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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5652212684*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB16 03_0625_22/3RP
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2

1 The diameter of a copper wire is thought to be approximately 0.3 mm.

Which instrument should be used to obtain a more accurate measurement of the diameter of the
wire?

A measuring tape
B metre rule
C micrometer
D ruler

2 Which is a unit of acceleration?

A g / cm3 B m/s C m / s2 D N/m

3 An object is released from rest and falls to Earth. During its fall, the object is affected by air
resistance. The air resistance eventually reaches a constant value.

Which description about successive stages of the motion of the object is correct?

A constant acceleration, then constant deceleration


B constant deceleration, then zero acceleration
C decreasing acceleration, then constant deceleration
D decreasing acceleration, then zero acceleration

4 A concrete post is carried up a very high mountain. At the top of the mountain, the gravitational
field is slightly weaker than at the bottom.

What is the effect of this weaker field on the mass and on the weight of the post at the top of the
mountain?

mass weight

A is less is less
B is less is unchanged
C is unchanged is less
D is unchanged is unchanged

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5 The diagram shows a cuboid block made from a metal of density 2.5 g / cm3.

2.0 cm 10 cm

2.0 cm

What is the mass of the block?

A 8.0 g B 16 g C 50 g D 100 g

6 The diagram shows an object moving at a constant speed in a circular path in the direction
shown.

A force acts on the object to keep it in the circular path.

In which labelled direction does this force act, when the object is in the position shown?

object
A

D B

path of
object

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7 A spring obeys Hooke’s law.

Which graph is obtained by plotting the extension of the spring against the load applied?

A B

extension extension

0 0
0 load 0 load

C D

extension extension

0 0
0 load 0 load

8 Which is the value of a vector quantity?

A 200 V
B 100 kg / m3
C 20 m / s, east

D 50 J / (kg °C)

9 The table gives four energy sources and states whether the energy of the source is derived from
the Sun.

Which row is correct?

source of energy derived from the Sun

A geothermal yes
B oil no
C water held behind a dam yes
D wind no

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10 A weight-lifter raises a 2000 N weight through a vertical height of 2.0 m in 0.80 s.

What useful power does he develop in doing this?

A 800 W B 3200 W C 4000 W D 5000 W

11 A wind turbine generates 54 kW of useful power from an input of 180 kW of wind power.

Which calculation gives the percentage efficiency of the turbine?

A 54 000 %
180 000 × 100

B 180 000 %
54 000 × 100

C 54 000 × 100 %
180 000

D 180 000 × 100 %


54 000

12 A force acts on an area to produce a pressure.

Which changes produce the same pressure?

A double the area and double the force


B double the area and halve the force
C double the area and make the force four times bigger
D halve the area and double the force

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13 Identical toy bricks are placed one on top of another to make a tower on a table.

bricks

tower of bricks

table

Which graph shows the relationship between the pressure P that the tower exerts on the table
and the weight W of the tower?

A B C D
P P P P

0 0 0 0
0 W 0 W 0 W 0 W

14 Gases can be compressed, but liquids cannot.

Which statement explains this difference?

A Each molecule in a gas is more compressible than each molecule in a liquid.


B Molecules in a gas are further apart than molecules in a liquid.
C Molecules in a gas attract each other more strongly than molecules in a liquid.
D Molecules in a gas move more slowly than molecules in a liquid.

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15 The diagram shows a quantity of gas trapped in a cylinder. The piston is pushed in slowly and the
gas is compressed. The temperature of the gas does not change.

gas piston pushed in

piston

Which graph shows the relationship between the pressure and the volume of the gas?

A B

pressure pressure

0 0
0 volume 0 volume

C D

pressure pressure

0 0
0 volume 0 volume

16 Which quantity gives the thermal capacity of a solid object?

A the energy lost by radiation from the object in 1.0 s


B the energy needed to melt the object

C the energy needed to raise the temperature of the object by 1.0 °C


D the total amount of thermal energy in the object

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17 To mark a temperature scale on a thermometer, standard temperatures known as fixed points are
needed.

Which of these is a fixed point on the Celsius scale?

A room temperature
B the temperature inside a freezer
C the temperature of pure melting ice
D the temperature of pure warm water

18 In an experiment, a liquid is heated at a constant rate.

The temperature of the liquid increases and eventually becomes constant.

Which statement about the experiment is correct?

A Boiling occurs at all temperatures but only on the liquid surface.


B Boiling occurs throughout the liquid but only at the constant temperature.
C Evaporation occurs throughout the liquid and at all temperatures.
D Evaporation occurs only at the constant temperature and only on the liquid surface.

19 One end of a copper rod is heated.

What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod?

A Free electrons transfer energy from the cooler end to the hotter end.
B Free electrons transfer energy from the hotter end to the cooler end.
C Molecules of copper move from the cooler end to the hotter end.
D Molecules of copper move from the hotter end to the cooler end.

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20 Two plastic cups are placed one inside the other. A small spacer keeps the two cups separated.

Hot water is poured into the inner cup and a lid is put on top, as shown.

lid

small spacer

small air gap

hot water

bench

Which statement is correct?

A The bench is heated by convection from the bottom of the outer cup.
B The lid reduces the energy lost by convection.
C There is no thermal conduction through the sides of either cup.
D Thermal radiation is prevented by the small air gap.

21 Which is a unit of wavelength?

A hertz
B metre
C metre per second
D second

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22 Which diagram correctly shows a ray of light reflected by a plane mirror?

A B

ray of 40° 50° ray of 50°


light light
50°

C D

ray of 40° ray of 40°


light light
40° 50°

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23 Which diagram shows how a converging lens is used as a magnifying glass?

image
F
A
object F

lens

image
F F
B

object
lens

image
F
C
F
object
lens

object
F F
D

image
lens

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24 A sound wave travels from a point X to a point Y.

X Y

Which diagram represents the movement of the air molecules, due to the sound wave, in the
region between X and Y?

A B C D

25 The speed of sound in air is 340 m / s.

Which row gives typical values for the speed of sound in a liquid and in a solid?

speed of sound in speed of sound in


a liquid / (m / s) a solid / (m / s)

A 250 180
B 250 5000
C 1500 180
D 1500 5000

26 In which pair are both materials magnetic?

A aluminium and copper


B copper and iron
C iron and steel
D steel and aluminium

27 Which methods could be used to demagnetise a magnet?

method 1: place it in an east-west direction and hammer it


method 2: place it in an east-west direction and heat it until it is red hot
method 3: pull it slowly from a coil that is carrying an alternating current
method 4: put it slowly into a coil that is carrying a direct current

A methods 1, 2 and 3
B methods 2, 3 and 4
C methods 1 and 2 only
D methods 3 and 4 only

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28 Which produces an electromotive force (e.m.f.)?

A a battery
B a filament lamp
C a resistor
D a spring balance

29 The table describes four different resistance wires. They are all made from the same metal.

Which wire has the smallest resistance?

length of diameter of
wire / m wire / mm

A 2.0 1.0
B 2.0 1.5
C 3.0 1.0
D 3.0 1.5

30 Which circuit shows the directions of the conventional current I and the flow of electrons?

A B

I electrons I electrons

C D

I electrons I electrons

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31 Four lamps are each labelled 240 V.

In which circuit do all four lamps have normal brightness?

A B

240 V 240 V

C D

240 V 240 V

32 A battery charger plugs into a 230 V a.c. supply. The charger is used to charge a 6.0 V d.c.
battery.

The charger contains diodes and a transformer.

What is the purpose of these components?

diodes transformer

A rectify the a.c. steps down the voltage


B rectify the a.c. steps up the voltage
C step down the voltage rectifies the a.c.
D step up the voltage rectifies the a.c.

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33 The diagram shows a potential divider connected to two voltmeters P and Q.

V voltmeter P

V voltmeter Q

The resistance of the variable resistor is decreased.

Which row shows what happens to the reading on each voltmeter?

reading on reading on
voltmeter P voltmeter Q

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

34 After some building work in a house, a bare (uninsulated) live wire is left protruding from a wall.

What is the greatest hazard?

A a fire
B a fuse blows
C an electric shock
D no current flows

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35 An electron moves into a uniform magnetic field.

The arrow shows the initial direction of motion of the electron.

The direction of the magnetic field is into the plane of the page (away from you).

uniform
magnetic field

electron

In which direction does a force act on the electron when it enters the magnetic field?

A into the page


B out of the page
C towards the bottom of the page
D towards the top of the page

36 The diagram shows an a.c. generator.

rotation
of coil
coil

N S

output voltage

As the coil passes through the position shown, the output voltage is +10 V.

When does the output voltage become –10 V?

A when the coil has turned through 90°

B when the coil has turned through 180°

C when the coil has turned through 270°

D when the coil has turned through 360°

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37 The scattering of α-particles by a thin metal foil supports the nuclear model of an atom.

Why are α-particles used rather than neutrons?

A because they always travel more slowly


B because they are heavier
C because they are larger in diameter
D because they have a positive charge

38 A nucleus of a radioactive substance 218


84 Po undergoes an α-decay followed by a β-decay.

What are the nucleon (mass) number and proton (atomic) number of the nuclide formed after
both decays have happened?

nucleon number proton number

A 214 85
B 216 85
C 214 83
D 216 83

39 A scientist carries out an experiment using a sealed source which emits β-particles. The range of
the β-particles in the air is about 30 cm.

Which precaution is the most effective to protect the scientist from the radiation?

A handling the source with long tongs


B keeping the temperature of the source low
C opening all windows in the laboratory
D washing his hands before leaving the laboratory

40 Which row describes the nature of α-particles and of γ-rays?

α-particles γ-rays

A helium nuclei electromagnetic radiation


B helium nuclei electrons
C protons electromagnetic radiation
D protons electrons

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9170531728*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB16 06_0625_21/2RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over
www.dynamicpapers.com
2

1 The diagram shows an enlarged drawing of the end of a metre rule. It is being used to measure
the length of a small feather.

10 20 30
mm
cm 1 2 3

What is the length of the feather?

A 19 mm B 29 mm C 19 cm D 29 cm

2 The speed-time graph shown is for a car moving in a straight line.

15
speed
m/s

10

0
0 20 40 60 80
time / s

What is the acceleration of the car when the time is 40 s?

A 0 m / s2 B 15 − 3 m / s2 C 15 m / s2 D (15 – 3) m / s2
40 40

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3

3 Two runners take part in a race.

The graph shows how the speed of each runner changes with time.

runner 1
speed
runner 2

0
0 t time

What does the graph show about the runners at time t ?

A Both runners are moving at the same speed.


B Runner 1 has zero acceleration.
C Runner 1 is overtaking runner 2.
D Runner 2 is slowing down.

4 A satellite orbits the Earth above the atmosphere at a constant speed.

The diagram shows the satellite at one point in its circular orbit around the Earth.

Which labelled arrow shows the direction of the resultant force on the satellite at the position
shown?

direction of rotation
of satellite

D B
Earth
satellite
C

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4

5 A cup contains hot liquid.

Some of the liquid evaporates.

What happens to the mass and what happens to the weight of the liquid in the cup?

mass weight

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C stays the same decreases
D stays the same stays the same

6 The diagrams show three uniform beams P, Q and R, each pivoted at its centre.

The two forces acting on each beam are also shown.

2.0 m 1.0 m
P

4.0 N 4.0 N

4.0 m 2.0 m
Q

2.0 N 5.0 N

2.0 m 4.0 m
R

1.5 N 1.0 N

Which beams rotate clockwise?

A P and Q only
B P and R only
C Q and R only
D P, Q and R

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5

7 An object of mass 50 kg accelerates from a velocity of 2.0 m / s to a velocity of 10 m / s in the same


direction.

What is the impulse provided to cause this acceleration?

A 250 N s B 400 N s C 850 N s D 2500 N s

8 A scalar quantity has

A magnitude and direction.


B no magnitude and no direction.
C magnitude but no direction.
D direction but no magnitude.

9 Energy is released in some nuclear reactions.

Which nuclear reaction takes place in a nuclear power station, and which nuclear reaction takes
place in the Sun?

nuclear power
the Sun
station

A fission fission
B fission fusion
C fusion fission
D fusion fusion

10 A lorry of mass 4000 kg is travelling at a speed of 4.0 m / s.

A car has a mass of 1000 kg. The kinetic energy of the car is equal to the kinetic energy of the
lorry.

What is the speed of the car?

A 2.0 m / s B 4.0 m / s C 8.0 m / s D 16.0 m / s

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6

11 A force acts on an object and causes the object to move a certain distance, in the same direction
as the force.

Which row represents a situation in which the largest amount of work is done on the object by the
force?

force / N distance moved / m

A 2.0 40.0
B 10.0 2.0
C 20.0 6.0
D 100.0 1.0

12 A diver under water uses breathing apparatus at a depth where the pressure is 1.25 × 105 Pa.

A bubble of gas breathed out by the diver has a volume of 20 cm3 when it is released. The bubble
moves upwards to the surface of the water.

At the surface of the water, the atmospheric pressure is 1.00 × 105 Pa.

The temperature of the water is the same at all depths.

What is the volume of this bubble when it reaches the surface?

A 15 cm3 B 16 cm3 C 20 cm3 D 25 cm3

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7

13 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

mercury

X
Y
Z

The atmospheric pressure increases.

Which distance increases?

A VW B WY C XY D XZ

14 Which statement about evaporation is correct?

A Evaporation causes the temperature of the remaining liquid to decrease.


B Evaporation does not occur from a cold liquid near its freezing point.
C Evaporation does not occur from a dense liquid, such as mercury.
D Evaporation occurs from all parts of a liquid.

15 A beaker contains 0.500 kg of water at a temperature of 3.0 °C. The beaker is heated, and the
internal energy of the water increases by 21.0 kJ.

The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J / (kg °C).

What is the temperature of the water after it has been heated?

A 5.5 °C B 10.0 °C C 13.0 °C D 31.5 °C

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16 A substance loses thermal energy (heat) to the surroundings at a steady rate.

The graph shows how the temperature of the substance changes with time.

temperature
P

0
0 time

What could the portion PQ of the graph represent?

A gas condensing
B gas cooling
C liquid cooling
D liquid solidifying

17 A student wishes to check the upper and the lower fixed points on a Celsius scale thermometer.

–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 °C

She has four beakers P, Q, R and S.

Beaker P contains a mixture of ice and salt.


Beaker Q contains a mixture of ice and water.
Beaker R contains boiling salt solution.
Beaker S contains boiling water.

Which two beakers should she use to check the fixed points?

A P and R B P and S C Q and R D Q and S

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9

18 Two otherwise identical cars, one black and one white, are at the same initial temperature. The
cars are left in bright sunshine and their temperatures increase. During the night their
temperatures decrease.

Which car shows the greater rate of temperature increase and which car shows the greater rate
of temperature decrease?

greater rate of greater rate of


temperature temperature
increase decrease

A black black
B black white
C white black
D white white

19 A liquid is heated in a beaker.

liquid

heating

The density of the liquid changes as its temperature increases. This causes energy to be
transferred throughout the liquid.

How does the density change and what is this energy transfer process?

energy transfer
density
process

A decreases conduction
B decreases convection
C increases conduction
D increases convection

20 Sound waves of frequency 2.0 kHz travel through a substance at a speed of 800 m / s.

What is the wavelength of the waves?

A 0.40 m B 2.5 m C 400 m D 1600 m

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21 Which row shows the natures of light waves, sound waves and X-rays?

light waves sound waves X-rays

A longitudinal longitudinal transverse


B longitudinal transverse longitudinal
C transverse longitudinal transverse
D transverse transverse longitudinal

22 The diagram shows light travelling from air into glass.

Four angles v, w, x and y are shown.

normal
light

w
air v
glass y

Which formula is used to calculate the refractive index n of the glass?

sin v sin v sin w sin w


A n= B n= C n= D n=
sin y sin x sin y sin x

23 The diagram shows a converging lens forming an image of an object.

image object
Y

Which statement about the image is correct?

A It is real and can be seen by an eye at X.


B It is real and can be seen by an eye at Y.
C It is virtual and can be seen by an eye at X.
D It is virtual and can be seen by an eye at Y.

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11

24 A sound wave travels through air as a series of compressions and rarefactions.

Which row correctly compares the air pressure in a compression and the air pressure in a
rarefaction to the air pressure nearby where there is no sound wave?

air pressure in air pressure in


a compression a rarefaction

A higher higher
B higher lower
C lower higher
D lower lower

25 A sound wave has a certain amplitude and a certain frequency.

A second sound wave is quieter and lower in pitch than the first sound wave.

The second wave has

A a larger amplitude and a greater frequency.


B a larger amplitude and a smaller frequency.
C a smaller amplitude and a greater frequency.
D a smaller amplitude and a smaller frequency.

26 What is an electric field?

A a region around a wire carrying an electric current in which a compass needle experiences a
force
B a region in which an electric charge experiences a force
C a region in which an electric charge is attracted by the Earth’s gravity
D a region through which electromagnetic radiation is passing

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12

27 A negatively charged rod is held close to one side of a metal sphere. The other side of the sphere
is earthed.

Which diagram shows the distribution of charge on the metal sphere?

A B

– + –

– –– – – ––
– – – + –

C D

+ + +
+
– –– – –– +
– + + – +

28 A cell is connected to a lamp, as shown.

– +

A charge of 4.0 C flows through the lamp in 2.0 s.

What is the direction of the electron flow in the lamp and what is the current in the lamp?

direction of electron
current / A
flow in lamp

A from left to right 2.0


B from left to right 8.0
C from right to left 2.0
D from right to left 8.0

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13

29 The diagrams show four current-voltage graphs.

Which two graphs show the characteristics of an ohmic resistor and of a filament lamp?

W X Y Z

current current current current

0 0 0 0
0 voltage 0 voltage 0 voltage 0 voltage

ohmic filament
resistor lamp

A W Y
B X Y
C W Z
D X Z

30 The four circuits shown all include an a.c. power supply, two diodes and a lamp.

In which circuit is there a rectified current in the lamp?

A B

C D

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14

31 The diagram shows a combination of logic gates.

input P
(= 0) output X

input Q output Y
(= 1)

Input P is at a logic state 0 (low) and input Q is at a logic state 1 (high).

What are the logic states at output X and at output Y?

output X output Y

A 0 0
B 0 1
C 1 0
D 1 1

32 The diagram shows part of a circuit used to switch street lamps on and off automatically.

LDR

In the evening it gets dark.

Which row shows the effect on the resistance of the light-dependent resistor (LDR) and on the
potential difference (p.d.) across it?

resistance of LDR p.d. across LDR

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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15

33 A domestic circuit includes a 30 A fuse. This protects the wiring if there is too much current in the
circuit.

In which wire is the 30 A fuse positioned, and what does it do when it operates?

position operation

A live wire disconnects the circuit


B live wire reduces the current to 30 A
C neutral wire disconnects the circuit
D neutral wire reduces the current to 30 A

34 A strong electromagnet is used to attract pins.

current core

coil
pins

What happens when the current in the coil is halved?

A No pins are attracted.


B Some pins are attracted, but not as many.
C The same number of pins is attracted.
D More pins are attracted.

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16

35 The diagram shows a transformer.

input output
voltage voltage

primary coil secondary coil


800 turns 40 turns

The input voltage is 240 V.

What is the output voltage?

A 6.0 V B 12 V C 20 V D 40 V

36 The diagram shows a shaded area where the direction of a magnetic field is into the page.

A beam of β-particles enters the field as shown.

magnetic field
into the page

beam of
β-particles

In which direction is the beam of β-particles deflected as they enter the magnetic field?

A into the page


B out of the page
C down the page
D up the page

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17

37 The arrangement shown is used to check whether the flour inside a cardboard packet is above a
certain level. If it is above this level, the flour absorbs the radiation from the source so that it
doesn’t reach the detector.

radioactive
source detector

flour
cardboard
packet

Which type of radiation is suitable to use?

A α-particles only

B β-particles only

C either α-particles or β-particles

D γ-rays only

243
38 A nucleus of americium 95 Am emits an α-particle to form a nucleus of neptunium (Np).

Which equation represents this decay?


243 247 4
A 95 Am → 97 Np + 2α

243 243 0
B 95 Am → 96 Np + -1 α

243 243 0
C 95 Am → 94 Np + -1 α

243 239 4
D 95 Am → 93 Np + 2α

39 A certain element has several isotopes.

Which statement about these isotopes is correct?

A They must have different numbers of electrons orbiting their nuclei.


B They must have the same number of neutrons in their nuclei.
C They must have the same number of nucleons in their nuclei.
D They must have the same number of protons in their nuclei.

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18

40 A reading is taken every 10 minutes of the number of emissions per second from a radioactive
source. The table shows the readings.

number of
time / min emissions
per second

0 800
10 560
20 400
30 280
40 200
50 140
60 100

What is the half-life of the source?

A 10 min B 20 min C 40 min D 60 min

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19

BLANK PAGE

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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 0625/21/M/J/16


www.dynamicpapers.com

Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5762424157*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB16 06_0625_22/2RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over
www.dynamicpapers.com
2

1 The diagram shows an enlarged drawing of the end of a metre rule. It is being used to measure
the length of a small feather.

10 20 30
mm
cm 1 2 3

What is the length of the feather?

A 19 mm B 29 mm C 19 cm D 29 cm

2 A car travels along a straight road.

The speed-time graph for this journey is shown.

During which labelled part of the journey is the resultant force on the car zero?

speed

C
B
D

0
0 time

3 A large stone is dropped from a bridge into a river. Air resistance can be ignored.

Which row describes the acceleration and the speed of the stone as it falls?

acceleration speed of
of the stone the stone

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

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3

4 A cup contains hot liquid.

Some of the liquid evaporates.

What happens to the mass and what happens to the weight of the liquid in the cup?

mass weight

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C stays the same decreases
D stays the same stays the same

5 Below are four statements about acceleration.

Which statement is not correct?

A Acceleration always involves changing speed.


B Changing direction always involves acceleration.
C Changing speed always involves acceleration.
D Circular motion always involves acceleration.

6 The diagram shows a non-uniform beam of weight 120 N, pivoted at one end. The beam is kept in
equilibrium by force F.

20 cm 60 cm

pivot

centre of
mass of beam
weight F
120 N

What is the value of force F?

A 30 N B 40 N C 360 N D 480 N

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4

7 An object is acted upon by a 3 N force and by a 4 N force.

Each diagram shows the two forces.

Which diagram also shows the resultant X of these two forces?

A B C D

3N 3N 3N
X

4N 4N 4N X
X X 3N

4N

8 The engine of a car produces a driving force of 5000 N on the car. Resistive forces R also act on
the car, as shown.

R 5000 N

The car has a mass of 800 kg and an acceleration of 1.0 m / s2.

What is the value of R?

A 800 N B 4200 N C 5800 N D 8000 N

9 A stone of mass m is held at rest in water. The stone is released and falls vertically a distance h.
The stone reaches a speed v.

Some of the original energy of the stone is transferred to the water. As it falls, resistive forces
cause the temperature of the water and stone to increase.

Which expression gives the work done against the resistive forces?

A 1
2 mv 2

B mgh – 1
2 mv 2

C mgh

D mgh + 1
2 mv 2

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5

10 Which energy resource does not derive its energy from the Sun?

A geothermal
B hydroelectric
C oil
D waves

11 Some processes are more efficient than others.

Which expression gives the efficiency of a process?

total energy output


A × 100%
total energy input

useful energy output


B × 100%
total energy input

wasted energy output


C × 100%
total energy input

wasted energy output


D × 100%
useful energy output

12 A diver under water uses breathing apparatus at a depth where the pressure is 1.25 × 105 Pa.

A bubble of gas breathed out by the diver has a volume of 20 cm3 when it is released. The bubble
moves upwards to the surface of the water.

At the surface of the water, the atmospheric pressure is 1.00 × 105 Pa.

The temperature of the water is the same at all depths.

What is the volume of this bubble when it reaches the surface?

A 15 cm3 B 16 cm3 C 20 cm3 D 25 cm3

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6

13 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

mercury

X
Y
Z

The atmospheric pressure increases.

Which distance increases?

A VW B WY C XY D XZ

14 Which statement describes what happens as ice at 0 °C starts to melt to become water?

A Energy is absorbed and the temperature remains constant.


B Energy is absorbed and the temperature rises.
C Energy is released and the temperature remains constant.
D Energy is released and the temperature rises.

15 Smoke particles, illuminated by a bright light, are seen through a microscope. They move about
randomly.

What causes this motion?

A attraction between the smoke particles and the molecules of the air
B collisions between the smoke particles and the molecules of the air
C evaporation of the faster-moving smoke particles
D warming of the smoke particles by the lamp

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7

16 A liquid is at a temperature below its boiling point.

The liquid is then heated so that it becomes a gas at a temperature above its boiling point.

Which row correctly compares the liquid with the gas?

average distance average speed


between the particles of the particles

A greater in the liquid greater in the liquid


B greater in the liquid smaller in the liquid
C smaller in the liquid greater in the liquid
D smaller in the liquid smaller in the liquid

17 A beaker of liquid is left on a laboratory bench. There is an electric fan in the laboratory causing a
draught over the liquid.

The liquid evaporates.

Which row shows two changes that will both cause the liquid to evaporate more quickly?

change to
change to
surface area
speed of fan
of the liquid

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

18 Which processes occur in a metal to cause thermal conduction?

electron proton lattice


transfer transfer vibration

A ✓ ✓ ✓ key
B ✓ ✓  ✓= process occurs

C ✓  ✓ = process does not occur

D  ✓ ✓

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8

19 A wooden beam is painted part black and part white. The beam absorbs infra-red radiation from
the Sun during the day, and loses infra-red radiation to the surroundings at night.

wooden beam

Which part of the beam heats up more quickly during the day, and which part cools down more
quickly at night?

part heating up part cooling down


more quickly more quickly

A black black
B black white
C white black
D white white

20 5.0 g of water at 25 °C is dropped onto a large block of ice at 0 °C. The water cools to 0 °C and
some of the ice melts.

Assume that all the energy lost by the water is gained by the ice.

What is the mass of ice that melts?

The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J / (g °C).

The specific latent heat of fusion of ice is 340 J / g.

A 0.062 g B 0.087 g C 1.5 g D 10 g

21 The frequency of a wave is doubled. The speed of the wave does not change.

What happens to the wavelength of the wave?

A It becomes four times as large.


B It does not change.
C It doubles.
D It halves.

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9

22 Which row shows the natures of light waves, sound waves and X-rays?

light waves sound waves X-rays

A longitudinal longitudinal transverse


B longitudinal transverse longitudinal
C transverse longitudinal transverse
D transverse transverse longitudinal

23 The diagram shows light passing from air into glass.

air glass
NOT TO
SCALE
60°
30°
normal

The glass has a refractive index of 1.5.

What is the angle of refraction in the glass?

A 19° B 22° C 35° D 49°

24 Visible light has a frequency of approximately 5.0 × 1014 Hz.

M and N are two other types of electromagnetic radiation.

The frequency of M is 5.0 × 106 Hz.

The frequency of N is 5.0 × 1015 Hz.

Which types of radiation are M and N?

M N

A radio waves infra-red


B radio waves ultraviolet
C ultraviolet X-rays
D X-rays infra-red

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10

25 The diagram shows a converging lens forming an image of an object.

image object
Y

Which statement about the image is correct?

A It is real and can be seen by an eye at X.


B It is real and can be seen by an eye at Y.
C It is virtual and can be seen by an eye at X.
D It is virtual and can be seen by an eye at Y.

26 A small potential difference V is applied across a filament lamp. The current I in the lamp is
measured. V is increased in stages and I is measured at each stage.

Which graph shows the results obtained?

A B C D
I I I I

0 0 0 0
0 V 0 V 0 V 0 V

27 A resistor of resistance R is connected to a battery of e.m.f. V.

There is a current I in the resistor.

Power P is dissipated by the resistor, and in time t the energy transferred is E.

Which expression is correct?

V
A E = IVt B E = PIt C P = VIR D P=
R

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11

28 A wire has a certain electrical resistance.

The diameter and length of the wire may be changed.

Which pair of changes must cause the resistance of the wire to increase?

change of change of
diameter length

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

29 The four circuits shown all include an a.c. power supply, two diodes and a lamp.

In which circuit is there a rectified current in the lamp?

A B

C D

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12

30 P and Q are the circuit symbols for two electrical components.

P Q

Which components are represented by P and by Q?

P Q

A thermistor fuse
B thermistor relay
C variable resistor fuse
D variable resistor relay

31 The diagram shows a combination of logic gates.

input P
(= 0) output X

input Q output Y
(= 1)

Input P is at a logic state 0 (low) and input Q is at a logic state 1 (high).

What are the logic states at output X and at output Y?

output X output Y

A 0 0
B 0 1
C 1 0
D 1 1

© UCLES 2016 0625/22/M/J/16


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13

32 The diagram shows part of a circuit used to switch street lamps on and off automatically.

LDR

In the evening it gets dark.

Which row shows the effect on the resistance of the light-dependent resistor (LDR) and on the
potential difference (p.d.) across it?

resistance of LDR p.d. across LDR

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

33 A domestic circuit includes a 30 A fuse. This protects the wiring if there is too much current in the
circuit.

In which wire is the 30 A fuse positioned, and what does it do when it operates?

position operation

A live wire disconnects the circuit


B live wire reduces the current to 30 A
C neutral wire disconnects the circuit
D neutral wire reduces the current to 30 A

© UCLES 2016 0625/22/M/J/16 [Turn over


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14

34 A strong electromagnet is used to attract pins.

current core

coil
pins

What happens when the current in the coil is halved?

A No pins are attracted.


B Some pins are attracted, but not as many.
C The same number of pins is attracted.
D More pins are attracted.

35 The diagram shows a transformer.

input output
voltage voltage

primary coil secondary coil


800 turns 40 turns

The input voltage is 240 V.

What is the output voltage?

A 6.0 V B 12 V C 20 V D 40 V

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15

36 The diagram shows a shaded area where the direction of a magnetic field is into the page.

A beam of β-particles enters the field as shown.

magnetic field
into the page

beam of
β-particles

In which direction is the beam of β-particles deflected as they enter the magnetic field?

A into the page


B out of the page
C down the page
D up the page

37 A very important experiment increased scientists’ understanding of the structure of matter.

In the experiment, particles scattered as they passed through a thin metal foil.

Which particles were used, and to which conclusion did the experiment lead?

particles conclusion

A alpha particles matter is made up of atoms


B alpha particles atoms have a very small nucleus
C beta particles matter is made up of atoms
D beta particles atoms have a very small nucleus

38 Below are the symbols for five different nuclides.

35 37 38 81 81
17 X 17 X 18X 35 X 37 X
nuclide 1 nuclide 2 nuclide 3 nuclide 4 nuclide 5

Which two nuclides are isotopes of the same element?

A nuclide 1 and nuclide 2


B nuclide 2 and nuclide 3
C nuclide 2 and nuclide 5
D nuclide 4 and nuclide 5

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16

39 A radioactive decay can be represented as shown.

233 233
91 Pa → 92 U

The equation is incomplete.

In this decay, the nucleus changes by

A absorbing a neutron.
B absorbing a proton.

C emitting an α-particle.

D emitting a β-particle.

40 The graph shows how the decay rate of a radioactive source changes with time.

4000
decay rate
3000
decays / s

2000

1000

0
0 2 4 6 8 10
time / days

What will be the decay rate at 8 days?

A 0 decays / s
B 125 decays / s
C 250 decays / s
D 500 decays / s

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 0625/22/M/J/16


www.dynamicpapers.com

Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5649030721*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB16 11_0625_23/6RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over
www.dynamicpapers.com
2

1 The graph shows how the distance travelled by a vehicle changes with time.

S
distance
Q R

P
0
0 time

Which row describes the speed of the vehicle in each section of the graph?

P to Q Q to R R to S

A constant zero constant


B constant zero decreasing
C increasing constant decreasing
D increasing zero constant

2 A stone falls freely from the top of a cliff. Air resistance may be ignored.

Which graph shows how the acceleration of the stone varies with time as it falls?

A B

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 time 0 time

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/O/N/16


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3

3 The speed-time graph for an object is shown.

speed X Y
10
m/s

W
Z
0
0 10 30 50
time / s

Below are four statements about the acceleration of the object.

Which statement is true?

A The acceleration in the first 10 s is (10 ÷ 10) m / s2.


B The acceleration increases between W and X.
C The acceleration decreases between Y and Z.

D The deceleration between Y and Z is (10 ÷ 50) m / s2.

4 An astronaut on the Moon weighs less than on Earth.

What is the reason for this difference, and how does his mass on the Moon compare with his
mass on Earth?

reason for weight difference mass on Moon


the Moon has a weaker
A less than on Earth
gravitational field
the Moon has a weaker
B same as on Earth
gravitational field
the Moon has a weaker
C less than on Earth
magnetic field
the Moon has a weaker
D same as on Earth
magnetic field

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4

5 The diagrams show an empty container, and the same container filled with liquid.

The empty container has a mass of 120 g. When filled with the liquid, the total mass of the
container and the liquid is 600 g.

empty container container filled with liquid


120 g 600 g

The volume of liquid in the container is 600 cm3.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.020 g / cm3 B 0.80 g / cm3 C 1.0 g / cm3 D 1.2 g / cm3

6 An object travels in a circular path at constant speed.

Which statement about the object is correct?

A It has changing kinetic energy.


B It has changing momentum.
C It has constant velocity.
D It is not accelerating.

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/O/N/16


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5

7 Different loads are hung on a spring. The diagram shows the length of the spring with and without
the loads attached.

20 cm

40 cm

65 cm

200 N

400 N

What is the extension of the spring when the load is 400 N?

A 5 cm B 25 cm C 40 cm D 45 cm

8 A vehicle of mass 900 kg is travelling with a velocity of 20 m / s.

What is the momentum of the vehicle?

A 45 kg m / s B 450 kg m / s C 18 000 kg m / s D 180 000 kg m / s

9 Which list contains only scalar quantities?

A acceleration, energy, force, mass


B acceleration, force, momentum, velocity
C distance, energy, mass, speed
D distance, momentum, speed, velocity

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6

10 A ball is dropped onto a floor.

Its speed just before hitting the floor is 3.0 m / s.

Which change would result in a speed of 6.0 m / s just before hitting the floor?

Ignore any effects due to air resistance.

A Drop the ball from double the height above the floor.
B Drop the ball from four times the height above the floor.
C Use a ball with double the mass.
D Use a ball with four times the mass.

11 Which list contains only energy resources that derive their energy from the Sun?

A geothermal, nuclear, tidal


B hydroelectric, water waves, wind
C geothermal, hydroelectric, solar
D nuclear, solar, water waves

12 A lamp has a power input of 5.0 W. It wastes 1.0 W of power heating the surroundings.

What is the efficiency of the lamp?

A 20% B 50% C 80% D 120%

13 A container is filled with liquid to a certain depth h.

container
h
liquid

The pressure of the liquid at the bottom of the container depends on several factors.

Which is one factor on which the pressure does not depend?

A the strength of the Earth’s gravitational field


B the density of the liquid
C the depth of the liquid
D the strength of the Earth’s magnetic field

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/O/N/16


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7

14 Which diagram best represents the movement of a smoke particle displaying Brownian motion?

A B

smoke smoke
particle particle

C D

smoke
particle

smoke
particle

15 The volume of a gas is measured at different pressures.

The pressure p and the volume V of the gas are found to be related by the equation:

pV = constant.

Which quantities are kept constant and which quantities change?

density of gas mass of gas temperature of gas

A    key
B    = constant
C    = changed
D   

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/O/N/16 [Turn over


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8

16 A piece of melting ice at 0 °C and a beaker of boiling water are both in a laboratory. The
laboratory is at 20 °C.

boiling water

melting ice
Bunsen burner
heating water

What is happening to the temperature of the melting ice and what is happening to the
temperature of the boiling water?

temperature of temperature of
melting ice boiling water

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

17 A scientist has two thermometers available: a liquid-in-glass thermometer and a thermocouple


thermometer.

Which thermometer is better for measuring a very high temperature, and which thermometer is
better for measuring a rapidly varying temperature?

very high temperature rapidly varying temperature

A liquid-in-glass liquid-in-glass
B liquid-in-glass thermocouple
C thermocouple liquid-in-glass
D thermocouple thermocouple

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9

18 A copper container of mass 0.20 kg contains 0.10 kg of water.

The specific heat capacity of copper is 385 J / (kg °C) and the specific heat capacity of water
is 4200 J / (kg °C).

How much energy, in joules, is needed to raise the temperature of the copper container and the
water by 10 °C?

A (0.20 × 385 × 10) – (0.10 × 4200 × 10)

B (0.20 × 385 × 10) + (0.10 × 4200 × 10)


 4200 + 385 
C (0.10 + 0.20) ×   × 10
 2 
D (0.10 + 0.20) × (4200 + 385) × 10

19 The diagrams show four spherical objects of the same size. Two of the objects are white and two
are black. Two of the objects are at the same high temperature and two are at the same low
temperature.

Which object emits infra-red radiation at the greatest rate?

A B C D

high high low low


temperature temperature temperature temperature

20 A man is talking at the side of a house. He can be heard by a woman at the front of the house
even though she cannot see him.

What is the explanation for this?

A Sound waves are longitudinal and light waves are transverse.


B Sound waves are transverse and light waves are longitudinal.
C The sound waves have a long wavelength and the light waves have short wavelength.
D The sound waves have a short wavelength and the light waves have long wavelength.

