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Physics SSC-I

BAHRIA FOUNDATION COLLEGES (NORTH)


Centralized Notes of MCQ’s
(RWP, Mardan, Abbottabad, Gujranwala, Sargodha) Boards
Physics SSC-I

Physical Quantities and Measurements


Q. 1 Choose the correct answer from the following.
1. is one of the billions of galaxies of known universe.
(a) Cygnus A
(b) Virgo A
(c) Andromeda
(d) Milky Way
2. The word science is derived from word scientia.
(a) Greek
(b) Latin
(c) Egyptian
(d) French
3. Physical science deals with the study of .
(a) Living
b) non- living
(c) nature
(d) none of these
4. physics is the study of production of ionic state of metter.
(a) atomic
(b) Nuclear
(c) Geo
(d) Plasma
5. A car is made on the principle of .
(a) mechanics
(b) thermodynamics
(c) electricity
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(d) magnetism
6. is the study of matter, energy and their interaction.
(a) Geography
(b) chemsitry
(c) biology
(d) physics

7. Much of the universe is made up of .


(a) Plasma
(b) Solid
(c) liquid
(d) Gases
8. is a base quantity.
(a) mass
(b) torque
(c) momentum
(d) speed

9. Number of base units in SI are .


(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

10. Least count of vernier caliper is .


(a) 0.001 cm
(b) 0.01 mm
(c) 0.01 cm
(d) 0.0001 cm
11. Which one of the following is not a derived unit?
(a) Electric current
(b) force
(c) pressure
(d) density

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12. The volume of one liter cube is .


(a)
10 cm3
(b) 1000 cm3
(c)
1 cm3
(d)
100 cm3
13. SI unit of intensity of light is .
(a) Pascal
(b) Candela
(c) Ampere
(d) Kelvin
14. 1 m3 = L
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 100 N
(d) 1000

15. The term used internationally for multiples and submultiples is called .
(a) Scientific notation
(b) Prefixes
(c) Standard form
(d) All of them

16. One tera is equal to .

(a) 10-12
(b) 10-15
(c) 1012
(d) 1015

17. 1µs = .

(a) 106s
(b) 10-3s
(c) 103 s
(d) 10-6s
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18. is the standard form of 170500 m.

(a) 1.7 × 105 m


(b) 170.5 × 103 m
(c) 17.05 × 104 m
(d) 17050.0 × 101 m

19. is the total length of vernier scale.

(a) 15 mm
(b) 10 mm
(c) 5 mm
(d) 9 mm

20. Total number of divisions on vernier scale are .

(a) 100
(b) 10
(c) 9
(d) 1

21. telescope orbits around the earth and provide information about stars.

(a) COROT
(b) Swift Gamma ray
(c) Hubble Space
(d) MOST

22. The smallest reading that can be taken using a metre rule is

(a) 1mm
(b) 1 cm
(c) 1 µm

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(d) 0.1 mm

23. The smallest reading on main scale of vernier caliper is .

(a) 0.1 mm
(b) 1 mm
(c) 0.9 mm
(d) 0.01 mm

24. Zero error is of zero correction.

(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) same
(d) None of these

25. One mili litre is equal to .

(a) 1 cm3
(b)
10 dm3
(c)
1 dm3
(d)
10 cm3

26. is the separation between division on the veriner scale of veriner caliper.

(a) 1mm
(b) 0.9 mm
(c) 1 cm
(d) 1 dm

27. If zero line of vernier scale is coinciding with the zero of the main scale then zero error is
.

(a) positive
(b) negative
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(c) zero
(d) none of these

28. If zero line of vernier scale is on the left side of the zero of the main scale then zero error
is ..

(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of these

29. If zero line of vernier scale is on the right side of the zero of the main scale then zero
error is .

(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of these

30. Least count of digital vernier calliers is .

(a) 0.001 mm
(b) 1 mm
(c) 0.1 mm
(d) 0.01 mm

31. Least count of micro meter screw gauge is .

(a) 0.001 mm
(b) 0.1 cm
(c) 0.001 cm
(d) 0.01 mm

32. is the distance between consective thread on the spindle of screw gauge.

(a) 1 cm
(b) 1m
(c) 0.01 mm
(d) 1 mm

33. Total number of divisions on circular scale of screw gauge is .

(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 10
(d) 20

34. If zero of circular scale coincides with index line, then zero error will be .

(a) positive
(b) negative
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(c) zero
(d) none of these

35. If zero of circular scale is behind the index line, then zero error will be .

(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of these

36. If zero of circular scale has crossed the index line, then zero error will be .

(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of these

37. Least count of digital balance is .


(a) 0.01 mg
(b) 0.001 mg
(c) 1 mg
(d) 0.1 mg

38. If zero of circular scale is above the index line, then the zero error is to be_ .

(a) added
(b) subtracted
(c) divided
d) multiplied

39. If zero of circular scale is below the index line, then the zero error is to be .

(a) added
(b) subtracted
(c) divided
(d) multiplied

40. A physical balance is used to measure the of various objects..


(a) length
(b) weight
(c) mass
(d) density
41. is the least count of mechanical stopwatch.
(a) 0.01s
(b) 1 s
(c) 0.1 s
(d) 0.001 s
42. is the least count of digital stopwatch.

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a) 0.01s
(b) 1 s
(c) 0.1 s
(d) 0.001 s
43. Measuring cylinder is used to measure .
(a) mass
(b) weight
(c) length
(d) volume
44. Least count of measuring cylinder is .
(a) 0.1 mL
(b) 1 L
(c) 0.01 mL
(d) 1 mL
45. To measure the volume of liquid accurately, the eye must be kept on the level as
the of meniscus of the liquid.
(a) lower
(b) upper
(c) same
(d) middle

46. The accuracy in measuring a physical quantity depends upon .


(a) Quality of measuring instrument
(b) Skill of the observer
(c) 50number of observation made
(d) All of them
47. In any measurement, are all the accurately known digits and the first doubtful
digit.
(a) Scientific notation
(b) Prefixes
(c) Significant figures
(d) real numbers

48. 2.0098 has significant figures.


(a) 1
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(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
49. Final or ending zeros on the right in the decimal fraction are .
(a) significant
(b) insignificant
(c) constant
(d) none of these
50. The number of significant numbers in 2.6 × 105 is .
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
51. Zeros between significant digits are considered as:
(a) significant
(b) insignificant
(c) constant
(d) none of these
52. 0.00078 has significant figure.
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 2
53. The diameter of thin wire can be measured by .
(a) vernier callipers
(b) screw gauge
(c) meter rule
(d) measuring tape
54. is the largest quantity from the following.
(a) 0.01 g
(b) 2 cm
(c) 200 µg
(d) 500 ng
55. A screw gauge has 80 divisions on its circular scale. The pitch of screw gauge is 0.5
mm. is the least count of screw gauge.
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(a) 0.001 mm
(b) 0.06 mm
(c) 0.01 mm
(d) 0.006 mm
56. Least count of vernier caliper is also known as .
(a) Proportionality constant
(b) vernier constant
(c) pitch
(d) vernier value

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Chapter No.2 Kinematics

1. is the study of motion of an object.


(a) Nuclear physics
(b) Light
(c) Mechanics
(d) Thermodynamics
2. Study of motion of an object without discussing the causes of motion is called .
(a) Kinematics
(b) Dynamics
(c) Heat
(d) Plasma physics
3. If a body does not change its position with respect to its surrounding, then it will be in the
state of .
(a) motion
(b) rest
(c) relative motion
(d) uniform motion
4. If a body change its position with respect to its surrounding, then it will be in the state of
.
(a) motion
(b) rest
(c) relative motion
(d) uniform motion
5. Rest and motion of a body is .
(a) absolute
(b) constant
(c) variable
(d) relative
6. The motion of a body about an axis is called .
(a) Circular
(b) Vibratory
(c) Rotational
(d) Random
(e)
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7. A body has translator motion if it moves along a .


