifted
from Calcutta to Delhi, east and WWest
est Bengal were reunited. Assam, Bihar and Orissa were separated to
form a new province.
40. In which year partition of Bengal was annulled, value of [X]?
(a) 1910 (b) 1905 (c) 1908 (d) 1915
41. Who was the governor general of India at the time of partition of Bengal, value of [Y]?
(a) Lord Wellesley (b) Lord Minto (c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Hastings
42. Who was the first President of Congress?

(a) W. C. Banerjee (b) Sitaram Kesri
(c) A.O. Hume (d) Dadabhai Naoroji
43. Who was the first Muslim President of Congress?

(a) Abdul Ghaffar Khan (b) Badruddin Tyabji
(c) Aruna Asif Ali (d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
44. Where was Swadeshi movement started?

(a) Punjab (b) Bo
ombay (c) Bengal (d) Madras
M
Passage IV
The [X], an area larger that the US state of Alaska that spans across six Central African countries, is home to
the world'ss second largest tropical rainforest after the [Y]. It risks being left in a fragmented and severely
degraded state due to the growing threat of deforestation carried out to clearr the way for small-holder
small
cultivation and illegal logging, experts warn. If the current trends holds, itit'ss predicted that the entire forest
will be gone by the end of the century.
The [X] lost around 165,000 square kilometres of forest between 2000 and 20 2014,
14, according to a study by
the University of Maryland (UMD) published in the journal Science Advances.. The research indicates that tha
the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC), which holds the largest share of the forest, 60 percent, is home to
the largest deforested area. The dominant force behind rising logging activities in the country, driving more
than 80 per cent of the region'ss tot
total forest loss, is largely down to clearing land for subsistence farming
mostly by hand, using simple axes.
The dominance of small-scalescale deforestation of the Congo rainforest
forest is largely to be attributed to
widespread poverty, which has also led to political instability and conflict in the region.
region As well as the DRC,
the rainforest is shared by Cameroon, the Central African Republic (CAR), Equatorial Guinea, the Republic
of the Congo (RoC) and Gabon. The DRC is home to more people than the other five combined and, along
with the CAR, has a human development index – calculated by combining data on life expectancy, mean of
years of schooling and gross national income per capita – in the bottom 10 per cent in world rankings,
therefore amongst the lowest in the world.
In addition, Central Africa has been plagued with acute levels of violence in the past two decades. Sadly,
hundreds of thousands of refugees have moved through it its forests, stripping vegetation and devastating
wildlife populations. National parks like Virunga in the DRC, home to the endangered mountain gorilla,
have been looted and parkrk staffers slaughtered. Furthermore, the growing refugee camps bordering natural
reserves have contributed to putting pressure on parklands.
45. The [X] is located in Central Africa, in a region known as west equatorial Africa. What is [X]?
(a) Chad Basin (b) Lake Eyre Basin (c) Congo Basin (d) Inndus river
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CLAT MOCK # 20
46. The [Y] in South America is the largest river by discharge volume of water in the world
world. What is [Y]?
(a) Amazon (b) N Neils (c) Thunderbolt (d) Uruguay River
47. Red data book is released by

(a) IUCN (b) SA
AARC (c) UNDP (d) SD
DG
48. The Lahugala Kitulana National Park is located in which country?

(a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) Bhutan (d) Bangladesh
49. Which of the following is a biodiversity hotspot in India?

(a) Eastern Himalayas (b) Eastern Ghats
(c) Western Rajasthan (d) None of the above
Passage V
A few months ago, the Global Hunger Index, reported that India suffers from "serious
serious" hunger, ranked [X]
out of 117 countries, and that just a tenth of children between six to 23 months are fed a minimum
acceptable diet. The urgency around nutrition was Teflected in the Union Finance Minister
Minister's Budget speech,
as she referred to the "unprecedented
unprecedented" scale of developments under the Prime Minister's
Minister Overarching
Scheme for Holistic Nutrition, or POSHAN Abhiyaan, the National Nutrition Mission with efforts to track
the status of 10 crore households.
Plan and allocation
Theree are multiple dimensions of malnutrition that include calorific deficiency, protein hunger and
micronutrient deficiency. An important approach to address nutrition is through agriculture. The Bharatiya
Poshan Krishi Kosh which was launched in 2019 by Mini Minister
ster for Women and Child Development Smriti
Irani, and Microsoft founder Bill Gates is a recent attempt to bridge this gap. Existing schemes can well
address India'ss malnutrition dilemma. However, where are the gaps in addressing this concern? We analyse
Budgetary
udgetary allocation and the expenditure in the previous year to understand more.
First calorific deficiency. The Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme provides a package of
services including supplementary nutrition, nutrition and health educeducation,
ation, health check-ups
check and referral
services addressing children, pregnant and lactating mothers and adolescent girls, key groups to address
community malnutrition, and which also tackle calorific deficiency and beyond. For 2019 2019-20, the allotment
was Rs.27,584.37
7,584.37 crore but revised estimates are Rs.24,954.50 crore, which points to an under utilisation of
resources. The allocation this year is marginally higher, but clearly, the emphasis needs to be on
implementation.
50. What is the rank of India in Global Hunger Index 2019 (value of [X])?
(a) 102 (b) 800 (c) 112 (d) 1114
51. In which year was Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) introduced?
(a) 1965 (b) 19975 (c) 1985 (d) 19993
52. Which of the following works with cal

calcium to build strong bones?
(a) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin C (c) Phosphorus (d) Iron
53. Which of the following metals is a constituent of Vitamin B12?

(a) Iron (b) Magnesium (c) Zinc (d) Cobalt
54. Which of the following has the highest calorific valu

value?
(a) Carbohydrates (b) Fats (c) Proteins (d) Vitamins
Passage VI
The Supreme Court verdict on Monday granting permanent com commission (PC) and command positions for
women officers is a watershed moment and success "against
against stereotypical mindset and attitude,"
attitude, said
Aishwarya Bhati, senior advocate and a counsel representing the officers.
Defence sources said PC had already been g granted
ranted to women officers in many areas and the verdict was for
those who joined the service before it was given. "We respect the court ruling," a senior defence source said.

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CLAT MOCK # 20
"Women
Women have been in the Army since [X], so to deny PC to existing officers and com
command positions to all of
them betrays the constitutional guarantee and also contrary to their demonstrable impeccable service record
for the last 27-28 years," Ms. Bhati said.
Terming it an important milestone in the evolution of women in the armed forces, Ms. Bhati said one
interesting observation by the apex court was "they
they junked the argument of domestic duties, motherhood,
biological requirements of women and will ensure greater gender justice and gender dignity in all walks of
life".
Women are already performing combat roles in the IAF, Ms. Bhati said and added this verdict "will ensure
greater roles commensurate with their individual merit and aptitude
aptitude".
One officer part of the case but did not wish to be identified as she was serving welcomed the judg
judgment but
said they were yet to study the details. "We hope it is implemented quickly," she said.
Army officials declined to comment saying they were yet to study it. A defence source said it
it's a misnomer
to call command positions in general as there were ccriteria and non-criteria
criteria appointments in all arms and
services. Also some criteria appointments were in the field and some were not.
"It is a non-issue.
issue. To get criteria appointments we first had to get PC. That is now settled,
settled," the official said
adding now women officers would get criteria appointments if they meet the requirements. There are four
factors considered while choosing officers for criteria appointments — leadership, performance,
qualification and medical fitness, the official said.
55. In which year Indian Army began inducting women officers, value of [X]?
(a) 1980 (b) 1998 (c) 1985 (d) 1992
56. Who was the first Indian female Air Force pilot?
(a) Avani Chaturvedi (b) Bhawana Kanth
(c) Harita Kaur Deol (d) Suwarna Parasar
57. Who was the first woman Defence

efence Minister of India?
(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Nandini Satpathy (d) Anwara Taimur
58. Who was the first Indian female Navy pilot?

