MCAT 4921 Solutions

MCAT
Medical College Admission Test
Diagnostic 4921
SOLUTIONS
1
MCAT D IAGNOSTIC 4921
S OLUTIONS
Edited, produced, typeset, and illustrated by

Steven A. Leduc
National Director of MCAT Research, Production & Development,
The Princeton Review
Special thanks to:

Jennifer Wooddell
Judene Wright
Matthew B. A. Patterson
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MCAT D IAGNOSTIC 4921

S OLUTIONS
C ONTENTS
Physical Sciences ............. 3
Verbal Reasoning ............. 11
Biological Sciences ....... 22
030202
2
PHYSICAL SCIENCES
PASSAGE I
1. C. From Equation 2, it is clear that kNA = R.
2. C. Equation 1 states that K is proportional to the absolute temperature, T. Therefore, if T increases by a factor of 6/5, so
will K .
3. B. The passage states that “the average kinetic energy of the molecules of an ideal gas depends entirely on the absolute
temperature of the sample.” Therefore, a sample of hydrogen molecules will have the same average kinetic energy as a
sample of helium molecules at the same temperature. (However, the speed of a hydrogen molecule will, on average, be
greater than that of a helium molecule; this is because hydrogen is lighter than helium.)
4. C. The molecular mass of H2O is (2·1 + 16) = 18 g/mol = 0.018 kg/mol. This puts it between He and N2 in Table 1, so
vrms for H2O must be between the vrms values for He and N2. This eliminates choices A and B. Now, since the mass of H2O
is closer to the mass of N2 than to He, the vrms value for H2O must be closer to that of N2. Since choice D (960 m/s) is
closer to 1370 m/s than to 520 m/s, it cannot be correct. The answer must be C.
Another solution uses the proportionality implied by Equation 2: vrms µ 1 / m . Since MH2O = 9MH2, vrms for H2O
should be 9 = 3 times less than for H2. This gives vrms = (1/3)(1930 m/s) ª 640 m/s.
Yet another solution involves estimating vrms by a straightforward application of Equation 2. The math would look like
this:
3 RT 3(8.31)(300) 25 ◊ 3 ◊ 100 ◊ 1000 1000 10 100 10
vrms = = ª = 50 = 500 = 500 ª 500 = 625 m / s
M 18 ¥ 10 -3 18 6 6 60 8
5. B. A gas is termed “ideal” if it obeys the gas laws perfectly. According to the kinetic–molecular theory, two postulates
for an ideal gas are (1) that most of the volume of the gas sample is empty space, and (2) that the gas molecules experience
no intermolecular forces. At high pressures, however, a gas may be compressed to a point where the volume of the
molecules themselves becomes a significant fraction of the total occupied volume, violating postulate (1). And at low
temperatures, the molecules travel more slowly and forces of attraction can overcome their motion, resulting in a greater
tendency to “stick together” as the molecules collide, violating postulate (2). Therefore, real gases approach ideality at low
pressures and high temperatures.
PASSAGE II
6. C. When the oil drop (with charge –q) is in static equilibrium, the electric force it feels, qE upward, is balanced by the
gravitational force, mg downward. Thus, qE = mg, so E = mg/q. Choices A and D would necessitate an increase in E, and
choice B would have no effect on E. The answer is C.
7. A. The voltage, V, and the electric field strength, E, between Plates A and B are related by the equation V = Ed, where d
is the distance between the plates. The oil drop is suspended in the region between the plates when qE = mg (see #6 above),
or, in terms of V, when q(V/d) = mg. Solving this last equation for V gives V = mgd/q.
8. C. The net force on an oil drop (of charge –q) between Plates A and B is the difference between the electric force and the
gravitational force: Fnet = qE – mg. Since Fnet = ma, the acceleration of the oil drop is given by the equation a = (q/m)E –
g. This is an equation of the form “y = mx + b,” whose graph is a straight line. The answer must therefore be graph C.
9. B. Assuming that the oil droplet has zero initial velocity, its free fall to Plate B is described by the equation y = (1/2)gt2, so
t = 2 y / g = 2(0.2 m) /(10 m/s 2 ) = 0.2 sec
3
10. D. The magnetic field created by a moving charge circles around the direction of motion of the charge (in accordance
with the right-hand rule). This eliminates choices A and B. Choice C illustrates the magnetic field generated by a
positively-charged particle moving downward, so the answer must be D.
PASSAGE III
11. D. The only way to change a reaction’s equilibrium constant is to change the temperature.
12. B. Choice A is false since Reaction III is nonspontaneous (its DG is positive). Choice D is false since DGIIo + DGIII
o < 0,
o
so the overall reaction would be spontaneous. Choice C is false for the same reason (and, furthermore, DGIII is less than
the magnitude of DGIIo ). The answer is B.
13. A. Both liquids experience an increase in free energy upon vaporization, eliminating choices B and D. The answer is A
since
Ï-503 - ( -521) = +18 kJ/mol for POCl 3
DGvapor
o
= DGfo(gas) - DGfo(liquid) = Ì
Ó 3 – 0 = +3 kJ/mol for Br2
14. C. If the equilibrium constant K is greater than 1, then ln K > 0. Equation 1, which reads DG = DG∞ + RT ln K at
equilibrium (since Q = K), would therefore give DG > DG∞.
15. B. The passage states that Reaction I is “catalyzed by the enzyme glutamine synthetase.” A catalyst increases the rate
of a reaction by decreasing the activation energy.
16. D. From the equation DG = DH – TDS, we can eliminate choice B since DH > 0 and DS < 0 would always give DG > 0
(nonspontaneous) no matter what the temperature, and we can eliminate choice C since DH < 0 and DS > 0 would give
DG < 0 (spontaneous) regardless of temperature. Choice A is false since at sufficiently high temperatures, the TDS term
would become more negative than DH, leading to a positive DG, contradicting the statement in the question that the reaction
is spontaneous at high temperatures. This leaves choice D.
PASSAGE IV
17. B. Since kinetic energy is given by the equation K = (1/2)mv2, we have v2 = 2K/m. Therefore, the car’s centripetal
acceleration, ac, is v2/r = 2K/(rm) = 2(500,000)/(200·1000) = 5 m/s2.
18. A. Statement I is true, since ac = v2/r depends on r. However, Statement II is false since the direction of the vector ac
always points toward the center of the track and is thus constantly changing, and Statement III is false since ac = v2/r does
not depend on the mass m.
19. D. Since fstatic £ msN and N = mg (because the track is flat), fstatic £ msmg. Because fstatic provides the necessary centripetal
force on the car, fstatic = mv2/r, which then implies mv2/r £ msmg, so ms ≥ v2/(gr).
20. C. If the car, initially at rest, slides down the track, then the force of gravity acting down the banked track must be
greater than the maximum force of static friction on the car. That is, if m is the mass of the car, then mg sin q > ms mg cos q.
Canceling the mg’s, this inequality becomes sin q > ms cos q, which is equivalent to ms < tan q.
21. D. The passage states that “the normal force [exerted by a banked track] has a horizontal component directed radially
inward that contributes to the centripetal force,” and, even in the absence of friction, this may be strong enough to provide
all the necessary centripetal force to keep the car on the track. Therefore, this horizontal radial component of N (which is
absent on a flat track) contributes to the force necessary to maintain the car in circular motion, making it less likely for the
car to skid outward.
4
INDEPENDENT QUESTIONS
22. B. A voltaic cell uses a spontaneous redox reaction to produce an electric current, and the resistance in the conducting
wire causes some of this electrical energy to be converted into light and heat. Thus, the energy conversion here is chemical
Æ electrical Æ light and heat. Choices A, C, and D can be eliminated since the final forms of energy in this process are
light and heat.
23. C. The linear magnification m is given by the expression –i/o. In this case, m = –(30 cm)/(20 cm) = –1.5, so the image
is 1.5 times taller than the object. Therefore, if the object is 6 cm tall, then the image is 1.5(6 cm) = 9 cm tall. (Note: The
minus sign on m simply signifies that the image is inverted, as stated in the question.)
24. D. The density of the ball is rball = (24 g)/(96 cm3) = 0.25 g/cm3, which is 25% the density of the surrounding fluid
(water). Consequently, Archimedes’ Principle implies that the fraction of the ball’s volume that is below the surface of the
water will also be 25%, leaving 75% above the surface.
25. D. This question is clearly asking about colligative properties. Adding the given solute to water will expand the
temperature range of its liquid phase by lowering its melting point and raising its boiling point; this eliminates choices A
and B. Osmotic pressure (a measure of the tendency to take on water) increases with solute concentration, so choice C is
eliminated. The answer must be D. The addition of the solute causes vapor pressure depression.
26. A. Resistances in series are additive, so increasing the number of resistors in series will increase the overall resistance,
Req, and, therefore, decrease the current (since I = V/Req and V is fixed). Since the total power output of the circuit is given
by P = V2/Req, the increase in Req will result in a decrease in P.
PASSAGE V
27. A. Each b– decay increases the number of protons by 1, but leaves the total number of protons and neutrons unchanged.
Each a decay decreases the number of protons by 2 and decreases the total number of protons and neutrons by 4. Thus, after
two beta and two alpha decays, thorium-234 becomes radium-226:
b- b- a a
90 Th ææÆ 91 Pa ææÆ 92 U ææÆ 230
90 Th ææÆ 226
234 234 234
88 Ra
28. C. Since the passage states that the half-life of 222Rn is a little less than 4 days, a time period of 11.5 days is
approximately 3 half-lives. After 3 half-lives have elapsed, the amount of radioisotope remaining is (1/2)3 = 1/8 = 12.5%, so
choice C is best.
29. D. Choices A, B, and C are all false, so the answer must be D. Choice A is false because 214Po is an alpha emitter with
a shorter half-life than 222Rn, and B is false since 210Pb is an alpha emitter with a longer half-life. Choice C is false because
238
U clearly has the greatest mass number in the series. Radon is an odorless, colorless gas that results from the decay of
radium (after which it was named) found in soil and rocks. Being a gas, radon can easily seep from the ground (and even
the building materials) into homes, where it is inhaled and can lodge in the lungs. Although radon is chemically inert, the
alpha particle it emits upon decaying is damaging; furthermore, its daughter nucleus, 218Po, is not chemically inert and also
radioactive. Radon is the largest source of radiation encountered by humans (accounting for over half of the total average
radiation exposure to the U.S. population).
30. D. Mass–energy equivalence is described by Einstein’s formula E = mc2. The amount of energy equivalent to a mass of
5 ¥ 10–29 kg is calculated as follows: E = mc 2 = (5 ¥ 10 -29 kg)(3 ¥ 10 8 m/s)2 = 45 ¥ 10 -13 J = 4.5 ¥ 10 -12 J .
31. A. Choice B is false since the equation relating momentum, p, to kinetic energy, K, is p = 2 Km . Since the alpha and
beta particles have the same K, the one with the smaller mass (the beta particle) has the lower momentum. Choice C is false
since a smaller particle would tend to have fewer collisions, not more. And choice D is not true because although the alpha
particle does have a lower velocity, this would not be the cause of its losing its energy over a smaller distance. The alpha
particle would experience a greater electric force and a greater gravitational force than an equally-energetic beta particle,
5
not because of its lower velocity, but because of its greater charge and its greater mass. [In fact, it can be shown the energy
lost per unit distance for a particle of charge q and mass m moving through matter is proportional to q2m/K.] Choice A is
correct and describes why alpha particles have shorter ranges than beta particles.
PASSAGE VI
32. B. The passage states that normal pH of stomach fluid is between 1.5 and 2.5. Only choice B, [H+] = 0.01 M, would
give a pH in this range (namely, 2). Choice A would imply a pH of 3 (too high), and choices C and D would imply pH
values of 1 and 0, respectively (too low).
33. C. As the pH of the stomach is raised by an antacid, [H3O+] decreases, and the equilibrium of the weak acid given in the
question shifts to the right. Therefore, as HA becomes more deprotonated, the ratio [HA] : [A–] will decrease.
34. B. If only 1% = 1/100 of the H+ ions remained, then the number of H+ ions would drop by a factor of 102. Therefore,
the pH would increase by log(102) = 2 units. In this case, the pH would rise from 1.3 to 1.3 + 2 = 3.3.
35. D. Mg(OH)2 has a molecular weight of 24.3 + 2(16 + 1) = 58.3 g/mol, making it the lightest of the four given antacids.
Furthermore, each mole of Mg(OH)2 neutralizes 2 moles of HCl, so it is certainly the most efficient HCl neutralizer (on a
per gram basis) of the given choices.
36. A. A buffer is formed by a mixture of a weak acid and its conjugate base. Stomach fluid, however, is a strong acid
(HCl) solution. Furthermore, statements B, C, and D are all true.
PASSAGE VII
37. D. The difference in pressure between two points in a static fluid is given by the expression rfluidgy, where y is the
vertical distance between the two points. (Note that choices A and C can be eliminated, because the units are wrong: density
times acceleration times velocity does not give pressure.)
38. B. Applying the equation given in the passage yields
2(10 m/s 2 )( 4 ¥ 10 -2 m)(8 ¥ 10 2 kg/m 3 )

