Manufacturing Pharmacy

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statements or answer the question.
1. Which of the following is NOT used as a diluent or absorbent in the formulation of capsules?
a. Lactose
b. Magnesium carbonate
c. Kaolin
d. Light magnesium Oxide
e. Starch
2. The ___________________ come in contact with both the product and the propellant and therefore should be
resistant to both physical and chemical attack.
a. Valve
b. Dip tube
c. Actuator
d. Container
e. Propellant
3. The hydrocarbon base which is frequently used as a vehicle for ointment.
a. Cholesterol
b. Lanolin
c. Petroleum
d. Sorbitan monostearate monooleate
e. Mineral oil
4. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of water soluble bases that are used in the formulation of ointment?
a. It is composed of many polar group
b. Water is required for their preparation
c. It is also called greaseless ointment base
d. It softens or melts when applied to the skin
e. It is composed of many ether linkages
5. Which of the following is frequently used as a peel strip for transdermal patches?
a. Polyesters
b. Acrylic
c. Silicone
d. Polyisobutylene
e. Starch
6. _________ are substances that make up the major portion of tablet.
a. Binder
b. Glidant
c. Lubricant
d. Diluent
e. Disintegrant
7. Which of the following is NOT used as a diluent in the formulation of a tablet?
a. Celutab
b. Corn starch
c. Lactose
d. Avicel
e. Ethyl cellulose
8. It is frequently used as a diluent in the formulation of chewable tablet.
a. Mannitol
b. Celutab
c. Avicel
d. Lactose
e. Sucrose
9. Method of preparing sodium chloride tablet.
a. Direct compression
b. Granulation by compression
c. Wet granulation
d. Spray drying
e. Slugging
10. _________ is the removal of the edges of tablets.
a. Capping
b. Cracking
c. Mottling
d. Chipping
e. Lamination
11. _________ are powders agglomerated to produce larger free-flowing particles.
a. Tablets
b. Granules
c. Capsules
d. Suppository
 e. Ointment
12. When the ________is depressed the aerosol will deliver a spray precise volume.
a. Propellant
b. Valve
c. Actuator
d. Dip tube
e. Container
13. Transdermal delivery system used for the treatment of angina.
a. Estradiol
b. Glyceryl trinitrate
c. Nicotine
d. Hyoscine
e. None of the above
14. In adults, what is the common site for intramuscular injection?
a. Gluteals
b. Deltoid
c. Abdomen
d. Pectoralis
e. Thigh
15. A volume of about 0.1 mL is injected into the skin between the epidermis and the dermis
a. Intramuscular
b. Intravenous
c. Intradermal
d. Intra-arterial
e. Intra cardiac
16. Test animal used in Pyrogen Test.
a. Pigeon
b. Swiss mice
c. Guinea pig
d. Rabbit
e. Dog
17. Yellow ointment is a hydrocarbon base. What is the synonym for yellow ointment?
a. White petroleum jelly
b. Yellow petrolatum
c. Petroleum jelly
d. Simple ointment
e. Liquid petrolatum
18. What is the function of sorbic acid in the formulation of ointment?
a. Ointment base
b. Vehicle
c. Active ingredient
d. Preservative
e. Flavorant
19. What is the therapeutic use of Zinc Oxide Paste?
a. Protectant
b. Antifungal
c. Antiprupritec
d. Analgesic
e. Antiseptic
20. What gives calamine its characteristic pink color?
a. Zinc oxide
b. Ferric oxide
c. Lead oxide
d. Hydrogen sulfide
e. Lead sulfide
21. What is the smallest capsule size?
a. 000
b. 00
c. 0
d. 1
e. 5
22. Opacifying agent used in the production of opaque hard gelatin capsules
a. Titanium dioxide
b. Titanium oxide
c. Zinc oxide
d. Lactose
e. Starch
23. ___________ tablets are tablets with a coating that resists dissolution in the stomach but not in the intestines.
a. Enteric coated
b. Sugar coated
c. Film coated
 d. Effervescent
e. Sublingual
24. Minimum permitted force for a satisfactory hard tablet.
a. 2 kg
b. 7 kg
c. 3 kg
d. 4kg
e. 1 kg
25. Commonly used lubricant in the formulation of tablets.
a. Lactose
b. Starch
c. Mannitol
d. Celutab
e. Magnesium stearate
26. A natural gum best used as a tablet binder when dry since it is difficult to disperse and forms a very heavy
mucilage in water.
a. Acacia
b. Tragacanth
c. Gelatin
d. Alginic acid
27. Materials which help the tablet break up and dissolve to release the medicament are called:
a. Anti-adherents
b. Solubilizing agents
c. Disintegrants
d. Diluents
28. This type of excipient must be added when lactose is used as a diluent in tablet manufacture.
a. Glidant
b. Lubricant
c. Anti-adherents
d. Buffers
29. The mesh size of regular lactose, USP
a. 20-40
b. 40-60
c. 60-80
d. 80-100
30. What is the effect on the tablet formulation if too much binder is added?
a. Tablet produced will be coarse and dry
b. Larger quantity of lubricants will be required to facilitate tablet ejection
c. Premature dissolution of active ingredient may occur particularly when wet binders are used
d. Mottling of tablet surfaces may occur for colored granules
e. None of the above
31. What may happen to tablets if inadequate quantities of lubricants are used?
a. Tablet produced may be harder to disintegrate.
b. Tablets may be ejected too easily from the machine.
c. Formed tablets may have oily spots.
d. Formed tablets may have irregular striations on the edges.
