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GEMS MODERN ACADEMY

KOCHI
PASTPAPER BOOKLET

IGCSE LEVEL
0625 PHYSICS
(2017 - 2021)
Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9900917881*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB17 03_0625_22/4RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over
2

1 The diagram shows the height of a stack of identical coins.

stack of
coins
2.40 cm

What is the thickness of one coin?

A 0.20 mm B 2.0 mm C 0.24 cm D 2.0 cm

2 Four balls with different masses are dropped from the heights shown.

P Q R S
1.0 kg

2.0 kg

3.0 kg
4.0 m
4.0 kg
3.0 m
2.0 m
1.0 m ground

Air resistance may be ignored.

Which statement about the balls is correct?

A Ball P has the greatest acceleration.


B Balls Q and R take the same time to fall to the ground.
C The acceleration of ball R is half the acceleration of ball P.
D Ball S has the greatest average speed.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17


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3 An object is travelling in a straight line. The diagram is the speed-time graph for the object.

At which labelled point is the object accelerating at a changing rate?

C
speed
m/s
B

D
A

0
0 time / s

4 Which statement about the masses and weights of objects on the Earth is correct?

A A balance can only be used to compare weights, not masses.


B Heavy objects always have more mass than light ones.
C Large objects always have more mass than small ones.
D Mass is a force but weight is not.

5 An object in a space probe above the Earth weighs 3.5 N. The gravitational field strength at the
height of the space probe is 7.0 N / kg.

The gravitational field strength on the Earth’s surface is 10 N / kg.

What are the mass and the weight of the object on the Earth’s surface?

mass / kg weight / N

A 0.50 3.5
B 0.50 5.0
C 2.0 3.5
D 2.0 20

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17 [Turn over


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6 A skydiver jumps from a stationary helicopter and reaches a steady vertical speed. She then
opens her parachute.

Which statement about the falling skydiver is correct?

A As her parachute opens, her acceleration is upwards.


B As she falls at a steady speed with her parachute open, her weight is zero.
C When she accelerates, the resultant force on her is zero.
D When she falls at a steady speed, air resistance is zero.

7 A car moves in a circular path as it turns a corner on a horizontal road.

The car moves at constant speed.

path of car
car

direction
of travel

Which description of the forces acting on the car is correct?

A All the forces are balanced as the car is moving at constant speed.
B The forces are unbalanced and the resultant force acts away from the centre of the circle.
C The forces are unbalanced and the resultant force acts towards the centre of the circle.
D The forces are unbalanced and the resultant force is in the direction of travel of the car.

8 A moving body undergoes a change of momentum.

What is a unit for change of momentum?

A Nm B N/m C Ns D N/s

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17


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9 A man can either take an escalator or a lift to travel up between two floors in a hotel.

escalator lift

The escalator takes 20 seconds to carry the man between the two floors. The useful work done
against gravity is W. The useful power developed is P.

The lift takes 30 seconds to carry the same man between the same two floors.

How much useful work against gravity is done by the lift, and how much useful power is
developed by the lift?

useful work
useful power
done against
developed by lift
gravity by lift

A more than W less than P


B more than W P
C W less than P
D W P

10 A 40 W lamp wastes 34 J of energy every second by heating its surroundings.

What is the efficiency of the lamp?

A 0.15% B 15% C 18% D 85%

11 A column of liquid has height h, mass m and density ρ. The gravitational field strength is g.

Which expression gives the pressure due to the column of liquid?

A hρ B mρ C mgh D ρ gh

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12 The diagrams show two mercury barometers. The right-hand diagram shows a tube of larger
diameter. There is a vacuum above the mercury in both tubes.

Which labelled position on the right-hand tube shows the mercury level in the right-hand tube?

A
B
C

glass
tubes

D
mercury

13 Very small pollen grains are suspended in water. A bright light shines from the side.

When looked at through a microscope, small specks of light are seen to be moving in a random,
jerky manner.

eye

microscope

bright light

pollen grains
in water

What are the moving specks of light?

A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains


B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17


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14 At –39 °C, liquid mercury solidifies without a change of temperature.

Which row shows whether the mercury absorbs or releases energy and what happens to the
bonds between the mercury atoms?

bonds between
energy
atoms

A absorbed stronger
B absorbed weaker
C released stronger
D released weaker

15 A model thermometer consists of a flask of coloured water and a stopper with a glass tube
passing through it, as shown.

glass tube
temperature scale

stopper

flask coloured water

The model thermometer can be changed in one of two ways.

● The flask can be replaced with a larger one full of coloured water.
● The glass tube can be replaced with one with a larger internal diameter.

Which statement is correct?

A Only using a larger flask increases the sensitivity.


B Only using a wider tube increases the sensitivity.
C Using a larger flask increases the sensitivity and using a wider tube increases the sensitivity.
D Neither using a larger flask nor using a wider tube increases the sensitivity.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17 [Turn over


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16 A metal has a specific heat capacity of 360 J / (kg °C). An object made of this metal has a mass of
2.0 kg.

What is the thermal capacity (heat capacity) of the object?

A 180 J / °C B 180 J / kg C 720 J / °C D 720 J / kg

17 In which type of substance are free electrons involved in the transfer of thermal energy?

A all liquids
B all solids
C metals only
D plastics only

18 Four objects, made of the same material and having the same mass, are at the same
temperature. The objects have different surfaces and different surface areas.

Which object emits infra-red radiation at the greatest rate?

surface surface area

A dull large
B dull small
C shiny large
D shiny small

19 A person uses a surfboard to ride every 30th wave crest towards the beach. The wave crest
travels at a speed of 1.6 m / s and the distance between each wave crest is 24 m.

How many wave crests does the person surf in one hour?

A 1 B 2 C 8 D 450

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17


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20 In a shallow tank, a water wave moves towards a barrier with a narrow gap.

barrier

water
wave

Which diagram shows the wave beyond the barrier?

A B

C D

21 Light passes along an optical fibre.

What happens to the light within the fibre?

A diffraction
B dispersion
C refraction
D total internal reflection

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17 [Turn over


10

22 The points labelled F are the principal foci of a lens. A beam of parallel light is incident on the
lens.

Which diagram shows the path of the light after it passes through the lens?

A
F F

B
F F

C
F F

D
F F

23 Which statement about sound waves is correct?

A They are able to travel through a vacuum.


B They are able to travel through solids.
C They are transverse waves.
D They travel at the same speed in all substances.

24 Which statement about ultrasound is correct?

A It is produced by a rapidly vibrating source.


B It is uncomfortable to human ears.
C Its frequency must be greater than 300 kHz.
D It travels the fastest in a vacuum.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17


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25 A small compass is placed close to a strong bar magnet, the same distance from each end.

Which diagram shows the direction in which the compass needle points?

A B C D

N N N N
compass compass compass compass

S S S S

26 A bar magnet can be demagnetised by hammering it for a long time or by slowly removing it from
a coil connected to a power supply.

Which row completes the descriptions of how these processes are carried out?

hammering bar magnet slowly removing bar magnet


for a long time with from a coil connected to

A magnet aligned E-W a d.c. power supply


B magnet aligned E-W an a.c. power supply
C magnet aligned N-S a d.c. power supply
D magnet aligned N-S an a.c. power supply

27 Which particles move in a metal to cause an electric current?

A electrons
B neutrons
C nucleons
D protons

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17 [Turn over


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28 The diagrams represent four copper wires.

Which wire has the greatest resistance?

A B C D

20 mm 20 mm
10 mm 10 mm

1 mm 2 mm 1 mm 2 mm

29 An air-conditioning unit, a lamp and an electric fire all receive electrical energy from the mains
supply.

From which of these devices is all this energy eventually transferred to the surroundings?

air-
electric
conditioning lamp
fire
unit

A    key
B    = all energy transferred to surroundings
C    = not all energy transferred to surroundings
D   

30 Four circuits are set up.

In which circuit does the ammeter show the greatest reading?

A B C D

12 V 12 V 12 V 12 V

A A A A
2.0 Ω 2.0 Ω 2.0 Ω 2.0 Ω

3.0 Ω 3.0 Ω 3.0 Ω 3.0 Ω

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17


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31 The diagram shows an electric circuit.

The light falling on the light-dependent resistor (LDR) increases in brightness.

What happens to the resistance of the LDR, the current in the fixed resistor and the reading on
the voltmeter?

resistance of current in reading on


LDR fixed resistor voltmeter

A decreases increases decreases


B decreases increases increases
C increases decreases decreases
D increases decreases increases

32 The diagram shows two linked circuits to control when a bell is switched on.

The conditions are altered and only one pair of conditions causes the bell to ring.

Which pair causes the bell to ring?

A bright light and high temperature


B bright light and low temperature
C dim light and high temperature
D dim light and low temperature

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17 [Turn over


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33 The truth table for a logic gate is shown.

input 1 input 2 output

0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0

Which type of logic gate is it?

A AND B NOR C NOT D OR

34 In this circuit, a component at X automatically protects the wiring from overheating if there is a
fault.

electrical supply

Which row indicates components that are suitable?

circuit
fuse switch
breaker

A    key
B    = suitable
C    = not suitable
D   

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17


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35 The diagram shows a simple transformer with an input of 240 V and an output of 40 V.

There are 600 turns on the primary coil.

primary coil secondary coil

600
input 240 V 40 V output
turns

How many turns are there on the secondary coil?

A 100 B 320 C 400 D 3600

36 The diagram shows a current-carrying wire. The wire is at 90° to a magnetic field. The direction of
the magnetic field is into the page.

current magnetic field


into the page
wire

A force acts on the wire due to the current and the magnetic field.

In which direction does the force act?

A into the page


B out of the page
C towards the bottom of the diagram
D towards the top of the diagram

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17 [Turn over


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37 A radioactive substance emits radiation at a rate of 600 emissions per second. Four hours later, it
emits radiation at a rate of 300 emissions per second.

What is the half-life of the substance and what is the rate of emission after a further four hours?

rate of emission after


half-life / hours a further four hours
/ emissions per second

A 2 0
B 2 150
C 4 0
D 4 150

109
38 The nuclide notation for an isotope of silver is 47 Ag .

How many nucleons are in a nucleus of this isotope?

A 47 B 62 C 109 D 156

39 The equation represents an isotope of radium Ra decaying to an isotope of radon Rn with the
emission of particle X.

226 222
88 Ra → 86 Rn +X

What is particle X?
0 1 4 1
A −1 e B 1H C 2 He D 0n

40 An atomic nucleus decays by one or more radioactive decay processes.

What causes the proton number to decrease by 1?

A α-decay followed by β-decay

B α-decay only

C β-decay followed by γ-decay

D β-decay only

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17


Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8385724903*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB18 03_0625_22/4RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over
2

1 Which instrument is used to measure accurately the diameter of a thin metal wire?

A 30 cm ruler
B measuring tape
C metre rule
D micrometer screw gauge

2 A parachutist is falling through the air at terminal velocity.

Which statement about the parachutist is correct?

A Every force acting on the parachutist is equal to zero and his acceleration is equal to zero.
B Every force acting on the parachutist is equal to zero and his velocity is equal to zero.
C The resultant force acting on the parachutist is equal to zero and his acceleration is equal to
zero.
D The resultant force acting on the parachutist is equal to zero and his velocity is equal to zero.

3 The curved line on the graph shows the motion of a car.

12.0
speed
10.0
m/s
8.0
6.0
4.0
2.0
0
0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0
time / s

What is the acceleration of the car at the time of 4.0 s?

A 0.33 m / s2 B 0.44 m / s2 C 2.3 m / s2 D 3.0 m / s2

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


3

4 The diagram shows a bird in flight. The bird is flying in a horizontal direction to the right.

In which direction does air resistance act on the bird?

D B

5 The gravitational field strength on the Moon is 1.6 N / kg.

An astronaut has a mass of 75 kg.

What is the weight of the astronaut on the Moon?

A 47 N B 75 N C 120 N D 750 N

6 A measuring cylinder contains 30 cm3 of a liquid.

cm3

50

40

30

20

10

balance

Some more of the liquid is added until the liquid level reaches the 50 cm3 mark.

The reading on the balance increases by 30 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.60 g / cm3 B 0.67 g / cm3 C 1.5 g / cm3 D 1.7 g / cm3

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18 [Turn over


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7 A stone of mass 0.12 kg is fired from a catapult. The velocity of the stone changes from 0 to
5.0 m / s in 0.60 s.

What is the average resultant force acting on the stone while it is being fired?

A 1.0 N B 2.5 N C 3.6 N D 8.3 N

8 A uniform rod XY of weight 2.0 N has a length of 80 cm.

The rod is suspended by a thread 20 cm from end X. A weight of 5.0 N is suspended from end X.

thread

20 cm uniform rod

X Y

80 cm

5.0 N

A student hangs a 6.0 N weight on the rod so that it is in equilibrium.

What is the distance of the 6.0 N weight from end X?

A 6 cm B 10 cm C 26 cm D 30 cm

9 A wooden plank rests in equilibrium on two rocks on opposite sides of a narrow stream.

Three forces P, Q and R act on the plank.

P R
plank

How are the sizes of the forces related?

A P+Q=R
B P+R=Q
C P=Q=R
D P=Q+R

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


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10 A ball of mass 0.16 kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg
is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of
0.50 m / s.

What is the speed of the first ball after the collision?

A 0.0 m / s B 0.19 m / s C 0.31 m / s D 0.50 m / s

11 A ball is at rest at the top of a hill. It rolls down the hill. At the bottom of the hill the ball hits a wall
and stops.

Which energy changes occur?

A gravitational potential energy → internal energy → kinetic energy

B gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → internal energy

C kinetic energy → gravitational potential energy → internal energy

D kinetic energy → internal energy → gravitational potential energy

12 A student cycles along a level road at a speed of 5.0 m / s.

The total mass of the student and bicycle is 120 kg.

The student applies the brakes and stops. The braking distance is 10 m.

What is the average braking force?

A 150 N B 300 N C 15 000 N D 30 000 N

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18 [Turn over


6

13 A water manometer is connected to a gas supply.

gas Q
supply
water

There is a gas leak and the pressure of the gas supply falls.

What happens to the water level at P and what happens to the water level at Q?

water level at P water level at Q

A falls falls
B falls rises
C rises falls
D rises rises

14 A submarine is 20 m below the surface of the sea. The pressure due to the water at this depth
is P.

On another day, the submarine is 26 m below the surface of fresh water.

The density of sea water is 1.3 times the density of fresh water.

What is the pressure due to the fresh water at a depth of 26 m?

A P B P C 1.3 P D 1.7 P
1.3

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


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15 A cylinder with a tap contains a fixed mass of gas X. The gas is contained by a piston which can
move freely towards or away from the tap.

atmosphere
gas X
tap closed
piston

cylinder

When the tap is opened, the piston moves slightly to the right, towards the tap.

atmosphere
gas X
tap open

What can be deduced about the pressure of gas X?

before opening tap after opening tap

A less than atmospheric pressure more than atmospheric pressure


B same as atmospheric pressure more than atmospheric pressure
C more than atmospheric pressure less than atmospheric pressure
D more than atmospheric pressure same as atmospheric pressure

16 Liquid evaporates from a beaker.

What happens to the temperature of the remaining liquid and how does this temperature change
affect the rate of evaporation?

rate of
temperature
evaporation

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18 [Turn over


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17 Which quantity does not change when there is an increase in temperature?

A the density of a steel block


B the diameter of the hole in a metal nut
C the length of an iron rod
D the mass of a metal coin

18 A thermocouple is used to measure temperature.

Which is an advantage of using a thermocouple instead of a liquid-in-glass thermometer?

A It can measure temperature in the range –10 °C to 110 °C.


B It can measure temperature that changes rapidly.
C It has a linear scale.
D It is more sensitive.

19 A block of copper has a mass of 2.0 kg.

The block of copper absorbs 12 000 J thermal energy.

The specific heat capacity of copper is 385 J / (kg °C).

What is the temperature rise of the copper?

A 15.6 °C B 31.2 °C C 46.8 °C D 62.4 °C

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


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20 A teacher demonstrates an experiment to a class. A boiling tube is filled with water and some ice
cubes are trapped at the bottom of the tube. The teacher then heats the boiling tube in the
position shown until the water at the top boils.

water

ice heat

metal mesh

The ice does not melt.

What does this demonstrate?

A Water is a good conductor of thermal energy.


B Water is a good convector of thermal energy.
C Water is a poor conductor of thermal energy.
D Water is a poor convector of thermal energy.

21 A metal cup has a plastic lining. The cup is filled with hot water and held by a hand.

Which statement about the transfer of thermal energy from the water to the hand is correct?

A In the plastic, no energy is transferred directly between adjacent molecules.


B In the plastic, fast moving molecules interact with free electrons, making the electrons move
very quickly.
C In the metal, energy is transferred only by electrons.
D In the metal, energy is transferred by electrons and by vibrations of the lattice.

22 Which row shows an example of a transverse wave and an example of a longitudinal wave?

transverse longitudinal

A light radio
B radio sound
C sound water
D water light

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18 [Turn over


10

23 A wave passes through a gap and diffraction causes the wave to spread out.

Which wave spreads out the most?

A large wavelength through a gap slightly larger than the wavelength


B large wavelength through a gap much smaller than the wavelength
C small wavelength through a gap much larger than the wavelength
D small wavelength through a gap much smaller than the wavelength

24 An object is placed before a plane mirror as shown.

A student views the image of the object in the mirror from point P.

Where does she see the image?

object B C D

mirror

25 Light has a speed of 1.24 × 108 m / s in diamond.

What is the refractive index of diamond?

A 0.41 B 1.54 C 2.42 D 3.72

26 Which statement describes monochromatic light?

A light that does not diffract


B light that has a single frequency
C light that spreads out when shone through a glass prism
D light that travels at the same speed in all materials

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


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27 Both the amplitude and the frequency of a sound wave decrease.

What happens to the sound heard?

A The sound is louder and has a higher pitch.


B The sound is louder and has a lower pitch.
C The sound is quieter and has a higher pitch.
D The sound is quieter and has a lower pitch.

28 A sound wave is travelling through water.

What is a possible speed for the wave?

A 150 m / s B 300 m / s C 1500 m / s D 5000 m / s

29 An electromagnet is used to remove a splinter from an eye.

What material is the splinter made from?

A aluminium
B glass
C iron
D wood

30 A metal conductor is connected to a battery.

Which statement describes the current in the metal conductor?

A It is a flow of electrons from the negative to the positive terminal.


B It is a flow of electrons from the positive to the negative terminal.
C It is a flow of protons from the negative to the positive terminal.
D It is a flow of protons from the positive to the negative terminal.

31 In an electric circuit, 40 C of electric charge pass a point in 5.0 s.

What is the current in the circuit?

A 0.13 A B 8.0 A C 45 A D 200 A

32 There is a current of 5.0 A in a resistor.

The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is 24 V.

How much energy is transferred in the resistor in 1.0 minute?

A 5.0 J B 120 J C 290 J D 7200 J

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18 [Turn over


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33 The diagram shows a circuit.

lamp 1

lamp 2

Switch S is closed.

Which lamps light?

A lamp 1 only
B lamp 2 only
C lamp 1 and lamp 2
D neither lamp 1 nor lamp 2

34 A circuit contains four ammeters and three resistors with different values.

Which ammeter shows the largest reading?

