Testbank Final (1) 2

Chapter 1—Biochemistry and the Organization of Cells MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
How do the molecules that play a role in living cells compare to those encountered in organic
chemistry?d
a. They are the same, just operating in a different context.
b. Biological molecules are organic molecules, but the similarity ends there.
c. Biological molecules aren't similar to organic molecules at all.
d. Biology isn't based on molecules at all, but a "vital force".
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
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New in 6e
TOP:
Basic Themes
2.
Which of the following best defines organic chemistry?
a. The study of compounds contained in organisms.
b. The study of compounds containing organs.
c. The study of compounds containing carbon and hydrogen and their derivatives.
d. The study of compounds containing elements other than carbon.
ANS:
C
PTS:
1
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New in 6e
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Chemical Foundations of Biochemistry
3.
Which of the following was part of the vital force theory?
a. The compounds found in living things are just like those found in the non-living world.
b. The compounds found in living things are interesting, but can easily be produced in the
laboratory.
c. The compounds found in living things can not be produced in the laboratory.
ANS:
C
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1
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4.
The synthesis of urea from ammonium cyanate.
a. was a critical component of the Miller-Urey experiment.
b. requires a protein as a catalyst.
c. helped dispel the vital force theory.
d. supported the vital force theory.
ANS:
C
PTS:
1
TOP:
5.
Which of the following is NOT a Functional Group
a. Amino group
b. Protein
c. Alcohol group
d. Carbonyl group
ANS:
B
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1
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New in 7e
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6.
Which of the following functional groups are not commonly seen in biomolecules?
a. Alkyl halides
b. Amides
c. Carboxylic acids
d. Ethers
e. Phosphate esters
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
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Modified from 5e
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7.
Which of the following statements regarding biomolecules is false?
a. They contain predominantly ionic bonds.
b. They contain predominantly nonmetallic elements.
c. Carbon is the key element.
d. Specific stereoisomers are essential in most cases.
ANS:
A
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1
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8.
All of the following bonds are important in biomolecules, except:
a. CCl
b. CH
c. CN
d. OH
e. OP
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
TOP:
9.
Which of the following statements regarding biopolymers is false?
a. Different sequences of the monomers can lead to different functions.
b. Only soluble polymers can be created from soluble monomers.
c. A wide, almost uncountable variety of polymers can be created from just a few monomers.
d. Different linkages between the monomers can lead to different functions.
e. Biopolymers can fold up into complex shapes.
ANS:
B
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1
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Modified from 5e
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10.
Which statement is not correct about peptide nucleic acids, PNA?
a. They are combinations of peptides and nucleic acids.
b. Scientists create them to study the origins of life
c. They were proven to be the first hereditary molecule.
d. They may combine the catalytic properties of proteins with the information transfer ability
of nucleic acid
e. All of these statements apply to PNA.
ANS:
C
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1
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New in 7e
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11.
Rank the following levels of structural organization in terms of size from smallest to biggest:
a. atoms < molecules < organelles < cells < organs
b. atoms < organelles < molecules < cells < organs
c. atoms < molecules < cells < organelles < organs
d. molecules < atoms < organelles < cells < organs
e. atoms < molecules < organelles < organs < cells
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
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New in 6e
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Origin of Life
12.
According to the big bang theory of the creation of the universe,
a. the universe has been getting cooler since its beginning
b. the initial explosion caused the creation of all of the elements of the periodic table
c. carbon is the most abundant element in the universe
d. the earth could be no older than 1 billion years
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
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New in 7e
TOP:
Origin of Life
13.
In its earliest stages, which atoms were present in the universe?
a. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
b. hydrogen, helium, and lithium
c. nitrogen, sulfur, and phosphorous
d. uranium, polonium, and radium
e. helium, neon, and argon
ANS:
B
PTS:
1
OBJ:
New in 6e
TOP:
Origin of Life
14.
How are the majority of elements thought to have been formed?
a. By thermonuclear reactions that normally take place in stars.
b. In explosions of stars.
c. By the action of cosmic rays outside the stars since the formation of the galaxy.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above; all the elements were present from the initial Big Bang.
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
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New in 6e
TOP:
Origin of Life
15.
What is the chemical formula for ozone?
a. O2
b. O3
c. NH3
d. H2S
e. CH4
ANS:
B
PTS:
1
OBJ:
New in 6e
TOP:
Origin of Life
16.
It is generally believed that the following gas was missing in the primordial atmosphere:
a. H2
b. CO2
c. CH4
d. NH3
e. O2
ANS:
E
PTS:
1
TOP:
Origin of Life
17.
A catalyst
a. increases the rate of a chemical reaction
b. increases the amount of product obtained in a chemical reaction
c. decreases the amount of product obtained in a chemical reaction
d. none of the above
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
TOP:
Origin of Life
18.
The genetic coding material is
a. protein
b. DNA
c. polysaccharide
d. lipid
ANS:
B
PTS:
1
TOP:
Origin of Life
19.
This question was moved to the Matching section in ExamView. (To maintain the integrity of the
numbering system between the printed copy and ExamView, this question has been marked "do not
use on test" in ExamView's question information dialog.)
a. not available
b. not available
c. not available
d. not available
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
TOP:
Origin of Life
20.
Which of the following best describes the results of the Miller-Urey experiment?
a. It proved that DNA is the genetic material.
b. It produced proteins under conditions simulating the early Earth.
c. It created living cells from non-living materials.
d. It produced some simple organic compounds from a mixture of gases presumed to have
existed in the early atmosphere.
e. All of these results of the Miller-Urey experiment.
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
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New in 6e
TOP:
Origin of Life
21.
The genetic code
a. determines the order of sugars in a polysaccharide
b. has no effect on the sequence of amino acids in proteins
c. is the means by which the "blueprint" for living organisms is passed from one generation to
the next
d. cannot be understood by currently available experimental methods
ANS:
C
PTS:
1
TOP:
Origin of Life
22.
Biological catalysts are
a. proteins exclusively
b. RNA exclusively
c. DNA exclusively
d. some proteins and some RNA
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
TOP:
Origin of Life
23.
The main difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is the existence of in eukaryotes.
a. the nucleus
b. ribosomes
c. DNA
d. RNA
e. cell walls
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
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Modified from 5e
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Prokaryotes & Eukaryotes
24.
All of the following features are common to all living organisms, except:
a. Biomolecules
b. Metabolic pathways
c. Cellular structures
d. DNA sequences
e. RNA molecules
ANS:
C
PTS:
1
TOP:
25.
All eukaryotic organisms
a. are multicellular
b. have a nucleus
c. have chloroplasts
d. have a cell wall
ANS:
B
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1
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26.
Cell membranes
a. are found in plants, but not in animals
b. consist mainly of sugars
c. do not allow transport into or out of the cell
d. separate the cell from the outside world
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
TOP:
27.
Which of the following is not a subcellular organelle?
a. nucleus
b. mitochondrion
c. endoplasmic reticulum
d. cytoskeleton
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
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New in 7e
TOP:
28.
Energy-yielding oxidation reactions take place in eukaryotic
a. nuclei.
b. ribosomes.
c. mitochondria.
d. endoplasmic reticula.
e. cell walls.
ANS:
C
PTS:
1
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New in 6e
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29.
Prokaryotic cells
a. do not have a well defined nucleus
b. are smaller than eukaryotic cells
c. do not have internal membranes
d. all of the above
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
TOP:
Prokaryotic Structure
30.
Prokaryotes
a. contain ribosomes
b. do not have a cell membrane
c. contain mitochondria
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
TOP:
31.
Ribosomes
a. are the site of photosynthesis
b. are the site of protein synthesis
c. are never bound to membranes
d. cannot be seen in the electron microscope
ANS:
B
PTS:
1
TOP:
32.
11 Ribosomes are made up of
a. RNA and proteins
b. DNA and proteins
c. RNA and DNA
d. proteins and carbohydrates
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
TOP:
33.
Which of the following cellular components is commonly found in bacteria?
a. Nucleus
b. Ribosomes
c. Chloroplasts
d. Mitochondria
e. More than one of these is characteristic of bacteria.
ANS:
B
PTS:
1
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Modified from 5e
TOP:
34.
Which organelle does not contain DNA?
a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondrion
c. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
d. Chloroplast
e. All of these organelles contain DNA
ANS:
C
PTS:
1
TOP:
Eukaryotic Structure
35.
Which cell component is composed of RNA and protein?
a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondrion
c. Endoplasmic Reticulum
d. Chloroplast
e. Ribosome
ANS:
E
PTS:
1
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New in 6e
TOP:
36.
Which cell component has cristae?
a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondrion
c. Endoplasmic Reticulum
d. Chloroplast
e. Ribosome
ANS:
B
PTS:
1
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New in 6e
TOP:
37.
Which organelle is involved in the synthesis of ATP?
a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondrion
c. Chloroplast
d. ATP is synthesized in both mitochondria and chloroplasts.
e. ATP is synthesized in all three organelles.
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
TOP:
38.
Eukaryotic DNA
a. is found in the nucleus
b. is found in the mitochondrion
c. is found in the chloroplast
d. all of the above
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
TOP:
39.
Which of the following statements about eukaryotic nuclei is FALSE?
a. They are separated from the rest of the cell by a single membrane.
b. They contain RNA.
c. They contain chromatin.
d. They play a role in genetics.
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
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Modified from 5e
TOP:
40.
Which cell component does not have a double membrane?
a. Nucleus
b. Lysosome
d. Chloroplast
e. Mitochondrion
ANS:
B
PTS:
1
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Modified from 5e
TOP:
41.
Which of the following statements about eukaryotic mitochondria is TRUE?
a. They play a role in genetics.
b. They are the site of photosynthesis in green plants.
c. They have an inner and an outer membrane.
d. They only occur in animals, not plants.
ANS:
C
PTS:
1
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Modified from 5e
TOP:
42.
Which is not a property of ribosomes?
a. They are an assembly of polypeptides and RNA.
b. They are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
c. They function as agents in the biosynthesis of proteins.
d. They are found in the cytoplasm and smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
e. All of these statements are true about ribosomes.
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
TOP:
43.
Which cell component is able to capture the energy of light?
a. Nucleus
b. Lysosome
d. Chloroplast
e. Mitochondrion
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
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Modified from 5e
TOP:
44.
Which cell component contains many hydrolytic enzymes?
a. Nucleus
b. Lysosome
d. Chloroplast
e. Mitochondrion
ANS:
B
PTS:
1
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Modified from 5e
TOP:
45.
The following cellular component is characteristic of eukaryotic cells:
a. Nucleus
b. Ribosomes
c. Chloroplasts
d. Mitochondria
e. More than one of these is characteristic of eukaryotic cells.
ANS:
E
PTS:
1
TOP:
46.
The following cellular component is the defining component of eukaryotic cells:
a. Nucleus
b. Ribosomes
c. Chloroplasts
d. Mitochondria
e. Cell membranes
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
TOP:
47.
The mitochondrial matrix
a. is the location of enzymes needed for oxidation reactions
b. contains an array of microtubules
c. is part of the endoplasmic reticulum
d. lies between the inner and outer mitochondrial membrane
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
TOP:
48.
The following cellular component is the defining component of most plant cells:
a. Nucleus
b. Ribosomes
c. Chloroplasts
d. Mitochondria
e. Cell walls
ANS:
C
PTS:
1
TOP:
49.
The endoplasmic reticulum
a. is part of a continuous membrane system throughout the cell
b. occurs in two forms, rough and smooth
c. can have ribosomes bound to it
d. all of the above
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
TOP:
50.
Chloroplasts
a. contain no DNA
b. are bounded by a single membrane
c. are relatively small organelles
d. are the site of photosynthesis in green plants
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
TOP:
51.
The Golgi apparatus
a. occurs in prokaryotes
b. is involved in secretion of proteins from the cell
c. is part of the chloroplast
d. is the site of protein synthesis
ANS:
B
PTS:
1
TOP:
52.
Lysosomes, peroxisomes, and glyoxysomes are
a. sites of cell damage
b. important in mitosis
c. specialized organelles
d. a part of the rough endoplasmic reticulum
ANS:
C
PTS:
1
TOP:
53.
Cell walls
a. occur in plants and bacteria
b. occur in plants and animals
c. occur only in plants
d. occur only in bacteria
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
TOP:
54.
Animal cells do not contain
a. a nucleus
b. mitochondria
c. chloroplasts
d. lysosomes
ANS:
C
PTS:
1
TOP:
55.
A kind of cellular structure present in plant cells but not in human cells is
a. the endoplasmic reticulum
b. a cell wall
c. ribosomes
d. a plasma membrane
ANS:
B
PTS:
1
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Modified from 5e
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56.
Which of the following organelles does not have a double membrane?
a. mitochondrion
b. nucleus
c. endoplasmic reticulum
d. chloroplast
ANS:
C
PTS:
1
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Modified from 5e
TOP:
57.
Which of these kingdoms includes only prokaryotic organisms?
a. Animals
b. Fungi
c. Monera
d. Plants
e. Protista
ANS:
C
PTS:
1
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Modified from 5e
TOP:
Five Kingdoms, Three Domains
58.
Which of these eukaryotic kingdoms consists primarily of unicellular organisms?
a. Animals
b. Fungi
c. Plants
d. Protista
e. Both fungi and protista.
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
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Modified from 5e
TOP:
59.
In the Five Kingdom classification system, human beings would be considered
a. animals.
b. protists.
c. monera.
d. fungi.
e. none of the above.
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
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Modified from 5e
TOP:
60.
In the Three Domain classification system, human beings would be considered
a. Archaebacteria.
b. Eubacteria.
c. Eukarya.
d. none of the above.
ANS:
C
PTS:
1
TOP:
61.
In the Five Kingdom classification system, Escherichia coli would be considered
a. animals.
b. protists.
c. monera.
ANS:
C
PTS:
1
OBJ:
Modified from 5e
TOP:
62.
In the Three Domain classification system, Escherichia coli would be considered
a. Archaebacteria.
b. Eubacteria.
c. Eukarya.
ANS:
B
PTS:
1
TOP:
63.
The endosymbiotic theory describes the origin of
a. the nucleus & ribosomes.
b. the Golgi and endoplasmic reticulum.
c. lysosomes and the cytoskeleton.
d. mitochondria & chloroplasts.
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
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Common Ground For All Cells
64.
Which of following provides evidence for the endosymbiotic theory describing the origin of mitochon-
dria & chloroplasts?
a. These organelles have their own nuclei.
b. These organelles have their own endoplasmic reticulum.
c. These organelles have their own lysosomes.
d. These organelles have their own DNA.
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
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New in 6e
TOP:
Common Ground For All Cells
65.
According to thermodynamics, favored processes are
a. ones that require energy.
b. ones that release energy.
c. oxidations.
d. reductions.
ANS:
B
PTS:
1
TOP:
Biochemical Energetics
66.
Which of the following is/are true?
a. The hydrolysis of ATP releases energy.
b. Favorable reactions are always fast.
c. The hydrolysis of ATP requires the input of oxygen
d. The hydrolysis of ATP yields more energy per molecule than the reaction of any other
compound
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
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New in 7e
TOP:
Biochemical Energetics
67.
The aerobic combustion of glucose to yield carbon dioxide and water
a. is thermodynamically favorable
b. requires oxygen
c. has a negative Gibb’s free energy
d. all of these are true
ANS:
D
PTS:
1
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New in 7e
TOP:
Energy and Change
68.
A spontaneous reaction is
a. exergonic.
b. endergonic.
c. at equilibrium.
ANS:
A
PTS:
1
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Spontaneity
69.
The heat of a reaction at constant pressure is
a. its change in entropy.
b. its change in enthalpy.
c. its change in free energy.
d. its spontaneity.
ANS: B
Chapter 2—Water: The Solvent for Biochemical Reactions
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The tendency for an atom to attract electrons to itself in a chemical bond is called
a. polarity.
b. electronegativity.
c. hydrophilicity
d. electrophilicity.
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Water and Polarity
2. If atoms with greatly differing electronegativities form a bond, that bond will be
a. polar.
b. nonpolar.
c. amphipathic.
d. acidic.
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Water and Polarity
3. Many of the properties of water can be accounted for by the fact that
a. it is polar
b. it forms hydrogen bonds
c. it is a bent molecule
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Modified in 7e
TOP: Water and Polarity
4. Which of the following is true about ionic compounds?

a. They are more likely to dissolve in non-polar solvents than covalent compounds.
b. They always dissolve completely in water.
c. They never dissolve in polar solvents.
d. Some of them dissolve completely in water or other polar solvents, while others do not.
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Water and Polarity
5. Which of the following is a correct listing of electronegativity values, from low to high?
a. C, H, O, N
b. N, H, O, C
c. H, C, N, O
d. H, C, O, N
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Water and Polarity
6. Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?

a. C
b. H
c. N
d. O
e. P
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Modified from 5e
7. The water molecule is polar because:
a. Electrons are not distributed symmetrically in the molecule.
b. The hydrogen atoms are found on one "side" of the molecule.
c. Hydrogen is less electronegative than oxygen.
d. The hydrogen atoms are found on one "side" of the molecule and hydrogen is less
electronegative than oxygen.
e. All of these are correct.
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Water and Polarity
8. Which of the following molecules is polar?

a. CCl4
b. CH4
c. CO2
d. NH3
e. None of these molecules is polar.
9. Which of the following molecules is amphipathic?

a. sodium chloride
b. acetic acid
c. benzene
d. palmitic acid
10. Which of the following classes of compounds is hydrophilic?

a. Sugars
b. Fatty acids
c. Amino acids
d. Sugars and amino acids.
e. All of these
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Water and Polarity
11. Which of the following classes of compounds is hydrophobic?

a. Table Salt
b. Cholesterol
c. Phosphate esters
d. Cholesterol and phosphate esters.
e. All of these are hydrophobic.
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Water and Polarity
12. Which of the following molecules has polar bonds but is itself not polar?
a. NH3
b. CO2
c. CH4
d. H2O
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Water and Polarity
13. Ionic compounds and polar covalent compounds tend to dissolve in water because of
a. ion-dipole and dipole-dipole interactions
b. dipole-induced dipole interactions
c. van der Waals bonds
d. hydrophobic interactions
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Water and Polarity
14. A micelle is a structure which

a. aggregates with other micelles in water.
b. has its polar groups on the outside and non-polar groups on the inside when in water.
c. explains how soaps and detergents work.
d. has its polar groups on the outside and non-polar groups on the inside when in water and
explains how soaps and detergents work.
e. All of these are true.
15. The substance most likely to form a micelle is

a. acetic acid
b. sodium palmitate
c. methyl alcohol
d. acetone
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Water and Polarity
16. Molecules which contain both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions are:
a. Amphipathic
b. Detergents
c. Able to form micelles
d. Both amphipathic and detergents.
e. All of these
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Water and Polarity
17. How do hydrogen bonds tend to affect the melting and boiling points of substances?
a. They tend to increase both melting and boiling points.
b. They tend to decrease both melting and boiling points.
c. They tend to increase melting points and decrease boiling points.
d. They tend to decrease melting points and increase boiling points.
e. They do not have any affect on either melting or boiling points.
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
18. Hydrogen bonds

a. play an important role in the solvent properties of water
b. are not involved in protein structure
c. play a role in the properties of DNA, but not of RNA
d. give water a lower boiling point than expected
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
19. Which of the following molecules will not form hydrogen bonds?
a. CH4
b. NH3
c. H2O
d. HF
20. How does the strength of hydrogen bonds compare with covalent bonds?
a. Hydrogen bonds are much stronger than covalent bonds.
b. Hydrogen bonds are much weaker than covalent bonds.
c. Hydrogen bonds and covalent bonds have similar strengths.
d. The question cannot be answered without knowing which covalent bonds are being
referred to
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Modified in 7e
TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
21. Which of the following is true regarding hydrogen bonds.

a. They can only form between two different molecules
b. They are important in protein folding but not DNA structure
c. They are important in DNA structure but not protein folding
d. They can be found within a single molecule
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
22. In a hydrogen bond

a. three atoms lie in a straight line
b. there is stronger bonding than in a covalent bond
c. unpaired electrons play no role
23. The non-covalent interaction below associated with the strongest force in aqueous solution is
a. dipole-induced dipole
b. hydrophobic interactions
c. hydrogen bonding
d. van der Waals forces
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
24. Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonds is false?