32. The most efficient type of motion in sieving
a. Vibratory
b. Rotary
c. Side-tap
d. Bottom-tap
33. All of the following glass types may be subjected to the Powdered Glass Test except:
a. Highly resistant borosilicated glass
b. Treated soda-lime glass
c. Soda-lime glass
d. General purpose soda lime glass
34. The color of amber glass is produced largely by the presence of:
a. Iron oxide
b. Titanium dioxide
c. Magnesium oxide
d. Silicon dioxide
35. The following animals may be used in evaluating the toxicity plastic materials based on USP test procedures
EXCEPT:
a. Dogs
b. Rabbits
c. Mice
d. None of the above
36. Types of glass used for buffered aqueous solution with pH below 7.0
a. Type I glass
b. Type II glass
c. Type III glass
 d. NP
37. The following are tests that evaluate the flammability and combustibility of pharmaceutical aerosols except:
a. Flash point
b. Vapor pressure
c. Flame extension
d. Closed drum test
38. Type of mill used for tough, fibrous materials
a. Hammer mill
b. Ball mill
c. Roller mill
d. Cutting mill
39. The common name for FD & C Red #2
a. Amaranth
b. Erythrosine
c. Ponceau SX
d. Carmine
40. Film coating defect that occurs as a consequence when products are processed under exceedingly humid
conditions
a. Spotting
b. Blistering
c. Bloom
d. Orange peel
41. Film coating defect that refers to the presence of mottled areas on the film coat due to migration of plasticizers,
dyes and other additives in the formulation.
a. Mottling
b. Blistering
c. Spotting
d. Bloom
42. These are excipients composed of inorganic materials which are used to provided added hiding or covering
power to tablet coating solutions:
a. Colorants
b. Opaquant-extenders
c. Plasticizers
d. Lakes
43. Coating process/es which serves to separate the tablet core from the water
a. Seal coat
b. Subcoat
c. Syrup coat
d. All of the above
44. A step in tablet sugar coating that involves the application of syrup concentrate to build up slid color rapidly.
a. Subcoating
b. Regular syruping
c. Heavy syruping
d. Grossing
45. Separation of the tablet into two or more distinct layers are called
a. Capping
b. Lamination
c. Blistering
d. Flaking
46. Tablet excipients that reduce interparticulate friction to ensure smooth and uniform flow of materials from larger
through smaller apertures in tablet presses are called:
a. Dusting agent
b. Lubricant
c. Anti-adherents
d. Glidants
47. Determination of moisture for effervescent tablets is conducted through:
a. Paar calorimeter
b. Karl Fisher method
c. Loss on drying
d. Azeotropic method
48. Tablet defect which may be revealed through the friability test or by shaking tablets vigorously in cupped hands.
a. Sticking
b. Lamination
c. Picking
d. Double impression
49. The number of tablet samples which must be assayed for Content Uniformity according to USP
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 30
50. Type of mill used for the reduction of solid particle size and for dispersion of suspensions containing poorly
wetted solids
a. Hammer
b. Rotor stator
c. Impact
d. Fluid-energy
51. Dispersion of high concentrations of insoluble powdered substances in a fatty or aqueous base
a. Creams
b. Lotions
c. Ointment
d. Pastes
52. Classification of temperature between 8C and 15C
a. Cold
b. Cool
c. Controlled room temperature
d. Warm
e. None of the above
53. Pyrogens are produced by
a. Gram negative bacteria
b. Gram positive bacteria
c. Fungi
d. All of the above
54. The following tests official in USP/NF except:
a. Pyrogen test
b. Sterility test
c. Clarity test
d. Bacterial endotoxin test
55. Mouthwash is an example of
a. Oral solution
b. Topical solution
c. Otic solution
d. Nasal solution
56. To make a solution of a solid in a solvent, the concentration of the solid in the solvent
I. Must be below the solubility of the solid in that solvent
II. Must be above the solubility of the solid in that solvent
III. Must be at the solubility of the solid in that solvent
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. I and III
57. It is the major concern with regards to the physical stability of the solutions
a. Dissolution
b. Precipitation
c. Microbiological stability
d. Compatibility
58. Humectant is one of the basic ingredients of a mouthwash. Its usual concentration is
a. 5-25%
b. 5-20%
c. 10-20%
d. 10-25%
59. One of the economic considerations regarding processing in the selection of mixers includes
a. Miscibility
b. Processing time
c. Maintenance
d. Cost of equipment
60. It is defined as a process that tends to result in a randomization of dissimilar particles within a system
a. Blending
b. Mixing
c. Filtration
d. Homogenization
61. Carbomer, as suspending agent, has a usual concentration of
a. 0.5-1.0%
b. 0.5-2.0%
c. 0.1-0.5%
d. 0.5-1.5%
62. Carbomer, as a gelling agent, has a usual concentration of
a. 0.5-1.0%
b. 0.5-2.0%
c. 0.1-0.5%
d. 0.5-1.5%
63. Agents that can neutralize carbomer include
 I. NaOH
II. KOH
III. Polar Organic Amines
IV. Strong Electrolytes
a. I only
b. I and II
c. I, II and III
d. III only
64. The following are functional categories if triethanolamine, except
a. Alkalizing agent
b. Emulsifying agent
c. Solubilizing agent
d. Suspending agent
65. Gel-based alcohol is an example of a/an
a. Aqueous solution
b. Non aqueous solution
c. Emulsion
d. Suspension
66. The following are FD&C certified red dyes that exhibit good stability in the presence of light, acid, and alkali
preparation, except
a. FD&C Yellow #5
b. FD&C Yellow #6
c. FD&C Red #40
d. FD&C Blue #4
67. The following are characteristics of gels, except
a. Water washable
b. Occlusive
c. Can absorb additional water
d. Lipid-free
68. The following are classified under suspension, except
a. Gels
b. Lotions
c. Magmas and milk
d. Liniments
69. A suspending agent that requires a high speed equipment and which is suitable for internal and external use
a. Carbomer
b. Bentonite
c. Sodium alginate
d. Tragacanth
70. It is employed to allow the displacement of air from hydrophobic materials and permit the continuous liquid
phase to surround the particles
a. Wetting agent
b. Suspending agent
c. Flavoring agent
d. Flocculating agent
71. Excess wetting agent may lead to the following
I. Foaming
II. Unpleasant taste
III. Caking
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I, II, III
72. Xanthan gum, as flocculating agent, is classified under
a. Surfactant
b. Hydrophilic polymer
c. Clay
d. Electrolyte
73. The following are true for production areas for pharmaceuticals, except
a. Access is restricted to authorized personnel
b. Non-medicinal products should not be produced
c. Provisions should be made for proper air control
d. Performance of in-process controls is prohibited
74. The following can avoid cross contamination, except
a. Conducting campaign production
b. Recirculating of air
c. Wearing protective clothing
d. Using cleanliness status labels
75. Ointment base which allows absorption of serous discharges
a. Hydrocarbon base
b. Absorption base
 c. Water-removable base
d. Water-soluble base
76. The following are penetration enhancers, except
a. Carbomer
b. Glycerin
c. Propylene glycol
d. Water
77. Water, as a solvent in wet granulation
a. Has the advantage of not being flammable
b. Has the advantage of adversely affecting drug stability due to extended exposure to heat
c. Requires less drying time than organic solvents
d. Both a and b
78. In wet granulation, the proper amount of binder should be added because
a. Insufficient wetting will result to hard granules
b. Over wetting will result to soft granules
c. Overly wet materials would prolong processing
d. Both A and B
79. Wet granulation
a. Always requires both a solvent and a binder or an adhesive
b. Always requires a solvent
c. Always requires a binder or adhesive
d. All of the above
80. Magnesium stearate should be present in not more than 1% w/w of the formulation because
a. An increase in disintegration time results beyond this limit
b. A decrease in disintegration time results beyond this limit
c. Granules become too flowable beyond this limit
d. None of the above
81. Milling of dry ingredients is done to
a. Facilitate uniform blending in the mixing step
b. Remove or break lumps
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
82. Metallic strearates are usually passed through fine mesh screens before mixing with the granules to
a. Increase their covering power
b. Reduce the amount required
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
83. Dry granulation is used for active ingredients which are
a. Prone to solvent degradation
b. Unstable in heat and drying process
c. Either a or b
d. None of the above
84. For a dry granulation process, given that the weight of all ingredients is 104 grams and the batch size is 400
tablets, what is the average tablet weight?
