Inorganic and Physical Chemistry Testbank 2022

GENERAL INORGANIC AND PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
QUESTION BANK CHEMICAL ENGINEERING SERIES

Atoms and the Atomic Theory
1) Atoms retain their identity during a chemical reaction.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
Reference: Section 2-1
2) All matter is composed of atoms.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
3) Atoms combine in small, whole-numbered ratios.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
4) All atoms of a given element are identical.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
5) Different ratios of atoms produce different compounds.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
6) J. J. Thomson suggested the "plum pudding" model of the atom.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
7) Robert Millikan determined the charge on an electron.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
8) The number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of a given atom is called the atomic number.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
9) Isotopes have different atomic number (Z) but the same mass number (A).
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
1
General Inorganic and Physical Chemistry
10) The vertical columns in the periodic table of the elements are called groups.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
11) A 25 g sample of sugar is found to contain 51.4% oxygen by mass. Another 250 g sample of the
same sugar is also 51.4% oxygen by mass. This is consistent with the:
A) law of conservation of mass
B) law of constant composition
C) law of multiple proportions
D) first assumption of Dalton's atomic theory
E) second assumption of Dalton's theory
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
12) When a chemical reaction is carried out in a sealed container, the substances may change in color,
temperature, or state, but no change in mass is detected. This is evidence of the:
A) law of conservation of mass
B) law of constant composition
C) law of definite proportions
D) existence of electrons
E) existence of protons
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
13) When decomposed chemically, 73.0 grams of a sample of HCl produce 71.0 g of Cl 2 and 2.0 g of
H2, while 34.0 g of a sample of H2S produce 32.0 g of S and 2.0 g of H2. This is an example of the
Law:
A) of Conservation of Mass
B) of Multiple Proportions
C) of Definite Proportions
D) E = mc2
E) of Simple Whole Numbers
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
14) Choose the INCORRECT statement from those given below.

A) Atoms retain their identity during a chemical reaction.
B) All matter is composed of atoms.
C) Atoms combine in small, whole-numbered ratios.
D) All atoms of a given element are identical.
E) Different ratios of atoms produce different compounds.
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
2
15) A 0.920-gram sample of magnesium is allowed to burn in 0.321 g of oxygen gas. The sole product
is magnesium oxide. After the reaction, no oxygen remains and 0.809 g of magnesium oxide has been
formed. What mass of magnesium is left unreacted?
A) 0.210 g
B) 0.432 g
C) 1.408 g
D) 0.111 g
E) 0.488 g
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
16) Dalton's atomic theory is based on several assumptions, which are listed below. Which of these
assumptions is strictly correct?
I) All atoms of the same element are identical.
II) Atoms are indivisible and unchangeable.
III) Chemical changes are the result of the combination, separation, and rearrangement of atoms.
A) I, II, and III are correct.
B) I and III are correct.
C) II and III are correct.
D) I and II are correct.
E) III is correct.
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC
17) Choose the INCORRECT statement.

A) The Law of Constant Composition is the Law of Definite Proportions.
B) Objects of like charge repel each other.
C) Electrons were once known as cathode rays.
D) Alpha particles are the same mass as a helium nucleus.
E) Gamma rays are the same as electrons.
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
18) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) Michael Faraday discovered cathode rays.
B) J .J. Thomson suggested the "plum pudding" model of the atom.
C) Robert Millikan determined the charge on an electron.
D) J. J. Thomson determined the charge-to-mass ratio for electrons.
E) Michael Faraday determined that cathode rays were the fundamental negatively charged particles and
called them electrons.
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
3
19) Which of the following would be unaffected by an electric field?
A) alpha particles
B) beta particles
C) gamma rays
D) protons
E) electrons
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
20) Choose the correct statement.

A) Neutrons have no charge and no mass.
B) An electron has 1/1837 the mass of a proton.
C) The atomic number is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
D) The charge of a proton is 1837 times the charge of an electron.
E) Electrons and protons have about the same mass.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
21) Which of the following is a correct feature of the nuclear atom proposed by Rutherford?
A) All atoms of an element have the same mass.
B) The atom is mostly empty space.
C) The number of neutrons and electrons in the atom are equal.
D) The majority of alpha particles to strike the foil "bounced back."
E) It is like the "plum pudding" model.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
22) Beta particles:

A) have a mass of 4 and a charge of +2
B) are like X-rays
C) are repelled by a positively charged plate
D) are electrons
E) have the same mass as a neutron
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
4
23) Ernest Rutherford is credited with:
I) the nuclear model of the atom
II) the identification of alpha and beta particles
III) the discovery of protons
IV) the prediction of a third, neutral, subatomic particle
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) I, II, III
D) II, III, IV
E) I, II, III, IV
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) Gamma rays are bent by magnetic fields as a ray of positive charges.
B) Protons and neutrons are found in the nucleus.
C) Protons and neutrons are close to the same mass.
D) The atomic number is the proton number.
E) The mass number is the number of protons plus neutrons.
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
25) What is the mass number of the most abundant form of oxygen atom?
A) 15.9994
B) 8
C) 16
D) 24
E) 32
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
26) Which of these atoms has the greatest number of neutrons in its nucleus?
A) 56
25 Mn
B) 57
27 Co
55 Fe
C) 27
D) 56
28 Ni
28Si
E) 14
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
5
27) Choose the information a mass spectrometer is unable to provide.
A) the relative abundance of two isotopes of potassium
B) the number of protons in potassium
C) the atomic mass of a single isotope of potassium
D) the mass of a proton
E) the number of stable isotopes of potassium
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
28) A species that differs in charge from another atom of the same element:
I) is called an isotope
II) has more or less neutrons
III) has lost or gained electrons
IV) is called an ion
V) has the same number of protons
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and IV
D) III and IV
E) III, IV, V
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC
29) Which of the following statements is true concerning the masses of individual Cl atoms?
A) All atoms have a mass of 35.45 u.
B) Most of the atoms have a mass of 35.45 u.
C) Some of the atoms have a mass of 35.45 u.
D) None of the atoms have a mass of 35.45 u.
E) All atoms have a mass of 17 u.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
30) A hypothetical element, E, has two stable isotopes:

E-46 = 46.046 u 64.08% E-51 = 50.826 u 35.92%
What is the average atom weight of the element?
A) 47.76 u
B) 48.44 u
C) 49.11 u
D) 48.50 u
E) 47.44 u
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
6
31) A hypothetical element, E, has two stable isotopes.
E-38 = 38.012 u 75.68%
E-46 = 45.981 u 24.32%
The element's atomic mass would be closest to which of the elements?
A) K
B) Ar
C) Ca
D) Sc
E) Cl
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
32) The atomic weight of chlorine is very close to 35.5. This means that:
A) chlorine occurs with a variable number of protons
B) a variable number of electrons gives the fractional weight
C) on the average, an atom of chlorine weighs almost 3 times as much as carbon
D) the actual weight of a chlorine atom is not known very precisely
E) chlorine atoms contain half of a proton
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
33) An element has 5 stable isotopes. The mass and percentage of each are:
69.9243 20.52%
71.9217 27.43%
72.9234 7.76%
73.9219 36.54%
75.9214 7.76%
The element is which of the following?
A) As
B) Se
C) Ge
D) Ga
E) Zn
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC
7
34) An element has 5 stable isotopes. The mass and percentage of each are:
89.9043 51.46%
90.9053 11.23%
91.9046 17.11%
93.9061 17.40%
95.9082 2.80%
The element is which of the following?
A) Nb
B) Y
C) Sr
D) Zr
E) Rb
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC
35) Which statement below is true?

A) Metals gain electrons to have a positive charge.
B) Metals gain electrons to have a negative charge.
C) Metals lose electrons to have a positive charge.
D) Nonmetals lose electrons.
E) Transition metals can gain 2 or more electrons to become metal ions.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
36) Groups, or families, on the periodic table are:

A) vertical columns of elements with similar properties
B) horizontal rows of elements with increasing atomic numbers
C) named for the first elements in the series; such as "actinides"
D) extremely reactive with each other
E) elements that all occur naturally in the same state
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
37) Which of the following is a metalloid?

A) mercury
B) selenium
C) bismuth
D) radium
E) calcium
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
8
38) What is the mass in grams of 1 atom of sulfur (atomic mass = 32.066)?
A) 1.661 × 10-24 g
B) 1.931 × 10-25 g
C) 5.325 × 10-23 g
D) 5.179 × 10-26 g
E) 5.989 × 10-23 g
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
39) 31.0 grams of the element phosphorus contain:

A) 6.02 × 1023 P4 molecules
B) 31.0 × (6.02 × 1023) P atoms
C) 6.02 × 1023 P atoms
D) 31.0 P atoms
E) 31.0 moles of P
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
40) How many arsenic atoms are in 5.21 g of arsenic?

A) 0.0695 atoms
B) 9.51 × 1022 atoms
C) 3.14 × 1024 atoms
D) 2.10 × 1022 atoms
E) 4.19 × 1022 atoms
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
41) A cubic centimeter of lead weighs 11.35 g. How many atoms are in the block?
A) 6.8 × 1024 atoms
B) 2.4 × 1023 atoms
C) 3.3 × 1022 atoms
D) 5.3 × 1022 atoms
E) 1.1 × 1025 atoms
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
9
42) How many moles are represented by 2.5 × 1015 Na atoms?
A) 3.8 × 10-10 mol
B) 1.8 × 10-10 mol
C) 1.5 × 1039 mol
D) 4.2 × 10-9 mol
E) 1.1 × 1014 mol
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
43) The natural abundance of calcium in the earth's crust is 3.4% by mass. How many calcium atoms are
present in a 1.50 g sample of the earth's crust?
A) 6.6 × 1023 atoms
B) 3.1 × 1022 atoms
C) 7.7 × 1020 atoms
D) 7.7 × 1022 atoms
E) 5.1 × 1020 atoms
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
44) 57.7 g Ni contains how many atoms?

A) 6.13 × 1023 atoms
B) 3.47 × 1023 atoms
C) 5.92 × 1023 atoms
D) 1.24 × 1024 atoms
E) 0.983 atoms
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
45) How many atoms of silicon are contained in 8.50 × 10-5 grams?
A) 1.44 × 1023 atoms
B) 1.82 × 1018 atoms
C) 5.02 × 1030 atoms
D) 5.02 × 1018 atoms
E) 1.82 × 1020 atoms
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
10
46) If the density of lead is 11.34 g/cm3, how many atoms are in a piece of lead that is 2.00 cm wide,
1.00 m long, and 2.00 mm thick?
A) 1.32 × 1024 atoms
B) 1.16 × 1023 atoms
C) 1.32 × 1023 atoms
D) 1.16 × 1022 atoms
E) 6.60 × 1023 atoms
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
47) How many atoms of rubidium-85 are in 87.2 g of rubidium? Rubidium-85 is 72.2 % abundant.
A) 5.16 × 1046 atoms
B) 4.44 × 1023 atoms
C) 8.51 × 1023 atoms
D) 6.14 × 1022 atoms
E) 1.02 × 1024 atoms
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
48) How many atoms of hydrogen are present in 1.5 lb of hydrogen peroxide, which is 5.93% hydrogen?
(1 lb = 454 grams)
A) 2.4 × 1025 atoms
B) 1.21 × 1025 atoms
C) 1.2 × 1025 atoms
D) 2.41 × 1025 atoms
E) 1.2 × 1020 atoms
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
49) How many atoms of sulfur are in 280 g of a 50% by mass H2SO4 solution?
A) 8.6 × 1025 atoms
B) 8.6 × 1023 atoms
C) 8.0 × 1025 atoms
D) 8.0 × 1023 atoms
E) 2.8 × 1029 atoms
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
11
50) How many Cu atoms are present in a 75.0 cm length of 20-gauge copper wire? A 20-gauge wire has
a diameter of 0.03196 in. Copper's density is 8.92 g/cm3.
A) 1.31 × 1021
B) 3.28 × 1022
C) 8.08 × 1021
D) 1.04 × 1022
E) 2.08 × 1022
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
51) How many atoms of lead are required to cover a 33.0 cm by 45.0 cm area with a sheet of lead that is
0.140 mm thick? The density of lead is 11.35 g/cm3.
A) 6.86 × 1023
B) 2.29 × 1026
C) 2.29 × 1025
D) 6.86 × 1022
E) 1.42 × 1026
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
52) A 3.214 g sample of magnesium reacts with 8.416 g of bromine. The only product is magnesium
bromide. If 1.934 g of magnesium is left unreacted, how much magnesium bromide is formed?
A) 1.280 g
B) 5.202 g
C) 9.696 g
D) 7.136 g
E) 3.268 g
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
53) What mass of magnesium is necessary to make 10.5 g of magnesium bromide if 1.04 g of
magnesium makes 7.88 g of magnesium bromide?
A) 1.39 g
B) 79.9 g
C) 1.58 g
D) 3.66 g
E) 7.89 g
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
12
54) A sample of pure carbon weighing 1.48 g was burned in an excess of air. The mass of carbon
dioxide, the sole product, was 5.42 g. In a second experiment, 11.62 g of carbon dioxide was obtained.
What mass of carbon was burned in the second experiment?
A) 42.6 g
B) 3.17 g
C) 3.54 g
D) 0.866 g
E) 11.6 g
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
55) A 1.4 g sample of calcium is reacted with 3.2 g of oxygen. The only product after the reaction is
1.96 g of CaO. How many grams of oxygen remains unreacted?
A) 0.56 g
B) 0.224 g
C) 2.64 g
D) 0.264 g
E) 0.203 g
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
56) A certain mass of nickel reacts with sulphur to produce 2.83 g of NiS. The same mass of nickel
reacts completely with 0.5 g of oxygen to produce 2.33 g of NiO. How many grams of sulfur reacted in
the first reaction?
A) 0.5 g
B) 1 g
C) 1.5 g
D) 10-1 g
E) 1.25 g
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
57) Write the symbol for the radioactive isotope phosphorus-32.

A) 32
15 P
15 Ge
B) 32
C) 15
15 P
D) 17
15 P
E) 32
32 Ge
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
13
58) The total number of neutrons in an 192Ir2+ cation is ________.
A) 115
B) 77
C) 192
D) 75
E) 269
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
59) With mass spectral data the ratio of the mass of 14N/12C was found to be 1.167. What is the mass of
the 14N atom?
A) 14.017 u
B) 10.292 u
C) 14.004 u
D) 17.000 u
E) 14.007 u
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
60) Which is the proper chemical symbol for tungsten?

A) Te
B) Ti
C) Tm
D) W
E) Tc
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
61) The total numbers of neutrons, protons, and electrons in 31P3- are:
A) 15 neutrons, 31 protons, 15 electrons
B) 16 neutrons, 15 protons, 18 electrons
C) 31 neutrons, 15 protons, 18 electrons
D) 15 neutrons, 16 protons, 12 electrons
E) 16 neutrons, 16 protons, 18 electrons
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
14
62) The total numbers of neutrons, protons, and electrons in 35Cl- are ________.
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
63) The total numbers of neutrons, protons, and electrons in 138Ba2+ are ________.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
64) A cation has 13 neutrons and 10 electrons. If it has a charge of +1, what is its correct symbol?
A) 13
11 Na
+
B) 24
11 Na
+
C) 26
13 Al
+
23 Ne+
D) 10
13 Na +
E) 10
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
65) A cation has 28 neutrons and 21 electrons. If it has a +3 charge, what is its correct symbol?
A) 24
28 Ni
3+
B) 28
21Sc
3+
28 Cr3+
C) 24
D) 52
24 Cr
3+
E) 49
21Sc
3+
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
15
66) An anion has 45 neutrons and 36 electrons. If it has a -1 charge, what is its correct symbol?
45 Br -
A) 32
B) 80
35 Br
-
C) 90
45 Rh
-
81Kr -
D) 36
E) 80
45 Br
-
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
67) How many protons, neutrons, and electrons are in 24 2+

12 Mg ?
A) 12 protons, 10 electrons, 12 neutrons
B) 12 protons, 12 electrons, 12 neutrons
C) 12 protons, 12 electrons, 24 neutrons
D) 24 protons, 10 electrons, 12 neutrons
E) 10 protons, 12 electrons, 24 neutrons
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
68) Write the appropriate symbol for the species containing 18 neutrons, 17 protons, and 16 electrons.
A) 18
35 Cl
+
B) 35
18 Ar
+
18 Ar +
C) 17
D) 34
35 Br
+
35 Cl+
E) 17
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
16
69) What is the proper ZA E notation for an ion having 35 protons, 36 electrons and 45 neutrons?
A) 45
35 Br
+
B) 80
35 Br
-
C) 80
45 Br
+
D) 45
35 Br
-
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
70) Write the symbol for the most common ion formed by sulfur.
A) S-1
B) S-2
C) S+1
D) S+2
E) requires experimental data
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
71) An isotope with mass number 81 has eleven more neutrons than protons. This is an isotope of what
element?
A) Tl
B) Yb
C) Zr
D) Br
E) Nb
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
72) The following ratios of masses were obtained with a mass spectrometer:
35 19 19 12
17 Cl / 9 F = 1.8406, 9 F / 6 C = 1.5832
35 Cl atom in atomic mass units?
What is the mass of a 17
A) 35.45 u
B) 36.36 u
C) 13.95 u
D) 35.00 u
E) 34.97 u
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
17
73) Copper occurs in an isotopic mixture of 69.09% 63Cu (mass = 62.93 u per atom) and 30.91% 65Cu
(mass = 64.93 u per atom). What is the average atomic mass of copper?
A) 64.00 u
B) 63.55 u
C) 63.45 u
D) 64.31 u
E) 29.00 u
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
74) There are two stable isotopes of supposium (Su).

Su-191 = 190.9609 u (27.30%) Su-194 = 193.9633 u (72.70%)
Compute the atomic mass of supposium.
A) 190.9 u
B) 194.0 u
C) 191.8 u
D) 192.5 u
E) 193.1 u
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
75) Which is the more abundant isotope, Cl-35 or Cl-37?

A) The two isotopes are equal in abundance.
B) Cl-37
C) Cl-35
D) A third unstable isotope is more abundant.
E) Cl-17
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
76) A new element is discovered. It has two isotopes. The relative abundance of the isotopes and their
masses are 18% isotope 1, mass 350.0 u and 82% isotope 2, mass 352.0 u. What is the atomic mass of
the element?
A) 351.6
B) 351.0
C) 350.4
D) 352.0
E) 350.0
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
18
77) Rubidium possesses two stable forms and has an average mass of 85.5.
85Rb has a mass of 84.9 and a percent abundance of 72.2%. What is the mass of the other form of Rb?
A) 86.1 u
B) 85.7 u
C) 88.3 u
D) 87.1 u
E) 89.4 u
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
78) The three naturally occurring isotopes of magnesium are 24Mg (23.985042 u, 78.99%), 25Mg
(24.985837, 10.00%), and 26Mg. What is the atomic mass of 26Mg?
A) 25.98 u
B) 48.67 u
C) 23.94 u
D) 26.43 u
E) 24.31 u
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
79) The average atomic mass of B is 10.80 u. Boron has only two stable forms 105 B (10.00 u) and
11B (11.00 u). What is the natural percent abundance of 11B ?
5 5
A) 80%
B) 20%
C) 1.0%
D) 3.8%
E) 75%
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
80) Silver possesses two stable isotopes: 107Ag (106.90 u) and 109Ag (108.90 u). If the average atomic
mass of Ag is 107.87 u, what is the percent abundance of 107Ag?
A) 48.5%
B) 50.0%
C) 51.5%
D) 46.3%
E) 53.8%
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
19
81) A certain element contains eleven atoms of mass 95.952 u for every four atoms of mass 98.949 u.
Compute the average atomic weight of this element.
A) 97.451 u
B) 96.754 u
C) 98.150 u
D) 105.16 u
E) 96.952 u
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
82) Calculate the percent abundance of the two isotopes of a fictional element, georgium, if it has an
average atomic mass of 291.23 u.
Go-290 289.86 u
Go-292 292.07 u
A) Go-290, 38% and Go-292, 62%
B) Go-290, 62% and Go-292, 38%
C) Go-290, 42% and Go-292, 58%
D) Go-290, 58% and Go-292, 42%
E) cannot be determined
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
83) Magnesium has 3 stable isotopes with masses of 23.98504, 24.98584, and 25.98259 respectively.
Mg-25 is 10.13%. What are the percentages of the other two isotopes?
A) 78.9% and 10.9%
B) 50% and 50%
C) 44.9% and 44.9%
D) 83.6% and 16.4%
E) 78.9% and 21.1%
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
84) Lead has 4 stable isotopes with masses of 203.973 (1.48%), 205.9745 (23.6%), 206.9759, and
207.9766 respectively. What are the percentages of the last two isotopes?
A) 77% and 23%
B) 50% and 50%
C) 37% and 38%
D) 64% and 11%
E) 24% and 50%
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
20
85) Iodine is a member of the family called ________.
A) metals
B) metalloids
C) noble gasses
D) halogens
E) actinides
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
86) Sodium is a member of the family called ________.

A) alkali metals
B) earth alkali metals
C) metalloids
D) actinide metals
E) transition metals
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
87) Main group elements are those in groups ________.

A) 1 and 2
B) 1, 2, and 13 to 18
C) 13 to 18
D) 1 and 18
E) 3 to 12
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
88) What is the average mass in kilograms of one atom of arsenic?

A) 74.922 kg
B) 0.074922 kg
C) 5.48 × 10-23 kg
D) 1.24 × 10-25 kg
E) 1.24 × 10-22 kg
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
21
89) What is the mass of a sample containing 1.2 moles of Ni?
A) 49 g
B) 59 g
C) 34 g
D) 61 g
E) 70 g
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
90) How many moles of Fe is present in 1.2 grams of Fe?

A) 2.15 × 10-2 mol
B) 0.215 mol
C) 4.30 × 10-2 mol
D) 2.15 × 10-1 mol
E) 0.430 mol
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
91) 24.9 g of Mn is equivalent to how many moles of Mn?

A) 2.21 moles
B) 0.453 moles
C) 0.461 moles
D) 0.996 moles
E) 1.00 mole
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
92) How many moles of lead are present in a piece of lead with a volume of 0.600 cm 3? The density of
Pb is 11.34 g/cm3.
A) 6.80
B) 0.0328
C) 11.0
D) 0.547
E) 0.0912
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
22
93) What is the density (g/cm3) of tin if 4.56 × 1020 atoms make a cube 2.31 mm on each side?
A) 0.00729
B) 169
C) 3.28
D) 0.0142
E) 7.29
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
94) What is the isotopic atomic mass of an isotope if 9.7023 × 1022 atoms weighs 4.0256 g?
A) 0.64858
B) 24.305
C) 24.986
D) 13.728
E) 4.0256
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
95) What is the atomic weight of an element if 4.00 grams of it contain 2.98 × 10 22 atoms?
A) 20.2 u
B) 80.8 u
C) 19.7 u
D) 8.08 u
E) 2.02 u
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
96) A solution contains 12.5% NaCl by mass. What mass of solution is required to obtain 1.0 × 10 23 Na
atoms?
A) 0.013 g
B) 30 g
C) 1.2 g
D) 95 g
E) 78 g
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
23
97) A lead cube that is 3.00 cm on each side contains 8.91 × 10 23 atoms. What is the density of this
cube in g/cm3?
A) 34.1
B) 11.4
C) 0.0550
D) 0.990
E) 26.7
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
98) Lead-204 has a relative abundance of 1.48%. What size block of lead (in cubic centimeters) will
contain 8.34 × 1021 atoms of lead-204? The density of lead is 11.35 g/cm3.
A) 3.75 × 10-3
B) 0.253
C) 194
D) 17.1
E) 16.8
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
99) Lead-206 has a relative abundance of 23.6%. What size block of lead (in cubic centimeters) will
contain 8.34 × 1021 atoms of lead-206? The density of lead is 11.35 g/cm3.
A) 0.0107
B) 0.253
C) 1.07
D) 0.330
E) 12.1
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
100) What is the thickness in mm of the sheet 75.0 cm × 35.0 cm formed by 7.88 × 10 23 atoms of lead?
The density of lead is 11.35 g/cm3.
A) 9.10
B) 0.0910
C) 1.88 × 104
D) 0.273
E) 2.73
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
24
Quantum Mechanics and Electrons in Atoms
1) The symbol "n" in the Bohr theory of atomic structure refers to the number of electrons in a shell.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
2) The symbol "n" in the Bohr theory of atomic structure refers to the shell or orbit in which an electron
is found.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
3) The Bohr theory explains that an emission spectral line is due to an interaction between electrons in
atoms.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
4) The Bohr theory explains that an emission spectral line is due to an electron losing energy and
changing shells.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
5) The Bohr theory explains that an emission spectral line is due to an electron losing energy but
keeping the same values of its four quantum numbers.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
6) When an electron goes from a high energy state to a low one, another electron goes from a low
energy state to a high one.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
7) When an electron in an atom goes from a high energy state to a low one, light is given off.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
8) Four of the 3d orbitals are alike except for the orientation with respect to the axes.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
25
9) The order of subshells of increasing energy in a multiple-electron atom is 4f, 5d, 6s, 6p.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
10) The order of subshells of increasing energy in a multiple-electron atom is 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
11) Light passing through a transparent medium has a wavelength of 466 nm and a frequency of 6.20 ×
1014 s-1. What is the speed of the light in the medium?
A) 2.89 × 108 m/s
B) 2.89 × 1017 m/s
C) 1.33 × 1012 m/s
D) 1.33 × 1021 m/s
E) 7.52 × 10-22 m/s
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
12) What is the frequency of radiation with a wavelength of 440. nm?

A) 6.81 × 1014 s-1
B) 6.81 × 105 s-1
C) 1.51 × 10-27 s-1
D) 4.95 × 10-12 s-1
E) 2.02 × 10-11 s-1
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
13) What is the frequency associated with radiation of 4.59 × 10-8 cm wavelength?
A) 6.54 × 1017 s-1
B) 6.54 × 1015 s-1
C) 1.53 × 10-8 s-1
D) 13.8 s-1
E) 2.18 × 107 s-1
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
26
14) What is the wavelength in nm associated with radiation of frequency 2.8 × 1013 s-1?
A) 840 nm
B) 2.8 × 104 nm
C) 299 nm
D) 9.3 × 104 nm
E) 1.1 × 104 nm
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
15) Frequency and wavelength are related by the equation:

A) λ = c ∙ v
B) λ = c/v
C) v = λ/c
D) λ = v/c
E) c = λ/v
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
16) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning electromagnetic radiation.

A) Infrared light has a longer wavelength than ultraviolet light.
B) The greater the frequency of the electromagnetic radiation, the greater the energy of the radiation.
C) A photon with a wavelength of 5000 Angstroms has one-half as much energy as a photon with a
wavelength of 2500 Angstroms.
D) The speed of ultraviolet light rays is faster than X-rays in a vacuum.
E) Electromagnetic radiation is energy transmission in which electric and magnetic fields are propagated
as waves.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
17) The relationship between the frequency of light and the energy of the light was postulated by:
A) Max Planck
B) Johann Balmer
C) Johannes Rydberg
D) Albert Einstein
E) Robert Bunsen
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
27
18) A radiation detector exposed to sunlight records the energy falling on a given area each unit time. If
such a detector has a reading of 0.698 cal cm-2 min-1, how many photons of sunlight are striking each
cm2 in one minute? Assume the average wavelength of sunlight is 460. nm. (4.184 J = 1 calorie)
A) 1.62 × 1018 photons
B) 4.32 × 1019 photons
C) 6.76 × 1018 photons
D) 2.31 × 1018 photons
E) 9.63 × 1019 photons
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
19) A radiation detector exposed to sunlight records the energy falling on a given area each unit time. If
such a detector has a reading of 0.430 cal cm-2 min-1, how many photons of sunlight are striking each
cm2 in one minute? Assume the average wavelength of sunlight is 460. nm. (4.184 J = 1 calorie)
A) 2.02 × 107 photons
B) 8.46 × 107 photons
C) 4.17 × 1018 photons
D) 1.02 × 1027 photons
E) 4.25 × 1027 photons
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
20) Use Planck's equation to determine the energy, in J/photon, of radiation of frequency 5.8 × 1015 s-1.
A) 3.8 × 10-18 J
B) 1.7 × 1024 J
C) 5.8 × 10-25 J
D) 1.7 × 10-16 J
E) 5.2 × 10-8 J
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
21) Calculate the energy in kJ/mol of light with a wavelength of 360 nm.
A) 5.52 × 10-22 kJ/mol
B) 5.52 × 10-19 kJ/mol
C) 332 kJ/mol
D) 6.63 × 103 kJ/mol
E) 0.332 kJ/mol
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
28
22) How many photons of light with frequency 5.50 × 1015 Hz are required to provide 1 kJ of energy?
A) 3.64 × 10-18 photons
B) 2.74 × 1020 photons
C) 4.56 × 10-4 photons
D) 1.65 × 1044 photons
E) 3.64 × 10-16 photons
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
23) The existence of discrete (quantized) energy levels in an atom may be inferred from:
A) diffraction of electrons by crystals
B) X-ray diffraction by crystals
C) atomic line spectra
D) experiments on the photoelectric effect
E) visible spectrum
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
24) The photoelectric effect:

A) was discovered by Max Planck
B) describes the phenomenon of producing light by shining a beam of electrons by on any metal surface
C) contradicted the view that light energy was dependent upon intensity only
D) is not the same principle used in modern electric eyes and solar calculators
E) results in a beam of electrons which increases in number, but not velocity, as the wavelength of
incident light decreases
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
25) The mathematical equation deduced by Johann Balmer and subsequently rewritten in another form
by Johannes Rydberg gives us:
A) the relationship between wavelengths of spectral lines and the electrons' energies responsible for
them
B) the relationship between wavelength and frequency of spectral lines
C) the relationship between frequencies of spectral lines and the energy values associated with them
D) a model for finding the limited numbers of wavelengths associated with atomic spectral lines
E) an explanation for the continuous range of energy values associated with atomic spectra
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC
29
26) The symbol "n" in the Bohr theory of atomic structure refers to:
A) the energy of the electrons.
B) the total energy of the atom.
C) the number of electrons in a shell.
D) the shell in which an electron is found.
E) the number of orbits in an atom.
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
27) For the Bohr hydrogen atom determine the energy level corresponding to n = 3.
A) 7.26 × 10-19 J
B) 7.36 × 10-35 J
C) -2.42 × 10-19 J
D) 3.33 × 107 J
E) 1.96 × 10-17 J
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
28) What is the energy in joules of the 656 nm spectral line of hydrogen?
A) 4.35 × 10-31 J
B) 3.03 × 10-19 J
C) 1.30 × 10-22 J
D) 3.03 × 10-28 J
E) 1.45 × 10-48 J
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
29) What is the energy in joules of the 434 nm spectral line of hydrogen?
A) 1.53 × 10-27 J
B) 4.58 × 10-28 J
C) 1.04 × 1048 J
D) 4.58 × 10-19 J
E) 9.59 × 10-49 J
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
30
30) What is the energy in joules of a mole of photons with the energy of the 434 nm spectral line of
hydrogen?
A) 2.76 × 105 J
B) 9.21 × 10-4 J
C) 2.76 × 10-4 J
D) 5.78 × 10-25 J
E) 434 J
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
31) The Bohr theory explains that an emission spectral line is:
A) due to an electron losing energy but keeping the same values of its four quantum numbers
B) due to an electron losing energy and changing shells
C) due to an interaction between electrons in two different principal shells
D) due to an electron gaining energy and changing shells
E) due to an increase in the principal quantum number n of an electron
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
32) When an electron in an atom goes from a high energy state to a low one, what occurs?
A) Another electron goes from a low energy state to a high one.
B) The atom moves faster.
C) Light is given off.
D) This process is not possible.
E) Light is absorbed.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
33) Calculate the wavelength in meters of light absorbed by an electron in an atom of hydrogen as it
moves from n = 3 to n = 6.
A) 1.09 × 10-6 m
B) 8.22 × 10-7 m
C) 3.28 × 10-6 m
D) 1.83 × 10-7 m
E) 1.65 × 10-11 m
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
31
34) The fact that we cannot simultaneously measure the exact position and precise momentum of an
electron is referred to as:
A) Pauli Exclusion Principle
B) The Aufbau Principle
C) Hund's Rule
D) The DeBroglie Relationship
E) Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
35) What is the wavelength associated with electrons traveling at one one-hundredth the speed of light?
A) 243 nm
B) 0.243 nm
C) 412 nm
D) 7.98 × 10-2 nm
E) 12.5 nm
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
36) What is the wavelength of a ball that is 25.0 g traveling at 40.2 m/s?
A) 6.59 × 10-37 m
B) 6.59 × 10-34 m
C) 1.07 × 10-30 m
D) 4.12 × 10-37 m
E) 2.42 × 10-11 m
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
37) What is the wavelength of a bullet that is 0.450 g traveling at 2000. m/s?
A) 2000. m
B) 2.94 × 10-24 m
C) 7.36 × 10-34 m
D) 7.36 × 10-37 m
E) 1.49 × 10-40 m
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
32
38) Calculate the deBroglie wavelength of a ball of mass 125 grams and velocity 90 m/s.
A) 0.59 m
B) 5.9 × 10-31 m
C) 5.9 × 10-35 m
D) 590 m
E) 1.7 × 1034 m
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
39) What is the wavelength, in nm, associated with a 2000. kg truck traveling at a speed of 20 m/s, that
is, considering the truck to be a "matter" wave?
A) 1.33 × 10-29 nm
B) 2.65 × 10-29 nm
C) 6.02 × 10-29 nm
D) 7.50 × 103 nm
E) 1.66 × 10-29 nm
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
40) Which statement regarding the wave function as suggested by Erwin Schrodinger is INCORRECT?
A) It has fluctuating values at all points on the curve.
B) It is a mathematical equation.
C) It is denoted by psi (Ψ).
D) It can describe any particle with wavelike motions.
E) It corresponds to a standing wave within the boundary of the system.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
41) Which statement about the zero-point energy is INCORRECT?

A) It is the lowest energy value of a particle.
B) It's value can be zero.
C) Because the zero-point energy is not zero, the particle cannot be at rest.
D) Zero-point energy corresponds to n = 1.
E) The zero-point energy is an allowable value of the energy of the particle.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
33
42) An atomic orbital represents:
A) the shape of an atom
B) the repulsion of all the electrons among themselves
C) a fixed path that an electron follows around the nucleus of an atom
D) the region of electron density for a covalent bond
E) the region of high probability for an electron around the nucleus of an atom
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
43) An orbital:
I) describes a region of high electron density.
II) describes a region in an atom where an electron is likely to be found.
III) is a wave function resulting from specific values assigned to quantum numbers in wave equations.
IV) describes a spherical region around a nucleus where an electron can be found.
A) II only
B) I and II
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
E) I, II, III, and IV
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
44) Which of the following is not possible?

A) 2p
B) 4d
C) 5p
D) 3f
E) 2s
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
45) The possible values of the orbital angular momentum quantum number of a 3p electron are:
A) +1/2, -1/2
B) -1, 0, +1
C) -1
D) 0
E) 1
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
34
46) The possible values of the magnetic quantum number, mℓ , of a 3p electron are:
A) 0, 1, 2
B) 2, 1, 0, -1, -2
C) 0
D) -1, 0, +1
E) +1, -1
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
47) Give the appropriate values of n and ℓ for the orbital designation 3p.
A) n = 3, ℓ = 0
B) n = 1, ℓ = 3
C) n = 3, ℓ = 3
D) n = 3, ℓ = 1
E) n = 3, ℓ = 2
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
48) Give the appropriate values of n and ℓ for the orbital designation 3s.
A) n = 3, ℓ = 1
B) n = 0, ℓ = 3
C) n = 3, ℓ = 3
D) n = 3, ℓ = 2
E) n = 3, ℓ = 0
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
49) What is the smallest acceptable value for the missing quantum number?
n = ?, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2
A) 3
B) 2
C) 4
D) 5
E) 1
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
35
50) What is the orbital designation for the quantum numbers n = 2, ℓ = 1?
A) 3s
B) 2s
C) 2d
D) 2p
E) 3p
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
51) Which of the following orbitals have their lobes aligned along the y axis?
I) dxy
II) dx2-y2
III) py
IV) dyz
A) II and III
B) I and IV
C) I and II
D) II and IV
E) I and III
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
52) All of the terms below are quantum numbers EXCEPT:

A) principal
B) magnetic
C) spin
D) valence
E) orbital angular momentum
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
53) Which of the following statements concerning quantum numbers is NOT correct?
A) "n" relates the most probable distance from the nucleus.
B) "l" denotes geometric shape.
C) "m" denotes orientation of an orbital with respect to the others.
D) The fourth quantum number refers to electron spin.
E) The four quantum numbers are derived from wave mechanics.
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
36
54) In a hydrogen atom, orbitals with the same energy:
I) extend the same distance from the nucleus.
II) have the same principle quantum number, n.
III) are referred to as iso-electronic.
IV) are referred to as degenerate.
V) are represented by 1s and 2s orbitals.
A) I, III, IV
B) I, II, IV
C) I, IV, V
D) I, II, III
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
55) Which one of the following set of quantum numbers would not be allowed?
A) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 1
B) n = 3, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0
C) n = 3, ℓ = 3, mℓ = 1
D) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = -1
E) n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = -1
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
56) Which of the following orbitals have lobes aligned along the x axis?
A) dxy
B) dx2-y2
C) dxz
D) dyz
E) s
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
57) Which two orbitals are located between the axes of a coordinate system and not along the axes?
A) dxy, py
B) dyz, px
C) dx2-y2, pz
D) dxy, dz2
E) dxy, dyz
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
37
58) Which of the following statements about orbital shapes is NOT true?
A) A 1s orbital is spherical.
B) 2p orbitals have a node at r = 0.
C) There are only two 2p orbitals, each directed along and x or y axis.
D) There are 5 3d orbitals.
E) Four of the 3d orbitals are alike except for the orientation with respect to the axes.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
59) Which of the following statements about the electron spin quantum number is FALSE?
A) ms denotes the spin quantum number.
B) The value of the spin quantum number can be +1/2 or -1/2.
C) The value of the spin quantum number does not depend on other quantum numbers.
D) The value of the spin quantum number can be indicated by arrows to the right and to the left.
E) The spin quantum number is an indication that electrons generate a magnetic field.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
60) Which of the following statements about electron spin is FALSE?

A) An electron produces a magnetic field.
B) The electron's magnetic field can be oriented in two directions in the presence of an external
magnetic field.
C) Paired electrons produced no net magnetic field.
D) An experiment with silver atoms passing through a magnetic field seems to prove that electron spin
exists.
E) Electron spin only exists when mℓ = 0.
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
61) Experimental evidence for electron spin:

A) has not yet been found
B) was provided by Uhlenbeck and Goudsmit in 1925
C) came as the result of an experiment with vaporized silver atoms, which was originally designed for
another purpose
D) is provided each time we make mirror-image molecules, called left and right-handed isomers
E) is not needed because the concept is only for our convenience
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
38
62) What is an acceptable value for the missing quantum number?
n = 4, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 0, ms = ?
A) 0
B) 1/2
C) 1
D) 2
E) 3/2
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
63) Which series of subshells is arranged in order of increasing energy in a multiple-electron atom?
A) 5d, 4f, 6s, 6p
B) 4f, 6s, 5d, 6p
C) 4f, 5d, 6s, 6p
D) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p
E) 6s, 6p, 5d, 4s
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
64) "One places electrons into orbitals one by one from low energy to high energy" is one way of stating
the:
A) Aufbau principle
B) Hund's Rule
C) Heisenberg Principle
D) Pauli Exclusion Principle
E) Rydberg's Principle
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
65) The principle that is based on electrons attempting to be as far apart as possible is the:
A) Heisenberg Principle
B) Exclusion Principle
C) Bohr Theory
D) Hund's Rule
E) Aufbau principle
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
39
66) Which of the following subshells is correctly designated?
A) 1p5
B) 3s3
C) 3f2
D) 4d11
E) 2p6
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
67) Exceptions to ________ are represented by chromium and copper in the 4th row of the periodic
table.
A) the Aufbau Principle
B) Hund's Rule
C) the Bohr Theory
D) the Heisenberg Principle
E) the Pauli Exclusion Principle
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
68) Niels Bohr promoted the connection between the periodic table and quantum theory. Which of the
following statements is INCORRECT?
A) The link between the table arrangement and quantum theory is electron configuration.
B) Elements in the same group have similar electron configurations.
C) Elements in the same group have the same number of electrons in the outer shell.
D) Elements in the same group have the same principle quantum number.
E) Elements in the same group have the same number of valence electrons.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
69) The fact that the valence orbital configuration of nitrogen in the ground state is 2s2, 2px12py12pz1
is an illustration of:
A) the Bohr Theory
B) Hund's Rule
C) the Aufbau Principle
D) the Pauli Exclusion Principle
E) the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
40
70) The quantum numbers of the last electron of arsenic could be:
A) n = 4, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 1, ms = 1/2
B) n = 4, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 1, ms = 1/2
C) n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 1, ms = 1/2
D) n = 4, ℓ = 3, mℓ = 1, ms = 1/2
E) n = 4, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 1/2, ms = 0
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
71) The quantum numbers of the last electron of nickel could be:
A) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 0, ms = 1/2
B) n = 4, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 0, ms = 1/2
C) n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0, ms = 1/2
D) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 0, ms = 0
E) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 1/2, ms = 1/2
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
72) Arrange the following in order of increasing ENERGY:

UV radiation, visible radiation, X-rays, and microwaves.
A) X-rays < microwave < UV < visible
B) X-ray < microwave < visible < UV
C) microwave < visible < UV < X-rays
D) visible < UV < X-rays < microwave
E) UV < X-rays < microwave < visible
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
73) A television signal has a wavelength of 10.0 km. What is its frequency in kilohertz?
A) 30.0 kHz
B) 3.00 × 104 kHz
C) 3.00 × 107 kHz
D) 3.33 × 10-7 kHz
E) 3.33 × 10-2 kHz
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
41
74) Use the Balmer equation to determine n for the spectral line of wavelength 656 nm. The constant
for Balmer's equation is 3.2881 × 1015 s-1.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
E) 7
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
75) Use the Balmer equation to determine n for the spectral line of wavelength 434 nm. The constant
for Balmer's equation is 3.2881 × 1015 s-1.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
E) 7
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
76) Use the Balmer equation to determine the wavelength, in nm, of the line in the Balmer series
corresponding to n = 4. The constant for Balmer's equation is 3.2881 × 1015 s-1.
A) 365 nm
B) 45.6 nm
C) 205 nm
D) 486 nm
E) 1459 nm
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
77) What is the wavelength, in nm, of the spectral line resulting from the transition of an electron from n
= 3 to n = 2 in a Bohr hydrogen atom? The constant for Balmer's equation is 3.2881 × 10 15 s-1.
A) 18.3 nm
B) 656 nm
C) 547 nm
D) 152 nm
E) 252 nm
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
42
78) What is the wavelength of the line in the Balmer series of hydrogen corresponding to the transition
from n = 5 to n = 2? The constant for Balmer's equation is 3.2881 × 1015 s-1.
A) 304 nm
B) 30.4 nm
C) 329 nm
D) 535 nm
E) 434 nm
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
79) Calculate the wavelength, in nm, of the first line of the Balmer series. The constant for Balmer's
equation is 3.2881 × 1015 s-1.
A) 18.3 nm
B) 656 nm
C) 547 nm
D) 152 nm
E) 252 nm
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
80) What is the wavelength, in nm, of light with an energy content of 550 kJ/mol?
A) 0.218 nm
B) 0.419 nm
C) 157 nm
D) 218 nm
E) 6579 nm
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
81) Use Planck's equation to determine the wavelength, in nm, of radiation with 200.0 kJ/mol of energy.
A) 167 nm
B) 598 nm
C) 5.98 × 105 nm
D) 1.67 × 105 nm
E) 242 nm
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
43
82) What is the energy in joules of a mole of photons with the energy of the 656 nm spectral line of
hydrogen?
A) 2.62 × 10-7 J
B) 78.3 J
C) 3.03 J
D) 8.73 × 10-25 J
E) 1.82 × 105 J
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
83) To what uncertainty, in pm, can the position of an electron traveling at 1.89 × 10 5 m/s be measured
if the uncertainty of the speed is 2.00%?
A) 765
B) 654
C) 8.33 × 104
D) 1.53 × 105
E) 1.53 × 104
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
84) What is the total number of orbitals possible for n = 3?

A) 9
B) 6
C) 5
D) 3
E) 11
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
85) Chlorine (atomic number = 17) has the electronic configuration: ________.
A) 1s22s22p63s23d5
B) 1s22s22p62d53s2
C) 1s22s22p63s23p5
D) 1s22s22d103s2
E) 1s22s22p62d63s1
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
44
86) The ground state electron configuration of Sc is ________.
A) 1s22s22p62d103s1
B) 1s21p62s22p63d5
C) 1s22s22p63s23p63d3
D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d1
E) 1s22s22p63s23p64s24p1
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
87) The ground state electron configuration of phosphorus is ________.

A) 1s22s22p43p63d1
B) [Ar] 3s23p3
C) 1s22s22p63s23p3
D) 1s22s22p63s43p1
E) 1s22s22p63s22d3
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
88) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d3 is the ground state electronic configuration of ________.

A) scandium
B) niobium
C) chromium
D) vanadium
E) molybdenum
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
89) [Kr]5s24d105p5 is the ground state electronic configuration of ________.

A) Te
B) I
C) Br
D) At
E) S
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
45
90) Use the basic rules for electron configuration to indicate the number of unpaired electrons in
phosphorus.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 3
D) 5
E) 2
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
91) How many unpaired electrons are in the ground state electron configuration of chromium?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 4
D) 2
E) 0
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
92) How many unpaired electrons are in the ground state electron configuration of calcium?
A) 5
B) 2
C) 0
D) 1
E) 3
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
93) The correct electron configuration for Br - is ________.

A) [Br] 3d104s24p6
B) [Ar] 3d104s24p6
C) [Br] 4s23d104p5
D) [Ar] 3d104s24p5
E) [Ne] 3d104s24p6
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
46
94) The ground state electron configuration for antimony is ________.
A) [Kr] 5s25d105p3
B) [Kr] 4s24d105p3
C) [Xe] 5s24d105p2
D) [Kr] 4d105s25p3
E) [Xe] 5s25d105p3
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
95) Use the spdf notation to write out the complete electron configuration of Br.
A) [Ar] 3d104s24p5
B) [Kr] 3d104s24p4
C) [Ar] 3d94s24p6
D) [Ar] 3d104p65s2
E) [Ar] 4s24p24d9
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
96) The four quantum numbers of the LAST electron to be placed into a Ca atom are ________.
A) n = 4, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0, ms = -1/2
B) n = 3, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 1, ms = -1/2
C) n = 4, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2
D) n = 4, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0, ms = -1/2
E) n = 4, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
97) The quantum numbers of the last electron of cerium are ________.
A) n = 6, ℓ = 3, mℓ = -2, ms = 1/2
B) n = 5, ℓ = 3, mℓ = -2, ms = 1/2
C) n = 4, ℓ = 3, mℓ = -2, ms = 1/2
D) n = 4, ℓ = 2, mℓ = -2, ms = 1/2
E) n = 4, ℓ = 4, mℓ = -2, ms = 1/2
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
47
98) The quantum numbers of the last electron of cesium are ________.
A) n = 5, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0, ms = 1/2
B) n = 6, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0, ms = 1/2
C) n = 6, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 1, ms = 1/2
D) n = 6, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0, ms = 1/2
E) n = 6, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 2, ms = 1/2
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
99) The quantum numbers of the last electron of silicon are ________.
A) n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 1, ms = 1
B) n = 2, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 1, ms = 1/2
C) n = 4, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 1, ms = 1/2
D) n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0, ms = 1/2
E) n = 2, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0, ms = 1/2
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
100) The quantum numbers of the last electron of barium are ________.
A) n = 6, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 1, ms = 1
B) n = 5, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0, ms = 1/2
C) n = 6, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 1, ms = 1/2
D) n = 6, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0, ms = 1/2
E) n = 6, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0, ms = 1/2
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
Chemical Compounds
1) A molecule is a group of bonded atoms that exist as an entity.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
2) The structural formula is the simplest formula.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
48
3) For an ionic compound, the term formula mass is more appropriate than the term molecular mass.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
4) Combustion analysis is one way to determine the simplest formula of some compounds.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
5) Oxidation state is related to the number of protons involved in bonding.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
6) Organic chemistry refers to compounds of oxygen, and hydrogen.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
7) Chemical nomenclature is a systematic way of assigning names to chemical compounds.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
8) Only metals in binary compounds use prefixes such as di-, tri-, tetra-, etc.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
9) Polyatomic ions end in -ate or -ite.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
49
10) Hydrocarbons contain only carbon and hydrogen.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF

A) A molecule is a group of bonded atoms that exist as an entity.
B) Ionic compounds result from combinations of metals and nonmetals.
C) An anion is a positive ion.
D) The empirical formula is the simplest formula of the ratio of atoms.
E) The molecular formula is the listing of the atoms in an actual molecule.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC

A) A structural formula shows which atoms are bonded together and by what type of bond.
B) Formula mass is the mass of a formula unit.
C) Molecular mass is the mass of a molecular compound.
D) The molecular mass of hydrogen is 1.008 u.
E) The molecular formula is the same as, or a multiple of, the empirical formula.
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
13) A 200.0 g sample of pure MgCl2 contains:

A) 95.211 formula units MgCl2
B) 2.101 formula units MgCl2
C) 1.265 × 1024 formula units MgCl2
D) 1.204 × 1026 formula units MgCl2
E) 5.734 × 1025 formula units MgCl2
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
14) A mole of the substance water, H2O, refers to:

A) 12.0000 g H2O
B) one H2O molecule
C) 6.02 × 1023 g H2O
D) 6.02 × 1023 H2O molecules
E) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of H and O
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
50
15) A 10.0 g sample of bismuth tribromide, BiBr3, contains:
A) 5.360 × 1022 total number of ions
B) 0.322 mol BiBr3
C) 3.14 × 1022 formula units BiBr3
D) 1.34 × 1022 bromide ions
E) 4.020 × 1022 total number of ions
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
16) The number of atoms in 10.0 g of CaCO3 (100.0 g/mol) is:

A) 18.1 × 1022 atoms
B) 30.1 × 1022 atoms
C) 6.02 × 1022 atoms
D) 12.1 × 1023 atoms
E) 12.1 × 1022 atoms
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
17) Aspartame, C14H18N2O5, a low-calorie sweetener, is about 200 times sweeter than sugar. How
many molecules of aspartame are there in a one-gram packet of sweetener containing 36 mg aspartame?
A) 2.0 × 1018 molecules of aspartame
B) 4.0 × 1020 molecules of aspartame
C) 7.2 × 1025 molecules of aspartame
D) 1.4 × 1022 molecules of aspartame
E) 7.4 × 1019 molecules of aspartame
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
18) How many hydrogen atoms are present in 2.84 moles of water?
A) 3.42 × 1024 H atoms
B) 1.71 × 1024 H atoms
C) 4.24 × 1023 H atoms
D) 9.44 × 1024 H atoms
E) 3.42 × 1023 H atoms
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
51
19) Which of the following contains the greatest number of atoms?
A) 1 mole of S8 molecules
B) 2 moles of P4 molecules
C) 4 moles of chlorine molecules
D) 8 moles of H atoms
E) 3 moles of ozone, O3
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
20) Which of the following could be an empirical formula?

