SR NEET SUPER CHAINA PHASE-2 PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT-BOTANY

(From 22-02-2022 to 24-02-2022)

8.Cell :The Unit of Life

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* Cell organelles are of three types (i) Membraneless, e.g., ribosomes, centrioles, (ii) Single
membraneous, e.g.,endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes, microbodies, sphaerosomes. (iii)
Double membraneous, e.g., mitochondria, plastids (in plant cells).
* Cell of alga Caulerpa may be upto one metre. Among multicellular organisms, human red blood cells
are about 7.0 μm in diameter, nerve fibres are the longest, upto 90 cm to few metres.
* Prokaryotic cells vary greatly in their size from 1 to10 μm in diameter. The smallest bacterium is
Dialister pneumosintes (0.15 to 0.3 μm in diameter) and the largest bacterium is Spirillum volutans
(500μm).
* In the cell wall of bacteria, there are 2 important sugar derivatives which are not found anywhere in the
biological world, i.e., NAG and NAM (N-acetyl glucosamine and
N-acetyl muramic acid).
* Many prokaryotes have extra chromosomal, circular DNA molecules called plasmids. The plasmid
DNA confers certain unique phenotypic characters to such bacteria like fertility factor, nif genes,
resistance factors and colicinogenic factors. Plasmids which can get associated
temporarily with nucleoid are known as episomes. It is used as vector in genetic engineering.
* In fungi, cell wall is made up of chitin (polymer of N-aetyl glucosamine).
* Lomasomes : They are vesicular and membranous structures usually present between cell wall and
plasmalemma of plant cells. Their definite function is not known but probably they help in cell wall
elaboration. They are mainly found in fungi.
* In fleshy fruits during ripening the pectic substances of the middle lamella are dissolved by the
proteolytic enzymes.The cells are, therefore, lossened and fruit becomes soft.
* The main functions of vacuoles are storage, transmission of the materials and the maintenance of
internal pressure of the cell.
* Cilia and flagella may not be able to vibrate due to (i) Absence of central fibrils. (ii) Deficiency of
dynein arms. In human beings, the immotile cilia syndrome leads to chronic bronchitis, sinusitis and
infertility.
* SAT-chromosomes are used as marker chromosomes.
* Outer layer of Gram-ve bacteria is made of lipopolysaccharides and in Gram +ve bacteria of teichoic
acid.
* In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte has approximately 52 per cent protein and 40 per
cent lipids.
* The approximate constitution of plant protoplasm is as follows :
Water – about 90%
Proteins – 7.2%
Carbohydrates – 2.0%
Fats – 1.0%
Minerals – 1.0%
DNA and RNA – in traces
* Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse with the forming face of the Golgi
apparatus and move towards the maturing face. This explains, why the Golgi apparatus remains in close
association with the endoplasmic reticulum.
* In plant cells the Golgi complex is known as dictyosome. It secretes necessary materials for cell wall
formation during cell division. Vesicles of Golgi body secrete Ca++ and Mg++
pectates that forms middle lamella between two plant cells. Golgi bodies form acrosome during
spermiogenesis.
* Nucleus is the ‘controlling centre of cell’ was proved by J. Hammerling (1934), by grafting
experiments on two species of unicellular green alga Acetabularia.

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 Fig: Formation of lysosomes and intracellular digestion in them.

* To study plant and animal cells always make descriptive figures and compare their organelles.
* Logical thinking helps to recall to memory the basics of the science. Remember the function of cell
organelles by comparing with basic body parts, Like
• Nucleus should be compared with human heart. Like heart controls the heartbeat of human body
similarly nucleus functions as the heartbeat of cell. As it is the control centre of cell.
• Compare cell membrane with skin layer. Both are the outer covering of body muscles and cell
respectively.
* Make table of similarities and differences of plant and animal cells for better understanding.
* Remember the characteristics feature differentiate the following:
• Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.
• Plant and animal cell
* Don't leave functions of organelles, structure of chloroplast and mitochondria.
* Make flow chart of organelles which show their important role and membranous structure.
* Use different colored pen to colour organelles based on their membrane structure (such as
single, double and nonmembranous),characteristic organelle of [plant or animal cell etc.

Year-wise analysis of NEET 2014-2021

Topic Name 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2019 2020 2020 2021
Odissa Covid
T1: Overview of Cell 1 3 1 1 1 1
T2: Prokaryotic Cell - 3 1 1 1
Cell Envelope
and its Modification,
Ribosomes
and Inclusion Bodies
T3: Eukaryotic Cells – 3 8 1 1 4 5 3 1 1 4
Cell Organelles
NEET 8 YEARS AT A GLANCE
1. Which of the following is true for nucleolus? [2018]
(a) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
(b) It is a membrane-bound structure.
(c) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
(d) It takes part in spindle formation.

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2. The Golgi complex participates in: [2018]
(a) Fatty acid breakdown (b) Formation of secretory vesicles
(c) Activation of amino acid (d) Respiration in bacteria
3. Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum? [2018]
(a) Protein folding (b) Protein glycosylation
(c) Phospholipid synthesis (d) Cleavage of signal peptide
4. Select the incorrect match. [2018]
(a) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents chromosomes
(b) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
(c) Polytene – Oocytes of amphibians chromosomes
(d) Submetacentric – L-shaped chromosomes chromosomes
5. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form
ATP? [2017]
(a) Ribosome (b) Chloroplast (c) Mitochondrion (d) Lysosome
6. Mitochondria and chloroplast are [2016]
1. semi-autonomous organelles.
2. formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesising
machinary.
Which one of the following options is correct?
(a) Both 1 and 2 are true (b) 2 is true but 1 is false
(c) 1 is true but 2 is false (d) Both 1 and 2 are false
7. Microtubules are the constituents of : [2016]
(a) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes (b) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
(c) Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin (d) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
8. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane? [2016]
(a) Mitochondria (b) Chloroplasts (c) Lysosomes (d) Nuclei
9. A protoplast is a cell: [2015]
(a) Without nucleus (b) Undergoing division
(c) Without cell wall (d) Without plasma membrane
10. Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in prokaryotes? [2015]
(a) Cyanophycean granule (b) Glycogen granule (c) Polysome (d) Phosphate granule
11. Which of the following are not membrane-bound? [2015]
(a) Ribosomes (b) Lysosomes (c) Mesosomes (d) Vacuoles
12. Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material from largest to smallest. [2015]
(a) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene (b) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
(c) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene (d) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
13. Balbiani rings are sites of: [2015]
(a) Nucleotide synthesis (b) Polysaccharide synthesis
(c) RNA and protein synthesis (d) Lipid synthesis
14. Match the columns and identify the correct option. [2015]
Column-I Column-II
A. Thylakoids I. Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
B. Cristae II. Condensed structure of DNA
C. Cisternae III. Flat membranous sacs in stroma
D. Chromatin IV. Infoldings in mitochondria
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (d) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
15. Cellular organelles with membranes are [2015]
(a) chormosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum.
(b) endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei.
(c) lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria.
(d) nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria.

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16. Satellite DNA is important because it [2015]
(a) Shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in an
individual, which is heritable from parents to children.
(b) Does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population.
(c) Codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication.
(d) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.
17. DNA is not present in: [2015]
(a) Ribosomes (b) Nucleus (c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast
18. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of : [2015]
(a) Membrane of Golgi complex (b) Microtubules
(c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (d) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
19. Select the correct matching in the following pairs. [2015]
(a) Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids (b) Rough ER – Synthesis of glycogen
(c) Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids (d) Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipid
20. The function of the gap junction is to [2015]
(a) Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of
ions, small molecules and some large molecules.
(b) Separate two cells from each other.
(c) Stop substance from leading across a tissue
(d) Performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
21. Cell wall is absent in: [2015]
(a) Funaria (b) Mycoplasma (c) Nostoc (d) Aspergillus
22. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are: [2015]
(a) Acrocentric (b) Telocentric (c) Sub-metacentric (d) Metacentric
23. Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria? [2014]
(a) Nucleoid (b) Ribosomes (c) Cell wall (d) Mesosomes
24. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of
monomer are known as: [2014]
(a) Microtubules (b) Microfilaments (c) Intermediate filaments (d) Lamins
25. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by: [2014]
(a) Mitochondria (b) Vacuoles (c) Plastids (d) Ribosomes
26. Match the following and select the correct answer. [2014]
Column I Column II
A. Centriole I. Infoldings in mitochondria
B. Chlorophyll II. Thylakoids
C. Cristae III. Nucleic acids
D. Ribozymes IV. Basal body cilia or flagella
(a) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III (b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
27. The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosome are referred to as (NEET-2019)
(1) s-arm and l-arm respectively (2) p-arm and q-arm respectively
(3) q-arm and p-arm respectively (4) m-arm and n-arm respectively
28. Which of the following pair of organelles does not contain DNA :- (NEET-2019)
(1) Mitochondria and Lysosomes (2) Chloroplast and Vacuoles
(3) Lysosomes and Vacuoles (4) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria
29. Which of the following statement is not correct? (NEET-2019)
(1) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes.
(2) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active under acidic pH.
(3) Lysosomes are membrane bound structures.
(4) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum.
30. The concept of " Omnis cellula-e cellula" regarding cell division was first proposed by: (NEET-2019)
(1) Rudolf Virchow (2) Theodore Schwann (3) Schleiden (4) Aristotle
31. Which of the following cell organelles is present in the highest number in secretory cells? (NEET-2019
ODISSA)
(1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi complex (3) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) Lysosomes
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32. Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in nucleus are the site for active synthesis of (NEET-2019
ODISSA)
(1) Protein synthesis (2) mRNA (3) rRNA (4) tRNA
33. Which of the following nucleic acids is present in an organism having 70S ribosomes only? (NEET-2019
ODISSA)
(1) Single stranded DNA with protein coat
(2) Double stranded circular naked DNA
(3) Double stranded DNA enclosed in nuclear membrane
(4) Double stranded circular DNA with histone proteins
34. Match the column-I with column-II :- (NEET-2019 ODISSA)
Column-I Column-II
(a) Golgi apparatus (i) Synthesis of protein
(b) Lysosomes (ii) Trap waste and excretory products
(c) Vacuoles (iii) Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
(d) Ribosomes (iv) Digesting biomolecules
Choose the right match from options given below :-
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
35. "Ramachandran plot" is used to confirm the structure of :- (NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) RNA (2) Proteins (3) Triacylglycerides (4) DNA
36. Inclusion bodies of blue- green, purple and green photosynthetic bacteria are (NEET-2020 COVID-19)
(1) Contractile vacuoles (2) Gas vacuoles (3) Centrioles (4) Microtubules
37. The biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA occurs in : (NEET-2020 COVID-19)
(1) Ribosomes (2) Golgi apparatus (3) Microbodies (4) Nucleolus
38. The size of Pleuropneumonia - like Organism (PPLO) is : (NEET-2020 COVID-19)
(1) 0.02 mm (2) 1-2 mm (3) 10-20 mm (4) 0.1 mm
39. Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect? (NEET-2020)
1) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm 2) They are not bound by any membrane
3) These are involved in ingestion of food particles 4) They lie free in the cytoplasm
40. Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells? (NEET-
2020)
1) Polysomes 2) Endoplasmic reticulum 3) Peroxisomes 4) Golgi bodies
41. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is
referred as: [NEET-2021]
(1) Telocentric (2) Sub-metacentric (3) Acrocentric (4) Metacentric
42. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? [NEET-2021]
(1) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.
(2) The perinuclear space forms a barrier -between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the
cytoplasm
(3) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and
cytoplasm.
(4) Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
43. Match List-I with List-II [NEET-2021]
List-I List-II
a) Cristae i) Primary constriction in chromosome
b) Thylakoids ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
c) Centromere iii) Infoldings in mitochondria
d) Cisternae iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids
1) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i,d-ii
3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-I 4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

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44. The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are : [NEET-2021]
1. Endoplasmic reticulum , Golgi complex , Lysosomes and vacuoles
2. Golgi complex , Mitochondria , ribosomes and Lysosomes
3. Golgi complex , Endoplasmic reticulum , Mitochondria and Lysosomes
4. Endoplasmic reticulum , Mitochondria , Ribosomes and Lysosomes

LEVEL-1
TOPIC-1: Overview of Cell
1. Who proposed the theory that "Cells arise only from the pre-existing cells"?
(a) Mohl (b) Virchow (c) Haeckel (d) Brown
2. An organalle devoid of membrane covering is:
(a) Vacuole (b) Ribosome
(c) Peroxisome (d) Lysosome
3. Difference between the prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells in having:
(a) Cell wall (b) Nuclear membrane
(c) Ribosome (d) None of these
4. Select the statements which are related to Schwann.
(i) He reported that cells have a thin outer layer which is today known as plasma
membrane.
(ii) Cell wall is a unique character of the plant cell.
(iii) Body of plants and animals are composed of cells and products of cells.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) All of these
5. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) The shape of the cells may vary with the function they perform.
(ii) Human RBC is about 7.0 mm in diameter.
(iii) Cytoplasm is the main area of cellular activities.
(iv) Various chemical reactions occur in cytoplasm to keep the cell in the living state.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) Only (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (iv) (d) None of the above
6. Match column-I (scientists) with column-II (discovery) and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Leeuwenhoek I. First saw and described a livingcell.
B. Robert Brown II. Presence of cell wall is uniqueto plant cells.
C. Schleiden III. Discovered the nucleus.
D. Schwann IV. All plants are composed ofdifferent kind of cells.
(a) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – II (b) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
7. Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms. Evidence supporting
this fact is that
(a) all cells arise by the fusion of two cells.
(b) all cells are totipotent.
(c) subcellular component can regenerate a complete cell.
(d) anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living.