(a) Shivangi (b) Sonam (c) Jahanvi (d) Puja Gupta
59. International Day of Women and Girls in Science is observed ev

every year on?
(a) February 10 (b) February 12 (c) February 11 (d) February 9
Passage VII
World War I began in [X] after the assassination of [Y] and lasted until 1918. During the conflict, Germany,
Austria-Hungary,
Hungary, Bulgaria and the Ottoman Empire (th (thee Central Powers) fought against Great Britain,
France, Russia, Italy, Romania, Japan and the United States (the Allied Powers). Thanks to new military
technologies and the horrors of trench warfare, World War I saw unprecedented levels of carnage and
destruction.
ruction. By the time the war was over and the Allied Powers claimed victory, more than 16 million
people—soldiers and civilians alike—
—were dead.
Tensions had been brewing throughout Europe
Europe—especially
especially in the troubled Balkan region of southeast
Europe—for years
ars before World War I actually broke out.
A number of alliances involving European powers, the Ottoman Empire,, Russia and other parties had
existed for years, but political instability in the Balkans (particularly Bosnia, Serbia and Herzegovina)
threatened to destroy these agreements.
The spark that ignited World War I was struck in Sarajevo, Bosnia, where [Y Y]—heir to the Austro-
Hungarian Empire—was was shot to death along with his wife, Sophie, by the Serbian nationalist Gavrilo
Princip on June 28, [X]. Princip
ncip and other nationalists were struggling to end Austro
Austro-Hungarian rule over
Bosnia and Herzegovina.
The assassination of Franz Ferdinand set off a rapidly escalating chain of events: Austria-Hungary, like
many countries around the world, blamed the Serbian government for the attack and hoped to use the
incident as justification for settling the question of Serbian nationalism once and for all.
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CLAT MOCK # 20
Because mighty Russia
ssia supported Serbia, Austria
Austria-Hungary
Hungary waited to declare war until its leaders received
assurance from German leader Kaiser Wilhelm II that Germany would support their cause. Austro- Austro
Hungarian leaders feared that a Russian intervention would involve Russia
Russia'ss ally, France, and possibly
Great Britain as well.
On July 5, Kaiser Wilhelm secretly pledged his support, giving Austria
Austria-Hungary
Hungary a so-called
so carte blanche,
or "blank check" assurance
ce of Germany
Germany'ss backing in the case of war. The Dual Monarchy of Austria-Austria
Hungary then sent an ultimatum to Serbia, with such harsh terms as to make it almost impossible to accept.
60. In which year World War I begins, value of [X]?
(a) 1920 (b) 1914 (c) 1910 (d) 1918
61. Which leader name had been reeplaced by [Y]?

(a) Paul von Hindenburg (b) Djemal Pasha
(c) Archduke Franz Ferdinand (d) Joseph Joffre
62. Which countries were involved in World War II?

(a) Australia (b) Britain (c) Germany (d) All of these
63. Who was the leader of the Soviet Union during World War II?
(a) Joseph Stalin (b) Franklin Roosevelt
(c) Nikita Khrushchev (d) None of these
64. Which country was not in the Triple Entente in 1914?

(a) Italy (b) Great Britain (c) France (d) None of these
65. What was the first British battle o

of World War 1?
(a) Battle of Verdun (b) Battle of Mons
(c) Battle of Cambrai (d) None of these

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CLAT MOCK # 20
LOGICAL REASONING
Direction for questions 66 to 71:: Each of these questions contains six statements followed by four sets of
combinations of three.
ee. Choose the set in which the statements are most logically related.
66. A. Some pins are made of tin
B. All tin is made of copper
C. All copper is used for pins
D. Some tin is copper
E. Some pins are used for tin
F. Some copper is used for tin
(a) ABC (b) CEF (c) CDA (d) ABE
67. A. An ostrich lays eggs

B. All birds lay eggs
C. Some birds can fly
D. An ostrich cannot fly
E. An ostrich is a bird
F. An ostrich cannot swim
(a) BEA (b) ABE (c) DEC (d) ECB
68. A. Some paper is wood

B. All wood is good
C. All that is good is wood
C. All wood is paper
D. All paper is good
E. Some paper is good
(a) BED (b) BDF (c) FAB (d) FBA
69. A. All bricks are tricks

B. Some tricks are shrieks
C. Some that are shrieks arere bricks
D. Some tricks are not bricks
E. All tricks are shrieks
F. No tricks are shrieks
(a) EAC (b) BCD (c) ABC (d) EDC
70. A. Some sand is band

B. All sandal is band
C. All band is sandal
D. No sand is sandal
E. No band is sand
F. Some band is sandal
(a) BCA (b) AFE (c) DEC (d) CED
71. A. No wife is a life

B. All life is strife
C. Some wife is strife
D. All that is wife is life
E. All wife is strife
F. No wife is strife
(a) BEF (b) FCB (c) ABF (d) BDE
B
Direction for questions 72-73:: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
6 persons are celebrating their birthdays in first 6 months of a year. Only 1 person celebrates between E and
D, who do not celebrate immediate before or immediate after C. C celebrates immediately before F. E
celebrates in the month of March. B celebrates before A, who celebrates neither in June nor immediately
after D.
72. In which month B celebrates her birthday?
(a) January (b) March (c) April (d) February
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CLAT MOCK # 20
73. How many people celebrate their birthdays between F and D?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Direction for questions 74 to 78:: Each of these questions has a statement followed by three assumptions
numbered I, II and III. Consider the statement and the assumptions to decide which of the assumptions
is implicit in the statement.
74. Statement: The residents of the locality wrote a letter to the Corporation requesting to restore normalcy
in the supply of drinking water immediately as the supply at present is just not adequate.
Assumptions:
I. The Corporation may not take any action on the letter.
II. The municipality has enough water to meet the demand.
III. The water supply to the area was adequate in the past.
(a) Only I and III are implicit (b) Only II and III are implicit
(c) Only II is implicit (d) Only III is implicit
75. Statement: We must be prepared to face any eventuality and all the assignments must be completed as
per their schedule—Director
Director tells the Faculty members.
Assumptions:
I. There is possibility of a serious eventuality.
II. Dates are fixed for all the assignments.
III. Faculty members are supposed to complete all the assignments.
(a) Only I is implicit (b) Only III is implicit
(c) None is implicit (d) All are implicit
76. Statement:: The telephone company informed the subscribers through a notificat
notification that those who do
not pay their bills by the due date will be charged penalty for every defaulting day.
Assumptions:
I. Majority of the people may pay their bills by the due date to avoid penalty.
II. The money collected as penalty may set off the lo losses
sses due to delayed payment.
III. People generally pay heed to such notices.
(a) All are implicit (b) I and III are implicit
(c) II and III are implicit (d) None of these
77. Statement:: In view of the recent spurt in sugar prices in the opopen
en market, the government has asked
the dealers to release a vast quantity of imported sugar in the open market.
Assumptions:
I. The dealers will follow the government directive.
II. The sugar prices will come down.
III. The price of indigenous sugar wiwill remain unchanged.
(a) I and II are implicit (b) I and III are implicit
(c) II and III are implicit (d) None is implicit
78. Statement: In the recently held All India Commerce Conference, the session on 'Management of Service
Sector in India'' surprisingly attracted large number of participants and also received a very good media
coverage in the leading newspapers.
Assumptions:
I. People were not expecting such an encouraging response for service sector.
II. Service sector is not managed pro properly in India.
III. Media is always very positive towards service sector.
(a) Only I is implicit (b) I and III are implicit
(c) II and III are implicit (d) All are implicit
Direction for questions 79 & 80:: Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions:
questions
6 persons are born on 3th and 13th of three different months
months- February, September and March. Number of
persons born before Shilpa is equivalent to number of persons born after Raman. Karan was born on 13th
march. Aman was born before Shilpa, but both of them are not born in the same month. Only 2 persons are
born between
een Neetu and Gazal, who was born immediately after Shilpa.
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CLAT MOCK # 20
79. How many people are born between Gazal and Karan?
(a) None (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
80. If Raman is related to Karan also Aman is related to Neetu.. In the same way, Karan is related to?
(a) Gazal (b) Shilpa (c) Neetu (d) Aman
Direction for questions 81 & 82:: Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions:
6 persons P, Q, R, S, T and V travel either on 22rd or 30th of different months, each having exactly 30 days.
There are 2 days on which no person travels. Only 3 persons travel on each particular date.
Number of persons travelling before T is same as that of travelling after R. V travels immediately after P. T
travels on 30th of a month. Both P and V travel in a same month. There are 4 dates for travelling between T
and Q. P travels before T but after Q. No one, travels between V and T. S travels on 30th but not in April.
81. Who travels on 22rd April?
(a) Q (b) R (c) V (d) P
82. Who travels immediately after S?

