Assessment of Learning

DIRECTION: Read the statements carefully and write the letter of your
choice. Every erasure made will not be counted. Answer only items number
51-150. Do not answer 1-50 items anymore because it was already
answered during the diagnostic exam.

1. XYZ University wants an entrance test that can identify the future outcomes or
differences such as showing who will graduate from college or who will dropout. The
test has _________.
A. Curricular validity C. Construct validity
B. Content validity D. Predictive validity
2. Which of the following types of validity reflects the relationship between the content
of the lesson and instructional objectives of the program of studies?
A. Criterion validity C. Content validity
B. Curricular validity D. Predictive validity
3. Which of the following types of test can measure the range of achievement better?
A. Multiple-choice C. True or False
B. Matching type D. Short-answer Item
4. Which of the following is the LEAST authentic mode of assessing students’
performance?
A. Artistic production in the field of art
B. Paper and pencil test in vocabulary test.
C. Oral performance in communication skills
D. Dissecting a frog in the class
5. Which of the activities below is correctly assessed using paper and pencil test?
A. Music Reading C. Vocabulary skills
B. Dissecting a frog D. Driving drills
6. What does grading on the curve mean in a grade distribution of scores?
A. Most of the students receive low and high grades.
B. All have average grades.
C. Few students got low scores, and most students got high grades.
D. Large number with high grades, and few got low and high grades.
7. A test can measure what the teacher wants to measure when the test is _____.
A. Reliable C. Efficiency
B. Valid D. Administration
8. Which is true when the student test result has a large standard deviation?
A. Scores are more spread.
B. Scores are normally distributed.
C. Scores are less spread.
D. Scores are clustered together.
9. Which statement can describe a positively skewed distribution of students
performance?
 A. Few students got low scores.
B. Most of the students got average scores.
C. Most of the students got low scores.
D. The scores are normally distributed.
10. What does a discrimination index of 0.34 mean in the test item analysis?
A. Test is reliable.
B. More students from the upper group got the item correctly.
C. More students from the lower group got the item correctly.
D. Test is valid.
11. Teacher X discovered that his students are weak in writing skills. Which test should
teacher X administer further to determine in which other skills are weak?
A. Formative Assessment C. Diagnostic Assessment
B. Placement Assessment D. Summative Assessment
12. A portfolio assessment requires a representation of a collection of student’s work.
What is the purpose of the said activity?
I. To showcase the current abilities and skills of the learners
II. To show growth and development of the learners
III. To evaluate the cumulative achievement of the learners
A. I and II C. I and III
B. I and III D. I, II, and III
13. Which statement can be determined by a criterion-referenced test?
A. Performance higher than the group
B. Performance of the students in a large group
C. Performance of students in a small group
D. Preferred level of performance of students in a group
14. The facility index of test item 13 to 0.50. What does this mean?
A. Moderately difficult C. High validity
B. High reliability D. Easy
15. Which of the following statements describes performance-based assessment?
I. Measures broad range of contents
II. Evaluates complex learning outcomes
III. Encourages the application of learning to real life situation
A. I, II C. I, III
B. II, III D. I, II and III
16. Principal YG used machine-scored tests. What factor in scoring does this add to
make tests more reliable?
A. Objective scoring C. Ease in checking
B. Administration is easy D. Time-consuming
17. Which is indispensable with the current emphasis on performance-based
assessment and portfolio assessment?
A. Letter grading C. Numerical grading
B. Scoring rubric D. Authentic assessment
18. Louie obtained a stanine score of 5 in the National Achievement Test in
Mathematics. How can we describe the performance of Louie?
 A. Below Average
B. Average
C. Above Average
D. Between Average and Above Average
19. JM obtained a NAT percentile rank of 96 in English. This means that ___________
A. JM belongs to the 96% of the group who took the test.
B. JM answered 96% correctly.
C. JM surpassed 96% of his group who took the test.
D. 96% of the students are better than JM.
20. Mr. Palma, a secondary school teacher in Mathematics conducted a chapter
assessment in “Polynomial function and Equation”. He found out that most of his
students obtained high scores. Which measures of central tendency is most
appropriate to describe the center of the distribution?
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Mean and Median
21. Mr. Charcos, an elementary teacher in Science, administered a quarterly
assessment for his grade 6 science in two sections. The mean of Sections A and B
are 25 respectively. The standard deviation of A is 1.25 while B is 3. Which of the
two sections is more dispersed?
A. Section A
B. Section B
C. Both A and B
D. Can’t be determined
22. In a normal distribution curve, what does a T-score of 40 mean?
A. One standard deviation below the mean.
B. One standard deviation above the mean.
C. Two standard deviations below the mean.
D. Two standard deviations above the mean.
23. Which of the following assessment techniques is most appropriate when teacher
Mark wants to find out how well his pupils know each other?
A. Teacher Observation
B. Checklist
C. Sociometric technique
D. Guess-who technique
24. Which of the following assessment techniques most appropriate used to describe a
student’s opinion or beliefs on a particular issue or subject?
A. Semantic-Differential Scales C. Likert Scales
B. Checklist D. Rating Scales
(For items 25-27) Mr. Cruz a professor in Assessment of Learning conducted item
analysis in his test for Chapter III. He found out that 5 of his items have the
following difficulty and discrimination indices as follows:
Item Number Difficulty Index Discrimination Index
 10 0.55 0.67
11 0.75 0.12
12 0.05 -0.25
13 0.45 0.08
14 0.25 -0.10