a. 385 mg
b. 260 mg
c. Insufficient data
d. None of the above
85. Packaging and storage of sterile water for injection
a. Type III glass containers, single dose
b. Type II glass, single dose
c. Type III glass, multiple dose
d. None of the above
86. Mechanism of action of saturated steam under pressure
a. Coagulation of cellular proteins
b. Oxidation
c. Alkylation
d. Lethal mutation
87. Mechanism of action of radioactive isotopes for sterilization
a. Coagulation of cellular proteins
b. Oxidation
c. Alkylation
d. Lethal mutation
88. Mechanism of action of oven for sterilization
a. Coagulation of cellular proteins
b. Oxidation
c. Alkylation
d. Lethal mutation
89. Mechanism of action of ethylene oxide gas for sterilization
a. Coagulation of cellular proteins
b. Oxidation
 c. Alkylation
d. Lethal mutation
90. Minimum requirement for efficiency of HEPA filter
a. 99.99% effective against 0.3 microns
b. 99.97% effective against 0.3 microns
c. 99.97% effective against 0.5 microns
d. 99.99% effective against 0.2 microns
91. Limits of bacterial endotoxin of sterile water for injection
a. Less than 0.25 USP Endotoxin Unit per mL
b. Less than 0.25 USP Endotoxin Unit per 100 mL
c. Less than 0.50 USP Endotoxin Unit per mL
d. Less than 0.20 USP Endotoxin Unit per mL
92. Surfactants are compounds with hydrophobic and hydrophilic portion to the following, except
a. Wetting
b. Foaming
c. Rinsability
d. Viscosity
93. Type of surfactant preferred for sensitive skin
a. Amphoteric
b. Nonionic
c. Cationic
d. Anionic
94. In case of coated tablets, it is a film defect caused by rapid drying or inadequate solution after each application
of coating solution
a. Blistering
b. Sweating
c. Orange peel
d. Wrinkling
95. Presence of an oily film or droplets of liquid on the surface of the coat which may indicate incompatibilities in the
film.
a. Blistering
b. Sweating
c. Orange peel
d. Wrinkling
96. The following are examples of true antioxidant except
a. BHA
b. Lecithin
c. BHT
d. Tocopherols
97. Which type of glass is recommended for dry powders and oleaginous preparations but not for preparations with
water.
a. Type II
b. NP
c. Type III
d. Type I
98. Cold sterilization refers to the removal of particulate matter down to the smallest size of
a. 2 microns
b. 0.2 microns
c. 0.3 microns
d. 0.5 microns
99. Dehydrogenation may be done by the following methods, EXCEPT:
a. Heating at 240C for 30 minutes
b. Boil with strong acid
c. Reverse osmosis
d. Distillation
100. Mannitol when used in parenterals acts as
a. Solubilizer
b. Isotonicity adjuster
c. Antioxidant
d. Preservative
101. Mechanism of action of dry heat sterilization is by
a. Coagulation of cellular protein
b. Oxidation
c. Sieving
d. Alkylation
102. A mechanism for determining and assigning necessary duties to people so they can work together effectively
is the
a. Chart
b. Quality rules
c. Organization
d. Management
103. The management guide which combine the chart and position description is considered as the
a. First basic tool
b. Second basic tool
c. Third basic tool
d. Fourth basic tool
104. The basic element of an organization where the types of work must be identified and grouped logically on
related elements is the
a. Delegation of authority
b. Determination of interrelationship among functions
c. Division of responsibility
d. None of the above
105. The basic tool that clearly defines the authority, duty or responsibility of the areas in the chart is the
a. Position description
b. Organizational planning
c. Organizational manual
d. Chart description
106. The organizational chart can
a. Reveals little about working relationships
b. Assess strength and weaknesses in functions and personnel
c. Indicate delegated authority
d. Reveal company objectives and policies
107. It functions to investigate customer complaints or inquiries on product quality.
a. Central release section
b. Chemical control section
c. Inspection and checking section
d. Specification/Assay Dev. Section
108. It establishes the objectives and determines the basic policies and the general courses of the business.
a. Level I
b. Level II
c. Level III
d. NOTA
109. The specification and Assay Development Section is under the
a. Central release section
b. Technical director’s department
c. Chemical control section
d. Inspection/checking section
110. The section which samples retention or reserved samples withdrawn from the packaging line for FP’s and from
the warehouse for the RM’s.