(a) O (b) R (c) P (d) V
(e) T
Directions for questions 83 to 92:: The given questions are based on the reasoning contained in brief
statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the
question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that it, the response that most accurately and
completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards
implausible, superfluous or incompatible with the passage.
83. The level of blood sugar for many patients suffering from disease Q is slightly higher than the level of
blood sugar in the general population Nonetheless, most medical professionals believe that slightly
increasing blood sugar levels is a successful means by which to treat disease Q.
This apparently contradictory argument can best be resolved by which one of the ffollowing statements?
(a) Blood sugar levels for patients who have been cured of disease Q are virtually identical to the level
of blood sugar found in the general population.
(b) Many of the symptoms associated with severe cases of disease Q have been re recognized in
laboratory animals with experimentally induced high blood pressure, but none of the animals
developed disease Q.
(c) The: movement from inactive to advanced states of disease Q often occurs because the virus that
causes Q flourishes during per
periods
iods when blood sugar levels are slightly low.
(d) The blood sugar level in patients with disease Q fluctuates abnormally in response to changes in
blood chemistry.
84. Science columnist: It is clear why humans have so many diseases in common with cats. Many human
diseases are genetically based, and cats are genetically closer to humans than are any other mammals
except nonhuman primates. Each of the genes identified so far in cats has an exact counterpart in
humans.
Which one of the following if true mo
most weakens the science columnist'ss explanation for the claim that
humans have so many diseases in common with cats?
(a) Cats have built up resistance to many of the disease they have in common with humans.
(b) Most diseases that humans have in common wit with
h cats have no genetic basis.
(c) Cats have more diseases in common with nonhuman primates than with humans.
(d) Many of the diseases human have in common with cats are mild and are rarely diagnosed.
85. Till Nineties, clearly the policy of the governme

governmentnt was guided by the philosophy of socialism. Under its
influence, the government tried to exercise control in every field. But today we hear about
disinvestment and privatization. Hence, there is a clear shift from socialistic principles.
Which one of the following assertions, if true, contradicts the passage mentioned above?
(a) That government is the best government which governs least.
(b) Only enterprise in a free society contributes to the real progress.
(c) Not withstanding the alleged merits of laissez-faire
faire implicit in the passage, lack of effective control
by the state results in the exploitation of many by a few.
(d) The state is guilty of the dereliction of duty.
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CLAT MOCK # 20
86. Soaking dried beans overnight before cooking them reduces cooking time. How However, cooking without
pre-soaking
soaking yields plumper beans. Therefore, when a bean dish dish'ss quality is more important than the
need to cook that dish quickly, beans should not be pre
pre-soaked.
Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument?
(a) Plumper beans enhance the quality of a dish.
(b) There are no dishes whose quality improves with faster cooking.
(c) A dish'ss appearance is as important as its taste.
(d) None of the other ingredients in the dish need to be pre
pre-soaked.
87. For one academic year, all the students at a high school were observed. The aim was to test the
hypothesis that studying more increased a student
student'ss in chances of earning a higher-grade.
higher It turned out
that the students who spent the most time studying did not earn grades as high as did many students
who studied less. Nonetheless, the researchers concluded that the results of the observation supported
the initial hypothesis.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain why the researchers drew the conc conclusion
described above?
(a) The students who spent the most time studying earned higher grades than did some students who
studied for less time than the average.
(b) The students tended to get slightly lower grades as the academic year progressed.
(c) In each course, the more a student studied, the better his or her grade was in that course.
(d) The students who spent the least time studying tended to be students with no more than average
involvement in extracurricular activities.
88. 'China has a higher er literacy rate than India. This is due to the greater efficiency of the Communist
system. Efficiency is sorely lacking in IndiaIndia'ss democratic system. Therefore, democracy is the biggest
obstacle to India'ss achieving 100% literacy.
literacy.'
Which of the following, if true, would directly undermine the above argument?
(a) Inefficiency is equally a problem in democracies and Communist countries.
(b) Communist systems do not respect human rights.
(c) Freedom is more important than literacy.
(d) China is slowly making ng the transition to democracy.
89. 'Utilitarians
Utilitarians believe that the right action is that which produces the most happiness.
happiness.'
Which of the following claims is incompatible with the utilitarian view?
(a) The right thing to do is to make the consequences of our actions as good as possible.
(b) The right thing to do is to do our duty, whatever the consequences.
(c) The right thing to do is to act on a rule which, if followed widely, produces the most happiness.
(d) The right thing to do is to act from motiv
motivations
ations which produce the most happiness.
90. 'Senthil
Senthil goes to Ambala for the first time in his life. On the way from the railway station to his hotel, he
sees twelve people, all of them male. He concludes that there are no women in Ambala. As a matter of
fact, there are many thousands of women in Ambala.
Ambala.'
Which of the following best describes Senthil
Senthil's error?
(a) Senthil was misled by irrelevant details.
(b) Senthil generalised on the basis of insufficient evidence.
(c) Senthil was biased against women
women.
(d) Senthil was bad at counting.
91. 'It
It took many centuries before the countries of Europe could resolve their internal problems of violence
and corruption to become the stable nation
nation-states
states they are. Therefore, it will take many centuries for
India too achieve internal stability.
stability.'
Assuming that the factual claims in the argument above are true, what must be assumed in order for
the conclusion to follow?
(a) Countries everywhere must follow the same paths towards stability.
(b) India is gradually progressing
gressing towards internal stability.
(c) Indian can learn how to achieve stability by studying Europe
Europe's example.
(d) India has no hope of achieving stability in the near future.
92. Yoga has become a very popular exercise, but it may not be for everyone
everyone.. If you are interested in high
energy and fast workouts, yoga may not be the best choice. Therefore, evaluate your fitness
requirement before joining yoga classes.
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CLAT MOCK # 20
This paragraph best supports the statement that:
(a) Yoga is more popular than high energ
energy exercise
(b) Yoga is changing the concept of fitness in various ways
(c) Before opting for Yoga, assess your fitness requirements
(d) Yoga is a holistic fitness regime
Direction for questions 93 to 95:: Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions:
B, J, K, P, Q, R and S got different marks in Mathematics. B got more marks than both R and S. K got less
marks than P but more than R and S. J got more marks than only 2 students. P does not got the highest
marks. R got 63 marks. Student who got third highest marks got 89 marks. B got less marks than K.
93. How many students got less marks than S?
(a) None (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) cannot be determined
94. What may be the possible marks obtained by Q?

(a) 87 (b) 85 (c) 91 (d) 67
95. Which of the following statement(s) is/are definitely true?

(a) S scored least marks.
(b) R scored less than only 1 student.
(c) B scored less than only 2 students.
(d) None of the given options.