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10

21 An image is formed by a plane mirror. A second image is formed by a lens used as a magnifying
glass.

Which row states the nature of each of these images?

plane mirror magnifying glass

A real real
B real virtual
C virtual real
D virtual virtual

22 The speed of light in air is 3.0 × 108 m / s.

The critical angle for light in a transparent plastic material placed in air is 37°.

What is the speed of light in the plastic material?

A 1.8 × 108 m / s

B 2.4 × 108 m / s

C 3.8 × 108 m / s

D 5.0 × 108 m / s

23 Which description applies to infra-red radiation?

A longitudinal and electromagnetic


B longitudinal but not electromagnetic
C transverse and electromagnetic
D transverse but not electromagnetic

24 A girl notices that, when she shouts into a cave, she hears an echo.

Which wave property causes the echo?

A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D refraction

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11

25 A man stands 110 m from a high wall. He makes a short, sharp sound and then hears an echo
from the wall.

The speed of sound in air is 330 m / s.

How long after making the sound does the man hear the echo?

A 0.33 s B 0.67 s C 1.5 s D 3.0 s

26 A student suggests three methods for demagnetising a piece of steel.

1 placing it in an east-west direction and hammering it hard


2 placing it in an east-west direction and heating it until red hot
3 removing it slowly from a coil carrying alternating current

Which of the methods will demagnetise the piece of steel?

A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

27 In two separate experiments, a magnet is brought near to an unmagnetised iron bar. This causes
the bar to become magnetised.

experiment 1 N magnet S X iron bar

experiment 2 S magnet N iron bar Y

Which magnetic pole is induced at X and at Y?

pole induced at X pole induced at Y

A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

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12

28 A student holds a rod in his hand.

cloth

hand
rod

He rubs the rod with a cloth. The rod gains a positive charge.

Of which material could the rod be made, and which transfer of charge has happened?

material of rod transfer of charge

A metal negative charge from rod to cloth


B metal positive charge from cloth to rod
C plastic negative charge from rod to cloth
D plastic positive charge from cloth to rod

29 The diagram shows a lamp in a circuit.

Which change to the circuit would increase the current in the lamp?

A adding another resistor in parallel with the one in the circuit


B adding another resistor in series with the one in the circuit
C decreasing the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery in the circuit
D moving the lamp to point P in the circuit

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13

30 The graph shows the relationship between the current in a circuit component and the potential
difference (p.d.) across it. The graph has a straight section and a curved section.

current

0
0 p.d.

What happens to the resistance of the component in these two sections as the current increases?

straight section curved section

A resistance increases resistance decreases


B resistance increases resistance increases
C no change in resistance resistance decreases
D no change in resistance resistance increases

31 In the circuit shown there is a current of 10 A.

How much charge passes through the resistor in 2.0 minutes?

A 0.083 C B 5C C 20 C D 1200 C

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/O/N/16 [Turn over


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14

32 The four circuits shown each contain four diodes.

In which circuit is the direction of the current in the resistor always from the red terminal to the
black terminal?

A B

12 V 12 V

red black red black


terminal terminal terminal terminal

C D

12 V 12 V

red black red black


terminal terminal terminal terminal

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/O/N/16


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15

33 The diagram shows a potential divider.

6V

0V

When brighter light falls on the light-dependent resistor (LDR), its resistance changes.

What happens to the resistance of the LDR and what happens to the current in it?

resistance of LDR current in LDR

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

34 The diagram shows two logic gates connected together.

low (0) P Q
low (0)

The two inputs are both low (0).

What are the logic states at P and at Q?

P Q

A high (1) high (1)


B high (1) low (0)
C low (0) high (1)
D low (0) low (0)

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/O/N/16 [Turn over


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16

35 Two electrical appliances are connected to the mains supply.

The cable connected to one appliance includes an earth wire.

The cable connected to the second appliance does not need an earth wire.

What is a reason for this difference?

A One appliance has a metal case, but the other appliance does not.
B One appliance is fitted with a fuse, but the other appliance is not.
C One appliance is fitted with a switch, but the other appliance is not.
D One appliance needs more current than the other appliance.

36 An electric current can produce a heating effect and a magnetic effect.

Which row shows the effect that a relay uses and one application of a relay?

effect used by a relay one application of a relay

A heating effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current


B heating effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply
C magnetic effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current
D magnetic effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply

37 Which particle is absorbed by a nucleus to cause nuclear fission?

A a neutron
B a proton

C an α-particle

D a β-particle

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17

38 An α-particle enters a uniform magnetic field directed out of the page.

uniform
magnetic field
out of the page

α-particle

In which direction is the α-particle deflected by the field?

A into the page


B out of the page
C to the left
D to the right

39 Radioactive source S emits α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays. A detector is placed 5 cm away
from S. A thin sheet of paper is placed as shown in the diagram.

thin sheet of paper

S detector

5 cm

Which emissions from the source can be detected?

A α-particles and β-particles only

B α-particles and γ-rays only

C β-particles and γ-rays only

D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/O/N/16 [Turn over


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18

40 Uranium-238 is radioactive and decays to thorium-234 by the emission of a particle.

238
92 U → 234
90 Th + particle

Which particle is emitted in this process?

A an α-particle

B a β-particle
C a neutron
D a proton

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/O/N/16


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19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/O/N/16


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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/O/N/16


www.dynamicpapers.com

Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9900917881*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB17 03_0625_22/4RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over
www.dynamicpapers.com
2

1 The diagram shows the height of a stack of identical coins.

stack of
coins
2.40 cm

What is the thickness of one coin?

A 0.20 mm B 2.0 mm C 0.24 cm D 2.0 cm

2 Four balls with different masses are dropped from the heights shown.

P Q R S
1.0 kg

2.0 kg

3.0 kg
4.0 m
4.0 kg
3.0 m
2.0 m
1.0 m ground

Air resistance may be ignored.

Which statement about the balls is correct?

A Ball P has the greatest acceleration.


B Balls Q and R take the same time to fall to the ground.
C The acceleration of ball R is half the acceleration of ball P.
D Ball S has the greatest average speed.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17


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3

3 An object is travelling in a straight line. The diagram is the speed-time graph for the object.

At which labelled point is the object accelerating at a changing rate?

C
speed
m/s
B

D
A

0
0 time / s

4 Which statement about the masses and weights of objects on the Earth is correct?

A A balance can only be used to compare weights, not masses.


B Heavy objects always have more mass than light ones.
C Large objects always have more mass than small ones.
D Mass is a force but weight is not.

5 An object in a space probe above the Earth weighs 3.5 N. The gravitational field strength at the
height of the space probe is 7.0 N / kg.

The gravitational field strength on the Earth’s surface is 10 N / kg.

What are the mass and the weight of the object on the Earth’s surface?

mass / kg weight / N

A 0.50 3.5
B 0.50 5.0
C 2.0 3.5
D 2.0 20

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17 [Turn over


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4

6 A skydiver jumps from a stationary helicopter and reaches a steady vertical speed. She then
opens her parachute.

Which statement about the falling skydiver is correct?

A As her parachute opens, her acceleration is upwards.


B As she falls at a steady speed with her parachute open, her weight is zero.
C When she accelerates, the resultant force on her is zero.
D When she falls at a steady speed, air resistance is zero.

7 A car moves in a circular path as it turns a corner on a horizontal road.

The car moves at constant speed.

path of car
car

direction
of travel

Which description of the forces acting on the car is correct?

A All the forces are balanced as the car is moving at constant speed.
B The forces are unbalanced and the resultant force acts away from the centre of the circle.
C The forces are unbalanced and the resultant force acts towards the centre of the circle.
D The forces are unbalanced and the resultant force is in the direction of travel of the car.

8 A moving body undergoes a change of momentum.

What is a unit for change of momentum?

A Nm B N/m C Ns D N/s

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5

9 A man can either take an escalator or a lift to travel up between two floors in a hotel.

escalator lift

The escalator takes 20 seconds to carry the man between the two floors. The useful work done
against gravity is W. The useful power developed is P.

The lift takes 30 seconds to carry the same man between the same two floors.

How much useful work against gravity is done by the lift, and how much useful power is
developed by the lift?

useful work
useful power
done against
developed by lift
gravity by lift

A more than W less than P


B more than W P
C W less than P
D W P

10 A 40 W lamp wastes 34 J of energy every second by heating its surroundings.

What is the efficiency of the lamp?

A 0.15% B 15% C 18% D 85%

11 A column of liquid has height h, mass m and density ρ. The gravitational field strength is g.

Which expression gives the pressure due to the column of liquid?

A hρ B mρ C mgh D ρ gh

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6

12 The diagrams show two mercury barometers. The right-hand diagram shows a tube of larger
diameter. There is a vacuum above the mercury in both tubes.

Which labelled position on the right-hand tube shows the mercury level in the right-hand tube?

A
B
C

glass
tubes

D
mercury

13 Very small pollen grains are suspended in water. A bright light shines from the side.

When looked at through a microscope, small specks of light are seen to be moving in a random,
jerky manner.

eye

microscope

bright light

pollen grains
in water

What are the moving specks of light?

A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains


B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17


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7

14 At –39 °C, liquid mercury solidifies without a change of temperature.

Which row shows whether the mercury absorbs or releases energy and what happens to the
bonds between the mercury atoms?

bonds between
energy
atoms

A absorbed stronger
B absorbed weaker
C released stronger
D released weaker

15 A model thermometer consists of a flask of coloured water and a stopper with a glass tube
passing through it, as shown.

glass tube
temperature scale

stopper

flask coloured water

The model thermometer can be changed in one of two ways.

● The flask can be replaced with a larger one full of coloured water.
● The glass tube can be replaced with one with a larger internal diameter.

Which statement is correct?

A Only using a larger flask increases the sensitivity.


B Only using a wider tube increases the sensitivity.
C Using a larger flask increases the sensitivity and using a wider tube increases the sensitivity.
D Neither using a larger flask nor using a wider tube increases the sensitivity.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17 [Turn over


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8

16 A metal has a specific heat capacity of 360 J / (kg °C). An object made of this metal has a mass of
2.0 kg.

What is the thermal capacity (heat capacity) of the object?

A 180 J / °C B 180 J / kg C 720 J / °C D 720 J / kg

17 In which type of substance are free electrons involved in the transfer of thermal energy?

A all liquids
B all solids
C metals only
D plastics only

18 Four objects, made of the same material and having the same mass, are at the same
temperature. The objects have different surfaces and different surface areas.

Which object emits infra-red radiation at the greatest rate?

surface surface area

A dull large
B dull small
C shiny large
D shiny small

19 A person uses a surfboard to ride every 30th wave crest towards the beach. The wave crest
travels at a speed of 1.6 m / s and the distance between each wave crest is 24 m.

How many wave crests does the person surf in one hour?

A 1 B 2 C 8 D 450

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9

20 In a shallow tank, a water wave moves towards a barrier with a narrow gap.

barrier

water
wave

Which diagram shows the wave beyond the barrier?

A B

C D

21 Light passes along an optical fibre.

What happens to the light within the fibre?

A diffraction
B dispersion
C refraction
D total internal reflection

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17 [Turn over


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10

22 The points labelled F are the principal foci of a lens. A beam of parallel light is incident on the
lens.

Which diagram shows the path of the light after it passes through the lens?

A
F F

B
F F

C
F F

D
F F

23 Which statement about sound waves is correct?

A They are able to travel through a vacuum.


B They are able to travel through solids.
C They are transverse waves.
D They travel at the same speed in all substances.

24 Which statement about ultrasound is correct?

A It is produced by a rapidly vibrating source.


B It is uncomfortable to human ears.
C Its frequency must be greater than 300 kHz.
D It travels the fastest in a vacuum.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17


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11

25 A small compass is placed close to a strong bar magnet, the same distance from each end.

Which diagram shows the direction in which the compass needle points?

A B C D

N N N N
compass compass compass compass

S S S S

26 A bar magnet can be demagnetised by hammering it for a long time or by slowly removing it from
a coil connected to a power supply.

Which row completes the descriptions of how these processes are carried out?

hammering bar magnet slowly removing bar magnet


for a long time with from a coil connected to

A magnet aligned E-W a d.c. power supply


B magnet aligned E-W an a.c. power supply
C magnet aligned N-S a d.c. power supply
D magnet aligned N-S an a.c. power supply

27 Which particles move in a metal to cause an electric current?

A electrons
B neutrons
C nucleons
D protons

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17 [Turn over


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12

28 The diagrams represent four copper wires.

Which wire has the greatest resistance?

A B C D

20 mm 20 mm
10 mm 10 mm

1 mm 2 mm 1 mm 2 mm

29 An air-conditioning unit, a lamp and an electric fire all receive electrical energy from the mains
supply.

From which of these devices is all this energy eventually transferred to the surroundings?

air-
electric
conditioning lamp
fire
unit

A ✓ ✓ ✓ key
B ✓ ✗ ✓ ✓= all energy transferred to surroundings
C ✗ ✓ ✓ ✗= not all energy transferred to surroundings
D ✗ ✗ ✓

30 Four circuits are set up.

In which circuit does the ammeter show the greatest reading?

A B C D

12 V 12 V 12 V 12 V

A A A A
2.0 Ω 2.0 Ω 2.0 Ω 2.0 Ω

3.0 Ω 3.0 Ω 3.0 Ω 3.0 Ω

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17


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13

31 The diagram shows an electric circuit.

The light falling on the light-dependent resistor (LDR) increases in brightness.

What happens to the resistance of the LDR, the current in the fixed resistor and the reading on
the voltmeter?

resistance of current in reading on


LDR fixed resistor voltmeter

A decreases increases decreases


B decreases increases increases
C increases decreases decreases
D increases decreases increases

32 The diagram shows two linked circuits to control when a bell is switched on.

The conditions are altered and only one pair of conditions causes the bell to ring.

Which pair causes the bell to ring?

A bright light and high temperature


B bright light and low temperature
C dim light and high temperature
D dim light and low temperature

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17 [Turn over


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14

33 The truth table for a logic gate is shown.

input 1 input 2 output

0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0

Which type of logic gate is it?

A AND B NOR C NOT D OR

34 In this circuit, a component at X automatically protects the wiring from overheating if there is a
fault.

electrical supply

Which row indicates components that are suitable?

circuit
fuse switch
breaker

A ✓ ✓ ✓ key
B ✓ ✓ ✗ ✓= suitable
C ✓ ✗ ✓ ✗= not suitable
D ✗ ✓ ✗

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17


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15

35 The diagram shows a simple transformer with an input of 240 V and an output of 40 V.

There are 600 turns on the primary coil.

primary coil secondary coil

600
input 240 V 40 V output
turns

How many turns are there on the secondary coil?

A 100 B 320 C 400 D 3600

36 The diagram shows a current-carrying wire. The wire is at 90° to a magnetic field. The direction of
the magnetic field is into the page.

current magnetic field


into the page
wire

A force acts on the wire due to the current and the magnetic field.

In which direction does the force act?

A into the page


B out of the page
C towards the bottom of the diagram
D towards the top of the diagram

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17 [Turn over


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16

37 A radioactive substance emits radiation at a rate of 600 emissions per second. Four hours later, it
emits radiation at a rate of 300 emissions per second.

What is the half-life of the substance and what is the rate of emission after a further four hours?

rate of emission after


half-life / hours a further four hours
/ emissions per second

A 2 0
B 2 150
C 4 0
D 4 150

109
38 The nuclide notation for an isotope of silver is 47 Ag .

How many nucleons are in a nucleus of this isotope?

A 47 B 62 C 109 D 156

39 The equation represents an isotope of radium Ra decaying to an isotope of radon Rn with the
emission of particle X.

226 222
88 Ra → 86 Rn +X

What is particle X?
0 1 4 1
A −1 e B 1H C 2 He D 0n

40 An atomic nucleus decays by one or more radioactive decay processes.

What causes the proton number to decrease by 1?

A α-decay followed by β-decay

B α-decay only

C β-decay followed by γ-decay

D β-decay only

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17


www.dynamicpapers.com

Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*3182427838*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB17 06_0625_23_VI_YEL/FP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over
www.dynamicpapers.com

1 What is the most accurate and precise method to measure the thickness of a coin?

A Use a micrometer screw gauge.


B Use a ruler and look at the scale perpendicularly.
C Use a top pan balance.
D Use the displacement method with water in a measuring cylinder.

2 A pendulum is swinging. Five students each measure the time it takes to swing through ten
complete swings.

Three students measure the time as 17.2 s. Another student measures it as 16.9 s, and the fifth
student measures it as 17.0 s.

What is the average period of the pendulum?

A 1.69 s B 1.70 s C 1.71 s D 1.72 s

3 Which distance-time graph represents a body whose speed is decreasing?

A B

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/M/J/17


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4 What are the units for mass, pressure and velocity?

mass pressure velocity

A kg Ns Pa
B kg Pa m/s
C Ns Pa m/s
D Pa Ns m/s

5 A steel ball bearing has a mass of 24 g and a density of 8.0 g / cm3. It is lowered into a measuring
cylinder containing 12 cm3 of water.

What is the new water level in the cylinder?

A 3.0 cm3 B 4.0 cm3 C 15 cm3 D 16 cm3

6 The diagram shows an object being acted upon by two forces.

6.0 N 3.0 N

What is the size of the resultant force on the object?

A 2.0 N B 3.0 N C 9.0 N D 18 N

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/M/J/17 [Turn over


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7 The diagram shows a man holding a sack and barrow stationary. He applies a vertical force to
the handle.

The centre of mass and the weight of the sack and barrow are shown. The wheel acts as a pivot.

force
exerted
by man

centre of mass
of sack and barrow

20 cm
80 cm

15 cm 45 cm

weight of
sack and barrow
200 N

What is the magnitude of the vertical force exerted by the man?

A 38 N B 50 N C 67 N D 200 N

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/M/J/17


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8 The diagram shows the only two forces F1 and F2 acting on an object. The magnitude of each
force is represented by the length of each arrow.

F1

110°

F2

The resultant force acting on the object is R.

Which vector diagram shows how forces F1 and F2 add to produce R?

A B

F1 R

F2
110° R 70°
F1
F2

C D

F1 R

F2
110° R 70°
F1
F2

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/M/J/17 [Turn over


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9 The diagrams show four bodies moving in the directions shown. The only forces acting on the
bodies are shown in each diagram.

Which body gains the most kinetic energy when moving a distance of 1.0 m?

A B

20 N

movement movement

10 N 10 N

C D

10 N 25 N 30 N 30 N

movement movement

10 A steel ball is fired vertically upwards with a velocity v. The ball reaches a height h.

The same ball is now fired vertically upwards from the same position with a velocity 2v.

Air resistance can be ignored.

What is the new height reached by the ball?

A h B 2h C 4h D 8h

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/M/J/17


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11 A solar panel is used to recharge a battery. The solar panel produces 0.80 W of electrical power.
The panel is 20% efficient.

solar panel

sunlight

power to
battery
0.80 W

What is the power input of the sunlight onto the solar panel?

A 0.16 W B 4.0 W C 8.0 W D 16 W

12 The diagrams show four different athletes training by doing pull-ups.

Which athlete does the most work?

A B C D

weight of weight of weight of weight of


athlete = 700 N athlete = 700 N athlete = 800 N athlete = 800 N

distance distance distance distance


lifted = 0.50 m lifted = 0.55 m lifted = 0.50 m lifted = 0.55 m

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/M/J/17 [Turn over


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13 Four different liquids are poured into four containers.

The diagrams show the depth and the density of liquid in each container.

In which container is the pressure on its base the greatest?

A B C D

40 cm
30 cm
20 cm
10 cm

liquid density liquid density liquid density liquid density


= 3.1 g / cm3 = 1.2 g / cm3 = 1.3 g / cm3 = 0.8 g / cm3

14 Brownian motion is observed when using a microscope to look at smoke particles in air.

What causes the smoke particles to move at random?

A Smoke particles are hit by air molecules.


B Smoke particles are moved by convection currents in the air.
C Smoke particles have different weights and fall at different speeds.
D Smoke particles hit the walls of the container.

15 The diagrams show four open dishes. Each dish contains water at the same temperature.

The dishes are different shapes and a draught blows over two of them.

From which container does the water evaporate at the greatest rate?

A B C D
draught

draught

no draught no draught

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/M/J/17


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16 Equal masses of two different liquids are put into identical beakers.

Liquid 1 is heated for 100 s and liquid 2 is heated for 200 s by heaters of the same power.

Each liquid has the same rise in temperature.

different liquids
of same mass
liquid 1 liquid 2

heating time = 100 s heating time = 200 s

Which statement is correct?

A Each beaker of liquid has the same thermal capacity.


B Each beaker of liquid receives the same energy.
C Liquid 1 receives more energy than liquid 2.
D The thermal capacity of liquid 1 is less than the thermal capacity of liquid 2.

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/M/J/17 [Turn over


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10

17 A block of ice at –20 °C is heated until it turns to steam. The graph of temperature against thermal
energy absorbed is shown.

The latent heat of fusion of ice is 340 kJ / kg.

temperature 100
°C 80
60
40
20
0
–20
0 200 400 600 800 1000 1200 1400 1600 1800 2000 2200 2400 2600

126 kJ 1146 kJ thermal energy 2406 kJ


absorbed / kJ

What is the mass of the ice?

A 1.0 kg B 2.0 kg C 3.0 kg D 4.0 kg

18 A copper bar and a wooden bar are joined. A piece of paper is wrapped tightly around the join.

The bar is heated strongly at the centre for a short time, and the paper goes brown on one side
only.

wood paper copper

heat

Which side goes brown, and what does this show about wood and copper?

brown side wood copper

A copper conductor insulator


B copper insulator conductor
C wood conductor insulator
D wood insulator conductor

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/M/J/17


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11

19 Different waves hit barriers with different sized gaps.

The waves will diffract.

In which diagram does the greatest spreading occur?

A B
barrier barrier

gap 2.0 cm gap 2.0 cm

wavelength
wavelength 2.0 cm
1.0 cm

C D
barrier barrier

gap 3.0 cm gap 3.0 cm

wavelength
wavelength 2.0 cm
1.0 cm

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/M/J/17 [Turn over


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12

20 A converging lens is used to make an image on a screen.

screen
converging
lens

image
formed
candle here

What type of image is formed on the screen?

A real and inverted


B real and upright
C virtual and inverted
D virtual and upright

21 Which diagram shows what happens when a ray of white light passes through a prism?

A B

spectrum
white white
light light
spectrum

C D
spectrum

white white
light light spectrum

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13

22 Light travels in a vacuum and then enters a glass block. The speed of the light in the glass block
is 2.0 × 108 m / s.

Which statement about the speed of light is correct?

A The speed in a vacuum is 1.5 times the speed in the glass.


B The speed in the glass is the same as the speed in a vacuum.
C The speed in the glass is 1.5 times the speed in a vacuum.

D The speed in the glass is 1.0 × 108 times the speed in a vacuum.

23 A fire alarm is not loud enough and the pitch is too low. An engineer adjusts the alarm so that it
produces a louder note of a higher pitch.

What effect does this have on the amplitude and on the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A larger greater
B larger smaller
C smaller greater
D smaller smaller

24 In which way are a bar magnet and an electromagnet similar?

A A bar magnet and an electromagnet are always magnetised when stored.


B A bar magnet and an electromagnet can both be used to separate magnetic and
non-magnetic materials.
C A bar magnet can be made of steel and an electromagnet uses a steel core.
D The magnetic field strength of a bar magnet and of an electromagnet can both be varied.

25 A magnet near a coil of wire is attracted to the coil only when there is a current in the coil.

Which statement explains this force of attraction?

A The coil of wire has its own gravitational field.


B The coil of wire is made from soft iron.
C The current in the coil of wire creates a magnetic field.
D The current in the coil of wire induces a charge on the magnet.

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14

26 A steel magnet is placed in a coil and demagnetised.

Which type of current is established in the coil, and how is the current changed?

A a direct current in the coil, then reduce the current quickly to zero
B a direct current in the coil, then reduce the current slowly to zero
C an alternating current in the coil, then reduce the current quickly to zero
D an alternating current in the coil, then reduce the current slowly to zero

27 Which material is a conductor of electricity?

A brass
B glass
C plastic
D wood

28 The diagrams each show a positive point charge.

Which diagram represents the pattern and the direction of the electric field due to the charge?

A B C D

+ + + +

29 Which quantity is equivalent to 1.0 V?

A 1.0 J / C B 1.0 kJ / C C 1.0 J / s D 1.0 kJ / s

30 A circuit contains a fixed resistor. The potential difference across the resistor is 24.0 V and the
current in the resistor is 2.30 A.

How much energy is transferred in the resistor in a time of 17.0 minutes?

A 938 J B 5630 J C 56.3 kJ D 9.38 kJ

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15

31 A battery, an ammeter, a switch, a lamp and a resistor are connected together in a circuit.

With the switch open, the ammeter reads 2.4 A. When the switch is closed, this reading increases
to 4.0 A.

What is the current through the resistor with the switch closed?

A 0A B 1.6 A C 3.2 A D 6.4 A

32 A student connects a variable potential divider (potentiometer) circuit.

R
T V

12 V

What happens to the reading on the voltmeter as the sliding terminal T is moved from R to S?

A It decreases from 12 V to 0 V.
B It increases from 0 V to 12 V.
C It remains at 0 V.
D It remains at 12 V.

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16

33 The diagram shows a circuit used to make a light detector.

X Y

One component is connected between X and Y.

Which component causes the ammeter reading to increase when the light gets brighter?

A B C D

34 A truth table for a type of logic gate is shown.

input 1 input 2 output

0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1

Which type of logic gate is it?

A AND B NOR C NOT D OR

35 In which device is a split-ring commutator used, and what is its purpose?

device purpose
A a.c. generator to change the direction of the
current in the coil as it turns
B a.c. generator to change the output current
from d.c. into a.c.
C d.c. motor to change the direction of the
current in the coil as it turns
D d.c. motor to change the input current
from a.c. into d.c.

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17

36 What is the purpose of a relay?

A to change a large voltage into a small voltage


B to change a small voltage into a large voltage
C to use a large current to switch on a small current
D to use a small current to switch on a large current

37 When a source of D-particles is directed towards a thin metal foil they become scattered.

Which observation of this experiment provides evidence for a small charged nucleus?

A A small proportion of the D-particles come straight back from the foil towards the source.

B A small proportion of the D-particles pass straight through the foil.

C Some of the D-particles are deflected by an angle of less than 90°.

D Some of the D-particles follow a curved path after leaving the foil.

38 Which description of a neutral atom of copper is correct?

A a nucleus surrounded by electrons


B a nucleus surrounded by molecules
C electrons surrounded by a nucleus
D electrons surrounded by molecules

39 A sample of radioactive isotope is decaying.

The nuclei of which atoms will decay first?

A It is impossible to know because radioactive decay is random.


B It is impossible to know unless the age of the material is known.
C The atoms near the centre will decay first because they are surrounded by more atoms.
D The atoms near the surface will decay first because the radiation can escape more easily.

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18

40 A student determines the half-life of a radioactive isotope.

The student uses a detector over five minutes and plots a graph showing how the count rate
shown on the detector varies with time.

The count rate due to background radiation is 30 counts per minute.

250
count rate
counts / minute 200

150

100

50

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes

What is the half-life of this isotope?

A 0.30 minutes
B 1.2 minutes
C 1.5 minutes
D 5.0 minutes

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19

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20

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/M/J/17


www.dynamicpapers.com

Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7509628836*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB17 11_0625_23/4RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over
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2

1 A measuring cylinder contains some water. A small metal block is slowly lowered into the water
and is then removed.

Finally a piece of plastic is attached to the metal block and the block is again slowly lowered into
the water.

The diagrams show the measuring cylinder at each stage of this process.

1 2 3
cm3 cm3 cm3
100 100 100
90 90 90
80 80 80
70 70 70
60 60 60
50 50 50
40 40 40
30 30 30
20 20 20 plastic
10 10 10

metal block metal block

What is the volume of the piece of plastic?

A 10 cm3 B 25 cm3 C 70 cm3 D 80 cm3

2 Four balls with different masses are dropped simultaneously from the heights shown.

Air resistance may be ignored.

Which ball hits the floor first?

A B C D
4.0 kg

3.0 kg

2.0 kg
2.0 m
1.0 kg
1.5 m
1.0 m
0.5 m ground

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3

3 The diagram shows the vertical forces acting on a ball as it falls vertically through the air. The ball
does not reach terminal velocity.

air resistance

weight

Which row describes what happens to the resultant force on the ball and what happens to the
acceleration of the ball as it falls through the air?

resultant force acceleration

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

4 A spring is stretched by hanging a piece of metal from it.

spring

metal

Which name is given to the force that stretches the spring?

A friction
B mass
C pressure
D weight

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4

5 On the Moon, all objects fall with the same acceleration.

Which statement explains this?

A On the Moon, all objects have the same weight.


B The Moon has a smaller gravitational field strength than the Earth.
C The weight of an object is directly proportional to its mass.
D The weight of an object is inversely proportional to its mass.

6 A pair of cutters is used to cut a rope.

blade

handle
P
Q
R
S
blade

handle

Where should the rope be positioned and at which labelled points should the hands be positioned
to produce the greatest cutting force?

rope hands
positioned positioned

A P R
B P S
C Q R
D Q S

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5

7 The lamp in the diagram is not very stable and falls over easily.

shade

stem

base

Which row shows changes that would definitely make the lamp more stable?

base centre of gravity

A narrower higher
B narrower lower
C wider higher
D wider lower

8 The diagram shows an incomplete scale drawing to find the resultant of two 10 N forces acting at
a point in the directions shown.

10 N

10 N

What is the magnitude of the resultant force?

A 7.5 N B 8.6 N C 18 N D 20 N

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6

9 An object has a mass of 60 kg.

It decelerates from 50 m / s to 20 m / s when a resultant force of 300 N acts on it.

For how long does the force act?

A 0.071 s B 0.17 s C 6.0 s D 14 s

10 A car, starting from rest at position X, accelerates up a hill. The car reaches a speed of 10 m / s at
position Y.

The kinetic energy of the car at position Y is equal to its gain in gravitational potential energy from
X to Y.

X gain in
height
of car

Take the gravitational field strength g to be 10 N / kg.

What is the gain in height of the car between X and Y?

A 0.50 m B 5.0 m C 10 m D 50 m

11 A 150 W filament lamp has an efficiency of 10%. A 40 W compact fluorescent lamp (CFL) has an
efficiency of 30%.

Each lamp is switched on for the same amount of time.

Which lamp produces more light and which lamp converts more energy into other forms of
energy?

converts more energy


produces more light
into other forms

A CFL lamp CFL lamp


B CFL lamp filament lamp
C filament lamp CFL lamp
D filament lamp filament lamp

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7

12 A student runs up a flight of stairs.

height
length

Which information is not needed to calculate the rate at which the student is doing work against
gravity?

A the height of the flight of stairs


B the length of the flight of stairs
C the time taken to run up the stairs
D the weight of the student

13 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

cm vacuum
90
80

metre rule 70
60

50
40
30

20
10
mercury

Which length is used to find the value of atmospheric pressure?

A 12 cm B 74 cm C 86 cm D 100 cm

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8

14 A pollen grain in a beaker of still water is viewed through a microscope.

Which diagram shows the most likely movement of the pollen grain?

A B C D

15 The diagram shows an air-filled rubber toy. A child sits on the toy and its volume decreases.

The temperature of the air in the toy does not change.

How does the air pressure in the toy change and why?

pressure reason

A decreases air molecules move more slowly


B decreases air molecules strike the rubber less frequently
C increases air molecules move more quickly
D increases air molecules strike the rubber more frequently

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9

16 The diagram shows a glass flask, sealed with a small volume of mercury in a glass tube. When
the flask is gently warmed the mercury rises up the tube.

glass tube

mercury

air

water

What is the main cause of the movement of the mercury?

A expansion of air in the flask


B expansion of the glass flask
C expansion of the glass tube
D expansion of the mercury

17 Which property cannot be used for the measurement of temperature?

A half-life of a radioactive isotope


B length of a solid metal bar
C pressure of a gas
D volume of a liquid

18 A student uses an immersion heater to heat some water in a beaker.

The water is heated from 20 °C to 80 °C.

The energy supplied to the water is 60.0 kJ.

What is the thermal capacity of the water? (Ignore any heat loss.)

A 667 J / °C B 750 J / °C C 1000 J / °C D 3000 J / °C

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10

19 Why is the heating coil of a domestic immersion heater placed at the bottom of the tank?

A Cold water is less dense than hot water and therefore sinks.
B Cold water is more dense than hot water and therefore rises.
C Hot water is less dense than cold water and therefore rises.
D Hot water is more dense than cold water and therefore sinks.

20 The diagram represents plane wavefronts of a water wave about to strike a solid barrier.

wavefronts

Which diagram shows the position of the wavefronts after reflection at the barrier?

A B

reflected

reflected

C D

reflected

reflected

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11

21 The diagram shows a ray of light in glass. The ray reaches a boundary with air.

One weak ray of light is missing from the diagram.

air
glass 50°

Which statement is correct?

A At the boundary, the speed of the light will become less.

B The critical angle for light at this boundary is 50°.


C The diagram shows an example of diffraction of light.
D The missing ray is a weak reflected ray.

22 Light travelling in air enters a plastic block at an angle of incidence of 62°.

The plastic has a refractive index of 1.48.

plastic block

62°

ray of
light

What is the angle of refraction?

A 18° B 28° C 37° D 42°

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12

23 A sound wave travels from a medium in one state into the same medium but in another state.
This causes the speed of the wave to change from approximately 300 m / s to approximately
3000 m / s.

Between which two states is the sound wave travelling?

A gas to solid
B liquid to gas
C liquid to solid
D solid to liquid

24 The Moon is 380 000 km from the Earth. A laser light beam is directed from the Earth to the
Moon. The beam is reflected back to the Earth.

How long does it take for the light to travel to the Moon and back to the Earth?

A 1.27 ms B 2.53 ms C 1.27 s D 2.53 s

25 Which statement about radio waves is correct?

A They are used in television remote controllers.


B They can be detected by the human eye.
C They travel as longitudinal waves.
D They have the same speed in a vacuum as ultraviolet waves.

26 The diagram shows the Earth and its surroundings.

Through which labelled region can sound not be transmitted?

A B C D
sea land atmosphere outer space
(water) (rock) (air) (vacuum)

not to scale

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/O/N/17


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13

27 Different waves travel through air.

Which waves have the greatest difference in speed?

A ultrasound waves and sound waves


B ultrasound waves and ultraviolet waves
C ultraviolet waves and light waves
D ultraviolet waves and radio waves

28 A train of steel nails and a train of iron nails hang from a strong magnet.

magnet

train of train of
steel nails iron nails

The trains are then carefully removed from the magnet.

What happens to the trains?

A Both trains fall apart.


B Both trains stay together.
C Only the train of iron nails falls apart.
D Only the train of steel nails falls apart.

29 What is the best method to demagnetise a steel rod?

A Pass the rod through a coil connected to an a.c. supply.


B Pass the rod through a coil connected to a d.c. supply.
C Place the rod next to another magnet.
D Stroke the rod with another magnet.

30 There is a current in a metal wire.

Which particles in the wire move to cause this current?

A α-particles
B electrons
C neutrons
D protons

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14

31 The diagram shows a circuit with a gap between points P and Q.

Four pieces of metal wire of the same material are connected, in turn, between points P and Q in
the circuit.

P Q

The table gives the diameters and lengths of the wires.

In which wire is the current the largest?

diameter / mm length / m

A 0.10 1.0
B 0.10 2.0
C 0.20 1.0
D 0.20 2.0

32 A battery is connected to a circuit. It is switched on for 1.0 minute. During that time, there is a
current of 0.40 A in the circuit and the battery supplies a total of 48 J of energy.

Which row gives the charge that passes and the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery?

charge that passes e.m.f. of the


in 1.0 minute / C battery / V

A 0.40 2.0
B 0.40 120
C 24 2.0
D 24 120

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/O/N/17


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15

33 Identical cells and identical resistors are used to make the circuits shown.

A A

circuit 1 circuit 2

In circuit 1, the ammeter reads 2.0 A.

What is the ammeter reading in circuit 2?

A 1.0 A B 2.0 A C 4.0 A D 8.0 A

34 The diagram shows a circuit with a fixed resistor connected in series with a thermistor and an
ammeter.

Which row shows how temperature change affects the resistance of the thermistor and the
current in the circuit?

resistance of
temperature current in circuit
thermistor

A decreases decreases increases


B decreases increases decreases
C increases decreases decreases
D increases increases increases

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/O/N/17 [Turn over


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16

35 The diagram shows an AND gate and an OR gate connected together.

X
Y

output
Z

Which combination of inputs X, Y and Z gives an output of 0?

X Y Z

A 0 0 1
B 0 1 1
C 1 0 0
D 1 1 0

36 The diagram shows a short-circuited copper coil swinging about an axis at right-angles to a
strong magnetic field. The motion induces a current in the coil.

axis of rotation
of coil

coil
magnetic field

direction of
swing of coil

What is the effect, if any, of this induced current in the coil?

A The induced current has no effect on the movement of the coil because copper is non-
magnetic.
B The induced current produces a magnetic field of constant magnitude in the coil.
C The induced current produces forces that assist the change causing it.
D The induced current produces forces that oppose the changes causing it.

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17

37 Diagram 1 shows a magnet being pushed into a coil that is connected to a centre-zero
galvanometer.

N
stationary
magnet

S N
0 0 0

N
S

diagram 1 diagram 2 diagram 3

Which row shows the directions of the pointer when the magnet is as shown in diagrams 2
and 3?

diagram 2 diagram 3

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18

38 Radioactive carbon-14 decays to nitrogen-14 by the emission of a particle.

14
6C → 14
7N + particle

Which particle has been emitted in this process?

