3 Head, Neck, Back, and Spine Module

APK HEAD, NECK, BACK AND SPINE MODULE
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1. In a third class lever:

a. None of these
b. The weight arm is longer than the force arm
c. The weight arm and force arm are equal
d. The force arm is longer than the weight arm
Answer: B
2. A muscle of facial expression:

a. Digastric c. masseter
b. Temporalis d. platysma
Answer: D
3. The highest content of elastic fiber is found in the ligament:

a. Posterior longitudinal ligament c. anterior longitudinal ligament
b. Ligamentum flavum d. interspinous ligament
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Answer: B
PLL:Connects the posterior vertebral bodies(Inside spinal canal(
ALLL:Connect anterior vertebral bodies
Ligamentum flavum:Connect the lamina of adjacent vertebra Interspinous ligament:In between spinous process
4. This does not describe the 7th rib:

a. Typical rib c. longest rib
b. Has two demifacets on its head d. most oblique rib
Answer: D
1-7 :Attached to costal cartilage
8-10:attached anteriorly to each other
11-12:FLOATING RIBS
9th rib-Most oblique
Typical:Twisted,long,flat bone
having rounded, Smooth
superior border and sharp thin
border Atypical: 1st rib(rib
flattened from above
downward)
5. A shunt muscle:
a. Is exemplified by the biceps and brachialis
b. Generate very little force
c. Will usually have a long lever arm like the brachioradialis
d. Is chiefly rotatory in its effect on moving bone
Answer: C
SHUNT:
O: Near The Joint
I: Far From The Joint
For Stabilizing
Spurt
O: Far From The Joint
I: Near The Joint
For Mobility
Example:
O:Short head coracoid process of

the scapula Long:supraglenoid
tubercle
I:Radial tuberosity(near the elbow joint)
6. This is a movement in the transverse plane:

a. Circumduction c. abduction
b. Lateral flexion d. external rotation
Answer: D
CIRCUMDUCTION:Combination of (Flexion,extension,abduction and adduction)
Lateral flexion and abduction:Frontal plane
7. The axis for subtalar abduction and adduction is:

a. Transverse c. oblique
b. Longitudinal d. vertical
Answer: D
Ratio: Since the question specifically asks for subtalar abduction and adduction, choice D is the best answer.
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Reference: Hunt, G. C., & McPoil, T. G. (1995). Physical therapy of the foot and ankle. New York: Churchill Livingstone.
8. Muscle power is greatest at approximately % of the maximum load:

a. 20 c. 10
b. 30 d. 40
Answer: B
The peak of the muscle power is 30% of maximum load.
9. The most superficial muscle in the posterior trunk:

a. Semi-spinalis c. multifidus muscles
b. Longissimus d. rotation and suboccipital muscles
Answer: B
The muscles of the back are divided into three layers: superficial, intermediate, and deep. The deep layer is further
subdivided into superficial, intermediate, deep, and deepest. See the table below for the muscles found in each specific
layer.
10. Neck side flexion isometric movements is a test for muscles innervated by roots:
a. C3-C4 c. C5-C6
b. C1-C2 d. C4-C5
Answer: A
SCM:C2-C3
SCALENE:C4-C6
11. Facets of thoracic spine are oriented in what plane:

a. Frontal c. horizontal
b. Sagittal d. transverse
Answer: A
Cervical: Perpendicular to sagittal
Thoracic:Frontal
Lumbar:Sagittal
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12. The strongest extensors of the lumbar spine in strengthening up from a forward flexed bending position are
the:
a. Multifidus muscles c. gluteus maximus muscles
b. Hamstring muscles d. latissimus dorsi muscle
Answer: A
gluteus maximus muscles-Strongest hip extensor
latissimus dorsi muscle-Crutch walking muscle
13. Posterior border of the posterior triangle of the neck:

a. Trapezius c. splenius capitis
b. Sternocleidomastoid d. latissimus dorsi
Answer: A
POST TRIANGLE:
ANTERIOR:SCM
POSTERIOR:Trapezius
BASE:MID 1/3 clavicle
ANT TRIANGLE:
ANTERIOR: Medial Neck Line
POSTERIOR:SCM
BASE:Mandible
14. Flexion-extension of the thoracic spine totals how much?

a. 30 degrees c. 15 degrees
b. 60 degrees d. 40 degrees
Answer: A
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Reference: Trefler, E. (1993). Seating and mobility for persons with physical disabilities. Tucson, Ariz: Therapy Skill
Builders.
15. The bandage muscle, wrapping around other neck muscles:

a. Sternocleidomastoid c. splenius
b. Trapezius d. serratus anterior
Answer: C
16. The swaying of the arms when walking occurs around this axis:
a. Anteroposterior/horizontal c. sagittal
b. Vertical d. frontal
Answer: D
AXIS X Y Z
MEDIOLATERAL/CORONAL
PLANE SAGITTAL(YZ) TRANSVERSE/HORIZONTAL(XZ) FRONTAL/CORONAL(XY)
ACTIONS FLEXION,EXTENSION, ROTATION ABDUCTION,ADDUCTION
DF,AND PF RU, UD, LATERAL
FLEXION
17. The superficial group of the muscles of the back includes:

a. Serratus posterior c. longissimus
b. Levator scapulae d. splenius capitis
Answer: B
Deep muscle of the back may be classified as
Superficial:
ERECTOR SPINAE:
Iliocostalis
Longgisimus
Spinalis
Transversospinalis
Semi spinalis
Multifidus
Rotatores
Connected with the shoulder girdle
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18. Expulsive form of cough requires which of the following muscle to contract most forcefully:
a. Sternocleidomastoid c. diaphragm
b. Abdominals d. scalene
Answer: B
During coughing the muscles responsible for forceful expiration are required to contract.
Muscles for forceful expiration:
Abdominals
19. In lowering yourself to a chair from standing to sitting, the quadriceps are doing:
a. Isometric contraction c. positive work
b. Eccentric contraction d. concentric contraction
Answer: B
Eccentric contraction of the quadriceps is needed during the activity to control the movement.
20. The plane of progression during ambulation:

a. The horizontal plane c. the sagittal plane
b. The frontal plane d. the vertical plane
Answer: C
During ambulation flexion and extension of the hip happens at the sagittal plane.
21. A facet oriented in the sagittal plane allows what motion?

a. Gliding
b. Flexion-extension
c. lateral flexion
d. rotation
Answer: B
Ratio: Meanwhile, a facet oriented in the HORIZONTAL OR TRANSVERSE PLANE allows LATERAL FLEXION AND
ROTATION.
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Reference: Lawrence, P. F., & Goldman, M. H. (1993). Essentials of surgical specialties, oral examinations. Baltimore:
Williams & Wilkins.
22. Point at the root of the nose where the frontonasal suture crosses the median plane:
a. Nasion c. lambda
b. Nasal septum d. bregma
Answer: A
BREGMA- the midline bony landmark where the coronal and sagittal sutures meet, between the frontal and two parietal
bones.
LAMBDA-The occipital angle is rounded and corresponds with the point of meeting of the sagittal and the lambdoid
suture.
NASAL SEPTUM-Separates the left and right airways of the nasal cavity, dividing the two nostrils
23. If the motor root of the trigeminal nerve is injured, paralysis occurs in:
a. Buccinator c. tensor tympani
b. All of these d. posterior belly of digastric muscles
Answer: C
TRIGEMINAL NERVE
Sensation from face
Sensation from cornea
Sensation from tongue
Muscle of mastication
DAMPENS SOUN(TENSOR TYMPANI)
24. Intervertebral discs are located between vertebral bodies from:

a. C1 to S1 c. C2 to L5
b. C1 to L5 d. C2 to S1
Answer: D
The thickest IV disc is at the cervical and lumbar since most of movement at the spine happens at the cervical
and lumbar level.
25. The external jugular vein is found at the:

a. Submandibular triangle c. anterior triangle of the neck
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b. Posterior triangle of the neck d. carotid triangle

Answer: B
Formed by the retromandibular and posterior auricular veins, the external jugular vein lies superficially, entering the
posterior triangle after crossing the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Within the posterior triangle, the external jugular vein
pierces the investing layer of fascia and empties into the subclavian vein.
Reference: https://teachmeanatomy.info/neck/areas/posterior-triangle/
Additional notes: The neck is divided into anterior and posterior triangles. The anterior triangle is further subdivided into
submandibular, submental, muscular, and carotid triangles; whereas the posterior triangle is further subdivided into
occipital and supraclavicular triangles.
26. The following statements are true of the Closed Kinematic Chain, EXCEPT:
a. Stair climbing is an alternating closed-chain motion during the support phase of the extremity
b. The distal segment of the chain move sin space
c. All segments are required to move in the movement of one segment
d. The distal segment is fixed and proximal parts move
Answer: B
The distal segment of the chain move sin space
27. When applied, third class lever, the most common found in the human body can be:
a. All of these
b. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage
c. Levers that operate at a mechanical disadvantage but one of speed
d. Levers of stability and speed
Answer: C
LEVER 1:Stability/Balance
LEVER 2:Power
LEVER 3:Speed
28. Rotation around the vertical axis occur in this plane, and divides the body into upper and lower parts:
a. Horizontal plane c. None of these
b. Sagittal plane d. Frontal plane
Answer: A
Horizontal plane /transverse plane: Divides the body into
upper and lower.
Sagittal plane:Divides the body into right and left.
Frontal:Divides the body into anterior and posterior.
29. Nerve supply to sternocleidomastoid:
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a. Dorsal occipital nerve c. Greater occipital nerve

b. Lesser occipital nerve d. Spinal accessory nerve
Answer: D
GREATER OCCIPITAL NERVE
SKIN,POST SCALP,OCCIPUT,TEMPORAL,VERTEX
LESSER OCCIPITAL NERVE
SCALP,LATERAL AREA OF HEAD AND POSTERIOR OF EAC
30. Muscles achieve its greatest strength when muscles contract in the elongated position, and as the muscles
shorten, torque decreased:
a. First statement is true, second is false c. Both statement are false
b. First statement is false, second statement is true d. Both statements are true
Answer: D
The elongated position is optimal position to produce the greatest strength.
31. When a muscle contracts to eliminate some undesired movement that would otherwise be produced by the
prime mover, it is said to be a
a. Antagonist c. Synergist
b. Prime Mover d. Fixators
Answer: C
Antagonist-Produce the action opposite to the action produced by prime mover.
Prime mover-
Fixator-stabilizer
32. The line of fusion between the External Oblique is called:

a. Linea Alba c. None of these
b. Inguinal Ligament of Poupart d. Aponeurosis
Answer: A
LINEA ALBA
Connects the right and left obliques
Attachment: Xiphoid process
INGUINAL
LIGAMENT
Attached from ASIS to pubic tubercle
33. This muscle is innervated by the facial nerve:

a. Risorius c. Frontalis
b. Masseter d. Mentalis
Answer: B
Masseter is supplied by trigeminal nerve
34. By placing the finger just under the zygomatic arch and over the ramus of the mandible, the superficial part of
this muscle may be palpated when the subject bites down:
a. Medial Pterygoid c. Temporalis
b. Masseter d. None of these
Answer: B
The DEEP PART OF THE MASSETER can be palpated by placing a gloved index finger inside the mouth between the
teeth and the cheek, then having the subject bite down gently.
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Reference: Houglum, P. A., Bertoti, D., & Brunnstrom, S. (2012). Brunnstrom's clinical kinesiology. Philadelphia: F.A.
Davis.
35. The innermost muscle of the abdominal wall and encloses the abdominal cavity like a corset:
a. External Abdominal Oblique c. Internal Abdominal Oblique
b. Transverse Abdominis d. Rectus Abdominis
Answer: B
Trapezius:Shawl muscle
Splenius:Bandage muscle
Latissimus dorsi:Crutch walking muscle
36. Which of the following muscles are innervated by the fifth cranial nerve and close the jaw:
a. Medial pterygoid c. Temporalis
b. All of these d. Masseter
Answer: B
5TH CRANIAL NERVE(MANDIBULAR BRANCH):
Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid
Temporalis
Masseter
37. The posterior triangle of the neck is bounded by:

a. The Scalenes, Levator Scapulae, and Splenius c. None of these
b. Splenius Capitis, Sternohyoid and clavicle d. The sternomastoid, anterior border of Trapezius, and the
clavicle
Answer: D
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38. When all the body parts move in the same direction with equal velocity, the movement is termed as:
a. Translatory Motion c. Parallel Motion
b. Rotary Motion d. Angular Motion
Answer: A
Linear/ Translatory motion:Motion that occurs along or parallel to an axis
Curvilinear: Curved path
Rotatory or Angular motion: Occurs around an axis(example ceiling fan)
Periodic motion: Mortion repeated in equal intervals of time(example: Grandfather clock)
39. This muscle draws the mandible forward and toward the midline:
a. Pterygoid c. Masseter
b. Temporalis d. Orbicularis oris
Answer: A
Pterygoids-Protrusion,LD
Temporalis
ANT & SUP:CLOSING OF MOUTH
POST:RETRUSION
MASSETER:CLOSING OF MOUTH
ORBICULARIS ORIS:COMPRES LIPS TOGETHER
40. The first to seventh ribs attached to sternum, the 8th to 10th ribs are joined by cartilage; 11th and 12th ribs
have free ends:
a. All statements are true
b. All statements are false
c. Last statement is true, first two statements are false
d. First two statements are true, last statement is false
Answer: A
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RED-8TH-10TH
GREEN-11TH AND 12TH
41. This structures pass through transverse foramen:

a. Spinal column arteries c. Cervical nerve plexus
b. None of these d. Vertebral arteries
Answer: D
Structures passing through transverse foramen:
Vertebral Artery
Vertebral vein
Symphathetic nerve
42. Motor nerve to the muscles of mastication:

a. Facial nerve c. Spinal accessory nerve
b. Trigeminal nerve d. Vagus nerve
Answer: B
Muscle responsible for muscle mastication
Temporalis
Pterygoids
Masseter
43. In an open-packed or loose packed position, EXCEPT:

a. The ligamentous and capsular structures are slack
b. The ovoid joint surfaces are incongruent
c. Allows spinning, rolling and sliding, thereby increasing joint friction
d. Joint surfaces may be distracted several millimeters
Answer: C
Open-packed positions allow the necessary motions of spin, roll, and slide typically with an increase in accessory
movements and decreased joint friction.
44. This type of joint is formed by the talus and tibia:

a. Pivot c. Hinge
b. Saddle d. Ball and Socket
Answer: C
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PIVOT:
RADIO-ULNAR JOINT
ATLANTO AXIAL
SADDLE
1ST CMC
SC JOINT
BALL AND SOCKET
GH JOINT
HIP JOINT
45. These muscles separate the neck into the posterior and anterior triangle. It is also protects the great vascular
and nerve trunks:
a. Sternocleidomastoid c. Levator Scapulae
b. Sternothyroid d. Scalenes
Answer: A
46. The height of this specific vertebrae may be used to determine the corresponding landmark:
a. All of these
b. T10 body - tip of the xiphoid process
c. S2 - height of posterior superior iliac spines
d. L4 spinous process - level with the highest portion of the crest of the ilium
Answer: A
T2-Superior angle of scapula
T3-Spine of scapula
T7-Inferior angle of scapula
L5-Tubercle iliac crest
S2-SI joint/Posterior superior iliac spine
47. This opening is a triangular-shaped defect in the external oblique aponeurosis that lies above and medial to
the public tubercle:
a. Cremasteric Ring c. Femoral Ring
b. Superficial Inguinal Ring d. External Spermatic Fascia
Answer: B
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Reference: Snell, R. S. (1986). Clinical anatomy for medical students. Boston: Little, Brown.
48. The following extraocular muscles are supplied by cranial nerve III, EXCEPT:
a. Inferior rectus c. Superior rectus
b. Inferior oblique d. Superior oblique
Answer: D
Superior oblique is supplied by CN IV
Deep Inguinal ring: Is an oval opening in the fascia of transversalis lies above inguinal ligament
Superficial Inguinal Ring:. This opening is a triangular-shaped defect in the external oblique aponeurosis that lies
above and medial to the public tubercle:
49. This muscle can be palpated by placing the fingers over the temporal fossa. This muscle contracts as the
subject bites down:
a. Temporalis c. Medial Pterygoid
b. None of these d. Masseter
Answer: A
TEMPORALIS:This muscle can be palpated by placing the fingers over the temporal fossa. This muscle
contracts as the subject bites down
MASSETER: To palpate the superficial part of the muscle, place the index finger just under the zygomatic
arch and over the ramus of the mandible and then ask the subject to bite down.
MEDIAL PTERYGOID: The medial pterygoid may be palpated extraorally by placing the index finger just
superior to the ramus at the level of the mandibular angle and having the subject gently close the jaw.
50. As the Brachialis extends a flexed elbow by slowing the movement of extension which is performed by gravity,
this muscle acts as a:
a. Fixators c. Antagonist
b. Prime mover d. Synergist
Answer: B
1. BRACHIALIS:ECCENTRIC
*During eccentric contraction the action produced by gravity is greater than the
movement produced by the contraction of brachialis
Red arrow: Movement produced by the contraction of brachialis.
Brown arrow: During eccentric contraction the movement is producee by pull of gravity.
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2.BRACHIALIS:CONCENTRIC
*During CONCENTRIC contraction the action produced by contraction of muscle is greater
than the movement produced by the pull of gravity.
Red arrow: Movement produced by the contraction of brachialis.
Brown arrow: During eccentric contraction the movement is produced by pull of gravity
51. Flexion and extension occurs in this plane, and divides the body into right and left sides:
a. Frontal Plane c. Sagittal Plane
b. Horizontal Plane d. None of these
Answer: C
Horizontal plane /transverse plane: Divides the body into upper and lower.
Sagittal plane: Divides the body into right and left.
Frontal: Divides the body into anterior and posterior.
52. The following structure is a modified skin that lines not only the inner surfaces of the lids but also reflected on
to the eyeball:
a. Lacrimal c. Conjunctiva
b. Tarsal Gland d. Canaliculus
Answer: C
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Reference: Basmajian, J. V. (1976). Primary anatomy. Baltimore: Williams & Wilkins.
53. This ligament of the vertebral column is a series of 23 intersegmental ligaments that connect the lamina of
two adjacent vertebrae from C-2 to the sacrum:
a. Supraspinous ligament c. Ligamentum flavum
b. Intertransverse ligament d. Interspinous ligament
Answer: C
PLL: Connects the posterior vertebral bodies(Inside spinal canal(
ALL: Connect anterior vertebral bodies
Ligamentum flavum: Connect the lamina
of adjacent vertebra
Interspinous ligament: In between spinous
process
Intertransverse: In between transverse
process
54. The thoracolumbar fascia provides humans the ability to lift heavy weights overhead; it also stabilizes the trunk
for throwing objects with high velocities:
a. Both statements are false c. First statement is true, second statement is false
b. Both statements are true d. First statement is false, second statement is true
Answer: B
Anterior layer:Attaches to the transverse process of lumbar v.
Middle Layer: Composed of strong,transverse fibers ,attaching to the lumbar transverse process,12th rib and
transverse abdominis.
Posterior Layer: Covers back attaches to spinous process and the supraspinous ligament.
55. This specialized joint of the craniovertebral area are formed by one centrally located articulation and two facet
whose axis of motion is vertical through the dens, accounting for 50 % of rotation in the cervical area:
a. None of these c. Cervical vertebral articulation
b. Atlanto-occipital joint d. Atlanto-axial joint
Answer: D
Antlanto-Occipital
FLEXION-EXTENSION
CONDYLOID
Atlanto-Axial
ROTATION
PIVOT
56. In this class of lever, force is applied at one end of the lever arm; the weight to be moved is at the other, and
the fulcrum is at some point intermediate between the two, as exemplified by a see-saw:
a. Second class lever c. None of these
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b. First class lever d. Third class lever