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CLAT MOCK # 20
LEGAL REASONING
Passage I
The Supreme Court has observed that a condition in the gift deed that the donee shall not alienate the
subject property is a void condition as per Section 10 of the Trans
Transfer
fer of Property Act.
The issue in this appeal was whether the condition imposed in a gift deed that the donee or his younger
brothers who may be born hereafter have no right to alienate the schedule property in any manner
whatsoever by way of sale, gift mortgage
ortgage or otherwise is void or not. The Trial Court had held that this
condition is void, but the High Court held that it is valid.
The bench comprising Justices Ashok Bhushan and Navin Sinha referred to Section 10 of the Transfer of
Property Act on Condition
ition restraining alienation. It observed:
Section 10 expressly provides that where property is transferred subject to a condition or limitation
absolutely restraining the transferee or any person claiming under him from parting with or disposing of 13
hiss interest in the property, the condition or limitation is void. According to Section 10 any condition
restraining the transferee the right of alienation is void. A plain reading of Section 10 of Transfer of Property
Act makes it clear that the condition iin
n the gift deed dated 05.06.1957 that defendant No. 1 shall not alienate
the property is a void condition.
If a person transfers movable or immovable property with its full ownership and without any consideration
to some other person, then it is called a g
gift.
ift. A gift comprising both existing and future property is void as to
the latter.
It is the duty of the Court to give full effect to every Section of an enactment. We see no difficulty in
reconciling the provisions of Sections 10 and 126. Section 10 embod
embodies
ies the general principle that a transfer of
immovable property may not impose a condition restraining the transferee from alienating the interest
conveyed to him absolutely except in the case of a lease where the condition is for the benefit of the lessor
lessor.
This general provision, in our judgment, applies to all transfers including gifts. Apart from the condition
restraining alienation by a lessee,
ee, there is no other exception.
The Court also reproduced the following observations made in another recent Alla Allahabad HC judgment in
Prem Kali vs. Deputy Director of Consolidation, Sitapur and others, 2016(116) ALR 794: A bare reading of
Sections 10 and 126 of Act, 1882, shows that Section 10 lays down that in a transfer, the condition restraining
alienation, cannott be inserted. Section 126 of Act, 1882 lays down that on happening of certain condition, not
depended on the will of the donor, the gift can be suspended or revoked. Present case is not covered under
Section 126. According to the respondent, gift can be cconditional.
onditional. But there is no question as to whether a
gift can be conditional but the real question is that condition, which has been specifically prohibited under
Section 10 of Act, 1882 can be imposed in the gift or not. There is no reason to hold that ththe condition which
is specifically prohibited under Section 10 of Act, 1882 is not applicable to gift. The transferor of goods
cannot pass a better title than what he himself possesses.
96. Suppose Suresh, who has no child of his own, makes a gift of his hhouse
ouse worth Rs.25 lacs to his nephew
Ramesh. After completing all the legal formalities required for a valid gift, Suresh says to Ramesh that
in case of need Ramesh will provide that house to Suresh for use without any questions. Ramesh does
not react to it.
After one year of this gift, Suresh really needs that house and requests Ramesh to make the house
available to him, but Ramesh refuses to do so.
(a) Ramesh cannot refuse as he got the house without paying any consideration for that
(b) Ramesh cannot refuse se as Suresh is without children
(c) Ramesh can refuse as he has become full owner of the house.
(d) Ramesh can refuse as he himself may be in need of that house.
97. Suppose 'Tarun' has a house which is owned by him. He contracted to purchase a plot of land adjacent
to the said house, but the sale (of the plot of land) in his favour is yet to be completed. He makes a gift
of both the properties (house and land) to 'Krishna Ji'.
Under the aforementioned circumstances, which of the following derivations is correct?
(a) Gift of both the properties is valid
(b) Gift of house is valid, but the gift of the plot of land is void.
(c) Gift of both the properties is void
(d) Gift of house is void, but the gift of the plot of land is valid
98. Joint heirs to a property

perty are called
(a) Co–heirs (b) Successors (c) Coparceners (d) Joint tortfeaser
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CLAT MOCK # 20
99. Suppose 'Deepesh' sells a stolen car to 'Mantu'. 'Mantu' buys it in good faith. As regards the title to car,
which of the following derivations is correct?
(a) The real owner cannot get back the car from 'Mantu'.
(b) 'Mantu' will get no title, as transferor
transferor's (Deepesh's) title was defective.
(c) 'Mantu' will get good title, as he is a bona fide buyer.
(d) 'Mantu' will get good title, as has not committed anany wrong.
100. Manish decides to gift an iphone to Anand on his birthday. Manish meets Anand at CLAT Path and
handovers the iphone to Anand. Manish demands Rs. 20,000 from Anand. Decide:
(a) Manish gifted iphone to Anand
Anand.
(b) Anand received gift from Manis
Manish.
(c) Manish has not gifted the iphone to Anand
Anand.
(d) There exists bailment.
101. A "gift"
gift" is, a transfer of property without consideration or compensation and allows one to transfer his
or her assets or ownership to another without any exchange of money o orr other assets. Which provision
of Transfer of Property Act defines the term "Gift"?
(a) Section 54 (b) Section 84
(c) Section 118 (d) Section 122
Passage II
On 10th January, the Supreme Court declared that access to the internet is protected under Article 19 of the
Constitution.
In response to a plea against the suspension of internet services in Jammu and Kashmir since last August, a
three -judge
judge bench of the Court affirmed that the right to freedom of speech and expression, as guaranteed
to all citizens
tizens under the first section of that article, covers the right to go online. In effect, even if left unsaid,
this would make net access a fundamental right. All Indian citizens shall have right to freedom of speech
and expression. It instructed the govegovernment
rnment for the restoration of internet access to hospitals, educational
institutions and other establishments that provide essential services in the Union territory, but didn't call for
an immediate lifting of the ban
Significance of the Judgement
• This would mark a major advance for a country that has attracted opprobrium from around the world
for the sheer number of internet clampdowns imposed.
• It would also update a crucial aspect of democratic existence to the information age, place India in the
league
eague of progressive jurisdictions, and begin to harmonize our legal outlook with that of the United
Nations Human Rights Council, which upheld net access as a human right in 2016.
• It's clear that nobody's voice should be muzzled, after all, and barring self-expression
expression online amounts
to exactly that.
Other Judgements on Cyber Freedom
• In 2019 the Kerala high court, had ruled that no one should arbitrarily be deprived of web connectivity.
• A Supreme Court ruling in 2017 that accorded privacy the statu
statuss of a fundamental right under Article
21, which assures everyone the right to life and liberty.
Safeguards
• These rights do have "reasonable restrictions" under specified circumstances. The individual freedoms
are granted only so long as they do not vio violate
late the rights of others. Freedom of speech, for example,
must not clash with other imperatives like law and order.
• Hate speech that promotes enmity between different groups is explicitly banned under Section 153A of
the Indian Penal Code.
• As for thee internet, the Court's judgement gave administrations space to restrict its access on the
condition that it's proportionate to the problem identified. While this formulation seems fuzzy and
could provide enough scope for administrations to justify interne
internet snap -offs
offs in various cases, it is still
significant that the rationale used for such actions would be open to judicial scrutiny. In other words, it
cannot be done at an administrator's whim.
The government must formulate clear guidelines on internet sh shutdowns
utdowns that are in consonance with the
Court's ruling, and these should be put out for public discussion. Additionally a limit could be put on how
long such a spell can last.
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CLAT MOCK # 20
102. Kartik says his freedom to speech includes freedom not to speak. Kartik
Kartik's assertion
ssertion is
(a) Wrong
(b) Right
(c) Right because X mayay opt to speak or not to speak
speak.
(d) Wrong because the freedom to speak cannot mean freedom not to speakspeak.
103. Assertion (A): Freedom of Speech is the most important civil liberty of people in a democrat
democratic polity.
Reason (R): State can regulate free speech in the interest of public order.
(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are individuall
individually
y true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
104. Assertion: Every person should have the freedom of speech and expression.
Reason: If a person is stopped from speaking then mankind will lose the truth.
(c) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
A.
(d) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
A.
105. In which of the following cases Kerala High Court held right to access internet as a Fu
Fundamental Right?
(a) Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras
(b) Union of India v. Motion Pictures Association
(c) Faheema Shirin v. State of Kerala
(d) Brandenburg v. Ohio
106. Baba Mogambo, a canadian