v= ª (82 ◊ 10) m 2 /s 2 ª (8 ◊ 3) m/s = 24 m/s
1.2 kg/m 3
39. C. The volume flow rate (volume of air flowing per second) is given by the equation f = Av, where A is the cross-
sectional area of the cylinder and v is the average speed of the flow. Since density times volume equals mass, multiplying f
by rair will give the mass moving past any point (per unit time) through the cylinder. This gives
rair Av = (1.2 ¥ 10 3 g/m 3 )(5 ¥ 10 -3 m 2 )(15 m/s) = 90 g/s
40. C. The passage states that the pressure at Point a is the same as the pressure at Point d, and that the pressure at Point b
is the same as the pressure at Point c. This eliminates choices A and B. S ince Point c is lower than Point d in the U-tube,
the pressure at point c must be greater than at Point d. Therefore, the pressure is highest at Points b and c.
41. A. From the equation given in the passage, it is easy to show that
rgas
y = v2 ◊
2 gr liquid
Since rwater is greater than ralcohol, the denominator in the expression above would increase, causing y to decrease.
6
42. D. From the equation given in #111 above for y in terms of v, we see that y is proportional to v2, so the graph of y vs. v
must be a parabola (through the origin) that opens upward. Therefore, graph D is best.
PASSAGE VIII
43. C. Choice A can be eliminated because the second rod is also made of brass; the thermal conductivity, k, depends only
on the identity of the material. Choice D can also be eliminated since the question states that the only change in the
experimental procedure is the greater initial length of the brass rod; we conclude that the ends of the rod were at the same
respective temperatures as in the first experiment. Looking at Equation 1, a greater L and a smaller t (choice B) would give
a greater value of k, contrary to the fact that k is a constant. This eliminates choice B. The answer must be C. Looking at
Equation 1 again, a greater L would imply a smaller Q (because nothing in the denominator changes), and therefore, by
Equation 2, a smaller value for (Tf – Ti).
44. A. The value of Q is found by measuring the temperature of the water and using Equation 2. This value is then
substituted into Equation 1 to calculate k. Since some heat is lost, the actual amount of heat conducted by the rod is greater
than that calculated in Equation 2, so the value of Q substituted into Equation 1 is actually a little smaller than the true
value, resulting in a calculated value of k that is a little smaller than its true value.
45. D. An error intrinsic to the experiment stems from the fact that TC increases over the course of the experiment, from TC
to TC¢ . Measuring only TC¢ will reduce the value of TH – TC. We now see by Equation 1 that a reduced value of TH – TC will
lead to an increased value of k (choice D). Note that choices A and B can be eliminated since the calculation of Q does not
depend on the measurement of TC.
46. C. Intuitvely, a metal rod of short length and large diameter would be able to conduct heat more rapidly than a long,
thin rod. This can be verified by solving Equation 1 for t:
QL
t=
kA(TH - TC )
To make t as small as possible, choose L small and A large.
47. C. Equation 2 shows that for a given quantity of heat Q, a greater heat capacity would result in a lower value of (Tf –
Ti).
48. A. Equation 3 shows that DL is directly proportional to both L0 and DT.
49. A. In order to achieve the same value of Tf – Ti, the same quantity of conducted heat, Q, would be required (according
to Equation 2). Now, solving Equation 1 for L yields
kAt (TH - TC )
L=
Q
which shows that L is proportional to k. Since the value of k for lead is six times smaller than the value of k for aluminum
(according to Table 1), the length of the lead rod would have to be six times smaller than the length of the aluminum rod.
This gives LPb = (1/6)LAl = (1/6)(3 m) = 0.5 m.
50. C. Of the metals listed in Table 1, copper has the highest thermal conductivity and the lowest coefficient of linear
expansion.
7
51. C. Snell’s Law gives
n1 sin q1 = nX sin q X fi (1)sin 30∞ = nX sin(23.5∞) fi 0.5 = nX (0.4) fi nX = 5 / 4
Since the index of refraction of Material X is 5/4, then, by definition, the speed of light is reduced by a factor of 5/4 from its
speed in vacuum (or air). Thus, vX = (4/5)c = (4/5)(3 ¥ 108 m/s) = 2.4 ¥ 108 m/s. (Note that choice D can be eliminated
immediately since it is greater than c = 3 ¥ 108 m/s.)
52. A. The strongest reducing agent is the species that it most easily oxidized. Choice B can be eliminated since the
reduction of Cu+ is spontaneous (since E∞ > 0). Choice D can also be eliminated because the oxidation of F– is
nonspontaneous. The oxidation of Ba (to Ba2+) is spontaneous (E∞ = +2.91 V) and has a higher voltage than the (magnitude
of) the voltage for the reduction of PbSO4, so barium is the strongest reducing agent here.
53. D. The magnitude of the tensile strain in a compressed material is defined to be ΩDLΩ/L. In this case, the beam
undergoes a strain of Ω9 cm – 10 cmΩ/(10 cm) = 0.1. The stress is the pressure, 9 ¥ 109 Pa. Therefore, Young’s modulus
for this material is E = stress/strain = (9 ¥ 109 Pa)/(0.1) = 9 ¥ 1010 Pa.
54. C. For each increase by 10 in the decibel level, the intensity of the sound increases by a factor of 10. In this case, the
decibel level has increased by two units of 10 (since 55 – 35 = 20 = 10 + 10), so the sound intensity increases by two factors
of 10, that is, by a factor of 102 = 100.
55. B. The index of refraction of a medium is inversely proportional to the speed of light through the medium. Hence, if
light travels faster in water than in benzene, then the index of refraction for water must be lower. This eliminates choices C
and D. The critical angle with air (that is, the angle of incidence beyond which an incident beam of light in the medium
would experience total internal reflection upon striking the boundary with air) is given by the expression sin–1(1/n), where n
is the refractive index of the medium. Since water has a lower refractive index than benzene, the value of 1/n is greater, and
the value of sin–1(1/n) is also greater. This is choice B.
PASSAGE IX
56. D. If air resistance is ignored, then mechanical energy is conserved, which in this case can be expressed as follows:
KE (at launch) Æ PE (at top of vertical path) Æ KE (at impact). Since KE (at launch) = KE (at impact), the impact speed
will be the same as the launch speed, so Item I is true. Using the statement of the conservation of energy in the form
“KE (at launch) Æ PE (at top of vertical path),” which reads (1 / 2)mv02 = mgh, we find that v0 = 2gh . Therefore, if the
maximum height h reached by the projectile is known, then the launch speed v0 can be determined; Item II is true. Finally,
using Big Five #2, we have v0 = g(T/2), where T is the total flight time. Thus, if T is known, then v0 can be determined, so
Item III is also true.
57. B. The initial horizontal speed is given by v0x = v0 cos q0, and the initial vertical speed is given by v0y = v0 sin q0. Since
cos q decreases and sin q increases as q goes from 0 to 90∞, the initial horizontal speed will decrease and the initial vertical
speed will increase.
58. A. From the equation R = ( v02 /g) sin 2q0 given in the passage, we see that R is 0 when q0 = 90∞ (since sin 180∞ = 0) and
approaches 0 as q0 approaches 0 (since sin 0∞ = 0). Furthermore, since sin 2q0 attains its maximum value when q0 = 45∞,
the graph of R vs. q0 must start at 0, rise to a maximum at q0 = 45∞, then return to 0 at q0 = 90∞. This is best depicted by
graph A.
59. D. First, from the equation given in the passage, R depends on sin 2q0. Since sin 2(30∞) = sin 2(60∞), the projectiles’
ranges will be the same; this eliminates choices B and C. The total flight time, T, is found by doubling the time t required
for the projectile’s vertical velocity to drop to 0 (which occurs at the projectile’s maximum height). Since Dvy = –gt, we
have t = v0y/g, so T = 2v0y/g = 2(v0 sin q0)/g. Since sin 30∞ π sin 60∞, the projectiles’ flight times will not be the same, so the
answer is D.
8
60. C. Using the fact that horizontal distance is equal to horizontal speed multiplied by time, R = v0xT, we find that T = R/
v0x = R/(v0 cos q0) = 3460/(200 cos 30∞) = (17.3)/(cos 30∞) = (17.3)/(1.73/2) = 20 sec.
61. C. Under the simplifying assumptions stated in the passage, the only force acting on the projectile after it is launched is
that of gravity, so the projectile’s acceleration during its entire flight is constant and equal to g.
62. B. This is a conservation of energy question. With the simplifying assumptions stated in the passage, total mechanical
energy (E = PE + KE) is conserved. Since we can take PE equal to 0 at launch and at impact, we can conclude that the KE
at launch is equal to the KE at impact, so the final speed of each projectile must be the same as its initial speed. Because
both projectiles were launched with the same initial speed, they both land with the same final speed.
PASSAGE X
63. C. Reaction 1 is not a redox reaction. The oxidation states of Ag and I in AgI(s) are +1 and –1, respectively, and
neither changes during dissolving.
64. B. Choice B gives the criterion for a compound to be classified as ionic. Neither choice A nor C is relevant, and choice
D describes a covalently-bonded molecule.
65. D. Freezing point depression is a colligative property, and, as such, depends directly upon the number of dissolved ions
is solution. If NaI produces the greater freezing point depression, then it must dissolve more readily.
66. B. The equilibrium described by Reaction 1 will be shifted to the left if more I– ions are present in solution (which
would occur if NaI were added), thus increasing the concentration of AgI(s). This phenomenon is known as the common ion
effect.
PASSAGE XI
67. D. The atomic weight of gold is 197 g/mol and that of copper is 63.5 g/mol. Therefore, the percentage of gold (by
weight) in a sample of alloy consisting of equal molar quantities of gold and copper would be
197 197 200 20 10 3