Answer: B
F-----------0 -------- W
F=Force
0=Fulcrum
W= Weight
57. When applied, first class levers can be:

a. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage
b. Levers that operate at a mechanical disadvantage but one of speed
c. All of these
d. Levers of stability and speed
Answer: D
ocean=weight
force=movement produced by the old man
fulcrum=The one that connects the paddle to the boat
LEVER 1
F-----------0 -------- W
F=Force
0=Fulcrum
W= Weight
PICTURE:OLD MAN------CONNECTION-----WATER
OLD MAN:FORCE
CONNECTION:FULCRUM
WATER:RESISTANCE
58. Characteristic of isometric contraction:

a. All of these c. Change in muscle tension
b. Performs work d. Change in muscle length
Answer: C
ISOMETRIC:Producing pulling force while maintaining a CONSTANT LENGTH.
ISOTONIC-SAME TENSION
ISOKINETIC-CONSTANT RATE OF MOVEMENT
59. If two forces are pulling from the same point:

a. The resultant force reaches a maximum when the forces are on the same line and acting in opposite direction
b. The resultant force is the sum of the two forces
c. The resultant force is the diagonal of the parallelogram
d. The resultant force increase as the angle between the two forces decreases
Answer: C
A parallelogram is made up of two vector forcers, and their resultant force demonstrates graphically how two force
vectors acting on one point creates a resultant vector force. If 2 forces are pulling from the same point, the resultant
force can be found graphically by constructing a parallelogram.
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60. A synovial joint possess which distinguishing feature/s:

a. A potential cavity
b. A capsule of fibrous tissue line with synovial membrane
c. A lubricated articular cartilage
d. All of these
Answer: D
ARTICULAR DISC
CARTILAGE
JOINT CAPSULE
SYNOVIAL FLUID
FOUND ASSOCIATED WITH SYNOVIAL JOINT
61. Functional of ligaments include:

a. Protect or hold in position some more important structure usually a nerve
b. Prohibits movements in undesired plane
c. All of these
d. Limit the range or extent of normal movement
Answer: C
The varieties of movement that it is possible to perform at any given joint depend on two factors:
*The shape or configuration of the articulating surfaces
*The presence of restraining ligaments
62. Unilateral contraction of this muscle combines rotation of the head to the opposite side, lateral flexion to the
same side, and head and cervical vertebrae extension:
a. Scalenes c. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Erector Spinae d. Longus Capitis and Longus Colli
Answer: C
Reference: Brunnstrom's clinical kinesiology. (1994). Philadelphia, PA: F.A. Davis
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63. Synovial joints have the most complex structure and permit maximus mobility, and include:
a. All of these c. Joint capsule e. Synovial membrane and cavity
b. None of these d. Articular cartilage
Answer: A
MATERIALS ASSOCIATED WITH LIGAMENTS:
Articular disc
Cartilage
Joint Capsule
Synovial fluid
Found associated with synovial joint
64. The following statements apply to the scalene muscles, EXCEPT:

a. Extends the cervical spine with bilateral contraction
b. Produce lateral flexion and rotation to the same side with unilateral contraction
c. Increases cervical lordotic curve with bilateral contraction in the absence of longus colli
d. Elevate the first and second ribs when the cervical spine is stabilized
Answer: A
Ratio: The scalene muscles FLEX THE CERVICAL SPINE with bilateral contraction.
Reference: Brunnstrom's clinical kinesiology. (1994). Philadelphia, PA: F.A. Davis.
65. This ligament of the vertebral bodies limits backward bending, and supports the anterior convexity in the
lumbosacral area.
a. Lateral longitudinal ligament
b. Medial longitudinal ligament
c. Anterior longitudinal ligament
d. Posterior longitudinal ligament
Answer: C
PLL: Connects the posterior vertebral bodies(Inside spinal canal
ALL: Connect anterior vertebral bodies
Ligamentum flavum: Connect the lamina of adjacent vertebra
Interspinous ligament: In between spinous process
Intertransverse: In between transverse process
67. Example of syndesmosis:

a. Tarsals articulating with each other c. Talus articulating with calcaneus bone
b. Tibia articulating with fibula in the ankle d. Fibula articulating with tibia in the knee
Answer: B
Distal tibiofibular joint
syndesmosis jt
Syndesmosis joint is only for stabilization
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68. Two forces whose points of application occur on opposite sides of an axis and in opposite direction to produce
rotation of the body:
a. Isometric Torque c. Force couple
b. Antagonists d. Isokinetic Torque
Answer: C
UPWARD ROTATION OF SCAPULA:

Lower trapezius: The direction of pull is downward
Upper trapezius and SA: The direction of pull is downward
The contraction of the 3 muscles will
produce UR of scapula.
69. The muscle mastication:

a. Temporalis, Masseter, Medial Pterygoid and Lateral Pterygoid
b. Lateral Pterygoid, Medial Pterygoid, Stylohyoid and Mylohyoids
c. None of these
d. Temporalis, Masseter, Mylohyoid and Digastrics
Answer: A
TEMPORALIS:
-POSTERIOR:RETRUSION
-ANTERIOR:CLOSING
-SUPERIOR:CLOSING
INTERNAL PTERYGOIDS: CLOSING ,PROTRUSION
MASSETER:CLOSING,PROTRUSION
EXTERNAL PTERYGOIDS:OPENING PROTRUSION
70. A fibrous type of joint that tightly connects the articular surfaces of two bones but permits minimal movement:
a. Syndesmosis c. None of these e. Sutures
b. Cartilaginous d. Synovial
Answer: A
Syndesmosis joint is only for stabilization.
Example:Distal tibifibular joint
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71. This type of contraction stabilizes joints and produces force with no gross change in the joint angle:
a. Eccentric c. Isometric
b. Concentric d. Isokinetic
Answer: C
Concentric:Shortening of muscle
Eccentric: Lengthening of muscle
72. When muscle contracts to oppose and so regulate the speed and power of another prime mover its is said to
be a:
a. Prime mover c. Synergist
b. Antagonist d. Fixators
Answer: B
Reference: Basmajian, J. V. (1998). Primary anatomy. Champain, Ill: Stipes Pub. L.L.C.
73. Which of the following is true of the Atlanto-Occipital joints:

a. All of these
b. The anterior and posterior aches of the atlas are united to the margins of the foreman magnum
c. These are bi- axial, synovial paired joints
d. Nodding
Answer: A
All of the above statements are true. See the photo below for reference.
Reference: Basmaijan, p. 84
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74. This type of muscle has a great stabilizing component:

a. Spurt d. Shunt
b. Isotonic e. Concentric
c. Isometric
Answer: D
Reference: LeVeau, B. F., & Williams, M. (1992). Williams & Lissner biomechanics of human motion. Philadelphia:
W.B. Saunders Co.
75. certain maneuvers. Which of the

following signs indicate a positive simulation test?
a. Cogwheeling of many muscle groups that cannot be explained on a neurological basis
b. Marked improvement of straight leg raising of distraction as compared with formal testing
c. Back pain is reported with the first 30 degrees when the pelvis and shoulders are passively rotated in the
same plane as the patient stands
d. Deep tenderness left over a wide area, not localized to one structure
e. Disproportionate verbalization, facial expression, muscle tension and tremor
Answer: C
of a positive simulation test. See the table below for more specific details about the different tests and their associated
signs.
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PLP PT BOARD REVIEW
76. The McKenzie system is a commonly used method of examining and treating patients who have low back
pain. McKenzie has defined the following, EXCEPT:
a. The lateral shift is considered to be clinically relevant when a single-glide test does not alter the location or
intensity of the pain reported by the patient
b. If the lateral shift is determined to be clinically relevant, then the lateral shift must be corrected prior to the use
of other treatment procedures or the symptoms may worsen
c. The progress of lateral shifts is determined during the postural examination
d. The use of a two-step procedure is used to determine when clinically relevant lateral shift are present
e. A lateral shift is a
Answer: A
The lateral shift is considered to be clinically relevant when a single-glide test ALTERS THE LOCATION OR
INTENSITY OF THE PAIN reported by the patient.
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Reference: Donahue, M. S., Riddle, D. L., & Sullivan, M. S. (1996). Intertester reliability of a modified version of
McKenzie's lateral shift assessments obtained on patients with low back pain. Physical therapy, 76(7), 706-716.
77. The following statements characterize flexion in the lumbar spine, EXCEPT:
a. Flexion in the low back produces kyphosis
b. Involves relaxation of the anterior longitudinal ligament and stretching of the supraspinal and interspinal
ligaments the ligamentum flavum and the posterior longitudinal
c. To test, the subject bends as far forward as he can with knees straight, and try to touch the toes
d. There is no reversal of the normal lordosis during flexion, the low back merely flattens out
e. Limited by the size of the vertebral bodies
Answer: A
Flexion in the low back produces kyphosis
Involves relaxation of the anterior longitudinal ligament and stretching of the supraspinal and interspinal ligaments the
ligamentum flavum and the posterior longitudinal
ALL is taut during extension
PLL, Supraspinal, and interspinal: taut duiring flexion
78. Forward bending is a complex movement of combined lumbar and hip motion, and many of the tasks that
occur during everyday activities require trunk flexion. The following statements apply to this movement, EXCEPT:
a. Stretching short hamstring may affect lumbar motion during forward bending
b. Excessive lumbar motion decreases tensile loads on the spine
c. Short hamstring muscles, because of their attachment to the posterior leg and to the ischial tuberosity, may
limit hip flexion ROM
d. LBP could result from excessive lumbar motion due to their influence on lumbopelvic rhythm during forward
bending
e. Restricted hip motion is coupled with excessive lumbar motion
Answer: B
*The most mobile area is the lumbar area
*Excessive lumbar motion increases tensile loads on the spine
*lumbar spine carries the weight of your entire upper body, plus biomechanical stresses that occur with movement.
79. The only two muscles inserted into the back part of the sclera:
a. Superior Oblique and Inferior Oblique
b. Superior Rectus and Medial Rectus
c. None of these
d. Lateral Rectus and Inferior Rectus
Answer: A
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PLP PT BOARD REVIEW
80. In getting a laminectomy patient out of bed, the following procedures are observed, EXCEPT:
a. Raise herself to a standing position by pushing against the bed with her palm, reminding to keep the back
straight and to look straight ahead
b. The incision site need not be splinted
c. Help lower herself slowly into a chair, keeping the back straight; make sure the knees are elevated to hip level
or slightly higher to avoid stress on the lumbar spine
d.
e. Raise herself into sitting position by pushing against the mattress with her upper hand as she swings her legs
over the side of the head
Answer: C
The knees should not be elevated to hip level or higher. Avoid: bending, twisting, lifting, push/ pull of 20 lbs or more
for 2 weeks. Also, limit sitting for > 30 minutes. Extension and rotation exercises are also prohibited for 8 weeks.
81. This anatomical area involves the highest percentage of symptoms among physical therapists reporting
musculoskeletal symptoms:
a. Wrist/hands d. Low back
b. Neck e. Upper back
c. Shoulders
Answer: D
Low back pain is the most common complaint of patients.
82. In root compression syndrome, the following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a. Paresthesia are common and are usually experienced distally, in the hand or foot
b. Stretch reflexes whose arcs are largely or entirely incorporated in the involved root will be exaggerated
c. Pain in the segment distribution of a root is the hallmark of these syndrome
d. Weakness and atrophy in the corresponding myotomal distribution result from prolonged or severe root
compression
e. Findings to confirm the syndrome are those which relate spinal movement to the radiating pain
Answer: B
Stretch reflexes whose arcs are largely or entirely incorporated in the involved root will be DIMINISHED OR LOST.
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Reference: Evans, R. C., & Dunlap, M. C. (1994). Illustrated essentials in orthopedic physical assessment. St. Louis:
Mosby.
83. When applied, second class levers can be:

a. Levers that operate at a mechanical disadvantage but one of speed
b. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage
c. Levers of stability and speed
d. All of these
Answer: B
In second-class levers the resistance force always has the mechanical advantage since its lever arm is always longer
than the force arm.
84. A frame of reference for balance and head control that gives information about body position with respect to
the environment:
a. Geosynchronous d. Exocentric
b. Egocentric e. proprioceptive
c. Ecocentric
Answer: D
FRAME OF REFERENCE FOR BALANCE AND HEAD CONTROL:
EGOCENTRIC- Reference frame provides spatial coordinates for limb and body segment positions.
GEOCENTRIC-Reference system maintains posture with respect to the gravity.
85. The following statements are true of laminectomy, EXCEPT:

a. Involved a surgical removal of a portion of the lamina
b. Spinal fusion may be performed along with laminectomy for additional vertebral stability.
c. The protruding disc fragments are removed to relieve pressure on the nerve root.
d. Spinal fusion can only be performed in laminectomy.
e. In laminectomy with spinal fusion, the spine is reinforced by using bone chips or inserting a metallic rod, screw
or plate.
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Answer: D
A patient may have a spinal fusion without having a laminectomy.
As you may know, a laminectomy involves the surgical removal of a portion of the lamina.
nerve root or spinal cord. But, suppose your patient requires additional vertebral stability because of
his occupation, or the extent of the injury. A spinal fusion may be performed along with laminectomy.
Note: A patient may have a spinal fusion without having a laminectomy.
Reference: Working with orthopedic patients. (1983). Springhouse, Pa: Intermed Communications.
86. A dome shaped bump that lies in the occipital region on the midline and marks the center of the superior
nuchal line:
a. Lanula d. Cricoid ring
b. None of these e. Inion
c. Cricoid tubercle
Answer: E
Inion- Occipital of
87. The following statements characterize extension in the lumbar spine, EXCEPT:
a. To test, the subject is instructed to bend backward as far as he can, using the
superior iliac spine as fulcrum
b. Increase in lumbar lordosis is resisted by the rectus abdominis muscles
c. Stretches the anterior longitudinal ligament and relaxes the posterior ligaments
d. When testing extension, the examiner must not assist the subject manually by pushing gently on his chest
e. Motored by the intrinsic muscles of the back
Answer: D
The examiner may or may not assist the subject manually by pushing gently on his chest
88. The following relationships are true of the low back, EXCEPT:
a. Lumbar lordosis I unrelated of hip and trunk flexibilities
b. Longer abdominal muscles and shorter erector spinae muscles are associated with an increased lumbar curve
c. Individuals with exaggerated lumbar curvature while standing tend to have short hamstrings, rotating the pelvis
posteriorly, resulting in concurrent reduction of lumbar lordosis
d. There is no correlation among hip extension ROM, standing pelvic tilt, standing lumbar lordosis and abdominal
muscle performance variables
e. The length of the hamstring muscles are negatively related to the lumbar curve
Answer: C
Individuals with DECRESED lumbar or FLAT BACK curvature while standing tend to have short hamstrings, rotating
the pelvis posteriorly, resulting in concurrent reduction of lumbar lordosis
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89. Type of contraction when the muscle shortens but the tension remains constant:
a. Isometric c. Isotonic
b. None of these d. Isokinetic
Answer: C
90. The perpendicular distance from the pivot point to the line of action of the weight is called the:
a. Lever Arm c. Force Arm
b. Mechanical Advantage d. Weight Arm
Answer: D
91. A combination of the four primary movements in which flexion, abduction, extension and adduction succeed
one another:
a. Circumduction
b. Lateral rotation in the horizontal or transverse plane
c. Medial rotation on the coronal plane
d. Adduction in the coronal or frontal plane
Answer: A
Circumduction can only be seen n Ball and socket joint.
92. The following statements are true of herniated disc, EXCEPT:

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a. The most common areas of disc herniation are the L4 to L5 and L5 to S1 interfaces
b. Only about 5% of disc herniation occur in the cervical area
c. It is caused by strain, degenerative joint disease, or trauma which may force all of part of the nucleus pulposus
ned of torn outer ring
d. Disc herniation does not cause loss of sensation of motor function in the area innervated by the compressed
nerve root
e. Symptoms include low back pain, sometimes accompanied by muscle spasms which may radiate to the
buttocks, legs and feet
Answer: D
Herniated disc:
More common in lumbar area than cervical area since lumbar area is more mobile than cervical area.
Disc herniation can cause loss of sensation due to compression of nerve.
93. Which eye muscles are contracting when the subject is looking downward and to the left:
a. Left superior rectus and right inferior oblique
b. Right inferior rectus and left superior oblique
c. Right superior rectus and left inferior oblique
d. Left inferior rectus and right superior oblique
Answer: D
94. Decrease in lumbar lordosis results in:

a. Downward tilt of pelvis
b. Forward tilt of pelvis
c. Backward tilt of pelvis
d. No change in pelvic tilt
Answer: C
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95. Repeated use of body mechanics is a major cause of back injuries. Some of the common mistakes include
the following, EXCEPT:
a. Insufficient strength
b. Handling the load too far
c. Using fast but not jerking motion
d. Lifting with the back bent forward and the legs straight
e. Bending and twisting at the same time
Answer: C
Jerking motion-These movement interrupt the person's normal movement or posture.
96. Action of the External Abdominal Oblique:

a. Unilateral contraction causes side bending and trunk rotation with the opposite shoulder
b. Both of these
c. Unilateral contraction causes trunk rotation to the opposite side and side bending to the same side
d. None of these
Answer: C
Bilateral contraction - Trunk flexion, compresses abdominal viscera, expiration
Unilateral contraction - Trunk lateral flexion (ipsilateral), trunk rotation (contralateral)
97. Arthrokinematically, these types of motions can occur between two surfaces on joint movement:
a. All of these c. Spinning
b. Sliding or Gliding d. Rolling or Rocking
Answer: A
Rolling(rocking) is rotary or angular motion in which each subsequent point on one surface contact new point on the
other surface
Sliding or Gliding is a translatory linear,motion in which movement of one joint surface is parallel to the plane of the
adjoining joint.
Spinning rotary or angular motion in which one point contact each surface remains in constant contact .
98. When the sum of forces acting on the body is balanced, it is said to be in a state of:
a. Terminal velocity c. Equilibrium
b. Inertia d. Forced Vector
Answer: C
INERTIA,If body is at rest,it will remain at rest &If body is in uniform motion,it will remain in motion until an
outside force act upon it.
TERMINAL VELOCITY,Maximum velocity attainable by an object as it falls
FORCE VECTOR,Force that has magnitude and vector.
99. The following statements describe Romberg test, EXCEPT:
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PLP PT BOARD REVIEW
a. The subject stands erect, with feet approximated, looking straight ahead
b. Vision, if defective, substitutes substantially for deficits in posterior column and peripheral nerve function
c. Assesses the ability to maintain upright posture while standing on only one leg
d. When inability to balance well is based on cerebellar disease, vision is less able to correct for the difficulty in
maintaining posture and the subject will sway with eyes opened or closed
e. Deviation or loss of balance is toward the side of a unilateral lesion of the cerebellum
Answer: C
The Romberg test assesses the ability of the patient to maintain upright posture while STANDING ON A NARROW
BASE.
The Romberg test assesses the ability of the patient to maintain upright posture while standing on a narrow base. This
ability rests on sufficient strength for the job, on accurate information about position and about rate and direction of
deviations in position as they occur, and on ability to make quick and appropriate compensations for threatened loss of
balance. The patient stands erect, with feet approximated, and looking straight ahead.
Reference: Van, A. M. W., & Rodnitzky, R. L. (1988). Van Allen's pictorial manual of neurologic tests: A guide to the
performance and interpretation of the neurologic examination. Chicago: Year Book Medical Publishers.
100. Signs of meningeal irritation include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Kernig sign is elicited when stretching of the lumbar roots consequent to extension of the leg on the thigh
produces painful limitation of this movement
b. The best sign is a demonstration of stiffness of the neck on flexion, usually accompanied by fever
c. In severe meningitis, there may even be a rigid hyper-extension of the neck and back, but generally, it does
not limit lateral rotation of the neck
d. Probably based on a heightened sensitivity of irritated sensory roots to stretching
e. Brudzinski sign is absent when flexion of the knees follows as attempt to flex the neck
Answer: E
The Brudzinski sign is PRESENT when flexion of the knees follows an attempt to flex the neck.
The signs of meningeal irritation are probably based on a heightened sensitivity of irritated sensory roots to stretching.
Infection in the meninges (meningitis), chemical irritation from injected drugs, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and,
infrequently, neoplastic invasion of the meninges and roots are manifested by these signs.
The best sign is the demonstration of stiffness of the neck on flexion. The conditions that cause meningeal irritation
sufficient to produce a stiff neck are usually accompanied by fever.
The Brudzinski sign (Fig 80, B) is present when flexion of the knees follows an attempt to flex the neck.
The Kernig sign is elicited as shown in Figure 80, C. The stretching of lumbar roots consequent to extension of the leg
on the thigh produces painful limitation of this movement.
A boardlike stiffness may be found, and in severe meningitis there may even be a rigid hyperextension of the neck and
back. The degree of stiffness is only a rough guide to the severity of meningitis. Generally, meningeal irritation does
not limit lateral rotation of the neck but degenerative arthritis does.
performance and interpretation of the neurologic examination. Chicago: Year Book Medical Publishers.
101. The following are muscles of mastication, EXCEPT:

a. Medial and lateral pterygoid
b. Masseter
c. Temporalis
d. Orbicularis oris
Answer: D
Orbicularis oris- Closing of lips/kissing muscle
102. The act of inspiration increases the capacity of the thoracic cage in which principal direction:
a. Increase in the transverse diameter due to the ribs swinging outwards
b. Increase in the anteroposterior diameter by the sternal body which is hinged at the sternal angle, swinging
forwards
c. Increase in vertical diameter due to the descent and flattening of the dome of the diaphragm
d. All of these movements
Answer: D
Increase in the transverse diameter due to the ribs swinging outwards- the diaphragm and external intercostal
muscles contract, causing the rib cage to expand and move outward, and expanding the thoracic cavity and lung
volume
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103. Abduction and adduction occurs in this plane, and divided the body into front and back.
a. Sagittal Plane c. None of these
b. Horizontal plane d. Frontal plane
Answer: D
Horizontal plane /transverse plane: Divides the body into upper and lower.
Sagittal plane: Divides the body into right and left.
Frontal: Divides the body into anterior
and posterior.
104. Ligament and capsular structures work as a system, interdependent and related to one another. Functional
stability is provided by the following factors, EXCEPT:
a. Joint geometry
b. Active restraints generated by the muscles
c. Passive restraints of the ligaments
d. Passive restraints by muscles
e. Joint compressive forces that occur with activity and force the joint together
Answer: D
It should be ACTIVE RESTRAINTS BY MUSCLES.
Reference: Mean, W. D. T. R. Knee Ligament Tests.
105. EXCEPT:
a. Soft, doughy lipomata appearing as lumps in the area of the low back may be a sign of spina bifida
b. Any reddened dislocation may indicate infection, and skin markings may denote underlying neurologic or bone
pathology.
c. Pedunculated tumors indicate the presence of neurofibromatosis and are often accompanied by café-u-lait
spots which may impinge upon the spinal cord and nerve roots
d. An unusual patch of hair on the back may be evidence of some body defect in the spine such as a congenital
bony bar
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e. Gibbus deformity may bone present secondary to a herniated disc

Answer: E
Skin markings such as lipomata, hairy patches, café-au- lait spots, or birthmarks often denote underlying
neurologic or skeletal pathology. Lipomata, appearing as soft, doughy lumps in the area of the low back, may be a sign
of spina bifida (nonunion of the vertebral arch at the spinous process) or of a dumbbell-shaped lipoma extending into
the cauda equina through a bony defect.
Pedunculated tumors indicate the presence of neurofibromatosis and are often accompanied by secondary skin
markings (café-u-lait) spots. Neurofibromatosis, like lipomata, may impinge on the spinal cord and the nerve roots.
Birthmarks or unusual patches of hair are also frequently associated with bony or neural abnormalities.
Reference: Camins, M. B., & O'Leary, P. F. (1987). The Lumbar spine. New York: Raven Press.
106. The forces at the pelvis in bilateral stance is an example of:

a. Second Class Lever c. First Class Lever
b. Fourth Class Lever d. Third Class Lever
Answer: A
Second class is for stability.
107. Following are example of Force Couple, EXCEPT:

a. Abduction at the glenohumeral joint from the deltoid and supraspinatus contracting together
b. None of these
c. Abduction and upward rotation of the scapula from the combined forces of the trapezius, serratus anterior
d. All of these
Answer: B
During elevation, there are two primary force couples acting on the shoulder complex: one acts on the glenohumeral
joint while the other acts on the scapulothoracic joint. The scapulothoracic force couple includes the upper and lower
trapezius and the serratus anterior contracting together to produce upward rotation of the scapula. The glenohumeral
force couple consists of the deltoid and the rotator cuff - the deltoid and supraspinatus contract together to produce
elevation (abduction or flexion) at the glenohumeral joint while the infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis work
to pull the humeral head down into the lower part of the glenoid fossa.
References: Brunnstrom, p. 203-205
108. The upper extremity is attached to the trunk only at this joint:
a. Glenohumeral c. Acromio clavicular
b. Sternoclavicular d. Scapulothoracic
Answer: B
SC joint connects the UE to the trunk.
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PLP PT BOARD REVIEW
109. A patient has been admitted to your hospital with severe lower back pain. The patient will be placed in a pelvic
belt for intermittent traction. The following applies to proper pelvic belt application, EXCEPT:
a. Although pelvic traction may be applied directly on the skin, it may also be applied over clothing made of cotton
(for better traction) and wrinkle-free (to avoid excessive pressure on the skin)
b. The patient may be placed in Williams position with hips flexed 300 and knees flexed 300 as part of daily care
c.
d. The free ends of the belt are wrapped around the hip bone so the iliac crests are covered
Answer: D
belt over the pajama bottoms or underwear, make sure the clothing is cotton (for better traction) and wrinkle-free (to
avoid excess pressure on the skin).
Next, correctly align the belt positioning the strap sets over her hips. Make sure the straps will be parallel to each
Provide the following daily care for your patient: Place your patient in Williams position, with her hips flexed 30°
and her knees flexed 30° ( or the foot of the bed elevated 30°). Encourage her to keep her back flat against the mattress
during traction as shown above. In
Reference: Working with orthopedic patients. (1983). Springhouse, Pa: Intermed Communications.
110. The height of a specific vertebrae may be used to determine the following landmarks:
a. C3-level with hyoid bone
b. T4-height of the manubrium and body of sternum
c. C4 and C5-level with thyroid cartilage
d. All of these
Answer: D
All are correct
Sternum:
MANUBRIUM:T3-T4
BODY:T2-T7
111. Upon inspection of the lumbar spine from the side, which of the following observations is not TRUE?
a. If the spine exhibits an exaggerated curve, the anterior abdominal muscles may be weaken
b. Increased lumbar lordosis may also be caused by a fixed flexion deformity of the hip
c. An absence of the normal lordosis may suggest paravertebral muscle spasms
d. Pelvis obliquity is evident when the two dimples overlying the posterior iliac spine directly above the buttocks
lie along the same horizontal plane
e. Excessive lordosis occasionally substitutes for true hip extension
F: None of the above
Answer: D
Pelvic obliquity is best observed from the posterior aspect, not from the lateral aspect. In addition, pelvic obliquity
becomes evident when the two dimples overlying the posterior iliac spines directly above the buttocks do not lle along
the same horizontal plane.
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PLP PT BOARD REVIEW
112. At the atlanto-occipital joint, the head is balanced by the pull of neck extensor muscles. This is an example of:
a. First Class Lever c. Third Class Lever
b. Second Class Lever d. Fourth Class Lever
Answer: A
A-O joint:Fulcrum
Pull of neck extensor: Force
Weight of head: Resistance
113. An example of a synovial pivot joint:

a. Glenohumeral joint
b. trapezium
c. Joint between the atlas and axis
d. Juncture between the radius and carpal bone of the wrist
Answer: C
a. Glenohumeral joint(ball and socket)
b. (saddle)
c. Joint between the atlas and axis(pivot)
d. Juncture between the radius and carpal bone of the wrist (condyloid)
114. Which of the following is NOT true of the Temporomandibular joint:

a. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint
b. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence
c. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the ankle moves backwards
d. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger.
Answer: B
When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rests in the concave part of its socket; when the mouth is opened, the
condyle rides forward onto the articular eminence. See the photo below for reference.
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115. When a muscle is the principal agent in producing a desired movement, it is said to be a:
a. Antagonist
b. Fixators
c. Prime mover
d. Synergist
Answer: C
Antagonist-Produce the action opposite to the action
produced by prime mover.
Prime mover-
Fixator-stabilizer
Synergist-Remove undesired movement
116. The spinous process of the following vertebrae lie above and below the interspace and since they do not
overlap each other and mark the actual levels of the vertebral bodies, they make excellent reference points from which
to identify other vertebrae:
a. L4 and S1 c. L3 and L4
b. L4 and L5 d. S1 and S2
Answer: B
L4 and L5 do not overlap to each other unlike the sacral vertebrae that overlaps to each other.
L4 ans S1 is too far from each othe r to be a reference point.
117. Learning the trunk forward when standing from a sitting position is better accomplished because:
a. Forward shifting of the line of gravity c. Center of gravity is shifted forward
b. Increased posterior torque d. Increased base of support
Answer: C
Any change in position of a partial center of gravity produces a corresponding change in the common center of gravity.
When the arms are raised overhead and lowered, the center of gravity is respectively raised and lowered within the
body. When the arms are stretched forward or backward, the center of gravity is respectively moved anteriorly or
posteriorly within the body. When the trunk is flexed severely forward or laterally, the center of gravity shifts outside the
body.
118. The shape of articulating surfaces of bi-axial joints are either

a. Plane or saddle d. hinge or pivot
b. Condyloid or ellipsoid e. ball and socket
c. Pivot or condyloid
Answer: B
UNI AXIAL- HINGE AND PIVOT
BI AXIAL-CONDYLOID AND ELLIPSOID
MULTI-AXIAL-BALL & SOCKET
119. When force is applied at a site intermediate between the fulcrum and the weight to be moved, this lever
a. Does not exist d. can not be moved
b. Is a first class lever e. is a third class lever
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c. Is a second class lever