A) C9H8O4 (aspirin)
B) C6H8O6 (vitamin C)
C) C8H10N4O2 (caffeine)
D) C10H14N2 (nicotine)
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
21) The explosive, trinitrotoluene, TNT, C6H3N3O6, has the same proportion of:
A) N to H atoms as does NH3
B) H to O atoms as does H2O
C) N to O atoms as does NO2
D) C to H atoms as does C6H6
E) C to O atoms as does CO2
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
22) White phosphorus, P4, spontaneously bursts into flame in oxygen. If 6.500 g of white phosphorus
reacts with oxygen to form 11.54 g of a phosphorus oxide, what is the empirical formula of this oxide?
A) P2O3
B) PO3
C) P2O6
D) P4O6
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
52
23) Combustion analysis of a 22.0 mg sample of the painkiller morphine produced 13.2 mg of water.
What is the percentage by mass of hydrogen in morphine?
A) 6.71%
B) 3.36%
C) 13.4%
D) 60.0%
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
24) In the following group, the compound with the greatest percentage of oxygen by mass is:
A) ClO2
B) Na2CO3
C) P4O6
D) SO2
E) As2O3
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
25) Nitroglycerin, C3H5N3O3:

A) has equal amounts of C and N by mass
B) has less than 50% O by mass
C) has the same proportion of N to H atoms as does NH3
D) has the same mass percent of C and N
E) has higher mass percent of H than O
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
26) Crystals from evaporation of urine analyze to 22.6% phosphorus. Which compound is probably
present?
A) NaNH4HPO4
B) (NH4)3PO4
C) Na3PO4
D) H3PO4
E) Ca3(SO4)2
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
53
27) In which compound does iodine have an oxidation state of +3?
A) HIO3
B) IF5
C) Ca(IO2)2
D) HI
E) I2
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
28) In which compound does carbon have an oxidation state of zero?

A) C2H2
B) CH2O
C) CH3OH
D) Na2CO3
E) CO2
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
29) Choose the INCORRECT oxidation state.

A) Cl is +5 in HClO3
B) C is +4 in CS2
C) S is +6 in H2SO3
D) C is -2 in CH3OH
E) Br is +3 in BrF3
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
30) Choose the INCORRECT oxidation state.

A) C is 0 in H2CO
B) S is +4 in H2SO3
C) C is +2 in HCOOH
D) Fe is +2 in Fe2O3
E) Mn is +7 in KMnO4
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
54
31) The name of which compound ends in -ite?
A) HIO3
B) Na2SO3
C) H2SO3
D) Na2CO3
E) CaH2
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
32) Choose the INCORRECT name formula combination.

A) Fe2O3 iron(III) oxide
B) H2SO3 sulfurous acid
C) NH4ClO3 ammonium chlorate
D) CaH2 calcium hydride
E) SiO2 silicon oxide
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) CaH2 calcium hydroxide
B) SiO2 silicon dioxide
C) HClO hypochlorous acid
D) Cu3(PO4)2 copper(II) phosphate
E) AlCl3 aluminum chloride
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) HNO2 nitrous acid
B) Fe2(SO4)3 iron(III) sulfite
C) LiCN lithium cyanide
D) Na2CO3 sodium carbonate
E) Ba(OH)2 barium hydroxide
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
55
35) Choose the INCORRECT name/formula combination.
A) NaClO sodium hypochlorite
B) NaClO4 sodium chlorate
C) NaClO2 sodium chlorite
D) Sr(IO3)2 strontium iodate
E) SCl4 sulfur tetrachloride
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) Fe2(SO4)3 iron(III) sulfate
B) HBrO3 bromic acid
C) PCl5 phosphorus chloride
D) SCl4 sulfur tetrachloride
E) Sr(IO3)2 strontium iodate
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
37) Hydrates are:

A) moisture sensitive hygroscopic inorganic salts
B) compounds in which each formula unit has one or more water molecules associated with it
C) readily soluble in water and release energy.
D) organic compounds that contain oxygen together with usual carbon and hydrogen
E) concentrated solutions of salts in water
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
38) Which of the following functional groups gives acidic properties to organic molecules?
A) -OH
B) -COOCH3
C) -COOH
D) -C(O)H
E) -CH2OH
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
56
39) Which of the following is(are) isomer(s) of organic compound with formula C5H12O?
A) 4
B) 1 and 2
C) 1 and 3
D) 6
E) 5 and 4
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
40) Which of the following are isomers?

A) CH3CH(CH2CH3)CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH2CH3
B) CH3CH(OH)CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH2CH3
C) CH3CH(OH)CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH(OH)CH2CH(CH3)CH3
D) CH3CH(OH)CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH2OH
E) CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH(CH3)CH3 and CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
57
41) Which of the following is the correct definition of an isomer?
A) Isomers are molecules that have the same empirical formula but different arrangements of atoms in
space.
B) Isomers are molecules that have the same molecular formula but different arrangements of atoms in
space.
C) Isomers are molecules that have the same arrangements of atoms in space but different empirical and
molecular formulas.
D) Isomers are molecules that have the same molecular formula but contain different isotopes.
E) Isomers are molecules with the same empirical formula but have different isotopes.
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
42) Which of the following can be one of the isomers of a compound with molecular formula C 4H10?
A) 2-methylpropane (methylpropane)
B) 2-methylbutane
C) 3-methypentane
D) 3-methylbutane
E) 2methylpentane
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
43) Which of the following substances contains the greatest number of atoms?
A) 5 mol H2O
B) 6 mol CS2
C) 3 mol NaNO3
D) 2 mol NH4OH
E) 6 mol NaH
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
44) The formula mass of aradridic acid, CH3(CH2)18COOH, a fatty acid found in peanut oil, is
________.
A) 176.000 u
B) 312.538 u
C) 92.079 u
D) 306.126 u
E) 352.000 u
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
58
45) How many hydrogen atoms are there in 12.4 g of Al2(HPO4)3?
A) 6.55 × 1022 H atoms
B) 1.09 × 1022 H atoms
C) 6.07 × 1022 H atoms
D) 1.32 × 1023 H atoms
E) 4.39 × 1022 H atoms
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
46) The molecular formula for caffeine is C8H10O2N4. How many moles of C atoms are present in a
2.0 g sample of caffeine?
A) 0.32 mole
B) 0.27 mole
C) 0.041 mole
D) 0.082 mole
E) 0.010 mole
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
47) The material Styrofoam is made by blowing a gas into the polymer polystyrene made from styrene.
Styrene has the percent composition of C 92.26% and H 7.74% and 1.41 × 1022 molecules weigh 2.44
grams. What is the molecular formula for styrene?
A) CH
B) C2H2
C) C8H8
D) C4H4
E) C6H6
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
48) An unknown organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen, and bromine only. The mass
percentages of C and H are 12.77% C and 1.60% H. Bromine from 1.88 g of this compound has been
completely converted into 3.70 g of AgBr. The molar mass of unknown organic compound is 188 u.
Determine the molecular formula of the unknown.
A) CH3Br
B) C2H3Br2
C) C2H2Br2
D) C2H2Br4
E) C4H6Br4
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
59
49) Nitrogen forms at least three stable oxides: N2O, NO, and NO2. How many grams of nitrogen reacts
with 32 grams of oxygen to form NO?
A) 16 grams
B) 28 grams
C) 14 grams
D) 32 grams
E) 8 grams
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
50) How many grams of K are found in 1.00 × 102 g of K2Cr2O7?

A) 18.3 g
B) 36.5 g
C) 53.2 g
D) 13.3 g
E) 26.6 g
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
51) How many grams of Cr are found in 1.00 × 102 g of K2Cr2O7?

A) 35.4 g
B) 24.3 g
C) 12.2 g
D) 48.6 g
E) 33.8 g
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
52) How many grams of O are found in 1.00 × 102 g of K2Cr2O7?

A) 14.9 g
B) 38.1 g
C) 5.44 g
D) 11.3 g
E) 78.8 g
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
60
53) A 2.000 g sample of water contains 11.19% H by mass and 88.81% O by mass. What percent of H
by mass will be found in a 6.00 g sample of water?
A) 33.33%
B) 88.81%
C) 5.60%
D) 33.57%
E) 11.19%
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
54) A 2.000 g sample of water contains 11.19% H by mass and 88.81% O by mass. What mass of H will
be found in a 27.000 g sample of water?
A) 3.021 g
B) 1.511 g
C) 2.413 g
D) 1.206 g
E) 23.98 g
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
55) Fumaric acid, C4H4O4, can be extracted from plants and can be used as a substitute for citrus acid
in fruit drinks. The percent composition by mass of fumaric acid is ________.
A) C 33.33% H 33.33% O 33.33%
B) C 39.80% H 6.68% O 53.52%
C) C 40.00% H 6.67% O 53.33%
D) C 41.39% H 3.47% O 55.14%
E) C 0.25% H 0.25% O 0.50%
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
56) Determine the mass percent H in NH4Cl.

A) 1.9%
B) 14%
C) 7.5%
D) 3.6%
E) 67%
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
61
57) A sample contains 43.7% phosphorus and 56.3% oxygen. The molar mass is 284 u. What is the
molecular formula of the compound?
A) P2O5
B) PO3
C) P4O10
D) P4O5
E) P5O8
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
58) The simplest formula of a substance is found to be CH2O, and its approximate molecular weight is
found by experiment to be 93. What is the exact molecular weight of this substance in grams/mole?
A) 30.0
B) 87.0
C) 90.1
D) 93.0
E) 93.1
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
59) What is the percentage by weight of phosphorus in calcium phosphate, Ca 3(PO4)2?

A) 20%
B) 10%
C) 36%
D) 29%
E) 40%
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
60) Complete combustion of a 0.500 g sample of a pure hydrocarbon yielded 0.973 g CO2 and 0.319 g
H2O. The empirical formula of this hydrocarbon is ________.
A) C3H5
B) C2H3
C) C4H6
D) C5H8
E) C6H9
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
62
61) Maprotiline, a tetracyclic drug prescribed for the treatment of depression, has the following mass
composition: C 86.56%, H 8.35%, and the rest is nitrogen..
The empirical formula of maprotiline is ________.
A) C7H8N3
B) C20H23N
C) C87H8N5
D) C3H3N
E) C14H14N
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
62) A strip of electrolytically purified copper weighing 3.178 grams is strongly heated in a stream of
oxygen until it is all converted to a black oxide. The resultant black powder weighs 3.978 g. What is the
formula of the oxide?
A) CuO2
B) Cu2O3
C) CuO3
D) Cu2O
E) CuO
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
63) The magnesium in a sample of mineral water weighing 110.520 g is first converted to MgNH4PO4
and then to Mg2P2O7. The mass of Mg2P2O7 obtained is 0.0216 g. Express the quantity of magnesium
in the mineral water in parts per million (that is in g Mg per 106 g H2O).
A) 1.95 × 103 ppm
B) 8.95 ppm
C) 234 ppm
D) 42.7 ppm
E) 21.4 ppm
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
64) 2.404 g of a compound were burned in oxygen and found to produce only 3.520 g CO2(g), 2.564 g
SO2(g) and 1.440 g H2O(l). Determine the empirical formula of the compound.
A) CSH
B) C2SH4
C) C4SH2
D) C2S2H4
E) C2SH2
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
63
65) The molecular formula for a sugar molecule is C12H22O11. What is the percent of carbon in the
molecule?
A) 2.37%
B) 67.88%
C) 42.12%
D) 8.34%
E) 26.67%
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
66) The complete combustion of 0.285 g of a pure hydrocarbon yielded 0.878 g CO2 and 0.405 g H2O.
What is the mass % C in this hydrocarbon?
A) 27.3%
B) 24.0%
C) 84.1%
D) 32.4%
E) 72.7%
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
67) Elemental analysis of 50.0000 g of a compound showed that it contained 12.7520 g C, 3.2105 g H,
and the rest was S. The empirical formula of this compound is ________.
A) CHS
B) CH2S
C) CH3S
D) C2H2S
E) C2H3S2
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
68) A 4.05 g sample of a compound containing only C, H, and O was burned completely. The only
combustion products were 10.942 g CO2 and 4.476 g H2O. What is the empirical formula of the
compound?
A) C7H14O
B) C7H7O
C) C7H14O7
D) CH2O
E) C6H12O
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
64
69) Naphthalene, commonly found in mothballs, is 93.75% carbon and 6.25% hydrogen by mass. If
naphthalene's molecular formula is twice its empirical formula, what would its molar mass be?
A) 64 u
B) 96 u
C) 128 u
D) 192 u
E) 160 u
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
70) An organic compound contains C, H, and O. The percentages of H and C are 6.73% H, and 39.99%
C by mass. The molar mass is 60.06 u. What is the molecular formula of the compound?
A) CH2O
B) C3H6O3
C) C2H3O2
D) C2H4O2
E) C4H8O4
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
71) From the following percent by mass compositions, determine the empirical formula of the
compound. Li = 18.0%, P = 26.7%, O = 55.3%
A) LiPO2
B) Li3PO4
C) LiPO3
D) Li3PO3
E) LiPO4
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
72) A compound is found to have the following percent composition by mass: 38.7% K, 13.8% N,
47.5% O. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
A) KNO3
B) KNO2
C) K2NO2
D) K2NO3
E) K2N2O3
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
65
73) What is the oxidation state of chlorine in sodium hypochlorite?
A) +1
B) -1
C) +2
D) +3
E) +5
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
74) The element M forms the chloride MCl4 containing 75.0% Cl by mass. What is the atomic weight of
M?
A) 22.7 g/mol
B) 21.2 g/mol
C) 11.8 g/mol
D) 39.55 g/mol
E) 47.3 g/mol
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
75) How many grams of H2O are there in 10.0 g of tetraphenylarsonium chloride dihydrate,
(C6H5)4AsCl · 2 H2O?
A) 0.860 g
B) 0.792 g
C) 0.430 g
D) 0.396 g
E) 0.239 g
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
76) A 1.500 g sample of compound containing only C, H, and O was burned completely. The only
combustion products were 1.738 g CO2 and 0.711 g H2O. What is the empirical formula of the
compound?
A) CH2O2
B) CH2O
C) C2H4O3
D) CHO
E) CH4O
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
66
77) A compound has the following percentage composition, by weight: 22.0% Cu, 12.9% Fe, 16.6% C,
19.4% N, and 29.1% H2O. Write a plausible (empirical) formula for this hydrate.
A) CuFe(CN)4 ∙ 4 H2O
B) CuF(CN)4 ∙ 5 H2O
C) Cu3Fe2(CN)12 ∙ 14 H2O
D) CuF(CN)4
E) Cu3Fe2(CN)12
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
78) To produce ferrocene one requires 2.33 g of C5H5 (65.0 g/mol) for every 1.00 g of Fe used
(55.9 g/mol). What is the value of x in the formula of ferrocene: Fe · x C5H5?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
79) 4.72 g of a compound of carbon, hydrogen, and silver was burned in an atmosphere of oxygen,
yielding 7.95 g of CO2, 1.02 g of H2O, and 3.02 g of a mixture of silver and silver oxide. Because the
production of this mixture yielded an indeterminate value for the amount of silver, another sample of the
compound weighing 8.12 g was reacted with a solution of NaCl, yielding 5.57 g of AgCl. What is the
empirical formula of the compound?
A) C5H5Ag
B) C8H8Ag
C) C8H5Cl
D) C8H5Ag
E) C5H8Ag
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
80) The analysis of 0.246 g of organic compound. gives 0.656 g CO2, 0.134 g H2O, and 1.86 × 10-3
mol N2 gas. What would be the empirical formula of this organic compound?
A) C3H3N
B) C4H4N
C) C2H2N2
D) C2H2N
E) C3H3N2
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
67
81) What is the mass percent of H2O in magnesium chloride hexahydrate?
A) 10.7%
B) 64.4%
C) 8.86%
D) 26.6%
E) 53.2%
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
82) The oxidation state of silver in the complex ion Ag(CN) 2- is ________.
A) -1
B) +1
C) 0
D) +2
E) -2
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
83) The oxidation state of iodine in orthoparaperiodic acid, H5IO6, is ________.

A) +1
B) -1
C) +5
D) +7
E) -7
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
84) The oxidation state of vanadium in VO+2 is ________.

A) -2
B) +2
C) +1
D) -4
E) +4
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
68
85) The oxidation state of oxygen in oxygen difluoride, OF2, is ________.
A) -1
B) +1
C) -2
D) +2
E) - 1/2
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
86) Arrange the following in order of increasing oxidation state of chlorine:

NaClO, NaClO3, NaClO2, and NaClO4.
A) NaClO, NaClO2, NaClO3, NaClO4
B) NaClO4, NaClO3, NaClO2, NaClO
C) NaClO, NaClO3, NaClO2, NaClO4
D) NaClO4, NaClO, NaClO3, NaClO2
E) NaClO3, NaClO2, NaClO, NaClO4
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
87) What is the formula of sodium hypochlorite?

A) NaCl
B) NaClO
C) NaClO2
D) NaClO3
E) NaClO4
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
88) What is the formula of sodium bicarbonate?

A) NaHCO3
B) Na2CO3
C) NaHCO2
D) Na2C2
E) Na2C2O4
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
69
89) The correct chemical name for the compound SbCl 3 is ________.
A) tin trichloride
B) antimony trichloride
C) stannous trichloride
D) antimony chloride
E) antimony(III) chloride
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
90) The correct chemical name for the substance Al(OH)3 is ________.
A) aluminum hydroxide
B) aluminum trihydroxide
C) aluminum oxytrihydrate
D) aluminum(III) hydroxide
E) aluminum trihydrogenoxide
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
91) The correct chemical name for the compound KNO2 is ________.
A) potassium nitrate
B) potassium nitrite
C) potassium nitrogen dioxide
D) potassium nitrous oxide
E) potassium hyponitrite
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
92) The formula of barium nitride is ________.

A) Ba3N2
B) Ba2N2
C) BaN
D) Ba2N
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
93) The name of the compound Cr(ClO4)3∙6H2O is ________.

A) chromium(III) perchlorate hexahydrate
B) chromium(II) perchlorate hexahydrate
C) chromate perchlorate hydrate
D) chromate(III) perchlorate hexahydrate
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
70
94) The correct chemical name for the compound HIO is ________.
A) periodic acid
B) hydrogen iodide oxide
C) hydrogen iodite
D) hypoiodous acid
E) hypoiodic acid
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
95) What is the correct name for the following organic structure?
CH3CH2CHBrCH2CH3
A) 3-bromopentane
B) 3-bromopropane
C) 1-bromo-1-ethylpropane
D) pentane
E) pentylbromide
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
CH3C(CH3)2CH3
A) pentane
B) 2,2-dimethylpropane
C) 2-methylbutane
D) 1,3-dimethylpropane
E) 2-ethylpropane
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
CH3CH(OH)CH2CH2CH2CH3
A) pentyl alcohol
B) 5-hexanol
C) 2-hexanol
D) 1-methylpentanol
E) 2-methylpentanol
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
71
CH3CH2CH2CHClCH2CH2CH2COOH
A) octanoic acid
B) octylchloride
C) 5-octylchloride
D) 5-chlorooctanoic acid
E) 4-chlorooctanoic acid
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
CH2 CHCH2CH(CH3)CH3
A) hexene
B) hexane
C) 1-hexene
D) 4-methyl-2-pentene
E) 4-methyl-1-pentene
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
100) The suffix -ol designates the presence of which functional group?
A) -OH
B) -COOH
C) -CH3
D) -COOCH3
E) -C(O)H
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
72
Chemical Reactions
1) A formula is a shorthand way of representing a chemical reaction.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
2) In a balanced equation, the number of atoms of each element in the products must equal to the
number of atoms of each element in the reactants.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
3) (aq) indicates that the compound is dissolved in alcohol.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
4) In a chemical equation, Δ above the yield sign means the reaction will produce heat.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
5) Stoichiometric factor relates the amounts, in moles, of any two substances involved in chemical
reaction.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
6) In a solution of alcohol and water that is 70% water, alcohol is the solvent.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
7) A chemical equation is a shorthand way of representing a chemical reaction.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
8) The numbers in front of formulas in balanced equations are called stoichiometric coefficients.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
9) Molarity is defined as moles of solute per kg of solution.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
73
10) The reactant that is in excess determines the amount of products formed.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
11) When the equation K2S2O3 + I2 → K2S4O6 + KI is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients,
the coefficient of KI is:
A) 2
B) 1
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
12) When the equation Fe2(C2O4)3 → FeC2O4 + CO2 is balanced with the smallest integer
coefficients, the coefficient of CO2 is:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 3
E) 5
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
13) When the equation CS2 + Cl2 → CCl4 + S2Cl2 is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients,
the sum of the coefficients is:
A) 5
B) 6
C) 4
D) 3
E) 7
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
74
14) What is the sum of the coefficients when the following is balanced with the smallest integer
coefficients?
K2O + H2O → KOH
A) 2
B) 6
C) 3
D) 8
E) 4
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
coefficients?
Na + HCl → NaCl + H2
A) 7
B) 4
C) 2
D) 10
E) 9
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
16) What is the sum of the coefficients in the balanced equation that represents the complete combustion
of the relatively new gasoline additive "MTBE," for which the molecular formula is C 5H12O?
A) 39
B) 37
C) 29
D) 24
E) 20
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
17) How many grams of N2 are required to react with 2.30 moles of Mg in the following process?
3 Mg + N2 → Mg3N2? (Mg = 24.3 g/mol, N = 14.0 g/mol)
A) 21.5 g
B) 0.767 g
C) 64.4 g
D) 0.027 g
E) 193.2 g
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
75
18) How many moles of H3PO4 are produced when 20.0 g of HCl are produced by the reaction
PCl5 + 4 H2O → H3PO4 + 5 HCl?
A) (20.0/36.5) g
B) (20.0/35.5)/5 g
C) (20.0/36.5)/5 g
D) (20.0/98.0) g
E) (20.0/98.0)/5 g
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
19) For the reaction 2 Al + Fe2O3 → Al2O3 + 2 Fe, 2.5 g of Al (27.0 g/mol) and 7.2 g of
Fe2O3 (159.8 g/mol) produce how many g of Fe (55.9 g/mol)?
A) 2.5 (55.9/27.0) g
B) 2.5 (55.9)(2)/(27.0)(2) g
C) 7.2 (55.9)(2)/159.8 g
D) 7.2 (55.9/159.8) g
E) 2.5 (55.9/159.8) g
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
20) Which metal will produce the most hydrogen per gram of metal?
A) 2 Li + 2 HCl → 2 LiCl + H2
B) Sn + 4 HCl → SnCl4 + 2 H2
C) 2 Fe + 6 HCl →2 FeCl3 + 3 H2
D) Mg + 2 HCl → MgCl2 + H2
E) 2 Cr + 6 HCl → 2 CrCl3 + 3H2
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
21) Potassium superoxide (KO2) can simulate a plant-type action by consuming carbon dioxide (CO2)
gas and releasing oxygen (O2) gas. The other product is potassium carbonate (K2CO3). When the
equation for this process is balanced, it shows that:
A) 3 mol oxygen is produced per mol KO2 consumed
B) 2 mol KO2 is consumed per mol carbon dioxide
C) moles of reactants equals moles of product
D) 3 g of oxygen is produced per 2 g CO2 consumed
E) moles of products exceed moles of reactants
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
76
22) Gases emitted during volcanic activity often contain high concentrations of hydrogen sulfide and
sulfur dioxide. These gases may react to produce deposits of sulfur according to the equation:
2 H2S(g) + SO2(g) → 3 S(s) + 2 H2O(g)
For the complete reaction of 6.41 mol of hydrogen sulfide:
A) 308 g of sulfur is formed
B) 410 g of sulfur dioxide is consumed
C) 231 g of water vapor is produced
D) 320 g of total products result
E) 628 g of total reactants are consumed
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
23) Which of the following processes could theoretically produce the maximum mass of oxygen per
gram of metal salt reactant?
A) 2 KClO3 → 2 KCl + 3 O2
B) 4 KO2 + 2 CO2 → 2 K2CO3 + 3 O2
C) 2 Na2O2 + 2 H2SO4 → 2 H2O + O2
D) 2 HgO → 2 Hg + O2
E) NaBrO2 → NaBr + O2
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
24) Iron metal reacts with chlorine gas as follows:

2 Fe(s) + 3 Cl2(g) → 2 FeCl3(s)
How many moles of FeCl3 are obtained when 4.6 mol of Cl2 reacts with excess Fe?
A) 3.1 mol
B) 4.6 mol
C) 1.5 mol
D) 2.3 mol
E) 6.9 mol
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
25) 24.0 g of ethane (C2H6) are burned to form CO2 and H2O. How many grams of CO2 are produced?
A) 32.8 g
B) 14.4 g
C) 43.2 g
D) 35.1 g
E) 70.3 g
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
77
26) Given the following reaction:
Na2SO4(s) + 2 C(s) → Na2S(s) + 2 CO2(g)
How many grams of carbon are required to produce 18.4 g Na2S(s)?
A) 11.3 g
B) 5.66 g
C) 2.83 g
D) 239 g
E) 142 g
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
27) A 1.900 g sample of C6H12 is burned in an excess of oxygen. What mass of CO 2 and H2O should
be obtained?
A) 0.994 g CO2, 0.407 g H2O
B) 2.98 g CO2, 1.22 g H2O
C) 5.96 g CO2, 2.44 g H2O
D) 10.45 g CO2, 4.27 g G H2O
E) 5.23 g CO2, 2.38 g H2O
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
28) Given the reaction:

2KMnO4 + 10 KI + 8 H2SO4 → 6 K2SO4 + 2 MnSO4 + 5 I2 + 8 H2O
How many moles of H2SO4 are required to produce 2.0 moles of I2, given the other reactants are in
excess?
A) 0.80 mol
B) 1.3 mol
C) 3.2 mol
D) 4.0 mol
E) 1.6 mol
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
29) Which of the following represents a 1.00 M aqueous solution of glucose (C 6H12O6)?
A) 90.0 g glucose per 500 mL water
B) 10.0 g glucose per 10.0 mL water
C) 0.180 g glucose per mL solution
D) 0.100 g glucose per mL solution
E) 4.5 g glucose per 4.5 g water
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
78
30) What is the molarity of 10.9 g KCl dissolved in 150.0 mL of water?
A) 0.0727 M
B) 0.146 M
C) 0.975 M
D) 0.0219 M
E) 0.667 M
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
31) 45.8 mL of a 3.14 M sodium chloride solution were used to react completely with 50.0 mL of an
aqueous silver nitrate solution. What is the molarity of the silver nitrate solution?
A) 2.88 M
B) 1.50 M
C) 3.14 M
D) 3.42 M
E) 1.71 M
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
32) For the reaction symbolized as HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) water is both:
A) a reactant and the solute
B) a reactant and the solvent
C) a product and the solute
D) a product and the solvent
E) a liquid and the intermediate
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
33) How many mL of 0.024 M solution can be produced from 14.1 mL of 3.0 M solution?
A) (14.1)(0.024)(3.0) mL
B) 14.1(0.024/3.0) mL
C) 14.1(3.0/0.024) mL
D) (14.1/0.024)/3.0 mL
E) (0.024×3)/14.1 mL
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
79
34) 52.5 mL of a solution were diluted to a volume of 6.25 L and then had a concentration of 3.16 M.
What was the molarity of the initial solution?
A) 3.16(52.5/6.25) M
B) 3.16(6.25/52.5) M
C) (3.16)(52.5)(6.25) M
D) 3.16(52.5/6250) M
E) (6.25)(3.16)/0.0525 M
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
35) If 85.6 mL of a 6.75 M solution are diluted to 6.20 L with water, what is the concentration of the
final solution?
A) 6.75 (6.20/85.6) M
B) 6.75 (8.56/6.20) M
C) 6.75 (6200/85.6) M
D) 6.75 (85.6/6200) M
E) 8.56 (6.20/6.75) M
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
36) What volume of 6.0 M sulfuric acid is required for the preparation of 500.0 mL of 0.30 M solution?
A) 100 mL
B) 50 mL
C) 40 mL
D) 30 mL
E) 25 mL
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
37) If 5.97 mL of a solution of NaCl contains 2.54 mg of sodium ion, what is the molarity of the sodium
chloride solution?
A) 0.425 M
B) 1.85 × 10-2 M
C) 1.85 × 10-5 M
D) 7.28 × 10-3 M
E) 0.102 M
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
80
38) What mass of trisodium phosphate is required to prepare 250.0 mL of a solution that is 0.30 M in
sodium ion?
A) 37 g
B) 12 g
C) 7.7 g
D) 4.1 g
E) 3.0 g
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
39) What volume of concentrated acetic acid (CH3CO2H, density 1.05 g mL-1) is needed to prepare
250 mL of a 0.30 M aqueous solution?
A) 4.7 mL
B) 4.3 mL
C) 3.0 mL
D) 2.5 mL
E) 2.2 mL
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
40) What volume of 2.0 M HCl, in mL, is required to dissolve a 10.0 g piece of Zn?
Zn(s) + 2 HCl → ZnCl2 + H2(g)
A) 76 mL
B) 330 mL
C) 170 mL
D) 310 mL
E) 150 mL
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
41) How many grams of a solid mixture containing strontium chloride would one need to make 558 mL
of a 0.100 M strontium chloride solution, if the solid mixture contains 58.6% strontium chloride by
weight?
A) 6.62 g
B) 15.1 g
C) 8.85 g
D) 5.19 g
E) 9.52 g
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
81
42) How many grams of CrSO4 will be made from 25.0 grams each of Zn, K2Cr2O7, and H2SO4?
4 Zn + K2Cr2O7 + 7 H2SO4 → 4 ZnSO4 + 2 CrSO4 + K2SO4 + 7 H2O
A) 10.8 g
B) 28.3 g
C) 25.2 g
D) 12.6 g
E) 37.8 g
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC

2 KMnO4 + 10 KI + 8 H2SO4 → 6 K2SO4 + 2 MnSO4 + 5 I2 + 8 H2O,
how many moles of K2SO4 are produced by allowing five moles each of KMnO4, KI, and H2SO4 to
react?
A) 3 mol
B) 1 mol
C) 2 mol
D) 4 mol
E) 5 mol
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
44) How many grams of ZnSO4 will be made from 41.0 grams each of Zn, K2Cr2O7, and H2SO4?
A) 67.6 g
B) 38.6 g
C) 101 g
D) 20.6 g
E) 82.5 g
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
45) 42.6 g Cu are combined with 84.0 g of HNO3 according to the reaction:
3 Cu + 8 HNO3 → 3 Cu(NO3)2 + 2 NO + 4 H2O.
Which reagent is limiting and how many grams of Cu(NO3)2 are produced?
A) Cu, 93.8 g
B) HNO3, 93.8 g
C) Cu, 125.6 g
D) HNO3, 125.6 g
E) Cu(NO3)2, 125.6 g
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
82
46) Consider the gaseous reaction:
N2H4(g) + 3 O2(g) → 2 NO2(g) + 2 H2O(g)
If the above reaction has a percent yield of 98.5%, what mass in grams of oxygen is needed to produce
49.0 g of NO2(g), assuming an excess of N2H4?
A) 50.4 g
B) 51.9 g
C) 25.9 g
D) 23.1 g
E) 11.5 g
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
47) If 0.500 mol of CaCl2 is mixed with 0.200 mol Na3PO4, the maximum amount in moles of
Ca3(PO4)2 that can be formed is:
A) 0.17
B) 0.20
C) 0.10
D) 0.67
E) 0.50
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
48) The Haber Process for the production of ammonia is represented by:
3 H2(g) + N2(g) → 2 NH3(g)
If a mixture of 30 g of hydrogen with 10 g of nitrogen produced 8.4 g of ammonia, what was the percent
yield?
A) 84%
B) 69%
C) 49%
D) 28%
E) 20%
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC

P4(l) + 6 Cl2(g) → 4 PCl3(l)
If the percent yield is 82%, what mass of P4 is required to obtain 2.30 g PCl3 (Cl2 in excess)?
A) 0.63 g
B) 0.52 g
C) 0.43 g
D) 0.16 g
E) 0.95 g
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
83
50) Cryolite is a compound needed for the Hall-Heroult process for producing aluminum. Cryolite is
produced by the following reaction:
6 HF + Al(OH)3 + 3 NaOH → Na3AlF6 + 6 H2O
How many grams of cryolite are produced if the reaction has a 94.3% yield and a limiting reagent of
27.8 grams of HF?
A) 275 g
B) 48.6 g
C) 45.9 g
D) 15.0 g
E) 15.9 g
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
51) One source of iodine is sodium iodate. Iodine is produced by a series of reactions. The first reaction
is a reduction reaction with sodium hydrogen sulfite.
IO3-( aq) + 3 HSO3- (aq) → I- (aq) + 3 SO42- (aq) + 3 H+(aq)
5 I- (aq) + IO3- (aq) + 6 H+ (aq) → 3 I2(s) + 3 H2O
How many grams of iodine are produced from 1.00 × 102 grams of NaHSO3 if each reaction has a
95.0% yield?
A) 48.8 g
B) 51.4 g
C) 185 g
D) 46.3 g
E) 44.0 g
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC
52) If 8.52 g each of zinc, potassium dichromate, and sulfuric acid are reacted by the reaction:
4 Zn + K2Cr2O7 + 7 H2SO4→ 4 ZnSO4 + 2 CrSO4 +K2SO4 + 7 H2O
how many grams of potassium dichromate will be left unreacted?
A) 1.05 g
B) 2.84 g
C) 7.30 g
D) 4.87 g
E) 3.65 g
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC
84
53) Given the following reactions:
Fe + Br2 → FeBr2
3 FeBr2 + Br2 → Fe3Br8
If each reaction is 82.0% efficient, what mass of iron is necessary to make 8.45 g of Fe3Br8?
A) 0.870 g
B) 3.73 g
C) 2.14 g
D) 1.75 g
E) 2.61 g
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC
coefficients?
Al + Fe2O3 → Al2O3 + Fe
A) 4
B) 6
C) 12
D) 9
E) 8
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
coefficients?
CaC2(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(s) + C2H2(g)
A) 8
B) 4
C) 5
D) 10
E) 9
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
coefficients?
KClO3(s) → KCl(s) + O2(g)
A) 11
B) 10
C) 5
D) 7
E) 6
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
85
coefficients?
PCl3(l) + Cl2(g) + P4O10(s) → POCl3(l)
A) 3
B) 18
C) 45
D) 10
E) 23
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
coefficients?
Al(s) + HCl(aq) → AlCl3(aq) + H2(g)
A) 13
B) 11
C) 18
D) 19
E) 21
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
coefficients?
H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(l)
A) 4
B) 5
C) 8
D) 9
E) 7
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
coefficients?
C2H6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O
A) 5
B) 10
C) 19
D) 21
E) 25
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
86
coefficients?
CH3OH → CO + H2
A) 3
B) 8
C) 5
D) 4
E) 7
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
62) What is the sum of the coefficients when the following equation is balanced with the smallest
integer coefficients?
H2SO3 + Al(OH)3 → Al2(SO3)3 + H2O
A) 4
B) 5
C) 11
D) 12
E) 14
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
63) Write the complete balanced equation for the complete combustion reaction expected to occur
between C3H7OH and O2.
A) C3H7OH + O2 → 3 CO2 + 4 H2O
B) 2 C3H7OH + 9 CO2 → 6 CO2 + 8 H2O + 9 C
C) 2 C3H7OH + 6 CO2 → CO + 8 H2O
D) 2 C3H7OH + 9 O2 → 6 CO2 + 8 H2O
E) 2 C3H7OH + 9 O2 → 6 C + 8 H2 + 10 O2
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
64) The chemical reaction occurring during the discharge of a lead storage battery can be represented by
the equation: Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2 H2SO4(aq) → 2 PbSO4(s) + 2 H2O(l)
What mass of lead sulfate would result from the complete reaction of 41.4 g of lead?
A) 57.6 g
B) 60.5 g
C) 105 g
D) 115 g
E) 121 g
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
87
65) How much Cl2, in g, is required to produce 12.0 g CCl4 according to the following reaction?
CH4 + 4 Cl2 → CCl4 + 4 HCl
A) 12.0 g
B) 5.52 g
C) 22.1 g
D) 1.38 g
E) 11.0 g
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
66) What mass of water is produced in the metathesis reaction 75.2 g Zn(OH) 2 with 43.4 g HCl?
A) 13.6 g
B) 27.3 g
C) 10.7 g
D) 21.4 g
E) 31.8 g
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
67) What mass of oxygen gas would be consumed by the complete combustion of 7.5 g of a mixture of
propane (C3H8) and butane (C4H10) in the mole ratio of C3H8/C4H10 = 1.33?
A) 3.9 g
B) 11 g
C) 14 g
D) 21 g
E) 27 g
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
68) Our task is to measure the volume of blood in an elephant. One way to do this would be to drain its
blood into a suitable container. Aside from harmful side effects which this method has on the elephant, it
will not be successful, as blood will still remain behind in the tissues. Hence, we will inject 2.00 ml of a
2.00 M solution of a dye which the elephant will not appreciably metabolize or excrete in one hour and
then measure the concentration of this dye in the bloodstream (our sample being taken from another leg
than the point of injection) after 30 minutes, a sufficient time to thoroughly mix the dye in the
bloodstream. The concentration of dye at this point is 1.25 x 10-5 M. What is the volume of blood in the
elephant?
A) 320. L
B) 320000 L
C) 3.2 L
D) 80 L
E) 800 L
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
88
69) What is the molarity of formaldehyde in a solution containing 0.25 g of formaldehyde (CH2O) per
mL?
A) 2.5 M
B) 25 M
C) 8.3 M
D) 83 M
E) 4.0 M
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
70) "Washing soda" (sodium carbonate) may be used to "soften" water by the removal of certain ions
that would otherwise react with common soaps. When the "hardness" is due to calcium ion, the
"softening" process may be represented as:
Ca2+(aq) + CO32-(aq) → CaCO3(s)
What mass of sodium carbonate would be required to remove essentially all of the calcium ion from 750
L of solution containing 43 mg Ca2+ per liter?
A) 85 g
B) 67 g
C) 12 g
D) 48 g
E) 22 g
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
71) If an aqueous solution containing 46 g of sodium carbonate per liter is mixed with an equal volume
of 0.20 M aqueous hydrochloric acid, what would be the molarity of sodium chloride in the final
solution, assuming volumes were additive?
A) 0.10 M
B) 0.20 M
C) 0.22 M
D) 0.43 M
E) 0.50 M
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
72) The molarity of a solution that contains 14.7 g of H2SO4 in 200.0 mL solution is ________.
A) 1.5 M
B) 0.75 M
C) 0.77 M
D) 7.4 M
E) 3.0 M
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
89
73) What is the molarity of methanol, CH3OH (d = 0792 g/mL), if 150.0 mL is dissolved in enough
water to make 4.00 L of solution?
A) 3.71 M
B) 1.17 M
C) 1.48 M
D) 0.927 M
E) 0.734 M
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
74) What is the molarity of a sucrose solution (C12H22O11) if 110.0 g of a 92.0% pure solid is
dissolved per 250.0 mL of water?
A) 0.296 M
B) 1.29 M
C) 0.321 M
D) 1.40 M
E) 1.18 M
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
75) What mass of MgCl2 in grams must be added to 250.0 mL of a 0.25 M MgCl2 solution to produce a
0.40 M solution, assuming no change of volume upon addition?
A) 9.5 g
B) 6.0 g
C) 2.2 g
D) 3.6 g
E) 19 g
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
76) You have 10.00 L of a 0.350 M KCl solution, but you need a solution that is 0.450 M. What volume
of water, in L, would you evaporate from the solution?
A) 4.38 L
B) 3.50 L
C) 2.85 L
D) 7.77 L
E) 2.22 L
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
90
77) To measure the volume of an irregularly shaped container filled with water, 1.00 mL of 2.00 M
potassium chloride solution is added. After stirring, a 5.00 mL sample was found to contain 2.54 × 10-2
mg of potassium ion. What is the volume of the container?
A) 15.4 L
B) 29.4 L
C) 2.94 × 104 L
D) 3.97 × 10-4 L
E) 2.54 L
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI

2 KMnO4 + 10 KI + 8 H2SO4 → 6 K2SO4 + 2 MnSO4 + 5 I2 + 8 H2O
How many moles of I2 are produced by reacting 28.0 g KMnO4, 18.0 g KI, and 46.0 g H2SO4?
A) 0.108 mol
B) 0.0542 mol
C) 0.293 mol
D) 0.443 mol
E) 0.886 mol
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
79) The chemical reaction during low current discharge of a simple "dry cell" involves:
(unbalanced) Zn + MnO2 + NH4Cl → ZnCl2 + Mn2O3 + NH3 + H2O
What is the coefficient for zinc in the balanced equation that uses the lowest whole number ratios, and
what is the limiting reagent for a process in which equal masses of reactants are mixed?
A) 1/Zn
B) 2/Zn
C) 1/MnO2
D) 2/MnO2
E) 2/NH4Cl
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
91
the equation:
Pb(s) + PbO2(s) +2 H2SO4(aq) → 2 PbSO4(s) + 2 H2O(l)
Which is the limiting reagent and the amount of PbSO4 produced if 53.0 g of Pb, 77.3 g of PbO2, and
534 mL of 0.544 M solution of H2SO4 is used?
A) PbO2, 196 g
B) Pb, 77.6 g
C) Pb, 155 g
D) H2SO4, 88.1 g
E) H2SO4, 176 g
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
the equation:
Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2 H2SO4(aq) → 2 PbSO4(s) + 2 H2O(l)
Which is the limiting reagent and the amount of PbSO4 produced if 39.8 g of Pb, 57.9 g of PbO2, and
352 mL of 0.375 M solution of H2SO4 is used?
A) PbO2, 146 g
B) Pb, 58.2 g
C) Pb, 116 g
D) H2SO4, 80.0 g
E) H2SO4, 40.0 g
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
82) What is the percent yield if 185 grams of SiO2 are made from 328 g of Cr2O3 by the following
equation?
3 Si(s) + 2 Cr2O3(s) → 3 SiO2(s) + 4 Cr(l)
A) 142%
B) 70%
C) 56%
D) 105%
E) 95%
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
92
83) What is the percent yield if 122 grams of SiO2 are made from 246 g of Cr2O3 by the following
equation?
3 Si(s) + 2 Cr2O3(s) → 3 SiO2(s) + 4 Cr(l)
A) 83.6%
B) 49.6%
C) 125%
D) 33.1%
E) 59.3%
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
84) Consider the equation:

2 Na + 2 H2O → 2 NaOH + H2.
If 92.0 g of sodium is reacted with 76.0 g of water until the reaction goes to completion, which reactant
will remain and in what quantity?
A) 72.0 g water
B) 43.5 g sodium
C) 3.9 g water
D) 10.0 g sodium
E) 10.0 g water
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
85) How many grams of sulfuric acid, H2SO4, can be obtained from 578 grams of iron ore if the ore is
76.0% by mass FeS? The reactions involved are given below. Each reaction is 92.0% efficient.
4 FeS + 7O2 → 2 Fe2O3 + 4 SO2
2 SO2 + O2 → 2 SO3
SO3 + H2O → H2SO4
A) 502 g
B) 307 g
C) 382 g
D) 95.5 g
E) 629 g
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
93
86) Sulfuric acid can be prepared by a multistep process summarized as:
2 SO2 + O2 + 2 H2O → 2 H2SO4
What mass of sulfuric acid could be produced daily by a process using 38 kg per day of sulfur dioxide
with a 70% conversion efficiency ("yield"), assuming that sulfur dioxide is the limiting reagent?
A) 27 kg/day
B) 41 kg/day
C) 54 kg/day
D) 58 kg/day
E) 83 kg/day
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
87) Nitroglycerin, used both in medicine and as an explosive, can be prepared by the carefully controlled
reaction of glycerol (C3H8O3) with nitric acid, as symbolized by:
C3H8O3 + 3 HNO3 → C3H5N3O9 + 3 H2O
What mass of nitric acid is required for the production of 2.8 g of nitroglycerin by a process having a
67% yield?
A) 2.3 g
B) 0.39 g
C) 1.6 g
D) 3.5 g
E) 1.2 g
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
88) Chromium in its +VI oxidation state is considered a hazardous, carcinogenic species, destruction of
which may be accomplished by the process symbolized as:
If 1.0 mol of each reactant is mixed, what is the limiting reagent, and what is the theoretical yield of
chromium(II) sulfate?
A) Zn, 0.50 mol
B) K2Cr2O7, 2.0 mol
C) H2SO4, 0.29 mol
D) H2, 1.0 mol
E) no limiting reagent, 1.0 mol
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
94
89) In the following reaction:
2 KClO3(s) → 2 KCl(s) + 3 O2(g)
14.0 g KClO3 yielded 1.40 g KCl. What is the percent yield?
A) 6.08%
B) 16.4%
C) 11.0%
D) 32.9%
E) 10.0%
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
90) Cryolite is a compound needed for the Hall-Heroult process for producing aluminum. Cryolite is
produced by the following reaction:
6 HF + Al(OH)3 + 3 NaOH → Na3AlF6 + 6 H2O
How many grams of cryolite are produced if the reaction has a 67.3% yield and a limiting reagent of
35.4 grams of NaOH?
A) 61.9 g
B) 41.7 g
C) 125 g
D) 186 g
E) 20.2 g
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
91) One source of iodine is sodium iodate. Iodine is produced by a series of reactions. The first reaction
is a reduction reaction with sodium hydrogen sulfite.
IO3- (aq) + 3 HSO3- (aq) → I- (aq) + 3 SO42- (aq) + 3 H+ (aq)
5 I- (aq) + IO3- (aq) + 6 H+ (aq) → 3 I2(s) + 3 H2O
How many grams of iodine are produced from 1.00 × 102 grams of NaHSO3?
A) 81.3 g
B) 243 g
C) 62.6 g
D) 48.8 g
E) 205 g
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
95
92) If 8.52 g each of zinc, potassium dichromate, and sulfuric acid are reacted by the reaction:
4 Zn + K2Cr2O7 + 7 H2SO4→ 4 ZnSO4 + 2 CrSO4 +K2SO4 + 7 H2O
How many grams of zinc will be left unreacted?
A) 0.94 g
B) 3.65 g
C) 5.27 g
D) 1.89 g
E) 3.25 g
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
93) In the reaction: 4 Zn + K2Cr2O7 + 7 H2SO4→ 4 ZnSO4 + 2 CrSO4 +K2SO4 + 7 H2O, if 25.4 g of
zinc sulfate is to be made, how many grams of potassium dichromate is required?
A) 13.9 g
B) 3.48 g
C) 46.3 g
D) 6.35 g
E) 11.6 g
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
94) If the percent yield is 82.0%, how many grams of silicon is needed to make 105 g of chromium by
the reaction: 3 Si (s) + 2 Cr203 (s) → 3 SiO2 (s) + 4 Cr (l)?
A) 51.9 g
B) 92.2 g
C) 42.5 g
D) 34.9 g
E) 13.0 g
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
95) Acetylene gas may be produced by carefully adding water to calcium carbide, according to the
equation:
CaC2(s) + 2 H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(s) + C2H2(g)
When a 37 g sample of an impure calcium carbide was treated with excess water, 13 g of acetylene gas
was produced. If the reaction is essentially 100% efficient, what was the percentage of nonreacting
impurity in the carbide sample?
A) 86%
B) 58%
C) 42%
D) 35%
E) 13.5%
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
96
96) Given the following reactions:
Fe + Br2 → FeBr2
3 FeBr2 + Br2 → Fe3Br8
If each reaction is 82.0% efficient, what mass of Fe 3Br8 is produced from 1.00 g Fe?
A) 4.81 g
B) 3.94 g
C) 2.65 g
D) 3.24 g
E) 2.57 g
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
97) 306 mL of a 0.208 M solution of silver nitrate will react with 146 mL of a 0.170 M solution of
sodium phosphate to produce how many grams of silver phosphate precipitate? The balanced reaction is:
3 AgNO3 + Na3PO4 → Ag3PO4 + 3 NaNO3
A) 8.88 g
B) 26.6 g
C) 14.2 g
D) 10.4 g
E) 1.51 g
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
98) How many grams of sulfuric acid, H2SO4, can be obtained from 400 grams of iron ore if the ore is
80.0% by mass FeS? The reactions involved are given below.
4 FeS + 7O2 → 2 Fe2O3 + 4 SO2
2 SO2 + O2 → 2 SO3
SO3 + H2O → H2SO4
A) 557 g
B) 446 g
C) 357 g
D) 287 g
E) 89.3 g
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
97
99) How many grams of iron(II) sulfide is required to make 225 g of sulfuric acid, H2SO4? The
reactions involved are given below.
4 FeS + 17O2 → 2 Fe2O3 + 4 SO2
2 SO2 + O2 → 2 SO3
SO3 + H2O → H2SO4
A) 101 g
B) 251 g
C) 126 g
D) 202 g
E) 502 g
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
100) What thickness (in cm) is the silicon block (density = 2.33 g/cm 3) that is 2.87 cm wide and long
necessary to react with 91.3 g of Cr2O3 by the reaction: 3 Si (s) + 2 Cr2O3 (s) → 3 SiO2 (s) + 4 Cr (l)?
A) 2.05 cm
B) 1.32 cm
C) 3.08 cm
D) 8.98 cm
E) 3.79 cm
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
98
Gases
1) Pressure is a force per unit area with the SI unit of 1 pascal

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
2) The relationship between the "absolute temperature" on the Kelvin scale and the Celsius temperature
is given by T(K) = 5/8[t(°C)] - 32
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
3) Liquid mercury freezes at a temperature of -39°C. The freezing point of mercury on the Kelvin scale
is 234 K
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
4) The statement, "For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, gas volume is inversely proportional
to gas pressure" is known as Charles' Law .
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
5) The ideal gas equation connects three basic variables: volume, amount, and temperature of a gas.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
6) Gas densities depend strongly on gas temperature and pressure.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 3 Type: TF
7) A gaseous mixture consists of 50.0% O2, 25.0% N2, and 25.0% Cl2, by mass. At standard
temperature and pressure, the partial pressure of N2(g) is equal to 0.20 atm.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3 Type: TF
8) According to the kinetic-molecular theory of gases, at constant temperature, all particles have equal
translational kinetic energy.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
99
9) If someone were to light a cigar at one end of a closed room, persons at the other end of the room
might soon perceive an odor due to gaseous emissions from the cigar. Such a phenomenon is an example
of effusion.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
10) The mutual attraction of gas molecules is an important aspect of van der Waals' equation.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
11) Convert 8.50 kg/cm2 to the equivalent pressure in atmospheres.