TOPIC-2:
Prokaryotic Cell - Cell Envelope and its Modification, Ribosomes and Inclusion Bodies
8. The statement that does not apply for prokaryotic cells is that:
(a) Few prokaryotes have cell walls without muramic acid.
(b) Prokaryotes shows a wide variety of shapes and functions.
(c) There is no well defined nucleus.
(d) The organisation of the prokaryotic cells is fundamentally similar.
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9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
(a) Presence of DNA (b) Photosynthetic membrane system
(c) Mesosome (d) Membrane bound organelles
10. Ribosomes within the cell are found in:
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Chloroplasts (in plants) and mitochondria
(c) Rough ER (d) All of the above.
11. Membranous extensions in blue green algae are known as:
(a) Phytochrome (b) Chromatophore (c) Mesosome (d) Pneumatophore.
12. Extension of plasma membrane in prokaryotic cell is:
(a) Mesosome (b) Haploid (c) Ribosome (d) None of these
13. Polysome is a chain of
(a) Oxysomes (b) Sphaerosomes (c) Ribosomes (d) Dictyosomes
14. In prokaryotes, chromatophores are
(a) specialised granules responsible for colouration of cells.
(b) structures responsible for organising the shape of the organism.
(c) inclusion bodies lying free inside the cells for carrying out various metabolic activities.
(d) internal membrane system which becomes extensive and complex in photosynthetic
bacteria.
15. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Mycoplasma is the smallest cell (0.3 μ). (b) Bacteria are 3 to 5 μm in size.
(c) The largest cell is the egg of an ostrich. (d) Nerve cells are some of the smallest cells.
16. Select the incorrect statement about prokaryotic ribosomes.
(a) 50S and 30S subunits unite to form 70S ribosomes.
(b) Polysome/polyribosome consists of many ribosomes only.
(c) Ribosome is the site of protein synthesis.
(d) Polysome indicate the synthesis of identical poolypeptide in multiple copies.
17. Choose the incorrect statements regarding bacterial cell.
(i) Glycocalyx is the outermost envelope in bacteria.
(ii) The glycocalyx could be a loose sheath called capsule.
(iii) The glycocalyx may be thick and tough called slime layer.
(iv) A special structure formed by the plasma membrane is called mesosome.
(v) Small bristle like fibres sprouting out of the cell are called fimbriae.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
18. Match column I (cell type) with column II (size) and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Cell type) (Size)
A. Viruses I. 1-2 mm
B. PPLO II. 10-20 mm
C. Eukaryotic cell III. About 0.1 mm
D. Bacterium IV. 0.02 - 0.2 mm
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
TOPIC-3: Eukaryotic Cells - Cell Organelles
19. Integral proteins of cell membrane occur on/in:
(a) Inner surfaces (b) Outer surfaces
(c) Phospholipid matrix (d) Inner and outer surfaces.
20. Active transport across biomembrane involves:
(a) Production of ATP (b) Requirement of energy
(c) Production of toxin (d) Release of energy.
21. The membrane of the erythrocytes has approximately ___% of proteins and ___% lipids.
(a) 42, 50 (b) 52, 40 (c) 50, 50 (d) 60, 40
22. The lipid component of the membrane mainly consists of _________.
(a) polysaccharides (b) phosphoglyceride
(c) monosaccharaides (d) Both (a) and (c)

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23. The best material for study of structure of cell membrane is:
(a) RBC of human (b) RBC of frog
(c) cheek cell of human (d) Liver cell of rat.
24. In which of the following the cells are held together by a Ca-pectate layer?
(a) Primary cell wall (b) Secondary cell wall
(c) Middle lamella (d) Tertiary cell wall
25. Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport
pathway?
(a) Plasmodesmata (b) Plastoquinones
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum (d) Plasmalemma
26. Which of the following will determines the shape of the cells and provides a strong structural
support to prevent the bacterium from bursting or collapsing?
(a) Plasmids (b) Cell wall (c) Mesosome (d) Cell membrane
27. Which one of the following is not considered as part of the endomembrane system?
(a) Golgi complex (b) Peroxisome (c) Vacuole (d) Lysosome
28. Which of the following cell organelles were discovered after the introduction of electron
microscope?
(a) Mitochondria (b) Endoplasmic reticulum (c) Ribosomes (d) Both (b) and (c)
29. _______________ is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and golycolipids.
(a) SER (b) Lysosome
(c) Golgi apparatus (d) Mitochondria
30. Golgi apparatus is concerned with:
(a) Excretion (b) Secretion (c) ATP synthesis (d) RNA synthesis.
31. Lysosomes contain:
(a) Carbohydrates (b) Hormones (c) Nucleic acids (d) Hydrolases.
32. Function of contractile vacuole in Amoeba is
(a) excretion and osmoregulation. (b) digestion and respiration.
(c) osmoregulation and transportation. (d) None of the above.
33. Both the membranes of mitochondrion are
(a) structurally different but functionally similar.
(b) structurally as well as functionally different.
(c) structurally similar but functionally different.
(d) structurally different but functionally similar.
34. Plastids are found in
(a) all animal cells. (b) some animal cells. (c) all plant cells. (d) all plant cells and euglenoides.
35. Plastids storing fat are called
(a) elaioplasts (b) sphaerosomes (c) aleuroplasts (d) pyrenoids.
36. Grana are
(a) protein storing plastids. (b) coloured plastids.
(c) stacks of thylakoids. (d) individual thylakoids present in stroma.
37. A component of cytoskeleton is:
(a) Microtubule (b) Bone (c) Chitin (d) Cartilage.
38. The cytoskeleton is a proteinaceous network of fibres in the cytoplasm. It is involved in:
(a) Mechanical support. (b) Motility.
(c) Maintenace of cell-shape. (d) All of these.
39. Axoneme with 9 + 2 microtubular arrangement occurs in:
(a) Cilia (b) Flagella (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Centriole
40. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella differ in the
(a) type of movement and placement. (b) location and mode of functioning.
(c) microtubular structure and function. (d) microtubular organisation and type of movement.
41. Basal bodies are associated with the formation of :
(a) Phragmoplast (b) Cilia and flagella (c) Cell plate (d) Kinetochore
42. Centrioles and centrosomes occur in the cells of :
(a) Green plants (b) Animals (c) Bacteria and cyanobacteria (d) Both (b) and (c)

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43. Nucleolus is
(a) rounded structure found in cytoplasm near nucleus.
(b) rounded structure inside nucleus and having rRNA.
(c) rod-shaped structure in cytoplasm near the nucleus.
(d) None of the above.
44. Satellite means
(a) terminal part of the chromosome beyond secondary constriction.
(b) terminal part of the chromosome beyond primary constriction.
(c) terminal part of chromosome beyond tertiary constriction.
(d) None of the above.
45. According to widely accepted “fluid mosaic model” cell membranes are semi-fluid, where lipids
and integral proteins can diffuse randomly. In recent years, this model has been
modified in several respects. In this regard, which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Proteins in cell membranes can travel within the lipid bilayer.
(b) Proteins can also undergo flip-flop movements in the lipid bilayer.
(c) Proteins can remain confined within certain domains of the membrane.
(d) Many proteins remain completely embedded within the lipid bilayer.
46. Study the following statements on cilium or flagellum and choose the correct statement.
(i) Cilium / Flagellum contains an outer ring of nine doublet microtubules surrounding
two singlet microtubules.
(ii) Cilia are smaller which work like oars, causing the movement of either the cells or
surrounding fluid.
(iii) Flagella are comparatively longer and responsible for cell movement.
(iv) Cilium and flagellum are covered with plasma membrane.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
47. Which of the following statement is not the function of cell wall?
(i) Provides shape to the cell.
(ii) Protects the cell from mechanical damage and infection.
(iii) Helps in cell to cell interaction.
(iv) Provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iv) (c) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) None of these
48. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(i) Plant cells have centrioles which are absent in almost all animal cells.
(ii) Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis.
(iii) The middle lamella is a layer mainly of calcium carbonate which holds the different
neighbouring cells together.
(iv) In animal cell, steroidal hormones are synthesised by smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
49. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) The endomembrane system includes plasma membrane, ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes
and vacuoles.
(ii) ER helps in the transport of substances, synthesis of proteins, lipoproteins and
glycogen.
(iii) Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis.
(iv) Mitochondria help in oxidative phosphorylation and generation of ATP.
(a) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (b) (i) only (c) (ii) only (d) (iii) only
50. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Na+/K+ pump is an example of active transport.
(b) In plant cells lipid like steroidal hormones are synthesised in SER.
(c) In plant cells, the vacuoles can occupy up to 10% of the volume of the cell.
(d) Chlorophyll and leucoplast are responsible for trapping light energy essential for
photosynthesis.

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51. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Tonoplast I. Contain digestive enzyme.
B. Contractile vacuole II. Store metabolic gases.
C. Food vacuole III. Excretion
D. Air vacuole IV. Transport of ions in plants.
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(c) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I (d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
52. Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the given figure of cilia/flagella. Choose the
option which shows the correct labelling of parts.

(a) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge, C – Central microtubule, D – Radial spoke

(b) A – Plasma membrane, B – Arm, C – Central microtubule, D – Radial spoke
(c) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge, C – Hub, D – Radial spoke
(d) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge, C– Hub, D – Arm
53. The given diagram shows the types of chromosomes (labelled as A, B, C & D) based on the
position of centromere. Which one is the correct option for the labelled chromosomes.
A, B, C and D?

(a) A – Telocentric chromosome, B – Acrocentric chromosome, C – Submetacentric

chromosome, D – Metacentric chromosome
(b) A – Acrocentric chromosome, B – Telocentric chromosome, C – Metacentric chromosome,
D – Submetacentric chromosome
(c) A – Submetacentric chromosome, B – Metacentric chromosome, C – Telocentric
chromosome, D – Acrocentric chromosome
(d) A – Metacentric chromosome, B – Submetacentric chromosome, C– Acrocentric
chromosome, D – Telocentric chromosome.THE UNIT OF LIFE 109
54. Microtubules, motor proteins, and actin filaments are all part of the
(a) mechanism of photosynthesis that occurs in chloroplasts.
(b) rough ER in prokaryotic cells.
(c) cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells.
(d) process that moves small molecules across cell membranes.
55. In which method of transport, plasma membrane does not require carrier molecule?
(a) Active transport (b) Facilitated diffusion (c) Simple diffusion (d) Na+ – K+ pump
56. Which of the following organelles is directly connected to the outer membrane of the nucleus in a
eukaryotic cell?
(a) Mitochondrion (b) Lysosome (c) Golgi apparatus (d) Endoplasmic reticulum
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Directions for Q 57 and 58: A student was given cell samples (A and B) to identify parts which are
highlighted. He observed the samples under the microscope and list
down the function of the part of cell sample. The information collected
by the student is listed in the table below, on the basis of which the
student infers that the samples contain the organelles.
Sample A Sample B
Make energy available for Generates ATP and
cellular metabolism. synthesises sugar.
Absent in cell that carry Present in plant cell.
oxygen throughout the body.
Called the energy currency of cell. Source of all the food energy.
57. Identify the part highlighted in the sample A and B and explain why they were called as semi-
autonomous organelles?
(a) Sample A - Mitochondria, Sample B - Chloroplast; because both the organelles are double
membrane bound structure.
(b) Sample A- Mitochondria, Sample B - Chloroplast; because they both are capable of
synthesis of their own proteins only.
(c) Sample A - Mitochondria, Sample B - Chloroplast; because they are capable of synthesis of
their own proteins and contain their own DNA.
(d) Sample A- Mitochondria, Sample B - Chloroplast; because they contain their own DNA to
transfer the genetic information from one generation to another.
58. Explain why the samples were belonged to eukaryotic cell and not prokaryotic cell?
(a) Eukaryotic cell have membrane bound organelles.
(b) Eukaryotic cell have non - membrane bound organelles.
(c) Eukaryotic cell are smaller and multiply more rapidly than prokaryotic cells.
(d) Eukaryotic cell are larger and multiply more rapidly than prokaryotic cells.
59. A student placed two cells in the same solution in two different containers. The observation was
given in the table.
Container Observation
1 Cell burst.
2 Cell does not change its shape.
Which structure maintains the shape of the cell present in container 2 and provides the most significant
difference between the two cells?
(a) Nucleus (b) Cell wall (c) Chloroplast (d) Cell membrane
60. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
A. Golgi apparatus I. Storage
B. Mitochondria II. Photosynthesis
C. Vacuoles III. Transport
D. Grana IV. Secretion
V. Respiration
(a) A – IV; B – V; C – I: D – II (b) A – I; B – II; C – IV: D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II: D – III (d) A – I; B – II; C – III: D – I
LEVEL-2
1. Lysosomes are generally found in:
(a) Animal cells (b) Plant cells (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Bacterial cells
2. Which of the following statements is incorrect about ribosomes?
(a) Formed by two-subunits. (b) Formed by ribonucleoprotein.
(c) Formed in chain. (d) Both subunits are bounded by a membrane.
3. Which type of ribosomes are found in Nostoc cells?
(a) 50 S (b) 60 S (c) 70 S (d) 80 S
4. ‘Palade granules’ are:
(a) Ribosomes (b) Microbodies
(c) Sulphur granules (d) Lipid granules.

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5. Which of the following cell organelle lacks DNA and bounding membrane?
(a) Ribosome (b) Plastid (c) Nucleolus (d) Plasmid
6. If all the ribosomes of a cell are destroyed, then
(a) respiration will not take place. (b) photosynthesis will not occur.
(c) fat will not be stored. (d) protein will not be formed.
7. In prokaryotic ribosome, RNA – protein ratio is
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) None of these
8. Which of the following structures carries out a similar function in both plant and animal cell?
(a) Chloroplasts (b) Ribosomes
(c) Cell wall (d) Contractile vacuoles
9. Matched the Column I and Column II and select the correct answer using the code given below.
Column I Column II
A. Microtubules Structural components of cilia.
B. Centrioles Store hydrolytic enzymes.
C. Peroxisomes Store oil protein and starch in plants.
(a) A, B and C are correct. (b) A and B are correct, C is incorrect.
(c) A is correct, B and C are incorrect. (d) A and C are correct, B is incorrect.
10. The cellular role of microtubule is:
(a) Protein synthesis. (b) Intracellular communication.
(c) Digestion of aged organelles. (d) Cell destruction during development.
11. In an animal cell, protein synthesis takes place
(a) only on the ribosomes in the cytosol.
(b) only on the ribosomes attached to nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum.
(c) on ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm.
(d) on ribosomes present in the cytosol as well as in the mitochondria.
12. Difference between prokaryote and eukaryote is in:
(a) Cell size. (b) Cell shape.
(c) Chemical composition of protoplasm. (d) Organisation of nuclear material.
13. Which of the following four cell structures is correctly matched with the accompanying
description?
(a) Plasma membrane — Outer layer composed of cellulose or chitin.
(b) Mitochondria — Bacteria like elements with inner membrane forming sacs containing
chlorophyll, found in plant cell and algae.
(c) Chloroplasts — Bacteria like elements with inner membrane highly folded.
(d) Golgi apparatus — Stacks of flattened vesicles.
14. The thickness of unit membrane is
(a) 20 Å (b) 35 Å (c) 55 Å (d) 75 Å
15. Choose the incorrect match.
(a) Nucleus — RNA (b) Lysosome — Protein synthesis
(c) Mitochondria — Respiration (d) Cytoskeleton — Microtubules
16. Which of the following is absent in prokaryotes?
(a) DNA (b) RNA (c) Plasma membrane (d) Mitochondria
17. Enzymes found attached to inner membrane of mitochondria instead of matrix is/are:
(a) Succinate Dehydrogenase (b) Cytochrome Oxidase
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Malic dehydrogenase
18. The factor which set the limit of cell size or volume are:
(i) The rate of metabolic activity.
(ii) The nucleo-cytoplasmic or kern-plasma ratio.
(iii) The ability of oxygen and other materials to reach every part of the cell.
(iv) The ability of waste products to pass outside.
(v) The ratio of surface area to the volume of the cell.
Choose the correct set of statements.
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) Only (v) (d) All of the above

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19. The lipid molecules present in plasma membrane have polar heads and non-polar tails (as shown
in figure). Which option represents the correct arrangement of liquid bilayer?

