Academic Year 2022-23

Pre Board Examination

Subject – Biology (Theory)
Class – XII
Time allowed: 3 hours M.M – 70

General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7
questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3
questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has
to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

Section A

Q1. Transplantation of tissues/organs to save certain patients often fails due to rejection of such tissues/organs
in the patient’s body. Which type of immune response is responsible for such rejection? [1]
a) auto-immune response b) humoral immune response
c) physiological immune response d) cell-mediated immune response

Q2. A biotechnologist wanted to create a colony of E.coli possessing the plasmid pBR322, sensitive to
Tetracycline. Which one of the following restriction sites would he use to ligate a foreign DNA?
[1]
a) Sal I b) Pvu I c) EcoR I d) Hind III

Q3. Animals have innate ability to escape from predation. Select the incorrect example: [1]
a) Colour change in Chameleon b) Enlargement of body by swallowing air in puffer fish
c) Poison fangas of snakes d) Melaninin in moths

Q4. A graph having a lag phase, a phase of acceleration, deceleration and finally asymptote represent the growth
of a population - [1]
a) in a habitat having limited resources. b) that has exceeded the carrying capacity.
c) that has no intrinsic rate of natural increase. d) that is following logistic growth pattern partially.

Q5. Primary sludge is formed -

[1]
a) by the settling of the flocs. b) by the settling of the methanogens on the organic waste.
c) at the end of the secondary treatment. d) by the solids that settle down during the primary treatment.

Q6. In the figure of anatropous ovule given below, choose the correct option for the characteristic distribution of
cells within the typical embryo sac
[1]
 Number of cells at chalazal end Number of cells at micropylar end Number of nuclei left in
central cell
a 3 2 3
b 3 3 2
c 2 3 3
d 2 2 4

Q7. During parturition, a pregnant woman is having prolonged labour pains and child birth has to be fastened. It is
advisable to administer a hormone that can
[1]
a) increase the metabolic rate.
b) release glucose in the blood.
c) stimulate the ovary.
d) activate smooth muscles

Q8. On the ribosome, mRNA binds _________ and two sites in the _________ for subsequent amino acids to bind
to be close enough to each other for the formation of a peptide bond.
[1]
a) between the subunits; on the large subunit. b) to the large subunit; on the small subunit.
c) to the small subunit; on the large subunit. d) to the small subunit; between the subunits

Q9. In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and genotypes are
[1]
a) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 16 b) phenotypes – 9; genotypes – 4
c) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 8 d) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 9.

Q10. Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the new born from certain diseases is of
[1]
a) IgG type b) IgA type c) IgD type d) IgE type.

Q11. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a biotic community is known as
[1]
a) Stratification b) Pyramid c) Divergence d) Zonation

Q12. Which of the following is a hot-spot of biodiversity in India?

[1]
a) Western Ghats b) Indo-gangetic plain c) Eastern Ghats d) Aravalli Hills

Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.

Q13 Assertion: Although geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination involving a pollinating agent, genetically it is
similar to autogamy since the pollen grains come from the same parent.
[1]
Reason: In getionogamy, pollen grains from the anthers of one flower are transferred to the stigma of another
flower borne on the same plant.

Q14. Assertion : A pair of contrasting characters is termed as allele.

[1]
Reason : Only one gene of an allele is expressed in an individual.

Q15. Assertion: Tropical latitudes have greater biological diversity

[1]
Reason: Tropical latitudes in the past were unaffected for millions of years, allowing species to thrive.

Q16. Assertion: bioreactors can be thought of as vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into
specific products, individual enzymes, etc. using microbial plant, animal or human cells.
[1]
Reason: A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired product by providing optimum
growth conditions (temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen).
 Section B
Q17. Distinguish between: [1+1=2]
a) Ovipary and vivipary
b) Oestrous cycle and menstrual cycle

Q18. Justify the statement that vaccination is the application of cell memory. [2]

Q19. Expand VNTR, state its role in DNA finger printing. [2]

Q20. With a suitable example bring out the meaning of the word brood parasitism. How does Ophrys get
pollinated by bees?
[2]

Q21. Why do sons of haemophillic fathers never suffer from haemophillia? [2]
OR
In just four summarized statements bring out the steps taken in the transformation experiment of Griffith.