Answer: E
0-------FORCE ---- WEIGHT
120. A frame of reference for balance and head control that provides spatial coordinates for limb and body-segment
positions:
a. Exocentric d. Egocentric
b. Proprioceptive e. geocentric
c. Gravitational
Answer: D
EGOCENTRIC- Reference frame provides spatial coordinates for limb and body segment positions.
GEOCENTRIC-Reference system maintains posture with respect to the
gravity.
121. Feedback information about the kinematic or kinetic components of the movement being attempted by the
patient.
a. Result Oriented d. Knowledge of Results
b. Knowledge of Performance e. Performance Oriented
c. Knowledge of Function
Answer:B
Knowledge of results:
Refers how successfully a skill is performed.
Ex:
During the OT treatment, A CVA patient was able to shoot a 20 small beads from one cup to another cup.
Knowledge of performance
Feedback related to the way in which a specific skill is performed.
Quality of execution.
Ex: (using the previous scenario)
During the activity the therapist noticed that the patient was using her pinch to pinch grip to transfer the
small bead from one cup to another cup.
122. the surface of these joints that are nearly flat and circular.
a. Axial d. axial-occipital
b. Atlanto-occipital e. occipital
c. Atlanto-axial
Answer: C
Atlanto- Each surface on the lateral mass of the atlas is con cave and elliptical
Atlanto- axial: The surfaces are nearly flat, circular, and about W in diameter Here, on the axis, gliding movements
occur but the principal movement is the one that shakes the head
123. When a muscle contracts to eliminate some undesired movement that would otherwise be produced by the
prime mover, it is said to be a/an
a. Primer mover d. coordinator
b. Fixators e. synergist
c. Antagonist
Answer: E
Prime mover-
Fixator-stabilizer
124. The following statements are true of straight leg raising test, EXCEPT:
a. The normal angle between the table and the leg measures approximately 80 degrees
b. At the point where the patient experiences pain, lower the leg slightly and then dorsiflex the foot if the there
is no pain, the pain induced is probably due to the sciatic nerve
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c. Designed to reproduce back and leg pain

d. If there is a positive reaction to the straight leg raising test and the foot dorsiflexion maneuver, the pain may
be either in the lumbar spine or along the course of the sciatic nerve
e. The foot is lifted upward supporting the calcaneus, and with the knee remaining straight, raise the leg to the
point of discomfort or pain
Answer: B
At the point where the patient experiences pain, lower the leg slightly and then dorsiflex the foot if the there is no
pain, the pain induced is probably due to the sciatic nerve
SLR POSTIVE SIGNS:
If symptoms are primarily back pain, it is most likely the result of a disc herniation applying pressure on
the anterior theca of the spinal cord, or the pathology causing the pressure is more central. "Back pain
only" patients who have a disc prolapse have smaller, more central prolapses.
If pain is primarily in the leg, it is more likely that the pathology causing the pressure on neurological
tissue(s) is more lateral.
Disc herniations or pathology causing pressure between the two extremes are more likely to cause pain in
both areas
125. The following apply to Distraction, EXCEPT:

a. Relieves pain in the cervical spine by decreasing pressure on the joint capsule around the facet joint
b. May help alleviate muscle spasm by relaxing the contracted muscle
c. The test faithfully reproduce pain referred to the upper extremity from the cervical spine
d. The test demonstrates the effect that neck traction might have in relieving pain
e. Relieves pain due to a narrowing of the neural foramen by widening the foramen
Answer: C
Patient lies supine and the neck is comfortably positioned. Examiner securely grasps the patient's either by
their forehead and the other on the

torso, applying a distraction force
Note: you cannot perform the test if the patient is not complaining any pain.
(+)If pain is relieved as a result of the movement, then the test is positive for nerve root compression and facet
joint pressure. Determining the grade of the pressure would be decided by the amount of pressure and pain
relieved while performing the test.
126. This type of contraction occurs when muscular tension equals the opposing force
a. Relaxed d. concentric
b. Isometric e. eccentric
c. Isotonic
Answer: B
During an isometric contraction, a significant amount of active tension may be developed within the muscle to maintain
the joint angle in a relatively stable or static position. During an isotonic contraction, the tension remains constant as
the muscle shortens or lengthens. There are two types of isotonic contractions: concentric and eccentric. In a concentric
contraction, the muscle shortens while generating force, overcoming resistance; while in an eccentric contraction, the
muscle lengthens as the resistance becomes greater than the force the muscle is producing.
Reference: https://courses.lumenlearning.com/boundless-ap/chapter/control-of-muscle-tension/
when the resistance or load increases beyond the force that can be produced by a maximum isometric contraction of
the muscle, the mus
Reference: Brunnstrom, p. 146
127. If a 40 kilogram force is applied over an area of four square centimeters, the pressure (in kilograms per square
centimeter) is equal to
a. 20 d. 160
b. 5 e. 80
c. 10
Answer: C
Pressure= FORCE/AREA
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128. In an open-packed or loose packed position?

a. The ligamentous and capsular structures are slack
b. Increased joint friction allow spinning and sliding
c. Joint surface may be distracted several millimeters
d. The ovoid joint surfaces are incongruent
e. Allows spinning, rolling, and sliding, thereby decreasing joint friction.
Answer: B
DECREASED joint friction allow spinning and sliding
129. The following statements describe Closed Kinematic Chain, EXCEPT:

a. The distal segment is fixed and proximal parts move
b. The distal segment of the chain moves in space.
c. Stair climbing is an alternation closed-chain motion during the support phase of the extremity
d. Occurs in the upper extremity when performing chip up.
e. All segments are required to move in the movement of one segment
Answer: B
Closed chain motions occur when the distal segment is fixed and the proximal segments move. Closed chain motion
occurs during activities such as a chin-up, push-up, standing from a seated position, or a half-squat exercise
.Movement of one segment in closed chain motion requires all the segments to move. When the ankle starts to move,
the knee and hip must also move; the ankle is unable to move independently of the other two joints in the lower
extremity.
130. An example of this class of level is at the atlanto-occipital joint, where the head is balanced by the peel of neck
extensor muscles
a. Second d. first
b. Fourth e. third
c. Fifth
Answer: D
A-O joint:Fulcrum
Pull of neck extensor: Force
Weight of head: Resistance
131. The combined action of these muscles is vertebral extension, are continuous from the sacrum to the occiput:
a. None of these c. Transversopinal
b. Erector Spinae or Sacrospinalis d. Quadratus Lumborum
Answer: B
Erector Spinae or Sacrospinalis
ORIGIN:Spinous process of T9-T12
INSERTION:Spinous process of T1-T2 and cervical vertebrae
ILIOCOSTALIS
LONGGISSIMUS
SPINALIS
132. In one leg standing, the gluteus medius of the supporting leg is performing:
a. Isometric contraction c. Eccentric contraction
b. Positive work d. No work
Answer: B
In one leg standing, the gluteus medius of the supporting leg contracts concentrically in order to keep the pelvis stable
and leveled. Positive work involves lifting a load a certain distance using concentric contraction, whereas negative work
involves lowering the load the same distance by means of an eccentric contraction. Therefore, the gluteus medius
performs a positive work during one leg standing.
Reference: Brunnstrom, p. 147
133. The kinetic variable that reflects the rate of work performed at a given point.
a. Torque d. Energy
b. Velocity e. Power
c. Strength
Answer: E
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Torque= Force x distance

Power=Work/Time
134. Dividing the body into right and left, flexion and extension occurs in this plane.
a. Transagittal d. Transverse
b. Horizontal e. Frontal
c. Sagittal
Answer: C
Frontal: Anterior and Posterior
Sagittal: Right and left
Transverse: Superior and inferior
135. Craniosacral therapists asses these aspects of craniosacral motion, EXCEPT:

a. Symmetry, whether both sides of the skull demonstrate equal amplitude and rate
b. Rate, the number of cycles of flexion per minute
c. Quantity, whether the rate and corresponding amplitude is of a reasonable number
d. Quantity, whether the motion is smooth or uneven
e. Amplitude, the magnitude of excursion of flexion and extension
Answer: C and D
Letter C is incorrect because the QUANTITY of craniosacral motion is NOT ASSESSED. Letter D is also incorrect as
QUALITY (not quantity) DESCRIBES WHETHER THE MOTION IS SMOOTH OR UNEVEN. Both letters C and D are
incorrect; however, letter C is the more appropriate answer as it came first in the choices and is not really mentioned
in the actual reference.
Reference: Wirth-Pattullo, V., & Hayes, K. W. (1994). Interrater reliability of craniosacral rate measurements and their
relationship with subjects' and examiners' heart and respiratory rate measurements. Physical Therapy, 74(10), 908-
916.
136. Stabilize joints and produces force with no gross change in the joint angle:
a. Concentric d. Isokinetic
b. Isometric e. Eccentric
c. Isotonic
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Answer: B
ISOMETRIC: Producing pulling force while maintaining a CONSTANT LENGTH.
ISOTONIC: SAME TENSION
ISOKINETIC: CONSTANT RATE OF MOVEMENT
Concentric: Shortening of muscle
Eccentric: Lengthening of muscle
137. The following statements characterize the Atlanto-Axial joints, EXCEPT:

a. A pair of alar ligaments serves to limit the rotation of the head
b. The atlas and axis are united by three joints, two paired and one medially placed
c. The gliding movement occurs on the axis
d. The paired lateral atlanto-axial joints are plane joints and lie directly below the paired atlanto-occipital joints
e. -axial
joint rotates in a collar formed by the anterior arch of the atlas and the transverse ligament
Answer: E
-axial joint
rotates in a collar formed by the anterior arch of the atlas and the transverse ligament. See the photo below for
reference.
138. An upper limb tension test is considered positive if the following are present, EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c. There is tissue resistance or a decrease in the ROM on one side of the body as compared with the other
d. The test responses can be altered by a sensitizing maneuver that provokes an increase in symptoms
e. The symptoms are aggravated by movements that are generally towards from the site of restriction or
symptoms
Answer: E
The symptoms are aggravated by movements that are generally AWAY FROM the site of restriction or symptoms.
An upper limb tension test is considered positive if:
1.) it reproduces the p
2.) there is tissue resistant or a decrease in the ROM on one side of the body as compared with the other,
4.) the test responses can be altered by a sensitizing maneuver that provokes an increase in symptoms,
5.) the symptoms are aggravated by movements that are generally away from the site of restriction or
symptoms.
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Reference: Anderson, M., & Tichenor, C. J. (1994). A patient with de Quervain's tenosynovitis: a case report using
an Australian approach to manual therapy. Physical Therapy, 74(4), 314-326.
139. In closed-packed position:

a. Ligament attachments are farthest apart and under tension
b. All of these
c. The joint difficult to distract and mechanically compresse
d. Maximum contact in surface
Answer:B
Ratio:
The maximum area of surface contact occurs.
Attachment of ligaments are farthest apart and under tension
Capsular are taut
The joint mechanically compressed and difficult to distract
140. The state when the sum of forces acting on the body is balanced
a. Terminal velocity d. Gravity minimized
b. Inertia e. Equilibrium
c. Force Vector
Answer: E
INERTIA, if body is at rest, it will remain at rest &If body is in uniform motion,it will remain in motion
until an outside force act upon it.
TERMINAL VELOCITY, Maximum velocity attainable by an object as it falls
FORCE VECTOR, Force that has magnitude and vector
141. Cervical root compression syndromes are illustrated by the following, EXCEPT:
a. There is localized paraspinal pain and tenderness which may precede extreme pain and which indicates a
focus of disease proximal to the shoulder joint
b. Usually involves one of the three lower cervical roots, C6, C7, or C8
c. Gentle manipulation of the neck reproduces pain felt below the elbow, and duplicates paresthesia in the hand
d. If moderate pressure over the spine enhances pain felt the extremity impingement may be from other source
e. Often, neck movements are restricted
Answer: D
Commonly called a "pinched nerve," occurs when a nerve in the neck is compressed or irritated where it branches
away from the spinal cord. This may cause pain that radiates into the shoulder and/or arm, as well as muscle
weakness and numbness.
142. Frowning muscle:

a. Procerus c. Frontalis
b. Nasalis d. Corrugator supercilli
Answer: D
PROCERUS=MUSCLE OF DISGUST
NASALIS=NASAL FLARING
FRONTALIS=RAISES EYEBROW
143. Body parts moving in the same direction with equal velocity:
a. Transfer d. Translatory
b. Parallel e. Angular
c. Rotary
Answer: D
Linear/ Translatory motion:Motion that occurs along or parallel to an axis
Curvilinear: Curved path
Rotatory or Angular motion: Occurs around an axis
Periodic motion: Mortion repeated in equal intervals of time
143. The posterior triangle of the neck is bounder by the following structures:
a. The Scalene, Levator Scapulae, and Splenius
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b. Trapezius, Sternohyoid and Clavicle

c. Sternocleidomastoid, anterior border of Trapezius, and the clavicle
d. Splenius, Capitis, Sternohyoid, and clavicle
e. Omohyoid, Sternocleidomastoid and Levator Scapulae
Answer: C
POST TRIANGLE:
A:SCM
P:TRAPZ
B: MID 1/3 Clavicle
ANT. TRIANGLE:
A:Medial Neck Line
P:SCM
BASE: Mandible
144. Craniosacral therapy is a relatively new evaluation and treatment approach and assumes the presence of
craniosacral motion to be as follows, EXCEPT:
a. An inherent rhythmical motion in human and animals different from any other rhythm in the body
b. Restricted craniosacral motion and presence of pathology in the body can guide corrective treatment to
produce improvements in pain and dysfunction
c. It is a physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary
d. It is unstable and fluctuates in response to exercise, emotion and rest
e. It is claimed to changed in response to trauma, autism or learning disability
Answer: A and B
Craniosacral motion is a physiological motion because it is UNCONSCIOUS AND INVOLUNTARY. It is also STABLE
AND DOES NOT FLUCTUATE in response to exercise, emotion, and rest.
Reference: Wirth-Pattullo, V., & Hayes, K. W. (1994). Interrater reliability of craniosacral rate measurements and their
relationship with subjects' and examiners' heart and respiratory rate measurements. Physical Therapy, 74(10), 908-
916.
145. When a muscle is the principal agent in producing a desired movement, it is said to be a/an:
a. Antagonist d. Postural muscle
b. Synergist e. Fixators
c. Prime mover
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Answer: C
Prime mover-
Fixator-stabilizer
146. This muscle separates the neck into the posterior and anterior triangle and protects the great vascular and
nerve trunks:
a. Sternohyoid d. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Scalenus anterior e. Omohyoid
c. Sternothyroid
Answer: D
147. In this class of lever, force is applied at one end of the lever arm, the weight to be moved is at the other end
the fulcrum is at some point intermediate between the two:
a. First d. Third
b. Second e. Fourth
c. None of these
Answer: A
148. The line of fusion between the External Oblique is the:

a. Lines alba d. falx inguinalis
b. Aponeurosis e. transverses abdominis
c. Inguinal ligament (of Poupart)
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Answer: A
The linea alba is also referred to as the white line according to Basmaijan. See the photo below for reference.
Reference: Basmaijan, p. 138-139
149. The following are differences between closed (CKC) and open kinematic (CKC) chain exercises, EXCEPT:
a. OKC are typically non-weight bearing, with movement occurring at a single joint
b. In CKC, movement at several joints is required to complete the movement
c. CKC are typically weight bearing, an example would be a knee extension exercise, performed in a sitting
position with resistance applied to the distal segment
d. In CKC, the distal segment is usually fixed to a supporting surface, and the resistance may be applied both
proximally and distally.
e. In OKC, the distal segment is free to move, and the resistance is usually applied to the distal segment
Answer: C
Closed chain motion occurs during activities such as a chin-up, push-up, standing from a seated position, or a half-
squat exercise (Fig. 1.8B). Movement of one segment in closed chain motion requires all the segments to move.
When the ankle starts to move, the knee and hip must also move; the ankle is unable to move independently of the
other two joints in the lower extremity.
150. pula:
a. Levator Scapulae d. Serratus Anterior
b. Pectoralis Minor e. Middle Trapezius
c. Rhomboids
Answer: D
Paralysis of SA will result in medial winging of scapula
Paralysis of trapezius will result in lateral winging of scapula
151. While there are eight nerves that exit the cervical spine, there are only seven cervical vertebrae. Where does
the first thoracic nerve exit?
a. Above the second thoracic vertebra d. Below the first thoracic vertebra
b. Below the second thoracic vertebra e. Below the seventh cervical vertebra
c. Above the first thoracic vertebra
Answer: A
Above the second thoracic vertebra
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152. This class of lever is found in most open-chain motion of the extremities, e.g. the deltoid acting on the
glenohumeral joint:
a. Third d. See-saw
b. Second e. First
c. Fourth
Answer: A
Lever 3 is most common in the human body. In this lever, the resistance arm is always longer than the force arm, so
the mechanical advantage lies with the resistance force. This arrangement is designed to produce speed of the distal
segment and move a small weight a long distance. Thus, in the human body, a small amount of shortening of a
muscle (such as the brachialis) causes a large arc of motion at the joint (elbow in this example) to position the end of
the segment (the hand) in a large range of positions. This type of lever occurs in most open-chain motions of the
extremities.
153. The relationship of vertebral levels to cord segments end to spinal roots are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. In infancy, the tip of the spinal cord is at about the L4-L5 level but it ascends to the L2-L3 level in maturity
b. There are eight cervical cord segments and root pairs but only 7 vertebrae
c. The C8 root exits below the C7 vertebra, and from there down numbered roots leave below the
correspondingly numbered vertebrae
d. In the cervical region, the cord segments approximate the corresponding numbered vertebrae, and the roots
leave the cord at nearly a right angle
e. The C1 root has no sensory component
Answer: A
In infancy, the tip of the spinal cord is at about the L4-L5 level but it ascends to the L1-L2 LEVEL IN MATURITY.
In the cervical region the cord segments approximate the corresponding, numbered vertebrae, and the roots leave the
cord at nearly a right angle. The C-1 root has no sensory component. There are eight cervical cord segments and root
pairs but only seven vertebrae. The C-8 root exits below the C-7 vertebra, and from that point down, numbered roots
leave below the numbered vertebrae. The spinal cord does not lengthen proportionately as the spine grows. In infancy,
the tip of the spinal cord is at about L4-L5 level, but it ascends to the L1-L2 level in maturity. For this reason, lumbar
puncture may safely be done below the dorsal process of the L2 vertebra.
performance and interpretation
154. trapezius is
a. Sitting unsupported d. sitting supported
b. Prone e. side lying
c. Supine
Answer: B
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155. When applied, second class levers can be levers

a. Of stability and speed
b. That work at a mechanical advantage
c. That operate at a mechanical disadvantage but on of speed.
d. That operate a mechanical disadvantage but one of stability
e. Of stability only.
Answer: B
In second-class levers, the point of resistance application lies between the force and the axis so the lever arm of the
resistance is always shorter than the lever arm of the force
An increase in the force arm length or a decrease in the resistance arm length results in greater mechanical
advantage.
156. Which of the following statements is true of the Levator Palpebrae Superioris?
a. None of these
b. It is the highest muscles of the orbital cavity which raises the upper eyelid
c. All of these
d. The margins of the muscle in front are fixed to the medial and lateral sides of the orbital cavity to safeguard
against the muscle pulling the upper lid into the orbital cavity.
Answer: C
Levator palpebrae Superioris
Responsible for raising eyebrow
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157. The muscles of mastication are composed of the following, EXCEPT:

a. Temporalis d. Lateral Pterygoid
b. Digastric e. Masseter
c. Medial pterygoid
Answer: B
According to Basmaijan, the muscles of mastication only include the temporalis, masseter, and medial and lateral
pterygoids. See the photo below for reference.
However, in some online references, the muscles of mastication can be further classified into primary and secondary
(accessory). The primary muscles include the masseter, temporalis, and medial and lateral pterygoids; whereas the
secondary (accessory) muscles include the suprahyoid muscles (one of which is the digastric), infrahyoid muscles, and
buccinator.
Reference: https://www.physio-pedia.com/Muscles_of_Mastication
158. Muscles which contract statically to support some pain of the body against the pull of contacting muscles are
called:
a. Fixators d. neutralizers
b. Synergists e. antagonists
c. Protagonist
Answer: A
Fixators are considered to be the stabilizer of the muscle
159. The atlanto-axial joint is an example of this joint

a. Ball and socket d. Pivot
b. Saddle e. hinge
c. Wheel and axle
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Answer: D
Atlanto-occipital: Condyloid joint
160. A 35 year-old male diagnosed with ankylosing spondylosis is referred in a home exercise program. A general
treatment objective most beneficial for the patient will be to strengthen the
a. Quadrates lumborum d. rectus abdominis
b. Quadriceps e. back extensors
c. Internal and external obliques
Answer: E
Pt. with ankylosing spondylosis will present a slouched posture. To correct the poor posture, Strengthening of back
extensors is needed.
161. Functions of disc include:

a. Permit two types of movement to occur simultaneously
b. Lessen shock in a joint and adjust bone articulating surface of different shape to one another
c. Assist in lubrication of articular surfaces
d. All of these
Answer: D
All of the above choices are functions of fibrocartilaginous discs. See the photo below for reference.
162. Excursion and increase in tension of the lumbosacral roots may be accomplished by the following
demonstrations, EXCEPT:
a. Lateral rotation of the hip on straight leg raising
b. Straight leg with medial rotation of the hip.
c. Dorsiflexing the ankle at the end of straight leg raising
d. Flexing the trunk during straight leg raising
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PLP PT BOARD REVIEW
e. Straight leg raising