= ª = = ª = 75%
197 + 63.5 260.5 260 26 13 4
Thus, the purity of the gold would be given as 75%(24 karats) = 18 karats.
68. A. First, choices C and D can be eliminated since the hardness and resiliency of high-carbon steel is a separate issue
from its resistance to surface corrosion. The passage states that an interstitial alloy (choice A) has a greater number of
bonds in the lattice, a condition which would likely increase the strength of the material.
69. B. Because ultraviolet light has higher energy than infrared, choice C is impossible, and since the eye cannot convert
infrared light into visual signals, choice D is eliminated. Choice A is true, but does not answer the question; if the light were
simply absorbed and none re-radiated, the object would be a blackbody. The best choice is B.
70. A. The passage states that “the strongest bonds are exhibited among the elements with the outer electron configuration
of (n – 1)d4 ns2. . . .” Among the choices given, chromium has an outer electron configuration closest to this: [Cr] =
[Ar]3d54s1. Therefore, it should have the strongest metallic bonds and, consequently, the highest melting point. The metals
Fe, Ni, and Zn have fewer unpaired electrons than Cr and, therefore, less electrons to participate in metallic bonding (which
depends on mobile, delocalized electrons). In fact, zinc, with the outer electron (pseudo noble-gas) configuration 3d104s2
has no unpaired electrons available for metallic bonding; it should (and does) have the lowest melting point of the choices
given. Note that zinc is in the same family as mercury, which is a liquid at room temperature.
9
71. A. By definition, iron(III) has an oxidation state of +3. Since fluorine has an oxidation state of –1, iron(III)
hexafluoride, with formula unit FeF6, would have a total oxidation state of (+3) + 6(–1) = –3. Therefore, this complex must
be an ion with a charge of –3: FeF63–.
72. C. First, eliminate choices A and D. Since cobalt has atomic number 27, the electron configuration must account for 27
electrons. Choice A describes an atom with just 18 + 1 + 7 = 26 electrons, and choice D describes one with 18 + 2 + 8 = 28.
The passage states that “in general, the (n – 1)d subshell of the transition elements does not start to fill until after the ns
subshell has been filled.” Therefore, we would expect that the electron configuration of a cobalt atom would be described
by choice C (with a filled 4s subshell) rather than by choice B (with a half-filled 4s subshell).
73. C. If the only change in the flow is a larger cross-sectional area of the tube, then the continuity equation would imply a
lower flow speed (since v is inversely proportional to A).
74. A. The displacement of the balloon is found from two applications of the Pythagorean Theorem:
d = (32 + 4 2 ) + 52 ª 7 km
Note that choice C gives the total distance (as opposed to the net distance) traveled.
4
5
N
E
ª7
75. C. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves that travel at the speed of light. Using the fundamental equation lf = v (with
v = c), we find that
c 3 ¥ 10 8 m/s 1
l= = = ¥ 10 2 m ª 3.3 m
f 90 ¥ 10 /s 30
6
76. A. Atmospheric pressure on a mountain several kilometers in altitude would be less than at sea level, so choices C and
D are eliminated. Since the mercury in the dish feels less pressure from the atmosphere, it would not be pushed up as high
in the tube.
77. A. The increase in the object’s gravitational potential energy is mgh = (2 ¥ 10–3 kg)(10 N/kg)(5 ¥ 10–2 m) = 100 ¥ 10–5 J
= 10–3 J = 0.001 J. [Note: The increase in kinetic energy is negligible in comparison: K = (1/2)mv2 = (1/2)(2 ¥ 10–3 kg) ¥
[(5 ¥ 10–2 m)/(2 s)]2 = 6.25 ¥ 10–7 J. Therefore, although the actual energy expended is slightly more than 0.001 J, it is still
much closer to 0.001 J than to the next nearest choice, 0.002 J.]
10
VERBAL REASONING
PASSAGE I
78. C
A. See lines 24-25. Since the example includes environmental factors, this answer choice is incomplete.
B. See lines 31-34. The example emphasizes an interaction among factors; this answer choice refers only to the innate
condition or internal makeup of the computer.
C. The interaction between the innate condition of the airplane and the force of the air in its environment illustrates
the same principle as the can and the weight of the car.
D. See lines 24-25. Since the example includes environmental factors, this answer choice is incomplete.
79. C
A. See lines 13-15. The author believes that some causes of schizophrenia are important.
B. See paragraph 5. Lines 47-50 show the relationship between environment and individual constitution; the examples of
patients that follow imply that the stronger the individual’s constitution, the less likely the patient is to succumb to
environmental stress. This choice is too extreme.
C. See lines 69-72. Including himself, the author states that practitioners should focus on environmental, or
exogenous, factors.
D. See lines 77-79. The author encourages researchers, not practitioners, to focus on causes within the individual.
80. B
A. See lines 65-72. The author argues that it is currently impossible to treat schizophrenia genetically. This choice,
describing limitations on genetic engineering, is consistent with that position.
B. See lines 65-69. If treatments are currently available which alter the “individual’s genetic design,” then this
directly contradicts the author’s reason for focusing on environmental factors (genetic engineering is currently
impossible).
C. The author states that current knowledge allows us to work with the patient’s environment (lines 67-69), not that every
patient’s environment is or can be made to be ideal (lines 38-39). This choice therefore does not weaken the author’s
recommendation.
D. See lines 73-74. The author does not claim that schizophrenia can be completely cured; this does not contradict his
recommendation.
81. C
A. See lines 31-36. The author does not indicate that the causes are simple, but complex and interconnected.
B. Psychological problems, according to the author, arise from the interaction between environmental and internal factors,
not from one or the other alone (lines 37-46).
C. See paragraph 3. The examples used to illustrate the cause-and-effect relationships emphasize the importance of
both exogenous (environmental) and innate factors.
D. See paragraph 3. The author does not indicate that the causes are too complex, only that they are very complex and
psychiatrists must take into account the relationships among factors.
82. D
A. See paragraph 2. The author does not present causation as a philosophical concept.
B. See paragraph 2. The author believes that perception depends upon perspective (from the perspective of either nature or
environment); this answer choice is too narrow.
C. This choice contradicts the passage. In lines 38-46, the author indicates that no environment (which in this case would
include upbringing) is ideal. Psychological health is based on an interaction of environment and internal constitution
such that there are enough positive factors in one or both to prevent significant dysfunction.
D. See paragraph 2 and lines 41-46. This is the main argument in the passage; environmental and internal factors
are the different perspectives mentioned in the claim.
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83. A
A. See lines 77-79. Psychiatric researchers should explore the causes of illness from the perspective of the
individual.
B. See lines 69-72. Psychiatric practicioners, not researchers, should focus on environmental causes.
C. This is a trap based on the idea that internal and external factors “interact” to create illness; no “interaction-oriented
cures” are outlined in the passage.
D. See the last paragraph. Research may well involve some theorizing. However, the author argues that psychiatric
researchers should focus primarily on the practical goal of learning more about the individual constitution in order to
provide more effective treatment. (Be careful to pay close attention to words like “primarily” or “chief” when they
appear in the question stem.)
84. B
Item I: False. The author does not argue that we are unable to understand or affect any sort of internal function, only that
we cannot manipulate genetic design (lines 65-67). The passage gives no evidence that we cannot improve
immune system function in other, non-genetic ways.
Item II: False. Compare this choice to Item III. While the author would argue that environment plays a role (lines 38-46),
neither the passage nor the question stem indicates that upbringing, one specific aspect of environment, would be
a factor in all (non-psychological) disease.
Item III: True. This is the author’s main argument; reactions to the environment, such as infections, are produced
by the interaction between environmental and innate factors.
PASSAGE II
85. A
A. See lines 61-63.
B. See the last paragraph. The lack of a relevant connection to modern life, not easy living, causes people to forget
historical facts.
C. This choice is too limited to correspond to the causal explanation given in lines 60-63. The passage states that the
history of trees has been largely forgotten, because trees as a whole no longer play a primary role in our society. This
answer choice only indicates that the way in which some trees are used has changed.
D. This choice contradicts the passage; trees are still used for medicines (lines 9-11). Furthermore, like choice C, it is too
limited, only indicating that certain usages are no longer common.
86. C
A. The passage only indicates that modern Americans, not early Native Americans used trees for paper (lines 9-11).
B. The passage states that early, not modern Americans used trees as a primary fuel source (lines 5-7).
C. See lines 11 and 17. Medicine is the only use for trees that is mentioned in connection with both native and
modern Americans.
D. Early, not modern Americans, according to the passage, used trees for sailing vessels (lines 3-4 and 32). While sailing
vessels might still be built from trees, that modern usage is never mentioned or indicated by the author.
87. B
A. This word is too weak. Trees do still play a significant role, as sources of food, medicine, and other products (lines 8-
13). The author’s argument in the last paragraph is that trees no longer play a primary or central role.
B. Principal is a synonym for paramount; both indicate that society in the past, unlike today, depended on trees.
C. While trees may be less valued and important than they were in the past, the author indicates in paragraph 2 that they
continue to be valued to some extent today.
D. Important is a synonym for significant, and so has the same problems as choice A. Note that if two choices are
equivalent, neither can be the credited response.
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88. C
Item I: Yes. Although it may sound unlikely, the use of trees in producing plastic is mentioned in lines 9-13.
Item II: Yes. The passage states that trees are used to make paper, by which we could infer the significant role of
trees in manufacturing books (line 11).
Item III: No. The author states that trees “at one time” were our only fuel source, and argues in the last paragraph that
trees no longer play a primary role in our lives. Thus, there is no support in the passage for the conclusion that
trees still play a significant role in the production of energy.
89. B
Item I: False. See lines 33-34. Although this assertion is made in the passage, it is not directly relevant to constructing
bows.
Item II: False. This assertion is not made in the passage. See lines 41-47 and 53-59.
Item III: True. See lines 53-54. This assertion is made in the passage and, if true, would be directly contradicted by
the anthropologist’s discovery.
90. D
A. Measured planks do not provide data regarding total tree height.
B. This answer choice lacks specific information concerning the height of trees; in addition, virgin white pines are not
specified.
C. See lines 35-37. This answer choice directly contradicts the passage.
D. See lines 39-40. If they “typically” did not record the sizes of the trees, then they may have left written records of
the sizes of a few specimens.
91. D
A. The question asks about modern Americans, not about the beliefs of our forebears; the author does not draw a