a. The donor is a hydrogen atom bonded to a less electronegative atom then hydrogen.
b. The more linear the bond, the stronger the attraction.
c. The acceptor must contain a non-bonded pair of electrons.
d. It is a type of non-covalent bond.
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Modified from 5e
TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
25. True hydrogen bonds can NOT form between hydrogen and this element:
a. N
b. F
c. C
d. O
e. All of these elements can form hydrogen bonds.
26. What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds a single water molecule can form?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
27. Which of the following characteristics makes for a good hydrogen bond acceptor?
a. a high electronegativity
b. a nonbonding pair of electrons
c. both of these
d. neither of these
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Modified in 7e
TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
28. Which of the following characteristics makes for a good hydrogen bond donor?
a. a high electronegativity
b. a nonbonding pair of electrons
c. both of the above
d. neither of the above
TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
29. Hydrogen bonds explain which of the following properties of water?

a. Water is a great solvent for all ionic and polar molecules.
b. Water has high melting and boiling points for its small size.
c. Ice expands when frozen.
d. Both the abnormal melting and freezing points and that ice expands when frozen.
e. Hydrogen bonds explain all of these properties.
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
30. Hydrogen bonds can only form when the hydrogen atom is involved in a polar bond.
a. True
b. False
31. Which of the following is a true statement?

a. most substances contract when they freeze.
b. water expands when it freezes.
c. hydrogen bonding is related to water’s tendency to expand as it freezes.
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
32. Which of the following compounds is most likely to form a micelle?

a. Acetic acid.
b. Glucose.
c. Glycerol.
d. Sodium palmitate.
e. Sodium phosphate.
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
NARRBEGIN: Exhibit 2A
Exhibit 2A
The structure of ATP with various groups labeled.
Group III is the entire phosphate group.
NARREND
33. Refer to Exhibit 2A. Which of the functional groups cannot function as a hydrogen donor to water?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. All can donate a hydrogen to water.
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
34. Refer to Exhibit 2A. Which of the functional groups is the most electrophilic?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. The answer cannot be determined without further information.
35. Refer to Exhibit 2A. Which of the groups could not act as a proton acceptor in a hydrogen bond?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. All can accept a hydrogen in a hydrogen bond.
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
36. Is water an acid or a base?

a. Water is an acid.
b. Water is a base.
c. Water is both an acid and a base.
d. Water is neither an acid nor a base.
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Modified from 5e
TOP: Acids, Bases, and pH
37. For an acid that undergoes this reaction:
HA x H+ + A–
Ka =
a. [H+][A–]/[HA]
b. [H+][HA]/[A–]
c. [HA][A–]/[H+]
d. [A–]/[HA][H+]
e. [H+]/[HA][A–]
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Acids, Bases, and pH
38. Which will dissociate most in water, a weak acid or a strong acid?
a. A weak acid.
b. A strong acid
c. They should dissociate about the same.
d. It's impossible to predict.
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Acids, Bases, and pH
39. Bases are

a. proton donors.
b. proton acceptors.
c. hydrogen bond donors.
d. hydrogen bond acceptors.
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Modified from 5e
40. Which has the greater Ka, a weak acid or a strong acid?
a. A weak acid.
b. A strong acid
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Acids, Bases, and pH
41. Which has the greater pKa, a weak acid or a strong acid?
a. A weak acid.
b. A strong acid
42. The dissociation constant for an acid with a pKa value of 6.0 is
a. 1 × 10–6
b. –1 × 106
c. 1 × 106
d. –1 × 10–6
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Acids, Bases, and pH
43. A buffer solution at pH 10 has a ratio of [HA]/[A–] of 10. What is the pKa of the acid?
a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
d. 11
e. 12
44. The dissociation constant for an acid is 1 × 10–6. What is its pKa?
a. –6
b. 6
c. 0.6
d. –0.6
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Modified in 7e
TOP: Acids, Bases, and pH NOT: Answer was incorrect in 6e
45. The pH of a solution of 0.04 M HCl is:

a. 4
b. 1.4
c. 0.4
d. 0.04
e. The pH cannot be determined
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Acids, Bases, and pH
46. The pOH a solution of 0.04 M HCl is:

a. 1.4
b. 10
c. 12.6
d. 13.6
e. The pOH cannot be determined
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Acids, Bases, and pH
47. An HCl solution has a pH = 3. If you dilute 10 mL of the solution to 1000mL, the final pH will be:
a. 1.0
b. 2.0
c. The pH does not change.
d. 4.0
e. 5.0
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Acids, Bases, and pH
48. If a solution has a pH = 9.6, the [H+] is

a. 2.5 × 1010
b. 9.6 M
c. 2.5 M
d. 2.5 × 10–10 M
e. 9.6 × 10–10 M
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Acids, Bases, and pH
49. What is the pH of a solution with [H+] = 10 mM?

a. 10
b. 1
c. 2
d. –2
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Acids, Bases, and pH
50. Calculate the final pH of a solution made by the addition of 10 mL of a 0.5 M NaOH solution to 500
mL of a 0.4 M HA originally at pH = 5.0 (pKa = 5.0) Neglect the volume change.
a. 6.10
b. 5.09
c. 7.00
d. 5.55
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Acids, Bases, and pH
51. If a solution has a pH = 6, the [H+] is

a. 6 M
b. 106 M
c. 10–6 M
d. 0.6 M
52. What is the pH of an acetic acid solution where the concentration of acetic acid is 2 mM and the
concentration of sodium acetate is 20 mM. The pKa of acetic acid is 4.76.
a. 5.76
b. 10.6
c. 12.6
d. 8.8
53. The ion product constant for water (Kw) is equal to:
a. 1014
b. 107
c. 100
d. 10–7
e. 10–14
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Acids, Bases, and pH
54. In a titration of a weak acid by a strong base

a. two equivalents of base are always needed to neutralize all the acid present
b. the equivalence point cannot be defined exactly
c. there is a region in which the pH changes slowly
d. the equivalence point depends on the nature of the added base
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Titration Curves
55. A solution at pH 7 contains a weak acid, HA. The pKa of the acid is 6.5. What is the ratio of
[A–]:[HA]?
a. 1:3
b. 1:1
c. 3:1
d. 10:1
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Titration Curves
56. When does a weak acid buffer best?

a. From one pH unit below its pKa to its pKa.
b. From its pKa to one pH unit above its pKa.
c. Within one pH unit of its pKa, both above and below.
d. Weak acids do not make good buffers at all.
TOP: Titration Curves
57. The inflection point of the titration curve for a weak monoprotic acid is equal to its pKa
a. True
b. False
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Titration Curves
NOT: Answer was incorrect in 6e
58. Which of the following is true?

a. The pH of a solution where the A– to HA ratio is 1 has a pH = pKa.
b. If the pH does not equal the pKa, the solution is not a buffer.
c. The best buffer for any experiment will always have a pH equal to the pKa.
d. If a buffer has more weak acid than conjugate base, the pH will be higher than the pK a.
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Titration Curves
59. Using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, calculate the pH of an ammonia buffer when the
NH3:NH4 + ratio is 0.4 moles:0.6 moles. (pK = 9.75)
a. 7.40
b. 9.07
c. 9.25
d. 9.43
e. 11.05
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Titration Curves
60. An ammonia buffer contains NH3:NH4+ in a ratio of 0.4 moles:0.6 moles (pK = 9.75). What will be the
pH if you add 0.01 moles of HCl to this buffer?
a. 8.98
b. 9.04
c. 9.25
d. 9.46
e. 9.52
61. The ratio of a weak acid and its conjugate base at the point of maximum buffering capacity is
a. 1/1
b. 1/10
c. 10/1
d. no definite ratio is needed
62. Which substance would be the best buffer at pH 8 if it had to be able to buffer against either acid or
base?
a. one with a pKa of 7
b. one with a pKa of 8
c. one with a pKa of 9
d. The pKa of a substance doesn't tell you whether it would be a good buffer at this pH.
63. Buffering capacity refers to

a. the effectiveness of commercial antacids
b. the extent to which a buffer solution can counteract the effect of added acid or base
c. the pH of a buffer solution
d. the molecular weight of the substance used as a buffer
64. If the pH of 1 liter of a 1.0 M carbonate buffer is 7.0, what is the molar ratio of H2CO3 to HCO3–? (pK
= 6.37)
a. 0.234
b. 4.27
c. 6.37
d. 7.00
e. 10.20
65. Consider a reaction that produces a significant amount of hydrogen ion and is to be carried out a pH 7.
Only two acids are available for making the buffer solution. The pK a values for acids A and B are 6.3
and 7.3, respectively. Which acid would serve as the optimum buffer for this reaction? Or would
carrying out the reaction in water simply serve as well?
a. acid A
b. acid B
c. water
d. both acids would be equally effective
66. Which of the following acids would serve as a good buffer for a reaction at pH = 8.0?
Ka
I. acetic acid 1.76 × 10–5
II. H2PO4– 6.31 × 10–8
III. bicarbonate 5.6 × 10–11
IV. TRIS 5.01 × 10–9
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Titration Curves
67. If the pH of 1 liter of a 1.0 M carbonate buffer is 7.0, what is actual number of moles of H 2CO3 and
HCO3 –? (pK = 6.37)
moles of H2CO3 moles of HCO 3–

I. 0.86 0.14
II. 0.81 0.19
III. 0.76 0.24
IV. 0.19 0.81
V. 0.14 0.86
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Titration Curves
68. A buffer solution

a. is used to control the pH of a solution
b. contains at least 100 times more of a weak acid than its conjugate base
c. contains at least 100 times less of a weak acid than its conjugate base
d. always has a pH of 7
69. The main intracellular buffer system is

a. H3PO4/H2PO4–
b. H2PO4–/ HPO42–
c. HPO 2–/PO 3–
4 4
d. H3PO4/PO43–
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Buffers
NARRBEGIN: Exhibit 2B
Exhibit 2B
Contains information on the pK's of some common buffers.
Buffer pK1 pK2 pK3

Acetate 4.75
Ammonia 9.25
Carbonic acid 6.37 10.20
Citric acid 3.09 4.75 5.41
Formic Acid 3.75
Phosphoric acid 2.14 7.20 12.4
Pyruvic acid 2.50
Tris 8.3
NARREND
70. Refer to Exhibit 2B. The enzyme lysozyme has an optimum pH close to 5. A suitable buffer would
be:
a. Acetate
b. Carbonate
c. Phosphate
d. Pyruvate
e. None of these is a suitable buffer for this reaction.
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Buffers
71. Refer to Exhibit 2B. An ammonium buffer would work well at this pH:
a. 5.6
b. 7.0
c. 9.0
d. 11.0
e. None of these
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Buffers
72. Refer to Exhibit 2B. A carbonate buffer would work well at this pH:
a. 4.0
b. 6.0
c. 8.0
d. 10.0
e. 6.0 and 10.0
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Buffers
73. Refer to Exhibit 2B. A phosphate buffer would work well at this pH:
a. 5.0
b. 7.0
c. 8.0
d. 10.0
e. 7.0 and 8.0
74. Refer to Exhibit 2B. Which of the following would make the best buffer at pH =10.0?
a. Acetic acid and sodium acetate
b. Tris and its acid form
c. H2CO3 and NaHCO3
d. Na2HPO4 and NaH2PO4
e. NaHCO3 and Na2CO3
75. Which of the following is important to know when deciding if a given buffer will be effective for an
experiment?
a. the pKa of the buffer compound
b. the buffer capacity
c. the concentration of the buffer
d. whether the experiment is likely to generate hydrogen ions or hydroxide ions
e. all of these are important considerations
ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Buffers
76. Nonphysiological buffers such as HEPES and PIPES have come into common use because
a. they are inexpensive
b. they can be prepared much more easily than other buffers
c. they have less tendency to interfere with reactions
d. they contain nitrogen
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Buffers
77. Buffers which lack biological activity and are unlikely to interfere with any biochemical reactions
include:
a. Tris.
b. Hepes.
c. Phosphate.
d. Both Tris and HEPES.
e. All of these.
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Buffers
78. Which of the following is not true?

a. A buffer is a solution which maintains a solution at a neutral pH
b. Buffer solutions are made to resist change in pH
c. Zwitterion buffers are less likely to interfere with biological reactions than non-zwitterions
d. HEPES is a zwitterion buffer
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Buffers
79. The main blood buffer system is

a. H2CO3/HCO2–3–
b. HCO –/CO
3 3
c. H2CO3/CO32–
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Buffers
Chapter 3—Amino Acids and Peptides
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The amino and carboxyl groups of amino acids are bonded to which carbon?
a. Both are bonded to the α-carbon.
b. Both are bonded to the p-carbon.
c. The amino is bonded to the α-carbon, and the carboxyl is bonded to the p-carbon.
d. The amino is bonded to the p-carbon, and the carboxyl is bonded to the α-carbon.
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e
TOP: Amino Acids Exist in a 3-Dimensional World
2. The side chain groups of amino acids are bonded to which carbon?
a. The α-carbon.
b. The p-carbon.
c. The carbonyl carbon.
d. Different amino acids have their side chains attached to different carbons.
3. Chiral objects
a. are cyclic compounds in the chair form.
b. are not superimposable on their mirror images.
c. never occur in nature.
d. do not form crystals.
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Amino Acids Exist in a 3-Dimensional World
4. Which of the following has no L or D configuration?

a. Glyceraldehyde
b. Proline
c. Glycine
d. All of these have an L or D configuration
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e
5. The absolute configuration of amino acids are denoted by their relationship to the L- or D- forms of
a. glyceraldehyde
b. glucose
c. tartaric acid
d. alanine
6. The amino acids which occur in proteins

a. are all of the L- form.
b. are all of the D- form.
c. can be either the L- or D- form.
d. do not have L- and D- forms.
7. Which of the following is an amino acid not found in proteins?

a. asparagine
b. ornithine
c. isoleucine
d. proline
ANS: B PTS: 1
TOP: Individual Amino Acids: Their Structures and Properties
8. Which amino acid has the one-letter symbol E?

a. lysine
b. phenylalanine
c. histidine
d. glutamic acid
ANS: D PTS: 1
9. Which amino acid has the three-letter symbol asn?

a. aspartic acid
b. asparagine
c. alanine
d. arginine
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e
10. Which is a correct pair of abbreviations for an amino acid?

a. Gln / N
b. Tyr / T
c. Asn / N
d. Phe / P
e. Pro / Q
11. Which amino acid has a benzene-like ring?

a. Glutamic Acid
b. Histidine
c. Isoleucine
d. Serine
e. Tyrosine
ANS: E PTS: 1
12. Which amino acid is classified as polar?

a. L
b. H
c. P
d. I
13. Which group consists only of amino acids with polar side chains?
a. serine, threonine, and leucine
b. serine, threonine, and cysteine
c. serine, threonine, and valine
d. serine, threonine, and isoleucine
ANS: B PTS: 1
14. Which of the following has a hydrophilic side chain?

a. Asn
b. Leu
c. Ile
d. Gly
15. Which of the following amino acids has a side chain that can make hydrogen bonds to other
molecules?
a. Leu
b. Ser
c. Ala
d. Gly
16. Asp and Glu both have amides as side chains.

a. True
b. False
17. Thr and Ser both have hydroxyls as side chains.

a. True
b. False
18. The side chain of Met is a poor hydrogen bond donor.

a. True
b. False
19. Which group consists only of amino acids with carboxylate side chains?
a. glutamate and cysteine
b. aspartate and glycine
c. glutamate and lysine
d. aspartate and glutamate
ANS: D PTS: 1
20. Which group consists only of amino acids with basic side chains?
a. leucine and lysine
b. arginine and leucine
c. lysine and arginine
d. arginine and isoleucine
ANS: C PTS: 1
21. Which amino acids contain sulfur?

a. cysteine and lysine
b. cysteine and methionine
c. arginine and methionine
d. cysteine and isoleucine
ANS: B PTS: 1
22. Which amino acid takes on a negative charge when the R-group loses a proton?
a. Glutamic Acid
b. Histidine
c. Glutamine
d. Tyrosine
e. Glutamic Acid and Tyrosine
ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Modified from 5e
23. Which amino acid takes on a positive charge when the R-group gains a proton?
a. Glutamic Acid
b. Histidine
c. Glutamine
d. Tyrosine
e. Glycine
24. Given the R-groups in the peptide, ALA-GLN-ARG-SER-HIS, it would likely be:
a. Very water soluble
b. Somewhat water soluble
c. Not very water soluble
d. Not soluble at all
e. You cannot tell from the sequence
ANS: A PTS: 1
25. Which amino acid is often added to other molecules to increase their water solubility?
a. Ala
b. Asp
c. Gly
d. Pro
e. Trp
ANS: C PTS: 1
26. Which amino acid has a polar, non-ionic R-group

a. Glutamic Acid
b. Histidine
c. Isoleucine
d. Serine
e. Tyrosine
ANS: D PTS: 1
27. Which amino acid has the least polar R-group H?

a. Glutamic Acid
b. Histidine
c. Isoleucine
d. Serine
e. Tyrosine
28. Which amino acid would have the greatest negative charge at pH = 7.0?
a. Glutamic Acid
b. Histidine
c. Isoleucine
d. Serine
e. Tyrosine
29. Which amino acid would likely be least water-soluble at pH 7.0

a. Histidine
b. Isoleucine
c. Isoleucine or Tyrosine, you cannot tell
d. Serine
e. Tyrosine
ANS: C PTS: 1
30. Which of the following is not considered an uncommon amino acid?

a. thyroxine
b. Hydroxylysine
c. Hydroxyproline
d. Tryptophan
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e
31. Which statement is true about the classification of amino acids?
a. Alanine and valine are basic amino acids.
b. Lysine and arginine are acidic amino acids.
c. Glutamic acid and asparagine are hydrophobic amino acids.
d. Tryptophan and phenylalanine are aromatic amino acids.
e. Methionine and cysteine are hydroxyl-containing amino acids.
32. Which amino acid has a basic R group?

a. Glutamic Acid
b. Histidine
c. Isoleucine
d. Serine
e. Tyrosine
ANS: B PTS: 1
33. Which of the following can be considered a unique characteristic of histidine?

a. Its side chain is attached to the alpha carbon
b. It has a basic side chain
c. It has a side chain that is chemically basic but has an acidic pKa
d. It is technically an “imino” acid
34. Which amino acids would migrate furthest toward the anode (positive electrode) during
electrophoresis?
a. Aspartic acid.
b. Arginine.
c. Tyrosine.
d. Histidine.
e. Glutamine.
TOP: Acid-Base Properties
35. What is the charge on the tetrapeptide lys-lys-his-glu at pH 7?

a. 0
b. +1
c. +2
d. –1
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Acid-Base Properties
36. The pKa values of the alpha carboxyl groups of common amino acids are around
a. pH 2
b. pH 5
c. pH 7
d. pH 9
37. The pKa values of the side chains of the common amino acids
a. are always at low pH
b. are always at high pH
c. depend on the chemical nature of the side chain
d. are not known
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Acid-Base Properties
38. The pKa values of the amino groups of common amino acids
a. occur at very low pH values
b. occur in a range from pH 9 to pH 11
c. all occur at pH 8
d. all occur above pH 12
39. The isoelectric pH of glycine is closest to

a. pH 4
b. pH 6
c. pH 8
d. pH 10
40. Which of the following correctly lists the isoelectric pH's of asp, asn, and arg from lowest to highest?
a. D N R
b. D R N
c. R N D
d. R D N
e. N R D
f. N D R
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Acid-Base Properties
41. Which of the following amino acids has a net charge of +1 at pH 4 and a net charge of 0 at pH 8?
a. glu
b. arg
c. his
d. tyr
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Acid-Base Properties
42. The net charge on the amino acid cys in a solution at pH 7 is closest to
a. –2
b. –1.
c. 0.
d. +1.
43. What is the predominant form of the amino acid abbreviated R at pH 7?

a. positive
b. neutral
c. negative
44. What is the predominant form of the amino acid abbreviated val at pH 7?
a. positive
b. neutral
c. negative
45. What is the predominant form of the amino acid abbreviated E at pH 7?

a. positive
b. neutral
c. negative
Exhibit 3A (for this chapter)
Amino acid α-carboxyl group pK a α-amino group pK a R-group pK