A) 8.78 atm
B) 1.12 atm
C) 9.53 atm
D) 8.23 atm
E) 7.47 atm
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
12) Convert to the equivalent pressure in atmospheres, 4.32 × 105 N/m2.

A) 4.26 atm
B) 4.38 × 1010 atm
C) 4.26 × 103 atm
D) 3.31 × 105 atm
E) 0.235 atm
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
13) To increase the volume of a fixed amount of gas from 100 cm 3 to 200 cm3:
A) increase the temperature from 25.0 to 50.0°C at constant pressure
B) increase the pressure from 1.00 to 2.00 atm at constant temperature
C) reduce the temperature from 400 K to 200 K at constant pressure
D) reduce the pressure from 608 mm Hg to 0.40 atm at constant temperature
E) decrease the temperature from 600 K to 400 K
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
100
14) If gas volume is doubled but the temperature remains constant:
A) the pressure stays the same
B) the molecules move faster
C) the final pressure is twice the pressure before the volume change.
D) the molecules move slower
E) the final pressure is 1/2 of the pressure before the volume change.
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
15) The relationship between the "absolute temperature" on the Kelvin scale and the Celsius temperature
is given by:
A) T(K) = t(°C) + 273.15
B) t(°C) = T(K) + 273.15
C) T(K) = 5/8[t(°C)] - 32
D) T(K) = 8/5[t(°C)] + 32
E) t(°C) = 98.6 + T(K)
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
16) The statement, "For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, gas volume is inversely
proportional to gas pressure." is known as:
A) Avogadro's Law
B) Boyle's Law
C) Charles' Law
D) Graham's Law
E) Kelvin's Law
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
17) Two containers are connected by an open tube. One container (A) is at 300 K, the other (B) is at 600
K. These two containers must have:
A) equal number of moles
B) greater pressure in A than B
C) greater pressure in B than A
D) equal volume
E) none of these
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC
101
18) Of the following values, the most likely to be observed for the volume of 1.00 mole of He(g) at 0°C
and 1000 atm is:
A) 17.4 mL
B) 46 mL
C) 22.4 mL
D) 11.2 mL
E) 22.4 L
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
19) 2.24 L NH3(g) at 2.0 atm and 0°C:

A) contains 0.050 mole NH3
B) weighs 1.70 g
C) contains 6.02 × 1022 molecules of NH3
D) contains 3.6 × 1023 H atoms
E) contains 3.6 × 1023 N atoms
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
20) Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of the following gases would have the lowest density at
standard temperature and pressure?
A) SF6
B) CF2Cl2
C) CO2
D) N2
E) Kr
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
21) 53.5 g of an ideal gas of molecular weight = 30.5 g/mol is confined at a pressure of 133 mmHg. The
density of the gas is 0.228 g/L. Compute the temperature of the gas in degrees Celsius.
A) 261°C
B) 12.°C
C) -57°C
D) 285°C
E) -12.°C
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
102
22) What volume of acetylene gas, C2H2, would be required at 0°C and 1 atm to obtain a 200.0 g C2H2
sample?
A) 4480 L
B) 1.309 × 105 L
C) 320.0 L
D) 0.6304 L
E) 172.1 L
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
23) What volume would be occupied by 4.8 g of oxygen gas at 0.50 atm and 133°C?
A) 19 L
B) 13 L
C) 10 L
D) 6.7 L
E) 3.3 L
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
24) Of the following gases, the one with the greatest density at STP is:
A) CH4
B) NH3
C) Ne
D) H2
E) He
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
25) In the reaction 2 Na + 2 H2O → 2 NaOH + H2, how many liters of hydrogen at STP are produced
from 50.0 grams of sodium (Na = 23.0, O = 16.0, H = 1.0 g/mol)?
A) (55.0/18.0)(22.4) L
B) (50.0/23.0)(22.4/2) L
C) (50.0/23.0)(2)(22.4) L
D) (50.0/23.0)(22.4) L
E) (55.0/23.0)(22.4) L
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
103
26) When one volume of CO reacts with one volume of Cl2 phosgene is obtained as the only product.
What is empirical formula of phosgene?
A) COCl2
B) C2O2Cl2
C) C2O2Cl
D) C3O3Cl2
E) COCl4
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
27) In the reaction Fe2O3 + 3 H2 → 2 Fe + 3 H2O, how many moles of iron can be produced using
17.4 liters of hydrogen at STP?
A) (17.4/22.4)(2/3) mol
B) (17.4/22.4)(3/2) mol
C) (17.4)(2/3) mol
D) (17.4/22.4) mol
E) (17.4)(22.4/3) mol
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
28) In the reaction:

2 Al(s) + 6 HCl(aq) → 2 AlCl3(aq) + 3 H2(g)
A) 67.2 L of H2(g) at STP is collected for every mole of Al reacted
B) 33.6 L of H2(g) is collected for every mole of Al reacted, regardless of the temperature and pressure
C) 1.24 cm3 H2(g) at STP is collected for every milligram of Al reacted
D) 6 L HCl(aq) is consumed for every 3 L H2(g) produced
E) 22.4 L of H2(g) is produced for every mole of Al reacted
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
29) Subtracting the vapor pressure of water from the total pressure of a gas collected over water is an
example of the application of:
A) Avogadro's Hypothesis
B) Dalton's Law
C) Graham's Law
D) van der Waals Theory
E) ideal gas law
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
104
30) The addition of 2.0 g He(g) to a vessel of 10.0 L fixed volume already containing O 2(g) at 25°C and
740 mmHg will:
A) have no effect on the final gas pressure
B) cause the final pressure to exceed 2 atm
C) produce a 20% increase in gas pressure
D) bring the final pressure to just slightly more than 1 atm
E) cause the final pressure to exceed 4 atm
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
31) If a liter of CO2 is compared to a liter of H2, both at 25°C and one atmosphere pressure, then:
A) the CO2 and H2 molecules have the same average speed
B) there are more H2 molecules than CO2 molecules
C) the average kinetic energy of the CO2 molecules is greater than that of the H2 molecules
D) the CO2 molecules are, on the average, moving more slowly than the H2 molecules
E) the mass of one liter of CO2 equals the mass of one liter of H2
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
32) A gaseous mixture consists of 50.0% O2, 25.0% N2, and 25.0% Cl2, by mass. At standard
temperature and pressure, the partial pressure of:
A) Cl2(g) is greater than 0.25 atm
B) O2(g) is equal to 380 torr
C) Cl2(g) is less than 0.25 atm
D) N2(g) is equal to 0.20 atm
E) O2(g) is equal to 1.6 atm
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC
33) Three volumes of O2 and one volume of CH4 are placed in a sealed container. The temperature and
pressure of this mixture are 120°C and 600 kPa. What is the pressure in the same container after the
explosion of the mixture and after it was cooled to the initial temperature?
A) 350 kPa
B) 600 kPa
C) 950 kPa
D) 750 kPa
E) 575 kPa
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
105
34) A balloon with volume 750 cm3 is filled with O2 at 27°C has a mass of 83.3 g. The mass of empty
balloon is 82.1 g. Calculate the pressure of O2.
A) 125 kPa
B) 150 kPa
C) 250 kPa
D) 75 kPa
E) 400 kPa
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
35) The energy of molecules of a gas:

A) is dependent on concentration
B) is distributed over a wide range at constant temperature
C) is the same for all molecules at constant temperature
D) increases with a decrease in temperature
E) increases with an increase in pressure
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
36) Which of the following is a characteristic of an ideal gas?

A) Gas cannot be compressed infinitely.
B) Inter-particle forces are prominent.
C) Collisions between gas particles are perfectly elastic
D) Collisions between gas particles and container walls are not elastic
E) Individual gas particles occupy fixed volume.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
37) Calculate urms, in m/s, for H2(g) molecules at 30°C.

A) 6.09 × 102 m/s
B) 5.26 × 103 m/s
C) 6.12 × 101 m/s
D) 1.94 × 103 m/s
E) 2.74 × 103 m/s
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
106
38) At 27°C and 750 torr, both a 16 g sample of methane gas (CH4) and a 16 g sample of oxygen gas
(O2) will have the same:
A) average molecular velocities
B) average molecular kinetic energies
C) number of gaseous particles
D) total gaseous volumes
E) average effusion rates
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
39) According to the kinetic-molecular theory of gases:

A) gaseous particles are in constant, nonlinear motion
B) at constant temperature, all particles have equal translational kinetic energy
C) the faster a given particle is moving, the greater its translational kinetic energy
D) at constant temperature, average kinetic energy is a function of gas volume
E) all interparticle collisions are completely inelastic
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC
40) If 0.50 mole H2(g) and 1.0 mole He(g) are compared at standard temperature and pressure, the two
gases will:
A) have equal effusion rates
B) have equal average molecular velocities
C) have equal average molecular kinetic energies
D) occupy equal volumes
E) have equal weights
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
41) If 4.800 × 10-5 mol of uranium-238 will effuse through a hole in 125 seconds, how many mol of
uranium-235 will effuse through the same hole in the same amount of time?
A) 4.74 × 10-5 mol
B) 4.77 × 10-5 mol
C) 4.80 × 10-5 mol
D) 4.86 × 10-5 mol
E) 4.83 × 10-5 mol
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
107
42) The fact that a balloon filled with helium will leak more slowly than one filled with hydrogen is
explained by citing:
B) Dalton's Law
C) Graham's Law
E) ideal gas law
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
43) If someone were to light a cigar at one end of a closed room, persons at the other end of the room
might soon perceive an odor due to gaseous emissions from the cigar. Such a phenomenon is an example
of:
A) monometry
B) ideality
C) effusion
D) diffusion
E) barometry
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
44) Under conditions for which chlorine gas has an effusion rate of 2.4 × 10 -6 mol/sec, what would be
the effusion rate for bromine gas, in mol/sec?
A) 1.1 × 10-6 mol/sec
B) 1.6 × 10-6 mol/sec
C) 2.3 × 10-6 mol/sec
D) 3.6 × 10-6 mol/sec
E) 5.4 × 10-6 mol/sec
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
45) The volume correction term in the van der Waals equation is present because:
A) barometers are inaccurate
B) molecules are diatomic
C) molecules attract each other
D) molecules occupy volume
E) molecules repel each other
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
108
46) The mutual attraction of gas molecules is an important aspect of:
B) Dalton's Law
C) Graham's Law
E) ideal gas law
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
47) Gases tend to behave ideally at:

A) low temperature and low pressure
B) low temperature and high pressure
C) high temperature and low pressure
D) high temperature and high pressure
E) gases always behave ideally
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
48) In which of the following cases is the gas most likely to behave as an ideal gas?
A) H2O(g), 375 K, 750 torr
B) He(g), 37.5 K, 7500 torr
C) CH4(g), 37.5°C, 7.5 atm
D) Ne(g), 375°C, 0.75 atm
E) SF6, -37.5°C, 0.75 atm
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC
49) Calculate the height of a column of liquid glycerol (d = 1.26 g/cm3), in meters, required to exert the
same pressure as 4.91 m of water.
A) 4.91 m
B) 3.90 m
C) 6.19 m
D) 3.65 m
E) 5.16 m
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
109
50) Convert to the equivalent pressure in atmospheres, 1250 mmHg.
A) 9.50 × 105 atm
B) 490 atm
C) 1.64 atm
D) 0.608 atm
E) 1.22 atm
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
51) Convert to the equivalent pressure in atmospheres, 421 kPa.

A) 4.27 × 105 atm
B) 320 atm
C) 0.554 atm
D) 0.00415 atm
E) 4.15 atm
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
52) Convert to the equivalent pressure in atmospheres, 780 torr.

A) 0.974 atm
B) 1.03 atm
C) 20 atm
D) 5.93 × 105 atm
E) 5.85 atm
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
53) Calculate the height in meters of a column of liquid glycerol (density = 1.26 g/cm 3) required to exert
the same pressure as 760 mmHg (d = 13.60 g/cm3).
A) 8.20 m
B) 8.20 × 103 m
C) 70.4 m
D) 0.704 m
E) 44.4 m
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
110
54) Calculate the height in meters of a column of liquid ethanol (density = 0.7893 g/cm 3) required to
exert the same pressure as 760 mmHg (d = 13.60 g/cm3).
A) 1.31 × 104 m
B) 13.1 m
C) 70.8 m
D) 0.0708 m
E) 44.1 m
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
55) A 40.2 L constant-volume cylinder containing 2.21 mol He is heated until the pressure reaches 4.20
atm. What is the final temperature?
A) 258 K
B) 658 K
C) 931 K
D) 804 K
E) 1074 K
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
56) Liquid mercury freezes at a temperature of -39 °C. The freezing point of mercury on the Kelvin
scale is ________.
A) 234 K
B) 39 K
C) 312 K
D) 273 K
E) -39 K
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
57) A 50.0 mL canister of Freon-12 (CF2Cl2) was heated in boiling water (100.0°C) until the canister
burst. If the canister was not defective, and had a burst rating of 103.4 bar, what minimum amount of
Freon-12 was in the canister, assuming no volume change before bursting?
A) 9.63 g
B) 11.5 g
C) 20.0 g
D) 27.5 g
E) 75.0 g
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
111
58) A 4.0 L sample of N2(g) at 760 mmHg is compressed, at constant temperature, to 3.2 atm. What is
the final gas volume?
A) 950 L
B) 13 L
C) 59 L
D) 1.3 L
E) 0.77 L
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
59) A sample of helium gas occupies a volume of 38 L at 780 torr and 25°C. What volume would the
gas occupy at 0°C and 1 atm?
A) 40 L
B) 38 L
C) 36 L
D) 34 L
E) 25 L
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
60) A sample of gas has a volume of 2.5 L at 30°C and 720 mmHg. What will be the volume of this gas
at 22°C and 750 mmHg?
A) 1.8 L
B) 3.3 L
C) 2.7 L
D) 2.3 L
E) 2.5 L
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
61) A 500.0 mL sample of O2(g) is at 780 mmHg and 30°C. What will be the new volume if, with
constant pressure and amount of gas, the temperature is decreased to -15°C?
A) 587 mL
B) 250 mL
C) 437 mL
D) 426 mL
E) 500 mL
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
112
62) An automobile tire at 32.0 psi at 25.0°C is driven on a trip. At the end of the trip the pressure is 35.0
psi. What is the temperature of the tire in degrees Celsius?
A) 27.3 °C
B) 22.8 °C
C) 52.9 °C
D) 57.0 °C
E) 60.0 °C
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
63) A gaseous hydrocarbon weighing 0.290 g occupies a volume of 125 mL at 25°C and 760 mmHg.
What is the molar mass of this compound?
A) 113 g/mol
B) 4.76 × 103 g/mol
C) 43.1 g/mol
D) 10.5 g/mol
E) 56.7 g/mol
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
64) A 5.00 L container of unknown gas at 25.0°C has a pressure of 2.45 atm. The mass of the gas is
32.1 g. What gas is in the container?
A) Cl2
B) F2
C) NO2
D) SO3
E) SO2
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
65) A 10.0 L container of unknown gas at 25.0°C contains 87.1 g of gas at 12.5 atm. What gas is in the
container?
A) NH3
B) C2H2
C) SO2
D) F2
E) NO2
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
113
66) Chloroform (CHCl3) became popular as an anesthetic after Queen Victoria delivered her eighth
child while anesthetized by chloroform in 1853. What is the density in grams per liter of chloroform at
35°Cand 850 torr?
A) 4.21 g/L
B) 0.190 g/L
C) 2.14 g/L
D) 4.00 × 103 g/L
E) 5.28 g/L
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
67) Halothane (CHBrClCF3) is one of the modern anesthetics that is nonflammable and relatively safe
for patients. What is the density of halothane in grams per liter at 22°C and 805 torr?
A) 8.63 g/L
B) 7.68 g/L
C) 6.55 × 103 g/L
D) 19.3 g/L
E) 0.130 g/L
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
68) A sample of gas weighs 0.250 g and occupies a volume of 112 cm 3 at 0 °C and 1 atm. The
molecular weight of this gas is ________.
A) 25.0 g/mol
B) 50.0 g/mol
C) 2.23 g/mol
D) 8.0 g/mol
E) 200 g/mol
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
69) What mass of water vapor would occupy a volume of 54 L at 200°C and 76 torr, assuming ideal
behavior?
A) 1.8 g
B) 2.5 g
C) 4.3 g
D) 5.4 g
E) 7.2 g
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
114
70) How many liters of gas is 23.4 grams of nitrogen at 750 mmHg and 28.0°C?
A) 586 L
B) 20.9 L
C) 0.771 L
D) 20.4 L
E) 1.94 L
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
71) Butane (C4H10) is used as a fuel where natural gas is not available. How many grams of butane will
fill a 3.50 liter container at 35.6°C and 758 torr?
A) 0.138 g
B) 69.5 g
C) 422 g
D) 8.01 g
E) 0.0105 g
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
72) Butane (C4H10) is used as a fuel where natural gas is not available. How many grams of butane will
fill a 45.0 liter container at 27°C and 3.05 atm?
A) 26.6 g
B) 3.60 × 103 g
C) 5.58 g
D) 10.4 g
E) 324 g
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
73) How many liters of gas is 10.8 grams of nitrogen at 780 mmHg and 38.0°C?
A) 10.1 L
B) 1.17 L
C) 9.59 L
D) 269 L
E) 0.353 L
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
115
74) Diethyl ether was the first general anesthetic. It was first used in 1846 for surgical procedures. What
is the molar mass of diethyl ether if 3.54 grams is 1.06 liters at 27°C and 1.11 atm?
A) 74.1 g/mol
B) 6.67 g/mol
C) 103 g/mol
D) 91.3 g/mol
E) 84.7 g/mol
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
75) Chloroform became popular as an anesthetic after Queen Victoria delivered her eighth child while
anesthetized by chloroform in 1853. What is the molar mass of chloroform if 4.85 grams is 0.918 liters
at 35°C and 850 torr?
A) 149 g/mol
B) 119 g/mol
C) 123 g/mol
D) 134 g/mol
E) 110 g/mol
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
76) Halothane is one of the modern anesthetics which is nonflammable and relatively safe for patients.
What is the molar mass of halothane if 456 milligrams is 52.8 milliliters at 22°C and 805 torr?
A) 1.06 × 103 g/mol
B) 209 g/mol
C) 197 g/mol
D) 221 g/mol
E) 14.7 g/mol
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
77) Diethyl ether (CH3CH2OCH2CH3) was the first general anesthetic. It was first used in 1846 for
surgical procedures. What is the density in g/L of diethyl ether at 27°C and 1.11 atm?
A) 37.1 g/L
B) 2.03 × 103 g/L
C) 2.71 g/L
D) 3.34 g/L
E) 0.299 g/L
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
116
78) What is the density of carbon dioxide gas at -15°C and 728 torr?
A) 2.17 g L-1
B) 2.08 g L-1
C) 1.99 g L-1
D) 1.84 g L-1
E) 1.27 g L-1
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
79) What pressure must be applied to N2(g) to obtain a density of 2.00 g/L at 25°C?
A) 1.75 atm
B) 0.146 atm
C) 111 atm
D) 3.49 atm
E) 2.29 atm
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
80) Calculate the volume of H2(g) expressed at STP, required to react with 3.00 L of CO(g) at STP in
the following reaction:
3 CO(g) + 7 H2(g) → C3H8(g) + 3 H2O(l)
A) 3.00 L
B) 7.00 L
C) 10.0 L
D) 22.4 L
E) 1.00 L
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
81) Consider the following reaction:

N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g)
What volume of NH3(g) can be produced from 200.0 L of H2(g) if the gases are measured at 350°C and
400 atm pressure?
A) 300.0 L
B) 66.7 L
C) 133.3 L
D) 400.0 L
E) 200.0 L
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
117
82) What volume of oxygen gas, at 533°C and 750 torr, could be produced by the decomposition of 38.1
g of potassium chlorate? The other product is potassium chloride.
A) 35.9 L
B) 31.3 L
C) 30.4 L
D) 20.7 L
E) 10.4 L
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
83) How many liters of H2 are needed to make 327 L of NH3 by the reaction:
N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) → 2 NH3 (g),
if the gases are at the same temperature and pressure?
A) 654 L
B) 491 L
C) 218 L
D) 38.5 L
E) 327 L
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
84) If 250. L of nitrogen reacts with 582 L of hydrogen by the reaction:

N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) → 2 NH3 (g),
how much nitrogen is unreacted? All gases are at the same temperature and pressure.
A) 1.9 × 102 L
B) 3.3 × 102 L
C) 56 L
D) 3.0 × 102 L
E) 41 L
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
85) Phosphine gas oxidizes spontaneously on exposure to air, as represented by:

2 PH3(g) + 3 O2(g) → P2O3(s) + 3 H2O(g)
What volume of oxygen gas, at 720 torr and 37°C, would be consumed in the formation of 22.0 g of
P2O3 by this process?
A) 16.1 L
B) 12.5 L
C) 11.2 L
D) 8.05 L
E) 1.92 L
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
118
86) When 8.21 L of C3H8(g) burn in oxygen, how many liters of oxygen are consumed? All gas
volumes are measured at the same temperature and pressure but not at STP.
A) 57.5 L
B) 41.1 L
C) 1.17 L
D) 1.64 L
E) 23.7 L
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
87) In the reaction CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2 H2O, how many liters of O2 react with 5.0 liters of CH4?
All gas volumes are measured at the same temperature and pressure but not at STP.
A) 0.22 L
B) 10 L
C) 5.0 L
D) 2.5 L
E) 20 L
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
88) The volume in L H2(g) (measured at 22°C and 745 mmHg) required to react with 30.0 L CO(g)
(measured at 0 °C and 760 mmHg) in the reaction 3 CO(g) + 7 H2(g) → C3H8(g) + 3 H2O(l) is:
A) 63.5 L
B) 74.1 L
C) 77.2 L
D) 70.0 L
E) 33.1 L
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
89) The complete combustion of octane, a component of gasoline, is represented by the equation:
2 C8H18(l) + 25 O2(g) → 16 CO2(g) + 18 H2O(l)
How many liters of CO2(g), measured at 63.1°C and 688 mmHg, are produced for every gallon of
octane burned? (1 gal = 3.785 L; density of C8H18(l) = 0.703 g/mL)
A) 7.48 L
B) 7.11 × 102 L
C) 5.68 × 103 L
D) 5.68 L
E) 1.07 × 103 L
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
119
90) A sample of oxygen gas is collected over water at 23°C at a barometric pressure of 751 mmHg (the
vapor pressure of water at 23°C = 21 mmHg). The partial pressure of oxygen gas in the sample collected
is ________.
A) 0.96 atm
B) 21 mmHg
C) 751 mmHg
D) 1.02 atm
E) 44 mmHg
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
91) What volume would be occupied by a mixture of 0.33 g of hydrogen gas and 0.67 g of nitrogen gas
at 157°C and 4.4 atm?
A) 12 L
B) 4.2 L
C) 3.1 L
D) 1.5 L
E) 0.55 L
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
92) What is the volume, in L, occupied by a mixture of 16.0 g Ne(g) and 42.0 g Ar(g) at 15.0 atm
pressure and 25°C?
A) 94.6 L
B) 3.01 L
C) 1.71 L
D) 1.29 L
E) 0.252 L
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
93) A 31.4 mL sample of nitrogen gas was collected over water at 23.7°C and a barometric pressure of
706 mmHg. What mass of nitrogen was collected? [The vapor pressure of water at 23.7°C is 22 mmHg.]
A) 39.3 mg
B) 37.7 mg
C) 34.6 mg
D) 33.4 mg
E) 32.5 mg
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
120
94) A 34.8 mL sample of an unknown, water-insoluble gas was collected over water at 22.6°C and a
barometric pressure of 0.895 atm. When the gas was dried and chilled, it formed 114.6 mg of liquid.
What was the molar mass of this substance? [The vapor pressure of water at 22.6°C is 20. mmHg]
A) 22.9 g/mol
B) 38.4 g/mol
C) 57.3 g/mol
D) 84.2 g/mol
E) 92.0 g/mol
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
95) A 1.37 L vessel contains He at a temperature of 24.5°C and a pressure of 205 mmHg. A 721 mL
vessel contains Ne at a temperature of 36.2°C and a pressure of 0.185 atm. Both of these gases are
placed in a 2.00 L vessel at 302 K. What is the final pressure (in atm) in the 2.00 L vessel?
A) 0.250 atm
B) 0.187 atm
C) 0.0657 atm
D) 0.455 atm
E) 0.390 atm
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
96) In a sample of air at STP, the ratio of the root-mean-square velocity of O2 to that of N2, that is
urms(O2)/urms(N2), is equal to ________.
A) 0.88
B) 0.94
C) 1.00
D) 1.07
E) 1.14
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
97) A gas of twice the molecular weight as CO2 will pass through a small hole how much faster than
CO2?
A) 1/2 as fast
B) 2 times as fast
C) 2 as fast
D) (1/ 2 ) as fast
E) 4 times as fast
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
121
98) A sample of N2(g) effuses through a tiny hole in 19.0 s. How long would it take for a sample of
N2O2(g) to effuse under the same conditions?
A) 27.8 s
B) 13.0 s
C) 8.87 s
D) 40.7 s
E) 19.0 s
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
99) What is the effusion ratio of uranium-238 to uranium-235?

A) 1.000
B) 0.987
C) 1.02
D) 0.994
E) 1.01
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
100) What is the ratio of the diffusion rates of Cl2 and O2? Rate Cl2 : O2 = _______
A) 0.45
B) 0.69
C) 0.47
D) 1.5
E) 0.67
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
122
Thermochemistry
1) A closed system can exchange matter but not energy with the surroundings.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
2) Kinetic energy is the energy of motion.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
3) Heat is usually transferred from a cold object to a hot object.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
4) A system that absorbs heat is an exothermic system.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
5) An expansion of gas by a system means that the system does work.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
6) An expansion of gas by a system means that the internal energy of the system increases.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
7) The maximum amount of work is provided by a reversible process because equilibrium between the
system and the surroundings is always maintained.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
8) The enthalpy of a system is the internal energy minus work

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
9) Enthalpy is an extensive property.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
123
10) The standard enthalpy for diamond and graphite are the same value.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3 Type: TF
11) Although CO is not toxic, there is concern that it causes global warming.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF

A) Kinetic energy is the energy of motion.
B) Potential energy is energy in action.
C) Heat is energy transferred as a result of a temperature difference.
D) Pressure volume work is calculated by w = P ∙ V.
E) Heat moves from a warmer body to a colder one.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC

A) The surroundings are the part of the universe that is studied.
B) Thermal energy is energy associated with random molecular motion.
C) Chemical energy is associated with chemical bonds and intermolecular forces.
D) Energy is the capacity to do work.
E) Work is done when a force acts through a distance.
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC

A) Temperatures of two bodies are equal when the average kinetic energies of the two bodies become
the same.
B) The heat capacity is the quantity of heat required to change the temperature of the system by one
degree.
C) The specific heat is the heat capacity for one mole of substance.
D) The law of conservation of energy can be written: qsystem + qsurroundings = 0.
E) Most metals have low specific heats, as metals can be heated quickly.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
124
15) When power was turned off to a 30.0 gal. water heater, the temperature of the water dropped from
75.0°C to 22.5°C. How much heat was lost to the surroundings?
A) -2.49 × 103 kJ
B) -2.49 × 107 kJ
C) -2.49 × 104 kJ
D) -2.49 × 1010 kJ
E) -2.49 kJ
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
16) 14.0 g of metal at 24.0°C has 250 joules of heat added to it. The metal's specific heat is 0.105 J/g °C.
What is its final temperature?
A) (250)(14.0)/0.105 °C
B) [250/(14.0)(0.105)] °C
C) [(914.0)(0.105)/250] + 24.0 °C
D) (14.0)(0.105)/250 °C
E) (14.0)(0.105)(250) °C
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
17) 1219 joules of heat raise the temperature of 250 g of metal by 64°C. What is the specific heat in J/(g
°C? )
A) (1219)(250)(64) J/(g°C)
B) (64)(250/1219) J/(g°C)
C) (1219)(64/250) J/(g°C)
D) (1219)(250/64) J/(g°C)
E) (1219)/(250 x 64) J/(g°C)
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
18) Lead, water, sulfur, and arsenic have specific heats of 0.128, 4.18, 0.706, and 0.329 J g-1°C-1,
respectively. Which of the following would need the smallest quantity of heat to change the temperature
of 5 g by 10°C?
A) lead
B) water
C) sulfur
D) arsenic
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
125
19) What is the final temperature in the bomb calorimeter if 1.785 grams of benzoic acid (HC 7H5O2) is
combusted in a calorimeter with a heat capacity of 5.02 kJ/°C and initial temperature of 24.62 °C? The
heat of combustion of benzoic acid is -26.42 kJ/g.
A) 51.0°C
B) 29.8°C
C) 31.2°C
D) 15.5°C
E) 33.7°C
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
20) The complete combustion of 1 mole of nitrobenzene, C6H5NO2, in a bomb calorimeter liberates
3088 kJ of heat and increases the temperature of the calorimeter assembly by 140.0 °C. What is the heat
capacity of this bomb calorimeter?
A) 1.25 kJ/°C
B) 4.53 kJ/°C
C) 22.1 kJ/°C
D) 432 kJ/°C
E) 43.1 kJ/°C
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
21) The combustion of 90.0 g of oxalic acid, C2H2O4(s) in a bomb calorimeter whose heat capacity is
4.60 kJ/°C causes the temperature to rise from 25.0°C to 79.6°C. What is the heat of combustion of
oxalic acid?
A) -21.2 kJ/mol
B) -54.6 kJ/mol
C) -126 kJ/mol
D) -211 kJ/mol
E) -251 kJ/mol
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
22) What is the work done in joules by the system when H2 expands against a constant pressure of
75 atm at 45.3°C? The change in volume is 24.0 L.
A) 1.8 × 103 J
B) -8.2 × 104 J
C) 8.2 × 104 J
D) 1.8 × 105 J
E) -1.8 × 105 J
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
126
23) Oxygen gas at 34.5°C expands from 34.5 L to 45.7 L against a constant pressure of 750 mmHg.
What is the work done in joules by the system?
A) 1.12 × 103 J
B) -1.12 × 103 J
C) 9.09 × 104 J
D) -9.09 × 104 J
E) 4.55 × 103 J
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
24) Two solutions, 50.0 mL of 1.00 M BaCl2(aq) and 50.0 mL of 1.00 M Na2SO4(aq), both initially at
21.5°C, are added to a calorimeter with a total heat capacity, after the solutions are added, of 1.10 kJ/°C
and the temperature rises to 22.7°C. Determine qrxn per mole of BaSO4(s) formed in the reaction.
A) -26.4 kJ/mol
B) +26.4 kJ/mol
C) -2.64 kJ/mol
D) +2.64 kJ/mol
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
25) Oxygen gas at 34.5°C is compressed from 45.7 L to 34.5 L against a constant pressure of
750 mmHg. What is the work done in joules by the system?
A) 1.12 × 103 J
B) -1.12 × 103 J
C) 9.09 × 104 J
D) -9.09 × 104 J
E) 4.55 × 103 J
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
26) How much work, in joules, is done when the pressure is suddenly released from 4.56 atm to
1.23 atm on 45.4 g of O2 at 44°C?
A) 386 J
B) -477 J
C) -2.74 × 103 J
D) 2.74 × 103 J
E) 477 J
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
127
27) How much work, in joules, is done when the pressure is suddenly released from 2.05 atm to
1.87 atm on 27.5 g of He at 27°C?
A) 5.2 × 103 J
B) -8.0 × 103 J
C) 8.0 × 103 J
D) -1.5 × 103 J
E) 1.5 × 103 J
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
28) Which of the following are thermodynamic state functions?

I) heat
II) volume
III) temperature
IV) enthalpy
V) density
A) II, III, IV, V
B) I, II, IV, V
C) I, II, III, V
D) II, IV
E) I, III, V
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
29) A system absorbs 623 J of heat while doing 457 J of work. What is the value of ΔU?
A) +1080 J
B) -166 J
C) +166 J
D) -1080 J
E) +623 J
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
30) Enthalpy is defined as:

A) the heat of combustion
B) the energy contained within a system
C) the sum of the internal energy and the pressure-volume product of a system
D) the sum of the kinetic and potential energies
E) the work not limited to pressure volume work
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
128
31) Calculate the work needed to make room for products in the combustion of sulfur, S 8(s), to SO2(g)
at STP.
A) 0 kJ
B) -2.27 kJ
C) -4.54 kJ
D) -18.2 kJ
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
32) 2 NOCl(g) → 2 NO(g) + Cl2(g) ΔH° = +75.56 kJ

2 NO(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO2(g) ΔH° = -113.05 kJ
2 NO2(g) → N2O4(g) ΔH° =-58.03 kJ
Compute ΔH° of N2O4(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 NOCl(g) + O2(g) in kJ.
A) +246.65
B) -95.52
C) -246.65
D) +95.52
E) none of these
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
33) Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of Cl -(aq), given the following thermochemical data at
1 atm, and knowing that the standard enthalpies of formation of H2(g) and H+(aq) are both zero.
HCl(g) → H+(aq) + Cl-(aq) -75.15 kJ
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) -184.62 kJ
A) -167.46 kJ/mol
B) +109.47 kJ/mol
C) -17.16 kJ/mol
D) +34.32 kJ/mol
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
34) From the following thermochemical equations, calculate ΔH°rxn for the reaction:
SO2(g) + NO2(g) → SO3(g) + NO(g)
2 SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2 SO3(g) ΔH°rxn = -197.8 kJ
2 NO(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO2(g) ΔH°rxn = -114.14 kJ
A) -83.66 kJ
B) -311.9 kJ
C) +155.9 kJ
D) -155.9 kJ
E) -41.83 kJ
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
129
35) 2 LiOH(s) → Li2O(s) + H2O(l) ΔH° = 379.1 kJ
LiH(s) + H2O(l) → LiOH(s) + H2(g) ΔH° = -111.0 kJ
2 H2(g) + O2(g) → 2 H2O(l) ΔH° = -285.9 kJ
Compute ΔH° in kJ for 2 LiH(s) + O2(g) → Li2O(s) + H2O(l)
A) +125.2 kJ
B) -17.7 kJ
C) -128.8 kJ
D) -303.6 kJ
E) + 128.8 kJ
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
36) Which of the following has a standard enthalpy of formation of zero?

A) Ar(g)
B) I2(g)
C) Br2(g)
D) O3(g)
E) P(s, red)
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
37) The standard enthalpy of formation of NiSO4(s) at 25 °C is -872.9 kJ/mole. The chemical equation
to which this value applies is:
A) 1/2 Ni(s) + 1/2 S(s) + 1/2 O2(g) → 1/2 NiSO4(s)
B) Ni(s) + S(s) + 4 O(g) → NiSO4(s)
C) Ni(s) + S(s) + 2 O2(g) → NiSO4(s)
D) Ni(s) + 1/8 S8(s) + 1/2 O2(g) → NiSO4(s)
E) NiSO4(s) → Ni(s) + S(s) + 4 O(g)
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
38) The standard enthalpy of formation for CuSO4 ∙ 5H2O(s) is -2278.0 kJ/mole at 25°C. The chemical
equation to which this value applies is:
A) Cu(s) + S(s) + 5 H2O(g) + 2 O2(g) → CuSO4 ∙ 5H2O(s)
B) Cu(s) + S(s) + 9/2 O2(g) + 5 H2(g) → CuSO4 ∙ 5H2O(s)
C) Cu(s) + SO4(g) + 5 H2O(g) → CuSO4 ∙ 5H2O(s)
D) Cu(s) + S(s) + 5/9 O2(g) + 5 H2(g) → CuSO4 ∙ 5H2O(s)
E) 2Cu(s) + 2 SO2(g) + 5 H2O(g) → 2CuSO4 ∙ 5H2O(s)
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
130
39) The standard enthalpy of formation of NH4Cl(s) is -315.4 kJ/mol. The equation that describes this
△H°f is:
A) NH4+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → NH4Cl(s)
B) 1/2 N2(g) + 2H2(g) + 1/2 Cl2(g) → NH4Cl(s)
C) N2(g) + H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 NH4Cl(s)
D) 1/2 N2(g) + 1/2 Cl2(g) + 1/2 H2(g) → NH4Cl(s)
E) N2(g) + Cl2(g) + 4 H2(g) → 2 NH4Cl(s)
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
40) To have a standard enthalpy of formation referenced to 0 J/mol, the substance must:
I) be a simple substance (chemical element)
II) be in its most stable form
III) be under 1 atm of pressure
IV) have a concentration of 1.0000 M
A) I, III, IV
B) I, II, III
C) II, IV
D) I, III
E) II, III, IV
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
41) Calculate the enthalpy change for the following reaction at 25°C. The value of ΔH°f in kJ/mol is
given below each species:
2 Fe2O3(s) + 6 CO(g) → 4 Fe(s) + 6 CO2(g)
-824.2 -110.5 0 -393.5
A) -49.6 kJ
B) 541 kJ
C) -1380 kJ
D) -3350 kJ
E) -24.8 kJ
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
131
42) Calculate the enthalpy change for the following reaction at 25°C. The value of ΔH°f in kJ/mol is
given below each species:
Al3+ (aq) + 3 OH- (aq) → Al(OH)3(s)
-531 -230.0 -1276
A) -515 kJ
B) -55 kJ
C) -975 kJ
D) -1120 kJ
E) -2040 kJ
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
43) Consider the reaction: 4 NH3(g) + 5 O2(g) → 4 NO2(g) + 6 H2O(l)

ΔH°f -46.19 0.00 90.37 -285.85 kJ/mol
Compute ΔH° for this reaction.
A) -622.62 kJ
B) 984.10 kJ
C) -1168.9 kJ
D) -241.67 kJ
E) -149.29 kJ
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
44) Calculate ΔH°f of octane, C8H18(l), given the enthalpy of combustion of octane to CO2(g) and
H2O(l), -5471 kJ/mol, and the standard enthalpies of formation of CO2(g) and H2O(l), -393.5 kJ/mol
and -285.8 kJ/mol, respectively.
A) -249.2 kJ/mol
B) +4792 kJ/mol
C) +249.2 kJ/mol
D) -4792 kJ/mol
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
45) What is the reaction for the standard enthalpy of formation for HCl(g)?
A) H+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → HCl(g)
B) 1/2 H2(g) + 1/2Cl2(l) → HCl(s)
C) NH3(g) + Cl2(g) → NH2Cl(g) + HCl(g)
D) 1/2 H2(g) + 1/2Cl2(g) → HCl(g)
E) 1/2 H2(l) + 1/2Cl2(g) → HCl(l)
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
132
46) What is the reaction for the standard enthalpy of formation for CdSO4(s)? (Cd(s) is the stable form
of cadmium.)
A) Cd(NO3)2(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → 2 HNO3(aq) + CdSO4(s)
B) Cd2+ (aq) + 2 SO42- → CdSO4(s)
C) Cd(s) + 1/8 S8 (s) + 2O2(g) → CdSO4(s)
D) CdO(s) + SO3(l) → CdSO4(s)
E) Cd(s) + 1/8 S8 (s) + 4O(g) → CdSO4(s)
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
47) What is the reaction for the standard enthalpy of formation for Mn2O3(s)? (Mn(s) is the stable form
of manganese.)
A) Mn(s) + 3/4 O2(g) → 1/2 Mn2O3(s)
B) MnO(s) + MnO2(s) → Mn2O3(s)
C) 2 Mn(s) + O3(g) → Mn2O3(s)
D) 2 MnO(s) + 1/2 O3(g) → Mn2O3(s)
E) 2Mn (s) + 3/2 O2 (g) → Mn2O3(s)
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
48) An example of a fossil fuel is:

A) the sun
B) chlorophyll
C) water
D) natural gas
E) carbon dioxide
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
49) Coal contains an impurity that reacts with oxygen during the combustion process, producing oxides
that are major environmental pollutants. This impurity is:
A) acid rain
B) nitrogen
C) sulfur
D) carbon dioxide
E) peat
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
133
50) The heat of combustion of several fuels are listed in the table below. On a per gram basis, which fuel
releases the most energy?
Fuel △Hcomb (kJ/mole)
C(s) -393.5
CH4(g) -890.8
CH3OH(l) 726.1
C3H8(g) 2219.2
H2(g) -285.8
A) C(s)
B) CH4(g)
C) CH3OH(l)
D) C3H8(g)
E) H2(g)
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC
51) How much heat is needed to raise the temperature of 5.28 gal of water from 25.0°C to 88.0°C (1 gal
= 3.785 L)?
A) 5260 kJ
B) 997 kJ
C) 1390 kJ
D) 316 kJ
E) 133 kJ
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
52) The final temperature when 150 mL of water at 90.0°C is added to 100.0 mL of water at 30.0°C is
around ________.
A) 90 °C
B) 120 °C
C) 30 °C
D) 60 °C
E) 25 °C
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
134
53) 1674 J of heat are absorbed by 25.0 mL of NaOH (d = 1.10 g/mL, specific heat = 4.10 J/g °C). The
temperature of the NaOH goes up how many degrees?
A) 14.8 °C
B) 18.0 °C
C) 17.2 °C
D) 14.2 °C
E) 19.1 °C
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
54) Calculate the quantity of heat, in kJ, required to raise the temperature of a 2.15 kg iron bar 24.0°C
(specific heat of iron = 0.473 J/g °C).
A) 109 kJ
B) 51.6 kJ
C) 23.6 kJ
D) 24.4 kJ
E) 11.3 kJ
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
55) How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 175 g of aluminum from 21.0°C to 145°C?
The specific heat of aluminum is 0.903 J g-1 °C-1.
A) 19.6 kJ
B) 24.0 kJ
C) 1.27 J
D) 22.9 kJ
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
56) A 12-inch diameter ball of pure cobalt metal at 225°C was placed in 10.0 gal. of water at 15.0°C.
What is the final temperature of the water? Assume no heat is lost to the surroundings. (sp ht for cobalt
is 0.421 J/g °C, density of cobalt = 8.862 g/cm3, 1 gal. = 3.785 L, 1 in = 2.54 cm, V(sphere) = 4/3 πr3)
A) 169°C
B) 120°C
C) 69.3°C
D) 22.5°C
E) 45.6°C
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
135
57) 100.0 g of nickel at 150 °C was placed in 1.00 L of water at 25.0°C. The final temperature of the
nickel-water mixture was 26.3°C. What is the specific heat of the nickel?
A) 0.14 J/g °C
B) 0.13 J/g °C
C) 0.55 J/g °C
D) 0.44 J/g °C
E) 0.23 J/g °C
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
58) 500 g of Al is heated to 100.0°C and dropped into a l00.0 g glass beaker that contains 200.0 g of
H2O. The temperature of the glass and water is 20.0°C. What is the final temperature? (Specific heat of
Al = 0.29 J/g °C, specific heat of glass = 0.84 J/g °C)
A) 46.6 °C
B) 50.0 °C
C) 25.0 °C
D) 30.9 °C
E) 28.9 °C
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
59) 100.0 g of Cu (specific heat = 0.385 J/g °C) at 100.0°C is added to 140.0 mL of H2O (specific heat
= 4.184 J/g °C) at 25.0°C.
What is the final temperature of the mixture?
A) 56.3 °C
B) 29.6 °C
C) 62.5 °C
D) 91.4 °C
E) 33.7 °C
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
60) Calculate the amount of heat absorbed by a 40.0 g sample of water at 21°C when the temperature is
raised to 35°C.
A) 5.9 kJ
B) -0.56 kJ
C) 0.56 kJ
D) -2.3 kJ
E) 2.3 kJ
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
136
61) A mixture of 125 g of iron and 250 g of water is heated from 25.0°C to 70.0°C. How much heat is
absorbed by the mixture? (Specific heat of water = 4.18 J/g °C; iron = 0.473 J/g °C)
A) 49.7 kJ
B) 59.6 kJ
C) 47.0 kJ
D) 2.66 kJ
E) 27.6 kJ
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
62) 246 g of hot coffee at 86.0°C are placed in a 137 g mug at 20.0°C. The specific heat of coffee is 4.00
J/g °C, while that of the mug is 0.752 J/g °C. Assuming no heat is lost to the surroundings, what is the
final temperature of the system: mug + coffee?
A) 79.7 °C
B) 93.7 °C
C) 98.4 °C
D) 76.0 °C
E) 53.0 °C
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
63) 250.0 g of hot coffee at 95.0°C are placed in a 0.2000 kg mug at 20.0°C. The specific heat of the
coffee is 4.00 J/g °C, while that of the mug is 0.80 J/g °C. Assuming no heat is lost to the surroundings,
what is the final temperature of the system: mug + coffee?
A) 61.7 °C
B) 117 °C
C) 76.0 °C
D) 57.5 °C
E) 84.7 °C
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
64) Many people believe that coffee (sp ht = 4.18 J/g °C) may be cooled by placing a silver spoon (sp ht
= 0.237 J/g °C) in the coffee. If 250 ml (d = 1.00 g/mL) of coffee at 200°F had a spoon at 70°F placed in
it, what would be the final Celsius temperature of the spoon and coffee, assuming that no heat is lost to
the surroundings? The mass of the spoon is 35 g.
A) 92.2°C
B) 72.2°C
C) 57.2°C
D) 82.0°C
E) 199°C
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
137
65) A sample gives off 2505 cal when burned in a bomb calorimeter. The calorimeter assembly
increases by 2.24°C. What is the heat capacity of the calorimeter?
A) 8.92 kcal/°C
B) 1.12 kcal/°C
C) 2.51 kcal/°C
D) 5.61 kcal/°C
E) 2.65 kcal/°C
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
66) What is the heat of combustion in kJ/g of benzoic acid (HC 7H5O2) if the initial temperature was
22.62°C, the final temperature was 31.10°C, the heat capacity of the bomb calorimeter was 4.88 kJ/°C,
and 1.567 grams were combusted?
A) -26.4
B) -64.8
C) -9.99
D) -41.4
E) 35.5
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
67) Cyclohexanol, C6H12O, has a heat of combustion of -890.7 kcal/mol. A sample containing only
0.708 g of cyclohexanol undergoes complete combustion in a bomb calorimeter that has a heat capacity
of 2.70 kcal/°C. What is the final temperature if the initial water temperature is 27.0°C?
A) 24.7 °C
B) 29.3 °C
C) 27.4 °C
D) 26.6 °C
E) 31.4 °C
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
68) 5.04 × 10-3 mole of a compound is added to 41.0 g of water in a styrofoam cup and stirred until it
dissolves. The temperature of the solution changes from 23.460°C to 23.420°C. What is the heat of
solution of the compound expressed in kJ/mol? Assume the specific heat of the solution is 4.18 J/g °C.
A) -0.035 J/mol
B) 1.4 kJ/mol
C) -1.4 kJ/mol
D) -2.8 kJ/mol
E) 2.8 kJ/mol
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
138
69) Two solutions, 250.0 mL of 1.00 M CaCl2(aq) and 250.0 mL of 1.00 M K2SO4(aq), are added to a
calorimeter with a total heat capacity, after the solutions are added, of 1.25 kJ/°C and the temperature
decreased by 2.40°C. Determine qrxn per mole of CaSO4(s) formed in the reaction.
A) +12.0 kJ/mol
B) -12.0 kJ/mol
C) +6.00 kJ/mol
D) -6.00 kJ/mol
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
70) What is the work in joules done on the system to compress He gas from 24.0 L to 12.5 L against a
pressure of 1.5 atm at a constant temperature of 37.4°C?
A) 5.5 × 103 J
B) -17 J
C) 17 J
D) 1.7 × 103 J
E) -1.7 × 103 J
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
71) Calculate ΔU for a system that loses 475 kJ of heat and does 155 kJ of expansion work on the
surroundings.
A) -630 kJ
B) -320 kJ
C) +630 kJ
D) +320 kJ
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
72) If 356 J of work is done by a system while it loses 289 J of heat, what is the value of ΔU ?
A) +645 J
B) -645 J
C) +67 J
D) -67 J
E) +134 J
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
139
73) The complete combustion of propane, C3H8(g), is represented by the equation:
C3H8(g) + 5 O2(g) → 3 CO2(g) + 4 H2O(l) ΔH° = -2220 kJ
How much heat is evolved in the complete combustion of 2.50 g C 3H8(g)?
A) 245 kJ
B) 50.4 kJ
C) 126 kJ
D) 5.56 kJ
E) 2.22 kJ
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
74) Complete combustion of 75.0 g acetylene, C2H2, liberated 3750 kJ of heat. What is the heat of
combustion, ΔHcomb, of acetylene?
A) -50.0 kJ/mol
B) +50.0 kJ/mol
C) +1302 kJ/mol
D) -1302 kJ/mol
E) -0.521 kJ/mol
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
75) The heat of combustion of methane is -50.38 kJ/mol. How many moles of methane must be burned
to produce 137 kJ of heat?
A) 6.90 mol
B) 0.367 mol
C) 2.72 mol
D) 1.37 mol
E) 0.272 mol
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
76) A certain reaction releases 10.1 kJ at constant volume and at constant pressure releases 8.4 kJ. What
is △U for the reaction?
A) -10.1 kJ
B) -8.4 kJ
C) +8.4 kJ
D) -1.7 kJ
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
140
How much heat is evolved in the complete combustion of 20.0 L C 3H8(g) at STP?
A) 2486 kJ
B) 1007 kJ
C) 994 kJ
D) 1982 kJ
E) 495 kJ
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
78) For the reaction H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → H2O(g) ΔH° = -241.8 kJ/mol,
what mass of H2(g) is required to liberate 1.00 × 103 kJ of heat?
A) 66.2 g
B) 4.17 g
C) 8.34 g
D) 2.05 g
E) 16.7 g
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI

How much heat is evolved in the complete combustion of 12.5 L C 3H8(g) at 25°C and 790 mmHg?
A) 8.27 × 104 kJ
B) 1.41 × 104 kJ
C) 653 kJ
D) 168 kJ
E) 1180 kJ
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
what quantity of heat is liberated by the reaction of 10.0 L of O2 measured at 22.0°C and 742 mmHg?
A) 120 kJ
B) 2610 kJ
C) 1310 kJ
D) 195 kJ
E) 97.5 kJ
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
141
what quantity of heat, in kJ, evolved when a 72.0 g mixture containing equal parts of H2 and O2, by
mass, is burned?
A) 8630 kJ
B) 4860 kJ
C) 1088 kJ
D) 272 kJ
E) 544 kJ
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
82) How much heat is involved in the complete combustion of 2.50 kg propane, C 3H8?
ΔHcomb = -2219 kJ/mol.
A) 1.26 × 105 kJ
B) 5.55 × 103 kJ
C) 126 kJ
D) 503 kJ
E) 49.7 kJ
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
83) Determine △H° for the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide.