anadian citizen was appointed as Editor in a newspaper publishe
published from India. On
May 23, 1994, he came on streets and started shouting against the Indian Democracy. He was took to
prison by policemen and incarcerated for more than 5 days without having proper legal recourse.
When appeared before magistrate, he exercise
exercised
d the fundamental right of speech and expression. Decide
(a) Mr. Mogambo can exercise fundamental right of speech and expression.
(b) Mr. Mogambo is entitled to exercise his fundamental right as he has been living in India from ages
and has acquired naturall citizenship.
(c) Mr. Mogambo is not entitled to exercise the fundamental right.
(d) Mr. Mogambo is not presented before the magistrate within 24 hours, and thus his fundamental
right has been further violated and he must have proper legal recourse.
107. There is a newspaper named Dainik Bharat in which 40% shares are held by a foreign company and
remaining 60% shares are held by Indian company. The Government of India passed legislation limiting
the number of pages in Daink Bharat to 12 and total restric
restriction
tion on publication of any critical news
regarding any legislation passed by the government. Dainik Bharat filed a writ petition in the Supreme
Court claiming violation their fundamental right of freedom of speech and expression. Decide:
(a) There is violation
tion of freedom of speech and expression by the government.
(b) There is no violation of fundamental right as the government is justified in imposing such ban.
(c) Supreme Court has no jurisdiction to decide this case as this shall be decided by the distri
district court
and thereafter appeal may be filed in the Supreme Court.
(d) There is violation of fundamental right as the ban imposed is absolute and unjustified and such
restriction does not amount to reasonable restriction.
Passage III
Stating that no religion
gion advocates the use of loudspeakers for worship, the Allahabad high court has
declined to quash an administrative order barring the use of loudspeakers for azaan at two mosques in
Baddopur and Shahganj villages of UP
UP's Jaunpur district.
"No
No religion prescribes or preaches that prayers are required to be performed through voice amplifiers or by
beating of drums...If there is such a practice, it should not adversely affect the rights of the others, including
that of not being disturbed," the division bench of Justice Pankaj Mithal and Justice VC Dixit said while
dismissing a petition filed by one Masroor Ahmad and a ffellow resident of Jaunpur.
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CLAT MOCK # 20
All minorities, whether based on religion or language shall have the rights to establish and administer
educational institution of their choice. Every person is entitled to freedom of conscience and to profess,
practice and propagate
gate his religion subject to public order, morality and health.
A copy of the order, issued on January 9, was uploaded to the high court court''s website on Monday.
While arriving at its verdict, the division bench harked back to a Supreme Court judgment in a sim
similar case.
In the Church of God (Full Gospel) vs KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association case dating back to 2000,
the apex court had said that freedom to practice and profess a religion under Articles 25 and 26 of the
Constitution were subject to public o order, morality and health.
The division bench dismissed the argument of the petitioners that using loudspeakers to call people out to
join in the azaan at specific times was an essential part of their religion. "The
The fundamental right to religious
freedom under
nder Article 25 (1) of the Constitution is not an absolute right. It is subject to Article 19(1)(a)
(freedom of speech and expression) of the Constitution, and thus both of them have to be read together and
construed harmoniously," the judges said.
The petitioners
itioners had submitted an application to the Jaunpur district administration in March last year,
seeking permission to use loudspeakers in two mo
mosques
sques at Baddopur and Shahganj. On March 7, the circle
officer of Shahganj conducted a spot inspection and stated in his report that the areas in which these two
mosques were located had a mixed population of Hindus and Muslims. The report said if any of these
communities were allowed to use sound aamplifiers,
mplifiers, it could trigger friction between them and create a law-
law
and-order problem.
In a notification issued on June 12, the sub
sub-divisional
divisional magistrate of Shahganj denied permission/renewal of
the licence to use amplifiers and loudspeakers at the two mosq mosques,
ues, citing the likelihood of animosity
between two religious communities in areas with a mixed population.
Referring to that notification, the division bench said, "It
It becomes quite evident that the petitioners have
been refused permission to use a sound
sound-amplifying
amplifying system at the mosques, not only for the inherent reason
of noise pollution but in order to maintain peace and tranquillity.
tranquillity."
The court also mentioned that public awareness about the adverse effects of noise population was generally
low. "People in India do not realise that noise in itself is a sort of pollution. They are not even fully conscious
about its ill effects on health, though some concern is being shown to it in the recent past.
past."
According to a January 2018 order issued by the Yogi Adityanath government, no loudspeaker, public
address system, sound-producing
producing instrument or amplifier can be used in a pu public
blic place without official
permission under Rule 5 of the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000.
108. Assertion (A): All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish
and administer educational institu
institutions of their choice.
Reason (R): Institutions established by the minorities are not entitled to governmental aid and
government is not under an obligation to give aid.
(c) Both A and R are individually
idually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R is individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
109. Md. Umar Akmal wants to establish an educational institution to help the poor persons of his
community and to educate the children of the community. Umar Akmal being a very rich man has no
problem regarding finance for institution. Therefore he applies to State Government to grant him
permission to establish and administer the institution. State Government rejects his ple
plea on ground that
said institution will create communal tension in the proposed area. Umar Akmal has following
remedies:
(a) He should file a civil suit in District Court nearest to his place of stay.
(b) He should file a special leave petition before Supr
Supreme Court of India.
(c) He could file a writ petition either before the High Court or the Supreme Court.
(d) He has no remedy under the law.
110. Aahil, a Muslim sacrifices a cow on Bakra