connection between the two.
B. The question asks why we might know little about the history of the horse. This choice does not explain the reason for
the historians’ lack of interest, based on information provided in the passage.
C. As in choice B, this answer does not explain our lack of information, it just describes it.
D. See lines 61-63. The author states that the reason historical facts are forgotten is the lack of a relevant connection
to modern life.
92. D
A. None of these enterprises has a clear connection to past beliefs or to the healing properties of sassafras.
B. There is no connection between “doctors today” and past Native American beliefs.
C. The medicinal taste provides no evidence for past beliefs or for healing properties.
D. Native Americans’ drawings act as evidence for their beliefs that sassafras oil had healing properties.
PASSAGE III
93. D
A. This answer choice emphasizes the actual punishment of a crime, not the mystery story that is the focus of the question.
B. This answer choice does not address mystery stories in particular.
C. The passage refers to our comfort with the legal system in a democracy (lines 31-36), not to comparative level or
number of comforts attached to life in a democratic system.
D. See lines 31-39. The author asserts that citizens of democracies enjoy the mystery story because through it,
collectively agreed upon morality is upheld; we can infer that citizens of dictatorships do not derive the same
type of satisfaction due to their lack of political participation.
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94. D
A. This claim is made by the author himself in the passage (lines 20-23). The author never claims that the two are
identical, only that they serve almost the same purpose.
B. See line 17. The author indicates that the audience found pleasure in the wrongdoer’s punishment.
C. See lines 16-17 and 27. “Apt punishments” were given to wrongdoers of “antisocial acts.”
D. If modern mysteries portrayed criminal behavior not as the sole responsibility of the criminal, but as caused by
external factors, this would be inconsistent with the morality play’s focus on locating evil within the individual
wrongdoer and imposing a just punishment (lines 13-17).
95. D
A. The passage does not claim that colleges and universities only teach “true literature”; therefore, mystery stories could
be taught and not be considered “true literature.”
B. The passage does not claim that literary critics only give favorable reviews to “true literature.”
C. Popular and lucrative works of fiction may not have the qualities of “true literature.”
D. See paragraph 1. Since this is the only paragraph in the passage that discusses “true literature,” the correct
answer must be found in statements made in lines 1-5; if all “true literature addresses fundamental issues of
human existence,” and mystery stories do address these issues, then mysteries must have at least one essential
quality of true literature.
96. A
A. See lines 27-30. The power or “propulsive force” of a mystery is our “instinct for justice”. Secondarily, mysteries
keep the readers’ interest by making the story entertaining (lines 41-49). Similarity to the readers’ lives is never
mentioned or suggested as a factor.
B. See lines 55-56. Mystery stories reflect the criminal “transgressions” of the twentieth century.
C. See paragraph 1. Since the author indicates that mystery stories have the same fundamental conflicts as morality plays,
we can infer that the author believes mystery stories are literature.
D. See line 24. The passage states that the stakes are higher in modern mysteries.
97. D
D. See lines 28-29. The “instinct for justice” propels the mystery story.
98. A
Item I: True. The analogy implies that we celebrate a common set of beliefs through the mystery story that are
similar to those beliefs celebrated through the arts (“song and verse”).
Item II: False. Expressing common beliefs through music and poetry is equated to expressing beliefs through the
mystery story; one is not said to be “better” than the other.
Item III: False. This implies a contrast between the arts and the mystery story; the passage shows that they both celebrate
the nation (lines 37-39).
PASSAGE IV
99. A
A. The problem lies in the lack of full economic, not political independence (lines 11-13).
B. See paragraph 5. Inadequate agricultural policies have led to food shortages in Africa.
C. See paragraph 6. Corrupt politicians created self-serving policies leading to food shortages.
D. See lines 54-58. Many people migrated to urban areas, leaving less labor force for agriculture.
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100. C
A. Be careful not to use outside knowledge. The author uses the term “economic independence” in the context of
discussing economic productivity (lines 15-17), not trade agreements with other countries.
B. While the author mentions that Africa has the capacity to be a net exporter (lines 42-43), export of goods is not given as
a definition of or factor in economic independence. In fact, the problem rests in part on the prioritizing of exports over
local consumption (lines 21-29).
C. The author argues that Africa is not economically independent or truly free due to unproductive economies and
a shortfall in food produced for local consumption. This has led to dependence on Western nations for food aid
(lines 11-17, 24-29, 34-41).
D. The author distinguishes political independence (freedom from colonial rule) (lines 11-12, and the first paragraph) from
economic independence or the ability of Africa to feed itself (lines 30-41).
101. D
A. This answer choice is unrelated to the transfer of power in Africa.
B. This answer choice is unrelated to British rule.
C. This answer choice is unrelated to the transfer of power.
D. See lines 59-64. If Great Britain continues to provide support, then this would directly contradict the author’s
contention that economic cooperation collapsed.
102. A
A. The passage identifies decline in food production for local consumption as a fundamental problem (paragraphs 3
and 4).
B. The passage identifies current dependence on foreign food, not on foreign experts as the problem (lines 33-37).
Nothing in the passage or the question stem indicates that foreign technical aid or advice would recreate the
dependency created by British colonialism (lines 59-63).
C. The author argues that dependency on Western food aid is part of the ongoing problem (lines 33-37), and that long-
term, not shortsighted solutions are needed (lines 66-69).
D. Lack of economic productivity is in fact an issue (lines 12-17), but emphasis on exports over local consumption is part
of the problem (lines 21-29), not a likely aspect of a solution, based on the passage.
103. D
A. This choice is too broad. The author only discusses how this was true in post-colonial Africa.
B. This choice is too narrow. It covers only the last paragraph, leaving out the author’s discussion of the shortage of food
production for local consumption in paragraphs 3-5.
C. This choice is too extreme. While the author clearly believes that the problem is serious, the passage offers no call to
action, nor any specific solution.
D. This choice covers all of the major themes in the passage, including both the causes and the specific nature of the
problem.
104. D
A. See paragraph 5. Reducing the power of the urban elite would not have given financial incentives to farmers, and thus
would not have had the greatest impact.
B. See paragraph 5. If incentives did not exist for farmers to produce food, then aid would not have had the greatest
impact.
C. See lines 37-38. Population growth was not believed to be the main cause of the food crisis in Ghana in the 1970s.
D. See paragraph 5. The “low price incentives” to Ghanaian farmers was the key restraint on productivity
suggested by the passage.
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105. D
A. See lines 42-43. Caution in exploitation of natural resources was not the main obstacle; Africa is “fabulously wealthy”
in terms of natural resources.
B. See paragraph 2. According to the author, Africa is not really “free” due to slow economic development; while political
freedom was occurring, more attention needed to be paid to economic independence.
C. The passage does not indicate that the author believes that knowing the history of agriculture would have helped
African nations achieve better progress.
D. See paragraph 2. Slow economic development and insufficiently productive economies held African nations back
from achieving better progress.
PASSAGE V
106. C
A. See lines 60-61. This is a trap based on the use of the word “virile” in the metaphor concerning Beethoven.
B. See lines 50-53. The passage asserts that Beethoven is “untidy,” but Mozart achieves “perfection.”
C. See paragraph 3. The author asserts that it is misleading to believe that Beethoven is the preeminent composer.
D. See line 48. The author shows some respect for Beethoven’s music by calling it “hearty”; in addition, the author does
not generalize about people’s tastes other than in music.
107. D
A. See lines 7-10. His operas were “resurrected” this century, indicating they had not been in repertory previously.
B. See lines 3-4. His music never dropped out of repertory, indicating it has been appreciated.
C. The author states that while in the past Mozart’s operas were less well known than his orchestral music, in the twentieth
century his operatic work has been resurrected and made easily accessible (lines 3-12). Thus there is no evidence in the
passage that Mozart’s orchestral music is still better known or appreciated.
D. See paragraph 1. Lines 3-4 indicate that his orchestral music has been appreciated throughout this time; lines 7-
10 state that his operas have been “resurrected” this century, indicating that his operas had been less
appreciated than his orchestral music until the twentieth century.
108. C
A. See line 18. This is a trap based on the use of these words in the passage to describe Mozart.
B. See lines 16-17. If the “producer’s business...coarsens the charm on our stages,” then it cannot be considered an
essential element.
C. See lines 16-17. If it is often “inane” and “coarse,” then we can infer that the “producer’s business” may
compromise the music.
D. This choice is too extreme. The passage states that the producer’s business “so often” coarsens the music (lines 16-17),
indicating that sometimes it does not compromise the artistic quality of the performance.
109. A
A. In lines 35-38, the author says that respected opinion has recognized Mozart as the composer or even the artist.
The passage then goes on to argue that Mozart, not Beethoven deserves the title of “Shakespeare among
composers” (lines 39-45), indicating that there is only one who merits such an honor. The wording of this choice
is extreme, but so is the author’s praise for Mozart’s genius throughout the passage.
B. The author argues that Mozart was not a technical innovator (lines 22-23).
C. The author’s comparison of Mozart with Shakespeare is based on Mozart’s equivalent genius, not on similarity in style
or content of their respective works.
D. While this accurately describes Mozart (lines 52-53), it does not characterize Shakespeare (lines 50-51).
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110. D
A. See lines 3-4. This answer choice respects Mozart’s orchestral music; the author believes that Mozart’s music achieves
“perfection of design” (lines 52-53).
B. See lines 48-50. The author recognizes that Mozart used “wit” and “comedy” in his music.
C. See lines 64-66. The author recognizes that Beethoven “assaults our emotions head on.”
D. See lines 48-50. The author argues that Beethoven’s music does not contain “wit or comedy”; if one of
Beethoven’s operas contained a lighthearted moment, then this would contradict the author’s argument.
111. B
B. The analogies in the last paragraph show the absurdity in assuming true power from an external appearance of
power. It compares Beethoven to the weight-lifter and Mozart to the fencer to illustrate how Beethoven’s heroic
musical “assault” is no greater than Mozart’s “audacious” musical strategy.
PASSAGE VI
112. B
A. See lines 46-49 and 61-64. Both climate and hunting by Paleo-Indians are given as likely causes of massive extinctions.