a. Chemical control section
b. Inspection and checking section’
c. Technical/QC section
d. Central release section
111. Standard Operating Procedures are written for the following operations EXCEPT
a. Calibration of equipment
b. Receipt of materials and records
c. Consumer’s information records
d. Recall procedures
112. An establishment which is a registered owner of the drug product, procures the materials and packaging
components and provides the production monograph and quality control standards and procedures is the
a. Drug importer
b. Drug trader
c. Drug supplier
d. Drug manufacturer
113. The following are examples of common product complaints, EXCEPT:
a. Misbranding
b. Adulteration
c. Counterfeit
d. Elegance
114. Stage of research which involves manufacturing requirements, reviews basic information, product control and
patent application is the
a. Applied Research Stage
b. Clinical Research Stage
c. Pharmaceutical Research Stage
d. Preliminary Research Stage
115. The following are the usual criteria and standards for raw materials specifications, EXCEPT:
a. Refractive index
b. Crystal shape
c. Authenticity
d. Identification
116. The section responsible for the conduct of stability studies is the
a. Chemical control and testing section
 b. Central release section
c. Assay and specification section
d. Inspection and checking section
117. An element of the organization where types of work area are identified and grouped logically according to
related elements is referred to as
a. Determining duties of people
b. Harmonious interrelationship among functions
c. Delegation of authority
d. Division of responsibility
118. It implies a procedure by which decisions are made regarding whether the production is processing as
planned.
a. Master formula
b. Control
c. Sampling
d. Monitoring
119. The ability of a particular formulation in a specific container to remain within its physical, chemical, therapeutic
and toxicological specification is called
a. Overage
b. Shelf-life
c. Validation
d. Stability
120. The period of stability of a preparation is the time from the date of manufacture until its chemical or biological
activity
a. Has deteriorated
b. Is close to 100%
c. Is not less than 90% of the labeled potency
d. Has reached its maximum
121. An important parameter considered for the stability of drug products is
a. Loss of elegance
b. Increase in potency
c. Loss of moisture content
d. Loss of activity
122. Biological characterization of new drugs involve the following studies, EXCEPT:
a. Pharmacology
b. Physical pharmacy
c. Toxicology
d. Pharmacokinetics
123. Cross contamination can come from the following, EXCEPT:
a. Unclean clothing
b. Airborne particles
c. Improper dispensing
d. Inaccuracies in mix-ups
124. The color for quarantine sticker is
a. Green
b. Yellow
c. White
d. Red
125. An example of primary packaging material is a
a. Insert
b. Brochure
c. Label
d. Seal
126. The following are important document in the manufacture of drugs and cosmetics, EXCEPT:
a. Manufacturing monographs
b. Batch records
c. CGMP guidelines
d. Standard operating procedures
127. To prevent microbial contamination contributed by people, it is best to
a. Practice good personal hygiene
b. Tolerate injuries and illness
c. Clean equipment properly
d. Conduct quality control test
128. One good reason for inspecting the quality of the product during packaging and labeling operation is
a. To prevent mix-ups and errors
b. To monitor uniform labeling
c. To ensure approval of the product
d. To allow ease of reconciliation
129. Retention period for finished products should be
a. At least 2 years after the distribution of the first lot
b. One year after the expiration date of the product
c. At least 3 years after the manufacture is completed
 d. At least 1 year after the expiration date of the last lot
130. Unclean clothing can contribute to
a. Cross contamination
b. Particulate contamination
c. Mix-ups
d. Microbial contamination
131. Republic Act No. 6675 is known as
a. Pharmacy Law
b. Food, Drugs, and Cosmetics Act
c. Narcotic Drug Regulation
d. Generics Act of 1988
132. In the formulation of liquids, the following consideration should be studied, EXCEPT:
a. Availability
b. Viscosity
c. Organoleptic characteristics
d. Stability
133. A tamper-evident packaging where a band is shrunked by heat or dried to conform to cap is the
a. Bottle seal
b. Strip pack
c. Shrink seal
d. Tape seal
134. The following qualities are tested for containers, EXCEPT:
a. Breakability
b. Drug compatibility
c. Toxicity
d. Light transmission
135. An example of non-aqueous solution is
a. Spray
b. Juice
c. Oleovitamin
d. Douche
136. Before a medicinal agent is formulated into one or more dosage forms, the following therapeutic matters are
considered, EXCEPT:
a. Gender
b. Manner of treatment(local or systemic)
c. Nature of illness
d. Age
137. An ideal preservative should be
a. Nonreactive with microbes
b. Available at all times
c. Incorporated in small amounts only
d. Effective against broad spectrum microbes
138. A preservative used in ophthalmic and nasal preparation is
a. Boric acid
b. Methyl paraben
c. Cetylpyridinium chloride
d. Phenol
139. The last step in the compounding procedure for liquid preparation prior to filling is
a. Nitrogen flushing
b. Volume adjustment
c. Filtration
d. Test for pH
140. The rapid formation of aggregates of emulsion droplets is called
a. Precipitation
b. Coalescence
c. Aggregation
d. Flocculation
141. The information that gives an indication of particle size and size range of the raw material along with the crystal
structure is the
a. Microscopic examination
b. Physical description
c. Particle size
d. Solubility
142. A major process by which foreign substances, including drugs, are eliminated from the body is called
a. Metabolism
b. Distribution
c. Absorption
d. Liberation
143. The main concerns for the formulation of suspensions are the following, EXCEPT:
a. To eliminate separation on standing
b. To create the required particle size
 c. To decrease rate of settling
d. To permit easy resuspendability
144. The type of suspension system in which the particles settles as a dense sediment is called
a. Flocculated system
b. Colloidal system
c. Coagulated system
d. Deflocculated system
145. The following are suspending agents on suspension formulations, EXCEPT:
a. Tween 80
b. Carbopol
c. Methocel
d. Gelatin
146. The required amount of methyl and propyl paraben combinations as preservatives employed in pharmaceutical
products is
a. 0.1-0.2%
b. 0.1-0.5%
c. 15-20%
d. 0.002-0.01%
147. The study of the deformation and flow of liquid and semi-solid preparations referred to as
a. Emulsification
b. Suspendability
c. Compatibility study
d. Rheology
148. Particle size can be influenced by the following factors, EXCEPT:
a. Penetrability of particles intended to be inhaled for deposition deep in the respiratory tract
b. Grittiness of solid particles
c. Uniform distribution of a drug substance
d. Suspendability of particles intended to remain undissolved but uniformly dispersed in liquid vehicle