A A D
10 Ω
A
B A
20 Ω

30 Ω
A
C

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


13

35 The diagrams show pairs of circuits containing logic gates.

In which diagram does the lower circuit of the pair not behave in the same way as the upper
circuit?

A B

C D

36 The current in a coil produces a magnetic field around it, as shown.

– +

The magnitude of the potential difference across the coil is increased and its direction is
reversed.

What happens to the magnetic field?

A The lines become closer together and the right-hand end becomes a south pole.
B The lines become closer together and the right-hand end remains a north pole.
C The lines become further apart and the right-hand end becomes a south pole.
D The lines become further apart and the right-hand end remains a north pole.

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18 [Turn over


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23
37 The notation for an isotope of sodium is 11 Na .

Which row gives the composition of a neutral atom of this isotope of sodium?

number of number of number of


protons neutrons electrons

A 11 12 11
B 11 12 12
C 11 23 11
D 12 11 12

38 The radioactive isotope of hydrogen undergoes beta decay to the isotope 32 He .

What is the nuclide notation for the hydrogen isotope?


1 2 3 4
A 1H B 1H C 1H D 2H

39 When measuring the emissions from a radioactive rock brought into the laboratory, a teacher
mentions that background radiation must be taken into account.

What is this background radiation?

A infra-red radiation from warm objects in the laboratory


B infra-red radiation from the Sun
C ionising radiation from the radioactive rock brought into the laboratory
D ionising radiation in the laboratory when the radioactive rock is not present

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


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40 Solid caesium-137 decays by the emission of a β-particle to form solid barium-137, which emits a
γ-ray.

The barium-137 undergoes no further decay. The half-life of caesium-137 is 33 years.

A block of pure caesium-137 has a mass of 2.0 µg.

The diagram shows a radiation detector a distance of 5 cm from the block. The detector registers
a count rate of 2000 counts / second.

detector
counter
block

5 cm

Which statement is not correct?

A After 33 years, the mass of the block is 1.0 µg.

B After 66 years, the sample contains 1.5 µg of barium.


C With 5 cm of lead between the block and the detector, the count rate is just above
background level.
D With 2 mm of aluminium between the block and the detector, the count rate is reduced
significantly.

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


16

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*1358010994*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB19 03_0625_22/3RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over
2

1 Which row shows the best choice of measuring instruments to obtain accurate values for the
distances shown?

diameter of wire height of bench length of laboratory


A measuring tape measuring tape micrometer
screw gauge
B metre rule micrometer measuring tape
screw gauge
C micrometer measuring tape metre rule
screw gauge
D micrometer metre rule measuring tape
screw gauge

2 An object is moving with uniform deceleration.

Which statement describes its motion?

A Its rate of change of speed is decreasing.


B Its speed is constant.
C Its speed is decreasing.
D Its speed is increasing.

3 The graph shows how the speed of a car varies during part of its journey.

20
speed
m/s 15

10

0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12
time / s

What is the value of the car’s acceleration between 6 s and 10 s?

A 0.50 m / s2 B 0.80 m / s2 C 1.25 m / s2 D 1.50 m / s2

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19


3

4 The gravitational field strength on the Moon is less than on the Earth.

Which of these is different when done on the Moon compared with when done on the Earth?

A the gravitational potential energy gained by a stone lifted through the same vertical height
B the kinetic energy gained by a ball when hit with the same force for the same period of time
C the momentum gained by a bullet when fired from the same gun
D the work done in accelerating a stone from rest to the same speed

5 The mass of a full bottle of cooking oil is 1.30 kg.

When exactly half of the oil has been used, the mass of the bottle plus the remaining oil is
0.90 kg.

1.30 0.90
kg kg

What is the mass of the empty bottle?

A 0.40 kg B 0.50 kg C 0.65 kg D 0.80 kg

6 A solid ball has a volume of 4.0 cm3. The density of the ball is 1.6 g / cm3.

What is the mass of the ball?

A 0.4 g B 2.5 g C 4.0 g D 6.4 g

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19 [Turn over


4

7 The extension / load graph for a spring is shown. The unstretched length of the spring is 15.0 cm.

3
extension / cm

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
load / N

When an object of unknown weight is suspended on the spring, the length of the spring is
16.4 cm.

What is the weight of the object?

A 0.55 N B 0.67 N C 3.5 N D 4.1 N

8 A box of mass 2.0 kg is pulled across the floor by a force of 6.0 N.

The frictional force acting on the box is 1.0 N.

What is the acceleration of the box?

A 0.40 m / s2 B 2.5 m / s2 C 3.0 m / s2 D 3.5 m / s2

9 Which moving body has a resultant force acting on it?

A a diver rising vertically through water at constant speed


B an aircraft circling an airport at constant speed
C a train going up a straight incline at constant speed
D a parachutist descending vertically at terminal velocity

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19


5

10 A constant force acts on a body causing the momentum of the body to increase.

Which expression relates the force to the momentum and the time taken?
change in momentum
A force =
time taken

B force = momentum
time taken
C force = change in momentum × time taken

D force = momentum × time taken

11 A car of mass 1500 kg has a speed of 20 m / s. It accelerates until its speed is 25 m / s.

What is the increase in the kinetic energy of the car?

A 19 kJ B 38 kJ C 170 kJ D 340 kJ

12 Which source of energy uses the production of steam to generate electrical energy?

A hydroelectric
B nuclear
C tides
D waves

13 A car, travelling on a straight horizontal road, has 1.6 MJ of kinetic energy. It accelerates for 20 s
until it has 2.5 MJ of kinetic energy.

What is the average power output used to increase the kinetic energy of the car?

A 45 W B 205 W C 45 kW D 205 kW

14 Which diagram shows an athlete exerting least pressure on the ground?

A B C D

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19 [Turn over


6

15 The diagram shows a U-tube manometer containing three liquids: mercury, liquid X and liquid Y.
Neither liquid X or liquid Y mixes with mercury.

liquid X liquid Y

mercury

Which row compares the pressure exerted by liquid X and by liquid Y on the mercury, and the
density of liquid X and the density of liquid Y?

pressure exerted by X and densities of


by Y on the mercury X and of Y

A pressure of X is greater than Y density of X is greater than Y


B pressure of Y is greater than X density of Y is greater than X
C pressure of X and of Y is the same density of X is greater than Y
D pressure of X and of Y is the same density of Y is greater than X

16 Gas molecules exert a pressure when they collide with the walls of a container.

Which statement is correct?

A They experience a change in force which exerts a pressure equal to momentum × area on
the walls.

B They experience a change in force which exerts a pressure equal to momentum on the
area
walls.
C They experience a change in momentum which exerts a pressure equal to force × area on
the walls.

D They experience a change in momentum which exerts a pressure equal to force on the
area
walls.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19


7

17 A thermometer has graduations which start at –10 °C and end at 110 °C.

–10 0 100 110

°C

What is the lower fixed point and what is the upper fixed point of the Celsius scale?

lower fixed point upper fixed point


/ °C / °C

A –10 100
B –10 110
C 0 100
D 0 110

18 A 1 kg block of aluminium requires more thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 °C than a
1 kg block of copper requires.

Why is this?

A Aluminium is a better conductor of thermal energy than copper.


B Aluminium is a poorer conductor of thermal energy than copper.
C Aluminium has a higher specific heat capacity than copper.
D Aluminium has a lower specific heat capacity than copper.

19 Four campers are warming their food on a fire.

They use different rods, each of the same dimensions, to hold their food near the fire.

rod

food

fire

Which material is the best choice to prevent their hands from getting too hot?

A aluminium
B copper
C steel
D wood

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19 [Turn over


8

20 Two metal cans are identical, except that one has a shiny silver outer surface and the other has a
dull black outer surface. They each have 300 g of water at 80 °C sealed inside them. They are
both in a vacuum, in the darkness of outer space.

How does the temperature of the water in each one change?

A Neither one will cool down.


B The water in the black can cools more slowly than that in the shiny can.
C The water in the shiny can cools more slowly than that in the black can.
D They both cool down at the same rate.

21 The diagram shows a wave before it reflects from a barrier.

Which labelled section of the diagram represents a wavefront?

barrier

C D

22 A vibrating object produces ripples on the surface of a liquid. The object completes 20 vibrations
every second. The spacing of the ripples, from one crest to the next, is 3.0 cm.

What is the speed of the ripples?

A 0.15 cm / s B 6.7 cm / s C 60 cm / s D 120 cm / s

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19


9

23 A narrow beam of light is travelling through a transparent liquid. It meets the surface as shown, at
an angle of incidence of 40°. The refractive index of the liquid is 1.5.

air
liquid
40°

What is the angle of refraction as the light enters the air?

A 25° B 27° C 60° D 75°

24 Which diagram correctly represents rays of light passing through a converging lens in a camera?

A B
camera camera

object object
image image
lens lens

C D
camera camera

object object
image image
lens lens

25 What is the speed of X-rays in a vacuum and in air?

in a vacuum in air

A 3.0 × 106 m / s 2.0 × 106 m / s


B 3.0 × 106 m / s 3.0 × 106 m / s
C 3.0 × 108 m / s 2.0 × 108 m / s
D 3.0 × 108 m / s 3.0 × 108 m / s

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19 [Turn over


10

26 A sound wave passes a point. The air pressure at that point increases and then decreases
300 times every second.

Which descriptions apply to this sound wave?

the type of wave motion the frequency of the sound

A longitudinal outside human hearing range


B longitudinal within human hearing range
C transverse outside human hearing range
D transverse within human hearing range

27 A boy stands 150 m from a wall. He claps and when he hears the echo, he immediately claps
again. He continues this for some time.

Another student has a stop-watch. She starts the watch on the first clap and stops it on the
eleventh clap. The watch reads 10.0 s.

Which value do her measurements give for the speed of sound in air?

A 150 m / s B 170 m / s C 300 m / s D 330 m / s

28 The ends of three metal rods are tested by holding end Q of rod 1 close to the others in turn.

R T

Q S U

rod 1 rod 2 rod 3

The results are as follows.

End Q attracts end R.


End Q attracts end S.
End Q attracts end T.
End Q repels end U.

Which of the metal rods is a magnet?

A rod 1 only
B rod 1 and rod 2
C rod 1 and rod 3
D rod 3 only

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19


11

29 A metal sphere is charged by induction. There are four stages W, X, Y and Z in this process.

W a charged rod is brought near to the sphere


X the sphere is earthed
Y the charged rod is taken away from the sphere
Z the earth connection is removed

In which order are the four stages carried out?

A W → X → Y → Z

B W → X → Z → Y

C Z → W → X → Y

D X → Z → W → Y

30 Which electrical quantity is defined in terms of the energy supplied in driving charge round a
complete circuit?

A current
B electromotive force
C potential difference
D power

31 A student sets up a circuit containing a battery of two cells and three lamps, as shown.

– + – +

What is the circuit diagram for this arrangement?

A B C D

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19 [Turn over


12

32 In which circuit does the lamp light?

A B C D

33 Each potential divider is placed in a circuit with a power supply.

Which potential divider makes the potential difference across component Y increase when the
light intensity increases?

A B C D

X X X X

Y Y Y Y

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19


13

34 There are two inputs to the combination of logic gates shown, and one output.

input 1
output
input 2

Which truth table represents the action of this combination of gates?

A B

input 1 input 2 output input 1 input 2 output


0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 1

C D

input 1 input 2 output input 1 input 2 output


0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 0

35 The current in a kettle is 10 A and the kettle is protected by a 13 A fuse.

The owner of the kettle replaces the 13 A fuse with a 3 A fuse.

What happens when the kettle is switched on?

A The fuse melts and the kettle might be damaged.


B The fuse melts and the kettle is undamaged.
C The fuse does not melt and the kettle works correctly.
D The fuse does not melt but the kettle fails to work.

36 Which statement about the direction of a magnetic field at a point is correct?

A It is the direction of the force on a north pole placed at that point.


B It is the direction of the force on a south pole placed at that point.
C It is the direction of the force on a positive charge placed at that point.
D It is the direction of the force on a negative charge placed at that point.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19 [Turn over


14

37 A current-carrying coil is placed in a magnetic field.

view from above

coil magnetic field lines

Which effect does the coil experience?

A a change in shape
B a change in weight
C a resultant force
D a turning effect

38 What are isotopes of an element?

A atoms of a different element with a different number of neutrons


B atoms of a different element with a different number of protons
C atoms of the same element with a different number of neutrons
D atoms of the same element with a different number of protons

39 A radioactive isotope of carbon 14C decays by beta emission to give an isotope of nitrogen 14
N
and a beta particle. The equation for the reaction is shown.

14
XC → 14
7N + Y0β
What is the value of X and of Y?

X Y

A 6 –1
B 6 1
C 8 –1
D 8 1

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19


15

40 A beta particle is a fast moving electron.

Which statement explains how beta particles are emitted from an atom?

A An electron is emitted as a beta particle from an inner electron shell of the atom.
B An electron is emitted as a beta particle from an outer electron shell of the atom.
C A neutron changes into a proton and a beta particle is emitted from the nucleus.
D A proton changes into a neutron and a beta particle is emitted from the nucleus.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19


16

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19


Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*6305326820*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 03_0625_22/5RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
2

1 The diagram shows a rectangular metal sheet close to two rulers.

30

metal sheet
20

10

cm
0

0 cm 10 20 30 40 50

What is the area of the metal sheet?

A 700 cm2 B 875 cm2 C 900 cm2 D 1125 cm2

2 A ball falls from rest through the air towards the ground. The diagram shows two forces acting on
the ball.

air resistance

gravitational force

As the ball falls, the air resistance increases.

Which statement is correct?

A The acceleration of the ball decreases.


B The acceleration of the ball increases.
C The speed of the ball decreases.
D The gravitational force on the ball decreases.

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20


3

3 A compressed spring projects a ball horizontally in a vacuum chamber.

On the Earth, the ball reaches the chamber floor 4.0 m in front of the spring.

An identical experiment is done on the Moon. The gravitational field strength is lower on the
Moon than on the Earth.

The experimental results on the Moon are compared with those on the Earth.

Which statement is correct?

A The horizontal speed is greater on the Moon and the ball hits the floor 4.0 m in front of the
spring.
B The horizontal speed is greater on the Moon and the ball hits the floor more than 4.0 m in
front of the spring.
C The horizontal speed is the same on the Moon and the ball hits the floor 4.0 m in front of the
spring.
D The horizontal speed is the same on the Moon and the ball hits the floor more than 4.0 m in
front of the spring.

4 Diagram 1 shows a piece of flexible material that contains many pockets of air. Diagram 2 shows
the same piece of flexible material after it has been compressed so that its volume decreases.

diagram 1 diagram 2
(before compression) (after compression)

What happens to the mass and to the weight of the flexible material when it is compressed?

mass weight

A increases increases
B increases no change
C no change increases
D no change no change

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20 [Turn over


4

5 The graph shows how the strength of the Earth’s gravitational field varies as the distance from
the Earth’s surface increases.

strength of
the Earth’s
gravitational
field

0
0 distance from the
surface of the Earth

Which row describes the effect that this has on the mass and on the weight of an object as it
moves further away from the Earth’s surface?

mass of object weight of object

A decreases decreases
B decreases unchanged
C unchanged decreases
D unchanged unchanged

6 A measuring cylinder contains 40 cm3 of water.

A solid metal ball is dropped into the water and the water level rises to 56 cm3.

The mass of the ball is 80 g.

What is the density of the metal from which the ball is made?

A 0.20 g / cm3 B 1.4 g / cm3 C 2.0 g / cm3 D 5.0 g / cm3

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20


5

7 A car travels along a horizontal road at constant speed. Three horizontal forces act on the car.
The diagram shows two of these forces.

direction of
motion forwards

air resistance force from engine


300 N 1500 N

What is the size and the direction of the third horizontal force acting on the car?

A 1200 N backwards
B 1200 N forwards
C 1800 N backwards
D 1800 N forwards

8 A car is driven round a bend in the road at a constant speed.

car
direction of the
motion of the car

What is the direction of the resultant force on the car when it is going round the bend?

A parallel to the motion and in the same direction as the motion


B parallel to the motion and in the opposite direction to the motion
C perpendicular to the motion and towards the inside of the bend
D perpendicular to the motion and towards the outside of the bend

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20 [Turn over


6

9 An athlete with mass 70 kg trains by performing press-ups with a load on his back. The diagram
shows the perpendicular distances involved.

The centre of mass of the athlete is CM and the centre of mass of the load he is carrying is CL.

0.1 m 0.3 m 0.9 m

load
CL

CM

The mass of the load is 6.0 kg.

What is the upward force exerted by his two arms?

A 54 N B 76 N C 540 N D 760 N

10 An air pistol fires a pellet forwards.

What is the motion of the air pistol?

A The air pistol moves backwards with speed greater than the pellet.
B The air pistol moves backwards with speed less than the pellet.
C The air pistol moves forward with speed greater than the pellet.
D The air pistol moves forward with speed less than the pellet.

11 Which row describes an advantage and a disadvantage of wind turbines?

advantage disadvantage

A no fuel needed harmful gases released


B variable supply fuel needed
C no harmful gases released variable supply
D constant supply noisy

12 An electric motor provides 900 J of useful output energy. The efficiency of the motor is 60 %.

How much electrical energy is supplied to the motor?

A 15 J B 540 J C 1500 J D 5400 J

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20


7

13 A crane takes 2.0 minutes to lift a 500 kg load to the top of a building that is 12 m high.

What is the useful power developed against gravity by the crane?

A 21 W B 50 W C 500 W D 30 000 W

14 A skier is standing still on a flat area of snow.

skis

The weight of the skier is 550 N. The total area of his skis in contact with the ground is 0.015 m2.

What is the pressure exerted on the ground by the skier?

A 0.83 N / m2 B 8.3 N / m2 C 3700 N / m2 D 37 000 N / m2

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20 [Turn over


8

15 A tall cylinder is partly filled with two liquids which do not mix. The two liquids have different
densities. A student measures the pressure due to the liquids at different depths.

position P

two liquids with


different densities
position Q

Which graph shows how the liquid pressure varies between positions P and Q?

A B
Q Q
pressure pressure

P P
depth depth

C D
Q
pressure pressure

P Q

P
depth depth

16 When pollen grains in water are viewed through a microscope, they are seen to be in continuous,
rapid random motion.

What causes a pollen grain to move in this way?

A convection currents in the water


B bombardment by a single molecule of water
C uneven bombardment on different sides by water molecules
D collision with another pollen grain due to their kinetic energies

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20


9

17 A student measures the mass of warm water in an open container over two minutes. The
container is kept at a constant temperature. The results are in the table.

time / minutes mass / g

0.0 33.9
0.5 30.6
1.0 27.6
1.5 24.9
2.0 22.5

Why does the mass of the water change?

A The water evaporates.


B The water freezes.
C The water condenses.
D The water boils.

18 Which points are the fixed points of the liquid-in-glass thermometer shown?

–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110


°C

A the beginning and end points of the column of liquid

B the points marked –10 °C and 110 °C

C the points marked 0 °C and 100 °C


D the top and bottom points of the thermometer bulb

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20 [Turn over


10

19 The specific heat capacities of aluminium, iron, ethanol and water are given.

specific heat capacity


substance
J / kg °C

aluminium 900
iron 450
ethanol 2400
water 4200

1 kg of each metal is put into 5 kg of each liquid.