Therefore, this choice is supported by the passage.
B. See lines 57-60. Condors, teratorns, and vultures suffered because of the devastation of large mammals on which
they depended. The passage indicates that these mammals may have died due to climatic change as well as
hunting (lines 61- 64), but destruction of the habitat of condors et al is never mentioned. The trap lies in the
discussion of destruction of habitats of other types of birds (lines 65-72).
C. See lines 62-64. Climatic warming occurred during the same period as the arrival of humans to the New World across
the Bering Strait (lines 35-36).
D. See lines 76-79. Coniferous forests began to migrate northward as the climate changed.
113. B
A. See paragraph 4. Because of different contexts, we cannot assume that the Inuits would act as the Paleo-Indians did.
B. If Denali Park includes “ecological islands” similar to Centinela, with human settlement and development, then
the process of deforestation and a resulting decrease of diversity would most likely result.
C. See lines 69-74. Because of different contexts, we cannot assume the same chain of events would occur in Denali that
occurred in Iceland.
D. See lines 69-74. Because of different contexts, we cannot assume the same chain of events would occur in Denali that
occurred in Iceland.
114. C
A. The author does not make this claim in the passage.
B. This new information would weaken the author’s argument about diversity, not about the occurrence of extinctions in
Centinela and elsewhere. The rate of extinction could still be high while the species that were lost are replaced by new
species, as in the new information in the question.
C. See lines 4-5 and 29-33. If the study outlined in the question stem is accurate, then it would directly contradict
the author’s claim.
D. This answer choice does not directly relate to the study’s claim that the threat of extinction has been exaggerated.
115. C
A. The fact that modern hunting methods are more effective does not significantly damage the argument that Paleo-Indians
[described as “skilled hunters” (lines 52-53)] were effective enough to devastate the mammoth population.
B. As in choice A, this statement is not strong enough to weaken the passage. If saber-toothed tigers sometimes hunted
mammoths, this fails to show that humans did not themselves kill a significant number, nor that the tigers were the true
cause of the extinction.
C. If early American hunters could only kill injured mammoths that would likely have died soon anyway, then we
can infer that it is unlikely that hunters “devastated mammoth populations.”
D. This answer choice is unrelated to mammoths.
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116. D
D. If the fossilized forms were found on the same level of rock, it would prove only that the animals and
humans perished during the same time period. Without more information, we cannot infer whether they
died from “climatic change” or “overkill.”
117. C
A. This would make the sentence redundant: An extinct plant “enters oblivion like the dead of” an extinct plant.
B. Entries in a biological record book are not necessarily of only dead specimens; in addition, recording would
prevent entering “oblivion.”
C. If substituted for “elegy,” “a dirge” (funeral song) best approximates the meaning given by the context of the
sentence; funeral songs sing of “the dead.”
D. Entries in a taxonomy would record the plant’s genus and species; the author states that these extinct plants fade
into “oblivion...their genus unused.”
PASSAGE VII
118. C
A. See lines 4-5. Objects used as early money were useful and therefore had inherent value.
B. See lines 1-10. According to the author, “money” can include things such as cattle, shells, and whiskey that have
no pre-set value. One advantage of coins, one type of money, is that they, unlike these other forms of money, do
have predetermined value (lines 15-18).
C. See lines 5-13. If objects used as money are durable, uniform, and of quality, then they will be “acceptable to
buyers and sellers”; moreover, these objects are traded for goods in order “to avoid the awkwardness of
barter.”
D. The author does not assert that for objects to be “money,” they must be desired by everyone.
119. D
D. See paragraphs 6 and 7. The first “great development” was the public regulation of money by banks through
deposits based on weight; the “second Amsterdam discovery” was the lending of deposited money.
120. C
A. The passage indicates that “sweating” produced more coinage, not that it purified it.
B. The passage indicates that “sweating” changed the weight of coins by making more.
C. See lines 42-45. Directly above the discussion of “sweating” coins, the passage states that the more money
there is in circulation, the less it will buy. Since “sweating” led to more coinage, we can infer that it
contributed to a rise in prices.
D. Coins produced by “sweating” were deficient in value, but not “valueless.”
121. A
A. See lines 4-5. Since this is an EXCEPT question, the answer will not be found or will contradict the passage.
The passage indicates that coins came into existence to avoid barter.
B. See lines 14-15.
C. See lines 17-21. Coins had “predetermined amounts,” standardizing the amount of metal traded.
D. See lines 5-9. Coins came into existence to avoid the awkwardness of barter.
122. A
A. See lines 82-83. The passage indicates that although customers know that the bank lends out their deposited
money, they trust the bank to have it when they return to withdraw.
B. See paragraphs 5 and 6. The passage asserts that banks verified the weight of coins, not that they themselves
created or manufactured coinage.
C. While this may in fact be true in reality, the passage never indicates the impact banks might have had on the
stability of the economy as a whole.
D. It was banks, not coins, that reached a high, not the highest, level of development in these places (lines 28-30).
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123. C
A. Be careful not to use outside knowledge. While it is true in the real world that pastoral societies (agricultural societies
based on the raising of sheep and cattle) probably valued cattle especially highly, there is no evidence in the passage
itself to support this inference.
B. This choice is too extreme. While coins replaced barter to some extent, perhaps even a great extent, the author gives no
evidence that barter disappeared altogether.
C. See lines 14-15. The passage implies that in pastoral societies, people were not concerned with carrying or
storing trade items.
D. The passage does not discuss gold and silver coins in relation to pastoral societies; moreover, silver became more
important than gold in the seventeenth century.
124. A
A. See lines 38-39. Since this is a NOT question, the answer will not be found or will be contradicted by the passage.
The passage states that silver was the primary metal for coinage through most of history. Furthermore, lines 56-
61 indicate that banks came into existence due to variations in coin weights, not because of a change in the
metals used to make coins.
B. See paragraph 6. Deposits in the bank were guaranteed, because the bank weighed all deposits before crediting a
person’s account. The reliability of weighing the coins led to interest in the development of banks.
C. See lines 53-58. “No one could be sure” of the purity of any particular coin; the concern about quality led to the
development of banks.
D. See lines 57-58. The merchants were concerned with the quality of coinage; their concern led to the development of
banks.
PASSAGE VIII
125. C
A. See lines 12-13. This is a trap based on the nearly exact quotation from the passage; however, the answer choice leaves
out the fact that rats distrust anything new in their environment.
B. See line 14. The passage indicates that humans, not rats, may be called superstitious.
C. See paragraph 2. Line 17 states that rats are “afraid” of any changes in their environment; the examples that
follow show that the rats respond by modifying their behavior.
D. See lines 45-48. Rats do have a reasoning capacity, but this capacity does not help them survive—emotions do.
126. C
A. The passage indicates that names are needed in order to write about or communicate ideas, not in order to reason about
them.
B. This answer choice does not relate directly to naming.
C. The author asserts that in order to write about ideas (i.e., communicate them to others), ideas must have names.
D. Although the author does use the simple name “emotions,” he does so reluctantly (lines 49-52). Thus we cannot infer
that the author believes simple names are the best way to communicate complex ideas.
127. C
A. See line 71. The author asserts that all vertebrate animals, including humans, have emotions which protect “the
integrity of the individual,” including defense (for survival).
B. See lines 46-47. The last two paragraphs indicate that the author is using the rat to illustrate behaviors common to all
vertebrate animals; we can infer that both rats and humans have problem-solving skills that are “useful...in other
circumstances.”
C. See lines 14-17. Since this is an EXCEPT question, the correct answer will not be found or will directly
contradict the passage; the passage indicates that judgments may be made one of two ways: using rational
problem-solving skills or emotional instinct.
D. See lines 49-52. The complex set of reactions described produces emotions (in all vertebrate animals).
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128. A
A. The discovery cited in the passage indicates that rats may use reasoning (strategic) or problem-solving abilities,
as well as learning, to form social relationships, to defend themselves, and to ensure access to food. This is
inconsistent with the author’s argument (using Altman’s categories) that emotions and reasoning or learning
abilities are used in different circumstances (paragraph 4), and that it is emotions that come into play in social
activities and in satisfying the need for food (lines 66-73).
B. This new discovery is relevant to the exclusive uses or services of emotions, not to where in the brain they originate.
C. The author does not make this claim. In fact, it contradicts the passage (lines 42-48).
D. This discovery is directly relevant to, and inconsistent with, the author’s claim that emotions and reasoning come into
to play in different circumstances (lines 40-48) and that only emotions play a role in social activities (lines 69-73).
129. C
C. When substituted for “bad odor,” the phrase “low regard” best approximates the author’s intended meaning.
Notice the trap (“a noxious smell”) based on common usage of “bad odor.”
130. B
A. This answer choice is too general: How do they differ significantly? What are their responses?
B. See lines 75-79. The author asserts that cautious behavior is an innate, not learned, response; this answer choice
directly contradicts the author’s argument.
C. The author does not discuss how rats communicate with each other.
D. This answer choice lacks specific information about why the trails were abandoned.
PASSAGE IX
131. A
A. This choice covers all of the major themes of the passage, without going beyond its scope. In paragraphs 2-4 the
author describes and rejects various definitions of literature. In the last paragraph, the author suggests (not
definitively claims) that “fine writing” may provide the basis for a more valid definition.
B. This choice is too narrow; it is limited to paragraph 2.
C. This choice is an overly extreme version of choice A. The author suggests, rather than explicitly defends an alternative,
and fails to describe its specific advantages over other approaches.
D. This choice is too broad and vague. The passage’s scope is limited to the definition of literature.
132. B
A. Neither the passage nor the question stem indicates that these novels are examples of fine writing, or how that could be
used to define literature.
B. In the passage, the author rejects pragmatism as a useful distinction, in part because some non-pragmatic uses
of language (jokes) are clearly not literature (lines 63-66). The new information in the question stem gives an
example of works that are clearly literature and that have a pragmatic function, and so is directly relevant to
that part of the author’s argument.
