Answer Key PDF

Answer key
Index
1. Quantities and units .................................................................. 2
2. Atoms and the periodic table .................................................. 15
3. Chemical bonds ....................................................................... 27
4. Carbon chemistry .................................................................... 39
5. Chemical reactions .................................................................. 54
6. Examples of chemical reactions .............................................. 69
7. Motion ..................................................................................... 82
8. Forces..................................................................................... 110
9. Gravitational forces ............................................................... 126
10. Forces in fluids ....................................................................... 139
11. Work and energy ................................................................... 157
12. Energy and heat ..................................................................... 174
Annexes ................................................................................. 188

Physics and Chemistry 4. ANSWER KEY
Quantities
and units
Quantities and units 1
WORK WITH THE IMAGE
• Look at the scale on the rain gauge and describe it. Does it look precise?
The scale on the rain gauge goes from 0.125L to 0.125L. It allows us to measure the quantity of water that falls as
rain. It is not very accurate compared to the scales of, for example, laboratory test tubes, where it is necessary to
measure the volume of liquids with greater precision.
• Why does the thermometer have two scales? Which of these is usually used in the weather forecast?
The thermometer has two scales because temperature can be measured using different scales. In Spain, and
many other countries, we usually use the Celsius scale to measure ambient temperature. In many English-
speaking countries it is more common to use the Fahrenheit scale. In the weather forecast the Fahrenheit scale is
being used. We can tell because the minimum temperature indicated is 38°, and this must be expressed in the
Fahrenheit scale, since the minimum temperature in degrees Celsius is lower.
• Why does the hygrometer scale go from 0 to 100?
Because the relative humidity in the air is a relative quantity; when we say that the relative humidity of the air is
50 %, we are indicating that the quantity of water vapour in the air is 50% of the maximum quantity of water that
can be dissolved in air. When the humidity is 100%, the air is completely saturated with water vapour and will no
longer take any more water in vapour form.
STARTING POINTS
• Do some research to find out what a weather vane is.
What is the difference between a weather vane and an anemometer?
An anemometer measures wind speed, and a weather vane only shows wind direction and orientation. However,
both instruments study the speed of air.
• What other measuring instruments do you know? Are there any in your classroom? Explain what each of them
measures and the unit that the measurement is usually expressed in.
Open answer. It is useful for the students to relate each measuring instrument with the measurement of one or
several magnitudes, and in all cases with different units. In addition, our choice of instrument to take a
measurement often depends on how big the value is we are going to measure. For example, kitchen scales and
bathroom scales measure the same thing, but with a different order of magnitude.
ACTIVITIES
1 In a free kick, a football can reach a speed of 34 m/s. What is this speed in km/h?
To express the speed in another unit we use the corresponding conversion factor or factors. Solved problem:
m 1 km 3600 s
34 ⋅ ⋅ = 122.4 km/h
s 1000 m 1h
2 The density of seawater is 1.13 g/mL. Express this in International System (SI) units.
Again, we use the corresponding conversion factor or factors. The unit of mass in the SI is the kg, and the unit of
volume, m3.
g 1000 mL 1000 L 1 kg
1.13 ⋅ ⋅ 3
⋅ = 1130 kg/m3
mL 1 L 1 m 1000 g
3
3 Write the following numbers in scientific notation:
a) 2 073 500 b) 0.000 350 002
a) 2 073 500 = 2.0735 · 106. b) 0.000 350 002 = 3.50002 · 10−4.
4 Write the following numbers with three significant figures:

a) 3.4349 c) 25.55
b) −0.072 51 d) 1.0068
Remind students of the concept of the significant figure. For example, 0.03 only has only one significant figure,
while 3.60 has three significant figures.
a) 3.4349 → 3.43. c) 25.55 → 25.6.
b) −0.072 51 → −0.0725. d) 1.0068 → 1.01.
5 Imagine that you are cycling around a track on a bicycle.

a) Write down some observations and identify a problem related to movement that you can study.
b) Develop a hypothesis and design an experiment.
c) What data are you going to collect? How can you analyse this data?
a) Open answer. Example: In 5 minutes I cycle a distance of 2km. What is the average speed of travel?
b) Open answer. Hypothesis: when the ground is wet, the distance travelled when we brake is greater than
when the ground is dry. We could design an experiment in which, going at the same speed, we decide to
stop the bicycle, using the brake. We do this on dry ground and wet ground.
c) In the previous example, the data to record are the speed of the bicycle in both cases, in order to check
that it is the same before starting to brake. Also, the distance travelled from applying the brakes until the
bicycle comes to a complete stop. Analysis would involve taking measurements several times and collecting
the data in a table.
6 Look for an article on a subject that you are interested in, such as ‘we need eight hours of sleep a night’ or
‘eating more than two eggs per week can cause high cholesterol’. Classify the article according to the type of
publication it is in. Explain your answer in your notebook.
Open answer. The idea is that students acquire a critical mind, and do not take the things they read on web
pages, etc. to be true. They should be selective when using sources of information, and check the information in
several sources before accepting it as reliable.
7 Explain why the following can't be accepted as hypotheses:

• How is the Ebola virus transmitted?
• Black holes are formed by hydrogen and helium.
In the first case there is no proposed explanation of a fact, only a question about a scientific problem.
In the second case we cannot prove the explanation because no radiation or matter can escape from a black
hole. Therefore, there is nothing to provide us with information about its interior.
8 On 23 March, 1989, Stanley Pons and Martin Fleischmann announced that they had achieved a nuclear fusion
reaction at a low temperature. Find out why this claim was not accepted.
Because no other groups of scientists were able to repeat the experiment and obtain the same results, starting
from the same initial conditions.
4
9 Classify the following quantities as scalar or vector:
a) Velocity. c) Volume.
b) Displacement. d) Density.
a) It is a vector quantity, because to define it completely you have to indicate the value, the direction and the
orientation of the moving object.
b) Vector, you have to indicate the direction and orientation to know it fully.
c) Scalar.
d) Scalar.
10 Explain whether the following statements express measurement accurately:

a) The car is moving at 20 km/h.
b) The density of the liquid is 1.3 g/mL.
c) There is a displacement of 5 m.
d) The length of the notebook is 29 cm.
a) No, because there is no indication of where the car is going. Velocity is a vector quantity.
b) Yes, it expresses measurement accurately. Density is a scalar quantity, so its numerical value is enough.
c) No, there is no indication of the direction and orientation of the displacement.
d) Yes, it expresses measurement accurately.
11 Write the dimensional equations for the following quantities:

a) Force. b) Density. c) Concentration.
a) We can write force as mass multiplied by acceleration. Therefore:
L
[F ] =[m ⋅ a] → [F ] =[m] ⋅ [a] =M ⋅
2
→ [F ] =M ⋅ L ⋅ T −2
T
b) Density can be expressed as mass divided by volume. Therefore:
m M
[d ] =  → [d ] = 3 → [d ] =M ⋅ L−3
V  L
c) Concentration can be expressed as a mass divided by a volume. Therefore, it is the same as in the case of
density:
m M
[C ] =  → [C ] =L3 → [C ] =M ⋅ L
−3
V
 
12 Use dimensional analysis to check whether the following equations make sense:
a) p · V = F · L
b) v · a = F · m
a) We write the dimensional analysis for each dimensional unit of the equation:
L
M⋅ 2
F   m⋅a  T
[ p ⋅V ] = [ p] ⋅ [V ] =   ⋅ [V ] =   ⋅ [V ] = 2 ⋅ L3 = M ⋅ T −2 ⋅ L2
S  S  L
L
[F ⋅ L] =[F ] ⋅ [L] =[m ⋅ a] ⋅ [L] =M ⋅
⋅ L =M ⋅ T −2 ⋅ L2
T2
As we can see, the equation makes sense from the point of view of dimensional analysis.
5
b) We write the dimensional analysis for each dimensional unit of the equation:
L L
[v ⋅ a] =[v ] ⋅ [a] =
⋅ =L2 ⋅ T −3
T T2
L
[F ⋅ m] =[F ] ⋅ [m] =[m ⋅ a] ⋅ [m] =M ⋅ 2 ⋅ M =M2 ⋅ L ⋅ T −2
T
In this case they do not match, so the initial equation does not make sense.
13 Five observers measure the time it takes for a person to complete a 100 m race and get these results:
12.05 s; 13.35 s; 10.80 s; 11.70 s; 11.50 s
a) What is the precision of the stopwatches?
b) What was the duration of the race?
c) Find the absolute and the relative error of the last measurement.
a) The stopwatches are able to measure hundredths of a second: 0.01s.
b) The duration of the race can be expressed as the average of the measurements.
∑t i
t1 + t2 + t3 + t4 + t5 12.05 s + 13.35 s + 10.80 s + 11.70 s + 10.50 s
t Average
= =
i
= = 11.68 s
N 5 5
c) The absolute error is the precision of the stopwatch: 0.01s.
The relative error is calculated by dividing the absolute error by the most likely result, i.e., by the average of
the results obtained.
E Absolute 0.01 s
ERelative
= ⋅ 100
= ⋅ 100
= 0.09 %
VAverage 11.68 s
14 A metallic cylinder has a radius of 1.5 cm and a height of 2.5 cm. Its mass is 49.8 g. Use this data to calculate
with the appropriate number of significant figures:
a) The volume of the cylinder.
b) Its density.
a) We calculate the volume of the cylinder from the surface of the base and the height:
V = SBase ⋅ h = π ⋅ R 2 ⋅ h = π ⋅ (1.5 cm ) ⋅ 2.5 cm = 18 cm3
2
We express the value of the volume with the same number of significant figures that are given for the
radius and the height.
b) We calculate density by dividing mass by volume:
m 49.8 g
d
= = = 2.8 g/cm3
V 18 cm3
Similarly, we express the value of density with the same number of significant figures that we are given for
mass and volume. Since mass is given with three significant figures, but volume with two significant figures,
we express the value for density with two significant figures.
15 The table on the right shows the position of a moving object at different
times. Draw a graph and determine the position of the moving object when
the stopwatch started.
6
We put time on the horizontal axis and position of the moving object on the vertical axis.
Here is the graph:
Position (cm)
40
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12
Time (s)
If we draw a straight line based on the points on the table, we see that the starting position of the moving
object is 5cm approximately.
ACTIVITY ROUND-UP
16 The following statements are about sources of information and what they can be used for. In your notebook,
write if the statements below are true or false.
a) The only reliable sources of information are scientific journals.
b) Some websites or personal blogs contain high quality scientific information.
c) The best sources of information are the websites of well-known research centres and universities.
d) General interest newspapers and magazines do not provide reliable scientific information.
a) False. There are many other reliable sources of information, although scientific journals are the ones that
offer guarantees to researchers. They are the medium in which scientific advances are usually
communicated.
b) True.
c) True.
d) False. On many occasions the articles in newspapers and magazines are written by reputable scientists. But
this is not always the case, so we should take the information with caution, especially if it comes from
sensationalist magazines.
17 Write the dimensional equation for velocity and acceleration.

Velocity:
s L
[v ] =  t  = T = L ⋅ T
−1
Acceleration:
−1
v  L ⋅ T
[a ]=  t  = = L ⋅ T −2
T
18 In your notebook, indicate which of the following measurements can be taken directly and which cannot.
In each case, state how you would take the measurement.
a) The volume of a solid.
b) Temperature.
c) The velocity of the movement of a body.
7
d) The surface of a body.
e) The volume of a liquid.
f) The density of a solid.
a) No. You have to use a test tube to measure the volume of the solid immersed in a liquid, and then subtract
the volume of the liquid.
b) Yes. You only need a thermometer.
c) No. You have to measure the value for displacement with a tape measure, for example, and the time taken
with a stopwatch.
d) No. You have to measure the dimensions (height, width, radius, etc.) and then calculate the surface.
e) Yes. You only need a burette, a test tube, etc.
f) No. You have to measure the mass of the solid with scales, and then measure its volume, as described in
section a).
19 In your notebook, explain which of the following characteristics can be applied to the absolute error or
relative error of a measurement. Keep in mind that some may apply to both or neither.
a) It has units. c) It indicates the quality of the
b) It can be expressed as a percentage. measurement.
d) Its value can be a negative number.
a) It can be applied to the absolute error.

b) It can be applied to the relative error.
c) It can be applied to the absolute error and the relative error.
d) It can be applied to the absolute error.
20 In your notebook, match each graph with the label

that describes the relationship between the
variables and the mathematical equation that
relates them.
I → 2. Magnitudes directly proportional to k < 0 →
B. y = −k · x + n
II → 4. Inversely proportional magnitudes → C. y ·
x=k
III → 1. Magnitudes directly proportional to k > 0
→ D. y = k · x + n
IV → 3. Magnitudes with quadratic relationships
→ A. y = k · x2 + n
PRACTICE
21 Look for two sources of information about water quality that are of a scientific nature. Explain why you
chose these sources.
Students’ own answer. Students can look for information in, among other places, the website of the regional
water company.
22 Read the definitions below and express the relationship between the following derived quantities and the
corresponding base quantities.
a) Pressure is force per unit of surface area.
b) Work is force per unit of displacement.
8
a) We write the corresponding equation:
v L /t
m⋅ m⋅
F m⋅a t= t = m
p= = =
S L2 L2 L2
t2 ⋅L
b) We write the corresponding equation again, and substitute each magnitude:
v L/t m ⋅ L2
W = F ⋅L = m⋅a ⋅L = m⋅ ⋅L = m⋅ ⋅L =
t t t2
23 Use dimensional analysis to justify if the following expression is correct:

Force · displacement = mass · acceleration · length
We write the dimensional equations for the first dimensional unit of the equation:
v d / t 
[F ⋅ d ] = [F ] ⋅ [d ] = [m ⋅ a] ⋅ [d ] = [m] ⋅   ⋅ [d ] = [ m ] ⋅  ⋅ [d ] = M ⋅ L2 ⋅ T −2
t   t 
Now we write the dimensional equation for the second dimensional unit of the equation:
v d / t 
[m ⋅ a ⋅ d ] = [m] ⋅ [a] ⋅ [d ] = [m] ⋅   ⋅ [d ] = [ m ] ⋅   ⋅ [d ] = M ⋅ L2 ⋅ T −2
t
   t 
The dimensional analysis matches, so the expression is correct.
24 Force is measured in newtons. Remember that weight is a measure of the force of gravity acting upon an
object. Prove that 1 N is equivalent to 1 kg · m/s2, using the equation for calculating weight.
W = m · g → [F] = [m] · [g] = [m] = M · L/T2 = M · L · T-2 → 1 N = 1 kg · 1 m · 1 s-2
25 Use dimensional analysis to explain how you can calculate velocity by multiplying acceleration by time.
We perform the dimensional analysis of velocity:
s L
[v ] =  t  = T = L ⋅ T
−1
Now we repeat this for acceleration by time:

L
[ a ⋅ t ] = [ a ] ⋅ [t ] =
⋅ T =L ⋅ T −1
T2
As we can see, the result is the same. We can conclude that velocity can be calculated by multiplying
acceleration by time.
26 Calculate, using an appropriate number of significant figures:

a) The surface area of a coin whose radius is 2.3 cm.
b) The circumference of a coin whose radius is 2.3 cm.
c) The surface and perimeter of a rectangle whose sides are 3.25 cm and 4 m.
a) We write the formula that gives us the surface area and substitute the data:
S = π ⋅ r 2 = π ⋅ ( 2.3 cm ) = 17 cm2
2
We write the result with the same number of significant figures that are indicated for the data.
b) We write the corresponding formula and substitute:
L = 2π ⋅ r = 2π ⋅ 2.3 cm = 14.45 cm
c) The surface area is:
S = L1 ⋅ L2 = 3.25 cm ⋅ 400 cm  1 m2
9
The perimeter is:
p = L1 + L2 = 3.25 cm + 400 cm  400cm
In both cases we use a single significant figure, since we are given the value of one of the sides with one
significant figure.
27 We use precision scales to measure the mass of a drop of water and obtain the following results:
• 298 mg • 325 mg • 290 mg • 298 mg • 306 mg
a) What is the precision of the scales?
b) What is the mass of a drop of water?
c) Find the absolute error and the relative error of the first and the third measurements.
a) The precision of the scales is 1mg, because it is the minimum value to which the indicated values are set.
b) We can calculate the mass of a drop of water by determining the average value:
i
m1 + m2 + m3 + m4 + m5 ∑m
=
i
= mAverage
=
N 5
298 mg + 325 mg + 290 mg + 298 mg + 306 mg
= = 303 mg
5
c) The absolute error is 1mg. We calculate the relative error by dividing the absolute error by the measured
value or, in this case, the calculated average value:
Ea 1 mg
E=
r ⋅ 100
= ⋅ 100
= 0.3 %
mAverage 303 mg
28 We used laboratory scales to measure the mass of a grain of rice. The result was 27 mg. We measured the
mass of a person on a set of standard bathroom scales. The result was 57.4 kg.
a) Find the absolute error of each measurement.
b) Find the relative error of each measurement.
c) Which of the two measurements is the most accurate?
a) For the measurement with the laboratory scales:
Ea Lab. = 1 mg
For the measurement with the bathroom scales:
106 mg
Ea Bath 0.1
= = kg 0.1 kg ⋅ = 105 mg
1 kg
b) For the measurement with the laboratory scales:

Ea Lab. 1 mg
Er Lab. = ⋅ 100 = ⋅ 100  4 %
VLab. 27 mg
For the measurement with the bathroom scales:
Ea Bath 0.1 kg
Er Bath = ⋅ 100= ⋅ 100  0.2 %
VBath 57.4 kg
c) The measurement with the bathroom scales is more accurate. This is because although the absolute error
is greater, the relative error is lower.
29 A referee ends a football match one minute late. Meanwhile, another referee ends a basketball game a
minute late, too. Which of the two makes a more serious mistake? Why? Remember that a basketball game
lasts for 40 minutes and a football match lasts for 90 minutes.
The basketball referee, because the duration of the basketball game is shorter. Therefore, the relative error
commited is greater, even even thought the absolute error is the same.
10
30 The table below shows the pressure of a gas compared to its volume:
a) Draw a graph to indicate the relationship between the variables.

b) Write the formula that shows the relationship between volume and pressure.
a) Graph:
Pressure (hPa)
2500
2000
1500
1000
500
0
0 200 400 600 800 1000 1200 1400 1600 1800
Volume (mL)
The variables are inversely proportional, since their product is a constant.

b) The mathematical formula that links both variables is:
p ⋅ V= cte.= 208000 hPa ⋅ mL
31 The table below shows the relationship between the length of a square room and its surface area. Draw
a graph (put the length on the X axis and the area on the Y axis).
What shape is the graph?
Surface area (m2)

18
16
14
12
10
08
06
04
02
00
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Length (m)
The line in the graph is a parabola. When the length doubles, the surface area becomes fout times bigger.
11
SCIENTIFIC COMPETENCE
32 Try adding another substance whose temperature increases by 10 °C every 5 minutes to the table. Represent
this data graphically using a spreadsheet.
Practical exercise. The complete graph would look more or less like this:
The green line represents the new substance.
33 Change the scale of the axes so that the horizontal axis goes up to 40 min and the vertical axis goes to 80 °C.
Practical exercise:
Temperature (°C)
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40
Time (min)
34 Select a data set (one line), right click on your selection with your mouse and try to change the colour and
thickness of the line.
Practical exercise.
35 Measure the diameter and the perimeter of at least five coins. Use a spreadsheet to represent the perimeter
versus the diameter graphically.
Practical exercise. Whatever the measured values, the relationship between the perimeter and the diameter is
constant.
a)
12
The graph should be a straight line.
Perimeter (mm)
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30
Diameter (mm)
36 Draw a graph to represent the numbers 1 to 10 with their squares. Use a formula in the spreadsheet to help
you to make these calculations.
Practical exercise.
Square
100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Number
In the spreadsheet they should use a formula to calculate the squares automatically. We click on the cell next to
the number 1 and write the = symbol. Next, we click on the cell where the number 1 appears and write the ^
symbol followed by a 2. In this cell, the square of the number in the adjacent cell will appear. Next, we drag the
cursor down from the lower right-hand corner of the cell that contains the formula. By selecting all these cells
under the 1, the squares of numbers are calculated automatically.
13
37 Now, do the same to represent numbers 1 to 10 with their square roots. Use a formula in the spreadsheet to
help you to make these calculations.
Practical exercise.
Square root
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Number
INVESTIGATE
38 Analyse the table of data and the resulting graph, then answer the questions.
a) What shape is the graph?
b) Does it pass through points (0, 0)? What does this mean?
c) Is there a mathematical relationship between concentration and density?
a) The answer will depend on the data obtained in the experiment. The graph is a straight line.
b) It does not pass through the points (0, 0). This means that even if the concentration is zero, the density will
not be zero, since in this case, when there is no solute, the density of the solution corresponds to the
density of the solvent.
c) The answer will depend on the data obtained in the experiment. In the case of sugar, a substance that is
less dense than water, the density of the solution will vary as we increase the concentration of sugar. We
must remember that various factors have an influence. When we add more sugar the weight will increase,
but volume will also be somewhat greater. However, many solutions are not additive; the volume of the
solution is less than the sum of the volumes occupied by the solvent and solute separately.
39 Can you deduce any scientific laws from this experiment?

The answer will depend on the results of the experiment.
40 Think of other variables that may be related to a solution’s density, such as temperature or the type of
solute. Design an experiment to analyse each of these variables.
Students’ own answer.
To study the temperature variable, students can measure the density of a solution at different temperatures.
They will need to measure the mass and determine the volume of the solution at each temperature, which can
be determined with a thermometer.
To study the type of solute, students can measure the density of different solutions formed by a constant
quantity of solvent and a constant quantity of solute, but varying the substance that is used as the solute. In this
way we can test how the type of solute influences the density of the solution.
14
Atoms and the

periodic table
Atoms and the periodic table 2
WORK WITH THE IMAGE
• Are there any tungsten filaments in xenon headlights? What causes the atoms of the gases in a xenon headlight
to become excited? How is light produced in xenon headlights?
No. The atoms are excited by the electrical charge released. The light is produced when atoms pass from an
excited state, with more energy, to their previous, unexcited state, with less energy. The energy difference
between these two atomic states is emitted in the form of light.
• Why is night driving with xenon headlights said to be safer?
Because xenon headlights are brighter, and we can see further with them than with older types of headlights.
STARTING POINTS
• What particles form atoms?
In an atom there is a nucleus, where we find the protons and neutrons, and a shell, formed by electrons rotating
around the nucleus.
• Where is xenon in the periodic table?
Xenon is in group 18 of the periodic table, in the last column on the right.
• What type of element is it?
Xenon is a noble gas. This means that it is formed of very stable atoms that do not react with other chemical
elements.
ACTIVITIES
1 In your notebook, indicate how many protons, neutrons and electrons the following species have:
58 19 − 41 52
a) 28 Ni 9 F e) 19 K g) 24 Cr 3+
c)
63 40
b) 29 Cu 32
S2−
11
5 B h) 20 Ca2+
d) 16 f)
a) 28 protons, 28 electrons and 58 − 28 = 30 neutrons.
b) 29 protons, 29 electrons and 63 − 29 = 34 neutrons.
c) 9 protons, 10 electrons and 19 − 9 = 10 neutrons.
d) 16 protons, 18 electrons and 32 − 16 = 16 neutrons.
e) 19 protons, 19 electrons and 41 − 19 = 22 neutrons.
f) 5 protons, 5 electrons and 11 − 5 = 6 neutrons.
g) 24 protons, 21 electrons and 52 − 24 = 28 neutrons.
h) 20 protons, 18 electrons and 40 − 20 = 20 neutrons.
2 Working in SI units, what is the mass of an atom that has 3 protons, 3 electrons and 4 neutrons? What if it did
not have electrons?
We calculate the mass by adding the masses of the particles that form the atom:
m = 3 ⋅ mp + 4 ⋅ me + 4 ⋅ mn = 3 ⋅ 1.673 ⋅ 10 −27 kg + 3 ⋅ 9.11 ⋅ 10 −31 kg + 4 ⋅ 1.675 ⋅ 10 −27 kg = 1.17 ⋅ 10 −26 kg
16
If it did not have electrons, the mass would be
m = 3 ⋅ mp + 4 ⋅ mn = 3 ⋅ 1.673 ⋅ 10 −27 kg + 4 ⋅ 1.675 ⋅ 10 −27 kg = 1.17 ⋅ 10 −26 kg
In other words, practically the same, since the mass of the electrons is much smaller than the mass of the
protons and neutrons.
3 Answer the question above using the atomic scale.

On the atomic scale, since the mass of the proton and the neutron is approximately 1 u, and the mass of the
electron is about 1836 times less:
1u
m = 3 ⋅ mp + 4 ⋅ me + 4 ⋅ mn = 3 ⋅ 1 u + 3 ⋅ + 4 ⋅ 1 u = 7.0016 u
1840
If it did not have electrons, the mass would be
m = 3 ⋅ mp + 4 ⋅ me + 4 ⋅ mn = 3 ⋅ 1 u + 4 ⋅ 1 u = 7 u
4 Taking into account the masses of the proton and the electron shown in the table in kg, verify that the mass
of the proton is 1840 times greater than that of the electron.
The quotient between the masses is:
mp 1.673 ⋅ 10 −27 kg
= = 1836.4  1840
me 9.11 ⋅ 10 −31 kg
WORK WITH THE IMAGE Page 29

• Imagine that you throw little balls of crumpled-up tissue paper against a sheet of tissue paper, held up in a
circular shape, like in the image on the left. Some would be deflected. Where do you think these little balls
would be deflected?
For example, the little balls could have collided with a denser material that was hidden in the tissue paper.
5 Complete the sentences in your notebook.

Dalton's atomic model
Matter is formed by atoms, which are indivisible and indestructible particles.
Experiments in discharge tubes demonstrated that atoms contained negative charges and positive
charges.
Thomson's atomic model
The atom is like a large mass of positively charged matter (protons), in which electrons are embedded. The
atom is neutral and therefore it has an equal number of protons and electrons.
The gold foil experiment was conducted to test Thomson’s model.
In the experiment, alpha α particles were launched at a very fine sheet of gold foil. These were very
radioactive particles with a positive charge. The particles were expected to pass through the sheet of gold.
Instead, scientists discovered that some particles were scattered.
Rutherford's atomic model
The atom consists of a very small nucleus, which contains protons and neutrons. All of its positive charge
and nearly all of its mass is concentrated there. Electrons spin around the nucleus, forming a shell.
Rutherford's model does not explain why the electrons can spin around the nucleus without losing energy,
which would make them fall into the nucleus.
Bohr’s atomic model
The atom consists of a nucleus and a shell like in Rutherford's model. Electrons can only spin in certain
orbits, in which no energy is emitted. The electron can only pass from one orbit to another by gaining or
losing energy.
Bohr's model is also known as the layer model because electrons are arranged in layers around the
nucleus.
17
6 Which of the following orbitals have the same shape?
• 2p • 5p
• 1s
• 5s • 3d
• 4f
• 3s • 5d
Orbitals of the same type have the same shape. This means that orbitals that are identified with the same letter
will have the same shape, even if their numbers are different. Thus, from the list, 1s, 3s and 5s will have the
same shape. 2p and 5p will also have the same shape, as will 3d and 5d.
7 The electrons of an atom are present in all orbitals up to and including its 5p orbitals. In your notebook, write
down all the orbitals where electrons can be found.
There are electrons in the orbitals situated at lower energy. In order of filling:
1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d, 5p
8 Find the electron configuration of the following elements: Mg, Mn, P, Ar, Pb and U. Which group and period
of the periodic table do these elements belong to?
Mg (Z = 12): 1s2 2s2p6 3s2. Group 2, period 2.
Mn (Z = 25): 1s2 2s2p6 3s23p6 4s23d5. Group 7, period 4.
P (Z = 15): 1s2 2s2p6 3s23p3. Group 15, period 3.
Ar (Z = 18): 1s2 2s2p6 3s23p6. Group 18, period 3.
Pb (Z = 82): 1s2 2s2p6 3s23p6 4s23d104p6 5s24d105p6 6s24f145d106p2. Group 14, period 6.
U (Z = 92): 1s2 2s2p6 3s3p6 4s23d104p6 5s24d105p6 6s24f145d106p6 7s26d15f3. Group 6, period 7.
9 Copy and complete this table in your notebook:

The table should look like this:
Group Period Valence

configuration
Sr 2 5 5s2
Ni 10 4 4s2 3d8
S 16 3 3s2p4
Xe 18 5 5s2p6
Np 7 7 7s2 6d1 5f4

• In which group and period is gold found? What about iron?
Gold is in group 11, period 6.
Iron is in group 8, period 4.
• In your notebook, write the symbol of two elements with a valence configuration of s2 p5.
For example, the ones from group 17: F, Cl, Br…
10 Put the following elements in order according to the size of their atoms:
a) Tℓ, Ga, Aℓ, In and B.
b) P, Cℓ, Mg, Aℓ, Na and S.
c) F, Cs, Mg, P and Ca.
18
a) In each period of the periodic table, size decreases as the atomic number increases. In each group, size
increases as the atomic number increases. Therefore, the order from largest to smallest is:
Tℓ > In > Ga > Aℓ > B
b) The order from largest to smallest is:
Na > Mg > Aℓ > P > S > Cℓ
c) The order from largest to smallest is:
Cs > Ca > Mg > P > F
11 How many electrons does an atom of the following elements need to gain or lose to reach the nearest noble
gas configuration? Copy and complete the table in your notebook.
Symbol Element N.° of electrons in Electrons Electrons lost Ionic charge

its valence shell gained
Rb Rubidium 1 0 1 +1
Se Selenium
Ga Gallium 6 2 0 −2
Be Beryllium 2 0 2 +2
Sr Strontium 2 0 2 +2
Kr Krypton 8 0 0 It does not
form ions.
I Iodine 7 1 0 −1
ACTIVITY ROUND-UP
12 Copy this table into your notebook and complete the information about the different particles.
Proton Electron Neutron
Mass 1.673 · 10−27 kg 9.11 · 10−31 kg 1.675 · 10−27 kg

Charge +1.6 · 10−19 C −1.6 · 10−19 C 0
13 Copy the text below into your notebook and fill in the gaps with the appropriate information for each type of
orbital:
A: d, f, p, s B: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
Type d orbitals are found in layer 3 and above. In each shell there are 5 type d orbitals.
Type f orbitals are found in layer 4 and above. In each shell there are 7 type f orbitals.
Type p orbitals are found in layer 2 and above. In each shell there are 3 type p orbitals.
Type s orbitals are found in layer 1 and above. In each shell there are 2 type 2 orbitals.
14 Match the following statements to the corresponding atomic model:

a) It doesn't explain why electrons do not fall into the nucleus. Rutherford’s model.
b) It describes positively charged mass with electrons embedded in it. Thomson’s model.
c) Electrons are arranged in layers. Bohr's model.
19
d) The gold foil experiment showed that this model doesn't work. Thomson’s model.
e) It explains why atoms produce radiation spectra. Bohr's model.
f) The electrons are in orbitals. The modern atomic model.
g) It describes an atom with a very small nucleus and very large shell. Rutherford’s model.
h) It explains all of the rays in the atomic spectra. The modern atomic model.
15 Draw the shape of s and p orbitals in your notebook.

Visual answer. Type s:
Type p:
16 The following is the electron configuration of the phosphorus atom. Look at it and answer the questions.
a) What does the electron configuration of an atom represent?

b) What are the three principles that determine the electron configuration of an atom?
c) Write the electron configuration of phosphorus using only letters and numbers.
a) The way in which the electrons in the shell of the atom are distributed around the nucleus.
b) The principle of minimum energy, which states that electrons will occupy the low energy orbitals first.
The Pauli exclusion principle, which states that no more than two electrons can fit in the same orbital.
The maximum multiplicity principle, which states that electrons tend to be unpaired.
c) 1s2 2s2p6 3s2p3.
17 Draw a grid like this one in your notebook and complete the following activities:
a) Write the number of each group and period.
b) Mark the squares that correspond to alkaline metals and write their valence configuration.
c) Repeat b) for the following groups of elements: alkaline earth metals, noble gases, halogens and
transition elements.
d) Mark the boxes and write the valence configuration for elements that are in the group that contains
boron, carbon, nitrogen and oxygen.
e) Draw a grid that represents the internal transition elements and explain why it has the number of rows
and columns it does.
f) Mark where metals and non-metals can be found in the table.
20
Answer:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
a) Answer in the grid.

b) Alkaline metals: column 1. Valence configuration: s1. In blue.
c) Alkaline earth metals: column 2. Valence configuration: s2. In green.
Noble gases: column 18. Valence configuration: s2p6. In purple.
Halogens: column 17. Valence configuration: s2p5. In red.
Transition elements: columns 3 to 12. Valence configuration: s2 d1 - s2 d10. In grey.
d) Boron: yellow.
Carbon: dark grey.
Nitrogen: light blue.
Oxygen: light green.
e) Internal transition in brown. It has two rows because they are elements of periods 6 and 7. There are 15
columns because they have a d1 configuration, and the other orbitals they fill are of type f (7 f-type orbitals
with 14 electrons).
f) The metals are to the left of the thicker line, except for hydrogen, which is in period 1, group 1, and is a
non-metal.
PRACTICE
18 Copy and complete this table in your notebook.

Atom A Z Protons Electrons Neutrons
C 12 6 6 6 6
O 16 8 8 8 8
F 19 9 9 9 10
21
19 Indicate how many protons, neutrons and electrons each of the following atoms has:
16 4 14 37
8 O c) 2 He 6 C g) 17 C
a) e)
238 197
14
N 92 U 12
C 79 Au
b) 7 d) f) 6 h)
a) 8 protons; 8 electrons; 8 neutrons.
b) 7 protons; 7 electrons; 7 neutrons.
c) 2 protons; 2 electrons; 2 neutrons.
d) 92 protons; 92 electrons; 146 neutrons.
e) 6 protons; 6 electrons; 8 neutrons.
f) 6 protons; 6 electrons; 6 neutrons.
g) 17 protons; 17 electrons; 20 neutrons.
h) 79 protons; 79 electrons; 118 neutrons.
20 Draw a flow chart showing the evolution of the atomic models. Remember to include the names of the
scientists involved, as well as the years of their birth and death. Include a diagram of each model.
Dalton’s model
Proposed by John
Dalton (1766-1844)
Thomson’s model
Proposed by Joseph
John Thomson (1856-
1940)
Rutherford’s model
Proposed by Ernest
Rutherford (1871-1937)
Bohr’s model
Proposed by Niels Bohr
(1885-1962)
The modern atomic

model
Proposed by Erwin
Schrödinger (1887-
1971), Werner
Heisenberg (1901-1976)
and others.
22
21 The following pairs of orbitals may have different shapes and sizes. Write them in your notebook.
Orbitals Difference in shape Difference in size
2s and 3p √ √
2s and 5s √
3d and 4d √
2p and 3d √ √
22 Draw a diagram to compare the following orbitals:

a) 1s and 2s b) 1s and 4s c) 2p and 3p d) 2s and 2p
a) Visual answer:
1s 2s
b) Visual answer:
1s 4s
c) Visual answer:
2p
3p
d) Visual answer:
2s 2p
23
23 Write the electron configurations for the elements Br and Pb and explain them.
Br (Z = 35): 1s2 2s2p6 3s2p6 4s23d104p5. Group 17, period 4. With one more electron, it would have the
configuration of a noble gas. The last orbital occupied is of type p.
Pb (Z = 82): 1s2 2s2p6 3s23p6 4s23d104p6 5s24d105p6 6s24f145d106p2. Group 14, period 6. With four more electrons,
it would have the configuration of a noble gas. The last orbital occupied is of type p.
24 Why can you place 10 electrons in the d orbitals of layer 4 and 14 electrons in the f orbitals?
Because there are 5 d-type orbitals and 7 f-type orbitals. In each orbital, whichever layer it is, there can be a
maximum of two electrons.
25 In your notebook, write the electron configuration of the following ions: Rb1+, Cℓ1−, Ca2+ and Se2−. Which
noble gas has the same configuration as each of these?
Atom/Ion N.° protons N.° electrons Electron configuration Noble gas with the same
configuration
Rb1+ 37 36 1s2 2s2p6 3s2p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 Krypton
Cℓ1− 17 18 1s2 2s2p6 3s2p6 Argon
Ca2+ 20 18 1s2 2s2p6 3s2p6 Argon
Se2− 34 36 1s2 2s2p6 3s2p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 Krypton
26 In your notebook, draw a table with the following columns and complete the information for the following
elements: Ne, F, O, I, Be, B, Cu.
Atom Z Electron configuration Group Period Metal/non-metal
Ne 10 1s2 2s2p6 18 2 Non-metal

F 9 1s2 2s2p5 17 2 Non-metal
O 8 1s2 2s2p4 16 2 Non-metal
I 53 1s2 2s2p6 3s2p6 4s23d104p6 5s24d105p5 17 5 Non-metal
Be 4 1s2 2s2 2 2 Metal
B 5 1s2 2s2p1 13 2 Metal
Cu 29 1s2 2s2p6 3s2p6 4s2 11 4 Metal
27 These are the electron configurations of some elements:

A: 1s2 2s1 B: 1s2 2s22p5 C: 1s2 2s22p6 D: 1s2 2s22p6 3s1
In your notebook, correct the errors in the following statements:
a) A is a non-metal from group 1 and period c) B and C are non-metals.
2. d) D is a metal from group 3 and period 1.
b) A and D belong to the same period.
a) A is a metal from group 1 and period 2.

b) A and D belong to the same group.
c) B is a non-metal. C is a noble gas.
d) D is a metal from period 3 and group 1.
24
28 Put the atoms in order, from smallest to largest:
a) Cs, Li, Na. c) P, N, As.
b) C, Li, Ne. d) Mg, Ar, Na.
The size increases in a group and decreases in a period.

a) Cs > Na > Li. c) As > P > N.
b) Li > C > Ne. d) Na > Mg > Ar.
29 Are the following elements metals or non-metals?

a) Sodium. c) Platinum. e) Oxygen.
b) Beryllium. d) Carbon. f) Nickel.
a) Metal. c) Metal. e) Non-metal.

b) Metal. d) Non-metal. f) Metal.
30 The H atom is not a metal despite being a part of group 1. Write its electron configuration and explain why
H+ and H− ions can be formed.
Its electronic configuration is 1s1. An H+ ion can be formed because it can lose the electron it has. An H− ion can
be formed because it can gain an electron and complete its first layer.
31 Put these elements in order according to their metallic properties:
• Calcium • Silver • Lithium

Metallic character increases in a group and decreases in a period. Therefore, Li > Ca > Ag.
32 Put these elements in order according to their non-metallic properties:
• Fluorine • Sulphur • Chlorine

Non-metallic character increases in a period and decreases in a group. Therefore: F > Cl > S.
33 In the Balmer series for the hydrogen atom, the lines can be seen in the visible part of the spectrum. The lines
with most energy are found near the blue part of the spectrum, while lines with less energy are found close
to the red part. Identify the lines with the most and least energy in each series.
The line with the most energy in each series is the one that travels a greater distance to go from one level to
another.
34 The Lyman series is located in the ultraviolet part of the spectrum.

a) Which line is closest to the visible area of the spectrum?
b) Explain why in your notebook.
a) The line with the least energy, i.e. the line obtained when the electron passes from level 2 to level 1.
b) This is because ultraviolet radiation is more energetic than visible radiation. And within a series the least
energetic line is the one obtained when an electron passes from one level to an adjacent level.
35 If we have a hydrogen atom with enough energy for its electrons to pass through layers 1 to 4, what lines will
we see when the electrons return to their original state, in the layer closest to the nucleus?
We will see all the lines that are formed when electrons pass from a higher level to a lower one. In this case, the
lines formed when the electron passes from layer 4 to layer 3, to layer 2, and to layer 1. We will also see the
lines formed later, when the electron falls again from layer 3 to layer 2, or from layer 3 to layer 1.
25
36 Which of the lines that appear in B would we be unable to see? Why?
We would not be able to see any of the lines that go from level 6 or level 5, since the electrons have not gained
enough energy to pass to these levels.
37 Now, imagine that there are two sub-levels with very similar energy in layer 2. If we look at spectrum c, how
many lines that correspond to the transition from layer 2 to layer 1 would we be able to observe? Would they
be close to or far away from each other in the spectrum? Why?
We would be able to observe two lines that would correspond to very similar differences in energy. Therefore,
they would be very close to each other in the spectrum.
INVESTIGATE
38 In your notebook, complete the following statements on the chemical behaviour of the metals:
a) The metal that reacts most rapidly with oxygen is sodium. Magnesium reacts more slowly; to accelerate
the reaction we hold a flame to it.
b) The metal that reacts most rapidly with water is sodium. Magnesium reacts more slowly; to accelerate its
reaction we heat it.
c) When a metal reacts with oxygen, it becomes oxide, and when it reacts with water it becomes hydroxide.
26
Chemical bonds
Chemical bonds 3
WORK WITH THE IMAGE
• What geometric figure do carbon atoms form in the structure of graphite? How many other atoms are joined to
each carbon atom? How many of these belong to the same layer?
They form hexagons. Each carbon atom joins to four other carbon atoms. Of these, three belong to the same
layer, and the fourth is in another layer.
• You can write a line tens of kilometres long with just one pencil. What property of graphite makes this
possible?
Graphite can separate into layers easily. This is because carbon atoms are strongly bonded together with atoms in
the same layer, but the bond is not as strong with other layers, since there is only one bond to another carbon
atom.
STARTING POINTS
• Remember: how many electrons are there in a neutral carbon atom?
There are six electrons.
• How are atoms organised in the different substances all around us?
The atoms can remain isolated. This is what happens in noble gases.
They can also group together to form molecules. This is what happens with the oxygen molecule in the air or with
the water molecule.
And they can also group together to form crystals, where many atoms are arranged in a three-dimensional lattice.
This is the case of the diamond, and common salt, for example.
ACTIVITIES
1 Which of the following substances are always solid or gaseous at room temperature?
a) Na c) Aℓ e) CO2 g) Si
b) Ne d) Ar f) KCℓ h) Pt
a) Sodium: metal. It is solid, since all metals, except mercury, are solid at room temperature.
b) Neon: it is a noble gas.
c) Aluminium: it is a metal. It is solid.
d) Argon: noble gas.
e) Carbon dioxide: it is a gas.
f) Potassium chloride: it is solid. It is a crystal.
g) Silicon: it is solid.
h) Platinum: it is solid.
28
2 The substances below form crystals. In your notebook, write if each substance is an ionic, covalent or metallic
crystal.
a) Cu c) NaF e) SiO2 g) FeS

b) C d) MgO f) CaCℓ2 h) Ag
a) Copper: metallic crystal.
b) Carbon: covalent crystal (diamond).
c) Sodium fluoride: ionic crystal.
d) Magnesium oxide: ionic crystal.
e) Silicon dioxide: covalent crystal (silica).
f) Calcium chloride: covalent crystal.
g) Iron sulphide: ionic crystal.
h) Silver: metallic crystal.
3 Study the formulas of the ionic compounds that are formed by combining:
a) Ca and O c) Rb and S
b) Aℓ and I d) F and Mg
a) The formula is CaO, since calcium has two electrons in its valence shell and oxygen must gain two electrons
in its valence shell to complete it with eight. Calcium gives two electrons to oxygen.
b) The formula is AℓI3: aluminium has three electrons in its valence shell and iodine must gain an electron in
its valence shell to complete it. Aluminium gives three electrons to three iodine atoms, one electron each.
c) The formula is Rb2S. Rubidium has an electron in its valence shell and sulphur must gain two electrons to
complete its valence shell. Two rubidium atoms give up one electron each and one sulphur atom gains the
two electrons.
d) The formula is MgF2: magnesium has two electrons in its valence shell and fluorine must gain an electron to
complete its valence shell. Magnesium gives two electrons to two fluorine atoms, which gain one each.
4 Study the formulas of ionic compounds that are formed by combining:
a) Cℓ and O c) Br and N
b) H and S d) F and C
a) Chlorine must gain one electron to complete its last layer, and oxygen must gain two electrons. Therefore,
two chlorine atoms share one electron each with an oxygen atom. The formula of the compound is OCℓ2.
Tell the students that chlorine and oxygen can be combined in other ways to form other compounds with
different formulas. As the students should already know, chlorine can act with different valences when it
binds to oxygen.
b) Hydrogen must gain one electron to complete its valence shell, while sulphur must gain two electrons to
complete it. Therefore, two hydrogen atoms share an electron each with one sulphur atom. The formula is
H2S.
c) Bromine must gain one electron to complete its valence shell, while nitrogen must gain three electrons.
This is why three bromine atoms join to one nitrogen atom, so that each bromine atom shares one electron
with the nitrogen atom. The formula is NBr3.
d) Fluorine must gain one electron to complete its valence shell, while carbon must gain four electrons. This is
why four fluorine atoms share one electron each with one carbon atom. The formula of the covalent
compound formed is CF4.
29
5 Chloroform and hydrogen peroxide are covalent compounds with the formulas CHCℓ3 and H2O2, respectively.
Draw the Lewis structure for the elements in each compound.
For CHCℓ3. Chlorine and hydrogen must gain one electron to complete their valence shell. Carbon must gain
four. Four covalent bonds are formed between carbon and the other three atoms.
Cℓ
Cℓ C Cℓ
For the hydrogen peroxide, H2O2. Oxygen must gain two electrons to complete its valence shell, while hydrogen
only needs one. Each oxygen atom shares a pair of electrons with one hydrogen atom and another pair with the
other oxygen atom.
H H
O O
6 Analyse the type of bond between the atoms in the substances below. Explain the formulas.
a) BaCℓ2 c) Mg e) NaF g) CO2
b) SO d) HF f) NF3 h) Cs
a) Barium is a metal and chlorine is a non-metal. Therefore, there will be an ionic bond. Barium will give up
the two electrons that it has in its valence shell, and two chlorine atoms will gain one electron each. The
formula will be: BaCℓ2.
b) Both sulphur and oxygen are non-metals. They will form a covalent bond. Both substances must gain two
electrons to complete their valence shell. Therefore, they will share two pairs of electrons. An oxygen atom
will join to a sulphur atom.
c) Magnesium is a metal. It will form a metallic bond.
d) Hydrogen and fluorine are both non-metals. Therefore, they will form a covalent bond by sharing electrons.
In this case there will be a simple bond, because they share a pair of electrons. Hydrogen and fluorine must
both gain an electron to complete their valence shell.
e) Sodium is a metal and fluorine is a non-metal. Therefore, there will be an ionic bond, where sodium gives
up the electron that it has in its valence shell and a fluorine atom gains that electron.
f) Both nitrogen and fluorine are non-metals. They will form a covalent bond. Nitrogen must gain three
electrons to complete its valence shell, and fluorine must gain one. Therefore, three fluorine atoms will
share a pair of electrons each with a nitrogen atom. A triple covalent bond is formed.
g) Carbon and oxygen are both non-metals. Therefore, they will form a covalent bond by sharing electrons. In
this case there will be two double bonds because each carbon atom shares two pairs of electrons with each
oxygen atom. Carbon must gain four electrons to complete its valence shell, and each oxygen atom must
gain two electrons to complete its valence shell.
h) Caesium is a metal. It will form a metallic bond.
7 Are the following molecules polar or non-polar?

a) N2 c) O2 e) HBr
b) IF d) H2
a) Non-polar, since it is made up of atoms of the same type. Both atoms will have the same attraction to the
shared pairs of electrons.
b) Polar. Fluoride has more attraction than iodine to the shared electrons.
30
c) Non-polar, since it is made up of atoms of the same type. Both atoms will have the same attraction to the
d) Non-polar, since it is made up of atoms of the same type. Both atoms will have the same attraction to the
e) Polar. Bromine has more attraction than hydrogen to the shared electrons.
8 The CO2 molecule is non-polar, while the SCℓ2 molecule is polar. What can you say about the geometry of
each molecule?
The carbon dioxide molecule is linear. Oxygen has more attraction than carbon to the shared electrons, and
therefore for the molecule to be non-polar the two polar bonds must be compensated.
Sulphur dichloride cannot be linear, because then the polar bonds would be compensated, and the molecule
would be non-polar. If it is polar, it is because the angle in the molecule’s central atom is not 180°.
9 Explain why F2 and Cℓ2 are gases at room temperature, while Br2 is a volatile liquid and I2 is a solid that
converts into a gas easily.
Because fluorine and chlorine atoms are smaller than bromine atoms, and bromine atoms are smaller than
iodine atoms. Thus, the molecules are non-polar, but temporary dipoles form that can give rise to
intermolecular forces. These temporary dipoles are more durable in larger molecules.
Thus, in fluorine and chlorine the intermolecular forces are very small. This is why they are gases at room
temperature.
In bromide the forces are somewhat bigger, which is why it is a liquid.
In iodine they are even greater and that is why it is a solid, although it can easily be converted to a gas.
10 Explain whether it is possible for salt to dissolve in oil.