(a) Circle
(b) straight line
(c) Curved path
(d) line without rotation
8. is a type of motion of a body in which every particle of a body has same
motion.
(a) Translatory motion
(b) Rotatory motion
(c) Vibratory motion
(d) none of these
9. The motion of aeroplanes flying straight in the air is .
(a) Rotatory motion
(b) Vibratory motion
(c) Linear motion
(d) none of these
10. The motion of a gas or liquid molecules along a zig-zag path is called .
(a) Circular motion
(b) Translatory motion
(c) Rotatory motion
(d) Brownian motion
11. To and fro motion of body about its mean position is known as .
(a) Translatory motion
(b) Rotatory motion
(c) Vibratory motion
(d) none of these
12. is the motion of a cradle and string of guitar.
(a) Translatory motion
(b) Rotatory motion
(c) Vibratory motion
(d) none of these
13. A quantity is described completely by its magnitude and direction.
(a) Scalar
(b) Vector
(c) Both (a) and (b)
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(d) none of these


14. Mass is a quantity.
(a) Scalar
(b) Vector
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
15. Force is a quantity.
(a) Scalar
(b) Vector
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
16. A vector quantity is represented by .
(a) line segment
(b) bold letter
(c) bar or arrow over their symbol
(d) All of them
17. The total length between two points is called .
(a) distance
(b) displacement
(c) length
(d) acceleration
18. Shortest distance between two points is known ass .
(a) distance
(b) displacement
(c) length
(d) acceleration
19. Flacon can fly at a speed of .
-1
(a) 200 kmh
(b) 200 kmh-2

(c) 70 kmh-2
(d) 100 kmh-2
20. Displacement is a quantity.
(a) scalar
(b) vector

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(c) Both (a) and (b)


(d) none of these
21. Cheetah can run at the speed of .
-1
(a) 200 kmh
(b) 70 kmh-2
(c) 70 kmh-1
(d) 100 kmh-2
22. is the distance covered in unit time.
(a) speed
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) displacement
23. is used to measure the speed of a vehicle.
(a) Shotgun
(b) Submachine gun
(c) Carbines
(d) LIDAR gun
24. By dividing the displacement of moving body with time we get .
(a) speed
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) displacement
25. A car is moving at a speed of 20 ms-1. Its speed in kmh-1 is .
(a) 27
(b) 72
(c) 5.55
(d) 50
26. SI unit of velocity is .
(a) kms-1
(b) ms-2
(c) kmh-2
(d) ms-1
27. If a body covers equal displacement in equal interval of time, however short the interval
may be, then the velocity of body is .
(a) constant
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(b) variable
(c) uniform
(d) none of these
28. is the rate of change of velocity.
(a) velocity
(b) speed
(c) acceleration
(d) displacment
29. SI unit of acceleration is .
(a) kms-1
(b) ms-2

(c) kmh-2
(d) ms-2
30. Acceleration of a body is if its velocity decreases.
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) uniform
(d) variable
31. Acceleration of a body is if its velocity increases.
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) uniform
(d) variable
32. is SI unit of displacement.
(a) cm
(b) m
(c) mm
(d) dm
33. If velocity of a body changes equally in equal interval of time then its acceleration is:
(a) uniform
(b) constant
(c) variable
(d) all of them

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34. If a body is moving in a circular path with uniform speed its velocity and acceleration will
be .
(a) in the same direction
(b) in the opposite direction
(c) equal
(d) mutually perpendicular
35. If a car is moving with uniform speed in circle then the magnitude of its velocity will
be .
(a) uniform
(b) constant
(c) variable
(d) zero
36. If the direction of motion of a body and direction of acceleration of body is same then
acceleration will be .
(a) Positive
(b) negative
(c) uniform
(d) zero
37. If the direction of motion of a body and direction of acceleration of body is opposite then
acceleration will be .
(a) Positive
(b) negative
(c) uniform
(d) zero
38. If motion of body is in a then distance and displacement, speed and velocity
are interchangeable.
(a) circle
(b) curved path
(c) random motion
(d) straight line
39. Slope of a line represents .
(a) speed
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) displacement
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40. If an object is moving with constant speed in speed-time graph then its graph will be
straight line .
(a) along time axis
(b) along distance axis
(c) parallel to time axis
(d) inclined to time axis
41. ms-2= kmh-2
(a) 1/12960
(b) 10/36
(c) 12960
(d) 36/10

42. kmh-2= ms-2.


(a) 1/12960
(b) 10/36
(c) 12960
(d) 36/10
43. A ball is thrown vertically upward its velocity at the maximum point is .
-1
(a) -10 ms
(b)
10 ms-1
(c) zero
(d) none of these
44. There are basic equations of motion.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
45. Equations of motion are applicable for a body moving with .
(a) uniform acceleration
(b) uniform speed
(c) constant acceleration
(d) variable acceleration
46. In equation of motion, initial velocity of a body is taken as .
(a) negative
(b) positive
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(c) variable
(d) uniform
47. Velocity of a body with height.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) constant
(d) none of these
48. All the freely falling bodies have the same acceleration independent of their
.
(a) velocity

(b) speed
(c) length
(d) mass
49. is the value of g at sea level.
(a) -2
32 fts
(b)
980 cms-2
(c) 9.8 ms-2
(d) all of them
50. If a ball is thrown upward, its gravitational acceleration is .
(a) Increased
(b) variable
(c) positive
(d) zero
51. If a ball is thrown from the top of the tower, its gravitational acceleration is .
(a) Increased
(b) negative
(c) positive
(d) zero
52. If a body is falling under the gravity its initial velocity will be .
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) uniform
(d) zero
53. If a ball is dropped from the top of the tower, the distance covered by it in the first two

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second is .
(a) 5 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 20 N
(d) 40
54. Uniform velocity with which a paratrooper coming down is also called .
(a) horizontal
(b) terminal
(c) variable
(d) orbital
55. A car starts from rest. It acquires a speed of 35 ms-1 after 25 s. The distance moved by
the car during this time is .
(a) 31.25 m
(b) 250 m
(c) 5000 m
(d) 5000 m
56. A bicycle accelerates at 2 ms-2 from an initial velocity of 5 ms-1 for 15 s. is the
distance moved by it during this interval of time.
(a) 90 m
(b) 25 m
(c) 50 N
(d) 75 m
57. Motion of a wheel is .
(a) translatory
(b) circular
(c) vibratory
(d) rotatory

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Chapter No.3 Dynamics

1. Study of motion of an object without and the causes of its motion is called .
(a) Kinematics
(b) Dynamics
(c) Heat
(d) Plasma physics
2. Laws of motion are presented by .
(a) Einstein
(b) Galileo
(c) Issac Newton
(d) Archimedes
3. Laws of motion are described in the famous book of Issac Newton:
(a) Al-Manazir
(b) Kitab-ul-Astrabal
(c) Principia Mathematica
(d) Qanoon-ul-Masoodi
4. can change the state of rest or motion and direction of motion of a body.
(a) length
(b) momentum
(c) force
(d) mass
5. Who observed that it is easy to move or stop light objects than heavier ones?
(a) Einstein
(b) Galileo
(c) Issac Newton
(d) Archimedes
6. Newton‟s first law of motion is also known as law of .
(a) inertia
(b) mass
(c) momentum
(d) none of these
7. of a body is its property due to which it resists any change in its state of rest
or motion.
(a) Torque
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(b) momentum
(c) force
(d) inertia
8. Inertia of a body depends on .
(a) length
(b) momentum
(c) force
(d) mass
9. is the quantity of motion of body possesses due to its mass and velocity.
(a) Moment arm
(b) torque
(c) momentum

(d) none of these


10. SI unit of momentum is .
-1
(a) Ns
(b) Nm
(c) Ns
(d) Nm-1
11. Momentum is quantity.
(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) both
(d) none of these
12. Laws of motion described the relationship between force and of a body.
(a) motion
(b) weight
(c) inertia
(d) mass
13. A body which have greater mass has inertia.
(a) greater
(b) less
(c) zero
(d) none of these

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14. The impact of bullet is so strong when it is fired from the gun due to its .
(a) less momentum
(b) small inertia
(c) greater momentum
(d) none of these
15. Which property of a body can NOT change if a force is a applied to it?
(a) mass
(b) shape
(c) size
(d) velocity
16. When a bus takes a sharp turn, passengers fall in the outward direction due to .
(a) Torque
(b) inertia
(c) force
(d) momentum
17. Newton‟s first law of motion applicable in the .
(a) Presence of net force
(b) absence of net force
(c) Presence of momentum
(d) absence of momentum
18. A body produces , when a force acts on a body.
(a) energy
(b) mass
(c) weight
(d) acceleration
19. Acceleration produced in a moving body is always in the direction of
(a) momentum
(b) force
(c) torque
(d) speed