Bakra–id
id believing it to be a part of his religious rites. However, there
ther was
a law of general prohibition on slaughter of cows. Aahil, was prosecuted for slaughtering cow.
(a) Aahil cannot be prosecuted as killing of cow on BakraBakra–Id Id has the Muslim religious sanction.
(b) Aahil can be prosecuted as the slaughtering of cow hurt hurtss other community's
community religious sentiments.
(c) Aahil can be prosecuted, as the slaughtering of cow is cruelty to animalsanimals.
(d) Aahil can be prosecuted as the state has a right to regulate the freedom of the religion in the
interests of the public order.
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CLAT MOCK # 20
111. Under the Constitution of India, restriction on freedom of religion cannot be placed on the ground of
(a) Social justice (b) Morality (c) Health (d) Public order
112. Amitesh is a final year student in a law college. He is preparing for his final ex exam. There was an old
mosque in the vicinity of his Cogent Boys Hostel. The prayer at that mosque takes place on
loudspeakers each morning. This method of praying has been continuously followed since many years.
It is like a tradition to play prayer on loud speaker in this mosque. Amitesh filed a petition in Supreme
Court for stopping the use of loudspeaker as it was creating nuisance and was against his fundamental
right. Decide
(a) Petition will not succeed as it is right of a community to freely profess h
his
is religion.
(b) Petition will not succeed as the mosque is very old and nobody has not taken any objection since
the beginning.
(c) Petition will succeed as right to religion does not include right to pray using loudspeakers.
(d) Petition will not succeed as individual right is not preferred over right of public at large.
113. According to the passage, in which of the following case the apex court held that freedom to practice
and profess religion under Article 25 and 26 of the Constitution were subject tto
o Public Order, Morality
and Health?
(a) Mukesh Kumar v. State of Uttarakhand
(b) Public Interest Foundation v. Union of India
(c) SR Bommai v. Union of India
(d) Church of God (Full Gospel) in India vv. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association
Passage IV
The students alleged that the men, in their 30s and drunk, groped and dragged girls and performed obscene
acts, while security and Delhi Police personnel stood by like mute spectators. They also alleged that they
were threatened by the intruders, who also made objectionable remarks and used cuss words.
The incident came to light after some students took to Instagram to narrate their ordeal. The accused were
reportedly outside the college when the fest was underway. They gathered outside the gate of the colcollege,
vandalised a car and then broke in. They allegedly jumped over the barricades placed by the college security
staff, outnumbered them and then misbehaved with the women students, police added.
According to the police, a case was registered under IPC ssections 452 (house-trespass
trespass after preparation for
hurt, assault or wrongful restraint), 354 (assault or criminal force to woman with intent to outrage her
modesty), 509 (word, gesture or act intended to insult the modesty of a woman) and 34 (acts done by sseveral
persons in furtherance of common intention).
In Tort, Trespass to land means direct interference with the possession of land without lawful justification.
Trespass could be committed either by a person himself entering the land of another person or doing the
same through some tangible object(s). The occupier of a premise owes a duty of care to all his invitees and visitors.
Assault is an attempt to do a corporeal hurt to another coupled with an apparent present ability and
intention to do that act. Battery
attery is the intentional and direct application of any physical force to the person of
another. Total restraint means complete deprivation of a person
person'ss liberty to move beyond certain limits. If a
person is prevented from going to a particular direction b but
ut is allowed to go elsewhere, it will not amount to
total restraint of a person'ss liberty. False imprisonment is a total restraint of the liberty of a person, for
however short a time, without lawful excuse. There must be a total restraint of the person aand the onus of
proving reasonable cause is on the defendant.
So far, the police have arrested 15 men in the incident. The accused belong to the age group of 18
18-25.
114. Armaan, was sitting on a chair reading Mock 19 of CLAT Path on New Pattern. His friend Badmaash
decided to play a realistic joke on him. Accordingly he pulled the chair from under him, as a result of
which Armaan landed on the floor.
(a) Badmaash'ss act amounts to battery
(b) Badmaash'ss act amounts to assault
(c) Badmaash'ss act amounts to an assault till the time Armaan lands on the floor
(d) Badmaash'ss act amounts to neither because there was no intention
115. Allu Arjun was driving Ferrari down a road heading to her house. As he reached close to his house he
found that a few people led by BBasanti,
asanti, protesting against an unfair law, had blocked the road. There
was no alternate road to his house and hence he was stuck there for around 15 minutes.
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CLAT MOCK # 20
(a) Basanti and his group are liable for having falsely imprisoned Allu Arjun
(b) Basanti and his group
roup are not liable for falsely imprisoning Allu Arjun, since they were exercising
their right to protest
(c) Basanti and his group are not liable for falsely imprisoning Allu Arjun, since they did not totally
restrain the liberty of Allu Arjun
(d) Basanti and his group are not liable for falsely imprisoning Allu Arjun, since 15 minutes is too
short a time.
116. Ajay Bhavgan was suspected of having committed the murder of Bobby Meoul. Chunkey Deshpande, a
policeman who was investigating into Bobby
Bobby's murder,, saw Ajay in a market. He went up to him,
caught hold of his hand and prevented him from going anywhere.
(a) Chunkey is liable for having falsely imprisoned Ajay since to arrest a person a policeman requires
permission from a Magistrate
(b) Chunkey is not liable for having falsely imprisoned Ajay since the restraint was not total
(c) Chunkey is not liable for having falsely imprisoned Ajay since he did not take him to a prison
(d) Chunkey is not liable for having falsely imprisoned Ajay, since for the off offence of murder a
policeman need not take the permission of a Magistrate to arrest
117. Anupam Khera entered Bullet Prakash Prakash'ss park where there was an artificial lake for boating. Anupam
paid Rs.100 for entering the park and has to pay Rs.100 at the time of exit. Anupam waited for 20
minutes for a boat but no boat was available. Anupam came out; however, he denied paying Rs.100 for
exit. Bullet did not allow Anupam to leave the park unless he paid Rs.100 for exit. Anupam sued Bullet
for false imprisonment. Decide:
ecide:
(a) Bullet is guilty of false imprisonment
(b) Bullet is not guilty of false imprisonment
(c) Anupam can lawfully refuse to pay Rs.100 when no boat was available
(d) Anupam can sue Bullet for false imprisonment and even ask for Rs.100 given for ente entering the park
as Bullet'ss services were deficient in the park.
118. Monu Sachan arranged a cocktail party for his friends in his farm house with pleasant gardens and a
swimming pool. The farm is located in Boring Road, Patna. The area of swimming pool wa was, brightly
lit and the pool had adequate enclosures. But one of the guests, in his inebriated condition, strayed into
the area of swimming pool and fell into the pool, and suffered injuries. He filed a suit against Monu
Sachan claiming damages.
(a) Monu Sachan
achan is not liable, because he invited the guests only for the party and not for the
swimming.
(b) Monu Sachan cannot be held responsible for the drinking propensities of his friends.
(c) Monu Sachan as a host would be responsible to take care of guests w when
hen they are in his premises.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
119. The act of unlawfully entering into another

another's property constitutes.
(a) Trespass (b) Restraint (c) Encroachment (d) Appropriation
120. Mr. Andew Anderson purchased a ticket worth Rs. 300 for a drama show which was being performed
in a theatre on the title Macbeth. The drama was very entertaining and actors performed extremely
well. Mr. Anderson loved the show. After the show got over, he decided that he will watch the show
again with the same ticket
icket so he refused to leave the theatre. The owner of the theatre sues David
Anderson for trespass. In this case
case-
(a) He will not succeed since Mr. Anderson had purchased a ticket worth Rs.300.
(b) He will not succeed since Mr. Anderson has a right to remremain
ain wherever he wants to after the show
gets over.
(c) He will succeed since Mr. Anderson
Anderson'ss right to remain in the theatre ends with the show
(d) He will not succeed since Mr. Anderson didndidn't have intention to trespass.
121. Jethalal and Bhidhe bhai are two

wo batch mates who were arguing on the topic, "whether
whether ART bill should
be passed or not".. Jethalal was in favor of the ART bill and Bhidhe bhai was against it. Slowly the
argument converted into altercation. They indulged into verbal fight; meanwhile Jetha
Jethalal threatened
Bhidhe bhai that he would beat him up if Bhidhe bhai didn
didn'tt shut up. Bhidhe bhai got scared filed a suit
for assault.
In this case-