Section C

Q22. Name one hormone releasing IUD. How do they bring about effective contraception in females? [3]

Q23. After implantation interdigitation of maternal and foetal tissues takes place. Identify the tissues involved and
justify their role. [3]

Q24. Initiation of translation starts with the initiator tRNA reading the start codon. Enumerate the events that
happen there after. [3]

Q25. How and why the bacterium Thermos aquatic is employed in recombinant DNA technology. Explain briefly.
[3]

Q26. Study the given figure below and answer the following question: [3]

a) What are represented on X and Y axis?

b) Identify the coniferous forest and grassland biomes from the above figure.
c) Why is ‘F’ occupying this particular position in the above figure.
OR
Compare the two ecological pyramids of biomass given below and explain the situations in which this is possible.
Construct an ideal pyramid of energy if 1,00,000 joules of sunlight is available.
Q27. While making gobar gas, is there is a need to add inoculum. Why? What role is played by the microbes?
Under which conditions are they most active and effective?
[3]

Q28. In a redesigned experiment of Urey and Miller, the following set up was made. [1+1+1=3]
a) Why would this not yield the same result?
b) Contrast Urey and Miller’s results with the theory of spontaneous generation.
c) What were the end products of Urey and Miller’s experiment?

SECTION-D
Q.No 29 and 30 are case based questions

Q29. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to (iv) given below: [4]
The process of translation requires transfer of genetic information from a polymer of nucleotides to synthesise a
polymer of amino acids. The relationship between the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide and nucleotide
sequence of DNA or mRNA is called genetic code. George Gamow suggested that in order to code for all the 20
amino acids, code should be made up of three nucleotides.

(i) What is a codon?

(ii) Three consecutive bases in the DNA molecule provide the code for each amino acid in a protein molecule.
What is the maximum number of different triplets that could occurs ?
(iii) Listed below are some amino acids and their corresponding mRNA triplets.
Amino acid mRNA triplet
Phenylalanine UUU
Lysine AAG
Arginine CGA
Alanine GCA
Which DNA sequence would be needed to produce the following polypeptide sequence?
Alanine- Arginine- Lysine- Phenylalanine
(iv) A polypeptide is made using synthetic mRNA molecules as shown.
Synthetic mRNA used Polypeptide produced
 UUUAAAUUUAAA Phenylalanine-lysine- phenylalanine-lysine
What are the DNA codes for the amino acids phenylalanine and lysine?

Q30. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to (iv) given below:
[4]
In a study to test a new vaccine against a viral disease, mouse model testing is done. In this process, mice are
vaccinated and their blood samples were tested. Mice developed mild disease symptom. After few days those
mice were again infected with the virus. This time they do not show any disease symptoms. Their blood samples
were tested. Two graphs show antibody concentration for the first and second infection in mice blood.

(i) P and Q in the given graphs indicate ______ and ______ antibody respectively.
(ii) Which class of antibody can cross the placenta from mother to foetus.
(iii) How does vaccination work?
(iv) Which form of pathogen is used in vaccination?

SECTION – E

Q.31. [5]

P i P z y a

Repressor binds to the operator

Repressor region (o) and prevents RNA
mRNA polymerase from transcribing
the genes

Look at the figure above depicting lac operon of E.coli.

a) What could be the series of events when an inducer is present in the medium in which E.coli is growing?
b) Name the Inducer.
OR
a) With the help of three serialised and self descriptive diagrams, represent the process of transcription in
bacteria. The orientations of the DNA strands should be clearly mentioned.
b) E.Coli has 4.6X106bp in its DNA. What is the length of one DNA strand of E.Coli?

Q32. a) Draw a sectional view of the seminiferous tubule, containing all the stages of spermatogenesis.
[2+3=5]
b) With the help of a flow chart represent the actions of all the hormones that help in the process of
spermatogenesis. Start your answer with the hypothalamic hormone.
OR
a) Pointwise enumerate the events that lead to the formation of a diploid zygote from an ovum and a
spermatozoa.
b) Only with a schematic representation bring out the process of oogenesis, starting from oogonia.

Q33. What is genetherapy? Name a disorder that can be cured by this method? Detail the procedure. Why does
the method require repeats? [5]
OR
Name two vectors for cloning, one common in plants and the other in animals. Write their ways of causing cellular
transformation. When will a vector have high copy numbers? What do antibiotic resistant genes serve as?