25. Which of the following item above should be retained from his pool of items?
A. No. 10 C. No. 12
B. No. 11 & 13 D. No. 14
26. Which of the following item above should be revised from his pool of items?
A. No. 10 C. No. 12
B. No. 11 & 13 D. No. 14
27. Which of the following item above should be discarded from his pool of items?
A. No. 10 C. No. 12 only
B. No. 11 & 13 D. No. 12 and 14
28. Given the following scores: 88, 83, 83, 87, 88, 76, 81, 83, and 84. What does 83 in
the score distribution imply?
A. Mode C. Median and Mode
B. Median D. Mean, Median, and Mode
29. Which of the following groups of score distribution is the most spread?
A. sd = 2.5 C. sd = 3.00
B. sd = 2.75 D. sd = 3.25
30. In a normal distribution, which of the following statements below is TRUE?
A. The mean, and median are equal but not equal to mode.
B. There are more scores at the upper end of the distribution.
C. There are more scores at the lower portion of the distribution.
D. More students got with average scores and few with low and high scores.
31. Which of the following is the main purpose of criterion-referenced testing?
A. A student performance will be compared to his classmates.
B. A student must attained the passing mark of 75%.
C. A student gained the skills and competence needed.
D. all of the above
32. Which of the following can measure the internal consistency of the test results?
I. Test-retest method
II. Split-half method
III. Parallel method
IV. Kuder-richardson formula

A. I and II C. I and III

B. II and IV D. I, II, III and IV
33. Which of the following DOES NOT belong to the group when talking about
projective personality test?
A. thematic apperception test C. sentence completion test
B. interview D. word association test
34. Which assessment tool can diagnose more specific learning difficulties?
A. Moral values C. Holistic rubrics
B. Sociogram D. Analytic rubrics
35. Statistical item analysis can be done ___________.
A. before the test is conducted. C. after the test
B. during the test D. B and C
36. Teacher Renz will develop a periodic test in English. Which of the following must he
do first?
A. Develop the Table of Specification
B. Decide the number of test items to be given
C. Determine the type of test to be given
D. Go back to the instructional objectives
37. Read and analyze the matching type given below.

Directions: Match A and B. Write only the letter of your answer at the blank before the
number.
Column A Column B
_______1. Mean A. The centermost score in the distribution
_______2. Median B. Most stable measures of central tendency
_______3. Mode C. Score/s that occurs most in the distribution
_______4. Percentile D. It is score point that divides the scores in
the distribution into 4 equal parts.
_______5. Quartile E. It is score point that divides the scores in
the distribution into 100 equal parts.
What is wrong with the test item?
A. It is not valid.
B. It is not reliable.
C. It contains only 5 items.
D. Descriptions and options are in wrong place.
38. Study this matching type of test, then answer the question below.

Directions: Match A and B. Write only the letter of your answer at the blank before
the number.

