Assam 2020-21 NTSE Stage 1 Answer Key & Question Paper With Solutions PDF

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Assam 2020-21 NTSE Stage 1 Answer Key & Question Paper With Solutions
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Assam 2020-21 NTSE Stage 1 - Question Paper With

Solutions
Paper: MAT
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Directions (Q. No. 1-10): Find the odd word out.
Question 1. Find the odd word out.
a. Volume
b. Shape
c. Weight
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d. Large
Solution:
Answer: (d)
Large is an adjective but others are nouns.
a. Ear
b. Heart
c. Eye
d. Kidney
Solution:
Answer: (b)
All except the heart are present in pairs in the human body.
a. April
b. May
c. July
d. September
Solution:
Answer: (a)
All months except April come in odd positions when counting from January.
a. Cloud
b. Rain
c. Vapour
d. Fog Hi there! Got any questions?
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Solution:
Answer: (b)
Fog, clouds and vapours are formed by evaporated water (the �rst two by
condensation on particles and the third by evaporation alone) and stay
suspended in the atmosphere. However, rain is formed by the precipitation of
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water to the Earth's surface.
a. Cabbage
b. Papaya
c. Brinjal
d. Cucumber
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Papaya is the only fruit among the given options, all others are vegetables.
Question 6 Find the odd word out.
a. Haryana
b. Gujarat
c. Kerala
d. Tamil Nadu
Solution:
Answer: (a)
All states except Haryana have coastal boundaries.
a. Assam
b. Tripura
c. Mizoram
d. West Bengal
Solution:
Answer: (d)
West Bengal is not one of the northeastern seven sister states whileGot
Hi there! others are.
any questions?
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The seven sisters are Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram,
Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.
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a. Parrot
b. Koel
c. Vulture
d. Swan
Solution:
Answer: (d)
Swan is the only water bird and has webbed feet among the given options.
a. Wheat
b. Paddy
c. Maize
d. Mustard
Solution:
Answer: (d)
Wheat, Paddy, and Maize are food grains while Mustard is oilseed.
a. Snake
b. Lizard
c. Turtle
d. Whale
Solution:
Answer: (d)
A whale is a mammal while the other three are reptiles.
Directions (Q. No. 11-15): Find the odd numeral pair in each of the following
questions.

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Question 11. Find the odd numeral pair in each of the following questions.
a. 42, 4
b. 36, 6
c. 32, 2
d. 15, 5
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Solution:
Answer: (a)
42 is not a multiple of 4 while in other pairs the �rst number is a multiple of the
second number.
Question 12. Find the odd numeral pair in each of the following questions.
a. 13, 21
b. 19, 27
c. 15, 23
d. 16, 24
Solution:
Answer: (d)
All other pairs consist of odd numbers while the last pair consist of even
numbers.
OR
All other pairs of numbers are co-prime numbers whereas 16, 24 are not
coprime as they have HCF of 8.
Question 13.Find the odd numeral pair in each of the following questions.
a. 7, 18
b. 9, 26
c. 11, 36
d. 13, 42
Solution:
Answer: (c)
The pattern follows in all options as:
7 × 4 - 10 = 18
9 × 4 - 10 = 26 Hi there! Got any questions?

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13 ×4 - 10 = 42
But, for the third option: 11 × 4 - 10 = 34 ≠ 36, this pattern is not followed here.
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a. 3, 4
b. 4, 7
c. 5, 12
d. 20, 21
Solution:
Answer: (d)
All other options except the last one consist of one composite and one prime
number. In option d, both the numbers are composite.
a. 9, 3
b. ½ , ⅛
c. ⅓ , 1/12
d. 24, 6
Solution:
Answer: (a)
The pattern follows in all options as:
⅛ × 4 = 1/2
1/12 × 4 = 1/3
6 × 4 = 24
But, in the �rst option: 3 × 4 = 12 ≠ 9, this pattern is not followed here.
Directions (Q. No. 16-25) Find the odd pair in each of the following questions :
Question 16. Ship : sea :: camel : ?
a. Forest
b. Land
c. Mountain
d. Desert
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Solution:
Answer: (d)
The ship is used to travel by sea. Similarly, camels are used to travel in the
desert. Moreover, camels are also called ships of the desert.
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Question 17. Coconut : Shell :: Letter : ?
a. Letter-box
b. Stamp
c. Mail
d. Envelope
Solution:
Answer: (d)
The coconut is enclosed in a shell. Similarly, the letter is enclosed in an

envelope.
Question 18. Moon : Satellite :: Earth : ?
a. Sun
b. Planet
c. Solar System
d. Asteroid
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Moon is a satellite and Earth is a planet.
Question 19. India : President :: State : ?
a. Prime Minister
b. Governor
c. Chief Minister
d. Mayor
Solution:
Answer: (b)
The President is the constitutional head of India. Similarly, the Governor is the
constitutional head of the state in India.
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Question 20. Good : Bad :: Roof : ?
a. Window
b. Floor
c. Walls
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d. Pillars
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Bad is the antonym of good. Similarly, the �oor is the antonym of the roof.
Question 21. 4 : 19 :: 7 : ?
a. 54
b. 55
c. 57
d. 59
Solution:
Answer: (b)
4 × 5 - 1 = 20 -1 = 19
Similarly, 7 × 8 - 1 = 56 - 1 = 55
Question 22. 82 : 9 :: 26 : ?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 4
d. 9
Solution:
Answer: (a)
92 + 1 = 81 + 1 = 82
Similarly, 52 + 1 = 25 + 1 = 26
Question 23. 5 : 9 :: 10 : ?
a. 17 Hi there! Got any questions?

b. 28 I can help you...
c. 65
d. 126
Solution:
Answer: (b)
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22 + 1 = 5 : 2 3 + 1 = 9
Similarly, 32 + 1 = 10 : 33 + 1 = 28
Question 24. 18 : 30 :: 36 : ?
a. 54
b. 62
c. 64
d. 66
Solution:
Answer: (d)
18 × 2 - 6 = 36 - 6 = 30
Similarly, 36 × 2 - 6 = 72 - 6 = 66
Question 25. 8 : 32 :: 10 : ?
a. 42
b. 44
c. 45
d. 50
Solution:
Answer: (d)
82 /2= 64/2= 32
Similarly, 102 /2 = 100/2 = 50
Question 26. Choose the odd letter group or odd numeral group
a. CFIL
b. PSVX
c. JMPS
d. ORUX Hi there! Got any questions?
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Solution:
Answer: (b)
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a. CZHK
b. SENO
c. XUBU
d. YDFP
Solution:
Answer: (c)
We can see that except XUBU, in no other option the letter is getting repeated.
So, the correct answer for the odd one out is XUBU.
a. XW
b. PO
c. ML
d. FG
Solution:
Answer: (d)
Question 29.Choose the odd letter group or odd numeral group Hi there! Got any questions?
I can help you...
a. JOT
b. OUT
c. DOG
d. DIN
Solution:
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Answer: (b)
In JOT, there is one vowel, i.e., “O”.
In DOG, there is one vowel, i.e., “O”.
In DIN, there is one vowel, i.e., “I”.
But in OUT, there are two vowels, i.e., “O” and “U”.
Question 30.Choose the odd letter group or odd numeral group
a. HGF
b. XWV
c. NML
d. OPQ
Solution:
Answer: (d)
a. 383 Hi there! Got any questions?

b. 551 I can help you...
c. 242
d. 263
Solution:
Answer: (a)
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If we observe, we can see that the middle digit is the product of the other two
digits. But 383 does not follow this pattern.
For example in 551, 5 × 1 = 5 (middle digit)
In 242, 2 × 2 = 4 (middle digit)
In 263, 2 × 3 = 6 (middle digit)
But in 383, 3 × 3 = 9 ≠ middle digit
a. 8
b. 28
c. 216
d. 125
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Except, 28 all others are perfect cubes.
8 = (23)
216 = (63)
125 = (53)
a. 19
b. 17
c. 15
d. 13
Solution:
Answer: (c)
All numbers are prime numbers except 15, which is a composite number.
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a. 21
b. 69
c. 81
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d. 83
Solution:
Answer: (d)
21 has 4 factors.
69 has 4 factors.
81 has 5 factors.
Hence these three numbers are composite and on the other hand, 83 is a prime
number means it has only two factors: 1 and itself.
a. 392
b. 326
c. 414
d. 248
Solution:
Answer: (a)
In 326, 3 x 2 x 6 = 36, which is a perfect square.
Similarly, for 414, 4 x 1 x 4 = 16, again a perfect square.
For 248, 2 x 4 x 8 = 64, which is a perfect square.
However, for 392, 3 x 9 x 2 = 54, which is not a perfect square.
Directions (Q. No. 36-40) Complete the series :
Question 36.7, 12, 19, 28, 39, ___
a. 49
b. 51
c. 52
d. 57
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Solution:
Answer: (c)
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Question 37. 17, 19, 22, 27, 34, 45, ___
a. 58
b. 57
c. 56
d. 59
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Question 38. 2, 7, 28, 63, 126, ___
a. 210
b. 213
c. 215
d. 219
Solution:
Answer: (c)
We can observe the following pattern:
2 = (1)3+1
7 = (2)3-1
28 = (3)3+1 I can help you...
63 = (4)3-1
126 = (5)3+1
215 = (6)3-1
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Question 39. ND, IY, DT, YO, TJ, ___
a. MP
b. NQ
c. OF
d. OE
Solution:
Answer: (d)
Question 40. Z, X, V, T, R, P, ___
a. N
b. M
c. K
d. S
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Directions (Q. No 41-45): Arrange the items in the following questions in a

meaningful order
Question 41. Arrange the items in a meaningful order
(1) Consultation (2) Illness
(3) Doctor (4) Treatment