A a β-particle

B an α-particle
C a neutron
D a proton

39 As α-particles pass through the electric field between two charged plates, they are deflected
downwards.

+ + + + + + + + +

α-particles

– – – – – – – – –

What happens to γ-rays passing through the same electric field?

A They are deflected downwards more than the α-particles.


B They are deflected upwards.
C They are not deflected at all.

D They follow the same path as the α-particles.

40 Radioactive iodine-131 emits β-particles and has a half-life of 8 days. It decays to produce
xenon-131.

Which statement about this decay is correct?

A After 8 days no more β-particles are emitted.


B After 8 days the number of xenon-131 atoms has halved.
C After 16 days the iodine-131 has decayed completely.
D After 16 days the number of iodine-131 atoms has reduced to one quarter.

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/O/N/17


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19

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© UCLES 2017 0625/23/O/N/17


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20

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0625/23/O/N/17


www.dynamicpapers.com

Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8385724903*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB18 03_0625_22/4RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over
www.dynamicpapers.com
2

1 Which instrument is used to measure accurately the diameter of a thin metal wire?

A 30 cm ruler
B measuring tape
C metre rule
D micrometer screw gauge

2 A parachutist is falling through the air at terminal velocity.

Which statement about the parachutist is correct?

A Every force acting on the parachutist is equal to zero and his acceleration is equal to zero.
B Every force acting on the parachutist is equal to zero and his velocity is equal to zero.
C The resultant force acting on the parachutist is equal to zero and his acceleration is equal to
zero.
D The resultant force acting on the parachutist is equal to zero and his velocity is equal to zero.

3 The curved line on the graph shows the motion of a car.

12.0
speed
10.0
m/s
8.0
6.0
4.0
2.0
0
0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0
time / s

What is the acceleration of the car at the time of 4.0 s?

A 0.33 m / s2 B 0.44 m / s2 C 2.3 m / s2 D 3.0 m / s2

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


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3

4 The diagram shows a bird in flight. The bird is flying in a horizontal direction to the right.

In which direction does air resistance act on the bird?

D B

5 The gravitational field strength on the Moon is 1.6 N / kg.

An astronaut has a mass of 75 kg.

What is the weight of the astronaut on the Moon?

A 47 N B 75 N C 120 N D 750 N

6 A measuring cylinder contains 30 cm3 of a liquid.

cm3

50

40

30

20

10

balance

Some more of the liquid is added until the liquid level reaches the 50 cm3 mark.

The reading on the balance increases by 30 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.60 g / cm3 B 0.67 g / cm3 C 1.5 g / cm3 D 1.7 g / cm3

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18 [Turn over


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4

7 A stone of mass 0.12 kg is fired from a catapult. The velocity of the stone changes from 0 to
5.0 m / s in 0.60 s.

What is the average resultant force acting on the stone while it is being fired?

A 1.0 N B 2.5 N C 3.6 N D 8.3 N

8 A uniform rod XY of weight 2.0 N has a length of 80 cm.

The rod is suspended by a thread 20 cm from end X. A weight of 5.0 N is suspended from end X.

thread

20 cm uniform rod

X Y

80 cm

5.0 N

A student hangs a 6.0 N weight on the rod so that it is in equilibrium.

What is the distance of the 6.0 N weight from end X?

A 6 cm B 10 cm C 26 cm D 30 cm

9 A wooden plank rests in equilibrium on two rocks on opposite sides of a narrow stream.

Three forces P, Q and R act on the plank.

P R
plank

How are the sizes of the forces related?

A P+Q=R
B P+R=Q
C P=Q=R
D P=Q+R

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5

10 A ball of mass 0.16 kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg
is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of
0.50 m / s.

What is the speed of the first ball after the collision?

A 0.0 m / s B 0.19 m / s C 0.31 m / s D 0.50 m / s

11 A ball is at rest at the top of a hill. It rolls down the hill. At the bottom of the hill the ball hits a wall
and stops.

Which energy changes occur?

A gravitational potential energy → internal energy → kinetic energy

B gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → internal energy

C kinetic energy → gravitational potential energy → internal energy

D kinetic energy → internal energy → gravitational potential energy

12 A student cycles along a level road at a speed of 5.0 m / s.

The total mass of the student and bicycle is 120 kg.

The student applies the brakes and stops. The braking distance is 10 m.

What is the average braking force?

A 150 N B 300 N C 15 000 N D 30 000 N

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6

13 A water manometer is connected to a gas supply.

gas Q
supply
water

There is a gas leak and the pressure of the gas supply falls.

What happens to the water level at P and what happens to the water level at Q?

water level at P water level at Q

A falls falls
B falls rises
C rises falls
D rises rises

14 A submarine is 20 m below the surface of the sea. The pressure due to the water at this depth
is P.

On another day, the submarine is 26 m below the surface of fresh water.

The density of sea water is 1.3 times the density of fresh water.

What is the pressure due to the fresh water at a depth of 26 m?

A P B P C 1.3 P D 1.7 P
1.3

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


www.dynamicpapers.com
7

15 A cylinder with a tap contains a fixed mass of gas X. The gas is contained by a piston which can
move freely towards or away from the tap.

atmosphere
gas X
tap closed
piston

cylinder

When the tap is opened, the piston moves slightly to the right, towards the tap.

atmosphere
gas X
tap open

What can be deduced about the pressure of gas X?

before opening tap after opening tap

A less than atmospheric pressure more than atmospheric pressure


B same as atmospheric pressure more than atmospheric pressure
C more than atmospheric pressure less than atmospheric pressure
D more than atmospheric pressure same as atmospheric pressure

16 Liquid evaporates from a beaker.

What happens to the temperature of the remaining liquid and how does this temperature change
affect the rate of evaporation?

rate of
temperature
evaporation

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18 [Turn over


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8

17 Which quantity does not change when there is an increase in temperature?

A the density of a steel block


B the diameter of the hole in a metal nut
C the length of an iron rod
D the mass of a metal coin

18 A thermocouple is used to measure temperature.

Which is an advantage of using a thermocouple instead of a liquid-in-glass thermometer?

A It can measure temperature in the range –10 °C to 110 °C.


B It can measure temperature that changes rapidly.
C It has a linear scale.
D It is more sensitive.

19 A block of copper has a mass of 2.0 kg.

The block of copper absorbs 12 000 J thermal energy.

The specific heat capacity of copper is 385 J / (kg °C).

What is the temperature rise of the copper?

A 15.6 °C B 31.2 °C C 46.8 °C D 62.4 °C

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


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9

20 A teacher demonstrates an experiment to a class. A boiling tube is filled with water and some ice
cubes are trapped at the bottom of the tube. The teacher then heats the boiling tube in the
position shown until the water at the top boils.

water

ice heat

metal mesh

The ice does not melt.

What does this demonstrate?

A Water is a good conductor of thermal energy.


B Water is a good convector of thermal energy.
C Water is a poor conductor of thermal energy.
D Water is a poor convector of thermal energy.

21 A metal cup has a plastic lining. The cup is filled with hot water and held by a hand.

Which statement about the transfer of thermal energy from the water to the hand is correct?

A In the plastic, no energy is transferred directly between adjacent molecules.


B In the plastic, fast moving molecules interact with free electrons, making the electrons move
very quickly.
C In the metal, energy is transferred only by electrons.
D In the metal, energy is transferred by electrons and by vibrations of the lattice.

22 Which row shows an example of a transverse wave and an example of a longitudinal wave?

transverse longitudinal

A light radio
B radio sound
C sound water
D water light

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10

23 A wave passes through a gap and diffraction causes the wave to spread out.

Which wave spreads out the most?

A large wavelength through a gap slightly larger than the wavelength


B large wavelength through a gap much smaller than the wavelength
C small wavelength through a gap much larger than the wavelength
D small wavelength through a gap much smaller than the wavelength

24 An object is placed before a plane mirror as shown.

A student views the image of the object in the mirror from point P.

Where does she see the image?

object B C D

mirror

25 Light has a speed of 1.24 × 108 m / s in diamond.

What is the refractive index of diamond?

A 0.41 B 1.54 C 2.42 D 3.72

26 Which statement describes monochromatic light?

A light that does not diffract


B light that has a single frequency
C light that spreads out when shone through a glass prism
D light that travels at the same speed in all materials

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


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11

27 Both the amplitude and the frequency of a sound wave decrease.

What happens to the sound heard?

A The sound is louder and has a higher pitch.


B The sound is louder and has a lower pitch.
C The sound is quieter and has a higher pitch.
D The sound is quieter and has a lower pitch.

28 A sound wave is travelling through water.

What is a possible speed for the wave?

A 150 m / s B 300 m / s C 1500 m / s D 5000 m / s

29 An electromagnet is used to remove a splinter from an eye.

What material is the splinter made from?

A aluminium
B glass
C iron
D wood

30 A metal conductor is connected to a battery.

Which statement describes the current in the metal conductor?

A It is a flow of electrons from the negative to the positive terminal.


B It is a flow of electrons from the positive to the negative terminal.
C It is a flow of protons from the negative to the positive terminal.
D It is a flow of protons from the positive to the negative terminal.

31 In an electric circuit, 40 C of electric charge pass a point in 5.0 s.

What is the current in the circuit?

A 0.13 A B 8.0 A C 45 A D 200 A

32 There is a current of 5.0 A in a resistor.

The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is 24 V.

How much energy is transferred in the resistor in 1.0 minute?

A 5.0 J B 120 J C 290 J D 7200 J

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12

33 The diagram shows a circuit.

lamp 1

lamp 2

Switch S is closed.

Which lamps light?

A lamp 1 only
B lamp 2 only
C lamp 1 and lamp 2
D neither lamp 1 nor lamp 2

34 A circuit contains four ammeters and three resistors with different values.

Which ammeter shows the largest reading?

A A D
10 Ω
A
B A
20 Ω

30 Ω
A
C

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


www.dynamicpapers.com
13

35 The diagrams show pairs of circuits containing logic gates.

In which diagram does the lower circuit of the pair not behave in the same way as the upper
circuit?

A B

C D

36 The current in a coil produces a magnetic field around it, as shown.

– +

The magnitude of the potential difference across the coil is increased and its direction is
reversed.

What happens to the magnetic field?

A The lines become closer together and the right-hand end becomes a south pole.
B The lines become closer together and the right-hand end remains a north pole.
C The lines become further apart and the right-hand end becomes a south pole.
D The lines become further apart and the right-hand end remains a north pole.

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18 [Turn over


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14

23
37 The notation for an isotope of sodium is 11 Na .

Which row gives the composition of a neutral atom of this isotope of sodium?

number of number of number of


protons neutrons electrons

A 11 12 11
B 11 12 12
C 11 23 11
D 12 11 12

38 The radioactive isotope of hydrogen undergoes beta decay to the isotope 32 He .

What is the nuclide notation for the hydrogen isotope?


1 2 3 4
A 1H B 1H C 1H D 2H

39 When measuring the emissions from a radioactive rock brought into the laboratory, a teacher
mentions that background radiation must be taken into account.

What is this background radiation?

A infra-red radiation from warm objects in the laboratory


B infra-red radiation from the Sun
C ionising radiation from the radioactive rock brought into the laboratory
D ionising radiation in the laboratory when the radioactive rock is not present

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


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15

40 Solid caesium-137 decays by the emission of a β-particle to form solid barium-137, which emits a
γ-ray.

The barium-137 undergoes no further decay. The half-life of caesium-137 is 33 years.

A block of pure caesium-137 has a mass of 2.0 µg.

The diagram shows a radiation detector a distance of 5 cm from the block. The detector registers
a count rate of 2000 counts / second.

detector
counter
block

5 cm

Which statement is not correct?

A After 33 years, the mass of the block is 1.0 µg.

B After 66 years, the sample contains 1.5 µg of barium.


C With 5 cm of lead between the block and the detector, the count rate is just above
background level.
D With 2 mm of aluminium between the block and the detector, the count rate is reduced
significantly.

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


www.dynamicpapers.com
16

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


www.dynamicpapers.com

Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9561144955*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 06_0625_23/4RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over
www.dynamicpapers.com
2

1 A length of cotton is measured between two points on a ruler.

cotton

cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

When the length of cotton is wound closely around a pen, it goes round six times.

six turns of cotton


pen

What is the distance once round the pen?

A 2.2 cm B 2.6 cm C 13.2 cm D 15.6 cm

2 When does an object falling vertically through the air reach terminal velocity?

A when the acceleration of the object becomes negative


B when the acceleration of the object is equal to g
C when the air resistance equals the weight of the object
D when the air resistance is greater than the weight of the object

3 A sprinter runs a 100 m race in a straight line. The table shows how his speed changes with time
for the first 5.0 s of the race.

speed
0 1.7 4.1 5.7 6.5 6.8
m/s
time / s 0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0

What is the average acceleration of the sprinter between time 2.0 s and time 3.0 s?

A 1.6 m / s2 B 1.9 m / s2 C 4.1 m / s2 D 5.7 m / s2

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/M/J/18


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3

4 A person steps onto a bathroom scales.

The bathroom scales records both mass and weight.

Which row shows the readings on the scales?

mass weight

A 60 N 600 kg
B 60 kg 600 N
C 600 kg 60 N
D 600 N 60 kg

5 An object has a weight of 7600 N in a gravitational field of strength 100 N / kg.

What is the mass of the object?

A 76 kg B 760 N C 7600 g D 76 000 N

6 A load is hung from a steel wire. The load is increased.

The length of the wire increases until the limit of proportionality is reached.

The load is now increased slightly.

What happens?

A The extension of the wire increases and the wire no longer obeys Hooke’s law.
B The extension of the wire decreases and the wire no longer obeys Hooke’s law.
C The extension of the wire increases and it obeys Hooke’s law.
D The extension of the wire decreases and it obeys Hooke’s law.

7 The diagram shows a uniform metre rule pivoted at the 30 cm mark.

metre rule

0 cm 30 cm 70 cm 100 cm

pivot
6.0 N 2.0 N

The rule balances when a weight of 6.0 N is hanging from the zero mark and a weight of 2.0 N is
hanging from the 70 cm mark.

What is the weight of the rule?

A 2.0 N B 5.0 N C 6.0 N D 13.0 N

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/M/J/18 [Turn over


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4

8 An astronaut orbits the Earth in a space station.

Which is a vector quantity?

A the mass of the astronaut


B the speed of the satellite
C the temperature inside the satellite
D the weight of the astronaut

9 A visitor to a fairground throws a soft object of mass 0.12 kg at a coconut of mass 0.48 kg. The
soft object stops moving when it hits the coconut. In order to dislodge the coconut, it must be
made to move at 0.10 m/s.

What is the minimum speed with which the visitor should throw the soft object in order to dislodge
the coconut?

A 0.20 m/s
B 0.40 m/s
C 2.0 m/s
D 4.0 m/s

10 An aircraft with a mass of 300 000 kg is flying at an altitude of 2000 m with a speed of 100 m / s.

What is the kinetic energy of the aircraft?

A 1.5 × 104 kJ B 1.5 × 106 kJ C 3.0 × 106 kJ D 6.0 × 106 kJ

11 Which method of drying clothes has the least impact on the environment?

A Evaporate the water in them in an electrically heated tumble dryer.


B Hang them on a washing line in direct sunlight.
C Remove the water from them in an electric spin dryer.
D Suspend them close to a coal fire.

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/M/J/18


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5

12 The vertical displacement of a mass of 0.20 kg changes with time. The graph shows how this
displacement changes.

displacement
/ cm
2

0
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2 1.4
time / s

–1

–2

–3

At which rate does it gain gravitational potential energy as it moves upwards?

A 0.025 W B 0.050 W C 0.20 W D 0.40 W

13 A simple barometer includes a column of mercury.

Which property of this column of mercury is used to give a measurement of atmospheric


pressure?

A its cross-sectional area


B its height
C its temperature
D its thermal capacity

14 An oil tank has a base of area 2.5 m2 and is filled with oil to a depth of 1.2 m.

The density of the oil is 800 kg / m3.

What is the force exerted on the base of the tank due to the oil?

A 960 N B 2400 N C 9600 N D 24 000 N

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/M/J/18 [Turn over


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6

15 When molecules of a gas rebound from a wall of a container, the wall experiences a pressure.

What is the cause of this pressure?

A the change in energy of the molecules


B the change in momentum of the molecules
C the change in power of the molecules
D the change in speed of the molecules

16 Two liquid-in-glass thermometers P and Q contain the same volume of mercury and have
capillary tubes of the same length.

Thermometer P has a capillary tube with a smaller diameter than thermometer Q.

Which thermometer has the greater range and which has the greater sensitivity?

greater greater
range sensitivity

A P P
B P Q
C Q P
D Q Q

17 A student wishes to calibrate a mercury-in-glass thermometer with a °C scale.

Which values should she use for the lower fixed point and for the upper fixed point?

lower fixed point upper fixed point

A melting point of ice boiling point of mercury


B melting point of ice boiling point of water
C melting point of mercury boiling point of mercury
D melting point of mercury boiling point of water

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/M/J/18


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7

18 The diagram shows a pan used for cooking food.

handle of pan

base of pan

Which row is correct for the materials used to make the base and the handle of the pan?

base of pan handle of pan

A good thermal conductor good thermal conductor


B good thermal conductor poor thermal conductor
C poor thermal conductor good thermal conductor
D poor thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

19 The diagram shows a wave.

2.0
displacement
/ cm 1.0

0
0 4.0 8.0 12.0 16.0 20.0 24.0 28.0
–1.0 distance
/ cm
–2.0

Which row is correct?

amplitude of wavelength of
the wave / cm the wave / cm

A 1.0 4.0
B 1.0 8.0
C 2.0 4.0
D 2.0 8.0

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/M/J/18 [Turn over


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8

20 Light travels at a speed of 2.0 × 108 m / s in a glass block.

In the glass, the wavelength of the light is 4.0 × 10–7 m.

What is the frequency of the light?

A 2.0 × 10–15 Hz

B 1.3 × 10–2 Hz
C 80 Hz

D 5.0 × 1014 Hz

21 Scout P signals to scout Q on the other side of a valley by using a mirror to reflect the Sun’s light.

Sun’s
scout P light

mirror

scout Q

Which mirror position allows the Sun’s light to be reflected to scout Q?

A B C D
mirror Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s
light light light light

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/M/J/18


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9

22 Images formed by lenses and mirrors can either be described as real or as virtual.

Which row describes real and virtual images of a point object?

real images virtual images


A formed where light rays an image in a plane mirror is an
meet example of a virtual image
B formed where light rays can be projected onto a screen
meet
C formed from where light rays an image in a plane mirror is an
appear to diverge example of a virtual image
D formed from where light rays can be projected onto a screen
appear to diverge

23 The diagram shows the air molecules in part of a sound wave at a particular moment in time.

Which statement is not correct?

A Earlier, there was compression at X.


B Later, there will be a rarefaction at X.
C This part of the wave is travelling horizontally across the page.
D This part of the wave is travelling towards the top of the page.

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/M/J/18 [Turn over


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10

24 The diagram shows the ranges of human hearing and of ultrasound waves.

range of
human hearing ultrasound

0 101 102 103 104 105 106


2 × 101 2 × 104

To which characteristic of sound waves do the numbers on the diagram refer?

A amplitude in cm
B frequency in Hz
C speed in metres / second
D wavelength in metres

25 A permanent magnet is placed close to a bar of soft iron.

permanent
S N P Q soft iron bar
magnet

What are the polarities of end P and of end Q?

end P end Q

A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

26 Which method is used to demagnetise a magnet?

A cool it in a freezer
B drop it into a beaker of water
C place it inside a coil carrying a direct current
D strike it with a hammer

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/M/J/18


www.dynamicpapers.com
11

27 Two power supplies are connected in separate circuits. Both power supplies provide the same
magnitude current.

Power supply P has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 1.5 V and power supply Q has an e.m.f. of
3.0 V.

Which statements are correct?

1 Source Q supplies twice the charge per unit time.


2 Source Q supplies twice the energy per unit charge.
3 Source Q supplies twice the energy per unit time.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

28 A student measures the potential difference across a device and the current in the device.

Which calculation gives the resistance of the device?

A current + potential difference

B current ÷ potential difference

C potential difference ÷ current

D potential difference × current

29 An electricity meter records that 200 MJ of electrical energy are drawn from the 240 V mains
supply in a 24 hour period.

What is the average rate of electrical charge passing through the meter?

A 9.6 C / h B 580 C / h C 35 kC / h D 0.83 MC / h

30 A 3.0 Ω resistor is connected in parallel with a 4.0 Ω resistor.

3.0 Ω

4.0 Ω

What is the resistance of this combination?


A 0.14 Ω B 0.58 Ω C 1.7 Ω D 7.0 Ω

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/M/J/18 [Turn over


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12

31 A student sets up this circuit.

What is the purpose of the circuit?

A to allow a lamp to be made dimmer or brighter as required


B to amplify the sound of a voice
C to light a lamp in the dark
D to sound a bell when the temperature rises

32 The diagram shows two voltmeters P and Q connected to a potential divider.

V voltmeter P
X

V voltmeter Q

The sliding connection at point X is moved towards the top of the diagram.

What happens to the reading on P and to the reading on Q?

reading on P reading on Q

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/M/J/18


www.dynamicpapers.com
13

33 The diagram shows a logic circuit with inputs X and Y.

X
Y
Q

The output is Q.

Which truth table is correct?

A B
X Y Q X Y Q

0 0 0 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 1

C D
X Y Q X Y Q

0 0 1 0 0 0
0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 0

34 A wire connected to a resistor is moved in a magnetic field. A current is induced in the direction
shown.

In which direction is the wire moved?

wire
A

D B

N S R
C
induced
current

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/M/J/18 [Turn over


www.dynamicpapers.com
14

35 The diagram shows a transformer.

core
primary coil
secondary coil

Which materials are the most suitable for the core and for the coils?

core material coil material

A copper copper
B copper iron
C iron copper
D iron iron

36 A solenoid is connected to a battery.

axis of
solenoid
solenoid

Which statement about the magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is correct?

A The magnetic field along the axis is zero.

B The direction of the magnetic field is at an angle of 45° to the axis.


C The direction of the magnetic field is parallel to the axis.
D The direction of the magnetic field is perpendicular to the axis.

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/M/J/18


www.dynamicpapers.com
15

37 In the atomic model, an atom consists of a central mass, orbited by much smaller particles.

orbiting central
particle mass

What is the name of the central mass and of the orbiting particles?

central mass orbiting particles

A neutron α-particles
B neutron electrons
C nucleus α-particles
D nucleus electrons

38 The radiation from a radioactive source passes between two metal plates, and is deflected as
shown in the diagram. Between the plates there is a magnetic field directed into the plane of the
paper, as indicated by the crosses.

× × × × × × × × × ×

× × × × × × × × × ×

Only one type of radiation is present.

Which situation is possible?

A The source emits alpha particles and there is an upwards electric field between the plates.
B The source emits alpha particles and there is no electric field between the plates.
C The source emits beta particles and there is an upwards electric field between the plates.
D The source emits gamma radiation and there is a downwards electric field between the
plates.

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/M/J/18 [Turn over


www.dynamicpapers.com
16

39 The nucleus of an isotope of nitrogen (N) absorbs a neutron. It then decays into an isotope of
carbon (C) and emits x.

1
0n + 14
7N → 14
6C + x

What is x?

A α-particle

B β-particle

C γ-radiation
D proton

40 The graph shows how the count rate registered by a counter near to a sample of a radioactive
isotope changes over a period of a few days. The background count rate is 5 counts per minute.

50
count rate
40
counts / minute

30

20

10

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

time / days

What is the half-life of the isotope?

A 2.0 days B 2.5 days C 3.0 days D 4.0 days

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/M/J/18


www.dynamicpapers.com

Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9510057274*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 11_0625_23/4RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over
www.dynamicpapers.com
2

1 The diagram shows part of a micrometer screw gauge.


45

012 40

mm
35

30

What is the smallest reading that can be achieved using this micrometer screw gauge?

A 0.0001 mm B 0.01 mm C 0.1 mm D 1 mm

2 An object falls in a gravitational field with air resistance.

Which distance-time graph shows this motion?

A B

distance distance
fallen fallen

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance distance
fallen fallen

0 0
0 time 0 time

3 A boy runs 400 m at an average speed of 4.0 m / s.

He runs the first 200 m in 40 s.

How long does he take to run the second 200 m?

A 60 s B 66.7 s C 80 s D 140 s

© UCLES 2018 0625/23/O/N/18


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3

4 A helium balloon is tied to a top-pan balance. A metal block of mass 100 g is placed on the
balance. The reading on the balance is 91 g.

helium balloon

metal block

91 g

Which statement can be deduced from this experiment?

A The balloon exerts a downward force of 0.09 N on the top-pan balance.


B The helium has a mass of –9 g.
C The helium has a mass of +9 g.
D The resultant downward force on the top-pan balance is 0.91 N.

5 A student carries out experiments to find the mass and the volume of four samples of rock.

The graph shows the results.

sample P sample Q
200
mass / g

sample R sample S
100

0
0 50 100
volume / cm3

Which pair are samples of the same type of rock?

A P and Q B P and S C R and Q D Q and S

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6 An object accelerates from 10 m / s to 30 m / s in 4.0 seconds.

The accelerating force is 150 N.

What is the mass of the object?

A 0.033 kg B 5.0 kg C 7.5 kg D 30 kg

7 The diagram shows a uniform bar of length 120 cm and weight W. The bar is pivoted at a point
40 cm from the left end of the bar.

A load of W is suspended from the right-hand end of the bar.


2
A downward force F is applied to the left-hand end of the bar to keep it in equilibrium.

0 40 cm 60 cm 120 cm

pivot bar

F bar’s weight
W
W
2

What is the magnitude of force F ?

A W B W C 3W D 2W
2 2

8 An electron is moving at a speed of 5 × 106 m / s.


A neutron is moving at a speed of 5 × 104 m / s.

The mass of the electron is m.


The mass of the neutron is 2000m.

Which row is correct?

greater greater
momentum kinetic energy

A electron electron
B electron neutron
C neutron electron
D neutron neutron

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9 Which device is designed to convert chemical energy into kinetic energy?

A an a.c. generator
B a battery-powered torch
C a car engine
D a wind-up mechanical clock

10 A barrel of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 1.5 m by rolling it up a ramp. The length of the ramp
is 8.0 m. The force F applied to the barrel acts parallel to the ramp. The frictional force is
negligible.

8.0 m
F

40 kg
1.5 m

Which row is correct?

gain in gravitational
force F / N
potential energy / J

A 60 7.5
B 60 40
C 600 75
D 600 400

11 What is the main process by which energy is produced in the Sun?

A combustion
B nuclear fission
C nuclear fusion
D radioactive decay

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12 A manometer is used to measure the pressure of a gas supply.

manometer

connection
to gas supply
h

liquid

Which change gives a greater value of height h ?

A using a less dense liquid


B using a more dense liquid
C using a narrower tube
D using a wider tube

13 A washbasin has an exit pipe covered with a plug of area 12 cm2. A chain is attached to the
centre of the plug to assist in pulling the plug away from the exit hole. The washbasin contains
water to a depth of 0.080 m.

The density of the water is 1000 kg / m3.

chain

plug

What is the force acting on the plug due to the water?

A 0.96 N B 800 N C 9600 N D 80 000 N

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14 Diagram 1 shows apparatus being used to observe smoke particles.

Diagram 2 shows how a smoke particle moves randomly.

diagram 1 diagram 2

eye

random
movement
microscope

air molecules
light and
smoke particles

Why do the smoke particles move randomly?

A They are hit by air molecules.


B They are less dense than air.
C They are moved by convection currents.
D They gain energy from the light.

15 A bubble of air has a volume of 2.0 cm3 at the bottom of a lake where the total pressure is
4.0 × 105 Pa. The temperature of the water in the lake is constant. The atmospheric pressure at
the surface is 1.0 × 105 Pa.

What is the volume of the bubble when it rises to the surface?

A 0.13 cm3 B 0.17 cm3 C 6.0 cm3 D 8.0 cm3

16 Which row shows the relative order of thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases?

most expansion least expansion

A solids liquids gases


B solids gases liquids
C gases solids liquids
D gases liquids solids

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17 A block of ice is at a temperature of –100 °C. Energy is supplied at a constant rate. The graph
shows how its temperature changes.

200
temperature
/ °C 3
100
4

1
0
2

–100
time

At which points has the ice completely changed state to water and all the water completely
changed state to steam?

completely completely
changed to water changed to steam

A 1 3
B 1 4
C 2 3
D 2 4

18 The temperature of the water at the bottom of a waterfall is greater than the temperature of the
water at the top.

The gravitational potential energy of the water at the top is transferred to thermal energy at the
bottom.

The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J / (kg °C).

What is the temperature difference for a waterfall of height 21 m?

A 0.005 °C B 0.05 °C C 20 °C D 200 °C

19 One end of a shiny metal rod is heated and the other end quickly gets hot.

Which statement describes why the other end quickly gets hot?

A Metals are good thermal conductors.


B Metals are poor thermal conductors.
C Shiny surfaces are good emitters of infra-red radiation.
D Shiny surfaces are poor emitters of infra-red radiation.

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20 Four different surfaces are at the same high temperature.

Which surface will emit thermal radiation at the slowest rate?

colour of texture of surface


surface surface area / cm2

A black dull 10
B black dull 100
C white shiny 10
D white shiny 100

21 Plane water waves travel from a shallow region into a deeper region. They travel more quickly in
the deeper water.

shallow water

boundary
wave
direction
deep water

Which diagram shows the wave pattern in the deeper water?

A B C D

22 An object is placed 8.0 cm from a thin converging lens of focal length 5.0 cm.

converging lens
object
F

5.0 cm
8.0 cm

Which statement about the image formed by the lens is correct?

A The image is real and inverted.


B The image is real and upright.
C The image is virtual and inverted.
D The image is virtual and upright.

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23 Light travels through air and then enters and travels through a parallel-sided glass block.

Which statement is correct?

A The angle of incidence is greater than the angle of refraction as the light leaves the block.
B The light emerging from the block is parallel to the light entering the block.
C The speed of the light decreases as it leaves the block.
D The wavelength of the light does not change as it enters the block.

24 Different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are used for different purposes. Below are four
statements about parts of the spectrum.

statement 1: Infra-red waves are used in television remote controllers.


statement 2: Radio waves are used to transmit television pictures from satellites to Earth.
statement 3: Ultraviolet waves are used for intruder alarms.
statement 4: X-rays are used for security checks.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

25 A sheet of ice floats on water. A source of sound S is positioned at the edge of the ice sheet.

Four microphones are placed equal distances from S.

Which microphone detects the sound from S first?

air

B
D S

ice
water

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26 Which diagram shows the pattern and the direction of the magnetic field lines around a bar
magnet?

A B

N S N S

C D

N S N S

27 A bar magnet is placed inside a current-carrying coil. The diagram shows four different
experiments.

1 2

magnet slowly magnet slowly


removed removed

+ –

3 4

current in coil current in coil


slowly reduced slowly reduced

+ –

In which experiments is the magnet demagnetised?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

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28 Which row shows the meaning of the quantity e.m.f. and the unit in which it is measured?

meaning unit

A electromagnetic force N
B electromagnetic force V
C electromotive force N
D electromotive force V

29 Which diagram shows the current-voltage (I - V) characteristic for a filament lamp?

A B C D
I I I I

0 0 0 0
0 V 0 V 0 V 0 V

30 The diagram shows a light-dependent resistor (LDR) connected in a potential divider circuit.

The brightness of the light falling on the LDR is increased.

Which row shows what happens to the resistance of the LDR, and what happens to the reading
on the voltmeter?

resistance of LDR reading on voltmeter

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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31 The diagram shows part of an electric circuit. The reading on the voltmeter is 16 V. The current in
the resistor is 8.0 A.

8.0 A P Q

One coulomb of charge flows from P to Q through the resistor.

How much energy is transferred in the resistor?

A 2.0 J B 8.0 J C 16 J D 128 J

32 Which symbol represents an AND gate?

A B C D

33 Either a fuse or a circuit-breaker can be used to protect electrical cables from large currents that
could cause overheating.

X cable
live

electrical Y appliance
supply

neutral
cable

When a fuse is used, where should it be connected, and when a circuit-breaker is used, where
should it be connected?

position position of
of fuse circuit-breaker

A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y

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34 The circuit diagram shows an a.c. power supply connected to two diodes and a resistor.

a.c. X
power
supply

The graph shows the current from the supply.

current

0
0 time

Which graph shows the current in diode X?

A B

current current

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

current current

0 0
0 time 0 time

35 A 100% efficient step-down transformer has primary voltage Vp and primary current Ip.

Which row compares the secondary voltage with Vp and the secondary current with Ip?

secondary voltage secondary current

A greater than Vp greater than Ip


B greater than Vp less than Ip
C less than Vp greater than Ip
D less than Vp less than Ip

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36 There is an electric current in a wire. The wire is placed in a magnetic field. A force acts on the
wire due to the current.

Which statement is correct?

A The magnetic field must be produced by a permanent magnet and not by an electromagnet.
B The wire must be made from a magnetic material.
C When both the current and the magnetic field are reversed, the direction of the force is
unchanged.
D When the current is reversed, but not the magnetic field, there will be no force on the wire.

37 Which diagram represents the structure of a neutral atom?

A B C D
key
– – – –
neutron

++ ++ + proton
+ ++
+ – electron

– – –

228
38 A nucleus of 88 Ra decays into an isotope of actinium, which then decays into a nucleus of
228
90 Th .

What types of radiation have been emitted during this process?

A one alpha particle only


B one alpha particle and one beta particle
C two alpha particles
D two beta particles

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39 The diagram shows the paths of three different types of radiation X, Y and Z.

2 mm of 10 mm of 50 mm
plastic aluminium of lead

Which row correctly identifies X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A α-particles β-particles γ-rays


B β-particles α-particles γ-rays
C β-particles γ-rays α-particles
D γ-rays α-particles β-particles

40 The count rate due to a sample of a radioactive isotope is measured for 80 minutes.

time count rate


/ minutes counts / second

0 480
20 380
40 300
60 240
80 190

What is the half-life of the isotope?

A 20 minutes B 40 minutes C 60 minutes D 80 minutes

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*1358010994*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB19 03_0625_22/3RP
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2

1 Which row shows the best choice of measuring instruments to obtain accurate values for the
distances shown?

diameter of wire height of bench length of laboratory


A measuring tape measuring tape micrometer
screw gauge
B metre rule micrometer measuring tape
screw gauge
C micrometer measuring tape metre rule
screw gauge
D micrometer metre rule measuring tape
screw gauge

2 An object is moving with uniform deceleration.

Which statement describes its motion?

A Its rate of change of speed is decreasing.


B Its speed is constant.
C Its speed is decreasing.
D Its speed is increasing.

3 The graph shows how the speed of a car varies during part of its journey.

20
speed
m/s 15

10

0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12
time / s

What is the value of the car’s acceleration between 6 s and 10 s?

A 0.50 m / s2 B 0.80 m / s2 C 1.25 m / s2 D 1.50 m / s2

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3

4 The gravitational field strength on the Moon is less than on the Earth.

Which of these is different when done on the Moon compared with when done on the Earth?

A the gravitational potential energy gained by a stone lifted through the same vertical height
B the kinetic energy gained by a ball when hit with the same force for the same period of time
C the momentum gained by a bullet when fired from the same gun
D the work done in accelerating a stone from rest to the same speed

5 The mass of a full bottle of cooking oil is 1.30 kg.

When exactly half of the oil has been used, the mass of the bottle plus the remaining oil is
0.90 kg.

1.30 0.90
kg kg

What is the mass of the empty bottle?

A 0.40 kg B 0.50 kg C 0.65 kg D 0.80 kg

6 A solid ball has a volume of 4.0 cm3. The density of the ball is 1.6 g / cm3.

What is the mass of the ball?

A 0.4 g B 2.5 g C 4.0 g D 6.4 g

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4

7 The extension / load graph for a spring is shown. The unstretched length of the spring is 15.0 cm.

3
extension / cm

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
load / N

When an object of unknown weight is suspended on the spring, the length of the spring is
16.4 cm.

What is the weight of the object?

A 0.55 N B 0.67 N C 3.5 N D 4.1 N

8 A box of mass 2.0 kg is pulled across the floor by a force of 6.0 N.

The frictional force acting on the box is 1.0 N.

What is the acceleration of the box?

A 0.40 m / s2 B 2.5 m / s2 C 3.0 m / s2 D 3.5 m / s2

9 Which moving body has a resultant force acting on it?

A a diver rising vertically through water at constant speed


B an aircraft circling an airport at constant speed
C a train going up a straight incline at constant speed
D a parachutist descending vertically at terminal velocity

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10 A constant force acts on a body causing the momentum of the body to increase.

Which expression relates the force to the momentum and the time taken?
change in momentum
A force =
time taken

B force = momentum
time taken
C force = change in momentum × time taken

D force = momentum × time taken

11 A car of mass 1500 kg has a speed of 20 m / s. It accelerates until its speed is 25 m / s.

What is the increase in the kinetic energy of the car?

A 19 kJ B 38 kJ C 170 kJ D 340 kJ

12 Which source of energy uses the production of steam to generate electrical energy?

A hydroelectric
B nuclear
C tides
D waves

13 A car, travelling on a straight horizontal road, has 1.6 MJ of kinetic energy. It accelerates for 20 s
until it has 2.5 MJ of kinetic energy.