Ala 2.3 9.7
Arg 2.2 9.0 12.5
Asn or Gln 2.1 9.0
Asp or Glu 2.2 9.8 4.0
Cys 1.7 10.8 8.3
His 1.8 9.2 6.0
Ser 2.2 9.2
Tyr 2.1 9.1 10.1
NARREND
46. Refer to Exhibit 3A. At pH 7, what percent of histidine has a neutral charge?
a. 9%
b. 50%
c. 91%
d. 100%
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Acid-Base Properties
47. Refer to Exhibit 3A. The pI of an amino acid is the pH at which it has a zero net charge. What is the
increasing order of isoelectric points (low pH to high) for these three amino acids?
a. ALA, HIS, ASP
b. ASP, ALA, HIS
c. HIS, ALA, ASP
d. ALA, ASL, HIS
e. ASP, HIS, ALA
48. Refer to Exhibit 3A. Which of these amino acids could act as a good buffer at pH = 4.5
a. Alanine
b. Arginine
c. Asparagine
d. Cysteine
e. Aspartic Acid
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Acid-Base Properties
49. Refer to Exhibit 3A. Which one has the R-group with the highest pK?
a. Alanine
b. Arginine
c. Histidine
d. Cysteine
e. Aspartic Acid
50. Refer to Exhibit 3A. Calculate the pI of ASN:

a. 2.5
b. 5.0
c. 5.5
d. 6.0
e. 10.7
51. Refer to Exhibit 3A. What is the order of the pIs in increasing order (from acid to base)?
a. Alanine, Arginine, Asparagine, Cysteine, and Aspartic Acid
b. Aspartic Acid, Alanine, Asparagine, Cysteine, and Arginine
c. Aspartic Acid, Cysteine, Asparagine, Alanine, and Arginine
d. Arginine, Alanine, Asparagine, Cysteine, and Aspartic Acid
e. Aspartic Acid, Cysteine, Arginine, Alanine, and Asparagine,
52. Refer to Exhibit 3A. Which one has a pI of 5.0?

a. Alanine
b. Arginine
c. Histidine
d. Cysteine
e. Glutamic acid
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Acid-Base Properties
53. Refer to Exhibit 3A. Calculate the pI of CYS?

a. 1.7
b. 5.0
c. 8.3
d. 9.6
e. 10.8
54. Refer to Exhibit 3A. The pI of the peptide ALA-GLN-ARG-SER-HIS would be:
a. Strongly acid
b. Weakly acid (4-6)
c. About neutral (6-8)
d. Weakly basic (8-10)
e. Strongly basic
55. At its isolectric pH, glycine will have

a. both of its ionizable functional groups dissociated.
b. neither of its ionizable functional groups dissociated.
c. only its carboxyl group dissociated.
d. only its amino group dissociated.
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Acid-Base Properties
56. The net charge on the peptide abbreviated CAKE in a solution at pH 7 is closest to
a. –2
b. –1.
c. 0.
d. +1.
Exhibit 3B
A titration curve.
NARREND
57. Refer to Exhibit 3B. Which points on the graph represent pK's?
a. 1 and 7
b. 2, 4 and 6
c. 3 and 5
d. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
e. The pKs cannot be determined without more information.
58. Refer to Exhibit 3B. Which point most likely represents the pK for the carboxyl group?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
59. Refer to Exhibit 3B. At which point would the amino acid have its maximum negative charge?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
e. 7
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Acid-Base Properties
60. Refer to Exhibit 3B. The amino acid depicted by the titration curve is
a. aspartic acid
b. histidine
c. lysine
d. tyrosine
e. lysine or tyrosine
ANS: E
Only two amino acids have groups whose pKa titrates at 9 and 10
PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Acid-Base Properties
61. Refer to Exhibit 3B. The point labeled #1 represents:

a. The fully protonated form
b. The pH with maximum negative charge
c. The end point of titration with base (OH–)
d. The pI of the amino acid
e. None of these
62. Which of the following correctly describes peptide bonds?

a. They are special type of amide bond.
b. They are a very stable bonds.
c. They are formed when water is split out from an amino group and a carboxylic acid.
d. They are a bond which displays resonance.
e. All of these
TOP: The Peptide Bond
63. How many possible tetrapeptides can be made using all four of the amino acids D, W, F, and R?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 12
d. 24
64. This amino acid displays a free amino group in the peptide ALA-GLN-ARG-SER-HIS:
a. ALA
b. GLN
c. SER
d. HIS
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: The Peptide Bond
65. How many different tripeptides can be assembled using one molecule each of the amino acids glycine,
glutamic acid, and lysine?
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 27
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: The Peptide Bond
66. Which groups of a pair of amino acids must react to form a peptide bond?
a. the two carboxyls
b. the two aminos
c. the two R-groups
d. the carboxyl of one and the amino of the other
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: The Peptide Bond
67. Which is the C-terminal amino acid in the peptide ALA-GLN-ARG-SER-HIS?

a. ALA
b. GLN
c. ARG
d. SER
e. HIS
68. The peptide bond

a. is formed by elimination of water between two amino groups in an amindo acid
b. limits the possible orientations of the peptide backbone in a protein
c. has acidic and basic characteristics
d. all of these
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: The Peptide Bond
69. The order in which amino acids are linked in peptides is given
a. from the C-terminal to the N-terminal end
b. from the N-terminal to the C-terminal end
c. in alphabetical order
d. in order of increasing molecular weights of the amino acid residues
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: The Peptide Bond
70. The peptide bond

a. is planar
b. can be written as a resonance hybrid
c. is the basis of protein structure.
d. all of the above
71. Which amino acid is not a precursor to a neurotransmitter?

a. Glutamic Acid
b. Phenylalanine
c. Serine
d. Tryptophan
e. Tyrosine
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Small Peptides with Physiologically Activity
72. Which type of reaction is not important in the creation and regulation of neurotransmitters?
a. Decarboxylases
b. Hydroxylases
c. Monoamine Oxidases
d. Peptidases
e. All of these are important in the metabolism of neurotransmitters.
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Small Peptides with Physiologically Activity
73. An inhibitor of this type of enzyme will likely act as an antidepressant:

a. Decarboxylases
b. Hydrolases
c. Monoamine Oxidases
d. Exopeptidases
e. Inhibiting any of these enzymes can have an antidepressant effect.
74. The following molecules are all short peptides except:

a. p-alanine
b. Aspartame
c. Met-Enkephalin
d. Glutathione
e. Oxytocin
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Small Peptides with Physiologically Activity
75. Which amino acid occurs only in the protein thyroglobulin?

a. tryptophan
b. methionine
c. arginine
d. thyroxine
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Small Peptides with Physiologically Activity
76. Aspartame
a. is a peptide derivative used as an artificial sweetener
b. contains phenylalanine and arginine
c. is extracted from asparagus
d. all of these
TOP: Small Peptides with Physiologically Activity
77. Oxytocin and vasopressin

a. differ from each other by a single amino acid
b. do not contain sulfur
c. are peptide hormones
d. are tripeptides
Chapter 4—The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Exhibit 4A
The following question(s) refer to this peptide:
Cys-Ala-Gly-Arg-Gln-Met
NARREND
1. Refer to Exhibit 4A. Total hydrolysis of the peptide in HCl would yield these products:
a. Ala, Arg, Cys, Gln, Gly, Met
b. Ala, Arg, 2 Cys, Gln, Gly, H2S
c. Ala, Arg, Cys, Glu, Gly, Met, NH3
d. Ala, Arg, 2 Cys, Glu, Gly, H2S, NH3
e. None of these answers is correct.
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Protein Structure and Function
2. Refer to Exhibit 4A. The amino terminal amino acid is:

a. Arg
b. Cys
c. Gln
d. Met
e. None of these.
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Protein Structure and Function
3. Refer to Exhibit 4A. The carboxyl terminal end is:

a. Arg
b. Cys
c. Gln
d. Met
e. None of these.
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Protein Structure and Function
4. Refer to Exhibit 4A. The overall, net ionic charge on this peptide at pH = 7 would be:
a. +2
b. +1
c. 0
d. –1
e. –2
ANS: B
The alpha carboxyl and alpha amino cancel each other out. The only group that has a charged side
chain is arginine, which is +1. Therefore the overall peptide charge at pH 7 is +1
PTS: 1 OBJ: Modified in 7e

TOP: Protein Structure and Function NOT: Answer was incorrect in 6e
5. The sequence of monomers in any polymer is this type of structure:

a. primary structure
b. secondary structure
c. tertiary structure
d. quaternary structure
e. All of these
TOP: Protein Structure and Function
6. Hydrogen bonds are most important in this type of structure in proteins:

e. All of these
7. The overall folding of a single protein subunit is called:

e. All of these
8. The location of prosthetic groups is shown in this level of structure:

e. All of these
9. Structures which repeat over and over in secondary structure are called:
b. domain
c. supersecondary structure
d. prosthetic group
e. All of these
10. Covalent bonds are important in all these structures, except:

e. All of these
11. Disulfide bonds are most important in this type of structure:

e. All of these
12. Which of the following forces are involved in maintaining the primary structure of a protein?
a. covalent bonds
b. hydrogen bonds
c. ionic interactions
d. hydrophobic interactions
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Primary Structure
13. A single amino substitution can give rise to a malfunctioning protein.

a. True
b. False
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Primary Structure
14. Assuming the oligopeptide ALPHAHELICKS forms one continuous α-helix, the carbonyl oxygen of
the glutamic acid residue is hydrogen bonded to the amide nitrogen of
a. leucine.
b. isoleucine.
c. cysteine.
d. lysine.
e. serine.
TOP: Secondary Structure
15. What happens when a protein is denatured?

a. Its secondary structure is disrupted but its primary structure remains intact.
b. Its primary structure is disrupted but its secondary structure remains intact.
c. It is broken apart into its constituent amino acids.
d. It becomes all α-helix.
16. Which of the following best defines a domain?

a. A supersecondary region, often shared by proteins, that has a specific function.
b. A repetitive supersecondary structure.
c. A double-layered arrangement formed so that the polar groups face the aqueous
environment, while the nonpolar regions are kept away from the aqueous environment.
d. An unfolded region of a protein.
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Secondary Structure
17. Which of the following amino acids is unlikely to be found in an α-helix due to its cyclic structure?
a. phenylalanine
b. tryptophan
c. proline
d. lysine
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Secondary Structure
18. Which of the following statements regarding hydrogen bonding in secondary structures is true?
a. Both α-helices and p-sheets only use intrachain hydrogen bonds.
b. Both α-helices and p-sheets only use interchain hydrogen bonds.
c. α-helices only use intrachain hydrogen bonds and p-sheets can use either intrachain or
interchain hydrogen bonds.
d. α-helices can use either intrachain or interchain hydrogen bonds and p-sheets only use
interchain hydrogen bonds.
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Secondary Structure
19. Which of the following factors tend to destabilize α-helices?

a. clusters of amino acids with bulky R-groups
b. clusters of amino acids with similarly charged R-groups
c. Both of these.
d. Neither of these
20. Which of the following best describes the structure of collagen?

a. It is composed of a single α-helix.
b. It is a double helix.
c. It is a triple helix
d. It is composed primarily of p-sheet.

a. The peptide bonds in the p-sheet are extended.
b. The peptide bonds in the α-helix coil back on themselves.
c. Both α-helices and p-sheets can be found as part of tertiary structure.
d. All of these
22. Which of the following is often found connecting the strands of an antiparallel p-sheet?
a. p-bulge
b. reverse turn
c. α-helix
d. prosthetic group
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Secondary Structure
23. Which of the following best describes a motif?

a. a repetitive supersecondary structure
b. a common nonrepetitive irregularity found in antiparallel p-sheets
c. a protein conformation with biological activity
d. a group of atoms other than an amino acid
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Secondary Structure
24. In the p-pleated sheet conformation

a. there are hydrogen bonds perpendicular to the direction of the polypeptide chain.
b. the polypeptide chain is almost fully extended.
c. the polypeptide chains may be hydrogen bonded together in a parallel or antiparallel
orientation.
d. all of these
25. Which of the following is the most common function for fibrous proteins?
a. enzymes
b. structural roles.
c. carrier molecules.
d. enzymes and carrier molecules.
e. All of these.
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Secondary Structure
26. In the α-helix

a. there are no hydrogen bonds
b. the peptide chain is fully extended
c. the peptide chain bends back on itself
d. there are hydrogen bonds parallel to the helix axis
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Secondary Structure
27. Which one is not an example of supersecondary structure?

a. the pyrrole ring
b. the Greek key
c. the p-meander
d. the p-barrel

a. The collagen helix and the α-helix are the only types of helices in proteins.
b. Globular proteins tend to be water soluble
c. Globular and fibrous are examples of secondary structure
d. All of these
29. As an animal ages, the amount of cross-linking of collagen in tissue

a. tends to decrease.
b. tends to increase.
c. tends to remain unchanged.
30. Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) prevents scurvy because

a. it is involved in the formation of the proper p-sheet structure of collagen.
b. it is involved in the metabolism of heme used in hemoglobin.
c. it encourages the formation of disulfide linkages in collagen.
d. it is an unusual amino acid found in the primary structure of collagen.
e. it is used to hydroxylate prolines in the primary structure of collagen.
ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Secondary Structure
31. The following is true about the hydroxyproline in collagen:

a. Hydroxyproline is incorporated into the chain during polymerization of amino acids.
b. Vitamin C is necessary for the synthesis of hydroxyproline.
c. Hydroxyproline is important in holding the 3 strands of collagen together.
d. Hydroxyproline requires Vitamin C for its synthesis and it holds the collagen helix
together.
e. All of these.
32. Fibrous proteins

a. are always composed of helical structures.
b. are always composed of p-sheets.
c. can be composed of either helical or p-sheet structures.
33. The protein myoglobin

a. contains a high degree of p-pleated sheet structure
b. carries oxygen in the bloodstream
c. contains no histidine
d. contains a heme group
34. Generally speaking, this type of protein is water-soluble:

a. Fibrous.
b. Globular.
c. Both fibrous and globular proteins are usually water-soluble.
d. Neither fibrous nor globular proteins are usually water-soluble.
e. You cannot generalize about the solubility of fibrous or globular proteins.
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Secondary Structure
35. Domains are

a. independently folded regions of proteins
b. the α-helical portions of proteins
c. the p-pleated regions of proteins
d. all of the above
36. Two amino acids frequently found in reverse turns are

a. tyrosine and tryptophan
b. serine and threonine
c. glycine and proline
d. leucine and isoleucine
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Secondary Structure
37. Which of the following amino acid residues would most likely be found in the interior of a globular
protein?
a. glutamic acid
b. lysine
c. leucine
d. serine
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Tertiary Structure
38. Disulfide bonds in proteins occur between the side chains of which of the following amino acid
residues?
a. glutamine
b. lysine
c. cysteine
d. methionine
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Tertiary Structure
Exhibit 4B
NARREND
39. Refer to Exhibit 4B. The type of bonding labeled "L" in these figure is:
a. Hydrogen bonding of the peptide backbone
b. Hydrogen bonding involving the R-groups
c. Hydrophobic interactions
d. Metal ion coordination
e. Electrostatic attraction
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Tertiary Structure
40. Refer to Exhibit 4B. The type of bonding labeled "O" in these figure is:
b. Covalent bonding involving the R-groups
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Tertiary Structure
41. Refer to Exhibit 4B. The type of bonding labeled "N" in these figure is:
b. Covalent bonding involving the R-groups
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Tertiary Structure
42. Refer to Exhibit 4B. Which one shows hydrogen bonding of R-groups?
a. M
b. N
c. P
d. M and N
e. All of these
TOP: Tertiary Structure NOT: Answer was incorrect in 6e
43. Refer to Exhibit 4B. Which one shows hydrogen bonding of the peptide backbone?
a. M
b. N
c. P
d. M and N
e. All of these
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Tertiary Structure
44. Refer to Exhibit 4B. Which one shows covalent bonding of R-groups?
a. K
b. L
c. O
d. K and L
e. All of these
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Tertiary Structure
45. Refer to Exhibit 4B. Which one shows electrostatic attraction of R-groups?
a. K
b. L
c. O
d. K and L
e. All of these
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Tertiary Structure
46. X-ray crystallography is used to determine protein structure because

a. it can be done on dilute solutions
b. it requires no calculations
c. the positions of all atoms can be found by this method
d. all of these
TOP: Tertiary Structure
47. The structure of myoglobin consists

a. almost entirely of α-helices.
b. almost entirely of p-sheets.
c. of a mixture of α-helices and p-sheets.
d. of a unique secondary motif that is neither α-helix nor p-sheet.
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Tertiary Structure
48. The tertiary structure of a protein is usually a result of which of the following interactions?
a. intramolecular hydrogen bonding
b. electrostatic interactions
c. hydrophobic interactions
d. all of these
49. Heme would best be described as a

a. motif.
b. domain.
c. prosthetic group.
d. helix.
50. Why does myoglobin have a histidine that prevents both O2 and CO from binding perpendicularly to
the heme plane?
a. This increases myoglobin's affinity for O2.
b. This increases myoglobin's affinity for CO.
c. This lessens the difference in myoglobin's affinity for CO versus O2.
d. This prevents the iron of the heme from being oxidized.
51. In what oxidation state must the iron atom be for heme to bind oxygen?
a. 0, Fe(0)
b. 1+, Fe(I)
c. 2+, Fe(II)
d. 3+, Fe(III)
e. There is no required oxidation state for the iron.

a. The heme group of myoglobin is held in place only through non-covalent bonding.
b. The F8 histidine is important to the function of myoglobin
c. The E7 histidine is important to the function of myoglobin
d. Myoglobin and hemoglobin differ only in one amino acid
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Tertiary Structure
53. Which of the following can result in protein denaturation?
a. heat
b. extremes of pH
c. detergents
d. all of the above
54. The following bond forces are important in tertiary structure:

a. Disulfide bonds
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Hydrophobic attraction
d. Both hydrogen bonds and hydrophobic attraction.
e. All of these are important in tertiary structure
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Tertiary Structure
55. Quaternary structure is associated with

a. the overall shape of the polypeptide chain
b. the sum of secondary and tertiary interactions
c. simple proteins with only one subunit
d. the relative orientation of one polypeptide to another polypeptide in a multisubunit protein
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Quaternary Structure
56. Which of the following forces are involved in maintaining the quaternary structure of a protein?
a. hydrogen bonds
b. ionic interactions
c. hydrophobic interactions
d. All of these
TOP: Quaternary Structure
57. The following bond forces are important in quaternary structure:

a. Disulfide bonds
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Hydrophobic attraction
d. Both hydrogen bonds and hydrophobic attraction.
e. All of these are important in quaternary structure.
58. Under normal circumstances:

a. Adult Hb binds to oxygen more tightly than Mb binds.
b. Fetal Hb binds oxygen more tightly than adult Hb.
c. Adult Hb binds oxygen more tightly than either fetal Hb or Mb binds.
d. Mb has the lowest affinity for oxygen of the 3.
e. More than one of these statements is correct.
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Quaternary Structure
59. Which of the following statements regarding hemoglobin (Hb) and myoglobin (Mb) is true?
a. Mb transports oxygen while Hb stores it.
b. Mb has quaternary structure but Hb does not.
c. Mb displays simple kinetics of binding while Hb displays cooperativity.
d. Mb binds Fe(II) while Hb binds heme.
60. Which of the following is not a characteristic of hemoglobin?