20. Mitochondria are usually found in:

(a) Reproductive cells. (b) Vegetative cells. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these.
21. Mesosomes were taken as:
(a) Golgi bodies (b) Plastids (c) Mitochondria (d) Endoplasmi reticulum
22. In which part of mitochondria, ATP is generated?
(a) Matrix (b) Cristae (c) Outer membrane (d) F1 particles (oxysomes)
23. Which one of the following organelle given below is correctly matched with its function ?
(a) Golgi apparatus– Protein synthesis.
(b) Golgi apparatus– Formation of glycolipids.
(c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum– Protein synthesis.
(d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum– Formation of glycoproteins.
24. What would happen if lysosomes get ruptured in a cell?
(a) Cell dies (b) Cell shrinks (c) Cell swell up (d) Nothing would happen.
25. The fluidity of membranes in a plant in cold weather may be maintained by
(a) increasing the number of phospholipids with unsaturated hydrocarbon tails.
(b) increasing the proportion of integral proteins.
(c) increasing concentration of cholesterol in membrane.
(d) increasing the number of phospholipids with saturated hydrocarbon tail.
26. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) In prokaryotic cells, a special membranous structure formed by the extension of the
plasma membrane into the cell is known as polysome.
(ii) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major site for synthesis of glycoproteins.er key
(iii) RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in the whole biosphere.
(iv) Mitochondria, chloroplasts and peroxisomes are not considered as part of
endomembrane system.
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
27. Chromosomes having equal or almost equal arms are called _________.
(a) metacentric (b) acrocentric (c) polycentric (d) acentric.
28. Percentage of mitochondrial DNA in the cell is
(a) 10% of total cellular DNA (b) 1% of total cellular DNA
(c) 2.5% of total cell (d) None of the above.
29. DNA strands are antiparallel because of the presence of
(a) H-bonds (b) peptide bonds (c) disulphide bonds (d) phosphate-diester bonds
30. Enzyme found functional in lysosome is:
(a) Acid phosphatase (b) Basic phosphatase (c) Oxidoreductase (d) Lyases

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 Answer key
NEET 8 Years at a Glance
1) c 2) b 3) c 4) c 5) c 6) c 7) b 8) c 9) c 10) c
11) a 12) b 13) c 14) a 15) c 16) a 17) a 18) c 19) a 20) a
21) b 22) a 23) d 24) b 25) b 26) a 27) 2 28) 3 29) 4 30) 1
31) 2 32) 3 33) 2 34) 1 35) 2 36) 2 37) 4 38) 4 39) 3 40) 4
41) 4 42) 4 43) 2 44) 1
LEVEL-1
1 (b) 7 (d) 13 (c) 19 (d) 25 (a) 31 (d) 37 (a) 43 (b) 49 (a) 55 (c)
2 (b) 8 (a) 14 (d) 20 (b) 26 (b) 32 (a) 38 (d) 44 (a) 50 (a) 56 (d)
3 (b) 9 (d) 15 (d) 21 (b) 27 (b) 33 (b) 39 (c) 45 (b) 51 (a) 57 (c)
4 (d) 10 (d) 16 (b) 22 (b) 28 (d) 34 (d) 40 (d) 46 (b) 52 (a) 58 (a)
5 (a) 11 (b) 17 (c) 23 (a) 29 (c) 35 (a) 41 (b) 47 (d) 53 (a) 59 (b)
6 (a) 12 (a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 30 (b) 36 (c) 42 (b) 48 (a) 54 (c) 60 (a)
LEVEL-2
1 (c) 4 (a) 7 (a) 10 (b) 13 (b) 16 (d) 19 (b) 22 (d) 25 (a) 28 (b)
2 (d) 5 (a) 8 (b) 11 (b) 14 (d) 17 (c) 20 (c) 23 (c) 26 (a) 29 (a)
3 (c) 6 (d) 9 (c) 12 (d) 15 (b) 18 (d) 21 (c) 24 (a) 27 (a) 30 (a)

NEET 5 Years at a Glance

1. (c) The nucleolus (plural nucleoli) is a large, distinct, spheroidal subcompartment of the nucleus of
eukaryote cells that is the site of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis and assembly of ribosomal subunits.
2. (b) Golgi complex after processing, packages them in vesicles, and either stores them for later use or
sends them out of the cell. It is also the organelle that builds lysosomes
(cell digestion machines).
3. (c) Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). Smooth
endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in lipid synthesis.
4. (c) Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary glands of insects of order Diptera
5. (c) The site of aerobic oxidation of carbohydrates in cells to generate ATP are mitochondria.
6. (c) Mitochondria & chloroplast are semi-autonomous cell organelle which are formed by division of
pre-existing organelle & contain DNA but they also contain protein
synthesizing machinery, thus (1) is true & (2) is false.
7. (b)
8. (c) Double membrane bound organelles are mitochondria, chloroplasts, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi
body, and nucleus. Single membrane bound organelles are lysosomes, peroxisomes, and vacuoles.
Organelles lacking any membrane are ribosomes, centrioles, nucleolus.
9. (c) Cell wall is absent in a protoplast.
10. (c) Polysomes are found in eukaryotes and are defined as a cluster of ribosomes attached to a mRNA
molecule. Polysomes are number of ribosomal complexes situated
on mRNA.
11. (a) Ribosomes are not membrane-bound cell organelle.
12. (b) Genome > chromosomes > gene > nucleotide.
13. (c) RNA and protein synthesis occur in Balbiani rings.
14. (a)
15. (c) Lysosomes, golgi apparatus and mitochondria are the cell organelles which have membranes.
16. (a) Satellite DNA displays high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of
polymorphism in an individual, which is inherited from parents to children
(offsprings).
17. (a) Ribosomes are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins and are not surrounded by any membrane.
These are the site for protein synthesis.
18. (c) In late prophase, nuclear envelope disappears and reappears in late telophase from rough
endoplasmic reticulum (RER).
19. (a) Lipid synthesis takes place in smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
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20. (a) The function of the gap junction is to facilitate communication between adjoining cells by
connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and some large molecules.
21. (b) Mycoplasma lacks cell wall.
22. (a) In acrocentric chromosomes, one arm is very short but another is long.
23. (d) In some bacteria (e.g., Bacillus subtilis), the plasma membrane form certain invaginations or
infoldings called mesosomes in the cytoplasm. The mesosomes have various functions, viz., respiratory,
secretory etc.
24. (b) Microtubule, microfilament and intermediate filaments along with ER form cytoskeleton.
Microfilaments are nonliving, solid and consist of actin protein. They are 4-6 nm in diameter.
25. (b) The vacuole is bound by a single membrane called tonoplast. It also functions as semipermeable
membrane. It segregates vacuolar contents from cytoplasm, allows osmotic entry or exit of water,
concentration and storage of nutrients as well as wastes.
26. (a)
39. Phosphate granules, glycogen granules and cyanophycean granules are inclusion bodies. They are freely
present in cytoplasm and are not bound by any membrane
40: Golgi bodies is useful for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
41. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is
referred as Metacentric. When the centromere is present slightly away from the middle, it is called sub-
metacentric chromosome.When the centromere is present very close to one end of the chromosome, it is
called acrocentric chromosome.When the centromere is present at terminal position, the chromosome is
called telocentric
42. A mature sieve tube elements possess a peripheral cytoplasm and a large central vacuole but lacks a
nucleus. Rest of other statements are correct.
43. iii---iv---i—ii
44. Endo membrane system
Endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi complex , Lysosomes and vacuoles
LEVEL-1
1. (b) Rudolf Virchow (1855) first explained that cells divided and new cells are formed from pre-existing
cells (omnis cellula-e-cellula). It is also known as law of cell lineage.
2. (b) Ribosome is sub-spherical granular structure which is devoid of membrane.
3. (b) The prokaryotic cells do not have nuclear membrane while eukaryotic cell have well organised
nuclear membrane.
4. (d)
5. (a)
6. (a)
7. (d) Unicellular organisms are capable of
(i) independent existence,
(ii) perform the essential functions of life.
Anything less than a complete stucture of a cell does not ensure independent living. Hence, cell is the
fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms.
8. (a) In prokaryotes, if cell wall is present, it possesses muramic acid.
9. (d) The prokaryotes lack membrane bound organelles such as mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum,
Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, microtubules, microfilaments and centrioles.
10. (d) In eukaryotes, ribosomes are found in chloroplasts and mitochondria. In prokaryotes, ribosomes
occur freely in the cytoplasmic matrix. In eukaryotic cells, RER possesses ribosomes attached to its
membranes. Ribosomes occur in all living cells with the exception
of mammalian erythrocytes or red blood corpuscles.
11. (b) In some prokaryotes like cyanobacteria or blue-green algae, there are other membranous extensions
in the cytoplasm called chromatophores.
12. (a)
13. (c) Several ribosomes may attach to a single mRNA and forms a chain called polysomes. The ribosomes
of a polysome translate the mRNA into proteins.
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14. (d) In some prokaryotes like cyanobacteria, there are membranous extensions into the
cytoplasm called chromatophores which contain pigments.
15. (d) Nerve cells are the longest cells of the body.
16. (b)
17. (c) In bacteria, a sticky, gelatinous material called glycocalyx collects outside the cell wall to form an
additional surface layer. Glycocalyx covering of the bacterial cell may be loose, thin sheath or thick and
tough coat. Loose glycocalyx covering is termed slime layer while tough and thick type is known as
capsule.
18. (b)
19. (d) Integral proteins occur inside the lipid bilayer passing to its diferent depths. Some intrinsic proteins
run throughout the thickness of the membrane. They are called transmembrane proteins.
20. (b) An energy dependent process, in which ATP is utilised is called an active transport.
e.g., Na+ / K+ Pump.
21. (b) The ratio of protein and lipids varies considerably in different cell types. The membrane of the
erythrocytes has approximately 52% of proteins and 40% lipids.
22. (b) The lipid component of the membrane is mainly consists of phosphoglycerides. Phosphoglyceride
are glycerol based phospholipids and main component of biological membranes. Each
glycerophospholipid molecule consists of a small polar head group and two
long hydrophobic chains.
23. (a)
24. (c) Middle lamella is the cementing layer between the cells. It is made up of Ca and Mg pectates.
25. (a)
26. (b) Cell wall is a very tough, flexible and rigid layer that surrounds the cell membrane. Cell wall
determines the shape of the cells and provides a strong structural support to prevent the bacterium from
bursting or collapsing.
27. (b) The endomembrane system includes endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex, lysosomes and
vacuoles.
28. (d) Endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes are the cell organelles which were discovered after the
introduction of electron microscope.
29. (c)
30. (b) Golgi apparatus principally performs the function of packaging material to be delivered either to the
intra – cellular targets or secreted outside the cell.
31. (d) Lysosomes are originated by golgi complex and contain many hydrolytic enzymes (hydrolases –
lipases,proteases, carbohydrases) which are optically active at the acidic pH.
32. (a)
33. (b)
34. (d) Plastids are found in all plant cells and in euglenoides.
35. (a) Elaioplasts are a type of leucoplast that is specialised for the storage of lipids in plants.
36. (c) Grana is a stacked membranous structure within the chloroplasts of plants and green algae that
contains the chlorophyll (green pigment). It is the site of the light reactions of photosynthesis. The sac-
like membranes that make up grana are known as thylakoids.
37. (a)
38. (d) The cytoskeleton is a series of intercellular proteins that help a cell with shape, mechanical support,
and movement. Cytoskeleton has three main structural components: microfilaments, intermediate
filaments, and microtubules.
39. (c) Axoneme with 9 + 2 microtubular arrangement occurs in cilia and flagella. Cilia are hair like
growths of the cell membrane. Flagella are comparatively longer and responsible for movement. The
axoneme usually has nine pair of centrally located microtubules. Such an arrangement of axonemal
microtubules is referred to as the 9 + 2 array.
40. (d) Microtubular organisation and type of movement differentiates prokaryotic flagella or eukaryotic
flagella.
41. (b)
42. (b) A centriole is a barrel - shaped cell structure found in most animal eukaryotic cells, though absent in
higher plants and most fungi.

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43. (b) Nucleolus is a small rounded body within a resting nucleus that contains RNA and proteins. It is
usually associated with a specific chromosomal site and involved in ribosomal RNA synthesis and the
formation of ribosomes.
44. (a)
45. (b) The quasi-fluid nature of lipid enable lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer. This
ability to move within the membrane is measured as its fluidity.
46. (b)
47. (d) All the given function is related to cell wall. Cell wall is a very tough, flexible and fairly rigid layer
that surrounds some types of cells. It surrounds the cell membrane
and provides these cells with structural support and protection. It also acts as a filtering mechanism.
48. (a) The centrioles occur in nearly all animal cells, but absent in plant cells with few exceptions such as
zoospores of algae, sperm cells of ferns, and motile algae. Middle lamella is a thin, amorphous and
cementing layer between two adjacent cells. It is made up of pectates of
calcium and magnesium.
49. (a) Endomembrance system is a grouping of some membrane organelles which function in close
coordination with one another, viz., endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex,
lysosomes and vacuoles.
50. (a) In animal cells lipid like steroidal hormones are synthesised in SER. In plant cells, the vacuoles can
occupy up to 90% of the volume of the cell. Chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments are responsible for
trapping light energy essential for photosynthesis.
51. (a)
52. (a)
53. (a) The figures (A, B, C and D) are respectively telocentric chromosomes, acrocentric chromosomes,
sub metacentric chromosomes and metacentric chromosomes. These
chromosomes are classified on the basis of location of centromere.
54. (c) The cytoskeleton supports the cell and allows movement of the entire cell and microtubules, motor
proteins and actin filaments are part of the cytoskeleton.
55. (c) Simple diffusion is a process in which plasma membrane does not require any carrier molecule to
pass small noncharged molecules or lipid soluble molecules between
the phospholipids to enter or leave the cell. The particles move from areas of high concentration to areas
of low concentration (they move down their concentration
gradient). Oxygen, carbon dioxide & most lipids enter and leave cells by simple diffusion.
56. (d) The connection between E.R. and nucleus allows material produced in the nucleus to directly enter
the ER via the nuclear pores.
57. (c) Part in sample A and B are respectively mitochondria and chloroplast. They were called as semi-
autonomous organelles because they are capable of synthesis of their own proteins and contain their
own DNA; within the cell they are partially dependent upon cellular metabolism.
58. (a) The samples belong to eukaryotic cells because eukaryotic cell is a type of cell which have enclosed
membrane bound organelles and nucleus. And both the mitochondria and chloroplast are membrane
bound organelles. Whereas prokaryotic cells are morphologically the most primitive cells and they don't
have a membrane bound nucleus and organelles. Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller in size and
multiply more rapidly than the eukaryotic cells.
59. (b) The cell wall protects the cell, maintains its shape and provides supports and strength to it. Nucleus
controls the cell's activities. Chloroplast is a cell organelle that makes food for the plant cell. The cell
membrane holds the parts of the cell together and also separates the cell
from its surroundings.
60. (a) Golgi apparatus is a cellular organelle which is involved in the modifying, sorting and packaging of
proteins for secretion. Mitochondria are known as the power house of the cell as they are the site of
chemical reactions that transfer energy from organic compounds in ATP. Vacuole is a membrane bound
organelle and filled with water containing inorganic and organic molecules including enzymes in
solution. Vacuoles might store food or any variety of nutrients a cell might need to survive. Grana are a
stacked membranous structure within the chloroplasts of plants and green algae that contains the
chlorophyll and is the site of the light reactions of photosynthesis.

19 | P a g e
 LEVEL-2
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d)
7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (b) Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis, and can occur freely in the cytoplasm though more
commonly on the outer surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum. Rough ER is responsible for
transporting the newly synthesised proteins to the Golgi apparatus.
12. (d) Prokaryotic cells are differ from eukaryotic cells in organisation of nuclear material. In eukaryotes,
nuclear material is present in nucleus, which is surrounded by nuclear membrane, while in prokaryotes
nuclear material is dispersed in cytoplasm, there is no well
organised nucleus in prokaryotes.
13. (b) 14. (d)
15. (b) Protein synthesis takes place in ribosomes, which are attached to surface of endoplasmic reticulum
by ribophorin-I and ribophorin-II. About 50 hydrolytic enzymes are found
in the lysosome. They include proteases, nucleases, glycosidases, lipases, phospholipases, phosphatases
and sulphatases. All lysosomal enzymes are acid hydrolases and optimally active at pH-5.0.
16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (d)
19. (b) Lipids are arranged in bilayers and proteins are embedded in it. Lipids are arranged within the
membrane with polar head towards the outer side while hydrophobic tails towards the inner side.
20. (c) Both reproductive and vegetative cells respire therefore mitochondria are present.
21. (c) 22. (d)
23. (c) The given figure shows the structure of RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum). RER is involved in
protein synthesis and responsible for the assembly of many proteins (in a process called translation).
24. (a) Lysosomes are membrane-enclosed organelles and consist of hydrolytic enzymes which capable of
breaking down all types of biological polymers (like proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids).
If lysosomes get ruptured in a cell, the cell dies due to release of hydrolytic enzymes which destroys the
cells.
25. (a) The concept of membrane fluidity refer to the fact that both lipids and proteins may have
considerable freedom of lateral movements within the bilayer. The fluidity of membranes in a plant in
cold weather may be maintained by increasing the number of phospholipids with
unsaturated hydrocarbon tails.
26. (a) The special membranous structure formed by the extension of prokaryotic plasma membrane is
known as mesosome while polysome is structure formed by combination of many ribosomes. SER is the
major site of synthesis of lipids. The site of
protein synthesis is RER.
27. (a) Centromeres consist of a complex combination of proteins and DNA. They are essential to the
division and ensure the accurate segregation of chromosomes. Metacentric chromosomes have the
centromere in the centre, such that both sections are of equal length. Human chromosome 1 and 3 are
metacentric.
28. (b) 29. (a)
30. (a) Enzyme acid phosphatase is found functional in lysosome. It acts on substrate
phosphomonoesters and converts it into monophosphates.