No, it is not possible. Salt is an ionic compound and oil is formed by non-polar molecules.
11 Does iodine dissolve better in water or oil?

In oil, because iodine is formed by non-polar molecules. Water molecules are polar and oil molecules are non-
polar. However, iodine does dissolve a little in water, because temporary dipoles form in iodine.
12 Look at the substances listed in solved problem 2 again. Identify (giving reasons):
a) Which are the hardest and softest solids.
b) Which substances can conduct electricity.
c) Which substances do not conduct electricity under any circumstances.
d) Which substances' atoms are joined together by covalent bonds.
a) The hardest is SiO2, because it is a covalent crystal. The softest is I2, because it is a molecular covalent
compound.
b) The substances that can conduct electricity are gold in its solid state and calcium chloride when melted or
dissolved.
c) I2 and chloroform do not conduct electricity.
d) Substances with covalent bonds. I2, CHCI3 and SiO2.
ACTIVITY ROUND-UP
13 Gilbert N. Lewis proposed the octet rule to explain how bonds between atoms are formed.
a) Write the rule in your notebook and explain why there must be eight electrons.
b) Are there always eight electrons?
31
a) The octet rule states that when atoms bond together to form molecules or crystals, they tend to fill their
last layer with eight electrons, except in the case of some elements with low atomic numbers. These
elements tend to fill the first layer, where only two electrons fit. There must be eight electrons because this
completes the valence shell, and the atoms are left with a similar configuration to that of the noble gases.
b) No, in the case of some elements the valence shell supports only two electrons.
14 In your notebook, write which of the following sentences are true for a covalent bond, a metallic bond and an
ionic bond:
a) It is a bond between identical atoms.
b) It forms substances which are difficult to melt.
c) It is a bond between different atoms.
d) It always forms crystals.
e) Metallic atoms combine with non-metallic atoms.
f) It is characterised by a sea of electrons.
g) It forms volatile substances.
h) Only non-metallic atoms are combined.
i) It always forms compounds.
j) It is characterised by sharing electrons.
k) It forms hard and brittle substances.
l) It forms molecules.
m) It conducts electricity when dissolved.
n) Only metallic atoms are combined.
o) It forms substances which can be scratched and deformed.
p) It is characterised by the attraction between anions and cations.
q) It can form simple substances.
a) Covalent or metallic. j) Covalent and metallic.
b) Ionic and metallic. k) Ionic.
c) Covalent or ionic. l) Covalent.
d) Ionic or metallic. m) Ionic.
e) Ionic. n) Metallic.
f) Metallic. o) Ionic and metallic.
g) Covalent. p) Ionic.
h) Covalent. q) Covalent and metallic.
i) Ionic.
15 Write the formula for aluminium trichloride. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Aluminium trichloride is a combination of one aluminium atom and three chlorine atoms.
b) In aluminium trichloride, there are nine chlorine atoms for every three aluminium atoms.
c) In aluminium trichloride, there are three aluminium atoms for every three chlorine atoms.
The formula is AℓCℓ3.
a) True.
b) True. According to the formula, there are three times as many chlorine atoms as aluminium atoms.
c) False. There are always more chlorine atoms than aluminium atoms.
16 Write the formula for carbon tetrachloride. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Carbon tetrachloride is a combination of one carbon atom and four chlorine atoms.
32
b) In carbon tetrachloride, there are sixteen chlorine atoms for every four carbon atoms.
c) In carbon tetrachloride, there are four carbon atoms for every chlorine atom.
The formula is CCℓ4.
a) True.
b) True. According to the formula, there are four times as many chlorine atoms as carbon atoms.
c) False. There are always more chlorine atoms than carbon atoms.
17 In your notebook, write which of the following sentences apply to polar molecules:
a) They are always formed by atoms of different chemical element.
b) Electrons accumulate in one part of the molecule.
c) Protons accumulate in one part of the molecule.
d) The charges are distributed evenly throughout the molecule.
a) True, because if they were of the same element they would not be polar.
b) True, this is why we can say that one of the atoms in the molecule has a negative charge.
c) False; the protons are always in the nucleus of the atoms.
d) False; because if it is polar, the electrons spend more time near some atoms than others.
18 In your notebook, write which of the following sentences apply to non-polar molecules:
a) They are always formed by atoms of the same chemical element.
b) Electrons accumulate in one part of the molecule.
c) Protons accumulate in one part of the molecule.
d) The charges are distributed evenly throughout the molecule.
a) False; they can be formed by atoms of different elements. In this way the polar bonds are balanced, and
the molecule is non-polar overall.
b) False; it is non-polar because the electrons do not prefer one part of the molecule to another. However, if
there are polar bonds, there may be a concentration of electrons closer to some atoms than to others.
c) False, the protons are always in the nucleus of the atoms.
d) True when there is no polar bond. If the molecule is non-polar despite having polar bonds, the charges can
be distributed so that they are closer to some atoms than to others.
19 The diagram shows the process of sodium chloride dissolving in water.

Explain what is happening. Does salt dissolve in petrol?
Water is formed by polar molecules. The oxygen pulls the electrons more
than the hydrogen. For this reason, it is as if an oxygen atom has a certain
partial negative charge and every hydrogen atom a partial positive charge. In
this way, the hydrogen atoms in the water molecule move towards the
negative ions of the salt; the chloride ions, and take them out of their crystal
lattice. Something similar happens with the oxygen atoms in the water
molecule, which attract the positive ions of the salt; the sodium ions, and
take them out of the crystal. In a solution the positive ions of sodium are
surrounded by water molecules. This leaves the oxygen atoms closer to the sodium ion, and the hydrogen
atoms, to the chlorine ion.
Petrol is a non-polar compound, so salt cannot dissolve in it.
PRACTICE
20 Indicate what kind of bond exists in the following substances:

a) BeI2 c) CCℓ4 e) Hg
b) LiCℓ d) CO2 f) He
33
a) Ionic bond, because it is formed by a metal, beryllium, and a non-metal, iodine.
b) Ionic bond, because it is formed by a metal, lithium, and a non-metal, chlorine.
c) Covalent bond, because it is formed by two non-metals: carbon and chlorine.
d) Covalent bond, because it is formed by two non-metals: carbon and oxygen.
e) Metallic bond, because it is formed by atoms of a metal: mercury.
f) Individual atoms, because it is a noble gas.
21 The formula of each of the following ionic compounds is incorrect. Find the mistake and correct it.
a) MgCℓ b) RbBr4 c) NaI2 d) Ba2S3
a) Magnesium has two electrons in its valence shell, while chlorine must gain an electron to complete its last
layer. So, two chlorine atoms must join with one magnesium atom, and the formula of the resulting
compound would be MgCℓ2.
b) Rubidium has one electron in its valence shell, while bromine must gain an electron to complete its last
layer. So, one rubidium atom must join with one chlorine atom, and the formula of the resulting compound
would be RbBr.
c) Sodium has one electron in its valence shell, while iodine must gain an electron to complete its last layer.
So, one sodium atom and one iodine atom must join together, and the formula of the resulting compound
would be Nal.
d) Barium has two electrons in its valence shell, while sulphur must gain two electrons to complete its last
layer. So, one barium atom and one sulphur atom must join together, and the formula of the resulting
compound would be BaS.
22 Complete the following table in your notebook:

The table should look like this.
Substance Bond between atoms Simple substance / compound
Iron Metallic Simple substance

Sodium iodide Ionic Compound
Nitrogen Covalent Simple substance
Sulphur dioxide Covalent Compound
Chlorine Covalent Simple substance
23 In your notebook, copy and complete this table with the formula of the compound and the type of bond.
Potassium and magnesium are metals, while the others: I, H, Cℓ, S and O are non-metals. The table should look
like this.
Cℓ S O
K KCℓ K2S K2O

I ICℓ SI2 OI2
Mg MgCℓ2 MgS MgO
H HCℓ H2S H2O
34
Type of bond:
Cℓ S O
K Ionic Ionic Ionic

I Covalent Covalent Covalent
Mg Ionic Ionic Ionic
H Covalent Covalent Covalent
24 In your notebook, match each substance to a phrase:

• SF2 → d) Forms two covalent bonds.
• BeI2 → e) Is an ionic substance.
• AℓCℓ3 → b) The cation has a charge of 3+.
• CO2 → a) Forms double covalent bonds.
• Na → c) Is a metal.
25 Are the following facts the result of the bonds between atoms or the bonds between molecules?
a) Diamond is the hardest material.
b) We can write on a block of ice with a knife.
c) NaCℓ melts at 800 °C.
d) Salt dissolves in water at room temperature.
e) Alcohol is a liquid at room temperature and evaporates easily.
f) Mercury is a liquid at room temperature and must be heated to 357 °C to change into a gas.
g) Iodine is a solid that does not dissolve in water.
a) It is because of bonds between C atoms.
b) It is because of bonds between molecules, these are weaker.
c) It is because of bonds between ions and molecules.
d) It is because of bonds between molecules.
e) It is because of bonds between atoms.
f) It is because of bonds between atoms (cations in the metallic crystal).
g) It is because of the bonds between molecules.
26 In your notebook, write which of the following properties are typical for substances with covalent bonds,
metallic bonds or ionic bonds:
a) They conduct electricity in a solid state.
b) Generally, they have a low melting point.
c) Many are water soluble.
d) They have quite high melting points and conduct heat.
e) They conduct electricity, but only when melted or dissolved.
f) They are hard and brittle.
a) Metallic. d) Metallic.
b) Covalent. e) Ionic.
c) Ionic. f) Ionic.
35
27 Copy and complete the table in your notebook, relating the type of bond with the properties of a substance.
The table should look like this.
Substance Type of bond Physical state Electrical conductivity Solubility in water

(T = 20 °C)
Copper Metallic Solid Good Bad
Hydrochloric acid Covalent Liquid Bad (if dissolved) Good
Lithium oxide Ionic Solid Only when dissolved or Good
melted
Sodium bromide Ionic Solid Only when dissolved or Good
melted
Caesium Metallic Solid Good Bad
Lead oxide Ionic Solid Only when dissolved or Good
melted
Hydrogen Covalent Gas Bad Bad
Calcium hydride Ionic Solid Only when dissolved or Good
melted
Water Covalent Liquid Bad Not applicable
Ammonia Covalent Liquid Bad Good
28 Match the melting points to the substances, taking into account the type of bond that they have:
Water: 0 °C. Oxygen: −223 °C.

Sodium chloride: 803 °C. Silicon dioxide 1713 °C.
Tin: 505 °C.
29 Think about all of the compounds that can be formed with Cℓ, Na and H. For each one, indicate:
a) The type of bond it has.
b) Its physical state at room temperature.
c) Its ability to conduct electricity in any of its physical states.
The compounds that can be formed are: NaCℓ, HCℓ, NaH.
a) NaCℓ: ionic. HCℓ: covalent. NaH: ionic.
b) NaCℓ: solid. HCℓ: liquid. NaH: solid.
c) NaCℓ: only when melted or dissolved. HCℓ: when dissolved. NaH: when melted or dissolved.
30 CO2 is a gas at room temperature, while SiO2 is a very hard solid. What type of bond do the atoms in each of
these substances have? Describe the structural differences that explain the first statement.
In carbon dioxide it is a covalent bond between the oxygen atoms and the oxygen atoms and carbon atoms.
Molecules are formed, and between these molecules there are weak intermolecular forces.
36
In silicon dioxide it is a covalent crystal with covalent bonds between the oxygen atoms and silicon atoms that
form the structure. As all the bonds are covalent, this substance is much harder than carbon dioxide. At room
temperature it remains hard and solid, while carbon dioxide is a gas.
31 Think about ammonia’s molecular structure. Is it a polar or non-polar substance?

It is a polar substance. The N has a pair of free electrons that do not form a part of any bond.
32 What kind of bond links atoms within the thymine molecule? How do you know this?
In the thymine molecule there are covalent bonds, because the molecule is formed by non-metals such as
carbon, oxygen, nitrogen and hydrogen.
33 What about the other nitrogenous bases: adenine, cytosine and guanine?
The same applies, they have covalent bonds that bind atoms of non-metals together.
34 Using the illustrations, explain why the thymine molecule is always paired with adenine, and not with
cytosine or guanine.
Because hydrogen bridges form easily between the two molecules. The resulting structure is quite stable.
35 During DNA replication, two identical DNA fragments are formed from the original piece of DNA. Explain how
this can happen, taking into account that the double helix can separate during this process.
Once the double helix separates, molecules can join to each strand of the helix. Where there is a thymine
molecule, an adenine molecule joins, and where there is a guanine molecule, a cytosine one joins, and so on. In
the end there are two strands exactly the same as the original.
36 In RNA (ribonucleic acid), which is present in the formation of proteins, uracil

Hydrogen
replaces one of the nitrogenous bases with a similar structure. Observe its
bonds
structure and the hydrogen bonds that it forms. Based on its differences and
similarities to the other bases, state which base it substitutes.
Uracil has a similar structure to thymine, and it is this base which it substitutes. In
this way, two hydrogen bonds can form to join the adenine molecule.
INVESTIGATE
37 What properties of metals have you observed?

Answer based on the results obtained in the experiment. Metals are conductors of electricity, they are solid at
room temperature and they melt if heated.
38 In addition to metals, are there other substances that conduct electricity? In what conditions?
Ionic substances can conduct electricity if they are melted or dissolved, because in this case the ions are free to
move. Some covalent crystals can also conduct electricity, because some electrons have a certain freedom to
move.
39 What kind of bond forms between atoms of solids that dissolve in water?
Ionic. When solids are put in water, water molecules, which are polar, can get closer to the ions of the crystal
lattice and separate them from it.
37
40 Since water is a polar liquid, indicate whether the following liquids are polar or non-polar: alcohol,
cyclohexane and oil.
Liquids that can be mixed with water are polar: alcohol
Oil is non-polar because it does not mix with water. The same thing happens with cyclohexane, which is not
very polar.
38
Carbon chemistry
Carbon chemistry 4
WORK WITH THE IMAGE
• How many bonds does each carbon atom form in a polyethylene molecule? What atoms are the carbon atoms
bonded to?
Four. They are bonded to other carbon atoms and hydrogen atoms.
• How is the polyethylene’s formula similar to ethylene or ethene?
Polyethylene is a chain of ethylene molecules joined to each other.
• How are some plastic objects different to others?
Plastic is very versatile. This means that there are plastics with very different properties. Some plastic objects
differ from others in terms of colour, hardness, their ability to change shape, to let light through, to resist
corrosion, and a long list of other properties.
STARTING POINTS
• In ethylene, carbon binds to two hydrogen atoms and one carbon atom. How is it possible for each carbon
atom to bind to two hydrogen and two carbon atoms in polyethylene? How many bonds are formed in each
case?
Because in ethylene the bond between carbon atoms is double, while in polyethylene all the bonds are simple.
• Look around you and identify three objects that are made of LDPE and three that are made of HDPE.
Open answer. LDPE: plastic dishes, bottles or cables.
HDPE: containers, protective helmets, many toys. In general, many hard plastics are made of HDPE.
ACTIVITIES
1 In your notebook, indicate how many atoms of each element there are in one molecule of the following
compounds and in what proportion they are combined (write your answers in the simplest whole number
form).
Methane: 1 atom of C and 4 atoms of H. Proportion, C: 2; H: 5

Octane: 8 atoms of C and 18 atoms of H. Proportion, C: 4; H: 9
• Write the structural, semi-structural and molecular formulas for these compounds in your notebook.
40
A. Structural:
H H H H
| | | |
H − C − C −C − C − H
| | | |
H H H H
Semi-structural: CH3−CH2−CH2−CH3.
Molecular: C4H10.
B. Structural:
H H
| |
H −C−C−H
| |
H−C−C−H
| |
H H
Semi-structural:
CH2 − CH2
| |
CH2 − CH2
Molecular: B: C4H8.
2 Write the semi-structural formula and the molecular formula of the compounds in the table on page 67.
a) Propane. Semi-structural: CH3 − CH2 − CH3. Molecular: C3H8.
b) Ethene: Semi-structural: CH2 = CH2 − CH3. Molecular: C2H4.
c) Ethyne or acetylene: Semi-structural: CH ≡ CH. Molecular: C2H2.
d) Methylpropane: Semi-structural: CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3. Molecular: C4H10.
e) Ethanol. Semi-structural: OHCH2−CH3. Molecular: C2H6O.
f) Propanetriol or glycerol. Semi-structural: OHCH2−OHCH−CH2OH. Molecular: C3H8O3.
g) Methanol or formaldehyde. Semi-structural: OH−CH. Molecular: C2H2O.
h) Ethanoic or acetic acid. Semi-structural: CH3−COOH. Molecular: C2H4O2.
i) Propanone or acetone. Semi-structural: CH3−CO−CH3. Molecular: C2H6O.
j) Cyclopentane. Semi-structural:
CH2
H2C CH2
H2C CH2
Molecular: C5H10.
k) Benzene. Semi-structural:
CH
HC CH
HC CH
CH
Molecular: C6H6.
41
l) Salicylic acid. Semi-structural:
CH
HC COH
HC C − COOH
CH
Molecular: C7H6O3.
3 Identify the functional groups in the compounds shown in that table.

a) None.
b) Double bond: C = C.
c) Triple bond: C ≡ C.
d) None.
e) Alcohol: C − OH. They are named the functional groups, although the students may or may not know their
names, depending on their knowledge of organic formulation that appears in the annex to this book.
f) Three alcohol groups: C − OH.
g) Aldehyde: COH.
h) Acid: COOH.
i) Ketone: C = O.
j) None.
k) Double bond: C = C.
l) Aldehyde: COH; acid: COOH.
4 Complete the formulas of the following hydrocarbons and identify the families they belong to:
a) It belongs to the alkanes. CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3.

b) Alkynes. CH3 − C ≡ CH.
c) It has one triple bond and one double bond. It is an alkyne. CH ≡ C − CH = CH2.
d) It is a cycloalkane.
CH2
H2C CH2
H2C CH2
42
5 Write the formulas for the following compounds:
a) Octane. d) Cycloheptane.
b) Cyclobutane. e) Hexa-2,4-diene.
c) Propene.
a) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3.
b)
H2C CH2
H2C CH2
c) CH ≡ CH.
d)
C H2
H2C C H2
H2C CH2
H2C CH2
e) CH3 − CH = CH − CH = CH − CH3.

a) 1-ethyl-3-methylbenzene. d) Cyclopenta-1,3-3-diene
b) 5-methylhex-2-ene. e) 3-Ethyl-4-methylpent-3-en-1-yne
c) 3-chloropropyne.
a)
C − CH2−CH3
HC CH
HC C − CH3
CH
b) CH3 − CH = CH − CH2 − CH − CH3

|
CH3
c) CH3 ≡ CH − CCℓH2
d)
CH
H2C CH
HC CH
e) CH3 ≡ CH = CH − CH2 − CH3
| |
CH3 − CH2 CH3
43
7 Copy the formulas in your notebook and name the following compounds:
a) Propene. f) But-3-en-1-yne
b) Pentane. g) Cyclobutane.
c) Ethyne. h) Cyclopropane.
d) But-2-yne. i) Cyclooctane.
e) Hex-1,3,5-triyne.
8 In your notebook, write the names of the following compounds:
a) 3-ethylpent-2-ene. d) Dichloroethane.
b) Bromocyclopropane. e) 2-ethyl-1-methyl-cyclobut-1-ene.
c) 1-methyl-cyclobut-1-ene f) Dibromobenzene.
9 Give some examples of how hydrocarbons are used. Which do you think are most useful? Why?
Hydrocarbons have many uses. One of the most important is as fuel. Petroleum and diesel fuel are mixtures of
different hydrocarbons. Hydrocarbons are also used to manufacture plastics, and in the pharmaceutical
industry.
10 Write the formulas for these compounds:

a) Diethyl ether. h) Cyclohexane-1,3-diol.
b) Ethanol. i) Heptanoic acid.
c) Propanetriol. j) Cyclobutyl methyl ether.
d) Propanedioic acid. k) Ethyl acetate.
e) Pentanal. l) 2-methylbenzaldehyde.
f) Pentane-2,4-dione. m) Cyclohexanone.
g) Methyl methanoate. n) Butanone.
a) CH3 − CH2 − O − CH2 − CH3
b) CH3 − CH2OH
44
c) CHOH − CHOH − CH2OH
d) COOH − CH2 − COOH
e) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − COH
f) CH3 − C − CH2 − C − CH3
|| ||
O O
g) COOH − CH3
h)
CHOH
H2C CH2
H2C CHOH
CH2
i) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − COOH

j)
H2C CH − O − CH3
H2C CH2
k) H3C − COO − CH3 − CH2

l)
COH
HC
C−CH3
HC CH
CH
m)
CH2
H2C C =O
H2C CH2
CH2
n) CH3 − C − CH2 − CH3

||
O
45
11 Write the names of the following compounds. Hint: it would be helpful to draw all the bonds present in the
functional group.
a) Propanoic acid. e) Benzoic acid.

b) 1,2,4-hexanetriol. f) Propanoic acid.
c) Cyclopropyl cyclopentyl ether. g) Ethanal.
d) 1,3-hexanediol. h) Butanodione.
12 Formulate the following compounds:

a) Ethanoamine. c) Butan-1-amine.
b) Methanolamide. d) N-ethylpropanamide.
a) CH3 − CH2 − NH2 c) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 −NH2
b) HCO − NH2 d) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − NH − CH2− CH3
13 Name the following compounds and identify their functional groups:

a) H2N − CO − CH2 − CH2 − CH3 c) H3C − NH − CO − CH3
b) H3C − NH − CH2 − CH3 d) H2N − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3
a) Functional group: amide. Name: propan-1-amide.
b) Functional group: amine. Name: N-methyl-ethanoamine.
c) Functional group: amide. Name: N-methyl-ethanoamide.
d) Functional group: amine. Name: butan-1-amine.
14 Study the formulas of carbohydrates and answer the questions:

a) Write the molecular formulas of glucose and fructose. Why are these compounds called carbohydrates?
b) What functional groups does glucose have in its open form? What about in its closed form?
c) What functional groups does fructose have in its open form? What about in its closed form?
d) What functional group is involved in the union of two sugar molecules?
a) Glucose: C 6H12O6. Fructose: C6H12O6. They are called carbohydrates because hydrogen and oxygen are
present in the same proportions as in a water molecule: two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
b) In its open form: alcohols and ketone. In its closed form: alcohols and ester.
c) In its open form: alcohols and ketone. In its closed form: alcohols and ester.
d) Ester.
15 Study the formulas of lipids and answer the questions:

a) What is the typical functional group of lipids?
46
b) Write the formula for glycerol and its systematic name.
c) Write the molecular formulas for palmitic, oleic and linolenic acid.
d) Look for information about foods that are rich in omega-type acids.
a) Acid.
b) CH2OH − CHOH − CH2OH. Propan-1-2-3-triol.
c) Palmitic acid: C16H32O2.
Oleic acid: C18H34O2.
Linolenic acid: C18H32O2.
d) Some foods that are rich in omega-type acids are: salmon, sardines, anchovies, broccoli, cabbage, spinach,
olive oil, pumpkin seeds and nuts.
16 Study the formulas of the amino acids and proteins and answer the following:
a) What functional groups do amino acids have?
b) What functional groups do proteins have?
c) How are the amino acid formulas for glycine and alanine different?
d) Look for other amino acid formulas and identify what they have in common with the formula for glycine.
a) The amine group and the acid group.
b) The amide group.
c) The only thing that is different is one radical. − H for glycine and − CH3 for alanine.
d) Other examples of amino acids:
Valine: C5H11NO2. With two methyl radicals.
Phenylalanine: C9H11NO2. With one phenylpropane radical.
17 Study the formulas of the organic compounds above and answer the following questions.
a) What functional groups does aspirin have? What about paracetamol?
b) Which family of compounds do menthol and thymol belong to? What is the difference between their
molecules?
c) Indicate which compounds have amine groups.
a) Ester and acid. Amide and alcohol.
b) They are alcohols. The difference is that one has a benzene ring with alternating single and double C − C
bonds, and the other has a ring with all single C − C bonds.
c) Adrenaline, methamphetamine.
ACTIVITY ROUND-UP
18 Explain in your notebook which of the following statements are true.

a) Carbon atoms have six electrons.
b) Carbon atoms have four electrons.
c) Carbon atoms always form part of a compound.
d) Carbon is the most abundant chemical element.
a) True. Two in the first layer two and four in the second layer.
b) False. It has four electrons in the last layer.
c) False. Carbon atoms can also combine with each other to form different simple substances. For example,
diamond, graphite, fullerene.
d) False, but carbon compounds are the most abundant chemical element in living organisms.
47
19 Identify the functional groups and draw an arrow to match them with their formula.
a) Alkane: e) Ether: h) Carboxylic acid:
b) Alkene: f) Aldehyde: i) Ester:
c) Alkyne:
g) Ketone: j) Amine:
d) Alcohol:
k) Amide:
20 Identify the functional group in each compound and draw an arrow to match each one with its formula.
a) Propane → H3C − CH2 − CH3
b) Propanal → H3C − CH2 − CHO
c) Propanamide → H2NOC − CH2 − CH3
d) Propene → H3C − CH = CH2
e) Propanamine → H3C − CH2 − CH2 − NH2
f) Propanone → H3C − CO − CH3
g) Propanoic acid → HOOC − CH2 − CH3
h) Propan-2-ol → H3C − HCOH − CH3
i) Methyl propyl ether → H3C − CH2 − CH2 − O − CH3
j) Methyl propanoate → H3C − OOC − CH2 − CH3
k) Propyne → HC ≡ C − CH3
21 All of the compounds in the list below can be found in living beings, but only some of them can be considered
organic compounds. Identify them and explain why:
a) Water. e) Ethanol.
b) Glucose. f) Ammonia
c) Amino acids. g) Hydrochloric acid.
d) Carbon dioxide. h) Methane.
The following are considered organic: glucose, amino acids, ethanol and methane. The others are not formed by
carbon chains.
22 Which of the following phrases are true or false? For those that are false, explain why, giving an example.
a) All compounds formed by carbon are organic compounds.
b) All compounds that exist in living organisms are organic compounds.
c) Organic compounds cannot be artificially created.
d) Carbon forms more compounds than all the other chemical elements combined.
a) False. There are compounds, such as carbon dioxide, which are not considered organic.
b) False. There are also inorganic compounds, such as water, sodium chloride and many others.
c) False. They can be artificially created. Plastics are one example.
d) True.
48
PRACTICE
23 Look at the carbon structures from exercise 20 and identify which ones have the following characteristics.
Remember that one structure can have several characteristics and several structures can share the same
characteristic.
a) An amine group. d) An ether group. g) An acid group.
b) An alkene group. e) An ester group. h) A hydrocarbon.
c) An aldehyde group. f) A ketone group.
a) COOH − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − NH2

b)
CH3 − CH − C ≡ C − CH3
ǀ
CH2 − C − CH3
ǀǀ
CH2
c) CH3 − CO − CH2 − COH
d) H2C CH − O − CH2
ǀ
CH3
H2C CH2
e) O
ǀǀ
CH3 − C − O − CH2 − CH3
f) CH3 − CO − CH2 − COH
g) COOH − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − NH2
h) CH3 − CH − C ≡ C − CH3
ǀ
CH2 − C − CH3
ǀǀ
CH2
24 Carbon can exist as various substances with different properties, despite being formed solely by carbon
atoms. Link each allotropic form with its most common trait.
a) Coal → Solid, almost black and amorphous.
b) Diamond → Transparent, rigid and insulating.
c) Graphite → Almost black, separated in layers and a conductor.
d) Graphene → Transparent, flexible and a conductor.
e) Fullerene → Forms hollow structures that can transport drugs.

a) Decane. d) 1,2,3-trimethylbenzene.
b) Hepta-1,3,5-triene. e) 4-chloro-3-ethylpent-2-ene.
c) 1,1-dichlorocyclopentane. f) 2-methylcyclooctane.
a) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3
b) CH2 = CH − CH = CH − CH = CH − CH3
c)
49
CCℓ2
H2C CH2
H2C CH2
d) CH
HC
C−CH3
HC C−CH3
C−CH3
e) CH3 − CH = C − CCℓH − CH3

ǀ
CH2 − CH3
f)
C C
H2C C −CH3
H2C CH2
H2C CH2
26 There is a mistake in the name of each compound below. Find it and correct it in your notebook.
a) Name the alkyne so that carbon is in the lowest position, in this case position 2. Therefore, the name should
be 4-methylpent-2-yne.
b) Again, name it so that the double bond is in a lower carbon than the radical. The correct name is 2-
methylcyclohexene.
27 Write formulas for the following compounds:
a) Ethanol. e) Ethyl propyl ether.

b) Butane-2,3-diol. f) N-methylpentanamide.
c) Propan-2-amine. g) Butanedioic acid.
d) Cyclopentyl ethanoate. h) Cyclobutanone.
a) CH3 − CH − COH. e) CH3 − CH2 − O − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3

b) CH3 − CHOH − CHOH − CH3 f) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CONH − CH3
c) CH3 − CHNH2 − CH3 g) COOH − CH2 − CH2 − COOH
d) h)
CH2 H2C C=O
H2C CH − OOC − CH3
H2C CH2
H2C CH2
50
28 Identify the functional group present in each of the following compounds and write it in your notebook.
a) Ketone. 1,3,5-hexanone. e) 1,4-diphenol.

b) Amide. N-ethyl-ethanamide. f) N-dimethylethanamine.
c) Ethyl propionate. g) Ethyl phenyl ether.
d) Ethanediol.
29 Citral is the compound that gives a lemon its smell. Its formula is:
a) Is citral an organic compound?

b) Write the structural and molecular formula of citral.
c) Identify the functional groups of this molecule.
d) Write the systematic name of citral.
a) Yes, as it is formed by a chain of carbon atoms linked with hydrogen atoms.
b) Structural:
H H H H H H
| | | | | |
O=C−C=C−C−C−C=C−C−H
| | |
H H H
H−C−H H−C−H
| |
H H
Molecular: C10H16O.
c) Groups: alkene, aldehyde and methyl radical.
d) 3,7-dimethyloct-2,6-dienal.
30 Sorbitol is a substance extracted from the leaves of some plants. It has various industrial uses, but is
commonly used as a sugar substitute to make low calorie foods. Its chemical name is:
hexane-1,2,3,4,5,6-hexol
a) Write sorbitol's semi-developed formula.
b) Compare the formula with that of glucose and explain their similarities and differences. Remember to
analyse both of their functional groups.
a) CH2OH − CHOH − CHOH − CHOH − CHOH − CH2OH
b) They are similar in that both are formed by six carbons. Both of them have several alcohol groups. A
difference is that glucose has a ketone group, and this compound does not.
51
31 Choose three amino acids and draw their molecular structure, including carbon atoms.
Open answer. The carbon atoms are in the vertices of the chain, and the bonds are completed so that each
carbon atom has four bonds.
For example, in alanine there are two carbon atoms in the middle segment. To the left there is an H atom joined
to the C atom. To the right there is no H atom.
32 Draw a similar table in your notebook and write the molecular formula of each amino acid.
Histidine: C6H9N3O2 Leucine: C6H13NO2
Aspartic acid: C4H7NO4 Methionine: C5H11NO2S
Arginine: C6H14N4O2 Asparagine: C4H8N2O3
Phenylalanine: C9H11NO2 Serine: C3H7NO3
Alanine: C3H7NO2 Tyrosine: C9H11N1O3
Cysteine: C3H7NO2S Threonine: C4H9NO3
Glycine: C2H5NO2 Isoleucine: C6H13NO2
Glutamine: C5H10N2O3 Tryptophan: C11H12N2O2
Glutamic acid: C5H9NO4 Proline: C5H9NO2
Lysine: C6H14N2O2 Valine: C5H11NO2
33 Draw a table in your notebook and identify the functional groups present in each amino acid. Are there
functional groups present in all of them?
Histidine: amine Leucine: amine, ketone, alcohol.

Aspartic acid: amine, ketone, alcohol. Methionine: amine, ketone, alcohol.
Arginine: amine, ketone, alcohol. Asparagine: amine, ketone, alcohol.
Phenylalanine: amine, ketone, alcohol. Serine: amine, ketone, alcohol.
Alanine: amine, ketone, alcohol. Tyrosine: amine, ketone, alcohol.
Cysteine: amine, ketone, alcohol. Threonine: amine, ketone, alcohol.
Glycine: amine, ketone, alcohol. Isoleucine: amine, ketone, alcohol.
Glutamine: amine, ketone, alcohol. Tryptophan: amine, ketone, alcohol.
Glutamic acid: amine, ketone, alcohol. Proline: ketone, alcohol.
Lysine: amine, ketone, alcohol. Valine: amine, ketone, alcohol.
The amine group is present in all of them except proline.
34 Is there a big difference between the size of some molecules and others? Explain your answer, giving
examples.
No, there are many molecules of a similar size. If we add up the number of atoms, the values range between
about 10 and 27 atoms. The only difference between alanine and cysteine is that cysteine has one extra sulphur
atom, for example.
35 An amino acid’s carboxyl group can attach to another amino acid’s amino group to create linear structures.
Explain how they form proteins.
When amino groups unite, amino acids can form larger structures and many amino acids can join together. This
is what occurs in proteins.
52
36 Within the cells, a molecule called messenger RNA allows for the synthesis of amino acids from the
nitrogenous bases: adenine, uracil, cytosine and guanine. Every three bases synthesise one amino acid. For
example, GGG synthesises glycine.
a) How many ways are there to combine these four bases in sets of three, including repetitions?
b) Why are there only 20 amino acids?
a) We can obtain 4 · 16 = 64 combinations.
b) Because some different combinations result in the same amino acid.
37 Identify the functional groups present in each of the substances involved in the reaction.
In the salicylic acid: carboxyl group.
In the acetic anhydride: ether group.
in the acetylsalicylic acid: carboxyl group and ketone group.
38 Write the chemical equation of the process. Take note that when it ends, there is a strong smell that
resembles vinegar. What substance produces it?
Salicylic acid + sulphuric acid + acetic anhydride → acetylsalicylic acid + acetic acid
The smell of vinegar is produced by the excess acetic anhydride, and the acetic acid.
39 Could another acid have been used instead of H2SO4?

Yes, we could have used another strong acid capable of generating protons when dissolved.
40 The reaction is carried out using an excess of acetic anhydride. When it ends, water is added to destroy the
excess anhydride. Write the reaction of the anhydride with water, taking into account that it produces a
substance that strongly smells of vinegar.
acetic anhydride + water → acetic acid (a component of vinegar).
41 Bearing in mind how aspirin is made, do you think it can be dissolved in water?
It cannot dissolve in water. In the process to synthesise it, aspirin is washed with water, and it remains whole
and crystallises.
53
Chemical
reactions
Chemical reactions 5
WORK WITH THE IMAGE
• What happens in a battery when the substance that causes the chemical reaction in the anode runs out? What
does it mean to say a battery is rechargeable?
The battery goes flat and stops providing power to the circuit. If a battery is rechargeable, it means that we can
connect it to the mains electricity supply so that it can continue to provide power to the circuit.
• If the chemical reaction A + B → C + D generates energy in a rechargeable battery, what reaction occurs in the
battery while it recharges?
While it recharges the reverse reaction occurs. At the end of recharging, the battery has the necessary substance
to start the chemical reaction that provides power to the circuit again. This means that during recharging this
reaction takes place:
C+D→A+B
STARTING POINTS
• Can you think of any other examples of chemical reactions? Which substances are formed? Which disappear?
Open answer. The students probably know the most about combustion reactions. In these reactions a fuel
disappears, and carbon dioxide and water are formed.
• Where do the electrons leave the battery to go around the circuit? Where do they enter the battery?
The electrons leave the negative electrode of the battery and return to it via the positive electrode. However,
circuits usually represent the electric current as flowing in the opposite direction: from the positive electrode to
the negative one.
ACTIVITIES
1 Explain what happens in the following processes and decide whether they are examples of a physical or a
chemical change.
a) Alcohol dissolving in water. d) The combustion of butane.

b) The oxidisation of iron. e) Making a hot chocolate.
c) The sublimation of iodine. f) Frying a steak.
a) The alcohol molecules are dispersed between the water molecules. We can consider this a physical change,
because the alcohol molecules are not separated in their atoms.
b) Oxygen combines with another simple substance, iron, to form a compound. This is a chemical change.
c) The iodine goes from a solid to a gaseous state. Physical change.
d) The butane disappears when it reacts with oxygen and forms other, different chemical compounds.
Chemical change.
e) The chocolate gets warm and melts. Physical change.
f) The substances that form the steak are transformed into other substances. Chemical change.
55
2 We often see iron objects that have gone rusty:
a) Explain what happens to iron during the oxidation process.
b) Look at the image and point out some factors which facilitate the
oxidation of iron.
a) Iron reacts with the oxygen molecules in the air and forms a new
chemical compound: iron oxide. Iron goes from forming part of a metallic
crystal to forming part of a compound where some iron atoms react with
oxygen atoms to form iron oxide. There are two types of iron oxides,
depending on the valence the iron reacts with, which can be 2 or 3.
b) Moist environments tend to cause the oxidation of this metal.
• The decomposition reaction of water is the reverse of its formation reaction. Draw a diagram to show what
happens when two water molecules collide and break down into hydrogen and oxygen.
The water molecules break down into the atoms that form them, and these atoms bind together to form
hydrogen and oxygen molecules.
H2O → O2 + H2
3 Hydrogen gas reacts with chlorine gas to produce hydrogen

chloride. The images below represent each substance:
a) Explain the reaction shown in this diagram using collision
theory.
b) Now draw a diagram showing what happens to each of the
particles.
a) An H2 molecule collides with an Cℓ2 molecule, and two HCℓ molecules form.
b) The hydrogen molecule breaks and is separated into its two atoms. The same happens with the chlorine
molecule. Each hydrogen atom binds with a chlorine atom and forms an HCℓ molecule.
4 This image shows the reaction in which hydrogen gas

reacts with nitrogen gas to produce ammonia:
a) Explain what happens using collision theory.
b) Explain what would happen if there were only one
nitrogen and two hydrogen molecules.
c) What about if there were only one N2 molecule
and one H2 molecule?
a) A nitrogen molecule collides with three hydrogen
molecules, and three ammonia molecules form.
b) Even if all the molecules broke down, there would not be enough hydrogen atoms to form two ammonia
molecules: only one could form.
c) In this case, no ammonia molecules could form.
5 28 g of nitrogen gas reacts with 6 g of hydrogen gas to form ammonia:

a) How many grams of ammonia are formed?
b) If we add 28 g of nitrogen gas and 28 g of hydrogen gas, how much ammonia will be formed?
56
c) If we add 6 g of nitrogen gas and 6 g of hydrogen gas, how much ammonia will be formed?
a) Since matter is conserved in reactions, if the 28g of hydrogen react with the 6g of hydrogen, this is what is
formed:
28 g of N2 + 6 g of H2 = 34 g of ammonia, NH3
b) Since there is the same amount of nitrogen as before, the same amount of hydrogen as before will react, so
only 34g of ammonia will be formed. The rest of the hydrogen will remain without reacting.
c) In this case, the 6g of hydrogen will not react, since there is not enough nitrogen. We can write:
6 g of H2
6 g of N2 ⋅ = 1.29 g of N2
28 g of N2
This is the quantity of nitrogen that reacts with all the hydrogen that there is. Therefore, the following
amount of ammonia will be formed:
6 g of H2 + 1.29 g of N2 → 7.29 g of NH3
6 In your notebook, draw a graph to show the energy variation during the following processes:
a) The decomposition of HCℓ into Cℓ2 and H2.
b) The formation of H2O from H2 and O2.
a) It is an exothermic process. Therefore:
57
b) It is an endothermic process. Therefore:
7 Explain why these processes are exothermic:

• Wood burning.
• Meat cooking.
Because both processes release energy. This is because in both cases, the energy that the products of the
reaction have is less than the energy that the reactants had, and the energy difference is released.
8 Read the text and answer the questions:

‘Fresh products, like meat or fish, are kept in the fridge. This prevents them from starting to smell bad or
going mouldy. If a large piece of food starts to go mouldy, the problem may only be on the surface and the
rest may still be edible. However, if the food is something like minced meat or berries, we usually need to
throw it away. Vacuum packing foods often keeps them edible for longer.
Some specialised detergents contain enzymes to clean specific stains. Some strong stains can be removed
from clothing by applying detergent directly onto the fabric and leaving it to soak in before washing it.’
a) Look for examples in the text where the temperature, concentration, contact surface
or a catalyst modifies the speed of a reaction.
b) What is the role of enzymes? Why are there specific detergents for each type of stain?
a) A lower temperature slows down the speed of the chemical reactions that break down food. For a large
piece of food, the reaction only takes place on the surface. This occurs because the reaction is slower when
the reactants are on large pieces, since there is a smaller contact surface between one reactant and
another. If the food is in small pieces we need to throw it away, because all of it goes bad if it is left out of
the fridge for a long time.
Vacuum-packed foods have a lower concentration of some of the reactants, so it is less likely that the
collisions that cause reactions occur, according to the collision theory. This is why their expiry dates are
longer, because they can stay more time without reacting and, therefore, without going bad.
Specialised detergents contain catalysts that accelerate some reactions. This is why certain detergents
work on some stains and not others, since they catalyse the reaction that allows the detergent to remove
the grease, or other substance, that causes the stain.
b) Enzymes accelerate chemical reactions. There are detergents for each type of stain because an enzyme
usually catalyses only some reactions and not others.
58
9 Answer in your notebook.
a) How many atoms are there in a 100 g block of aluminium?
b) If we have 5 · 1022 aluminium atoms, how many grams of aluminium are there?
Data: M(Aℓ) = 27 u.
a) Use the corresponding conversion factor to express the mass based on the number of atoms. From the
atomic mass of aluminium, we can know that the mass of one mole of aluminium is 27g.
1 mol of A 6.022 ⋅ 1023 at. of A

100 g of A ⋅ ⋅ = 2.23 ⋅ 1024 at. of A
27 g of A 1 mol of A
b) Apply the corresponding conversion factors again:

1 mol of A 27 g of A
5 ⋅ 1022 at. of A ⋅ 23
⋅ = 2.24 g of A
6.022 ⋅ 10 at. of A 1 mol of A
10 Answer in your notebook.

a) How many atoms are there in a 100 g block of lead?
b) If we have 5 · 1022 lead atoms, how many grams of lead are there?
Data: M(Pb) = 207.2 u.
atomic mass of lead we can know that the mass of one mole of lead is 207.2g. Therefore:
1 mol of Pb 6.022 ⋅ 1023 at. of Pb
100 g of Pb ⋅ ⋅ = 2.91 ⋅ 1023 at. of Pb
207.2 g of Pb 1 mol of Pb
b) Apply the corresponding conversion factors again. This is the calculation:

1 mol of Pb 207.2 g of Pb
5 ⋅ 1022 at. of Pb ⋅ 23
⋅ = 17.2 g of Pb
6.022 ⋅ 10 at. of Pb 1 mol of Pb
11 We have 66 g of CO2
a) How many moles of CO2 are there?
b) How many moles of O are there?
c) How many C atoms are there?
d) How many grams of O are there?
e) How many grams of CO2 do we need to get 3g of C?
Data: M(C) = 12 u; M(O) = 16 u.
atomic mass of oxygen and carbon we can find the mass of one mole of CO2. Therefore:
M ( CO2 ) = M ( C ) + M ( O ) ⋅ 2 = 12 + 16 ⋅ 2 = 44 g/mol
Then:
1 mol of CO2
66 g of CO2 ⋅ = 1.5 mol of CO2
44 g of CO2
b) In one mole of CO2 there are two moles of O:

2 mol of O
1.5 mol of CO2 ⋅ = 3 mol of O
1 mol of CO2
c) Use one conversion factor to change to moles and another to change to atoms:
1 mol of C 6.022 ⋅ 1023 at. of C
1.5 mol of CO2 ⋅ ⋅ = 9.033 ⋅ 1023 at. of C
1 mol of CO2 1 mol of C
59
d) From the quantity of substance O:
16 g of O
3 mol of O ⋅ = 48 g of O
1 mol of O
e) As we already know the quantity of C in one mole of CO2:

44 g of CO2
3 g of C ⋅ = 11 g of CO2
12 g of C
12 We want to make 250 mL of aqueous solution of 1.5 M calcium chloride. Calculate how much solute we need.
Data: M(Ca) = 40.08 u; M(Cℓ) = 35.45 u.
To express molarity:
nsolute
M=
Vsolution
We can find the quantity of substance n:
mol
nsolute =
M ⋅ Vsolution = ⋅ 0.250 L =
1.5 0.375 mol of calcium chloride
L
Now we express that amount of CaCℓ2 in grams. To do this we need to know the molar mass of this compound:
M ( CaC=
2) M ( Ca) + M ( C )=
⋅ 2 40.08 + 35.45=
⋅ 2 111.7 g/mol
Then:
111.7 g of CaC 2
0.375 mol of CaC 2 ⋅ = 41.89 g of CaC 2
1 mol of CaC 2
13 Calculate the volume of 1.23 M hydrochloric acid solution we need to get 0.5 mol of acid.
Apply the molarity formula:
nacid 𝑛𝑛acid 0.5 mol
M= →vsolution = = = 0.4 L = 400 mL
𝑣𝑣solution 𝑀𝑀 1.23 M
14 Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reactions:

a) Nitrogen + hydrogen reacting to produce ammonia.
b) Iron + oxygen reacting to produce iron(III) oxide.
c) Carbon + oxygen reacting to produce carbon monoxide.
a) The balanced chemical equation is:
N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3
b) The balanced chemical equation is:

4 Fe + 3 O2 → 2 Fe2O3
c) The balanced chemical equation is:

2 C + O2 → 2 CO
15 Methane (CH4) is the main component of natural gas. When burned with oxygen, it forms
carbon dioxide and water.
a) Write down the reaction and balance it.
b) Calculate the mass of carbon dioxide produced when 1 kg of methane is burned.
c) Calculate the mass of oxygen that is needed to burn 1 kg of methane.
Data: M(C) = 12 u; M(H) = 1 u; M(O) = 16 u.
CH4 + 2 O2 → 2 H2O + CO2
60
b) First, we calculate the molar mass of methane and carbon dioxide with the data provided:
M ( CH4 ) = M ( C ) + M (H) ⋅ 4 = 12 + 1 ⋅ 4 = 16 g/mol
M ( CO2 ) = M ( C ) + M ( O ) ⋅ 2 = 12 + 16 ⋅ 2 = 44 g/mol
Therefore, we can use different conversion factors to calculate the mass of CO2:
1 mol of CH4 1mol of CO2 44 g of CO2
1000 g of CH4 ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ = 2750 g of CO2
16 g of CH4 1 mol of CH4 1mol of CO2
c) In this case we calculate the molar mass of oxygen:

M ( O2 ) = M ( O ) ⋅ 2 = 16 ⋅ 2 = 32 g/mol
And now we use the necessary conversion factors:
1 mol of CH4 2 mol of O2 32 g of O2
1000 g of CH4 ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ = 4000 g of O2
16 g of CH4 1 mol of CH4 1 mol of O2
16 Carbon can burn in the presence of oxygen gas, producing CO. Suppose 30 L of CO are produced from burning
carbon. Calculate how many litres of oxygen caused this reaction. The pressure and temperature remained
the same throughout the process.
First we write the balanced chemical equation:
2 C + O2 → 2 CO
Then we use the appropriate conversion factors to calculate the volume of oxygen.
1 mol of CO 1 mol of O2 22.4 L of O2
30 L of CO ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ = 15 L of O2
22.4 L of CO 2 mol of CO 1 mol of O2
17 Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid to produce zinc chloride and hydrogen gas:
a) How many moles of hydrogen gas are released if 5 kg of zinc reacts?
b) What volume of 5 M hydrochloric acid solution is consumed in the reaction?
Data: M(Zn) = 65.38 u.
a) First we write the balanced chemical equation:
4 Zn + 2 HC → 2 Zn2C + H2
Calculate the molar mass of the substances involved:
M (H2 ) = M (H) ⋅ 2 = 1 ⋅ 2 = 2 g/mol
M ( Zn) = 65.38 g/mol

Use the conversion factors to obtain the mass of H2.
1 mol of Zn 1 mol of H2
5000 g of Zn ⋅ ⋅ = 19.2 mol of H2
65.38 g of Zn 4 mol of Zn
b) The volume of the solution can be calculated from the molarity formula:
nHC n
M= → Vsol. = HC
Vsol. M
So we need to know the quantity of the substance (in moles) for the acid. From the mass of zinc:
1 mol of Zn 2 mol of HC
5000 g of Zn ⋅ ⋅ = 38.24 mol of HC
65.38 g of Zn 4 mol of Zn
And inserting them in the above formula:
nHC n 38.24 mol of HC
M= → Vsol. = HC = = 7.65 mol of HC
Vsol. M 5M
61
ACTIVITY ROUND-UP
18 In your notebook, copy the following diagrams showing

the variation of energy as a chemical reaction occurs.
Complete them by placing each label in the right box.
Some labels can be placed in more than one box:
Answer:
Energy Energy
Activation
Activation energy
energy
Reactants Products
Endothermic
Exothermic reaction
reaction
Products Reactants
Reaction progress Reaction progress
19 In your notebook, write which of the following factors can increase the speed of a reaction:
a) Increasing the temperature of the system.
b) Making the particles of the reactants larger.
c) Increasing the concentration of the reactants.
d) Increasing the amount of catalyst added.
a) It can, because the particles of the reactants move faster and there will be more collisions with enough
energy to make the products.
b) It can’t. The larger the particles of the reactants, the slower the reaction.
c) It can, because collisions between the reactants are more likely.
d) It can, because a greater presence of a catalyst will make contact between the particles of the reactants
easier, so that a reaction occurs.
20 Silver and gold are two metals that are often used to make jewellery. The atomic mass of silver and gold is
107.9 u and 197.0 u respectively. In your notebook, indicate which of these statements is true:
a) There are the same number of atoms in 2 moles of silver as there are in 2 moles of gold.
b) There are the same number of atoms in 2 g of silver as there are in 2 g of gold.
c) There are twice as many moles in a 100 g silver ingot as there are in a 100 g gold ingot.
a) True, because in a mole there is always the same number of particles: 6.022 · 1023 particles.
b) False, because the atomic mass of silver differs from that of gold. Silver atoms have a different mass to gold
atoms, and if the mass is the same, it is because the number of atoms is different.
c) False, since the relationship between the atomic masses is not 2:1.
21 In your notebook, put these words in the right place to complete the definition of molarity.
• V (L) of the solution.
• Molarity.
• Number of moles in the solute.
62
Answer:
Number of moles
in the solute.
Molarity
V (L) of the
solution
22 When a solution of hydrochloric acid is poured onto a piece of the metal aluminium, aluminium trichloride is
formed, which stays in solution, and hydrogen gas is released.
a) Write the chemical formulas for all the substances involved in this process.
b) Identify the reactants and the products.
c) Write the balanced chemical equation for this process. Identify the physical state of each substance.
d) Write the stoichiometric coefficients of each substance.
a) Hydrochloric acid: CHℓ. Aluminium: Aℓ. Aluminium trichloride: AℓCℓ3. Hydrogen gas: H2.
b) Reactants: hydrochloric acid and aluminium.
Products: aluminium trichloride and hydrogen gas.
c) Balanced chemical equation:
6 HC ( aq ) + 2 A ( s ) → 2 AC 3 ( aq ) + 3 H2 ( g )
d) Hydrochloric acid, CHℓ: 6. Aluminium, Aℓ: 2. Aluminium trichloride, AℓCℓ3: 2. Hydrogen gas, H2: 3.
PRACTICE
23 Under certain conditions, hydrogen gas can react with oxygen gas to form oxygenated water (H2O2), a
substance commonly known as hydrogen peroxide. The images below represent each substance:
a) Identify the reactants and the products.

b) Explain this process using collision theory.
c) How many molecules of each reactant are needed to produce 5 molecules of hydrogen peroxide?
d) Explain what would happen if there were two oxygen molecules and one hydrogen molecule.
a) The reactants are the molecular hydrogen and the molecular oxygen. The product is oxygenated water.
b) According to collision theory, the particles of the reactants collide with each other. In this process they
break the links that bind some particles with others, and form the new links that bind to the particles of the
products.
c) As we can see in the reaction, each oxygen molecule reacts with a hydrogen molecule to form a hydrogen
peroxide molecule. To produce 5 hydrogen peroxide molecules, we need 5 oxygen molecules and 5
hydrogen molecules.
d) In this case, only one molecule of oxygen would react with one hydrogen molecule. One hydrogen peroxide
molecule would form, and one oxygen molecule would not react.
24 The reaction which forms hydrogen peroxide from hydrogen and oxygen is exothermic.
a) Draw a diagram to show the energy in the system as the reaction progresses.
b) Draw an energy diagram for the decomposition reaction of hydrogen peroxide into hydrogen and oxygen.
63
a) Answer:
b) If the direct reaction is exothermic, then the reverse reaction, or decomposition, of oxygenated water, is
endothermic. The diagram would look like this:
25 Coal burns using the oxygen in the air. Explain how these factors influence the speed of combustion:
a) Crushing the coal.
b) Cooling it down with water.
c) Covering it with an aluminium blanket.
d) An air current.
a) It increases the speed of the reaction: the coal would burn more quickly.
b) The reaction slows down; a higher temperature means a faster reaction speed.
c) It slows it down, because it would decrease the concentration of one of the reactants: oxygen.
d) It increases the speed, because it increases the concentration of oxygen.
26 Magnesium and platinum are two metals which are both grey in colour, but have very different uses.
Magnesium is used in fireworks, and platinum is used to make jewellery.
a) How many magnesium atoms would there be in a 10 g piece of this metal?
b) How many platinum atoms would there be in a 10 g piece of this metal?
c) What would the mass of a piece of platinum which had the same number of atoms as 10 g of magnesium
be?
Data: M(Mg) = 24.31 u; M(Pt) = 195.1 u.
a) Since we know the atomic mass of magnesium, we know the mass of one mole of magnesium, and
therefore:
64
1 mol of Mg 6.022 ⋅ 1023 at. of Mg
10 g of Mg ⋅ ⋅ = 2.48 ⋅ 1023 at. of Mg
24.31 g of Mg 1 mol of Mg
b) Since we know the atomic mass of platinum, we know the mass of one mole of platinum, and therefore:
1 mol of Pt 6.022 ⋅ 1023 at. of Pt
10 g of Pt ⋅ ⋅ = 3.09 ⋅ 1022 at. of Pt
195.1 g of Pt 1 mol of Pt
c) Use the number of atoms calculated previously:

1 mol of Pt 195.1 g of Pt
2.48 ⋅ 1023 at. of Pt ⋅ ⋅ = 80.26 g of Pt
6.022 ⋅ 1023 at. of Pt 1 mol of Pt
27 Imagine that you have 6 trillion trillion atoms of titanium. What would its mass be? What about if they were
mercury atoms?
Data: M (Ti) = 47.87 u; M(Hg) = 200.6 u.
Use the equivalence between mole and number of atoms and between mole and mass. For the titanium:
1 mol of Ti 47.87 g of Ti
6 ⋅ 1012 ⋅ 1012 at. of Ti ⋅ 23
⋅ = 476.95 g of Ti
6.022 ⋅ 10 at. of Ti 1 mol of Ti
For the mercury:
1 mol of Hg 200.6 g of Hg
6 ⋅ 1012 ⋅ 1012 at. of Hg ⋅ ⋅ = 1998.67 g of Hg
6.022 ⋅ 1023 at. of Hg 1 mol of Hg
28 One of the hydroxides which forms iron is Fe(OH)3. We have a sample of 2.67 g of this hydroxide:
a) How many moles of iron hydroxide do we have?
b) How many moles of hydrogen do we have?
c) How many oxygen atoms do we have?
Data: M(Fe) = 55.85 u; M(H) = 1.008 u; M(O) = 16.00 u.
a) First we calculate the molar mass of iron hydroxide (III):
M Fe ( OH)= ⋅ 3 55.85 + [16.00 + 1.008 ]=
 M (Fe ) + M ( O ) + M (H) =
3
⋅ 3 106.874 g/mol
Then we calculate the amount of substance:

1 mol of Fe ( OH)3
2.67 g of Fe ( OH)3 ⋅ = 0.025 mol of Fe ( OH)3
106.874 g of Fe ( OH)3
b) The formula of iron hydroxide tells us that for each mole of Fe(OH)3 there are 3g of hydrogen. Therefore:
3 g of H
0.025 mol of Fe ( OH)3 ⋅ = 0.075 g of H
1 mol of Fe ( OH)3
c) Similarly, the formula tells us that in each mole of Fe(OH)3 there are 3 moles of oxygen. Therefore:
3 mol of O
0.025 mol of Fe ( OH)3 ⋅ = 0.075 g of O
1 mol of Fe ( OH)3
29 Hydrogen sulphide (H2S) is a flammable gas which appears when bacteria break down organic matter,
producing a smell like rotten eggs. In a sample, we have 2 trillion trillion molecules of H2S. How many g of H
and S are there?
Data: M(S) = 32.06 u; M(H) = 1.008 u.
From the formula of the compound we know that in every H2S molecule there are two hydrogen atoms and one
sulphur atom. Therefore, we can calculate the number of H atoms and, using the equivalence between the
mole and the mass, answer the question.
First we have to calculate the molar mass of H2S:
65
M (H2=
S ) M (H) ⋅ 2 + M (=
S ) 1.008 ⋅ 2 + 32.06
= 34.076 g/mol
Now we use the necessary conversion factors: For the hydrogen:
1 mol of H2 S 34.076 g of H2 S 2.016 g of H
2 ⋅ 1012 ⋅ 1012 molec. of H2 S ⋅ 23
⋅ ⋅ = 6.70 g of H
6.022 ⋅ 10 molec. of H2 S 1 mol of H2 S 34.076 g of H2 S
For the sulphur:
1 mol of H2 S 34.076 g of H2 S 32.06 g of S
2 ⋅ 1012 ⋅ 1012 molec. of H2 S ⋅ 23
⋅ ⋅ = 106.48 g of H
6.022 ⋅ 10 molec. of H2 S 1 mol of H2 S 34.076 g of H2 S
30 What mass of solute do we need to produce 500 mL of 2 M solution of magnesium hydroxide?

Data: M(Mg) = 24.31 u; M(H) = 1.008 u; M(O) = 16.00 u.
Use the molarity formula:
n
M= → n = M ⋅ Vsol. = 2 M ⋅ 0.5 L = 1 mol of Mg ( OH)2
Vsol.
To calculate the mass we need to find the molar mass of magnesium hydroxide:
M Mg ( OH)= M (Mg ) + M ( O ) + M (H) =
2
⋅ 2 24.31 + (16.00 + 1.008 )=
⋅ 2 58.326 g/mol
This is the mass of one mole of Mg(OH)2. Therefore:
58.326 g of Mg ( OH)2
1 mol of Mg ( OH)2 ⋅ = 58.326 g of Mg ( OH)2
1 mol of Mg ( OH)2
31 We have a 2 M solution of magnesium hydroxide:

a) How many moles of solute will be in 25 mL of the solution?
b) How much solution would we need to have 0.25 moles of solute?
a) Use the molarity formula:
n
M= → n = M ⋅ Vsol. = 2 M ⋅ 0.025 L = 0.05 mol of Mg ( OH)2
Vsol.
b) Now we find the volume of the previous formula:

n n 0.25 mol
M= → Vsol. = = =0.125 L of solution =125 mL of solution
Vsol. M 2M
32 Balance the following chemical equations in your notebook. Then describe them using a phrase similar to:
‘________ moles of ________ react with ________ moles of ________ to produce ________ moles of
________’.
a) 2 CO (g) + O2 (g) → 2 CO2 (g)
‘2 moles of CO react with 1 mole of O2 to produce 2 moles of CO2’.
b) SO3 (g) + H2O (l) → H2SO4 (aq)
‘1 mole of SO3 reacts with 1 mole of H2O to produce 1 mole of H2SO4’.
c) 3 HCℓ (aq) + Aℓ(OH)3 (aq) → AℓCℓ3 (aq) + 3 H2O (l)
‘3 moles of HCℓ react with 1 mole of Aℓ(OH)3 to produce 1 mole of AℓCℓ3 and 3 moles of H2O’.
d) 4 Cu (s) + O2 (g) → 2 Cu2O (s)
‘4 moles of Cu react with 1 mole of O2 to produce 2 moles of Cu2O’.
e) CaCO3 (s) + 2 HCℓ (aq) → CaCℓ2 (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
‘1 mole of CaCO3 reacts with 2 moles of HCℓ to produce 1 mole of CaCℓ2, 1 mole of CO2 and 1 mole of H2O’.
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33 One method used to obtain metals is to extract them from their ores. Aluminium is
obtained by putting alumina (Aℓ2O3) through a process of electrolysis in
which it decomposes into aluminium and oxygen gas. Aℓ2O3 → Aℓ + O2.
a) Write the balanced chemical equation for this process.
b) Calculate the mass of alumina that must be processed to obtain the 15 g of
aluminium used to produce a can of fizzy drink.
c) Calculate the moles of oxygen released into the atmosphere in the process.
Data: M(Aℓ) = 26.98 u; M(O) = 16.00 u.
2 Aℓ2O3 → 4 Aℓ + 3 O2
b) The relationship between moles allows us to find out the relationship between the masses.
First we must calculate the molar mass of alumina.
M ( A 2 O=
3) M ( A ) ⋅ 2 + M ( O )=
⋅ 3 26.98 ⋅ 2 + 16=
⋅ 3 101.96 g/mol
Use the corresponding conversion factors:
1 mol of A 2 mol of A 2 O3 101.96 g of A 2 O3
15 g of A ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ = 28.34 g of A 2 O3
26.98 g of A 4 mol of A 1 mol of A 2 O3
c) First we calculate the molar mass of oxygen:

M ( O=
2) M ( O )=
⋅ 2 16.00=
⋅ 2 32 g/mol
Now we use the relationship between moles between aluminium and oxygen:
1 mol of A 3 mol of O2
15 g of A ⋅ ⋅ = 0.42 mol of O2
26.98 g of A 4 mol of A
34 To determine the concentration of hydrogen sulphide in a solution, we make it react with sodium hydroxide.
An experiment proves that 30 mL of 2 M sodium hydroxide are needed to react completely with 50 mL of
hydrogen sulphide solution.
a) Write the balanced chemical equation. Note that during the process another substance is formed, in
addition to sodium sulphide.
b) Calculate the moles of sodium hydroxide that have reacted.
c) Calculate the moles of hydrogen sulphide in the solution.
d) Calculate the molarity of the hydrogen sulphide solution.
a) Write the equation for the reaction that takes place and balance it. In addition to sodium sulphide, Na2S,
water is formed.
H2 S + 2 NaOH → Na2 S + H2O
b) Write the molarity formula for the solution of sodium hydroxide, in order to find out how many moles of
sodium hydroxide react.
n
M= → n = M ⋅ Vsol. = 2 M ⋅ 0.030 L = 0.06 mol of NaOH
Vsol.
c) Now that we have worked out the relationship between moles from the balanced reaction, we calculate
the hydrogen sulphide moles.
1 mol of H2 S
0.06 mol of NaOH ⋅ = 0.03 mol of H2 S
2 mol of NaOH
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d) With the value obtained in the previous equation we calculate the molarity of the hydrogen sulphide
solution, since we already know both the volume and the quantity of substance:
n 0.03 mol of H2 S
M
= = = 1M
Vsol. 0.030 L
INVESTIGATE
35 Write down the process that has taken place in both cases.
The chemical equation for the reaction is:
HCℓ + NaHCO3 → NaCℓ + H2O + CO2
36 Which gas inflates the balloon in the second experiment?

Carbon dioxide, CO2.
37 Which gas is responsible for the bubbling?

Carbon dioxide, CO2.
38 Why is the mass at the end of the process not the same in both experiments?
Because in the first case one of the products escapes, because it becomes a gas and does not stay in the
Erlenmeyer flask when we measure the mass of the products.
39 Taking these results into account, write an explanation of how the mass in a chemical reaction always stays
the same.
Open answer. For example, we could say that provided that we isolate the system, the mass of the products is
the same as the mass of the reactants.
68
Examples
of chemical
reactions
Examples of chemical reactions 6
WORK WITH THE IMAGE
• Draw a diagram showing the parts in a diesel vehicle whose function is to keep air pollution
to a minimum.
A diesel vehicle has several elements:
Catalytic Particulate
converter → filter → Muffler
• Briefly explain why vehicle exhaust pipes have a catalytic converter.

To convert some of the polluting gases produced by the engine during combustion into less polluting gases.
STARTING POINTS
• Which chemicals are responsible for the increase in the greenhouse effect? What about for acid rain?
Fundamentally carbon dioxide, although other gases, like methane, also contribute to the increase in the
greenhouse effect.
The chemicals that contribute to acid rain are mainly sulphur oxides and nitrogen oxides.
• Which products are produced in most combustion reactions?
Generally, carbon dioxide and water.
ACTIVITIES
1 Complete the following table in your notebook.

Formula Hydrogen Common
HI Hydrogen iodide Hydriodic acid

HBr Hydrogen bromide Hydrobromic acid
H2Se Hydrogen selenide Hydroselenic acid
H2Te Hydrogen telluride Hydrotelluric acid
HF Hydrogen fluoride Hydrofluoric acid

Formula Hydrogen Common
HCℓO3 Hydrogen (trioxochlorate) Chlorous acid

HNO2 Hydrogen(dioxidonitrate) Nitrous acid
H2SO3 Dihydrogen(trioxidosulphate) Sulphurous acid
H2CO2 Dihydrogen(carbonate dioxide) Carbonic acid
HNO Hydrogen(nitric oxide) Hyponitrous acid
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Formula Compositional Stock
CuOH Copper hydroxide Copper(I) hydroxide

Pt(OH)4 Platinum tetrahydroxide Platinum(IV) hydroxide
Ba(OH)2 Barium dihydroxide Barium hydroxide(II)
Zn(OH)2 Zinc dihydroxide Zinc hydroxide

Formula Compositional Common
NH4NO3 Ammonium trioxochlorate Ammonium nitrate

LiCℓO4 Lithium tetraoxidochlorate Lithium chlorate
NaHCO3 Sodium hydrogen trioxide carbonate Sodium hydrogen carbonate
Rb2SO4 Rubidium tetraoxide sulphate Rubidium sulphate
5 Complete the following acid-base reactions in your notebook:

a) HCℓ + Ca(OH)2 → c) HNO3 + Aℓ(OH)3 →
b) H2SO4 + KOH → d) H2SO4 + Mg(OH)2 →
a) The complete reaction is:
2 HCℓ + Ca(OH)2 → CaCℓ2 + 2 H2O
b) The complete reaction is:
H2SO4 + 2 KOH → K2SO4 + 2 H2O
c) The complete reaction is:
3 HNO3 + Aℓ(OH)3 → Aℓ(NO3)3 + 3 H2O
d) The complete reaction is:
H2SO4 + Mg(OH)2 → MgSO4 + 2 H2O
6 In order to titrate a HCℓ solution with a solution of 0.5 M NaOH and phenolphthalein, indicate:
a) Where to put the acid and where to put the base.
b) Which solution you need 20 mL of.
c) What colour change will be observed when the solution is neutralised.
d) What happens to the indicator if you forget to close the burette at the point of neutralisation.
e) What the reading on the pH-meter is when the indicator is changing colour.
a) The acid should go in the burette, and the base in the Erlenmeyer flask.
b) The acid solution.
c) The indicator turns from a fuchsia colour to transparent.
d) If we do not close the burette at the point of neutralisation, the solution will become acidic, and the
indicator will have an orange colour.
e) During the change the reading will be pH = 7, because at that point neutralisation occurs and the solution is
neither basic nor acidic.
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7 Determine the molar concentration of a Ca(OH)2 solution if 28 mL of 0.75M HCℓ was needed to neutralise 15
mL of it.
The neutralisation reaction is:
2 HCℓ + Ca(OH)2 → CaCℓ2 + 2 H2O
From the data of the acid we can find out the number of moles of acid.
n
M = acid → nacid =M ⋅ Vsol. =0.75 M ⋅ 0.028 L =0.021 mol of HC
Vsol.
In the balanced reaction we see that one mole of acid reacts with two moles of the base. Therefore:
1 mol of Ca ( OH)2
0.021 mol of HC ⋅ = 0.0105 mol of Ca ( OH)2
2 mol of HC
Therefore, the molar concentration for the base will be worth:
nbase 0.0105 mol
M
= = = 0.7 M
Vsol. 0.015 L
8 Effective treatments for insect bites can be bought in any chemists. We can tell by the smell that they contain
ammonia. Are insect bites acidic or basic?
Ammonia is a base. Therefore, if it can neutralise insect bites, it is because the bites contain substances that are
acidic.
9 The labels on some cleaning products have a warning that they must not be mixed with other products, since
they can cause burns and become less effective. Bearing in mind what we have learnt about neutralisation
reactions:
a) Explain the reason for these problems.
b) Look at the products you have at home. Find one which is acidic and another which is basic.
a) Because they can react with acids. In this case the reaction can produce energy and the acid neutralises the
base of the cleaning product, which then loses the substance that makes it work. This is why it loses its
effectiveness.
b) Open answer. Acids: lemon juice, vinegar, coffee. Base: ammonia.
10 You may know that fruit juice (pH = 4) and coffee (pH =5) can irritate the stomach. Explain what causes this
irritating effect and what we can do to remedy it.
The irritating effect is due to the fact that are acidic substances, and the acid we swallow is added to the acid
present in the stomach.
The best way to remedy it is to avoid drinking too much of these products, but once ingested we can take an
antacid to neutralise these acids.
11 USE ICT. Locate the main chemical industries which manufacture acids and/or bases in Spain on a map.
Choose one of these locations and find out about all of its chemical activity, including the products it
manufactures and their applications. Use this information to prepare a multimedia presentation.
Practical exercise. Remind the students that in multimedia presentations, visual information should be more
important than text.
72
12 Think of a chemical industry which manufactures a substance from the table above:
a) Which substance does it manufacture?
b) If the tanks that store this substance were washed, what would be the pH of the wastewater?
c) Should it be discharged into the sea? Why?
a) Model answer. Suppose it manufactures ammonia, for example.
b) Ammonia is a base. Therefore, if the tanks that store this substance were washed, the pH would be basic,
that is, greater than 7.
c) It should not be discharged into the sea, since the living beings suffer when the pH balance of the water
they live in alters. Many of them cannot cope with too wide a spectrum of pH values without getting ill or
even dying.
13 During the combustion of methane (CH4), 890 kJ/mol are released. If 10 kg of methane is burned, calculate:
a) The amount of energy produced.
b) The mass of CO2 released into the atmosphere.
Natural gas consists mainly of methane (≈ 95 %). Compare these results with those obtained in the solution
to solved problem 1 and explain:
c) Which compound is more energy efficient, butane or natural gas.
d) Whether butane or natural gas causes more air pollution.
a) First, write the equation that corresponds to the combustion reaction of methane and balance it:
CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2 H2O
To do the relations between moles it is necessary to know the molar mass of methane. Using the data that
appear in the periodic table:
M ( CH4 ) = M ( C ) + M (H) ⋅ 4 = 12 + 1 ⋅ 4 = 16 g/mol
Since we know the energy released by burning one mole of methane:

1 mol of CH4 890 kJ
10000 g of CH4 ⋅ ⋅ = 556250 kJ
16 g of CH4 1 mol of CH4
b) Calculate the molar mass of oxygen from the data that appear in the periodic table:
M ( O2 ) = M ( O ) ⋅ 2 = 16 ⋅ 2 = 32 g/mol
Then:
1 mol of CH4 2 mol of O2 32 g of O2
10000 g of CH4 ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ = 40000 g of O2
16 g of CH4 1 mol of CH4 1 mol of O2
c) Calculate the energy generated by burning a kilogram of natural gas. Since natural gas contains 95%
methane, we must multiply the value obtained by 0.95.
556250 kJ
⋅ 0.95 =
52843.75 kJ/kg of natural gas
10 kg
For butane, with the data from the example:
495530 kJ
= 49553 kJ/kg of butane
10 kg
So, natural gas is more energy efficient.

d) The compound that emits more carbon dioxide into the atmosphere causes more pollution. Since butane is
less efficient, we need to burn more of it to produce the same energy as natural gas, so butane will pollute
more.
73
14 Although it is not a commonly used fuel, hydrogen gas also reacts with oxygen, releasing 285.8 kJ for each
mole of H2.
a) Write the balanced chemical equation of the combustion reaction.
b) Calculate the amount of energy produced when 10 kg of hydrogen gas is burned.
c) Compare the result with the answer to solved problem 1 and explain whether it is more or less efficient
as a fuel than butane.
d) Hydrogen is said to be a non-polluting fuel. Explain why.
a) The balanced equation is:
2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O + 2 · 285.8 kJ
b) First, calculate the molar mass of hydrogen from the data that appears in the periodic table:
M (H2 ) = M (H) ⋅ 2 = 1 ⋅ 2 = 2 g/mol
Then:
1 mol of H2 285.8 kJ
10000 g of H2 ⋅ ⋅ = 1.429 ⋅ 106 kJ
2 g of H2 1 mol of H2
c) To compare the result we observe how much energy each kilogram generates:
1 mol of H2 285.8 kJ 1.429 ⋅ 106 kJ
10000 g of H2 ⋅ ⋅ = = 142900 kJ/kg of H2
2 g of H2 1 mol of H2 10 kg
So, it is more efficient than butane.

d) Because its combustion does not generate carbon dioxide; just water, a non-polluting substance.
Study the images in the 'Know how to' section below and answer the questions:
• What are the reactants? What are the products? Write the balanced equation.
The reactants are ammonia, NH3, and hydrochloric acid, HCℓ. The balanced equation is:
NH3 (aq) + HCℓ (aq) → NH4Cℓ
• What is the white substance that is produced?
Ammonium nitrate.
• Explain why this is an example of a synthesis reaction.
Because a new substance is formed from atoms present in two reactants.
15 Balance the following chemical reactions and classify them as either acid-base, combustion or synthesis
reactions. Some reactions may be of more than one type.
a) H2 + Cℓ2 → 2 HCℓ
Synthesis reaction. A compound is formed from the atoms present in two reactants.
b) 2 C8H18 + 25 O2 → 16 CO2 + 18 H2O
Combustion reaction. The octane reacts with oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water.
c) NH3 + HNO3 → NH4NO3
Synthesis reaction and also acid-base reaction, because the ammonia, which is a base, reacts with nitric
acid and forms a salt: ammonium nitrate.
d) C + O2 → CO2
Synthesis reaction.
e) Ba(OH)2 + 2 HI → BaI2 + 2 H2O
Acid-base reaction, because a base, barium hydroxide, reacts with the hydroiodic acid and forms a salt,
74
barium iodide.
f) CH3OH + CH3OH → CH3−O−CH3 + H2O
Synthesis reaction, because from two methanol molecules a compound forms with two carbon atoms:
dimethyl ether.
16 An industrial plant needs to produce one tonne of ammonia. Calculate the mass of nitrogen and hydrogen
needed to produce this amount.
First, write the equation of the corresponding reaction and balance it:
N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3
Calculate the molar mass of each substance involved, using the data that appears in the periodic table:
M (N2 ) = M (N) ⋅ 2 = 14 ⋅ 2 = 28 g/mol
M (H2 ) = M (H) ⋅ 2 = 1 ⋅ 2 = 2 g/mol
M (NH3 ) = M (N) + M (H) ⋅ 3 = 14 + 1 ⋅ 3 = 17 g/mol
Next, use the corresponding conversion factors, knowing the relationship between moles given by the equation
of the process. For nitrogen:
1 mol of NH3 1 mol of N2 14 g of N2
106 g of NH3 ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ = 4.118 ⋅ 105 g of N2
17 g of NH3 2 mol of NH3 1 mol of N2
For hydrogen:
1 mol of NH3 3 mol of H2 2 g of H2
106 g of NH3 ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ = 1.765 ⋅ 105 g of H2
17 g of NH3 2 mol of NH3 1 mol of H2
17 The best conditions for producing ammonia on an industrial scale are:

• Temperature: 400-500 °C.
• Pressure: 200 atm.
• Use of an iron catalyst.
Study the factors that influence the speed of a reaction again and explain why these conditions are better
than those in which the temperature and pressure are lower and no catalyst is used.
A high temperature helps the reaction because the particles collide with each other with greater energy, so it is
more likely that the collision will be efficient and that ammonia particles will form.
A high pressure makes the concentration of the reactants greater and therefore increases the speed of the
reaction.
If we use a catalyst, the speed of the reaction increases, since the presence of the catalyst increases the
efficiency of the collisions.
18 Above, we can see the steps involved in the industrial production of sulphuric acid.
a) Balance steps 1 and 3 to make them consistent with step 2. Make the moles of the substance
produced in step 1 the same as what is needed for step 2, and the moles of the substance
needed for step 3 the same as what is produced in step 2.
b) Add steps 1, 2 and 3, as you calculated them above, together and write the overall chemical
equation for the production of sulphuric acid.
a) The corresponding equations would be as follows:
1. 2 S (s) + 2 O2 (g) → 2 SO2 (g)
2. 2 SO2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2 SO3 (g)
3. 2 SO3 (g) + 2 H2O → 2 H2SO4 (l)
b) The overall equation is:
1. 2 S (s) + 2 O2 (g) → 2 SO2 (g)
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2. 2 SO2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2 SO3 (g)
3. 2 SO3 (g) + 2 H2O → 2 H2SO4 (l)
Total:
2 S (s) + 2 O2 (g) + O2 (g) + 2 H2O → 2 H2SO4 (l)
2 S (s) + 3 O2 (g) + 2 H2O → 2 H2SO4 (l)
19 In a chemical process which takes place over several stages, there are reactants, products and reaction
intermediates. Reaction intermediates are substances which appear in one step and disappear in another.
In the industrial process for producing sulphuric acid:
a) What are the reactants? What are the products?
b) What are the reaction intermediates?
a) The reactants are sulphur, oxygen and water. The product is sulphuric acid.
b) The reaction intermediates are sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide.
ACTIVITY ROUND-UP
20 Complete the following sentences in your notebook, filling in the blanks with the correct term:
a) Acids are substances which, when in aqueous solution, release protones (H+).
b) Bases are substances which, when in aqueous solution, release hidroxilos (OH−).
c) Acids neutralise the action of bases because, when they come into contact, they form salts.
21 The pH scale is used to measure the acidity or basicity of a medium. Based on this scale, in your notebook,
write whether the following sentences are true or false. Correct the ones that are false.
a) Hand soap has a pH of 9, so it is an acid.
b) Coffee has a pH of 6. It is less acidic than hand soap.
c) Lemon juice has a pH of 2 and tomato juice has a pH of 4. One of these is twice as acidic as the other.
d) The pH of hand soap is 9 and the pH of soap powder is 10. Soap powder is ten times more basic than
hand soap.
a) False. The correct sentence: Hand soap has a pH of 9, so it is basic.
b) False. Coffee has a pH of 6. It is more acidic than hand soap.
c) False. Lemon juice has a pH of 2 and tomato juice has a pH of 4. One is 102 = 100 more acidic than the
other.
d) True. The pH of hand soap is 9 and the pH of soap powder is 10. Soap powder is ten times more basic than
hand soap.
22 Answer the following questions in your notebook:

a) Why do we sometimes suffer from heartburn?
b) Why do some people take bicarbonate of soda to combat heartburn?
c) Milk of Magnesia used to be a popular antacid medicine. What substance did it contain? Why do you
think it worked as an antacid?
a) Because there is excess acid in the stomach.

b) Because it is a basic substance that counteracts the excess acid in the stomach.
c) Milk of Magnesia contains magnesium hydroxide, a basic substance, because it releases OH- when dissolved
in water. It acts as an antacid because the OH ions combine with the H+ ions.
23 In your notebook, indicate which of the following sentences are correct. Explain why the rest are wrong
and correct them.
76
a) Oxygen must always be present for a combustion reaction to take place.
b) Carbon dioxide is always released during the combustion of a fossil fuel.
c) Water is always released in the combustion of a fossil fuel.
d) A combustion reaction always releases energy.
a) False. An oxidant must always be present for a combustion reaction to take place.
b) True.
c) True.
d) True.
24 Look at the chemical equations listed below and explain in your notebook which of them represents
a synthesis reaction:
a) 2 NH3 + H2SO4 → (NH4)2SO4 d) CH3OH + CH3OH → CH3−O−CH3 + H2O
b) Zn + H2SO4 → H2 + ZnSO4 e) KOH + HBr → KBr + H2O.
c) CH2=CH2 + Cℓ2 → CH2Cℓ−CH2Cℓ
The synthesis reactions are:

• a: ammonium sulphate is generated.
• c: dichloroethene is formed.
• d: dimethyl ether is formed.
b is a substitution reaction, while e is an acid-base reaction.
PRACTICE
25 Complete the following table in your notebook, indicating which group each substance belongs to:
Formula Acid Base Neither
HBr √
HLi √
Mg(OH)2 √
CuO √
NH3 √
26 In your notebook, complete the chemical equations shown below. In each case, say which substance is the
acid and which is the base:
a) HBr + AgOH → AgBr + H2O c) HI + KOH → KI + H2O

Acid: HBr; base: AgOH. Acid: HI; base: KOH.
b) H2SO4 + Zn(OH)2 → ZnSO4 + 2 H2O d) H2CO3 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + 2 H2O
Acid: H2SO4; base: Zn(OH)2. Acid: H2CO3; base: Ca(OH)2.
27 Calculate the concentration of a KOH solution if 22.6 mL of 1.25 M HCℓ was needed to neutralise 30 mL of it.
First, write the neutralization reaction and balance it:
KOH + HCℓ → KCℓ + H2O
Now, calculate the moles of HCℓ that were used.
n mol
M= → n = M ⋅ Vsol. = 1.25 ⋅ 0.0226 L = 0.02825 mol of HC
Vsol. L
77
In the reaction we can read that each mole of acid reacts with one mole of base, so we know that these same
KOH moles were used. Since we also know the volume, we can determine the concentration of the KOH
solution.
n 0.02825 mol
M
= = = 0.942 M
Vsol. 0.030 L
28 In your notebook, write whether the following substances are acidic or basic. Put them in order from the
least acidic to the most acidic.
a) Lemon juice: pH = 2. c) Detergent: pH = 11.
b) Distilled water: pH = 7. d) Milk: pH = 6.5.
a) It is acidic; the pH is less than 7.

b) It is neutral; the pH is 7.
c) It is basic; the pH is greater than 7.
d) It is acidic; the pH is less than 7.
The order, from the least acidic to the most acidic is:
Detergent < Distilled Water < Milk < Lemon juice
29 We all have substances at home that are moderately acidic or basic, which can be used as an emergency
remedy for certain stings.
In your notebook, say which of the substances above you would use as a remedy for a sting from a:
a) Bee (contains acidic substances). c) Ant (contains acidic substances).
b) Wasp (contains basic substances). d) Nettle (contains acidic substances).
The indicator paper tells us that the substance A is basic, and substance B is acidic.
a) Substance A, to counteract the acid.
b) Substance B, to counteract the base.
c) Substance A, to counteract the acid.
d) Substance A, to counteract the acid.
30 If there is enough oxygen, coal will burn, producing carbon dioxide. We want to burn 10 kg of coal. Write the
chemical equation of the process that takes place and calculate:
a) The mass of oxygen required.
b) The mass of CO2 released into the atmosphere.
a) The balanced equation is as follows:
C + O2 → CO2
Calculate the molar mass of the substances involved. For coal, the mass of one mole is 12g. For oxygen:
M ( O2 ) = M ( O ) ⋅ 2 = 16 ⋅ 2 = 32 g/mol
Next, use the corresponding conversion factors, knowing the relationship between moles given by the
equation of the process. To calculate the mass of oxygen required:
78
1 mol of C 1 mol of O2 32 g of O2
10 ⋅ 103 g of C ⋅
⋅ ⋅ =
12 g of C 1 mol of C 1 mol of O2
 
= 26666.6
= g of O2 26.6 kg of O2
b) Now we calculate the molar mass of carbon:
M ( CO2 ) = M ( C ) + M ( O ) ⋅ 2 = 12 + 16 ⋅ 2 = 44 g/mol
Next, use the corresponding conversion factors, knowing the relationship between moles given by the
equation of the process.
1 mol of C 1 mol of CO2 44 g of O2
10 ⋅ 103 g of C ⋅
⋅ ⋅ =
12 g of C 1 mol of C 1 mol of CO2
 
= 36666.6
= g of CO2 36.6 kg of CO2
This is the quantity of carbon dioxide released into the atmosphere. This value could also have been
obtained by applying the law of conservation of mass, since CO2 is the only product and we know the mass
of coal and the molar mass of the oxygen involved:
 
10 kg of C + 26.6 kg of O2 =
36.6 kg of CO2
31 In the combustion of 1 mole of carbon, 393.5 kJ of energy is released. Calculate the amount of energy
released by burning 10 kg of coal. Compare this result with the answers to solved problem 1 and activity 13,
and writewhether coal, butane or natural gas is the most energy efficient.
Since we know the mass of one mole of carbon, 12g:
1 mol of C 393.5 kJ 
10 ⋅ 103 g of C ⋅ ⋅ = 327916.6 kJ
12 g of C 1 mol of C
With this value we can calculate the energy value of carbon:

3 1 mol of C 393.5 kJ 327916.6 kJ
10 ⋅ 10 g of C ⋅ ⋅ = = 32791.6 kJ/kg of carbon
12 g of C 1 mol of C 10 kg of C
In activity 13 we saw the energy value of butane and natural gas:
Butane:
495530 kJ
= 49553 kJ/kg of butane
10 kg
For natural gas:
556250 kJ
⋅ 0.95 =
52843.75 kJ/kg of natural gas
10 kg
Therefore, natural gas is the most energy-efficient fuel.
32 When a fossil fuel is burned with enough oxygen, carbon dioxide is released. This gas increases the
greenhouse effect. Calculate how much CO2 and H2O is produced by burning 10 kg of each fuel: coal (C, s),
natural gas (CH4, g) and butane (C4H10, g). Based on your results, explain which substance is the most
environmentally friendly.
First, write the reaction that takes place with each fuel:
C + O2 → CO2
CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2 H2O
2 C4H10 + 13 O2 → 8 CO2 + 10 H2O
For the first reaction; coal, as we saw in a previous activity:
1 mol of C 1 mol of CO2 44 g of O2
10 ⋅ 103 g of C ⋅
⋅ ⋅ =
12 g of C 1 mol of C 1 mol of CO2
 
= 36666.6
= g of CO2 36.6 kg of CO2
No water is produced in this reaction.
79
The molar mass of water is:
M (H2O ) = M (H) ⋅ 2 + M ( O ) = 1 ⋅ 2 + 16 = 18 g/mol
And the molar mass of methane is:

M ( C 4H10 ) = M ( C ) ⋅ 4 + M (H) ⋅ 10 = 12 ⋅ 4 + 1 ⋅ 10 = 58 g/mol
For the combustion of methane:

1 mol of CH4 1 mol of CO2 44 g of CO2
10 ⋅ 103 g of CH4 ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ =
16 g of CH4 1 mol of CH4 1 mol of CO2
= 27
= 500 g of CO2 27.5 kg of CO2
1 mol of CH4 2 mol of H2 O 18 g of H2 O

10 ⋅ 103 g of CH4 ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ =
16 g of CH4 1 mol of CH4 1 mol of CO2
= 22
= 500 g of H2 O 22.5 kg of H2 O
For the combustion of butane:

1 mol of C4H10 8 mol of CO2 44 g of CO2
10 ⋅ 103 g of C4H10 ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ =
58 g of C4H10 2 mol of C4H10 1 mol of CO2
= 30
= 344.83 g of CO2 30.345 kg of CO2
1 mol of C4H10 10 mol of H2 O 18 g of H2 O

10 ⋅ 103 g of C4H10 ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ =
58 g of C4H10 2 mol of C4H10 1 mol of H2 O
= 15
= 517.2 g of H2 O 15.5172 kg of H2 O
The most environmentally-friendly substance is the one that emits the lowest quantity of carbon dioxide:
natural gas.
33 In your notebook, balance the following chemical equations and say which of them are synthesis reactions.
Explain your answers.
a) 2 Fe + O2 → 2 FeO
b) 2 Na + 2 H2O →2 NaOH + H2
c) Na2O + H2O → 2 NaOH
d) CH3 − CH2OH + CH3 − CH2OH → CH3 − CH2 − O − CH2 − CH3 + H2O
The synthesis reactions are a, b and d.
34 In your notebook, balance the chemical reactions above (except the ones with CxHy).
Reactions with O2: • H2 + 2 NO → N2O + H2O

• CO + O2 → CO2 • 5 H2 + 2 NO → 2 NH3 + 2 H2O
• 2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O • 2 NO + 4 NH3 + 2 O2 → 3 N2 + 6 H2O
Reactions with NO: Reactions with agua:

• 2 CO + 2 NO → N2 + 2 CO2 • CO + H2O → CO2 + H2
• 2 H2 + 2 NO → N2 + 2 H2O
35 If mass is neither created nor destroyed, how is it possible to ‘destroy’ some of the pollutants that are
produced in a combustion engine?
Because there are chemical reactions in which the atoms involved are rearranged. In this way, the products that
are formed contain less polluting chemical compounds than those found n the reactants.
80
36 In your notebook, write which substances disappear in the reactions that take place in a catalytic converter,
and which substances are produced.
a) Are all the substances that are produced non-pollutants?
b) Explain your answer and describe how catalytic converters work.
Substance that disappear: hydrocarbons, CxHy, CO, NO, N2O, H2.
Substances that are produced: CO2, H2O, N2, CO, NH3.
a) No, some substances, like CO or CO2 are pollutants.
b) However, although some compounds that are harmful to the environment are formed, other compounds,
which are even more negative, are eliminated. These include nitrogen oxides, which can react with the
water in the atmosphere and form acids that then contaminate the rain, giving rise to the acid rain that
damages forests or some types of monuments.
37 Analyse the table of the effectiveness of a catalytic converter and explain it in your own words.
Catalytic converters completely eliminate some compounds, like certain nitrogen oxides, but in the case of
some other substances, they simply reduce the amount emitted into the atmosphere.
38 In terms of toxicity, which compound do you think is more dangerous, CO or CO2?