The starting temperature of each metal is 60 °C. The starting temperature of each liquid is 10 °C.

Which example has the highest final temperature?

metal liquid

A aluminium ethanol
B iron ethanol
C aluminium water
D iron water

20 Metals are good thermal conductors.

Insulators are poor thermal conductors.

Which description of the mechanism of thermal conductivity is correct?

A In insulators, conduction takes place by electron transfer and molecular vibrations.


B In insulators, conduction takes place by electron transfer only.
C In metals, conduction takes place by electron transfer and molecular vibrations.
D In metals, conduction takes place by electron transfer only.

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20


11

21 A teacher shows his class a polystyrene cup. The cup is made from thick plastic with lots of tiny
air bubbles in it.

He asks the class why the cup is so good at keeping a hot drink warm. Three suggestions are
made.

1 It contains air which is a poor thermal conductor.


2 The air is trapped in tiny bubbles so very little convection is possible.
3 The plastic is a poor thermal conductor.

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

22 A boy jumps into an indoor swimming pool. He notices that the water appears to get colder as he
goes deeper underwater. This is due to convection.

Which statement is correct?

A Cold water is more dense than warm water so it sinks to the bottom of the pool.
B Warm water is more dense than cold water so it rises to the surface of the pool.
C The molecules in cold water have more kinetic energy than the molecules in warm water so
they move to the bottom of the pool faster.
D The molecules in warm water are closer together than the molecules in cold water so they
rise to the surface of the pool.

23 Four students A, B, C and D, investigate the diffraction of water waves through a gap.

Each student uses a different gap size and a different wavelength for the water waves.

Which student produces the waves which have the most diffraction?

gap size wavelength


/ cm / cm

A 2.0 1.8
B 3.0 2.1
C 4.0 2.0
D 5.0 0.9

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20 [Turn over


12

24 The diagrams show examples of wave motion.

1 2
ripple tank

drum

waves on water waves in air

3 4

waves on a rope waves in a spring

Which waves are longitudinal?

A 1 only B 2 and 3 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 4 only

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20


13

25 Which diagram shows how the light from a candle is reflected by a mirror, and shows the position
of the image formed?

A B

image of image of
candle candle
candle candle

eye

eye
mirror mirror

C D

candle candle

image of
candle eye

image of eye
candle
mirror mirror

26 A converging lens can be used as a magnifying glass.

What will be the nature of the image?

A real, inverted, diminished


B real, upright, enlarged
C virtual, inverted, enlarged
D virtual, upright, enlarged

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20 [Turn over


14

27 The wavelength of blue light changes from 4.7 × 10–7 m to 3.5 × 10–7 m as it passes from air to
water.

What is the speed of this light in water?

A 7.4 × 107 m / s

B 1.3 × 108 m / s

C 2.2 × 108 m / s

D 3.0 × 108 m / s

28 The diagram shows compressions and rarefactions in air as a sound wave moves from left to
right.

rarefaction compression

A quieter sound of the same frequency is made.

What will happen to the number of particles in a region of rarefaction and in a region of
compression?

number of particles in number of particles in


region of rarefaction region of compression

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20


15

29 The diagrams show three different metal rods P, Q and R, inside coils of wire.

Small iron nails are placed on a wooden bench under the rods.

Diagram 1 shows the situation when there are electric currents in the wires.

Diagram 2 shows the situation when the currents are switched off.

diagram 1
P Q R

current
in coils

wooden
bench

diagram 2
P Q R

no
current
in coils
wooden
bench

Which row correctly identifies the metal rods?

P Q R

A copper soft iron steel


B soft iron copper steel
C steel soft iron copper
D copper steel soft iron

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20 [Turn over


16

30 Which row describes conventional current and electron flow in a circuit containing a cell?

conventional current electron flow


A from the negative terminal of the cell from the negative terminal of the cell
to the positive terminal of the cell to the positive terminal of the cell
B from the negative terminal of the cell from the positive terminal of the cell to
to the positive terminal of the cell the negative terminal of the cell
C from the positive terminal of the cell to from the negative terminal of the cell
the negative terminal of the cell to the positive terminal of the cell
D from the positive terminal of the cell to from the positive terminal of the cell to
the negative terminal of the cell the negative terminal of the cell

31 A student makes four resistors using different pieces of wire. The wires have different diameters
and lengths. All the pieces of wire are made of the same material.

Which piece of wire will make the resistor with the largest resistance?

diameter / mm length / cm

A 0.8 10
B 0.8 17
C 2.0 10
D 2.0 17

32 A student is to determine the resistance of resistor R. She uses a circuit including a voltmeter and
an ammeter.

Which circuit should be used?

A B C D

V A V V A
R R R R

A A V

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20


17

33 The diagram shows a battery connected to two resistors. Three ammeters M1, M2 and M3 are
connected in the circuit.

M1 A A M3

A
M2

Ammeter M1 reads 1.0 A.

What are the readings on M2 and on M3?

reading on reading on
M2 / A M3 / A
A 0.0 0.0
B 0.5 0.5
C 0.5 1.0
D 1.0 1.0

34 A cell is connected to a parallel combination of a 2.0 Ω resistor and a 4.0 Ω resistor. The current
in the 4.0 Ω resistor is 1.0 A.

2.0 Ω

4.0 Ω

1.0 A

What is the current in the cell?

A 1.0 A B 1.5 A C 2.0 A D 3.0 A

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20 [Turn over


18

35 The two inputs of a NAND gate are joined together.

input output

Which truth table represents the action of this gate?

A B C D

input output input output input output input output

0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1
1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1

36 The diagram shows a transformer that has an output voltage of 12 V.

primary coil with


1000 turns soft iron core

240 V a.c. 12 V a.c.


input output

secondary coil

How many turns of wire are in the secondary coil?

A 12 B 20 C 50 D 20 000

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20


19

37 The diagrams show different particles moving through a magnetic field.

Which particle experiences a magnetic force acting up out of the plane of the paper?

A B

proton electron

C D
proton electron

38 When Rutherford bombarded thin gold foil with α-particles, he found that some α-particles were
deflected through large angles.

Which statement explains this deflection?

A Most of the atom consists of empty space.


B All of the positive charge and most of the mass of the gold atom are concentrated in a small
volume.
C Positive charge in the gold atom is spread evenly throughout the atom.
D All of the negative charge is concentrated at its centre.

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20 [Turn over


20

39 The diagram shows the path followed by α-particles as they pass between two charged plates.
They are deflected downwards.

+ + + + + + + + +

β-particles

α-particles

– – – – – – – – –

What happens to β-particles passing through the same electric field?

A They are deflected downwards more than the α-particles.


B They are deflected upwards.
C They are not deflected at all.

D They are deflected downwards by the same amount as the α-particles.

40 The graph shows the count rate from a radioactive source over a period of time.

2000
count rate
counts / s

1500

1000

500

0
0 1 2 3
time / hours

What is the half-life of the source?

A 0.5 hour B 1.0 hour C 1.5 hours D 3.0 hours

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20


Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*3645684800*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB21 03_0625_22/3RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
2

1 A student has a measuring cylinder containing water and also has a balance.

Which of these could she use to find the volume of a small metal sphere?

She has no other apparatus.

A either the measuring cylinder containing water or the balance


B the measuring cylinder containing water only
C the balance only
D neither the measuring cylinder nor the balance

2 A ball hits a bat with a velocity of 30 m / s, and leaves the bat travelling with a velocity of 20 m / s in
the opposite direction. The ball is in contact with the bat for 0.10 s.

What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the ball whilst it is in contact with the bat?

A 1.0 m / s2 B 5.0 m / s2 C 100 m / s2 D 500 m / s2

3 A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes.

What is the average speed of the train?

A 3.0 m / s B 5.0 m / s C 50 m / s D 60 m / s

4 Which statement about mass is correct?

A A mass of 10 kg weighs 1 N near the Earth’s surface.


B Mass is a gravitational force.
C Mass increases when the gravitational field strength increases.
D The greater the mass of a body, the more it resists a change in its motion.

5 A small bottle has a mass of 20 g when empty. The volume of the bottle is 10 cm3.

When full of liquid, the total mass is 150 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.50 g / cm3 B 2.0 g / cm3 C 13 g / cm3 D 15 g / cm3

6 An object of mass 0.80 kg is moving in a straight line at a velocity of 2.0 m / s. A force is exerted
on the object, in the direction of motion, for a period of 1.0 minute and the velocity of the object
increases to 6.0 m / s.

What force is exerted on the object?

A 0.053 N B 0.080 N C 3.2 N D 4.8 N

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21


3

7 An object moves at constant speed in the circular path shown.

P
Z X

Which statement about the acceleration of the object when it is at point P is correct?

A The acceleration is in the direction of arrow X.


B The acceleration is in the direction of arrow Y.
C The acceleration is in the direction of arrow Z.
D The object is not accelerating.

8 An object is pivoted at point P. A student ties a length of string to a peg on the object. He pulls
the string with a force F.

string

s t
peg
r
q P

object

What is the moment of the force F about the point P?

A Fq B Fr C Fs D Ft

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21 [Turn over


4

9 A gas molecule strikes the wall of a container. The molecule rebounds with the same speed.

wall wall
gas molecule gas molecule

before hitting the wall after hitting the wall

What happens to the kinetic energy and what happens to the momentum of the molecule?

kinetic energy momentum

A changes changes
B changes stays the same
C stays the same changes
D stays the same stays the same

10 A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface.

The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction
between the box and the surface.

How much work is done by the force?

A 10 J B 20 J C 30 J D 40 J

11 A crane is used to lift loads vertically.

The output power of the crane to lift a car is P.

The crane then lifts a lorry, which has 3.0 times the weight of the car, through 0.25 of the distance
in 0.50 of the time.

What is the output power of the crane now?

A 3P B 3P C 8P D 6P
8 2 3

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21


5

12 The diagram shows a manometer connected to a gas supply.

mm
500

from 400
gas supply

300

200

100

mercury
0

What is the pressure of the gas supply?

A 100 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure


B 100 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure
C 200 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure
D 200 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure

13 The diagram shows a box of dimensions 6.0 cm  8.0 cm  4.0 cm.

6.0 cm

X
Z
4.0 cm Y 8.0 cm

The box rests on a flat horizontal surface.

On which face must the box rest in order to exert the least pressure?

A face X
B face Y
C face Z
D The pressure is the same for all the faces.

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21 [Turn over


6

14 Air in a sealed syringe is slowly compressed by moving the piston. The temperature of the air
stays the same.

air

syringe piston

Which statement about the air is correct?

A The pressure of the air decreases because its molecules now travel more slowly.
B The pressure of the air decreases because the area of the syringe walls is now smaller.
C The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now hit the syringe walls more
frequently.
D The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now travel more quickly.

15 In an experiment, smoke particles are suspended in air and viewed through a microscope.

The smoke particles move about with short random movements.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A Air particles have large masses compared to smoke particles and they move in one direction
only.
B Air particles have large masses compared to smoke particles and they move in random
directions.
C Air particles move at high speeds compared to smoke particles and they move in one
direction only.
D Air particles move at high speeds compared to smoke particles and they move in random
directions.

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21


7

16 The graph shows how the internal energy of 1.0 kg of a metal changes with temperature.

835

830
internal
energy 825
/ kJ
820

815

810

805

800

795
0 20 40 60 80 100
temperature / °C

What is the increase in the internal energy of a block of the same metal of mass 0.25 kg when its
temperature rises from 40 C to 50 C?

A 30 J B 300 J C 750 J D 1200 J

17 A piece of melting ice at 0 C and a beaker of boiling water are both in a laboratory. The
laboratory is at 20 C.

boiling water

Bunsen burner
melting ice heating water

What is happening to the temperature of the melting ice and what is happening to the
temperature of the boiling water?

temperature of temperature of
melting ice boiling water

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21 [Turn over


8

18 One end of a copper rod is heated.

What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod?

A Free electrons transfer energy from the cooler end to the hotter end.
B Free electrons transfer energy from the hotter end to the cooler end.
C Molecules of copper move from the cooler end to the hotter end.
D Molecules of copper move from the hotter end to the cooler end.

19 Which change will cause a decrease in the rate of radiation emitted by an object?

A changing the surface colour from white to black


B changing the surface texture from dull to shiny
C increasing the surface temperature
D increasing the surface area

20 What is the approximate wavelength in air of the highest frequency sound that can be heard by a
normal healthy person?

A 0.02 m B 60 m C 20 000 m D 7 000 000 m

21 What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?

A The amplitude of the light changes.


B The colour of the light changes.
C The frequency of the light changes.
D The speed of the light changes.

22 Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38.

What is the angle of reflection?

A 38 B 52 C 76 D 142

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21


9

23 Two rays with an angle of incidence of 60 pass into dilute and concentrated sugar-water
solutions. The refractions are shown.

60 60
air air
dilute concentrated
sugar sugar
40 35
solution solution

Which row is correct?

refractive index speed through solution


as concentration increases as concentration increases

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

24 A thin converging lens is used to produce a sharp image of a candle.

screen
image

lens

candle

Various sharp images are produced on the screen by moving the lens and the screen backwards
and forwards.

Which statement is always correct?

A The image is at the principal focus (focal point) of the lens.


B The image is bigger than the object.
C The image is closer to the lens than the object.
D The image is inverted.

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21 [Turn over


10

25 Which row gives the approximate speeds at which ultraviolet waves travel in air and in a
vacuum?

speed in air speed in a vacuum


m/s m/s

A 340 3.0  108


B 340 340
C 3.0  108 340
D 3.0  108 3.0  108

26 The diagram represents a sound wave.

X Y

What are the names of the parts of the sound wave labelled X and Y?

X Y

A amplitude wavelength
B compression rarefaction
C rarefaction amplitude
D wavelength compression

27 The speed of sound is different in different states of matter.

The speed of sound in liquid water is 1500 m / s.

Which row correctly compares the speed of sound in ice and the speed of sound in water vapour
with the speed of sound in water?

speed of sound in ice speed of sound in steam


m/s m/s

A less than 1500 less than 1500


B less than 1500 more than 1500
C more than 1500 less than 1500
D more than 1500 more than 1500

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21


11

28 Three methods to demagnetise a magnet are suggested. The magnet is in an east-west direction.

1 hitting the magnet repeatedly with a hammer


2 heating the magnet until red hot
3 withdrawing the magnet from a coil which has a direct current (d.c.) in it

Which methods demagnetise the magnet?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

29 Three cores of different metals P, Q and R are placed inside identical coils of wire.

At least one of the metals is non-magnetic.

The cores are held above some iron nails.

The three diagrams show what happens when there is a current in the coils.

coil
+ + +

– – –
core
P Q R

iron
nails

The three diagrams below show what happens when the current is then switched off.

+ + +

– – –

P Q R

Which core metals are magnetic?

A P only B R only C P and Q D Q and R

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21 [Turn over


12

30 Two uncharged metal spheres X and Y rest on insulating stands and touch each other. A
negatively charged plastic rod is brought near to sphere X.

metal spheres

negatively –

charged rod –
– X Y

insulating stand insulating stand

Using the insulating stand, sphere Y is moved away from sphere X.

What are the signs and the relative magnitudes of the charges induced on X and Y?

relative magnitudes
charge on X charge on Y
of charges

A negative negative equal


B negative positive different
C positive negative equal
D positive positive different

31 Which two changes to a metal wire both decrease its resistance?

cross-sectional
length of wire
area of wire

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

32 There is a current I in a resistor of resistance R for a time t. The potential difference across the
resistor is V.

Which equation gives the energy E transferred by the resistor?

A E = IR B E = IV C E = IRt D E = IVt

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21


13

33 A resistor R is connected in parallel with an 8.0  resistor. The resistance of this combination
is 4.0 .

8.0 Ω

What is the resistance of resistor R?

A 0.50  B 2.0  C 4.0  D 8.0 

34 A student designs a circuit to use as a dimmer switch for a lamp.

What happens to the brightness of the lamp and the potential difference (p.d.) across the lamp,
when the slider is moved from X to Y?

brightness of lamp p.d. across the lamp

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21 [Turn over


14

35 The circuit shown contains two gates.

Which truth table describes the operation of the circuit?

A B C D
P Q R P Q R P Q R P Q R

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1

36 The diagram shows an electromagnet near a coil of wire connected to a voltmeter. The reading
on the voltmeter is zero.

electromagnet coil

soft iron

switch

V
+ –

The switch is closed. The electromagnet magnetises quickly.

What happens to the reading on the voltmeter?

A It keeps increasing.
B It quickly increases and stays at maximum.
C It quickly increases and then decreases.
D It stays on zero.

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21


15

37 Which graph shows the voltage output of an a.c. generator with the peaks and zeros correctly
labelled?

A B
peaks peaks
voltage V voltage V

0 0
0 time t 0 time t
zeros zeros

C D
peaks peaks
voltage V voltage V
zeros

0 0
0 time t 0 time t

zeros peaks

38 Three students are describing the structure of an atom.

student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus.


student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus.
student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus.

Which students are making a correct statement?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

39 When alpha particles are incident on a thin metal foil, most of them pass through undeviated.

What does this observation reveal about the nature of the atom?

A The atom has a dense nucleus.


B The atom is mostly empty space.
C The atom is very small.
D The nucleus of the atom is positively charged.

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21 [Turn over


16

40 A laboratory worker measures the count rate from a radioactive source. He records his results in
a table.

time count rate


minutes counts / s

0 100
1.0 73
2.0 54
3.0 41
4.0 31

The average background radiation in the laboratory is 8 counts per second.

What is the half-life of the source?

A 1.5 minutes
B 2.0 minutes
C 3.0 minutes
D 4.0 minutes

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21


Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7478947670*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB17 06_0625_22/3RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over
2

1 What is the most accurate and precise method to measure the thickness of a coin?

A Use a micrometer screw gauge.


B Use a ruler and look at the scale perpendicularly.
C Use a top pan balance.
D Use the displacement method with water in a measuring cylinder.

2 A student determines the average speed of a bubble rising through a liquid at constant speed.

When the student starts the stopwatch the bubble is at position P.

After 2.0 s the bubble is at position Q.

bubble

18 Q
19

20

21

22

23

24

25
P
26
cm
27
bubble

What is the speed of the bubble between P and Q?

A 3.2 cm / s B 3.7 cm / s C 6.4 cm / s D 7.4 cm / s

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17


3

3 The diagram shows the speed-time graph for a toy car travelling in a straight line.

4.0
speed
m/s 3.0

2.0

1.0

0
0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0
time / s

What is the acceleration of the car during the first two seconds and what is the total distance that
it travels?

acceleration total
m / s2 distance / m

A 0.50 10
B 0.50 20
C 2.0 10
D 2.0 20

4 In which pair are both quantities measured in newtons?

A force and pressure


B force and weight
C mass and pressure
D mass and weight

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17 [Turn over


4

5 The masses of a measuring cylinder before and after pouring some liquid into it are shown in the
diagram.

cm3 cm3
200 200

100 100
liquid

mass = 80 g mass = 180 g

What is the density of the liquid?

A 100 g / cm3 B 100 g / cm3 C 180 g / cm3 D 180 g / cm3


120 140 120 140

6 A spring which obeys Hooke’s Law has an unstretched length of 10 cm.

A load of 20 N is hung from the spring.

The new length of the spring is 36 cm.

What is the spring constant k of the spring?