1
H2O2(l) → O2(g) + H2O(l)
2
Given: H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O2(l) △H° = -187.78 kJ
1
H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(l) △H° = -285.83 kJ
2
A) -98.05 kJ
B) +93.89 kJ
C) -191.94 kJ
D) -93.89 kJ
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
142
84) Given the reactions below, compute ΔH° for the reaction:
(ΔH's are all given in kJ)
2 MnO2(s) + CO(g) → Mn2O3(s) + CO2(g)
Reaction ΔH°rxn
MnO2(s) + CO(g) → MnO(s) + CO2(g) - 150.6
Mn3O4(s) + CO(g) → 3 MnO(s) + CO2(g) - 54.4
3 Mn2O3(s) + CO(g) → 2 Mn3O4(s) + CO2(g) - 142.3
A) -347.3 kJ
B) -46.1 kJ
C) -217.1 kJ
D) -104.5 kJ
E) -389.1 kJ
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
85) Combine the reactions:

P4(s) + 6 Cl2(g) → 4 PCl3(g) ΔH°298 = -1225.0 kJ
PCl3(g) + 3 H2O(l) → H3PO3(aq) + 3 HCl(aq) = - 853.5 kJ
2 H2(g) + O2(g) → 2 H2O(l) = - 571.5 kJ
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 HCl(g) = - 184.9 kJ
to obtain the reaction: P4(s) + 6 H2(g) + 6 O2(g) → 4 H3PO3(aq).
What is the value of ΔH°298 for this reaction?
A) -2465.1 kJ
B) -6958.6 kJ
C) -2834.9 kJ
D) -9177.4 kJ
E) 8605.9 kJ
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
86) Some "beetles" defend themselves by spraying hot quinone, C 6H4O2(l), at their enemies. Calculate
△H° for this reaction.
C6H4(OH)2(l) + H2O2(l) → C6H4O2(l) + 2H2O(l)
Given: C6H4(OH)2(l) → C6H4O2(l) + H2(g) +177.4 kJ
The standard enthalpies of formation of H2O2(l) and H2O(l) are -187.4 and -285.8 kJ/mol, respectively.
A) -206.8 kJ
B) -384.2 kJ
C) -561.6 kJ
D) +79.00 kJ
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
Reference: Sections 7-7, 7-8
143
3
87) H2S(g) + O2(g) → H2O (liq) + SO2(g) ΔH° = -562.3 kJ
2
1/8 S8(s) + O2(g) → SO(g) ΔH° = -297.0 kJ
1
H2(g) + O2 → H2O (liq) ΔH° = -266.9 kJ
2
Compute ΔH° for H2(g) + 1/8 S8 (s) → H2S(g) in kJ.
A) 562.3 kJ
B) 276.6 kJ
C) 265.3 kJ
D) 20.5 kJ
E) -1.6 kJ
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
88) Given the following thermochemical equations:

(kJ)
4 FeS2(s) + 11O2(g) → 2 Fe2O3(s) + 8 SO2(g) ΔH° = -3307.9
2 H2S(g) + 3O2(g) → 2 H2O(l) + 2 SO2(g) - 1125.2
4 FeO(s) + O2(g) → 2 Fe2O3(s) - 578.2
2 Fe(s) + O2(g) → 2 FeO(s) - 544
H2(g) + S(rh) → H2S(g) - 20.2
2 H2(g) + O2(g) → 2 H2O(l) - 571.7
Compute the ΔH°f for FeS2(s) in kJ/mol.

A) -1233.9 kJ
B) -2893.9 kJ
C) -24.3 kJ
D) -183.5 kJ
E) -70.0 kJ
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
144
89) Using the heat of combustion of methanol as -726.6 kJ and the following data:
C(graph) + 1/2O2 → CO(g) ΔH° = -110.5 kJ
C(graph) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ΔH° = -393.5 kJ
H2(g) + 1/2O2(g) → H2O(l) ΔH° = -285.8 kJ
Determine ΔH° for the following reaction:
CO(g) + 2 H2(g) → CH3OH(l)
A) -349 kJ
B) 157.8 kJ
C) -157.8 kJ
D) 128 kJ
E) -128 kJ
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
90) Compute ΔH°rxn for the following reaction. The value of ΔH°f in kJ/mol is given below each
species:
2 CaO(s) + 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2 CaSO4(s)
-635.5 -296.9 0.0 -1432.7
A) -1000.6 kJ
B) -500.3 kJ
C) 500.3 kJ
D) -2365.1 kJ
E) -1094.1 kJ
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
91) Consider the reaction: CO2(g) + 2HCl(g) → COCl2(g) + H2O(l)

ΔH°f -393.51 -92.30 -223.01 -285.85 kJ/mol
A) -994.67 kJ
B) 23.05 kJ
C) -23.05 kJ
D) 69.25 kJ
E) -69.25 kJ
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
145
92) Given the heat of formation of the following compounds:
CO2(g) ΔH°f = -393.5 kJ/mol
H2O(l) ΔH°f = -285.9 kJ/mol
CH3OH(l) ΔH°f = -238.6 kJ/mol
What is the value of ΔH for the reaction:
CH3OH(l) + 3/2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(l)
A) -440.8 kJ
B) -416.9 kJ
C) -1203.9 kJ
D) -346.2 kJ
E) -726.7 kJ
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
93) Given that ΔH°f [CO(g)] = -110.5 kJ/mol and ΔH°f [COCl2(g)] = -219.1 kJ/mol, what is the
enthalpy of reaction for the formation of phosgene, COCl2 from carbon monoxide, CO, and chlorine
gas, Cl2(g)?
A) +110.5 kJ
B) -110.5 kJ
C) +329.6 kJ
D) -108.6 kJ
E) -219.1 kJ
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
94) Determine the enthalpy change in the following equation:

2 NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3 H2(g)
ΔH°f NH3(g) = -46.11 kJ/mol
A) 92.22 kJ
B) 46.11 kJ
C) 5.42 kJ
D) -92.22 kJ
E) -46.11 kJ
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
146
95) Compute ΔH°rxn for the following reaction. The value of ΔH°f in kJ/mol is given below each
species:
PCl5(g) + 4 H2O(l) → H3PO4(s) + 5 HCl(g)
-398.9 -285.9 -1281.1 -92.30
A) -688.6 kJ
B) -200.1 kJ
C) -74.9 kJ
D) -1000.6 kJ
E) -900.3 kJ
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
96) The heat of combustion, ΔHcomb, of 1-butene(l), C4H8(l), is -2696.9 kJ/mole. From the following
values of ΔH°f CO2(g) = -393.5 kJ/mol and ΔH°f H2O(l) = -285.8 kJ/mol, calculate the standard
enthalpy of formation of butene(l).
A) +2017 kJ
B) -2017 kJ
C) -3376 kJ
D) -107.7 kJ
E) -20.30 kJ
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
97) Given that ΔH°f [Ag2S(s)] = -32.6 kJ/mole, what is the enthalpy change for the precipitation of
argentite, Ag2S(s)?
ΔH°f [Ag+(aq)] = +105.6 kJ/mol
ΔH°f [S2-(aq)] = +33.05 kJ/mol
A) -276.9 kJ/mol
B) -106.1 kJ/mol
C) +171.2 kJ/mol
D) +106.1 kJ/mol
E) +138.7 kJ/mol
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
147
98) What is the enthalpy of reaction for the neutralization reaction occurring between dilute
Ba(OH)2(aq) and dilute HNO3(aq)? Values of ΔH°f from data tables are given below.
Hint: Balance the equation so the coefficients are the lowest possible set of whole numbers.
Species ΔH°f(kJ/mol)
Ba2+(aq) -537.6
-
OH (aq) -230.0
+
H (aq) 0
-
NO3 (aq) -205.0
H2O(l) -285.8
A) +426.0 kJ
B) -111.6 kJ
C) -426.0 kJ
D) -571.6 kJ
E) -460.0 kJ
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI

2/3 H2S(g) + O2(g) → 2/3 SO2(g) + 2/3 H2O(l)
ΔH°f H2O(l) = -285.8 kJ/mol
ΔH°f H2S(g) = -20.63 kJ/mol
ΔH°f SO2(g) = -296.8 kJ/mol
A) -562 kJ
B) -375 kJ
C) 375 kJ
D) -402 kJ
E) 402 kJ
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI

Cl2(g) + H2O(l) → 2 HCl(g) + 1/2 O2(g)
ΔH°f H2O(l) = -285.8 kJ/mol
ΔH°f HCl(g) = -92.31 kJ/mol
A) 193.5 kJ
B) -470.4 kJ
C) 470.4 kJ
D) 101.2 kJ
E) -101.2 kJ
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
148
101) The standard heat of formation of solid ammonium bromide is -270.8 kJ/mol. Write the chemical
equation for the reaction to which this value applies.
1 1
Answer: N2(g) + 2 H2(g) + Br2(l) → NH4Br(s)
2 2
Diff: 2 Type: SA
Periodicity and Atomic Properties
1) The inner transition elements include the actinides and the lanthanides.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
2) Moseley used X-rays to determine the atomic mass of each element.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
3) Ions always adopt the electron configuration of a nobel gas.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
4) The covalent radius, metallic radius, and the ionic radius are all equal.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
5) The ionization energy is the energy for a gaseous atom to lose an electron.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
6) The electron affinity is opposite to the ionization energy.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
7) The electron affinity is the energy for an atom in its standard state to gain an electron.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
8) An atom with an even number of electrons is always diamagnetic.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
149
9) Paramagnetic is not the same as magnetic.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
150
10) A metallic oxide plus water forms an acid.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
11) Why was Moseley so sure from his X-ray work that there were no other undiscovered elements
besides the three that he predicted in the range of atomic numbers 13-79?
A) The rows on the periodic table were filled.
B) The columns of the periodic table were full.
C) All of the possible atomic weights were assigned.
D) All of the integer atomic numbers were assigned.
E) Mendeleev didn't predict any more.
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
12) Elements in the first two groups are part of the main-group elements along with which of the
following groups?
A) d-block elements
B) s-block elements
C) actinides
D) lanthanides
E) p-block elements
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
13) The transition elements refer to what group of elements?

A) s-block elements
B) d-block elements
C) actinides
D) lanthanides
E) p-block elements
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
14) The actinides refer to what group of elements?

A) s-block elements
B) d-block elements
C) f-block elements of atomic number 58 through 71
D) f-block elements of atomic number 90 through 103
E) p-block elements
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
151
15) Plutonium is among a group of elements referred to as:
A) antinides
B) alkalides
C) chalcocides
D) halides
E) lanthanides
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
16) Which of the following pairs of elements are classified as metalloids?

A) aluminum and silicon
B) argon and neon
C) arsenic and germanium
D) bromine and sulfur
E) copper and silver
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
17) Which of the following could never be isoelectronic species?

A) anions of two different elements
B) cations of two different elements
C) an anion and a cation
D) an anion and an atom
E) atoms of two different elements
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
18) Most transition elements form some monatomic ions that are not:
A) isoelectronic with any other cations
B) isoelectronic with any noble gas
C) isoelectronic with any neutral atom
D) isoelectronic with any other species
E) isoelectronic with any other transition metal ion
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
152
19) The ion represented as 48
22Ti
4+ has:
A) 22 electrons
B) 48 neutrons
C) 26 protons
D) 4 3d electrons
E) 0 4s electrons
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
20) The similar chemical behavior of the elements in a given group in the periodic table is best
accounted for by the fact that atoms of these elements have:
A) the same number of isotopes
B) the same number of electrons
C) the same number of electrons in the outermost (valence) shell
D) similar nuclear structures
E) the same number of protons
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
21) What is the ground state electron configuration for iron(III)?

A) [Ar]3d5
B) [Ar]4s23d3
C) [Ar]4s13d4
D) [Ar]4s24p3
E) [Ar]4p5
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
22) What is the general electronic configuration (where n = principal quantum number) that best
describes the halogens as a group?
A) ns1np6
B) ns2np4
C) ns2sp5
D) ns2np6
E) ns2np3
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
153
23) Which statement best describes relationships in a modern periodic table?
A) Each transition element is placed in the column of the main group element that it most closely
resembles.
B) The fourteen elements in the "lanthanide" series form a new independent period.
C) Metalloids usually are the cations in ionic compounds.
D) Nonmetallic properties tend to predominate for elements at the far right portion of the table.
E) Elements are always arranged in order of increasing atomic weights.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
24) Which ground state electronic configuration will most readily produce an ion with a charge of 2+?
A) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s2
B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
C) 1s22s22p63s23p4
D) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p2
E) 1s2s22p63s23p63d104s24p6
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
25) Which of the following has the largest radius?

A) Cl-
B) Ar
C) Sc3+
D) K+
E) P3-
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC

A) Se2-
B) Kr
C) Rb+
D) Br-
E) Y3+
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
154
27) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A) The atomic radius decreases from left to right through a period of elements.
B) Cations are larger than the atoms from which they are formed.
C) The metallic character of elements decreases from left to right through a period of elements.
D) The ionization energy increases from left to right through a period of elements.
E) The atomic radius increases down the periodic table.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
28) Which of the following has the largest atomic radius?

A) Rb
B) Br
C) Mo
D) I
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
29) A is the sequence Na, Mg, Al, Si, and P. B is the sequence He, Ne, Ar, Kr, and Xe. Which statement
below is true?
A) The members of A are decreasing in size.
B) The members of B have larger radii than those of A, respectively. That is He > Na, Ne > Mg, etc.
C) The members of A have larger radii than those of B, respectively.
D) The members of B are decreasing in size.
E) All the members of A are isoelectronic.
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
30) Among the alkali metals, cesium reacts more rapidly than sodium because:
A) cesium has more electrons
B) cesium has more neutrons
C) the valence electron of cesium is at a greater average distance from the nucleus
D) cesium has a higher atomic weight
E) cesium has more protons
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
155
31) Which of the following isoelectronic species has the largest radius?
A) Ne
B) F-
C) Mg2+
D) Na+
E) O2-
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
32) Which comparison of atomic and/or ionic radii is correct?

A) K+ > K
B) K+ > Ca2+
C) Si > S
D) Kr > Xe
E) Cl > Cl-
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
33) Which of the following has the smallest radius?

A) Yb3+
B) Ho3+
C) Nd3+
D) Gd3+
E) Ce3+
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) As3-
B) Br
C) Sr2+
D) Cl-
E) Se2-
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
156
35) Which of the following occurs for the representative elements going left to right across the period?
A) Electronegativity decreases.
B) Atomic size increases.
C) Forces of attraction between electron and nucleus increase because nuclear charge increases.
D) The outer electrons are held more weakly.
E) none of these
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
36) The effective nuclear charge for sodium is:

A) <11, >10
B) <10, >9
C) <3, >1
D) <1, >0
E) 0
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC
37) Which series of elements shows the smallest difference in atomic radii?
A) Li......F
B) Be......Ra
C) He......Xe
D) C......Pb
E) Sc......Zn
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC
38) The first ionization energy for rubidium is +403.0 kJ/mol. How much energy would be required to
convert 17.1 g of gaseous rubidium to its gaseous +1 monatomic ion at constant temperature?
A) 185 kJ
B) 80.6 kJ
C) 68.9 kJ
D) 40.4 kJ
E) 34.5 kJ
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
157
A) Within a given sublevel, each orbital is usually occupied by a single electron before any orbital has
two electrons.
B) When a metallic element unites with a nonmetallic element, electrons are lost by atoms of the metal
and gained by atoms of the nonmetals.
C) The rare gas atoms complete the filling of the p orbitals.
D) The ionization energy of Ca+ is greater than that for Ca++.
E) Ba2+ is smaller than Ba+.
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
40) Choose the species from which one electron could most easily be removed.
A) Cl
B) K+
C) K
D) Ca+
E) Ar
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
41) Which comparison of ionization energies is correct?

A) Cs > Na
B) Na > Mg
C) Ca > Mg
D) Ca+ > Ca
E) Ar > He
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
42) The first ionization potential for S is lower than the first ionization potential for P because:
A) Hund's rule is violated
B) P has a p3 configuration
C) ionization potentials decrease across a representative period
D) P is to the right of S on the periodic table
E) P is below S on the periodic table
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
158
43) What is the relationship between ionization energy and atomic radii?
A) Energy increases as radii increase.
B) Energy is negative for all large radii.
C) Energy decreases as radii decrease.
D) Energy decreases as radii increase
E) Energy increases as as radii decrease
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
44) Which of the following elements is likely to have the largest second ionization energy?
A) Na
B) Mg
C) Al
D) Si
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
45) Which of the following has the smallest second ionization energy?
A) Si
B) Mg
C) Al
D) P
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
46) Which of the following reactions gives a positive value for the electron affinity?
A) S-(g) + e- → S2-(g)
B) O(g) + e- → O-(g)
C) S(g) + e- → S-(g)
D) Br(g) + e- → Br-(g)
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
47) Can metal atoms form negative ions in the gaseous state? Explain.
A) No, an electron cannot be added.
B) No, only a liquid can be ionized.
C) Yes, electrons can be added to a Li half-filled 2s orbital.
D) Yes, electrons can be removed from a Li half-filled 2s orbital.
E) No, the 2s orbital is completely filled.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
159
48) Why is the electron affinity so positive for the noble gas elements?
A) The added electron would have to go into a new shell.
B) The added electron would have to be added into the half-filled p subshell.
C) The added electron would have to be added into the p subshell.
D) The noble gas elements are diatomic elements.
E) Electrons can't be added to gases.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
49) Why is the electron affinity so positive for the group 2 elements?
D) The groups 2 elements are diatomic elements.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
50) Why is the electron affinity so positive for the group 12 elements?
D) The groups 12 elements are diatomic elements.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
51) What is the general relationship between electron affinity and atomic radii?
A) Electron affinity becomes more negative as radii increases.
B) Electron affinity becomes more negative as radii decreases.
C) Electron affinity becomes positive as radii decreases.
D) Electron affinity becomes positive as radii increases.
E) The two quantities are unrelated
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
52) Which of the following species is diamagnetic?

A) F-
B) C
C) Al
D) S-
E) Na
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
160
53) Which species is diamagnetic?
A) atomic sodium
B) atomic fluorine
C) iron(III) ion
D) calcium(II) ion
E) cobalt(II) ion
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
54) Which of the following species is most likely to be diamagnetic?

A) Fe
B) I
C) Mn+
D) W3+
E) Zn2+
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
55) Which of the following has the greatest number of unpaired electrons?
A) Cr2+
B) Ti3+
C) Co2+
D) Ni
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
56) Choose a basic oxide.

A) MgO
B) CO2
C) Cl2O
D) SO2
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
57) Which of the following elements form amphoteric oxides?

A) Sn
B) Mg
C) P
D) B
E) Na
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
161
58) The boiling point for gallium is 2403°C. The boiling point for thallium is 1457°C. Which of the
following would be the predicted boiling point for indium?
A) 3860°C
B) 1287°C
C) 946°C
D) 1930°C
E) 730°C
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
59) The first ionization potentials for calcium and barium are 589.7 kJ/mol and 502.8 kJ/mol. What is
the predicted first ionization potential for strontium?
A) 546.3 kJ/mol
B) 1092.5 kJ/mol
C) 86.9 kJ/mol
D) 435.7 kJ/mol
E) 588 kJ/mol
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
60) Chlorine has a large negative electron affinity. Therefore, chlorine is most likely to:
A) act as an oxidizing agent
B) have a small first ionization energy
C) act as a reducing agent
D) form a basic oxide
E) release electrons readily to other atoms
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
61) Which would you expect to have the highest melting point?
A) CF4
B) HI
C) HCl
D) HBr
E) All have the same melting point.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
162
62) Which of the listed elements is the poorest conductor of both heat and electricity?
A) aluminum
B) bismuth
C) cobalt
D) magnesium
E) phosphorus
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
63) From the following data, what is the estimated boiling point of liquid chlorine?
argon/bp 87 K bromine/bp 332 K fluorine/bp 86 K sulfur/bp 718 K
A) 525 K
B) 402 K
C) 209 K
D) 148 K
E) 123 K
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC
64) Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?

A) Al2O3
B) Li2O
C) PO3
D) Sc2O3
E) SrO
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
65) List in order of increasing charge of the most common ion:

S, Na, F, Ca, Al
A) S2-, Na-, F+, Ca2+, Al3+
B) Ca2-, F-, Al+, Na2+, S3+
C) F2-, S-, Ca+, Al2+, Na3+
D) S2-, F-, Na+, Ca2+, Al3+
E) Al2-, Ca-, F+, Na2+, S3+
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
163
66) The number of valence electrons for atomic potassium is ________.
A) 1
B) 5
C) 6
D) 15
E) 19
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
67) If the formula of an oxide is X2O3, what is the formula of the chloride of X?
A) XCl
B) X3Cl
C) XCl3
D) XCl6
E) X2Cl3
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
68) List in order of increasing atomic size: F, Na, K, Mg, Ne.

A) K < Mg < Ne < Na < F
B) Ne < Mg < K < Na < F
C) Ne < F < Mg < Na < K
D) Mg < F < Ne < Na < K
E) K < Na < Mg < F < Ne
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
69) Which of the following atoms has the smallest atomic radius: Br, K, Fe, Cu, Bi?
A) Br
B) K
C) Fe
D) Cu
E) Bi
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
164
70) List in order of increasing size: Cl -, Ar, K+, S2-, Ca2+.
A) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl- < S2-
B) S2- < Cl- < Ar < K+ < Ca2+
C) Ca2+ < S2- < K+ < Ar < Cl-
D) Cl- < Ar < K+ < S2- < Ca2+
E) K+ < S2- < Ar < Cl- < Ca2+
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
71) List in order of increasing atomic size: Sr, Se, Cs, Ga, In.
A) Se < Ga < In < Sr < Cs
B) Ga < In < Se < Cs < Sr
C) Sr < In < Ga < Se < Cs
D) In < Ga < Cs < Se < Sr
E) Cs < Ga < Se < Sr < In
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
72) List in order of increasing size: K+, Se2-, Cl-, Na+, S2-.
A) Cl- < S2- < K+ < Na+ < Se2-
B) Na+ < K+ < Cl- < S2- < Se2-
C) S2- < Na+ < Cl- < Se2- < K+
D) Cl- < Se2- < K+ < Na+ < S2-
E) K+ < Na+ < Cl- < Se2- < S2-
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
73) Which main group atom or ion should be included in the following list?
Br-, Se2-, Kr, Sr2+
A) As3-
B) Ar
C) K+
D) S2-
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
165
74) List in order of increasing ionization energy: Na, K, F, Mg, Ne.
A) Na < K < F < Ne < Mg
B) K < Na < Mg < F < Ne
C) Ne < Mg < F < K < Na
D) F < Mg < Ne < K < Na
E) Ne < Na < Mg < F < K
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
75) The energy difference between atomic cesium and its most stable ion, in the gaseous state, is
referred to as ________.
A) atomic energy
B) electron affinity
C) entropy of vaporization
D) ionization energy
E) magnetic moment
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
76) Which of the following has the highest first ionization potential: K, Ge, Kr, Ca, Br?
A) K
B) Ge
C) Kr
D) Ca
E) Br
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
77) Which of the following has the highest first ionization potential: Sb, I, In, Xe, Rb?
A) Sb
B) I
C) In
D) Xe
E) Rb
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
166
78) Which of the following has the smallest value of the first ionization energy: Ar, Cs, N, Cu, Rb?
A) Ar
B) Cs
C) N
D) Cu
E) Rb
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
79) List in order of increasing ionization potential: O, Mg, Rb, S, Si.

A) Si < O < Mg < Rb < S
B) Si < S < Rb < Mg < O
C) Mg < O < Rb < S < Si
D) Rb < Mg < Si < S < O
E) S < Si < Mg < O < Rb
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
80) Arrange the following in order of increasing ionization energy: Li, Cs, K.
A) K < Li < Cs
B) Cs < K < Li
C) Li < Cs < K
D) Cs < Li < K
E) K < Cs < Li
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
81) Arrange the following elements in order of increasing ionization energy: Cs, Sc, Mn.
A) Sc < Mn < Cs
B) Sc < Cs < Mn
C) Cs < Mn < Sc
D) Cs < Sc < Mn
E) Mn < Cs < Sc
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
167
82) How much energy, in joules, must be absorbed to convert to Na+ all the atoms present in 1.00 mg of
gaseous Na? The first ionization energy of Na is 495.8 kJ/mol.
A) 21.6 J
B) 0.0464 J
C) 46.4 J
D) 0.0216 J
E) 1.14 × 104 J
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
83) List in order of more negative electron affinity: F, Br, Sb, Rb, Se.
(more positive → more negative)
A) Br < Se < Sb < Rb < F
B) Se < Rb < Sb < Br < F
C) Sb < Br < Rb < Se < F
D) Br < F < Rb < Sb < Se
E) Rb < Sb < Se < Br < F
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
84) Which of the following has the most negative electron affinity: Li, Be, N, O, F?
A) Li
B) Be
C) N
D) O
E) F
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
85) Choose the paramagnetic atom or ion: Ca, Ne, Sc3+, Cl-, Na.
A) Ca
B) Ne
C) Sc3+
D) Cl-
E) Na
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
168
86) Which of the following has the most unpaired electrons: Na, Mn 2+, S, N, Ar?
A) Na
B) Mn2+
C) S
D) N
E) Ar
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
87) Choose the paramagnetic atom or ion: Zn, Zn2+, Mn2+, Ar, Al3+.
A) Zn
B) Zn2+
C) Mn2+
D) Ar
E) Al3+
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
88) List in order of increasing number of unpaired electrons: N, Na, Si, Cr, Ar.
A) Cr < Si < Na < N < Ar
B) Ar < Cr < N < Na < Si
C) Ar < Cr < Si < Na < N
D) N < Na < Cr < Si < Ar
E) Ar < Na < Si < N < Cr
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
89) Which of the following has the largest number of unpaired electrons: S, Cr2+, N, K, Ne?
A) S
B) Cr2+
C) N
D) K
E) Ne
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
169
90) Complete 2 Na(s) + 2 H2O →
A) 2 NaH(s) + 2 OH-
B) 2 H2O(l) + 2 Na(s)
C) O2(g) + 2NaH2
D) 2 Na+ + 2 OH- + H2(g)
E) 2 NaH(s) + O2(g) + H2(g)
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
91) Complete Ca(s) + 2 H2O →

A) Ca2+ + 2 OH- + H2(g)
B) CaH2(s) + O2(g) + H2(g)
C) Ca2+ + O2(g) + 2 H2(g)
D) CaH2(s) + 2 OH-
E) no reaction
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
92) Complete Br2 + Cl- →

A) BrCl + Br-
B) Br- + Cl2
C) Br2Cl-
D) Br3-
E) no reaction
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
93) Find statements describing the trends in the chemical behavior of the elements:
I) The atomic size within a period of the periodic table decreases from left to right.
II) Metallic character increases within a period from right to left.
III) Basic oxides are formed by the elements near the end of each period.
IV) The tendency to lose electrons is greater among the elements of Group 1 than in Group 13.
V) Ionization potential increases as atomic size decreases.
A) I), II), III), IV)
B) II), III), IV), V)
C) I), II), IV), V)
D) I), II), III), V)
E) I), III), IV), V)
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
170
94) Complete Li2O(s) + H2O →
A) 2 LiO + H2
B) 2 Li+ + 2OH-
C) 2 LiH + O2
D) 2 LiOH
E) no reaction
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
95) Arrange the following elements in order of increasing metallic character: Al, Pt, Cd.
A) Cd < Pt < Al
B) Al < Pt < Cd
C) Al < Cd < Pt
D) Cd < Al < Pt
E) Pt < Cd < Al
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
96) Which 1+ ion is isoelectronic with S2-?

Answer: K+
Diff: 2 Type: SA
Chemical Bonding
1) A Lewis structure is a combination of Lewis symbols representing either the transfer or the sharing of
electrons in a chemical bond.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
2) Covalent bonds are formed by atoms sharing electrons.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
3) The core electrons are called valence electrons.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
4) A chemical bond for which one of the bonded atoms provides both electrons for the bond is referred
to as a coordinate covalent bond
Answer: TRUE
171
Diff: 1 Type: TF
5) Polar bonds are caused by the bonding pair of electrons being attracted more to one atom than the
other.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
6) Bonds between like atoms are nonpolar bonds.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
7) In a Lewis structure, a terminal atom is bonded to two or more atoms.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
8) In a Lewis structure, usually each atom acquires an outer-shell octet of electrons; H has 2 outer shell
electrons.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
172
9) The central atom is typically the atom with the highest electronegativity.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
10) In a Lewis structure, the number of valence electrons shown is one less for each negative charge.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
11) Valence electrons are:

A) all electrons of the last rare gas configuration
B) electrons in filled orbits
C) electrons in the shell of the highest principal quantum number
D) unpaired electrons
E) paired electrons
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC

A) The core electrons are called valence electrons.
B) Ionic bonds are formed by the attraction between cations and anions.
C) Ionic bonds are formed from atoms by a transfer of electrons.
D) Covalent bonds are formed by atoms sharing electrons.
E) An octet is 8 outer-shell electrons.
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC

A) A Lewis symbol consists of a chemical symbol and the outer shell electrons.
B) In a Lewis symbol, the chemical symbol represents the nucleus of the atom.
C) A Lewis structure is a combination of Lewis symbols that represent the transfer or sharing of
electrons in a chemical bond.
D) An ion written as a Lewis symbol has brackets outside the electrons.
E) An ion written as a Lewis symbol has the charge written as a superscript outside the closing bracket.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
173
A) In a Lewis structure, a covalent bond can be represented by a pair of electrons or a dash.
B) Pairs of electrons not involved in bonding are called lone pairs.
C) A molecule of two atoms is called a diatomic molecule.
D) Two electrons involved in a bond produce a double bond.
E) Three electron pairs involved in a bond produce a triple bond.
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
15) A chemical bond for which one of the bonded atoms provides both electrons for the bond is referred
to as a:
A) double covalent bond
B) coordinate covalent bond
C) formal covalent bond
D) free radical bond
E) VSEPR bond
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
16) In which of the following molecules would you expect the nitrogen-to-nitrogen bond to be the
shortest?
A) N2H4
B) N2
C) N2O4
D) N2O
E) NH3
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
17) Which of the following species contains a triple bond?

A) NH3
B) HCCl3
C) NO3-
D) CO32-
E) CN-
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
174
18) Which of the following is least likely to form multiple bonds?
A) phosphorus
B) oxygen
C) nitrogen
D) carbon
E) barium
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) Bonds between like atoms are nonpolar bonds.
B) Polar bonds are caused by the bonding pair of electrons being attracted more to one atom than the
other.
C) Electronegativity is the ability of an atom to attract electrons when involved in a bond.
D) A difference in electronegativity between two atoms causes a polar bond.
E) If the ΔEN value is large the bond is polar covalent.
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
20) Which chloride should have the greatest covalent character?

A) NaCl
B) BeCl2
C) KCl
D) BaCl2
E) CaCl2
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
21) Which of the following exhibits covalent bonding?

A) NaF
B) SrO
C) LiH
D) OF2
E) K2S
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
175
22) Which of the following exhibits ionic bonding?
A) C2H6
B) Na2S
C) H2CO
D) SiCl4
E) SF4
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
23) Which of the following would be properly classified as a set of covalent molecules?
A) NaClO4, C4H10, NH3
B) NaCl, CH4, S8
C) CO2, HCN, O2
D) CO2, NH4Cl, C2H6
E) AgCl, ScF3, P4
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
24) Which of the following bonds is probably the most polar?

A) N H in NH3
B) O H in H2O
C) P H in PH3
D) Se H in SeH2
E) C H in CH4
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
25) With the representations of "I" for ionic bond, "PC" for polar covalent bond, and "NP" for nonpolar
covalent bond, which of the following descriptive combinations is correct?
A) CsF/PC
B) F2/I
C) NO/NP
D) HCl/PC
E) BrCl/NP
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
176
A) In a Lewis structure, a terminal atom is bonded to two or more atoms.
B) In a Lewis structure all valence electrons must appear.
C) In a Lewis structure, usually all electrons are paired.
D) In a Lewis structure, usually each atom acquires an outer-shell octet of electrons; H has 2 outer shell
electrons.
E) In Lewis structures, most multiple covalent bonds are formed by C, N, O, P, and S.
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
27) After drawing the Lewis dot structure of HCN, pick the INCORRECT statement from the following.
A) The C-N bond is a double bond.
B) There are no lone pairs on C.
C) The C-H bond is a single bond.
D) There is a lone pair of electrons on N.
E) There are no lone pairs on H.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
28) After drawing the Lewis dot structure of HC(O)OH, pick the INCORRECT statement from the
following.
A) The oxygen not also bonded to hydrogen has a double bond to carbon.
B) The carbon has a lone pair.
C) Both oxygens have two lone pairs.
D) The O-H bond is a single bond.
E) The C-H bond is a single bond.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
29) After drawing the Lewis dot structure of HOClO2, pick the INCORRECT statement of the
following.
A) The oxygen bonded to the hydrogen has two lone pairs.
B) The oxygens not bonded to hydrogen have three lone pairs.
C) The O Cl bonds are all double bonds.
D) The H O bond is a single bond.
E) Chlorine has a full octet.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
177
30) After drawing the Lewis dot structure of CH2CCl2, pick the INCORRECT statement of the
following.
A) The C C bond is a double bond.
B) The H C bonds are single bonds.
C) The Cl C bonds are single bonds.
D) Each carbon has a lone pair.
E) Each chlorine has three lone pairs.
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
31) As indicated by Lewis structures, which of the following molecules would probably be unstable?
A) NH3
B) N2H6
C) SF4
D) CH2F2
E) SiH4
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) In a Lewis structure, the number of valence electrons shown is one more for each negative charge.
B) The central atom is typically the atom with the highest electronegativity.
C) One atom supplies both electrons for a coordinate covalent bond.
D) Formal charges are apparent charges associated with atoms in a Lewis structure.
E) Resonance is when more than one plausible structure can be written but the "correct" structure cannot
be written.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
33) Which of the following species exhibits resonance?

A) OF2
B) ClO3-
C) N2
D) PCl5
E) BrF3
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
178
34) Based on the Lewis structures, which of the following molecules would you expect to exhibit
resonance?
A) LiH
B) CH4
C) HNO2
D) OF2
E) none of these
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
35) Which of the following species is best represented by a resonance hybrid having two contributing
structures?
A) nitric acid
B) nitrous acid
C) nitride ion
D) nitrate ion
E) nitrogen
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
36) An expanded octet may occur:

A) in the 1st and 2nd period only
B) in families IA, IIA, and IIIA only
C) anywhere except period 1 and 2
D) in all families except IA
E) in the 3rd and 4th period only
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
37) Which of the following is diamagnetic?

A) N2
B) O2-
C) SO2+
D) O2
E) NO2
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
179
A) Molecules with all paired electrons are diamagnetic.
B) Highly reactive molecular fragments with unpaired electrons are free radicals.
C) An expanded octet has larger electron clouds.
D) Electron pairs repel each other.
E) VSEPR stands for valence-shell electron pair repulsion.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
39) Which of the following is diamagnetic?

A) ClO2
B) NO
C) CO
D) NO2
E) CH3
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
40) Which of the following must be paramagnetic?

A) F2
B) N2
C) SO2+
D) H2
E) ClO2-
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
41) Which of the following has a molecular structure best described as involving an "incomplete octet"?
A) OF2
B) BF3
C) CF4
D) NF3
E) F2
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
180
42) Which of the following has a molecular structure that can be represented without use of an
"expanded octet"?
A) Fe(CN)63-
B) C2Cl6
C) SF6
D) PF5
E) PtCl5-
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
43) Which of the following statements correctly describe the basic concepts and uses of VSEPR theory:
I) The VSEPR theory is used for estimating bond angles.
II) The VSEPR theory is used for predicting electronegativities.
III) The VSEPR theory is helpful in predicting polarity.
IV) The VSEPR theory states that electron pairs repel each other.
V) The VSEPR theory uses valence electron counting for structure prediction.
A) I), II), III), IV)
B) I), II), IV), V)
C) I), II), III), V)
D) II), III), IV), V)
E) I), III), IV), V)
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
44) Choose the correct statement about the compound SO2.

A) The S atom has an unshared electron pair.
B) The S O bonds are ionic in character.
C) The two S O bonds have different lengths since one is a single bond and the other a double bond.
D) The molecule has a linear structure.
E) The O atoms have no unshared electron pairs.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
45) Which of the following molecules is nonpolar?

A) HCN
B) CHCl3
C) H2O
D) HClO4
E) BCl3
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
181
46) Which of the following molecules is polar?
A) NBr3
B) CH4
C) CS2
D) NH4+
E) PCl5
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
47) Which of the following is a bent (nonlinear) molecule?

A) CO2
B) CS2
C) BeF2
D) OF2
E) XeF2
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC

A) Molecules with unpaired electrons are paramagnetic.
B) The bond order describes whether a covalent bond is single, double or triple.
C) A larger bond order means a shorter bond length.
D) Polar covalent bonds involve equal sharing of electrons in a bond.
E) Bonds between like atoms share electrons equally.
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
49) Which of the following species has a pyramidal structure?

A) ClO3-
B) ClO4-
C) ClO2-
D) ClO2
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
182
50) Which of the following sets contains only linear molecules?
A) CO2, HCN, O2
B) H2S, HCN, CO2
C) H2O, CO, Cl2
D) H2S, CO, CO2
E) BF3, Cl2, O2
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) The geometrical distribution of electron groups is the electron-group geometry.
B) The geometrical arrangement of the atomic nuclei is the molecular geometry.
C) A polar molecule has a dipole moment.
D) A dipole moment is the product of the number of atoms and the charge.
E) A nonpolar molecule can have polar bonds.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
52) Choose the groups of molecules below in which all the molecules have a net dipole moment.
A) SiHCl3, O2, H2O
B) HF, H2C=CH2, H2O
C) HF, CH3Cl, H2O
D) CCl4, HCl, NH3
E) HF, H2O, N2
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC
53) Which of the following molecules has both an electron group geometry and a molecular geometry
described as trigonal planar?
A) SiH4
B) PF3
C) OF2
D) CHF3
E) BF3
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC
183
54) Which of the following molecules contains polar bonds but has a zero dipole moment?
A) N2
B) NH3
C) CO2
D) CH3Cl
E) BrCl
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC
55) Which compound would be expected to have the shortest carbon-carbon bond?
A) H3CCH3
B) HCCH
C) H2CCH2
D) F3CCF3
E) Cl2CCCl2
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
56) Which compound would be expected to have the shortest nitrogen-nitrogen bond?
A) H2NNH2
B) HNNH
C) N2
D) O2NNO2
E) (CH3)2NNH2
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
57) Given the bond enthalpies C C (348), C O (707), O O (498), H O (464), C H (414) all in
kJ/mol, compute ΔH° kJ/mol for the complete combustion of C7H16.
A) -3.13 × 103 kJ/mol
B) -2.93 × 103 kJ/mol
C) -2.57 × 103 kJ/mol
D) -2.43 × 103 kJ/mol
E) +2.57 × 103 kJ/mol
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
184
58) How many "dots" should be shown in the Lewis symbol for phosphorus?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 8
E) 10
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
59) How many "dots" should be shown for the oxygen symbol in lithium oxide?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
60) Write a Lewis structure for BaO.

A)
B)
C)
D) [Ba O]
E)
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
61) Write a Lewis structure for sodium iodide.

A)
B)
C)
D) Na I
E)
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
185
62) Write a Lewis structure for calcium hydride.
A)
B)
C)
D) H Ca H
E) Ca H
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
63) Write a Lewis structure for potassium oxide.

A)
B) K O
C) K O K
D)
E)
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
64) Write a Lewis structure for barium fluoride.

A)
B) F B F
C)
D)
E)
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
65) How many bond pairs ("bp") and how many lone pairs ("lp") should be shown in the Lewis structure
for carbon monoxide?
A) 1 bp/4 lp
B) 2 bp/3 lp
C) 3 bp/2 lp
D) 4 bp/1 lp
E) 5 bp/0 lp
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
186
66) Arrange the following in order of increasing electronegativity: Cs, F, As, Cl.
A) As < Cl < Cs < F
B) Cl < As < F < Cs
C) As < F < Cs < Cl
D) Cl < Cs < F < As
E) Cs < As < Cl < F
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
67) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for PCl3, determine the number of single bonds, double
bonds, and lone pairs on the central atom.
A) 2, 1, 1
B) 3, 0, 1
C) 2, 0, 2
D) 3, 1, 0
E) 3, 1, 1
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
68) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for CO2, determine the number of single bonds, double bonds,
and lone pairs on the central atom.
A) 2, 2, 0
B) 2, 0, 2
C) 0, 2, 0
D) 2, 0, 1
E) 0, 2, 2
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
69) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for CH3Cl, determine the number of single bonds, double
A) 4, 1, 0
B) 4, 0, 1
C) 3, 0, 1
D) 4, 0, 0
E) 3, 1, 0
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
187
70) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for CH2O, determine the number of single bonds, double
A) 1, 2, 0
B) 2, 1, 1
C) 3, 0, 1
D) 3, 1, 0
E) 2, 1, 0
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
71) What is the formal charge on B in BF4-?

A) +1
B) -1
C) +2
D) 0
E) -2
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
72) What is the formal charge on N in NO3-?

A) +2
B) -2
C) +1
D) -1
E) 0
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
73) What is the formal charge on P in PCl5?

A) +5
B) +2
C) +1
D) 0
E) -1
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
188
74) What is the formal charge on carbon in the bicarbonate ion (HOCO2)?
A) +2
B) -2
C) +1
D) -1
E) 0
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
75) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for BeCl2, determine the number of single bonds, double
A) 2, 0, 0
B) 2, 0, 2
C) 2, 0,1
D) 0, 2, 0
E) 1, 1, 0
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
76) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for XeCl4, determine the number of single bonds, double
A) 4, 0, 0
B) 4, 0, 2
C) 4, 0, 1
D) 3, 1, 0
E) 1, 3, 0
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
77) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for XeCl2, determine the number of single bonds, double
A) 2, 0, 2
B) 0, 2, 0
C) 0, 2, 1
D) 2, 0, 3
E) 2, 0, 0
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
189
78) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for IF7, determine the number of single bonds, double bonds,
and lone pairs on the central atom.
A) 3, 2, 1
B) 7, 0, 1
C) 7, 0, 0
D) 1, 0, 0
E) 4, 0, 0
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
79) The electron-pair geometry of H2O is ________.

A) tetrahedral
B) linear
C) trigonal planar
D) bent
E) V-shaped
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
80) What is the molecular shape of BrF5?

A) linear
B) square pyramid
C) square planar
D) octahedral
E) trigonal bipyramid
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
81) What is the correct molecular geometry for SeBr3+?

A) trigonal pyramidal
B) tetrahedral
C) trigonal planar
D) bent
E) T-shaped
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
190
82) What is the correct molecular geometry for the carbon atom in urea (NH2)2CO?
A) Tetrahedral
B) T-Shaped
C) Trigonal planar
D) Trigonal pyramidal
E) Trigonal bipyramidal
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
83) What is the correct molecular geometry for silicon atom in disilane Si 2H6?
A) Tetrahedral
B) Square planar
C) Octahedral
D) Linear
E) Bent
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
84) Given the following bond lengths in pm:

N N, 145; N N, 123; Br Br, 228
What is the best estimate of the N Br bond length in NBr3 in pm?
A) 373 pm
B) 125 pm
C) 351 pm
D) 187 pm
E) 561 pm
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
85) Given the following bond lengths in pm:

C C, 154; C C, 134; Cl Cl, 199
What is the best estimate of the C Cl bond length in CCl4 in pm?
A) 353 pm
B) 706 pm
C) 167 pm
D) 333 pm
E) 177 pm
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
191
86) What is the bond order for the carbon-oxygen bond in formaldehyde (CH2O), which has no O-H
bonds?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
87) Given the listed bond lengths, what would be the most reasonable estimate for the carbon-oxygen
bond length in carbon dioxide?
C-C/154 pm C=C/120 pm C-O/143 pm O-O/145 pm O=O/121 pm
A) ca. 120 pm
B) ca. 130 pm
C) ca. 140 pm
D) ca. 150 pm
E) > 150 pm
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
88) Given the bond enthalpies N H (389), Cl Cl (243), N Cl (201), and H Cl (431) in kJ/mol,
compute ΔH° in kJ/mol for NH3(g) + Cl2(g) → NH2Cl + HCl(g)
A) -393
B) -1100
C) +71
D) +393
E) 0
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
89) Given the bond enthalpies I Cl (209), H H (435), H I (297), and H Cl (431) in kJ/mol, compute
ΔH° in kJ/mol for: ICl3(g) + 2 H2(g) → HI(g) + 3 HCl(g)
A) +264
B) -84
C) -93
D) -523
E) +84
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
192
90) Given the bond enthalpies Cl Cl (243), C Cl (339), H Cl (431),C H (414) all in kJ/mol, estimate
ΔH for the following reaction: CH4(g) + Cl2(g) → CH3Cl(g) + HCl(g)
A) -113 kJ
B) -356 kJ
C) 301 kJ
D) -1427 kJ
E) -30 kJ
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
91) Given the bond enthalpies C C (611), C C (837), H H (436),C H (414) all in kJ/mol, estimate
ΔH for the following reaction: C2H2(g) + H2(g) → C2H4(g)
A) -60 kJ
B) -166 kJ
C) -994 kJ
D) +166 kJ
E) 98 kJ
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
92) Compound EX4 reacts with Y2 giving two products: EX3Y and XY. Calculate the E-X bond
enthalpy if the reaction liberates 243.6 kJ/mol and other bond enthalpies are: Y-Y 109 kJ/mol, X-Y
123.1 kJ/mol and E-Y 290 kJ/mol.
A) 60.5 kJ/mol
B) 547.7 kJ/mol
C) 20.6 kJ/mol
D) 234.7 kJ/mol
E) 176.9 kJ/mol
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
93) Given the bond enthalpies N N (946), H H (436), H N (389), all in kJ/mol, estimate ΔH for the
following reaction: N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2NH3(g).
A) -215 kJ
B) -863 kJ
C) -80 kJ
D) 568 kJ
E) -1476 kJ
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
193
94) Given the bond enthalpies H O (464), Cl Cl (243), Cl O (205), and H Cl (431) in kJ/mol,
compute ΔH° in kJ/mol for H2O(g) + Cl2(g) → HOCl(g) + HCl(g).
A) -393
B) -1100
C) +71
D) +393
E) +1100
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
95) Given the bond enthalpies C O (360), C O (707), O O (498), H O (464), C H (414), all in
kJ/mol, estimate ΔH for the following reaction: CH3OCH3(g) + 3 O2(g) → 2 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(g).
A) -2332 kJ
B) -242 kJ
C) 870 kJ
D) -2106 kJ
E) -914 kJ
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
96) Given the bond enthalpies C O (707), O O (498), H O (464), and C H (414) in kJ/mol, compute
ΔH° in kJ/mol for: CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g).
A) +618
B) +259
C) -519
D) -618
E) -259
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
97) Given the listed average bond energies, calculate the enthalpy change for the production of 48 g of
methanol by the reaction:
CO2(g) + 3 H2(g) → CH3OH(g) + H2O(g)
C O/360 kJ/mol C O/736 kJ/mol H H/436 kJ/mol
H O/464 kJ/mol H C/414 kJ/mol
A) +214 kJ
B) +639 kJ
C) 0
D) -214 kJ
E) -108 kJ
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
194
Molecular Orbital Theory
1) The valence-bond method describes covalent bonding as the overlap of partially filled orbitals.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
2) The valence-bond method provides energy information about molecules.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
3) A double bond is two sigma bonds.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
4) A triple bond is two sigma bonds and one pi bond.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
5) Molecular orbitals are formed by adding and subtracting atomic orbitals.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
6) Unhybridized p orbitals must be present for electron delocalization to occur.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
7) Resonance structures and delocalized orbitals are different ways to describe the same bonding.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 3 Type: TF
8) In a semiconductor, the energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band is large.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
9) The electrical conductivity of semiconductors increases with increasing temperature.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
195
10) Band theory describes the properties of metals and insulators but not semiconductors.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3 Type: TF
11) In extrinsic semiconductors, the band width is set by the element and cannot be changed.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3 Type: TF
12) The description of covalent bond formation as a region of high electronic charge density resulting
from overlap of atomic orbitals between the two bonded atoms is referred to as:
A) atomic orbital theory
B) the electron-sea model
C) hybridization theory
D) valence-bond method
E) VSEPR method
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
13) Which of the following statements concerning the carbon dioxide molecule is correct?
A) The molecule contains two lone pairs of valence electrons.
B) The molecule contains two σ bonds.
C) The molecule contains four π bonds.
D) The carbon is described by sp2 hybridization.
E) Each oxygen is described by sp3 hybridization.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
14) Which statement regarding VB theory is INCORRECT?