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(5) Recovery
a. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
b. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
c. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
d. 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
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Solution:
Answer: (a)
First, we should have an illness to go to the doctor. We take the consultation

from him, and he provides the treatment using which we recover.
So, the order is: (2) Illness, (3) Doctor, (1) Consultation, (4) Treatment, (5)
Recovery.
(1) Country (2) Furniture
(3) Forest (4) Wood
(5) Trees
a. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
b. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
c. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
d. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
Solution:
Answer: (a)
We have forests in the country. In the forests we can �nd trees which have
wood, using which we can make furniture.
So, the order is: (1) Country, (3) Forest, (5) Trees, (4) Wood, (2) Furniture
(1) Mother (2) Child
(3) Milk (4) Cry
(5) Smile
a. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
c. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 Hi there! Got any questions?
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d. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Whenever a child starts crying, the mother comes and feeds the baby using milk,
making the child smile.
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So, the order is: (2) Child, (4) Cry, (1) Mother, (3) Milk, (5) Smile
(1) Study (2) Job
(3) Examination (4) Earn
(5) Apply
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
c. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
d. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
Solution:
Answer: (d)
We have to study and give examinations �rst. Then we can apply for a job and
earn money.
So, the order is: (1) Study, (3) Examination, (5) Apply, (2) Job, (4) Earn
(1) Curd (2) Grass
(3) Butter (4) Milk
(5) Cow
a. 5, 2, 4, 1, 3
b. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
c. 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
d. 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
Solution:
Answer: (a)
The cow eats grass to produce milk. Using the curdling process, we can make
the curd from the milk, which then is churned to get the butter.
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So, the order is (5) Cow, (2) Grass, (4) Milk, (1) Curd, (3) Butter
Directions (Q. No 46-48): Find which one word can be made from the letters of
the given word:
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Question 46. MEASUREMENT
a. MASTER
b. MANTLE
c. SUMMIT
d. ASSURE
Solution:
Answer: (a)
All the letters of the word MASTER are present in MEASUREMENT as

highlighted.
Question 47. CHOCOLATE
a. TELL
b. HEALTH
c. LATE
d. COOLER
Solution:
Answer: (c)
All the letters of the word LATE are present in CHOCOLATE as highlighted.
Question 48. VENTURESOME
a. ROSTRUM
b. SERMON
c. TRAVERSER
d. SEVENTEEN
Solution:
Answer: (b)
All the letters of the word SERMON are present in VENTURESOME.

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Question 49. If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’ and ‘×’ means ‘–’, then 36 ×
12 + 4 ÷ 6 + 2 =?
a. 2
b. 18
c. 42
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d. 6 ½
Solution:
Answer: BONUS
We know that + means ÷, - means ×, ÷ means + and × means –.
Therefore, 36 - 12 ÷ 4 + 6 ÷ 2 = 36 - 3 + 3
= 36
Question 50. If ‘P’ denotes ‘’÷, ‘Q’ denotes ‘×’, ‘R’ denotes ‘+’ and ‘S’ denotes ‘–’, then
the value of 18Q12P4R5S6 is:
a. 53
b. 59
c. 65
d. 51
Solution:
Answer: (a)
We know that,
P denotes ÷, Q denotes ×, R denotes + and S denotes -.
Therefore, 18Q12P4R5S6 = 18 × 12 ÷ 4 + 5 - 6
= 18 × 3 + 5 - 6
= 54 + 5 - 6 = 53
Question 51. If 9 × 3 = 36; 11 × 7 = 81 then 5 × 13 = ?
a. 65
b. 66
c. 81
d. 51
Solution:
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Answer: (c)
The pattern follows as:
If 9 × 3 = 36; 9 + 3 = 12 then 12/2 = 6 and 62 = 36
If 11 × 7 = 81; 11 + 7 = 18 then 18/2 = 9 and 92 = 81
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Similarly, 5 × 3 = 81; because 5 + 13 = 18 then 18/2 = 9 and 9 2 = 81
Question 52. If 31 + 72 = 26; 52 + 45 = 32 then 47 + 83 = ?
a. 88
b. 44
c. 65
d. 130
Solution:
Answer: (b)
The pattern follows as:
If 31 + 72 = 26; 3 + 1 + 7 + 2 = 13 and 13 × 2 = 26
If 52 + 45 = 32; 5 + 2 + 4 + 5 = 16 and 16 × 2 = 32
Similarly, 47 + 83 = 44; because 4 + 7 + 8 + 3 = 22 and 22 × 2 = 44.
Directions (Q. No 53-55) Find the absolute truth out of the given alternatives :
Question 53. A fan always has
a. Switch
b. Blades
c. Current
d. Wire
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Blades are a mandatory component of the fan whereas switch, current, and wire
are not.
Question 54. Milk always contains
a. Sugar
b. Fats I can help you...
c. Calcium
d. Water
Solution:
Answer: (c)
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Sugar, fats, and water can be a part of the milk but calcium is the most essential
constituent of milk.
Question 55. A child must have
a. Toys
b. Friends
c. Parents
d. Education
Solution:
Answer: (c)
Toys, friends, and education are not important for the existence of a child.
However, parents are a necessity to bear the child. Hence, a child must have
parents.
Question 56. A and B are brothers, C and D are sisters. A’s son is D's brother. How is
B related to C?
a. Father
b. Brother
c. Uncle
d. Grand Father
Solution:
Answer: (c)
HiC
C is the sister of son of A. Hence, C is the daughter of A. So, there!
is theGot any questions?
daughter of
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B’s brother. Hence, B is the uncle of C.
Question 57. Kumud is the brother of Anil. Kumud is the son of Parimal. Bimal is
Parimal’s father. How is Anil related to Bimal?
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a. Son
b. Grandson
c. Brother
d. Grand Father
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Question 58. A + B means A is the son of B. A – B means A is the wife of B. What

does P + R – Q mean?
a. ‘Q’ is the father of ‘P’ Hi there! Got any questions?

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b. ‘Q’ is the son of ‘P’
c. ‘Q’ is the uncle of ‘P’
d. ‘Q’ is the brother of ‘P’
Solution:
Answer: (a)
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P + R - Q means P is the son of R and R is the wife of Q. Hence, Q is the father of

P.
Question 59. ‘A × B’ means 'A is the brother of B’ ‘A ÷ B' means 'A is the mother of B’.
What does P × R ÷ Q mean?
a. ‘P’ is the brother of ‘Q’

b. ‘P’ is the father of ‘Q’
c. ‘P’ is the uncle of ‘Q’
d. ‘P’ is the nephew of ‘Q’
Solution:
Answer: (c)
P × R ÷ Q means P is the brother of R and R is the mother of Q. Hence, P is the

uncle of Q.

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Question 60. A + B means A is the father of B. A ÷ B means A is the daughter of B.

What does P ÷ R + Q mean?
a. ‘P’ is the father of ‘Q’

b. ‘P’ is the brother of ‘Q’
c. ‘P’ is the mother of ‘Q’
d. ‘P’ is the sister of ‘Q’
Solution:
Answer: (d)
P ÷ R + Q means P is the daughter of R and R is the father of Q. Hence, P is the

sister of Q.
Directions (Q. No 61-65): In each of the following questions, three �gures are similar
in a certain way. Choose the �gure which is different from the rest.
Question 61. Choose the �gure which is different from the rest Hi there! Got any questions?
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Solution:
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Answer: (c)
In all the circles except the circle labelled (c), the line passes through the centre
of the circle.
Question 62. Choose the �gure which is different from the rest
Solution:
Answer: (d)
The �gure labelled (d) is the only �gure which shows a complete arrow along a
single diameter of the circle.
Solution:
Answer: (c)
The �gure labelled (c) is the only �gure which starts with a caret (^) symbol and
hence the odd one out.