20. Newton‟s second law of motion applicable in the .


(a) Presence of net force
(b) absence of net force
(c) Presence of momentum

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(d) absence of momentum


21. One Newton is the force that produces an acceleration of in a body of mass of 1kg.
-2
(a) 2 ms
(b) 1 ms-2
(c) 2 ms-1
(d) 1 ms-1
22. 1 N = .
(a) kgms
(b)
kgms2
(c)
kgms-1
(d) kgms-2
23. If a force of 70 N acting on a body of mass 10 kg, then acceleration produced in it is:
(a) 14 ms-2
(b) 0.14 ms-2
(c) 7 ms-2
(d) 7 ms-1
24. If a mass of a body is halved while keeping the force constant, then acceleration will be
.
(a) One half
(b) One forth
(c) doubled
(d) four times
25. If a force acting on a body halved while keeping the mass constant, then acceleration
will be .
(a) One half
(b) One forth
(c) doubled
(d) four times
26. The quantity of motion possessed by a body is called .
(a) mass
(b) weight
(c) volume
(d) density
27. The force of gravity acting on a body is known as .
(a) mass
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(b) weight
(c) volume
(d) density
28. SI unit of mass is .
(a) Candela
(b) Pascal
(c) Newton
(d) Kilogram
29. is the SI unit of weight.
(a) Candela
(b) Pascal
(c) Newton
(d) Kilogram
30. Mass of body is measured by .
(a) Beam balance
(b) spring balance
(c) electronic balance
(d) None of these
31. Weight is measured by .
(a) Beam balance
(b) spring balance
(c) electronic balance
(d) Both (b) & (c)
32. of a body remains same everywhere.
(a) weight
(b) mass
(c) speed
(d) accelertion
33. Weight of a body depends on .
(a) force
(b) gravitational acceleration
(c) momentum
(d) inertia
34. Mass is a quantity.
(a) Derive
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(b) vector
(c) scalar
(d) negative
35. Weight is a quantity.
(a) Base
(b) vector
(c) scalar
(d) negative
36. To every action there is always an equal but opposite .
(a) force
(b) acceleration
(c) reaction
(d) speed
37. According to Newton‟s law of motion to every action there is always an equal
and opposite reaction.
(a) 1st
(b) 2nd
(c) 3rd
(d) none of these
38. If a block is hanged with the help of string the weight of block is balanced by .
(a) mass
(b) tension
(c) momentum
(d) acceleration
39. Spider web remains intact with roof owing to .
(a) mass
(b) tension
(c) momentum
(d) weight
40. There are cases of motion of a body hanging with the help of string.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5

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41. is used to find the acceleration due to gravity.


(a) Atwood machine
(b) Physical balance
(c) Beam balance
(d) none of these
42. The momentum of an isolated system of two or more than two interacting bodies
remains .
(a) change
(b) uniform
(c) constant
(d) all of them
43. Jet engines work on the principle of.
(a) thermodynamics
(b) law of conservation of energy
(c) law of inertia
(d) law of conservation momentum
44. Rate of change of momentum of the body is equal to .
(a) torque
(b) force
(c) momentum
(d) displacement
45. The force that retards the motion of one body on the other body is known as .
(a) friction
(b) weight
(c) torque
(d) momentum
46. The maximum value of force of friction is called .
(a) Dynamic
(b) Static
(c) Limiting
(d) Kinetic
47. Kinetic friction is always less than friction.
(a) Dynamic
(b) Static
(c) Fluid
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(d) Sliding
48. The ratio between the force of limiting friction and normal reaction is known as .
(a) Torque
(b) Force
(c) Momentum
(d) Coefficient of friction
49. SI unit of coefficient of friction is .
(a) Newton
(b) Pascal
(c) Meter cube
(d) No unit
50. Sliding friction is than rolling friction.
(a) less
(b) greater
(c) equal
(d) halved
51. Rolling friction is almost times less than sliding friction.
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 50
52. Coefficient of friction depends upon .
(a) Area of contact
(b) force
(c) nature of two surfaces
(d) all of them
53. The wheels of a moving vehicle have velocity components.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
54. Fast-moving objects such as cars, trains, and aeroplanes are all shaped streamline to
.
(a) increase air friction
(b) increase force
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(c) reduce air friction


(d) none of these
55. The motion of the moon around the earth is .
(a) rotatory
(b) circular
(c) linear
(d) brownian
56. Banking of the road means outer edge of the road is .
(a) lowered
(b) raised
(c) leveled
(d) none of these
57. Water from wet clothes from dryer is forced out through holes due to lack of
.
(a) Centrifugal force
(b) friction
(c) centripetal force
(d) all of these
58. Separation of cream from milk is based on the principle of .
(a) thermodynamics
(b) law of conservation of momentum
(c) Centripetal force
(d) centrifugal force
59. A stone of mass 100 g is attached to a string 1m long. The stone is rotating in a circle
with a speed of 5 ms-1. is the tension in the string.
(a) 25 N
(b) 2.5 N
(c) 50 N
(d) 5.5 N
60. Friction of liquid is than solid.
(a) less
(b) greater
(c) equal
(d) doubled

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Physics SSC-I

61. When horse pull a cart, the reaction is on the .


(a) earth
(b) horse
(c) cart
(d) earth and cart
62. of body does not remain same everywhere.
(a) mass
(b) inertia
(c) weight
(d) all of these
63. A body has weight 30 N. is the force required to move it vertically upward with an
-2
acceleration of 4 ms .
(a) 42 N
(b) 34 N
(c) 43 N
(d) 24 N
64. Centripetal force is equal to .
(a) mv-2/r
(b) mv/r2
(c) mv2/r2
(d) mv2/r
65. If speed of a body is doubled, then its centripetal force will become:
(a) 2 Fc
(b) 4 Fc
(c) 1/ 2 Fc
(d) 1/4 Fc

29
Physics SSC-I

Chapter 4Turning Effect of Forces

1. The forces which are parallel to each other and have the same direction is called
forces.
(a) same
(b) like
(c) unlike
(d) all of them
2. The forces which are parallel to each other and have the opposite direction is called
forces.
(a) same
(b) like
(c) unlike
(d) all of them
3. Vector quantities are added by .
(a) Left hand rule
(b) right hand rule
(c) Head to tail rule
(d) none of these
4. An apple is suspended by a string, the number of forces acting on it is .
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
5. forces can turn the object if not acting in line.
(a) same
(b) like
(c) unlike
(d) all of them
6. Splitting up vectors into their perpendicular components is known as .
(a) multiplication of vectors
(b) addition of vectors
(c) division of vectors
(d) resolution of vectors
7. X-component of a vector is called .
30
Physics SSC-I

(a) horizontal component


(b) vertical component
(c) y- component
(d) none of these
8. Y-component of a force is called .
(a) horizontal component
(b) vertical component
(c) y- component
(d) both b and c
9. At what angle the x and y component of a force are equal?
(a)
180o
(b) 45o
(c)
35o
(d)
90o
10. The direction of force F with x-axis is given by:
(a) tan-1 ( Fy /Fx)
(b) sin-1 ( Fy /Fx)
(c) cos-1 ( Fy /Fx)
(d) tan-1 ( Fx /Fy)
11. The door is opened or closed due to the acting on it.
(a) couple
(b) torque
(c) accceleration
(d) velocity
12. If turning effect produced in the clockwise direction then the torque is .
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) opposite
(d) perpendicular

13. If turning effect produced in the anticlockwise direction then the torque is _.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) opposite
(d) perpendicular
31
Physics SSC-I

14. Torque is quantity.


(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) Base
(d) none of these
15. SI unit of torque is .
(a) Newton
(b)
Nm-1
(c)
Nm-2
(d) Nm
16. If turning effect produced in a body depends upon .
(a) force
(b) moment arm
(c) both (a)& (b)
(d) none of these
17. We can open or close a door more easily by applying a force at the of a
door.
(a) hinge
(b) centre
(c) outer edge
(d) none of these
18. A spanner having long arm helps to do the work with ease than shorter arm
spanner.
(a) greater
(b) little
(c) less
(d) smaller
19. The perpendicular distance between the line of action of the force and axis of rotation is
called the .
(a) moment of force
(b) force
(c) moment arm
(d) torque
20. SI unit of moment arm is .
(a) 2
m
32
Physics SSC-I

(b) Nm
(c)
m3
(d) m
21. A force of 150 N loose a nut when applied at the end of a spanner 10cm long
should be the length of spanner to loosen the same nut with a 60 N force.
(a) 2.5 m
(b) 25 cm
(c) 0.25 cm
(d) 25 m
22. A force of 150 N loose a nut when applied at the end of a spanner 10cm long
force would be sufficient to loosen the same nut with a 6 cm long spanner.