Answer: A
Medial rotation of the hip
163. These categories of nonorganic signs are used for patients with low back problems, EXCEPT:
a. Hip abduction d. hip flexion
a. Shoulder extension e. elbow extension
b. Knee flexion
Answer: E
All motions are relavant to low back problems except the elbow extension
164. The agonist maybe described as follows, EXCEPT:

a. Contracts actively to produce a concentric, isometric or eccentric contraction.
b. The principal muscle maintaining a posture
c. The principal muscle producing a joint motion
d. Contracts actively to produce a concentric and eccentric contraction.
e. Prime mover
F. None of the above
Answer: F
Ratio:
Agonist:
A muscle that is the principle muscle producing a motion or maintaining a posture is the agonist (Gr. agon, contest).
An agonist actively contracts to produce a concentric, eccentric, or isometric contraction. Agonists are sometimes
referred to as prime movers.
Antagonist:
During functional activities, the antagonist is
usually inactive during the activity so it neither con- tributes to nor resists the activity, but its passive elonga- tion or
shortening allows the desired activity to occur.
164. Intervertebral joint palpation provides the clinician valuable information about joint behavior to apply a force
EXCEPT:
a. The amount of movements produced at the joint and presence activity evoked during the movement
b. The speed and direction at which it is applied
c. The pain produced by the movement
d. The way in which the joint moves or resists movement in response to the given force
e. The amount of force applied to the muscle inserting into the joint
Answer: E
It should be the AMOUNT OF FORCE APPLIED TO THE JOINT.
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PLP PT BOARD REVIEW
Reference: Keating, J., Matyas, T. A., & Bach, T. M. (1993). The effect of training on physical therapists' ability to apply
specified forces of palpation. Physical Therapy, 73(1), 38-46.
165. This test describes the ability of the abdominal muscles to maintain the pelvis in a position of posterior pelvic
tilt as the fully extended legs are slowly lowered to the table from a position of 90 degrees of hip flexion.
a. Thomas test d. Straight leg raising test
b. Double leg lowering test e. Modified Thomas test
c. None of these
Answer: B
General test to assess the core muscles, is like curl up and sit-up test used to assess the abdominal muscles.
DLLT is more challenging test than curl-up developed to assess and examine lower abdominal muscle fibers
and will be more representative to be used in the lumbar stabilization program but unlike crul-up or sit-up in
which they work to flex the trunk against gravity, during DLLT the muscles work eccentrically during lowering
the limbs
166. When the rate of movement is constant, this contraction occurs:

a. Eccentric c. Concentric
b. Isokinetic d. Isometric
Answer: B
167. In joint where movement takes place about three main axes, all of which
rotation, it is said to possess
a. Three degree of freedom d. freedom of movement
b. Universal movement e. two degree of freedom
c. A degree of freedom
Answer: A
DOF- Represent the potential movements possible at specific joints
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PLP PT BOARD REVIEW
168. A therapist examines a patient with cervical pain of unknown etiology. The therapist identifies shortening of
the cervical spine extensor, upper trapezius and levator scapulae. The most probable postural deviation is
a. Forward shoulders d. lordosis
b. Kyphosis e. forward head
c. Scapular retraction
Answer: E
169. The time a subject can maintain a horizontal, unsupported posture (a measure of mechanical capability and
willingness) is a predictor for first-time occurrence of low back pain in men. This test is known as:
a. Williams d. Sorensen
b. Jorgensen e. Biering
c. McKenzie
Answer:D
Beiring-Sorensen test also known as sorensen
To begin this test, an examination plinth, a stopwatch and three to four straps are needed. The starting
position is the patient/client adopting a half prone lying on a plinth with the superior edge of the iliac crest at
the edge of the plinth and the arms crossed over the chest. The lower limbs are strategically stabilized with
straps. The patient/client is asked to maintains the upper body in a horizontal position and the timer is started.
The test ends if the patient/client can maintain the said position for 4 minutes (240 seconds) or can no longer
maintain the set position before 4 minutes elapses. The stop time is recorded
170. The surfaces of this joint are nearly flat and circular. Gliding movement occur, the one that shakes the head
a. Axial-Occipital joints c. Atlanto-Axial joints

b. Atlanto-occipital joint d. none of these
Answer: C
Atlanto-axia: No joint
Atlanto-
171. In this class of lever, the force is applied at a site intermediate between the fulcrum and the weight to be
moved:
a. Third class lever c. Second class lever
b. None of these d. First class lever
Answer: A
1St class lever: FORCE------ FULCRUM-----WEIGHT

2ND Class lever: FULCRUM-----WEIGHT-----FORCE/EFFORT
3RD Class lever: Fulrcum-----FORCE/EFFORT-----WEIGHT
172. Ligaments function as follows, EXCEPT:

a. Protect or hold in position some more important structure, usually a nerve
b. When movements in a normal plane is gradually brought to a halt, the ligaments concerned at once become
tensed as the movements proceeds
c. Prohibits movement in undesired plane
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PLP PT BOARD REVIEW
d. When abnormal movements are altogether prohibited the ligaments responsible at once are tensed and often
violently
e. Limit the range or extent of normal movement
Answer: B
When movement in a normal plane is gradually brought to a halt, the ligaments concerned BECOME
PROGRESSIVELY TAUT as the movement proceeds.
Reference: Basmajian, J. V. (1976). Primary anatomy. Baltimore: Williams & Wilkins.
173. Soft tissue palpation of the lumbar spine may present the following observation, EXCEPT:
a. Activity flexing the hip when there is psoas abscess results in increased pain in the inguinal area indicating
hip joint pathology
b. The sacral triangle is a common area of pain due to low back strains or the avulsion of a tendon from the
anterior iliac spines.
c.
palpation and cause localized low back pain
d. With the hip flexed, the sciatic nerve may be palpated midpoint between the ischial tuberosity and the greater
tubercle and can be tender to palpation when a herniated disc is present
e. If either the supraspinous or interspinous ligaments are ruptured, the area may be tender and a defeat may
be palpable between the spinous processes.
Answer: D
Sciatic nerve can be represented on the back of the thigh by a line drawn from just medial to the midpoint of the line
from the ischial tuberosity to the apex of greater trochanter down to the apex of popliteal fossa.
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PLP PT BOARD REVIEW
174. A combination of the four primary movements in which each succeed one another.
a. Lateral rotation in the horizontal or transverse plane
b. Rotation in the sagittal plane
c. Adduction in the coronal or frontal plane
d. Circumduction
e. Medial rotation in the coronal plane
Answer: D
Circumduction involves flexion, extension, adduction and abduction.
175. This structure is a modified skin that lines not only the inner surfaces of the lids but is also reflected on to the
eyeball.
a. Cones d. Lacrima
b. Canaliculus e. Conjunctiva
c. Tarsal Gland
Answer: E
176. A synovial joint is characterized by the following distinguishing feature/s, EXCEPT:

a. The hyaline cartilage is rich in blood vessels
b. Articular cartilage reduces to minimum friction between the articular capsules.
c. A lubricated articular cartilage
d. A potential cavity
e. A capsule of fibrous tissue line with synovial membrane.
Answer: A
Hyaline cartilage consists of a collagen matrix that is packed with glycoproteins, so it can hold a large volume of water.
55

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APK HEAD, NECK, BACK AND SPINE MODULE

PLP PT BOARD REVIEW

1. In a third class lever:

2. A muscle of facial expression:

3. The highest content of elastic fiber is found in the ligament:

4. This does not describe the 7th rib:

O:Short head coracoid process of

6. This is a movement in the transverse plane:

7. The axis for subtalar abduction and adduction is:

8. Muscle power is greatest at approximately % of the maximum load:

9. The most superficial muscle in the posterior trunk:

11. Facets of thoracic spine are oriented in what plane:

13. Posterior border of the posterior triangle of the neck:

14. Flexion-extension of the thoracic spine totals how much?

15. The bandage muscle, wrapping around other neck muscles:

17. The superficial group of the muscles of the back includes:

20. The plane of progression during ambulation:

21. A facet oriented in the sagittal plane allows what motion?

24. Intervertebral discs are located between vertebral bodies from:

25. The external jugular vein is found at the:

b. Posterior triangle of the neck d. carotid triangle

29. Nerve supply to sternocleidomastoid:

a. Dorsal occipital nerve c. Greater occipital nerve

32. The line of fusion between the External Oblique is called:

33. This muscle is innervated by the facial nerve:

37. The posterior triangle of the neck is bounded by:

41. This structures pass through transverse foramen:

42. Motor nerve to the muscles of mastication:

43. In an open-packed or loose packed position, EXCEPT:

44. This type of joint is formed by the talus and tibia:

Reference: Basmajian, J. V. (1976). Primary anatomy. Baltimore: Williams & Wilkins.

b. First class lever d. Third class lever

57. When applied, first class levers can be:

58. Characteristic of isometric contraction:

59. If two forces are pulling from the same point:

60. A synovial joint possess which distinguishing feature/s:

61. Functional of ligaments include:

Reference: Brunnstrom's clinical kinesiology. (1994). Philadelphia, PA: F.A. Davis

64. The following statements apply to the scalene muscles, EXCEPT:

Reference: Brunnstrom's clinical kinesiology. (1994). Philadelphia, PA: F.A. Davis.

67. Example of syndesmosis:

UPWARD ROTATION OF SCAPULA:

69. The muscle mastication:

73. Which of the following is true of the Atlanto-Occipital joints:

74. This type of muscle has a great stabilizing component:

75. certain maneuvers. Which of the

Reference: Basmaijan, p. 350

83. When applied, second class levers can be:

85. The following statements are true of laminectomy, EXCEPT:

92. The following statements are true of herniated disc, EXCEPT:

94. Decrease in lumbar lordosis results in:

96. Action of the External Abdominal Oblique:

99. The following statements describe Romberg test, EXCEPT:

100. Signs of meningeal irritation include the following, EXCEPT:

101. The following are muscles of mastication, EXCEPT:

Reference: Mean, W. D. T. R. Knee Ligament Tests.

e. Gibbus deformity may bone present secondary to a herniated disc

106. The forces at the pelvis in bilateral stance is an example of:

107. Following are example of Force Couple, EXCEPT:

113. An example of a synovial pivot joint:

114. Which of the following is NOT true of the Temporomandibular joint:

118. The shape of articulating surfaces of bi-axial joints are either

c. Is a second class lever

c. Designed to reproduce back and leg pain