A 0.56 N / cm B 0.77 N / cm C 1.3 N / cm D 1.8 N / cm

7 A car travels forwards along a straight horizontal road. Only the horizontal forces acting on it are
shown.

air resistance
and friction
driving force

The length of each arrow represents the size of each force.

How do these forces affect the motion of the car?

A The car moves at constant speed.


B The car moves backwards.
C The car slows down.
D The car’s forward speed increases.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17


5

8 The diagram shows a wooden beam of weight 20 N. The centre of mass of the beam is labelled
M.

There is a pivot at one end of the beam. The beam is kept horizontal by an upward force, F.

2.0 m
1.2 m
pivot

M wooden beam

20 N

What is the magnitude of F ?

A 12 N B 20 N C 30 N D 33 N

9 A ball of mass 2.0 kg is travelling at a speed of 12 m / s. It moves towards an object of mass 3.0 kg
which is at rest.

12 m / s
3.0 kg
2.0 kg at rest

The ball hits the object and sticks to it.

Which row gives the total momentum, and the speed of both objects immediately after the
collision?

total momentum speed


kg m / s m/s

A 0 4.8
B 0 8.0
C 24 4.8
D 24 8.0

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17 [Turn over


6

10 An object falls from a height of 5.0 m.

Air resistance can be ignored.

As it hits the ground the object has 750 J of kinetic energy.

What is its mass?

A 15 kg B 50 kg C 75 kg D 150 kg

11 An electric generator produces an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 200 V and produces a current of
3.0 A in a circuit. The generator is driven by an engine with a power of 2.4 kW.

What is the efficiency of the generator?

A 2.8% B 25% C 28% D 36%

12 The diagrams show athletes training by stretching springs.

Each spring has the same stiffness.

Which athlete does the most work?

A B

one spring stretched one spring stretched


by 0.60 m by 0.80 m

C D

two springs stretched two springs stretched


by 0.60 m by 0.80 m

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17


7

13 Four different liquids are poured into four containers.

The diagrams show the depth and the density of liquid in each container.

In which container is the pressure on its base the greatest?

A B C D

40 cm
30 cm
20 cm
10 cm

liquid density liquid density liquid density liquid density


= 3.1 g / cm3 = 1.2 g / cm3 = 1.3 g / cm3 = 0.8 g / cm3

14 Brownian motion is observed when using a microscope to look at smoke particles in air.

What causes the smoke particles to move at random?

A Smoke particles are hit by air molecules.


B Smoke particles are moved by convection currents in the air.
C Smoke particles have different weights and fall at different speeds.
D Smoke particles hit the walls of the container.

15 A student blows air through a liquid using a straw. This causes the liquid to evaporate quickly and
therefore to cool.

Which statement explains why the remaining liquid cools?

A Slower-moving molecules are carried away by the air bubbles.


B The air molecules conduct heat from the liquid.
C The air sets up convection currents in the liquid.
D The molecules with most energy leave the liquid.

16 What is meant by the specific latent heat of fusion of ice?

A the energy needed to change unit mass of ice into water at constant temperature
B the energy needed to change unit volume of ice into water at constant temperature
C the energy needed to produce unit temperature increase of unit mass of ice
D the energy needed to produce unit temperature increase of unit volume of ice

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17 [Turn over


8

17 Equal masses of two different liquids are put into identical beakers.

Liquid 1 is heated for 100 s and liquid 2 is heated for 200 s by heaters of the same power.

Each liquid has the same rise in temperature.

different liquids
of same mass
liquid 1 liquid 2

heating time = 100 s heating time = 200 s

Which statement is correct?

A Each beaker of liquid has the same thermal capacity.


B Each beaker of liquid receives the same energy.
C Liquid 1 receives more energy than liquid 2.
D The thermal capacity of liquid 1 is less than the thermal capacity of liquid 2.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17


9

18 A copper bar and a wooden bar are joined. A piece of paper is wrapped tightly around the join.

The bar is heated strongly at the centre for a short time, and the paper goes brown on one side
only.

wood paper copper

heat

Which side goes brown, and what does this show about wood and copper?

brown side wood copper

A copper conductor insulator


B copper insulator conductor
C wood conductor insulator
D wood insulator conductor

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17 [Turn over


10

19 Different waves hit barriers with different sized gaps.

The waves will diffract.

In which diagram does the greatest spreading occur?

A B
barrier barrier

gap 2.0 cm gap 2.0 cm

wavelength
wavelength 2.0 cm
1.0 cm

C D
barrier barrier

gap 3.0 cm gap 3.0 cm

wavelength
wavelength 2.0 cm
1.0 cm

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17


11

20 The incomplete ray diagram shows two rays of light that have passed from one point on an object
through a thin converging lens.

left lens right


object

rays of
light

Which type of image is formed, and on which side of the lens is it formed?

type of image which side of lens

A real on the left


B real on the right
C virtual on the left
D virtual on the right

21 Which diagram shows what happens when a ray of white light passes through a prism?

A B

spectrum
white white
light light
spectrum

C D
spectrum

white white
light light spectrum

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17 [Turn over


12

22 Light travels in a vacuum and then enters a glass block. The speed of the light in the glass block
is 2.0 × 108 m / s.

Which statement about the speed of light is correct?

A The speed in a vacuum is 1.5 times the speed in the glass.


B The speed in the glass is the same as the speed in a vacuum.
C The speed in the glass is 1.5 times the speed in a vacuum.

D The speed in the glass is 1.0 × 108 times the speed in a vacuum.

23 A fire alarm is not loud enough and the pitch is too low. An engineer adjusts the alarm so that it
produces a louder note of a higher pitch.

What effect does this have on the amplitude and on the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A larger greater
B larger smaller
C smaller greater
D smaller smaller

24 A student demagnetises a magnetised steel bar.

He places the bar in a solenoid connected to a power supply. He then removes the bar from the
solenoid.

Which row indicates the most effective way of demagnetising the bar?

type of speed to
power supply remove bar

A a.c. fast
B a.c. slow
C d.c. fast
D d.c. slow

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17


13

25 A magnet near a coil of wire is attracted to the coil only when there is a current in the coil.

Which statement explains this force of attraction?

A The coil of wire has its own gravitational field.


B The coil of wire is made from soft iron.
C The current in the coil of wire creates a magnetic field.
D The current in the coil of wire induces a charge on the magnet.

26 What is wrong with this labelled diagram of a permanent magnet?

iron disc

N S

A The cross-section should be rectangular.


B The length should be greater than the diameter.
C The magnet should be made of steel.
D The N-pole and the S-pole should be reversed.

27 A student tests the electrical conduction of four materials.

aluminium
iron
plastic
silver

Which materials conduct electricity?

A aluminium, iron and silver only


B aluminium and silver only
C iron, silver and plastic only
D plastic only

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17 [Turn over


14

28 What is the unit of charge?

A ampere
B coulomb
C ohm
D volt

29 An isolated metal sphere is positively charged.

It is then brought near to another isolated metal sphere that is neutral.

+ +
+ + +
+
+ + +
positively charged + + + neutral
metal sphere metal sphere

What happens to the charges on the neutral sphere as the positively charged sphere is brought
close to it?

A Some positive charges move to the left and some negative charges move to the right.
B Some positive charges move to the right and some negative charges move to the left.
C Some positive charges move to the right, but the negative charges do not move.
D The positive charges do not move, but some negative charges move to the left.

30 Which diagram is the current-voltage (I-V) characteristic graph for a metallic conductor at
constant temperature?

A B C D

I I I I

0 0 0 0
0 V 0 V 0 V 0 V

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17


15

31 Four circuits each contain a 6 V battery, a diode, an ammeter and a lamp. None of the
components is faulty.

Which circuit shows a possible ammeter reading?

A B

A A
reading = 1.0 A reading = 0 A

C D

A A
reading = 1.0 A reading = –1.0 A

32 A student connects a variable potential divider (potentiometer) circuit.

R
T V

12 V

What happens to the reading on the voltmeter as the sliding terminal T is moved from R to S?

A It decreases from 12 V to 0 V.
B It increases from 0 V to 12 V.
C It remains at 0 V.
D It remains at 12 V.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17 [Turn over


16

33 The diagram shows an electric circuit.

20 Ω 0.40 A

10 Ω

What is the potential difference (p.d.) across the LDR?

A 4.0 V B 8.0 V C 25 V D 50 V

34 What does the symbol shown represent?

A an AND gate
B a NOR gate
C a NOT gate
D an OR gate

35 What is the purpose of a relay?

A to change a large voltage into a small voltage


B to change a small voltage into a large voltage
C to use a large current to switch on a small current
D to use a small current to switch on a large current

36 Which device uses a split-ring commutator?

A a d.c. motor
B a relay
C a transformer
D an a.c. generator

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17


17

37 Which particle has a negative charge?

A an alpha particle
B an electron
C a neutron
D a proton

38 A type of nuclear reaction takes place in stars.

Which row describes this type of reaction?

nuclear reaction nuclei formed energy transfer

A fission larger than original nuclei released


B fission smaller than original nuclei absorbed
C fusion larger than original nuclei released
D fusion smaller than original nuclei absorbed

39 A sample of radioactive isotope is decaying.

The nuclei of which atoms will decay first?

A It is impossible to know because radioactive decay is random.


B It is impossible to know unless the age of the material is known.
C The atoms near the centre will decay first because they are surrounded by more atoms.
D The atoms near the surface will decay first because the radiation can escape more easily.

40 A sample of a radioactive isotope emits particles at a rate of 240 per minute.

After 48 hours the rate of emission has decreased to 15 per minute.

What is the half-life of the radioactive material?

A 4.0 hours B 8.0 hours C 12 hours D 16 hours

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17


18

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© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17


19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17


20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/M/J/17


Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7373168877*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 14 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB18 06_0625_22/3RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over
2

1 A length of cotton is measured between two points on a ruler.

cotton

cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

When the length of cotton is wound closely around a pen, it goes round six times.

six turns of cotton


pen

What is the distance once round the pen?

A 2.2 cm B 2.6 cm C 13.2 cm D 15.6 cm

2 When does an object falling vertically through the air reach terminal velocity?

A when the acceleration of the object becomes negative


B when the acceleration of the object is equal to g
C when the air resistance equals the weight of the object
D when the air resistance is greater than the weight of the object

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18


3

3 A ball is dropped in an evacuated tube. A series of photographs is taken at equal time intervals
from the time of release. Another ball of the same size but twice the mass is also dropped in the
same evacuated tube and photographed.

Which diagram shows the motion of the heavier ball?

heavier ball (mass ×2)


first ball A B C D

4 Which statement about the mass and the weight of an object is correct?

A They are both affected by changes in the acceleration of free fall.


B They are both forces.
C They have different units.
D Weight is calculated by dividing mass by the acceleration of free fall.

5 Which statement about the mass of an object is correct?

A It is equal to the density divided by the volume.


B It is equal to weight multiplied by the gravitational field strength.
C It is the effect of a gravitational field on the object.
D It is the property that resists a change in velocity.

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18 [Turn over


4

6 An object decelerates from 25.0 m / s to 5.0 m / s in a time of 4.0 s.

It has a mass of 50 kg.

What is the resultant force on the object?

A 0.63 N B 10 N C 250 N D 4000 N

7 A beam is pivoted at one end, as shown.

40 cm beam
X
pivot

6.0 N

The beam weighs 6.0 N and its weight acts at a point X, 40 cm from the pivot.

A force of 4.0 N is applied to the beam causing it to balance horizontally.

In which direction and where is the 4.0 N force applied?

A downwards at 20 cm to the left of X


B downwards at 20 cm to the right of X
C upwards at 20 cm to the left of X
D upwards at 20 cm to the right of X

8 A spacecraft is travelling in space with no resultant force and no resultant moment acting on it.

Which statement about the spacecraft is correct?

A Its direction is changing.


B It is in equilibrium.
C Its speed is decreasing.
D Its speed is increasing.

9 A car of mass 1000 kg travelling at 8.0 m / s collides with a lorry of mass 3000 kg that is travelling
at 2.0 m / s in the same direction. After colliding, the two vehicles stick together.

What is their speed after the collision?

A 2.0 m / s B 2.5 m / s C 3.5 m / s D 5.0 m / s

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18


5

10 What is the main process by which energy is released in the Sun?

A α-decay

B β-decay
C nuclear fission
D nuclear fusion

11 The work done W by a force is related to the magnitude F of the force and the distance d moved
in the direction of the force.

Which equation for W is correct?

A W=d÷F
B W=d+F
C W=F÷d

D W=F×d

12 A crane on a construction site lifts concrete beams.

The useful work done by the crane is 4000 kJ in a time of 160 s.

What is the useful output power of the crane?

A 0.04 kW B 25 W C 25 kW D 640 kW

13 A submarine is in water of density 1.0 × 103 kg / m3. The submarine changes its depth. This causes
the pressure on it to change by 0.10 MPa.

What is the change in depth of the submarine?

A 0.10 m B 10 m C 100 m D 1000 m

14 An oil tank has a base of area 2.5 m2 and is filled with oil to a depth of 1.2 m.

The density of the oil is 800 kg / m3.

What is the force exerted on the base of the tank due to the oil?

A 960 N B 2400 N C 9600 N D 24 000 N

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18 [Turn over


6

15 When molecules of a gas rebound from a wall of a container, the wall experiences a pressure.

What is the cause of this pressure?

A the change in energy of the molecules


B the change in momentum of the molecules
C the change in power of the molecules
D the change in speed of the molecules

16 A student wishes to calibrate a mercury-in-glass thermometer with a °C scale.

Which values should she use for the lower fixed point and for the upper fixed point?

lower fixed point upper fixed point

A melting point of ice boiling point of mercury


B melting point of ice boiling point of water
C melting point of mercury boiling point of mercury
D melting point of mercury boiling point of water

17 In an experiment, an object is heated.

The data from the experiment is shown.

● The energy transferred to the object is 3.0 kJ.


● The mass of the object is 2.0 kg.

● The rise in temperature of the object is 10 °C.

● The specific heat capacity of the object is 150 J / (kg °C).

What is the thermal capacity of the object?

A 30 J / °C B 300 J / °C C 3000 J / °C D 9000 J / °C

18 Four thermometers, with their bulbs painted different colours, are placed at equal distances from
a radiant heater.

Which thermometer shows the slowest temperature rise when the heater is first switched on?

A matt black
B matt white
C shiny black
D shiny white

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18


7

19 A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water.

What causes the ripples to refract?

A The cold water in the tank is replaced by warm water.


B The ripples change speed as they move from deep to shallow water.
C The ripples hit the wall of the tank.
D The ripples pass through a narrow gap.

20 Light travels at a speed of 2.0 × 108 m / s in a glass block.

In the glass, the wavelength of the light is 4.0 × 10–7 m.

What is the frequency of the light?

A 2.0 × 10–15 Hz

B 1.3 × 10–2 Hz
C 80 Hz

D 5.0 × 1014 Hz

21 Scout P signals to scout Q on the other side of a valley by using a mirror to reflect the Sun’s light.

Sun’s
scout P light

mirror

scout Q

Which mirror position allows the Sun’s light to be reflected to scout Q?

A B C D
mirror Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s
light light light light

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18 [Turn over


8

22 A scientist describes light as being monochromatic.

What does this tell you about the light?

A It has a single frequency.


B It has more than one wavelength.
C It travels at a single speed in a single direction.
D It travels at different speeds in different directions.

23 Which statement is not correct?

A The speed of long-wavelength infra-red radiation in a vacuum is greater than that of short-
wavelength ultraviolet light.

B The speed of microwaves in air is approximately 3.0 × 108 m / s.

C The speed of γ-rays emitted from a sample of cobalt-60 is 3.0 × 105 km / s.


D The X-rays emitted in a supernova explosion reach the Earth at the same time as the visible
light emitted.

24 A siren is emitting a sound. As time passes, the sound becomes louder and higher pitched.

What is happening to the amplitude and to the frequency of the emitted sound wave?

amplitude frequency

A decreasing decreasing
B decreasing increasing
C increasing decreasing
D increasing increasing

25 A permanent magnet is placed close to a bar of soft iron.

permanent
S N P Q soft iron bar
magnet

What are the polarities of end P and of end Q?

end P end Q

A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18


9

26 Which method is used to demagnetise a bar magnet?

A lower it into water


B heat it with a Bunsen burner
C place it in a metal box
D suspend it in a sling

27 What is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a cell?

A the amount of charge that passes through the cell per unit time
B the energy gained per unit charge as charge passes through the cell
C the total amount of charge flowing through the cell
D the total energy stored in the cell

28 A student measures the potential difference across a device and the current in the device.

Which calculation gives the resistance of the device?

A current + potential difference

B current ÷ potential difference

C potential difference ÷ current

D potential difference × current

29 A piece of wire is 40 cm long and has a diameter of 2.0 mm.

Its resistance is 0.30 Ω.

Which wire of the same material has a resistance of 0.15 Ω?

length / cm diameter / mm

A 20 1.0
B 20 4.0
C 80 1.0
D 80 4.0

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18 [Turn over


10

30 A diode is used as a rectifier.

What is the purpose of a rectifier?

A to allow current to pass in either direction


B to change alternating current into direct current
C to switch off the circuit in case of a large current
D to provide an efficient source of light

31 A student sets up this circuit.

What is the purpose of the circuit?

A to allow a lamp to be made dimmer or brighter as required


B to amplify the sound of a voice
C to light a lamp in the dark
D to sound a bell when the temperature rises

32 The diagram shows two voltmeters P and Q connected to a potential divider.

V voltmeter P
X

V voltmeter Q

The sliding connection at point X is moved towards the top of the diagram.

What happens to the reading on P and to the reading on Q?

reading on P reading on Q

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18


11

33 The circuit shown contains two gates.

Which truth table describes the operation of the circuit?

A B C D
P Q R P Q R P Q R P Q R

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1

34 In an a.c. generator, a coil is rotated in a magnetic field and an electromotive force (e.m.f.) is
induced in the coil.

In which position of the coil does the e.m.f. have the largest value?

A B
coil coil

N S N S

C D
coil coil

N S N S

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18 [Turn over


12

35 Wire P carries a current directed perpendicularly into the page. A compass is placed at point Q
which is close to wire P.

The magnetic field at Q due to the current is very much larger than the magnetic field of the
Earth.

In which direction does the North pole of the compass point?

P
B C
Q

A D

36 A transformer has Np turns in the primary coil and Ns turns in the secondary coil.

Which row gives the values of Np and Ns for a transformer that steps up a voltage of 1200 V to
36 000 V?

Np Ns

A 2 000 60 000
B 2 000 600 000
C 60 000 2 000
D 600 000 2 000

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18


13

37 In the atomic model, an atom consists of a central mass, orbited by much smaller particles.

orbiting central
particle mass

What is the name of the central mass and of the orbiting particles?

central mass orbiting particles

A neutron α-particles
B neutron electrons
C nucleus α-particles
D nucleus electrons

218
38 An isotope of polonium has the nuclide notation 84 Po .

A nucleus of this isotope decays by emitting an α-particle. A β-particle is then emitted to form
nuclide X.

What is the notation for nuclide X?


214 213 213 214
A 81 X B 82 X C 83 X D 83 X

39 The table compares the penetrating abilities and ionising effects of α-radiation and of γ-radiation.

Which row is correct?

least most
penetrating ionising

A α α
B α γ
C γ α
D γ γ

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18 [Turn over


14

40 The graph shows how the count rate registered by a counter near to a sample of a radioactive
isotope changes over a period of a few days. The background count rate is 5 counts per minute.