What is the average power output used to increase the kinetic energy of the car?

A 45 W B 205 W C 45 kW D 205 kW

14 Which diagram shows an athlete exerting least pressure on the ground?

A B C D

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15 The diagram shows a U-tube manometer containing three liquids: mercury, liquid X and liquid Y.
Neither liquid X or liquid Y mixes with mercury.

liquid X liquid Y

mercury

Which row compares the pressure exerted by liquid X and by liquid Y on the mercury, and the
density of liquid X and the density of liquid Y?

pressure exerted by X and densities of


by Y on the mercury X and of Y

A pressure of X is greater than Y density of X is greater than Y


B pressure of Y is greater than X density of Y is greater than X
C pressure of X and of Y is the same density of X is greater than Y
D pressure of X and of Y is the same density of Y is greater than X

16 Gas molecules exert a pressure when they collide with the walls of a container.

Which statement is correct?

A They experience a change in force which exerts a pressure equal to momentum × area on
the walls.

B They experience a change in force which exerts a pressure equal to momentum on the
area
walls.
C They experience a change in momentum which exerts a pressure equal to force × area on
the walls.

D They experience a change in momentum which exerts a pressure equal to force on the
area
walls.

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17 A thermometer has graduations which start at –10 °C and end at 110 °C.

–10 0 100 110

°C

What is the lower fixed point and what is the upper fixed point of the Celsius scale?

lower fixed point upper fixed point


/ °C / °C

A –10 100
B –10 110
C 0 100
D 0 110

18 A 1 kg block of aluminium requires more thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 °C than a
1 kg block of copper requires.

Why is this?

A Aluminium is a better conductor of thermal energy than copper.


B Aluminium is a poorer conductor of thermal energy than copper.
C Aluminium has a higher specific heat capacity than copper.
D Aluminium has a lower specific heat capacity than copper.

19 Four campers are warming their food on a fire.

They use different rods, each of the same dimensions, to hold their food near the fire.

rod

food

fire

Which material is the best choice to prevent their hands from getting too hot?

A aluminium
B copper
C steel
D wood

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8

20 Two metal cans are identical, except that one has a shiny silver outer surface and the other has a
dull black outer surface. They each have 300 g of water at 80 °C sealed inside them. They are
both in a vacuum, in the darkness of outer space.

How does the temperature of the water in each one change?

A Neither one will cool down.


B The water in the black can cools more slowly than that in the shiny can.
C The water in the shiny can cools more slowly than that in the black can.
D They both cool down at the same rate.

21 The diagram shows a wave before it reflects from a barrier.

Which labelled section of the diagram represents a wavefront?

barrier

C D

22 A vibrating object produces ripples on the surface of a liquid. The object completes 20 vibrations
every second. The spacing of the ripples, from one crest to the next, is 3.0 cm.

What is the speed of the ripples?

A 0.15 cm / s B 6.7 cm / s C 60 cm / s D 120 cm / s

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23 A narrow beam of light is travelling through a transparent liquid. It meets the surface as shown, at
an angle of incidence of 40°. The refractive index of the liquid is 1.5.

air
liquid
40°

What is the angle of refraction as the light enters the air?

A 25° B 27° C 60° D 75°

24 Which diagram correctly represents rays of light passing through a converging lens in a camera?

A B
camera camera

object object
image image
lens lens

C D
camera camera

object object
image image
lens lens

25 What is the speed of X-rays in a vacuum and in air?

in a vacuum in air

A 3.0 × 106 m / s 2.0 × 106 m / s


B 3.0 × 106 m / s 3.0 × 106 m / s
C 3.0 × 108 m / s 2.0 × 108 m / s
D 3.0 × 108 m / s 3.0 × 108 m / s

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10

26 A sound wave passes a point. The air pressure at that point increases and then decreases
300 times every second.

Which descriptions apply to this sound wave?

the type of wave motion the frequency of the sound

A longitudinal outside human hearing range


B longitudinal within human hearing range
C transverse outside human hearing range
D transverse within human hearing range

27 A boy stands 150 m from a wall. He claps and when he hears the echo, he immediately claps
again. He continues this for some time.

Another student has a stop-watch. She starts the watch on the first clap and stops it on the
eleventh clap. The watch reads 10.0 s.

Which value do her measurements give for the speed of sound in air?

A 150 m / s B 170 m / s C 300 m / s D 330 m / s

28 The ends of three metal rods are tested by holding end Q of rod 1 close to the others in turn.

R T

Q S U

rod 1 rod 2 rod 3

The results are as follows.

End Q attracts end R.


End Q attracts end S.
End Q attracts end T.
End Q repels end U.

Which of the metal rods is a magnet?

A rod 1 only
B rod 1 and rod 2
C rod 1 and rod 3
D rod 3 only

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29 A metal sphere is charged by induction. There are four stages W, X, Y and Z in this process.

W a charged rod is brought near to the sphere


X the sphere is earthed
Y the charged rod is taken away from the sphere
Z the earth connection is removed

In which order are the four stages carried out?

A W → X → Y → Z

B W → X → Z → Y

C Z → W → X → Y

D X → Z → W → Y

30 Which electrical quantity is defined in terms of the energy supplied in driving charge round a
complete circuit?

A current
B electromotive force
C potential difference
D power

31 A student sets up a circuit containing a battery of two cells and three lamps, as shown.

– + – +

What is the circuit diagram for this arrangement?

A B C D

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12

32 In which circuit does the lamp light?

A B C D

33 Each potential divider is placed in a circuit with a power supply.

Which potential divider makes the potential difference across component Y increase when the
light intensity increases?

A B C D

X X X X

Y Y Y Y

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34 There are two inputs to the combination of logic gates shown, and one output.

input 1
output
input 2

Which truth table represents the action of this combination of gates?

A B

input 1 input 2 output input 1 input 2 output


0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 1

C D

input 1 input 2 output input 1 input 2 output


0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 0

35 The current in a kettle is 10 A and the kettle is protected by a 13 A fuse.

The owner of the kettle replaces the 13 A fuse with a 3 A fuse.

What happens when the kettle is switched on?

A The fuse melts and the kettle might be damaged.


B The fuse melts and the kettle is undamaged.
C The fuse does not melt and the kettle works correctly.
D The fuse does not melt but the kettle fails to work.

36 Which statement about the direction of a magnetic field at a point is correct?

A It is the direction of the force on a north pole placed at that point.


B It is the direction of the force on a south pole placed at that point.
C It is the direction of the force on a positive charge placed at that point.
D It is the direction of the force on a negative charge placed at that point.

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14

37 A current-carrying coil is placed in a magnetic field.

view from above

coil magnetic field lines

Which effect does the coil experience?

A a change in shape
B a change in weight
C a resultant force
D a turning effect

38 What are isotopes of an element?

A atoms of a different element with a different number of neutrons


B atoms of a different element with a different number of protons
C atoms of the same element with a different number of neutrons
D atoms of the same element with a different number of protons

39 A radioactive isotope of carbon 14C decays by beta emission to give an isotope of nitrogen 14
N
and a beta particle. The equation for the reaction is shown.

14 14
XC → 7N + Y0β
What is the value of X and of Y?

X Y

A 6 –1
B 6 1
C 8 –1
D 8 1

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40 A beta particle is a fast moving electron.

Which statement explains how beta particles are emitted from an atom?

A An electron is emitted as a beta particle from an inner electron shell of the atom.
B An electron is emitted as a beta particle from an outer electron shell of the atom.
C A neutron changes into a proton and a beta particle is emitted from the nucleus.
D A proton changes into a neutron and a beta particle is emitted from the nucleus.

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16

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19


www.dynamicpapers.com

Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7151954492*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB19 06_0625_23/4RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over
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2

1 Which quantity can be measured directly using a micrometer screw gauge?

A the area of a sheet of paper


B the mass of a sheet of paper
C the thickness of a sheet of paper
D the volume of a sheet of paper

2 A brass ball and a feather are released at the same time.

On Earth, the ball reaches the ground first.

On the Moon, they reach the ground at the same time.

What is the explanation for this?

A Both weigh the same on the Moon.


B Both weigh less on the Moon.
C There is a greater air resistance on the Moon.
D There is no air resistance on the Moon.

3 A heavy metal ball falls vertically downwards through air past four equally spaced levels J, K, L
and M.

metal ball

level J

level K

level L

level M

The times taken to fall from one level to the next are measured.

Where is the speed of the ball greatest and which time is shortest?

speed is time is
greatest between shortest between

A J and K J and K
B J and K L and M
C L and M J and K
D L and M L and M

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3

4 On Earth, a spring stretches by 5.0 cm when a mass of 3.0 kg is suspended from one end.

1
The gravitational field strength on the Moon is of that on Earth.
6

Which mass, on the Moon, would stretch the spring by the same extension?

A 0.50 kg B 3.0 kg C 5.0 kg D 18 kg

5 X, Y and Z are three regularly shaped solid objects.

Their dimensions and masses are shown in the diagrams.

object X object Y

2 cm
3 cm
5 cm
10 cm 4 cm
6 cm

200 200
g g

electronic
object Z
balance
1 cm
1 cm

25 cm

50 g

Which objects have the same density?

A X, Y and Z B X and Y only C X and Z only D Y and Z only

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4

6 An experiment is carried out to determine the spring constant for a spring that obeys Hooke’s law.

A load is hung from the spring and the extension of the spring is measured.

Which calculation is used to calculate the spring constant?

A extension
mass of the load

B extension
weight of the load

C mass of the load


extension

weight of the load


D
extension

7 A car is driven from rest on a long straight road. The car engine exerts a constant driving force.

The diagram shows the horizontal forces acting on the car. The resistive forces are proportional
to the speed of the car.

resistive
driving force
forces
(from engine)

Why does the car eventually reach a maximum speed?

A The resistive forces decrease to make the acceleration of the car negative.
B The resistive forces decrease to make the acceleration of the car zero.
C The resistive forces increase to make the acceleration of the car negative.
D The resistive forces increase to make the acceleration of the car zero.

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5

8 A beam of weight 6.0 N is suspended from two strings P and Q.

String P is 30 cm from the left-hand end of the beam, as shown. String Q is not shown.

2.0 N
string P
30 cm

20 cm
beam

6.0 N

The tension in string P is 2.0 N.

What is the tension in string Q and where is it attached so that the beam is in equilibrium?

A 4.0 N at 10.0 cm from the left-hand end


B 4.0 N at 15.0 cm from the left-hand end
C 6.0 N at 10.0 cm from the left-hand end
D 8.0 N at 7.5 cm from the left-hand end

9 How is momentum p calculated in terms of the mass m of a body and its velocity v, and what type
of quantity is p?

equation type of quantity

A p=m×v scalar
B p=m×v vector

C p= m scalar
v

D p= m vector
v

10 An object is in free fall. The change in gravitational potential energy of the body depends upon its
mass m, the change in height ∆h and the gravitational field strength g.

What is the correct expression for the change in gravitational potential energy?
gm g∆h m∆h
A gm∆h B C D
∆h m g

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6

11 A machine is very efficient.

What does this mean?

A It produces a large amount of power.


B It uses very little energy.
C It wastes very little energy.
D It works very quickly.

12 A box is pulled along a floor by a force of 3.0 N.

The friction acting on the box is 1.0 N, as shown.

box

1.0 N 3.0 N

How much kinetic energy does the box gain in moving 2.0 m?

A 2.0 J B 4.0 J C 6.0 J D 8.0 J

13 The diagram shows a stone suspended on a string under the surface of a liquid. The stone
experiences a pressure caused by the liquid.

string

stone

liquid

What would increase the pressure on the stone?

A decreasing the surface area of the stone


B increasing the mass of the stone
C lowering the stone deeper into the liquid
D using a liquid with a lower density

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7

14 Water in a beaker evaporates when it is left on a bench for a period of time.

Increasing the surface area and increasing the temperature of the water each change the rate of
evaporation.

Which row is correct?

increasing the surface area increasing the temperature

A rate of evaporation decreases rate of evaporation decreases


B rate of evaporation decreases rate of evaporation increases
C rate of evaporation increases rate of evaporation decreases
D rate of evaporation increases rate of evaporation increases

15 A night storage heater contains a large block of material that is heated electrically during the
night. During the day the block cools down, releasing thermal energy into the room.

Which thermal capacity and which night-time temperature increase will cause the most energy to
be stored by the block?

thermal capacity night-time


of block temperature increase

A large large
B large small
C small large
D small small

16 100 g of water at 25 °C is poured into an insulating cup. 50 g of ice at 0 °C is added to the water.
The water is stirred until the temperature of the water has fallen to 0 °C.

18 g of ice remains unmelted.

The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J / g °C.

Which value does this experiment give for the specific latent heat of fusion of ice?

A 210 J / g B 330 J / g C 580 J / g D 770 J / g

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8

17 Why does a metal rod conduct thermal energy much better than a similar-sized plastic rod?

A The molecules in the plastic are much closer together than the atoms in the metal.
B The molecules in the plastic are much larger than the atoms in the metal.
C The molecules in the plastic are much more tightly held together than the atoms in the metal.
D The molecular structure in the plastic contains no free electrons, but the metal has free
electrons.

18 The metal surface of a kettle is hot.

What happens to the cool air outside the kettle when it comes into contact with the hot kettle?

A The density of the air decreases and the air falls.


B The density of the air decreases and the air rises.
C The density of the air increases and the air falls.
D The density of the air increases and the air rises.

19 When water waves pass through a gap they diffract.

The diagrams show wavefronts approaching a narrow gap.

In which diagram will the diffraction be least?

A B C D

20 Sound travels through air at a speed of 340 m / s. A source generates sound waves at a frequency
of 1.2 kHz.

What is the wavelength of the sound waves?

A 0.28 m B 3.5 m C 280 m D 410 m

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9

21 Which conditions are necessary for light to be totally internally reflected?

the incident light is in angle of incidence

A the less dense medium less than the critical angle


B the less dense medium greater than the critical angle
C the more dense medium less than the critical angle
D the more dense medium greater than the critical angle

22 A beam of light passes through a vacuum and then enters a liquid. The diagram shows the path it
takes.

40°
vacuum
liquid

25°

The light travels through the vacuum at a speed of 3.0 × 108 m / s.

What is the speed of light in the liquid?

A 1.9 × 108 m / s

B 2.0 × 108 m / s

C 4.6 × 108 m / s

D 4.8 × 108 m / s

23 An eclipse of the Sun happens when the Moon comes between the Earth and the Sun.

Which statement is correct?

A Infra-red radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and ultra-violet radiation.
B Ultra-violet radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and infra-red radiation.
C Visible light from the Sun disappears before ultra-violet radiation and infra-red radiation.
D Infra-red radiation, ultra-violet radiation and visible light from the Sun all disappear at the
same moment.

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10

24 A pulse of sound is produced at the bottom of a boat. The sound travels through the water and is
reflected from a shoal of fish. The sound reaches the boat again after 1.2 s. The speed of sound
in the water is 1500 m / s.

boat

shoal of fish

How far below the bottom of the boat is the shoal of fish?

A 450 m B 900 m C 1800 m D 3600 m

25 Which statement about ultrasound is correct?

A It has a higher frequency than audible sound, and it is a longitudinal wave.


B It has a higher frequency than audible sound, and it is a transverse wave.
C It has a lower frequency than audible sound, and it is a longitudinal wave.
D It has a lower frequency than audible sound, and it is a transverse wave.

26 A metal bar is placed inside a current-carrying coil, as shown in diagram 1.

There is a small current in the coil. The bar holds a few nails, as shown in diagram 2.

nails

diagram 1 diagram 2

When there is no current in the coil, the nails drop off.

Which row is correct?

metal from which effect of a larger


the bar is made current in the coil

A soft iron it makes no difference


B soft iron the bar holds more nails
C steel it makes no difference
D steel the bar holds more nails

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11

27 Diagram 1 shows two thin, uncharged strips of plastic.

Diagram 2 shows the same strips after they have been rubbed with a dry cloth.

strips strips
of plastic of plastic

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which row describes the charge on the strips after rubbing, and the force between the strips after
rubbing?

charge on strips force between strips

A opposite attraction
B opposite repulsion
C the same attraction
D the same repulsion

28 A cell has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 1.5 V.

What does this statement mean?

A The cell converts 1.0 J of energy when driving 1.5 C of charge round a complete circuit.
B The cell converts 1.5 J of energy when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete circuit.
C The cell converts 1.5 J of energy per second when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete
circuit.
D The cell converts 1.5 W of power when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete circuit.

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12

29 Two wires X and Y are made from the same metal and have the same resistance.

Which row identifies a possible pair of values for X and for Y?

length of X diameter of X length of Y diameter of Y


/ cm / mm / cm / mm

A 50 0.40 200 0.10


B 50 0.40 200 0.20
C 50 0.40 200 0.80
D 50 0.40 200 1.60

30 The diagram shows a circuit including a lamp, an electric bell and three switches S1, S2 and S3.

The lamp and bell are not faulty.

S1

S2

S3

The bell is ringing but the lamp is not lit.

Which switches are closed?

A S1 only
B S1 and S2 only
C S1 and S3 only
D S1, S2 and S3

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13

31 A lamp is to be connected in a circuit so that the potential difference (p.d.) across it can be varied
from 0 to 6 V.

Which circuit would be most suitable?

A B

6V 6V

C D

6V 6V

32 A 12 V battery is connected to a combination of 2.0 Ω resistors as shown.

12 V

2.0 Ω
2.0 Ω

2.0 Ω

What is the current in the battery?

A 1.5 A B 2.0 A C 4.0 A D 6.0 A

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14

33 A student is designing a lighting circuit for a dolls’ house. He sets up two different circuits.

Each circuit contains a 12 V power supply and three identical lamps.

Each lamp is designed to operate at normal brightness when connected individually to a 12 V


supply.

12 V power 12 V power
supply supply

12
12

circuit 1 circuit 2

Which statement is correct?

A In circuit 1, each of the lamps is at normal brightness.


B In circuit 1, if one lamp fails, the other lamps remain lit.
C In circuit 2, if one lamp fails, the other lamps remain lit.
D In circuit 2, the current from the power supply is less than in circuit 1.

34 The combination of logic gates shown has two inputs and one output.

input 1
output
input 2

Which single logic gate is equivalent to this combination?

A AND B NOR C NOT D OR

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15

35 A simple wiring diagram for an electric cooker is shown.

electric cooker

metal casing
live
neutral
earth

connection to casing

Why is there a wire connecting the metal case of the cooker to earth?

A It improves the efficiency of the cooker.


B It prevents the metal case from becoming too hot when the cooker is left on.
C It reduces the risk of an electric shock if the live wire touches the metal case.
D The electric cooker will not switch on without it.

36 α-particles are directed at a metal foil.

Most of the particles pass through the foil with little change in direction.

A small proportion of the particles are scattered back through large angles.

What does this evidence suggest about the structure of an atom?

A It consists of a charged centre much smaller than the size of the atom and with little of the
mass of the atom.
B It consists of a negative charge the size of the atom containing small positive charges
scattered through it.
C It consists of a charged centre much smaller than the size of the atom but with most of the
mass of the atom.
D It consists of a positive charge the size of the atom containing small negative charges
scattered through it.

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16

37 A conductor carrying a current is placed in a magnetic field.

In which direction does the force on the conductor act?

current
A

D B

N S
C

38 What is nuclear fission?

A the merging of two nuclei to create a heavier nucleus


B the process by which electrons are removed from an atom
C the process by which stars generate energy
D the splitting of a nucleus to create two smaller nuclei

39 Which statement about γ-radiation is correct?

A It consists of very small charged particles.


B It is a form of electromagnetic radiation.

C It is less penetrating than β-radiation.

D It is more highly ionising than α-radiation.

40 A radium nucleus with nucleon number 226 decays by emitting an α-particle.

The proton number of radium is 88.

What are the nucleon number and proton number for the nucleus produced by this decay?

nucleon number proton number

A 222 86
B 222 87
C 226 86
D 226 87

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 0625/23/M/J/19


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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5638834072*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 14 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB19 11_0625_23/4RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over
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2

1 Which is the best apparatus to use to measure the thickness of a coin?

A balance
B ruler with a millimetre scale
C micrometer screw gauge
D pressure gauge

2 The graph shows how the speed of an object varies with time.

At which labelled time is the object decelerating?

speed

0
0 A B C D
time

3 A car travels at an average speed of 60 km / h for 15 minutes.

How far does the car travel in 15 minutes?

A 4.0 km B 15 km C 240 km D 900 km

4 Which equation shows the relationship between the weight W and the mass m of an object?

m
A W=
g

B W = mg
C W=m+g

g
D W=
m

5 A box of mass 2.0 kg is pulled across a horizontal floor by a force of 6.0 N.

The frictional force acting on the box is 1.0 N.

What is the acceleration of the box?

A 0.40 m / s2 B 2.5 m / s2 C 3.0 m / s2 D 3.5 m / s2

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3

6 Four hollow glass spheres P, Q, R and S each have a mass of 72 g.

Their volumes are given in the table.

volume / cm3

P 55
Q 65
R 75
S 85

Which spheres sink in a liquid of density 0.9 g / cm3?

A P, Q and R B Q, R and S C R and S only D S only

7 The diagram shows a uniform metre rule. The rule is pivoted at its mid-point. A downward force of
4.0 N acts on the rule at the 5 cm mark. The rule is held by a string at the 30 cm mark. The rule is
in equilibrium.

string metre rule


0 cm mark 100 cm mark
5 50

30
pivot

4.0 N

What is the upward force that the string exerts on the rule?

A 0.67 N B 4.0 N C 6.0 N D 9.0 N

8 A ship sails due North at a speed of 20 m / s. A current in the water begins to move from East to
West. The speed of this current is 20 m / s.

What is the magnitude of the resultant velocity of the ship?

A 0m/s B 20 m / s C 28 m / s D 40 m / s

9 The momentum of a body is changed by a force acting on it for a period of time.

Which action increases the change in momentum?

A doubling the force and halving the time


B doubling the force for the same time
C halving both the force and time
D halving the force and doubling the time

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4

10 A toy train P of mass 0.50 kg is travelling along a straight track with a velocity of 3.0 m / s. It
collides with a stationary train Q of mass 1.0 kg. The two trains then stick together.

What is the velocity of the combined trains?

A 1.0 m / s in the same direction as P was travelling originally


B 1.0 m / s in the reverse direction to that in which P was travelling originally
C 1.5 m / s in the same direction as P was travelling originally
D 1.5 m / s in the reverse direction to that in which P was travelling originally

11 Brakes are used to slow down a moving car.

Into which form of energy is most of the kinetic energy converted as the car slows down?

A chemical
B elastic
C thermal
D sound

12 A force of 25 N acts on an object. The work done by the force is 400 J.

How far does the object move in the direction of the force?

A 6.3 cm B 16 cm C 16 m D 10 km

13 A car is moving along a straight horizontal road. The car has 1.6 MJ of kinetic energy. The car
accelerates for 20 s until the kinetic energy of the car increases to 2.5 MJ.

What is the minimum average power developed by the car engine for this acceleration?

A 45 W B 205 W C 45 kW D 205 kW

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5

14 A drawing pin (thumb tack) has a sharp point at one end and a flat surface at the other end.

sharp point flat surface

The pin is pushed into a wooden board.

How do the pressure and the force at the sharp point compare with the pressure and the force on
the flat surface?

force at the sharp point pressure at the sharp point

A greater than on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
B greater than on the flat surface less than on the flat surface
C the same as on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
D the same as on the flat surface less than on the flat surface

15 Which row compares the separation and the motion of the molecules of a hot gas with those of a
cool liquid? (Both the gas and the liquid are at the same pressure.)

separation motion

A greater for a gas faster for a gas


B greater for a gas slower for a gas
C smaller for a gas faster for a gas
D smaller for a gas slower for a gas

16 A fixed mass of gas has a volume of 25 cm3. The pressure of the gas is 100 kPa.

The volume of the gas is slowly decreased by 15 cm3 at constant temperature.

What is the change in pressure of the gas?

A 67 kPa B 150 kPa C 170 kPa D 250 kPa

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6

17 A liquid turns into a gas. This occurs only at one particular temperature, and the change happens
throughout the liquid.

What is this process called?

A boiling
B condensation
C evaporation
D fusion

18 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

liquid thread

°C
–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110

When the temperature of the thermometer rises, the changes produced cause the liquid thread to
move to the right.

Why does this happen when the temperature of the thermometer rises?

A Gases contract and liquids expand.


B Gases contract and solids expand.
C Liquids expand more than gases.
D Liquids expand more than solids.

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7

19 A sealed metal box contains a fixed mass of air. The sides of the box are insulated.

air top

insulation

metal box bottom

A scientist investigates the thermal conductivity of air. She measures how quickly thermal energy
passes between the top and bottom of the box.

Which row gives the correct procedure and conclusion?

procedure conclusion

A heat bottom surface air is a good thermal conductor


B heat bottom surface air is a poor thermal conductor
C heat top surface air is a good thermal conductor
D heat top surface air is a poor thermal conductor

20 In a cold country, the ground is covered in snow. There is a pile of black sand outdoors and its
temperature is the same as that of the snow. A man sprinkles a thin layer of this sand over the
snow.

Why does the black sand help to melt the snow during the day?

A Any thermal energy still left in the sand will melt the snow.
B The black sand is a good absorber of the infrared radiation from the Sun.
C The black sand is a good conductor of thermal energy.
D The black sand lowers the melting point of the snow.

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8

21 A large hill blocks the direct path between a transmitter of radio waves and a receiver, as shown.

transmitter

hill receiver

The receiver picks up the signal from the transmitter even though the radio waves do not travel
through the hill.

Which row is correct?

A possible way A stronger signal is


for this to happen is received using

A diffraction round the hill. longer wavelengths.


B diffraction round the hill. shorter wavelengths.
C refraction round the hill. longer wavelengths.
D refraction round the hill. shorter wavelengths.

22 A person stands 1.0 m in front of a plane mirror. The mirror is moved away from the person at a
speed of 1.0 m / s.

Which statement is correct?

A The image moves away from the person at a speed of 1.0 m / s.


B The image moves away from the person at a speed of 2.0 m / s.
C The image moves towards the person at a speed of 1.0 m / s.
D The image moves towards the person at a speed of 2.0 m / s.

23 White light is refracted and dispersed when it enters a glass prism from air.

Which colour has the lowest speed as it moves through the glass prism?

A blue light
B orange light
C red light
D violet light

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9

24 The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum.

radio
γ-rays X-rays ultraviolet visible light infrared microwaves
waves

increasing ......................

A word is missing from the label below the spectrum.

Which word is missing?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

25 Which row gives a possible set of values for the speed of sound in ice, in water and in steam?

speed of sound speed of sound speed of sound


in ice in water in steam
m/ s m/ s m/ s

A 500 1500 4000


B 1500 4000 500
C 4000 500 1500
D 4000 1500 500

26 A steel bar is placed in an East-West direction for it to be demagnetised. No other magnet is


nearby.

Which method is not suitable?

A Hammering the bar.


B Heating the bar to a very high temperature.
C Slowly taking the bar out of a coil that carries an alternating current.
D Slowly taking the bar out of a coil that carries a direct current.

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10

27 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Why has the rod become positively charged?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained neutrons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost neutrons.

28 There is a current of 3.0 A in a resistor for time t. During time t, a charge of 120 C flows through
the resistor.

What is time t ?

A 0.025 minutes
B 0.025 s
C 40 minutes
D 40 s

29 Identical resistors are connected together to form arrangements X, Y and Z.

X Y Z

What is the correct order of the resistances of the arrangements from the largest to the smallest?

A X→Y→Z

B Y→X→Z

C Z→X→Y

D Z→Y→X

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11

30 Resistors of resistance 1.0 Ω, 2.0 Ω and 3.0 Ω are connected in parallel across the terminals of
a cell.

Which statement is correct?

A The currents in the resistors are equal.


B The sum of the currents in the three resistors is equal to the current in the cell.
C The sum of the potential differences (p.d.’s) across the resistors is equal to the electromotive
force (e.m.f.) of the cell.

D The potential difference across the 3.0 Ω resistor is greater than the potential difference
across the other two resistors.

31 Diagram 1 shows a circuit containing an a.c. power supply, an unknown component X and a fixed
resistor.

The graph in diagram 2 shows how the potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor varies with
time.

X p.d.

0
0 time

diagram 1 diagram 2

What is component X?

A thermistor
B relay coil
C diode
D light-dependent resistor

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12

32 An AND gate has two inputs and one output.

Which truth table represents the action of the AND gate?

A B
input 1 input 2 output input 1 input 2 output

0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1

C D
input 1 input 2 output input 1 input 2 output

0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 0

33 Where must a fuse be connected in a mains electric circuit?

A the earth wire only


B the live wire only
C the neutral wire only
D the live wire and the earth wire

34 A wire XY is connected to a resistor R. The wire is moved in the magnetic field between two
magnetic poles.

In which direction must the wire be moved so that the induced current is in the direction shown?

induced
current
X

S N
C D
R

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13

35 A step-up transformer produces a 60 V a.c. output from a 12 V a.c. input.

There are 50 turns on the secondary coil.

How many turns are there on the primary coil?

A 5 B 10 C 50 D 250

36 An a.c. generator contains a coil that rotates at a rate of 4500 revolutions per minute.

What is the frequency of the alternating current?

A 1.25 Hz B 75 Hz C 150 Hz D 4500 Hz

37 Why are some radioactive sources stored in boxes made from lead?

A Lead absorbs emissions from the radioactive sources.


B Lead decreases the half-life of radioactive sources.
C Lead increases the half-life of radioactive sources.
D Lead repels emissions from the radioactive sources.

38 The diagram represents a neutral atom.

nucleus

Which row identifies each type of particle in the diagram?

A electron neutron proton


B electron proton neutron
C neutron electron proton
D proton electron neutron

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14

39 A thin metal foil is placed in a vacuum. α-particles are fired at the foil and most go straight
through. A very small proportion of the α-particles are deflected through large angles.

What does this provide evidence for?

A α-particles are very small.


B There are negative electrons in each atom.
C There is a tiny nucleus in each atom.
D There are neutrons in each atom.

40 The background count rate measured by a radiation counter is 40 counts per minute.

With the counter close to a radioactive source, the counter reading is 960 counts per minute.

The half-life of the source is 20 minutes.

What is the counter reading one hour later?

A 115 counts per minute


B 120 counts per minute
C 155 counts per minute
D 160 counts per minute

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15

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16

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge IGCSE®

0625/02
*0123456789*

PHYSICS
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) For examination from 2020
SPECIMEN PAPER
45 minutes
Additional materials: Multiple choice answer sheet
Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the answer sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate answer sheet.

Read the instructions on the answer sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This document consists of 23 printed pages and 1 blank page.

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2

1 Which quantity is measured in newton seconds (N s)?

A impulse
B moment
C power
D work done

2 Which measurement can be made using a micrometer screw gauge?

A the air pressure of a tyre


B the diameter of a wire
C the turning effect of a spanner
D the wavelength of microwaves

3 A parachutist is falling at terminal velocity, without her parachute open.

She now opens her parachute.

What is the direction of her motion, and what is the direction of her acceleration, immediately
after she opens her parachute?

direction of motion of direction of acceleration


the parachutist of the parachutist

A downwards downwards
B downwards upwards
C upwards downwards
D upwards upwards

4 An astronaut in an orbiting spacecraft experiences a force due to gravity. This force is less than
when she is on the Earth’s surface.

Compared with being on the Earth’s surface, how do her mass and her weight change when she
goes into orbit?

mass in orbit weight in orbit

A decreases decreases
B decreases unchanged
C unchanged decreases
D unchanged unchanged

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3

5 The diagram shows an experiment to find the density of a liquid.

cm3 cm3
50 50
40 measuring 40
cylinder
30 30
liquid
20 20
10 balance 10

g g

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.5 g / cm3 B 2.0 g / cm3 C 8.0 g / cm3 D 10.0 g / cm3

6 An experiment is carried out to measure the extension of a rubber band for different loads.

The results are shown below.

load / N 0 1.0 2.0 3.0


length / cm 15.2 16.2 18.6
extension / cm 0 1.0 2.1 3.4

Which figure is missing from the table?

A 17.2 B 17.3 C 17.4 D 17.6

7 The diagram shows a satellite that is moving at a uniform rate in a circular orbit around the Earth.

Which statement describes the motion of this satellite?

A It is accelerating because its speed is changing.


B It is accelerating because its velocity is changing.
C It is not accelerating but its speed is changing.
D It is not accelerating but its velocity is changing.

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4

8 Which statement about an object moving in a straight line through air is correct?

A When it accelerates, the resultant force acting on it is zero.


B When it moves at a steady speed, the air resistance acting on it is zero.
C When it moves at a steady speed, the resultant force acting on it is zero.
D When it moves, there is a resultant force acting on it.

9 A beam pivoted at one end has a force of 5.0 N acting vertically upwards on it as shown. The
beam is in equilibrium.

5.0 N

2.0 cm 3.0 cm

pivot

weight
of beam

What is the weight of the beam?

A 2.0 N B 3.0 N C 3.3 N D 5.0 N

10 A car has a mass of 1000 kg and a momentum of 12 000 kg m / s.

What is its kinetic energy?

A 6 kJ
B 12 kJ
C 72 kJ
D 144 kJ

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5

11 Which diagram shows two forces X and Y with their resultant force?

resultant

resultant
Y
X Y

X
A B

resultant

resultant

Y X
Y

C D

12 A ball is dropped on to a hard surface and bounces. It does not bounce all the way back to where
it started, and so has not regained all of its original gravitational potential energy.

ball dropped
from here
ball bounces
to here

hard surface

Which statement accounts for the loss of gravitational potential energy?

A Energy was destroyed as the ball hit the ground.


B Energy was destroyed as the ball travelled through the air.
C The chemical energy and elastic energy of the ball have increased.
D The internal (heat) energy of the ball and its surroundings has increased.

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6

13 The Sun is the original source of energy for many of our energy resources.

Which energy resource does not originate from the Sun?

A geothermal
B hydroelectric
C waves
D wind

14 A dam across a lake is divided into two sections by a rock. Section X is longer than section Y but
the two sections are otherwise identical. The water in the lake by the dam is the same depth
everywhere. The diagram shows a view from above of the lake and the dam.

section X of dam

water in
lake
rock

section Y of dam

The water creates a total force on each section of the dam and an average pressure on each
section of the dam.

Which statement is correct?

A The average pressure on X equals the average pressure on Y.


B The average pressure on X is less than the average pressure on Y.
C The total force on X equals the total force on Y.
D The total force on X is less than the total force on Y.

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7

15 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer alongside a mercury manometer. The
manometer contains some trapped gas.
cm
90
vacuum
80

70
trapped
gas
60

50

76 cm 40
mercury
30

20

10

What is the pressure of the trapped gas?

A 10 cm of mercury
B 50 cm of mercury
C 66 cm of mercury
D 86 cm of mercury

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8

16 Very small pollen grains are suspended in a beaker of water. A bright light shines from the side.

Small, bright dots of light are seen through a microscope. The dots move in rapidly changing,
random directions.

eye

microscope

light

pollen grains
in water

What are the bright dots?

A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains


B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

17 A sealed gas cylinder is left outside on a hot, sunny day.

What happens to the average speed of the gas molecules and to the pressure of the gas in the
cylinder as the temperature of the gas rises?

average speed of pressure of gas in


gas molecules cylinder

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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9

18 The diagram shows four beakers A, B, C and D. The beakers contain different amounts of the
same liquid at the same temperature. The beakers are left next to each other on a laboratory
bench overnight. The diagrams are all drawn to the same scale.

From which beaker does the largest quantity of liquid evaporate?

A B C D

19 Which line in the table shows the relative expansion of the three states of matter from the most
expansion to the least expansion?

most expansion least expansion

A solids > liquids > gases


B solids > gases > liquids
C gases > liquids > solids
D gases > solids > liquids

20 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

glass bulb stem

–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 °C

liquid liquid
thread

Which two features both affect the sensitivity of the thermometer?

A mass of liquid and diameter of liquid thread


B mass of liquid and length of stem
C thickness of glass bulb and diameter of liquid thread
D thickness of glass bulb and length of stem

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10

21 A student wishes to calculate the specific heat capacity of copper.

He has a block of copper and an electrical heater. He knows the power of the heater.

Which other apparatus does he need?

balance stop watch thermometer

A 9 9 9 key
B 9 9 8 9 = needed
C 9 8 9 8 = not needed
D 8 9 9

22 A mass of 0.20 kg of a substance is initially solid.

It is heated at a steady rate of 500 W.

The graph shows how the temperature of the substance changes with time.

temperature
/ °C

0
0 100 300 time / s

What is the specific latent heat of fusion of the substance?

A 20 000 J / kg
B 30 000 J / kg
C 500 000 J / kg
D 750 000 J / kg

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11

23 The diagram shows some ice being used to lower the temperature of some warm water.

ice

warm water
glass

What is the main process by which the water at the bottom of the glass becomes cool?

A condensation
B conduction
C convection
D radiation

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12

24 The diagrams show water waves that move more slowly after passing into shallow water.

Which diagram shows what happens to the waves?

A B
fast slow fast slow

deep shallow deep shallow


water water water water

C D
fast slow fast slow

deep shallow deep shallow


water water water water

25 The diagram shows a ray of monochromatic light passing through a semi-circular glass block.

50° ray emerges in air


close to glass
surface

incident reflected
ray glass ray
air

What is the refractive index of the glass?