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Solution:
Answer: (b)
In all the �gures except in (b) mirror images are present. The correct mirror
image of in (b) should have been
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Solution:
Answer: (c)
It can be seen in �gures (a), (b) and (d) the line inside the square lies on the 4th
vertex and in (c) it is on the 3rd vertex. In all the images, the line inside the
square intersects at the upper end, whereas in the image labelled (c) it
intersects at the lower end.
Directions (Q. No. 66-70) In each of the following questions, there are three
problem �gures followed by a question mark (?) for the fourth one. There
exists a relationship between the �rst two problem �gures. A similar
relationship should exist between the third and fourth �gures. Find the one
from the answer �gures that correctly replaces the question mark.
Question 66. Find the one from the answer �gures that correctly replaces the
question mark
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Solution:
Answer: (a)
The two circles of the �rst �gure overlap in the second �gure.
Similarly, two pointed structures of the third �gure overlap in the fourth �gure.
question mark

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27 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Solution:
Answer: (c)
There is an addition of one dot at the centre in the second �gure.
Similarly, one dot is added at the centre in the fourth �gure.
question mark

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Solution:
Answer: BONUS
Two white dots from the �rst �gure go out of the shape and one black dot takes
their place in the second �gure.
Similarly, two white dots are taken out of the shape and one black dot is placed
at their position in the fourth �gure.
question mark I can help you...
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Solution:
Answer: (b)
There is an increment of one side in both the interior triangle and exterior
triangle to form two rectangles. So, from a square which has 4 sides (both inside
and outside), we’ll obtain a �gure that has 5 sides both inside and outside. Most
suitable is (b).
question mark

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Solution:
Answer: (d)
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The pattern follows here as:
(Number of sides) x (Number of sides + 1)
Question 71. How many straight lines are contained in the �gure given below?
a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
Solution:
Answer: (a)

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It is clear from the �gure that:
Horizontal lines = 2
Vertical lines = 3
Slanting lines = 4
Hence, the �gure contains 9 straight lines.
Question 72. How many triangles are contained in the �gure given below?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 14
Solution:
Answer: (c)

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Total number of triangles = 4+4+2+2 = 12
Question 73. How many squares are contained in the following �gure?
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a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
Solution:
Answer: (d)
Total number of squares = 6+1+1+1 = 9
Question 74. How many rectangles are there in the following �gure?

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a. 8
b. 17
c. 18
d. 19
Solution:
Answer: (c)
There are 18 rectangles contained in the �gure as shown.
Total number of rectangles = 8+5+2+2+1 = 18
Question 75. How many triangles are there in the following �gure?

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a. 8
b. 9
c. 16
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d. 11
Solution:
Answer: (c)
There are 16 triangles in the �gure as shown
Total number of triangles = 6 + 3 + 6 + 1 = 16
Directions (Q. No. 76-82) In each of the following questions, numbers are placed in
the �gures on the basis of some logic. One place is vacant and indicated by a
question mark (?). Find out the correct alternatives to replace the question mark.
Question 76. Find out the correct alternatives to replace the question mark.
6 6 8
5 7 5
4 3 ?
120 126 320

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a. 4
b. 8
c. 2
d. 16
Solution:
35 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Answer: (b)
If we see column-wise, we can observe that the bottom-most number is

obtained on multiplication of the above three numbers.
For the �rst column, 6×5×4 = 120
For second column, 6×7×3 = 126
Similarly, 8×5×? = 320
? = 320/40 = 8
1 4 ?
4 2 5
2 2 3
49 64 169
a. 3
b. 5
c. 4
d. 6
Solution:
Answer: (b)
If we see column-wise, we can observe that the bottom-most number is the

square of the sum of the above three numbers.
For �rst column, (1+4+2)2 = 72 = 49
For second column, (4+2+2)2 = 82 = 64
Similarly, (?+5+3)2= 169 = 132
?+5+3 = 13 Hi there! Got any questions?

I can help you...
?=5
36 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
3 6 8
5 8 4
4 7 ?
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
Solution:
Answer: (a)
If we see row-wise, we can observe that the sum of the three numbers is
constant.
For �rst row, 3+6+8 = 17
For second row, 5+8+4 = 17
Similarly, 4+7+?= 17
?=6
6 9 15
8 12 20
4 6 ?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 21 Hi there! Got any questions?
I can help you...
Solution:
Answer: (b)
If we see row-wise, we can observe that the rightmost number is the sum of the
two left numbers.
37 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
For �rst row, 6+9 = 15
For second row, 8+12 = 20
Similarly, 4+6 = ? = 10
2 4 0
1 2 4
3 1 3
36 ? 91
a. 25
b. 48
c. 59
d. 73
Solution:
Answer: (d)

obtained on the addition of the cubes of the above three numbers.
For �rst column, 23 + 13 + 33 = 8 +1 + 27 = 36
For third column, 03 + 43 + 33 = 0 + 64 + 27 = 91
Similarly, 43 + 23 + 13 = 64 + 8 + 1 = ? = 73
13 54 ?
7 45 32 Hi there! Got any questions?

I can help you...
27 144 68
a. 42
b. 36
c. 6
38 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
d. 4
Solution:
Answer: (d)

obtained by following pattern:
Topmost number + (middle number×2) = Bottom number
For �rst column, 13 + (7×2) = 27
For second column, 54 + (45×2) = 144
Similarly, ? + (32×2) = 68
? = 68 - 64 = 4
28 20 7
84 35 12
45 ? 9
a. 15
b. 18
c. 20
d. 25
Solution:
Answer: (d)
If we see row-wise, we can observe that the middle number is obtained by the
following pattern:
Rightmost number
Leftmost number × 5 = Middle number
For the �rst row, 28/7 × 5 = 4 × 5 =20 Hi there! Got any questions?
I can help you...
For second row, 84/12 × 5 = 7 × 5 = 35
Similarly, 45/9 × 5 = 5 × 5 = ? = 25
Directions (Q. No. 83-85): Study the following diagram and answer the given
39 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
questions
Question 83. Study the following diagram and answer the given questions
a. 11
b. 13
c. 15
d. 17
Solution:
Answer: (a)
If we observe the common diagram, we see that on multiplying 13 and 8, we are

getting 104.
Similarly, here also on multiplying 14 and ? we should get 154.
Therefore, 14×? = 154

? = 154/14 = 11 I can help you...
OR
If we observe the common diagram, we see that 85-64 = 21, which is also equal
to 13+8.
Similarly, here 221-196 = 25
40 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Now 14+? = 25
? = 11
a. 125
b. 90
c. 105
d. 225
Solution:
Answer: (d)
If we observe the common diagram, we see that on the left side box with the
number (8) and its square (64) is on the right-hand side box.
Similarly, here we should get the square of 15 on the right-hand side box.
152 = 225

I can help you...
41 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
a. 33
b. 81
c. 243
d. 42
Solution:
Answer: (b)
If we observe the common diagram, we see that on multiplying 13 and 8, we are

getting 104.
Similarly, here also on multiplying 27 and 3, we should get the value of ?.
Therefore, 27 × 3 = ? = 81
Directions (Q. No. 86-90) In each of these questions, which character from the given
options when placed at the sign of question mark (?) shall complete the matrix?
Question 86. Choose the right character from the given options that shall complete
the matrix
A D H
F I M
? N R
a. K
b. N
c. O
d. P
Solution:
Answer: (a)
We can see the pattern along the row as: I can help you...
42 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
the matrix
B G N
D J R
G N ?
a. U
b. V
c. W
d. X
Solution:
Answer: (c)
We can observe a pattern along the columns as:
(+2, +3), (+3,+4) and (+4,+5) is the logic column wise
the matrix
A M B N
R C S D
E U F ?
a. G
b. R
c. T
d. V
Solution:
Answer: (d) I can help you...
43 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
the matrix
P T ?
O Q S
M N R
a. I
b. L
c. O
d. U
Solution:
Answer: (d)
P, Q, R: equal spacing of 1 between them.
N, O: spacing of 1 between them, similarly for S, T.
O, T: spacing of 5 between them, similarly for N, S.
Hence, the gap needs to be constant for the other major diagonal as well. The
difference between MQ is 4, which should be equal to the difference between Q
and the next letter. Therefore, the next letter is U.
the matrix
A D G
D I N I can help you...
I P ?
a. V
b. W
44 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
c. X
d. Y
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Directions (Q. No. 91-95) Study the following �gure carefully and answer the
questions given below it. The rectangle represents artists, the circle represents
players and the triangle represents doctors :
Question 91. How many players are neither artists nor doctors?
a. 3
b. 8
c. 22
d. 25 Hi there! Got any questions?
I can help you...
Solution:
Answer: (d)
Players who are neither artists nor doctors = part of the circle which is not in the
rectangle nor in the triangle
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Question 92. How many artists are players ?
a. 30
b. 29
c. 25
d. 22
Solution:
Answer: (c)
Artists who are players = Part of the rectangle which is inside the circle.
Question 93. How many doctors are both players and artists?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 8
d. 11
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Doctors who are both players and artists = Area of the triangle bothGot
Hi there! in the
anycircle
questions?
as well as the rectangle. I can help you...
46 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Question 94. How many doctors are neither players nor artists?
a. 30
b. 27
c. 22
d. 8
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Doctors who are neither players nor artists = Area of the triangle which is not in
circle or rectangle
Question 95. How many artists are neither players nor doctors?
a. 22
b. 24
c. 29
d. 30
Solution:
Answer: (d)
Artists who are neither players nor doctors = Area of the rectangle which is not
in circle or triangle