50
count rate
40
counts / minute

30

20

10

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

time / days

What is the half-life of the isotope?

A 2.0 days B 2.5 days C 3.0 days D 4.0 days

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18


15

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18


16

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18


Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8579442859*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)


MODIFIED LANGUAGE

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB19 06_0625_22_ML/RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over
2

1 Which quantity can be measured directly using a micrometer screw gauge?

A the area of a sheet of paper


B the mass of a sheet of paper
C the thickness of a sheet of paper
D the volume of a sheet of paper

2 Four objects are moving along a straight line.

The distance of an object from a fixed point on the line is plotted against time for each object.

Which object is decelerating?

A B

distance from distance from


fixed point fixed point

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance from distance from


fixed point fixed point

0 0
0 time 0 time

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19


3

3 A heavy metal ball falls vertically downwards through air past four equally spaced levels J, K, L
and M.

metal ball

level J

level K

level L

level M

The times taken to fall from one level to the next are measured.

Where is the speed of the ball greatest and which time is shortest?

speed is time is
greatest between shortest between

A J and K J and K
B J and K L and M
C L and M J and K
D L and M L and M

4 Four students make statements about the mass of an object.

Which statement is correct?

A The mass of an object depends on the gravitational field which acts on the object.
B The mass of an object divided by its weight is equal to the acceleration with which it falls
freely.
C The mass of an object increases when the temperature of the object increases.
D The mass of an object resists change in motion of the object.

5 A metal has a density of 8.0 g / cm3. A solid cube of mass 1.0 kg is made from this metal.

How long is each side of the cube?

A 0.50 cm B 2.0 cm C 5.0 cm D 42 cm

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19 [Turn over


4

6 An experiment is done to determine the spring constant for a spring.

Different loads are hung from the spring and its length is measured for each different load.

The graph shows how its length varies with load.

4.0
weight of
load / N 3.0

2.0

1.0

0
0 4 8 12 16 20
length of
spring / cm

What is the value of the spring constant?

A 0.20 N / cm B 0.25 N / cm C 4.0 N / cm D 5.0 N / cm

7 A beam is pivoted at its centre of mass.

It is acted upon by two forces, 10 N and 5.0 N, as shown.

25 cm
15 cm

pivot
10 N 5.0 N

What is the resultant moment about the pivot?

A 25 N cm anticlockwise
B 25 N cm clockwise
C 175 N cm anticlockwise
D 175 N cm clockwise

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19


5

8 Which object is in equilibrium?

A B C D
2N 2N

2N 2N 2N
2N

2N 2N

9 An object of mass 4.0 kg is moving with a velocity of 3.0 m / s in a straight line.

What is the momentum of the object?

A 0.75 kg m / s B 1.3 kg m / s C 12 kg m / s D 24 kg m / s

10 A machine is very efficient.

What does this mean?

A It produces a large amount of power.


B It uses very little energy.
C It wastes very little energy.
D It works very quickly.

11 A force F acts on a body and the body moves a distance d in the direction of the force.

Which expression for the work done W is correct?

A W = Fd B W = Fd 2 C W= 1
2
Fd D W= 1
2
Fd 2

12 A boy produces an average power output of 60 W as he rides his bicycle for 2.0 minutes.

How much useful energy does he expend?

A 0.50 J B 30 J C 120 J D 7200 J

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19 [Turn over


6

13 The diagram shows a stone suspended on a string under the surface of a liquid. The stone
experiences a pressure caused by the liquid.

string

stone

liquid

What would increase the pressure on the stone?

A decreasing the surface area of the stone


B increasing the mass of the stone
C lowering the stone deeper into the liquid
D using a liquid with a lower density

14 At room temperature, iron is difficult to compress.

At the same temperature, oxygen is much easier to compress.

Which comparison of the structures of iron and oxygen explains this?

A The iron particles are closer together.


B The iron particles have a greater mass.
C The iron particles can be magnetised.
D The iron particles have less average kinetic energy.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19


7

15 A night storage heater contains a large block of material that is heated electrically during the
night. During the day the block cools down, releasing thermal energy into the room.

Which thermal capacity and which night-time temperature increase will cause the most energy to
be stored by the block?

thermal capacity night-time


of block temperature increase

A large large
B large small
C small large
D small small

16 100 g of water at 25 °C is poured into an insulated cup. 50 g of ice at 0 °C is added to the water.
The water is stirred until the temperature of the water has fallen to 0 °C.

18 g of ice remains unmelted.

The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J / g °C.

Which value does this experiment give for the specific latent heat of fusion of ice?

A 210 J / g B 330 J / g C 580 J / g D 770 J / g

17 The handle of a metal saucepan is made of plastic. As the saucepan heats up, the handle gets
warmer.

Which statement explains this?

A Molecules of the plastic radiate their energy to other molecules.


B Molecules of the plastic vibrate more and pass on their energy to nearby molecules.
C The free electrons in the plastic transfer the thermal energy along the handle.
D The heated molecules very slowly move along the plastic handle.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19 [Turn over


8

18 The metal surface of a kettle is hot.

What happens to the cool air outside the kettle when it comes into contact with the hot kettle?

A The density of the air decreases and the air falls.


B The density of the air decreases and the air rises.
C The density of the air increases and the air falls.
D The density of the air increases and the air rises.

19 Vacuum flasks usually have silvered walls that help to keep the contents of the flask hot.

Why are the walls silvered?

A to absorb thermal energy from the air around the flask


B to increase the rate of convection inside the flask
C to reduce energy loss to the surroundings by conduction
D to reflect thermal radiation back into the flask

20 When water waves pass through a gap they diffract.

The diagrams show wavefronts approaching a narrow gap.

In which diagram will the diffraction be least?

A B C D

21 Which conditions are necessary for light to be totally internally reflected?

the incident light is in angle of incidence

A the less dense medium less than the critical angle


B the less dense medium greater than the critical angle
C the more dense medium less than the critical angle
D the more dense medium greater than the critical angle

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19


9

22 Light is travelling through air. The light strikes a glass block at an angle of incidence of 45°. The
glass has a refractive index of 1.4.

What is the angle of refraction of the light as it enters the glass?

A 29° B 30° C 32° D 82°

23 An eclipse of the Sun happens when the Moon comes between the Earth and the Sun.

Which statement is correct?

A Infra-red radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and ultra-violet radiation.
B Ultra-violet radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and infra-red radiation.
C Visible light from the Sun disappears before ultra-violet radiation and infra-red radiation.
D Infra-red radiation, ultra-violet radiation and visible light from the Sun all disappear at the
same moment.

24 A pulse of sound is produced at the bottom of a boat. The sound travels through the water and is
reflected from a shoal of fish. The sound reaches the boat again after 1.2 s. The speed of sound
in the water is 1500 m / s.

boat

shoal of fish

How far below the bottom of the boat is the shoal of fish?

A 450 m B 900 m C 1800 m D 3600 m

25 An observer stands at the finish line of a 100 m race. He wants to time the winner’s run. He starts
his stop-watch as soon as he sees the smoke from the starting gun instead of when he hears the
bang.

What is the reason for doing this?

A Light travels much faster than sound.


B There is a risk he might respond to an echo from a wall.
C Humans react slower to sound than to light.
D Humans react more quickly to sound than to light.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19 [Turn over


10

26 A soft iron bar is a long way from any magnetic field.

How can the material of the bar be described?

A It is magnetic and strongly magnetised.


B It is magnetic and unmagnetised.
C It is non-magnetic and strongly magnetised.
D It is non-magnetic and unmagnetised.

27 Diagram 1 shows two thin, uncharged strips of plastic.

Diagram 2 shows the same strips after they have been rubbed with a dry cloth.

strips strips
of plastic of plastic

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which row describes the charge on the strips after rubbing, and the force between the strips after
rubbing?

charge on strips force between strips

A opposite attraction
B opposite repulsion
C the same attraction
D the same repulsion

28 A cell has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 1.5 V.

What does this statement mean?

A The cell converts 1.0 J of energy when driving 1.5 C of charge round a complete circuit.
B The cell converts 1.5 J of energy when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete circuit.
C The cell converts 1.5 J of energy per second when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete
circuit.
D The cell converts 1.5 W of power when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete circuit.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19


11

29 A metal wire of length 100 cm and cross-sectional area 0.20 mm2 has a resistance of 8.0 Ω.

What is the resistance of a wire of the same metal of length 50 cm and cross-sectional area of
0.40 mm2?

A 2.0 Ω B 8.0 Ω C 16 Ω D 32 Ω

30 The diagram shows a circuit.

What is connected in parallel with the thermistor?

A heater
B lamp
C light-dependent resistor
D variable resistor

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19 [Turn over


12

31 A lamp is to be connected in a circuit so that the potential difference (p.d.) across it can be varied
from 0 to 6 V.

Which circuit would be most suitable?

A B

6V 6V

C D

6V 6V

32 Components X and Y can be inserted to complete the circuit below. The completed circuit is a
potential divider in which the potential difference across component Y increases when the
temperature increases.

Y V

Which row shows the components X and Y?

X Y

A light-dependent resistor resistor


B resistor light-dependent resistor
C resistor thermistor
D thermistor resistor

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19


13

33 Which two logic gates each have a high output (1) when both of their inputs are low (0)?

A AND and OR
B AND and NOR
C NAND and NOR
D NAND and OR

34 Two NAND gates are joined together as shown.

input 1
output
input 2

Which single logic gate is equivalent to this combination?

A AND B NAND C NOR D OR

35 Which components are designed to improve the safe working of a mains electrical supply?

circuit earth
fuse
breaker wire

A   
B   
C   
D   

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19 [Turn over


14

36 The diagram shows a current-carrying wire placed between two magnetic poles. The current is in
the direction shown.

wire

S N

current direction

What is the direction of the force on the wire?

A towards the bottom of the page


B towards the top of the page
C towards the left-hand side of the page
D towards the right-hand side of the page

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19


15

37 Diagram 1 shows an a.c. generator. The coil is turning as shown.

diagram 1

coil

N
S

Diagram 2 shows the output voltage produced by the generator as the coil turns.

Which point on diagram 2 shows the voltage induced when the coil is moving through the position
shown in diagram 1?

diagram 2

output A
voltage

B
0
0 C time

38 Which observation provides evidence for the nuclear atom?

A attraction of opposite charges

B emission of γ-rays during the decay of a radioactive nuclide

C scattering of α-particles by thin metal foils

D scattering of γ-rays by a thin metal foil

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19 [Turn over


16

39 The chemical symbol for uranium is U. The equation represents the radioactive decay of
uranium-235.

235
92U → xyTh + 24He
What are the numbers x and y?

x y

A 231 94
B 231 90
C 239 94
D 239 90

40 An experiment is done to measure the radiation from a radioactive source that has a
half-life of 10 minutes.

The source is placed close to a detector that is connected to a counter, as shown.

radioactive
counter
detector source

The average background count-rate is 20 counts / minute.

At the start of the experiment, the count-rate recorded by the counter is 1000 counts / minute.

What is the count-rate 10 minutes later?

A 490 counts / minute


B 500 counts / minute
C 510 counts / minute
D 530 counts / minute

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19


Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*2715201136*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 06_0625_22/4RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
2

1 Five athletes P, Q, R, S and T compete in a race. The table shows the finishing times for the
athletes.

athlete P Q R S T
finishing time / s 22.50 24.40 25.20 26.50 23.20

Which statement is correct?

A Athlete P won the race and was 0.70 s ahead of the athlete in second place.
B Athlete P won the race and was 1.90 s ahead of the athlete in second place.
C Athlete S won the race and was 1.30 s ahead of the athlete in second place.
D Athlete S won the race and was 2.10 s ahead of the athlete in second place.

2 A student investigates the motion of a ball rolling down a slope.

The diagram shows the speed v of the ball at different times t.

t = 0s
v = 0 cm / s
t = 0.2 s
v = 2.8 cm / s
t = 0.4 s
ball v = 5.1 cm / s t = 0.6 s
v = 7.0 cm / s

Which statement describes the motion of the ball?

A The acceleration is not constant.


B The acceleration is negative.
C The speed is decreasing.
D The velocity is constant.

3 Which statement about acceleration is correct?

A It is related to the changing speed of an object.


B It is the distance an object travels in one second.
C It is the force acting on an object divided by the distance it travels in one second.
D It is the force acting on an object when it is near to the Earth.

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/M/J/20


3

4 Which statement correctly describes the effects of placing a heavy load in a car?

A It is easier to accelerate the car and easier to bring the car to rest.
B It is easier to accelerate the car but more difficult to bring the car to rest.
C It is more difficult to accelerate the car and more difficult to bring the car to rest.
D It is more difficult to accelerate the car but easier to bring the car to rest.

5 A space probe is taken from the Earth to Mars.

The force of gravity on the surface of Mars is less than the force of gravity on the surface of the
Earth.

How do the weight and the mass of a space probe on the surface of Mars compare to their values
when the probe is on the surface of the Earth?

weight on Mars mass on Mars

A decreased decreased
B decreased unchanged
C unchanged decreased
D unchanged unchanged

6 Water has a density of 1000 kg / m3.

A rectangular swimming pool has an average depth of 1.6 m.

The length of the pool is 25 m.

The width of the pool is 10 m.

What is the mass of the water in the swimming pool?

A 2.5 kg B 400 kg C 400 000 kg D 800 000 kg

7 A satellite orbits the Earth at constant speed in a circular orbit.

Which statement is correct?

A The resultant force on the satellite is zero.


B The resultant force on the satellite is towards the Earth.
C The resultant force on the satellite is away from the Earth.
D The resultant force on the satellite is in the direction of motion.

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/M/J/20 [Turn over


4

8 Two forces P and Q act on an object.

Which diagram shows the resultant of these two forces?

A B C D

P resultant P resultant P P
resultant resultant

Q Q Q Q

9 An object is moving at +3.0 m / s.

A force acts on the object.

After a time, the object is moving at – 4.0 m / s.

The mass of the object is 5.0 kg.

What is the change in momentum of the body?

A –35 kg m / s B –5.0 kg m / s C +5.0 kg m / s D +35 kg m / s

10 Which energy resource is not renewable?

A geothermal
B nuclear fission
C solar
D wind

11 A car of mass 500 kg is moving at 10 m / s. The engine does work on the car and the speed
increases to 16 m / s.

How much work is done by the engine to increase the speed of the car?

A 3000 J B 9000 J C 39 000 J D 78 000 J

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/M/J/20


5

12 The diagram shows a solid block resting on a bench. The dimensions of the block are shown.

40 cm
20 cm
Q

R bench
80 cm P

On which labelled surface should the block rest to produce the smallest pressure on the bench?

A P
B Q
C R
D P, Q and R produce the same pressure

13 An object is 60 cm below the surface of a liquid. The pressure due to the liquid at this depth is
9000 Pa.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 15 kg / m3 B 540 kg / m3 C 1500 kg / m3 D 54 000 kg / m3

14 Which row describes the forces between the molecules and the motion of the molecules in a
solid?

forces between motion


molecules of molecules

A strong move freely


B strong vibrate only
C weak move freely
D weak vibrate only

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/M/J/20 [Turn over


6

15 Wet clothes are hanging outside to dry.

Which condition decreases the rate of evaporation of the water from the clothes?

A folded clothes
B higher temperature
C wetter clothes
D windy day

16 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

glass bulb stem capillary tube

–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

liquid

The design of this thermometer includes the following features.

1 a liquid which expands linearly when it is heated


2 a glass bulb which has a thick glass wall
3 a capillary tube with a very small diameter

Which features increase the sensitivity of the thermometer?

A 1 only B 1 and 2 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

17 The diagrams show four blocks of steel. The blocks are all drawn to the same scale.

The same quantity of thermal energy is given to each block.

Which block shows the greatest rise in temperature?

A B C D

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/M/J/20


7

18 A room is heated by a radiator. The diagrams X and Y show two possible circulations of hot air,
which heat the room.

diagram X ceiling diagram Y ceiling

radiator radiator
floor floor

Which diagram and reason explain the heating of the room by convection?

diagram reason

A X air density decreases when air is heated


B X air density increases when air is heated
C Y air density decreases when air is heated
D Y air density increases when air is heated

19 Two copper containers P and Q are filled with hot water.

The diagrams are both drawn to the same scale.

P Q

Container P emits more infrared radiation from its surfaces than container Q.

What is a possible reason for this?

A The surfaces of P are painted white and the surfaces of Q are painted black.
B The surfaces of P are shiny and the surfaces of Q are dull.
C The surfaces of P have a smaller area than the surfaces of Q.
D The water in P is hotter than the water in Q.

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/M/J/20 [Turn over


8

20 The diagram shows a wave.

8 cm

3 cm

6 cm

4 cm

What are the amplitude and the wavelength of this wave?

amplitude / cm wavelength / cm

A 3 4
B 3 8
C 6 4
D 6 8

21 The frequency of the microwaves used in a microwave oven is 2400 MHz.

What is the wavelength of these microwaves?

A 0.125 m B 8.00 m C 125 m D 7200 m

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/M/J/20


9

22 An object O is placed in front of a plane mirror as shown.

O
plane mirror

1 2

Which row is correct?

position of nature of
the image the image

A 1 real
B 1 virtual
C 2 real
D 2 virtual

23 Which statement is correct?

A The speed of light in glass is equal to the speed of light in a vacuum multiplied by the
refractive index of glass.
B The incident angle of a light ray at an air-glass surface is the angle between the ray and the
glass surface.

C The sine of the critical angle at an air-glass surface is equal to 1 .


refractive index of glass
D The angle of refraction for light passing through an air-glass surface is proportional to the
angle of incidence at that surface.

24 An intruder alarm sensor detects that a person is warmer than his surroundings.

Which type of electromagnetic wave does the sensor detect?

A infrared
B radio
C ultraviolet
D visible light

25 A dolphin sends out a sound wave. An echo returns 0.010 s later from a fish which is 7.5 m from
the dolphin.

What is the speed of the sound wave in water?

A 0.075 m / s B 0.15 m / s C 750 m / s D 1500 m / s

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/M/J/20 [Turn over


10

26 Four nails A, B, C and D are tested to find which makes the strongest permanent magnet.

One of the nails is placed against a bar magnet and the number of paper clips which the nail can
support is recorded.

nail
N S
bar magnet

paper clips

The bar magnet is then removed and the number of paper clips remaining attached to the nail is
recorded. Each nail is tested individually.

Which nail becomes the strongest permanent magnet?

number of paper clips attached to the nail


bar magnet present bar magnet removed

A 2 0
B 2 1
C 4 3
D 5 2

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/M/J/20


11

27 A student wants to demagnetise a steel bar. He uses the apparatus shown. He switches on the
circuit for a few seconds and then switches off. He finds that the steel bar is still magnetised.

steel bar coil

a.c.
supply

What should he do to improve his method?

A change the supply from an alternating to a direct voltage


B use a lower alternating voltage
C remove the steel bar from the coil whilst the circuit is switched on
D use a coil that has fewer turns on it

28 A cloth is used to rub an uncharged plastic rod.

Both the rod and the cloth become charged.

Why does the plastic rod become negatively charged and the cloth become positively charged?