(a) 2.5 N
(b) 25 N
(c) 250 N
(d) 25 N
23. A small child play with a fat child on see saw when small child will sit .
(a) near to the axis of rotation
(b) far from axis of rotation
(c) at axis of rotation
(d) at centre
24. Two children are sitting on the see-saw, such that they cannot swing. Turning effect
produce in this situation is .
(a) zero
(b) negative
(c) positive
(d) maximum
25. A point where an applied force causes a system to move without rotation is called
.
(a) centre of parallelogram
(b) centre of gravity
(c) centre point of axis
(d) centre of mass
26. A system move without rotation if the force acts .
(a) near to centre of mass

33
Physics SSC-I

(b) far from centre of mass


(c) at centre of mass
(d) none of these
27. A point where the whole weight of body appears to act is known as .
(a) couple
(b) centre of mass
(c) centre of gravity
(d) centre point
28. Position of centre of gravity of a body depends upon its .
(a) shape
(b) size
(c) mass
(d) weight
29. A is formed by two unlike parallel forces of the same magnitude but not
along the same line.
(a) torque
(b) moment of force
(c) moment arm
(d) couple
30. A double arm spanner is an example of .
(a) torque
(b) couple
(c) moment of force
(d) moment arm
31. The centre of gravity of uniform square , rectangle and parallelogram is the:
(a) centre point of axis
(b) point of intersection diagonals
(c) point of intersection of medians

(d) centre of parallelogram


32. The centre of gravity of a uniform triangular sheet is the:
(a) centre point of axis
(b) point of intersection diagonals
(c) point of intersection of medians
(d) centre of parallelogram

34
Physics SSC-I

33. The centre of gravity of uniform solid or hollow cylinder is the:


(a) centre point of axis
(b) point of intersection diagonals
(c) point of intersection of medians
(d) centre of parallelogram
34. The centre of gravity of regular objects is always:
(a) at centre
(b) symmetry
(c) at axis
(d) at medians
35. Centre of gravity of uniform ring and disc is always .
(a) centre point of axis
(b) point of intersection diagonals
(c) point of intersection of medians
(d) at centre
36. Which one of the following is an example of couple?
(a) turning door knob
(b) opening a bottle cap
(c) rotation of pencil in sharpener
(d) steering wheel of car
37. A body continuous its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line if
acting on it.
(a) net force
(b) net torque
(c) no net force
(d) no net torque
38. There are conditions of equilibrium.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
39. A body is said to be in if no net force acts on it .
(a) equilibrium
(b) rest
(c) motion
(d) none of these
40. A body in equilibrium remains at rest or move .
(a) with constant speed
35
Physics SSC-I

(b) with uniform velocity


(c) with zero acceleration
(d) both (b) and (c)
41. A force of 20 N is making an angel of 30o with the horizontal its vertical component will
be .
(a) 19.7 N
(b) 3.08 N
(c) 0.98 N
(d) 0.01 N
42. According to first condition of equilibrium net force acting on a body is .

(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) all of them
43. First condition of equilibrium is represented by .
(a) ∑Fx =0
(b) ∑Fy=0
(c) ∑F=0
(d) all of them
44. A paratrooper coming down with terminal velocity .
(a) decelerates
(b) accelerates
(c) in equilibrium
(d) not in equilibrium
45. A body satisfies second condition of equilibrium when net is zero.
(a) torque
(b) force
(c) moment
(d) velocity
46. There are states of equilibrium.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

36
Physics SSC-I

47. A body is said to be in if after slightly tilt it returns to its previous position.
(a) neutral equilibrium
(b) stable equilibrium
(c) unstable equilibrium
(d) none of these
48. A body is said to be in if after slightly tilt it does not return to its previous
position.
(a) neutral equilibrium (b) stable equilibrium
(c) unstable equilibrium (d) none of these
49. If a body remains in its new position when disturbed from its previous position, then it is
in the state of .
(a) neutral equilibrium
(b) stable equilibrium
(c) unstable equilibrium
(d) none of these
50. In stable equilibrium centre of gravity is at .
(a) lowest position
(b) highest position
(c) centre
(d) remains same
51. In unstable equilibrium centre of gravity is at .
(a) lowest position
(b) highest position
(c) centre
(d) remains same
52. In neutral equilibrium centre of gravity is at .
(a) lowest position

(b) highest position


(c) centre
(d) remains same
53. Book lying on a table is an example of equilibrium.
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) neutral

37
Physics SSC-I

(d) no one of these


54. Motion of a ball on the ground is an example of .
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) neutral
(d) no one of these
55. A pencil is balanced at its tip is an example of .
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) neutral
(d) no one of these
56. A body is if the some of clockwise moments is equal to sum of
anticlockwise moments.
(a) rigid
(b) balanced
(c) unbalanced
(d) flexible
57. The height of racing car is kept to .
(a) increase its weight
(b) to increase centre of gravity
(c) lower the centre of gravity
(d) decrease its width
58. Lower the centre of gravity of an object always .
(a) increases its stability
(b) increasing instability
(c) increases acceleration
(d) decreases acceleration
59. The steering of a car has a radius 20 cm, the torque produced by a couple of 60 N is:
(a) 12 Nm
(b) 1200 Nm
(c) 24 Nm
(d) 240 Nm
60. A force of 10N makes an angle of 90° with x-axis. Its horizontal component will be:
(a) 10 N
(b) 5 N
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Physics SSC-I

(c) 9 N
(d) 90 N
61. In right angled triangle the length of base is 4 cm and perpendicular is 3 cm , then the
length of its hypotenuse:
(a) 5 m
(b) 25 m
(c) 5 cm
(d) 25 cm

62. A ceiling fan rotating at constant speed is in equilibrium as net acting on it is


zero.
(a) speed
(b) displacement
(c) torque
(d) couple

39
Physics SSC-I

Chapter 4 Turning Effect of Forces

1. The forces which are parallel to each other and have the same direction is called
forces.
(a) same
(b) like
(c) unlike
(d) all of them
2. The forces which are parallel to each other and have the opposite direction is called
forces.
(a) same
(b) like
(c) unlike
(d) all of them
3. Vector quantities are added by .
(a) Left hand rule
(b) right hand rule
(c) Head to tail rule
(d) none of these
4. An apple is suspended by a string, the number of forces acting on it is .
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
5. forces can turn the object if not acting in line.
(a) same
(b) like
(c) unlike
(d) all of them
6. Splitting up vectors into their perpendicular components is known as .
(a) multiplication of vectors
(b) addition of vectors
(c) division of vectors
(d) resolution of vectors
7. X-component of a vector is called .
40
Physics SSC-I

(a) horizontal component


(b) vertical component
(c) y- component
(d) none of these
8. Y-component of a force is called .

(a) horizontal component


(b) vertical component
(c) y- component
(d) both b and c
9. At what angle the x and y component of a force are equal?
(a)
180o
(b) 45o
(c)
35o
(d)
90o
10. The direction of force F with x-axis is given by:
(a) tan-1 ( Fy /Fx)
(b) sin-1 ( Fy /Fx)
(c) cos-1 ( Fy /Fx)
(d) tan-1 ( Fx /Fy)
11. The door is opened or closed due to the acting on it.
(a) couple
(b) torque
(c) accceleration
(d) velocity
12. If turning effect produced in the clockwise direction then the torque is .
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) opposite
(d) perpendicular
13. If turning effect produced in the anticlockwise direction then the torque is .
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) opposite
(d) perpendicular

41
Physics SSC-I

14. Torque is quantity.


(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) Base
(d) none of these
15. SI unit of torque is .
(a) Newton
(b)
Nm-1
(c)
Nm-2
(d) Nm
16. If turning effect produced in a body depends upon .
(a) force
(b) moment arm
(c) both (a)& (b)
(d) none of these
17. We can open or close a door more easily by applying a force at the of a
door.
(a) hinge
(b) centre
(c) outer edge
(d) none of these

18. A spanner having long arm helps to do the work with ease than shorter arm
spanner.
(a) greater
(b) little
(c) less
(d) smaller
19. The perpendicular distance between the line of action of the force and axis of rotation is
called the .
(a) moment of force
(b) force
(c) moment arm
(d) torque
(e)

42
Physics SSC-I

20. SI unit of moment arm is .


(a)
m2
(b) Nm
(c)
m3
(d) m
21. A force of 150 N loose a nut when applied at the end of a spanner 10cm long
should be the length of spanner to loosen the same nut with a 60 N force.
(a) 2.5 m
(b) 25 cm
(c) 0.25 cm
(d) 25 m
22. A force of 150 N loose a nut when applied at the end of a spanner 10cm long
force would be sufficient to loosen the same nut with a 6 cm long spanner.
(a) 2.5 N
(b) 25 N
(c) 250 N
(d) 25 N
23. A small child play with a fat child on see saw when small child will sit .
(a) near to the axis of rotation
(b) far from axis of rotation
(c) at axis of rotation
(d) at centre
24. Two children are sitting on the see-saw, such that they cannot swing. Turning effect
produce in this situation is .
(a) zero
(b) negative
(c) positive
(d) maximum
25. A point where an applied force causes a system to move without rotation is called
.
(a) centre of parallelogram
(b) centre of gravity
(c) centre point of axis
(d) centre of mass
26. A system move without rotation if the force acts .
43
Physics SSC-I

(a) near to centre of mass


(b) far from centre of mass
(c) at centre of mass
(d) none of these

27. A point where the whole weight of body appears to act is known as .
(a) couple
(b) centre of mass
(c) centre of gravity
(d) centre point
28. Position of centre of gravity of a body depends upon its .
(a) shape
(b) size
(c) mass
(d) weight
29. A is formed by two unlike parallel forces of the same magnitude but not
along the same line.
(a) torque
(b) moment of force
(c) moment arm
(d) couple
30. A double arm spanner is an example of .
(a) torque
(b) couple
(c) moment of force
(d) moment arm
31. The centre of gravity of uniform square , rectangle and parallelogram is the:
(a) centre point of axis
(b) point of intersection diagonals
(c) point of intersection of medians
(d) centre of parallelogram
32. The centre of gravity of a uniform triangular sheet is the:
(a) centre point of axis
(b) point of intersection diagonals
(c) point of intersection of medians