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CLAT MOCK # 20
(a) Bhidhe bhai will succeed as it was an imminent threat from Jethalal.
(b) Bhidhe bhai will not succeed the
there was no immediate threat.
(c) Bhidhe bhai will succeed as he got scared from Jethalal
Jethalal's threat.
(d) None of the above.
Passage V
In what could further add to the fears over National Population Register (NPR) and National Register of
Citizens (NRC), at least three residents of the city have received a notice from the Unique Identification
Authority of India (UIDAI) to prove their citizenship. The Unique Identification Authority of India is a
statutory authority established under the provisions of Aadhaa
Aadhaarr act 2016 by the Govt. of India under the
Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology.
An enquiry has been ordered by the regional office, UIDAI, Hyderabad to ascertain the veracity of the
complaint/allegation". According to the notice, failure to ap
appear
pear in person and produce the documents in
original will be construed that he had no defence against the complaint and the matter would be decided
suo moto. "Accordingly Aadhaar number will be deactivated in terms of Rule 29 of the Aadhaar (enrollment
and update) Regulations 2016."
"If any person is in possession of Aadhaar card without providing sufficient information or by any other
way, they are having powers under Rules 29 and 30 to deactivate his Aadhaar number but they can''t
question nationality of any person. Even at the time of making the Aadhaar card, there is no procedure to
establish my identity. The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) launched a new blue coloured
Aadhaar card or 'Baal Aadhaar' card for children aged below five years. s. For enrolling a child for 'Baal
Aadhaar' card, the child's birth certificate and the Aadhaar card number of one of the parents is required
The Aadhaar Act, 2016 states, "Every resident shall be entitled to obtain an aadhaar number by submitting
his demographic
graphic information and biometric information by undergoing the process of enrolment." The Act
further defines residency as, "An individual who has resided in India for a period or periods amounting in
all to 182 days or more in the 12 months immediately p
preceding
receding the date of application for enrolment."
The Income Tax Act defines an individual as a resident if in a financial year (1 April - 31 March), he has
stayed in India for more than 182 days. On the other hand, under the Aadhaar Act, there are no speci specific
dates defining a year. Aadhaar is slowly becoming mandatory for a number of things e.g. doing banking
transactions above Rs 50,000, getting benefits under government social security, subsidy schemes etc.
122. Suppose, Nora Fatehi comes to India from IrIran on 26th August 2018. She stays in Cogent Girls Hostel,
Patna from 28 August 2018 to 30 November 2018. She goes back to Iran for seven months and later
th th
comes back to Cogent Girls Hostel, Patna on 1st July 2019. She decides on 14th July 2019 to apply for
Aaadhar Card. Decide:
(a) Aadhaar card would be issued as she fulfils the eligibility criterion.
(b) Aaadhar card would not be issued as she does not fulfil the eligibility criterion.
(c) Aadhaar could would not be issued as she is foreigner
(d) Aadhaar
aar card would not be issued as she is from Iran
123. In which of the following cases, Aadhaar Act 2016 was held constitutional?
(a) Sakal Papers (P) Ltd. & Ors. v. Union of India
(b) Justice K.S Puttaswamy v. Union of India
(c) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
(d) Public Interest Foundation v. Union of India
124. Consider the following statements about "Unique

Unique Identification Authority of India"
India :
(i) It is a constitutional body.
(ii) It works under the under the Ministry of Electronics & Information Te
Technology.
chnology.
(iii) It'ss headquarter is in Mumbai.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Only (iii) (d) All of the above
125. As per the passage, who is entitled to obtain an aadhaar number by submitting his demographic
information and biometric information?
(a) An individual who has resided in India for a period or periods amounting in all to 184 days
days.
(b) An individual who has resided in India for a period or periods amounting in all to 182 days
days.
(c) An individual who has resided in India for a period or peri
periods
ods amounting in all to 192 days.
days
(d) An individual who has resided in India for a period or periods amounting in all to 365 days
days.
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CLAT MOCK # 20
126. Suppose, Raj and Riya got married on 14th February 2018. They had also published their aadhaar card
on the wedding card. A girl child was born to them on 14th February 2019. The mother-in-law
mother of Riya
has suggested to her that she should get the birth certificate of the child from the authorities. This
suggestion was neglected by her. Riya and Raj decide to apply for blue aad
aadhaar
haar for their child on 14th
November 2019. Decide:
(a) Blue Aaadhaar would be issued
(b) Blue aadhaar would not be issued
(c) Aadhaar card would be issued
(d) Aaadhar card would not be issued
127. Suppose, Nora Fatehi comes to India from Iran on 26th January 2019. She stays in Cogent Girls Hostel,
Patna from 28th January 2019 to 14th November 2019. She goes back to Iran for two months and later
comes back to Cogent Girls Hostel, Patna on 1st January 2020. She decides on 14th February 2020 to
apply for Aaadhar Card. Decide:
(a) Aadhaar card would be issued
(b) Aaadhar card would not be issued
(c) Aadhaar card would not be issued as she is foreigner
(d) Aadhaar card would not be issued as she is from Iran
Passage VI
The Supreme Court has delivered a sharp rebuke to the government by asking it to adhere to its own stated
policy, articulated on February 25, 2019, on granting permanent commission to women in the Short Service
Commission (SSC). Though women are absorbed into the SSC, they are now denied p permanent commission
in most branches of the Indian Army. More importantly, in furthering the principle of equality and non non-
discrimination enshrined in the Constitution, the Court has at the same time come down heavily on the
stereotypes of women and their physiological features that were consistently put across in the government
government's
submissions to deny equal opportunity to women who fulfil the same criteria their male counterparts do. As
long as society holds strong beliefs about gender roles there will not b
bee change of mindsets, the top court
observed. Indeed, the Court has torn into a number of contradictions inherent in the government's
arguments that gravely weaken its case and expose inherent prejudices. It is a severe blow to sex stereotypes
prevalent in the society and milestone towards women development.
For instance, it was submitted that deployment of women officers was not advisable in conflict zones where
there was "minimal
minimal facility for habitat and hygiene
hygiene".. A reasonable classification having nexus with the object
sought to be achieved is not violative of Article 14 or Article 16 to the
Constitution of India.Yet, the government admitted to the Court that 30% of the total number of women
officers are in fact deputed to conflict areas. In directing th
thee government to grant permanent commission to
those women who opt for it, in 10 branches of the SSC, and by ordering the government to level the playing
field, the Court has forced acknowledgement of the sterling role women have played and continue to play play,
shoulder to shoulder, with their male counterparts, for the security of the nation. In India, we use the word
'Positive Discrimination' which is synonyms to 'Affirmative action' to provide favour to those suffering from
discrimination.
128. According to o the passage, what inference can be drawn towards to submission made by the
government to deny equal opportunity to women who fulfil the same criteria their male counterparts
before the Supreme Court?
(a) Inability to take crucial decisions
decisions.
(b) Increasingg aspects of Female Criminality
Criminality.
(c) Stereotypes
tereotypes of women and their physiological features
features.
(d) Inability to defend themselves
themselves.
129. According to the passage, what will be the possible impact of the Supreme Court judgment allowing
women on granting permanentt commission to women in the Short Service Commission (SSC)?
(a) It is a severe blow to sex stereotypes prevalent in the society and milestone towards educated
women development.
(b) It is a severe blow to sex stereotypes prevalent in the society and milest milestone towards women
development.
(c) It will promote sex stereotypes prevalent in the society
society.
(d) It is a severe blow to interest of transgender in the society and milestone towards women development
development.
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CLAT MOCK # 20
130. Affirmative action implies:
I. Measures taken by thee State to help the socially disadvantaged groups.
II. Positive discrimination.
III. Strict quotas for the socially and educationally backward class in school/college admissions and
jobs.
Which of the above mentioned is true?
(a) I and II only (b) II only (c) I, II and III (d) II and III only
131. Suppose, 'Yash Pandit' is a male teacher in a women

women'ss college, who applied for the post of principal of
that college. His candidature was rejected on the basis of the Government Policy of appointing only
women as Principal of a women
women's college. 'Yash' challenges the policy on the ground of discrimination.
Whether the challenge is sustainable?
(a) Yes because rejection of Yash
Yash'ss candidature amounts to sexual discrimination and deprivation of
opportunity.
(b) No the rejection does not amount to discrimination since it is a reasonable classification possible
under the Constitution.
(c) Yes, because the policy is violative of the guarantee of equality before law under Article 14 of the
Constitution.
(d) No, because
ecause the policy of appointment of only lady Principal in a women
women''s college is a reasonable
classification having a nexus with the object sought to be achieved.
132. Assertion: The reservation of thirty

thirty–three
three percent of seats for women in Parliament and State
Legislature does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Reason: Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty
thirty–three
three per cent of seats they contest to
women candidates without any Constitutional Amendment.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of AA.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
133. State of Hindu Pradesh enacted law, granting out of the ordinary allowanc
allowanceses to the women principals
working in the educational institutes as they were not passably represented in such services. The law is
challenged by the Men principals on the ground that it is violative of article 16(2) of the constitution. A
petition was filed
led in Supreme Court to strike the impugned law. Is impugned law is violative of article
16(2) of the constitution.
(a) Yes, because there cannot be discrimination in general.
(b) No, because there is sound classification.
(c) Yes, because it violative of article 16(2) of the constitution.
(d) No, because women are considered as oppressed section of the society.

