This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 2023

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I) Test ID

1044
FULL LENGTH TEST (FLT) – 5

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

4. All items carry equal marks.

5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.

6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 2023
1. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are
reference to various types of rocks found in correct?
the Earth’s crust: (a) 2 only
1. The rocks that contain high proportion (b) 1 and 3 only
of silica are denser and darker. (c) 2 and 3 only
2. Marble, schist, graphite, granite and (d) 1 and 2 only
basalt are the examples of igneous
rocks.
4. Consider the following statements:
3. Plutonic rocks beneath the Earth’s
crust have larger crystals, compared to 1. The Temperate Low-Pressure Belts are
the volcanic rocks. the zones of convergence with cyclonic
activity.
4. Fossils are most commonly found in the
sedimentary rocks. 2. The Sub-Tropical High-Pressure Belts
Which of the statements given above are are the regions of ascending air
correct? currents and anti-cyclones.
(a) 1 and 3 only 3. All the western coasts of the temperate
zone receive westerlies throughout the
(b) 2 and 4 only
year.
(c) 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 2 and 3 only
incorrect?
(a) 2 only
2. With reference to the land formations in the
(b) 1 and 2 only
arid regions, consider the following
statements: (c) 3 only

1. Zeugan and Yardang landscapes are the (d) 2 and 3 only

horizontal strata of hard and soft rocks
in the arid regions. 5. Consider the following statements with
2. Inselbergs in the deserts are reduced to reference to the characteristic features of
pediments by the aeolian process. the ‘Cool Temperate Continental Climate’:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. In the southern hemisphere, the climate
correct? is experienced in Southern Chile and
(a) 1 only New Zealand.
(b) 2 only 2. The precipitation in the eastern parts of
(c) Both 1 and 2 the continents is determined by the
exposure to the influences by the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
temperate monsoons.
3. The predominant vegetation of this
3. Consider the following statements with
climate type is deciduous coniferous
reference to the movements of the ocean
forest.
currents:
4. Lumbering is the most important
1. The direction of the currents changes
occupation in the Cool Temperate
completely in the South Indian Ocean
Continental Climate.
with the direction of the monsoon
winds. Which of the statements given above are
correct?
2. The circulation of the Gulf Stream Drift
in the northern hemisphere is in a (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
clockwise direction. (b) 2 and 4 only
3. The cold water of the Humboldt Current (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
is largely responsible for the aridity of (d) 2 and 3 only
the Atacama Desert.

RAUSIAS-1044 1
6. Consider the following pairs: Which of the statements given above is/are
S.N. Lake Associated correct?
River (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
1. Vembanad Lake Achankoil River
(c) 2 only
2. Hussain Sagar Tungabhadra
(d) 2 and 3 only
Lake River
3. Cholamu Lake Teesta River 9. Consider the following statements:
4. Deepor Subansiri River 1. The angular distance measured from
Beel/Lake the centre of the Earth determines the
local time in relation to the Prime
How many pairs given above is/are
Meridian.
correctly matched?
2. The regions east of the Prime Meridian
(a) Only one pair see the Sun earlier and gain a day.
(b) Only two pairs 3. The Indian Standard Meridian passes
(c) Only three pairs through Uttar Pradesh, Madhya
(d) All four pairs Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and
Andhra Pradesh.

7. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are
correct?
1. During the cold weather season, the
(a) 1 and 3 only
north-east trade winds bring
precipitation in Tamil Nadu. (b) 2 and 3 only

2. The ‘Mahawat and Bardoli Cheerha’ are (c) 1 and 2 only

the winter rainfall, important for the
cultivation of wheat.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Consider the following statements with
reference to the types of forests found in
India:
1. Tropical evergreen forests are the most
widespread in India and are called the
monsoon forests.
2. White Cedar, Hollock and Kail are the
important species of the tropical semi-
evergreen forests.
3. The highest degree of stratification is
seen in the tropical thorn forests.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
10. With reference to “The Early Harappan
Period”, consider the following statements:
1. The people of Amri painted animal
motifs of the humped Indian bulls on
their pottery.
2. The people of Mehrgarh were in close
contact with the neighbouring towns of
Iran.
3. At the site of Rahman Dheri, beads of
turquoise and lapis-lazuli have been
found.
4. At the site of Levan, a huge factory site
for making stone tools was discovered.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

RAUSIAS-1044 2
11. With reference to the Early Rigvedic Period, 14. Consider the following statements:
consider the following statements: 1. In the Brahmanical Varna system, the
1. The birth of a son was the common Vaishyas were entrusted with cattle
desire of the people. herding, agriculture and trade.
2. Tribal assemblies were involved in the 2. Buddhist literature mentions the term
selection of the Raja. Gahapati, which literally means the
3. The Rigvedic people did not venerate master of the household.
female deities. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15. With reference to administration under the
12. With reference to the Mauryan state, Guptas, consider the following statements:
consider the following statements: 1. The whole empire was divided into
1. Sannidhata was the highest officer in provinces, which were called Vishayas.
charge of assessment of land revenue. 2. The provinces were governed by the
2. The Samaharta was the chief custodian Uparikas, directly appointed by the
of the State treasury. king.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. The Pustapalas were the officials whose
correct? work was to manage and keep records.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
13. With reference to Buddhism, consider the (d) 1, 2 and 3
following statements:
1. Persons affected by infectious diseases 16. Consider the following statements with
were not given admission into the reference to the foreign travellers’ accounts
Sangha. during the Mughal period:
2. ‘Vasa’ was a four-month meditation 1. Francois Bernier was closely associated
taken up by the Buddhist monks during with the Mughal court during the reign
the rainy season. of Akbar.
3. The text of Vinaya Pitaka was 2. Jean Baptiste Tavernier wrote ‘Travels
established under the leadership of in the Mogul Empire’, which is mainly
Ananda. about the reign of Aurangzeb.
Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1044 3
17. With reference to the cultural history of Which of the statements given above is/are
India, consider the following statements: correct?
1. During the 9th-10th centuries, (a) 1 only
Nathamuni compiled the Alvar hymns (b) 2 only
in ‘Nalayira Divyaprabandham’.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. ‘Tevaram’ is popularly considered as the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Tamil Veda.

3. Women poets, during the Bhakti

Movement, completely renounced their 20. With reference to the cultural history of
social obligations and became nuns. medieval India, consider the following
statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 1. Maktab Khana was the bureau of
records and translation, established by
(a) 3 only
the Mughal emperor Shahjahan.
(b) 1 and 2 only
2. The Razmnama is a Persian translation
(c) 1 only of Mahabharata, commissioned by the
(d) 1 and 3 only Mughal emperor Akbar.
3. Nastaliq was a Persian script used in

18. “Mahanavami Dibba”, in medieval India, the Mughal court.

referred to which of the following? 4. Muhammad Husayn was one of the
(a) An assembly hall in the Vijayanagar finest calligraphers at Jahangir’s court.
kingdom. Which of the statements given above are
(b) A massive platform for the celebration correct?
of the festivals. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) An open pavilion for the symbolic (b) 2 and 4 only
marriage of the temple’s divinity. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) An innermost sanctuary of temple (d) 2 and 3 only
where the idol of the primary deity is
placed.
21. With reference to medieval India, the terms
“Kornish” and “Chahar Taslim” denote
19. Consider the following statements with which of the following?
reference to the development of temple
(a) Religious rituals and practices of the
architecture in India:
Sufi sects.
1. ‘Gopuram’ is the most prominent
(b) Coins of different monetary value in the
feature of the Dravidian temple
Mughal period.
architecture.
(c) Forms of salutation in the Mughal
2. The chief feature of the Chalukya
court.
architecture was the construction of
‘Kalyana Mandapam’. (d) The orders of nobility in the Mughal
court.

RAUSIAS-1044 4
22. Consider the following pairs: Which of the statements given above are
S.N. Terms used Related to incorrect?

in Medieval (a) 1 and 2 only

India (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. Sadr-us- In charge of
Sudur appointing local (d) 1, 2 and 3
judges.
25. With reference to the movements of the
2. Tainat-i- Supervised the
tribes of the north-eastern frontier,
Rakab corps of court
consider the following statements:
writers.
1. Their revolts were often in favour of
3. Diwan-i-Ala Minister of grants political autonomy within the Indian
or Madad-i-Maash. Union or complete independence.
4. Tajwiz News and 2. The frontier tribal revolts under the
information from British continued for a longer time than
the Mughal court. the non-frontier tribal movements.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the pairs given above is/are
correct?
incorrectly matched?
(a) 1 only
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

26. Which of the following pairs are correctly

23. The first Jesuit mission to the Mughal matched?
court was called by Emperor Akbar in
S.N. Reform Associated
1580. Who among the following Jesuit
Movement Leader
fathers led the first mission to Fatehpur
Sikri? 1. Seva Sadan Radhakant
Deb
(a) Emanuel Pinheiro
2. Dharma Sabha Behramji M.
(b) Jerome Xavier
Malabari
(c) Padre Rudolf Acquaviva
3. Dev Samaj Shiv Narayan
(d) St. Francis Xavier
Agnihotri
4. Bharat Dharma Madan Mohan
24. Consider the following statements:
Mahamandala Malaviya
1. The Dutch were the first foreign power
that came to India by way of the sea. Select the correct answer using the code
2. The Portuguese introduced the system given below:
of drilling groups of infantry in India. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. In the Malabar of the 16th century, the (b) 3 and 4 only
British showed military innovation in (c) 2 and 3 only
their use of body armour and matchlock (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
men.

RAUSIAS-1044 5
27. With reference to the Swadeshi Movement, 30. With reference to the Non-Cooperation
consider the following statements: Khilafat Movement, consider the following
1. For the first time in the modern history statements:
of India, this Movement was able to 1. The people from the middle classes led
reach to the masses, especially the the entire Movement from the beginning
peasantry. to the end.
2. The Movement failed to create an 2. Women gave up Purdah and offered
effective organization or a party their ornaments for the Tilak Fund.
structure. 3. The economic boycott received support
Which of the statements given above is/are from the Indian business group.
correct? Which of the statements given above are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
28. With reference to the Morley - Minto
Reforms of 1909, consider the following 31. With reference to the Swarajists, consider
statements: the following statements:
1. The Indians were allowed to participate 1. Rajendra Prasad and Vallabhbhai Patel
in the elections of various Legislative were the Pro-Changers.
Councils. 2. Motilal Nehru was the first President of
2. The number of elected members in the the Congress Khilafat Swaraj Party.
Provincial Legislative Council was Which of the statements given above is/are
decreased. correct?
3. The powers of the legislatures, both at (a) 1 only
the Centre and in the Provinces, were (b) 2 only
enlarged. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 32. With reference to the Salt Satyagraha,
(b) 2 and 3 only consider the following statements:
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. In Tamil Nadu, K. Kelappan organized a
(d) 1, 2 and 3 march on the Tanjore Coast to break
the Salt Law.
29. With reference to the Lucknow Session of 2. In Andhra Pradesh, a number of
military style camps were set up to
the Indian National Congress (1916),
serve as the headquarters of the Salt
consider the following statements:
Satyagraha.
1. This Session was presided over by
3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel took up the
Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
unfinished task of leading a raid on the
2. This Session witnessed coming together Dharasana Salt Works.
of the Muslim League and the Congress.
Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1044 6
33. With reference to the Gandhi – Irwin Pact,
consider the following statements:
1. Lord Irwin, on behalf of the government,
agreed on immediate release of all
political prisoners.
2. Lord Irwin agreed on the right to make
salt in the coastal villages for personal
consumption only.
36. Which of the following is/are the
3. Irwin turned down Gandhiji’s demand
of public enquiry into police excesses.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
34. With reference to the Regulating Act of
1773, consider the following statements:
1. It recognised, for the first time, the
political and administrative functions of
the East India Company.
Which of the statements given above is/ are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
difference(s) between the Vice-President of
India and the Vice-President of the United
States of America?
1. The Vice-President of India is not
directly elected by the people, whereas
the Vice-President of the United States
is directly elected by the people.
2. The American Vice-President succeeds
to the Presidency, when it falls vacant,
whereas the Indian Vice-President does
not assume the office of the President,
when it falls vacant for the unexpired
term.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:

2. It made the Governors of the Bombay (a) 1 only

and the Madras Presidencies (b) 2 only
subordinate to the Governor-General of (c) Both 1 and 2
Bengal. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 37. With reference to the Electoral System of
(a) 1 only India, consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only 1. The elections to the Lok Sabha and the
(c) Both 1 and 2 State Legislative Assemblies are carried
out using a ‘Plurality System’.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Constitution prescribes the
‘Proportional Representation System’ for
35. Consider the following statements the election of the President and the
regarding the Preamble to Indian Vice-President only.
Constitution:
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The Preamble is based on the correct?
‘Objectives Resolution’. (a) 1 only
2. It cannot be amended, as it reflects the (b) 2 only
Basic Structure.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1044 7
38. With reference to the State Council of 3. He nominates 12 members of the State
Ministers, which of the following Legislative Council, having special
statements is/are correct? knowledge and practical experience.
1. The Governor shall administer the Which of the statements given above is/are
‘Oaths of Office and Secrecy’ to a correct?
Minister. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. The total number of Ministers,
(b) 1 only
including the Chief Minister, in the
(c) 2 only
Council of Ministers in a state, shall not
exceed 25% of the total strength of the (d) 2 and 3 only
Legislative Assembly of that state.
3. The advice tendered by the Ministers to 41. Consider the following statements
the Governor can be inquired in the regarding the Supreme Court of India:
High Court of the concerned state. 1. The Constitution declares Delhi as the
Select the correct answer using the code seat of the Supreme Court.
given below: 2. The High Courts can give direction to
(a) 1 only the President to appoint any other place
(b) 3 only as a seat of the Supreme Court.
(c) 1 and 2 only 3. The Supreme Court alone can
(d) 2 and 3 only determine the rules for regulating the
practice and procedure of the Court.
39. With reference to the Attorney General for Which of the statements given above is/are
India, consider the following statements: correct?
1. He has the right to speak and to take (a) 1 and 2 only
part in the proceedings of both the (b) 1 only
Houses of the Parliament, with a right
(c) 2 only
to vote.
(d) 2 and 3 only
2. He should not defend the accused
persons in criminal prosecutions,
without the permission of the 42. Consider the following statements
Government of India. regarding the Rajya Sabha:
3. He enjoys all the privileges and 1. It shares equal powers with the Lok
immunities that are available to a Sabha in terms of Ordinary and
Member of the Parliament. Constitution Amendment Bills.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. It can authorize the Parliament to make
correct? a law on a subject enumerated in the
(a) 1 only State List.
(b) 2 only 3. Like the Lok Sabha, it can initiate a
(c) 1 and 3 only move for the removal of the Vice-
(d) 2 and 3 only President.
Which of the statements given above is/are
40. Consider the following statements correct?
regarding the Governor: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. He has similar executive, legislative and (b) 1 only
emergency powers like the President. (c) 2 only
2. He acts as the Chancellor of the (d) 2 and 3 only
Universities in the state.

RAUSIAS-1044 8
43. Consider the following statements 46. Consider the following statements
regarding National Emergency in India: regarding the Directive Principles of State
1. The President can proclaim a National Policy (DPSPs) and the Fundamental
Emergency after receiving a written Rights:
recommendation from the Cabinet. 1. Both the Fundamental Rights and the
2. Once proclaimed, it is applicable to the DPSPs impose negative externalities on
entire country. the state.
3. The right to move the Court for the 2. The courts can declare a law violative of
enforcement of all the Fundamental both the Fundamental Rights and the
Rights is prohibited. DPSPs as unconstitutional and invalid.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

44. Consider the following statements 47. Consider the following statements
regarding the President: regarding the definition of State:
1. He is the nominal executive, while the 1. The Parliament, the State Legislature
real executive being the Council of and even the local authorities fall under
Ministers, headed by the Prime its definition.
Minister. 2. A private body or agency does not fall
2. He has constitutional discretion over within the meaning of State.
the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, if the Which of the statements given above is/are
Council of Ministers has lost its correct?
majority. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 48. Consider the following statements
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 regarding the organization/reorganization
of state in India:
45. Consider the following statements 1. The Parliament can redraw the political
regarding the Centre-State relations: map of India according to its will.
1. The executive power of the State should 2. The power of the Parliament also
not impede the executive power of the includes cession of Indian Territory to a
Centre. foreign country.
2. The President, with the consent of the 3. Boundary dispute between India and
Parliament, can impose executive another country can be done by
functions of the Centre on the State. executive action.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1 and 3 only

RAUSIAS-1044 9
49. Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above is/are
regarding Judicial Review: correct?
1. It is the power of the judiciary to (a) 1 only
examine the constitutionality of (b) 2 only
legislative enactment.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. The function of judicial review is (d) Neither 1 nor 2
constitutional interpretation.
Which of the statements given above is/are
52. With reference to the ‘Official Language’,
correct?
consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only
1. The Constitution of India specifies that
(b) 2 only Hindi, written in the Devanagari script,
(c) Both 1 and 2 is to be the official language of the
Union.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Parliament enacted the Official
Languages Act in 1963, which enables
50. With reference to the National Human the use of English indefinitely (without
Rights Commission, consider the following any time-limit).
statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. It is a constitutional body, established correct?
in 1993. (a) 1 only
2. It can intervene in any proceeding (b) 2 only
involving the allegation of violation of
(c) Both 1 and 2
human rights pending before a court.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The Chairperson of the Commission
should only be a retired Chief Justice of
India. 53. Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/are 1. All lands, minerals and other things of
correct? value under the waters of the ocean
within the territorial waters of India, the
(a) 2 only
continental shelf of India and the
(b) 3 only Exclusive Economic Zone of India vest
(c) 1 and 2 only in the Union.