CO is more dangerous, because it is a toxic compound, although CO2 also harms the environment, since it is the
main cause of the increase in the greenhouse effect.
INVESTIGATE
39 Explain which results allow you to determine whether the antacid is an acid or a base.
The use of indicator substances or indicator paper.
40 What causes the contents of the Erlenmeyer flask to change colour as the milk of magnesia is added?
The cause is that the pH of the solution varies. The milk of magnesia is a basic substance that increases the pH
in the Erlenmeyer flask.
41 Imagine that the Erlenmeyer flask is the stomach. Explain what causes the burning sensation and how the
medicine works to alleviate this.
The burning sensation happens because the acidic substances add to the acid already present in the stomach
for digestion. The medicines that alleviate this sensation act like the milk of magnesia. They counteract the
effect of the acids, causing a neutralisation reaction that reduces the pH in the stomach.
81
Motion
Motion 7
WORK WITH THE IMAGE
• How many satellites make up the GPS system? What is the minimum number of satellites required to track
a receiver?
It is made up of 31 satellites. Four is the minimum number to obtain the necessary triangulation to determine the
position.
• What information does each satellite transmit?
It transmits its position and the time at which it emits the signal.
• What information do satellite navigation systems display? What units are they expressed in?
They display:
The time: in hours and minutes.
The velocity: in km/h.
The distance to the next intersection: in metres.
The time remaining before arrival: minutes and seconds.
The distance remaining before arrival at the destination: in kilometres.
STARTING POINTS
• What is the difference between velocity and acceleration?
Velocity gives us an idea of the space travelled in each unit of time, and acceleration expresses how the velocity
varies.
• How far from a satellite are we if its signal informs us that t1 = 5.31 s and our GPS received the signal at t2 =
5.38 s?
The signal travels at the speed of light. Therefore:
distance
c= 300 000 km/s ⋅ ( 5.38 − 5.31) =
c ⋅ time =
→ distance = 21 000 km
time
• What's your opinion? Do you think that satellite navigation systems make drivers safer, or do they risk
distracting their attention from the road?
Open answer. It is best to set the satellite navigation system and the routes that we wish to take before we start
to drive. If we do this, the GPS can be of great help, because it gives us directions. This allows the driver to focus
their attention on other vehicles, pedestrians and road conditions.
ACTIVITIES
1 Put the following in order, from the highest to the lowest velocity:
a) A bird that flies 10 km in 20 minutes.
b) An athlete who runs 100 m in 10 seconds.
c) A boat that travels 1 nautical mile in a quarter of an hour. (Data: 1 nautical mile = 1852 m).
a) To put them in order, we must express them all in the same unit. Let’s choose m/s, the way velocity is
expressed in the International System of Units.
83
10 km 1000 m 1 min  
⋅ ⋅ = 8.3 m/s →
= v1 8.3 m/s
20 min 1 km 60 s
b) In this case, velocity is:

100 m
=v2 = 10 m/s
10 s
c) And in the case of the boat:
1852 m 1 min
v= ⋅ = 2.06 m/s
15 min 60 s
Therefore, the athlete has the highest velocity, then the bird, and then the boat.
2 Express the following velocities in SI units.

a) 15 m/s.
b) 1400 cm/s.
c) 5 knots. (Data: 1 knot = 1 nautical mile per hour).
a) We use the corresponding factor in each case. The SI unit is m/s. Therefore, in this case the velocity is
already expressed in SI units.
b) Use the corresponding conversion factor:
cm 1m
1400 ⋅ = 14 m/s
s 100 cm
c) Use the corresponding conversion factor:

miles 1 h 1852 m
5 ⋅ ⋅ = 2.57 m/s
h 3600 s 1 mile
3 At a given moment in a race, two runners are in the positions shown in image A above. Write down their
positions (suppose that the scale is in m).
For one, the position is s1 = 60 m.
For the other: s2 = 80 m.
4 Mark the positions of four runners on a 100 m athletics track, according to the following table:
Answer:
84
5 The graph represents a mobile object's trajectory. In your notebook, write down the coordinates of the
positions marked on the graph:
A: (0, 3). C: (2, −2). E: (−4, 0).

B: (3, 1). D: (−2, −2). F: (−3, 2).
6 Look at the training session for the 100-metre track race shown in image A. For each runner, calculate:
a) The displacement.
b) The distance travelled.
a) For the runner in green, in lane 1: the displacement is 60m, because he starts from position 0.
For the runner in blue, in lane 2: the displacement is 80m: because he starts from position 0.
b) For the runner in green, in lane 1: the distance travelled is 60m.
For the runner in blue, in lane 2: the distance travelled is 120m: because he starts from position 0, arrives
at the 100m position, and then returns.
7 Study the Jerez racetrack in image B.

a) Find a section of the track where the displacement coincides with the path travelled.
b) Would it be possible for a motorcycle to follow a different path to the one marked in red but with the
same displacement vector?
a) These are the straight sections.
b) Yes; for example, if it travels between both positions, but in the opposite orientation to the one indicated
in the drawing. It would travel a substantially greater distance than the path marked in red in the drawing,
but the displacement would be the same.
8 If an adult's average reaction time is 3/4 of a second, calculate:

a) The shortest distance travelled by a driver from the moment he sees a dangerous situation on the road
until he reacts to it, travelling at 120 km/h.
What if he is travelling at 50 km/h? Taking the result into account, justify the 50 km/h speed limit for cars
on urban roads.
b) The safe distance for a car travelling at 120 km/h. What about if the car is travelling at 50 km/h?
a) The distance travelled can be calculated from the speed of the vehicle and the elapsed time. First, express
the speed in SI units:
km 1 h 1000 m 
120 ⋅ ⋅ = 33.3 m/s
h 3600 s 1 km
Then perform the calculation:
x  3
v= → x = v ⋅ t = 33.3 m/s ⋅ s = 25 m
t 4
If he is travelling at 50 km/h, first we express that velocity in m/s:
km 1 h 1000 m 
50 ⋅ ⋅ = 13.8 m/s
h 3600 s 1 km
85
Now we calculate the distance, like before:
x  3
v= → x = v ⋅ t = 13.8 m/s ⋅ s = 10.42 m
t 4
As we can see, the distance travelled during the reaction time is significantly greater when the car travels at
120 km/h. This is why there are strict speed limits in urban areas, because in a city it is usual for a
pedestrian to step onto the road, or a ball to roll onto it.
b) The safe distance is greater than the distances calculated, because from the time the driver brakes,
to the vehicle stopping, a certain distance is also travelled.
9 A car with a URM drives past us at 72 km/h. What distance will it have travelled in half an hour?
We use the formula for velocity, and find the distance. In this case it is not necessary to change units.
x
v= → x = v ⋅ t = 72 km/h ⋅ 0.5 h = 36 km
t
10 The Strait of Gibraltar is 14.4 km long.

a) The swimmer, David Meca, swam across the Strait in 7 hours and 18 minutes.
What was his average velocity?
b) A swordfish can reach speeds of up to 130 km/h. How long would it take the swordfish to cross
the Strait?
a) The average speed is calculated by dividing the space travelled by the time taken. 18 min are equivalent to
0.3 hours. Therefore:
distance 14.4 km
v
= = ⋅ 0.5 = = 0.219 m/s
h 0.787 km/h
time 18.3 h
b) To calculate the time we use the same expression as before:
distance 𝑑𝑑 14.4 km
𝑣𝑣 = → 𝑡𝑡 = = = 0.11 h = 6.65 min
time 𝑣𝑣 130 km/h
11 The graph represents the motion of a mobile object.

a) Write its equations of motion.
b) Calculate its average velocity and average speed.
c) Write a brief sentence describing the motion represented in the graph.
A C
a) Identify the three sections of the graph: A, B and C. Write the position of the mobile object for each of the
sections identified in the graph. In section A, velocity is constant. Its value is:
distance x2 − x1 40 m − 10 m
=v = = = 7.5 m/s
time t2 − t1 4 s−0s
So, in this section we can write its position like this:
x ( t ) = x0 + v ⋅ t = 10 + 7.5 ⋅ t (In SI units)
In section B the position of the mobile object does not change. This means that its velocity is zero.
x ( t ) = 40
(In SI units)
So, its position does not change over time.
In section C, we do the same as in section A:
86
x2 − x1 −10 m − 40 m
v= = = −10 m/s
t2 − t1 14 s − 9 s
The negative sign for speed indicates that in this section the mobile object approaches the origin. The
position will be:
x ( t ) = x0 + v ⋅ t = 40 − 10 ⋅ t
(In SI units)
b) The average speed is calculated from the total space travelled and time taken.
In section A, the distance travelled is:
d = x final − x0 = 40 m − 10 m= 30 m
In section B, the distance travelled is zero, since the mobile object is at rest.
In section C, the distance travelled is:
d=x final − x0 =−10 m − 40 m =
50 m
Therefore, the average speed is:

d1 + d2 + d3 30 m + 0 + 50 m
=vAm = = 5.71 m/s
∆t1 + ∆t2 + ∆t3 14 s
c) Model answer. Andrea and Julio are 10m from Andrea's house. They start to walk for four seconds until
they arrive at a distance of 40m from Andrea's house. They stop there to chat for five seconds, and then
turn back towards Andrea's house, so that after another five seconds they have gone 10m past it, in the
opposite orientation to the starting point.
12 Ana lives 3 km from school. María, who lives on the same road, is 500 m further away. Every morning, at
quarter past eight, they ride their bicycles to school. Ana cycles at 6 m/s. María cycles at 8 m/s.
a) When and where do they meet?
b) What is the minimum speed that Ana has to ride at so that María does not catch up with her before
arriving at school?
a) Write the position equation for each cyclist. When they meet, they are at the same position. Suppose that
they leave their homes at the same time. We use units from the International System. Their positions in
relation to their school are:
x Ana
= 3000 − v Ana =
⋅ t 3000 − 6 ⋅ t
xMaría
= 3500 − vMaría =⋅ t 3500 − 8 ⋅ t
When both positions are equal:
xAna
= xMaría → 3000 − 6=
⋅ t 3500 − 8 ⋅ t → −6 ⋅ t + 8=
⋅ t 3500 − 3000 →
500
t 500 → =
→ 2 ⋅= t = 250 s
2
Now we substitute this time value in any position equation:
x Ana ⋅ t 3000 − 6 ⋅ 250
= 3000 − 6= = 1500
So, they meet at 1,500m from the school.
b) For María not to catch up with her, Ana’s position in the above equations should be 0. In other words, Ana
needs to already be at school when the two cyclists meet. Redo the calculation with this value.
x Ana
= 3000 − v Ana =
⋅ t 3000 − v=⋅t 0
xMaría
= 3500 − vMaría =⋅ t 3500 − 8=
⋅t 0
Calculate the time it takes for Maria to arrive at school:
3500
xMaría = 3500 − 8 ⋅ t = 0 → 3500 = 8 ⋅ t → t = = 437.5 s
8
Now we put this value in the equation for Ana:

3000
xAna = 3000 − v ⋅ t = 0 → 3000 − v ⋅ 437.5 = 0 → 3000 = v ⋅ 437.5 → v = = 6.857 m/s
437.5
At this velocity, when María catches up with Ana, she is already at school.
87
13 Calculate the average velocity for mobile objects in the following instances:
a) 9 s at 10 m/s and 1 s at 6 m/s.
b) 9 s at 6 m/s and 1 s at 10 m/s.
c) 5 s at 6 m/s and 5 s at 10 m/s.
d) In which instance is the average velocity the same as the mean of the two velocities?
Explain your answer.
a) To calculate the average velocity, we use the total space travelled, and the total time taken.
d1 + d2 v1 ⋅ ∆t1 + v2 ⋅ ∆t2 10 m/s ⋅ 9 s + 6 m/s ⋅ 1 s
=v = = = 9.6 m/s
∆t1 + ∆t2 ∆t1 + ∆t2 9 s +1 s
It is worth mentioning that the average velocity does not coincide, in general, with the average of the two
velocities, although it must have a value somewhere between the two.
b) Proceed in the same way.
d1 + d2 v1 ⋅ ∆t1 + v2 ⋅ ∆t2 6 m/s ⋅ 9 s + 10 m/s ⋅ 1 s
=v = = = 6.4 m/s
∆t1 + ∆t2 ∆t1 + ∆t2 9 s +1 s
Now the value is closer to the lowest velocity, because the mobile object spends more time moving at the
lowest velocity than at the highest velocity.
c) And in this case.
d1 + d2 v1 ⋅ ∆t1 + v2 ⋅ ∆t2 6 m/s ⋅ 5 s + 10 m/s ⋅ 5 s
=v = = = 8 m/s
∆t1 + ∆t2 ∆t1 + ∆t2 5 s+5 s
Now the value of the average velocity does coincide with the average of the velocities.
d) In case c, it is because the mobile object moves for the same amount of time at one velocity and at the
other.
14 A ball is dropped from a height of 3 m. Calculate the time that it takes to reach the ground and its velocity
at the time. Is it positive or negative?
The acceleration in this case is that of gravity: 9.8 m/s2. The space travelled for a UARM like this is:
1
s = v0 ⋅ t + ⋅g ⋅t2
2
The only thing we do not know in this equation is time, since the space travelled is 3m. Therefore:
1 1 2⋅ s 2⋅3 m
s v0 ⋅ t +
= ⋅ g ⋅t2 = ⋅ g ⋅t2 → t = = = 0.782 s
2 2 g 9.8 m/s2
Now we can use this value to calculate its velocity when it reaches the ground:
v = v0 =
+ g ⋅ t 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ 0.782
= s 7.67 m/s
15 A driver that is travelling in a straight line on a motorway at a speed of 120 km/h notices that there is a cat
in the middle of the road 100 m ahead of him.
a) What acceleration must the car have to avoid hitting it?
b) How long does it take to stop?
c) If the driver didn’t brake, how long would it take to reach the cat?
a) First, express the velocity in SI units:
km 1 h 1000 m 
120 ⋅ ⋅ = 33.3 m/s
h 3600 s 1 km
This is a UARM with negative acceleration, because the vehicle brakes. Write the equation that relates
acceleration with the space travelled:
88
1
s = v0 ⋅ t + ⋅a ⋅t2
2
In this equation we do not know the acceleration or the time taken to stop. Therefore, we need to use the
equation that links initial velocity and final speed with time taken:
v = v0 + a ⋅ t
In this equation we do not know the acceleration or the time. Therefore, we have a system of two
equations with two unknown values. We find, for example, the time in the speed equation. The final speed
is zero, since the vehicle stops. We have:
v − v0 −v
v = v0 + a ⋅ t → t = →t = 0
a a
Now we substitute this value in the first equation:
2
 −v  −v0   −v0  1 v02 −v02 1 v02 1 v02
2
 1
s = v0 ⋅  0 +
 2 ⋅ a ⋅  a  =   + ⋅ a ⋅ = + ⋅ → s =− ⋅
 a     a  2 a2 a 2 a 2 a
In this equation the only variable that we do not know now is acceleration. We are told that the cat is 100
m away:

1 ( 33.3 m/s )
2
1 v02 1 v02 
s=− ⋅ →a =− ⋅ = − ⋅ =−5.5 m/s2
2 a 2 s 2 100 m
Another way to solve this problem is to introduce the relationship that exists in a UARM between
acceleration, space travelled, and initial and final velocity.
Relationship between distance travelled and final velocity in a UARM:
1
x f − x0 = v0 ⋅ t + ⋅ a ⋅t2
2
v f = v0 + a ⋅ t
We find t in the equation below and substitute above:
2
 v −v  1  v −v 
x f − x0 = v0 ⋅  f 0  + ⋅ a ⋅  f 0 
 a  2  a 
The operation:
v0 ⋅ v f − v02 1 v 2 + v02 − 2 ⋅ v f ⋅ v0 v0 ⋅ v f v02 v f2 v02 v f ⋅ v0
xf − x=
0 + ⋅a ⋅ f → x f − x=0 − + + − →
a 2 a2 a 2⋅a 2⋅a 2⋅a a
v f2 v2
→ x f − x0 = − 0 → 2 ⋅ a ⋅ ( xf − x0 ) = v f2 − v02
2⋅a 2⋅a
Finding acceleration and now substituting the data in the exercise:

( 33.3 m/s )
2
v f2 − v02 
= a = = 5.5 m/s
2 ⋅ ( x f − x0 ) 2 ⋅ 100 m
b) Since we now know the value for the acceleration, we use the equation for time we obtained before:

−v0 −33.3 m/s
= t =  = 6s
a −5.5 m/s2
c) If the driver didn’t brake, the movement is rectilinear and uniform, URM. In this case it is easy to calculate
the time needed to travel 100m, because we know the initial velocity of the vehicle:
d d 100 m
v0 = →t= =  = 3s
t v0 33.3 m/s
Logically, we obtain a lower time value than in the previous case.
89
From the first system of equations, the problem could have been solved by finding the acceleration in one
equation and substituting in the other equation. Mathematically, it is somewhat easier. But in this case the
time is calculated first, and then acceleration, in reverse order to what the exercise asks us to do. Tell the
students that the order in which they solve the parts of a problem does not necessarily have to be the
same order as the one given in the exercise.
16 A coin is thrown vertically upwards from the roof of a building at a velocity of 4 m/s. Calculate the maximum
height that the coin can reach and the speed it will be travelling at when it hits the ground.
The maximum height corresponds to the moment when velocity is zero. Apply the equation that relates initial
and final velocity:
v0 4 m/s
v = v0 − g ⋅ t → 0 = v0 − g ⋅ t → v0 = g ⋅ t → t = = = 0.41 s
g 9.8 m/s2
Then we can calculate the maximum height:
 1   1 2
y = y0 +  v0 ⋅ t − g ⋅ t 2  = 30 m + 4 m/s ⋅ 0.41 s − ⋅ 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ ( 0.41 s )  = 30.82 m
 2 2
  
space travelled upwards
When it reaches the maximum height, velocity is zero. Then we can calculate the time it takes to travel that
distance (30.82m) during its subsequent fall. At the end of the fall, on the ground, the position is y = 0.
1 1 2 ⋅ ( y0 − y ) 2 ⋅ ( 30.82 − 0 )
y = y0 − g ⋅ t 2 → g ⋅ t 2 = y0 − y → t = = = 2.51 s
2 2 g 9.8 m/s2
Now we can use this value to calculate the velocity on hitting the ground We must bear in mind that now, from
the highest point, the coin starts from rest and its initial velocity is zero.
v =v0 − g ⋅ t =g ⋅ t =−9.8 m/s2 ⋅ 2.51 s =−24.58 m/s
The negative sign on the velocity indicates that it is downwards.
17 A motorcycle is travelling in a straight line at 108 km/h on a road where the speed limit is 90 km/h. A parked
police car pulls out and chases it with an acceleration of 1.2 m/s2. Calculate the time that it will take the
police car to reach it and the distance it would travel.
We express velocity in SI units:
km 1 h 1000 m
108 ⋅ ⋅ = 30 m/s
h 3600 s 1 km
We write the position equation of the two mobile objects.
For the motorcycle, which has URM:
xMoto
= vMoto ⋅ t
For the police car, which has UARM:
1
xPolice
= aPolice ⋅ t 2
2
When the police car reaches the motorcycle, the positions of the two mobile objects coincide:
1 2 ⋅ vMoto 2 ⋅ 30 m/s
xMoto = xPolice → vMoto
= ⋅t aPolice ⋅ t 2 =
→t = = 50 s
2 aPolice 1.2 m/s2
This is the time it takes to reach it.
The distance it would travel can be calculated by substituting this time value in the position equation for the
motorcycle or the police car. It is easier to use the equation of the motorcycle:
xMoto
= vMoto ⋅=
t 30 m/s ⋅ 50=
s 1500 m
So, the police car reaches the motorcycle after they both travel 1,500m.
18 The drum of a washing machine turns at 1200 revolutions per minute. Calculate the period, frequency
and angular speed in SI units.
The question gives the angular speed. Express it in SI units:
90
rev. 1 min 2π rad
1200 rpm = 1200 ⋅ ⋅ = 125.66 rad/s
min 60 s 1 rev.
The frequency is the number of turns it makes in one second.
rev. 1 min
f = 200 ⋅ = 3.33 s −1
min 60 s
The period is the inverse of the frequency:
1 1
T= = = 0.3 s
f 3.33 s −1
19 Calculate the acceleration of the horses and swings on the merry-go-round in solved problem 10.
We can we relate the acceleration with the angular speed and the radius:
an =ω2 ⋅ r =0.63 rad/s ⋅ 1.5 m =0.945 m/s2
ACTIVITY ROUND-UP
20 The following frame of reference has been designed to study a race that is taking place. Each square
represents 10 m.
a) In your notebook, draw the position vectors of the points A, B, C and D.

b) Draw the displacement vector from A to B. Is it the same length as the path taken from A to B?
Which is longer?
c) In your notebook, find two points where the displacement and the path taken are the same.
a) The origin of the position vectors is point O, and they end at each of the points. Answer:
91
b) The displacement vector starts at A and ends at B:
The magnitude of the displacement vector does not coincide with the path taken to go from A to B. The
path taken is longer.
c) The displacement coincides with the path taken in the straight sections. For example, between points C and
D.
21 In your notebook, list which of the following describe URM and which describe UARM. Give reasons why.
a) Its velocity increases continuously.
b) Its velocity is always positive.
c) Its path is in a straight line.
d) Its velocity is always constant.
a) UARM. When acceleration has the same orientation as the velocity, the magnitude of the velocity will
increase constantly. But if the acceleration has the opposite orientation to the initial velocity, the velocity
will decrease in magnitude and change sign, to then continue increasing in magnitude again.
b) URM. In UARM, there can be a change of sign. For example, a ball that first goes up and then goes down.
c) URM and UARM.
d) URM.
22 In your notebook, match each graph with the correct label and equation:
constant
92
Graph 1:
a ⋅t2
x f = x0 + v0 ⋅ t +
Position-time, UARM. 2
Graph 2:
Position-time, URM. x f = x0 + v0 ⋅ t
Graph 3:
Velocity-time, URM. v = cte.
Graph 4:
Velocity-time, UARM. v f = v0 + a ⋅ t
23 What type of motion do the following objects have?

a) The Moon orbiting the Earth. d) A Ferris wheel starting to move.
b) A car braking until it stops. e) A Ferris wheel when it is moving.
c) An aeroplane travelling at a cruising f) A chestnut falling from a tree.
speed. g) An athlete running a 100 m race.
a) Uniform circular motion (approximately). You can tell the students that the Moon's orbit is somewhat
elliptical. When it is closer to the Earth its velocity is somewhat greater than when it is further away.
b) Uniformly accelerated rectilinear motion, with negative acceleration.
c) Uniform rectilinear motion.
d) Circular motion with acceleration.
e) Uniform circular motion.
f) Uniformly accelerated rectilinear motion.
g) Uniformly accelerated motion (approximately) during the first part and uniform rectilinear motion
(approximately) during the rest.
PRACTICE
24 Ferris wheels are popular in fairgrounds. Imagine that you get on a Ferris wheel with a radius of 8 m:
a) What type of path do you follow?
b) What distance will you have travelled after 10 revolutions?
c) What will your displacement be after you have completed 10 revolutions?
d) What is your displacement when you are at the highest point for the first time? What about after two
revolutions?
a) Circular.
b) Each revolution covers the length of a circumference of an 8m radius. Therefore:
2π ⋅ r
10 revolutions ⋅ = 10 ⋅ 2π ⋅ 8 m= 502.65 m
1 revolution
c) Your displacement is zero, because after 10 revolutions it returns to its starting point.
d) When you are at the highest point, your displacement is equal to the diameter of the Ferris wheel; that is, 2
· 8 m = 16 m.
After two more revolutions, your displacement remains the same, because you go back to being at the
highest point.
93
25 Draw a map of your class. Add your desk and the white board. Your desk is the frame of reference.
a) What is the displacement from your desk to the white board?
b) When you get up to go to the white board, is the displacement the same as the path travelled?
c) Draw a different path. What is the displacement this time? Is it the same as the previous one? Why?
a) Open answer.
b) When you go to the white board, your displacement does not match the path travelled, since you go
around some tables, for example.
c) Open answer. The displacement only coincides with the path travelled when the path is a straight line and
there is no change in orientation.
26 In your notebook, determine whether the following trajectories are rectilinear, circular or curvilinear:
a) A free throw in basketball. d) A flower pot falling from a balcony.
b) The launch of a space rocket. e) The drum of a washing machine.
c) A 100 m butterfly swimming race.
a) Curvilinear. d) Rectilinear.
b) Rectilinear. e) Circular.
c) Rectilinear.
27 Which of the following vehicles will be photographed by the speed camera and fined by the traffic police
when driving along a motorway with a speed limit of 120 km/h?
a) A car travelling at 1500 m/min.
b) A bus moving at 2 km/min.
c) A motorbike whose speed is 40 m/s.
d) A lorry travelling at 70 miles per hour.
(Data: 1 mile = 1609 m).
Express all the speeds in km/h to compare them.
a) In this case:
m 60 min 1 km
1500 ⋅ ⋅ = 90 km/h
min 1h 1000 m
The car will not be fined.
b) In this case:
km 60 min
2 ⋅ = 120 km/h
min 1h
The bus will not be fined. It is at the speed limit.
c) In this case:
m 3600 s 1 km
40 ⋅ ⋅ = 144 km/h
s 1h 1000 m
The motorbike will be fined.
d) In this case:
miles 1609 m 1 km
70 ⋅ ⋅ = 112.63 km/h
h 1 mile 1000 m
The lorry will not be fined.
94
28 On the Jerez racetrack, which is on epigraph 1.2, there is a straight section of track that is 607 m long
between the Sito Pons turn and the Dry Sack turn. A driver enters the Sito Pons turn at a speed of 170 km/h.
It takes him 11.6 seconds to drive through the straight, and he takes the Dry Sack turn at 175 km/h.
a) Calculate the average speed along the straight (in m/s and km/h).
b) Copy the racetrack in your notebook. Draw the velocity vectors for the straight and for each turn.
c) Explain what the velocity vectors that you have drawn mean.
a) The average speed is calculated by dividing the space travelled by the time taken.
∆s 607 m
v=
m = = 52.33 m/s
A
∆t 11.6 s
m 3600 s 1 km
=vAm 52.33 ⋅ ⋅ = 188.38 km/h
s 1h 1000 m
b) The diagram would look like this:
O X
c) The vector of the Sito Pons turn shows the direction and the orientation of the instantaneous velocity in
that turn. The same goes for the Dry Sack curve. The vector on the straight section shows the average
velocity.
29 The Jamaican athlete Usain Bolt currently holds the male 100‐metre world record of 9.58 s.
a) Calculate his average speed in m/s and km/h. Will he have gone faster than this at any point?
b) Would he maintain this same average speed in a 10 000 m race?
a) Average speed is calculated by dividing the total distance by the time taken.
∆s 100 m m 1 km 3600 s
v=
m
A
= = 10.44 m/s → 10.44 ⋅ ⋅ = 35.58 km/h
∆t 9.58 s s 1000 m 1h
Taking into account that he starts from rest, at some point in the race, about halfway, he reaches a higher
velocity. He maintains this until the end.
b) He would not be able to keep up this speed, since a 100-metre race requires an intense effort that cannot
be maintained for much time.
95
30 Study the position‐time graph for the following motions,
and complete the sentences:
a) The motion with the greatest speed is...
b) The motion with the lowest speed is...
c) The motions with the same speeds are...
d) The motion that starts at the origin is...
a) A.
b) C.
c) B and D.
d) D.
31 A skater is moving in a URM at 16 m/s on an ice rink. Let's analyse the motion when she passes the starting
position.
a) Write the equation of motion.
b) Draw the line graphs x-t and v-t.
a) With the data from the exercise, we know that x0 = 0. Therefore, if we use SI units:
x ( t ) = x0 + v ⋅ t → x ( t ) = 0 + 16 ⋅ t
b) To draw the graph, we give values to t and, by substituting in the equation, we obtain the values for x.
The position-time graph is a straight line whose slope is the speed of the skater.
Posiction (m)
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Time (s)
The velocity-time graph is a straight horizontal line, since the velocity of the skater does not vary.
Velocity
(m/s)
20
10
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Time (s)
96
32 An athlete is training on an athletics track. She is running from the middle to the starting point (which we will
use as the frame of reference). We start the stopwatch when she passes the 85 m mark. Assuming that she's
running at 9 m/s and doesn't change direction:
a) Draw a table showing her position for the next 10 seconds.
b) Draw a position‐time line graph. Use it to calculate her velocity and interpret the sign.
c) Draw the athletics track and indicate her position at each second.
a) The athlete has URM, and the equation of the position is:
x ( t ) = x0 + v ⋅ t
In this case, x0 = 85 m and v = −9 m/s.

Giving values to the variable t we get the following table:
Time Position (m)
0 85
1 76
2 67
3 58
4 49
5 40
6 31
7 22
8 13
9 4
10 −5
b) The position-time graph:
Position (m)
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
-10 0 2 4 6 8 10 12
Time (s)
The speed can be calculated from the initial and final position, for example:
∆x −5 − 85
vmA = = = −9 m/s
∆t 10 − 0
The negative sign of the speed indicates that the mobile object moves towards the origin from a position
greater than zero.
97
c) The diagram of the athletics track:
−10 0 10 30 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
33 CIVIC EDUCATION. A car moving at 60 km/h collides head‐on with another car that is travelling at 72 km/h.
Would the consequences of the accident be the same if both cars had been travelling in the same direction
and the second car had hit the first from behind? Why?
If both cars were travelling in the same direction, the consequences of the accident would not be so serious,
since the most relevant factor in these collisions is the relative velocity between the two cars. When they are
both moving in the same direction and orientation, the relative speed is equal to the difference between the
two speeds. When both cars are moving in opposite orientations, the relative speed is the sum of both.
34 The following graph shows the motion of a mobile object.

a) Study the type of motion in each section.
b) Draw a v‐t graph.
c) Calculate the mobile object's average velocity
and speed.
a) In section A it is URM, with negative speed, because the
mobile object starts from a position that is greater than
zero and moves towards the origin, passing it at t = 5 s.
In section B it is URM, but the mobile object reverses the
orientation of movement and is now heading towards the origin from positions that are less than zero.
In section C the mobile object has stopped, because its position does not change.
b) Calculate the velocity in section A from its initial and final position. Work with SI units:
∆x −20 − 10
vA = = = −2 m/s
∆t 15 − 0
Calculate the velocity in section B again from its initial and final position. Work with SI units:
∆x 5 − ( −20 )
vB
= = = 2.5 m/s
∆t 25 − 15
Therefore, the velocity-time graph will look like this:
Velocity
(m/s)
4
3
2
1
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
-1
-2
-3
-4
Time (s)
98
c) The average velocity is calculated from the initial and final position of the mobile object in its movement.
∆x 5 − 10
vm = = = −0.1 m/s
∆t 50 − 0
The average speed is calculated from the total space travelled.
In section A, the space travelled is:
∆s
vA = → ∆s= v A ⋅ ∆t= 2 m/s ⋅ 15 s= 30 m
∆t
In section B, the space travelled is:
∆sB
v=
B → ∆s=
B vB ⋅ ∆=
t 2.5 m/s ⋅ 10=
s 25 m
∆t
In section C, the mobile object has stopped: Therefore, the speed will be:
sT 30 m + 25 m
v
= = = 1.1 m/s
∆t 50 s
35 Clara's house is on the same road as Luis'. They are 5 km apart. On Saturday, they are going to swap some
games. They arrange to meet along the road, and get on their bicycles at 12 o'clock. As Luis pedals slower (6
m/s) than Clara (10 m/s), he leaves 5 minutes before. Where and when do the two friends meet?
Let’s take the origin to be Luis’ house, and start to count the time when Luis leaves his house.
Use SI units and write the motion equations for both Luis and Clara. For Luis, who is moving away from his
house:
xLuis = x0 Luis + vLuis ⋅ t → xLuis = 0 + 6 ⋅ t
For Clara, who is moving towards Luis’ house, and leaves 5 minutes before Luis:
xClara = 5000 − 10 ⋅ ( t − 300 )
= x0 Clara + vClara ⋅ tClara → xClara
They meet when their positions coincide. So:

xLuis ⋅ t 5000 − 10 ⋅ ( t − 300 )
= xClara → 6 =
In this equation we can now find the time; remember that it is the time taken by Luis.
⋅ t 5000 − 10 ⋅ ( t − 300 ) → 6=
6= ⋅ t 5000 − 10 ⋅ t + 3000 → 16=
⋅ t 8000 →
8000 
→= t = 500= s 8.3 min
16
Clara takes 5 minutes less to arrive at the meeting point. Calculate the position where they meet.
Substituting in the motion equation for Luis:
xLuis = 6 ⋅ t = 6 ⋅ 500 = 3000 m
So, they meet at 3,000 m (3k m) from Luis' house.
36 Calculate the acceleration of each mobile object, assuming that they were stationary when they started,
and reached the velocities indicated after 10 seconds.
a) Formula 1 car: 250 km/h. c) Common garden snail: 10 m/h.
b) Elite athlete: 10 m/s.
a) We express the speed in m/s:

km 1000 m 1 h 
250 ⋅ ⋅ = 69.4 m/s
h 1 km 3600 s
The equation that relates the final speed with time is:

v 69.4 m/s 
v = v0 + a ⋅ t = 0 + a ⋅ t → a = = = 6.94 m/s2
t 10 s
b) The equation that relates the final speed with time is:
v 10 m/s
a= = = 1 m/s2
t 10 s
99
c) We express the speed in m/s:
m 1 h 
10 ⋅ = 0.0027 m/s
h 3600 s
The equation that relates the final speed with time is:

v 0.0027 m/s 
a= = = 0.000 27 m/s2
t 10 s
37 Calculate the centripetal acceleration of:

a) A Ferris wheel with a diameter of 22 m that rotates at 20 km/h.
b) A merry‐go‐round with a 5 m radius that rotates at 15 km/h.
c) A roller coaster cart that goes around a loop‐the‐loop with a diameter of 10 m at 80 km/h.
The expression that allows us to calculate centripetal acceleration is:
v2
an =
r
a) We express the speed in m/s:
km 1000 m 1 h 
20 ⋅ ⋅ = 5.5 m/s
h 1 km 3600 s
Now substitute in the acceleration expression:

( 5.5 m/s )=
2
v2
a=
n = 1.40 m/s2
r 22 m
b) We express the speed in m/s:
km 1000 m 1 h 
15 ⋅ ⋅ = 4.16 m/s
h 1 km 3600 s
Now substitute in the previous expression:

( 4.16 m/s )=
2
v2
a=
n = 3.47 m/s2
r 5m
c) We express the speed in m/s:
km 1000 m 1 h 
80 ⋅ ⋅ = 22.2 m/s
h 1 km 3600 s
Now substitute in the acceleration expression:

(22.2 m/s )=
2
v2
a=
n = 49.38 m/s2
r 10 m
38 CIVIC EDUCATION. A vehicle going at 80 km/h has a maximum braking negative acceleration of 6.5 m/s2.
a) How long does it take to stop? What distance does the vehicle travel between applying the brakes
and stopping?
b) Taking into account that an adult's average response time is 3/4 of a second, what should the safe
distance for that vehicle be?
a) We express speed in SI units:
km 1000 m 1 h 
80 ⋅ ⋅ = 22.2 m/s
h 1 km 3600 s
It is UARM. Then:
v = v0 + a ⋅ t
100
Find the time and substitute the known data:

v0 22.2 m/s
0 =v0 + a ⋅ t → t =− =− =3.42 s
a −6.5 m/s2
The distance travelled can be calculated from the UARM position equation.
1
sBraking = v0 ⋅ t + ⋅ a ⋅t2
2
In this equation we know all the data except the space travelled, s. Express all the magnitudes in SI units
and substitute the data in the equation:
 1
sBraking= 22.2 ⋅ 3.42 − ⋅ 6.5 ⋅ 3.422= 37.99 m
2
This is the space travelled during braking.
b) Calculate the distance travelled during the reaction time. In this time interval the vehicle has not begun to
brake, so it has URM. So, the distance travelled is:
3 
sReaction =v0 ⋅ tReaction =22.2 m/s ⋅ s =16.6 m
4
The safe distance must be at least equal to the sum of the distance travelled during the reaction time plus
the distance travelled during braking:

s = sReaction + sBraking = 16.6 m + 37.99 m = 54.66 m
39 The figures in the table show a car’s velocity on a straight track:
a) Draw the v-t line graph and identify the motion.

b) Write the equations of motion if the car is 10 m from the starting point when it starts.
c) Calculate the car’s position after 2 seconds.
d) Calculate the displacement and the average velocity between 2 and 5 seconds. Is it the same as the
arithmetic mean of the velocities at those points?
a) The graph should look like this:
Velocity
(m/s)
25
20
15
10
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Time (s)
Velocity is increasing proportionately with time. Therefore, it is UARM.
101
b) The velocity increases by 2m/s per second. This is the value of the acceleration. The position equation with
respect to time (SI units) is:
a ⋅t2 2 ⋅t2
x ( t ) = x0 + v0 ⋅ t + = 10 + 10 ⋅ t + → x ( t ) = 10 + 10 ⋅ t + t 2
2 2
The velocity equation based on time is:
v ( t ) = v0 + a ⋅ t → v ( t ) = 10 + 2 ⋅ t
c) Substitute the value of time in the position equation:

x ( t ) = 10 + 10 ⋅ t + t 2 → x ( 2 s ) = 10 + 10 ⋅ 2 + 22 = 34 m
d) Calculate the displacement by subtracting the initial position from the final position.
The position at 2 s is:
x ( 2 s ) = 10 + 10 ⋅ 2 + 22 = 34 m

x ( 5 s ) = 10 + 10 ⋅ 5 + 52 = 85 m
Therefore, the displacement is:

∆
=r x ( 5 s ) − x (2=
s ) 85 m − 34 =
m 51 m
The average velocity is equal to the displacement divided by the time taken:
∆r 51 m
v=
m = = 17 m/s
∆t 5 s − 2 s
At point t = 2 s the velocity is 14 m/s, and at point t = 5 s the velocity is 20 m/s. Therefore, the arithmetic
mean of the velocities between these two points is:
v2 s + v5 s 14 m/s + 20 m/s
=v = = 17 m/s
2 2
As we can see, the average velocity is the same as the arithmetic mean in this case. This is because the
velocity increases constantly during this displacement.
40 The graph represents the rectilinear motion of a mobile object. It is

initially 100 m from the origin. Work out the equations of motion for
each section and calculate the total distance travelled.
In the first section the position does not change. Therefore, the mobile
object does not move. In SI units, the equations of motion are:
x ( t ) = 100
v (t ) = 0
In the second section the mobile object moves to the origin. Since the
position-time graph is a straight line, it is a uniform rectilinear motion. The velocity, in SI units, can be calculated
from the position at two moments.
x2 − x1 0 − 100 
v= = = −16.6 m/s
∆t 6−0
It is a negative velocity, because the mobile object moves towards the origin.
So the position equation based on time is:

x ( t ) = x0 + v ⋅ t = 100 − 16.6 ⋅ t
And the velocity equation is:


v ( t ) = v0 + a ⋅ t = v0 = 16.6 m/s
The total distance travelled in the first section is zero.

In the second section, which lasts two seconds, we calculate the space travelled from the value of the velocity:
 
s2 = v ⋅ ∆t = 16.6 m/s ⋅ 2 s= 33.3 m
102
This means that the total distance travelled is:

s = 33.3 m
41 A stationary tram accelerates along a straight line for 4 s at 3 m/s2. It then maintains a constant velocity for
10 s and finally brakes, coming to a stop 5 s later. Draw v-t and a-t line graphs and calculate the total
distance travelled.
The figure for acceleration tells that the velocity increases 3 m/s each second. Therefore,
at moment t = 4 s the velocity will be 4 · 3 = 12 m/s.
To draw the graph we need to know the value of the velocity in the last section. Since we know the initial and
final velocity in this section:
v − v0 0 − 12
v = v0 + a ⋅ ∆t → = a→a = = −2.4 m/s2
∆t 5
This means that the velocity decreases by 2.4 m/s each second. So, in section a = −2.4 m/s2.
When the tram stops, the time elapsed is:
t = 4 s + 10 s + 5 s = 19 s
The velocity-time graph:
Velocity
(m/s)
15
10
0
0 5 10 15 20
Time (s)
And the acceleration-time graph is:

Acceleration
(m2/s)
5
0
0 5 10 15 20
-5
Time (s)
We calculate the total distance travelled by adding up the distances travelled in each section. The first section is
UARM.
1 1 1
s1 = v0 ⋅ t + a ⋅ t 2 = a ⋅ t 2 = ⋅ 3 ⋅ 42 = 24 m
2 2 2
103
The second section is URM.
s2 = v ⋅ t = 12 ⋅ 10 = 120 m
The third section is UARM, with negative acceleration.
1 1
s3 = v0 ⋅ t + a ⋅ t 2 = 12 ⋅ 5 + ⋅ ( −2.4 ) ⋅ 52 = 30 m
2 2
Then:
sTotal = s1 + s2 + s3 = 24 + 120 + 30 m = 174 m
42 A remote‐controlled car passes the starting line of a straight track at a speed of 90 km/h. At that moment it
brakes and its speed decreases at a rate of 5 m/s every second. Calculate its speed and its position 3 s and 6 s
after applying the brakes. Analyse the result.
Express the initial speed in m/s:
km 1 h 1000 m
90 ⋅ ⋅ = 25 m/s
h 3600 s 1 km
It is a movement with constant negative acceleration. 3 s after applying the brakes:
v = v0 + a ⋅ t → v ( 3 s ) = 25 − 5 ⋅ 3 = 10 m/s
And 6 s after applying the brakes:

v =v0 + a ⋅ t → v ( 6 s ) =25 − 5 ⋅ 6 =−5 m/s
The speed is negative; this means that it has the opposite orientation to the initial direction of the movement.
Therefore, the mobile object has stopped and reversed the orientation of the movement.
1
x = x0 + v0 ⋅ t + a ⋅ t 2 = 0 + 25 ⋅ 3 − 5 ⋅ 32 = 30 m
2
1
x =x0 + v0 ⋅ t + a ⋅ t 2 =0 + 25 ⋅ 6 − 5 ⋅ 62 =−30 m
2
The negative sign indicates that the mobile object has reversed its movement and, after passing the origin
again, it is 30m away from it.
43 An athlete is training in a park, running at 4 m/s. Another athlete, running 20 m ahead, in the same direction
and orientation, but at 6 m/s, loses their heart rate monitor.
a) What acceleration would the athlete need to catch up with the runner and give them the heart rate
monitor within 10 s?
b) How far will it be from where it was dropped when it is returned to its owner?
a) For both athletes to meet, they must be in the same position. Write the position equation for the athlete in
front (A):
𝑥𝑥A = 𝑥𝑥0 A + 𝑣𝑣0 A · 𝑡𝑡
And for the one running behind (B):
1
𝑥𝑥B = 𝑥𝑥0B + 𝑣𝑣0B · 𝑡𝑡 + 𝑎𝑎 · 𝑡𝑡 2
2
If their positions coincide when 10s have elapsed:
1
𝑥𝑥A = 𝑥𝑥B → 𝑥𝑥0A + 𝑣𝑣A · 𝑡𝑡 = 𝑥𝑥0B + 𝑣𝑣0B · 𝑡𝑡 + 𝑎𝑎 · 𝑡𝑡 2
2
In this equation the only value we do not know is the acceleration:
1 2 · (𝑥𝑥0A + 𝑣𝑣A · 𝑡𝑡 − 𝑥𝑥0B − 𝑣𝑣0B · 𝑡𝑡)
𝑥𝑥0A + 𝑣𝑣A · 𝑡𝑡 − 𝑥𝑥0B − 𝑣𝑣0B · 𝑡𝑡 = 𝑎𝑎 · 𝑡𝑡 2 → = 𝑎𝑎 →
2 𝑡𝑡 2
2 · (20 + 6 · 10 − 0 − 4 · 10)
→ 𝑎𝑎 = = 0.8 m/s 2
102
104
b) The distance travelled can be calculated from the distance covered by either of the athletes. Since the
athlete in front has URM, it is easier to perform the calculation with their equation:
𝑠𝑠
𝑣𝑣A = → 𝑠𝑠 = 𝑣𝑣A · 𝑡𝑡 = 6 · 10 = 60 m
𝑡𝑡
44 A fountain shoots a jet of water vertically upwards at a speed of 5 m/s.

a) What height does the water reach?
b) How long does it take the water to return to the nozzle it came out of?
c) What is its speed at this point?
a) The height is the space travelled until the velocity is zero.
1
h = v0 ⋅ t − g ⋅t2
2
In this equation we do not know the time. But we can deduce it with the equation that links speed with
gravitational acceleration. At the point where the maximum height is reached, the speed is zero.
Therefore:
v0 5 m/s
v = v0 − g ⋅ t → 0 = v0 − g ⋅ t → t = = = 0.51 s
g 9.8 m/s2
Now substitute this value in the equation of the height:
1 1
g ⋅ t 2 = 5 m/s ⋅ 0.51 s − ⋅ 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ ( 0.51 s ) = 1.28 m
2
h = v0 ⋅ t −
2 2
b) The time it takes to fall is the same as it takes to go up. Therefore, the answer is double the time to go up,
calculated in the previous section. Therefore:
t Total =2 ⋅ tUp =2 ⋅ 0.51 s =1.02 s
c) The motion is symmetrical. This means that if the water shot upwards at a speed of 5 m/s, when it returns
to the ground it will have that same speed: 5 m/s.
We can check this by performing the calculations again. In the fall, the initial velocity is zero, and the time it
takes to fall is 0.51 s. Therefore:
v =v0 − g ⋅ t =0 − 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ 0.51 s =−5 m/s
45 One ride on a merry‐go‐round at a fair lasts 2 minutes. If its angular speed is 0.5 rad/s, calculate:
a) The number of turns the merry‐go‐round completes in one ride.
b) The total distance travelled by a child sat on a horse, at a distance of 3 m from the axis of rotation.
a) In the case of a circular motion:
ϕ 60 s
ω= → ϕ = ω⋅ t = 0.5 rad/s ⋅ 2 min ⋅ = 60 rad
t 1 min
This is the angle rotated. Since each turn is 2π radians:
1 turn
60 rad ⋅ = 9.55 turns
2π rad
b) We can relate the distance travelled and the angle rotated.

s = ϕ ⋅ r = 60 rad ⋅ 3 m = 180 m
46 The hard disk of a computer turns at 4200 revolutions per minute (rpm). Calculate:
a) Its angular speed in SI units.
b) Its period and frequency.
c) If the hard disk's diameter is 3.5 inches (8.89 cm), at what speed is a point on the edge of the disk
moving?
105
a) Use the conversion factor that relates revolutions and radians, as well as the factor that relates minutes
and seconds:
rev. 2π rad 1 min
ω = 4200 ⋅ ⋅ = 439.8 rad/s
min 1 rev. 60 s
b) The frequency is the number of turns it makes in one second. Since it makes 4,200 turns in a minute, in a
second it will make:
turns 1 min
f = 4200 ⋅ = 70 s −1
1 min 60 s
The period is the inverse of the frequency:
1 1
T= = = 0.014 s
f 70 s −1
c) The linear speed is related to the angular speed and the radius:
1m
v = ω⋅ r = 439.8 rad/s ⋅ 8.89 cm ⋅ = 39.10 m/s
100 cm
47 What was the total distance covered?