A 0.64 B 0.77 C 1.31 D 1.56

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13

26 An object O is placed close to a thin converging lens.

The diagram represents three rays from the top of O passing through the lens.

Which type of image is produced by the lens when the object O is in this position?

A real and diminished


B real and enlarged
C virtual and diminished
D virtual and enlarged

27 An echo-sounder on a ship produces a pulse of sound. The echo is received by the echo-sounder
after two seconds.

ship

echo-sounder

sea bed

The speed of sound in sea-water is 1500 m / s.

What is the depth of the sea-water below the ship?

A 750 m B 1500 m C 3000 m D 6000 m

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14

28 The diagram shows apparatus that can be used to make a magnet.

power supply

metal

coil

Which metal and which power supply are used to make a permanent magnet?

metal power supply

A iron 6 V a.c.
B iron 6 V d.c.
C steel 6 V a.c.
D steel 6 V d.c.

29 A positively charged plastic rod is placed just above a thick metal plate. The metal plate rests on
an insulator and is connected to the earth by a wire.

positive rod metal plate

+ + + + + +
earthing wire

insulator

A student disconnects the earthing wire and then removes the positively charged rod.

The experiment is repeated. This time the student removes the positively charged rod and then
removes the earthing wire.

Which statement is correct?

A When the earthing wire is disconnected first, the metal plate becomes positively charged.
B When the earthing wire is disconnected first, the metal plate becomes negatively charged.
C When the plastic rod is removed first, the metal plate becomes positively charged.
D When the plastic rod is removed first, the metal plate becomes negatively charged.

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15

30 The resistance of a wire depends on its length l and on its cross-sectional area A.

The resistance is

A directly proportional to l and directly proportional to A.


B directly proportional to l and inversely proportional to A.
C inversely proportional to l and directly proportional to A.

D inversely proportional to l and inversely proportional to A.

31 In the circuit shown, the ammeter reads 2.0 A and the voltmeter reads 12 V.

12 V

6.0 Ω

How much energy is transferred by the resistor in 10 seconds?

A 2.4 J
B 14.4 J
C 240 J
D 1440 J

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16

32 The diagram shows part of an electrical circuit.

3.0 A 4.0 Ω

A
2.0 Ω

The current in the 4.0 Ω resistor is 3.0 A.

What is the current in the ammeter?

A 4.5 A
B 6.0 A
C 9.0 A
D 12.0 A

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17

33 The circuit diagram shows a thermistor in a potential divider. A voltmeter is connected across the
thermistor.

The graph shows how the resistance of the thermistor changes with temperature.

resistance

temperature

As the thermistor becomes warmer, what happens to its resistance and what happens to the
reading on the voltmeter?

resistance voltmeter reading

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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18

34 A circuit-breaker is designed to protect a circuit which usually carries a current of 2 A.

The time taken to break the circuit depends on the current, as shown in the graph.

160
time taken
140
to break the
circuit / s 120
100
80
60
40
20
0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20

current / A

What happens when the current in the circuit is 2 A and what happens when the current is 18 A?

when the current is 2 A when the current is 18 A

A the circuit breaks in less than 5 seconds the circuit breaks in less than 5 seconds
B the circuit breaks in less than 5 seconds the circuit does not break
C the circuit does not break the circuit breaks in less than 5 seconds
D the circuit does not break the circuit does not break

© UCLES 2017 0625/02/SP/20


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19

35 A solenoid is connected in series with a sensitive ammeter. The N pole of a magnet is placed
next to one end of the solenoid, marked X.

solenoid

N X

magnet

First, the N pole of the magnet is pushed towards X, then the magnet is pulled away from X.
During both stages the ammeter deflects.

Which type of magnetic pole is induced at X during these two stages?

as N pole moves as N pole moves away


towards X from X

A N pole N pole
B N pole S pole
C S pole N pole
D S pole S pole

© UCLES 2017 0625/02/SP/20 [Turn over


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20

36 The diagram shows a transformer.

soft-iron core

primary secondary
coil coil

Which row describes the magnetic field in the soft-iron core and the magnetic field in the
secondary coil when the transformer is operating?

magnetic field
in soft-iron core in secondary coil

A changing changing
B changing constant
C constant changing
D constant constant

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21

37 The graph shows the output of an a.c. generator. The coil in the generator rotates 20 times in one
second.

+1
output
p.d. / V 0
0 0.05 0.10 time / s
–1

The speed of rotation of the coil steadily increases.

Which graph best shows how the output changes?

+1
output
A p.d. / V 0
0 0.05 0.10 time / s
–1

+1
output
B p.d. / V 0
0 0.05 0.10 time / s
–1

+2
output
p.d. / V
+1

C 0
0 0.05 0.10 time / s
–1

–2

+2
output
p.d. / V
+1

D 0
0 0.05 0.10 time / s
–1

–2

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22

38 The diagram shows a wire placed between two magnetic poles of equal strength.

A current passes through the wire in the direction shown. The current causes a downward force
on the wire.

wire

direction
of force
direction
of current

What is the arrangement of the magnetic poles?

S N
A

N S
B

N N
C

S S
D

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23

39 A beam of γ-rays passes between two charged metal plates as shown in the diagram.

γ-rays

How do the γ-rays pass between the two charged plates?

A The rays are deflected in a direction perpendicular to the page


B The rays are deflected towards the negative plate.
C The rays are deflected towards the positive plate.
D The rays will continue in the same direction.

40 A powder contains 400 mg of a radioactive isotope that emits α-particles.

The half-life of the isotope is 5 days.

What mass of this isotope remains after 10 days?

A 0 mg B 40 mg C 100 mg D 200 mg

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24

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0625/02/SP/20


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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*6305326820*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 03_0625_22/5RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
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2

1 The diagram shows a rectangular metal sheet close to two rulers.

30

metal sheet
20

10

cm
0

0 cm 10 20 30 40 50

What is the area of the metal sheet?

A 700 cm2 B 875 cm2 C 900 cm2 D 1125 cm2

2 A ball falls from rest through the air towards the ground. The diagram shows two forces acting on
the ball.

air resistance

gravitational force

As the ball falls, the air resistance increases.

Which statement is correct?

A The acceleration of the ball decreases.


B The acceleration of the ball increases.
C The speed of the ball decreases.
D The gravitational force on the ball decreases.

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20


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3

3 A compressed spring projects a ball horizontally in a vacuum chamber.

On the Earth, the ball reaches the chamber floor 4.0 m in front of the spring.

An identical experiment is done on the Moon. The gravitational field strength is lower on the
Moon than on the Earth.

The experimental results on the Moon are compared with those on the Earth.

Which statement is correct?

A The horizontal speed is greater on the Moon and the ball hits the floor 4.0 m in front of the
spring.
B The horizontal speed is greater on the Moon and the ball hits the floor more than 4.0 m in
front of the spring.
C The horizontal speed is the same on the Moon and the ball hits the floor 4.0 m in front of the
spring.
D The horizontal speed is the same on the Moon and the ball hits the floor more than 4.0 m in
front of the spring.

4 Diagram 1 shows a piece of flexible material that contains many pockets of air. Diagram 2 shows
the same piece of flexible material after it has been compressed so that its volume decreases.

diagram 1 diagram 2
(before compression) (after compression)

What happens to the mass and to the weight of the flexible material when it is compressed?

mass weight

A increases increases
B increases no change
C no change increases
D no change no change

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20 [Turn over


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4

5 The graph shows how the strength of the Earth’s gravitational field varies as the distance from
the Earth’s surface increases.

strength of
the Earth’s
gravitational
field

0
0 distance from the
surface of the Earth

Which row describes the effect that this has on the mass and on the weight of an object as it
moves further away from the Earth’s surface?

mass of object weight of object

A decreases decreases
B decreases unchanged
C unchanged decreases
D unchanged unchanged

6 A measuring cylinder contains 40 cm3 of water.

A solid metal ball is dropped into the water and the water level rises to 56 cm3.

The mass of the ball is 80 g.

What is the density of the metal from which the ball is made?

A 0.20 g / cm3 B 1.4 g / cm3 C 2.0 g / cm3 D 5.0 g / cm3

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20


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5

7 A car travels along a horizontal road at constant speed. Three horizontal forces act on the car.
The diagram shows two of these forces.

direction of
motion forwards

air resistance force from engine


300 N 1500 N

What is the size and the direction of the third horizontal force acting on the car?

A 1200 N backwards
B 1200 N forwards
C 1800 N backwards
D 1800 N forwards

8 A car is driven round a bend in the road at a constant speed.

car
direction of the
motion of the car

What is the direction of the resultant force on the car when it is going round the bend?

A parallel to the motion and in the same direction as the motion


B parallel to the motion and in the opposite direction to the motion
C perpendicular to the motion and towards the inside of the bend
D perpendicular to the motion and towards the outside of the bend

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20 [Turn over


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6

9 An athlete with mass 70 kg trains by performing press-ups with a load on his back. The diagram
shows the perpendicular distances involved.

The centre of mass of the athlete is CM and the centre of mass of the load he is carrying is CL.

0.1 m 0.3 m 0.9 m

load
CL

CM

The mass of the load is 6.0 kg.

What is the upward force exerted by his two arms?

A 54 N B 76 N C 540 N D 760 N

10 An air pistol fires a pellet forwards.

What is the motion of the air pistol?

A The air pistol moves backwards with speed greater than the pellet.
B The air pistol moves backwards with speed less than the pellet.
C The air pistol moves forward with speed greater than the pellet.
D The air pistol moves forward with speed less than the pellet.

11 Which row describes an advantage and a disadvantage of wind turbines?

advantage disadvantage

A no fuel needed harmful gases released


B variable supply fuel needed
C no harmful gases released variable supply
D constant supply noisy

12 An electric motor provides 900 J of useful output energy. The efficiency of the motor is 60 %.

How much electrical energy is supplied to the motor?

A 15 J B 540 J C 1500 J D 5400 J

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20


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7

13 A crane takes 2.0 minutes to lift a 500 kg load to the top of a building that is 12 m high.

What is the useful power developed against gravity by the crane?

A 21 W B 50 W C 500 W D 30 000 W

14 A skier is standing still on a flat area of snow.

skis

The weight of the skier is 550 N. The total area of his skis in contact with the ground is 0.015 m2.

What is the pressure exerted on the ground by the skier?

A 0.83 N / m2 B 8.3 N / m2 C 3700 N / m2 D 37 000 N / m2

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8

15 A tall cylinder is partly filled with two liquids which do not mix. The two liquids have different
densities. A student measures the pressure due to the liquids at different depths.

position P

two liquids with


different densities
position Q

Which graph shows how the liquid pressure varies between positions P and Q?

A B
Q
Q
pressure pressure

P P
depth depth

C D
Q
pressure pressure

P Q

P
depth depth

16 When pollen grains in water are viewed through a microscope, they are seen to be in continuous,
rapid random motion.

What causes a pollen grain to move in this way?

A convection currents in the water


B bombardment by a single molecule of water
C uneven bombardment on different sides by water molecules
D collision with another pollen grain due to their kinetic energies

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9

17 A student measures the mass of warm water in an open container over two minutes. The
container is kept at a constant temperature. The results are in the table.

time / minutes mass / g

0.0 33.9
0.5 30.6
1.0 27.6
1.5 24.9
2.0 22.5

Why does the mass of the water change?

A The water evaporates.


B The water freezes.
C The water condenses.
D The water boils.

18 Which points are the fixed points of the liquid-in-glass thermometer shown?

–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110


°C

A the beginning and end points of the column of liquid

B the points marked –10 °C and 110 °C

C the points marked 0 °C and 100 °C


D the top and bottom points of the thermometer bulb

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10

19 The specific heat capacities of aluminium, iron, ethanol and water are given.

specific heat capacity


substance
J / kg °C

aluminium 900
iron 450
ethanol 2400
water 4200

1 kg of each metal is put into 5 kg of each liquid.

The starting temperature of each metal is 60 °C. The starting temperature of each liquid is 10 °C.

Which example has the highest final temperature?

metal liquid

A aluminium ethanol
B iron ethanol
C aluminium water
D iron water

20 Metals are good thermal conductors.

Insulators are poor thermal conductors.

Which description of the mechanism of thermal conductivity is correct?

A In insulators, conduction takes place by electron transfer and molecular vibrations.


B In insulators, conduction takes place by electron transfer only.
C In metals, conduction takes place by electron transfer and molecular vibrations.
D In metals, conduction takes place by electron transfer only.

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11

21 A teacher shows his class a polystyrene cup. The cup is made from thick plastic with lots of tiny
air bubbles in it.

He asks the class why the cup is so good at keeping a hot drink warm. Three suggestions are
made.

1 It contains air which is a poor thermal conductor.


2 The air is trapped in tiny bubbles so very little convection is possible.
3 The plastic is a poor thermal conductor.

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

22 A boy jumps into an indoor swimming pool. He notices that the water appears to get colder as he
goes deeper underwater. This is due to convection.

Which statement is correct?

A Cold water is more dense than warm water so it sinks to the bottom of the pool.
B Warm water is more dense than cold water so it rises to the surface of the pool.
C The molecules in cold water have more kinetic energy than the molecules in warm water so
they move to the bottom of the pool faster.
D The molecules in warm water are closer together than the molecules in cold water so they
rise to the surface of the pool.

23 Four students A, B, C and D, investigate the diffraction of water waves through a gap.

Each student uses a different gap size and a different wavelength for the water waves.

Which student produces the waves which have the most diffraction?

gap size wavelength


/ cm / cm

A 2.0 1.8
B 3.0 2.1
C 4.0 2.0
D 5.0 0.9

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12

24 The diagrams show examples of wave motion.

1 2
ripple tank

drum

waves on water waves in air

3 4

waves on a rope waves in a spring

Which waves are longitudinal?

A 1 only B 2 and 3 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 4 only

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13

25 Which diagram shows how the light from a candle is reflected by a mirror, and shows the position
of the image formed?

A B

image of image of
candle candle
candle candle

eye

eye
mirror mirror

C D

candle candle

image of
candle eye

image of eye
candle
mirror mirror

26 A converging lens can be used as a magnifying glass.

What will be the nature of the image?

A real, inverted, diminished


B real, upright, enlarged
C virtual, inverted, enlarged
D virtual, upright, enlarged

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14

27 The wavelength of blue light changes from 4.7 × 10–7 m to 3.5 × 10–7 m as it passes from air to
water.

What is the speed of this light in water?

A 7.4 × 107 m / s

B 1.3 × 108 m / s

C 2.2 × 108 m / s

D 3.0 × 108 m / s

28 The diagram shows compressions and rarefactions in air as a sound wave moves from left to
right.

rarefaction compression

A quieter sound of the same frequency is made.

What will happen to the number of particles in a region of rarefaction and in a region of
compression?

number of particles in number of particles in


region of rarefaction region of compression

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

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15

29 The diagrams show three different metal rods P, Q and R, inside coils of wire.

Small iron nails are placed on a wooden bench under the rods.

Diagram 1 shows the situation when there are electric currents in the wires.

Diagram 2 shows the situation when the currents are switched off.

diagram 1
P Q R

current
in coils

wooden
bench

diagram 2
P Q R

no
current
in coils
wooden
bench

Which row correctly identifies the metal rods?

P Q R

A copper soft iron steel


B soft iron copper steel
C steel soft iron copper
D copper steel soft iron

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16

30 Which row describes conventional current and electron flow in a circuit containing a cell?

conventional current electron flow


A from the negative terminal of the cell from the negative terminal of the cell
to the positive terminal of the cell to the positive terminal of the cell
B from the negative terminal of the cell from the positive terminal of the cell to
to the positive terminal of the cell the negative terminal of the cell
C from the positive terminal of the cell to from the negative terminal of the cell
the negative terminal of the cell to the positive terminal of the cell
D from the positive terminal of the cell to from the positive terminal of the cell to
the negative terminal of the cell the negative terminal of the cell

31 A student makes four resistors using different pieces of wire. The wires have different diameters
and lengths. All the pieces of wire are made of the same material.

Which piece of wire will make the resistor with the largest resistance?

diameter / mm length / cm

A 0.8 10
B 0.8 17
C 2.0 10
D 2.0 17

32 A student is to determine the resistance of resistor R. She uses a circuit including a voltmeter and
an ammeter.

Which circuit should be used?

A B C D

V A V V A
R R R R

A A V

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17

33 The diagram shows a battery connected to two resistors. Three ammeters M1, M2 and M3 are
connected in the circuit.

M1 A A M3

A
M2

Ammeter M1 reads 1.0 A.

What are the readings on M2 and on M3?

reading on reading on
M2 / A M3 / A
A 0.0 0.0
B 0.5 0.5
C 0.5 1.0
D 1.0 1.0

34 A cell is connected to a parallel combination of a 2.0 Ω resistor and a 4.0 Ω resistor. The current
in the 4.0 Ω resistor is 1.0 A.

2.0 Ω

4.0 Ω

1.0 A

What is the current in the cell?

A 1.0 A B 1.5 A C 2.0 A D 3.0 A

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18

35 The two inputs of a NAND gate are joined together.

input output

Which truth table represents the action of this gate?

A B C D

input output input output input output input output

0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1
1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1

36 The diagram shows a transformer that has an output voltage of 12 V.

primary coil with


1000 turns soft iron core

240 V a.c. 12 V a.c.


input output

secondary coil

How many turns of wire are in the secondary coil?

A 12 B 20 C 50 D 20 000

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19

37 The diagrams show different particles moving through a magnetic field.

Which particle experiences a magnetic force acting up out of the plane of the paper?

A B

proton electron

C D
proton electron

38 When Rutherford bombarded thin gold foil with α-particles, he found that some α-particles were
deflected through large angles.

Which statement explains this deflection?

A Most of the atom consists of empty space.


B All of the positive charge and most of the mass of the gold atom are concentrated in a small
volume.
C Positive charge in the gold atom is spread evenly throughout the atom.
D All of the negative charge is concentrated at its centre.

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20

39 The diagram shows the path followed by α-particles as they pass between two charged plates.
They are deflected downwards.

+ + + + + + + + +

β-particles

α-particles

– – – – – – – – –

What happens to β-particles passing through the same electric field?

A They are deflected downwards more than the α-particles.


B They are deflected upwards.
C They are not deflected at all.

D They are deflected downwards by the same amount as the α-particles.

40 The graph shows the count rate from a radioactive source over a period of time.

2000
count rate
counts / s

1500

1000

500

0
0 1 2 3
time / hours

What is the half-life of the source?

A 0.5 hour B 1.0 hour C 1.5 hours D 3.0 hours

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0625/22/F/M/20


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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*4570649359*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 06_0625_23/3RP
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2

1 Diagram 1 shows a solid, rectangular-sided block.

top

front side

diagram 1

Diagram 2 shows the same block from the front and from the side.
7
6
5
4

front side
3
2
cm 1

cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22

diagram 2

Metre rules have been shown close to the edges of the block.

What is the volume of the block?

A 120 cm3 B 168 cm3 C 264 cm3 D 1155 cm3

© UCLES 2020 0625/23/M/J/20


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3

2 A student investigates the motion of a ball rolling down a slope.

The diagram shows the speed v of the ball at different times t.

t = 0s
v = 0 cm / s
t = 0.2 s
v = 2.8 cm / s
t = 0.4 s
ball v = 5.1 cm / s t = 0.6 s
v = 7.0 cm / s

Which statement describes the motion of the ball?

A The acceleration is not constant.


B The acceleration is negative.
C The speed is decreasing.
D The velocity is constant.

3 Which statement about acceleration is correct?

A It is related to the changing speed of an object.


B It is the distance an object travels in one second.
C It is the force acting on an object divided by the distance it travels in one second.
D It is the force acting on an object when it is near to the Earth.

4 Which statement correctly describes the effects of placing a heavy load in a car?

A It is easier to accelerate the car and easier to bring the car to rest.
B It is easier to accelerate the car but more difficult to bring the car to rest.
C It is more difficult to accelerate the car and more difficult to bring the car to rest.
D It is more difficult to accelerate the car but easier to bring the car to rest.

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4

5 Which row gives the correct weight for the mass shown?

The value of g is 10 N / kg.

mass / kg weight / N

A 2 20
B 10 1
C 10 10
D 20 2

6 A rectangular gymnasium is 50 m long, 25 m wide and 8.0 m high.

The density of air is 1.2 kg / m3.

What is the best estimate of the mass of air in the gymnasium?

A 0.00012 kg B 100 kg C 8300 kg D 12 000 kg

7 Which moving object has a resultant force acting on it?

A a diver rising vertically through water at constant speed


B an aircraft circling an airport at constant speed
C a parachutist descending vertically at terminal velocity
D a train going up a straight slope at constant speed

8 Which quantity is not a vector?

A acceleration
B temperature
C velocity
D weight

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5

9 A ball falls vertically to the floor and rebounds vertically upwards.

Just before it hits the floor, its speed is 4.0 m / s.

As it rebounds, its speed is 3.0 m / s.

The mass of the ball is 0.50 kg.

What is the change in momentum of the ball?

A 0.50 kg m / s downwards
B 0.50 kg m / s upwards
C 3.5 kg m / s downwards
D 3.5 kg m / s upwards

10 A mass bounces up and down on a steel spring. The diagram shows the mass and the spring at
different points during the motion.

highest mass mass


point moving moving
down up

lowest
point

At which point does the mass have the least gravitational potential energy and at which point is
the most elastic energy stored in the spring?

least amount of
most elastic energy
gravitational
stored in spring
potential energy

A mass moving down mass moving up


B mass moving down lowest point
C lowest point mass moving up
D lowest point lowest point

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6

11 The velocity v of an object increases as it falls towards the ground.

Which quantity is directly proportional to v2?

A the speed of the object


B the gravitational potential energy of the object
C the kinetic energy of the object
D the momentum of the object

12 The diagram shows a solid block resting on a bench. The dimensions of the block are shown.

40 cm
20 cm
Q

R bench
80 cm P

On which labelled surface should the block rest to produce the smallest pressure on the bench?

A P
B Q
C R
D P, Q and R produce the same pressure

13 A pipe full of water connects a water supply on a hill to a tap lower down the hill.

The length of the pipe is 500 m. The height of the supply above the tap is 100 m.

The density of the water is 1000 kg / m3. The effect of atmospheric pressure is negligible.

What is the water pressure at the tap?

A 100 000 Pa
B 500 000 Pa
C 1 000 000 Pa
D 5 000 000 Pa

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7

14 When a molecule rebounds from a wall, a force is exerted on the wall.

What causes this force?

A the kinetic energy gained by the molecule


B the kinetic energy lost by the molecule
C the change of momentum of the molecule
D the change of speed of the molecule

15 The relationship between pressure p and volume V of a gas is given as pV = constant.

Under which conditions for the mass of a gas and for its temperature does the equation hold?

mass temperature

A changing changing
B changing constant
C constant changing
D constant constant

16 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

X Y

Which row gives the correct labels for the thermometer?

X Y

A water narrow tube of uniform diameter


B alcohol narrow tube of uniform diameter
C water this end immersed in substance to be measured
D alcohol this end immersed in substance to be measured

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8

17 The diagrams show four blocks of steel. The blocks are all drawn to the same scale.

The same quantity of thermal energy is given to each block.

Which block shows the greatest rise in temperature?

A B C D

18 Why are metals better conductors of thermal energy than non-metals?

A They contain free electrons.


B Their molecules are further apart.
C Their molecules vibrate at a higher frequency.
D They have smoother surfaces.

19 The diagram shows a vacuum flask used to keep a liquid warm.

airtight lid

outer cover

vacuum

silvered walls

Which methods of heat loss are reduced by the vacuum between the silvered walls?

A conduction only
B conduction and convection only
C convection and radiation only
D conduction, convection and radiation

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9

20 An earthquake-monitoring station records the arrival of 16 complete waves of an earthquake


wave in 20 s.

The speed of the earthquake wave is 6.0 km / s.

What is the wavelength of the earthquake wave?

A 1.3 × 10–4 m

B 2.1 × 10–4 m

C 4.8 × 103 m

D 7.5 × 103 m

21 The diagram shows a wave.

8 cm

3 cm

6 cm

4 cm

What are the amplitude and the wavelength of this wave?

amplitude / cm wavelength / cm

A 3 4
B 3 8
C 6 4
D 6 8

22 Which statement is correct?

A The speed of light in glass is equal to the speed of light in a vacuum multiplied by the
refractive index of glass.
B The incident angle of a light ray at an air-glass surface is the angle between the ray and the
glass surface.

C The sine of the critical angle at an air-glass surface is equal to 1 .


refractive index of glass
D The angle of refraction for light passing through an air-glass surface is proportional to the
angle of incidence at that surface.

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10

23 Which statement about converging lenses is correct?

A A real image of an object projected onto a screen by a converging lens is always inverted.
B The image formed by a converging lens is always upright.
C The image formed by a converging lens when used as a magnifying glass is a real image.
D Parallel rays entering a converging lens are focused at a distance greater than the focal
length from the lens.

24 An intruder alarm sensor detects that a person is warmer than his surroundings.

Which type of electromagnetic wave does the sensor detect?

A infrared
B radio
C ultraviolet
D visible light

25 Two people are standing outdoors on either side of a high wall.

person 1 person 2

Person 1 can hear person 2 talking although he cannot see her.

Which statement explains this?

A The sound waves have diffracted around the wall.


B The sound waves have passed unaffected through the wall.
C The sound waves have reflected around the wall.
D The sound waves have refracted around the wall.

© UCLES 2020 0625/23/M/J/20


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11

26 Four nails A, B, C and D are tested to find which makes the strongest permanent magnet.

One of the nails is placed against a bar magnet and the number of paper clips which the nail can
support is recorded.

nail
N S
bar magnet

paper clips

The bar magnet is then removed and the number of paper clips remaining attached to the nail is
recorded. Each nail is tested individually.

Which nail becomes the strongest permanent magnet?

number of paper clips attached to the nail


bar magnet present bar magnet removed

A 2 0
B 2 1
C 4 3
D 5 2

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12

27 The diagrams show a magnetised steel rod inside a solenoid connected to a potentiometer.

In diagram 1, the potentiometer is connected to a d.c. power supply.

In diagram 2, the potentiometer is connected to an a.c. power supply.

magnetised magnetised
steel steel

P Q R S

d.c. a.c.

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which action would demagnetise the piece of steel?

A In diagram 1, move the potentiometer slide from P to Q.


B In diagram 1, move the potentiometer slide from Q to P.
C In diagram 2, move the potentiometer slide from R to S.
D In diagram 2, move the potentiometer slide from S to R.

28 The diagram shows a positively charged conducting sphere and a wire connected to earth.

positively charged sphere


+
+ +
wire + +
+

earth
insulating support

What happens when the wire is touched onto the sphere?

A Electrons flow from earth to the sphere.


B Electrons flow from the sphere to earth.
C Positive charges flow from earth to the sphere.
D Positive charges flow from the sphere to earth.

© UCLES 2020 0625/23/M/J/20


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13

29 A student uses the circuit shown to determine the resistance of two identical resistors.

The voltmeter reading is 2.2 V and the ammeter reading is 0.25 A.

What is the resistance of each resistor?

A 0.275 Ω B 0.55 Ω C 4.4 Ω D 8.8 Ω

30 There is a current of 2.0 A in a resistor of resistance 8.0 Ω.

How much power is dissipated in the resistor?

A 0.25 W B 4.0 W C 16 W D 32 W

31 The lamps, the diodes and the batteries in the circuits are identical.

In which circuit does the ammeter give the greatest reading?

A B C D

A A A
A

32 Two resistors are connected in series with a power supply.

Which statement about the circuit is correct?

A The current from the supply is greater than the current in each resistor.
B The current from the supply is equal to the current in each resistor.
C The current from the supply is less than the current in each resistor.
D The current from the supply is the sum of the currents in each resistor.

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14

33 Which two logic gates each have a high output when both of their inputs are high?

A AND and OR
B AND and NOR
C NAND and NOR
D NAND and OR

34 The diagram shows a series of logic gates and part of its corresponding truth table.

P R
Q

P Q R S T

0 0 0 0 1
0 1
1 0 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 0

What are the missing values in row 2 of the truth table?

A 010 B 011 C 100 D 111

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15

35 The graphs show how the currents in three circuits vary with time.

circuit 1 circuit 2
1.5 1.5
current / A 1.0 current / A 1.0
0.5 0.5
0.0 0.0
–0.5 –0.5
–1.0 –1.0
–1.5 –1.5
time time

circuit 3
1.5
current / A 1.0
0.5
0.0
–0.5
–1.0
–1.5
time

In which circuits is there a direct current?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

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16

36 The coil of a simple a.c. generator rotates steadily in a uniform magnetic field.

The diagram shows the position of the coil at time t = 0.

coil

N S

Which graph shows the output voltage for one revolution of the coil?

A B

V V

0 0
0 t 0 t

C D

V V

0 0
0 t 0 t

37 What occurs during nuclear fusion?

A Two light atomic nuclei join together and emit energy.


B Two light atomic nuclei join together and absorb energy.
C A heavy atomic nucleus splits and emits energy.
D A heavy atomic nucleus splits and absorbs energy.

© UCLES 2020 0625/23/M/J/20


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17

38 A radioactive material has a half-life of 20 days.

A sample of the material contains 8.0 × 1010 atoms.

How many atomic nuclei have decayed after 60 days?

A 1.0 × 1010 B 4.0 × 1010 C 6.0 × 1010 D 7.0 × 1010

39 A thin sheet of paper is placed between a radioactive source and a radiation detector. The count
rate falls to a very low reading.

paper

detector

counter
source

From this result, which type of radiation is the source emitting?

A α-particles

B β-particles

C γ-rays
D X-rays

40 α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays are emitted by radioactive nuclei when they decay.

Which emissions can be deflected by an electric field?

A α-particles and β-particles only

B β-particles and γ-rays only

C γ-rays and α-particles only

D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

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18

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2020 0625/23/M/J/20


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19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2020 0625/23/M/J/20


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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0625/23/M/J/20


www.dynamicpapers.com

Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*8629790535*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 11_0625_23/4RP
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2

1 A micrometer screw gauge reads 0.02 mm when the jaws are fully closed. It reads 0.56 mm when
measuring the diameter of a metal wire.

What is the diameter of the wire?

A 0.36 mm B 0.54 mm C 0.56 mm D 0.58 mm

2 Object P moves at a constant speed of 5 m / s repeatedly backwards and forwards in a straight


line.

Object Q moves at a constant speed of 5 m / s vertically downwards.

Object R moves at a constant speed of 5 m / s in a circle.

Which objects are moving with uniform velocity?

A P only B Q only C R only D Q and R

3 The diagram shows a velocity–time graph for an object which is accelerating.

120
velocity 110
m/s 100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
0 10 20 30 40
time / s

What is the acceleration of the object?

A 0.40 m / s2 B 2.5 m / s2 C 3.0 m / s2 D 100 m / s2

4 Which quantity is weight an example of?

A acceleration
B force
C mass
D pressure

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3

5 An object of mass 1.0 kg is at rest on Earth. An identical object is at rest on a planet with a
gravitational field strength of twice that on Earth.

Which row correctly compares the object on the planet to the object on Earth?

its acceleration when the same


its weight
horizontal force is applied

A double equal to that on Earth


B double half that on Earth
C half equal to that on Earth
D half half that on Earth

6 A square wooden raft floats on a lake. The density of the water in the lake is 1000 kg / m3.

The sides of the raft are 2.0 m long and the thickness of the raft is 0.20 m.

The mass of the raft is 700 kg.

How many barrels, each of mass 100 kg, could be placed on the raft before its surface sinks to
the surface of the water?

A 1 B 7 C 8 D 15

7 The diagram shows a car moving along a road.

The force due to the engine is 1500 N and the total drag force is 200 N.

engine force
drag force
1500 N
200 N
road

What is the motion of the car?

A constant speed
B decreasing speed
C increasing speed
D reversing

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4

8 The diagram shows a trolley used to transport a load of 400 N.

A force F vertically downwards is needed to balance the trolley as shown.

The centre of mass of the trolley is vertically above the pivot.

40 cm

F
90 cm 15 cm

30 cm

400 N

pivot

What is the value of F ?

A 133 N B 150 N C 300 N D 400 N

9 A ball of mass m falls vertically and hits a hard surface.

Its speed on hitting the surface is v1.

It rebounds vertically upwards with speed v2.

What is the change in momentum of the ball?

A mv1 B mv2 C m(v1 + v2) D m(v2 – v1)

10 An object of mass 4.5 kg is travelling at 7.0 m / s.

How much kinetic energy does the object have?

A 16 J B 32 J C 110 J D 220 J

11 A number of ways in which we use energy are listed.

In which is the ultimate source of energy not the Sun?

A Energy is provided by a horse to pull a cart.


B Energy is provided by hydroelectric generators to heat a house.
C Energy is provided by a nuclear power station.
D Energy is provided by a windmill to pump water to a fountain.

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5

12 To calculate the power produced by a force, the size of the force must be known.

What else needs to be known to calculate the power?

the distance that the force the time for which the
moves the object force acts on the object

A   key
B    = needed
C    = not needed
D  

13 A student calculates the pressure due to the liquid at point X.

liquid

The student takes four measurements.

1 density of the liquid


2 temperature of the liquid
3 depth of point X below the surface of the liquid
4 surface area of the liquid

Which measurements must the student use in her pressure calculation?

A 3 and 4 B 1 and 3 C 1 and 2 D 2 and 3

14 The diagram shows a mercury barometer.

Which height is used as a measurement of atmospheric pressure?

D
mercury
C
B

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6

15 A student splashes water on to her face. Here are three statements about the effects.

P The water uses energy to evaporate.


Q The water gains energy from the student.
R The face of the student cools.

Which statements are correct?

A P and Q only B P and R only C Q and R only D P, Q and R

16 Equal volumes of solids and liquids experience different changes of volume when they are
heated through the same temperature range.

What is the reason for this?

A The average increase in separation of the particles in a liquid is greater than the average
increase in separation of those in a solid.
B The average increase in separation of the particles in a liquid is less than the average
increase in separation of those in a solid.
C The particles in liquids expand by less than those in solids.
D The particles in liquids expand by more than those in solids.

17 Which physical property changes when temperature is measured with a liquid-in-glass


thermometer?

A electromotive force
B pressure
C resistance
D volume

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7

18 The diagram shows steam being passed into water to raise the temperature of the water.

steam from
steam generator

water

The specific latent heat of steam is 2200 J / g.

The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J / (g C).

The mass of water being heated is 490 g.

Which mass of steam must be passed into the water to raise the water temperature from 19 C to
100 C?

A 19 g B 76 g C 80 g D 95 g

19 The diagram shows the view of a room heated by a radiator. The arrowed line from X to Y is the
path of the convection current in the air.

ceiling

X
Y

radiator
floor

Which row about the air temperature and the air density at X and at Y is correct?

air temperature air density

A higher at X higher at X
B higher at X higher at Y
C higher at Y higher at Y
D higher at Y higher at X

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20 A warm dark-coloured surface emits radiation. It is decided to increase the amount of radiation
produced.

Three suggestions are made.

1 Make the surface hotter.


2 Colour the surface white.
3 Increase the area of the surface.

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

21 Which row correctly describes light waves?

wave type direction of vibrations

A longitudinal parallel to direction of wave travel


B longitudinal perpendicular to direction of wave travel
C transverse parallel to direction of wave travel
D transverse perpendicular to direction of wave travel

22 A water wave has a speed of 2.0 m / s.

4.0 complete waves pass a point every 10 seconds.

What is the wavelength of the wave?

A 0.50 m B 0.80 m C 5.0 m D 8.0 m

23 A driver sits in a car. She has a rear-view plane mirror 0.5 m in front of her. A bus is 7.5 m behind
the driver.

bus
car driver

mirror

The driver looks at the image of the bus in her mirror.

How far is the image away from her?

A 1.0 m B 7.5 m C 8.0 m D 8.5 m

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9

24 The diagram shows white light passing through a prism.

red
violet
white
light

Which description of what happens as the light passes into the prism is correct?

A The speed of the red light is less than the speed of the violet light and the red light is the
least refracted.
B The speed of the red light is greater than the speed of the violet light and the red light is the
least refracted.
C The speed of the violet light is less than the speed of the red light and the violet light is the
least refracted.
D The speed of the violet light is greater than the speed of the red light and the violet light is the
least refracted.

25 The diagram shows three types of electromagnetic radiation listed in a particular order. The
electromagnetic radiation is travelling in a vacuum.

microwaves infrared X-rays

Which quantities increase in magnitude going from left to right across the list?

A frequency only
B neither speed nor frequency
C speed and frequency
D speed only

26 A sound wave travels through air.

What name is given to a region in which the air molecules are further apart than normal?

A compression
B contraction
C rarefaction
D vacuum

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10

27 A police car with its siren sounding is stationary in heavy traffic. A pedestrian notices that,
although the loudness of the sound produced does not change, the pitch varies.

Which row describes the amplitude and the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A constant constant
B constant varying
C varying constant
D varying varying

28 A piece of steel is slightly magnetised. It is hit several times with a hammer.

What effect will this have on the steel?

the steel is parallel to the steel is at right-angles


a strong magnetic field to a weak magnetic field

A it becomes magnetised more strongly it becomes magnetised more strongly


B it becomes magnetised more strongly it loses its magnetism
C it loses its magnetism it becomes magnetised more strongly
D it loses its magnetism it loses its magnetism

29 A negatively charged cloud passes over a tall steel-framed building. A charge is induced on the
building by the cloud because charges flow through the building.

cloud
– – –
– – – –

tall building

earth

What charge is induced on the building and in which direction do the charge carriers move?

charge induced
direction of charge flow
on building

A positive from the building to earth


B positive from earth to the building
C negative from the building to earth
D negative from earth to the building

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11

30 Electromotive force (e.m.f.) is defined in terms of the energy supplied in driving which physical
quantity around a complete circuit?