(d) 2 and 3 only 2. Only the Parliament is empowered to

make laws for the compulsory
acquisition and requisitioning of the
51. Consider the following statements: private property.
1. Part IX-A in the Constitution deals Which of the statements given above is/are
exclusively with the Co-operative correct?
Societies. (a) 1 only
2. The “Co-operative Societies” is a subject (b) 2 only
enumerated in the Concurrent List of
(c) Both 1 and 2
the Seventh Schedule to the
Constitution. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1044 10
54. With reference to the 91st Constitutional Which of the statements given above is/are
Amendment Act of 2003, which of the correct?
following statements are correct?
(a) 1 only
1. A member of either House of the
Parliament, who is disqualified on the (b) 2 only
grounds of defection, shall also be (c) Both 1 and 2
disqualified to be appointed as a
Minister. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. It removed the provision of the Tenth

Schedule pertaining to exemption from 57. Consider the following statements:
disqualification in case of split by one-
third members of the legislature party. 1. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of
3. The total number of Ministers, India (TRAI) is a statutory body.
excluding the Prime Minister, in the 2. According to the updated ‘Broadband’
Central Council of Ministers, shall not definition, ‘Broadband’ has the
exceed 15% of the total strength of the capability of the minimum download
Lok Sabha.
speed of 4 Mbps to an individual
Select the correct answer using the code subscriber from the point of presence
given below:
(POP) of the service provider intending
(a) 1 and 2 only
to provide the Broadband service.
(b) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 2 and 3 only
correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
55. With reference to the salient features of the (b) 2 only
Nuclear Doctrine of India, which of the
(c) Both 1 and 2
following is/are correct?
1. Non-use of nuclear weapons against (d) Neither 1 nor 2
non-nuclear weapon states.
2. The Nuclear Command Authority
58. Consider the following statements:
comprises a Political Council and an
Executive Council, and both are chaired 1. The Primary Agricultural Credit
by the Prime Minister. Societies (PACSs) are to provide the
Select the correct answer using the code services offered by the Common Service
given below: Centres (CSCs).
(a) 1 only 2. The PACSs are registered as co-
(b) 2 only operative societies.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) 1 only
56. Consider the following statements:
1. Food-grains can be used for ethanol (b) 2 only
production. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The Government aims to achieve a
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
complete 30% blending of ethanol by
2025.

RAUSIAS-1044 11
59. Which of the following reports is/are 1. The disposable personal income is the
published by the International Monetary total personal income minus all bill
Fund (IMF)? payments necessary for survival.
1. World Economic Outlook 2. Decrease in the disposable personal
2. Global Financial Stability Report income leads to a reduction in the
3. Commodity Markets Outlook consumption pattern of the households.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below: correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

60. Consider the following statements about 63. Consider the following statements with
the Appellate Body of the World Trade reference to the Commercial Paper (CP):
Organization (WTO): 1. It is an unsecured money market
1. It is a standing body of three persons instrument issued in the form of a
that hears appeals from the reports promissory note.
issued by the panels in disputes 2. The CPs have a maximum maturity of
brought by the WTO members. upto 180 days from the date of
2. The Appellate Body can uphold, modify issuance.
or reverse the legal findings. 3. They can be issued in the
Which of the statements given above is/are denominations of Rs. 1 lakh or
correct? multiples thereof.
(a) 1 only 4. The CPs carry higher interest
repayment rates than the bonds.
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above are
(c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
61. Consider the following statements about
(c) 1 and 4 only
the MISHTI Programme:
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. The MISHTI Programme will facilitate
mangrove plantation along India’s
coastline and on salt pan lands. 64. Consider the following statements with
2. The Programme will operate through reference to the Net Stable Funding Ratio
“convergence between MGNREGS and (NSFR):
CAMPA Fund.” 1. The NSFR is defined as the amount of
Which of the statements given above is/are available stable funding, relative to the
correct? amount of required stable funding.
(a) 1 only 2. The NSFR is expressed as a ratio that
must equal or exceed 100%.
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
62. Consider the following statements with
(c) Both 1 and 2
reference to the ‘Disposable Personal
Income’: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1044 12
65. With reference to the Countercyclical Which of the statements given above is/are
Capital Buffer, consider the following correct?
statements: (a) 1 only
1. The Countercyclical Capital Buffer is a
(b) 2 only
part of the Basel III regulatory capital
(c) Both 1 and 2
framework.
2. The Reserve Bank of India has (d) Neither 1 nor 2
mandated the scheduled commercial
banks to maintain the Countercyclical 68. Which of the following statements best
Capital Buffer at 5% of all the deposits describes the “Adjustable Peg System?”
held by the bank.
(a) A country keeps on adjusting its
Which of the statements given above is/are
exchange rate to new demand and
correct?
supply conditions.
(a) 1 only
(b) The currency's exchange rate is
(b) 2 only
determined solely by the market forces
(c) Both 1 and 2
of demand and supply, without
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
government intervention.
(c) A currency is fixed to a certain level
66. Consider the following statements:
against another strong currency, but
1. The Currency Deposit Ratio is the ratio
can be re-adjusted to account for the
of money held by the public in
changing market conditions.
currency, to that they hold in the bank
deposits. (d) The exchange rate is mainly determined
by the market forces, but the Central
2. The Reserve Deposit Ratio is the
proportion of the total deposits the Bank occasionally intervenes to remove
commercial banks keep as reserves. excessive fluctuations from the foreign
3. The Cash Reserve Ratio requires the exchange markets.
banks to maintain a given fraction of
their total demand and time deposits in 69. Consider the following statements with
the form of specified liquid assets. reference to the Tariff-Rate Quota (TRQ)
Which of the statements given above are system:
correct?
1. The Tariff-Rate Quotas allow the
(a) 1 and 2 only
countries to import a certain quantity of
(b) 2 and 3 only particular goods at a reduced duty rate.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. The TRQ system places a limit on the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 quantity of products that may be
imported at any price after the Tariff-
67. With reference to the devaluation of the Rate Quota is met.
currency, consider the following
Which of the statements given above is/are
statements:
correct?
1. Devaluation occurs when a free-floating
(a) 1 only
currency loses value in the
international currency market. (b) 2 only
2. A country can devalue its currency to (c) Both 1 and 2
reduce its trade deficit. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1044 13
70. Consider the following statements with Select the correct answer using the code
reference to the Gilt Funds: given below:
1. The Gilt Funds are the debt funds that (a) 1 and 2 only
invest primarily in the government
(b) 2 and 3 only
securities.
2. These bonds used to be issued in (c) 1 and 3 only
golden-edged certificates. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
73. Which of the following statements is/are
(a) 1 only correct regarding the Somatic Cell Nuclear
(b) 2 only Transfer (SCNT)?
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. It involves the transfer of a nucleus
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
from a somatic cell into an enucleated
oocyte.
71. Which of the following statements are
2. It is used for producing genetically
correct?
identical animals for research or to
1. Adaptive immunity provides long-lasting
conserve endangered species and for
protection against specific pathogens,
regenerative medicine.
while innate immunity provides only
temporary protection. Select the correct answer using the code
2. Adaptive immunity is present at birth, given below:
while innate immunity is developed (a) 1 only
through exposure or vaccination.
(b) 2 only
3. Adaptive immunity produces anti-
(c) Both 1 and 2
bodies, which are specific proteins that
neutralize the pathogens, while innate (d) Neither 1 nor 2
immunity does not produce anti-bodies.
Select the correct answer using the code 74. Which of the following statements are
given below:
correct regarding the Supercritical-Water
(a) 1 and 2 only Reactor (SCWR)?
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Reactor coolant pumps are not required
(c) 1 and 3 only
in the SCWR.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The SCWRs have the potential for high
thermal efficiency, compared to the
72. Which of the following statements are
conventional Light Water Reactors.
correct regarding the Artificial
Chromosomes? 3. In this reactor, water acts as both a
1. Artificial chromosomes are made from a coolant and a moderator.
combination of DNA and proteins. Select the correct answer using the code
2. They can carry larger DNA molecules given below:
than what can fit into the natural (a) 1 and 2 only
chromosomes.
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. It can be used in gene therapy to deliver
therapeutic genes to treat genetic (c) 1 and 3 only
diseases. (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-1044 14
75. Which of the following are the applications 78. Consider the following statements about
of the Cyber-Physical Systems? Phytoplasmas:
1. Unmanned aerial vehicles. 1. Phytoplasmas are bacterial parasites
2. Precision agriculture to monitor and that live in plant tissues.
control crops, soil and weather
2. They are the cause of the Sandalwood
conditions.
Spike Disease.
3. Smart grids.
Which of the statements give above is/are
4. To monitor air and water quality.
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: (a) 1 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

79. Consider the following statements

76. Which of the following statements are
regarding the Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
correct?
(NMR) spectroscopy:
1. The Pralay missile is India’s first tactical
quasi-ballistic missile. 1. NMR spectroscopy is a spectroscopic
2. The Pralay missile is a derivative of the technique to observe local magnetic
Prahaar Missile Programme. fields around the atomic nuclei.
3. INS Dhruv is a research vessel and 2. NMR is a non-invasive technique.
missile range instrumentation ship. Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code correct?
given below:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

77. Which of the following statements are
correct?
1. Neutron stars are formed from the
collapse of massive stars that have
undergone a supernova explosion.
2. All pulsars are neutron stars, but not
all neutron stars are pulsars.
3. A pulsar is a type of star that emits
beams of electromagnetic radiation out
of its magnetic poles.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
80. With respect to the “Hemis National Park”,
consider the following statements:
1. It is a high-elevation National
Park in Himachal Pradesh.
2. It is the only National Park in India that
is north of the Himalayas.
3. The Park is bounded on the north by
the banks of the Chenab River.
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

RAUSIAS-1044 15
81. Consider the following statements:
1. Alpha diversity is the rate of change in
species richness that occurs with a
change in the spatial scale.
2. Beta diversity is the species richness
that occurs within a given area within a
region.
3. Gamma diversity is the species richness
within an entire region.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
84. With respect to the “Green Rating for
Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA)”,
consider the following statements:
1. It is a rating tool that helps the people
assess the performance of their building
against certain nationally acceptable
benchmarks.
2. It is a statutory body working under the
aegis of the Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change.
3. It is recognized as an innovative tool for
sustainable development by the United
Nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are

82. With respect to the “Animal Welfare Board correct?
of India”, consider the followings
statements: (a) 1 only

1. It was established in accordance with (b) 1 and 2 only

the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals
Act, 1960. (c) 3 only

2. It functions under the aegis of (d) 1 and 3 only

the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above is/are 85. With respect to the “Ramsar Convention”,
correct? consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only
1. It excludes salt pans and rice paddies.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. The International Union for
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Conservation of Nature (IUCN) provides
administrative services to the
83. With respect to the “National Ganga River Convention on Wetlands.
Basin Authority’ (NGRBA)”, consider the 3. Each Contracting Party must designate
following statements:
at least two wetland sites on its territory
1. It is an empowered authority for the
for the Ramsar List, at the time of
Ganga River, in exercise of the powers
joining the Convention.
conferred under the Water (Prevention
and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio correct?
Chairperson of the Authority.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1044 16
86. With respect to “carbon offset”, consider 89. With respect to the “Sariska Tiger Reserve”,
the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. It is an activity that compensates for the 1. The Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in
emission of carbon dioxide (CO2) by Gujarat.
providing for an emission reduction 2. It is a part of the Vindhya Range.
elsewhere. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Carbon offsets can only be bought and correct?
sold as part of the joint implementation (a) 1 only
mechanism under the Kyoto Protocol.
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
90. Consider the following statements about
(c) Both 1 and 2
the Seeds Without Borders Initiative:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It is a global seed policy agreement that
speeds up the distribution of the crop
87. With respect to “Arsenic”, consider the seed varieties across the countries.
following statements: 2. It is an initiative of the Food and
1. It is highly toxic in its organic form. Agriculture Organization, under the
2. It is a natural component of the Earth’s United Nations.
crust. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. People who smoke tobacco may be correct?
exposed to the natural inorganic arsenic (a) 1 only
content of tobacco. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above are (c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
91. Consider the following statements about
(c) 1 and 3 only SEBI regulations with respect to the Green
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Debt Securities:
1. The Blue Bonds can be floated for
88. With respect to the “Paris Agreement”, sustainable fishing, ocean energy and
consider the following statements: ocean mapping.
1. It is a legally binding international 2. The Yellow Bonds can be floated for
treaty on climate change. solar and wind energy projects, and
2. With the Paris Agreement, the countries upstream and downstream industries
established an Enhanced Transparency associated with them.
Framework (ETF). 3. The Transition Bonds can be floated to
3. The Paris Agreement provides a raise funds for transitioning to a more
framework for financial, technical and sustainable form of operations, in line
capacity building support to those with India's Intended Nationally
countries who need it. Determined Contributions.
Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-1044 17
92. Consider the following statements about Which of the statements given above is/are
the AWARe Initiative: correct?
1. It is an initiative launched during COP (a) 2 only
27 of UNFCCC at Sharm El Sheikh. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. It focuses on water as both a key (c) 1 and 3 only
climate change problem and a potential (d) 1, 2 and 3
solution.
Which of the statements given above is/are 95. Which of the following statements is correct
correct? about Purse Seine?
(a) 1 only (a) It is a method of fishing in which a net
(b) 2 only is pulled behind one or more boat(s).
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) It is a method of fishing in which a
vertical net hangs in the water in which
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the fish get caught.
(c) It is a method of fishing in which one
93. Consider the following statements about
fish is targeted at one time using a pole.
the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act,
(d) It is a method of fishing in which a
2022:
floating fishing net is closed, preventing
1. It allows circus to be recognised as zoo. the fish from escaping from the bottom.
2. No licenses under the Arms Act, 1959,
will be issued to any person residing
96. ‘Sardines’ and ‘Trevally’ are the types of
within 10 kms of a Wildlife Sanctuary. which of the following?
3. ‘Invasive Alien Species’ has been defined (a) Fish
for the first time in the Act.
(b) Insects
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Antelopes
correct?
(d) Frogs
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
97. Consider the following statements about
(c) 2 and 3 only the OECMs:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The areas to be identified as the OECMs
should not be the Protected Areas.
94. Consider the following statements about 2. Waterbodies can be identified as the
the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, OECMs.
2022: 3. The concept of the OECMs was
1. The Energy Conservation and developed by the UNEP.
Sustainable Building Code shall apply Which of the statements given above is/are
to all buildings to be used for office or correct?
commercial purpose only. (a) 1 only
2. Any person can purchase carbon (b) 3 only
credits on a voluntary basis. (c) 1 and 2 only
3. Energy consumption standards can be (d) 1, 2 and 3
launched for the vehicles.

RAUSIAS-1044 18
98. Consider the following statements about Which of the statements given above is/are
the Kappaphycus Alvarezii: correct?
1. It is a seaweed species native to (a) 1 only
Indonesia. (b) 2 only
2. It is useful in the production of (c) Both 1 and 2
Carrageenan. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. It adversely impacts the health of the
coral reefs.
100. Consider the following statements about
Which of the statements given above are the Climate Equity Monitor:
correct?
1. It is an online dashboard developed by
(a) 1 and 2 only the UNEP for assessing international
(b) 2 and 3 only equity in climate action.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. It will compare the policies and actions
(d) 1, 2 and 3 of Annex-I and Non-Annex-I parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are
99. Consider the following statements about correct?
the Surya Nutan Solar Cookstove: (a) 1 only
1. This is an energy efficient cookstove, (b) 2 only
developed by the Ministry of New and (c) Both 1 and 2
Renewable Energy (MNRE). (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. It can work on both solar and auxiliary
energy sources.