I can help you...
47 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Question 96. Select from the given diagrams, the one that illustrates the
relationships among the given three classes Tennis fans, Cricket players, Students
Solution:
Answer: (a)
In a group of students, some can be tennis fans and some can be cricket
players.
Now, out of the cricket players, some can be tennis fans as well and not all of
the players or fans must be students.
Question 97. Choose from the four diagrams given below, the one that illustrates the
relationship among: Language, French, German
I can help you...
48 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Solution:
Answer: (c)
German and French both are languages spoken in two different countries.
Question 98. Select from the four alternative diagrams, the one that best illustrates
the relationship between the three classes: Pigeons, Birds, Dogs
Solution:
Answer: (a)
All pigeons are birds. But dogs are different from birds andI hence in you...
can help a different
category.
49 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Directions (Q. No. 99-100): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions:
i) Arati is older than Sanu.
ii) Muskan is older than Arati but younger than Kailash.
iii) Kailash is older than Sanu.
iv) Sanu is longer than Muskan.
v) Gargi is the eldest
Question 99. Who is the youngest?
a. Kailash
b. Arati
c. Muskan
d. Sanu
Solution:
Answer: (d)
If A, S, K, M and G represent Arati, Sani, Kailash, Muskan and Gargi. According to

the information given, they can be written more clearly as:
A>S
K>M>A
K>S
S<M or M>S
But S is taller than M.
Finally, G is the eldest. So,

Gargi > Kailash > Muskan > Arati > Sanu I can help you...
So, we can see that Sanu is the youngest.
Question 100. Agewise, who is in the middle?
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a. Kailash
b. Muskan
c. Arati
d. Sanu
Solution:
Answer: (b)
According to the information given,
Gargi > Kailash > Muskan > Arati > Sanu
So, we can see that Muskan is the middle one according to age.
Assam NTSE 2020 Stage 1 SAT Paper
PAPER - SAT
Question 1. The Regulating act legislation was passed by the British Parliament in
a. 1753
b. 1763
c. 1773
d. 1783
Solution:
Answer: (c)
The Regulating Act of 1773 was passed by the British Parliament. It was an
attempt to check on the misgovernment of the British East India Company in
India.
Question 2. Under which Viceroy the Partition of Bengal took place?
a. Robert Clive
b. Lord Dalhousie
c. Lord Curzon
d. Lord Minto
Solution: I can help you...
Answer: (c)
Curzon announced the partition of Bengal in July 1905. The partition came into
effect on 16 October, 1905. He used the partition as a political tool to weaken
the growing nationalist movement in Bengal. The partition was annulled in 1911.
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Question 3. Sepoy mutiny took place in -
a. 1757
b. 1765
c. 1826
d. 1857
Solution:
Answer: (d)
The Sepoy Mutiny took place in the year 1857. It is also referred to as the First
War of Independence by some historians. Although unsuccessful, it was the �rst
organised rebellion by the Indians against the British colonial powers.
Question 4. The capital of the province of "Eastern Bengal and Assam" was
a. Shillong
b. Jorhat
c. Tinsukia
d. Dhaka
Solution:
Answer: (d)
The partition of Bengal in 1905 created the Eastern Bengal and Assam
provinces. Dhaka served as the capital of this province from 1905 to 1912. The
partition was annulled in 1911.
Question 5. Who was the �rst ICS from Assam?
a. Anandaram Borooah
b. Lakshminath Bezbaroa
c. Amulya Barua
d.Hem Barua
Solution:
Answer: (a) I can help you...
Anandaram Borooah was the �rst Indian Civil Servant from Assam. He was a
Sanskrit scholar, �rst graduate from Assam and also an eminent lawyer.
Question 6. The infamous Rowlatt Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative
52 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Council in
a. 1909
b. 1919
c. 1929
d. 1939
Solution:
Answer: (b)
The Imperial Legislative Council passed the Rowlatt Act on 18th March 1919. It
was a draconian law that extended the emergency measures of inde�nite
preventive detention and incarceration without trial and judicial review for an
inde�nite period.
Question 7. Who wrote the famous Book "Gitanjali"?
a. Rabindranath Thakur
b. Abanindranath Thakur
c. Bipin Chandra Pal
d. Aurobindo Ghosh
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Rabindranath Thakur wrote the Gitanjali. Published in 1910, it is a collection of

157 poems. He won the Nobel Prize for Literature for the same in 1913.
Question 8. Who was the founder of Assam Association
a. Manik Chandra Baruah

b. Nabin Chandra Bordoloi
c. Anandaram Dhekiyal Phukan
d. Tarun Ram Phukan
Solution:
Answer: (a) Hi there! Got any questions?

I can help you...
Manik Chandra Baruah formed the Assam Association in 1903. The association
was the centre of political activities in Assam.
Question 9. In which year was the 'Gyan Pradavin Sabha' founded '?
53 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
a. 1827
b. 1837
c. 1847
d. 1857
Solution:
Answer: (d)
The Gyan Pradavin Sabha was founded by Anandaram Dhekiyal Phukan in 1857.
The sabha was founded to discuss important social reforms and other issues.
Question 10. Who composed the 'Kirtan Ghosa"?
a. Madhavdeva
b. Bhatadeva
c. Ananta Kandali
d. Srimanta Sankardeva
Solution:
Answer: (d)
Srimanta Sankardeva composed the Kirtan Ghosa during medieval times. It is a

collection of poems meant to be sung by communities in the Eaksarna religion.
Question 11. Which of the following is a man-made resource?
a. Rivers
b. Mineral Oil
c. Irrigation Canal
d. Forest
Solution:
Answer: (c)
Irrigation canals are arti�cial channels of water. These are man-made structures
constructed to transport water from one place to another, usually to supply
water for farms or �elds. Hi there! Got any questions?
I can help you...
Question 12. Which one of the following is an abiotic resource?
a. Air
b. Plants
c. Animals
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d. Fungus
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Abiotic resources are non-living chemical and physical components of our

environment that affect living organisms and the functioning of ecosystems.
Sunlight, air, precipitation, minerals, and soil are some examples of abiotic
factors.
Question 13. Which of the following is a nonrenewable resource?
a. Air
b. Water
c. Crops
d. Coal
Solution:
Answer: (d)
The resources which cannot be immediately replaced or replenished when they

are depleted are called non-renewable resources. These are resources that have
a limited supply. Non-renewable resources include fossil fuels such as coal,
petroleum, natural gas etc.
Question 14. The organization IUCN is under which of the following organizations?
a. UNESCO
b. UNO
c. WWF
d. UNEP
Solution:
Answer: Bonus
The International Union for Conservation of Nature is an independent

international organization working in the �eld of nature conservation and
sustainable use of natural resources. I can help you...
Question 15. Baghjan is located in the district of
a. Jorhat
b. Sibsagar
55 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
c. Dibrugarh
d. Tinsukia
Solution:
Answer: (d)
Baghjan is located in the district of Tinsukia, Assam. Oil India Limited operates
an oil�eld in Baghjan.
Question 16. Which is the smallest continent in the World?
a. North America
b. Europe
c. Antarctica
d. Oceania
Solution:
Answer: (d)
Oceania is the smallest continent in the World. Besides Australia, Oceania

includes thousands of tiny islands of the Central Paci�c and South Paci�c, most
notably Melanesia, Micronesia, and Polynesia.
Question 17. Which sea has separated the continents of Asia and Africa?
a. Mediterranean Sea
b. Red Sea
c. Caspian Sea
d. Arabian Sea
Solution:
Answer: (b)
The Red Sea separates the continents of Asia and Africa. It connects the Gulf of
Suez in the north and the Gulf of Aden in the south. Countries like Saudi Arabia
and Yemen are located to the right, and African countries like Sudan, Ethiopia
and Egypt are located to the left of the Red Sea. Hi there! Got any questions?
I can help you...
Question 18. What has naturally separated Asia from Europe?
a. Ural mountain range

b. Caucasus mountain
c. Caspian Sea
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d. Volga River
Solution:
Answer: (a)
The Ural Mountain range or Urals are a rugged range that runs across western
Russia. Extending about 2,500 km, this range forms the natural boundary
between Europe and Asia.
Question 19. Which is the largest agro-based industry of Assam?
a. Silk industry
b. Rubber industry
c. Tea industry
d. Fishery
Solution:
Answer: (c)
Assam alone contributes to more than half of India’s tea production. The total
area under tea cultivation in Assam accounts for more than half of the country’s
total area under tea. The tea industry is the largest agro-based industry of
Assam.
Question 20. The industries of Assam can be classi�ed
a. Two types
b. Three types
c. Four types
d. Five types
Solution:
Answer: Bonus
Question is not clear

