BACTERIOLOGY POST-TEST

 
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1.      Which of the following bacilli are gram (+), club-shaped, often forming V and L
arrangements seen under the microscope?
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a. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Corynebacterium diptheriae
 
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. Vibrio cholerae

 
2.      Helicobacter pylori can be easily distinguished from campylobacter by…
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a. a positive urease
 
b. a positive oxidase
c. a negative urease
d. a negative oxidase

 
3.      Acinetobacter can be easily differentiated from Pseudomonas by a…
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a. Negative catalase
b. Negative oxidase
c. Negative urease
d. Positive catalase
 
Correct answer
b. Negative oxidase

 
4.      Selective and differential media of choice for the isolation of C. difficile
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a. PPLO
b. BBE
c. CCFA
 
d. EVA

 
5.      The Pseudocel-Cetrimide agar is selective for…
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a. P. aeruginosa
 
b. B. pertussis
c. A. baumannii
d. None of the choices

 
6.      Tinsdale agar is selective and differential for:
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a. Corynebacterium diptheriae
 
b. Campylobacter jejuni
c. Mycoplasma pneumonia
d. Brucella melitensis

 
7.      The following are differential media, EXCEPT…
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a. Blood agar
b. EMB
c. Chocolate agar
 
d. MSA

 
8.      A positive indole test indicates the presence of which bacterial enzymes?
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a. β-galactosidase
b. tryptophanase
 
c. hyaluronidase
d. β-galactoside permease

 
9.      Which organism typically produces “fried-egg” colonies on agar within 1-5 days of
culture from a genital specimen?
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a. Mycoplasma hominis
 
b. Borrelia burgdorferi
c. Leptospira interrogans
d. Treponema pallidum

 
10.      This assay determines if an organism metabolizing pyruvic acid utilizes mixed
acid fermentative pathway and produces acid end products. This test is opposite of
acetoin test:
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a. Methyl red
 
b. Citrate utilization
c. Voges-Proskauer
d. Indole
 
11.      Specimen for isolation of Leptospires;
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a. Saliva and sputum
b. Blood, CSF, urine, tissues
 
c. Stool and urine
d. All

 
12.      A gram(+) cocci, catalase(-), alpha hemolytic, bile solubility negative bacteria
was isolated. What should be your next step?
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a. Perform PYR hydrolysis
b. Perform bile esculin
c. Perform CAMP test
d. Perform Taxo P
 
 
13.      A direct smear from a nasopharyngeal swab stained with Loeffler’s methylene
blue stain showed various letter shapes and metachromatic granules. The most likely
identification is:
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a. Corynebacterium spp.
 
b. Nocardia spp.
c. Listeria spp.
d. Gardnerella spp.

 
14.      A visitor to South America returns with diarrhea, and infection with Vibrio
cholerae is suspected. Select the best media for recovery and identification of this
organism.
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a. MacConkey agar
b. Blood agar
c. TCBS
 
d. Xylose Lysine Desoxycholate agar

 
15.      A positive string test will identify an isolate as…
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a. Haemophilus
b. Vibrio
 
c. Brucella
d. Campylobacter

 
16.      What temperature should the incubator be set for culturing pathogenic
organisms?
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a. +/- 37◦C
 
b. +/- 35◦C
c. +/- 25◦C
d. -4 ◦C

Correct answer
b. +/- 35◦C

 
17.      Swarming of colonies on non-selective media like BAP is characteristic of which
bacteria?
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a. Serratia marcescens
b. Providencia rettgeri
c. Morganella morganii
d. Proteus mirabilis
 
 
18.      Pus with blue green-color was aspirated from empyema. A Gram stain of the
aspirated material showed many WBCs and numerous gram-negative bacilli. The most
likely etiologic agent in this case would be:
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a. Legionella pneumophila
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
 
c. Morganella morganii
d. Acinetobacter anitratus

 
19.      Hydrocupreine hydrochloride (optochin) inhibits the growth of S.
pneumoniae, but not of other streptococci at concentration of:
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a. 5.0 µg
 
b. 0.5 µg
c. 4.0 µg
d. 0.4 µg

 
20.      The Elek test is used to detect toxin production in isolates identified as…
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a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
 
b. Vibrio cholerae
c. Helicobacter pylori
d. Campylobacter jejuni

 
21.      This medium contains 1 part of glucose to 10 parts each of lactose and sucrose
while phenol red serves as pH indicators and ferrous sulfate to detect the formation of
H2S
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a. Triple Sugar Iron (TSI)
 
b. Moeller’s medium
c. MRVP medium
d. Christensens medium

 
22.      Enrichment using alkaline peptone water is performed for better recovery of…
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a. Neisseria gonorrheae
b. Vibrio cholerae
 
c. Yersinia enterocolitica
d. Haemophilus influenzae

 
23.      Skin infection associated with Corynebacterium spp.
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a. Erysipelas
b. Erysipeloid
c. Ecthyma gangrenosum
d. Erythrasma
 
 
24.      A gram-negative, “kidney-“ or “bean-shaped” cellular morphology is a
distinguishing characteristics of members of genus…
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a. Yersinia
b. Corynebacterium
c. Campylobacter
d. Neisseria
 
 
25.      On SSA (Salmonella Shigella Agar) shows: colorless colonies with black centers,
the organism is
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a. Shigella
b. Salmonella
 
c. Edwardsiella
d. Proteus

 
26.      Susceptibility to O/129 disc for the presumptive identification of an oxidase(+),
glucose fermenting gram(-) bacillus as…
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a. Bacillus
b. Corynebacterium
c. Campylobacter
d. Vibrio
 
 
27.      Quality control strain for hot air oven
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a. B. stearothermophilus
b. B. subtilis
c. B. cereus
d. C. perfringens
 