RAUSIAS-1044 19
Answers &
Explanations
of

TEST ID: 1044

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)

Full Length Test (FLT)–5

 ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
Full Length Test (FLT)–5
GS Paper-I: (1044)

1. Answer: (c) their characteristics layer formation and

Explanation:
Various Types of Rocks: The Earth’s crust
is made up of various types of rocks,
differing from one another in texture,
structure, colour, permeability, mode of
occurrence and degree of resistance to
denudation.
All the rocks may be classified into three
major groups: Igneous; Sedimentary; and
Metamorphic.
Igneous rocks are formed by the cooling
and solidification of the molten rock from
beneath the Earth’s crust. They are
normally crystalline in structure. They do
not occur in strata, nor do they contain
fossils. When they contain a high
proportion of silica, they are said to be
acid. Acid igneous rocks, such as
granite, are less dense and are lighter in
colour than the basic rocks.
Examples of igneous rocks: Granite,
basalt and gabbro.
2.
Examples of metamorphic rocks: Marble,
schist and graphite.
In terms of origin, there are two main
classes of igneous rocks: Plutonic rocks
and Volcanic rocks.
Plutonic rocks: These are formed at some
depth in the Earth’s crust. They have
cooled and solidified slowly so that large,
easily recognised crystals have been able to
form.
Volcanic rocks: These are the molten
rocks poured out of the volcanoes as lava.
They solidify rapidly on the Earth’s surface
and the crystals are small.
Sedimentary rocks are formed from the
sediments accumulated over long periods,
usually under water. They are
distinguished from the other rock types in
are termed stratified rocks. The materials
that form the sedimentary rocks may be
brought by streams, glaciers, winds or even
animals. They are non-crystalline and
contain fossils of animals, plants and other
micro-organisms.
Organically formed sedimentary rocks:
These rocks are formed from the remains of
the living organisms, such as corals or
shellfish, whose fleshy parts have been
decomposed, leaving behind the hard
shells. The most common rocks formed in
this way are of the calcareous type. They
include limestone and chalk. The
carbonaceous rocks are also organically
formed from the vegetative matter: swamps
and forests. The pressure of overlying
sediments has compressed the plant
remains into compact masses of carbon,
which eventually become peat, lignite or
coal.
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Landforms of wind erosion and
deposition in the deserts: The wind,
though not the most effective agent of
erosion, transportation and deposition, is
more efficient in the arid regions, than in
the humid regions. Since there is little
vegetation or moisture to bind the loose
surface materials, the effects of wind
erosion are almost unrestrained.
Wind erosion is carried through deflation,
abrasion and attrition.
Zeugan are the tabular masses, which
have a layer of soft rocks lying beneath a
surface layer of more resistant rocks.
The sculpting effects of wind abrasion wear
them into a ridge and furrow landscape.

RAUSIAS-1044 1
 These are the horizontal strata of hard and
soft rocks.
Yardangs are the steep-sided landscape.
The hard and soft rocks of the yardangs are
the vertical bands and are aligned in the
direction of the prevailing winds.
Pediments are the gently inclined rocky
floors, close to the mountains at foot with
or without a thin cover of debris. With the
parallel retreat of slopes through erosion,
the pediments extend backwards at the
expense of the mountain front, and
gradually, the mountain gets reduced,
leaving an inselberg, which is a remnant of
the mountain. In this process, the high
relief in the desert areas is reduced to low
featureless plains, called pediplains.
3. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The ocean currents are the large masses of
surface water that circulate in regular
patterns around the oceans.
Some of the underlying factors that explain
the pattern of the movement of the ocean
currents are: the planetary winds,
4.
temperatures, salinity, the Earth’s rotation
and lands.
The planetary winds have the dominant
influence on the flow of the ocean currents.
The strongest evidence of prevailing
winds on current flows is seen in the
North Indian Ocean. The direction of the
currents changes completely with the
direction of the monsoon winds, which
come from the north-east in winter and
south-west in summer. From June to
October, when the dominant wind in south-
west monsoon, the currents are blown from
a south-westerly direction as the south-
west monsoon drift. This is reversed in
winter, from December, when the north-
east monsoon blows the currents from the
north-east as the north-east monsoon drift.
As in the other oceans, such as the Pacific
and the Atlantic, the currents of the South
Indian Ocean, form a circuit. The
equatorial current, turning southwards
RAUSIAS-1044
past Madagascar as the Agulhas or the
Mozambique Current merges with the west
wind drift, flowing eastwards and turns
Equator-wards as the west Australian drift.
The Earth’s rotation deflects freely moving
objects, including the ocean currents, to
the right. In the northern hemisphere, this
is a clockwise direction, e.g., the circulation
of the Gulf Stream Drift and the Canaries
Current. In the southern hemisphere, it is
an anti-clockwise direction, e.g., the
Brazilian Current and the West Wind Drift.
The cold Humboldt or Peruvian Current
chills any wind that blows on-shore, so that
the Chilean and Peruvian coasts are
practically rainless. The Humboldt has a
considerable cooling influence on
the climate of Chile, Peru and Ecuador. It is
also largely responsible for the aridity of the
Atacama Desert in Northern Chile and the
coastal areas of Peru, and also of the
aridity of Southern Ecuador. Marine air is
cooled by the current and thus, is not
conducive to generating precipitation
(although clouds and fog are produced).
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
About 30° N and S occur the Sub-Tropical
High-Pressure Belts, where the air is
comparatively dry, and the winds are calm
and light. It is a region of descending air
currents or wind divergence and anti-
cyclone. It is frequently referred to as the
Horse Latitudes.
Around the latitudes 60° N and S are the
two temperate low-pressure belts, which
are also the zones of convergence with the
cyclonic activity. The sub-polar low-
pressure areas are best developed over the
oceans, where temperature differences
between summer and winter are negligible.
From the sub-tropical high-pressure belts,
the winds blow towards the temperate low-
pressure belts as the variable westerlies.
Under the effect of the Coriolis Force, they
become the south westerlies in the
northern hemisphere and the north
2
 westerlies in the southern hemisphere. In
the southern hemisphere, where there is a
large expanse of ocean, from 40° S and 60°
S, the westerlies blow with much greater
force and regularity throughout the year.
They bring much precipitation to the
western coasts of the continents. Not all
the western coasts of the temperate
zone receive westerlies throughout the
year. Some of them, like California, Iberia,
Central Chile, Southern Africa and South-
western Australia receive westerlies only in
winter. This is caused by the shifting of the
wind belts of such regions which lie
approximately between the latitudes 30°
and 40° N and S. The shifting of the
pressure belts causes seasonal changes in
the climate, especially between latitudes
30° and 40° in both the hemispheres. In
this region, the Mediterranean type of
climate is experienced because of the
shifting of the permanent belts southwards
and northwards with the overhead position
of the Sun.
6.
5. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Cool Temperate Continental
(Siberian) Climate is experienced only in
the northern hemisphere, where the
continents within the high latitudes
have a broad east-west spread. On its
poleward side, it merges into the Arctic
tundra of Canada and Eurasia at around
the Arctic Circle. Southwards, the climate
becomes less severe and fades into the
temperate steppe climate. The Siberian
climate is conspicuously absent in the
southern hemisphere, because of the
narrowness of the southern continents in
the high latitudes. The strong oceanic
influence reduces the severity of winter.
The predominant vegetation of this
climate type is the evergreen coniferous
forest. Almost all conifers are evergreen.
The low annual temperature, with more
than half the year below the growing-point
temperature of 43°F, means that
RAUSIAS-1044
evergreens are at an advantage. Growth
can begin as soon as the growing point is
reached in spring. The conifer has a two-
year fructification cycle. The seeds are
pollinated in one year and dispersed in the
following year. There is no annual
replacement of new leaves, as in the
deciduous trees.
The total precipitation of the Siberian
climate is determined by such factors as
altitude, latitude, proximity of the Poles,
amount of exposure to the influences by
the westerlies (on the western parts of the
continents), temperate monsoon (on the
eastern parts of the continents) and the
penetration of the cyclones.
Lumbering is the most important
occupation of the Siberian type of climate.
The vast reserves of coniferous forests
provide the basis for the lumbering
industry. In these northerly latitudes,
agriculture is almost impossible and
lumbering replaces farming in the
continental interiors.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Vembanad Lake, Kerala: The Lake is
known by three names, as the Punnamada
Lake in Kuttanad; the Kochi Lake in Kochi;
and the Vembanad Lake in Kottayam. The
Government of India has recognised the
wetland under the National Wetlands
Conservation Programme. The lake has its
source in four rivers, the Meenachil, the
Achankoil, the Pampa and the Manimala.
Hussain Sagar Lake, Hyderabad
(Telangana): Hussain Sagar is one of the
most popular tourist places in Hyderabad.
The lake connects two parts of the city
(Secunderabad and Hyderabad) to each
other. The largest artificial lake in Asia, the
Hussain Sagar Lake was excavated in 1562
AD, during the reign of Ibrahim Quli Qutub
Shah. Built on the tributary of river
Musi, the lake has been named after
Hussain Shah Wali. The Hussain Sagar
Lake was initially build to cater to the
irrigation needs and other water needs of
the city.
3
 Cholamu Lake, Sikkim: The Tso Lhamo
Lake is one of the highest lakes in the
world. It is situated in Mangan
district (Sikkim, India). It is fed by waters
from the Zemu glacier, the Kangtse glacier
or the Pauhunri glacier, and is the source
of the Teesta River. The lake is also referred
to as the Cholamoo Lake.
Deepor Beel, Assam: It is a permanent
freshwater lake, in a former channel of the
Brahmaputra river, to the south of the
main river and is the only wetland in
Assam designated as a site of importance
for “conservation and sustainable use”
under the Ramsar Convention on
Wetlands.
7. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The cold weather season begins from mid-
November in northern India and stays till
February. December and January are the
coldest months in the northern part of
India. During this season, the north-east
trade winds prevail over the country. They
blow from land to sea and hence, for most
part of the country, it is a dry season. Some
amount of rainfall occurs on the Tamil
Nadu coast from these winds as here they
blow from sea to land.
A characteristic feature of the cold weather
season over the northern plains is the
inflow of cyclonic disturbances from the
west and the north-west. These low-
pressure systems originate over the
Mediterranean Sea and Western Asia, and
move into India, along with the westerly
flow. They cause the much-needed winter
rains over the plains and snowfall in the
mountains. Although the total amount of
winter rainfall, locally known as
‘Mahawat’, is small, they are of
immense importance for the cultivation
of the ‘Rabi’ crops.
Bardoli Cheerha is the local
thunderstorm of hot weather season in
Assam, which is useful for the
cultivation of tea, rice and jute.
RAUSIAS-1044
8. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Tropical evergreen forests are found in the
western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of
the north-eastern region and the Andaman
& Nicobar Islands. They are found in warm
and humid areas with an annual
precipitation of overall 200 cm and mean
annual temperature above 22° C. Tropical
evergreen forests are well stratified with
layers closer to the ground and are covered
with shrubs and creepers, with short-
structured trees, followed by tall variety of
trees. In the case of the tropical rain
forest this ecosystem has five strata;
wherein there are three tree layers, a layer
of shrubs and a ground layer of herbaceous
plants. Whereas most temperate forests are
stratified into three levels: trees, shrubs
and ground. The semi-evergreen forests are
found in the less rainy parts of these
regions. The main species are: White Cedar,
Hollock and Kail.
Tropical deciduous forests are the most
widespread forests in India. They are
also called the monsoon forests.
9. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Longitude is an angular distance,
measured in degrees along the Equator,
east or west of the Prime Meridian. The
longitudes have one very important
function; they determine local time in
relation to the Greenwich Mean
Time/Prime Meridian, which is sometimes
referred to as the World Time. Since the
Earth makes one complete revolution of
360° in one day or 24 hours, it passes
through 15° in one hour or 1° in 4 minutes.
The Earth rotates from west to east, so
every 15° we go eastwards, the local time is
advanced by 1 hour. Conversely, if we go
westwards, the local time is retarded by 1
hour. We may, thus, conclude that the
places east of Greenwich see the Sun
earlier and gain time, whereas the places
4
 west of Greenwich see the Sun later and
lose time.
The India Standard Meridian (82° 30’ E
Meridian) passes through Uttar Pradesh,
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha
and Andhra Pradesh.
10. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 The Sind province, corresponding to the
lower Indus plains, showed interesting
development. At the site of Amri, the
habitations show the people living in
the houses of stone and mud bricks.
They had constructed some kind of a
granary also. They painted such animal
motifs, as the humped Indian bulls on
their pottery. This motif was very
popular during the 'Mature Harappan'
phase.
 In the period preceding the Harappan
urbanization, the people of Mehrgarh
had established a prosperous township.
They used to make various kinds of
beads of stone. Lapis-lazuli, one of the
precious stones used by them, is found
only in the Badakshan region of Central
Asia.
 Many seals and sealings have been
reported. Seals were used as a mark of
authority in the situations of
interpersonal exchange. The Mehrgarh
seals were probably used by the
merchants for guaranteeing the quality
of the goods that were being sent to the
faraway lands. Similarities in the
designs of potteries, terracotta figurines,
and the objects of copper and stone
indicate that these people were in close
contact with the neighbouring towns of
Iran.
 At a place called Rahman Dheri, an
'Early Indus' township has been
excavated. Oblong in shape with
houses, streets and lanes laid out in a
planned fashion, it is protected by a
massive wall. Here too, beads of
turquoise and lapis-lazuli have been
RAUSIAS-1044
found. This shows their contact with
Central Asia. A large number of graffiti
found on the pot sherds could be the
fore-runners of the Harappan script.
 In the Bannu area, in the North-West
Frontier Province, the site of Tarkai Qila
has also yielded evidence of fortification.
The archaeologists have discovered
large samples of grains, which included
many varieties of wheat and barley,
lentils and field pea. Tools for
harvesting have also been found. In the
same area, at a site called Levan, a
huge factory site for making stone tools
was discovered.
11. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
About the Early Rigvedic Period:
 The society was patriarchal. The birth of
a son was the common desire of the
people. The importance given to the
male members is reflected in the
hymns, where the desire for a son is a
constant prayer.
 Tribal assemblies, e.g., the Gana,
Vidatha, Sabha and Samiti, are
mentioned in the Rigveda. The Sabha
may have been the council of select clan
members and the Samiti perhaps
comprised the whole clan. These
assemblies performed the functions of
the government and administration,
and were also involved in the selection
of the Raja from amongst the clansmen.
 The religious ideas of the Vedic people
are reflected in the hymns of the
Rigveda. They venerated the natural
forces around them (like wind, water,
rain, thunder, fire etc.), which they
could not control, and invested nature
with divinity conceived in human forms,
which were mostly masculine. Very few
female deities were venerated. The
religion, thus, reflected the patriarchal
society and was that of primitive
animism.
5
12. Answer: (d)  On admission, the monks had to
Explanation: ceremonially shave their head and wear
 Settlement of permanent villages was yellow or saffron robes. The monks were
recognised in the Arthsastra as a expected to go on a daily round, in
method for the expansion of agrarian order to preach Buddhism and seek
economy. Growth of agriculture meant alms. During the four months of the
that the cultivator began to assume an rainy season, they took up a fixed abode
increasingly important role. and meditated. This was called the
Megasthenes, in his account of the
retreat or 'Vasa'.
Indian society and its division into
seven classes, mentions the farmers as  According to the tradition, shortly after
the second class, next only to the the death of Buddha, the first Buddhist
philosophers, who are mentioned as the Council was held in 483 B.C., in the
first class, and followed by the soldiers, Saptaparni cave near Rajagriha.
who are mentioned as the third class. Mahakassapa presided over the
 The essential resources needed for the assembly. All the teachings of Buddha
Mauryan state could only be got from were divided into two Pitakas, namely:
land revenue. Therefore, the land (a) Vinaya Pitaka; and (b) Sutta Pitaka.
revenue collection had to be efficiently The text of Vinaya Pitaka was
organized, so as to expropriate the established under the leadership of
maximum possible surplus from the Upali and that of Sutta Pitaka was
people. It is generally stated that the
settled under the leadership of
Mauryan rule constitutes a landmark in
Ananda.
the history of the improvement of the
system of taxation in ancient India. The
Mauryas, in fact, attached great 14. Answer: (c)
importance to the assessment of land Explanation:
revenue and the highest officer in
 In the Brahmanical Varna system,
charge of this was the Samaharta.
Vaishya was the third caste in the ritual
 The Sannidhata was the chief
order. They were entrusted with cattle
custodian of the State treasury. Since
herding, agriculture and trade.
the revenue was also collected in kind,
providing storage facilities was also the  The Buddhist literature, on the other
duty of the latter. hand, uses the term Gahapati more
frequently. Gahapati literally means the
13. Answer: (a) master of the household. This
Explanation: community of landholders cultivated its
land with the family labour, or the
 The Sangha was the religious order of
labour of slaves and servants. They
the Buddhists. It was a well-organized
and powerful institution, which seem to have emerged out of the
popularized Buddhism. Membership Rajanya and groups mentioned in the
was open to all persons, irrespective of Vedic literature. Their emergence
caste, above fifteen years of age. represents the emergence of family and
Criminals, lepers and persons affected individual ownership of wealth. Earlier
by infectious diseases were not given wealth was collectively owned by the
admission into the Sangha. entire lineage.