Column A Column B
1. The center must score in the distribution A. Quartile
2. Most stable measures of central tendency B. Percentile
3. Score/s that occurs most in the distribution C. Mean
4. It is score point that divides the scores in the D. Median
distribution into 4 equal parts E. Mode
5. It is score point that divides the scores in the
distribution into 4 equal parts
Which is the best way to improve the matching type of test?
A. Add one or two items at column B.
 B. Add 5 items to both columns.
C. Add two or more items in column A.
D. Add ten items in both columns to be more comprehensive.
39. Teacher G conducted a test after discussing the lesson “Item Analysis” to check
whether the students learned something about the lesson. The result is not a part of
the computation of grade but to get feedback only. Which type of assessment Teacher
Y applied?
A. Placement assessment C. Formative assessment
B. Diagnostic assessment D. Summative assessment
40. The district supervisor is talking about “grading on the curve” in a district meeting.
What does this expression mean?
A. A student grade compares to his potentials.
B. A student grade compares to his achievement.
C. A student grade determines whether or not attains a defined standard.
D. A student grade compares to the achievement of the other students in the
class
41. Which of the statements below are TRUE about scoring rubrics?
I. It has a criteria of level of achievement to serve as standard.
II. It has a clear descriptions of performance in each level.
III. It has a rating scheme.
IV.It limits to only 4 levels of achievement.
A. I and II C. I, II, and III
B. II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, IV
42. Which of the following is TRUE about portfolio assessment?
A. It is a valid and reliable assessment.
B. It shows growth and development of the learners.
C. It considers students’ suggestions in the assessment.
D. It involves students in the development of the questionnaires.
43. Which statement about performance-based assessment is FALSE?
A. They emphasize merely on process.
B. They stress on doing, not only on knowing.
C. They accentuate on both process and product.
D. Essay test is an example of performance-based assessment.
44. Which error is committed by the teacher when he tends to overrate the
performance of the students who belongs to the upper performing group?
A. severity error
B. central tendency error
C. generosity error
D. Both A and C
45. Which statements are true about constructing matching type of test?
I. The options and descriptions not necessarily homogeneous.
II. The options must be greater than the descriptions.
III. The directions must state the basis of matching.
IV. The descriptions must be in Column A and options in Column B.
 A. I only C. II, III, IV
B. II and IV D. I, II, III, IV
46. Which of the following test items can effectively measure HOTS cognitive learning
objectives?
A. Objective test
B. Achievement test
C. Completion test
D. Extended essay test
47. Which of the following statements describes performance-based assessment?
I. Measures broad range of outcomes.
II. Evaluates complex learning outcomes.
III. Encourages application to real-life situations.
A. I, II, III C. II and III
B. I and II D. I and III
48. Which of the following is TRUE about the grading system of K-12 Curriculum based
from DepEd order No. 73, series of 2012?
A. Utilized letter grade in reporting the performance of the learners
B. There are three levels of learning outcomes.
C. There are four levels of proficiency to describe the performance of the
learners.
D. Cumulative method is utilized in the computation of final grade.
49. In his tests, Teacher Raffy made tests that were either too difficult or too easy.
What was wrong with his tests?
A. Inappropriate level of difficulty of the test items.
B. Identifiable pattern of answers
C. Unclear directions
D. Ambiguity
50. Principal Sulit introduced machine-scored tests in his school. What factor in scoring
does this add to make tests more reliable?
A. Objective scoring C. Ease in checking
B. Cost-saving D. Time-economics
51. For easier correction of his test, Teacher Niccolo prepared the True and False items
in alternating 1, 3, 5, 7 etc. True and 2, 4, 6, etc. False. What is wrong with the test in
terms of Usability?
A. Improper arrangements of items
B. Identifiable pattern of answers
C. Ambiguity
D. Poor constructed test items
52. When developing a test items, it should be aligned with _______?
A. Monitoring and evaluation C. Instructional media
B. Instructional objectives D. Content and process
53. What kind of assessment helps teachers determine gaps in learning of a subject
matter?
 A. Formative assessment C. Summative assessment
B. Diagnostic test D. Aptitude test
54. In Assessment for Problem-based Learning, who are responsible in judging student
performance?
A. Teacher-and-supervisors C. Teacher-and-students
B. Teacher-students-supervisors D. Teacher and peers
55. As positive correlation is to direct relation, to what relation is negative correlation?
A.Definition relation C. Inverse relation
B. Neutral relation D. Indefinite relation
56. Which of the following should be adopted if Teacher Lawrence wants his tests to be
more reliable?
A. More time to complete the test C. Make the test difficult
B. Increase number of test items D. Restrict range abilities
57. Teacher Y will develop a test. Which of the following steps in tests preparation is