A The rod gains electrons and the cloth gains positive charges.
B The rod gains electrons and the cloth loses electrons.
C The rod loses electrons and the cloth gains electrons.
D The rod loses electrons and the cloth loses positive charges.

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/M/J/20 [Turn over


12

29 A student uses the circuit shown to determine the resistance of two identical resistors.

The voltmeter reading is 2.2 V and the ammeter reading is 0.25 A.

What is the resistance of each resistor?

A 0.275 Ω B 0.55 Ω C 4.4 Ω D 8.8 Ω

30 A cell passes a current of 2.0 A in a circuit for 30 s. In this time the cell transfers 120 J of energy.

What is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the cell?

A 0.50 V B 1.5 V C 2.0 V D 8.0 V

31 The circuit shown contains five lamps J, K, L, M and N. All the lamps are glowing.

lamp L

lamp K

lamp J

lamp N

lamp M

One lamp is removed and two other lamps go out.

Which lamp is removed?

A lamp J
B lamp K
C lamp L
D lamp M

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/M/J/20


13

32 What is the effective resistance of the following combination of resistors?

6.0 Ω
4.0 Ω

8.0 Ω

A 1.8 Ω B 7.4 Ω C 11 Ω D 18 Ω

33 Which symbol represents a NAND gate?

A B C D

34 The diagram shows a circuit used to switch on a heater when the temperature drops below a
certain value.

Which row shows the components that should be connected at X and at Y?

X Y

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/M/J/20 [Turn over


14

35 The diagram shows the magnetic field due to a current in a solenoid.

Where is the magnetic field the strongest?

36 A beam of electrons is passed through the magnetic field of a magnet.

How must the magnet be positioned to deflect the beam in the direction shown?

A B
e–

e–
N S direction S
of beam

direction
of beam
N

C D
e–

e–
S N direction N
of beam

direction
of beam
S

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/M/J/20


15

37 Uranium-235 can undergo nuclear fission in many ways.

Which equation correctly shows a possible fission reaction for uranium-235?

1 + 235U → 141Ba + 92Kr +


A
0n 92 56 36 301n
1 + 235U → 91Sr + 144Xe +
B
0n 92 38 54 201n
1 + 235U → 95Rb + 136Cs +
C
0n 92 37 55 301n
1 + 235U → 87Br + 146La +
D
0n 92 35 57 401n

38 A radioactive material has a half-life of 20 days.

A sample of the material contains 8.0 × 1010 atoms.

How many atomic nuclei have decayed after 60 days?

A 1.0 × 1010 B 4.0 × 1010 C 6.0 × 1010 D 7.0 × 1010

39 A thin sheet of paper is placed between a radioactive source and a radiation detector. The count
rate falls to a very low reading.

paper

detector

counter
source

From this result, which type of radiation is the source emitting?

A α-particles

B β-particles

C γ-rays
D X-rays

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/M/J/20 [Turn over


16

40 α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays are emitted by radioactive nuclei when they decay.

Which emissions can be deflected by an electric field?

A α-particles and β-particles only

B β-particles and γ-rays only

C γ-rays and α-particles only

D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/M/J/20


Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*2416172797*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB21 06_0625_22/5RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
2

1 Which piece of apparatus is the most suitable for measuring the mass of a pencil sharpener?

A digital balance
B measuring cylinder
C newton meter
D ruler

2 Four balls with different masses are dropped from the heights shown.

Air resistance may be ignored.

Which ball has the smallest average speed?

A B C D
1.0 kg

2.0 kg

3.0 kg
4.0 m
4.0 kg
3.0 m
2.0 m
1.0 m ground

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/M/J/21


3

3 A ball is thrown vertically upwards through the air. Air resistance acts on the ball.

Which graph shows how its speed varies with time?

A B

speed speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

speed speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

4 What is the best description of the meaning of the ‘mass’ of an object?

A the space occupied by the object


B the force that gravity exerts on the object
C the resistance of the object to changes in motion
D the closeness of packing of the molecules in the object

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/M/J/21 [Turn over


4

5 A measuring cylinder contains 40 cm3 of water.

A stone of mass 94 g is lowered into the water so that it is fully submerged as shown.

cm3
100
90
80
70
90
60
50
80
40
30 70
20
10

What is the density of the stone?

A 1.1 g / cm3 B 1.2 g / cm3 C 2.1 g / cm3 D 2.6 g / cm3

6 The extension–load graph for a spring is shown. The unstretched length of the spring is 17.0 cm.

3
extension / cm

0
0 1 2 3 4
load / N

When an object is suspended from the spring, the length of the spring is 19.2 cm.

What is the weight of the object?

A 1.4 N B 1.6 N C 2.6 N D 3.0 N

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/M/J/21


5

7 A satellite orbits the Earth in an anticlockwise direction at constant speed, as shown.

When the satellite is in the position shown, in which direction does the resultant force act upon it?

direction of motion
of satellite

Earth D B

satellite
C

8 A tennis ball has a mass of 57 g.

A tennis player hits the tennis ball with a tennis racket. The tennis ball has a velocity of 25 m / s
when it hits the racket.

The velocity of the tennis ball when it leaves the player’s racket is 15 m / s in the opposite direction
from its approaching direction.

The average force exerted by the tennis racket on the ball is 35 N.

For how long is the tennis ball in contact with the tennis racket?

A 0.015 s B 0.016 s C 0.065 s D 0.65 s

9 This question is about four methods used to produce electrical energy.

Which method has a correct description?

energy source emits


method
is renewable carbon dioxide

A a hydroelectric power station yes no


B a coal-fired power station no no
C a wind turbine no yes
D a nuclear power station yes yes

10 A stone is released from rest from a high building on Earth. Air resistance is negligible.

What is its velocity when it has fallen 5 m?

A 7.1 m / s B 10 m / s C 50 m / s D 100 m / s

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/M/J/21 [Turn over


6

11 The power input to an electric motor is 400 W. The efficiency of the motor is 85%.

How much power is wasted?

A 60 W B 85 W C 340 W D 470 W

12 A book has a mass of 400 g.

The surface of the book in contact with a table has dimensions 0.10 m  0.20 m.

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure exerted on the table due to the book?

A 0.08 N / m2 B 8.0 N / m2 C 20 N / m2 D 200 N / m2

13 A horizontal metal plate of area 0.50 m2 lies at the bottom of a lake at a depth of 40 m.

The density of water is 1000 kg / m3 and the gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the downward force acting on the plate due to the water?

A 20 kN B 80 kN C 200 kN D 800 kN

14 Which row describes the forces between the molecules and the motion of the molecules in a
gas?

forces between motion


molecules of molecules

A strong move freely


B strong vibrate only
C weak move freely
D weak vibrate only

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/M/J/21


7

15 Very small pollen grains are suspended in water. A bright light shines from the side.

When looked at through a microscope, small specks of light are seen to be moving in a random,
jerky manner.

eye

microscope

bright light

pollen grains
in water

What are the moving specks of light?

A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains


B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

16 A hole is drilled in a metal plate.

What happens to the length of the plate and to the diameter of the hole when the plate is cooled?

length of plate diameter of hole

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/M/J/21 [Turn over


8

17 Which statement describes a sensitive liquid-in-glass thermometer?

A a thermometer which can be used to measure very high and very low values of temperature
B a thermometer which gives the same increase in length of the liquid column for each degree
of temperature rise
C a thermometer which is accurate because it has been calibrated
D a thermometer which gives a large increase in the length of the liquid column for each
degree of temperature rise

18 A block of aluminium of mass 2.0 kg has an initial temperature of 20 C. It absorbs 7300 J of
thermal energy.

The specific heat capacity of aluminium is 913 J / (kg C).

What is the final temperature of the aluminium block?

A 4.0 C B 8.0 C C 24 C D 28 C

19 A student sets up four cans. Each can contains the same mass of water at 90 C.

The cans are identical except for the outside surfaces.

Which can will cool down the fastest?

A dull, black surface


B dull, white surface
C shiny, black surface
D shiny, white surface

20 Thermal energy is transferred by conduction in a metal bar.

Which statement is not correct?

A Fast vibrating ions leave the surface.


B Free moving electrons carry thermal energy through the bar.
C Ions vibrate and strike neighbouring ions to make them vibrate.
D Ions vibrate but do not change position.

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/M/J/21


9

21 A water wave passes into a region where the wave travels more slowly.

As it passes into the slow region, what happens to the frequency and what happens to the
wavelength of the wave?

frequency wavelength

A decreases remains the same


B increases remains the same
C remains the same decreases
D remains the same increases

22 Light travelling at a speed of 3.0  108 m / s strikes the surface of a glass block and undergoes
refraction as it enters the block.

The diagram shows a ray of this light before and after it enters the block.

55q

glass block

33q

What is the speed of light in the glass?

A 1.8  108 m / s

B 2.0  108 m / s

C 4.5  108 m / s

D 5.0  108 m / s

23 Which statement about the image of an object formed in a plane mirror is correct?

A It is smaller than the object.


B It is the same size as the object.
C It is larger than the object.
D It is inverted.

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/M/J/21 [Turn over


10

24 An object is placed in front of a thin converging lens.

The diagram shows the paths of two rays from the top of the object.

converging lens

object

An image of the object is formed on a screen to the right of the lens.

How does this image compare with the object?

A It is larger and inverted.


B It is larger and the same way up.
C It is smaller and inverted.
D It is smaller and the same way up.

25 Here are three statements about the speed of electromagnetic waves.

1 The speed of an electromagnetic wave in a vacuum is 340 m / s.

2 The speed of an electromagnetic wave in a vacuum is 3.0  108 m / s.


3 The speed of an electromagnetic wave in a vacuum is approximately the same as in
air.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/M/J/21


11

26 The sound from a loudspeaker must pass through two materials to reach a microphone.

loudspeaker microphone

material 1 material 2

Which combination of materials gives the shortest time for the sound to reach the microphone?

material 1 material 2

A air hydrogen
B air water
C copper aluminium
D water oil

27 Which method does not demagnetise a bar magnet?

A Heat the bar magnet and place it in the east-west direction to cool.
B Place the bar magnet in the east-west direction and hammer it.
C Place the bar magnet in a coil connected to an a.c. supply and slowly withdraw it.
D Place the bar magnet in a coil connected to a d.c. supply and slowly withdraw it.

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/M/J/21 [Turn over


12

28 Three piles of small nails, P, Q and R, are placed on a bench below three electromagnets.

One set of nails is made of copper, one of soft iron and one of steel.

Diagram 1 shows the situation when the electromagnets are switched on.

Diagram 2 shows the situation when the electromagnets are then switched off.

diagram 1
the switches are closed

Q R
P bench
small nails

diagram 2
the switches are open

small nails R
bench
P Q

Which row correctly identifies the materials from which the nails are made?

copper soft iron steel

A P Q R
B P R Q
C Q P R
D Q R P

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/M/J/21


13

29 A magnet is suspended by a cotton thread.

The magnet is displaced then allowed to swing freely until it comes to rest.

Why does the magnet always come to rest pointing in the same direction?

A because of the interaction between the electric field of the magnet and the electric field of the
Earth
B because of the interaction between the electric field of the magnet and the magnetic field of
the Earth
C because of the interaction between the magnetic field of the magnet and the gravitational
field of the Earth
D because of the interaction between the magnetic field of the magnet and the magnetic field of
the Earth

30 A student rubs a plastic rod with a cloth.

The rod becomes positively charged.

What has happened to the rod?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained protons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost protons.

31 An isolated metal sphere is positively charged.

It is then brought near to another isolated metal sphere that is neutral.

left right
+ +
+ + +
+
+ + +
positively charged + + + neutral
metal sphere metal sphere

What happens to the charges on the neutral sphere as the positively charged sphere is brought
close to it?

A Some positive charges move to the left and some negative charges move to the right.
B Some positive charges move to the right and some negative charges move to the left.
C Some positive charges move to the right, but the negative charges do not move.
D The positive charges do not move, but some negative charges move to the left.

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/M/J/21 [Turn over


14

32 Which circuit has a zero reading on the ammeter?

A B

A A

C D

A A

33 Two 10  resistors are connected in series and then in parallel.

What is the combined resistance in each case?

resistance in resistance in
series /  parallel / 

A 10 5
B 10 10
C 20 5
D 20 10

34 The diagram shows a combination of four logic gates that produce an output signal at R that
depends on the states of the inputs P and Q.

Which single logic gate produces the same effect as the combination?

A AND B NAND C NOR D OR

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/M/J/21


15

35 A solenoid is connected to a very sensitive ammeter. A rod is inserted into one end of the
solenoid. The ammeter shows that there is a small electric current in the solenoid while the rod is
moving.

solenoid
rod

Which rod is being inserted?

A a heated copper rod


B a magnetised steel rod
C an uncharged nylon rod
D a radioactive uranium rod

36 The diagram shows a transformer.

iron core
550 turns 115 turns

output
22 000 V
voltage

What is the output voltage?

A 0.35 V B 2.9 V C 4600 V D 105 000 V

37 Which row correctly states how nuclei behave during nuclear fission and during nuclear fusion?

fission fusion

A nuclei join together nuclei join together


B nuclei join together nuclei split apart
C nuclei split apart nuclei join together
D nuclei split apart nuclei split apart

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/M/J/21 [Turn over


16

38 The charge on a proton is e.

What is the charge on an electron and what is the charge on a neutron?

electron neutron

A e e
B e 0
C –e –e
D –e 0

39 Some radioactive nuclei decay to give new nuclei which are also radioactive. Part of a series of
decays is shown.

238 234 234 234 230 226


92U  90 Th  91Pa  92U  90 Th  88Ra

How many decays involve the emission of a -particle?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 5

40 The graph shows the activity of a radioactive source over a period of time.

120
activity
counts / s 90

60

30

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes

What is the half-life of the source?

A 1.0 minute B 2.0 minutes C 2.5 minutes D 4.0 minutes

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/M/J/21


Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*2664559192*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB17 11_0625_22/4RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over
2

1 A student investigates the rate of flow of oil through a funnel.

The diagrams show the experiment and the volume of oil in the measuring cylinder at the start of
the experiment, and one minute later.

80 80
cm3 cm3
60 60

40 40

20 20

initial after 1.0


measurement minute

What is the rate of flow of oil through the funnel during the one minute?

A 0.73 cm3 / s B 0.80 cm3 / s C 44 cm3 / s D 48 cm3 / s

2 Four balls with different masses are dropped simultaneously from the heights shown.

Air resistance may be ignored.

Which ball hits the floor last?

A B C D
4.0 kg

3.0 kg

2.0 kg
2.0 m
1.0 kg
1.5 m
1.0 m
0.5 m ground

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17


3

3 The gravitational field strength on the Earth is greater than the gravitational field strength on the
Moon. The Earth has an atmosphere, but the Moon does not.

Which speed-time graph represents the motion of a light ball dropped from a great height near
the surface of the Earth and near the surface of the Moon?

A B
Earth
Moon
speed speed

Earth
Moon
0 0
0 time 0 time

C D
Earth
Earth
speed speed

Moon Moon

0 0
0 time 0 time

4 A spring is stretched by hanging a piece of metal from it.

spring

metal

Which name is given to the force that stretches the spring?

A friction
B mass
C pressure
D weight

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17 [Turn over


4

5 A body of mass m has a weight W in a location where the gravitational field strength is g.

Which statement about these quantities is correct?

A m and W are both forces.


B m and W are both vector quantities.
C m and W are related by the equation W = g.
m
D m and W have the same unit.

6 An object is pivoted at point P. A student ties a length of string to a peg on the object. He pulls
the string with a force F.

string

s t
peg
r
q P

object

What is the moment of the force F about the point P?

A F×q B F×r C F×s D F×t

7 Each diagram shows a metal plate with four parallel forces acting on it. These are the only forces
acting on the plates.

In which diagram is the plate in equilibrium?

A B

1.0 N 2.0 N 2.0 N 1.0 N

2.0 N 1.0 N 1.0 N 2.0 N

C D

1.0 N 1.0 N 2.0 N 1.0 N

2.0 N 2.0 N 2.0 N 2.0 N

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17


5

8 The diagram shows an incomplete scale drawing to find the resultant of two 10 N forces acting at
a point in the directions shown.

10 N

10 N

What is the magnitude of the resultant force?

A 7.5 N B 8.6 N C 18 N D 20 N

9 A ball has a mass of 0.30 kg. It moves horizontally with a speed of 3.0 m / s in the direction shown.

The ball hits a wall.

wall wall
ball ball

3.0 m / s 2.0 m / s

before hitting the wall after hitting the wall

The ball rebounds from the wall with a horizontal speed of 2.0 m / s.

What is the change in momentum of the ball?

A 0.30 kg m / s B 1.0 kg m / s C 1.5 kg m / s D 5.0 kg m / s

10 An object has a mass of 500 kg.

It moves with a speed of 30 m / s.

What is its kinetic energy?

A 7.5 kJ B 15 kJ C 225 kJ D 450 kJ

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17 [Turn over


6

11 Different processes have different efficiencies.

Which row shows the most efficient process?

energy useful energy


input / J output / J

A 10 3
B 40 10
C 100 25
D 2000 250

12 A student runs up a flight of stairs.

height
length

Which information is not needed to calculate the rate at which the student is doing work against
gravity?

A the height of the flight of stairs


B the length of the flight of stairs
C the time taken to run up the stairs
D the weight of the student

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17


7

13 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

cm vacuum
90

80

metre rule 70

60

50

40

30

20

10
mercury

Which length is used to find the value of atmospheric pressure?

A 12 cm B 74 cm C 86 cm D 100 cm

14 A pollen grain in a beaker of still water is viewed through a microscope.

Which diagram shows the most likely movement of the pollen grain?

A B C D

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17 [Turn over


8

15 The diagram shows an air-filled rubber toy. A child sits on the toy and its volume decreases.

The temperature of the air in the toy does not change.

How does the air pressure in the toy change and why?

pressure reason

A decreases air molecules move more slowly


B decreases air molecules strike the rubber less frequently
C increases air molecules move more quickly
D increases air molecules strike the rubber more frequently

16 The diagram shows a glass flask, sealed with a small volume of mercury in a glass tube. When
the flask is gently warmed the mercury rises up the tube.

glass tube

mercury

air

water

What is the main cause of the movement of the mercury?

A expansion of air in the flask


B expansion of the glass flask
C expansion of the glass tube
D expansion of the mercury

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17


9

17 Which row identifies the fixed points on the Celsius scale?

lower fixed point upper fixed point

A boiling point of mercury melting point of pure ice


B boiling point of pure water melting point of pure ice
C melting point of mercury boiling point of pure water
D melting point of pure ice boiling point of pure water

18 Aluminium has a specific heat capacity of 900 J / (kg °C).

The internal energy of a 2.0 kg block of aluminium increases by 13 500 J.

By how much does the temperature of the block increase?

A 0.067 °C B 0.13 °C C 7.5 °C D 15 °C

19 Why does a balloon filled with hot air rise?

A Cold air is less dense than hot air.


B Cold air is more dense than hot air.
C Heat rises.
D The density of the balloon is greater than the density of the surrounding gas.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17 [Turn over


10

20 The diagram represents plane wavefronts of a water wave about to strike a solid barrier.

wavefronts

Which diagram shows the position of the wavefronts after reflection at the barrier?

A B

reflected

reflected

C D

reflected

reflected

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17


11

21 The diagram shows an object O in front of a thin converging lens of focal length f.

At which point will the lens form a sharp image of the object?