RAUSIAS-1044 6
15. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 Under the Guptas, the whole empire
was divided into Desas, or Rashtras,
or Bhuktis/Province. The inscriptions
provide us with the names of certain
Bhuktis. In Bengal, we hear of
Pundravardhara Bhukti, which
corresponded to north Bengal. Tira-
Bhukti corresponded to north Bihar.
The Bhuktis were governed by the
Uparikas, directly appointed by the
king. The province or the Bhukti was
again divided into districts or Vishayas,
under an official called Ayuktaka and in
other cases a Vishyapati. His
appointment was made by the
Provincial Governor.
 The Gupta inscriptions from Bengal
show that the office (Adhikarana) of the
district-head associated with itself
representation from the major local
communities: The Nagarasresthi (The
head of the city merchants); the
Sarthavaha (The caravan leader); the
Prathama-Kulika (The head of the
artisan community); and Prathama
Kayastha (The head of the Kayastha
community).
 Besides them, were the Pustapalas-
officials, whose work was to manage
and keep records? The lowest unit of
administration was the village. In the
villages, there was a headman, called
Gramapati or Gramadhayaksha.
16. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Francois Bernier, a Frenchman, was a
doctor, political philosopher and historian.
He came to the Mughal Empire in the
search of opportunities. He was in India
for twelve years, from 1656 to 1668, and
was closely associated with the Mughal
court, as a physician to Prince Dara
Shikoh, the eldest son of Emperor Shah
Jahan, and later as an intellectual and
RAUSIAS-1044
scientist, with Danishmand Khan, an
Armenian noble at the Mughal court.
Francois Bernier wrote ‘Travels in the
Mogul Empire’, which is mainly about
the reigns of Dara Shikoh and
Aurangzeb. It is based on his own
extensive journeys and observations, and
on information from the eminent Mughal
couriers.
Bernier travelled to several parts of the
country and wrote accounts of what he
saw, frequently comparing what he saw in
India with the situation in Europe. In
virtually every instance Bernier described
what he saw in India as a bleak situation in
comparison to the developments in Europe.
Bernier lamented, there were no academics
where subjects of scientific matters could
be taken up for study. He also writes that,
because of frequent transfers of the Jagirs,
the Jagirdars, governors and revenue
contractors were not bothered about the
deplorable state of the peasantry.
After 1600, number of Dutch, English and
French travellers came to India. One of the
most famous was the French jeweller
Jean Baptiste Tavernier, who travelled
to India at least six times. He was
particularly fascinated with the trading
conditions in India, and compared India to
Iran and the Ottoman Empire.
17. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Some of the earliest Bhakti Movements
were led by the Alvars, those who were
immersed in devotion to Vishnu, and the
Nayanars leaders, who were the devotees of
Shiva. They travelled places singing hymns
in Tamil in praise of their gods.
The historians suggest that the Alvars and
the Nayanars initiated a movement of
protest against the caste system and the
dominance of the Brahmanas, or at least
attempted to reform the system. The
importance of the traditions of the Alvars
and the Nayanars was sometimes indicated
by the claim that their compositions were
7
 as important as the Vedas. For instance,
one of the major anthologies of
compositions by the Alvars, the Nalayira
Divyaprabandham, was frequently
described as the Tamil Veda. The
Naalayira Divya Prabandham is a collection
of 4,000 Tamil verses, composed by the 12
Alvars. It was compiled in its present form
by Nathamuni, during the 9th–10th
centuries.
The poems of Appar, Sambandar and
Sundarar form the Tevaram, a collection
that was compiled and classified in the
tenth century, on the basis of the music
of the songs
One of the most striking features of these
traditions was the presence of women. For
instance, the compositions of Andal, a
woman Alvar, were widely sung. Andal saw
herself as the beloved of Vishnu. Another
woman, Karaikkal Ammaiyar, a devotee of
Shiva, adopted the path of extreme
asceticism, in order to attain her goal. Her
compositions were preserved within the
Nayanar tradition. These women
renounced their social obligations, but
did not join an alternative order or
become nuns.
18. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Some of the most distinctive structures in
the Vijaynagar kingdom have been assigned
names based on the form of the buildings,
as well as their functions.
The “King’s Palace” is the largest of the
enclosures, but has not yielded definitive
evidence of being a royal residence. It has
two of the most impressive platforms,
usually called the “audience hall” and
the “Mahanavami Dibba”. The audience
hall is a high platform, with slots for
wooden pillars at close and regular
intervals. It had a staircase going upto the
second floor, which rested on these pillars.
Located on one of the highest points in
the city, the “Mahanavami Dibba”, is a
massive platform, rising from a base of
RAUSIAS-1044
about 11,000 sq. ft. to a height of 40 ft.
There is evidence that it supported a
wooden structure. The base of the platform
is covered with relief carvings. The rituals,
associated with the structure, probably
coincided with Mahanavami (literally, the
great ninth day) of the ten-day Hindu
festival, during the autumn months of
September and October.
The Vijayanagar kings displayed their
prestige, power and suzerainty on this
occasion. The ceremonies performed on the
occasion included worship of the image,
worship of the state horse, and the sacrifice
of buffaloes and other animals. Dances,
wrestling matches, and processions of
caparisoned horses, elephants and chariots
and soldiers, as well as ritual presentations
before the king and his guests by the chief
Nayakas and the subordinate kings marked
the occasion.
19. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Gopuram: The most important feature of
the Dravidian temple architecture is the
huge entrance gateway, known as the
Gopuram (stylised and big in size), that is
placed at the centre of the front wall. Every
enclosure boundary wall has its own
Gopuram and hence, we find multiple
Gopurams in several temples. In the
Nagara style, the Shikhara remains the
most prominent element of the temple and
the gateway is usually modest or even
absent.
The chief characteristics of the
Vijaynagar period architecture were the
constructions of the tall Raya Gopurams
or gateways, Kalyana Mandapam with
carved pillars in the temple premises.
The Kalyana Mandapam, an open
pavilion, was used for the ceremonies
involving the symbolic marriage of the
temple's divinity to his consort. Its interior,
surrounded by impressive columns,
contains a platform in the centre for the
performance of sacred dances. Massive
pillars, decorated with soldiers riding Yalis,
carry the large brackets and roof beams.
8
20. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Maktab Khana, a bureau of records
and translation, was established by
the Mughal emperor Akbar in Fatehpur
Sikri around 1574. Emperor Akbar
commissioned his most talented scribes
and secretaries to translate the major texts
of India from Sanskrit into Persian and
to illustrate the manuscripts in the royal
workshops. Of these texts included
the Mahabharata into the Razmnāma,
the Ramayana, and the Rajatarangini. With
this bureau, Akbar aspired to "form a basis
for a united search for truth" and "enable
the people to understand the true spirit of
their religion”.
All books in Mughal India were
manuscripts, that is, they were
handwritten. The centre of manuscript
production was the imperial Kitabkhana.
Although Kitabkhana can be translated as
library, it was a scriptorium, that is, a
place where the emperor’s collection of
manuscripts was kept and new
manuscripts were produced.
Calligraphy, the art of handwriting, was
considered a skill of great importance. It
was practised using different styles.
Akbar’s favourite was the Nastaliq, a fluid
Persian script with long horizontal strokes.
It is written using a piece of trimmed reed
with a tip of five to ten mm, called Qalam,
dipped in carbon ink (Siyahi).
Muhammad Husayn of Kashmir (c.1575-
1605), one of the finest calligraphers at
Akbar’s court, was honoured with the
title “Zarrin Qalam” (The golden pen), in
recognition of the perfectly proportioned
curvature of his letters.
21. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
In the Mughal court, the status was
determined by spatial proximity to the king.
The place accorded to a courtier by the
ruler was a sign of his importance in the
eyes of the emperor. Social control in court
RAUSIAS-1044
society was exercised through carefully
defining in full detail the forms of address,
courtesies and speech which were
acceptable in the court.
The forms of salutation to the ruler
indicated the person’s status in the
hierarchy: Deeper prostration
represented higher status.
Kornish was a form of ceremonial
salutation in which the courtier placed the
palm of his right hand against his forehead
and bent his head. It suggested that the
subject placed his head – the seat of the
senses and the mind – into the hand of
humility, presenting it to the royal
assembly.
Chahar Taslim is a mode of salutation
which begins with placing the back of the
right hand on the ground, and raising it
gently till the person stands erect, when he
puts the palm of his hand upon the crown
of his head. It is done four (Chahar) times.
Taslim literally means submission.
22. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
One important pillar of the Mughal state
was its corps of officers, also referred to by
the historians collectively as the nobility.
The nobility was recruited from diverse
ethnic and religious groups. This ensured
that no faction was large enough to
challenge the authority of the state. The
officer corps of the Mughals was described
as a bouquet of flowers (Guldasta) held
together by loyalty to the emperor.
For the members of the nobility, imperial
service was a way of acquiring power,
wealth and the highest possible reputation.
A person wishing to join the service
petitioned through a noble, who presented
a Tajwiz to the emperor. Tajwiz was a
petition presented by a nobleman to the
emperor, recommending that an
applicant be recruited as a Mansabdar.
There were two other important ministers
at the centre: The Diwan-i-Ala (The
Finance Minister) and the Sadr-us-Sudur
9
 (The minister of grants or Madad-i-
Maash, and in charge of appointing local
judges or the Qazis). The three ministers
occasionally came together as an advisory
body, but were independent of each other.
The nobles stationed at the court
(Tainat-i-Rakab) were a reserve force to
be deputed to a province or military
campaign. They shared the responsibility
for guarding the emperor and his
household round the clock.
The keeping of exact and detailed records
was a major concern of the Mughal
administration. The Mir Bakhshi
supervised the corps of the court writers
(Waqia Nawis), who recorded all
applications and documents presented to
the court, and all imperial orders (Farman).
In addition, agents (Wakil) of nobles and
regional rulers recorded the entire
proceedings of the court under the heading
“News from the Exalted Court” (Akhbarat-i
Darbar-i Mualla), with the date and time of
the court session. The Akhbarat contained
all kinds of information, such as
attendance at the court, grant of offices and
titles etc. This information is valuable for
writing the history of the public and private
lives of the kings and the nobles.
23. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Akbar’s quest for religious knowledge led to
interfaith debates in the Ibadat Khana at
Fatehpur Sikri between learned Muslims,
Hindus, Jainas, Parsis and Christians.
Padre Rudolf Acquaviva was the leader of
the first Jesuit mission.
In 1579, Akbar forwarded a letter to the
authorities in Goa requesting them to send
two learned priests. The Church authorities
in Goa eagerly accepted the invitation,
seeing in it a chance to convert the emperor
to Christianity and with him his court and
the people. Jesuit fathers, Rudolf
Acquaviva and Antonio Monserrate were
selected for the purpose. They reached
Fatehpur Sikri in 1580.
RAUSIAS-1044
The second mission was called by Akbar in
1590 and the third mission in 1595 in
Lahore. The third mission continued as a
sort of permanent institution, thereby
extending its influence on secular politics.
Fathers Jerome Xavier and Emanuel
Pinheiro were the leaders of the mission.
24. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 Most historians have observed that
the coming of the Portuguese not
only initiated what might be called
the European era, it marked the
emergence of the naval power. The
Cholas, among others, had been a
naval power, but it was now for the
first time a foreign power had come
to India by way of the sea.
 An important military contribution
made by the Portuguese onshore was
the system of drilling groups of infantry,
on the Spanish model, introduced in the
1630s, as a counter to the Dutch
pressure. The practice was adopted first
by the French and the English, and was
later taken up by the Marathas and the
Sikhs, and such armies of the Sepoys
became the new tools of empire in India.
 In the Malabar of the 16th century,
the Portuguese showed military
innovation in their use of body
armour, matchlock men and guns
landed from the ships. The Portuguese
may have contributed by example to the
Mughal use of field guns and the
‘artillery of the stirrup’.
25. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The movements of the tribes of the
north-eastern frontier were different
from the non-frontier tribal revolts in
some aspects.
 For one thing, the tribes which shared
tribal and cultural links with the
countries across the border, did not
10
 concern themselves much with the
nationalist struggle. Their revolts were
often in favour of political autonomy
within the Indian Union or complete
independence.
 Secondly, these movements were not
forest-based or agrarian revolts, as
these tribals were generally in control of
land and forest area. The British
entered the north-eastern areas much
later than the non-frontier tribal areas.
 Thirdly, the frontier tribal revolts under
the British continued for a longer time
than the non-frontier tribal movements.
De-Sanskritization movements also
spread among the frontier tribals.
26. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Seva Sadan: A Parsi social reformer,
Behramji M. Malabari, founded the Seva
Sadan in 1908, along with a friend, Diwan
Dayaram Gidumal. Malabari spoke
vigorously against child marriage and for
widow remarriage among the Hindus. It
27. Answer: (b)
was his efforts that led to the Age of
Consent Act, regulating the age of consent
for females. Seva Sadan specialized in
taking care of those women who were
exploited and then discarded by the
society. It catered to all castes and provided
the destitute women with education, and
medical and welfare services.
Dev Samaj: Founded in 1887 at Lahore by
Shiv Narayan Agnihotri, earlier a Brahmo
follower, Dev Samaj was a religious and
social reform society. The society
emphasised on the eternity of the soul, the
supremacy of the Guru and the need for
good action. It called for an ideal social
behaviour, such as not accepting bribes,
avoiding intoxicants and non-vegetarian
food, and keeping away from violent
actions. Its teachings were compiled in a
book, Deva Shastra. Agnihotri spoke
against child marriage.
Dharma Sabha: Radhakant Deb founded
this Sabha in 1830. An orthodox society, it
RAUSIAS-1044
stood for the preservation of the status-quo
in socio-religious matters, opposing even
the abolition of Sati. However, it favoured
the promotion of western education, even
for girls.
Bharat Dharma Mahamandala: An all-
India organization of the orthodox educated
Hindus, it stood for a defence of orthodox
Hinduism against the teachings of the Arya
Samajists, the Theosophists and the
Ramakrishna Mission. Other organizations
created to defend orthodox Hinduism were
the Sanatana Dharma Sabha (1895), the
Dharma Maha Parishad in South India and
Dharma Mahamandali in Bengal. These
organizations combined in 1902 to form the
single organization of Bharat Dharma
Mahamandala, with headquarters at
Benaras (Varanasi). This organization
sought to introduce proper management of
the Hindu religious institutions, open
Hindu educational institutions, etc. Pandit
Madan Mohan Malaviya was a prominent
figure in this movement.
Explanation:
By 1908, the open phase (as different from
the underground revolutionary phase) of
the Swadeshi and Boycott Movement was
almost over. This was due to many reasons:
 There was severe government
repression.
 The Movement failed to create an
effective organization or a party
structure. It threw up an entire gamut
of techniques that later came to be
associated with the Gandhian politics:
Non- cooperation, passive resistance,
filling of the British jails, social reforms
and constructive work, but failed to give
these techniques a disciplined focus.
 The Movement was rendered leaderless
with most of the leaders either arrested
or deported by 1908, and with
Aurobindo Ghosh and Bipin Chandra
Pal retiring from active politics.
11
  Internal squabbles among the leaders,
magnified by the Surat Split (1907), did
much harm to the Movement.
 The Movement aroused the people, but
did not know how to tap the newly
released energy or how to find new
forms to give expression to the popular
resentment.
 The Movement largely remained
confined to the upper and the middle
classes and the Zamindars, and
failed to reach the masses, especially
the peasantry.
 Non-cooperation and passive resistance
remained mere ideas.
 It was difficult to sustain a mass-based
movement at a high pitch for too long.
28. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Viceroy, Lord Minto, and the Secretary
of State for India, John Morley, agreed that
some reforms were due, so as to placate the
Moderates, as well as the Muslims. They
worked out a set of measures that came to
be known as the Morley - Minto (or Minto -
Morley) Reforms, that translated into the
Indian Councils Act of 1909.
Some of the suggested measures:
 The elective principle was recognized for
the non-official membership of the
Councils in India. The Indians were
allowed to participate in the elections of
various Legislative Councils, though on
the basis of class and community.
 For the first time, separate electorate for
the Muslims for election to the Central
Council was established, a most
detrimental step for India.
 The number of elected members in
the Imperial Legislative Council and
the Provincial Legislative Councils
was increased. In the Provincial
Councils, non-official majority was
introduced, but since some of these
non-officials were nominated and not
RAUSIAS-1044
elected, the overall non-elected majority
remained.
 The powers of the legislatures, both at
the Centre and in the Provinces, were
enlarged and the legislatures could now
pass resolutions (which may or may not
be accepted), ask questions and
supplementary, vote separate items in
the budget, though the budget, as a
whole, could not be voted upon.
29. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The Lucknow Session of the Indian
National Congress (1916), presided
over by a Moderate, Ambika Charan
Majumdar, finally re-admitted the
Extremists, led by Tilak, to the
Congress fold.
 Another significant development which
took place at Lucknow was the coming
together of the Muslim League and the
Congress, and the presentation of
common demands by them to the
Government. This happened at a time
when the Muslim League, now
dominated by the younger militant
nationalists, was coming closer to the
Congress objectives and turning
increasingly anti-imperialist.
30. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
About the Non-Cooperation Khilafat
Movement:
 The people from the middle classes
led the Movement at the beginning,
but later they showed a lot of
reservations about Gandhi’s
programme. In places like Calcutta,
Bombay and Madras, which were the
centres of the elite politicians, the
response to Gandhi’s call was very
limited. The response to the call for
resignation from the government
service, surrendering of titles, etc., was
not taken seriously.
12
  Women gave up Purdah and offered
their ornaments for the Tilak Fund.
They joined the Movement in large
numbers and took active part in
picketing before the shops selling
foreign cloth and liquor.
 The economic boycott received support
from the Indian business group,
because they had benefited from the
nationalists’ emphasis on the use of
Swadeshi. But a section of big business
remained sceptical towards the
Movement. They seemed to be afraid of
labour unrest in their factories.
31. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Non-Cooperation Movement was
suddenly brought to a halt in May, 1922,
following the violence at Chauri Chaura.
Almost immediately after the withdrawal of
the Movement, Gandhi was arrested and
sentenced to six years’ imprisonment.
At this point, the National Movement was
at a cross-road and there were two
important questions confronting the
Congress leadership:
 Should the Non-Cooperation Movement
be resumed again or not?
 What should be the Congress stand on
the 1923 elections to the legislatures?
To get a sense of the mood of the people on
these questions, the AICC (The All India
Congress Committee) constituted an
Enquiry Committee in 1922. The
Committee consisted of Hakim Ajmal Khan,
Vitthalbhai Patel, Motilal Nehru, Srinivas
Aiyangar, M.A. Ansari and C.
Rajagopalachari. The Committee toured the
country and submitted its report. All the
members unanimously agreed that the
country was not ready for a round of Non-
Cooperation.
On the question of Council Entry, however,
there was a difference of opinion. Ajmal
Khan, Vitthalbhai Patel and Motilal Nehru
were in favour of Council Entry by the
RAUSIAS-1044
Congressmen and the remaining members
were against it. In months to come, this
minor division within the Committee
acquired large proportions and it looked as
if this question might split the entire
Congress organization. The advocates of
Council Entry came to be identified as the
Pro-Changers and the opponents were
called the No-Changers. Rajendra Prasad
and Vallabhbhai Patel were the other
important No-Changers. Since the AICC
was unable to come to a conclusion on this
issue, the final decision was left for the
annual session of the Congress, to be held
at Gaya, in December, 1922. Chittaranjan
Das was the President of the Congress at
this time.
At the Gaya Session of the Congress, the
real differences between the two groups
came to the fore. The Pro-Changers wanted
the Congressmen to contest elections, enter
the Legislative Bodies and put up stiff
resistance to the British inside the
legislatures. The No-Changers, on the other
hand, believed that Council Entry would
dilute the spirit of Non-Cooperation and
amount to cooperation with the British.
Instead of Council Entry, they suggested
that the National Movement should be
advanced by carrying on Gandhi’s
constructive programme.
The constructive programme consisted of
promoting Hindu-Muslim unity, Khadi and
a social campaign against untouchability.
Both the groups campaigned for their
respective course of action. The final
decision was left for the General Session of
the Congress. The general Congressmen
voted for the No-Changers. They got 1,740
votes, as against 890 for the Pro-Changers.
The verdict of the Congress was
overwhelmingly against Council Entry.
Since this decision was against the
thinking of President C.R. Das, he resigned
from the Congress’ Presidentship. The Pro-
Changers were defeated, but not
demoralized. They realized that a fairly
large section of Congressmen was in favour
13
 of Council Entry. Therefore, immediately 33. Answer: (b)
after the Gaya Congress, they convened a Explanation:
meeting of their supporters and decided to  A Pact was signed between the Viceroy,
form a new party within the Congress. representing the British Indian
They gave it the name of the Congress Government, and Gandhi, representing
Khilafat Swaraj Party. C.R. Das was the the Indian people, in Delhi, on March 5,
President and Motilal Nehru the General 1931. This Delhi Pact, also known as
Secretary of the new party. the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, placed the
Congress on an equal footing with the
32. Answer: (c) government.
Explanation: Irwin, on behalf of the government,
 In Tamil Nadu, in April, 1930, C. agreed on:
Rajagopalachari organized a march 1. Immediate release of all political
from Thiruchirapalli (Trichinapoly, as prisoners not convicted of
it was called by the British) to violence;
Vedaranniyam on the Tanjore (or 2. Remission of all fines not yet
Thanjavur) Coast to break the Salt collected;
Law. The event was followed by 3. Return of all lands not yet sold to
widespread picketing of foreign cloth third parties;
shops. The anti-liquor campaign
4. Lenient treatment to those
gathered forceful support in the interior
government servants who had
regions of Coimbatore.
resigned;
 Andhra Region District salt marches
5. Right to make salt in the coastal
were organized in East and West
villages for personal consumption
Godavari, Krishna and Guntur. A
(not for sale);
number of Sibirams (military style
6. Right to peaceful and non-aggressive
camps) were set up to serve as the
picketing; and
headquarters of the Salt Satyagraha.
7. Withdrawal of emergency
The merchants contributed to the
ordinances.
Congress funds, and the dominant
caste, Kamma and Raju cultivators,  The Viceroy, however, turned down two
defied repressive measures. But, the of Gandhi’s demands:
mass support, like that in the Non- (i) Public enquiry into police excesses;
Cooperation Movement (1921–22), was and
missing in the region. (ii) Commutation of Bhagat Singh’s and
 In Dharasana, in May, 1930, Sarojini his comrades’ death sentence to life
Naidu, Imam Sahib and Manilal sentence.
(Gandhi’s son) took up the unfinished Gandhi, on behalf of the Congress,
task of leading a raid on the agreed:
Dharasana Salt Works. The unarmed (i) To suspend the Civil Disobedience
and peaceful crowd was met with a Movement, and
brutal lathi-charge, which left 2 dead (ii) To participate in the next Round
and 320 injured. This new form of Salt Table Conference on the
Satyagraha was eagerly adopted by the constitutional question around the
people in Wadala (Bombay), Karnataka three linchpins of federation, Indian
(Sanikatta Salt Works), Andhra, responsibility, and reservations and
Midnapore, Balasore, Puri and Cuttack. safeguards that may be necessary in