A charge
B current
C potential difference (p.d.)
D power

31 A student uses four ammeters P, Q, R and S to measure the current in different parts of the
circuit shown.

P Q
A A

R
A

S
A

Which two ammeters read the largest current?

A P and Q B P and R C R and Q D R and S

32 Three statements about a relay are given.

1 A relay has a coil that becomes a temporary magnet when in operation.


2 A large current in a relay coil is used to switch off a smaller current.
3 A small current in a relay coil is used to switch on a larger current.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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12

33 Which combination of logic gates gives the truth table shown?

inputs output
X Y Z

0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

A B

X X
Z Z
Y Y

C D

X X
Z Z
Y Y

34 Graph X shows the output from an a.c. generator.

p.d. X

0
0 time

Which changes can be made so that the generator produces graph Y?

A Decrease the magnetic field strength and decrease the speed of rotation only.
B Increase the magnetic field strength and decrease the number of coils only.
C Increase the number of coils only.
D Increase the speed of rotation only.

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13

35 A transformer is needed to convert a supply of 240 V a.c. into 4800 V a.c..

NP NS

240 V a.c. 4800 V a.c.

Which pair of coils would be suitable for this transformer?

number of turns number of turns


on primary coil NP on secondary coil NS

A 50 1 000
B 240 48 000
C 480 24
D 2000 100

36 The diagram shows a wire carrying a current in the direction shown. There is a magnetic field
acting from left to right. The wire experiences a force acting out of the page.

direction
of current
wire

direction of
magnetic field

The current is now reversed.

In which direction does the force on the wire now act?

A into the page


B out of the page
C to the left
D to the right

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14

37 Which statement is correct for the nucleus of any atom?

A The nucleus contains electrons, neutrons and protons.


B The nucleus contains the same number of protons as neutrons.
C The nucleus has a total charge of zero.
D The nucleus is very small compared with the size of the atom.

234
38 How many protons and how many neutrons are in a nucleus of 90Th?

protons neutrons

A 90 144
B 90 234
C 144 90
D 234 90

39 Which statement about -rays is correct?

A They are deflected by both electric and magnetic fields.


B They are deflected by magnetic fields but not by electric fields.
C They are deflected by electric fields but not by magnetic fields.
D They are not deflected either by electric fields or by magnetic fields.

40 Which equation represents the -decay of lead-209?

209 0 209
A 82Pb + –1e o 83Bi
209 0 209
B 82Pb + –1e o 81Tl
209 209 0
C 82Pb o 83Bi + –1e
209 209 0
D 82Pb o 81Tl + –1e

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15

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16

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*3645684800*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB21 03_0625_22/3RP
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2

1 A student has a measuring cylinder containing water and also has a balance.

Which of these could she use to find the volume of a small metal sphere?

She has no other apparatus.

A either the measuring cylinder containing water or the balance


B the measuring cylinder containing water only
C the balance only
D neither the measuring cylinder nor the balance

2 A ball hits a bat with a velocity of 30 m / s, and leaves the bat travelling with a velocity of 20 m / s in
the opposite direction. The ball is in contact with the bat for 0.10 s.

What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the ball whilst it is in contact with the bat?

A 1.0 m / s2 B 5.0 m / s2 C 100 m / s2 D 500 m / s2

3 A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes.

What is the average speed of the train?

A 3.0 m / s B 5.0 m / s C 50 m / s D 60 m / s

4 Which statement about mass is correct?

A A mass of 10 kg weighs 1 N near the Earth’s surface.


B Mass is a gravitational force.
C Mass increases when the gravitational field strength increases.
D The greater the mass of a body, the more it resists a change in its motion.

5 A small bottle has a mass of 20 g when empty. The volume of the bottle is 10 cm3.

When full of liquid, the total mass is 150 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.50 g / cm3 B 2.0 g / cm3 C 13 g / cm3 D 15 g / cm3

6 An object of mass 0.80 kg is moving in a straight line at a velocity of 2.0 m / s. A force is exerted
on the object, in the direction of motion, for a period of 1.0 minute and the velocity of the object
increases to 6.0 m / s.

What force is exerted on the object?

A 0.053 N B 0.080 N C 3.2 N D 4.8 N

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21


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3

7 An object moves at constant speed in the circular path shown.

P
Z X

Which statement about the acceleration of the object when it is at point P is correct?

A The acceleration is in the direction of arrow X.


B The acceleration is in the direction of arrow Y.
C The acceleration is in the direction of arrow Z.
D The object is not accelerating.

8 An object is pivoted at point P. A student ties a length of string to a peg on the object. He pulls
the string with a force F.

string

s t
peg
r
q P

object

What is the moment of the force F about the point P?

A Fq B Fr C Fs D Ft

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4

9 A gas molecule strikes the wall of a container. The molecule rebounds with the same speed.

wall wall
gas molecule gas molecule

before hitting the wall after hitting the wall

What happens to the kinetic energy and what happens to the momentum of the molecule?

kinetic energy momentum

A changes changes
B changes stays the same
C stays the same changes
D stays the same stays the same

10 A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface.

The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction
between the box and the surface.

How much work is done by the force?

A 10 J B 20 J C 30 J D 40 J

11 A crane is used to lift loads vertically.

The output power of the crane to lift a car is P.

The crane then lifts a lorry, which has 3.0 times the weight of the car, through 0.25 of the distance
in 0.50 of the time.

What is the output power of the crane now?

A 3P B 3P C 8P D 6P
8 2 3

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5

12 The diagram shows a manometer connected to a gas supply.

mm
500

from 400
gas supply

300

200

100

mercury
0

What is the pressure of the gas supply?

A 100 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure


B 100 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure
C 200 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure
D 200 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure

13 The diagram shows a box of dimensions 6.0 cm  8.0 cm  4.0 cm.

6.0 cm

X
Z
4.0 cm Y 8.0 cm

The box rests on a flat horizontal surface.

On which face must the box rest in order to exert the least pressure?

A face X
B face Y
C face Z
D The pressure is the same for all the faces.

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6

14 Air in a sealed syringe is slowly compressed by moving the piston. The temperature of the air
stays the same.

air

syringe piston

Which statement about the air is correct?

A The pressure of the air decreases because its molecules now travel more slowly.
B The pressure of the air decreases because the area of the syringe walls is now smaller.
C The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now hit the syringe walls more
frequently.
D The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now travel more quickly.

15 In an experiment, smoke particles are suspended in air and viewed through a microscope.

The smoke particles move about with short random movements.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A Air particles have large masses compared to smoke particles and they move in one direction
only.
B Air particles have large masses compared to smoke particles and they move in random
directions.
C Air particles move at high speeds compared to smoke particles and they move in one
direction only.
D Air particles move at high speeds compared to smoke particles and they move in random
directions.

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7

16 The graph shows how the internal energy of 1.0 kg of a metal changes with temperature.

835

830
internal
energy 825
/ kJ
820

815

810

805

800

795
0 20 40 60 80 100
temperature / °C

What is the increase in the internal energy of a block of the same metal of mass 0.25 kg when its
temperature rises from 40 C to 50 C?

A 30 J B 300 J C 750 J D 1200 J

17 A piece of melting ice at 0 C and a beaker of boiling water are both in a laboratory. The
laboratory is at 20 C.

boiling water

Bunsen burner
melting ice heating water

What is happening to the temperature of the melting ice and what is happening to the
temperature of the boiling water?

temperature of temperature of
melting ice boiling water

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

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8

18 One end of a copper rod is heated.

What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod?

A Free electrons transfer energy from the cooler end to the hotter end.
B Free electrons transfer energy from the hotter end to the cooler end.
C Molecules of copper move from the cooler end to the hotter end.
D Molecules of copper move from the hotter end to the cooler end.

19 Which change will cause a decrease in the rate of radiation emitted by an object?

A changing the surface colour from white to black


B changing the surface texture from dull to shiny
C increasing the surface temperature
D increasing the surface area

20 What is the approximate wavelength in air of the highest frequency sound that can be heard by a
normal healthy person?

A 0.02 m B 60 m C 20 000 m D 7 000 000 m

21 What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?

A The amplitude of the light changes.


B The colour of the light changes.
C The frequency of the light changes.
D The speed of the light changes.

22 Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38.

What is the angle of reflection?

A 38 B 52 C 76 D 142

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9

23 Two rays with an angle of incidence of 60 pass into dilute and concentrated sugar-water
solutions. The refractions are shown.

60 60
air air
dilute concentrated
sugar sugar
40 35
solution solution

Which row is correct?

refractive index speed through solution


as concentration increases as concentration increases

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

24 A thin converging lens is used to produce a sharp image of a candle.

screen
image

lens

candle

Various sharp images are produced on the screen by moving the lens and the screen backwards
and forwards.

Which statement is always correct?

A The image is at the principal focus (focal point) of the lens.


B The image is bigger than the object.
C The image is closer to the lens than the object.
D The image is inverted.

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10

25 Which row gives the approximate speeds at which ultraviolet waves travel in air and in a
vacuum?

speed in air speed in a vacuum


m/s m/s

A 340 3.0  108


B 340 340
C 3.0  108 340
D 3.0  108 3.0  108

26 The diagram represents a sound wave.

X Y

What are the names of the parts of the sound wave labelled X and Y?

X Y

A amplitude wavelength
B compression rarefaction
C rarefaction amplitude
D wavelength compression

27 The speed of sound is different in different states of matter.

The speed of sound in liquid water is 1500 m / s.

Which row correctly compares the speed of sound in ice and the speed of sound in water vapour
with the speed of sound in water?

speed of sound in ice speed of sound in steam


m/s m/s

A less than 1500 less than 1500


B less than 1500 more than 1500
C more than 1500 less than 1500
D more than 1500 more than 1500

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11

28 Three methods to demagnetise a magnet are suggested. The magnet is in an east-west direction.

1 hitting the magnet repeatedly with a hammer


2 heating the magnet until red hot
3 withdrawing the magnet from a coil which has a direct current (d.c.) in it

Which methods demagnetise the magnet?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

29 Three cores of different metals P, Q and R are placed inside identical coils of wire.

At least one of the metals is non-magnetic.

The cores are held above some iron nails.

The three diagrams show what happens when there is a current in the coils.

coil
+ + +

– – –
core
P Q R

iron
nails

The three diagrams below show what happens when the current is then switched off.

+ + +

– – –

P Q R

Which core metals are magnetic?

A P only B R only C P and Q D Q and R

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12

30 Two uncharged metal spheres X and Y rest on insulating stands and touch each other. A
negatively charged plastic rod is brought near to sphere X.

metal spheres

negatively –

charged rod –
– X Y

insulating stand insulating stand

Using the insulating stand, sphere Y is moved away from sphere X.

What are the signs and the relative magnitudes of the charges induced on X and Y?

relative magnitudes
charge on X charge on Y
of charges

A negative negative equal


B negative positive different
C positive negative equal
D positive positive different

31 Which two changes to a metal wire both decrease its resistance?

cross-sectional
length of wire
area of wire

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

32 There is a current I in a resistor of resistance R for a time t. The potential difference across the
resistor is V.

Which equation gives the energy E transferred by the resistor?

A E = IR B E = IV C E = IRt D E = IVt

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13

33 A resistor R is connected in parallel with an 8.0  resistor. The resistance of this combination
is 4.0 .

8.0 Ω

What is the resistance of resistor R?

A 0.50  B 2.0  C 4.0  D 8.0 

34 A student designs a circuit to use as a dimmer switch for a lamp.

What happens to the brightness of the lamp and the potential difference (p.d.) across the lamp,
when the slider is moved from X to Y?

brightness of lamp p.d. across the lamp

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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14

35 The circuit shown contains two gates.

Which truth table describes the operation of the circuit?

A B C D
P Q R P Q R P Q R P Q R

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1

36 The diagram shows an electromagnet near a coil of wire connected to a voltmeter. The reading
on the voltmeter is zero.

electromagnet coil

soft iron

switch

V
+ –

The switch is closed. The electromagnet magnetises quickly.

What happens to the reading on the voltmeter?

A It keeps increasing.
B It quickly increases and stays at maximum.
C It quickly increases and then decreases.
D It stays on zero.

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15

37 Which graph shows the voltage output of an a.c. generator with the peaks and zeros correctly
labelled?

A B
peaks peaks
voltage V voltage V

0 0
0 time t 0 time t
zeros zeros

C D
peaks peaks
voltage V voltage V
zeros

0 0
0 time t 0 time t

zeros peaks

38 Three students are describing the structure of an atom.

student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus.


student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus.
student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus.

Which students are making a correct statement?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

39 When alpha particles are incident on a thin metal foil, most of them pass through undeviated.

What does this observation reveal about the nature of the atom?

A The atom has a dense nucleus.


B The atom is mostly empty space.
C The atom is very small.
D The nucleus of the atom is positively charged.

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16

40 A laboratory worker measures the count rate from a radioactive source. He records his results in
a table.

time count rate


minutes counts / s

0 100
1.0 73
2.0 54
3.0 41
4.0 31

The average background radiation in the laboratory is 8 counts per second.

What is the half-life of the source?

A 1.5 minutes
B 2.0 minutes
C 3.0 minutes
D 4.0 minutes

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/F/M/21


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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*5137607052*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 06_0625_23/3RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
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2

1 The diagram shows a plastic rod alongside a ruler.

plastic rod

0 cm 10 20

What is the length of the rod?

A 2.5 cm B 3.5 cm C 7.0 cm D 9.0 cm

2 Four balls with different masses are dropped from the heights shown.

Air resistance may be ignored.

Which ball has the smallest average speed?

A B C D
1.0 kg

2.0 kg

3.0 kg
4.0 m
4.0 kg
3.0 m
2.0 m
1.0 m ground

3 A cyclist rides 300 m up a slope in 50 s.

She then rides down the slope in 25 s.

What is her average speed for the whole journey?

A 4.0 m / s B 8.0 m / s C 9.0 m / s D 16 m / s

4 An object is on the surface of the Earth.

Which statement describes the weight of the object?

A the quantity of material that the object contains


B the quantity of space that the object takes up
C the gravitational force acting on the object
D the object’s resistance to a change in its motion

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3

5 The tank shown has the dimensions 5.0 m  4.0 m  4.0 m.

It is completely filled with water of density 1000 kg / m3.

5.0 m

4.0 m 4.0 m

What is the mass of water in the tank?

A 12.5 kg B 62.5 kg C 16 000 kg D 80 000 kg

6 The extension–load graph for a spring is shown. The unstretched length of the spring is 17.0 cm.

3
extension / cm

0
0 1 2 3 4
load / N

When an object is suspended from the spring, the length of the spring is 19.2 cm.

What is the weight of the object?

A 1.4 N B 1.6 N C 2.6 N D 3.0 N

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4

7 A car of mass 1200 kg is travelling along a horizontal road.

direction of motion

total frictional force = 1000 N driving force = 4000 N

What is the acceleration of the car?

A 0.83 m / s2 B 1.2 m / s2 C 2.5 m / s2 D 3.3 m / s2

8 Object X moves to the right along a frictionless surface towards a stationary object Y, as shown.

direction
of travel

X Y

They make a noise as they collide and then both objects move to the right.

Which equation is correct?

A change in momentum of X = change in momentum of Y


B impulse of force acting on X = impulse of force acting on Y
C kinetic energy of X before collision = (kinetic energy of X + kinetic energy of Y) after collision
D momentum of X before collision = (momentum of X + momentum of Y) after collision

9 A stream flows out of a lake and down the side of a hill.

What best describes the change in energy stores?

A kinetic energy  chemical energy + internal energy

B gravitational potential energy  kinetic energy + internal energy

C gravitational potential energy + kinetic energy  internal energy

D kinetic energy  internal energy + gravitational potential energy

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5

10 The energy input to a device is E.

The amount of energy wasted by the device is W.

Which expression gives the efficiency of the device?

A W  E  100%
W

B W  100%
E

C E  W  100%
E

D E  W  100%
W

11 A builder lifts 30 bricks from the ground onto a platform 2.0 m high.

Each brick has a mass of 4.0 kg.

What is the work done against gravity by the builder in lifting the bricks onto the platform?

A 80 J B 120 J C 240 J D 2400 J

12 A book has a mass of 400 g.

The surface of the book in contact with a table has dimensions 0.10 m  0.20 m.

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure exerted on the table due to the book?

A 0.08 N / m2 B 8.0 N / m2 C 20 N / m2 D 200 N / m2

13 The diagram shows a tank full of water.

The mass of water in the tank is m.

The density of the water is .

The height of water in the tank is h.

Which equation gives the pressure p due to the water at the bottom of the tank?

A p = h g B p = mgh C p = m g D p = m h

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6

14 A liquid at room temperature is put on a metal surface which is also at room temperature.

A student blows gently across the liquid and its temperature decreases.

What causes the liquid to become cooler?

A Bubbles of water vapour form in the liquid and go into the air.
B The moving air reduces the kinetic energy of all the particles in the liquid.
C Thermal energy flows from the liquid into the metal.
D The more energetic particles in the liquid escape into the air.

15 Very small pollen grains are suspended in water. A bright light shines from the side.

When looked at through a microscope, small specks of light are seen to be moving in a random,
jerky manner.

eye

microscope

bright light

pollen grains
in water

What are the moving specks of light?

A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains


B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

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7

16 The liquid level in a thermometer rises when the thermometer is placed in hot water.

What causes this?

A The liquid contracts.


B The liquid evaporates.
C The liquid expands.
D The liquid freezes.

17 A student calculates the energy needed to raise the temperature of an aluminium block from
50 C to 60 C.

He then does an experiment to measure the energy used to do this.

Which statement about the measured energy is correct?

A The measured energy will be greater than the calculated energy because some energy is
transferred to the surroundings.
B The measured energy will be greater than the calculated energy because the block absorbs
energy from the surroundings.
C The measured energy will be less than the calculated energy because the mass of the block
decreases as it gets warmer.
D The measured energy will be less than the calculated energy because the thermal capacity
of the block is low.

18 Which row correctly describes a liquid that is boiling?

where it takes
bubbles seen
place in the liquid

A no surface only
B no throughout liquid
C yes surface only
D yes throughout liquid

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8

19 Three students are planning an experiment to test thermal conduction in different materials.

The students each propose a hypothesis.

1 I think the copper rod will be a good thermal conductor because it is a metal.
2 I think the glass rod will be a good thermal conductor because it has free electrons
which vibrate and transfer energy quickly.
3 I think the wooden rod will be a poor thermal conductor because it can only transfer
energy along the rod by vibrating the lattice particles.

Which of their hypotheses are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

20 A copper plate is shiny on one side and is painted dull black on the other side. The plate is
heated to a high temperature. A person places his hands at equal distances from either side of
the plate, close to the plate, but not touching it.

shiny dull black

very hot copper plate

Why does the hand near the dull black surface of the plate feel much hotter than the hand near
the shiny surface?

A The dull black surface is a better emitter of radiation than the shiny surface.
B The dull black surface is a better conductor of radiation than the shiny surface.
C The dull black surface is a better reflector of radiation than the shiny surface.
D The dull black surface is at a higher temperature than the shiny surface.

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9

21 A water wave passes into a region where the wave travels more slowly.

As it passes into the slow region, what happens to the frequency and what happens to the
wavelength of the wave?

frequency wavelength

A decreases remains the same


B increases remains the same
C remains the same decreases
D remains the same increases

22 Light travelling at a speed of 3.0  108 m / s strikes the surface of a glass block and undergoes
refraction as it enters the block.

The diagram shows a ray of this light before and after it enters the block.

55

glass block

33

What is the speed of light in the glass?

A 1.8  108 m / s

B 2.0  108 m / s

C 4.5  108 m / s

D 5.0  108 m / s

23 A beam of light is monochromatic.

What does monochromatic mean?

A All the waves in the beam must have the same frequency only.
B All the waves in the beam must have the same amplitude only.
C All the waves in the beam must have the same speed only.
D All the waves in the beam must have the same amplitude, frequency and speed.

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10

24 An object is placed in front of a thin converging lens.

The diagram shows the paths of two rays from the top of the object.

converging lens

object

An image of the object is formed on a screen to the right of the lens.

How does this image compare with the object?

A It is larger and inverted.


B It is larger and the same way up.
C It is smaller and inverted.
D It is smaller and the same way up.

25 Which row correctly describes what happens to the frequency and to the speed of
electromagnetic waves as we move through the spectrum from -rays to radio waves?

frequency speed in a vacuum

A decreases increases
B decreases remains the same
C increases decreases
D increases remains the same

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11

26 The diagram shows a model of a sound wave passing through air in an open tube.

Q air particle

What is the region Q?

A a compression which is a region of high pressure


B a compression which is a region of low pressure
C a rarefaction which is a region of high pressure
D a rarefaction which is a region of low pressure

27 The sound from a loudspeaker must pass through two materials to reach a microphone.

loudspeaker microphone

material 1 material 2

Which combination of materials gives the shortest time for the sound to reach the microphone?

material 1 material 2

A air hydrogen
B air water
C copper aluminium
D water oil

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12

28 A bar magnet picks up two steel bolts.

Which diagram shows the magnetic poles induced in the bolts?

A B

N S N S
S S

N N
N S

S N

C D

N S N S
N N

S S
S N

N S

29 A student rubs a plastic rod with a cloth.

The rod becomes positively charged.

What has happened to the rod?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained protons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost protons.

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13

30 An isolated metal sphere is positively charged.

It is then brought near to another isolated metal sphere that is neutral.

left right
+ +
+ + +
+
+ + +
positively charged + + + neutral
metal sphere metal sphere

What happens to the charges on the neutral sphere as the positively charged sphere is brought
close to it?

A Some positive charges move to the left and some negative charges move to the right.
B Some positive charges move to the right and some negative charges move to the left.
C Some positive charges move to the right, but the negative charges do not move.
D The positive charges do not move, but some negative charges move to the left.

31 The diagram shows a circuit containing a cell, two resistors, a switch and a voltmeter.

When the switch is open the voltmeter reads 1.5 V.

When the switch is closed the voltmeter reads 2.0 V.

What is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the cell?

A 0.5 V B 1.5 V C 2.0 V D 3.5 V

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14

32 A 4.0  resistor and a 12  resistor are connected in parallel.

4.0 Ω

12 Ω

What is the effective resistance of this combination of resistors?

A 0.33  B 3.0  C 8.0  D 16 

33 Which combination of two gates will result in the truth table shown?

P Q R

0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1

A B

P P
R R
Q Q

C D

P P
R R
Q Q

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15

34 A solenoid is connected to a very sensitive ammeter. A rod is inserted into one end of the
solenoid. The ammeter shows that there is a small electric current in the solenoid while the rod is
moving.

solenoid
rod

Which rod is being inserted?

A a heated copper rod


B a magnetised steel rod
C an uncharged nylon rod
D a radioactive uranium rod

35 A 12 V, 36 W lamp shines at normal brightness when connected to a mains transformer.

Assume the transformer is 100% efficient.

1200 turns
iron core

240 V 12 V
a.c. mains 36 W

secondary coil

Which row shows the number of turns in the secondary coil and the current in the mains wires?

number of turns current in the


in secondary coil mains wire / A

A 60 0.15
B 60 3.0
C 180 0.15
D 180 3.0

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16

36 Diagram 1 shows a wire carrying an electric current into the page.

The wire is between the poles of a magnet.

A force is produced on the wire acting down towards the bottom of the page.

Diagram 2 shows the situation after the current is reversed and the magnet is turned through 90.

diagram 1 diagram 2

N S S

direction
of force
N

In which direction does the force act after these changes?

A towards the top of the page


B towards the bottom of the page
C towards the left-hand side of the page
D towards the right-hand side of the page

37 The charge on a proton is e.

What is the charge on an electron and what is the charge on a neutron?

electron neutron

A e e
B e 0
C –e –e
D –e 0

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17

38 The diagram shows -particles incident on a thin metal foil.

thin metal foil

How does the motion of these particles give evidence for the nuclear atom?

A Most particles passing through with minimal deflection shows that the atom is mostly empty
space.
B Most particles passing through with minimal deflection shows that the mass of the atom is
uniformly distributed.
C Large deflections of some particles shows that the atom is mostly empty space.
D Large deflections of some particles shows that the charge in the atom is uniformly
distributed.

226
39 Radium-226, 88Ra , is an -emitter.

It is implanted inside cancerous tumours.

It is safe to use as it kills the cancerous cells, but not the healthy ones surrounding the tumour.

Which properties of -particles, compared to other emissions, enable this use of radium-226?

ionising effect penetration


of -particles of -particles

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

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18

40 The graph shows the activity of a radioactive source over a period of time.

120
activity
counts / s 90

60

30

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes

What is the half-life of the source?

A 1.0 minute B 2.0 minutes C 2.5 minutes D 4.0 minutes

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19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2021 0625/23/M/J/21


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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 0625/23/M/J/21


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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*4199489879*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 11_0625_23/2RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
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2

1 For which purpose is a micrometer screw gauge suitable?

A measuring the current in a coil that is known to be about 3  10–6 A

B measuring the diameter of a ball bearing that is known to be about 3  10–3 m

C measuring the mass of a grain of sand that is known to be about 3  10–3 g

D measuring the moment used to turn a screw that is known to be about 3  10–6 N m

2 The graph shows how the speed of a car varies with time at the start of a journey.

6
speed 5
m/s
4
3
2
1
0
0 1 2 3 4
time / s

Which distance–time graph represents the motion of the car over the same time period?

A B
12 12
10 10
distance / m distance / m
8 8
6 6
4 4
2 2
0 0
0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4
time / s time / s

C D
6 6
5 5
distance / m distance / m
4 4
3 3
2 2
1 1
0 0
0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4
time / s time / s

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3

3 Which statement about mass and weight is correct?

A Mass is a property that causes change in motion.


B Mass is caused by a gravitational field acting on a weight.
C Weight is a property that resists change in motion.
D Weight is caused by a gravitational field acting on a mass.

4 Which substance in the table has the lowest density?

substance mass / g volume / cm3

A nylon 1.2 1.0


B cotton 1.5 1.0
C olive oil 1.8 2.0
D water 2.0 2.0

5 The diagram shows a uniform bar resting on two supports, P and Q.

0 10 50 60 100
cm
P Q

The weight of the bar is 4.0 N.

What is the force exerted on the bar by support P?

A 0.80 N B 2.0 N C 3.2 N D 4.0 N

6 A spring, which obeys Hooke’s law, has an unstretched length of 10 cm.

A load of 20 N is suspended from the spring.

The new length of the spring is 36 cm.

What is the spring constant k of the spring?

A 0.56 N / cm B 0.77 N / cm C 1.3 N / cm D 1.8 N / cm

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4

7 A cricket ball has a mass of 0.16 kg. The ball travels at 30 m / s. The ball is hit by a bat with a force
of 10 800 N. After being hit, the ball moves off at 30 m / s in the opposite direction.

30 m / s

30 m / s

For how long was the ball in contact with the bat?

A 0.0004 s B 0.00089 s C 0.0044 s D 0.015 s

8 Electrical energy may be obtained from nuclear fission.

In which order is the energy transferred in this process?

A nuclear fuel  generator  reactor and boiler  turbines

B nuclear fuel  generator  turbines  reactor and boiler

C nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  generator  turbines

D nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  turbines  generator

9 Which energy resource has the Sun as its only source of energy?

A geothermal
B nuclear
C oil
D tidal

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5

10 A man, attached to an elastic cord, jumps from a platform. He falls 60 m before starting to rise.
The length of the unextended cord is 30 m.

The diagrams show four successive stages in his fall.

In which position is elastic (strain) energy and kinetic energy present?

A B C D

30 m
45 m

60 m

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6

11 The diagram shows three glass containers.

All three contain water filled to the same vertical height h.

P Q R

h h h

wooden block
supporting R

The base area of P is equal to the base area of R.

The base area of Q is larger than the other two.

Students are asked to compare the water pressure at the bottom of each container.

Student 1 says that the pressure at base R is more than the pressure at base P.
Student 2 says that the pressure at base Q is less than the pressure at base P.
Student 3 says that the pressures at all three bases are the same.

Which students are correct?

A none are correct


B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only

12 A liquid is evaporating. The liquid is not boiling.

Which statement about the liquid is correct at an instant in time?

A Any molecule can escape, and from any part of the liquid.
B Any molecule can escape, but only from the liquid’s surface.
C Only molecules with enough energy can escape, and only from the liquid’s surface.
D Only molecules with enough energy can escape, but from any part of the liquid.

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7

13 The same mass of a gas is trapped in four identical cylinders by a piston that can move.

The diagrams show the samples of gas in different conditions of volume and temperature.

1 2 3 4
piston

20 °C 40 °C 40 °C 50 °C

Which list gives the pressure of the gas in order from lowest to highest?

A 1234

B 1324

C 4231

D 4321

14 An aluminium block has a mass of 200 g.

The specific heat capacity of aluminium is 900 J / (kg C).

How much energy is needed to increase the temperature of the block from 20 C to 110 C?

A 2.0 J B 2000 J C 16 200 J D 16 200 000 J

15 A solid and a gas are each given the same increase in temperature. The gas is kept at a constant
pressure.

Which row is correct?

the one which


the reason
expands most
A the gas molecules in the gas each expand
more than the solid molecules
B the gas the molecules in the solid
are held strongly together
C the solid molecules in the solid each expand
more than the gas molecules
D the solid all the molecules in the gas are
separate from one another

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8

16 The diagram shows a pan used for cooking food.

handle of pan

base of pan

Which row is correct for the materials used to make the base and the handle of the pan?

base of pan handle of pan

A good thermal conductor good thermal conductor


B good thermal conductor poor thermal conductor
C poor thermal conductor good thermal conductor
D poor thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

17 In the diagram, the mountaineer can hear the stream although he cannot see it. When he is
closer to the gully, he can both hear and see the stream. When he is further from the gully, he
can neither hear nor see the stream.

gully
mountaineer

stream

Which statement is not correct?

A As he approaches the gully edge, he hears first the short wavelength, higher frequencies and
then the long wavelength, lower frequencies.
B As he approaches the gully edge, the sound becomes louder.
C He hears the stream because some of the sound is diffracted.
D He hears the stream because some of the sound is reflected from the opposite wall of the
gully.

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9

18 Which row correctly defines the frequency and the speed of a wave?

frequency speed
A number of waves distance travelled
per unit time
B number of waves time taken for one complete
wave to pass a point
C number of waves distance travelled
passing per unit time per unit time
D number of waves time taken for one complete
passing per unit time wave to pass a point

19 A ray of light travels from air into a glass block.

in air in glass

speed of ray va vg
wavelength of ray a g
frequency of ray fa fg

Three suggestions as to how the refractive index of glass n may be calculated are listed.

va
1 n=
vg

a
2 n=
g

fa
3 n=
fg

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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10

20 The diagram shows a ray of light in air incident on a glass block. Some of the light is refracted
and some of the light is reflected. Two angles, p and q, are marked on the diagram.

ray of
light
q
air p
glass

Which row gives the angle of incidence and states whether total internal reflection occurs?

angle of total internal


incidence reflection

A p no
B p yes
C q no
D q yes

21 A photographer sees his image as shown.

photographer image

What could X be?

A B C D

mirror translucent transparent transparent


glass block glass prism semicircular
glass block

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11

22 The Sun emits infrared radiation and light.

Light from the Sun reaches the Earth in 8 minutes.

Which row gives correct information about the infrared radiation?

wavelength of time taken for infrared


infrared radiation radiation to reach the Earth

A longer than wavelength of light 8 minutes


B longer than wavelength of light much less than 8 minutes
C shorter than wavelength of light 8 minutes
D shorter than wavelength of light much more than 8 minutes

23 Which row gives the typical values of the speed of sound at room temperature in the materials
stated?

speed of sound
m/s
air water iron

A 340 1500 5100


B 340 5100 1500
C 5100 1500 340
D 3.0  108 3.0  108 3.0  108

24 What is ultrasound?

A sound waves that are so loud that they damage human hearing
B sound waves that are too high-pitched for humans to hear
C sound waves that are too low-pitched for humans to hear
D sound waves that are too quiet for humans to hear

25 A stationary, charged particle is in a field.

Which fields can cause there to be a force on this particle due to its charge?

1 gravitational field
2 magnetic field
3 electric field

A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 3 only

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12

26 An electric current in a copper wire is due to the flow of charge.

Which particles are moving along the wire?

A -particles
B copper nuclei
C electrons
D protons

27 Which row is correct?

direction of
definition of current I
conventional current

A Q from positive terminal


I=
t to negative terminal

B Q from negative terminal


I=
t to positive terminal

C I=Qt from positive terminal


to negative terminal
D I=Qt from negative terminal
to positive terminal

28 The diagram shows a circuit containing two resistors of resistance 1.0  and 2.0 .

A voltmeter is connected across the 1.0  resistor by connecting P to X.

The reading on the voltmeter is 6.0 V.

1.0 Ω X 2.0 Ω Y

P
V

P is moved to point Y in the circuit.

What is the new reading on the voltmeter?

A 3.0 V B 6.0 V C 12 V D 18 V

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13

29 Which graph shows the current–voltage characteristic for a filament lamp?

A B C D

I I I I

0 0 0 0
0 V 0 V 0 V 0 V

30 The diagrams show pairs of circuits containing logic gates.

In which diagram does the lower circuit of the pair behave differently from the upper circuit?

A B

C D

31 Two 3.0  resistors and one 6.0  resistor are connected in series with a cell.

Which statement is correct?

A The current in the cell is equal to the current in the resistors.


B The current in the cell is greater than the current in the resistors.
C The potential difference (p.d.) across each resistor is equal to the p.d. across the cell.
D The potential differences across each resistor are equal.

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14

32 Two resistors, with resistances R1 and R2, are connected in parallel.

The resistance R1 is greater than the resistance R2.

R1

R2

What is the resistance of the parallel combination?

A less than either R1 or R2


B equal to R1
C equal to R2
D the average of R1 and R2

33 Circuit breakers and fuses are devices used to protect a circuit from overloading.

Which statement correctly describes the difference between a circuit breaker and a fuse?

A Circuit breakers can be reset if they operate but fuses need to be replaced.
B Circuit breakers need to be replaced if they operate but fuses can be reset.
C Circuit breakers can be used in an a.c. circuit but fuses cannot.
D Circuit breakers cannot be used in an a.c. circuit but fuses can.

34 Electrical energy is transferred by transmission lines at high voltage.

Which statement explains why a high voltage is used?

A The voltage is alternating.


B The transmission lines have a larger resistance.
C The transmission lines carry greater power.
D There is a smaller current in the transmission lines for the same power.

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15

35 Which diagram shows the magnetic field around a straight, current-carrying wire?

A B

current current

C D

current current

36 The coil in a d.c. motor is connected to a split-ring commutator.

What is the purpose of the split-ring commutator?

A to ensure that the coil continues to rotate in the same direction


B to ensure that the size of the current in the coil remains constant
C to ensure that the size of the turning effect on the coil remains constant
D to ensure that the turning effect on the coil changes direction

37 The nucleus of an americium atom contains 146 neutrons and 95 protons. It decays by emitting
an -particle.

How many neutrons and how many protons remain in the nucleus when this form of americium
decays?

number of neutrons number of protons


remaining remaining

A 142 93
B 142 95
C 144 93
D 144 95

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16

38 The half-life for lead-202 is 52 500 years.

A sample of lead-202 produces 800 counts / s.

How long will it take for the count rate to drop to 100 counts / s?

A 105 000 years


B 157 500 years
C 210 000 years
D 420 000 years

39 Oxygen-15 is used in hospitals.

The count rate from a detector placed close to a sample of oxygen-15 was recorded over a
period of 15 min. The background count rate is 20 counts / min.

200

180
count rate
counts / min
160

140

120

100

80

60

40

20

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
time / min

What is the half-life of this sample of oxygen-15?

A 2.0 min B 2.4 min C 2.8 min D 7.5 min

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17

40 Of the three types of ionising radiation, ,  and , why does -emission cause the most
ionisation?

A -particles have the smallest mass.

B -particles have the greatest mass.

C -particles move with the greatest speed.

D -particles travel the greatest distance in matter.

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18

BLANK PAGE

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19

BLANK PAGE

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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 0625/23/O/N/21


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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*0532883419*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB22 03_0625_22/3RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
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2

1 A student investigates a pendulum.

He measures the time for the pendulum to complete 20 oscillations.

He repeats the experiment three more times.

The readings are shown.

time for
experiment
20 oscillations / s

1 17.6
2 19.8
3 17.6
4 18.6

What is the average period of the pendulum?

A 0.88 s B 0.92 s C 17.6 s D 18.4 s

2 A tennis ball falls from the upstairs window of a house.

What can be said about the acceleration of the ball if air resistance is ignored?

A It depends on the density of the ball.


B It depends on the mass of the ball.
C It increases as the ball falls.
D It stays the same as the ball falls.

3 A car joins a road at a speed of 14 m / s and accelerates at 4.0 m / s2 for 5.0 seconds.

What is the final speed of the car?