a. It contains two different types of subunits .
b. It contains a prosthetic group.
c. It is an allosteric enzyme.
d. It transports oxygen.
e. All of these statements are true for Hb.
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Quaternary Structure
61. The Bohr effect for oxygen binding states that

a. Mb binds oxygen more tightly than Hb.
b. Hb will bind oxygen very tightly when the CO2 concentration is high.
c. as the pH goes down, Hb binds oxygen less tightly.
d. Hb's ability to bind oxygen increases with higher oxygen concentration.
62. In allosteric interactions

a. proteins that consist of a single polypeptide chain form aggregates.
b. disulfide bonds are broken.
c. changes that take place in one site of a protein cause changes at a distant site.
d. metal ions always bind to the protein.
63. Hemoglobin differs from myoglobin because

a. it does not have a heme group.
b. it is a tetramer, whereas myoglobin is a single polypeptide chain.
c. it does not contain any helical regions.
d. it contains more p-pleated sheet structure.
64. Which of the following best describes what happens when hemoglobin binds bisphosphoglyceric acid
(BPG)?
a. Binding of BPG leads to tighter binding of oxygen.
b. Binding of BPG allows maternal (adult) Hb to bind oxygen more tightly than fetal Hb.
c. Binding of BPG causes oxygen to dissociate from Hb.
d. Binding of BPG causes the subunits of hemoglobin to separate.
65. The binding of oxygen to hemoglobin differs from the oxygen-binding behavior of myoglobin because
a. oxygen binding to hemoglobin is cooperative.
b. oxygen binding to myoglobin is cooperative.
c. hemoglobin is not an allosteric protein.
d. the oxygen-binding curve of hemoglobin is hyperbolic.
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Quaternary Structure
66. In the Bohr effect the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin

a. is increased by the presence of Na+
b. is increased by the presence of H+ and CO2
c. is decreased by the presence of H+ and CO2
d. is unchanged
67. The affinity of fetal hemoglobin for oxygen

a. has not been studied
b. is the same as that of adult hemoglobin
c. is lower than that of maternal hemoglobin
d. is higher than that of maternal hemoglobin
68. Variations in the structure of hemoglobin

a. do not always have an adverse effect on health
b. can alter the binding of heme to the protein
c. can occur on the surface of the protein
d. all of these
69. In sickle-cell anemia hemoglobin

a. the four subunits of hemoglobin dissociate from one another
b. the heme group is lost from all subunits
c. the iron is in the Fe(III) form rather than the normal Fe(II)
d. groups of hemoglobin molecules aggregate with each other
70. Which of the following proteins is not homologous with the others?
a. myoglogin
b. α-chain of hemoglobin
c. p-chain of hemoglobin
d. collagen
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Protein Folding Dynamics
71. What is the major force that drives nonpolar substances out of aqueous solution?
a. Increased enthalpy of hydrophobic bonds formed between solute molecules.
b. Decreased entropy of newly organized solute molecules.
c. Increased entropy of newly organized solute molecules.
d. Increased enthalpy of H-bonds in the solvent water.
e. Increased entropy of solvent water molecules.
ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Protein Folding Dynamics
72. Hydrophobic interactions may occur between the R groups of which of the following amino acids?
a. tyrosine and glycine
b. arginine and histidine
c. phenylalanine and tryptophan
d. valine and asparagine
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Protein Folding Dynamics
73. The information needed for the structure of a protein is contained in

a. amino acid composition
b. primary structure
c. secondary structure
d. tertiary structure
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Protein Folding Dynamics
74. Incorrect protein folding resulting in exposure of hydrophobic regions can result in
a. aggregation.
b. homology.
c. liposomes.
d. the Bohr effect.
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Protein Folding Dynamics
75. Proteins that aid in the correct and timely folding of other proteins are called
a. motifs.
b. chaperones.
c. liposomes.
d. cooperative.
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Protein Folding Dynamics
76. The oxygen binding curve of which of the following is the closest to that of myoglobin?
a. hemoglobin at pH 6.8
b. hemoglobin that lacks BPG
c. maternal hemoglobin
d. fetal hemoglobin
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Protein Folding Dynamics
77. The following amino acid causes a kink or bend in the α-helix.
a. Ala
b. Glu
c. Lys
d. Pro
e. Trp
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Protein Folding Dynamics
Chapter 5—Protein Purification and Characterization Techniques
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What tends to happen to the percent recovery during a protein's purification?

a. The number usually steadily increases during the purification.
b. The number usually steadily decreases during the purification.
c. The number usually stays fairly constant during the purification.
d. There is no general trend for percent recovery during a protein purification.
TOP: Extracting Pure Proteins from Cells
2. Differential centrifugation at low speeds (several thousand RPM) is a useful step when
a. organelles have been lysed.
b. enzymes of interest have different sizes.
c. cell membranes must be left intact.
d. ribosomes need to be broken down.
e. there are either organelles or debris to separate.
3. The typical order for the major steps of enzyme isolation would be (from first to last):
a. Homogenization, salt fractionation, electrophoresis, column chromatography.
b. Homogenization, column chromatography, salt fractionation, electrophoresis.
c. Homogenization, salt fractionation, column chromatography, electrophoresis.
d. Salt fractionation, homogenization, electrophoresis, column chromatography.
e. Homogenization, electrophoresis, salt fractionation, column chromatography.
4. The purity of an enzyme at various stages of purification is best measured by

a. total protein.
b. total enzyme activity.
c. specific activity of the enzyme.
d. percent recovery of the protein.
e. percent recovery of the enzyme.
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Extracting Pure Proteins from Cells
5. Salting out with ammonium sulfate is based upon proteins interacting with other proteins via
a. hydrogen bonds.
b. ionic bonds.
c. hydrophobic interactions.
d. disulfide bonds.
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Extracting Pure Proteins from Cells
6. Using differential centrifugation it is possible to separate

a. nuclei, mitochondria, and ribosomes into three separate fractions
b. organelles from contaminating salts
c. proteins that differ in charge
d. proteins from membranes
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Extracting Pure Proteins from Cells
7. The following methods are useful for cell homogenization:

a. Sonication.
b. Freezing and thawing.
c. Detergents.
d. Enzymes.
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Extracting Pure Proteins from Cells
8. Which of the following happens as a protein is purified?

a. the percent recovery and the fold purification both increase
b. the percent recovery and the fold purification both decrease
c. the percent recovery increases and the fold purification decreases
d. the percent recovery decreases and the fold purification increases
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Extracting Pure Proteins from Cells
9. Ammonium sulfate is useful in protein purification because

a. it contains nitrogen and sulfur, both of which occur in proteins
b. it is sparingly soluble in water, causing proteins to co-precipitate with it
c. very pure proteins are obtained when it is used
d. it forms ion-dipole interactions with water, making proteins less soluble and more likely to
precipitate
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Extracting Pure Proteins from Cells
10. The typical order of differential centrifugation for organelles is (from slowest speed/lowest g to fastest
speed/highest g):
a. nuclei, microsomes, mitochondria & chloroplasts, cytosol, whole cells
b. whole cells, nuclei, mitochondria & chloroplasts, microsomes, cytosol
c. cytosol, microsomes, nuclei, mitochondria & chloroplasts, whole cells
d. nuclei, mitochondria & chloroplasts, whole cells, cytosol, microsomes
e. whole cells, cytosol, microsomes, nuclei, mitochondria & chloroplasts
11. Which of the following are principles on which to base column chromatography?
a. Molecular size
b. Isoionic pH or pI
c. Ion exchange
d. Both molecular size and ion exchange
e. All of these
TOP: Column Chromatography
12. Which separates on the basis of molecular weight?

a. Gel filtration
b. Affinity chromatography
c. Cation exchange
d. Anion exchange
e. Cation or anion exchange
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Column Chromatography
13. Which separates based on the ionic charge on a protein?

a. Gel filtration
c. Cation exchange
d. Anion exchange
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Column Chromatography
14. Which type of column is most affected by the shape of the protein, for example, comparing spherical
and cigar-shaped proteins?
a. Gel filtration
c. Cation exchange
d. Anion exchange
15. Which would be best to separate a protein that binds strongly to its substrate?
a. Gel filtration
c. Cation exchange
d. Anion exchange
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Column Chromatography
16. Elution of proteins by means of a pH gradient would work best with this type of column:
a. Gel filtration
c. Cation exchange
d. Anion exchange
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Column Chromatography
17. Which would be best to separate positively charged proteins?

a. Gel filtration
c. Cation exchange
d. Anion exchange
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Column Chromatography
18. Which would be best to separate proteins of similar size?

a. Gel filtration
c. Cation exchange
d. Anion exchange
19. In affinity chromatography, a protein

a. which binds to the ligand will remain on the column.
b. which binds to the ligand will elute from the column.
c. which is hydrophobic will remain on the column.
d. which is hydrophilic will remain on the column.
20. In gel filtration chromatography

a. materials are separated based on their size, the smaller ones eluting first.
b. materials are separated based on their size, the larger ones eluting first.
c. materials are separated based on their hydrophobic nature, the more hydrophobic ones
eluting first.
d. materials are separated based on their hydrophobic nature, the less hydrophobic ones
eluting first.
21. The order of elution of AAs H, E, & K from a cation exchange column by a pH 6 buffer is
a. H E K
b. E H K
c. K H E
d. E K H
22. In any form of chromatography, how will a compound which interacts more strongly with the
stationary phase elute compared to one that interacts less strongly?
a. A compound interacting more strongly will elute earlier than one with weaker interactions.
b. A compound interacting more strongly will elute later than one with weaker interactions.
c. The order of elution has nothing to do with interactions with the stationary phase, but with
interactions with the mobile phase.
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Column Chromatography
23. A chromatography technique where a solution of nonpolar compounds is put through a column that
has a nonpolar liquid immobilized on an inert matrix is which type of chromatography?
a. Gel filtration
b. Ion exchange
c. Affinity
d. HPLC
e. Reverse Phase HPLC
ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Column Chromatography
24. In a sample consisting of lysine, leucine, and glutamic acid, which will be eluted last from an anion
exchange resin at pH 7?
a. all three will be eluted at the same time
b. lysine
c. leucine
d. glutamic acid
25. In chromatography the experimental setup always requires

a. a stationary phase and a mobile phase
b. a spectrophotometric detecting device
c. a sample in which components differ in charge
d. a sample in which components differ in polarity
26. A separation of a mixture of cations of different charge requires

a. another cationic substance
b. an anionic substance
c. an electrically neutral, but highly polar, substance
d. an electrically neutral, nonpolar substance
27. Which of the following is not an example of column chromatography?

a. ammonium sulfate fractionation
b. ion-exchange separation
c. HPLC
d. affinity separation
28. In affinity chromatography

a. there is nonspecific binding of proteins to column material
b. only minor purifications can be obtained
c. the mobile phase is always pure water
d. the ligand is alwayse specific for one type of protein to be bound
e. there can be molecule specific ligands or group specific ligands
29. The degree of separation in molecular sieve chromatography depends on

a. the polarity of the mobile phase
b. the pKa of the buffer material in the mobile phase
c. the chemical nature of the sieve material
d. the size of the pores in the sieve material
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Column Chromatography
30. In all forms of chromatography one way of identifying eluted substances is by

a. fluorescence spectroscopy
b. comparison with standards
c. radioactive labeling
d. treating fractions with a reagent that will cause a color change
31. Which substance would you expect to be eluted first from a molecular sieve column with a suitable
degree of crosslinking?
a. hemoglobin
b. myoglobin
c. 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
d. all would elute at the same rate
32. In the SDS-PAGE (sodium dodecylsulfate - polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis) method, separation
takes place on the basis of
a. charge only, because all particles have different charges, but the same mass.
b. the sieving action of the gel, because all particles have the same charge, but different
masses.
c. the sieving action of the gel, because all particles have approximately the same
charge/mass ratio, but different masses.
d. the chemical nature of the buffer used as the electrolyte.
TOP: Electrophoresis
33. How many bands would be produced when hemoglobin is subjected to SDS-PAGE?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 2, but only if the size of the pores in the gel would allow two proteins of slightly different
size to be separated
ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Modified in 7e
34. The following are all principles on which to base electrophoresis except:
a. Molecular size
b. Isoionic pH or pI
c. Net charge
d. Binding to a substrate
e. Shape
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Electrophoresis
35. Two-dimensional electrophoresis usually exploits these 2 different properties of proteins:

a. Molecular weight and shape
b. Molecular weight and net charge
c. Molecular weight and isoionic pH
d. Isoionic pH and shape
e. Isoionic pH and net charge
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Electrophoresis
Exhibit 5A
The following diagram shows the anode, cathode, and pH gradient of an isoelectric focusing bed:
anode+ –cathode
pH 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
NARREND
36. Refer to Exhibit 5A. If the amino acid glycine were placed in the bed where the pH is 7, and the
current were turned on, it would migrate closest to which of the following positions?
a. pH 4
b. pH 6
c. pH 8
d. pH 10
37. Refer to Exhibit 5A. If the amino acid glycine were placed in the bed where the pH is 11, and the
current were turned on, it would migrate closest to which of the following positions?
a. pH 4
b. pH 6
c. pH 8
d. pH 10
38. Refer to Exhibit 5A. A mixture of asp, asn, and arg is placed in the bed where the pH is 7, and the
current is turned on. From left to right, which best represents the final positions of the individual
amino acids?
a. asp asn arg
b. arg asn asp
c. asn asp arg
d. arg asp asn
39. When electrophoretic separations are done based on molecular weight, the distance that a molecule
moves can be graphed as a straight line when compared to:
a. the MW of the proteins
b. the negative of the MW of the proteins
c. the log of the MW of the proteins
d. none of these
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Electrophoresis
40. In electrophoresis experiments

a. the separation must be carried out in bright light
b. the polarity of substances to be separated is more important than their charge or size
c. the sample can be badly degraded as a result of the separation
d. an electric field must be applied to the mixture to be separated
41. In isoelectric focusing gel electrophoresis

a. particular care must be taken to ensure the same pH along the length of the gel
b. there is a pH gradient that parallels the electric field gradient
c. the electric current is allowed to fluctuate
d. the electric circuits of the apparatus must be very well insulated
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Electrophoresis
42. The isoelectric point is
a. the pH at which a substance has no net charge
b. the pH at which a substance has a net positive charge
c. the pH at which a substance has a net negative charge
d. the pH at which a substance has no charge groups of any kind
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Electrophoresis
43. Two dimensional separation methods

a. lead to unreliable results
b. are not widely used because of their complexity
c. do not improve separation
d. consist of two separation methods applied in sequence
44. Important steps in sequencing pure proteins include all of these except:
a. Determining the amino acid composition
b. Determining the isoionic pH of the protein
c. Breaking the protein into smaller peptides
d. Determining the amino acids on the ends of the protein
e. Determining the amino acids on the ends of the smaller peptides
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Primary Structure Determination
45. If a protein with the sequence FEWPRQVDMARINE is treated with chymotrypsin, what will the
products be?
a. F EW PRQVMARINE
b. FE WPRQVD MARINE
c. FEWPR QVDMAR INE
d. FEWPRQVDM ARINE
TOP: Primary Structure Determination
46. Which of the following treatments results in a polypeptide fragment with a homoserine lactone at the
C-terminal end?
a. trypsin
b. chymotrypsin
c. cyanogen bromide
d. Edman method
47. If a protein with the sequence PQRKYPIG is treated with trypsin, what will the products be?
a. PQR KYPIG
b. PQRK YPIG
c. PQR K YPIG
d. PQ R KPIG0
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Primary Structure Determination
48. Cyanogen bromide (CNBr) cleaves proteins

a. after positively charged residues, such as K & R.
b. after negatively charged residues, such as D & E.
c. after aromatic residues, such as Y & W.
d. after methionine residues.
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Primary Structure Determination
49. It is impossible to sequence a protein if you do not have overlapping sequences to work with.
a. True
b. False
50. The most efficient method for determining the sequence of a short peptide is:
a. Edman degradation
b. Trypsin digestion
c. Chymotrypsin digestion
d. Cyanogen bromide digestion
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Modified in 7e
51. Methods for breaking proteins into smaller peptides include all of the following except:
a. Digestion with chymotrypsin
b. Cyanogen Bromide treatment
c. Digestion with Trypsin
d. Edmann degradation
e. All of the above create short peptides suitable for sequencing
52. When end-group analysis was done on the protein insulin, the results indicated that both glycine and
phenylalanine were N-terminal amino acids and both asparagine and alanine were C-terminal amino
acids. These results indicate that
a. the experiment was done incorrectly
b. no conclusions can be drawn
c. there were impurities in the sample
d. insulin consists of two polypeptide chains
53. Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption Ionization is a type of technique.

a. electrophoresis
b. ion exchange chromatography
c. affinity chromatography
d. mass spectrometry
54. An amino acid analyzer is an instrument used to determine

a. the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain
b. the identity of N-terminal and C-terminal amino acids in a protein
c. the presence of modified amino acids in a protein
d. the identities and relative amounts of amino acids in a protein
55. Generally speaking, sequence techniques have become so sensitive that if you are able to isolate the
protein on a gel, there is enough of it to get a significant amount of its sequence.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Primary Structure Determination
56. Determination of the sequence of amino acids in a peptide is done by

a. x-ray crystallography
b. Edman degradation
c. treatment with cyanogen bromide
d. trypsin hydrolysis
57. It is frequently possible to bypass the determination of the identity of the N-terminal amino acid of a
protein because
a. this information is already available from the amino acid analysis
b. the Edman method sequences the peptide from the N-terminal end
c. N-terminal amino acids are always chemically modified
d. this information is not needed
58. Which of the following is not used in protein structure determination?

a. digestion with proteolytic enzymes
b. the Edman method
c. treatment with cyanogen bromide
d. treatment with alkyl halides
Chapter 6—The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. How much faster is a reaction with the fastest enzyme than without a catalyst?
a. About 10 times faster.
b. About 100 times faster.
c. About 1,000 times faster.
d. About 10,000 times faster.
e. About 1020 times faster.
TOP: Enzymes Are Effective Biological Catalysts
2. As catalysts, enzymes are

a. significantly less effective than nonenzymatic catalysts
b. slightly less effective than nonenzymatic catalysts
c. significantly more effective than nonenzymatic catalysts
d. slightly more effective than nonenzymatic catalysts
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Enzymes Are Effective Biological Catalysts
3. The rate of a reaction depends on

a. the free energy change
b. the activation energy
c. the enthalpy change
d. the entropy change
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Kinetics Versus Thermodynamics
4. Enzymatic activity has an optimum temperature because

a. the component amino acids have varying melting points
b. the rate of reactions is thermodynamically controlled
c. the side chains of essential residues are chemically degraded at higher temperatures
d. raising the temperature speeds up the reaction until protein denaturation sets in
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Kinetics Versus Thermodynamics
5. The main difference between a catalyzed and an uncatalyzed reaction is that

a. the activation energy of the catalyzed reaction is lower.
b. the catalyzed reaction has a more favorable free energy change.
c. the catalyzed reaction has a more favorable enthalpy change.
d. the catalyzed reaction has a more favorable entropy change.
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Kinetics Versus Thermodynamics

a. In thermodynamics, spontaneous does not mean instantaneous or even fast.
b. If a reaction is spontaneous then it has a negative ∆G.
c. Speed of a reaction is a kinetic parameter, not a thermodynamic one.
d. A reaction with a positive ∆G0 can never happen
TOP: Kinetics Versus Thermodynamics
7. What effect does a catalyst have on the ∆G° of a reaction?
a. A catalyst lowers the ∆G°.
b. A catalyst raises the ∆G°.
c. A catalyst has no effect on the ∆G°.
d. It depend on the specific catalyst.
8. Which of the following is most directly related to the speed of a reaction?

a. The temperature
b. The ∆G0 of the reaction
c. The ∆G of the reaction
d. The ∆G0‡ of the reaction
e. None of these is correct.
9. A rate constant is
a. the rate of a reaction at standard temperature and pressure.
b. the rate of a reaction at equilibrium.
c. a proportionality constant relating the rate of a reaction to the concentration(s) of the
reactant(s).
d. a kind of transition state.
10. The rate of a reaction is always dependent on the concentration(s) of the reactant(s).
a. True
b. False
11. All catalysts work by lowering the activation energy for a reaction.
a. True
b. False
12. The amount of energy released during a reaction tells nothing about the rate at which that reaction will
occur.
a. True
b. False
13. Thermodynamically favorable reactions all release energy.

a. True
b. False
14. The sign of Gibb's Free Energy is positive ("+") when energy is released.
a. True
b. False
15. The order of a reaction can be determined from the balanced equation for the reaction.
a. True
b. False
16. The kinetic order of a reaction

a. can be determined by inspection from the coefficients of the balanced equation
b. must be determined experimentally
c. always depends on the concentration of enzyme
d. never depends on concentrations of reactants
17. Given the rate law, rate = k[A][B], the overall reaction order is
a. zero
b. one
c. two
d. cannot be determined
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Kinetics Versus Thermodynamics
18. First order kinetics means:

a. The rate of a reaction is independent of the amount of reactant measured.
b. The rate of the reaction varies directly with the amount of reactant measured.
c. The rate of the reaction varies with the square of the amount of the reactant measured.
d. More information is needed to answer this question.
e. None of these is correct.
19. The active site of an enzyme

a. is frequently located in a cleft in the enzyme.
b. is the portion of the enzyme to which the substrate binds.
c. contains the reactive groups that catalyze the reaction.
d. all of these
TOP: Enzyme-Substrate Binding
20. A transition state analogue

a. binds tightly to the enzyme
b. enhances the activity of the enzyme when bound to it
c. forms a complex with the enzyme that is energetically stable compared to the
enzyme-substrate complex
d. will bind to the enzyme by the lock-and-key mechanism rather than the induced-fit
mechanism
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Enzyme-Substrate Binding
21. The substrate will only bind to the enzyme when the shapes fit together rigidly.
a. True
b. False
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Enzyme-Substrate Binding
22. In the induced-fit model of substrate binding to enzymes

a. the substrate changes its conformation to fit the active site
b. the active site changes its conformation to fit the substrate
c. there is a conformational change in the enzyme when the substrate binds
d. there is aggregation of several enzyme molecules when the substrate binds
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Enzyme-Substrate Binding
23. The E-S complex often shows as a slight depression in the energy profile for the reaction.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Enzyme-Substrate Binding
24. The active site of an enzyme is the place where the following happens:
a. The enzyme substrate complex forms here.
b. The catalytic reaction happens here.
c. Allosteric regulation of enzyme rate occurs here.
d. The enzyme-substrate complex forms and the reaction occurs at the active site.
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Enzyme-Substrate Binding
25. Which of the following is implied by induced fit between the enzyme's active site and the substrate?
a. The enzyme is a flexible molecule.
b. An enzyme will work equally well with different substrates.
c. An active site can bind to different substrates.
d. The enzyme is a flexible molecule so different substrates can bind.
e. All of these
TOP: Enzyme-Substrate Binding

a. The E-S complex often dissociates with no reaction taking place.
b. The E-S complex must form before a reaction can take place
c. Once the E-S complex forms, it can go on to form product or dissociate to E + S
d. All of these
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Enzyme-Substrate Binding
27. Which of the following is true about the enzyme chymotrypsin?