the LAST to accomplish?
A. How is the objective item to be scored?
B. How are the test scores to be tabulated?
C. Have I prepared a Table of Specifications?
D. How are the test results to be reported?
58. Which of the following types of validity that reflects the relationship between the
content of the lesson and instructional objectives and of the program of studies?
A. Criterion validity C. Content validity
B. Curricular validity D. Predictive validity
59. There are three raters in an essay test. What correlation is determined?
A. External rater C. Multiple rater
B. Triple rater D. Inter rater
60. Given the following scores: 88, 83, 83, 87,88, 80, 80, 76, 81, 83, and 84. What
does 83 indicate in the score distribution?
A. Mode C. Median and Mode
B. Median D. Mean, Median and Mode
61. About how many percent of the scores fall between -2sd and +2sd units of its
mean?
A. 34% C. 95%
B. 68% d. 98%
62. Teacher X gives a 50-item in Mathematics. The mean performance of the group is
27, and standard deviation is 5. Edgar obtained a score of 31. Which of the following
best describes his performance?
A. Below Average C. Above Average
B. Average D. Outstanding
63. Prof. Gabuyo administered a short quiz after doing the exercise on polynomial
functions to find out how well his students understood the topic. What type of
assessment was done?
A. Placement Assessment C. Diagnostic Assessment
B. Summative Assessment D. Formative Assessment
64. The college secretary of the College of Business Administration conducted an
assessment at the beginning of the semester to find out who among the 2 nd year
accountancy students can proceed to 3rd year. The result will also be used for sectioning
purposes. What type of assessment was given to the students?
A. Placement C. Formative
B. Diagnostic D. Summative
65. All second year students presented their portfolio for the mathematics subject at
the end of the semester. Teacher, students, parents, and office staff were aallowed to
view and give their evaluation on the presentation. Which authentic assessment was
used in the process?
A. exhibit C. program
B. seminar D. conference
66. Teacher Ana wants to establish the reliability of her quarterly assessment. Which of
the following is appropriate?
I. Administer a parallel test.
II. Split the test.
III. Develop a very easy test.
IV. Administer the same test twice.
A. I, III, IV C. I, II
B. I, II, IV D. I, IV
67. Which of the following statements is NOT true about rubrics?
I. Rubics is developmental.
II. Rubrics can be used for summative and formative assessments.
III. Rubrics can provide both graded and detailed feedback to improve future
performance.
IV. Students should not be involved in the rubric construction.
A. I only C. I, II and III
B. II and III D. IV only
68. Teacher Renz constructed a matching-type test. In his column of descriptions are
combinations of dates of events, current issues, and names of politicians. Which rule of
constructing a matching type of test was NOT followed?
A. The descriptions must be heterogeneous.
B. The descriptions must be homogeneous.
C. The option must be greater than the descriptions.
D. The options should be in order.
69. Which of the following is NOT included in the assessment of affective learning
targets?
A. Teacher observation C. Student Self-assessment
B. Peer evaluation D. Summative evaluation
70. Which of the following instructional objectives is the lowest level of Krathwohl’s
cognitive taxonomy?
A. Identify the kinds of measures of variation.
B. Compute the standard deviation value: 26, 27, 33, 33, and 38.
C. Compare and contrast inter-quartile range and standard deviation.
 D. Explain the concepts of dispersion.
71. Which of the following does NOT provide high-level thinking opportunity for an
essay type of test?
A. Evaluation C. Analysis
B. Synthesis D. Memorization
72. Which of the following assessment tools consists of the collection of work or in-
progress accomplishment by the students?
A. Portfolio C. Achievement test
B. Scoring Rubric D. Evaluation instrument
73. Which describes a negative correlation between amount of practice and number of
errors in basketball?
A. The decrease in the amount of practice sometimes affects the number of
errors.
B. As the amount of practice increases, number errors decrease.
C. The increase in the amount of practice does not affect the number of errors.
D. Decrease in the amount of practice goes with decrease in the number of
errors.
74. Teacher Paul interpreted the scores of his students using criterion-referenced
grading system. All the statements below are correct EXCEPT?
A. Develop test items in terms of instructional objectives
B. Determine the acceptable level of mastery in advance
C. Describe group performance in relation to a set standard
D. Compare individual students score with other scores in the group.
75. Which statements are true about constructing matching type of test?
I. The options and descriptions are not necessarily homogeneous.
II. The options must be greater than the descriptions.
III. The descriptions must state the basis of matching.
IV. The descriptions must be in Column A and options in Column B.
A. I only C. I, III, IV
B. II and IV D. I, II, III, IV
76. Belly got a score of 85 which is equal to 75% percentile score. This implies that
_____.
A. 75% of the class got score higher than 85.
B. Got 75% correctly.
C. 25% of the class Belly’s score.
D. 75% of the class got score lower than 85.