C. The author does not make this claim; it contradicts the author’s discussion in the second paragraph.
D. While the new information is relevant to pragmatic functions, it says nothing about practical uses of literature in other
societies (we are not told when or where these historians exist).
133. A
A. See lines 56-60. First note that the “functional definition” of literature is that it is non-functional (nonpractical);
if novels and plays were read to gain practical information, it would directly contradict this functional definition.
B. This specific point does not challenge the definition of literature in general.
C. The fact that not all scholars can agree on a definition does not directly challenge the validity of this particular
definition.
D. This answer choice is not directly related to the “functional” definition of literature.
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134. A
A. From the context of the sentence, we know the passage equates “ontological” with “the fixed beings of things”;
the phrase “inherent qualities” most approximates this definition.
135. A
A. See lines 36-41. The author asserts that defining literature based on its content is impossible, since almost any
written work may be called literature.
B. The main theme of the passage indicates that although there is no easy way to define literature, there should be a way to
define it that sets it apart from other written works; the final paragraph provides examples of works not commonly
thought to be literature.
C. The main theme of the passage argues that there is no easy way to recognize works of literature.
D. Although there is no easy way to define literature, the author is searching for an accurate way to define it; the author
does not imply that no accurate way exists.
136. A
A. See lines 63-66. Jokes challenge the “functional” definition of literature because they are also nonfunctional, but
not commonly thought to be literature.
B. The author rejects pragmatism as a useful distinction (lines 63-79). Furthermore, the author suggests that if we were
(mistakenly) to use such a distinction, literature would be characterized by an absence of pragmatic uses (lines 63-64).
C. Careful composition of jokes is not mentioned as a way to make jokes more literary.
D. See lines 63-66. The author implies that jokes are not literature, but they are nonpractical.
137. C
A. See paragraph 2 and lines 73-79. The passage uses these authors to illustrate two different points.
B. The issue of historic specificity appears in the author’s discussion of pragmatism (lines 72-79). The author makes no
reference to different eras in his discussion of fine writing in lines 80-84.
C. See lines 73-79. The quotation in the question stem concludes a discussion of how our “non-practical” Western
literature is different from “practical” literature in many other societies.
D. The passage does not discuss reading literature for pleasure.
21
BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES
PASSAGE I
138. C. Arsenate competes with Pi as a substrate for glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase. In the presence of
arsenate, 1-arseno-3-phosphoglycerate is produced instead of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate. 1-Arseno-3-phosphoglycerate then
breaks down spontaneously into 3-phosphoglycerate, a normal glycolytic intermediate. It does this without enzymatic
catalysis, however, and without producing ATP in the process. The rest of glycolysis proceeds normally from 3-
phosphoglycerate, with ATP produced by pyruvate kinase still. Per glucose, the ATP produced at each step in the presence
of arsenate and absence of Pi is:
–1 Hexokinase
–1 Phosphofructokinase
0 Phosphoglycerate kinase (normally +2)
+2 Pyruvate kinase
The net production of ATP per glucose is zero due to the bypass of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate production (C is correct). Since
the arsenate still acts as a substrate of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase in the same manner as Pi, it is likely that
the reaction mechanism remains the same and that NADH is still produced (B is wrong). Higher levels of NADH (reduced
NAD+) would not be predicted either (A is wrong). ATP production would be decreased, but ADP production would not (D
is wrong).
139. D. Choice A is missing NAD+, NADH, Pi, H+ and water. Choice B is missing glucose and pyruvate. Choice C is
missing pyruvate on the right side and has the wrong stoichiometry on the left. This leaves choice D, which correctly lists
all of the substrates and products in the correct stoichiometry.
140. D. The post-glycolytic pathways are the Krebs cycle and electron transport, which require oxygen, NADH, and
pyruvate. Pyruvate is converted into acetyl-CoA to enter the Krebs cycle (D is correct). The Krebs cycle does not require
either ADP or ATP from glycolysis and does not need glucose, only the pyruvate that is derived from glucose.
141. C. For every glucose molecule, 2 molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate are produced. Every molecule of
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate requires one molecule of Pi to be converted into 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate. For 3 moles of
glucose, 6 moles of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate are produced, requiring 6 moles of Pi.
142. C. If 3-phosphoglycerate is converted into 1-phosphoglycerate, then no energy will be extracted as ATP later in the
pathway by pyruvate kinase. The net ATP production per glucose will be 0 ATP. Per glucose, the ATP produced at each
step is:
–1 Hexokinase
–1 Phosphofructokinase
+2 Phosphoglycerate kinase
0 Pyruvate kinase (normally +2)
This is the same amount of ATP as in the presence of arsenate (C is correct, and B is not). It will not increase the
production of ATP (D is wrong). Whether the organism is anaerobic or not is irrelevant (A is wrong).
143. B. In glycolysis, glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate are formed by the aldol cleavage of
fructose-1,6-bisphosphate. To reverse the process, forming the six-carbon fructose-1,6-bisphosphate from two three-carbon
sugars, an aldol condensation must occur (B is right, and A is wrong). Neither a phosphorylation nor a decarboxylation are
predicted for this step in reverse since the aldol cleavage in the forward reaction does not involve these (C and D are
wrong).
144. A. Enzymes are highly stereoselective in the reactions they catalyze, but glycolysis will not change the
stereospecificity of substrates. If D-fructose-1,6-bisphosphate is the product, it must be derived from D-glucose.
22
PASSAGE II
145. B. Acetylene is another name for ethyne. Since it is an alkyne, it contains a C∫C triple bond.
146. C. The compound is most likely a member of Group 3 because the absorption at 1720 cm–1 corresponds to a C=O
double bond resonance, and the absorption at 3000 cm–1 corresponds to the –OH of the carboxylic acid.
147. A. The reaction that occurs is a base-catalyzed ester hydrolysis reaction. Ester hydrolysis always results in the
formation of a carboxylic acid and an alcohol.
148. C. Because propyne is an alkyne, there should be a C∫C triple bond stretch at 2220 cm–1. Furthermore, because one
end of the molecule contains an sp C–H bond, we should also observe an absorption at 3300 cm–1.
149. D. Choice A is incorrect because IR stretching frequencies never arise from stabilization of the molecule. Choice B is
wrong because the carbonyl band has no C–H bonds, and choice C is wrong because IR spectroscopy does not detect steric
hindrance. The answer is D.
150. B. Since benzoic acid is a carboxylic acid, and benzaldehyde is an aldehyde, benzoic acid will have an O–H stretch,
but benzaldehyde will not.
PASSAGE III
151. D. Stilbestrol is a compound with estrogenic effects greater than those of estrogen. Estrogen acts by binding to an
intracellular receptor that then regulates the transcription of genes by RNA polymerase II, the enzyme responsible for
transcription of all mRNAs (D is correct). Ribosomes and Golgi bodies would play a role after transcription, in the
translation and processing of proteins (A and C are wrong). Mitochondria are not directly involved in the activity of
estrogen or stilbestrol (B is wrong).
152. A. I is true: A good control is exposed to all of the same conditions as the experimental group except for one key
variable (in this case, the addition of stilbestrol). Giving animals a control formulation that is the same in every way except
for its lack of stilbestrol would be the best way to monitor the effects of stilbestrol. II is false: The passages states that the
chickens tested were all female. Also, males and females should respond very differently to estrogen and cannot be
compared to each other for a control. III is also false: There is no mention of a group that was not injected. If this had been
done, it would not make as good a control as animals that were injected but did not receive stilbestrol since the injection
itself would not be controlled for.
153. C. When stimulated by the addition of a ligand such as stilbestrol, estrogen receptor will localize within the nucleus,
where it regulates genes by binding to enhancers and promoters. Radiolabelled stilbestrol would localize with estrogen
receptor in the nucleus (C is correct). There is no estrogen receptor in the plasma membrane or mitochondria (A and D are
wrong). Some estrogen receptor may be located in the cytoplasm, particularly in the absence of ligand, but it will localize
mostly in the nucleus when it has ligand bound (B is wrong).
154. B. The animals used in the experiment shown in Figure 1 were young White Leghorn chicks. These animals
responded to stilbestrol with a large increase in oviduct weight, indicating that these animals can respond to estrogenic
stimulation such as that of stilbestrol (B is correct). It is certainly true that chick weight will increase during gestation, but
the relation of this to estrogen is not clear (A is wrong). C is not likely to be true: After puberty, estrogen will play a key
role in reproduction, and it is likely that oviducts will be regulated by estrogen. There is no information provided about D
in the passage, and it is not true. Stilbestrol is only a synthetic compound used in this experiment to mimic the effects that
endogenous estrogen would normally produce, of which reproductive functions are particularly important.
155. B. A stilbestrol dose of 0.75 mg per day would lie midway on the x axis between the 0.5 and 1.0 mg doses. By
extrapolating from the x axis to the y axis along the curve, it appears that 900 mg would be the oviduct weight predicted at
0.75 mg/day. One thousand mg oviduct weight is the response observed at 1.0 mg, but it would not be expected at 0.75
mg/day since the curve increases between these points (C and D are wrong). The control group in the graph has less then
200 mg but is not zero, eliminating choice A and leaving B as the answer.
23
156. A. If stilbestrol is an estrogen receptor agonist (i.e., has effects like those of estrogen) and clomiphene citrate is an
estrogen antagonist, then clomiphene citrate should reverse the increase in oviduct weight that is induced by stilbestrol (A is
correct, and C is wrong). Statements B and D contradict the passage since Figure 1 shows that stilbestrol increases oviduct
weight.
PASSAGE IV
157. B. The passage states that E. coli only causes disease outside of the intestinal tract (C and D are wrong), in the urinary
tract, the biliary tract, and the nervous system in particular. The bladder (choice B) is the best answer since this is part of
the urinary tract, mentioned as a potential site of infection.
158. C. The cell wall cannot be the key component in regulating ion movement into or out of cells because the cells behave
the same without cell walls in Experiment 2 (A is wrong). Bacteria do not possess membrane-bound organelles or vesicles
(B and D are wrong). The cell membrane must be the key component in regulating ion flow (C is correct). This is the only
choice left, by elimination. It is also the only choice that makes sense: The cell membrane is what regulates the flow of all
material into and out of the cell for all organisms.
159. C. Bacteria reproduce asexually, by one cell replicating its genome and then splitting into two cells that are genetically