149. The method of mixing or blending small amounts of powders by movement of spatula through them on a sheet
of paper or ointment slab is called
a. Levigation
b. Comminution
c. Spatulation
d. Trituration
150. Solid preparations made up of sodium bicarbonate, citric acid, and tartaric acid are referred to as
a. Effervescent granules
b. Bulk powder
c. Divided powder
d. Aerosol granules
151. Hard gelatin capsules contain ______% of water
a. 12-16
b. 10-20
c. 0.1-1
d. 1-10
152. Which of the following ingredient is not present in hard gelatin capsule?
a. Diluent
b. Binder
c. Lubricant
d. Disintegrant
153. The following quality control tests apply to both hard gel and soft gel capsules, EXCEPT:
a. Disintegration test
b. Moisture permeation test
c. Content uniformity
d. Dissolution test
154. Tablets that are prepared by subjection to more than a single compression are called
a. Enteric-coated tablets
b. Film-coated tablets
c. Multiple compressed tablets
d. Molded tablets
155. Small, usually cylindrical, molded or compressed tablets containing small amounts of usually potent drugs are
known as
a. Dispensing tablets
b. Chewable tablets
c. Hypodermic tablets
d. Tablet triturates
156. An agent that “glue” powders together and cause them to form granules is the
a. Diluent
b. Binder
c. Glidant
d. Disintegrant
157. Metallic stearates are examples of
 a. Disintegrants
b. Anti-adherents
c. Binders
d. Lubricants
158. The IPQC Test that determines the durability of a tablet and its ability to withstand abrasion in handling,
packaging and shipment; USP requires a maximum weight loss of not more than 1% is the
a. Tablet hardness
b. Tablet disintegration
c. Tablet thickness
d. Friability test
159. An ointment base which is anhydrous, water-insoluble and cannot absorb water is
a. Absorption base
b. Oleaginous base
c. Emulsion base
d. Water-soluble base
160. An example of a base that is washable in water and absorbs water is
a. Cold cream
b. PEG Ointment
c. Vanishing cream
d. Hydrous woolfat
161. A satisfactory suppository base should pass the following criteria, EXCEPT:
a. Should be nonsensitizing
b. Should dissolve rapidly in the cavity fluid
c. Should be firm
d. Should remain solid at room temperature
162. The following are the methods used for the preparation of suppositories, EXCEPT:
a. Congealing
b. Hand rolling
c. Fusion
d. Compression
163. Solid dosage forms intended to pass through the stomach intact to disintegrate and release their drug content
for absorption along the intestines are called
a. Molded triturates
b. Gelatin capsules
c. Chewable tablets
d. Enteric-coated tablets
164. Drug delivery systems that facilitate the passage of therapeutic quantities of drug substances through the skin
by means of percutaneous absorption and into the general circulation for systemic effects.
a. Transdermal drugs
b. Cream patches
c. Medicated plasters
d. Tablets
165. A special quality control test done for suspensions to measure the degree of air entrapped is called
a. Specific gravity
b. Coulter counter
c. Photomicroscopy
d. Physical stability
166. The following are characteristics of flocculates system of suspensions, EXCEPT:
a. The sediment is formed slowly
b. The flocculated suspensions exhibit plastic or pseudo plastic behavior
c. Particles in the suspension are in the form of loose agglomerates
d. The sediment is easily redispersed by small amount of agitation
167. A dilute concentration of suspension contains
a. 1-5% (w/v) solids
b. 2-10% (w/v) solids
c. 10-50% (w/v) solids
d. 50% (w/v) solids
168. The weight requirement for a rectal suspension contains
a. 2 g
b. 1g
c. 4g
d. 5g
169. Substances used to cause adhesion of powder particles in tablet granulations are called
a. Disintegrants
b. Binders
c. Diluents
d. Glidants
170. Excipient used to prevent the drying of preparations, particularly ointments and creams is called
a. Humectant
b. Vehicle
c. Plasticizer
 d. Solvent
171. A non-greasy emulsion base with pH close to that of the skin is the
a. Unibase
b. Hydrophilic Petroleum
c. Lanolin
d. Dermovan
172. Products that are prone to decomposition by moisture generally are packed with a
a. Tight container
b. Vacuum seal
c. Absorbent cotton
d. Dessicant packet
173. The term that describes dosage forms having drug release features based on time, course, and/or location that
are designed to accomplish therapeutic or convenience objectives not offered by conventional forms is