Question 21. The Constituent Assembly met for the �rst time inI New Delhi
can help on 9th
you...
December
a. 1945
b. 1946
c. 1947
d. 1948
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Solution:
Answer: (b)
The Constituent Assembly met for the �rst time in New Delhi on 9th December,
1946 in the Constitution Hall, also known as the Central Hall of Parliament
House.
Question 22. Which article of the Indian Constitution declares India as "Union of
States"?
a. Article 1
b. Article 2
c. Article 3
d. Article 4
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Article 1 of the Constitution states - India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of

states. The territory of India shall consist of territories of the states, the union
territories and any territory that may be acquired in future.
Question 23. Which of the following is not a part of the Indian Parliament?
a. President
b. Lok Sabha
c. Rajya Sabha
d. Supreme Court
Solution:
Answer: (d)
The Supreme Court of India is the apex court of the country. It is a part of
Judiciary and not a part of the Parliament of India. The Supreme Court of India
is located in New Delhi.

I can help you...
Question 24. Who is the Chairperson of NITI AAYOG?
a. President
b. Vice President
c. Prime Minister
d. Finance Minister
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Solution:
Answer: (c)
The Governing Council of the NITI AAYOG has the Prime Minister of India as its
chairperson and it also consists of Chief Ministers of all States and Lieutenant
Governors of Union Territories. NITI stands for National Institution for
Transforming India which is the premier policy-making institution that is
expected to foster the economic growth of the country.
Question 25. Who was the �rst president of Independent India?
a. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

b. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c. V.V. Giri
d. Dr. Zakir Hussain
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the �rst President of independent India and served his
term from 1950 to 1962. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was a lawyer and an ardent
follower of Mahatma Gandhi.
Question 26. Who appoints the Governor of a State in India ?
a. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

b. The President of India
c. The Prime Minister of India
d. The Chief Minister
Solution:
Answer: (b)
According to Article 155 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India

appoints the Governor of a state in India. The President also removes the
Governor of a state under the advice of the cabinet.
I can help you...
Question 27. In which year was the Right to Education Act enacted in India?
a. 2006
b. 2007
c. 2008
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d. 2009
Solution:
Answer: (d)
The parliament of India enacted the Right to Education Act on 4th August 2009.
The Right to Education describes modalities for free and compulsory education
for children between the ages of six and fourteen. It is enlisted under Article 21
(A) of India's Constitution and hence recognised as a fundamental right.
Question 28. Sarkaria Commission was appointed in the year
a. 1980
b. 1981
c. 1982
d. 1983
Solution:
Answer: (d)
The Sarkaria Commission was appointed by the Government of India in 1983 to

scrutinise the centre-state relations and suggest recommendations within the
constitutional framework. The commission was led by a retired Supreme Court
judge Ranjith Singh Sarkaria as its Chairman.
Question 29. Which one of the following is the largest organ of UNO?
a. Security Council
b. General Assembly
c. The Economic and Social Council
d. Trusteeship Council
Solution:
Answer: (b)
The United Nations General Assembly is the policy making and representative
organ of the United Nations. The General Assembly has 193
Hi member
there! Gotstates and
any questions?
hence forms the largest organ of the United Nations. I can help you...
Question 30. National Human Rights Commission was created in the year
a. 1990
b. 1991
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c. 1992
d. 1993
Solution:
Answer: (d)
The National Human Rights Commission was constituted on 12th October,

1993. It is a statutory body. The NHRC is responsible for promoting and
protecting human rights and ensuring that individuals enjoy liberty, equality and
dignity.
Question 31. Who is known as the Father of Economics?
a. Adam Smith
b. Chanakya
c. Marshall
d. None of the above
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Adam Smith was an 18th-century Scottish economist and philosopher who is

recognised as the father of economics. Adam Smith is known for his famous
work “The Wealth of Nations”. He is also known as the “Father of Capitalism”.
Question 32. Which of the following is not a direct tax?
a. Sales Tax
b. Income Tax
c. Wealth Tax
d. Estate duty
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Indirect taxes are called so because the point of levy and burden of payment are
not on the same entity, unlike direct tax. For example, the government
Hi there! Gotlevies a
any questions?
tax on the seller of a particular good. But the burden of taxIpayment falls on the
can help you...
consumer who purchases that good. The consumer pays the respective tax
amount with the product’s price. The seller in turn pays the respective tax
amount to the government. Sales tax, excise duty and entertainment tax are
some of the examples of indirect taxes.
61 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Question 33. When was the Reserve Bank of India established?
a. 1925
b. 1935
c. 1945
d. 1955
Solution:
Answer: (b)
The RBI is the central bank of India. It works as the o�cial banker to the central
and state governments. It is also a banker to banks as it maintains the banking
accounts of other scheduled banks. The RBI was established on 1st April, 1935
in Kolkata based on the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
Question 34. Which of the following is not a Cash Crop?
a. Jute
b. Groundnut
c. Jowar
d. Sugarcane
Solution:
Answer: (c)
Cash crops are harvested for commercial purposes on a large scale in order to
reap huge pro�ts. Jute, groundnuts and sugarcane are cash crops whereas
jowar is not. Jowar is a food and cereal crop.
Question 35. Planning Commission of India has been replaced by -
a. Finance Commission
b. NITI Aayog
c. GST Council
d. Monetary Policy Committee
Solution:
Answer: (b) I can help you...
NITI stands for National Institution for Transforming India which is the premier
policy-making institution that is expected to foster the economic growth of the
country. It was formed on 1st January, 2015 replacing the Planning Commission
of India.
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Question 36. Goods and Services Tax is
a. a direct tax
b. a central tax
c. a state tax
d. an indirect tax
Solution:
Answer: (d)
The Goods and Services Tax or the GST is an indirect tax in India that has
replaced other taxes like the Value-added tax (VAT), excise duty and service
taxes.
Question 37. Which of the following comes under Horticulture?
a. Cotton
b. Jute
c. Fruits and Vegetable
d. Paddy
Solution:
Answer: (c)
Horticulture refers to the cultivation of fruits and vegetables. After the Golden
Revolution, India became the world’s second largest producer of fruits and
vegetables. The Golden Revolution made a fruitful impact on the lives of
workers involved in honey and horticultural production in India.
Question 38. Which of the following does not belong to the Primary Sector?
a. Forestry
b. Mining
c. Agriculture
d. Construction
Solution:
Answer: (d) I can help you...
The Primary sector contains activities that utilise natural resources on earth.
Thus, it includes hunting and gathering, pastoral activities, �shing, forestry,
agriculture, and mining and quarrying. The secondary sector refers to activities
that involve the production of a �nished product from the extracted raw
materials like construction.
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Question 39. Which one of the following organizations estimates the National
Income of India?
a. National Income Committee

b. Central Statistical Organization
c. Planning Commission
d. Reserve Bank of India
Solution:
Answer: (b)
The Central Statistical Organization renamed as the Central Statistics O�ce is

an agency of the Government of India formed on 2nd May, 1951. It is
responsible for estimating the National Income of India and maintaining other
statistical accounts.
Question 40. The �rst bank of India was the:
a. State Bank of India

b. Bank of Hindustan
c. Bank of Calcutta
d. Reserve Bank of India
Solution:
Answer: (b)
The Bank of Hindustan was founded in 1770 at Calcutta by an agency house

known as Alexander and Company. Paper notes were issued by the Bank of
Hindustan when the East India Company �rst introduced them in India. However,
the bank went defunct in 1832.
Question 41. Which among the following is getting reduced in the following
reaction?
a. CO
b. Fe Hi there! Got any questions?
c. CO2 I can help you...
d. Fe2O3
Solution:
Answer: (d)
Reduction is the removal of oxygen or addition of hydrogen from a chemical
64 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
entity or decrease in oxidation number. In the given equation, oxygen is removed