identical to the original cell. The only potential sources of genetic variation in bacteria are mutation and the transfer of
genetic information through conjugation, transduction, or transformation, none of which are linked to reproduction. In the
absence of mutation, all progeny of a cell will be identical to the original cell (C is true). Bacteria only perform
recombination under special circumstances such as through the presence of Hfr plasmids that replicate a portion of the
bacterial genome to make it transiently diploid (A is false). There is no indication of a role for Hfr in this case and in a
clonal cell line, it could not play a role. Bacteria do not perform the recombination, independent assortment and
independent segregation that create genetic diversity in eukaryotes that reproduce sexually (B is wrong). They also do not
perform meiosis (D is wrong).
160. D. E. coli normally live in the human intestine, where they will receive nutrients from their host and will provide the
host with an essential role in digestion. Both organisms benefit from this interaction, making this a form of mutualism (D is
correct). If only one organism benefited, the interaction would be commensalism (A is wrong). Parasitism is not the case in
the normal interaction (C is wrong), although during an infection it may apply. Competition does not apply in this case:
This would indicate that the organisms were both competing for the same resources, which is not the case.
161. C. As in question #158, the key experiment is Experiment 2, in which vesicles formed from the cell membrane had the
same ability to concentrate lactose as whole cells (C is correct). The genome will encode protein components, but the
active components are not themselves physically located in the genome (B is wrong). The ER and Golgi are not found in
bacteria (A and D are wrong).
162. A. In these experiments, a gradient of either potassium or protons can drive the transport of lactose into the cell
against a gradient. If there is no lactose transport, then there will be transport of the ion that drives lactose transport, and
the ion concentration in the media will remain the same (A is correct). Step 4 involves a proton gradient in place of a
potassium gradient (C and D are wrong). Hydrogen ion concentrations cannot be expected to increase in the medium
regardless if lactose transport had occurred since this is not the case in any of the experiments (B is correct).
163. C. Numbering from the top carbon down, carbons 3, 4, and 5 are chiral centers because they each have four different
substituents.
24
164. A. First, it is clear that glycine will be amino acid II on the electrophoresis gel since its isoelectric point matches the
pH of the solution. This eliminates choices B and D. Since opposite charges attract each other, the positively-charged
amino acid at pH 6.0 will be amino acid I since it will be attracted to the minus charge. Lysine, with an isolelectric point of
9.7, is the positively-charged amino acid at pH 6.0, so the answer is A.
165. C. Both KMnO4 (potassium permanganate) and H2SO4 (sulfuric acid) are very strong oxidizing agents, and
CH3CH2OH (ethanol) is a poor reducing agent (and also a poor oxidizing agent). The answer must be C, sodium
borohydride.
166. C. (Note: Choice B should begin, “Loss of the telomeres. . .,” not “Loss of telomerase . . . . “) If, during DNA
replication, a primer is put on the very 3¢ end of the chromosome (in the telomere region), then replication will proceed
away from the primer. However, since the primer is RNA, it will degrade, leaving the end of the chromosome single
stranded, and since this region is at the end, there is no place to put a second primer so that the first primer region can be
replicated. If the first primer region cannot be replicated, the single stranded DNA will degrade, and the end of the
chromosome will become shorter (choice B is true, but does not answer the question). The enzyme telomerase prevents this
by binding to the end of the chromosome. It carries a nucleotide sequence that can serve as a temporary site for primer
formation; once the primer is synthesized, replication can proceed into the first primer region, keeping the end of the
chromosome double stranded and preventing its degradation (choice D is wrong). Note that this would not be the case if
replication could occur in the 3¢ to 5¢ direction (choice C is correct). The exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase serves as
an error correction mechanism. It does not normally degrade the ends of chromosomes (choice A is wrong).
167. D. In compact bone, the osteon is the basic unit of structure. Concentric rings surround the central circular region that
contains blood or lymph vessels (D is correct). Osteocytes can be found in small spaces along channels branching away
from the central channel (A is wrong). Bone is the site of the marrow in which blood cell precursors are found, but bone
marrow is found in spongy bone and not in compact bone where osteons are found (C is wrong). Chondrocytes are found in
cartilage (B is wrong).
PASSAGE V
168. A. Both bacteria and fungi, like most living organisms, perform glycolysis (B is wrong). Fungi are eukaryotes, so they
have a nucleus (C is wrong), and both organisms have a cell wall, although they have two different types of cell wall (D is
wrong). A difference between the two organisms is that bacteria reproduce asexually, through binary fission, while fungi can
reproduce either asexually or sexually (A is correct).
169. B. In this case, the fungus benefits from the organic substances provided by the plant, and the plant benefits from
improved soil. An interaction in which both parties benefit is a mutualistic interaction (B is correct).
170. B. In these descriptions of nutritional requirements, the first portion denotes the source of energy as either chemical
(chemo-) or the sun (photo-). Fungi receive their nutrition from chemicals and not the sun (C and D are wrong).
Autotrophs use carbon dioxide as their carbon source, while heterotrophs use organic molecule building blocks from other
organisms. Fungi absorb a variety of organism molecules as nutrients (carbon source) making them heterotrophs. They are
therefore chemoheterotrophs (B is correct).
171. B. One of the characteristics of all fungi is a cell wall composed of chitin (B is correct). Keratin is found in the skin
of mammals, peptidoglycans are found in the cell wall of bacteria, and phospholipids are part of the cell membrane and not
the cell wall.
172. A. Assuming that all materials are handled with proper sterile technique, then the only source of the bacteria would be
the nail sample (A is correct). Increasing the amount of base would not improve the culturing conditions for bacteria or
cause them to exist where they did not exist otherwise (B is wrong). There is no indication that fungi stopped growing, only
that a bacteria grew along with them (C is wrong). Growing the culture for a longer period of time would allow more
bacteria to grow, not fewer (D is wrong).
25
PASSAGE VI
173. C. Intermediate X is an enolate ion which is stabilized by resonance. It is formed by deprotonation of the ketone by
hydroxide.
O O
CH3CH2C CHCH3 CH3CH2C CHCH3
174. D. Deprotonation (choice A) occurs between hydroxide ion and 3-pentanone, the starting material. Aldol
condensation (choice B) could occur between Intermediate X (an enolate ion) and the starting material. Nucleophilic
substitution (choice C) occurs between Intermediate X and methyl iodide. However, electrophilic addition (choice D) could
not occur, because the only unit of unsaturation present is the ketone, which is an electrophile, and hence could only
undergo nucleophilic addition.
175. A. The carbon b to the nitrogen acts as a nucleophile, because it reacts with methyl iodide, which is an electrophile;
this eliminates choices C and D. The partial negative charge on the b carbon is due to resonance, as can be seen most easily
by analogy to an enolate ion (see the diagram in the solution to #173 above).
176. B. By Le Châtelier’s principle, removal of products from a reversible reaction will drive the reaction toward products.
177. B. The only reaction that will occur between unreacted carbonyl compounds and their conjugate bases (enolate ions) is
an aldol condensation. An aldol condensation is an example of nucleophilic addition.
178. C. Because diethylamine (choice C) is the only compound of the four given choices that can experience hydrogen
bonding, it will have the highest boiling point. Therefore, it is the most reasonable choice to have a higher boiling point
than piperidine.
PASSAGE VII
179. D. Individuals with SCID lack an immune response. They must be protected from infectious microorganisms, which
could be accomplished by air filtration and food sterilization (A and B are reasonable methods and can be eliminated). The
passage described the lack of the enzyme ADA as one cause of SCID and the introduction of ADA into blood as providing a
treatment (C is a reasonable method and can be eliminated). Vaccination will not work with an individual with SCID.
Vaccination relies on an immune response against the antigen, but SCID individuals have no immune response, so
vaccinations of any type will be ineffective (D is false and thus the correct answer choice here).
180. C. Lack of ADA can lead to T-cell death and SCID. In some cases of SCID, the passages states, T cells are absent. If
T cells are not present, then they cannot be targeted for gene therapy (C is correct). Choice A is incorrect since SCID
patients lack a normal immune response. B is wrong since this does not make sense. The failure of therapy would indicate
that an inadequate fraction of cells were infected, not that infection occurred with higher than normal efficacy. And D is
incorrect; the virus is not expected to transcribe mammalian genes, only to act as the vector that introduces the genes. The
failure cannot be ascribed to an effect that was not expected in the first place.
181. A. T cells have a finite lifetime in the bloodstream. If a round of gene therapy infects 100% of all T cells in the blood
stream, all of these cells will eventually die and be replaced by new cells that are formed from stem cells. The new cells
will have the disease, being derived from stem cells that were not treated with gene therapy in the first round since they are
not T cells (A is correct). Mature T cells will not be found in the bone marrow for the most part, but in the bloodstream, in
lymph nodes, and throughout the body (B is incorrect). Adenosine deaminase relieves the illness, but does not cause it (C is
wrong). SCID patients do not have an immune response that would allow them to react against their own T cells (D is
wrong).
26
182. A. To improve the immune response and healing, the flow of blood into an infected tissue is increased. Along with the
increased blood flow, more white blood cells enter the tissue and can help to remove pathogens (A is correct). Rupture of
blood vessels would not improve healing but would make it worse (B is wrong). C is wrong: This would not isolate the
tissue, but would increase its circulation. Although histamines do cause vasodilation and increased blood flow, increased
blood flow is not required for histamines to be released (D is wrong).
183. D. The hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow give rise to all cells found in blood, including erythrocytes and
platelets, which are not themselves whole cells but are derived from megakaryocytes (A and B are true and eliminated).
These stem cells also give rise to B cells, which produce immunoglobulins (C is true and eliminated). Fibrinogen, a clotting
factor, is produced by the liver and not by blood cells, so it will not be affected (D is correct).
PASSAGE VIII
184. B. Choice A is incorrect since alkaloids are naturally occurring amines, but retinol contains no nitrogen. Choice C is
wrong, because it is retinal that is an aldehyde, not retinol, which is an alcohol. The passage states that b-carotene, a
tetraterpene, is split in half to form 2 units of vitamin A. Half of a tetraterpene is a diterpene (B is correct and D is wrong).
185. C. In the conversion of vitamin A to retinal, an oxidation has occurred (converting the alcohol into an aldehyde, as