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 SR NEET SUPER CHAINA PHASE-2 PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT-BOTANY
========================================================================

9.Biomolecules
 Important/Critical Points to Remember
➢ Chitin forms exoskeleton, mainly in arthropods. It is also present in the cell wall of fungi. Its unit is b-
NAcetylglucosamine. It is a homopolymer.
➢ The polysaccharide agar has more than one type of monosaccharide units (hence heteroglycan). The
➢ polysaccharide Inulin (Dahlia starch) is a polymer of fructose (homoglycan) with b-1,2 linkage.
➢ The equimolecular mixture of glucose and fructose is called invert sugar which is sweeter than sucrose.
➢ In ruminants (e.g. cows, sheep etc.) the cellulose is digested by bacteria and protozoans in stomach,
whereas in other herbivores (e.g. rabbit) it is digested by bacteria in large intestine. Termites digest
cellulose of wood with the help of Trichonympha (a symbiotic protozoan).
➢ The children who cannot produce phospholipids/ lecithin (here called surfactant) in their alveoli at
birth, suffer from ‘Respiratory distress syndrome’ and need a lot of effort to overcome surface tension
of water layer on alveoli. Such infants are kept in ICU till they start producing lecithin.
➢ Unsaturated fatty acids have one or more double bonds between C-atoms. E.g., Oleic acid (one double
bond), Linoleic acid (2-double bond), Linolenic acid ( 3-double bond) and Arachidonic acid (4-double
bond).
➢ Saturated fatty acids do not have double bonds between carbon atoms. E.g. acetic acid, propionic acid,
butyric acid, palmitic acid, stearic acid etc.
➢ The HDL (High density lipoprotein) is ‘good cholesterol’ for health. Its normal value in human plasma
is 30-70 mg/ 100 ml. (less than 30 mg/100 ml is risky for cardio-vascular problems). The LDL (Low
density lipoprotein) is ‘bad cholesterol’. Its normal value in human plasma is 80-170 mg/100 ml.
➢ (more than 160 mg/100 ml is risky).
➢ Edwin Chargaff reported that net amount of adenine was equal to thymine (A = T) and amount of
guanine was equal to cytosine (G = C). This means that total number of purines is equal to the total
number of pyrimidines (A + G = T + C ).
➢ 4 m -RNA ( Messenger RNA ) - ~ 5% of total RNA.
➢ 4 r -RNA ( Ribosomal RNA ) - 80% of total RNA.
➢ 4 t -RNA ( Transfer RNA or Adapter RNA) - 15% of total RNA.
➢ Feulgan, Aceto-carmine and Aceto-orcein are nuclear stains. Feulgan stain (reaction) is specifically for
DNA, as it stains ‘deoxyribose’ sugar.
➢ Holoenzymes are conjugated proteins. Their non-protein part is called co-factor.
• The co-factor can be inorganic or organic in nature. The organic factor, if permanently attached
to the
➢ enzymes, is called prosthetic group and if temporarily attached (only during reaction), is called co-
enzyme :
• Haem is a prosthetic group in catalases and peroxidases. NAD and NADP are co-enzymes. FAD
is co-enzyme in flavo-proteins or yellow enzymes.
➢ Table : Important elements (% weight)
Elements In Earth crust In human body
Oxygen (O) 46.6 65
Carbon (C) 0.03 18
Hydrogen (H) 0.14 10.5
Nitrogen (N) Very little 3.3
Calcium (Ca) 3.6 1.5
Silicon (Si) 277 negligible
The most abundant element in protoplasm is oxygen.
➢ The omega (w)-3 unsaturated fatty acids, present abundantly in fish oil, are of great nutritional value,
and
➢ are required for proper mental growth especially of the ‘grey matter’.
➢ Essential amino acids
• The EIGHT, very essential, amino acids are
1. Isoleucine (Ile) 2. Leucine (Leu)
3. Lysine (Lys) 4. Methionine (Met)
5. Phenylalanine (Phe) 6. Threonine (Thr)
7. Tryptophan (Trp) 8. Valine (Val)
 • Tryptophan is the most complex amino acid and has ‘Indole ring’.
➢ Non-essential Amino acids –
• They can be synthesized in the body.
• The non-essential amino acids are ten in number. They are :
1. Alanine (Ala) 2. Asparagine (Asn)
3. Aspartic acid (Asp) 4. Cysteine (Cys)
5. Glutamic acid (Glu) 6. Glutamine (Gln)
7. Glycine (Gly) 8. Proline (Pro)
9. Serine (Ser) 10. Tyrosine (Tyr)
➢ The Km value is called the ‘Signature of enzyme’ and is the characteristic of each enzyme for a
specific substrate.
➢ Higher is the affinity of an enzyme for a substrate the lower is its Km value,

i.e.
Tips and Tricks
➢ Remember the chemical structure of DNA.
➢ Give more emphasis on the following:
• Nitrogenous base and their chemical formula/ structure
• Enzymes and their functions.
➢ Give short on essential elements, proteins and polysaccharides.
➢ Make table on essential proteins and their functions.

Topic-wise analysis of NEET 2014-2021

Topic name/ year 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2019 2020 2020 2021
(Orissa) (covid)
T1: Essential Molecules 1 2 1 1 1 3
of Biological System/
Lipids/Metabolites

T2: Polysaccharides 1 1 1 1 1

T3: Nucleic Acid 1 1

T4: Protein 2

T5: Nature of Bonds in 1 1

Polymers

T6: Enzymes/Concept of 1 1 1 1 1
Metabolism
 NEET 8 Years at a Glance
1. The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are [2018]
(a) Hydroxyl and methyl (b) Carbonyl and methyl
(c) Carbonyl and hydroxyl (d) Carbonyl and phosphate
2. Which of the following are not polymeric? [2017]
(a) Proteins (b) Polysaccharides (c) Lipids (d) Nucleic acids
3. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to enzymes? [2017]
(a) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme (b) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(c) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor (d) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
4. A typical fat molecule is made up of [2016]
(a) three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule.
(b) one glycerol and three fatty acid molecules.
(c) one glycerol and one fatty acid molecule. (d) three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules.
5. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? [2016]
(a) Sucrose is a disaccharide. (b) Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
(c) Uracil is a pyrimidine. (d) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
6. The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of [2016]
(a) melatonin and serotonin. (b) thyroxine and triiodothyronine.
(c) estrogen and progesterone. (d) cortisol and cortisone.
7. Which of the following biomolecules does have phosphodiester bond? [2015]
(a) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide. (b) Amino acids in a polypeptide.
(c) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide. (d) Fatty acids in a diglyceride.
8. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? [2015]
(a) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor molecule is not chemically changed by the enzyme.
(b) The competitive inhibitor does not affect the rate of breakdown of the enzyme-substrate complex.
(c) The presence of the competitive inhibitor decreases the Km of the enzyme for the substrate.
(d) A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly with the enzyme to form an enzyme- inhibitor complex.
9. Which one of the following is a non-reducing carbohydrate? [2014]
(a) Maltose (b) Sucrose (c) Lactose (d) Ribose 5 - phosphate
10. Select the statement which is not correct with respect to enzyme action. [2014]
(a) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site.
(b) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate.
(c) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate.
(d) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase.
11. Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin-dependent? (NEET-2019)
(1) GLUT I (2) GLUT II (3) GLUT III (4) GLUT IV
12. Concanavalin A is : (NEET-2019)
(1) an alkaloid (2) an essential oil (3) a lectin (4) a pigment
13. Consider the following statements : (NEET-2019)
(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group.
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme.
Select the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (B) are true. (2) (A) is true and (B) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false. (4) (A) is false and (B) is true.
14. Which of the following organic compounds is the main constituent of Lecithin? (NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) Arachidonic acid (2) Phospholipid (3) Cholesterol (4) Phosphoprotein
15. Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes in that :- (NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) they require metal ions for their activity.
(2) they (prosthetic groups) are tightly bound to apoenzymes.
(3) their association with apoenzymes is transient.
(4) they can serve as co-factors in a number of enzyme-catalyzed reactions.
16. Identify the statement which is incorrect. (NEET-2020 COVID-19)
(1) Sulphur is an integral part of cysteine. (2) Glycine is an example of lipids.
(3) Lecithin contains phosphorus atom in its structure.
(4) Tyrosine possesses aromatic ring in its structure.
17. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure: (NEET-
2020)
1) Inulin, insulin 2) Chitin, cholesterol 3) Glycerol, trypsin 4) Cellulose, lecithin
18. Match the following: (NEET-2020)
(a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (i) Ricin
(b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate
(c) Cell wall material in fungi (iii) Chitin
(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) 2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
19. Which of the following statements is correct? (NEET-2020)
1) Adenine does not pair with thymine
2) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds
3) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond
4) Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds
20. Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals? (NEET-2020)
1) Insulin 2) Haemoglobin 3) Collagen 4) Lectin
21. Identify the basic amino acid from the following (NEET-2020)
1) Valine 2) Tyrosine 3) Glutamic Acid 4) Lysine
22. Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants ? [NEET-2021]
1)Amino acids, glucose 2) Vinblastin, curcumin
3) Rubber, gums 4) Morphine, codeine
23. Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II
a) Protein i) C = C double bonds
b) Unsaturated fatty acid ii) Phosphodiester bonds
c) Nucleic acid iii) Glycosidic bonds
d) Polysaccharide iv) Peptide bonds
a b c d
1) i iv iii ii
2) ii i iv iii
3) iv iii i ii
4) iv i ii iii
24. Identify the incorrect pair [NEET-2021]
1) Toxin - Abrin
2) Lectins - Concadnavalin A
3) Drugs - Ricin
4) Alkaloids - Codeine
25. Following are the statements with reference to ‘lipids’
a) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids
b) Lecithin is a phospholipid
c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1) c and d only 2) b and c only 3) b and e only 4) a and b only
 LEVEL-1
TOPIC-1: Essential Molecules of Biological System/Lipids/Metabolites
1. The acid used for preliminary separation of biomolecule in a living tissue is:
(a) Trichlorobenzoic acid (b) Benzoic acid (c) Trichloroacetic acid (d) Acetic acid
2. Biomolecules are:
(a) Organic compounds (b) Inorganic compounds (c) Volatile compounds (d) Both (a) and (b)
3. Unsaturated fatty acids have:
(a) Palmitic acid (b) Oleic acid (c) High melting point (d) One or more double bonds
4. Which of the following is/are essential fatty acid(s)?
(a) Linoleic acid (b) Linolenic acid (c) Arachidonic acid (d) All of these.
5. Phospholipids are important cell membrane constituents, because they
(a) contain glycerol. (b) can form bilayers in water.
(c) combine covalently with protein. (d) contain polar and non-polar portions.
6. Glycerol is a:
(a) Tetrahydroxy propane (b) Trihydroxy propane
(c) Trihydroxy butane (d) Tetrahydroxy butane
7. A fat has
(a) 3 glycerol and one fatty acid molecule. (b) one glycerol and 3 fatty acid molecules.
(c) 3 glycerol and 3 fatty acid molecules. (d) one glycerol and one fatty acid molecule.
8. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Long chain molecules of fatty acids are formed by polymerisation of 2 carbon compounds.
(b) Lipid molecules are soluble in water.
(c) In lipid, R group may be –CH3 group,–C2H5 group or higher number of –CH2 group (1 to 19
carbon).
(d) Oils have lower melting temperature.
9. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding secondary metabolites?
(a) Plant tissues produce only secondary metabolities.
(b) Secondary metabolites have restricted distribution in the plant kingdoms.
(c) Abrin and ricin are secondary metabolities used as a drugs.
(d) Some secondary metabolites have ecological importance.
10. Match column I (organic compound) with column II (examples) and choose the correct combination from
the given options.
Column-I Column-II
(Organic Compounds) (Examples)
A. Fatty acid I. Glutamic acid
B. Phospholipid II. Tryptophan
C. Aromatic amino acid III. Lecithin
D. Acidic amino acid IV. Palmitic acid
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III, D – IV (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II, D – I
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV, D – I (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I, D – II
11. Mark the odd pair in the followings :
(a) Amino acid – Protein (b) Nucleotide – DNA
(c) Glycerol – Fatty acid (d) Monosaccharide – Cellulose
12. The given diagrammatic representation shows one of the categories of small molecular weight organic
compounds in the living tissues. Identify the category
13. According to weight percentage, the first three elements in human body are
(a) C > H > O (b) C > O > N (c) O > N > C (d) O > C > H
14. In the composition of cellular mass, arrange the components proteins (P), carbohydrates(C), lipids(L) and
nucleic acids(N) in decreasing order of mass percentage.
(a) C > N > P > L (b) P > N > C > L (c) P > C > L > N (d) P > N > L > C
15. Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecule on earth, are produced by
(a) some bacteria, algae and green plant cells. (b) fungi, algae and green plant cells.
(c) all bacteria, fungi and algae. (d) viruses, fungi and bacteria.
16. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised?
(a) Lecithin - A phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane.
(b) Palmitic acid - An unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.
(c) Adenylic acid - Adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule.
(d) Alanine amino acid - Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule.
17. A nucleoside differs from nucleotide in not having:
(a) Sugar (b) Nitrogen (c) Phosphate (d) Phosphate and sugar
18. When triglycerides are solid at ordinary room temperature, they are called:
(a) Oils (b) Gases (c) Fats (d) None of these.
TOPIC-2: Polysaccharides
19. Inulin is a polymer of :
(a) Glucose (b) Galactose (c) Fructose (d) Arabinose
20. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding chitin?
(a) It is a storage of polysaccharide. (b) It is a heteropolysaccharide.
(c) It is a constituent of arthropods and fungal cell wall.
(d) It is a second most abundant carbohydrate on earth.
21. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Chitin, a complex or heteropolysaccharide occuring in exoskeleton consists of NAG.
(ii) Glucosamine and N-acetyl glucosamine are modified sugar.
(iii) Cellulose shows blue colour when treated with I2.
(iv) Starch in plants and glycogen in animals are store houses of energy.
(v) Right end of polysaccharide is called reducing end while left end is called non-reducing end.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii), (iv) and (v) (c) All except (iii) (d) All except (v)
22. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Cotton fibre I. Chitin
B. Exoskeleton of cockroach II. Glycogen
C. Liver III. Starch
D. Peeled potato IV. Cellulose
(a) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II (b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II (d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
23. Find out the incorrectly matched pair.
(a) Primary metabolite – Ribose (b) Secondary metabolite – Anthocyanins
(c) Chitin – Polysaccharide (d) Cellulose – Heteropolymer
24. Find out the correct match.
(a) Inulin – Polymer of glucose
(b) Starch – Spiral secondary structure
(c) Cellulose – Component of cell wall
(d) Glycogen – Monosaccharide and reserved food of plants
 TOPIC-3: Nucleic Acid
25. A nucleotide is formed of
(a) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate. (b) purine, sugar and phosphate.
(c) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate. (d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate.
26. Building block of nucleic acid is ________.
(a) nucleotide (b) nucleoside (c) amino acid (d) fatty acid
27. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is incorrectly matched with the
category mentioned against it ?
(a) Adenine, thymine – Purines (b) Thymine, uracil – Pyrimidines
(c) Uracil, cytosine – Pyrimidines (d) Guanine, adenine – Purines
28. Sugar-phosphate backbone in nucleic acid
(a) is hydrophilic in nature. (b) is negatively charged. (c) shows polarity. (d) All of these.
29. On hydrolysis, a nucleoside would not yield:
(a) Purine (b) Pyrimidine (c) Pentose sugar (d) Phosphoric acid.
30. The information in a genetic nucleic acid resides in the
(a) number of nucleotides. (b) kinds of nucleotides.
(c) sequence of nucleotides. (d) All of these.
TOPIC-4: Protein
31. Which of the following is the example of acidic amino acid?
(a) Lysine (b) Glutamic acid (c) Aspartic acid (d) Both (b) and (c)
32. All the following amino acids are aromatic, except:
(a) Tyrosine (b) Phenylalanine (c) Tryptophan (d) Valine
33. The most basic amino acid is:
(a) Arginine (b) Histidine (c) Glycine (d) Glutamine
34. Most abundant protein in human body is:
(a) Collagen (b) Myosin (c) Actin (d) Albumin
35. Quaternary structure is present in ________.
(a) haemoglobin (b) histone (c) globulin (d) elastin
36. Which of the following statement is incorrect about amino acid?
(a) The amino group and carboxylic group of an amino acid are attached to both amino and carboxylic
groups to alpha carbon.
(b) Amino acids have an N-terminus, C-terminus, and R groups.
(c) Amino acid can be classified by the number of peptide bond.
(d) Essential amino acids are not synthesised in the body, therefore have to be provided in the diet.
37. Select the incorrect statement.
(a) Amino acids are substituents methanes. (b) Glycerol is a trihydroxy propane.
(c) Lysine is a neutral amino acid. (d) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
38. Pick out the correct statement.
(a) Chitin is a homopolymer.
(b) Collagen is the most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.
(c) Proteins are linear chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
(d) In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharides are linked by a phosphodiester bond.
39. Study the given statements and select the correct option.
(i) Nitrogen bases are open chain hydrocarbons.
(ii) A nucleoside differ from nucleotide in not having phosphate.
(iii) One turn of B-DNA has ten base pairs.
(iv) Length of one turn of DNA is 3.4 Å.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct. (b) (i) and (iv) are correct.
(c) (ii) and (iii) are incorrect. (d) (i) and (iv) are incorrect.
40. Match the protein given in column I with its functions given in column II and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
(Proteins) (Functions)
A. Collagen I. Glucose transport
B. Trypsin II. Hormone
C. Insulin III. Intercellular ground substance
D. GLUT-4 IV. Enzyme
 (a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
41. Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) Glutamic acid – Acidic (b) Lysine – Basic
(c) Valine – Charged (d) Phenylalanine –Aromatic
42. If all the peptide bonds of a protein are broken down, then what would remain?
(a) Amino acids (b) Peptides (c) Polypeptides (d) Oligopeptides
43. Primary structure of polypeptide is stabilised or secondary structure of polypeptide is maintained by
(a) disulphide bonds. (b) ionic bonds.
(c) hydrogen bonds. (d) hydrophobic interactions.
TOPIC-5: Nature of Bonds in Polymers
44. The bond between phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar in nucleic acid is _______.
(a) glycosidic bond (b) peptide bond (c) ester bond (d) None of these.
45. Find out the odd one from the given pair.
(a) Polysaccharide – Glycosidic bond (b) Protein – Peptide bond
(c) Fat – Ester (d) Polynucleotide – Hydrogen bond
46. Which of the two groups (marked as 1, 2, 3, & 4) of following formula involved in peptide bond between
different amino acids?