a. Repeat Action
b. Extended Release
c. Modified Release
d. Delayed Release
174. A process by which solids, liquids, or even gases may be enclosed in microscopic particles by formation of thin
coatings of wall material around the substance is known as
a. Complex Formation
b. Microcompression
c. Film Coating
d. Microencapsulation
175. The best solvent used for the preparation of oral liquid dosage forms is
a. Purified Water, USP
b. Sterile Water for Injection, USP
c. Distilled Water, USP
d. Mineral Water
176. The sweetening agent employed to impart sweetness to chewable tablets is
a. Dextrose
b. Saccharin Sodium
c. Mannitol
d. Sucrose
177. An inert filter that creates the desired bulk, flow properties, and compression characteristics of tablets and
capsules is called
a. Lubricant
b. Surfactant
c. Diluent
d. Anti-adherents
178. Process employed both to comminute and mix powders is called
a. Trituration
b. Blending
c. Spatulation
d. Levigation
179. Tablets that are flat and oval which are intended to be dissolved beneath the tongue are called
a. Effervescent tablets
b. Molded tablets
c. Sublingual tablets
d. Buccal tablets
180. The test done for parenterals for the presence of bacterial endotoxins is the
a. Sterility test
b. Pyrogen test
c. Rabbit test
d. Limulus Amebocyte Tests
181. The following are methods of sterilization for parenteral products, EXCEPT:
a. Steam sterilization
b. Boiling
c. Filtration
d. Gas sterilization
182. Route of administration of parenterals or injections that provide effects that are less rapid bur generally longer
lasting is the
a. Intradermal route
b. Subcutaneous route
c. Intravenous route
d. Intramuscular route
183. Pressurized dosage forms that upon actuation emit a fine dispersion of liquid and/or solid materials containing
one or more active ingredients in a gaseous medium are known as
a. Inhalations
b. Aerosols
c. Sprays
d. Inhalants
184. A homogenous mixture of one or more solute dissolved or molecularly dispersed in a solvent is called
a. Emulsion
b. Syrup
c. Solution
d. Suspension
185. Which of the following is NOT considered in the preparation of pharmaceutical solutions?
a. Chemical modification
b. Absorption or penetration
c. Stability
d. Solubility
186. Which of the following is NOT a physical property of a solution?
a. Clarity
b. Odor
c. Vehicle
d. Viscosity
187. The best solvent to use for oral solutions is the
a. Diluted Alcohol, USP
b. Purified Water, USP
c. Propylene Glycol
d. Alcohol, USP
188. Which of the following is NOT an example of sterile solution/preparation?
a. Dialysis solution
b. Pellets of implants
c. Prefilled syringe
d. Diagnostic solution
189. A disadvantage of parenterals is
a. It needs to be administered by a professionally trained person
b. Difficulty in correcting error
c. Not recommended for patients who cannot take oral medications
d. It has immediate and controlled physiological effects
190. A functional requirement for Rubber Closures is
a. It should be easily subjected to sterilization.
b. It should not provide protection against bacterial contamination.
c. It should not make bacteria-proof seals.
d. It should provide complete barrier against vapor transport.
191. A suspension of a drug that can be formulated for topical application is
a. Calamine Lotion
b. Oxytetracycline Suspension
c. Chloramphenicol palmitate suspension
d. Prednisolone suspension
192. One of the following situations can avoid cross contaminations and mix-ups.
a. Components are tightly sealed.
b. Improper partitioning of working areas.
c. Components are improperly dispersed.
d. Wrong label
193. Aspilet tablets for children are
a. Sublingual
b. Buccal
c. Chewable
d. Soluble
194. Quarantined materials delivered in the warehouse are
a. Subject to test and assay
b. Releasable to production department
c. Rejectable
d. In-process products
195. Advantages of plastic containers over glass, EXCEPT:
a. Lightness in weight
b. Permeability
c. Lower cost
d. Resistant to impact
196. Used for mixing powder mixtures in large volume quantity
a. Drum roller
b. V-blender
c. Planetary mixer
d. Compactor mills
197. It is used for compacting the materials in the tablet machine.
a. Hopper
b. Feed frame
c. Dies
d. Punches
198. HEPA filters are used for the filtration of
 a. Parenterals
b. Ophthalmics
c. Air
d. Solvents
199. Which of the following is NOT classified as a lubricant?
a. Lactose
b. Talc
c. Stearic acid
d. Calcium stearate
200. The container of choice for ointments.
a. Plastics
b. Glass
c. Wide mouth bottle
d. Collapsible tubes
201. Excessive use of binders in tablets affects
a. Bioavailability
b. Disintegration
c. Dissolution
d. AOTA
202. Methods used for the incorporation of small amounts of potent drugs with a large amount of diluent.
a. Spatulation
b. Sifting
c. Geometric dilution
d. Levigation
203. These are gas sterilants EXCEPT
a. Carbon Dioxide
b. Formaldehyde
c. Beta propiolactone
d. Sulfur dioxide
204. Method that will produce tablets of best quality.
a. Direct compression
b. Wet granulation
c. Dry granulation
d. AOTA
205. The attire or uniform used in parenteral production include
a. Cover-all
b. Facemasks
c. Boots and gloves
d. All of the above
206. Suspension adjunct used to prevent the product from drying at topical application.
a. Sweetening agent
b. Humectant
c. Preservative
d. Emollient
207. The following are natural emulsifying agent EXCEPT
a. Tween 80
b. Acacia
c. Agar
d. Gelatin
208. Solubility maybe enhanced through
a. Application of heat
b. Agitation
c. Reduction of particle size
d. All of the above
209. The period in which the product remain acceptable for use.
a. Stability
b. Shelf life
c. Accelerated stability studies
d. All of the above
210. A very simple, sensitive, and fast test for pyrogens using the amebocyte of te horseshoe crab.
a. Pyrogent test
b. LAL test
c. Rabbit test
d. Crab test
211. An agent that acts between surfaces in relative motion to prevent friction and wear.
a. Diluent
b. Binder
c. Disintegrant
d. Lubricant
212. Substance that glue powders together that cause them to form granules.
a. Diluent
 b. Lubricant
c. Binder
d. Disintegrant
213. Aggregates of powders which adhere or bond to each other to form larger particles.
a. Powders
b. Granules
c. Microcapsules
d. Pellets
214. The relative intensity of a fragrance impression.
a. Dry out
b. Body
c. Strength
d. Thin
215. __________is a blend of fragrant complexes culminating in an intense heavy full-bodied fragrance.
a. Cologne-blend
b. Oriental
c. Bouquet
d. Floral
216. Which of the following is an example of animal secretion that is used in the formulation of fragrances?
a. Benzoin
b. Eugenol
c. Myrrh
d. Ambergris
217. Which of the following is used as flower oil in the formulation of fragrances?
a. Jasmine absolute
b. Clove oil
c. Myrrh
d. Cinnamon oil
218. Which of the following is used as an antidandruff agent in the formulation of shampoos?
a. Isopropyl alcohol
b. Butyl alcohol
c. Propylene alcohol
d. Selenium sulfide
219. Which of the following is used as a clarifying agent in the formulation of shampoos?
a. Terpineol
b. Citric acid
c. Selenium disulfide
d. Behenic acid
220. Which of the following is used as an opacifying agent in the formulation of shampoos?
a. Lauric acid
b. Behenic acid
c. Propylene glycol
d. Lanolin
221. ___________ increase the quality, volume, and stability of lather of shampoo.
a. Conditioning agent
b. Opacifying agent
c. Clarifying agent
d. Foam builder
222. Which of the following is NOT used as a humectant I the formulation of tooth paste?
a. Glycerine
b. Sorbitol
c. Dichlorphene
d. Propylene glycol
223. Which of the following is frequently used as a sweetening agent in the formulation of toothpaste?
a. Saccharin
b. Calcium carbonate
c. Glycerin
d. Wintergreen
224. Which of the following is frequently used as a staining dye in lipsticks?
a. Carnauba wax
b. Lanolin
c. Eosine
d. Castor oil
225. _______________ is used in the formulation of face powder because it provodes water proofing properties.