44
Physics SSC-I

(d) centre of parallelogram


33. The centre of gravity of uniform solid or hollow cylinder is the:
(a) centre point of axis
(b) point of intersection diagonals
(c) point of intersection of medians
(d) centre of parallelogram
34. The centre of gravity of regular objects is always:
(a) at centre
(b) symmetry
(c) at axis
(d) at medians
35. Centre of gravity of uniform ring and disc is always .
(a) centre point of axis
(b) point of intersection diagonals
(c) point of intersection of medians
(d) at centre
36. Which one of the following is an example of couple?
(a) turning door knob
(b) opening a bottle cap
(c) rotation of pencil in sharpener
(d) steering wheel of car

37. A body continuous its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line if
acting on it.
(a) net force
(b) net torque
(c) no net force
(d) no net torque
38. There are conditions of equilibrium.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
39. A body is said to be in if no net force acts on it .
(a) equilibrium

45
Physics SSC-I

(b) rest
(c) motion
(d) none of these
40. A body in equilibrium remains at rest or move .
(a) with constant speed
(b) with uniform velocity
(c) with zero acceleration
(d) both (b) and (c)
41. A force of 20 N is making an angel of 30o with the horizontal its vertical component will
be .
(a) 19.7 N
(b) 3.08 N
(c) 0.98 N
(d) 0.01 N
42. According to first condition of equilibrium net force acting on a body is .
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) all of them
43. First condition of equilibrium is represented by .
(a) ∑Fx =0
(b) ∑Fy=0
(c) ∑F=0
(d) all of them
44. A paratrooper coming down with terminal velocity .
(a) decelerates
(b) accelerates
(c) in equilibrium
(d) not in equilibrium
45. A body satisfies second condition of equilibrium when net is zero.
(a) torque
(b) force
(c) moment
(d) velocity
(e)
46
Physics SSC-I

46. There are states of equilibrium.


(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3

(d) 4
47. A body is said to be in if after slightly tilt it returns to its previous position.
(a) neutral equilibrium
(b) stable equilibrium
(c) unstable equilibrium
(d) none of these
48. A body is said to be in if after slightly tilt it does not return to its previous
position.
(a) neutral equilibrium
(b) stable equilibrium
(c) unstable equilibrium
(d) none of these
49. If a body remains in its new position when disturbed from its previous position, then it is
in the state of .
(a) neutral equilibrium
(b) stable equilibrium
(c) unstable equilibrium
(d) none of these
50. In stable equilibrium centre of gravity is at .
(a) lowest position
(b) highest position
(c) centre
(d) remains same
51. In unstable equilibrium centre of gravity is at .
(a) lowest position
(b) highest position
(c) centre
(d) remains same
52. In neutral equilibrium centre of gravity is at .
(a) lowest position

47
Physics SSC-I

(b) highest position


(c) centre
(d) remains same
53. Book lying on a table is an example of equilibrium.
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) neutral
(d) no one of these
54. Motion of a ball on the ground is an example of .
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) neutral
(d) no one of these
55. A pencil is balanced at its tip is an example of .
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) neutral
(d) no one of these
56. A body is if the some of clockwise moments is equal to sum of
anticlockwise moments.
(a) rigid
(b) balanced
(c) unbalanced
(d) flexible
57. The height of racing car is kept to .
(a) increase its weight
(b) to increase centre of gravity
(c) lower the centre of gravity
(d) decrease its width
58. Lower the centre of gravity of an object always .
(a) increases its stability
(b) increasing instability
(c) increases acceleration
(d) decreases acceleration
59. The steering of a car has a radius 20 cm, the torque produced by a couple of 60 N is:
48
Physics SSC-I

(a) 12 Nm
(b) 1200 Nm
(c) 24 Nm
(d) 240 Nm
60. A force of 10N makes an angle of 90° with x-axis. Its horizontal component will be:
(a) 10 N
(b) 5 N
(c) 9 N
(d) 90 N
61. In right angled triangle the length of base is 4 cm and perpendicular is 3 cm , then the
length of its hypotenuse:
(a) 5 m
(b) 25 m
(c) 5 cm
(d) 25 cm
62. A ceiling fan rotating at constant speed is in equilibrium as net acting on it is
zero.
(a) speed
(b) displacement
(c) torque
(d) couple

49
Physics SSC-I

Chapter 5 Gravitation

1. The first man who came up with the idea of gravity was .
(a) Einstein
(b) Galileo
(c) Issac Newton
(d) Archimedes
2. A force due to which everybody of the universe attracts every other body is called:
(a) Magnetic force
(b) gravitational force
(c) electric force
(d) coulomb force

3. Gravitational force of attraction between two objects is measured by:


(a)
(Km1m2)/d2
(b) (Km1m2)/d
(c) (Gm1m2)/d
(d) (Gm1m2)/d2
4. Force of gravitation is inversely proportional to .
(a) square of distance
(b) square of distance
(c) mass
(d) distance
5. Gravitational force is directly proportional to .
(a) mass
(b) product of masses
(c) product of distance
(d) distance
6. If the distance between two masses is halved then the force of gravitation becomes .
(a) doubled
(b) one fourth
(c) four times
(d) half
7. If the product of masses is doubled then the force of gravitation becomes _.
(a) doubled

50
Physics SSC-I

(b) one fourth


(c) four times
(d) half
8. In SI units the value of gravitational constant G is .
(a) 6.673 × 1011 Nm2 kg-2
(b) 6.673 × 1011 Nm-2 kg-2
(c) 6.673 × 10-11 Nm-2 kg-2
(d) 6.673 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2
9. Law of gravitation is consistent with .
(a) law of conservation of momentum
(b) law of conservation of energy
(c) Newton’s 3rd law of motion
(d) law of electromagnetism
10. Gravitational force of attraction between two objects is not felt by us because of:
(a) large masses
(b) large value of G
(c) small masses
(d) none of these
11. The value of G on moon is .
(a) increased
(b) decreased
(c) changed
(d) unchanged
12. The velocity of body thrown up is .
(a) increasing
(b) decreasing
(c) constant
(d) none of these
13. Gravitational force per unit mass is known as .

(a) gravitational field


(b) field force
(c) gravitational field strength
(d) gravitational potential energy

51
Physics SSC-I

14. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of moon is 1.62 ms-1. The radius of moon
is 1740 km. is the mass of moon.
22
(a) 7.35x10 kg
(b) 9.35x1022kg
(c) 9.35x10-22kg
(d) 7.35x10-22kg
15. SI unit of gravitational field strength is .
(a) -1
Nkg
(b)
ms-2
(c) same as unit of acceleration
(d) all of them
16. If mass of a body on the surface on earth is m, then its weight on the surface on moon is
,if value g on moon is 1.62 ms-2.
(a) 1.62 m
(b) 160 m
(c) 1600 m
(d) 0.16 m
17. If weight of a body on the surface of earth is B. Its weight on the moon will be .
(a) 4 B
(b) 6 B
(c) 1/4 B
(d) 1/6 B
18. An object is placed at height three earth radius the value of g at that height will be:
(a) 16 g
(b) 1/16 g
(c) 1/4 g
(d) 1/9 g
19. Mass of the earth is calculated by the formula:
(a) R2 G/ g
(b) R2 g/ G
(c) Rg2/ G
(d) Rg/ G
20. Gravitational force on the surface of earth is equal to .
(a) W
(b) G
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Physics SSC-I

(c) g
(d) none of these
21. If mass of two bodies is 2 kg and distance between their centers is 1 m, then he
gravitational force between them is .
(a) G
(b) 4 G
(c) 2 G
(d) 8 G
22. The height of geostationary satellite is about from the surface of the earth.
(a) 42,300m
(b) 42,300 km
(c) 43,200 km

(d) 43,200 m
23. GPS consists of earth satellites.
(a) 30
(b) 25
(c) 27
(d) 24
24. GPS satellites revolve around the earth in a day.
(a) 2 times
(b) 3 times
(c) 4 times
(d) one time
25. The speed of GPS satellite is .
(a) 3.78 kms-1
(b) 3.87 kms-1
(c) 3.78 kms-2
(d) 3.87 kms-2
26. Moon is nearly away from the earth.
(a) 3,8000 km
(b) 380 Mm
(c) 3800 km
(d) 3,800000 km

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27. Moon completes its one revolution around the earth in .