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

47. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that
(a) the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends share the same position.
(b) the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole).
(c) one strand turns clockwise.
(d) one strand turns anti-clockwise.
TOPIC-6: Enzymes/Concept of Metabolism
48. Turn over number of enzyme depends upon
(a) size of enzyme molecule. (b) number of the active sites.
(c) concentration of substrate molecule. (d) molecular weight of enzyme.
49. The Km value of the enzyme is the value of the substrate concentration at which the reaction reaches to
(a) zero (b) 2 Vmax (c) ½ Vmax (d) ¼ Vmax
50. Ribozyme is a/an
(a) enzyme whose cofactor is RNA. (b) RNA with enzyme activity.
(c) enzyme by which RNA is formed. (d) conjugated protein having ribose sugar.
51. Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by:
(a) Enzyme (b) Substrate (c) End product (d) Intermediate end products
52. Co-enzyme is:
(a) Always a protein (b) Often a metal (c) Always an inorganic compound (d) Often a vitamin
53. In an enzyme catalysed reaction the energy of activation of reactant is:
(a) Lowered (b) Increased (c) Remains unchanged (d) Equal to free energy
54. Match column I (function) with column II (Types of enzymes) and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
(Function) (Types of enzymes)
A. Enzymes catalysing breakdown without addition of water. I. Isomerases
B. Enzyme catalyzes the conversion of an aldose sugar to a ketose sugar. II. Oxidoreductase
C. Enzyme where catalysis involves transfer of electrons. III. Ligases
D. Enzyme catalysing bonding of two components with the help of ATP. IV. Lyases
(a) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II (b) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
55. The adjoining graph shows change in concentration of substrate on enzyme activity. Identify A, B and C.

56. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

(i) Nearly 1/3rd of all enzymes requires the presence of metal ions for catalytic function.
(ii) Metal ions form coordinate bond with side chain at active site of metalloenzyme and at the same time
form one or more coordinate bonds with the substrate.
(iii) NAD and NAD (coenzymes) contain niacin (vit.B3)
(iv) Coenzymes are organic compounds but their association with the apoenzyme is only transient,
usually occurring during catalysis.
(a) All of these (b) Only (iii) and (iv) (c) Only (iv) (d) None of these.
57. The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and
substrate concentration). Identify the correct representation of two axes (x and y).

58. Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is
(a) permanent but unstable. (b) transient and unstable.
(c) permanent and stable. (d) transient but stable.
59. Enzymes are sensitive to:
(a) Light (b) Ph (c) Temperature (d) Both (b) and (c)
60. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the
(a) Km value. (b) pH optimum value. (c) formation of the product.(d) molecular size of the enzyme.
LEVEL-2
1. Hexokinase (Glucose + ATP → Glucose 6-P + ADP) belongs to the category:
(a) Transferases (b) Lyases (c) Oxidoreductases (d) Isomerases
2. Which of the following in not an aromatic amino acid?
(a) Threonine (b) Tyrosine (c) Tryptophan (d) Phenylalanine
3. Which of the following is an antifertility steroid?
(a) Estradiol (b) Diosgenin (c) Progesterone (d) Stilbesterol
4. Which of the following is an indispensable amino acid, and contains sulphur?
(a) Cysteine (b) Methionine (c) Phenylalanine (d) Lysine
5. Feulgen reaction is based on which unique component of DNA?
(a) Thymine (b) Deoxyribose (c) Adenine (d) H3PO4
6. Which mineral element is most abundant in extra cellular fluid?
(a) Na+ (b) K+ (c) Mg+2 (d) Zn+
7. With reference to double stranded DNA, The following ratio is always constant for all species:
A+T G +C A+G
(a) (b) (c) Both (a) and (b) (d)
G +C A+T T +C
8. The pairing of A = T, and G º C is the universal phenomenon of DNA. From this we can deduce all the
followings except
(a) A+ T = G + C (b) Ratio of A: T is one
(c) Guanine equals to cytosine (d) Nitrogenous bases in the two strands are complementary
9. The glycosidic linkage seen in sucrose is
(a) Alpha 1-4 linkage (b) Beta 1-4 linkage (c) Alpha 1-6 linkage (d) Alpha 1, Beta 2 linkage
10. Which one of the following vitamins serves as a coenzyme in transamination and decarboxylation of
amino acid metabolism?
(a) Pantothenic acid (b) Folic acid (c) Pyridoxine (d) Thiamine
11. Which of the following vitamin is not having coenzyme activity?
(a) Cholecalciferol (b) Tocopherol (c) Menadione (d) All of these
12. Heart enlargement and paralysis can occur due to the deficiency of the following vitamin?
(a) Vitamin E (b) Vitamin B1 (c) Vitamin B6 (d) Vitamin B12
13. Which of the following sets contains polysaccharides?
(a) Glucose, fructose, lactose (b) Starch, glycogen, cellulose
(c) Sucrose, maltose, cellulose (d) Galactose, starch, sucrose
14. A + G = C + T, then it is
(a) ssRNA (b) dsRNA (c) ssDNA (d) dsDNA
15. Linoleic acid is unsaturated fatty acid and its content is highest in:
(a) Coconut oil (b) Sunflower oil (c) Groundnut oil (d) Cotton oil
16. The given graph shows concept of activation energy with labelled 1, 2, 3, & 4. Co-relate the statements I,
II, III & IV with 1, 2, 3 & 4.

I. Segment representing the energy of activation.

II. Segment representing the amount of free energy released by the reaction.
III. Transition state.
IV. Segment would be the same regardless of whether the reaction were uncatalysed or catalysed

17. What will happen when the cofactor is removed from the enzyme?
(a) Catalytic activity of the enzyme is lost.
(b) Enzyme preserves in a temporarily inactive state.
(c) The substrate molecules are not closely related to enzymes molecules.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
18. "When glucose is degraded to lactic acid in skeletal muscles energy is liberated". Which of the following
conclusion is correctly associated with the above statement?
(a) It is a catabolic pathway which releases energy.
(b) It is an anabolic pathway which releases energy.
(c) The energy, liberated during this degradation, is trapped and stored in the form of chemical bonds
(ADP).
(d) None of the above.
19. Which of the following is not an attribute of enzymes?
(a) They are substrate specific in nature. (b) They are proteinaceous in nature.
(c) They are used up in the reaction. (d) They speed up rate of biochemical reaction.
20. The effectiveness of an enzyme is affected least by:
(a) Temperature. (b) Concentration of the substrate.
(c) Original activation energy of the system. (d) Concentration of the enzyme.
21. Select the type of enzyme involved in the following reaction.

(a) Dehydrogenase (b) Transferase (c) Hydrolase (d) Lyase

22. Which one of the given graph shows the effect of pH on the velocity of a typical enzymatic reaction (V) ?

23. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) The metabolic pathway in which acetic acid is converted into cholesterol is an endothermic one.
(ii) Anabolic pathway is endergonic while catabolic pathway is exergonic.
(iii) Without metabolism there can not be a living state.
(a) All of these (b) None of these (c) (i) and (ii) (d) Only (iii)
24. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
(a) Fungi – Chitin (b) Phospholipid – Plasma membrane
(c) Enzyme – Lipopolysaccharide (d) ATP – Nucleotide derivative
25. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(a) Ribozyme – Proteinaceous in nature. (b) Apoenzyme – The protein part of enzyme.
(c) Co-enzyme – Loosely attached organic cofactor of holoenzyme.
(d) Co-factors – Non-protein part of holoenzyme.
26. The class of enzymes that catalyze the removal of a group from a substrate without addition of water,
leaving double bonds, is:
(a) Transferases (b) Dehydrogenases (c) Hydrolases (d) Lyases
27. The prosthetic group of an enzyme is called
(a) Coenzyme (b) Apoenzyme (c) Cofactor (d) None of these
28. Mark the correct statement.
(a) NAD & NADP are coenzymes that are derivative of vitamin B.
(b) Catalytic activity is lost when the cofactor is removed from enzyme.
(c) In carboxypeptidases the metallic ions are of zinc. (d) All of the above
29. What is true regarding peroxidases and catalases?
(a) Both have coenzymes, derivative of vitamin B.
(b) Both have haem that becomes associated during catalytic reaction.
(c) They have no cofactor. (d) They have haem as prosthetic group.
30. Identify the following molecule.

(a) Lecithin (b) Wax (c) Sterol (d) Amylopectin

 Answer key
NEET 5 Years at a Glance
1) C 2) C 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) A 7) C 8) C 9) B 10) B
11) 4 12) 3 13) 3 14) 2 15) 2 16) 2 17) 1 18) 2 19) 2 20) 3
21) 4 22) 1 23) 4 24) 3 25) 2
LEVEL-1
1 (c) 7 (b) 13 (d) 19 (c) 25 (c) 31 (d) 37 (c) 43 (c) 49 (c) 55 (c)
2 (a) 8 (b) 14 (b) 20 (a) 26 (a) 32 (d) 38 (c) 44 (c) 50 (b) 56 (d)
3 (d) 9 (c) 15 (a) 21 (c) 27 (a) 33 (a) 39 (d) 45 (d) 51 (c) 57 (b)
4 (d) 10 (b) 16 (a) 22 (b) 28 (d) 34 (a) 40 (a) 46 (b) 52 (d) 58 (b)
5 (d) 11 (c) 17 (c) 23 (d) 29 (d) 35 (a) 41 (c) 47 (b) 53 (a) 59 (d)
6 (b) 12 (d) 18 (c) 24 (c) 30 (c) 36 (c) 42 (a) 48 (b) 54 (c) 60 (a)
LEVEL-2
1 (a) 4 (b) 7 (d) 10 (c) 13 (b) 16 (b) 19 (c) 22 (c) 25 (a) 28 (d)
2 (a) 5 (b) 8 (a) 11 (d) 14 (d) 17 (a) 20 (c) 23 (a) 26 (d) 29 (d)
3 (b) 6 (a) 9 (d) 12 (b) 15 (b) 18 (a) 21 (b) 24 (c) 27 (c) 30 (c)

Hints and Solutions

NEET 5 Years at a Glance
1. (c) Sugar is a carbohydrate. These are polyhydroxy aldehyde, ketone or their derivatives, which means they
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups in its structure.
2. (c) – Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides.
– Proteins are polymers of amino acids.
– Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides.
– Lipids are the tri-esters of fatty acids with glycerol.
3. (a) Holoenzyme is conjugated enzyme which consists of a protein part called apoenzyme and a non-protein
called cofactor. Coenzyme are also organic compounds but their association with apoenzyme is only
transient and acts as cofactors.
4. (b)
5. (d) Glycine (abbreviated as Gly or G) is the smallest of the 20 amino acids commonly found in proteins,
and indeed is the smallest possible (having a hydrogen substituent as its side-chain). The formula is
NH2CH2COOH. Its codons are GGU, GGC, GGA, GGG of the genetic code
6. (a)
7. (c) Nucleic acids have phosphodiester bond in a nucleotide.
8. (c) Km increases but Vmax remains the same in competitive inhibition. This is because, on slightly
increasing the substrate concentration, the effect of inhibitor is removed.
9. (b) Sucrose is classified under non reducing sugars because it does not have any free aldehyde or keto
group.
10. (b) Inhibitions of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of competitive inhibition. Thus, it is
reversible reaction. On increasing the substrate (succinate) concentration the effect of inhibitor is
removed and Vmax remain same.
17. Inulin is polymer of fructose, these sugars linked by glycosidic bond
Insulin is polymer of amino acids, these amino acids linked by peptide bond
18. (a) Malonate is competitive inhibitor of enzyme succinic dehydrogenese enzyme
(b) Collagen is most abundant animal protein. Amino acids of these proteins are linked by peptide bonds
(c) Chitin is cell wall material in fungi
(d) Ricin is a secondary metabolite
19. Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds, guanine pairs with cytosine with 3 hydrogen bonds in
a DNA molecule
20. The most abundant protein in animals is collagen
21. Lysine is basic amino acid
22. Amino acids, glucose
23. • In a polypeptide or a protein, amino acids are linked by a peptide bond which is formed when the
carboxyl (–COOH) group of one amino acid reacts with amino (–NH2) group of the next amino acid
with the elimination of a water moiety.
 • Unsaturated fatty acids are with one or more C = C double bonds.
• In nucleic acids, a phosphate moiety links the 3’-carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide to the 5’-
carbon of the sugar of the succeeding nucleotide. The bond between the phosphate and hydroxyl group
is an ester bond. As there is one such ester bond on either side, it is called phosphodiester bond.
• In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharides are linked by a glycosidic bond
24 Option (3) is incorrect because ricin is a toxin obtained from Ricinus plant. Vinblastin and curcumin are
drugs.
*Morphine and codeine are alkaloids.
* Abrin is also a toxin obtained by plant Abrus.
* Concanavalin A is a lectin.
25. * The correct option is (2) because lipids having only single bonds are called saturated fatty acids and
lipids having one or more C = C double bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids.
* Palmitic acid has 16 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
* Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including the carboxyl carbon.
* Lecithin is a phospholipid found in cell membrane.
* Glycerol has 3 carbons, each bearing a hydroxyl (–OH) group.