a. The enzyme can cleave peptides.
b. The enzyme can cleave esters.
c. The enzyme only binds to aromatic substrates.
d. The enzyme can cleave substrates which are not naturally occurring.
e. All of these are true.
TOP: Examples of Enzyme-Catalyzed Reactions
28. The reaction catalyzed by aspartate transcarbamoylase is
a. the first step in the synthesis of amino acids.
b. the first step in the synthesis of fatty acids.
c. the first step in the synthesis of CTP and UTP.
d. is part of glycolysis.
29. In the reaction catalyzed by chymotrypsin, a graph in which the rate is plotted against the
concentration of substrate
a. is sigmoidal, characteristic of an allosteric enzyme
b. shows that cooperative kinetics are observed
c. shows that the reaction is zero order
d. is hyperbolic, characteristic of a nonallosteric enzyme
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Examples of Enzyme-Catalyzed Reactions
30. In the reaction catalyzed by aspartate transcarbamoylase, a graph in which the rate is plotted against
the concentration of substrate
a. is sigmoidal, characteristic of an allosteric enzyme
b. shows that noncooperative kinetics are observed
c. shows that the reaction is zero order
d. is hyperbolic, characteristic of a nonallosteric enzyme
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Examples of Enzyme-Catalyzed Reactions
31. Which of the following describes the unique importance of protein Kinase Mζ (PKMζ)?
a. It is a protein kinase
b. It uses ATP to phosphorylate a substrate
c. It is an allosteric enzyme
d. It has been implicated in the formation of long-term memories
32. The Michaelis-Menten approach to describing the kinetics of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction makes
which of the following assumptions about the conversion of product into substrate?
a. The product binds reversibly to the enzyme in order to be converted into the substrate.
b. The product is not converted to substrate to any appreciable extent.
c. The product is converted to substrate following simple first order kinetics.
d. The product is converted to substrate following simple second order kinetics.
TOP: Michaelis-Menten Approach
33. The initial rate of an enzymatic reaction is usually determined in order to assure that
a. the enzyme is active
b. there is no reverse reaction of product to the enzyme-substrate complex
c. the substrate is not used up
d. the experiment can be completed quickly
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Michaelis-Menten Approach
34. According to the steady-state assumption

a. the product concentration does not change significantly
b. the substrate concentration is large and does not change significantly
c. the concentration of enzyme-substrate complex remains constant with time
d. the free enzyme concentration is always in great excess to the concentration of
enzyme-substrate complex
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Michaelis-Menten Approach
35. Most enzyme reactions display first order kinetics for the individual substrates when the substrate
concentration is low.
a. True
b. False
36. When the substrate concentration is low, an enzyme reaction

a. will display zero-order kinetics.
b. will display first-order kinetics.
c. will display second-order kinetics.
d. will denature and cease to function.
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Michaelis-Menten Approach
37. When an enzyme is saturated with substrates,

a. it will display zero-order kinetics.
b. it will display first-order kinetics.
c. it will display second-order kinetics.
d. it will denature and cease to function.
38. The Michaelis constant is

a. related to the molecular weight of the enzyme
b. a measure of the resistance of the enzyme to denaturation
c. a reflection of the percentage of polar amino acids in the enzyme
d. a measure of how tightly the substrate is bound to the enzyme
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Michaelis-Menten Approach
39. The KM expression is equal to

a. (k1 + k2) / k–1
b. (k–1 + k2) / k1
c. (k1 + k–1) / k2
d. k–1 / k1
40. Which of the following are related for a given enzyme?

a. Vmax, KM, and percentage of α-helix
b. Vmax, kcat, and percentage of p-sheet
c. Vmax, kcat, and turnover number
d. Vmax, KM, and molecular weight
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Michaelis-Menten Approach
41. The Michaelis constant is
a. the rate constant for the formation of the substrate-enzyme (E-S) complex.
b. the rate constant for the breakdown of the substrate-enzyme (E-S) complex to form free
enzyme and substrate.
c. the rate constant for the breakdown of the substrate-enzyme (E-S) complex to form free
enzyme and product.
d. a compilation of several rate constants for the reaction.
42. The drug acetazolamide:

a. Is used to help fight altitude sickness
b. Was found to ruin the taste of carbonated beverages
c. Does not affect the taste of non-carbonated liquors
d. Causes its effect on taste by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase 4
e. All of these
ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Michaelis-Menten Approach
43. The substrate-enzyme (E-S) complex

a. always proceeds to form the products rapidly.
b. always breaks down to form free enzyme and substrate.
c. always breaks down to form free enzyme and product.
d. may break down to form free enzyme and substrate, or free enzyme and product.
44. A Lineweaver-Burk plot is useful in the analysis of enzymatic reactions because

a. it is easier to see whether points deviate from a straight line than from a curve
b. it is not affected by the presence of inhibitors
c. it can be used whether or not the enzyme displays Michaelis-Menten kinetics
d. all of the above
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Michaelis-Menten Approach
45. The steady state of an enzyme reaction is the following:

a. The rate observed just after mixing the enzyme and substrate.
b. The rate observed and Vmax.
c. The rate of product formation.
d. The state which exists when E-S complex is forming as fast as it is breaking down.
e. The state which exists when substrate concentration equals KM.
46. If the y-intercept of a Lineweaver-Burk plot = 1.91 (sec/millimole) and the slope = 75.3 L/sec, Vmax
equals:
a. 0.0254 millimoles per second.
b. 0.523 millimoles per second.
c. 5.23 millimoles per second.
d. 39.4 millimoles per second.
e. 75.3 millimoles per second.
47. If the y-intercept of a Lineweaver-Burk plot = 1.91 (sec/millimole) and the slope = 75.3 L/sec, KM
equals:
a. 0.0254 millimolar (mM).
b. 0.523 millimolar (mM).
c. 5.23 millimolar (mM).
d. 39.4 millimolar (mM).
e. 75.3 millimolar (mM).
48. The Michaelis constant determines the Vmax of an enzymatic reaction.

a. True
b. False
49. It is important that at physiological conditions, enzymes work at Vmax.

a. True
b. False
Exhibit 6A
This is a reaction going on in your muscle cells right this very minute:
The enzyme triose phosphate isomerase catalyzes this reaction in the forward direction as part of the
glycolytic pathway. It follows simple Michaelis-Menten kinetics:
Typical cellular concentrations: triose phosphate isomerase = 0.1 nM

dihydroxyacetone phosphate = 5 µM glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate = 2 µM
NARREND
50. Refer to Exhibit 6A. What is the equilibrium constant for the uncatalyzed reaction?
a. 0.9
b. 1.1
c. 2.5
d. Cannot be determined from the information provided.
51. Refer to Exhibit 6A. What is the KM of the enzyme?

a. 10 nM
b. 0.1 µM
c. 1 µM
d. 10 µM
52. Refer to Exhibit 6A. What is the Vmax of the enzyme?

a. 90 nM/s
b. 4500 µM/s
c. 200 µM/s
d. 0.5 M/s
53. Refer to Exhibit 6A. What is the actual velocity of the forward reaction under physiologic conditions?
a. 2 nM/s
b. 45 nM/s
c. 500 nM/s
d. 30 nM/s
54. Refer to Exhibit 6A. What is the equilibrium constant for the enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
a. 0.9
b. 1.1
c. 2.5
d. Cannot be determined from the information provided.
55. Refer to Exhibit 6A. "Restrainin" is an inhibitor of triose phosphate isomerase. When it is added to
cells at a concentration of 0.4 nM, the enzyme's apparent KM for the substrate is altered to 100 µM, but
the Vmax is unchanged.
a. This is a competitive inhibitor.
b. This is an uncompetitive inhibitor.
c. This is a noncompetitive inhibitor.
d. This is an irreversible inhibitor.
TOP: Enzyme Inhibition
56. Refer to Exhibit 6A. "Restrainin" is an inhibitor of triose phosphate isomerase. When it is added to
cells at a concentration of 0.4 nM, the enzyme's apparent KM for the substrate is altered to 100 µM, but
the Vmax is unchanged.
In the following graph, which line best represents the Lineweaver-Burk plot obtained in the presence
of restrainin?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
57. Refer to Exhibit 6A. "Hindrate" is an inhibitor of triose phosphate isomerase. When it is added to
cells at a concentration of 0.1 nM, the enzyme's KM for the substrate is unchanged, but the apparent
Vmax is altered to 50 nM/sec.
a. This is a competitive inhibitor.
b. This is an uncompetitive inhibitor.
c. This is a noncompetitive inhibitor.
d. This is an irreversible inhibitor.
58. Refer to Exhibit 6A. "Hindrate" is an inhibitor of triose phosphate isomerase. When it is added to
cells at a concentration of 0.1 nM, the enzyme's KM for the substrate is unchanged, but the apparent
Vmax is altered to 50 nM/sec.
In the following graph, which line best represents the Lineweaver-Burk plot obtained in the presence
of hindrate?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
59. Which of the following statements regarding the Michaelis constant is false?
a. It is similar to the affinity constant between the enzyme and substrate.
b. The dimension for the Michaelis constant is concentration, such as molarity.
c. The Michaelis constant determines the Vmax.
d. It is the substrate concentration necessary to reach 1/2 Vmax.
60. To study the nature of an enzyme, Vmax is not as good a measurement as the catalytic rate constant k cat
because:
a. The Vmax is not a true constant since it depends on the concentration of enzyme
b. The Vmax cannot be measured
c. The Vmax is only valid for allosteric enzymes
d. none of these
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Michaelis-Menten Approach
61. The KM of hexokinase for glucose = 0.15 mM and for fructose, KM = 1.5 mM. Which is the preferred
substrate?
a. Glucose.
b. Fructose.
c. Neither substrate is preferred over the other.
d. You cannot tell from the data given.
e. None of these answers is correct.
62. Competitive inhibitors have this effect:

a. Modifying the KM value.
b. Changing the value for Vmax.
c. Interfering with substrate binding.
d. This type of inhibitor both changes the KM and interferes with substrate binding.
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Enzyme Inhibition
63. Which of the following inhibitors binds to the enzyme at a site other than the active site?
a. competitive inhibitor
b. noncompetitive inhibitor
c. irreversible inhibitor
d. all of these
e. none of these
64. Inhibitors can have the following effects on enzyme kinetics:

d. An inhibitor can change the KM and interfere with substrate binding.
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Enzyme Inhibition
65. The value of Vmax changes in

a. competitive inhibition
b. noncompetitive inhibition
c. both forms of inhibition
d. neither form of inhibition
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Enzyme Inhibition
66. The fundamental difference between competitive and noncompetitive inhibition is

a. the degree of cooperativity of the reaction
b. the size of the active site of the enzyme
c. the manner of binding of substrate to the enzyme
d. the manner of binding of inhibitor to the enzyme
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Enzyme Inhibition
67. Which of the following is more likely to inhibit regulatory subunits of an allosteric enzyme?
a. A competitive inhibitor
b. A non-competitive inhibitor
c. An irreversible inhibitor
d. All of these are equally likely to inhibit a regulatory subunit
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Enzyme Inhibition
68. For competitive inhibition

a. the value of KM decreases
b. the value of Vmax decreases
c. it is possible to overcome the effect of the inhibitor by increasing the concentration of
substrate
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Enzyme Inhibition
69. Irreversible inhibitors of enzymatic reactions

a. bind to the enzyme only at low temperatures.
b. affect only serine side chains.
c. react with the enzyme to produce a protein that is not enzymatically active and from which
the original enzyme cannot be regenerated.
d. are bound to the enzyme by the lock-and-key mechanism.
70. A noncompetitive inhibitor

a. binds to the enzyme at a site other than the active site
b. is structurally related to the substrate
c. does not affect the value of Vmax
d. decreases the value of KM
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Enzyme Inhibition
71. What effect is seen on a Lineweaver-Burk graph when a competitive inhibitor is added?
a. The y-intercept is changed, but not change the slope of the line.
b. The slope of the line is changed, but not the y-intercept.
c. Both the y-intercept and the slope of the line are changed.
d. Neither the y-intercept not the slope of the line is changed.
72. What effect is seen on a Lineweaver-Burk graph when a mixed-type inhibitor is added?
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Enzyme Inhibition
73. Generally speaking, a competitive inhibitor and the substrate cannot both bind to the enzyme at the
same time.
a. True
b. False
74. What effect is seen on a Lineweaver-Burk graph when a non-competitive inhibitor is added?
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Enzyme Inhibition
75. Non-competitive inhibitors have this effect:

d. This type of inhibitor both changes the Vmax and interferes with substrate binding.
76. If an inhibitor changes the slope of the Lineweaver-Burk graph, but not the y-intercept, it is this type
of inhibition:
a. Competitive.
b. Non-competitive.
c. Mixed Inhibition (uncompetitive inhibition).
e. More than one answer is correct.
77. If an inhibitor changes the slope of the Lineweaver-Burk graph, but not the x-intercept, it is this type
of inhibition:
a. Competitive.
b. Non-competitive.
c. Mixed Inhibition (uncompetitive inhibition).
e. More than one answer is correct.
78. Which of the following diseases has not been successfully treated using the principles of enzyme
inhibition?
a. AIDS.
b. Lactose intolerance
c. Virus infection
d. Neither AIDS nor virus infection.
e. All of these have been successfully treated using enzyme inhibitors.
Chapter 16—Carbohydrates
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following monosaccharides is a ketose?

a. glucose
b. fructose
c. galactose
d. mannose
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Monosaccharide Structures
2. Haworth projection formulas

a. are representations of the cyclic form of sugars
b. can show the distinction between the  and  anomers
d. neither of the above
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Monosaccharide Structures
3. Which of the following is not a function of carbohydrates?

a. They are major energy sources.
b. They play key roles in processes that take place on the surface of cells.
c. They are used in structural roles.
d. They are catalytic components of enzymes.
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Monosaccharide Structures
4. How many carbon atoms are in the simplest carbohydrates?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
TOP: Monosaccharide Structures
5. The simplest ketotriose is

a. glyceraldehyde.
b. dihydroxyacetone.
c. ribose.
d. glucose.
e. sucrose.
6. Mirror image stereoisomers are called

a. anomers.
b. diastereoisomers.
c. enantiomers.
d. epimers.
7. The simplest aldotriose is:

a. acetone
b. dihydroxyacetone
c. glyceraldehyde
d. threose
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Monosaccharide Structures
8. In a Fischer projection, which chiral carbon determines whether the sugar is the D- or the L-isomer?
a. highest numbered carbon atom
b. lowest numbered asymmetric carbon atom
c. lowest numbered carbon atom
d. highest numbered asymmetric carbon atom

Exhibit 16B
A carbohydrate Fischer projection.
NARREND
9. Refer to Exhibit 16B. The carbohydrate shown is

a. a monosaccharide
b. a ketose.
c. a hexose.
d. all of these
e. none of these
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Monosaccharide Structures
10. Refer to Exhibit 16B. The carbohydrate shown is

a. the D isomer.
b. the L isomer.
c. both D and L.
d. neither D nor L.
e. It's impossible to tell from a picture which isomer this is.
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Monosaccharide Structures
11. Refer to Exhibit 16B. Which of the following figures represents the Haworth projection of the
carbohydrate shown?
a. c.
b. d.

12. For the  anomer of a D-sugar, the anomeric hydroxyl in a Haworth projection
a. has an upward projection (on the same side as the terminal CH2OH group).
b. has a downward projection (on the opposite side from the terminal CH2OH group).
c. may be either up or down, it depends on the individual sugar.
d. is non-existent; anomers are a consideration only in Fischer projections.
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Monosaccharide Structures
13. Diastereomers are

a. mirror-image, nonsuperimposable stereoisomers.
b. non-mirror-image, nonsuperimposable stereoisomers.
c. stereoisomers with one or more double bonds.
14. Epimers are

a. stereoisomers that differ from each other in their configuration at two or more carbon
atoms.
b. stereoisomers that differ from each other in their configuration at a single carbon atom.
c. the  and  forms of cyclic sugars.
d. two related compounds, pyran and furan.
15. See figure 16.4 in the textbook. D-erythrose is to D-ribose as D-ribose is to:
a. D-allose
b. D-altrose
c. D-glucose
d. D-galactose
16. How many enantiomeric pairs are possible for a aldohexose?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
17. Sugars which differ in chirality only around one carbon are most specifically called
a. anomers.
c. enantiomers.
d. epimers.
e. none of these
18. Aldoses can form which type of cyclic structure?

a. Hemiacetal
b. Hemiketal
c. Both hemiacetal and hemiketal
d. Neither hemiacetal and hemiketal
19. The cyclic form of sugars

a. has one more chiral center (the anomeric carbon) than the open-chain form.
b. loses a chiral center compared to the open-chain form.
c. is not usually found in nature.
d. has one more carbon atom than the open-chain form.
e. has one less carbon atom than the open-chain form.

Exhibit 16A
NARREND
20. Refer to Exhibit 16A. The enantiomer of D-glucose is:

a. D-Fructose
b. D-Glucose
c. L-Glucose
d. L-Idose
e. D-Galactose
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Monosaccharide Structures
21. Refer to Exhibit 16A. Epimers of D-Glucose include:

a. D-Fructose and L-Glucose
b. D-Glucose and L-Glucose
c. L-Glucose and L-Idose
d. L-Idose and D-Galactose
e. L-Glucose and D-Galactose
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Monosaccharide Structures
22. Refer to Exhibit 16A. Diastereoisomers of D-Glucose include all of these, except:
a. D-Fructose
b. L-Glucose
c. L-Idose
d. D-Galactose
e. All of these are diastereoisomers of D-Glucose.
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Monosaccharide Structures
23. Isomers of sugars in which the position of ketone and aldehyde groups have been changed are called
a. anomers.
c. enantiomers.
d. epimers.
e. none of these
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Monosaccharide Structures
24. Which carbon of the open-chain form of a sugar becomes the anomeric carbon in the cyclic form?
a. the carbonyl carbon
b. the highest numbered chiral center
c. the highest numbered carbon
d. It depends on the individual sugar.
25. The  and  forms of the same sugar are called

a. anomers.
c. enantiomers.
d. epimers.
e. none of these
26. A pyranose is a sugar that

a. contains a five-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure.
b. contains a six-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure.
c. is a five-carbon open-chain sugar.
d. is a six-carbon open-chain sugar.
27. A furanose is a sugar that

a. contains a five-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure.
b. contains a six-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure.
c. is a five-carbon open-chain sugar.
d. is a six-carbon open-chain sugar.
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Monosaccharide Structures
28. For a D-sugar, any group that is written to the right of the carbon in a Fischer projection
a. has an upward projection in a Haworth projection.
b. has a downward projection in a Haworth projection.
c. may be either up or down in a Haworth projection, it depends on the individual sugar.
d. is missing from a Haworth projection.
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Monosaccharide Structures
29. Which of the following groups is produced when an aldehyde is oxidized?

a. ketone
b. carboxyl
c. alcohol
d. ether
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Monosaccharide Chemistry
30. A lactone is a cyclic

a. ether.
b. ester.
c. ketone.
d. alcohol.
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Monosaccharide Chemistry
31. Which of the following compounds is produced by oxidation of an aldose in the cyclic form?
a. a hemiacetal
b. a hemiketal
c. a lactone
d. an amino sugar
TOP: Monosaccharide Chemistry
32. Two samples containing identical mixtures of sugars are analyzed, one using Tollen's reagent, the
other with glucose oxidase. Which will give a stronger reaction?
a. Tollen's reagent
b. glucose oxidase
c. They will have identical strengths.
d. It's impossible to predict from the information provided.
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Monosaccharide Chemistry
33. The conversion of a sugar's carbonyl to an alcohol is

a. a reduction reaction.
b. an oxidation reaction.
c. a glycosidic reaction.
d. impossible.
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Monosaccharide Chemistry
34. Deoxyribose is best described as a(n):

a. oxidized form of ribose
b. reduced pyranose
c. polyhydroxyl alcohol
d. glycoside
e. reduced form of a pentose
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Monosaccharide Chemistry
35. When monosaccharides are bonded together

a. one H2O molecule is lost for each new link formed.
b. oligosaccharides are formed by combining a few monosaccharides.
c. polysaccharides are formed by combining many monosaccharides.
d. all of these
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Monosaccharide Chemistry
36. Which of the following best describes the glycosidic bond in the disaccharide shown?
a. (14)
b. (14)
c. (24)
d. (24)
a. None of the above.
37. Glycosidic bonds from sugars

a. always link to the other molecule through an oxygen atom.
b. always link to the other molecule through a nitrogen atom.
c. may link to the other molecule through either an oxygen or a nitrogen atom
38. Which of the following statements concerning sugar polymers is false?