For Items 77-81. The table is an item analysis based on try-out examination conducted
by Ms. Agustin in one of her Accounting classes. The letter with asterisk represents the
correct answer.
Item 15 A B* C D
Upper 27% 3 6 5 1
Lower 27% 6 4 2 3
77. The table shows that the item analyzed _____________.
A. has a positive discrimination index
B. has a negative discrimination index
C. is very easy
D. is very difficult
78. Based on the table, which is the most effective distracter?
A. Option A C. Option C
B. Option B D. Option D
79. Based on the table, which is NOT an effective distracter?
A. Option A C. Option C
B. Option B D. Option D
80. What is the level of difficulty of test item number 10?
A. Easy C. Moderately difficult
B. Difficult D. Very difficult
81. What should Ms. Agustin do with item number 15?
A. Reject C. Revise
B. Retain D. Make it bonus item
82. University X conducted scholarship examination to Four batches of test takers. The
table below shows the performance of each batch.
Batch Number of Test Takers Average
I 10 88
II 25 95
III 15 86
IV 10 98

What is the overall average of the test takers?

A. 91.00 C. 92.00
B. 91.75 D. 92.08
83. What type of error was committed by a researcher if he commits a type I error?
A. Rejecting the null hypothesis which is true
B. Accepting the null hypothesis which is false
C. Generosity error
D. Severity error
84. Most of the students got scores above the mean in an achievement test conducted
by DepEd. What does this mean?
A. positively skewed
B. Negatively skewed
C. Normally distributed
D. Mean is equal to median

Subject Emil’s score (x) Mean score Standard deviation

(s)
Math 88 86 1.5
English 90 88 2.0
 Music 92 91 1.1
85. In which subject/s did Emil perform most poorly?
A. Math and English C. English
B. Math D. Music

86. What type of learner is Emil?

A. Musical C. Linguistic
B. Logical D. Interpersonal
87. Which group of scores is most spread?
A. Math and Music C. Music
B. Math D. English
88. Which group of scores is less spread?
A. Math and Music C. Music
B. Math D. English
89. The computed value of r the scores in Mathematics and English is 0.85. What does
this mean?
A. Math score is related to English score.
B. The higher the score in Mathematics, the higher the score in English.
C. The higher the score in Mathematics, the lower the score in English.
D. Math score is not anyway related to English score.
90. Which graph describes the relationship that exists between two sets of data?
A. Pictograph C. Histogram
B. Frequency polygon D. Scatter gram
91. Edgar’s raw score in the math class is 75 which is equal to 95 th percentile. What
does this mean?
A. 95% of Edgar’s classmates got a score higher than 75.
B. 95% of Edgar’s classmates got a score lower than 75.
C. Edgar’s score is less than 75% of his classmates.
D. Edgar’s score is more than 75% of his classmates.
92. When points in the scatter gram are evenly spread in all directions, this mean that
A. The correlation between the two variables is positive.
B. The correlation between the two variables is low.
C. The correlation between the two variables is high.
D. There is no correlation between the two variables.
93. Teacher Terrence gave a 50-item test to his students, where the mean performance
of the class is 35, with a standard deviation of 4. Mark got a score of 38. What
description rating should teacher Terrence give to Mark.
A. Below average C. Above average
B. Average D. Outstanding
94. Which statement is CORRECT about standard deviation?
A. The larger the standard deviation, the less dispersed the scores are.
B. The smaller the standard deviation, the more dispersed the scores are.
C. It is a measure of central tendency.
D. The smaller the standard deviation, the less dispersed the scores me.
95. Given are two sets of score distribution:
Set A: 8,10,11,11,12,15,17,19,20,24,25,35
Set B: 10, 14, 15, 15, 16, 18, 18, 20, 24, 26, 29, 35

Which statement best describes both sets of data?