A) d orbitals are not included in hybrid orbitals.
B) Hybrid orbitals use atomic orbitals from the outermost shell.
C) Sigma bonds are end-to-end overlaps.
D) Pi bonds are overlaps of parallel p orbitals.
E) A double bond is a sigma bond and a pi bond.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
196
15) According to the principles of VSEPR applied on ICl5, which of the following is INCORRECT?
A) VSEPR formula = AX5E
B) molecular geometry = square pyramid
C) hybridization = sp3d
D) electron pair geometry = octahedral
E) one lone pair and 5 bonding pairs
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
16) According to principles of VSEPR theory applied on AsCl52-, which of the following is
INCORRECT?
A) VSEPR formula = AX5E
B) molecular geometry = square planar
C) electron pair geometry = octahedral
D) hybridization = sp3d2
E) one lone pair and 5 bonding pairs
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
17) Which statement is INCORRECT?

A) The bond length is the internuclear distance.
B) The covalent bond is a region of high electron charge density between two atoms.
C) Hybrid orbitals are combinations of atomic orbitals.
D) There are the same number of hybrid orbitals produced as the number of atomic orbitals combined.
E) An sp hybridization produces a tetrahedral molecule.
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
18) Which statement is correct for the structure shown?
A) Carbon no. 1 is described by sp3 hybridization.

B) The molecule contains 19 σ bonds.
C) Carbon no. 2 is described by sp2 hybridization.
D) The molecule contains a total of five π bonds.
E) Carbon no. 7 is described by sp hybridization.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
197
19) Which of the pairs of molecules below have the same hybridization on the central atom? (The
central atom is underlined.)
A) HOCl, ClF3
B) H2O, HNO
C) HCN, CO2
D) BeH2, NH3
E) H3COH, CH2O
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
20) Which statement is correct for the structure shown?
A) The molecule contains a total of 16 σ bonds.

B) Carbon no. 1 is described by sp hybridization.
C) The molecule contains a total of four π bonds.
D) Carbon no. 3 is described by sp3 hybridization.
E) The molecule contains a delocalized π bond system.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
21) Which combination of hybrid orbital descriptions and electronic geometry descriptions is
INCORRECT?
A) sp/linear
B) sp2/trigonal planar
C) sp3/tetrahedral
D) sp3d/square planar
E) sp3d2/octahedral
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
198
22) Which hybrid orbitals are impossible in electrically neutral molecules containing only the elements
shown?
A) sp3/Al and H
B) sp2/B and F
C) sp/C and H
D) sp2/N and O
E) sp3/O and F
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
23) Three of the molecular shapes which a sp3d hybridized molecule can have are:
A) triangular, trigonal bipyramid, linear
B) linear, square planar, T-shaped
C) irregular tetrahedron, T-shaped, bent
D) T-shaped, linear, trigonal bipyramid
E) linear, tetragonal pyramid, octahedral
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC
24) For BeCl2, the dipole moment of the molecule, hybridization on the central atom, and number of
lone pairs on the central atom are:
A) toward Be, sp2, none
B) away from Be, sp2, one
C) none, sp, none
D) toward Be, sp, one
E) none, sp3, two
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
25) For the molecule
A) the hybridization for C is sp3

B) the hybridization for N is sp2
C) the hybridization for O is sp3
D) N is not hybridized
E) the hybridization for C is sp2
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
199
26) Which of the pairs of molecules below have the same hybridization on the central atom? (The
central atom is underlined in each molecule.)
A) CO2, CH4
B) H2CO, BeH2
C) BCl3, HNO
D) H2O, HF
E) NH3, HNO
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
27) Find the correct statements about the bonding in methane, CH4.
I) The carbon s and p orbitals combine to form four equivalent sp3 orbitals
II) All C-H bonds have the same strength
III) Molecular geometry is different from electron group geometry
IV) Four C sp3 orbitals combine with the s orbitals of the hydrogens to form bonds
A) I), II), III)
B) I), II), IV)
C) II), III), IV)
D) I), III) IV)
E) I), II)
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
28) Choose the INCORRECT statement about PCl5.

A) There are no π bonds.
B) P has one lone pair.
C) P has sp3d hybridization.
D) Each Cl has 3 lone pairs.
E) There are 5 σ bonds.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
29) Choose the INCORRECT statement about HCN.

A) There are two π bonds.
B) There are two σ bonds.
C) N has a lone pair.
D) The molecule is bent.
E) C has sp hybridization.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
200
30) Choose the INCORRECT statement about NH2-.
A) There are no π bonds.
C) N is sp3 hybridization.
D) The molecule is bent.
E) There is one lone pair on N.
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
31) Which of the following carbon molecules has sp hybridization?

A) CH4
B) C2H2
C) Cl2CS
D) CH3-
E) CO2
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
32) Choose the INCORRECT statement about SnCl2.

A) The hybridization of Sn is sp2.
B) The molecule is linear.
C) There is one lone pair of electrons on Sn.
D) There are no π bonds.
E) There are two σ bonds.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
33) For the molecule
A) the geometry about O is linear

B) the hybridization on O is sp
C) O is not hybridized
D) both carbons are sp2 hybridized
E) there are two π bonds between the two carbons
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
201
34) Which statement regarding VB theory is INCORRECT?
A) A single bond is a sigma bond.
B) A triple bond is two sigma bonds and a pi bond.
C) A double bond requires each atom to have an unhybridized p orbital.
D) Both atoms in a triple bond have linear geometry.
E) sp3 hybridization produces tetrahedral geometry.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
35) According to VB theory, sigma bonds are:

A) always present in double bonds
B) formed only by p orbitals
C) formed only by hybrid orbitals
D) formed only by s orbitals
E) formed only by unhybridized orbitals
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
36) π bonds:
A) are the only kind of bonds present in double bonds
B) have very little electron density along the internuclear axis
C) are formed by endwise overlap of p orbits
D) are formed from hybrid orbitals
E) are formed from s orbitals
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
37) A σ bond:
A) can only be formed by s orbitals
B) is weaker than a pi bond
C) has high electron probability along the axis between atoms
D) cannot be formed by two p orbitals
E) is formed through side-on overlap of two atomic orbitals
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
38) The double covalent bond between two carbon atoms in ethylene (C 2H4):
A) is free to rotate because of delocalized electrons
B) is a sigma bond
C) consists of one sigma and one pi bond
D) has a low electron density
E) includes a "lone pair" of electrons on one of the carbons
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
202
39) Choose the INCORRECT statement about H3O+.
A) There is one π bond.
B) There are 3 σ bonds.
C) There is one lone pair on O.
D) The hybridization on O is sp3.
E) The OH bonds are O(sp3) - H(1s).
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
40) A pi bond is:

A) formed from two s orbitals
B) formed from two p orbitals
C) formed from hybridized orbitals
D) formed from one s and one p orbital
E) stronger than a sigma bond
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
41) According to VB theory, a double bond that results from the sharing of four electrons consists of:
A) 2 sigma bonds
B) one sigma and one pi bond
C) one sigma bond
D) two pi bonds
E) one sigma bond and one coordinate bond
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
42) Choose the INCORRECT statement about NH4+.

A) The hybridization of N is sp3.
B) The molecule is tetrahedral.
C) There is one lone pair of electrons on N.
D) There are no π bonds.
E) There are four σ bonds.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
203
43) Choose the INCORRECT statement about AsF6-.
A) The hybridization is sp3d2.
B) The molecule is octahedral.
C) There are no π bonds.
D) There is one lone pair of electrons.
E) There are six σ bonds.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
44) Choose the INCORRECT statement about CO2.

A) There are two π bonds.
C) C has one lone pair.
D) The hybridization on C is sp.
E) The molecule is linear.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
45) Choose the INCORRECT statement about NO2+.

A) There is one π bond.
C) The hybridization is sp.
D) There are no lone pairs on N.
E) There are two lone pairs on each O.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
204
46) The structure of aspirin is given below.
Which set of hybrid orbitals best describes the O-C bond, labeled "a", "b", in aspirin?
A) sp3-sp2
B) sp3-sp3
C) sp2-sp2
D) sp-sp2
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) A double bond is stronger than a single bond for the same atoms.
B) A double bond is less than twice as strong as a single bond for the same atoms.
C) Bonded atoms cannot rotate freely around a double bond.
D) Molecular geometry depends on the σ bond framework.
E) There are no hybridized orbitals in multiple bonds.
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC
48) According to the molecular orbital (MO) theory, when two oxygen atoms bond together, their 2p
orbitals combine to form:
A) two sigma molecular orbitals (MOs) and four pi MOs
B) two sigma MOs and two pi MOs
C) four pi MOs only
D) one sigma and one pi MO
E) a delocalized set of MO
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
205
49) Which statement is INCORRECT about molecular orbital theory?
A) The number of molecular orbitals produced is equal to the number of atomic orbitals combined.
B) Each pair of sigma molecular orbitals is a bonding orbital and an antibonding orbital.
C) The antibonding orbital is at a lower energy than the bonding orbital.
#e- in bonding - #e- in antibonding
D) The bond order (BO) is .
2
E) Hund's rule says that each orbital of identical energy has one electron before pairs are formed.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
50) According to Molecular Orbital (MO) theory, which statement below is true?
A) A molecule with an even number of electrons must be diamagnetic.
B) There are as many sigma bonds as pi bonds in a molecule.
C) There are as many molecular orbitals as there are atomic orbitals.
D) There are as many bonding as antibonding electrons in a molecule.
E) All molecules contain pi bonds.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
51) According to MO theory, assuming that the molecular orbits are the same as a diatomic molecule,
which is an INCORRECT statement for CN-?
A) The BO is 2.
B) There are no unpaired electrons.
C) The σ2p is the highest filled level.
D) The molecule is diamagnetic.
E) There are 10 electrons in the n=2 level orbitals.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
52) According to M.O. theory, which is an INCORRECT statement for H2-?

A) The B.O. is 1/2.
B) There are no unpaired electrons.
C) The σ1s* orbital has one electron.
D) The molecule is paramagnetic.
E) There are 3 electrons in the molecular orbitals.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
206
53) According to MO theory, which is the INCORRECT statement for C2-?
A) The BO is 2.5.
B) There is one unpaired electron.
C) The σ2p orbital has two electrons.
D) The molecule is paramagnetic.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
54) According to MO theory, which is the INCORRECT statement for N2+?

A) The BO is 2.5.
B) There is one unpaired electron.
C) The σ2p orbital has one electron in it.
D) The molecule is diamagnetic.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
55) Which of the following species is paramagnetic?

A) B2
B) C2
C) N2
D) CO
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
56) The concept of an anti-bonding orbital is unique to the:

A) theory of bond hybridization
B) valence bond theory
C) molecular orbital theory
D) concept of resonance
E) electrostatic repulsion theory
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
57) According to MO theory, all of the following have a bond order of 2 EXCEPT:
A) NO
B) CN+
C) C2
D) O2
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
207
58) Which of the following statements concerning molecular orbital (MO) theory is FALSE?
A) The number of MOs formed equals the number of atomic orbitals combined.
B) Any set of MOs from 2 atomic orbitals involves 1 bonding and 1 antibonding orbital.
C) Electrons normally enter the lowest energy MO available to them.
D) No more than two electrons can enter a particular MO.
E) Electrons enter MOs of identical energies in pairs before any enter singly.
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC
59) Which of the following statements concerning the relative energy levels of molecular orbitals for the
O2 molecule is INCORRECT?
A) σ1s < σ1s*
B) σ2s < σ2p
C) π2p < σ2p
D) π2p* < σ2p*
E) σ1s* < σ2s
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC
60) The extra stability that a molecule gains due to electron delocalizations (the electrons being free to
move throughout large parts of the molecule) is called:
A) ionization energy
B) lattice energy
C) covalent strength
D) resonance energy
E) bond energy
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
61) Which of the following involves delocalized π bonds?

A) acetylene (C2H2)
B) benzene (C6H6)
C) carbon tetrachloride (CCl4)
D) dichlorodifluoromethane (CF2Cl2)
E) ethylene (C2H4)
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
208
62) If the HCOO- ion is described using delocalized electrons, why can the oxygen atoms not have sp3
hybrids?
A) There must be an unhybridized p orbital to form the pi bond system.
B) The s orbital must be unhybridized to form the pi bond system.
C) There is no hybridization in systems with delocalized electrons.
D) Molecular orbital theory does not include hybridization.
E) The four lobes repel each other too strongly.
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
63) How would replacing one of benzene's C atoms and the H atom attached to it with an N atom
(C5H5N) affect the delocalized electrons?
A) The molecule would not be stable.
B) The N can have delocalized electrons like C.
C) Only the five C atoms would be included in the delocalized electrons.
D) There would be no delocalized electrons but a double bond between the N and a C.
E) There would be no delocalized electrons but a double bond between the N and the C on each side of
the N.
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
64) Which of the following does NOT involve any delocalized π bonds?
A) acetate ion
B) carbonate ion
C) nitric acid
D) nitrous acid
E) ozone
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC

A) Delocalized pi orbitals are formed when electrons are shared by unhybridized p orbitals in more than
two atoms.
B) The band theory is a form of molecular orbital theory.
C) In band theory, there are two bands.
D) The valence band is at higher energy than the conduction band.
E) An energy band partially filled with electrons is a conduction band.
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
209
66) Which of the following statements about extrinsic semiconductors is INCORRECT?
A) They are generally made from pure Si or Ge with small amounts of impurities.
B) n-type are those in which the impurity is an element of Group 15.
C) p-type are those in which the impurity is an element of Group 13.
D) The crystal need not be very pure before the impurity is added to produce the semiconductor.
E) Boron is a common impurity in n-type extrinsic semiconductors.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
67) The "electron-sea" model for bonding in metals, although an oversimplification, offers a reasonable
explanation of all of the following metallic properties EXCEPT:
A) ductility
B) electrical conductivity
C) gaseous diatomic metal molecules
D) thermal conductivity
E) malleability
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
68) The inclusion of a small amount of phosphorus in a crystal of pure germanium yields what kind of
semiconductor?
A) an insulator
B) an amorphous solid
C) n-type, in which extra electrons carry the current
D) p-type, in which a deficiency of electrons carries the current
E) p-n-p type
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
69) The inclusion of a small amount of aluminum in a crystal of pure germanium yields what kind of
semiconductor?
A) an insulator
B) an amorphous solid
C) n-type, in which extra electrons carry the current
D) p-type, in which a deficiency of electrons carries the current
E) p-n-p type
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
210
70) All of the following are p-type semiconductors EXCEPT:
A) As in Si.
B) Al in Si.
C) B in Ge.
D) In in Se.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
71) Which of the following could act as a p-type semiconductor?

A) aluminum with traces of scandium
B) beryllium with traces of barium
C) germanium with traces of arsenic
D) silicon with traces of boron
E) tin with traces of lead
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC
72) According to the band theory of bonding, the smallest energy difference between a conduction band
and a valence band typically occurs in substances such as:
A) crystalline rock salt
B) crystalline rubidium
C) crystalline silicon
D) crystalline iodine
E) crystalline arsenic
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
73) A junction in a photovoltaic (solar) cell is which of the following?

A) a thin layer of n-type semiconductor in contact with a p-type semiconductor
B) three pieces of semiconductor that form a p-n-p connection
C) wires that carry electricity that are attached to the cell
D) pure germanium that is attached to a p-type semiconductor
E) a thin layer of p-type semiconductor in contact with an n-type semiconductor
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC
211
74) According to the band theory, why is a material such as diamond an insulator?
A) All of the electrons are in the conduction band.
B) All of the electrons are tied to nuclei.
C) Very few electrons can make the transition over the large energy gap between the valence band and
the conduction band.
D) The bonds in diamond are too strong to allow atoms to move so no current flows.
E) There are no electrons in the valence band.
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC
75) Which of the following is INCORRECT?

A) Doping is adding a trace of donor or acceptor atoms to pure semiconductor.
B) Aluminum would be a donor atom in silicon.
C) Extrinsic semiconductors have the band gap controlled by the impurities added.
D) Intrinsic semiconductors have a fixed band gap.
E) In a p-type semiconductor, the electrical conductivity is due to positive hole migration.
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
76) Which of the following is INCORRECT about silicon doped with phosphorus?
A) It would form a p-type semiconductor.
B) Phosphorus is a donor atom.
C) Phosphorus has five valence electrons.
D) Each phosphorus is bonded to four neighboring silicon atoms.
E) The extra phosphorus electron is promoted to the conduction band.
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
77) If the wave functions describing the 2s and two of the 2p orbitals are combined, the identical orbitals
derived form bond angles of ________.
A) 90°
B) 120°
C) 180°
D) 109.5°
E) 360°
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
212
78) The hybridization of N in NO2- is ________.
A) sp
B) sp2
C) spd
D) sp3
E) dsp
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
79) What are the ideal bond angles for H2O?

A) 120°
B) 109.5°
C) 90°
D) 180°
E) 75°
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
80) The octahedral hybrid configuration is composed of which orbital combination?

A) sp3d2
B) sp2d3
C) spd2
D) sp3d
E) sp3
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
81) According to the valence bond theory, in the ion NH4+, nitrogen is using which orbitals for bonding?
A) sp3
B) p
C) sp2d
D) sp
E) s
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
213
82) The geometry of sp2 hybridized orbitals is ________.
A) linear
B) tetrahedral
C) trigonal planar
D) octahedral
E) T-shaped
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
83) The hybridization on Xe in XeF4 is ________.

A) not hybridized
B) sp3
C) sp3d
D) sp3d2
E) sp2d
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
84) What is the hybridization of the S atom in SF4?

A) sp3d
B) sp3
C) sp3d2
D) sp4
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
85) What is the hybridization of the Xe atom in XeF2?

A) sp3d
B) sp
C) sp3
D) sp2
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
86) The three molecular shapes an sp3 hybridized molecule can have are ________.
A) triangular, bent, T-shaped
B) irregular tetrahedron, T-shaped, linear
C) octahedron, square pyramid, square planar
D) tetrahedron, trigonal pyramid, bent
E) tetrahedron, T-shaped, bent
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
214
87) For XeF4, what are the dipole moment orientation, hybridization on the central atom, and the
number of lone pairs on the central atom?
A) none, sp3d2, two
B) none, sp3, none
C) away from one pair, sp3d, one
D) toward one pair, sp3d, one
E) toward Xe, sp3d2, one
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
88) The structure of aspirin is given below.
What is the O-C-C bond angle, "x", in aspirin?

A) ~120°
B) ~109°
C) ~90°
D) ~180°
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
89) How many σ bonds and how many π bonds are present in the carbonic acid molecule, H2CO3?
A) 2σ/4π
B) 3σ/3π
C) 4σ/2π
D) 5σ/1π
E) 6σ/0π
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
215
90) One resonance structure of N2O is
The hybridized atomic orbitals of the central nitrogen atom which are consistent with this structure are
________.
A) four sp3 orbitals
B) three sp2 orbitals and a p orbital
C) two sp2 orbitals and two sp orbitals
D) two sp orbitals and two p orbitals
E) one sp orbital and two p orbitals
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
91) Which is the correct molecular orbital diagram for O2- ion?
A) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ π2p ↑ ↓ σ2p ↑ ↓ π2p* ↑ ↓, ↑
B) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ π2p ↑ ↓ σ2p ↑ ↓ π2p* ↑ ↑, ↑
C) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ π2p ↑ ↓, ↑ ↓ σ2p ↑ π2p* ↑ ↓
D) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ π2p ↑ ↓, ↑ ↓ σ2p ↑ ↓ π2p* ↑
E) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ π2p ↑ ↓, ↑ ↓, ↑ ↓ σ2p ↑ ↓ π2p* ↑
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
92) Which is the correct molecular orbital diagram for carbon monoxide?
A) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ π2p ↑ ↓, ↑ ↓ σ2p ↑ ↓
B) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ π2p ↑ ↓, ↑ ↓ σ2p ↑ π2p* ↑
C) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ π2p ↑ ↓, σ2p ↑ ↓ π2p* ↑ ↓
D) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ π2p ↑, ↑, σ2p ↑ ↓ π2p* ↑ ↓
E) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ π2p ↑ ↓, ↑ ↓ π2p* ↑ ↓
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
93) How many σ- and π-bonds, respectively, are there in phenylisothiocyanate, C 6H5NCS? Ignore the
C H bonds in your counting.
A) 9 and 5
B) 8 and 4
C) 5 and 5
D) 9 and 2
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
216
94) How many π-electrons are there in S2O where S is the central atom?
A) 4
B) 2
C) 6
D) 0
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
95) The HCOO- ion can be described by using delocalized electrons. What is the hybridization of the C
atom?
A) sp
B) sp3
C) sp2d
D) sp3d
E) sp2
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
96) What would be the hybridization of the N in the benzene-like molecule (C5H5N)?
A) sp
B) sp3
C) sp3d2
D) sp3d
E) sp2
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
97) What would be the bond order of the N-C bonds in the benzene-like molecule (C5H5N)?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 1/2
D) 3/2
E) 2
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
217
Liquids and Solids
2) H2NCH2CH2NH2 probably has a higher boiling point at 1.00 atm pressure than CH3CH2CH2NH2.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
3) The property of a liquid that measures its resistance to flow is called resistivity.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
4) Surface tension of a liquid is the work or energy required to increase the surface area of a liquid
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
5) The heat of deposition equals the negative of the heat of sublimation.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
6) The phenomenon of supercooling refers to the existence of a metastable liquid at a temperature below
that of its sublimation point.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
7) The process in which a gas is transformed into a solid is called solidification.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
8) CH4 probably has a lower boiling point at 1 atm than SnH4.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
9) All sides are equal in length and all angles are right angles. There is an atom at each corner and one in
the center. This is a simple cubic cell.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
10) All sides are equal in length and all angles are right angles. There is an atom at each corner and one
at the center of each side. This is a face-centered cubic cell.
Answer: TRUE
218
Diff: 1 Type: TF
11) Which of the following statements concerning molecules in the liquid state is true?
A) Cohesive forces are not important.
B) The molecules contract to fit the size of the container.
C) The molecules have no motion.
D) The molecules are in a patterned (oriented) arrangement.
E) The molecules are mobile and relatively close together.
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
12) Which probably has the lowest boiling point at 1.0 atm pressure?
A) PbH4
B) SnH4
C) SiH4
D) GeH4
E) CH4
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
13) Which probably has the lowest boiling point at 1.0 atm pressure?
A) C2H6
B) C4H10
C) C6H14
D) C3H8
E) C5H12
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
14) If one compares compound A, composed of nonpolar molecules, with compound B, composed of
polar molecules, and both molecules have the same molecular formula, then it is true that:
A) both compounds have the same boiling point
B) A boils at a lower temperature than B
C) B will not boil
D) B boils at a lower temperature than A
E) we have to know the structural formula to determine the differences in boiling points of A and B
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
15) Below are given the Lewis structures of five molecules. Which one displays the LEAST hydrogen
bonding?
219
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
16) Below are given the Lewis structures of five molecules. Which one displays the MOST hydrogen
bonding?
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
220
17) Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?
A) NH3
B) H2O
C) HF
D) CH4
E) HBr
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
18) Which probably has the highest boiling point at 1.00 atm pressure?
A) H2NCH2CH2NH2
B) CH3CH2CH2NH2
C) (CH3)2CHNH2
D) CH3CH2NHCH3
E) (CH3)3N
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
19) A liquid will "wet" a surface if:

A) the liquid has a lesser density than the surface
B) the forces between the liquid molecules are weak
C) the liquid has a low vapor pressure
D) the forces between the molecules and the surface are greater than the forces between the molecules of
the liquid
E) The liquid has low viscosity and the surface is smooth
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
20) Surface tension is thought to be due to:

A) surface area trying to increase
B) air absorbed on the surface
C) solute concentrated on the surface
D) surface molecules having lower energy than bulk molecules
E) surface molecules having higher energy than molecules in the bulk
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
221
21) What is the difference between "normal boiling point" and "boiling point" of a liquid?
A) "Normal boiling point" is a boiling point of a liquid at normal (standard) pressure and temperature,
while "boiling point" is measured at any other conditions of pressure and temperature.
B) "Normal boiling point" is a boiling point of 1 mol of a liquid with a surface of 1 m 2, while "boiling
point" is boiling temperature for any other amount of a substance.
C) "Normal boiling point" is a boiling point a liquid has at 1 atm of pressure; "boiling point" is a boiling
temperature of a liquid at any other pressure.
D) "Normal boiling point" and "boiling point" are synonyms.
E) "Normal boiling point" refers to 1 g of substance; "boiling point" refers to any other amount of
substance.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
22) Which of the following describe the critical point of a liquid?

I) the temperature and pressure at which a liquid's meniscus disappears
II) the point where the vapor pressure curve intersects the fusion temperature curve
III) the highest temperature and pressure at which a liquid can exist
IV) the highest temperature at which it is possible to obtain a liquid from its vapor by increasing
pressure
A) I), II), III)
B) I), III), IV)
C) II), III)
D) II), III), IV)
E) I), IV)
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
23) A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor. If some of the vapor is allowed to escape, what is the
immediate result?
A) The condensation rate decreases.
B) The vaporization rate increases.
C) The condensation rate increases.
D) The vaporization rate decreases.
E) The rates of condensation and vaporization are not effected.
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
222
24) When a liquid is in dynamic equilibrium with its vapor at a given temperature, the following
conditions could exist:
I) There is no transfer of molecules between liquid and vapor.
II) The vapor pressure has a unique value.
III) The opposing processes, (liquid to vapor) and (vapor to liquid), proceed at equal rates.
IV) The concentration of vapor is dependent on time.
Which of the above choices are applicable?
A) I
B) II and III
C) I, II, and III
D) II and IV
E) II, III and IV
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
25) When a liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor in a closed container:

A) the rate at which molecules from the liquid phase enter the gas phase exactly equals the rate at which
molecules from the gas phase pass into the liquid phase
B) a change in temperature will not change the pressure in the container
C) the amount of gas in the container must exactly equal the amount of liquid
D) molecules cannot go from the liquid phase to the gas phase because the amount of liquid in the
container is constant
E) the vapor will gradually change back to the liquid state, that is, no vapor will be left
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
26) Under which of the following conditions will vaporization best occur?
A) high mass, large surface area, high kinetic energy
B) weak forces between molecules, high kinetic energy, large surface area
C) high molecular energy, small surface area
D) low kinetic energy, strong molecular forces, large surface area
E) small surface area, low kinetic energy, low molecular mass
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
27) Which of the following keeps the rate of vaporization unchanged?

A) closing container lid
B) increasing forces between molecules
C) increasing mass of molecule
D) decreasing temperature
E) decreasing surface area
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
223
28) A liquid has a normal boiling point of 78°C and its vapor pressure is 400 mmHg at 50°C. To
compute the molar heat of vaporization, one needs:
A) the mole weight
B) all information has been provided
C) the vapor pressure at another temperature
D) the specific heat
E) molarity
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
29) The phenomenon in which a steel needle can, with proper care, be made to float on the surface of
some water illustrates a property of liquids known as:
A) compressibility
B) polarizability
C) surface tension
D) triple point
E) viscosity
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
30) Which of the following statements about viscosity are true:

I) Viscosity is liquid's resistance to flow.
II) Viscosity decreases with a decrease in temperature.
III) Viscosity is not related to the forces between molecules in a liquid.
IV) Viscous liquids have low rate flows.
A) I) and IV)
B) I) and III)
C) I) and II)
D) II) and IV)
E) III and IV)
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
31) Vaporization occurs more readily with:

A) increased temperature, increased surface area, decreased volume
B) increased temperature, increased surface area, increased intramolecular forces
C) increased temperature, decreased surface area, decreased intermolecular forces
D) increased temperature, increased surface area, decreased intermolecular forces
E) increased temperature, decreased surface area, decreased intermolecular forces
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
224
32) The phenomenon of supercooling refers to the existence of a metastable:
A) liquid at a temperature below that of its critical point
B) liquid at a temperature below that of its sublimation point
C) liquid at a temperature below that of its freezing point
D) gas at a temperature below that of its critical point
E) two-phase liquid/solid mixture at the freezing point
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
33) The enthalpy of fusion is:

A) The quantity of heat required to melt a solid
B) The quantity of heat released when a solid melts
C) The quantity of heat when two elements are fused together to produce binary compound
D) The quantity of heat required to fuse two atomic nuclei
E) The quantity of heat released when an organic compound burns in an atmosphere of pure oxygen
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
34) A passage of substance directly from the vapor to the solid state is known as:
A) deposition
B) decomposition
C) sublimation
D) solidification
E) fusion
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
35) Which of the following is true assuming point A has P = 180 mmHg, T = 50°C, point C has P = 275
mmHg, T = 200°C and points A, B, and C form a right triangle?
A) At point B, T = 50°C, P = 275 mmHg.

B) D is temperature, E is pressure.
C) D is pressure, E is volume.
D) At point B, T = 200°C, P = 275 mmHg.
E) B is a liquid.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
225
36) According to the phase diagram given, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A) At the temperature and pressure of point 2, substance Z exists as a three-phase equilibrium system.
B) At the temperature and pressure of point 3, substance Z exists as a one-phase gaseous system.
C) If the Z(s) = Z(l) = Z(g) system is maintained at the temperature of point 2 while pressure is
decreased, more Z will vaporize.
D) If liquid Z is maintained at the pressure of point 4 while the temperature is decreased to 30°C, the
liquid will vaporize.
E) The existence of liquid Z at -50°C and 2 atm represents the metastable condition of "supercooling."
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC
37) According to the phase diagram given, which of the following statements is wrong?
A) At the temperature and pressure of point 1, substance W exists as a three-phase equilibrium system.
B) At the temperature of point 2, a pressure of 500 torr is sufficient to liquify gaseous W.
C) If the W(l) = W(g) system is maintained at the temperature of point 3 while pressure is decreased,
more W will vaporize.
D) If liquid W is maintained at the pressure of point 4 while the temperature is increased to 80°C, the
liquid will vaporize.
E) The existence of liquid W at -40°C and 500 torr represents the metastable condition of
"supercooling."
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC
226
38) According to the phase diagram given, which of the following is INCORRECT?
A) At the temperature and pressure of point 1, substance U exists as a three-phase equilibrium system.
B) At the temperature and pressure of point 2, substance U exists as a one-phase gaseous system.
C) At the temperature and pressure of point 3, substance U exists as a two-phase system.
D) If the U(s)⇔U(l) system is maintained at the temperature of point 4 while pressure is decreased
steadily to about 300 torr, more U will freeze.
E) There are no conditions of temperature and pressure under which solid U will vaporize without
melting first.
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC
39) According to the phase diagram given, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A) At the temperature and pressure of point 1, W exists as a three-phase equilibrium system.

B) At the temperature of point 2, a pressure of 500 torr will cause W to liquefy.
C) If the system is maintained at the temperature of point 3 while pressure is decreased, more W will
vaporize.
D) If W is maintained at the pressure of point 4 while the temperature is increased to 80°C, the liquid
will vaporize.
E) The existence of liquid W at -40°C and 500 torr represents the metastable condition of
"supercooling."
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
227
A) In a network covalent solid, covalent bonds extend throughout the crystalline solid.
B) Diamond has sp3 hybridization.
C) Graphite has sp hybridization.
D) Fullarenes are a recently discovered allotropic form of carbons.
E) Nanotubes are an allotropic form of carbon.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
41) Which of the following ionic compounds should have the highest melting point?
A) NaI
B) MgO
C) NaCl
D) LiBr
E) CaS
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
42) There are no types of crystalline solids that are held together by:
A) dipole-dipole interactions
B) ionic attractions
C) hydrogen bonds
D) covalent bonds
E) pi bonds only
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
43) Which of the substances below would produce the hardest, most brittle crystals?
A) SiC
B) Xe
C) Cu
D) KNO3
E) H2O
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
228
44) Which combination of "type of solid" and specific example is INCORRECT?
A) ionic/"table salt"
B) metallic/copper wire
C) molecular/"dry ice"
D) network covalent/iodine
E) network covalent/silicon carbide
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
45) A crystal and its melt readily conduct electricity. The crystal also has a luster and is easily deformed.
Thus, it is:
A) a covalent network crystal
B) an ionic crystal
C) a metallic crystal
D) a molecular crystal
E) a covalent crystal.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
46) Find a FALSE statement about X-rays.

A) diffracted by crystals
B) radiation of wavelength approximating 1 Angstrom
C) visible to the naked eye
D) used to determine the structure of molecules
E) produced using high-energy electrons
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
47) A compound of iron and sulfur crystallizes in a lattice pattern described as cubic closest packed
sulfide ions, with iron ions in all octahedral sites. What is its empirical formula?
A) FeS
B) FeS2
C) Fe3S4
D) Fe2S
E) Fe2S3
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
229
48) Three types of holes of the cubic closest packed structure are:
A) Trigonal, tetrahedral and octahedral
B) Tetrahedral, pyramidal and octahedral
C) Tetrahedral, bipyramidal and octahedral
D) Cubic,, tetrahedral, and octahedral
E) Tetragonal, tetrahedral and octahedral
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
49) Coordination number is:

A) The number of atoms per unit cell
B) The number of atoms in the corners of the unit cell
C) The number of atoms in contact with a given atom
D) The number of atoms in the holes of closest packed structures
E) The number of layers in close packed structures
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
50) An atom at the corner of cubic unit cell is shared among:

A) six adjoining unit cells
B) four adjoining unit cells
C) eight adjoining unit cells
D) ten adjoining unit cells
E) twelve adjoining unit cells
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
51) Arrange in order by decreasing boiling point:

Cl2, I2, HI
A) I2, Cl2, HI
B) Cl2, I2, HI
C) Cl2, HI, I2
D) HI, Cl2, I2
E) HI, I2, Cl2
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
230
52) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling point:
pentane (CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3), methyl butane (CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH3), neopentane
(CH3C(CH3)3).
A) pentane, methyl butane, neopentane
B) neopentane, methyl butane, pentane
C) neopentane, pentane, methyl butane
D) pentane, neopentane, methyl butane
E) methyl butane, pentane, neopentane
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
53) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling point: HCl, HBr, HI.
A) HCl, HBr, HI
B) HBr, HI, HCl
C) HI, HBr, HCl
D) HCl, HI, HBr
E) HI, HCl, HBr
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
54) Arrange in order by decreasing boiling point:

CH3CH2OH, HOCH2CH2OH, C4H10
A) HOCH2CH2OH, CH3CH2OH, C4H10
B) C4H10, HOCH2CH2OH, CH3CH2OH
C) HOCH2CH2OH, C4H10, CH3CH2OH
D) C4H10, CH3CH2OH, HOCH2CH2OH
E) CH3CH2OH, C4H10, HOCH2CH2OH
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
55) What is the maximum number of glycerol molecules [HOCH2CH(OH)CH2OH] that could form
hydrogen bonds to a single molecule of the compound?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 9
E) 14
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
231
56) The property that causes water to have a concave meniscus but mercury to have a convex meniscus
is ________.
A) heat of vaporization
B) sublimation
C) surface tension
D) vapor pressure
E) critical point
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
57) The property of a liquid that measures its resistance to flow is called ________.
A) capillarity
B) polarizability
C) resistivity
D) viscosity
E) wetability
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
58) Which of the following compounds is the most viscous?

CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2CH3, HOCH2CH2OH, CH3OCH2CH3
A) CH3CH2OH
B) CH3CH2CH2CH3
C) CH3OCH2CH3
D) HOCH2CH2OH
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
59) The enthalpy of condensation is equal to, but opposite in sign from, the enthalpy of ________.
A) crystallization
B) formation
C) fusion
D) sublimation
E) vaporization
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
232
60) The enthalpy of vaporization at 298 K for diethylether (C4H10O) is 26.0 kJ/mol. How much heat
would be required to vaporize 1.00 L of the ether at 298 K if its density is 0.714 g/L?
A) 440 J
B) 250 J
C) 186 J
D) 130 J
E) 74.1 J
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
61) Flask A has a volume of 0.50 L and contains 50 g of a volatile liquid. Flask B has a volume of 1.0 L
and contains 25 g of the same liquid. Both flasks are stoppered and both are at 30°C. The ratio of the
vapor pressure of the liquid in Flask A to that in Flask B is:
A) 4:1
B) 2:1
C) 1:1
D) 1:2
E) 1:4
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
62) The temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external pressure is called the
________.
A) boiling point
B) critical point
C) melting point
D) sublimation point
E) thermal point
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
63) When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure, the temperature of the liquid
equals ________.
A) 100°C
B) the boiling point
C) the normal boiling point
D) the vaporization point
E) the sublimation point
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
233
64) How much heat would be released by the condensation of 5.40 g of steam at 100°C and the
subsequent cooling of the water to 25°C? [ΔHvap = 40.7 kJ/mol at 100°C; Cp for H2O(l) is
4.18 J g-1 °C-1]
A) 12.2 kJ
B) 12.8 kJ
C) 13.9 kJ
D) 18.3 kJ
E) 23.7 kJ
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
65) The normal boiling point of acetone is 56.2°C and the molar heat of vaporization is 32.0 kJ/mol.
At what temperature will acetone boil under a pressure of 50.0 mmHg?
A) 156 °C
B) 6.0 °C
C) -6.0 °C
D) 40.7 °C
E) 73.6 °C
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
66) A liquid has a molar heat of vaporization of 22.7 kJ/mol. Its normal boiling point is 459K.
What is the vapor pressure, in mmHg, at 70°C?
A) 102 mmHg
B) 7.48 mmHg
C) 56.8 mmHg
D) 742 mmHg
E) 580 mmHg
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
67) Given the data below, determine the molar enthalpy change of vaporization of COCl 2.
COCl2, P1 = 40 mmHg, t1 = -50.3°C, P2 = 100 mmHg, t2 = -35.6°C
A) 0.518 kJ/mol
B) 27.4 kJ/mol
C) 4.32 kJ/mol
D) 0.928 kJ/mol
E) 0.112 kJ/mol
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
234
68) Given the data below, determine the molar enthalpy change of vaporization of liquid Rb.
Rb, P1 = 1.00 mmHg, t1 = 297°C, P2 = 400 mmHg, t2 = 620°C
A) 5.49 kJ/mol
B) 28.4 kJ/mol
C) 78.5 kJ/mol
D) 12.8 kJ/mol
E) 4.62 kJ/mol
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
69) Given the data below, determine the normal boiling point of COCl 2.
P1 = 100 mmHg, t1 = -35.6°C, ΔHvap = 27.4 kJ/mol
A) 278°C
B) -65.1°C
C) -36.4°C
D) 5.0°C
E) -5.0°C
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
70) Given the data below, determine the normal boiling point of liquid Rb.
P1 = 400 mmHg, t1 = 620°C, ΔHvap = 78.5 kJ/mol
A) 374°C
B) 920°C
C) 647°C
D) 951°C
E) 678°C
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
71) The maximum temperature at which a gas can be liquefied is just below the ________.
A) boiling temperature
B) critical temperature
C) melting temperature
D) normal temperature
E) superheating temperature
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
235
72) Liquid and vapor phases of a substance become indistinguishable at the ________.
A) triple point
B) normal point
C) permanent point
D) critical point
E) absolute point
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
73) The relationship between the vapor pressure of a liquid and temperature can be expressed by the
Clausius-Clapeyron equation:
Log[P2/P1] = [ΔHvap/R] × [1/T1 - 1/T2]
Ethanol (C2H5OH) has a normal boiling point of 78.3°C and, with ΔHvap = 39.3 kJ/mol. What is the
vapor pressure of ethanol at 50.0°C?
A) 118 torr
B) 234 torr
C) 354 torr
D) 485 torr
E) 670 torr
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
74) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing viscosity:

I) 1-propanol, CH3CH2CH2OH;
II) 1,2-propanediol, CH3CH(OH)CH2OH;
III) 1,2,3-propanetriol, (glycerol), HOCH2CH(OH)CH2OH.
A) I, II, III
B) II, III, I
C) III, I, II
D) III, II, I
E) I, III, II
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
236
75) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling point:
I) 1-propanol, CH3CH2CH2OH;
II) 1,2-propanediol, CH3CH(OH)CH2OH;
III) 1,2,3-propanetriol, (glycerol), HOCH2CH(OH)CH2OH.
A) II, III, I
B) I, II, III
C) III, I, II
D) III, II, I
E) I, III, II
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
76) A 0.90 g sample of liquid water was introduced into an evacuated 2.00 L flask, which was then
sealed and heated to 37°C. What percentage, by mass, of the water remained as liquid? [Vapor pressure
of water at 37°C = 48.2 torr.]
A) 10%
B) 18%
C) 82%
D) 90%
E) 0%
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
77) What would be the appropriate equilibrium temperature of a system obtained by adding 25.0 g of ice
at 0°C to 250.0 mL of "hot" (80°C) coffee, assuming that the heat capacity and density of the coffee are
the same as for pure water (4.18 J g-1 °C-1 and 0.997 g mL-1), and also assuming negligible heat
transfer with the surroundings? [For water, ΔHfusion = 6.02 kJ/mol.]
A) 33°C
B) 40°C
C) 65°C
D) 73°C
E) 79°C
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
78) The factor that has the largest effect on vapor pressure is ________.
A) liquid surface area
B) molecular dipole moment
C) presence of H bonding
D) liquid mole weight
E) volume available for vapor
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
237
79) The heat of deposition equals the negative of the heat of ________.
A) fusion
B) condensation
C) sublimation
D) solidification
E) reposition
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
80) A substance has a heat of fusion of 61.5 kJ/mol and a heat of deposition of -167.4 kJ/mol. What is
the heat of sublimation in kJ/mol?
A) -61.5 kJ/mol
B) 61.5 - 167.4 kJ/mol
C) 61.5 + 167.4 kJ/mol
D) 167.4 - 61.5 kJ/mol
E) 167.4 kJ/mol
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
81) If a substance has a heat of condensation of -1.46 kJ/g and a heat of sublimation of 4.60 kJ/g, what is
its heat of solidification in kJ/g?
A) 4.60 - 1.46 kJ/g
B) -(4.60 + 1.46) kJ/g
C) 1.46 - 4.60 kJ/g
D) 4.60 + 1.46 kJ/g
E) 0 kJ/g
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
82) If 34 g of a solid of mol mass = 174 g/mol requires 21.3 kJ to melt it, what is the molar heat of
fusion in kJ/mol?
A) (21.3)(174)(34) kJ/mol
B) (21.3/174)(34) kJ/mol
C) (21.3/174)/34 kJ/mol
D) (21.3)(174/34) kJ/mol
E) (34/21.3)(174) kJ/mol
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
238
83) Ethyl alcohol (CH3CH2OH) has a heat of fusion of 5.01 kJ/mol. How much heat in kJ is required to
melt 137g of ethyl alcohol?
A) 1.70 × 103 kJ
B) 129 kJ
C) 686 kJ
D) 5.01 kJ
E) 14.9 kJ
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
84) The heat of fusion for water is 6.01 kJ/mol and for ethyl alcohol is 5.01 kJ/mol. The amount of heat
that would melt 25.0 grams of water would melt how many grams of ethyl alcohol?
A) 76.7 g
B) 53.3 g
C) 11.7 g
D) 8.2 g
E) 30.0 g
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
85) The heat of fusion for napthalene (C10H8) is 18.98 kJ/mol and for sodium is 2.60 kJ/mol. The
amount of heat that would melt 37.0 grams of napthalene would melt how many grams of sodium?
A) 0.909 g
B) 1510 g
C) 28.3 g
D) 48.4 g
E) 270. g
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
86) The process in which a gas is transformed into a solid is called ________.
A) vaporization
B) condensation
C) solidification
D) deposition
E) fusion
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
239
87) The triple point of H2O is at 4.58 mmHg and +0.01°C. Some H2O at -50°C is heated to 120°C at a
constant pressure of 0.5 atm. The changes of state occurring in this process are:
A) solid to gas
B) solid to liquid to gas
C) liquid to gas
D) solid to liquid
E) gas to liquid to solid
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
88) List the following ionic compounds in order of increasing solubility in water:
RbI, CaO, KCl
A) RbI, CaO, KCl
B) KCl, CaO, RbI
C) KCl, RbI, CaO
D) CaO, KCl, RbI
E) RbI, KCl, CaO
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
89) Which of the following compounds has the largest lattice energy?
MgCO3, Na2CO3, Al2(CO3)2
A) Na2CO3
B) MgCO3
C) Al2(CO3)2
D) They all have the same lattice energy.
E) Not enough information is available to determine which is largest.
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
in the absolute center. This is a ________.
A) face-centered cubic cell
B) simple cubic cell
C) unit cell
D) body-centered cubic cell
E) hexagonal unit cell
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
240
at the center of each side. This is a ________.
A) body-centered cubic cell
B) simple cubic cell
C) unit cell
D) face-centered cubic cell
E) hexagonal unit cell
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
92) An arrangement in which every other layer is identical (ABABABAB) is ________.