(a) 655.2 hour
(b) 3.93 × 104 min
(c) 2.35 × 106 s
(d) all of them
28. Relative velocity of geostationary satellite with respect to earth is .
(a) -1
8 kms
(b)
9.8 kms-1
(c) zero
(d)
29 kms-1
29. The orbital speed of a low orbit satellite is .
(a) -2
8 kms
(b) zero
(c) 8000 kms-1
(d) 29000 kmh-1
30. Mass of the earth is measured by:
(a) Rg2 /G
(b) R2G/g
(c) R2g/G
(d) RG2/g
31. Mass of earth is .
(a) 6 × 1024 kg
(b) 6 × 106 kg
(c) 6.4× 1024 kg
(d) 6 × 1014 kg
32. The value of gravitational field strength on the surface of moon is .
(a) -2
10 Nkg
(b) 10 Nkg-1
(c) infinity
(d) zero

33. The orbital speed of a satellite revolving very close to the earth is .
(a) √ gh(R+h)
(b) √ g R
(c) √ gh(Rh)

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(d) √ ghR
34. A satellite revolves around the earth due to .
(a) Centrifugal force
(b) electrostatic force
(c) Coulomb force
(d) gravitational force
35. The value of g would become one ninth than on the surface of the earth at altitude
.
(a) 2 R
(b) 4 R
(c) R
(d) 3 R
36. The gravitational force on the surface of the earth is equal to .
(a) 9.81 m/s2
(b) 32.2 ft/s2
(c) 980.665 cm/s2
(d) all of them

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UNIT: 06 Work and energy

1. One kilo joule is equal to .


A. 10 J
B. 100 J
C. 1000 J
D. 10000 J
2. The work will be maximums when angle between force and displacement is.
A. 45°
B. 0°
C. 90°
D. 180°
3. Capability to do work of a body is called .
A. Energy
B. Power
C. Torque
D. Momentum
4. Energy stored in a Dam‟s water is .
A. Electrical Energy
B. Kinetic Energy
C. Potential Energy

D. Thermal Energy

5. In Einstein‟s mass-energy equation, “c” is the .


A. Speed of sound

B. Speed of light
C. Speed of earth
D. Speed of electro
6. 10 Joule work is done by machine in 5 seconds. Its power will be .
A. 2W
B. 10 W
C. 25 W
D. 50 W

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7. One mega joule is equal to


A. 10¹ J
B. 10⁶J
C. 10⁹ J
C. 10-3J
8. SI unit of work is .
A. Pascal
B. Newton
C. Joule
D. Watt
9. If the velocity of a body becomes two times greater, then Kinetic Energy will
be .
A. Remain the same
B. Become double
C. Become four times
D. Become half
10. Hammer raised up has energy .
A. P.E
B. K.E
C. Sound Energy
D. Heat Energy
11. There is a hot molten part; deep in the Earth is called .
A. Lava
B. Magma
C. Mixture
D. Plasma
12. Rate of doing work is called .
A. Energy
B. Torque
C. Power
D. Momentum
13. The work will be zero when the angle between the force and displacement
is .
A. 45°
B. 0°
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C. 90°

D. 180°

14. One Joule is equal to


𝟏𝐍
A. 𝟏𝐦

B. 1N x 1m
1𝑚
C.
1𝑁

1𝑁²
D.
1𝑚²

15. Kinetic energy is directly proportional to the velocity of a body .


A. Square
B. Two times
C. Three times
D. Four times
16. The energy stored in coal is .
A. Nuclear Energy
B. Heat Energy
C. Chemical Energy
D. Electrical Energy
17. The efficiency of solar cell is_ .
A. 3%
B. 6%
C. 8%
D. 12%
18. One horse power is equal to .
A. 764 W
B. 746 W
C. 100 W
D. 1100 W
19. Power is equal to .
A. 𝑊⨯𝑇
B. 𝑊

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𝑡²
𝑊²
C.
𝑡

D. 𝑾

20. The work done lifting a brick of mass 2 kg through a height of 5 m above the
ground will be .
A. 2.5 J
B. 10 J
C. 50 J
D. 100 J
21. The energy in the stretched bow is .
A. Elastic Potential Energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Heat energy
D. Sound energ
22. The device converts light energy into electrical energy
A. Electric bulb
B. Electric generator
C. Photocell
D. Electric cell
23. The efficiency percentage of an electric lamp is .
A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 10%
D. 5%
24. One mega-watt is equal to .
A. 10²W
B. 10⁴W
C. 10⁶W
D. 10⁸W
25. The SI unit of energy is .
A. Newton
B. Joule
C. Meter

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D. Second
26. The formula of K-E is .
𝑚𝑣²
A.
𝑟

B. mgh
C. mv

D. 𝟏 𝒎𝒗²
𝟐

27. The formula of P.E is .


A. P.E = mah
B. P.E = mgh
C. P.E = mg/h
D. P.E = mg
28. The major source of heat energy is .
A. The earth
B. Fossils fuel
C. The sun
D. Nuclear fuels
29. The types of mechanical energy are
A. 10
B. 8
C. 2
D. 4
30. Work is a quantity.
A. Scalar
B. Vector
C. Base
D. None of above
31. Decrease in P.E is equal to .
A. Increase in K.E
B. Decrease in K.E
C. No effect
D. either A or B
32. For maintaining the body temperature energy is used.
A. Heat
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B. Electrical
C. Chemical
D. Mechanical
33. For the propagation of signals in our body energy is used.
A. Heat
B. Electrical
C. Chemical
D. Mechanical
34. Total energy of the system .
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains same
D. All above
35. For the movement of our body energy is used.
A. Heat
B. Electrical
C. Chemical
D. Mechanica
36. Energy is a quantity.
A. Scalar
B. Vector
C. Base
D. None of above
37. The potential energy at ground level is taken to be
A. Maximum
B. Zero
C. mgh
C. None of these
38. SI unit of work is .
A. Pascal
B. Newton
C. Joule
D. Watt
39. If the mass of a body becomes Doubled, then Kinetic Energy will be .
A. Remain the same
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B. Become double
C. Become four times
D. Become half
40. Decrease in K.E is equal to .
A. Increase in P.E
B. Decrease in P.E
C. No effect
D. either A or B
41. When a ball is lifted to a height „h‟ from ground it possesses energy.
A. K.E
B. Gravitational potential
C. Elastic potential
D. Mechanical
42. A bowler during playing cricket throws a ball of mass 200g with 20ms-1 velocity
has K.E?
A. 4J
B. 40 J
C. 400 J
D. 4000 J
43. For work conditions should be fulfilled?
A 1
B. 2

C. 3
D. 4
44. Which unit is equal to kgms2s-2 in the units given below?
A. Joule
B. Newton
C. Watt
D. Meter
45. How much power is used by 40kg athlete by climbing 10m high ladder in 10s.
A. 4 W
B. 40 W
C. 400 W
D. 4000 W

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46. When a spring is compressed, it possesses energy.


A. Sound
B. Heat
C. Kinetic
D. Elastic potential
47. If a person exerts force which causes a car to move forward, then this is an
example of .
A. Power
B. Efficiency
C. work done
D. Rotatory motion
48. The potential energy of freely falling body .
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains constant
D. is zero
49. The product of force and moment arm is .
A. Work
B. Power
C. Energy
D. None of these
50. Work done will be if no force acts on the body.
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. All of above
51. What is the kinetic energy of pendulum when it reaches at the maximum position
?
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Constant
D. Zero
52. When the force and displacement are in the opposite direction then the work is
?
A. Positive
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B. Negative
C. Zero
D. None of these
53. The efficiency percentage of an electric motor is .
A. 80%
B. 50%
C. 10%
D. 5%
54. The useful work done by an electric fan is .
A. 25 J
B. 50 J
C. 55 J
D. 80 J
55. If the kinetic energy of a 200 Kg object is 10,000 then the velocity of object will
be .
A. 0.01 m/s
B. 0.02 m/s
C. 10 m/s
D. 100 m/s
56. A car travels 150m distance in the direction of a constant force of 50 N. The
work done on the car is _ .
A. 3 J
B. 100 J
C. 200 J
D. 7500 J
57. Kwh is unit for .
A. Energy
B. Power
C. Work
D. Efficiency
58. The potential energy of the system in the state of unstable equilibrium is
.
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C.
kx2

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D. Zero
59. Which of the following is not unit of energy ?
A. Calorie
B. Joule
C. Electron volt
D. Watt
60. Two electrons bought closer together. The potential energy of the system will
be
A. Zero
B. less
C. More
D. Infinity

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Unit: 07 Properties of Matter

1. Water exists in the form of .


A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Gas
D. Plasma
2. Molecules are closely packed in.
A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Gas
D. Plasma
3. Gases have .
A. No fixed shape
B. No fixed volume
C. Fixed shape
D. Both A and B
4. Force acting on unit area of an object is called .
A. Strain
B. young modulus
C. Pressure

D. Elasticity

5. Particles move randomly in .


A. Solids
B. Gases
C. liquid
D. Plasma
6. Principal of floatation helps us to find .
A. Density
B. Velocity
C. Area
D. Pressur
7. The density of mercury in kgm3 is .
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 6000
D. 13500
8. The unit of strain is .
A. Kg m3
B. Pa
C. Nm-2
D. None
9. Youngs modulus is measured in unit of .
A. Kg m3
B. Pa
C. Nm-2
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D. None
10. Pressure at depth in fluids .
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. stay same
D. None of these
11. Plasma is a .
A. Good conductor
B. Bad conductor
C. Semiconductor
D. non conductor
12. The density of water is .
A. 1000 kgm-3
B.
1000 kgm3
C.
800 kgm3
D.
900 kgm3

13. The ratio of mass to that of volume is called .


A. Pressure
B. Up thrust
C. Density
D. Atmospheric pressure
14. The SI unit of density is
A. kgm-3
B. Pa
C. kgm3
D. Nm
15. The density of air in the atmosphere is .
A. Uniform
B. Not uniform
C. Zero
D. Infinity
16. Which of the following material is more elastic .
A. Iron
B. Rubber
C. Steel
D. Woods
17. When a wire is stretched to double in length, the longitudinal strain produced in
it is .
A 0.5
B. 1.0
C. 1.5
D. 2.0
18. A brittle material has .
A. No elastic zone
B. No plastic zone
C. large plastic zone
D. None of these
19. Young modulus of ruber is .