a. Branched polymers have one non-reducing end and many reducing ends.
b. Linear polymers are more water-soluble than branched ones.
c. Branched polymers are more water-soluble than linear ones.
d. Sugar polymers may vary both in the composition of the sugar monomers and in the types
of connecting glycosidic bonds.
39. Glycosidic linkages between monosaccharide units may vary based on

a. the anomeric form of the cyclic structure, i.e.,  or .
b. which OH group is involved.
c. both of these
d. none of these
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Monosaccharide Chemistry
40. Which of the following is true concerning the molecule pictured?
a. It would give a positive reaction in a Tollen's silver mirror test

b. It is a reducing sugar
c. It is not a reducing sugar because it is an aldose
d. It is not a reducing sugar because the anomeric hydroxyl is methlyated
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Monosaccharide Chemistry
41. Common table sugar is

a. glucose
b. fructose
c. sucrose
d. maltose
e. lactose
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Important Oligosaccharides
42. Sucrose is composed of the following simple sugars:

a. galactose only
b. glucose only
c. fructose only
d. galactose and glucose
e. glucose and fructose
f. galactose and fructose
TOP: Important Oligosaccharides
43. Maltose is composed of the following simple sugars:

a. galactose only
b. glucose only
c. fructose only
44. The difference between cellobiose and maltose is:

a. one contains glucose and the other fructose
b. they contain different monosaccharides
c. they both contain glucose units but are connected together at different carbons
d. one has an α linkage and the other a β linkage
e. there is no difference between the two
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Important Oligosaccharides
45. Which of the following is not a reducing sugar?

a. glucose
b. fructose
c. sucrose
d. maltose
e. lactose
46. Which of the following artificial sweeteners is a chemical derivative of sucrose?

a. saccharin
b. cyclamates
c. sucralose
d. aspartame
47. Lactose is composed of the following simple sugars:
a. galactose only
b. glucose only
c. fructose only
48. The following sugar is also called milk sugar:

a. Fructose
b. Glucose
c. Lactose
d. Sucrose
e. Maltose
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Important Oligosaccharides
49. The following sugar is also called fruit sugar:

a. Fructose
b. Glucose
c. Lactose
d. Sucrose
e. Maltose
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Important Oligosaccharides
50. The following sugar is also called blood sugar:

a. Fructose
b. Glucose
c. Lactose
d. Sucrose
e. Maltose
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Important Oligosaccharides
51. Which of the following molecules is a disaccharide?

a. glucose
b. lactose
c. fructose
d. galactose
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Important Oligosaccharides
52. Lactose intolerance

a. arises from inability to metabolize the disaccharide lactose
b. depends on a deficiency of sucrose in the diet
c. is based on the composition of lactose, consisting glucose and fructose in glycosidic
linkage
d. arises because lactose is a dimer of galactose
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Important Oligosaccharides
53. Which of the following disaccharides cannot be digested by mammals?

a. cellobiose
b. sucrose
c. maltose
d. lactose
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Important Oligosaccharides
54. Which of the following statements associated with cellulose is false?

a. It's a linear polymer of glucose.
b. The glycosidic linkage is (1  4).
c. Hydrolysis is accomplished enzymatically by cellulase.
d. Most animals can easily digest this compound.
TOP: Polysaccharide Structures and Functions
55. Cellulose is indigestible to most animals because

a. animals do not have the enzymes needed to hydrolyze ester linkages between the
monomer units
b. animals do not have the enzymes needed to hydrolyze the -glycosidic linkages between
the monomer units
c. animals do not have the enzymes needed to hydrolyze the -glycosidic linkages between
the monomer units
d. its molecular weight is too high for it to be degraded by enzymes
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Polysaccharide Structures and Functions
56. Humans are not able to digest cellulose as a food source because:
a. Cellulose is very insoluble.
b. It is more important that the cellulose is used as fiber in our bodies.
c. We lack the enzyme to break the  linkage in the cellulose.
d. Cellulose is insoluble and we lack the enzyme to break the  linkage in the cellulose.
e. All of these are reasons why we cannot digest cellulose.
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Polysaccharide Structures and Functions
57. In bacterial cell walls

a. polysaccharides form nonspecific mixtures with proteins
b. polysaccharides are hydrogen bonded together
c. peptides form crosslinks between polysaccharides
d. oligosaccharides form crosslinks between proteins
58. Which of the following molecules have the highest degree of [16] branching linkages
a. Amylose
b. Amylopectin
c. Starch
d. Glycogen
e. All of these have the same degree of branching
NARRBEGIN: Exhibit 16C

Exhibit 16C
A polysaccharide.
NARREND
59. Refer to Exhibit 16C. Which lettered subunit is the nonreducing end?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. There is more than one nonreducing end on this carbohydrate.
e. There are no nonreducing ends on this carbohydrate.
60. Refer to Exhibit 16C. Which lettered subunit is the reducing end?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. There is more than one nonreducing end on this carbohydrate.
e. There are no nonreducing ends on this carbohydrate.
61. Refer to Exhibit 16C. Which best describes bond #3?

a. [1,3]
b. [1,3]
c. [2,4]
d. [2,4]
e. None of the above is a proper description.
62. Refer to Exhibit 16C. Which best describes the polysaccharide?
a. homopolysaccharide
b. heteropolysaccharide
c. aminopolysaccharide
d. cryptopolysaccharide
63. A major difference between amylose and amylopectin is that

a. amylose is connected by (14) bonds and amylopectin is connected by (14) bonds.
b. amylose is branched and amylopectin is not.
c. amylopectin is branched and amylose is not.
d. each is composed different types of sugar residues.
64. The linkage between the glucose residues in amylopectin and glycogen is:
a. For the main chain  (1  4) and  (1  4) for the branches
b. For the main chain  (1  6) and  (1  4) for the branches
c. For the main chain  (1  4) and  (1  6) for the branches
d. For the main chain  (1  4) and  (1  6) for the branches
e. The linkage between the glucose residues is variable.
65. Glycogen is
a. polysaccharide storage polymer found in plants
b. a linear polysaccharide
c. a highly branched polysaccharide found in animals
d. a synthetic sugar substitute
66. Which of the following has only [14] linkages and no [16] linkages
a. Glycogen
b. Amylose
c. Amylopectin
d. Starch
e. Cellobiose
67. Glycogen has a similar structure to amylopectin, but is less highly branched.
a. True
b. False
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Polysaccharide Structures and Functions
68. Glycogen breakdown proceeds from the nonreducing ends.

a. True
b. False
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Polysaccharide Structures and Functions
69. Glycogen is sometimes called animal starch
a. True
b. False
70. Plant starch includes amylopectin and cellulose

a. True
b. False
71. A bacterial cell wall is composed of:

a. A polysaccharide consisting of a single type of monosaccharide unit and cross-linking
oligopeptides.
b. A polysaccharide consisting of 2 types of monosaccharide units and cross-linking
oligopeptides.
c. A polysaccharide consisting of 3 types of monosaccharide units and cross-linking
oligopeptides.
d. Two different polysaccharides and 1 type of oligopeptide, which are cross-linked.
72. There are two forms of starch:

a. amylose and glycogen, both of which are highly branched polysaccharides
b. glycogen and chitin, both of which are linear polysaccharides
c. amylopectin and glycogen, both of which are linear polysaccharides
d. amylose, which is a linear polysaccharide, and amylopectin, which is highly branched
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Polysaccharide Structures and Functions
73. The blue color in a well-known test for the presence of starches is due to
a. the formation of crosslinks between molecules of starch, caused by the addition of Cu2+
b. the reaction of the silver-ammonia complex ion with the hydroxyl groups of the starch
c. the formation of a complex between iodine and amylose
d. none of these
74. Amino or acid derivatives of sugars are very important in which of the following biological functions?
a. Structural roles
b. Lubricating fluids
c. Cell surface sugars used in cell identity
d. Both structural roles and lubricating fluids.
e. All of the above are functions of amino and acid sugar derivatives.
75. Cell walls

a. occur in plants, animals, and bacteria
b. are found in plants and bacteria, but have different chemical compositions
c. have the same chemical composition in plants and bacteria
d. have the same chemical composition in plants and animals
76. One major difference between bacterial and plant cell walls is that bacterial cell walls have
polysaccharides that are crosslinked by peptides.
a. True
b. False
77. Insoluble fiber in the diet is better at binding toxic substances than soluble fiber.
a. True
b. False
78. The most common biopolymer on earth is this carbohydrate:

a. Glucose
b. Cellulose
c. Starch
d. Chitin
e. None of these carbohydrates is very common.
79. Insoluble fiber in the diet is better at better at providing bulk and stimulating peristaltic action than
soluble fiber.
a. True
b. False
80. Polysaccharides used in cell wall structure contribute rigidity to the wall due to covalent cross-linking
between the fibers.
a. True
b. False
81. Chitin, which forms the exoskeletons of insects, is composed of

a. (14) linked N-acetylglucosamine residues
b. (14) linked N-acetylglucosamine residues
c. (14) linked glucose residues
d. (14) linked glucose residues
82. One advantage of branched sugar polymers is the availability of more ends for chemical reaction.
a. True
b. False
83. Which of the following statements concerning plant cell walls is false?
a. They are composed of a polysaccharide and protein matrix.
b. They contain a lipid bilayer.
c. They are porous to small molecules.
d. They contain large amounts of protein.
84. Blood typing depends on

a. the nature of the oligosaccharide portion of glycoproteins on the surface of red blood cells
b. the presence of a polysaccharide coating on red blood cells
c. the presence of a polysaccharide coating on white blood cells
d. the addition of sucrose to blood before storage
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Glycoproteins
85. Cartilage and mucous are both slippery because:

a. Short polymers comprise these compounds.
b. The charge repulsion between the many acid groups in these polymers.
c. The sticky nature of sugars.
d. Both charge repulsion of acidic groups and the sticky nature of sugars.
e. All of these
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Glycoproteins
86. Glycoproteins
a. are involved in the metabolism of sugars
b. are proteins to which sugars are covalently bonded
c. occur in the bloodstream of diabetics
d. have not been found in nature, but have been synthesized in the laboratory
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Glycoproteins
87. The main difference, on the surface of a red blood cell, between the A-B-O major blood groups
depends on
a. the presence or absence of a certain protein sequence.
b. the presence or absence of a certain sugar.
c. the presence or absence of an acetyl group on a sugar.
d. all of these
TOP: Glycoproteins
88. Which of the following is true about the ABO blood groups?
a. all three of the blood groups have an α-L-fucose group attached
b. type O blood is the universal donor because it has an α-L-fucose group
c. type A blood has a β-N-acetylgalactosamine group
d. type AB blood is the universal donor
Chapter 17—Glycolysis
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Glycolysis
a. does not require O2 to generate energy.
b. requires O2 to generate energy.
c. is inhibited by O2.
d. rate is increased in the presence of O2.
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Overall Pathway
2. The fate of pyruvate produced during glycolysis depends primarily on the availability of
a. NAD+ to keep the pathway going.
b. molecular oxygen.
c. ADP for conversion to ATP.
d. coenzyme A for further metabolism of pyruvate.
e. phosphoric acid for the synthesis of ATP.
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Overall Pathway
3. In aerobic metabolism, what is the fate of pyruvate produced by glycolysis?

a. Pyruvate loses carbon dioxide, and the remaining two carbon atoms become linked to
coenzyme A.
b. Pyruvate loses carbon dioxide, producing acetaldehyde, which, in turn, is reduced to
ethanol.
c. Pyruvate is reduced to lactate.
d. None of these
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Overall Pathway
4. In humans, pyruvate can be converted to

a. acetyl-CoA only.
b. lactate only.
c. ethanol only.
d. acetyl-CoA and lactate.
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Overall Pathway
5. Which of the following is not an end product of glucose metabolism via either aerobic or anaerobic
means?
a. ethanol
b. carbon dioxide
c. lactate
d. fructose
e. all of these are end products of glucose metabolism
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Overall Pathway
6. What is the net ATP yield per glucose during glycolysis?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 6
TOP: Overall Pathway
7. In the conversion of glucose to pyruvate, how many of the actual steps involve electron transfer?
a. none
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Overall Pathway
8. The order of compounds in the conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid is as follows: (PEP =
phosphoenolpyruvate)
a. Fructose-bisphosphate, fructose-6-phosphate, 1,3-phosphoglyceric acid,
3-phosphoglyceric acid, PEP.
b. Fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-bisphosphate, PEP, 1,3-phosphoglyceric acid,
3-phosphoglyceric acid.
c. Fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-bisphosphate, 1,3-phosphoglyceric acid,
3-phosphoglyceric acid, PEP.
d. Fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-bisphosphate, 3-phosphoglyceric acid,
1,3-phosphoglyceric acid, PEP.
e. Fructose-bisphosphate, fructose-6-phosphate, 3-phosphoglyceric acid,
1,3-phosphoglyceric acid, PEP.
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Overall Pathway

a. Corn is the only source of biofuels
b. Biofuels are related to glycolysis because fermentation is an end process of anaerobic
glycolysis
c. Corn, wood, animal dung, and many other products can produce biofuels
d. Many carbohydrate sources can produce ethanol
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Overall Pathway
10. Which of the following terms describes an enzyme that transfers a phosphate group from ATP to a
substrate?
a. kinase
b. isomerase
c. mutase
d. dehydrogenase
TOP: Glucose to Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
11. The G values for glycolytic reactions at physiological conditions may be exergonic, even though the
G' at "standard" conditions, may be endergonic.
a. True
b. False
12. The reactions where glucose is converted to glucose 6-phosphate and fructose 6-phosphate is
converted to fructose 1,5-bisphosphate are examples of:
a. exergonic reactions
b. priming reactions
c. phosphorylation reactions
d. kinase reactions
e. all of these
ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e
13. The phosphorylation of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate

a. is so strongly exergonic that it does not require a catalyst.
b. is an exergonic reaction not coupled to any other reaction.
c. is an endergonic reaction that takes place because it is coupled to the exergonic hydrolysis
of ATP.
d. is an exergonic reaction that is coupled to the endergonic hydrolysis of ATP.
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Glucose to Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
14. The enzyme glucokinase

a. phosphorylates a number of different sugars, including glucose, fructose, and mannose.
b. specifically phosphorylates glucose rather than other sugars.
c. is the only kinase involved in glycolysis.
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Glucose to Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
15. Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction shown?
a. an epimerase
b. an isomerase
c. a mutase
d. a dehydrogenase
16. The binding of glucose to hexokinase

a. is an example of lock-and-key binding of a substrate to the active site of an enzyme.
b. is an example of induced-fit binding of a substrate to the active site of an enzyme.
c. differs from the binding of substrates to other kinases.
d. is not well characterized.
17. The phosphorylation of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate is the committed step in
glycolysis because
a. it is the rate-limiting step.
b. it is the most strongly exergonic step in the pathway.
c. fructose 1,6-bisphosphate can undergo no other reactions than those of glycolysis.
d. two phosphate groups are involved.
18. Which of the following sugars can be a substrate for hexokinase?

a. glucose
b. fructose
c. mannose
d. all of these
e. none of these
19. Which of the following enzymes interconverts an aldose and a ketose?

a. kinase
b. isomerase
c. mutase
d. dehydrogenase
e. phosphorylase
20. Which enzyme is the key regulatory enzyme in glycolysis?

a. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
b. Enolase
c. Phosphofructokinase
d. Aldolase
21. Which of the following exercise(s) allosteric control in the reaction of phosphofructokinase?
a. ATP
b. fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
c. both of these
d. neither of these
22. The reaction of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to give glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone

phosphate is an example of
a. a reverse aldol condensation.
b. hydrolysis.
c. oxidation.
d. dehydration.
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Glucose to Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
23. The equilibrium for isomerization of dihydroxyacetone phosphate to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is
favored because
a. the standard free energy is negative
b. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is being continuously drained off for the subsequent reaction
in the glycolytic pathway
c. the value of the equilibrium constant favors the reaction
d. it is driven by the hydrolysis of ATP
24. The isomerization of dihydroxyacetone phosphate to give glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

a. is catalyzed by the enzyme triose phosphate isomerase.
b. requires several enzymes.
c. requires coenzyme A.
d. requires thiamine pyrophosphate.
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Glucose to Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
25. The step that commits the cell to metabolize glucose is catalyzed by
a. hexokinase.
b. phosphoglucomutase.
c. aldolase.
d. phosphofructokinase.
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Glucose to Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
26. The equilibrium for the formation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate from dihydroxyacetone phosphate is
driven by
a. the negative free energy change for the reaction.
b. having the product of the reaction continuously consumed.
c. coupling to ATP hydrolysis.
d. none of these
27. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the cleavage of fructose bisphosphate into two 3-carbon
units?
a. Aldolase
b. Enolase
c. An isomerase
d. A mutase
e. None of these enzymes carries out that reaction.

a. Every reaction in a metabolic pathway must have a negative G, or the pathway cannot
run.
b. the reaction with the largest negative ΔG is the hexokinase reaction
c. the overall pathway of glycolysis has a negative ΔG
29. Which of the following terms describes an enzyme that catalyzes electron transfer reactions?
a. dehydrogenase
b. isomerase
c. kinase
d. phosphatase
TOP: Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate to Pyruvate
30. Which of the following enzymes forms a thioester using a cysteine residue as a key intermediate?
a. hexokinase
b. triose phosphate isomerase
c. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
d. enolase
31. In glycolysis, ATP is synthesized by

a. substrate-level phosphorylation.
b. oxidative phosphorylation.
c. photophosphorylation.
d. both substrate-level and oxidative phosphorylation.
e. all three of the above methods.
32. Which group of small molecules best fit the boxes associated with the reaction shown?
a b c
I. ATP ADP H2O
II. NADH NAD+ Pi
III. NAD+ NADH H2O
IV. NAD+ NADH Pi
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate to Pyruvate
33. What kind of enzyme catalyzes the reaction shown?

a. an epimerase
b. an isomerase
c. a mutase
d. a dehydrogenase
34. Enolase catalyzes

a. the cleavage of fructose bisphosphate into two 3-carbon units.
b. the dehydration of 2-phosphoglycerate.
c. the conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate.
d. the conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate.
35. The nicotinamide-binding region in glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase is similar to all other

NAD binding domains.
a. True
b. False
36. During glycolysis, ATP is synthesized from ADP and a phosphate group transferred from an acid
anhydride.
a. True
b. False
37. What is the name of the pictured glycolytic intermediate?
a. 1-phosphoglycerate
b. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
c. dihydroxyacetone phosphate
d. 3-phosphoglycerate
38. Which of the following is required for substrate-level phosphorylation?

a. The substrate must contain multiple phosphate groups.
b. Molecular oxygen must present.
c. The standard free energy of the hydrolysis reaction is more negative than that for
hydrolysis of the new phosphate compound being formed.
d. All of the above are necessary for substrate-level phosphorylation.
39. Which enzyme catalyzes reaction the reaction shown?
a. enolase
b. pyruvate dehydrogenase
c. pyruvate kinase
d. phosphoglycerate mutase
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate to Pyruvate
40. The amino acid cysteine is important in adding a second phosphate to glyceraldehyde phosphate in the
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase reaction.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate to Pyruvate
41. Which of the following enzymes of glycolysis is not involved in regulation of the pathway?
a. Hexokinase
b. Phosphofructokinase
c. Aldolase
d. Pyruvate kinase
e. All of these proteins regulate glycolysis.
42. Which of the following glycolytic enzymes forms a mixed anhydride from phosphoric acid?
a. hexokinase.
b. phosphofructokinase.
c. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase.
d. phosphoglycerate kinase.
e. pyruvate kinase.
43. How many enzymes of glycolysis are control points for the pathway?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. All the enzymes serve as control points.
44. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes a dehydration reaction?

a. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
b. Enolase
c. Phosphofructokinase
d. Aldolase
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate to Pyruvate
45. In the conversion of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate

a. an alcohol group is phosphorylated.
b. an alcohol is oxidized to an aldehyde.
c. an alcohol is oxidized to a carboxylic acid.
d. an aldehyde is oxidized to a carboxylic acid.
46. An enzyme not involved in the control of glycolysis is

a. hexokinase.
b. triose phosphate isomerase.
c. pyruvate kinase.
d. phosphofructokinase.
47. How many different reactions involve substrate-level phosphorylation during glycolysis?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 6
48. The reduction of pyruvate to lactate

a. allows for recycling of NAD+.
b. is the process that aids in the recovery of sore muscles after exercise.
c. is accompanied by phosphorylation of ADP.
d. does not occur in aerobic organisms.
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Anaerobic Metabolism of Pyruvate
49. Anaerobic metabolism can occur in all these organisms or cells, except:
a. Yeast
b. Red blood cells
c. Muscle tissue that is working very fast
d. Lactobacillus in milk
e. Anaerobic metabolism can occur in all of these.
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Anaerobic Metabolism of Pyruvate
50. Which of the following enzymes of anaerobic metabolism is not tetrameric?

a. Hexokinase
b. Phosphofructokinase
c. Pyruvate kinase
d. Lactate Dehydrogenase
TOP: Anaerobic Metabolism of Pyruvate

a. Multiple isozymes of lactate dehydrogenase are used as clinical means for diagnosing
heart attacks.
b. Two enzymes involved in anaerobic glycolysis are found as isozymes with 5 different
forms
c. The M4 version of lactate dehydrogenase predominates in heart tissue
d. After a myocardial infarction, the blood serum levels of MH3 and H4 isozymes increase
52. During anaerobic metabolism in yeast, the carbons of glucose end up in

a. CO2.
b. ethanol.
c. lactic acid.
d. both CO2 and ethanol.
e. all of these
53. Which of the following enzymes relies on thiamine pyrophosphate as a cofactor?

a. pyruvate decarboxylase
b. pyruvate kinase
c. lactate dehydrogenase
d. enolase
54. Fetal alcohol syndrome

a. can be prevented by administering large doses of vitamin B1 to pregnant women
b. can be prevented by administering large doses of the vitamin niacin (nicotinic acid) to
pregnant women
c. can be reversed by administering acetaldehyde
d. can be detected by measuring the level of acetaldehyde in the bloodstream of a pregnant
woman
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Anaerobic Metabolism of Pyruvate
55. During anaerobic metabolism in red blood cells, the carbons of glucose end up in
a. CO2.
b. ethanol.
c. lactic acid.
d. both CO2 and ethanol.
e. all of the above.
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Anaerobic Metabolism of Pyruvate
56. Alcohol dehydrogenase resembles lactate dehydrogenase in that it
a. is nonallosteric.
b. is a dimer.
c. uses NAD+ as a coenzyme.
d. is not found in aerobic organisms.
57. Thiamine pyrophosphate is a coenzyme

a. frequently encountered in oxidation-reduction reactions.
b. required for the phosphorylation of ADP.
c. involved in transfers of two-carbon groups.
d. involved in transfers of one-carbon groups.
58. The fate of NADH from glycolysis depends on whether conditions are anaerobic or aerobic.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Anaerobic Metabolism of Pyruvate
59. Methanol is extremely toxic, but not directly. In the body, it is converted into formaldehyde; that's
what's actually the poison. What kind of enzyme catalyses this conversion?
a. a kinase
b. an isomerase
c. a mutase
d. a dehydrogenase
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Anaerobic Metabolism of Pyruvate
60. The percentage of energy captured as ATP during the conversion of glucose to lactate is closest to
a. 10%.
b. 30%.
c. 50%.
d. 75%.
e. 90%.
TOP: Energy Yield From Glycolysis
61. Consider the following information:
phosphoenolpyruvate  pyruvate G' = 61.9 kJ/mol

ADP + Pi  ATP G' = +30.5 kJ/mol
How many molecules of ATP might theoretically have been produced when coupled to the conversion
of one molecule phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Energy Yield From Glycolysis
62. If glycolysis did not lead to the production of ATP, the overall process would
a. release less energy
b. release more energy
c. absorb energy
d. not take place in aerobic organisms
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Energy Yield From Glycolysis
63. When humans consume ethanol, the first step in its metabolism is:
a. conversion to lactate
b. conversion to acetaldehyde
c. conversion to acetone
d. production of fat
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in
Chapter 19—The Citric Acid Cycle
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The citric acid cycle is the only metabolic pathway that can be used both as an anabolic and as a
catabolic pathway.
a. True
b. False
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle's Role in Metabolism
2. Which of the following statements concerning the citric acid cycle as the central metabolic pathway is
true?
a. It is involved in the metabolism of sugars and amino acids.
b. It is involved in the metabolism of amino acids and lipids.
c. It links anaerobic metabolism to aerobic metabolism.
d. Many of its intermediates are starting points for synthesis of a variety of compounds.
e. All of these are reasons why the citric acid cycle is considered to be the central pathway.
TOP: Citric Acid Cycle's Role in Metabolism
3. The citric acid cycle is amphibolic, meaning

a. it plays a role in both anabolism and catabolism.
b. it is essentially irreversible.
c. it can operate both in the presence and absence of oxygen.
d. it can oxidize carbons and nitrogens equally well.
TOP: Citric Acid Cycle's Role in Metabolism
4. Which enzymes in the citric acid cycle catalyze oxidative decarboxylation reactions?
a. isocitrate dehydrogenase and the -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex
b. aconitase and succinate dehydrogenase
c. the -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex and succinate thiokinase
d. fumarase and succinate dehydrogenase
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Overall Pathway
5. In which cellular location do the majority of the reactions of the citric acid cycle take place?
a. the cytosol.
b. the mitochondrial matrix.
c. the endoplasmic reticulum.
d. lysosomes.
6. The immediate electron acceptor for the majority of the oxidative reactions of the citric acid cycle is
a. ATP.
b. NAD.
c. FAD.
d. coenzyme A.
7. The reaction of the citric acid cycle that does not take place in the mitochondrial matrix is the one
catalyzed by:
a. fumarase
b. citrate synthase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
d. succinate dehydrogenase
e. All of these reactions take place in the matrix
ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Overall Pathway
8. Which of the following is not a component of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

a. pyruvate dehydrogenase
b. dihydrolipoyl transacetylase
c. dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
d. pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
e. aconitase
ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Pyruvate to Acetyl-CoA
9. Thiamine pyrophosphate carries a carbon unit.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Pyruvate to Acetyl-CoA
10. The acetyl group is carried on lipoic acid as

a. an alcohol.
b. a thioester.
c. a phosphoanhydride.
d. an amide.
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Pyruvate to Acetyl-CoA
11. Which of the following vitamins and enzyme cofactors are used by the pyruvate dehydrogenase
complex during oxidative decarboxylation?
a. Lipoic Acid.
b. Niacin.
c. Pantothenic Acid.
d. Thiamine.
e. All of these
TOP: Pyruvate to Acetyl-CoA
12. Which of the following is not a reaction occurring during oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate?
a. Removal of CO2.
b. Oxidation of an acetate group.
c. Addition of Coenzyme A to a 2-carbon fragment.
d. Reduction of NAD+
e. All of these reactions take place during oxidative decarboxylation.
TOP: Pyruvate to Acetyl-CoA
13. The enzymes involved in the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex are
a. physically separated from each other
b. crosslinked to each other by lipoic acid linkers
c. covalently bonded to coenzyme A
d. associated with each other in a cubical array
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Pyruvate to Acetyl-CoA
14. Lipoic acid is a required vitamin in the human diet.

a. True
b. False
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Pyruvate to Acetyl-CoA
15. Each of the enzymes of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex requires a different vitamin.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Pyruvate to Acetyl-CoA
a b
I. ADP + 2 Pi ATP
II. NAD+ NADH
III. NADP+ NADPH
IV. FAD FADH2
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Reactions of the Citric Acid Cycle
17. The reactions in which succinate is converted to oxaloacetate are, in order

a. an oxidation, a dehydration, and an oxidation
b. three successive oxidation reactions
c. an oxidative decarboxylation, a dehydration, and a condensation
d. a condensation, a dehydration, and an oxidative decarboxylation
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Reactions of the Citric Acid Cycle
18. All but one of the enzymes of the citric acid cycle are found in this part of the mitochondrion:
a. The outer membrane.
b. The inner membrane.
c. The mitochondrial matrix.
d. The intermembrane space.
e. It is not known where these enzymes are located.
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Reactions of the Citric Acid Cycle
19. Which of the following enzymes contains a non-heme iron?

a. citrate synthase
b. succinyl-CoA synthetase
c. succinate dehydrogenase
d. fumarase
a b
I. ADP + 2 Pi ATP
II. NAD+ NADH
III. ATP ADP + 2 Pi
IV. FAD FADH2
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Reactions of the Citric Acid Cycle
a b
I. NAD+ NADH
II. NADP+ NADPH
III. ADP + Pi ATP
IV. FAD FADH2
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
22. Which of the following reactions involves substrate-level phosphorylation?

a. isocitrate  -ketoglutarate
b. citrate  isocitrate
c. succinate  fumarate
d. succinyl-CoA  succinate
TOP: Reactions of the Citric Acid Cycle
a. isocitrate dehydrogenase
b. malate dehydrogenase
c. fumarase
24. Which coenzyme listed below is not associated with the -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex?
a. thiamine pyrophosphate
b. lipoic acid
c. biotin
d. NAD+
25. Which of the following enzymes is the only membrane-bound enzyme in the citric acid cycle?
a. Aconitase.
b. IsoCitrate Dehydrogenase.
c. Succinate Dehydrogenase.
d. Malate Dehydrogenase.
e. Alpha-Ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase complex.
26. The iron ion, which is part of succinate dehydrogenase, is bonded to heme.
a. True
b. False

b. malate dehydrogenase
c. fumarase
a. succinyl-CoA synthetase
b. succinate dehydrogenase
c. pyruvate dehydrogenase
d. -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
29. When acetyl-CoA reacts with oxaloacetate to form citrate

a. a new carbon-carbon bond is formed
b. an oxidative decarboxylation reaction takes place
c. a dehydration reaction takes place
d. a rearrangement takes place
30. The order of compounds and intermediates found in the citric acid cycle is as follows:
a. IsoCitrate  Aconitate  -Ketoglutarate  Fumarate  Malate  Oxaloacetate
b. Aconitate  IsoCitrate  Oxaloacetate  -Ketoglutarate  Malate  Fumarate
c. Aconitate  IsoCitrate  -Ketoglutarate  Fumarate  Malate  Oxaloacetate
d. Aconitate  IsoCitrate  -Ketoglutarate  Malate  Fumarate  Oxaloacetate
e. IsoCitrate  Aconitate  -Ketoglutarate  Malate  Oxaloacetate  Fumarate
31. Release of succinate from succinyl-CoA can be coupled to GTP synthesis because:
a. The amide bond between succinate and CoA has a large G of hydrolysis.
b. The thioester bond between succinate and CoA has a large G of hydrolysis.
c. The link between succinate and CoA involves an acid anhydride to phosphate.
d. Coenzyme A is a "high energy" compound, just like GTP.
e. None of these explains why GTP can be formed during this reaction.
32. The only difference between succinate and fumarate is the geometry around their double bonds, one
contains a cis double bond and the other contains a trans double bond.
a. True
b. False
33. The enzyme "aconitase" is also known as "condensing enzyme"

a. True
b. False
34. Fluorine is related to the citric acid cycle because:

a. fluoroacetyl-CoA is also a substrate for citrate synthase
b. fluoroacetate, found in poisonous plants, acts as an inhibitor of aconitase
c. fluorocitrate acts as a potent inhibitor of the citric acid cycle
d. all of these
35. Which of the reactions of the citric acid cycle requires FAD as a coenzyme?
a. the conversion of isocitrate to -ketoglutarate
b. the conversion of citrate to isocitrate
c. the conversion of succinate to fumarate
d. the conversion of malate to oxaloacetate
36. The conversion of citrate to isocitrate is remarkable because

a. it is a condensation reaction.
b. a chiral center is introduced in a molecule that did not have one previously.
c. a dehydration reaction is involved.
d. the enzyme that catalyzes it has very little specificity.
37. In the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinate, GTP is produced from GDP in a reaction in which the
source of the added phosphate is
a. ATP.
b. ADP.
c. phosphenolpyruvate.
d. inorganic phosphate ion.
38. Which of the following enzymes does not use NAD+ for oxidation?
a. Alpha-Ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase complex.
e. All of these enzymes use NAD+
39. Which of these enzymes is most similar to pyruvate dehydrogenase?

a. Alpha-Ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase complex.
e. None of these enzymes is similar to pyruvate dehydrogenase.

Exhibit 19A
The following compounds are all intermediates in the citric acid cycle.
NARREND
40. Refer to Exhibit 19A. Which intermediate releases CO2 concurrent with oxidation?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. Both 1 and 3
e. Both 2 and 3
41. Refer to Exhibit 19A. Which intermediate is formed from acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
42. Refer to Exhibit 19A. Which intermediate does FAD oxidize?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. More than one of these is oxidized by FAD.
43. Refer to Exhibit 19A. Which intermediate is formed from fumarate?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
44. Refer to Exhibit 19A. Which intermediate becomes bonded to Coenzyme A during the cycle?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
45. In muscle cells, the following reaction proceeds as written, i.e., from left to right, despite having G'
 +30 kJ/mol. How can this occur?
malate + NAD+  oxaloacetate + NADH + H+
a. It is obviously thermodynamically favored under standard conditions.

b. In the cell, it is kinetically favored, even though it's thermodynamically unfavored.
c. The concentration of malate must be higher than oxaloacetate for this reaction to occur in
the cell.
d. [H+] must be higher in muscle than under standard conditions, thus altering G' to G.
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Energetics and Control
46. One round of the citric acid cycle generates about ten equivalents of ATP.
a. True
b. False
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Energetics and Control
47. The conversion of malate to oxaloacetate has a high +G (it is endergonic). It can take place because:
a. It is coupled to hydrolysis of the GTP produce earlier in the cycle.
b. It is coupled to hydrolysis of ATP from other sources.
c. It involves a substrate level phosphorylation.
d. The oxaloacetate product is used up in the subsequent reaction.
e. It is coupled to a strong reduction reaction.
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Energetics and Control
48. Which of the following enzymes is not a control point of the citric acid cycle?
a. citrate synthase
b. isocitrate dehydrogenase
c. aconitase
d. the -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex
TOP: Energetics and Control
49. Which of the following enzymes is allosterically inhibited by ATP?

a. pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
d. fumarase
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Energetics and Control
50. Which of the following enzymes is allosterically activated by NAD+?

d. fumarase
51. The reaction in which malate is oxidized to oxaloacetate is not thermodynamically favored. It takes
place because
a. it is coupled to ATP hydrolysis.
b. it involves substrate-level phosphorylation.
c. the product is continuously used up in the next reaction of the cycle, which is
thermodynamically favored.
d. it is coupled to a strong reduction.
52. A control point outside the citric acid cycle is the reaction catalyzed by
a. the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.
b. citrate synthetase.
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase.
d. the -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex.
53. A cell in an active metabolic state has

a. a high (ATP/ADP) and a high (NADH/NAD+) ratio.
b. a high (ATP/ADP) and a low (NADH/NAD+) ratio.
c. a low (ATP/ADP) and a low (NADH/NAD+) ratio.
d. a low (ATP/ADP) and a high (NADH/NAD+) ratio.
54. The "energy charge" in a cell is important in the control of metabolism.

a. True
b. False
55. "Energy charge" in a cell is a measure of

a. ATP/NAD+ ratios.
b. ATP/NADH ratios.
c. ATP/ADP ratios.
d. NADH/NAD+ ratios.
e. NAD+/ADP ratios.
TOP: Energetics and Control
56. Which of the following is true regarding the control of pyruvate dehydrogenase?
a. It is inhibited by ATP
b. It is inhibited by NAD+
c. It is activated by acetyl-CoA
d. It is inhibited by succinyl-CoA
e. none of these are true
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Energetics and Control
57. The glyoxylate cycle occurs in

a. plants and animals.
b. bacteria and animals.
c. plants and bacteria.
d. plants, animals, and bacteria.
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Glyoxylate Cycle
58. The intracellular site of the glyoxylate cycle is

a. glyoxysomes only.
b. glyoxysomes and lysosomes.
c. glyoxysomes and Golgi apparatus.
d. glyoxysomes and smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Glyoxylate Cycle
59. A unique feature of the glyoxylate cycle is that it allows the organisms that possess this pathway to
a. produce fats from carbohydrates.
b. produce carbohydrates from fats.
c. convert acetyl-CoA to pyruvate.
d. do all of the above.
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Glyoxylate Cycle
60. The glyoxylate pathway bypasses part of the citric acid cycle by converting isocitrate to glyoxylate and
a. -ketoglutarate
b. fumarate
c. succinyl-CoA
d. succinate
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Glyoxylate Cycle
61. In the glyoxylate cycle, acetyl-CoA reacts with glyoxylate to produce

a. succinyl-CoA
b. succinate
c. fumarate
d. malate
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Glyoxylate Cycle
62. Glyoxysomes are named for the fact that they contain the glyoxylate pathway.
a. True
b. False
63. An organism that undergoes the glyoxylate cycle can make sugar from fat because:
a. there is a specific isomerase that converts a six carbon fatty acid to glucose
b. the unique reactions of the glyoxylate cycle bypass the two decarboyxlation reactions of
the citric acid cycle
c. glyoxysomes lack succinate dehydrogenase
d. none of these
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Glyoxylate Cycle
64. The production of malate in the glyoxylate pathway is important, since it can be readily converted to
phosphoenolpyruvate and then to sugars.
a. True
b. False
65. Which of the following statements concerning the glyoxylate pathway is false?
a. It utilizes one mole of acetyl-CoA per cycle.
b. It can produce a net synthesis of 4-carbon fragments that are intermediates of the citric
acid cycle.
c. It does not occur in the mitochondria.
d. It is the main pathway that allows for synthesis of sugars from acetyl-CoA.
TOP: Glyoxylate Cycle
66. Most of the products of the catabolism of sugars, fats and amino acids enter the citric acid cycle as:
a. pyruvate
b. acetyl-CoA
c. malate
d. all of these
e. none of these
TOP: Citric Acid Cycle's Role in Catabolism
67. The citric acid cycle uses anaplerotic reactions to get rid of the many intermediates of the cycle that
accumulate during catabolism of amino acids.
a. True
b. False
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle's Role in Catabolism
68. When the citric acid cycle is not functioning, the most common fate of acetyl-CoA from sugar
metabolism in humans is the formation of fatty acids or cholesterol.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle's Role in Catabolism
69. Which of the following cannot cross the inner mitochondrial membrane?
a. malate
b. phosphoenolpyruvate
c. succinyl-CoA
d. oxaloacetate
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle's Role in Anabolism
70. Which of the following is a source of NADPH?

a. the pentose phosphate pathway
b. a series of reactions in which oxaloacetate is reduced to malate followed by oxidative
decarboxylation of the malate to pyruvate
d. neither of these
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle's Role in Anabolism
71. There is a cyclic reaction in which pyruvate becomes oxaloacetate. The oxaloacetate is converted to
malate and then back to pyruvate. This cycle is important because:
a. There is no net use or fixation of CO2 in this cycle.
b. NADH is converted to NADPH in this cycle.
c. There is no net oxidation or reduction in this cycle.
d. NADPH is converted to NADH in this cycle.
e. This is actually a wasteful pathway with no practical use.
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle's Role in Anabolism
72. The anaplerotic reactions associated with the citric acid cycle are the result of
a. the oxidative nature of the citric acid cycle
b. the use of many of the citric acid cycle intermediates in anabolism
c. the decarboxylation reactions
d. the production of GTP and reduced coenzymes
73. Weight loss in humans can be difficult to achieve, since we lack the ability to convert our fats to
sugars, and it is difficult to change our metabolism to using fats as a primary energy source.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle's Role in Anabolism
74. Which of the following describes a use for acetyl-CoA as an important intermediate in metabolism?
a. Breakdown to CO2 and water, yielding much energy.
b. Synthesis of terpenes and steroids.
c. Synthesis of oxaloacetate in plants.
d. Synthesis of fatty acids.
e. All of these are reasons why acetyl-CoA is a central molecule in metabolism.
TOP: Citric Acid Cycle's Role in Anabolism
75. Intermediates of the citric acid cycle are especially important in the synthesis of fatty acids and amino
acids.
a. True
b. False
76. The citric acid cycle is considered part of aerobic metabolism even though oxygen does not appear
explicitly in any reaction because
a. the NADH and FADH2 produced are reoxidized in the electron transport chain linked to
oxygen
b. the reoxidation of NADH and FADH 2 leads to the production of considerable quantities of
ATP
c. it takes place in the mitochondrion
d. it contains oxidation reactions
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Link to Oxygen
77. In the classical equation for respiration:
Glucose + 6O2 --> 6CO2 + 6H2O, the following molecules are found directly in the citric acid cycle:
a. O2
b. Glucose and O2
c. CO2 and H2O
d. all of these arae found directly in the citric acid cycle
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Link to oxygen
Chapter 20—Electron Transport and Oxidative Phosphorylation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. When mitochondria are actively carrying out aerobic respiration

a. the pH of the matrix is greater than the pH of the intermembrane space.
b. the pH of the matrix is less than the pH of the intermembrane space.
c. the pH of the matrix is about the same as the pH of the intermembrane space.
d. the pH of the matrix versus the intermembrane space has nothing to do with whether not
aerobic respiration is occurring.
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Role of Electron Transport

a. The synthesis of ATP in mitochondria is driven by a proton or pH gradient.
b. The synthesis of ATP is directly linked to the oxidation of NADH
c. The reoxidation of NADH and FADH2 indirectly creates a proton gradient that is involved
in ATP synthesis
d. All of these are true
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Role of Electron Transport
3. The pH of the mitochondrial matrix is the pH of the intermembrane space.