A) octahedral holes
B) tetrahedral holes
C) hexagonal close packed
D) cubic close packing
E) cubic face centered
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
93) A crystal does not conduct electricity, yet its melt and aqueous solutions do. It is hard and brittle and
melts at a high temperature. What type of crystal is it?
A) a molecular crystal
B) a covalent network crystal
C) a metallic crystal
D) an ionic crystal
E) an intermetallic crystal
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
94) A crystal does not conduct electricity, even after melting. It is hard and brittle and melts at a very
high temperature. What type of crystal is it?
A) an ionic crystal
B) an intermetallic (alloy) crystal
C) a covalent network crystal
D) a metallic crystal
E) a molecular crystal
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
241
95) Given the following information, calculate ΔH°(in kcal mol-1) for: Cl(g) + e- → Cl-(g)
Process ΔH° (kcal mol-1)

Li(s) → Li(g) +37
Li(g) → Li+(g) + e- +124
Cl2(g) → 2Cl(g) +58 (per mole Cl2)
LiCl(s) → Li+(g) + Cl-(g) +216
2Li(s) + Cl2(g) → 2LiCl(s) -109 (per mole LiCl)
A) + 83 kcal mol-1
B) -83 kcal mol-1
C) 161 kcal mol-1
D) -112 kcal mol-1
E) 190 kcal mol-1
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
96) Given the following information, calculate ΔH°(in kcal mol-1) for: LiCl(s) → Cl-(g) + Li+(g)

Li(s) → Li(g) +37
Li(g) → Li+(g) + e- +124
Cl2(g) → 2Cl(g) +29 (per mole Cl)
Cl(g) + e- → Cl-(g) -83
2Li(s) + Cl2(g) → 2LiCl(s) -109 (per mole LiCl)
A) +73 kcal mol-1

B) +148 kcal mol-1
C) +216 kcal mol-1
D) -96 kcal mol-1
E) -49 kcal mol-1
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
242
97) Given the following information, calculate ΔH°(in kcal mol-1) for: NaI(s) → Na+(g) + I-(g)

Na(s) → Na(g) +26
I2(g) → 2I(g) +36 (per mole I2)
I2(s) → I2(g) +15
Na(g) → Na+(g) + e- +118
I(g) + e- → I-(g) -71
2Na(s) + I2(s) → 2NaI(s) -699 (per mole NaI)
A) 816 kcal mol-1

B) 823 kcal mol-1
C) 562 kcal mol-1
D) 746 kcal mol-1
E) 798 kcal mol-1
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
98) Given the following information, calculate ΔH°(in kcal mol-1) for: I(g) + e- → I-(g)

Na(s) → Na(g) +26
I2(g) → 2I(g) +36 (per mole I2)
I2(s) → I2(g) +15
Na(g) → Na+(g) + e- +118
NaI(s) → Na+(g) + I- (g) +798
2Na(s) + I2(s) → 2NaI(s) -699 (per mole NaI)
A) -633 kcal mol-1

B) -450 kcal mol-1
C) -71 kcal mol-1
D) -696 kcal mol-1
E) +712 kcal mol-1
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
243
99) Given the following information, calculate ΔH°(in kcal mol-1) for: I(g) + e- → I-(g)
Process ΔH° (kcal/mole)

Ca(s) → Ca(g) +178
I2(g) → 2I(g) +36 (per mole I2)
I2(s) → I2(g) +15
Ca(g) → Ca+(g) + e- +590
Ca+(g) → Ca+2(g) + e- +1145
CaI2(s) → Ca+2(g) +2 I- (g) +1288
Ca(s) + I2(s) → CaI2(s) +534 (per mole CaI2)
A) -715 kcal mol-1
B) -338 kcal mol-1
C) -89 kcal mol-1
D) -71 kcal mol-1
E) -142 kcal mol-1
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
100) Given the following information, calculate ΔH°(in kcal mol-1) for: CaI2(s) → Ca+2(g) +2 I-(g)

Ca(s) → Ca(g) +178
I2(g) → 2I(g) +36 (per mole I2)
I2(s) → I2(g) +15
Ca(g) → Ca+(g) + e- +590
Ca+(g) → Ca+2(g) + e- +1145
I(g) + e- → I-(g) -71
Ca(s) + I2(s) → CaI2(s) +534 (per mole CaI2)
A) 1359 kcal mol-1
B) 1270 kcal mol-1
C) 2356 kcal mol-1
D) 1572 kcal mol-1
E) 1288 kcal mol-1
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
244
101) Given the tabulated data, what is the lattice energy of crystalline calcium chloride?
heat of sublimation for calcium +178 kJ/mol

first ionization energy for calcium +590 kJ/mol
second ionization energy for calcium +1145 kJ/mol
heat of dissociation for chlorine +122 kJ/mol(Cl)
electron affinity for chlorine -349 kJ/mol
heat of formation for calcium chloride -796 kJ/mol
A) -1996 kJ/mol
B) -2101 kJ/mol
C) -2255 kJ/mol
D) -2345 kJ/mol
E) -2450 kJ/mol
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
102) Given the tabulated data, what is the electron affinity for chlorine?
heat of sublimation for calcium +178 kJ/mol

first ionization energy for calcium +590 kJ/mol
second ionization energy for calcium +1145 kJ/mol
heat of dissociation for chlorine +122 kJ/mol(Cl)
heat of formation for calcium chloride -796 kJ/mol
lattice energy of crystalline calcium chloride -2255 kJ/mol
A) -508 kJ/mol
B) -288 kJ/mol
C) -698 kJ/mol
D) -349 kJ/mol
E) -983 kJ/mol
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
245
Solutions Equilibria
1) In the solution, a solute is present in the greatest quantity.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
2) Molality is independent of temperature, molarity is dependent on temperature.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
3) For the formation of an ideal solution from two liquid hydrocarbons, ΔHsoln < 0.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
4) The stronger the forces between solute and solvent molecules, the more exothermic the solution
process.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
5) An unsaturated solution will have some solid undissolved in the bottom of the container.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
6) Gas solubility always increases with temperature.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3 Type: TF
7) Most volatile liquids can be separated from each other by fractional distillation.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 3 Type: TF
8) Osmotic pressure is a colligative property.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
9) Adding a solute to a solvent lowers the freezing point of the solution compared to the pure solvent.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
246
10) The van't Hoff factor is due to ions being attracted to each other enough that they don't react as
individual molecules.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
11) A sweetened cup of coffee is an example of a:

A) heterogeneous mixture
B) homogeneous mixture
C) solid solution
D) pure liquid
E) gaseous solute in a liquid solvent
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
12) A solid solution of zinc in copper is an example of:

A) a solvent
B) a solute
C) the U.S. five-cent nickel
D) a non-uniform solute
E) an alloy
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
13) A solution prepared by dissolving 4.00 g KCl in 36.0 g H2O is said to be:
A) 11.1% KCl by mass
B) 0.100% KCl by mass
C) 0.111% KCl by mass
D) 10.0% KCl by mass
E) 9.00% KCl by mass
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
14) Which definition is INCORRECT?

A) mole fraction = moles of solute/moles of solution
B) molality = moles of solute/kilogram of solvent
C) weight percent = grams of solute/100 grams of solution
D) molarity = moles of solute/liter of solution
E) volume percent=volume of solute/volume of solution
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
247
15) An aqueous solution containing 1.0 g ephedrine in 20.0 mL solution is said to be:
A) 5.0% ephedrine (mass/vol)
B) 1.0% ephedrine (mass/vol)
C) 0.50% ephedrine (mass/vol)
D) 0.050% ephedrine (mass/vol)
E) 20.0% ephedrine (mass/vol)
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
16) A 1.00 molal solution of NaCl in water contains:

A) 1.00 g NaCl per 1000.0 g H2O
B) 1.00 mol NaCl per 1000.0 g H2O
C) 1.00 mol NaCl per 1000.0 kg H2O
D) 1000.0 g NaCl per 1000.0 g H2O
E) 1.00 mol NaCl per 1000.0 mol H2O
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
17) A magnesium sulfate heptahydrate solution, which is 18.00% by weight in the anhydrous
compound, has a density at 20°C of 1.20 g/mL. What is the molality of the anhydrous compound in the
solution? (Atomic weights: H = 1.0, O = 16.0, S = 32.1, Mg = 24.3)
A) 5.54 M
B) 1.79 M
C) 1.82 M
D) 1.25 M
E) 1.49 M
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC
18) Liquid Q is a polar solvent and liquid R is a nonpolar solvent. On the basis of this information, you
would expect:
A) both liquids to be miscible with a third liquid T
B) liquid Q to be miscible with liquid R
C) NaCl to be soluble to both Q and R
D) liquid Q and H2O to be miscible
E) liquid R and H2O to be miscible
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
248
19) Which of the following pairs are more likely to form a solution?
A) chloroform (CHCl3) and acetone (CH3COCH3)
B) water and octane (C8H18)
C) methanol (CH3OH) and hexane (C6H14)
D) water and octyl alcohol (C8H17OH)
E) acetone (CH3COCH3) and octane (C8H13)
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
20) Which compound is most likely to be soluble in water?

A) butyl alcohol (CH3CH2CH2CH2OH)
B) ethylene glycol (HOCH2CH2OH)
C) hexane (C6H14)
D) benzene (C6H12)
E) iodine (I2)
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
21) Which compound is most likely to be soluble in hexane?

A) water
B) acetone (CH3COCH3)
C) benzene (C6H12)
D) ethyl alcohol (CH3CH2OH)
E) chloroform (CHCl3)
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
22) Which of the following pairs of liquids would form a nonideal solution?
A) CHCl3 and (CH3)2CO
B) C6H5-CH3 (toluene) and C6H6 (benzene)
C) CH3CH2CH2OH and CH3CH(OH)CH3
D) H5C6-C6H5 (diphenyl) and C6H6 (benzene)
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
249
23) A solution is called "ideal" when:
A) all intermolecular forces of attraction are the same, resulting in no net enthalpy change when the
solution is formed from its components.
B) the forces of attraction between solute molecules exceed those between solute and solvent molecules.
C) the forces of attraction between solute and solvent molecules are somewhat smaller than between
solute-solute molecules or solvent-solvent molecules.
D) the forces of attraction between solvent molecules exceed those between solute and solvent
molecules.
E) the forces of attraction between solute molecules and solvent molecules are much smaller than
between solute-solute molecules or solvent-solvent molecules.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
24) Which of the following compounds has the highest solubility?

A) CaCl2
B) SrI2
C) CaI2
D) MgI2
E) CaBr2
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
25) Which of the following organic substances is most readily soluble in water?
A) benzene
B) pyridine
C) octane
D) carbon tetrachloride
E) toluene
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
250
26) Which of the following statements about ideal solutions is(are) true?
I) Entropy effects are important for the formation of ideal solutions.
II) The heat of solution is zero.
III) The vapor pressure varies linearly with the composition.
IV) The forces between like kinds of molecules are (almost) equal to the forces between unlike kinds
of molecules.
A) I), II), IV)
B) I), III), IV)
C) II), III), IV)
D) I), II), III)
E) I), II), III), IV)
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
27) A solution that can dissolve no more solute is called:

A) unsaturated
B) saturated
C) concentrated
D) supersaturated
E) oversaturated
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
28) A crystal is placed into a solution and the solution seems to solidify while getting much warmer at
the same time. The solution must have been:
A) supersaturated
B) dilute
C) saturated
D) unsaturated
E) concentrated
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
251
29) The solubilities of ammonium bromide, NH4Br, in water at 0°C, 20°C, and 80°C are as follows:
T (°C) Sol. g NH4Br/100 g H2O
0 60.5
20 76.4
80 125
Which of the following fractional crystallization schemes would produce the highest percent yield for
the recrystallization of ammonium bromide?
A) A solution containing 50.5 g NH4Br in 100.0 g H2O at 20°C is cooled to 0°C.
B) A solution containing 115 g NH4Br in 200 g H2O at 80°C is cooled to 0°C.
C) A solution containing 120 g NH4Br in 100 g H2O at 80°C is cooled to 20°C.
D) A solution containing 100 g NH4Br in 100.0 g H2O at 80°C is cooled to 20°C.
E) A solution containing 95 g NH4Br in 175 g H2O at 80°C is cooled to 0°C.
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC
30) Henry's Law states that:

A) a supersaturated solution is unstable
B) the solubility of a gas increases as the gas pressure is increased
C) the solubility of a gas decreases as the gas pressure is increased
D) a concentrated solution lowers the freezing point of a solution
E) a concentrated solution increases the boiling point of a solution
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
31) Henry's Law constants for aqueous solutions at 25°C are 8.20 × 10 -7 molal/mmHg for N2 and
1.62 × 10-6 molal/mmHg for O2. Determine the solubility of nitrogen in water under an atmospheric
pressure of 760 mmHg, assuming that air is 80% N2 and 20% O2.
A) 6.23 × 10-4 m
B) 7.79 × 10-4 m
C) 4.99 × 10-4 m
D) 1.25 × 10-4 m
E) 6.16 × 10-3 m
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
252
32) Henry's Law constants for aqueous solutions at 25°C are 8.20 × 10-7 molal/mmHg for N2 and
1.62 × 10-6 molal/mmHg for O2. Determine the solubility of oxygen in water under an atmospheric
pressure of 760 mmHg, assuming that air is 80% N2 and 20% O2.
A) 6.2 × 10-3 m
B) 2.5 × 10-4 m
C) 1.3 × 10-4 m
D) 5.0 × 10-4 m
E) 1.2 × 10-3 m
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
33) Nitrogen gas has a Henry's law constant k = 6.3 × 10-4 M/atm at 25°C. The "bends" in divers results
from bubbles of N2(g) being rapidly released from body fluids when a diver ascends to the surface too
quickly. Which of the following would be a good substitute for N2(g) in order to make the "bends" less
severe?
A) He(g), k = 3.7 × 10-4 M/atm
B) Ar(g), k = 1.5 × 10-3 M/atm
C) H2(g), k = 8.1 × 10-4 M/atm
D) CO2(g), k = 3.4 × 10-2 M/atm
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
34) The solubility of CO in water at 0°C and 1 atm CO pressure is 0.0354 mg of CO in 1 mL of water.
Calculate the molarity of aqueous CO solution at the normal partial pressure of CO of 0.00036 atm?
A) 4.5 × 10-7 M
B) 1.6 × 10-3 M
C) 1.3 × 10-5 M
D) 2.9 × 10-4 M
E) 3.2 × 10-3 M
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
35) The solubility of CO in water at 0°C and 1 atm CO pressure is 0.0354 mg of CO in 1 mL of water.
Calculate the molarity of aqueous CO solution at 2 atm CO pressure.
A) 1.58 × 10-3 M
B) 6.32 × 10-2 M
C) 1.59 M
D) 2.53 × 10-3 M
E) 3.16 × 10-3 M
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC
253
36) Which of the following is a correct statement about azeotropes?
A) The components boil at distinct temperatures.
B) The mixture cannot be separated by fractional distillation.
C) The solution behaves as an ideal solution.
D) The vapor has a different composition than the liquid.
E) The solution has the same pressure as the pure solvent.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
37) An azeotropic mixture is a:

A) mixture of two or more substances where boiling point cannot be determined.
B) solution of two or more substances present in the same amounts in the liquid phase.
C) liquid mixture of two or more substances in which the vapor has the same composition as the liquid.
D) liquid mixture of two or more substances linked by azide functional groups.
E) solution of two or more substances that cannot be made to freeze.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
38) A solution composed of 5 moles of acetone (CH3COCH3, P°A = 324 mmHg) and 5 moles of
chloroform (CHCl3, P°C = 274 mmHg) has a vapor pressure of 236 mmHg. Which one of the following
statements is completely true about this solution?
A) The solution shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law and thus possesses a maximum boiling
azeotrope.
B) The solution process is exothermic because the forces between unlike molecules are weaker than
those between like molecules.
C) The solution shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law.
D) The solution possesses a minimum boiling azeotrope because it shows a negative deviation from
Raoult's law.
E) The solution obeys Raoult's Law.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
39) The vapor pressures of pure propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol are 21.0 mmHg and 45.2 mmHg,
respectively, at 25°C. What is the composition of the vapor in equilibrium with a propyl alcohol -
isopropyl alcohol solution in which the mole fraction of propyl alcohol is 0.250?
A) xiso = 0.866, xprop = 0.134
B) xiso = 0.750, xprop = 0.250
C) xiso = 0.317, xprop = 0.683
D) xiso = 0.512, xprop = 0.488
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
254
40) What is the osmotic pressure in mmHg of 6.00 L of a 0.108 M solution at 30°C if three moles of
ions are produced in aqueous solution for every mole of solute dissolved?
A) 8.05 mmHg
B) 3.68 × 104 mmHg
C) 2.04 × 103 mmHg
D) 0.0613 mmHg
E) 6.13 × 103 mmHg
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
41) Arrange the following three water solutions (all 250 cm 3 in volume) according to decreasing
osmotic pressure at 273 K: 5 g of C2H5OH, 5 g C6H12O6 ,and 5 g C12H22O11.
A) C2H5OH > C6H12O6 > C12H22O11
B) C2H5OH > C6H12O6 = C12H22O11
C) C6H12O6 > C2H5OH > C12H22O11
D) C12H22O11 > C6H12O6 > C2H5OH
E) C12H22O11 > C2H5OH> C6H12O6
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
42) Colligative properties are similar in that they all:

A) are due to solvent chemical interactions
B) depend on the number of solute particles in solution
C) depend on the solvent
D) have no effect on the properties of solution
E) describe colloids
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
43) Which of the following is a non-colligative property?

A) freezing point depression
B) boiling point elevation
C) osmotic pressure
D) solubility
E) vapour pressure lowering
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
255
44) A solution containing 3.24 g of sulfur in 40 g of benzene boils 0.81°C above the boiling point of
pure benzene. Determine the number of S atoms in one molecule of dissolved sulfur. Kb for benzene is
2.53°C m-1.
A) 10
B) 12
C) 6
D) 8
E) 4
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
45) Solutions are made that contain 0.10 moles of each of the following compounds in 100 g of H2O.
Choose the compound whose solution will have the highest freezing point.
A) K2SO4
B) NaI
C) Mg(CH3CO2)2
D) Ca3(PO4)2
E) Sr(NO3)2
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
46) Solutions are made that contain 0.1 moles of each of the following compounds below in 100 g of
H2O. Choose the compound whose solution will have the lowest freezing point.
A) MgCl2
B) KClO3
C) CO2
D) MgSO4
E) NaBr
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
47) Which of the following aqueous solutions has the lowest freezing point?
A) 1.5 m aluminum perchlorate.
B) 1.0 m magnesium phosphate
C) 1.5 m calcium nitrate
D) 2.0 m potassium chloride
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
256
48) Which of the following aqueous solutions has the highest boiling point?
A) 1.0 m magnesium phosphate
B) 1.5 m sodium sulfate
C) 2.0 m lithium perchlorate
D) 1.5 m magnesium sulfate
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
49) We wish to lower the freezing point of the water in an automobile radiator to -40°C. The total mass
of water present is 12.0 kg. For which one of the following compounds would we have to use the
greatest mass of solute to achieve this? You may assume that Kf for water = -1.86°C/m and that all
ionizable solutes are completely ionized with unit activity even at this high concentration.
A) AlF3 (M.W. = 84 g/mol)
B) C2H5OH (M.W. = 46 g/mol)
C) CaCl2 (M.W. = 111 g/mol)
D) C3H6(OH)2 (M.W. = 76 g/mol)
E) NaCl (M.W. = 58.5 g/mol)
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC
50) Which of the following is a true solution with particles less than 1 nm in size?
A) calcium chloride in water.
B) oil in water.
C) whipped cream.
D) milk.
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
51) Which of the following combination of dispersed phase in a dispersion medium with the colloid type
is INCORRECT?
A) Solid in liquid is a sol.
B) Solid in solid is a solid sol.
C) Solid in gas is an aerosol.
D) Liquid in solid is a solid foam.
E) Liquid in gas is an aerosol.
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
257
A) Colloids are homogeneous solutions.
B) A true colloidal particle will not settle out of the dispersing membrane.
C) Colloidal particles can usually pass through a semipermeable membrane.
D) Electrolytes are protective colloids.
E) Dispersion is the method of preparing colloids from ions or molecules.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) Since colloidal particles are large aggregates of atoms they are electrically neutral.
B) Colloidal suspensions can be prepared in which the particles do not settle.
C) The addition of electrolytes to a colloidal suspension will sometimes cause the particles to coalesce
and precipitate.
D) Colloidal particles reflect light from a beam.
E) Colloidal suspensions exhibit the Tyndall Effect.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
54) Which of the following material-colloid type combinations is INCORRECT?

A) mayonnaise - emulsion
B) whipped cream - foam
C) smoke - aerosol
D) lava - solid foam
E) opal - solid sol
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
55) Which of the following is an example of a colloid?

A) sucrose in water
B) whipped cream
C) steel
D) salt in water
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
56) A solution component present in lesser quantity than the solvent is called ________.
A) a diluent
B) an alloy
C) a heterogeneous solid
D) a solute
E) a mixture
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
258
57) Moles of solute per mole of solution is a definition of ________.
A) molarity
B) mole fraction
C) percent by weight
D) molality
E) normality
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
58) An aqueous solution contains 64.0 g of ethanol (C2H5OH) in 122.0 g of solution. What is the mole
fraction of ethanol in the solution?
A) 0.301
B) 0.432
C) 0.205
D) 0.698
E) 0.317
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
59) Moles of solute per liter of solution is the definition of ________.

A) molality
B) solubility
C) molarity
D) normality
E) mole fraction
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
60) 85.0 grams of potassium bromide are to be used to produce a 0.300 M solution. What will be the
total volume of this solution?
A) 2.38 L
B) 2.83 L
C) 283 L
D) 0.214 L
E) 0.420 L
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
259
61) Commercial nitric acid is 16.0 M HNO3(aq) and has a density of 1.42 g/mL. What is the mole
fraction of HNO3 in this solution?
A) 0.412
B) 0.699
C) 0.589
D) 0.704
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
62) Commercial perchloric acid is 70.0% by mass, HClO4(aq), and has a density of 1.67 g/mL.
Calculate the mole fraction of perchloric acid in the solution.
A) 0.295
B) 0.420
C) 0.705
D) 0.697
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
63) Commercial perchloric acid is 70.0% by mass, HClO4(aq), and has a density of 1.67 g/mL.
Calculate the molarity of perchloric acid in the solution.
A) 11.5 M
B) 1.17 M
C) 23.7 M
D) 16.5 M
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
64) 252 mL of 3.00 M H2SO4 are added to 1.50 L of 0.500 M H2SO4. What is the concentration of the
resulting solution?
A) 1.50 M
B) 0.860 M
C) 2.64 M
D) 1.75 M
E) 1.25 M
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
260
65) What is the mass/vol % ethanol in an ethanol-water solution with a density of 0.875 g/mL and
containing 65.0% ethanol by volume? The density of pure ethanol is 0.789 g/mL.
A) 90.2% ethanol (mass/vol)
B) 56.9% ethanol (mass/vol)
C) 51.3% ethanol (mass/vol)
D) 58.6% ethanol (mass/vol)
E) 74.5% ethanol (mass/vol)
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
66) An aqueous solution containing 12.0% MgCl2 by mass has a density of 1.105 g/mL. What is the mol
fraction of water in this solution?
A) 0.975
B) 0.880
C) 0.868
D) 0.133
E) 0.952
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
67) 138.0 grams of ethanol (46.0 g/mol), 99.0 grams of water (18.0 g/mol), and 80.0 grams of methanol
(32.0 g/mol) comprise a solution. What is the mole fraction of methanol present in the solution?
A) 0.273
B) 0.338
C) 0.294
D) 0.252
E) 0.227
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
68) A magnesium sulfate heptahydrate solution, which is 18.00% by weight in the anhydrous
compound, has a density at 20°C of 1.20 g/mL. What is the molarity of the anhydrous compound in the
solution? (Atomic weights: H = 1.0, O = 16.0, S = 32.1, Mg = 24.3)
A) 5.54 M
B) 1.79 M
C) 1.82 M
D) 1.25 M
E) 1.49 M
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
261
69) 100 mL of LiNO3, 0.241 M is mixed with 240 mL of 0.618 M Ca(NO3)2. What is the final
concentration of NO3- in the solution?
A) 0.508 M
B) 1.01 M
C) 0.943 M
D) 0.756 M
E) 1.38 M
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
70) A 1.38 M solution of nitric acid (63. g/mol) in water (18.0 g/mol) has a density of 1.04 g/mL. What
is the mole fraction of nitric acid in the solution?
A) 0.0254
B) 0.0239
C) 0.0261
D) 0.0228
E) 0.0233
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
71) What is the molarity of a saturated solution of potassium sulfate if the solubility is 13 g per 100 g
H2O at 25°C? The density of the solution is 1.1 g/mL
A) 0.14 M
B) 1.1 M
C) 0.96 M
D) 0.73 M
E) 0.79 M
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
72) The solubility of ammonium permanganate is 7.90 g/100 mL of water. 29.0 grams of ammonium
permanganate are placed in a container and 220 mL of water is added. The liquid is allowed to stand in
contact with the solid until equilibrium is achieved and then the liquid is poured off. What is the weight
of solid left?
A) 17.4 g
B) 79.0 g
C) 7.90 g
D) 11.6 g
E) 29.0 g
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
262
73) A saturated solution of ammonium sulfate, (NH4)2SO4, in water at 30°C contains 78.0 g
(NH4)2SO4 per 100.0 g H2O. What is the molality of this solution?
A) 0.780 m
B) 1.69 m
C) 0.590 m
D) 0.0590 m
E) 5.90 m
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
74) The vapor pressures of pure propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol are 21.0 mmHg and 45.2 mmHg,
respectively, at 25°C. Calculate the partial pressure of isopropyl alcohol above a solution in which the
mole fraction of propyl alcohol is 0.250.
A) 33.9 mmHg
B) 11.3 mmHg
C) 5.25 mmHg
D) 15.8 mmHg
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
75) The concentration unit used in Raoult's Law calculations is ________.

A) mole fraction
B) percent by weight
C) molarity
D) molality
E) grams per L
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
76) If a solution containing 4 mols of A and 6 mols of B boils at 85°C and 1 atm of pressure, and the
vapor pressure of pure A at 85°C is 500 mmHg, what is the vapor pressure of pure B at this
temperature?
A) 933 mmHg
B) 336 mmHg
C) 260 mmHg
D) 576 mmHg
E) 960 mmHg
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
263
77) Given that the vapor pressure of pure n-hexane and pure n-heptane at 25°C are 151.4 mmHg and
45.62 mmHg respectively, calculate the total vapor pressure above a solution containing only n-hexane
and n-heptane in which the mole fraction of n-hexane is 0.600.
A) 87.9 mmHg
B) 197 mmHg
C) 106 mmHg
D) 109 mmHg
E) 170 mmHg
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
78) The vapor pressures of pure hexane and pure heptane at 25°C are 151.4 mmHg and 45.62 mmHg
respectively. A solution contains 0.800 mol fraction n-hexane and 0.200 mol fraction n-heptane. What is
the composition of the vapor in equilibrium with this solution at 25°C?
A) 80.0% hexane, 20.0% heptane
B) 50.0% hexane, 50.0% heptane
C) 77.0% hexane, 23.0% heptane
D) 45.0% hexane, 55.0% heptane
E) 93.0% hexane, 7.0% heptane
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
79) A mixture of benzene and toluene has a total vapor pressure at 25°C of 45.06 mmHg. What is the
partial pressure of benzene in this solution? The vapor pressure of pure benzene and pure toluene at
25°C are 95.03 mmHg and 28.40 mmHg respectively.
A) 0.7500 mmHg
B) 23.76 mmHg
C) 0.3217 mmHg
D) 21.30 mmHg
E) 16.66 mmHg
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
80) What is the correct value for the weight of Na 3PO4 needed to make 100 mL of a 0.50 molar
solution?
A) 16.4 g
B) 8.2 g
C) 0.05 g
D) 82 g
E) 4.1 g
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
264
81) Determine the osmotic pressure at 25 °C of an aqueous solution that is 0.028 M NaNO 3.
A) 1.37 atm
B) 0.685 atm
C) 0.0729 atm
D) 0.0364 atm
E) 2.06 atm
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
82) A solution of nonvolatile solute has an osmotic pressure of 141 mmHg at 25°C. What is the molarity
of the solution?
A) 0.00759 M
B) 5.76 M
C) 0.0904 M
D) 0.0339 M
E) 0.174 M
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
83) An isotonic solution will produce an osmotic pressure of 7.84 atm measured against pure water at
human body temperature (37.0°C). How many grams of sodium chloride must be dissolved in a liter of
water to produce an isotonic solution?
A) 75.5 g
B) 151 g
C) 2.58 g
D) 9.00 g
E) 18.0 g
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
84) A membrane permeable to water but not to glucose (C6H12O6) separates two aqueous solutions.
Solution A is 0.156 M glucose and solution B contains pure water. There will be a net flow of water
molecules across the membrane from solution B to solution A until equilibrium is established across the
membrane. What pressure would have to be applied to solution A to prevent osmosis flow across the
membrane at 25°C?
A) 1.00 atm
B) 3.82 atm
C) 0.320 atm
D) 1.91 atm
E) 0.382 atm
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
265
85) What is the osmotic pressure in mmHg of 2.00 L of a 1.34 × 10-3 M solution at 25°C if four moles
of ions are produced in aqueous solution for every mole of solute dissolved?
A) 62.3 mmHg
B) 1.99 × 103 mmHg
C) 99.6 mmHg
D) 1.31 mmHg
E) 9.96 × 103 mmHg
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
86) Exactly 375.0 mg of an unknown protein is dissolved in enough water to give 50.00 mL of solution
and the osmotic pressure determined as 3.25 mmHg at 298 K. Estimate the molar mass of this protein.
A) 42,900 g/mol
B) 3,600 g/mol
C) 56,400 g/mol
D) 139,000 g/mol
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
87) The concentration unit used in determining freezing point depression and boiling point elevation is
________.
A) molality
B) mole fraction
C) normality
D) molarity
E) weight fraction
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
88) The concentration unit used to calculate boiling point elevation is ________.
A) molarity
B) solubility
C) molality
D) mole fraction
E) weight fraction
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
266
89) The freezing point of pure benzene was measured as 5.49°C. With the same benzene and the same
equipment, the freezing point of a solution containing 6.60 g of an unknown molecular compound in 140
g of benzene was found to be 2.35°C. The cryoscopic constant, Kf, for benzene is 5.12 deg-kg/mol.
Calculate the mole weight of the unknown.
A) 103 g/mol
B) 76.9 g/mol
C) 44.0 g/mol
D) 28.9 g/mol
E) 17.4 g/mol
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
90) 0.25 mol of a nonvolatile, nonionic solute dissolved in 300 g of water (Kf = 1.86) will lower the
freezing point how many degrees?
A) 0.65 °C
B) 2.2 °C
C) 0.14 °C
D) 1.6 °C
E) 3.2 °C
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
91) How many moles of ethylene glycol must be dissolved in 500 g of water (Kf = 1.86) to lower the
freezing point to -5.00°C?
A) 18.6 mol
B) 2.69 mol
C) 0.268 mol
D) 3.73 mol
E) 1.34 mol
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
92) Predict the freezing point of a solution prepared by dissolving 8.9 g MgCl 2 in 98 g H2O. Kf for
water is 1.86°C m-1.
A) 3.5 °C
B) -3.5 °C
C) 5.3 °C
D) -5.3 °C
E) -0.51 °C
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
267
93) The freezing point of pure benzene was measured as 5.49°C. With the same benzene and same
equipment, the freezing point of a solution containing 6.582 g of an unknown molecular compound (sold
in the store as "moth crystals") in 100.203 grams of benzene was found to be 3.48°C. The cryoscopic
constant, Kf, for benzene is 5.12 deg-kg/mole. Calculate the mole weight of the unknown.
A) 37.5 g/mol
B) 16.7 g/mol
C) 96.6 g/mol
D) 70.4 g/mol
E) 167 g/mol
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
94) What mass in grams of a molecular substance (molar mass = 50.0 g/mol) must be added to 500 g of
water to produce a solution that boils at 101.56°C? [Kb(water) = 0.512°C m-1]
A) 76.2 g
B) 150.0 g
C) 100.0 g
D) 30.0 g
E) 152.4 g
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
95) 0.0800 g of a compound with the empirical formula C2H2N is dissolved in 10.00 g benzene. The
resulting solution freezes at 4.99°C. Benzene freezes at 5.48°C and has a freezing point depression
constant of Kf = 4.90°C/m. What is the molecular formula of the compound?
A) C3H2N
B) C3H3N
C) C4H4N2
D) C6H6N3
E) C8H8N4
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
96) An unknown compound is composed of 65.44% C, 29.07% O, and 5.49% H. A sample weighing
5.34 g, when dissolved in 60.00 g H2O, lowers the freezing point to -0.600°C. What is the molecular
formula of the compound? (Kf for water = 1.86°C/m; C = 12.0, O = 16.0, H = 1.0 g/mol).
A) C3H3O
B) CHO
C) C14H11O6
D) C5H5O5
E) C7H5O3
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
268
97) A saline solution begins to freeze at -1.13°C. Express the concentration of NaCl in this solution in
mass %. Kf for water is 1.86°C m-1.
A) 3.48%
B) 1.74%
C) 0.870%
D) 17.8%
E) 8.90%
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
98) Two solutions contain the same amount of water as a solvent. One solution contains 0.5 mol glucose
(C6H12O6) while the other one contains 0.2 mol of CaCl2 . If the freezing points of both solutions are
the same, determine the van't Hoff i factor for CaCl2 solution.
A) 2.50
B) 3
C) 1.50
D) 2.75
E) 0.75
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
99) 3.2 grams of a compound with a mole weight of 96 g/mol dissolved in 50 grams of water gave a
solution that freezes at -1.50°C. Kf for water is 1.86°C/molal. The van't Hoff i factor for this solution is
________.
A) 0.83
B) 1.2
C) 0.21
D) 0.17
E) 2.0
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
100) The freezing point of a solution made by dissolving 8.9 g of MgCl2 in 98 g H2O is -4.3°C. Kf for
water is 1.86°C m-1. The van't Hoff i factor for this solution is ________.
A) 1.2
B) 2.3
C) 2.4
D) 2.0
E) 3.0
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
269
Chemical Equilibria
1) In a system in equilibrium, two opposing reactions occur at equal rates.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
2) In an equilibrium process, the concentrations of products and of reactants are equal.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
3) Equilibrium reactions are noted by a single straight arrow for a yield sign.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
4) The value of the equilibrium constant for a given reaction depends on the initial concentrations of
reactants.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
5) The concentration of a pure solid is left out of a equilibrium constant expression but a pure liquid is
included.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
6) Large value for equilibrium constant K means the reaction will be less complete at the equilibrium
point.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
7) Both products and reactants will be present in an equilibrium reaction unless K is very small or very
large.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
8) Reaction quotient Q will always be equal to the reaction's equilibrium constant K.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
270
9) Changes in temperature cause change in the equilibrium position.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
10) One method to aid in working equilibrium problems is the ICE table.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF

A) A certain amount of energy, called the activation energy, must be available if a reaction is to take
place.
B) A reversible chemical reaction is one in which equilibrium is never established due to the constant
decomposition of the products.
C) When the rate of the reverse reaction equals the rate of the forward reaction, equilibrium has been
established.
D) Changes in temperature will change the value of an equilibrium constant.
E) Chemical equilibrium is a dynamic equilibrium.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
12) What is the value for Kc if [CO] = 0.025, [H2] = 0.013 and [CH3OH] = 0.0028 for the following
reaction?
CH3OH(g) ⇌ CO(g) + 2 H2(g)
A) 1.5 × 10-3
B) 0.12
C) 6.6 × 102
D) 8.6
E) 9.1 × 10-7
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
13) What is the value for Kc for the reaction below if the equilibrium concentrations are [N2] = 0.025,
[H2] = 0.0013 and [NH3] = 0.028 for the following reaction?
N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g)
A) 8.6 × 102
B) 1.4 × 107
C) 1.2 × 10-3
D) 7.1 × 10-8
E) 7.4 × 105
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
271
14) For the reaction: H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2 HI(g), Kc = 92.0
When equilibrium concentrations of HI and I2 are [HI] = 0.115 M and [I2] = 0.250 M, the equilibrium
concentration of [H2] is:
A) 5.00 × 10-3 M
B) 5.75 × 10-4 M
C) 1.74 × 103 M
D) 0.135 M
E) 9.56 M
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
15) Given that the equilibrium concentrations of [N2] = 0.035 M, [C2H2] = 0.057 M, and
[HCN] = 6.8 × 10-4 M, find the value of the equilibrium constant expression for the reaction:
N2(g) + C2H2(g) ⇌ 2 HCN
A) 3.4 × 10-1
B) 2.9
C) 4300
D) 2.3 × 10-4
E) 6.8 × 10-1
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
16) For which of the following reactions does Kp = Kc?

A) 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) ⇌ Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
B) C(s) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2(g)
C) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)
D) H2(g) + I2(s) ⇌ 2HI(g)
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
17) Which of the following substances present in the chemical reaction would be excluded from the
equilibrium constant expression?
A) Na+ (aq)
B) H2O(g)
C) Cl-
D) H2O(l) (reactant and solvent)
E) CO(g)
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
272
18) Given the following:
I) N2O(g) + 1/2 O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) Kc = 1.7 × 10-13
II) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) Kc = 4.1 × 10-31
Find the value of the equilibrium constant for the following equilibrium reaction:
N2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) ⇌ N2O(g)
A) 7.0 × 10-44
B) 4.2 × 1017
C) 2.4 × 10-18
D) 1.6 × 10-9
E) 2.6 × 10-22
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC
19) For the following chemical equilibrium, Kp = 4.6 × 10-14 at 25°C, find the value of Kc for this
reaction at 25°C.
2 Cl2(g) + 2 H2O(g) ⇌ 4 HCl(g) + O2(g)
A) Kc = 1.9 × 10-15
B) Kc = 2.2 × 10-14
C) Kc = 1.1 × 10-12
D) Kc = 9.4 × 10-14
E) Kc = 4.6 × 10-14
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
20) Which of the following equilibrium constants-reaction type is INCORRECT?

A) 1.4 × 1083 goes to completion.
B) 1.6 × 10-23 does not occur.
C) 1.8 × 10-5 equilibrium reaction more reactants than products at equilibrium.
D) 1.0 equilibrium reaction-equal amounts of products and reactants.
E) 3.2 × 103 equilibrium reaction-more reactants than products at equilibrium.
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
273
21) For the reaction PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) Kc = 0.0454 at 261°C. If a vessel is filled with these
gases such that the initial concentrations are [PCl 5] = 0.2 M, [PCl3] = 0.20 M, and [Cl2] = 2.25 M, in
which direction will a reaction occur and why?
A) toward products because Q = 0.56
B) toward reactants because Q = 1.8
C) toward products because Q = 2.8
D) toward reactants because Q = 0.0454
E) it is at equilibrium because Q = 1
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
22) For the reaction 2 SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2 SO3 (g), Kc = 2.8 × 102 at 1000 K. If a vessel is filled with
these gases such that the initial concentrations are [SO2] = 0.025, [O2] = 0.035, and [SO3] = 0.046, in
which direction will a reaction occur and why?
A) toward products because Q = 53
C) toward products because Q = 96
D) toward reactants because Q = 2.8 × 103
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
23) For the reaction CO(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ H2O(g) + CH4(g) , Kc = 190 at 1000 K. If a vessel is filled with
these gases such that the initial concentrations are [CO] = 0.025, [H2] = 0.045, [H2O] = 0.025, and
[CH4] = 0.046M, in which direction will a reaction occur and why?
D) toward reactants because Q = 504
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
24) For the reaction CO(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ H2O(g) + CH4(g), Kc = 190 at 1000 K. If a vessel is filled with
these gases such that the initial concentrations are [CO] = 0.036 M, [H2] = 0.045, [H2O] = 0.020, and
[CH4] = 0.031, in which direction will a reaction occur and why?
D) toward reactants because Q = 61
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
274
25) Consider the following reaction.
C(s) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2(g)
At equilibrium at a certain temperature, [H2O(g)] = 0.12 M, and [CO(g)] = [H2(g)] = 1.2 M. If suddenly
these concentrations are increased by 0.50 M, which of the following is true?
A) more products are formed
B) Kc = 4.66
C) more H2O(g) will be formed
D) Since Kc does not change, nothing happens.
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
26) Which factor influences the value of the equilibrium constant for a reversible reaction?
A) addition of a catalyst
B) raising the temperature
C) removing product
D) removing reactant
E) increase in mixing rate
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
27) For the reaction: CH4(g) + 2 H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 4 H2(g) ΔH° = +190 kJ when catalyst is added:
A) the reaction reacts to the right
B) the reaction reacts to the left
C) the ΔH° increases
D) the temperature increases
E) there is no change, catalyst changes reaction rate only
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
28) For the reaction: CH4(g) + 2 H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 4 H2(g) ΔH° = +190 kJ when CH4 is added:
E) there is no change in equilibrium position
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
275
29) For the reaction: CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 4H2(g) ΔH° = +190 kJ add H2(g):
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
30) For the reaction: CH4(g) + 2 H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 4 H2(g) ΔH° = +190 kJ raise the temperature to
1200 K:
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
31) In a reaction at equilibrium involving only gases, a change in pressure of the reaction mixture shifts
the position of equilibrium only when:
A) heat is absorbed by the reaction proceeding to the right
B) the gases are impure
C) the collision rate increases
D) the reaction is exothermic as written
E) the moles of gas are not equal on the two sides of the equation.
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
32) For the reaction: 3 Fe(s) + 4 H2O(g) ⇌ Fe3O4(s) + 4 H2(g) what is the effect of removing H2?
A) The reaction shifts to the right.
B) There is no change.
C) The reaction shifts to the left.
D) The Kp is decreased.
E) The Kp is doubled.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
276
33) For the reaction: 3 Fe(s) + 4 H2O(g) ⇌ Fe3O4(s) + 4 H2(g) what is the effect on equilibrium of
increasing temperature of an exothermic reaction?
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
34) According to Le Chatelier's Principle:

A) an increase in pressure always causes a change in the position of equilibrium for any reaction
B) the greatest yield of ammonia in the exothermic reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 is attained at a high
temperature
C) the equilibrium constant is increased for the reaction A + B ⇌ C if the concentration of A is increased
D) an increase of temperature causes a decrease in the value of the equilibrium constant for an
exothermic reaction
E) when an equilibrium system is stressed, the system reacts to offset the stress
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
35) Which of the following keep the equilibrium position unchanged?

A) temperature decrease
B) concentration change
C) temperature
D) pressure change
E) homogeneous catalyst
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
36) Consider the reaction:

CH4(g) + 4 Cl2(g) ⇌ CCl4(l) + 4 HCl(g) ΔH° -398 kJ/mol
The equilibrium is displaced to the right if:
A) the temperature is raised
B) the pressure is lowered
C) some carbon tetrachloride is removed
D) some hydrogen chloride is added
E) some chlorine gas is removed
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
277
37) Choose the correct statement about a container in which the chemical equilibrium is established:
2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g) + heat
A) A decrease in amount of O2 will decrease the amount of SO2 present.
B) A decrease in the volume will decrease the amount of SO2 present.
C) A decrease in temperature will increase the amount of SO2 present.
D) A decrease in the amount of SO3 present will increase the amount of SO2 present.
E) An increase in amount of O2 will increase the amount of SO2 present.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
38) Choose the correct statement about the equilibrium:

N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g), Kp = 1 × 10-4 atm-2
A) The rate constant for the forward reaction is greater than that of the reverse reaction.
B) Since the reaction has a high activation energy, a catalyst is not needed.
C) The equilibrium constant is given by Kp = [N2][H2]3/[NH3]2.
D) Conducting the reaction under high pressures will increase the yield of ammonia.
E) The Kp is independent of temperature.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
39) Consider the exothermic reaction:

4 HCl(aq) + MnO2(s) ⇌ Cl2(g) + 2 H2O(l) + MnCl2(aq)
The equilibrium is displaced to the left if:
A) catalyst is added
B) pressure is lowered
C) temperature is lowered
D) H2O(l) is added
E) MnO2 (s) is added
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC

2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) ΔH° = -196.6 kJ/mol
The equilibrium is displaced to the left if:
A) some sulfur trioxide is removed
B) the temperature is raised
C) some sulfur dioxide is added
D) the pressure is raised
E) the temperature is lowered
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
278
41) In a reaction at equilibrium involving only gases, a pressure change will shift the reaction only
when:
A) heat is absorbed by the reaction proceeding to the right
B) the number of molecules on one side is greater than the number on the other side of the balanced
equation
C) the number of molecules increases during the chemical reaction
D) the gases are impure
E) the collision rate increases
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
42) Equilibrium constant K is constant except when one varies the:

A) concentrations of the reactants
B) temperature of the reaction
C) concentration of the products
D) partial pressures of the reactants
E) K always remains constant
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
43) For the reaction; N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g), the equilibrium amount of NH3 will be increased by:
I) increasing the pressure
II) adding H2
III) removing N2
IV) decreasing the pressure
A) I, III
B) III only
C) II, III
D) I, II
E) II, IV
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
44) For the reaction: CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 4H2(g) ΔH° = +190 kJ add N2(g) at constant
volume and:
A) the reaction reacts to the right.
B) the reaction reacts to the left.
C) the ΔH° increases.
D) the temperature increases.
E) there is no change.
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
45) What will happen to the equilibrium in the reaction 2 A(g) ⇌ B(g) + C(g), Kc = 1.25 at 300 K if a
279
catalyst is added?
A) The reaction is forced to the right.
B) The reaction is forced to the left.
C) No change, catalyst only changes the rate.
D) Kc is increased.
E) Kc is decreased.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
46) Consider the following chemical reaction at equilibrium:

2 Cl2(g) + 2 H2O(g) ⇌ 4 HCl(g) + O2(g)
This equilibrium can be shifted to the right by:
A) removing H2O(g) from the mixture.
B) adding more O2(g) to the mixture.
C) adding Ne(g) to the mixture.
D) decreasing the volume of the mixture.
E) increasing the volume of the mixture.
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
47) For the following reaction

O2(g) ⇌ 2O(g)
what conditions favor production of oxygen atoms?
A) high temperature and low pressure
B) high temperature and high pressure
C) low temperature and low pressure
D) low temperature and high pressure
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
48) 0.75 mol of N2 and 1.20 mol of H2 are placed in a 3.0 liter container. When the reaction
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g) reaches equilibrium, [H2] = 0.100 M. Which of the following is true?
A) [NH3] = 0.150 M
B) [NH3] = 0.200
C) [N2] = 0.650 M
D) [N2] = 0.250
E) [NH3] = [H2] = 0.05 M
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
280
49) 2.5 moles H2O and 100 g of C are placed in a 50-L container. At equilibrium for the reaction C(s) +
H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2(g), [H2] = 0.040 M. Which of the following is true?
A) [CO] = 0.020 M
B) [H2O] = 0.010 M
C) no carbon is left
D) [H2O] = 0.020 M
E) [C(s)] = 0.04 M
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
50) Consider the following reaction at a certain temperature.

2SO3(g) ⇌ 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
When the initial concentration of SO3(g) is 0.128 M, the concentration of oxygen gas at equilibrium is
found to be 0.0130 M. Calculate Kc for this reaction.
A) 8.45 x 10-4
B) 1.62 x 10-2
C) 7.64 x 10-5
D) 1.47 x 10-3
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
51) Consider the following equation:

N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g) Kc = 5.8 × 10-3
If the initial concentration of N2O4(g) = 0.040 M and the initial concentration of NO2(g) is 0 M, what is
the equilibrium concentration of N2O4(g)?
A) 1.7 × 10-2 M
B) 1.9 × 10-2 M
C) 3.3 × 10-2 M
D) 2.6 × 10-2 M
E) 2.3 × 10-6 M
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
281
52) Consider the following gas phase reaction at 25°C.
N2(g) + C2H2(g) ⇌ 2 HCN(g)
1.600 mol N2(g) and 1.750 mol C2H2(g) are placed in a 1.000 L vessel and the mixture is allowed to
react. At equilibrium, there are 1.587 mol N2(g) in the mixture. What is Kc for this reaction at 25 °C?
A) 9.8 × 10-4
B) 9.4 × 10-3
C) 2.5 × 10-4
D) 4.7 × 10-3
E) 6.7 × 10-5
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC
53) For the reaction below

CO(g) + 2H2(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g)
the equilibrium concentrations at 483 K are [CO(g)] = 0.0753 M, [H2(g)] = 0.151 M, and [CH3OH(g)] =
0.0247 M. Calculate the value of Kc.
A) 14.4
B) 1.09
C) 2.17
D) 0.0694
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
54) For the decomposition of SO3(g), Kc = [SO2]2[O2]/[SO3]2, at equilibrium, there are 0.090 mol
SO2, 0.110 mol O2, 0.100 mol SO3 in a 25.0-L container. What is the value of Kc?
A) 3.6 × 10-3
B) 0.040
C) 2.23
D) 0.089
E) 7.89
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
282
55) Consider the following equilibrium reaction: PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ PCl5(g) Kc = 96.2 The equilibrium
constant for the decomposition of PCl5(g) to PCl3(g) and Cl2(g) is ________.
A) -Kc
1
B)
Kc
2
 1 
C)  
 Kc 
D) Kc
1
E)
Kc
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
56) Write the equilibrium constant expression for the following reaction:
N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
283
57) What is the equilibrium constant expression for:
4 NH3(g) + 5 O2(g) ⇌ 4 NO(g) + 6 H2O(g)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
58) For the production of NO2, Kc = [NO2]2/[NO]2[O2]. At equilibrium in a 2.50 L container, there
are 3.00 mol NO, 4.00 mol O2 and 22.0 mol NO2. The value of Kc is ________.
A) 13.4
B) 33.6
C) 5.38
D) 0.0116
E) 3.75
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
59) For CO2(g) + H2(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2O(g), Kc = [CO][H2]/[CO2][H2], if there are 1.43 mols each of
CO and H2, 0.572 mol H2 and 4.572 mols CO2, in a 4.0 L container at equilibrium, what is Kc?
A) 0.547
B) 0.782
C) 1.28
D) 0.137
E) 2.34
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
284
60) For 2 NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g), Kc = [N2O4]/[NO2]2. At equilibrium there are 0.0270 mol N2O4 and
0.450 mol NO2 in a 50.0-L container. What is Kc?
A) 0.00267
B) 6.81
C) 6.67
D) 0.133
E) 2.45
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
61) Consider the following hypothetical equilibrium reaction:

[AB]2
A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ 2AB(g) where Kc =
[A2 ][B2 ]
The equilibrium constant for the reaction: 2 A2(g) + 2 B2(g) ⇔4 AB(g) is ________.
4
 1 
A)  
 Kc 
B) Kc4
C) Kc
2
 1 
D)  
 Kc 
E) Kc2
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
2 KI(aq) + H2O2(aq) ⇌ 2 KOH(aq) + I2(aq)
[KOH]2[I2 ]2
A) Kc =
[KI]2[H 2O2 ]
B) Kc = [I2]
C) Kc = [I2]2
[KOH]2[I2 ]
D) Kc =
[KI]2[H 2O2 ]
[KOH]2
E) Kc =
[KI]2[H 2O2 ]
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
285
63) For the reaction 2 NO(g)⇌ N2O4(g) Kp equals ________.
A) Kc
B) RT/Kc
C) Kc(RT)
D) Kc/RT
E) Kc(RT)2
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
64) Write the equilibrium expression Kc for the reaction:

sodium sulfite(aq) + chloric acid (aq) ⇌ sodium chlorite(aq) + sulfur dioxide(g) + water(l).
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
286
65) For the reaction:
3 Fe(s) + 4 H2O(g) ⇌ Fe3O4(s) + 4 H2(g)
write the expression for Kp.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
6 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(l) ⇌ C6H12O6(s) + 6 O2(g)
[C6H12O6 ]
A) Kc =
[H 2O]6[CO2 ]6
[O2 ]
B) Kc =
[CO2 ]
[CO2 ]6
C) Kc =
[C6H12O6 ]
[CO2 ]6[H 2O]6
D) Kc =
[O2 ]6
[O2 ]6
E) Kc =
[CO2 ]6
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
287
67) For the reaction: 3 Fe(s) + 4 H2O(g) ⇌ Fe3O4(s) + 4 H2(g) write the expression for Kc in terms of
Kp.
A) Kc = Kp
Kp
B) Kc =
RT
C) Kc = KpRT
D) Kc = Kp2
E) Kc = Kp
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
68) What is the relationship between Kp and Kc for the reaction below?
4NH3(g) + 7O2(g) ⇌ 2N2O4(g) + 6H2O(g)
A) Kp = Kc(RT)-3
B) Kc = Kp(RT)-3
C) Kp = Kc(RT)3
D) Kp = Kc(RT)
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
69) Given the following reactions,

2PCl3(g) ⇌ 2P(g) + 3Cl2(g) Kc = 0.0667
PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ PCl5(g) Kc = 4.0
calculate Kc for the reaction below.
2P(g) + 5Cl2(g) ⇌ 2PCl5(g)
A) 240
B) 1.1
C) 60
D) 23
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
288
70) Write the equilibrium constant expression for the reaction:
3 Sn(s) + 4 HNO3(aq) + H2O(l) ⇌ 3 H2SnO3(s) + 4 NO(g)
A) Kc =
B) Kc =
C) Kc =
D) Kc =
E) Kc =
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
71) Find Kp for the following reaction at 25.0°C.