A. The range of Set A is 26.
B. The range of Set B is 25.
C. The scores in Set A are less dispersed than the scores in Set B.
D. The scores in Set B are less dispersed than the scores in Set A.
96. What attribute makes the test item poor?
__________ is an example of animals.
A. The blank at the beginning of the sentence.
B. It is a very easy test item.
C. It is a short question.
D. It is not a significant item.
97. Teacher Marcos developed a matching-type test. In his column of descriptions are
combinations of Presidents of the Philippines, cabinet members, current issues and
name of sport writers. Which rule of constructing a matching type of test was
VIOLATED?
A. The options should be arranged in order.
B. The options must be greater than the descriptions.
C. The descriptions must be heterogeneous.
D. The descriptions must be homogeneous.
98. Which of the following items represents norm-referenced grading system?
A. Peter was able to get 90 items out of 100 items in Mathematics test correctly.
B. Fitch performed better in the test in Mathematics than 88% of his classmates.
C. Ritz was able to solve 88% of the problems correctly.
D. Glenn solved 9 problems out of 15 problems correctly.
99. Teacher Peter gave a test in Science. Most of the students got scores below the
mean. What is the graphical representation of their scores?
A. Skewed to the right
B. Skewed to the left
C. Platykurtic
D. Normally distributed
100. Which of the following assessment procedures is commonly used during the
delivery of instruction?
A. Objective test C. Performance task
B. Oral questioning D. Portfolio
101. In his second item analysis, Teacher Luis found out that more from the lower
group got the test item #10 correctly. This means that the test item___________.
A. has a negative discrimination power
B. has a lower validity
C. has a positive discrimination power
D. has a high reliability
102. This is the first step in planning an achievement test.
A. Select the type of test items to use.
B. Decide on the length of the test.
C. Define the instructional objective.
D. Build a table of specification.
103. Which is true about normal distribution?
A. The mean, the median, and the mode are equal.
B. Most of the scores are high.
C. The mode is high.
D. Most of the scores are low.
104. Most of the students who took the examination got scores above the mean. What
is the graphical representation of the score distribution?
A. normal curve C. positively skewed
B. mesokurtic D. negatively skewed
105. Which statement best describes a negatively skewed score distribution?
A. Most examinees got scores above the mean.
B. The value of median and mode are equal.
C. The value of mode corresponds to a low score.
D. The value of median is higher than the value of mode.
106. Which objective below is at the highest level in Bloom’s taxonomy?
A. Explain how trees receive nutrients
B. Explain how a tree functions in relation to the ecosystem
C. Rate three different methods of controlling tree growth
D. List the parts of a tree
107. This is a type of statistics that draws conclusions about the sample being studied.
A. Inferential and co-relational C. Descriptive
B. Inferential D. Co relational
108. About how many percent of the case fall between -2SD and +2SD in the normal
curve?
A. 95.44 C. 99.72
B. 68.26 D. 99.85
109. Which error do teachers commit when they tend to overrate the achievement of
students identified by aptitude tests as gifted because they expect achievement and
giftedness to go together?
A. Generosity error C. Severity error
B. Central tendency error D. Logical error
110. Florante’s scores in Mathematics quizzes are as follows: 90, 85, 70, 65, 99, 78.
What is the mean of these scores?
A. 65 C. 85.5
B. 99 D. 81.17
111. On which assumption is portfolio assessment based?
A. Portfolio assessment is dynamic assessment.
B. Assessment should stress the reproduction of knowledge.
C. An individual learner is inadequately characterized by a test score.
 D. An individual learner is adequately characterized by a test score.
112. Which is a characteristic of an imperfect type of matching test?
A. An item may have no answer at all.
B. The items in the right and left columns are equal in number.
C. An answer may be repeated.
D. There are two or more distracters.
113. Which is included in item analysis?
A. Determining the percentage equivalent of the cut-off score
B. Identifying the highest score
C. Determining the cut-off score
D. Determining the effectiveness of distracters
114. The criterion of success in teacher Leo’s objective is that “the pupils must be able