RAUSIAS-1044 14
 India’s interests (covering such
areas as defence, external affairs,
position of the minorities, financial
credit of India and discharge of
other obligations).
34. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Regulating Act of 1773 is of great
constitutional importance, as:
(a) It was the first step taken by the British
Government to control and regulate the
affairs of the East India Company in
India;
(b) It recognised, for the first time, the
political and administrative functions of
the Company; and
(c) It laid the foundation of Central
Administration in India.
Features of the Act:
 It designated the Governor of Bengal as
the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ and
created an Executive Council of four
members to assist him. The first such
36. Answer: (b)
Governor-General was Lord Warren
Hastings.
 It made the Governors of the Bombay
and the Madras Presidencies
subordinate to the Governor-General of
Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three
Presidencies were independent of one
another.
 It provided for the establishment of a
Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774),
comprising one Chief Justice and three
other Judges.
 It prohibited the servants of the
Company from engaging in any private
trade, or accepting presents or bribes
from the natives.
 It strengthened the control of the
British Government over the Company
by requiring the Court of Directors (The
Governing Body of the Company) to
report on its revenue, civil and military
affairs in India.
RAUSIAS-1044
35. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is
based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’,
drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and
adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973),
the Supreme Court rejected the earlier
opinion and held that the Preamble is a
part of the Constitution.
The Preamble is neither a source of power
to the legislature, nor a prohibition upon
the powers of the legislature.
It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions
are not enforceable in the courts of law.
The Preamble can be amended, subject
to the condition that no amendment is
done to the ‘Basic Features’.
In other words, the Court held that the
basic elements or the fundamental features
of the Constitution, as contained in the
Preamble, cannot be altered by an
amendment under Article 368.
Explanation:
Though the office of the Indian Vice-
President is modelled on the lines of the
American Vice-President, there is a
difference. The American Vice-President
succeeds to the Presidency, when it falls
vacant and remains the President for the
unexpired term of his predecessor. The
Indian Vice-President, on the other hand,
does not assume the office of the President,
when it falls vacant for the unexpired term.
He merely serves as an acting President,
until the new President assumes charge.
The Vice-President of India, like the
President, is elected not directly by the
people, but by the method of indirect
election. He is elected by the members of
an Electoral College, consisting of the
members of both Houses of the Parliament.
The Vice-President of the USA is elected
indirectly by the voters of each state
and through the Electoral College, a
15
 body of electors formed every four years
for the sole purpose of electing the
President and the Vice-President to
concurrent four-year terms.
37. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
First Past the Post System:
 The entire country is divided into 543
constituencies;
 Each constituency elects one
representative; and
 The candidate, who secures the highest
number of votes in that constituency, is
declared elected.
It is important to note that in this system,
whoever has more votes than all other
candidates, is declared elected. The
winning candidate need not secure a
majority of the votes. In the electoral race,
the candidate who is ahead of others, who
crosses the winning post first of all, is the
winner. This method is also called the
Plurality System. This is the method of
election prescribed by the Constitution for
the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative
Assemblies.
In India, we have adopted the
Proportional Representation (PR) System
on a limited scale for indirect elections.
The Constitution prescribes a complex
variation of the PR System for the
election of the President, the Vice-
President, and for the election to the
Rajya Sabha and the Vidhan Parishads
(The State Legislative Councils).
38. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 Article 163: There shall be a Council of
Ministers, with the Chief Minister as the
head, to aid and advise the Governor in
the exercise of his functions, except in
so far as he is required to exercise his
functions in his discretion.
 The total number of Ministers,
including the Chief Minister, in the
RAUSIAS-1044
Council of Ministers in a state, shall
not exceed 15% of the total strength
of the Legislative Assembly of that
state. But, the number of Ministers,
including the Chief Minister, in a state,
shall not be less than 12. This provision
was added by the 91st Amendment Act
of 2003.
 The Council of Ministers shall be
collectively responsible to the State
Legislative Assembly.
 The Governor shall administer the
‘Oaths of Office and Secrecy’ to a
Minister.
 The advice tendered by Ministers to
the Governor shall not be inquired
into in any court.
39. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
In the performance of his official duties,
the Attorney General for India has the
right of audience in all courts in the
territory of India. Further, he has the
right to speak and to take part in the
proceedings of both the Houses of the
Parliament, or their Joint Sitting(s) and
any Committee of the Parliament of
which he may be named a member, but
without a right to vote. He enjoys all the
privileges and immunities that are available
to a Member of the Parliament.
Limitations placed on the Attorney
General for India:
 He should not advise or hold a brief
against the Government of India.
 He should not advise or hold a brief in
the cases in which he is called upon to
advise or appear for the Government of
India.
 He should not defend the accused
persons in criminal prosecutions,
without the permission of the
Government of India.
 He should not accept appointment as a
director in any company or corporation,
without the permission of the
Government of India.
16
40. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
A Governor possesses executive, legislative,
financial and judicial powers, more or less
analogous to the President of India.
However, he has no diplomatic, military
or emergency powers like the President.
He acts as the Chancellor of the
Universities in the state. He also appoints
the Vice-Chancellors of the Universities in
the state.
He nominates one-sixth of the members
of the State Legislative Council, from
amongst the persons having special
knowledge or practical experience in
literature, science, art, co-operative
movement and social service.
He cannot pardon a death sentence. Even if
a state law prescribes for death sentence,
the power to grant pardon lies with the
President and not with the Governor. But,
the Governor can suspend, remit or
commute a death sentence.
41. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat
of the Supreme Court. But, it also
authorizes the Chief Justice of India to
appoint other place or places as the seat of
the Supreme Court. He can take decision in
this regard only with the approval of the
President.
This provision is only optional and not
compulsory. This means that no court
43. Answer: (b)
can give any direction, either to the
President or to the Chief Justice, to
appoint any other place as a seat of the
Supreme Court.
The Supreme Court can, with the
approval of the President, make rules for
regulating generally the practice and
procedure of the Court.
42. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Equal Status of the Rajya Sabha with the
Lok Sabha: In the following matters, the
RAUSIAS-1044
powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are
equal to that of the Lok Sabha:
1. Introduction and passage of the
Ordinary Bills.
2. Introduction and passage of the
Constitutional Amendment Bills.
3. Introduction and passage of the
Financial Bills, involving expenditure
from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Unequal Status of the Rajya Sabha with
the Lok Sabha: The Rajya Sabha can only
discuss the Budget, but cannot vote on the
‘Demands for Grants’ (which is the
exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha).
The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the
Council of Ministers by passing a ‘No-
Confidence Motion’. This is because the
Council of Ministers is collectively
responsible only to the Lok Sabha.
Special Powers of the Rajya Sabha: The
Rajya Sabha has been given some exclusive
or special powers that are not enjoyed by
the Lok Sabha:
It can authorize the Parliament to make a
law on a subject enumerated in the State
List (Article 249).
It alone can initiate a move for the
removal of the Vice-President. In other
words, a resolution for the removal of
the Vice-President can be introduced
only in the Rajya Sabha and not in the
Lok Sabha (Article 67).
Explanation:
Under Article 352, the President can
declare a National Emergency when the
security of India or a part of it is threatened
by war or external aggression or armed
rebellion. It may be noted that the
President can declare a National
Emergency even before the actual
occurrence of war or external aggression or
armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there
is an imminent danger.
A Proclamation of National Emergency
may be applicable to the entire country
17
 or only a part of it. The 42nd
Amendment Act of 1976 enabled the
President to limit the operation of a
National Emergency to a specified part
of India.
The President, however, can proclaim a
National Emergency only after receiving a
written recommendation from the Cabinet.
This means that the emergency can be
declared only on the concurrence of the
Cabinet and not merely on the advice of the
Prime Minister.
Articles 358 and 359 describe the effect of a
National Emergency on the Fundamental
Rights. Article 358 deals with the
suspension of the Fundamental Rights
guaranteed by Article 19, while Article 359
deals with the suspension of other
Fundamental Rights (except those
guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21).
According to Article 358, when a
Proclamation of National Emergency is
made, the six Fundamental Rights under
Article 19 are automatically suspended. No
separate order for their suspension is
required.
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978
restricted the scope of Article 359. The
President cannot suspend the right to
move the Court for the enforcement of
the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by
Articles 20 and 21. In other words, the
right to protection in respect of
conviction for offences (Article 20) and
the right to life and personal liberty
(Article 21) remain enforceable even
during Emergency.
44. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Constitution of India has provided for a
Parliamentary form of Government.
Consequently, the President has been made
only a nominal executive, the real executive
being the Council of Ministers, headed by
the Prime Minister. In other words, the
President has to exercise his powers and
functions with the aid and advise of the
RAUSIAS-1044
Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime
Minister.
Though the President has no
constitutional discretion, he has some
situational discretion. In other words,
the President can act on his discretion
(that is, without the advice of the
Ministers) under the following
situations:
Dissolution of the Lok Sabha, if the
Council of Ministers has lost its
majority.
45. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Articles 256 to 263 in Part XI of the
Constitution deal with the administrative
relations between the Centre and the
States.
In respect of matters on which both the
Parliament and the State Legislatures have
the power of legislation (i.e., the subjects
enumerated in the Concurrent List), the
executive power rests with the States,
except when a Constitutional provision or a
Parliamentary law specifically confers it on
the Centre. Therefore, a law on a
Concurrent Subject, though enacted by the
Parliament, is to be executed by the States,
except when the Constitution or the
Parliament has directed otherwise.
The executive power of every State is to be
exercised in such a way (a) as to ensure
compliance with the laws made by the
Parliament and any existing law which
apply in the state; and (b) as not to impede
or prejudice the exercise of executive power
of the Centre in the State.
While the former lays down a general
obligation upon the State, the latter
imposes a specific obligation on the State
not to hamper the executive power of the
Centre.
Thus, Article 365 says that where any State
has failed to comply with (or to give effect
to) any directions given by the Centre, it
will be lawful for the President to hold that
18
 a situation has arisen in which the
Government of the State cannot be carried
on in accordance with the provisions of the
Constitution. It means that, in such a
situation, the President’s Rule can be
imposed in the State under Article 356.
The President may, with the consent of
the State Government, entrust to that
government any of the executive
functions of the Centre.
Conversely, the Governor of a state may,
with the consent of the Central
Government, entrust to that government
any of the executive functions of the
State.
46. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Fundamental Rights are negative, as
they prohibit the State from doing
certain things.
The Directive Principles of State Policy
(DPSPs) are positive, as they require the
State to do certain things.
The courts are bound to declare a law
violative of any of the Fundamental Rights
as unconstitutional and invalid.
DPSPs: The courts cannot declare a law
violative of any of the Directive
Principles of State Policy as
unconstitutional and invalid. However,
they can uphold the validity of a law on
the ground that it was enacted to give
effect to a Directive.
47. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The term ‘State’ has been used in different
provisions concerning the Fundamental
Rights. Hence, Article 12 has defined the
term for the purposes of Part III. According
to it, the State includes the following:
(a) The Government and the Parliament of
India, that is, the executive and
legislative organs of the Union
Government.
RAUSIAS-1044
(b) The Government and the Legislature of
the States, that is, the executive and
legislative organs of the State
Government.
(c) All local authorities, that is,
municipalities, Panchayats, district
boards, improvement trusts, etc.
(d) All other authorities, that is, statutory
or non-statutory authorities, like LIC,
ONGC, SAIL, etc.
Thus, State has been defined in a wider
sense so as to include all its agencies. It is
the actions of these agencies that can be
challenged in the courts as violating the
Fundamental Rights.
According to the Supreme Court, even a
private body or an agency, working as an
instrument of the State, falls within the
meaning of the ‘State’, under Article 12.
48. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Parliament’s Power to Reorganize
the States:
Article 3 authorizes the Parliament to:
(a) form a new state by separation of
territory from any state or by uniting two or
more states or parts of states or by uniting
any territory to a part of any state;
(b) increase the area of any state;
(c) diminish the area of any state;
(d) alter the boundaries of any state; and
(e) alter the name of any state.
Article 3 lays down two conditions in
this regard: One, a Bill contemplating the
above changes can be introduced in the
Parliament, only with the prior
recommendation of the President; and
Two, before recommending the Bill, the
President has to refer the same to the State
Legislature concerned for expressing its
views within a specified period.
The power of the Parliament to form new
states includes the power to form a new
state or Union Territory by uniting a part of
19
 any state or Union Territory to any other
state or Union Territory
In case of a Union Territory, no reference
need be made to the concerned legislature
to ascertain its views and the Parliament
can itself take any action as it deems fit.
It is, thus, clear that the Constitution
authorizes the Parliament to form new
states or alter the areas, boundaries or
names of the existing states without their
consent. In other words, the Parliament
can redraw the political map of India
according to its will. Hence, the territorial
integrity or continued existence of any state
is not guaranteed by the Constitution.
The Supreme Court held that the power
of the Parliament to diminish the area of
a state (under Article 3) does not cover
cession of Indian Territory to a foreign
country. Hence, Indian Territory can be
ceded to a foreign state only by
amending the Constitution under Article
368.
The Supreme Court, in 1969, ruled that
settlement of a boundary dispute between
India and another country does not require
a Constitutional Amendment. It can be
done by executive action, as it does not
involve cession of Indian Territory to a
foreign country.
49. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Judicial Review is the power of the
judiciary to examine the constitutionality of
legislative enactments and executive orders
of both the Central and the State
Governments.
‘Judicial Review’ has nowhere been used in
the Constitution; the provisions of several
Articles explicitly confer the power of
Judicial Review on the Supreme Court and
the High Courts.
Judicial Review is needed for the following
reasons:
(a) To uphold the principle of the
supremacy of the Constitution.
RAUSIAS-1044
(b) To maintain federal equilibrium
(balance between the Centre and the
States).
(c) To protect the Fundamental Rights of
the citizens.
The function of Judicial Review is a part of
the Constitutional interpretation itself. It
adjusts the Constitution to meet new
conditions and needs of the time.
50. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The National Human Rights Commission
(NHRC) is a statutory (and not a
constitutional) body. It was established in
1993 under a legislation enacted by the
Parliament, namely, the Protection of
Human Rights Act, 1993. This Act was
amended in 2006, and again in 2019.
The functions of the Commission are:
 To inquire into any violation of human
rights or negligence in the prevention of
such violation by a public servant,
either suo motu, or on a petition
presented to it, or on an order of a
court.
 To intervene in any proceeding involving
the allegation of violation of human
rights pending before a court.
 To visit jails and detention places to
study the living conditions of the
inmates and make recommendation
thereon.
 To review the factors, including the acts
of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment
of human rights and recommend
remedial measures.
 To encourage the efforts of the ‘non-
governmental organizations (NGOs)’,
working in the field of human rights.
Protection of Human Rights
(Amendment) Act, 2019:
 A person, who has been the Chief
Justice of the Supreme Court, or a
Judge of the Supreme Court, can
become the Chairperson of the
NHRC.
20
  The Bill reduces the term of office to English language for the specified
three years, or till the age of seventy purposes.
years, whichever is earlier. The Parliament enacted the Official
Languages Act in 1963. The Act provides
51. Answer: (d) for the continued use of English (even after
Explanation: 1965), in addition to Hindi, for all official
purposes of the Union and also for the
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of
transaction of business in the Parliament.
2011 gave a constitutional status and
Notably, this Act enables the use of English
protection to the Co-operative Societies. In
indefinitely (without any time-limit).
this context, it made the following three
changes in the Constitution:
53. Answer: (a)
 It made the right to form Co-operative
Societies a Fundamental Right (Article Explanation:
19). All lands, minerals and other things of
 It included a new Directive Principle of value under the waters of the ocean within
State Policy on the promotion of the Co- the territorial waters of India, the
operative Societies (Article 43-B). continental shelf of India and the Exclusive
Economic Zone of India vest in the Union.
 It added a new Part IX-B in the
Hence, a state near the ocean cannot claim
Constitution, which is entitled “The
jurisdiction over these things. India’s
Co-operative Societies” (Articles 243-
territorial waters extend to a distance of 12
ZH to 243-ZT).
nautical miles from the appropriate base-
The “Co-operative Societies” is a subject
line. Similarly, India’s Exclusive Economic
enumerated in Entry 32 of the State List
Zone extends upto 200 nautical miles.
of the Seventh Schedule to the
The Parliament, as well as the State
Constitution and the State Legislatures
Legislatures are empowered to make
have accordingly enacted legislations on
laws for the compulsory acquisition and
Co-operative Societies.
requisitioning of the private property by
the governments.
52. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
54. Answer: (a)
The Constitution contains the following
Explanation:
provisions in respect of the official language
The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 has made
of the Union:
the following provisions:
 Hindi, written in the Devanagari script,
 The total number of Ministers,
is to be the official language of the
including the Prime Minister, in the
Union.
Central Council of Ministers, shall
 However, for a period of fifteen years
not exceed 15% of the total strength
from the commencement of the
of the Lok Sabha (Article 75).
Constitution (i.e., from 1950 to 1965),
 A member of either House of the
English language would continue to be
Parliament, belonging to any political
used for all the official purposes of the
party, who is disqualified on the
Union, for which it was being used
grounds of defection, shall also be
before 1950.
disqualified to be appointed as a
 Even after fifteen years, the Parliament
Minister (Article 75).
may provide for the continued use of
 The total number of Ministers,
including the Chief Minister, in the