SbCl5(g) ⇌ SbCl3(g) + Cl2(g) Kc = 2.51 × 10-2
A) 0.614
B) 1.03 × 10-3
C) 5.15 × 10-2
D) 9.74 × 102
E) 39.8
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
72) For a reaction, the reaction quotient, Qc > Kc, the reaction ________.
A) is at equilibrium
B) is exothermic
C) shifts to the right
D) shifts to the left
E) is endothermic
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
289
73) For the reaction: 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g), Kc = 6.9 × 1024 at 25°C. If a reaction vessel is
filled with these gases, such that [SO2] = 6.0 M, [O2] = 6.0 M and [SO3] = 6.0 M, in which direction
will the reaction proceed?
A) The reaction proceeds to the right.
B) The reaction proceeds to the left.
C) The reaction is already at equilibrium.
D) The reaction volume must be specified to answer this question.
E) The value of Kp must be specified to answer this question.
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
74) For the reaction: 2 Cl2(g) + 2 H2O(g) ⇌ 4 HCl(g) + O2(g), Kp = 6.4 × 10-6 at 500 K. If a fixed
volume is filled with initial concentrations of these gases at 227°C such that [Cl 2] = 0.5 M, [H2O] =
0.40 M, [HCl] = 0.5 M, and [O2] = 0.015 M, in which direction will the reaction proceed?
A) The reaction proceeds to the right.
B) The reaction proceeds to the left.
C) The reaction is already at equilibrium.
D) The reaction volume must be specified to answer this question.
E) The value of Kp at 25 °C must be specified to answer this question.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
75) For the reaction 2 A(g) ⇌ B(g) + C(g), Kc = 1.25 at 300 K. If a 1.00 L mixture contains 0.619 mol
A, 0.693 mol B, and 0.689 mol C at 300 K, will the mixture be in equilibrium? If not, in what direction
will a net reaction occur?
A) Yes, at equilibrium.
B) No, net reaction to the left.
C) No, net reaction to the right.
D) No, but there is no net reaction.
E) Yes, net reaction to the right
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
76) For the reaction: 3 Fe(s) + 4 H2O(g) ⇌ Fe3O4(s) + 4 H2(g) what is the effect of adding Fe(s)?
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
290
77) At a certain temperature, Kc = 0.0500 and △H = +39.6 kJ for the reaction below.
2MgCl2(s) + O2(g) ⇌ 2MgO(s) + 2Cl2(g)
Calculate Kc for the reaction
1
MgO(s) + Cl2(g) ⇌ MgCl2(s) + O2(g)
2
and indicate whether the value will be larger or smaller at a lower temperature.
A) 4.47, larger
B) 400, smaller
C) 0.224, larger
D) 0.224, smaller
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
78) Two moles of NH3 are initially present for the reaction:
2 NH3(g) ⇌ N2(g) + 3 H2(g)
At equilibrium there is 1.00 mol NH3. How many moles of H2 are present at equilibrium?
A) 3.00
B) 1.00
C) 1.50
D) 0.67
E) 0.75
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
79) In the reaction:

2 N2O(g) + N2H4(g) ⇌ 3 N2(g) + 2 H2O(g),
one starts with 0.10 mol N2O and 0.25 mol N2H4 in a 10.0 L container. If there are 0.06 mol N2O at
equilibrium, how many moles of N2 are present?
A) 0.02
B) 0.04
C) 0.06
D) 0.09
E) 0.07
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
291
PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ PCl5(g) at 70.5°C, Kp = 1.05.
If one starts with 1.80 atm pressure of PCl3(g), 1.72 atm pressure of Cl2(g), and no PCl5(g), what is the
partial pressure of PCl5(g) at equilibrium?
A) 0.827 atm
B) 0.856 atm
C) 0.818 atm
D) 0.599 atm
E) 0.080 atm
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
81) A mixture containing 0.392 M A(g) and 0.452 M B(g) is allowed to come to equilibrium at 300 K.
The reaction 3 A(g) + 2 B(g) ⇌ C(g) + D(g) occurs. At equilibrium, [C] = 0.00128 M. What is the value
of Kc?
A) 7.35 × 10-3
B) 1.39 × 10-4
C) 1.36 × 102
D) 9.24 × 10-6
E) 7.19 × 106
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
82) A mixture containing 0.0392 M A(g) and 0.0452 M B(g) is allowed to come to equilibrium at 300 K.
The reaction: 3 A(g) + 2 B(g) ⇌ C(g) + D(g) occurs. At equilibrium, [C] = 0.00128 M. What is the value
of Kc?
A) 2.13 × 10-3
B) 0.849
C) 20.4
D) 4.91 × 10-2
E) 470
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
292
83) For the decomposition of ammonium carbamate
NH4(NH2CO2)(s) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + CO2(g)
Kp = 0.0596 at a certain temperature. A solid sample of ammonium carbamate is introduced into an
evacuated container and at equilibrium some solid remains in the container. What is the total pressure in
the container?
A) 0.738 atm
B) 1.17 atm
C) 0.930 atm
D) 0.179 atm
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
84) Consider the following equilibrium.

A(g) + 3B(g) ⇌ 2C(g)
If the initial concentrations are [A(g)] = 1.00 M, [B(g)] = 3.00 M, and [C(g)] = 0, at equilibrium it is
found that [C(g)] = 0.980 M. Calculate Kc for this reaction.
A) 0.526
B) 0.268
C) 1.26
D) 0.131
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
85) Consider the following reversible reaction:

POCl3(g) ⇌ POCl(g) + Cl2(g) Kc = 0.450
The following initial amounts of reactants and products were mixed: [POCl 3] = 0.750 M, [POCl] =
0.550 M, and [Cl2] = 0.150 M. What is the equilibrium concentration of POCl?
A) 0.395 M
B) 0.155 M
C) 0.740 M
D) 0.945 M
E) 0.360 M
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
293
86) Consider the equilibrium system: N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g) for which Kp = 0.1134 at 25°C and ΔH°rxn
= 58.03 kJ/mol. Assuming that the total pressure inside the container is 1.00 atm at equilibrium and that
initially only N2O4 was present inside the container, compute PN2O4 at equilibrium.
A) 0.398 atm
B) 0.113 atm
C) 0.602 atm
D) 0.285 atm
E) 0.715 atm
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
= 58.03 kJ/mol. Assuming that the total pressure inside the container is 1.00 atm at equilibrium and that
initially only N2O4 was present inside the container, compute PNO2 at equilibrium.
A) 0.398 atm
B) 0.113 atm
C) 0.602 atm
D) 0.285 atm
E) 0.715 atm
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
= 58.03 kJ/mol. Assume that 1 mole of N2O4 and 2 moles of NO2 are introduced into a 5.0 liter
container. What will be the equilibrium value of [N2O4]?
A) 0.928 M
B) 0.0822 M
C) 0.358 M
D) 0.379 M
E) 0.042 M
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
89) At 35°C, Kp = 0.315 for the reaction N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g), if the initial pressure of NO2(g) in a
container is 3.00 atm, what is the equilibrium pressure of N2O4(g)?
A) 1.88 atm
B) 0.315 atm
C) 0.471 atm
D) 1.19 atm
E) 0.685 atm
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
294
= 58.03 kJ/mol. Assume that 1 mole of N2O4 and 2 moles of NO2 are introduced into a 5.0 liter
container. What will be the equilibrium value of [N2O]?
A) 0.928 M
B) 0.0822 M
C) 0.358 M
D) 0.379 M
E) 0.042 M
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
= 58.03 kJ/mol. Assuming that the total pressure inside the container is 10 atm at equilibrium and that
initially only N2O4 was present inside the container, compute PN2O4 at equilibrium.
A) 7.98 atm
B) 8.88 atm
C) 1.12 atm
D) 1.01 atm
E) 8.99 atm
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
92) Consider the equilibrium system: N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g) for which Kp = 0.1134 at 25°C and ΔH°rxn
= 58.03 kJ/mol. Assuming that the total pressure inside the container is 10 atm at equilibrium and that
initially only N2O4 was present inside the container, compute PNO2 at equilibrium.
A) 7.98 atm
B) 8.88 atm
C) 1.12 atm
D) 1.01 atm
E) 8.99 atm
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
295
93) A mixture, containing 0.0750 M HCl(g) and 0.0330 M O2(g) is allowed to come to equilibrium at
480°C.
4HCl(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2Cl2(g) + 2H2O(g)
At equilibrium [Cl2] = 0.030 M. What is the value of Kc?
A) 1.1 × 10-3
B) 890
C) 0.13
D) 1.3
E) 480
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
94) 4.000 mol chlorine and 2.000 mol bromine were placed in a 50.0 L container and kept at 293 K until
equilibrium was achieved for the reaction:
Br2(l) + Cl2(g) ⇌ BrCl(g)
At the point of equilibrium there were 82.63 g of Br2(l). Compute the value of Kc for this reaction.
A) 0.0699
B) 1.18
C) 0.849
D) 3.50
E) 0.849
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
95) 4.000 mol chlorine and 2.000 mol bromine were placed in a 50.0 L container and kept at 293 K until
equilibrium was achieved for the reaction:
Br2(l) + Cl2(g) ⇌ 2 BrCl(g)
At the point of equilibrium there were 82.63 g of Br2(ℓ). Determine the total pressure in the 50.0 L
container at equilibrium.
A) 0.110 atm
B) 2.64 atm
C) 0.180 atm
D) 1.43 atm
E) 1.21 atm
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
296
PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ PCl5(g) at 85°C, Kp = 1.19
If one starts with 2.00 atm pressure of PCl3, 1.00 atm pressure of Cl2 and no PCl5, what is the partial
pressure of PCl5(g) at equilibrium?
A) 0.167 atm
B) 0.739 atm
C) 0.621 atm
D) 0.465 atm
E) 0.553 atm
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI

POCl3(g) ⇌ POCl(g) + Cl2(g) Kc = 0.450
A sample of pure POCl3(g) was placed in a reaction vessel and allowed to decompose according to the
above reaction. At equilibrium, the concentrations of POCl(g) and Cl 2(g) were each 0.150 M. What was
the initial concentration of POCl3(g)?
A) 0.225 M
B) 0.200 M
C) 0.633 M
D) 0.483 M
E) 0.350 M
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
98) Consider the following reaction occurring at 960 K:

CO2(g) + H2(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2O(g)
At equilibrium, the concentrations of reactants and products are: [CO2] = 0.0400 M, [H2] = 0.0220 M,
[CO] = 0.0240 M, and [H2O] = 0.0190 M. This equilibrium is perturbed by adding CO2(g) to the
system such that when a new equilibrium is reached, the concentration of CO2 is 0.050 M. What is the
concentration of H2(g) at this equilibrium?
A) 0.050 M
B) 0.482 M
C) 0.462 M
D) 0.300 M
E) 0.0504 M
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
297
99) One of the reactions in the gasification of coal is
CO(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ CH4(g) + H2O(g) ΔH° = -237 kJ
For each of the following changes, explain the effect (increase, decrease, no effect) on the number of
moles of CH4(g) produced.
(a) increase the concentration of H2O(g)
(b) decrease the volume of the container
(c) add a catalyst
(d) decrease the temperature
Answer: (a) decrease, (b) increase, (c) no effect, (d) increase
Diff: 3 Type: SA
Entropy and Free Energy
1) A spontaneous reaction is one that must have a negative value of ΔH.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
2) If a process is spontaneous, the reverse process is nonspontaneous.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
3) A spontaneous process will occur only if a some external action is continually applied.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
4) Entropy is related to the way in which the energy of a system is distributed among the available
microscopic energy levels.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
5) The entropy of a pure perfect crystal at 25 K is zero.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
6) ΔG is positive for a spontaneous reaction.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
7) Standard Gibbs energy of formation requires the reactants be compounds in their standard state.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
298
8) The entropy of a system always increases for a spontaneous process.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
9) A zero ΔG means the system is at equilibrium.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
10) ΔG∘ is independent of temperature.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
11) A nonspontaneous reaction can be made to occur by coupling it with a spontaneous reaction to form
an overall spontaneous reaction.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
12) Nonspontaneous reactions and spontaneous reactions cannot be coupled.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
13) A spontaneous process:

A) will happen quickly.
B) releases large amounts of energy.
C) requires an external action in order to begin reacting.
D) will continue on its own once begun.
E) is never endothermic.
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
14) Find correct statements.

I) A spontaneous process is a process that occurs in a system left to itself.
II) A nonspontaneous process will not occur unless some external force is applied.
III) If a reaction is spontaneous, the reverse is also spontaneous.
IV) Only spontaneous processes occur naturally.
V) Entropy is inversely proportional to the degree of randomness.
A) I), II) and V)
B) II), III), and IV)
C) I), II), and IV)
D) I), III) and IV)
E) I), IV), and V)
299
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
300
15) Which of the following statements are true?
I) Liquids have more entropy than their solids.
II) Solutions have more entropy than the solids dissolved.
III) Gases and their liquids have equal entropy.
IV) Gases have less entropy than their solids.
V) Entropy of a substance increases as its temperature increases.
A) II), III), and V)
B) I), III), and V)
C) I), IV), and V)
D) I), II), and V)
E) II), IV) and V)
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
16) Which material has the largest entropy?

A) cannot be determined
B) pure water
C) powdered sugar
D) salt water
E) crystalline salt
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
17) Which of the following processes would result in a decrease in system entropy?
A) melting of an ice cube
B) sublimation of a moth ball
C) evaporation of a puddle of gasoline
D) a glass of cool lemonade warming in the sun
E) condensation of water vapor on a cold windshield
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
18) Which of the following has the highest entropy?

A) 1 mole of liquid water at 30°C
B) 1 mole of water vapor at 30°C
C) 1 mole of regular ice at -10°C
D) 1 mole of "dry ice" at -10°C
E) 1 mole of water under 10 atm of pressure at -10°C
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
301
19) Choose the correct statements concerning entropy.
I) As two gasses mix, ΔS is positive.
II) Entropy is a thermodynamic property related to the degree of disorder.
III) As temperature in a gas decreases, ΔS is positive.
IV) Molecules in the liquid state have higher entropy than molecules in the gaseous state.
A) I and III
B) I, II, III
C) I and II
D) I, II, IV
E) II and III
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
20) Indicate the statement(s) which are true for the process:
Al+3(aq) + 3 OH-(aq) → Al(OH)3(s)
if it occurs in a closed container.
I) ΔS increases because the final molecule is more complicated.
II) Entropy decreases because the product is in the solid phase.
III) The two ions achieve a high degree of order as they crystalize, therefore ΔS is positive.
IV) Entropy of the system is unchanged because the system is sealed and at a constant temperature.
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II only
D) I, II, IV
E) I and IV
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
21) Which of the following best expresses the increased degree of randomness associated with melting
and sublimation, respectively?
A) ΔSfus - ΔSsub = 0
B) ΔSfus = 144.3 J/mol-K, ΔSsub = 9.0 J/mol-K
C) ΔSfus = 9.0 J/mol-K, ΔSsub = -144.3 J/mol-K
D) ΔH for both processes is zero
E) ΔSfus = 9.0 J/mol-K, ΔSsub = 144.3 J/mol-K
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
302
22) The normal melting and boiling points of SO2 are 198 and 263 K, respectively. For a plot of the
standard molar entropy of SO2 versus temperature, which of the following is INCORRECT?
A) At 263 K, S° is constant.
B) S° increases with increasing temperature.
C) S° equals zero at 0 K.
D) At 198 K, S° increases by the value of △Sfusion.
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
23) Which of the following has the largest molar entropy?

A) I2(g)
B) Xe(g)
C) H2(g)
D) He(g)
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
24) Which of the following relations is true for the molar entropy of sublimation of a substance?
A) ΔSsub = ΔSfusion + ΔSvaporization
B) ΔSsub < ΔSvaporization
C) ΔSsub = ΔSfusion - ΔSvaporization
D) ΔSsub < (ΔSfusion + ΔSvaporization)
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
25) The fact that the entropies of vaporization for liquids which exhibit hydrogen bonding are greater
than the 87 J/(mol ∙ K) which is expected of non-polar liquids is an exception to:
A) the Gibb's Energy Rule
B) the Third Law of Thermodynamics
C) the Clausius-Clapyeron Rule
D) the Second Law of Thermodynamics
E) Trouton's Rule
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
303
26) Which of the following substances under equal conditions and in the same phase has the greatest
molar entropy?
A) NO
B) NO2
C) N2O3
D) N2O4
E) N2O5
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) One form of the second law of thermodynamics is all spontaneous processes produce an increase in
the entropy of the universe.
B) Gibbs energy is defined by: G = H - TS.
C) If ΔG < 0, the process is spontaneous.
D) If ΔG > 0, the process is nonspontaneous.
E) If ΔG = 0, the process is spontaneous.
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC

A) The third law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of a pure crystal at 298 K is zero.
B) ΔS° = Σ (ν S°) products - Σ (ν S°) reactants.
C) The activity of pure liquids or pure solids is 1.
D) ΔG° = -RT ln Keq.
E) ΔG° = ΔH° - TΔS°.
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
29) The change in Gibbs energy of a reaction:

A) = work
B) predicts speed
C) = ΔH + TΔS
D) depends on the standard state chosen
E) tells us if the reaction is spontaneous or not
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
304
30) If ΔG < 0 for a reaction, then the reaction is said to be:
A) endothermic
B) reversible
C) spontaneous
D) exothermic
E) fast
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
31) The maximum quantity of energy available for useful work is:
A) constant
B) Gibbs energy
C) the entropy
D) the internal energy
E) the enthalpy
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
32) The change in Gibbs energy for a reaction:

A) = ΔH - TΔS
B) = Q (heat)
C) = ΔS + TΔH
D) = ΔS - TΔH
E) = ΔH + TΔS
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
33) The Gibbs energy change for a reaction is -298 kJ. The reaction is therefore:
A) exothermic
B) irreversible
C) spontaneous
D) endothermic
E) nonspontaneous
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
305
34) In a sealed container, the rate of dissolving is equal to the rate of crystallization. Therefore we would
expect:
A) ΔG < 0
B) ΔG > 0
C) ΔG = 0
D) ΔS = 0
E) must know ΔH to determine
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
35) If ΔG is positive for a certain reaction, then:

A) the reaction is spontaneous.
B) the reverse of the reaction is spontaneous.
C) the system is in equilibrium.
D) one would need to know the Kelvin temperature to determine spontaneity.
E) there would be no reaction possible for a negative value.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
36) A reaction is spontaneous if:

I) ΔG is a negative value
II) both enthalpy and entropy increase
III) ΔH is negative and ΔS is positive
IV) both enthalpy and entropy decrease
V) ΔH is positive and ΔS is negative
A) I and III
B) I and II
C) II and V
D) III and IV
E) II and IV
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
37) Which of the following combinations of signs for ΔH and ΔS will always result in a reaction being
nonspontaneous?
A) ΔH+, ΔS-
B) ΔH-, ΔS+
C) ΔH-, ΔS-
D) ΔH+, ΔS+
E) cannot determine without temperature
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
306
38) The following reaction is exothermic.
2N2O(g) → 2N2(g) + O2(g)
This means the reaction:
A) will be spontaneous at all temperatures
B) will be spontaneous only at high temperature
C) will be spontaneous only at low temperatures
D) is not spontaneous at any temperature
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
39) The following reaction is endothermic.

2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g)
This means the reaction:
A) will be spontaneous at high temperature
B) will be spontaneous at low temperature
C) is not spontaneous at any temperature
D) is spontaneous at all temperatures
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
40) For an exothermic reaction to be nonspontaneous at high temperatures, the enthalpy must be
________ while the entropy is ________.
A) positive, also positive
B) positive, negative
C) a relatively small negative value, also negative
D) a relatively large negative value, positive
E) a very large negative value, also negative
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC
41) Which of the following quantities for an element has a value of zero in the standard state?
I) ΔH°f
II) ΔG°f
III) S°
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II
E) I, II, and III
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
307
42) For Cl2O(g) + 3/2 O2(g) → 2 ClO2 △H° = 126 kJ/mol, and ΔS° = -74.9 J/(mol∙deg) at 377°C. What
is Keq?
A) 0.97
B) 6.12 × 10-7
C) 4.27 × 10-22
D) 9.17 × 10-15
E) 1.07 × 1014
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC

N2(g) + 3 X2(g) → 2 NX3(g)
△H° 0.0 0.0 -43 kJ/mol
S° 192 210 172 J/(mol∙K)
What is Keq for this reaction at 591 K?
A) 2.3 × 1017
B) 4.3 × 10-18
C) 1.04
D) 0.96
E) 132
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
44) For the reaction PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) at 298 K, Keq = 1.87 × 10-7, ΔS° = 1.8192 J/(mol ∙K),
what is ΔG° and is the reaction spontaneous?
A) 3.84 × 104 kJ/mol, no
B) 7.68 kJ/mol, no
C) -7.68 kJ/mol, yes
D) 38.4 kJ/mol, no
E) -38.4 kJ/mol, yes
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
45) If the vapor pressure of water in an open system at 25°C is 23.8 mmHg, what is ΔG for the reaction
below at 25°C?
H2O(l) → H2O(g, 23.8 mmHg)
A) 0 kJ/mol
B) -8.58 kJ/mol
C) +8.58 kJ/mol
D) -0.720 kJ/mol
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
308
46) For the vaporization of water in an open system at 25°C and 1 atm, which of the following is
correct?
A) The reaction is entropy driven.
B) The reaction is enthalpy driven.
C) The reaction is not spontaneous.
D) ΔG°rxn = 0
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
47) Consider the reaction of 25.0 mL of 0.20 M AgNO3(aq) with 25.0 mL of 0.20 M NaBr(aq) to form
AgBr(s) at 25°C. What is ΔG for this reaction? The Ksp of AgBr is 5.0 x 10-13 at 25°C.
A) -58.8 kJ/mol
B) -70.2 kJ/mol
C) +58.8 kJ/mol
D) +70.2 kJ/mol
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC
48) The equilibrium constant for the reaction below is 7.2 x 10-4 at 298 K and 1 atm.
HNO2(aq) + H2O(l) ⇌ NO2-(aq) + H3O+(aq)
When [HNO2(aq)] = 1.0 M and [NO2-(aq)] = [H3O+(aq)] = 1.0 x 10-5 M, calculate ΔG.
A) -39.1 kJ/mol
B) +17.9 kJ/mol
C) -17.9 kJ/mol
D) +39.1 kJ/mol
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC

K2 H  1 1 
A) The van't Hoff equation is ln =    .
K1 R  T1 T2 
B) Keq is independent of temperature.
C) In a thermodynamic equilibrium constant expression, the activity of a gas is replaced by its partial
pressure in atmosphere.
D) In a Keq expression, the activity of a solution is replaced by its molarity.
E) If ΔG = 0, the process is at equilibrium.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
309
50) Which of the following quantities is generally independent of temperature?
I) ΔH
II) ΔS
III) ΔG
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II
E) I, II, and III
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
51) For the reaction: CO(g) + 2 H2(g) → CH3OH(g)

Kp = 91.4 at 350 K and Kp = 2.05 × 10-4 at 298 K.
What is the value of ΔH°?
A) 49.9 kJ/mol
B) 2.08 × 103 kJ/mol
C) 3.74 × 10-2 kJ/mol
D) 217 kJ/mol
E) 446 kJ/mol
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC
52) Choose the INCORRECT statement about coupled reactions.

A) The usual practice of coupling reactions is to join two nonspontaneous reactions.
B) The usual reason to couple reactions is to produce an overall spontaneous reaction.
C) The reaction added to a nonspontaneous reaction needs to be spontaneous.
D) The reaction added to a nonspontaneous reaction needs to be more spontaneous than the original
reaction is nonspontaneous.
E) One of the coupled reactions has a negative ΔG, the other a positive ΔG.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
53) Which of the listed reactions would couple with the following reaction to produce silver?
Ag2O(s) → 2 Ag(s) + 1/2 O(g) ΔG° = 11.2 kJ/mol
A) Ag(s) + 1/2 Br2 → AgBr(s) ΔG° = 96.9 kJ/mol
B) C + 1/2 O2 → CO ΔG° = -137.2 kJ/mol
C) N + 1/2 O2 → NO ΔG° = 149.3 kJ/mol
D) N + O2 → NO2 ΔG° = 51.3 kJ/mol
E) C + 2 S → CS2(l) ΔG° = 65.3 kJ/mol
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
310
54) Order the following by increasing entropy.
CO(g), COCl2(g), CO2(g), CaO(s)
A) CO2 < CO < CaO < COCl2
B) CaO < CO < CO2 < COCl2
C) COCl2 < CO < CaO < CO2
D) CO2 < CaO < COCl2 < CO
E) CO < CaO < COCl2 < CO2
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
55) Predict whether ΔS is positive or negative for the following process:

H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → H2O(g)
A) negative
B) positive
C) There is not enough information to determine.
D) ΔS doesn't change.
E) ΔS changes the same on both sides of the equation.
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI

2 Cl2O7(g) → 2 Cl2(g) + 7 O2(g)
A) negative
B) positive
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI

H2O(g) → H2O(s)
A) negative
B) positive
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
311
58) For the reaction, N2O4(g) → 2 NO2(g)
S° (J/mol K) 304.2 240.0
what is ΔS°rxn?
A) 544.2 J/mol ∙ K
B) -64.2 J/mol ∙ K
C) 175.8 J/mol ∙ K
D) -175.8 J/mol ∙ K
E) 64.2 J/mol ∙ K
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
59) For the reaction, CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)

S° (J/mol K) 88.70 39.75 213.6
what is ΔS°rxn?
A) 262.5 J/mol ∙ K
B) -85.1 J/mol ∙ K
C) -164.7 J/mol ∙ K
D) 164.7 J/mol ∙ K
E) 85.1 J/mol ∙ K
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
60) For the reaction, CO(g) + 2H2(g) → CH3OH(g)

S° (J/mol K)197.6 130.6 239.7
what is ΔS°rxn?
A) -88.5 J/mol ∙ K
B) -176.7 J/mol ∙ K
C) 219 J/mol ∙ K
D) 176.7 J/mol ∙ K
E) -219.1 J/mol ∙ K
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
61) If the enthalpy of vaporization of chloromethane, CH3Cl, is 21.5 kJ/mol at the normal boiling point,
249 K, calculate ΔS°vap.
A) 86.3 J mol-1 K-1
B) 5.35 J mol-1 K-1
C) 11.6 J mol-1 K-1
D) 896 J mol-1 K-1
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
312
C(g) + 2 H2(g) → CH4(g)
S° 5.69 130.58 186.19 J/mol∙deg
What is ΔS° for the above reaction in J/mol∙deg?
A) -49.9 J/mol∙deg
B) 49.9 J/mol∙deg
C) 80.7 J/mol∙deg
D) 115.2 J/mol∙deg
E) -80.7 J/mol∙deg
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI

NH3(g) + HCl(g) → NH4Cl(s)
S° 192.51 186.69 94.56 J/mol∙deg
What is ΔS° for this reaction in J/mol∙deg?
A) -284.6 J/mol∙deg
B) 284.6 J/mol∙deg
C) -92.3 J/mol∙deg
D) 94.6 J/mol∙deg
E) 92.3 J/mol∙deg
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI

C3H4(g) + 2 H2(g) → C3H8(g)
S° 266.9 130.6 269.9 J/mol∙deg
What is ΔS° in J/mol∙deg?
A) 127.6 J/mol∙deg
B) -127.6 J/mol∙deg
C) 3.0 J/mol∙deg
D) -258.2 J/mol∙deg
E) -3.0 J/mol∙deg
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
313
65) For the reaction,
2 O3(g) → 3 O2(g)
S° (J/mol K) 238.8 205.0
what is ΔS°rxn?
A) 137.4 J/mol K
B) -137.4 J/mol K
C) 33.8 J/mol K
D) 171.2 J/mol K
E) -33.8 J/mol K
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
66) Calculate the entropy change for methanol at its normal boiling point of 64.5°C. ΔH° = 38.0 kJ/mol.
A) 0.589 kJ/mol ∙ K
B) 0.112 kJ/mol ∙ K
C) 589 kJ/mol ∙ K
D) 112 kJ/mol ∙ K
E) 0.589 × 10-2 kJ/mol ∙ K
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
67) What is ΔG° at 25°C?

N2O4(g) → 2 NO2(g) ΔH° = 58.03 kJ ΔS° = 176.7 J/K
A) 58.21 kJ
B) 62.45 kJ
C) 53.6 kJ
D) 5.37 kJ
E) 111 kJ
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
68) What is ΔG° at 25 °C?

CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g) ΔH° = 177.8 kJ ΔS° = 160.7 J/K
A) 1779 kJ
B) 173.8 kJ
C) 225.7 kJ
D) 181.8 kJ
E) 129.9 kJ
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
314
CO2(g) → CO2(aq) ΔH° = -19.4 kJ ΔS° = 92.3 J/K
A) 2.1 kJ
B) -46.9 kJ
C) -17.1 kJ
D) -19.5 kJ
E) -21.7 kJ
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI

CO(g) + 2 H2(g) → CH3OH(g) ΔH° = -90.7 kJ ΔS° = -221 J/K
A) -90.9 kJ
B) -24.8 kJ
C) -156.6 kJ
D) -96.2 kJ
E) -85.2 kJ
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI

2O3(g) → 3 O2(g) ΔH° = -284 kJ ΔS° = 139 J/K
A) -145 kJ
B) -243 kJ
C) -325 kJ
D) -281 kJ
E) -287 kJ
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
72) Consider the following reaction.

S2Cl2(g) + 2 OCl2(g) → 2 SOCl2(g) + Cl2(g)
ΔG°f -32 97.9 -320 0.0 kJ/mol
What is ΔG° for this reaction in kJ?
A) -804
B) -476
C) -386
D) -413
E) -799
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
315
4 NH3(g) + 7 O2(g) → 4 NO2(g) + 6 H2O (l)
ΔG°f -16.7 0.0 51.8 -237.2 kJ/mol
What is ΔG° for this reaction in kJ?
A) -1282
B) -1149
C) -169
D) 169
E) 1149
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
74) What is ΔG°rxn?

N2O4(g) → 2 NO2(g)
ΔGf° (J/mol K) 97.8 51.3
A) 149.1 kJ
B) -4.8 kJ
C) -46.5 kJ
D) 4.8 kJ
E) 46.5 kJ
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI

CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
ΔGf° (J/mol K) -1128 -604 -394.4
A) 1338 kJ
B) 918 kJ
C) -130 kJ
D) -918 kJ
E) 130 kJ
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
316
CO(g) + 2 H2(g) → CH3OH(g)
ΔGf° (J/mol K) -137.2 0 -162.0
A) -24.8 kJ
B) -299.2 kJ
C) +24.8 kJ
D) 149.6 kJ
E) +299.2 kJ
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI

2 O3(g) → 3 O2(g)
ΔGf° (J/mol K) 163.2 0
A) 326.2 kJ
B) -326.4 kJ
C) -163.2 kJ
D) 163.2 kJ
E) 54.4 kJ
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
78) Consider the reaction: 3 N2(g) + 2 O3(g) → 6 NO(g)

ΔHf° 0.00 142.26 90.37 kJ/mol
S° 191.5 237.7 210.6 J/mol K
What is ΔG°rxn for this reaction in kJ at 500 K?
A) 93 kJ
B) 151 kJ
C) 365 kJ
D) -1.00 × 105 kJ
E) 441 kJ
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
317
79) Calculate ΔG° for the reaction Cu(s) + H2O(g) → CuO(s) + H2(g) at 500K.
Cu(s) 0 33.3
H2O(g) -241.8 188.7
CuO(s) -155.2 43.5
H2(g) 0 130.6
A) 231.8 kJ
B) -135.4 kJ
C) -58.6 kJ
D) 110.6 kJ
E) 86.74 kJ
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
80) For the reaction I2(s) + Cl2(g) → 2 ICl(g) ΔH = 36 kJ and ΔS = 158.8 J/K at 25 °C. Calculate ΔG
for the process at 25 °C.
A) -11.3 kJ
B) -4730 kJ
C) -393 kJ
D) 32 kJ
E) 83.3 kJ
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
81) For CO(g) + H2(g) → H2CO(g) ΔH° = -5.36 kJ/mol, and ΔS° = -109.8 J/mol-deg. What is ΔG° in
kJ/mol at 300 K?
A) -38.3 kJ/mol
B) 57.6 kJ/mol
C) 38.3 kJ/mol
D) 27.6 kJ/mol
E) -57.6 kJ/mol
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
318
82) For CdO(s) + SO3(g) → CdSO4(s) ΔH° = -279.4 kJ/mol, and ΔS° = -118.4 J/mol-deg. What is ΔG°
in kJ/mol at 127 K?
A) -256 kJ/mol
B) -303 kJ/mol
C) -264 kJ/mol
D) -355 kJ/mol
E) -460 kJ/mol
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
83) For Cl2O(g) + 3/2 O2(g) → 2 ClO2 ΔH° = 126 kJ/mol, and ΔS° = -74.9 J/mol-deg at 377 °C. What
is ΔG° in kJ/mol?
A) 77.8
B) 51.4
C) 98.3
D) 175
E) 129.2
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI

N2(g) + 3 X2(g) → 2 NX3(g)
ΔH° 0.0 0.0 -43 kJ/mol
S° 192 210 172 J/mol-K
What is ΔG° for this reaction at 591 K? Is the reaction spontaneous at 591 K?
A) -196 kJ/mol, no
B) 196 kJ/mol, yes
C) 196 kJ/mol, no
D) 239 kJ/mol, yes
E) -239 kJ/mol, no
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI

4 NH3(g) + 7 O2(g) → 4 NO2(g) + 6 H2O (l)
ΔG°f -16.7 0.0 51.8 -237.2 kJ/mol
What is Keq for this reaction at 25 °C?
A) e-464
B) e464
C) 1.59
D) 0.63
E) 252
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
319
S2Cl2(g) + 2 OCl2(g) → 2 SOCl2(g) + Cl2(g)
ΔG°f -32 97.9 -320 0.0 kJ/mol
What is Keq for this reaction at 25 °C?
A) e324
B) e-324
C) e162
D) e-162
E) 1.38
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI

H2X(g) → HX(g) + X(g)
ΔH°rxn = 18.4 kJ/mol ΔS°rxn = 23.1 J/mol-K
A) 0.387
B) 0.993
C) 0.238
D) 4.23
E) 1.01
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
88) For a reaction Keq = 1.2 × 10-6 at T = 200 K. What is ΔG° for the reaction?
A) -22.7 kJ/mol
B) 53.6 kJ/mol
C) 22.7 kJ/mol
D) -53.6 kJ/mol
E) 170 kJ/mol
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
89) For the reaction SO2(g) + Cl2(g) → SO2Cl2(g) Keq = 0.377 at 25°C, what is ΔG° for the reaction?
A) 202.7 J/mol
B) 88.02 J/mol
C) 2420 J/mol
D) 1049 J/mol
E) -1049 J/mol
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
320
90) Consider the reaction: N2O4(g) → 2 NO2(g)
Keq = 0.1134 at 20 °C. ΔH°rxn = 58.03 kJ/mol
What is ΔG° for this reaction at 20 °C?
A) 0.36 kJ
B) -5.4 kJ
C) 4.9 kJ
D) 5.3 kJ
E) 5.4 kJ
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
91) For the reaction N2O3(g) → NO(g) + NO2(g) ΔG° = -4.78. Calculate Keq at 25°C.
A) 1.023
B) 1.002
C) 1.005
D) 0.9484
E) 0.9981
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
92) For the reaction PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) at 298 K, Keq = 1.87 × 10-7, ΔS° = 181.92 J/mol K.
A) 15.8 kJ/mol
B) 220 kJ/mol
C) 143 kJ/mol
D) 54.2 kJ/mol
E) 92.6 kJ/mol
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
93) For the reaction PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) at 298 K, Keq = 1.87 × 10-7, ΔS° = 181.92 J/mol K,
what is Keq at 200 K if ΔH° = 92.6 kJ/mol?
A) 2.08 × 10-15
B) 16.8
C) 1.87 × 10-7
D) 5.35 × 106
E) 5.95 × 10-2
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
321
94) What is ΔH° for a reaction that has Kp = 1.456 at 273 K and Kp = 14.2 at 298 K?
A) 8.42 × 10-5 kJ/mol
B) 61.6 kJ/mol
C) -61.6 kJ/mol
D) 462 kJ/mol
E) -462 kJ/mol
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
95) Consider the reaction: AB(g) → A(g) + B(g)

(Keq = 0.729 at 20°C ΔH° = 45.9 kJ/mol)
A) 476
B) 0.733
C) 0.725
D) 253
E) 2.10 × 10-3
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
96) Consider the reaction: AB(g) → A(g) + B(g)

(Keq = 0.729 at 20°C ΔH° = 45.9 kJ/mol)
A) 45.9
B) 191
C) 91.2
D) 66.6
E) 48.5
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
97) For the reaction I2(s) + Cl2(g) → 2 ICl(g) ΔH = 36 kJ and ΔS = 158.8 J/K at 25°C. Calculate the
temperature at which Keq is 4.0 × 103.
A) 128 °C
B) -115 °C
C) 83 °C
D) 25 °C
E) -175 °C
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
322
98) For CO(g) + H2(g) → H2CO(g) ΔH° = -5.36 kJ/mol, and ΔS° = -109.8 J/mol-deg. What is the
temperature at which Keq is 1.0 × 10-2?
A) 5.19 × 103 °C
B) 218 °C
C) 25 °C
D) -198 °C
E) -237 °C
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
99) For CdO(s) + SO3(g) → CdSO4(s) ΔH° = -279.4 kJ/mol, and ΔS° = -118.4 J/mol-deg. What is the
temperature at which Keq is 1.0 × 104?
A) 1890 °C
B) 6950 °C
C) 1160 °C
D) 1710 °C
E) 6410 °C
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
100) Consider the endothermic reaction:

N2(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO(g), ΔH° = 192.5 kJ/mol
At 2000 K the equilibrium constant is 5.0 × 10-4. At 2500 K the value of the equilibrium constant:
A) is greater than 5.0 × 10-4
B) depends on the concentration of oxygen
C) is 10.0 × 10-4
D) is 5.0 × 10-4
E) is less than 5.0 × 10-4
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
101) Calculate the temperature for which Keq for a reaction is 1.04 × 103 where ΔH° = -83.2 kJ/mol and
ΔS° = -246 J/mol ∙ K.
A) 0.274 K
B) 307 K
C) 0.307 K
D) 274 K
E) cannot be determined without ΔG°
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
323
Electrochemistry
1) In a galvanic cell, oxidation occurs at the cathode.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
2) E°cell is the standard cell potential.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
3) When Ecell < 0, the reaction is spontaneous.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
4) The Ecell for the following concentration cell at 25°C is 0.006.

Pt ∣ H2 (g, 0.025 atm) ∣ H+ (0.012 M) H+ (1 M) ∣ H2 (g, 1 atm) ∣ Pt
2 H+(aq) + 2 e- → H2(g) E° = 0. V
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3 Type: TF
5) The hydrogen standard electrode is the most convenient standard electrode to use.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
6) Primary batteries' cell reactions cannot be reversed.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
7) A primary battery is recharged by passing electricity through the battery.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
8) The active metal is called a sacrificial cathode.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
324
9) Cathodic protection is attaching a more active metal to the protected metal.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
10) Corrosion of metals is an oxidation-reduction process.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
11) In the electrolysis of water, oxygen is evolved at the cathode.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF

A) Electrons are transferred in oxidation-reduction reactions.
B) A strip of metal in a solution of ions of that metal is an electrode potential.
C) Reduction is the gain of electrons.
D) Oxidation is the loss if electrons.
E) A salt bridge maintains electrical contact between two half cells.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC

A) An electrode is often a strip of metal.
B) An electrode in a solution of its ions is a half cell.
C) An electrochemical cell is a half cell.
D) The electromotive force (emf) is the cell potential.
E) The cell potential is the potential difference between the half cells.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC

A) A cell diagram is a symbolic way to show cell components.
B) An anode is where oxidation occurs.
C) A cathode is where reduction occurs.
D) Half cells in a cell diagram are separated by a single vertical line.
E) The anode is on the left in a cell diagram.
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
325
15) In a galvanic cell, oxidation occurs at the:
A) anode
B) cathode
C) salt bridge
D) electrolyte
E) in cathodic space
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC

A) A double vertical line separates half cells in a cell diagram.
B) A single vertical line separates phases in a cell diagram.
C) A voltaic cell is a galvanic cell.
D) Voltaic cells produce an electron flow.
E) Electrolytic cells are cells where electron flow is caused by spontaneous reactions.
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
17) In a zinc-lead cell the reaction is:

Pb2+ + Zn → Pb + Zn2+ E° = 0.637 V
Which of the following statements about this cell is FALSE?
A) The zinc electrode is the cathode.
B) The reaction will go in the direction indicated.
C) The shorthand notation is Zn ∣ Zn2+ Pb2+ ∣ Pb
D) The actual cell voltage is less than +0.637 volts because of concentration polarization and possible
other factors.
E) The lead electrode is positively charged.
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
18) Choose the correct statement based on the following oxidation potentials.
Mg/Mg2+ +2.37 v Fe/Fe2+ +0.44 v Cu/Cu2+ -0.34 v
Zn/Zn2+ +0.76 v Sn/Sn2+ +0.14 v Ag/Ag+ -0.80 v
A) Mg will not displace Zn2+ from solution
B) Cu will displace Sn2+ from solution
C) Fe will displace Zn2+ from solution
D) Fe will displace H+ from solution
E) Sn will displace Fe2+ from solution
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
326
A) SHE stands for Standard Helium Electrodes.
B) E° is the standard electrode potential.
C) The standard electrode potential is the reduction potential of a half cell.
D) The standard cell potential is the potential difference between two half cells.
E) E°cell is the standard cell potential.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) When a half reaction is reversed, the sign of the potential is changed.
B) Reversing a half reaction makes it a reduction potential.
C) Each electrochemical cell consists of a reduction half cell and an oxidation half cell.
D) A voltaic cell is also called a battery.
E) The potential difference of a cell is the voltage of the cell.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
21) Determine E°cell for the reaction: 2 Al + 3 Zn2+ → 2 Al3+ + 3 Zn. The half reactions are:
Al3+(aq) + 3 e- → Al(s) E° = -1.676 V
Zn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s) E° = -0.763 V
A) 0.913 V
B) -2.439 V
C) 2.439 V
D) -1.063 V
E) -0.913 V
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
22) Determine E°cell for the reaction: 2 Ag+ + Mg → 2 Ag + Mg2+. The half reactions are:
Mg2+(aq) + 2 e- → Mg(s) E° = -2.356 V
Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) E° = 0.800 V
A) 0.756 V
B) -0.756 V
C) 3.156 V
D) -1.556 V
E) 1.556 V
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
327
23) Determine E°cell for the reaction: Pb2+ + Zn → Pb + Zn2+. The half reactions are:
Pb2+(aq) + 2 e- → Pb(s) E° = -0.125 V
Zn +(aq) + 2 e → Zn(s) E° = -0.763 V
2 -
A) 0.638 V
B) -0.638 V
C) 0.888 V
D) -1.276 V
E) -0.888 V
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC

A) The work available in a cell = -zFEcell.
B) ΔG° = -zFE°cell
C) When Ecell < 0, the reaction is spontaneous.
D) When Ecell = 0, the reaction is at equilibrium.
E) Reversing a cell reaction changes the sign of Ecell.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
25) For the reaction: Mg(s) + AgNO3(aq) → Ag(s) + Mg(NO3)2(aq)

Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) E° = 0.800 V
Mg (aq) + 2 e → Mg(s)
2+ - E° = -2.356 V
Is the reaction spontaneous and why?
A) No, Mg(s) does not react with Ag+.
B) No, E° is a positive value.
C) No, E° is a negative value.
D) Yes, E° is a positive value.
E) Yes, E° is a negative value.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
26) What is the cell diagram for the spontaneous cell involving the Fe 3+ ∣ Fe2+ (0.771V) half cell and
the Zn2+ ∣ Zn (-0.763 V) half cell?
A) Fe2+(aq) ∣ Fe3+(aq) Zn2+(aq) ∣ Zn(s)
B) Pt(s) ∣ Fe2+(aq), Fe3+(aq) Zn2+(aq) ∣ Zn(s)
C) Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+(aq) Fe3+(aq) ∣ Fe2+(aq) ∣ Pt(s)
D) Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+(aq) Fe3+(aq) ∣ Fe2+(aq)
E) Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+(aq) Fe3+(aq) ∣ Fe2+(aq) ∣ Zn(s)
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
328
27) If the voltage of an electrochemical cell is negative then the cell reaction is:
A) nonspontaneous
B) slow
C) exothermic
D) spontaneous
E) fast
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC

Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) E° = 0.800 V
Mg (aq) + 2 e → Mg(s) E° = -2.356 V
2+ -
Estimate Keq at 25°C.
A) 5.7 × 10106
B) 2.0 × 1053
C) 3.7 × 1052
D) 1.1 × 1027
E) 10-107
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
29) Calculate the Ksp of lead iodide from the following standard electrode potentials, at 25°C:
2 e- + PbI2(S) → Pb(s) + 2 I-(aq) E° = -0.365 V
2 e- + Pb2+(aq) → Pb(s) E° = -0.126 V
A) 8 × 10 -9
B) 9 × 10-5
C) 2 × 10-17
D) 5 × 10-13
E) 6 × 10-5
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
30) In the cell Fe2+ ∣ Fe3+ Cu2+ ∣ Cu which will increase the cell voltage the most?
A) Halve [Cu2+].
B) Halve [Fe2+].
C) Double [Cu2+].
D) Double [Fe2+].
E) Cut Cu electrode in half.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
31) Which of the following are commonly used as alternate standard electrodes:
329
I) Ag(s) | AgCl(s) | Cl- (1.0 M)
II) Hg(l) | HgCl2(s) | Cl- (1.0 M)
III) Ag(s) | AgCl(s) | Cl- (0.1 M)
IV) Hg(l) | Hg2Cl2(s) | Cl- (1.0 M)
V) Hg(s) | Hg2Cl2(s) | Cl- (1.0 M)
A) I) and V)
B) II) and IV)
C) I) and IV)
D) II) and III)
E) I) and III)
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
32) Glass electrodes are used for direct measurement of:

A) pH
B) pKa
C) Ksp
D) Q
E) pKw
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
33) Determine the Ksp at 25°C of AgCl(s). The half-reactions are:

Ag+(aq) + 1 e- → Ag(s) E° = +0.771 V
AgCl(s) + 1 e → Ag(s) + Cl- E° = +0.222 V
-
A) 1 × 10-2
B) 0.771
C) 4 × 1011
D) 5 × 10-10
E) 4 × 10-11
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
330
34) Consider the cell:
Ni ∣ Ni2+ (?M) Cu2+ (0.136 M) ∣ Cu
Ni2+/Ni E° = -0.257 V
Cu2+/Cu E° = 0.340 V
The measured potential of the cell is 0.621 V. What is [Ni 2+] at 25°C?
A) 2 × 10-2 M
B) 1 M
C) 4 × 10-42 M
D) 0.05 M
E) 0.4 M
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
35) What is the concentration of Cu2+ in the following cell at 25°C if the cell voltage is 1.253 V?
Zn ∣ Zn2+ (0.125 M) Cu2+(?) ∣ Cu
Cu2+ + 2 e- → Cu(s) E° = 0.340 V
Zn2+ + 2 e- → Zn(s) E° = -0.763 V
A) 0.6 M
B) 1 × 10-2 M
C) 1 × 10-6 M
D) 9 × 10-4 M
E) 4 × 10-4 M
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
36) What is the concentration of Al3+ in the following cell at 25°C if the cell voltage is 1.486 V?
Al ∣ Al3+(?) Sn2+(3.21 × 10-4 M) ∣ Sn
Al3+ + 3 e- → Al(s) E° = -1.676 V
Sn2+ + 2 e- → Sn(s) E° = -0.137 V
A) 2.8 × 10-3 M
B) 1.6 × 10-5 M
C) 4.5 × 10-5 M
D) 2.4 × 10-2 M
E) 7.8 × 10-6 M
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
331
A) A concentration cell consists of half cells with identical electrodes but different ion concentrations.
B) Primary batteries' cell reactions cannot be reversed.
C) Secondary batteries' cell reaction can be reversed.
D) A primary battery is recharged by passing electricity through the battery.
E) Cells can be joined in series to increase the total voltage.
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
38) The lithium-ion battery is based on:

A) Li+/Li couple
B) Co3+/Co2+ couple
C) Co(III)/Co(IV) couple
D) both Li+/Li and Co3+/Co2+
E) both Li+/Li and Co(III)/Co(IV)
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) Corrosion of metals is an oxidation reduction process.
B) Rust is a form of corrosion.
C) Metals can be protected by cathodic protection.
D) Cathodic protection is attaching a more active metal to the protected metal.
E) The active metal is called a sacrificial cathode.
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC

A) One mole of hydrogen ions will have a positive charge of one Faraday.
B) One Faraday of charge will release 35.5 g of Cl2 in the electrolysis of a chloride solution.
C) One Faraday of charge will plate out two moles of Cu from a solution of CuSO4(aq).
D) One mole of electrons has a charge of l Faraday.
E) One mole of hydrogen gas requires 2 Faradays.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
332
41) One mole of electrons has a charge of:
A) 96,485 A
B) 1.60 × 10-19
C) 6.02 × 1023 A
D) 96,485 C
E) 96,485 F
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
42) An electrolysis is carried out by passing an electric current through a solution of copper sulfate using
inert electrodes. This causes:
A) Cu to plate out on the negative electrode
B) Cu to plate out on the anode
C) oxygen to form on the negative electrode
D) H2 to form at the negative electrode
E) sulfur to form on the positive electrode
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
43) Choose the INCORRECT completion of the following sentence:

"In the electrolysis of water...
A) ...a direct current must be used."
B) ...oxygen is evolved at the cathode."
C) ...electrical energy must be supplied continuously because it is an endothermic reaction."
D) ...the volume of hydrogen produced is twice the volume of oxygen produced."
E) ....one mole of H2 is produced for each two moles of electrons."
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
44) How many coulombs would be needed to deposit all of the Ag+ ion from 600 mL of a solution
0.250 M in Ag+?
A) 1.45 × 107 C
B) 1.56 × 106 C
C) 1.45 × 104 C
D) 2.41 × 104 C
E) 1.56 × 104 C
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
333
45) The following half-reactions are used in the zinc-air battery.
Zn(OH)42- (aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s) + 4 OH-(aq) E° = -1.199 V
O2(g) + 2 H2O(l) + 4 e- → 4 OH-(aq) E° = +0.401 V
How much charge is transferred per gram Zn(s) in this voltaic cell?
A) 5.90 × 103 C
B) 2.95 × 103 C
C) 1.47 × 103 C
D) 3.39 × 10-4 C
E) 1.69 × 10-4 C
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
46) Write the net redox reaction that occurs in the galvanic cell.
Zn(s) ∣ Zn+2(aq) Pb+2(aq)∣ Pb(s)
A) Pb(s) + Zn(s) → Pb+2(aq) + Zn+2(aq) + 4 e-
B) Pb(s) + Zn+2(aq) → Pb+2(aq) + Zn(s)
C) Pb+2(s) + Zn+2(s) → Pb(s) + Zn(s) + 4 e-
D) Pb+2(aq) + Zn(s) → Zn+2(aq) + Pb(s)
E) Pb(s) + Zn(s) + 4 e- → Pb+2(aq) + Zn+2(aq)
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
47) For the reaction: Mg(s) + 2 AgNO3(aq) → 2 Ag(s) + Mg(NO3)2(aq)

Write a voltaic diagram for the reaction.
A) Ag(s) | Ag(aq) Mg2+(aq) | Mg(s)
B) Mg(s) ∣ Mg2+ Ag+ (aq) ∣ Ag (s)
C) Mg(s) ∣ Mg2+ Ag(s) ∣ Ag+ (aq)
D) Ag(aq) ∣ Ag(s) Mg(s) ∣ Mg2+ (aq)
E) Ag(s) ∣ Mg2+ (aq) Ag+ (aq) ∣ Mg(s)
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
334
48) Write the net redox reaction that occurs in the following galvanic cell.
Ti(s) ∣ Ti3+(aq) Se2-(aq) ∣ Se(s)
A) Ti(s) + Se2-(aq) + 1 e- → Ti3+(aq) + Se(s)
B) 2 Ti(s) + 3 Se(s) → 2 Ti3+(aq) + 3 Se2-(aq)
C) Ti(s) + Se(s) → Ti3+(aq) + Se2-(aq) + 1 e-
D) 2 Ti3+(aq) + 3 Se(s) → 2 Ti(s) + 3 Se2-(aq)
E) 2 Ti3+(aq) + 3 Se(s) + 1 e- → 2 Ti(s) + 3 Se2-(aq)
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI

Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) E° = 0.800 V
Mg2+(aq) + 2 e- → Mg(s) E° = -2.356 V
For the reaction, determine E° for the cell.
A) 1.556 V
B) -3.156 V
C) 3.156 V
D) 0.800 V
E) 2.356 V
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
50) Given the table below predict the numerical value of the standard cell potential for the reaction:
2 Cr(s) + 3 Cu2+(aq) → 2 Cr3+(aq) + 3 Cu(s)
Half Reaction E° (volts)
(1) Cr3+ + 3 e- → Cr -0.74
(2) Cr3+ + e- → Cr2+ -0.41
(3) Cr2O72- + 14 H+ + 6 e- → 2 Cr3+ + 7 H2O 1.33
(4) Cu+ + e- → Cu 0.52
(5) Cu + 2 e → Cu
2+ - 0.34
(6) Cu + e → Cu
2+ - + 0.16
A) 2.50 volts
B) 0.417 volts
C) -1.08 volts
D) 1.08 volts
E) -0.40 volts
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
335
51) Determine E°cell for the reaction: Pb + Zn2+ → Pb2+ + Zn. The half reactions are:
Pb2+(aq) + 2 e- → Pb(s) E° = -0.125 V
Zn +(aq) + 2 e → Zn(s) E° = -0.763 V
2 -
A) 0.638 V
B) -0.638 V
C) 0.888 V
D) -1.276 V
E) -0.888 V
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
52) Determine E°cell for the reaction: Pb + Cu2+ → Pb2+ + Cu. The half reactions are:
Pb2+(aq) + 2 e- → Pb(s) E° = -0.125 V
Cu2+ + 2 e- → Cu E° = 0.340 V
A) 0.215 V
B) 0.465 V
C) 0.930 V
D) -0.215 V
E) -0.465 V
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
53) Determine E°cell for the reaction: 2 Al3+ + 3 Zn → 2 Al + 3 Zn2+. The half reactions are:
Al3+(aq) + 3 e- → Al(s) E° = -1.676 V
Zn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s) E° = -0.763 V
A) 0.913 V
B) -2.439 V
C) 2.439 V
D) -1.063 V
E) -0.913 V
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
54) Determine E°cell for the reaction: 2 Ag + Mg2+ → 2 Ag+ + Mg. The half reactions are:
Mg2+(aq) + 2 e- → Mg(s) E° = -2.356 V
Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) E° = 0.800 V
A) 0.756 V
B) -0.756 V
C) 3.156 V
D) -3.156 V
E) 1.556 V
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
336
55) Determine E°cell for the reaction: I2 + Cu → 2 I- + Cu2+. The half reactions are:
I2(s) + 2 e- → 2 I-(aq) E° = +0.535 V
Cu2+ + 2 e- → Cu E° = 0.340 V
A) 0.730 V
B) -0.875 V
C) 0.875 V
D) 0.195 V
E) -0.195 V
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
56) Determine E°cell for the reaction: Cl2 + 2 F- → 2 Cl- + F2. The half reactions are:
F2(s) + 2 e- → 2 F-(aq) E° = +2.866 V
Cl2(s) + 2 e- → 2 Cl-(aq) E° = 1.358 V
A) 3.016 V
B) -4.224 V
C) 1.508 V
D) 4.224 V
E) -1.508 V
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
57) Determine E°cell for the reaction: MnO4- + 8 H+ + 5 Fe2+ → Mn2+ + 4 H2O + 5 Fe3+. The half
reactions are:
Fe3+(aq) + e- → Fe2+(aq) E° = +0.771 V
MnO4-(aq) + 8 H+(aq) + 5 e- → Mn2+(aq) + 4 H2O(l) E° = 1.507 V
A) -2.34 V
B) -2.28 V
C) 2.28 V
D) -0.74 V
E) 0.74 V
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
337
58) Will magnesium metal displace Al3+ ion from an aqueous solution?
Mg2+(aq) + 2 e- → Mg(s) E° = -2.356 V
Al3+(aq) + 3 e- → Al(s) E° = -1.676 V
A) No, since E°cell is negative.
B) Yes, since E°cell is negative.
C) No, the reverse reaction is spontaneous.
D) Yes, since E°cell is positive.
E) No, the system is at equilibrium.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
59) Determine E°cell at 25 °C for the following reaction:

Pb2+(aq) + Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + Pb(s)
The half-reactions are:
Pb2+(aq) + 2 e- → Pb(s) E° = -0.125 V
Cu2+(aq) + 2 e- → Cu(s) E° = +0.337 V
A) 0.212 V
B) -0.462 V
C) 0.462 V
D) -0.212 V
E) 0.424 V
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
60) Determine E°cell at 25°C for the following reaction:

3 Sn2+ + 2 Al(s) → 2 Al3+ + 3 Sn(s)
Al3+ + 3 e- → Al(s) E° = -1.676 V
Sn2+ + 2 e- → Sn(s) E° = -0.137 V
A) 2.941 V
B) -1.813 V
C) 1.813 V
D) -1.539 V
E) 1.539 V
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
338
61) For the cell reaction at 25°C Cu2+(aq) + Zn(s) → Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq), E°cell = +1.100 V. What is the
equilibrium constant for this reaction?
A) 3 × 10-19
B) 2 × 1037
C) 2 × 10-37
D) 3 × 1018
E) 3 × 10-18
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
62) The following galvanic cell has a measured cell potential E°cell = 0.646 V.
Pt(s) ∣ Sn4+(aq), Sn2+(aq) Ag+(aq) ∣ Ag(s)
Given that the standard reduction potential for the reduction of Ag+ to Ag(s) is +0.800 V, what is the
standard reduction potential for the Sn4+/Sn2+ half-reaction?
A) +0.154 V
B) -0.154 V
C) +1.45 V
D) -1.45 V
E) +0.308 V
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
63) What is the cell diagram for the spontaneous cell involving the Cl 2 ∣ Cl- (1.358 V) and the Sn2+ ∣
Sn (-0.137V) half cells?
A) Pt ∣ Cl2(g) ∣ Cl-(aq) Sn2+(aq) ∣ Sn(s)
B) Sn(S) ∣ Sn2+(aq) Cl-(aq) ∣ Cl2(g) ∣ Pt
C) Cl2(g) ∣ Cl-(aq) Sn2+(aq) ∣ Sn(s)
D) Sn(S) Sn2+(aq) Cl-(aq) ∣ Cl2(g)
E) Sn(S) ∣ Cl-(aq) Sn2+(aq) ∣ Sn(s)
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
339
64) What is the cell reaction of the spontaneous cell made from the Zn 2+/Zn (-0.76 V) and Br2 /2Br-
(1.07 V) half cells?
A) 2 Br- + Zn2+ → Zn + Br2
B) Br2 + Zn → Zn2+ + 2 Br-
C) 2 Br- + Zn → Br2 + Zn2+
D) Br2 + Zn → Zn2+ + Br-
E) Br2 + Zn2+ → Zn + 2Br-
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
65) What is E° of the spontaneous cell made from the Zn2+/Zn (-0.76 V) and Br2/2Br- (1.07 V) half
cells?
A) -1.83 V
B) 0.31 V
C) 1.83 V
D) -0.31 V
E) -0.76 V
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
66) Using the following reduction half-reactions and their respective standard reduction potentials at
25°C, draw a diagram of a galvanic cell.
Cr2O72-(aq) + 14 H+(aq) + 6e- → 2 Cr3+(aq) + 7 H2O E° = +1.33 V
Zn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s) E° = -0.763 V
A) Zn (aq) ∣ Zn(s), H (aq) Cr2O72-(aq), Cr(s) ∣ Cr3+(aq)
2+ +
B) Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+(aq) H+(aq), Cr3+(aq) ∣ Cr(s)
C) Cr(s) ∣ Cr3+(aq), H+(aq), Cr2O72-(aq) Zn(S) ∣ Zn2+(aq)
D) Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+(aq) Cr2O72-(aq), H+(aq), Cr3+(aq) ∣ Pt(s)
E) Pt(s) ∣ Cr3+(aq), Cr2O72-(aq), H+(aq) Zn2+(aq) ∣ Zn(s)
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
340
67) Which two of the following half-reactions will combine to give the galvanic cell with the highest
cell potential?
1) 2 H+(aq) + 2 e- → H2(g) E° = 0
2) Pb+2(aq) + 2 e- → Pb(s) E° = -0.125 V
3) I2(s) + 2 e → 2 I (aq)
- - E° = +0.535 V
4) Zn (aq) + 2 e → Zn(s)
+2 - E° = -0.763 V
A) 1 and 4
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 3
E) 2 and 3
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
68) What is E° of the spontaneous cell made from Ag+/Ag (0.80 V) and Cl2/Cl- (1.36 V) half cells?
A) 2.16 V
B) -2.16 V
C) -0.56 V
D) 0.56 V
E) 1.36 V
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
69) The net reaction in a voltaic cell with E°cell = +0.726 V is,
2 Fe3+(aq) + 3 Zn(S) → 2 Fe(s) + 3 Zn2+(aq)
What is ΔG° for this reaction at 25°C?
A) -210 kJ
B) -140 kJ
C) -700 kJ
D) -463 kJ
E) -420 kJ
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
70) The standard Gibbs energy change for the following voltaic cell is ΔG° = -89.3 kJ at 25°C.
What is E°cell? Cu(s) | Cu2+(aq) || Ag+(aq) | Ag(s)
A) +0.463 V
B) -0.926 V
C) -0.463 V
D) +0.926 V
E) +0.231 V
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
341
71) What is Keq at 25°C of the spontaneous cell made from Ag+/Ag (0.80 V) and Cl2/Cl- (1.36 V) half
cells?
A) 1073
B) 10-10
C) 109
D) 1019
E) 10-19
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
72) What is Keq at 25°C of the spontaneous cell made from the Zn2+/Zn (-0.76 V) and Br2/2Br- (1.07
V) half cells?
A) 10-6
B) 105
C) 1010
D) 10-11
E) 1061
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
73) Determine Keq at 25°C for the following reaction:

Pb2+(aq) + Cu(s) ⇔Cu2+(aq) + Pb(s)
Pb2+(aq) + 2 e- ⇔Pb(s) E° = -0.125 V
Cu2+(aq) + 2 e- ⇔Cu(s) E° = +0.337 V
A) 2 × 1069
B) 2 × 10-16
C) 2 × 1016
D) 2 × 10-8
E) 6 × 107
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
342
Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) E° = 0.800 V
Mg2+(aq) + 2 e- → Mg(s) E° = -2.356 V
Determine ΔG°.
A) -300.3 kJ/mol
B) 304.5 kJ/mol
C) 609.0 kJ/mol
D) -304.5 kJ/mol
E) -609.0 kJ/mol
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
75) What is ΔG° at 25°C for the reaction (not balanced): C3H8 + O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O(l) if the
standard cell potential is 1.092 V?
A) -105 kJ
B) -211 kJ
C) 105 kJ
D) -2107 kJ
E) 211 kJ
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
76) What is the standard cell potential if the Gibbs energy is -2108 kJ in the reaction:
C3H8 + O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O(l) (not balanced)?
A) -10.92 V
B) 10.92 V
C) 21.85 V
D) -1.092 V
E) 1.092 V
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
77) Calculate Ecell at 25°C for the following voltaic cell. Ksp for NiCO3 is 1.42 × 10-7.
Ni(s) ∣ Ni2+(aq) [sat'd NiCO3(s)] Ni2+(aq) (0.010M) ∣ Ni(s)
The half-reaction is: Ni2+(aq) + 2 e- → Ni(s) E° = -0.257 V
A) +0.257 V
B) -0.257 V
C) 0.000 V
D) +0.0844 V
E) +0.0422 V
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
343
78) Find Ecell for the following voltaic cell at 25°C:
Ti(s) ∣ Ti2+(aq) (0.550M) Sn2+(aq) (0.005 M) ∣ Sn(s)
Ti2+(aq) + 2 e- ⇔Ti(s) E° = -1.630 V
2+ -
Sn (aq) + 2 e ⇔Sn(s) E° = -0.137 V
A) 1.372 V
B) 1.707 V
C) 1.646 V
D) 1.433 V
E) -1.646 V
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
79) Determine Ecell at 25°C for the following reaction at 25°C:

Al ∣ Al3+(0.435 M) Sn2+(2.12 × 10-3 M) ∣ Sn
3 Sn2+ + 2 Al(s) → 2 Al3+ + 3 Sn(s)
Al3+ + 3 e- → Al(s) E° = -1.676 V
Sn2+ + 2 e- → Sn(s) E° = -0.137 V
A) 1.227 V
B) 1.611 V
C) 1.562 V
D) 1.487 V
E) 1.467 V
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
80) What is Ecell at 25°C of the spontaneous cell made from Ag+/Ag (0.80 V) and Cl2/Cl- (1.36 V) half
cells if [Ag+] = 10-2 and [Cl-] = 10-4 with P(Cl2) = 1.1 atm?
A) 0.65 V
B) 0.38 V
C) 0.74 V
D) 0.92 V
E) 0.20 V
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
344
81) Find Ecell at 25°C for the following voltaic cell:
Cu(s) ∣ Cu2+(aq) (0.10 M) Cu2+(aq) (0.85 M) ∣ Cu(s)
The half-reaction is:
Cu2+(aq) + 2 e- → Cu(s) E° = +0.377 volts
A) +0.0209 V
B) +0.0550 V
C) +0.0275 V
D) -0.0209 V
E) +0.310 V
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI

2 Al + 3 Ni2+ → 2 Al3+ + 3 Ni E° = 1.410 v
What would be the cell potential at 25°C as calculated from the Nernst equation if [Ni2+] = 0.020 M,
[Al3+] = 3.60 M?
A) 1.388 volts
B) 1.034 volts
C) 1.471 volts
D) 1.349 volts
E) 1.410 volts
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
83) What is the cell potential for the following cell at 25°C?
Al ∣ Al3+(0.00212 M) Sn2+(0.435 M) ∣ Sn
Al3+ + 3 e- → Al(s) E° = -1.676 V
Sn2+ + 2 e- → Sn(s E° = -0.137 V
A) 1.517 V
B) 1.668 V
C) 1.410 V
D) 1.497 V
E) 1.581 V
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
345
84) What is the cell potential for the following cell at 25°C?
Zn ∣ Zn2+ (0.0456 M) Cu2+(0.120 M) ∣ Cu
Cu2+ + 2 e- → Cu(s) E° = 0.340 V
Zn2+ + 2 e- → Zn(s) E° = -0.763 V
A) 1.088 V
B) 1.114 V
C) 1.106 V
D) 1.094 V
E) 1.129 V
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
85) What is the Ecell for the following cell at 25°C?

Pt ∣ Fe2+ (0.0562 M), Fe3+ (0.253 M) Ag+ (0.334 M) ∣ Ag
Ag+ + e- → Ag(s) E° = 0.800 V
Fe3+ + e- → Fe2+ E° = -0.771 V
A) -0.038 V
B) 1.500 V
C) -0.004 V
D) 0.096 V
E) 0.039 V
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
86) What is the [H+] in a concentration cell at 25°C if the cell potential is 0.0451 V and cell diagram:
Pt ∣ H2 (g, 1 atm) ∣ H+ (?) H+ (1 M) ∣ H2 (g, 1 atm)
2 H+(aq) + 2 e- → H2(g) E° = 0. V
A) 0.51 M
B) 0.42 M
C) 0.030 M
D) 0.17 M
E) 5.7 M
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
346
87) What is Ecell at 25°C of the spontaneous cell made from the Zn2+/Zn (0.76 V) and Br2(l)/Br- (1.07
V) half cells if [Zn2+] = 10-2 and [Br-] = 10-4?
A) 0.40 V
B) 0.13 V
C) 0.61 V
D) 0.01 V
E) 0.49 V
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: BI
88) For the following voltaic cell, determine the [Cl -] when PCl2 = 0.500 atm, [Zn2+] = 1.77 × 10-2 M,
and Ecell = 2.250 V. The half-reactions at 25°C are:
Cl2(g) + 2 e- → 2 Cl-(aq) E° = +1.358 V
Zn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s) E° = -0.763 V
Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+(aq) Cl-(aq), Cl2(g) ∣ Pt(s)
A) 5.48 × 10-6 M
B) 2.32 × 10-3 M
C) 0.0296 M
D) 0.0939 M
E) 0.0352 M
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
89) What is the Ecell for the following concentration cell at 25°C:
Pt ∣ H2 (g, 0.025 atm) ∣ H+ (0.012 M) H+ (1 M) ∣ H2 (g, 1 atm) ∣ Pt
2 H+(aq) + 2 e- → H2(g) E° = 0. V
A) -0.16 V
B) +0.066 V
C) -0.132 V
D) 0.16 V
E) -0.066 V
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
347
90) What is the Ecell for the following cell at 25°C?
Pt ∣ Sn2+ (0.233 M), Sn4+ (1.05 M) Ag+ (2.22 × 10-2 M) ∣ Ag
Ag+ + e- → Ag(s) E° = 0.800 V
Sn4+ + 2 e- → Sn2+ E° = 0.154 V
A) 0.763 V
B) 0.529 V
C) 0.412 V
D) 0.680 V
E) 0.578 V
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
91) Given the following half-reactions occurring in the silver-zinc hearing aid battery, calculate the
voltage at 25°C of this battery.
ZnO(s) + H2O(l) + 2 e- → Zn(s) + 2 OH- E° = -1.260 V
Ag2O(s) + H2O(l) + 2 e- → 2 Ag(s) + 2 OH- E° = +0.342 V
A) +1.602 V
B) +1.402 V
C) +0.858 V
D) -0.858 V
E) -1.602 V
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
92) Calculate the mass of I2 produced at the anode if a current of 2.85 A is passed through a solution of
KI for 56 minutes.
A) 0.42 g
B) 0.13 g
C) 13 g
D) 25 g
E) 4.3 g
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
93) A constant current of 10.0 A is passed through an electrolytic cell for 90.0 min. How many
Coulombs of charge are passed through the cell?
A) 0.00933
B) 0.560
C) 0.00560
D) 900
E) 15
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
348
94) A constant current of 15.0 A is passed through an electrolytic cell for 60.0 min. How many
Coulombs of charge are passed through the cell?
A) 0.00933
B) 0.560
C) 0.00560
D) 900
E) 15
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
95) A solution of Al(NO3)3 is electrolyzed by passing 144 A of current for 102 min. What mass of
aluminum plates out?
A) 27.4 g
B) 760 g
C) 82.1 g
D) 2.3 g
E) 75.3 g
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
96) What mass of silver can be deposited by the passage of a constant current of 5.00 A through a
AgNO3 solution for 2.00 hours?
A) 40.3 g
B) 0.0112 g
C) 0.671 g
D) 0.373 g
E) 10.06 g
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
97) What mass of aluminum can be deposited by the passage of a constant current of 5.00 A through a
Al(NO3)3 solution for 2.00 hours?
A) 3.36 g
B) 1.12 g
C) 0.0559 g
D) 0.672 g
E) 0.125 g
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
349
98) A solution of AgNO3 is electrolyzed by passing 144 A of current for 102 min. What mass of silver
plates out?
A) 16.4 g
B) 5.91 × 104 g
C) 985 g
D) 9.13 g
E) 6.84 g
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
99) Two cells containing solutions of AgNO3 and CuSO4, respectively, were connected in series and
electrolyzed. The cathode in the AgNO3 cell was found to gain 1.078 grams in weight. How much had
the cathode in the other cell gained?
A) 0.127 g
B) 0.6354 g
C) 3.175 g
D) 0.318 g
E) 0.254 g
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
100) 3.53 L of 0.362 M CuCl2(aq) solution are electrolyzed for 55.6 minutes with a current of 14.0-
amperes. What is [CuCl2] when the electrolysis ends?
A) 0.361 M
B) 0.328 M
C) 0.120 M
D) 0.171 M
E) 0.293 M
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
101) How long would it take to deposit 15.0 g copper metal at the cathode of an electrolysis cell running
with a current of 150 mA?
A) 42.2 h
B) 4.22 h
C) 12.7 h
D) 84.4 h
E) 19.0 h
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
350
102) A copper electrode weighs 35.42 g before the electrolysis of a copper (II) sulfate solution and
36.69 g after the electrolysis has run for 20.0 s. What was the amperage of the current used?
A) 2.12 A
B) 0.0335 A
C) 48.2 A
D) 96.4 A
E) 193 A
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: BI
103) A solution of AuCl3 is electrolyzed by passing 85.0 A of current for 17.6 min. What mass of gold
plates out?
A) 61.1 g
B) 1.02 g
C) 183 g
D) 0.483 g
E) 290 g
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
Nuclear Chemistry
1) Radioactive decay series decay by alpha and positron emission.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
2) Artificially induced radioactivity is caused by bombarding a nucleus with another particle.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
3) Transuraniun elements are elements with atomic numbers greater than 92.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
4) Radioactivity is a first order kinetics process.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
5) The nuclear binding energy is the energy required to separate the neutrons and protons.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
351
6) Radioactive nuclides that lie above the band of stability become more stable by positron emission.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
7) Odd proton, odd neutron isotopes are generally more stable than even proton, even neutron isotopes.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
8) Fission is the process of combining small nuclei into larger nuclei.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
9) Fusion is the process of combining small nuclei into larger nuclei.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF
352
10) Ion production is the way radiation causes the most damage.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Type: TF
11) Cancerous cells are more easily killed by radiation than normal cells.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF

A) Radioactivity is the emission of ionizing radiation.
B) An alpha particle is the nucleus of a helium-4 atom.
C) A beta particle is a neutron.
D) A positron is like a beta particle but with a positive charge.
E) Gamma rays are emitted from a nucleus in an excited state.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
13) Radioactive decay is:

A) temperature independent
B) a second-order process
C) a zero-order process
D) a process with a large activation energy
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
14) The most massive particle is:

A) alpha
B) beta
C) gamma
D) positron
E) neutron
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
353
15) Identify a reaction that follows a different decay process than the rest.
A) 238 237
92 U → 89 Ac
B) 226 222
88 Ra → 86 Rn
C) 248 244
96 Cm → 94 Pu
D) 218 214
84 Po → 82 Pb
E) 222 218
86 Rn → 84 Po
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
16) The most highly charged particle is:

A) alpha
B) beta
C) gamma
D) positron
E) neutron
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
17) When a nuclide undergoes positron emission, the change in the number of protons, neutrons, and
mass number is, respectively,
A) -1, +1, no change
B) +1, -1, no change
C) -1, +1, -1
D) +1, +1, -1
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
18) Which of the following statements concerning alpha decay is INCORRECT?

A) It involves nuclides with atomic number larger than 83 and mass number larger than 200.
B) It has great penetrating power, but little ionizing power.
C) It often leaves the nucleus in an excited state.
D) The atomic number decreases by two.
E) The alpha particle is made up of two protons and two neutrons.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
354
19) Which of the following is FALSE?
A) A β- particle is essentially an e - originating from the nucleus.
B) A β- decay results in a decrease in atomic number.
C) A β- decay is accompanied by the emission of a neutrino.
D) A β+ decay converts a proton to a neutron in the nucleus of an atom.
E) An e- capture converts a proton to a neutron in the nucleus of an atom.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
20) Which of the following are true for alpha particles?

I) α particles are equivalent to 2 11p + 2 01n .
II) α decay decreases the atomic number by four.
III) α particles are deflected more strongly than e - by magnetic fields, but in the opposite direction.
IV) α particles are easily stopped as they strike matter.
A) I and II
B) I, II, III
C) I and III
D) I and IV
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
21) Which of the following types of nuclear decay result in a decrease in nuclear charge?
I) alpha emission
II) beta emission
III) position emission
IV) electron-capture
A) I and II
B) II and IV
C) I and III
D) III and IV
E) IV only
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
22) Which of the following would have the greatest penetrating power through matter?
A) gamma rays
B) alpha particles
C) protons
D) beta particles
E) positron particles
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
355
23) Most periodic tables indicate the elements for which all isotopes are radioactive. Which pair of
elements with atomic number less than 83 have only radioactive isotopes?
A) Pb and At
B) Tc and Cd
C) K and Pm
D) Tc and Pm
E) C and K
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
24) Consider the following nuclear reactions.

27 Al + 4 He → 1 + 1n
13 2 0
1 → 30
14 Si + 2
What are the nuclides 1 and 2, respectively?
A) 30 0
15 P and 1β
B) 30 0
14 Si and 1β
C) 30 0
16 S and 1β
D) 30
12 Mg and 2 1β
0
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
25) Choose the possible products for the nuclear reaction 40Ca + 4He(alpha).
A) 43Ar + n
B) 43Sc + p
C) 43Ca + n
D) 42Ca + 2H
E) 42Ti + n
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
26) Transuranium elements can be produced by bombarding nuclei with:

A) neutrons
B) other nuclei
C) alpha particles
D) positrons
E) neutrons and/or other nuclei
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
356
27) There have been two ways of making transuranium elements: neutron bombardment and:
A) beta bombardment
B) gamma bombardment
C) positron bombardment
D) photon bombardment
E) heavy-atom bombardment
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
28) There have been two ways of making transuranium elements: heavy-atom bombardment and:
A) beta bombardment
B) gamma bombardment
C) positron bombardment
D) photon bombardment
E) neutron bombardment
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
29) In the case of radioactive element X, which decays by electron emission with a half-life of 4 days to
a stable nuclide of element Z:
A) 2 g of element X is required to produce 1.5 g of element Z after 8 days
B) element Z will weigh considerably less than element X after decay is complete because of the loss of
electrons
C) element Z will weigh more than element X when decay is complete since Z has the higher atomic
number
D) after 8 days the sample will consist of one-fourth element Z and three-fourths element X
E) after 8 days element X will be all element Z
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) Bi-209 has the highest mass number and atomic number of any stable isotope.
B) The radioactive decay law is A = θN.
C) Radioactive decay is a first-order process.
D) The half-life is the length of time for all atoms of an isotope to decay.
E) Wood can be dated by radiocarbon dating.
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC
357
31) What is the decay constant for 131I if the half-life is 8.04 d?
A) 9.98 x 10-7 s-1
B) 9.31 x 10-5 s-1
C) 3.48 x 10-6 s-1
D) 4.81 x 10-4 s-1
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
32) A nuclide has a decay constant of 4.28 × 10-4/h. If the activity of a sample is 3.14 × 105/s, how
many atoms of the nuclide are present in the sample?
A) 7.34 × 108
B) 2.64 × 1012
C) 4.84 × 105
D) 1.34 × 102
E) 2.34 × 1011
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
33) The charcoal from ashes found in a cave gave 3.34 14C counts per gram per minute. Wood from the
outer portion of a growing tree gives a comparable count of 16.0. The half-life of 14C is 5700 years.
How old are the ashes?
A) 8.93 × 103 yr
B) 6.87 × 103 yr
C) 1.29 × 104 yr
D) 1.93 × 104 yr
E) 1.90 × 104 yr
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
34) A wooden artifact is subjected to radiocarbon dating. The activity associated with its 14C content is
12 dis min-1 g-1. A sample of wood from a modern source gave 15 dis min-1 g-1. If the half-life of 14C
is 5730 y, what is the age of the artifact?
A) 1.8 x 103 y
B) 800 y
C) 1.3 x 103 y
D) 7.2 x 103 y
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
358
35) If the decay constant for 131I is 9.98 x 10-7 s-1, calculate the activity of a 1.00 mg sample.
A) 4.59 x 1012 atoms/s
B) 4.73 x 1012 atoms/s
C) 4.61 x 1024 atoms/s
D) 9.98 x 10-4 atoms/s
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
36) Half-life is:

I) the time for a sample to decay completely.
II) constant for a given radioisotope.
III) the time required for half of a sample to decay.
IV) inversely proportional to the decay constant.
A) I and II
B) I, II, and III
C) I and III
D) I, III, and IV
E) II, III, and IV
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
37) The observation that a 30 g sample of C-14 has a decay rate faster than that of a 20 g sample of C-14
would be consistent with the:
A) Half-Life Principle
B) Disintegration Rule
C) Radioactive decay law
D) Mass-Rate Principle
E) Mass-decay ratio
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
38) The half-life of 238U, which decomposes to 206Pb, is 4.51 × 109 y. A rock contains equal masses of
these two isotopes. How old is this rock?
A) 4.07 × 109 y
B) 4.06 × 109 y
C) 9.02 × 109 y
D) 4.51 × 109 y
E) 5.00 × 109 y
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC
359
39) The following nuclear reaction is known to occur: 2 21H → 42 He This reaction is used in a fusion
bomb or H bomb. How many joules of energy are produced by this reaction if 33.0 g of 2H are used?
You are given the following masses: electron 0.00055 amu; proton 1.00782 amu; neutron 1.00867 amu;
2H atom 2.010410 amu; 4 He atom 4.00260 amu.
2
A) 3.82 × 10-12 J
B) 2.30 × 1012 J
C) 3.77 × 1013 J
D) 7.60 × 1013 J
E) 1.34 J
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC
40) The masses of 42 He , 63 Li and 105 B are 4.0015, 6.0135 and 10.0102 amu, respectively. Splitting a
boron-10 nucleus to helium-4 and lithium-6 would:
A) absorb energy
B) evolve energy
C) result in no energy change
D) cannot be determined
E) boron cannot be split
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
41) On forming the nuclide from the protons, neutrons and electrons, the mass loss per nucleon for the
4 He is 0.00759 amu, whereas that for 56 Fe is 0.00944 amu. This means that:
2 26
A) 56
26 Fe undergoes nuclear fission
B) 42 He is more stable than 56
26 Fe
C) thirteen 42 He nuclei could react to form one 56
26 Fe nucleus
D) 56 4
26 Fe is more stable than 2 He
E) 42 He weighs more than 5626 Fe
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC
360
42) Nuclear binding energy is:
I) the energy liberated when forming a nucleus
II) related to "lost" mass by the relationship 1 amu = 28.4 MeV
III) related to "lost" mass by the relationship 1 amu = 931.5 MeV
IV) the force which holds the 3 atomic particles together
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) I, II, and IV
D) I, III, and IV
E) III and IV
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
43) The binding energy per nucleon is largest for ________.

A) 3He
B) 59Co
C) 235U
D) 98Tc
E) 1H
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
44) In the reaction 126 C + 42 He → 168 O how much energy is produced per gram of carbon used?
Masses, in unified atomic mass units are: 126 C = 12.00000, 42 He = 4.00260, = 15.99491.
Express your answer in Joules/gram of carbon.
A) 2.10 × 1019 J/g
B) 5.76 × 1010 J/g
C) 7.77 × 104 J/g
D) 2.80 × 1011 J/g
E) 3.36 × 1015 J/g
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC
361
45) An isotope which has too high a neutron-proton ratio can gain stability by:
A) beta emission
B) K-capture
C) proton emission
D) gamma emission
E) alpha emission
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
46) Which of the following is true concerning the nuclei of stable heavier elements?
A) # 01n = # 11p
B) # 01n > # 11p
C) # 01n < # 11p
D) # 01n = # 11p > #e-

Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
47) Find the INCORRECT nuclear reaction.

A) 235 1 139 94 1
92 U + 0 n → 56 Ba + 36 Kr + 3 0 N
B) 239 1 140 100
94 Pu + 0 n → 55 Cs + 39Y
C) 235 1 232 4
92 U + 0 n → 90Th + 2 He
D) 235 1 139 94 1
92 U + 0 n → 56 Ba + 36 Kr + 0 n
E) 238 1 239
92 U + 0 n → 92 U
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: MC

A) The nuclear binding energy is the mass changed to energy that holds the nucleus together.
B) Magic numbers are certain numbers of protons and/or neutrons which are especially stable.
C) Even numbers of protons and neutrons are more stable.
D) Particular ratios of neutrons to protons are more stable.
E) All isotopes below Bi are stable.
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: MC
362
49) Which of the following nuclides is most likely to be stable?
A) 208Pb
B) 209Bi
C) 205Tl
D) 24Na
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
50) The nuclear binding energy for cobalt-59 is the energy released when:
A) 27 protons and 32 neutrons form cobalt-59
B) iron-56 and 2 protons form cobalt-59
C) 27 protons and 27 neutrons form cobalt-59
D) cobalt-58 and 1 neutron form cobalt -59
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) Instability leading to decay by alpha particle emission is found mostly in nuclides of very large mass
number.
B) Decay by beta emission is confined to nuclides of very low mass number.
C) Ejection of an electron by a nuclide results in a nuclide of next lower mass number.
D) All radiations emitted by radioactive nuclides consist of charged, high energy particles.
E) Many alpha and beta emissions are followed by gamma emissions.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
52) Choose the correct word to describe the nuclear stability of the following isotope. If it is radioactive,
choose the most likely mode of decay.
212Po
A) radioactive, beta
B) radioactive, fission
C) radioactive, alpha
D) radioactive, neutron
E) stable
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
363
197Au
E) stable
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
50Mn
A) radioactive, beta plus (positron)
E) stable
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC
238U
E) stable
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
19F
E) stable
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC
364
57) Which of the following nuclear species would require the least amount of kinetic energy to penetrate
the nucleus of a lead (Pb) atom?
A) 11H
B) 42 He
C) 21H
D) 01n
E) 23 He
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC

A) Fission is the combining of small nuclei into a larger nucleus.
B) Thermal neutrons induce more fission reactions than energetic neutrons.
C) Water is a good moderator, it slows down neutrons.
D) Control rods absorb neutrons.
E) Breeder reactors generate new fuel as well as electricity.
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC

A) An isotope that will fission when hit by a neutron is said to be fertile.
B) A moderator slows down neutrons.
C) Control rods absorb energy to control the fission reaction.
D) Electrons dislodged from an atom or molecule by alpha or beta particles are called primary electrons.
E) Radiation exposes photographic film the same as light.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
60) What total energy is released when 0.75 grams of 235U undergo fission if each atom averages
3.2 × 10-11 J of energy released?
A) 1.45 × 1013 J
B) 6.01 × 1031 J
C) 6.15 × 1010 J
D) 6.15 × 107 J
E) 1.45 × 1010 J
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
365
A) Fusion is the basis of the hydrogen bomb.
B) Fusion is the splitting of a nucleus into two smaller nuclei.
C) Fusion is a reaction that occurs on the sun.
D) Fusion is not now used to produce electricity commercially.
E) Fusion can produce an almost unlimited amount of energy.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC
62) Which statement below is correct?

A) In order for fusion to be sustained, the critical mass must be exceeded.
B) Fission reactions with light nuclei, such as helium are easily controlled but do not produce as much
energy as with heavy nuclei.
C) Breeder reactors are able to convert fissile nuclides into fertile ones, thus "breeding" more fuel.
D) In a pressurized water reactor, cadmium metal usually acts as the moderator.
E) 238 239
94 U requires energetic neutrons in order to undergo fission and subsequently produces 94 Pu .
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) Geiger-Müller counters detect radiation by the ionization caused in the gas in the counter.
B) Bubble chambers detect radiation by the ionization trail left by the radiation.
C) Radiation causes no harm to the human body.
D) Radiation kills cancer cells more easily than normal cells.
E) Alpha particles are less penetrating than beta particles.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
64) An employee at a chemical laboratory studying radioisotopes would wear a badge to keep a check
on the amount of radiation to which he is exposed. This radiation dosage would be measured in the unit:
A) curie
B) rad
C) rem
D) Joules
E) Joules per kilogram
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
366
65) Which of the following instruments would be least suitable for detecting particles given off in
radioactive decay?
A) electron microscope
B) bubble or cloud chamber
C) film
D) Geiger counter
E) Geiger-Müller counter
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
66) The unit of radiation which is equivalent to 0.010 J/kg of matter is the:
A) curie
B) roentgen
C) rad
D) rem
E) MeV
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC
67) Radiation can be detected as it interacts with matter by the use of:
I) photographic film
II) a bubble chamber
III) Geiger-Müller counter
A) I, II, III
B) I and II
C) I and III
D) II and III
E) III only
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC

A) Cancer cannot be caused by ionizing radiation.
B) Cancer can be treated with gamma rays.
C) Radiation works against cancer because cancer cells are more easily damaged than normal cells.
D) Protons, x-rays, and neutrons can also be used against cancer cells.
E) Ionizing radiation tends to kill all cells.
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: MC
367
A) Radioactive 32P as a phosphate can be used to trace the uptake of phosphorus in plants.
B) The thyroid gland can be studied by the use of radioactive iodine.
C) There is no difference in physical properties between isotopes.
D) The mechanism of a chemical reaction can be followed by a radioactive tracer such as 35S.
E) Industrial catalysts can be followed by a tracer such as 192Ir.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC
70) The type of radioactive emission with the greatest penetrating power is ________.
A) alpha
B) beta
C) gamma
D) positron
E) neutrino
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
71) 56
26 Fe can be prepared by electron-capture from ________.
A) 56
25 Mn
B) 56
26 Fe
C) 57
27 Co
56 Co
D) 27
E) 55
25 Mn
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
72) 210Pb → 4He + ________

A) 214Pb
B) 206Hg
C) 214Hg
D) 206Pb
E) 206Br
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
368
73) 8Be → 4He + ________
A) 3Be
B) 8He
C) 4He
D) 4Li
E) 12C
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: BI
74) 6He → β- + ________

A) 6H
B) 5He
C) 7He
D) 6Li
E) 7Be
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
75) 205Pb + ________ → 205Tl

A) 01n
B) 42 He
C) 01β+
D) gamma
E) 01β-
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Type: BI
76) ________ + β- → 37Cl

A) 37Ar
B) 38Ar
C) 38Cl
D) 37K
E) 36K
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
369
77) When a nitrogen nucleus containing six neutrons emits a positron, the product is ________.
A) 147N
B) 146 C
C) 126 C
D) 136C
E) 13
7N
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
78) The beta decay of 24

11 Na produces an isotope of ________.
A) Al
B) Mg
C) Na
D) Ne
E) O
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: BI
79) Emission of which one of the following leaves both atomic number and mass number unchanged?
A) alpha particle
B) positron
C) neutron
D) gamma radiation
E) beta ray
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
80) The most ionizing radiation is of what type?

A) alpha
B) beta
C) gamma
D) electron
E) neutron
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
370
81) When 90
38 Sr undergoes positron emission, the product nucleus is ________.
90 Rb
A) 37
91Sr
B) 38
C) 90
39Y
D) 89
38 Sr
E) 89
39Y
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
82) There are three radioactive series: the thorium series, which begins with 232Th, the actinium series
which starts with 235U and the uranium series which starts with what isotope?
A) 223 Fr
B) 238U
C) 221Rn
D) 214Pb
E) 232Th
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
83) There are three radioactive series: the thorium series, which begins with 232Th, the uranium series
which starts with 238U and the actinium series which starts with what isotope?
A) 235U
B) 216Po
C) 221Rn
D) 214Pb
E) 226Ra
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
371
84) A certain radioactive series starts with 235 207
92 U and ends with 82 Pb . In the overall process,
________ alpha particles and ________ beta particles are emitted.
A) 7, 10
B) 7, 4
C) 8, 6
D) 14, 10
E) 7, 8
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: BI
85) A certain radioactive series starts with 238 206

92 U and ends with 82 Pb . In the overall process,
________ alpha particles and ________ beta particles are emitted.
A) 7, 5
B) 7, 4
C) 8, 6
D) 8, 7
E) 8, 3
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
86) Alpha particle bombardment of 27Al followed by neutron emission produces ________.
A) 30P
B) 30Si
C) 31Si
D) 29P
E) 32P
Answer: A
Diff: 1 Type: BI
87) Bombardment of 75 2
33 As by a deuteron, 1H , forms a proton and an isotope which has a mass number
of ________ and an atomic number of ________.
A) 75, 32
B) 75, 33
C) 73, 32
D) 76, 33
E) 74, 34
Answer: D
Diff: 1 Type: BI
372
88) In the following process, what is the missing particle?
14 N + 4 He → _____ + 1P
7 2 1
A) 177 N
B) 179 F
C) 178 O
D) 189F
E) 18
8O
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
89) In the following process, what is the missing particle?
_____ + 42 He → 178 O + 11P
A) 177 N
B) 179 F
C) 14
7O
D) 189F
E) 18
8O
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: BI
90) The charcoal from ashes found in a cave gave 7.4 14C counts per gram per minute. Wood from the
outer portion of a growing tree gives a comparable count of 15.3. The half-life of 14C is 5700 years.
How old are the ashes?
A) 5700 y
B) 5437 y
C) 3245 y
D) 9220 y
E) 5970 y
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
373
91) The initial decay rate of a nuclide is 1.77 × 1012/m. After 7.63 d, the decay rate is 1.82 × 1011/m.
What is the half-life of the isotope?
A) 139 d
B) 0.298 d
C) 0.207 d
D) 2.32 d
E) 2.50 d
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
92) If 1.0 gram of an isotope has a half-life of 15 hours, the half-life of a 0.50 gram sample of the same
isotope is ________.
A) 60 hours
B) 30 hours
C) 7.5 hours
D) 15 hours
E) 3.75 hours
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: BI
93) A certain isotope has a half-life of 14.7 min. How long will it take for 24.2% of the isotope to
decay?
A) 5.88 min
B) 30.1 min
C) 4.07 min
D) 0.0131 min
E) 0.400 min
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
94) Approximately what mass of a 1.00 mg sample of 131I remains after 40.2 days? The half-life of
131I is 8.04 d.
A) 0.0313 mg
B) 0.200 mg
C) 0.0249 mg
D) 0.0156 mg
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
374
95) Phosphorus-32 has a half-life of 14.3 days. How many grams remain from a 10.0 gram sample after
30.0 days?
A) 2.34 g
B) 7.18 g
C) 4.64 g
D) 0.340 g
E) 3.59 g
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: BI
96) A newly synthesized element is found to have a half-life of 3.82 minutes. How long after its
formation will the activity be only 10% of original activity?
A) 12.1 min
B) 6.03 min
C) 0.603 min
D) 12.7 min
E) 1.27 min
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: BI
97) What is the binding energy, in amu, of 13C? Masses are: proton = 1.00728 amu, neutron = 1.00867
amu, electron = 0.00055 amu, and 13C = 13.00335 amu.
A) 0.10432 amu
B) 0.0102 amu
C) 0.10487 amu
D) 0.10817 amu
E) 0.00335 amu
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: BI
98) 11 11 0 11 +
5 B decays via the reaction 4 Be → 1e + 5 B + λ
What is the maximum energy of the gamma ray produced if atomic masses are:
11B = 11.00931 amu, 11Be = 11.0216 amu, 0 e = 0.00055 amu? Please express your answer in
5 4 1
electron volts, amu = 931.5 MeV.
A) 11.4 MeV
B) 0.0118 MeV
C) 13.2 MeV
D) 12.0 MeV
E) 10.8 MeV
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: BI
375
99) Complete the following fusion reaction: 21H + 31 H
A) 25 He
B) 42 He + 01n
C) 11H + 41H
D) 3 01n + 2 11H
E) 5 01n + 2 01e
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: BI
100) Fill in the blank in the following nuclear reaction.

30 P → _____ + 0 β
15 1
Answer: 30 14 Si
Diff: 1 Type: SA
376
Match the following nuclear changes with the particle emitted.
101) 241 241

94 Pu → 95 Am A) α-particle
Diff: 2 Type: MA
102) 222 218

86 Rn → 84 Po B) positron
Diff: 2 Type: MA
103) 2958 Cu → 58 Ni C) β--particle

28
Diff: 2 Type: MA
Answers: 101) C 102) A 103) B
377

Inorganic and Physical Chemistry Testbank 2022

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Inorganic and Physical Chemistry Testbank 2022

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GENERAL INORGANIC AND PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

QUESTION BANK CHEMICAL ENGINEERING SERIES

1) Atoms retain their identity during a chemical reaction.

2) All matter is composed of atoms.

3) Atoms combine in small, whole-numbered ratios.

4) All atoms of a given element are identical.

5) Different ratios of atoms produce different compounds.

6) J. J. Thomson suggested the "plum pudding" model of the atom.

7) Robert Millikan determined the charge on an electron.

14) Choose the INCORRECT statement from those given below.

17) Choose the INCORRECT statement.

18) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

20) Choose the correct statement.

22) Beta particles:

24) Choose the INCORRECT statement.

30) A hypothetical element, E, has two stable isotopes:

35) Which statement below is true?

36) Groups, or families, on the periodic table are:

37) Which of the following is a metalloid?

39) 31.0 grams of the element phosphorus contain:

40) How many arsenic atoms are in 5.21 g of arsenic?

44) 57.7 g Ni contains how many atoms?

57) Write the symbol for the radioactive isotope phosphorus-32.

60) Which is the proper chemical symbol for tungsten?

67) How many protons, neutrons, and electrons are in 24 2+

74) There are two stable isotopes of supposium (Su).

75) Which is the more abundant isotope, Cl-35 or Cl-37?

86) Sodium is a member of the family called ________.

87) Main group elements are those in groups ________.

88) What is the average mass in kilograms of one atom of arsenic?

90) How many moles of Fe is present in 1.2 grams of Fe?

91) 24.9 g of Mn is equivalent to how many moles of Mn?

12) What is the frequency of radiation with a wavelength of 440. nm?

15) Frequency and wavelength are related by the equation:

16) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning electromagnetic radiation.

24) The photoelectric effect:

41) Which statement about the zero-point energy is INCORRECT?

44) Which of the following is not possible?

52) All of the terms below are quantum numbers EXCEPT:

60) Which of the following statements about electron spin is FALSE?

61) Experimental evidence for electron spin:

72) Arrange the following in order of increasing ENERGY:

84) What is the total number of orbitals possible for n = 3?

87) The ground state electron configuration of phosphorus is ________.

88) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d3 is the ground state electronic configuration of ________.

89) [Kr]5s24d105p5 is the ground state electronic configuration of ________.

93) The correct electron configuration for Br - is ________.

1) A molecule is a group of bonded atoms that exist as an entity.

2) The structural formula is the simplest formula.

5) Oxidation state is related to the number of protons involved in bonding.

6) Organic chemistry refers to compounds of oxygen, and hydrogen.

7) Chemical nomenclature is a systematic way of assigning names to chemical compounds.

9) Polyatomic ions end in -ate or -ite.

11) Choose the INCORRECT statement.

12) Choose the INCORRECT statement.

13) A 200.0 g sample of pure MgCl2 contains:

14) A mole of the substance water, H2O, refers to:

16) The number of atoms in 10.0 g of CaCO3 (100.0 g/mol) is:

20) Which of the following could be an empirical formula?

25) Nitroglycerin, C3H5N3O3:

28) In which compound does carbon have an oxidation state of zero?

29) Choose the INCORRECT oxidation state.

30) Choose the INCORRECT oxidation state.

32) Choose the INCORRECT name formula combination.