LEVEL-1
1. (c)
2. (a) Biomolecules are organic compounds normally present as essential components of living organisms.
3. (d) Saturated fatty acids do not have any double bond while unsaturated fatty acids have one or more
double bonds.
4. (d)
5. (d) Phospholipids are composed of phosphate group and one or more fatty acids. They have hydrophilic
(polar) phosphate group and long hydrophobic (non-polar) hydrocarbon ‘tails’. The phospholipids
readily form membrane like structure in water.
6. (b)
7. (b) Fat is a group of natural esters of glycerol and various fatty acids, which are solid at room temperature
and are the main constituents of animal and vegetable fat.
8. (b) Lipid molecules are insoluble in water because lipid molecules are hydrophobic, but they are readily
soluble in nonpolar organic solvents like chloroform and benzene.
9. (c) Abrin and ricin are toxin secondary metabolities. The secondary metabolities which are used as drugs a
re vinblastin, curcumin, etc.
10. (b)
11. (c) Three molecules of fatty acid linked with one molecule of glycerol to form a simple lipid is called
triglycerides.
12. (d)
13. (d) According to weight percentage, the first three elements in human body are O > C > H. % Weight of O
(oxygen), C (carbon) and H (hydrogen) in human body are 65.0, 18.5 and 0.5 respectively.
14. (b) In the comparison of cellular mass, the decreasing order of the components is:
P (Protein):10 – 15% >N (Nucleic acid): 5 – 7 % > C (Carbohydrates): 3% > L (Lipid): 2%
15. (a)
16. (a)
17. (c) A nucleoside consists of a nitrogenous base covalently attached to a sugar (ribose or deoxyribose) but
without the phosphate group. A nucleotide consists of a nitrogenous base, a sugar (ribose or
deoxyribose) and one to three phosphate groups.
Nucleoside = Sugar + Base
Nucleotide = Sugar + Base + Phosphate
18. (c) Fats is a group of natural esters of glycerol along with various fatty acids. They are generally solid at
ordinary room temperature. Fats occur naturally in food and play a important role in human nutrition.
Fats store energy in the body, protect body tissues by insulating them, cushion internal organs, and
transport fat-soluble vitamins in the blood. Fats are soft, low-melting solids, with a density less than that
of water.
19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) Starch can hold iodine (I2) molecules in its helical secondary structure but cellulose being non helical,
can not hold I2. Thus, cellulose does not shows blue colour when treated with I2.
22. (b)
23. (d) Cellulose is a polysaccharide and homopolymer that consists of a long unbranched chain of glucose
units.
24. (c) Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect.
(a) Inulin is a polymer of fructose.
(b) Starch forms helical secondary structure.
(d) Glycogen is glucosan homopolysaccharide which is the major reserve food of animals, fungi and
some bacteria.
25. (c) 26. (a)
27. (a) Adenine is purine while thymine is pyrimidine.
28. (d)
29. (d) Nucleoside is the combination of pentose sugar with nitrogenous bases (purines or pyrimidines). So, on
hydrolysis it does not yield phosphoric acid.
30. (c) Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acid (DNA and RNA), therefore the information in a
genetic nucleic acid resides in the sequences of nucleotide.
31. (d) Glutamic acid and aspartic acid are acidic amino acid because they bear one amino acid group and two
carboxylic group. Lysine is a basic amino acid.
32. (d) Aromatic amino acid possess cyclic structure with a straight side chain bearing carboxylic and amino
group. Valine is a neutral amino acid. It contains equal number of amino and carboxylic groups.
33. (a) Arginine, lysine and histidine are basic amino acids with two amino groups and one carboxylic group.
Arginine is the most and histidine is the least basic amino acid.
34. (a) The collagen is the most abundant protein of animal world.
35. (a) Quaternary structure is found only in multimeric protein. In quaternary structure, more than one
polypeptide chains are involved to form a large multiunit protein.
E.g., haemoglobin.
36. (c) Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. Amino acid can be classified on the basis of
characteristics of their side chains.
37. (c) Lysine is a basic amino acid.
38. (c)
39. (d) Nitrogen bases are heterocyclic compounds. Length of one turn of DNA is 34Å.
40. (a)
41. (c) Valine is a neutral essential amino acid which contains equal number of amino and carboxylic group.
42. (a) Amino acids are building blocks of protein which are joint by peptide bond.
43. (c) Primary structure of polypeptide is stabilised or secondary structure of polypeptide is maintained by
hydrogen bonds.
44. (c) Glycosidic bonds are bonds established between aldose or ketose group of carbohydrate with alcoholic
or nitrogen group of another organic compound. Two amino acid molecules can be covalently joined
through a substituted amide linkage, termed a peptide bond.
45. (d) Phosphodiester bonds help in polymerization of nucleotides to form polynucleotide.
46. (b) The different amino acids are attached through–CO–NH bond, called peptide bond or amide bond.
47. (b) 48. (b)
49. (c) The concentration of substrate at which velocity of enzymatic action reaches half of its maximum value,
is called Km value or Michaelis Menten constant.
50. (b) A ribozyme is an RNA molecule that catalyses a chemical reactions, similar to the action of protein
enzymes.
51. (c)
52. (d) Coenzyme is a non-proteinaceous organic substance that usually contains a vitamin or mineral and
combines with a specific protein, the apoenzyme, to form an active enzyme system.
53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (d)
57. (b) In the given curve the relation of temperature and enzyme activity is shown.
58. (b) Transition state structure formed during an enzymatic reaction is transient and unstable.
59. (d)
60. (a) The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the Km value. Km, Michaelis-
Menten constant, is the substrate concentration at which an enzyme attains half its maximal velocity.
Exercise-2 : Concept Applicator
1. (a) Transferases catalyse reactions which involve group transfer from one molecule to another.
2. (a) Threonine is a hydroxy- amino acid and does not have benzene ring.
3. (b) Diosgenin is obtained from Yam plant.
4. (b) Cysteine contains sulphur but is a non-essential amino acid.
5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d)
10. (c) 11. (d)
12. (b) The deficiency of vitamin-B causes polyneuritis.
13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b)
16. (b) The graph shows the concept of activation energy. Activation energy is the least amount of energy
required to activate atoms or molecules to a state in which they can undergo a chemical reaction. The
label marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the graph are respectively correlated with the statements I, II, III and IV.
17. (a)
18. (a)
19. (c) Enzymes increase the rate of reaction without being consumed in the reaction.
20. (c)
21. (b) Transferase catalyse the transfer of a group of atoms from one molecule to another. The given reaction
shows the involvement of transferase enzyme.
22. (c) Parabolic curve in option (c) correctly represents the effect of pH on the velocity of a typical enzymatic
reaction (V). Enzyme shows its highest activity at a particular pH called the optimum pH. Activity
declines both below and above the optimum value.
23. (a)
24. (c) Enzyme is made up of proteins. They are catalysts (biocatalysts) that speed up chemical reactions in the
cell without themselves undergoing any permanent chemical change.
25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (c)
 SR NEET SUPER CHAINA PHASE-2 PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT - BOTANY
***********************************************************************************************

CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION

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➢ Significance of mitosis
• Mitosis is necessary for the maintenance and perpetuation of life.
• It helps in maintaining the amount of DNA and RNA in the cell.
• Mitotic divisions of vegetative or somatic cells are responsible for growth and development of
organism.
• The old, decaying and dead cells of body are replaced by mitosis.
• In certain organisms, mitosis is involved in asexual reproduction.
➢ Number of bivalents inside nucleus is half the number of individual chromosomes.
➢ Significance of Meiosis
• Meiosis is the mechanism by which conservation of specific chromosome number of each species is
achieved across generations in sexually reproducing organisms.
• It increases the genetic variability in the population of organisms from one generation to the next by
crossing over. The variations are the raw materials of the evolutionary process.
➢ Cell division maintain the nucleocytoplasmic ratio or karyoplasmic ratio which is ratio between
nucleus and cytoplasmic mass of cell.
➢ Time interval between two successive divisions is called generation time.
➢ Nerve cells do not divide after birth and, therefore interphase lasts throughout the life of the
individual.
➢ Flemming (1882) coined the term mitosis. However, mitosis was first observed in plants by E.
Strasburger (1875) and in animals by W. Flemming (1879).
➢ Mitosis is also known as somatic division because it takes place during formation of somatic or body
cells. Mitosis is studied in plants in the regions of meristems, e.g., stem tip, root tip. In animals, it is
studied in bone marrow, skin, base of nails, etc.
➢ Mitosis is centric in animal cells and acentric (without participation of centrosome) in plants.
➢ The agents which stimulate cell division are called mitogens. E.g., cytokinins, some steroids, platelet
derived growth factor (PDGF), lymphokines.
➢ There are some agents which inhibit cell division. They are called mitotic poisons. E.g., azides,
cyanides, colchicine.
➢ In meiotic cell, G2 phase is either absent or very short i.e. meiotic division (M-phase) occurs just after
completion of DNA-synthesis (S-phase).
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➢ In amitosis, nucleus elongates, constricts in the middle and divides directly into two daughter nuclei.
Chromatin does not condense to form chromosomes. Spindle apparatus is not formed. Nuclear
division is followed by cytokinesis. It occurs through cleavage or constriction, e.g., cartilage cells,
meganucleus of Paramoecium, cells of foetal membranes and endosperm. As amitosis does not
distribute chromatin, it leads to structural and functional irregularities.
➢ In many protists, fungi and algae, the nuclear envelope does not degenerate during mitosis. Instead,
spindle is formed inside the nucleus. It is called intranuclear mitosis or karyochorosis.

➢ Write down important points on cell cycle and its different phases.
➢ Do diagram practice for different stages of cell cycle.
➢ Make short note on significance of mitosis and meiosis.
➢ Make short note on different stages of prophase I in meiotic I.

TOPIC WISE ANALYSIS OF NEET 2014 - 2021

2018 2019 2019 2020 2020
TOPIC NAME 2014 2015 2016 2017 2021
Odissa Covid
T1 : Phases of cell 2 1 2
2 1 - 1 3
cycle - Interphase
T2 : M – Phase / 2 1
- - 2 2
Cytokinesis
T3 : Meiosis I / II 1 2 1 - 1 2 2 2 2

NEET 5 YEARS AT A GLANCE

1. The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is: [2018]
(a) Pachytene (b) Diplotene (c) Zygotene (d) Diakinesis
2. DNA replication in bacteria occurs [2017]
(a) within nucleolus. (b) prior to fission. (c) just before transcription. (d) during S phase.
3. Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis? [2017]
(a) Condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly → arrangement at equator → centromere division
→ segregation → telophase
(b) Condensation → crossing over → nuclear membrane disassembly → segregation → telophase
(c) Condensation → arrangement at equator → centromere division → segregation → telophase
(d) Condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly → crossing over → segregation → telophase
4. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper
mitosis of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is expected to
occur? [2017]
(a) Chromosomes will be fragmented. (b) Chromosomes will not segregate.
(c) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur. (d) Chromosomes will not condense.

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5. Spindle fibres attach on to: [2016]
(a) Telomere of the chromosome. (b) Kinetochore of the chromosome.
(c) Centromere of the chromosome. (d) Kinetosome of the chromosome.
6. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells? [2016]
(a) Spindle fibres (b) Disappearance of nucleolus
(c) Chromosome movement (d) Synapsis
7. In meiosis crossing over is initiated at: [2016]
(a) Pachytene (b) Leptotene (c) Zygotene (d) Diplotene
8. A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the
same species, has [2015]
(a) same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA.
(b) twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA.
(c) four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.
(d) twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.