a. Silicate
b. Zinc stearate
c. Magnesium carbonate
d. Calcium carbonate
226. It is composed of magnesium trisilicate. It is the basic ingredients of all powder formulations.
a. Magnesium carbonate
b. Calcium carbonate
 c. Talc
d. Kaolin
227. _______________ stiffens a cream.
a. Spermaceti
b. Ceresin
c. Lanolin
d. Beeswax
228. It is the purified honeycomb of the bee. It contributes to cream consistency.
a. Mineral oil
b. Beeswax
c. Cetyl alcohol
d. Cocoa butter
229. _______________ creams prevent skin melanogenesis.
a. Shaving
b. Hand
c. Suntan
d. Emollient
230. _______________ creams softens the skin.
a. Emollient
b. Cleansing
c. Shaving
d. Suntan
231. Which of the following statement is true?
a. The backing layer of transdermal patches should be impermeable.
b. None of the adhesive should stay on the peel strip.
c. The adhesive must hold the drug securely in place.
d. All of the above.
232. Largest capsule size.
a. 000
b. 0
c. 5
d. 1
233. Frequently employed method in the manufacture of ointments wherein the active ingredient is mixed with the
melted waxes and base.
a. Fusion method
b. Punch method
c. Dry granulation
d. Levigation
234. It is used as an antioxidant in the compounding of semisolid preparations.
a. Butylated hydroxyl toluene
b. Parabens
c. Sorbitan monostearate
d. Mineral oil
235. They are known as greaseless ointment bases.
a. Hydrocarbon bases
b. Absorption bases
c. Water removable bases
d. Water soluble bases
236. It can be applied to moist skin lesions because it can absorb discharges.
a. Hydrocarbon bases
b. Absorption bases
c. Water removable bases
d. Water soluble bases
237. It is a hydrocarbon base utilized as a vehicle in the compounding of semisolid preparations. And it spreads
easily on the skin.
a. Vanishing cream
b. Petroleum
c. Lanolin
d. Cholesterol
238. The ______________ come in contact with both the product and the propellant.
a. Propellant
b. Valve
c. Dip tubes
d. Actuator
239. The ______________ is responsible for developing the proper pressure within the container and it expels the
product.
a. Valve
b. Dip tubes
c. Propellant
d. Actuator
240. Which of the following is NOT a compressed gas?
 a. Nitrogen
b. Butane
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Carbon dioxide
241. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
a. Oral aerosols are intended for administration as fine particles or as liquid mist via the respiratory system
or nasal passages.
b. The particle size of the active ingredient of aerosols must be considerably below 50 micrometers.
c. Hydrocarbons have greater range of solubility than the fluorinated carbons.
d. Compressed gases do not expand.
242. Which of the following is an example of a soft gel capsule?
a. Squibb
b. Amoxicillin
c. Flanax Forte
d. Ponstan SF
243. It is used as an opacifying agent in hard gelatin capsules.
a. Triethanolamine
b. Sorbitol
c. Saccharin
d. Titanium dioxide
244. Which of the following is NOT a torche?
a. Strepsils
b. Dequadin
c. Valda Pastilles
d. Dulcolax
245. ________________ are discoid shaped solid containing the medicinal agent in suitably flavored base.
a. Capsules
b. Powders
c. Aerosols
d. Troches
246. It is added in hard gel capsule to prevent decomposition during manufacture.
a. Sulfur dioxide
b. Titanium dioxide
c. Glycerin
d. Sorbitol
247. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
a. Geometric dilution is not necessary for incorporation of small amounts of potent drug.
b. Sieving is necessary to achieve mixing or reduction of agglomerates.
c. Powders must be protected against humidity, air oxidation, and loss of volatile ingredients.
d. Divided powders are dispersed in the form of individual doses and packed in papers properly folded.
248. The process of reducing substances to fine particles by rubbing them in a mortar with pestle.
a. Trituration
b. Pulverization by intervention
c. Levigation
d. Fusion
249. Which of the following is used as an antioxidant in the formulation of parenterals?
a. Sodium chloride
b. Sodium hydroxide
c. Sodium citrate
d. Sodium EDTA
250. What is the use of nitrogen in the formulation of parenterals?
a. Buffer
b. Tonicity contributor
c. Preservative
d. Antioxidant
251. Which of the following is used as a preservative in the formulation of parenterals?
a. Sodium citrate
b. Sodium EDTA
c. Sodium chloride
d. Methyl paraben
252. What is the use Purified Water, USP in the formulation of parenterals?
a. Tonicity contributor
b. Preservative
c. Antioxidant
d. Vehicle
253. Which of the following is NOT used in gas sterilization?
a. Ethylene oxide
b. Beta propiolactone
c. Nitrogen
d. Sulfur dioxide
254. Which of the following is NOT true about autoclave?
 a. It makes use of moist heat.
b. It is considered a thermal process of sterilization.
c. It is considered as a chemical process of sterilization.
d. It is considered as a physical process of sterilization.
255. Nitrogen and carbon dioxide are examples of _________.
a. Synergist
b. Oxygen displacer
c. Reducing agent
d. Blocking agent
256. These are compounds that increase the effectiveness of antioxidants, particularly by blocking oxidative
reactions.
a. Blocking agents
b. Synergist
c. Chelating agent
d. Reducing agent
257. EDTA is classified as ________________.
a. Chelating agent
b. Synergist
c. Blocking agent
d. Oxygen displacer
258. Which of the following is NOT a blocking agent?
a. Sodium metabisulfide
b. Butyl hydroxytoluene
c. Ascorbic acid esters
d. NOTA
259. Ascorbic acid is classified as ______________.
a. Reducing agent
b. Blocking agent
c. Chelating agent
d. Oxygen displacer
260. Which of the following is NOT used as a preservative in parenteral preparations?
a. Benzyl alcohol
b. Methyl paraben
c. Propylene glycol
d. Chlorobutanol
261. Which of the following is NOT true about the Pyrogen Test?
a. It is designed to limit ta an acceptable level the risks of febrile reaction in the patient to the administration
by injection of a product.
b. Rabbit is used as test animal.
c. No individual rabbit should show a rise in temperature by 0.6 degrees Celsius.
d. The sum of the rise in temperature of 3 rabbits should not exceed 2.1 degrees Celsius.