Page | 25
CLAT MOCK # 20
QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQ
TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.134–138):
138): Study the given information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A total of x number of students appeared in some competitive exams like CAT, GMAT and NET. The
following diagram shows the number of students who passed these three exams. None of the students failed
in all the exams together.
134. How many students passed in GMAT and NE

NET but failed in CAT?
(a) x/2 (b) x/4
(c) x/6 (d) x/8
135. What is the difference between the number of students who passed in GMAT and the number of
students who passed in CAT? (Note: The number of students who passed in all the tthree exams is 5).
(a) 35 (b) 40
(c) 45 (d) 50
136. How many students passed in exactly one exam, if the number of students who passed in exactly two
exams is 35?
(a) 20 (b) 80
(c) 40 (d) 60
137. The numberer of students who passed in at least two exams is what percent of the total number of
students?
(a) 33.33% (b) 12.24%
(c) 38.88% (d) 42.24%
138. The number of students who passed only NET exam is what percentage more than the number of
students who passed in all the three exams?
(a) 100% (b) 300%
(c) 200% (d) 500%
Directions (Q. 139 – 143): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions?
The following table shows the total number of st students
udents appearing for different examination and the
percentage of students passed in the tier – 1 examination from different states.
CLAT 2019 NIFT 2019 IIT 2019

State
Appearing Pass% Appearing Pass% Appearing Pass%
A 98000 67% 64000 55% 65000 53%
B 74000 55% 76000 68% 78000 74%
C 66000 42% 82000 76% 96000 67%

D 52000 60% 58000 41% 57000 59%
E 85000 52% 90000 53% 42000 48%

Page | 26
CLAT MOCK # 20
139. Total number of students appearing from A and B together is approximately what percentage of total
number of students appearing
aring from D and E together for all the given examination?
(a) 96% (b) 84%
(c) 118% (d) 102%
140. Find the total number of students passed in the CLAT 2019 tier – 1 for all the given states together?
(a) 178560 (b) 209480
(c) 165270 (d) 214530
141. Total number of passed students of IIT 2019 tier – 1 in State A, C and E together is approximately what
percentage more/less than the total number of passed students of NIFT 2019 tier – 1 in State B, D and E
together?
(a) 3% less (b) 8% less
(c) 22% more (d) 8% more
142. Find the ratio between the total number of appearing students of NIFT 2019 to that of CLAT 2019 tier – 1?
(a) 32: 35 (b) 47: 49
(c) 51: 53 (d) 74: 75
143. Find
nd the sum of the total number of students passed the tier – 1 examination from state C of all the
given examination?
(a) 172430 (b) 154360
(c) 218950 (d) 245270
Directions (Q. 144 – 148): Study the following information carefully an

andd answer the given questions?
The following bar graph shows the total train fare of 5 different routes in 3 different years.
4500
2016 2017 2018
4000
3500
3000
2500
2000
1500
1000
500
0
Chennai-Mumbai Delhi-Chennai Kerala-Mumbai Delhi-Patna Chennai
Chennai-Pune
144. Find the difference between the total train fare in the year 2016 to that of 2018 of all the given routes
together?
(a) 2500 (b) 2800
(c) 3200 (d) 3500
145. Find the ratio between the total train fares of Delhi – Chennai to that of Chennai – Pune in all the given
years together?
(a) 67 : 72 (b) 125 : 133
(c) 219 : 221 (d) 83 : 86
146. Total train fares in the year 2017 for the routes of Chennai – Mumbai, Kerala – Mumbai and Chennai –
Pune together is approximately what percentage of total train fares in the year 2016 for the routes of
Delhi – Chennai, Kerala – Mumbai and Delhi – Patna together?
(a) 145% (b) 132%
(c) 123% (d) 106%
Page | 27
CLAT MOCK # 20
147. Find the average train fare in the year 2017 of all the given years together?
(a) 2240 (b) 2820
(c) 3060 (d) 2680
148. Total train fare in the year 2018 of all the given routes together is approximately what percentage
more/less than the total train fare in the year 2017 of all the given routes together?
(a) 15% more (b) 9% more
(c) 20% less (d) 9% less
Direction for questions 149 & 150:

50: Study the given information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Three friends Anurag, Harsh and Amey decided for a boat race on river Thames. All three started from
point A and ended their race at the same point after touching point B. If tthe
he ratio of their boats is 1 : 4 : 7
respectively and the speed of stream is 5 km/hr and is helping them from A to B i.e. flow is from A to B. If
Harsh's boat is 21 km/hr slower than Amey's boat.
149. Ignoring the length of the boats, find how much time aapproximately
pproximately before Amey will reach the
destination (B) than Harsh? (If A to B is 100 km)
(a) 68 minutes (b) 70 minutes
(c) 58 minutes (d) 92 minutes
150. If all three have to reach the point B at the same time, then by how much the speed must be increased
by Anurag & Harsh respectively
respectively?
(a) 18 km/hr, 27 km/hr (b) 42 km/hr, 26 km/hr
(c) 38 km/hr, 21 km/hr (d) 42 km/hr, 21 km/hr

Page | 28

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CLAT MOCK # 20

3. Why do bystanders not help accident victims?

Head Office: Clat Path Building,

6. Which of the following is TRUE about EMRI?

Head Office: Clat Path Building,

12. The author's main objective in writing the passage is to

13. Which of the following has not been an impact of globalisation?

14. What is the objective of international fora on migration?

15. Which of the following is an advantage of migration?

18. According to the author, why do people migrate?

19. How does the author, view migration?

20. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

Head Office: Clat Path Building,

Head Office: Clat Path Building,

27. It can be inferred that

Head Office: Clat Path Building,

31. [Y] is a port city on the south-western

32. How many nuclear submarines does India have?

33. What is the strike range of the Pranash ballistic missile?

34. Which is the first missile launched by India?

Head Office: Clat Path Building,

37. Bharat Natyam is the dance form of which state?

38. Onam festival is celebrated in which state of India?

39. Laho is the dance form of which state?

42. Who was the first President of Congress?

43. Who was the first Muslim President of Congress?

44. Where was Swadeshi movement started?

47. Red data book is released by

48. The Lahugala Kitulana National Park is located in which country?

49. Which of the following is a biodiversity hotspot in India?

52. Which of the following works with cal

53. Which of the following metals is a constituent of Vitamin B12?

54. Which of the following has the highest calorific valu

Head Office: Clat Path Building,

57. Who was the first woman Defence

58. Who was the first Indian female Navy pilot?

59. International Day of Women and Girls in Science is observed ev

61. Which leader name had been reeplaced by [Y]?

62. Which countries were involved in World War II?

64. Which country was not in the Triple Entente in 1914?

65. What was the first British battle o

Head Office: Clat Path Building,

67. A. An ostrich lays eggs

68. A. Some paper is wood

69. A. All bricks are tricks

70. A. Some sand is band

71. A. No wife is a life

82. Who travels immediately after S?

85. Till Nineties, clearly the policy of the governme

94. What may be the possible marks obtained by Q?

95. Which of the following statement(s) is/are definitely true?

Head Office: Clat Path Building,

98. Joint heirs to a property

106. Baba Mogambo, a canadian

110. Aahil, a Muslim sacrifices a cow on Bakra

119. The act of unlawfully entering into another

121. Jethalal and Bhidhe bhai are two

Head Office: Clat Path Building,

124. Consider the following statements about "Unique

131. Suppose, 'Yash Pandit' is a male teacher in a women

132. Assertion: The reservation of thirty

Head Office: Clat Path Building,

134. How many students passed in GMAT and NE

CLAT 2019 NIFT 2019 IIT 2019