from Fe2O3. Hence Fe2O3 got reduced to Fe.
Question 42. Exposure of Silver Chloride to Sunlight for a long duration turns grey
due to -
a. Formation of silver
b. Sublimation of silver chloride
c. Evolution of Chlorine gas
d. Oxidation of silver chloride
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to the
formation of silver. The reaction involved in the process is as follows:
Silver chloride is white in colour while silver metal is grey and chlorine evolved in
the reaction has a yellowish-green colour.
Question 43. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be
a. 1
b. 4
c. 5
d. 10
Solution:
Answer: (d)
Red litmus turns blue with a basic solution. Basic solutions have a pH of more
than 7. Thus, the pH of the solution mentioned in the question will be 10.
Question 44. pH of rain water is ________ than distilled water. Hi there! Got any questions?
I can help you...
a. More
b. Less
c. Cannot be compared
d. None of these
Solution:
65 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Answer: (b)
Distilled water has a pH of 7. The pH of rainwater is less than 7 as it combines

with oxides of sulphur and nitrogen and other impurities while coming down the
atmosphere and becomes a bit acidic.
Question 45. The non-metal which is a liquid at room temperature -
a. Oxygen
b. Fluorine
c. Sulphur
d. Bromine
Solution:
Answer: (d)
The non-metal which is liquid at room temperature is Bromine. At room

temperature, oxygen and �uorine exist as gas whereas sulphur is in solid form.
Question 46. An alloy is -
a. An element
b. A mixture
c. An isomer
d. A metalloid
Solution:
Answer: (b)
An alloy is a mixture of metals or a mixture of metal and other elements. Alloys

can be both homogeneous or heterogeneous.
Question 47. The composition of aqua-regia is -
a. Dil. HCl : Conc. HNO3 - 3 : 1

b. Conc. HCI: Dil. HNO3 - 3 : 1
c. Conc. HCI: Conc. HNO3 - 3 : 1 Hi there! Got any questions?
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d. Dil. HCI: Dil. HNO3 - 3 : 1
Solution:
Answer: (c)
Aqua regia is composed of conc. HCl and conc. HNO3 in the ratio 3:1.
66 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Question 48. Which of the following is not a Dobereiner triad?
a. Li, Na, K
b. Mg, Ca, Sr
c. CI, Br, I
d. S, Se, Te
Solution:
Answer: (b)
According to Dobereiner, the atomic mass of the middle element was

approximately equal to the arithmetic mean (average) of the atomic masses of
the other two elements of that triad when they are arranged in their increasing
order of atomic mass.
(Mass of Mg +Mass of Sr)/2 = (24.305u + 87.62u)/2 = 55.96 u, which is not

equal to the actual atomic mass of calcium (40 u).
Question 49. Newland gave the idea of re-occurrence of properties of every -
a. 7th
b. 8th
c. 6th
d. 4th
Solution:
Answer: (b)
According to Newland, when elements are arranged in the increasing order of

their atomic masses, the properties of the eighth element (starting from a given
element) are a repetition of the properties of the �rst element.
Question 50. Which of the following element will form a bivalent anion?
a. Fluorine
b. Oxygen
c. Chlorine
d. Nitrogen I can help you...
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Oxygen has an atomic number 8. The electronic con�guration of oxygen is 2, 6.

It requires 2e- to ful�l its octet and thus have a valency of 2. So it will form a
67 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
bivalent anion O2-.
Question 51. An element with atomic number 19 will most likely combine with the
element with atomic number
a. 17
b. 11
c. 18
d. 20
Solution:
Answer: (a)
The element with atomic number 19 (Potassium) has 1 valence electron and will
most likely combine with an element having 7 electrons in its valence shell.
Z = 17: 2, 8, 7
Thus, an element with atomic number 19 will most likely combine with the
element with atomic number 17.
Question 52. Which of the following shows an electronic con�guration of 2, 8, 4?
a. Sodium
b. Silicon
c. Sulphur
d. Aluminium
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Sodium: 2, 8, 1
Silicon: 2, 8, 4
Sulphur: 2, 8, 6
Aluminium: 2, 8, 3
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Question 53. Rutherford's experiment is related to the size of the -
a. Nucleus
b. Atom
c. Electron
d. Neutron
68 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment is related to the size of the

nucleus.
Question 54. Which species does not contain neutrons?
a. H
b. Li+2
c. C
d. O
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Protium (Isotope of Hydrogen) has a mass number of 1 and contains one

proton.
Question 55. Elements with valency 1 are
a. Always metals
b. Always metalloids
c. Either metal or Non-metal
d. Always non-metals
Solution:
Answer: (c)
Elements with valency 1 are either metals (Li, Na, K, Rb) or nonmetals (F, Cl, Br,
I).
Question 56. Electronic con�guration of an atom is 2, 8, 1. Which of the following

elements is similar with it in chemical reactivity?
a. K
b. CI I can help you...
c. N
d. Ar
Solution:
Answer: (a)
69 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
The electronic con�guration 2, 8, 1 belongs to the element having atomic

number 11 (Sodium). Any other element which belongs to the same group as
that of sodium will have a similar sort of chemical reactivity. Thus, potassium
which belongs to the same group as that of sodium will have similar chemical
reactivity.
Question 57. In diamond, the bonding between Carbon is -
a. Coordinate
b. Ionic
c. Covalent
d. Electrostatic
Solution:
Answer: (c)
All the carbon atoms of diamond possess strong chemical bonds with that of
the four other carbon atoms. And the bond lengths of the carbon-carbon atoms
are equal. Hence, diamond forms a three-dimensional network of strong
covalent bonds.
Question 58. Which of the following is not a saturated Hydrocarbon?
a. Cyclohexane
b. Benzene
c. Butane
d. Isobutane
Solution: Hi there! Got any questions?

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Answer: (b)
Saturated hydrocarbon consists of only carbon-carbon single bonds. Among the

given options, benzene is an unsaturated hydrocarbon.
70 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Question 59. Buckminster fullerene is an allotropic form of
a. Phosphorus
b. Sulphur
c. Carbon
d. Tin
Solution:
Answer: (c)
Buckminster fullerene (C60) is an allotropic form of carbon.
Question 60. The compound containing both ionic and a covalent bond is
a. AlCl3
b. CaO
c. MgCl2
d. NH4Cl
Solution:
Answer: (d)
The compound containing both ionic and a covalent bond is NH 4Cl. The
covalent bonds exist between nitrogen and hydrogen atoms while ionic bonds
exist between NH4+ and Cl-.

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Question 61. The LCM of two numbers is 1200. Which of the following cannot be
their HCF?
71 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
a. 600
b. 500
c. 400
d. 200
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Let the two numbers be A and B.
Given, LCM (A,B) = 1200 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 5 x 5
HCF of A and B should be a factor of LCM of A and B.
1200 = 600 x 2
1200 = 400 x 3
1200 = 200 x 6
But 1200 cannot be written as a product of 500 and another integer.
Hence, 500 cannot be their HCF.
Question 62. The number of decimal places after which the decimal expansion of the
rational number 14587/1250 will terminate is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Solution:
Answer: (d)
14587
1250 = 14587×8
1250×8 = 14587×8
10000 = (14587 × 8) × 10−4
Hence, the decimal expansion of 14587/1250 terminates after 4 decimal places.
Question 63. The expression (2 + √3) (2 - √3) is

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a. a rational number
b. a natural number
c. an integer
d. All the above
Solution:
72 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Answer: (d)
(2 + √3) (2 - √3) = 22 - (3)2 = 4 - 3 = 1
1 is an integer, rational number and a natural number as well.
Question 64. If the graph of the polynomial y = f(x) intersects the x - axis at two
points then the number of zeros of f(x) is
a. 0
b. 3
c. 1
d. 2
Solution:
Answer: (d)
y = f(x) is a polynomial in x such that it intersects at two points on the x axis. I.e.,
at two different values of x, y = 0 or f(x) = 0. Hence, the polynomial f(x) has two
zeros, ie., where y = f(x) becomes zero.
Question 65. If the sum of the zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = 2x3 - 3kx2 + 4x - 5 is 6,
then k = ?
a. 2
b. 4
c. -2
d. -4
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Sum of zeroes of a cubic polynomial ax3 + bx2 + cx + d is given by α + β + γ =