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A. 110
B. 190
C. 0.0007
D. 1
20. The young‟s modulus for elongation compression is .
A. Zero
B. Equal
C. Not equal
D. None
21. limit of proportionality depends upon .
A. Area of cross section
B. Type of loading
C. Type of material
D. All of these

22. According to Hooke‟s law, the stress and strain are


A. Zero
B. Constant
C. Directly proportional
D. Inversely proportional
23. if stress produce a change in the length of an object, then the strain is called
.
A. Elasticity
B. Young modulus
C. Elastic limit
D. Tensile strain
24. Plasma exists in .
A. Energy savers
B. Neon tubes
C. Fluorescent tubes
D. Both (b) and (c)
25. The fourth state of matter is .
A. Conductors
B. Insulators
C. Plasma
D. Both B and C
26. The highly conducting state of matter is called .
A. Conductors
B. Insulators
C. Liquid
D. Plasma
27. In which, gases exist in their ionic state .
A. Sun
B. Stone
C. Moon
D. None of these
28. Which state of matter is much lighter ?
A. Liquid
B. Solid
C. Gas
D. None of these
E.
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29. Which of the solid does not possess the fixed shape and volume
A. Stone
B. Metal spoon
C. Pencil
D. Amorphous solid
30. 1000Kg m-3 is equal to.
A. 1kg cm3
B. 1kg cm-3
C. 1g cm-3
D. 1g cm3

31. one liter (1L)is equal to .


A. 1m-3
B. 10-3 m-3
C. 10-3 m3
D. None of these
32. To know that iron is heavier than wood. we compare
A. Density
B. Volume
C. Pressure
D. All above
33. Specific volume is the inverse of.
A. Volume
B. Pressure
C. Density
D. Flow rate
34. Mass that a cube contains is 40gm and having side length of 1cm. what is the
density of the material inside the cube 40gm/cm3.
A. 40gm/cm3
B. 20gm/cm3
C. 10gm/cm3
D. none of these
35. When the gas molecules collide with each other and with the walls of the
container, they develop.
A. Vacuum
B. Pressure
C. Force
D. Density
36. The SI unit of pressure is.
A. Nm2
B. Nm-2
C. Ns
D. Js-1
37. The quantity that depends upon the force and increases with decreases in the
area on which force is acting is called
A. Pressure
B. Density
C. Volume
C. All of these
38. With increase in the weight of an object the pressure will be .
A. Increases
B. Decreases
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C. Remain unchanged
D. None of these

39. To increase pressure .


A. Area of contact is increased
B. Area of contact is decreased
C. magnitude of thrust is decreased
D. None of these
40. What should be the approximate length of a glass tube to construct a water
barometer?
A. 11m
B. 10m
C. 1m
D. 2.5m
41. Pressure is a quantity.
A. Scalar
B. Vector
C. Base
D. All above
42. . A body apply a force of 75 N having area 1.5cm2, what will be the pressure on
the body?
A. 5 x 105 Nm
B. 5Nm
C. 500Nm
D. 15Nm
43. If a balloon is inflation more than its capacity, it will burst because of .
A. Increase in temperature
B. Increase in volume
C. Increase in density
D. Increase in pressure
44. At a height of 30 km, atmospheric pressure becomes equal to?
A. 101325 Pa
B. 101300 Pa
C. 1000 Pa
D. 10000 Pa
45. Pressure of 76cm of mercury column is Pa.
A. 10,300
B. 13,100
C. 101,100
D. 101,300
46. At sea level, the atmospheric pressure is equal to.
A. 11,300 pa
B. 101,300Nm-2
C. Zero
D. Both a and b
47. The instrument that is used to measure atmospheric pressure are called
.
A. Barometers

B. Thermometer
C. Indicators
D. Lactometers
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48. One of the simplest barometer is .


A. Hydrogen barometer
B. Mercury barometer
C. Alcohol barometer
D. Water barometer
49. the length of glass tube required to make a water barometer is .
A. 10m
B. Less than 10m
C. More than 10
D. 13.6
50. Mercury is times denser than water.
A. 6.3
B. 7.3
C. 13.6
D. 15.6
51. The atmospheric pressure on mountain is ?
A. Equal to sea level
B. Zero
C. less than at sea level
D. More than at sea level
52. Atmospheric pressure becomes zero at an altitude of .
A. 500km
B. 1000Km
C. 1500Km
D. Where there is no air
53. Atmospheric pressure may indicate a change in the .
A. Mass
B. Weight
C. Density
D. Weather
54. Pressure in liquids is given by .
A. pgh
B. pgV
C. pAh
D. None
55. Pressure applied at any point of liquid enclosed in a container, is transmitted
without any loss to all other parts of liquid is law.
A. Archimedes
B. Pascal's
C. Hooke's
D. None of these

56. Hydraulic press is a machine which works on law.


A. Archimedes
B. Pascal's
C. Hooke's
D. None of these
57. Acid meter is used to measure .
A. Concentration of acid
B. Concentration of base
C. Both a & b
D. None
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58. Pascals law holds good for ?


A. Solids
B. Liquids
C. Gases
D. Fluid
59. The application of Pascal‟s law is .
A. Hydraulic press
B. Hydraulic jack
C. Hydraulic press
D. All above
60. Hydraulic systems are also known as .
A. Force multipliers
B. force Double
C. Hydraulic press
D. All above

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UNIT: 08
Thermal Properties of Matter
1. The degree of hotness and coldness of the body is called .
A. Temperature
B. Heat
C. Internal energy
D. Mechanical energy
2. The candle flame is hot and is said to be at.
A. Low temperature
B. High temp
C. Absolute temp
D. Zero temperature
3. Ice is basically cold and is said to be at .
A. Highest temp
B. Minimum temp
C. Absolute temp
D. Lowest temp

4. A simple way to know, how much a body is hot or cold is .


A. Sense of touch
B. thermometer
C. Thermostat
D. setback state
5. The temperature sense is somewhat approximation and unreliable is by .
A. Sense of touch
B. thermometer
C. Thermostat
D. setback state
6. When we place a cup of hot tea/water in a room it cools down .
A. Gradually
B. Rapidly
C. Suddenly
D. Abruptly
7. The crocus flower is a .
A. Natural thermometer
B. Artificial thermometer

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C. synthetic thermometer
D. Charged thermometer
8. The form of energy that is transferred from one body to other in thermal contact
with each other because of the difference of temperature between them is called
.
A. Temperature
B. Sound
C. Light
D. Heat
9. Heat is also called as .
A. Energy in transformation
B. Energy in transferred
C. Energy in transit
D. Energy in bodies
10. Internal energy does not depend upon .
A. Mass
B. K.E
C. P.E
D. Charge
11. The device that is used to measure the temperature of the body is called
.
A. Thermometer
B. Voltmeter
C. Barometer
D. All above
12. Which of the following property does not hold by a thermometer liquid?
A. Should be visible

B. have uniform thermal expansion


C. Should have a low freezing point
D. should have a low boiling point
13. Which of the following liquid is most suitable for the liquid in glass
thermometer ?
A. Silver
B. Gold
C. Mercury
D. water
14. Mercury in glass thermometers is used widely in
A. Houses
B. Laboratories
C. Hospitals
D. All the above places
15. Mercury in glass thermometer measures temperature in the range from
.
A. 100 C to 1500 C
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B. -100 C to -1500 C
C. -100 C to 1500 C
D. 100 C to -1500 C
16. The temperature of the body in contact with the thermometer can be read on.
A. Chart
B. Scale

C. Dial

D. Hook

17. There are commonly used temperature scales .


A Two

B. Three

C. Four

D. Five

18. On Celsius scale lower fixed point is marked as .


A. 00C

B. 100C

C. 150C

D. 1000C

19. On Celsius scale Upper fixed point is marked as .


A. 00C

B. 100C

C. 150C

D. 1000C

20. In SI units the unit of temp is .


A. C

B. K

C. F

D. degree

21. Generally, when a body is heated its temperature .


A. Does not change

B. decreases

C. Increases

D. Remains same

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22. In the equation of ∆Q = mc ∆T, ∆Q is the amount of heat absorbed by the body
and c is the
A. Specific heat capacity

B. Specific sound capacity


C. Enthalpy of reaction

D. Internal energy

23. In SI unit mass is measured in Kg and heat is measured in .


A. K

B. F

C. J

D. Pa

24. The cooling system of automobiles uses water to carry away .


A. Unwanted thermal energy

B. wanted thermal energy

C. Wanted sound energy


D. Unwanted sound energy

25. Water circulating around the engine .


A. Maintained its temp

B. varies its temp

C. Increases its temp

D. deceases its temp

26. When a substance is changed from its solid state to liquid state by adding heat
the process is called .
A. Melting

B. Fusion

C. Freezing

D. a & b both

27. When a liquid is cooled it changes into solid state, the Tempe at which a
substance changes from liquid to solid state is called its
.
A. Fusion point

B. melting point

C. freezing point

D. boiling point
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28. When water is heated it boils at 100 deg C under .