RAUSIAS-1044 21
 Council of Ministers in a state, shall not
exceed 15% of the total strength of the
Legislative Assembly of that state. But,
the number of Ministers, including the
Chief Minister, in a state, shall not be
less than 12 (Article 164).
 A member of either House of the
Parliament or either House of a State
Legislature, belonging to any political
party, who is disqualified on the ground
of defection, shall also be disqualified to
hold any remunerative political post.
 The expression “remunerative political
post” means:
(i) Any office under the Central
Government or a State Government,
where the salary or remuneration for
such office is paid out of the public
revenue of the concerned
government; or
(ii) Any office under a body, whether
incorporated or not, which is wholly
or partially owned by the Central
Government or a State Government,
and the salary or remuneration for
such office is paid by such body,
except where such salary or
remuneration paid is compensatory
in nature (Article 361-B).
 The provision of the Tenth Schedule
(The Anti-Defection Law), pertaining to
exemption from disqualification in case
of split by one-third members of
legislature party, has been deleted. It
means that the defectors have no more
protection on the grounds of splits.
55. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
India adopted its Nuclear Doctrine in
2003. The salient features of this
Doctrine are as follows:
 Building and maintaining a credible
minimum deterrent.
 A posture of “No First Use” – nuclear
weapons will only be used in retaliation
against a nuclear attack on the Indian
RAUSIAS-1044
Territory or on the Indian forces
anywhere.
 Nuclear retaliation to a first strike will
be massive and designed to inflict
unacceptable damage.
 Nuclear retaliatory attacks can only be
authorized by the civilian political
leadership, through the Nuclear
Command Authority.
 Non-use of nuclear weapons against
non-nuclear weapon states.
 However, in the event of a major attack
against India, or Indian forces
anywhere, by biological or chemical
weapons, India will retain the option of
retaliating with nuclear weapons.
 The Nuclear Command Authority
comprises a Political Council and an
Executive Council.
 The Political Council is chaired by
the Prime Minister. It is the sole body
which can authorize the use of nuclear
weapons.
 The Executive Council is chaired by
the National Security Advisor. It
provides inputs for decision making by
the Nuclear Command Authority and
executes the directives given to it by the
Political Council.
56. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Recently, the Prime Minister inaugurated
the India Energy Week (IEW), 2023, in
Bengaluru (Karnataka). The IEW is aimed
to showcase India's rising prowess as an
energy transition powerhouse. As part of
the event, he also launched E20 fuel, and
flagged-off the Green Mobility Rally,
organized by the Hindustan Petroleum
Corporation Limited (HPCL).
The Governor of Karnataka, the Chief
Minister of Karnataka, the Union Minister
of Petroleum & Natural Gas and Housing &
Urban Affairs and the Minister of State for
Petroleum & Natural Gas and Labour &
Employment also graced the occasion.
22
 Ethyl alcohol or Ethanol (C2H5OH) is a
biofuel that is naturally made by
fermenting sugar. While it is mostly derived
by extracting sugar from sugarcane, other
organic matters, like food-grains can also
be used for its production.
E20 is a blend of 20% ethanol with petrol.
The Government aims to achieve a
complete 20% blending of ethanol by
2025, and HPCL and other oil marketing
companies are setting up 2G-3G ethanol
plants that will facilitate the progress.
57. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
(TRAI) is a statutory body, set up by the
Government of India under the Telecom
Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997. It
consists of a Chairperson and not more
than two full-time members and not more
than two part-time members.
Broadband is a data connection that is
able to support interactive services,
including internet access, and has the
capability of the minimum download
speed of 2 Mbps to an individual
subscriber from the point of presence
(POP) of the service provider intending
to provide the Broadband service.
58. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
(PACSs), being registered co-operative
societies, have been providing credit and
other services to their members. The PACSs
generally provide the following facilities to
their members:
(i) Input facilities in form of cash or kind
component;
(ii) Agriculture implements on hiring basis;
and
(iii) Storage facility.
In the presence of the Union Home Minister
and the Minister of Co-operation and the
Minister of Electronics and Information
RAUSIAS-1044
Technology, a Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU) was signed between
the Ministry of Co-operation, the Ministry
of Electronics and Information Technology,
NABARD (The National Bank for
Agriculture and Rural Development) and
CSC e-Governance Services India Limited.
This MoU will enable the Primary
Agricultural Credit Societies (PACSs) to
provide services offered by the Common
Service Centres (CSCs).
As per the agreement signed, the PACSs
will now be able to function as Common
Service Centres, along with this, more than
300 services will be made available to the
rural population, including 13 crore farmer
members of the PACSs.
The PACSs are the soul of the co-
operatives, making them multi-purpose, by
connecting about 20 services that will
increase employment opportunities in the
rural areas.
59. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
IMF (The International Monetary Fund)’s
Reports’ List:
 World Economic Outlook
 Global Financial Stability Report
 Fiscal Monitor
 Regional Economic Outlook
‘Commodity Markets Outlook’ is
published by the World Bank.
The World Bank's Commodity Markets
Outlook is published twice a year.
60. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Appellate Body of the World Trade
Organization (WTO): The Appellate Body
was established in 1995, under Article 17
of the Understanding on Rules and
Procedures Governing the Settlement of
Disputes (DSU). It is a standing body of
seven persons that hears appeals from
23
 the reports issued by the panels in
disputes brought by the WTO members.
The Appellate Body can uphold, modify or
reverse the legal findings and conclusions
of a panel, and the Appellate Body Reports
are adopted by the Dispute Settlement
Body (DSB), unless all members decide not
to do so. The Appellate Body has its seat in
Geneva (Switzerland).
61. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
MISHTI (Mangrove Initiative for
Shoreline Habitats and Tangible
Incomes): MISHTI is a new Programme
that will facilitate mangrove plantation
along India’s coastline and on salt pan
lands. The Programme will operate through
“convergence between MGNREGS, CAMPA
Fund, and other sources.”
This new Programme will aim at intensive
afforestation of the coastal mangrove
forests. India has such forests on both its
Eastern and Western coasts, with the
Sundarbans in Bengal being one of the
largest mangrove forests on the planet.
Mangrove is excellent carbon sinks.
Mangrove trees can grow in saline waters,
and can sequester up to four times more
carbon than the tropical rainforests.
62. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The disposable personal income (DPI)
is the amount of money that an
individual or household has to spend or
save after income taxes have been
deducted, i.e., it is the total personal
income minus the current income
taxes. Shelter, food and debts are
usually paid using the disposable
personal income. When the disposable
personal income increases, the
households have more money to either
save or spend, which naturally leads to
a growth in consumption.
RAUSIAS-1044
 Discretionary income is the
disposable income minus all
payments that are necessary to meet
the current bills. It is the total
personal income after subtracting taxes
and minimal survival expenses (such as
food, medicines, rent or mortgage,
utilities, insurance, transportation,
property maintenance, child support,
etc.) to maintain a certain standard of
living. It is the amount of an
individual's income available for
spending after the essentials have been
taken care of.
63. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The Commercial Paper (CP) is a short-
term debt instrument, issued by large
banks or corporations, to raise funds,
generally for a time-period of upto one
year to cover short-term receivables and
meet short-term financial obligations,
such as funding for a new project.
 It is an unsecured money market
instrument, issued in the form of a
promissory note, and was introduced in
India for the first time in 1990.
 The CPs have a minimum maturity of
seven days and a maximum of upto
one year from the date of issue. They
can be issued in the denominations
of Rs. 5 lakhs or multiples thereof.
 Since such instruments are not backed
by collateral, only firms with high
ratings from a recognised credit rating
agency can sell such Commercial
Papers at a reasonable price.
 The CPs are usually sold at a discount
to their face value, and carry higher
interest rates than the bonds.
64. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) is
defined as the amount of available
24
 stable funding, relative to the amount of
required stable funding.
o Available stable funding (ASF) is
defined as the portion of capital and
liabilities expected to be reliable over
the time horizon considered by the
NSFR, which extends to one year.
o Required stable funding (RSF) of a
specific institution is a function of
the liquidity characteristics and
residual maturities of various assets
held by that institution, as well as
those of its off-balance sheet (OBS)
exposures.
[Available Stable Funding (ASF)]
NSFR   100%
Required Stable Funding (RSF)
 The above ratio should be equal to at
least 100% on an ongoing basis.
 The NSFR aims to ensure that the
banks maintain a stable funding profile
in relation to the composition of their
assets and off-balance sheet activities.
 The NSFR limits over-reliance on short-
term wholesale funding, encourages
better assessment of funding risk
across all on- and off-balance sheet
items, and promotes funding stability.
65. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 The Countercyclical Capital Buffer is a
part of the Basel III regulatory capital
framework.
 The Countercyclical Capital Buffer is
the mandatory capital that the financial
institutions are required to hold, in
addition to other minimum capital
requirements.
 Aim:
o To build up a buffer of capital in
good times by the banks, which may
be used to maintain the flow of
credit to the real sector in difficult
times.
o To achieve the broader macro-
prudential goal of restricting the
RAUSIAS-1044
banking sector from indiscriminate
lending in the periods of excess
credit growth, that have often been
associated with the building up of
system-wide risk.
 Though the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) had proposed the
Countercyclical Capital Buffer for the
Indian banks in 2015, as a part of its
Basel-III requirements, it has not
required the Countercyclical Capital
Buffer to be maintained, keeping the
ratio at ‘zero per cent’ ever since.
 The Countercyclical Capital Buffer is
supposed to be in the form of equity
capital, and if the minimum buffer
requirements are breached, capital
distribution constraints, such as limits
on dividends and share buybacks can
be imposed on the bank.
66. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 The Currency Deposit Ratio (CDR) is the
ratio of money held by the public in
currency, to that they hold in the bank
deposits. It reflects the people’s
preference for liquidity. It is a purely
behavioural parameter, which depends,
among other things, on the seasonal
pattern of expenditure. For example, the
CDR increases during the festive
season, as the people convert deposits
to cash balances for meeting extra
expenditures during such periods.
 The Reserve Deposit Ratio (RDR) is the
proportion of the total deposits the
commercial banks keep as reserves. The
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) requires the
commercial banks to keep reserves to
ensure that the banks have a safe
cushion of assets to draw on when the
account holders want to be paid.
The RBI uses various policy instruments to
bring forth a healthy RDR in the
commercial banks. They include:
25
 o The Cash Reserve Ratio specifies the
fraction of their deposits that the
banks must keep with the RBI.
o The Statutory Liquidity Ratio
requires the banks to maintain a
given fraction of their total demand
and time deposits in the form of
specified liquid assets.
o The RBI uses a certain interest rate,
called the ‘Bank Rate’, to control the
value of the RDR. The commercial
banks can borrow money from the RBI
at the bank rate, when they run short of
reserves. A high bank rate makes such
borrowing from the RBI costly and, in
effect, encourages the commercial
banks to maintain a healthy RDR.
67. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
About Devaluation:
 Devaluation is the deliberate
downward adjustment of the value of
a country's money, relative to
another currency, group of
currencies, or currency standard.
 The government does this by adjusting
the fixed or semi-fixed exchange rate of
its currency versus that of another
country.
 Devaluation is different from
depreciation and deflation.
o Depreciation occurs when a free-
floating currency loses value in
the international currency
market.
o Deflation occurs when the general
price for the domestic goods falls.
 Pros: A country can devalue its
currency to reduce its trade deficit. By
making its own currency cheaper, the
country can boost exports. At the same
time, foreign products become more
expensive, so imports fall.
 Cons: Increasing the price of imports
protects the domestic industries, but
RAUSIAS-1044
they may become less efficient without
the pressure of competition. Higher
exports relative to imports can increase
aggregate demand, which can lead to
demand-pull inflation. Also, inflation
can occur, because imports become
more expensive.
68. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 An ‘Adjustable Peg’ is an exchange
rate policy in which a currency is
pegged or fixed to a certain level
against another strong currency,
such as the Dollar or the Euro, but
which can be re-adjusted to account
for the changing market conditions
or the macro-economic trends.
Usually, the peg involves a degree of
flexibility of 2% against a certain level.
However, if the exchange rate fluctuates
by more than the agreed level, the
Central Bank needs to intervene to
maintain the target exchange rate peg.
o For example, the Bretton Woods
System (1944–1970) was an
Adjustable Peg System, with every
country fixing its currency to an
Anchor Currency (The US Dollar)
and the value of the Anchor
Currency was fixed to gold.
 Under the Crawling Peg System, a
country keeps on adjusting its exchange
rate to new demand and supply
conditions.
 Under the Clean Floating System, the
currency's exchange rate is determined
solely by the market forces of demand
and supply, without government
intervention.
 Under the Dirty Floating System, the
exchange rate is mainly determined by
the market forces of demand and
supply, but the Central Bank
occasionally intervenes to remove
excessive fluctuations from the foreign
exchange markets.
26
69. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 The Tariff-Rate Quota (TRQ) system is a
mechanism that allows the import of a
set quantity of specific products.
 The Tariff-Rate Quotas are the pre-
determined quantities of the goods
which can be imported at a remembers and effectively fights against
"preferential" (i.e., lower) rate of
customs duty, than the duty rate
normally applicable to that product. It
places no limit on the amount of
product that may be imported at a
higher (over-access) rate of duty.
 Such quotas are used on a wide range
of products, but most are in the
agriculture sector. Cereals, meat, fruit
and vegetables, and dairy products are
the most common, and sugar is also
protected in most producing countries.
70. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Gilt Funds are the debt funds that
invest primarily in the government
securities. These funds have no risk of non-
payment of interest or principal amount,
but get affected by the interest rate
movements, as the Government borrowing
typically happens to be for a longer
duration.
As per the SEBI (The Securities and
Exchange Board of India) norms, the Gilt
Funds have the mandate to invest at least
80% of their assets in the government
securities. The government bonds used to
be issued in golden-edged certificates. The
nickname ‘Gilt’ comes from that.
There are two kinds of Gilt Funds. One, the
Gilt Funds that invest mostly in the
government securities across maturities.
Second, the Gilt Funds with a constant
maturity of 10 years – these funds must
invest at least 80% of their assets in the
government securities with a maturity of 10
years.
RAUSIAS-1044
71. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 ‘Adaptive immunity’ is a branch of the
immune system that provides specific,
long-lasting protection against specific
pathogens through the activation of the
T cells and the B cells. It recognizes,
previous encountered pathogens.
 ‘Innate immunity’ is a branch of the
immune system that provides rapid,
non-specific protection against a wide
range of pathogens through physical
and chemical barriers, and cellular
components, such as natural killer cells
and phagocytes. It does not have
memory and provides only temporary
defence.
o Specificity: Adaptive immunity is
highly specific, targeting specific
pathogens based on previous
exposure or vaccination. Innate
immunity, on the other hand, is
non-specific and provides a rapid
response to a wide range of
pathogens.
o Memory: Adaptive immunity has
memory, and can recognize and
respond more effectively to
subsequent encounters with the
same pathogen. Innate immunity
does not have memory and provides
only a temporary response to the
infections.
o Response time: Adaptive immunity
takes time to respond to the
infections, usually several days,
while innate immunity provides a
rapid response to the infections,
usually within hours.
o Effectiveness: Adaptive immunity is
more effective at clearing specific
pathogens, while innate immunity
provides a more general defence
against a wide range of pathogens.
o Components: Adaptive immunity
involves the T cells and the B cells,
while innate immunity involves
27
 physical and chemical barriers,
such as skin and mucous
membranes, as well as cellular
components, such as natural killer
cells and phagocytes.
o Durability: Adaptive immunity
provides long-lasting protection
against specific pathogens, while
innate immunity provides only
temporary protection.
o Anti-bodies: Adaptive immunity
produces anti-bodies, which are
specific proteins that neutralize the
pathogens, while innate immunity
does not produce anti-bodies.
o Adaptability: Adaptive immunity is
capable of adapting to new
pathogens, while innate immunity
does not change in response to new
pathogens.
o Origin: Adaptive immunity is
developed through exposure or
vaccination, while innate
immunity is present at birth.
o Role: Adaptive immunity plays a
major role in clearing specific
pathogens, while innate immunity
provides a rapid and general defence
against a wide range of pathogens.
72. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 Artificial chromosomes are engineered
genetic elements that mimic natural
chromosomes and are used to deliver,
express and study large amounts of
DNA. They can be stably passed
through cell division and provide a
powerful tool for genetic engineering
and biotechnology.
 Artificial chromosomes were first
created in yeast cells in the 1980s.
 They can carry larger DNA molecules
than what can fit into the natural
chromosomes.
 Artificial chromosomes are stable and
can be passed down through cell
RAUSIAS-1044
division, allowing for long-term
expression of genes.
 They can be used in gene therapy to
deliver therapeutic genes to treat
genetic diseases.
 Artificial chromosomes have been used
to study gene function and regulation,
as well as to create model organisms for