A
O

f f
C
D

22 The diagram shows a ray of light incident on the surface of a rectangular glass block at 90° to the
surface.

ray of light

glass block

Which quantities remain unchanged as the light enters the glass block?

A direction and frequency


B direction and speed
C frequency and speed
D speed and wavelength

23 Which piece of equipment is designed to produce a type of electromagnetic wave?

A electric fire
B electric generator
C electric motor
D electromagnet

24 The Moon is 380 000 km from the Earth. A laser light beam is directed from the Earth to the
Moon. The beam is reflected back to the Earth.

How long does it take for the light to travel to the Moon and back to the Earth?

A 1.27 ms B 2.53 ms C 1.27 s D 2.53 s

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17 [Turn over


12

25 Different waves travel through air.

Which waves have the greatest difference in speed?

A ultrasound waves and sound waves


B ultrasound waves and ultraviolet waves
C ultraviolet waves and light waves
D ultraviolet waves and radio waves

26 The speed of sound is different in different states of matter.

The speed of sound in water is 1500 m / s.

Which row correctly compares the speed of sound in ice and the speed of sound in steam with
the speed of sound in water?

speed of sound in ice speed of sound in steam


m/s m/s

A less than 1500 less than 1500


B less than 1500 more than 1500
C more than 1500 less than 1500
D more than 1500 more than 1500

27 A student finds that it takes sound 0.33 seconds to travel 100 metres.

From this information, what is the speed of sound?

A 30 m / s B 60 m / s C 300 m / s D 600 m / s

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17


13

28 A train of steel nails and a train of iron nails hang from a strong magnet.

magnet

train of train of
steel nails iron nails

The trains are then carefully removed from the magnet.

What happens to the trains?

A Both trains fall apart.


B Both trains stay together.
C Only the train of iron nails falls apart.
D Only the train of steel nails falls apart.

29 An old and expensive steel watch becomes magnetised.

The owner wants to use the watch again. He must demagnetise the watch.

What is the best method to do this?

A Insert the watch in a solenoid that carries alternating current and then slowly remove it.
B Insert the watch in a solenoid that carries direct current and then slowly remove it.
C Pass alternating current through the watch.
D Pass direct current through the watch.

30 Which diagram represents the electric field due to a negatively-charged conducting sphere?

A B C D

– – – –

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17 [Turn over


14

31 The diagram shows a circuit with a gap between points P and Q.

Four pieces of metal wire of the same material are connected, in turn, between points P and Q in
the circuit.

P Q

The table gives the diameters and lengths of the wires.

In which wire is the current the largest?

diameter / mm length / m

A 0.10 1.0
B 0.10 2.0
C 0.20 1.0
D 0.20 2.0

32 The graph shows the way in which one physical quantity y varies with another physical quantity x.

0
0 x

Which row gives suitable quantities for y and x?

y x

A the number of atoms of a the time taken


radioactive isotope present
B the potential difference the current in the metallic conductor
across a metallic conductor
C the resistance of a length of wire the diameter of the wire
D the volume of a 1.0 kg object the density of the material from
which the object is made

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17


15

33 The potential difference across a car headlamp is 12 V. The current in the lamp is 2.5 A.

How much energy is transferred by the lamp in 1.0 hour?

A 1800 J B 1800 W C 108 000 J D 108 000 W

34 The diagram shows a circuit with a fixed resistor connected in series with a thermistor and an
ammeter.

Which row shows how temperature change affects the resistance of the thermistor and the
current in the circuit?

resistance of
temperature current in circuit
thermistor

A decreases decreases increases


B decreases increases decreases
C increases decreases decreases
D increases increases increases

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17 [Turn over


16

35 An incomplete truth table for a NAND gate is shown.

input P input Q output

0 0 W
0 1 X
1 0 Y
1 1 Z

What are the values of W, X, Y and Z?

W X Y Z

A 0 0 0 1
B 0 1 1 1
C 1 0 0 0
D 1 1 1 0

36 The diagram shows a wire hanging freely between the poles of a magnet. There is a current in
the wire in the direction shown.

wire

S N

current

The magnet and current cause a force to act on the wire.

In which direction does this force act?

A into the page (away from you)


B out of the page (toward you)
C to the left
D to the right

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17


17

37 A 100% efficient transformer has 6000 turns on its primary coil and 600 turns on its secondary
coil. The output voltage of the transformer is 12 V.

A resistor is connected across the secondary coil and dissipates 24 W of power.

primary coil secondary coil


6000 turns 600 turns

output voltage 12 V
power 24 W

What is the current in the primary coil of the transformer?

A 0.050 A B 0.20 A C 5.0 A D 20 A

38 In the diagram, the circle represents an atom (not to scale) with the nucleus at its centre.

A particle is emitted by a radioactive source and approaches the nucleus of the atom. The curved
arrow shows the path of the particle.

nucleus

path of
particle

What is the nature and charge of the particle?

nature of particle charge of particle

A α-particle negative
B α-particle positive
C β-particle negative
D β-particle positive

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17 [Turn over


18

39 Which row describes the behaviour of γ-rays in an electric field and in a magnetic field?

electric field magnetic field

A deflected deflected
B deflected undeflected
C undeflected deflected
D undeflected undeflected

40 A radioactive source has a half-life of 0.5 hours.

A detector near the source shows a reading of 6000 counts per second.

Background radiation can be ignored.

What is the reading on the detector 1.5 hours later?

A 750 counts per second


B 1500 counts per second
C 2000 counts per second
D 3000 counts per second

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17


19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17


20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17


Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*3081874355*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 11_0625_22/3RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over
2

1 The diagram shows part of a micrometer screw gauge.


45

012 40

mm
35

30

What is the smallest reading that can be achieved using this micrometer screw gauge?

A 0.0001 mm B 0.01 mm C 0.1 mm D 1 mm

2 The speed-time graph shows the motion of a car.

At which time is its acceleration greatest?

speed

0
0 A B C D
time

3 An athlete runs at a speed of 8 m / s for 10 s, and then at a speed of 6 m / s for 12 s.

Which calculation gives the average speed of the athlete in m / s?

A 8+6
2

(8 × 10) + (6 × 12)
B
22

(8 ÷ 10) + (6 ÷ 12)
C
22

(10 ÷ 8) + (12 ÷ 6)
D
22

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18


3

4 A helium balloon is tied to a top-pan balance. A metal block of mass 100 g is placed on the
balance. The reading on the balance is 91 g.

helium balloon

metal block

91 g

Which statement can be deduced from this experiment?

A The balloon exerts a downward force of 0.09 N on the top-pan balance.


B The helium has a mass of –9 g.
C The helium has a mass of +9 g.
D The resultant downward force on the top-pan balance is 0.91 N.

5 The diagram shows four blocks of different metals. Each block has a mass of 12 g.

Which metal has the largest density?

A B

1 cm
1 cm
2 cm
1 cm
2 cm 2 cm

C D

1 cm
1 cm
2 cm
1 cm
3 cm 3 cm

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18 [Turn over


4

6 The graph shows how the length of a spring changes when the stretching force is increased.

30

length of 25
spring / cm
20

15

10

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
force / N

In the Hooke’s law region, what is the spring constant for this spring?

A 0.20 N / cm B 0.22 N / cm C 0.28 N / cm D 0.33 N / cm

7 Point X is the centre of mass of a lamina in the shape of a triangle with sides of equal length. The
top of the triangle is cut off along the dotted line shown.

What happens to the centre of mass, X?

A moves towards the bottom of the page


B moves to the left
C moves to the right
D moves towards the top of the page

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18


5

8 An object of mass 3.0 kg, travelling at a speed of 6.0 m / s, collides with an object of mass 2.0 kg,
travelling in the opposite direction at a speed of 2.0 m / s.

6.0 m / s 2.0 m / s

3.0 kg 2.0 kg

The objects stick together during the collision.

What is the speed and direction of the combined mass after the collision?

A 4.4 m / s to the left


B 4.4 m / s to the right
C 2.8 m / s to the left
D 2.8 m / s to the right

9 Which device is designed to convert chemical energy into kinetic energy?

A an a.c. generator
B a battery-powered torch
C a car engine
D a wind-up mechanical clock

10 The diagram shows a pendulum.

P
R
10 cm
Q

The pendulum swings from P to Q to R and back to P.

P is 10 cm higher than Q.

At which speed does the pendulum bob pass through Q?

A 0.44 m / s B 1.0 m / s C 1.4 m / s D 2.0 m / s

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18 [Turn over


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11 A crane on a building site lifts bricks of total mass 200 kg, initially at rest on the ground, with
uniform acceleration.

When the bricks are 5.0 m from the ground, they have a speed of 5.0 m / s.

How much work is done during this process?

A 2.5 kJ B 10.0 kJ C 12.5 kJ D 35 kJ

12 A manometer is used to measure the pressure of a gas supply.

manometer

connection
to gas supply
h

liquid

Which change gives a greater value of height h ?

A using a less dense liquid


B using a more dense liquid
C using a narrower tube
D using a wider tube

13 A washbasin has an exit pipe covered with a plug of area 12 cm2. A chain is attached to the
centre of the plug to assist in pulling the plug away from the exit hole. The washbasin contains
water to a depth of 0.080 m.

The density of the water is 1000 kg / m3.

chain

plug

What is the force acting on the plug due to the water?

A 0.96 N B 800 N C 9600 N D 80 000 N

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18


7

14 Diagram 1 shows apparatus being used to observe smoke particles.

Diagram 2 shows how a smoke particle moves randomly.

diagram 1 diagram 2

eye

random
movement
microscope

air molecules
light and
smoke particles

Why do the smoke particles move randomly?

A They are hit by air molecules.


B They are less dense than air.
C They are moved by convection currents.
D They gain energy from the light.

15 A closed container of gas is heated. The pressure of the gas increases.

Which statement explains this increase in pressure?

A The changes in the momentum of the gas molecules striking the walls of the container
increase.
B The forces of attraction between the gas molecules and the walls of the container increase.
C The gas molecules collide with each other more frequently.
D The gas molecules lose more energy when they strike the walls of the container.

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18 [Turn over


8

16 The metal lid on a glass jar is difficult to unscrew.

The jar is placed in a warm oven until the jar and the lid reach the same temperature. The lid is
now easily unscrewed.

Which property accounts for this?

A thermal capacity of the jar


B thermal capacity of the lid
C thermal conduction
D thermal expansion

17 A block of iron of mass M is heated and gains 10 kJ of internal energy. The temperature of the
block rises by θ °C.

A second block of iron of mass 2M is heated and gains 5.0 kJ of internal energy.

What is the temperature rise of the second block in °C?

A θ B θ C 2θ D 4θ
4 2

18 Which factors affect the sensitivity of a thermometer?

1 the diameter of the bore of the tube


2 the length of the capillary tube
3 the thickness of the bulb wall

A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

19 Which statement about convection is not correct?

A It enables water in a pan on a cooker to get evenly heated.


B It happens in liquids and gases.
C It means that heat rises.
D It occurs because the density of a fluid decreases when it is heated.

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18


9

20 A lamp has a metal filament that glows when heated by an electric current.

The middle of the filament is at a very high temperature. The ends of the filament, which are
connected to the base of the lamp, are cooler.

Which statement is correct?

A Some thermal energy is conducted to the base of the lamp.


B The filament radiates energy equally at all points along its length.
C The lamp transfers all of the electrical energy it receives into light energy.
D When the voltage across the filament is halved, the power output is halved.

21 Plane water waves travel from a shallow region into a deeper region. They travel more quickly in
the deeper water.

shallow water

boundary
wave
direction
deep water

Which diagram shows the wave pattern in the deeper water?

A B C D

22 A thin converging lens has a focal length of 6.0 cm. An observer looks through the lens at an
object which is placed 4.0 cm from the lens.

4.0 cm

eye
object

Which description of the image that is observed is correct?

A diminished and inverted


B diminished and virtual
C enlarged and inverted
D enlarged and virtual

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18 [Turn over


10

23 A transmitter produces radio waves of wavelength 1500 m. It takes the waves 0.025 s to travel
from the transmitter to a radio receiver.

What is the distance between the radio transmitter and the receiver?

A 5.0 × 103 m B 2.0 × 105 m C 7.5 × 106 m D 1.1 × 1010 m

24 Different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are used for different purposes. Below are four
statements about parts of the spectrum.

statement 1: Infra-red waves are used in television remote controllers.


statement 2: Radio waves are used to transmit television pictures from satellites to Earth.
statement 3: Ultraviolet waves are used for intruder alarms.
statement 4: X-rays are used for security checks.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

25 A sheet of ice floats on water. A source of sound S is positioned at the edge of the ice sheet.

Four microphones are placed equal distances from S.

Which microphone detects the sound from S first?

air

B
D S

ice
water

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18


11

26 The diagram shows a bar magnet at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. A length of soft-iron
wire is held parallel to the magnet.

soft-iron wire
magnet
S

The wire is released.

What happens?

A The wire moves away from the magnet.


B The wire moves towards the magnet.

C The wire’s centre stays in its present position and the wire rotates through 90° in a clockwise
direction.

D The wire’s centre stays in its present position and the wire rotates through 90° in an
anticlockwise direction.

27 The diagram shows point X between two charged plates.

+ –
+ –
+ –
+ X –
+ –
+ –

Which diagram shows the electric field pattern near point X?

A B C D

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18 [Turn over


12

28 A bar magnet is placed inside a current-carrying coil. The diagram shows four different
experiments.

1 2

magnet slowly magnet slowly


removed removed

+ –

3 4

current in coil current in coil


slowly reduced slowly reduced

+ –

In which experiments is the magnet demagnetised?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

29 Copper wire is available in fixed lengths but in various diameters d. Each diameter has a different
resistance R.

Which relationship between R and d is correct?

A R is directly proportional to d.
B R is directly proportional to d 2.
C R is inversely proportional to d.
D R is inversely proportional to d 2.

30 A student investigates the resistance of a lamp.

Which row states how the meters must be connected?

ammeter voltmeter

A in parallel with the lamp in parallel with the lamp


B in parallel with the lamp in series with the lamp
C in series with the lamp in parallel with the lamp
D in series with the lamp in series with the lamp

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18


13

31 The circuit shown is used to change the voltage Vout as the temperature of device X changes.

+6.0 V

device Vout
X

0V

Which row is correct?

name of this name of


type of circuit device X

A potential divider fuse


B potential divider thermistor
C variable resistor fuse
D variable resistor thermistor

32 The circuit diagram shows a d.c. power supply connected to two resistors R1 and R2 and four
diodes.

R1 R2

+ –

Which statement is correct?

A There is a current in R1 and a current in R2.


B There is a current in R1 but no current in R2.
C There is no current in R1 but a current in R2.
D There is no current in R1 and no current in R2.

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18 [Turn over


14

33 A logic gate has inputs 0,0 and an output 1.

Which two types of logic gate behave in this way?

A OR, AND
B OR, NAND
C NOR, AND
D NOR, NAND

34 Either a fuse or a circuit-breaker can be used to protect electrical cables from large currents that
could cause overheating.

X cable
live

electrical Y appliance
supply

neutral
cable

When a fuse is used, where should it be connected, and when a circuit-breaker is used, where
should it be connected?

position position of
of fuse circuit-breaker

A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y

35 Electrical power is transmitted at 400 kV and transformed down to 240 V before being delivered to
consumers.

Which statement is correct?

A A 400 kV cable requires less insulation than a 240 V cable.


B Birds are subject to a high-voltage shock when resting on a high-voltage cable.
C The current in the transmission wires is equal to the current delivered to the consumers.
D With a 400 kV transmission system, a smaller proportion of the energy is used to heat the
atmosphere than with a 240 V system.

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15

36 The diagram shows a coil of wire between the poles of a magnet.

20 turns

N S

+ –
power
supply

The coil consists of 20 turns of insulated wire.

The coil is connected to a variable resistor and a power supply.

How can the turning effect on the coil be increased?

A by moving the poles of the magnet closer to the coil


B by reducing the number of turns on the coil while keeping the current constant
C by increasing the resistance of the variable resistor
D by reversing the terminals of the power supply

37 Which diagram represents the structure of a neutral atom?

A B C D
key
– – – –
neutron

++ ++ + proton
+ ++
+ – electron

– – –

220 212
38 A radioactive nucleus 86 Rn decays in two stages to produce 82 Pb .

Which two particles are emitted in this process?

A an α-particle and a β-particle

B an α-particle and a proton

C two α-particles

D two β-particles

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18 [Turn over


16

39 The diagram shows the paths of three different types of radiation X, Y and Z.

2 mm of 10 mm of 50 mm
plastic aluminium of lead

Which row correctly identifies X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A α-particles β-particles γ-rays


B β-particles α-particles γ-rays
C β-particles γ-rays α-particles
D γ-rays α-particles β-particles

40 The count rate measured when near a radioactive source drops from 542 counts per minute to
94 counts per minute in 12 hours. The background count remains constant at 30 counts per
minute.

What is the half-life of the source?

A 2 hours B 3 hours C 4 hours D 8 hours

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18


Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9597730633*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 14 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB19 11_0625_22/5RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over
2

1 A student measures the dimensions of a cylindrical glass beaker.

For which measurement should she use a micrometer screw gauge?

A circumference of the beaker


B diameter of the beaker
C height of the beaker
D thickness of the glass wall of the beaker

2 The graph shows how the speed of a car varies during part of a journey.

20.0
speed
m / s 15.0

10.0

5.0

0
0 2.0 4.0 6.0 8.0 10.0 12.0
time / s

What is the acceleration of the car between 6.0 s and 10.0 s?

A 0.50 m / s2 B 0.80 m / s2 C 1.25 m / s2 D 1.50 m / s2

3 A car travels at an average speed of 60 km / h for 15 minutes.

How far does the car travel in 15 minutes?

A 4.0 km B 15 km C 240 km D 900 km

4 A box is placed on the ground. An upward force of 15 N is needed to lift the box at constant
speed.

Which row correctly describes the box?

mass of the box weight of the box

A 1.5 kg 15 N
B 15 N 1.5 kg
C 15 N 150 kg
D 150 kg 15 N

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19


3

5 The table gives the mass and the volume of three objects P, Q and R.

object mass / g volume / cm3

P 23 36
Q 170 720
R 240 340

Which objects can float in a liquid of density 0.85 g / cm3?

A P and Q only
B P and R only
C Q and R only
D P, Q and R

6 A hook is used to lift a metal plate, as shown.

100 N

hook

50 cm 40 cm

pivot metal plate

An upward force of 100 N is needed to lift the metal plate about the pivot, as shown.

What is the weight W of the metal plate?

A 80 N B 100 N C 180 N D 225 N

7 What is the unit of the moment of a force?

A N B N / kg C N/m D Nm

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19 [Turn over


4

8 A ship travels due North through still water at a speed of 20 m / s.

It enters a channel where there is a current in the water from West to East. The speed of the
current is 20 m / s.

Which diagram shows the resultant velocity v of the ship?

A B

v v W E
20 m / s 20 m / s
S

20 m / s 20 m / s

C D

20 m / s v 20 m / s v

20 m / s 20 m / s

9 A ball is at rest on the ground. A boy kicks the ball. The boy’s boot is in contact with the ball for
0.040 s.

The average force on the ball is 200 N. The ball leaves the boy’s boot with a speed of 20 m / s.