Correct answer
b. B. subtilis

 
28.      The CAMP test is performed on which of the following media?
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a. BHI broth
b. Plain TSA
c. Mueller-Hinton
d. Blood agar
 
 
29.      Assuming that clean-catch midstream urine was processed, which of the
following is indicative of urinary tract infection?
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a.<1,000 CFU/mL
b. >10,000 CFU/mL
c. >1,000 CFU/mL
d. >100,000 CFU/mL
 
 
30.      The “inverted pine tree” in gelatin liquefaction is characteristic of…
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a. B. anthracis
 
b. C. jejuni
c. C. diptheriae
d. L. monocytogenes

Correct answer
d. L. monocytogenes

 
31.      A sheep blood agar plate inoculated with 0.001mL of urine grows 50 colonies
of E. coli. How many colonies per mL of urine should be reported?
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a. 50
b. 500
c. 5,000
d. 50,000
 
 
32.      In TRIC, there is

1.      Meningitis

2.      Pneumonia

3.      Trachoma

4.      Inclusion conjunctivitis

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a. 1, 2
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 3, 4
 
d. 2, 3, 4

 
33.      All of the following paired infections and vectors are correct, EXCEPT:
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a. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever : tick
b. Rickettsial pox : mite
c. Trench fever : lice
d. Epidemic typhus : mite
 
 
34.      Acid-fast staining of a smear prepared from a digested sputum showed slender,
slightly curved, beaded red mycobacterial rods. Growth on Middlebrook 7H10 slants
produced buff-colored microcolonies with a serpentine pattern after 14 days at 37◦C.
Niacin and nitrate reduction tests were positive. What is the most probable presumptive
identification?
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a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
 
b. Mycobacterium ulcerans
c. Mycobacterium kansassi
d. Mycobacterium avium-complex

 
35.      Gram (+) cocci, catalase (-), alpha hemolytic colonies were isolated. What should
be your next test?
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a. Perform PYR hydrolysis
 
b. Perform CAMP test
c. Perform bile esculin
d. Perform Taxo P
Correct answer
d. Perform Taxo P

 
36.      Mycobacteria stained with Zeihl-Neelsen or Kinyoun’s method using a methylene
blue counterstain, are seen microscopically as:
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a. Bright red rods against a blue background
 
b. Bright yellow rods against a yellow background
c. Orange-red rods against a black background
d. Bright blue rods against a pink background

 
37.      The causative agent of type B gastritis
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a. C. jejuni
b. B. cereus
c. H. pylori
 
d. A. baumannii

 
38.      What atmospheric condition is needed to recover Campylobacter spp. from
specimens inoculated onto a Campy-selective agar at 35-37◦C and 42◦C?
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a. 5% O2, 10% CO2, and 85% N2
 
b. 10% O2, 10% CO2, and 80% N2
c. 20% O2, 20% CO2, and 60% N2
d. 20% O2, 5% CO2, and 75% N2

 
39.      Which spore type and location is found on C. tetani?
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a. Round, terminal spores
 
b. Round, subterminal
c. Ovoid, subterminal spores
d. Oval, terminal spores

 
40.      Sputum specimen contamination is directly proportional to the number of
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a. Epithelial cells
 
b. Neutrophils
c. Both
d. Neither

 
1.      A gram-positive spore-forming bacillus growing on blood agar anaerobically
produces a double-zone of hemolysis and is positive for lecithinase. What is the
presumptive identification?
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a. Bacteroides ureolyticus
b. Bacteroides fragilis
c. Clostridium perfringens
 
d. Clostridium difficile

 
1.      Which of the following is the best rapid, non-cultural test to perform
when Gardnerella vaginalis is suspected in a patient with vaginosis?
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a. 10% KOH
 
b. 3% H2O2
c. 30% H2O2
d. All of these

 
1.      The following are reagents used in Gram staining EXCEPT…
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a. Safranin red
b. Iodine
c. Methylene blue
 
d. Acetone-alcohol

 
1.      A double-zone of hemolysis on anaerobic blood agar is typical of…
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a. Mycoplasma pneumonia
b. Clostridium perfringens
 
c. Chlamydia psittasi
d. Borrelia burgdorferi

 
1.      A non-sporeforming, slender gram-positive rod forming palisades and chains was
recovered from a vaginal culture and grew well on tomato juice agar. The most likely
identification is:
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a. Lactobacillus spp.
 
b. Bacillus spp.
c. Neisseria spp.
d. Streptococcus spp.

 
1.      Considered as the most invasive H. influenzae serotype and causes the most
severe infections.
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a. Type A
b. Type C
c. Type B
 
d. Type D

 
1.      Culture on Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) medium of a vaginal swab produced
several colonies of gram-negative diplococci that were catalase and oxidase positive
and superoxol negative. Given the following carbohydrate reactions, select the most
likely identification:

Glucose (+)

Maltose (+)

Sucrose (-)

Fructose (-)

Lactose (+)
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a. N. gonorrhoeae
b. N. secca
c. N. flavescens
d. N. lactamica
 
 
1.      The following human pathogens do not have animal reservoirs, EXCEPT…
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a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Escherichia coli
 
Correct answer
b. Salmonella typhi

 
1.      A gram-positive coccus isolated from a blood culture has the following
characteristics:

This organism is most likely:

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a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A)
d. Streptococcus agalactiae (group B)
 
 
1.      The L-pyrolidonyl-β-naphtylamide (PYR) hydrolysis test is a presumptive test for
which streptococci?
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a. Group A and D (enterococcus) streptococci
 
b. Group A and B beta-hemolytic streptococci
c. Non-group A and B beta-hemolytic streptococci
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Group D streptococci (nonenterococcus)