a. higher than
b. lower than
c. the same as
TOP: Role of Electron Transport
4. Which of the following terms describes ATP synthesis in mitochondria?

a. substrate-level phosphorylation
b. oxidative phosphorylation
c. photophosphorylation
TOP: Role of Electron Transport
5. The ultimate electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is

a. NAD+.
b. FAD.
c. oxygen.
d. ADP.
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 6e TOP: Role of Electron Transport
6. How many electrons are required for the complete reduction of one molecule of oxygen gas?
a. one
b. two
c. four
d. eight
TOP: Reduction Potentials
7. Which of the following statements concerning E for an electron-transfer reaction is false?
a. It is measured by comparison with the partial pressure of oxygen in the bloodstream rather
than 1 atmosphere pressure.
b. It is measured by comparison with a standard hydrogen electrode.
c. It is related to G by a well known equation.
d. It cannot be determined for electron-transfer reactions involving coenzyme Q.
8. The reference reaction for determining reduction potentials (E = 0) is the reduction of
a. oxygen (O2) to water.
b. NAD+ to NADH.
c. H+ to H2 gas.
d. FAD to FADH2.
9. Reduction potentials (E) are measured by reading a voltmeter, which measures the electron flow
between two reaction chambers.
a. True
b. False
10. To calculate the G of a redox reaction, you need:

a. the reduction potential (E) of the half reactions
b. the Faraday constant
c. the number of electrons involved in the transfer
d. none of these
e. all of these
ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Reduction Potentials
11. Which of the following is an advantage of using multiple steps in electron transport?
a. By using several steps the net G is higher (more energy is released).
b. More heat can be generated by using small steps.
c. More energy can be captured to synthesize ATP by using small steps.
d. Small steps allow for both more heat generation and more ATP synthesis.
e. All of these statements are advantages of using multiple steps.
12. Complex IV of the electron transport chain oxidizes , reduces , and protons in the
process.
a. coenzyme Q; cytochrome c; pumps
b. cytochrome c; coenzyme Q; pumps
c. cytochrome c; O2; doesn't pump
d. cytochrome c; O2; pumps
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Organization of Electron Transport Complexes
13. Complex III of the electron transport chain oxidizes , reduces , and protons in the
process.
a. coenzyme Q; cytochrome c; pumps
b. coenzyme Q; cytochrome c; doesn't pump
c. cytochrome c; coenzyme Q; pumps
d. cytochrome c; coenzyme Q; doesn't pump
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Organization of Electron Transport Complexes
14. Which of the following components of the electron transport chain can only participate in one-electron
transfers?
a. NAD
b. FAD
c. coenzyme Q
d. cytochrome C
15. Complex II of the electron transport chain oxidizes , reduces , and protons in the
process.
a. FADH2; coenzyme Q; doesn't pump
b. FADH2; coenzyme Q; pumps
c. NADH; coenzyme Q; doesn't pump
d. NADH; coenzyme Q; pumps
16. Complex I of the electron transport chain oxidizes , reduces , and protons in the
process.
a. FADH2; coenzyme Q; doesn't pump
b. FADH2; coenzyme Q; pumps
c. NADH; coenzyme Q; doesn't pump
d. NADH; coenzyme Q; pumps
17. The final reduced species in the electron transport chain is

a. O2
b. H2O
c. cytochrome c
d. coenzyme Q
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Organization of Electron Transport Complexes
18. Which of the following is not a part of the electron transport chain?
a. NADH
b. FADH2
c. coenzyme Q
d. coenzyme A
19. Which complex of the electron transport chain does NOT contain an iron-sulfur cluster?
a. Complex I
b. Complex II
c. Complex III
d. Complex IV
20. The Q cycle refers to flow of electrons from

a. NADH to coenzyme Q via Complex I.
b. FADH2 to coenzyme Q via Complex II.
c. coenzyme Q to cytochrome c via Complex III.
d. coenzyme Q to NADH.
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Organization of Electron Transport Complexes
21. In the Q cycle coenzyme Q takes part

a. in the oxidized and reduced forms only.
b. in the oxidized, reduced, and semiquinone forms.
c. in the oxidized and semiquinone forms only.
d. in the reduced and semiquinone forms only.
22. Which of the following are located in the inner mitochondrial membrane?
a. all the components of the citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain
b. all the components of the citric acid cycle but none of the components of the electron
transport chain
c. all the components of the electron transport chain but none of the components of the citric
acid cycle
d. all the components of the electron transport chain and one of the components of the citric
acid cycle, namely the succinate dehydrogenase complex
23. An alternative mode of entry into the electron transport chain is the oxidation of
a. malate to oxalosuccinate.
b. succinate to fumarate.
c. isocitrate to -ketoglutarate.
d. -ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA.
24. Another name for Complex II in the electron transport chain is

a. cytochrome c oxidase.
b. NADH-CoQ oxidoreductase.
c. cytochrome bc1 complex.
d. succinate-CoQ oxidoreductase.
25. The cytochrome that passes electrons directly to oxygen is

a. the cytochrome a/a3 complex.
b. cytochrome b.
c. cytochrome c.
d. cytochrome c1.
26. A cytochrome that can move freely in the mitochondrial membrane is
a. cytochrome a
b. cytochrome b
c. cytochrome c
d. cytochrome c1
27. The complex in the electron transport chain that does not have a direct link to coenzyme Q in some
form is
a. the succinate dehydrogenase complex.
b. Complex I.
c. cytochrome c oxidase.
d. Complex III.
28. A species in the electron transport chain that can participate in a two-electron transfer is
a. iron-sulfur proteins.
b. cytochrome b.
c. cytochrome c.
d. coenzyme Q.
29. Iron deficiency in a cell can adversely affect electron transport at which of the following sites?
a. coenzyme Q and FADH2
b. NADH and FADH2
c. cytochrome b and cytochrome c
d. coenzyme Q and NADH
30. Most of the reactions of electron transport in the mitochondria occur

a. on the outer membrane
b. on the inner membrane.
c. in the mitochondrial matrix.
d. in the intermembrane space.
e. in the cytosol.
TOP: Organization of Electron Transport Complexes
31. Electron flow in the mitochondria follows this pathway:

a. NADH  FMN  Coenzyme Q  Cyt A  Cyt B  Cyt C  O2
b. NADH  FMN  Cyt B  Coenzyme Q  Cyt C  Cyt A  O2
c. FMNH2  NAD  Coenzyme Q  Cyt B  Cyt C  Cyt A  O2
d. NADH  FMN  Coenzyme Q  Cyt B  Cyt C  Cyt A  O2
e. NADH  FMN  Cyt B  Cyt C  Coenzyme Q  Cyt A  O2
32. Electron flow in the mitochondria follows this pathway:

a. Complex I  complex II  complex III  complex IV.
b. Complex IV  complex III  complex II  complex I.
c. Complex I  complex III  complex IV.
d. Complex II  complex III  complex IV.
e. Both complex I  III  IV and complex II  III  IV.
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Organization of Electron Transport Complexes
33. Which of the following is true concerning mitochondrial DNA?

a. mitochondria have their own DNA
b. DNA in mitochondria must be transcribed and translated outside of the mitochondria since
mitochondria have no protein synthesis capability
c. Alzheimers disease is the only known disease related to mt DNA
34. Another name for Complex I in the mitochondria is

a. Cytochrome C oxidase.
b. NADH-CoQ oxidoreductase.
c. succinate-CoQ reductase.
d. Cytochrome A oxidase.
e. Cytochrome bc1 complex.
35. Another name for Complex III in the mitochondria is

b. NADH-CoQ reductase.
ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Organization of Electron Transport Complexes
36. Which complex contains succinate dehydrogenase?

a. Complex I
b. Complex II
c. Complex III
d. Complex IV
e. It is not known where succinate dehydrogenase is located.
37. Coenzyme Q can act as an intermediate electron carrier, since the ketone group of the quinone
structure is readily reduced to an alcohol.
a. True
b. False
38. Which complex contains cytochrome oxidase?

a. Complex I
b. Complex II
c. Complex III
d. Complex IV
e. It is not known where cytochrome oxidase is located.
39. The only complex which actually uses molecular oxygen is

a. Complex I.
b. Complex II.
c. Complex III.
d. Complex IV.
e. It is not known where oxygen is used.
40. The only reaction which actually uses molecular oxygen is

b. NADH-CoQ reductase.
41. Transition metals are especially important in electron transport, since they have variable oxidation
states.
a. True
b. False
42. Which of the following complexes does not directly contribute to the production of ATP by pumping
protons?
a. Complex I.
b. Complex II.
c. Complex III.
d. Complex IV.
e. All four complexes pump protons.
TOP: Electron Transport and Phosphorylation
43. Uncouplers are compounds that inhibit the phosphorylation of ADP

a. by enhancing the proton gradient across the outer mitochondrial membrane.
b. by enhancing the proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
c. because they are transmembrane proteins in the outer mitochondrial membrane.
d. without affecting electron transport.
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Electron Transport and Phosphorylation
44. Oxidative phosphorylation is coupled to electron transport in

a. Complexes I, II, and III
b. Complexes I, II, and IV
c. Complexes I, III, and IV
d. all four respiratory complexes
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Electron Transport and Phosphorylation
45. How do uncoupling agents affect the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation?
a. They block the flow of electrons, so protons aren't pumped, and ATP synthesis ceases.
b. They remove electrons from the chain, so less protons are pumped, and ATP synthesis
decreases.
c. They block the flow of protons through the ATP synthase, so ATP synthesis ceases.
Electron flow and proton pumping are also halted as a result.
d. They provide an alternative path for protons to re-enter the mitochondrial matrix, so ATP
synthesis decreases. Electron flow and proton pumping are not affected.
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Electron Transport and Phosphorylation

a. Uncoupling agents can work by disrupting the flow of protons during ATP synthesis.
b. Uncoupling agents prevent the flow of electrons during electron transport
c. Uncoupling agents always block the flow of protons through the ATPase
d. none of these is true
TOP: Electron Transport and Phosphorylation
47. The factor that couples electron transport to phosphorylation of ADP is

a. a protein oligomer
b. a protein monomer
c. gramicidin A
d. valinomycin
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Electron Transport and Phosphorylation
48. The P/O ratio refers to the number of moles of ATP produced for each mole of
a. oxygen atoms consumed in electron transport
b. oxygen molecules consumed in electron transport
c. NADH reoxidized in electron transport
d. FADH2 reoxidized in electron transport
49. Brown adipose tissue is partially responsible for generating heat in the young human body.
a. True
b. False
50. Uncoupling in mitochondria refers to:

a. Interruption of electron flow.
b. Stopping electron flow but not stopping ATP synthesis.
c. Stopping ATP synthesis but not stopping electron flow.
d. Blocking the electrons from NADH from entering the electron transport system.
e. All of these describe uncoupling.
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Electron Transport and Phosphorylation
51. Evidence for chemiosmotic coupling as the mechanism for oxidative phosphorylation is based on the
observation that
a. mitochondrial membrane fragments without compartmentalization can carry out oxidative
phosphorylation
b. submitochondrial preparations that contain closed vesicles can carry out oxidative
phosphorylation
c. many different kinds of substances can serve as uncouplers
d. it has proved impossible to duplicate the process in model systems
ANS: B PTS: 1
TOP: Coupling Mechanism of Oxidative Phosphorylation
52. Chemiosmotic coupling involves this process:

a. Using an electron gradient to synthesize ATP.
b. Using a proton gradient to synthesize ATP.
c. Using oxygen flow to synthesize ATP.
d. Using a proton gradient to make water from oxygen.
e. These are all chemiosmotic processes.
ANS: B PTS: 1
53. The F1F0 complex is actually a transmembrane complex.

a. True
b. False
ANS: A PTS: 1
54. In the conformational coupling mechanism for oxidative phosphorylation, the effect of the proton
gradient is
a. to inhibit conformational changes in the ATP synthase
b. to create more sites for ATP synthesis
c. the release of tightly bound ATP from the synthase
d. all of these
e. none of these
55. Which of the following is not true of the process of oxidative phosphorylation?
a. protons flow into the mitochondrial matrix through ion channels in the ATP synthase
b. the F0 part of the ATP synthase serves as a proton channel
c. the F1 part of the ATP synthase is the site of ATP formation
d. iron-sulfur proteins bind to the ATP synthase
ANS: D PTS: 1
56. Conformation changes in proteins are crucial in the synthesis of ATP in the mitochondria.
a. True
b. False
57. Chemiosmotic coupling was first proposed by Peter Mitchell, who won a Nobel Prize for his theory.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A PTS: 1
58. Which of the following was not evidence that supported Mitchell’s chemiosmotic coupling
hypothesis?
a. Closed vessicles were required. Phosphorylation did not occur in a completely soluble
environment.
b. Vessicles could be prepared from mitochondria and the assymetric location of electron
transport protein could be shown.
c. The existence of the pH gradient could be demonstrated
d. The transfer of electrons from complex I to oxygen was shown
e. none of these
59. Mitochondrial membranes can be fragmented into small vesicles which still synthesize ATP; intact
mitochondria are not required.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A PTS: 1
60. A poison that prevents the transfer of electrons from the last iron-sulfur cluster of Complex I to
coenzyme Q is added to a suspension of actively respiring mitochondria. Which statement best
describes the effect seen?
a. ATP production would be impaired as this would uncouple oxidative phosphorylation
from electron transport.
b. ATP production would be reduced as fewer protons would be pumped out of the
mitochondrial matrix.
c. ATP production would be severely impaired as this would completely block electron
transport through the electron transport chain.
d. This compound would have little to no effect on ATP production.
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Use of Respiratory Inhibitors
61. Respiratory inhibitors in mitochondria do this:

a. Stop electron flow but not stopping ATP synthesis.
b. Stop ATP synthesis but not stopping electron flow.
c. Block both electron flow and ATP synthesis.
d. Block the protons from moving through the membrane.
e. All of these describe what respiratory inhibitors do.
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Use of Respiratory Inhibitors
62. What do cyanide, azide, and carbon monoxide all have in common?
a. They are all products of combustion and contribute to smog
b. They all are nitrogenous compounds
c. They all inhibit the final step of electron transport
d. They all bond to hemoglobin irreversibly
e. All of these are common to the three compounds
TOP: Use of Respiratory Inhibitors
63. In mitochondria compound A is oxidized to compound B. The oxidation is not inhibited by rotenone
but is inhibited by antimycin A and cyanide. What is the P/O ratio for this oxidation?
a. zero
b. 1.5
c. 2.5
d. impossible to determine from the information given
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Use of Respiratory Inhibitors
64. Which of the following respiratory inhibitors does not block the final step of electron transport, the
reduction of oxygen to form water?
a. Azide (N3+)
b. Cyanide (CN1)
c. Carbon Monoxide (CO)
d. Rotenone
e. All of these block the last reaction of electron transport.
TOP: Use of Respiratory Inhibitors
65. A characteristic of the glycerol phosphate shuttle is

a. it shuttles NADH across the mitochondrial membrane to yield 5 ATP/NADH
b. it shuttles the electrons from NADH across the mitochondrial membrane to FADH 2,
yielding 5 ATP/NADH
c. it only operates efficiently at high levels of NADH
d. malate is a key component in the shuttle process
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Shuttle Mechanisms
66. Depending on how NADH is shuttled from the cytoplasm into the mitochondria, different molar
amounts of ATP will be synthesized as each NADH is oxidized.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Shuttle Mechanisms
67. What is the net yield of ATP per glucose molecule that passes through all of aerobic respiration
(glucose  CO2 + H2O)?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 30  32, dependent on the shuttle system used.
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: ATP Yield from Glucose Oxidation
68. The yield of ATP from the complete oxidation of glucose is lower in muscle and brain from that in
kidney, liver, and heart because
a. there are fewer mitochondria in muscle and brain cells
b. muscle and brain cells have a lower requirement for ATP
c. different shuttle mechanisms operate to transfer electrons from the cytosol to the
mitochondrion in the two sets of tissues
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: ATP Yield from Glucose Oxidation
69. Most athletes make better aerobic use of energy sources than non-athletes, since they actually have
more mitochondria in their cells.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: ATP Yield from Glucose Oxidation
70. Creatine supplements work best for long distance exercise, rather than for quick spurts of energy.
a. True
b. False
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: ATP Yield from Glucose Oxidation

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Chapter 1—Biochemistry and the Organization of Cells MULTIPLE CHOICE

4. Which of the following is true about ionic compounds?

6. Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?

8. Which of the following molecules is polar?

9. Which of the following molecules is amphipathic?

10. Which of the following classes of compounds is hydrophilic?

11. Which of the following classes of compounds is hydrophobic?

14. A micelle is a structure which

15. The substance most likely to form a micelle is

18. Hydrogen bonds

21. Which of the following is true regarding hydrogen bonds.

22. In a hydrogen bond

24. Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonds is false?

29. Hydrogen bonds explain which of the following properties of water?

31. Which of the following is a true statement?

32. Which of the following compounds is most likely to form a micelle?

36. Is water an acid or a base?

37. For an acid that undergoes this reaction:

39. Bases are

45. The pH of a solution of 0.04 M HCl is:

46. The pOH a solution of 0.04 M HCl is:

48. If a solution has a pH = 9.6, the [H+] is

49. What is the pH of a solution with [H+] = 10 mM?

51. If a solution has a pH = 6, the [H+] is

54. In a titration of a weak acid by a strong base

56. When does a weak acid buffer best?

58. Which of the following is true?

63. Buffering capacity refers to

moles of H2CO3 moles of HCO 3–

68. A buffer solution

69. The main intracellular buffer system is

Buffer pK1 pK2 pK3

78. Which of the following is not true?

79. The main blood buffer system is

4. Which of the following has no L or D configuration?

6. The amino acids which occur in proteins

7. Which of the following is an amino acid not found in proteins?

8. Which amino acid has the one-letter symbol E?

9. Which amino acid has the three-letter symbol asn?

10. Which is a correct pair of abbreviations for an amino acid?

11. Which amino acid has a benzene-like ring?

12. Which amino acid is classified as polar?

14. Which of the following has a hydrophilic side chain?

16. Asp and Glu both have amides as side chains.

17. Thr and Ser both have hydroxyls as side chains.

18. The side chain of Met is a poor hydrogen bond donor.

21. Which amino acids contain sulfur?

26. Which amino acid has a polar, non-ionic R-group

27. Which amino acid has the least polar R-group H?

29. Which amino acid would likely be least water-soluble at pH 7.0

30. Which of the following is not considered an uncommon amino acid?

32. Which amino acid has a basic R group?

33. Which of the following can be considered a unique characteristic of histidine?

35. What is the charge on the tetrapeptide lys-lys-his-glu at pH 7?

39. The isoelectric pH of glycine is closest to

43. What is the predominant form of the amino acid abbreviated R at pH 7?

45. What is the predominant form of the amino acid abbreviated E at pH 7?

Amino acid α-carboxyl group pK a α-amino group pK a R-group pK

50. Refer to Exhibit 3A. Calculate the pI of ASN:

52. Refer to Exhibit 3A. Which one has a pI of 5.0?

53. Refer to Exhibit 3A. Calculate the pI of CYS?

55. At its isolectric pH, glycine will have

PTS: 1 OBJ: New in 7e TOP: Acid-Base Properties