9. Choose the correct option for the following events of meiosis in correct sequence. [2015]
(A) Crossing over (B) Synapsi s
(C) Terminalisation of chiasmata (D) Disappearance of nucleolus
(a) B → A → C → D (b) A → B → C → D
(c) A → B → D → C (d) D → C → B → A
10. Match the description given in column-I with their steps given in column-II and identify the
correct answer. [2015]
Column-I Column-II
A) Synapsis aligns homologous chromosomes I) Anaphase-II
B) Synthesis of RNA and protein II) Zygotene
C) Action of enzyme recombinase III) G2 - phase
D) Centromeres do not separate but chromatids
move towards opposite poles IV) Anaphase-I
V) Pachytene
(a) A – II; B – III; C – V; D – IV (b) A – I; B – II; C – V; D – IV
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – V (d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
11. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA i n a cell remains at 4C level if the initial
amount is denoted as 2C? [2014]
(a) G0 and G1 (b) G1 and S (c) Only G2 (d) G2 and M
12. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle, [2014]
(a) amount of DNA doubles in each cell.
(b) amount of DNA remains same in each cell.
(c) chromosome number is increased.
(d) amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell.
13. The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage of meiosis? [2014]
(a) Pachytene (b) Zygotene (c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis
14. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is : (NEET-2019)
(1) M → G1 → G2 → S (2) G1 → G2 → S → M
(3) S → G1 → G2 → M (4) G1 → S → G2 → M
15. Cells in G0 phase: (NEET-2019)
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 (1) exit the cell cycle (2) enter the cell cycle
(3) suspend the cell cycle (4) terminate the cell cycle
16. After meiosis-I, the resultant daughter cells have:- (NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) Same amount of DNA as in the parent cell in S phase
(2) Twice the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete.
(3) Same amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete
(4) Four times the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete
17. Crossing over takes place between which chromatids and in which stage of the cell cycle ?
(NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase I.
(2) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I.
(3) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase I.
(4) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I.
18. Attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochores of chromosomes becomes evident in : (NEET-2020
COVID)
(1) Anaphase (2) Telophase (3) Prophase (4) Metaphase
19. In a mitotic cycle, the correct sequence of phases is (NEET-2020 COVID)
(1) S, G1, G2, M (2) G1, S, G2, M (3) M, G1, G2, S (4) G1, G2, S, M

20. During Meiosis 1, in which stage synapsis takes place ? (NEET-2020 COVID)
(1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene (3) Diplotene (4) Leptotene
21. Match the following columns and select the correct option : (NEET-2020 COVID)
Column - I Column - II
(a) Smooth (i) Protein synthesis endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Rough (ii) Lipid synthesis endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Golgi complex (iii) Glycosylation
(d) Centriole (iv) Spindle formation
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii). (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
22. Match the following events that occur in their respective phases of cell cycle and select the
correct option : (NEET-2020 COVID)
(a) G1phase (i) Cell grows and organelle duplication
(b) S phase (ii) DNA replication and chromosome duplication
(c) G2 phase (iii) Cytoplasmic growth
(d) Metaphase inM-phase (iv) Alignment of chromosomes
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
23. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during (NEET-2020)
1) Leptotene 2) Pachytene 3) Zygotene 4) Diplotene
24. Some dividing cells exist the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called
quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of : (NEET-2020)
1) G2 phase 2) M phase 3) G1 phase 4) S phase
25. Identify the correct statement with regard and G1 phase (Gap 1 ) of interphase(NEET-2020)
1) Nuclear Division takes place
2) DNA synthesis or replication takes place
3) Recognisation of all cell components takes place
4) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA
26. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed (NEET-2020)
1) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum 2) Prior to ovulation
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 3) At the time of copulation 4) After zygote formation
27. Match the following with respect to meiosis (NEET-2020)
a) Zygotene i) Terminalization
b) pachytene ii) Chiasmata
c) Diplotene iii) Crossing over
d) Diakinesis iv) Synapsis
Select the correct option
A b c d
1) ii iv iii i
2) iii iv i ii
3) iv iii ii i
4) i ii iv iii
28. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere? [NEET-2021]
(1) Metaphase II (2) Anaphase II
(3) Telophase II (4) Metaphase I
29. Match List – I with List – II [NEET-2021]
List – I List – II
a) S phase i) Proteins are synthesized
b) G2 phase ii) Inactive phase
c) Quiescent stage iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
d) G1 phase iv) DNA replication
a b c d
1) iv ii iii i
2) iv i ii iii
3) ii iv iii i
4) iii ii i iv
30. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase?
[NEET-2021]
1) 16 2) 4 3) 32 4) 8
31. The centrioleundergoes duplication during: [NEET-2021]
1) prophase 2) Metaphase 3) G2 phase 4) s-phase
32. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
[NEET-2021]
1) Zygotene 2) Diakinesis 3) Pachytene 4) Leptotene

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 LEVEL-1
Topic – 1 : Phase of cell cycle - Interphase
1. In cell cycle, DNA replication takes place in ______.
(a) G1 phase (b) G2 phase (c) Mitotic metaphase (d) S phase
2. Which of the following statements related to G0 stage of the cell cycle are correct?
(i) It is a quiescent stage. (ii) In this phase, cell cycle is stopped.
(iii) G0 cells do not grow or proliferate but metabolically active.
(iv) G0 cells can divide in response to some stimulus.
(a) (i), and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (i) and (iv) (d) All of these
3. Interphase includes all of the following except ______
(a)G1 phase (b) Anaphase (c) S phase (d) G2 phase
4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about S-phase (synthetic phase)?
(i) It occurs between G1 and G2 phase.
(ii) It marks the period during which DNA replicates.
(iii) At the end of this phase, DNA is doubled but the number of chromosomes remains
unchanged.
(iv) As the DNA is doubled in this phase number of chromosomes is also doubled.
(v) Centrioles replicate in this phase.
(vi) Amount of DNA changes from 2C to 4C.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi) (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi)
(c) Only (iv) (d) All of the above
5. Which of the following pair is correctly matched?
(a) G1 – Second growth phase (b) S – Duplication phase
(c) G 2 – Synthesis phase (d) G0 – Quiescent stage
6. Identify the phases from the graph given below that shows the change in DNA content during
various phases (A to D) of mitotic cell cycle.

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7. Cell would normally proceed to mitosis without interruption
(a) once it has entered the S phase.
(b) once it has entered the G2 phase.
(c) at any time during cell division activity.
(d) None of the above.
8. In which stage of the cell cycle, histone proteins are synthesised in a eukaryotic cell?
(a) During G2 stage of prophase. (b) During S-phase.
(c) During entire prophase. (d) During telophase.
Topic – 2 : M – Phase / Cytokinesis
9. Which of the following phase follows S and G2 phases of interphase?
(a) Prophase (b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase (d) Telophase
10. In mitosis, nucleolus and nuclear membrane disappear at:
(a) Interphase (b) Prophase (c) Metaphase (d) Telophase
11. At which stage of mitosis, chromosomes are arranged on the equator of spindle?
(a) Anaphase (b) Prophase (c) Metaphase (d) Telophase
12. Best stage to observe shape, size and number of chromosomes is ______.
(a) interphase (b) metaphase (c) prophase (d) telophase
13. In anaphase of mitosis,
(a) chromosomes get arranged in middle of cell.
(b) nuclear envelope disappears.
(c) chromosome fibres become clear.
(d) chromosomes aggregate at opposite poles to form daughter nuclei.
14. Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis?
(a) Plastid and nuclear membrane.
(b) Nucleolus and nuclear membrane.
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria.
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum and plasma membrane.
15. During mitosis, nuclear envelope, nucleolous begin to form and ER to reappear at _______.
(a) prophase (b) late metaphase
(c) anaphase (d) telophase
16. Cell plate grows from _______.
(a) wall to centre (b) centre to walls
(c) one wall to another (d) simultaneously
17. Select the correct statement with respect to mitosis.
(a) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase.
(b) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase.
(c) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase.
(d) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase.
18. Which one of the following precedes re-formation of the nuclear envelope during M phase of the
cell cycle?
(a) Decondensation from chromosomes, and re-assembly of the nuclear lamina.
(b) Transcription from chromosomes, and re-assembly of the nuclear lamina.
(c) Formation of the contractile ring, and formation of the phragmoplast.
(d) Formation of the contractile ring, and transcription from chromosomes.

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19. Match the description given in column-I with their stapes given in column-II and identify the
correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle. I. Anaphase
B. Proteins are synthesised in preparation for II. Prophase
mitosis while cell growth continues.
C. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of III. Inter phase
chromosomes.
D. Movement of chromatids towards IV. Metaphase
opposite poles.
(a) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (b) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
20. A stage in cell division is shown in the given figure. Select the answer which gives correct
identification of the stage with its characteristics.

Stage Description
Chromosomes move away from equatorial plate, Golgi
(a) Late anaphase
complex is not present
Cell plate is formed, mitochondria distributed between two
(b) Cytokinesis
daughter cells.
(c) Telophase Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet

(d) Telophase Nuclear envelop reforms, golgi complex forms

21. Which of the following is the result when karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis?
(a) Synaptonemal complex (b) Syncytium
(c) Recombination nodules (d) Terminalisation
22. Mitosis occurs in:
(a) Haploid individuals (b) Diploid individuals
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) In bacteria only
23. Mitosis is the process by which eukaryotic cells
(a) expose the genes for protein synthesis.
(b) become specialised in structure and function.
(c) multiply.
(d) grow.
24. The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal
distribution of chromosomes is
(a) replication of the genetic material. (b) splitting of the chromatids.
(c) splitting of the centromeres. (d) condensation of the chromatin.

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25. In animal cells, cytokinesis involves
(a) the separation of sister chromatids.
(b) the contraction of the contractile ring of microfilament.
(c) depolymerisation of kinetochore microtubules.
(d) a protein kinase that phosphorylates other enzymes.
26. Which of the following will show simple cell division?
(a) Microspore mother cells (b) Megaspore mother cells
(c) Archesporial cells (d) All of the above.
27. The separation of two chromatids of each chromosome at early anaphase is initiated by
(a) the interaction of centromere with the chromosomal fibres.
(b) the elongation of metaphasic spindle.
(c) the force of repulsion between the divided kinetochores.
(d) All of the above.
28. In telophase of mitosis, the mitotic spindle breaks down and nuclear membranes form. This is
essentially the opposite of what happens in ________.
(a) prophase (b) interphase (c) metaphase (d) S phase
29. It is important that the centromere should not divide till the end of metaphase because it
(a) is connected with nuclear membrane.
(b) contains genes that control prophase.
(c) holds the replicated DNA molecules together.
(d) produces spindle fibres.
30. Which of the following is responsible for the formation of the new cell wall and also represents
the middle lamella between the walls of two adjacent cells?
(a) Cell plate (b) Cell inclusion (c) Cell membrane (d) None of these
31. In meiosis, the daughter cells differ from parent cell as well as amongst themselves due to
(a) segregation, independent assortment and crossing over.
(b) segregation and crossing over.
(c) independent assortment and crossing over.
(d) segregation and independent assortment.
32. Which of the following process is initiated immediately after cytokinesis usually before
chromosome have fully elongated?
(a) Metaphase II (b) Prophase II
(c) Anaphase II (d) Telophase II
33. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
A. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator. I. Pachytene
B. Centromere splits and chromatids apart II. Zygotene.
C. Pairing between homologous chromosomes takes place. III. Anaphase
D. Crossing between homologous chromosomes. IV. Metaphase
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (d) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II

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34. Which of the following events correctly indicates the stages of mitosis?
Breakdown of nuclear Division of
DNA replication
membrane centromere
(a) Interphase Metaphase Anaphase
(b) Interphase Prophase Anaphase
(c) Telophase Interphase Anaphase
(d) Prophase Metaphase Anaphase
35. During the mitosis of human Hela cells the longest period is
(a) Gap-1-phase (b) S-phase
(c) Gap-2-phase (d) M-phase
Topic – 3 : Meiosis / I / II
36. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
A. Terminalisation of chiasmata I. Zygotene
B. Synapsis II. Diplotene
C. Crossing over III. Metaphase I
D. Dissolution of Synaptonemal complex IV. Diakinesis
E. Best stage for the study of chiasmata V. Pachytene
F. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear
G. Tetrads are arranged on equatorial line
(a) B – I; E – II; G – III; A, E, F – IV; C – V (b) B – I; C – II; G – III; A, D, F – IV; E – V
(c) B – I; G – II; C – III; A, D, E – IV; F – V (d) B – I; A – II; D – III; E, C, G – IV; F – V
37. Chiasmata are formed as a result of
(a) exchange of parts of paired homologous chromosome.
(b) exchange of part of unpaired non- homologous chromosome.
(c) duplication of parts of paired homologous chromosome.
(d) loss of parts of unpaired non-homologous chromosome.
38. Different events that occur during different phases are given below.
(i) Centromere splits, chromatids separate and move to opposite poles and they now called
chromosome.
(ii) Chromosomes cluster at opposite poles, decondensation of chromosome, reappearance of
nuclear membrane, G.B, E.R and nucleolus.
(iii) Chromosomal replication.
(iv) Kinetochores attach to spindle fibres and chromosome are arranged at equatorial plate.
(v) Separation of chromosomes / condensation of chromosomal materials.
Which of the following option correctly identifies each of the phases described?

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39. The diagram below shows a cell undergoing meiosis assume that crossing over occurs only at the
chiasma indicated.

Which of the following gametes will not be formed from this cell?

40. During meiosis

(a) cytokinesis may take place.
(b) cytokinesis may not take place.
(c) cytokinesis may or may not take place.
(d) All of the above
41. How many mitotic divisions are needed for a single cell to make 256 cells?
(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64
42. Phragmoplast is the precursor of __________.
(a) chloroplast (b) chromoplast (c) cell plate (d) leucoplast
43. The two chromatids of a metaphase chromosome shows
(a) replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase.
(b) homologous chromosomes of a haploid set.
(c) non-homologous chromosomes joined at the centromere.
(d) maternal and paternal chromosomes joined at the centromere.
44. Four daughter cells formed after meiosis are:
(a) Genetically similar (b) Genetically different
(c) Anucleate (d) Multinucleate
45. Crossing over helps in
(a) pure line selection. (b) inducing mutation.
(c) inducing polyploidy. (d) recombination between the genes.

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46. During pachytene stage of meiosis, the chromosomes appear
(a) single stranded (b) four stranded
(c) six stranded (d) eight stranded
47. Which of the following statements are relevant for meiosis and choose the correct option?
(i) Meiosis is a double division. It gives rise to four cells.
(ii) The cells undergoing meiosis may be haploid or diploid.
(iii) No bouquet stage is recorded.
(iv) Pairing or synapsis of homologous chromosomes takes place during zygotene of prophase-l
and continues upto metaphase-I.
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these.
48. The diagram shows a cell whose diploid chromosome number is four. Which one of the following
option shows correct stage of cell?

(a) Metaphase (b) Anaphase of mitosis

(c) First anaphase of meiosis (d) Second anaphase of meiosis
49. If there are 22 chromosomes in the nucleus of a toad skin cell, a toad egg would contain
__________ chromosome.
(a) 22 (b) 44 (c) 11 (d) 33
50. In which stage, the chromosomes appear thin and long thread-like?
(a) Zygotene (b) Leptotene (c) Pachytene (d) Prophase
51. Match the terms (given in column I) with their explanation (given in column II) and choose the
correct combination from the options given below.
Column I Column II
(Terms) (Explanation)
A. Terminalisation I. Pairing of homologous chromosomes.
B. Synapsis II. Point of attachment between homologous chromosomes.
C. Chiasmata III. Nuclear protein complex that helps in adherence of
Sister chromatids and then homologous chromosomes.
D. Synaptonemal IV. Shifting of chiasmata outwards complex towards the
ends of a bivalent.
(a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I (d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II

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52. Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases / stages of cell cycle with few parts labelled as
A, B, C & D.

Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle?
(a). C – Karyokinesis (b) D - Synthetic phase
(c) A – Cytokinesis (d) B - Metaphase
53. Significance of meiosis lies in
(a) reduction of chromosome number to one half.
(b) maintaining consistancy of chromosome number during sexual reproduction.
(c) production of genetic variability.
(d) All of the above.
54. Which of the following does not lead to genetic variability?
(a) Random fertilisation.
(b) Crossing over during meiosis.
(c) Division of chromosomes during anaphase of mitosis.
(d) Orientation of chromosomes during metaphase I of meiosis.
55. The following events occur during the process of meiosis. Arrange the following events of
meiosis in the correct sequence.
I. Terminalisation II. Crossing over
III. Synapsis IV. Disjunction of genomes
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) II, III, IV, I
(c) III, II, I, IV (d) IV, I, II, III

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 LEVEL-2
1. In eukaryotic cell cycle, cell fusion experiments show that
(a) when an S-phase cell is fused with a G1 -phase cell, G1 -phase cell is stimulated to synthesise
DNA.
(b) when an S-phase cell is fused with a G1 -phase cell.
(c) when a G1 -phase cell is fused with a G1 phase cell, DNA synthesis is induced in both G1 and G2
Phase cells.
(d) when a G1 -phase cell is fused with an M-phase.
2. Cell division cannot be stopped in which phase of the cell cycle ?
(a) G1 -phase (b) G2 phase (c) S-phase (d) Prophase
3. A plant cell has 12 chromosomes at the end of mitosis. How many chromosomes would it have in
the G2-phase of its next cell cycle?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 24
4. Condensation of chromosomes occurs in:
(a) Prophase I (b) Prophase II (c) Anaphase (d) Metaphase
5. An acrocentric chromosome at metaphase will be
(a) condensed and lie near the equator.
(b) irregularly shaped and lie at one of the poles.
(c) condensed and lie at poles.
(d) coiled and get atached to spindle fibre.
6. The number of chromosome groups at the equatorial plate in metaphase-I of meiosis in a plant
with 2n = 50 shall be
(a) 50 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 100
7. How many times does DNA replicate?
(a) Twice in each cell cycle.
(b) Only once in each cell cycle.
(c) Once in mitotic cell cycle, once in meiotic-I (reductional division) and once in meiotic-II
(equational division).
(d) None of the above
8. Which of these feature marks diplotene stage of cell cycle?
(a) Separation of synapsed homologous chromosomes except at the site of crossovers.
(b) Degeneration of nucleolus.
(c) Chiasmata shift towards chromosome ends.
(d) All of the above
9. Which of the following statements (events) is/are correct for mitotic telophase?
(a) Arrival of chromosomes cluster at opposite poles and loss of their identity as discrete elements.
(b) Nuclear membrane assembles around each chromosomes clusters.
(c) Nucleolus, GB and ER form.
(d) All of the above

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10. 'X' ensures the production of 'Y' phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms
whereas fertilization restores the 'Z' phase.
Identify X, Y and Z.
(a) X- Mitosis, Y - haploid, Z – haploid
(b) X- Mitosis, Y - diploid, Z - diploid
(c) X- Meiosis, Y - haploid, Z - diploid
(d) X- Meiosis, Y - diploid, Z - diploid
11. Karyokinesis differ from cytokinesis because it involves :
(a) Division of cytoplasm (b) Division of nucleus and cytoplasm
(c) Division of nucleus (d) Division of the cell
12. Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister
chromatids remain associated at their centromeres.
(a) Metaphase I (b) Metaphase II (c) Anaphase I (d) Anaphase II
13. At which stage, the homologous chromosomes separate due to repulsion, but are yet held by
chiasmata?
(a) Zygotene (b) Pachytene (c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis
14. A triploid nucleus cannot undergo meiosis because
(a) crossing over does not occur. (b) karyokinesis can not occur.
(c) chromosomes do not replicate. (d) not all of the chromosomes can form homologous pairs.
15. Which of the following carry the same genetic information?
(a) Sister chromatids (b) X and Y chromosomes
(c) All autosomes (d) Homologous chromosomes
16. Meiosis in diploid organisms results in
(a) production of gametes. (b) reduction in the number of chromosomes.
(c) introduction of variation. (d) All of the above
17. Identify the merotic phases shown by the given figures. (A, B & C).

(a) A-Metaphase B-Anaphase C-Telophase

(b) A-Metaphase-I B-Anaphase-I C-Telophase-I
(c) A-Metaphase-II B-Anaphase-II C-Telophase-II
(d) A-Anaphase-I B-Metaphase-I C-Telophase-I

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18. During which stages (or prophase I substages) of meiosis bivalents and DNA replication occurs
respectively?
(a) Pachytene and interphase (between two meiotic divisions).
(b) Pachytene and interphase (just prior to prophase I).
(c) Pachytene and S phase (of interphase just prior to prophase I).
(d) Zygotene and S phase (of interphase prior to prophase I).
19. During which stage chromosome start pairing together and synapsis occurs?
(a) Leptotene (b) Zygotene
(c) Pachytene (d) Diploptene
20. Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell
division. Which stage is shown by the given figure?

(a) Prophase I during meiosis. (b) Prophase II during meiosis.

(c) Prophase of mitosis. (d) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis.
21. Select the correctly matched pair and choose the correct option.
I. S phase – DNA replication
II. Zygot ene – Synapsis
III. Diplotene – Crossing over
IV. Meiosis – Both haploid and diploid cells
(a) I and II (b) III and IV (c) II and IV (d) I and III
22. Find out the incorrectly matched pair of the stage of prophase I with their feature.
(a) Zygotene – Synaptonemal complex
(b) Pachytene – Mutation
(c) Diplotene – Chiasmata
(d) Diakinesis – Terminalization
23. Which one is correct about bivalent?
(i) Bivalent are tetrads.
(ii) A bivalent means 4 chromatids and 2 centromere.
(iii) One bivalent consists of 2 homologous chromosomes each and sister chromatids.
(iv) Bivalents formation occurs in zygotene.
(a) All of these (b) Only (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) Only (iv)
24. Mark the incorrect pair.
(a) Interphase – S-phase (b) M phase – Metaphase
(c) Meiosis I – Diplotene (d) Meiosis II – Diakinesis

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25. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about crossing over/genetic recombination?
(i) It occurs in tetrad stage which occurs in pachytene of prophase I of meiosis I.
(ii) It occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
(iii) It is a recombinase enzyme mediated process.
(iv) It is also the reciprocal transfer of genes between the non-homologous chromosomes
(a) All of the above (b) All except (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
26. Which of the following pair is correctly matched?
(a) Anaphase I – Homologous chromosomes are separated.
(b) Metaphase I – Pairing of maternal and paternal chromosomes.
(c) Interphase – A nuclear envelop encloses each haploid set of chromosomes.
(d) Prophase I – Non-homologous chromosomes are separated.
27. In the somatic cell cycle,
(a) in G1 phase, DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the original cell.
(b) DNA replication takes place in S-phase.
(c) a short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase.
(d) G2 phase follows mitotic phase
28. “G0” state of cells in eukaryotic cell cycle denotes
(a) check point before entering the next phase.
(b) pausing in the middle of a cycle to cope with a temporary delay
(c) death of a cell.
(d) exit of cells from cell cycle.
29. Which one is stored in G1 -phase?
(a) ATP (b) Tubulin (c) Histone (d) All of the above.
30. At the end of prophase, nucleolus disappears because of
(a) its enzymatic dissolution into its macromolecules.
(b) its dispersion into cytoplasm.
(c) its dispersion into nucleoplasm.
(d) its poor stain ability.

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 NEET – 8 YEARS AT A GLANCE – KEY

1) b 2) b 3) a 4) b 5) b 6) d 7) a 8) b 9) a 10) a
11) c 12) a 13) a 14) 4 15) 1 16) 2 17) 2 18) 4 19) 2 20) 2
21) 1 22) 4 23) 4 24) 3 25) 4 26) 1 27) 3 28) 2 29) 2 30) 4
31) 4 32) 2

LEVEL-1
1) d 2) d 3) b 4) b 5) d 6) c 7) a 8) b 9) a 10) b
11) c 12) b 13) d 14) b 15) d 16) b 17) d 18) b 19) a 20) d

21) b 22) c 23) c 24) c 25) b 26) c 27) c 28) a 29) c 30) a

31) a 32) b 33) c 34) b 35) a 36) a 37) a 38) a 39) d 40) c

41) a 42) c 43) c 44) b 45) a 46) b 47) d 48) c

LEVEL-2
1) b 2) c 3) d 4) a 5) a 6) b 7) b 8) d 9) b 10) c

11) c 12) c 13) c 14) d 15) a 16) d 17) b 18) d 19) b 20) a

21) a 22) b 23) a 24) d 25) b 26) a 27) b 28) d 29) a 30) b

SOLUTIONS
NEET – 8 YEARS AT A GLANCE
1. (b)
2. (b) In bacteria DNA replication occurs in cytoplasm prior to fission. Prokaryotes due to their primitive
nature do not show well marked S-phase.
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (b) Attachment of microtubules to chromosomes is mediated by kinetochores, which actively monitor
spindle formation and prevent premature anaphase onset during mitosis.
6. (d)
7. (a) Crossing over, the process by which two chromosomes exchange some distal part of their DNA,
occurs in the pachytene stage of Prophase I of meiosis.
8. (b) When S-phase completes, a somatic cell contains 2n number of chromosomes and 4C content of
DNA.
9. (a) Synapsis → Crossing over → Terminalisation of chiasmata → Disappearance of nucleolus
10. (a)
11. (c)
12. (a) During S or synthesis phase, replication or duplication of chromosomal DNA and synthesis of
histone proteins takes place. During this time the amount of DNA Per cell doubles.
13. (a) The enzyme recombinase is required at pachytene stage of meiosis. It catalyses the exchange of
short pieces of DNA between two long DNA strands, particularly the exchange of homologous regions
between the paired maternal and paternal chromosomes.
23 Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during diplotene stage
24 Cells exist from cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G 0). It
exist out from G1 phase of cell cycle
25. G1 phase is resting phase cell is metabolically active, synthesis RNA and proteins

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26. Meiotic division of secondary oocyte is completed after the entry of sperm in secondary oocyte.
27. a) Zygotene- Synapsis
b) pachytene - Crossing over
c) Diplotene - Chiasmata
d) Diakinesis- Terminalization
28 •Division of centromere occurs in anaphase II.
• Telophase II is the last stage of meiosis II.
During this phase, the chromatids reach the poles and start uncoiling.
• Chromosomes form two parallel plates in metaphase I and one plate in metaphase II.
29 • In S phase DNA replication takes place.
• In G2 phase there is synthesis of proteins, RNA etc.
• Quiescent stage is inactive stage of cell cycle but cells remain metabolically active in this stage.
• G1 phase is the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.

30. G1 and S sub-stages has the same number of chromosomes

But DNA is doubled
31. Duplication of centriole occurs during s Sub stage in Cytoplasm
32. Diakinesis shows terminalisation
LEVEL-1
1. (d) S-phase is a synthetic phase in which DNA molecules replicate and synthesis of histone proteins
occurs.
2. (d)
3. (b) Interphase is the longest phase of the mitotic cycle and has three sub-phases : G1 , S and G2. It is
the most suitable period to carry out FISH for detecting and locating gene mutations & chromosome
abnormalities.
4. (b) During S or synthesis phase, replication or duplication of chromosomal DNA and synthesis of
histone proteins takes place. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to 4C.
However, there is no increase in the chromosome number; if the cell has diploid or 2n number of
chromosomes at G1 , even after S phase the number of chromosomes remains the same, i.e., 2n.
5. (d) G1 – First growth phase, S-Synthesis phase, G2 - Second growth phase.
6. (c)
7. (a)
8. (b) During S phase, replication of chromosomal DNA and synthesis of histone proteins takes place.
During this time, the amount of DNA for cell doubles.
9. (a) Prophase is the first stage of mitosis which follows S and G2 phases of the interphase. In the S
and G2 phases, the new DNA molecules formed are not distinct but interwined. Prophase is marked
by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material.
10. (b)
11. (c) In metaphase of mitosis, centromeres of all the chromosomes lie over the equator to form an
apparent plate called equatorial plate.

12. (b) Metaphase is the best stage to count the number of chromosomes and study their morphology.
13. (d) Anaphase is the stage of mitosis or meiosis when chromosomes are split and the sister chromatids
move to opposite poles of the cell.
14. (b)
15. (d) During telophase of mitosis, the nucleolous condense and reappear. The nuclear envelope is
assembled around the chromatin mass and ER reform again thus forming two daughter nuclei.
16. (b) In plant cells, wall formation starts from the centre of the cell and grows outward to meet the
existing lateral walls (centrifugal).
17. (d) (a) Chromatids separate but remains in the centre of the cell in metaphase.
(b) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in anaphase.
(c) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of telophase.

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18. (b) At the beginning of M phase or mitotic phase, the nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear.
The decondensation of chromosomes occur. But when nuclear envelop restart forming then nuclear
lamina assemble and chromosomes start condensing.
19. (a)
20. (d)
21. (b) In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which multinucleate
condition arises leading to the formation of syncytium (e.g., liquid endosperm in coconut).
22. (c) Mitosis occurs in both diploid and haploid cells while meiosis is found only in diploid cells.
Mitosis is the cell division that takes place in somatic cells. It is a process by which a cell separates
its duplicated genome into two identical halves.
23. (c) Mitosis a type of cell division by which eukaryotic cells multiply and results in two daughter cells
and each having the same number and kind of chromosomes as the parents cells have.
24. (c) Anaphase is characterised by splitting of the centromeres and separation of chromatids.
Chromatids move to opposite poles from the equatorial plates.
25. (b) In animal cell cytokinesis involves the contraction of the contractile ring of microfilament.
Contractile ring of microfilaments develops peripherally below the cell membrane in the equatorial
region.
26. (c) Archesporial cell is a somatic cell where mitosis will occur.
27. (c)
28. (a)
29. (c) Centromere is the constricted region of the chromatid containing kinetochore. It is joined in cells
during prophase and metaphase. It is important that the centromere not divide till the end of the
metaphase because it holds the replicated DNA molecules together.
30. (a) The formation of new cell wall begins with the formation of a simple precursor, called cell plate
that represents the middle lamella between the walls of two adjacent cells.
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a)
36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d)
46. (b)
47. (b) In mitosis, both diploid and haploid cells undergo this process. If a diploid cell undergoes
mitosis, it results in two identical diploid cells (2n × 2n). If a haploid cell undergoes mitosis, the
result in two identical haploid cells (n × n). In meiosis however, a diploid cell participates that
divides twice to produce four haploid cells.
48. (c)
49. (c)
50. (b) Leptotene is the first stage of prophase I of meiosis I. Leptotene is of very short duration in which
progressive condensation and coiling of chromosomal fibres takes place. In leptotene, the nuclear
membrane enlarges and chromosomes become distinct. Chromosomes appear as long and slender
threads bearing beads like structure called chromomeres.
51. (a)
52. (b)
53. (d)

54. (c) Mitosis does not introduce genetic variations as mitosis is a mode of cell division in which the
daughter cells are genetically similar to the parent cell because their nuclei have the same number
and type of chromosomes as are present in the parent cell.
55. (c)
LEVEL-2
1. (b)
2. (c) Cell division can not be stopped after S-phase. The S- phase is the synthesis phase, in which the
cell synthesises a replica of its genome, i.e., DNA replication occurs.
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (a)
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6. (b)
7. (b) DNA replicates only once in each cell cycle (S-phase).
8. (d) The beginning of diplotene stage is marked by chiasmata formation. The chiasmata formation is
the indication of crossing over and the beginning of separation of chromosome. The chiasmata
formation is associated with the process of terminalisation.
9. (d)
10. (c) Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing
organisms whereas fertilisation restores the diploid phase.
11. (c)
12. (c) During anaphase I, the homologous chromosomes separate, after breaking apart (the process is
called disjunction) while sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres.
13. (c) Diplotene is the longest and the most active sub-phase of prophase I of meiosis. In diplotene, the
homologous chromosomes separate due to repulsion as the nucleoprotein complex of synapsed
chromosomes dissolves, but are yet held by chiasmata.
14. (d)
15. (a) Sister chromatids are the two identical strands of a duplicated chromosome. So, it carries the
same genetic information.
16. (d)
17. (b)
18. (d)
19. (b)
20. (a) Given diagram represents crossing over that takes place in pachytene stage of prophase - I during
meiosis-I.
21. (a) Pairs A and B are correctly matched. Diplotene – Chiasmata
Meiosis – Haploid cells
22. (b) During pachytene stage of meiosis-I crossing over leads to recombination of traits. This is highly
useful for breeders in development of new improved varities.
23. (a) A bivalent, sometimes referred to as a tetrad, is a pair of associated homologous chromosomes
which are held together by a complex after chromosome replication. During meiosis the process of
synapsis occurs in which bivalents are formed.
24. (d) Diakinesis is the final stage of prophase I of meiosis I.
25. (b) Crossing over leads to recombination between homologous chromosomes. Recombination is the
rearrangement of genetic information within and among DNA molecules.
26. (a)
27. (b) In the somatic cell cycle, DNA replication takes place in S phase. S Phase is the synthesis phase
during which replication of chromosomes occur.
28. (d) When cells are not to divide after G0 phase and start undergoing differentiation into specific
types of cells such cells are said to be in G0 phase/G0 state.
29. (a)
30. (b)

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