to spell 90% of the words correctly.” Ana and 19 others correctly spelled 40 words only
out of 50. This means that Teacher Leo ________.
A. attained her objective because of her effective spelling drill
B. attained her lesson objective
C. failed to attain her lesson objective as far as the twenty pupils are concerned
D. did not attain her lesson objective because of the pupil’s lack of attention
115. When points in the scatter gram are spread evenly in all directions, this means
that ________.
A. The correlation between two variables is positive.
B. The correlation between two variables is low.
C. The correlation between variables is high.
D. There is no correlation between two variables.
116. Which applies when the mean are equal?
A. the distribution of the scores is concentrated.
B. The distribution of the scores is widespread.
C. The distribution of the scores is identical.
D. The distribution of the scores are not necessarily identical.
117. Robert Joseph’s raw score in the Mathematics class is 45, which is equal to 96 th
percentile. What does this mean?
A. 96% of Robert Joseph’s classmates got a score higher than 45.
B. 96% of Robert Joseph’s classmates got a score lower than 45.
C. Robert Joseph’s score is less than 45% of his classmates.
D. Robert Joseph’s score is higher than 96% of his classmates.
118. Which is/are a norm-referenced statement/s?
A. Danny performed better in spelling than 60% of his classmates.
B. Danny was able to spell 90% of the words correctly.
C. Danny was able to spell 90% of the words correctly and spelled 35 words out
of 50 correctly.
D. Danny spelled 35 words out of 50 correctly.
119. What type of validity is needed for a test on course objectives and scopes?
A. Content C. Criterion
B. Concurrent D. Construct
120. The sum of all the scores in a distribution always equals _________.
A. the mean times the interval size.
B. the mean divided by the interval size.
C. the mean times the N.
D. the mean divided by N.
121. The analysis of Variance utilizing the F-test is the appropriate significance test to
run between _________.
A. frequencies C. medians
B. two means only D. three or more means
122. The mode of a score distribution is 25. This means that _________.
A. Twenty-five is the score that occurs least.
B. Twenty-five is the score that occurs most.
C. Twenty-five is the average of the score distribution.
D. There is no score of 25.
123. If teacher gets the difference between the highest score and the lowest score, he
will obtain the _________.
A. range
B. standard deviation
C. mean
D. index of difficulty
124. In a normal curve distribution, about how many percent of the cases falls between
-1SD to +1SD?
A. 34.13% C. 15.73%
B. 68.26% D. 49.86%
125. Teacher Ritz Glenn gave a chapter test. In terms of difficulty index, which
competency did his students find the greatest difficulty?
A. 0.15 C. 0.93
B. 1.0 D. 0.51
126. Teacher Gerald gave a 50-item test where the mean performance of the class is
35, with a standard deviation of 7. Ace got a score of 41. What description rating
should Teacher Gerald give to Ace?
A. Poor C. Average
B. Outstanding D. Above Average
127. Ritz Glenn obtained a NAT percentile rank of 98. This implies that _________.
A. Ritz Glenn answered 98 items correctly.
B. Ritz Glenn got score of 98.
C. Ritz Glenn performed better than 2% of his fellow examinees.
D. Ritz Glenn performed better than 98% of his fellow examinees.
128. Given two sets of data:
SET A: 6, 7, 8, 8, 9, 10, 11, 11, 11, 12, 15, 17, 19, 20, 20
SET B: 4, 4, 6, 6, 8, 9, 9, 12, 13, 15, 15, 16, 18, 18, 20
Which statement best describes both sets of data?
A. The range of set A is 14.
B. The scores of set A is more spread out than the scores of set B.
 C. The range of set B is 15.
D. The scores of set B is more spread out than the scores of set A.
129. Teacher Marcy gave a test in English. Item no. 18 has a difficulty index of 0.85
and discrimination index of -0.10. What should teacher Marcy do?
A. retain the item.
B. make the item bonus
C. reject the item
D. reject it and make the item bonus
130. Median is the 50th percentile as Q3 is to _________.
A. 45th percentile C. 75th percentile
B. 70th percentile D. 25th percentile
131. Which of the given statements is true about rubrics?
A. It is analytical. C. It is developmental.
B. It is holistic. D. It is both analytical and holistic.
132.Which is the most reliable tool for seeing the development in your pupils’ ability to
write?
A. interview of pupils
B. Self-assessment
C. Scoring rubric