The total distance is obtained by multiplying the length of the track by the number of laps.
sTotal =L ⋅ NLaps =4655 m ⋅ 66 =307 230 m =230.23 km
48 What was the average speed of the winner?

This is calculated by dividing the total distance by the time taken. Express the time in seconds:
1 h 39 min 9.145 s → 3600 s + 39 ⋅ 60 s + 9.145 s =
5 949 145 s
Then:
s 307 230 m
vM= = = 51.64 m/s
t 5 949 145 s
49 On his 26th lap, it took Maldonado 1 min 27.906 s to complete the circuit. What was his average speed?
Divide the length of one lap by the time taken:
s 4655 m
vM= = = 52.95 m/s
t 1 ⋅ 60 s + 27.906 s
50 In the practice lap, he completed one circuit in 1 min and 22.105 s. What was his average speed?
In this case:
s 4655 m
vM= = = 56.70 m/s
t 1 ⋅ 60 s + 22.105 s
51 Why do you think that he was quicker in that lap than in the race? Write your answer in your notebook.
a) Because he was concentrating more.
b) Because he was a lot less tired.
c) Because the car had less petrol.
d) Because the tyres were newer.
e) Because he used lower gears.
106
Answers c and d: because the car contained less petrol, and also because the tyres were newer. However, the
tiredness of the driver also has an influence, and drivers make more mistakes when driving a lot of laps than
when driving just one.
52 At what point in the circuit did he reach his maximum speed?

At the end of the home straight, at point 1.
53 In a table, note down the orientation and direction of velocity and acceleration for the points marked 1, 9, 11
and 13 on the circuit.
The velocity is always tangential to the curve, and in the orientation of the lap. The acceleration has the
opposite orientation to the velocity when the car is entering the curves and has the same orientation as the
velocity when the car comes out of the curves.
54 If the home straight measures 1047 m, calculate the average acceleration from point 13 to 1. How long did
it take the driver to complete the home straight?
We express the speed at point 13 in m/s:
km 1 h 1000 m 
170 ⋅ ⋅ = 47.2 m/s
h 3600 s 1 km
The same goes for the speed at point 1:
km 1 h 1000 m 
316 ⋅ ⋅ = 87.7 m/s
h 3600 s 1 km
107
From the distance we can write: 1915.123422
v − v0
v = v0 + a ⋅ t → t =
a
v − v0 1 ( v − v0 )
2 2
1 v − v0 1  v − v0 
s =v0 ⋅ t +
a ⋅ t 2 → s =v0 ⋅ + a ⋅  =v0 ⋅ + →
2 a 2  a  a 2 a
2 ⋅ v0 ⋅ v − 2 ⋅ v02 v 2 − 2v ⋅ v0 + v02 2 ⋅ v0 ⋅ v − 2 ⋅ v0 + v −2v ⋅ v0 + v0 v 2 − v02
2 2 2
=→s + = = →
2⋅a 2⋅a 2⋅a 2⋅a
 2  2
v 2 − v02 ( 87.7 ) − ( 47.2 )
→
= a = = 1.95 m/s2
2⋅ s 2 ⋅ 1407
So the time taken is:
 
v − v0 87.7 m/s − 47.2 m/s
=t = = 20.8 s
a 1.95 m/s2
55 Think about what G force means, and link it to a quantity that we have studied in this unit.
a) At what points is the G force highest?
b) What variables determine the value of the G force?
G force is the acceleration that the driver experiences.
a) It is highest at the curves, and when applying the brakes with force.
b) At a curve, the sharper and faster, the greater the G force. On a straight section, the higher the tangential
acceleration, the greater the G force.
56 USE ICT. Use a spreadsheet to make a graph showing how speed changed throughout a complete lap
of the circuit.
First we complete a table with the values of the velocity at the different points in the circuit.
Point in the circuit Velocity (km/h)
1 316
2 187
3 215
4 229
5 131
6 131
7 215
8 221
9 186
10 118
11 186
12 100
13 170
108
The graph will look similar to this:
Velocity
(km/h)
350
300
250
200
150
100
50
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Point
INVESTIGATE
57 Taking the results obtained into account, complete the table with the instantaneous speeds
Answer based on the results obtained by the students in the project.
58 Analyse the data from your measurements and state whether the average speed and the instantaneous
speed are the same in each case, and whether each one is higher or lower than the others in its series. Give
reasons for your results.
Answer based on the results obtained by the students in the project.
In view of the results, and after having studied the concepts explained in this unit, the students should conclude
that the measurement of average velocity that comes closest to the value of the instantaneous velocity should
be measurement 4.
This measurement is taken when the sensors are closest together. Therefore, it is the closest to the
instantaneous velocity at a point in the distance travelled, as explained in the graphs of the unit.
59 Explain why it is important that in all three cases the ball starts its motion from the point you marked at the
top of the plane.
Because then the measurement of the distance travelled is correct.
109
Forces
Forces 8
WORK WITH THE IMAGE
• What are the differences between dry and wet‐weather tyres?
Dry-weather tyres are smoother than wet-weather tyres.
• How do these differences affect the frictional force between the tyres and the road?
The smoother a tyre is, the lower the frictional force.
• What forces make cars go forward? Which forces slow them down?
The force from the engine makes cars go forward. Also, when a car goes down a slope, there is a component of
weight that makes the car go down. The forces that slow cars down are the frictional force with the ground, and
the friction with the air. When going up a slope, a component of weight also slows a car down.
And if the brakes are applied, there is another force that works to stop the car.
STARTING POINTS
• What equipment can we use to measure force?
A dynamometer. Spring scales and electronic scales also measure a force: the weight of bodies. However,
balances, and counterweight scales, do not measure forces, they measure masses.
• What effects can forces have on objects?
Forces can deform bodies or modify their state of motion. For example, stopping a body that was in motion, or
putting in motion a body that was at rest.
• Is force a scalar or vector quantity? What information do we need to describe a force?
It is a vector quantity. To describe a force we need to know its magnitude or intensity, which is the value it has, its
direction and its orientation.
• What's your opinion? Do you think we could use a KERS to conserve fuel in ordinary cars?
Yes, because it recovers the energy lost during braking and reuses it to accelerate.
ACTIVITIES
1 Draw the resultant force in your notebook and calculate its value.
a) In this case, the resultant force is calculated by adding the magnitudes of the two forces, since they both
have the same direction and orientation. Therefore:
111
The magnitude of the resultant force, R, is:
R = F1 + F2 = 100 N + 200 N = 300 N
b) Now the forces have the same direction and opposite orientations. The resultant force will have the same
direction, the orientation of the greater force and the magnitude will be the same as the remainder of both
magnitudes.
The magnitude of the resultant force, R, is:

  
R = F1 + F2 → R = F2 − F1 = 30 N + 15 N = 15 N
2 Calculate the resultant force and draw it in your notebook. Then draw the force that you would need to apply
for the object to be in equilibrium.
In this case, the forces are perpendicular. The resultant force is calculated by adding up both vectors according
to the parallelogram rule.
R
To calculate the magnitude we use Pythagoras' theorem:
( 30 N) + ( 40 N)
2 2
R 2 = F12 + F22 → R = F12 + F22 = = 50 N
For the object to be in equilibrium, the net force must be zero. To achieve this, we must apply a force with the
same direction and magnitude as the resultant force, and with an opposite orientation.
R
3 Calculate the horizontal and vertical components of the following vector with a magnitude of 16 cm. Interpret
the signs. Data: α = 135°.
112
We will call the vector shown A. The angle formed by the vector with the vertical axis is α − 90⁰. So the vertical
component will be:
2
16 cm ⋅ cos ( α − 90o ) = 16 cm ⋅ cos (135o − 90o ) = 16 cm ⋅ cos 45o = 16 cm ⋅ = 11.31 cm → Ay = 11.31 cm
2
The angle formed by the vector with the horizontal axis is 180⁰ − α. So the value of the horizontal component
will be:
2
16 cm ⋅ cos (180o − α ) =
16 cm ⋅ cos (180o − 135o ) =
16 cm ⋅ cos ( 45o ) =
16 cm ⋅ =
11.31 cm
2
The horizontal component is negative. Therefore:
Ax = −11.31 cm
Both components are equal in magnitude, since the angle formed by the vector with each of the axes is 45⁰. But
the horizontal component is negative, as it is directed towards the left of the origin.
4 Study the following situations.

a) Suggest what changes in motion
the following objects experience:
A. A tennis ball that slows down
as it rises.
B. A shopping trolley when it is
removed from its bay.
C. A hockey puck when it hits
a wall.
D. The Moon as it revolves
around the Earth.
b) In your notebook, draw the
orientation and direction of the
force that causes each change in
motion.
a) A: The velocity of the ball is decreasing.
B: The trolley goes from being at rest to being in motion; therefore, it accelerates.
C: The puck changes its direction of motion.
D: The direction of motion is changing continuously.
b) In each case there is a force that causes the change:
113
5 An object that weighs 10 kg is placed on a horizontal surface. It is pulled upwards using a rope with a force of
20 N. Between the object and the surface there is a coefficient of friction of 0.2. Calculate the frictional force
that would act on the object.
The magnitude of the frictional force depends on the coefficient of friction and the normal force.
Ffriction = µ ⋅ N
In this case the normal force does not coincide with the weight
of the object, even if this object is placed on a horizontal surface,
but with the resultant force. If the object does not move on the
vertical axis, it is because the force exerted plus the normal force
is equal to the weight. Then:
F + N = W → N = W − F = m ⋅ g − F = 10 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg − 20 N = 78 N
We can now calculate the frictional force:
Ffriction =0.2 ⋅ 78 N =15.6 N
6 An object that weighs 10 N is placed on a plane inclined at 30° to the horizontal. Calculate the frictional force.
Data: µ = 0.2.
We use a diagram to show the forces acting on the object.
The component of weight parallel to the inclined plane is
responsible for the motion. The frictional force will have the
same direction as this component of weight, and the
opposite orientation.
The expression of the frictional force is:
30° 30°
Ffriction = µ ⋅ N = µ ⋅ Wy = µ ⋅ W ⋅ cos α = 0.2 ⋅ 10 N ⋅ cos 30o = 1.73 N
7 Explain what is happening to the glass of water in terms of the law

of inertia. Is the car starting to move or slowing down?
The law of inertia states that the bodies tend to maintain their state
of motion. In this case, if the water accumulates in the back of the
glass, it is because there is a net force that pulls the car forward. So
the car is starting to move.
Look at the person pushing the car and the car's reaction force. Both forces are equal in magnitude
and in the opposite direction.
• Therefore, do both forces cancel each other out?
The forces do not cancel each other out because they are applied on different bodies. One force acts on the car
and another on the person pushing it.
• What should F be for the car to start moving?
The force applied to the car must be greater than the frictional force between the car and the road.
114
8 An object of 2 kg is on an inclined plane at 45° to the horizontal.
a) Study the pairs of action‐reaction forces that originate at the object. Indicate which agent exerts the
reaction force in each case.
b) Calculate the value of each interaction.
c) Draw the object and the forces acting on it. Will it be in equilibrium?
a) The Earth exerts a force on the body which we call
weight. In turn, the body exerts on Earth a equal force
with the opposite orientation, although since the mass
of the Earth is very large, the effects are not noticed.
On the other hand, the plane exerts a force on the
body, the normal force, which is opposite to the
component of weight, which has a perpendicular 45°
direction to the plane. In addition, the body exerts a
45°
force on the inclined plane, of the same magnitude and
direction as the normal force, but with the opposite
orientation.
b) The weight force with which the Earth attracts the
body is:
W = m ⋅ g = 2 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2 = 19.6 N
This is also the value of the force with which the body attracts the Earth.
As we know the weight of the body and the angle, we can calculate the value of the two components.
2
W
=x W ⋅ sin=
α m ⋅ g ⋅ sin=
α 2 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ sin 45
=o
2 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ = 13.86 N
2
2
W=y W ⋅ cos=α m ⋅ g ⋅ cos=
α 2 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ cos 45
=o
2 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ = 13.86 N
2
The normal force has the same value as the component Wy.
N = 13.86 N
c) The body is not in equilibrium, because the component of weight parallel to the plane pulls the body
downwards, causing the body to fall. If there was frictional force and this was equal to the component Px,
then the body would be in equilibrium.
9 A 500 g box of biscuits on a table is pulled by a string that exerts a force of 5 N. The coefficient of friction
between the box and the table is 0.2. Calculate the acceleration of the box if the string:
a) Is parallel to the surface of the table.
b) Forms an angle of 45° with the table.
c) Forms an angle of 90° with the table.
a) If the string is parallel to the surface of the table, both the
force exerted and the frictional force are horizontal. Applying
the fundamental law of motion:
F − Ffriction = m ⋅ a → F − µ ⋅ W = m ⋅ a → F − µ ⋅ m ⋅ g = m ⋅ a →
F − µ ⋅ m ⋅ g 5 N − 0.2 ⋅ 0.5 kg ⋅ 9.8
= →a = = 8.04 m/s2
m 0.5 kg
115
b) If the force is at an angle of 45⁰, the component of this force
that pulls on the box is its horizontal component.
In addition, the vertical component of the force causes the
normal force to be less than in the previous case. Therefore,
the frictional force is also smaller now. 45°
Calculate the acceleration:
Fx − Ffriction = m ⋅ a → Fx − µ ⋅ Wy = m ⋅ a → Fx − µ ⋅ m ⋅ g ⋅ sin α = m ⋅ a →
Fx − µ ⋅ m ⋅ g ⋅ sin α F ⋅ cos α − µ ⋅ m ⋅ g ⋅ sin α
= =→a =
m m
5 N ⋅ cos 45o − 0.2 ⋅ 0.5 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ sin 45o
= = 6.53 m/s2
0.5 kg
c) If the force is at an angle of 90⁰, we have to compare this force
with the weight, to see if the box remains on the table or
moves up. The weight of the box is:
W = m ⋅ g = 0.5 kg ⋅ 9.8 = 4.9 N
Since the force is somewhat more than the weight, the box will
start to move upwards.
F − W 5 N − 4.9 N
F −W = m ⋅a → a = = = 0.2 m/s2
m 0.5 kg
10 An object of 10 kg is on the lower part of a plane inclined at 30° to the horizontal. A force F of 100 N is applied
parallel to the plane in an upwards direction. Calculate:
a) The acceleration with which it moves upwards.
b) The value of F for it to move upwards with a constant velocity.
c) Repeat the previous calculations with a coefficient of
friction of 0.2 between the object and the plane.
a) The force pulls the body up and a component of weight
pulls the body down.
F − Wx F − m ⋅ g ⋅ sin 30o
F − Wx = m ⋅ a → a =
= =
m m
100 N − 10 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ 0.5
= = 5.1 m/s2
10 kg 30°
b) For the object to move upwards with a constant velocity,
the net force must be zero. So, the force exerted must be
equal to the component of weight parallel to the plane.
F = Wx = m ⋅ g ⋅ sin 30o = 10 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ 0.5 = 49 N
116
c) If there is friction, there will be a force that opposes the force exerted.
F − Wx − Ffriction = m ⋅ a →
F − Wx − Ffriction F − m ⋅ g ⋅ sin 30o − µ ⋅ N
=→a = =
m m
F − m ⋅ g ⋅ sin 30o − µ ⋅ m ⋅ g ⋅ cos 30o
=
m
100 N − 10 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s ⋅ 0.5 − 0.2 ⋅ 10 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ cos 30o
2
=
10 kg
= 3.71 m/s2 30°
The value of the acceleration is lower than when there is
no friction.
For the object to move upwards with a constant velocity,
the net force must be zero. So:
F = Wx − Ffriction = m ⋅ g ⋅ sin 30o − µ ⋅ N = m ⋅ g ⋅ sin 30o − µ ⋅ m ⋅ g ⋅ cos 30o =

10 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ 0.5 − 0.2 ⋅ 10 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ cos 30o =
= 35.14 N

A stone on a sling is swung with a UCM like in the image. When you let go of the sling, what happens to the
centripetal force? What trajectory will the stone follow?
When you let go of the sling, the centripetal force disappears, and then the stone will follow a trajectory that is
tangential to the circumference traced by the sling initially.
11 A 600 g stone is placed in a 50 cm sling and is shot with a velocity of 4 m/s. Draw the force exerted by the
sling and calculate its magnitude. How does weight affect this value? How does it affect its mass?
The diagram below shows both the centripetal force that pulls the sling and the weight of the stone.

F

F 
F
The magnitude of the centripetal force is:

( 4 m/s )
2
v2
F =m ⋅ =0.6 kg ⋅ =19.2 N
r 0.5 m
The weight and the mass have the same influence. The greater the mass, the greater the weight force, and the
greater the force that the sling exerts.
v2 W v2
F =m ⋅ = ⋅
r g r
12 Now let's suppose that the stone from activity 11 is placed in a 1 m sling.
a) What force would be needed to make it swing at 4 m/s?
b) What speed would the stone swing at if we exerted the same force as in activity 11?
a) Apply the same expression as in the previous case:
( 4 m/s )
2
v2
F =m ⋅ =0.6 kg ⋅ =9.6 N
r 1m
117
b) Substitute the new data in the above expression:
v2 F ⋅r 19.2 N ⋅ 1 m
F = m⋅ →v = = = 5.66 m/s
r m 0.6 kg
ACTIVITY ROUND-UP
13 In your notebook, indicate whether the following statements are true or false. Explain your answers.
a) The weight of an object does not affect its motion.
b) Tension force always increases an object's speed.
c) Frictional force always opposes motion.
d) Normal force is always the same as weight, but acts in the opposite direction.
a) False. The weight affects the normal force and, therefore, the frictional force, which opposes motion. It
does not affect objects in free fall, where the frictional force does not depend on the weight.
b) False. It can be applied in the opposite orientation to the object's velocity, and slow down its motion.
c) True.
d) False. This is true if the object is on a horizontal plane and there is no other force with any component in
the vertical direction.
14 Calculate the N force of an object of 10 kg and draw it in your notebook:

a) Placed on a horizontal surface.
b) Placed on an inclined plane 25° to the horizontal.
c) In free fall.
a) When the object is on the horizontal surface, the normal
force has the same value as the weight.
N = W = m ⋅ g = 10 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2 = 98 N
b) If the plane is inclined, the normal force has the opposite

orientation to the component of weight that is perpendicular
to the plane. Draw a diagram with the inclined plane:
Now the value of the normal force is:

N = Wy = m ⋅ g ⋅ cos α = m ⋅ g ⋅ cos 25o = 10 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ cos 25o = 88.82 N
c) In free fall the object is not on any surface, so the normal force will be zero.
15 In your notebook, indicate whether the following statements about frictional force are true or false.
Give reasons for your answers.
a) It doesn't depend on an object's mass.
b) It depends on the types of surfaces involved.
c) For any given object, the larger the contact area with the surface, the greater the frictional force.
118
d) The frictional force acting on a given object is the same when it is on a horizontal surface
as when it is on a slope.
a) False. The greater an object's mass, the greater the frictional force.
b) True. Depending on the characteristics of the surface, the coefficient of friction will vary.
c) False. The frictional force does not depend on the value of the contact area.
d) False. On a slope the frictional force is lower, so the normal force is lower too.
16 A car's engine drives it with a force of 10 000 N. The car is in a muddy area that exerts a frictional force
of 12 000 N. In your notebook, write down whether the following statements are true or false. Give
reasons for your answers.
a) The car doesn't move.
b) The car moves backwards.
c) The car moves forwards very slowly.
d) The situation is impossible.
a) True.
b) False.
c) False.
d) True. If the force exerted is 10,000 N, the frictional force is, at best, 10,000 N. Only if we exert a force of
12,000 N can the frictional force reach the value of 12,000 N.
17 According to the law of inertia, explain your body's motion when you are standing on a bus and it goes round
a bend.
According to the law of inertia, bodies tend to remain at rest or have a URM. If we are standing on a bus, our
body will tend to continue in a straight line. So if the bus turns to the left, we will lean to the right, and if the
bus turns to the right, we will lean to the left.
18 Find the mistakes in the following definitions of the newton unit and correct them in your notebook:
a) A newton is the weight of an object with a mass of 1 kg.
b) A newton is the force which, when acting on an object, causes an acceleration of 1 m/s2.
c) A newton is the force which, when acting on an object with a mass of 1 kg, causes an acceleration
of 1 m/s2.
a) A newton is the weight of an object with a mass of 1/9.8.
b) A newton is the force which, when acting on an object of 1 kg, causes an acceleration of 1 m/s2.
c) True.

19 A force F which acts on an object with a mass m causes an acceleration a. Determine:
a) The force required to produce the same acceleration if the mass was three times greater.

b) The acceleration produced by a force F acting on an object that has twice the mass.

c) The mass that an object must have so that when a force F is applied, a is reduced by half.

d) The acceleration acquired by an object with a mass of m if two forces F which are equal and
perpendicular to each other are applied to it.
a) The force and the mass are related by the fundamental law of motion:
 
F= m ⋅ a
So, if the acceleration does not change and the mass is three times greater:
     
F=1 m1 ⋅ a 
 F2 m2 ⋅ a 3 ⋅ m1 ⋅ a F2
  =
 =  → = 3
F=2  F1 m1 ⋅ a
m2 ⋅ a  m1 ⋅ a F1
Therefore, the force must be three times more intense.
119
b) If the force is now the same, and the mass changes, the acceleration will vary:
 
 a2 ⋅ m2
F m1 ⋅ a1 
= a m m 1
   =1 → 2 = 1 = 1 = =0.5
F m2 ⋅ a2 
= a
 1 1⋅ m a1 m 2 2 ⋅ m1 2
So, the acceleration is reduced by half.
c) The acceleration depends on the resultant force. If the forces are perpendicular, the resultant force will
form an angle of 45⁰ with each of the forces applied. The magnitude can be calculated by applying
Pythagoras' theorem.
FR = F 2 + F 2 = 2 ⋅ F 2 = 2 ⋅ F
So the value for the acceleration is:
2 ⋅F
2 ⋅ F = m ⋅ a2 → a2 = = 2 ⋅a
m
20 The third law of motion states that the force of action is the same as the force of reaction, but acts
in the opposite direction. How is it possible that both forces don't cancel each other out?
Because they are applied on different bodies.
21 In your notebook, indicate which of the following sentences are false. Explain your answers.
a) If the resultant force is zero, it means that no forces are acting on an object.
b) An object can move in a different orientation and direction to those of the resultant force.
c) Acceleration always has the same magnitude, orientation and direction as the resultant force.
d) For an object to have circular motion there must be a force acting on it.
e) An object slows down if the resultant force is zero.
a) False. The resultant force can be zero if there are a number of forces that cancel each other out. For
example, two forces that are equal in direction and magnitude, and have opposite orientations.
b) True. For example, in a UCM.
c) False. The value of the acceleration also depends on the mass.
d) True. There must be a force that causes the centripetal acceleration.
e) False. If the resultant force is zero, the acceleration is zero and the object does not slow down.
120
PRACTICE
22 Look at the image of a ball hitting a racket.

a) What are the acting forces? Who or what is exerting each one?
b) What are the effects of these forces?
a) An acting force is the force exerted by the strings of the racket on the ball.
Also, the force that the ball exerts on the racket.
b) The ball changes its direction of motion, and the strings of the racket are
deformed.
23 In your notebook, indicate whether the following statements are true or false.
Explain your answers.
a) Frictional force acts in the direction of motion.
b) Weight is a constant and permanent force.
c) Weight force doesn’t produce changes in an object's velocity.
a) False. It acts in the same direction and in the opposite orientation to the motion.
b) False. If we move away from the surface of the Earth, the gravitational force decreases and the weight of
an object also decreases.
c) False. For example, when an object falls, weight is the force that causes its velocity to increase as it falls.
24 An object that weighs 10 N is resting on a horizontal surface. It is pulled by a rope with a force of 15 N that
forms an angle of 60° to the horizontal. What is the normal force on the object?
For this exercise, we draw a diagram of the forces that act on the object.
60°
The vertical component of the force applied is:

Fy =
F ⋅ sin 60o =⋅
10 N sin 60o =
13 N
Since this force is greater than the weight (10 N), the object will be lifted from the surface and we can consider
that the normal force is zero.
25 A body weighing 450 N is placed on a horizontal surface. A force of 45 N is applied to it parallel to the surface.
The coefficient of friction is 0.15. In your notebook, write down whether the object:
a) Will move in the same orientation as the force applied and in the same direction/opposite direction.
b) Will not move.
a) We have to calculate the value of the frictional force and compare it with the force applied. Since we know
the coefficient of friction, the value of the frictional force can be calculated as follows:
Ffriction = µ ⋅ N = µ ⋅ W = 0.15 ⋅ 450 N = 67.5 N
121
b) It will not move, because the value that the frictional force can reach is greater than the force exerted. If
the force applied does not reach this value, the body does not move and then the frictional force will have
the same value as the force applied.
26 In your notebook, indicate whether the following pairs of forces are examples of action and reaction:
a) The force of attraction between two magnets.
b) The gravitational force between the Earth and the Moon.
c) The weight of a book on a table and normal force.
d) The weight of a book resting on a table and frictional force.
a) Yes, they are action and reaction.
b) Yes, they are action and reaction.
c) No. The weight is the force that the Earth exerts on the book, while the reaction to this force is the force
that the book exerts on the Earth. The normal force is a reaction force, opposite to the force that the book
exerts on the table.
d) No. The two forces act on the same body.
27 An ice-skater weighing 75 kg is standing still on an ice-rink. He

pushes his friend, who weighs 50 kg and is also standing still,
with a force of 100 N.
a) In your notebook, draw the forces that are acting
on each skater.
b) What happens to each skater?
Which law of motion is your answer based on?
c) How long will it take each skater to move 1 m?
a) The first ice-skater (boy) pushes his friend (girl) with a force

that we call FGirl . Therefore, there is an equal reaction
force with an opposite orientation to the force that the
first skater exerts.
The corresponding diagram is:
b) There is a force on each skater that tends to pull them away from the other skater. For this reason, each
skater will begin to move away from the other skater. The action and reaction forces correspond to the
third law of motion. The existence of a force and the consequent acceleration corresponds to the second
law of motion.
122
c) Using the mass of each skater, we can calculate their acceleration:
FBoy
'
100 N 
FBoy
'
= mBoy ⋅ aBoy → aBoy = = = 1.3 m/s2
mBoy 75 kg
And with the acceleration we can calculate the time it will take to move 1m, since they begin from a state
of rest.
1 2⋅d 2 ⋅1 m
d = ⋅ aBoy ⋅ tBoy
2
→ tBoy = =  =1.24 s
2 aBoy 1.3 m/s2
The girl has a lower mass, so she will experience greater acceleration:
FGirl 100 N
FGirl = mGirl ⋅ aGirl → aGirl = = = 2 m/s2
mGirl 50 kg
So she will take less time to travel the same distance:
1 2⋅d 2 ⋅1 m
d = ⋅ aGirl ⋅ tGirl
2
→ tGirl = = =1 s
2 aGirl 2 m/s2
28 An object with a mass of 10 kg is moving along a horizontal surface with URM. It is then pulled away with a
constant force of 50 N, parallel to the surface. Calculate the value of the coefficient of friction between the
object and the surface along which it is being dragged.
If the motion is rectilinear and uniform, it is because the net force acting on the object is zero. This means that
the frictional force is equal to the force exerted on the object. Therefore:
F 50 N
F = Ffriction = µ ⋅ m ⋅ g → µ = = = 0.51
m ⋅ g 10 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2
29 A car with a mass of 250 kg is at the top of a roller coaster when it starts its
descent down a ramp at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. Between the car
and the ramp, the coefficient of friction is 0.1.
a) In your notebook, draw all the forces that are acting on the car.
b) Calculate the acceleration which it descends at.
c) Calculate the time it takes to travel 30 m.
a) The forces acting on the car are: weight force, normal force and frictional
force.
b) To calculate the acceleration which it descends at, we write down all the forces acting on it. Friction
opposes motion; therefore, the frictional force will go in the opposite orientation to the component of
weight parallel to the descending plane.
Wx − Ffriction m ⋅ g ⋅ sin 60o − µ ⋅ m ⋅ g ⋅ cos 60o
Wx − Ffriction = m ⋅ a → a = = = g ⋅ ( sin 60o − µ ⋅ cos 60o ) =
m m
= 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ ( sin 60o − 0.1 ⋅ cos 60
= o
) 8 m/s2
123
c) If it starts from a state of rest:
1 2⋅d 2 ⋅ 30 m
d= ⋅ a ⋅t2 → t = = = 2.74 s
2 a 8 m/s2
30 A stationary car with a mass of 1200 kg starts driving up a ramp inclined at 20° to the horizontal, moving 4 m
in 2 s. The coefficient of friction between the car and the surface is 0.25. Calculate:
a) The acceleration of the car.
b) The force that the car's engine must exert.
a) Take into account all the forces acting on the car: the force exerted by the engine, the weight, and the
frictional force. Since it starts from a state of rest:
1 2⋅d 2⋅4 m
d= ⋅a ⋅t2 → a = = = 4 m/s2
2 t 2s
b) Now write the second law of motion, taking into account all the forces acting on the car:
FEngine − Wx − Ffriction= m ⋅ a → FEngine= m ⋅ a + m ⋅ g ⋅ sin α + µ ⋅ m ⋅ g ⋅ cos α= m ⋅ a + g ⋅ ( sin α + µ ⋅ cos α ) =
= 250 kg ⋅ 4 m/s2 + 9.81 m/s2 ⋅ ( sin 20o + 0.25 ⋅ cos 20o ) = 2415.0 N
31 The hammer throw is an Olympic sport which involves spinning a ball attached to a steel cable. When the
desired velocity is reached, the athlete lets go of it, and the distance to where it lands is measured. For the
women's competition, a 4 kg ball connected to a cable of 119 cm is used.
a) Calculate the minimum tension that the cable must support to allow the ball to spin at a speed of 25 m/s.
b) Describe the ball's trajectory and the forces that are acting on it when it rotates with the cable and when
it is released.
a) The centripetal force that makes the ball spin is the tension of the cable. Therefore:
m ⋅ v 2 4 kg ⋅ ( 25 m/s )
2
T= FC= = = 2100.8 N
R 1.19 m
b) When the ball is attached and the hand spins it, the tension of the cable and the weight act. When the
athlete lets go of it, the tension in the cable disappears, and the ball is thrown in the direction that is
tangential to the velocity at the moment of letting go. At this moment, only Earth's gravity is acting on it,
which causes it to trace a parabolic trajectory.
32 Which direction does the normal force act in? Is it always vertical?
The normal force is perpendicular to the surface. It is not always vertical; it is only vertical when the surface is
horizontal.
33 How does frictional force change when the road is wet?

When the road is wet the wheels slip more on the asphalt because the frictional force is lower.
34 Discuss how a road's slope could be changed in the following cases:

a) The bend opens up.
b) It rains a lot in the area.
c) The speed limit at which vehicles can travel around the bend is raised.
a) A car can take a more open curve at a higher velocity without coming off the road, so the slope should be
lower than at a sharper curve.
b) If it rains a lot, the frictional force will be lower, so the slope should be increased.
c) In this case the slope should be increased to prevent cars coming off the road at the bend.
124
35 Why are vehicles at risk of coming off the road at a bend if there is no real force pulling them outwards?
Because if there is no grip, the law of inertia tells us that the car will tend to go in a straight line. This means
that the car will not take the curve if the frictional force is very small.
36 Look at the diagrams and answer the questions:

a) Why is the angle of the slope not increased to 20° or 25° to prevent vehicles from coming off the bend,
even if they are travelling faster than the speed limit?
b) Should conventional single carriageway roads or motorways have bends with steeper slopes? Why?
c) In the case of tilted bends, in what direction is normal acceleration? Hint: think the plane of the
trajectory that the vehicle is following when it goes round the bend.
d) Is there an equilibrium of forces along the axis perpendicular to the ground, Y? What about along the
axis parallel to the ground, X?
a) Because then the vehicles that move at a very low velocity, or stop, could overturn.
b) Motorways should have bends with steeper slopes, because the vehicles go at a higher velocity there.
c) Normal acceleration is directed towards the centre of the bend, horizontally, which is why it is not parallel
to the ground, and has a certain tilt.
d) Along the axis perpendicular to the ground there is, because the car does not come off the ground or sink.
Along the axis parallel to the ground there is no equilibrium of forces, since there is a net centripetal force
that makes the vehicle turn.
INVESTIGATE
37 Calculate the system's mass using the values that you obtained in each experiment. Can you use all the values
to calculate the average?
Answer based on the project. If the experiment is done properly, the values of mass the students calculate
should be similar, and the average value can be calculated.
38 Evaluate the possible sources of error in this experiment and devise a way to minimise them.
The answer will depend on the data obtained in the experiment. To reduce the experimental errors it would be
a good idea to take more measurements, for example, by repeating the experiment.
39 We used a cart with wheels for the experiment. Would there be any difference if we used a wooden block to
slide over the rail? (Assume that the block also has a rod where we can place the four 50 g weights).
Yes, because the coefficient of friction between the surfaces would change.
125
Gravitational
forces
Gravitational forces 9
WORK WITH THE IMAGE
• If satellites orbit the Earth due to its gravitational force, why are solar panels needed to obtain energy?
Because satellites have instruments that work with electric power, like cameras and antennae.
• What instruments do satellites that take pictures of other galaxies use?
What about communication satellites?
Telescopes. Telecommunications satellites have antennae that receive and transmit electromagnetic waves.
STARTING POINTS
• What is gravitational force? Which bodies does it act on?
It is a force of attraction that is more intense when the mass of the objects is greater. It acts on all bodies that
have mass.
• What is centripetal force? What kind of movement is it involved in?
It is a force that causes a body to trace a curved trajectory. It is involved in, for example, circular motion.
• What's your opinion? How would you reduce the amount of space debris?
We would have to limit the fragments that space launchers leave in space, and try to recover them after the
launches. In addition, we should plan better for the end of a satellite’s useful life, to prevent the disused satellites
remaining in orbit. Also, we must improve the ways components are fastened to rockets, satellites or space
probes.
ACTIVITIES
1 Use Ptolemy’s model of the universe to explain why Mars seems to be brighter in some months than
in others.
Because at some points in its orbit, following epicycles and retrograde motion, the planet is closer
to the Earth than at other points.
2 In the northern hemisphere, winter lasts six days less than summer. Use this information to explain whether
winter in Spain occurs when the Earth is near to the aphelion or the perihelion.
In Spain, winter takes place when the Earth is closer to the Sun, near to the perihelion. When it is further from
the Sun, the Earth moves more slowly, so it remains longer around the aphelion during the summer. This is why
summer lasts more days: because the Earth moves more slowly in summer (in the northern hemisphere).
3 Assuming that the Earth orbits the Sun in a circular motion, calculate the speed at which it travels. Data: the
average distance from the Earth to the Sun is 149 600 000 km.
If the orbit is circular, we calculate the speed from the length of the circumference and the time taken to make
a complete turn (one year). The distance from the Earth to the Sun is the radius of the orbit.
Therefore:
2π ⋅ r 2π ⋅ 149000000 km
=v = = 29.67 km/s
T 365.25 days 24 h 3600 s
1 year ⋅ ⋅ ⋅
1 year 1 day 1 h
127
4 Look at the table below, showing the distance from each planet to the Sun and the time it takes them to orbit
it completely. Prove that they all belong to the same solar system.
To prove this, divide the square of the time taken by the cube of the distance and compare the results obtained.
Mercury:
( 0.24 )
2
T2 years2
= = 2.95 ⋅ 10 −25
d3 ( 5.8 ⋅ 10 )
3
7 km3
Earth:
(1 )
2
T2 years2
= = 2.96 ⋅ 10 −25
d3 (1.5 ⋅ 10 )
3
8 km3
Jupiter:
(11,88 )
2
T2 years2
= = 2.97 ⋅ 10 −25
d3 ( 7.8 ⋅ 10 )
3
8 km3
We can see that the result is approximately the same for all three, because all of them orbit the same star.
5 The Moon orbits the Earth every 27.3 days, completing an almost circular orbit with a radius of 384 400 km.
a) Draw the Moon at a point in its trajectory around the Earth. Add the vectors of velocity and centripetal
acceleration for the Moon's motion.
b) Calculate the speed of the Moon and the centripetal force acting upon it.
c) What would the Moon's trajectory be like if its speed was half of that obtained in b)?
Data: mMoon = 7.35 · 1022 kg.
a) Visual answer:
Earth Moon
b) The velocity of the Moon can be calculated from the space it travels in its orbit and the time taken:
2π ⋅ r 2π ⋅ 384400 km
=v = = 1.024 =
km/s 1024 m/s
T 24 h 3600 s
27.3 days ⋅ ⋅
1 day 1 h
With this data we can calculate the centripetal force:

m ⋅ v 2 7.35 ⋅ 10 kg ⋅ (1024 m/s )
22 2
FC = = = 2 ⋅ 1020 N
r 384000000 m
128
c) If the velocity was half, the Moon would orbit the Earth further from our planet.
6 Calculate the gravitational force between two girls whose masses are 60 and 55 kg respectively, and who are
standing 2 m apart. Explain your answer.
𝐦𝐦𝟐𝟐
Data: G = 6.67 · 10−𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝐍𝐍 ·
𝐤𝐤𝐤𝐤𝟐𝟐
Apply the law of universal gravitation:

m1 ⋅ m2 N ⋅ m2 60 kg ⋅ 55 kg
F=
G⋅ 6.67 ⋅ 10 −11 ⋅
= ⋅ 5.5 ⋅ 10 −8 N
=
r (2 m)
2 2 2
kg
This force produces such a small acceleration in the bodies that its effects are imperceptible.
7 What must the mass of a body be if, at a distance of 2 m from a boy whose mass is 60 kg, the force
of attraction is 1 N?
𝐦𝐦𝟐𝟐
Data: G = 6.67 · 10−𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝐍𝐍 ·
Apply the law of universal gravitation to find the mass of the body:
1 N ⋅ (2 m)
2
m1 ⋅ m2 F ⋅ r2
F =G ⋅ → m2 = = =9.99 ⋅ 108 kg
r 2
G ⋅ m1 −11 N ⋅ m
2
6.67 ⋅ 10 ⋅ ⋅ 60 kg
kg2
8 Two bodies, A and B, separated by a distance d, attract each other with a force F. Explain what will the force
between both bodies be if:
a) The mass of A is doubled?
b) Only the distance between the bodies is doubled?
c) The mass of A and the distance between the bodies is doubled but the mass of B stays the same?
d) The mass of A, the mass of B and the distance between the bodies is doubled?
a) The force is doubled and becomes 2 F.
b) The force is reduced to a quarter, since the distance appears in the law of universal gravitation as the
denominator, and raised to the power of two. It will be F/4.
c) The two previous cases are combined, so the force will decrease by half. It will be F/2.
d) In this case the force will not change: it will be F.
9 Knowing that the distance between the Earth and the Moon is 3.84 · 105 km, calculate:
a) The force with which the Earth and the Moon attract each other.
b) The acceleration this force exerts on the Moon and the Earth. Use this information to explain why the
Moon orbits the Earth and not the other way around.
𝐦𝐦𝟐𝟐
Data: MEarth = 5.97 · 1024 kg; MMoon = 7.35 · 1022 kg; G = 6.67 · 10−𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝐍𝐍 ·
Apply the law of universal gravitation, expressing all amounts in units of the International System.
m1 ⋅ m2 −11 N ⋅ m
2
5.97 ⋅ 1024 kg ⋅ 7.35 ⋅ 1022 kg
F=
G⋅ =
6.67 ⋅ 10 ⋅ ⋅ 1.985 ⋅ 1020 N
=
r2 kg2 ( 3.84 ⋅ 10 m)
8 2
a) To calculate the acceleration we apply the fundamental law of motion or Newton's second law to each
astronomical body. For the Earth:
F 1.985 ⋅ 1020 N
F = MEarth ⋅ aEarth → aEarth = = = 3.325 ⋅ 10 −5 m/s2
MEarth 5.97 ⋅ 1024 kg
For the Moon:
F 1.985 ⋅ 1020 N
F = MMoon ⋅ aMoon → aMoon = = = 0.0027 m/s2
MMoon 7.35 ⋅ 1022 kg
129
As we can see, the acceleration exerted on the Moon is much higher. This is why the Moon rotates around
the Earth, and not the other way around.
10 Use dimensional analysis to check that the units used to express g (m/s2 and N/kg) are equivalent.
Express N/kg in more fundamental units:
2
N kg ⋅ m/s
[g=] = = m/s2
kg kg
11 A 600 g ball, suspended 2 m above the surface of Mars, weighs 2.3 N. Calculate:
a) The value of g on Mars.
b) The mass of Mars if its shape is a sphere with a radius of 3.38 million metres.
𝐦𝐦𝟐𝟐
Data: G = 6.67 · 10−𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝐍𝐍 ·
a) As we know the weight and the mass, it is easy to calculate the gravitational acceleration on the surface.
We assume that at 2 m from the ground, the gravity is the same as on the surface of Mars:
W 2.3 N
W = m⋅g → g = = = 3.83 N/kg
m 0.600 kg
b) Apply the equation for gravitational acceleration using the mass and radius of the planet:
g ⋅ R 2 3.83 N/kg ⋅ ( 3.38 ⋅ 10 m )

6 2
M
g =G ⋅ 2 → M = = =6.56 ⋅ 1023 kg
R G −11 N ⋅ m
2
6.67 ⋅ 10 ⋅
kg2
12 The Earth takes 365.24 days to complete its orbit around the Sun. Using the information given, calculate
the average distance between the Earth and the Sun.
N
Data: MSun = 1.99 · 1030 kg;=
G 6.67 ⋅ 10 −11 2 .
m ⋅ kg 2
The centripetal force that acts on the Earth is the gravitational force between the Sun and the Earth. Therefore,
we can write:
m ⋅ v2 m ⋅ mSun mSun
F=
C FG → = G⋅ → v= G⋅
r r2 r
Now we express the speed using the space travelled in the orbit and the time taken:
2π ⋅ r v ⋅T
v
= r
→=
T 2π
And substitute the value of the speed for the previous expression:
mSun m
G⋅ ⋅T G ⋅ Sun ⋅ T 2
v ⋅T r r G ⋅ mSun ⋅ T 2 G ⋅ mSun ⋅ T 2
r= = → r 2= → r 3
= → r= 3
2π 2π 4 π2 4 π2 4 π2
Now substitute the data:
2
N ⋅ m2  24 h 3600 s 
6.67 ⋅ 10 −11 ⋅ ⋅ 1.99 ⋅ 1030 kg ⋅  365.24 days ⋅ ⋅ 
G ⋅ mSun ⋅ T 2 3 kg 2  1 day 1 h 
=r 3=  = 1.496 ⋅ 1011 m
4 π2 4π 2
130
• Look at the orbital distance of the Deimos 2 satellite around the Earth. If the Earth's mass is 5.97 · 1024 kg,
calculate the velocity at which the satellite orbits the Earth in SI units and in km/h.
Repeat the procedure from the last exercise. In this case the distance r is equal to the radius of the Earth,
6,370km, plus the height, 620km. In total, 6,990km.
m ⋅ v2 m ⋅ MEarth
F=
C FG → = G⋅ →
r r2
MEarth N ⋅ m2 5.97 ⋅ 1024 kg
→ v= G⋅ = 6.67 ⋅ 10 −11 ⋅ ⋅ = 7547.6 m/s= 27 171.5 km/h
r kg2 6990 ⋅ 103 m
13 The International Space Station orbits the Earth 400 km above its surface. How long will it take to complete
one revolution around the Earth?
𝐦𝐦𝟐𝟐
Data: MEarth = 5.97 · 1024 kg; REarth = 6370 km; G = 6.67 · 10−𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝐍𝐍 ·
𝐤𝐤𝐤𝐤 𝟐𝟐
Again, we identify the centripetal force with the gravitational force that the Earth exerts on the Space Station.
In this case, the distance from the Space Station to the centre of the Earth is 6,370km plus 400km. In total,
6,730km.
Now we express the speed as the space travelled divided by the time taken, which is the period asked for.
4 π2 ⋅ ( 6730 ⋅ 103 m )
3
2π ⋅ r 4 π2 ⋅ r 2 M 4 π2 ⋅ r 3
v= → v2 = = G ⋅ Earth → T = = = 5062.196 s
T T2 r G ⋅ MEarth N ⋅ m2
6.67 ⋅ 10 −11 ⋅ ⋅ 5.97 ⋅ 1024 kg
kg2
Expressed in hours this is:
1h
5062.196 s ⋅ = 1.4062
= h 1 h 24 min 22.2 s
3600 s
14 The film Gravity shows the problems that space debris

causes for artificial satellites and their crew.
Explain how a small screw floating around space could

pose a serious problem for a spaceship, whose structure
can withstand being launched by a rocket.
Because fragments move at a very high velocity when
orbiting our planet; thousands of kilometres per hour.
Therefore, their kinetic energy is very high and can cause
major damage.
15 Space debris is formed by a variety of fragments. One of these

elements is a glove that astronaut Edward White (pictured) lost in
1965, during his first spacewalk. Assuming that the glove weighs 1 kg
and is moving at 28 000 km/h:
a) Calculate the kinetic energy of the glove.
b) How fast would a vehicle have to travel so that its kinetic energy
was the same as White’s glove?
N
Data: MEarth = 5.97 · 1024 kg; REarth = 6370 km;=
G 6.67 ⋅ 10 −11 .
m2 ⋅ kg 2
a) Kinetic energy can be calculated from mass and velocity:

2
1 1  km 1000 m 1 h 
EK = ⋅ m ⋅ v 2 = ⋅ 1 kg ⋅  28 000 ⋅ ⋅  =
2 2  h 1 km 3600 s 
= 3.02 ⋅ 107 J
131
b) Use the above equation to find the velocity.
1 2 ⋅ EK 2 ⋅ 3.02 ⋅ 107 J
EK = ⋅ m ⋅ v2 → v = = = 7771.7 m/s  28000 km/h
2 m 1 kg
ACTIVITY ROUND-UP
16 Are the following statements about gravitational force true or false? Correct the false ones in your notebook.
a) It depends on the masses of bodies.
b) It is universal, because it acts anywhere in space.
c) It can be both attractive and repulsive.
d) It is impossible to isolate one body from the gravitational force of another.
e) It depends on the distance between bodies.
a) True. d) True.
b) True. e) True.
c) False. It is always attractive.
17 Show how the force of attraction varies between two bodies with the same mass (m) separated by a distance
(d) when:
a) The mass of one body is doubled.
b) The distance between the bodies is doubled.
c) The mass of one body is doubled, and the distance between them is also doubled.
d) The masses of both bodies and the distance between them are tripled.
a) The force also doubles.
b) The force is reduced to a quarter.
c) The force is reduced by half.
d) Due to the effect of the mass, the force would multiply by nine, while due to the effect of the distance, the
force would be divided by nine. Therefore, the overall force would not vary in these conditions.
18 In your notebook, write which of these characteristics correspond to weight and which correspond to mass:
a) It is the amount of matter that a body has.
b) Its value does not depend on where a body is.
c) It is the force with which the Earth attracts a body.
d) It is a scalar quantity.
e) It is a vector quantity.
a) Mass. d) Mass.
b) Mass. e) Weight.
c) Weight.
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19 A body with a mass of m orbits another body with a mass of M at a constant speed. Copy the image in your
notebook and draw the vectors of velocity and centripetal acceleration for m at points A, B and C.
Answer:
The centripetal acceleration has the direction of the line that joins the two masses, while the velocity is
tangential to the trajectory at each point.
20 Consider the system of bodies M and m from the previous activity. In your notebook, draw the trajectory
of m for each of the following situations:
a) Its speed increases. c) Its speed is zero.
b) Its speed decreases. d) The body with a mass of M disappears.
a) If the velocity increases, the orbit is lower.
b) If the velocity decreases, the orbit is higher.
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c) If the velocity is zero, the body falls directly towards the central mass.
d) If the central mass disappears, the body continues with uniform rectilinear motion.
21 In your notebook, explain which of the following can be caused by space debris:
a) Acid rain.
b) Damage to the structure of a spaceship.
c) An increase in the size of the hole in the ozone layer.
d) The prevention of the Sun's rays from reaching the Earth.
e) A reduction in the space where other satellites can orbit.
The fragments that form space debris have great kinetic energy.
a) No. Space debris does not have perceptible d) No.
effects on the composition of the
e) Yes, since when the satellites are sent into
atmosphere.
orbit, they must avoid areas with a high
b) Yes. Due to its high kinetic energy. concentration of fragments of space debris.
c) No. Space debris does not have perceptible
effects on the composition of the
atmosphere.
PRACTICE
22 Let's suppose we are replicating the Cavendish experiment to determine the value of G. The ball with the
larger mass (m1 = 175 kg) is placed 10 cm away from the ball with the smaller mass (m2 = 0.73 kg). What is the
value of the force between them?
𝐦𝐦𝟐𝟐
Data: G = 6.67 · 10−𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝐍𝐍 ·
Apply the law of universal gravitation:

m1 ⋅ m2 −11 N ⋅ m
2
175 kg ⋅ 0.73 kg
F =G ⋅ =6.67 ⋅ 10 ⋅ ⋅ =8.52 ⋅ 10 −7 N
r2 kg2 ( 0.10 m)
2
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23 Using the result from activity 22, work out the value of the force between the balls in the experiment if:
a) The mass of the larger ball is 350 kg and everything else is the same.
b) The mass of the smaller ball is 1.46 kg and everything else is the same.
c) The distance between the balls is 20 cm and everything else is the same.
d) Given the above results, what would be the simplest way to make the force between the balls
in the Cavendish experiment bigger?
a) Since one mass doubles, the force also doubles:
F2 = 2 ⋅ F = 2 ⋅ 8.52 ⋅ 10 −7 N = 1.7 ⋅ 10 −6 N
b) Since one mass doubles, the force also doubles:

F2 = 2 ⋅ F = 2 ⋅ 8.52 ⋅ 10 −7 N = 1.7 ⋅ 10 −6 N
c) Since the distance doubles, the force is divided by four:
F 8.52 ⋅ 10 −7 N
F2=
= = 2.13 ⋅ 10 −7 N
4 4
d) Reduce the distance between the balls. If the distance is reduced to half, the force becomes four times
greater.
24 Explain the conversion your bathroom scales make to give you your mass when you weigh yourself
They convert weight, which is the magnitude they that they really measure, into mass.
25 Given that the Earth is not spherical but is slightly flattened at the poles, where would you weigh the least?
Explain your answer.
a) At the North Pole. c) At the South Pole.
b) In Spain. d) At the Equator.
Your weight would be lower at the point furthest from the centre of the Earth. So, you would weigh the least at
the Equator.
26 At what height above the Earth's surface would your weight be half of that on the surface? At what height
would your mass be half of that on the surface?
In the case of weight, since force decreases with the square of the distance, for the force to be half, the
distance will be:
MT ⋅ m
G⋅
(R + h)
2
F 1 1 R2 1 R2
→ (R =
+ h ) 2 ⋅ R2 → =
2
= → = = =
→ R+h 2 ⋅R →
FSur. 2 (R + h) (R + h)
2 2
2 MT ⋅ m 2
G⋅
R2
→ h= ( )
2 − 1 ⋅ R= 0.4142 ⋅ R
So, the height above the surface must be equal to 0.4142 times the radius of the Earth.
Your mass does not vary, since it does not depend on the position of the object.
135
27 Copy the table below into your notebook and fill
in the gaps by calculating:
a) Your weight on each of the planets in the Solar
System.
b) The speed of a body falling vertically from
a height of 1 m on each planet.
a) Calculate the weight by multiplying the
gravitational acceleration by the mass. For a weight
of 60kg, we obtain for Mercury:
W=
m ⋅ gMercury =
60 kg ⋅ 2.65 m/s2 =
159 N
b) Calculate speed from the UARM equations.
v= g ⋅ t 
 2⋅ s 2⋅ s g 2 ⋅2⋅ s
1 →t = → v = g ⋅t = g ⋅ = → v= 2⋅g ⋅ s
s= ⋅ g ⋅t2  g g g
2 
In the case of Mercury, for example:
m 1 km 3600 s
v= 2⋅g ⋅ s = 2 ⋅ 2.65 m/s2 ⋅ 1 m = 2.3 ⋅ ⋅ = 8.29 km/h
s 1000 m 1 h
Proceed in a similar way for the other planets and complete the table:
Planet g (m/s2) Weight (N) v (m/s) v (km/h)
Mercury 2.65 159 2.30 8.29

Venus 8.50 510 4.12 14.84
Earth 9.81 588.6 4.43 15.95
Mars 3.72 223.2 2.73 9.82
Jupiter 25.89 1553.4 7.20 25.90
Saturn 11.48 688.8 4.79 17.25
Uranus 9.03 541.8 4.25 15.30
Neptune 14.13 847.8 5.32 19.14
28 According to science fiction, Mars would be the most favourable place in the Solar System for human
habitation.
a) What is the value of gravitational acceleration on Mars?
b) If you travelled to Mars, would you feel lighter or heavier than on Earth? Explain your answer
by observing the data but without making any calculations.
c) Calculate your weight on Mars.
d) Would it be easier to do a high jump on Mars or Earth?
𝐦𝐦𝟐𝟐
Data: MMars = 6.4 · 1023 kg; diameterMars = 6780 km; G = 6.67 · 10−𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝐍𝐍 ·
a) Identifying the weight with the gravitational force:

MMars ⋅ m
WEarth= FG → m ⋅ g = G ⋅ →
RM2
MMars N ⋅ m2 6.4 ⋅ 1023 kg
→g = G⋅ 2
= 6.67 ⋅ 10 −11 ⋅ ⋅ = 3.71 m/s2
 diameterMars  kg2  6780 ⋅ 103 m 2
 2   
   2 
b) Lighter, since gravitational acceleration is lower on Mars than on Earth.
136
c) Calculate your weight by multiplying the mass by the gravitational acceleration. For a mass of 60kg:
W=
m ⋅ gMars =
60 kg ⋅ 3.71 m/s2 =
222.6 N
d) On Mars, since gravitational acceleration is smaller, so jumps would travel further.
29 Using the information from solved problem 5, calculate the speed that a
satellite must travel at to complete orbit A. Suggest a possible speed for it
to complete orbits B and C. Does the satellite's mass affect the result?
For it to complete orbit A, the speed must be lower than the speed
calculated in solved problem 5 .
For orbit B, the value of the velocity must be the same as in the solved
problem 5: 6,654 m/s.
For orbit C, the speed must be greater than this value.
30 Choose a type of artificial satellite and prepare a presentation including:

a) What its function is.
b) When it was first used.
c) Its characteristics (mass of the satellite, distance of its orbit, period, if it is manned, etc.).
d) Countries that use this type of satellite.
Open answer.
31 Look at the image of the two galaxies and answer the following questions.
a) Which area is brighter?
b) Are there more older, red stars towards the centre or further out?
c) What do you think the brightest spots with flashes are that seem to be superimposed on the image?
a) The central area of the galaxy, where the concentration of stars is greater.
b) There are more older, red stars towards the centre of the galaxies, and younger, blue stars towards the
periphery and the arms, in the case of spiral galaxies.
c) They are stars from our galaxy that happen to be in the direction in which the telescope is pointing. The
flashes they show are not real; this is an optical effect produced by the instruments that receive the light.
32 Answer the questions.

a) How long has it taken for the light from these galaxies to reach us?
b) Do you think both galaxies are approximately the same distance away from ours?
a) 55 million years, since they are at a distance of 55 light years, which is the distance that light travels in 55
years.
b) From the image it seems that they are about the same distance away, since there seems to be some
interaction between these two galaxies. However, it could be an optical illusion that makes them seem to
almost overlap, despite being at different distances.
137
33 In a spiral galaxy, the stars orbit around a central nucleus.
For example, the Sun completes an orbit every 225 million
years. Based on the amount of mass observed, stars that
are further away from the nucleus should revolve more
slowly around the centre (the red line in the picture on
the right). However, teams of independent scientists
analysing different spiral galaxies have observed that
stars maintain a speed that is more or less constant at a
certain distance from the centre (the white line in the
picture). 1 ly: 1 light year.
What do you think this is caused by?
a) The velocity of the stars has been measured incorrectly.
b) There is more mass than we can see in the galaxies. There is a type of dark matter that exerts a
gravitational pull on the stars.
c) There is an unknown force that pushes the stars.
d) The gravitational pull of nearby galaxies influences the movement of stars.
Open answer. The most widely accepted cause is that there is more mass than we can see, and this is why the
speed of the stars does not decrease like it does when there is only a large central mass. A lot of different
people have taken the measurements of the velocity of the stars, so answer a is unlikely. Answer b is correct.
INVESTIGATE
34 Study the results of the experiment on centripetal force again and draw three different graphs showing:
a) The period compared to the distance.
b) The speed compared to the distance.
c) The speed compared to the period.
a) Answer based on the experiment.
b) Answer based on the experiment.
c) Answer based on the experiment.
35 For a satellite orbiting a planet, explain the relationship between:

a) The radius of the orbit and its period.
b) The radius of the orbit and its speed.
c) Its speed and its period.
a) In a satellite, the gravitational force exerted by the planet is the centripetal force. This means that the
closer to the planet the satellite orbits, the faster it moves and, therefore, the lower the period, or the time
it takes the satellite to make a complete rotation around the planet.
b) The shorter the radius of the orbit, the higher the speed.
c) The higher the speed, the closer to the planet the satellite orbits, and the lower the period.
138
10
Forces in fluids
Forces in fluids 10
WORK WITH THE IMAGE
• Which pair of forces make up the action and reaction which cause lift force when an aeroplane flies?
The wings, because of their shape, push air down. The air, thanks to the principle of action and reaction, exerts an
upwards force on the wings.
The weight has a downwards orientation, and the lift force, upwards, counteracting the weight.
• When an aircraft is cruising at a constant speed, what is the relationship between the forces acting on it?
If the velocity is constant, it is because the net force acting on the plane is zero. The force of lift counteracts the
weight, while the force from the engine counteracts the frictional force.
STARTING POINTS
• Why do some objects float in water and others do not?
Because some objects have a density that is greater than the density of water, so they sink. Others are less dense
than water and they float. The buoyancy of objects is determined by the composition of the existing forces: the
weight of the body, downwards, and the upwards push of the fluid on the object. When the weight is greater than
the buoyant force, the object sinks. Otherwise, it floats.
• What variables does the buoyancy of an object in water depend on?
On its density and the density of water.
• What's your opinion? How would you design a plane so that it could carry a heavier load?
To carry a heavier load, it must create a lift force that counteracts the increased weight. To achieve this, we use
more powerful engines that displace a larger quantity of air.
ACTIVITIES
1 Express the density of the following materials in SI units:

a) dwater = 1 g/mL c) doil = 85 g/dL
b) daluminium = 2.7 g/cm 3
d) dice = 900 g/dm3
a) Use the corresponding conversion factors:
g 1 kg 1000 mL 1 L kg
dwater = 1 ⋅⋅ ⋅ 3
=1 3
mL 1000 g 1L 1m m
b) As in the previous case:

g 1 kg 106 cm3 kg
daluminium = 2.7 ⋅ ⋅ 3
= 2700 3
cm3 1000 g 1m m
c) In this case:
g 1 kg 10 dL 1 L kg
doil = 85 ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ 3
= 0.85 3
dL 1000 g 1 L 1 m m
d) And finally:
g 1 kg 1000 dm3 kg
dice = 900 ⋅ ⋅ 3
= 900 3
dm3 1000 g 1m m
140
2 Look at the image. Using the information from the previous activity, work out
the mass of the water and oil in the test tubes.
Use the equation for density to calculate the mass.
For the water:
Water Oil
m g
dwater = water → mwater = dwater ⋅ Vwater = 1 ⋅10 mL = 10 g
Vwater mL
For the oil:
moil g 1 dL
doil = → moil = doil ⋅ Voil = 85 ⋅ ⋅20 mL = 17 g
Voil dL 100 mL
3 The image shows the lungs of a diver when submerged at a

depth of 10 m and 40 m. Look at the size of his lungs and
draw arrows to represent the force acting on them
underwater:
When the diver goes deeper, the pressure is greater,
which means that his lungs will suffer a greater
pressure that will reduce their size somewhat.
4 Which of the following exerts more pressure on the ground?

a) A two-tonne elephant is standing on one leg, with a surface area of 500 cm2.
b) A ballet dancer weighing 50 kg stands on the point of one foot, with a surface area of 3 cm2.
Data: g = 9.8 m/s2.
a) To calculate pressure, we divide the force by the supporting surface area. For the elephant:
F m⋅g 2000 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2
P= = = = 392 000 Pa
S S 1 m2
500 cm2 ⋅ 4
10 cm2
b) For the dancer:
F m⋅g 50 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2
P= = = = 1.63 ⋅ 106 Pa
S S 2 1 m2
3 cm ⋅ 4
10 cm2
Therefore, the dancer exerts more pressure.
141
5 A car falls into a river and is submerged. Draw the orientation and direction of each force acting on the car.
What happens to the forces as the car sinks?
The forces act on the car from all sides. As the car sinks, the forces acting on it are greater, because the
pressure is greater.

• What causes the lids to stay stuck to the bottom of the tubes?
The hydrostatic pressure inside the liquid.
• Why do the lids come off when the water level inside the tubes is the same as the water level in the container?
Because at this moment the pressure in the top part of the tubes is equal to the pressure in the bottom part.
• Does the level of the liquids reach the same height on both sides of the U-tube?
No, it reaches a greater height in the side with the oil.
• Which liquid reaches the highest level, the densest one or the least dense one?
The oil, which is the liquid with lowest density.
• A U-tube is used to measure the density of oil. The column of oil above the column of water on one of the sides
of the U-tube is 10 cm high. The water level on the other side of the U-tube is 1.2 cm lower than the oil level.
What is the oil's density if the density of water is 1 g/cm3?
Using the equation that relates the height in both columns:
dwater ⋅ hB 1 g/cm3 ⋅ 8.8 cm
=doil = = 0.88 g/cm3
hA 10 cm
6 Dams built to create reservoirs of water near rivers or lakes usually have this shapes:
Explain why they are not built with a single vertical wall of the same thickness throughout.
Because the pressure is greater at the bottom of the dam, since it has more water above it.
7 In a hospital, a patient is being given medicine through a drip. The density of the liquid
containing the medicine is 1030 kg/m3. What is the minimum height the drip should be
at if the blood pressure in the vein is between 13.3 hPa and 21.3 hPa?
It should be at a height where the pressure on the bottom of the drip is equal to, or
greater than the patient’s blood pressure, so that the liquid can enter the bloodstream.
142
The pressure on the bottom of the tube of the drip increases as we increase the height of the drip, because
there will be a larger quantity of liquid above the tube that carries the liquid to the patient.
100 Pa
21,3 hPa ⋅
p 1 hPa
p dliquid ⋅ g ⋅ h →=
= h = = 0.21 m
dliquid ⋅ g 1030 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2
m3
Therefore, it should be at a greater height above the patient than this, so that the liquid falls into the
bloodstream.
8 In 2002, the oil tanker Prestige sank 133 miles off Cape Finisterre to a depth of 3600 m. It had 65 000 tonnes
of fuel in its cargo tanks. Calculate the pressure exerted on the tanks at this depth. What danger does this
pressure pose? Data: dseawater = 1020 kg/m3.
Calculate the pressure by using the depth.
kg
p= dseawater ⋅ g ⋅ h= 1020⋅ 9.8 m/s2 ⋅ 3600 m= 3.6 ⋅ 107 Pa
m3
Such a high pressure could cause the tanks to break, and the liquid to come out, contaminating the water.
9 Chloroform has a density of 1.5 g/mL. It is a colourless, water-insoluble liquid. Let's suppose that we use
a U-tube and water to measure the density of chloroform.
a) Which of the two liquids, water or chloroform, will reach a higher level?
b) If the chloroform column is 10 cm high, what is the difference in height with the water column?
a) The liquid with a lower density will reach a higher level. In this case, it is water.
b) The pressure at the top of each end of the U-tube must be the same. Therefore:
pwater= pchloroform → dwater ⋅ g ⋅ hwater= dchloroform ⋅ g ⋅ hchloroform →
dchloroform ⋅ hchloroform 1.5 g/mL ⋅ 10 cm
→ hwater
= = = 15 cm
dwater 1 g/mL
10 Explain whether you could use a U-tube to measure the density of alcohol in the same way as oil.
No, because the alcohol would mix with the water, and the height reached in both columns of the U-tube would
be the same.
11 If Torricelli had used water instead of mercury in his experiment, what height would the water have reached
inside the tube when he turned it upside down?
The height would have been much greater, since the density of water is much lower than that of mercury.
Using the equation for relating the depth of the liquid with the pressure reached at the bottom:
101 300 Pa
1 atm ⋅
p 1 atm
p = d ⋅g ⋅h → h = = = 10.34 m
d ⋅ g 1000 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2
m3
12 An altimeter indicates that the atmospheric pressure at the top of the Eiffel Tower is 8 mbar lower than at its
base. Calculate the height of the tower. Data: dair = 1.29 kg/m3; 1 bar = 105 Pa.
The pressure difference is due to the different quantity of air column there is above in each case.
1 bar 105 Pa
8 mbar ⋅ ⋅
pbase − ptop 1000 mbar 1 bar
pbase − ptop
= dair ⋅ g ⋅ ∆h → ∆=
h = = 63.28 m
dair ⋅ g 1 kg 2
1.29 3 ⋅ 9.8 m/s
m
143
13 Altitude sickness can cause dizziness, nausea and headaches. People can experience these symptoms if they
are in an environment where the atmospheric pressure is lower than normal.
Explain why altitude sickness can affect mountaineers.
When mountaineers climb, they reach points of the planet where the altitude is several thousand metres above
sea level, which causes atmospheric pressure to be lower there. The height of the column of air above their
heads is less than at sea level.
14 A 50 g mouse is placed on the small cylinder of a hydraulic press with an area of 10 cm2. Will the mouse lift
a 5000 kg elephant standing on a piston with an area of 200 m2 ?
The pressure is transmitted from one point to another, so if the surface areas are different, the force on each
end of the cylinder will also be different. We can write:
F1 F2 F m ⋅g 0.050 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s2
p1 = p2 → = → F2 = 1 ⋅ S2 = mouse ⋅ S2 = ⋅ 200 m2 =
98 000 N
S1 S2 S1 S1 2 1 m2
10 cm ⋅ 4
10 cm2
This is the force exerted on the piston where the elephant stands. The weight of the elephant will be:
Pelephant
= melephant
= ⋅ g 5000 kg ⋅ 9.8 m/s
= 2
49 000 N
Therefore, the mouse will lift the elephant.
15 A 100 kg object weighs 900 N under water:

a) Calculate the buoyant force exerted on it.
b) What is the volume of the object?
c) What is the density of the object?
Data: dwater = 1 g/mL.
a) The buoyant force exerted is equal to the weight of the object in the air (actual weight) minus its weight in
the water (apparent weight). Therefore:
E=
Wair − Wwater =
m ⋅ g − Wwater =
100 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg − 900 N =
80 N
b) The buoyant force is equal to the weight of the displaced liquid. The volume of the displaced liquid
coincides with the volume of the object, because it is submerged in the water. As we know the density of
water, we can find out what volume of water the object has displaced:
=E Wwater
= mwater ⋅=
g dwater ⋅ Vwater ⋅ g →
E 80 N
→ Vwater= = = 0.0082 =m3 8.2 mL
dwater ⋅ g g 1 kg 1000 mL 1000 L
1 ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ 9.8 N/kg
mL 1000 g 1L 1 m3
c) The density of the object can be calculated from its mass and its volume:
m 100 kg
d
= = = 12 195 kg/m3
V 1L 1m3
8.2 mL ⋅ ⋅
1000 mL 1000 L
16 An object weighs 1000 N and has a volume of 0.1 m3:

a) Will it float in a pool filled with fresh water? What about in a pool filled with seawater?
b) What density does the liquid in the pool need to have to keep the object completely submerged but
without sinking to the bottom?
c) Calculate the density of the object and explain how it should compare to that of the fluid for it to float
or sink.
Data: dseawater = 1030 kg/m3; dfresh waer = 1000 kg/m3.
144
a) The object will float if the buoyant force is able to match the weight of the object. In fresh water:
E = W → Wdisplaced liq. = W → mdisplaced liq. ⋅ g = W → ddisplaced liq. ⋅ Vdisplaced liq. ⋅ g = W →
W 1000 N
→ Vdisplaced liq.= = = 0.102 m3
ddisplaced liq. ⋅ g 1000 kg/m3 ⋅ 9.8 N/kg
The volume comes out as greater than the volume of the object, which is impossible, since an object
cannot displace a volume greater than its own. This means that the buoyant force cannot match the
weight, so the object will sink in a pool filled with fresh water.
For the seawater pool the situation changes, because the density of the liquid is different:
E = W → Wdisplaced liq. = W → mdisplaced liq. ⋅ g = W → ddisplaced liq. ⋅ Vdisplaced liq. ⋅ g = W →
W 1000 N
→ Vdisplaced liq.= = = 0.09907 m3
ddisplaced liq. ⋅ g 1030 kg/m3 ⋅ 9.8 N/kg
So, the object will float. It will be almost completely submerged in the seawater, but will not sink to the
bottom.
b) For the object to be completely submerged, the density of the liquid in the pool must have the same value
as the density of the object.
c) As we know its mass and volume:
m W / g 1000 N / 9.8 N/kg
d
= = = = 1020.4 kg/m3
V V 0.1 m3
Therefore, its density is somewhere between that of freshwater and seawater. Since it is more dense than
fresh water, it will not float in fresh water. But as it is less dense than seawater, it will float there.
17 A cylindrical cork with a radius of 2 cm and a height of 5 cm is immersed in a liquid with a density of 1.2
g/cm3. If the density of the cork is 0.72 g/cm3, use calculations to do the following:
a) Prove that when the cork is let go, it will float to the surface.
b) Calculate the acceleration it rises with.
c) Work out which percentage of the cork will protrude from the fluid.
a) Calculate the buoyant force on the cylindrical cork in the liquid. If it is completely submerged, the volume
of liquid displaced coincides with the volume of the cork, which is:
V = ABase ⋅ h = π ⋅ r 2 ⋅ h = π ⋅ ( 2 cm ) ⋅ 5 cm = 62.83 cm3 =
2
1 m3
62.83 cm3 ⋅
= 6.283 ⋅ 10 −5 m3
=
106 cm3
So the value of the buoyant force is:
=E WDisplaced
= liq. mDisplaced=
liq. ⋅ g dDisplaced liq. ⋅ VDisplaced=
liq. ⋅ g dDisplaced liq. ⋅ VCylinder
= ⋅g
1 kg
= 1.2 g / cm3 ⋅ ⋅ 62.83 cm3 ⋅ 9.8 N/ kg = 0.739 N
1000 g
It will rise to the surface if the buoyant force is greater than the weight of the cork. The weight of the cork
is:
1 kg
W= mCork ⋅ g= dCork ⋅ VCork ⋅ g= 0.72 g / cm3 ⋅ ⋅ 62.83 cm3 ⋅9.8 N/ kg = 0.443 N
1000 g
Since the weight is less than the buoyant force, the cork will rise to the surface, until the buoyant force is
equal to the weight.
b) The net force on the cork is the difference between the upwards buoyant force, and the downwards force
of the weight. Therefore, the acceleration will be:
145
FNet E −W E −W
FNet
= mCork ⋅ a →=
a = = =
mCork mCork dCork ⋅ VCork
0.739 N − 0.443 N
= = 6.54 m/s2
3 1 kg 3
0.72 g / cm ⋅ ⋅ 62.83 cm
1000 g
c) The percentage of cork that protrudes from the liquid is equal to the quotient between the density of the
cork and the density of the liquid.
Therefore:
dCork 0.72 g/cm3
% visible = ⋅ 100 = ⋅ 100 = 60 %
dLiquid 1.2 g/cm3

Look at the symbols on the weather map:
• Label points 1 and 2 as either an anticyclone or a storm.
Point 1: anticyclone. Point 2: storm.
• Explain what the weather will be like on the Iberian Peninsula and in the Canary Islands.
The weather will be stable and dry in the Canary Islands, while on a large part of the Peninsula there will be
rain and more intense wind, since the isobars are closer together and there is a cold front.
18 Why does atmospheric pressure vary at the same altitude?

Because of changes in temperature. The higher the temperature, the lower the atmospheric pressure. In
addition, in the atmosphere there are movements of hot and cold air that rises or falls, so that the amount of
air that exists above a certain altitude may vary.
19 What do we call an area with higher pressure than the surrounding areas?
Anticyclone.
ACTIVITY ROUND-UP
20 In your notebook, list which of the following statements describe pressure and which describe force:
a) It is a scalar quantity.
b) It is a vector quantity.
c) Objects submerged in fluids experience it.
d) If the area it acts upon increases, its magnitude decreases.
e) If the area it acts upon increases, its magnitude also increases.
f) In the SI it is measured in N.
g) In the SI it is measured in Pa.
h) It is measured using a manometer.
i) It is measured using a dynamometer.
a) Pressure. f) Force.
b) Force. g) Pressure.
c) Pressure. h) Pressure.
d) Pressure. i) Force.
e) Force.
146
21 Are the following statements about an object submerged in a fluid true or false? Write your answers
in your notebook.
a) It is only subjected to pressure forces when the fluid is a liquid, but not when it is a gas.
b) The forces acting on an object always have a vertical orientation and an upwards direction.
c) The forces exerted depend on the depth of the submerged object.
a) False. In gases there are pressures that originate forces.
b) False. They act in all directions, directed towards the object.
c) True. The greater the depth, the greater the force exerted.
22 In your notebook, explain if it is true that hydrostatic pressure:

a) Is the pressure exerted by water.
b) Is the pressure that an object submerged in a fluid experiences.
c) Depends on the density of the submerged object.
d) Can be measured in atmospheres.
a) False. It is the pressure exerted by a liquid.
b) True.
c) False. It depends on the density of the fluid.
d) True.
23 In your notebook, indicate which of the following statements about atmospheric pressure is correct:
a) It does not depend on the density b) It increases with height.
of the air. c) It stops acting at sea level.
a) False. The pressure depends on the density of the fluid, the height of the fluid and the gravitational
acceleration.
b) False. It decreases with height.
c) False. It is not zero, its value is greater than at a higher altitude.
24 Explain why the surface of a glass of water is always horizontal, even

when you tilt the glass.
Because the atmospheric pressure is the same at all points on the surface
of the glass.
25 In your notebook, indicate whether it is true that the hydraulic press is a device that:
a) Can change the magnitude of pressure.
b) Can change the magnitude of force.
c) Can change the orientation of a force.
d) Must contain an incompressible fluid.
a) False. c) True.
b) True. d) True, so that it can transmit the pressure.
26 Are the following statements about buoyant force and floating true or false? Explain your answers
in your notebook.
a) The magnitude of the buoyant force depends on the mass of the submerged object.
b) The magnitude of the buoyant force depends on the volume of the liquid in which the object is
submerged.
c) The magnitude of the buoyant force depends on the volume of the submerged object.
d) The magnitude of the buoyant force depends on the depth at which the object is submerged.
147
e) If the weight of the object is very small, it will always float.
f) If the weight of the object is less than the buoyant force, the object will sink.
g) If the weight of the object is equal to the buoyant force, the object will be in equilibrium.
h) If the weight is greater than the buoyant force, the object will rise to the surface and float.
a) False. d) True. g) True.
b) False. e) False. h) False. It sinks.
c) True. f) False.
27 Match the following terms to their definitions in your notebook:

Meteorology – Isobar – Anticyclone – Low-pressure area –
Warm front – Cold front – Occluded front
1. A line joining points with the same atmospheric pressure.
2. The branch of science that predicts the weather.
3. A front that causes light and prolonged rain.
4. It appears when the pressure drops towards the interior isobar.
5. It occurs when a cold front meets a warm one.
6. When it occurs the weather is dry with clear skies.
7. It occurs when a mass of cold air reaches a mass of warm air.
Meteorology: 2. Low-pressure area: 4. Occluded front: 5.
Isobar: 1. Warm front: 3.
Anticyclone: 6. Cold front: 7.
PRACTICE
28 A skier with a mass of 60 kg is moving across the snow on skis with a surface area of 1000 cm2 each.
If the skier removes his skis and puts on some boots, which have a surface area of 100 cm2 each:
a) What pressure will be exerted on the snow in each case?
b) Will the skier be able to move in boots if the snow is soft?
a) When he has the skis on:
F W m⋅g 60 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg
p= = = = = 2940 Pa
S S S 1 m2
2 ⋅ 1000 cm2 ⋅ 4
10 cm2
When he removes the skis:
F W m⋅g 60 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg
p= = = = = 29 400 Pa
S S S 1 m2
2 ⋅ 100 cm2 ⋅ 4
10 cm2
So, the pressure is greater when he walks in his boots.
b) If the snow is soft, he will sink when walking on it, and will not be able to move.
29 Why do bulldozers and diggers not get stuck on soft ground?

a) Because they have powerful engines.
b) Because they use caterpillar tracks.
c) Because they move very slowly.
a) False.
b) True. In this way they reduce the pressure on the ground.
c) False.
148
30 What pressure would a man with a mass of 60 kg exert if he lay on
a single nail with a surface area of 0.1 cm2.
a) Compare this with the pressure that he would exert if he lay
on a bed of 1000 nails.
b) What conclusions can you draw about the dangers of this type
of performance?
The pressure is:
F W m⋅g 60 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg
p= = = = = 5.88 ⋅ 107 Pa
S S S 1 m 2
0.1 cm2 ⋅ 4
10 cm2
a) If he lies on 1,000 nails:
p 5.88 ⋅ 107 Pa
p=
1000 = = 5.88 ⋅ 104 Pa
1000 1000
b) The more nails on the bed, the less dangerous the performance.
31 In your notebook, write down the correct explanation for why you cannot drive a nail into wood if you hit
the hammer on its tip, rather than its head:
a) The tip will break and the nail will bend.
b) The tip has a larger surface area and the pressure is greater.
c) The head has a smaller surface area and the pressure is greater.
d) The head has a larger surface area and the pressure is lower.
a) False. Although this can happen.
b) False. The tip has a smaller surface area.
c) False. The head has a larger surface area.
d) True.
32 Calculate the pressure exerted on the ground by a 30 kg suitcase that is 1 m long, 80 cm wide and 40 cm high,
when it rests on each of its faces.
When it rests on the 1 m by 0.80 m face:
F m ⋅ g 30 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg
p= = = = 367.5 Pa
S S 1 m ⋅ 0.80 m
When it rests on the 1 m by 0.40 m face:
F m ⋅ g 30 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg
p= = = = 735 Pa
S S 1 m ⋅ 0.40 m
When it rests on the 0.80 m by 0.40 m face:
F m ⋅ g 30 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg
p= = = = 918.75 Pa
S S 0.80 m ⋅ 0.40 m
33 A bathyscaphe is submerged in the sea.

Data: dseawater = 1030 kg/m3.
a) What pressure can it withstand when it is 1 m below the surface? What about when it is 100 m deep?
b) One of its hatches has a surface area of 0.5 m2. What is the minimum force necessary to open it in each
case?
a) When it is 1m deep:
p = d ⋅ g ⋅ h1 = 1030 kg/m3 ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 1 m = 10 094 Pa
When it is 100m deep:
p = d ⋅ g ⋅ h100 = 1030 kg/m3 ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 100 m = 1.0094 ⋅ 106 Pa
149
b) To calculate force, multiply pressure by the surface area. When it is 1m deep:
F
p= → F = p ⋅ S = 10 094 Pa ⋅ 0.5 m2 = 5047 N
S
When it is 100m deep:
F
p= → F = p ⋅ S = 1.0094 ⋅ 106 Pa ⋅ 0.5 m2 = 504 700 N
S
In this second case, the force necessary is much greater, because at greater depth the pressure is also
greater.
34 Why can't you get out of a submerged vehicle under water? What would you have to do to get out?
a) Push the door very hard to open it.
b) Wind down a window and climb out.
c) Wait for the interior to fill with water and then open the door.
Because the hydrostatic pressure is very high.
a) No, because we cannot exert enough force.
b) No, because water would be entering and we could not get out.
c) Correct.
35 A tube of water has three holes at an equal distance apart.

Explain which image shows how the water will escape.
There is more pressure at the bottom of the tube than at the
top. Therefore, the water that comes out of the lowest hole
must go further, since it comes out with a higher velocity.
And the water that comes out of the top hole will not go as
far, since it will come out with a lower initial velocity. Image B
shows the water coming out correctly.
36 Calculate the pressure that the bottom of a container can bear when it contains the following fluids:
The pressure depends on both the density of the liquid and its height:
pMercury
= dMercury ⋅ g=
⋅ h 13 600 kg/m3 ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 5=
m 666 400 Pa
For the water:

pWater
= dWater ⋅ g =
⋅ h 1000 kg/m3 ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 50 =
m 490 000 Pa
For the air:

pAir= dAir ⋅ g ⋅ h= 1.3 kg/m3 ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 50 m= 637 Pa
And for the hydrogen:

pHydrogen
= dHydrogen ⋅=
g ⋅ h 0.07 kg/m3 ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 500
= m 343 Pa
150
37 Find information on the hydrostatic paradox and
look at the image. Can the points in the wider
tubes bear a greater pressure? Write the points in
order, according to the pressure they can bear.
The pressure that each point bears does not
depend on the width or the shape of the tube, but
on the depth at which it is located.
In this case, points D and E are at less depth than A,
B and C. Therefore, the pressure at points A, B and
C is the same, and greater than the pressure at
points D and E, which is the same for both.
38 The Petronas Towers are 509 m high, making the whole building the eleventh tallest in the world. Assuming
that the density of air is 1.29 kg/m3 at this height, calculate the pressure difference between the ground floor
and the top floor.
The pressure difference depends on the height difference:
∆p= dAir ⋅ g ⋅ ∆h= 1.29 kg/m3 ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 509 m= 74.59 Pa
39 In 1654 in the German city of Madgeburg, the scientist Otto von Guericke demonstrated the efficiency of his
vacuum pump to Emperor Ferdinand III and his court. He also illustrated the considerable force exerted by
atmospheric pressure.
He used two copper hemispheres with a
diameter of 50 cm, and welded rings to
them. He connected one of them to the
vacuum pump, and put a piece of leather
between the hemispheres to form an
airtight seal.
When the pump started to remove air,
the hemispheres began joining together
until the seal was created. Two groups of
horses, pulling in opposite directions,
were needed to separate them.
In 2005, the experiment was repeated in
Granada. 16 horses were unable to
separate the hemispheres.
What force must each group of horses exert to separate the two parts of the sphere? Why weren't the 16
horses from Granada able to separate the hemispheres?
Each group of horses must exert a force capable of overcoming the force exerted by atmospheric pressure on
each hemisphere.
101 300 Pa 4 π ⋅ ( 0.50 m )
2
F 4π ⋅ R2
p = → F = p ⋅ Shemisphere = p ⋅ = 1 atm ⋅ ⋅ =
159 122 N
S 2 1 atm 2
The Granada horses did not exert enough force to overcome the atmospheric pressure prevailing at the time of
the experiment. There are several possible causes:
• The atmospheric pressure in Granada was greater than that of the initial experiment.
• Because of advances in technology, the vacuum achieved in Granada was more perfect than the vacuum in
the initial experiment in Magdeburg. This would have made it more difficult to separate the hemispheres.
40 If you prick your finger, a drop of blood will appear. Is the blood pressure in your capillaries higher or lower
than atmospheric pressure? What would happen when you pricked your finger if it was the other way
round?
The blood pressure in your capillaries is higher than atmospheric pressure. If it was the other way round, no
blood would appear.
151
When we say that the blood pressure is 120/80, this means that the highest pressure is 120 mm of Hg higher
than atmospheric pressure, and the lowest pressure is 80 mm of Hg higher than atmospheric pressure.
41 One of the tests carried out on cars when they are serviced is checking the brake fluid.
a) Why is it important that the circuit is full?
b) Could the fluid be replaced by brake gas?
a) Because if not, the fluid would not transmit the pressure necessary to activate the braking system.
b) No, because gases are compressible, so when we apply the brake pedal the gas would compress and not
transmit force like brake fluid does.
42 In 1653, the French scientist Blaise Pascal managed to break a

completely full barrel of water by adding just one extra litre.
He did this by inserting a very narrow glass tube into a hole in the
lid of the barrel, with an airtight seal around it. Study the
illustration and explain why this happened. Would the barrel break
if we used a tube of 10 cm diameter to pour a litre of water in it?
On closing the tube, the pressure at the bottom of the tube
increased as the height reached by the liquid increased, i. e., as the
length of the tube increased.
If we used a wider tube, the height of the liquid would be shorter, so
the pressure on the bottom of the tube would be lower, and it would
not break the barrel.
43 We want to lift a two-tonne car in a hydraulic press, which has a

small piston with a surface area of 100 cm2, and another one with a
surface area of 10 m2 Draw a diagram in your notebook showing how it works. Which piston should exert
the force? What force will be needed?
Diagram of the situation:
It would be best to exert the force using the piston with the smaller surface area, S1 in the diagram.
The force needed would be:
F1 F2 S S 100 cm2
p1 = p2 → = → F1 = 1 ⋅ F2 = 1 ⋅ m ⋅ g = ⋅ 2000 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg =
19.6 N
S1 S2 S2 S2 10 ⋅ 104 cm2
152
44 Calculate the buoyant force on a 5 cm3 steel marble (dsteel = 7.85 g/cm3) in the following liquids:
a) Tap water (dtap water = 1000 kg/m3).
b) Seawater (dseawater = 1030 kg/m3).
c) Oil (doil = 800 kg/m3).
The buoyant force is equal to the weight of the volume of the displaced liquid. In all cases a quantity of liquid
equal to the volume of the marble is displaced, but as the density of the liquids varies, the buoyant force will
also vary.
a) For the tap water:
1 m3
E WLiquid
= = mLiquid =
⋅ g dTap water ⋅ VMarble =
⋅ g 1000 kg/m3 ⋅ 5 cm3 ⋅ ⋅ 9.8 N/kg =
0.049 N
106 cm3
b) For the seawater:

1 m3
E WLIquid
= = mLIquid =
⋅ g dSeawater ⋅ VMarble =
⋅ g 1030 kg/m3 ⋅ 5 cm3 ⋅ ⋅ 9.8 N/kg =
0.051 N
106 cm3
c) For the oil:

1 m3
E = WLiquid = mLiquid ⋅ g = dOil ⋅ VMarble ⋅ g = 800 kg/m3 ⋅ 5 cm3 ⋅ ⋅ 9.8 N/kg =
0.039 N
106 cm3
45 An object weights 150 N in the air, 100 N in water and 125 N in another liquid. What is the density
of the object? What is the density of the other liquid?
The buoyant force on an object in water is equal to its weight in the air minus its weight in the water. In
addition, this buoyant force is equal to the weight of the displaced liquid (water). Therefore, we can write:
WAir − WWater 150 N − 100 N
WAir − WWater = E = dWater ⋅ V ⋅ g → V = = = 0.0051 m3 = 5.1 L
dWater ⋅ g 1000 kg/m3 ⋅ 9.8 N/kg
We can determine the mass from the weight in the air:
WAir 150 N
WAir = m ⋅ g → m = = = 15.306 kg
g 9.8 N/kg
Then we determine the density of the object from its mass and its volume:
m 15.306 kg
d
= = = 3001.2 kg/m3
V 0.0051 m3
Calculate the density of the other liquid from the weight in this liquid:
WAir − WLiquid 150 N − 125 N
WAir − WLiquid = E = dLiquid ⋅ V ⋅ g → dLiquid = = = 500.2 kg/m3
V ⋅g 0.0051 m3 ⋅ 9.8 N/kg
As the apparent weight in the other liquid is greater than in water, it means that the other liquid "pushes" the
object less than water does, because it has a lower density than water.
46 We put different amounts of sand into a plastic capsule and put it in water. When we let it rest, we see what
is shown in the images. Study the images and answer the following questions in your notebook:
153
a) Write in which case the buoyant force is greater, less than and equal to the weight.
b) Put the capsules in order of their mass, from smallest to largest.
c) Put the capsules in order of density, from smallest to largest. Does one capsule have the same density as
the fluid?
a) The buoyant force is greater than the weight in A, equal to the weight in B, and less than the weight in C.
b) Largest mass in C, then B, and the smallest mass in A.
c) Largest density in C, then B and then A. Capsule B has an average density equal to that of the liquid.
47 Bearing in mind that the density of lead is much higher than that of straw, answer the following:
a) Does a kilogram of straw weigh the same as a kilogram of lead in the air?
b) How could you prove it? To do so, answer the following questions: Do they take up the same volume?
Are they immersed in a fluid?
a) Not exactly. Since the density of lead is much greater, it will occupy a much smaller volume, and so will
displace a lower quantity of air than the straw. Therefore the straw will experience a greater buoyant force,
and weigh less than lead.
b) The kilogram of lead occupies less volume than the kilogram of straw.
Effectively, they are immersed in a fluid: air.
48 Draw two diagrams showing the forces exerted in each case. Pay attention to the length of the arrows
drawn.
a) The first case is without the finger in the glass.
b) The second case is with the finger in the glass.
a) The glass exerts a force on the scales: its weight. The scales exert a force on the glass: the normal force.
Answer:
Normal
Weight
b) The glass exerts a force on the scales: its weight. The scales exert a force on the glass: the normal force. In
addition, the fluid exerts an upwards buoyant force and the finger exerts the consequent reaction force
towards the fluid. This force adds to the weight and the scale indicates a larger mass then.
154
Answer:
Normal
Buoyant
Reaction to the
buoyant force
Weight
49 Calculate the difference between the values in the images.

a) What causes this reading? Relate it to the volume of water displaced by the glass.
b) How does the second reading change if you put your finger further into the glass?
c) What about if you put an object denser than your finger into the glass, like a steel bar?
The difference is the weight of 9 g, i.e. 0.009 kg · 9.8 N/kg = 0.088 N.
a) This value is due to the fact that the fluid exerts a buoyant force on the finger, and the finger, by the
principle of action and reaction, exerts a downwards force equal to the buoyant force on the liquid. The
force exerted is equal to the weight of the volume of water displaced.
b) If you put your finger further in, you displace a greater volume of water, and the buoyant force will be
greater. Because of this, the reading shown on the scales will be higher.
c) If the object is denser, the measurement does not vary, since the buoyant force is the same: the weight of
the displaced liquid.
50 Now imagine that you repeat the experiment with a glass that contains oil, a liquid that is less dense
than water.
a) How would the first reading change if we put the same amount of liquid in the glass?
b) How would the second reading change when putting your finger in the same amount?
c) What would the difference between both readings be with the oil? Would the difference be greater
or less? Why?
a) If the liquid is less dense, the scales would measure a lower value for mass.
b) The scales would show a higher value.
c) The buoyant force on the finger would be less, and then it will exert a lower extra force on the liquid, so the
increase in the mass measured will be lower.
51 Which variables determine the reading shown on the scales in an experiment like the one shown?
Copy the correct options in your notebook.
a) The density of the glass itself.
b) The density of the liquid that is in the glass.
c) The density of the object put into the liquid.
d) The total weight of the object put into the liquid.
e) The total volume of the object inserted.
f) The volume of the immersed part of the object.
155
a) False. The weight depends on the density of the glass, but the difference observed between both pictures
does not depend on the density of the glass.
b) True.
c) False.
d) False.
e) False.
f) True.
52 We have two steel spheres, each with

a mass of 1 kg. The first one has a higher
volume and is hollow, and the second one
has a smaller volume but is solid (A). If we
insert both into glasses with the same
quantity of water (B) and put them on
scales, which way will they tip? Why?
The weight in the air of both balls is the
same. However, there will be a greater
buoyant force on the ball with more volume
when in water, so its weight loss will be more noticeable.
Therefore, the scales will tip towards the solid ball with less volume.
INVESTIGATE
53 In your notebook, complete the table with the results of the experiment:
The answer will depend on the data obtained in the experiment. The weight in the water and the oil will be
lower than the weight in the air, because of the buoyant force exerted by these two liquids on the cylinder. In
addition, since the density of oil is lower than that of water, it will exert a lower buoyant force. And the weight
in the oil, then, will be greater than in the water.
54 Cylinders 1 and 2 weigh the same in the air, but not in the water. Which weighs more? Why?
In the water the cylinder of lower volume weighs more, since the buoyant force is greater for the cylinder of
greater volume, because it displaces a greater quantity of water.
55 Does the cylinder that weighs more when it is submerged in water also weigh more when it is submerged
in oil? Why? Would it be possible to find a fluid in which the cylinder that weighs more in water weighs
less, and vice versa?
Yes, because the buoyant force is less for this cylinder in both cases.
It would not be possible to find the fluid mentioned in the second question, because whatever the density of
the liquid, the buoyant force is always greater in the case of the cylinder that has a greater volume.
56 If you have not obtained the same value for the density of oil with both cylinders, explain what might have
caused this error.
The answer will depend on the data obtained in the experiment. The sources of the error could be found in the
measurement of the buoyant force or of the volume of the objects placed in the liquid, for example.
156
11
Work and energy

Work and energy 11
WORK WITH THE IMAGE
• Look at the pie chart above. How could the energy consumption of a train be reduced?
There are several different ways. One way is to use energy-efficient lights, with LEDs, for example. Another way is
to control the temperature indoors so that it is not too hot in winter or too cold in summer because of the air
conditioning. We could also design trains with less resistance to forward movement (aerodynamics), and avoid
rapid accelerations when driving the trains.
• What is the most energy-efficient form of transport?
In view of the graph, the train. But we must remember that these data correspond to trains at average or
maximum passenger capacity. If the average capacity decreases, the efficiency of this means of transport will also
decrease. The same applies to passenger cars: a greater number of passengers means that the energy is put to
better use, and the value of the energy consumed per passenger decreases.
STARTING POINTS
• What do we mean when we say that energy is transformed? Give an example.
We mean that it can be converted from one type to another. For example, electrical energy is transformed into
light energy in a lamp, or thermal energy in an electric cooker.
• If the efficiency of an electric engine is 90 %, what happens to the other 10 %?
It is not put to good use, in other words, it is wasted. For example, the parts of the engine get hot, something
that is not useful, in general.
ACTIVITIES
1 Write what type of energy is generated by:
a) The wind. d) A compressed spring.

b) Water in a river. e) Fuel.
c) Water from a reservoir. f) A fluorescent lamp.
a) Kinetic energy. d) Elastic potential energy.
b) Kinetic energy. e) Chemical energy.
c) Gravitational potential energy. f) Radiant energy.
2 Imagine that you're standing on a balcony and holding a ball in your hand.
a) What is the ball's speed? c) If you drop the ball, what happens
to its speed?
b) What type of energy does it have?
d) What type of energy does it have
while it falls?
a) Zero. It does not move.
b) Gravitational potential energy.
c) The speed starts to increase as it falls.
d) Kinetic energy, because it moves with a certain speed, and gravitational potential energy because it is at a
certain height from the ground.
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3

Repeat the solved problem assuming that the force F forms an angle of 30⁰ to the horizontal. How would
the Wfriction change if we moved to a surface where the coefficient of friction was less?
In this case the work done by the force varies with 
respect to the solved problem, since only the F
component that is parallel to the displacement does
work. Therefore, as the angle is 30⁰, the work done is: 30° 
  F ⋅ cos α
W = F ⋅ ∆r = F ⋅ ∆r ⋅ cos α = 5 N ⋅ 0.8 m ⋅ cos 30o = 3.46 J
The work done is somewhat lower than in the solved
problem, since only the component that is parallel to
the displacement does work.
The weight and the normal force remain perpendicular
to the displacement, so the work done by them is zero.
The work done by the frictional force is different, however, because the value of the normal force has changed.
In effect, as the car does not move in the vertical direction, we can write:
⇀ ⇀ ⇀ 9.8N
𝑁𝑁 + 𝐹𝐹𝑦𝑦 + 𝑊𝑊 = 0 → 𝑁𝑁 + 𝐹𝐹𝑦𝑦 = 𝑊𝑊 → 𝑁𝑁 = 𝑊𝑊 − 𝐹𝐹𝑦𝑦 = 𝑚𝑚 · 𝑔𝑔 − 𝐹𝐹 · sin30° = 0.750kg · − 5 N · sin30° = 4.85 N
kg
And the work done by the frictional force will be:
 
Wfriction = Ffriction ⋅ ∆r = Ffriction ⋅ ∆r ⋅ cos 180o = −µ ⋅ N ⋅ ∆r = −0.4 ⋅ 4.85 N ⋅ 0.80 m = −1.55 J
  
µ⋅N −1
It is lower in absolute value than in the solved problem because, as the normal force is lower, the frictional
force is also smaller.