A 18 m / s B 20 m / s C 32 m / s D 34 m / s

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3

4 The gravitational field strength is 8.8 N / kg on Venus and 3.8 N / kg on Mars.

An object has a weight of 42 N on Venus.

What are the mass and the weight of the object on Mars?

mass / kg weight / N

A 4.8 18
B 4.8 42
C 11 42
D 11 97

5 A student carries out an experiment to find the density of a rock.

measuring
cylinder

liquid

rock

200 g balance 264 g

Which two measurements does the student need to make to determine the density of the rock?

measurement 1 measurement 2

A increase in mass increase in volume of liquid


B final mass increase in depth of liquid
C increase in mass increase in depth of liquid
D final mass increase in volume of liquid

6 A car has a mass of 1500 kg. A constant resultant force acts on the car and the car accelerates
from 15 m / s to 20 m / s in 4.0 seconds.

What is the magnitude of the resultant force acting on the car?

A 300 N B 1200 N C 1900 N D 7500 N

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4

7 A metal wire is loaded up to the limit of proportionality.

Which statement is correct?

A Hooke’s law is not obeyed when the load is increased from zero to this point.
B When the load is increased beyond the limit of proportionality, the diameter of the wire will
increase.
C When the load is removed, the wire returns to its original length.
D Up to the limit of proportionality, there is no change in the shape of the wire.

8 The diagram shows a uniform metre rule, MN, pivoted at its midpoint P.

M P N

W1 W2

Two weights, W1 and W2, are hung either side of the pivot.

The rule remains balanced.

Which row is correct?

direction of resultant direction of resultant


moment about point M force on the rule

A clockwise downwards
B clockwise zero
C zero downwards
D zero zero

9 Which physical quantity is a vector?

A mass
B density
C temperature
D velocity

10 A resultant force of 500 N acts for 10 s on a car of mass 1000 kg. This causes the velocity of the
car to double.

What is the final velocity of the car?

A 5m/s B 10 m / s C 20 m / s D 50 m / s

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5

11 A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it.

As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer?

A from chemical to thermal


B from chemical to kinetic
C from kinetic to gravitational (potential)
D from kinetic to thermal

12 At time = 0, a cannonball is stationary inside a cannon. The cannonball is then fired from the
cannon.

At time = t, the cannonball moves forwards and the cannon moves backwards.

What happens to the total kinetic energy and the total momentum of the cannon and the
cannonball between time = 0 and time = t ?

total kinetic energy of total momentum of


cannon and cannonball cannon and cannonball

A changes changes
B changes remains the same
C remains the same changes
D remains the same remains the same

13 In a small hydroelectric power scheme, 800 kg of water drops through a vertical height of 2.2 m
every second. The electrical output is 10.6 kW.

What is the efficiency of the scheme?

A 0.60% B 17% C 60% D 75%

14 An object is at rest on a horizontal surface.

Which equation is used to calculate the pressure that the object exerts?
mass of the object
A
area of contact
weight of the object
B
area of contact
C mass of the object  area of contact

D weight of the object  area of contact

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6

15 Smoke particles, illuminated by a bright lamp, are seen through a microscope. They move about
randomly.

What causes this motion?

A attraction between the smoke particles and the molecules of the air
B collisions between the smoke particles and the molecules of the air
C evaporation of the faster-moving smoke particles
D warming of the smoke particles by the lamp

16 Ether is a liquid that evaporates easily at room temperature.

The rate at which ether evaporates can be increased by bubbling air through it.

The diagram shows this process.

air

air bubbles

ether

Students give three suggestions why the rate of evaporation increases when air is bubbled
through.

Student 1 suggests that the temperature of the ether is decreased.


Student 2 suggests that the surface area of the ether is increased.
Student 3 suggests that evaporated molecules are removed at a greater rate.

Which students are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

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7

17 Some ice is slowly heated and its temperature is measured. A graph is plotted of temperature
against time.

100
temperature / qC

X
0
–10 time

Which row describes what happens to the thermal energy and to the temperature in section X?

thermal energy temperature of ice

A gained by ice rises


B gained by ice stays the same
C not gained by ice rises
D not gained by ice stays the same

18 The diagram shows the apparatus needed for an experiment to determine the specific heat
capacity of the material from which an object is made.

thermometer
A
heater
object

V stop-clock

balance

Which piece of apparatus could be omitted if the purpose of the experiment is to determine the
thermal capacity of the object?

A ammeter
B balance
C stop-clock
D thermometer

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8

19 Both boiling and evaporation involve a change of state from liquid to gas.

Which row gives the correct difference between boiling and evaporation?

boiling evaporation

A no bubbles are formed bubbles are formed


B occurs at all temperatures occurs at a definite temperature
C occurs throughout the liquid occurs at the surface only
D the temperature falls the temperature remains constant

20 Which statement describes thermal conduction in a metal by electrons?

A Atoms and electrons move freely throughout the metal.


B Atoms and electrons vibrate about their fixed positions only.
C Electrons move freely throughout the metal.
D Electrons remain attached to atoms.

21 A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed.

What causes the ripples to refract?

A The cold water in the tank is replaced by warm water.


B The ripples change speed as they move from deep to shallow water.
C The ripples hit the wall of the tank.
D The ripples pass through a narrow gap.

22 The diagram shows wavefronts of a water wave passing through a gap in a barrier.

barrier

Which change will increase the diffraction of the wave as it passes through the gap?

A Increase the amplitude of the wave.


B Increase the width of the gap.
C Reduce the depth of water.
D Reduce the frequency of the wave.

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9

23 The diagrams each show a ray of light from an object O passing through a thin converging lens.

The principal focuses in each diagram are labelled F.

1 2

O O

F F F F

F F

Which diagrams are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 2 only C 1 and 3 D 3 only

24 The diagram shows a ray of light inside an optical fibre approaching point X.

normal to the
surface at X tangent to the
surface at X
X
P Q

The light is totally reflected within the fibre.

The refractive index of the material of the optical fibre is 1.39.

Which condition ensures that total internal reflection occurs?

A Q < 45 B Q > 47 C P > 47 D P=Q

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10

25 An eclipse of the Sun happens when the Moon comes between the Earth and the Sun.

Which statement is correct?

A Infrared radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and ultraviolet radiation.
B Ultraviolet radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and infrared radiation.
C Visible light from the Sun disappears before ultraviolet radiation and infrared radiation.
D Infrared radiation, ultraviolet radiation and visible light from the Sun all disappear at the same
moment.

26 The diagram shows air particles in a sound wave.

V W X Y Z

Which row correctly identifies the position of a compression and position of a rarefaction?

compression rarefaction

A X Y
B Y X
C V Z
D Z V

27 Two isolated metal spheres are both negatively charged. The spheres are brought close together
but do not touch.

Which diagram shows the charge distribution on the spheres?

A B C D

– – – – – – – –
– – – – – – – –
– – – – – – – –

28 Two separate circuits have different power supplies. Both power supplies provide the same
magnitude current.

Power supply P has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 1.5 V and power supply Q has an e.m.f. of
3.0 V.

Which statements about Q are correct when compared with P?

1 Q supplies twice the charge per unit time.


2 Q supplies twice the energy per unit charge.
3 Q supplies twice the energy per unit time.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/F/M/22


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11

29 The diagram shows a piece of metal resistance wire.

Which wire, made of the same metal, has a smaller resistance?

A a wire of the same length with a larger diameter


B a wire of the same length with a smaller diameter
C a wire of greater length with the same diameter
D a wire of greater length with a smaller diameter

30 Which labelled component in the circuit shown controls the brightness of lamp X?

A
V

X B

31 A circuit includes a battery, two identical resistors and five ammeters, P, Q, R, S and T.

P Q
A A

R
A

S T
A A

Which statement about the readings on the ammeters is not correct?

A P has a greater reading than Q.


B P has a greater reading than R.
C P has a greater reading than S.
D P has a greater reading than T.

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12

32 An electrician sets up a potential divider circuit in a fridge so that when the fridge door is open
and light from the room enters the fridge, a warning light turns on.

Which component does the electrician need to use in addition to a variable resistor?

A light-dependent resistor
B relay
C thermistor
D variable resistor

33 Two NAND gates are joined together as shown.

input 1
output
input 2

Which single logic gate is equivalent to this combination?

A AND B NAND C NOR D OR

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/F/M/22


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13

34 The diagram shows an electric drill and safety guard.

safety guard in electric motor


closed position

drill

The drill requires the logic circuit shown.

starting switch
on 1
A
off 0
motor on 1
motor
motor off 0
safety guard
open 0
B
closed 1
alarm on 1
? alarm
alarm off 0

The circuit must only allow the motor to start when the safety guard is closed. If the safety guard
is not closed when the starting switch is on, the alarm must sound.

Which logic gate is missing from the circuit?

A NOT B NAND C AND D NOR

35 Two magnets are placed near a current-carrying coil.

The diagram shows this experimental arrangement and the current direction in the coil.

X Y
N S N S

Which statement is correct?

A Both X and Y are attracted to the coil.


B Both X and Y are repelled by the coil.
C X is attracted to the coil and Y is repelled.
D X is repelled by the coil and Y is attracted.

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14

36 Two circuits are set up as shown. The iron rods are placed close together and are able to move.

iron rod iron rod


X

What happens to the size of the gap at X when switch S is closed?

A It decreases.
B It decreases then increases.
C It increases.
D It does not change.

37 When a current-carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a force.

Which statement about this force is correct?

A It is parallel to both the magnetic field and the direction of the current.
B It is parallel to the magnetic field and perpendicular to the direction of the current.
C It is perpendicular to the magnetic field and parallel to the direction of the current.
D It is perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the direction of the current.

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15

38 When a beam of -particles is incident on a thin metal foil, most of them follow a path
represented by path X in the diagram. A small number of -particles follow a path represented by
path Y in the diagram.

foil

Which row correctly describes a conclusion that can be drawn from each of these observations
about the structure of the atom?

most follow path X some follow path Y

A atom is mostly empty space atom contains something that repels -particles
B atom is mostly empty space nucleus contains protons and neutrons
C atom is neutral atom contains something that repels -particles
D atom is neutral nucleus contains protons and neutrons

39 Nuclear fusion is a reaction that takes place in stars.

Which row describes this reaction?

action of atomic nuclei energy


A an atomic nucleus splits into absorbed
two or more smaller nuclei
B an atomic nucleus splits into released
two or more smaller nuclei
C atomic nuclei join together absorbed
to form a larger nucleus
D atomic nuclei join together released
to form a larger nucleus

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16

40 When a radioactive isotope is set up close to a counter, a count rate of 38 000 counts / s is
obtained. The table shows the count rate from the isotope over a three-year period.

count rate
time / years
counts / s
0 38 000
1 26 000
2 17 000
3 12 000

What is the half-life of the isotope?

A less than 1 year


B more than 1 year but less than 2 years
C more than 2 years but less than 3 years
D more than 3 years

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/F/M/22


www.dynamicpapers.com

Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*8167223842*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB22 06_0625_21/3RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
www.dynamicpapers.com
2

1 Which measuring devices are most suitable for determining the length of a swimming pool and
the thickness of aluminium foil?

length of a swimming pool thickness of aluminium foil

A ruler measuring cylinder


B tape measure micrometer screw gauge
C tape measure ruler
D ruler micrometer screw gauge

2 A man stands next to a railway track.

A train travelling at 40 m / s takes 2.0 s to pass the man.

What is the length of the train?

A 20 m B 38 m C 40 m D 80 m

3 A speed–time graph is used to describe the motion of an object.

Which quantities are calculated from the gradient of the graph and from the area under the
graph?

gradient of the graph area under the graph

A acceleration distance travelled


B acceleration total journey time
C distance travelled acceleration
D total journey time distance travelled

4 On the Moon, all objects fall with the same acceleration.

Which statement explains this?

A On the Moon, all objects have the same weight.


B The Moon has a smaller gravitational field strength than the Earth.
C The weight of an object is directly proportional to its mass.
D The weight of an object is inversely proportional to its mass.

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3

5 A measuring cylinder contains 30 cm3 of a liquid.

cm3

50

40

30

20

10

balance

Some more of the liquid is added until the liquid level reaches the 50 cm3 mark.

The reading on the balance increases by 30 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.60 g / cm3 B 0.67 g / cm3 C 1.5 g / cm3 D 1.7 g / cm3

6 An object on the end of a string moves in a clockwise circular path at constant speed. The
diagram shows the object as viewed from above.

What is the direction of the resultant force on the object when it is in the position shown?

string
A

B object
D
C

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4

7 A beam is pivoted at one end, as shown.

40 cm beam
X
pivot

6.0 N

The beam weighs 6.0 N and its weight acts at a point X 40 cm from the pivot.

A force of 4.0 N is applied to the beam causing it to balance horizontally.

In which direction and where is the 4.0 N force applied?

A vertically downwards at 20 cm to the left of X


B vertically downwards at 20 cm to the right of X
C vertically upwards at 20 cm to the left of X
D vertically upwards at 20 cm to the right of X

8 On the diagram shown, what is the magnitude of the resultant force of the two vectors?

scale
2.0 N

6.0 N

8.0 N

A 2.0 N B 7.0 N C 10 N D 14 N

9 Three situations are listed.

1 An object has a resultant force acting on it.


2 A moving object experiences an impulse.
3 An object is decelerating.

In which situations is the momentum of the object changing?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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5

10 A ball of mass 0.16 kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg
is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of
0.50 m / s.

What is the speed of the first ball after the collision?

A 0.0 m / s B 0.19 m / s C 0.31 m / s D 0.50 m / s

11 A mass hangs vertically from a spring.

The mass is raised to a point P and is then released.

The mass oscillates repeatedly between point P and a lower point Q.

Which energies alternately increase and decrease throughout the oscillations?

A gravitational potential energy, kinetic energy and elastic energy


B gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy only
C gravitational potential energy, kinetic energy and internal energy
D internal energy and elastic energy

12 A car has 620 kJ of kinetic energy. The car brakes and stops in a distance of 91 m.

What is the average braking force acting on the car?

A 0.15 N B 6.8 N C 6800 N D 56 000 N

13 The diagram shows a deep reservoir formed by a dam.

water
dam
X

On what does the pressure at X depend?

A the depth of the water at X


B the length of the reservoir
C the surface area of the water
D the thickness of the dam wall

© UCLES 2022 0625/21/M/J/22 [Turn over


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6

14 A sealed rigid container has a fixed volume. The container is filled with air.

The container is placed in a freezer cabinet and the temperature of the air in the container
decreases.

Which row correctly describes what happens to the air in the container?

average distance average speed


between air particles of air particles

A decreases increases
B decreases decreases
C no change increases
D no change decreases

15 Two open containers are filled with water at room temperature. The containers have different
shapes.

container 1 container 2

From which container does the water evaporate at the greater rate and how can the rate of
evaporation be increased?

container with the greater how the rate of


rate of evaporation evaporation can be increased

A 1 decrease the water temperature


B 1 increase the water temperature
C 2 decrease the water temperature
D 2 increase the water temperature

© UCLES 2022 0625/21/M/J/22


www.dynamicpapers.com
7

16 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

°C
–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110

A student wishes to check the marking of the upper fixed point on this thermometer.

What should she do?

A Put the bulb in a beaker of boiling sea water.


B Put the bulb in a beaker of boiling pure water.
C Put the bulb in a beaker of ice and salt.
D Put the bulb in a beaker of pure melting ice.

17 Water in a beaker gains thermal energy at a rate of 3000 W. The water is at its boiling point.

The specific latent heat of vaporisation of water is 2260 J / g.

How long does it take for 250 g of the water to vaporise?

A 12 s B 188 s C 332 s D 750 s

18 A glass contains an iced drink on a warm and humid day. Water starts to form on the outside of
the glass.

What is the name of the effect by which the water forms?

A condensation
B conduction
C convection
D evaporation

© UCLES 2022 0625/21/M/J/22 [Turn over


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8

19 One end of a copper bar is heated to a high temperature.

Which mechanism is responsible for the transfer of thermal energy to the other end of the copper
bar?

A the lattice vibrations of copper ions only


B the lattice vibrations of copper ions and the movement of high energy electrons along the bar
C the movement of high energy copper ions along the bar
D the movement of high energy electrons along the bar only

20 The diagram shows a convection current caused by a piece of ice placed in a beaker of water at
room temperature.

ice

Which row correctly compares the temperatures and densities at water points P and Q?

temperature at P density at P

A higher than at Q higher than at Q


B higher than at Q lower than at Q
C lower than at Q higher than at Q
D lower than at Q lower than at Q

© UCLES 2022 0625/21/M/J/22


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9

21 The diagram shows a wave.

2.0
displacement / cm
1.0

0
0 4.0 8.0 12.0 16.0 20.0 24.0 28.0
–1.0 distance / cm

–2.0

Which row is correct?

amplitude of wavelength of
the wave / cm the wave / cm

A 1.0 4.0
B 1.0 8.0
C 2.0 4.0
D 2.0 8.0

22 A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times
per minute.

The speed of sound is 320 m / s.

What is the wavelength of the sound wave?

A 0.20 m B 5.0 m C 300 m D 18 000 m

© UCLES 2022 0625/21/M/J/22 [Turn over


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10

23 A card is placed in front of a plane mirror so that its label is facing the mirror, as shown.

plane mirror

label

card
observer

The label is shown.

How does the image of the label formed by the mirror appear to the observer?

A B C D

24 A thin converging lens can produce both real and virtual images.

Which row describes a real and a virtual image?

real image virtual image

A rays converge to form the image image can be projected onto a screen
B rays converge to form the image image cannot be projected onto a screen
C rays diverge to form the image image can be projected onto a screen
D rays diverge to form the image image cannot be projected onto a screen

25 The speed of light in air is 3.0  108 m / s.

The critical angle for light in a transparent plastic material placed in air is 37.

What is the speed of light in the plastic material?

A 1.8  108 m / s

B 2.4  108 m / s

C 3.8  108 m / s

D 5.0  108 m / s

© UCLES 2022 0625/21/M/J/22


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11

26 Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used by a remote controller for a television?

A infrared waves
B microwaves
C radio waves
D visible light

27 Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays?

A Radio waves have a longer wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.


B Radio waves have a longer wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.
C Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.
D Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.

28 A student counts how many iron pins an electromagnet picks up when its power supply is
switched on. Then, she counts how many pins are picked up when the power supply is switched
off.

core

d.c. power d.c. power


supply on supply off

iron pins

She repeats the experiment using cores made of different materials. The results are shown.

Which core is made out of soft iron?

pins picked up with pins picked up with


the power supply on the power supply off

A 0 0
B 2 7
C 8 5
D 12 0

© UCLES 2022 0625/21/M/J/22 [Turn over


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12

29 A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is
repelled by the rod.

Why is this?

A The rod and the sphere have like charges.


B The rod and the sphere have unlike charges.
C The rod is charged and the sphere is uncharged.
D The rod is uncharged and the sphere is charged.

30 Which unit is equivalent to a volt (V)?

A A /  B J/C C J/s D W/C

31 A resistor converts 360 J of energy when there is a current of 3.0 A in it. The potential difference
across the resistor is 6.0 V.

For how long is there this current in the resistor?

A 0.05 s B 20 s C 180 s D 720 s

© UCLES 2022 0625/21/M/J/22


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13

32 The four circuits shown each contain four diodes.

In which circuit is the direction of the current in the resistor always from the red terminal to the
black terminal?

A B

12 V 12 V

red black red black


terminal terminal terminal terminal

C D

12 V 12 V

red black red black


terminal terminal terminal terminal

© UCLES 2022 0625/21/M/J/22 [Turn over


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14

33 The diagram shows a circuit of six identical lamps connected to a battery.

S
Q

P T

R
U

Which lamps are brightest?

A P only
B Q and R only
C S, T and U only
D P, Q, R, S, T and U are equally bright

34 A digital circuit is made of two logic gates.

W Y
Z
X

Which row is correct for this digital circuit?

W X Y Z

A 0 0 1 0
B 0 1 0 1
C 1 0 1 0
D 1 1 0 1

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 0625/21/M/J/22


www.dynamicpapers.com
15

35 A magnet is dropped vertically through a solenoid. This induces magnetic poles at both ends of
the solenoid.

X X
S

S
N

diagram 1 diagram 2 diagram 3

Which magnetic poles are induced at position X in diagram 1 and diagram 3?

diagram 1 diagram 3

A N pole N pole
B N pole S pole
C S pole N pole
D S pole S pole

36 Which transformer can change a 240 V a.c. input into a 15 V a.c. output?

A B

800 turns 40 turns 1000 turns 25 turns

C D

2400 turns 15 turns 1200 turns 75 turns

© UCLES 2022 0625/21/M/J/22 [Turn over


www.dynamicpapers.com
16

37 What is the purpose of the split-ring commutator in an electric motor?

A to ensure that the magnetic field in the motor changes direction every half rotation
B to ensure that the magnetic field in the motor stays in the same direction at all times
C to ensure that the turning effect on the motor changes direction every half rotation
D to ensure that the turning effect on the motor stays in the same direction at all times

38 How do the sizes of the two nuclei produced in a nuclear fission reaction compare to the size of
the original nucleus?

A both larger than the original nucleus


B one larger and one smaller than the original nucleus
C both smaller than the original nucleus
D one smaller and one the same size as the original nucleus

39 Which statement about the radioactive decay of a substance is correct?

A It cannot be predicted when a particular nucleus will decay.


B Placing a radioactive substance inside a lead-lined box prevents it from decaying.
C The decay always produces poisonous gases.
D The rate of decay increases if the substance is dissolved in water.

40 The diagram shows a stream of -particles travelling in a line that passes between the poles of a
magnet.

E-particles

In which direction will the -particles be deflected by the magnet?

A towards the N pole


B towards the S pole
C into the page
D out of the page

© UCLES 2022 0625/21/M/J/22


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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*2216825848*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 06_0625_22/3RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
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2

1 Very small values of which quantity are measured using a micrometer screw gauge?

A time
B pressure
C moment
D distance

2 A man stands next to a railway track.

A train travelling at 40 m / s takes 2.0 s to pass the man.

What is the length of the train?

A 20 m B 38 m C 40 m D 80 m

3 Which quantity is equal to acceleration?

A area under a distance–time graph


B area under a speed–time graph
C gradient of a distance–time graph
D gradient of a speed–time graph

4 On the Moon, all objects fall with the same acceleration.

Which statement explains this?

A On the Moon, all objects have the same weight.


B The Moon has a smaller gravitational field strength than the Earth.
C The weight of an object is directly proportional to its mass.
D The weight of an object is inversely proportional to its mass.

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22


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3

5 A measuring cylinder contains 30 cm3 of a liquid.

cm3

50

40

30

20

10

balance

Some more of the liquid is added until the liquid level reaches the 50 cm3 mark.

The reading on the balance increases by 30 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.60 g / cm3 B 0.67 g / cm3 C 1.5 g / cm3 D 1.7 g / cm3

6 An object moves at constant speed around a circular path.

Which statement is correct?

A A resultant force acts on the object outwards from the centre of the circle.
B A resultant force acts on the object in the direction it is travelling.
C A resultant force acts on the object towards the centre of the circle.
D There is no resultant force acting on the object because it is moving at constant speed.

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22 [Turn over


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4

7 A beam is pivoted at one end, as shown.

40 cm beam
X
pivot

6.0 N

The beam weighs 6.0 N and its weight acts at a point X 40 cm from the pivot.

A force of 4.0 N is applied to the beam causing it to balance horizontally.

In which direction and where is the 4.0 N force applied?

A vertically downwards at 20 cm to the left of X


B vertically downwards at 20 cm to the right of X
C vertically upwards at 20 cm to the left of X
D vertically upwards at 20 cm to the right of X

8 The diagram shows two forces acting at right angles to each other.

scale
1.0 N

3.0 N

4.0 N

What is the resultant of the two forces?

A 1.0 N B 5.0 N C 7.0 N D 12.0 N

9 Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object?

A Impulse is the change in kinetic energy of the object.


B Impulse is the change in momentum of the object.
C Impulse is the rate of change of force acting on the object.
D Impulse is the rate of change of momentum of the object.

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22


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5

10 A ball of mass 0.16 kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg
is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of
0.50 m / s.

What is the speed of the first ball after the collision?

A 0.0 m / s B 0.19 m / s C 0.31 m / s D 0.50 m / s

11 A tennis ball is dropped from position 1. It falls vertically onto a hard surface at position 2.

tennis ball
position 1

position 2

Which energy changes have taken place between position 1 and position 2?

A gravitational potential → kinetic → chemical

B gravitational potential → kinetic → elastic (strain)

C kinetic → gravitational potential → chemical

D kinetic → gravitational potential → elastic (strain)

12 A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar.

He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s.

The weight of the boy is 500 N.

What is the average power he produces as he raises himself?

A 40 W B 400 W C 4000 W D 40 000 W

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22 [Turn over


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6

13 The diagram shows a deep reservoir formed by a dam.

water
dam
X

On what does the pressure at X depend?

A the depth of the water at X


B the length of the reservoir
C the surface area of the water
D the thickness of the dam wall

14 The conditions of a sample of gas change in two stages.

stage 1 increase of temperature at constant volume


stage 2 increase of volume with no further change of temperature

Which row about the pressure after each stage is correct?

stage 1 stage 2
pressure compared pressure compared to
to original pressure pressure after stage 1

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

15 Small pollen particles are suspended in water.

When viewed with a microscope, the pollen particles can be seen to be moving about irregularly.

What causes this movement?

A The pollen particles are being bombarded by the heavier particles of the water.
B The pollen particles are being bombarded by the lighter particles of the water.
C The temperature of the water is higher than that of the pollen particles.
D The temperature of the water is lower than that of the pollen particles.

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22


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7

16 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

Which physical property of the thermometer is used to measure temperature?

A expansion of glass
B expansion of liquid
C mass of glass
D mass of liquid

17 A block of lead of mass 500 g is at its melting point.

The specific latent heat of fusion of lead = 23 kJ / kg.

How much energy is required to completely melt the block?

A 46 J B 12 000 J C 46 000 J D 12 000 000 J

18 A glass contains an iced drink on a warm and humid day. Water starts to form on the outside of
the glass.

What is the name of the effect by which the water forms?

A condensation
B conduction
C convection
D evaporation

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22 [Turn over


www.dynamicpapers.com
8

19 One end of a copper bar is heated to a high temperature.

Which mechanism is responsible for the transfer of thermal energy to the other end of the copper
bar?

A the lattice vibrations of copper ions only


B the lattice vibrations of copper ions and the movement of high energy electrons along the bar
C the movement of high energy copper ions along the bar
D the movement of high energy electrons along the bar only

20 Four cubic copper containers are filled with water. The surfaces of all the containers are painted
black.

Two of the containers have sides of length 20 cm and the other two containers have sides of
length 40 cm.

Two of the containers contain water at 80 °C and the other two contain water at 30 °C.

Which container radiates energy at the lowest rate?

A B C D

30 qC 80 qC
30 qC 80 qC

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22


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9

21 The diagram shows a wave.

2.0
displacement / cm
1.0

0
0 4.0 8.0 12.0 16.0 20.0 24.0 28.0
–1.0 distance / cm

–2.0

Which row is correct?

amplitude of wavelength of
the wave / cm the wave / cm

A 1.0 4.0
B 1.0 8.0
C 2.0 4.0
D 2.0 8.0

22 The water wave shown has a frequency of 4.0 Hz.

36 cm

3.0 cm

What is the speed of the wave?

A 3.0 cm / s B 12 cm / s C 48 cm / s D 72 cm / s

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22 [Turn over


www.dynamicpapers.com
10

23 A student uses one eye to look at images in a plane mirror.

plane mirror

P Q R E S T U
X Y

Objects are placed on the line XY.

Which objects give rise to images that can be seen by the eye at E?

A P, Q, R, S, T and U

B Q, R, S and T only
C P and U only
D R and S only

24 An object is placed in front of a converging lens of focal length 15 cm.

Which row describes the image of the object?

distance of object
nature of the image
from lens / cm

A 40 real, upright, diminished


B 30 virtual, inverted, enlarged
C 20 real, inverted, diminished
D 10 virtual, upright, enlarged

25 The speed of light in air is 3.0 × 108 m / s.

The critical angle for light in a transparent plastic material placed in air is 37°.

What is the speed of light in the plastic material?

A 1.8 × 108 m / s

B 2.4 × 108 m / s

C 3.8 × 108 m / s

D 5.0 × 108 m / s

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22


www.dynamicpapers.com
11

26 Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller?

A infrared waves
B radio waves
C ultraviolet waves
D visible light

27 Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays?

A Radio waves have a longer wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.


B Radio waves have a longer wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.
C Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.
D Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22 [Turn over


www.dynamicpapers.com
12

28 The diagram shows the magnetic fields around three objects, P, Q and R, placed close to each
other.

P Q R

Which row shows the nature of each of the objects?

P Q R

permanent magnet permanent magnet


A copper rod
N S N S

permanent magnet permanent magnet


B copper rod
N S S N

permanent magnet permanent magnet


C iron rod
N S N S

permanent magnet permanent magnet


D iron rod
N S S N

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22


www.dynamicpapers.com
13

29 A negatively charged rod is brought near to an uncharged metal sphere that is placed on an
insulating stand.

metal sphere





insulating stand

Which diagram shows the distribution of charges on the sphere?

A B C D

+ – – + + –
+ – – + + –
+ – – + + –
+ – – + + –
+ – – + + –

30 A resistor has a potential difference (p.d.) of 12 V across it and a current of 0.60 A in it.

What is the resistance of the resistor?

A 0.050 Ω B 2.0 Ω C 7.2 Ω D 20 Ω

31 There is a current I in a resistor of resistance R for a time t. The potential difference (p.d.) across
the resistor is V.

Which equation gives the power P dissipated in the resistor?

A P = IR B P = It C P = IV D P = IV
t

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22 [Turn over


www.dynamicpapers.com
14

32 The four circuits shown each contain four diodes.

In which circuit is the direction of the current in the resistor always from the red terminal to the
black terminal?

A B

12 V 12 V

red black red black


terminal terminal terminal terminal

C D

12 V 12 V

red black red black


terminal terminal terminal terminal

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22


www.dynamicpapers.com
15

33 The diagram shows a battery connected to a potential divider and to two lamps, P and Q.

X Y

The slider on the potential divider is moved from end X to end Y of the resistor.

Which row shows the effect on the brightness of each lamp?

brightness of P brightness of Q

A brighter brighter
B brighter dimmer
C unchanged brighter
D unchanged dimmer

34 What is the truth table for the logic gate shown by the symbol?

X
OUT
Y

A B C D

X Y OUT X Y OUT X Y OUT X Y OUT

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22 [Turn over


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16

35 A coil XY is wound around a cardboard tube.

When the S pole of a magnet is pushed into the coil XY, the galvanometer deflects to the left.

X Y
cardboard tube
N S

S pole
moves in

What other movement of the magnet will produce a deflection to the left?

A B

X Y X Y

N S N S

S pole N pole
moves out moves out

C D

X Y X Y

S N S N

N pole S pole
moves in moves out

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22


www.dynamicpapers.com
17

36 Which transformer can change a 240 V a.c. input into a 15 V a.c. output?

A B

800 turns 40 turns 1000 turns 25 turns

C D

2400 turns 15 turns 1200 turns 75 turns

37 The diagram shows a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field.

current

LEFT
N S RIGHT

In which direction is the force acting on the wire?

A towards the bottom of the page


B to the left
C to the right
D towards the top of the page

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22 [Turn over


www.dynamicpapers.com
18

38 A scientist was asked to separate the following equations into two categories: nuclear fission and
nuclear fusion.

1 239
94 Pu → 112
46 Pd + 124
48 Cd + 3 01 n

2 3
2 He + 3
2 He → 4
2 He + 1
1H + 1
1H

3 14
7N + 1
1H → 15
8O

4 235
92 U → 90
36 Kr + 143
56 Ba + 201 n

Which equations show nuclear fission?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 and 4 D 2 and 4

39 Which radioactive source is used in a smoke alarm system and what is the reason for this?

source reason

A α causes least ionisation of air


B α causes most ionisation of air
C γ causes least ionisation of air
D γ causes most ionisation of air

40 A beam of α-particles and β-particles is incident at right angles to an electric field.

Which statement about the deflection of the particles in the field is correct?

A α-particles deflect, but β-particles do not deflect.

B α-particles deflect in the opposite direction to β-particles.

C β-particles deflect, but α-particles do not deflect.

D Both α-particles and β-particles deflect in the same direction.

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22


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19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22


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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/M/J/22


www.dynamicpapers.com

Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*1271175254*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 06_0625_23/3RP
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2

1 What is a micrometer screw gauge used to measure?

A very small currents


B very small distances
C very small forces
D very small pressures

2 A man stands next to a railway track.

A train travelling at 40 m / s takes 2.0 s to pass the man.

What is the length of the train?

A 20 m B 38 m C 40 m D 80 m

3 A skydiver jumps from an aeroplane and falls towards the Earth.

Which statement is correct when the skydiver has reached terminal velocity?

A The skydiver’s speed is decreasing.


B The skydiver’s speed is increasing.
C The skydiver is moving with constant speed.
D The skydiver’s speed is zero.

4 On the Moon, all objects fall with the same acceleration.

Which statement explains this?

A On the Moon, all objects have the same weight.


B The Moon has a smaller gravitational field strength than the Earth.
C The weight of an object is directly proportional to its mass.
D The weight of an object is inversely proportional to its mass.

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3

5 A measuring cylinder contains 30 cm3 of a liquid.

cm3

50

40

30

20

10

balance

Some more of the liquid is added until the liquid level reaches the 50 cm3 mark.

The reading on the balance increases by 30 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.60 g / cm3 B 0.67 g / cm3 C 1.5 g / cm3 D 1.7 g / cm3

6 A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F.

The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N.

The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s.

What is the value of F ?

A 2.0 N B 4.0 N C 6.0 N D 7.0 N

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4

7 A beam is pivoted at one end, as shown.

40 cm beam
X
pivot

6.0 N

The beam weighs 6.0 N and its weight acts at a point X 40 cm from the pivot.

A force of 4.0 N is applied to the beam causing it to balance horizontally.

In which direction and where is the 4.0 N force applied?

A vertically downwards at 20 cm to the left of X


B vertically downwards at 20 cm to the right of X
C vertically upwards at 20 cm to the left of X
D vertically upwards at 20 cm to the right of X

8 Two vectors, WX and WZ, are as shown.

X Y

W Z

What is the resultant of the vectors?

A WY B XY C XZ D ZY

9 Which equation for impulse is correct?

A impulse = Ft
F
B impulse =
t
C impulse = (mv – mu)t
( mv – mu )
D impulse =
t

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5

10 A ball of mass 0.16 kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg
is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of
0.50 m / s.

What is the speed of the first ball after the collision?

A 0.0 m / s B 0.19 m / s C 0.31 m / s D 0.50 m / s

11 In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring?

A chemical energy
B elastic potential energy
C gravitational potential energy
D thermal energy

12 A car moves along a horizontal road. Its initial kinetic energy is 280 kJ. A constant resistive force
of 200 N acts on the car. No other horizontal forces act on the car.

What is the kinetic energy of the car after it has travelled a distance of 300 m?

A 60 kJ B 80 kJ C 220 kJ D 340 kJ

13 The diagram shows a deep reservoir formed by a dam.

water
dam
X

On what does the pressure at X depend?

A the depth of the water at X


B the length of the reservoir
C the surface area of the water
D the thickness of the dam wall

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6

14 The diagram shows gas particles hitting the wall of a container. The system is at room
temperature.

Why do the gas particles exert a pressure on the wall?

A When the particles hit the wall, their momentum changes, which causes a force.
B When the particles hit the wall, their average kinetic energy increases.
C The particles expand when they hit the wall.
D The particles collide with each other.

15 A gas in a container is cooled but the volume of the gas does not change.

Which row describes the changes in the pressure of the gas and the kinetic energy of the gas
particles?

kinetic energy
pressure of gas
of gas particles

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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7

16 The iron cylinder of an engine is to be fitted into a piece of aluminium.

The outside diameter M of the iron cylinder is slightly larger than the diameter N of the hole in the
aluminium.

iron cylinder

aluminium
N

What is the best action to fit the cylinder into the aluminium?

A Cool the aluminium and cool the iron.


B Cool the aluminium and heat the iron.
C Heat the aluminium and cool the iron.
D Heat the aluminium and heat the iron.

17 Four metal blocks at a temperature of 200 °C are left to cool down to the same temperature.

The table gives the mass of each block and the energy it transfers to the surroundings as it cools.

block mass / g energy transferred / J

1 100 16 200
2 150 16 200
3 200 32 400
4 200 8 100

Which two blocks are made of the same metal?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 and 4 D 3 and 4

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8

18 A glass contains an iced drink on a warm and humid day. Water starts to form on the outside of
the glass.

What is the name of the effect by which the water forms?

A condensation
B conduction
C convection
D evaporation

19 One end of a copper bar is heated to a high temperature.

Which mechanism is responsible for the transfer of thermal energy to the other end of the copper
bar?

A the lattice vibrations of copper ions only


B the lattice vibrations of copper ions and the movement of high energy electrons along the bar
C the movement of high energy copper ions along the bar
D the movement of high energy electrons along the bar only

20 An object emits infrared radiation.

Which two properties of the object determine the rate of radiation of thermal energy from the
object?

A the density and the surface area of the object


B the density and the surface temperature of the object
C the mass and the surface area of the object
D the surface area and the surface temperature of the object

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21 The diagram shows a wave.