A. Low pressure

B. High pressure

C. Standard pressure
D. Constant pressure

29. The temp at which a solid start melting is called


A. Melting or fusion point

B. Melting or boiling point

C. fusion or boiling point

D. freezing or boiling point

30. Fast moving molecules escape out from the surface of water and goes into the
atmosphere, this called .
A. Fusion

B. Evaporation

C. Condensation

D. Vaporization

31. Change of a liquid into vapours from the surface of the liquid without heating it is
called as .
A. Evaporation

B. Vaporization

C. Condensation

D. Fusion

32. Unlike boiling evaporation takes place at


A. All temp

B. High temp

C. Low temp

D. fixed temp

33. Evaporation of perspiration helps to.


A. Warms our body

B. cool our body

C. Hot our bodies

D. Heat our bodies

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34. The rate of evaporation is not affected by the factor.


A. Temperature

B. Surface area
C. Wind

D. Types of container

35. Water evaporates faster when.


A. Small area space

B. Spread over large area

C. either A or B

D. None of these

36. Wind blowing over the surface of a liquid sweeps away the liquid molecules that.
A. Have just escaped out

B. have already escaped out

C. have not escaped out

D. have placed at bottom

37. Cooling is produced in refrigerator by evaporation of a


A. Gas into liquid

B. liquid into gas

C. gas into gas

D. liquid into liquid

38. Freon, a CFC, was used as a .


A. Refrigerant liquid

B. Refrigerant solid

C. Refrigerant gas

D. Refrigerant Plasma

39. Freon gas is harmful in refrigerators and is replaced by .


A. Carbon

B. Ammonia

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Carbon monoxide

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40. Liquid differs in the rate at which they

A. Evaporate

B. Flow

C. solidify
D. All of these

41. If the temperature of a pizza is 75 degrees, then its temperature in Fahrenheit


scale will be .
A. 23.89℉

B. 73.69℉

C. 𝟏𝟔𝟕℉

D. 348℉

42. . The boiling point of water is


A. 0℃

B. 32℉

C. 212K

D. 100℃

43. Which one has low freezing point?


A. water

B. mercury

C. wax

D. alcohol

44. The freezing point of water is .


A. 0℃

B. 32℉

C. 273K

D. All of them

45. The triple point of water is .


A. 273K

B. 0K

C. 273.16 K

D. 0℃

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46. 𝛽 = _ .
A. 𝛼

B. 3𝜶

C. 2 𝛼
D. 5𝛼

47. Heat is a type of energy.


A. Kinetic

B. Potential

C. Mechanical

D. None of these

48. Linear expansion of a rod occurs along dimension.


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

49. All bodies expand on heating.


A. Variable

B. Constantly

C. Uniformly

D. all of them

50. If the temperature of hot pot is 125℃, then its temperature in kelvin will
be .
A. 148K

B. 225K

C. 257K

D. 398K

51. In the change of state of matter, temperature .


A. Remains constant

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. depends on mass

52. Ice is a (an) .


A. Good conductor

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B. Bad conductor

C. Perfect conductor

D. None of these

53. SI unit of Coefficient of linear & volume expansion is .


A. m

B. K

C. K-1

D. ℃
54.
Specific heat of water is .
A. 2100 JKg-1K-1

B. 2500 JKg-1K-1

C. 3200 JKg-1K-1

D. 4200 JKg-1K-1

55. Which of the following is the poorest conductor of heat energy?


A. Air

B. brass

C. a vacuum

D. Water

56. Density of water is maximum at .


A. 0℃

B. 4℃

C. 40℃

D. 100℃

57. The coefficient of volumetric expansion with respect to coefficient of linear


expansion is .
A. 1/2

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

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58. The absolute zero is the temperature at which .


A. Water freezes

B. All substances exist in solid state

C. molecular motion ceases

D. None
E. The reference point in modern thermometry is .Steam point

F. boiling point

G. triple point of water

H. freezing point of water

59. The temperature, which is the same in ℃ and ℉, is .


A. -20

B. 20

C. -40

D. 40

60. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1kg of water by 1 K
is .
A. 1J

B. 400 J

C. 310 J

D. 4190 J

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Chapter 9

Transfer of Heat

1. There are ways by which transfer of heat takes place.


(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
2. is transferred from a hot body to a cold body in the form of heat.
(a) heat capacity
(b) temperature
(c) specific heat
(d) thermal energy
3. The mode of transfer of heat from hot to cold parts of a body by vibrating atoms and free
electron is known as .
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) all of them
4. Glass is a .
(a) good conductor
(b) bad conductor
(c) perfect conductor
(d) none of these

5. The amount of heat that flows in unit is called rate of flow of heat.
(a) mass
(b) time
(c) length
(d) none of these
6. Rate of flow of heat depends upon .
(a) Cross- sectional area of solid
(b) length of solid
(c) Temperature difference between ends of solid
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(d) all of them


7. SI unit of heat is .
(a) kilogram
(b) candela
(c) joule
(d) kelvin
8. The amount of heat that flows per unit time through a unit area with a temperature
gradient of one degree per unit distance is called .
(a) heat capacity
(b) specific heat
(c) thermal conductivity
(d) thermal energy
9. SI unit of thermal conductivity is .
(a)
Jkg-1K-1
(b) Wm-1K-1
(c)
JK-1
(d)
WmK-1
10. Water is of heat.
(a) poor conductor
(b) good conductor
(c) perfect conductor
(d) super conductor
11. Mode of transfer of heat by actual movement of molecules from hot to cold place is
called .
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) all of them
12. Which of the following is bad conductor of heat?
(a) refrigerator
(b) boiler
(c) condenser
(d) feather of birds
13. A process in which heated fluid expends, rises up and become less dense is called
.
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(a) convection current


(b) conduction
(c) radiation
(d) thermals
14. Land and sea breezes are result of .
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) both (b) and (c)
15. Movement of water on heating is known as .
(a) Potassium permanganate
(b) sodium chloride
(c) calcium carbonate
(d) potassium chloride
16. Rising currents of hot air are called .
(a) convection current
(b) conduction
(c) radiation
(d) thermals
17. Mode of transfer of heat from one place to another in the form of waves is known as:
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) none of these
18. Heat from fireplace directly reaches us by .
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) none of these
19. Rate of emission of radiations depends upon .
(a) surface temperature
(b) colour and texture of the surface
(c) surface area
(d) all of them

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20. Large number of slots is made in radiators to .


(a) increase their surface area
(b) to minimize their surface area
(c) decrease their volume
(d) none of them
21. Dull black surface are emitter.
(a) good
(b) bad
(c) worst
(d) best
22. Coloured surfaces are reflector.
(a) good
(b) bad
(c) worst
(d) best
23. White surfaces are emitter.
(a) good
(b) bad
(c) worst
(d) best
24. Shining silvered surface is absorber.
(a) good
(b) bad
(c) worst

(d) best
25. The gases in the earth‟s atmosphere, which causes the green house effect:
(a) water vapors
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) nitrogen
(d) both (a) & (b)
26. Global warming is due to .
(a) Green house effect
(b) radiation
(c) land and sea breezes

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(d) both (a) and (b)


27. On hot day, the temperature of land increases more quickly than sea, its because of
.
(a) heat capacity
(b) less specific heat of water
(c) less specific heat of sand
(d) none of these
28. The bottoms of cooking pots are made black to the absorption of heat
from fire.
(a) lowered
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) both (a) & (b)
29. used upward movement of hot air current due to convection of heat.
(a) hot air balloon
(b) gliders
(c) land and sea breeze
(d) all of them
30. Ventilation in our houses is only possible due to .
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) all of them

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