The total work done to move the cart is equal to the work done by the force F plus the work done by the
frictional force.
Wtotal = 𝑊𝑊F + 𝑊𝑊friction = 3.46 J − 1.55 J = 1.91 J
4 A weightlifter lifts weights totalling 107 kg from the ground to a height of 2 m and holds them for 15 s
in this position. Calculate the work done:
a) While lifting the weights.
b) While holding them up.
a) While lifting the weights, the weightlifter exerts a vertical force that opposes the weight. Therefore:
⇀ ⇀
𝑊𝑊𝑤𝑤 = −𝑊𝑊 · ∆𝑟𝑟 = −𝑊𝑊 · ∆𝑟𝑟 · cos180° = −𝑊𝑊 · ∆𝑟𝑟 · (−1) = +𝑚𝑚 · 𝑔𝑔 · ∆𝑟𝑟 = 107 kg · 9.8 N/kg · 2 m = 2097.2 J
b) When the weights are held up, there is no displacement, so the work will be zero.
5 A 5 kg body moves at 3 m/s. A force of 2 N acts on it in the same direction as the motion for 15 m.
What velocity will the body acquire?
The work done by the force will be equal to the variation of kinetic energy. Therefore, we can write:
 
W = ∆EK = EK2 − EK1 → F ⋅ ∆r = EK2 − EK1 → F ⋅ ∆r ⋅ cos 0o = EK2 − EK1 →
→ 2 N ⋅ 15 m ⋅ cos 0o = EK2 − EK1 → 30 J = EK2 − EK1
Then:
1 1 1 1
W= ⋅ m ⋅ v22 − ⋅ m ⋅ v12 → ⋅ m ⋅ v22 = ⋅ m ⋅ v12 + W →
2 2 2 2
1 
2 ⋅  ⋅ m ⋅ v12 + W  5 kg ⋅ ( 3 m/s )2 + 2 ⋅ 30 J
 2    4.58 m/s
=→ v2 = =
m 5 kg
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6 A person driving a 500 kg car at 90 km/h sees an obstacle and brakes. The marks on the ground indicate
that the braking distance was 125 m. Calculate the frictional force between the car and the road.
First, express the velocity in SI units:
km 1000 m 1 h
90 ⋅ ⋅ = 25 m/s
h 1 km 3600 s
The variation of kinetic energy is equal to the work done by the frictional force. Therefore, we can write:
  1 1 1
∆EK Wfriction → EK 2 −=
= EK 1 Ffriction ⋅ ∆r → ⋅ m ⋅ v22 − ⋅ m=
⋅ v12 −Ffriction ⋅ ∆r → ⋅ m=
⋅ v12 Ffriction ⋅ ∆r →
2
  2 2
0, it stops
m ⋅ v12 500 kg ⋅ ( 25 m/s )

2
→ Ffriction = = = 1250 N
2 ⋅ ∆r 2 ⋅ 125 m
The problem could have been resolved by considering the kinetic energy but the calculations are more complex.
When the car brakes, the force responsible for the acceleration is the frictional force. With the data given in the
problem, we can calculate the acceleration of the vehicle, which has the opposite orientation to its velocity.
Since we know the braking distance was 125m:
1
s = v0 ⋅ t − ⋅a ⋅t2
2
0 = v0 − a ⋅ t
In this system of equations we do not know the acceleration or the time. Find the time in the second equation
and substitute into the first one. We have:
v0
0 = v0 − a ⋅ t → t =
a
2
1 v 1 v  v2 1 v2 1 v2
s = v0 ⋅ t − ⋅ a ⋅ t 2 → s = v0 ⋅ 0 − ⋅ a ⋅  0  → s = 0 − ⋅ 0 = ⋅ 0 →
2 a 2 a a 2 a 2 a
(25 m/s )
2
v02
→ a=
= = 2.5 m/s2
2⋅ s 2 ⋅ 125 m
Then we get the same value for force as before:
F = m ⋅ a = 500 kg ⋅ 2.5 m/s2 = 1250 N
7 A crane lifts a 5 kg body vertically off the ground with a force of 80 N. With what velocity does it reach
the destination point if it is at 6 m above the ground?
In addition to the force exerted by the crane, the force of weight, which has the opposite orientation, is acting
on the body.
During the process, the work done by the force modifies the body's energy. At its destination point it will have
both kinetic energy and potential energy. Therefore, we can write:
  1 1
W = ∆EM = EM 2 − EM 1 → F ⋅ ∆r = m ⋅ g ⋅ h2 + ⋅ m ⋅ v22 → F ⋅ h2 = m ⋅ g ⋅ h2 + ⋅ m ⋅ v22 →
 2 2
0
1 80 N ⋅ 6 m − 5 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 6 m
→ ⋅ m ⋅ v22 = F ⋅ h2 − m ⋅ g ⋅ h2 → v2 = 2 ⋅ = 8.63 m/s
2 5 kg
Again, we could have calculated the acceleration with which the body travels up from the net force acting on it,
but the calculations are more complex. It is easier to solve the problem by using energy considerations.
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8 A ball rolls down slide A from the indicated position. When
it reaches the bottom, it arrives at slide B and it goes up it.
Taking the results from the previous solved problems into
account, explain whether the following sentences are
correct in your notebook:
a) If there is no friction, the ball travels the same length
(∆x) on slide B as it did on slide A.
b) If there is no friction, the ball reaches B at the same
height (h) from which it left A.
c) If there is friction, it is impossible for the ball to reach the same height h from which it started.
a) False. If the energy is conserved, the height h which it will travel on slide B will coincide with the height
from which it started to fall on slide A, but the distance travelled will depend on the tilt of the second slide.
b) True. If there is no friction, no energy is lost, and the final energy must coincide with the initial energy.
c) True. If there is friction, a part of the ball’s initial energy is lost.
9 An 8 kg body slides down a plane inclined at 20° to the horizontal. Assuming that it was initially at rest,
calculate its speed when it has travelled 15 m:
a) Assuming that there is no friction.
b) If the coefficient of friction between the body and the
plane is 0.3.
a) If there is no friction, the variation of potential energy 20°
coincides with the variation of kinetic energy.
The distanced travelled and height variation are related to
this expression:
∆h
→ ∆h = ∆r ⋅ sin 20o
sin 20o =
∆r
The kinetic energy acquired will be equal to the potential energy lost. Therefore:
1 2 ⋅ m ⋅ g ⋅ ∆h
⋅ m ⋅ v 2= m ⋅ g ⋅ ∆h → v= = 2 ⋅ g ⋅ ∆r ⋅ sin 20=
o
2 m
= 2 ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 15 m ⋅ sin 20o  10 m/s
b) In this case the variation of mechanical energy will be equal to the work due to the frictional force.
The normal force has the same value as the component of weight perpendicular to the inclined plane. So:
N = Wy = m ⋅ g ⋅ cos 20o
At first it does not have kinetic energy. We can write:
1   1
EM 2 − EM 1 = Wfriction → ⋅ m ⋅ v 2 −
 m
 ⋅g ⋅ ∆
 h = Ffriction ⋅ ∆r → ⋅ m ⋅ v 2 − m ⋅ g ⋅ ∆h = −Ffriction ⋅ ∆r →
2
  ∆EP
2
∆EK
1 1
→ ⋅ m ⋅ v 2= m ⋅ g ⋅ ∆h − µ ⋅ N ⋅ ∆r → ⋅ m ⋅ v 2 =m ⋅ g ⋅ ∆h − µ ⋅ m ⋅ g ⋅ cos 20o ⋅ ∆r →
2 2
v
→= 2 ⋅ ( g ⋅ ∆h − µ ⋅ g ⋅ cos 20o ⋅ ∆r=
) 2 ⋅ g ⋅ ∆r ⋅ ( sin 20o − µ ⋅ cos 20o=
)
= 2 ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 15 m ⋅ ( sin 20o − 0.3 ⋅ cos 20o ) = 4.2 m/s
When there is friction, the speed acquired is lower.
10 Taking the results from solved problem 2 and activity 8 into account, for a body that is sliding down a ramp,
explain in your notebook whether:
a) The speed at which it reaches the end of the ramp depends/doesn't depend on the body’s mass.
161
b) If there is no friction, the final speed depends/doesn't depend on the length of the ramp and depends/
doesn't depend on the height from which it falls.
c) If there is friction, the final speed depends/doesn't depend on the length of the ramp and depends/
doesn't depend on the height from which it falls.
11 A pallet with 10 sacks of cement, each with a mass of 20 kg, needs to be lifted 6 m off the ground. A crane
does it in 4 s, whereas it takes a group of labourers 20 min.
a) Which does more work, the crane or the group of labourers?
b) Which has more power?
a) They do an equal amount of work; it does not depend on the time taken to do it.
b) There is more power when the work is done in less time. In this case, the crane has more power than the
labourers.
12 An engine with 10 HP and 30 % efficiency is used to lift 1000 L of water from a 25-m-deep well:
a) How much work does the engine do?
b) Calculate how much energy we must provide the engine with in J and in KWh.
c) How long does it take to lift the water?
a) The work done is equal to the water's gain in potential energy. As each litre of water has a mass of 1 kg, we
can write:
W = ∆EP = m ⋅ g ⋅ ∆h = 1000 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 25 m = 245000 J = 2.45 ⋅ 105 J
b) As the efficiency is 30 %, we must provide the engine with more energy.

100 
245000 J ⋅ = 8.16 ⋅ 105 J
30
Expressed in kWh:
 1 kWh
8.16 ⋅ 105 J ⋅ = 0.227 kWh
3.6 ⋅ 106 J
c) Express the power in SI units:
735 W
10 HP ⋅ = 7350 W
1 HP
Then the time taken is:

W W 8.16 ⋅ 105 J
℘
= t =
→= = 111.11 s
t ℘ 7350 W
ACTIVITY ROUND-UP
13 The following three sentences about work are true. In your notebook, explain why:
a) For there to be physical work, a force must act on a body which is displaced.
b) Sometimes a force acts on a body as it is displaced but does no work.
c) Work can be positive or negative.
a) If the body is not displaced, there is no work.
b) This happens if the force acts in the perpendicular direction to the movement.
c) When we provide energy to a body, the work is positive, but for frictional force, for example, the work is
negative because it is energy that dissipates (the force has the opposite orientation to the displacement).
14 Which of these two fictional characters has the greater mechanical energy?
a) Superman, who has a mass of 90 kg, flying at a height of 60 m and at a speed of 72 km/h.
b) Spiderman, who has a mass of 60 kg, flying at a height of 90 m and at a speed of 20 m/s.
162
Mechanical energy is the sum of kinetic energy and potential energy.
For Superman:
The velocity expressed in m/s is:
km 1 h 1000 m
72 ⋅ ⋅ = 20 m/s
h 3600 s 1 km
Then:
1 1
⋅ 90 kg ⋅ ( 20 m/s ) + 90 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 60m = 70920 J
2
ESup. = EK Sup. + EP Sup. = ⋅ mSup. ⋅ vSup
2
+ mSup. ⋅ g ⋅ hSup. =
2 2
For Spiderman:
1
ESpi. = EK Spi. + EP Spi. = ⋅ mSpi. ⋅ vSpi.
2
+ mSpi. ⋅ g ⋅ hSpi. =
2
1
= ⋅ 60 kg ⋅ ( 20 m/s ) + 60 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 90m =
2
64920 J
2
Therefore, the character with more energy is Superman.
15 Imagine that you throw a ball up in the air.

a) What type of energy is being produced?
b) What type of energy does it have when it reaches
the highest point?
c) What is the relationship between the types of energy
in questions a) and b)?
After reaching its highest point, the ball falls to the floor,
bounces and goes up again. This time, however, it reaches
a lower height than before. After each bounce, the ball
reaches a lower height until it stops.
d) Why does it reach a lower height after each bounce?
a) We are producing kinetic energy because we put the ball in motion.
b) Potential energy, because at the highest point its velocity is zero.
c) They are equal: the potential energy at the highest point coincides with the kinetic energy that we produce
when we throw the ball.
d) Because a part of the energy is transformed into heat in each bounce and the heat is dissipated into the
environment.
16 For an object that only moves under its own weight, explain whether it is true that:
a) Its mechanical energy always remains constant.
b) Its kinetic energy is always the same as its potential energy.
c) There is a point at which kinetic energy becomes the same as potential energy.
a) It is true if there is no friction.
b) False. As its velocity increases (if it falls), its potential energy decreases.
c) True. If there is no friction, for example, at the halfway point of the height from which falls, potential
energy is half of the initial potential energy and the kinetic energy has the same value as the potential
energy.
17 In your notebook, write down the quantities measured by the following units:
a) Watt. d) Calorie.
b) Joule. e) Watt · second.
c) Kilowatt hour. f) Horsepower.
a) Power. b) Energy or work.
163
c) Energy. e) It is power over time, so it is a unit of work.
d) Energy. f) Power.
18 Engine A does much more work than engine B. Write the conclusion we can draw in your notebook.
a) Engine A is more powerful than B.
b) Engine A uses more energy than B.
c) Engine A has a higher efficiency than B.
d) The friction that engine A must overcome is greater.
a) False. It would be true if both are running at the same time. It is possible for a less powerful machine to do
more work if it is running for a long time.
b) False. We do not know, since we do not know their power or efficiency.
c) False. We do not know, since we do not know their power or the time that they are running.
d) False. More work done does not mean greater friction. This would be true if both engines are the same.
Therefore, we can conclude that the fact that one engine does more work than another does not give any
information about its power or efficiency if we do not know, for example, how much energy it consumes, or the
time it is running.
PRACTICE
19 Indicate which type of energy the following objects and material systems have. What changes can they cause
to themselves or their surroundings?
a) A slingshot. e) A helicopter hovering in the air.
b) Petrol. f) A moving car.
c) A battery. g) A mug of hot chocolate.
d) The Sun.
a) Elastic potential energy. It can propel an object at great speed.
b) Chemical energy. It can be transformed into thermal energy.
c) Chemical energy. It can be transformed into electrical energy.
d) Radiant energy. It can be transformed into multiple types of energy; for example, kinetic energy when it
heats masses of air and causes wind; electrical energy in a photovoltaic panel; thermal energy, etc.
e) Gravitational potential energy. It can be transformed into kinetic energy if it drops down.
f) Kinetic energy. It can be transformed into gravitational potential energy if it goes up a slope.
g) Chemical and thermal energy. For example, it can be transformed into kinetic energy when we drink it, and
it helps us to move our muscles.
20 Calculate the work done by an athlete if:

a) She lifts a 50 kg bar 2 metres high.
b) She holds the 50 kg bar 2 m from the ground for 3 s.
a) The work done coincides with the variation of potential energy on the bar. Therefore:
W = ∆EP = EP final − ∆EP initial = m ⋅ g ⋅ hfinal − m ⋅ g ⋅ hfinal = m ⋅ g ⋅ ( hfinal − hinitial ) = 50 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ ( 2 m − 0 ) = 980 J
b) When she holds the bar 2 m from the ground there is no variation of potential energy or of any other type
of energy. Therefore, no work is done.
21 In which case does a student do more work?

• Case 1: he lifts a 300 g book from the floor to a height of 1.5 m.
• Case 2: he moves the same book by dragging it along the table, without friction, for 1.5 m.
In the first case the student does work, but in the second case there is no variation of the book’s energy, so no
work is done. So the student does more work in case 1.
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22 A body of 5 kg is placed on a table. The coefficient of friction between the table and the object is 0.4.
Calculate:
a) The horizontal force we must exert so that the body is displaced along the table with a uniform motion.
b) The work done by each one of the forces acting on the body and the total work done when the body
is displaced by 1.5 m along the table.
a) For the motion to be uniform, without acceleration, the net force on the body must be zero. When there is
friction, the force exerted must be of equal intensity to the frictional force:
F = Ffriction = µ ⋅ N = µ ⋅ m ⋅ g = 0.4 ⋅ 5 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg = 19.6 N
b) When the body is displaced along the table, both the force applied and the frictional force do work. For the
force applied, which has the same direction and orientation as the displacement:
 
W = F ⋅ ∆r = F ⋅ ∆r ⋅ cos 0o = 19.6 N ⋅ 1.5 m ⋅ 1= 29.4 J
The frictional force has the same value, but it is applied in the opposite orientation to that of the
displacement. Therefore, we can write:
 
Wfriction
= Ffriction =
⋅ ∆r Ffriction ⋅ ∆r ⋅ cos 180
= o
19.6 N ⋅ 1.5 m ⋅ (=
−1) −29.4 J
The work done by the frictional force is negative.
23 Calculate the work done when a suitcase is pulled 3 m along a horizontal surface, with a force of 10 N and no
friction, in the following cases:
a) The force has the same orientation and direction as the displacement.
b) The force forms an angle of 45° to the horizontal.
c) The force has a vertical orientation.
d) The force is acting in the same orientation as the displacement but in the opposite direction.
a) In this case the value of the work is:
 
W = F ⋅ ∆r = F ⋅ ∆r ⋅ cos 0o = 10 N ⋅ 3 m ⋅ 1= 30 J
b) Now the work will be less, because only the component that is parallel to the displacement does work.
 
W = F ⋅ ∆r = F ⋅ ∆r ⋅ cos 45o = 10 N ⋅ 3 m ⋅ cos 45o = 21.21 J
c) If the force is vertical, it is perpendicular to the displacement, so the work will be zero. In effect:
 
W = F ⋅ ∆r = F ⋅ ∆r ⋅ cos 90o = 10 N ⋅ 3 m ⋅ 0 = 0 J
d) Apply the same expression again to calculate the work done:

 
W = F ⋅ ∆r = F ⋅ ∆r ⋅ cos 180o = 10 N ⋅ 3 m ⋅ ( −1) = −30 J
24 A one-tonne car is at the top of a 20 m long ramp, which is 30° to the horizontal. There is a coefficient of
friction of 0.3 between the car and the ramp. Calculate the work done by each force acting on the car and
the total work when the car has reached the end of the ramp.
The component of weight parallel to the plane pulls the car
downwards, while the frictional force has the opposite orientation.
The component of weight parallel to the plane has a value of:
F=
m ⋅ g ⋅ sin 30o =
1000 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ sin 30o =
4900 N
The work that this force does during the descent is:
 
W = F ⋅ ∆r = F ⋅ ∆r ⋅ cos 0o = 4900 N ⋅ 20 m ⋅ 1= 98000 J
30⁰
165
The value of the frictional force is:
Ffriction = µ ⋅ N = µ ⋅ Wy = µ ⋅ m ⋅ g ⋅ cos30o = 0.3 ⋅ 1000 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ cos30o →
→ Ffriction =
2546.1 N
And the work done by the frictional force is:
 
Wfriction
= Ffriction =⋅ ∆r Ffriction ⋅ ∆r ⋅ cos 180
= o
2546.1 N ⋅ 20 m ⋅ (=
−1) −50922.3 J
The work done by the frictional force is negative, since the frictional force has the opposite orientation to the
displacement.
The total work will be:
WT =
W + Wfriction =
98000 J − 50922.3 J =
47077.7 J
25 Explain what conditions are necessary so that when a force acts on a body:
a) Only its kinetic energy changes.
b) Only its potential energy changes.
c) Its kinetic energy and its potential energy change.
d) Neither its kinetic energy nor its potential energy change.
a) The height it is at must not change, so that its potential energy remains the same.
b) The magnitude of the body's velocity must not change.
c) The body’s speed must change, and its height must also change.
d) The height of the body must not change, and the magnitude of its velocity must not change either.
26 A force acting on an object produces motion and an increase in its kinetic energy. In your notebook, explain
whether it is true that:
a) The force acts in the same direction as the motion.
b) The longer the force acts, the greater the increase in kinetic energy.
c) The kinetic energy acquired by the body depends on the distance travelled.
a) True. The force has the orientation of the acceleration.
b) True. If the force is acting for a longer time, it means that the acceleration on the body exists for longer.
c) True. If the force is constant, a greater distance travelled means more work done on the body, work that
serves to increase its kinetic energy.
27 A force acting on a body in motion can cause its kinetic energy to increase by any amount.
a) Can it also cause it to decrease by any amount?
b) What does the force acting on a body in motion have to be like for its kinetic energy to decrease?
a) Yes.
b) It has to act in the opposite orientation to the motion.
28 A one-tonne car travels along a horizontal road. The engine drives it with a force of 10 000 N. Assuming
that there is no friction, calculate:
a) The total work done when the car has travelled a distance of 20 m.
b) The speed it reaches after travelling 20 m, assuming that it was initially at rest.
a) The force has the same orientation as the movement. Therefore:
 
W = F ⋅ ∆r = F ⋅ ∆r ⋅ cos 0o = 10000 N ⋅ 20 m ⋅ 1= 200000 J
166
b) The speed can be calculated using kinematic or energetic considerations, but it is easier to consider the
conservation of energy and identify the work done by the car’s engine, and calculated in the previous
section, with the variation of kinetic energy.
1 2 ⋅W 2 ⋅W 2 ⋅ 200000 J
W=∆EK =EK final − EK initial = ⋅ m ⋅ v final
2
→ = v final
2
→ v final = = = 20 m/s
2 m m 1000 kg
29 A motorcycle is on a straight, horizontal track. Calculate the work done if:

a) You push with a force of 100 N for 50 s without managing to move it.
b) You push with a force of 500 N in the direction of the track, so that it travels 10 m in 10 s.
c) With a truck, you pull it with a force of 500 N so that it forms an angle of 60⁰ with the track, travelling 10
m in 20 s.
a) The work done is zero, because there is no displacement.
b) In this case the work done is:
W = F · d = 500 N · 10 m = 5000 J
The component of force that does work is the one that has the same direction as the displacement.
We have to multiply the force by the cosine of the angle it forms with the horizontal plane:
W = F · cos α · d = 500 N · cos 60° · 10 m = 2500 J
30 A 60 kg pole vaulter reaches a maximum speed of 10 m/s. Assuming that the pole vaulter allows all her
kinetic energy to be transformed into power, what height could she jump to? What is her energy when she
falls on the mat? What is her speed?
Show the positions of the pole vaulter during the jump. From the moment she propels herself until she lands
on the mat, she moves with the action of her own weight.
𝐸𝐸M1 = 𝐸𝐸M2 → 𝐸𝐸𝐾𝐾1 + 𝐸𝐸W1 = 𝐸𝐸K2 + 𝐸𝐸W2
Use the height at point 1 as a reference: h1 = 0.

At point 2, the speed of the pole vaulter isd zero (v2 = 0) and she stars to fall:
1
𝑚𝑚 · 𝑣𝑣12 + 0 = 0 + 𝑚𝑚 · 𝑔𝑔 · ℎ
2
1
· 102 = 9.8 · ℎ → ℎ = 5.1 𝑚𝑚
2
Consider the conservation of energy and apply it to points 2 and 3:

𝐸𝐸M2 = 𝐸𝐸M3 → 𝐸𝐸K2 + 𝐸𝐸W2 = 𝐸𝐸M3
𝐸𝐸M3 = 0 + 𝑚𝑚 · 𝑔𝑔 · ℎ = 60 · 9.8 · 5.1 = 29999 J
Assume that the thickness of the mat is insignificant when weconsider the height from which the pole vaulter
falls:the Ep of the pole vaulter at point 3 is zero:
1
𝐸𝐸M3 = 𝐸𝐸K3 + 𝐸𝐸W3 = 𝑚𝑚 · 𝑣𝑣32 + 0
2
1 2 · 2999 m
2999 J = 60kg · 𝑣𝑣32 → 𝑣𝑣3 = � = 10
2 60 s
Observe that if she returns to a point that is at the same height of the initial point, the speed coincides
with the speed she had at point 1.
31 A 58 g tennis ball is dropped from a height of 100 m. Calculate:

a) Its potential energy at the highest point.
b) Its speed at the halfway point and as it reaches the ground.
c) Its kinetic energy as it reaches the ground.
167
a) We calculate the potential energy from the mass, the gravitational acceleration, and the height of the ball:
EP = m ⋅ g ⋅ h = 0.058 kg ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 100 m = 56.84 J
b) At the halfway point its potential energy will be equal to half the value that it had at the highest point. As
there is no friction, the kinetic energy of the ball will also be half the value of the potential energy at the
highest point.
We can write:
EP 1 E EP 56.84 J
EK = → ⋅ m ⋅ v2 = P → v = = = 31.30 m/s
2 2 2 m 0.058 kg
c) Since mechanical energy is conserved, its kinetic energy as it reaches the ground, where the potential
energy is zero, will be equal the ball’s initial energy, which was only potential. So:
EK=
ground E=
P initial 56.84 J
32 To check how dangerous it is to drive at high

speeds, we usually compare a car’s energy
when it crashes at a determined speed with
the height from which it would have to fall to
have the same energy. In your notebook,
complete the following table for a car with
a mass of 1000 kg:
a) Why is it dangerous to drive at high
speeds?
b) When a car crashes, what is mechanical energy transformed into?
c) Why are cars today built with materials that are easily deformed?
The mechanical energy coincides with the potential energy at the highest point:
EM = EP = m ⋅ g ⋅ h
The potential energy at the highest point coincides with the kinetic energy at the lowest point.
The kinetic energy at the lowest point coincides with the potential energy at the highest point.
Therefore, we can write the mathematical equality:
1
EK = EP → ⋅ m ⋅ v2 =m ⋅g ⋅h → v= 2⋅g ⋅h
2
Substitute the values to complete the table:
Tower h (m) EM (J) EK (J) v (m/s)
Pisa 54 529 200 529 200 32.53

Hercules 104 1019 200 1019 200 45.15
Picasso 150 1 470 000 1 470 000 54.22
Eiffel 300 2 940 000 2 940 000 76.68
a) Because the vehicle's kinetic energy increases with the square of the speed, and the deformation suffered
by the vehicle at the moment of impact depends on the kinetic energy it has.
b) It transforms into the deformation of the materials that suffer the impact, and thermal energy.
c) Because they absorb the energy of the crash better, and the harm to the occupants of the vehicle is
reduced.
168
33 Look at the drawing. Which roller coaster could the car ride on in theory (without friction)? Which is possible
in reality and which is impossible?
Without friction, it could ride on roller coaster 1, because the height from which it starts on the left is the same
later on, without any increase. The potential energy that the car has on the left-hand part would be the same as
the energy it would have after the climb that occurs after the loop.
Drawing 2 is the real one, since there is always a certain amount of friction and the car cannot regain the same
height that it had at the start.
Drawing 3 is impossible. The height at the end of the ride is greater than at the start, which cannot be possible
even if there is no friction, because mechanical energy cannot increase.
34 At a certain point on a roller coaster, at a height of 20 m, a car has a speed of 30 km/h.

a) What is the maximum height it could reach?
b) What speed will it have when it passes the next peak, at 10 m above the ground?
c) What will its speed be when it reaches the ground?
a) We can calculate the maximum height it can reach from the car’s total energy at the point indicated. The
maximum height corresponds to a point where the speed of the car would be zero.
Express the velocity in SI units:
km 1 h 1000 m 
30 ⋅ ⋅ = 8.3 m/s
h 3600 s 1 km
Therefore, considering the conservation of energy:
1
EM 20=
m EM hmáx → ⋅ m ⋅ vinitial
2
+ m ⋅ g ⋅ hinitial =m ⋅ g ⋅ hfinal →
2
1 2 1 
⋅ ( 8.3 m/s ) + 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 20 m
2
⋅ vinitial + g ⋅ hinitial
→ hfinal
= 2 = 2 = 23.54 m
g 9.8 N/kg
b) We consider the conservation of energy:
1 1
EM final
= EM initial → ⋅ m ⋅ vinitial
2
+ m ⋅ g ⋅ hinitial =m ⋅ g ⋅ hfinal + ⋅ m ⋅ v final
2
→
2 2

) ( 8.3 m/s ) + 2 ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ (20 m − 10 =
2
→ v=
final vinitial
2
+ 2 ⋅ g ⋅ ( hinitial − hfinal
= m ) 16.29 m/s
c) When it reaches the ground, all the energy will be kinetic. Therefore, we can write:
1 1
EM =
20 m EM ground → ⋅ m ⋅ vinitial
2
+ m ⋅ g ⋅ hinitial = ⋅ m ⋅ vground
2
→
2 2

= ( 8.3 m/s ) + 2 ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 20=
2
→ vground
= vinitial
2
+ 2 ⋅ g ⋅ hinitial m 21.48 m/s
169
35 A sports car's engine has 300 HP.
a) Write its power in kilowatts.
b) How much energy does it consume if it runs for 10 minutes? Write the answer in kWh.
c) How long will it take to consume 1 GJ?
d) What force does it exert when it moves at 18 km/h? And at 120 km/h?
a) Use the corresponding conversion factor. 1 HP = 735 W.
735 W 1 kW
300 HP ⋅ ⋅ = 220.5 kW
1 HP 1000 W
b) The energy consumed is calculated from the power of the engine and the time taken:
E 1h
℘= → E =℘⋅ t = 220.5 kW ⋅ 10 min ⋅ = 36.75 kWh
t 60 min
c) Use the above expression and find the time:

109 J
1 GJ ⋅
E E 1 GJ
℘= → t= = = 4535.15
= s 1 h 15 min 35.15 s
t ℘ 220.5 kW ⋅ 1000 W
1 kW
d) We can calculate the force exerted by relating the power and the velocity:
℘ 220.5 ⋅ 103 W
℘= F ⋅ v → F = = = 44100 N
v km 1 h 1000 m
18 ⋅ ⋅
h 3600 s 1 km
At 120 km/h the force will be:
℘ 220.5 ⋅ 103 W
℘= F ⋅ v → F = = = 6615 N
v km 1 h 1000 m
120 ⋅ ⋅
h 3600 s 1 km
The engine exerts more force when the vehicle is moving at a lower velocity; for example, when it is going
up a slope.
36 A machine consumes 25 000 J to obtain 5000 J of useful energy.

a) How much energy is dissipated as heat?
b) What is the efficiency of the machine?
c) How much useful energy would be obtained if the efficiency was 40 %?
a) The energy dissipated is the difference between the energy consumed and the useful energy obtained. In
this case:
Q= Econsumed − Euseful= 25000 J − 5000 J= 20000 J
b) The efficiency of the machine is calculated by dividing the useful energy by the energy consumed.
Euseful 5000 J
=
η ⋅ 100
= ⋅ 100
= 20%
Econsumed 25000 J
c) If the efficiency was 40 %, double of the efficiency calculated in the previous section, the useful energy
would also be double, i.e. 10 000 J.
37 A lift whose cabin has a mass of 1500 kg has a maximum load capacity of 200 kg.
a) How much work does its engine do when the lift reaches a height of 60 m while carrying the maximum
load?
b) How much power, in HP, does the engine produce if it takes 20 s to reach this height?
c) The lift stays at this height for 10 s. How much power does the motor produce in this time?
170
a) The work done by the lift is the variation of potential energy experienced on lifting the load. Therefore:
W = ∆EP = m ⋅ g ⋅ ∆h = (1500 kg + 200 kg ) ⋅ 9.8 N/kg ⋅ 60 m = 999600 J
b) The power produced is:

E 999600 J 1 HP
℘= = = 49980 W ⋅ = 68 HP
t 20 s 735 W
c) When the lift stays up its mechanical energy does not vary, meaning that the work done is zero.
38 A lift with a 600 kg mass is pulled up by an electric engine at 1 m/s. If frictional force is 80 N, what force
is exerted by the motor? What is its power?
As it goes up with a constant velocity, acceleration is zero, and therefore the force exerted by the motor
is equal to the frictional force plus the weight:
F = Ffriction + Weight = 80 N + m · g = 80 N + 600 kg · 9.8 m/s2 = 5960 N
We can express its power like this:
P = F · v = 5960 N · 1 m/s = 5960 W
39 Complete the table showing information about the power developed by a weightlifter. They are training
by lifting weights vertically.
To calculate the work done we multiply the force by the displacement.

The power is calculated as the work done divided by the time taken. Therefore, the table will look like this:
Weight Displacement (m) Time (s) Power (W)

(N)
500 1 1 500
1000 1 1 1000
1500 2 2 1500
2000 2 2 2000
40 Copy and complete this table in your notebook and explain each of the changes in the diagram.
The table will look like this:
Type of energy It occurs when...
Mechanical (sound) … the ringtone sounds.

Radiant (light) … the screen lights up.
Other radiant energy … we make and receive calls.
Mechanical (vibration) … the phone vibrates.
171
Thermal (heat) … the phone heats up with
use..
Chemical … the battery charges.
41 Answer the following:

a) Is energy conserved in the transformations mentioned on this page?
b) Why, then, do we have to continuously recharge our phone battery?
a) Yes.
b) Because a part of the energy is dissipated as heat when the phone is in use. Also, a part of the radiant
energy emitted by the phone is released to the outside and not recovered.
42 Study the following table and think about your experiences as a mobile phone user: note down some
of the measures that you can take to prolong the battery life of your mobile phone.
Source: OCU (Organization of consumers and users).

Open answer. Some measures are: disconnect your Wi-Fi when not using it, and turn off the GPS navigator if it
is not necessary.
43 Draw a similar diagram to illustrate the transformations that occur in other appliances.
a) Electric mixer. d) Electric screwdriver.
b) Television. e) Microwave.
c) Toaster.
a) In an electric mixer, electrical energy is transformed into kinetic energy, mechanical energy (sound) and
heat.
b) Electrical energy is transformed into radiant energy (light), mechanical energy (sound) and some heat.
c) Electrical energy is transformed into thermal energy (heat).
d) The chemical energy stored in the battery is transformed into electrical energy; and this, into mechanical
energy (kinetic energy).
e) Electrical energy is transformed into radiant energy, mechanical energy (the internal plate rotates, sound).
Then, the radiant energy is transformed into thermal energy in the food.
44 Which transformations seem useful in a telephone? Which are not useful at all? What about the devices
mentioned in the previous activity?
The useful transformations are those that produce the desired effect, like lighting up the screen, making a
vibration, or emitting sound. The transformations that are not useful are those that heat up the phone’s circuits
or battery, for example.
It is similar for the other devices. In general, in those devices that are not used to produce heat, this
transformation is not useful. In the toaster, however, this transformation into heat is useful, because it is
supposed to produce heat. In addition, in many machines the sound produced also dissipates energy, and that
transformation is not useful; for example, in an electric mixer.
172
INVESTIGATE
45 Taking the results obtained into account, discuss whether the following sentences are true: When a ball
moves down an inclined plane, its mechanical energy...
a) … is always conserved.
b) … always decreases.
c) … is only conserved if the plane is sharply inclined.
Correct answer: b. This is because of friction. If there was no friction, the mechanical energy would be
conserved.
46 Does the mass of the ball influence the results of this experiment?
In theory, if there is no friction, no. But in practice, as there is friction, it does. This is because a larger mass
involves a larger normal force, which causes the frictional force to be greater.
47 Imagine that, instead of using a ball, the experiment was carried out with a wooden block sliding down
a ramp. Would we obtain the same results in terms of the variation of the wooden block's mechanical
energy in the upper and lower parts of the ramp? Justify your answer.
No, because the frictional force depends on the nature of the surfaces that come into contact during
displacement.
48 If the results of the experiment do not fit with the theory, consider the possible sources of error.
The results do not totally fit with the theory because there are losses due to the frictional force between the
ball and the ramp.
173
12
Energy and heat

Energy and heat 12
WORK WITH THE IMAGE
• Why do we say that thermal imaging shows temperature in false colours?
Because they are not real colours, but a correspondence between temperature and a colour code. The bodies
with a lower temperature are represented with bluer colours, and those with a higher temperature are
represented with more orange and reddish tones.
• When a glass of milk is heated in a microwave, why does the glass heat up less than the milk?
Because there are no water molecules in the glass, so the glass is not able to absorb the energy transported by
the microwaves. There is water in the milk, so it heats up directly, absorbing the energy of the microwaves. The
glass, on the other hand, heats up due to contact with the milk.
• To save energy, would you heat water on a glass‑ceramic hob or in a microwave?
In view of the graph, energy is used more efficiently by the microwave, so we would need a lower amount of
energy to heat water than if we used a glass-ceramic hob.
STARTING POINTS
• How do we measure body temperature? What units of temperature and heat do you know?
We measure temperature with a thermometer. The most common units of temperature are the degree Celsius,
the degree Fahrenheit and the Kelvin. Heat is measured in joules or calories, for example.
• What happens when two bodies at different temperatures come into contact?
Heat passes from the body with the higher temperature to the other body, until the temperatures of both bodies
are equal.
• How is a body affected when it absorbs heat? What about when it releases heat?
If a body absorbs heat, its temperature can increase, it can change state (for example, from solid to liquid) and it
can expand. If it releases heat, its temperature can decrease, it can change state (for example, from liquid to
solid) and it can contract.
ACTIVITIES
1 Imagine we heat a certain amount of water, increasing its temperature by 10 °C. Would we have to apply
more heat to increase its temperature by 10 K? What about to increase it by 10 °F?
For the temperature to increase by 10 K we would have to apply the same amount of heat, but to increase it by
10 °F we would have to apply less heat, as a variation of 1 °F is less than a variation of 1 °C.
2 Find a temperature for which the values on the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales are the same. Is there
a temperature which has the same value on the Celsius and Kelvin scales?
If the temperature is the same on the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales, we will have:
t ( o F ) − 32 t ( o C ) t − 32 t
= → = → ( t − 32 ) ⋅ 100= 180 ⋅ t →
180 100 180 100
−3200
→ 100 ⋅ t − 3200 =180 ⋅ t → 80 ⋅ t =−3200 → t = =−40
80
Therefore, −40 °C is the same temperature as −40 °F.
There is no value where the temperature in Celsius and Kelvin coincides, as the temperature in the Kelvin scale
is always 273 units higher than in the Celsius scale. T (K) = T (°C) + 273.
175
3 Is there a limit to the highest temperature value that can be achieved? What about the lowest?
There is no limit to the highest value, but there is a limit for the lowest value, which is the temperature of 0 K.
At this temperature, the movement of the particles in a body stops completely. Therefore, the temperature
cannot go any lower.
• The three burners are lit at the same time and with the same power, so they provide the same amount of heat.
What determines the final temperature?
It depends on the type of substance, and the quantity of matter, that we are heating.
4 To make a cup of tea, we use water at 90 °C. Calculate the amount of heat that must be applied to 150 mL
of water to increase its temperature from 20 °C to 90 °C.
Data: cwater = 4180 J/(kg · K).
Use the equivalence in mass of the volume of water: 150 g, and express it in kilograms. A variation in
temperature of 1 °C is the same as a variation in temperature of 1 K. The amount of heat is calculated from the
following expression:
1 kg J
Q= m ⋅ ce ⋅ ∆T= 150 g ⋅ ⋅ 4180 ⋅ ( 90 oC − 20 oC ) =
43890 J
1000 g kg ⋅ K
5 Look at the table of specific heats and the relationship between Q and ∆T and explain whether it is true that
when heat is transferred to a body, the lower its specific heat, the higher its increase in temperature.
In the picture we can see that the temperature of 200 g of oil increases more than the temperature of 200 g of
water. In the table we see that the specific heat of oil is lower than that of water. Therefore, it is true that the
lower the specific heat of a substance, the more its temperature increases when it is heated.
6 Calculate the specific heat of aluminium using the information from the solved problem. Ignore the heat
absorbed by the calorimeter. Compare your answer with the result obtained above and find the percentage
error in this calculation.
In this case we match the heat released by the water with the heat absorbed by the aluminium cylinder. So, for
aluminium. 100 g = 0.1 kg; 50 g = 0.05 kg
𝑄𝑄absorbed Al + 𝑄𝑄released water = 0 → 𝑚𝑚Al · 𝑐𝑐Al · ∆𝑇𝑇Al + 𝑚𝑚water · 𝑐𝑐water · ∆𝑇𝑇water = 0 →
→ 𝑚𝑚Al · 𝑐𝑐Al · �𝑇𝑇eq. − 100 °C� + 𝑚𝑚water · 𝑐𝑐water · �𝑇𝑇eq. − 20 °C� = 0 →
→ 𝑚𝑚Al · 𝑐𝑐Al · �100 °C − 𝑇𝑇eq. � = 𝑚𝑚water · 𝑐𝑐water · �𝑇𝑇eq. − 20 °C� →
J
𝑚𝑚water · 𝑐𝑐water · �𝑇𝑇eq. − 20 °C� 0.1 kg · 4180 kg · K · (26 °C − 20 °C) J
→ 𝑐𝑐Al = = = 677.8
𝑚𝑚Al · �100 °C − 𝑇𝑇eq. � 0.05 kg · (100 °C − 26 °C) kg · K
In the solved problem a much higher value is obtained. The percentage error is:
J
677.8
ce Al kg ⋅ K
=
Error = = 0.76 → 76%
ce Al Solved problem J
895
kg ⋅ K
The error committed by ignoring the heat absorbed by the calorimeter is very large, which means that the
calorimeter absorbs quite a lot of heat.
176
• Look for the exact data in the tables and calculate the heat needed to:
a) Melt 50 g of ice at 0 °C and melt 50 g of benzene at 5 °C.
b) Heat 50 g of water from 10 °C to 60 °C and heat 50 g of benzene from 10 °C to 60 °C.
c) Boil 50 g of water at 100 °C and boil 50 g of benzene at 80 °C.
Study the graph and explain the results obtained.
a) To melt the ice:
1 kg kJ
Qice = mice ⋅ Lf ice = 50 g ⋅ ⋅ 334.4 =
16.72 kJ
1000 g kg
To melt the benzene:

1 kg kJ
Q benzene = mbenzene ⋅ Lf benzene = 50 g ⋅ ⋅ 127 = 6.35 kJ
1000 g kg
b) To heat the water:

1 kg J
Q=
water mwater ⋅ ce water =
⋅ ∆T 50 g ⋅ ⋅ 4180 ⋅ ( 60 o C − 10 o C ) =
10450 J
1000 g kg ⋅ o C
To heat the benzene:

1 kg J
Q=
benzene mbenzene ⋅ ce benzene=
⋅ ∆T 50 g ⋅ ⋅ 1750 ⋅ ( 60 o C − 10 o C ) =
4375 J
1000 g kg ⋅ o C
c) To boil the water:

1 kg kJ
Qice = mice ⋅ Lv ice = 50 g ⋅ ⋅ 2248.8 =
112.44 kJ
1000 g kg
To boil the benzene:

1 kg kJ
Q benzene = mbenzene ⋅ Lv benzene = 50 g ⋅ ⋅ 396 = 19.8 kJ
1000 g kg
Although the two burners provide the same amount of heat, the water and the benzene do not change state at
the same temperature. For benzene, we need less heat than in the case of water, both to increase the
temperature of the benzene and to change its state from solid to liquid, and from liquid to gas.
7 Calculate the amount of heat that 5 kg of water at 0 °C must lose for it to freeze.
It is the same amount of heat as is necessary to melt 5 kg of ice. Therefore:
kJ
Q =mwater ⋅ Lsolidification ice =mwater ⋅ ( −Lf ice ) =−5 kg ⋅ 334.4 =−1672 kJ
kg
8 What amount of ice at 0 °C could we melt using 100 kJ?