2.0
displacement / cm
1.0

0
0 4.0 8.0 12.0 16.0 20.0 24.0 28.0
–1.0 distance / cm

–2.0

Which row is correct?

amplitude of wavelength of
the wave / cm the wave / cm

A 1.0 4.0
B 1.0 8.0
C 2.0 4.0
D 2.0 8.0

22 The wavelength of a beam of X-rays, travelling through air, is 5.4 × 10–10 m.

What is its frequency?

A 5.6 × 10–17 Hz

B 5.6 × 1011 Hz

C 5.6 × 1017 Hz

D 5.6 × 1018 Hz

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10

23 A ray of light passes from air through a sheet of glass and out the other side, as shown.

air
boundary 1
glass
boundary 2
air

Which two angles are equal to each other?

A angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of incidence at boundary 2


B angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 1
C angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2
D angle of refraction at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2

24 A plane mirror is fixed to a vertical wall.

A boy looks at the image of himself in the mirror.

Which statement describes the image formed?

A real and upright


B real and upside down
C virtual and upright
D virtual and upside down

25 The speed of light in air is 3.0 × 108 m / s.

The critical angle for light in a transparent plastic material placed in air is 37°.

What is the speed of light in the plastic material?

A 1.8 × 108 m / s

B 2.4 × 108 m / s

C 3.8 × 108 m / s

D 5.0 × 108 m / s

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11

26 A resistor and a battery are connected in series.

The value of the resistor is 20 Ω.

The potential difference (p.d.) of the battery is 4.0 V.

What is the current in the resistor?

A 0.20 A B 4.0 A C 5.0 A D 80 A

27 Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays?

A Radio waves have a longer wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.


B Radio waves have a longer wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.
C Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.
D Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.

28 A student attempts to make a permanent magnet by hammering metal bars of the same size in
the same magnetic field.

In which case is the strongest permanent magnet produced?

A B
magnetic magnetic
field lines field lines

iron bar
iron bar

C D
magnetic magnetic
field lines field lines

steel bar
steel bar

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12

29 A metal sphere R is suspended on an insulating thread.

insulating thread
support

Another sphere S is brought close to sphere R. Sphere S has a negative charge and is attached
to a plastic stand. The diagram shows the spheres when they are close to each other.

S

– –
– –
–––
R

table plastic stand

Which charged state of R accounts for the behaviour in the diagram?

A negative only
B positive only
C negative or uncharged
D positive or uncharged

30 A student compares the wavelength and uses of infrared waves with microwaves.

Which row is correct?

wavelength of infrared
use of infrared waves
compared to microwaves

A longer intruder alarms


B longer satellite television
C shorter intruder alarms
D shorter satellite television

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13

31 There is a current I in a resistor for a time t. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor
is V.

A student calculates the product IVt.

In which unit is the student’s answer measured?

A ampere
B coulomb
C joule
D watt

32 Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct?

A If one lamp blows, the others remain switched on.


B The current in each lamp is different.
C The lamps can be switched on and off separately.
D The lamps have the same voltage across each of them.

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14

33 The four circuits shown each contain four diodes.

In which circuit is the direction of the current in the resistor always from the red terminal to the
black terminal?

A B

12 V 12 V

red black red black


terminal terminal terminal terminal

C D

12 V 12 V

red black red black


terminal terminal terminal terminal

34 The truth table for a logic gate is shown.

inputs output

0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

Which type of logic gate is it?

A AND B NAND C OR D NOR

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15

35 A wire XY is connected to a resistor R. The wire is moved in the magnetic field between two
magnetic poles.

In which direction must the wire be moved so that the induced current is in the direction shown?

induced
current
X

S N
C D
R

36 Which transformer can change a 240 V a.c. input into a 15 V a.c. output?

A B

800 turns 40 turns 1000 turns 25 turns

C D

2400 turns 15 turns 1200 turns 75 turns

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16

37 The circuit shown consists of a vertical wire, a resistor R and a battery.

The magnetic field near the wire is also shown.

card

card wire carrying


current into
the page

vertical wire
R view from above
showing the magnetic field

Two changes are made to the circuit:

● The polarity of the battery is reversed.


● The resistor R is replaced with another resistor with a lower resistance than R.

What effect will these changes have on the magnetic field near the wire?

direction of strength of
magnetic field magnetic field

A opposite same
B same weaker
C opposite stronger
D same stronger

38 Carbon-14 has a proton number (Z) of 6 and a nucleon number (A) of 14.

Nitrogen-14 has a proton number of 7 and a nucleon number of 14.

Carbon-14 emits β-particles to form nitrogen-14.

Which nuclide equation describes this process?

A 14
6C → 14
7N + 01 β

B 6
14 C → 7
14 N + 10 β

→ −1 β
14 14 0
C 6C 7N +

−1
→ 0β
6 7
D 14 C 14 N +

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17

39 A beam of radiation, containing α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays, passes between two parallel
plates. One plate is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.

Which radioactive emissions will be attracted towards the positively charged plate?

A α-particles only

B β-particles only

C γ-rays only

D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

40 A scientist uses a counter to measure the radioactivity of a sample of nitrogen-13.

The counter and sample of nitrogen-13 are on a table in a laboratory.

The reading on the counter is recorded for a period of 80 min and a graph is drawn using the
measurements.

400
count rate
counts / min

300

200

100

0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
time / min

What is the best estimate for the half-life of the sample of nitrogen-13?

A 10 min B 12 min C 14 min D 40 min

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 0625/23/M/J/22


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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*3313866971*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB22 11_0625_21/5RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
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2

1 Which measuring instrument is used to measure the diameter of a thin metal wire?

A 30 cm rule
B measuring tape
C metre rule
D micrometre screw gauge

2 A car starts from rest.

The table shows the readings from its speedometer every 10 s.

time / s 0 10 20 30 40 50 60
speed
0 4 8 12 12 12 12
m/ s

Which row describes the car’s motion in the first 30 seconds and in the last 30 seconds?

motion during first 30 s motion during last 30 s

A non-zero acceleration at rest


B zero acceleration constant speed
C zero acceleration at rest
D non-zero acceleration constant speed

3 Which property of an object is a consequence of the effect of a gravitational field acting on it?

A density
B mass
C volume
D weight

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3

4 The diagram shows the dimensions of a solid rectangular block of metal of mass m.

q
p

Which expression is used to calculate the density of the metal?

A m
(p  q)

B m
(p  q  r )
C mpq

D mpqr

5 A wheelbarrow has a weight W of 140 N.

F
0.8 m

1.4 m

Which vertical force F is needed to support the wheelbarrow in the position shown?

A 60 N B 80 N C 140 N D 245 N

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4

6 A car is travelling around a circular track at a constant speed, as shown.

In which direction is the resultant force on the car?

D
car

C A
direction of
movement

7 The diagram shows part of a hose used by a firefighter.

nozzle NOT TO
SCALE
water water
moving moving
at 6 m / s at 1 m / s

15 kg of water flows through the hose each second.

Which force is applied to the hose by the water?

A 15 N B 75 N C 90 N D 105 N

8 Brakes are used to slow down a moving car.

Into which form of energy is most of the kinetic energy converted as the car slows down?

A chemical
B elastic
C thermal
D sound

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5

9 An object has kinetic energy of 200 J.

A constant resultant force of 190 N is applied in the direction of its motion through a distance of
10 m.

What is the final kinetic energy of the object?

A 390 J B 1700 J C 2000 J D 2100 J

10 The statements describe what happens when the power of a machine is increased.

1 The work done in a given time decreases.


2 The work done in a given time increases.
3 The time taken to do a given quantity of work decreases.
4 The time taken to do a given quantity of work increases.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

11 A manometer containing water is used to measure the pressure of a gas supply, as shown.

water
gas
supply

40 cm

10 cm

The density of water is 1000 kg / m3.

What is the pressure of the gas supply?

A 300 Pa above atmospheric pressure


B 400 Pa above atmospheric pressure
C 3000 Pa above atmospheric pressure
D 4000 Pa above atmospheric pressure

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6

12 A fixed mass of gas is trapped in a container. The temperature of the gas is increased but the
volume of the gas is kept constant.

fixed
mass
of gas

How does this change affect the average kinetic energy of the molecules and the pressure on the
walls of the container?

average
pressure
kinetic energy

A increases increases
B stays the same increases
C increases decreases
D decreases increases

13 Which row correctly describes boiling and evaporation of water?

boiling evaporation

A bubbles seen occurs at surface only


B bubbles seen occurs throughout the water
C no bubbles occurs at surface only
D no bubbles occurs throughout the water

14 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

bulb capillary tube

Which change increases the sensitivity of the thermometer?

A a narrower capillary tube


B a wider capillary tube
C thicker glass around the bulb
D thinner glass around the bulb

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7

15 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer with a uniform capillary tube.

liquid capillary tube


NOT TO
0 qC 100 qC SCALE

8 mm 64 mm
88 mm

Which temperature is indicated by the thermometer?

A 73 C B 80 C C 82 C D 90 C

16 Four thermometers, with their bulbs painted different colours, are placed at equal distances from
a radiant heater.

Which thermometer shows the slowest temperature rise when the heater is first switched on?

A dull black
B dull white
C shiny black
D shiny white

17 A wave source produces 3000 crests every minute. The wave has a speed of 300 m / s.

What is the wavelength of the wave?

A 0.10 m B 0.17 m C 6.0 m D 10.0 m

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8

18 The diagrams show two sets of wavefronts in a ripple tank.

wave wave
direction direction

barrier shallow water

A student makes two statements about the waves.

1 When the waves reflect from the barrier the direction changes but the wavelength
remains the same.
2 When the waves refract as they enter the shallow water the direction remains the
same, but the wavelength changes.

Which statements are correct?

A statement 1 and statement 2


B statement 1 only
C statement 2 only
D neither statement 1 nor statement 2

19 A composite block is made by joining together three transparent materials.

The diagram shows a ray of light passing through the composite block.

material 1

material 2

material 3

Which list gives the three materials in order of the speeds of light in the materials, from slowest to
fastest?

A 123 B 132 C 213 D 231

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20 An object is placed 30 cm in front of a plane mirror.

Which statement describes the image of the object?

A The image is the same size and 30 cm from the object.


B The image is the same size and 60 cm from the object.
C The image is smaller and 30 cm from the object.
D The image is smaller and 60 cm from the object.

21 A ray of light is shone onto the surface of a mirror.

2 3
1 4

Which two angles represent the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

22 The speed of sound in air is 330 m / s.

How do the speeds of sound in concrete and water compare with this speed?

speed in speed in
concrete water

A greater greater
B greater less
C less greater
D less less

23 What is the speed of microwaves in air?

A 3  108 m / s

B 3  108 cm / s

C 3  108 m / s

D 3  108 km / s

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24 An observer stands at the finish line of a 100 m race. He wants to time the winner’s run. He starts
his stop-watch as soon as he sees the smoke from the starting gun instead of when he hears the
bang.

What is the reason for doing this?

A Light travels much faster than sound.


B There is a risk he might respond to an echo from a wall.
C Humans react slower to sound than to light.
D Humans react more quickly to sound than to light.

25 Which statement is not a method for magnetising an iron bar?

A Place the bar next to a magnet and hammer the bar.


B Place the bar inside a solenoid. Switch on an alternating current (a.c.) in the coil and
gradually reduce the current.
C Place the bar inside a solenoid. Switch on a direct current (d.c.) in the coil and gradually
reduce the current.
D Stroke the bar repeatedly with a magnet.

26 The diagram shows a circuit containing a variable resistor connected to a variable power supply.

power
supply

The table shows the currents for different values of the potential difference (p.d.) and the
resistance.

p.d. / V resistance /  current

3.6 12 I1
1.2 12 I2
3.6 6 I3

What is the order of the currents from smallest to largest?

A I1  I2  I3 B I1  I3  I2 C I2  I1  I3 D I3  I1  I2

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27 Which diagram shows the electric field pattern around a positive charge?

A B C D

+ + + +

28 A negatively charged plastic rod P is placed above a positively charged plastic rod Q.

P
– – – – –

Q
+ + + + +

What are the directions of the electrostatic forces on rod P and on rod Q?

electrostatic force electrostatic force


on rod P on rod Q

A downwards downwards
B downwards upwards
C upwards downwards
D upwards upwards

29 A lamp rated 12 V, 2.0 A is switched on for one minute.

How much energy is transferred by the lamp?

A 6.0 J B 24 J C 360 J D 1440 J

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12

30 An alternating current (a.c.) power supply is connected in series with a resistor R and a diode.

Which graph shows how the voltage V across the resistor R varies with time?

A B

voltage V voltage V

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

voltage V voltage V

0 0
0 time 0 time

31 A student makes four resistors using different pieces of wire. The wires have different diameters
and lengths. All the pieces of wire are made of the same material.

Which piece of wire will make the resistor with the largest resistance?

diameter / mm length / cm

A 0.8 10
B 0.8 17
C 2.0 10
D 2.0 17

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13

32 Which diagram shows a circuit containing a battery, a fuse and a buzzer?

A B

C D

33 The diagram shows a network of logic gates.

OUT

Which single logic gate, placed between X, Y and OUT, would have the same effect as the
network?

A B C D

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14

34 The diagram represents a transformer.

core

primary coil

Which row shows materials suitable for making the core and the primary coil?

core primary coil

A iron copper
B iron plastic
C steel copper
D steel plastic

35 The diagrams show the magnetic field lines around a wire carrying a current, I.

1 2

I I

3 4

I I

Which diagrams are correct?

A 1 only B 2 and 3 C 4 only D 1 and 3

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36 Which statement about electromagnetic induction is correct?

A A conductor moving parallel to magnetic field lines induces an electromotive force (e.m.f.) in
the conductor.
B The direction of the induced electromotive force (e.m.f.) opposes the change which produces
it.
C The induced current is in a direction parallel to the direction of motion producing it.
D The induced electromotive force (e.m.f.) decreases when the speed of the conductor moving
across the field lines increases.

37 A very important experiment increased scientists’ understanding of the structure of matter.

In the experiment, particles scattered as they passed through a thin metal foil.

Which particles were used, and to which conclusion did the experiment lead?

particles conclusion

A alpha-particles matter is made up of atoms


B alpha-particles atoms have a very small nucleus
C beta-particles matter is made up of atoms
D beta-particles atoms have a very small nucleus

38 Polonium, Po, has a proton number equal to 84 and a nucleon number equal to 218.

Polonium changes into astatine, At, by emitting a -particle.

Which equation represents this decay?

84 85 –1
A 218Po  218 At + 0 
84 –1 85
B 218Po + 0  218 At
218 218 0
C 84Po  85 At + –1 
218 0 218
D 84Po + –1   85 At

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16

39 The graph shows how the count rate from a radioactive isotope changes with time.

60

count rate 50
counts / s
40

30

20

10

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
time / s

What is the half-life of this isotope?

A 2.0 s B 6.0 s C 12 s D 53 s

40 What is the nature of -emission?

A electromagnetic waves
B negatively charged particles
C positively charged particles
D uncharged particles

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 0625/21/O/N/22


www.dynamicpapers.com

Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*3644971804*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 11_0625_22/3RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
www.dynamicpapers.com
2

1 Which measuring devices are most suitable to determine the volume of about 200 ml of liquid and
the diameter of a thin wire?

volume of about
diameter of a thin wire
200 ml of liquid

A measuring cylinder micrometer screw gauge


B measuring cylinder ruler
C ruler measuring cylinder
D ruler micrometer screw gauge

2 The diagrams show speed–time graphs for four different bodies moving for 6.0 s.

Which body travelled the least distance?

A B
8.0 8.0
speed speed
m/s m/s
6.0 6.0

4.0 4.0

2.0 2.0

0 0
0 2.0 4.0 6.0 0 2.0 4.0 6.0
time / s time / s

C D
8.0 8.0
speed speed
m/s m/s
6.0 6.0

4.0 4.0

2.0 2.0

0 0
0 2.0 4.0 6.0 0 2.0 4.0 6.0
time / s time / s

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/O/N/22


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3

3 Which statement describes the relationship between mass and weight?

A Mass is the effect of a gravitational field on a weight.


B Mass is the effect of a magnetic field on a weight.
C Weight is the effect of a gravitational field on a mass.
D Weight is the effect of a magnetic field on a mass.

4 The diagram shows four pieces of laboratory apparatus.

100
100
90
90
80
80
70
70
60
60
50
50
40
40
30
30
0.0g 20
20
10
10

balance measuring ruler stop-watch


cylinder

Which pieces of apparatus are used to find the density of a liquid?

A balance and stop-watch


B balance and measuring cylinder
C measuring cylinder and ruler
D stop-watch and ruler

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/O/N/22 [Turn over


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4

5 The diagram shows a metre rule MN on two supports, P and Q.

Two loads are placed on the rule, as shown.

load load
M N

P Q

The rule rests steadily on the supports.

Which row is correct?

total moment total moment


about M about N

A is clockwise is anticlockwise
B is clockwise is zero
C is zero is clockwise
D is zero is zero

6 The diagram shows an object moving at a constant speed in a circular path in the direction
shown.

A force acts on the object to keep it in the circular path.

In which labelled direction does this force act, when the object is in the position shown?

A
object

B D

C path of
object

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/O/N/22


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5

7 A trolley of mass 4.0 kg travelling with a velocity of 4.0 m / s collides with a trolley of mass 2.0 kg
travelling with a velocity of 2.0 m / s in the same direction. After the collision, the velocity of the
4.0 kg trolley is reduced to 3.0 m / s.

4.0 m / s 2.0 m / s 3.0 m / s v

4.0 kg 2.0 kg 4.0 kg 2.0 kg

before collision after collision

What is the velocity v of the 2.0 kg trolley after the collision?

A 0.25 m / s B 4.0 m / s C 5.0 m / s D 16 m / s

8 An object falls towards the Earth’s surface.

What happens to the gravitational potential energy and to the kinetic energy of the object?

gravitational potential
kinetic energy
energy

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

9 A boy takes 0.60 s to lift a book of mass 0.60 kg from the top of a desk and place it on a shelf.
The top of the desk is 0.80 m above the floor, and the shelf is 1.7 m above the floor. The
gravitational field strength is 10 N / kg.

shelf

top of desk
1.7 m

0.8 m

Which power does the boy develop?

A 0.9 W B 1.7 W C 9.0 W D 17 W

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6

10 A mass is lifted from rest on the ground to Y. There is no air resistance.

P is the increase in gravitational energy of the mass.

Q is the kinetic energy of the mass at Y.

Which expression is equal to the mechanical work done on the mass?

A P+Q B P–Q C Q–P D P×Q

11 The diagram shows a tank containing sea water.

sea water

NOT TO
tank 8.0 m SCALE

P
60 cm

The density of the sea water is 1020 kg / m3.

What is the pressure at point P relative to atmospheric pressure?

A 7400 Pa above atmospheric pressure


B 7500 Pa above atmospheric pressure
C 75 000 Pa above atmospheric pressure
D 82 000 Pa above atmospheric pressure

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/O/N/22


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7

12 The pressure of a fixed mass of gas in a cylinder is measured. The volume of the gas in the
cylinder is slowly decreased. The temperature of the gas does not change.

Which graph shows how the pressure of the gas changes during this process?

A B

pressure pressure

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

pressure pressure

0 0
0 time 0 time

13 Wet clothes are hanging outside to dry.

What are the best conditions for the clothes to dry most quickly?

wind speed temperature

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

14 Which change in the design of a liquid-in-glass thermometer makes it more sensitive?

A a larger liquid reservoir


B a longer tube
C a smaller liquid reservoir
D a wider tube

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8

15 A scientist is determining the specific latent heat of vaporisation of a liquid.

He puts the liquid in a vacuum flask and heats it with a 100 W heater. The mass of liquid in the
vacuum flask when it starts to boil is 300 g. He continues to heat the liquid for a further
12 minutes after which the mass of the remaining liquid is 100 g.

What is the specific latent heat of vaporisation of the liquid?

(Assume that all the thermal energy from the heater is used to vaporise the liquid.)

A 6000 J / kg
B 240 000 J / kg
C 360 000 J / g
D 360 000 J / kg

16 Which piece of equipment is designed to produce a type of electromagnetic wave?

A electric fire
B electric generator
C electric motor
D electromagnet

17 A sound wave travels from air into water.

Which row describes what happens to the frequency and the wavelength of the wave?

frequency wavelength

A decreases increases
B decreases stays the same
C stays the same decreases
D stays the same increases

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/O/N/22


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9

18 The diagram shows plane water waves in a ripple tank passing through a gap between two
barriers and spreading out.

barrier

plane
water
waves

barrier

Which name is given to this effect?

A diffraction
B reflection
C refraction
D total internal reflection

19 A ray of light travels from air into a material, as shown.

40q air

material

27q

What is the refractive index of the material?

A 1.4 B 1.5 C 1.7 D 1.9

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10

20 The diagram shows an object in front of a plane mirror.

At which labelled position is the image of the object formed?

B C

A D
plane
mirror

eye
object

21 The angle between an incident ray and the surface of a plane mirror reflecting the ray is 70°.

What is the angle of incidence?

A 20° B 40° C 70° D 140°

22 The diagram shows the air molecules in part of a sound wave at a particular moment in time.

Which statement is not correct?

A Earlier, there was compression at X.


B Later, there will be a rarefaction at X.
C This part of the wave is travelling horizontally across the page.
D This part of the wave is travelling towards the top of the page.

23 An object is reflected in a plane mirror.

Which description of the image is correct?

A diminished and real


B enlarged and virtual
C same size and real
D same size and virtual

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/O/N/22


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11

24 A 100 m race is started by firing a gun. The gun makes a bang and a puff of smoke at the same
time.

starter finishing
judge

100 m

When does the finishing judge see the smoke and when does he hear the bang?

sees the smoke hears the bang

A almost immediately almost immediately


B almost immediately after about 0.3 s
C after about 0.3 s almost immediately
D after about 0.3 s after about 0.3 s

25 Two magnets X and Y are placed end to end on a bench. The diagram shows the magnetic field
pattern between the poles of the magnets.

X Y

Which row shows the direction of the forces exerted on X and Y by the magnetic field?

force on X force on Y

A
B
C
D

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12

26 The diagram shows a circuit used to control the potential difference (p.d.) across a lamp.

The variable resistor is adjusted until the p.d. across the lamp is 6.0 V.

The current in the lamp is 0.5 A.

What is the resistance of the lamp?

A 0.083 Ω B 3.0 Ω C 6.5 Ω D 12.0 Ω

27 A charge Q flows for time t through a resistor of resistance R.

Which equation gives the current I in the resistor?

A I = Qt B I = Rt C I=Q D I= R
t t

28 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry woollen cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Which statement is correct?

A Electrons move from the cloth to the rod.


B Electrons move from the rod to the cloth.
C Protons move from the cloth to the rod.
D Protons move from the rod to the cloth.

29 Which diagram shows a graph of current against voltage for a filament lamp?

A B C D

current current current current

0 0 0 0
0 voltage 0 voltage 0 voltage 0 voltage

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/O/N/22


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13

30 Each potential divider is placed in a circuit with a power supply.

Which potential divider makes the potential difference (p.d.) across component Y increase when
the light intensity increases?

A B C D

X X X X

Y Y Y Y

31 Diagram 1 is a circuit diagram showing an a.c. power supply connected to four diodes and a
resistor.

Diagram 2 shows the output voltage from the power supply.

diagram 1 diagram 2

voltage

0
R 0 time

Which graph correctly shows the voltage–time curve across resistor R?

A B

voltage voltage

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

voltage voltage

0 0
0 time 0 time

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/O/N/22 [Turn over


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14

32 Which diagram shows the circuit symbol for a fuse?

A B C D

33 The diagram represents an alarm system using a logic gate.

temperature
sensor
logic
siren
gate
smoke
detector

The data for the system is shown.

state 0 1

temperature sensor cold hot


smoke detector no smoke smoke
siren no sound sound

The siren sounds when there is any indication of a fire.

Which logic gate is used?

A B C D

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/O/N/22


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15

34 Four small compasses are placed around a solenoid.

solenoid

A current is now switched on in the solenoid.

Which diagram shows possible new directions of the compass needles?

A B

C D

35 Transformers are used in the transmission of electrical power to houses.

Which type of transformer is used at the power station prior to connection to the power lines and
which type is used prior to delivery to the houses?

power station before houses

A step-down step-down
B step-down step-up
C step-up step-down
D step-up step-up

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/O/N/22 [Turn over


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16

36 The diagram shows an a.c. generator rotating in a clockwise direction.

magnets

N I
S

What are the names of parts 1 and 2?

1 2

A brush slip-ring
B brush split-ring commutator
C slip-ring brush
D slip-ring split-ring commutator

37 A thin metal foil is placed in a vacuum. α-particles are fired at the foil and most go straight
through. A very small proportion of the α-particles are deflected through large angles.

What does this provide evidence for?

A α-particles are very small.


B There are negative electrons in each atom.
C There is a tiny nucleus in each atom.
D There are neutrons in each atom.

230
38 Thorium-230 is represented by the symbol
90
Th . This isotope is radioactive and decays to
radium by emitting α-particles.

Which nuclide is produced by this decay?

226 230 230 234


A
88
Ra B
89
Ra C
91
Ra D
92
Ra

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/O/N/22


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17

39 The diagram shows a piece of apparatus used to determine the nature of the emissions from a
radioactive source. The absorbers can be raised out of or lowered into the path of the radiation
from the source to the detector. The apparatus is evacuated.

different
absorbers

detector radioactive
source

vacuum

The table gives a set of results for a particular radioactive source.

count rate on detector


absorber in use
(counts per second)

none 350
thin paper 350
1.0 mm aluminium 180
1.0 cm lead 23

Which types of radiation are being emitted by the radioactive source?

A α-particles and β-particles

B α-particles only

C β-particles and γ-rays

D β-particles only

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/O/N/22 [Turn over


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18

40 The graph shows the measured count rate of radiation from a source containing a radioactive
isotope. The detector is in a laboratory, with no shielding from background radiation.

X
count rate

0
0 time

What is the measured count rate after a time of one half-life?

X Y (X −Y ) (X +Y )
A B C D
2 2 2 2

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/O/N/22


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19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/O/N/22


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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 0625/22/O/N/22


www.dynamicpapers.com

Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*7815350245*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 11_0625_23/2RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
www.dynamicpapers.com
2

1 A wire is approximately 48 cm long and has an approximate diameter of 0.3 mm.

Which measuring instruments can be used to obtain more precise values of the dimensions of the
wire?

length of the wire diameter of the wire

A 30 cm ruler micrometer
B half-metre rule 30 cm rule
C half-metre rule micrometer
D micrometer half-metre rule

2 The velocity–time graph for a car is shown.

25
velocity
m/s 20

15

10

0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35
time / s

What is the distance travelled by the car in 35 s?

A 250 m B 350 m C 450 m D 700 m

3 Which property of a body results from the effect of a gravitational field on its mass?

A the ability of the body to resist a change in motion


B the density of the body
C the volume of the body
D the weight of the body

© UCLES 2022 0625/23/O/N/22


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3

4 The diagram shows four pieces of laboratory apparatus.

100
100
90
90
80
80
70
70
60
60
50
50
40
40
30
30
0.0g 20
20
10
10

balance measuring ruler stop-watch


cylinder

Which pieces of apparatus are used to find the density of a liquid?

A balance and stop-watch


B balance and measuring cylinder
C measuring cylinder and ruler
D stop-watch and ruler

5 A metal rod of length 80 cm is pivoted at point O. Its centre of mass is at its mid-point. Four pulley
wheels are indicated by the letter P.

P P P P
cords

20 cm 20 cm
O

metal rod

0.10 kg 0.10 kg

The rod is in equilibrium, as shown.

What is the weight of the rod?

A 0.20 N B 1.0 N C 2.0 N D 4.0 N

© UCLES 2022 0625/23/O/N/22 [Turn over


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4

6 The diagram shows an object moving at a constant speed in a circular path in the direction
shown.

A force acts on the object to keep it in the circular path.

In which labelled direction does this force act, when the object is in the position shown?

A
object

B D

C path of
object

7 A force F acts on a body of mass m for a time t. During this time, the velocity of the body
increases from u to v.

Which equation relates F, m, t, u and v ?

A Fm = t(v – u)
B Fm = t(v + u)
C Ft = m(v – u)
D Ft = m(v + u)

8 An object falls towards the Earth’s surface.

What happens to the gravitational potential energy and to the kinetic energy of the object?

gravitational potential
kinetic energy
energy

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

© UCLES 2022 0625/23/O/N/22


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5

9 A skier is pulled up a short straight slope at constant speed by a rope.

rope

The tension in the rope is 100 N and there is a combined frictional and air resistance force of 20 N
acting on the skier.

The slope is 10 m long and the skier rises 1.5 m vertically.

How much work is done by the rope pulling the skier up the slope?

A 120 J B 150 J C 1000 J D 1200 J

10 In some situations, a force does work.

Which set of conditions increases the quantity of work done by the force?

magnitude distance moved


of force by the force

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C increases increases
D stays the same decreases

11 A measuring cylinder of cross-sectional area 4.0 cm2 contains 224 cm3 of liquid.

The pressure of the liquid at the base of the measuring cylinder due to the liquid is 8800 Pa.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 224 kg / m3 B 385 kg / m3 C 1600 kg / m3 D 2200 kg / m3

© UCLES 2022 0625/23/O/N/22 [Turn over


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6

12 The pressure of a fixed mass of gas in a cylinder is measured. The volume of the gas in the
cylinder is slowly decreased. The temperature of the gas does not change.

Which graph shows how the pressure of the gas changes during this process?

A B

pressure pressure

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

pressure pressure

0 0
0 time 0 time

13 Which statement about evaporation is correct?

A A body in contact with an evaporating liquid loses thermal energy.


B A decrease in the surface area of an evaporating liquid increases the rate of evaporation.
C A wind over a liquid decreases the rate of evaporation.
D It is necessary to provide an external source of thermal energy to a liquid for it to evaporate.

14 Which change in the design of a liquid-in-glass thermometer makes it more sensitive?

A a larger liquid reservoir


B a longer tube
C a smaller liquid reservoir
D a wider tube

© UCLES 2022 0625/23/O/N/22


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7

15 An ice cube of mass 12 g at 0 C absorbs thermal energy from the surroundings at a rate of 3 J / s.
The specific latent heat of fusion of ice is 330 J / g.

How long will it take for the ice cube to melt?

A 82.5 s B 1320 s C 3960 s D 11 880 s

16 Which piece of equipment is designed to produce a type of electromagnetic wave?

A electric fire
B electric generator
C electric motor
D electromagnet

17 A passing boat causes a floating object on a lake to bob up and down 18 times in 12 s. The
wavelength of the wave created by the boat is 48 cm.

What is the velocity of these water waves?

A 32 cm / s B 72 cm / s C 576 cm / s D 864 cm / s

18 Wavefronts are incident on a boundary.

What is needed for the wave to refract at the boundary?

A a shiny surface at the boundary


B a small gap in the boundary
C different mediums either side of the boundary in which the frequency of the wave is different
D different mediums either side of the boundary in which the speed of the wave is different

© UCLES 2022 0625/23/O/N/22 [Turn over


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8

19 A person uses a magnifying glass to look at a stamp.

Which ray diagram shows a thin converging lens being used to do this?

A B
lens lens

stamp stamp

C D
lens lens

stamp stamp

20 The diagram shows an object in front of a plane mirror.

At which labelled position is the image of the object formed?

B C

A D
plane
mirror

eye
object

© UCLES 2022 0625/23/O/N/22


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9

21 The diagram shows the action of a thin converging lens on two rays of light. The rays are from
the top of an object O. An inverted image I is formed.

lens

I
O R S

Which name is given to the distance RS?

A principal axis
B principal focus
C focal length
D real length

22 The diagram shows the air molecules in part of a sound wave at a particular moment in time.

Which statement is not correct?

A Earlier, there was compression at X.


B Later, there will be a rarefaction at X.
C This part of the wave is travelling horizontally across the page.
D This part of the wave is travelling towards the top of the page.

23 The speed of light in a vacuum is 3.0  108 m / s.

Which value is closest to the speed of light in air?

A 3.0  102 m / s

B 3.0  104 m / s

C 3.0  106 m / s

D 3.0  108 m / s

© UCLES 2022 0625/23/O/N/22 [Turn over


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10

24 A 100 m race is started by firing a gun. The gun makes a bang and a puff of smoke at the same
time.

starter finishing
judge

100 m

When does the finishing judge see the smoke and when does he hear the bang?

sees the smoke hears the bang

A almost immediately almost immediately


B almost immediately after about 0.3 s
C after about 0.3 s almost immediately
D after about 0.3 s after about 0.3 s

25 A student is to demagnetise a bar magnet. She tries four different ways.

1 hammering the magnet


2 heating the magnet
3 passing direct current through the magnet AC CURRENT
4 placing the magnet in water

Which methods will demagnetise the magnet?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 4 D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2022 0625/23/O/N/22


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11

26 A student is investigating a resistance wire.

She measures the current in a 50 cm length of resistance wire.

resistance wire

The student repeats the experiment using a 100 cm length of the same resistance wire.

What is the effect of this change on the current in the circuit and on the resistance of the wire?

effect on effect on
current resistance

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

27 A resistor is connected to a cell so that there is a current from the positive terminal of the cell to
the negative terminal.

What causes the current in the resistor?

A electrons moving from the negative terminal of the cell to the positive terminal
B electrons moving from the positive terminal of the cell to the negative terminal
C protons moving from the negative terminal of the cell to the positive terminal
D protons moving from the positive terminal of the cell to the negative terminal

28 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry woollen cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Which statement is correct?

A Electrons move from the cloth to the rod.


B Electrons move from the rod to the cloth.
C Protons move from the cloth to the rod.
D Protons move from the rod to the cloth.

© UCLES 2022 0625/23/O/N/22 [Turn over


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12

29 Which combination of the current in a resistor and the time for which it is present results in a
charge of 240 C passing through the resistor?

A a current of 2.0 A for 120 s


B a current of 4.0 A for 960 s
C a current of 6.0 A for 40 minutes
D a current of 8.0 A for 30 minutes

30 Each potential divider is placed in a circuit with a power supply.

Which potential divider makes the potential difference (p.d.) across component Y increase when
the light intensity increases?

A B C D

X X X X

Y Y Y Y

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31 Two resistors, R1 and R2, are connected in series in a circuit, as shown.

I0 R1 R2

The current in the resistors is I0.

Another resistor, R3, is then connected in parallel with R2, as shown.

R3

I1 R1 I2 R2

How do the currents I1 and I2 in the resistors R1 and R2 compare to current I0?

current in R1 current in R2

A I1 = I0 I2 < I0
B I1 = I0 I2 = I0
C I1 > I0 I2 = I0
D I1 > I0 I2 < I0

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32 The diagram shows a circuit containing a cell, a lamp and two ammeters.

ammeter 1 A A ammeter 2

The current reading on ammeter 2 is 0.20 A.

What is the name for this type of circuit and what is the reading on ammeter 1?

type of circuit reading on ammeter 1

A series 0.20 A
B series greater than 0.20 A
C parallel 0.20 A
D parallel greater than 0.20 A

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33 The diagram shows how logic gates can be used to monitor the temperature in a refrigerator.

magnetic closed = 1 R
switch NOT W
on door open = 0

OR

temperature cold = 1 S X
NOT
sensor hot = 0

Y
Z warning
main on = 1 T AND light
system
switch off = 0

The warning light will come on if the output at Z is 1.

The door R is open, the temperature sensor S is cold and the main system switch T is on.

What is the logic state at Y and what is the state of the warning light?

logic state at Y warning light

A 0 off
B 0 on
C 1 off
D 1 on

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34 Four small compasses are placed around a solenoid.

solenoid

A current is now switched on in the solenoid.

Which diagram shows possible new directions of the compass needles?

A B

C D

35 Which metal is used for the core of a transformer?

A aluminium
B copper
C soft iron
D steel

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36 The diagram shows a conducting metal rod PQ in the magnetic field between the N pole and the
S pole. The rod is connected to a resistor in a circuit.

In which direction should rod PQ be moved to induce the current I in the direction of the arrow in
the circuit?

N A
Q

C D

B
S
P

37 A thin metal foil is placed in a vacuum. -particles are fired at the foil and most go straight
through. A very small proportion of the -particles are deflected through large angles.

What does this provide evidence for?

A -particles are very small.


B There are negative electrons in each atom.
C There is a tiny nucleus in each atom.
D There are neutrons in each atom.

38 The table compares -radiation, -radiation and -radiation.

Which row is correct?

-radiation -radiation -radiation

A more ionising than  or  a proton electromagnetic radiation


B less ionising than  or  an electron two protons and two neutrons
C more ionising than  or  an electron electromagnetic radiation
D less ionising than  or  electromagnetic radiation a proton

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39 A high-voltage power supply is connected to a metal grid and a wire, as shown.

radioactive source
emitting D-particles
metal grid

wire
high
voltage sparks
observed

When the radioactive source is placed close to the grid, sparks are observed in the position
indicated.

Which statement explains why the sparks are formed?

A -particles have a long range.

B -particles have no charge.

C -particles have no mass.

D -particles are strongly ionising.

40 A student investigates four different radioactive isotopes. The student places a detector near
each radioactive material.

The background count rate is 36 counts per minute throughout the investigation.

The table shows the detector readings at the start and after 8 hours.

Which isotope has a half-life of 4 hours?

count rate at the start count rate after 8 hours


counts per minute counts per minute

A 150 36
B 212 53
C 260 92
D 356 80

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To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

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