-b/a
Where, α, β, and γ are roots of the cubic polynomial.
So, for 2x3 - 3kx2 + 4x - 5, sum of roots = -(-3k)/2 = 6

k=4 I can help you...
Question 66. If the system of equations 2x + 3y = 5 and 4x + ky = 10 has in�nitely

many solutions then k = ?
a. 1
73 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
b. ½
c. 3
d. 6
Solution:
Answer: (d)
Two linear equations a1x + b1y = c1 and a2x+b2y = c2 have in�nitely many
solutions
when,
a1 b1 c1
a2 = b2 = c2
For the given set of equations, this can be written as

2 3 5
4 = k = 10
3 1
k = 2 ,k = 6
Question 67. The area of the triangle formed by the lines y = x, x = 6 and y = 0 is
a. 36 sq. units
b. 18 sq. units
c. 9 sq. units
d. 72 sq. units
Solution:
Answer: (b)
When the three lines are plotted, they enclose a right angled triangle as shown.
The length of base made by y = 0, is 6 units.
The height of the triangle made by x = 6, is 6 units. x = y is the hypotenuse.
Area of triangle = ½ × 6 × 6 =18 sq. units

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74 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Question 68. If x = 1 is a common root of the equation ax2 + ax + 3 = 0 and x2 + x + b

= 0 then the value of ab is
a. 3
b. 3.5
c. 6
d. -3
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Let, f(x) = ax2+ax+3 and p(x) = x2+x+b
Given that, f(1) = 0 and p(1) = 0
I.e., a+a+3 = 0 and 1+1+b = 0
a = -1.5 and b = -2
ab = (-1.5)(-2) = 3
Question 69. The value of
√6 + √6 + √6. . . . .
is
a. 4
b. 3
c. -2
d. 3.5
Solution: Hi there! Got any questions?

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Answer: (b)
Let the value of
√6 + √6 + √6. . . . .
=x
75 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Then,
√6 + x = x
Squaring both sides.
x2 - x - 6 = 0
x2 - 3x + 2x - 6 = 0
(x-3)(x+2) = 0
x= 3 or x = -2.
However, we know that a square root can never be negative. Hence, x = 3.
Question 70. The �rst and last terms of an A.P. are 1 and 11. If the sum of its terms
is 36 then the number of terms will be -
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Given that, a = 1, l = a + (n-1)d = 11
Also given Sn = 36 = n/2(a + l) = n/2(1 + 11) = 6n
n=6
Question 71. If 18, a, b, -3 are in A.P. then a + b = ?
a. 19
b. 7
c. 11
d. 15
Solution:
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Answer: (d)
Given that, 18, a, b, -3 are in AP.
We also can assume 4 terms to be in AP as: p-2q, p-1, p+q, p+2q
Comparing these two we can say that: p-2q = 18, p-q = a, p+q = b and p+2q = -3
76 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
a+b = p-q+p+q = 2p
Also, 18+(-3) = (p-2q)+(p+2q) = 2p
Hence a+b = 18+(-3) = 15
Question 72. The sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 4 : 9. The Areas of
these triangles are in the ratio.
a. 2:3
b. 4:9
c. 81:16
d. 16:81
Solution:
Answer: (d)
Let the triangles be ∆ABC and ∆PQR. So, ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR

2
= ( PAB
Q) =(9) =
ar(ΔABC) 4 2 16
ar(ΔP QR) 81
Question 73. If ∆ABC and ∆DEF are similar triangles such that ∠A = 47o and ∠E =
83o then ∠F = ?
a. 50o
b. 60o
c. 70o
d. 80o
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Since, ABC∼DEF
∠A = ∠D = 47o, ∠B = ∠E = 83o and ∠C = ∠F
∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180o
47o + 83o + ∠C = 180o Hi there! Got any questions?

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∠C = 50o = ∠F
Question 74. The perimeter a triangle with vertices (0,4), (0,0) and (3, 0)
a. 7 + √5
77 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
b. 6
c. 7.5
d. 12
Solution:
Answer: (d)
(0,4) lies on the x-axis, (0,0) is the origin and (3,0) lies on the y-axis. Hence, the
triangle formed is a right-angled triangle with two sides’ length equal to 3 units
and 4 units lying on the y and x-axis respectively.
The third side by Pythagoras theorem is (32+42)½ = 5 units
Perimeter of the triangle = 3+4+5 = 12 units
Question 75. The point on the x-axis which is equidistant from points (-1,0) and (5,0)
is
a. (0,2)
b. (2,0)
c. (3,0)
d. (0,3)
Solution:
Answer: (b)
The points equidistant from A(-1,0) and B(5,0) will lie on a line.
A is on x axis, B is on x-axis as well.
The point exactly in the middle of them will also lie on the x-axis.
Hence, the point is
M ( −1+5
2 ,
0+0
2 ) = M(2, 0)
Question 76. If sin θ + sin2 θ =1 then cos2 θ + cos4 θ = 1
a. -1
b. 1 Hi there! Got any questions?
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c. 0
d. 2
Solution:
Answer: (b)
78 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
sin θ =1-sin2 θ = cos2 θ
Putting in cos2 θ + cos4 θ
sin θ + sin2 θ = 1, which is given in the question itself.
OR
Putting in cos2 θ + cos4 θ
cos2 θ + sin2 θ = 1
Question 77. If sec q + tan q = x then tan q = ?
a.
x2+1
x
c.
x2−1
x
c.
x2+1
2x
d.
x2−1
2x
Solution:
Answer: (d)
sec q + tan q = x …(i)
Also,
1 1
secq+tanq = x
Multiplying both numerator and denominator by sec q - tan q

sec q−tan q sec q−tan q
(sec q+tan q)(sec q−tan q)
= sec2 q−tan2 q
= sec q − tan q
Because sec2 q - tan2 q = 1
Hence, sec q - tan q = 1/x …(ii)
(i) - (ii)
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2tan q = x - 1/x
x2−1
tan q = sx
Question 78. The ratio of the length of a rod and its shadow is 1 : √3. The angle of
elevation of the Sun is
79 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
a. 30o
b. 45o
c. 60o
d. 90o
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Given that
AB 1
AC = √3
Also,
AB
AC = tan∠ACB
Hence, ∠ACB = 30o, which is the elevation of the Sun.
Question 79. Which of the following is correct?
a. Mode = 2 Median - 3 Mean

b. Mode = 2 Median + 3 Mean
c. Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean
d. Mode = 3 Median + 2 Mean
a. ⅔
b. -1.5
c. 15% Hi there! Got any questions?
d. 0.7 I can help you...
Solution:
Answer: (c)
The correct relation between Mean, Median and Mode is given by:
80 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean
Question 80. Which of the following cannot be the Probability of an event?
Answer: (b)
Probability of an event can never be negative, as it doesn’t have any practical

meaning. Probability can be anything falling ≥ 0 and ≤1.
Hence, -1.5 cannot be the probability of an event.
Question 81. The particles in the nucleus of an atom are
a. electron and proton

b. electron and neutron
c. proton and neutron
d. electron, proton and neutron
Solution:
Answer: (c)
The nucleus of an atom is made of protons (positively charged) and neutrons

(electrically neutral). The nucleus does not contain negatively charged electrons.
Question 82. The heaviest particle in an atom is
a. proton
b. electron
c. neutron
d. neutron and proton
Solution:
Answer: (c)
Mass of proton = 1.672 × 10-27 kg
Mass of electron = 9.109 × 10-31 kg
Mass of neutron = 1.675 × 10-27 kg

There is a small difference between the mass of protons and neutrons.
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Neutrons have more mass, i.e. they are the heaviest particle in an atom.
Question 83. In the process of sublimation
a. Solid goes to gas state
81 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
b. Liquid goes to gas state

c. Solid goes to liquid state
d. Liquid goes to solid-state
Solution:
Answer: (a)
The process of conversion of the solid-state to the gas state, without passing
through the liquid state is called sublimation.
Question 84. Avogadro's number is
a. number of atoms or molecules in 1 gm of any substance

b. number of atoms or molecules in 1 kg of any substance
c. number of atoms or molecules in 1 mole of any substance
d. number of electrons in 1 gm of any substance
Solution:
Answer: (c)
Number of atoms or molecules in one mole of any substance = Avogadro’s