research purposes.
 They provide a platform for genetic
engineering, allowing for the
manipulation and transfer of genetic
information between cells and
organisms.
 Artificial chromosomes can be used to
study chromosome biology and the
fundamental processes of cell division,
gene expression and genetic variation.
 They have been used in the creation of
transgenic animals and plants for
agricultural and biotechnology
applications.
 Artificial chromosomes are made from a
combination of DNA and proteins,
mimicking the structure and function of
the natural chromosomes.
 They are a promising tool for
biotechnology and genetic research,
with potential applications in areas,
such as drug discovery, personalized
medicine and synthetic biology.
73. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT) is
a cloning technique that transfers the
nucleus from a somatic cell into an
enucleated oocyte to produce a
genetically identical organism. It is used
for producing genetically identical
animals for research or to conserve
endangered species and for regenerative
medicine.
 SCNT is a technique for cloning
mammals with exceptional qualities,
such as the ability to produce large
quantities of milk.
28
  It involves the transfer of a nucleus
from a somatic cell into an enucleated
oocyte.
 SCNT was first successfully used to
clone a mammal in 1997, when Dolly,
the sheep, was cloned.
 The technique has been used to clone a
variety of mammals, including cattle,
pigs, cats and horses.
 SCNT can be used to produce
genetically identical animals for
research purposes or to conserve
endangered species.
 It can also be used in regenerative
medicine, where cloned cells or tissues
can be used to treat or replace damaged
or diseased cells in a patient.
 The success rate of SCNT is still low,
with only a small percentage of cloned
embryos resulting in live births.
 There are ethical and safety concerns
associated with SCNT, particularly with
regards to the welfare of the cloned
animals and the potential for the use of
human cloning.
 SCNT requires a carefully controlled and
standardized process, as well as
advanced technology, to produce viable
cloned embryos.
 The development of SCNT and other
cloning technologies continues to be an
area of active research, with potential
applications in both basic science and
medicine.
74. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 A Supercritical Water Reactor (SCWR) is
a type of nuclear power plant that uses
water at supercritical temperatures and
pressures as both coolant and
moderator. It has the potential for high
thermal efficiency and improved safety,
compared to the Conventional Reactors,
but it is still in the research and
development stage.
RAUSIAS-1044
 A Supercritical Water Reactor (SCWR) is
a type of nuclear power plant.
 It operates with water at supercritical
conditions, meaning temperatures and
pressures above the critical point of
water.
 In this state, water acts as both a
coolant and a moderator.
 The SCWRs have the potential for high
thermal efficiency, compared to the
conventional Light Water Reactors.
 Reactor coolant pumps are not
required. The only pumps driving the
coolant under normal operating
conditions are the feed water pumps
and the condensate extraction pumps.
 They may also offer improved safety
features due to the absence of boiling
and the reduced risk of coolant voiding.
 The SCWRs are still in the research and
development stage, with no commercial
plants currently in operation.
 The concept of the SCWRs was first
proposed in the 1970s and has since
been the subject of extensive research
and development.
 The SCWRs are part of a wider trend
towards advanced nuclear technologies,
which aim to improve the sustainability,
safety and economics of nuclear power.
 The development of the SCWRs is being
led by a number of countries, including
Canada, Japan and the United States.
 Challenges to the commercialization of
the SCWRs include the need for further
technological development, as well as
regulatory and financial barriers.
75. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 The Cyber-Physical Systems (CPS)
integrate physical and computational
elements to control and monitor
physical processes. They use sensors,
actuators and computation to improve
29
 efficiency, safety and sustainability in
various industries.
 Applications of the CPS:
o Autonomous vehicles: The CPSs
are used in self-driving cars to
control the vehicle's movements and
interactions with its environment.
o Smart homes: The CPSs can be
used to control and monitor
household appliances, lighting and
temperature, among other things.
o Industrial automation: The CPSs
are used in manufacturing and
other industrial processes to
improve efficiency, safety and
quality control.
o Smart grids: The CPSs can be used
to monitor and control the power
grid, including the generation,
distribution and use of electricity.
o Healthcare: The CPSs can be used
in medical devices, such as wearable
monitors, to monitor patients' vital
signs and other health information.
o Transportation: The CPSs are used
in intelligent transportation
systems, such as traffic
management and smart cities, to
improve safety and efficiency.
o Environmental monitoring: The
CPSs can be used to monitor and
control the environment, such as for
air and water quality.
o Agriculture: The CPSs can be used
in precision agriculture to monitor
and control crops, soil and weather
conditions.
o Military: The CPSs can be used in
military equipment, such as
unmanned aerial vehicles, to
monitor and control the battlefield.
o Space exploration: The CPSs can
be used in spacecraft and other
space missions to monitor and
control the spacecraft's systems and
interactions with its environment.
RAUSIAS-1044
76. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 As a deterrent to any conventional
missile assault from the northern or the
western frontiers, Pralay is India's first
conventional quasi-ballistic missile.
 The missile will be India’s first tactical
quasi-ballistic missile and will give the
armed forces the capability to hit enemy
positions and key installations in actual
battlefield areas.
 Although mostly ballistic, a quasi-
ballistic missile may move while in flight
and has a low trajectory.
 A rocket or set of rockets provide initial
propulsion for the ballistic missiles,
which then follow an unpowered
trajectory that ascends before falling to
rapidly strike their targeted target.
 The missile has been designed such
that it can destroy the interceptor
missiles and, after flying a set distance
in mid-air, may alter its course.
 Pralay, along with the BrahMos
supersonic cruise missile, will form the
crux of India’s planned Rocket Force —
a concept that was envisaged by the
former Chief of Defence Staff (CDS), the
late General Bipin Rawat.
 The Pralay missile project was
sanctioned in 2015 and is a derivative
of the Prahaar missile programme,
which was first tested in 2011.
 The Indian missile can be compared to
China’s Dong Feng 12 and the Russian
Iskander missile that has been used in
the ongoing war with Ukraine.
 It is propelled by a rocket motor using
solid propellant and other unique
technology.
 Modern avionics are integrated with the
missile guiding system's navigation
system.
 With the capacity to transport a
conventional warhead weighing between
350 kg and 700 kg, it has a lethal
punishment potential.
30
  It is capable of transporting runaway
denial penetration sub-munitions.
 INS Dhruv is a research vessel and
missile range instrumentation ship built
by India's Hindustan Shipyard Limited
(HSL).
 The ship was earlier only known by its
shipyard designated yard number, as
VC-11184.
 The ship can gather electronic
intelligence and will be used to track
missile and satellites to aid India's
strategic weapons and anti-ballistic
missiles.
 It will be jointly operated by the
National Technical Research
Organization, the Defence Research and
Development Organization and the
Indian Navy.
77. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 Pulsars and neutron stars are closely
related.
 A neutron star is the compact remnant
of a massive star that has undergone a
supernova explosion.
 It is composed almost entirely of
neutrons, sub-atomic particles with no
electric charge.
 Neutron stars are extremely dense, with
a mass upto 1.5 times that of the Sun,
but a radius of only about 10 km.
 They are also incredibly fast-spinning,
with some neutron stars rotating
hundreds of times per second.
 A pulsar is a type of neutron star that
emits beams of electromagnetic
radiation out of its magnetic poles.
 The term "Pulsar" is derived from the
fact that these stars appear to pulse, as
their beams of radiation are only visible
when they are pointing towards the
Earth.
RAUSIAS-1044
 Pulsars are highly magnetized and
rapidly rotating, with some pulsars
rotating hundreds of times per second.
 The rapid rotation and strong magnetic
fields cause the emission of the beams
of electromagnetic radiation that can be
observed as pulses of light.
 In summary, all pulsars are neutron
stars, but not all neutron stars are
pulsars.
 A neutron star is simply a compact,
highly dense star, composed primarily
of neutrons, while a pulsar is a specific
type of neutron star that emits pulses of
electromagnetic radiation.
78. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 According to a research, the
Sandalwood Spike Disease (SSD) poses
a serious danger to commercial
sandalwood cultivation.
 It is an infectious condition brought on
by phytoplasma.
 Phytoplasmas are bacterial parasites
that live in plant tissues and are spread
from one plant to another by insects.
 The virus currently has no known
treatment.
 To stop the illness from spreading, the
affected tree must now be chopped
down and removed.
 In Kodagu (Karnataka), the sickness
was first noted in 1899.
 Between 1903 and 1916, more than a
million sandalwood trees in Kodagu and
Mysore area were cut down.
79. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
spectroscopy, most commonly known as
the NMR spectroscopy, or the Magnetic
Resonance spectroscopy (MRS), is a
spectroscopic technique to observe local
31
 magnetic fields around the atomic
nuclei.
 Study of molecular structure: Nuclear
Magnetic Resonance (NMR)
spectroscopy is a technique used to
study the molecular structure and
dynamics of substances.
 Magnetic field: NMR works by exposing
a sample to a magnetic field.
 Electromagnetic signals: The
technique measures the electromagnetic
signals emitted, when the nuclei of the
atoms within the sample absorb and re-
emit energy.
 Determines molecular properties:
NMR can be used to determine the
number and type of atoms present in a
molecule, their positions relative to one
another, and their chemical and
physical properties.
 Study of complex compounds: NMR is
a powerful tool for studying complex
organic and inorganic compounds.
 Non-invasive: NMR is a non-invasive
technique, meaning it does not alter the
sample being studied.
 Medical applications: NMR is used in
medical imaging and spectroscopy to
visualize and study the structure and
function of tissues and organs.
 Industrial applications: NMR is used
in various industries for quality control
and analytical purposes.
 Multi-nuclear NMR: NMR
spectrometers can be designed to study
multiple nuclei, such as proton and
carbon-13, allowing for more
comprehensive molecular information.
 High-resolution: NMR spectrometers
can achieve high-resolution spectra,
allowing for the detailed study of
molecular structure and dynamics.
80. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Hemis National Park is a high-
elevation National Park in Ladakh
(India). Globally famous for its snow
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leopards, it is believed to have the highest
density of them in any Protected Area in
the world.
It is the only National Park in India that is
north of the Himalayas; the largest notified
Protected Area in India (the largest National
Park) and is the second largest contiguous
Protected Area, after the Nanda Devi
Biosphere Reserve and the surrounding
Protected Areas.
The Park is bounded on the north by the
banks of the Indus River, and includes
the catchments of the Markha, the Sumdah
and the Rumbak, and parts of the Zanskar
Range.
81. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Alpha diversity, sometimes referred to
as the ‘point diversity’, is the species
richness that occurs within a given area
within a region that is smaller than the
entire distribution of the species.
Beta diversity is the rate at which the
species richness increases, as one moves
in a straight line across a region from
one habitat to another habitat. In other
words, it is the rate of change in the
species richness that occurs with a change
in the spatial scale.
Gamma diversity is the species richness
within an entire region. As the area being
surveyed approaches that of the entire
region, alpha diversity approaches gamma
diversity and beta diversity approaches
zero.
82. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Animal Welfare Board of India is a
statutory advisory body on the animal
welfare laws and promotes animal welfare
in the country. Established in 1962 under
the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act,
1960, the Board consists of 28 members.
The term of the office of the members is for
a period of 3 years.
32
 It is functioning under the aegis of
the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal
Husbandry and Dairying (MoFAH&D).
83. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Central Government set up the
‘National Ganga River Basin Authority’
(NGRBA) as an empowered planning,
financing, monitoring and co-ordinating
authority for the Ganga River, in
exercise of the powers conferred under
the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
The Prime Minister is the ex-officio
Chairperson of the Authority, and it has as
its members, the Union Ministers
concerned and the Chief Ministers of the
states through which the Ganga flows, viz.,
Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
Jharkhand and West Bengal, among
others.
The objective of the Authority is to ensure
effective abatement of pollution and
conservation of the Ganga River by
adopting a holistic approach, with the river
basin as the unit of planning.
The functions of the Authority include all
measures necessary for planning and
execution of programmes for abatement of
pollution in the Ganga, in keeping with the
sustainable development needs.
84. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated
Habitat Assessment) is an independent,
non-profit society, established jointly by
The Energy and Resources Institute
(TERI) and the Ministry of New and
Renewable Energy (MNRE).
In 2007, the government adopted it as the
National Rating System for green buildings
in India.
It is a rating tool that helps the people
assess the performance of their building
against certain nationally acceptable
benchmarks. It evaluates the
RAUSIAS-1044
environmental performance of a building
holistically over its entire life cycle, thereby
providing a definitive standard for what
constitutes a ‘green building’. The rating
system, based on accepted energy and
environmental principles, will seek to strike
a balance between the established practices
and emerging concepts, both national and
international.
Internationally, GRIHA has been recognized
as an innovative tool for sustainable
development by the United Nations.
85. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
About the Ramsar Convention: The
Convention’s mission is “the conservation
and wise use of all wetlands through local
and national actions and international co-
operation, as a contribution towards
achieving sustainable development
throughout the world”.
The Convention uses a broad definition of
wetlands. It includes all lakes and rivers,
underground aquifers, swamps and
marshes, wet grasslands, peatlands, oases,
estuaries, deltas and tidal flats, mangroves
and other coastal areas, coral reefs, and all
human-made sites, such as fish ponds,
rice paddies, reservoirs and salt pans.
At the time of joining the Convention,
each Contracting Party must designate
at least one wetland site within its
territory for inclusion in the List of
Wetlands of International Importance
(The Ramsar List).
The International Union for Conservation of
Nature (IUCN) provides administrative
services to the Convention on Wetlands.
The Convention Secretariat follows the
IUCN procedures and policies as
applicable.
86. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Carbon offset is any activity that
compensates for the emission of carbon
33
 dioxide (CO2) or other greenhouse gases
(measured in carbon dioxide equivalents
[CO2e]) by providing for an emission
reduction elsewhere.
Carbon offsets can be bought and sold as
part of compliance schemes, such as the
United Nations Framework Convention
on Climate Change (UNFCCC); the Kyoto
Protocol, or the European Union
Emissions Trading system (EU ETS; a
regional carbon market where the
European countries can trade carbon
allowances to meet regional emission-
reduction goals).
The Kyoto Protocol parties can obtain
offsets through a mechanism called joint
implementation (JI), where one party
develops an emission-reduction or
emission-removal project in another
country, where emissions are limited.
The parties can also obtain offsets
through the Clean Development
Mechanism (CDM) for the projects in the
developing countries, where emissions
are not otherwise limited.
87. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Arsenic is a natural component of the
Earth’s crust and is widely distributed
throughout the environment in the air,
water and land. It is highly toxic in its
inorganic form.
People are exposed to elevated levels of
inorganic arsenic through drinking
contaminated water, using contaminated
water in food preparation and irrigation of
food crops, industrial processes, eating
contaminated food and smoking tobacco.
Long-term exposure to inorganic arsenic,
mainly through drinking-water and food,
can lead to chronic arsenic poisoning. Skin
lesions and skin cancer are the most
characteristic effects.
People who smoke tobacco can also be
exposed to the natural inorganic arsenic
content of tobacco, because tobacco plants
RAUSIAS-1044
can take up arsenic naturally present in
the soil. The potential for elevated arsenic
exposure was much greater in the past,
when tobacco plants were treated with lead
arsenate insecticide.
88. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Paris Agreement is a legally binding
international treaty on climate change. It
was adopted by 196 parties at COP 21 in
Paris in 2015, and entered into force in
2016. Its goal is to limit global warming to
well below 2, preferably to 1.5 degrees
Celsius, compared to the pre-industrial
levels.
In their NDCs (Nationally Determined
Contributions), the countries communicate
actions they will take to reduce their
greenhouse gas emissions, in order to
reach the goals of the Paris Agreement. The
countries also communicate in the NDCs,
the actions they will take to build resilience
to adapt to the impacts of rising
temperatures.
The Paris Agreement provides a framework
for financial, technical and capacity
building support to those countries who
need it.
With the Paris Agreement, the countries
established an Enhanced Transparency
Framework (ETF). Under the ETF, starting
in 2024, the countries will report
transparently on the actions taken, and
progress in climate change mitigation,
adaptation measures and support provided
or received.
89. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Sariska Tiger Reserve is a Tiger
Reserve in Alwar district (Rajasthan,
India). It comprises scrub-thorn arid
forests, dry deciduous forests, grasslands
and rocky hills. It was given the status of a
Tiger Reserve, making it a part of India's
Project Tiger in 1978. The Wildlife
34
 Sanctuary was declared a National Park in industries and downstream industries
1982. It is the first reserve in the world associated with it.
with successfully relocated tigers. It is a  The Transition Bonds comprise of the
part of the Aravalli Range. It is rich in funds raised for transitioning to a more
mineral resources, such as copper. sustainable form of operations, in line
with India’s Intended Nationally
Determined Contributions.