Apply the same expression as above and find the mass of ice.
Q 100 kJ
Q = mice ⋅ Lf ice → m = = = 0.30 kg = 300 g
Lf ice 334.4 kJ
kg
9 What would be the final temperature after mixing 200 g of ice at −10 °C with 0.5 kg of water at 40 °C?
The ice will melt if the amount of heat released by the water is enough.
First, calculate the amount of heat required to melt the ice:
177
𝑄𝑄 = 𝑚𝑚 · 𝑐𝑐ice · ∆𝑇𝑇−10→0 °C + 𝑄𝑄melting = 𝑚𝑚 · 𝑐𝑐ice · ∆𝑇𝑇 + 𝑚𝑚ice · 𝐿𝐿f ice =
J
= 0.2 kg · 2090 · [0 °C − (−10 °C)] + 0.2 kg · 334 400 J/kg = 71060 J
kg · °C
Now calculate the heat released by the water if it goes from 40 °C to 0 °C.
J
· (0 °C − 40 °C) = −83600 J
𝑄𝑄released 40 °C→0 °C = 𝑚𝑚water · 𝑐𝑐water · ∆𝑇𝑇40 °C→0 °C = 0.5 kg · 4180
kg · °C
Therefore, the water releases more heat than the ice needs to melt. This means that all the ice will melt, and
that equilibrium will be reached at a temperature greater than 0 °C.
As equilibrium is reached when all the ice has melted, the amount of heat absorbed by the ice is equal to the
amount of heat released by the water. Therefore, as the heat absorbed is considered positive, and the heat
released, negative; using kilograms, °C and joules as units:
Qabsorbed + Qreleased = 0 → mice ⋅ ce ice ⋅ ∆Tice + mice ⋅ Lf ice + mice ⋅ ce water ⋅ ∆Tliquid water + mwater ⋅ ce water ⋅ ∆Twater = 0 →

71 060 J
→ 71060 + 0.2 ⋅ 4180 ⋅ (Teq. − 0 ) + 0.5 ⋅ 4180 ⋅ (Teq. − 40 ) =→

0
→ 71060 + 0.2 ⋅ 4180 ⋅ (Teq. − 0 ) =0.5 ⋅ 4180 ⋅ ( 40 − Teq. ) →
→ 71060 + 836 ⋅ Teq.
= 83600 − 2090 ⋅ Teq. →
12540
→ 2927 ⋅ Teq.
= 12540 → Teq.
= = 4.29 o C
2926
10 What amount of ice will melt if we mix 1 kg of ice at −10 °C and 1 kg of water at 80 °C?
Calculate the heat that the ice needs to melt:
𝑄𝑄 = 𝑚𝑚 · 𝑐𝑐ice · ∆𝑇𝑇−10→0 °C + 𝑄𝑄melting = 𝑚𝑚 · 𝑐𝑐ice · ∆𝑇𝑇 + 𝑚𝑚ice · 𝐿𝐿f ice =
J
= 1 kg · 2090 · [0°C − (−10 °C)] + 1 kg · 334 400 J/kg = 355300 J
kg · °C
Now calculate the amount of heat released by the water if it goes from 80 °C to 0 °C.
J
𝑄𝑄water = 𝑚𝑚water · 𝑐𝑐water · ∆𝑇𝑇 = 1 kg · 4180 · (0 °C − 80 °C) = −334400 J
kg · °C
This value is less than the heat the ice needs to heat up to 0 °C and melt. Therefore, not all the ice will melt. The
heat used to melt the ice will be:
J
𝑄𝑄melting = |𝑄𝑄water | − 𝑚𝑚 · 𝑐𝑐ice · ∆𝑇𝑇−10 °C→0 °C = 334400 J − 1 kg · 2090 · [0 °C − (−10 °C)] = 313500 J
kg · °C
And the mass of ice that will melt is:
𝑄𝑄melting 313500 J
𝑄𝑄melting = 𝑚𝑚ice · 𝐿𝐿f ice → 𝑚𝑚ice = = = 0.94 kg
𝐿𝐿f ice 334400 J/kg
The final temperature of the mixture will be 0 °C.
11 If we mix 30 g of water vapour at 110 °C with half a litre of water at 20 °C, what will we get?
We must determine if equilibrium is reached in the liquid or the gas state. Find the amount of heat that water
absorbs to go from 20 °C to 100 °C.
J
𝑄𝑄absorbed 20 °C→100 °C = 𝑚𝑚water · 𝑐𝑐water · ∆𝑇𝑇water 20 °C→100 °C = 0.5 kg · 4180 · [100°C − 20°C] = 167200 J
kg · °C
Now calculate the amount of heat released by the water vapour, from its initial temperature until it becomes
liquid water at100 °C:
𝑄𝑄released = 𝑚𝑚vapour · 𝑐𝑐vapour · ∆𝑇𝑇vapour + 𝑚𝑚vapour · 𝐿𝐿𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 = 𝑚𝑚vapour · 𝑐𝑐vapour · ∆𝑇𝑇vapour + 𝑚𝑚vapour · (−𝐿𝐿𝑣𝑣 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 ) =
J J
= 0.03 kg · 1920 · (100 °C − 110 °C) − 0.03 kg · 2248800 = −68040 J
kg · °C kg
We can see that the water needs more heat to get to 100 °C than the heat that the water vapour can release,
from its initial temperature until it becomes liquid. This tells us that equilibrium will be reached in the liquid
phase, at a temperature of below 100 °C.
178
If equilibrium is reached with all the water in its liquid state, then the heat released by the water vapour will be
equal to the heat absorbed by the water. So:
Qabsorbed + Qreleased = 0 → mwater ⋅ ce water ⋅ ∆Twater + mvapour ⋅ Lcondensation vapour + mvapour ⋅ ce vapour ⋅ ∆Tvapour = 0 →
→ 0.5 ⋅ 4180 ⋅ (Teq. − 20 ) + 0.03 ⋅ ( −2248800 ) + 0.03 ⋅ 1920 ⋅ (Teq. − 100 ) =→
0
→ 0.5 ⋅ 4180 ⋅ (Teq. − 20 ) = 0.03 ⋅ 2248800 + 0.03 ⋅ 1920 ⋅ (100 − Teq. ) →
→ 2090 ⋅ Teq. − 41800
= 67464 + 5760 − 57.6 ⋅ Teq. →
115024
→ 2147.6 ⋅ T=
eq. 115024 → T=
eq. = 53.56 o C
2147.6
12 If we mix 10 kg of ice at −5 °C and 10 kg of water at 5 °C, what will we get?

We can calculate the heat necessary for the ice to go from −5 °C a 0 °C.
J
Q= mice ⋅ ce ice ⋅ ∆=
T 10 kg ⋅ 2090 ⋅ 0 o C − ( −5 o C=
) 104500 J
kg ⋅ o C 
ice
Now calculate the heat given off when the water goes from 5 °C to 0 °C.
J
Qwater = mwater ⋅ ce water ⋅ ∆T = 10 kg ⋅ 4180 ⋅ ( 0 o C − 5 o C ) = −209000 J
kg ⋅ o C
It is a negative value because the water releases heat. We can see that the water gives off more heat than the
ice absorbs. This means that there will be enough heat to melt at least some of the ice.
Find out how much ice can melt with the remaining heat:
209000 J − 104500 J 209000 J − 104500 J
=
209000 J − 104500 J L=
f ice ⋅ mice → mice = = 0.31 kg
Lf ice 334400 J/kg
So, not all the ice melts. 10 kg − 0.31 kg = 9.69 kg of ice remains without melting. Therefore, the resulting
mixture will contain a certain amount of ice (which has not melted) plus the water from the melted ice and the
initial 10 kg of water, all of this at a temperature of 0 °C. There will be 9.69 kg of ice and10.31 kg of water.
13 Study the table on the previous page. Why is the latent heat of fusion of a substance lower than the latent
heat of vaporisation?
When a substance melts, it goes from a solid state to a liquid state. In the liquid state there is still some
connection between the particles. When a substance goes from liquid to gas, the particles gain a lot more
freedom. In general, more energy is needed to modify the forces that hold the particles together in the change
from solid to liquid than in the change from liquid to gas.
14 What size will a 2 kg bar of aluminium of 5 m reach if its temperature increases by 50 °C? What amount
of heat needs to be applied to the bar to achieve this?
We can calculate the increase in length due to the increase in temperature with the following expression:
l = l0 ⋅ (1 + α ⋅ ∆T ) = 5 m ⋅ (1 + 2.4 ⋅ 10 −5 o C −1 ⋅ 50 o C ) = 5.006 m
So, the length has increased by 3 mm.

The heat needed to cause this temperature increase is:
J
Q mbar ⋅ ce Al ⋅ ∆
= =T 2 kg ⋅ 878 o
⋅ 50 = C 87800 J
kg ⋅ o C
15 The temperature in Zamora can drop to −12 °C in winter and reach 42 °C in summer. What is the maximum
change in length that could occur in iron railway lines there, with an original length of 15 m?
We can calculate the increase in length due to the variation in temperature with the following expression:
l= l0 ⋅ (1 + α ⋅ ∆T ) → l − l0 = l0 ⋅ α ⋅ ∆T →
l0 15 m ⋅ 1.2 ⋅ 10 −5 o C −1 ⋅ 42 o C − ( −12o C=
→ l −= ) 0.00972 =
m 9.72 mm
179
16 Suppose that you re-do the experiment in the 'Know how to' section with water at 20 °C. Draw where marks
A, B and C would be if the bath was at a temperature of 4 °C. What about if the bath was at a temperature
of 50 °C?
With the bath at a lower temperature than the water in the flask, the flask will cool down and then contract.
Mark B will be above mark A. Mark C will be below mark A.
If the water is at 50 °C, the flask will heat up and we will have the same situation as the one in the ‘Know how
to’ section.
17 How could you increase the volume of a gas inside a balloon? Would the same happen with a basketball?
When heat is provided inside the balloon, its temperature increases and the walls of the balloon expand,
allowing the volume of gas to increase.
The same is not true for a basketball, since its volume is fixed and when the air inside is heated, the pressure of
the gas increases.
18 The scientist Humphry Davy (1778-1829) carried out an experiment in which he rubbed two pieces of ice
at 0 °C against each other. He noticed that part of the ice melted. How can you explain this?
In this case the heat does not come from another body that is at a higher temperature. When one piece of ice
rubs against another, a part of the kinetic energy of the pieces of ice is transformed into heat due to the
friction. This heat causes a part of the ice to melt.
ACTIVITY ROUND-UP
19 In your notebook, indicate whether these phrases describing a glass of water are correct.
a) It has a lot of heat.
b) It has a high temperature.
c) It has a lot of energy.
a) No. Heat is energy in transit. Bodies do not have heat.
b) Yes. The temperature can be high or low, even if we have a small amount of matter.
c) Yes. It can have a lot of energy if its temperature is very high. The thermal energy contained in the glass will
depend on its temperature and the amount of water there is in the glass.
20 Write the correct answer in your notebook. If we mix a litre of water at 20 °C with two litres of water
at 60 °C, we can deduce that the final equilibrium temperature will be:
a) 40 °C.
b) Between 20 °C and 40 °C.
c) Between 40 °C and 60 °C.
As there is more water at 60 °C, the equilibrium temperature will be closer to 60 °C than to 20 °C, since the
water at both temperatures comes into contact. Tell the students that if the substances that come into contact
are different (they have different specific heats), the above statement will not always be true.
21 Write the correct answer in your notebook. The amount of heat absorbed by a liquid to cause a rise
in temperature is directly proportional to:
a) Its mass.
b) Its volume.
c) Its nature.
d) Its density.
e) The change in temperature.
f) The time.
a) True. Heat is directly proportional to mass.
180
b) False. Heat depends on mass, not volume.
c) True, because every substance has its own characteristic specific heat.
d) False.
e) True. The larger the change in temperature, the more heat will be necessary.
f) False.
22 In a laboratory, we heat two liquids, A and B, which have the same mass. The results are shown in this graph.
Study it and answer the questions in your notebook.
a) After heating the liquids for five
minutes, what is the temperature
of each one?
b) How long does it take each liquid to
reach 70 °C?
c) Could liquid B be water? Explain
your answer.
d) Could A and B be two samples of
the same liquid? Why?
e) Which of them has a higher specific
heat?
a) The temperature of liquid A is 40 °C,
and the temperature of liquid B, 70
°C.
b) Liquid A needs 12 min liquid B needs 5 min.
c) No, because its temperature continues to increase on reaching 100 °C; there is no horizontal line on the
graph, which would indicate a change of state at 100 °C.
d) No, because their temperature variation is different, which indicates that they have different specific heats.
e) The substance with the higher specific heat is the one that shows a smaller temperature increase;
substance A.
23 In your notebook, indicate whether the following statements are correct:

a) Water can start to boil at 120 °C.
b) Melting is the change of state from liquid to solid.
c) The specific heat of a substance depends on its temperature.
d) The melting point of a substance is the same as its boiling point.
a) True. If the pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure, water boils at over 100 °C.
b) False. It is a change from solid to liquid.
c) False. We can consider it to be approximately constant while there is no change in state.
d) False. The boiling point is greater than the melting point.
24 Explain why the unit of the expansion coefficient is °C−1, whether it is the linear, area or volumetric expansion
coefficient.
Because it determines the quotient between the final length, surface area or volume and the initial length,
surface area or volume when there is a change of temperature, which is expressed in °C.
25 In a container, we have a certain amount of oil at 10 °C. In your notebook, explain if the following properties
increase, decrease or remain constant when its temperature reaches 50 °C:
mass – volume – density – specific heat
The mass remains constant.
181
The volume increases, since liquids increase in volume when heat is transmitted to them.
The density decreases, because the mass remains constant and the volume increases.
The specific heat remains approximately constant.
26 In your notebook, explain which of these thermal machines are possible and which are not.
Machines A, B and C (the ideal case) are possible. Machines D and E are not possible, because they produce
more work than the energy they receive.
PRACTICE
27 If we touch a piece of marble and a piece of wood, which are both at the same temperature, the wood will
feel like it is at a higher temperature.
a) Explain why it feels like this.
b) How could we check if this is really the case?
a) It is because marble conducts heat better than wood. When we touch them, if they are at a lower
temperature than the temperature of our hands, the heat is transferred from our hand to the marble more
rapidly than from our hand to the wood. This is why the marble feels colder.
b) By measuring the temperature of both bodies with a thermometer.
28 Our freezer stores ice at −15 °C. If we take some ice cubes out of the freezer and leave them on the kitchen
table, they end up melting.
a) What is the maximum temperature that the ice cubes will reach when they are on the kitchen table?
b) Where does the heat that melts the ice cubes on the kitchen table come from?
a) A temperature that is equal to the temperature of the air in the kitchen.
b) From the air that surrounds them and the surface of the table.
29 Calculate the amount of heat that 50 g of water at 100 °C must lose to reach 37 °C.
50 g = 0. 05 kg. The amount of heat is:
J
Q = mwater ⋅ ce water ⋅ ∆T = 0.05 kg ⋅ 4180 o
⋅ ( 37 o C − 100 o C ) = −13 167 J
kg ⋅ C
It is negative because it is heat that is lost.
30 Calculate the amount of heat that 50 g of water vapour at 100 °C must lose to reach 37 °C.
50 g = 0. 05 kg. In this case, in addition to the heat it loses when it goes from 100 °C to 37 °C, it first loses heat
when the water vapour is transformed into water.
J
Q= −mwater ⋅ Lv water =
−0.05 kg ⋅ 2248800 = −112440 J
kg
The total heat lost will be this amount plus the amount calculated in the previous activity:
Q= −112440 J − 13 167 J =−125607 J
182
31 Taking your answers from activities 29 and 30 into account, explain if it is as serious to spill water at 100 °C
over yourself as to be hit with a jet of water vapour at 100 °C.
It is worse to be hit by a jet of steam at 100 °C, because the heat it loses when it cools down is much greater
than that which the water would lose.
32 We apply the same amount of heat to 100 g of water, 100 g of aluminium and 100 g of oil. Which will reach
a higher temperature?
There is a greater temperature increase in the substance with the lowest specific heat. In this case, aluminium.
There is a smaller temperature increase in water, because it is the substance of the three with the highest
specific heat.
33 We put three balls with the same mass onto a thin layer of wax: one made of copper, one of lead and one of
iron. They all have the same temperature of 60 °C.
a) Which ball will fall through the wax first?
b) Which ball will fall through it last?
a) Lead has a lower specific heat than copper or iron, This means that it cools down and warms up more
rapidly. The first ball to fall through the wax will be the ball that releases heat the fastest; i.e., the ball that
has the lowest specific heat. In this case, it is the lead ball.
b) The last ball to fall through the wax will be the ball that releases heat the slowest; i.e., the ball that has the
highest specific heat. In this case, it is the iron ball.
34 To melt a 4 kg bar of gold, 251.2 kJ of heat energy was needed. Is this a bar of pure gold?
Data: latent heat of fusion of gold = 62,8 kJ/kg.
With this data we can calculate the latent heat of fusion of the substance in the bar:
Q 251.2 kJ
Q = Lf ⋅ m → Lf = = = 62.8 kJ/kg
m 4 kg
Therefore, as the value matches the latent heat of fusion of gold, we can say that the bar is pure gold.
35 Calculate the final temperature of a mixture of 10 L of water at 80 °C and 50 L of water at 20 °C. Assume
that no energy is lost to the surroundings.
The mixture will reach an equilibrium temperature of between 20 °C and 80 °C. As there is a greater quantity of
water at 20 °C, equilibrium will be reached at a temperature closer to 20 °C than to 80 °C. The heat released by
the warmer water must be equal to the heat absorbed by the cooler water.
Taking into account the criterion of signs, we can write:
Qabsorbed + Qreleased = 0 → mwater 20 oC ⋅ ce water ⋅ ∆Twater 20 oC + mwater 80 oC ⋅ ce water ⋅ ∆Twater 80 oC = 0 →
J J
→ 50 kg ⋅ 4180 o
⋅ (Teq. − 20 o C ) + 10 kg ⋅ 4180 ⋅ (Teq. − 80 o C ) =→ 0
kg ⋅ C kg ⋅ o C
J J
→ 50 kg ⋅ 4180 o
⋅ (Teq. − 20 o C ) = 10 kg ⋅ 4180 ⋅ ( 80 o C − Teq. ) →
kg ⋅ C kg ⋅ o C
J J
→ 209000 o ⋅ Teq. − 4180000 =J 3344000 J − 41800 o ⋅ Teq. →
C C
J 7524000 J
→ 250800 o = ⋅ Teq. 7524000 J → = Teq. = 30 o C
C J
250800 o
C
183
36 We put a 50 g aluminium cylinder at 100 °C into a calorimeter which contains 150 g of water at 20 °C and
quickly seal it so it is air tight. What will the temperature of the water be once the system has reached
thermal equilibrium?
Data: water equivalent of the calorimeter = 15 g.
One part of the heat that the aluminium cylinder releases is absorbed by the water contained in the
calorimeter, and another part by the calorimeter itself. We can write the equation of thermal equilibrium like
this:
Qwater 20 oC + Qcalorimeter + Qaluminium =
0→
→ mwater 20 oC ⋅ ce water ⋅ ∆Twater 20 oC + meq. water calorimeter ⋅ ce water ⋅ ∆Tcalorimeter + maluminium ⋅ ce aluminium ⋅ ∆Taluminium = 0 →
( )
→ mwater 20 oC + meq. water calorimeter ⋅ ce water ⋅ ∆Tcalorimeter + maluminium ⋅ ce aluminium ⋅ ∆Taluminium = 0 →
J J
→ ( 0.150 kg + 0.015 kg ) ⋅ 4180 o
⋅ (Teq. − 20 o C ) + 0.05 kg ⋅ 878 ⋅ (Teq. − 100 o C ) =→
0
kg ⋅ C kg ⋅ o C
J
→ ( 0.150 kg + 0.015 kg ) ⋅ 4180
kg ⋅ o C
) 0.05 kg ⋅ 878 kg ⋅J oC ⋅ (100 oC − Teq. ) →
⋅ (Teq. − 20 o C=
J J
→ 689.7 ⋅ Teq. − 13794=J 4390 J − 43.9 o ⋅ Teq. →
o
C C
J 18184 J
→ 733.6 o ⋅ T=eq. 18184 J → T=
eq. = 24.79 o C
C J
733.6 o
C
37 Why are the cables used to transport electricity between cities loose and not tight?
Because the cables expand somewhat with heat, and contract when the temperature drops. If they were tight,
and the temperature dropped, they could break. Since they are loose, the cable simply gets a little tighter when
it contracts, but it does not break.
38 The length of a steel cable is 500 cm at 0 °C. Write the temperature it must reach for its length to be:
a) 499 cm. b) 503 cm.
a) For its length to decrease, the temperature must also decrease:
l 499 cm
−1 −1
l l0 500 cm
l = l0 ⋅ (1 + α steel ⋅ ∆T ) → = 1 + α steel ⋅ ∆T → ∆T = = = −190.5 o C
l0 α steel 1.05 ⋅ 10 −5 o C −1
Then:
T = T0 + ∆T = 0 o C − 190.5 o C = −190.5 o C
b) For its length to increase, the temperature must also increase:

l 503 cm
−1 −1
l l0 500 cm
l = l0 ⋅ (1 + α steel ⋅ ∆T ) → = 1 + α steel ⋅ ∆T → ∆T = = = 571.4 o C
l0 α steel 1.05 ⋅ 10 −5 o C −1
Then:
T= T0 + ∆T= 0 o C + 571.4 o C= 571.4 o C
As we can see, large temperature variations are necessary for the length to vary in a perceptible way.
39 The surface area of a copper plate is 10 000 m2 when its temperature is 20 °C. Write what its surface area will
be at:
a) 100 °C. b) <−20 °C.
a) If the temperature increases, the surface area also increases.
) S0 ⋅ (1 + 2 ⋅ αcopper ⋅ ∆T =) 10000 m2 ⋅ 1 + 2 ⋅ 1.6 ⋅ 10−5 oC−1 ⋅ (100o C − 20o C )= 10025.6 m2
S= S0 ⋅ (1 + βcopper ⋅ ∆T =
184
b) If the temperature decreases, the surface area decreases:
) S0 ⋅ (1 + 2 ⋅ αcopper ⋅ ∆T =) 10000 m2 ⋅ 1 + 2 ⋅ 1.6 ⋅ 10−5 oC−1 ⋅ ( −20o C − 20o C )= 9987.2 m2
S= S0 ⋅ (1 + βcopper ⋅ ∆T =
As we can see, large temperature variations are necessary for the surface area to vary in a perceptible way.
40 Some electrical appliances have a thermostat

made of two different metal sheets joined
together (a bimetallic sheet). Suppose that two
sheets, one aluminium and one steel, with the
same surface area, have been soldered together.
The image shows how they bend when heated
and cooled. Explain which sheet is aluminium
and which is steel.
Steel has a lower linear expansion coefficient than
aluminium. Therefore, it will expand less when it
heats up, and contract less when it cools down.
In figure A, we can see that the orange-coloured sheet contracts more than the other one. So, the orange sheet
is aluminium and the grey sheet is steel.
When they heat up, like in figure C, the metal that expands the most is the one with the highest expansion
coefficient, i.e., the aluminium sheet. Therefore, we can also say that the orange sheet is aluminium here.
41 The hot reservoir of a thermal machine produces 100 kJ/min and releases 60 kJ/min into the cold reservoir.
Calculate:
a) The work carried out by the machine in half an hour.
b) The efficiency and power of the machine.
a) The work produced per minute will be:
Wuseful = Q1 − Q2 = 100 kJ − 60 kJ = 40 kJ
In half an hour:
W=
T 40 kJ/min ⋅ 30 min
= 1200 kJ
b) The efficiency of the machine is:

Wuseful Q − Q2 100 kJ/min − 60 kJ/min
=
η ⋅ 100
= 1 ⋅ 100
= ⋅ 100
= 40 %
Econsumed Q1 100 kJ/min
And the power will be the quotient between the work done and the time taken:
1000 J
1200 kJ ⋅
W 1 kJ 
℘
= = = 666.6 W
t 30 min ⋅ 60 s
1 min
185
42 The Industrial Revolution took place in the second half of the 18th century. This period saw the most
dramatic changes to human society since the Neolithic period. Carry out some research and prepare
a presentation including:
a) The reasons why the
Industrial Revolution is
associated with the steam
engine.
b) Which countries the
Industrial Revolution began
in and why.
c) The economic, technological
and social changes that
occurred in the countries
where it took place.
d) The spread of the Industrial Revolution and the changes it brought to the rest of the world.
Open answer.
a) The steam engine was the trigger for industrial development, because it enabled a machine to carry out
work that, until then, was done by people and/or animals.
b) It began in Great Britain, where there was a need to pump water out of mines at a fast pace. This prompted
the development of the first steam engines capable of doing this work more quickly than the methods used
until then, which were based on the use of force by people and animals.
c) The Industrial Revolution saw the development of numerous machines that began to be used to speed up
production in the industries. Many people migrated from the countryside to the cities, where these
industries were concentrated. Society transformed from a primarily rural society to a more urban society.
At this time the first trade unions also emerged, to defend workers' rights.
d) The Industrial Revolution spread to the rest of the western countries in just a few decades, and in this way
the world we live in was completely transformed. The revolution was completed, from a technological
point of view, with the appearance of the first electrical machines in the second half of the 19th century
and the first half of the 20th century. For example, means of transport began to be based more on
machines that used fuel to move instead of animal power.
43 Internal combustion engines revolutionised transport. Carry out some research and prepare a presentation
showing the history of these engines and the most important changes to their design over time.
Open answer. These changes are associated with the power of the engine, the type of fuel it uses, and its
efficiency in fuel use.
186
44 Look at this map which shows the expected

temperatures for the day.
a) According to the map, in which regions will
the temperature be highest? In which will
it be lowest? What is the expected
temperature for your region?
b) Now imagine that the predicted wind speed
is 40 km/h. How does this affect the
apparent temperature in the coolest
regions?
c) If the relative humidity of the air in the
coastal area of Murcia is 80 %, how does
this change the apparent temperature?
a) It will be highest in Canarias and in certain
parts of the Región de Murcia and the
Comunitat Valenciana. It will be lowest in the northern half and to the west of the Peninsula: Galicia,
Castilla y León, Asturias, Cantabria and the north of Aragón and Navarra. Open answer.
b) It will make the temperature feel colder. For example, in regions with a temperature of 10 °C, the apparent
temperature will be 0 °C.
c) It feels hotter. For example, if the temperature is 28 °C, the apparent temperature with this relative
humidity is 32 °C.
45 USE ICT Look at the website for the State Meteorological Agency, AEMET (http://www.aemet.es), or another
weather website. Search for the weather forecast for your town. Look at both the predicted temperature and
wind speed. From this data, what is the expected apparent temperature for the next few hours or days?
Open answer. The students are likely to have an application on their mobile phones that shows information
about the weather. Ask them to explain what information the application provides, and tell them that
applications developed by official organisms are more reliable.
INVESTIGATE
46 Compare the value for the specific heat of copper which you have calculated in this experiment with the one
that appears at the beginning of this unit. Identify any errors which may have been made and think about
how to reduce them.
Answer based on the results obtained in the experiment. We must bear in mind that in experiments involving
heat and temperature measurement it is complicated to get good readings, because the sources of error that
exist are by no means insignificant. For example, it is very difficult to insulate thermally the substances and
equipment used in the experiments.
Therefore, when putting the substance in the calorimeter it is impossible to avoid a part of the heat dissipating
into the surrounding air.
47 Find the specific heats of aluminium and lead in the table at the beginning of the unit. If you had done
the experiment with cylinders made of these metals instead, would the equilibrium temperature be higher
or lower than the temperature found with the copper cylinder?
Aluminium has a higher specific heat than copper, while lead has a lower specific heat than copper. The amount
of heat released by the metal cylinder (if the initial temperature of this is the same) is proportional to the
specific heat of the substance that forms it, so the aluminium will transfer more heat to the water and,
therefore, the equilibrium temperature will be higher when using aluminium than when using copper.
For the same reason, the lead cylinder will transfer less heat and, as a result, the equilibrium temperature will
be lower when lead is used than when copper is used.
187
Annexes
Formulas
Formulas Annexes
THE FORMULAS OF INORGANIC COMPOUNDS
1 Write the formulas of:

a) Barium fluoride e) Phosphorus pentachloride
b) Tin tetrabromide f) Nickel(III) sulphide
c) Phosphorus trifluoride g) Iron(II) bromide
d) Mercury difluoride h) Boron nitride
a) BaF2 e) PCℓ5
b) SnBr4 f) Ni2S3
c) PF3 g) FeBr2
d) HgF2 h) BN
2 Write the names of:

a) PbF2 c) AℓCℓ3 e) CdS g) SrSe
b) CsBr d) CaI2 f) Li3N h) Na2S
Make a table with the two nomenclatures, compositional and stock:
Compositional name Stock name

a) Lead difluoride Lead(II) fluoride
b) Caesium bromide Caesium bromide
c) Aluminium trichloride Aluminium chloride
d) Calcium iodide Calcium iodide
e) Cadmium sulphide Cadmium sulphide
f) Trilithium nitride Lithium nitride
g) Strontium selenide Strontium(II) selenide
h) Disodium sulphide Sodium sulphide

a) Palladium tetrahydride d) Iron trihydride
b) Mercury monohydride e) Hydrogen bromide
c) Cobalt(III) hydride f) Silver hydride
a) PdH4 d) FeH3
b) HgH e) HBr
c) CoH3 f) AgH
189
a) CaH2 e) CrH3 i) ZnH2
b) HI f) H2S j) HBr
c) PbH4 g) PtH4 k) CuH2
d) LiH h) H2Te l) NH3

a) Calcium dihydride Calcium hydride
b) Iodine hydride Iodine hydride
c) Lead tetrahydride Lead(IV) hydride
d) Lithium hydride Lithium hydride
e) Chromium trihydride Chromium(III) hydride
f) Dihydrogen sulphide Hydrogen sulphide
g) Platinum tetrahydride Platinum(IV) hydride
h) Dihydrogen telluride Hydrogen telluride
i) Zinc hydride Zinc hydride
j) Hydrogen bromide Hydrogen bromide
k) Copper dihydride Copper(II) hydride
l) Trihydrogen nitride Hydrogen nitride

a) Methane d) Phosphane
b) Hydrosulphuric acid e) Hydroselenic acid
c) Hydrotelluric acid f) Borane
a) CH4 c) H2Te e) H2Se
b) H2S d) PH3 f) BH3
6 Write the systematic and common names of these compounds:

a) HF c) H2Se e) HI g) H2S
b) SbH3 d) CH4 f) SiH4 h) HCℓ
Make a table with the two nomenclatures, systematic and common:
Systematic name Common name

a) Hydrogen fluoride Hydrofluoric acid
b) Antimony trihydride Stibane
c) Hydrogen selenide Hydroselenic acid
d) Carbon tetrahydride Methane
e) Hydrogen iodide Hydroiodic acid
f) Silicon tetrahydride Silane
g) Hydrogen sulphide Hydrosulphuric acid
h) Hydrogen chloride Hydrochloric acid
190
a) Tin(II) oxide g) Selenium dioxide
b) Dimercury oxide h) Gold(I) oxide
c) Diphosphorus pentaoxide i) Silver oxide
d) Lead(IV) oxide j) Carbon dioxide
e) Lead(II) oxide k) Dialuminium trioxide
f) Manganese dioxide l) Oxygen difluoride
a) SnO g) SeO2
b) Hg2O h) Au2O
c) P2O5 i) Ag2O
d) PbO2 j) CO2
e) PbO k) Al2O3
f) MnO2 l) OF2

a) MnO g) PbO2
b) Sb2O3 h) N2O5
c) NiO i) P2O3
d) CdO j) CuO
e) SeO3 k) O3Cℓ2
f) Co2O3 l) OF2

a) Manganese monoxide Manganese(II) oxide
b) Diantimony trioxide Antimony(III) oxide
c) Nickel monoxide Nickel(II) oxide
d) Cadmium oxide Cadmium oxide
e) Selenium trioxide Selenium(VI) oxide
f) Dicobalt trioxide Cobalt(III) oxide
g) Lead dioxide Lead(IV) oxide
h) Dinitrogen pentaoxide Nitrogen(V) oxide
i) Diphosphorus trioxide Phosphorus(III) oxide
j) Copper monoxide Copper(II) oxide
k) Dichloride trioxygen Chlorine(III) oxide
l) Oxygen difluoride Fluorine(I) oxide

a) Beryllium peroxide c) Chromium(II) peroxide
b) Dilithium dioxide d) Calcium peroxide
a) BeO2 c) Cr2O4 → CrO2
b) Li2O2 d) CaO2
191
a) HgO2 c) Co2O6
b) H2O2 d) Na2O2

a) Mercury dioxide Mercury(II) peroxide
b) Dihydrogen dioxide Hydrogen peroxide (oxygenated water)
c) Dicobalt hexoxide Cobalt(III) peroxide
d) Disodium dioxide Sodium peroxide

a) Mercury dihydroxide c) Platinum(II) hydroxide
b) Cadmium dihydroxide d) Copper(II) hydroxide
a) Hg(OH)2 c) Pt(OH)2
b) Cd(OH)2 d) Cu(OH)2

a) Ni(OH)3 c) Fe(OH)3
b) Bi(OH)3 d) LiOH
a) Nickel trihydroxide Nickel(III) hydroxide

b) Bismuth trihydroxide Bismuth(III) hydroxide
c) Iron trihydroxide Iron(III) hydroxide
d) Lithium hydroxide Lithium hydroxide

a) Periodic acid e) Carbonous acid
b) Hydrogen(trioxidonitrate) f) Dihydrogen(oxidoselenate)
c) Dihydrogen(trioxidosulphate) g) Chloric acid
d) Phosphoric acid h) Trihydrogen(tetraoxidoarsenate)
a) HIO4 e) H2CO2
b) HNO3 f) H2SeO
c) H2SO3 g) HCℓO3
d) H3PO4 h) H3AsO4

a) HBrO3 d) HNO g) H2CO3
b) HIO4 e) H2TeO3 h) H2SO4
c) HIO2 f) H3PO3
192
Common name Systematic hydrogen name
a) Bromic acid Hydrogen(trioxidobromate)

b) Periodic acid Hydrogen (tetraoxidoiodate)
c) Iodous acid Hydrogen(dioxidoiodate)
d) Nitrous acid Hydroxidooxidonitrogen
e) Telluric acid Dihydrogen(trioxidonitrate)
f) Phosphorous acid Dihydrogen(trioxidophosphate)
g) Carbonic acid Dihydrogen(trioxidocarbonate)
h) Sulphuric acid Dihydrogen(tetraoxidosulphate)
15 Complete the table below, writing the formula or name of the following salts:
Answer:
Formula Compositional name Stock name
a) AℓCℓ3 Aluminium trichloride Aluminium chloride

b) Au(HTe)3 Gold tris(hydrogentelluride) Gold(III) hydrogen(telluride)
c) SnF4 Tin tetrafluoride Tin(IV) fluoride
d) AgHS Silver hydrogensulphide Silver hydrogen(sulphide)
16
Write the formulas of:
a) Copper(I) sulphate e) Barium hyponitrite
b) Iron tris(trioxidonitrate) f) Zinc hydrogensulphate
c) Calcium bis(hydrogencarbonate) g) Manganese bis(dioxidobromate)
d) Calcium phosphate h) Aluminium chlorate
a) CuSO4 e) Ba(NO)2
b) Fe(NO3)3 f) Zn(HSO4)2
c) Ca(HC)2 g) Mn(BrO2)2
d) Ca3(PO4)2 h) Aℓ(CℓO3)3

a) CoSO3 e) Na2SO4
b) Aℓ2(SO4)3 f) KCℓO
c) ZnSO3 g) Pb(NO2)4
d) CaCO3 h) Sn(CℓO)4
193
Answer:
Common name Compositional name Stock name
a) Cobalt sulphate Cobalt trioxidosulphate Cobalt(II) trioxidosulphate

b) Aluminium sulphate Dialuminium tris(tetraoxidosulphate) Aluminium tetraoxidosulphate
c) Zinc sulphite Zinc trioxidosulphate Zinc trioxidosulphate
d) Calcium carbonate Calcium trioxidocarbonate Calcium trioxidocarbonate
e) Sodium sulphate Disodium tetraoxidosulphate Sodium tetraoxidosulphate
f) Potassium hypochlorite Potassium oxidochlorate Potassium oxidochlorate
g) Lead nitrite Lead tetra(dioxidonitrate) Lead(IV) dioxidonitrate
h) Tin chlorate Tin tetra(oxidochlorate) Tin(IV) oxidochlorate
194
THE FORMULAS OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
Write the formulas of:
18
a) Methane f) Naphthalene
b) But-2-yne g) Methylcyclobutane
c) Hepta-2,4-diyne h) Hexa-2,4-diene
d) Cyclohexane i) 3-methylpent-1-yne
e) 1,3-diethylbenzene j) Dodecane
a) CH4
b) CH3 − C ≡ C − CH3
c) CH3 − C ≡ C − C ≡ C − CH2 − CH3
d) H
H
H H
H H
H H
H H
H H
e)
CH3 − CH2 H
H CH2 − CH3
H H
f)
g) CH3
h) CH3 − CH = CH − CH = CH − CH3
i) CH ≡ C − CH − CH − CH3
CH3
j) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3
195
a) Ethane. f) 1-ethyl-2,4-cyclohexene.
b) Propene. g) 2-methyl-penta-4-in-1-ene
c) 2-methylpropane. h) But-1-ene.
d) 1,4-dimethylbenzene. i) 3-ethyl-cyclopentene.
e) 4,5-dimethyl-hex-2-ene. j) 4-methyl-pent-1-ene.

a) 1,2-dichloropropane c) 2,2-dichlorobutane
b) 2,3-dibromobut-2-ene d) 1-fluoro-3-methylbenzene
a) CH2Cℓ − CHCℓ − CH3
b) CH3 − CBr = CBr − CH3
c) CH3 − CCℓ2 − CH2 − CH3
d)
CH3
H
H F
H H

a) CℓCH3
Cℓ
b) Cℓ2CH − CH2 − C ≡ C − CH3
d) H3C − C − CH = CH − CH3
c)
H2C − CH3
F Cℓ
a) Chloromethane. c) 1-chloro-4-fluor-cyclobutane.
b) 1-chloropent-3-yne. d) 2-chloro-2-ethyl-pent-3-ene.
196
a) Propan-1-ol d) Methanol
b) Pentan-2-ol e) Diethyl ether
c) Cyclobutane-1,2-diol f) Butyl methyl ether
a) CH2 − CH2 − CH3
d) CH2OH
OH
e) CH3 − CH2 − O − CH3 − CH2
b) CH3 − CH − CH2 − CH2 − CH3
f) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − O − CH3
OH
c) H H
HO OH
H H
H H
a) CH3 − CH2 − CHOH − CH3 e)
b) CH2OH − CH2 − CHOH − CH3
OH
c) HOCH2 − CH2OH
d) CH3 − CH2 − O − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3 f) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − O − CH2 − CH2 − CH3
a) Butan-2-ol. d) Butyl ethyl ether.
b) Butan-1,3-diol. e) Cyclopropanol.
c) Ethanediol. f) Dipropilether.

a) Ethanal f) 3-methylbutanoic acid
b) Butanedial g) 2-chlorobutanoic acid
c) Cyclopentanone h) Ethyl propanoate
d) Methanoic acid i) Methyl methanoate
e) Butanedioic acid
f) COOH − CH2 − CH − CH3
a) CH3 − CHO
b) CHOH − CH2 − CH2 − CHOH CH3
c) O
|| g) COOH − CH − CH2 − CH3
H H
H Cℓ
H
H H O
H ||
H
h) CH3 − CH2 − C − O − CH2 − CH3
d) HCOOH
O
e) COOH − CH2 − CH2 − COOH ||
i) CH3 − C − O − CH3
197
a) Hexan-2,4-one. f) Diethanoic acid.

b) Ethanediol. g) 2-methylbutanoic acid.
c) Pent-3-one. h) 2-2-dimethylbutanoic acid.
d) Propanal. i) Methyl butanoate
e) Propanoic acid. j) Ethyl ethanoate.

a) Butan-1-amine d) Butan-2-amine
b) N-methybutanamine e) Methanamide
c) Butanamide f) N-ethylpropanamide
a) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 −NH2
b) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 −NH
|
CH3 e) H − C −NH2
||
O
c) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − C −NH2
|| O
O ||
f) CH3 − CH2 − C −NH − CH2 − CH3
d) CH3 − CH − CH2 − CH3
|
NH2
a) Propan-2-amine. d) Propan-1-amide.
b) N-methylethan-1-amine. e) N-ethylpropan-1-amide.
c) Methanoamine.
198

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2. Atoms and the periodic table .................................................. 15

3. Chemical bonds ....................................................................... 27

4. Carbon chemistry .................................................................... 39

5. Chemical reactions .................................................................. 54

6. Examples of chemical reactions .............................................. 69

9. Gravitational forces ............................................................... 126

10. Forces in fluids ....................................................................... 139

11. Work and energy ................................................................... 157

12. Energy and heat ..................................................................... 174

Annexes ................................................................................. 188

4 Write the following numbers with three significant figures:

5 Imagine that you are cycling around a track on a bicycle.

7 Explain why the following can't be accepted as hypotheses:

10 Explain whether the following statements express measurement accurately:

11 Write the dimensional equations for the following quantities:

17 Write the dimensional equation for velocity and acceleration.

a) It can be applied to the absolute error.

20 In your notebook, match each graph with the label

23 Use dimensional analysis to justify if the following expression is correct:

Now we repeat this for acceleration by time:

26 Calculate, using an appropriate number of significant figures:

c) The surface area is:

b) For the measurement with the laboratory scales:

a) Draw a graph to indicate the relationship between the variables.

The variables are inversely proportional, since their product is a constant.

Surface area (m2)

The green line represents the new substance.

39 Can you deduce any scientific laws from this experiment?

Atoms and the

3 Answer the question above using the atomic scale.

WORK WITH THE IMAGE Page 29

5 Complete the sentences in your notebook.

9 Copy and complete this table in your notebook:

Group Period Valence

WORK WITH THE IMAGE Page 37

Symbol Element N.° of electrons in Electrons Electrons lost Ionic charge

Proton Electron Neutron

Mass 1.673 · 10−27 kg 9.11 · 10−31 kg 1.675 · 10−27 kg

14 Match the following statements to the corresponding atomic model:

15 Draw the shape of s and p orbitals in your notebook.

a) What does the electron configuration of an atom represent?

a) Answer in the grid.

18 Copy and complete this table in your notebook.

Atom A Z Protons Electrons Neutrons

The modern atomic

Orbitals Difference in shape Difference in size

22 Draw a diagram to compare the following orbitals:

Atom Z Electron configuration Group Period Metal/non-metal

Ne 10 1s2 2s2p6 18 2 Non-metal

27 These are the electron configurations of some elements:

a) A is a metal from group 1 and period 2.

The size increases in a group and decreases in a period.

29 Are the following elements metals or non-metals?

a) Metal. c) Metal. e) Non-metal.

31 Put these elements in order according to their metallic properties:

• Calcium • Silver • Lithium

32 Put these elements in order according to their non-metallic properties:

• Fluorine • Sulphur • Chlorine

34 The Lyman series is located in the ultraviolet part of the spectrum.

a) Cu c) NaF e) SiO2 g) FeS

4 Study the formulas of ionic compounds that are formed by combining:

7 Are the following molecules polar or non-polar?