D. Portfolio assessment
133. Which statement about performance-based assessment is FALSE?
A. They merely emphasize process.
B. They also stress on doing, not only knowing.
C. Essay tests are example of performance-based assessments.
D. They accentuate on process as well as product.
134. Which of the following can measure awareness of values?
A. Rating scales C. Role playing
B. Projective technique D. Moral dilemma
135. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group when we are talking about
projective personality test?
A. Sentence completion test C. Interview
B. Word association test D. Thematic Apperception test
136. Teacher R wrote of JM: “When JM came to class this morning, he seemed very
tired and slouched into his seat. He took no part in his class discussion and seemed to
have no interest in what was being discussed. This was very unusual, for he has been
eager to participate and often monopolized the class discussion. “What Teacher R wrote
is an example of a/an _________.
A. incidence report C. personality report
B. observation report D. anecdotal report
137. Student J was asked to report to the Guidance Office. Student J and his
classmates at once remarked: “What’s wrong?” What does this mean?
A. Reporting to a Guidance Office is often associated with misbehavior.
B. The parents of student J must be of the delinquent type.
C. Student J is a “problem” student.
 D. Guidance counselors are perceived to be “almighty and omniscient.”
138. He is considered the father of counseling in the Philippines.
A. Father Bulato
B. Sinforoso Padilla
C. Dean Rose Clemenia
D. Sigmund Freud
139. This is the pre-planned collection of samples of student works, assessed results,
and other output produced by the students.
A. Diary C. Portfolio
B. Observation Report D. Anecdotal Report
140. Standard deviation : Variability; Mean : __________.
A. discrimination C. correlation
B. level of difficult D. central tendency
141. _____________ is an example of mammals.
Why is this test item poor?
I. The language used in the question is not precise.
II. The test item does not pose a problem to the examinee.
III. The blank is near the beginning of a sentence.
IV. There are at many possible correct answers to this item.
A. II and IV C. I and III
B. I and II D. III and IV
142. Which of the following statements is true about marking on a normative basis?
A. Most of the students get low scores.
B. Most of the students get high scores.
C. The grading should based on the present criteria.
D. The normal distribution curve should be followed.
143. Here are computed means of a hundred-item test: Physical Science, 38; Math 52;
English, 33. Based on the data, which is true?
A. The Math test appears to be the easiest among the three.
B. The examinees seem to be very good in Physical Science.
C. The examinees seem to excel in English.
D. The English test appears to be the easiest among the three.
144. Which of the following can measure the stability of the test results?
I. Test-retest method
II. Split-half method
III. Parallel method
IV. Kuder-richardson formula
A. I C. III
B. II D. IV
145. About how many percent of the scores fall between -2sd and +2sd units of its
mean?
A. 34% C. 95%
B. 68% D. 98%
146. Mr. Gabuyo administered a 50-item test in Mathematics. The mean performance of
the group is 27, and standard deviation is 5. Edgar obtained a score of 31. Which of the
following best describes his performance?
A. Below Average
B. Average
C. Above Average
D. Outstanding
147. The admissions office conducted scholarship examinations to four batches of test-
takers. The table below shows the performance of each batch.
Batch Number of Test Takers Average
I 10 88
II 25 95
III 15 86
IV 10 98
148. With grading practice in mind, what is meant by teacher’s severity error?
A. He uses tests and quizzes for punishment.
B. He tends to favor high-performing students.
C. He tends to give lower grade than what is supposed to be.
D. He gives way to students’ who ask for reschedule of the test.
149. Which statements are true about constructing matching type of test?
I. The options and descriptions are not necessarily homogeneous.
II. The options must be greater than the descriptions.
III. The directions must state the basis of matching.
IV. The descriptions must be in Column A and options in Column B.
A. I only C. II, III, IV
B. II and IV D. I, II, II, IV
150. Which of the following test items can effectively measure HOTS cognitive learning
objectives?
A. Objective test C. Completion test
B. Achievement test D. Extended essay tests