shown in the passage). Reaction C is the only oxidation reaction of the choices given.
186. D. 11-cis-Retinal, which is the compound that combines with opsin, has only one cis alkene—at the carbon g to the
aldehyde carbon—so choice D is correct.
187. A. Retinal isomerase, an enzyme, is a protein, and proteins are synthesized by the condensation of amino acids.
Condensation involves dehydration.
188. C. Under acidic conditions, the amine on the side chain of the lysine residue of opsin would be protonated. This
would prevent reaction with 11-cis-retinal, because when protonated, the amine cannot act as a nucleophile.
189. B. Since choice D is in a higher-energy eclipsed conformation (as opposed to a staggered conformation), it can be
eliminated. Of the three remaining staggered conformations, choice B has the least steric hindrance since both A and C
have two gauche interactions, and choice B has only one.
190. B. Ovulation is induced by the LH surge in the menstrual cycle (II, choice B). In the absence of this surge, ovulation
does not occur. I represents the completion of menstruation, III represents the secretory phase after ovulation when both
progesterone and estrogen are present, and IV represents the onset of menstruation.
191. C. The respiratory control center in the medulla controls automatic respiration without conscious involvement (C is
correct). The cerebellum is involved in coordinating motion, the cerebrum is involved in higher thought, and the
hypothalamus integrates nervous and endocrine functions through the pituitary (A, B, and D are wrong).
192. A. Both meiosis and mitosis share B, C, and D in common. Recombination only occurs in meiosis, however, and not
mitosis (A is false and the correct answer choice here).
193. A. Since female birds are the heterogametic gender, their gender genotype must be ZW (choices B and D are wrong),
and the male bird genotype must be ZZ (choice C is wrong). The key words are “unlike humans”.
27
PASSAGE IX
194. B. The structure of ethanamide is shown below. One resonance will come from the CH3 group. The two hydrogen
atoms on the nitrogen are different due to partial double-bond character between the carbonyl carbon and the nitrogen. Two
more resonances will result from these two distinct protons. This gives a total of 3 resonances.
O
H 3C C NH2
195. D. In the hydrolysis of an acid chloride, water nucleophilically attacks the carbonyl.
196. B. A urea group is a carbonyl carbon bonded to two nitrogens, and caffeine has exactly one such group.
197. B. An amide linkage is a carbonyl carbon bonded to one carbon and one nitrogen. Neither linolenic acid (a carboxylic
acid) nor glucose contains nitrogen, and since ammonia contains no carbon, the answer must be B. Chymotrypsin is a
protein composed of amino acids all of which are bonded through amide linkages.
198. D. Choice D, butanoyl chloride, will have the slowest rate of hydrolysis in pure water because it is the least soluble
(due to its long hydrophobic tail) of the given choices.
PASSAGE X
199. C. The passage states that emphysema is caused by smoking and is characterized by poor oxygenation of alveoli (A is
true and eliminated). Increased mucus secretion and decreased cilia action caused by smoking can cause obstruction of
bronchioles (B is true and eliminated). The loss of alveoli causes a loss in the surface area available for gas exchange (D is
true and eliminated). At rest, the pressure between the alveoli and the atmosphere will equilibrate and become equal, so
alveolar pressure cannot change (C is false and the correct answer choice).
200. D. Choice A does not make sense since the question states that this is not true, that only 15–25% of carbon dioxide is
bound to hemoglobin (A is wrong). Carbon dioxide binds to a different site on hemoglobin than oxygen, unlike carbon
monoxide (B is wrong). To be transported as carbonic acid, the pH of blood would have to be very low, and it is not (C is
wrong). At physiological pH, most carbon dioxide will be present as bicarbonate ions (D is true).
201. C. Macrophages do not produce mucus, surfactant, or have cilia. These are specialized functions of different
epithelial cells in the system. Macrophages do engulf foreign material by phagocytosis, however, making C the best choice.
202. D. There is no mention of macrophages dying, only losing function (A is wrong). Nothing is stated of innervation
either (B is not the best choice). There is no reason to believe that changes in the pulmonary circulation would be related to
mucus secretion or clearing (C is wrong). The decreased action of cilia will cause mucus to build up however, since the
cilia normally act to remove mucus (D is correct).
203. B. If pulmonary resistance increases, then the pressure in the pulmonary artery, the right ventricle, and the right atrium
will increase as a consequence (B is correct). The left atrium receives blood from the pulmonary vein, which will not have
increased pressure (A is wrong). The resistance in the pulmonary circulation would reduce, not increase blood flow through
the pulmonary vein (C is wrong). The loss of capillaries will reduce the volume of blood in the lungs (D is wrong).
204. D. The tissues of the lungs, including the alveoli, are inherently elastic and tend to collapse inward. The alveoli also
have a thin layer of fluid that is required for gas exchange. In the absence of surfactant the surface tension in the alveoli
tends to draw the walls of the alveoli inward, collapsing the alveoli as described. Surfactant is not produced until the last 1
to 3 months of pregnancy, so premature infants often lack surfactant and are prone to respiratory difficulty. The choice that
best describes the effect of surfactant is D. Choice B directly opposes the correct answer, A is not possible, and C does not
relate to the alveoli, the site of surfactant action.
28
PASSAGE XI
205. A. During the menstrual cycle, the corpus luteum is formed in response to LH and secretes estrogen and progesterone.
However, since LH levels rapidly fall, the corpus luteum has a limited life span in a nonpregnant woman. During
pregnancy, hCG plays a similar role as LH, increasing the life span of the corpus luteum and thereby increasing the
secretion of estrogen and progesterone (A is correct). FSH does not have the same activity, and estrogen and progesterone
are secreted in response to both hormones, but do not act the same as LH and hCG.
206. B. The passage states that immunosuppression is important to prevent the embryo from being destroyed by the
maternal immune system. This is most consistent with B. Choice A describes stimulation of the maternal immune system.
C describes suppression of the fetal immune system, which is not described in the passage. D also does not describe
maternal immunosuppression.
207. A. For the Rh blood antigen, people who are Rh– do not express the antigen, while people who are Rh+ do express the
antigen on the surface of red blood cells. If the mother is Rh–, she may recognize the Rh antigen as non-self, and an
immune reaction against it might occur, including production of antibodies by the maternal immune system against the fetal
Rh antigen (A is correct). The fetus will not produce an immune reaction against the mother since the mother does not
express Rh antigen (B is wrong). It is true that the maternal and fetal erythrocytes do not mix, but some degree of immune
surveillance of the fetus does occur, making a reaction against Rh antigen a real hazard in these types of circumstances (C is
wrong). The mother is Rh– due to her genotype, and this cannot be changed (D is wrong).
208. C. The fetal and maternal circulatory systems do not mix contents directly. The only mechanism for gases to
exchange from the maternal to the fetal position and vice versa is to diffuse across the placenta from one circulatory system
to the other. Carbon dioxide flows down a gradient from the fetal to the maternal circulation (C is correct). Hemoglobin is
not transferred, only the gases that it carries (A is wrong). Bicarbonate ions are an important means of CO2 transport, but
they are not the molecule that is used to exchange CO2 across membranes; the gas plays this role through passive diffusion
down a gradient (B and D are wrong).
209. D. The passage states that a factor is secreted by maternal kidneys that blocks the action of IL-2, a cytokine required
for T-cell activation (A is true and eliminated). The passage also states that suppressor T cells are present in the uterus and
implies that these are involved in the immunosuppression (B is true and eliminated). The suppressor T cells secrete a factor
that blocks IL-1, an inflammatory cytokine (C is true and eliminated). There is no indication in the passage, however, that
there is suppression of the fetal immune system (D is false and thus the correct answer choice here).
210. B. The acetylcholine receptor in the neuromuscular junction is a ligand-gated sodium channel. When it binds
acetylcholine, it opens to allow sodium to flow down a gradient into the cell, depolarizing the muscle cell. The more that
the channel is open, the greater the depolarization (B is correct). Hyperpolarization would require positive charges to leave
the cell, not enter (A is wrong). The toxin acts on the acetylcholine receptor, so there is no reason to believe that it will
block acetylcholine release (C is wrong). The result of prolonged depolarization will be excessive excitation of skeletal
muscle, not a block on contraction (D is wrong).
211. B. Drug resistance develops as mutant versions of the virus are produced and begin infecting new host cells. The
change must be able to be passed on to viral progeny. If the viral proteins fold differently in the presence of drug than in its
absence, this might account for the mechanism of action of the drug, but does not explain how drug resistance develops, nor
could this be a heritable change (choice C is wrong). Changes in the tertiary structure of the viral RNA by the drug is
another temporary, non-heritable change (choice D is wrong). Choices A and B are both plausible mechanisms for creating
new, heritable versions of the virus. However, mutation of the virus after insertion into the host-cell genome would require
that an error in DNA replication be made—a rather unlikely event, given the proofreading ability of DNA polymerase.
Viral progeny are produced through transcription (creating a new RNA viral genome off the permanent DNA version
inserted into the host-cell genome), and the question states that this occurs using the normal host machinery. Since the
normal host RNA polymerases have no proofreading function, it is more likely that errors will occur here, leading to mutant
virus (choice B is better than choice A).
29
212. A. I is true: A frameshift mutation will alter the reading frame of all subsequent codons in the gene and can cause a
stop codon to be present where none was before, shortening the length of the protein product. But II and III are false: A
frameshift mutation only affects translation, not recombination or transcription since the enzymes carrying out these
functions do not discriminate codons.
213. B. Plasma is the cell-free portion of blood. Proteins and salts are present in plasma, but cells—such as erythrocytes—
are not, by definition.
214. C. Cyclooctatetraene (choice C) is not aromatic because it has eight p electrons, a number which does not satisfy the
Hückel 4n + 2 rule. Molecules A, B, and D all have six p electrons and hence satisfy the Hückel 4n + 2 rule (with n = 1).
30

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MCAT

Medical College Admission Test

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MCAT D IAGNOSTIC 4921

1. C. From Equation 2, it is clear that kNA = R.

t = 2 y / g = 2(0.2 m) /(10 m/s 2 ) = 0.2 sec

38. B. Applying the equation given in the passage yields

2(10 m/s 2 )( 4 ¥ 10 -2 m)(8 ¥ 10 2 kg/m 3 )

rair Av = (1.2 ¥ 10 3 g/m 3 )(5 ¥ 10 -3 m 2 )(15 m/s) = 90 g/s

To make t as small as possible, choose L small and A large.

48. A. Equation 3 shows that DL is directly proportional to both L0 and DT.

51. C. Snell’s Law gives

n1 sin q1 = nX sin q X fi (1)sin 30∞ = nX sin(23.5∞) fi 0.5 = nX (0.4) fi nX = 5 / 4

197 197 200 20 10 3

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