number = 6.022 × 1023
Question 85. Force
a. Causes Motion
b. Changes motion
c. Does not change motion
d. None of these
Solution:
Answer: (a) and (b)
Force can cause a change in motion or even cause the motion. Every time the
motion of an object changes it is because a force has beenHiapplied. Force
there! Got any can
questions?
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cause a stationary object to move or a moving object to change its speed or
direction.
Question 86. A body with an initial velocity of 10 km/hour comes to rest after 15
minutes. Then the distance covered by the body is -
82 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
a. 2.5 km
b. 1.25 km
c. 5 km
d. 10 km
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Given: Initial velocity = u = 10 km/h
Time = 15 min = 15/60 = ¼ h
Final velocity = v = 0 km/h
Now, acceleration is change in velocity per unit time = (v-u)/t
a = (v-u)/t
= (0-10)/(¼) = -40 km/h2
Using the equation of motion, v2-u2 = 2as
s = (v2-u2)/2a
= (0-100)/(2× -40)
= -100/-80
= 100/80
= 5/4
= 1.25 km
Question 87. The mass of moon is 7.34 x 1022 kg and the radius of the moon is 1737
km. The escape velocity at moon is -
a. 1.25 km/sec
b. 2.37 km/sec
c. 11.29 km/sec
d. 5 km/sec
Solution:
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Answer: (b)
Given: Mass of the moon = 7.34 x 1022 kg
Radius of the moon = 1737 km
We know that,
83 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
G = 6.67 × 10-11 m3/kgs2
Using the formula for escape velocity,
Question 88. A boat can �oat and move in a river due to -
a. Archimedes principle and viscous force

b. Frictional force and Archimedes principle
c. Pascal's law and Archimedes principle
d. Newton's law and Pascal's law
Solution:
Answer: (a)
The upward force exerted on an object partially or fully immersed in �uids is

called buoyant force. On the other hand, viscous force is the force between a
body and �uid moving past it, so as to oppose the �ow of the �uid.
Now, according to Archimedes principle, an object immersed in �uid

experiences a buoyant force that is equal in magnitude to the force of gravity on
the displaced �uid.

Question 89. An iron ball of mass 2 kg is lifted by 2 m against the gravitational
I can help you... force.
The work done in the process is -
a. 19.6 Joule
b. 39.2 Joule
c. 9.8 Joule
d. 78.4 Joule
84 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Given: Mass of ball = 2 kg
Distance upto which it is lifted = 2 m
We know that,
Work done = Force × distance moved
W = Fs
Now, Force = mg
W = mgh (s = h = height upto which the ball is lifted)
= (2 kg)(9.8 m/s2)(2 m)
= 39.2 J
Question 90. To see the full image of an object the minimum size of a plane mirror
should be-
a. half the size of the object

b. equal to the size of the object
c. double the size of the object
d. four times the object size
Solution:
Answer: (a)
In order to see the full image of a person, the minimum size of the mirror should
be half of the person’s height.
Question 91. Which of the following is responsible for the absorption of light energy
during photosynthesis?
a. Chlorophyll
b. Stomata
c. Stem I can help you...
d. Root
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Chlorophyll is the light-absorbing pigment present in the chloroplasts which
85 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
helps in the light reaction of the photosynthesis.
Question 92. Which part of a plant shows a negative response to light?
a. Leaf
b. Stem
c. Root
d. Bark
Solution:
Answer: (c)
Roots are negatively phototropic and grow away from sunlight.
Question 93. In Bryophyllum, which plant part is used for developing a new plant?
a. Chlorophyll
b. Root
c. Bud
d. Leaf
Solution:
Answer: (d)
In Bryophyllum, leaf is used as a vegetative propagule where adventitious buds

originate from the margins of the leaf.
Question 94. Which of the following is an example of unisexual �ower?
a. Hibiscus
b. Rose
c. Papaya
d. Mustard
Solution:
Answer: (c)
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Papaya has unisexual �owers that is, it contains either stamens or carpels only.
Question 95. Which of the following helps in the activation of enzyme pepsin M
stomach?
a. HCl
86 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
b. NaCl
c. Potassium
d. Calcium
Solution:
Answer: (a)
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) creates an acidic medium of pH about 1-2 during

digestion which activates the enzyme pepsin which helps in the breakdown of
proteins.
Question 96. In human muscle cells, which of the following is produced after
breakdown of glucose in absence of Oxygen?
a. Ethanol
b. Starch
c. Lactic Acid
d. Pyruvate
Solution:
Answer: (c)
In human muscle cells, in the absence of oxygen, pyruvate is converted into

lactic acid via lactic acid fermentation.
Pyruvate → (lack of oxygen) → Lactic acid + energy
Question 97. The instrument which is used for the measurement of blood pressure is
known
a. Oxymeter
b. Thermometer
c. Sphygmomanometer
d. Glucometer
Solution:
Answer: (c) Hi there! Got any questions?

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A sphygmomanometer is used for the measurement of blood pressure.
87 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
Question 98. If a human Zygote, cell carries sex chromosomes XY, then it will
develop into a -
a. Male
b. Female
c. Bisexual
d. Genetically abnormal child
Solution:
Answer: (a)
The presence of the XY chromosome indicates male child, while the XX

chromosome develops into a female.
Question 99. Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy source?
a. Wood
b. Gobar Gas
c. Nuclear energy
d. Coal
Solution:
Answer: (c)
Biomass is the dead remains of living organisms or organic substances. Wood,

gobar gas (biogas) are produced from biomass. Coal is produced by the
carbonization of the dead and decaying plant and animal remains
Hi there!over millions
Got any questions?
I canenergy
of years ago and hence is a biomass product as well. Nuclear help you...
is
produced by radioactive elements by their �ssion and fusion properties.
Question 100. In energy �ow diagram of ecosystem, which trophic level lies at the
bottom?
88 of 93 3/7/23, 10:27
a. Primary Consumer
b. Producer
c. Tertiary Consumer
d. Decomposer
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Producers lie at the bottom of an energy �ow diagram/pyramid.
Assam 2020-21 NTSE Stage 1 - Question Paper With

Solutions

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Assam 2020-21 NTSE Stage 1 Answer Key & Question Paper With Solutions PDF

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JEE (/jee/) / NTSE (/jee/ntse-exam/)

Assam NTSE 2020 Stage 1 SAT Paper (/jee/ntse-assam-2020-21-stage-1-answer-key-and-

Assam 2020-21 NTSE Stage 1 - Question Paper With

Question 1. Find the odd word out.

Large is an adjective but others are nouns.

Question 2. Find the odd word out.

Question 3. Find the odd word out.

Question 4. Find the odd word out.

water to the Earth's surface.

Question 5. Find the odd word out.

Question 6 Find the odd word out.

All states except Haryana have coastal boundaries.

Question 7. Find the odd word out.

Question 8. Find the odd word out.

Question 9. Find the odd word out.

Question 10. Find the odd word out.

A whale is a mammal while the other three are reptiles.

Hi there! Got any questions?

The pattern follows in all options as:

9 × 4 - 10 = 26 Hi there! Got any questions?

The pattern follows in all options as:

But, in the �rst option: 3 × 4 = 12 ≠ 9, this pattern is not followed here.

Question 16. Ship : sea :: camel : ?

Question 17. Coconut : Shell :: Letter : ?

The coconut is enclosed in a shell. Similarly, the letter is enclosed in an

Question 18. Moon : Satellite :: Earth : ?

Moon is a satellite and Earth is a planet.

Question 19. India : President :: State : ?

Question 20. Good : Bad :: Roof : ?

a. 17 Hi there! Got any questions?

Similarly, 102 /2 = 100/2 = 50

In JOT, there is one vowel, i.e., “O”.

In DOG, there is one vowel, i.e., “O”.

In DIN, there is one vowel, i.e., “I”.

Question 30.Choose the odd letter group or odd numeral group

Question 31.Choose the odd letter group or odd numeral group

a. 383 Hi there! Got any questions?

For example in 551, 5 × 1 = 5 (middle digit)

In 242, 2 × 2 = 4 (middle digit)

In 263, 2 × 3 = 6 (middle digit)

But in 383, 3 × 3 = 9 ≠ middle digit

Except, 28 all others are perfect cubes.

Question 33.Choose the odd letter group or odd numeral group

In 326, 3 x 2 x 6 = 36, which is a perfect square.

Similarly, for 414, 4 x 1 x 4 = 16, again a perfect square.

For 248, 2 x 4 x 8 = 64, which is a perfect square.

However, for 392, 3 x 9 x 2 = 54, which is not a perfect square.

Directions (Q. No. 36-40) Complete the series :

Question 36.7, 12, 19, 28, 39, ___

Question 37. 17, 19, 22, 27, 34, 45, ___

Question 38. 2, 7, 28, 63, 126, ___

We can observe the following pattern:

Question 39. ND, IY, DT, YO, TJ, ___

Question 40. Z, X, V, T, R, P, ___

Directions (Q. No 41-45): Arrange the items in the following questions in a

Question 41. Arrange the items in a meaningful order

(1) Consultation (2) Illness

(3) Doctor (4) Treatment

First, we should have an illness to go to the doctor. We take the consultation

Question 42. Arrange the items in a meaningful order

(1) Country (2) Furniture

(3) Forest (4) Wood