92. Answer: (c)

Explanation:
AWARe Initiative:
 The AWARe (Action for Water
Adaptation and Resilience) Initiative has
been launched at COP27 of the
UNFCCC (The United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate
Change). It focuses on water as both a
key climate change problem and a
potential solution.
 Egypt, the host of COP27, committed to
90. Answer: (d)
make water a top priority in climate
Explanation:
talks.
Seeds Without Borders is a regional seed
 This is the first time that water has
policy agreement, that speeds up the
been made part of the informal agenda
distribution of modern rice varieties
of the COP of the UNFCCC.
across the countries in Asia, particularly
Objectives of AWARe Initiative:
in South and South-east Asia. In 2014, the
International Rice Research Institute  Decrease water losses worldwide and
(IRRI) facilitated the agreement signed improve water supply.
by India, Bangladesh and Nepal.  Promote mutually agreed, co-operative
Other members: The Philippines, Vietnam, water adaptation action.
Fiji, Bhutan, Cambodia and Sri Lanka.  Promote co-operation and inter-linkages
between water and climate action to
91. Answer: (c) achieve the 2030 SDG agenda,
particularly SDG 6 on clean water and
Explanation:
sanitation.
 The Blue Bonds comprise of the funds
raised for sustainable water
management, including clean water and 93. Answer: (a)
water recycling, and sustainable Explanation:
maritime sector, including sustainable The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment
shipping, sustainable fishing, fully Act, 2022:
traceable sustainable seafood, ocean 1. Invasive alien species has been
energy and ocean mapping. defined as a species of animal or plant
 The Yellow Bonds comprise of the which is not native to India and whose
funds raised for solar energy introduction or spread may threaten or
generation, and the upstream adversely impact the wildlife or its
habitat.

RAUSIAS-1044 35
 2. Zoo has been defined as an
establishment, whether stationary or
mobile, where captive animals are kept
for exhibiting to the public or ex-situ
conservation and includes a circus and
off-exhibit facilities, such as rescue
centres and conservation breeding
centres, but does not include an
establishment of a licensed dealer in
captive animals.
3. No renewal of any licence under the
Arms Act, 1959, shall be granted to
any person residing within ten
kilometres of a sanctuary, except
under the intimation to the Chief
Wildlife Warden or the authorized
officer.
94. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Energy Conservation (Amendment)
Act, 2022:
 Carbon Credit Trading: The Central
Government has been empowered to
specify a carbon credit trading scheme.
The Central Government or any
authorized agency may issue carbon
credit certificates to the entities
registered and compliant with the
scheme. The carbon credits under the
scheme will be tradable. Any other
person may also purchase a carbon
credit certificate on a voluntary basis.
 Energy Conservation and Sustainable
Building Code (ECSBC): A code which
provides norms and standards for
energy efficiency and its conservation,
use of renewable energy and other green
building requirements for a building.
This code shall apply to all buildings to
be constructed after notification of the
ECSBC by the Central and the State
Governments. Only the buildings
having minimum connected load of
100 kW or contract demand of 120
kVA and are intended to be used for
commercial or office building or
residential purpose.
RAUSIAS-1044
 Increasing the scope of energy
conservation standards: Earlier, such
codes were only applicable on electrical
appliances. Now, the scope of energy
conservation codes has been widened to
include appliances, vehicles, vessels,
industrial units and buildings or
establishments.
95. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Purse Seine Fishing: Purse Seines are
used in the open ocean to target the dense
schools of single-species pelagic (midwater)
fish, like tuna and mackerel. A vertical net
‘curtain’ is used to surround the school
of fish, the bottom of which is then
drawn together to enclose the fish,
rather like tightening the cords of a
drawstring purse.
Concerns: It is a non-targeted fishing gear
and catches all sorts of fish.
96. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 Sardines are small epipelagic fish that
sometimes migrate along the coast in
large schools. They are an important
forage fish for larger forms. Most
sardines are marine. However, one
species of freshwater sardines is also
found.
 Trevally is a species of marine fish
found in the coasts of the Indian Ocean
and the Pacific Ocean.
97. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Other Effective area-based Conservation
Measures (OECMs): The OECMs are a new
conservation approach, separate from the
Protected Areas, where effective in-situ
conservation of biodiversity is achieved,
mainly as a by-product of other
management.
The OECMs have been devised under the
U.N. Convention on Biological Diversity.
36
 Criteria for the identification of the
OECMs:
 The area must not be recognised as a
Protected Area.
 The area should be effectively governed
and managed, and it should be
geographically defined.
 The area should achieve sustained and
effective in-situ conservation of
biodiversity.
98. Answer: (d)
 The area should deliver associated
ecosystem functions and services, and
cultural, spiritual, socio-economic and
other locally relevant values.
Note: Those conservation initiatives, which
have been notified as the 'Reserved Forests'
by the Forest Survey of India, will not
qualify as the potential OECMs in India, as
they have already being counted as the
Protected Areas.
Potential OECM categories in India:
 Terrestrial: Biodiversity Parks;
Industrial Estates for Conservation
Purposes; Village Commons/Lands;
Important Bird Areas and Important
Bird and Biodiversity Areas; Urban
Trees and Forests/Urban Greens/City
Forests; Urban/City Gardens; Unique
Agricultural Systems; and Individual
Green Trees.
 Inland waterbodies, like lakes &
ponds, riverine waterbodies and
artificial waterbodies.
 Coastal waterbodies, like Important
Costal Biodiversity Areas (ICBAs).
 Marine areas, like Important Marine
99. Answer: (b)
Biodiversity Areas (IMBAs); and
ecologically/culturally/international
significant coastal & marines areas.
OECMs recognised in India:
 Aravalli Biodiversity Park, Gurgaon (The
first OECM to be identified in India).
 Godrej's Pirojshanagar Mangroves,
Maharashtra.
 Coromandel Kakinada Birds Paradise,
Andhra Pradesh.
RAUSIAS-1044
 TVS Motor Company Nature
Conservation Reserve, Tamil Nadu.
 Sacred Groves of Nitii (Hong), Arunachal
Pradesh.
 Kadwa Kosi Floodplains, Bihar.
 Jagatpur Lake, Bihar.
 Apatani, Arunachal Pradesh.
 Zabo Farming System, Nagaland.
Explanation:
Kappaphycus Alvarezii:
 It is a fast-growing algae (seaweed)
which is known to absorb high amount
of nutrients from the seawater. It is
indigenous to Indonesia and the
Philippines, and was introduced in
India in 1995 for cultivation purpose.
 Commercial significance: It plays an
important role in the production of
industrially lucrative polymer, called
Carrageenan.
 The Global Invasive Species Database of
the IUCN (The International Union for
Conservation of Nature) has placed
Kappaphycus in the Red List. The IUCN
has described the Kappaphycus as a
destructive invasive species and poses a
danger to the coral reefs.
 Kappaphycus is known to adversely
impact the coral reefs. Its cultivation in
the Palk Bay and the Gulf of Munnar
adversely impacts the coral reefs in the
region.
Explanation:
Surya Nutan Solar Cookstove:
 Indian Oil Corporation and the
Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas
have launched the Surya Nutan Solar
Cookstove.
 Surya Nutan is a stationary,
rechargeable and ‘always kitchen
connected’ indoor solar cooking stove.
37
  It offers online cooking mode while
charging through the Sun, which
maximises the system efficiency and
ensures high utilization of energy from
the Sun.
 It works on a hybrid mode (i.e., can
work on both solar and auxiliary energy
sources simultaneously) which makes
Surya Nutan a reliable cooking solution
for all weather conditions.
 Surya Nutan can be used in all
weathers and seasons, including when
the Sun is not available for long
durations or for continuous days, such
as monsoons and extreme winters.
100. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Climate Equity Monitor (CEM):
 It is an online dashboard developed
by various research organizations for
assessing international equity in climate
action in relation to climate mitigation,
energy and resource consumption, and
climate policy across the entire world.
RAUSIAS-1044
 The CEM is the first such initiative from
a developing country, comparing the
responsibilities and policies and actions
of Annex-I and Non-Annex-I parties
from the perspective of equity and
CBDR-RC (Common but Differentiated
Responsibilities and Respective
Capabilities).
 The Monitor estimates that India’s fair
shares of the remaining carbon budget
for a 50% probability of staying within
1.5°C and 2°C temperature increase are
89.4 GtCO2 and 241.3 GtCO2,
respectively.
 With respect to the historical
cumulative emissions prior to 2020, it
finds that India has a carbon credit of
337.59 GtCO2, due to its unutilized
share of the part of the global carbon
budget consumed till 2020.
38