Which row gives the impulse of the boot on the ball and the average acceleration of the ball?

impulse on ball average acceleration of ball


Ns m / s2

A 8 0.8
B 8 500
C 5000 0.8
D 5000 500

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19


5

10 An object P of mass 80 g collides with another object Q of mass 40 g.

After the collision, P and Q stick together and then travel on together.

Before the collision, P is travelling at a speed of 6.0 m / s and Q is at rest.

What is the speed of P and Q after the collision?

A 2.0 m / s B 3.0 m / s C 4.0 m / s D 6.0 m / s

11 Brakes are used to slow down a moving car.

Into which form of energy is most of the kinetic energy converted as the car slows down?

A chemical
B elastic
C thermal
D sound

12 A box of mass 8.0 kg is lifted from the ground and placed on a shelf. The box gains 100 J of
potential energy.

The box falls off the shelf. Air resistance can be ignored.

At what speed does the box hit the ground?

A 3.5 m / s B 5.0 m / s C 25 m / s D 28 m / s

13 A car is moving along a straight horizontal road. The car has 1.6 MJ of kinetic energy. The car
accelerates for 20 s until the kinetic energy of the car increases to 2.5 MJ.

What is the minimum average power developed by the car engine for this acceleration?

A 45 W B 205 W C 45 kW D 205 kW

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19 [Turn over


6

14 A drawing pin (thumb tack) has a sharp point at one end and a flat surface at the other end.

sharp point flat surface

The pin is pushed into a wooden board.

How do the pressure and the force at the sharp point compare with the pressure and the force on
the flat surface?

force at the sharp point pressure at the sharp point

A greater than on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
B greater than on the flat surface less than on the flat surface
C the same as on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
D the same as on the flat surface less than on the flat surface

15 The density of mercury is 13 600 kg / m3.

What is the pressure at the bottom of a column of mercury that has a height of 75.0 cm?

A 1.02 × 104 Pa

B 1.02 × 105 Pa

C 1.02 × 106 Pa

D 1.02 × 107 Pa

16 Which row describes the arrangement and the motion of the molecules in a gas?

arrangement motion

A far apart move freely


B far apart vibrate only
C tightly packed move freely
D tightly packed vibrate only

17 A bubble of air of volume 3.0 mm3 is under water. The bubble is at a depth where the pressure of
the air inside the bubble is four times atmospheric pressure.

The temperature of the air in the bubble stays the same as it rises to the surface.

What is the volume of the air in the bubble as it reaches the surface?

A 3.0 mm3 B 9.0 mm3 C 12 mm3 D 15 mm3

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19


7

18 The same quantity of thermal energy is supplied to each of four blocks. Each block is made from
a different material.

Which block has the greatest thermal capacity?

A B C D

temperature temperature temperature temperature


increase is increase is increase is increase is
1 °C 4 °C 2 °C 3 °C

19 A liquid turns into a gas. This occurs only at one particular temperature, and the change happens
throughout the liquid.

What is this process called?

A boiling
B condensation
C evaporation
D fusion

20 In a cold country, a bicycle has been left outside all night. The cyclist finds the plastic hand grips
feel less cold to the touch than the steel handlebars.

Which row correctly describes the temperature and the property of the two materials?

the temperature of the two materials the property of the two materials
A the temperature of the steel is the plastic is a better thermal
much lower than that of the plastic conductor than the steel
B the temperature of the steel is the steel is a better thermal
much lower than that of the plastic conductor than the plastic
C the steel and the plastic are the plastic is a better thermal
both at the same temperature conductor than the steel
D the steel and the plastic are the steel is a better thermal
both at the same temperature conductor than the plastic

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19 [Turn over


8

21 The diagram shows a tent made from a new material.

new material

What type of material should the tent be made of to reflect the radiant energy from the Sun?

material material
texture surface colour

A dull black
B dull white
C shiny black
D shiny white

22 A large hill blocks the direct path between a transmitter of radio waves and a receiver, as shown.

transmitter

hill receiver

The receiver picks up the signal from the transmitter even though the radio waves do not travel
through the hill.

Which row is correct?

A possible way A stronger signal is


for this to happen is received using

A diffraction round the hill. longer wavelengths.


B diffraction round the hill. shorter wavelengths.
C refraction round the hill. longer wavelengths.
D refraction round the hill. shorter wavelengths.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19


9

23 A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror. A student measures the angle of incidence i and the
angle of reflection r.

incident i r reflected
ray ray

The student varies the angle of incidence and then plots a graph of r against i.

What does the graph look like?

A B C D

r r r r

0 0 0 0
0 i 0 i 0 i 0 i

24 What is monochromatic light?

A light of a single amplitude


B light of a single frequency
C light of more than one colour
D light which travels with constant velocity

25 The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum.

radio
γ-rays X-rays ultraviolet visible light infrared microwaves
waves

increasing ......................

A word is missing from the label below the spectrum.

Which word is missing?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19 [Turn over


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26 Which row gives a possible set of values for the speed of sound in ice, in water and in steam?

speed of sound speed of sound speed of sound


in ice in water in steam
m/ s m/ s m/ s

A 500 1500 4000


B 1500 4000 500
C 4000 500 1500
D 4000 1500 500

27 A steel bar is placed in an East-West direction for it to be demagnetised. No other magnet is


nearby.

Which method is not suitable?

A Hammering the bar.


B Heating the bar to a very high temperature.
C Slowly taking the bar out of a coil that carries an alternating current.
D Slowly taking the bar out of a coil that carries a direct current.

28 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Why has the rod become positively charged?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained neutrons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost neutrons.

29 There is a current of 2.0 A in a resistor for 30 s. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor
is 12 V.

How much energy is transferred in the resistor?

A 1.25 J B 5.0 J C 180 J D 720 J

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19


11

30 Identical resistors are connected together to form arrangements X, Y and Z.

X Y Z

What is the correct order of the resistances of the arrangements from the largest to the smallest?

A X→Y→Z

B Y→X→Z

C Z→X→Y

D Z→Y→X

31 Resistors of 1.0 Ω, 2.0 Ω and 3.0 Ω are connected in parallel with a cell.

Which statement is correct?

A The current in each resistor is different but the potential difference (p.d.) across each resistor
is the same.
B The current in each resistor is the same but the potential difference across each resistor is
different.

C The potential difference across the 3.0 Ω is greater than the potential difference across the
1.0 Ω resistor.
D The sum of the potential differences across each resistor is equal to the electromotive force
(e.m.f.) of the cell.

32 The diagram shows a circuit component.

What is it used for?

A to allow current in one direction only


B to change the direction of the current
C to emit light when there is a current
D to increase the size of the current

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19 [Turn over


12

33 Which single logic gate behaves the same as the combination of logic gates shown?

A AND B NOR C NOT D OR

34 Where must a fuse be connected in a mains electric circuit?

A the earth wire only


B the live wire only
C the neutral wire only
D the live wire and the earth wire

35 The N-pole of a magnet is moved into a coil of wire connected to a galvanometer.

coil

S N

The needle of the galvanometer moves.

Which situation must give a smaller galvanometer reading?

A Use a coil with fewer turns and a stronger magnet.


B Use a coil with fewer turns and a weaker magnet.
C Use a coil with more turns and a stronger magnet.
D Use a coil with more turns and a weaker magnet.

36 A step-down transformer is 100% efficient. It has an input voltage of 240 V a.c. and an output
voltage of 60 V a.c.

The current in the primary coil is 0.50 A.

What is the current in the secondary coil?

A 0.13 A B 0.50 A C 2.0 A D 8.0 A

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19


13

37 The diagrams show the simple atomic structure for two neutral atoms X and Y of different
elements.

X Y

Which row is correct?

atom with atom with a more


more electrons positively charged nucleus

A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y

38 Plutonium-238 decays by the emission of an α-particle.

Which equation represents the decay of a plutonium-238 nucleus?

A
238
94
Pu → 238
95
U + –10 α

B
238
94
Pu → 234
92
U + 42 α

C
238
94
Pu → 234
92
U + 42 α

D
238
94
Pu → 242
96
U + 42 α

39 A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 8 days.

A detector close to a sample of this isotope gives a count rate of 200 counts per minute.
Without the source, the background count is 20 counts per minute.

What is the count rate due to the source after 8 days?

A 80 counts per minute


B 90 counts per minute
C 100 counts per minute
D 110 counts per minute

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19 [Turn over


14

40 Why are some radioactive sources stored in boxes made from lead?

A Lead absorbs emissions from the radioactive sources.


B Lead decreases the half-life of radioactive sources.
C Lead increases the half-life of radioactive sources.
D Lead repels emissions from the radioactive sources.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19


15

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19


16

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19


Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*4531333276*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 11_0625_22/4RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
2

1 The diagram shows a measuring device.

35
0 1
30
mm

For which measurement is this device suitable?

A diameter of a cylinder of aluminium of about 20 cm


B distance between two molecules of zinc
C length of a rod of iron of about 1 m
D thickness of a sheet of copper of about 1.5 mm

2 The graph shows how the speed of an object varies with time.

speed

0
P Q time

Which row describes the motion of the object at times P and Q?

P Q

A at rest accelerating
B at rest decelerating
C moving with constant speed accelerating
D moving with constant speed decelerating

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/O/N/20


3

3 A concrete block falls vertically from an aeroplane.

The concrete block falls into the sea and sinks.

Which graph shows the vertical motion of the concrete block?

A B

speed speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

speed speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

4 Which quantity is weight an example of?

A acceleration
B force
C mass
D pressure

5 Which statement about the mass of an object is correct?

A It changes when the object is lifted further from the ground.


B It is the gravitational force on the object.
C It is zero if the object is in orbit around the Earth.
D It resists any change in motion of the object.

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6 A rectangular metal block is 20 cm long.

The cross-sectional area of the block is 25 cm2.

The mass of the block is 4000 g.

What is the density of the metal?

A 0.13 g / cm3 B 0.32 g / cm3 C 8.0 g / cm3 D 2000 g / cm3

7 The diagram shows a beam lying on the ground. End Q is lifted from the ground by the force F.

End P of the beam remains on the ground.

3.0 m

1.0 m F

P Q
G
ground
beam

The length of the beam is 3.0 m and its weight is 600 N.

The centre of mass of the beam at G is 1.0 m from end P.

What is the size of the force F when it just raises end Q from the ground?

A 200 N B 300 N C 400 N D 600 N

8 The diagram shows a stand. The stand holds a heavy mass above the bench.

heavy mass

stand

bench
base

Which two changes would definitely make the stand more stable?

A Lower the mass and make the base narrower.


B Lower the mass and make the base wider.
C Raise the mass and make the base narrower.
D Raise the mass and make the base wider.

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9 A footballer kicks a stationary football.

His foot is in contact with the ball for 0.050 s.

The mass of the ball is 0.40 kg.

The speed of projection of the ball is 25 m / s.

What is the average force exerted on the ball by his foot?

A 0.32 N B 0.50 N C 200 N D 1300 N

10 A woman of mass 50 kg has 81 J of kinetic energy.

What is her speed?

A 1.3 m / s B 1.6 m / s C 1.8 m / s D 3.2 m / s

11 What is the source of the Sun’s energy?

A chemical reactions in the Sun’s core

B -emissions in the Sun’s core


C nuclear fission in the Sun’s core
D nuclear fusion in the Sun’s core

12 To calculate the power produced by a force, the size of the force must be known.

What else needs to be known to calculate the power?

the distance that the force the time for which the
moves the object force acts on the object

A   key
B    = needed
C    = not needed
D  

13 A research submarine is at a depth of 10 000 m below the surface of the sea.

The average density of the water above the submarine is 1030 kg / m3.

The atmospheric pressure at the surface of the sea is 103 000 Pa.

How many times greater is the pressure due to the sea water than the atmospheric pressure?

A 10 B 100 C 1000 D 100 000

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14 The diagram shows a mercury barometer.

Which height is used as a measurement of atmospheric pressure?

D
mercury
C
B

15 A student splashes water on to her face. Here are three statements about the effects.

P The water uses energy to evaporate.


Q The water gains energy from the student.
R The face of the student cools.

Which statements are correct?

A P and Q only B P and R only C Q and R only D P, Q and R

16 A bimetallic strip is used to control the temperature of electrical appliances. It is made of two
different metals fixed together.

The diagram shows the shape of the bimetallic strip before and after heating.

metal P

metal Q
before heating after heating

Which statement is correct?

A Metal P contracts more than metal Q on heating.


B Metal Q contracts more than metal P on heating.
C Metal P expands more than metal Q on heating.
D Metal Q expands more than metal P on heating.

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17 A student writes three statements about thermocouples.

1 They have a small thermal capacity.


2 They respond very slowly to temperature changes.

3 They can measure temperatures above 500 C.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 D 2 and 3

18 Four blocks are made from different metals. Each block is heated for five minutes with an
identical heater.

Assume there is no energy loss from the blocks.

The table gives the masses of the blocks and the temperature rises.

Which metal has the highest specific heat capacity?

mass of block / kg temperature rise / C

A 2.0 5.0
B 2.0 9.0
C 4.0 5.0
D 4.0 9.0

19 A scientist measures the air temperature at different heights from the floor in a cave. The results
are recorded in the table.

height / m temperature / C

0 10
10 11
20 13
30 14
40 16

Why does altering the height affect the temperature of the air?

A The molecules in warm air have less energy than the molecules in cool air.
B The molecules in cool air are further apart than the molecules in warm air.
C Warm air is less dense than cool air.
D Cool air rises above warm air.

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20 Four solid spheres made of the same metal are heated to the same temperature.

Which sphere initially loses thermal energy by radiation at the greatest rate?

A diameter of 10 cm with a dull surface


B diameter of 10 cm with a shiny surface
C diameter of 5 cm with a dull surface
D diameter of 5 cm with a shiny surface

21 Which row correctly describes light waves?

wave type direction of vibrations

A longitudinal parallel to direction of wave travel


B longitudinal perpendicular to direction of wave travel
C transverse parallel to direction of wave travel
D transverse perpendicular to direction of wave travel

22 A radio transmitter broadcasts at a frequency of 200 kHz.

What is the wavelength of these radio waves?

A 6.7  10–4 m B 1.5 m C 1.5  103 m D 1.5  106 m

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23 An optical lever is a very sensitive device for detecting small rotations. A lamp sends a narrow
beam of light on to a small plane mirror attached to a shaft whose rotation is to be measured. The
operation of the device is shown in plan view.

scale just scale just


above lamp above lamp

lamp lamp 
shaft shaft
small small
mirror mirror

The beam from the lamp reflects from the mirror to give a small spot of light on a scale placed
just above the lamp. The shaft and mirror rotate through 1. The spot of light moves along the
scale.

The table shows the angle  through which the reflected beam rotates and the conditions
required for high sensitivity.

Which row is correct?

angle  to achieve high sensitivity


A 1 the lamp and scale need to be
as close to the mirror as possible
B 1 the lamp and scale need to be
as far from the mirror as possible
C 2 the lamp and scale need to be
as close to the mirror as possible
D 2 the lamp and scale need to be
as far from the mirror as possible

24 A student draws a diagram to illustrate the different sections of a longitudinal wave.

Which labelled section is a rarefaction?

A B D

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25 The diagram shows white light passing through a prism.

red
violet
white
light

Which description of what happens as the light passes into the prism is correct?

A The speed of the red light is less than the speed of the violet light and the red light is the
least refracted.
B The speed of the red light is greater than the speed of the violet light and the red light is the
least refracted.
C The speed of the violet light is less than the speed of the red light and the violet light is the
least refracted.
D The speed of the violet light is greater than the speed of the red light and the violet light is the
least refracted.

26 A police car with its siren sounding is stationary in heavy traffic. A pedestrian notices that,
although the loudness of the sound produced does not change, the pitch varies.

Which row describes the amplitude and the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A constant constant
B constant varying
C varying constant
D varying varying

27 A piece of steel is slightly magnetised. It is hit several times with a hammer.

What effect will this have on the steel?

the steel is parallel to the steel is at right-angles


a strong magnetic field to a weak magnetic field

A it becomes magnetised more strongly it becomes magnetised more strongly


B it becomes magnetised more strongly it loses its magnetism
C it loses its magnetism it becomes magnetised more strongly
D it loses its magnetism it loses its magnetism

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28 A student sets up four experiments using bar magnets and other metal objects. The N and S
poles of the bar magnets are labelled N and S.

1 2

S N S N S N iron

3 4

S N copper S N N S

Which pairs attract each other?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

29 Which diagram represents the strength and direction of the magnetic field around a
current-carrying conductor? (The direction of the current is into the page.)

A B C D

30 Which quantity is defined as the energy transferred by a cell in driving unit charge around a
complete circuit?

A current
B electromotive force (e.m.f.)
C power
D resistance

31 There is a current in a variable resistor when a potential difference (p.d.) is applied across it.

In which situation is the current increased?

A Decrease the p.d. and keep the resistance the same.


B Decrease the p.d. and increase the resistance.
C Keep the p.d. the same and decrease the resistance.
D Keep the p.d. the same and increase the resistance.

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32 A student uses four ammeters P, Q, R and S to measure the current in different parts of the
circuit shown.

P Q
A A

R
A

S
A

Which two ammeters read the largest current?

A P and Q B P and R C R and Q D R and S

33 Which combination of logic gates gives the truth table shown?

inputs output
X Y Z

0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

A B

X X
Z Z
Y Y

C D

X X
Z Z
Y Y

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34 The diagram shows an a.c. generator used to power a lamp. The coil rotates in a clockwise
direction.

rotation
of coil
coil

X Y

Which magnetic poles are X and Y?

X Y

A N pole N pole
B N pole S pole
C S pole N pole
D S pole S pole

35 A transformer is needed to convert a supply of 240 V a.c. into 4800 V a.c..

NP NS

240 V a.c. 4800 V a.c.

Which pair of coils would be suitable for this transformer?

number of turns number of turns


on primary coil NP on secondary coil NS

A 50 1 000
B 240 48 000
C 480 24
D 2000 100

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36 The diagram shows a coil of wire wrapped around a soft-iron rod.

The wire is connected to a d.c. power supply as indicated.

The apparatus is in a region which is totally shielded from the Earth’s magnetic field.

+ –

soft-iron rod

A small compass needle is placed at point P.

In which direction does the N pole of the compass needle point?

A towards the bottom of the page


B towards the left of the page
C towards the right of the page
D towards the top of the page

37 Which statement is correct for the nucleus of any atom?

A The nucleus contains electrons, neutrons and protons.


B The nucleus contains the same number of protons as neutrons.
C The nucleus has a total charge of zero.
D The nucleus is very small compared with the size of the atom.

38 The symbol represents a nucleus of zinc.

Which row gives the numbers of protons and neutrons in this nucleus?

number of number of
protons neutrons

A 30 38
B 30 68
C 38 30
D 38 68

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39 The diagram shows a beam of -particles passing through a strong electric field.

β-particles

In which direction will the -particles be deflected?

A upwards towards the top of the page


B downwards towards the bottom of the page
C into the plane of the page
D out of the plane of the page

40 Which equation represents the -decay of lead-209?

209 0 209
A 82Pb + –1e  83Bi
209 0 209
B 82Pb + –1e  81Tl
209 209 0
C 82Pb  83Bi + –1e
209 209 0
D 82Pb  81Tl + –1e

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reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/O/N/20

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