262. What is the positive result for Bacterial Endotoxin Test?
a. Gel-clot formation
b. White precipitate
c. Green solution
d. Blue solution
263. What is the use of sorbitol in the formulation of Aluminum Hydroxide Gel, USP?
a. Sweetener
b. Flavorant
c. Viscosity builder
d. Vehicle
264. Which of the following is used as a preservative I the formulation of Aluminum Hydroxide Gel, USP?
a. Aluminum hydroxide
b. Sodium benzoate
c. Sodium saccharin
d. Distilled water
265. Which of the following is NOT true about the flocculated system of suspension?
a. It forms a clear particle free supernatant liquid and sediment.
b. Particles appear as floccules.
c. It frequently results in a poor suspension.
d. It exhibits a minimum of serious separation.
266. ______________ is used primarily to reduce the solid particle size and for the dispersion of suspension
containing particles.
a. Mechanical stirrers
b. Colloid mills
c. Homogenizer
d. Ultrasonifier
267. Which of the following is used to minimize the foam in the production of emulsion?
a. Spans
b. Cetyl alcohol
c. Tweens
 d. Acacia
268. Which of the following has to be considered in the formulation of emulsions?
a. Consistency that will provide the desired stability and flow characteristics of emulsion must be attained.
b. The use of preservative, since emulsion consist of a number of ingredients which support the growth of
bacteria, molds, and yeast.
c. Use of antioxidants.
d. All of the above.
269. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
a. Oxidation readily occurs in vegetable oils.
b. Oxidation in emulsion produces rancidity.
c. Oxidation produces emulsion with pleasant odor.
d. BHA and BHT are most commonly used in cosmetics and pharmaceutical preparations.
270. _____________ help the tablet to dissolve once it is in an aqueous medium.
a. Diluent
b. Binder
c. Colorant
d. Disintegrant
271. What is the use of lactose in the formulation of Acetaminophen tablet?
a. Binder
b. Diluent
c. Disintegrant
d. Lubricant
272. What is the use of starch paste on the formulation of Acetaminophen tablet?
a. Colorant
b. Flavorant
c. Binder
d. Lubricant
273. Which of the following is used as a lubricant in the formulation of Acetaminophen tablet?
a. Lactose
b. Corn starch
c. Starch paste
d. Magnesium stearate
274. What is the therapeutic use of acetaminophen?
a. Diuretic
b. Analgesic
c. Expectorant
d. Dietary supplement
275. What is the therapeutic use of Soda Mint Tablet?
a. Antacid
b. Astringent
c. Antifungal
d. Keratolytic
276. _________________ is the term used, when the upper or lower segment of the tablet separates horizontally,
either partially or completely from the main body of a tablet and comes off a cap, during ejection from the tablet
press, or during subsequent handling.
a. Lamination
b. Capping
c. Picking
d. Binding
277. _________________ is due to rapid expansion of tablets when deep concave punches are used.
a. Lamination
b. Cracking
c. Capping
d. Binding
278. _________________ is the separation of a tablet into 2 or more distinct horizontal layers.
a. Picking
b. Lamination
c. Sticking
d. Chipping
279. _________________ are small, fine cracks observed on the upper and lower central surface of tablets, or very
rarely on the sidewall.
a. Chipping
b. Cracking
c. Mottling
d. Lamination
280. _________________ are solid dosage forms in which the drug is enclosed in either a hard or a soft, soluble
shell of a suitable form of gelatin.
a. Tablets
b. Capsules
c. Ointments
d. Solutions
281. What capsule size has the approximate capacity of 0.098 to 0.13g of materials?
a. 5
b. 4
c. 2
d. 3
282. What is the common method employed by a pharmacist in filling of capsules?
a. Punch method
b. Ouch method
c. Dry gum method
d. Hunch method
283. _________________ capsule is made from the mixture of gelatin, sugar and water with or without suitable
coloring agents.
a. Hard
b. Soft
c. Either A or B
d. None of the above
284. What is the smallest capsule size?
a. 5
b. 1
c. 000
d. 0
285. What is the largest capsule size?
a. 5
b. 1
c. 000
d. 0
286. What is the appropriate capsule size for 0.65 to 1.82 materials?
a. 3
b. 1
c. 000
d. 0
287. Which of the following is NOT used in the formulation of Honey and Almond Cream?
a. White wax
b. Carnation oil
c. Stearic acid
d. Potassium carbonate
288. Which of the following id NOT used as a perfume in the formulation of Honey and Almond Cream?
a. Benzaldehyde
b. Rose oil
c. Coconut oil
d. Carnation oil
289. It is used as an opacifying agent and whitening pigment in the formulation of Face Powder.
a. Talc
b. Kaolin
c. Zinc oxide
d. Titanium dioxide
290. Which of the following is NOT used in the formulation of shampoo?
a. Lauric acid
b. Triethanolamine
c. Potassium carbonate
d. Glycerin
291. Which of the following is the active component of toothpaste?
a. Tawas
b. Glycerin
c. Hard soap
d. Precipitated calcium carbonate
292. Hair like string inside the bottle.
a. Overpress
b. Filament
c. Check
d. Split
293. Odd shapes and conditions that render the container completely unusable.
a. Freaks
b. Cracks
c. Stone
d. Splits
294. Partial fractures generally found in the hell area, but sometimes occurring at the shoulder.
a. Soft blister
b. Cracks
c. Stone
d. Mismatch
295. Small inclusion of any non-glass material.
a. Mismatch
b. Fin
c. Pinhole
d. Stone
296. A sunken center portion at the bottom of the bottle.
a. Soft blister
b. Freaks
c. Rocker bottom
d. Poor distribution
297. A wavy condition of horizontal lines in the body of the bottle.
a. Washboard
b. Hard blister
c. Seeds
d. Tear
298. Heavy glass on one side of the bottle.
a. Mark
b. Stuck
c. Long neck
d. Heel tap
299. Small bubbles in the glass.
a. Seeds
b. Stuck
c. Tear
d. Mark
300. __________________ for Injection USP is intended to be used within 24 hours following its collection.
a. Water
b. Purified Water
c. Sterile Water
d. Bacteriostatic Water